Subscribe to the Bombay Chartered Accountant Journal Subscribe Now!

Learning Events At BCAS

1. A Day of Divine Wisdom at BCAS

We were deeply honored to welcome His Holiness Shri Kanchi Kamakoti Peetadhipati Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswati Shankaracharya Swamiji to the BCAS Hall, Churchgate, on 9th April 2026

A Day of Divine Wisdom at BCAS

The atmosphere was one of profound serenity as Swamiji arrived, gracing us with his presence and a message of timeless wisdom. The event was attended by the Office Bearers, Past Presidents, members of the managing committee and BCAS Staff members.

BCAS recorded a podcast —”Samvaad with BCAS” with His Holiness on the topic: “Culture – Foundation for Strong India | Sanskriti – Majboot Bharat ki Neev” which was anchored by CA Mihir Sheth, Past President of BCAS.

During his visit, His Holiness appreciated the institution’s ongoing efforts in delivering meaningful services and contributing to societal development. He acknowledged the role of such initiatives in strengthening national values and outreach across communities.

BCAS is humbled to share the remarks penned by His Holiness Pujya Shri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswati Swamiji during his visit on 9th April 2026:

“Visit to this institution, which catalyses economic growth through useful audit & account services, has been revealing & highly satisfying. Your contribution to the sustained growth of the nation, reaching out the gains of democracy to all sections of society, even in deep hinterlands, is commendable. National policies cannot lose sight of the basic dharmic characteristics of our nation. You have been following that path towards Viksit Bharat. Blessings & Prayers for continued good work. Jaya Jaya Shankara. Hara Hara Shankara”.

BCAS was also honoured to support the DHARMAM CHARA event held at the BSE Convention Hall on 7th April 2026 under the auspicious presence of His Holiness. President of BCAS CA Zubin Billimoria, and Vice President, CA Kinjal Shah, were felicitated at the event.

We are grateful for His blessings and encouragement as we continue our journey of service and impact.

2. Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws Study Circle – Recent Developments in Labour Laws: An Auditor’s Perspective held on Friday, 03rd April, 2026 @ Virtual

In this virtual session Mr. Pankaj Savla deliberated on the evolving landscape of labour laws and their implications for auditors. The session covered key regulatory changes and their impact on compliance and audit procedures. Emphasis was laid on understanding the practical challenges faced while auditing labour law compliance.

The speaker highlighted critical areas requiring due diligence, including verification of statutory records and adherence to updated provisions. Insights were shared on identifying compliance gaps and mitigating associated risks. The session also addressed documentation and reporting considerations from an auditor’s standpoint. Participants gained clarity on the auditor’s role in ensuring compliance with applicable labour regulations. The discussion provided practical perspectives and enhanced awareness of recent developments in labour laws. A total of 39 participants attended the session via Zoom.

3. FEMA Study Circle -“Amended ECB Regulations, 2026,” held on 27th March 2026@ Virtual.

In this session, the participants discussed the revised ECB Framework announced for 2026, focusing on regulatory changes and compliance obligations. The session gave clarity on end-use restrictions, eligibility of borrowers and lenders, maturity period, pricing, reporting and various other critical aspects. The meeting was chaired by CA Natwar Thakrar and led by group leader CA Parth Panchal.

Overview of the session

The Chairman opened with an overview of the core and policy-level reforms. The group leader proceeded to explain the amendments in each segment of the new framework, offering a thorough analysis that mapped the amended text with the erstwhile framework, draft regulations circulated for public comments, and RBI clarifications. The deliberations focused on how these changes will reshape the ECB environment in India.

Key areas discussed

  •  Scope and Impact Area of the New Framework outlining the broad framework of the Borrowing and Lending regulations, the scope of the new framework and then discussing how it would impact the nature of transactions.
  •  End Use Restrictions dealing with widened permissible end uses and what continues to be restricted end-use in the new framework. It covered various nuances and practical scenarios having a critical impact.
  • Eligible Borrowers and Lenders as to how their expanded base would impact the structuring choices.
  • Pricing, Maturity, and Borrowing Limit emphasizing how pricing caps, maturity rules and borrowing limits would impact the industry, and the practical challenges over ECB pricing that would be faced in the amended framework. Key pricing norms, minimum average maturity thresholds, and borrowing limits were explained.
  • Procedure and Reporting detailing the reporting obligations to the Reserve Bank of India and the Authorized Dealer banks, timelines for filing Form ECB and related returns.
  •  Other amendments in ECB regulations capturing the other amendments to ECB regulations, which would also need to be taken care of going forward.

The participants also analysed and focused on the changes on borrowing and lending transactions between resident and non-resident individuals, which are brought as part of the Borrowing and Lending Regulations. The meeting was interactive and detail-oriented, with participants raising specific scenarios seeking practical insights on implementing the 2026 ECB Framework.

4. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on “GST Issues in the Entertainment Industry” held on Tuesday, 24th March 2026 @ Virtual.

The session was led by CA. Mansi Shah (Group Leader) under the mentorship of CA. Rajiv Luthia (Mentor), and witnessed active participation from members across the fraternity.

The presentation covered the following aspects for a detailed discussion:

  •  Production Stage Complexities
    Analysis of nature of supply and place of supply in multi-location shoots, including classification of temporary sets and renting of immovable property.
  •  Input Tax Credit (ITC) Challenges
    Detailed examination of ITC eligibility on items such as scrapped vehicles, aircraft hiring, and logistics arrangements—highlighting the nuances of blocked credits under Section 17(5).
  •  Cross-Border Transactions
    Taxability of overseas line producers, reverse charge implications, and valuation issues including treatment of reimbursements and “pure agent” conditions.
  •  Post-Production Services
    GST implications on international VFX and editing services, emphasizing place of supply provisions under Section 13 of the IGST Act.
  •  OTT & Export of Services
    Key insights on export qualification in OTT transactions, addressing concerns around permanent establishment and recipient determination
  •  Movie Rights & Tax Treatment
    Classification of permanent transfer of movie rights as goods, treatment of milestone-based payments, and timing of tax liability.
  •  Industry-Specific Classification Issues
    Discussion on printing services on PVC material and composite supplies in hospitality-linked entertainment events.

Around 73 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

5. Felicitation of Chartered Accountancy pass-outs of the January 2026 Batch held on Friday, 13th March 2026 at Sydenham College of Commerce & Economics, Churchgate, Mumbai.

The Seminar, Membership and Public Relations (SMPR) Committee hosted a felicitation ceremony to honour the newly qualified Chartered Accountants from the January 2026 batch. Over 180 enthusiastic newly qualified CAs participated in the event including CA Sidhh Furiya, who secured AIR 38. The guest and mentor for the event was CA Samit Saraf, Managing Committee member of BCAS. In his address, he reminisced about his post-qualification journey and shared with the attendees 10 cheat codes that helped him propel his career in the right direction and which could help them too. He also expressed gratitude for his association with BCAS and encouraged the new CAs to consider joining BCAS and its activities.

Felicitation of Chartered Accountancy pass-outs of the January 2026 Batch

The ceremony served as a warm welcome for the newly qualified CAs into the wider professional fraternity.

6. Seminar on TDS & TCS – What It Is, What Changes, & How to Stay Compliance-Ready jointly with Goa Chamber of Commerce & Industry (GCCI) held on 13th March 2026@ Hybrid.

The Direct Tax Committee of BCAS, jointly with the Goa Chamber of Commerce and Industry, organised a full-day seminar at GCCI Hall, Goa and in virtual mode to cover the TDS provisions under the new Income Tax Act, 2025, the draft Rules, 2026 and the relevant new Forms. The objective was to familiarise participants with the practical new TDS sections, new Forms, revised due dates, etc.

CA Ronak A Rambhia, shared the new TDS provisions with respect to the threshold amount and the applicable rate of deduction under the Income Tax Act 1961 v/s the new Income Tax Act 2025, which were discussed in depth. The current applicable Forms and the due dates in the current provisions were discussed in comparison with the new applicable Forms and Rules. The practical difficulties on TDS on Payment to Partners u/s 194T of the Income Tax Act, 1961 were discussed in depth with practical scenarios. Further, CA Ravikant Kamath gave his in-depth knowledge on specific new provisions in the Income Tax Act, 2025 and the draft Income Tax Rules, specifically on the chapter of Salary perquisites. He discussed practical TDS controversies for various types of business assesses based on the court rulings, tax provisions, Circulars, etc., by giving his views on these controversies.

Mr. Purushottam from the TDS CPC, Ghaziabad, also presented his views on the new TDS portal 2.0. He gave a walk-through on the upcoming TDS portal, which will include features such as the demand outstanding, payments tab, litigation tab, etc. He also shared how the tax department is preparing for the new Income Tax Act 2025 in practical compliance.

The seminar received an encouraging response from the Goa participants in trade commerce, and also viewers from the online platform. The participants, both online and offline, were enlightened to be ready for the upcoming Tax year 2026-27 for the TDS compliances.

7. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on Issues in Construction Industry and Redevelopment held on Thursday, 05th March 2026 @ Virtual

The session was led by CA. Abhijit Dongaonkar (Group Leader) under the mentorship of CA. Naresh Sheth, and focused on complex, real-life scenarios impacting developers, landowners, and housing societies.

The presentation covered the following aspects for a detailed discussion:

Joint Development Agreements (JDA)
Examination of taxability of Transfer of Development Rights (TDR), revenue-sharing vs. area-sharing models, valuation complexities, and implications of minimum guaranteed consideration.

Time of Supply & Valuation Mechanisms
Insights into deferred tax liability for residential components, immediate taxability for commercial portions, and deemed valuation principles under relevant notifications.

Unsold Inventory & Cancellations
Treatment of unsold units at the time of completion certificate and tax implications of pre- and post-OC cancellations.

Developed Plots & Infrastructure Charges
Clarification on non-taxability of sale of land, taxability of amenities when charged separately, and implications for third-party buyers.

Redevelopment of Housing Societies
Analysis of TDR transactions between societies and developers, construction services to members, and taxability of corpus or hardship funds.

Slum Rehabilitation Projects (SRP)
Discussion on taxability of free rehabilitation flats, valuation of non-monetary consideration in the form of TDR/FSI, and applicability of exemptions.

Around 120 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

8. 14th Residential Study Course on IND AS held on Friday 27th February 2026 to Sunday 01st March 2026 @ The Orchid Hotel Pune.

