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Learning Events At BCAS

1. BCAS Jointly with TAASI Presents: A 2-Day Knowledge Symposium & Summit held on Friday, 15th May 2026 to Saturday, 16th May 2026 @ Residency Towers, Avinashi Road, Coimbatore.

As part of its outreach initiative, the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, in collaboration with The Auditors’ Association of Southern India (TAASI), organized a two-day conference in Coimbatore, attended by over 100 participants. The program was thoughtfully designed to meet the specific needs of industry professionals and practicing members in the region.

The conference opened with a welcome address by CA Zubin Billimoria and CA S. Venkatesh, Presidents of the two organisations, followed by a keynote address by CA G. Ramaswamy, former President of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. In his address, he underscored the importance of continuous professional learning, ethical governance, and financial discipline in today’s rapidly evolving business environment.

The first technical session, titled “Preparation for an IPO,” was delivered by Adv. Manan Lahoty along with Ms. Janhavi Manohar and covered the key preparatory steps involved in an IPO, including timelines, promoter identification, estate planning, corporate restructuring, board constitution, due diligence, and financial readiness. The session also explained the distinction between public and confidential filing frameworks and discussed how companies can assess and strengthen their IPO preparedness.

This was followed by a presentation by Mr. Jinesh Doshi on IPO valuation, viewed as a strategic exercise in sustainable wealth creation rather than a mere fundraising event. He highlighted the role of valuation, pricing discipline, governance quality, and investor confidence in ensuring long-term IPO success, while cautioning against aggressive pricing and weak post-listing performance.
The session on succession planning through private trusts was presented by CA Paresh P. Shah, who outlined the objectives, structures, and advantages of private family trusts as compared with wills, gifts, HUFs, and family arrangements. He also covered key legal and tax considerations under the Indian Trusts Act, the Income-tax Acts of 1961 and 2025, FEMA, and relevant international aspects, including the taxation of determinate and discretionary trusts, stamp duty, anti-avoidance rules, and an offshore trust case study.

On the second day, a Tax Summit was held, during which five speakers addressed the delegates on various topics relating to direct and indirect taxation. CA Raghavender Kuncharapu spoke on the practical issues surrounding e-way bills and the movement of goods under GST, including detention, interception, documentation checks, route and vehicle changes, and the response strategy under Sections 68, 129, and 130.

This was followed by Taxation Bytes, where CA Abhinav Venkatesh presented a detailed overview of the minimum alternate tax framework under the Income Tax Act, 2025, covering applicability, tax rates, book profit computation, MAT credit, filing requirements, and key amendments and judicial precedents. CA V. Venkatram then examined the GST treatment of OIDAR services, intermediary services, and electronic commerce, with emphasis on place of supply, time of supply, registration, recipient-side compliance, and the evolving jurisprudence in cross-border digital transactions.

The summit also featured a session on the tax and FEMA implications of cross-border remittances, presented by Dr. CA Mayur B. Nayak, who discussed TDS on payments to non-residents, Form 15CA/15CB and Form 145/146 compliance, LRS limits, overseas direct investment, and the treatment of foreign assets and business remittances under FEMA. The conference concluded with an interactive session by CA Sunil Gabhawalla on input tax credit under GST, including eligibility conditions, matching and reversal rules, blocked credits, fake invoicing concerns, ISD and cross-charge issues, and important judicial precedents.

2. Special Session for under privileged students by BCAS Foundation. 28th April 2026

BCAS Foundation has taken up a number of activities to contribute to the society in many different ways. One such activity was undertaken by the BCAS Foundation at the request of Rangoonwala Foundation (India) Trust, to empower youths in Mumbai’s slum areas. Rangoonwala Foundation (India) Trust is running a number of centres in different parts of Mumbai bastis to empower women, children and you ths belonging to the marginalised sections of the society through various activities. The sessions were held at the training centre of the Rangoonwala Foundation (India) Trust at Jogeshwari (East) on Tuesday, 28th April, 2026.

Dr CA Mayur Nayak, conducted a special session on “Goal Setting and Overcoming Failure“. He motivated youths to set goals in life, think big, be positive and develop a strong mindset to overcome failures and challenges of life. Youths were inspired and engaged actively through practical examples, motivational stories and attractive PowerPoint presentation.

The session on “Grooming & Personality Development” was conducted by CA Mihir Sheth. The idea was to give the students orientation on importance of grooming and how it can help them transform into a well- rounded personality to succeed in real world. The workshop was conducted with practical life examples which helped students to learn about grooming externally and internally too, through practical exercises, activities, videos to make them future ready. Topics covered were personal hygiene, dressing, communication skill, confidence building, time management, social etiquette, digital etiquette, goal setting etc.

Mr. Namit Vanmali, Key Person in the Leadership Role at the Rangoonwala Foundation (India) Trust facilitated the session.

35 students from 10th to 12th standards enthusiastically participated and interacted with the faculty in this Life Skill session which was a part of the 3 day Yuva Saarathi Workshop.

3. Webinar on IBC Amendment Act, 2026 and Corporate Laws Amendment Bill, 2026 – Key Changes and Practical Implications held on Tuesday, 28th April 2026 @ Virtual.

The Finance, Corporate and Allied Laws Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society organised a webinar on “IBC (Amendment) Act, 2026 and Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 – Key Changes and Practical Implications” in view of the notification of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026 on 6th April 2026 and the proposed Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which are expected to significantly influence the regulatory and compliance landscape. The objective was to familiarise members with the legislative intent and the key practical implications for businesses and stakeholders.

The programme was conducted in two segments. CA Sunil Kumar Bansal discussed the key amendments under the IBC framework, covering critical changes and implications of the same. CS Amita Desai covered the proposed changes under the Corporate Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026, highlighting emerging issues and implications for corporates and professionals.

The webinar received an encouraging response from members across practice and industry. 26 participants enrolled for this webinar from 13+ cities participated in the webinar. Participants appreciated the clarity of explanations and the practical insights shared by the speakers.

Scan to watch online at BCAS Academy

Webinar on IBC Amendment Act, 2026 and Corporate Laws Amendment Bill, 2026

4. BCAS Reading Forum | Inaugural Session held on 21st April 2026 @ BCAS – Hybrid.

BCAS inaugurated the ‘BCAS Reading Forum’ with an interactive session featuring Mr. Shantanu Naidu, author, entrepreneur and founder of ‘Bookies’. The Forum has been initiated with the objective of reviving the BCAS library and creating a community around the idea of reading through discussions, curated conversations and reading-led engagements, centered around the thought – “Read, Discuss, Reflect, Rise!”

The session focused on the role of reading in an increasingly fast-paced and AI-driven world. Shantanu shared his thoughts on how reading helps build empathy, attention, reflection and independent thinking, and why books continue to remain relevant even in an age dominated by digital content and short-form media.
A key takeaway from the discussion was his “50:50 theory”- if one carries a book, there is always a possibility of reading it, whereas not carrying one almost certainly results in replacing reading time with scrolling. He also spoke about the importance of nurturing hobbies, engaging in offline activities and consciously protecting one’s attention span.

Participants were introduced to the idea behind Bookies, a reading movement that encourages silent community reading and meaningful conversations around books. The session also explored how stories, biographies and narrative non-fiction can shape perspectives and influence personal and professional growth.

The launch of the BCAS Reading Forum also marks a renewed focus on the BCAS LIBRARY and its lending facilities. Members and student members are encouraged to explore the Society’s library collection, enroll for the lending facility, borrow books, and become part of a growing reading community at BCAS. In an age of constant scrolling and shrinking attention spans, the Forum seeks to create space for deeper reading, reflection and meaningful conversations.

The event concluded with an engaging interaction with participants, including a rapid-fire segment and audience questions. Several book recommendations were also shared during the session, including Tuesdays with Morrie, A Man Called Otto, The Book Thief, The Old Man and the Sea and A Gentleman in Moscow.

The inaugural session set the tone for the BCAS Reading Forum’s future initiatives aimed at building a sustained culture of reading, discussion and reflective learning within the BCAS community. Watch this space for more reading-led conversations and community engagements.

Scan to watch online at YouTube

BCAS Reading Forum

5. Webinar on New Income Tax Rules, 2026 – Decoding the New Tax Framework held on Monday, 6th April 2026 @ Virtual.

The Direct Tax committee of BCAS had organised a webinar on the new Income Tax Rules, 2026 in virtual mode to address the new Income Tax Rules 2026 and the allied new forms.

CA Ashok Mehta opened with a structured comparison of the TDS provisions under the Income Tax Act, 1961 vis-à-vis the new Income Tax Act, 2025, covering the revised threshold amounts and applicable rates of deduction. He then walked participants through the changes in applicable forms and due dates, with a focused discussion on the new Forms 145 and 146 governing foreign remittances and international tax provisions. Form 141 and the mandatory TIN requirement for foreign payments were explained in particular depth.

The changes in the salary perquisites valuation like the motor vehicle, education allowance, free meals, gift vouchers, amendments in house rent allowance were discussed as per the new tax provisions. Some practical aspects such as taxation of salary arrears, Form 130 (erstwhile Form 16), and transactions requiring mandatory PAN quoting were also covered.

Lastly, the session concluded with a detailed discussion on the revised Tax Audit form and key changes in the Transfer Pricing report, equipping participants with the clarity needed to maintain requisite records for audit purposes.

The webinar offered a comprehensive and practice-oriented walkthrough of the significant amendments brought in by the new Income Tax Rules, 2026

Scan to watch online at BCAS Academy

Webinar on New Income Tax Rules, 2026

II. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  •  BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

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BCAS News and Media

SN Photos june 2026

30th International Tax and Finance (ITF) Conference

The International Tax Committee of BCAS organized ITF which was attended by nearly 200 delegates, including senior professionals and experts from across the country.

The 4-day Conference commenced with intense group discussion on Paper I – ‘Global Mobility – 360° Perspective on Tax & Regulatory issues’ authored by CA Vishal Gada on Day 1. This was followed by an insightful address by CA Amish Thakkar on ‘AI in International Tax and Finance’ where practical AI tools prepared by him were demonstrated and their application in professional practice was explained. The tax tools were based on topics of the Conference and were shared by the speaker. The first paper writer, CA Vishal Gada, then presented on his paper considering the issues raised in the Group Discussion. The session dealt on several key issues surrounding global mobility with case studies designed to provoke thought and real-life application. Participants appreciated the gamut of issues covered by the faculty with aplomb.

The second day of the conference started with an involved discussion by the groups on Paper II – ‘Taxation of Intellectual Property Rights (incl. Software)’. Considering the milestone event of the 30th edition of this Conference a felicitation ceremony honouring past contributors to the International Tax Conference was held over the past 30 years with personal and video tributes from the pioneers of the ITF Group as well as past Presidents, Chairmen, Coordinators and Faculty. Post the Felicitation Ceremony, under the Chairmanship of Sr. Adv. V. Sridharan Sir, CA Ganesh Rajagopalan dealt with his presentation on the second Group Discussion Paper covering the nuanced issues in his case studies in detail. Blending legal depth with technical precision, the session unpacked the evolving landscape of IP taxation, addressing interpretational challenges. The Chairman provided his succinct comments bringing out the importance of the issues laid out by the Paper-writer. Participants acknowledged the fresh take and deep analysis of the topic which was understood to not have any major controversies now. Post lunch, most of the participants headed for Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga, Ujjain, and all the participants enjoyed the VIP Darshan and seamless arrangements made.

The third day of the conference opened with a highly engaging group discussion on Paper III – ‘Cross-Border Business Model Structuring (including PE issues)’. The discussion was followed by an excellent presentation on ‘Fiscally Transparent Entities’ where CA Geeta Jani. With exceptional clarity, the session demystified complex concepts around fiscally transparent entities, providing the participants with foundational understanding of the various issues surrounding such entities. Post her session, we had a presentation on ‘Transfer Pricing aspects on Intangibles’ by CA Akshay Kenkre. Drawing from his vast experience, he examined the complexities of intangible assets, their valuation, and their treatment under transfer pricing principles. The session, together with the detailed paper on the international tax principles on the same subject, offered the delegates a complete package as far as cross-border tax issues of Intangibles are concerned. The manner in which the presentation was handled made it a pleasure for the participants to glean the technical insights offered. Post lunch we had CA Rashmin Sanghvi, one of the pioneers of the ITF Group, who shared his vision and extensive study on the topic of ‘India @ 2047 : Geopolitics, Changing World Order and India’s place in a De-dollarised Globe.’ It enabled a thought-provoking discussion session that traced the evolution of global economic power structures, offering a compelling perspective on India’s emerging role and the US Dollar’s uncertain future as a global currency.

The concluding day of the conference featured a comprehensive panel discussion on “Cross-Border Business Model Structuring (including PE issues)”, after the Group Discussion held previous day. The session was ably moderated by CA Pranav Sayta with panellists CA Padamchand Khincha and Former CBDT Member Shri Akhilesh Ranjan providing their insights. The panel examined the issues thrown up from the case studies including the practical challenges and interpretational issues that arise in the application of treaty entitlement, the principal purpose test, and GAAR, drawing on judicial perspectives. The discussion brought out the complexities of balancing anti-avoidance principles with legitimate tax planning, while also offering practical insights for professionals advising in cross-border matters. The engaging exchange of views and depth of analysis provided a fitting conclusion to the conference, leaving participants with key takeaways for navigating an evolving international tax landscape.

Overall participants were pleased with the 4-day intellectual fest, in no small part due to the dedicated efforts of Conference Director CA Chintan Shah and Convenors CA Jagat Mehta, CA Mahesh Nayak, under the leadership of Chairman CA Chetan Shah and Co-Chairman CA Rutvik Sanghvi. Notably, this year saw nearly 50% participation from professionals outside Mumbai—an encouraging sign of growing national interest in the conference and its relevance across the country.

The smooth execution of the event was supported by —CA Rajesh Shah, CA Kartik Badiani, CA Mayur Nayak, CA Divya Jokhakar, CA Chaitanya Maheshwari among many other members and the BCAS Events and Admin Team—whose attention to detail and behind-the-scenes commitment ensured a seamless experience for all delegates.

30th ITF Conference

AQPAAS

Government announced a policy to promote Start Ups to encourage businesses based on innovative ideas. In response to this policy, a few intelligent individuals came together to do ‘something’ in the interest of common man.

They felt that there are no good educational institutions. Teaching quality is not up to the mark. There are no facilities for teachers and students. Parents have to bear the hefty fees of coaching classes and external tuitions. The overall performance of the students in various high level examinations is not satisfactory.

They thought of an innovative idea to solve this problem of national importance. They came out with a system called AQPAAS meaning Advance Question Papers And Answer Sheets.

They formed a public limited company with an intention to come out with an IPO as quickly as possible.

They created a network with centres in all taluka places. The procedure for students was simple. A student will have to register at least 4 months prior to any examination in the country. All KYC documents are taken and an absolute confidentiality is maintained. The entire fee is payable at the time of registration.

The promoter directors of the company contacted all Universities, Schools, Colleges, Autonomous bodies and other Institutions all over the country. The professors/teachers who are paper-setters and examiners can also register in confidence. For different levels of exams, different standards of compensation are fixed.

When any question paper for any exam is set, the paper-setter has to hand it over to the corporate
office of the company personally. 50% of his honorarium is paid up front. The balance is paid after the exam. Similarly, the model answer sheets are also created. Students have an option either to get only question papers or both – questions as well as answers. Fee structure differs accordingly.

There are also settings at the concerned printing presses. Police protection is also arranged. For various subjects, there are schemes of Combos packages.

There are a few advanced versions of the scheme. If a student registers his hand writing, then with the help of AI, the answer paper written in his handwriting also can be created in advance. A student has to simply attend at the examination hall and at appropriate time, can hand over the readymade answer sheets to the Supervisor.

There is a further version on which the company is working at present – that is, once you register with them, even your mark sheets and passing certificates also can be created right upto Ph.D.

Like a Tour and Travel Agent, the company arranges for all your admissions, registrations. Even your AI generated clone can attend the school/college or appear for the examinations

The company is in the process of expanding its activities in foreign countries as well.

No wonder that the IPO was oversubscribed 100 times!

Now, the competitors are entering this field. It has a huge potential of employment generation. Everybody is now happy!

However, now all corporates and other employers are evolving a separate and independent system of examination and assessment for the candidates who seek employment with them!

Mera Bharat Mahan!

Statistically Speaking

1. COUNTRIES WITH THE NUMBER OF AI PATENTS

Number of AI patents

2. 49 OF THE WORLD’S 50 HOTTEST CITIES ARE IN INDIA

49 OF THE WORLD'S 50 HOTTEST CITIES ARE IN INDIA

3. REAL GDP GROWTH PROJECTIONS

REAL GDP GROWTH PROJECTIONS

4. COMPARISON OF INDIA AND GLOBAL DIGITAL METRICS

COMPARISON OF INDIA AND GLOBAL DIGITAL METRICS

5. DATA CENTER CAPACITY DISTRIBUTION – % SHARE OF CAPACITY

 

DATA CENTER CAPACITY DISTRIBUTION - % SHARE OF CAPACITY

Regulatory Referencer

I. FEMA

1. RBI withdraws earlier relaxation and restricts ADs from undertaking INR Forex derivative contracts with related parties

RBI has withdrawn the relaxation provided on 1st April 2026 for authorised dealers regarding undertaking INR Forex derivative contracts with related parties. Now Authorised Dealers shall not undertake any foreign exchange derivative contract involving INR with their related parties except for the following:

i. cancellation and rollover of existing contracts; and

ii. transactions undertaken with non-related non-resident users on a back-to-back basis in terms of the Master Direction – Risk Management and Inter-Bank Dealings, dated July 05, 2016, as amended from time to time.

[A.P. (DIR Series ) Circular No. 7, dated 20th April 2026]

2. RBI issues final reporting directions for AD Category-I banks on forex derivatives involving INR by related parties

The Reserve Bank of India had issued the draft directions on ‘Reporting Instructions for Authorised Dealer Category-I Banks’ on February 16, 2026, seeking feedback from market participants, stakeholders and other interested parties. The feedback received has been examined and suitably incorporated in the final directions issued by RBI now. RBI has mandated the AD Category-I banks to report all INR-based Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative deals, including those done abroad by their group entities, to Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) to improve transparency. This includes both types of contracts (deliverable and non-deliverable), but transactions under USD 1 million and certain back-to-back hedging transactions are exempt. Banks must submit key details within 2 working days from the date of the transaction, and reporting must be completed in phases by 2028.

[Press Release dated 27th April 2026 2026-2027/152 and A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 08 dated 27th April 2026]

3. Govt. amends FEM (NDI) Rules, 2019; mandates prior govt. approval for change in beneficial ownership & prescribes reporting norms

Government had earlier amended the Press Note 2 of 2020 which laid down prior permission for FDI received from India’s land-bordering countries (LBCs). These amendments brought in vide Press Note 2 of 2026 and included a definition for ‘beneficial ownership’ as per that prescribed under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 and the Prevention of Money-laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules.

However, the amendment in the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules was awaited. The Government has now notified these amendment rules. The amendments are in line with Press Note 2 of 2026. Please refer to April 2026 issue of the BCAJ for coverage on the same.

[Notification No. S.O. 2174(E) (F. NO. 1/4/2026-EM) Dated 1st May 2026]

4. Govt. amends FEM (Non-debt Instruments) Rules; hikes FDI limit in insurance sector to 100% under automatic route

Government has amended the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules to allow 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the insurance sector via the automatic route, replacing the previous 74% limit. While this facilitates full foreign ownership for insurers, brokers, and intermediaries, investment in the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) remains subject to a 20% cap. Key safeguards require a majority of board directors and key management personnel to be resident Indian citizens. Certain conditions have also been made applicable to foreign investment in LIC.

[Notification No. S.O. 2186(E) (F. NO. 1/5/EM/2019) Dated 2nd May 2026]

5. RBI notifies FEMA (Authorised Persons) Regulations, 2026; discontinues fresh franchisee arrangements for FFMCs

The Reserve Bank of India has issued the Foreign Exchange Management (Authorised Persons) Regulations, 2026, introducing revised norms for entities dealing in foreign exchange and discontinuing fresh licences for Full-Fledged Money Changers (FFMCs). Under the new framework, authorised persons are prohibited from entering any fresh franchisee arrangements, and all existing franchisee arrangements are required to be phased out and discontinued within two years from May 06, 2026. Further, FFMCs/non-bank AD Category II entities are required to submit to the concerned Regional Office of the Reserve Bank a copy of the annual audited balance sheet along with a statutory auditor’s certificate confirming net worth by 31 October each year, and a separate statutory auditor’s certificate certifying annual forex turnover for the relevant financial year by 30 April each year.

[Circular No. A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 09 and Notification No. FEMA 401/2026-RB dated April 30, 2026]

II. IFSCA

1. IFSCA issues 2026 rules for IFSC-Listed Companies on process, disclosures & timelines of rights issue

The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has introduced a detailed framework for rights issues under its Listing Regulations, 2024 bringing much-needed clarity and structure to capital raising in IFSCs. The rules are applicable only to entities listed exclusively in IFSC. The circular provides for key aspects such as eligibility, disclosures, pricing, and timelines. Notably, it mandates dematerialized allotment, enables on-market and off-market renunciation of rights entitlements, and prescribes a minimum subscription period of 7 days. The framework also emphasizes governance requiring prior in-principle approval, detailed disclosures in the letter of offer, and strict post-issue timelines for allotment and refunds.

(Circular F. NO. IFSCA -PLNP/16/2024-Capital Markets dated 22nd April 2026)

2. IFSCA mandates appointment of CISOs, reporting of breach within 6 hour & 24×7 Security Operations w.e.f. 1st April 2026

IFSCA Issues Comprehensive Cybersecurity Guidelines for Market Infrastructure Institutions (MII) comprising Stock Exchanges, Clearing Corporations, Depository and the Bullion Exchange in GIFT IFSC. The key objective of these Guidelines is to establish a comprehensive cyber security and cyber resilience framework for the MIIs operating in IFSC. The Guidelines are structured around seven core cybersecurity functions that Govern, Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover, and Resilience, mirroring globally recognised frameworks while embedding the operational and jurisdictional realities of GIFT IFSC. The Guidelines have come into effect from 1st Apri 2026. The MIIs need to ensure that full compliance is achieved within the timelines specified in the respective provisions of these Guidelines.

(Circular No. IFSCA-CSD/MSC/2/2026 DCS, dated 20th April 2026)

3. IFSCA aligns ship leasing rules with 2025 regulations by dropping physical asset management clarification

The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has amended its 2022 Ship Leasing Framework to align with the IFSCA (TechFin and Ancillary Services) Regulations, 2025. The amendment removes the explanation under clause 3.D.(ii), consequent to the inclusion of “management of physical assets” in the Third Schedule under the IFSCA (TechFin and Ancillary Services) Regulations, 2025, which specifies the services not permitted to be provided by TechFin and Ancillary Service Providers.

(Circular F. No. IFSCA-FCR0SL/25/2025-Banking/2026-27/01, dated 22nd April 2026)

4. IFSCA issues 2026 framework for preferential issues & QIPs for listed IFSC entities

IFSCA, has introduced a comprehensive framework for preferential issues and Qualified Institutions Placement (“QIP”) under the IFSCA (Listing) Regulations, 2024, enabling listed entities in IFSCs to raise capital through these routes (“Framework”).

The Framework applies to listed entities whose specified securities are listed solely on recognised stock exchanges in the IFSC. It lays down the eligibility criteria and tenure of convertible securities apart from specific disclosure and lock-up conditions for Preferential Issues as well as requirements for QIP.

(Circular F. No. IFSCA-PLNP/16/2024-Capital Market, dated 22nd April 2026)

5. IFSCA approves rules for fund-raising for listed entities along with an SPV based leasing structure

IFSCA approved amendments to enable the creation of Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) within GIFT IFSC. The changes, spanning the IFSCA (TechFin and Ancillary Services) Regulations, 2025 and the IFSCA (Finance Company) Regulations, 2021, will allow end-to-end structuring of leasing transactions within India. The new framework facilitates the registration of Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs), which manage SPV structures widely used by global financiers for aircraft leasing.

The new framework is designed to attract global lenders, lessors, and investors while reducing reliance on offshore jurisdictions for aircraft financing. The revised regulations, shaped by stakeholder consultations, also incorporate strong governance standards, including AML/KYC compliance and alignment with global norms. International Financial Services Centres Authority (Finance Company) Regulations, 2021 have been amended to introduce new definitions for SPV and TCSP. The minimum owned fund, or paid-up share capital of the SPV undertaking leasing or financing activity, shall be equivalent to the amount prescribed under the Companies Act, 2013, or such other amount as may be specified by the Authority.

IFSCA has further notified IFSCA (TechFin and Ancillary Services) (Amendment) Regulations, 2026. A new chapter relating to ‘Trust and Company Services Provider’ has been inserted. The chapter covers norms relating to the obligation to seek registration, permissible services, governance and control, and appointment of principal officer & compliance officer. Further, a new schedule specifying the permissible services that a ‘Trust and Company Services Provider’ may undertake, has been inserted.

(Press release dated 24th April 2026 and Notifications No. F. NO. IFSCA/GN/2026/ 009 and No. F. NO. IFSCA/GN/2026/ 008 dated 5th May 2026)

6. IFSCA notifies draft IFSCA (Managing General Agents) Regulations, 2026 for IFSC insurance ecosystem growth

The IFSC Authority has notified the draft IFSCA (Managing General Agents) Regulations, 2026 to provide a comprehensive regulatory framework for registration, regulation and operations of Managing General Agents in IFSCs. The Regulations prescribe eligibility conditions, business scope, capital and net worth requirements, governance standards and operational safeguards to promote transparency, accountability and orderly growth of the insurance ecosystem in IFSCs. The notification will be released in due course.

(Press Release dated 12th May 2026)

Miscellanea

  •  ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

# Sony AI’s “Project Ace” Robot Defeats Elite Table Tennis Professionals in Landmark Real-World AI Breakthrough

In a milestone moment for artificial intelligence and robotics, Sony AI on 23rd April 2026 unveiled “Project Ace” — the first known autonomous robotic system capable of consistently outplaying elite and professional-level human table tennis players. The research, published as the cover story of the journal Nature under the title “Outplaying Elite Table Tennis Players with an Autonomous Robot”, describes a system that combines high-speed cameras, motion sensors and reinforcement-learning algorithms to perceive, plan and execute return shots in milliseconds. In a series of evaluation matches conducted between December 2025 and March 2026 against new professional players, Ace defeated each opponent at least once, exhibiting faster shot speeds, more aggressive ball placement near the table edge and a rapidly accelerating rally pace.

The implications of Ace’s victory extend far beyond the sport. While AI systems have long demonstrated “superhuman” performance in digital domains such as chess, Go and complex video games, applying such intelligence to the physical world — where perception, planning and motor control must unfold in milliseconds — has remained one of the field’s most stubborn challenges. According to Peter Stone, Chief Scientist at Sony AI, the breakthrough “represents a landmark moment in AI research, showing for the first time that an AI system can perceive, reason and act effectively in complex, rapidly changing real-world environments that demand precision and speed.” Researchers believe the underlying perception-and-control architecture lays the groundwork for robots that can safely operate in dynamic environments ranging from industrial automation and elder care to surgical assistance and disaster response.

(Source: ai.sony / Nature – dated 23rd April 2026)

# Anthropic Crosses USD 900 Billion Valuation as Q1 2026 Revenue Grows 80x Year-on-Year

In one of the most striking developments of the current artificial intelligence funding cycle, Anthropic — the maker of the Claude family of large language models — closed a fresh funding round in May 2026 at a valuation of approximately USD 900 billion, placing it among the most highly valued private companies in history. The fundraise coincided with the disclosure that Anthropic’s first-quarter 2026 revenue had grown roughly 80 times year-on-year, as enterprise demand for Claude-based agents in coding, financial analysis, legal review and compliance accelerated sharply through the early part of the year. The fresh capital is earmarked principally for compute infrastructure, including a multi-year strategic partnership with Elon Musk’s SpaceX that will give Anthropic access to an estimated 220,000 GPUs through SpaceX’s Colossus data-centre architecture, alongside continued scaling on Amazon Web Services and Google Cloud.

The pace and scale of the round throws into sharp relief the structural rewiring of the global AI industry: market leadership is now determined as much by access to compute and electrical power as by model intelligence itself. Combined 2026 AI capital expenditure by Alphabet, Amazon, Meta and Microsoft is projected to exceed

USD 700 billion, with Microsoft alone raising its 2026 guidance to USD 190 billion. For Indian professional-services firms, the takeaway is two-fold: first, frontier AI capability — already significantly cheaper than 2024 levels — will continue to compound in both capability and cost-efficiency through the second half of 2026; and second, the centre of gravity of the global technology economy is shifting decisively toward a small group of compute-and-capital concentrators, with material implications for cross-border tax structuring, royalty flows and transfer-pricing benchmarking of AI-enabled services.

(Source: bloomberg.com / AIToolsRecap – dated 9th–11th May 2026)

  •  WORLD NEWS

# IMF Warns of a “Global Economy in the Shadow of War” as Strait of Hormuz Disruption Sends Oil Prices Soaring

The International Monetary Fund’s April 2026 World Economic Outlook, sub-titled “Global Economy in the Shadow of War”, has lowered the global growth forecast to 3.1% for 2026 and 3.2% for 2027, citing the outbreak of conflict in the Middle East and the resulting disruption to global energy supplies as the dominant downside risk. The closure of the Strait of Hormuz — through which approximately 20 million barrels of oil per day, or nearly 27% of global maritime petroleum trade, transit — pushed Brent crude above USD 100 per barrel in March 2026 for the first time since August 2022. The IMF has cautioned that global headline inflation will rise modestly in 2026 before resuming its decline in 2027, with the slowdown and inflationary pressures particularly pronounced in emerging market and developing economies.

For India, the World Bank’s India Development Update released on 9th April 2026 projects growth moderating to 6.6% in FY27, with higher energy prices and supply-chain disruptions weighing on activity. Nevertheless, India remains among the fastest-growing major economies in the world, with the World Bank attributing resilience to substantial foreign reserves, moderating inflation, predominantly rupee-denominated public debt, a healthy financial sector and ongoing trade diversification. The IMF’s broader caution — that downside risks now dominate the outlook, including geopolitical fragmentation, a possible reassessment of expectations around AI-driven productivity and renewed trade tensions — underscores the urgent need for businesses to stress-test working capital, hedging policies and contingency plans.

(Source: imf.org / worldbank.org – April 2026)

  •  ENVIRONMENT

# “How the World Lost the Goal of 1.5°C”: New Report Declares the Paris Target Out of Reach as 2026 Tracks for Record Heat

In a sobering assessment released on 7th April 2026, the Washington-based think-tank Resources for the Future published its Global Energy Outlook 2026 under the stark sub-title “How the World Lost the Goal of 1.5°C”, concluding that the cornerstone target of the 2015 Paris Agreement — limiting global temperature rise to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels — is no longer achievable on any plausible policy pathway. The findings coincide with World Weather Attribution scientists warning that 2026 is on track to become the second-warmest, if not the warmest, year on record, with sea surface temperatures approaching all-time highs and Arctic sea ice at its lowest level for the second consecutive year.

Amid the gloom, Ember’s Global Electricity Review released on 21st April 2026 offered one bright signal: in calendar 2025, clean-power growth finally exceeded the rise in overall global electricity demand, marking a small but meaningful inflection point. The combined message for policymakers and businesses is unambiguous — the climate-transition agenda is shifting from ambition to adaptation, with material implications for capital allocation, ESG disclosures and physical-risk management under frameworks such as SEBI’s Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) regime.

(Source: Resources for the Future & earth.org – dated 7th & 21st April 2026)

# WMO Warns of Imminent “Super El Niño” as Global Wildfires Burn a Record 150 Million Hectares in First Four Months of 2026

The World Meteorological Organisation, in a coordinated warning issued on 12th May 2026, alerted governments and businesses to the imminent onset of an unusually strong El Niño event in the tropical Pacific, with sea surface temperatures near all-time highs and Arctic sea ice at its lowest May reading for the second consecutive year. Scientists at the World Weather Attribution group reported on the same day that wildfires from January to April 2026 had already burned more than 150 million hectares globally — roughly 20% above the previous record for the same period and double the area burned in 2024. Africa accounted for the largest share at approximately 85 million hectares (23% above the previous high), while Asian countries including India, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos and China collectively recorded 44 million hectares burned, exceeding the previous 2014 record by approximately 40%.

The WMO has cautioned that the combination of a developing El Niño with already record-warm baseline conditions creates a “serious risk of unprecedented weather extremes” through the remainder of 2026 and into 2027, with heat, drought, flood and wildfire impacts likely to compound one another. Parts of northern India have already recorded daytime temperatures touching 46°C ahead of the southwest monsoon, and the Copernicus Climate Change Service has flagged May 2026 sea-surface temperatures as being among the highest on record. For Indian businesses, the warning has direct bearing on agricultural supply chains, monsoon-dependent working-capital cycles, insurance and reinsurance pricing, and the increasingly material physical-risk disclosures expected under SEBI’s BRSR framework and emerging climate-disclosure standards.

(Source: World Meteorological Organisation / Reuters / Euronews – dated 12th May 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI ANNOUNCEMENTS

ICAI INVITES APPLICATIONS FOR EIFR TECHNICAL REVIEWERS

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India has invited applications for empanelment as Technical Reviewer (TR) and Head Technical Reviewer (HTR) for the ICAI Awards for Excellence in Financial Reporting (EIFR).

The role involves reviewing financial statements for compliance with accounting standards, statutory disclosure requirements, and auditors’ reporting obligations.

ELIGIBILITY

  • TRs: 4–5 years’ audit experience; HTRs: 5–8 years’ audit experience.
  • currently active in the practice of accounting and auditing or employed in the industry with comparable experience in financial reporting and auditing.
  • Experience in Ind AS financial statements is desirable
  • Exposure in the preparation, finalization, or audit of Ind AS- based financial statements

Empaneled members will receive honorarium and CPE hours.

LAST DATE

Applications can be submitted online up to 30 May 2026 (4:00 PM) through: https://forms.gle/LorzV58eCFVHmqdq9

Last date application

For more details visit: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91948rc-aps4940-empanelment-tr-htr.pdf

resource icai

ICAI DOCTORAL SCHOLARSHIP SCHEME 2026

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India has invited applications for the ICAI Doctoral Scholarship Scheme 2026 for members pursuing full-time Ph.D. in areas such as Auditing, Taxation, Commerce, Management, Accounting, and allied subjects.

KEY HIGHLIGHTS

  • Scholarship of ₹75,000 per month for up to 36 months
  • Yearly contingency grant up to ₹50,000.
  • Applicant should:

                      • Be an ICAI member,

                      • Be below 40 years of age,

                     • Have confirmed Ph.D. registration,

                    • Be a full-time Ph.D. scholar,

                   • Not be availing any other scholarship for the same research

SELECTION PROCESS

Applications will undergo preliminary scrutiny, followed by virtual presentation/interview for shortlisted candidates. Final approval will be by the Research Committee.

LAST DATE

  • 15 June 2026.

For more details visit: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/92083research-aps5015-flyer.pdf

Last date resource icai

II. ICAI GIST OF OPINION

1. Accounting Treatment under Ind AS 37 for EPR Obligations under ELV Rules

A. Facts of the Case

  • The company is an automotive manufacturer preparing financial statements under Ind AS.
  • Under the Environment Protection (End-of-Life Vehicles) Rules, 2025, OEMs are required to fulfil Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) obligations through purchase of EPR certificates.
  • The obligations relate to vehicles introduced in the market in earlier years and continue even if the producer ceases operations.
  • The querist stated that the Rules created a present legal obligation and sought guidance on provisioning under Ind AS 37.

B. Query

  • What is the obligating event under Ind AS 37 for ELV Rules?
  • Whether ELV Rules require provisioning for past vehicle sales.
  • Whether such provision should be recognised in profit and loss or adjusted against retained earnings.

C. Points considered by the Committee

  • The Committee noted that under Ind AS 37, recognition of a provision requires a present obligation arising from a past obligating event.
  • Mere enactment of law is not sufficient; the event to which the law applies must have occurred.
  • Introduction/sale of vehicles in earlier years constitutes the obligating event once ELV Rules became effective.
  • The obligation continues irrespective of future operations of the company.
  • Settlement of the obligation requires probable outflow of economic resources through purchase of EPR certificates/scrapping.
  • Although measurement uncertainty exists, Ind AS 37 requires recognition if a reliable estimate can be made, which generally can be determined using best estimates and probability-weighted outcomes.
  • The Committee noted that the provision arises when ELV Rules became effective in respect of already introduced vehicles.

D. Opinion

  • Introduction/sale of vehicles in earlier years is the obligating event once ELV Rules became effective.
  • The company should recognise a provision under Ind AS 37 for obligations relating to already introduced vehicles.
  • The provision should be recognised in the Statement of Profit and Loss.
  • Adjustment against retained earnings is not appropriate since it is neither a prior-period error nor a change in accounting policy.

2. Accounting for Change in Measurement Technique of ECL

A. Facts of the Case

  • The company was recognising Expected Credit Losses (ECL) on trade receivables using an internal grid matrix approach after transition to Ind AS.
  • The company proposed to adopt an actuarial valuation approach using probability-weighted techniques and statistical modelling.
  • The querist contended that the shift represented a change in accounting policy requiring retrospective application.

B. Query

  • Whether transition from internal grid matrix to actuarial valuation for ECL should be treated as a change in accounting policy with retrospective application.

C. Points considered by the Committee

  • The Committee examined the issue only from the perspective of change in ECL measurement technique.
  • Ind AS 8 distinguishes accounting policies from accounting estimates.
  • Accounting estimates are values derived using measurement techniques based on latest available reliable information.
  • Paragraph 32 of Ind AS 8 specifically identifies ECL allowance as an accounting estimate.
  • Paragraph 32A states that techniques used to measure ECL are estimation techniques forming part of measurement techniques.
  • Changes in measurement techniques are changes in accounting estimates unless arising from correction of prior-period errors.
  • If the earlier grid matrix approach was not compliant with Ind AS 109, the change would amount to correction of prior-period error.

D. Opinion

  • Change from internal grid matrix to actuarial valuation method for ECL is not a change in accounting policy.
  • It is a change in accounting estimate unless it represents correction of prior-period error.
  • Changes in estimates are accounted for prospectively.
  • If the earlier method was not compliant with Ind AS 109, correction should be made retrospectively as a prior-period error with appropriate disclosures.

3. Appropriateness of Considering EFBS under Ind AS 19

A. Facts of the Case

  • The company operates an Employees’ Family Benefit Scheme (EFBS) providing benefits in case of death in service or permanent total disability.
  • Benefits are payable upon deposit of employee’s provident fund and gratuity balances and are based on last drawn salary till notional superannuation.
  • Management contended that EFBS is not a defined benefit plan and resembles other long-term employee benefits.

B. Query

  • Whether EFBS is a defined benefit scheme or not.

C. Points considered by the Committee

  • The Committee noted that employee benefits under Ind AS 19 include benefits provided to employees’ family members.
  • The benefits under EFBS arise only on death or permanent disability while the employee is in service and are provided under a separate scheme.
  • Paragraph 5(c)(iii) and paragraph 153(c) of Ind AS 19 include long-term disability benefits within other long-term employee benefits.
  • BC253 of IAS 19 clarifies that death-in-service benefits under a separate scheme are treated as other long-term employee benefits.
  • The level of benefit does not depend on years of service and is based on last drawn salary.
  • Therefore, expected cost should be recognised when the event causing disability or death-in-service occurs.

D. Opinion

  • Benefits under EFBS are covered within employee benefits under Ind AS 19.
  • EFBS should be treated as “other long-term employee benefits”.
  • Since benefits do not depend on years of service, expected cost should be recognised when the event causing long-term disability or death-in-service occurs.

Visit to read in detail: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/92002cajournal-may2026-33.pdf

Opinion

III. ICAI Board of Discipline cases

1. Case: Ms. HKS, IRS vs. CA. SK

File No.: PR/G/45/2019/DD/272/2019/BOD/751/2024

Date of Order: 30.12.2025

Particulars                                                    Details

Complainant              Ms. HKS, IRS, Assistant Director of Income Tax (Investigation), Mohali

Nature of Case          Entering into business partnerships with non-CAs while holding COP

Background              The matter arose from investigation into the Punjab Sand Mining Auction Scam, where alleged benami entities were used for securing mining contracts. The Respondent, while holding a full-time Certificate of Practice, became partner in multiple firms formed for mining-related activities, namely M/s Rajbir Enterprises, M/s Rajbir Enterprises Mohali, and M/s New Rajbir Enterprises.

Key Allegations          – Entering into partnership with non-members.

                                      – Engaging in business other than profession while holding COP.

                                      – Alleged involvement in arrangements connected with mining business entities.

Respondent’s Defence  – Mining business never commenced;no bank accounts or licences obtained.

                                        – Intended to surrender COP only upon commencement of operations.

                                        – Partnership deeds alone do not amount to carrying on business.

                                       – Raised procedural objections regarding authorization of complaint.

Findings                         – Partnership deeds clearly showed objects relating to mining and related activities and Respondent held 3% profit share.

                                         – Respondent entered into partnerships while continuing professional practice and attestation work.

                                        – No prior permission obtained under Regulation 190A.

                                        – Board held that even if business had not commenced, joining business partnerships itself constituted misconduct.

                                       – Procedural objections rejected; complaint held duly authorized

Charges Established                                  Guilty under:

                                                • Item (4), Part I, First Schedule – partnership with non-members

                                               • Item (11), Part I, First Schedule – engaging in other business/occupation

Punishment                      Removal of name from Register of Members for 1 month

2. Case:                              Ms. PS vs. CA. NJK

File No.:                        PR/G/498/2022/DD/490/2022/BOD/752/2024

Date of Order:              30.12.2025

Particulars                      Details

Complainant            Ms. PS, Deputy Director of Income Tax (Investigation)

Nature of Case        Involvement in bogus political donation / tax evasion scheme.

Background            Income Tax Department conducted search and seizure operations on certain political parties and charitable institutions in Ahmedabad, including Kisan Party of India (KPI), Manvadhikar National Party (MNP), Kisan Adhikar Party (KAP), AISECT and Aadhar Foundation. It was alleged that the Respondent acted as a mediator in a bogus donation racket where clients routed donations to political parties and received equivalent cash back after deduction of commission,
thereby facilitating wrongful tax deductions.

Key Allegations     – Soliciting clients for bogus political donations.

                                – Facilitating tax evasion through accommodation donation entries.

                               – Earning commission for arranging donation-and-cash-back transactions.

Respondent’s Defence – Statement recorded by Income Tax authorities was incorrectly recorded and obtained through misrepresentation.

                                         – Retraction affidavit filed disputing alleged admission.

                                        – Relied upon WhatsApp chats had no evidentiary value.

                                       – No reassessment or tax action initiated against him by Income Tax Department.

Findings             – Respondent had expressly admitted involvement in bogus donation modus operandi in statement recorded u/s 131(1A)/132(4) of Income Tax Act (page 5).

                            – Retraction after nearly two years was held to be belated and lacking credibility

                            – Board held that admission on oath remained valid unless rebutted within reasonable time.

                            – Corroborative evidence from investigation supported allegations.

                             – Failure to produce cogent evidence in defence led Board to sustain charge.

Charges Established  – Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – Other Misconduct

Punishment                     Reprimand

3. Case: Mr. PM vs. CA. NKSP

File No.: PR/G/381/2019/DD/150/2021/BOD/804/2025

Date of Order: 30.12.2025

Particulars             Details

Complainant – Mr. PM, Deputy Commissioner of Police, Economic Offences Wing

Respondent         CA. NKSR

Nature of Case     Auditor independence breach and involvement in financial transactions linked to real estate fraud

Background            The matter arose from investigation into the “CANVAS” redevelopment project, where investors allegedly paid over ₹5 crore for flats sold by M/s J.V. Developers, despite the developer allegedly lacking authority to sell them. Investigation and forensic audit revealed diversion and routing of investor funds through Kamla Landmarc Group entities. Approximately ₹2.5 crore was traced to the Respondent’s personal account, and transactions involving flats purchased in the names of the Respondent’s wife and relatives were also identified.

Key Allegations    –  Facilitating financial transactions connected with alleged investor fraud.

                                – Receipt and routing of ₹2.5 crore linked to auditee/group entities

                                – Compromising auditor independence through personal financial dealings with clients.

                                – Use of relatives’ names in connected property transactions.

Respondent’s Defence – Denied involvement in J.V.

                                            Developers or the CANVAS project.

                                       – Claimed he ceased association with Kamla Group in 2013.

                                       – Asserted funds represented legitimate business loans/investments duly repaid.

                                      – Contended that property dealings of family members were genuine and unrelated to fraud allegations.

Findings                  – Respondent admitted receipt of funds from entities under his audit.

                                – Board held that personal financial transactions with auditee/group entities compromised independence and violated professional ethics

                                – Forensic audit indicated round-tripping transactions involving Respondent’s accounts.

                               – Explanation of “genuine investment/loan” was found unconvincing in view of financial trail and auditor relationship.

                              – Even though criminal conspiracy allegations were pending before court, Board independently examined ethical and professional misconduct aspects.

Charges Established          Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – Other Misconduct

Punishment                        Removal of name from Register of Members for 3 months

Recent Decisions in GST

HIGH COURT

21. (2026) 41 Centax 440 (Bom.)

Navin Vishwanathan vs. State of Maharashtra

dated 15.04.2026

GST dues of a deceased proprietor cannot be recovered from his son directly without examining the statutory provisions of legal representative liability.

FACTS

Petitioner was independently carrying on business as a sole proprietor under a separate GST registration. Petitioner’s deceased father was running another proprietorship concern under a similar trade name. Respondent confirmed GST demand against the deceased father’s proprietorship. Thereafter, respondent issued DRC-13 to the petitioner’s banker for recovery of such dues attaching the petitioner’s bank account without issuance of any prior SCN or grant of opportunity of hearing. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that recovery presupposes an established liability against the specific person. Separate GSTINs and premises indicated that petitioner and his father were distinct taxable persons. It further observed that similar trade name alone could not prove business succession or continuation as section 93 of CGST Act, 2017 required prior determination through notice, material consideration, and hearing. In Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh, 2021 (48) G.S.T.L. 113 (SC), the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that attachment requires tangible material and strict statutory compliance. Freezing the petitioner’s bank account without due process violated Article 300A Thus, DRC-13 Order attaching bank account was quashed.

22. (2026) 42 Centax 106 (Bom.)

Tata Sons Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

dated 30.04.2026.

Compensation arising from international arbitral adjudication of contractual breach does not constitute consideration for supply under GST merely because enforcement proceedings are mutually settled.

FACTS

Petitioner entered into a shareholders’ agreement with a Japanese company investing in an Indian telecom venture. The agreement required the petitioner to secure a buyer upon failure to achieve certain agreed financial targets. After such failure, disputes arose regarding exit obligations and payment commitments. The disputes were referred to international arbitration, resulting in an award directing payment of damages, interest, and costs. Enforcement proceedings were thereafter initiated before foreign Courts and Indian Courts. The parties subsequently entered consent terms before the Hon’ble High Court for satisfaction of the arbitral award. Respondent later alleged that the settlement constituted taxable import of services under GST. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that arbitral damages constitute compensation for contractual breach and not consideration for any supply. Liability arose only upon adjudication by the arbitral tribunal. Settlement of the arbitral award did not create any independent contractual obligation amounting to supply. Entry 5(e) of Schedule II required an independent agreement for tolerating an act against consideration. The Court further relied upon the decision of UOI vs. Raman Iron Foundry, (1974) 2 SCC 231, where the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that damages are not debt payable before adjudication. Accordingly, IGST liability was held unsustainable.

23. (2026) 42 Centax 170 (Bom.)

Gunjan Surgical and Scientific Co. vs. State of Maharashtra

dated 23.04.2026.

Transitional provisions under section 140 of CGST Act cannot be expanded to verifying eligibility of credit claimed under MVAT Laws and denial based on mismatch goes beyond the statutory scope.

FACTS

Petitioner claimed transitional ITC through TRAN-1 under the GST regime. Respondent examined the claim and considered the credit prima facie admissible. Subsequently, at the time of processing the claim, the respondent denied the claim to the extent of mismatch of J1/J2 (difference between purchase and sales under VAT Laws) under MVAT. Petitioner filed an appeal, where the appellate authority partly allowed the appeal and recomputed the liability based on mismatch of J1 and J2 determined earlier. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that appellate authority could not import MVAT assessment issues into TRAN-1 adjudication. The Court further observed that demand based on J1/J2 mismatch was vague and lacked statutory clarity. Transitional credit determination required strict application of Section 140 parameters without assessing the validity of credit claimed in the erstwhile Law. Relying upon the judgement of Usha Martin Ltd. v. Additional Commissioner, CGST & C.Ex., 2023 (68) G.S.T.L. 338 (Jhar.), the Hon’ble High Court held that transitional credit proceedings must remain confined to statutory transitional provisions. Accordingly, the appellate order was quashed and proceedings were restored for fresh consideration.

24. 2026 (4) TMI 1571

Andhra Pradesh High Court Jwala Energy Resources Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Andhra Pradesh

dated 08.04.2026.

Interest on refund arising from amount paid as tax earlier, which was subsequently declared as an unconstitutional levy, starts from payment date independent of statutory refund limitation provisions under GST law.

FACTS

Petitioner imported coal on CIF basis for operating its power generation unit. Respondent required payment of GST on ocean freight under reverse charge mechanism. Subsequently, the levy under Notification No. 10/2017 dated 28.06.2017 was declared unconstitutional by judicial pronouncements. Petitioner applied for refund of GST paid on ocean freight along with interest. The refund application was initially rejected on limitation grounds under section 54. Petitioner filed a writ petition challenging such rejection before the Hon’ble High Court. During the pendency of the said writ petition, the respondent sanctioned the refund of the tax amount, whereas the issue relating to interest remained pending consideration before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that refund arising from an unconstitutional levy is not governed by ordinary statutory refund limitations. Amount collected under an invalid levy constituted money wrongfully retained by the State as per Article 265 of Constitution of India. In Union of India vs. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd., (2022) 10 SCC 700, the Hon’ble Supreme Court struck down levy of GST on ocean freight under reverse charge. Thus, Court held that interest being compensatory in nature for deprivation of use of money shall be computed from date of payment till grant of refund. Petitioner was therefore held entitled to interest at 6% per annum from deposit date till refund date.

25. 2026 (5) TMI 163 

Andhra Pradesh High Court Tata Power Renewable Energies Limited vs. Joint Commissioner & Ors

dated 29.04.2026.

Separate invoicing cannot override statutory deeming provisions prescribing composite valuation mechanisms under GST notifications for integrated solar power generating system supplies.

FACTS

Petitioner supplied solar power generating systems along with installation and commissioning services during 2020–2021. Petitioner paid GST using the statutory 70:30 valuation mechanism under relevant GST notifications. Respondent accepted the returns initially without objection. Subsequently, respondent issued a SCN under section 74 of the CGST Act alleging short payment of tax and proposed GST at 18% on the entire value of supply. Petitioner filed replies contending that the supplies constituted composite contracts covered under the notifications. Respondent rejected the objections and confirmed the demand along with interest, and penalty. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the statutory 70:30 valuation mechanism applies to solar power generating system supplies. The Court observed that the notifications created a legal fiction deeming goods value at 70% and the remaining 30% was deemed to represent taxable service value. The Court held that separate invoices could not defeat the statutory valuation mechanism. The Court further held that taxing the entire turnover at 18% lacked legal justification. Moreover, Hon’ble Court also relied on the decision of Sterling and Wilson Pvt. Ltd. vs. Joint Commissioner & Ors. W.P.No.20096 of 2020, where solar power contracts involving supply of goods as well as services were recognized as composite supplies. Consequently, the impugned assessment order was set aside to the extent of differential tax levy.

26. 2026 (5) TMI 500 

Bombay High Court DP Jain & Co Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

dated 06.05.2026.

Corporate guarantees issued expressly without any consideration do not constitute taxable supply merely through valuation machinery prescribed in rules or circulars providing taxability prospectively.

FACTS

Petitioner executed corporate guarantees in favour of banks for loans sanctioned to its subsidiary companies. The guarantee deeds specifically recorded that no security, fee, commission, or consideration was received by the petitioner. Meanwhile, giving corporate guarantee was regarded as supply of service after introduction of Rule 28(2) and related circulars issued concerning valuation of corporate guarantees. Respondent firstly issued summons and later SCN proposing GST liability on the guarantees issued by the petitioner. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the foundational requirement for a taxable supply under GST is the existence of consideration. Corporate guarantees issued as in-house financial support to subsidiaries were not regular commercial guarantee services. The guarantee deeds expressly recorded absence of fee, commission or consideration. In Commissioner of CGST & Central Excise vs. Edelweiss Financial Services Ltd., 2023 (4) TMI 170 (SC), the Hon’ble Supreme Court recognized that absence of consideration negates taxability of service. Consequently, summons and SCN were quashed.

27. [2026] 186 taxmann.com 380 (Madras)

Transafe Services Ltd. vs. Superintendent of Central GST and Central Excise

dated 10.04.-2026.

Statutory GST dues pertaining to Pre-CIRP (Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process)are extinguished once the CIRP process is commenced and the resolution plan is approved with a moratorium period. However, the tax dues pertaining to the period after the initiation of the Corporate insolvency Resolution proceedings are payable.

FACTS

A CIRP had been initiated against the petitioner before the NCLT Kolkata, and a moratorium was in force from the date of such initiation, i.e. from 21.11.2019. Eventually, the resolution plan filed by the resolution applicant was sanctioned, and the petitioner company was taken over by the Management of the Resolution Applicant (M/S Om Logistics Ltd). However, the show cause notice and order-in-original were passed for the period April 2018 to March 2020 on 02.12.2022 and 26.12.2025, respectively.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court, relying upon the decision in the case of Committee of Creditors of Essar Steel India Ltd. vs. Satish Kumar Gupta [2019] 111 taxmann.com 234 (SC)/(2020) 8 SCC 531 and in view of the decision of Ghanashyam Mishra and Sons Private Limited v. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company Limited and Others, held that the petitioner cannot be imposed with the tax liability for the period prior to initiation of CIRP before the NCLT i.e. prior to order of the NCLT dated 21.11.2019. The matter was thus remanded back to consider the impact of these decisions. However, the Hon’ble Court held that the petitioner company will be liable to pay tax dues pertaining to the period confirmed vide the impugned order for the period after the initiation of CIRP against the petitioner’s company under the provisions of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 within a period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.

28. [2026] 186 taxmann.com 558 (Chhattisgarh)

Vandana Global Ltd vs. Principal Commissioner Central GST Central Excise

dated 08.05.2026.

Interest on delayed payment of GST to be levied only on net tax liability paid through the Electronic Cash Ledger based on the retrospective amendment under Section 50(1). Any Interest amount on the gross liability is liable to be set aside.

FACTS

The petitioner challenged demand notices issued seeking interest on the delayed payment of GST calculated on the entire gross output tax liability without adjusting the available Input Tax Credit (ITC). The petitioner contended that pursuant to the retrospective amendment to the proviso to section 50(1) of the CGST Act, 2017, effective from 1st July 2017, interest could be levied only on the net cash liability, i.e. the portion of tax paid through the electronic cash ledger. The petitioner also sought directions for the reconfiguration of the GSTN portal and the re-computation of interest liability after considering admissible ITC.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court observed that by virtue of the amendment introduced through notification dated 1st June 2021, the proviso to section 50(1) was retrospectively substituted to clarify that interest on delayed filing of returns is payable only on the tax paid through the electronic cash ledger.

It held that since the retrospective proviso mandated the levy of interest only on net cash liability from 1st July 2017, interest was chargeable only on tax paid by debiting the electronic cash ledger. Interest demand thus held, requiring reconsideration on the said basis after granting the opportunity of hearing.

29. [2026] 186 taxmann.com 767 (TRIPURA)

Nikhil Debnath vs. Union of India

dated 06.05.2026

Mere presenting dispatch register showing dispatch by speed post is not sufficient, as the acknowledgement card with the signature of the petitioner thereon is a must for compliance with service requirements under section 169(1)(b) of the CGST Act.

FACTS AND HELD

The Hon’ble Court relying upon the decision in the case of Sharp Tanks and Structurals Pvt. Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner (GST) (Appeals), Tirunelveli [2025] 178 taxmann.com 519/102 GSTL 199 (Madras) held that mere uploading of the order in the GST Portal would not suffice. The department ought to choose other modes of service also, which would be a proper exercise of the power of the department when there are other choices also made available under section 169 of the Act. Further, it held that section 169(1)(b) of the Act requires that the order-in-original should be sent by Speed Post with “Acknowledgement due”. Hon’ble Court held that though the respondents have produced the dispatch register and a photocopy of the receipt issued by the Postal Department showing dispatch by Speed Post, they have not produced the ‘Acknowledgement’ card, which would have been returned to the respondent after the article sent by speed post is received by the petitioner with the signature of the petitioner’s representative. Therefore, prima facie it cannot be said that there is compliance of sub-clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 169 of the CGST Act.

Recent Developments in GST

A. NOTIFICATIONS

i) Notification No.1/2026-Central Tax dated 21.4.2026

By above notification, the due date for furnishing the return in FORM GSTR-3B for the month of March, 2026 is extended to twenty-first day of April, 2026.

B. NOTIFICATION RELATING TO RATE OF TAX

i) Notification No.1/2026-Central Tax (Rate) dated 30.4.2026

The above notification seeks to amend Notification No 9/2025 – Central tax (Rate) to align it with changes made vide Finance Act, 2026 (as updated vide Corrigendum dated 06.05.2026).

C. ADVISORY

i) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 16.4.2026 in relation to Re-Computation of Interest under Table 5.1 of GSTR-3B.

ii) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 21.4.2026 regarding Introduction of IMS Offline Tool.

D. ADVANCE RULINGS

11. Cremeux Bakeries Pvt. Ltd. (AAR Order No. GOA/GAAR/02 of 2025-26/6810 dt.30.3.2026)(Goa)

Classification – Bakery Products

The Applicant is engaged in the business of manufacturing food products like cakes, pastries, sandwiches, savouries, biscuits and bread etc. The applicant sought clarifications on the following questions.

“1. Whether the sale of bakery products such as cakes, pastries, sandwiches, savouries, biscuits, slice cakes, bread, rusk and other ready-made items, which are fully manufactured at the Corlim factory and sold through bakery outlets without any cooking, preparation or processing, constitutes a supply of goods under GST?

2. Whether preparation and sale of semi-finished goods such as pizzas at the outlets, wherein pizza base and toppings are supplied from the factory and are blended/prepared at the outlet upon customer order, constitutes restaurant service?”

The ld. AAR observed about facts like, applicant has factory located at Corlim, Tiswadi, Goa where various bakery products are manufactured and are supplied as goods to its own outlets as well as other franchises outlets.

The ruling is sought in respect of supply to own outlets.

The further facts are that at bigger size outlets restaurant service is predominant and at other smaller sized outlets, there is no adequate place for seating and are pre-dominantly take away outlets.

At all outlets, the system/procedure is that upon entering the premises the customer looks at price list displayed on wall at the counter, place order and make a payment. Thereafter, if ordered food is pre-manufactured ready goods,

it is delivered immediately and it is for the customer who can either seat and eat or carry it home. There is no separate price for in-dine and takeaway but there is a single menu.

Taking clue from Circular No. 164/20/2021-GST dated 06/10/2021, in which clarification is given about ice cream parlour, the ld. AAR observed that all types of bakery products or for that matter any other goods which are pre-manufactured at some other premises, other than the restaurant premises, and are supplied without involving any service attached to it are to be treated as supply of goods and GST rate to apply as per the HSN classification of such goods.

The ld. AAR also observed that in respect of certain supplies like that of Pizza, pasta, salads, shakes, etc., which are cooked/prepared/made/blended at restaurant premises, same are to be treated as supply of ‘restaurant service’ irrespective of whether customer consumes them on restaurant premises or takes away.

The ld. AAR also clarified that there is no legal impediment under GST Law prohibiting from carrying on the business of restaurant service and supply of goods as a Trader from the same place of business and to apply separate rates as per nature of supply. Hence the taxpayer can adopt such differential systems but should maintain separate records for identification.

The ld. AAR disposed of application of AR holding the sale of pre-manufactured bakery products at outlets as supply of ‘goods’ and answered relevant questions accordingly.

12. Frutta Services Pvt. Ltd. (AAAR Order No.AAAR/06/202(AR) A. R. App. No. 02/2026 dt. 8.5.2026) (TN)

Classification – Supply of food on Contract basis

The Appellant has filed appeal against the Advance Ruling No.60/ARA/2025 dated 16.12.2025 – 2026-VIL-25-passed by AAR.

The case of appellant before the AAR was that they are engaged in supply of food and beverages to Corporates for distributing to staff; that the applicant neither manufactures nor prepares the food and beverages; that they have various kitchens and vendors registered with them from whom goods are picked either in individual packing or bulk packages and delivered to the corporate client’s location; that the serving of food in the staff canteen is managed by the client; that there is no element of manufacturing or preparing or processing of foods by the applicant and the whole transaction is like an aggregator. Based upon above facts the applicant had applied for Advance Ruling, seeking a ruling on whether the applicant can claim input tax credit (ITC) and charge the client according to the category of supply of goods.

The AAR vide above Ruling held that the appellant is required to pay tax on the composite supply of services involving supply of food, at the rate of 18% as per Sl. No. 7(vi) of the Notification No.11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017, as amended and the appellant is eligible to ITC.

In appeal, the appellant reiterated its contentions about dominant intention which is supply of goods and not composite supply of services.

The appellant made a preposition to ld. AAAR that supply of food by the appellant is liable to GST @ 5% as restaurant/food service and further that logistics, delivery and facilitation services are taxable separately @ 18%. The prayer was that the impugned Advance Ruling to the extent it levies 18% GST on the entire transaction be set aside.

From the agreements entered by the appellant, both with the vendors and their clients, the ld. AAR observed that the applicant is not a mere aggregator of food but appellant has an extensive involvement in supplying the food to their clients, right from finalising the menu to ensuring the quality of the food, ensuring maintenance of hygiene at the kitchen up to ensuring that the food reaches the premises of the client in a time bound manner.

Looking to the nature of activity, the ld. AAAR held that the activity of appellant cannot fall in the category of Restaurant service.

The ld. AAAR observed that supply of food in any manner whatsoever shall be treated as a supply of service and the principal supply will be supply of food. The ld. AAAR observed that Supply of food based on a contractual arrangement with the customers at commercial or industrial locations specified by the customers on an ongoing basis is covered under other contract food service of the tariff heading 996337.

The ld. AAAR confirmed view of AAR that the activity of supply of food undertaken by the applicant under a contract falls under entry No.7(vii) of Notification no.11/2017, being the residual entry, thereby attracting GST at 18%.

13. KSB Limited (AAR Order No. GST-ARA-48/2021-22/B-627 dt.28.11.2025)(Mah)

Canteen – Extent Of Exemption As Perquisite

The Appellant is engaged in the business of manufacturing and selling of liquid handling pumps for various applications.

The Applicant provides canteen facility to its employees in terms of section 46 of Factories Act,1948. The applicant has appointed a canteen service provider referred to as ‘vendor’ for managing the canteen facility. Vendor is inter alia responsible for arranging and Providing services like breakfast, lunch, dinner etc.

For providing these catering and related services, vendor charges at fixed rate per meal per employee.

With the above background, the following questions were raised before AAR.

  1. “ Whether GST would be applicable on canteen facility provided by a KSB Limited to its employees using a third-party canteen services provider?
  2. In case GST is applicable on Canteen services provided by KSB to its employees, whether GST would be applicable if KSB Limited does not recover any amount from employee for providing canteen facility?
  3. In case GST is applicable on Canteen services provided by KSB to its employees, whether GST would be applicable if KSB Limited recovers from employee’s part or whole of the cost charged by the canteen service provider to KSB?

The applicant contended that the canteen facility is not in its course of business. Further that, since the Company recovers nominal or full amount from employees on account of canteen facility and pays the same to vendor after adding its contribution, GST should not be levied on the same.

Referring to provisions of Factories Act, the ld. AAR observed that the said Act do not mandate supply of free food by the factory to the employee, but the said law mandates provision of canteen facility and a restriction on the amount that can be recovered from the employees i.e. the food should be sold on non-profit basis.

Ld. AAR also observed that the said service is provided to applicant by the third-party service provider, the said service provider raise their invoices with applicable GST to the applicant and applicant prays the consideration to the said third-party service providers for the said canteen facilities.

The ld. AAR examined the argument of applicant that such activity is not in course of its ‘business’. After referring to relevant provisions and meaning of ‘incidental’, ld. AAR held that applicant is not carrying out supply of canteen services as his principal activity, but it is covered in any activity or transaction incidental or ancillary to principal activity and hence the activity is in course of ‘business’.

Regarding to ‘Supply’ the ld. AAR observed that there are two distinct and totally different transactions like,

i) Supply of canteen services by the canteen service provider to the Applicant and

ii) Supply of canteen services by the applicant to its employees.

The ld. AAR held that it is the applicant which is providing the canteen service to the employees.

The ld. AAR referred to circular no.172/04/2022-GST dt.6.7.2022 of CBIC.

The ld. AAR observed that as per Entry 1 of Schedule III “service by an employee to employer in the course of or in relation to his employment” is excluded from scope of GST, but not the service by employer to employee. The ld. AAR further observed that only as a corollary, the ‘services by the employer to the employee’, especially when provided in the form of perquisites, has been discussed in the CBIC Circular No. 172/04/2022 – GST dated 06.07.2022 and it could be inferred that perquisites in terms of a contractual agreement between the employer and employee are not to be subjected to GST.

In view of above, the ld. AAR held that the activity is in course of ‘business’ as well as taxable to the extent of money collected from employees.

The ld. AAR also held that if the applicant does not recover any amount from the employees, then, the entire value of the services for which no amount is charged is perquisite.

However, if the applicant recovers any amount from the employees, then the perquisite in this case is only to the extent of concession given to the employees and any amount recovered would be liable to GST.

The ld. AAR disposed of the AR application accordingly.

14. Link Up Textiles Pvt. Ltd. (AAAR Order No. AAAR/03/2026 (AR) A. R. App.No.09/2025 AAAR dt.9.3.2026)(TN)

Classification – Effect of packing

The appeal was filed against the order No.42/AAR/2025 dated 08.10.2025 – 2025-VIL-162-AAR passed by the Tamil Nadu AAR.

The AR was about rate on men’s Pyjama sets which are packed in 2 sets as per buyer’s instruction and such packed Pyjama sets cost more than Rs.1000”. The AAR ruled that GST rate of tax on above items will be 5% as per S.No.223 of Schedule I of Notification No.1/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017. The appeal was filed against the above decision.

The ld. AAAR noted that the appellant was seeking rate to be declared at 12% under Sr. no.170 of Schedule II to Notification no.1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) considering the sale value per set exceeding Rs.1,000/-.

After referring to factual and normal practice, the ld. AAAR observed that though some of the retailers in India sell both kurta & pyjama on a standalone basis at independent piece, the product supplied by the applicant is for export and consists of ‘kurta-pyjama’ as pyjama set and therefore, the combination of top and bottom or a ‘pyjama set’ shall be treated as a ‘piece’ and should be classified accordingly.

The ld. AAAR concluded its findings as under:

“7.7 We are of the view that One Pyjama Set consists of 1 Shirt (top) and 1 Pant (bottom) sold together. One pack consists of two sets of Pyjamas i.e. 2 pieces.

Hence, one pack consisting of two pyjama sets cannot be considered as one piece. The price of Rs.1,371/- shown in appellant’s pack is for two Pyjama sets/pieces. The Appellant’s claim that the effective rate per set value exceeds Rs.1,000/- is not correct. The Notification No.1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 prescribes the ‘Apparels with Sale Value not exceeding Rs.1,000/- per piece’.”

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR confirmed the AR and rejected the appeal.

15. Ramandeep Upkarsingh Bindra (Black Rock Crusher) (AAR Order No. GST-ARA-06/2020-21/B-626 dt.28.11.2025)(Mah)

Classification – Rate of tax on Mining Royalty

The facts are that the applicant is engaged in the business activity of mining and quarrying, like extracting minerals, crushing and then selling.

The applicant enters into lease transfer agreement for obtaining mining lease from the State Government for exploration of minerals like Black rock, stones and other minerals against consideration in the form of royalty/dead rent to the state government.

The mining lease is governed by Maharashtra Minor Mineral Extraction (Development and Regulation) Rules, 2013 and in accordance with rule 46 of above rules for the lease rights awarded to applicant, they are required to pay royalty or dead rent as specified therein.

The applicant has raised following issues in its advance ruling application:

“1. Whether the services of leasing of mines of which royalty is charged by government merits classification under the heading No. 9973 specifically under sub heading no 997337 (licensing services for the right to use minerals including its exploration and evaluation)?

2. Whether the said service can be classified under SL No. 17(iii) of notification no 11/2017 central tax (rate) dated 28/06/2017 attracting rate of 5 percent (same rate of central Tax as on supply of like goods involving transfer of title goods)?

It is clarified that the above supply comes under the purview of RCM mechanism vide Entry No. (5) of the Notification No 13/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 which states that the services supplied by the Central Government/ State Government to a business entity will come under RCM.

Reference is also made to Notification no.1/2017-CT (Rate) dt.28.6.2017 about rate of GST on stone boulders extracted by the applicant which is 5%, being covered at sr. no.124 of the notification no.11/2017-CT (R) dt.28.6.2017.

The applicant was contending that the RCM should be payable at 5% being covered at sr. no. (iii) of the entry no.17 of Notification no.11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.6.2017.

The ld. AAR observed as under:

“5.8. The license to extract mineral ore and also the right to use such minerals extracted is a leasing or rental service and what is supplied by the Government is the right to extract and use mineral ores which is not covered by any specific sub-entries under the serial no. 17 of the Notification and hence falls under the residual entry 17(viii), as the entry 17 covers services with SAC 9973.”

The ld. AAR rejected the contention of attracting tax @ 5%.

Validity Of Composite SCN For Multiple Financial Years

GST litigation is currently divided over whether authorities can issue single, consolidated Show Cause Notices (SCNs) for multiple financial years. High Courts in Madras, Kerala, and Bombay have quashed such notices, arguing the CGST Act treats each financial year as a separate unit with independent limitation periods. Conversely, the Delhi and Allahabad High Courts permit “bunching,” interpreting the phrase “any period” in Sections 73 and 74 as allowing flexible, issue-based adjudication. Due to these conflicting rulings and practical portal challenges, the Bombay High Court has referred the dispute to a Larger Bench.

INTRODUCTION

The question of whether the revenue authorities can issue a single, consolidated Show Cause Notice (SCN) covering multiple financial years or tax periods has emerged as a significant point of contention in Goods and Services Tax (GST) litigation. This issue has created a sharp “difference of opinion” among various High Courts across India. Recently, the Bombay High Court, in the case of M/s. Rollmet LLP vs. The Union of India1, took note of these conflicting precedents—specifically the discrepancy between its own earlier decision in Milroc Good Earth Developers2 and the views of the Delhi and Allahabad High Courts3 in Mathur Polymers, Ambika Traders and SA Aromatics Pvt. Ltd’s case respectively — and referred the matter to a Larger Bench for authoritative determination. This article examines the dispute in detail.

At the heart of the dispute is whether the adjudication machinery provided under Sections 73 and 74 of the Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Act, 2017, is restricted by the concept of a “financial year” as a unit of assessment, or whether the phrase “any period” employed in the statute allows for the bunching of multiple years into a single proceeding.


1 [2026] 185 taxmann.com 599 (Bombay)

2 [2025] 179 taxmann.com 465 (Bombay)

3 [2025] 177 taxmann.com 860 (Delhi) ; [2025] 177 taxmann.com 134/101 GSTL 64 (Delhi) & [2026] 183 taxmann.com 437 (Allahabad)

HISTORICAL CONTEXT

To comprehend the depth of this conflict, one must recognize that the CGST Act is a legislative synthesis of two fundamentally distinct historical tax philosophies. Under the erstwhile Central Excise and Service Tax laws, adjudication was driven by an “issue-based” adjudication process (i.e. started with identified issues rather than tax periods). Multiple year tax demands were routinely clubbed into a single notice, and at the same time, it was not uncommon to have multiple show cause notices for the same period dealing with distinct issues. The law lacked a concept of a comprehensive annualised assessment of records.

Conversely, State Value Added Tax (VAT) and Sales Tax laws operated on a “period-based” cycle. Assessment was inextricably tied to a specific financial year, providing a terminal point for the Revenue’s power to assess the taxpayer’s liability. The assessment process started from year-wise self-assessed records and tax demands raised for each year separately. More importantly, all the issues for a particular period were comprehensively dealt with in a single order.

The CGST Act attempts to imbibe both “return-based compliance” mechanisms of VAT and the “issue-based adjudication machinery” of Excise. This structural duality is the root cause of the current interpretational friction. The dispute gets amplified on two counts: firstly, the divergent administrative practice in the State and Central tax GST formations while performing assessments/ adjudications and secondly, the portal architecture for uploading of notices and orders and tracking demands and payments.

STATUTORY FRAMEWORK

Sections 73 and 74 are placed in Chapter XV, captioned “Demands and Recovery.” The relevant provisions are reproduced below for ready reference:

Section 73(1): Where it appears to the proper officer that any tax has not been paid or short paid or erroneously refunded, or ITC has been wrongly availed or utilised ……,” he shall serve notice… requiring the person to show cause.

Section 73(3): “Where a notice has been issued for any period under sub-section (1), the proper officer may serve a statement… for such periods other than those covered under sub-section (1).”

Section 73(4): “The service of such statement shall be deemed to be service of notice… subject to the condition that the grounds relied upon for such tax periods other than those covered under sub-section (1) are the same as mentioned in the earlier notice.”

Section 73(10): “The proper officer shall issue the order under sub-section (9) within three years from the due date for furnishing of annual return for the financial year to which the tax not paid or short paid or input tax credit wrongly availed or utilised relates to…”

Section 74 mirrors this structure with a five-year limitation in fraud cases. Sub-section (4) of Section 74 additionally provides that a statement under Section 74(3) for periods other than those in the notice shall be deemed a notice under Section 73(1) — i.e., a non-fraud notice — unless the ground of fraud is separately established for those additional periods. The meaning attributable to the phrase “any period” and “such periods” in the above provisions is at the core of the dispute.

Interestingly, sub-section (12) was inserted in both the above referred sections to specify that the provisions shall be applicable for determination of tax pertaining to the period up to Financial Year 2023-24. Thereafter, a new consolidated Section 74A was introduced to deal with demands pertaining to Financial Year 2024-25 onwards.

The Great GST Bunching Battle

Judicial Interpretation requiring different SCNs for different financial years:

The Madras High Court in Titan Company Ltd. v. Joint Commissioner of GST & Central Excise4 examined the bunching of show cause notices for five assessment years from 2017-18 to 2021-22. The Court held that Section 73(10) of the Act specifically provides a time limit of three years from the due date for furnishing the annual return for the financial year to which the tax due relates. The limitation period is separately applicable for every assessment year, and it varies from one year to another. Relying on the Supreme Court’s decision in State of Jammu and Kashmir v. Caltex (India) Ltd5, the Court concluded that issuing bundled notices is an indirect attempt to circumvent the independent limitation periods, rendering the practice impermissible and liable to be quashed.

This reasoning was expanded by the Madras High Court in Ms RA And Co v. The Additional Commissioner of Central Taxes6. The Court undertook a conjoint reading of the definitions of “tax period” and “return”. It concluded that the GST Act treats each and every financial year as a separate unit. The Court held that “any period” in Section 73(3)/74(3) means a “tax period” (either monthly or yearly) and cannot extend beyond one financial year. The Court observed that bunching forces taxpayers into hardship, preventing them from availing amnesty schemes or compounding offenses for individual years without paying the aggregate demand for all years.

The Kerala High Court adopted a similar stance in M/s. Tharayil Medicals v. The Deputy Commissioner and Joint Commissioner v. M/s. Lakshmi Mobile Accessories7. The Division Bench in Tharayil Medicals emphasized that sub-sections (9) and (10) of Section 74 presuppose independent notices. The Court observed that an assessee is entitled to raise distinct and independent defences for different assessment years. Furthermore, the Court highlighted a critical prejudice: an assessing authority might club a period where the three-year limitation under Section 73 has expired into a consolidated notice under Section 74, bypassing mandatory limitations under the guise of a composite notice.

Following this trajectory, a Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in M/s. Milroc Good Earth Developers (supra) quashed consolidated show cause notices. The Court held that the GST scheme involves a definite tax period based on the filing of the return, and there is no scope for consolidating various financial years. This decision was subsequently applied by the Bombay High Court to quash several notices in cases like Rite Water Solutions and Bhawana Steel8. The Courts explicitly rejected the revenue’s defence that allegations of fraud permit consolidation, noting that fraud extends limitation to five years but does not authorize the clubbing of tax periods. The Andhra Pradesh High Court in S.J. Constructions9 concurred, holding that a single composite assessment order cannot be passed in relation to more than one financial year.


4. [2024] 159 taxmann.com 162 (Madras)

5 AIR 1966 SC 1350

6 [2025] 176 taxmann.com 731 (Madras)

7 [2025] 173 taxmann.com 867 (Kerala) & [2025] 170 taxmann.com 874/108 GST 762 respectively

8 [2026] 183 taxmann.com 627 (Bombay), [2026] 185 taxmann.com 22 (Bombay)

9 [2025] 178 taxmann.com 570 (AP)

CONFLICTING VIEWS PERMITTING CONSOLIDATED SCN FOR MULTIPLE YEARS

Conversely, an equally robust line of decisions has upheld the validity of consolidated notices, characterizing GST adjudication as a dispute-centric process rather than a periodic assessment.

The Delhi High Court addressed the issue in M/s. Mathur Polymers and Ambika Traders (supra). In Ambika Traders, dealing with an alleged fraudulent availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC) exceeding Rs. 83 crores between 2017 and 2021, the Court observed that the nature of ITC fraud requires analysing transactions spread across several years to establish the illegal modality. A solitary availment in one year may not establish the pattern. The Court focused on the legislative use of the phrases “for any period” and “for such periods” in Sections 73 and 74, distinguishing them from the term “financial year” used in the limitation clauses. It concluded that the statute does not prevent the issuance of a consolidated notice. Significantly, the Supreme Court dismissed the Special Leave Petition against the Mathur Polymers10 decision via a speaking order, observing that there was “no good ground and reason to interfere with the impugned judgment/order”.


10 [2026] 182 taxmann.com 215 (SC)

The Allahabad High Court provided a detailed analysis in M/s. S.A. Aromatics Pvt. Ltd’s case. The Court drew a sharp distinction between the return-based “assessment” procedures (found in Chapter XII) and the dispute-based “adjudication” procedures (found in Chapter XV). While assessments test the correctness of returns for a specific tax period, adjudication under Sections 73 and 74 focuses on specific disputes regarding tax short-paid or ITC wrongly availed. The Court noted that the legislature deliberately avoided conditioning Sections 73 and 74 within the limits of a “tax period”. Consequently, introducing the concept of a “unit of assessment” into adjudication proceedings would result in an artificial restriction not grounded in legislative language. The Court clarified that Section 73(10) and 74(10) refer only to time limitation; they do not govern the subject matter or scope of the notice itself.

The Karnataka High Court Division Bench in Chimney Hills Education Society11 recently overruled several Single Judge decisions of its own court that had previously prohibited consolidation. The Division Bench held that when the legislature consciously used the expression “any period” in Sections 73 and 74, it would be impermissible to read it restrictively as a single financial year. The Court addressed the argument regarding Form GST DRC-01, noting that while the form contains columns for “tax period”, the appended notes explicitly state that these columns are not mandatory, thereby negating the claim that the format confines the notice to a financial year.

Addressing the issue of prejudice and limitation, the Karnataka High Court ruled that a consolidated notice does not dilute the protection of limitation available under sub-section (10). Each financial year covered within the composite notice must independently satisfy the test of limitation. If the period for an earlier year is time-barred, that portion of the demand is liable to be dropped, but the consolidation itself does not enlarge the limitation or invalidate the entire notice. The High Court of Jammu & Kashmir in New Gee Enn & Sons12 also affirmed that bunching is permissible provided there is year-wise quantification, the allegations are not vague, and each period is within limitation.


11 2026 (5) TMI 125- KARNATAKA HIGH COURT

12 [2025] 181 taxmann.com 1

REFERENCE TO THE LARGER BENCH

Faced with these irreconcilable interpretations, the Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in M/s. Rollmet LLP’s case (supra) recognized the necessity of an authoritative resolution. While acknowledging that it would ordinarily be bound by the coordinate bench decision in Milroc Good Earth Developers, the Court expressed grave doubts regarding the legal correctness of that decision.

The Court in Rollmet LLP’s case observed that the legislative intent in providing sub-section (1) of Sections 73 and 74 was not to confine the proper officer’s authority to a single financial year. On a plain reading, sub-section (3) explicitly permits the issuance of a statement for a period other than the period covered under sub-section (1), indicating flexibility. The Court stated that interpreting sub-section (10)—which merely prescribes limitation for passing an order—as an embargo on the issuance of a consolidated show cause notice would amount to rewriting the provision. A limitation to pass an order is conceptually distinct from a limitation on the issuance of a notice.

Furthermore, the Court noted that the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) issued a policy document on September 16, 2025, clarifying that the issuance of a consolidated notice is a procedural mechanism that does not extend the statutory timeline. Each year stands on its own footing for the purpose of calculating limitations. Recognizing the magnitude of the conflict, the Bombay High Court referred specific questions of law to a Larger Bench, including whether Section 73(10)/74(10) per se prohibits consolidation, and what legal position is brought about by the Supreme Court’s speaking order in Mathur Polymers.

ANALYSIS

“Tax Period” v/s “Any Period” – The first and primary concept which is undisputed is that the self-assessment scheme under the GST regime is for a “tax period”. Section 2(106) of the CGST Act defines “tax period” as “the period for which the return is required to be furnished.” Under Chapter IX, returns are furnished for each “calendar month” under Section 39(1), and for each financial year under Section 44 (Annual Return). Section 59 mandates self-assessment and return filing “for each tax period as specified under Section 39”. Limitation provisions in the assessment chapter — such as Section 62 for non-filers — are pegged to “the financial year to which the tax not paid relates.” Section 36 requires retention of books for 72 months from the due date of the annual return for that year. Section 16(4) also ties ITC entitlement to a specific financial year.

It is based on this concept the taxpayer argues that the provisions of S. 73/74 should be aligned with. Use of the phrase “any period” in the said section is statutorily tied to the monthly/ annual return which is self-assessed by the taxpayer. The scrutiny assessment and audit provisions which are a precursor to demand provisions are also performed on the tax period/ financial year wises basis.

In R A and Co’s case, Court viewed the return-based assessment scheme to be determinative of the demand provisions and held that show cause notice could be issued for “monthly” or “annual” return for the entire financial year or part thereof. If any return were to be filed for more than one financial year, then, based on the said returns, single show cause notice could be issued. However, under the GST Law, there is no requirement for filing any returns other than monthly and yearly returns. Hence, no show cause notice could be issued for more than one financial year. In addition, the phrase “such tax periods” mentioned in 73(4) would have an overbearing effect on the phrase “any periods” in the preceding provisions and hence to be interpreted as a financial year or part thereof. This view was also followed in Milroc’s case where court additionally noted that this synchronisation has been maintained during the insertion of S.74A which was applicable from financial year 2024-25 onwards rather than a specific date. Had the intention been otherwise, the provisions of section 74A would have been made effective for all show cause notices / orders passed after 01-11-2024 (being the effective date). This definitive action to demarcate operation of two demand provisions (73/74 v/s 74A) on a financial year basis establishes that the phrase “period” should be considered as a financial year or part thereof. In S J Constructions, taking cognizance of the dissenting opinion of Delhi Court (infra), the Court stated that any other view would adversely impact the right of the taxpayer to file appeals on a financial year basis or even claim amnesty u/s 128A for specific financial years.

The revenue countered this view and stated that the “period” referred in the said sections should be construed literally without additional words. The statute at multiple instances uses the phrase “tax periods” and “periods” distinctively. Where the intent of the law was to view the issue based on returns the phrase “tax period” has been used but where a general time frame was being fixed the phrase “period” has been used. Accordingly, “any period” under section 73/74 should not be narrowly understood to be limited to a financial year. Further, the said demand provisions bear their parentage from the central excise/ service tax law which spanned across financial years despite the returns being filed on a periodic basis. Assessment provisions which involve scrutiny of returns are to be viewed distinctly from adjudication provisions. Further, Audit provisions preceding adjudication provisions permit audit reports over multiple periods and hence corresponding demand notices should be aligned with such audit reports. In so far as the argument of separate provisions for amnesty are concerned, revenue argued that such schemes do not deter the taxpayer from claiming amnesty for the financial years covered under the scheme and hence their periodicity has no bearing in interpreting the adjudication provisions.

In S A Aromatics’s case, after taking into consideration all the earlier decisions, the Court affirmed revenue’s contention that the GST enactment is not direct extension of the assessment scheme envisaged under the Sales Tax era. While the self-assessment or re-assessment scheme may be assessment unit driven, adjudication provisions stand on different footing. Akin to the central excise system, sections 73 and 74 appear after Chapter XIII (pertaining to Audits) and Chapter XIV (pertaining to Inspection, Search, Seizure and Arrest). They are part of Chapter XV pertaining to Demand of Recovery. Yet, they deliberately do not begin with any word, phrase or sentence indicating that they are subject to assessment of tax liability for any specific tax period. The demand provisions refer to a dispute of a “specific tax amount” and NOT of a “specific tax period”. By very nature, the legislature has avoided conditioning adjudication proceedings within the limits of a ‘period’ or ‘tax period’ or to one Financial Year. Therefore, restricting the application to a singular financial based on annual return filing periods was unwarranted. It would be incorrect to apply assessment procedures and its concepts, to adjudication proceedings and distinction of issue-based procedures from return-based procedures permits the latter to span across financial years. Recently, the Karnataka High Court in Chimney Education society (supra) examined the entire audit/ special audit scheme which enabled multi-financial year frequency as a precursor to adjudication proceedings. The section 74A argument was negated by this Court that use of the financial year 2024-25 as a reference point does not change the statutory impact of section 74A(1) which continues to be issue-specific and also 74A(3) which is driven by the phrase “any period”.

TIME LIMITATION CONTROVERSY

Intricately tied to the controversy of clubbing of notices is the issue of determination of limitation period, since the said period is tied to a financial year. The time limitation to pass orders is the centre point for determination of issuance of a show cause notice. That being the case, the phrase “period” should be understood with reference to the limitation to pass orders for tax demands. This point was the primary reason for the Madras High Court in Titan Company to hold that bunching of show cause notices conflicted with the adjudication provisions. Reliance was placed on a Constitution Bench decision in Caltex (India) Ltd.’s case which held that sales tax being a transaction-based levy could be assessed even for a split period for which tax is leviable. Applying this principle the High Court stated that each and every assessment period would have a separate and independent period of limitation and could be split-up for assessment. Assuming a single limitation period for the entire block of 5 years would do injustice to the taxpayer. The taxpayer would be forced to be made answerable to an adjudication which would otherwise have independently been subjected to a longer time frame. For example, in view of an expiring time frame for 2017-18, a consolidated show cause notice would force the taxpayer to participate in an adjudication of 2021-22 which would otherwise expire much later. Thus, the taxpayer would be denied the opportunity to be adjudicated on year-by-year basis leading to compounded tax demands and pre-deposits (especially on recurring issues). Advancing this point further, in RA and Co case, the Court specifically noted section 128/ 138 provide for dispute resolution on a year-wise basis. Bunching show cause notice would prohibit a taxpayer to choose the years for dispute resolution and compel it to pay the taxes even for years where the demand is clearly unsustainable.

In Lakshmi Mobile Accessories, the Court claimed that consolidated show cause notices covering multiple financial/assessment years can be issued only in circumstances where the statutory provision provides for a “common period for initiation” and completion of the adjudication. Unlike the erstwhile Customs/Central Excise Act, the end termini for adjudication is pegged to annual return. The proximate expiry of the limitation period of one of the six financial/assessment years forces upon the taxpayer to argue all the financial years, and shortened time frame to adduce evidence. The statutory period available for an assessee to put forth its contentions against the show cause notice in an effective manner cannot be curtailed on premise of administrative efficiency.

The Kerala High Court in Tharayil Medicals’s case stated that in case of consolidated adjudication proceedings the taxpayer could be prejudiced w.r.t. application of provisions w.r.t fraud, suppression. The taxpayer may not be entitled to claim exclusion of those years/ issues were the elements of section 74 are admittedly absent. For example, suppression of sales turnover in Year-1 would be clubbed with simple GSTR-2A/3B difference in ITC in Year-1. Revenue would have the advantage of a larger time limitation u/s 74 for even the latter issue. Consequently, issuance of composite show cause notice covering multiple financial years making composite demand for multiple years without separate adjudication per year frustrate the limitation scheme

The revenue provided an equally emphatic counter to the above perspective. It was argued that consolidation of show cause notices does not amount to breaching the outer time limits under the said section. The earliest of the tax periods would be tested for determination of time limits. The protection available to taxpayers in terms of 75(2) r/w 73(10) would continue to be available for non-fraud cases even if the proceedings are initiated against it under section 74. Consolidation of financial years does not imply similar treatment to each financial year for assessment of fraud, etc. Though the limitation provisions are financial year driven, the notice issuing provisions are specifically delinked from the limits of a financial year. The Court in SA Aromatics’ case also examined taxpayer’s argument that if adjudication orders are guided by financial years, the notice provisions should necessarily be co-terminus or a smaller unit of assessment. Yet it affirmed revenue’s arguments and disregarded the strong argument that one show cause notice cannot result in two adjudication orders. With equally balanced substantive arguments, the machinery provision could provide some guidance in resolving such procedural controversy.