The Accounting & Auditing Committee organised this Study Course on Ind AS in a residential learning format, enabling intensive technical deliberations and professional interaction. The three-day programme focused on advanced and contemporary Ind AS topics with a strong emphasis on practical application, case studies and current regulatory expectations relevant to preparers, auditors and advisors.

The course commenced with detailed sessions on Ind AS 103 and Ind AS 110, focusing on business combinations, mergers and demergers, covering structuring considerations, accounting complexities and interpretational challenges through case studies. An in-depth session on Related Party Transactions covered Ind AS requirements along with SEBI LODR, Companies Act and tax aspects, highlighting common compliance challenges, documentation expectations and practical issues.

Complex financial instruments were discussed in detail with reference to Ind AS 109, Ind AS 113 and Ind AS 32, covering classification, measurement, valuation and disclosure challenges supported by illustrative case studies. A focused session on Presentation of Financial Statements under Ind AS addressed key presentation principles, disclosure requirements, recent amendments, including Ind AS 118 and emerging reporting practices.

The programme also featured an insightful panel discussion on NFRA findings and initiatives for improving audit quality, deliberating on inspection observations, audit documentation and strengthening audit processes. Another panel discussion on Sustainability Reporting covered preparer and assurance perspectives, addressing evolving sustainability reporting requirements, preparedness challenges and assurance considerations.

14th Residential Study Course on IND AS

The Residential Study Course was well received by participants and provided a valuable platform for deep technical learning, exchange of practical experiences and professional networking. Over 94 participants attended the Course.

  •  Faculties for the Residential Study Course:

Dr. CA Anand Banka, CA MP Vijay Kumar, CA Himanshu Kishnadwala, CA Manan Lakhani

Panelists – CA Sudhir Soni CA Amit Mazmudar Moderator- CA Vijay Maniar

Panelists – CA Himanshu Kishnadwala CA Dr Alok Garg Moderator – CA Samit Saraf

9. ITF Study Circle meeting on “International Tax Aspects of Budget 2026 and ITA 2025” (Part 1 & 2) ” held on 10th & 24th February 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organized this meeting to discuss amendments in the Budget 2026 on the International Tax aspects. The meeting was divided into 2 parts. Both meetings started with the Chairman of the session, CA Mayur Nayak outlining the amendments along with his comments.

CA Hansh Gangar (Group Leader) took up the various amendments on 10 February 2026. Some key discussion points were:

  •  Foreign assets of Small Taxpayers – Disclosure Scheme, wherein the group discussed the need and objectives of the amendment, along with the penalty matrix. Some key issues which were discussed were implications of receipt of foreign shares under ESOP, where the assessee was NR or NOR at the time of earning undisclosed income or acquiring undisclosed assets, but is now a resident, but failed to disclose the above, whether he will be covered under the scheme.
  •  The Group Leader also took us through other amendments, such as Relaxation of conditions relating to prosecution under the Black Money Act, amendments in IFSC, amendments in NDI rules, amendments in TCS rates, etc.

The Budget meeting continued on 24 February 2026, wherein CA Nemin Shah (Group Leader) discussed other amendments that were made in the Budget 2026. Some key discussion points were

  •  The session opened with introductory remarks from the chairman on his initial views on the determination of residential status.
  •  Amendment in buyback provisions wherein the Group leader took us through the various changes introduced in buyback taxation over the years. He discussed the meaning of promoter. He highlighted some issues that were discussed with the group at length – Whether the additional income tax will be eligible for treaty benefits, whether deduction under section 54F is available, and whether this provision will apply to foreign buyback.
  •  Other amendments, such as Exemption related to Data Centres, were also discussed in the group – some points which came up for discussion- the characterisation of the amount – royalty or FTS? Whether there could be an exposure to constitute a PE.
  •  Participants also discussed the Transfer pricing changes, safe harbour rules, etc.

10. “Mumbai Thane Express – Internal Audit 101” held on Saturday, 21st February 2026@ CKP Hall, Thane West.

This session was organised by BCAS jointly with the Thane Branch (WIRC) of ICAI. The keynote session explored the evolving role of Internal Audit in a dynamic regulatory and business environment, highlighting the advanced use of tools and technology in modern audit practices. Discussions emphasized the transition of Internal Audit from a compliance-focused function to a strategic risk advisory partner.

A detailed deep dive into the design, evaluation, and strengthening of internal control frameworks was conducted, with risks and controls explained through relatable day-to-day examples for better understanding. Practical insights were shared on identifying Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) and effectively linking risk assessment with audit planning. A comprehensive walkthrough of risks, controls, and audit procedures in the Procure-to-Pay (P2P) cycle was presented, supported by a clear and structured audit checklist. The checklist highlighted common control gaps in procurement, vendor management, and payment processes, along with practical mitigation strategies. Special emphasis was laid on drafting impactful, concise, and action-oriented audit reports, with a strong focus on stakeholder value creation. Techniques to transform audit observations into compelling narratives that drive management action were demonstrated through practical examples.

The event concluded with a multi-stakeholder panel discussion, offering perspectives on audit expectations from management, auditors, and governance bodies. The discussion also covered aligning Internal Audit outcomes with organizational objectives and enhancing stakeholder value creation.

Approximately 65 participants from Mumbai, Thane, and Pune attended the event.

Faculties: CA Murtuza Kachwala, CA Prajit Gandhi, CA Samit Saraf, CA Chetan Thakkar, CA Pooja Bhutra, CA Harshita Mulay – Dixit, CA Archana Moghe, CA Preeti Cherian. 

11. BCAS Women’s RefresHER Course” held from 6th January 2026 to 19th February 2026@ Virtual.

BCAS launched its first-ever Women’s RefresHER Course – “Re-skill and Re-ignite Your Professional Journey”, creating a dedicated platform for women Chartered Accountants to reconnect with the profession.

The course comprised 14 online sessions, conducted on Tuesdays and Thursdays, covering a wide spectrum of topics including direct tax, GST, FEMA, litigation, succession planning, ESG, audits, valuations, start-ups, and corporate structuring. The sessions were curated to address both foundational concepts and contemporary developments, with a strong focus on practical insights.

A unique feature of the programme was that it was led entirely by women speakers, fostering an open, engaging and relatable learning environment for participants.

Designed for participants at beginner and intermediate levels, including those returning after a career break or looking to build or expand their practice, the course emphasized real-life applications, emerging opportunities and confidence-building.

The programme witnessed an encouraging response, with 85 participants from around 24 towns and cities, making it an interactive experience.

Scan to watch online at BCAS Academy

BCAS Women's RefresHER Course

II. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  •  BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

QR Code:

BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

 

 

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

1. Referencing by Document Identification Number – Reg – Circular No. 4/2026 dated 31 March 2026

Section 292B and 292BA of Income-tax Act, 1961 and Section 522 of the Income-tax Act 2025, provide that any document issued by Income tax Authority shall be referenced by the computer generated Document Identification number (DIN). The circular provides as under:

a) DIN may be mentioned within the communication itself, attached separately, or included in electronic correspondence such as emails.

b) There is no requirement for the same to be printed on every page, provided the communication is clearly referenced.

The Circular further provides that in certain circumstances, the document may not be referenced by DIN in specific situations and all such communications shall require post-facto approval, within a period of 15 days of the date of issue of such communication.

2. Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of Unique Identification Number (UIN) in respect of Form No. 121 and quarterly furnishing of Part B thereof by the payer – Notification No. 01/CPC(TDS) /2026 dated 28 March 2026.

Section 393(6) of the Income-tax Act, 2025 provides for no deduction of tax in certain cases wherein declaration in Part A of Form No. 121 is furnished by the payee to the payer as per Rule 211 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026.

The payer shall allot a 26-character UIN to each declaration (Part A of Form No. 121) received by him during the tax year. The circular provides for the Procedure, formats and standards for generation and allotment of UIN.

3. CBDT amends India- Brazil DTAA – Notification No.39/2026 dated 30 March 2026

The notification gives effect to the 2022 Amending Protocol to the India–Brazil DTAA, which entered into force on 18 October 2025 and applies in India from FY 2026–27 onwards.

4. ITR Forms 1-7, including ITR V and ITR U(updated return) have been notified by the CBDT, for the financial year 2025-26 – Notification No. 45 to 52 of 2026 dated 30 March 2026.

5. Clarificationthat investments made before April 1, 2017, are fully grandfathered and exempt from GAAR scrutiny – Notification No. 55/2026 dated 31 March 2026.

6. PAN CR-01 and PAN CR-02 prescribed for correction of PAN data for individuals and non-individuals along with guidelines

7. All the provisions of Memorandum of Understanding for Assistance in Collection of taxes, of the Convention between the Government of the Republic of India and the Government of Japan for the avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion are notified. – Notification No. 56 dated 2 April 2026

II. IFSCA UPDATE FOR MAY 2026 EDITION

1. IFSCA grants Qualifying Central Counterparty (QCCP) status to IIBX

India International Bullion Exchange (IFSC) Limited (‘IIBX’) functions both as a Bullion Exchange and a Bullion Clearing Corporation. The Bullion Clearing Corporation of IIBX has qualified as a Qualifying Central Counterparty (‘QCCP’) as it is regulated by IFSCA, SCRA and complies with global standards, particularly the Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures (PFMIs). The QCCP status confirms that its clearing operations meet international benchmarks for risk management and financial integrity.

Further, IIBX has been designated as a Market Infrastructure Institution (MII) due to its systemic importance in GIFT IFSC and is subject to strict regulatory oversight and supervision within the PFMI framework. In view of the above, IIBX is accorded the status of QCCP.

[Press release, dated 25th March 2026]

2. IFSC Authority removes 7-day comment timeline requirement from KMP circular for FMEs

IFSCA had issued a circular “Appointment and Change of Key Managerial Personnel (‘KMP’) by a Fund Management Entity (‘FME’)” dated February 20, 2025 which specifies the manner and procedure to be followed by a FME for effecting the appointment of or change to their KMPs. Paragraph 4 of this Circular which provided for communication of comments by the Authority within a specified timeline of 7 working days form the date of filing of intimation by the FME has now been removed. All other provisions and conditions specified in the 2025 Circular shall remain the same.

[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026]

3. IFSCA mandates certification courses

IFSCA has specified a mandatory certification course titled “Regulatory Framework for Fund Management in IFSC: AIFs and Retail Schemes” for employees of Fund Management Entities (FMEs) offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core fund management activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with responsibility for compliance resting on the FME and persons in control. Additionally, FMEs must ensure continuous adherence to eligibility criteria for KMPs under applicable regulations.

The IFSCA has also mandated a certification requirement for employees of Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) in IFSC. The Authority has specified the course titled “Regulatory Framework for Capital Market Intermediaries in IFSC” offered by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India. All Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) and employees engaged in core business activities are required to successfully complete this certification on or before 30 September 2026, with the responsibility for compliance resting on the CMI and persons in control.

[Circular No. IFSCA/13/2026-Capital Markets/1, dated 1st April 2026 & Circular F. No. IFSCA-PLNP/80/2024 Capital Markets, dated 2nd April 2026]

4. IFSCA establishes regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC

The IFSC Authority has notified the IFSCA (Pension Fund) Regulations, 2026, establishing a regulatory framework for registration, regulation and supervision of Pension Funds in IFSC. The regulations aim to provide a robust framework for long-term retirement savings, promote a secure and transparent environment for subscribers, protect their interests and maintain the integrity of the pension ecosystem. The framework overrides existing PFRDA regulations within the IFSC, eliminating dual-regulatory burden. The Regulations cover eligibility requirements for the Pension Funds; scheme designs; withdrawal and portability pathways; permissible investments with defined limits over a broad range of asset classes; and risk management & governance requirements; compliance and enforcement.

[F. No. IFSCA/GN/2026/007, dated 30th March 2026]

5. IFSCA bars fund management entities from assigning multiple service roles to fiduciaries in the same scheme

The IFSCA (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025, requires Fund Management Entities (FMEs) to appoint fiduciaries such as trustees (in case of trusts), directors (in case of companies), or designated partners (in case of LLPs), who are obligated to act in the best interest of investors and adhere to high standards of due diligence, care, and independent judgment as per the prescribed Code of Conduct. To strengthen governance and avoid conflicts of interest, IFSCA has clarified that an FME shall not appoint a fiduciary entity to also provide services such as fund administration, valuation, audit, or lending /financing to the same scheme, whether directly or through its associates. For existing schemes already filed or taken on record, FMEs are required to comply with this requirement by 30th September 2026.

[Circular No. IFSCA-IF-10PR/7/2024-Capital Markets/10042026, dated 10th April 2026]

6. IFSCA requires prior approval for Payment Service Providers (PSPs) joining Rupee Drawing Agreement (RDA) as non-resident Exchange Houses

IFSCA has issued a clarification regarding participation in Rupee Drawing Arrangements (RDA) by Payment Service Providers (PSPs). IFSCA has now clarified that prior approval is mandatory for PSPs intending to participate in RDA as non-resident Exchange Houses, in line with the RBI Master Direction on “Opening and Maintenance of Rupee/Foreign Currency Vostro Accounts of Non-resident Exchange Houses” (2016). Further, PSPs must submit, along with their approval request, a comprehensive framework demonstrating compliance with the IFSCA (Anti Money Laundering, Counter-Terrorist Financing and Know Your Customer) Guidelines, 2022 and any other applicable similar laws.

[Circular No. IFSCA-FMPP0BR/3/ 2023-Banking 2026-27/01, dated 10th April 2026]

III. FEMA

1. Govt notifies uniform Rs.2–10 crore adjudication limit for Additional & Joint Directors under FEMA

The Central Government has amended the notification prescribing jurisdiction of adjudicating authorities under the FEMA. This amendment revises the monetary limits for adjudication of Additional Directors and Joint Directors Enforcement. Previously, Additional Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.5 crores and Rs.10 crores, while Joint Directors handled cases involving amount between Rs.2 crores and Rs.5 crores. The revised notification merges the scope by prescribing that both categories will now handle cases involving amounts exceeding Rs.2 crores but not exceeding Rs.10 crores.

[Notification No. 1397(E) [F. NO. K-11022/80/2011-AD.ED], dated 18th March 2026]

2. RBI directs ADs to maintain NOP-INR within USD 100 million in the offshore deliverable market

Master Direction on ‘Risk Management and Inter-Bank Dealings’ empowers RBI to prescribe limits on open positions in Rupee for exchange rate management. RBI has issued a circular whereby Authorised Dealers are now required to ensure that Net Open Positions in INR (NOP-INR) positions in the onshore deliverable market are maintained within USD 100 million at the end of each business day. ADs shall ensure compliance at the earliest but not later than 10th April 2026. This is a measure to curb volatility in the Rupee considering ongoing geopolitical issues.

[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 24, dated 27th March 2026]

3. RBI revises ECB reporting framework and clarifies LSF computation

ECB transactions are required to be reported through Authorised Dealer (AD) Category I banks in prescribed forms, and delays attract Late Submission Fee (LSF). RBI has issued circular to remove ambiguities in classification of returns and streamline LSF computation. Key Highlights from the circular are given as follows:

a. Form ECB-1 and Revised ECB-1 to be treated as non-flow returns, and LSF to be computed accordingly. Non-flow returns are filed once per transaction/event, not periodically.

b. LSF is per return. Each delayed filing of Form ECB-2 to be treated as a separate instance, attracting LSF independently.

c. AD Category I banks shall submit ECB returns to RBI within 7 calendar days of receipt from borrowers.

d. LSF is payable via NEFT/RTGS to RBI Regional Office after receipt of acknowledgment email from RBI. AD banks to ensure and monitor payment of LSF by borrowers.

These amendments are applicable from 1st April 2026.

[A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 25, dated 30th March 2026]

4. RBI standardises guarantee reporting under FEMA; clarifies LSF computation for delays in reporting

RBI has issued circular with regard to obligation on a person to report a guarantee in terms of Regulation 7 FEM (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 [FEMA 8 (R)] and Master Direction on ‘Reporting under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999’. The main points are:

a. Reporting is to be done using files provided on the RBI website (List of Returns Submitted to RBI) for submissions to the authorised dealer bank:

Form GRN Issue – for reporting issuance of guarantee;

Form GRN Modification – for reporting changes in terms such as amount, tenure or pre-closure; and

Form GRN Invocation – for reporting invocation of guarantee.

b. Each guarantee to be assigned a Unique Guarantee Transaction Number (GTN) by AD Bank before submission of the return to RBI.

c. For any delay, LSF will be calculated on amount of liability created towards surety on invocation for Form GRN Invocation only. For Form GRN Issue and Form GRN Modification, LSF to be considered on amount as ‘nil’ since these returns do not capture flows.

The above will come into effect from 1st April 2026.

[A. P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 1, dated 1st April 2026]

5. RBI permits INR exchange for residents and non-residents at forex counters in airport departure areas beyond immigration

The RBI has decided to allow residents and non-residents to exchange Indian Rupee notes at foreign exchange counters at the departure halls in the international airports established in the Duty-Free Area or Security Hold Area beyond the Immigration or Customs desk. The Master Direction on Money Changing Activities is being amended accordingly.

[A.P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 4, dated 2nd April 2026]

6. RBI amends Master Direction on non-resident investment in debt instruments, consolidates existing instructions

Over the years, the Reserve Bank has issued directions relating to investments in debt instruments by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and offering of debt instruments acquired in terms of FEMA 396 as collateral to recognized Stock Exchanges in India for transactions in exchange traded derivative contracts. These instructions have now been consolidated in the Master Direction on ‘Non-resident Investment in Debt Instruments’, 2025 which earlier covered various related Regulations under FEMA. Annex-1 of the Master Direction provides the list of circulars consolidated while Annex-4 lists the amendments made to the Master Direction over time.

[A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 6, dated 10th April 2026]

 

 

 

Audits Of Co-Operative Housing Societies

Shrikrishna : Arjun, why are you looking so tired and frustrated?

Arjun : We had the managing committee meeting of the housing society where I stay.

Shrikrishna : So what? What is so tiring about it?

Arjun : Bhagwan, you are very well aware that in a co-operative housing society, there is nothing but non-cooperation! No one is willing to come forward to work in the managing committee, members believe that committee members are their employees. A few committee members have some vested interests in the society’s management.

Shrikrishna : Arjun. This is common in all Non-Profit organisations! It is a part of life. In kaliyug, disputes are everywhere. Even in our families!

Arjun : I agree. But every society has at least one Duryodhana

Shrikrishna : Duryodhana? What do you mean?

Arjun : There is invariably one crooked member in every society. He is extra smart. He picks up disputes on some pretext or the other with the committee and other members.

Shrikrishna : I am aware. And there are Shakunis to instigate them.

Arjun : Usually, these Duryodhans are retired people from high positons in Government jobs or corporates. They feel that they alone know the law. They dispute the monthly contribution and usually are defaulters! In a few cases, some CAs or lawyers play the role of Duryodhana!

Shrikrishna : Yes. It is very common. But what did your Duryodhana do?

Arjun : Our Duryodhan has a hobby of making complaints before every possible forum – to the Registrar of Co-operative societies, to the Police Authorities, to the co-operative courts; and on the top of it, to our Institute of CAs against the auditor! He has made complaints against 8 successive years’ auditors so far!

Shrikrishna : Surprising! In an NPO, what are the issues?

Arjun : They rake up all issues like Accounting Standards, Standards on Auditing, Tax laws, co-operative laws and what not! They make a hype of everything. Poor auditor receives a meagre fee of 6 to 8 thousand rupees; but when there is a complaint to ICAI, he has to spend well above a lakh of rupees to engage a counsel. In addition to hire a lawyer to represent before the Registrar of co-op. societies, Police authorities and so on.

Shrikrishna : And he loses his peace of mind for at least 4 to 5 years!

Arjun : It is at the same time equally true that CAs take the audits of NPOs rather lightly. They are not particular about documentation, working papers, checking of minutes and secretarial records; and so on.

Shrikrishna : I heard that they are not careful even to ensure that their appointment is properly made!

Arjun : Yes, Lord. And the Duryodhana is keen to find all such loop holes to harass him. Auditors are even black mailed by the Duryodhans in respective societies.

Shrikrishna : Somebody told me that many people rendering accounting services to the societies have an arrangement with some CAs who simply put their signature and seal without verifying anything!

Arjun : Yes. That is very dangerous! A few CAs themselves write the accounts and also audit them! And the height is that they raise a common invoice of accounting and auditing! In some cases, their own employees or close relatives write the accounts.

Shrikrishna : And Duryodhans get a good opportunity to harass them.

Arjun : Absolutely. Today such people have realised their own nuisance value and making rampant misuse of our disciplinary mechanism.

Shrikrishna : I believe, ICAI should create a separate mechanism to deal with such petty complaints against auditor of NPOs. It is a great burden on the disciplinary authorities and the pendency is mounting due to such petty complaints. They should device some fast track mechanism to tackle such matters.