INTERPRETING “ANY PERIOD” THROUGH FORMS

Courts also had the occasion to examine the tax recovery forms (in DRC-01/03/07, etc) for understanding the scope of adjudication with reference to the “tax periods”. Proper officers record the tax period wise liability in DRC-01 and in DRC-07. These forms are designed to report the liability on a month-on-month which aggregate into a financial year total. Tax-payers are also reporting the tax payments in DRC-03 on a month-wise basis within a particular financial year. On linking Rule 142 with its parentage, it seems that the phrase “period” or “tax period” should be interpreted in a manner which aggregates into each financial year.

THE PORTAL DIMENSION: –

A dimension that the case law has not adequately engaged with — but which practitioners face daily — is the GST portal architecture and its treatment of demands, recoveries, and appeals. Form GST DRC-01 — the summary of show cause notice — contains a “Tax Period” field with a “From–To” date range alongside a “Financial Year” identifier, technically designed on a financial year basis. The portal uploads a DRC-01 for one financial year at a time, even where the underlying proceeding purports to cover multiple years. The DRC-03 framed under recovery provisions require tax period year-wise reporting which are aggregated to each financial year.

The Electronic Liability Register (in PMT) on the GST portal tracks demands period-wise, generating distinct annual return references, limitation markers, and demand tracking entries for each financial year. Taxpayers faced the challenge of filing separate appeals for even consolidated Order-in-Original. The administrative practice of a single OIO created the hurdle of uploading multiple DRC-07 for each financial year on the portal. The taxpayers were faced with a dilemma over whether a single appeal should be filed (basis the OIO) or separate appeals in APL-01 should be filed (basis year-wise DRC-07). Technical design prohibited the proper officer from issuing a consolidated DRC-07. This probably is indicative of the legal scheme of a financial year. It is only now that the GST portal has been redesigned permitting DRC-01/07 or APLs on a multi-year basis with year-wise breakup within each of the forms. The past proceedings continue to face the dichotomy of tax periods vis-à-vis any period controversy.

WAY FORWARD

The stake holders currently await the Larger Bench’s decision, which will likely serve as a springboard for definitive Supreme Court resolution. Even if the High Court rules against the consolidation of multiple financial years in single show cause notice, on a long-term basis, it may be difficult to prevent the revenue from pursuing a legitimate tax dispute and allow the taxpayer to sneak out through a technical argument. The GST council would certainly step in and regularise the earlier notices through a legislative amendment.

In the meantime, the GST council’s current position is that consolidated notices are legally permissible. Nevertheless, the genuine practical grievances raised by the tax-payers cannot be ignored. To harmonize administrative efficiency with natural justice, the executive must ensure that composite SCNs are meticulously bifurcated and quantify the demand on a strict “tax period basis”. The adjudicating authorities must rigorously sever time-barred components during the final hearing, and the GSTN portal’s architecture needs to be aligned for a year-wise severance of aggregated demands for the purposes of appeals and amnesties.

V Sundar v. Registrar of Companies: Striking off a company’s name for non-compliance is unjustifi ed if material evidence establishes its active operational status.

6. V Sundar vs. Registrar of Companies, Chennai

185 taxmann.com 222, NCLAT, Chennai

Where company’s name was struck off by Registrar of Companies (RoC) for non-compliance, but NCLT misinterpreted material on record regarding its operational status at the time of strike-off, such striking off could not be justified and matter was to be remitted for reconsideration of restoration application.

FACTS

  • The appellant, a shareholder of a Private Limited company, sought restoration of the company’s name under section 252 after it was struck off by RoC. It was stated that notice for strike-off was issued in 2011 and the company’s name was removed in 2012. The company had availed bank credit of about ₹45 lakhs against hypothecation. However, it later defaulted, and since it owned immovable assets; a settlement proposal was offered by the financial creditor to be met through sale of such assets. The appellant contended that restoration would enable discharge of liabilities in the interest of creditors and stakeholders.
  • The Registrar submitted that the company had failed to comply with statutory requirements under sections 159 and 220 of the Companies Act, 1956, that no statutory records were available on the MCA portal, and therefore it was presumed to be non-operational. Proceedings were initiated under section 560(1), notice under section 560(3) was issued in 2012, and the company’s name was struck off thereafter. It was also contended that material to establish continued operations was not properly substantiated.
  • The NCLT rejected the application under section 252(3), holding that the appellant failed to establish that the company was carrying on business or in operation at the time of strike-off and that restoration was justified; it also noted delay and lack of sufficient cause.

Observations and Reasoning by NCLAT

  • The appeal engages consideration of a very short question – the parameters which are required to be followed for the purposes of conducting the proceedings under Section 252 of the Companies Act, 2013 ( CA 2013) and the purposes of the modalities, which are required to be adopted for de-listing the company and its consequential restoration?
  • Another question which required consideration is the implications over the controversy in questions pertaining to Section 252(3) when the Appellate Tribunal exercises its powers under Section 252 of CA 2013. Particularly in the context of powers contained under Section 248 of CA2013, vested with RoC, to remove the name of the company from the Register of Companies.
  • Appellant contended that the company was facing an acute financial crunch due to the downward trend of the business and they did not have enough funds available to meet day-to-day expenses and business operation. The financial creditor offered a proposal for the purpose of the settlement of the dues qua the advance payments, which was offered to be made for by the sale of assets. The bank’s proposal for the settlement of the dues for full and final settlement was filed by the Appellant before NCLT. The contention was that in the event of the company getting restored in the records of the ROC, the company would be able to meet all its allied contractual obligations by entering into the sale of immovable assets, which would be in the interest of the creditors and the other stakeholders of the company. However, the Respondents initiated the proceedings under Section 560 of CA 1956, against which an objection was preferred on 10th January, 2023. The position was that as per the balance sheet of the Appellant for the financial year 2010-11 to 2019-20, the fact that the company was functional during the said period, was not brought on record, or proved otherwise.
  • While on the other hand, the Respondent was seeking the dismissal of the company’s petition praying for the revival of the company into ROC records. The same was not considered, and NCLT, while considering the implications contained under Section 252(3) of CA 2013, had proceeded to pass an order whereby the application for the revival / restoration of the company was rejected. The ground taken for the purposes of rejecting the application by NCLT was that the conditions given under Section 252(3) of CA 2013 were not satisfied. It was observed that the Appellant had not been able to satisfy the twin ingredients to be satisfied i.e. the company at the time of its name being struck off, was actually carrying on the business, and was in operation.
  • The NCLT took a view that since the Appellant has not been able to satisfy the conditions and coupled with the fact that the application was preferred with the delay and did not give any justifiable reason, the same was required to be rejected.
  • The RoC filed a response that the company failed to follow the statutory compliance of section 159 and section 220 of the Companies Act, 1956, and also that there were no statutory details pertaining to the subject company available on the MCA portal. Therefore, it was presumed that the appellant company was not carrying out the business operations. As per the directions issued by the Ministry vide its correspondence of 15th September, 2011 under Section 560 (1) of the Companies Act, 1956, the name was struck off of the company by the notice issued on 10th January 2012.
  • The key issue is whether restoration of the company’s name can be denied solely due to delay, especially when the Respondent’s objection was limited to alleging lack of proof of the company’s active status.
  • The Appellant argued that the balance sheets showed the company was operational and possessed assets at the time of strike-off, but the NCLT rejected these documents only because they were not certified by a Chartered Accountant.
  • The Tribunal observed that the NCLT misinterpreted the company’s operational status and gave vague, contradictory reasons for refusing restoration, despite the Respondent’s objections and the documents supporting the company’s active business operations.

HELD:

Thus, the striking of the company from the register maintained by RoC by its order cannot be aptly said to be justified, in view of a catena of judgments where it has been held that it should be the Hon’ble Court’s endeavour to support the revival of the Company rather than otherwise. Thus, the ‘Impugned Order’ would hereby stand ‘quashed’, and the matter is ‘remitted back’ to NCLT, to reconsider the application for restoring the company, the name of which was struck off from the register, and it would pass an appropriate order in accordance with law:

  • after considering the application for revival of its registration in Register of Companies

and

  • further considering the documents which have been placed on record, in support of its contention that the company was still in operation as on the date when the company was directed to be struck off from the register of the RoC.

Satinder Singh Bhasin v. Government of NCT of Delhi: Utilizing company funds for a director’s personal bail deposit violates Section 185, leading to forfeiture and bail cancellation

Satinder Singh Bhasin vs. Government of NCT of Delhi & Ors.

Before Supreme Court of India

Criminal Original Jurisdiction Writ Petition (Crl.) No. 242 Of 2019.

Date of Order: 2nd April,2026

The Utilization of Company Funds by a Director for personal purposes (deposit for bail) is in violation of Section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013.

FACTS

Insolvency proceedings were invoked against M/s BIIPL under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and Mr. MG was appointed as the IRP. Thereafter, the IRP contended that  Mr. SB, director of M/s BIIPL, acted in violation of the law as he had not handed over the affairs of M/s BIIPL. Further, Mr. SB had siphoned and mismanaged funds of the Company and for which FIRs were registered.

Thereafter, against the FIRs, Mr. SB had filed Writ Petition under Article 32 before Supreme Court, where the Court granted interim bail on the condition that he shall deposit Rs.50 crore before the Registry of the Court as a precondition for grant of bail. Mr. SB deposited Rs.50 crore. However, upon investigation, it was discovered that the source of funds was the funds of Private Limited Companies i.e. M/s BIIPL and other related corporate entities instead of his individual capacity.

Therefore, it was observed by Court that on plain reading of the Section 185(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company is prohibited from directly or indirectly advancing loans to its directors. While Section 185(2) permits such transactions subject to the passing of a special resolution and utilisation of funds for the company’s business purposes, no such resolution had been passed in the present case. Further, the funds were utilised for a purely personal purpose, namely, securing bail.

The Court noted that the petitioner had effectively utilised interest-free corporate funds for personal benefit without providing any security and in complete non-compliance with statutory requirements.

ORDER

The Court held that the conduct of Mr. SB was in direct contravention of Section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013, which expressly stipulates that a loan to a director of a company could be advanced only after approval by way of a Special Resolution.

It further described the unauthorized disbursal of funds as an “alarming aspect”.

Accordingly, the Court:

  • forfeited the entire deposit of ₹50 crore along with accrued interest; and
  • cancelled the interim bail granted to the director.

The judgment reiterates that directors cannot use company funds for personal liabilities or obligations, directly or indirectly, in contravention of Section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Tax Relief On Income From Foreign Retirement Funds

INTRODUCTION

Many NRIs and non-residents returning to India maintain retirement savings in various retirement benefit accounts. A large number of such retirement accounts are tax deferred in nature i.e. tax becomes payable in the jurisdiction in which the account is maintained only upon withdrawal from the account.

Retirement benefit accounts in the United States of America (USA), such as Section 401(k) accounts and traditional Individual Retirement Accounts (IRAs) are common examples of tax-deferred retirement benefit accounts.

Similarly, Canada has the Registered Retirement Savings Plan (“RRSP”), which is a government-registered retirement savings arrangement, while the UK has the Self Invested Personal Pension (“SIP”).

This article focuses primarily on the most prevalent retirement benefit accounts relating to the USA.

Retirement Benefit Accounts should not be confused with the social security benefits. Social security in the USA is primarily governed by the Social Security Act, 1935 and administered through Social Security Administration, which provides federal old-age, survivors, and disability insurance, together with unemployment compensation benefits.

In the case of income received by a resident from a US social security account, Article 20(2) of the India-US DTAA provides that social security benefits paid by the USA to a resident of India or to a citizen of the USA shall be taxable only in the USA.

Taxability of the Retirement Benefit Accounts

There are two principal approaches to income taxation i.e. accrual and receipt basis. Under the accrual basis, income is taxed in the year in which it is earned, irrespective of when it is actually received. Under receipt basis of taxation, income is taxed in the year in which it is actually received.

In case of a Resident and Ordinarily resident (ROR), global income is taxable in India in respect of any previous year, including income which accrues or arises outside India during such year.

Accordingly, once a Non-resident returning to India becomes an ROR in India, his global income including income accruing by way of notional growth in the retirement benefit accounts, becomes taxable in India. However, the same income may also be taxed in the USA at the time of withdrawal, thereby resulting in economic double taxation.

Further, while the DTAA does not restrict either India or the United States from taxing such pension income, practical difficulties arise because:

  • tax may become payable in India prior to actual receipt of the income; and
  • foreign tax credit issues may arise since India taxes the income in an earlier year whereas tax in the United States becomes payable only in a subsequent year upon withdrawal.

Section 158 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 (ITA 2025) [Earlier Section 89A of the ITA]

To mitigate such double taxation and to provide tax relief for Indian residents in respect of income accruing in foreign retirement Accounts, section 89A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA) was inserted by the Finance Act, 2021 w.e.f. 1-4-2022. Correspondingly, Rule 21AAA was inserted by the IT (Sixth Amdt.) Rules, 2022 w.e.f. 4-4-2022.

Section 158 of the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues this framework and provides the benefit of tax deferral to a person who:

  • is resident in India;
  • had opened a specified account in a notified country while being a non-resident in India and resident in that foreign country; and
  • satisfies the prescribed conditions

NOTIFIED COUNTRIES

The Central Government vide Notification No. S.O. 1568(E) dated 4-4-2022 notified (a) Canada; (b) United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland; and (c) United States of America, as the notified countries for the purposes of Section 89A of the ITA 1961.

The Income-tax Rules, 2026 and New prescribed Forms were notified on 20th March, 2026. The Income-tax Department, on its official website (incometaxindia.gov.in), has also published FAQs and Guidance Notes under Income-tax Rules, 2026. These materials are intended solely as educational resources to assist taxpayers in navigating the new Forms and do not constitute legal advice.

FAQ No. 1 relating to Form 40 states that

‘The countries notified for this purpose of this relief are USA, UK, Canada and Australia, at present.’

Similarly, the Guidance Note relating to Form 40, in the introductory paragraph under the heading ‘Purpose’ states that

“… income accrued in a foreign retirement account maintained in a notified country (e.g. USA, UK, Canada, Australia).”

However, it may be noted that, as of date no notification has been issued by the central government notifying ‘Australia’ for the purposes of Section 158/earlier Section 89A. Accordingly, the inclusion of Australia in the FAQs and the Guidance Note to Form 40 appears to be inadvertent or erroneous.

SPECIFIED ACCOUNTS – EXAMPLES USA: 

  • 401(k) Accounts: A 401(k) is an employer-sponsored retirement account in which: employee contribute a portion of their salary, generally on a pre-tax basis;
  • employers may provide matching contributions; and
  • the investments grow on a tax-deferred basis until withdrawal.

There are two principal categories of 401(k) accounts:

Traditional 401(k): Contributions are generally made on a pre-tax basis and the accumulated funds grow tax-deferred. Tax in the United States becomes payable upon withdrawal. Early withdrawals prior to the age of 59½ generally attract a 10% penalty in addition to applicable income-tax.

Roth 401(k): Contributions are made from post-tax income, and qualified withdrawals are tax-free in the United States. However, India may nevertheless seek to tax such withdrawals since Indian tax may never previously have been paid on the underlying income.

IRA (Individual Retirement Account): An Individual Retirement Account (“IRA”) is a personal retirement savings arrangement available in the USA.

It is important to note that Section 158 (earlier section 89A) does not apply to 529 Education Plans.

Rule 74 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026 and Form 40

Rule 74 of the IT Rules 2026 (corresponding to Rule 21AAA of the Income-tax Rules, 1962), contains the rules governing taxation of income from retirement benefit accounts maintained in a notified country.

Rule 21AAA(1) inserted from AY 2022-23, provided that income accrued in a specified account may, at the option of the specified person, exercised through the prescribed form earlierForm 10EE and now Form 40 under IT Rules, 2026 be included in the total income of the previous year relevant to the assessment year in which such income is taxed in the notified country upon withdrawal or redemption from the specified account.

In other words, the annual accumulation of income in the specified accounts may either:

  • be taxed in India every year on an accrual basis; or
  • at the option of the taxpayer, be taxed on a receipt basis at the time of withdrawal, subject to fulfilment of the prescribed conditions.

The option is required to be exercised by the specified person in respect of all specified accounts maintained by such person.

EXCLUSION FROM THE TAXABLE INCOME

The income to be taxed shall not include income which –

(a) has already been included in the total income in any of the earlier previous year during which such income accrued and tax thereon has been paid in accordance with the ITA; or

(b) was not taxable in India during the year of accrual because the taxpayer was either a non-resident or a resident but not ordinarily resident during that relevant previous year, or by virtue of the applicability of a DTAA, if any.

Where an income is not included in the total income of the specified person, the foreign tax paid on such income, shall be ignored for the purposes of computation of foreign tax credit under Rule 128 (corresponding to Rule 76 of the IT Rules, 2026).

SALIENT FEATURES OF OPTION U/S 158

a) The option is required to be exercised by the specified person in Form 40 under IT Rules, 2026 (earlier Form 10EE). The form must be furnished electronically on or before the due date prescribed for furnishing the return of income u/s 263(1)(c).

b) Once exercised, shall apply to all subsequent previous years and cannot thereafter be withdrawn.

In Jignesh Naresh Jariwala v. DDIT [2025] 178 taxmann.com 223 (Mumbai-Trib), the ITAT Mumbai held, while deciding in favour of the assessee, that once the option had been exercised in Form 10EE, it would continue to apply to all subsequent years. Consequently, it was not mandatory for assessee to file the form afresh every assessment year in order to claim relief under section 89A, held as follows:

“6. We have heard the rival submissions and perused the documents available on record. The assessee is a resident individual who filed his return of income for the impugned assessment year without furnishing Form No. 10EE. It is an admitted position that the said form had already been filed for A.Y. 2022-23. On a careful reading of Rule 21AAA, particularly sub-rules (1), (4) and (6), we find that once Form No. 10EE has been filed in respect of a previous year, the option exercised therein continues to apply to all subsequent previous years. Consequently, it is not mandatory for the assessee to file the form afresh for every assessment year. Where relief under section 89A of the Act has been granted on the basis of Form No. 10EE already furnished, the same relief cannot be denied merely for the reason that the form has not been filed again in subsequent years. The filing of Form No. 10EE is a procedural requirement and, by virtue of Rule 21AAA(6) of the Rules, once exercised in any previous year, it continues to hold good for all subsequent years. Therefore, the assessee is not obliged to furnish the form afresh every year, and denial of relief under section 89A of the Act on such procedural grounds is not sustainable in law. In our considered view, the finding of the Ld. CIT(A) is contrary to the clear mandate of Rule 21AAA of the Rules. Accordingly, we set aside the impugned appellate order and direct that the relief claimed under section 89A amounting to ₹4,34,661/- be allowed to the assessee.” (Emphasis Supplied)

c) If a specified person becomes a non-resident during any relevant previous year after exercising the option, then:

(i) the option shall be deemed never to have been exercised w.e.f. the relevant previous year; and

(ii) the income accrued in the specified account(s) shall become taxable beginning from the previous year in which option was first exercised and ending with previous year immediately preceding the relevant previous year in which the specified person becomes non-resident. The corresponding tax is required to be paid on or before the due date for furnishing the return of income for the relevant previous year.

d) Form 40

Form 40 is the prescribed form for exercise the option to claim tax relief under section 158 of the ITA 2025 by a person resident in India, in respect of income from a retirement benefit account, maintained in a notified country.

This Form is required to be filed in the first year in which the taxpayer becomes a ROR in India. Although the language of the section 158 and Rule 74 does not expressly provide so, one possible view is that failure to file Form 40 in the first year of becoming an ROR may result in permanent loss of the tax deferral benefit. However, this issue has not yet been judicially tested.

Upon exercise of the option, the Indian resident obtains relief from taxation in India on an accrual basis in respect of income from retirement benefit account, where such income is taxed in the notified country only at the time of withdrawal or redemption. In other words, filing Form 40 permits deferral of taxation in India until the income is withdrawn or redeemed in the foreign country.

e) Documents and details required for Form 40

Mandatory to be attached

Annexure A1- A copy of statement of the specified account having the details of account number, the notified country, and the account balance as on last date of the financial year prior to the tax year for which the option is exercised;

Annexure A2- Documentary evidence to show how the income from specified account has been taxed or is taxable in the notified country. Relevant statutory provision of the notified country or any other relevant document may be attached.

Annexure A3- The computation of income for all the tax years in which the income from specified account has already been included in the total income. The computation has to be reconciled with the return of income for the said tax years. A reconciliation statement of the computation of income, is to be attached.

f) Editing of Form 40: Once Form 40 is validly submitted, after self-declaration by the specified person, and an acknowledgment has been generated, it cannot be edited. It is therefore imperative to ensure that all the details and documents attached are correct before the same are finally submitted.

ITR FORMS AND REPORTING

The Income-tax Return Forms ITR-2, ITR-3 etc. applicable from AY 2022-23, contain updated disclosures in Schedule-S (Details of Income from Salaries), Schedule OS (Income from Other Sources) and the following row items have been added in both the schedules:

– Income from retirement benefit account maintained in a notified country u/s 89A (choose country from dropdown menu)

– Income from retirement benefit account maintained in a country “other than notified county u/s 89A”

– Income taxable during the previous year on which relief u/s 89A was claimed in any earlier previous year.

Less: Income claimed for relief from taxation u/s 89A

These disclosures taxpayers to claim relief u/s 89A in the prescribed manner. Accordingly, in all applicable cases, while filing ITR, one will need to report the gross accrued income in retirement benefit account(s) like Salary, capital gains, interest, dividend income and claim relief under section 158, to defer tax on the income until withdrawal of the same.

OTHER REPORTING IN THE ITR FORMS

Schedule FA: Where a person qualifies as a Resident and Ordinarily Resident (“ROR”) in India, disclosure of foreign assets and income from sources outside India is mandatory in Schedule FA, even where no withdrawal has been made from the retirement benefit account(s).

Disclosure in the relevant table(s) would generally include:

  • account details;
  • value of the account;
  • contributions;
  • earnings; and
  • other relevant particulars.

Failure to report, or incorrect reporting, may attract penalties of up to ₹10 lakh under Sections 42 and 43 of the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015.

It is important to note that filing Form 40 (earlier Form 10-EE) merely defers taxation; it does not dispense with the obligation to disclose such assets in Schedule FA.

Schedule AL – Disclosure in Schedule AL (Assets and Liabilities at the end of the year) is required where the total income exceeds ₹1 crore.

Reporting in the year of withdrawals / tax payment outside India

In the year in which withdrawals are made from the retirement benefit account, or foreign tax becomes payable, additional reporting would be required in:

  • Schedule FSI – Details of Income from outside India; and
  • Schedule TR – Summary of tax relief claimed for taxes paid outside India

Further, in order to claim credit for taxes paid in the United States, the following forms may also be required to be filed, wherever applicable:

  • Form 44 (earlier Form 67 under the Act) – Statement of income from a country or specified territory outside India and claim of Foreign Tax Credit; and
  • Form 45 – Intimation of settlement of dispute regarding foreign tax for which credit has not been claimed.

CONCLUSION

Section 89A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 together with and Form 10EE of the Act (Section 158 and Form 40 under the ITA 2025) introduced by the Finance Act 2021 w.e.f. AY 22-23, have been a significant relief measure for NRIs returning from USA, Canada and UK.

These provisions permit deferral of Indian taxation until actual withdrawal from Retirement Benefit Accounts such as 401(k) accounts in USA thereby aligning Indian taxation more closely with the foreign tax treatment and facilitating smoother availability of foreign tax credit in respect of taxes paid abroad.

It appears that, owing to lack of awareness and limited dissemination, only 977 instances of Form 40 (earlier Form 10EE) have reportedly been filed during the past 5 years.

It is hoped that a larger number of eligible taxpayers will, going forward, be able to avail themselves of these beneficial provisions.

Corporate Governance: Overview and Challenges

Corporate governance in India has evolved from promoter-driven roots to a robust framework under the Companies Act 2013 and SEBI LODR 2015. This system mandates diverse board committees to oversee financial integrity and risks. However, a core challenge remains achieving “governance in substance” over mere procedural compliance. Boards currently grapple with information asymmetry, complex related party transactions, and emerging technological risks like AI. Ultimately, effective governance transcends checklists; it requires a culture of integrity, ethical accountability, and a reflective mindset to protect all stakeholders.

Introduction

Way back in the 17th century, with the emergence of joint-stock companies such as the Dutch East India Company, the foundations of modern corporate governance began to take shape. The concept of separating ownership from management introduced a need for accountability in business operations. Corporations grew in size and influence over the centuries, particularly after the industrial and economic expansion of the 20th century. This raised concerns regarding misuse of managerial powers, shareholder protection and ethical conduct, which led to the evolution of structured governance mechanisms across jurisdictions. Corporate scandals involving Enron, Lehman Brothers and Satyam Computer Services further highlighted the importance of strong governance practices and became major triggers for regulatory reforms.

The concept of corporate governance covers a set of rules, procedures and operational structures that guide the short-term and long-term action of companies. While safeguarding the interests of shareholders as well as all other stakeholders connected with the organization. Effective corporate governance not only strengthens investor confidence but also promotes sustainable growth and responsible corporate conduct.

This article gives an insight into various dynamics and challenges faced during the process of effective integration and implementation of corporate governance in an organization

The-Spirit-of-the-law

Evolution of Corporate Governance in India

The evolution of corporate governance in India has been shaped by economic reforms, regulatory developments and corporate frauds. Traditionally, Indian businesses were promoter-driven and family-controlled, except few large group’s others were not fully equipped to focus on minority shareholder protection, transparency and accountability. However, economic liberalization in 1991 and integration with global markets increased the need for stronger standards of governance.

Corporate governance reforms in India began with the introduction of the Desirable Code of Corporate Governance by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) in 1998. Thereafter, corporate scandals highlighted serious governance failures and led to major regulatory reforms. The Kumar Mangalam Birla Committee (1999), The Naresh Chandra Committee (2002) and Narayana Murthy Committee (2003) strengthened governance standards relating to auditor independence, financial disclosures, audit committees and shareholder rights.

A significant shift took place with the enactment of the Companies Act, 2013 coupled with changes in listing requirements. The introduction of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (“SEBI LODR Regulations”), further strengthened governance standards for listed entities.

Legal Framework of Corporate Governance in India

The SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 prescribe corporate governance requirements for listed entities relating to shareholder rights, protection of minority shareholders, timely disclosures, dissemination of material information and grievance redressal mechanisms. The Regulations further prescribe requirements relating to board composition, including appointment of independent directors and woman directors, maximum limits on number of directorship’s, board meetings and performance evaluation of directors.

The Regulations also mandate constitution of various board committees and prescribe their functions and responsibilities. The Audit Committee is required to oversee financial statements, internal financial controls, statutory and internal audits, related party transactions, vigil mechanism and utilization of funds. The Nomination and Remuneration Committee is responsible for appointment and evaluation of directors and senior management, remuneration policy and board diversity. The Stakeholders Relationship Committee is responsible for resolution of shareholder and investor grievances. The Risk Management Committee is required to establish the risk management framework, identify, monitor and mitigate various risks including operational, financial, cybersecurity, business, regulatory, compliance etc. The role of risk management committee is becoming more onerous in today’s times where business environment is becoming more dynamic and getting complex.

The SEBI LODR Regulations further prescribe approval and disclosure requirements relating to related party transactions, oversight obligations relating to material subsidiaries and duties and obligations of independent directors, including separate meetings and familiarization programmes. Listed entities are also required to submit periodic corporate governance compliance reports to stock exchanges and make disclosures relating to Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR), ESG risks and sustainability-related matters in annual reports.

Related party transactions remain as one of the most closely scrutinized areas under the corporate governance framework. This framework prescribes approval, disclosure and oversight requirements for related party transactions and has significantly expanded the scope of “related party” and “related party transaction” to include direct and indirect benefit arrangements involving listed entities and their subsidiaries. The framework also requires approval mechanisms through the Audit Committee and shareholders, enhanced disclosure obligations and monitoring of material related party transactions.

The regulatory framework further requires Audit Committees and Boards to monitor conflicts of interest, misuse of corporate assets and approval of related party transaction. However, practical challenges continue to arise in identifying beneficial interests, tracing indirect relationships and determining whether transactions are undertaken for the benefit of related parties through layered structures, subsidiaries or connected entities. Operational challenges also arise in determining arm’s length pricing, assessing ordinary course of business criteria, maintaining adequate documentation and ensuring timely disclosures across large corporate groups with complex structures and multiple subsidiaries. The committee members and the Board of Directors have to play a very critical role in identifying related parties, justification of transactions, deciding arm’s length pricing, approval and review process and relevant disclosures.

Corporate Governance – Not mere Compliances

“Governance is an act, which should be voluntary adopted, once codified takes the character of Compliances”

A) Governance beyond checklist-based approach

Corporate governance has gradually evolved beyond a disclosure and compliance-driven framework towards a broader system focused on accountability, ethical conduct and stakeholder protection. Merely constituting committees or complying with procedural requirements does not necessarily ensure effective governance. Recent governance discourse has increasingly distinguished between “compliance in form” and “governance in substance”, emphasizing that governance must operate in spirit and not merely through technical adherence to regulations. Governance must actually be done in addition to merely appearing to have been done. Concerns have also been raised that excessive procedural compliance may at times lead to a tick box approach rather than meaningful oversight and responsible decision-making. The purpose of these regulations gets defeated when rules are followed and principles are compromised.

B) Effectiveness and Oversight Challenges

Board effectiveness and quality of oversight have emerged as central governance concerns in recent years. Governance studies and boardroom discussions have highlighted issues such as passive boards, information asymmetry between management and directors and overdependence on promoter-driven decision-making. The role of the board is moving from the oversight function to the executory functions and line of demarcation is getting blurred. The increasing expansion of board responsibilities relating to ESG, cybersecurity, risk management, related party transactions and technology oversight has significantly increased governance and oversight expectations from directors.

C) Independent Directors and Board Challenges

Recent institutional governance surveys and boardroom discussions have reflected increasing challenges relating to the role of Directors in India. The “Survey on Corporate Governance – 6th Edition” (by excellence enablers) observed concerns relating to concentration of committee memberships, long tenures of directors and increasing governance responsibilities placed upon boards and audit committees. The Survey further noted that the average age of independent directors in India remained above 63 years during FY 2025, while boards are increasingly expected to oversee evolving areas such as artificial intelligence, cybersecurity, ESG, data governance and technology-driven risks. Recent reports have also indicated that resignations of independent directors from listed companies rose significantly during FY 2026, reflecting increasing governance pressures and board-level accountability concerns.

The effectiveness of independent directors is often impacted by limited access to complete information, insufficient time for detailed review of board agendas and increasing complexity of business operations. The key is whether the right question was being asked in the meeting, whether everyone participated in the discussion or not, whether accurate and complete data were available for taking decision and whether they were recorded properly.

Governance discussions have also highlighted concerns regarding concentration of board positions within limited professional and promoter networks and limited availability of directors possessing specialized expertise in areas such as finance, technology, law, sustainability and risk management. These challenges have increasingly raised concerns regarding board diversity, technological understanding and timely identification of governance red flags in complex and technology-driven corporate environments.

Emerging Governance Risks – Technology

Companies are increasingly dependent on technology-driven operations, data analytics and AI-based systems for business decisions, customer interaction, financial processes and compliance functions. Governance discussions have also highlighted concerns regarding inadequate board-level oversight of technology risks. In several instances globally, governance failures have arisen due to weak cybersecurity controls, inaccurate technology disclosures, overreliance on automated systems and lack of understanding of digital and AI-related risks at the board level. The increasing use of fintech platforms, digital payment systems, cross-border data transfers and third-party technology vendors has further expanded operational and regulatory risks for companies. These risks are further aggravated where members of the board lack adequate technological understanding and are unable to effectively keep pace with rapidly evolving digital and AI-driven business environments.

Conclusion

The true foundation of corporate governance lies in the integrity, ethical conduct and accountability on the part of management. Integrity, though a personal attribute, is a foremost quality that one has to possess, qualification, commitment, skill and capabilities come later. Honest disclosures, transparent decision-making, protection of shareholder interests and compliance with legal and regulatory obligations require a governance culture that operates not merely in form, but in spirit. Corporate governance also carries a broader responsibility towards investors, regulators, employees and society, as a whole, as companies operate not only for profitability but also as responsible contributors to economic growth and public trust. Corporate governance, therefore, cannot be measured merely through compliance frameworks and disclosures, but through the value systems and culture that drives each individual working for the organization. Good Governance comes from reflective mindset rather than reactive skill set.

Applicability Of Presumptive Taxation To Partners Of A Partnership Firm

Sections 44AD and 44ADA provide presumptive taxation of business or professional income. A Controversy exists as to whether partner remuneration and interest constitute “gross receipts” for the purpose of these schemes. The Madras and Bombay High Courts have held that these receipts are distributions of firm profits rather than independent turnover, thereby making partners ineligible. Conversely, the Delhi ITAT allowed a professional partner to avail the benefit of section 44ADA, holding that there is no legal requirement for independent activity. While the restrictive view currently carries judicial weight, the Supreme Court must ultimately resolve this conflict.

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Section 44AD and 44ADA deal with the presumptive scheme of taxation for computing the profits and gains from business or profession respectively, subject to fulfillment of the prescribed conditions. Quite often, the issue arises as to whether these provisions, dealing with computation of profits and gains on a presumptive basis, can be applied in respect of the interest and remuneration received by a partner from a partnership firm.

The Chennai bench of the tribunal had earlier taken a view that the provisions of section 44AD are not applicable for computing the income arising from remuneration received by the partner from a partnership firm. In contrast, the Delhi bench of the tribunal recently held that an individual assessee, who was a partner in a firm of chartered accountants, was entitled to compute his income arising from the remuneration received from the said firm on a presumptive basis under section 44ADA.

A. ANANDKUMAR’S CASE

The issue first came up for consideration before the Chennai bench of the tribunal in the case of A. Anandkumar v. ACIT (ITA No. 573/Chny/2018).

In this case, for assessment year 2012-13, the assessee, who was a partner in a few firms, had received remuneration and interest from partnership firms aggregating to Rs.58,53,000. The income of the firms were computed under the regular provisions of the Act without applying the presumptive taxation provisions. While filing return for the relevant assessment year, the assessee had applied the presumptive rate of 8% under section 44AD of the Act and returned Rs.4,68,240 as income from the such remuneration and interest. The Assessing Officer was of the opinion that section 44AD could be availed only by an eligible assessee engaged in an eligible business. According to him, the assessee was not carrying on any independent business but was merely a partner in the firms. Further, according to the Assessing Officer, the assessee had no turnover, and the receipts on account of remuneration and interest from the firms could not be construed as “gross receipts” mentioned under section 44AD of the Act. He, therefore, denied the benefit of section 44AD and brought to tax the entire amount of remuneration and interest received from the firms. The appeal filed by the assessee before the CIT (A) was also dismissed.

Before the tribunal, the assessee submitted that section 28(v) of the Act clearly specified that interest, salary, bonus, commission or remuneration received by, or due to, a partner of a firm from such firm had to be assessed under the head “Profits & gains of business or profession”. Section 44AD enabled an assessee having turnover or gross receipts from an eligible business to apply the presumptive rate of 8% in computing his income from business or profession. By virtue of the Explanation to Section 44AD, “eligible business” included any business other than the business of plying, hiring or leasing goods carriages referred to therein. The assessee contended that since remuneration and interest were considered as profits and gains of business or profession by virtue of section 28(v) of the Act, such receipts became receipts from an eligible business. Since the gross receipts of the assessee from interest and remuneration was below ₹1 crore for the relevant assessment year, the assessee argued that he was eligible to apply the presumptive rate of 8% on such receipts for estimating the income. The assessee placed reliance on the judgement of Hon’ble Apex Court in Munjal Sales Corporation v. CIT (289 ITR 298) (SC) and an order of Kolkata bench of the tribunal in Sagar Dutta v. DCIT in ITA No.692/Kol/2012 dated 03.05.2013.

The Partner Presumptive Tax Puzzle

After examining the scheme of taxation applicable to partnership firm and partners, the Tribunal held that if remuneration and interest paid to partners had not been charged in the accounts of the firm, the taxable profits of the firm would have been higher, resulting in a higher tax liability for the firm. The payments of interest and remuneration, therefore, had to be construed indirectly as a form of distribution of profits of a firm, on which the firm would otherwise have been taxed. Though the legislature, in its wisdom, chose to tax such remuneration and interest as profits and gains from business or profession in the hands of the partners, that by itself, would not convert such remuneration and interest into gross receipts or turnover arising from the business of being partners in firms. In other words, such receipts in the hands of a partner could not be construed as gross receipts or turnover of a business independently carried on by the partner.

By referring to the Explanatory Notes to the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2009 vide Circular No. 5/2010 dated 3-6-2010, the Tribunal observed that the intention behind the provision was to help small businesses to comply with the taxation provisions, and it was never intended to treat a partner’s remuneration or interest as business turnover. The decisions relied upon by the assessee were held to be not applicable on the ground that they did not relate to the provisions of section 44AD. On this basis, the tribunal dismissed the appeal of the assessee and affirmed the view which was taken by the lower authorities.

RANU GUPTA’S CASE

The issue recently came up for consideration before the Delhi bench of the tribunal in Ranu Gupta v. ACIT (ITA No. 2224/Del/2025).

In this case, for the assessment year 2018-19, the assessee had received the remuneration of Rs.27,00,000 as a partner of a firm of Chartered Accountants. The assessee had offered 50% of the same as his income under the provisions of section 44ADA of the Act. Before the Assessing Officer, the assessee contended that he was eligible to compute the income under section 44ADA since he had fulfilled all the conditions provided prescribed therein. The remuneration was received by him in his capacity as a Chartered Accountant holding a certificate of practice issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. The assessee relied upon the decisions in Sagar Dutta (ITA No. 692/Kol/2012), the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Ramnik Lal Kothari (1969) 74 ITR 57 (SC,) and the decision of the Hon’ble ITAT Delhi in Aman Tandon (ITA No. 3469/Del/2015).

The Assessing Officer did not accept the claim of the assessee stating that the remuneration was received by him as a working partner of the firm and not as an individual independently carrying on the profession specified u/s. 44AA(1). The Assessing Officer also relied upon the Circular No. 3 of 2017 dated 20-10-2017, wherein it was stated that section 44ADA was introduced to reduce compliance burden of small taxpayers earning professional and to facilitate ease of doing business. The Assessing Officer further noted that the assessee himself had declared the entire remuneration received from the firm as business income in AY 2016-17 and 2017-18. Distinguishing the decisions relied upon by the assessee, the Assessing Officer placed reliance on the decision of the Chennai bench of the tribunal in A. Anandkumar (supra). Finally, the Assessing Officer held that a partner’s remuneration from the firm could not be treated as gross receipts for the purposes of section 44ADA in view of section 28(v) and 40(b) of the Act.

The CIT (A) concurred with the view of the Assessing Officer and held that the remuneration was not received for carrying on or practicing the profession, but was received in the capacity of a working partner of the firm. The remuneration received by the partner was distinct and separate from income from profession. The CIT (A) relied upon the decision in A. Anandkumar (supra), which had been affirmed by the Hon’ble Madras High Court. In so far as reliance was placed by the assessee on the decision in Ramnik Lal Kothari (1969) 74 ITR 57 (SC), the CIT (A) observed that the Assessing Officer had not allowed any expenditure against the remuneration, since no details were furnished by the assessee in spite of the specific show cause issued in that regard.

Before the tribunal, nobody appeared on behalf of the assessee. The revenue contended that the assessee had neither claimed any expenditure, as noted by the Assessing Officer during the assessment proceedings, nor was he entitled to claim benefit of the presumptive scheme under section 44ADA in respect of the remuneration received from the partnership firm.

The tribunal held that there was no merit in the revenue’s twin arguments, as there was no such pre-condition in section 44ADA either to claim the corresponding expenditure (in light of sub-section (2) thereto) nor was he supposed to carry out his independent professional activities otherwise than as a partner in any establishment. On this basis, the tribunal invoked rule of strict interpretation by relying upon the decision in the case of Commissioner of Income-tax v. Dilip Kumar (2018) 9 SSC 1 (SC) to reject the Revenue’s foregoing arguments and directed the Assessing Officer to assessee the income of the assessee under section 44ADA of the Act.

OBSERVATIONS

Section 44AD and 44ADA provide for determination of profits and gains arising from the business or profession carried on by the assessee on presumptive basis, subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. Under these provisions, the income of an eligible assessee is computed on a presumptive basis, and a specified percentage of the turnover or the gross receipts is deemed to be the profits and gains of the business or profession carried on by the assessee.

Primarily, two conditions are required to be satisfied for the application sections 44AD or 44ADA. First, the assessee should be engaged in business or profession i.e. the business or profession in respect of which the income is sought to be computed on a presumptive basis should belong to the assessee. Secondly, there must be the turnover or gross receipts from such business or profession on basis of which the income can be computed at the prescribed percentage.

In so far as the first condition is concerned, it is the partnership firm that carries on the business or profession, albeit through its partners. It is true that the business carried on by the partnership firm has been regarded as nothing but the business carried on by the partners collectively. In this regard, the reference can be made to the decision of Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT v. Rasiklal Balabhai (1979) 119 ITR 303, wherein it was held that the assessee must be considered to be carrying on business when such business is that of a partnership firm since a partnership firm has no legal entity and is merely a compendious expression for all the partners.

In the context of section 44AD or 44ADA, the requirement is to compute the income on a presumptive basis at the specified percentage of the turnover or gross receipts of the concerned business or profession. A difficulty may arise, in the context of the Income Tax Act and particularly under the presumptive taxation, in contending that the firm and the partner are carrying on the same business and that the turnover of the business or profession is the same for both assessees, it may then become difficult to contend that the same business has resulted in different amount of turnover or gross receipts in the hands of the partnership firm and in the hands of the partners.

The view taken by the Chennai bench of the tribunal in the case of A. Anandkumar (supra) has been affirmed by the Madras High Court [Anandkumar vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle-2, Salem [2020] 122 taxmann.com 252 (Madras)]. The Madras High Court held that, in order to avail the benefits of section 44AD, the assessee must establish that he is an eligible assessee engaged in an eligible business and that such business has total turnover or a gross receipt. Admittedly, the assessee, being a partner was not carrying on any business resulting in such turnover. Therefore, the remuneration and interest received by the assessee from the partnership firm could not be termed as the turnover of the assessee, who was merely a partner in the firm. Similarly, a partner could not contend that such receipts constituted his gross receipts. The High Court referred to the definition of the term ‘turnover’ as provided in the statement issued by the ICAI on the Companies (Auditors report) Order 2003, wherein it was defined to mean the aggregate amount for which sales are effected or services rendered by an enterprise. Admittedly, the assessee, being a partner in the firm, had neither effected any sales nor rendered any services independently, but had merely received remuneration and interest from the partnership firms, which amounts had already been debited in the profit and loss account of the firms. Therefore, the High Court agreed with the revenue’s contention that remuneration and interest could not be treated as turnover or gross receipts.

Further, the High Court observed that the payment of interest and remuneration had to be construed indirectly as a type of distribution of profits of a firm, on which the firm would otherwise have been taxed. Therefore, though the legislature, in its wisdom, chose to treat such remuneration and interest as part of profits and gains from business or profession, that could never translate into gross receipts or turnover arising from the business of being partner in a firm.

The Delhi bench of the tribunal, however, did not follow the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of A. Anandkumar (supra) although the same had been relied upon by the CIT (A).

In Perizad Zorabian Irani vs. Principal Commissioner of Income-tax [2022] 139 taxmann.com 164 (Bombay), the Bombay High Court also agreed with the view expressed by the Hon’ble Madras High Court in the case of A. Anandkumar v. Asstt. CIT (supra) and held that a partner’s remuneration cannot be treated as gross receipts from profession.

There is one more aspect which is equally important for deciding the issue under consideration. The amount treated as deemed profits under section 44AD or 44ADA is either the sum computed in the manner prescribed therein or a higher sum claimed to have been earned by the assessee. Indirectly, this implies that, for the purpose of explaining investments in assets, or otherwise, the assessee may not be able to claim that he had earned the income higher than the amount of profits computed on a deemed basis under section 44AD or 44ADA, if he opts for these provisions. In other words, for purpose such as explaining the source of investment made out of the income etc., the assessee may not be able to contend that the actual income from business or profession was higher than the deemed profits offered to tax on a presumptive basis. Therefore, one should be cautious of this limitation while taking a view that income in respect of interest or remuneration received from a partnership firm can be computed on a presumptive basis.

In our respectful submission, the view taken by the Chennai bench of the tribunal appears to be the correct view, particularly since the same has also been upheld by the High Courts of Madras and Bombay. However, the contrary view is also possible, and therefore one will ultimately have to await the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue.

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

4. Aspinwall and Co. Ltd. Vs. Inspecting Assistant Commissioner

Civil Appeal No. 7796 of 2012 and Ors. decided on 13.04.2026

Kerala Agricultural Income Tax Act, 1991 – Accumulated losses – Set off in hands of amalgamated company – The accumulated losses in the balance sheet of amalgamating company could not be set-off against the income of the amalgamated company – Even otherwise the losses pertained to a period beyond 8 years the same could not be set off

A company named “Pullangode Rubber & Produce Co. Ltd.” was amalgamated with the Appellant company. The scheme of amalgamation was sanctioned in November 2006. The appointed date was fixed as 01.01.2006. As there were accumulated losses in the balance sheet of amalgamating company, the issue is, as to whether the same could be claimed as a set-off against the income of the amalgamated company.

According to the Appellant, in terms of the provisions of Section 54 of the Kerala Agricultural Income Tax Act, 1991, the amalgamated company as successor of the amalgamating company shall be entitled to set-off of the losses suffered. In terms of Section 12 of the Kerala Act, the losses suffered by an Assessee can be carried forward for a period of 8 years for set-off against the income of subsequent years. Relying upon the judgment of the Supreme Court in Dalmia Power Ltd. and Anr. v. Assistant Commissioner of Income-Tax (2020) 420 ITR 339, it was submitted that once the scheme of amalgamation is approved, all the clauses contained therein stand approved. The rights of the parties flow therefrom. In the aforesaid judgment, no objection was raised by the Income Tax Department to various clauses of the scheme. Hence, the same were held to be binding. In the case in hand as well, no objection was raised to the scheme of amalgamation. Clause 14(2) thereof clearly provides for set-off of losses incurred by amalgamating company against the profits of the amalgamated company. The findings recorded by the High Court in the impugned order were erroneous and are totally contrary to the law laid down in Dalmia Power Ltd.’s case (supra). In fact, the judgment of the High Court was delivered prior to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the aforesaid case. The Appellant prayed for setting aside the judgment of the High Court and allowing the Appellant’s claim for setting off accumulated losses of the amalgamating company with the profits of the amalgamated company.

In response, the Respondent submitted that reliance on the judgment of this Court in Dalmia Power Ltd.’s case (supra) was totally misplaced. The core argument raised by the Appellant, is that once the scheme of amalgamation has been approved with no objection raised by the Respondents therein, the terms and conditions contained therein have to be given full effect thereto. It was submitted that in the aforesaid case, the Supreme Court has specifically noticed that despite notice, the Income Tax Department had not raised any objection to any of the terms contained in the scheme of amalgamation whereas in the case in hand, State of Kerala was never issued noticed during the process of amalgamation.

It was further submitted that in terms of provisions of the Section 12 of Kerala Act, set-off of accumulated losses can be claimed only by the Assessee who suffered the losses. As the Appellant/amalgamated company had not suffered those losses, no set-off can be claimed. In any case, in Dalmia Power Ltd.’s case (supra), the only issue was regarding filing of returns which was allowed. The issue on merit regarding entitlement of the relief was not gone into. Even as per the conditions laid down in the scheme of amalgamation, especially Clause 17.1, the amalgamating company stands dissolved without winding up. Meaning thereby, the Assessee under the Kerala Act, who had suffered the losses, is no longer in existence to claim any set-off.

The Respondent further submitted that the language of Section 72A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 was altogether different when compared with the provisions of the Kerala Act. Section 2(7) of the Kerala Act defines an Assessee. Section 2(20) defines a person whereas Section 3 thereof is the charging section. Section 12 thereof deals with carry forward of losses, whereas Section 48 deals with legal representatives of a person who dies. Section 54, which talks about succession of a business, also does not come to the rescue of the Appellant as nothing contained therein provides that amalgamated company/Appellant can claim set-off of the losses suffered by amalgamating company. Proviso to the aforesaid section provides that if there is any existing tax demand against the amalgamating company, the same can always be recovered from successor, namely, the amalgamated company, but no other benefit accrues. Sections 57 to 59 of the Kerala Act deal with the assessment of a person transferring property, assessment in case of discontinued business of a company, firm or association and assessment of the firm/association which has been dissolved or has discontinued its business. Section 60 of the Kerala Act deals with a case where a company is in liquidation.

As the amalgamating company has ceased to exist, the Appellant cannot claim any set-off of the losses suffered by it. In support of the arguments, reliance was placed upon the judgment of the Supreme Court in General Radio & Appliances Co. Ltd. v. M.A. Khader (1986) 2 SCC 656, Saraswati Industrial Syndicate Ltd. v. CIT 1990 Supp SCC 675, Singer India Limited v. Chander Mohan Chadha and Ors. (2004) 7 SCC 1, CIT v. Maruti Suzuki (India) Ltd. (2020) 18 SCC 331 and Religare Finvest Ltd. v. State (NCT of Delhi) (2024) 1 SCC 797.

He further referred to the impugned order dated 23.09.2011 passed by the High Court where a specific finding has been recorded that the losses for which the set-off is sought to be claimed by the Appellant/amalgamated company pertains to a period beyond 8 years, which otherwise also is not permissible in terms of Section 12 of the Kerala Act.

The Supreme Court considered the provisions of the Kerala Act which were relevant for consideration of the arguments raised by the parties.

According to the Supreme Court, from a perusal of the relevant provisions it was evident that Section 2(7) defines an Assessee to mean a person liable to pay tax under the Kerala Act. Section 2(20) defines a person to mean an individual etc. owning, possessing or holding property which includes a corporate as well. Section 3 of the Kerala Act, which is the charging section, provides for charging of tax as per the rates prescribed in the aforesaid Act on the agricultural income. Section 12 of the Kerala Act enables any person to carry forward any loss sustained in any year for set-off against the income of subsequent years. Such loss can be carried forward for a maximum period of 8 years. Section 48 of the Kerala Act provides that in case, a person dies, his legal representatives shall be liable to pay tax, which the deceased would have been liable to pay under the aforesaid Act, if he had not died. Any proceedings for the purpose can be against the legal heirs of such deceased person, who shall be deemed to be an Assessee under the aforesaid Act.

Further, Section 54 of the Kerala Act deals with succession to business. It provides that where a person carrying on any business has been succeeded in such capacity by another person, such person and such other person shall each be assessed in respect of their actual share of agricultural income in the previous year. Proviso to the aforesaid section provides that in case a person who succeeded cannot be found, action can be taken against a person who is succeeding such person. The succeeding person is liable to pay tax, if any, due from the succeeded person.

Section 60 of the Kerala Act deals with the status of a company in liquidation. In terms thereof, a liquidator of a company, being wound up under Order of the court or otherwise, has to issue notice to the Agricultural Income Tax Officer, who in turn has to specify to him, the amount of tax due under the aforesaid Act.

Section 72A of the 1961 Act deals with carry forward and set off of accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation allowance in the cases of amalgamation or demerger. The provision, starting with a non-obstante clause, clearly provides that accumulated losses and unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating company shall be deemed to be loss or as the case may be, allowance for unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamated company for the previous year in which amalgamation was effected.

The Supreme Court noted following Clause 14.2 of the scheme of amalgamation, which was relied upon by the Appellant.
“Clause 14.2. With effect from the Appointed Date, all the profits or Income accruing or arising to PRPL or expenditure or losses arising or incurred by PRPL shall, for all purposes, be treated as and shall deemed to accrue as the profits or income or expenditure or losses, as the case may be, of Aspinwall & Co.”

The Supreme Court also noted that the Appellant had not disputed that no notice of amalgamation proceedings was issued to the State of Kerala to raise objection with reference to any terms referred to with the amalgamation scheme.

According to the Supreme Court, Section 394-A of the Companies Act, 1956 makes it mandatory on the Tribunal to issue notice in every application filed under Sections 391 or 394 to the Central Government and any objections raised are to be considered. Section 394 of the aforesaid Act talks about amalgamation of the companies. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, had issued a Circular dated 15.01.2014 bearing F. No. 2/1/2014 providing that while responding to the notices issued to the Government Under Section 394-A, the Regional Director shall invite specific comments from the Income Tax Department within 15 days. If no response is received from the Income Tax Department during the aforesaid period, it may be presumed that the Income Tax Department has no objection to the action proposed under Section 391 or 394, as the case may be. It is in the light of the aforesaid provision and the circular that the comments of the Income Tax Department are mandatory.

The Supreme Court observed that in Dalmia Power Ltd.’s case (supra) the Court was dealing with a case under the Companies Act, 2013 where similar provision is contained in Section 230(5) specifically and in Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016. There is a specific finding recorded in the aforesaid judgment that despite notice, Income Tax Department did not raise any objection, within the stipulated time, to the scheme, as proposed. The same was approved. As the scheme was approved, all terms and conditions contained therein stood approved and could be acted upon.

According to the Supreme Court, the facts in the present case were distinguishable. Neither there was any statutory requirement for issuing notice to the State Government before any scheme of amalgamation is approved by the Court under the 1956 Act nor such notice was issued. Hence, to state that the judgment in Dalmia Power Ltd.’s case (supra) covers the case of the Appellant, was misconceived and deserves to be rejected.

According to the Supreme Court, the Appellant had not been able to refer to any provision under the Kerala Act in terms of which the losses suffered by amalgamating company could be set-off against the income of the amalgamated company. Its main reliance was only on the Clause 14.2 in the scheme of amalgamation. In view of what has been stated hereinbefore, the argument addressed with reference thereto stands rejected.

According to the Supreme Court, there was another finding on facts recorded by the High Court in the impugned order dated 23.09.2011 dealing with the Assessment Year 2006-07, i.e. that the loss of the amalgamating company / Pullangode Rubber & Produce Co. Ltd. pertained to a period beyond 8 years. Assessment years in all other appeals are subsequent to that. Hence, in terms of Section 12 of the Kerala Act the Appellant/Aspinwall and Co. Ltd. would not be entitled to any set-off. It was a case wherein the Appellant had lost in all fora. To challenge the aforesaid findings of fact recorded by the High Court in the impugned order, no specific ground had been raised in the petitions filed before the Court.

For the reasons mentioned above, the Supreme Court did not find any merit in the present appeals. The same were accordingly dismissed.

Section 170A- modified return of income- Assessment – Limitation – restricted to the modified return of income or to give effect to the Order of amalgamation and not seek to re-open the entire assessment:

6. Technoforce Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle-1 Nashik & Ors,

[Writ Petition no. 2041 of 2026, dated 1st April 2026 (Bombay HC)] Assessment Year : 2023-24.

Section 170A- modified return of income- Assessment – Limitation – restricted to the modified return of income or to give effect to the Order of amalgamation and not seek to re-open the entire assessment:

The Petitioner filed its return of income for A.Y. 2023-24 on 27.11.2023 declaring a total income of Rs.5,32,85,870/-. An intimation under Section 143(1) was issued on 05.12.2023 without making any adjustment to the income declared. The Petitioner had filed an application before the NCLT on 28.12.2021 for amalgamating its wholly owned subsidiary company, M/s. Promatics Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd., for which the Appointed Date was fixed as 01.04.2021. The NCLT, by order dated 05.07.2024, approved the amalgamation of M/s. Promatics Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd. with the Petitioner w.e.f. 01.04.2021.Thereafter, the Petitioner filed a modified return of income under Section 170A of the Act for A.Y. 2023-24, on 23.01.2025 on the Income-tax Portal, declaring total income of Rs.5,26,82,860/. The assessment for A.Y. 2023-24 became time barred on 31.03.2025 in terms of the fourth proviso to Section 153(1) of the Act. Subsequently, in response to the modified return Respondent No.3 issued a Notice under Section 143(2) for A.Y. 2023-24 on 23.06.2025. The Petitioner filed a reply to the aforesaid Notice on 07.07.2025 and stated that the reply was without prejudice to the contention that the Notice was barred by limitation. In this reply it was explained that the effect of Amalgamation is reduction of income of the Petitioner by a sum of Rs. 6,01,077/-, being the interest charged by the Petitioner to M/s. Promatics Solutions (I) Pvt. Ltd. on its loan amount. The Petitioner received a Notice u/s. 142(1) on 21.01.2026 for A.Y. 2023-24.

The Petitioner filed the present Petition seeking quashing of the Notice under Section 143(2) dated 23.06.2025 and Notice under Section 142(1) dated 21.01.2026 on the ground that both the Notices are issued after the assessment of the Petitioner’s income for A.Y. 2023-24 has become time barred on 31.03.2025 and therefore, both Notices are bad in law and without jurisdiction. Secondly, the notice under Section 143(2) of the Act cannot be issued after a period of three months from the end of the assessment year, , after 30.06.2024.

According to the Petitioner, with effect from 01.04.2022, Section 170A has been introduced in the Act by the Finance Act 2022. The said Section, as amended by the Finance Act 2023 with effect from 01.04. 2023, deals with the effect of business reorganisation. Sub-Section (1) of Section 170A of the Act mandates that where prior to the date of the order in respect of business reorganisation, if an assessee has furnished its return of income for any assessment year relevant to the previous year to which such order applies, the successor shall furnish within a period of six months from the end of the month in which the order was issued, a modified return in such form and manner as may be prescribed. As per sub-Section (2) of Section 170A of the Act, in so far as it is relevant for the present purpose, where the assessment proceedings for an assessment year, relevant to a previous year to which the order in respect of reorganisation applies, are completed on the date of furnishing of the modified return, the assessing officer is required to pass an order modifying the total income of the relevant assessment year in accordance with the order of the business reorganisation, and taking into account the modified return so furnished.

The Hon’ble Court observed that, in the present case, the original return of income filed under Section 139(1) on 27.11.2023 for A.Y. 2023-24, had been accepted under Section 143(1) of the Act by issuance of the intimation dated 05.12.2023. Thereafter, no notice under Section 143(2) of the Act had been issued on or before 30.06.2024, as prescribed under the proviso to Section 143(2) of the Act. Therefore, the assessment proceedings stood completed and were not pending at the time of filing of the modified return of income on 23.01.2025. Accordingly, as per Section 170A(2)(a) of the Act, Respondent No.3 was under an obligation to pass an order modifying the total income of A.Y. 2023-24, as determined under the intimation issued under Section 143(1), in accordance with the order of amalgamation passed by the NCLT on 05.07.2024 and after taking into account the modified return furnished by the petitioner.

The Petitioner contended that the impugned notice dated 23.06.2025 issued under Section 143(2) of the Act and thereafter the notice dated 21.01.2026 issued under Section 142(1), called for accounts, documents, and information unrelated to the order of reorganization. According to the petitioner, no inquiry was being conducted regarding giving effect to the amalgamation order of the NCLT, which was the sole reason for filing the modified return of income under Section 170A(1) of the Act. It was further contended that, since the assessment for the assessment for A.Y. 2023-24 stood completed on the date of filing the modified return, clause (a) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A specifically required the Assessing Officer to pass an order modifying the total income determined under Section 143(1) in accordance with the amalgamation order dated 05.07.2024 and after taking into account the modified return of income furnished on 23.01.2025. The petitioner further submitted that both the aforesaid notices lacked jurisdiction. The notice under Section 143(2) could not have been issued after 30.06.2024 in view of the proviso to Section 143(2), and since the assessment for A.Y. 2023-24 could not be completed after 31.03.2025 in terms of the fourth proviso to Section 153(1) of the Act, there was no pending assessment proceeding in relation to which any inquiry could be conducted. Consequently, the notice issued under section 142(1) of the Act also could not survive.

The Respondents contended that the present writ petition was liable to be dismissed since it challenged notices issued for completing the assessment in respect of the modified return of income filed by the Petitioner on 23.01.2025 and, therefore, the challenge was premature. It was submitted that the Petitioner had proceeded on an erroneous assumption that filing of a modified return under Section 170A of the Act does not permit fresh assessment proceedings. According to the respondents, section 170A had been introduced to enable the Assessing Officer to correctly assess the total income in cases of business reorganisation approved by a Court or Tribunal after the return of income for the relevant assessment year had already been filed. The learned Counsel for the Respondents further submitted that a return of income filed under Section 170A was also required to be verified by using the machinery provisions under the Act, and therefore, the interpretation suggested by the Petitioner would render Section 170A unworkable. It was further contended that the notice under Section 142(1) of the Act could not be faulted merely because it sought information beyond the amalgamation order passed by the NCLT. The respondents also submitted that issuance of notices under Sections 143(2) and 142(1) did not amount to a “back door reassessment”. According to them, the respondents had acted strictly within the framework of the Act and had not exceeded their jurisdiction.

In rejoinder, the learned Counsel appearing for the Petitioner submitted that the modified return of income filed under Section 170A was required to be dealt with strictly in accordance with sub-section (2) thereof.. It was further submitted that the notices had been challenged on the ground of limitation and lack of jurisdiction According to the petitioner, the notice under Section 143(2) for A.Y. 2023-24 could not have been issued after 30th June 2024 in view of the proviso to Section 143(2) of the Act. Further, since the assessment for A.Y. 2023-24 was required to be completed on or before 31.03.2025, no notice under Section 142(1) could thereafter be issued to scrutinise the modified return filed under Section 170A. Consequently, both notices are without jurisdiction and liable to be quashed. The petitioner further submitted that clause (a) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A specifically provides that where the assessment stands completed on the date of filing the modified return, the Assessing Officer is only required to pass an order modifying the total income already determined so as to give effect to the order of business reorganisation passed by the Tribunal or the Court. On the other hand, where the assessment is pending on the date of filing the modified return, in such circumstances the Assessing Officer shall pass an order assessing the total income of the relevant assessment year in accordance with the order of the business reorganisation and taking into account the modified return so furnished. Accordingly, it was argued that section 170A constitutes a complete code in itself. In the present case, since the assessment stood completed on the date of filing of the modified return, the Assessing Officer could not seek information beyond the scope of the amalgamation order as contemplated under clause (a) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A. In support of the aforesaid submissions, reliance was placed upon the decision of this Court in the case of Bajaj Electricals Limited v. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax, Circle-2(1)(1), Mumbai [Writ Petition (L) No. 40696 of 2025 decided on 9th February 2026]. It was further submitted that the Assessing Officer were permitted to scrutinise the modified return in the same manner as an original assessment, even in cases where the assessment had already stood completed on the date of filing the modified return, then no distinction would survive between cases falling under clause (a) and those covered under clause (b) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A of the Act.

Section 170A comes into operation, where, prior to the date of the order in respect of business reorganisation, the assessee has furnished a return of income for any assessment year relevant to the previous year to which such order applies. The consequence of the application of Section 170A is that, under sub-Section (1) thereof, the successor is obligated to furnish a modified return of income, in the prescribed manner and limited to the order of business reorganisation, within six months from the end of the month in which such order was passed.

In the present case, the Petitioner had filed its original return of income for the A.Y.2023-24 on 23.11.2023. The scheme of amalgamation of M/s. Promatics Solutions (I) Private Limited with the Petitioner was approved by the NCLT on 05.07.2024.. Therefore, the Section 170A(1) of the Act squarely applied to the petitioner’s case, pursuant to which the Petitioner filed the modified return of income on 23.01.2025.

Section 170A(2) of the Act makes a clear distinction between two scenarios, clause (a) applies where the assessment stood completed on the date of furnishing of the modified return of income, whereas clause (b) applies where the assessment was pending on the date of furnishing of the modified return of income. In cases falling under clause (a), the assessing officer is required to pass an order modifying the total income already determined in the completed assessment, in accordance with the order of reorganization and considering the modified return. In contrast, clause (b), which deals with pending assessment, contemplates passing of an order assessing or reassessing the total income in accordance with the order of reorganization and after taking into account the modified return. According to the Hon’ble Court, the distinction between clauses (a) and (b) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A of the Act is clear and deliberate. Clause (a) only provides for modification of the assessed income to give effect to the order of reorganisation while considering the modified return of income. There is no scope under clause(a) for issuance of notices under Sections 143(2) and 142(1) for making a de novo assessment.

An assessment which is already stands completed can only be modified under Section 170A(2)(a) by taking into consideration the modified return and giving effect to the order of amalgamation. For this limited purpose, information can be called for by the Assessing Officer by invoking the relevant provisions of the Act.

On the other hand, Section 170A(2)(b) contemplates passing of an Order of assessment or re-assessment, which necessarily requires issuance of notices under the Act for determination of the total income of the assessee.

In the present case, since the Petitioner’s fell under Clause (a) of sub-Section (2) of Section 170A, the impugned notice dated 23rd June, 2025 and 21st January, 2026 issued under Sections 143(2) and 142(1) were held to be unsustainable. The Court observed that the notices were not confined to the modified return of income or to giving effect to the amalgamation order, but instead sought to re-open the entire assessment of the Petitioner for Assessment Year 2023-2024. In these circumstances, the impugned notices, as well as the consequential assessment order passed under Section 143(3), read with Section 144B, were held to be unsustainable and were accordingly quashed and set aside.

Respondent No.3 was directed to pass a fresh order modifying the total income determined pursuant to the intimation issued under Section 143(1) dated 5th December, 2023 and to give effect to the modified return filed on 23rd January, 2025.

Transmission of Flats: Post-Probate Scenario

The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, removed mandatory probate requirements for property transmission in Mumbai with effect from January 2026. In the case of Co-operative Housing Societies, the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960 (“MCS Act”) mandates the immediate admission of nominees as provisional members until legal heirs are identified through a Will, succession certificates, or other appropriate legal process Conversely, condominiums governed by the Maharashtra Apartment Ownership Act, 1970 (“MAOA”) treat apartments as heritable immovable property and do not provide for a comparable statutory nomination mechanism. While probate is no longer legally compulsory for most communities, it nevertheless continues to remain a valuable mechanism for authenticating Wills and resolving disputes during the transmission process.

INTRODUCTION

The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025 effected a significant modification to the framework of testamentary succession in India. By omitting Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, Parliament dismantled a colonial-era procedural requirement which, for nearly a century, had distinguished testamentary succession in the three erstwhile Presidency Towns of Bombay, Calcutta and Madras (now Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai) from the rest of the country. This Feature in the February 2026 issue of the BCAJ examined this amendment.

Probate is now no longer mandatory even for Hindus and Parsis residing in Mumbai, Chennai, or Kolkata, or for persons holding immovable properties in these locations. The amendment seeks to bring about uniformity in the provisions of the Act for across communities. However, the amendment does not alter the position in respect of Wills for which probate petitions are pending before any Court. The repeal does not affect existing rights, acts, obligations, liabilities or pending proceedings. According, the amendment operates prospectively from 1st January 2026 and not retrospectively. Existing probates remain valid, and pending probate proceedings do not automatically abate or terminate.

It is in this altered legal landscape that the questions forming the subject matter of this article assume significance: how should a co-operative housing society in Mumbai deal with the demise of a member, both where a valid nomination exists and where no nomination has been made? Further, how should a condominium formed under the Maharashtra Apartment Ownership Act, 1970, deal with an analogous situation?

TRANSMISSION IN A CO-OPERATIVE HOUSING SOCIETY

In the State of Maharashtra, the transmission of the share, right, title and interest of a deceased member of a co-operative housing society is governed primarily by the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960 (the “MCS Act”), the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Rules, 1961 (the “MCS Rules”), and the bye-laws of the concerned society. The MCS Act specifically contains Section 154B-13, which deals with the transfer of interest upon the death of a member.

In addition, Section 30 of the MCS Act, which generally governs the transfer of interest upon the death of a member in co-operative societies, Sections 22 to 25A relating to membership, eligibility and disqualification, and Section 154B-9 concerning removal of a member by the Registrar in cases of admission contrary to the Act, the Rules, or the bye-laws, continue to apply except to the extent modified by Chapter XIII-B in respect of co-operative housing societies.

Section 154B-13 of the MCS Act provides for the transfer of interest upon the death of a Member. Upon the death of a Member of a society, the society is required to transfer the share, right, title and interest in the property of the deceased member to a person or persons on the basis of testamentary documents, a succession certificate, a legal heirship certificate, or a family arrangement executed by the persons entitled to inherit the property of the deceased member, or to a person duly nominated in accordance with the Rules.

The provision further stipulates  that the society shall admit the nominee as a provisional Member upon the death of the Member until the legal heir or heirs, or the person  entitled to the flat and shares in accordance with the applicable law of succession or under a Will or other testamentary document, is admitted as a Member in place of the deceased Member.

Lastly, the provision states that where no nomination has been made, the society shall admit as a provisional Member such member as may appear to the Committee to be the heir or legal representative of the deceased Member in the prescribed manner.

WHERE THE DECEASED MEMBER HAS MADE A VALID NOMINATION

The MCS Act permits a member of a co-operative society to nominate, in writing, any person to whom his share or interest in the society shall be transferred upon his death.  A nomination is not a mode of testamentary disposition. It does not confer beneficial ownership upon the nominee. Upon the death of the member, the nominee is merely a person designated to receive the share or interest of the deceased member from the society and holds the same in trust until the legal heirs or legatees, as the case may be, are ascertained.

This proposition has been repeatedly affirmed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India over several decades, most recently and emphatically in Shakti Yezdani v. Jayanand Jayant Salgaonkar, (2024) 1 SCC 706. In that case, the Supreme Court, while considering nominations under the Companies Act, 1956, held that the legislative object of nomination is not to provide a third mode of succession, but merely to provide a discharge mechanism for the company in respect of the shares held by the deceased shareholder. The Court further held that a nominee does not acquire absolute beneficial ownership in derogation of the rights of the legal heirs or legatees of the deceased.

The same principle had earlier been expounded by the Supreme Court in Smt. Sarbati Devi v. Smt. Usha Devi, (1984) 1 SCC 424, in the context of nominations under Section 39 of the Insurance Act, 1938. Both these decisions constitute important pillars of the law of relating to nomination in India and form the necessary backdrop against which the decision of the Supreme Court in Indrani Wahi v. Registrar of Co-operative Societies & Ors., (2016) 6 SCC 440, must be understood.

THE DECISION OF THE SUPREME COURT IN INDRANI WAHI

The decision in Indrani Wahi was rendered by a Division Bench of the Supreme Court in a case arising under the West Bengal Co-operative Societies Act, 1983, and the West Bengal Co-operative Societies Rules, 1987. However, the principles laid down therein have pan-Indian relevance to nominations under co-operative societies legislation.

The principal issue before the Supreme Court was whether, upon the death of a member of a co-operative society who had made a valid nomination, the society was bound to transfer the share or interest of the deceased member in favour of the nominee — and, conversely, whether such transfer determined the question of title as between the nominee and the other heirs of the deceased member.

The Court held that the transfer of shares or interest in favour of the nominee is binding upon the concerned Cooperative Society. The Cooperative Society has no option whatsoever except to transfer the membership in the name of the nominee. However, such transfer has no bearing upon the issue of title between the heirs, inheritors or successors to the deceased member. Accordingly, where a deceased member who has made a valid nomination, the co-operative society has “no option whatsoever” but to transfer the share and interest of the deceased member in favour of the nominee. The society neither adjudicates competing claims of succession, nor is it entitled to delay or refuse such transfer on the ground that another heir may possess a superior claim under the applicable law of  succession.

The transfer of shares and interest in favour of the nominee, insofar as the society is concerned, does not amount to an adjudication of title. The legal heirs and representatives of the deceased member continue to retain the right to pursue their claims  of succession or inheritance before a competent civil forum in accordance with the applicable personal law. The nominee, qua the property held in the society, occupies the position of a trustee for the true owners as may ultimately be determined inter se among the heirs.

The principles laid down in Indrani Wahi apply with equal force to a co-operative housing societies in Maharashtra. This position has been authoritatively reinforced and amplified by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Foreshore Co-operative Housing Society Limited  v. Divisional Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies & Ors., WP No. 7834 of 2025, decided on 9 December 2025 (“the Foreshore decision”), which presently constitutes the most recent judicial pronouncement on the interpretation and operation of Section 154B-13 of the MCS Act.

In the  Foreshore decision, after undertaking a careful textual analysis of Section 154B-12 and Section 154B-13 of the MCS Act, the Bombay High Court laid down certain principles  of general application to all co-operative housing societies in Maharashtra.

The Court emphasised that a clear distinction must be drawn between a transfer of interest by a living member under Section 154B-12  and a transfer upon the death of a member under Section 154B-13. Section 154B-12 employs the expression “may transfer” and preserves the discretion of the society to scrutinise the eligibility of the proposed transferee. In contrast, under Section 154B-13, the role of the society is confined to giving effect to the statutory scheme of succession.

Upon the death of a member, “the society’s discretion is significantly reduced. The society cannot choose among claimants or impose additional eligibility norms not found in the statute.” The role of the society is limited to verifying the legal status of the nominee or heir.

The Court further observed that Section 154B-13 operates with reference to two distinct sources of entitlement, namely:

  • testamentary or succession-based documents, such as a Will, succession certificate, legal heirship certificate, or family arrangement executed by or in favour of the persons entitled to inherit the property of the deceased member; and
  • a nomination duly made in accordance with the Rules.

The provisos to Section 154B-13 contemplate the admission of:

  • the nominee; or
  • in the absence of a nomination, the apparent heir or legal representative,

as a provisional member pending ascertainment of the legal heir or legatee in accordance with succession law or under a Will. The proviso to Section 154B-13 introduces, in the context of housing societies, a relatively novel concept which merits careful attention. Upon the death of a member who has made a valid nomination, the nominee is to be admitted as a provisional member — and not as a regular member — “till legal heir or heirs or a person who is entitled to the flat and shares in accordance with succession law or under Will or testamentary document are admitted as Member in place of such deceased Member”.

Thus, immediately upon the death of the member, the nominee is admitted as a provisional member. Such provisional membership continues until the heirs or legatees, as the case may be, are identified and admitted in accordance with the applicable testamentary document, succession certificate, legal heirship certificate, or family arrangement. Upon such admission, the provisional membership comes to an end and is replaced by regular membership in favour of the rightful heir or legatee. The Bombay High Court in Pravinkumar Jethalal Dave, vs The State of Maharashtra, WP No. 2317/2011 Order Dated 9th February 2026, adopted a similar approach. The Court held that nomination merely enables the Society to deal with an identified person after the death of a member.

WHERE THE DECEASED MEMBER HAS MADE NO NOMINATION

Where the deceased member has not made any nomination, where the nominee has predeceased the member, or where the existence or address of the nominee cannot be ascertained, recourse must be had to the second proviso to Section 154B-13, which reads:

“Provided further that, if no person has been so nominated, society shall admit such person as provisional Member as may appear to the Committee to be the heir or legal representative of the deceased Member in the manner as may be prescribed.”

The principal provision of Section 154B-13 itself contemplates transmission to a person entitled on the basis of “testamentary documents or succession certificate or legal heirship certificate or document of family arrangement executed by the persons, who are entitled to inherit the property of the deceased Member”.

THE EFFECT OF THE 2025 AMENDMENT ON THIS PROCEDURE

The 2025 Amendment has a direct and significant impact upon the foregoing procedure. Following the omission of Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, a society in Mumbai is no longer entitled, as a matter of law, to insist upon the production of probate or letters of administration as a precondition to admitting a legatee under a Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh, Jain or Parsi Will as a regular member.

That said, the change introduced by the 2025 Amendment requires careful navigation in practice. It remains open to a society — through its bye-laws or by resolution — to require appropriate authentication of the Will, including:

  • an affidavit of execution from one or more of the attesting witnesses;
  • an affidavit-cum-indemnity bond from the legatee;
  • and a No-Objection Certificate from the heirs who would have inherited in the absence of a Will.

Certain societies may even continue to insist upon a probated Will.

While the Repealing and Amending Act 2025, removes the mandatory requirement of probate, probate may nevertheless continue to assume practical significance in many situations. In the absence of probate, the executor may proceed to distribute the estate immediately amongst the beneficiaries under the Will. However, questions may subsequently arise if the Will is challenged at a later stage, including after several years.  Further, in cases involving disputes among family members, probate may still be insisted upon by the sub-registrar / company. As noted earlier, even in jurisdictions where probate has historically  not been mandatory under the Indian Succession Act, many institutions have continued, in practice, to insist upon probate as a matter of procedural certainty and risk mitigation.

TRANSMISSION IN A CONDOMINIUM

A condominium formed under the Maharashtra Apartment Ownership Act, 1970 (the “MAOA”) does not fall within the regulatory framework of the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960. Consequently, the provisions of the MCS Act, including Chapter XIII-B and Section 154B-13 thereof, have no application to a condominium.

The decisions in Indrani Wahi and Foreshore — both rendered  in the context of co-operative societies legislation — are therefore not directly applicable to condominiums. Nevertheless, they continue to possess persuasive value, particularly in relation to the broader principles governing nomination.

The principal provision governing transmission under the MAOA is Section 4. The provision states that every apartment, together with the percentage of undivided interest in the common areas and facilities appurtenant thereto, shall constitute a heritable and transferable immovable property for all purposes under the law for the time being in force.

Accordingly, the owner of an apartment is entitled to transfer the apartment, together with the corresponding undivided interest in the common areas and facilities, by way of sale, mortgage, lease, gift, exchange or in any other manner whatsoever, including by bequest.

The statutory architecture of the MAOA is therefore fundamentally different from that of the MCS Act:

  • Whereas, in a co-operative housing society, the immediate subject-matter of transfer is the share of the member in the society with the right to occupy the flat being merely incidental to membership, in a condominium, the immediate subject-matter of transfer is the apartment itself as heritable and transferable immovable property.
  • Consequently, the elaborate statutory concept of nomination contained in Section 30 and Section 154B-13 of the MCS Act has no counterpart under the MAOA. The MAOA contains no provision permitting nomination in respect of an apartment in a condominium.
  • Accordingly, upon the death of an apartment owner, the apartment devolves in accordance with the ordinary law of testamentary or intestate succession applicable to the deceased owner.

The Maharashtra Apartment Ownership Rules, 1972, framed under the MAOA, prescribe Model Bye-Laws in Exhibit B, which are commonly adopted by condominiums in Maharashtra, subject to such modifications as the apartment owners may approve.

Clause 3 of Model Bye-Law 5 specifically addresses the situation arising upon the death of an apartment owner. The clause recognises only two modes of devolution:

  • devolution by testamentary succession under a Will; and
  • devolution upon the legal representatives of the deceased owner in cases of intestate succession.

There is no concept of nomination under the MAOA, and an apartment in a condominium cannot be “nominated” in favour of any person in a manner analogous to the position prevailing under co-operative housing society legislation.

The legislative scheme of the MAOA, read together with Model Bye-Law 5, may therefore be summarised in the following propositions:

i) an apartment constitutes heritable and transferable property in the same manner as any other immovable property;

ii) the apartment owner may dispose of the apartment by way of a Will, or the apartment may devolve through intestate succession;

iii) the role of the Association of Apartment Owners upon the death of an apartment owner is essentially administrative — namely, to give effect to the testamentary or successional documents and to update the register of apartment owners — and is not adjudicatory; and

iv) the Association does not derive, from the MAOA, any independent power to admit or refuse “membership” analogous to the powers exercised by a co-operative housing society.

However, the Association may, where it considers it appropriate, require the legatee to obtain probate of the Will on a voluntary basis. Probate, where granted, continues under Section 273 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, to constitute conclusive proof of the representative title of the executor, and obviates many of the practical concerns associated with an unprobated Will.

CONCLUSION

The legal framework governing the transmission of flats upon the demise of a member or apartment owner in Mumbai presently stands at a moment of significant change. The Repealing and Amending Act, 2025, by removing the requirement of mandatory probate, has eliminated one of the most enduring procedural distinctions between Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai on the one hand and the rest of the country on the other.

The omission of Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 means that probate is no longer a mandatory precondition for transmission in respect of Wills executed by Hindus, Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains and Parsis with a Mumbai nexus.

Probate nevertheless continues to remain a valuable and significant legal instrument, particularly in cases involving high value estates, contested family situations, complex testamentary arrangements, or anticipated future dealings with the apartment.

The institutional response of co-operative housing societies and condominiums in Mumbai must therefore, in the post-2025 legal landscape, strike a careful balance between:

  • the legal imperative of giving expeditious effect to transmission; and
  • the prudential necessity of satisfying themselves regarding the genuineness of the Will and the entitlement of the legatee.

Sec 148 – Reassessment – beyond a period of three years – Approval – the specified authority was the authority contemplated by Section 151(ii), and not in Section 151(i) – Defect not a mere procedural irregularity – Approval by a wrong authority – Proviso to Section 151 cannot be read retrospectively

5. Skypak Travels Private Limited vs. Income-Tax Officer Ward- 2(3)(1) and Ors.

[Writ Petition no. 5456 of 2024, Order dated 24th April 2026 (Bombay HC)] Assessment Year 2018-19.

Sec 148 – Reassessment – beyond a period of three years – Approval – the specified authority was the authority contemplated by Section 151(ii), and not in Section 151(i) – Defect not a mere procedural irregularity – Approval by a wrong authority – Proviso to Section 151 cannot be read retrospectively

The Petitioner is a company incorporated in India. The Petitioner had not been engaged in any active business for several years and had not filed its Return of Income for the relevant period. It was the specifically contended by the Petitioner that, at the relevant time, it did not even have an account on the income-tax e-filing portal, and such account came to be opened only on 16 October, 2024 after the Petitioner became aware of the reassessment and penalty proceedings.

For Assessment Year 2018-19, a notice dated 23 March 2022 was issued under Section 148A(b) of the Act alleging that information had been flagged on the portal in accordance with the risk management strategy and that the Petitioner had sold immovable property valued at Rs.2,29,23,500/- without filing any return of income. The Petitioner contended that the said notice was never served either physically or electronically. Thereafter, an order dated 06 April 2022 was passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act, followed by issuance of notice dated 07 April 2022 under Section 148 of the Act. According to the petitioner, these were also never served. The Petitioner further contended that both the said notice and the order themselves recorded that approval had been obtained from the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax. Subsequently, the reassessment proceedings were carried forward by issuance of notices under Section 142(1) and Show cause notices alleging that the Petitioner had sold immovable property and proposing to add Rs.2,29,23,500/- under Section 50C of the Act.

The Petitioner contended that none of the aforesaid notices had ever been served upon it. In fact, the reassessment order itself records that the notice sent by speed post had been returned with the remark “Left”, and that the Inspector deputed for service had reported that the address of the Assessee was inaccurate and that no company in the name of the Petitioner existed at the stated address in Raja Bahadur Compound. The Petitioner contended that, despite this, the Department continued to proceed on the basis of incorrect address. On 26 March 2024, Respondent No.1 passed an order under section 147 read with Section 144 of the Act, treating Rs.2,29,23,500/- as short-term capital gains under Section 50C and raising a tax demand of Rs.1,79,72,560/-. Thereafter, by orders dated 23 September 2024, penalty under Section 270A amounting of Rs.1,51,58,394/- and penalty under Section 272A(1)(d) amounting of Rs.50,000/- were levied.

According to the Petitioner, it became aware of these proceedings only when the assessment order and penalty orders were received by its director on 10 October 2024. Thereafter, an e-filing account was created on 16 October 2024, upon which the Petitioner downloaded various notices and orders.

The Petitioner submitted that the impugned notice under Section 148 and the order under Section 148A(d) are wholly without jurisdiction since they had been issued after expiry of three years from the end of Assessment Year 2018-19, whereas the approval admittedly been granted by the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax. According to the petitioner, in such a case, the competent specified authority under Section 151(ii), as it then stood, ought to have been the Principal Chief Commissioner / Principal Director General or, in their absence, the Chief Commissioner / Director General, and not the Principal Commissioner. Reliance was placed upon the decision in Vodafone Idea Limited vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax in Writ Petition No. 2768 of 2022 decided on 06 February 2024, wherein the Court, in an identical case, held that where the notice under Section 148 and order under Section 148A(d) had been issued beyond three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, sanction granted by the Principal Commissioner was invalid and the sanctioning authority ought to have been the authority specified under Section 151(ii). The petitioner also relied upon Kpmg Llp vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, International Tax Circle 2(1)(2), Delhi & Ors., Writ Petition (ST) No. 5390 of 2024 decided on 21 February 2024, wherein, following Vodafone Idea Limited (supra), the Court quashed the order under Section 148A(d) and notice under Section 148 on the ground that the sanction was accorded by the Principal Commissioner even though the matter pertained to Assessment Year 2018-19 and the impugned action had been taken beyond three years. It was further pointed out that the Special Leave Petition preferred against the said decision in KPMG (supra) had also been dismissed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

The importance of prior approval under Section 151 was emphasized by the Supreme Court in Union of India & Ors. vs. Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46 (SC)], wherein it was held that Section 151 imposes an important check on the power of the Revenue to reopen assessments and that grant of sanction by the appropriate authority is a pre-condition for assumption of jurisdiction under Section 148. Non-compliance with the statutory requirement as to sanction goes to the root of the matter and renders the entire proceedings void.

The Hon’ble Court observed that, as Section 151 stood at the relevant point of time, where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the specified authority was the authority contemplated under Section 151(ii), and not the authority mentioned in Section 151(i). The period of three years was required to be computed from the end of the relevant assessment year. In the present case, the impugned order and notice themselves indicated that approval had been granted by the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax. This fact was also admitted in the Reply Affidavit. He was not the competent authority in law for a case falling beyond the three-year period from the end of the relevant assessment year.

The Hon’ble Court observed that the issue was squarely covered by the decision of this Court in Vodafone Idea Limited vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax decided on 06 February 2024. In that case also, for Assessment Year 2018-19, the notice under Section 148 and the order under Section 148A(d) had been issued beyond three years, and sanction had been accorded by the Principal Commissioner. Incidentally, the notice in the said case was also dated 07 April 2022. The Court held that the sanctioning authority ought to have been the Principal Chief Commissioner as contemplated under Section 151(ii) and that the proviso to Section 151, inserted only with effect from 01 April 2023, would not apply.

The same view was reiterated by the High Court in Kpmg Llp vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, International Tax Circle 2(1)(2), Delhi & Ors. decided on 21 February 2024. In that case as well,, the Court held that since the impugned notice and order for Assessment Year 2018-19 were issued beyond three years, sanction granted by the Principal Commissioner was invalid and the matter was governed by Section 151(ii). The Court specifically observed that the proviso to Section 151 had been inserted only with effect from 01 April 2023 and, therefore, had no application to the facts of that case. The Special Leave Petition against the said decision was also dismissed in SLP(C) Diary No. 23377/2025.

The Hon’ble Court further noted that Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Rajeev Bansal had clearly explained the importance of sanction under Section 151 and held that grant of sanction by the appropriate authority is a pre-condition for the Assessing Officer to assume jurisdiction under Section 148. Section 151 is not an empty formality; rather it is statutory safeguard and check against arbitrary reopening. Non-compliance with the said requirement goes to the root of jurisdiction itself.

According to the Hon’ble Court, the defect in the present case was not a mere procedural irregularity. It was a case where approval had been granted by an incompetent authority. Consequently, the assumption of jurisdiction itself was invalid.

The Hon’ble Court further observed that the fifth and sixth proviso (erstwhile third and fourth provisos) to Section 149(1) were not applicable for the purposes of Section 151 of the Act. The provisos themselves make it clear that they are only for the purposes of computation of period of limitation under Section 149 of the Act. It was this reason that a special proviso had subsequently been inserted in Section 151 of the Act.

Further, the proviso inserted to Section 151 cannot be treated as retrospective. The Legislature had specifically inserted the proviso with effect from 01 April 2023. Had the Legislature intended
retrospective operation, it could have said so expressly. In the absence of such indication, and particularly since the provision relates to jurisdiction, it cannot be construed so as to retrospectively validate an action which was without jurisdiction when originally taken.

The Court also noted that the proviso to Section 151 refers to four provisos to Section 149(1). Two of those provisos i.e., third and fourth proviso to Section 149(1) were inserted with effect from 01 April 2023. The original third and fourth provisos were made fifth and sixth provisos. There is no case made out or even argued that even third and fourth proviso to Section 149(1) are retrospective in nature. Once, the third and fourth proviso to Section 149(1) are undisputedly prospective and effective from 01.04.2023, then the proviso to Section 151 which was inserted at the same time, and which makes a reference to such provisos cannot be held to be retrospective. Thus, it was observed that the proviso to Section 151 cannot be read retrospectively so as to govern notices and orders issued in April 2022.

The objection raised by the Revenue regarding availability of an alternate remedy was rejected. Consequently, the impugned order passed under Section 148A(d) dated 06 April 2022, the impugned notice issued under Section 148 dated 07 April 2022, the assessment order dated 26 March 2024 passed under section 147 read with Section 144, the notice of demand issued pursuant thereto, and the penalty orders dated 23 September 2024 under Sections 270A and 272A(1)(d), being consequential to proceedings initiated without jurisdiction, were quashed and set aside.

Section 143(3), rws 144B – Faceless Assessment – Show Cause notice not granting sufficient time to reply – Violation of principles of natural justice – Standard Operating Procedure dated 03.08.2022 :

4. Wrode and Wire Pvt Ltd vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre (formerly known as National E-Assessment Centre) & Ors

[Writ petition no. 3533 of 2022, dated April 24, 2026 (Bombay HC)] Assessment Year 2018-19

Section 143(3), rws 144B – Faceless Assessment – Show Cause notice not granting sufficient time to reply – Violation of principles of natural justice – Standard Operating Procedure dated 03.08.2022 :

The Petitioner had filed its return of income declaring a total income of Rs.6,19,860/- for the relevant Assessment Year 2018-19. The case of the Petitioner was selected for scrutiny through issuance of notice under Section 143(2) of the Act. The Respondents issued several notices, and the Petitioner duly filed various submissions/explanations along with the relevant documentary evidence. A direction was also issued for conducting special audit under Section 142(2A) of the Act, and the special audit report was submitted to Respondent No. 1.

Thereafter, the Petitioner received a Show Cause Notice cum Draft Assessment Order dated 06.01.2022 (Thursday), calling upon the Petitioner to show cause as to why the assessment should not be completed in terms of the Draft Assessment Order, where the Assessing Officer proposed an addition of Rs. 116,38,23,790/. The said notice was digitally issued and signed at around 07:06 p.m., and the Petitioner was required to comply with the same by 23:59 hours of 09.01.2022 (which was a Sunday). On 08.01.2022, the Petitioner sought an adjournment and requested extension of time upto 23.01.2022. However, Respondent No.1 directly passed the impugned assessment order under Section 143(3), read with Section 144B, on 12.01.2022, whereby an addition of Rs. 65,68,23,520/- was made and a Demand of Rs. 70,85,60,500/- was raised.

The Petitioner, challenged the said Assessment Order by the way of the Writ Petition and contended that, under the Show Cause Notice dated 06.01.2022, proposing an addition of Rs. 116,38,23,790/-, the time granted to the Petitioner was merely 2.5 days, which included Saturday and Sunday. It was submitted that the Assessment proceedings were conducted in a high pitched and hurried manner. According to the petitioner, the period of merely 2.5 days was wholly insufficient and resulted in violation of the principles of natural justice, which require sufficient, adequate, and reasonable opportunity of being heard to the assessee. The petitioner further contended that paragraph 1.3 of the Standard Operating Procedure dated 03.08.2022 issued by the National Faceless Assessment Centre itself directed the assessment units to grant at least seven days’ time to assessees for responding to show-cause notices.

It was also contended that, despite the Petitioner having filed an adjournment request on 08.01.2022, no communication regarding acceptance or rejection of such request was ever made to the Petitioner, and the impugned assessment order was directly passed on 12.01.2022. Further, no opportunity for personal hearing was granted to the petitioner. It was submitted that the draft Assessment Order violated the provisions of Section 144B(7)(vii), as they stood at that relevant point of time.

The petitioner additionally contended that, in the final Assessment Order dated 12.01.2022, a separate disallowance of Rs. 7,46,488/- in respect of travelling expenses had been made; although no such disallowance had ever been proposed in the Draft Assessment Order. Thus, an addition had been made directly in the final Assessment Order without issuance of any Show Cause Notice in respect thereof. According to the petitioner, the assessment proceedings had been completed in a high-pitched manner and in undue haste.

The learned counsel appearing on behalf of the Respondents supported the contentions of Respondent No.1 as set out in the impugned Final Assessment Order and relied upon the Affidavit in Reply dated 04.05.2022 as well as an Additional Affidavit in Reply dated July, 2022. It was also contended that the Petitioner ought to be directed to avail the alternate remedy available under the statute.

The Hon’ble Court held that it would not be appropriate to relegate the Petitioner to avail to the alternate remedy of appeal under the statute when there had been a breach of the principles of natural justice on the part of Respondent No.1. According to the Hon’ble Court, the matter was a fit case to interfere in exercise of its extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.

Accordingly, the Hon’ble Court held quashed and set aside the final Assessment Order dated 12.01.2022 passed under Section 143(3), read with Section 144B of the Act, along with all consequential notices. The matter was remanded to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer for fresh consideration from the stage of issuance of the Draft Assessment Order dated 06.01.2022 and for passing such order as may deemed fit in accordance with law, after affording the Petitioner an opportunity to respond to the Draft Assessment Order and also granting a personal hearing.

Mediclaim reimbursements are independent contractual entitlements and cannot be deducted from compensation awarded under the Motor Vehicles Act.

14. New India Assurance Company Ltd. v. Dolly Satish Gandhi & Anr.

2026 INSC 498

Mediclaim reimbursements are independent contractual entitlements and cannot be deducted from compensation awarded under the Motor Vehicles Act.

FACTS

Conflicting views existed amongst various High Courts regarding whether amounts received by a claimant under a Mediclaim insurance policy were liable to be deducted while computing compensation payable under the Motor Vehicles  Act.

One line of decisions held that Mediclaim reimbursement is independent of compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act and therefore not deductible. Another line of authorities held that permitting both would amount to double recovery and that Mediclaim amounts ought to be deducted.

A Full Bench of the Bombay High Court resolved the conflict by holding that Mediclaim reimbursement is not deductible from compensation awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal.

The correctness of the Full Bench decision was challenged before the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that compensation under the Motor Vehicles Act and reimbursement under a Mediclaim policy operate in distinct fields. A Mediclaim policy is founded on a contractual relationship supported by payment of premiums by the insured, whereas compensation under the Motor Vehicles  Act arises from statutory liability flowing from a wrongful act.

Amounts received under Mediclaim policies cannot, therefore, be deducted from compensation payable by the tortfeasor or insurer under the Motor Vehicles Act. Deduction of such amounts would unjustly benefit the wrongdoer and defeat the beneficial object of the legislation. The Court approved the view that Mediclaim reimbursement  is not liable to deduction from motor accident compensation.

The Court noted that certain High Courts had treated Mediclaim benefits as independent contractual entitlements not liable for deduction, whereas other courts had viewed such reimbursement as overlapping compensation leading to duplication of benefits. The Court pointed  out that it is the duty of the lawyers to point out conflicting decisions to the Court. The Court analysed the conflicting authorities and  proceeded to settle the legal position governing the issue.

The Appeal was dismissed.

TDS — Credit for tax deducted — S. 199 — Assessee bank received sale proceeds from auction of borrower’s property under SARFAESI Act — Tax was deducted at source u/s. 194-IA — Property ownership remained with borrower — Sale consideration was not bank’s income — Assessee bank was entitled to credit/refund of TDS from sale proceeds.

16. Pr.CIT v. Punjab National Bank:

(2026) 185 taxmann.com 1003 (Del.)

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 21/04/2026

S. 199 of ITA 1961/S. 390 of ITA 2025

TDS — Credit for tax deducted — S. 199 — Assessee bank received sale proceeds from auction of borrower’s property under SARFAESI Act — Tax was deducted at source u/s. 194-IA — Property ownership remained with borrower — Sale consideration was not bank’s income — Assessee bank was entitled to credit/refund of TDS from sale proceeds.

The Assessee is a Bank. The Assessee sold an immovable property by way of an auction under the SARFAESI Act on account of default by the borrower. The sale proceeds were credited to the Assessee after deduction of tax at source u/s. 194-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

In the assessment proceedings, it was the contention of the Assessee that the Assessee was entitled to refund of the amount deducted from the sale proceeds. It was submitted that the Assessee was merely a custodian of the sale proceeds and did not receive the same in the capacity of the owner and that the Assessee was liable to return the excess consideration over the liability to the borrower. However, the Department contended that the Assessee can neither claim credit of TDS nor claim refund unless the Assessee Bank offered the corresponding income in respect of the sale of immovable property.

The CIT(A) decided the appeal in favour of the Assessee and the Tribunal affirmed the decision of the CIT(A).

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) When the tax is deducted in relation to the amount paid/received qua purchase/sale of the property, then one has to bear in mind the nature of transaction.

ii) In case of auction/sale of a property under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, the Bank cannot be treated to be the owner, as it only has possession of the property for having security interest in the property and corresponding rights to sell the same for recovery of its dues. The property neither factually nor by any legal fiction  belongs to the Bank. It is actually the borrower who is the owner of the property having created a security interest in relation to the property in favour of the Bank or secured creditor.

iii) The Bank during the course of assessment proceedings, had clearly explained before the Assessing Officer that it had charged interest on the loan amount and has adjusted all expenses from the sale proceeds it received consequent to the auction. When the secured assets are sold by the Bank, it is only a trustee or custodian of the sale proceeds and any excess amount received in relation to the property over and above its outstanding dues and expenses incidental to the auction, has to be returned to the borrower. Similarly, in case there is any deficit, the Bank can recover the same from the borrower in accordance with law.

iv) The property does not belong to the Bank and therefore, irrespective of  the fact that the amount has been deducted u/s. 194IA of the Act, from the sale proceeds, the Bank is entitled to get refund of that amount because, Bank’s asset was not sold by the Bank. The respondent Bank is entitled to get refund of the amount deducted from the sale proceeds, as has been rightly held by the CIT(A). We therefore, do not find any error in the orders of the CIT(A) so also of the Tribunal. They are hereby affirmed.”

Insolvency – Real estate projects – Project-wise resolution – Homebuyers’ interests – CIRP can proceed project-wise. [Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016]

13. Alpha Corp Development Pvt. Ltd. v. Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority & Ors.

2026 INSC 449

Insolvency – Real estate projects – Project-wise resolution – Homebuyers’ interests – CIRP can proceed project-wise. [Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016] 

FACTS

Corporate insolvency resolution proceedings were initiated against a real estate developer engaged in the development of multiple housing and commercial projects. Certain projects were developed on lands leased from the Greater Noida Industrial Development Authority (GNIDA), while one project was situated on freehold land unconnected with GNIDA.

Separate resolution plans were approved by the NCLT in respect of different projects. GNIDA challenged the approvals before the NCLAT which set aside the orders passed by the NCLT.

Various stakeholders, including developers, homebuyers’ associations and project entities, approached the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court recognised the principle that insolvency resolution in real estate matters may proceed on a project-wise basis rather than necessarily against the corporate debtor as a whole.

The Court observed that project-specific resolution protects viable projects and safeguards the interests of homebuyers in projects unaffected by default.

Reference was made to earlier decisions affirming that project-wise CIRP is permissible in appropriate cases.

The Court also observed that projects unconnected with GNIDA could not be subjected to objections raised by GNIDA in relation to separate properties.

The impugned judgment of the NCLAT was interfered with to the extent warranted in law.

The Appeals were partly allowed.

Revision — S. 263 — Lack of enquiry and inadequate enquiry — Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act invoked for verification of documentary evidence regarding the claim of utilization out of accumulations made u/s. 11(2) of the Act — No prior show cause notice issued for invocation of Explanation to section 263 —Assessee furnished details during the assessment proceedings — Enquiry was made and possible view taken — Commissioner cannot re-open the matter u/s. 263 because there was another view or because the Commissioner desires further enquiry.

15. CIT(E) v. Impact Foundation (India)

2026 (5) TMI 331 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 04/05/2026

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — S. 263 — Lack of enquiry and inadequate enquiry — Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act invoked for verification of documentary evidence regarding the claim of utilization out of accumulations made u/s. 11(2) of the Act — No prior show cause notice issued for invocation of Explanation to section 263 —Assessee furnished details during the assessment proceedings — Enquiry was made and possible view taken — Commissioner cannot re-open the matter u/s. 263 because there was another view or because the Commissioner desires further enquiry.

The Assessee is a non-profit company registered u/s. 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 and registered u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and is formed for helping organisations to improve implementation of programs which help women and children in education, health and livelihoods. The Assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at Rs. NIL. The Assessee, being registered u/s. 12AA, also claimed benefit u/s. 80G and claimed exemption u/s. 11 of the Act. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny assessment and the income returned by the Assessee was accepted without any additions.

Thereafter, a notice u/s. 263 of the Act was issued for revision of assessment on the ground that as per the schedule of return of income, the Assessee claimed that it had utilised `6 crores from accumulations u/s. 11(2) and since the Assessee had not furnished any documentary evidence for the utilisation of Rs.6 crores and the Assessing Officer had not verified the issue and therefore, the assessment order was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The CIT(E) without considering the contentions of the Assessee invoked the Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act and held that the Assessing Officer had not verified the documentary evidences, he had also not verified whether the utilisation was as per the Memorandum of Association, third party verifications and therefore the order was erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that the CIT(E) could not invoke his power of revision u/s. 263 where the Assessing Officer had conducted enquiries and applied his mind. The Tribunal observed that prior to the passing of assessment order, the Assessing Officer had, after making enquiry, taken the view that the utilisation of funds done by the Assessee was appropriate and completed the assessment without making any addition. Therefore, the assessment was not erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue and the invocation of section 263 was bad in law.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) We are of the view that the ITAT has correctly reached the conclusion that the order passed by the Assessing Officer dated 12th December 2019 was not erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, inasmuch as, the said order was passed on a verification of all the materials submitted by the Assessee before the Assessing Officer. We are also of the view that the Assessee, as recorded in the order of the ITAT, had submitted before the Assessing Officer all the details as called for, in respect of the accumulation of funds in the earlier years, and also submitted details of the amounts utilized out of those funds. The Respondent-Assessee had furnished all the relevant details of Rs. 6 crores spent by it during the year under consideration, out of the amounts accumulated in the preceding year, and therefore the CIT (Exemption), erroneously held that the Respondent-Assessee had furnished utilization of accumulated amounts under broad heads. The CIT (Exemptions), was therefore of the view that the Assessing Officer could have asked for breakup details, and examined with supporting evidences that the said utilization is as per the objects of the Respondent-Assessee.

ii) Such view and approach to our mind, did not warrant invoking the provisions of Section 263 of the Act, inasmuch as it is not the case that the Assessing Officer had not verified any details. In fact, it is very clear that the Respondent-Assessee had, by letters dated 30th January 2019 and 3rd December 2019, along with the required board resolutions, Form No. 10, and details of utilization of funds, along with details of the accumulation of funds made u/s. 11(2) of the Act, given complete details to the Assessing Officer, and on the basis of the verification thereof, the Assessing Officer had passed the assessment order dated 12th December 2019. Thus, the order of the Assessing Officer could not be revised by the CIT (Exemptions), merely on the ground that further details were required to be called for.

ii) It is settled law that the consideration of the Commissioner as to whether an order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue must be based on materials on record of the proceedings called for by him, and if there are no materials on record on the basis of which it can be said that the Commissioner acting in a reasonable manner could have come to such conclusion, the very initiation of proceedings by him would be illegal and without jurisdiction. The ITAT has therefore rightly come to the conclusion that the CIT (Exemptions), could not have initiated proceedings with a view to start de novo or a fishing inquiry in matters or orders which are already concluded, unless he was able to hold that the Assessing Officer’s view on the issue was unsustainable in law.

iii) The ITAT has rightly considered the provisions of section 11(2) and (3) of the Act so as to reach to a conclusion that the Respondent-Assessee had shown that the accumulation and utilization of funds has been rightly made, and therefore, if at all, the taxability of the same was to be decided, then it had to be decided in the year in which the expiry of the accumulated amount takes place, i.e., AY 2022-2023, inasmuch as the funds were accumulated in AY 2016-2017. The ITAT has rightly come to the conclusion that as far as the relevant facts of the present case are concerned, a perusal of Form-10 revealed that the accumulated amount in AY 2016-17 was to the tune of `14.51 crores up to 31st March 2021, i.e. AY 2021-22, and therefore the non-utilization of the accumulated amount as per Section 11(3) (c) would attract taxation in the previous year immediately following the expiry of the period, i.e. AY 2022-23.

iv) It is also not the case that the CIT (Exemptions) had come to the conclusion that there had been non-utilization of the amount accumulated in AY 2016-17. The only issue which the CIT (Exemptions), had flagged was regarding the non-examination by the Assessing Officer of Rs.6 crores expended by the Respondent-Assessee in the relevant AY out of the accumulated amount of Rs.14.51 crores, which is a situation which attracted clause (a) or clause (d) of Section 11(3) of the Act. As rightly held by the ITAT, such situation of invoking the provisions of clause (a) or (d) would only arise in the year after the expiry of the accumulated period, that is AY 2022-23, and not in the relevant AY.’

v) Prior to the invocation of the provisions of Explanation 2 to Section 263 of the Act, the show-cause notice was required to specify that the aforesaid Explanation is to be invoked against the Assessee, and if the show-cause notice does not mention that the Explanation is to be invoked, then the provisions of Section 263 of the Act cannot apply. As the Respondent-Assessee was not confronted with the aforesaid Explanation, hence, such an order, without confronting the Respondent-Assessee with the invocation of Explanation 2 to Section 263 was not appropriate and sustainable in law. We are therefore in agreement with learned Counsel on behalf of the Respondent-Assessee on this issue.

vi) The reliance placed by the learned Counsel for the Appellant-Revenue on the decision of the Sesa Starlite Ltd (supra) is not well founded in to the facts of the present case, as in such case, this Court upheld the proceedings u/s. 263 of the Act on the ground that on the issue of deduction u/s. 10B claimed by the Assessee, there was absolutely no consideration by the Assessing Officer, and hence the assessment order was passed on a non-application of mind to the material on record, it was hence held that, revisionary powers exercised by the Commissioner of Income-Tax u/s. 263 of the Act were correct and not bad in law. However in the facts of the present case, the decision of Sesa Starlight Ltd (supra) would not be applicable, as prior to the passing the assessment order dated 12th December 2019, the Assessing Officer had raised specific queries regarding the utilization of accumulated funds by the Respondent Assessee, and hence it was not a case of non-application of mind on the part of the Assessing Officer which warranted the CIT (Exemptions), Mumbai to exercise his powers u/s. 263 of the Act. The Respondent Assessee has demonstrated the utilisation of the accumulated funds u/s. 11(2) of the Act, and hence it is not a case of ‘no consideration’ by the Assessing Officer. The Respondent-Assessee has in fact by letters dated 30th January 2019 and 3rd December 2019 replied to all the queries as raised by the Assessing Officer prior to passing the assessment order dated 12th December 2019.

vii) The ITAT has rightly set aside the order of CIT (Exemptions), seeking to revise the assessment order by holding that the CIT (Exemptions) had erred in exercising the jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act, and to reach to a conclusion that the Assessing Officer had conducted necessary enquires regarding utilisation of the accumulated income of `6 Crores for the purpose for which it was accumulated, and had accepted the same as a possible view. Resultantly, the impugned order passed by the ITAT does not give rise to any substantial questions of law requiring interference or consideration in the present Appeal.”

Forgery of Will – Purchaser under registered sale deed – Absence of material showing conspiracy – Criminal proceedings quashed against bona fide purchaser. [Indian Penal Code, 1860, S.420, 467, 468, 471, 120B; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, S.482]

12. S. Anand v. State of Tamil Nadu & Anr.

2026 INSC 418

Forgery of Will – Purchaser under registered sale deed – Absence of material showing conspiracy – Criminal proceedings quashed against bona fide purchaser. [Indian Penal Code, 1860, S.420, 467, 468, 471, 120B; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, S.482] 

FACTS

The complainant alleged that a forged will had been fabricated by the accused persons after the death of his father and that properties were sold based on such forged document.

An FIR was registered for offences relating to forgery, cheating and conspiracy. The investigating agency filed a charge sheet alleging that several accused persons had conspired to fabricate the will and utilise the same for the execution of sale deeds.

The appellant was one of the purchasers under the sale deed. He contended that he was a bona fide purchaser for value, had no role in the alleged fabrication of the will and had merely purchased the property after verifying title and possession.

The High Court refused to quash the proceedings under section 482 Cr.P.C. The appellant approached the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that criminal prosecution cannot be permitted to continue in the absence of specific material establishing participation in the alleged conspiracy.

The materials on record did not disclose any role played by the appellant in the fabrication of the disputed will or in the creation of forged documents.

The appellant was merely a purchaser under a registered sale deed, and there was no evidence to demonstrate knowledge of the alleged forgery. The Court observed that continuation of criminal proceedings against a bona fide purchaser in such circumstances would amount to abuse of the process of law.

The criminal proceedings against the appellant were quashed. The Appeal was allowed.

Financial establishments – Deposit – loan transaction – Applicability of MPID Act – Investment carrying assured return held to constitute “deposit”. [Maharashtra Protection of Interest of Depositors (in Financial Establishments) Act, 1999, S.2(c), 2(d), 3]

11. Alka Agrawal & Ors. v. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

2026 INSC 489

Financial establishments – Deposit – loan transaction – Applicability of MPID Act – Investment carrying assured return held to constitute “deposit”. [Maharashtra Protection of Interest of Depositors (in Financial Establishments) Act, 1999, S.2(c), 2(d), 3]

FACTS

The appellants invested an aggregate amount of Rs.2.51 crore with the respondents for the development of a resort project at Tadoba, Maharashtra. The respondents allegedly assured repayment with interest at the rate of 24% per annum, payable quarterly.

The amounts were paid through banking channels between 2016 and 2019. The respondents failed to repay either the principal amount or the assured returns.

The appellants initiated various civil and criminal proceedings, including summary suits, proceedings under section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act and applications under section 156(3) of the Cr.P.C. The High Court held that the transaction was merely a loan transaction of a civil nature.

Thereafter, proceedings were initiated under the Maharashtra Protection of Interest of Depositors Act, alleging fraudulent default by a financial establishment. The Sessions Court rejected the application seeking registration of FIR under the MPID Act. The High Court affirmed the order.

The appellants approached the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that the definition of “deposit” under section 2(c) of the MPID Act is wide and comprehensive and includes amounts received pursuant to promises of financial returns.

Merely because the transaction carried a stipulation regarding payment of interest would not by itself exclude the transaction from the ambit of “deposit”.

The Court observed that the object of the MPID Act is to protect investors from fraudulent financial schemes and therefore the provisions require purposive interpretation.

The earlier proceedings under IPC and the finding that the dispute was civil in nature could not preclude examination of the applicability of the MPID Act. The impugned judgment of the High Court was set aside, and the matter was remanded for reconsideration in accordance with the law.

The Appeal was allowed.

Reassessment — New procedure — Time limit for issue of notice u/s. 148 — Exclusion of period for computation of period of limitation — Effect of decision of Supreme Court in case of Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal — “Surviving period” referred to by Court — Exclusion of time allowed to assessee to respond to initial notice — Held by High Court that Number of days remaining for passing order of issuance of notice would be two days — Period of two days expiring on 10/06/2022 or 27/06/2022 — Notice issued on 27/07/2022 issued much after surviving period — Notice barred by limitation.

14. Hitesh Ramniklal Shah v. ACIT: (2026) 486 ITR 281 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 5960

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 11/11/2025

Ss. 147, 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Time limit for issue of notice u/s. 148 — Exclusion of period for computation of period of limitation — Effect of decision of Supreme Court in case of Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal — “Surviving period” referred to by Court — Exclusion of time allowed to assessee to respond to initial notice — Held by High Court that Number of days remaining for passing order of issuance of notice would be two days — Period of two days expiring on 10/06/2022 or 27/06/2022 — Notice issued on 27/07/2022 issued much after surviving period — Notice barred by limitation.

For the A. Y. 2014-15, the petitioner filed his return of income on September 29, 2014, declaring a total income of ₹64,86,660 in respect of which no scrutiny assessment was made. Respondent No. 1 issued a notice dated June 29, 2021 under the unamended provisions of section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after obtaining the approval of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax, Mumbai-19. The petitioner filed his return of income on November 18, 2021 in response to the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act declaring the same income that was declared in the original return of income.

After the judgment of the hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India v. Ashish Agarwal [(2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC); (2023) 1 SCC 617; 2022 SCC OnLine SC 543.] delivered on May 4, 2022, respondent No. 1 issued a notice dated May 25, 2022 u/s. 148A(b) of the Act and called upon the petitioner to furnish his reply within two weeks to show cause as to why a notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued to the petitioner. In reply thereto, the petitioner filed a letter dated June 3, 2022 requesting respondent No. 1 to drop the reopening proceedings. A further reply was filed on June 17, 2022, inter alia, pointing out that the notice is time barred as per section 149 of the Act; that there was no information with respondent No. 1 which suggested that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and submissions were made on the merits to demonstrate that no income has escaped assessment. The petitioner filed another reply on June 25, 2022 pointing out that the same information was already considered while seeking to reassess the income for the A. Y. 2015-16 and, hence, the reopening for the A. Y. 2014-15 should be dropped. However, respondent No. 1 passed an order u/s. 148A(d) dated July 26, 2022 rejecting the submissions of the petitioner and issued a notice dated July 27, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order and the notice on the ground of limitation. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) After considering the above exclusion period, we observe that the remaining days for conclusion of the procedure for passing of an order in terms of section 148A(d) and issuance of the notice u/s. 148 of the Act would be two days. In the present case, whichever way we see it, the period of two days would expire on June 10, 2022 or June 27, 2022 respectively and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148 of the Act issued on July 27, 2022 is time barred, inasmuch as it is issued much after the surviving period.

ii) We concur with the judgments of the co-ordinate Bench in Dhanraj Govindram Kella v. ITO [(2025) 480 ITR 612 (Guj); 2025 SCC OnLine Guj 4831.] and of the Delhi High Court in Ram Balram Buildhome Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO [(2025) 477 ITR 133 (Delhi); 2025 SCC OnLine Del 481.] which have dealt with the surviving period and quashed the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act passed beyond the surviving period.

iii) In view of the above, it is apparent that respondent No. 1 has acted beyond jurisdiction and we accordingly set aside the impugned notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act as well as all the subsequent notices issued u/s. 142(1) and the show-cause notice on the above ground.”

Penalty — Limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) — Penalty u/s. 271E — Acceptance and repayment of deposits in cash in excess of prescribed limit — Assessment order passed on 31/12/2010 with initiation of penalty proceedings — Reference to Additional Commissioner made on 07/06/2011 and penalty order passed on 30/12/2011 — Held by High Court that penalty order barred by limitation — Six months’ limitation period u/s. 275(1)(c) has to be reckoned from date of initiation of penalty proceedings.

13. Principal CIT v. Thapar Homes (P) Ltd.: (2026) 486 ITR 149 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 11073 (2025) 347 CTR 184 (Del)

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 01/08/2025

Ss. 269T, 271E and 275(1)(c) of ITA 1961

Penalty — Limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) — Penalty u/s. 271E — Acceptance and repayment of deposits in cash in excess of prescribed limit — Assessment order passed on 31/12/2010 with initiation of penalty proceedings — Reference to Additional Commissioner made on 07/06/2011 and penalty order passed on 30/12/2011 — Held by High Court that penalty order barred by limitation — Six months’ limitation period u/s. 275(1)(c) has to be reckoned from date of initiation of penalty proceedings.

For the A. Y. 2009-10, the Assessing Officer passed the assessment order on 31/12/2010 u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, with initiation of penalty proceedings u/s. 271E for contravention of section 269T. The reference was made by the Assessing Officer to the concerned Additional Commissioner of Income-tax (ACIT) on 07/06/2011 and pursuant to the notice issued by the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax, the penalty order dated 30/12/2011 u/s. 271E of the Act was passed. The penalty imposed was for ₹3,44,15,000, which is equivalent to the amount paid contrary to section 269T of the Act.

The CIT(A) set aside the penalty order holding that the order was passed beyond the period of limitation u/s. 275(1)(c). The Tribunal affirmed the order and held that the imposition of the penalty u/s. 271E was to have been made before 30/06/2011 and not 31/12/2011.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) The facts in the Pr. CIT v. Thapar Homes Ltd. [(2025) 483 ITR 248 (Delhi); 2023 SCC OnLine Del 7020; 2023 : DHC : 7808-DB.] are identical to the case in hand. The conclusion drawn by this court is that the limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) of the Act had expired on June 30, 2011. The observation of this court that the appellant-Revenue cannot extend the period of limitation by deciding at his whims and fancies when the notice has to be issued. In the case at hand, the reference having been only on June 7, 2011, surely a notice pursuant to the said reference would have been issued after June 7, 2011, which resulted in the penalty order dated December 30, 2011, hence in that regard, the issue is covered by the decision as referred to by Mr. Bhatia, fairly which is, in favour of the respondent-assessee and against the Revenue.

ii) We are of the view as the issue in hand is covered by the judgment in the case of Pr. CIT v. Thapar Homes Ltd. [(2025) 483 ITR 248 (Delhi); 2023 SCC OnLine Del 7020; 2023 : DHC : 7808-DB.], no substantial question of law arises to be decided in the present appeal. The appeal is dismissed against the Revenue and in favour of the assessee.”

Income from Other Sources — S. 56 — Buy-back of shares at a price lower than the fair market value — Buy-back of shares as per section 68 of the Companies Act, 1956 — Extinguishment of shares — Cannot be held as purchase of property or acquisition of capital asset — S. 56 (2) (x) not applicable.

12. Pr.CIT v. Globe Capital Market Ltd.

(2026) 185 taxmann.com 513 (Del.)

A.Y. 2018-19: Date of order 07/04/2026

S. 56 of ITA 1961 and Rule 11UA of the ITR 1962

Income from Other Sources — S. 56 — Buy-back of shares at a price lower than the fair market value — Buy-back of shares as per section 68 of the Companies Act, 1956 — Extinguishment of shares — Cannot be held as purchase of property or acquisition of capital asset — S. 56 (2) (x) not applicable.

The Assessee was engaged in the business of share broking and clearing of trades. In the course of assessment proceedings being conducted u/s. 153A of the Act, the Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs.16.33 crores on account of buy back of shares u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer held that the Assessee had bought back the shares at the rate of Rs.313.40 per share whereas the fair market value of each shares as per Rule 11UA was Rs.370.46 per share, therefore the difference was taxable u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. It was held that though the shares purchased by the Assessee were its own shares, however, shares constitute capital asset and since the shares were purchased by the Assessee at a lower rate than the fair market value, the difference was liable to be taxed as Assessee’s income.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal and held that the nature of transaction was not that of a mere purchase of shares but was a purchase of own shares under buy-back which resulted in reduction of share capital. The Tribunal also decided the issue in favour of the Assessee and the appeal filed by the Department was dismissed.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) But for Section 68 of Companies Act and the procedure provided thereunder, there is no way can a company buy its own shares. Because buying of own shares is otherwise alien to concept of corporate entity and the provisions of the Companies Act. Securities or shares of a Company can, in a given case be a property in the hands of a Corporate entity but for the issuing company, it is a certificate issued to its members in lieu of the contribution they have made towards the capital or for subscribing to the shares. Buy-back of shares essentially means reduction of capital of the company, which otherwise is impermissible, if recourse to Section 68 of the Companies Act is not taken.

ii) One has to bear in mind that sub-section (vii) of section 68 of the Companies Act mandates that after the completion of the buy-back under this Section, the company shall extinguish and physically destroy the shares or security so bought back.

iii) Section 68 of the Companies Act in so many words expresses that the buy-back of share is reduction of the share capital. There can be no doubt that as per sub-section (vii), the respondent-company must have mutilated or destroyed the shares or so-called property which the Assessing Officer has sought to tax.

iv) A person cannot be taxed for so-called deemed profit from the property (shares) which accrues to it consequent to destruction of the very same property. Because, once the shares are bought back, the purported property extinguishes or vanishes. Hence, the very hypothesis that the respondent company had acquired an asset at lesser rate than the fair market value has no legs to stand on. Buy back of its own shares is antitheses to buying an asset.

v) We are of the considered opinion that the CIT(A) was perfectly justified in allowing the appeal. The view which the Assessing Officer had taken in treating the buyback of shares of the company to be a transaction leading to generation of profit/deemed profit is clearly flawed and untenable in the eye of law. The appeal therefore, fails.”

Exemption u/s. 11 — Educational trust — Denial of exemption — Form 10B filed manually within prescribed period — Electronic filing made after delay of 2,732 days — Application for condonation of delay rejected — Held by High Court that assessee’s conduct neither informed with lethargy nor indolence — Rejection of application for condonation of delay in electronically filing unsustainable and orders set aside.

11. The Borivli Education Society v. CIT: (2026) 486 ITR 652 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 1871

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 17/02/2025

S. 11 of ITA 1961

Exemption u/s. 11 — Educational trust — Denial of exemption — Form 10B filed manually within prescribed period — Electronic filing made after delay of 2,732 days — Application for condonation of delay rejected — Held by High Court that assessee’s conduct neither informed with lethargy nor indolence — Rejection of application for condonation of delay in electronically filing unsustainable and orders set aside.

The assessee is an educational trust. For the A. Y. 2014-15 the assessee filed the audit report in Form 10B manually within the prescribed period. But failed to upload it electronically due to the belief of its Chartered Accountant that electronic filing was not mandatory. The Assessing Officer denied the exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without assigning reasons and without issuing the mandatorily required show-cause notice. Subsequent applications for rectification and for condonation of delay were rejected without affording any opportunity of hearing to the assessee.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the orders. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Based on the aforesaid facts and circumstances, we are satisfied that the petitioner filed form 10B manually or physically within the prescribed period. True, form 10B was not uploaded electronically. At the same time, the petitioner was not intimated for a long time that this was the requirement for which the exemption was being denied. Belatedly, the petitioner was informed that this was one of the reasons. Therefore, the petitioner took expedient steps.

ii) The petitioner also explained that she had nothing to gain from non-compliance. The non-compliance, if any, was due to the advice of a professional chartered accountant. Even the chartered accountant filed an affidavit explaining her bona fides and the factum of the advice. After the petitioner became aware of the reasons, she took several steps and ultimately uploaded form 10B electronically. Still, the application for condonation of delay has been rejected without adequate compliance with the principles of natural justice and fair play.

iii) In all such matters, there is bound to be some lapse on the part of the assessee seeking condonation. However, the delay should be condoned as long as such lapse is not mala fide and the assessee has not derived any undue advantage out of his own lapse. Besides, in such matters, though the length of the delay is one of the considerations, it is not sole consideration. The quality of the explanation offered is crucial, and the focus must be the quality of the cause shown in the explanation.

iv) Besides, in this case, though the delay appears considerable, there is some merit in Dr. Shivaram’s contentions that the delay should be construed from the day the petitioner was informed of the real reason for the denial of exemption. After it was informed of the real reason, the petitioner’s conduct cannot be said to be either informed with lethargy or indolence. The petitioner took several steps and time and again pointed out that form 10B was already filed manually within the prescribed time.

v) For all the above reasons and upon cumulative consideration of the facts and circumstances about which there was no serious dispute, we are satisfied that discretion should have been exercised, and the delay should be condoned.

vi) Accordingly, we set aside the impugned orders dated October 10, 2024 and November 13, 2024 and condone the delay in electronically uploading form 10B.”

Section 5(2)(a) of the Act – Receipt of salary by a non-resident in an Indian NRE Account for services rendered outside India cannot be taxed on a receipt basis

6. [2026] 183 taxmann.com 532 (Ahmedabad – Trib.)

Kaushal Ganpatbhai Patel vs. ITO (International Taxation)

IT APPEAL NO. 434 (AHD) OF 2025

A.Y.: 2019-20 Dated: 09 February 2026

Section 5(2)(a) of the Act – Receipt of salary by a non-resident in an Indian NRE Account for services rendered outside India cannot be taxed on a receipt basis

FACTS

The Assessee, a non-resident, was employed with a company in Seychelles. The salary for the services rendered was credited to his NRE account in India. Since the salary was credited to the NRE account in India, the AO was of the view that the salary was taxable on receipt basis under Section 5(2)(a) of the Act.

The DRP upheld order of the AO.

Aggrieved with the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The Agra ITAT in Arvind Singh Chauhan [2014] 42 taxmann.com 285 (Agra – Trib.) observed that “income received in India” connotes first receipt of income, i.e. when the assessee obtains the money in his own control. Such receipt may be real or constructive. An employee would have right to receive his salary only at the place of his employment. The constructive receipt was consummated at the place of rendering employment, and receipt of salary in an NRE account can only be regarded as an application of salary.

In Arvind Singh Chauhan’s case the taxpayer was a seafarer. Vide Circular No. 13/2017, CBDT has clarified that salary received by a seafarer in an Indian bank in respect of service rendered outside India was not taxable under section 5(2)(a) of the Act. The ITAT noted that the conclusion arrived at by the Agra ITAT was based on an interpretation of provisions of law without relying on the said circular. Since the tax authority did not cite any decision of a higher judicial authority, the ITAT held that salary received by the employer for exercising employment outside India could not be taxed on receipt basis under Section 5(2)(a) of the Act.

Article 24 of India-Denmark DTAA – Limitation of deduction under Section 94B of Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of interest paid to non-resident AEs is discriminatory in terms of Article 24 of India-Denmark DTAA

5. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 579 (Chennai – Trib.)

Vestas Wind Technology India (P.) Ltd vs. ITO (Corporate Circle)

IT APPEAL NO. 320 (CHNY) OF 2025

A.Y.: 2018-19 Dated: 09 March 2026

Article 24 of India-Denmark DTAA – Limitation of deduction under Section 94B of Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of interest paid to non-resident AEs is discriminatory in terms of Article 24 of India-Denmark DTAA

FACTS

The Assessee, an Indian company, was engaged in the business of manufacturing wind turbine generators. The Assessee was ultimate subsidiary of Vestas Wind Systems A/s (“Vestas Denmark”). The Assessee had obtained external commercial borrowings (“ECB”) from Vestas Denmark. The rate of interest on ECB was at arm’s length and in accordance with the bilateral advance pricing arrangement (“BAPA”). In return of its income, the assessee suo moto disallowed interest of INR 9.34 Crores under Section 94B of Act. The TPO recomputed disallowance under Section 94B of the Act as INR 18.47 Crores. The CIT(A) upheld the assessment order.

Aggrieved with the final order, the department preferred appeal before ITAT.

The Assessee further raised an additional ground that disallowance under Section 94B of the Act is discriminatory under Article 24(4) of India-Denmark DTAA and requested deletion of the entire amount of INR 18.47 Crores.

HELD

Article 24(4) of India-Denmark provides that payments made to residents of Denmark will be deductible, subject to the same conditions that are applicable if such payments were made to residents of India. Further, Article 24(4) is subject to any restrictions imposed on arm’s length conditions prescribed under Article 12(7) of India-Denmark DTAA.

Section 94B of the Act imposes restrictions on deductibility of interest paid to non-resident associated enterprises (“AE”) as compared to resident AEs. Therefore, restriction based on residential status falls under the ambit of discrimination envisaged under Article 24(4) of India-Denmark DTAA.

Article 12(7) of India-Denmark DTAA was not applicable, as the interest paid was at arm’s length, and in accordance with the BAPA entered into by the assessee.

Unlike India-Australia DTAA, India-Denmark DTAA does not contain any explicit restriction on application of non-discrimination Article against thin capitalisation rules.

Accordingly, ITAT held that the limitation on deduction of interest under section 94B of the Act was discriminatory in terms of Article 24(4) of India-Denmark DTAA and allowed deduction of interest paid to non-resident AEs.

Article 12 of India-UK DTAA – Amended definition of royalties in Explanation 6 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act could not be read into India-UK DTAA unless DTAA language was amended, and hence, service fee paid for uplinking and downloading satellite signals for television broadcasting was not in nature of royalties under India-UK DTAA.

4. [2026] 182 taxmann.com 365 (Mumbai – Trib.)

ITO (International Taxation) vs. Bennett Coleman & Co. Ltd.

IT APPEAL NOS. 5246 & 5257 (MUM) OF 2025 AND OTHERS

A.Y.: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Dated: 14 January 2026

Article 12 of India-UK DTAA – Amended definition of royalties in Explanation 6 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act could not be read into India-UK DTAA unless DTAA language was amended, and hence, service fee paid for uplinking and downloading satellite signals for television broadcasting was not in nature of royalties under India-UK DTAA.

FACTS

The Assessee, an Indian Company, had been engaged in the business of media publishing services and also operated media channels. To broadcast television channels in India, Assessee entered into an agreement with Intelsat Global Sales and Marketing Limited (“Intelsat UK”) for uplinking and downlinking of signals. The Assessee paid service fee to Intelsat UK for use of transponder. Out of abundant caution, the Assessee grossed up tax on service fee and withheld it. The AO held that transponder charges were chargeable to tax in India as royalty for ‘use of’ or ‘right to use of process’ as per Explanation 6 to section 9 (1)(vi). Therefore, the Assessee preferred appeal before CIT(A).

Following the decisions of the Bombay High Court in Pr. CIT v. NEO Sports Broadcast (P.) Ltd. [2019] 264 Taxman 323 (Bombay) and Delhi High Court in DIT v. New Skies Satellite BV [2016] 382 ITR 114 (Delhi), the CIT(A) held that payment towards the use of transponder could not be regarded as royalty under Article 12 of India-UK DTAA. The CIT(A) held that transmission services were in the nature of standard services and, hence, could not be regarded as fees for technical services.

Aggrieved by order of CIT(A), the tax authority preferred appeal before ITAT.

HELD

As per the terms of the agreement between the Assessee and Intelsat UK, the latter transmitted signals of service recipients using its own satellite or that of third parties. The provision of service did not create any interest in assets in favour of service recipients.

The Assessee was responsible for obtaining the required licenses/authorisations for all earth station facilities used to transmit signals. The Assessee did not have any access/rights/control over the satellites owned by Intelsat UK.

The Finance Act 2012 amended Section (9)(1(vi) of the Act by inserting explanation 6 to define the term ‘process’. In New Skies Satellite BV (supra), Delhi High Court, in the context of India-Netherlands DTAA, held that unless both parties had bilaterally amended the DTAA, the definition in Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act r.w. explanation could not be read automatically into DTAA. The definition of Royalty in India-Netherlands DTAA was pari materia with India-UK DTAA.

The Chennai ITAT in the case of Intelsat UK [IT(TP)A No.49/Chny/2018 dated 16.10.2023] held that consideration received by Intelsat UK for providing transponder services cannot be regarded as process royalty.

Following the jurisprudence, the ITAT held that payments made for transmission of signals cannot constitute royalty under India-UK DTAA and hence, they were not subject to tax withholding under Section 195 of the Act.

Sec. 145 – Method of accounting – Builder and developer consistently following project completion method – AS-7 applicable only to construction contractors – Revenue recognition under AS-9 dependent upon transfer of risks and rewards – Revenue having accepted method in earlier years – Addition by applying percentage completion method resulting in double taxation deleted Sec. 69A r.w.s. 144 – Loose diary seized during search containing receipt entries – Surrender made by director representing gross receipts – No corroborative evidence regarding actual undisclosed income or expenditure – Entire amount could not be taxed – Addition restricted on estimated basis.

26. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 270 (Jaipur – Trib.)

Kaizen Enterprises (P.) Ltd. v. ACIT

ITA NO.: 156 & 390 (JPR) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2013-14 AND 2017-18 DATE: 18.02.2025

Sec. 145 – Method of accounting – Builder and developer consistently following project completion method – AS-7 applicable only to construction contractors – Revenue recognition under AS-9 dependent upon transfer of risks and rewards – Revenue having accepted method in earlier years – Addition by applying percentage completion method resulting in double taxation deleted

Sec. 69A r.w.s. 144 – Loose diary seized during search containing receipt entries – Surrender made by director representing gross receipts – No corroborative evidence regarding actual undisclosed income or expenditure – Entire amount could not be taxed – Addition restricted on estimated basis.

FACTS

The assessee-company was engaged in the business of real estate development and was consistently following the project completion method for recognition of revenue. During scrutiny assessment for A.Y. 2017-18, the Assessing Officer held that the assessee ought to have followed percentage completion method and accordingly taxed advances received from customers amounting to Rs.3.71 crores as business income.

The Assessing Officer observed that substantial construction work had been completed and significant consideration had already been received from customers. Accordingly, relying upon percentage completion method, addition was made to the income of the assessee.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the addition holding that the assessee had consistently followed project completion method which had been accepted by the department in earlier years.

In separate proceedings relating to A.Y. 2013-14 arising out of search action, a diary containing certain monetary notings was seized from the premises of the assessee group and the director of the assessee made a statement surrendering an amount of Rs.1.35 crores. The Assessing Officer treated the entire amount as undisclosed income and made addition accordingly.

The Commissioner (Appeals) partly sustained the addition. Aggrieved, both the assessee and the revenue preferred appeals before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee was a builder and developer and not a construction contractor and therefore Accounting Standard-7 relating to construction contracts was not applicable. It was held that the case of the assessee was governed by Accounting Standard-9 relating to revenue recognition.

The Tribunal noted that under the terms of agreements executed with buyers, transfer of ownership and possession was contingent upon receipt of full consideration and execution of conveyance documents. It was further observed that buyers had the right to cancel bookings and seek refund of amounts paid and therefore risks and rewards of ownership had not been fully transferred.

The Tribunal further observed that the assessee had consistently followed project completion method over the years and the same had been accepted by the department in preceding assessment years. No justifiable reason had been brought on record by the Assessing Officer for deviating from the settled method of accounting regularly followed by the assessee.

It was also noted that income from the project had already been offered to tax by the assessee in subsequent assessment years following project completion method and the same had been accepted by the revenue. Therefore, taxing the same advances again during the year under consideration would result in impermissible double taxation.

Relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT v. Excel Industries Ltd., the Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) deleting the addition made by applying percentage completion method.

With regard to the addition based on diary notings, the Tribunal observed that though the assessee had surrendered Rs.1.35 crores during search proceedings, neither the revenue had substantiated that the entire amount represented net undisclosed income nor had the assessee produced evidence regarding expenditure incurred for earning such receipts.

The Tribunal held that the surrender represented gross receipts and therefore the entire amount could not be assessed as income. Applying principles governing best judgment assessment under section 144 and relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in Brij Bhushan Lal Parduman Kumar v. CIT, the Tribunal held that only reasonable profit element could be brought to tax.

Accordingly, the Tribunal restricted the addition to Rs.10 lakhs and granted substantial relief to the assessee.

Sec. 68 – Share capital and share premium – Preferential shares issued to holding company – Identity, genuineness and creditworthiness established through ROC records, financial statements and banking trail – Investment reflected in books of investor and compliant with FEMA/RBI regulations – Addition deleted Sec. 14A r.w. Rule 8D – Interest disallowance – Own funds substantially exceeding investments yielding exempt income – Presumption that investments made out of interest-free funds – Disallowance deleted.

25. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 128 (Mumbai – Trib.)

ACIT vs. Doshion Veolia Water Solution (P.) Ltd

A.Y.: 2009-10 AND 2012-13 DATE: 18.07.2024

Sec. 68 – Share capital and share premium – Preferential shares issued to holding company – Identity, genuineness and creditworthiness established through ROC records, financial statements and banking trail – Investment reflected in books of investor and compliant with FEMA/RBI regulations – Addition deleted

Sec. 14A r.w. Rule 8D – Interest disallowance – Own funds substantially exceeding investments yielding exempt income – Presumption that investments made out of interest-free funds – Disallowance deleted.

FACTS

During A.Y. 2012-13, the assessee-company had raised share capital and share premium aggregating to Rs.47.44 crores through issue of preferential shares to its holding company. The Assessing Officer treated the said amount as unexplained cash credit under section 68 on the ground that the assessee failed to satisfactorily establish the identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of the investor. The Assessing Officer further made disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D(2)(ii) in respect of interest expenditure attributable to exempt dividend income.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) deleted both additions after examining additional evidences, remand reports and financial records.

Similarly, for A.Y. 2009-10, additions made under section 68 in respect of share capital/share premium received from foreign investor and disallowance under section 14A were also deleted by the Commissioner (Appeals).

Aggrieved by the relief granted by the Commissioner (Appeals), the revenue preferred appeals before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that detailed evidences including ROC records, share registers, bank statements, financial statements of the holding company and remand reports clearly established the identity and creditworthiness of the investor as well as genuineness of the transactions relating to issue of preferential shares.

It was noted that the holding company had duly reflected the investments in its financial statements and that the source of investment was also explained through secured borrowings obtained from NBFCs. The Tribunal further observed that payments were routed through proper banking channels and corresponding investments were reflected in the books of both entities.

The Tribunal held that the Commissioner (Appeals), after detailed examination of evidences and remand proceedings, had rightly concluded that the requirements of section 68 stood fully satisfied. Accordingly, deletion of addition relating to share capital and share premium was upheld.’

With regard to disallowance under section 14A, the Tribunal observed that the assessee’s own funds comprising share capital and reserves were substantially higher than the investments yielding exempt income.

Relying upon the decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT v. HDFC Bank Ltd., the Tribunal held that where sufficient interest-free funds are available, a presumption arises that investments are made from such funds and therefore no disallowance of interest expenditure under Rule 8D(2)(ii) is warranted.

Accordingly, deletion of disallowance under section 14A was also upheld and both appeals of the revenue were dismissed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE:

Effective 1st April 2025, amendments are notified to Ind AS 107 “Financial Instruments Disclosures” and Ind AS 7 “Statement of Cash Flows –  Supplier Finance Arrangements (SFA)/ Supply Chain Finance (SCF)”. The above changes have resulted in additional disclosures for the financing arrangements which many large company make with their vendors / suppliers. Given below are few instances of such disclosures in the financial statements for the year ended 31st March 2026.

JINDAL SAW LIMITED STANDALONE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Notes to Financial Statements

Extract of Note 28: Trade Payables

Particulars As at March 31, 2026 As at March 31, 2025
Dues of micro and small enterprises (‘MSME’) 5,557.94 5,273.72
Dues of creditors other than micro and small enterprises
– Acceptances 1,39,772.72 37,857.89
– Others 94,565.74 1,89,208.85
Total Trade payables
Classification of Trade payables into related parties and others
– Related parties 1,69,703.46 67,695.05
– Others 70,192.94 1,64,645.41
Total Trade payables 2,39,896.40 2,32,340.46

Note: Trade payables for acceptances represents the extended interest-bearing credit offered by the supplier which is secured against Usance Letter of Credit (LC). The interest for the extended credit period payable to the supplier on maturity of the LC has been presented under finance costs.

The Company has trade payables balance, which are part of supplier finance arrangements, of Rs. Nil (March 31, 2025 Rs. 1,149.64 lakhs). The key terms and conditions of the arrangement are:

a. The Company decides which invoices will be financed
b. The financier pays the supplier before the due date of the invoice
c. The Company pays the financier on the due date of the invoice
d. The financing terms are negotiated by the Company, and it bears interest in the range of 9–12% on the credit availed beyond the due date

Further, the Company has not provided comparative information in respect of the amendments to Ind AS 7 and Ind AS 107 relating to supplier finance arrangements, as it has applied the transitional relief available on initial adoption of these amendments, which allows entities not to present comparative disclosures for prior periods.

LARSEN & TOUBRO LIMITED STANDALONE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Notes to Financial Statements

Extract of Note 25: Current liabilities

Financial liabilities – Other trade payables

(Rs. in crore)

Particulars As at 31-3-2026 As at 31-3-2025
Due to related parties:
– Subsidiary companies 1,909.33 1,616.19
– Associate companies 11.72 13.97
-Joint venture companies 1,657.50 740.16
3,578.55 2,370.32
Due to others including Supplier Finance Arrangement [Note 43(d)] 44,037.21 35,255.51
47,615.76 37,625.83

Note 43(d):

The Company has entered into certain Supplier Finance Arrangements (SFA) with finance providers during the year. The primary objective of these arrangements is to benefit the suppliers with early payments. The Company doesn’t provide any collateral or guarantees to the finance provider.

Carrying Amount of Financial Liabilities:

(Rs. in crore)

Particulars 31-3-2026 1-4-2025
(i) Financial liabilities classified under ‘Trade Payables’ 3,251.67 4,788.87
(ii) Out of (i), amount received by suppliers from finance providers 3,248.66 NA

Payment Terms:

(Rs. in crore)

Particulars 31-3-2026
(i) The Financial liabilities that are part of the arrangement 30-180 days
(ii) Comparable trade payable that are not part of the arrangement 30-180 days

The Company has applied transitional relief and accordingly comparative information, wherever applicable, for the above disclosures is not presented in the first year of adoption of the amendment.

POLYCAB INDIA LIMITED STANDALONE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Extract of Note 19: Acceptances

Note (b) Supplier Finance Arrangements

The Company participates in supplier finance arrangements whereby certain suppliers may opt to receive early payment of their invoices from a bank or a financier. Under the arrangement, the bank or a financier settles the amounts payable to participating suppliers in respect of invoices owed by the Company and the Company subsequently repays the bank or financier in accordance with the agreed terms. The primary objective of this arrangement is to facilitate efficient payment processing and provide the willing suppliers early payment terms, related to the original invoice due date.

The Company has derecognised the original trade payables relating to these arrangements and presented the corresponding obligation under acceptances notwithstanding the original liability was not substantially modified upon entering into the arrangement.

From the Company’s perspective, the arrangement does not significantly extend the payment terms beyond the normal terms agreed with other suppliers that are not participating; however, the arrangement does provide willing suppliers with the benefit of early payment.

All payables under the arrangement are classified as current as on 31 March 2026.

Additional information is provided in the below table:

(Rs. in million)

Particulars 31 Mar 26
Carrying amount of financial liabilities part of supplier finance arrangements 42,656.19
Presented within Acceptances
Of which suppliers have received payment from the bank or financiers 37,236.77
Range of payment due dates
Of the balances disclosed above (after invoice date) 60-120 days
Of the other trade payable balances which are not part of supplier finance arrangements (after invoice date) 30-90 days

The Company has applied transitional relief available under Supplier Finance Arrangements – Amendments to Ind AS 7 and Ind AS 107 and has not provided comparative information in the first year of adoption.

The payments to the bank are included within operating cash flows because they continue to be part of normal operating cycle of the Company and their principal nature remains operating – i.e., payments for the purchase of goods and services.

For additional information about how these arrangements affect the Company’s exposure to liquidity risk, please refer note 40 (C).

Note 40(c): Financial Risk Management Objectives and Policies

Liquidity risk

The Company’s principle sources of liquidity are cash and cash equivalents and the cash flow that is generated from operations. The Company believes that the working capital is sufficient to meet its current requirements.

Further, the Company manages its liquidity risk in a manner so as to meet its normal financial obligations without any significant delay or stress. Such risk is managed through ensuring operational cash flow while at the same time maintaining adequate cash and cash equivalents position. The management has arranged for diversified funding sources and adopted a policy of managing assets with liquidity in mind and monitoring future cash flows and liquidity on a regular basis. Surplus funds not immediately required are invested in certain financial assets (including mutual funds) which provide flexibility to liquidate at short notice and are included in current investments and cash equivalents. Besides, it generally has certain undrawn credit facilities which can be accessed as and when required, which are reviewed periodically.

The Company’s channel financing program ensures timely availability of finance for channel partners with extended and convenient re-payment terms, thereby freeing up cash flow for business growth while strengthening company’s distribution network. Further, invoice discounting get early payments against outstanding invoices. Sales Invoice discounting is intended to save the Company’s business from the cash flow pressure.

The Company has developed appropriate internal control systems and contingency plans for  managing liquidity risk. This incorporates an assessment of expected cash flows and  availability of alternative sources for additional funding, if required.

Corporate guarantees given on behalf of group companies might affect the liquidity of the Company if they are payable. However, the Company has adequate liquidity to cover the risk.

In the absence of any adverse finding regarding charitable nature of objects or genuineness of activities, CIT(E) cannot reject registration under section 12AB / 80G on the ground that the charity granted scholarship to Indian students for education abroad which amounted to application of income outside India in violation of section 11(1)(c).

24. (2026) 185 taxmann.com 747 (Mum Trib)

Yogayatan Jankalyan Trust v. CIT(E)

A.Y.: N.A. Date of Order: 20.04.2026

Section : 12AB

In the absence of any adverse finding regarding charitable nature of objects or genuineness of activities, CIT(E) cannot reject registration under section 12AB / 80G on the ground that the charity granted scholarship to Indian students for education abroad which amounted to application of income outside India in violation of section 11(1)(c).

FACTS

The assessee was a trust engaged in charitable activities and filed applications in Form No. 10AB on 29.05.2025 seeking registration under section 12AB as well as approval under section 80G. CIT(E) rejected the application for registration under section 12AB primarily on the ground that the assessee granted scholarship to an Indian student pursuing education abroad, which was hit by section 11(1)(c). It was further observed that the object clause permitted application of funds outside India. Consequently, in the absence of registration under section 12AB, the application for approval under section 80G was also rejected.

Aggrieved by the orders, assessee preferred appeals before Tribunal against such rejection of registration under section 12A and section 80G.

HELD

Noting the decision of the Tribunal in ITO (E) v. J N Tata Endowment for Higher Education of Indians [2024] 166 taxmann.com 126 (Mum-Trib) wherein it has been held that disbursal of loan scholarships to Indian students for pursuing higher education abroad constitutes application of income for charitable purposes in India and observing that there was adverse finding regarding the charitable nature of objects and genuineness of activities of the assessee, the Tribunal held that the reasoning of CIT(E) was not sustainable and accordingly, directed the CIT(E) to grant registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G to the assessee.

In the result, both appeals of the assessee were allowed.

Where the assessee earned long-term capital gains from the sale of certain shares and claimed exemption under section 54F, while also incurring long-term capital loss on the sale of other shares and carried forward such loss, such carry forward was allowable since section 54F overrides section 70(3) for the purpose of computation.

23. (2026) 185 taxmann.com 711 (Mum Trib)

Nikesh Bhagwandas Mehta v. ITO

A.Y.: 2022-23 Date of Order: 15.04.2026

Sections: 45, 54F, 70

Where the assessee earned long-term capital gains from the sale of certain shares and claimed exemption under section 54F, while also incurring long-term capital loss on the sale of other shares and carried forward such loss, such carry forward was allowable since section 54F overrides section 70(3) for the purpose of computation.

FACTS

The assessee filed his return of income for AY 2022-23 on 29.8.2022 reporting total income of Rs.49,53,740. During the year, the assessee had earned long term capital gain on sale of shares of Rs.69,84,283 which was claimed as exempt under section 54F. He had also carried forward long term capital loss of Rs.37,72,601 on sale of certain other shares incurred during the year. Return was processed by CPC under section 143(1) wherein the carry forward of said long term capital loss was disallowed.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A) who upheld the disallowance by holding that first inter head loss is to be adjusted and then only, exemption under section 54F can be claimed on the amount of net capital gain.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) From section 45(1), it is noted that the chargeability of profit or gain arising from the transfer of capital asset is subject to what is provided in section 54 to 54H, which includes section 54F. Thus, the chargeability itself factors in the benefit available to the assessee under section 54F. Heading of the section 54F mentions that capital gain on transfer of certain capital assets is not to be charged in case of investment in residential house. Thus, when the conditions as prescribed under section 54F are complied with by the assessee, the capital gain arising out of the transfer of certain capital assets gets an exit from the charging section 45. Clause (a) of section 54F(1) prescribes that the whole of capital gain shall not be charged under section 45, when the cost of new asset is more than the net consideration in respect of the original asset which was transferred and gave rise to capital gain. Thus, the scheme of section 45 to 55A provide for computation of capital gains and the effect has to be given first as per series of exemption section of 54.

(b) Section 70(3) mentions that where there is a loss because of computation made under section 48 to 55, assessee is entitled to set off such a loss against income, if any, arrived at under similar computation for any other capital asset not being short term capital asset. Thus, section 70(3) will apply once capital gain has been computed as per the provisions of section 48 to 55 wherein exemption available under section 54F is subsumed for the purpose of computation. Accordingly, provisions of section 54F will prevail over the provisions of section 70(3).

(c) It is not necessary that one should first apply section 70(3) and thereafter only the assessee could invest the capital gain/net consideration arising from the transaction of long term capital asset as required under section 54F. Scheme of section 45 to 55A provides for computation of capital gains and the effect has to be given first to the provision of capital gains as provided under the said sections and then apply the provisions of section 70. To put it in other words, section 70 would come into the computation Aqof total income only when the capital gains has been computed in accordance with the provisions of section 45 to 55A.

Relying on CIT v. Vijay M. Mahtaney (2013) 35 taxmann.com 228 (Madras) and Naresh Jain v. Asstt. CIT [2020] 118 taxmann.com 519 (Jaipur – Trib), the Tribunal held that the assessee was eligible for exemption under section 54F towards long term capital gain of Rs. 69,84,283 earned on sale of certain long term equity shares. At the same time, assessee was also eligible to carry forward long term capital loss of Rs.37,72,601 incurred by him on sale of another set of long term equity shares, and directed that carry forward of long term capital loss claimed by the assessee in his return is to be allowed.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Where the cancellation proceedings under section 12AB were initiated by CIT(E) on the basis of reference made by the Assessing Officer under second proviso to section 143(3), CIT(E) was required to provide a copy of such reference to the assessee. In order to cancel registration under Section 12AB, CIT(E) must clearly specify the relevant category of “specified violation” under the Explanation to Section 12AB(4) applicable to the assessee.

22. (2026) 185 taxmann.com 275 (Mum Trib)

National Payments Corporation of India v. CIT

A.Y.: 2022-23 Date of Order: 25.03.2026

Sections: 12AB, 143(3)

Where the cancellation proceedings under section 12AB were initiated by CIT(E) on the basis of reference made by the Assessing Officer under second proviso to section 143(3), CIT(E) was required to provide a copy of such reference to the assessee.

In order to cancel registration under Section 12AB, CIT(E) must clearly specify the relevant category of “specified violation” under the Explanation to Section 12AB(4) applicable to the assessee.

FACTS

The assessee was incorporated as a non-profit company under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 in 2008. The company’s shares were majorly held by several large banks. It was granted regular registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(i) dated 23.09.2021 for 5 years from A.Y. 2022-23 to 2026-27. It filed its return of income for AY 2022-23 declaring nil income after claiming exemption under section 11. The assessee’s case was then selected for complete scrutiny during which the AO had made a reference for cancellation of registration to CIT(E) on the ground that the assessee had committed “specified violations” as per Explanation to section 12AB(4). However, copy of such reference was not made available to the assessee.

During cancellation proceedings, CIT(E) observed that the assessee was deriving income from activities of providing payment gateway services in relation to the business of its member banks and their customers charging fee which were not of charitable purpose as per section 2(15). Further, it was contended that the assessee had provided service of National Financial Switch which connects ATMs of different banks into one shared network, which enables cash withdrawal, balance enquiry, mini statement etc. i.e. giving seamless access to ATMs across India to various major banks for the banking business, including its 10 promoter banks. Resultantly, the assessee was said to have applied its income for benefit of a “specified person” in violation of the provisions of section 13(1)(c) read with section 13(3). Accordingly, CIT(E) held that there was no charitable activity in providing such gateway platform for ATMs, IMPS, CTS, RuPay, NACH and AEPS transactions, which were carried on for member banks who in-turn provided such services to their customers which were chargeable and not free of service. Therefore, as the assessee trust solely was engaged in activities which were profitable in nature, not benefiting public at large, CIT(E) held the activities of the assessee were in violation of the provisions of section 12A and 12AB especially committing “specified violation” as per section 12AB(4). Accordingly, registration was cancelled, denying benefit of exemption under section 11 and 12 with effect from 23.09.2021.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) Though second proviso to section 143(3) does not expressly mention about supplying the reference for cancellation to the assessee, it is a settled principle of law where courts have consistently held that any adverse material relied upon by the Department should be disclosed to the assessee which form the basis of action, and failure to comply with this would violate audi alteram partem, that is, the right to be heard. If it is purely an internal administrative communication which is not relied upon for decision making, then the authorities may resist such disclosure but not the reference for initiating cancellation proceeding.

b) It was evident that in order to cancel a registration of the trust, CIT(E) will have to specify which category of the “specified violation” under Explanation to section 12AB(4), the assessee would fall under. Where there are multiple reasons amounting to violation, neither the show cause notice nor the order for cancellation should suffer from vagueness. In the absence of clear particulars of the alleged violation along with facts and materials proposed to be relied upon, the assessee would be deprived of a meaningful opportunity to respond.

Accordingly, without expressing any opinion on the merits, the Tribunal directed CIT(E) to provide to the assessee copy of the reference relied upon by him. The Tribunal also remanded the issue back to the file of CIT(E) for denovo adjudication and to give sufficient opportunity of hearing to the assessee, by setting out the exact charge / specified violation for the proposed cancellation of registration. Thereafter, the CIT(E) can decide the issue on the merits as well in accordance with law by a speaking order.

Whether A Change In The Interpretation Of An Accounting Standard Constitutes A Change In Accounting Policy/Estimate Or A Prior Period Error?

Under the Environment Protection (End-of-Life Vehicles) Rules, 2025, companies are required to recognise provisions for Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) obligations arising from historical vehicle sales. Since these obligations exist independently of future operations, they satisfy the criteria for present obligations under Ind AS 37. The authorities discussed below clarify that failure to recognise this cumulative provision when the rules became effective constitutes a prior period error under Ind AS 8, and not a change in accounting policy or accounting estimate. Consequently, entities are required to correct such omission through retrospective restatement, unless a reliable estimate could not initially be made due to the absence of available pricing mechanisms.

INTRODUCTION

Ind AS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors, prescribes the accounting treatment and disclosure requirements relating to changes in accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and the correction of prior period errors. While these concepts are often interlinked in practice, the accounting consequences arising from each are significantly different.

A change in accounting estimate is recognised prospectively, whereas a prior period error requires retrospective restatement. Accordingly, determining the correct characterisation of an accounting adjustment assumes considerable importance.

This issue becomes particularly relevant in the context of statutory obligations, where management may initially conclude that no present obligation exists and subsequently revisit such conclusion after a more detailed technical evaluation of the applicable legal and accounting framework.

This article examines the distinction between a change in accounting policy, a change in accounting estimate and a prior period error in the context of accounting for Extended Producer Responsibility (“EPR”) obligations arising under the Environment Protection (End-of-Life Vehicles) Rules, 2025 (“ELV Rules”).

This article proceeds on the assumption that management was able to estimate the required provision when the ELV Rules became effective. However, many companies have taken the position that the provision was not capable of reliable estimation at that stage. In such cases, the conclusions may differ, and that aspect has been addressed in the concluding paragraph.

QUERY

ABC Limited is engaged in the manufacture and sale of automotive vehicles and prepares its financial statements in accordance with Indian Accounting Standards (“Ind AS”).

The Environment Protection (End-of-Life Vehicles) Rules, 2025 (“ELV Rules”) became effective from April 1, 2025. The Rules require automobile manufacturers to fulfil Extended Producer Responsibility (“EPR”) obligations in respect of vehicles introduced into the market. The annual EPR targets are linked to vehicles sold during the preceding 15 years in the case of transport vehicles and the preceding 20 years in the case of non-transport vehicles.
Further, the ELV Rules specifically provide that the obligation to fulfil EPR requirements continues in respect of vehicles already introduced into the market even if the producer ceases operations.

During the financial year 2025–26, the Company did not recognise any provision in respect of the cumulative EPR obligation relating to vehicles introduced into the market during the preceding 15 years in the case of transport vehicles, and the preceding 20 years, in the case of non-transport vehicles. Management concluded that no present obligation existed as at the reporting date in respect of such past vehicle sales, on the basis that the obligation was dependent upon future operations and future compliance activities. Accordingly, the Company recognised a provision only in respect of vehicles completing the 15th year or the 20th year, as the case may be, during financial year 2025–26, instead of recognising a provision for the entire cumulative obligation arising from vehicles introduced into the market during the preceding 15 or 20 years, as applicable.

ERP-Accounting-Dilemma

Subsequently, during the financial year 2026–27, management reassessing the accounting position, sought an opinion on the following issues:

  1. What is the correct accounting treatment for EPR obligations under Ind AS 37 in the aforesaid fact pattern; and
  2. If the accounting treatment adopted in financial year 2025–26 is to be changed, whether recognition of the cumulative provision in the financial year 2026–27 should be treated as:
  • a change in accounting estimate; or
  • correction of a prior period error under Ind AS 8.

RELEVANT ACCOUNTING STANDARD REFERENCES

Ind AS 37 – Recognition of Provision

Paragraph 14 of Ind AS 37 states:

“A provision shall be recognised when:

a) an entity has a present obligation (legal or constructive) as a result of a past event;

b) it is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will be required to settle the obligation; and

c) a reliable estimate can be made of the amount of the obligation.”

Paragraph 17 of Ind AS 37 states:

“A past event that leads to a present obligation is called an obligating event.”

Paragraph 18 further provides:

“Financial statements deal with the financial position of an entity at the end of its reporting period and not its possible position in the future. Therefore, no provision is recognised for costs that need to be incurred to operate in the future.”

Paragraph 19 states:

“It is only those obligations arising from past events existing independently of an entity’s future actions (i.e. the future conduct of its business) that are recognised as provisions.”

Ind AS 8 – Prior Period Errors

Paragraph 5 of Ind AS 8 defines prior period errors as follows:

“Prior period errors are omissions from, and misstatements in, the entity’s financial statements for one or more prior periods arising from a failure to use, or misuse of, reliable information that:

a) was available when financial statements for those periods were approved for issue; and

b) could reasonably be expected to have been obtained and taken into account in the preparation and presentation of those financial statements.”

Paragraph 41 states:

“Errors can arise in respect of the recognition, measurement, presentation or disclosure of elements of financial statements.”

Paragraph 42 states:

“Subject to paragraph 43, an entity shall correct material prior period errors retrospectively in the first set of financial statements authorised for issue after their discovery by:

a) restating the comparative amounts for the prior period(s) presented in which the error occurred; or

b) if the error occurred before the earliest prior period presented, restating the opening balances of assets, liabilities and equity for the earliest prior period presented.”

Ind AS 8 – Change in Accounting Estimate

Paragraph 32 of Ind AS 8 states:

“As a result of the uncertainties inherent in business activities, many items in financial statements cannot be measured with precision but can only be estimated.”

Paragraph 34 states:

“An estimate may need revision if changes occur in the circumstances on which the estimate was based or as a result of new information or more experience.”

Paragraph 36 states:

“The effect of a change in an accounting estimate… shall be recognised prospectively…”

Ind AS 8 – Accounting Policies

Paragraph 5 states:

Accounting policies are the specific principles, bases, conventions, rules and practices applied by an entity in preparing and presenting financial statements.

Paragraph 7 states:

When an Ind AS specifically applies to a transaction, other event or condition, the accounting policy or policies applied to that item shall be determined by applying the Ind AS.

DISCUSSION

Under the ELV Rules, effective from April 1, 2025, the obligation to fulfil EPR requirements exists in respect of vehicles already introduced into the market and continues even if the producer ceases operations. Therefore, the obligation is not contingent upon future production, future sales or continuation of business operations, as contemplated in paragraphs 18 and 19 of Ind AS 37.

The obligating event in the present case is the historical introduction/sale of vehicles in the market during the preceding 15 years, in the case of transport vehicles, and the preceding 20 years, in the case of non-transport vehicles. Accordingly, the past event contemplated under paragraph 17 of Ind AS 37 has already occurred.

The obligation exists independent of the entity’s future conduct of business, including in circumstances where the company may cease operations or be wound up. This aspect assumes significance in light of paragraph 19 of Ind AS 37, which specifically states that provisions are recognised only for obligations “existing independently of an entity’s future actions”.

Accordingly, the conditions prescribed under paragraph 14 of Ind AS 37 appear to be satisfied:

  • a present legal obligation exists pursuant to the ELV Rules as a result of past event;
  • settlement of the obligation can be enforced by law and there is no realistic alternative but to comply;
  • an outflow of economic resources would be required for purchase of EPR certificates or equivalent compliance mechanisms; and
  • the obligation is capable of reliable estimation.

In financial year 2025–26, management concluded that no present obligation existed because it viewed the obligation as dependent upon future operations. However, this conclusion arose from an incorrect interpretation of the legal and accounting framework rather than from absence of information or estimation uncertainty.

The ELV Rules and the relevant facts were already available when the financial statements for financial year 2025–26 were approved. Therefore, the matter does not involve the emergence of new information in financial year 2026–27.

Similarly, the issue does not involve refinement of estimation techniques, reassessment of assumptions, or revision of measurement inputs. Accordingly, the matter cannot be characterised as a change in accounting estimate within the meaning of paragraphs 32–36 of Ind AS 8.

Further, there is no change in accounting policy. Paragraph 5 clearly describes what constitutes an accounting policy, and paragraph 7 requires the selection of accounting policy in compliance with the relevant Ind AS. The accounting framework under Ind AS 37 requiring recognition of provision for present obligations remained unchanged. The error lies in the incorrect application of that framework to the facts existing in financial year 2025–26.

Paragraph 5 of Ind AS 8 specifically states that prior period errors arise from the failure to use, or misuse of, reliable information available when the financial statements were approved. Further, paragraph 41 clarifies that errors may arise in respect of the recognition and measurement of various items in the financial statements.

Accordingly, where management incorrectly concluded that no present obligation existed despite the legal obligation arising from past events and existing independently of future operations, the non-recognition of the provision constitutes a prior period error.

Therefore, recognition of the EPR provision in the financial year 2026–27 would represent correction of a prior period error and not a change in accounting estimate.

CONCLUSION

In the aforesaid fact pattern, the ELV Rules effective from April 1, 2025 create a present legal obligation in respect of vehicles introduced into the market in earlier years. Since the obligation survives even cessation of operations, the liability exists independently of the Company’s future conduct of business.

Accordingly, the recognition criteria prescribed under paragraph 14 of Ind AS 37 stands satisfied, and a provision ought to have been recognised in the financial year 2025–26 itself.

The subsequent recognition of such provision in the financial year 2026–27 does not constitute:

  • a change in accounting estimate, since there is no revision arising from new information, updated assumptions, or improved estimation techniques; nor
  • a change in accounting policy, since there is no alteration in accounting principles or recognition basis.

Rather, the matter constitutes correction of a prior period error under Ind AS 8 because the earlier non-recognition resulted from the incorrect application of the existing accounting and legal framework despite all relevant information being available at the time of approval of the financial statements for financial year 2025–26.

Accordingly, the correction in the financial year 2026-27 should be carried out retrospectively in accordance with paragraphs 42 of Ind AS 8, including restatement of comparative information and appropriate disclosures, wherever material.

Several companies have claimed in the financial year 2025-26 results that obligations required to be settled by obtaining EPR certificates could not be provided for because the pricing mechanism had not yet been notified and, consequently, a reliable estimate could not be made. This aspect would require careful evaluation by the statutory auditors of the company in determining the appropriate audit response.

If the above assertion by management is considered reasonable, some auditors though not required to do so, may prefer to draw attention to the matter and provide a matter of emphasis in addition to disclosure under key audit matters. However, if such assertion is found to be incorrect, an audit qualification may become necessary.

If, in subsequent years, the pricing mechanism for EPR certificates is notified and the necessary systems and processes are established for the EPR market to become operational, the provision should then be recognised. In such circumstances, the recognition of the provision would not constitute a prior period error but rather a revision of an accounting estimate.

Where AO fails to record satisfaction in the assessment order that the assessee has under-reported his income and/or fails to direct initiation of penalty proceedings, the initiation of penalty under section 270A is bad in law and the proceedings need to be quashed.

21. TS-656-ITAT-2026 (Chennai)

Shariq Javed L/R of Late Jawad Alam v. ITO

A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of Order: 29.4.2026

Section: 270A

Where AO fails to record satisfaction in the assessment order that the assessee has under-reported his income and/or fails to direct initiation of penalty proceedings, the initiation of penalty under section 270A is bad in law and the proceedings need to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee, for AY 2017-18, filed return of income declaring total income of Rs.2,13,23,700 which included long term capital gain (LTCG) of Rs.1,99,10,377. The Assessing Officer (AO) while assessing the total income vide order dated 16.12.2019, passed under section 143(3) of the Act, disallowed indexed cost of improvement and assessed the LTCG to be Rs.3,92,77,906. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held the LTCG to be Rs 3,01,41,697. The assessee did not prefer any appeal against the order of CIT(A).

The Assessing Officer (AO) vide notice issued on 30.12.2019 initiated penalty proceedings. The penalty notice was neither signed manually / digitally and was issued only on 30.12.2019 whereas the assessment order was passed on 16.12.2019. During the course of penalty proceedings, the assessee passed away and the AO passed an order in the name of legal heir levying a penalty of Rs.12,20,784 being 50% of tax allegedly sought to be evaded for under-reporting of income.

Aggrieved by the order of AO levying penalty, the legal heir preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, an appeal was preferred to the Tribunal where the assessee challenged the jurisdiction of the AO to have imposed penalty under section 270A on the ground that the AO during the assessment proceedings neither directed nor recorded satisfaction that the assessee has under-reported its income and shall be liable to pay penalty on it. It was contended that in the absence of such an endorsement, the impugned penalty is bad in law.

HELD

The Tribunal, at the outset, took note of the provisions of section 270A(1) of the Act and held that the AO has not recorded his `satisfaction / direction’ that the assessee has under-reported his income and shall be liable to pay penalty on under-reported income. Omission to record satisfaction and direct penalty under section 270A in the course of assessment proceedings vitiates the initiation of proceedings for levy of penalty under section 270A of the Act.

The Tribunal also observed that it is a fact evidenced by e-filing portal website that while the notice initiating penalty is dated 16.12.2019 it was issued on 30.12.2019. Therefore, it is clear that the penalty was not initiated in the course of assessment proceedings but 14 days from the date of framing the assessment order which does not satisfy the requirement of section 270A(1) of the Act.

The Tribunal held that in the absence of AO recording his satisfaction in the assessment order that the assessee has under-reported his income and failure to direct that proceedings for levy of penalty under section 270A be initiated vitiate the initiation of penalty under section 270A against the assessee and therefore the levy of penalty is bad in law. The Tribunal quashed the order of penalty under section 270A.

Proviso to section 68 mandates establishing source of source.

20. TS-566-ITAT-2026 (Mumbai)

DCIT v. Jumbo Electronics Corporation Pvt. Ltd.

A.Y.: 2018-19 Date of Order : 7.4.2026

Section: 68

Proviso to section 68 mandates establishing source of source.

FACTS

The assessee engaged in business of retailing in consumer electronics, IT equipment, mobiles, personal electronic items and allied accessories e-filed the return of income for AY 2018-19 declaring therein a loss of 54,15,955. During scrutiny assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee company had taken a loan of Rs 11,00,16,395 from Aasman Management Services Private Limited (AMSPL).

The AO observed that the net worth of AMSPL was not sound enough to advance the loan of the magnitude which it had, further AMSPL had filed a return of income declaring total income of Rs 8,050; had not shown the loan advanced to the assessee in its ITR and a perusal of bank statement of AMSPL revealed that it had identical amounts in its bank account immediately before it advanced funds to the assessee company. Therefore, he concluded that the assessee company had failed to establish creditworthiness of AMSPL and made an addition of Rs. 11,00,16,395 to the total income of the assessee company.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed this ground of appeal holding that the assessee has discharged the primary burden cast on it; the AO has not made further enquiries; he has not established that it was the assessee’s own money which came back; law does not prohibit a person from lending out of borrowing, etc.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was submitted that the assessee is a wholly owned subsidiary of AMSPL and that the loan was taken from holding company to repay the outstanding balance of cash credit and to pay off trade creditors. Also, from the balance sheet of AMSPL it was shown that AMSPL has written off the amount advanced to the assessee company.

HELD

At the outset, the Tribunal noticed that the CIT(A) had allowed the appeal mainly by observing the conduct of the AO and by holding that the AO has not made any independent enquiries. He has not found out the person from whom AMSPL received the money advanced to the assessee.

The Tribunal held that it was unable to subscribe and persuade itself to concur with the view of CIT(A) which was totally based on failure on the part of AO to make enquiries or not give attention to the transaction. The Tribunal remarked that the powers of the CIT(A) are co-terminus with those of the AO and the CIT(A) having observed that the AO has failed to conduct enquiries or take actions which are necessary, it was the duty of the CIT(A) to decide the issue by making enquiries himself or through the AO in case further enquiries are necessary to arrive at a logical conclusion.

The Tribunal held that certain information like source of funds advanced by AMSPL was not there before the AO. The Tribunal observed that the first proviso is applicable w.e.f. 1.4.2013 and the assessee has not furnished details of credit entries in the bank statement of AMSPL qua their nature and source which though were pointed out by CIT(A) but were not even sought during the proceedings before him so as to reach a justifiable reasoning after satisfying the mandate of law before directing to delete the addition.

The Tribunal set aside the order of CIT(A) with a direction to revisit the issue by making or getting done the necessary enquiries which he noted were required to be done and decide the issue afresh as per provisions of section 68.

The Tribunal further held that in the absence of mandatory information about source of source which is requisite in present case as per first proviso to section 68 of the Act which was not fulfilled, the case laws relied upon by the assessee regarding discharge of primary onus, addition merely on the basis of conjectures and surmises cannot help in the present case. It observed that the argument of accounting treatment in the books of the lender does not determine the genuineness of the loan may have some substance but first the mandatory conditions of section 68 must be satisfied. This contention remains consequential in nature.

Claim for deduction under section 54 made for the first time in return of income filed in response to reassessment notice cannot be denied merely on the ground that such a claim was not made in the original return of income

19. ITA No. 7998/Mum. /2025

Mohd. Azam Hasan Sheikh v. ITO

A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of Order: 09.4.2026

Section: 10(10AA)

Claim for deduction under section 54 made for the first time in return of income filed in response to reassessment notice cannot be denied merely on the ground that such a claim was not made in the original return of income

FACTS

The assessee had not filed return of income under section 139 of the Act. The Department, based on the information that during the year under consideration the assessee has purchased an immovable property showing a value of Rs. 45,00,000 issued a notice under section 148 of the Act. The assessee filed a return of income in response to notice issued under section 148 in which he claimed exemption under section 54 of the Act to the tune of Rs.49,00,000 (sic Rs 45,00,000) against capital gains arising on sale of a residential property owned by the assessee jointly with Ms. Binu Azmi on the ground that the entire sale consideration has been invested in acquisition of a new residential property jointly purchased with Ms. Binu Azmi at Thakur Residency, Ulwe, Navi Mumbai for a total consideration of Rs. 45,00,000.

In the course of assessment proceedings u/s 147 of the Act, the AO considered the claim of the Assessee, however, by observing “that the Assessee has not filed original return of income and therefore, the exemption under section 54 is not allowable”, eventually made the addition of Rs. 31,38,256/- by disallowing the amount claimed by the Assessee under section 54 of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who affirmed the aforesaid addition more or less on the same reason as of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the only controversy involved in the instant case relates to the consideration of exemption claimed under section 54 of the Act, which has been declined to be entertained by the authorities below mainly on the reason that the Assessee failed to file original return of income and/or without filing original return of income, the claim under section 54 of the Act is not sustainable and/or the long term capital gain disclosed/claimed by way of return filed in response to the notice under section 148 of the Act is not entertainable/allowable.

The Tribunal observed that the Commissioner while affirming the aforesaid addition and/or the decision of the AO for not allowing the deduction claimed under section 54 of the Act, has interalia relied on judgment passed by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Sun Engineering Works (P.) Ltd. [198 ITR 297 (SC)] whereas the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Sanjay Gopaldas Bajaj v. ITO [ITA No. 5944/M/2025 decided on 20.01.2026] has dealt with identical issue and also considered the judgment in the case of Sun Engineering Works (P.) Ltd. (supra) and ultimately restored back the matter to the file of the AO to consider the case of the Assessee, within the parameters stipulated under section 54 of the Act.

In the above judgment, reliance was also placed on the judgment of the decision of co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Smt. Amina Ismail Rangari v. ITO [(2017) 86 taxmann.com 160 (Mumbai-Trib.)], wherein it has been held that the provision of section 54F do not prescribe filing of return within the time stipulated under section 139, as a condition precedent for claiming the deduction and that claim raised in the return in response to notice under section 148 of the Act cannot be rejected merely on the ground of delay in filing the return.

The Tribunal relying on the above judgments allowed the appeal of the Assessee, and remanded the case to the file of the AO for decision afresh on the claim of the Assessee under section 54 of the Act within the parameters and/or conditions set out in section 54 of the Act but not otherwise.

Compensation received from RERA is taxable as Capital Gains and not Income from Other Sources.

18. TS-572-ITAT-2026(Delhi)

Prem Narayan Chourasia v. ACIT

A.Y.: 2020-21 Date of Order: 6.4.2026

Sections: 45, 56

Compensation received from RERA is taxable as Capital Gains and not Income from Other Sources.

FACTS:

The assessee in financial year 2005-06 booked a plot being Plot No 412, Sector -15, Sunnywood Enclave Wave City, Ghaziabad and up to FY 2015-16 paid amounts aggregating to Rs.13,13,318. During the year under consideration he received from the builder a sum of Rs 32,47,185 which included compensation of Rs 19,33,867 received under provisions of RERA. The amount received was offered for taxation under the head capital gains.

The Assessing Officer (AO) while assessing the total income under section 147 of the Act charged the amount of compensation to tax as Income from Other Sources.

Aggrieved, assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that it found no merit in the Revenue’s vehement contentions supporting the impugned addition on the ground that compensation is nothing but interest in common parlance liable to be assessed u/s 56 of the Act.

The Tribunal took note of section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulations and Development) Act, 2016 stipulating “compensation” to be computed as per the prescribed interest rate than interest (inclusive of the payments already made) and also of section 2(47)(ii) whereby “extinguishment of any rights” in relation to a capital asset constitutes “transfer” thereof and concluded that such a compensation could not be assessed under section 56 of the Act as “income from other sources”. The Tribunal held that the assessee had rightly declared the amount of compensation as representing his long term capital gains.

TDS credit deducted during the current year is allowable despite the fact that revenue has been offered for taxation in an earlier year i.e. TDS credit is allowable despite the timing mismatch between the year of recognition of income and year of deduction of tax.

17. TS-505-ITAT-2026 (Delhi)

BPTP Ltd. v. DDIT

A.Y.: 2020-21 Date of Order: 01.4.2026

Section: 143(1), 190

TDS credit deducted during the current year is allowable despite the fact that revenue has been offered for taxation in an earlier year i.e. TDS credit is allowable despite the timing mismatch between the year of recognition of income and year of deduction of tax.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of real estate filed its return for the relevant assessment year 2022-23 under Section 139(1) of the Act claiming TDS credit of Rs.19,93,700 as appearing in Form 26AS. However, while processing the return of income, CPC allowed credit of only Rs.18,14,094.

The assessee moved rectification application under Section 154 of the Act before the CPC, Bangalore. In an order passed under section 154 of the Act, CPC did not grant any further credit as was claimed but also reduced the amount of interest allowed under Section 244A of the Act in intimation under Section 143(1) of the Act from Rs. 1,08,840 to Rs. 27,211.

The assessee filed another rectification application and an order under section 154 of the Act was passed increasing demand to Rs. 99,770 as against earlier demand of Rs. 81,620.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) who remitted the issue to the file of the Assessing Officer (AO) to verify the facts and rectify intimation and recalculate the interest payable to the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the short point for adjudication before it is allowance of TDS credit of Rs. 1,79,606, which was short allowed by the AO while processing return under Section 143(1) of the Act.

The Tribunal noted that the assessee is engaged in real estate business and follows percentage of completion method for recognition of Revenue.

On behalf of the assessee it was submitted that due to introduction of IND-AS 115 with effect from 1st April, 2018 relevant to assessment year 2019-20, revenue was recognized on offer of possession to customers. Due to specific nature of business and timing difference in revenue recognition in books and receipt of amount from customers in different periods, TDS is deducted by the customers at the time of making payment to the assessee irrespective of the fact when the invoice was raised by the assessee or when the revenue is recognized by the assessee. It was further submitted that the revenue is recognized in different periods and amounts are paid and TDS deducted in different periods by customers and therefore, there is bound to be difference in the receipts as per profit & loss account and return of income and as per Form 26AS.

The Tribunal observed that there is no dispute about TDS deducted of Rs 19,93,696 but TDS credit was allowed only to the extent of Rs. 18,14,094. The assessee company explained that it booked revenue in earlier years on the basis of offer of possession given to customers and customers deducted and deposited TDS during assessment year 2022-23. As the assessee cannot claim TDS in respect of revenue booked in earlier assessment years as time to file revised return is over, hence, TDS was claimed as and when TDS was deducted and deposited, that is the case in assessment year 2022-23. Assessee’s claim was that it offered higher income in earlier years and claimed credit for TDS as and when customers deducted TDS and deposited TDS.

The Tribunal found the assessee’s plea to be quite reasonable and as per law. But, since the facts need to be verified whether any TDS deducted by these parties on whose account the assessee company booked revenue in the earlier years on the basis of offer of possession to the customers.

The Tribunal remitted this issue to the file of the AO just for the purpose of verification whether the assessee has offered revenue in the earlier years on the basis of offer of possession. It directed the AO to allow credit for TDS deducted in the current year in case revenue is booked in the earlier year.

TDS credit cannot be denied merely because corresponding income is not taxable in the hands of the assessee. Rule 37BA which stipulates grant of TDS credit does not mandate corresponding income being offered for tax.

16. TS-570-ITAT-2026 (Hyderabad)

Transmission Corporation of Telangana v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2018-19

Date of Order: 30.3.2026

Section: 199, Rule 37BA

TDS credit cannot be denied merely because corresponding income is not taxable in the hands of the assessee. Rule 37BA which stipulates grant of TDS credit does not mandate corresponding income being offered for tax.

FACTS

The assessee company engaged in business of transmission of electrical energy in state of Telangana filed its return of income declaring a loss of Rs.119.05 crore. Subsequently, a revised return of income was filed declaring a loss of Rs.227.33 crore and a profit of Rs.102.46 crore under MAT provisions. The Assessing Officer (AO) while assessing the total income of the assessee interalia made an addition of Rs.121.92 crore on account of interest from deposits of unutilised Lift Irrigation Scheme (LIS) Fund. The assessee had not offered this income for taxation but the credit for TDS on this interest income was claimed. The AO also rejected the claim of TDS on interest receipt.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, following the order of the Tribunal in the assessee’s own case in earlier year, held that interest income was not chargeable to tax. However, he also held that the assessee is not entitled to claim TDS credit in respect of such income which has been claimed to be not taxable which claim was upheld by him.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there is no dispute that the interest income on which tax has been deducted at source has been accounted in the books of the assessee. The deposit claimed to have been made with the deductor has in fact been made and that the deductor has furnished details of deduction of TDS in TDS return reflecting assessee as a deductee and consequently the amount is reflected in Form 26AS of the assessee. The Tribunal held that in this factual background it found merit in the contention of the assessee that merely because the corresponding income is not taxable in the hands of the assessee, TDS credit cannot be denied.