Arjun : I think it impossible to happen. Government lacks will power to simplify the things. Instead, I feel, CAs should stop accepting housing society audits altogether unless they are able to do full justice. But then, it won’t be remunerative!

Shrikrishna : Prevention is better than cure!

Om shanti.

(This dialogue is based on the current scenario of disciplinary cases in respect of audits of housing societies)

Tech Mantra

Standard Notes – Free Your Mind

standard Notes

Standard Notes is a free, secure note-taking app with powerful end-to-end encryption, unparalleled privacy features, and seamless cross-platform syncing on unlimited devices. It protects your notes and files with audited, industry-leading end-to-end encryption. Only You have access to the keys required to decrypt your data. You can write and store all your notes and files in one secure place and seamlessly access them from all your devices.

Note-taking services like Evernote, Google Keep, Notion, and Simplenote cannot prevent employers and governments from reading your data. Standard Notes features advanced security and privacy controls that protect your data against hacks, data breaches, government access, and even employer access.

The app is simple, easy to use, and lightweight. Enough features, but not too many!

Standard Notes is a no-risk investment in your productivity. If it works for you like it works for many happy users, then you’ve gained a lifelong tool that will protect your data and nourish your growth.

https://standardnotes.com/

Minimaa – Minimalist Launcher for Android

Minimaa
Reclaim Your Focus. Simplify Your Life. Drowning in a sea of colorful icons and constant notifications? MINIMAA is a premium minimalist launcher designed to transform your smartphone into a tool for intentionality, not a source of distraction.

Most launchers are designed to keep you on your phone. MINIMAA is designed to get you off it. By removing the visual “sugar” of colorful icons and cluttered grids, it reduces the dopamine triggers that lead to phone addiction.

It has a black and white interface, optimized for OLED screens to save battery and reduce eye strain. Also, the interface is text-based – so no icons, no distractions. You can hide distracting social media apps and access them only when necessary. And, of course, there are no trackers, no data collection, and no ads. Your phone stays yours.
Ideal for productivity enthusiasts and digital minimalists. The perfect companion for your journey away from screen addiction. Join the movement of thousands of users who have swapped their cluttered home screens for a peaceful, minimalist sanctuary.

You can download MINIMAA to start your digital detox https://tinyurl.com/minimaa

Wi-Fi AR

Wifi Ar

Wi-Fi AR is a free, simple app that scans your home Wi-Fi network efficiently. It uses augmented reality (ARCore) to visualize real-time Wi-Fi and cellular signal strength, speed, and latency in your physical space. It acts as a visual network analyzer, helping users identify dead spots, locate the best router placement, and detect network interference.

Just start the app and move around your home to identify the areas where the signal is powerful and where it is weak. You can then find the best places to play games or position your Wi-Fi devices. It also helps locate where your phone receives the best signal from your Mobile Network.

A simple app which is super useful.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/wifiar

Blip

Blip

If you have to send files from one device to another, or from one person to another, irrespective of the platform, Blip is the tool for you. You have never sent files this fast – send any size file right from your desktop, phone, tablet, or any other device.

You can transfer files in just one step. No need to upload and download separately. The size of the file is irrelevant – there is no limit! Blip is also intelligent enough to resume after a network interruption, if any, a drive being unplugged, or the target disk being full.

You can send entire folders in full quality and at enhanced speeds. It supports TLS 1.3 encryption so that your data is fully safe during transit.

Super-fast transfers were never so easy!

https://blip.net/

Miscellanea

1. SCIENCE

# A PhD candidate creates a “universe in a bottle” to uncover how life on Earth began

A PhD candidate, Linda Losurdo at the University of Sydney, recreated a “universe in a bottle” by simulating space-like chemical environments in the lab. Using nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and acetylene exposed to high-voltage plasma, she produced cosmic dust from scratch. This experiment mimics conditions in stellar nebulae and helps scientists study the chemical pathways that formed complex organic molecules—the building blocks of life—before life began on Earth.

The research, published in The Astrophysical Journal, offers a new way to analyze the infrared spectral fingerprints of cosmic dust, aiding the understanding of the chemical makeup of asteroids and meteorites. It also explores whether life’s essential elements (CHON: Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen) formed in space and were delivered to Earth via comets and asteroids.

Ultimately, the project aims to build a comprehensive database of infrared signatures from lab-grown cosmic dust, improving astronomers’ ability to identify and study materials in space and enhancing knowledge of the Milky Way’s chemical evolution.

(Source: The Times of India – By TOI Science Desk –24 April 2026)

2. TECHNOLOGY

# RBI reaches out to global regulators for risk assessment on Anthropic’s Claude Mythos

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is actively assessing the cybersecurity risks posed by Anthropic’s newly released AI model, Mythos. In consultations with counterparts at the US Federal Reserve, the Bank of England, and other global regulators, RBI officials have expressed concerns that Mythos could accelerate the discovery and exploitation of software vulnerabilities, increasing threats to India’s financial sector. Regulators worldwide, including those in Asia, Europe, and the US, have urged banks to strengthen their defenses against potential AI-driven cyber risks.

India’s National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which manages the highly secure Unified Payments Interface (UPI), is working with select banks to gain early access to Mythos. This proactive approach aims to identify vulnerabilities and “day-zero” cyber risks before wider deployment. However, access to Mythos is tightly controlled, limited to a few US organizations, and hosted on secure servers in the US, raising compliance challenges related to Indian data protection laws.

In response, RBI is developing comprehensive guidelines for banks partnering with advanced AI models like Mythos and Anthropic’s Claude family. These guidelines are part of a broader strategy to ensure safe AI adoption in India’s financial system, with a strong emphasis on enforcing the 2018 data localization rules that require all payment transaction data to be stored exclusively on servers within India. The discussions are ongoing, reflecting RBI’s cautious but forward-looking approach to AI integration in finance.

(Source: Financial Express – By Tech Desk –22 April 2026)

3. WORLD – SCIENCE – MINDSET

# After Loss, Paralysis, and Silence: Myles Merideth’s Search for What It Means to Still Be Alive

Myles Merideth, author and owner of Empirical Resource Development, faced profound challenges after a spinal condition caused partial paralysis, along with a series of personal losses, including his mother, brother, and daughter. These events shattered his identity, which was built on strength and leadership. Through surrender and reflection, he realized that true identity is not defined by experiences or roles but by a deeper, constant life force within.

This insight inspired his book, It’s Not Who You Are, It’s What You Are, written during near-total immobility. The book offers a framework focused on present awareness rather than external validation, addressing grief, burnout, and identity loss. Myles plans to release a new book on leadership, along with facilitator guides and speaking engagements. His message resonates with those facing loss or questioning achievement-based identities, emphasizing that beneath all else, “You are life first.”

(Source: International Business Times –Created By Callum Turner – 13 April 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI ANNOUNCEMENT

1. AUDIT QUALITY MATURITY MODEL (AQMM)

The ICAI has issued a clarification expanding the scope of mandatory AQMM applicability. The revised framework now explicitly includes Practice Units auditing holding/subsidiary/associate/JV entities of specified categories (listed entities, banks, insurance companies), provided such firms are subject to Peer Review.

AQMM was already mandatory for firms auditing:

  •  Listed entities
  • Banks (excluding co-operative banks except multi-state co-operative banks)
  • Insurance companies (the firms conducting only branch audits are not to be covered)

Expanded Scope – AQMM v2.0 (Phased Implementation)

The applicability has now been significantly widened as under:

(A) From 1 April 2026

Applicable to:

• Firms subject to Peer Review auditing:

• Holding/Subsidiary/Associate/JV of:

• Listed entities

• Banks (excluding co-op banks except multi-state)

• Insurance companies

•  Firms undertaking statutory audit of large unlisted public companies meeting any of the following thresholds:

  • Paid-up capital ≥ ₹500 crore, or
  • Turnover ≥ ₹1,000 crore, or
  • Aggregate borrowings ≥ ₹500 crore

(B) From 1 April 2027

Applicable to:

  • Firms auditing entities:

  • Raising funds > ₹50 crore from public/banks/FIs during the period
  • Entities classified as Public Interest Entities (including trusts)

2. EXPERT PANEL FOR ADDRESSING QUERIES RELATED TO STATUTORY AUDIT PERTAINING TO AUDITING ASPECTS

Auditing and Assurance Standards Board formed an Expert Panel which will provide technical support to the members with respect to their queries on auditing aspects for the coming Audit season. Members having specific queries may send such queries at email address: auditfaq@icai.in. The panel will be open from 16th April 2026 till 30th September 2026.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91721caqb-aqmm100426.pdfS

3. INVITATION TO SHARE INTERNAL AUDIT CASE STUDIES FOR KNOWLEDGE REPOSITORY OF THE INTERNAL AUDIT STANDARDS BOARD, ICAI

Internal Audit Standards Board invites members to submit concise and practice-oriented case studies relating to Internal Audit for inclusion in its professional knowledge initiatives. Each submission should be concise and restricted to a maximum of 200 words.

Submissions may kindly be made through the Google Form link: https://forms.gle/hCQcZHi3SSAAVV6d8

II. ICAI PUBLICATION

a. Income-tax Act 2025

Income-tax Act, 2025 (as amended by the Finance Act, 2026) including Tabular Mapping of Sections vis-à-vis the Income-tax Act, 1961

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91774dtc-aps4792.pdf

b. Income-tax Rules 2026

Income-tax Rules, 2026 – Including Tabular Mapping of Rules and Forms vis-à-vis Income-tax Rules, 1962 and Forms.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91688dtc-aps4735.pdf

III. ICAI EXPERT ADVISORY COMMITTEE OPINION

Timing of Capitalisation of Partly Completed Gas Pipeline under Ind AS

A. Facts of the Case

  • The company, a JV formed to develop the North-East Gas Grid (NEGG), is constructing a 392 km Guwahati–Numaligarh pipeline (Phase I) to supply gas to Numaligarh Refinery (anchor customer).
  • The project is being executed in phases; as on 31.03.2025, 195.898 km (≈50%) of the pipeline was mechanically completed with related infrastructure and completion certification.
  • However, the entire 392 km pipeline is not yet completed or commissioned, and commercial operations can commence only after full completion.
  • The company has capitalised all costs as Capital Work-in-progress (CWIP), including costs relating to the completed portion.