The Tribunal having gone through the provisions of Rule 37BA held that the said Rule provides that credit for tax deducted at source shall be given to the person to whom payment has been made or credit has been given, on the basis of information relating to deduction of tax furnished by the deductor to the income-tax authority. It observed that in the instant case, the deductor has furnished the information to the income-tax authority specifying assessee as the deductee. Therefore, primary requirement of Rule 37BA stood satisfied. It further observed that Rule 37BA also contemplates a situation where the deductee furnishes a declaration to the deductor that credit of TDS is to be given to another person. However, in the present case no such declaration having been furnished, the said provision is not applicable to the facts of the present case.

The Tribunal held that the contention of the DR that TDS credit can be allowed only if corresponding income is offered to tax is not borne out from the plain reading of Rule 37BA. The Tribunal held that it does not find any such pre-condition in the said Rule. It further held that the scheme of TDS credit is based on the principle that once tax has been deducted and paid to the Central Government and the same is reflected in the account of the deductee, the credit thereof should ordinarily be granted to such deductee.

The Tribunal, with a view to avoid possibility of double credit of TDS set aside the matter to the AO for limited verification whether TDS credit has been claimed elsewhere or whether there is any possibility of double credit. The AO was directed to allow TDS credit if it is found that there is no double claim of TDS.

Assured Returns under FEMA

Under India’s FEMA and NDI Rules 2019, foreign direct investment (FDI) strictly prohibits “assured returns,” such as pre-determined internal rates of return or guaranteed exit prices. While investors can utilize optionality clauses like put options, these require a minimum one-year lock-in and must base the exit price on fair market value determined at the time of exit. Common compliance pitfalls include embedding minimum floor prices or using downstream entities to bypass these rules. Although Indian courts may enforce arbitral damages for a promoter’s breach of exit obligations, the actual cross-border remittance of those damages remains subject to strict RBI banking scrutiny.

INTRODUCTION

This article provides a detailed, legally grounded examination of the prohibition on assured returns in foreign direct investment (FDI) under India’s Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) framework. It draws attention to the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, applicable Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Master Directions and circulars, and leading judicial decisions.

1. UNDERSTANDING THE CONCEPT OF “ASSURED RETURNS” & “OPTIONALITY CLAUSE” IN FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT

Assured Return

In the context of foreign direct investment into India, the term “assured return” refers to any arrangement under which a foreign investor is contractually guaranteed a pre-determined profit, a minimum internal rate of return (IRR), or a pre-agreed exit price or buy-back price at the time of making an equity investment – irrespective of the actual commercial performance of the investee company.

Optionality Without Assurance

A foreign investor may validly be granted an optionality clause, most commonly in the form of a put option, which gives the investor the contractual right to sell its equity shares or compulsorily convertible instruments back to the promoter or to a third party at a future date. However, even optionality is not allowed with the pre-agreed return at the exit.

Examples of Assured Return and Optionality Clause

Example 1 – IRR-Based Exit (Prohibited)

Investor shall be entitled to exit at a price that gives them 18% IRR.

Example 2 – Guaranteed Minimum Exit Value (Prohibited)

Investor will be bought out at not less than the original investment amount plus 12% per annum.

Example 3 – Put Option with Pre-Agreed Price (Prohibited)

Investor may sell its shares to the Promoters at ₹500 per share after 3 years.

Example 4 – Call Option at FMV (Allowed)

The Company may repurchase the Investor’s CCDs at FMV on the date of exercise, following the FEMA pricing guidelines.

Example 5 – Put Option at Fair Value (Allowed)

After the 1-year minimum lock-in, the Investor may require the Promoters to purchase the shares at fair market value determined at the time of exit.

2. THE REGULATORY FRAMEWORK: STATUTORY AND REGULATORY BASIS

2.1 The Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019

The Foreign Exchange Management (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019 (NDI Rules), notified by the Central Government in exercise of powers under Section 47 of FEMA, 1999, constitute the primary subordinate legislation governing foreign investment in equity and equity-linked instruments of Indian companies. The NDI Rules define the scope of “equity instruments” eligible for FDI, which include equity shares, fully and compulsorily convertible preference shares (FCPS), and fully and compulsorily convertible debentures (FCDs).

FDI in INDIA The No Guarantee Rule

Rule 21(2)(c)(iii) Explanation: The guiding principle shall be that the person resident outside India is not guaranteed any assured exit price at the time of making such investment or agreement and shall exit at the price prevailing at the time of exit.

Explanation: The guiding principle shall be that the person resident outside India is not guaranteed any assured exit price at the time of making such investment or agreement and shall exit at the price prevailing at the time of exit.

Rule(9)(5) A person resident outside India holding equity instruments of an Indian company containing an optionality clause in accordance with these rules and exercising the option or right, may exit without any assured return, subject to the pricing guidelines prescribed in these rules and a minimum lock-in period of one year or a minimum lock-in period as prescribed in these rules, whichever is higher.

Rule(2)(k)(i) Equity instruments can contain an optionality clause subject to a minimum lock-in period of one year or as prescribed for the specific sector, whichever is higher, but without any option or right to exit at an assured price.

2.2 RBI Circulars on Optionality and Pricing

In addition to the NDI Rules, the RBI has issued two foundational circulars that operationalise the concept of permissible optionality for FDI investors:

A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 86 dated January 9, 2014

RBI Circular No. 86 (RBI/2013-14/436) was the first circular to explicitly permit optionality clauses in equity shares, compulsorily convertible preference shares, and compulsorily convertible debentures held by FDI investors. The circular simultaneously imposed three firm conditions that remain operative to this day:

  • Minimum lock-in period: The option may not be exercised until the expiry of a minimum lock-in period of one year from the date of allotment of the instruments.
  • No assured return: The exit must be made without any assured return. No minimum IRR, floor price, or guaranteed buy-back price may be stipulated.
  • Pricing compliance: The exit price must conform to the applicable pricing guidelines, market price for listed securities and fair market value for unlisted securities.

A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 4 dated July 15, 2014

This circular (RBI/2014-15/129) revised the pricing guidelines for FDI transactions more broadly, and specifically reiterated the conditions applicable to optionality exits. It confirmed that for unlisted securities, the exit price under an optionality clause must be determined using an internationally accepted pricing methodology – typically a discounted cash flow or comparable company analysis or any another method of valuation certified by a SEBI-registered merchant banker, a Chartered Accountant, or a Cost Accountant and must not be pre-fixed at the time of the original investment. For listed securities, the exit price must be the prevailing market price on a recognised stock exchange. (The above-mentioned circulars have been discontinued, and the relevant provisions are now incorporated under the NDI Rules, 2019)

3. COMMON MARKET MISCONCEPTIONS AND COMPLIANCE PITFALLS

Notwithstanding the clarity of the regulatory framework, a range of misconceptions and structuring errors continue to arise in practice. The following are the most frequently encountered pitfalls, drawn from disputes, enforcement actions, and professional practice.

Pitfall 1: Including Guaranteed Minimum Returns or Set Buy-Back Prices in Contracts

One of the most common violations occurs when transaction documents, whether a shareholders’ agreement (SHA), share subscription agreement (SSA), or a side letter, contain a clause that ensures the foreign investor a minimum exit value, whether expressed as a fixed buy-back price, a minimum IRR, or a floor on the value of the investor’s shareholding. Such clauses, regardless of how they are labelled (for example, as “downside protection,” “capital preservation,” or “guaranteed returns”), constitute an assured return and are squarely prohibited by the NDI Rules, 2019 and the applicable RBI circulars.

Pitfall 2: Treating Legal Compensation for Losses the Same as Agreed-Upon Sale Prices

A nuanced but important misconception arises from the assumption that because Indian courts have enforced foreign arbitral awards granting damages arising out of a failed put option or exit obligation, the underlying assured-return structure itself has been validated. This is legally incorrect.

When a court enforces damages awarded by an arbitral tribunal for breach of a contractual obligation (for example, the promoter’s failure to honour a put option), it is enforcing a remedy for breach of contract, not endorsing or validating a pre-agreed assured exit price. The legal character of the payment – damages for breach, as opposed to the consideration for a share transfer, is what may take it outside the direct operation of the pricing guidelines under FEMA.

Critically, however, even where a court upholds such a damages award, the actual remittance of funds to the foreign investor (i.e., the cross-border transfer) remains subject to FEMA and must pass through the banking system with appropriate FEMA-compliant documentation. AD banks will scrutinise the transaction, and in certain cases, RBI consultation may be required.

Pitfall 3: Failure to Maintain Valuation and Reporting Discipline

Beyond the substantive prohibition on assured returns, compliance failures frequently arise in the procedural and reporting dimensions of FDI transactions. The key reporting obligations and timelines are:

  • FC-GPR (Form Foreign Currency – Gross Provisional Return): Must be filed with the RBI through the AD Category-I bank within 30 days of allotment of FDI instruments to the foreign investor.
  • FC-TRS (Form Foreign Currency – Transfer of Shares): Must be filed within 60 days of the date of receipt of consideration or the date of transfer, whichever is earlier, in respect of any transfer of FDI instruments between a resident and a non-resident.
  • Form DI (Downstream Investment): Must be filed within 30 days of the downstream investment being made by an Indian entity that has received foreign investment (including a Foreign-Owned and Controlled Company or FOCC).

On the valuation side, parties must ensure that unlisted exit transactions are supported by an FMV certificate prepared using an internationally accepted valuation methodology by a SEBI-registered merchant banker or Chartered Accountant or a Cost Accountant. For listed transactions, the recognised stock exchange price applies. Valuation working papers should be retained and made available for AD bank review.

Pitfall 4: Attempting to Circumvent Restrictions Through Downstream or FOCC Layers

A significant structuring risk arises when parties attempt to achieve through indirect means what they cannot achieve directly. For example, an FOCC (a company incorporated in India but owned and controlled by foreign investors) might attempt to make a downstream investment into another Indian company on terms that include an assured return element on the implicit assumption that FEMA’s constraints apply only to direct FDI flows.

The RBI’s 2025 clarifications in the Master Direction on Foreign Investment have made clear that downstream investments by FOCCs are to be treated at par with direct FDI in all material respects, including pricing conditions, entry route requirements, sectoral caps, conditionalities, and reporting obligations. Accordingly, any assured-return structure that would be impermissible in a direct FDI context is equally impermissible when attempted through a downstream investment by an FOCC.

4. KEY JUDICIAL DECISIONS: ANALYSIS OF LEADING CASES

Indian courts and the Supreme Court have had occasion to examine the intersection of contractual exit rights, FEMA compliance, and arbitral award enforcement in several significant decisions. The following cases are the most frequently cited and analytically relevant.

4.1 NTT Docomo Inc. v. Tata Sons Ltd. Delhi High Court | April 28, 2017

“The sum of US$1.17 billion was granted as damages and not purchase consideration for Docomo’s Sale Shares; hence, pricing guidelines under FEMA for transfer of shares would not apply.”

Significance: This decision is the most important judicial authority on the distinction between damages for breach and purchase consideration. The Court upheld an ICC arbitral award in favour of NTT Docomo, holding that the payment constituted compensation for the promoter’s failure to honour the exit mechanism agreed in the shareholders’ agreement and not a transfer of shares at a pre-agreed price. As a result, the Court held that FEMA’s pricing guidelines for share transfers were not directly triggered. RBI’s objections to enforcement were dismissed. However, the decision does not validate assured-return structures per se; it underscores that where a foreign investor has been denied an exit and pursues damages before an arbitral tribunal, the remedy for breach may be enforced by courts, but actual cross-border remittance remains subject to FEMA banking norms.

4.2 IDBI Trusteeship Services Ltd. v. Hubtown Ltd. Supreme Court of India | November 15, 2016

Significance: This Supreme Court decision arose in the context of a summary suit involving a structured investment arrangement that was alleged to provide fixed returns through an optionally convertible debenture structure, which the defendant argued was prohibited under FEMA as it constituted ECB rather than FDI. The Court granted unconditional leave to defend, recognising that the FEMA characterisation of the transaction raised triable issues. While the decision does not decide the FEMA compliance question on the merits, it is frequently cited for two propositions: first, that courts will not summarily decide complex FEMA compliance questions in enforcement proceedings; and second, that structured investment arrangements that allegedly deliver assured returns through non-equity instruments will be subject to close judicial scrutiny.

4.3 GPE (India) Ltd. & Ors v. Twarit Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. Supreme Court of India (arising from Madras High Court enforcement) | SC Order: April 17, 2023 | Madras HC Judgment: January 5, 2023

“Notice will also be issued to the Reserve Bank of India to ascertain, if at all any approval or permission from them is required, and if yes, at what stage will it be required.”

Significance: This case illustrates an increasingly important dimension of post-award FEMA compliance. Even after a foreign arbitral award relating to a put option or exit mechanism has been upheld at the enforcement stage by the High Court, the Supreme Court directed that notice be issued to the RBI to ascertain whether any regulatory approval or permission was required and at what stage for the actual cross-border remittance of the award amount. This decision underscores that judicial enforcement of an arbitral award does not automatically complete the FEMA compliance cycle. The regulatory overlay persists at the remittance stage, and parties must plan for AD bank scrutiny and, where necessary, engagement with the RBI before funds can be transferred outside India.

5. PRACTICAL GUIDANCE: STRUCTURING, DOCUMENTATION, AND COMPLIANCE

The regulatory framework described above, read in conjunction with the judicial decisions analysed in the preceding section, yields a set of clear, actionable guidance points for legal practitioners, company secretaries, investment bankers, CFOs, and compliance professionals engaged in FDI transactions.

A. Structuring Principle: Preserve the Option, Remove the Guarantee

The foundational structuring principle is straightforward: an FDI investor may hold a valid exit right or put option, but the exit price must not be pre-determined at the time of investment. Agreements should be drafted to provide the investor with the contractual right to exit after the lock-in period, with the exit price to be determined at the time of exercise of the option in accordance with applicable pricing guidelines.

Documents should clearly and expressly state that no assured return is being provided and that the exit price will be determined at the time of exit. Boilerplate clauses copied from non-Indian investment agreements (particularly those from jurisdictions without similar exchange-control restrictions) are a significant source of non-compliance and should be carefully reviewed.

Compliant vs. Non-Compliant Language

Compliant: “The Investor shall have the right, exercisable after the Lock-in Period, to require the Promoter to purchase the Investor’s Shares at a price determined in accordance with the pricing guidelines applicable under FEMA and the NDI Rules at the time of exercise of such right.”

Non-Compliant: “The Promoter shall repurchase the Investor’s Shares at a price equal to the original investment plus 15% per annum IRR.”

B. Valuation and Documentation Hygiene

Rigorous valuation and documentation practices are essential for FEMA compliance, particularly at the time of exit:

  • Unlisted Company Exits: Obtain a formal FMV certificate from a SEBI-registered merchant banker or chartered accountant using an internationally accepted valuation methodology (such as DCF, comparable company analysis, or net asset value). Retain the working papers, assumptions, and methodology documentation for AD bank review.
  • Listed Company Exits: The exit price must be the prevailing market price on a recognised stock exchange. Ensure documentary evidence of the exchange price on the date of transfer is retained.

C. Downstream and FOCC Compliance: Strict Parity with Direct FDI

As noted above, the RBI’s updated Master Direction (January 2025) has confirmed that downstream investments by FOCCs are subject to the same pricing conditions, entry route requirements, sectoral caps, conditionalities, and reporting obligations as direct FDI. Compliance teams should apply the same level of scrutiny to downstream transactions as they would to a primary FDI transaction. In particular, assured-return structures must not be introduced at the downstream level as a surrogate for what cannot be done at the primary level.

D. When a Put Option Fails: Arbitration and Post-Award Compliance

Where a put option or exit mechanism fails because the Indian promoter refuses to honour it, the foreign investor may pursue remedies through arbitration (whether domestic or international). As illustrated by the Docomo case, Indian courts have shown a willingness to enforce arbitral damages awards in such circumstances, characterising the payment as compensation for breach rather than as the enforcement of a pre-agreed exit price.

However, several practical steps must be planned for:

  • FEMA Compliance at Remittance: Even after a court order enforcing an arbitral award is obtained, the foreign investor’s legal counsel must work with the AD bank to structure the cross-border remittance in a FEMA-compliant manner. The AD bank will need to satisfy itself as to the nature and regulatory characterisation of the payment.
  • RBI Engagement: In complex cases (as illustrated by the GPE v. Twarit decision), it may be necessary to approach the RBI directly to seek guidance or a no-objection before remittance. Timelines for such engagement can be significant and should be factored into post-award planning.
  • Tax Treatment: The tax treatment of damages received by a foreign investor (whether as income, capital gains, or otherwise) requires separate analysis under the Income Tax Act, 2025 and applicable tax treaties, and should be addressed in parallel.

6. FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (WITH PRACTICAL ANSWERS)

Q1: Can we give a foreign investor a put option with an IRR formula “subject to FEMA pricing at exit”?

A1: Avoid IRR language for equity; state that exit will be at fair value determined at the time of exercise, complying with pricing guidelines. You can reference optionality (per RBI 2014; SEBI 2013), but the payout cannot be assured/guaranteed up front.

Q2: Can we fix a minimum floor equal to the invested amount (a “capital protection” clause)?

A2: No, if your drafting guarantees a minimum return on equity instruments at exit, that’s effectively an assured return and non compliant. Price must be set at exit time fair value, not a pre agreed floor.

Q3: Are CCPS/CCDs safer than equity shares?

A3: CCPS/CCD are equity instruments under NDI. Optionality in exit is allowed without assured returns. Optionally convertible or redeemable variants (i.e., hybrids) are problematic for FDI equity. If your intent is fixed return, consider debt (ECB) instead.

Q4: What about “downside protection” clauses?

A4: You may craft damages remedies for breach (e.g., where promoters fail to undertake actions they are obligated to perform), but do not conflate them with assured equity exit prices. Even damages payable overseas will be subject to RBI permissions at remittance. Courts have enforced foreign awards in specific cases, but that is not blanket permission to sidestep FEMA.

Q5: In real estate, can a foreign investor get an assured rental yield?

A5: FDI in the real estate business is prohibited, while construction development is permitted with conditions. Regardless of sector, any equity exit assured return is barred; rent is an operating cash flow, not an exit price. Ensure the sectoral policy (DPIIT/Press Notes) and instrument level FEMA rules both align.

Q6: Does the dividend on CCPS / interest on CCD amounts to an assured return?

A6: No, dividends on CCPS and interest on CCDs are not treated as “assured returns” under FEMA.

What FEMA prohibits is pre agreed fixed exit pricing (IRR / assured minimum amount) on equity instruments, not normal commercial payouts like dividends or interest that arise from their contractual terms.

KEY PRINCIPLE

An FDI investor may hold a put option or an exit right. What is not permitted is a pre-agreed, fixed exit price or minimum IRR guarantee embedded at the time of investment. The price must be determined at the time of exit, post lock-in, in accordance with RBI pricing guidelines.

The investment instrument is formally structured as equity, which, by its nature, carries risk and participates in the company’s fortunes, and it cannot guarantee a return without exposure to business risk.

Role of Audit Committees And Challenges

Despite stringent regulations, severe corporate scandals—including SecureKloud, Karvy, and IL&FS—highlight the persistent failures of Independent Audit Committees. Recently, the 2026 SAT order upheld penalties against SecureKloud’s committee members for assisting management in financial manipulation rather than functioning as independent watchdogs. To prevent such failures, Audit Committees must overcome their over-reliance on management and assert absolute independence. Implementing strategic reforms like stricter financial qualifications, more frequent meetings, and direct auditor engagement is crucial. Ultimately, committees must evolve from passive compliance bodies into proactive guardians overseeing modern risks, including cybersecurity and data privacy.

INTRODUCTION

Despite stringent regulations like the Companies Act 2013 and SEBI LODR, India’s corporate landscape continues to be rocked by financial scandals—from IL&FS to Karvy. At the center of these failures lies a crucial question: Where was the Independent Audit Committee? As business dynamics shift into the digital and AI era, the Committee must evolve from a passive rubber-stamp into an aggressive, independent watchdog.

The provisions relating to Audit Committee have been specified under Section 177 of Companies Act, 2013 and under Rule 6-Companies (Meetings of Board & its Powers) Rules, 2014. Under SEBI (LODR) Regulation, 2015, the provisions of Committee are subject to Regulation 18 & Part C of Schedule II of SEBI (LODR) Regulation, 2015.

Recent regulatory orders highlight the consequences of failure of Audit Committee in reputed corporates.

From Rubber stamp to Independent watch dog

SEBI order on M/s Securekloud Technologies Ltd. for false financial statement1

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide Adjudication Order No. Order/VV/PSS/2022-23/22968-22973 dt 20 January 2023 has imposed a penalty of Rs.55 lakh on three directors and three executives of Securekloud Technologies Ltd (formerly 8K miles Softwares) for submitting false disclosures, making false representations and misrepresentation in financial statements. The SEBI order noted that Audit Committee members Punniamurthy and Singaram acted as agents of the company rather than independent overseers. By failing to conduct due diligence or exercise independent judgment, they directly violated regulatory norms.


1 Source: https://www.moneylife.in/article/sebi-imposes-rs55-lakh-fine-on-directors-executives-of-securekloud-technologies-for-false-financial-statement/69592.html

The SAT order (2026) unequivocally upheld the penalties against the Audit Committee members

On appeals filed by SecureKloud and its officials, the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) pronounced its judgment on March 6, 2026.

While the Tribunal granted partial relief to the company by setting aside a specific direction to recover Rs. 3.83 crores from its promoter, Suresh Venkatachari, it categorically dismissed the appeals filed by the Audit Committee members, Dinesh Raja Punniamurthy (Chairperson) and Babita Singaram.

SAT explicitly confirmed the penalties levied against the Audit Committee members under the SEBI Act and LODR Regulations. The Tribunal critically observed that the officials chose to ignore express “red flags” raised by the company’s statutory auditors. Furthermore, SAT noted that instead of functioning as the “watchdog for investors,” the Audit Committee was involved in the manipulation and actively assisted the management in inflating the financials.

SEBI delivers final order in Karvy demat scam, cracks down on MD and directors2

Similarly, SEBI cracked down on the MD and independent directors of Karvy Stock Broking Limited (KSBL), marking an inflection point in the stock market scam that siphoned off crores in investor wealth and prompted deep and structural investor reforms. Independent directors of the company have also been penalised.

IL&FS Crisis3

The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has charged accounting companies along with some of its partners, as well as members of the Committee, for their failure in not disclosing true financials of IL&FS Financial Services (I-FIN) and allegedly conniving with the management to suppress information. The SFIO’s charge sheet also levelled multiple allegations against Committee members in chargesheet.

Even after enactment of stringent Regulation under the Companies Act, 2013, SEBI LODR and several Guidance Note prescribed by regulatory body, systemic corporate governance failures continue to surface, which is detrimental to the interest of the Indian Economy and Investor confidence in capital market. A question arises on the effectiveness of the Independent Audit Committee.

Provisions for Audit Committee (AC) under the Companies Act 2013 and SEBI (LODR) Regulations 2015 can be enumerated as below mentioned:

Details Under the Companies Act 2013 Under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations 2015
Constitution : AC must comprise of at least 3 directors, with independent directors forming majority.  Such members must be appointed for the audit committee under Companies Act who can read and understand financial statements.

This provisions is also applicable while appointing a chairperson.

AC must comprise of at least 3 directors as members. Further, two-thirds of the members of the audit committee should be independent directors. The chairperson of the audit committee must be an independent director.

All the audit committee members should be literate financially, and minimum one member should be expert in accounting or related financial management.

Meetings : The Companies Act 2013 doesn’t mandate for an audit committee meeting frequently. Nevertheless, Audit Committee should meet as often as required subject to requirement as may be prescribed under law. The SEBI (LODR) Regulations 2015 requires audit committee to meet minimum 4 times in a year, and more than 120 days should not have elapsed between two meetings. The quorum for such meeting shall be of 2 members or 1/3 of the members of the audit committee, whichever is greater, with a minimum of 2 independent directors.
Functions And Role : As per Section 177(4) of the Companies Act, every audit committee needs to adhere to the terms of reference mentioned in writing by the board which will include:

(i)The recommendation for appointment, remuneration & terms of appointment of the company’s auditors;

(ii)Review & monitor the independence & performance of auditor as well as the effectiveness of the audit process;

(iii) Examine the financial statement and the auditors’ report;

(iv)Approval or modification of company’s transactions with related parties.

(v)Scrutiny of inter-corporate loans and investments;

(vi)Valuation of undertaking or assets of the listed entity, where required;  evaluating internal financial controls and risk management systems;

(vii)evaluation of internal financial controls and risk management systems;

(viii)To review the end usage of  funds raised through public offers and related matters.

 

Part C Schedule II of SEBI (LODR) Regulations prescribes the role of Audit Committee. It includes the following:

(i) Oversight of the listed entity’s financial reporting process and the disclosure of its financial information to ensure its credibility;

(ii)Recommend appointment, remuneration and terms of appointment of listed entity’s  auditors;

(iii)Providing payment approval to statutory auditors for services rendered by the statutory auditors;

(iv)To review the annual financial statements and auditors’ report before it is submitted to the board for approval with a special reference to the following:

1.Matters to be included in the directors’ responsibility statement;

2. Changes in accounting policies & practices and reasons, if any;

3. Major accounting entries;

4. Core  adjustments made in the financial statement from audit findings;

5. Adherence to the listing and other legal requirements pertaining to financial statements;

6. Disclosure of Related Party Transactions (RPTs);

7. Modified opinion in the draft audit report.

Powers : To call for the comments of auditors regarding internal control systems, scope of audit and review financial statement before it is submitted tothe board and can also discuss any issues related with the internal as well as statutory auditors and the management of the company;

(i) To investigate into a matter relating to Company and the committee can obtain professional advice from external sources. The committee has the power to access information in the records of the company.

(i) To investigate an activity within its terms of reference;

(ii) To get information from any employee;

(iii) To get legal or other professional advice from outside;

(iv) To get attendance of outsiders having relevant expertise, if required.


2. Source:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/markets/sebi-delivers-final-order-in-karvy-demat-scam-cracks-down-on-md-and-directors-10495611.html

3. Source:-   https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/deloitte-kpmg-charged-with-helping-i-fin-cook-its-books/articleshow/69657703.cms

ROLES OF INDEPENDENT AUDIT COMMITTEE

There are several areas where the Independent Audit Committee plays an important role. Few important areas may be highlighted as below: –

A. Independence First

Independence of the Members on Audit Committee is first and foremost requirement for ensuring the effective functioning of the committee. The committee has to take an objective view of all matters under consideration. A member of the Committee who has close links with the promoters or the senior management may not, on all occasions, take such a view. Nonetheless, independent directors may not be less than Independent Auditors in my view.

A continuing loss of independence or conflict of interest may justify the director leaving the committee. A stark example of this occurred during the YES Bank crisis as below mentioned.

YES Bank crisis4

On 10th January 2020, Yes Bank’s audit committee chairman Uttam Prakash Agarwal resigned as independent director citing concerns regarding the deteriorating standard of Board oversight at the private lender. In a letter to the regulators, he said, “There are serious concerns as regards deteriorating standards of the corporate governance, failure of compliance, management practices and the manner in which the state of affairs of the company are being conducted.


4. https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/yes-bank-s-audit-committee-chairman-resigns-citing-governance-concerns-11578648202811.html

B. The Audit Committee and Critical Audit Matters (CAMs)

While the independent auditor is solely responsible for writing and communicating CAMs, audit committees should engage in a substantive dialogue with the auditor regarding the audit and expected CAMs to understand the nature of each CAMs, the auditor’s basis for the determination of each CAM and how each CAMs is expected to be described in the auditor’s report. Further, these CAMs may provide a lead in future action and decision.

C. The Audit committee and internal control

The board is responsible for the total process of risk management, which includes ensuring that the system of internal control is adequate and effective. While the board holds ultimate responsibility for risk management, it delegates day-to-day oversight to the Audit Committee. Consequently, the Committee must actively monitor the adequacy of internal financial controls and ensure:

  • review compliance with regulations, legislation and ethical practices (such as environmental policies and codes of conduct), and ensure that systems are in place to support such compliant behaviour;
  • review the company’s fraud risk management policy, ensuring that awareness is promoted and reporting and investigation mechanisms exist;
  • give its approval to the statements in the annual report relating to internal control and risk management;
  • receive reports on the conclusions of any tests carried out on the controls by the internal or external auditors, and consider the recommendations that are made;’
  • monitor and assess the role and effectiveness of the internal audit function within the company’s overall risk management system;
  • check the efficiency of internal audit by quality of observations;
  • approve the appointment, or termination of appointment, of the head of internal audit;
  • ensure that the internal audit function has direct access to the board chairman and is accountable to the audit committee;
  • review and assess the annual internal audit work plan;
  • receive periodic reports about the work of the internal audit function;
  • review and monitor the response of management to internal audit findings;
  • ensure that recommendations made by internal audit are actioned;
  • help preserve the independence of the internal audit function from pressure or interference.

The committee should meet with internal auditors at least once a year, without management present, to discuss audit-related matters.

The Audit committee and internal control

D. THE AUDIT COMMITTEE AND EXTERNAL AUDITORS

Beyond internal metrics, the Committee must independently manage the relationship with external auditors. The audit committee should:

  • Regarding external auditors, the Committee serves as the primary gateway for appointments, remuneration, and oversight of the audit’s scope to the board on the appointment, re-appointment or removal of the external auditors;
  • oversee the selection process when new auditors are being considered;
  • approve the terms of engagement of the external auditors and the remuneration for their audit services;
  • ensure the independence and objectivity of the external auditors;
  • review the scope of the audit with the auditor, and satisfy itself that this is sufficient;
  • make sure that appropriate plans are in place for the audit at the start of each annual audit;
  • carry out a post-completion audit review.

E. The Audit committee and compliance

Ensuring strict compliance with external reporting regulations remains a cornerstone of the Committee’s mandate. The audit committee needs to satisfy itself that the financial statements prepared by management and approved by the auditors are acceptable. It should consider:

  • the material accounting policies that have been used, and whether these are appropriate;
  • any critical estimates or judgements that have been made, and whether these are reasonable;
  • the method used to account for any material or unusual transactions, where alternative accounting treatments are possible; and
  • the clarity and completeness of the disclosures in the financial statements.

The committee should listen to the views of the auditors on these matters. If it is not satisfied with any aspect of the proposed accounting integrity, it should inform the board.

The committee should also re-review the Business Review section and the corporate integrity statements relating to audit and risk management in the Annual Report.

Impediments to Audit Committee Effectiveness and Common Mistakes

The Board and Audit Committee members view the Committee only as a legal or regulatory requirement to be fulfilled. A few common mistakes or misconceptions are below mentioned:

  • Inadequate understanding of accounting, control, audit, reporting and complex business issues.
  • Over-reliance on the company’s management and lack of inquisitiveness and healthy scepticism.
  • Committee’s inability to assert itself in the face of dominant management.
  • Lack of effective leadership leading to consequent lack of coordination with auditors and management.
  • Ineffective meetings ridden with poor agenda planning and unfocussed discussions.

RECOMMENDATIONS FOR EFFECTIVE INDEPENDENT AUDIT COMMITTEE

Boards can implement the following strategic shifts to drastically improve Committee effectiveness:

  1. Minimum financial qualification and functional experience to be an audit committee member should be raised from just comprehensive knowledge of financial statements where only the Chairman is required to be an expert in the committee.
  2. There should be a minimum of six audit committee meetings in a year—two meetings devoted to evaluating the thorough control environment and risk management related matters comprehensively.
  3. There must be a check on the maximum number of audit committees a person can be a member.
  4. The audit committee meetings to be held at least a day before the board meeting, to allow for enough time to deliberate and discuss key issues.
  5. Appointment of the audit committee should be ensured through a well-defined selection procedure and should not be done by the chairman or board or promoters.
  6. The tenure of the audit committee membership should be well defined, and a transparent succession planning process must be there.
  7. Appointment of internal auditor and their reporting should be done by and to the audit committee.
  8. The Audit Committee reviews its charter at least once in a year and recommends any amendments to the Board.
  9. The Audit Committee engages with the auditors on a regular basis.
  10. The Committee reviews its own performance once in a year.
  11. The Committee reviews areas concerning management’s assumptions, material accounting treatments that have a material impact on the financial statements.
  12. The committee should follow guidance issued by ICAI in spirit on “Technical Guide on Functioning Audit Committee & Its Review Checklist”
  13. The members use various AccountingRatio tools to check the health of the Financial statements.

CONCLUSION

Ultimately, these structural recommendations point to a single truth: the Audit Committee must evolve from a passive compliance body into a proactive, independent watchdog.

The role of the Audit Committee is no longer confined to finalizing financial statements. In an era of digital transformation, their mandate has expanded to encompass cybersecurity, sustainability reporting, and data privacy under the DPDP Act. To truly protect stakeholders, Audit Committees must shed their reliance on management, assert their independence, and embrace their role as the ultimate guardians of corporate integrity.

Principles of Applying Ethics In Professional Judgement

The ICAI Code of Ethics mandates five fundamental principles for Chartered Accountants to ensure they consistently act in the public interest.

First, Integrity requires straightforwardness and honesty in all professional, business, and personal relationships. Second, Objectivity demands that professional judgment remains uncompromised by biases, conflicts of interest, or undue influence. Third, Professional Competence and Due Care entails maintaining up-to-date professional knowledge and acting diligently in accordance with technical standards. Fourth, Confidentiality obligates accountants to fiercely protect client information both during and after professional engagements. Finally, Professional Behaviour involves complying with laws and avoiding any conduct that might discredit the accounting profession.

OVERVIEW AND INTRODUCTION:

One of the hallmarks of the chartered accountancy profession is the underlying and tacit responsibility of acting in ‘public interest’. A chartered accountant plays various professional roles in society namely as an accountant, financial advisor, tax advisor, auditor and many more. The impact that each of these roles is able to create depends on the skills and values that accountants bring to the fore. More importantly, the agenda of public interest is served by adherence to ethical principles and professional standards, business knowledge, technical knowledge and lastly professional judgements.

While it is easy for us to sermonize that all accountants should act ethically, what does it mean in practice? Are there any fundamental principles on ethics that can guide the accountant’s behaviour? This article attempts to answer this question and provides an overview of the five fundamental principles of ethics for chartered accountants as enshrined in the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) Code of Ethics (CoE).

FIVE FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLES OF ETHICS

There are five fundamental principles of ethics for chartered accountants:

Integrity

Let’s explore each of these in more detail:

A] INTEGRITY

The CoE defines this as ‘to be straightforward and honest in all professional and business relationships’.

Integrity is also when there is congruence between one’s thoughts, speech and actions. Simply put it means that what one thinks should be aligned with what one says and that is how it should translate into action as well.

Personal versus professional lives: A Chartered Accountant is expected to be honest and upright as a citizen, and in all his personal affairs. The term ‘work life balance’ has become quite fashionable nowadays where professionals want to carve out their office and personal lives with a pursuit to avoid any infringement in boundaries set by each part of these lives. However, when it comes to matters of integrity, there are no boundaries between one’s professional behaviour versus how one behaves in personal life. Only if one displays integrity in personal life, will they be able to have integrity in professional life with the reverse also holding true.

One cannot take the plea that ‘I am obliged to have integrity only while fulfilling my duties as a professional’. Integrity goes to the root of one’s personality and is engrained in each thought, emotion and action. Unless all these components are aligned, the professional will always struggle.

Guts and gumption – Integrity also involves dealing fairly, truthfully, and acting appropriately. It also means that the professional should not let go of his values, even when facing pressure to do otherwise or when doing so might create potential adverse personal or organizational consequences. Various situations may arise which tests one’s mettle irrespective of whether one is a practicing accountant or one employed in industry. When one is confronted by difficult situations, one should stand one’s ground if one believes that he is on the right path. The professional should also challenge others as and when the circumstances require so, in a manner which is appropriate.

False or misleading statements – As a chartered accountant, the professional will be involved in various deliverables such as generating reports, tax returns, email communications, representations etc. Integrity should be upheld at all times in all such activities. He should not be knowingly associated with any such information where he has a reason to believe that it contains any false or misleading statement. He should also put his foot down in case of any statements or information are provided in grossly negligent manner. It is important that one does not hide information where the act of such omission itself would be misleading. The professional’s argument that he did not say anything false would not hold good if he was involved in omitting any important information with full knowledge and awareness that such omission would be misleading. Upon becoming aware, he should also take all necessary steps to disassociate himself from that information. This may also mean taking tough and difficult steps such as issuing any written clarifications to this effect to the recipients of the information or to any other stakeholders.

B] OBJECTIVITY

One of the meanings of ‘objectivity’ by the Merriam Webster dictionary is ‘freedom from bias’ or ‘lack of favoritism toward one side or another’. It means dealing with situations without being influenced by personal feelings, biases, or prejudices. Being objective means relying on facts and evidence rather than the outcome being influenced by personal opinions or emotions.

The CoE requires every chartered accountant to comply with the principle of objectivity, which requires an accountant to exercise professional or business judgment without being compromised by:

  • Bias;
  • Conflict of interest; or
  • Undue influence of, or undue reliance on, individuals, organizations, technology or other factors.

Biases – Bias can be defined as ‘a feeling of favour often not based on fair judgement or facts’. Unconscious or conscious biases may affect professional judgments of the chartered accountant.

Various types of Unconscious Biases


1 ISA220 (Revised) published by International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board

Examples of unconscious biases1 that may impede the exercise of reasonable professional judgments may include:

  • Confirmation Bias: The tendency to seek or focus on information that confirms preexisting beliefs or expectations, while ignoring evidence that contradicts them.
  • Overconfidence Bias: Overestimating one’s own abilities, knowledge, or judgment, which can lead to insufficient testing or overlooking risks.
  • Anchoring Bias: Relying too heavily on an initial piece of information (such as last year’s figures or management’s initial estimate) and not adjusting adequately when new, contradictory information arises.
  • Familiarity Bias: Placing undue trust or reliance on clients due to long-standing relationships, which may lead to a reluctance to challenge management.
  • Groupthink Bias: A phenomenon where team members agree with a consensus or senior member, suppressing dissent or alternative perspectives to avoid conflict.
  • Availability Bias: Giving undue weight to information that is readily available or recent, while ignoring less accessible but more relevant evidence

Getting rid of biases does not happen by wishful thinking! it is a result of conscious and deliberate efforts.

Conflicts of interest: A conflict of interest arises if a firm or any of its associated persons has a relationship with another person, entity, or service that may reasonably be thought to bear on the ability of the firm or the associated person to exercise objective and impartial judgment in connection with their responsibilities under applicable professional and legal requirements with respect to an engagement not involving such other person, entity, or service2.

A chartered accountant should not undertake a professional activity if a circumstance or relationship unduly influences the accountant’s professional judgment regarding that activity.

The below examples3 from some relevant overseas standards on this topic, may help clarify:

  • There is a lawsuit filed against an existing Client A of the chartered accountant/firm and he has also been approached by the opposite party to assist them on the lawsuit.
  • Providing tax and financial planning advice to a client and suggesting them to invest in a business in which he or she has a financial interest.
  • Providing services for several members of a family who may have opposing interests.
  • Having significant financial interest in a company that is a major competitor of a client for which the member performs consulting services.
  • Serving on a government panel/ committee which considers matters involving several of his tax clients.

2 PCAOB standards on Integrity and Objectivity

3 PCAOB standards on Integrity and Objectivity

C] PROFESSIONAL COMPETENCE AND DUE CARE

The CoE states that a chartered accountant shall comply with the principle of professional competence and due care, which requires an accountant to:

(a) Attain and maintain professional knowledge and skills at the level required to ensure that a client or employing organization receives competent professional service, based on current technical and professional standards and relevant legislation; and

(b) Act diligently and in accordance with applicable technical and professional standards.

Professional competence is the most important reason that clients approach chartered accountants. The chartered accountant is expected to be proficient in the areas that he practices in. One cannot make an excuse that there was no time to read up on a latest professional update if the client poses a query on the same. Similarly, for any organization employing chartered accountants, the very reason that he is employed is that the underlying assumption that a chartered accountant always endeavors to be at the peak of his game. Irrespective of whether the chartered accountant is a practitioner or in industry, it is expected that he should perform his work based on all applicable technical and professional standards. By no means, is a chartered accountant expected to be an ‘antaryaami’! (colloquial for the almighty omniscient) expected to have expert knowledge on everything under the sun. There are myriad of areas which chartered accountants gain exposure to, however there are a few which the chartered accountant chooses to profess and specialise in. These are the areas where professional competence and knowledge becomes non-negotiable.

Considering that the chartered accountant’s team would very often interact with the clients more than him, it is also in the chartered accountant’s own interest to ensure that the team working under him is also sufficiently trained and supervised.

D] CONFIDENTIALITY

Confidentiality is the bed rock of every professional engagement. More so for an engagement with a chartered accountant, the client exposes every little innards of his organisation and practices in order to ensure that he receives sound advice based on accurate and complete information. Having been privy to such information, a chartered accountant is under an obligation to ensure that the client’s interests are always protected. Maintaining confidentiality of information is one such basic expectation from a chartered accountant.

The CoE states that a chartered accountant shall comply with the principle of confidentiality, which requires an accountant to respect the confidentiality of information acquired in the course of professional and employment relationships. An accountant shall:

  •  Be alert to the possibility of inadvertent disclosure, including in a social environment, and particularly to a close business associate or an immediate or a close family member;
  • Maintain confidentiality of information within the firm or employing organization;
  • Maintain confidentiality of information disclosed by a prospective client or employing organization; and
  • Take reasonable steps to ensure that personnel under the accountant’s control, and individuals from whom advice and assistance are obtained, comply with the accountant’s duty of confidentiality.

While confidentiality is a basic expectation arising from the CoE requirements, the same can also be enforced contractually by the client. Some clients may also apply onerous obligations for reimbursement of damages caused due to breach of confidentiality. At times these may be various multiples of fees depending on how the same is negotiated. Also, given the recent developments in enhancements in personal data laws, this requirement is more critical than ever.

WHAT SHOULD HE NOT DO:

A CA shall not

All chartered accountants need to take appropriate safeguards to ensure that confidentiality is not breached. It is his responsibility to ensure that:

(a) No disclosure of confidential information acquired in the course of professional and business relationships;

(b) No using of confidential information acquired for any undue advantage;

(c) No use or disclosure of confidential information after that relationship has ended; and

(d) No use or disclosure of information even after the information has become publicly available, whether properly or improperly.

Exceptions when a chartered accountant may disclose or use confidential information:

A CA may disclose or use confidential

There are some exceptions that are permitted by the CoE when it comes to disclosure of confidential information. These exceptions are to be carefully considered and all possible safeguards should be applied that sufficient criteria are met for disclosure.

Situations where disclosure is required by law or regulations: For example, if there are any legal proceedings and the chartered accountant is required to provide certain documents/ evidence as mandated by the regulator. There are also certain situations where the CoE requires the professional to report to the appropriate public authorities of infringements of the law that have come to his information. There are separate sections of the CoE which deal with the professional’s reporting obligations in case certain situations of NOCLAR (Non Compliance with Laws and Regulations) are noted by him in the course of his professional duties.

Other situations based on client consent: The ICAI performs quality reviews of work performed by practicing chartered accountants whereby he may be required to disclose certain confidential information of the client forming part of his working papers in order to comply with the requirements of peer review or quality review or such other review by the Institute. There may be other such situations as well, however the consent of the client is required to be taken before any such disclosure is made. Client consent should be the obtained in writing and should specify the end purposes for which the confidential information is sought to be disclosed.

The obligation for confidentiality is not merely driven by the contractual term but survives the completion of the engagements and he shall continue to comply with the principle of confidentiality even after the end of the relationship between the accountant and a client or employing organization.

E] PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOUR

As per the CoE, a chartered accountant shall comply with the principle of professional behaviour, which requires an accountant to:

  •  Comply with relevant laws and regulations;
  • Behave in a manner consistent with the professional’s responsibility to act in the public interest in all professional activities and business relationships; and
  • Avoid any conduct that the accountant knows or should know might discredit the profession.

If the action has the likelihood to adversely affect the good reputation of the profession, then it needs to be avoided. This again goes to the aspect that we talked about at the beginning of this article i.e. public interest.

Every chartered accountant is also bound by the Chartered Accountants Act (‘Act’) where the first and second schedule of the Act provides various aspects of behaviour which are considered as ‘professional misconduct’. The requirements of the CoE are harmonious with the requirements of the Act and therefore the chartered accountant needs to adhere to both the requirements.

To provide examples, some behaviours which are construed as professional misconduct are:

  • Entering into partnerships outside of permitted professionals
  • Sharing of fees with non-member
  • Accepting share of fees from non-member
  • Soliciting professional work in violation of permitted guidelines
  • Advertising in violation of permitted guidelines
  • Exaggerated claims for the services offered by, or the qualifications or experience of, the accountant;
  • Disparaging references or unsubstantiated comparisons to the work of others.
  • Engaging in non-permitted occupations
  • Breach of client confidentiality
  • Grossly negligent in performing duties
  • Providing false information etc.

F] PRACTICAL ILLUSTRATIONS IN PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE – ETHICAL DILEMMAS

Now that we have discussed the tenets of professional ethics, let us explore a few situations which may be faced in professional practice. Situations involving such ethical dilemma are difficult to navigate and there are shades of grey. Each step in such situations needs to be carefully considered and deliberated by the professional as quite often, there is no turning back! One wrong action has the potential to irrevocably tarnish the professional’s reputation.

This article will intentionally not endeavour to provide solutions to these situations as it involves professional judgement.

Example #1

Your brother in law has faced massive losses in his business recently. His house is mortgaged and he is unable to repay his home loan. The bank authorities are now about to seize possession of his house. You are working on a confidential engagement with a listed client and you have come to know of a huge contract won by the client which is likely going to triple the profitability of the client in the next year. Your brother in law was sitting in the same room where you were having the conference call with the client and
he has overheard some part of the conversation but not fully. He has asked you to share more information with him so that he can use this to trade in the securities and recoup part of his business losses. What will you do ?

Example #2

You have recently joined a new organisation. You had created certain business templates/documents using publicly available sources for work in your previous employment and for some reason they are available in your personal email address storage. Your new boss is facing an urgent requirement and he has asked you for help for responding to a client request immediately that evening. The templates available on your personal email address exactly match the client’s request. You are due for promotion next month and if you are not able to help your boss today, the chances of your promotion are bleak. What will you do?

The idea of the above examples is to make you aware of various scenarios that can arise, how complex can they be and force you to think and apply the basic principles that we have just explored above.

Finally, in case the chartered accountant is dealing with situations where complying with one fundamental principle conflicts with complying with one or more other fundamental principles, he should consider consulting within or external to the organisation.

Taxing Escrows and Earn-Outs In Share Purchase Agreement

In M&A transactions, buyers frequently deposit a portion of the sale consideration into escrow accounts to mitigate future risks or indemnify against potential liabilities. Because the seller lacks an unconditional right to these funds until specific conditions are met, the income does not legally “accrue” and is not taxable in the year of transfer. However, the Income-tax Act, 2025 contains a statutory lacuna: it lacks a specific deeming fiction to tax these escrow releases in the subsequent year they accrue. Strictly interpreted, subsequent escrow realisations constitute non-taxable capital receipts, although prevailing market practice pragmatically taxes them as capital gains in the year of release.

INTRODUCTION

It is increasingly common in contemporary acquisitions of shares or businesses for the consideration to include an element that is either deferred or contingent. Deferred consideration refers to consideration that is fixed as of the date of transfer but payable after a specified period. Contingent consideration, conversely, comprises additional consideration that becomes payable only upon the satisfaction of specified future conditions, such as the achievement of stipulated profit levels or EBITDA. Such arrangements are often structured as “earn-outs”, whereby the acquirer undertakes to transfer additional value to the seller upon the occurrence of agreed future events.

These mechanisms bridge valuation gaps and incentivize sellers to enhance operational performance post-transfer. However, while commercially effective, they create complex tax implications regarding the timing, characterisation, and computation of capital gains, particularly where additional consideration accrues or is received after the year of transfer.

The distinction between the two is critical. Deferred consideration involves an obligation that is fixed and unconditional, subject only to the passage of time. Contingent consideration, however, becomes due only upon the fulfilment of uncertain future events.1


1 Illustration of Deferred vs. Contingent Consideration: Deferred Consideration: An investor acquires shares of A Ltd. 
for INR 500,000. INR 200,000 is paid upfront, and INR 300,000 is payable after two years. 
The obligation to pay the balance is fixed and unconditional; hence, it is deferred consideration. 
Contingent Consideration: Shares are sold for a maximum of INR 1,000,000 (INR 400,000 upfront). 
The balance is payable only if EBITDA exceeds specific thresholds (e.g., INR 200,000 if EBITDA > INR 5 million; 
INR 600,000 if EBITDA > INR 9 million). This is contingent consideration as the debt arises only upon fulfilment of performance conditions.

In practice, one must also distinguish between two closely related but conceptually distinct situations. The first is where a portion of the agreed sale consideration is deposited into an escrow account and released only upon the satisfaction of specified covenants, indemnity conditions, or the non-occurrence of identified liabilities. The second is where the seller becomes entitled to additional consideration only upon the achievement of future performance metrics or other stipulated milestones. Though both involve delayed receipts and uncertainty at the time of transfer, the legal architecture of the seller’s entitlement is not identical in the two cases. That distinction may have a material bearing on the tax analysis.

This article is therefore being presented in two parts. The present part introduces the broader issue and focuses in detail on the taxation of consideration placed in escrow, including the question whether such amounts accrue to the seller at the time of transfer, whether their subsequent release gives rise to capital gains taxation, and whether forfeiture of escrowed amounts has any tax consequences. The second part will deal with contingent consideration more specifically, including the possible application of the principles in Marren v. Inglis2, the treatment of contingent rights under the Income-tax Act, 2025 (IT Act), valuation issues, characterization concerns where continued employment is involved, and related questions arising in the context of share purchase agreements.


2 (1980) 1 WLR 983 (HL), cited by HMRC in their capital gains manual,available at CG14950 
- https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/capital-gains-manual/cg14950 (Last accessed 16 May 2026)

This distinction also assumes practical significance at the drafting stage. In a share purchase agreement, the precise manner in which the earn-out or escrow arrangement is documented may materially affect its eventual tax treatment. Language that clearly evidences that the amount forms part of the negotiated capital value for the shares—rather than compensation for future services—may support capital gains treatment. Likewise, the drafting of escrow release conditions, indemnity mechanics, and performance triggers may materially influence the timing and characterization analysis.

STATUTORY FRAMEWORK: THE CONCEPT OF ACCRUAL

Section 67(1) of the IT Act3 charges capital gains to tax in the year the transfer is effected4. While Section 67(1) creates the charge, the scope of total income is governed by Section 5 of the IT Act5, which includes income that is received, deemed to be received, or which accrues or arises or is deemed to accrue or arise to a person during the tax year.


3 Erstwhile Section 45(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (Act)

4 The chargeability under this head is generally linked to the year of transfer, 
except in certain statutory exceptions, such as Section 67(6)[erstwhile Section 45(2)] 
(which deals with the conversion of a capital asset into stock-in-trade, 
where capital gains are taxable in the year in which such stock-in-trade is sold) 
and Section 67(12)[erstwhile Section 45(5)] (which governs the taxation of capital gains arising from compulsory acquisition,
 where initial compensation is taxable in the year of receipt or part thereof and any enhanced compensation is taxable in the year of receipt thereof).
5  Erstwhile Section 5 of the Act
The ESCROW tax gap when is sale price taxable

Since deferred or contingent consideration is not “received” in the year of transfer, it is sine qua non that the income must have “accrued” to the assessee to be taxable. The IT Act does not define accrual; thus, it must be determined on general legal principles. Accrual postulates the creation of a present enforceable right to receive income—debitum in praesenti, solvendum in futuro.

The locus classicus on this concept is the Supreme Court’s judgment in E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd, which established that income does not accrue unless a debt is created in favour of the assessee. The Court emphasized that unless a debt due by somebody is created in favour of the assessee, it cannot be said that they have acquired a right to receive the income.6

Furthermore, the charging and computation provisions of the IT Act constitute an integrated code. As held by the Supreme Court in B.C. Srinivasa Setty, if the computation provisions (Section 72 of the IT Act7) cannot be applied, the charge itself fails.8 Under Section 72, only consideration that is received or has accrued can be taken into account for the purposes of computation of capital gains.


6  E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd. v. CIT [1954] 26 ITR 27 (SC); 
see also CIT v. Walchand Industries Ltd. (2003) 262 ITR 212 (Bom), 
wherein it was held that an unenforceable claim to receive an undetermined 
or undefined sum does not give rise to accrual of income.

7  Erstwhile Section 48 of the Act
8  CIT v. B.C. Srinivasa Setty [1981] 128 ITR 294 (SC).

In the case of deferred consideration, it is settled that such consideration accrues on the date of transfer because the right to receive it is unconditional. However, where an amount is parked in escrow and released only upon the satisfaction of specified conditions, the question is materially different. The seller may have divested the underlying capital asset, but whether the escrowed amount forms part of the taxable consideration in the year of transfer depends upon whether the seller has, in law, acquired an enforceable right to receive it in that year.

In certain transactions, contingencies may arise regarding contingent liabilities becoming due and payable, or adjustments may be contemplated based on issues identified during the due diligence process. These issues often relate to the company’s financials (e.g., inconsistent application of accounting policies or discrepancies in revenue recognition) or specific tax positions that could result in a demand, thereby adversely impacting the company’s cash flows and reducing its valuation.

Instead of making a direct debt adjustment to the valuation — which forms the basis for determining the purchase price — the parties may commercially agree to deposit an amount corresponding to the disputed issues into a separate escrow account. These escrowed funds are subsequently released to the sellers only upon the satisfaction of specific conditions, such as the rectification of the identified issues, the closure of pending tax proceedings, or the non-emergence of liabilities during a specified period agreed between the parties. Similarly, amounts may be deposited in escrow to safeguard the buyer against indemnities provided by the seller in the relevant agreements.

Commercially, therefore, escrow is not a mere payment deferral mechanism. It is ordinarily a risk-allocation device. The amount is held back not because the liability to pay is merely postponed, but because the buyer’s obligation to permit release to the seller remains subject to the outcome of specified events. That distinction is important because the tax law does not generally concern itself with commercial labels; it asks whether the seller has a present right to receive the amount.

Consequently, the question arises as to whether the seller is liable to pay capital gains tax on the amounts deposited into the escrow account at the time of deposit.

AMOUNTS DEPOSITED INTO ESCROW BY THE BUYER: ACCRUAL TO THE SELLER?

As previously discussed, for any income to form part of the total income, it must satisfy the referability criteria under Section 5 of the IT Act; that is, the income must have either been received by or accrued to the assessee. The seller possesses no right to demand the release of the escrowed amounts until the covenants stipulated in the relevant agreement are fulfilled. The right to receive the income, or the crystallization of the debt, occurs exclusively upon the satisfaction of these conditions. Until such time, the amounts deposited in escrow do not accrue to the seller and, therefore, should not be offered to tax. In this regard, reliance may be placed on the judgment of the Bombay High Court in Dinesh Vazirani9 and the order of the Mumbai Bench of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in Universal Medicare.10


9  Dinesh Vazirani v. Principal Commissioner of Income-tax [2022] 445 ITR 110 (Bom).

10  Universal Medicare (P.) Ltd. v. DCIT [2020] 185 ITD 250 (Mum).

The rationale is straightforward. A sum lying in escrow is not, merely by reason of such deposit, placed at the unrestricted disposal of the seller. The seller cannot ordinarily call for release at will; nor can it be said that a debt is due in presenti. The escrow arrangement interposes a contractual barrier between the seller and the money. Until that barrier is crossed by fulfilment of the conditions, the seller’s interest remains inchoate. Taxing such amount in the year of transfer would therefore amount to taxing a hypothetical receipt.

This reasoning also accords with first principles. If the buyer has deposited the amount into escrow to secure itself against warranties, indemnities, tax exposures, or identified diligence issues, the buyer has not accepted an unconditional liability to pay that amount to the seller. At most, the arrangement contemplates that the seller may become entitled to the amount in whole or in part depending on how the identified risks unfold. Such a conditional and defeasible entitlement is fundamentally different from deferred consideration payable merely upon the lapse of time.

To conclude at this stage, amounts deposited in escrow do not accrue in the year of deposit and, therefore, should not be offered to tax at that juncture. The subsequent realization of these escrowed amounts does not arise from a distinct transfer of a capital asset in the ordinary sense. Whether and how such subsequent realization may nevertheless be taxed under the present statutory framework requires closer examination.

THE LACUNA: TAXATION UPON RELEASE OF ESCROW AMOUNTS

The current framework of Section 5, Section 67(1), and Section 72 does not specifically provide for the release of escrow amounts upon satisfaction of the specified conditions. While it is judicially settled that escrow amounts are not taxable in the year of transfer if the seller has no enforceable right to receive them, the statute does not expressly address in any conclusive manner the way in which such amounts are to be taxed in the year in which the escrow conditions are actually satisfied and the amount is released.

More specifically, should the release of escrow amounts be subjected to tax as capital gains arising from the transfer of the original capital asset in the year of realization? If so, would this approach conflict with Section 67(1), which mandates that capital gains be charged to tax in the year in which the transfer takes place? Alternatively, does the release of the escrow amount merely represent the receipt of a capital sum outside the charging architecture of Section 67(1), since there is no separate transfer of a capital asset upon release?

At this juncture, it is apposite to acknowledge the prevailing market practice: taxpayers generally offer release of escrow amounts to tax in the year of accrual, characterizing it as capital gains of the same nature as the original transfer11. If the original gains were long-term, the escrow release is also often treated as long-term capital gains, though not in the year of transfer, but in the year of accrual. While this may appear commercially logical and administratively convenient, its technical foundation under the IT Act is not free from doubt.

The issue, therefore, is not whether the market has adopted a pragmatic convention, but whether that convention is supported by the statute on a strict construction. In addressing this question, one may refer to Section 2(108) of the IT Act12, which defines “total income”13 to mean the total amount of income referred to in Section 5, computed in the manner laid down in the IT Act. Accordingly, it is not sufficient that the referability requirement under Section 5—whether by way of accrual or receipt—is satisfied. The computation of such income must also be possible in the manner contemplated by the IT Act.


11 One may refer to the factual matrix before the Mumbai ITAT in Universal Medicare (P.) Ltd. v. DCIT (supra) 
(see para 23.1 and para 35 of the order), albeit the issue directly under consideration in that case was 
the taxability of escrow amounts in the year of transfer. While such a view may appear commercially logical, 
it is not strictly aligned with the statutory mandate of Section 67(1) of the IT Act. As per Section 67(1), 
capital gains are chargeable only in the year of transfer. However, escrow consideration is not subjected to 
tax in that year due to its failure to fall within the scope of Section 5 and the combined operation of Section 67(1) with Section 72, 
which permits taxation only of consideration that has accrued or been received. This approach may be viewed as 
an indirect extension of the principle underlying Section 67(12) [erstwhile Section 45(5) of the Act], 
which deals with the receipt of additional compensation and treats such additional compensation as having the same character 
as the gains arising from the receipt of the initial compensation, which is chargeable to tax in the year in which 
such consideration is actually received. In most cases, by the time such escrow amount accrues to the assessee, 
the statutory timelines for filing the return of income or a revised return, as the case may be, would have elapsed.
 Even where receipt occurs within such timelines, offering contingent consideration to tax by revising the return 
for the year of transfer may not be feasible, as it would result in the levy of interest under Sections 424 and 425 
(erstwhile Sections 234B and Section 234C), notwithstanding the absence of any actual default on the part of the assessee. 
Filing an updated return may also not be an attractive option, given the requirement to pay interest under Sections 424 and 425,
 together with additional tax under Section 267 (erstwhile Section 140B), which could significantly increase the effective rate of
 tax on long-term capital gains beyond the statutory rate applicable to the escrow amounts received.

12 Erstwhile Section 2(45) of the Act
13 On which Section 4 of the IT Act creates the charge. Section 4(1) provides that where any Central
 Act enacts that income-tax shall be charged for any tax year at any rate or rates, 
income-tax for such tax year shall be charged at that rate or those rates in accordance 
with and subject to the provisions of the IT Act. Section 4(2) further provides that the charge
 of income-tax under sub-section (1)shall be on the total income of the tax year of 
every person as determined in accordance with the provisions of the IT Act.

AN ALTERNATIVE PERSPECTIVE: COULD REALISATIONS FROM ESCROW ACCOUNTS BE CAPITAL RECEIPTS NOT CHARGEABLE TO TAX?

There is a nuanced distinction between the tax treatment of escrow amounts and contingent consideration. For present purposes, the discussion is confined to escrow amounts. The technical sustainability of classifying escrow realisations as capital receipts not chargeable to tax is discussed below.

1. Capital Receipts vs. Income: The Principle of Strict Interpretation

At the outset, it is pertinent to understand that a “capital receipt” in common parlance does not constitute “income.” Capital receipts are taxed by exception and strictly through the usage of specific deeming fictions in the statute.

It is a settled principle of interpretation that charging provisions (and, more importantly, deeming fictions) must be strictly construed. There is no equity about a tax, and there can be no tax by intendment. Capital gains are specifically made taxable only by virtue of an extended meaning attributed to the term “income” under Section 2(49)(k)14 of the IT Act. Accordingly, the analysis that follows is based on a literal reading of the law, applying the principles of strict interpretation as famously propounded by Lord Cairns in Partington v. Attorney General15 and subsequently adopted by the Supreme Court of India in landmark decisions such as A.V. Fernandez v. State of Kerala16, CST v. Modi Sugar Mills Ltd17 and CIT v. Kasturi & Sons Ltd.18 Equally famous words to this effect are those of Justice Rowlatt in Cape Brandy Syndicate v. IRC19 “in a taxing statute one has to look merely at what is clearly said. There is no room for any intendment. There is no equity about a tax. There is no presumption as to a tax. Nothing is to be read in, nothing is to be implied. One can only look fairly at the language used.” These principles were recently reiterated by the Supreme Court in American Express20.


14 Erstwhile Section 2(24)(vi) of the Act

15 [1869] LR 4 HL 100, wherein Lord Cairns observed: 
“If the person sought to be taxed comes within the letter of the law he must be taxed, 
however great the hardship may appear to the judicial mind to be. On the other hand, 
if the Crown seeking to recover the tax, cannot bring the subject within the letter of the law, 
the subject is free, however apparently within the spirit of the law the case might otherwise appear to be. 
In other words, if there be admissible in any statute what is called an equitable construction, 
such a construction is not admissible in a taxing statute where you simply adhere to the words of the statute.”

16 AIR 1957 SC 657.

17 [1961] 12 STC 182 (SC).

18  [1999] 237 ITR 24 (SC).

19  [1921] 1 KB 64. Cited with approval, inter alia, in Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd v UOI [2011] 10 SCC 292; CCE v Acer India Ltd. [2004] 8 SCC 173.

20 DIT (International Taxation) v American Express Bank Ltd. [2026] 484 ITR 137, see pp. 160-165

2. The Sine Qua Non of Section 67(1)

The sine qua non for the applicability of Section 67(1) of the IT Act is the “transfer of a capital asset” during the tax year. Consequently, two essential conditions must be satisfied concurrently to trigger capital gains tax:

(a) The existence of a capital asset; and
(b)The transfer of such capital asset during the relevant tax year.

In the case of an escrow release, the transfer of the shares or business has already taken place in an earlier year. In the year of release, no fresh transfer takes place. This creates the central difficulty in fitting the receipt within the language of Section 67(1).

3. Characterisation of Escrow Realisations

As discussed in preceding sections, amounts are typically deposited into an escrow account to protect the buyer against future, unforeseen liabilities or realisation of indemnity payout on breach of covenants provided by the seller. The release of these funds is generally not linked to any active performance conditions by the seller. Therefore, there should be little debate regarding the characterisation of escrow realisations: they are fundamentally capital receipts.

Such a realisation does not meet the traditional test of “income” as propounded by the Privy Council in CIT v. Shaw Wallace & Co.,21 where income was likened to a periodical monetary return coming in with some sort of regularity from a definite source. As a capital receipt, it can only be taxed if the specific statutory provisions governing the taxation of capital gains are entirely satisfied. Capital gain is an artificial income created by the relevant provisions of the IT Act. Therefore, these provisions should be strictly construed. In case of doubt, the assessee would be entitled to the benefit of doubt.22


21 AIR 1932 PC 138.

22 CIT v. Bhupender Singh Atwal [1983] 140 ITR 928 (Cal).

4. Absence of a Distinct Capital Asset

Crucially, the assessee does not acquire a distinct, independent capital asset in the form of a “right to receive escrow amounts.” Rather, the escrow mechanism is merely a contractual covenant designed to protect the buyer’s interests. One may refer to the below observation made in Decoding Section 523:


23 Decoding Section 5, pp. 151-152.

“In the course of negotiation, the seller may have held a bundle of promises and the consideration may have been fixed on the basis of the same. The bundle of promises may include a promise about the sustainability and profitability of the business being sold (either a slump sale or share transfer – where the promise would be for the business of the company). The buyer may decide to pay the first part of the consideration instantly and second part of the consideration only if the promise about the sustainability and profitability of the business is met. Second part of the consideration would thus be contingent upon the promise being fulfilled.”

Basically, the contractual covenants may be understood as mere promises under the contract rather than a distinct capital asset. Put differently, the contract may be seen as the legal source of reciprocal rights and obligations, but not every right that arises under it necessarily assumes the character of an independent capital asset. If one were to contend otherwise, the consequences would be far-reaching. For instance, in an ordinary contract for supply of goods, once the seller supplies the goods, a corresponding right arises to demand payment from the buyer. Yet, the subsequent realization of that amount is never understood as giving rise to capital gains on the transfer or extinguishment of a separate capital asset in the form of a contractual right. It is simply taxed under the ordinary head referable to the transaction — typically business income.

The same reasoning applies more generally across contractual arrangements. Rights to receive salary under an employment contract, fees under a services agreement, or sale proceeds under a trading contract are all rights traceable to contract. However, their realization is not, for that reason alone, treated as the transfer or satisfaction of a distinct capital asset attracting capital gains tax. If every enforceable contractual right were to be elevated into a separate capital asset, the consequence would be to distort the entire scheme of the IT Act, under which receipts are ordinarily taxed under specific heads such as Salaries or Profits and Gains of Business or Profession, depending on their true character. That would suggest that the mere existence of a contractual right cannot, without more, justify treating its realization as capital gains.

As established, these amounts do not accrue to the seller until the contingency associated with the escrow is resolved. The right to receive the funds — and the consequent accrual — only crystallizes in the year the covenant is satisfied.

5. Statutory Lacunae in the IT Act24


24 Various budget representations have consistently raised this issue. Illustratively, refer  
https://bombaychamber.com/wp-content/uploads/2026/01/Part-A-BCCI-Pre-Budget-Representations-Direct-Tax-2026-Legislative-issues.pdf 
(Last accessed on 15 May 2026).

The inability of the current statutory framework to tax such escrow realisations stems from a distinct legislative lacuna, which can be deconstructed as follows:

  • Mismatch of Timing under Section 67(1): Section 67(1) mandates that capital gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset shall be deemed to be the income of the tax year in which the transfer took place.
  • Interplay with Section 72: Reading Section 67(1) harmoniously with the computation mechanism in Section 72, the escrow amounts cannot be taxed in the year of the transfer because there is an absolute absence of accrual at that point in time.
  • Failure of the Referability Criteria (Section 5): Even when the escrow amounts finally accrue in a subsequent year, the referability criteria under Section 5 of the IT Act are not met in the year of transfer to enable the application of Section 45(1). While the “full value of consideration” for the purpose of Section 48 might theoretically include such escrow amounts upon realization, the charging section fails.
  • The “During Such Year” Requirement: Section 5 requires not just “accrual,” but specifically mandates that the income “accrues or arises or is deemed to accrue or arise to him in India during such year.” Because the accrual of the escrow amount does not occur in the year of transfer, the referability criteria fail. Consequently, the machinery to apply Section 67(1) and the computation provisions breaks down. One cannot tax the amount in the year of transfer (as it has not accrued – first limb of Section 2(108) fails), and one cannot tax it in the year of accrual (as there is no transfer in that year – second limb of Section 2(108) fails).

This, in substance, is the core lacuna. The charging event and the accrual event occur in different years, but the statute does not contain a specific fiction to bridge that mismatch in the case of escrow.

6. Legislative Intent and the Section 67(12)(b)25 Analogy

One may draw robust support for this interpretation by examining specific legislative fictions introduced elsewhere in the statute, such as Section 67(12)(b).

Historically, the revenue faced identical difficulties in taxing enhanced compensation received on compulsory acquisitions, precisely because the additional consideration did not accrue and was not received in the year of the original transfer. The accrual often happened years later upon the final resolution by a Court. To cure this, the legislature introduced a specific deeming fiction under erstwhile Section 45(5)(b) of the Act to tax the enhanced compensation in the year of receipt, which is carried on into Section 67(12) of the IT Act.

In this regard, reference is made to the observations in Chaturvedi & Pithisaria’s Income Tax Law26 concerning the introduction of erstwhile Section 45(5) of the Act, which are reproduced below:

“Since additional compensation under the 1894 Act was awarded in several stages, multiple rectification had to be made to the original assessment which caused great difficulty in carrying out the required rectification and in effecting the recovery of additional demand. Further, repeated rectifications of assessment on account of enhancement of compensation by the different Courts often resulted in mistakes in computation of tax. To obviate the contention that in the absence of any transfer of capital asset, the amount received in the subsequent years cannot be brought to tax, section 45(5) has been enacted. Similarly, the disputes as to year in which the additional amount should be brought to tax, and whether the year in which the transaction was originally taxed should be reopened, and whether limitation would apply for the purposes of reopening, etc., would all stand resolved by the operation of section 45(5)”

The absence of a similar deeming provision or legislative fiction to determine the year of taxability for delayed escrow realizations strongly implies a statutory lacuna. Applying the rule of strict interpretation, the revenue cannot stretch the existing provisions to cure this defect, rendering the receipt of such escrow amounts a capital receipt not chargeable to tax.


25 Erstwhile Section 45(5)(b)of the Act

26 Chaturvedi & Pithisaria's Income Tax Law, English Edition, Volume 5. p.8040

COULD THE REVENUE TAX THE RECEIPT UNDER SECTION 9227?

For the sake of completeness, if the release of escrowed amounts escapes the charge of capital gains tax for the reasons discussed above, the Revenue may attempt to tax such receipts under the residuary head, “Income from Other Sources”. This approach should not be tenable for the following reasons:

  • Relying on the landmark principle established by the Supreme Court in Nalinikant Ambalal Mody v. S.A.L. Narayan Row28, if a receipt is inherently referable to a specific head of income (such as Capital Gains) but falls outside its charging provisions—for instance, due to the failure of the computation mechanism—it cannot automatically be thrust into the residuary provisions of Section 92(1) of the IT Act29. The character of the receipt does not change merely because the computation machinery under the appropriate head fails.
  • Furthermore, the specific anti-abuse provisions of Section 92(2)(m)(i)30 of the IT Act, which seek to tax any sum of money received “without consideration”, should not apply to the release of escrow amounts. The realization of such amounts is by no means a gratuitous receipt; rather, it is backed by valid and binding commercial consideration. In the context of such transactions, the consideration for the subsequent receipt encompasses the seller’s contractual promises, covenants, indemnities, and commercial detriment suffered as part of the principal transfer arrangement.
  • All these factors squarely fall within the wide ambit of “consideration” as defined under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which recognizes acts, abstinences, and mutual promises as valid consideration. Section 92(2)(m)(i) concerns itself exclusively with the absolute absence of consideration, and does not grant the Revenue the authority to question the adequacy of such consideration. As long as valid legal consideration exists, which, notably, need not be strictly monetary in nature, the rigours of Section 92(2)(m)(i) are not triggered.

27 Erstwhile Section 56 of the Act

28 [1966] 61 ITR 428 (SC)

29 Although this principle was articulated in the context of section 12 of the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922, 
it should apply with equal force to section 56(1) of the Act—as indeed it has—and to section 92(1) of the IT Act

30 Erstwhile Section 56(2)(x)(a) of the Act

FORFEITURE OF ESCROW AMOUNTS

If the escrowed amount, or a part thereof, is ultimately forfeited or appropriated towards indemnity or identified liabilities, no separate tax consequence should ordinarily arise for the seller in respect of the forfeited amount, because the corresponding income never accrued to the seller and was never brought to tax. Equally, for the buyer, such appropriation would ordinarily operate as an economic reduction of the purchase price or as satisfaction of a contractual protection built into the consideration mechanics.

This is another reason why treating the escrow deposit itself as accrued income in the year of transfer may produce distortion. If the entire amount were taxed upfront, but a portion was later never released, the statutory framework does not provide an elegant corrective mechanism in all cases. The structure of the law therefore reinforces the conclusion that escrowed amounts should not be treated as accrued merely because they have been parked in a designated account.

PRACTICAL COMPLICATION: CLAWBACKS AND PRICE ADJUSTMENTS

Practical complications may arise where an agreement contains clawback or price adjustment provisions, requiring the seller to return consideration if specified conditions are not met or if representations are later found to be inaccurate. If the agreement is drafted such that the clawback or price adjustment is linked to the purchase price itself rather than a separate indemnity payout, it could be argued that the seller might seek to rely on principles analogous to those applicable in escrow situations.

However, a key distinction remains. In typical clawback scenarios, the seller has already received consideration, whereas in escrow cases the relevant amount is held back and does not reach the seller unless the stipulated conditions are satisfied. This distinction provides a far stronger basis in escrow cases to contend that the amount was neither actually received nor had accrued to the seller. Receipt of consideration may also raise questions under Section 72 of the IT Act. One could, however, argue that Sections 5(1)(a) and 5(2)(a) should apply only to cases where certain sums are deemed to be income only upon receipt, such as advance salary or gifts.

Conceptually, clawback provisions are analogous to warranties in the sale of goods. Under such warranties, if goods fail to meet agreed standards, the seller may be obliged to replace them or provide a refund. Importantly, the accrual of income — i.e., the sale price—has occurred at the time of the transaction; the subsequent obligation to return consideration does not alter the fact of accrual. Similarly, under SPA clawback clauses, the legal right to receive consideration for the transfer of shares has already accrued to the seller. The contingency of returning a portion of the consideration, therefore, may not affect the recognition of income in the year of transfer, as the accrual is already a fait accompli.

From a business contract perspective, there is continuity in the source of income, and subsequent payments may rightly be treated as expenditures under Section 3431. Nevertheless, capital gains differ in nature: it is generally considered that subsequent events requiring the return of part of the sale consideration do not allow for a reduction in the full value of consideration originally accrued. In this context, the Madras High Court in Caborandum Universal Ltd. v. ACIT32 observed:


31  Erstwhile Section 37 of Act

32  [2021] 283 Taxman 312 (Mad)

“…Even going by the case as projected by the assessee, the amount of Rs.3.25 Crores is retained in an Escrow account and the right of the assessee has not been disputed and that amount was retained to cover four contingencies which are part of the indemnity clause and assuming certain payoffs were to be made from the retention money that will not in any manner alter the full and total consideration received by the assessee pursuant to the Business Sale Agreement and if such is the factual position, undoubtedly, the entire sale consideration had accrued in favour of the assessee during the assessment year under consideration. Even assuming that certain payments have been made from the amount retained in the Escrow account, it will not make or in any manner reduce the cost of acquisition [sic full value of consideration].”

While these observations were made in the context of escrow arrangements, it is respectfully submitted that amounts deposited in escrow cannot, in strict terms, be regarded as having been received or accrued to the assessee where the seller has no enforceable right to demand release pending fulfilment of conditions. That distinction merits careful reconsideration. Nevertheless, the judgment does illustrate the risk that courts may, in certain fact patterns, treat escrow retention as merely a mode of application of consideration rather than as a true suspension of accrual. Drafting, therefore, assumes considerable significance.

To minimize ambiguities, amounts genuinely subject to a potential claim or adjustment should ideally be deposited in escrow accounts with clear release conditions and clear restrictions on the seller’s rights pending satisfaction of those conditions. The agreement should also make it evident that the escrow arrangement is not merely a payment routing mechanism but a substantive contractual allocation of risk. The agreement should explicitly state that the escrow arrangement is made at the Purchaser’s request, as this could help distinguish the current situation from the facts in Caborandum Universal Ltd. (supra). In that case, the court held that amounts placed in escrow were considered to have accrued to the seller since the escrow arrangement was mutually agreed upon. The court viewed the escrow deposit as a subsequent event and did not alter the original agreement’s terms.

CONCLUSION

The taxation of escrow consideration reveals a structural tension between commercial reality and statutory design. On first principles, and supported by judicial authority, an amount placed in escrow subject to substantive release conditions should not be regarded as having accrued to the seller in the year of transfer, because no enforceable right to receive such amount exists at that stage.

The more difficult question arises later: when the escrow conditions are satisfied and the money is released, the IT Act does not contain a specific mechanism equivalent to Section 67(12) to bridge the mismatch between the year of transfer and the year of accrual. This gives rise to a serious argument that the receipt, being capital in nature, may fall outside the charge altogether unless and until Parliament enacts a specific deeming provision.

At the same time, market practice continues to favour taxation in the year of release as capital gains of the same character as the original transfer. That practice may be commercially sensible, but it sits on uncertain statutory footing. The issue therefore remains open to debate and is likely to continue to generate controversy until legislative clarity is introduced.

The second part will examine whether similar or different conclusions follow in the case of contingent consideration, where the seller’s entitlement is not to a retained portion of an agreed price, but to an additional amount that itself comes into existence only upon the happening of uncertain future events.

From The President

My Dear BCAS Family,

As I begin to pen my thoughts, Mumbai and many parts of the country are experiencing unusual heat, with temperatures frequently breaching normal ranges. Further, by the time the issue reaches you, the monsoon season will also be underway in many parts of India. Recent reports by the Indian Meteorological Department indicate that the El Niño effect will reduce monsoon winds in 2026, raising the possibility of a below-normal monsoon in several areas. All this is part of the broader global phenomenon of climate change, which manifests in several other forms, such as retreating glaciers, melting snow, and rising sea levels.

Accordingly, climate change is no longer an environmental concern to be debated in scientific journals and conferences, but a defining economic, social, and governance challenge. Its implications extend far beyond rising temperatures and extreme weather events; it is fundamentally reshaping the way businesses operate, governments regulate, and professionals deliver value.

This has made me reflect on the theme of climate change and its impact on professionals and institutions like ours.

IMPACT ON PROFESSIONALS

As CAs, our domain expertise has traditionally been in financial reporting, coupled with ethics and integrity. Climate change has expanded our roles from guardians of financial capital to guardians of natural capital, which encompasses environmental, social, and governance (ESG) dimensions. This has broadened our roles and responsibilities in several areas as follows:

The New Guardians Cas and the Climate Shift

NEW REPORTING FRAMEWORKS

Several specialised global reporting frameworks, commonly referred to as Carbon Accounting Frameworks, that help measure, report, and verify greenhouse gas emissions have recently emerged, each dealing with specific aspects. A few of the commonly used frameworks are as follows:

  • GHG Protocol, which deals with measuring and reporting of Scope 1, 2 and 3 emissions
  • Science-Based Targets Initiative (SBTi) helps in quantifying how much CO2 the world can continue to emit to limit the global temperature increase to within 1.5 degrees centigrade and scientifically lays specific sector and company-level targets with respect to this.
  • Task Force on Climate-Related Financial Disclosures (TCFD), which focuses on climate risk disclosures in the financial statements.

Closer home, SEBI’s BRSR framework also captures these and several other aspects. All this will require continuous upskilling and a deeper understanding of interdisciplinary domains such as environmental science, policy frameworks, and sustainability metrics, which would need disclosure and corresponding assurance from professionals.

Changing Risk Landscape and Consequential Reporting and Accounting Challenges

Climate change introduces a multi-dimensional risk framework that directly affects financial statements, assurance processes, and corporate disclosures. For professionals, the complexity lies not merely in identifying these risks but in translating them into measurable, reportable, and auditable financial impacts. The important risk categories and the consequential accounting and reporting challenges are briefly identified as follows:

Physical Risks:

These arise from acute and chronic climate events, such as extreme weather disrupting operations and supply chains, damage to property, plant, and equipment, and increased insurance costs. Consequently, these affect asset impairment, changes in the useful lives of fixed assets, increased provisions for restoration costs, and additional contingent liabilities.

Transition Risks:

These arise from a shift toward a low-carbon economy, with resultant regulatory changes such as carbon taxes and emission caps, technological obsolescence due to equipment changes to enable controlled emission generation, and market shifts in consumer preferences. These can result in accelerated depreciation, reassessment of investment viability and fair value adjustments.

Litigation Risks:

These arise from organisations facing increasing claims due to regulatory non-compliance with pollution and emissions norms, as well as claims related to environmental damage, resulting in higher provisioning, additional legal costs, and higher contingent liabilities.

IMPACT ON CORPORATE STRATEGY

Climate change has direct implications for professionals advising organisations on capital allocation decisions, as sustainability goals increasingly influence these. Also, the risk management framework must incorporate climate scenarios. Further, performance metrics are evolving to include non-financial indicators, and, finally, stakeholder expectations are shifting toward sustainable enterprises, as they perceive them as long-term value creators. As professionals, we will have to ensure that climate considerations are increasingly integrated into decision-making processes.

ETHICAL CONSIDERATIONS

Beyond technical competencies, climate change presents several ethical dimensions and challenges. As trusted advisors, we must uphold integrity in disclosures, objectivity in our assurance engagements, given the significant qualitative judgment involved, and a commitment to the public interest. Finally, we must guard against greenwashing claims.

BCAS’ ROLE

I see BCAS playing a pivotal role in the coming years to shape the profession’s response to climate change in several ways as follows:

  • Education and Capacity Building: We will strive to introduce structured learning programmes through the BCAS Academy platform. These will be useful for practitioners at every stage of their careers.
  • Technical Guidance: We will work towards developing appropriate publications to assist practitioners in navigating the complexities of BRSR assurance and related areas
  • Thought Leadership and Advocacy: BCAS will endeavour to contribute to national policy conversations around sustainable finance and accounting standards. Our voice must be heard in shaping frameworks that are practical, credible, and appropriate.
  • Green Operations: Being an ISO-compliant organisation, we will endeavour to examine our own organisational footprint in terms of energy usage, paper consumption, and travel, thereby setting an example in sustainable and responsible institutional behaviour.

TIME FOR ACTION OVER DEBATE

To conclude, I would like to refer to a quote by Sir Nicholas Stern in the magazine, The Stern Review on Economics of Climate Change, way back in 2006, which validates that climate change is no longer just an environmental issue but a defining economic and government challenge, which needs action rather than just debate.

“Climate change is the greatest market failure the world has ever seen”

A big thank you to one and all!

Warm Regards,

CA. Zubin F. Billimoria

President

Geography Is History – Regional to National to Global

For decades, the geography of a Chartered Accountant’s practice was the geography of his professional destiny. Metros like Mumbai, Delhi, and Bengaluru boasted of the best clients, the highest fee realisations, and the strongest talent, trapping practitioners in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities in a constrained universe. This divide created a self-perpetuating cycle: small-city firms lacked the resources to pitch for large mandates, and the absence of such mandates prevented them from attracting top-tier talent. Today, however, that geographic monopoly is collapsing, reshaping the profession from the ground up.

The first disruption was statutory. The introduction of the GST Network, income tax portal and the MCA21 portal unified the national compliance architecture. Most compliance and filing obligations no longer require proximity to the jurisdictional government offices but are accessible through a single browser interface. A well-equipped firm in Nagpur can now manage multi-state compliance for a pan-India manufacturer just as effectively as a firm in Mumbai, quietly eroding the traditional ‘local CA advantage’. One nation, one tax inherently produced a level playing field for practitioners across the country.

The second equaliser is the advent of faceless adjudication. By shifting assessments to the National Faceless Assessment Centre, cases are no longer tied to geographical wards but are allocated randomly based on workload and expertise. Central GST hearings are also mandated to be virtual unless specifically requested. The quality of the written brief, structured argumentation, and legal precision often dictate success, rather than mere proximity to government offices.

Geography is History The Borderless CA

Layered over these regulatory shifts is the third and most potent equaliser: Artificial Intelligence. AI tools now act as a productivity leveller, permitting retail access to capabilities that were once the exclusive domain of well-resourced global firms. Technology allows mid-sized Indian firms to access resources and close workflows exponentially faster. Properly used, generative AI can empower a three-partner firm in Coimbatore to produce grounds of appeal that match the statutory construction and case law citation of top-tier metro practices with significant domain expertise. Recognising this paradigm shift, the ICAI has actively endorsed AI adoption, hosting tools on its portal and signalling that technological proficiency is now a baseline professional expectation rather than a mere competitive edge.

Yet, supply-side equalisation must confront a stubborn demand-side barrier: client perception. Historically, the Indian business owner’s trust in a CA was rooted in physical accessibility: the comfort of a neighbourhood advisor who shared community norms and could be called upon at any hour. However, this architecture is rapidly evolving. A generational transition is transferring business control to a digital-first cohort of leaders. For these incoming decision-makers, a practitioner’s digital presence, peer reputation, and technical expertise carry far more persuasive weight than a shared postal code.

If digital portals and AI have erased the borders between Coimbatore and Mumbai, they have equally erased the borders between Surat and Silicon Valley. Geography is history, and the infrastructure of a local meritocracy is the exact same infrastructure needed for global export. Yes, globalising beyond national borders brings in questions of multi-jurisdictional regulatory oversight. One may also need to develop a larger scepticism quotient to discern a hallucinated AI generated response in a domain which has been uncharted. Many more issues will arise, but the opportunity is real. We have already witnessed a few success stories of regional firms from smaller cities growing in scale and nurturing national aspirations. The time is ripe to further expand our horizons. The next edition of the BCAJ will explore the theme of ‘Globalisation of Indian CA Firms’ offering thought leadership on how practitioners can leverage this new borderless reality not just to scale nationally, but to claim their rightful place on the global stage.

Best Regards,

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

Editor

Time – A Human Construct or Universal Truth

कालः पचति भूतानि, कालः संहरते प्रजाः ।

कालः सुप्तेषु जागर्ति, कालो हि दुरतिक्रमः ॥

Time “digests” (or processes) all that has come into being, and time “takes back” all that has been born. While everything else sleeps, time is awake, and time is truly impossible to overcome.

Time is the unseen thread that runs through all memories, sunrises, and heartbeats. We fear its unavoidable flow, evaluate our accomplishments in its passage, and awaken to its beat. Beneath its pervasiveness, however, is a dilemma that has troubled philosophers, poets, and scientists alike: is time only a product of our imagination, or is it a universal reality that exists outside from us?

The Paradox of Time Ruler Vs Horizon

 

From one perspective, time appears to have been created by us—a framework we constructed to give order to the chaos of life. Time zones, clocks, and calendars are unquestionably human inventions. The twelve-month year, the seven-day workweek, the concept of a “weekend” or a “deadline”—these are cultural conventions rather than natural rules. Calendars, year counting, and even the definition of hours have all been modified by civilizations. Time, as we experience it, is therefore less a universal fact and more a language of order, a means of coordinating the billions of lives that are moving in unison on this globe. Without it, society’s symphony could disintegrate into chaos.

Yet when we turn our gaze to the universe, time reveals itself as something far greater than human invention. Stars are born, burn, and die; planets orbit in predictable cycles; atoms decay with precise regularity. Einstein’s theory of relativity reminds us that time is not an illusion—it is a dimension of reality, as real as space itself. The fact that a clock ticks more slowly near a black hole than on Earth shows that time is not merely in our minds; it bends and shifts with the universe’s laws. Time, in this sense, is woven into the fabric of existence, indifferent to our attempts to measure it.

Time, in all its magnificence, is nevertheless profoundly individual. Rather than experiencing time in the way that science defines it, we live it. In times of happiness, time ebbs and flows like water; in times of pain, every second feels like an age. While summer seems to go on forever to a kid, an older person can’t help but wonder where the years went. Time appears to be both a constant and a reflection of our ownawareness, according to this property of its elasticity. What we often refer to as “time” may actuallybe a product of our own minds and hearts—a rhythm shaped by our memories, our perceptions, and our desires.

In the Bhagavad Gita, Lord Krishna explains the concept of time in the cosmic scale, with the dayand night of Lord Brahma, the creator deity in Hinduism, lasting for immense periods beyond human comprehension.

सहस्र-युग-पर्यन्तम् अहर् यद् ब्राह्मणो विदुः।
रात्रिं युग-सहस्रान्तां तेऽहो-रात्रि-विदो जनाः ॥

This verse in Sanskrit can be translated as:

“By human calculation, a thousand ages taken together form the duration of Brahma’s one day. And such also is the duration of his night.”

In Hindu cosmology, a “Yuga” is an age or epoch, and it represents a specific era or cycle of time in the grand cosmic order. The Yugas are often depicted as a cycle of four ages, and each Yuga is characterized by a unique set of attributes, moral qualities, and societal conditions. These four Yugas are: Satya Yuga, Treta Yuga, Dvapara Yuga & Kali Yuga. All the four Yugas constitute a ‘Maha Yuga’, lasting 4.32 million years.

The Kalpa: A Kalpa is a colossal unit of time and is considered as one day at Brahma Loka (Sathya Loka). Hence, Brahma’s one day lasts a 1000 Maha Yugas (4.32 billion years) and Brahma’s one night lasts another 4.32 billion years.

It is said that the lifespan of Brahma is a 100 years, with each year comprising of 360 days. In total, the lifespan comes to 72 million Maha Yugas or 311.04 trillion human years! Mind boggling indeed!!

After this immense period, a new Brahma is said to take over the creative duties, and the cycle continues. It’s important to note that these numbers are symbolic and meant to convey the vastness of time in Hindu cosmology rather than literal measurements.

In conclusion, the concept of time in Hinduism is multifaceted and profound. It is interwoven with the religion’s philosophy, spirituality, and cosmology, and it encourages individuals to focus on the present moment, fulfil their duties, and seek self-realization to transcend the limitations of time and the material world. Time is not just a linear progression but a cyclical and eternal process in the rich tapestry.

Time is both a fabrication and a truth, which is the contradiction. It is both the planets’ orbits and the wall clock. It is the unending quiet of the stars and the ticking second hand. It is the useful instrument we created to coexist and the everlasting current that transports us from conception to death, whether voluntarily or not.

Perhaps living rather than solving problems is what time is all about. If we simply refer to it as a construct, we are undermining the mystery of the universe; if we only refer to it as a universal truth, we are ignoring the profoundly human ways in which we experience and influence it. Time is both the horizon we can never reach and the ruler we hold in our hands. It is both our greatest gift and our greatest invention.

Learning Events At BCAS

1. A Day of Divine Wisdom at BCAS

We were deeply honored to welcome His Holiness Shri Kanchi Kamakoti Peetadhipati Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswati Shankaracharya Swamiji to the BCAS Hall, Churchgate, on 9th April 2026

A Day of Divine Wisdom at BCAS

The atmosphere was one of profound serenity as Swamiji arrived, gracing us with his presence and a message of timeless wisdom. The event was attended by the Office Bearers, Past Presidents, members of the managing committee and BCAS Staff members.

BCAS recorded a podcast —”Samvaad with BCAS” with His Holiness on the topic: “Culture – Foundation for Strong India | Sanskriti – Majboot Bharat ki Neev” which was anchored by CA Mihir Sheth, Past President of BCAS.

During his visit, His Holiness appreciated the institution’s ongoing efforts in delivering meaningful services and contributing to societal development. He acknowledged the role of such initiatives in strengthening national values and outreach across communities.

BCAS is humbled to share the remarks penned by His Holiness Pujya Shri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswati Swamiji during his visit on 9th April 2026:

“Visit to this institution, which catalyses economic growth through useful audit & account services, has been revealing & highly satisfying. Your contribution to the sustained growth of the nation, reaching out the gains of democracy to all sections of society, even in deep hinterlands, is commendable. National policies cannot lose sight of the basic dharmic characteristics of our nation. You have been following that path towards Viksit Bharat. Blessings & Prayers for continued good work. Jaya Jaya Shankara. Hara Hara Shankara”.

BCAS was also honoured to support the DHARMAM CHARA event held at the BSE Convention Hall on 7th April 2026 under the auspicious presence of His Holiness. President of BCAS CA Zubin Billimoria, and Vice President, CA Kinjal Shah, were felicitated at the event.

We are grateful for His blessings and encouragement as we continue our journey of service and impact.

2. Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws Study Circle – Recent Developments in Labour Laws: An Auditor’s Perspective held on Friday, 03rd April, 2026 @ Virtual

In this virtual session Mr. Pankaj Savla deliberated on the evolving landscape of labour laws and their implications for auditors. The session covered key regulatory changes and their impact on compliance and audit procedures. Emphasis was laid on understanding the practical challenges faced while auditing labour law compliance.

The speaker highlighted critical areas requiring due diligence, including verification of statutory records and adherence to updated provisions. Insights were shared on identifying compliance gaps and mitigating associated risks. The session also addressed documentation and reporting considerations from an auditor’s standpoint. Participants gained clarity on the auditor’s role in ensuring compliance with applicable labour regulations. The discussion provided practical perspectives and enhanced awareness of recent developments in labour laws. A total of 39 participants attended the session via Zoom.

3. FEMA Study Circle -“Amended ECB Regulations, 2026,” held on 27th March 2026@ Virtual.

In this session, the participants discussed the revised ECB Framework announced for 2026, focusing on regulatory changes and compliance obligations. The session gave clarity on end-use restrictions, eligibility of borrowers and lenders, maturity period, pricing, reporting and various other critical aspects. The meeting was chaired by CA Natwar Thakrar and led by group leader CA Parth Panchal.

Overview of the session

The Chairman opened with an overview of the core and policy-level reforms. The group leader proceeded to explain the amendments in each segment of the new framework, offering a thorough analysis that mapped the amended text with the erstwhile framework, draft regulations circulated for public comments, and RBI clarifications. The deliberations focused on how these changes will reshape the ECB environment in India.

Key areas discussed

  •  Scope and Impact Area of the New Framework outlining the broad framework of the Borrowing and Lending regulations, the scope of the new framework and then discussing how it would impact the nature of transactions.
  •  End Use Restrictions dealing with widened permissible end uses and what continues to be restricted end-use in the new framework. It covered various nuances and practical scenarios having a critical impact.
  • Eligible Borrowers and Lenders as to how their expanded base would impact the structuring choices.
  • Pricing, Maturity, and Borrowing Limit emphasizing how pricing caps, maturity rules and borrowing limits would impact the industry, and the practical challenges over ECB pricing that would be faced in the amended framework. Key pricing norms, minimum average maturity thresholds, and borrowing limits were explained.
  • Procedure and Reporting detailing the reporting obligations to the Reserve Bank of India and the Authorized Dealer banks, timelines for filing Form ECB and related returns.
  •  Other amendments in ECB regulations capturing the other amendments to ECB regulations, which would also need to be taken care of going forward.

The participants also analysed and focused on the changes on borrowing and lending transactions between resident and non-resident individuals, which are brought as part of the Borrowing and Lending Regulations. The meeting was interactive and detail-oriented, with participants raising specific scenarios seeking practical insights on implementing the 2026 ECB Framework.

4. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on “GST Issues in the Entertainment Industry” held on Tuesday, 24th March 2026 @ Virtual.

The session was led by CA. Mansi Shah (Group Leader) under the mentorship of CA. Rajiv Luthia (Mentor), and witnessed active participation from members across the fraternity.

The presentation covered the following aspects for a detailed discussion:

  •  Production Stage Complexities
    Analysis of nature of supply and place of supply in multi-location shoots, including classification of temporary sets and renting of immovable property.
  •  Input Tax Credit (ITC) Challenges
    Detailed examination of ITC eligibility on items such as scrapped vehicles, aircraft hiring, and logistics arrangements—highlighting the nuances of blocked credits under Section 17(5).
  •  Cross-Border Transactions
    Taxability of overseas line producers, reverse charge implications, and valuation issues including treatment of reimbursements and “pure agent” conditions.
  •  Post-Production Services
    GST implications on international VFX and editing services, emphasizing place of supply provisions under Section 13 of the IGST Act.
  •  OTT & Export of Services
    Key insights on export qualification in OTT transactions, addressing concerns around permanent establishment and recipient determination
  •  Movie Rights & Tax Treatment
    Classification of permanent transfer of movie rights as goods, treatment of milestone-based payments, and timing of tax liability.
  •  Industry-Specific Classification Issues
    Discussion on printing services on PVC material and composite supplies in hospitality-linked entertainment events.

Around 73 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

5. Felicitation of Chartered Accountancy pass-outs of the January 2026 Batch held on Friday, 13th March 2026 at Sydenham College of Commerce & Economics, Churchgate, Mumbai.

The Seminar, Membership and Public Relations (SMPR) Committee hosted a felicitation ceremony to honour the newly qualified Chartered Accountants from the January 2026 batch. Over 180 enthusiastic newly qualified CAs participated in the event including CA Sidhh Furiya, who secured AIR 38. The guest and mentor for the event was CA Samit Saraf, Managing Committee member of BCAS. In his address, he reminisced about his post-qualification journey and shared with the attendees 10 cheat codes that helped him propel his career in the right direction and which could help them too. He also expressed gratitude for his association with BCAS and encouraged the new CAs to consider joining BCAS and its activities.

Felicitation of Chartered Accountancy pass-outs of the January 2026 Batch

The ceremony served as a warm welcome for the newly qualified CAs into the wider professional fraternity.

6. Seminar on TDS & TCS – What It Is, What Changes, & How to Stay Compliance-Ready jointly with Goa Chamber of Commerce & Industry (GCCI) held on 13th March 2026@ Hybrid.

The Direct Tax Committee of BCAS, jointly with the Goa Chamber of Commerce and Industry, organised a full-day seminar at GCCI Hall, Goa and in virtual mode to cover the TDS provisions under the new Income Tax Act, 2025, the draft Rules, 2026 and the relevant new Forms. The objective was to familiarise participants with the practical new TDS sections, new Forms, revised due dates, etc.

CA Ronak A Rambhia, shared the new TDS provisions with respect to the threshold amount and the applicable rate of deduction under the Income Tax Act 1961 v/s the new Income Tax Act 2025, which were discussed in depth. The current applicable Forms and the due dates in the current provisions were discussed in comparison with the new applicable Forms and Rules. The practical difficulties on TDS on Payment to Partners u/s 194T of the Income Tax Act, 1961 were discussed in depth with practical scenarios. Further, CA Ravikant Kamath gave his in-depth knowledge on specific new provisions in the Income Tax Act, 2025 and the draft Income Tax Rules, specifically on the chapter of Salary perquisites. He discussed practical TDS controversies for various types of business assesses based on the court rulings, tax provisions, Circulars, etc., by giving his views on these controversies.

Mr. Purushottam from the TDS CPC, Ghaziabad, also presented his views on the new TDS portal 2.0. He gave a walk-through on the upcoming TDS portal, which will include features such as the demand outstanding, payments tab, litigation tab, etc. He also shared how the tax department is preparing for the new Income Tax Act 2025 in practical compliance.

The seminar received an encouraging response from the Goa participants in trade commerce, and also viewers from the online platform. The participants, both online and offline, were enlightened to be ready for the upcoming Tax year 2026-27 for the TDS compliances.

7. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on Issues in Construction Industry and Redevelopment held on Thursday, 05th March 2026 @ Virtual

The session was led by CA. Abhijit Dongaonkar (Group Leader) under the mentorship of CA. Naresh Sheth, and focused on complex, real-life scenarios impacting developers, landowners, and housing societies.

The presentation covered the following aspects for a detailed discussion:

Joint Development Agreements (JDA)
Examination of taxability of Transfer of Development Rights (TDR), revenue-sharing vs. area-sharing models, valuation complexities, and implications of minimum guaranteed consideration.

Time of Supply & Valuation Mechanisms
Insights into deferred tax liability for residential components, immediate taxability for commercial portions, and deemed valuation principles under relevant notifications.

Unsold Inventory & Cancellations
Treatment of unsold units at the time of completion certificate and tax implications of pre- and post-OC cancellations.

Developed Plots & Infrastructure Charges
Clarification on non-taxability of sale of land, taxability of amenities when charged separately, and implications for third-party buyers.

Redevelopment of Housing Societies
Analysis of TDR transactions between societies and developers, construction services to members, and taxability of corpus or hardship funds.

Slum Rehabilitation Projects (SRP)
Discussion on taxability of free rehabilitation flats, valuation of non-monetary consideration in the form of TDR/FSI, and applicability of exemptions.

Around 120 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

8. 14th Residential Study Course on IND AS held on Friday 27th February 2026 to Sunday 01st March 2026 @ The Orchid Hotel Pune.

The Accounting & Auditing Committee organised this Study Course on Ind AS in a residential learning format, enabling intensive technical deliberations and professional interaction. The three-day programme focused on advanced and contemporary Ind AS topics with a strong emphasis on practical application, case studies and current regulatory expectations relevant to preparers, auditors and advisors.

The course commenced with detailed sessions on Ind AS 103 and Ind AS 110, focusing on business combinations, mergers and demergers, covering structuring considerations, accounting complexities and interpretational challenges through case studies. An in-depth session on Related Party Transactions covered Ind AS requirements along with SEBI LODR, Companies Act and tax aspects, highlighting common compliance challenges, documentation expectations and practical issues.

Complex financial instruments were discussed in detail with reference to Ind AS 109, Ind AS 113 and Ind AS 32, covering classification, measurement, valuation and disclosure challenges supported by illustrative case studies. A focused session on Presentation of Financial Statements under Ind AS addressed key presentation principles, disclosure requirements, recent amendments, including Ind AS 118 and emerging reporting practices.

The programme also featured an insightful panel discussion on NFRA findings and initiatives for improving audit quality, deliberating on inspection observations, audit documentation and strengthening audit processes. Another panel discussion on Sustainability Reporting covered preparer and assurance perspectives, addressing evolving sustainability reporting requirements, preparedness challenges and assurance considerations.

14th Residential Study Course on IND AS

The Residential Study Course was well received by participants and provided a valuable platform for deep technical learning, exchange of practical experiences and professional networking. Over 94 participants attended the Course.

  •  Faculties for the Residential Study Course:

Dr. CA Anand Banka, CA MP Vijay Kumar, CA Himanshu Kishnadwala, CA Manan Lakhani

Panelists – CA Sudhir Soni CA Amit Mazmudar Moderator- CA Vijay Maniar

Panelists – CA Himanshu Kishnadwala CA Dr Alok Garg Moderator – CA Samit Saraf

9. ITF Study Circle meeting on “International Tax Aspects of Budget 2026 and ITA 2025” (Part 1 & 2) ” held on 10th & 24th February 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organized this meeting to discuss amendments in the Budget 2026 on the International Tax aspects. The meeting was divided into 2 parts. Both meetings started with the Chairman of the session, CA Mayur Nayak outlining the amendments along with his comments.

CA Hansh Gangar (Group Leader) took up the various amendments on 10 February 2026. Some key discussion points were:

  •  Foreign assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme, wherein the group discussed the need and objectives of the amendment, along with the penalty matrix. Some key issues which were discussed were implications of receipt of foreign shares under ESOP, where the assessee was NR or NOR at the time of earning undisclosed income or acquiring undisclosed assets, but is now a resident, but failed to disclose the above, whether he will be covered under the scheme.
  •  The Group Leader also took us through other amendments, such as Relaxation of conditions relating to prosecution under the Black Money Act, amendments in IFSC, amendments in NDI rules, amendments in TCS rates, etc.

The Budget meeting continued on 24 February 2026, wherein CA Nemin Shah (Group Leader) discussed other amendments that were made in the Budget 2026. Some key discussion points were

  •  The session opened with introductory remarks from the chairman on his initial views on the determination of residential status.
  •  Amendment in buyback provisions wherein the Group leader took us through the various changes introduced in buyback taxation over the years. He discussed the meaning of promoter. He highlighted some issues that were discussed with the group at length – Whether the additional income tax will be eligible for treaty benefits, whether deduction under section 54F is available, and whether this provision will apply to foreign buyback.
  •  Other amendments, such as Exemption related to Data Centres, were also discussed in the group – some points which came up for discussion- the characterisation of the amount – royalty or FTS? Whether there could be an exposure to constitute a PE.
  •  Participants also discussed the Transfer pricing changes, safe harbour rules, etc.

10. “Mumbai Thane Express – Internal Audit 101” held on Saturday, 21st February 2026@ CKP Hall, Thane West.

This session was organised by BCAS jointly with the Thane Branch (WIRC) of ICAI. The keynote session explored the evolving role of Internal Audit in a dynamic regulatory and business environment, highlighting the advanced use of tools and technology in modern audit practices. Discussions emphasized the transition of Internal Audit from a compliance-focused function to a strategic risk advisory partner.

A detailed deep dive into the design, evaluation, and strengthening of internal control frameworks was conducted, with risks and controls explained through relatable day-to-day examples for better understanding. Practical insights were shared on identifying Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) and effectively linking risk assessment with audit planning. A comprehensive walkthrough of risks, controls, and audit procedures in the Procure-to-Pay (P2P) cycle was presented, supported by a clear and structured audit checklist. The checklist highlighted common control gaps in procurement, vendor management, and payment processes, along with practical mitigation strategies. Special emphasis was laid on drafting impactful, concise, and action-oriented audit reports, with a strong focus on stakeholder value creation. Techniques to transform audit observations into compelling narratives that drive management action were demonstrated through practical examples.

The event concluded with a multi-stakeholder panel discussion, offering perspectives on audit expectations from management, auditors, and governance bodies. The discussion also covered aligning Internal Audit outcomes with organizational objectives and enhancing stakeholder value creation.

Approximately 65 participants from Mumbai, Thane, and Pune attended the event.

Faculties: CA Murtuza Kachwala, CA Prajit Gandhi, CA Samit Saraf, CA Chetan Thakkar, CA Pooja Bhutra, CA Harshita Mulay – Dixit, CA Archana Moghe, CA Preeti Cherian. 

11. BCAS Women’s RefresHER Course” held from 6th January 2026 to 19th February 2026@ Virtual.

BCAS launched its first-ever Women’s RefresHER Course – “Re-skill and Re-ignite Your Professional Journey”, creating a dedicated platform for women Chartered Accountants to reconnect with the profession.

The course comprised 14 online sessions, conducted on Tuesdays and Thursdays, covering a wide spectrum of topics including direct tax, GST, FEMA, litigation, succession planning, ESG, audits, valuations, start-ups, and corporate structuring. The sessions were curated to address both foundational concepts and contemporary developments, with a strong focus on practical insights.

A unique feature of the programme was that it was led entirely by women speakers, fostering an open, engaging and relatable learning environment for participants.

Designed for participants at beginner and intermediate levels, including those returning after a career break or looking to build or expand their practice, the course emphasized real-life applications, emerging opportunities and confidence-building.

The programme witnessed an encouraging response, with 85 participants from around 24 towns and cities, making it an interactive experience.

Scan to watch online at BCAS Academy

BCAS Women's RefresHER Course

II. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  •  BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

QR Code:

BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

 

 

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

1. Referencing by Document Identification Number – Reg – Circular No. 4/2026 dated 31 March 2026

Section 292B and 292BA of Income-tax Act, 1961 and Section 522 of the Income-tax Act 2025, provide that any document issued by Income tax Authority shall be referenced by the computer generated Document Identification number (DIN). The circular provides as under:

a) DIN may be mentioned within the communication itself, attached separately, or included in electronic correspondence such as emails.

b) There is no requirement for the same to be printed on every page, provided the communication is clearly referenced.

The Circular further provides that in certain circumstances, the document may not be referenced by DIN in specific situations and all such communications shall require post-facto approval, within a period of 15 days of the date of issue of such communication.

2. Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of Unique Identification Number (UIN) in respect of Form No. 121 and quarterly furnishing of Part B thereof by the payer – Notification No. 01/CPC(TDS) /2026 dated 28 March 2026.

Section 393(6) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 provides for no deduction of tax in certain cases wherein declaration in Part A of Form No. 121 is furnished by the payee to the payer as per Rule 211 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

The payer shall allot a 26-character UIN to each declaration (Part A of Form No. 121) received by him during the tax year. The circular provides for the Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of UIN.

3. CBDT amends India- Brazil DTAA – Notification No.39/2026 dated 30 March 2026

The notification gives effect to the 2022 Amending Protocol to the India–Brazil DTAA, which entered into force on 18 October 2025 and applies in India from FY 2026–27 onwards.

4. ITR Forms 1-7, including ITR V and ITR U(updated return) have been notified by the CBDT, for the financial year 2025-26 – Notification No. 45 to 52 of 2026 dated 30 March 2026.

5. Clarificationthat investments made before April 1, 2017, are fully grandfathered and exempt from GAAR scrutiny – Notification No. 55/2026 dated 31 March 2026.

6. PAN CR-01 and PAN CR-02 prescribed for correction of PAN data for individuals and non-individuals along with guidelines

7. All the provisions of Memorandum of Understanding for Assistance in Collection of taxes, of the Convention between the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of Japan for the avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion are notified. – Notification No. 56 dated 2 April 2026

II. IFSCA UPDATE FOR MAY 2026 EDITION

1. IFSCA grants Qualifying Central Counterparty (QCCP) status to IIBX

India International Bullion Exchange (IFSC) Limited (‘IIBX’) functions both as a Bullion Exchange and a Bullion Clearing Corporation. The Bullion Clearing Corporation of IIBX has qualified as a Qualifying Central Counterparty (‘QCCP’) as it is regulated by IFSCA, SCRA and complies with global standards, particularly the Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (PFMIs). The QCCP status confirms that its clearing operations meet international benchmarks for risk management and financial integrity.

Further, IIBX has been designated as a Market Infrastructure Institution (MII) due to its systemic importance in GIFT IFSC and is subject to strict regulatory oversight and supervision within the PFMI framework. In view of the above, IIBX is accorded the status of QCCP.

[Press release, dated 25th March 2026]

2. IFSC Authority removes 7-day comment timeline requirement from KMP circular for FMEs

IFSCA had issued a circular “Appointment and Change of Key Managerial Personnel (‘KMP’) by a Fund Management Entity (‘FME’)” dated February 20, 2025 which specifies the manner and procedure to be followed by a FME for effecting the appointment of or change to their KMPs. Paragraph 4 of this Circular which provided for communication of comments by the Authority within a specified timeline of 7 working days form the date of filing of intimation by the FME has now been removed. All other provisions and conditions specified in the 2025 Circular shall remain the same.

[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026]

3. IFSCA mandates certification courses

IFSCA has specified a mandatory certification course titled “Regulatory Framework for Fund Management in IFSC: AIFs and Retail Schemes” for employees of Fund Management Entities (FMEs) offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core fund management activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with responsibility for compliance resting on the FME and persons in control. Additionally, FMEs must ensure continuous adherence to eligibility criteria for KMPs under applicable regulations.

The IFSCA has also mandated a certification requirement for employees of Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) in IFSC. The Authority has specified the course titled “Regulatory Framework for Capital Market Intermediaries in IFSC” offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core business activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with the responsibility for compliance resting on the CMI and persons in control.

[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026 & Circular F. No. IFSCA-PLNP/80/2024 Capital Markets, dated 2nd April 2026]

4. IFSCA establishes regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC

The IFSC Authority has notified the IFSCA (Pension Fund) Regulations, 2026, establishing a regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC. The regulations aim to provide a robust framework for long-term retirement savings, promote a secure and transparent environment for subscribers, protect their interests and maintain the integrity of the pension ecosystem. The framework overrides existing PFRDA regulations within the IFSC, eliminating dual-regulatory burden. The Regulations cover eligibility requirements for the Pension Funds; scheme designs; withdrawal and portability pathways; permissible investments with defined limits over a broad range of asset classes; and risk management & governance requirements; compliance and enforcement.

[F. No. IFSCA/GN/2026/007, dated 30th March 2026]

5. IFSCA bars fund management entities from assigning multiple service roles to fiduciaries in the same scheme

The IFSCA (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025, requires Fund Management Entities (FMEs) to appoint fiduciaries such as trustees (in case of trusts), directors (in case of companies), or designated partners (in case of LLPs), who are obligated to act in the best interest of investors and adhere to high standards of due diligence, care, and independent judgment as per the prescribed Code of Conduct. To strengthen governance and avoid conflicts of interest, IFSCA has clarified that an FME shall not appoint a fiduciary entity to also provide services such as fund administration, valuation, audit, or lending /financing to the same scheme, whether directly or through its associates. For existing schemes already filed or taken on record, FMEs are required to comply with this requirement by 30th September 2026.

[Circular No. IFSCA-IF-10PR/7/2024-Capital Markets/10042026, dated 10th April 2026]

6. IFSCA requires prior approval for Payment Service Providers (PSPs) joining Rupee Drawing Agreement (RDA) as non-resident Exchange Houses

IFSCA has issued a clarification regarding participation in Rupee Drawing Arrangements (RDA) by Payment Service Providers (PSPs). IFSCA has now clarified that prior approval is mandatory for PSPs intending to participate in RDA as non-resident Exchange Houses, in line with the RBI Master Direction on “Opening and Maintenance of Rupee/Foreign Currency Vostro Accounts of Non-resident Exchange Houses” (2016). Further, PSPs must submit, along with their approval request, a comprehensive framework demonstrating compliance with the IFSCA (Anti Money Laundering, Counter-Terrorist Financing and Know Your Customer) Guidelines, 2022 and any other applicable similar laws.

[Circular No. IFSCA-FMPP0BR/3/ 2023-Banking 2026-27/01, dated 10th April 2026]

III. FEMA

1. Govt notifies uniform Rs.2–10 crore adjudication limit for Additional & Joint Directors under FEMA

The Central Government has amended the notification prescribing jurisdiction of adjudicating authorities under the FEMA. This amendment revises the monetary limits for adjudication of Additional Directors and Joint Directors Enforcement. Previously, Additional Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.5 crores and Rs.10 crores, while Joint Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.2 crores and Rs.5 crores. The revised notification merges the scope by prescribing that both categories will now handle cases involving amounts exceeding Rs.2 crores but not exceeding Rs.10 crores.

[Notification No. 1397(E) [F. NO. K-11022/80/2011-AD.ED], dated 18th March 2026]

2. RBI directs ADs to maintain NOP-INR within USD 100 million in the offshore deliverable market

Master Direction on ‘Risk Management and Inter-Bank Dealings’ empowers RBI to prescribe limits on open positions in Rupee for exchange rate management. RBI has issued a circular whereby Authorised Dealers are now required to ensure that Net Open Positions in INR (NOP-INR) positions in the onshore deliverable market are maintained within USD 100 million at the end of each business day. ADs shall ensure compliance at the earliest but not later than 10th April 2026. This is a measure to curb volatility in the Rupee considering ongoing geopolitical issues.

[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 24, dated 27th March 2026]

3. RBI revises ECB reporting framework and clarifies LSF computation

ECB transactions are required to be reported through Authorised Dealer (AD) Category I banks in prescribed forms, and delays attract Late Submission Fee (LSF). RBI has issued circular to remove ambiguities in classification of returns and streamline LSF computation. Key Highlights from the circular are given as follows:

a. Form ECB-1 and Revised ECB-1 to be treated as non-flow returns, and LSF to be computed accordingly. Non-flow returns are filed once per transaction/event, not periodically.

b. LSF is per return. Each delayed filing of Form ECB-2 to be treated as a separate instance, attracting LSF independently.

c. AD Category I banks shall submit ECB returns to RBI within 7 calendar days of receipt from borrowers.

d. LSF is payable via NEFT/RTGS to RBI Regional Office after receipt of acknowledgment email from RBI. AD banks to ensure and monitor payment of LSF by borrowers.

These amendments are applicable from 1st April 2026.

[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 25, dated 30th March 2026]

4. RBI standardises guarantee reporting under FEMA; clarifies LSF computation for delays in reporting

RBI has issued circular with regard to obligation on a person to report a guarantee in terms of Regulation 7 FEM (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 [FEMA 8 (R)] and Master Direction on ‘Reporting under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999’. The main points are:

a. Reporting is to be done using files provided on the RBI website (List of Returns Submitted to RBI) for submissions to the authorised dealer bank:

Form GRN Issue – for reporting issuance of guarantee;

Form GRN Modification – for reporting changes in terms such as amount, tenure or pre-closure; and

Form GRN Invocation – for reporting invocation of guarantee.

b. Each guarantee to be assigned a Unique Guarantee Transaction Number (GTN) by AD Bank before submission of the return to RBI.

c. For any delay, LSF will be calculated on amount of liability created towards surety on invocation for Form GRN Invocation only. For Form GRN Issue and Form GRN Modification, LSF to be considered on amount as ‘nil’ since these returns do not capture flows.

The above will come into effect from 1st April 2026.

[A. P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 1, dated 1st April 2026]

5. RBI permits INR exchange for residents and non-residents at forex counters in airport departure areas beyond immigration

The RBI has decided to allow residents and non-residents to exchange Indian Rupee notes at foreign exchange counters at the departure halls in the international airports established in the Duty-Free Area or Security Hold Area beyond the Immigration or Customs desk. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended accordingly.

[A.P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 4, dated 2nd April 2026]

6. RBI amends Master Direction on non-resident investment in debt instruments, consolidates existing instructions

Over the years, the Reserve Bank has issued directions relating to investments in debt instruments by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and offering of debt instruments acquired in terms of FEMA 396 as collateral to recognized Stock Exchanges in India for transactions in exchange traded derivative contracts. These instructions have now been consolidated in the Master Direction on ‘Non-resident Investment in Debt Instruments’, 2025 which earlier covered various related Regulations under FEMA. Annex-1 of the Master Direction provides the list of circulars consolidated while Annex-4 lists the amendments made to the Master Direction over time.

[A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 6, dated 10th April 2026]

 

 

 

Audits Of Co-Operative Housing Societies

Shrikrishna : Arjun, why are you looking so tired and frustrated?

Arjun : We had the managing committee meeting of the housing society where I stay.

Shrikrishna : So what? What is so tiring about it?

Arjun : Bhagwan, you are very well aware that in a co-operative housing society, there is nothing but non-cooperation! No one is willing to come forward to work in the managing committee, members believe that committee members are their employees. A few committee members have some vested interests in the society’s management.

Shrikrishna : Arjun. This is common in all Non-Profit organisations! It is a part of life. In kaliyug, disputes are everywhere. Even in our families!

Arjun : I agree. But every society has at least one Duryodhana

Shrikrishna : Duryodhana? What do you mean?

Arjun : There is invariably one crooked member in every society. He is extra smart. He picks up disputes on some pretext or the other with the committee and other members.

Shrikrishna : I am aware. And there are Shakunis to instigate them.

Arjun : Usually, these Duryodhans are retired people from high positons in Government jobs or corporates. They feel that they alone know the law. They dispute the monthly contribution and usually are defaulters! In a few cases, some CAs or lawyers play the role of Duryodhana!

Shrikrishna : Yes. It is very common. But what did your Duryodhana do?

Arjun : Our Duryodhan has a hobby of making complaints before every possible forum – to the Registrar of Co-operative societies, to the Police Authorities, to the co-operative courts; and on the top of it, to our Institute of CAs against the auditor! He has made complaints against 8 successive years’ auditors so far!

Shrikrishna : Surprising! In an NPO, what are the issues?

Arjun : They rake up all issues like Accounting Standards, Standards on Auditing, Tax laws, co-operative laws and what not! They make a hype of everything. Poor auditor receives a meagre fee of 6 to 8 thousand rupees; but when there is a complaint to ICAI, he has to spend well above a lakh of rupees to engage a counsel. In addition to hire a lawyer to represent before the Registrar of co-op. societies, Police authorities and so on.

Shrikrishna : And he loses his peace of mind for at least 4 to 5 years!

Arjun : It is at the same time equally true that CAs take the audits of NPOs rather lightly. They are not particular about documentation, working papers, checking of minutes and secretarial records; and so on.

Shrikrishna : I heard that they are not careful even to ensure that their appointment is properly made!

Arjun : Yes, Lord. And the Duryodhana is keen to find all such loop holes to harass him. Auditors are even black mailed by the Duryodhans in respective societies.

Shrikrishna : Somebody told me that many people rendering accounting services to the societies have an arrangement with some CAs who simply put their signature and seal without verifying anything!

Arjun : Yes. That is very dangerous! A few CAs themselves write the accounts and also audit them! And the height is that they raise a common invoice of accounting and auditing! In some cases, their own employees or close relatives write the accounts.

Shrikrishna : And Duryodhans get a good opportunity to harass them.

Arjun : Absolutely. Today such people have realised their own nuisance value and making rampant misuse of our disciplinary mechanism.

Shrikrishna : I believe, ICAI should create a separate mechanism to deal with such petty complaints against auditor of NPOs. It is a great burden on the disciplinary authorities and the pendency is mounting due to such petty complaints. They should device some fast track mechanism to tackle such matters.

Arjun : I think it impossible to happen. Government lacks will power to simplify the things. Instead, I feel, CAs should stop accepting housing society audits altogether unless they are able to do full justice. But then, it won’t be remunerative!

Shrikrishna : Prevention is better than cure!

Om shanti.

(This dialogue is based on the current scenario of disciplinary cases in respect of audits of housing societies)

Tech Mantra

Standard Notes – Free Your Mind

standard Notes

Standard Notes is a free, secure note-taking app with powerful end-to-end encryption, unparalleled privacy features, and seamless cross-platform syncing on unlimited devices. It protects your notes and files with audited, industry-leading end-to-end encryption. Only You have access to the keys required to decrypt your data. You can write and store all your notes and files in one secure place and seamlessly access them from all your devices.

Note-taking services like Evernote, Google Keep, Notion, and Simplenote cannot prevent employers and governments from reading your data. Standard Notes features advanced security and privacy controls that protect your data against hacks, data breaches, government access, and even employer access.

The app is simple, easy to use, and lightweight. Enough features, but not too many!

Standard Notes is a no-risk investment in your productivity. If it works for you like it works for many happy users, then you’ve gained a lifelong tool that will protect your data and nourish your growth.

https://standardnotes.com/

Minimaa – Minimalist Launcher for Android

Minimaa
Reclaim Your Focus. Simplify Your Life. Drowning in a sea of colorful icons and constant notifications? MINIMAA is a premium minimalist launcher designed to transform your smartphone into a tool for intentionality, not a source of distraction.

Most launchers are designed to keep you on your phone. MINIMAA is designed to get you off it. By removing the visual “sugar” of colorful icons and cluttered grids, it reduces the dopamine triggers that lead to phone addiction.

It has a black and white interface, optimized for OLED screens to save battery and reduce eye strain. Also, the interface is text-based – so no icons, no distractions. You can hide distracting social media apps and access them only when necessary. And, of course, there are no trackers, no data collection, and no ads. Your phone stays yours.
Ideal for productivity enthusiasts and digital minimalists. The perfect companion for your journey away from screen addiction. Join the movement of thousands of users who have swapped their cluttered home screens for a peaceful, minimalist sanctuary.

You can download MINIMAA to start your digital detox https://tinyurl.com/minimaa

Wi-Fi AR

Wifi Ar

Wi-Fi AR is a free, simple app that scans your home Wi-Fi network efficiently. It uses augmented reality (ARCore) to visualize real-time Wi-Fi and cellular signal strength, speed, and latency in your physical space. It acts as a visual network analyzer, helping users identify dead spots, locate the best router placement, and detect network interference.

Just start the app and move around your home to identify the areas where the signal is powerful and where it is weak. You can then find the best places to play games or position your Wi-Fi devices. It also helps locate where your phone receives the best signal from your Mobile Network.

A simple app which is super useful.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/wifiar

Blip

Blip

If you have to send files from one device to another, or from one person to another, irrespective of the platform, Blip is the tool for you. You have never sent files this fast – send any size file right from your desktop, phone, tablet, or any other device.

You can transfer files in just one step. No need to upload and download separately. The size of the file is irrelevant – there is no limit! Blip is also intelligent enough to resume after a network interruption, if any, a drive being unplugged, or the target disk being full.

You can send entire folders in full quality and at enhanced speeds. It supports TLS 1.3 encryption so that your data is fully safe during transit.

Super-fast transfers were never so easy!

https://blip.net/

Miscellanea

1. SCIENCE

# A PhD candidate creates a “universe in a bottle” to uncover how life on Earth began

A PhD candidate, Linda Losurdo at the University of Sydney, recreated a “universe in a bottle” by simulating space-like chemical environments in the lab. Using nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and acetylene exposed to high-voltage plasma, she produced cosmic dust from scratch. This experiment mimics conditions in stellar nebulae and helps scientists study the chemical pathways that formed complex organic molecules—the building blocks of life—before life began on Earth.

The research, published in The Astrophysical Journal, offers a new way to analyze the infrared spectral fingerprints of cosmic dust, aiding the understanding of the chemical makeup of asteroids and meteorites. It also explores whether life’s essential elements (CHON: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) formed in space and were delivered to Earth via comets and asteroids.

Ultimately, the project aims to build a comprehensive database of infrared signatures from lab-grown cosmic dust, improving astronomers’ ability to identify and study materials in space and enhancing knowledge of the Milky Way’s chemical evolution.

(Source: The Times of India – By TOI Science Desk –24 April 2026)

2. TECHNOLOGY

# RBI reaches out to global regulators for risk assessment on Anthropic’s Claude Mythos

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is actively assessing the cybersecurity risks posed by Anthropic’s newly released AI model, Mythos. In consultations with counterparts at the US Federal Reserve, the Bank of England, and other global regulators, RBI officials have expressed concerns that Mythos could accelerate the discovery and exploitation of software vulnerabilities, increasing threats to India’s financial sector. Regulators worldwide, including those in Asia, Europe, and the US, have urged banks to strengthen their defenses against potential AI-driven cyber risks.

India’s National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which manages the highly secure Unified Payments Interface (UPI), is working with select banks to gain early access to Mythos. This proactive approach aims to identify vulnerabilities and “day-zero” cyber risks before wider deployment. However, access to Mythos is tightly controlled, limited to a few US organizations, and hosted on secure servers in the US, raising compliance challenges related to Indian data protection laws.

In response, RBI is developing comprehensive guidelines for banks partnering with advanced AI models like Mythos and Anthropic’s Claude family. These guidelines are part of a broader strategy to ensure safe AI adoption in India’s financial system, with a strong emphasis on enforcing the 2018 data localization rules that require all payment transaction data to be stored exclusively on servers within India. The discussions are ongoing, reflecting RBI’s cautious but forward-looking approach to AI integration in finance.

(Source: Financial Express – By Tech Desk –22 April 2026)

3. WORLD – SCIENCE – MINDSET

# After Loss, Paralysis, and Silence: Myles Merideth’s Search for What It Means to Still Be Alive

Myles Merideth, author and owner of Empirical Resource Development, faced profound challenges after a spinal condition caused partial paralysis, along with a series of personal losses, including his mother, brother, and daughter. These events shattered his identity, which was built on strength and leadership. Through surrender and reflection, he realized that true identity is not defined by experiences or roles but by a deeper, constant life force within.

This insight inspired his book, It’s Not Who You Are, It’s What You Are, written during near-total immobility. The book offers a framework focused on present awareness rather than external validation, addressing grief, burnout, and identity loss. Myles plans to release a new book on leadership, along with facilitator guides and speaking engagements. His message resonates with those facing loss or questioning achievement-based identities, emphasizing that beneath all else, “You are life first.”

(Source: International Business Times –Created By Callum Turner – 13 April 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI ANNOUNCEMENT

1. AUDIT QUALITY MATURITY MODEL (AQMM)

The ICAI has issued a clarification expanding the scope of mandatory AQMM applicability. The revised framework now explicitly includes Practice Units auditing holding/subsidiary/associate/JV entities of specified categories (listed entities, banks, insurance companies), provided such firms are subject to Peer Review.

AQMM was already mandatory for firms auditing:

  •  Listed entities
  • Banks (excluding co-operative banks except multi-state co-operative banks)
  • Insurance companies (the firms conducting only branch audits are not to be covered)

Expanded Scope – AQMM v2.0 (Phased Implementation)

The applicability has now been significantly widened as under:

(A) From 1 April 2026

Applicable to:

• Firms subject to Peer Review auditing:

• Holding/Subsidiary/Associate/JV of:

• Listed entities

• Banks (excluding co-op banks except multi-state)

• Insurance companies

•  Firms undertaking statutory audit of large unlisted public companies meeting any of the following thresholds:

  • Paid-up capital ≥ ₹500 crore, or
  • Turnover ≥ ₹1,000 crore, or
  • Aggregate borrowings ≥ ₹500 crore

(B) From 1 April 2027

Applicable to:

  • Firms auditing entities:

  • Raising funds > ₹50 crore from public/banks/FIs during the period
  • Entities classified as Public Interest Entities (including trusts)

2. EXPERT PANEL FOR ADDRESSING QUERIES RELATED TO STATUTORY AUDIT PERTAINING TO AUDITING ASPECTS

Auditing and Assurance Standards Board formed an Expert Panel which will provide technical support to the members with respect to their queries on auditing aspects for the coming Audit season. Members having specific queries may send such queries at email address: auditfaq@icai.in. The panel will be open from 16th April 2026 till 30th September 2026.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91721caqb-aqmm100426.pdfS

3. INVITATION TO SHARE INTERNAL AUDIT CASE STUDIES FOR KNOWLEDGE REPOSITORY OF THE INTERNAL AUDIT STANDARDS BOARD, ICAI

Internal Audit Standards Board invites members to submit concise and practice-oriented case studies relating to Internal Audit for inclusion in its professional knowledge initiatives. Each submission should be concise and restricted to a maximum of 200 words.

Submissions may kindly be made through the Google Form link: https://forms.gle/hCQcZHi3SSAAVV6d8

II. ICAI PUBLICATION

a. Income-tax Act 2025

Income-tax Act, 2025 (as amended by the Finance Act, 2026) including Tabular Mapping of Sections vis-à-vis the Income-tax Act, 1961

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91774dtc-aps4792.pdf

b. Income-tax Rules 2026

Income-tax Rules, 2026 – Including Tabular Mapping of Rules and Forms vis-à-vis Income-tax Rules, 1962 and Forms.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91688dtc-aps4735.pdf

III. ICAI EXPERT ADVISORY COMMITTEE OPINION

Timing of Capitalisation of Partly Completed Gas Pipeline under Ind AS

A. Facts of the Case

  • The company, a JV formed to develop the North-East Gas Grid (NEGG), is constructing a 392 km Guwahati–Numaligarh pipeline (Phase I) to supply gas to Numaligarh Refinery (anchor customer).
  • The project is being executed in phases; as on 31.03.2025, 195.898 km (≈50%) of the pipeline was mechanically completed with related infrastructure and completion certification.
  • However, the entire 392 km pipeline is not yet completed or commissioned, and commercial operations can commence only after full completion.
  • The company has capitalised all costs as Capital Work-in-progress (CWIP), including costs relating to the completed portion.

B. Query

  • Whether the company should capitalise the cost (including borrowing costs) relating to the completed portion of 195.898 km, despite:

(a) the pipeline not being in a condition to operate as intended, and

(b) commercial operations not having commenced.

C. Points considered by the Committee

  • The issue relates to timing of capitalisation of a partly completed pipeline under Ind AS 16.
  • As per Ind AS 16, capitalisation is appropriate only when the asset is in the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in the manner intended by management.
  • Determination of such readiness depends on facts, technical evaluation, and ability to operate.
  • In integrated projects, if parts are capable of independent use, they may be capitalised separately; otherwise, not.
  •  In the present case:
  • The completed portion (195.898 km) cannot be used independently.
  • The pipeline achieves its intended objective only when the entire 392 km stretch is completed.
  • Accordingly, the partially completed section is not yet in a condition for intended use.
  • Under Ind AS 23, borrowing costs continue to be capitalised until the asset is ready for intended use; cessation depends on similar principles.

D. Opinion

  • The partially completed pipeline (195.898 km) is not capable of operating independently and is not in the condition necessary for intended use.
  • Therefore, capitalisation should not be triggered, and the expenditure should continue to be shown as CWIP.
  • Further, capitalisation of borrowing costs should continue till the entire pipeline is completed and ready for intended use

ICAI Journal – The Chartered Accountant April 2026 Pages 98-106

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91549cajournal-apr2026-25.pdf

IV. ICAI DISCIPLINARY COMMITTEE

1. Case : Shri RK vs. CA. D.N.B.

File No. : PR/34/2018/DD/54/2018/DC/1755/2023

Date of Order : 05.01.2026

Particulars              Details

Nature of Case       Alleged misuse of digital signature and fraudulent increase in share capital

Background                The Respondent assisted in incorporation and compliance of M/s VMC Pvt. Ltd. where the Complainant and two others were directors (equal shareholding initially). It was alleged that the Respondent, in connivance with other directors, increased share capital from 15,000 to 35,000 shares and allotted additional shares only to the other two directors using the Complainant’s digital signature without consent, and also forged documents including financial statements and MBP-1 disclosures.

Key Allegations

– Fraudulent increase in share capital and allotment excluding complainant.

– Misuse/forgery of digital signature in Form-2 and other filings.

– Forged signature on financial statements and MBP-1.

– Non-provision of documents and collusion with other directors.

Respondent’s Defence – Increase in share capital supported by Board Resolution dated 07.06.2011 and disclosures in financial statements.

– Financial statements for FY 2012–13 signed by Complainant, evidencing knowledge.

– Handwriting expert report confirmed signatures as genuine.

– No evidence of misuse of digital signature; documents available in public domain (MCA).

Findings

– Shareholding changes were disclosed in financial statements signed by Complainant (page 13).

– Form-2 was digitally signed by Complainant; no evidence of misuse of DSC.

– Handwriting expert report supported genuineness of signatures.

– Complainant failed to provide corroborative evidence of forgery or fraud.

– MBP-1 was filed physically and not certified by Respondent.

– No direct evidence linking Respondent to alleged misconduct.

Decision               Not Guilty under:

• Item (7), Part I, Second Schedule

• Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule

2. Case : Shri B.S.P. vs. CA. A.M.

File No. : PR/162/2019/DD/261/2019/DC/1791/2023

Date of Order : 05.01.2026

Particulars                              Details

Nature of Case                     Alleged siphoning of funds and audit failure in related party transactions

Background                             The Respondent was statutory auditor of M/s H Pvt. Ltd. for FY 2008-09 to 2011-12. The Complainant (MD) alleged that ₹1.48 crore received in April 2010 (₹85 lakh from DST and ₹62 lakh from GIDC) was immediately transferred to K Ltd, resulting in loss of control and dilution of shareholding. It was alleged that the Respondent failed to detect/report this diversion and issued clean audit reports.

Key Allegations

– Siphoning of ₹1.48 crore to related party K Ltd.

– Failure to report material transactions in audit.

– Non-disclosure of related party transactions under AS-18.

– Issuance of “true and fair” audit report despite irregularities.

Respondent’s Defence

– Transactions were recorded in books in FY 2009-10; cheques issued on 31.03.2010 and cleared in next year.

– Financial statements duly signed by Complainant (MD).

– Transactions reflected in ledger accounts and CARO report.

– No siphoning; payments were part of loan repayment transactions.

– AS-18 not applicable due to SME exemption.

Findings

– Ledger accounts and financial statements showed proper recording of ₹1.48 crore transactions (page 11).

– Cheques issued on 31.03.2010 and cleared in FY 2010-11—accounting treatment held correct.

– No evidence of fraudulent diversion or siphoning; transactions were part of running account.

– Financial statements were approved and signed by Complainant as MD, indicating awareness.

– AS-18 non-disclosure not actionable due to SME exemption and absence of specific allegation.

– Auditor cannot be held liable where transactions are properly recorded and management-approved.

Decision

Not Guilty under Item (7), Part I, Second Schedule

3. Case : In Re: CA. SKT

File No. : PPR/P/106/2016/DD/31/INF/2020/DC/2041/2025

Date of Order : 25.01.2026

Particulars                               Details

Complainant                  Information (MCA/RBI-related issues)

Respondent                     CA. SKT

Nature of Case                Alleged failure to report public deposits and NBFC-related non-compliance in audit

Background                    The Respondent was statutory auditor of three real estate companies where customer advances aggregating ₹3.57 Cr, ₹7.99 Cr and ₹17.89 Cr were shown in financial statements. It was alleged that these were public deposits and the Respondent failed to report the same and related NBFC compliance issues.

Key Allegations

– Failure to identify/report companies as NBFC.

– Failure to report receipt of public deposits in audit report.

– Lack of sufficient audit verification of customer advances.

Respondent’s Defence – Companies were engaged in real estate business (sale of plots).

– Advances represented booking amounts received from customers, not deposits.

– Relied on Section 45-I(bb) of RBI Act, excluding advances against sale of property from “deposit”.

– Produced sale deeds, allotment letters, receipts, and customer-wise details.

Findings

– Committee held NBFC allegation not sustainable; companies were engaged in real estate business.

– Documentary evidence (sale deeds, agreements, receipts, allotment letters) established that amounts were genuine customer advances.

– As noted (pages 9–10), substantial audit verification was demonstrated (≈95.87% sample coverage of advances).

– Advances were in ordinary course of business and hence not “public deposits” under RBI Act.

– No requirement for auditor to report such advances as deposits.

Decision                          Not Guilty under Item (7) & (8), Part I, Second Schedule

4. Case : Smt. BS vs. CA. SG

File No. : PR/423/2019/DD/45/2020/DC/1566/2022

Date of Order : 28.01.2026

Particulars                          Details

Nature of Case               Alleged failure to verify loan adjustment and report misstatement in financial statements

Background                       The Respondent audited M/s A Ltd. for FY 2016-17 to 2018-19. In FY 2016-17, an unsecured loan of ₹4,19,109 was shown in the name of the Complainant. In FY 2017-18, the balance was shown as NIL, allegedly without repayment. The Respondent stated that the amount was transferred to the loan account of the Complainant’s husband (director) as part of a family arrangement.

Key Allegations

– Loan shown as NIL without repayment or proper verification.

– Failure to obtain confirmation or documentary evidence for transfer.

– Failure to report material misstatement and lack of due diligence.

Respondent’s Defence – Loans of family members were consolidated into husband’s account by mutual understanding.

– Ledger accounts reflected transfer; husband’s balance increased accordingly.

– Matter was a family arrangement, not a financial irregularity.

– Audit procedures based on professional judgment; external confirmations not mandatory.

Findings 

– Ledger accounts and records substantiated transfer of ₹4.19 lakh to husband’s account (pages 10–11).

– Husband (director) had accepted consolidated balance in separate proceedings, supporting genuineness

– Dispute held to be family/shareholder dispute, not audit failure.

– Auditor’s reliance on internal records and judgment within acceptable limits of SA 505.

– No evidence of misstatement, negligence, or lack of due diligence

Decision                    Not Guilty under Clauses (6), (7), (8), Part I, Second Schedule

 

Company Law

3. Uma Polymers Ltd vs. Union of India

185 taxmann.com 176, High Court of Rajasthan

Where company failed to constitute Nomination and Remuneration Committee for financial year 2022-23 in conformity with the statutory provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director, subsequent rectification by appointment of a non-executive director and reconstitution of the committee did not cure the earlier violation, Thus, the penalty imposed under section 454(3) of the Companies Act 2013 (CA 2013) was legal and justified.

FACTS

The company and its Whole-Time Director were issued a show cause notice for violation of Section 178(1) of the CA 2013 read with Rule 6 of the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014, on the ground that the Nomination and Remuneration Committee for the financial year 2022-23 was not constituted in conformity with the statutory provisions due to absence of a non-executive director on the Board.

In response, the company admitted the non-conformity and stated that a non-executive director had subsequently been appointed, and the Committee reconstituted in compliance. At the hearing, it prayed for imposition of minimum penalty on this basis. The Adjudicating Authority (Registrar of Companies-cum-Official Liquidator) imposed a total penalty of Rs. 7 lakhs under Section 454(3) of the CA 2013 on the company and its Whole-Time Director. The Company filed the present writ petition.

Relevant Extract from the provisions of CA 2013:

Section 178 (1) The Board of Directors of every listed public company and such other class or classes of companies, as may be prescribed, shall constitute the Nomination and Remuneration Committee consisting of three or more non-executive directors out of which not less than one-half shall be independent director.

Rule 6: The Board of directors of every listed public company and a company covered under rule 4 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 shall constitute an ‘Audit Committee’ and a ‘Nomination and Remuneration Committee of the Board.

HELD

  •  Upon perusal of the order passed by the Registrar of Companies-cum-Official Liquidator, Jaipur, as well as the order passed by the Regional Director, North-Western Region, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Ahmedabad, the Court came to a prima facie finding that the constitution of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee of the company for the financial year 2022-23 was not in conformity with the aforesaid provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director on the Board.
  •  However, at the time of hearing before the Adjudicating Authority as well as the Appellate Authority, the authorized representative of the company prayed for imposition of a minimum penalty, submitting that SP had been appointed as a non-executive director with effect from 14.05.2024 and that the Nomination and Remuneration Committee had thereafter been reconstituted in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the aforesaid Rules.
  •  The Adjudicating Authority, however, for the said violation, imposed a total penalty of Rs. 7.00 lakh upon the company and its Whole-Time Director, SL.
  •  In the opinion of the Court, merely because SP was subsequently appointed as a non-executive director and the Nomination and Remuneration Committee was reconstituted in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the Rules, the same would not cure the earlier violation pertaining to the non-constitution of the Committee for the financial year 2022-23, as the composition of the said Committee remained in contravention of the statutory provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director on the Board.
  •  Hence, the penalty imposed upon the company by the Adjudicating Authority in exercise of powers under Section 454(3) of CA 2013 was found to be legal and justified. As regards the quantum of penalty, it was observed that imposition thereof, being based on the subjective satisfaction of the Adjudicating Authority, is not ordinarily liable to be interfered with unless it is demonstrated that the same is based on irrelevant considerations or extraneous material. In the present case, no material has been placed on record to show that the impugned decision suffers from such infirmities or that the penalty imposed is grossly disproportionate to the violation alleged.
  •  In view of the aforesaid discussion, the writ petition was dismissed.

4. Daksha Atul Desai vs. Registrar of Companies, Mumbai

Company Appeal (AT) No. 370 of 2024

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

Principal Bench, New Delhi

Date of order: 10th July,2025

NCLAT held that provision of Section 252(3) of the Companies Act,2013 provides a mechanism for an appeal to restore the name of a company, struck off pursuant to Section 248, granting locus standi to the company, any member, creditor, or workman, irrespective of whether the striking off was effected under Section 248(1) or Section 248(2) of the Companies Act,2013.

FACTS

Mr. DD (a Director and Shareholder) filed petition before The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under Section 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 seeking restoration of the company’s name which was struck off by the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai, Maharashtra (ROC), on 19th July, 2017 under Section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 for non-compliance with statutory requirements.

“NCLT held that since the strike-off was under Section 248(1), the petition should have been filed under Section 252(1) (3-year limit) and hence the application under Section 252(1) was time-barred.”

NCLT, in its order, differentiated between the mode of strike-off and the maintainability of a petition for restoration of name as follows:

1) Under Section 248(1): Where the name of the company is struck off by the Registrar of Companies, a petition for restoration shall be maintainable under Section 252(1), subject to a limitation period of three years.

2) Under Section 248(2): Where the strike-off is voluntary by the company, a petition for restoration shall be maintainable under Section 252(3), subject to a limitation period of twenty years

Aggrieved by the said order, Mr. DD preferred an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) against the impugned order of the NCLT.

NCLAT observed that Section 252 of the Companies Act, 2013 does not differentiate between strike-off under Section 248(1) initiated by the ROC and strike-off under Section 248(2) undertaken voluntarily by the company and held that the interpretation adopted by the NCLT was unduly narrow.

ORDER:

NCLAT held that interpretation of Section 252 establishes that the applicable limitation period under Section 252 is determined by who files the appeal/application, not how the company was struck off, and stated that:

1) Section 252(1) – 3-Year Limitation: Applies to an appeal filed by any aggrieved person against the RoC’s order of dissolution, typically within three years from the date of the order.

2) Section 252(3) – 20-Year Limitation: Applies to an application filed by the company, any member (shareholder), creditor, or workman before the expiry of twenty years from the publication of the notice of striking off.

Further, it was held that opinion taken by the Ld. NCLT is not correct, since the appeal in the present case was filed by shareholder viz. a member, the limitation as provided under Section 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 shall apply. The NCLAT directed the Ld. NCLT to hear the appeal on merits.

Decoding Conflict Of Interest Situations In Securities Market – Regulated Intermediaries

Conflicts of interest in securities markets arise when professional positions are exploited for gain, manifesting as actual, potential, or perceived situations. SEBI regulations require intermediaries to establish systematic frameworks for identification, avoidance, and prevention. Identification involves recognizing misaligned incentives, while avoidance relies on Board oversight and disclosure. Prevention depends on structural safeguards such as “Chinese Walls,” role segregation, and ethical codes. Ultimately, maintaining market integrity requires a shift towards a principle-driven governance culture, where client interests are consistently prioritized over revenue-driven considerations to ensure long-term investor confidence.

DEFINING CONFLICT OF INTEREST

Conflicts of Interest may be defined in several ways, including any situation in which an individual or entity is in a position to exploit a professional or official role for personal or corporate benefit. This is a manifestation of the moral hazard problem, particularly in institutions operating in the financial sector (or related areas), that provide multiple services, where potentially competing interests may lead to concealment of information or dissemination of misleading information. A conflict of interest exists when a party to a transaction could potentially makes gain by taking actions that are detrimental to another party in the transaction.

It is important to recognise that any situation inherently presenting the possibility of a conflict can become problematic, if not effectively addressed. Conflicts may be classified as actual, potential, or perceived. An actual conflict exists when there is a direct and present clash of interest. A potential conflict may arise in the future based on existing circumstances. A perceived conflict exists when a situation appears to compromise fairness or independence, even if no actual conflict exists. In financial markets, perception materially impact trust and market integrity.

Managing Market integrity

REGULATORY CONTEXT

From a regulatory perspective, the relevance of a conflict lies not merely its existence, but whether it creates a material risk of adverse impact on client interests. Further, conflicts may arise both at an organizational level due to the design of business structures and at an individual level, owing to the nature of revenue models. These conflicts are often driven by personal incentives, relationships or access to information. This dual dimension makes conflict identification and management inherently complex.

The SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008 lay down the overarching obligation on intermediaries to avoid conflicts of interest, make appropriate disclosures, and establish mechanisms to address such situations. These principles are further supplemented by specific regulations applicable to various intermediaries, which provide more detailed procedural guidelines.

Further, SEBI Circular CIR/MIRSD/5/2013 mandates intermediaries to formulate and implement a Conflict of Interest policy, requiring a structured approach to identification, management and disclosure of conflicts. In effect, this shifts the focus from ad-hoc disclosures to a more system driven framework embedded within organizational processes.

As noted above, based on the nature of activities, specific regulatory frameworks for each category of entity prescribe mechanisms to identify potential conflict of interest. These frameworks require entities to identify, avoid and mitigate such l conflicts, and to establish a code of conduct for both the regulated intermediary and its personnel.

FOR EXAMPLE,

  • SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 mandate the formulation of a Code of Conduct and a Code of Fair Disclosure, governing information handling and trading restrictions to prevent conflicts arising from Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI).
  • SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 address conflicts of interest through governance frameworks and disclosure mechanisms applicable to listed entities.
  • SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992 manage conflicts through requirements relating to independence in issue management and rigorous due diligence obligations.
  • SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012 require disclosure of conflicts in the placement memorandum and mandate fair treatment of all investors.
  • SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013 require advisers to identify and disclose conflicts while acting in a fiduciary capacity.
  • SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020 mandate fair and equitable treatment across clients in investment decisions and trade allocation.
  • SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026 impose a fiduciary duty on asset management companies and trustees to act in the best interests of unitholders.
  • SEBI (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014 address conflicts of interest through detailed disclosure requirements and restrictions on analyst conduct.
  • SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 2026 require segregation between proprietary and client trades to prevent misuse of client orders.

Collectively, this regulatory framework emphasises the need for intermediaries to adopt robust internal policies and systems for the identification, management and disclosure of conflicts of interest.

IDENTIFICATION, AVOIDANCE & PREVENTION

Conflicts can arise due to organizational structures as well as individual conduct. A conflict-of-interest policy provides a framework for managing such situations, with the objective of ensuring fair outcomes for clients and maintaining market integrity.

In practice, conflict management operates across three pillars—

(i) Identification of conflicts,

(ii)  Avoidance of conflicts, and

(iii) Prevention of conflicts.

IDENTIFICATION OF CONFLICTS

Effective conflict management begins with systematic identification. Intermediaries must recognize situations where their interests, or those of their employees, diverge from client interests, or where incentives may influence objectivity.

During the process of identifying conflict of interest situation, an entity should take into account the following indicative scenarios where the entity, an employee, or a relevant person:

  • Is likely to make financial gain, or avoid a financial loss, at the expense of the client
  • Has an interest in the outcome of a service provided to the client, or of a transaction carried out on behalf of the client, which is distinct from the client’s interest in that outcome;
  • Has a financial or other incentive to favour the interest of one client over another
  • Receives from a person other than the client an inducement in relation to a service provided to client, in the form of money, gifts, goods or services, other than the standard commission or fee for that service;
  • Has Access to confidential information and/or derives third-party benefits;
  • Has professional or personal associations or relationships with other organizations;

Adequate records should be maintained of services and activities where a conflict of interest has been identified.

AVOIDANCE OF CONFLICTS

Avoidance represents the first line of defence in conflict management. It involves structuring activities and decision-making processes in a manner that prevents conflicts from arising or reduces their likelihood.

In operational terms, this requires a clearly defined governance and escalation framework. Identified conflicts must be promptly reported to the compliance function and, depending on their materiality, escalated to senior management or the Board of Directors for review. This ensures that conflict resolution is not left to individual discretion but is subject to institutional oversight.

However, avoiding a conflict of interest may not always be possible or practical. In such cases, the following measures may be adopted:

  • The conflict of interest should be disclosed to the Board of Directors;
  • All Conflicted Transaction must be reviewed and approved by Board of Directors;
  • The Interested Party should not participate in any decision relating to such Conflicted Transaction;
  •  The Interested Party should not participate in any decision relating to such Conflicted Transaction;
  • Disclosure should be made to clients regarding possible source or areas of conflict of interest (e.g., disclosures in the Private Placement Memorandum for AIFs or Disclosure Document for Portfolio Manager Services);
  • Appropriate measures should be taken to avoid or mitigate the conflicts;
  • Any actual or potential conflict should be reported to a responsible authority, such as the relevant management team, department head, or key managerial personnel;
  • Where conflicts cannot be adequately managed, or where existing measures do not sufficiently protect Client interests, the conflict should be disclosed to enable the client to make a informed decision on whether to continue the relationship.

PREVENTION OF CONFLICTS

Prevention focuses on reducing the structural likelihood of conflicts. Unlike avoidance, which deals with identified situations, prevention is forward looking and embedded within organizational design.

A principles based approach is central to effective prevention. This includes maintaining high standards of integrity, ensuring fair treatment to clients, and aligning business practices with client suitability. Equally important are structural safeguards such as information barriers between functions, neutrality in incentive structures, and clear segregation of roles.’

The objective is not to eliminate conflicts which is neither practical nor necessary but to minimize situations where conflicting incentives arise in the first place.

INTERNAL CONTROLS FOR MANAGING AND MITIGATING CONFLICTS

Once identified, conflicts should be managed through appropriate controls, with transparency and timely disclosure forming the foundation. Clients must be adequately informed to enable informed decision making. Structural safeguards such as Chinese Walls and segregation of roles should be implemented to restrict the flow of sensitive information across functions. These information barriers may extend to separation of personnel, reporting lines, systems and documentation to ensure that confidential information is accessed only on a need to know basis.

A robust compliance framework plays a central role in monitoring and managing conflicts. This includes periodic review of conflict situations, enforcement of confidentiality obligations, and maintenance of secure records for effective oversight. Employees should be governed by a strong code of conduct covering personal trading, handling of inside information and disclosure requirements, supported by regular training and surveillance systems to detect unusual activities. Incentive structures should also be aligned to ensure that client interests are not compromised by revenue driven considerations.

In practice, conflicts manifest in various forms such as biased research, front running, mis-selling or preferential allocation. These risks can be mitigated through targeted controls including functional independence, pre-approval mechanisms, suitability assessments and transparent allocation policies. Ultimately, continuous review of systems and controls is essential to ensure that conflict management frameworks remain effective and responsive to evolving risks.

A FUTURE INSIGHT IN ADDRESSING CONFLICT OF INTEREST

As discussed above, management of conflict of interest also requires strong governance and clear accountability. Senior management must take responsibility for establishing a culture of transparency and ethical conduct. They must ensure that policies are not merely documented but are effectively implemented.

With increasing digitalization, one can expect the development of centralised oversight systems that go beyond traditional monitoring and actively manage conflicts of interest. Such frameworks could create a structured environment where roles, responsibilities and transactions across intermediaries are mapped and aligned within a unified system.

This would assist in identifying overlaps in duties—for instance, where the same entity or individual is involved in multiple functions like advisory, execution, or research, which may give rise to conflicts. The system could automatically flag such overlaps and enforce controls, such as restricting certain actions, requiring approvals or triggering disclosures. Instead of merely flagging suspicious transactions, such systems would focus on preventing conflicts at a structural level by ensuring that incompatible roles are identified and managed in advance.

In conclusion, conflicts of interest are an inherent part of business activities; however, the manner in which they are managed is critical. Poor handling of conflicts can undermine market fairness, distort price discovery, and erode investor confidence. Intermediaries must consistently priorities clients and investors interests and uphold trust.

This approach not only ensures compliance with SEBI regulations but also supports long term stability and confidence in the securities market. The time has come for organizations to transition from a rule-based compliance mindset to a principle-driven governance culture. Companies must ensure, both in letter and spirit, that conflicts of interest are addressed not merely through policies, but through ethical conduct embedded across all levels of the organization.

Classification Of A Borrower’s Account As Fraudulent

Classification as “fraud” under RBI regulations causes “civil death” for borrowers, debarring them from institutional finance for five years. In Rajesh Agarwal, the Supreme Court ruled that natural justice must apply, leading to the 2024 Master Directions. Banks must now issue a show-cause notice, disclose the forensic audit report, and pass a reasoned order. Crucially, while a written representation is mandatory, a personal hearing is not required. These procedures balance fairness with administrative efficiency but do not preclude separate criminal proceedings via FIRs.

INTRODUCTION

The classification of a borrower’s account as “fraud” under the Reserve Bank of India’s regulatory framework has serious implications. The borrower and its promoters and directors are debarred from accessing institutional finance for five years, reported to law enforcement agencies, and effectively branded as untrustworthy by the entire banking system. The Supreme Court, in Gorkha Security Services v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2014) 9 SCC 105, has succinctly termed this as the “civil death” of the concerned borrower.

Under such a dire scenario, a fundamental question arose: Whether the borrower is entitled to be heard before being classified as a fraudster? And if so, what does that hearing entail — a mere opportunity to submit a written representation, or a full-fledged personal hearing? Must the forensic audit report that forms the very foundation of the fraud classification be disclosed to the borrower?

JURISPRUDENCE ON THIS SUBJECT

These questions have seen conflicting decisions from various High Courts and the Supreme Court. The jurisprudence began with the decision of the Telangana High Court in the case of Rajesh Agarwal, WP No. 19102 of 2019 Order dated 10th December 2020, followed by the Supreme Court’s decision in State Bank of India v. Rajesh Agarwal & Ors., (2023) 6 SCC 1.

This was followed by the Calcutta High Court’s decision in Amit Iron P Ltd v. State Bank of India; the Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in Anil D. Ambani v. State Bank of India, WP No. 3037 of 2025, and ultimately culminated in the Supreme Court’s judgment in State Bank of India v. Amit Iron Private Limited & Ors., Order dated 7th April 2026. Taken together, these decisions present a comprehensive jurisprudential framework governing the rights of borrowers in fraud classification proceedings.

RBI’S REGULATORY FRAMEWORK

The RBI, exercising its powers under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, issued the Master Directions on Fraud – Classification and Reporting by Commercial Banks and Select Financial Institutions, dated 1st July 2016 (“Master Directions 2016”). These Directions established a structured mechanism for the detection, classification, and reporting of frauds in loan accounts of banks. Banks were required to identify Early Warning Signals, red-flag suspicious accounts, commission forensic audits, and classify accounts as fraud through a Joint Lenders’ Forum (JLF) or a Fraud Identification Committee (FIC”).

Clause 8.12 of the Master Directions 2016 prescribed penal measures. Borrowers classified as fraudulent — including promoters, directors, and whole-time directors — were debarred from availing bank finance from scheduled commercial banks, development financial institutions, and government-owned NBFCs for a period of five years from the date of full repayment. Critically, neither restructuring nor compromise settlements were permitted for fraud-classified accounts.

However, the Master Directions 2016, were silent on one crucial aspect: they did not provide for any opportunity of hearing to the borrower before classifying the account as fraud. It was this gap that led to the constitutional challenge in Rajesh Agarwal (supra).

Pursuant to the Supreme Court’s directions in Rajesh Agarwal (supra), the RBI issued the revised Master Directions on Fraud Risk Management, dated 15th July 2024 (“Master Directions 2024”). These revised Directions expressly incorporated the requirement of issuing a detailed show cause notice to the borrower, furnishing the forensic audit report, inviting representations, and passing a reasoned order. All of these requirements were as laid down by the Supreme Court’s Order.

Surviving Civil Death

SC’S MILESTONE DECISION IN RAJESH AGARWAL

The Supreme Court’s decision in State Bank of India v. Rajesh Agarwal, (2023) 6 SCC 1 is the cornerstone of this entire issue. The Apex Court examined whether the principles of natural justice should be read into the Master Directions 2016, which were silent on any hearing opportunity for borrowers. The Court held that the classification of an account as fraud is not merely a trigger for criminal proceedings, but also carries independent and severe civil consequences. Relying on its earlier decision in State Bank of India v. Jah Developers, (2019) 6 SCC 787, the Court observed that the debarment of borrowers from accessing institutional finance is akin to blacklisting — an action that must be preceded by an opportunity of hearing.

Further, relying on earlier Constitution Bench decisions, the Court held that since the Master Directions did not expressly exclude the application of audi alteram partem, the principle must be read into the Directions to save them from the vice of arbitrariness.

The conclusions of the Supreme Court, as summarised in the judgment, established that: the borrower must be served with a notice; be given an opportunity to explain the findings of the forensic audit report; allowed to make representations before the banks or the JLF; and that the decision classifying the account as fraud must be supported by a reasoned order.

The Supreme Court in Rajesh Agarwal (supra) upheld the Telangana High Court’s judgment, which had directed the grant of a personal hearing to the borrower. Conversely, the Court set aside the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in Mona Jignesh Acharya v. Bank of India, 2021 SCC OnLine Guj 2811, wherein it had been held that a personal hearing was not mandatory and that only a post-decisional opportunity to make a representation was sufficient. However, it is important to note that the Supreme Court did not expressly mandate a personal hearing.

BOMBAY HIGH COURT’S DECISION

The Division Bench of the Bombay High Court, in the case of Anil D. Ambani v. State Bank of India, WP No. 3037 of 2025, examined SBI’s order classifying the account of Reliance Communications Ltd. (“RCOM”) as fraud and reporting the petitioner’s name to the RBI.

The petitioner, who was the Chairman, Promoter, and Non-Executive Director of RCOM, challenged the order on four principal grounds: firstly, that the show cause notice issued under the erstwhile Master Directions 2016 was rendered non est by the subsequent Master Directions 2024; secondly, that the impugned order violated natural justice for want of a personal hearing; thirdly, that no specific allegations were made against the petitioner individually; and fourthly, that a non-executive director could not be held vicariously liable.

The Court held that the Master Directions 2024 were clarificatory in nature, having been issued to bring the framework in conformity with the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra). Since a show cause notice had already been issued, the process initiated under the 2016 Directions continued to remain valid and stood merged with the subsequent framework. The doctrine of supersession did not invalidate a validly issued notice.

On the vital issue of a personal hearing, the Court held that the right contemplated by the Supreme Court is one of representation—not necessarily of a personal hearing. The Court noted that subsequent to the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra), SBI had itself represented before the Supreme Court expressing its apprehension that the judgment might be construed as mandating a personal hearing in every case. The Supreme Court, by its order dated 12th May 2023, had clarified that the operative directions are confined to those summarised in its judgment — which speak of representation, not of a personal hearing.

On the question of individual allegations, the Court held that once a company’s account is classified as fraud, promoters and directors who were in control of the company are automatically liable to penal measures. Specific individual allegations in the show cause notice are not a prerequisite. Notably, the Court distinguished the Delhi High Court’s decision in IDBI Bank v. Gaurav Goel & Ors., 2025 SCC OnLine Del 935, which had held that personal hearing forms part of the audi alteram partem safeguard, holding that the said decision had no application in the facts and circumstances of the present case. The Court dismissed the petition, finding no infirmity in the impugned order.

A related issue examined by the Bombay High Court in the same matter in Bank of Baroda v. Anil D Ambani, Appeal (L) NO.43022 of 2025 concerned the validity of an interim injunction restraining banks from acting upon a forensic audit report. A Single Judge had granted relief on the prima facie view that the report was invalid, as it was not prepared by a qualified auditor under ICAI Act.

The controversy before the Division Bench centred on whether forensic audits must necessarily be conducted by Chartered Accountants only? The Division Bench held that the Single Judge had transgressed the settled limits of interlocutory jurisdiction by returning conclusive findings on the legality of the forensic report and regulatory interpretation. Accordingly, the injunction was set aside/modified, permitting the banks to proceed in accordance with law.

This issue was appealed before the Supreme Court in SLP(C) No. 012943 – 012944 / 2026. It was argued that only a qualified auditor/chartered accountant can determine siphoning or fraud and conduct a financial audit, and since the report relied upon was not an audit and records finding of fraud, the classification was unsustainable. It was further contended that siphoning can only be determined by a qualified chartered accountant, and not by a forensic service provider who himself admitted that he was not an auditor and was not following accounting standards. It was also argued that under the RBI framework, even where forensic inputs are used, the ultimate determination must be made by an auditor, and banks cannot classify an account as fraud on such a report. By its Order dated 16th April 2026 in Anil D Ambani v. Bank of Baroda, the Supreme Court disposed of the appeal and declined to interfere with the order of the division bench of the Bombay High Court .

AMIT IRON: SUBSEQUENT SC VERDICT

The most recent comprehensive pronouncement on this issue has come from the Supreme Court in State Bank of India v. Amit Iron Private Limited & Ors, CA 4243/2026, Order dated 7th April 2026. The Court examined three issues ~ whether the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra) mandated a right to a personal hearing; whether written representation and a reasoned order would suffice; and lastly whether the entire forensic audit report must be furnished to the borrower. The appeals arose from the Calcutta High Court’s decision in Amit Iron P Ltd v. State Bank of India, W.P.A. No. 10195/2024, Order dated 7th August 2024. The Delhi High Court’s decision in the case of Bank of India v. Sanjeev Narula, LPA 472/205, Order dated 29th July 2025 was also considered. Both of these decisions had directed personal hearings to be granted to borrowers, relying on Rajesh Agarwal (supra). The issue had also divided other High Courts: the Delhi High Court in IDBI Bank v. Gaurav Goel, 2025 SCC OnLine Del 935, and in a series of decisions of the Delhi High Court in the cases of TV Vision Limited v. Punjab National Bank W.P.(C) 9302/2022 Order dated 1st December 2023, Manish Jain v. Reserve Bank of India W.P.(C) 9536/2025, Order dated 1st July 2025, Ashish Gupta v. State Bank of India W.P.(C) 4340/2024, Order dated 21st March 2024, and Chandra Kant Khemka v. Reserve Bank of India, W.P.(C) 1354/2023 Order dated 6th April 2023, had consistently held that a personal hearing was a necessary component of the Rajesh Agarwal framework. In contrast, the Bombay High Court in Anil Ambani (discussed above) had taken the view that a written representation would suffice.

The Supreme Court held that Rajesh Agarwal’s decision did not recognise any inherent right vested in the borrower to a personal or oral hearing before the borrower’s account was classified as fraud. The Court analysed the conclusions in Rajesh Agarwal’s case and held that the procedure envisaged (one of issuing of a show cause notice, consideration of the borrower’s reply, and passing of a reasoned order) satisfies the requirements of natural justice. The RBI’s Master Directions 2024, which incorporated this procedure, were held to correctly reflect the scope of the earlier decision in Rajesh Agarwal, thereby ensuring a fair balance between promptitude and fairness.

Relying on its earlier decisions in T. Takano v. SEBI, (2022) 15 SCC 401 and Madhyamam Broadcasting Limited v. Union of India, (2023) 13 SCC 401, the Supreme Court held that the borrower has a right to disclosure of the forensic audit report obtained by the lender bank. It observed that the furnishing only the findings and conclusions alone would not constitute compliance with natural justice; the reasons underlying those conclusions, as contained in the body of the report were essential for the borrower to mount an effective response. Accordingly, the borrower must be supplied with the audit report.

The Court clarified that disclosure of the forensic audit report is the rule. The only exception would arise where the disclosure of any part would impinge upon third-party rights, In such cases, the bank must record reasons and communicate the same to the borrower, who may then respond as to why the information was necessary. However, the Court observed that such situations would be rare in the context of bank fraud proceedings, where the borrower was typically associated at the stage of preparation of the report. All High Court judgments taking a contrary view by mandating personal hearings were overruled by the Supreme Court.

PRACTICAL IMPLICATIONS FOR BORROWERS AND BANKS

The combined effect of these decisions establishes a clear procedural roadmap. Banks must: issue a detailed show cause notice setting out the specific allegations; furnish the complete forensic audit report (subject to the narrow exception of third-party privacy); grant the borrower adequate time to submit a written representation; and pass a reasoned order dealing with the borrower’s submissions. What banks are not required to provide is a personal or oral hearing. Once this matrix has been followed, the principles of natural justice are automatically obtained by the borrower.

For borrowers, the practical consequence is equally clear. The written representation assumes paramount importance. Every contention, rebuttal, and factual and legal defence must be articulated in writing with meticulous precision. There is no fallback of a personal hearing where persuasion or oral advocacy might supplement an inadequately drafted response. A borrower who fails to respond to the show cause notice does so at his own risk and peril.

For professionals (such as readers of this journal) advising clients in fraud classification proceedings, the importance of forensic audit literacy is paramount. The right to receive the forensic audit report has now been elevated to a mandatory disclosure obligation. This report provides the borrower with a meaningful opportunity to rebut the bank’s case. Advisors must ensure that the borrower’s representation addresses each finding in the forensic audit report with fact-based rebuttals supported by documentary evidence.

NO BAR TO AN FIR

The Supreme Court in an ancillary but not directly related judgment in the case of CBI v. Surendra Patwa, SLP (Crl) 00735/2024, Order dated 25th April 2025, examined whether criminal proceedings and FIRs can subsist against borrowers whose fraud classification was set aside by the High Courts by relying on the decision of Rajesh Agarwal (supra).

The Supreme Court upheld the criminal proceedings. It held that an FIR, by taking cognizance of an offence, merely sets the criminal law into motion and operates independently of civil or administrative determinations. The mere similarity of facts does not imply that, in the absence of valid administrative action, a cognizable offence cannot be registered. At that stage, the only consideration is the existence of a cognizable offence as disclosed in the FIR. .

Accordingly, even if no action is sustained on the civil side, an FIR may still be maintainable. The scope and role of both the actions were totally different and distinct, more so when undertaken by different statutory/public authorities. It held that the quashing of FIRs by the High Courts by relying on Rajesh Agarwal’s case was patently erroneous. The principles of natural justice provided in that decision were not applicable at the stage of reporting a criminal offence. Even the setting aside of an administrative action on the grounds of violation of the principles of natural justice did not bar the administrative authorities from proceeding afresh. It was not a decision on the merits of the case. It clarified that there was no bar on the RBI or the Banks to proceed afresh, by adhering to the principles of natural justice. Ultimately, the Court restored the set aside FIRs.

CONCLUSIONS

It appears that, for the moment, the law governing the right to be heard in fraud classification proceedings under the RBI Master Directions has, achieved a degree of finality. The key principles emanating from the various decisions analysed above may be distilled as follows:

a) The principle of natural justice must be read into the RBI Master Directions on Fraud to save them from the vice of arbitrariness, given that fraud classification entails severe civil consequences amounting to the “civil death” of the borrower.

b) The borrower must be served with a show cause notice containing the specific allegations, furnished with the forensic audit report, and given an adequate opportunity to submit a written representation before the account is classified as fraud.

c) The decision classifying the account as fraud must be made by a reasoned order, dealing with the borrower’s submissions.

d) There is no right to a personal or oral hearing. The principles of natural justice are satisfied by the issuance of a show cause notice, consideration of the written representation, and a reasoned order.

e) The forensic audit report must be furnished to the borrower as a matter of rule. The only exception is where specific portions impinge upon third-party privacy rights, in which case redaction with recorded reasons is permissible.

f) The supersession of the Master Directions 2016 by the Master Directions 2024 does not invalidate show cause notices issued under the earlier Directions, provided the principles of natural justice are complied with.

g) Once a company’s account is classified as fraud, promoters and directors in control of the company are liable to penal measures. Individual-specific allegations in the show cause notice are not a prerequisite.

h) The Master Directions 2024 correctly incorporate the procedure mandated by Rajesh Agarwal and strike a fair balance between the competing demands of promptitude and fairness.

While banks, on the one hand, retain the agility to act swiftly against fraud, borrowers on the other hand, are assured of a meaningful opportunity to defend themselves. A written representation but not an oral personal hearing is guaranteed. Hence, a borrower who fails to represent himself does so at his own peril.

Allied Laws

6. Nawang & Anr. vs. Bahadur & Ors.

2025 LiveLaw (SC) 1025

October 8, 2025

Hindu Succession – Does not apply to members of Scheduled Tribes – High Court’s direction that daughters in Tribal areas of Himachal Pradesh shall inherit property under the HSA set aside. [Hindu Succession Act, 1956, S.2(2)]

FACTS

This Civil Appeal arose from a judgment passed by the High Court of Himachal Pradesh. The challenge was limited to a specific direction issued in paragraph 63 of the impugned judgment, wherein the High Court directed that daughters in tribal areas of the State of Himachal Pradesh shall inherit property in accordance with the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (HSA), and not as per customs and usages, in order to prevent social injustice and exploitation of women. The appellants challenged this direction before the Supreme Court, with assistance from an amicus curiae.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that Section 2(2) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, explicitly provides that nothing contained in the Act shall apply to members of any Scheduled Tribe within the meaning of clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution, unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs. The language of the provision is clear and unambiguous; therefore, the HSA does not apply to Scheduled Tribes.

This legal position is well settled, and has been consistently affirmed by the Supreme Court in Madhu Kishwar vs. State of Bihar and Ahmedabad Women Action Group (AWAG) vs. Union of India, and Tirith Kumar & Ors. vs. Daduram & Ors., (2024) SCC OnLine SC 3810.

The Court further held that the direction issued by the High Court was beyond the scope of the appeal, as the issue of applicability of the HSA to Scheduled Tribes was neither directly nor substantially involved in the intra-party appeal arising from the civil proceeding. The directions also did not emanate from any of the issues framed by the Court or from pleas raised or argued by the parties. Accordingly, paragraph 63 of the impugned judgment was set aside and expunged from the record.

The Civil Appeal was allowed.

7. Yusufbhai W. Patel & Ors. vs. Zubedaben Abbasbhai Patel & Ors.

2026:GUJHC:10564

February 10, 2026

Mohammedan Law – Partition and joint family – Concept of ancestral property inapplicable – Perverse interim injunction set aside. [CPC, O.7 R.11; O.39 Rr.1 & 2; Mohammedan Law]

FACTS

A Muslim woman instituted a suit against her four brothers seeking administration of the estate of their deceased parents, claiming shares in several properties alleged to be “ancestral” or “joint family” assets under the Shariat law. In the alternative, the plaintiff claimed compensation of Rs.50 Crores along with interest. The trial court rejected the defendants’ plea under Order VII Rule 11 on the ground of limitation and granted a partial injunction restraining the development of certain lands.

HELD

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the revision application challenging the refusal to reject the plaint but allowed the appeals against the injunction. The Court took note of a family arrangement executed on April 25, 1983, which distributed the lands among the sons and, at the same time provided that each daughter would be paid Rs.30,000/-, upon the sale of any of the lands. It held that the concepts of joint family and ancestral property are alien to Mohammedan Law, which recognises only individual succession and tenancy-in-common upon death. The trial court erred in applying such concepts and in ignoring the unchallenged family settlement and the long acquiescence of the parties. The grant of an injunction based on an affidavit not forming part of the pleadings was termed perverse. Accordingly, the injunction order was quashed.

The civil revision applications was dismissed, and the appeals were allowed.

8. Arun Suri vs. Directorate of Enforcement

2026:DHC:1391-DB

February 16, 2026

Money Laundering – Attachment of ancestral property – “Proceeds of crime” – Property equivalent in value can be attached even if itself untainted. [Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, Ss. 2(1)(u), 5, 42]

FACTS

The Directorate of Enforcement attached a house in Delhi, alleging that it represented value equivalent to the proceeds of crime generated through foreign exchange violations. The appellant contended that the property had been purchased by his father in 1991 from legitimate income and that his interest in the property arose through inheritance, not from any tainted transaction.

HELD

The High Court dismissed the appeal, holding that attachment under Section 5 read with Section 2(1)(u) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (“PMLA”), extends to property of equivalent value if the actual tainted property is unavailable. The Court noted that under Section 2(1)(u), “proceeds of crime” is not limited to property directly derived from criminal activity, but also includes the “value of any such property” or property of “equivalent value” held within the country or abroad, particularly where the original tainted property is located outside India.

The Court further observed that properties acquired prior to the enforcement of the PMLA are not completely immune from action if they are being proceeded against as property equivalent in value to the proceeds of crime. Importantly, the statute does not exempt ancestral or inherited properties when they represent the equivalent value of illicit gains held elsewhere. The Adjudicating Authority had rightly concluded that the property was equivalent to the proceeds of crime, and such a finding was neither perverse nor illegal.

The Appeal was dismissed.

9. Sushila & Ors. vs. Sudhakar & Anr.

SLP (C) No.21717 of 2025

March 10, 2026

Motor accident – Computation of compensation – No deduction for nearing retirement. [Motor Vehicles Act, 1988]

FACTS

A 59-year-old railway employee died in a road accident. The Tribunal deducted 50 per cent of his income on the ground that only six months of service remained. The High Court slightly enhanced compensation but upheld the 50 per cent deduction.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that compensation must be computed on the basis of annual income at the time of death without any deduction on account of the residual service period. Relying on Pranay Sethi (2017), 16 SCC 680, the Court reiterated that a 15 percent addition towards future prospects is applicable for permanent government employees in the age group of 50-60 years..

The Court further clarified that it is not precluded from awarding a higher amount of “just and reasonable” compensation,, even where the claimants have originally sought a lower amount, provided the law justifies such enhancement.

The deduction of 1/3rd towards personal expenses and the application of a multiplier of 9 were affirmed. The total compensation was enhanced to Rs.23,51,362 along with at 6 percent interest p.a. from the date of the claim petition.

The Appeal was allowed.

10. Vinayak Vasudev Tilak (Decd.) vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (Bom) 186

April 2, 2026

Tenancy – Section 88C landlord – termination for personal cultivation – Survival of right after death – extinguishment upon sale of land – absence of bona fide requirement. [Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, 1948, S.88C, 33B]

FACTS

The original landlord was granted a certificate under section 88C of the Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, recognising him as a landlord holding land below the economic holding limit. The validity of the certificate was ultimately upheld by the Supreme Court.

Pursuant thereto, the landlord initiated proceedings under section 33B of the Act in 1990 seeking termination of tenancy on the ground of bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. The landlord died in 1991 without immediate heirs, leaving behind two sisters, whose descendants are the present petitioners.

The petitioners sought to continue the proceedings initiated by the landlord and also independently initiated proceedings under section 33B in 2017. The authorities rejected their claim on the ground that the right to seek termination based on personal cultivation did not survive the death of the landlord.

In appeal, the Collector granted relief to the petitioners. However, in revision, the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal set aside the Collector’s order, holding against the petitioners.

The petitioners challenged the Tribunal’s order before the High Court.

HELD

The Court observed that section 33B confers a right upon a landlord holding an 88C certificate to terminate tenancy based on his bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. Such a requirement is inherently personal to the landlord. Upon the landlord’s death, the issue arises whether such a right survives or can be continued by heirs.

In the present case, the Court held that even assuming such a right could be inherited, the petitioners were required to establish their own bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. The record revealed that, in 2013, the petitioners had sold all their right, title and interest in the subject land to third parties on an “as is where is” basis. Thereafter, further transfers had taken place, and the proceedings were, in fact, being pursued by transferees through powers of attorney.

By virtue of such sale, the foundational requirement of section 33B, namely the need for personal cultivation, stood extinguished. A party that has divested itself of ownership cannot claim a bona fide requirement for cultivation. Further, the petitioners had neither diligently pursued earlier proceedings nor established any subsisting legal entitlement.

In such circumstances, no interference was warranted with the order of the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal.

The Petitions were dismissed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE

The Annual Report of the IFRS Foundation for 2025 carries the tagline “Fit for the future”. The same can be accessed at ifrs-foundation-annual-report-2025.pdf. The report contains very relevant and interesting information on the formulation of the IFRS and ISSB Standards, as well as details on the governance standards at the Foundation.

The Audit Report on the financial statements of the IFRS Foundation contains the following interesting Key Audit Matters and other risks, which are also graphically depicted in the report.

Extracts from Independent Auditor’s Report to the Trustees of the IFRS Foundation

(for the year ended 31st December 2025)

KEY AUDIT MATTERS (KAMS)

Key Audit Matters (KAMs) are those matters that, in our professional judgement, were of most significance in our audit of the group financial statements of the current period and include the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement (whether or not due to fraud) that we identified. These matters included those that had the greatest effect on: the overall audit strategy; the allocation of resources in the audit; and directing the efforts of the engagement team.

These matters were addressed in the context of our audit of the group financial statements as a whole, and in forming our opinion thereon, we do not provide a separate opinion on these matters.

KAM

Significant risk

Key audit matter

Contributions received after the reporting date

How our scope addressed the matter?
We identified contributions received after the reporting date and incorrectly recognised as revenue within FY2025 as one of the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement due to fraud and error.