B. Query

  • Whether the company should capitalise the cost (including borrowing costs) relating to the completed portion of 195.898 km, despite:

(a) the pipeline not being in a condition to operate as intended, and

(b) commercial operations not having commenced.

C. Points considered by the Committee

  • The issue relates to timing of capitalisation of a partly completed pipeline under Ind AS 16.
  • As per Ind AS 16, capitalisation is appropriate only when the asset is in the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in the manner intended by management.
  • Determination of such readiness depends on facts, technical evaluation, and ability to operate.
  • In integrated projects, if parts are capable of independent use, they may be capitalised separately; otherwise, not.
  •  In the present case:
  • The completed portion (195.898 km) cannot be used independently.
  • The pipeline achieves its intended objective only when the entire 392 km stretch is completed.
  • Accordingly, the partially completed section is not yet in a condition for intended use.
  • Under Ind AS 23, borrowing costs continue to be capitalised until the asset is ready for intended use; cessation depends on similar principles.

D. Opinion

  • The partially completed pipeline (195.898 km) is not capable of operating independently and is not in the condition necessary for intended use.
  • Therefore, capitalisation should not be triggered, and the expenditure should continue to be shown as CWIP.
  • Further, capitalisation of borrowing costs should continue till the entire pipeline is completed and ready for intended use

ICAI Journal – The Chartered Accountant April 2026 Pages 98-106

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91549cajournal-apr2026-25.pdf

IV. ICAI DISCIPLINARY COMMITTEE

1. Case : Shri RK vs. CA. D.N.B.

File No. : PR/34/2018/DD/54/2018/DC/1755/2023

Date of Order : 05.01.2026

Particulars              Details

Nature of Case       Alleged misuse of digital signature and fraudulent increase in share capital

Background                The Respondent assisted in incorporation and compliance of M/s VMC Pvt. Ltd. where the Complainant and two others were directors (equal shareholding initially). It was alleged that the Respondent, in connivance with other directors, increased share capital from 15,000 to 35,000 shares and allotted additional shares only to the other two directors using the Complainant’s digital signature without consent, and also forged documents including financial statements and MBP-1 disclosures.

Key Allegations

– Fraudulent increase in share capital and allotment excluding complainant.

– Misuse/forgery of digital signature in Form-2 and other filings.

– Forged signature on financial statements and MBP-1.

– Non-provision of documents and collusion with other directors.

Respondent’s Defence – Increase in share capital supported by Board Resolution dated 07.06.2011 and disclosures in financial statements.

– Financial statements for FY 2012–13 signed by Complainant, evidencing knowledge.

– Handwriting expert report confirmed signatures as genuine.

– No evidence of misuse of digital signature; documents available in public domain (MCA).

Findings

– Shareholding changes were disclosed in financial statements signed by Complainant (page 13).

– Form-2 was digitally signed by Complainant; no evidence of misuse of DSC.

– Handwriting expert report supported genuineness of signatures.

– Complainant failed to provide corroborative evidence of forgery or fraud.

– MBP-1 was filed physically and not certified by Respondent.

– No direct evidence linking Respondent to alleged misconduct.

Decision               Not Guilty under:

• Item (7), Part I, Second Schedule

• Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule

2. Case : Shri B.S.P. vs. CA. A.M.

File No. : PR/162/2019/DD/261/2019/DC/1791/2023

Date of Order : 05.01.2026

Particulars                              Details

Nature of Case                     Alleged siphoning of funds and audit failure in related party transactions

Background                             The Respondent was statutory auditor of M/s H Pvt. Ltd. for FY 2008-09 to 2011-12. The Complainant (MD) alleged that ₹1.48 crore received in April 2010 (₹85 lakh from DST and ₹62 lakh from GIDC) was immediately transferred to K Ltd, resulting in loss of control and dilution of shareholding. It was alleged that the Respondent failed to detect/report this diversion and issued clean audit reports.

Key Allegations

– Siphoning of ₹1.48 crore to related party K Ltd.

– Failure to report material transactions in audit.

– Non-disclosure of related party transactions under AS-18.

– Issuance of “true and fair” audit report despite irregularities.

Respondent’s Defence

– Transactions were recorded in books in FY 2009-10; cheques issued on 31.03.2010 and cleared in next year.

– Financial statements duly signed by Complainant (MD).

– Transactions reflected in ledger accounts and CARO report.

– No siphoning; payments were part of loan repayment transactions.

– AS-18 not applicable due to SME exemption.

Findings

– Ledger accounts and financial statements showed proper recording of ₹1.48 crore transactions (page 11).

– Cheques issued on 31.03.2010 and cleared in FY 2010-11—accounting treatment held correct.

– No evidence of fraudulent diversion or siphoning; transactions were part of running account.

– Financial statements were approved and signed by Complainant as MD, indicating awareness.

– AS-18 non-disclosure not actionable due to SME exemption and absence of specific allegation.

– Auditor cannot be held liable where transactions are properly recorded and management-approved.

Decision

Not Guilty under Item (7), Part I, Second Schedule

3. Case : In Re: CA. SKT

File No. : PPR/P/106/2016/DD/31/INF/2020/DC/2041/2025

Date of Order : 25.01.2026

Particulars                               Details

Complainant                  Information (MCA/RBI-related issues)

Respondent                     CA. SKT

Nature of Case                Alleged failure to report public deposits and NBFC-related non-compliance in audit

Background                    The Respondent was statutory auditor of three real estate companies where customer advances aggregating ₹3.57 Cr, ₹7.99 Cr and ₹17.89 Cr were shown in financial statements. It was alleged that these were public deposits and the Respondent failed to report the same and related NBFC compliance issues.

Key Allegations

– Failure to identify/report companies as NBFC.

– Failure to report receipt of public deposits in audit report.

– Lack of sufficient audit verification of customer advances.

Respondent’s Defence – Companies were engaged in real estate business (sale of plots).

– Advances represented booking amounts received from customers, not deposits.

– Relied on Section 45-I(bb) of RBI Act, excluding advances against sale of property from “deposit”.

– Produced sale deeds, allotment letters, receipts, and customer-wise details.

Findings

– Committee held NBFC allegation not sustainable; companies were engaged in real estate business.

– Documentary evidence (sale deeds, agreements, receipts, allotment letters) established that amounts were genuine customer advances.

– As noted (pages 9–10), substantial audit verification was demonstrated (≈95.87% sample coverage of advances).

– Advances were in ordinary course of business and hence not “public deposits” under RBI Act.

– No requirement for auditor to report such advances as deposits.

Decision                          Not Guilty under Item (7) & (8), Part I, Second Schedule

4. Case : Smt. BS vs. CA. SG

File No. : PR/423/2019/DD/45/2020/DC/1566/2022

Date of Order : 28.01.2026

Particulars                          Details

Nature of Case               Alleged failure to verify loan adjustment and report misstatement in financial statements

Background                       The Respondent audited M/s A Ltd. for FY 2016-17 to 2018-19. In FY 2016-17, an unsecured loan of ₹4,19,109 was shown in the name of the Complainant. In FY 2017-18, the balance was shown as NIL, allegedly without repayment. The Respondent stated that the amount was transferred to the loan account of the Complainant’s husband (director) as part of a family arrangement.

Key Allegations

– Loan shown as NIL without repayment or proper verification.

– Failure to obtain confirmation or documentary evidence for transfer.

– Failure to report material misstatement and lack of due diligence.

Respondent’s Defence – Loans of family members were consolidated into husband’s account by mutual understanding.

– Ledger accounts reflected transfer; husband’s balance increased accordingly.

– Matter was a family arrangement, not a financial irregularity.

– Audit procedures based on professional judgment; external confirmations not mandatory.

Findings 

– Ledger accounts and records substantiated transfer of ₹4.19 lakh to husband’s account (pages 10–11).

– Husband (director) had accepted consolidated balance in separate proceedings, supporting genuineness

– Dispute held to be family/shareholder dispute, not audit failure.

– Auditor’s reliance on internal records and judgment within acceptable limits of SA 505.

– No evidence of misstatement, negligence, or lack of due diligence

Decision                    Not Guilty under Clauses (6), (7), (8), Part I, Second Schedule

 

Company Law

3. Uma Polymers Ltd vs. Union of India

185 taxmann.com 176, High Court of Rajasthan

Where company failed to constitute Nomination and Remuneration Committee for financial year 2022-23 in conformity with the statutory provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director, subsequent rectification by appointment of a non-executive director and reconstitution of the committee did not cure the earlier violation, Thus, the penalty imposed under section 454(3) of the Companies Act 2013 (CA 2013) was legal and justified.

FACTS

The company and its Whole-Time Director were issued a show cause notice for violation of Section 178(1) of the CA 2013 read with Rule 6 of the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014, on the ground that the Nomination and Remuneration Committee for the financial year 2022-23 was not constituted in conformity with the statutory provisions due to absence of a non-executive director on the Board.

In response, the company admitted the non-conformity and stated that a non-executive director had subsequently been appointed, and the Committee reconstituted in compliance. At the hearing, it prayed for imposition of minimum penalty on this basis. The Adjudicating Authority (Registrar of Companies-cum-Official Liquidator) imposed a total penalty of Rs. 7 lakhs under Section 454(3) of the CA 2013 on the company and its Whole-Time Director. The Company filed the present writ petition.

Relevant Extract from the provisions of CA 2013:

Section 178 (1) The Board of Directors of every listed public company and such other class or classes of companies, as may be prescribed, shall constitute the Nomination and Remuneration Committee consisting of three or more non-executive directors out of which not less than one-half shall be independent director.

Rule 6: The Board of directors of every listed public company and a company covered under rule 4 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 shall constitute an ‘Audit Committee’ and a ‘Nomination and Remuneration Committee of the Board.