A significant proportion of income relates to voluntary contributions. These contributions are recognised on a receipts basis, exceptions being those received post year end, which have been designated by the external contributor as related to the previous year. As at year end, £4.6m (2024: £5.4m) is included within contributions receivable. Unpaid contributions were considered a significant risk due to the significant judgements made by management in determining whether they were recognised appropriately in the current year.

In responding to the key audit matter, we performed the following audit procedures:

  • Performing a non-substantive analytical review of contributions income year on year by contributor and jurisdiction to identify any unusual movements in balance to contribute to the engagement team’s risk assessment of contributions received after the report date.
  • Selecting a sample of unpaid contributions and obtaining evidence of subsequent receipt by inspecting post-year-end bank statements to identify whether unpaid contributions have been received post year end. If the contributor had not paid after year end, the engagement team liaised directly with the contributor to obtain a contribution confirmation directly from them.
  • Inspecting correspondence with the contributor for the sample selected to determine whether they had provided a firm commitment to the group to pay the funds due and whether the contribution related to the correct financial year.
Relevant disclosures in the annual report –

The group’s accounting policy on contributed revenue is shown in Note 3 to the financial statements, and related disclosures are included in this note.

Our results –

Based on our audit work, we did not identify material misstatements concerning contributions received after the reporting date.

Key audit matter

Income recognised from performance-based grants

How our scope addressed the matter?
We identified income recognised from performance-based grants as one of the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement due to fraud and error.

Income recognised from performance-based grants was identified as a key audit matter due to the material grants received during the year from several contributors. These grants included several terms and conditions alongside an intended timeframe. Management made significant judgements in determining:

In responding to the key audit matter, we performed the following audit procedures:

  • confirming with management that the considerations and judgements applied in FY2025 for performance-based grants in accordance with IAS 20 are the same as those set out in the accounting paper for the previous year;
  • inspecting correspondence between the providers of any material grants and the Foundation, including the signed grant agreements, to identify whether management’s judgements aligned with the agreed conditions;
  • the amount of grant income to recognise during the year due to the conditions in the grant agreements applicable in the duration of the grant agreement;
  • the most appropriate IFRS Accounting Standard to apply in recognising the revenue recognition of the grant income, which management determined was IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance rather than IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers; and
  • the accounting policy to apply in recognising the grant income.
  • inspecting management’s workings for any material grants received during the year to identify expenditures that had not been funded through other contributions during the year;
  • inspecting the remaining expenditure for any material grants received during the year, comprising primarily staff costs, to identify whether this expenditure met the criteria of the relevant grant agreement;
  • confirming directly with a judgemental sample of the relevant employees whether they worked on the projects stated within the grant agreement during the period for any material grants received during the year; and
  • inspecting the Foundation’s bank statements to identify whether the grant monies were received in 2025 for any material grants recognised as revenue during the year.
Relevant disclosures in the annual report

The group’s accounting policy on grant income is shown in Note 3 to the financial statements and related disclosures are included in this note.

Our results

Based on our audit work, we did not identify material misstatements concerning income recognised from performance-based grants.

Battery Arrangements

Accounting for power arrangements, specifically Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS), depends on contractual specifics under Ind AS 116. An arrangement is classified as a lease if the customer conveys the right to control an identified asset by obtaining substantially all economic benefits and directing its use throughout the period. In a specific fact pattern where an electricity generator directs the charging and discharging of a non-substitutable battery for its entire capacity, the arrangement constitutes a lease. However, if the asset is not specifically identified or the generator lacks decision-making authority, the arrangement would not qualify as a lease.

There are several types of arrangements between a buyer and seller of electricity. Globally, there are gross pool and net pool arrangements. In India, buyers needing a reliable and uninterrupted power supply may enter into long-term power purchase agreements (PPA). These arrangements could be between two corporate entities, i.e. a corporate power generator and a corporate user or could be between the generator and an electricity retailer, mainly DISCOMs (electricity distribution companies). Short-term power arrangements can also be fulfilled by buying/selling power on power exchanges, e.g., IEX or PTC. The accounting response will depend upon the exact nature of the arrangement; some arrangements may qualify as leases, others as fixed assets or derivative, and a few as trading transactions.

Recent government tenders in the renewable space also require battery energy storage systems (BESS), along with power generation. There could be a multitude of ways in which such arrangements can be structured, along with the power generation facility. BESS may involve a pure investor investing in the battery storage space, providing battery storage exclusively or to multiple generators or retailers. Sometimes, a BESS owner may also own the power generation facility. Some arrangements may involve the BESS owner entering into a joint venture with a power generator or purchasing power from a generator intermittently or under a long-term lease. Here again, the accounting would depend upon the detailed facts and the nature of the arrangements.

In this article, we take a simple fact pattern of a power generator’s arrangement with a BESS owner and the accounting response.

Fact pattern

A battery owner and an electricity generator enter into a battery offtake arrangement. Under the terms and conditions of the offtake arrangement, the battery owner retains custody of the battery, operates the battery, and maintains it in proper working condition, but is contractually obliged to operate it in accordance with the electricity generator’s instructions, which cover 100% of the battery’s capacity ; the battery cannot be substituted. The electricity generator’s instructions would typically specify whether and when the battery owner charges and discharges the battery. The electricity generator can instruct the battery owner to charge and discharge the battery throughout the period of use (including multiple times during each day).

The electricity generator decides the working hours of the battery, to whom the electricity is to be supplied, and the precise location of the battery and can change the location if necessary. However, the electricity generator cannot use the battery for purposes other than the specified power project; to that extent, the use of the battery is predetermined under the contractual terms.

The transactions occurring under the offtake arrangement are settled as follows:

1. The electricity generator pays a fixed amount to the battery owner over the period of the contract for the right to use the battery. This fixed amount reflects the size of the battery and the period of use and is payable regardless of whether the battery is charged or discharged.

2. The battery owner operates the battery according to the electricity generator’s instructions.

3. The electricity generator pays the battery owner each month in advance.

Paragraph 9 of Ind AS 116 states that ‘a contract is, or contains, a lease if the contract conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time in exchange for consideration’. Applying paragraph B9 of Ind AS 116, to assess whether a contract conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time, the customer—throughout the period of use—must have both:

1. the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the identified asset; and

2. the right to direct the use of that asset.

Is your Battery a lease

Applying Ind AS 116 to the fact pattern

Does the electricity generator have the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the battery (paragraph B9(a) of Ind AS 116)?

Paragraph B21 of Ind AS 116 specifies that ‘a customer can obtain economic benefits from use of an asset directly or indirectly in many ways, such as by using, holding or sub-leasing the asset. The economic benefits from use of an asset include its primary output and by-products (including potential cash flows derived from these items), and other economic benefits from using the asset that could be realised from a commercial transaction with a third party.’

In the fact pattern, the economic benefits derived from use of the battery are its storage capability and capacity; the battery is used to store and then release electricity. The battery offtake arrangement provides the electricity generator with the economic benefits derived from battery storage because the electricity generator has the exclusive right:

1. to use the entire capacity of the battery throughout the period of use (for the duration of the arrangement); and

2. to direct the battery owner as to whether, when and by how much to charge and discharge the battery.

Therefore, applying paragraph B21 of Ind AS 116 to the fact pattern, the electricity generator has the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the battery.

Does the electricity generator have the right to direct the use of the battery (paragraph B9(b) of Ind AS 116)?

Ind AS 116 clarifies that a customer has the right to direct the use of an asset if it has the right to direct how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use (i.e. the right to make relevant decisions about how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use).  A customer has the right to direct the use of an identified asset throughout the period of use only if either:

(a) the customer has the right to direct how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use; or

(b) the relevant decisions about how and for what purpose the asset is used are predetermined and:

(i) the customer has the right to operate the asset (or to direct others to operate the asset in a manner that it determines) throughout the period of use, without the supplier having the right to change those operating instructions; or

(ii) the customer designed the asset (or specific aspects of the asset) in a way that predetermines how and for what purpose the asset will be used throughout the period of use.

The electricity generator decides the working hours of the battery, when the battery is charged or discharged, to whom the electricity is to be supplied, and the precise location of the battery, and can change the location if necessary. Consequently, the electricity generator directs how and for what purpose the battery is used. Although the battery owner has the right to operate and maintain the battery, and these rights are essential for the efficient use of the battery, as stated in paragraph B27, these are not rights to direct how and for what purpose the battery is used. Hence, the electricity generator has the right to direct the use of the battery, as it has the right to make decisions about the use of the battery during the period of contract.

Conclusion

In the given case, the arrangement between the electricity generator and the battery owner will constitute a lease arrangement. However, if the fact pattern were changed such that the electricity generator does not have the right to use an identified battery and instead, has the right to a specified capacity, which could be easily provided by the battery owner, from a number of batteries that it owns, then the arrangement would not constitute a lease. Additionally, if the generator did not have the ability to make decisions such as those described in the previous paragraphs, the arrangement would not be a lease. Therefore, the fact pattern is of utmost importance in determining a lease, and sometimes changes to the fact pattern that may appear to not be significant could have a significant impact in determining whether the arrangement is a lease.

Goods And Services Tax

I. SUPREME COURT

11. 2026 (3) TMI 1238 (SC) dated 20.03.2026.

Simla Gomti Pan Products Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner of State Tax, U.P.

Mandatory pre-deposit requirement for filing an appeal may, in exceptional cases, be relaxed to balance taxpayer rights and revenue interest.

FACTS

The respondent issued two show cause notices (SCNs) raising substantial tax demands against the petitioner. The petitioner sought copies of documents relied upon in the SCNs from the respondent. The respondent uploaded documents on a portal, which was allegedly inaccessible to the petitioner.

As a result, the petitioner was not able to file replies, and ex-parte assessment orders were passed. The petitioner challenged these orders before the Hon’ble High Court, which declined relief on the ground of availability of an alternate remedy.

Thereafter, the petitioner filed an appeal, which was dismissed for non-compliance with mandatory pre-deposit requirement. Aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble Supreme Court seeking interim protection against coercive recovery.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court directed the petitioner to deposit a reduced interim amount instead of full statutory pre-deposit. The Court held that, in appropriate cases, conditional interim relief may be granted to protect the taxpayer from coercive recovery. Accordingly, the respondent was restrained from taking coercive steps, subject to compliance with the deposit condition. The Court preserved the respondent’s right to contest the matter after compliance. No final adjudication on merits was undertaken at this stage. The Court directed issuance of notice upon proof of deposit within stipulated time.

II. HIGH COURT

12. (2024) 14 Centax 374 (Del.) dated 29.09.2024. Reckitt Benckiser India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

Anti-profiteering action under section 171 of the CGST Act, 2017 can be sustained only where a demonstrable additional benefit accrues to the supplier.

FACTS:

The petitioner, a real estate developer, was subjected to proceedings under section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 on the allegation of failure to pass on input tax credit (ITC) benefits to homebuyers following the transition to GST. The respondent initiated an investigation based on a complaint, Upon examination of the petitioner’s financial and tax records for pre and post-GST periods, it was found that no additional ITC benefit had accrued to the petitioner. Despite this finding, proceedings under the anti-profiteering framework were continued against the petitioner. Aggrieved, the petitioner, approached the Hon’ble Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that, in the absence of any additional ITC benefit, the provisions of section 171 of the CGST Act were not attracted. It was observed that anti-profiteering obligations arise only when a real benefit is derived by the supplier, in the absence of such benefit, no price reduction is required. Accordingly, the proceedings against the petitioner were held to be unsustainable.

13. (2026) 41 Centax 121 (Guj.) dated 18.03.2026.

Shree Gurukrupa Tradelink P. Ltd. vs. State of Gujarat

Adjudicating authority must grant adequate opportunity of being heard under section 75(4 where an adverse decision is contemplated, irrespective of whether such opportunity is requested by the taxpayer.

FACTS

The petitioner was issued a SCN by the respondent. The petitioner filed a reply but inadvertently selected an option of ‘No’ for a personal hearing. Despite this, the respondent scheduled one personal hearing; however, the petitioner did not appear on the scheduled date. Thereafter, the respondent rejecting the petitioner’s reply and passed an adverse order. The record of proceedings indicated that only one opportunity of hearing had been granted prior to passing the order. Aggrieved by this procedural lapse, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the respondent had violated the statutory mandate under section 75(4) of the GST Act. The provision requires that an adequate opportunity of hearing be granted before passing an adverse order. The Court observed that the petitioner’s selection of ‘No’ for personal hearing cannot override this statutory requirement. Since the respondent rejected the petitioner’s reply, further opportunities of hearing ought to have been granted. Reliance was placed on Yadav Trailor Transport Co. vs. Union of India [R/SCA No. 3027 of 2025, decided on 16.10.2025], which emphasised that adequate hearing opportunities are integral to fair adjudication. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and the matter was remanded for reconsideration.

14. (2026) 41 Centax 258 (Cal.) dated 06.04.2026.

Arup Sarkar vs. State of West Bengal

Cancellation of registration due to procedural non-compliance, in the absence of tax evasion. should be restored since it impedes revenue collection and ease of doing business post filing of returns.

FACTS

The respondent cancelled the GST registration of the petitioner on account of non-filing of returns and non- payment of tax liability. However, no allegation of tax evasion or fraudulent conduct of business operations was recorded by the respondent. The petitioner’s business operations ceased due to absence of valid registration. Without filing pending returns, petitioner filed an appeal before the First appellate authority challenging the cancellation of GST registration. Nonetheless, First Appellate Authority upheld the cancellation order. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that cancellation of registration solely on account of non-filing of returns was not justified. It observed that the absence of registration hampers business operations and, consequently, affects revenue collection. The Court emphasized the need for a pragmatic approach in revenue matters and held that such cancellation is counterproductive to revenue interests. Reliance was placed on Subhankar Golder vs. Asstt. CST (2024) 19 Centax 337 (Cal.), dated 09.04.2024. which held restoration should be permitted upon compliance with statutory requirements.

Accordingly, the Court set aside cancellation, subject to petitioner filing pending returns and discharging the tax dues.

15. (2026) 40 Centax 256 (Bom.) dated 10.03.2026 Smurti Waghdhare vs. Joint Director, Directorate General of GST Intelligence, Mumbai.

Search and seizure proceedings under GST, undertaken without a duly recorded “reason to believe” and adherence to statutory requirements are invalid in law.

FACTS

The respondent conducted search operation at multiple premises of the petitioner. Cash amounting to Rupees 1 crore was seized from the petitioner’s premises as well as parental residence. The respondent alleged involvement in fake ITC transactions based on statements recorded during investigation. The seized cash was subsequently handed over to the Income Tax Department. However, no notice was issued within six months from the date of seizure. Aggrieved by the seizure and continued retention of cash, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the seizure of cash was arbitrary and without authority of law. It observed that section 67(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 requires existence of a valid “reason to believe” for conducting search and seizure. In the present case, no such reasons were recorded by the respondent. The Court placing its reliance on the decision of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of ITO vs. Lakhmani Mewal Das (1976) TMI 647 (SC) wherein it was held that the statutory mandate under section 67(7) of CGST Act, 2017 was violated due to non-issuance of notice within six months. The precedent established that “reason to believe” must have a rational nexus with the material on record. Accordingly, the Court quashed the seizure orders and directed the release of the cash along with applicable interest.

16. (2026) 40 Centax 302 (Bom.) dated 10.02.2026. Om Enterprises vs Union of India

Cancellation of GST registration based on a vague, cyclostyled show cause notice, without specific allegations or proper consideration of the petitioner’s reply, is unsustainable in law.

FACTS

The petitioner was issued a SCN by the respondent alleging that the registration had been obtained by fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts. The notice was in a standard cyclostyled format and did not contain any specify particulars or concrete allegations against the petitioner. The petitioner filed a reply to the said notice; however, without properly considering the reply or addressing its contents , the respondent passed an order cancelling the
petitioner’s GST registration. The cancellation order contained reasons inconsistent with the SCN and referred to a different basis, namely, that the petitioner was found to be non-genuine upon inspection. Aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the action of the respondent in cancelling the petitioner’s registration was unsustainable in law, as the SCN was vague, cyclostyled, and devoid of specific allegations. The Court observed that there were clear inconsistencies between the SCN and the impugned order, reflecting a mechanical and casual exercise of jurisdiction in breach of statutory procedure. It was further held that, despite the availability of an alternate remedy, interference under writ jurisdiction was justified in view of the procedural lapses. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and set aside, and the petitioner’s GST registration was directed to be restored.

17. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 435 (Gujarat) dated 13.03.2026.

SFC Global Commodity (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India

Rejecting the appeal without dealing with the grounds of appeal raised in the appeal memorandum, merely on the grounds of non-appearance of the appellant, is illegal.

FACTS

The petitioner while challenging the order passed by the adjudicating officer, filed his written submissions specifically contending violation of the principles of natural justice, including the denial of an opportunity of personal hearing despite timely filing of replies to RFT-08 notices. It was also contended that the impugned order had been passed in breach of section 75(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act 2017. Further, the petitioner raised grounds in the appeal explaining that the belated generation of RFT-01 was due to an administrative lapse and automatic
system generation, which should not have prejudiced the petitioner. However, the Appellate Authority ignored all such contentions and rejected the appeal solely on the ground that the petitioner, despite being afforded an opportunity of hearing, did not remain present.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the Appellate Authority committed an illegality by rejecting the appeal without considering the submissions raised in the appeal memo

The Court observed that even in cases of non-appearance, it is incumbent upon the Appellate Authority to pass a reasoned order dealing with the grounds raised in the appeal. Accordingly, the matter was remanded back to the Appellate Authority for fresh adjudication after granting an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.

18. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 310 (Bombay) dated 12.03.2026

Neha Piyush Shah vs. Union of India.

Where the petitioner is receiving commission in dealing with vouchers whether, such commission/fees alone would be liable to GST and not the entire value of the vouchers.

FACTS

The petitioner, an individual, was engaged in dealing with vouchers. The department held that such activity amounted to dealing in goods and accordingly confirmed the demand of GST on the petitioner’s turnover. The petitioner relied upon the decision of the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in the case of Premier Sales Promotion (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [2023] 147 taxmann.com 85/96 GST 363/70 GSTL 345 (Kar) to contend that the issuance of vouchers is akin to a pre-deposit and does not constitute a supply of goods or services. The petitioner also referred to Circular No. 243/37/2024-GST dated 31 December 2024, which clarifies that where vouchers are distributed through distributors/sub-distributors/agents on a commission/fee basis, GST would be payable by such distributor/sub-distributor/agent, acting as an agent of the voucher issuer, “on the commission/fee” or any other amount by whatever name called, for such purpose, as a supply of services to the voucher issuer.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court found merit in the submissions advanced by the petitioner and observed that the impugned order-in-original was not in consonance with the clarification provided in the circular dated 31st December 2024. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and set aside, and the matter was remanded for passing a fresh order in accordance with law, after duly considering the petitioner’s submissions.

19. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 129 (Gauhati) dated 16.03.2026.

Ganapati Enterprise vs. State of Assam

Where registration was cancelled for non-filing of returns for over six months and the appeal was dismissed as time-barred, the GST officer may restore registration under Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules upon filing of all pending returns and payment of tax, interest, and late fees.

FACTS

On account of non-filing of GST returns for a continuous period of six months, the petitioners were issued a show cause notice, and thereafter an order was passed, by which the petitioners’ GST registration was cancelled for not furnishing returns for a continuous period of six months or more. Thereafter, the petitioners filed an appeal seeking revocation of the GST cancellation; however, the same was rejected by the Appellate Authority as the time limit prescribed for filing an appeal had elapsed.

Before the Hon’ble High Court, the petitioner contended that they were ready and willing to comply with all the formalities required as per the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017, i.e. to furnish all the pending returns and make full payment of the tax along with applicable interest and late fee.

HELD

Having regard to the fact that the GST registration was cancelled under section 29(2)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017 for non-filing of returns for a continuous period of 6 (six) months or more and the provisions contained in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and cancellation of registration entails serious civil consequences, the Hon’ble Court held that if the petitioners approach the competent officer by furnishing all pending returns and paying the entire tax dues, along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer would have the authority and jurisdiction to drop the proceedings and pass an order in the prescribed Form.

Accordingly, the writ petition is disposed of with a direction to the petitioners to approach the concerned authority within a period of 2 (two) months for restoration of their GST registration.

It was further clarified that the limitation period under section 73 (10) of the Central GST Act/State GST Act shall be computed from the date of the present order, except for the financial year 2025-26, which shall be governed by section 44 of the Central GST Act/State GST Act.

20. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 463 (Telangana) dated 08.04.2026

Anjaneya Kirana Merchant vs. Deputy State Tax Officer.

The Court permitted filing of a fresh revocation application where the petitioner failed to submit a reply to the revocation application and the time limit for filing an appeal had also lapsed.

FACTS

The petitioner filed an application for revocation of cancellation of GST registration before the competent authority. A show cause notice was issued; However, the petitioner failed to file a reply, leading to the rejection of the revocation application. The limitation period for filing an appeal had also expired. The petitioner submitted that he had relied on the accountant to file the monthly returns and was unaware of the show cause notice, due to which a reply could not be filed. He therefore sought one opportunity either to file a reply to the show cause notice or to file a fresh revocation application for reconsideration.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court, considering the petitioner’s submission and with the consent of the Government Pleader, granted liberty to the petitioner to file a fresh application for revocation of cancellation of registration before the competent authority within a period of two (2) weeks, manually.

Recent Developments in GST

A. ADVISORY

i) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 14.03.2026 in relation to Payment of pre-deposit while filing of appeal before First Appellate authority.

ii) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 16.03.2026 regarding confirmation of “Tax Liability Breakup, As Applicable” in GSTR-3B.

iii) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 03.04.2026 in relation to difficulty in filing appeals on the GST portal in cases where adjudication orders reflect “NIL” demand due to prior voluntary payment.

iv) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 10.04.2026 by which information is given that pre-deposit percentage field is made editable at the time of filing the appeal on the GST Portal.

B. INSTRUCTIONS

(i) The Department of Revenue has issued Instructions bearing no. GSTAT/Pr. Bench/Portal/125/2025-26/3368 dt.10.03.2026 by which certain instructions are issued in relation to filing of appeals before GSTAT.

C. FINANCE ACT

The amendments in GST, suggested in Budget of 2026-27 and incorporated in Finance Bill, 2026, are now become part of GST Act due to coming into operation Finance Act,2026 (Act No.4 of 2026) dated 30.03.2026

D. ADVANCE RULINGS

6. Naga Hanuman Fish Packers 

(AAR Order No. 15/AP/GST/2025 dt.07.11.2025) (AP)

Classification – Labelled and Packaged: inner packaging which ranges from 0.25 Kgs to 20Kg becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category, which is mandated to bear the declarations.

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is engaged in the business of processing and exporting of shrimps. The applicant procures raw shrimps locally from farmers and processes them at the factory. Shrimp processing includes washing, de-veining, peeling, de-heading, tail removal, sorting, grading, and freezing. However, further processing can be done independently based on the customer’s requirement to produce the desired results.

The packaged frozen shrimps are exported to international buyers.

With above background applicant has raised following questions before the Ld. AAR.

“1. Is the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (with a maximum weight of 25 Kilograms each) that includes the design, label, and other specification about the product, subject to GST?

2. Is the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a printed master carton weighing up to 25 Kilograms, subject to GST?”

Applicant referred to entry 2 of Schedule I of Notification No.1/2017-CGST (R) dt. 01.07.2017 as amended vide Notification no.06/2022-CGST(R) dt.13.07.2022 which reads as “All goods (other than fresh or chilled), prepackaged and labelled”.

Based on above, it was canvassed by the applicant that his product is taxable under said entry at 5%.

HELD

After examining the scheme, the ld. AAR observed that a commodity to be considered as ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ shall associate with the following features, viz.,

“a. that which comprises a pre-determined quantity as circumscribed under the meaning of “pre-packaged commodity” vide Section 2(l) of the Legal Metrology Act, and

b. that which is required to bear the declarations under the provisions of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (1 of 2010) and the rules made there under.”

Based on given facts in query, the ld. AAR held that the inner packaging which ranges from 0.25 Kgs to 20Kg becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘prepackaged and labelled’ category, which is mandated to bear the declarations.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the supply will be liable for GST @ 5%, irrespective of the fact whether it is for domestic supply or for export outside the country.

7. Sandeep Vihar Owners Association (M/s. SVOA).

(AAR Order No.KAR.ADRG/12/2026 Dated: 11.02.2026 (Kar)

Valuation – Residential Association:

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is an Apartment Owners’ Association /Resident Welfare Association (RWA) duly registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, 1960.

Applicant has sought advance ruling in respect of the following questions:

“1. If a housing society recovers the actual costs of water supplied to the society and its members through separate monthly debit notes, does this recovery attract GST, despite water being generally exempted from the tax?

2. Whether the applicant liable to pay CGST/ SGST on collection of Common Area Electricity Charges paid by the members and the same recovered on the actual electricity charges billed?

3. Whether the applicant is liable to pay CGST/SGST on amounts which it collects from its members towards a Corpus Fund for future contingencies/major CAPEX. Whether such fund from members will come under the definition of supply and liable to be taxed? If yes, whether it is subject to GST at the time of collection or at the time of utilization?

4. Could the monthly charges levied for the upkeep of the Sandeep Vihar Community Centre be classified as Monthly Maintenance Charges under GST provisions, thereby qualifying for the exemption threshold of Rs. 7500/- per month as per Clause (c) of Sl. No. 77 to the Notification No. 12/2017 State Tax (Rate)dated 30.06.2017?

The ld. AAR noted that the applicant collects monthly maintenance charges from its members to meet the day-to-day maintenance expenses of the society and ensure the smooth functioning of common facilities and services. In addition to these regular charges, the Applicant also collects contributions towards corpus fund, which serves as a reserve to meet future contingencies, unforeseen expenses, major repairs, and long-term capital improvements such as building repainting, structural repairs, refurbishment of water supply systems and similar infrastructure-related requirements.

The applicant, citing his interpretation, sought to contend that none of items involved in questions are taxable.

The ld. AAR held that the Association’s activity towards its members constitute supply of services and falls under Service Code 999598, described as “Home Owners Association”, as per the Scheme of Classification of Services.

In respect of recovery of water charges and electricity charges for common area, the ld. AAR held that the applicant is not selling water or electricity as goods to its members but it is only recovering from members the actual cost of water/electricity procured from third parties such as municipalities or tanker suppliers, electricity body etc. This recovery is integrally linked to the overall service of maintaining the residential complex and its common facilities and rejected the claim of exemption as independent sale of water/electricity or as pure agent.

Regarding the third question about collection of corpus fund from members for the purpose of meeting future capital expenditure, the ld. AAR held then as liable to tax as such collection is towards service to be provided in future.

Applying Section 13(2)(a), the ld. AAR held that the time of supply is triggered on the date of receipt of the corpus fund amount since such collection is considered as an advance towards future supply.

Regarding question (4) about monthly charges levied for the upkeep of the Sandeep Vihar Community Centre and inclusion of same in threshold limit of Rs. 7500/- per month, the ld. AAR held that the monthly maintenance charges collected in the name of Sandeep Vihar Community Centre are towards the day-to-day maintenance, upkeep, and repairs of the Community Centre, which forms an integral part of the entire residential complex and accordingly, the said maintenance charges are exempt from GST within limit of Rs.7,500 per member per month, subject to the condition that the amount represents the inclusive value of maintenance charges for the entire residential complex.

The ld. AAR disposed of application accordingly.

8. Apartment Owners of Raj Lake View

(AAR Order No.KAR.ADRG/11/2026 Dated: 11.02.2026 (Kar)

Valuation for exemption limit – Corpus fund: Corpus fund collection is entirely separate from monthly maintenance charges and both amounts are distinct in character and purpose and therefore, the corpus fund can be treated as separate and independent from monthly maintenance charges, for GST applicability.

FACTS

The facts are that the Applicant is an Apartment Owners’ Association/Resident Welfare Association (RWA) duly registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, 1960.

In addition to the monthly maintenance charges, the Applicant also wishes to collect some corpus fund from its members in order to build up a fund that will be used to carry out capital expenditure such as painting, replacement of capital goods etc., in future.

In view of above, the applicant has sought advance ruling in respect of various questions, mainly about inclusion of corpus fund in exemption limit of Rs.7500 u/e. 77 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

The applicant mainly contended that the collection of Corpus fund is not liable and if liable it is includible in exemption limit of Rs.7500/- per member, per month.

Referring to questions raised, the ld. AAR referred to Section 7 of the CGST Act,2017 and observed that the applicant and its members are to be treated as distinct persons under the Explanation to Section 7(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 and since applicant is doing certain activities for its members, the transaction falls in scope of Section 7.

The ld. AAR also observed that the activities undertaken by a Resident Welfare Association for its members are classifiable under Chapter Heading 9995, falling under the description “Services of Membership Organisations”, and more specifically under Service Code 999598, described as “Home Owners Association”, as per the Scheme of Classification of Services (Annexure).

HELD

The ld. AAR held that the nature of services proposed to be provided by the applicant to its members in the future stands clearly identified and determined and the amounts collected toward the corpus fund are in the nature of advances and not deposits and liable to tax as ‘supply’.

Referring to Provisions of Section 13 of the CGST Act, the ld. AAR observed that tax is attracted as per time of supply provided in section 13 i.e. on date of receipt of payment.

Regarding clubbing of corpus collection within exemption limit of Rs. 7,500/-, the ld. AAR observed about nature of service. The ld. AAR noted purpose of monthly maintenance charges, which are applied towards regular, recurring, and continuous services necessary for day-to-day upkeep and functioning of the residential society.

Regarding nature of collection of corpus fund, the ld. AAR observed that the corpus fund is collected one time or infrequently and it is specifically earmarked for capital or major non-recurring expenditures, such as, Major structural repairs of the building, External/internal painting of the building & Replacement or major overhaul of lifts etc.

Based on above, the ld. AAR held that Corpus fund collection is entirely separate from monthly maintenance charges and both amounts are distinct in character and purpose and therefore, the corpus fund can be treated as separate and independent from monthly maintenance charges, for GST applicability.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the corpus fund collection is not includable in exemption limit of Rs. 7,500/-.

[Compiler’s Note:

The implication appears to be that corpus fund collected will be taxable independently without reference to exemption available upto Rs. 7,500/- per member per month.]

9. Laxmi Health Care Centre & ICCU

(AAR Order No.GST-ARA-68/2020-21/B-628 dated: 28.11.2025 (Mah)

Taxability vis-à-vis Healthcare Services

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is a partnership firm and operating as nursing home holding registration certificate under Maharashtra Nursing Home Registration Act, 1949.

The applicant provides health care services with the help of professional doctors and is equipped to treat the patients admitted to the hospital. Also, the hospital has its in-house pharmacy/ chemist operating under trade name “LAXMI CHEMIST” for supply of medicines and allied items. For the purpose of administration and identification, the patients visiting the hospital are categorized as “in-patients” and “out-patients”.

In relation to “in-patients”, applicant provides stay facilities, medicines, consumables etc. during course of the treatment. The medicines are prescribed to them as part of treatment and care for illness. The invoice/bill raised for the treatment to an inpatient is a single bill with detailed bifurcation of charges (like room rent, nursing care charges, laboratory, consumables, medicines, equipment charges, doctor’s fee, etc.) towards all the facilities/ services provided during the course of treatment in the hospital.

The “out-patients” are those who visit the hospital for consultation, diagnosis and check-up from the professional doctors. The doctors prescribe applicable medicines to such patients and it is the choice of the patient whether to follow the medical advice given by the doctor or not.

Based on above facts, applicant sought ruling on following questions:

“1. Whether charges recovered towards pathological test, radiological test and other medical test, bed charges and charges for medicines & other consumables during course rendering medical treatment to in-patients is single supply of healthcare service?

2. Whether applicant is eligible for exemption under Sl. No. 74 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June 2017 for above charges recovered from in patients under 1 common contract/ invoice?”

The applicant submitted that the services to in-patients are composite services and principal supply is health care services and hence covered by exemption entry 74 in Notification No.12/2017-CT(R) dated 28.6.2017.

The ld. AAR made reference to SAC 9993 wherein in-patient services are covered. The ld. AAR observed as under:

“5.6 Thus, inpatient services means services provided by hospitals to inpatients under the direction of medical doctors aimed at curing, restoring and/ or maintaining the health of a patient and the service comprises of medical, pharmaceutical and paramedical services, rehabilitation services, nursing services and laboratory and technical services till the patient gets discharged. A complete gamut of activities required for well-being of a patient from admission till discharge, provided by a hospital under the direction of medical doctors is a composite supply of service and is covered under ‘Inpatient services’ classifiable under SAC 999311.”

HELD

Based on above position, the ld. AAR held that the charges for in-patients are covered by exemption entry 74 of Notification No.12/2017-CT(R) dated 28.06.2017 subject to fact that tax will be payable on the room rent charges (other than ICU/CCU etc. as mentioned in the notification), if the same is more than Rs.5,000/-.

Thus the ld. AAR disposed of application in affirmative.

10. Vegan Wood Pvt. Ltd.

(AAAR Order No.GUJ/GAAAR/APPEAL/2026/01 (In application no. Advance Ruling/SGST & CGST/2025/AR/01) dated: 25.02.2026 (Guj)

Remand by AAAR – Possible

FACTS

The present appeal was filed under section 100 of the CGST Act, by M/s. Vegan Wood Private Limited (for short – ‘Appellant’) against the

Advance Ruling No. GUJ/GAAR/R/2025/04, dated 21.03.2025 – 2025-VIL-40-AAR.

The appellant is engaged in the manufacture of ‘Natural

Fibre Composite Board’ [NFC], also commonly referred to as Rice Husk Boards, at their manufacturing facility.

The appellant filed application for determination of classification of above product.

The ld. AAR rejected to entertain AR application on ground that the appellant has failed to provide details like purchase invoices of inputs, copies of sales invoices, brochure etc. Considering lack of adequate details, the ld. AAR held that application is non-maintainable.

In appeal, the appellant produced the relevant material.

HELD

The ld. AAAR found that as per plain reading of subsection (1) of the section 101, the appellate authority can pass such order as it thinks fit, by either confirming or modifying the ruling pronounced by the advance ruling authority.

The ld. AAAR also observed that the material produced before it by applicant is for the first time, which needs to be verified for its factual accuracy and with relevance to the issue in question.

The ld. AAAR, therefore, deemed it appropriate to remand back the matter to the AAR to examine the issue afresh in the light of the materials and records now available.

[Compiler’s Note:

Normally when the power in appeal is for ‘confirming’ or ‘modifying’ the order appealed against, remand is not done.

However, considering above appeal order it can be said that the AAAR has power to remand also.]

Intermediary Services – Past, Present & Future!!!

The Finance Act 2026 resolves a decade of litigation by omitting Section 13(8)(b) of the IGST Act, effective March 30, 2026. This amendment aligns Indian law with global destination-based principles, allowing intermediary services provided to foreign clients to qualify as zero-rated exports. However, the transition creates compliance challenges, particularly concerning the Time of Supply for services spanning the amendment date. Furthermore, Indian recipients of foreign intermediary services must now pay GST under the reverse charge mechanism. While the reform enhances competitiveness, its prospective nature suggests that ongoing litigation relating to past liabilities will persist

INTRODUCTION

For over a decade, India’s classification of ‘intermediary services’ has led to aggressive tax assessments and prolonged litigation. By taxing local agents and brokers for services provided to foreign clients, authorities effectively denied such businesses export benefits. While the Finance Act 2026, finally resolves this issue by aligning Indian law with global destination-based taxation principles, navigating the transition requires careful attention to historical definitions, place-of-supply rules, and ongoing litigation.

TAXABILITY UNDER THE PRE-GST REGIME:

Prior to July 1, 2012, service tax law broadly classified such services under the taxable category of “Business Auxiliary Services”. The definition, inter alia, covered activities such as marketing, customer care, procurement, production, and commission agent services.

In July 2012, the Government introduced a specific definition of ‘intermediary services.’ which included any broker or agent facilitating the supply of goods or services between two or more parties. Crucially, it excluded persons providing the main service on a principal-to-principal basis.

Pursuant to this amendment, the supplier’s location deemed to be the place of provision of service. Consequently, services rendered to foreign clients no longer qualified as export of services, resulting in substantial litigation.

The Principal to Principal (‘P2P’) vs. Principal to Agent (‘P2A’) dilemma:

The introduction of the definition of ‘intermediary services’ led to disputes on two fronts:

(i) what constitutes intermediary services; and
(ii) the taxability of cross-border transactions.

The Department often used this definition as a “catch-all” provision to tax all facilitation activities not only when the main transaction was not taxable, but also in cases involving subcontracting. For instance, in cases involving advertising in print media (where service tax was not leviable) or freight forwarders, (where the main service of transportation of goods was not leviable to tax/ exempted/ qualified as exports), the Department sought to classify such transactions as Principal to Agent rather than Principal to Principal, arguing that the margin constituted consideration for business auxiliary or intermediary services. However, in multiple consistent rulings, the Tribunal came to the aid of business. In Grey Worldwide (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Mumbai [2015 (37) S.T.R. 597 (Tri. – Mumbai)], the Tribunal held that incentives received by advertising companies without any contractual obligation were not liable to Service Tax under “Business Auxiliary Services”. Similarly, in (Greenwich Meridian Logistics (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Mumbai [2017 (49) S.T.R. 233 (Tri. – Mumbai)], Tiger Logistics India Limited vs. Commissioner [(2023) 9 Centax 117 (Tri.-Del)], etc.,), the tribunal held that the surplus earned by freight forwarders constituted trading profit and not consideration for intermediary service.

Even businesses dealing in goods were affected. Motor vehicle showrooms received show-cause notices (‘SCNs’) demanding service tax on incentives received from manufacturers for achieving sales targets. These demands were ultimately set aside, with the Tribunal holding such discounts to be a reduction in purchase price and not consideration for a service [CST, Mumbai I vs. Sai Service Station Ltd. [2014 (35) S.T.R. 625 (Tri. – Mumbai)], Jubilant Motor Works (South) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Chennai (2024) 17 Centax 239 (Tri.-Mad), Sanghi Cars (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner of CGST and Central Excise, Jaipur (2025) 37 Centax 223 (Tri.-Del), etc.].

GST 2026

These aggressive assessment tactics compelled courts to determine whether a transaction was undertaken on a Principal-to-Principal (‘P2P’) basis or a Principal-to-Agent (‘P2A’) basis. A P2P arrangement would exclude the transaction from the scope of intermediary services, whereas a P2A arrangement would attract the intermediary provisions. The CESTAT in Microsoft India (R&D) Private Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Bangalore East [(2025) 26 Centax 97 (Tri.-Bang)] held that services rendered on a P2P basis cannot be classified as intermediary services. Similarly, in Blackberry India Private Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Delhi [(2023) 10 Centax 236 (Tri.-Del)], the Tribunal held that the mere fact that consideration is determined on a cost-plus basis does not render the services intermediary in nature. Further, in Marriott International Chain Entities v. Commissioner [2026-VIL-22-CESTAT-DEL-ST], the Tribunal held that activities such as identifying, recruiting, and supervising senior hotel employees for foreign group entities are undertaken in the capacity of an independent contractor-contractee, and do not amount to services provided to end customers on behalf of the principal.

The “benefit” conundrum:

The second area of friction relates to the “place of provision of service”. Board Circular 141/10/2011 dated 13.05.2011 clarified that export benefits would be allowed only if the benefit of the service should accrue outside India. The Circular further stated that the services shall be said to have accrued at the place where effective use and enjoyment of the service has been obtained. In the context of advertising services, the Circular clarified that the effective use of advertising services occurs at the place where the advertising material is disseminated to the audience.

However, the Tribunal in Paul Merchants Ltd. vs. CCE, Chandigarh [2013 (29) S.T.R. 257 (Tri.-Del)] disagreed with this approach and held that the location of the contractual service recipient is the determinative factor for identifying the place of provision of services, reiterating that the contractual relationship is key, and the actual place of performance may not be decisive in determining the place of supply/place of provision of the service. Similarly, in Vodafone Essar Cellular Ltd. vs. CCE, Pune III [2013 (31) S.T.R. 738 (Tri. – Mumbai)], the Tribunal held that International Inbound Roaming Services provided by Vodafone India to Foreign Telecom Operators (FTOs) by enabling their subscribers to access Indian networks while traveling in India’s case qualified as export of service, even though the services were consumed in India. Even in relation to goods, the Tribunal in Microsoft Corporation (I) Private Limited vs. CST, New Delhi [2014 (36) S.T.R. 766 (Tri. – Del.)] held that marketing and promotional activities undertaken in India to boost sales of products manufactured by foreign entities would qualify as export of services, since the services were rendered to foreign manufacturers. Notably, the decisions in Vodafone and Microsoft were subsequently upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in (2025) 33 Centax 152 (S.C.),

TAXABILITY UNDER THE GST REGIME:

Under the GST regime, the definition of “intermediary” and the rule for determining the place of supply remained largely aligned with the service tax regime, i.e., the supplier’s location continued to be the place of supply vide section 13 (8) (b) of the IGST Act, 2017. Therefore, intermediary services provided to foreign clients remained taxable in India. However, under the GST scheme, when an Indian intermediary provides services to a foreign customer and receives consideration in foreign exchange, such a transaction is treated as an intrastate supply, thereby attracting CGST & SGST. The constitutional validity of section 13 (8) (b) was challenged before the Bombay High Court, wherein, after a split opinion, the majority in Dharmendra M. Jani vs. UOI [2023-VIL-346-BOM] held that the provisions are constitutionally valid. However, the court held that a legal fiction created by a central statute (the IGST Act) for a specific purpose cannot extend beyond it to permit the levy of local taxes under other statutes (the CGST or MGST Acts). Therefore, when provided to foreign clients, the intermediary service would be liable to IGST, and not CGST & SGST.

Beyond jurisdictional disputes, the core definition of an ‘intermediary’ remained contentious. To mitigate this, the Board issued Circular 159/15/2021-GST clarifying that the absence of any of the following elements would mean that a service does not qualify as “intermediary services”.

(i) Minimum three parties
(ii) Two distinct supplies
(iii) Agent/ broker character
(iv) Exclusion for services provided on “own account”

The Circular further clarified specific industry-wide issues, such as whether sub-contracting constitutes intermediary services, backend and support services, etc. Despite the above clarifications, ambiguity persisted, compelling businesses to seek judicial intervention. Some notable decisions granting relief are as follows:

  •  In Genpact India Private Limited vs. UOI [(2022) 1 Centax 226 (P&H.)], the High Court had to determine whether BPO Services subcontracted to the Indian service provider by the foreign group company would qualify as export of services, or be taxable under the “intermediary” basket. The High Court, rejecting the Department’s stand, held that in the absence of P2A relationship between the supplier and recipient, the service could not be classified as “intermediary” and therefore, qualified as exports.
  •  The Delhi High Court in Boks Business Services Private Limited vs. Commissioner [(2023) 10 Centax 44 (Del.)] held that service of providing bookkeeping, payroll maintenance, and accounting services through the use of cloud technology to its affiliated entity incorporated in the United Kingdom did not constitute intermediary services.
  •  The Gujarat High Court in Infodesk India Pvt. Limited v. Union of India [2025-VIL-1242-GUJ] held that software consultancy services provided to a parent company under a service agreement on own account did not classify as intermediary services.
  •  In Ernst & Young Ltd. v. Additional Commissioner [73 G.S.T.L. 161 (Del.)], the High Court held that provision of professional and legal services on own account to overseas group entities did not qualify as intermediary services.
  •  In IQVIA RDS (India) Private Limited v. Union of India [2025-VIL-1369-KAR], the High Court held that conducting clinical trials and allied data management services for a foreign parent company does not fall under intermediary services.
  •  In Cube Highways and Transportation Assets Advisor Pvt. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner [9 Centax 290 (Del.)], it was held that investment advisory services, including identification of investment opportunities in India and preparation of reports, do not qualify as intermediary services.

What changes from 30.03.2026?

The Finance Act, 2026, notified w.e.f 30.03.2026, omits Section 13 (8) (b) of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2017. As a result of this amendment, intermediary services provided to foreign clients, which were not eligible for export classification up to 29.03.2026, may now qualify as exports, since the place of supply will be determined u/s 13 (2). Consequently, such services may become eligible for zero-rating.

Sectoral impact of the amendment

While the amendment, in general, brings relief to most sectors by allowing export benefit to services provided to foreign clients, certain sectors may continue to be outside the export classification.

For instance, steamer agents (also known as Shipping Agents) act as the local legal representative of Foreign Principal (the ship owner, operator, or charterer). Since foreign entities cannot easily navigate local port regulations, customs laws, and vendor management from abroad, the steamer agent serves as their “eyes and ears” on the ground and are responsible for all acts of the vessel while in Indian waters. This includes:

  •  Paying port dues and penalties, ensuring compliance with environmental and safety laws,
  • Filing the Import General Manifest (IGM) before the ship arrives and the Export General Manifest (EGM) before it departs,
  • Coordinating with Customs authorities for the “Entry Inwards” and “Grant of Port Clearance”,
  • Liaising with major ports for other documentation, arranging for “Bunkering” (fuel), fresh water, provisions (food), and spare parts delivery,
  • Coordinating with local workshops for underwater inspections or emergency mechanical repair
  • Tracking the movement of empty and loaded boxes within the hinterland

Before the amendment, the services were classified under the intermediary basket. With the amendment becoming effective, the agents must return to the drawing board and determine the place of supply u/s 13. A key question arises as to whether such services are covered: u/s 13 (2), i.e., the general rule which treats the location of recipient of service as the place of supply, or section 13 (3) (a), which provides that the location where the services are actually performed shall be the place of supply in case of services supplied in respect of goods which are required to be made physically available by the recipient of services to the supplier of services, or to a person acting on behalf of the supplier of services in order to provide the services. While one may argue that a steamer agent does not perform any services on the goods and therefore, the section 13 (3) does not apply, the Tribunal had in ATA Freightline (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner [2022 (64) G.S.T.L. 97 (Tri.-Bom)] held that the clause will apply only if the goods concerned with the rendering of service are made available to the ‘provider’ or ‘person acting on behalf of provider’ by the ‘recipient of service’ for being put to use in the course of rendering service. It is a fact that the steamer agents provide services relating to vessels, and the provision of such services does not require them to put the vessel to use. Therefore, steamer agents should be eligible to classify their services u/s 13 (2), though litigation on this front cannot be ruled out.

The second impacted sector is the art gallery/ auction house sector, which regularly conducts auctions of paintings, jewelry, and other artifacts. At times, the item is imported from outside India for auction purposes. The art gallery/auction house, as the agent of the owner, may discharge the applicable GST upon the successful completion of the auction. However, the question arises is whether their service fees/ commission charged to the foreign owner would be covered u/s 13 (2) or section 13 (3). In this case, the physical possession of the item passes to the art gallery/ auction house, without which they cannot provide the services. Therefore, GST is payable not only to the sale of items (as an agent), but also on the service charges/ commission received, since the place of supply would still be covered u/s 13 (3) (a).

A similar situation arises for event managers/ line producers (applicable to film production), who provide services to foreign clients on an agency basis. In such cases, section 13 (3) (b) may be triggered since the services would require the recipient to be physically present to receive the services, and therefore, the place of supply would be the location where the services are performed.

IMPACT ON REVERSE CHARGE MECHANISM

As a logical corollary, the amendment would imply that services received from the foreign intermediary by an Indian company would now be classifiable as “import of services” and tax would be payable on reverse charge mechanism. While the tax so paid would be available as input tax credit, this would result in some timing difference and associated cash flow issues.

For example, exporters paying commission to overseas agents will be now required to pay GST under RCM on such remittances. They may face a cash flow issue till the time the input tax credit is utilized against domestic tax payments or refunded under section 54.

Transition impact – time of supply challenges

Services completed before March 30, 2026, face distinct time-of-supply implications. Sections 12 & 13 of the CGST Act, 2017 govern the determination of time of supply (ToS) in ordinary circumstances, while Section 14 applies when there is a change in the effective tax rate. A key question arises: Does the shift to zero-rating constitute a ‘change in the effective rate of tax’? This is relevant because the services remain taxable at 18% pre- and post-amendment, with the only change being eligibility for zero-rating. Therefore, the Time of Supply must be determined in the context of Section 13 r.w. Section 31 of the CGST Act, 2017.

Under Section 13, r.w. Section 31 provides that the time of supply of services in case of regular services, i.e., other than services classified as continuous supply of services, shall be as follows:

  •  Invoice Issued within Time: If the invoice is issued within the period prescribed under Section 31 (generally 30 days), the time of supply is the date of issue of the invoice or the date of receipt of payment, whichever is earlier.
  •  Invoice Not Issued within Time: If the invoice is not issued within the prescribed period, the time of supply is the date of provision of service or the date of receipt of payment, whichever is earlier.

Payments received on or before March 29, 2026, would remain taxable. For pending payments, businesses must track invoice dates. A service completed with its 30-day invoice window triggering before March 29 remains taxable, even if invoiced later.

A detailed review of invoices issued after 29.03.2026 is therefore essential to ensure that transactions are correctly classified particularly to verify whether the completion of service and the expiry of the 30-day period occurred prior to the cut-off date. This issue becomes especially relevant in the context of year-end provisions, which are typically reversed in the subsequent financial year upon issuance of invoices. Where businesses intend to claim that the service was completed on or after March 29, 2026, robust documentary evidence must be maintained to substantiate such claims. In the absence of such evidence, the tax authorities may dispute the export classification.

While the GST law, does not explicitly define “completion of service,” guidance may be drawn from Circular 144/13/2011-ST dated 18.07.2011, which clarifies that completion of service encompasses not only the physical performance of the service, but also the completion of all other auxiliary activities necessary to enable the service provider to issue an invoice. Such auxiliary activities may include measurement, quality testing, and other tasks that may be essential prerequisites for identifying service completion. Taxpayers should evaluate the point of completion of services, keeping these principles in mind.

On the other hand, in the case of a continuous supply of services, the contractual terms assume critical importance, since the liability to issue the invoice is based on the contractual terms u/s 31 (5) (and, more importantly, the 30-day grace available for normal services is not available). Section 31 (5) prescribes the following timelines for issuing the invoice in case of continuous supply of services:

  •  On or before the due date of payment, if ascertainable from the contract.
  • On or before the date of completion of an event, if payment is linked to milestones (e.g., construction milestones).
  •  Before or at the time of receipt of payment, if the due date is not ascertainable.

For example, an indenting agent may have arranged/facilitated transactions for clients during March 2026. under an ongoing contractual arrangement, wherein commission becomes payable upon completion of each deal. However, for administrative convenience, the agent may raise a consolidated invoice at the end of the month.

In such cases, the agent would not be entitled to claim export benefits to the extent that the liability to issue the invoice had already arisen on or before March 29, 2026.

From a reverse-charge perspective (services received from foreign intermediaries), section 13 (3) provides that the liability to pay tax in case of supplies received from unregistered persons shall be the date of issue of invoice by the recipient, which u/r 47A must be issued within 30 days from the date of receipt of the supply, or the date of payment to the supplier, whichever is earlier. Therefore, in cases where the payment to the supplier was made on or before 29.03.2026, the time of supply triggered on or before 29.03.2026, i.e., GST will not be applicable.

However, even if payment is not made to the supplier on or before 29.03.2026, if the self-invoice is generated before 29.03.2026 (whether due or not), the pre-amendment provisions will apply, and GST will not be applicable.

While businesses manage these immediate transitional compliance hurdles, a broader legal question remains: does this amendment apply retrospectively to wipe out past liabilities. For example, in cases where the receipt of service is completed on or before 29.03.2026, when there is no liability to pay tax or to generate a self-invoice, since the supply did not constitute an import of services. It must be noted that since both the location of the supplier and the place of supply were outside India, the levy provisions did not trigger since the supply could not be classified either as interstate or intrastate.

The question is whether generating a self-invoice would create a liability to pay under the amended law, even if the due date to issue a self-invoice falls on or before 29.03.2026? In such a case, a view can be taken that inbound intermediary services that were not liable to tax prior to the amendment became taxable only from 30.03.2026 onwards. Therefore, relying on the landmark decision in the case of Collector of C. Ex., Hyderabad v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd. [1996 (83) E.L.T. 3 (S.C.)], a view can be taken that since no GST was leviable when the service was supplied, the liability cannot be triggered based on collection provisions under the law [specifically, section 13 (3)].

EFFECT OF THE AMENDMENT – RETROSPECTIVE VS. PROSPECTIVE:

Most GST amendments explicitly state if they are retrospective. Because the Finance Act 2026 omits Section 13(8)(b) without such language—and creates new export rights—it operates prospectively. Consequently, taxpayers face a critical battle over pending litigation. It is a settled principle of law, legislation—be it a statutory Act or a rule—is presumed not to have retrospective operation unless a contrary intention is expressly stated.

Further, the amendment results in the omission of a charging or jurisdictional provision with a specific future effective date (30.03.2026) and creates a new set of rights (eligibility for export benefits) and removes a tax disability, it is a substantive change that normally operates prospectively, and not mere “clarificatory” or “declaratory”, to be treated as retrospective.

How does the amendment impact ongoing litigation? Since the IGST Act is a “Central Act” as defined under Section 3(7) of the GCA, the effects of the omission (which is legally equivalent to a repeal) are governed by Section 6 of the GCA. Section 6 (c) provides that, unless a different intention appears, the repeal shall not “affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under any enactment so repealed”. Section 6 (e) further stipulates that any investigation or legal proceeding in respect of such liability may be “instituted, continued or enforced” as if the repealing Act had not been passed.

While some courts have held that an “omission” of a Rule without a savings clause causes pending proceedings to lapse (because Section 6 GCA does not apply to subordinate Rules), the same does not apply to an Act. For the IGST Act, Section 6 specifically preserves liabilities incurred prior to 30.03.2026. It is therefore likely on the Department’s part to maintain that for all periods up to 29.03.2026, Section 13 (8) (b) remains the valid law. Therefore, the liability was “incurred” at the time of supply. The taxpayers may rebut this by arguing that the omission, without a saving clause, reflects a “different intention” under Section 6 of the GCA and, therefore, the pending Show Cause Notices and unfinalized orders should lapse, as they no longer have a statutory foundation to support a demand.

CONCLUSION:

The omission of Section 13(8)(b) marks the end of a decade-long era of litigation and finally aligns Indian intermediary taxation with global ‘destination-based’ principles. While the shift to zero-rating offers a significant competitive boost for Indian service providers, the transition period remains a compliance minefield. Businesses must act to document service completion meticulously and re-evaluate contractual terms to ensure they don’t lose the benefits of this landmark reform to avoidable Time of Supply disputes.”

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

3. Central Bureau of Investigation vs. Baljeet Singh

Criminal Appeal (Arising out of Special Leave Petition (Crl.) No. 12486 of 2025) decided on 10.03.2026

Prosecution – Bribe – Charge of conspiracy and/ or charge of demand and acceptance – If the charge under the Indian Penal Code read with the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 linked with the charge of conspiracy, was the only one levelled, then if one is acquitted, the other cannot be convicted – However, if there is another charge of demand and acceptance against both, which, as against the two, is not inextricably linked by a definite charge of conspiracy, the second charge can be proved against both or against one independently

PW1, the complainant, was a partner of a firm whose Assessing Officer under the Income-tax Act, 1961 was the 1st Appellant/1st Accused (A1). A notice had been issued to the Assessee for the assessment year 2008-09, which was pending in the office of A1.

To finalize the same, PW1 approached the 2nd Appellant/2nd Accused(A2), an Income-tax Inspector who was a subordinate of A1.

It was the complaint of PW1 that in October 2010, he had met both the Appellants concerned in connection with the scrutiny of the accounts of the firm in which he was a partner, pursuant to which he was directed to furnish information, which was duly submitted. On 27.12.2010, PW1 went to the Income-tax Office, where he met A2, who took him to A1. After discussions, when PW1 was coming out with A2, A2 made a demand of Rs.5 lakhs, purportedly on behalf of A1.

PW1 protested, and when the second Appellant persisted, he haggled for a lesser amount, pointing out that in October 2010, the demand was for a far lesser amount of Rs.1,50,000/-. The second Appellant refused to budge, which prompted PW1 to approach the CBI with a complaint.

The complaint was verified by PW22, referred to as the Trap Laying Officer (TLO). The TLO called for two independent witnesses from the House Taxes Department of the Municipal Corporation of Delhi, PW10 and PW18. In the presence of the independent witnesses, there was a telephonic conversation between PW1 and A2, which was recorded on a Digital Voice Recorder (DVR) and transferred to a CD.

PW1 is alleged to have informed A2 that he had only Rs.2 lakhs in his possession, upon which A2 directed PW1 to come to his office in the Drum shaped Building, IP Estate, New Delhi. The pre-trap proceedings were carried out in the presence of the independent witnesses, wherein 200 notes of Rs.1,000/- each, smeared with phenolphthalein powder, were prepared. After noting down their serial numbers, the notes were kept in an envelope, which was also smeared with the powder.

The entire proceedings were recorded and reduced to writing in the Handing Over Memo (HOM), signed by the complainant, the TLO and the independent witnesses. PW1 was given a DVR to record the conversation likely to take place between PW1 and A2.

The team reached the Income Tax Office, upon which PW1, followed by the TLO and the other members of the team, entered the building. PW1, on reaching the office of A2, was informed that he was in A1’s room. PW1 then went to A1’s office room, where he found only A2, to whom he handed over the envelope, which A2 put in his coat pocket.

PW1 walked out of the room, followed by A2, and, as prearranged, touched his shoe to signal the TLO. The TLO gave a signal to the team, confronted A2, and took him back into the room. The independent witnesses also entered the room, PW18 along with the TLO, and PW10 a little later with the other members of the team. The TLO and another constable caught hold of A2’s hands, and one of the independent witnesses, PW18, was asked to search A2. As pointed out by PW1, the envelope was recovered from A2’s coat pocket by PW18 and handed over to the TLO.

The notes were taken out from the envelope recovered from A2’s coat pocket, and both the hands of A2, when submerged in two separate tumblers of Sodium Carbonate solution, turned pink, revealing the taint of acceptance of the powdered envelope with the marked notes.

The TLO asked for A1, who was said to be in the Commissioner’s office. The TLO proceeded to the Commissioner’s office and, after making a request to the Commissioner, escorted A1 back to his room, where the trap team had detained A1. Statements were taken from both A1 & A2, and their arrest were recorded.

After investigation, charges were framed for conspiracy under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code and for the offence under Section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (for brevity, “the PC Act”). The prosecution examined twenty-three witnesses and produced relevant documents, as well as transcript of the conversation between PW1 and A2 over telephone and in person, recorded on the DVR.

The defense examined three witnesses, two of whom were officers of the Income Tax Department, and DW2, a Junior Judicial Assistant at the record room of the Sessions Court at Patiala House Courts. The Trial Court listed fifteen circumstances found to be established and held that the charges against both the accused were proved.

Convicting the Accused under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code r/w Section 7 of the PC Act, and separately under Section 7 of the PC Act, the court imposed a sentence, of years’ rigorous imprisonment on each count and a fine of Rs.1 lakh on each count for both accused, with default sentences of simple imprisonment for months each.

The High Court, by the impugned decision, found that no conspiracy was proved and that there was no proof of a demand having been made by A2 and A1. While disbelieving the conspiracy angle, it noted the trite principle that conspiracy is always difficult to establish since it is invariably conceived and executed in secrecy

Upon examining the evidence, it was found that merely because A1 was the Assessing Officer and A2 was assisting him, this by itself was not sufficient to establish a prior meeting of minds between A1 and A2 in furtherance of the commission of the crime.

In the absence of proof of the conspiracy theory and finding no evidence of demand for a bribe, the High Court overturned the conviction of both the accused.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (the “CBI”) which laid the trap at the instance of the complaint made by PW1, appealed before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court observed that, in addition to the charge under Section 120B of IPC, both the accused were separately alleged to have demanded money and accepted it. This demand and acceptance, even as per the statement of PW1, was not established against A1 but very much present against A2. According to the Supreme Court, the statement that A2 informed PW1 that the bribe was for A1 was of no consequence insofar as A1’s culpability is concerned. However, since A2 was also an officer of the Department carrying on the assessment, actively participating in the assessment proceedings as stated by PW1, A2 was in a position of authority to influence the assessment proceedings, as far as PW1 was concerned, and that was the purpose for which the demand for a bribe was made.

According to the Supreme Court, if the charge under the PC Act linked with the charge of conspiracy was the only one levelled, then if one is acquitted, the other cannot be convicted. However, in this case, there was another charge of demand and acceptance against both, which, as against the two, are not inextricably linked by a definite charge of conspiracy. The second charge can be proved against both or against one independently, as there is no meeting of minds alleged.

The Supreme Court noted from the evidence of PW22 that, after fully corroborating the trap, it was deposed that, on being challenged, A2 remained silent. It was also testified that A2 attempted to escape and take out the money. PW1 pointed out the upper pocket of A2’s coat where he had kept the envelope, which was recovered by PW18, as fully corroborated by PW22. PW10 also stated that the person apprehended in A1’s room turned pale. All these constituted relevant conduct of A2 pointing to his guilt, fortified by the recovery of the marked cash from his body and the fact that his hands, coat and sweater, when washed in the test solution, turned pink, as deposed by the witnesses.

The Supreme Court was unable to accept the order of acquittal passed by the High Court insofar as A2 was concerned, especially noting that the demand had been specifically spoken of by PW1 and had also been stated in his complaint before the CBI. The pre-trap proceedings were clearly established by the evidence of PW1, PW10, PW18 and PW22. Insofar as the trap proceedings are concerned, there was complete corroboration of the testimony of PW1 by that of PW22, the TLO. There was also sufficient corroboration from PW10 and PW18, the independent witnesses, regarding the apprehension of a person, who was identified in Court by PW10. Though not identified by PW18, it was PW18 who recovered the envelope from the coat pocket of the apprehended person, who was A2. The hand wash of A2 was also established beyond doubt. The marked notes were identified from the numbers recorded in the HOM at the time of pre-trap proceedings, corroborated by all the above witnesses. The Supreme Court held that the High Court had rightly observed that there was neither proof of demand nor acceptance by A1, except for the statement of PW1 that A2 demanded the bribe on behalf of A1. No reliance can be placed on such a statement made by the co-accused, and no conviction can be entered on that basis.

However, the Supreme Court was inclined to set aside the acquittal insofar as A2 was concerned and restore the order of the Trial Court convicting him for the offence under Section 7 of the PC Act, there being no conspiracy under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code established. The sentence of four years of rigorous imprisonment imposed by the Trial Court was modified to one year, considering the age of A2, along with a fine of Rs. 1 lakh and a default sentence of simple imprisonment of three months, as awarded by the Trial Court, which would stand restored and confirmed. A2 was ordered to surrender within a period of four weeks from the date of the order.

The appeal was accordingly allowed to the extent indicated above.

S. 119(2)(b) – Intimation u/s. 143(1) – mistake in the original computation – Delay in filing application – In the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be made – The actual intimation has not been brought on record, nor any proof of service.

3. Paresh M. Shetti Versus Principal Commissioner of Income-Tax (PCIT) – 41

[ WRIT PETITION (L) NO. 10371 OF 2025 Dated: APRIL 15, 2026 ]

S. 119(2)(b) – Intimation u/s. 143(1) – mistake in the original computation – Delay in filing application – In the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be made – The actual intimation has not been brought on record, nor any proof of service.

The Petitioner is a Computer Training Institute, a franchisee of the Computer Management and Information Technology (CMIT), and has been a regular taxpayer for the last 25 years. For the Assessment Year 2008-2009, the Petitioner filed his Income Tax Return through his Chartered Accountant on 31st July 2008. This was the first year of filing e-returns, as the Income Tax Department had transitioned from paper filing to an e-filing mode. According to the Petitioner, the online software through which data was to be entered into the portal did not generate auto-populated tax amounts against the declared incomes. This led to errors, and the amount had to be entered manually.

The Petitioner’s Return was filed on 31st July 2008, which was the last date for filing the Return within the due date. According to the Petitioner, for the Assessment Year in question, he did not receive any intimation under Section 143(1) by post, nor was any intimation visible upon logging into his Income Tax Account electronically.

It transpires that for A.Y. 2018-2019, the Petitioner had claimed a refund of R9,040/- in the return filed with the Income Tax Department. This return was duly processed under Section 143(1) by accepting the income as filed, and the said refund amount, along with interest under Section 244, was approved. However, the Petitioner did not receive credit for this refund because it was purportedly adjusted against an alleged demand for earlier years. This came as a shock to the Petitioner, as he had no knowledge of any such pending demand. It was at this stage that the Petitioner came to know from the portal that a demand of Rs 96,812/- for A.Y. 2008-2009 was outstanding. To ascertain the factual situation, the Petitioner addressed a communication dated 26th November 2019 to the Income Tax Officer, to which there was no response. It is further stated that the Petitioner’s Chartered Accountant also visited the Income Tax Department, and, upon speaking to the concerned ward officials, was advised to lodge a complaint/grievance through the online portal.

Accordingly, the Petitioner filed a grievance on the e-Nivaran portal on 24th January 2020, requesting rectification to nullify the demand. Thereafter, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, from March 2020, all offices were closed, and the Petitioner’s case with respect to the above rectification was temporarily stalled. It has been stated in the Petition that during the period of 2020-2021, the Petitioner and his family faced significant hardship, and the Petitioner was diagnosed with COVID-19 twice during the said period. Due to the severity of his condition, it took considerable time for him to recover. The Petitioner also lost close relatives during this period. Owing to these circumstances, the Petitioner was unable to focus on work-related matters and could not follow up on the grievance filed with the Income Tax Department.

The grievance of the Petitioner filed on the portal was closed on 26th May 2020. The resolution for the grievance stated that the return for A.Y. 2008-2009 declared the income at Rs 5,31,714/- and the credit for prepaid taxes of Rs 35,450/- had already been given. Since the Petitioner contended that the income for that year was Rs 2,81,713, the office was unable to process the rectification request due to the discrepancy between Rs 5,31,714/- and Rs 2,81,713.

Thereafter, upon closely examining the Return filed for A.Y. 2008-2009, the Petitioner found that there was a clear mistake in the original computation, namely, that the Loss from House Property of Rs. 1,50,000/-, was not included in the Return. This occurred because the Petitioner had availed a housing loan at that time, and had claimed such deductions in earlier as well as subsequent years. However, it was inadvertently omitted for A.Y. 2008-2009.

The Petitioner subsequently filed an application under Section 119(2)(b) dated 12th October 2023 with the PCIT-41, seeking permission to file a revised Return for A.Y. 2008-2009 to bringing on record the correct figures. This application was rejected by order dated 25th November 2024, and hence, the present Petition.

The Petitioner contended that the Respondent had rejected the application despite the fact that no intimation under Section 143(1) was either issued or served upon the Petitioner, and therefore, no demand could legally exist. If no demand exists, the question of adjusting the refund for Assessment Year 2018-2019 against a non-existent demand of A.Y. 2008- 2009 does not arise. On this basis, the learned counsel for the Petitioner submitted that the impugned demand of Rs 1,78,495/-, as reflected on the Income Tax e-portal on 10th March 2025, be set aside, and consequently, the interest levied/accrued thereon also be quashed.

The Petitioner, relied upon the decision of this Court in Udayan Bhaskaran Nair Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax-42(3)(1), Mumbai and Ors. (Writ Petition No. 1363 of 2025 decided on 13th January 2026) as well as in the case of Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle-1(1), Pune and Ors. (Writ Petition No. 16068 of 2024 decided on 24th March 2026).

The Revenue contended that there had been negligence on the part of the Petitioner in approaching the Respondent under Section 119(2)(b) for filing the revised Return, and therefore, the Respondent had rightly declined to entertain the application. The Revenue also tendered an email dated 15th April 2026, enclosing a screenshot of the Income Tax Department portal, which appeared to suggest that an intimation under Section 143(1) was /issued on 22nd September 2009 and served on 2nd October 2009. However, the actual intimation was not been brought on record, nor was there any proof of service. This position was admitted.

The Hon. Court observed that, in the case of Udayan Bhaskaran Nair (supra), it had been held that service of intimation under Section 143(1) is mandatory for raising a demand on the assessee. In the absence of such intimation or any independent notice of demand, recovery of such a non-existent demand cannot be made against the Assessee.

Further, the decision in Udayan Bhaskaran Nair (supra) was reiterated in Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. (supra), Where the Court held that when the Department failed to produce the order giving rise to the demand, despite RTI applications and court directions, the demand was liable to be quashed. The Bench held that, in the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be sustained.

It was mandatory for the Income Tax Department to serve the intimation under Section 143(1) on the Assessee before any demand could be raised. In the facts of the present case, admittedly, apart from the screenshots produced, no intimation under Section 143(1) was brought on record, nor was any material placed to establish that the said demand had in fact been served on the Petitioner.

The Court Was Of The View That No Refund Could Have Been Adjusted Against A Non-Existent Demand. Accordingly, The Petition Was Allowed.

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable; B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

10. Capgemini Technology Services India Limited v. DCIT:

TS-455-HC-2026(BOM):

A. Ys. 2001-02 to 2003-04: Date of order 24/03/2026:

S. 127 and 220 of ITA 1961 and Article 226(2) of the Constitution

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable;

B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

The assessee is a company. The assessee company is the successor company following two successive amalgamations, that is:

a. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited amalgamated into Kappa Investment Limited vide order dated 16/05/2007. The name of the said company was changed to Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited.

b. Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited amalgamated into the assessee company vide order dated 23/12/2022.

In February 2023, the assessee received a recovery notice u/s. 220 of the Act from the Assessing Officer in Delhi requiring the assessee to pay the outstanding demands aggregating to Rs.33.39 lakhs for the A. Ys. 2001-02, 2002-03 and 2003-04. The said notice was in the name of the first mentioned company viz. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited.

Since the assessee was not aware of any such outstanding demands, the assessee filed an application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) seeking copies of orders from which the demands were emanating. The assessee received a response from Assessing Officer in Delhi that the demands were on account of rectification / intimation orders, however, no such orders were provided to the assessee. Some screenshots of the computation sheets were provided and for A. Y. 2003-04, it was stated that no records were available.

The assessee filed appeal under the RTI Act wherein directions were issued to the Assessing Officer in Delhi to furnish full information. Despite the directions, no orders were supplied.

The assessee filed a petition before the Bombay High Court, contending that the demands were non-existent and the recovery was bad in law. A transfer of jurisdiction had taken place from Delhi to Pune and an order (dated 13/12/2023) to that effect was produced by the assessee.

The core issue before the High Court was as to whether the Hon’ble Bombay High Court had the territorial jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution to entertain a writ petition challenging the recovery notice and tax demands originally raised by the Assessing Officer in Delhi against an erstwhile (amalgamated) entity, after the jurisdiction was transferred to Pune and the successor assessee company’s registered office is in Pune.

The High Court allowed the petition and held that it had jurisdiction and on merits, the recovery notices were not maintainable. The High Court held as follows:

“i) The jurisdictional issue of High Court to issue writs against authorities located outside its territories has evolved significantly; Highlighting the provisions of Article 226(2) of Constitution of India as it stood prior to amendment by Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963,

ii) In the present case, the erstwhile entity has amalgamated with the Petitioner, which has its registered office in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice was received in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice and the demands, even if originating from orders passed in Delhi, have a direct impact on the Petitioner in Pune which is within the jurisdiction of this Court; the Petitioner who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, would be affected by the recovery notice and the alleged demands; the consequences of the recovery notices and the alleged demand will be felt in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; it is the Petitioner, who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, who has to defend the proceedings and face the coercive recovery actions. Therefore, a part of the cause of action has clearly arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court. Further, future recovery notices would be issued by the assessing officer in Pune and he is the Officer who would initiate recovery proceedings. Since, the assessing officer in Pune is an authority within the jurisdiction of this Court therefore, the cause of action, at least in part, has arisen so as to confer this Court with the jurisdiction to entertain the present Petition.

iii) Further, in the present case, vide the transfer order dated 13/12/2023, the jurisdiction is transferred from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 of the Act. Thus, a transfer [u/s. 127] implies that all proceedings under the Act in respect of any year which may be pending or which may have been completed or which is yet to be initiated is transferred to the transferee officer. Thus, the jurisdiction over the completed assessments of A.Y.2001-02 to A.Y.2003-04 also stands transferred to the Pune Officer i.e., Respondent No.1. The Delhi Officer is now functus officio. Any relief regarding the impugned demands can only be granted by the Pune Officer (Respondent No.1). The Petitioner is, therefore, correct in contending that since the officer who is to defend the case, redress grievances, and deal with recovery of the alleged demand, is now in Pune. Therefore, he is the right officer to whom a writ can be issued.

iv) Article 226(2) has used the phrase “may also be exercised” which clearly suggests that Article 226(2) is not an additional condition but an alternate condition. Moreover, Article 226(1), as interpreted by the Apex Court provides for a Court to issue a writ only to the authorities within the territories of that Court, whereas Article 226(2) provides that notwithstanding that the seat of Government or authority or the residence of such person is not within those territories, a writ can be issued by a Court where part or whole of cause of action arise. The two clauses are mutually exclusive and both cannot apply simultaneously by the very wordings of the clauses. Therefore, it is not correct to argue that for Article 226(2) to apply, Article 226(1) has to trigger. If this view is accepted, then perhaps, Article 226(2) would become redundant. The whole purpose of introducing Article 226(2) was to alleviate the inconvenience caused to the Petitioners by dragging them to the Court which exercises jurisdiction over the authority or the Respondent within the territorial jurisdiction of such Court.

v) Accordingly, we reject the preliminary objection regarding territorial jurisdiction. We are of the considered view that at least part of the cause of action has arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court, and therefore, we proceed to deal with the merits of the case.

vi) In the present case, there is absolutely no material on record to substantiate the existence of valid orders giving rise to the impugned demands. The Respondents have failed to produce the orders and service records, despite repeated opportunities. The failure of Respondent No.2 to respond and the inability of the Pune Officer to locate records leads to the inevitable conclusion that no such valid orders exist or were ever served upon the Petitioner. An adverse inference must necessarily be drawn against the Respondents.

vii) Old matters and demands cannot be allowed to suddenly surface on the portal without the underlying orders being available and served. Consequently, the impugned demands cannot be sustained.”

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

9. Suresh P. Bhadani (HUF) vs. ITO:

TS-40-HC-2026-Guj:

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 06/01/2026:

Ss. 143(3), 147, 148 and 148(d) of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

The Karta of the Assessee HUF purchased an office, the agreement for purchase of which was executed on 20/06/2017 and thereafter registered sale deed was executed on 28/06/2017. The return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 was filed declaring NIL total income. The case was selected for scrutiny and notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued. The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Act accepting the returned income of the assessee.

Subsequently, in March 2022, re-assessment proceedings were initiated for the reason that the difference in price at which the property was purchased by the assessee and the valuation as per the stamp duty was taxable in the hands of the assessee u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer passed an order u/s. 148A(d) on 01/04/2022 holding the case to be fit case for re-opening of assessment and issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for re-opening the assessment.

The Assessee challenged the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act on the ground that the same issue was considered during the course of original assessment proceedings and the submissions of the assessee were accepted and the income returned by the assessee was accepted without any modification. Therefore, re-opening of assessment on the same issue amounted to change of opinion which was impermissible even under the new provisions of re-opening of assessment.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) The reasons recorded in the Order issued u/s. 148A(d) of the Act was already considered by the Assessing Officer in the Assessment Order dated 30/11/2020. The Assessing Officer does not have the power to review his own assessment arrived at during the original assessment. The petitioner had provided all the information which was considered by the respondent. It was also categorically accepted by learned Senior Standing Counsel Mr. Rutvij Patel that the initiation of the reassessment proceedings was on the basis of reassessment made in the case of co-owner Ms. Bhavnaben. However, the issue which was already concluded by way of assessment order dated 30/11/2020, cannot be reopened again on the very same material

ii) It is settled law that the proceedings u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be initiated to review the earlier stand adopted by the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer cannot initiate reassessment proceedings to have relook with the documents filed in the original assessment proceedings. The power to re-examine cannot be exercised from time to time. This issue has been categorically settled by the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi v. Kelvinator of India Limited reported in (2010) 320 ITR 561. In view of the above, the present petition is required to be allowed and the same is hereby allowed. The impugned order dated 01/04/2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and the notice of same date issued u/s. 148 of the Act are hereby quashed and set aside.”

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

8. Chhattisgarh Rajya Open School v. Dy. CIT(Exemption): (2026) 485 ITR 349 (Chhattisgarh)

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 10/06/2025

Ss. 11, 12, 12A(2) and proviso, 12AA of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

The appellant-assessee society was established with the direction of the Education Department, State of Chhattisgarh on January 10, 2008. The assessee filed its return for the A. Y. 2016-17 on March 31, 2018 declaring the income as Rs. nil. On September 30, 2018, the case of the assessee-society was selected for scrutiny assessment u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the meanwhile, the appellant herein filed an application for registration u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act in the prescribed form claiming exemption on the ground that it is an education institution and involved in charitable purposes which was eventually rejected on April 29, 2019 against which it has preferred an appeal and ultimately, on second round, on July 14, 2023, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) granted approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act to the appellant with effect from April 1, 2019. However, the scrutiny assessment was completed and the Assessing Officer declined the assessee’s claim for exemption of the excess of income over expenditure of Rs.5.24 crores (approximately) u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Income-tax Act and passed the assessment order on December 12, 2018 against which the assessee preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) which was ultimately rejected on October 17, 2019.

The assessee preferred an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal questioning the order of the Assessing Officer as affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and an additional ground was taken that the approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act has been granted by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) on July 14, 2023 and, therefore, by virtue of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act, exemption would apply retrospectively.

The Tribunal by the impugned order rejected the appeal holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act has wrongly been construed, as the assessment proceeding was not pending before the Assessing Officer on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023 and accordingly proceeded to dismiss the appeal.

The assessee filed appeal to High Court u/s. 260A of the Act and raised the following substantial question of law:

“Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is justified in dismissing the appeal by ignoring the order granting approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act which was passed on July 14, 2023 during the pendency of appeal by holding that first proviso to sub-section (2) of section 12A is not attracted and further ignoring the fact that the appeal was already pending before it (ITAT), by recording a finding which is perverse to the record?”

The Chhattisgarh High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the assessment proceeding u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act was adjudicated by the Assessing Officer on December 12, 2018 and on that day, though the appellant-assessee made application u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, it was rejected on July 29, 2019 and after assessment by the Assessing Officer, on second round, ultimately, exemption was granted on July 14, 2023 with effect from April 1, 2019 and thereafter, the assessment proceeding was subjected to appeal by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) also dismissed the appeal on October 17, 2019, as such, on the date of registration, i.e., on July 14, 2023, appeal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, but the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal rejected the contention of the appellant herein holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act would not be applicable as the assessment proceedings were not pending as on the date of registration and, therefore, the first proviso to section 12A(2) would not be applicable to the appellant herein.

ii)
A careful perusal of the aforesaid circular would show that it mandates that registration will have the effect for the period prior to the year of registration or in respect of which the assessment proceedings are pending and the provisions of section 12A of the Income-tax Act entailed unintended consequences of non-application of registration for the period prior to the year of registration and, thereby, non-grant of exemption under sections 11 and 12 up to grant of registration. This position was also recognised by the Central Board of Direct Taxes while issuing the Explanatory Notes to the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 ((2014) 366 ITR (Stat) 21), vide Central Board of Direct Taxes Circular No. 1 of 2015, dated January 21, 2015 ((2015) 371 ITR (Stat) 22). It is, thus, a curative proviso, which is but merely declaratory of the previous law. It has, by removal of the hardship, rendered the procedure more relief oriented. It adequately complies with the natural justice principle of fairness to all. Hence, it has to be presumed and construed as retrospective in nature, in order to give the section a purposive interpretation. (See CIT (Exemptions) v. Shree Shyam Mandir Committee, [(2018) 400 ITR 466 (Raj); 2017 SCC OnLine Raj 4367.] paragraph 26.)

iii) In the instant case, admittedly, on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023, the assessment proceeding which has been affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, which came to be dismissed on September 7, 2023. The question for consideration would be, whether the assessment proceeding as stated in the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act can be taken as pending appeal, in other words, whether the assessment proceeding pending in appeal can be taken to be the proceeding pending before the Assessing Officer? Since the appeal was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act, though it was the second appeal, but in that appeal, substantial question of law was not required to be formulated which was required to be formulated in appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, as such, that appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the assessment order affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is the continuation of original assessment proceedings by the Assessing Officer.

iv) It is a settled position of law that an appeal is a continuation of the proceedings of the original court. Ordinarily, the appellate jurisdiction involves a rehearing on law as well as on fact and is invoked by an aggrieved person. The first appeal is a valuable right of the appellant and therein all questions of fact and law decided by the trial court are open for reconsideration. Therefore, the first appellate court is required to address itself to all the issues and decide the case by giving reasons. The court of first appeal must record its findings only after dealing with all issues of law as well as fact and with the evidence, oral as well as documentary, led by the parties. The judgment of the first appellate court must display conscious application of mind and record findings supported by reasons on all issues and contentions (see : Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari, [(2001) 251 ITR 84 (SC); (2001) 3 SCC 179; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 375.] followed in Madhukar v. Sangram, [(2001) 4 SCC 756; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 682.], B.M. Narayana Gowda v. Shanthamma, [(2011) 15 SCC 476; (2014) 2 SCC (Civ) 619; 2011 SCC OnLine SC 673.], H.K.N. Swami v. Irshad Basith, [(2005) 10 SCC 243; 2004 SCC OnLine SC 731.] and Sri Raja Lakshmi Dyeing Works v. Rangaswamy Chettiar, [(1980) 4 SCC 259; 1980 SCC OnLine SC 102.]).

v) It is held that an appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) affirming the order of the Assessing Officer is the continuation of the original proceedings of the Assessing Officer and thus, the assessment proceeding in appeal pending before the appellate court, i.e., Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and we accordingly hold that appeal proceedings pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal are deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of section 12A of the Income-tax Act. The impugned order so passed after the effective date of grant of registration and subsequent grant of registration on July 14, 2023 operates retrospectively for all relevant years in the present case, the assessment year 2016-17, though registration was granted with effect from April 1, 2019, as we find that the object of the appellant-society is charitable in nature
within the meaning of section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and on which there is absolutely no dispute.

vi) The substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.

vii) Accordingly, we are unable to sustain the impugned order and set aside the same. The appellant-society is entitled for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Income-tax Act. The Assessing Officer is directed to pass consequential order as stated above for the A. Y. 2016-17, expeditiously.

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

7. Classic Legends (P) Ltd. v. Assessment Unit: (2026) 484 ITR 550 (Bom):

Date of order 09/09/2025:

Ss. 92CA(3), 143(3), 144C, 156, 270A, and 271AAC of ITA 1961

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

In respect of the international transaction of the assessee company the Assessing Officer made a reference to the Transfer Pricing Officer u/s. 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Pursuant to this reference, the Transfer Pricing Officer issued notices to the petitioner and thereafter passed an order u/s. 92CA(3) accepting that the international transactions entered into by the assessee with its associated enterprises were at arm’s length price. In other words, the Transfer Pricing Officer made no variation. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer to passed draft assessment order and the final assessment order u/s. 144C r.w.s. 143(3) of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the petitioner is not a non-resident or a foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii). The question is whether the petitioner would fall within the definition of “eligible assessee” as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(i). On a plain reading of the said provision, the petitioner can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is a case of variation referred to in the said sub-section (1) and which arises as a consequence of the order passed by the Transfer Pricing Officer under sub-section (3) of section 92CA. In the facts of the present case, it is an admitted position that there was no variation in the income of the petitioner by virtue of the order of the Transfer Pricing Officer. That being the position, the petitioner cannot be stated to be an “eligible assessee” as defined in clause (b) of sub-section (15) of section 144C of the Income-tax Act. Once this is the case, the entire procedure for issuance of a draft order calling for the petitioner’s objections thereon and taking further steps as laid down u/s. 144C would, therefore, not apply.

ii) We are unable to agree with the contention of the Revenue that the word “variation” appearing in section 144C(1) and 144C(15) would also include “no variation”. This is clear from section 144C(1) itself which categorically states that the Assessing Officer would have to forward a draft assessment order to the “eligible assessee”, if he proposes to make, on or after October 1, 2009, any variation which is prejudicial to the interest of such assessee. When there is no variation, there is no question of any prejudice being caused to the assessee which would then entail him to file any objections to the draft order as contemplated under sub-section (2) of section 144C. We, therefore, find that the arguments canvassed by the Revenue on this aspect is contrary to the statutory provisions.

iii) It is clear that the petitioner in the present case, not being an “eligible assessee” in terms of section 144C(15)(b) of the Income-tax Act, the Assessing Officer was not competent to pass the draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) of the Income-tax Act. Consequently, there was no occasion for him to thereafter pass a final assessment order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(3) read with section 144B of the Income-tax Act. Accordingly, the draft assessment order dated March 8, 2025; the final assessment order dated April 7, 2025 and the demand notice dated April 7, 2025 as well as the show-cause notices dated April 7, 2025 seeking to impose penalty, are all hereby quashed and set aside.”

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

6. Rallis India Ltd. vs. CPC:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 176 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 19/01/2026:

Ss. 143(1) and 145 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

The Assessee filed its return of income wherein the assessee made a suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 crores u/s. 145(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) in respect of the Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS). Subsequently, in December 2022, a notice u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act was issued proposing to make adjustments u/s. 36(1)(va), 145A and 35(1)(iv) of the Act. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny u/s. 143(2) of the Act.

Thereafter, the Assessee received intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act wherein an adjustment of Rs.1284 crores was made in respect of ICDS as against suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 cores made by the assessee. The adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) of the Act was not proposed in the notice issued u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act issued in the month of December 2022.

The Assessee filed a rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act to rectify the mistake apparent on record. The Assessee also filed an application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer and an appeal was filed before the CIT(A) challenging the intimation issued u/s. 143(1).

The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) without making any variation to the total income on the issues raised in the show cause notice, but computing the income of the assessee adopting the income as given in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) which was determined after the adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made to the income returned by the assessee without considering the assessee’s plea to delete the adjustment. The Assessee challenged this order by way of an appeal filed before the CIT(A). The Assessee also filed a letter pointing out that the addition made in the assessment order emanates from intimation and requested that both the appeals be clubbed and heard together.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee against the assessment order and stated that the issue arising from intimation could not be decided in appeal filed against the assessment order and the issue fell beyond statutory boundaries. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal with liberty to the assessee to file the appeal against the intimation without considering the fact that an appeal against the said intimation was already filed and was pending adjudication.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the intimation and the adjustment made in the said intimation. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held that:

“i) The first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act specifically provides that no adjustment shall be made unless an assessee is given an intimation of the adjustment either in writing or in electronic mode and the response received from the assessee must be considered before making any such adjustment.

ii) In the present case, admittedly the Petitioner has not been given any intimation of the ICDS adjustment before passing the impugned intimation. The proposed adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the IT Act on 14 December 2022 did not raise any issue with regard to the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/-, and no opportunity of being heard was granted to the Petitioner on this issue before the intimation was passed. This is, therefore, a clear breach of the principles of natural justice, and in any event in contravention of the jurisdictional requirements laid down in the first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act.

iii) The fact that the Petitioner had exercised alternate remedy does not debar the Petitioner from invoking the jurisdiction of this Court. The breach of principles of natural justice is one exception that is consistently applied in negating a challenge in a writ petition on the ground of alternate remedy [see Whirlpool Corporation v. Registrar of Trade Marks (1998) 8 SCC 1 (SC)].

iv) In the present case more than two years have elapsed since the Petitioner availed of the alternate remedy and yet no effective hearing of the Petitioner’s appeal has taken place. The Petitioner’s appeal against the order u/s. 143(3) was disposed off summarily without dealing with the merits of the adjustment made. The Petitioner has undertaken to withdraw the appeal before Respondent No. 3 within a period of 15 days from this order, which undertaking is accepted. In these circumstances we have entertained and disposed-off the present petition. In view of the aforesaid discussion, the adjustment made in the intimation u/s. 143(1) in respect of the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/- is hereby quashed and set aside.”

Articles 5 and 7 of India-Netherlands DTAA – Consideration received for the use of a digital platform hosted outside India by users to book accommodation did not constitute a fixed or dependent agent permanent establishment.

3. [2026] 183 taxmann.com 201 (Delhi – Trib.)

Booking.Com B.V. vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

A.Y.: 2018-19

Dated: 06.02.2026

Articles 5 and 7 of India-Netherlands DTAA – Consideration received for the use of a digital platform hosted outside India by users to book accommodation did not constitute a fixed or dependent agent permanent establishment.

FACTS

The Assessee was a tax resident of the Netherlands. It held a valid tax residency certificate (“TRC”). The Assessee had developed a digital platform that showed the availability of hotels/guesthouse accommodation to users and enabled them to make reservation. The users and hotels directly entered into contracts for accommodation, and the Assessee acted merely as an intermediary. The Assessee was entitled to a commission, which was payable only after the user made payment for the accommodation, which was not refundable. The platform was hosted outside India.

For the relevant year, the Assessee did not furnish a return of income (“ROI”). Annual Information Return (“AIR”) and Form 26AS of the Assessee reflected certain transactions. Hence, the AO issued show-cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act. As the AO did not receive any response from the Assessee, the AO reopened the matter by issuing a notice under section 148.

In response to the notice under section 148, the Assessee furnished ROI disclosing ‘nil’ income. The AO alleged that the Assessee had a fixed place and dependent agency permanent establishment
(“PE”) in India. Accordingly, the AO attributed the entire receipts as income. The DRP upheld the order of
the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The Assessee was a tax resident of the Netherlands and was entitled to benefits under the India-Netherlands DTAA. The digital platform that enabled users to reserve hotel accommodation was hosted on servers outside India.