HELD

  •  Upon perusal of the order passed by the Registrar of Companies-cum-Official Liquidator, Jaipur, as well as the order passed by the Regional Director, North-Western Region, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Ahmedabad, the Court came to a prima facie finding that the constitution of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee of the company for the financial year 2022-23 was not in conformity with the aforesaid provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director on the Board.
  •  However, at the time of hearing before the Adjudicating Authority as well as the Appellate Authority, the authorized representative of the company prayed for imposition of a minimum penalty, submitting that SP had been appointed as a non-executive director with effect from 14.05.2024 and that the Nomination and Remuneration Committee had thereafter been reconstituted in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the aforesaid Rules.
  •  The Adjudicating Authority, however, for the said violation, imposed a total penalty of Rs. 7.00 lakh upon the company and its Whole-Time Director, SL.
  •  In the opinion of the Court, merely because SP was subsequently appointed as a non-executive director and the Nomination and Remuneration Committee was reconstituted in conformity with the provisions of the Act and the Rules, the same would not cure the earlier violation pertaining to the non-constitution of the Committee for the financial year 2022-23, as the composition of the said Committee remained in contravention of the statutory provisions due to the absence of a non-executive director on the Board.
  •  Hence, the penalty imposed upon the company by the Adjudicating Authority in exercise of powers under Section 454(3) of CA 2013 was found to be legal and justified. As regards the quantum of penalty, it was observed that imposition thereof, being based on the subjective satisfaction of the Adjudicating Authority, is not ordinarily liable to be interfered with unless it is demonstrated that the same is based on irrelevant considerations or extraneous material. In the present case, no material has been placed on record to show that the impugned decision suffers from such infirmities or that the penalty imposed is grossly disproportionate to the violation alleged.
  •  In view of the aforesaid discussion, the writ petition was dismissed.

4. Daksha Atul Desai vs. Registrar of Companies, Mumbai

Company Appeal (AT) No. 370 of 2024

National Company Law Appellate Tribunal

Principal Bench, New Delhi

Date of order: 10th July,2025

NCLAT held that provision of Section 252(3) of the Companies Act,2013 provides a mechanism for an appeal to restore the name of a company, struck off pursuant to Section 248, granting locus standi to the company, any member, creditor, or workman, irrespective of whether the striking off was effected under Section 248(1) or Section 248(2) of the Companies Act,2013.

FACTS

Mr. DD (a Director and Shareholder) filed petition before The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under Section 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 seeking restoration of the company’s name which was struck off by the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai, Maharashtra (ROC), on 19th July, 2017 under Section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 for non-compliance with statutory requirements.

“NCLT held that since the strike-off was under Section 248(1), the petition should have been filed under Section 252(1) (3-year limit) and hence the application under Section 252(1) was time-barred.”

NCLT, in its order, differentiated between the mode of strike-off and the maintainability of a petition for restoration of name as follows:

1) Under Section 248(1): Where the name of the company is struck off by the Registrar of Companies, a petition for restoration shall be maintainable under Section 252(1), subject to a limitation period of three years.

2) Under Section 248(2): Where the strike-off is voluntary by the company, a petition for restoration shall be maintainable under Section 252(3), subject to a limitation period of twenty years

Aggrieved by the said order, Mr. DD preferred an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) against the impugned order of the NCLT.

NCLAT observed that Section 252 of the Companies Act, 2013 does not differentiate between strike-off under Section 248(1) initiated by the ROC and strike-off under Section 248(2) undertaken voluntarily by the company and held that the interpretation adopted by the NCLT was unduly narrow.

ORDER:

NCLAT held that interpretation of Section 252 establishes that the applicable limitation period under Section 252 is determined by who files the appeal/application, not how the company was struck off, and stated that:

1) Section 252(1) – 3-Year Limitation: Applies to an appeal filed by any aggrieved person against the RoC’s order of dissolution, typically within three years from the date of the order.

2) Section 252(3) – 20-Year Limitation: Applies to an application filed by the company, any member (shareholder), creditor, or workman before the expiry of twenty years from the publication of the notice of striking off.

Further, it was held that opinion taken by the Ld. NCLT is not correct, since the appeal in the present case was filed by shareholder viz. a member, the limitation as provided under Section 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 shall apply. The NCLAT directed the Ld. NCLT to hear the appeal on merits.

Decoding Conflict Of Interest Situations In Securities Market – Regulated Intermediaries

Conflicts of interest in securities markets arise when professional positions are exploited for gain, manifesting as actual, potential, or perceived situations. SEBI regulations require intermediaries to establish systematic frameworks for identification, avoidance, and prevention. Identification involves recognizing misaligned incentives, while avoidance relies on Board oversight and disclosure. Prevention depends on structural safeguards such as “Chinese Walls,” role segregation, and ethical codes. Ultimately, maintaining market integrity requires a shift towards a principle-driven governance culture, where client interests are consistently prioritized over revenue-driven considerations to ensure long-term investor confidence.

DEFINING CONFLICT OF INTEREST

Conflicts of Interest may be defined in several ways, including any situation in which an individual or entity is in a position to exploit a professional or official role for personal or corporate benefit. This is a manifestation of the moral hazard problem, particularly in institutions operating in the financial sector (or related areas), that provide multiple services, where potentially competing interests may lead to concealment of information or dissemination of misleading information. A conflict of interest exists when a party to a transaction could potentially makes gain by taking actions that are detrimental to another party in the transaction.

It is important to recognise that any situation inherently presenting the possibility of a conflict can become problematic, if not effectively addressed. Conflicts may be classified as actual, potential, or perceived. An actual conflict exists when there is a direct and present clash of interest. A potential conflict may arise in the future based on existing circumstances. A perceived conflict exists when a situation appears to compromise fairness or independence, even if no actual conflict exists. In financial markets, perception materially impact trust and market integrity.

Managing Market integrity

REGULATORY CONTEXT

From a regulatory perspective, the relevance of a conflict lies not merely its existence, but whether it creates a material risk of adverse impact on client interests. Further, conflicts may arise both at an organizational level due to the design of business structures and at an individual level, owing to the nature of revenue models. These conflicts are often driven by personal incentives, relationships or access to information. This dual dimension makes conflict identification and management inherently complex.

The SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008 lay down the overarching obligation on intermediaries to avoid conflicts of interest, make appropriate disclosures, and establish mechanisms to address such situations. These principles are further supplemented by specific regulations applicable to various intermediaries, which provide more detailed procedural guidelines.

Further, SEBI Circular CIR/MIRSD/5/2013 mandates intermediaries to formulate and implement a Conflict of Interest policy, requiring a structured approach to identification, management and disclosure of conflicts. In effect, this shifts the focus from ad-hoc disclosures to a more system driven framework embedded within organizational processes.

As noted above, based on the nature of activities, specific regulatory frameworks for each category of entity prescribe mechanisms to identify potential conflict of interest. These frameworks require entities to identify, avoid and mitigate such l conflicts, and to establish a code of conduct for both the regulated intermediary and its personnel.

FOR EXAMPLE,

  • SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 mandate the formulation of a Code of Conduct and a Code of Fair Disclosure, governing information handling and trading restrictions to prevent conflicts arising from Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI).
  • SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 address conflicts of interest through governance frameworks and disclosure mechanisms applicable to listed entities.
  • SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992 manage conflicts through requirements relating to independence in issue management and rigorous due diligence obligations.
  • SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012 require disclosure of conflicts in the placement memorandum and mandate fair treatment of all investors.
  • SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013 require advisers to identify and disclose conflicts while acting in a fiduciary capacity.
  • SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020 mandate fair and equitable treatment across clients in investment decisions and trade allocation.
  • SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 2026 impose a fiduciary duty on asset management companies and trustees to act in the best interests of unitholders.
  • SEBI (Research Analysts) Regulations, 2014 address conflicts of interest through detailed disclosure requirements and restrictions on analyst conduct.
  • SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 2026 require segregation between proprietary and client trades to prevent misuse of client orders.

Collectively, this regulatory framework emphasises the need for intermediaries to adopt robust internal policies and systems for the identification, management and disclosure of conflicts of interest.

IDENTIFICATION, AVOIDANCE & PREVENTION

Conflicts can arise due to organizational structures as well as individual conduct. A conflict-of-interest policy provides a framework for managing such situations, with the objective of ensuring fair outcomes for clients and maintaining market integrity.

In practice, conflict management operates across three pillars—

(i) Identification of conflicts,

(ii)  Avoidance of conflicts, and

(iii) Prevention of conflicts.

IDENTIFICATION OF CONFLICTS

Effective conflict management begins with systematic identification. Intermediaries must recognize situations where their interests, or those of their employees, diverge from client interests, or where incentives may influence objectivity.

During the process of identifying conflict of interest situation, an entity should take into account the following indicative scenarios where the entity, an employee, or a relevant person:

  • Is likely to make financial gain, or avoid a financial loss, at the expense of the client
  • Has an interest in the outcome of a service provided to the client, or of a transaction carried out on behalf of the client, which is distinct from the client’s interest in that outcome;
  • Has a financial or other incentive to favour the interest of one client over another
  • Receives from a person other than the client an inducement in relation to a service provided to client, in the form of money, gifts, goods or services, other than the standard commission or fee for that service;
  • Has Access to confidential information and/or derives third-party benefits;
  • Has professional or personal associations or relationships with other organizations;

Adequate records should be maintained of services and activities where a conflict of interest has been identified.

AVOIDANCE OF CONFLICTS

Avoidance represents the first line of defence in conflict management. It involves structuring activities and decision-making processes in a manner that prevents conflicts from arising or reduces their likelihood.

In operational terms, this requires a clearly defined governance and escalation framework. Identified conflicts must be promptly reported to the compliance function and, depending on their materiality, escalated to senior management or the Board of Directors for review. This ensures that conflict resolution is not left to individual discretion but is subject to institutional oversight.

However, avoiding a conflict of interest may not always be possible or practical. In such cases, the following measures may be adopted:

  • The conflict of interest should be disclosed to the Board of Directors;
  • All Conflicted Transaction must be reviewed and approved by Board of Directors;
  • The Interested Party should not participate in any decision relating to such Conflicted Transaction;
  •  The Interested Party should not participate in any decision relating to such Conflicted Transaction;
  • Disclosure should be made to clients regarding possible source or areas of conflict of interest (e.g., disclosures in the Private Placement Memorandum for AIFs or Disclosure Document for Portfolio Manager Services);
  • Appropriate measures should be taken to avoid or mitigate the conflicts;
  • Any actual or potential conflict should be reported to a responsible authority, such as the relevant management team, department head, or key managerial personnel;
  • Where conflicts cannot be adequately managed, or where existing measures do not sufficiently protect Client interests, the conflict should be disclosed to enable the client to make a informed decision on whether to continue the relationship.

PREVENTION OF CONFLICTS

Prevention focuses on reducing the structural likelihood of conflicts. Unlike avoidance, which deals with identified situations, prevention is forward looking and embedded within organizational design.

A principles based approach is central to effective prevention. This includes maintaining high standards of integrity, ensuring fair treatment to clients, and aligning business practices with client suitability. Equally important are structural safeguards such as information barriers between functions, neutrality in incentive structures, and clear segregation of roles.’