The Assessee did not have any place of business or any equipment owned or at its disposal in India. It also did not have any agent or personnel in India. Further, the hotels had not made accommodation available to the Assessee.

The AO had failed to establish with evidence that (i) the Assessee had an identified place in India at its disposal; and (ii) the Assessee carried on its business in India through such place. Hence, the Assessee did not have a fixed PE in India.

The Assessee was entitled to a commission at a fixed rate, which was computed on accommodation charges received by hotels/guesthouses from users. The terms of the agreement between the Assessee and accommodation providers were on a principal-to-principal basis. Hence, there was no element of agency involved.

Accordingly, the ITAT held that the commission, being booking fees received by the Assessee for enabling users to book accommodation, was taxable only in the Netherlands.

Authors’ Note – During the hearing, Revenue argued that commission should be taxable as royalty / FTS following Delhi ITAT ruling in Sabre Decision Technologies International LLC [2023] 152 taxmann.com 51 (Delhi – Trib.). The ITAT did not comment on the same. The said case pertained to an American LLC providing airline booking application, passenger solutions and consulting services. In the absence of TRC, it was held that consideration was taxable as royalty towards use of process or imparting of information / experience under the domestic law without evaluating scope of treaty provisions.

Additions based on loose sheets/excel data seized during search – Assessee being a salaried employee with no business activity – No ownership or nexus of entries established – Entries found to be group financial projections and borrowings – No corroborative evidence or unexplained assets – Additions deleted.

15. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 368 (Chandigarh- Trib.)

DCIT v. Kapil Romana

A.Y.: 2017-18, 2018-19 AND 2019-20

DATE: 16.06.2025

Section: 68 r.w.s. 69C & 115BBE

Additions based on loose sheets/excel data seized during search – Assessee being a salaried employee with no business activity – No ownership or nexus of entries established – Entries found to be group financial projections and borrowings – No corroborative evidence or unexplained assets – Additions deleted.

FACTS

A search and seizure operation was conducted in the case of the Homeland Group and the assessee, who was a salaried employee managing the financial affairs of the group. During the course of the search, certain loose papers and excel sheets titled “BTD-2011” were found containing details of credit limits, financial arrangements, and names of certain parties with amounts mentioned therein.

The Assessing Officer treated such entries as representing unsecured loans and unexplained expenditure of the assessee and made additions under sections 68 and 69C read with section 115BBE, alleging that the assessee had raised unaccounted funds.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the seized documents did not contain the name of the assessee and merely reflected financial details and projections relating to group entities. It was further noted that the assessee was only a salaried employee with no independent business activity and that no nexus between the entries and the assessee had been established. Accordingly, the additions were deleted.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the seized documents reflected details of credit facilities, borrowings, and financial arrangements of various group concerns and supported the assessee’s explanation that he was managing the financial affairs of the group.

It was noted that the assessee was deriving only salary income and was not maintaining any personal books of account, and no material was brought on record to show that the assessee was engaged in any independent business activity.

The Tribunal further observed that certain entries in the seized documents were found to be reflected in the books of group concerns, thereby supporting the contention that the documents related to group transactions and financial projections rather than personal transactions of the assessee.

It was emphasized that no unexplained assets, investments, or money were found during the course of the search of the assessee, which could corroborate the alleged undisclosed income.

The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer had failed to establish ownership of the seized documents or any nexus between the entries and the assessee, and that additions were made merely on the basis of assumptions and misinterpretation of documents.

Accordingly, concurring with the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals), the Tribunal held that the additions made under sections 68 and 69C were unsustainable and dismissed the Revenue’s appeals.

Cash deposits – Source explained as advance received under agreement to sell agricultural land and agricultural income – Unregistered agreement supported by affidavits – No requirement of registration for such agreement – Affidavits not rebutted – Explanation held reasonable – Addition deleted.

14. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 544 (Amritsar – Trib.)

Anbhao Parkash vs. ITO

A.Y.: 2012-13

DATE: 30.06.2025

Section: 69

Cash deposits – Source explained as advance received under agreement to sell agricultural land and agricultural income – Unregistered agreement supported by affidavits – No requirement of registration for such agreement – Affidavits not rebutted – Explanation held reasonable – Addition deleted.

FACTS

The assessee, an agriculturist, had deposited cash amounting to ₹16.75 lakhs in his bank account. Based on such deposits and the absence of a return of income, proceedings under section 147 were initiated, and the Assessing Officer made an addition under section 69, treating the cash deposits as unexplained.

The assessee explained that a sum of ₹10 lakhs was received in cash as advance against an agreement to sell agricultural land, and the balance amount was sourced from agricultural income earned from land cultivated jointly with his father, including leased land.

The assessee furnished a copy of the agreement to sell, executed on stamp paper and affidavits of witnesses confirming the transaction. However, the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the explanation primarily on the ground that the agreement was unregistered and that the supporting documents were not acceptable.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there is no legal requirement for compulsory registration of an agreement to sell agricultural land, and therefore, the validity of such agreement cannot be doubted merely on the ground of non-registration.

It was noted that the affidavits of witnesses confirming the receipt of advance were not controverted by the Assessing Officer through cross-examination, and therefore, such evidence could not be disregarded.

The Tribunal held that, in the absence of any material to the contrary, the explanation of the assessee that the cash deposit of ₹10 lakhs was sourced from advance received under the agreement to sell was reasonable and acceptable.

With respect to the balance deposits, the Tribunal observed that agricultural income earned from cultivated land, including leased land, was supported by documentary evidence such as J-forms and lease agreements, and the genuineness of the agricultural activity had not been disputed by the revenue.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessee had satisfactorily explained the source of cash deposits and that the addition made under section 69 was not sustainable. The addition was therefore deleted, and the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Where the assessee-trust was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes which were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development, and the assessee was not engaged in profit maximisation or charging disproportionately high fees, the activities could not be regarded as commercial activities but fell within “education” and were not hit by proviso to section 2(15).

13. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 634 (Chennai Trib)

DCIT vs. ICT Academy of Tamil Nadu

A.Y.: 2017-18

DATE: 25.03.2026

Section: 2(15)

Where the assessee-trust was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes which were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development, and the assessee was not engaged in profit maximisation or charging disproportionately high fees, the activities could not be regarded as commercial activities but fell within “education” and were not hit by proviso to section 2(15).

FACTS

The assessee was a society registered under section 12A and was engaged in activities relating to skill development, training, certification, and employability enhancement of students and faculty in coordination with Government bodies and educational institutions. It conducted structured training programmes, faculty development initiatives, and vocational courses aligned with national skill development policies. For AY 2017-18, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a total income as Nil after claiming exemption under section 11.
The case of the assessee was selected for scrutiny through CASS. The AO held that the said activities fell under the limb of “general public utility” and invoked the proviso to section 2(15) on the ground that the assessee was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees, and other related activities, which were in the nature of trade, commerce or business. Accordingly, he denied exemption under section 11 and brought to tax the excess of income over revenue expenditure of ₹2.36 crores.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A), who held that the assessee was carrying on educational activities and was entitled to exemption under section 11 and, therefore, deleted the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

Considering the ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in ACIT v. Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority, (2022) 449 ITR 1 (SC), the Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) The dominant object of the assessee was to impart skill-based education and training with the objective of enhancing employability. Such activities, in the present socio-economic context, formed an integral part of the educational framework. The programmes conducted by the assessee were structured, curriculum-based, and aimed at systematic development of skills and knowledge. Therefore, the same could not be equated with mere commercial or business activities.

(b) The receipts earned by the assessee from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development. There was nothing on record to indicate that the assessee was engaged in profit maximization or that the fees charged were disproportionately high so as to characterize the activities as trade, commerce or business.

(c)  The finding of CIT(A) that the assessee did not charge fees at market-driven commercial rates and that the surplus, if any, was ploughed back into its charitable activities remained uncontroverted by the Revenue.

(d)  The Revenue failed to demonstrate, on the basis of cogent material, that the assessee’s activities were driven by a profit motive or that they constituted business activities in substance. The mere presence of receipts from training or certification programmes could not, in isolation, lead to the conclusion that the proviso to section 2(15) was attracted.

(e) The financial statements for the impugned year indicated that the assessee had incurred deficits in several years. This clearly showed that the activities were not driven by a profit motive.

Accordingly, the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) and held that the activities of the assessee fell within the ambit of “education” under section 2(15) and were not hit by the proviso thereto Consequently, the assessee was entitled to exemption under sections 11 and 12.

In the result, the appeal of the revenue was dismissed.

Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed was “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, or that the receipts from an activity exceeded the 20% threshold, it could not, by itself, be decisive to deny registration under section 12AB unless CIT(E) examined the actual activities carried on by the trust and determined under which limb of Section 2(15) the activity would fall, and whether the receipts were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to attainment of the objects.

12. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 591 (Mum Trib)

Govardhan Eco Village Trust v. CIT(E)

A.Y.: N.A.

DATE: 23.03.2026

Section: 2(15), 12AB

Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed was “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, or that the receipts from an activity exceeded the 20% threshold, it could not, by itself, be decisive to deny registration under section 12AB unless CIT(E) examined the actual activities carried on by the trust and determined under which limb of Section 2(15) the activity would fall, and whether the receipts were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to attainment of the objects.

FACTS

The assessee was originally granted registration under section 12A in 1998 for the charitable objects of “advancement of educational and social activities”, and “advancement of any other object of general public utility”. In accordance with the new section 12AB introduced in 2021, the assessee obtained provisional registration in 2021 and was subsequently granted registration in 2024 for AY 2022-23 to 2026-27. The trust deed was amended vide instrument dated 19.4.2024, adding an additional object. Hence, the assessee applied for registration under section 12AB in respect of the amended trust deed.

During the registration proceedings, CIT(E) called for various details, including year-wise details of rental income, the purpose thereof, and copies of rent agreements/MOUs for A.Ys. 2022-23 to 2025-26, etc. He also noted that the trust deed, as originally settled in 1988, contained, inter alia, the objects of “advancement of educational and social activities” and “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

Proceeding on that basis, the CIT(E) formed a view that the receipts from rent and sale of agro and goshala products were commercial in nature, and that the aggregate of such receipts exceeded 20% of the total receipts in each of the concerned years. Accordingly, the application under section 12AB(1)(ac)(ii) was liable to be rejected and, consequentially, approval under section 80G was also to be denied.
Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeals before the ITAT against the rejection of application under section 12AB and section 80G.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It was an admitted position that the assessee had already been granted provisional registration, which remained valid up to A.Y. 2025-26. The proceedings arose in the context of the assessee’s application for registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(ii). At that stage, the enquiry was confined to the objects of the trust, the genuineness of its activities, and compliance with the statutory conditions governing registration. Therefore, while examining such application, the CIT(E) was required to determine, on the basis of the trust deed, the actual activities carried on and the supporting material, whether the assessee’s objects were charitable in law, whether the activities were genuine and carried out in furtherance of such objects, and whether the statutory scheme disentitled the assessee from the grant of registration.

(b) Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed referred to “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, it would not, by itself, conclude the matter unless the CIT(E) also examined the dominant and actual activities carried on by the assessee during the relevant period and determined under which limb of section 2(15) such activities properly fell. If, on facts, the activities were found to be in the nature of education, yoga, preservation of environment, or other specific charitable heads, the matter would stand on a footing distinct from a case falling purely under the residuary category of “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

(c) The mere exceedance of the 20% threshold, by itself, could not have been treated as determinative unless the CIT(E) first arrived at a clear finding, on the basis of the objects and actual activities of the assessee, that the case fell under the residuary limb of “advancement of any other object of general public utility” as contemplated under section 2(15).

(d) Likewise, the character of receipts from agro/goshala products and rent could not have been concluded merely on the basics of nomenclature, without examining whether such receipts were intrinsically connected with and incidental to the attainment of the assessee’s stated charitable objects.

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter to the file of CIT(E) for fresh adjudication on –

(i) whether having regard to the assessee’s objects, actual activities and the material on record, the assessee was entitled to registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(ii);

(ii) whether the activities carried on by the assessee fell under the specific charitable limbs of section 2(15) or under the residuary limb of general public utility;

(iii) whether the receipts from rent and sale of agro/goshala products were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to the attainment of the main charitable objects;

(iv) whether the reliance placed by the assessee on CBDT Circular No. 11 of 2022 (to contend that the assessee should be deemed to be registered under the new regime and that there was no requirement to issue a provisional registration) was applicable in the facts of the case; and

(v) whether the alleged room-renting activity was, in fact, attributable to the assessee itself.

The Tribunal also clarified that the remand should not be construed as disturbing the provisional registration for its stated period of validity, i.e.,, up to AY 2025-26.

Accordingly, the appeals were allowed for statistical purposes.

Where a tenant received a residential flat on the redevelopment of property in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights, the value of such flat cannot be assessed as income from other sources under section 56, since tenancy rights constitute a capital asset Therefore, its surrender is chargeable to tax as capital gains, and the assessee is eligible to claim exemption under Section 54F.

11. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 174 (Mum Trib)

ITO vs. Varun Jaisingh Asher

A.Y.: 2020-21

DATE: 06.03.2026

Section: 54F, 56

Where a tenant received a residential flat on the redevelopment of property in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights, the value of such flat cannot be assessed as income from other sources under section 56, since tenancy rights constitute a capital asset Therefore, its surrender is chargeable to tax as capital gains, and the assessee is eligible to claim exemption under Section 54F.

FACTS

The assessee and his brother became tenants of a family-owned property after the outgoing tenant vacated the premises i 2013 upon receipt of ₹2.75 crores. They occupied the vacated portion and paid rent of ₹5,000 per month to the owner, supported by rent receipts and electricity bills.

Subsequently, the property was proposed to be redeveloped. The redeveloper required a formal agreement, and therefore, a tenancy agreement was registered on 5.8.2014. The owners entered into a joint development agreement on 11.08.2014; a Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement was executed with the developer in March 2017, after which possession was handed over for redevelopment.

Upon receipt of the Occupation Certificate (OC) in February 2020, the assessee received possession of one residential flat of approximately 1,550 sq. ft. in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights. The assessee filed a return of income for AY 2020-21, claiming exemption under section 54F amounting to ₹11.68 crores on the ground that the flat was consideration for transfer of tenancy rights (a capital asset).

During scrutiny proceedings, the AO disregarded the tenancy agreement, treating it as a colourable device, and taxed the value of the flat under section 56(2)(x)(b) as income from other sources, and also denied exemption under section 54F.

Upon appeal, CIT(A) allowed the claim of the assessee and deleted the addition.

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It was evident that the assessee had placed substantial documentary evidence to establish the existence of tenancy rights, including rent receipts, electricity bills, the registered tenancy agreement dated 05.08.2014, MHADA verification records, and the Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement executed with the developer. These documents clearly demonstrated that the assessee had been occupying the premises as a tenant since 01.04.2013 and that the tenancy rights continued until their surrender in the course of redevelopment of the property. The fact that the tenancy agreement was formally registered in 2014 did not invalidate the existence of tenancy, particularly when the surrounding documentary evidence corroborated continuous occupation and payment of rent.

(b) Tenancy rights constitute a capital asset within the meaning of section 2(14) and the surrender thereof amounts to a transfer under section 2(47). The allotment of a residential flat by the developer under the redevelopment scheme represents consideration received in exchange for such surrender of tenancy rights. Therefore, the transaction squarely falls within the ambit of capital gains and cannot be brought to tax under the residuary provisions of section 56(2)(x).

Noting the orders of the Bombay High Court in the case of assessee’s brother in Vivek Jaisingh Asher v. ITO [2024] 162 taxmann.com 127 (Bom), as well as the Coordinate bench in Vasant Nagorao Barabde v. DCIT, (2025) 174 taxmann.com 1015 (Mum-Trib), the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A), who had concluded that the assessee possessed valid tenancy rights and that the flat received on redevelopment constituted consideration for surrender of such rights. Consequently, the addition made by the AO under section 56(2)(x) was directed to be deleted, and the assessee’s claim of exemption under section 54F was allowed.

Accordingly, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the revenue

The revised notification enhancing the ceiling of exemption under section 10(10AA)(ii) to Rs. 25 lakhs operates only from 01.04.2023, and the benefit of the enhanced limit does not apply to employees who had retired earlier.

10. 2026 (4) TMI 918 – ITAT AHMEDABAD

Madan Lal Grover v. ITO

A.Y.: 2020-21

DATE: 10.4.2026

Section: 10(10AA)

The revised notification enhancing the ceiling of exemption under section 10(10AA)(ii) to Rs. 25 lakhs operates only from 01.04.2023, and the benefit of the enhanced limit does not apply to employees who had retired earlier.

FACTS

The Assessee retired from the services of RBI (Samadhan) Unit handling HRO operations for RBI Region in F.Y. 2019-20 (on 31.05.2019) and, upon retirement, received Rs. 15,90,734/- as “Leave Encashment” benefit in terms of section 10(10AA) of the Act.

The assessee filed his return of income on 07.12.2020 (Later Revised on 08.01.2021), claiming the entire amount of Leave Encashment of ₹15,90,734/- u/s 10(10AA)(ii) of the Act. In an intimation dated 8.12.2021, generated upon processing the return of income u/s 143(1)(a) of Act, the amount of leave encashment was restricted to ₹3,00,000, considering that the assessee did not fall within the category of Central/State Govt. Employees u/s 10(10AA)(ii) of Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A), who dismissed the same.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the Assessee has retired from service of Reserve Bank of India during the year under consideration. The disallowance is contrary to the CBDT’s Notification dated 24.05.2023 (No. 31/2023/F.No. 200/3/2023-ITA-1). In view of the notification section 10(10AA)(i) and 10(10AA)(ii) both are at par & since it is clear that as per explanatory memorandum that no person is being adversely affected by giving retrospective effect to this notification.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the Kerala High Court, in the case of Ramesan P. A. vs. Union of India (WP(C) No. 28983 of 2021 order dated 29.01.2024), had held that the benefit of the notification is not applicable to employees who had retired before 1.4.2023. The Tribunal, having noted the ratio of this decision of the Kerala High Court, held that it is bound by the same. Accordingly, the Tribunal upheld the addition made and dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee

The procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income.

9. 2026 (4) TMI 841 – ITAT PUNE

Expert Global Solutions Private Limited v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2021-22

DATE: 10.4.2026

Section: 80JJAA

The procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income.

FACTS

The assessee filed its return of income on 16.02.2022 declaring a total income of Rs. 8,12,99,130/- after claiming a deduction of Rs. 26,06,220/- u/s 80JJA of the Act. For the assessment year under consideration, the due date for filing the income tax return was on or before 30.11.2021, which was extended up to 15.03.2022. However, the assessee filed Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 on 27.01.2023. The due date for filing Form No.10DA for the assessment year 2021-22 was one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1).

The CPC, vide Intimation u/s 143(1) dated 28.12.2022, made an addition of ₹26,06,220/- on account of the belated filing of Form No.10DA, i.e., after the due date of filing of the return.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Addl. / JCIT(A), who dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee. While doing so he noted that the due date for filing of income tax return for assessment year 2021-22 was on or before 30.11.2021, which was extended up to 15.03.2022. Since the assessee filed the return of income on 16.02.2022, the same was within the due date u/s 139(1) of the Act. However, the assessee filed Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 on 27.01.2023. The due date for filing Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 was one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1). Since the assessee filed Form No.10DA on 27.01.2023, the same was after the due date for filing the income tax return. He referred to CBDT Circular No.1/2022 dated 11.01.2022, according to which the CBDT has extended the due date for filing various audit reports up to 15.02.2022. In view of the above, the Addl. / JCIT(A) held that the assessee was not eligible to claim deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act. He, therefore, upheld the order of the CPC in rejecting the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal, where it contended that the procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income. It was also submitted that when the deduction claimed in the formative year has been examined and accepted by the Income Tax Authorities, the balance deduction claimed in subsequent years should not be disturbed until the deduction has been denied or subsequently withdrawn by the tax authorities.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it is an admitted fact that, due to non-submission of Form No.10DA within the stipulated period, the CPC disallowed the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act and made an addition of ₹26,06,220/- to the returned income. It also observed that the Addl. / JCIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee on the ground that the assessee failed to file Form No.10DA one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1) for assessment year 2021-22, therefore was not eligible for deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act. The Tribunal held that it finds merit in the arguments of the Counsel for the assessee. It further observed that an identical issue had come up before the Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Tarasafe International (P.) Ltd. vs. DDIT [(2024) 168 taxmann.com 514 (Kolkata–Trib.)], wherein, under identical circumstances, the Tribunal had allowed the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act by setting aside the order of the Addl. / JCIT(A).

The Tribunal, having considered the observations in the case of Tarasafe International (P.) Ltd. (supra), held that since the facts of the instant case are identical to those of the said case, and in the absence of any contrary material brought on record by the DR, the order of the Addl. / JCIT(A) was set aside. The Assessing Officer / CPC was directed to allow the deduction to the assessee u/s 80JJA of the Act as claimed. Accordingly, the grounds raised by the assessee were allowed.

Date of allotment is paramount for considering deduction under section 54, and possession of property has, ipso facto, no effect on claim of deduction under section 54. Deduction under section 54 is allowable in respect of an investment made in booking of a flat under construction one year before the date of transfer of the original asset, even though the scheduled date of completion of the flat booked was beyond three years from the date of transfer of the original asset.

8. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 429 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Arvinder Singh Sahni v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of Order: 12.3.2026

Section : 54

Date of allotment is paramount for considering deduction under section 54, and possession of property has, ipso facto, no effect on claim of deduction under section 54. Deduction under section 54 is allowable in respect of an investment made in booking of a flat under construction one year before the date of transfer of the original asset, even though the scheduled date of completion of the flat booked was beyond three years from the date of transfer of the original asset.

FACTS

During the assessment year under consideration, the assessee earned long-term capital gains of ₹2.31 crore upon the sale of a residential house purchased by him in 2011. The house giving rise to long-term capital gain (original asset) was sold on 19.12.2014. The long-term capital gains arising on transfer of the original asset were claimed to be exempt on the ground that the assessee had, on 31.10.2014, booked a new residential house. The booking being within a period of one year prior to the date of transfer of the original asset giving rise to long-term capital gains, meant that the cost of the house booked on 31.10.2014 qualified for deduction under section 54.

The Assessing Officer (AO), while assessing the total income, denied the claim of deduction under section 54 on the ground that, as per the agreement dated 31.10.2014, possession of the new flat was scheduled to be handed over on 31.12.2018, whereas the time period of three years from the date of sale of the original asset expired on 19.12.2017.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO on the ground that the assessee has not satisfied the conditions of section 54 of the Act.

HELD

At the outset, the Tribunal noted that it was not in controversy that the assessee had purchased a new property within one year prior to the date of sale of the original asset on which the capital gain had been earned. The only controversy that arose related to the date of possession of the new property purchased. The authorities below have emphasized that the assessee was required to purchase or construct a property within the time period prescribed under the law, but in the agreement for sale, the proposed date of possession of the newly purchased property, was 31.12.2018.

It observed that –

i) the Jurisdictional High Court in the case of Pr. CIT v. Vembu Vaidyanathan [(2019) 413 ITR 248 (Bom)], a celebrated judgment on the issue, held that the allottee gets title to the property on the issuance of the allotment letter, and that payment of instalments and delivery of possession are merely follow up action and formalities;

ii) It further observed that this judgment of the High Court was subsequently considered by the Apex Court in Pr. CIT v. Vembu Vaidyanathan [(2019) 265 Taxman 535 (SC)], and ultimately affirmed by dismissal of the Special Leave Petition (SLP) filed by the Revenue;

iii) The Karnataka High Court in Pr. CIT v. C. Gopalaswamy [(2016) 384 ITR 307 (Kar)], also dealt with an identical issue, where the date of possession of the property was much beyond the time available for construction as per Section 54F. The Hon’ble High Court rejected the Revenue’s contention that since construction was not completed, , the benefit should not be allowed, and held that the essence of the provision is whether the assessee has invested the capital gains in a residential house. Once it is demonstrated that the consideration received on transfer has been invested in purchase or construction of a residential house, even i the transactions is not complete in all respects, the benefit cannot be denied;

iv) The ratio of the decisions of the Bombay High Court in CIT v. Girish L. Ragha [(2016) 69 taxmann.com 95 (Bom) and the Delhi High Court in CIT v. Kuldeep Singh [(2014) 49 taxmann.com 167 (Delhi)] also support the assessee’s case.

The Tribunal held –

i) Considering the ratio of the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Vembu Vaidyanathan (supra), the date of allotment is paramount for considering the deduction claimed under section 54, and possession of the property has, ipso-facto, no effect on the claim under section 54;

ii) from the aforesaid judgments, it has become clear that the assessee is required to comply with the conditions by purchasing a residential property within one year prior to, or two years after, the date of sale of the property, or by constructing a house within three years after the date of sale of property/earning the capital gain. Therefore, it agreed with the contention of the assessee that possession is not a ‘sine qua non’ for claiming or denying the benefit under section 54;

iii) In the instant case, admittedly, the assessee, within one year prior to the date of sale of the old property and/or earning the capital gain, had purchased a residential property. Therefore, the assessee is entitled to the benefit of the provisions of section 54, and accordingly, the addition made by the Assessing Officer, as affirmed by the Commissioner, is deleted.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed

Rebate granted to the assessee, pursuant to contractual terms, does not constitute real income.

7. TS-258-ITAT-2026(DEL)

Satya Prasan Rajguru v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2021-22

Date of Order: 26.2.2026

Section: 56

Rebate granted to the assessee, pursuant to contractual terms, does not constitute real income.

FACTS

For the assessment year under consideration, the assessee filed the return of income on 31.12.2021, which was subsequently revised on 31.03.2022, declaring a total income of ₹1,94,39,080/- and claiming deduction u/s 54F of the Act to the tune of ₹9,65,05,033/-. The Assessing Officer (AO) denied the claim of deduction under section 54F of the Act.

Further, the AO observed that the assessee has purchased an apartment in Gurugram for a consideration of ₹32,95,29,561 and had received a rebate of ₹9,81,39,230/- from the developer. The AO rejected the contentions of the assessee that the rebate amount cannot result in an addition to the total income, since the stamp duty value of the apartment was lower than the consideration (net of rebate). The AO considered the rebate of ₹9,81,39,230 to be taxable under section 56(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A), who was of the opinion that a rebate of about 28% to 30% is unheard of and beyond preponderance of probabilities. The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal, where, on a without prejudice basis, it contended that the stamp duty value (SDV) of the apartment was ₹14,68,00,000, whereas the flat was purchased for ₹23,13,90,331; therefore, even the provisions of section 56(2)(x) were not applicable.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the lower authorities have taxed the rebate as income under the head `Income from Other Sources’, but it is questionable whether, in the absence of a specific deeming provision, such an action can be sustained. It further observed that there is no real income; rather, it is a benefit by way of rebate, which the department sought to tax as income, which could have been possible only if the stamp duty value was greater than the consideration.

The Tribunal noted that under the Apartment Buyers Agreement, the rebate of ₹9,81,39,230 allowed to the assessee comprised of the following : Down Payment Rebate of ₹4,27,83,490; Move-in Rebate of ₹2,22,90,000; Special Rebate of ₹1,82,05,740; and Timely Payment Rebate of ₹1,48,60,000. It was observed that the assessee had established that this rebate was not something that accrued suddenly at the conclusion of the deal but was very much part of the terms and conditions contained in the apartment buyer’s agreement. It held that this is not a case where the rebate has been earned by the assessee out of any act beyond the terms and conditions of the agreement so as to be even considered as income `earned’; rather, it was a contractual concession given by the builder for complying with the payment schedule. By way of illustration, the Tribunal observed that the Move In Rebate @ ₹3,000 per sq. feet was allowable for timely completion as per the terms and conditions of the agreement, which appeared to be a prudent approach by the builder to ensure that such high-value properties are not left idle or treated merely as investment asset rather than being occupied by actual users.

The Tribunal held that such rebates are neither uncommon nor unprecedented, so as to appear artificial, but are usually granted by builders to encourage timely or early payments. Therefore, treating such rebates as income u/s 56(1) is not sustainable. It further remarked that the CIT(A) had approached the issue from a common man’s perspective of such high-value real estate transactions, without acknowledging that such transactions command a premium due to the amenities and facilities provided.. It held that questioning the business prudence of the builders in granting such rebates cannot be subject matter of inquiry from the purchaser’s end, and thus, the findings of CIT(A) sustaining the additions on the basis of deemed income u/s 56 of the Act cannot be upheld.

Despite the income being exempt, upon the turnover exceeding the specified amount, the requirement of getting the statutory audit done and obtaining the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act in Form-3CD is mandatory.

6. TS-184-ITAT-2026(Kol)

Jalpaiguri Zilla Regulated Market Committee v. ITO

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order : 10.2.2026

Section: 44AB, 271B

Despite the income being exempt, upon the turnover exceeding the specified amount, the requirement of getting the statutory audit done and obtaining the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act in Form-3CD is mandatory.

FACTS

M/s. Jalpaiguri Zilla Regulated Market Committee (AOP) did not file its return of income for AY 2017-18. In view of the information available with the Department that the assessee had deposited cash in its bank account during the FY 2016-17, a notice u/s 142(1) of the Act was issued asking the assessee to furnish its return of income for the AY 2017-18, but there was no response from the assessee in this regard. Therefore, a show cause notice was issued to the assessee, which also resulted in non-compliance.

The Assessing Officer (‘AO’) therefore completed the assessment u/s 144 of the Act by treating the total credits amounting to ₹2,40,65,509/- in its bank account as the total turnover of the assessee. The net profit of the assessee was estimated @8% of the total receipts, which came to ₹19,25,400/- (8% of ₹2,40,65,509/-) for AY 2017-18.

Since the total turnover in this case was estimated at ₹2,40,65,509/- and sufficient & reasonable opportunities were provided to the assessee, but the assessee failed to get its accounts audited as required u/s 44AB of the Act, penalty proceeding u/s 271B of the Act were initiated for non-filing of the Audit report. The AO levied a penalty of ₹1,20,330/- u/s 271B of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A), who, vide order dated 19.09.2025, dismissed the appeal of the assessee on the ground of non-prosecution.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal the Tribunal, where it claimed that its income was exempt, being an Agricultural Produce Market Committee constituted under State law, which is entitled to full tax exemption under section 10(26AAB) of the Act. It was further contended that such an Agricultural Produce Market Committee or Regulated Market Committee is generally not required to undergo a tax audit under section 44AB or to file income tax returns for such exempt income, provided it is used for statutory purposes. The statutory audit, as specified under the relevant Act, was claimed to have been carried out.

HELD

The Tribunal held that, as per the third proviso to section 44AB, in a case where a person is required by or under any other law to get his accounts audited, it shall be sufficient compliance with the provisions of this section if such person gets the accounts of such business or profession audited under such law before the specified date and furnishes, by that date, the report of the audit as required under such other law and a further report by an accountant in the form prescribed under this section.

It held that the assessee was required to get the audit report u/s 44AB of the Act, in addition to the statutory audit carried out in this case, which had not been done. As regards the contention of the assessee that since its income was exempt, it was not liable for audit u/s 271B of the Act, the Tribunal held that a perusal of section 44AB as well as 271B of the Act shows that the requirement of audit and the penal consequence are dehors the findings of the assessment proceedings relating to computation of income, and the audit under section 44AB of the Act is required on the basis of turnover exceeding the prescribed threshold limit. Hence, despite the income being exempt, since the turnover had exceeded the specified amount for the purpose of getting the statutory audit done, the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act on Form-3CD was required to be filed.

As regards the contention that the assessee had a reasonable cause for not getting the audit carried out, the Tribunal observed that no such reasonable cause was mentioned before it, except for stating that the income was exempt. Therefore, in the interest of justice and fair play, the Bench considered it appropriate to remand the matter to the CIT(A) for giving another opportunity to the assessee to present its case that it had a reasonable cause for not getting the audit done, who shall decide the issue as per law.

AI Implementation In GST Practice

The question before the GST professional today is no longer whether to adopt Artificial Intelligence, but how to do so with rigour, responsibility, and an informed understanding of its limits. This article examines the distinction between rule-based automation and Generative AI, maps each significant practice area of indirect tax work to the appropriate technology, and offers a practitioner’s framework for adoption that keeps professional accountability intact.

I. INTRODUCTION

The Goods and Services Tax framework, by its very design, is a data-intensive, process-heavy, and interpretation-rich regime. Compliance timelines are unforgiving, the volume of transactions is enormous, and the legal landscape evolves continuously through notifications, circulars, advance rulings, and judicial pronouncements. Against this backdrop, the arrival of Artificial Intelligence (‘AI’) represents both a significant opportunity and a set of risks that demand careful navigation.

In common parlance, the term AI is often used generically, and without appropriate differentiation. A firm that deploys a Python script to automate GSTR-2B reconciliation, and a firm that uses ChatGPT to draft a reply to a show-cause notice, are both said to be ‘using AI’, but the technology involved, the risks assumed, and the oversight required are fundamentally different in each case.

The article is organised around the principal practice areas of an indirect tax firm: Compliance, Advisory, Litigation, and Service Delivery. For each, the article examines where rule-based automation is the appropriate tool, where Generative AI adds genuine value, and — critically — where human professional intervention remains non-negotiable. But, before a detailed discussion on these facets, it is important to appreciate the fundamental distinction between automation and Generative AI.

II. AUTOMATION AND GENERATIVE AI — A FUNDAMENTAL DISTINCTION

A. Rule-Based Automation

Rule-based automation operates on a deterministic logic. It executes pre-defined instructions, and the output for a given input is fixed and reproducible. There is no inference, no interpretation, and no element of probability.

In the context of GST practice, automation has been with us for years, even if we have not always labelled it as such. The GST offline utility that accepts an Excel template and generates a JSON for upload is automation. ASP/GSP platforms that pull data from accounting software, populate returns, and file them through API integrations are automation tools. An Excel macro that formats supplier invoices into the GSTR-1 template is automation. A Python script that matches the purchase register against GSTR-2B and generates a mismatch report is automation.

The defining characteristic of all these tools is predictability. The GSTR-2B reconciliation script that runs tonight will produce the same output as the one that ran last Tuesday, given the same input data.

This predictability is what makes automation trustworthy for compliance tasks, where the cost of an error is a wrong return and can bear serious legal consequences.

B. Generative AI — A Probabilistic Engine

Generative AI — represented by large language models (LLMs) such as ChatGPT (OpenAI), Claude (Anthropic), Gemini (Google), and domain-specific tools like TaxGPT — operates on an entirely different principle. These models do not execute pre-defined rules. They have been trained on vast corpora of text, and when queried, they generate outputs by predicting the most statistically probable sequence of words in response to the input.

This implies that the same query can produce different outputs in different sessions. The model does not look up a database. It generates, and what it generates is a function of its training data, the structure of the prompt, and an element of randomness built into the generation process itself.

This randomness is not a flaw in the technology, rather it is its fundamental nature. The same prompt can result in different responses in terms on end conclusion, depth of reasoning, usage of words, grammar or style of drafting.

The difference is not one of degree but of kind. Automation executes. Generative AI generates. The first is a tool. The second is a collaborator — and like all collaborators, it requires supervision.

AI in GST

III. THE RISKS OF GENERATIVE AI — WHAT EVERY PROFESSIONAL MUST UNDERSTAND

A. Hallucinations

The term ‘hallucination’ in the context of AI refers to the generation of factually incorrect information presented with complete confidence. In the context of GST practice, hallucinations can take several forms:

  •  Fabricated CBIC circular numbers
  • Wrong section references
  • Non-existent AAR or AAAR rulings or Court decisions
  • Overturned or irrelevant Court decisions
  • Pre-amendment tax rates, thresholds, or compliance timelines presented as currently applicable

What makes hallucinations particularly dangerous in a professional advisory context is that they are indistinguishable from accurate output without independent verification. For professionals therefore, the rule should be: no AI-generated citation, whether of a section, a circular, a notification, or a judicial decision, should be included in any client communication, opinion, or legal submission without independent verification against the primary source.

B. Confidentiality — An Overlooked but Critical Dimension

The terms of service of most public-facing LLM platforms permit the use of user inputs for model training and improvement, unless the user has specifically opted out of such data sharing or is accessing the service under an enterprise agreement with explicit data privacy protections.

Professionals should therefore understand the data risk involved. Client GSTINs, turnover figures, ITC positions, outstanding demand details, the substance of notices received, and litigation strategy constitute confidential professional information. The ICAI Code of Ethics imposes a duty of confidentiality that extends to all forms of communication and, by necessary implication, to AI tools used in the course of professional work. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 adds a further regulatory dimension to the handling of identifiable personal and commercial data.

A CA who pastes a client’s show-cause notice — with GSTIN, turnover, and transactional details intact — into a public LLM to generate a draft reply has shared client-privileged information with a third-party platform. The fact that the tool is useful does not make the disclosure permissible.

The mitigation is clear: establish a firm-level AI Data Usage Policy before any tool is deployed. At a minimum, all prompts involving client-specific facts must pass through a redaction protocol — client name replaced with ‘Assessee’, GSTIN with ‘GSTIN-XX’, specific financial figures with placeholders — before being submitted to any public AI tool.

A word of caution: Redaction can be done in various modes. Some redacted text can be retrieved through tools, and if the redaction is reversible, it does not serve any purpose. Further, if the redaction is carried out through an online tool (ILOVEPDF and the likes), the problem is really not resolved. It merely swaps position from a GenAI platform to the redaction platform

C. Unpredictability, Knowledge Cutoffs, and the Audit Trail Problem

The non-deterministic nature of LLM outputs means that the position a tool took on a query today may not be reproduced tomorrow. This creates an audit trail problem: if an AI-generated draft is challenged, the professional cannot reconstruct the basis for the output with the precision that professional workpapers typically require.

Secondly, all LLMs have a training cutoff date — a point beyond which their knowledge of events, legislation, and judicial developments is absent or incomplete. Finance Act amendments, fresh CBIC notifications, and significant AAR orders issued after the cutoff are simply unknown to the model. For a practice area that evolves as rapidly as GST, this is an limitation to be aware about.

IV. MAPPING THE RIGHT TOOL TO THE RIGHT TASK

With the distinction between automation and Generative AI clearly understood, the practitioner needs a framework for deciding which tool to use for which task. Essentially, any task which is rule or process based should be a subject matter of automation rather than Generative AI. Such tasks may involve high volume, but low judgement which can be pre-defined through flowcharts. There may be cluster of tasks in the form of a workflow. The benefits of automation are immense. Once a software is prepared and tested for reconciliation, the reports provided by the software do not need significant human oversight thereafter. However, if Generative AI is used for such tasks, the professional will have to factor the randomness of GenAI and have significant component of human verification of the output before the same can be sent back to the client or uploaded on the portal. Secondly, the professional also undertakes a risk of breach of data confidentiality. Most input data in compliance tasks is client specific and redacting that data would reduce the utility of the entire process. For example, to generate a GSTR1, proper sales register needs to be uploaded, redacted one cannot do the job. Therefore, most of the compliance tasks are amenable to automation rather than Generative AI.

The benefits of Generative AI are triggered when there is a genuine case of generation of content. For example, drafting a reply to a show cause notice. However, as stated earlier, Generative AI comes with significant risks of data confidentiality, hallucinations and unpredictability. Therefore, the draft output can only be considered as an assistant or ‘first
draft’ requiring significant human editing and intervention thereafter. Despite the limitations and need for significant human intervention, there is a clear role of Generative AI in advisory and litigation practices.

Interestingly most GenAI tools can write detailed codes and Agentic AI tools can even automate workflows. Several use cases in the compliance domain exist to use GenAI tools to not directly perform a compliance task but to write codes and develop and debug automation tools that will perform the compliance tasks predictably – essentially offering the best of both the worlds!

V. COMPLIANCE PRACTICE — AUTOMATION FIRST, GENERATIVE AI AS ENABLER

A. The Case for Automation

Returns filing, reconciliations, and portal-related tasks are the natural home of rule-based automation. GSTR-1, GSTR-3B, GSTR-9, and GSTR-9C all follow fixed structures, operate on deterministic rules, and produce outputs that must be identical given the same source data. Compliance software platforms have automated large parts of this workflow. Where customised integrations are required, tools ranging from Tally’s GST modules to Python-scripted API calls to the GSTN infrastructure can handle the job reliably.

The GSTR-2B reconciliation process, in particular, is a classic automation task. The logic is fixed: match supplier GSTINs, invoice numbers, and amounts between the purchase register and GSTR-2B; flag unmatched items; categorise by nature of mismatch; generate an exception report. A well-written Python script or Excel macro will perform this task with 100% consistency at any hour, on any day, without fatigue or error of omission. This is what automation promises, and in compliance work, it delivers.

B. Generative AI as Code Generator

As explained above, the role of Generative AI in the compliance practice should not be to perform compliance tasks but to build the tools that perform them. This is a distinction of considerable practical importance. A professional can describe a reconciliation requirement in plain English to GenAI tool — ‘I need a Python script that reads GSTR-2B data from an Excel file, matches it against our purchase register on the basis of GSTIN and invoice number, and generates a report of unmatched items with the reason for mismatch’. The script can be tested and post verification and debugging (which also can be assisted by the GenAI tool), can be deployed on an ongoing basis without much risk.

The same principle applies to Excel macro generation, SQL query construction, and browser automation scripts using tools such as Selenium, which can be directed to log into the GST portal, navigate to the notices section, download pending notices, and save them to a designated folder — all without human intervention. Platforms such as UiPath and Power Automate offer enterprise-grade Robotic Process Automation capabilities, while Python with the requests and BeautifulSoup libraries provides accessible, scriptable alternatives for technical teams.

It is important to reiterate that all AI-generated code must be tested and validated by a human professional on non-production data before deployment on live client data. The code is a draft. The professional is the reviewer. The accountability for the output remains with the firm.

VI. ADVISORY & LITIGATION PRACTICE — THE HIGHEST STAKES FOR HALLUCINATION

A. Risks and Benefits

Advisory and litigation work are classic examples where the firm generates customised client specific drafts and thus, these areas are prime candidates for usage of Generative AI.

Advisory work like classification opinions, ITC eligibility determinations, place of supply analyses, valuation under the GST Valuation Rules can benefit from the drafting generated by GenAI.

Similarly, the entire spectrum of litigation practice, from replies to demand notices, through appeals before the first appellate authority and the GST Appellate Tribunal, to High Court and Supreme Court proceedings can immensely benefit from usage of GenAI.

Despite the benefits of GenAI in these sectors, the risks of confidentiality and hallucinations continue. In fact, they get amplified immensely. A wrong legal opinion, issued to a client, acted upon, and later found to be based on a fabricated circular, exposes the professional to liability that no amendment can cure.

The ‘confident wrongness’ characteristic of large language models — their tendency to produce incorrect information with the same grammatical fluency and apparent authority as correct information — is the central challenge. Unlike a junior colleague who might hedge an uncertain answer, an LLM does not signal its own uncertainty. It generates the most probable response, whether or not that response is accurate.

B. The Choice of Tool — Open vs. Closed LLMs

The above risks suggest a conscious choice of an AI Tool. A public LLM would have the risks of both confidentiality as well as hallucinations. As compared to the use of such a public LLM, a private or a closed LLM can ensure ring-fencing of hallucination risk. If the LLM can be customised using Retrieval Augmented Generation (‘RAG’, discussed below), it could help in providing grounded realistic responses with verifiable citations based on uploading of all relevant source data like law, circulars, decisions, etc.

C. Retrieval Augmented Generation — The Practical Solution

Therefore, Retrieval Augmented Generation (RAG) represents the most practically accessible solution to the hallucination problem for advisory and litigation work. In a RAG architecture, the LLM does not generate answers purely from its training data. Instead, when a query is submitted, the system first retrieves the most relevant documents from a curated knowledge base — CBIC notifications, circulars, AAR and AAAR orders, High Court and Supreme Court judgments, CBIC FAQs — and provides these as context to the model before generating a response. The answer is therefore grounded in known, verifiable documents, and the citations produced can be checked against the retrieved source.

Building such a knowledge base is an investment, but not an insurmountable one. Most GST practices already maintain organised archives of CBIC circulars and relevant judicial pronouncements. The incremental step is to make these archives machine-readable and searchable in a format compatible with RAG-based deployment.

In the long term, developing a private LLM based on RAG architecture can present significant advantages to the firm. However, the investment and efforts would be huge. One may consider a public RAG based LLM (like Notebook LM from Google) to reap the benefit with reduced efforts and costs.

D. The Human-in-the-Loop Imperative

Regardless of the tool chosen, the advisory workflow with Generative AI must maintain human professional intervention at each critical stage. The model can identify relevant provisions, synthesise case law, and produce a structured first draft. The partner or senior manager must verify each citation, review the reasoning, and take professional ownership of the final opinion or appeal before it reaches the client. AI output issued directly to a client, without this intermediate step, is not professional advisory work — it is a liability waiting to materialise.

E. Some Use Cases: Where Generative AI Genuinely Helps

Within these constraints, Generative AI offers real productivity gains in litigation practice. The most significant is in summarisation. A senior practitioner reviewing a 150-page High Court order for its applicability to a pending matter can use a private LLM to generate a structured summary — identifying the principal issue, the ratio of the decision, the facts that were material to the outcome, and the observations that distinguish it from other cases — in a fraction of the time that manual reading would require. This is a genuine productivity gain.

Similarly, Generative AI can assist in structuring replies to show-cause notices, identifying the appropriate legal framework, drafting the preliminary objections, and organising the factual narrative. The professional then refines the draft, adds the specific client facts, verifies all legal references, and takes ownership of the final submission.

Judicial precedent research is another area of value. A query such as ‘What are the major High Court and tribunal decisions on the eligibility of ITC on construction of a factory building under Section 17(5)(d)?’ can yield a structured overview of the judicial landscape in seconds — a starting point for deeper research, not a substitute for it.

VII. SERVICE DELIVERY — THE VISIBLE FACE OF AI ADOPTION

Beyond the core practice areas, Generative AI offers significant opportunities for enhancing the service delivery infrastructure of a GST practice.

Website content and knowledge dissemination benefit from AI’s capacity to generate well-structured, readable explanations of GST developments rapidly. A GST update on a significant notification or circular — the kind of content that builds a firm’s reputation as a thought leader and drives client enquiries — can be produced in a fraction of the time that manual drafting requires. The firm’s editorial oversight, applied before publication, ensures accuracy.

Presentation and document generation is another area where AI tools provide meaningful productivity gains. First-draft slide decks for client presentations, seminar materials, and internal training programmes — structured around a brief or an outline provided by the professional — can be generated rapidly and refined.

Client-facing chatbots, trained on the firm’s FAQ content and standard CBIC reference material, can provide 24-hour first-level responses to routine queries — registration procedures, return due dates, e-invoicing thresholds, and similar matters that do not require professional judgment. The critical design requirement is a well-defined escalation trigger: queries that involve client-specific facts, interpretation, or any element of advisory judgment must route immediately to a human professional.

Social media communication — a dimension of practice development that has become increasingly important for professional visibility — benefits from AI’s ability to generate concise, accurate, and readable posts on GST updates, compliance reminders, and analytical content. The approval workflow — AI drafts, professional reviews and approves — must be maintained without exception.

Compliance dashboards with natural language query interfaces represent a more advanced application. Rather than requiring a manager to write or run a query to identify, say, all clients with an ITC mismatch exceeding a specified threshold, a natural language interface allows the question to be posed in plain English and the relevant data to be surfaced. This is an area where the boundary between automation and AI is at its most productive.

VIII. A ROADMAP FOR ADOPTION — WHERE TO BEGIN

For a practice considering structured AI adoption, the following phased approach balances risk management with practical progress:

  • Phase 1 — Internal foundation (immediate): Establish a firm-wide AI Data Usage Policy defining which tools are approved, what data can be shared, and the mandatory redaction protocol for client-related prompts. Create a Custom GPT or Claude Project loaded with the firm’s standard FAQs, rate schedules, and reference materials. This provides an internal knowledge assistant at minimal cost.
  • Phase 2 — Compliance automation (within three months): Identify the three to five most time-consuming manual compliance processes in the practice. Commission AI-generated automation scripts for each, with mandatory testing on non-production data before deployment. Build a prompt template library for common compliance research queries.
  •  Phase 3 — Advisory and litigation support (three to twelve months): Implement a RAG-based private/public deployment — either through Azure OpenAI or NotebookLM or an open-source equivalent — with the firm’s curated knowledge base of CBIC circulars, AAR orders, and relevant judicial decisions. Establish a citation verification gate: all AI-sourced references checked against primary sources before use in any client communication.
  • Phase 4 — Client-facing services (ongoing): Deploy a structured chatbot for routine client queries. Develop AI-assisted workflows for website content, presentations, and social media. Build natural language query interfaces for compliance dashboards where the client portfolio and data infrastructure support it.

IX. CONCLUSION

The GST professional who approaches Artificial Intelligence with neither uncritical enthusiasm nor reflexive resistance will find in it a genuinely powerful addition to his professional toolkit. The technology is not neutral, however. It carries risks that are specific to its probabilistic architecture, and those risks land squarely on the professional who deploys it.

As a conclusion, five broad principles can be tabulated as key takeaways:

Principle Formulation
Professional Accountability AI amplifies the professional. It does not transfer accountability. Every output issued to a client, every submission made to an authority, remains the professional’s responsibility — regardless of how it was generated.
Confidentiality First Establish your data protocol before adopting any AI tool. The duty of confidentiality does not pause for technological convenience.

 

Principle Formulation
Verify Before Citing Never cite what you have not verified. AI hallucinations are your professional risk — not the vendor’s.
Right Tool, Right Task Automate compliance. Use Generative AI for intelligence. Do not conflate the two, or deploy GenAI where automation’s determinism is required.
Thoughtful Over Early The competitive advantage in AI adoption lies not in being the earliest adopter, but in being the most thoughtful one.

The GST framework was built on the principle of technology-enabled compliance. The profession that built its competence around that framework is now presented with a second technological inflection point. The firms that navigate it well — that build AI literacy across their teams, that establish clear protocols, that invest in private and customised deployments for high-stakes work — will emerge with a structural competitive advantage. More importantly, they will have served their clients with the diligence that the profession demands.

Rational Exercise Of Testamentary Disposition Freedom

While Indian law grants individuals absolute freedom to bequeath self-acquired property, blindly dividing assets equally among children is often irrational and can spark decades of family litigation. “Equal” distribution rarely equates to “equitable” distribution. Testators must thoughtfully consider complex family dynamics, such as varying financial needs, unequal contributions to family wealth, and the caregiving responsibilities assumed by specific children or daughters-in-law. Chartered Accountants, acting as trusted family advisors, are uniquely positioned to guide this process. To prevent legal challenges, testators should distribute assets equitably and clearly document the rationale behind their distributions in the will.

INTRODUCTION

A Chartered Accountant is respected as a friend, philosopher and guide of his client families because he is well-positioned to know inter-se family relations, besides financial health of a family and all its members and is often called upon to guide a testator making his/ her WILL or while resolving family disputes.

WHAT IS INHERITANCE?

Inheritance, at its core, is transfer of assets, rights, obligations, or characteristics from one entity to another, typically spanning generations. While commonly understood as the passing of money or property upon death, true inheritance encompasses both tangible assets and intangible legacies. The intangibles are mostly imbibed since childhood and imbibing those values may vary amongst children depending on their aptitude and up-bringing.

We examine only inheritance of tangible assets in this write up. Wealth distribution between one’s children is always a sensitive topic for any parent, especially when it comes to handing over a self-made or multi-generation business and amounts invested in assets that are partly illiquid in nature like self-occupied residential house. Similar sensitivities also arise when all children are not equally well settled either in their careers (business, profession or jobs) and/ or in personal lives. These differences can be addressed by resorting to ‘equitable’ distribution factoring in families’ disparities and dynamics as against ‘equal’ distribution and ‘estate equalization’ concepts.

THE LEGAL POSITION IN INDIA:

Under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 (ISA), there is no restriction (absolute freedom) on giving away self-acquired property by Hindus, allowing a testator to bequeath his / her wealth in a disproportionate manner amongst legal heirs or anyone.

In contrast, Islamic law limits testamentary freedom to one-third of the estate, ensuring a balance between individual autonomy and maintenance rights of legitimate dependents. There are also laws in various other developed countries putting some restrictions on this absolute freedom. For instance, Ontario in Canada provides for two restrictions on this freedom – limit on the ability to exclude a spouse and limits to exclude dependents. There is no such restriction in India on Hindus.

Thankfully, in recent times, in an urban set –up, in most cases family size is limited to ‘Hum Do, Hamare Do’. Still, we often come across instances of family disputes while executing testamentary dispositions. Such disputes result in avoidable decades long (thankfully, not centuries long) litigations resulting in huge litigation costs, time involved and strained family and social relations. Many of such disputes may be on account of not being rational in making bequeaths.

Considering such possibilities, there is a need to examine the concept of – Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom. Before we examine the subject, it is necessary to deal with two concepts – Gender Equality and Family Wealth.

GENDER EQUALITY:

In India, a woman is called a Shakti. Unfortunately, the position of women in Indian society deteriorated significantly from an initially respected status in the Vedic period to a state of subordination and marginalization, driven by rising patriarchal norms, deplorable social practices and the diminishing of women’s educational and property rights. To dismantle this deep-rooted patriarchy and cultural norms, massive dose of gender equality was needed and off late, we have witnessed good progress in this direction.

The Art of Rational Inheritance Beyond equal to equitable

FAMILY WEALTH:

However, unfortunately, women in India have suffered from high rate of sexual and domestic violence and massive burden of unpaid household work. Even though women almost work day in and day out doing household work and up-bringing of children, the society has failed to recognize the value of the work done by women in contributing towards nurturing family and social relations as well as in building-up the Family Wealth. At times, men continue to feel that the wealth generated is theirs only.

As a result, often it is observed that women neither get a share in their father’s (parents’) family wealth nor in their husband’s family wealth. Recently in April, 2025, in Angadi Chandranna v. Shankar & Ors. (2025 INSC 532), the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that post-partition, an individual’s share becomes his self-acquired property, making him its absolute owner.

Even though the laws have been amended (supported by certain judicial pronouncements) giving women their well-deserved rights in Family Wealth, these legal positions are subject to what is known as absolute freedom granted by ISA to dispose of self-acquired properties. Possibly, there would be numerous instances where women are requested to give-up (relinquish) their rights under Hindu Succession Act and also in joint family properties.

Thankfully, there is significant amount of awakening noticed on these issues and many parents at least while exercising the freedom granted by ISA, try their best to address the same.

A NOTE OF CAUTION

There is a possibility that a testator may blindly (without appreciating the factors like few illustrated herein) say: “for me all my children are equal”. Though, no doubt, gender equality is highly desirable, particularly in up-bringing of the children, situations may change as children grow up and settle-down in their own lives necessitating rational/ logical application of concept of gender equality while bequeathing the family wealth. If applied routinely and in casual manner, it is bound to lead to major misunderstandings and injustice resulting in avoidable litigation which can bleed all the concerned family members heavily in terms of money, time and strained family & social relations. It is therefore recommended that every testator attempts to be rational while exercising the freedom granted by ISA and his actions are justifiable.

What is – Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom?

An equal distribution of assets in many cases may be neither fair nor rational. Responsible or rational exercise of the freedom of testamentary disposition involves balancing one’s legal right to dispose of self-acquired property with moral, social, and familial obligations, ensuring clarity, fairness, and compliance with the law to prevent future disputes. While ISA allows broad freedom to bequeath property, responsible testamentary planning focuses on providing for dependents, ensuring the validity of the actions and avoiding either misunderstanding or malicious disinheritance.

In view of numerous such factors, generality is difficult. Each family set-up is bound to have its own peculiar facts necessitating proper understanding thereof. The concept may also be termed as distributing assets in an equitable and fair manner rather than merely equal distribution of bequeaths.

In conclusion, the concept demands:

  • Equitable distribution rather than mere equal distribution,
  • Take into account and consider family disparities/ dynamics,
  • The concept of ‘equalisation’ doesn’t necessarily imply impartiality,
  • The testator needs to factor in substantial sums given as bequests during lifetime to meet certain contingencies,
  • If family harmony so permits, have transparent discussion with family members/ heirs about the reasons for specific distribution.

Factors suggesting need for Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom

  • Out of two sons, one stays with parents and he and his wife shoulder all family social and parental obligations and responsibilities. Such a son may join family business and runs the same for joint benefits of his and his parents’ families. The other son may settle abroad or financially remain independent from the family all through with occasional family visits.
  • In a case where there is a son and a daughter, the son takes over father’s family business and runs the same for joint benefits of his and his parents’ families. He and his wife shoulder all family social and parental obligations. Whereas, the daughter gets married and plays mere passive role in supporting the parents.
  • In both the above instances, son with his family may continue to stay with parents in the family residential house for various reasons including substantial amount required to buy a separate house, especially in metropolis cities.

In all the above three instances, rational exercise required is proper consideration as regards business assets as well as the residential house.

  • There may be instances where a son (or one of the two sons) while working on his career or while running his business/ profession, continues to handle parents’ savings (investments) and his savings and makes them grow with his efforts and treat it as his and his parents income and wealth, whereas the other son or married daughter plays no role in earning this income and growth of income and wealth. In such or similar scenarios, rational application requires proper appreciation of efforts put in by the son to augment family’s wealth including that of his parents.
  • At times, in any of the above instances, if the original family house is sold and a bigger residential house is bought with joint family income and wealth, whereas, the other son or married daughter has not contributed to the amount invested in buying a bigger house. In such a case, rational application can segregate the value of parents’ share in the bigger house as the value of original house when sold as family’s wealth.
  • There is also a possibility of one of the children suffering from a physical or a mental limitation while the other child is normal in all respects. A rational approach is required here for appropriate provision for the investment required for maintenance for taking care of physically/ mentally challenged child – son or daughter.
  • There is also possibility of daughter’s marriage being in trouble – financially and/ or otherwise, whereas son or second daughter is enjoying good family life. The parents have to make specific additional provision for such a daughter for yearly maintenance and also for the need of a suitable house for her and her children, depending on the available of total family wealth. Similar consideration is required in case where one daughter is not married and who is dependent on the parents.
  • In most cases it happens that the responsibility (not burden) of taking care of parents in their old age mainly falls on son’s wife. Unfortunately, a social media message says – ‘My Son is My Son till he gets a wife, but My Daughter is My Daughter till the end of life.’ Such misconceptions create undesirable situations including in the matter of testamentary bequests. The parents need to recognize daughter-in-law as integral part of the family rather than an outsider.
  • Considering that all children are not born with equal intelligence, skills or other traits (including what most people believe in – destiny), their upbringing, academic studies, careers and personal family growth may be at variance – at times material variance. The parents need to recognise this issue and provide for testamentary bequests accordingly.
  • Also, there are various family obligations – social as well as parental care (physically and if required, financially) during their advanced age. The children (including daughters-in-law) need to keep in mind that taking care of parents during their old age is a moral obligation and there can’t be and they shouldn’t expect quid-pro-quo for discharging this moral obligation. Often, married daughters or children staying abroad play a passive or little role in taking care of these aspects. Hence, the parents ought to consider this fact as to who has held the fort in their advanced ages while making testamentary bequests.

Legal Basis for fair and equitable distribution:

In India, a will is not inherently invalid merely because it is unfair, unreasonable, or inequitable, even if it divides property unequally among heirs who might otherwise be entitled to equal shares under intestate situation. The Supreme Court has clarified that in matters of testamentary disposition (wills), there is no requirement for the distribution to be “fair and equitable” to all children. However, Indian courts will invalidate or look closely at such wills under specific, well-defined “suspicious circumstances” that suggest the document does not truly reflect the testator’s intentions. A will is valid even if unfair, unless the beneficiary cannot explain the unnatural distribution (the “suspicious circumstances”) to the satisfaction of the court.

Considering the stated legal position in India, a testator should narrate the rationale (justification) for the equitable bequeaths to ensure that the testamentary disposition is moral, ethical as well as legally justifiable.

Major pitfall in drawing up a fair and equitable testamentary disposition:

As stated earlier, each family set-up is bound to have its own peculiar facts necessitating proper understanding thereof and this set-up is at times fluid i.e. changing over a period of time. This is likely to disturb the understanding thereof and as a consequence, actions taken based on such an understanding. The writer is of the view that in most such cases, changes are minor in nature and should not disturb the actions taken. In cases where there is any major event happening, the testator may have to consider making suitable changes in the Will.

CONCLUSION:

A Chartered Accountant is respected as a friend, philosopher and guide of his client families because he is well-positioned to know inter-se family relations, besides financial health of a family and all its members and is often called upon to guide.

The testator making his/ her WILL and the Chartered Accountant guiding his client should keep in mind these facts and probably many others, depending on the peculiar circumstances of each case. More importantly, enough thought should be applied while applying the said two concepts – Gender Equality and Family Wealth, and also while drawing up a testamentary document for an equitable and not equal bequeaths with a narrated rationale as preamble.

Foreign Assets Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS 2026): Income Tax Relief vs. FEMA Risks

The FAST-DS 2026 allows individuals to regularize undisclosed foreign assets (up to ₹5 crore) and reporting lapses (up to ₹1 crore) to gain immunity under the Income-tax and Black Money Acts. Crucially, this tax immunity does not automatically extend to FEMA contraventions.

Taxpayers must independently evaluate potential FEMA violations before disclosure. Common breaches include retaining foreign exchange beyond 180 days, making overseas direct investments in entities with step-down subsidiaries or financial services, using non-compliant remittance routes, or acquiring overseas property through unapproved funding. Taxpayers must adopt a holistic approach, regularizing any FEMA breaches separately through mechanisms like Late Submission Fees or compounding.

The Union Budget 2026 introduced a one-time Foreign Assets Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS 2026) to provide a compliance window to individual taxpayers for regularising past non-disclosures of overseas income and assets. The scheme permits voluntary disclosure of undisclosed foreign income and foreign assets up to ₹5 crore and cases involving mere reporting lapses, where income has already been offered to tax in India but the corresponding foreign assets were not disclosed, up to ₹1 crore. Eligible individuals can regularise such defaults by paying the prescribed tax and penalty and obtain immunity from prosecution and penal consequences under the Income-tax Act and the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015. The scheme is strictly restricted to individuals and does not extend to companies, LLPs, firms, trusts, or other non-individual entities.

While the scheme offers significant relief from an income-tax standpoint, tax regularisation does not automatically translate into regulatory regularisation, particularly under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA). The framework for tax regularisation and that of exchange-control compliance operate in distinct, albeit intersecting, domains.

It therefore becomes crucial prior to opting for disclosure, that taxpayers carefully assess whether the transactions leading to the acquisition, holding or transfer of such foreign income and assets are compliant with FEMA and the rules and regulations framed thereunder, as immunity granted under the scheme does not extend to FEMA contraventions.

In this article the authors have attempted to address potential violations that may arise in connection with acquisition, holding, or transfer of such foreign assets, along with the possible remedies under FEMA. In the concluding segment, the article briefly examines the avenues available for regularisation of such breaches.

FAST DS 2026

A. FOREIGN BANK ACCOUNT AND DEPOSITS

An individual disclosing balances lying in foreign bank accounts or fixed deposits abroad, triggers critical examination under Regulation 7 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Realisation, Repatriation and Surrender of Foreign Exchange) Regulations, 2015 and, Paragraph 17 of the Master Direction on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), which delineate the obligations in relation to repatriation and surrender of foreign exchange imposed on persons resident in India.

The provisions mandate that a person resident in India is required to surrender any foreign exchange received, realised, unspent or unused, to an authorised person within 180 days from the date of such receipt, realisation, purchase, acquisition or from the date of his return to India, as applicable.

Where a resident individual parks funds in a foreign bank account or fixed deposit beyond the stipulated period, such continued retention of funds, would constitute a contravention of FEMA. The provision also extends to incomes earned from investments; and such income would need to be re-invested or repatriated within this period of 180 days, in accordance with applicable guidelines.

B. OVERSEAS INVESTMENT

Overseas Direct Investment in Foreign Entities having Step-Down Subsidiaries

Under Paragraph 1 of Schedule III of the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022 (OI Rules), a resident individual is permitted to make ODI (ODI) in a foreign entity, with a caveat that such foreign entity must not have any step-down subsidiary (SDS).

In other words, whilst individuals are permitted to acquire control in a foreign entity, permission is expressly denied where such foreign investee entity itself acquires control in another foreign entity, thereby creating a layered corporate structure. That said, the rules carve out specific exceptions for acquisition by way of inheritance, qualification shares, sweat equity shares, shares under employee stock ownership plans or employee benefit schemes.

Thus, resident individuals who have utilized their own funds for investment in foreign start-ups or have invested in offshore holding companies operating through multi-layered structures may inadvertently violate India’s exchange control regime. Such structures, while globally accepted as commercial practice, breach the restriction on step-down subsidiaries, thereby rendering the ODI transaction non-compliant ab initio.

Overseas Direct Investment in Foreign Entities engaged in Financial Services Activity

Paragraph 1 of Schedule III of the OI Rules places an embargo on ODI by resident individuals in foreign entities engaged in financial services activity.

A foreign entity will be considered as engaged in the business of financial services activity if it undertakes an activity, which if carried out by an entity in India, would necessitate registration with or regulation by a financial sector regulator in India (such as Reserve Bank of India, Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, etc.).

Notwithstanding the foregoing, acquisition by way of inheritance, qualification shares, sweat equity shares, shares under employee stock ownership plans or employee benefit schemes is expressly permitted, even if the foreign entity is engaged in the financial service activity.
Individuals often invest in overseas fintech platforms, lending start-ups, trading applications, investment advisory ventures and crypto exchanges, without recognising their classification as financial service entities under FEMA. Consequently, what may appear to be commercially viable investments legally permitted in the host country, may result in a contravention of the ODI framework.

MODE OF FUNDING – NON-COMPLIANT REMITTANCE ROUTES

Regulation 8 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022 (OI Regulations) mandates that overseas investment be made only through permitted routes, including inter-alia banking channels, swap of securities or debits to accounts maintained in accordance with FEMA. The framework strictly precludes funding transactions through cash payments, informal settlement mechanisms or non-banking routes.

Common non-compliances that have surfaced in the context of ODI funding include:

  • Cash funding through overseas associates, friends or relatives
  • Third-party funding structures
  • Informal fund transfers through hawala arrangements
  • Personal overseas account transfers outside the recognised banking system, including transfers made through fintech platforms

Such funding structures, often adopted in the interest of speed or operational convenience, can result not only in procedural lapses, but also substantive contraventions of the governing regime.

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND SUBMISSIONS FOR ODI

As per Regulation 9 of the OI Regulations, a person resident in India making ODI shall obtain a Unique Identification Number (UIN) before sending outward remittance or acquisition of equity capital in a foreign entity, whichever is earlier, by submitting Form FC along with prescribed supporting documentation to the Authorised Dealer (AD) bank.

The Regulation also prescribes submission of share certificates or other documentary evidence as proof of ODI to the designated AD bank within 6 months from the date of remittance/investment.
A recurrent compliance lapse arises in the delayed filing of Form FC, particularly in cases involving newly incorporated entities. Under the ODI regime, investment / financial commitment is consummated upon incorporation itself, on subscription to the charter documents of the foreign entity, and Form FC is required to be filed contemporaneously with such incorporation. In practice, however, opening of the overseas bank account may take time. As a result, filings are typically deferred until the remittance of funds, when the bank account is operational, resulting in inadvertent delay in submission of Form FC and generation of UIN.

Another common procedural oversight pertains to delay in furnishing share certificates or other documentary evidence of investment within the prescribed timeline to the AD Bank; thereby tainting an otherwise compliant capital transaction with procedural non-compliance.

C. ACQUISITION OF OVERSEAS IMMOVABLE PROPERTY

Mode of Funding – Funding through channels not specified

Regulation 21 of the OI Rules states that overseas immovable property may be acquired:

  •  From a person resident in India: By way of inheritance, gift or purchase
  •  From a person resident outside India: By way of inheritance, purchase out of foreign exchange held in Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) Account, remittances under LRS, joint acquisition with a relative who is a person resident outside India or income/proceeds of assets (other than ODI) acquired as per law.

In this context, borrowings from overseas banks/foreign entities or funds mobilised through friends, associates, third parties or informal non-banking channels do not qualify as legitimate routes for funding and could have ramifications under FEMA.

ACQUISITION OF OVERSEAS IMMOVABLE PROPERTY ON DEFERRED PAYMENT / INSTALMENT BASIS

Transactions involving acquisition of property on a deferred payment / instalment basis may be construed as financing arrangements creating an obligation outside India for the resident individual and being a capital account transaction is therefore not permitted without prior RBI approval. One would need to examine whether setting out clear construction milestones linked to payment of instalments could mitigate the characterisation of the transaction as a financing arrangement.

CONCLUDING REMARKS

The instances discussed above are only illustrative and not exhaustive, and potential FEMA non-compliances arising from foreign asset disclosures may vary widely depending upon the structure and regulatory classification of overseas transactions. While the existence of a FEMA contravention does not restrict or bar disclosure under the FAST-DS 2026, such disclosure invariably necessitates a parallel evaluation of FEMA compliance exposure.

It is pertinent to note that relief under Section 6(4) of FEMA is granted to residents to hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security or overseas immovable property, if the same was acquired when the individual was a person resident outside India or inherited from a person resident outside India.

Taxpayers proposing to avail the scheme should adopt a holistic compliance approach, viewing disclosures not only from an income-tax lens, but also from a FEMA perspective. Where gaps are identified and concerns arise, FEMA provides mechanisms and avenues for regularisation, such as payment of Late Submission Fees (LSF) and compounding of contraventions. It is also relevant to note that FEMA and income tax law operate independently; and non-participation in the FAST-DS 2026 does not, in itself, resolve contraventions under FEMA. Accordingly, while a coordinated review may be advisable, the existence of potential FEMA considerations should not be viewed as a deterrent to making a bona fide disclosure under the scheme.

Navigating The Derecognition Test Under Ind As 109 In Indian Securitisation

Every quarter, Indian NBFCs and housing finance companies announce securitisation transactions that improve capital ratios, unlock liquidity, and signal disciplined balance sheet management. Yet some of those same transactions are later revisited and, in certain cases, restated as secured borrowings. The issue is rarely legal or structural. It is accounting; specifically, the misapplication of the derecognition requirements under Ind AS 109.

This article walks through where Indian structures most often fail: cumulative credit enhancements that leave economic risk with the originator, servicing arrangements that go well beyond administration, pass-through mechanics that look compliant on paper but are not, and a persistent under-appreciation of partial derecognition and continuing involvement. It also sets those requirements against the parallel; and sometimes divergent; framework under the RBI’s 2021 Master Directions. The aim is to give practising CAs a clear, working framework grounded in the actual decision tree in Ind AS 109.

1. GETTING THE SEQUENCE RIGHT: WHAT IND AS 109 ACTUALLY DOES

The derecognition model in Ind AS 109 is more structured than the familiar “cash flows – risks and rewards – control” shorthand suggests. In practice, five questions have to be answered in the right order.

Step 0: Consolidate First (Ind AS 109 para 3.2.1 read with Ind AS 110)

Derecognition is assessed only after all subsidiaries, including securitisation SPVs and other structured entities, are consolidated under Ind AS 110. If the originator controls the SPV, the loans stay on the consolidated balance sheet regardless of how clean the transfer looks at the SPV level.

This is not a theoretical nicety. Many Indian securitisation SPVs are thinly capitalised, bankruptcy-remote entities with activities narrowly defined by trust deeds and transaction documents. Depending on how decision-making, exposure to variable returns, and key rights are structured, an originator may well have to consolidate such an SPV. Once it does, derecognition at the consolidated level is off the table, even if the SPV itself would have met all the tests.

Step 1: Whole Asset or Component? (para 3.2.2)

The standard next asks whether derecognition should be applied to:

  •  The entire financial asset (or pool); or
  •  Only to a part of it.

A part qualifies only if it is:

1. A specifically identified stream of cash flows (for example, only the interest cash flows); or

2. A fully pro-rata share of all cash flows (for example, a vertical 60% interest in every rupee of principal and interest); or

3. A fully pro-rata share of specifically identified cash flows.

Many Indian direct assignment deals and tranche structures sit exactly here: the originator may be transferring, say, the senior 80% of principal cash flows but retaining all excess spread and certain loss-absorbing pieces. If the structure does not fit one of the three categories above, the derecognition analysis applies to the entire asset, not just to the “sold” slice.

Step 2: Have the Rights Expired? (para 3.2.3)

If contractual rights to the cash flows have simply expired; because the loan has been repaid, cancelled, or written off; derecognition follows without further analysis. In securitisation, this is rarely the path; most transactions involve transfers rather than expiries.

Step 3: Has There Been a “Transfer” at All? (paras 3.2.4–3.2.5)

Only now does the standard ask whether the entity has transferred the asset. This can happen in two ways:

1. Transfer of contractual rights to receive cash flows; or

2. Pass-through arrangements, where the originator retains legal title and the right to collect cash flows, but is contractually obliged to pass them on.

The three well-known pass-through conditions (no obligation to pay unless collected; no ability to sell/pledge the asset except as security; remittance without material delay and without reinvestment) sit here in the decision tree. They answer a narrow gateway question: has a transfer occurred at all?

They are not an alternative route that can be invoked when the risks-and-rewards analysis is uncomfortably close. In other words, an originator does not get to say: “The risks and rewards outcome is borderline, so we will instead rely on the pass-through test.” If the contractual rights have been transferred outright, the pass-through limb is simply not engaged.

Step 4: Have Substantially All Risks and Rewards Moved? (paras 3.2.6–3.2.8, B3.2.4–B3.2.5)

Once a transfer is established, the core question is whether the originator has:

  •  Transferred substantially all risks and rewards of ownership;
  • Retained substantially all of them; or
  • Landed in the middle, having transferred some but not most.

The standard is deliberately silent on a numeric threshold. The task is to look at the variability of the asset’s future net cash flows before and after the transfer, across reasonably possible scenarios, and to ask who is bearing that variability.

Substance Over Form The IND AS 109

Crucially, “variability” under Ind AS 109 is not a synonym for “credit loss”. The application guidance identifies a broader set of risks and rewards that have to be considered to the extent they are applicable to the specific asset — including credit risk, interest rate risk, prepayment risk, late payment risk, foreign exchange risk, and equity price risk. For a typical Indian retail loan pool — home loans, vehicle finance, unsecured consumer lending — credit and prepayment risk are usually the two dominant drivers of net cash flow variability, and interest rate risk can become material in longer-tenor floating-rate pools. A scenario framework that tests only credit loss paths will, by construction, miss the prepayment and interest-rate channels through which risk is often retained.

In practice, a convention has developed:

  •  If the originator bears more than around 90% of the expected variability in cash flows, it is viewed as having retained substantially all risks and rewards.
  •  If it bears less than about 10%, it is generally seen as having transferred substantially all risks and rewards.

That convention draws on IASB implementation guidance and market practice; it is not a safe harbour in the standard. Two cautions follow.

First, the convention should be applied to total variability across all applicable risks, not to credit losses alone. A structure where a senior investor bears material prepayment or interest rate risk but minimal credit risk may show a very different overall variability picture from what a credit-loss-only scenario would suggest — in either direction.

Second, applying the convention mechanically, without examining which risks are being retained, can itself produce wrong answers. A structure where an originator keeps a small, deeply subordinated tranche that absorbs virtually all default losses may fail derecognition even if that tranche is “only” 10–15% of the pool. Conversely, a structure that appears to leave significant residual loss exposure with the originator may, once prepayment and interest rate risk are modelled alongside credit risk, land in the middle zone rather than in outright failure.

Step 5: Control and Continuing Involvement (paras 3.2.9, 3.2.16–3.2.21)

If the risks-and-rewards analysis is clearly one-sided, the answer is simple:

  •  Substantially all transferred → derecognise.
  • Substantially all retained → continue to recognise and treat proceeds as a secured borrowing.

The interesting cases sit in the middle zone, where the originator has neither transferred nor retained substantially all risks and rewards. Here, the standard asks: has control been retained?

  •  If the transferee has the practical ability to sell the asset in its entirety to an unrelated third party, unilaterally and without further restrictions, the originator has not retained control and derecognition of the entire asset follows, with separate recognition of any continuing involvement (for example, guarantees or options).
  •  If that ability is missing, the originator is deemed to have retained control and must apply the continuing involvement approach: it keeps the asset on the balance sheet to the extent of its continuing involvement, with the remainder derecognised.

This is an important nuance that tends to be glossed over. Derecognition is not always all or nothing. For guarantees, written or purchased options, or limited credit support, the standard requires
a partial derecognition outcome where the carrying amount of the asset is split between the transferred and retained exposures with reference to the originator’s exposure to changes in the asset’s value.

In the Indian context, this matters for structures with limited first-loss pieces, restricted clean-up calls, or specific loss guarantees: they may support partial derecognition combined with a continuing involvement balance, rather than a simple “keep the whole pool on the books” answer.

2. WHAT A DEFENSIBLE DERECOGNITION FILE LOOKS LIKE

Before getting into the failure points, it is worth front-loading the one thing that tends to be an afterthought in busy closings: documentation. A derecognition conclusion that cannot be traced back to contemporaneous analysis is, in practical terms, a weak conclusion.

At a minimum, a robust file should contain:

1. Scope and consolidation analysis

  • Why the SPV or trust is, or is not, consolidated under Ind AS 110.
  • Whether derecognition is being assessed for the entire asset or a qualifying component under para 3.2.2

2. Comprehensive enhancement and support inventory

  • All contractual credit enhancements (first-loss pieces, cash collateral, sub-loans, guarantees, liquidity or timing facilities, over-collateralisation, excess spread traps).
  • Any implicit or reputational support that management regards as likely in stress scenarios.

3. Probability-weighted scenario analysis

  •  Base, stress, and severe stress scenarios modelled across all material risks — credit loss, prepayment, and, where relevant, interest rate and foreign exchange risk. A credit-loss-only model is not sufficient evidence of who bears variability.
  • Who absorbs what share of losses and upside across those scenarios; how much of the overall variability, aggregated across risks, the originator still bears.

4. Cash flow routing and pass-through mechanics

  •  Actual collection account structures, sweep instructions, and timing.
  • Assessment of commingling, reinvestment rights, and any timing mismatches between collections and investor payouts.

5. Control and continuing involvement analysis

  •  Whether transferees can sell or refinance their positions without originator consent.
  • Treatment of options, guarantees, and limited recourse clauses and their impact on continuing involvement and partial derecognition.

6. Legal and regulatory overlay

  •  True sale and bankruptcy-remoteness opinion under Indian insolvency law, including learnings from cases such as DHFL.
  •  Interaction with the RBI’s Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets; especially where regulatory capital treatment diverges from accounting derecognition.

7. Conclusion memorandum

  • A clear statement of the derecognition conclusion (full, partial with continuing involvement, or none) and, where applicable, the gain or loss on derecognition and servicing asset/liability treatment.

This is not gold-plating. For a judgement that can move capital ratios, headline profit, and regulatory perceptions, it is the bare minimum.

3. WHERE INDIAN STRUCTURES ACTUALLY BREAK

With that framework in place, it becomes easier to see where Indian securitisations most often run into trouble.

This is not a theoretical concern. RBI inspection findings and supervisory communications over the past several years have documented instances where securitisation transactions; including those by prominent NBFCs; were reclassified as secured borrowings following regulatory review, with consequential impact on reported capital ratios and profit.

3.1 The Credit Enhancement Trap

Consider a vehicle finance company securitising a ₹1,000 crore retail pool. The AAA-rated senior tranche; 75% of the pool; is placed with investors. The originator retains a 10% first-loss piece plus several other forms of support. On paper, investors hold the majority. In substance, the risk picture can be very different.

Suppose a simplified probability-weighted loss analysis looks like this (losses as a percentage of the pool):

Scenario Probability Pool Loss Loss borne by originator Loss borne by investors
Base 50% 2% (₹20) 2% (₹20) 0
Stress 40% 6% (₹60) 6% (₹60) 0
Severe stress 10% 15% (₹150) 10% (₹100) 5% (₹50)
The originator’s expected share of loss is:
  • 0.50 × 20 + 0.40 × 60 + 0.10 × 100 = ₹44.
Total expected loss on the pool is:
  • 0.50 × 20 + 0.40 × 60 + 0.10 × 150 = ₹49.
So, although investors have bought 75% of the notes, the originator is still swallowing roughly 90% of the expected credit loss. That is very close to the “substantially all” line even before considering other forms of continuing exposure.

The problem is compounded when enhancements are reviewed one at a time and signed off in isolation:

  •  First-loss tranche? Market standard.
  • Cash collateral? Rating-driven and prudent.
  • Subordinated loan to the SPV? Necessary capital structure.
  • Corporate guarantee on senior notes? Investor comfort.

Ind AS 109 does not permit this piecemeal lens. Enhancements have to be viewed cumulatively. A stylised snapshot of typical features makes the point:

Enhancement Mechanism Typical Quantum Derecognition Risk Core Concern
First-loss tranche retention 8–12% High Absorbs most probable credit losses
Cash collateral account 7–10% High Funded exposure remains with originator
Excess spread trapping Variable Medium–High Ongoing residual interest in pool performance
Corporate guarantee (senior) Full / Partial Very High Near-complete protection to investors
Liquidity / timing advances 5–8% Medium Can morph into credit risk if advances are unrecoverable
Subordinated loan to SPV 10–15% High Originator is economically subordinated

In one consumer finance deal I observed, there was no explicit first-loss tranche at all; a fact the treasury team leaned on heavily in conversations. On closer reading, the structure featured a sizeable cash collateral account, a subordinated loan to the SPV, a mechanism to trap excess spread, and a timing guarantee. Individually, none of those elements was outside what the market would consider normal. Taken together, they left investors with very little exposure to the pool’s everyday credit risk.

When the numbers were run, the originator’s exposure to variability easily crossed the 90% line. Derecognition failed. The genuine surprise within the deal team at that conclusion says something about how strongly “form” still dominates “substance” in many structuring discussions.

3.2 Servicing: When Administration Turns into Ownership

In India, it is almost a given that the originator continues as servicer. Changing EMI mandates for hundreds of thousands of borrowers, re-documenting security, and altering customer communication flows is expensive and often undesirable. The question is not whether the originator services. It is how.

In one mortgage securitisation, the core sale documents were clean. The real issues lived in the 50-page servicing agreement. Three provisions, taken together, changed the analysis from “agent” to “principal”:

1. Advance servicing fee: the servicer was paid, upfront, the present value of three years of expected servicing fees. If the pool performed poorly, its future workload would fall, but its remuneration would not. That is not a straightforward fee; it is an exposure to pool performance.

2. Clean-up call: the servicer had the right to repurchase the residual pool once it fell below a fixed percentage of original balance. Clean-up calls are common globally, but when combined with local court practice and insolvency risks, an option that can be exercised precisely when the remaining loans are the most distressed has to be examined as a potential continuation of risk.

3. Delinquency repurchase right: any loan hitting 90 DPD could be repurchased at par “for administrative convenience”. Economically, this looked very much like a guarantee on early defaults; the riskiest part of the curve.

The derecognition conclusion was not difficult. This was not a neutral servicing mandate. It was a bundle of rights and obligations that left the bank materially exposed to the same credit risk it claimed to have sold.

Where derecognition does succeed and servicing is retained, there is a further accounting step that is often overlooked:

  • If the expected fees for servicing are higher than the consideration the market would require for such services, a servicing asset is recognised.
  • If the expected fees are lower, a servicing liability arises.

In both cases, Ind AS 109 requires that the original carrying amount of the asset be allocated between:

  •  The portion derecognised; and
  •  The retained servicing right (asset or liability);using their relative fair values at the date of transfer. This “splitting” is not an optional nicety; it is part of the derecognition mechanics.

3.3 Pass-Through: Why the Gateway Test Often Fails in Practice

Where the originator has not transferred the contractual rights to receive cash flows, derecognition is only possible if the arrangement qualifies as a pass-through transfer. That requires all three conditions in para 3.2.5 to be met:

1. No obligation to pay the eventual recipients unless equivalent amounts are collected from the asset;

2. No ability to sell or pledge the asset other than as security for the obligation to pay the recipients;

3. An obligation to remit cash flows without material delay and without reinvestment except in cash or cash equivalents during the settlement period.

In one direct assignment, for operational reasons, borrower EMIs continued to hit originator-controlled accounts. The originator swept funds to the SPV monthly, retained any excess as a “performance incentive”, and advanced shortfalls to ensure investors were paid on schedule; recovering those advances from future excess collections.

Every feature had a commercial explanation. Taken together:

  • EMIs were commingled in originator accounts for the better part of the month.
  • The “performance incentive” created a continuing residual interest well beyond a pure servicing fee.
  • Investor cash flows followed a predetermined schedule, not the actual timing pattern of underlying collections.

From an Ind AS 109 standpoint, the originator had not passed cash flows through. It was managing timing differences, bearing gaps, and sharing upside. The gateway “transfer” test failed; the risks-and-rewards and control tests never even properly arose.

This is not an isolated pattern. Monthly waterfalls; standard in Indian securitisation; are not automatically fatal, but they do create timing differences that need to be weighed against the “no material delay” requirement. Where the originator is, in substance, smoothing and reshaping cash flows, a pass-through conclusion is difficult to sustain.

4. PARTIAL DERECOGNITION AND CONTINUING INVOLVEMENT: THE MIDDLE GROUND

Indian practice often treats derecognition as a binary choice: either the pool is off the books or it is not. Ind AS 109 is more nuanced.

Where:

  •  The originator has transferred the asset (or a qualifying part under para 3.2.2);
  • It has neither transferred nor retained substantially all risks and rewards; and
  • It has retained control; the standard requires recognition of the asset to the extent of continuing involvement.

The most common forms are:

  • A limited credit guarantee on transferred receivables;
  • Written or purchased put and call options;
  • Deeply subordinated residual interests or credit-enhancing interest-only strips.

In such cases, the carrying amount of the asset is split into:

  •  A portion that is derecognised; and
  • A portion that continues to be recognised, measured by reference to the originator’s maximum exposure to changes in the asset’s value.

The associated liability or derivative is measured separately. This approach is particularly relevant where the originator’s support is capped (for example, a guarantee limited to 10% of principal). Treating such structures as a complete failure of derecognition over-states the asset on the originator’s balance sheet and understates the transfer that has actually occurred.

5. IMPLICIT SUPPORT: THE PRESENT AND THE FUTURE

Ind AS 109 and Ind AS 107 both address implicit support; situations where the originator, though not contractually obliged, steps in to support a securitised pool. The standard is clear on two fronts.

First, for the current transaction:

•     If assets have been derecognised and the originator later provides non-contractual support; by making good shortfalls, waiving fees, or absorbing losses; the derecognition conclusion must be revisited. Depending on the nature and extent of support, the originator may have to recognise:

  • A new financial asset;
  • A guarantee or other liability; or
  • In some cases, a renewed continuing involvement in previously derecognised assets.

Second, for future transactions:

  • Once an originator has demonstrated a pattern of stepping in to protect investors beyond contractual terms, users of the financial statements; and, importantly, auditors and regulators; are entitled to assume that similar support is likely in future deals.
  • IFRS 7 (Ind AS 107) explicitly contemplates this forward-looking dimension: disclosures are required that enable users to understand both the support actually provided and the extent to which derecognition conclusions on future transfers may be affected by that history.

For practitioners, the practical takeaway is uncomfortable but unavoidable: a one-off “reputational” support decision can cast a long shadow. It not only creates an immediate accounting event; it also colours the derecognition analysis for every subsequent securitisation the originator undertakes.

6. A WORKED NUMERICAL EXAMPLE

An end-to-end illustration helps to see how the pieces fit together.

6.1 Structure and Assumptions

• Originator holds a homogeneous retail loan pool:

  • Gross carrying amount: ₹1,000
  • Loss allowance (ECL): ₹20
  • Net carrying amount: ₹980

• The originator transfers the pool into an SPV, which issues notes as follows:

  • Senior notes of ₹900 sold to investors.
  • Subordinated notes of ₹100 retained by the originator.
  • The originator also acts as servicer, receiving an annual fee equal to 0.75% of outstanding principal.

Assume:

  • The fair value of the entire pool at the date of transfer is ₹1,020.
  • Fair value of the senior notes issued is ₹918.
  • Fair value of the subordinated notes retained is ₹94.
  • Fair value of the servicing right (based on expected fee flows versus market servicing fee) is ₹8.

Total fair value of the pieces (₹918 + ₹94 + ₹8 = ₹1,020) matches the fair value of the pool.

6.2 Risk and Reward Analysis

A probability-weighted loss analysis similar to the earlier example suggests:

Total expected credit loss on the pool: ₹49.

Expected loss absorbed by the subordinated tranche: ₹44.

The originator therefore bears about 90% of expected credit loss through its subordinated notes. There is no other credit enhancement beyond this tranche. On these numbers alone, and looking only at credit loss, most audit and regulatory reviewers would conclude that substantially all credit risk has been retained. A 90% absorption of expected credit loss sits squarely in the territory where, in practice, the risk-and-reward test is treated as failing — not as an ambiguous middle-zone outcome. The reader should not take 90% as a number that supports derecognition with continuing involvement; in isolation, it does not.

Two considerations, however, are worth running through before closing the analysis:

The subordinated tranche is capped at ₹100. In a truly severe tail scenario, losses above that cap flow through to investors. The absolute ceiling on originator loss is a relevant data point even if the expected-loss share is heavily skewed.

Credit loss is only one dimension of variability. Prepayment risk, interest rate risk, and — where relevant — foreign exchange risk have to be brought into the same calculation. In this example, those risks are borne broadly pro-rata by senior and subordinated holders, so they do not shift the conclusion. In a mortgage pool, they typically would.