The objective is not to eliminate conflicts which is neither practical nor necessary but to minimize situations where conflicting incentives arise in the first place.

INTERNAL CONTROLS FOR MANAGING AND MITIGATING CONFLICTS

Once identified, conflicts should be managed through appropriate controls, with transparency and timely disclosure forming the foundation. Clients must be adequately informed to enable informed decision making. Structural safeguards such as Chinese Walls and segregation of roles should be implemented to restrict the flow of sensitive information across functions. These information barriers may extend to separation of personnel, reporting lines, systems and documentation to ensure that confidential information is accessed only on a need to know basis.

A robust compliance framework plays a central role in monitoring and managing conflicts. This includes periodic review of conflict situations, enforcement of confidentiality obligations, and maintenance of secure records for effective oversight. Employees should be governed by a strong code of conduct covering personal trading, handling of inside information and disclosure requirements, supported by regular training and surveillance systems to detect unusual activities. Incentive structures should also be aligned to ensure that client interests are not compromised by revenue driven considerations.

In practice, conflicts manifest in various forms such as biased research, front running, mis-selling or preferential allocation. These risks can be mitigated through targeted controls including functional independence, pre-approval mechanisms, suitability assessments and transparent allocation policies. Ultimately, continuous review of systems and controls is essential to ensure that conflict management frameworks remain effective and responsive to evolving risks.

A FUTURE INSIGHT IN ADDRESSING CONFLICT OF INTEREST

As discussed above, management of conflict of interest also requires strong governance and clear accountability. Senior management must take responsibility for establishing a culture of transparency and ethical conduct. They must ensure that policies are not merely documented but are effectively implemented.

With increasing digitalization, one can expect the development of centralised oversight systems that go beyond traditional monitoring and actively manage conflicts of interest. Such frameworks could create a structured environment where roles, responsibilities and transactions across intermediaries are mapped and aligned within a unified system.

This would assist in identifying overlaps in duties—for instance, where the same entity or individual is involved in multiple functions like advisory, execution, or research, which may give rise to conflicts. The system could automatically flag such overlaps and enforce controls, such as restricting certain actions, requiring approvals or triggering disclosures. Instead of merely flagging suspicious transactions, such systems would focus on preventing conflicts at a structural level by ensuring that incompatible roles are identified and managed in advance.

In conclusion, conflicts of interest are an inherent part of business activities; however, the manner in which they are managed is critical. Poor handling of conflicts can undermine market fairness, distort price discovery, and erode investor confidence. Intermediaries must consistently priorities clients and investors interests and uphold trust.

This approach not only ensures compliance with SEBI regulations but also supports long term stability and confidence in the securities market. The time has come for organizations to transition from a rule-based compliance mindset to a principle-driven governance culture. Companies must ensure, both in letter and spirit, that conflicts of interest are addressed not merely through policies, but through ethical conduct embedded across all levels of the organization.

Classification Of A Borrower’s Account As Fraudulent

Classification as “fraud” under RBI regulations causes “civil death” for borrowers, debarring them from institutional finance for five years. In Rajesh Agarwal, the Supreme Court ruled that natural justice must apply, leading to the 2024 Master Directions. Banks must now issue a show-cause notice, disclose the forensic audit report, and pass a reasoned order. Crucially, while a written representation is mandatory, a personal hearing is not required. These procedures balance fairness with administrative efficiency but do not preclude separate criminal proceedings via FIRs.

INTRODUCTION

The classification of a borrower’s account as “fraud” under the Reserve Bank of India’s regulatory framework has serious implications. The borrower and its promoters and directors are debarred from accessing institutional finance for five years, reported to law enforcement agencies, and effectively branded as untrustworthy by the entire banking system. The Supreme Court, in Gorkha Security Services v. State (NCT of Delhi), (2014) 9 SCC 105, has succinctly termed this as the “civil death” of the concerned borrower.

Under such a dire scenario, a fundamental question arose: Whether the borrower is entitled to be heard before being classified as a fraudster? And if so, what does that hearing entail — a mere opportunity to submit a written representation, or a full-fledged personal hearing? Must the forensic audit report that forms the very foundation of the fraud classification be disclosed to the borrower?

JURISPRUDENCE ON THIS SUBJECT

These questions have seen conflicting decisions from various High Courts and the Supreme Court. The jurisprudence began with the decision of the Telangana High Court in the case of Rajesh Agarwal, WP No. 19102 of 2019 Order dated 10th December 2020, followed by the Supreme Court’s decision in State Bank of India v. Rajesh Agarwal & Ors., (2023) 6 SCC 1.

This was followed by the Calcutta High Court’s decision in Amit Iron P Ltd v. State Bank of India; the Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in Anil D. Ambani v. State Bank of India, WP No. 3037 of 2025, and ultimately culminated in the Supreme Court’s judgment in State Bank of India v. Amit Iron Private Limited & Ors., Order dated 7th April 2026. Taken together, these decisions present a comprehensive jurisprudential framework governing the rights of borrowers in fraud classification proceedings.

RBI’S REGULATORY FRAMEWORK

The RBI, exercising its powers under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, issued the Master Directions on Fraud – Classification and Reporting by Commercial Banks and Select Financial Institutions, dated 1st July 2016 (“Master Directions 2016”). These Directions established a structured mechanism for the detection, classification, and reporting of frauds in loan accounts of banks. Banks were required to identify Early Warning Signals, red-flag suspicious accounts, commission forensic audits, and classify accounts as fraud through a Joint Lenders’ Forum (JLF) or a Fraud Identification Committee (FIC”).

Clause 8.12 of the Master Directions 2016 prescribed penal measures. Borrowers classified as fraudulent — including promoters, directors, and whole-time directors — were debarred from availing bank finance from scheduled commercial banks, development financial institutions, and government-owned NBFCs for a period of five years from the date of full repayment. Critically, neither restructuring nor compromise settlements were permitted for fraud-classified accounts.

However, the Master Directions 2016, were silent on one crucial aspect: they did not provide for any opportunity of hearing to the borrower before classifying the account as fraud. It was this gap that led to the constitutional challenge in Rajesh Agarwal (supra).

Pursuant to the Supreme Court’s directions in Rajesh Agarwal (supra), the RBI issued the revised Master Directions on Fraud Risk Management, dated 15th July 2024 (“Master Directions 2024”). These revised Directions expressly incorporated the requirement of issuing a detailed show cause notice to the borrower, furnishing the forensic audit report, inviting representations, and passing a reasoned order. All of these requirements were as laid down by the Supreme Court’s Order.

Surviving Civil Death

SC’S MILESTONE DECISION IN RAJESH AGARWAL

The Supreme Court’s decision in State Bank of India v. Rajesh Agarwal, (2023) 6 SCC 1 is the cornerstone of this entire issue. The Apex Court examined whether the principles of natural justice should be read into the Master Directions 2016, which were silent on any hearing opportunity for borrowers. The Court held that the classification of an account as fraud is not merely a trigger for criminal proceedings, but also carries independent and severe civil consequences. Relying on its earlier decision in State Bank of India v. Jah Developers, (2019) 6 SCC 787, the Court observed that the debarment of borrowers from accessing institutional finance is akin to blacklisting — an action that must be preceded by an opportunity of hearing.

Further, relying on earlier Constitution Bench decisions, the Court held that since the Master Directions did not expressly exclude the application of audi alteram partem, the principle must be read into the Directions to save them from the vice of arbitrariness.

The conclusions of the Supreme Court, as summarised in the judgment, established that: the borrower must be served with a notice; be given an opportunity to explain the findings of the forensic audit report; allowed to make representations before the banks or the JLF; and that the decision classifying the account as fraud must be supported by a reasoned order.

The Supreme Court in Rajesh Agarwal (supra) upheld the Telangana High Court’s judgment, which had directed the grant of a personal hearing to the borrower. Conversely, the Court set aside the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in Mona Jignesh Acharya v. Bank of India, 2021 SCC OnLine Guj 2811, wherein it had been held that a personal hearing was not mandatory and that only a post-decisional opportunity to make a representation was sufficient. However, it is important to note that the Supreme Court did not expressly mandate a personal hearing.

BOMBAY HIGH COURT’S DECISION

The Division Bench of the Bombay High Court, in the case of Anil D. Ambani v. State Bank of India, WP No. 3037 of 2025, examined SBI’s order classifying the account of Reliance Communications Ltd. (“RCOM”) as fraud and reporting the petitioner’s name to the RBI.

The petitioner, who was the Chairman, Promoter, and Non-Executive Director of RCOM, challenged the order on four principal grounds: firstly, that the show cause notice issued under the erstwhile Master Directions 2016 was rendered non est by the subsequent Master Directions 2024; secondly, that the impugned order violated natural justice for want of a personal hearing; thirdly, that no specific allegations were made against the petitioner individually; and fourthly, that a non-executive director could not be held vicariously liable.

The Court held that the Master Directions 2024 were clarificatory in nature, having been issued to bring the framework in conformity with the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra). Since a show cause notice had already been issued, the process initiated under the 2016 Directions continued to remain valid and stood merged with the subsequent framework. The doctrine of supersession did not invalidate a validly issued notice.

On the vital issue of a personal hearing, the Court held that the right contemplated by the Supreme Court is one of representation—not necessarily of a personal hearing. The Court noted that subsequent to the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra), SBI had itself represented before the Supreme Court expressing its apprehension that the judgment might be construed as mandating a personal hearing in every case. The Supreme Court, by its order dated 12th May 2023, had clarified that the operative directions are confined to those summarised in its judgment — which speak of representation, not of a personal hearing.

On the question of individual allegations, the Court held that once a company’s account is classified as fraud, promoters and directors who were in control of the company are automatically liable to penal measures. Specific individual allegations in the show cause notice are not a prerequisite. Notably, the Court distinguished the Delhi High Court’s decision in IDBI Bank v. Gaurav Goel & Ors., 2025 SCC OnLine Del 935, which had held that personal hearing forms part of the audi alteram partem safeguard, holding that the said decision had no application in the facts and circumstances of the present case. The Court dismissed the petition, finding no infirmity in the impugned order.

A related issue examined by the Bombay High Court in the same matter in Bank of Baroda v. Anil D Ambani, Appeal (L) NO.43022 of 2025 concerned the validity of an interim injunction restraining banks from acting upon a forensic audit report. A Single Judge had granted relief on the prima facie view that the report was invalid, as it was not prepared by a qualified auditor under ICAI Act.