Two treatment paths therefore need to be illustrated.

Path A — Risk-and-reward test fails (the likely conclusion on these numbers). The originator has retained substantially all risks and rewards. The pool continues to be recognised on the balance sheet in full. The proceeds of ₹918 received on the senior notes are accounted for as a secured borrowing. No gain on derecognition arises. Interest income on the pool continues to be recognised; interest expense on the borrowing is recognised separately. This is the outcome practitioners should expect to reach on facts of this kind.

Path B — Risk-and-reward outcome is genuinely inconclusive. The numbers above, combined with a fuller scenario model that brings prepayment and interest-rate variability into the frame, may in some structures produce an overall variability share for the originator that is materially below the 90% credit-loss figure — for example, where heavy prepayment optionality in the underlying loans is in substance passed through to investors. Where that fuller modelling pushes the overall variability share into the 40–60% range across the full risk spectrum, the transaction sits in the middle zone and control has to be tested. If the transferee has the practical ability to sell the senior notes freely to an unrelated third party, control has not been retained, and the pool qualifies for derecognition in full with separate recognition of continuing involvement (the subordinated notes and the servicing right). Section 6.3 works through the mechanics for this path, so that the allocation methodology under Ind AS 109 is visible end-to-end.

6.3 Allocation of Carrying Amount and Gain Recognition

The mechanics that follow assume Path B has been reached — that is, that fuller modelling of credit, prepayment and interest rate risk together has placed the originator’s overall variability share within the middle zone, and that the control test (free saleability of the senior notes by the transferee) is satisfied. The allocation and gain computation below then follows.

Ind AS 109 now requires the originator to allocate the net carrying amount of ₹980 between:

  • The portion derecognised (cash flow rights sold via the senior notes);
  • The retained subordinated interest; and
  • The servicing right.

Using relative fair values:

  • Senior notes: 918 / 1,020 = 90%
  • Subordinated notes: 94 / 1,020 ≈ 9.2%
  • Servicing right: 8 / 1,020 ≈ 0.8%

Allocated carrying amounts:

  • To derecognised portion: 90% × 980 ≈ ₹882
  • To retained subordinated interest: 9.2% × 980 ≈ ₹90
  • To servicing asset: 0.8% × 980 ≈ ₹8

(rounded totals reconcile to ₹980).

Accounting entries at the originator level, assuming the transaction falls within Path B of Section 6.2, would be, in simplified form:

  • Dr Cash: ₹918 (proceeds for senior notes)
  • Dr Investment in subordinated notes: ₹94 (initial recognition at fair value — see classification note below)
  • Dr Servicing asset: ₹8
  • Cr Loans (pool): ₹980 (derecognition of carrying amount)
  • Cr Gain on derecognition: ₹40 (balancing figure in this simplified illustration)

Two points on the mechanics are important, because the entry above is easily misread.

Classification of the retained subordinated notes.

The debit of ₹94 is the fair value at the date of transfer. The allocated carrying amount of the retained interest is ₹90 (9.2% × ₹980, per the allocation above). The subordinated notes can be recorded at fair value at inception only if their classification under Ind AS 109 supports that measurement basis. In a typical securitisation structure, the subordinated tranche is designed to absorb credit losses before the senior tranche is touched. Its contractual cash flows are therefore unlikely to represent solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding — the subordination feature itself introduces exposure going beyond basic lending risk. In most Indian structures, a subordinated tranche of this kind will fail the SPPI test and be classified at fair value through profit or loss. If the instrument is at FVTPL, the ₹4 difference between the allocated carrying amount (₹90) and the fair value (₹94) flows through P&L on Day 1 alongside the derecognition gain. If, on the specific facts of a transaction, the retained interest does satisfy SPPI and the relevant business model, it would be carried at amortised cost at the allocated carrying amount of ₹90, and the ₹4 gap would not be recognised up front. The classification analysis is therefore not a footnote — it drives the numbers.

The ₹40 gain as a balancing figure.

The gain of ₹40 is shown here as the residual that makes the entry balance under Path B assumptions. The formal computation under Ind AS 109 is prescribed by paragraph 3.2.12 (difference between the carrying amount measured at the date of derecognition and the consideration received, including any new asset obtained less any new liability assumed), and the application methodology for structures of this kind — allocating the carrying amount of the larger financial asset between the part derecognised and the parts retained, based on relative fair values — is worked through in paragraph 3.2.13 and the application example at B3.2.17. Practitioners applying the framework to their own transactions should work from those paragraphs rather than from the stylised entries above; the actual gain will depend on the classification of each retained component and on the relative-fair-value inputs at the date of transfer.

The conceptual takeaway remains:

  • The gain or loss on derecognition is recognised immediately in profit or loss under Ind AS 109.
  • The originator recognises a servicing asset and a retained investment, both measured and tracked separately going forward — the retained investment in accordance with the classification and measurement requirements applicable to it.

6.4 RBI Guidelines: Why the Gain May Still Not “Count”

Under the RBI’s 2021 Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets, gains arising from securitisation are typically not available for immediate distribution or unrestricted capital recognition. They are required to be amortised over the life of the transaction or appropriated to a separate reserve.

This creates an explicit and deliberate tension:

  • Ind AS 109 wants the full derecognition gain in profit or loss on Day 1.
  • The RBI wants the economic benefit of that gain to emerge in regulatory capital and distributable profits only over time.

NBFCs and HFCs have addressed this in practice by:

  • Recognising the full gain in P&L in accordance with Ind AS 109; and
  • Creating a corresponding appropriation; often styled as a “securitisation reserve”; to align with the RBI’s requirement that gains be spread over the life of the transaction.

From a practitioner’s standpoint, this means that a transaction can pass the derecognition tests robustly and yet leave management explaining why the large headline gain it produced does not translate into immediate regulatory capital relief.

7. REGULATORY CAPITAL VS ACCOUNTING DERECOGNITION

The RBI’s Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets sits alongside Ind AS 109 and often answers a different question: how much regulatory capital relief does this transaction justify?

Two points are worth underlining.

1. The RBI’s framework focuses on:

  • Minimum Retention Requirement (MRR);
  • Minimum Holding Period (MHP);
  • True sale and bankruptcy remoteness;
  • Limits on total retained exposures (for example, the 20% cap on total exposure to a securitisation structure, excluding certain interest-only strips).

A transaction that fails accounting derecognition because the originator still bears, say, 80% of the expected credit loss may still satisfy the RBI’s conditions for regulatory capital relief, provided the formal criteria around MRR, MHP and true sale are met.

2. The reverse is also possible. A structure might satisfy Ind AS 109’s derecognition tests; particularly in synthetic arrangements or highly tailored tranche designs; but not qualify for capital relief under the Directions.

The practical implication is that “failed derecognition” in accounting terms is not automatically a failure in regulatory terms. CAs advising boards and audit committees need to keep those frameworks separate in their analysis and in their explanations.

8. PARTIAL TRANSFERS IN INDIAN STRUCTURES (PARA 3.2.2 IN PRACTICE)

Partial derecognition is not merely a theoretical corner case; it is directly relevant to common Indian structures:

  • Direct assignments where only specific interest cash flows or a pro-rata share of all cash flows are sold;
  • Transactions where senior tranches are sold but junior tranches and excess spread are retained;
  • Deals involving interest-only or principal-only strips.

Where the part transferred is:

  • A specifically identified cash flow stream (for example, only interest), or
  • A fixed pro-rata slice of all cash flows,

Ind AS 109 allows derecognition of that part, provided the rest of the decision tree is satisfied for that component. The remaining part of the asset continues to be recognised.

This matters in practice because it prevents an originator from packaging a subordinated tranche and a residual spread into a single amorphous “retained interest” and then treating the sold tranche as if it were the whole asset for derecognition purposes. Paragraph 3.2.2 forces an explicit analysis of what exactly is being sold and what is being retained.

9. CO-ORIGINATION, IBC, AND TRUE SALE: LEARNING FROM DHFL

Co-origination structures; where NBFCs and larger banks jointly originate loans and then one party seeks to securitise or assign its share; raise questions that go beyond pure credit analysis.

The DHFL proceedings brought that into sharp relief. In that case, receivables that had been assigned to third parties came under a court-ordered freeze when DHFL entered insolvency, at least in the initial stages of litigation. Although the legal position was later clarified and reinforced in favour of bankruptcy remoteness, the episode highlighted two uncomfortable facts:

  • A transaction that looks like a clean assignment on paper can still be caught in the slipstream of an originator insolvency, at least temporarily, if courts or resolution professionals take a broad view of the estate.
  • For Ind AS 109 purposes, the question of whether contractual rights to cash flows have truly been transferred; and whether the transferee has the practical ability to enforce and sell those rights; cannot be answered by reading the transaction documents in isolation from the insolvency framework and enforcement practice.

In co-origination and similar structures, the continuing relationship between the parties, the way security interests are perfected, and how courts have behaved in stress cases all feed into the derecognition analysis. The DHFL experience should, at a minimum, find its way into the legal and risk sections of any serious derecognition file involving Indian receivables.

10. NEW STRUCTURES, SAME UNDERLYING QUESTIONS

The market is experimenting with forms that did not exist when the early Ind AS 109 guidance for India was written. The decision tree, however, has not changed.

  • Synthetic securitisation: credit risk is transferred through credit derivatives or guarantees, while the loans stay on the originator’s balance sheet. Regulatory capital relief may be available if the RBI’s conditions are met. Accounting derecognition is generally not, because contractual cash flow rights remain with the originator and pass-through conditions are not satisfied.
  • Co-origination and loan-by-loan assignments: intertwined underwriting, cross-default arrangements, and shared security require careful unpacking before any conclusion can be drawn on whether a qualifying “part” has been transferred and whether risks and rewards have genuinely shifted.
  • Portfolio sales to ARCs and private credit funds: earn-outs, upside-sharing arrangements, and minimum return guarantees often create continuing involvement. Those features may block full derecognition at inception or require a continuing involvement model that recognises only partial derecognition.

The questions remain the same:

  • Has the right entity been consolidated?
  • Is derecognition being applied to the right unit of account; the whole asset or a qualifying component?
  • Have contractual rights been transferred or is this merely a funding arrangement?
  • Who still bears the real economic variability in cash flows?
  • Does the transferee truly control the asset?
  • What is the extent of continuing involvement?

11. THE PROFESSION’S ROLE

There is a version of securitisation that works well under Ind AS 109 and under the RBI’s Directions:

  • Risk is meaningfully transferred.
  • Enhancements are proportionate rather than overwhelming.
  • Pass-through mechanisms are clean, operationally as well as legally.
  • Servicing arrangements pay for work done without smuggling credit exposure back onto the originator.
  • Any residual exposures are transparent, capped, and accounted for under the continuing involvement model.

That version is achievable. The difficulty is that it often conflicts with the instinct to retain upside, protect investor relationships at all costs, and squeeze capital benefits from structures that, in substance, leave the originator still holding the risk.

For CAs in audit, advisory, and industry roles, the obligation is two-fold:

  • To understand and apply the full decision tree of Ind AS 109; including consolidation, partial derecognition, pass-through gateways, continuing involvement, and implicit support; rather than relying on a simplified three-question checklist;

and

  • To be clear with boards and management teams that accounting conclusions should follow the economic design of the transaction, not the other way around.

Substance, as Ind AS 109 has insisted from the start, is not negotiable.

Does The “Gift-Tax” Provision Extend To The Transfer Of Beneficial Interest In Trusts?

Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act taxes the receipt of “specified property” for inadequate consideration. However, this provision does not apply to the transfer of a beneficial interest in a trust. Under the Indian Trusts Act and affirmed by Supreme Court precedents, a beneficiary holds only a right against the trustee, not legal ownership of the trust property. Since “specified property” enumerates assets like real estate and shares—excluding mere “interests” or “rights”—beneficial interests fall outside its scope. Furthermore, conflating the two would trigger severe unintended tax consequences for Mutual Funds and REITs.

1. BACKGROUND

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA, often referred to as the ‘gift-tax’ provision, seeks to bring to tax under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’ any sum or specified property received by a person without consideration or for inadequate consideration. Specifically, section 56(2)(x)(c) provides that where any person receives any specified property (other than immovable property) for a consideration less than its fair market value (“FMV”) determined in accordance with Rule 11UA, the difference between the FMV and the consideration actually paid (if any) shall be deemed to be the income of the recipient.

The legislative history of this provision tracing its lineage from sections 56(2)(vii) and 56(2)(viia) of ITA and the Explanatory Memorandum to Finance Bill, 2010 along with subsequent CBDT Circulars make it clear that section 56(2)(x) was introduced primarily as an anti-abuse measure, intended to curb the laundering and circulation of unaccounted money through the guise of gifts or under-valued transfers. This legislative intent has also found judicial affirmation.

Notwithstanding the above, in practical administration, the operation of section 56(2)(x) has increasingly been extended beyond its intended anti-abuse scope. Rather than being confined to cases of tax evasion or money laundering, it has been invoked as a revenue-generating provision, resulting in unintended taxation of legitimate and bona fide transactions.

The question that is considered in this article is whether the receipt of beneficial interest in a trust, as distinct from trust property itself, constitutes the receipt of ‘specified property’ for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) of ITA. To answer this question, it is necessary to understand the architecture of section 56(2)(x), the nature of beneficial interest under Indian trust law, and the judicial precedents that have conclusively held that beneficial interest and trust property are distinct and separate concepts.

2. ARCHITECTURE OF SECTION 56(2)(X)

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA is a receipt-based provision. It is attracted only where a person receives ‘specified property’ either without consideration or for inadequate consideration. The definition of ‘property’ for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) is imported from the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii) of ITA. This definition is exhaustive and enumerates specific categories of property – immovable property, shares and securities, jewellery, archaeological collections, drawings, paintings, sculptures, any work of art, and bullion. The Explanation does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se within its ambit. Undeniably, a beneficial interest in property may constitute a ‘capital asset’ under section 2(14) of ITA.

3. NATURE OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST UNDER THE INDIAN TRUSTS ACT, 1882

3.1 Statutory definition

Section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 (“Trust Act”) defines the ‘beneficial interest’ or ‘interest’ of a beneficiary in the following terms:

“The ‘beneficial interest’ or ‘interest’ of the beneficiary is his right against the trustee as owner of the trust-property.”

The commentary on this definition by J. N. Bagchi in ‘Trusts in Taxation and Tax Planning’ elucidates as follows:

“In this definition the interest of the beneficiary has been defined to be his right against the trustee as owner of the property. The beneficiary has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust according to the definition above. The beneficiary has only the legal right to enforce the benefit conferred by the trust on him and no other interest.”

From the plain language of section 3 of the Trust Act and its authoritative commentary, several propositions of fundamental importance emerge. First, upon settlement of a trust, the trust property vests with the trustee. Second, the trustee is the legal owner of the trust property. Third, the beneficiary has only a legal right to enforce the benefit from the trust property and critically, has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.

The inescapable corollary is that by its very definition, beneficial interest in a trust cannot be equated with the trust property itself.

3.2 Sections 56 and 58 of the Trust Act

Section 56 of the Trust Act confers upon the beneficiary a statutory right to ask for specific execution of the trust and, in specified circumstances, to require the trustee to transfer the trust property to him or to such persons as he may direct. This provision is a statutory acknowledgement that the trust properties economically belong to the beneficiaries. However, the right of the beneficiary under section 56 is a right against the trustee to enforce the terms of the trust — it is not an ownership right in specie in the trust property.

If one were to contend that beneficial interest in a trust is equivalent to the trust property itself, the operation of section 56 of the Trust Act would become redundant. The trust property would always be said to be under the ownership of the beneficiaries, requiring no separate act of transfer. The very existence of section 56 as a mechanism to compel transfer of trust property from trustee to beneficiary belies any such equivalence.

Gift Tax & Trusts Why Beneficial Interst is Exempt

Section 58 of the Trust Act expressly provides that a beneficiary, if competent to contract, may transfer his beneficial interest to any other person. The significance of this provision for the present analysis is twofold. First, it confirms that beneficial interest is a transferable property right. Second, and more fundamentally, it makes clear that on such transfer, what changes hands is only the beneficial interest — the trust property itself continues to remain within the coffers of the trust, and the trustee continues to be the legal owner of such property. There is no transfer of trust property on a transfer of beneficial interest.

Once notice of the transfer of beneficial interest is given to the trustee, the trustee will make distribution of profits and income from the trust property to the transferee. This further confirms that the trust property remains within the trust despite the transfer of beneficial interest by the beneficiary.

3.3 Recommendation of the Indian Law Commission

The term ‘beneficial interest’ was introduced in Indian law on the recommendation of the Indian Law Commission, which observed with the express purpose of departing from the English concept of dual ownership of trust as follows:

“And in order to prevent the possible introduction by pedantic lawyers of conceptions resembling the English ‘legal estate’ and ‘equitable ownership’ we would define the ‘beneficial interest’ of the beneficiary as his right against the trustee as owner of trust property. The beneficiary should, in our opinion, have no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.”

The Statement of Objects and Reasons of the Trust Bill further stated that the beneficiary has, under the Bill, ‘no estate, or interest in the subject matter of the Trust’. This legislative history makes it pellucidly clear that the term ‘beneficial interest’ was deliberately crafted to eliminate any possibility of introducing the English concept of the beneficiary having an ‘equitable interest’ in the trust property. The beneficiary has a ‘beneficial interest’ — a right against the trustee as owner of the property — but no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.

3.4 Dictionary meaning

The Black’s Law Dictionary (6th edition, page 156) defines ‘beneficial interest’ as:

“Profit, benefit or advantage resulting from a contract, or the ownership of an estate as distinct from the legal ownership or control.”

The Black’s Law Dictionary (9th edition, page 913) defines ‘beneficial interest’ as:

“A right or expectancy in something (such as a trust or an estate), as opposed to legal title to that thing.”

These dictionary meanings reinforce the position under the Trust Act: a beneficiary has a right in the trust, but such right is not equivalent to the ownership of the trust property. The beneficial interest is the right; the trust property is the subject matter. They are distinct.

4. JUDICIAL PRECEDENTS AFFIRMING THE DISTINCTION BETWEEN BENEFICIAL INTEREST AND TRUST PROPERTY

4.1 W.O. Holdsworth v. State of Uttar Pradesh [1957] 33 ITR 472 (SC)

The taxpayers in this case were trustees of an estate settled under a will, who were called upon to pay agricultural income-tax under section 11(1) of the U.P. Agricultural Income-tax Act, 1948. The question was whether the trustees held the land ‘on behalf of’ the beneficiary-annuitants within the meaning of that provision.

The Supreme Court, in a landmark pronouncement, definitively articulated the nature of the trust relationship under Indian law:

“A trustee is the legal owner of the trust property and the property vests in him as such and the beneficiary has only a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property. The trustee holds the trust property for the benefit of the beneficiaries but he does not hold it on their behalf. The expressions ‘for the benefit of’ and ‘on behalf of’ are not synonymous and convey different meanings. The former connotes a benefit which is enjoyed by another thus bringing in a relationship as between a trustee and a beneficiary or cestui que trust; the latter connotes an agency which brings about a relationship as between principal and agent between the parties.”

The Supreme Court thus categorically held that a trustee does not hold property on behalf of beneficiaries — he holds it for the benefit of beneficiaries. The beneficiary has a right against the trustee, and nothing more.

4.2 CWT v. Kripashankar Dayashanker Worah [1971] 81 ITR 763 (SC)

This ruling arose under the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 (“WTA”). Section 21(1) of the WTA provided for levy and recovery of wealth tax from trustees, referring to trustees as holding trust property ‘on behalf of’ beneficiaries. The taxpayer, relying on the ruling in W.O. Holdsworth, argued that since a trustee holds property for the benefit of and not on behalf of beneficiaries, the inartistic language of section 21(1) rendered the provision unworkable.

While the Supreme Court upheld the application of section 21(1) of the WTA, it explicitly acknowledged the legal position under the Trust Act:

“It is well established that a trustee does not hold the trust property on behalf of the beneficiaries but he holds it only for their benefit. Under the Trusts Act, it is indisputable that a trustee is the legal owner of the trust property. He holds the trust property on his own right and not on behalf of someone else though he holds it for the benefit of the beneficiaries.”

The Court proceeded to hold that since Parliament had specifically included trustees in section 21(1) of the WTA, and since the legislative intent was clear, the provision had to be given effect notwithstanding its inartistic drafting. The Court read down the provision to give it meaning in light of the legislative intent.

It is submitted that the ratio of the Kripashankar ruling is restricted to the specific context of section 21(1) of the WTA, where the legislature had made a deliberate, albeit inartistically worded, provision to assess wealth tax in the hands of trustees. The ruling does not, in any sense, hold that under the Trust Act, trustees hold property on behalf of beneficiaries.

4.3 CWT v. Trustees of H.E.H. Nizam’s Family (Remainder Wealth Trust) [1977] 108 ITR 555 (SC)

In this case, the Supreme Court was concerned with the extent of wealth tax liability of a trustee under section 21 of the WTA. A trust had been created with a corpus of Rs. 9 crores divided into 175 notional units, of which 161.5 units were allocated amongst relatives mentioned in the trust deed.

The Supreme Court made the following seminal observations regarding the nature of what is taxable in a trust:

“What is important to note is that in either case what is taxed is the interest of the beneficiary in the trust properties and not the corpus of the trust properties… This position becomes abundantly clear if we look at sub-section (5) which clearly postulates that where a trustee is assessed under sub-section (1) or sub-section (4), the assessment is made on him ‘in respect of the net wealth’ of the beneficiary, that is, the beneficial interest belonging to him.”

The Court illustrated this by a numerical example: where trust property was worth Rs. 10 lacs held for a life beneficiary A and two remaindermen B and C, the total wealth tax assessable on the trustee (or the beneficiaries directly) would be only the actuarial value of A’s life interest plus the present value of B’s and C’s remaindermen interests — which would together amount to less than Rs. 10 lacs. The balance would not be subject to wealth tax.

The Supreme Court expressly acknowledged:

“In fact in most cases, if not all, the aggregate of the values of the life interest and the remaindermen’s interest would be less than the value of the total corpus of the trust property, since the value of the remaindermen’s interest would be the present value of his right to receive the corpus of the trust property at an uncertain future date and this would almost invariably be less than the value of the corpus of the trust property after deducting the value of the preceding life interest.”

The very fact that beneficial interest (as taxable in the hands of beneficiaries or the trustee) is valued differently and typically at a lower amount than the corpus of the trust property is a conclusive illustration that the two are distinct assets. Had beneficial interest been merely another name for trust property, the valuation would have been identical.

4.4 CWT v. Mrs. O.M.M. Kinnison [1986] 161 ITR 824 (SC)

The question in this case was whether the beneficial interest of a non-resident beneficiary under an English will trust where the corpus included Indian shares and managing agency rights constituted an asset ‘located in India’ for purposes of section 6(i) of the WTA.

The Supreme Court affirmed the High Court’s finding that the beneficial interest of the taxpayer was a right in the nature of a chose-in-action enforceable in England, and therefore constituted a foreign asset not subject to wealth tax in India. The Court observed:

“All that the assessee was entitled to on the valuation dates was the right to have the trust administered and… the right of the assessee was a right enforceable in that Court and, therefore, must be regarded as a foreign asset, an asset not located in India.”

Several propositions of significant relevance flow from this ruling. The legal ownership of the trust properties vested with the trustees. The beneficial interest of the taxpayer did not extend to any right of ownership in any of the trust properties in specie. The right which the taxpayer acquired under the trust was a right to have the trust administered in accordance with the provisions of the will. The character of the beneficial interest as a separate, distinct asset — different from the trust property — was affirmed.

4.5 Indian Oil Corporation v. NEPC India Ltd. [2006] AIR 2780 (SC)

In this case, the Supreme Court was called upon to consider whether the right of a creditor-hypothecatee could be equated with the beneficial interest of a beneficiary in trust property. The Court
categorically rejected this equation and, in doing so, provided an authoritative definition of ‘beneficial interest’:

“The term ‘beneficial interest’ has a specific meaning and connotation. When a trust is created vesting a property in the trustee, the right of the beneficiary against the trustee (who is the owner of the trust property) is known as the ‘beneficial interest’. The trustee has the power of management and the beneficiary has the right of enjoyment. Whenever there is a breach of any duty imposed on the trustee with reference to the trust property or the beneficiary, he commits a breach of trust.”

This ruling unequivocally establishes that ‘beneficial interest’ is the beneficiary’s right against the trustee not ownership of or an interest in the trust property itself.

4.6 Yasmin Properties (P) Ltd. v. ACIT [1993] 46 ITD 331 (Mumbai Tribunal)

The Mumbai Tribunal in this case was concerned with the computation of capital gains on the transfer of beneficial interest held in a trust. The Tribunal held that the cost of acquisition of beneficial interest is determinable, and computed it as the proportionate share of the Taxpayer in the corpus.

While arriving at this conclusion, the Tribunal explained the nature of trust ownership as follows:

“When a trust is created, the ownership over the property is split into two: (i) the legal ownership which is acquired by and rests with the trustee; and (ii) the beneficial ownership which is acquired by the beneficiary by virtue of transfer under the trust and which is enjoyed by him. It is very important and curious instance of dual ownership which allows the separation of power of management and the rights of enjoyment. The trust ownership and beneficial ownership are separate and independent of each other in their destination and disposition both. Either of the two may be transferred or encumbered without affecting the other in any way.”

The Tribunal’s ruling, while dealing with the capital gains chapter, is an important recognition that trust ownership and beneficial ownership are separate and independent assets. A transfer of one does not affect the other. This principle is directly relevant to the present controversy: a transfer of beneficial interest does not result in a transfer of the specified property (i.e., the trust property itself) held by the trust.

4.7 Bombay High Court decisions: G.G. Morarji v. CIT [1958] 58 ITR 505 and Dr. R.B. Kamdin [1974] 95 ITR 476

In G.G. Morarji’s case, the Bombay High Court held, under the erstwhile Gift Tax Act, that a beneficiary has an equitable title to the trust property. However, this ruling was expressly overruled by the same Court in Dr. R.B. Kamdin’s case, where it was held that in a case of trust, the property is vested with the trustee and there can be only one owner of the property, i.e., the trustee. The Bombay High Court, in the latter ruling, relied upon the Privy Council ruling in Chhatra Kumari Devi v. Mohan Bikram Shah [1931] LR 58 IA 279 (PC), which had observed:

“The Indian law does not recognise legal and equitable estates… By that law, therefore, there can be but one ‘owner’, and where the property is vested in a trustee, the ‘owner’ must, their Lordships think, be the trustee.”

Importantly, rulings of the Privy Council retain binding force on all High Courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court, as confirmed by the Supreme Court in Shrinivas Krishnarao Kango v. Narayan Devji Kango and Others [1954] AIR 379 (SC) and Delhi Judicial Service Association v. State of Gujarat [1991] AIR 2176 (SC). The Privy Council ruling in Webb v. Macpherson [1903] LR 30 IA 238 (PC) further holds that Indian law knows nothing of the distinction between legal and equitable property. Accordingly, the view in G.G. Morarji’s case is not good law and must give way to the ruling in Dr. R.B. Kamdin.

4.8 Vanraj Ranchhoddas Merchant (through Legal Heir) v. ITO [ITA No. 5234/Mum/2025, AY 2011-12] (Mumbai Tribunal)

In Vanraj Merchant, an individual, held a 20% undivided share along with his four brothers in an ancestral family trust property situated at Colaba, Mumbai, since 10.02.1977. Out of his 20% share, the assessee assigned 10% undivided share in the said trust to his nephew for a consideration of Rs. 28,00,000/- vide registered deed dated 09.01.2010. The Assessing Officer, invoking section 50C of ITA, proposed to substitute the stamp duty valuation of Rs. 1,11,06,716/- as the full value of consideration. The Tribunal, on a careful examination of the registered assignment deed, found that the assessee had not transferred land or building in his own right. The operative clauses consistently described the subject matter of transfer as the life interest of the assessee in the trust property. The Tribunal held:

“The deed does not convey the corpus of the immovable property nor does it divest the trust of its ownership in the land or building. The ownership of the immovable property continued to vest in the trust at all material times, and the assessee merely assigned a limited, determinable and beneficial interest arising therefrom.”

The Tribunal proceeded to explain the nature of a life interest in law with considerable precision:

“In law, a life interest represents a limited estate, the duration of which is co-terminus with the life of the holder and which stands extinguished upon his death… Such an interest does not confer absolute ownership in the immovable property, nor does it vest in the holder the power to deal with the corpus of the property as an owner… Where such life interest arises under a trust arrangement, the position is even more restrictive. Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the legal title vests in the trustee, and the beneficiary’s enjoyment is circumscribed by fiduciary and preservative obligations imposed on the trustee for the benefit of all beneficiaries, including remainder men. The beneficiary holding a life interest acquires only a beneficial interest and not ownership of the trust property.”

Applying the principle that deeming fictions must be strictly construed, Tribunal held that the subject matter of transfer was not an immovable property but beneficial interest, and such transfer of beneficial interest did not trigger section 50C of ITA.

While this ruling arises in the context of section 50C of ITA rather than section 56(2)(x), the principles enunciated are of direct and compelling relevance. The Tribunal has unequivocally affirmed that a beneficiary holding a life interest in trust property “acquires only a beneficial interest and not ownership of the trust property”. The legal title vests in the trustee; the beneficiary holds only a limited, determinable right against the trustee. This is precisely the distinction that underpins the argument that beneficial interest does not constitute ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x) of ITA. The Tribunal’s recognition that the nature of the interest transferred and not merely the character of the underlying property must govern the tax analysis, is a principle that applies with equal force in the context of section 56(2)(x).

4.9 Partnership firm analogy

The nature of a beneficiary’s interest in a trust is remarkably analogous to a partner’s interest in a partnership firm, both being unincorporated entities not recognised as distinct legal entities under law.

The Supreme Court, in Addanki Narayanappa v. Bhaskara Krishnappa [1966] AIR 1300 (SC), held in the context of partnership firms:

“Whatever may be the character of the property which is brought in by the partners when the partnership is formed or which may be acquired in the course of the business of the partnership it becomes the property of the firm and what a partner is entitled to is his share of profits, if any, accruing to the partnership from the realisation of this property, and upon dissolution of the partnership to a share in the money representing the value of the property… no partner can deal with any portion of the property as his own. Nor can he assign his interest in a specific item of the partnership property to anyone.”

Just as a partner has a right to receive profits from the partnership property but not ownership of any specific item of partnership property, a beneficiary has a right to receive income and distributions from the trust property but not ownership of any specific trust asset. In both cases, the interest of the co-owner (partner or beneficiary) is a distinct asset from the underlying property of the entity.

During the subsistence of a partnership, a partner may assign his interest but what he assigns is the right to receive the share of profits which the assignor had. Similarly, during the subsistence of a trust, if a beneficiary transfers his beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act, what he transfers are the rights attached to that beneficial interest (right to income, right to corpus on dissolution, right to specific execution etc.), but not the trust property itself, which remains with the trustee.

5. INAPPLICABILITY OF SECTION 56(2)(X) TO TRANSFER OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST

5.1 Beneficial interest is not ‘Specified Property’

As discussed, section 56(2)(x) of ITA is triggered only on the receipt of ‘specified property’ as defined in the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii) of ITA. The specified property does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se. Beneficial interest being a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property, and not the trust property itself, is not a specified property. Its receipt by transfer is therefore beyond the scope of section 56(2)(x) of ITA.

Equally, while a mere transfer of legal title to property (without beneficial interest) is not covered by section 56(2)(x), a transfer of beneficial interest without a transfer of the legal title to the specified property should also not be covered. The provision is aimed at the transfer of the property itself, not rights attached to or arising from that property.

5.2 No transfer of trust property on transfer of beneficial interest

A transfer of beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act does not result in any transfer of the trust property. The trust property continues to remain with the trustee, who remains the legal owner. The transferee of the beneficial interest steps into the shoes of the transferor-beneficiary in terms of the rights to income and corpus distribution, but acquires no ownership of the trust property.

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA contemplates a receipt-based charge, i.e. a person ‘receives’ the specified property. In the context of a transfer of beneficial interest, the transferee does not receive the underlying trust property. He receives only the rights constituting the beneficial interest. In the absence of a receipt of the specified property, the foundational requirement for invocation of section 56(2)(x) is absent.

5.3 Role of section 161 of ITA

It may be argued that section 161 of ITA which provides that trustees shall be assessed to income in a representative capacity in respect of beneficiaries — implies that beneficiaries are to be treated as owners of trust property. This argument must be rejected for the following reasons.

Section 161 of ITA is a fiction limited to the taxability of income. It provides a methodology by which income may be taxed in the hands of trustees as representative assessees of the beneficiaries. It does not purport to determine the ownership of the underlying asset. Income may be taxed in the hands of trustees without altering the nature of the property right held by the beneficiaries.

It is a well-settled principle that a statutory fiction must be construed strictly and cannot be extended beyond the purpose for which it is created — see State Bank of India v. D. Hanumantha Rao [1998] 6 SCC 183 (SC) and CIT v. V.S. Dempo Company Ltd. [2016] 387 ITR 354 (SC). The fiction created by section 161 of ITA is restricted to the assessment of income and cannot be extended to determine ownership of the underlying asset for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) of ITA. Furthermore, the comparable fictions in sections 115U, 115UB, and 115TCA of ITA which provide that investments made by a Venture Capital Fund, Alternative Investment Fund, or Securitisation Trust are to be treated as if made directly by the investor in the underlying assets demonstrate that when Parliament intends to create a fiction of direct ownership, it does so explicitly. The absence of any analogous fiction in section 161 of ITA underlines the limitation of its scope.

6. REPERCUSSIONS IF BENEFICIAL INTEREST WERE EQUATED WITH TRUST PROPERTY

Equating beneficial interest with trust property would lead to a series of anomalous and unintended consequences across Indian tax and commercial law. It is instructive to enumerate these consequences, as they further support the proposition that the two must remain distinct.

Mutual funds in India are organised as trusts. Investors are allotted units representing beneficial interest in the trust. If beneficial interest were equated with the underlying trust property, the following consequences would ensue: (a) in the context of equity-oriented mutual funds, capital gains exemption under section 10(38) of ITA (as it existed) should have been available on transfer of units since the unit-holder would be effectively transferring the underlying listed shares — which is clearly not the legislative intent; and (b) under bilateral tax treaties such as the India-Mauritius DTAA and the India-Singapore DTAA, the transfer of mutual fund units might have to be treated as a transfer of shares of Indian companies, conferring India with a taxing right.

Section 98 of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004 which introduced Securities Transaction Tax (“STT”) provides separate entries for the levy of STT on shares, units of mutual funds, and units of business trusts. The existence of separate legislative entries for shares and mutual fund units is itself a recognition by Parliament that units of mutual funds (beneficial interest in the trust) and the underlying shares (trust property) are distinct instruments. Had they been the same, a single entry would have sufficed.

Real Estate Investment Trusts (“REITs”) are established as trusts by regulation. If beneficial interest (REIT units) were equated with the underlying real estate, a transfer of REIT units would be treated as a transfer of immovable property, potentially attracting section 50C of ITA which provides for stamp duty value as deemed consideration in transfers of immovable property. This would fundamentally undermine the REIT framework.

7. SPECIFIC TRUST VERSUS DISCRETIONARY TRUST: TRANSFERABILITY OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST

Section 58 of the Trust Act permits the beneficiary to transfer his beneficial interest, subject to the law for the time being in force as to the circumstances and extent in and to which he may dispose of such interest. In the case of a specific trust, where the beneficiary is identified and the share in the trust is determined, the beneficial interest is vested and transferable.

In the case of a discretionary trust, the position is more complex. The beneficial interest of a discretionary beneficiary is uncertain, both as to whether the beneficiary will be selected by the trustees and as to the quantum. It is well established under section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 that a mere possibility or expectancy is not a transferable property. Whether a discretionary beneficiary has a ‘present’ beneficial interest in the trust (notwithstanding the uncertainty of selection) or only a mere expectancy is a nuanced question of trust law that warrants careful legal analysis depending upon the terms of the trust deed. This aspect of the law requires input from the legal fraternity.

In either case, whether specific or discretionary trust, the fundamental proposition remains: the beneficial interest is a distinct asset from the trust property. A transfer of beneficial interest does not amount to a transfer of the trust property. Section 56(2)(x) of ITA, being confined to specified property, is not triggered.

8. AUTHOR’S VIEW

Considering the foregoing discussion, the following propositions may be advanced with reasonable confidence:

  •  The definition of ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x) of ITA (read with the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii)) does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se. Beneficial interest, being a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property, and not the trust property itself, does not constitute ‘specified property’.
  •  Under Indian trust law as codified in the Trust Act, a beneficiary has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust. The beneficial interest is a personal right against the trustee, enforceable as a chose-in-action. The trustee is the sole legal owner of the trust property.
  •  A transfer of beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act does not result in a transfer of the underlying trust property. The trust property remains with the trustee; only the rights constituting the beneficial interest change hands.
  •  The Supreme Court rulings in W.O. Holdsworth (1957), Kripashankar Dayashanker Worah (1971), Nizam’s Family Trust (1977), and Mrs. O.M.M. Kinnison (1986) all consistently affirm that a trustee does not hold trust property on behalf of beneficiaries; the beneficial interest of a beneficiary is a distinct and separate asset; and the valuation of beneficial interest is different from the valuation of the underlying trust property.
  •  The absence of ‘interest’ and ‘rights’ from the definition of ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x), combined with the structural and conceptual distinction between beneficial interest and trust property, leads to the conclusion that section 56(2)(x) of ITA is not attracted on the receipt of beneficial interest in a trust, whether by way of gift or for inadequate consideration.
  •  The equating of beneficial interest with trust property would lead to a series of unintended and anomalous consequences across REITs, AIFs, and other trust-based investment vehicles further confirming that such an equation cannot be the correct legal position.

From The President

My Dear BCAS Family,

As I reflect on two recent landmark events with which we were associated, the beginning of the new financial year could not have been more auspicious. In the first event held on 7th April, 2026, at the BSE Convention Centre, BCAS was the Support Partner for Dharmam Chara 2026 (walking the path of Dharma and its relevance to Corporate Life), a unique programme by Sri Pratyaksha Charitable Trust under the auspices of Shri Kanchi Kamakoti Peetam, in the benign presence of His Holiness Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswathi Shankaracharya Swamiji (“His Holiness”).

This was followed by a visit by His Holiness on 9th April, 2026, to bless our office and record a Podcast on “Culture – Foundation for Strong India | Sanskriti – Majboot Bharat ki Neev” moderated by our Past President, CA Mihir Sheth. His Holiness highlighted the importance of ensuring that the benefits of growth and democracy reach every section of society, including those in the remotest regions. We are truly humbled by the following remarks by His Holiness in the visitors’ book:

Professional Excellence the path of Dharma

“Visit to this institution which catalyses economic growth through useful audit & account services has been revealing & highly satisfying. Your contribution to sustained growth of the nation reaching out the gains of democracy to all sections of society, even in deep hinterlands, is commendable. National policies cannot lose sight of the basic dharmic characteristics of our nation. You have been following that path towards Viksit Bharat. Blessings & Prayers for continued good work.”.

“Jaya Jaya Shankara.. Hara Hara Shankara”.

The above events have inspired me to reflect on the theme of spirituality, coupled with dharma, and its impact on professionals and institutions like ours.

CONCEPT OF SPIRITUALITY:

In simple terms, it refers to one’s inner feelings: the pursuit of meaning, purpose, and connection to something larger than oneself. It is perceived by many as comparable to religion, which is more focused on traditions and rituals; however, the two are not identical, as spirituality is much broader and can be professed even by someone who does not follow any religion.

IMPACT ON PROFESSIONALS:

The moment we qualify as CAs, we are bound not only by technical obligations and learning but also by various ethical considerations. In recent years, our profession has faced various regulatory and other challenges, such as fraud and other ethical compromises driven by pressure, which have shaken public trust in the integrity of the financial information we report. The response to all this is through stricter standards, enhanced penalties, and more elaborate compliance architecture. In the long run, professional excellence can be sustained only through our inner spiritual calling and self-reflection by maintaining integrity and ethics under pressure.

Our training is a form of spiritual commitment dressed in professional language. When we swear to uphold public interest, to act with integrity and independence, to serve the cause of truth in financial matters- we are, subconsciously, articulating a form of dharma- by answering questions like who we are, what our duty is, and how we should act in challenging situations. We are placing ourselves in the service of something larger than our own interests, which is fundamentally a spiritual act.

Spirituality can help professionals in several ways, some of which are as follows:

  • Ethical Clarity under Pressure- There are times when our clients or employers force us to compromise on certain transactions or in certain situations. In times like these, a professional who has cultivated an inner life through spiritual practices such as prayer, meditation, and reading would be able to resist the urge to compromise.
  • Practising Humility This manifests itself through knowing one’s limitations since professional overconfidence can sometimes lead to serious unintended consequences with clients, regulators and stakeholders. Spirituality teaches us humility and accountability, which improve our professional relationships.
  • Compassion while Serving Many of us serve small businesses, family enterprises, and individuals navigating tax and compliance matters with limited knowledge and significant anxiety. This could manifest in situations where a small business owner receives a show-cause notice for Income Tax or GST for the first time, or in a family business where there are disputes over succession. While technical competence and the commercial aspect of our engagement come into play, it is the spiritual impulse, through recognition that the person across the table is a human being with limitations, that transforms the nature of our service and engagement as trusted counsellors, thereby making us better advisors.

BCAS’ ROLE:

BCAS is truly an institution with a purpose, founded almost contemporaneously with the ICAI by professionals who understood that ethical rigour is non-negotiable, a commitment that continues to date. The sense of volunteerism, which sustains its functioning, reflects a deep inner calling. Our success is measured not only by the seminars conducted, certifications awarded, publications issued, or representations made, but also by the positive impact they have on professionals and stakeholders, including regulators, without being constrained by regulatory burdens. Apart from the technical committees, non-technical committees, such as the HRD committee, also conduct many programmes to awaken the spiritual instincts of students and professionals. Finally, the BCAS Foundation, which supports various social activities, reflects the spirit of Dharma in ample measure!

PROFESSIONAL DUTY IS SPIRITUAL:

To conclude, I would like to refer to a quote on duty by Swami Vivekananda in Karma Yoga (Volume 1), which perfectly encapsulates the spirit of our professional and ethical obligations.

“Every duty is holy, and devotion to duty is the highest form of the worship of God”.

A big thank you to one and all!

Warm Regards,

CA. Zubin F. Billimoria

President

The Glass Ceiling In Accounting: Women In Leadership Roles

While the nation debates the issue of women’s reservation in Parliament, there is a need for the profession to introspect the issue closer home. We have witnessed a significant rise in female Chartered Accountancy qualifiers, now making up 48% of pass-outs, a record high. The overall representation of women CAs has also surged to 30%, up from a mere 8% in 2000. It’s not just the numbers, but also the talent, more than 75 women aspirants have topped CA exams at different levels in the last decade1.

Despite the talent and intellect, for over seventy-five years, the ICAI has never seen a woman president2. Even globally and in the context of professional practice, the glass wall remained just as sturdy until 2024, when Janet Truncale shattered the final frontier to become the first female Global CEO of a Big Four firm (Ernst & Young)3.


1 http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/108627341.cms? utm_source= contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

2 https://icai.org/post/past-president

3 https://www.ft.com/content/0213a7c4-1a0c-4bb7-9851-eb2dd8a93b86

These contrasting facts are indicators of a profound, systemic inertia. Women enter the accounting profession in near-parity, yet during the course of career ascent, the pyramid sharpens into a needle point, excluding them with quiet efficiency. This is the profession’s great paradox: we are masters of balance sheets, yet we have failed to balance our own leadership pipeline.

Why does the pyramid narrow? There is no single, malicious gatekeeper. Instead, it is a byproduct of structural mechanics. In accounting, the transition to partnership is not merely a promotion; it is a shift into entrepreneurship. It demands a decade of uninterrupted visibility and the cultivation of client networks—the “golf course” and “after-hours and outstation networking summit” variables—that often conflict with the peak years of personal responsibility. To ignore this friction is to ignore the reality of human life.

Furthermore, we must admit that aspiration is shaped by environment. When the summit has been occupied by the same demographic for generations, many women (often subconsciously) recalibrate their ambitions. If the finish line appears to be a space where you do not fit, the instinct isn’t always to fight the current; it is to redirect your energy elsewhere.

Candor demands an admission: there are no silver bullets. Any simplistic prescription, like aggressive quotas or preferential treatment, risks undermining the very foundation of our profession—meritocracy. Accounting survives on credibility; if we introduce shortcuts, we risk replacing one form of bias with another. We must seek to broaden the path without eroding the standards.

The path forward requires us to move beyond “accommodation” and consider flexibility instead. A firm that loses its top talent to rigid structures is not just being “traditional”—it is being inefficient. We must redefine career excellence to prioritize sustained contribution over the optics of 24/7 attendance.

We must also formalize the “hidden” economy of the profession. Business development and client relationship management are not innate traits bestowed upon a chosen few; they are skills to be taught. By mentoring intentionally, the current leadership can deliberately bridge the gap for those who lack access to the traditional, informal boys’ clubs.

For seventy-five years, the story of accounting leadership has been written by one hand. Changing that narrative won’t happen through policy manuals, but through a fundamental shift in culture. When firms stop viewing diversity as a mandate and start viewing it as a competitive necessity, the pyramid will finally stop narrowing. We may then have a woman president at the ICAI.

We don’t need to change the standard, but we must change the gate. The next seventy-five years should not be a mirror of the last.

Best Regards,

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

Editor

Who Knows?

We ARE because we KNOW. We will be a stone – jad – if we didn’t know or much lesser in terms of intelligence. In the Indian tradition, we have the Pramaana Shashtra – the theory of knowledge – epistemology. Without going into that, we today have size of knowledge, certainly the availability of it, has increased many fold. There are still giant flaws in KNOWING and PROBLEMS with it. This piece is contemplation on knowing.

Two key types of knowing, amongst others, is Direct Perception called Pratyaksha and INFERENCE – Anumaana. Lot of times the inputs – what we see affects what we perceive and vice versa. Take media, they will make you feel that what you are seeing is all there is. Often it is content out of context that gets extrapolated. Like plague in Surat. BBC TRIED to make the world feel that India got plague when one person was detected with plague.

Our biases, conditioning, experiences, judgments colour our perception. If you like a girl, and she smiles at you, one feels she is probably attracted to you. Or when someone is honest, people feel they aren’t polite. When polite, people may think they are fake! The list is endless and cause problems. These are Errors of knowing. Someone has said: Perception is reality, but not the truth. Thoreau wrote: “It’s not what you look at that matters, it’s what you see”.

Then there is the problem of not knowing but believing that we know. YouTube is filled with such people who predict everything. One woman said 21st March something major would happen, others said in 2000 the world will come to an end. Some predict stock markets or analyse politics. This is erroneous knowing or not knowing projected as knowing. Mark Twain has said it as it should be: It ain’t what you don’t know that gets you into trouble. It’s what you know for sure that just ain’t so.

Who Knows the path to true wisdom

The unknown is infinitesimal times more than known. However, it is equally true that there are more people who claim they know than those who say they don’t know. Probably most want to be ‘known’ as knower rather than otherwise. The Economist January edition in 2020 did not predict COVID effect leading to worldwide shut down nor could it tell Ukraine war despite carrying outlook for the year each year with tons of research.

Add to this muddy windshield, an item called narrative. News channels, keep the facts aside and rather project narrative or coloured facts, politicians avoid facts that lose votes, or give half facts to gain power. Ask a monkey to give you a banana in his hand for a promise of two in future or in after life, he will never give you the one he has. Humans do this all the time (mainly in case of financial and religious frauds) where they give what they have to get many more in future, and often ending up losing that too.

The great texts of India say: Those who know don’t know, those who don’t know, know (यस्यामतं तस्य मतं मतं यस्य न वेद सः). Then, is it best to be in the state of not knowing? Or is there knowing in the state of knowing?

One way to beat the problem of knowing is what the ICAI logo tells us to do – be AWAKE – Jagrat – knowledge is often past, even perception is so. Whereas to be AWAKE makes us perceive reality better with alertness as there is no presumption of certain outcome and the rest. One of the top CIO of a MF was asked about what they think about markets after the American war on Iran. He said we want to be prepared – I thought that was being alert.

In the Rig Veda, ends one of its Hymns not with answers but with questions — and perhaps that is the most honest epistemology of all. In a world drowning in information, noise, narrative, and confident uncertainty, a rare act may simply be to pause and ask: Who knows1? Not as an abdication, but as an awakening. To hold our knowing lightly, to remain alert without presumption, to sit comfortably in the vast space of what we do not yet understand — this is not ignorance. This, perhaps, beginning of wisdom. Who knows!


1 Nasadiya Sukta, 6-7

Learning Events At BCAS

I. BCAS HOSTS DISTINGUISHED INTERACTION WITH ICAI LEADERSHIP

On Thursday, 12th March 2026, a close interaction was organised at the BCAS Office, Jolly Bhavan, featuring CA Prasanna Kumar D, President ICAI, and CA Mangesh Pandurang Kinare, Vice President ICAI. The dignitaries were warmly felicitated by CA Zubin Billimoria, President BCAS, and CA Kinjal Shah, Vice President BCAS, in the presence of select BCAS past presidents, office bearers, Western Region Central Council Members, WIRC ICAI office bearers and elected members, and BCAS Core Group members.

The session, moderated by CA Zubin Billimoria, facilitated a structured, time-bound discussion on key professional issues, including:

  • Representation before the Charity Commissioner
  • Policy sustainability for professional growth
  • Freedom to operate and regulatory minimisation
  • Clarity in networking guidelines
  • Updates on Delhi High Court litigation concerning CAs’ representation rights before Tribunals
  • Profession vs industry dynamics
  • Top three opportunities and challenges facing the profession
  • Future of audit, ethics, and stakeholder expectations
  • Capacity building in audit, technology, and AI
  • CA employability and syllabus dynamism

CA Prasanna Kumar D and CA Mangesh Pandurang Kinare responded thoughtfully to members’ queries, sharing ICAI’s strategic vision and forthcoming developments. The interaction concluded with collaborative ideas for strengthening BCAS-ICAI coordination to advance the chartered accountancy profession.

BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership

II. Learning Events At BCAS

1. Sakhi Circle – International Women’s Day held on 14th March 2026@ BCAS.

Speakers: Panelists – Hetal Kotak, Nisha Gala

Moderator – Kinjal Bhuta

The Women’s Day Celebration hosted by BCAS featured an engaging panel discussion on Ambition without Apology.

The event opened with an insightful panel discussion that highlighted how careers move through varied phases—from moments of doubt to moments where one’s voice is valued. The panel emphasised themes of continuous learning, authenticity, and staying relevant in a dynamic work environment.

A rapid-fire segment added energy to the discussion, drawing spontaneous and practical insights from the panelists. The evening concluded with a networking activity where participants introduced themselves using two adjectives, prompting self-reflection and encouraging authentic engagement within the group.

The session also reinforced that in person interactions create meaningful value, especially for women professionals, as shared experiences often help them draw strength from one another. Participants agreed that opportunities to connect, converse and collaborate play a vital role in personal and professional growth.

Sakhi-Circle-International-Womens-Day Sakhi-Circle-International-Womens-Day

2. Seminar on Attachment and Seizure Provisions under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 held on Friday, 27th February 2026 @ Hybrid

This event was jointly organised by Finance, Corporate and Allied Laws Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, along with the Commercial & Allied Law Committee of The Chamber of Tax Consultants at the BCAS Auditorium, Churchgate and was conducted as a hybrid event, with participants attending both physically and virtually.

The details of the program was as follows:

Topic Session Summary Faculty
Opening Remarks by CA Kinjal Shah, Vice President BCAS and CA Jayant Gokhale  President CTC
Session I : Keynote Address on the Framework of Search & Seizure under Section 17 of followed by an Interactive Discussion on Defense Strategies and Compliance Informative session which explained the scope of powers vested in the enforcement authorities, the statutory requirement of “reason to believe,” and the procedural safeguards that must be followed during the conduct of such actions. The address also touched on important judicial interpretations that shape the application of the provision. The session provided participants with valuable insights into both the investigative powers under the law and the practical approaches for handling such proceedings. Hon’ble Justice Ms. Aarti Sathe, Judge, Hon’ble Bombay High Court

 

Adv. Sunny Punamiya

CA Shardul Shah

 

Moderator: CA Apurva Shah

 

Session II: Keynote Address on the Framework of Attachment under Sections 5 & 8 of PMLA followed by an Interactive Discussion on the Attachment Procedure Enlightening lecture which explained the concept of provisional attachment, the conditions required for invoking such powers, and the procedure followed by the Enforcement Directorate before and after passing an attachment order. The address also highlighted the role of the Adjudicating Authority under Section 8 in confirming or setting aside the attachment after providing an opportunity of hearing. The session provided an overview of the practical aspects, legal safeguards, and key considerations for professionals dealing with such proceedings, enabling participants to gain a clearer understanding of the statutory process and its implications. Hon’ble Justice Shri. Advaith Sethna, Judge, Hon’ble Bombay High Court

 

Adv. Sunny Punamiya

Adv. Bernardo Reis

 

Moderator: CA Kinjal Shah

 

 

The Seminar provided a comprehensive perspective on the framework of search and seizure and attachment proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, and featured two insightful and interactive sessions that simplified the legal and procedural complexities surrounding these provisions.

The program had 10 physical attendees and 108 virtual attendees. 34 of the participants who attended this seminar were from outside Mumbai.

This informative seminar was coordinated by Shardul Shah, with the help of convenors Raj Khona and Khubi Shah Sanghvi, and Team CTC.

Seminar-on-Attachment-and-Seizure-Provisions-under-Prevention-of-Money-Laundering-Act-2002 Seminar-on-Attachment-and-Seizure-Provisions-under-Prevention-of-Money-Laundering-Act-2002

3. FEMA Study Circle -“Downstream Investment” held on 27th February 2026@ Virtual

The FEMA Study Circle organised a meeting to deliberate on the Downstream Investment provisions as provided under the FEM (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019. The session was chaired by CA Hardik Mehta and led by CA Swetha Prasad.

The discussion covered key aspects as provided below:

  • Definition of downstream investment & indirect foreign investment
  • Aspects to keep in mind before making downstream investments
  • Computation of indirect foreign investment
  • Procedural compliance in relation to downstream investments
  • Pricing & reporting guidelines for downstream investments
  • Relaxations/clarifications issued in relation to downstream investments

The group leader also took the participants through various scenarios for the identification of FOCC, computing foreign ownership, etc. There were good discussions about the issuance of stock options and non-equity instruments by the FOCC and how it would trigger downstream investment provisions. There were deliberations on investment holding entities making downstream investments, considering the recent relaxation by the RBI for NBFCs. The meeting concluded with participants sharing practical learnings on downstream investments.

4. 23rd Residential Leadership Retreat held on Friday, 27th February 2026 and Saturday, 28th February 2026 @ Rambhau Mhalgi – Bhayander

The 23rd Residential Leadership Retreat was conducted over two days on the theme Krishna Niti for Life Excellence, at Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini.

Dr. Girish Jakhotiya

Dr. Girish Jakhotiya, a renowed author and economist, drew structured lessons from the life journey of Lord Krishna, linking key milestones – from Gokul and Mathura to Dwarka and Kurukshetra – with principles of strategic thinking, leadership and self-transformation.

 Dr. Jakhotiya distinguished excellence from perfection and explained “Life Excellence” through four pillars: economic prosperity, intellectual supremacy, social equality, and cultural bliss. Through case studies and illustrations from Krishna’s life, he encouraged participants to examine strategy, risk versus uncertainty, leadership styles, branding, ethical flexibility and institution building.

The Leadership retreat received an encouraging response from members across practice and industry. Around 50 participants from 8+ cities and towns across India enrolled for this residential program. Participants appreciated the clarity of explanations and the practical insights shared by the faculty.

5. BCAS Women’s Study Circle — SAKHI CIRCLE on Voice to Influence – Build Yourself as a Professional Speaker held on Saturday, 21st February 2026@ Virtual.

Speaker: Ms. Kalpana Thakur

The Women’s Study Circle organized an engaging session titled “Voice to Influence – Build Yourself as a Professional Speaker.” The session focused on how individuals can develop their speaking abilities by strengthening three core elements: Action, Belief and Visibility. Participants were encouraged to take proactive steps toward improving their communication skills and not wait for perfection before beginning their journey. The importance of building strong internal beliefs—particularly the confidence to express ideas and share knowledge—was highlighted as the foundation of impactful speaking.

The faculty emphasized the power of visualizing one’s future self and breaking long-term aspirations into smaller, consistent practice-based goals. Practical guidance was provided on preparing content, practicing delivery, presenting effectively, and developing one’s personal brand through clarity and consistency. The session also covered techniques for narrowing down areas of expertise and leveraging digital platforms to enhance visibility and influence. Attendees found the insights valuable for strengthening their professional presence and building themselves as confident speakers.

Motivational Highlight:The rest of my life is going to the best of my life!!

6. ITF Study Circle meeting on the ruling of “Binny Bansal” held on Tuesday, 17th February 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organized an online meeting to discuss the Tribunal ruling in the case of Binny Bansal and its implications.

The session began with brief opening remarks by the Chairman of the session, CA Rashmin Sanghvi. Thereafter, the Group Leader, CA Nithin Surana, explained the case in detail, covering the facts of the case, the arguments of the taxpayer and the tax authorities, and the ruling given by the Tribunal, along with key inputs from the Chairman.

After presenting the case, the Group Leader shared his analysis of the ruling and discussed the legal issues arising from it. The participants actively shared their views on the implications of the ruling.

The Chairman and the Group Leader also shared their perspectives on the possible way forward and the likely outcomes if the matter is taken to higher appellate levels. The discussion was comprehensive and covered the important aspects of the ruling.

7. FEMA Study Circle – “Guarantees under FEMA” held on 13th February 2026@ Virtual.

The FEMA study circle organised a meeting on the revised Guarantee regulations issued by the RBI. The session was chaired by CA Vijay Gupta and led by CA Jigar Mehta.

  • The discussion covered the following aspects:
  • Concept and classification of Guarantees under FEMA
  • Important Definitions
  • Exemptions from Guarantee Regulations
  • Permissions under the Regulations
  • Guarantee as per ODI regulations
  • Reporting requirements
  • Case studies for discussion

The meeting provided insight into the new regulations for the issuance and receipt of inward as well as outward guarantees.

8. Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws Study Circle – NBFCs: Key Regulatory Developments And Emerging Areas held on Thursday, 12th February 2026 @ Virtual.

Speaker: Mr. Kunal Mehta

The Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws (FCAL) Study Circle organised a virtual session on the Zoom platform to discuss the intricate regulatory framework governing Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). The meeting, attended by 52 participants, focused on providing practical insights into the rapidly evolving regulatory landscape and recent developments initiated by the RBI. Key discussion points included identifying major compliance challenges faced by NBFCs in the current dynamic environment. The speaker highlighted best practices for maintaining audit readiness and ensuring robust adherence to statutory requirements. Participants explored the essential concepts of the NBFC framework to better navigate evolving legal standards. The session emphasised the importance of staying updated with shifting regulatory expectations to mitigate operational risks. Attendees engaged in a dialogue regarding the practical application of these regulations within their respective professional capacities. The event concluded with a comprehensive overview of how firms can maintain a proactive stance toward future regulatory shifts.

9. Report on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 & Deliberation on New Income Tax

Association of Corporate Advisers & Executives (ACAE), jointly with Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS), successfully organized a full-day programme on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 and Deliberation on the New Income Tax Law on 7th February, 2026 at Williams Court, 40, Shakespeare Sarani Road, 4th Floor, Kolkata – 700017, bringing together eminent professionals and experts to deliberate on key fiscal and legislative developments impacting the nation.

The Inaugural Session commenced with the ceremonial Lighting of the Lamp by CA. Jai Prakash Agarwal, Chairman of ICAI Dubai Chapter, CA. Kinjal M. Shah, Vice President of BCAS, CA. Niraj Kumar Harodia, President of ACAE, other esteemed dignitaries and ACAE Office Bearers symbolizing the pursuit of knowledge and wisdom.

This was followed by a warm and insightful Welcome Address by CA. Niraj Kumar Harodia who highlighted the significance of the Conclave, shared his reflections on his interactions with the esteemed speakers, spoke about the rich legacy and evolution of ACAE as one of the oldest professional associations in Kolkata and welcomed everyone to the Conclave.

The distinguished Guests of Honour, CA. Kinjal M. Shah, Vice President of BCAS, initiated the deliberations with an analytical perspective on Shaping Responsible, Respected and Future Ready Professionals for Decades.

CA. Jai Prakash Agarwal, Chairman of ICAI Dubai Chapter, further enriched the discussion with his practical insights on Emerging Professional Opportunities in the Middle East.

The first technical session was delivered by eminent Guest Speaker, CA. Pradip N. Kapasi, Past President of BCAS, Mumbai, on an in-depth comparative analysis on the Major Changes between the Income Tax Act, 1961 vis a vis Income Tax Act, 2025, clearly outlining structural reforms, simplification measures, and compliance implications.

CA. Padamchand Khincha, Partner at H C Khincha & Co., Chartered Acountants, Bengaluru, in the second technical session elaborated on the Major Amendments proposed through the Income Tax Bill, 2026, explaining the legislative intent, interpretational aspects, and the anticipated impact on tax administration.

Mr. Sameer Narang, Head at Economics Research Group, ICICI Bank, Mumbai, concluded the speaker sessions with a macro-economic perspective on the Impact of Budget on Indian Economy, addressing fiscal discipline, growth projections, capital expenditure focus, and the overall economic outlook.

The Conclave witnessed enthusiastic participation from over 100 delegates, including members, professionals, and representatives from various industries. The sessions were highly interactive, marked by meaningful discussions and thought-provoking queries, making the programme both informative and intellectually stimulating.

The joint initiative with the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society reinforced the spirit of professional collaboration and knowledge sharing, ensuring that members remain well-equipped to navigate the evolving taxation landscape.

The programme concluded with a formal Vote of Thanks, expressing sincere gratitude to the esteemed speakers, dignitaries, and participants for contributing to the grand success of the Conclave.

Report on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 & Deliberation on New Income Tax

10. ITF Study Circle meeting on “Discussion on Supreme Court Ruling in the case of Tiger Global” held on 27th January 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organised an online meeting to discuss the implications of the Supreme Court’s ruling in the case of Tiger Global.

Group Leaders CA Ramesh Khaitan and CA Jimit Devani

The session opened with remarks from the group leaders on their initial thoughts on the Supreme Court ruling, covering the facts of the case, the contentions raised, and the Court’s ruling. Then the group leaders discussed the critical implications of the ruling. Some of the issues discussed included whether a Tax Residence Certificate is sufficient to claim benefits under a tax treaty, the application of the substance-over-form principle, etc. The group leaders discussed the likely next course of action for Tiger Global. The participants also shared divergent views on the implications of the Supreme Court ruling. The participants expressed apprehensions about the wider application of the principles in this ruling and its unintended consequences.

The discussion covered several key issues that will impact similar cases in the future. The session closed with concluding remarks by the Group Leaders.

11. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on Practical Issues under GST in Healthcare Industry held on Thursday, 22nd January 2026 @ Virtual

Group Leader: CA. Shefali Bang

Mentor: CA Parag Mehta

The group leader first presented the Law pertaining to the healthcare industry under GST, followed by five case studies covering the various aspects of Issues in the healthcare industry under GST.

The presentation covered the following aspects of the Healthcare Industry for a detailed discussion:

  • Whether treatment for Substance Use Disorder through OPD consultation, counselling, and supervised medicine dispensing qualifies as an exempt healthcare service under GST, or whether it may be treated as a taxable supply of medicines.

  • Whether doctor consultation and medicines supplied to outpatients by the hospital pharmacy should be treated as separate taxable supplies or a composite supply of healthcare services, and the related ITC reversal mechanism.
  • GST implications in a revenue-sharing arrangement between a diagnostic laboratory and a sample collection centre, focusing on the taxability of sample collection services and diagnostic testing services.
  • Whether health check-up packages marketed by a company through empanelled hospitals and diagnostic centres qualify for GST exemption as healthcare services, particularly when sold to healthy individuals or corporate employees.
  • Whether naturopathy therapies, along with residential accommodation provided by a wellness retreat, constitute a composite exempt healthcare service or whether accommodation should be taxed separately.
  • The reversal of Input Tax Credit (ITC) when certain life-saving drugs become GST-exempt, particularly regarding raw materials, semi-finished goods, finished goods, and capital goods held in stock
  • Around 100 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

III. REPRESENTATION

1. Representation to SEBI on Research Analyst Regulations

BCAS has submitted a representation on 24th February 2026 to SEBI highlighting practical issues faced during registration under the Research Analyst (RA) Regulations, 2014. The representation is based on feedback from professionals and applicants.

Key concerns include the absence of a clear framework for transition from individual to corporate entities, leading to disruption and duplication of processes. BCAS has also pointed out delays in processing applications after delegation to BSE.

Further, the Society has raised issues regarding restrictive interpretation of rules, especially relating to the “other employment” of Principal Officers, and lack of clarity on certain operational aspects.

BCAS has requested SEBI to provide necessary clarifications and streamline the process to reduce difficulties faced by applicants while ensuring investor protection.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/wp-content/uploads/2026/02/SEBI-RA-Representation.pdf

IV. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  • BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

Statistically Speaking

1. INDIA’S ADVERTISING SPEND OUTLOOK

Spends (INR CR)

Source: WPP Media Company (formerly GroupM)

2. INDIA’S CURRENT POPULATION

INDIA’S CURRENT POPULATION

Source: Worldometer

3. MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGES ONLINE AND OFFLINE

MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGES ONLINE AND OFFLINE

Source: Data Reportal, Ethnologue

4. INDIA’S GROWING GDP

INDIA’S GROWING GDP

5. TRADE DEFICIT WIDENS

TRADE DEFICIT WIDENS

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

1. Income tax Rules 2026 notified. They will come into effect from 1 April 2026. – Notification No.22/2026 dated 20 March 2026

II. FEMA

1. RBI modifies the ECB forms in line with the revised ECB Framework under FEM (Borrowing & Lending) Regulations

The RBI, on 9th February 2026 issued new Borrowing and Lending regulations, revising External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) framework. The old ECB forms have been revised in line with the new ECB framework. Part V – Annex I and Annex II have been substituted with Form ECB I/Revised Form ECB I and Form ECB 2 respectively.

[AP (DIR Series 2025-26) Circular No. 23,dated 18th February 2026]

2. RBI introduces ‘Currency Declaration Form’ under FEM (Export and Import of Currency) Regulations, 2015

The RBI has amended Regulation 6 of FEM (Export and Import of currency) Regulations, 2015 by introducing a ‘Currency Declaration Form’. The following points are to be noted with respect to the form:

a. The form needs to be filled in by passengers where the aggregate value of foreign exchange brought in, in the form of currency notes, bank notes, or travellers’ cheque exceeds USD 10,000 or its equivalent, or where the value of foreign currency notes exceeds USD 5,000 or its equivalent.

b. This form needs to be produced to a bank authorised to deal in foreign exchange or a money changer at the time of conversion or reconversion.

c. In case visitors to India do not wish to encash all the foreign exchange declared, they should retain this form for producing the same to  Customs at the time of their departure. This is to enable them to take with them the unutilised balance.

[Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/2026-RB, dated 23rd February 2026]

3. Govt. amends FDI Policy on ‘Investments from Countries sharing land border with India’

In April 2020, Press Note 3 (2020) was introduced to prevent opportunistic takeovers of Indian companies by certain neighbouring countries during Covid-19 pandemic. Government approval was made mandatory for any investment by an investing entity incorporated in a country sharing a land border with India (LBC), or where the beneficial owner of such an investment was a citizen of, or situated in, such LBC.

The Union Cabinet has recently approved changes in these provisions relating to investments from LBCs. The amendments in Para 3.1.1. of the FDI policy have brought much needed clarity. The existing policy has been amended as follows:

a. An entity or citizen of an LBC, or where the beneficial owner of an investment into India is a citizen of such country, can invest only under Government route. This restriction also applies to any transfer of ownership, directly or indirectly, in an existing or future FDI in an entity in India.

b. Beneficial owner (BO) shall have the same meaning as defined under section 2(1)(fa) of Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 and shall be determined as per Rule 9(3) of the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005. Further, it is provided that determination of BO shall be applied at the Investor entity level.

c. The above criteria shall be applied in substance. Hence, where a citizen or an entity of an LBC has the ability to directly or indirectly, individually or cumulatively, independently or collectively, whether acting together or otherwise, hold rights/entitlements which:

                  a. exceed the prescribed threshold in an investor entity outside the LBC; or

                 b. enable such citizens or entities to exercise control over such investor entity; or

                  c. enable them to exercise ultimate effective control over the Indian entity in any manner; the beneficial ownership of such an investment shall be deemed to be from an LBC.

                 d. Effectively, investors with non-controlling BO from an LBC of up to 10% shall be permitted under automatic route, subject to applicable sectoral caps, entry route and attendant conditions. However, such investments shall be subject to reporting of relevant information or details by the investee entity to DPIIT.

                e. Further, direct investment from LBCs will still require Government approval. Such applications in following sectors must now be processed and decided within 60 days:

                                    i. Manufacturing of Capital Goods

                                   ii. Electronic Capital Goods

                                  iii. Electronic Components

                                  iv. Polysilicon manufacturing

                                  v. Ingot and wafer manufacturing

In these cases, the majority shareholding and control of the Investee entity will be with resident Indian citizen(s) and/or resident Indian entity(ies) owned and controlled by resident Indian citizen(s), at all times.

              f. The present Rule also covers beneficial owners “situated in” LBC. Thus, even an NRI situated in an LBC could not make a direct investment into an Indian entity without prior Government approval. One important change that Press Note 2 of 2026 brings about is that the Government Route is now applicable only to citizens of these countries or entities incorporated or registered in such countries. Thus, a citizen of countries other than LBCs can invest in Indian entities without prior approval from the Government, even though they may be present in an LBC.

The above amendments will take effect from the date of notification to the NDI Rules.

[Press Release, dated 10th March 2026, Press Note No. (2026 Series), dated 15th March 2026]

III. IFSCA

1.IFSCA specifies a fee structure for entities undertaking or intending to undertake permissible activities in IFSC

The IFSCA has issued a circular prescribing a fee structure for entities undertaking permissible activities in IFSCs and for persons seeking guidance under Informal Guidance Scheme, 2024. The circular applies to applicants seeking license, registration, recognition, or authorisation as well as existing regulated entities. The different categories of fees include application fees, license or registration fees, recurring fees (flat and conditional based on turnover), activity based fees, processing fees, interest on delayed payments, charges for delayed reporting, fees for informal guidance, etc.

The circular also prescribes penalties for delays, including 0.75% monthly interest on unpaid fees and USD 100 per month for delayed regulatory reporting. The circular will apply from FY 2026-27. This circular supersedes previously issued circulars related to fee structured from the date of commencement of this circular i.e. 1st April 2026.

[Circular No. IFSCA-DTFA/1/2026, dated 2nd March 2026 Circular No. IFSCA-DTFA/2/2026, dated 13th March 2026]

2. IFSCA launches a scheme titled “Support for Alternative Trade Instruments under Export Promotion Mission”

IFSCA has launched a scheme titled “Support for Alternative Trade Instruments under Export Promotion Mission (EPM) – NIRYAT PROTSAHAN”. The Scheme aims to improve access to export finance for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) involved in international value chains by providing support for alternative trade finance instruments with a focus on export factoring.

Eligible financial institutions shall ensure compliance with all operational requirements, including submission of claims, reporting obligations, and timelines.

[Circular No. IFSCA-FCR0ITFSR/3/2025 – Banking, dated 19th March 2026]

3. IFSCA issues new measures to ensure operational substance in Capital Market Intermediaries operating in GIFT IFSC

The IFSCA has issued measures to ensure substance in Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) in GIFT IFSC. As part of these measures, IFSCA has been conducting multiple rounds of market intelligence visits. The visits were made to registered office premises of CMIs to verify the presence of substance, including the presence of the Principal Officer and Compliance Officer, as well as the adequacy of infrastructure, in accordance with the provisions of the IFSCA Capital Market Intermediaries Regulations, 2025.

The supervisors made the following key observations:

a. Some CMIs were found to be closed or unattended during business hours.

b. Neither the Principal officer, nor the Compliance Officer, nor authorised personnel were present in some CMIs.

c. The designated Principal and Compliance officers lacked adequate awareness of regulatory framework applicable to CMIs in some cases.

d. Necessary infrastructure was lacking to effectively carry out business activities in a few CMIs.

e. In some CMIs, certain practices were carried out using remote access software like Anydesk, Ultraviewer, etc. Further, the Compliance Officer was also handling the trading desk, which is a conflict of interest.

Based on these observations, IFSCA has initiated appropriate regulatory action against the concerned CMIs in accordance with applicable regulatory framework. All CMIs are advised to ensure substance, including strict adherence to provisions of IFSCA CMIs Regulations, 2025.

[Press Release, dated 19th March 2026]

(Audacity To Complain!)

Arjun Hey Bhagwan, good that you came early today.

Shrikrishna Arjun. You know that I never come nor do I go. I am Omni present!

Arjun That I am aware of. But in this kaliyuga, it seems, your presence is missing at many places. Innocent people are suffering.

Shrikrishna I have told you in Geeta that people suffer due to their own Karma; and my presence may not help unless they surrender to me! And improve their karma.

Arjun Be it as it may! Today I am very much worried. Rather frightened.

Shrikrishna Why? Is it because of wars everywhere? Ukraine, Iran, Afghanistan….

Arjun I am never frightened of wars. Thanks to your blessings, I was always triumphant.

Shrikrishna Then what are you worried about?

Arjun Our own profession! This war of complaints of misconduct is terrible. So much of nuisance. So much of harassment to innocent CAs. And no one to help!

Shrikrishna Yes. I have heard that. But it is common. Everywhere Asat (Evil) is powerful since Sat (सत्) Righteous is not strong and assertive! Anyway, tell me what is the present problem?

Arjun Lord, it is very serious. I have lost my sleep. My friend is totally depressed due to a very mischievous complaint against him. And there is no fault on his part whatsoever!

Shrikrishna In Mahabharata also, there wasShakuni!

Arjun This is super Shakuni! See the audacity of the present complainant. There are two partnership firms with 5 partners each – ABC Caterers and Decorators; and ABC Caterers.

Mrs. A is a common partner in both the firms. One or two other partners are also common.

Shrikrishna Okay. Then?

Arjun ABC Caterers and Decorators (C & D) took a loan from a PSU bank.

Loan application was made on C & D letterhead, their partners’ data was given to bank, Mrs. A has signed the application and other papers.

Loan was sanctioned and disbursed to C & D only.

Shrikrishna Fine. Quite normal.

Arjun Moreover, Mrs. A’s husband was a guarantor to this loan. He was fully aware of everything as Mrs. A was a partner for name’s sake.

Shrikrishna That is also normal.

Arjun Unfortunately, the bank while opening the account, mentioned only ABC Caterers. The words – ‘and Decorators’ were missing. Entire paper work was in the name of C & D only.

Shrikrishna Didn’t they ask the banker?

Arjun They did. They were told that in their system, full name was not accommodated. Only these many characters are accommodated.

C & D firm operated this account as its own, also it utilised the loan amount, but it became NPA!

Shrikrishna Oh!

Arjun Bank started recovery proceedings against C & D.

Shrikrishna Obviously.

Arjun My CA friend audited accounts as if the transactions and bank account were of C & D only. And he was right.

Shrikrishna Did the other firm – ABC Caterers consider these transactions as theirs?

Arjun Not at all! Everybody was fully aware that it was of C & D only and it had nothing to do with the other firm.

Shrikrishna Mr. & Mrs. A were also aware?

Arjun Of course, yes. They were signatories. My friend was also involved right from beginning – in the process of obtaining the loan.

Shrikrishna Now, what is the problem?

Arjun Lord, Mr. A who is fully aware of everything, has filed a complaint against my friend.

Shrikrishna What for?

Arjun My friend was the auditor. The complainant says that he audited the accounts with transactions of C & D although the account on the face it was in the name of the other firm.

Shrikrishna Oh!! That was perhaps the mistake of the bank or the limitation of its system.

Arjun Yes, Lord. The fact remains that it was legally and factually of C & D itself. The bank has taken up legal proceedings against C & D only.

Bank has confirmed all these facts in the recovery proceedings before DRT.

Shrikrishna Very strange! But your friend will be definitely absolved.

Arjun I am not sure since your present has become doubtful! And any complaint takes at least 4 years for disposal. My poor friend is totally depressed and frustrated.

Shrikrishna The lesson is – Don’t trust anyone in such matters. Write to the bank there and then when the account is opened

Arjun I agree. But these are afterthoughts. No one could have even dreamt this. Question is that the guarantor despite being a party to the whole affairs has the audacity to make such a complaint.!

Shrikrishna Don’t worry. I will help him!

Om Shanti.

(This dialogue is based on the current scenario of rampant frivolous complaints of misconduct)

Miscellanea

1. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

# AI Traffic Could Surpass Human Activity by 2027

The internet is on the brink of a fundamental transformation. In a speech at the SXSW conference in Austin, Texas, Cloudflare CEO Matthew Prince warned that traffic generated by AI-powered bots could overtake human online activity as early as 2027. Prince described generative AI as having an “insatiable need for data,” driving automated agents to browse websites at a scale humans could never match. From shopping and research to content generation, these bots are already reshaping the digital landscape, creating real load on servers and networks worldwide.

Prince drew a sharp contrast between human and bot behaviour. A typical human shopping for a digital camera might visit just five websites. An AI agent performing the same task, however, could scan 1,000 times more—potentially 5,000 sites—in seconds. “That’s real traffic, and that’s real load, which everyone is having to deal with and take into account,” Prince said. Before the generative AI boom, bots accounted for roughly 20% of global internet traffic, mostly from legitimate sources like search-engine crawlers. Malicious bots existed, but they were a minority. Now, the explosion of AI tools has flipped the script.

The Cloudflare chief painted a picture of explosive, sustained growth. Unlike the sudden COVID-era surge in streaming (YouTube, Netflix) that strained networks for a few weeks before stabilising, AI-driven traffic is rising steadily with “no sign of slowing down or stopping.” This shift is forcing companies to rethink the very architecture of the internet. Prince highlighted the need for new infrastructure: instant, temporary “sandboxes” for AI agents. These lightweight environments could spin up in the same time it takes a user to open a new browser tab, run the agent’s task, and then shut down automatically. He predicted that, in the near future, millions of such sandboxes could be created every second.

(Source: indianexpress.com dated 21st March 2026)

#India’s outsourcing industry is worth $300bn. Can it survive AI?

India’s $300 billion (£223 billion) outsourcing sector, which accounts for 80% of the country’s total services exports and has created millions of white-collar jobs over the past 30 years, is facing its biggest threat yet from artificial intelligence. The Nifty IT index of the country’s top software firms has already plunged 20% this year, wiping out tens of billions of dollars in market value, after tools such as Anthropic’s Claude agent began automating core legal, compliance and data processes. Some CEOs and investors now warn that traditional IT services could “vanish by 2030”, with AI potentially eliminating up to 50% of entry-level white-collar roles; Jefferies forecasts that application-managed services (currently 22-45% of revenues) will suffer sharp deflation, dragging overall revenue growth down by 3% annually for the next five years before flatlining beyond 2031.

Indian IT giants, however, insist AI will ultimately create far more work than it destroys. Infosys CEO Salil Parekh points out that generative AI could displace 92 million jobs in roles such as front-end developers and testers, yet generate 170 million new positions in data annotation, AI engineering and AI leadership. Nasscom data shows AI-related revenue still accounts for just $10 billion of the industry’s $315 billion total, with sector-wide growth slowing to a modest 6% this year (from double-digit rates previously) and net employee strength projected to rise only
2.3% in 2026. HSBC’s “Software Will Eat AI” report adds that enterprise software firms remain irreplaceable for complex, reliable systems that pure AI cannot yet replicate, suggesting the industry will pivot from experimentation to large-scale AI deployment and outcome-based billing rather than disappear.

(Source: bbc.com dated 18 March 2026)

2. ENVIRONMENT

#An Invisible Crisis: The Hidden Environmental Impact of Pharmaceutical Waste

Pharmaceutical pollution has emerged as a silent global environmental crisis, with around 4,000 active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) currently in use worldwide. According to the UN, 631 pharmaceuticals or their transformation products have been detected in the environment across 71 countries. A major 2022 study found pharmaceutical contamination in river samples from over 1,000 locations in 104 countries, affecting every continent. Traces appear in rivers, lakes, and groundwater everywhere, with Pakistan’s Ravi River identified as the world’s most polluted from pharmaceutical waste. Manufacturing sites discharge concentrations 10 to 1,000 times higher than typical wastewater, and residues have been traced more than 30 km downstream

The ecological damage is already severe. Synthetic hormones act as endocrine disruptors at concentrations as low as one nanogram per litre, causing feminisation in male fish and reproductive failure. In South Asia, the veterinary drug diclofenac triggered a catastrophic decline of over 95% in vulture populations within a decade. Antibiotic residues in water are accelerating the rise of “superbugs,” a major global health threat highlighted by the WHO. While wastewater treatment plants can remove 90–95% of pharmaceutical compounds, the vast majority of pollution stems from human excretion, improper disposal of unused medicines, livestock farming, and factory discharges, raising serious long-term concerns for both ecosystems and human health.

(Source: earth.org – 17 March 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI PUBLICATIONS

1. GUIDANCE NOTE ON AUDIT OF BANKS

The Institute issues a revised edition of the publication “Guidance Note on Audit of Banks” annually. This Guidance Note serves as a comprehensive resource for members, providing detailed guidance on the conduct of statutory audits of banks and their branches.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91301aasb-aps4524-b.pdf

2. BRIDGING THE EXPECTATION GAP – AUDIT VS. FORENSIC

The publication “Bridging the Expectation Gap – Audit vs. Forensic” addresses this critical issue in a structured and objective manner. It offers a clear exposition of the conceptual foundations, scope, and inherent limitations of statutory audits conducted under the Standards on Auditing, while contrasting them with the distinct objectives, methodologies, and deliverables of forensic engagements.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90762caq-aps4099.pdf

3. COMPENDIUM OF OPINIONS

44th Volume of the Compendium of Opinions, which encapsulates the opinions finalised during the period from February 12, 2024 to February 11, 2025.

https://icainet-my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/eac_icai_ in/IQCUOeRAj9 JjTZSNOKQCL7 svAdoR6l tUGs7etyMBuKenSD8

4. HANDBOOKS

a. Applicability of GST on the Agricultural Sector

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20Applicability%20of%20GST%20on%20Agricultural.pdf

b. Composition Scheme Under GST-February (3rd) 2026 Edition

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20Composition%20Scheme%20Under%20GST-February%20(3rd)%202026%20Edition.pdf

c. E-Commerce Operators under GST

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20E-Commerce%20Operators%20under%20GST.pdf

d. Refunds under GST

https://idtc.icai.org/publications.php#:~ :text=Handbook%20on%20Refunds%20under%20GST

e. Significant Judicial and Advance Rulings in GST-A Compilation

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Significant%20Judicial%20and%20Advance%20Rulings%20in%20GST-A%20Compilation%20 %20February%20(2nd)%202026%20Edition.pdf

5. TAXATION OF DIGITAL ECONOMY – A STUDY

“Taxation of Digital Economy – A Study” presents a comprehensive analysis of evolving tax frameworks impacting digital businesses. It highlights India’s multifaceted response—ranging from the Significant Economic Presence provisions to its commitment under the global Two-Pillar solution—while underscoring the principles of sovereignty and fairness that underpin these measures.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91170cit-aps4336.pdf

II. ICAI Opinion – Accounting treatment of non-construction fee under Ind AS framework

A. FACTS OF THE CASE

  • The company was allotted land by GMADA for the construction of an office building, with a condition to complete construction within a stipulated period.
  • Due to construction delays, GMADA levied non-construction / extension fees from time to time.
  • The company accounted for such fees (except penal interest) under Capital Work-in-Progress (CWIP), considering them attributable to the asset.
  • C&AG objected, stating that such fees are in the nature of a penalty for delay and should be expensed, not capitalised.

B. QUERY

  • Whether the accounting treatment of non-construction fees debited to CWIP is in compliance with applicable Ind AS.
  • If not, whether any modification in treatment is required.

C. POINTS CONSIDERED BY THE COMMITTEE

  • The Committee restricted its examination to the accounting treatment of non-construction fee only.
  • As per Ind AS 16, only costs directly attributable to bringing the asset to the location and condition necessary for its intended use can be capitalised.
  • Such directly attributable costs are those necessary for the construction or development of the asset, without which the asset cannot be made ready for use.
  • The non-construction fee arises due to delay in construction or non-compliance with stipulated timelines under the allotment terms.
  • The Committee observed that such fees are not necessary for construction activity nor for bringing the asset to its operational condition.
  • Instead, these represent a cost of holding the land without construction or during construction, similar to administrative costs

D. OPINION

  • The non-construction fee relates to delay/non-compliance with construction conditions and is not directly attributable to bringing the asset to its intended operating condition.
  • Accordingly, such expenditure cannot be capitalised under Ind AS 16
  • It should be expensed in the Statement of Profit and Loss with appropriate disclosures.

III. ICAI BOARD OF DISCIPLINE – CASES

Case: In Re : CA. DKA

File No.    :    PPR/P/348/17/DD/334/INF/2017/BOD/489/ 2018

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant Information received from CBI (RC No. G(E)/2005/EOW-I/DLI)

Nature of Case Involvement in fraudulent donation routing through bogus trusts

Background  :A CBI investigation revealed a large-scale fraud (2003–2005) involving the misuse of the name of the Indian Medical Scientific Research Foundation (IMSRF). Fake bank accounts were opened in the name of IMSRF and other fictitious trusts, through which donations aggregating ₹3.26 crore were received and siphoned off. Funds were routed back to donor companies after deducting commission, enabling wrongful tax exemptions.

Key Allegations Acted as a key conspirator in the creation and operation of bogus trusts.

– Facilitated opening of fake bank accounts and routing of funds.

– Had control/association with accounts used for diversion of donations.

– Assisted in enabling fraudulent tax benefits to donor entities.

Respondent’s Defence – Alleged procedural irregularities and lack of proper opportunity.

– Claimed delay and non-supply of documents by ICAI.

– Stated that the related CBI matter was still pending at the pre-charge stage.

– Did not substantively address allegations on merits and largely remained absent during proceedings.

Findings

– Evidence from CBI investigation, bank records, PAN data, and witness statements established active involvement.

– Respondent repeatedly failed to appear despite multiple opportunities

– No credible defence on merits was provided.

– Proceedings remain valid even if member’s status ceases at a later stage.

– Conduct showed a serious ethical breach and disregard for the disciplinary process.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – other misconduct (read with Section 22).

Punishment Removal of name from Register of Members for 3 months

Case : CA. KHJ vs. CA. RK

File No. : PR/29/2020/DD/66/2020/BOD/643/2022

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant CA. KHJ

Respondent CA. RK

Nature of Case Holding Certificate of Practice while in full-time employment

Background The Respondent, holding a Full-Time Certificate of Practice since 2005, was found to be simultaneously working as Chief Financial Officer (CFO) in a government organisation in Bihar, namely JEEVIKA (Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society). As per ICAI regulations, a CA in practice cannot engage in any other employment without prior permission.

Key Allegations – Continued to hold a full-time COP while working as CFO in a Government organisation.

                               – Engaged in employment without obtaining prior permission from ICAI.

                              – Violated Clause (11), Part I, First Schedule and Regulation 190A.

Respondent’s Defence Claimed employment was contractual and performance-based, not full-time.

– Argued misunderstanding regarding the permissibility of holding COP.’

– Submitted that no attestation work, UDIN generation, or professional practice was carried out.

– Subsequently surrendered COP and membership (2024).

Findings- Documentary evidence (staff list & website) established Respondent as a full-time CFO.

– No evidence of ICAI permission for employment was produced.

– Claim of contractual engagement was unsupported.

– Counsel admitted lapse during the hearing.

– Holding a COP alongside employment is a clear violation of professional ethics.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (11), Part I, First Schedule – engaging in another occupation while in practice.

Punishment Removal of name from the Register of Members for 1 month

Case : Ms. PDP vs. CA. M.S.M.

File No. : PR/300/2018/DD/301/2018/BOD/646/2022

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant Ms. PDP

Respondent CA. M.S.M.

Nature of Case Gross negligence in handling ITAT appeal

Background The Complainant engaged the Respondent to represent her in income-tax appellate proceedings (AY 1999–2000 to 2004–05) before CIT(A) and ITAT, Pune. Despite payment of professional fees, the Respondent allegedly failed to appear before ITAT on multiple hearing dates, leading to an ex-parte order confirming a tax demand of approx. ₹56 lakh, causing financial hardship.

Key Allegations Failure to attend ITAT hearings despite engagement and receipt of fees.

– Non-representation resulted in ex-parte order and substantial tax liability.

– Negligence in the discharge of professional duties.

Respondent’s Defence No substantive defence; the Respondent failed to appear or file a reply despite multiple opportunities.

Findings

– ITAT order recorded non-appearance of the authorised representative on hearing dates (page 4).

– Complainant provided documentary evidence, including the appointment letter, fee proof, and ITAT order.

– The Respondent remained absent in all proceedings (7 hearings) and failed to rebut the allegations.

– Conduct was held to constitute gross negligence and dereliction of professional duty.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – Other Misconduct (lack of due diligence).

Punishment Removal from the Register of Members for 3 months