The controversy before the Division Bench centred on whether forensic audits must necessarily be conducted by Chartered Accountants only? The Division Bench held that the Single Judge had transgressed the settled limits of interlocutory jurisdiction by returning conclusive findings on the legality of the forensic report and regulatory interpretation. Accordingly, the injunction was set aside/modified, permitting the banks to proceed in accordance with law.

This issue was appealed before the Supreme Court in SLP(C) No. 012943 – 012944 / 2026. It was argued that only a qualified auditor/chartered accountant can determine siphoning or fraud and conduct a financial audit, and since the report relied upon was not an audit and records finding of fraud, the classification was unsustainable. It was further contended that siphoning can only be determined by a qualified chartered accountant, and not by a forensic service provider who himself admitted that he was not an auditor and was not following accounting standards. It was also argued that under the RBI framework, even where forensic inputs are used, the ultimate determination must be made by an auditor, and banks cannot classify an account as fraud on such a report. By its Order dated 16th April 2026 in Anil D Ambani v. Bank of Baroda, the Supreme Court disposed of the appeal and declined to interfere with the order of the division bench of the Bombay High Court .

AMIT IRON: SUBSEQUENT SC VERDICT

The most recent comprehensive pronouncement on this issue has come from the Supreme Court in State Bank of India v. Amit Iron Private Limited & Ors, CA 4243/2026, Order dated 7th April 2026. The Court examined three issues ~ whether the decision in Rajesh Agarwal (supra) mandated a right to a personal hearing; whether written representation and a reasoned order would suffice; and lastly whether the entire forensic audit report must be furnished to the borrower. The appeals arose from the Calcutta High Court’s decision in Amit Iron P Ltd v. State Bank of India, W.P.A. No. 10195/2024, Order dated 7th August 2024. The Delhi High Court’s decision in the case of Bank of India v. Sanjeev Narula, LPA 472/205, Order dated 29th July 2025 was also considered. Both of these decisions had directed personal hearings to be granted to borrowers, relying on Rajesh Agarwal (supra). The issue had also divided other High Courts: the Delhi High Court in IDBI Bank v. Gaurav Goel, 2025 SCC OnLine Del 935, and in a series of decisions of the Delhi High Court in the cases of TV Vision Limited v. Punjab National Bank W.P.(C) 9302/2022 Order dated 1st December 2023, Manish Jain v. Reserve Bank of India W.P.(C) 9536/2025, Order dated 1st July 2025, Ashish Gupta v. State Bank of India W.P.(C) 4340/2024, Order dated 21st March 2024, and Chandra Kant Khemka v. Reserve Bank of India, W.P.(C) 1354/2023 Order dated 6th April 2023, had consistently held that a personal hearing was a necessary component of the Rajesh Agarwal framework. In contrast, the Bombay High Court in Anil Ambani (discussed above) had taken the view that a written representation would suffice.

The Supreme Court held that Rajesh Agarwal’s decision did not recognise any inherent right vested in the borrower to a personal or oral hearing before the borrower’s account was classified as fraud. The Court analysed the conclusions in Rajesh Agarwal’s case and held that the procedure envisaged (one of issuing of a show cause notice, consideration of the borrower’s reply, and passing of a reasoned order) satisfies the requirements of natural justice. The RBI’s Master Directions 2024, which incorporated this procedure, were held to correctly reflect the scope of the earlier decision in Rajesh Agarwal, thereby ensuring a fair balance between promptitude and fairness.

Relying on its earlier decisions in T. Takano v. SEBI, (2022) 15 SCC 401 and Madhyamam Broadcasting Limited v. Union of India, (2023) 13 SCC 401, the Supreme Court held that the borrower has a right to disclosure of the forensic audit report obtained by the lender bank. It observed that the furnishing only the findings and conclusions alone would not constitute compliance with natural justice; the reasons underlying those conclusions, as contained in the body of the report were essential for the borrower to mount an effective response. Accordingly, the borrower must be supplied with the audit report.

The Court clarified that disclosure of the forensic audit report is the rule. The only exception would arise where the disclosure of any part would impinge upon third-party rights, In such cases, the bank must record reasons and communicate the same to the borrower, who may then respond as to why the information was necessary. However, the Court observed that such situations would be rare in the context of bank fraud proceedings, where the borrower was typically associated at the stage of preparation of the report. All High Court judgments taking a contrary view by mandating personal hearings were overruled by the Supreme Court.

PRACTICAL IMPLICATIONS FOR BORROWERS AND BANKS

The combined effect of these decisions establishes a clear procedural roadmap. Banks must: issue a detailed show cause notice setting out the specific allegations; furnish the complete forensic audit report (subject to the narrow exception of third-party privacy); grant the borrower adequate time to submit a written representation; and pass a reasoned order dealing with the borrower’s submissions. What banks are not required to provide is a personal or oral hearing. Once this matrix has been followed, the principles of natural justice are automatically obtained by the borrower.

For borrowers, the practical consequence is equally clear. The written representation assumes paramount importance. Every contention, rebuttal, and factual and legal defence must be articulated in writing with meticulous precision. There is no fallback of a personal hearing where persuasion or oral advocacy might supplement an inadequately drafted response. A borrower who fails to respond to the show cause notice does so at his own risk and peril.

For professionals (such as readers of this journal) advising clients in fraud classification proceedings, the importance of forensic audit literacy is paramount. The right to receive the forensic audit report has now been elevated to a mandatory disclosure obligation. This report provides the borrower with a meaningful opportunity to rebut the bank’s case. Advisors must ensure that the borrower’s representation addresses each finding in the forensic audit report with fact-based rebuttals supported by documentary evidence.

NO BAR TO AN FIR

The Supreme Court in an ancillary but not directly related judgment in the case of CBI v. Surendra Patwa, SLP (Crl) 00735/2024, Order dated 25th April 2025, examined whether criminal proceedings and FIRs can subsist against borrowers whose fraud classification was set aside by the High Courts by relying on the decision of Rajesh Agarwal (supra).

The Supreme Court upheld the criminal proceedings. It held that an FIR, by taking cognizance of an offence, merely sets the criminal law into motion and operates independently of civil or administrative determinations. The mere similarity of facts does not imply that, in the absence of valid administrative action, a cognizable offence cannot be registered. At that stage, the only consideration is the existence of a cognizable offence as disclosed in the FIR. .

Accordingly, even if no action is sustained on the civil side, an FIR may still be maintainable. The scope and role of both the actions were totally different and distinct, more so when undertaken by different statutory/public authorities. It held that the quashing of FIRs by the High Courts by relying on Rajesh Agarwal’s case was patently erroneous. The principles of natural justice provided in that decision were not applicable at the stage of reporting a criminal offence. Even the setting aside of an administrative action on the grounds of violation of the principles of natural justice did not bar the administrative authorities from proceeding afresh. It was not a decision on the merits of the case. It clarified that there was no bar on the RBI or the Banks to proceed afresh, by adhering to the principles of natural justice. Ultimately, the Court restored the set aside FIRs.

CONCLUSIONS

It appears that, for the moment, the law governing the right to be heard in fraud classification proceedings under the RBI Master Directions has, achieved a degree of finality. The key principles emanating from the various decisions analysed above may be distilled as follows:

a) The principle of natural justice must be read into the RBI Master Directions on Fraud to save them from the vice of arbitrariness, given that fraud classification entails severe civil consequences amounting to the “civil death” of the borrower.

b) The borrower must be served with a show cause notice containing the specific allegations, furnished with the forensic audit report, and given an adequate opportunity to submit a written representation before the account is classified as fraud.

c) The decision classifying the account as fraud must be made by a reasoned order, dealing with the borrower’s submissions.

d) There is no right to a personal or oral hearing. The principles of natural justice are satisfied by the issuance of a show cause notice, consideration of the written representation, and a reasoned order.

e) The forensic audit report must be furnished to the borrower as a matter of rule. The only exception is where specific portions impinge upon third-party privacy rights, in which case redaction with recorded reasons is permissible.

f) The supersession of the Master Directions 2016 by the Master Directions 2024 does not invalidate show cause notices issued under the earlier Directions, provided the principles of natural justice are complied with.

g) Once a company’s account is classified as fraud, promoters and directors in control of the company are liable to penal measures. Individual-specific allegations in the show cause notice are not a prerequisite.

h) The Master Directions 2024 correctly incorporate the procedure mandated by Rajesh Agarwal and strike a fair balance between the competing demands of promptitude and fairness.

While banks, on the one hand, retain the agility to act swiftly against fraud, borrowers on the other hand, are assured of a meaningful opportunity to defend themselves. A written representation but not an oral personal hearing is guaranteed. Hence, a borrower who fails to represent himself does so at his own peril.

Allied Laws

6. Nawang & Anr. vs. Bahadur & Ors.

2025 LiveLaw (SC) 1025

October 8, 2025

Hindu Succession – Does not apply to members of Scheduled Tribes – High Court’s direction that daughters in Tribal areas of Himachal Pradesh shall inherit property under the HSA set aside. [Hindu Succession Act, 1956, S.2(2)]

FACTS

This Civil Appeal arose from a judgment passed by the High Court of Himachal Pradesh. The challenge was limited to a specific direction issued in paragraph 63 of the impugned judgment, wherein the High Court directed that daughters in tribal areas of the State of Himachal Pradesh shall inherit property in accordance with the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 (HSA), and not as per customs and usages, in order to prevent social injustice and exploitation of women. The appellants challenged this direction before the Supreme Court, with assistance from an amicus curiae.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that Section 2(2) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, explicitly provides that nothing contained in the Act shall apply to members of any Scheduled Tribe within the meaning of clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution, unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs. The language of the provision is clear and unambiguous; therefore, the HSA does not apply to Scheduled Tribes.

This legal position is well settled, and has been consistently affirmed by the Supreme Court in Madhu Kishwar vs. State of Bihar and Ahmedabad Women Action Group (AWAG) vs. Union of India, and Tirith Kumar & Ors. vs. Daduram & Ors., (2024) SCC OnLine SC 3810.

The Court further held that the direction issued by the High Court was beyond the scope of the appeal, as the issue of applicability of the HSA to Scheduled Tribes was neither directly nor substantially involved in the intra-party appeal arising from the civil proceeding. The directions also did not emanate from any of the issues framed by the Court or from pleas raised or argued by the parties. Accordingly, paragraph 63 of the impugned judgment was set aside and expunged from the record.

The Civil Appeal was allowed.

7. Yusufbhai W. Patel & Ors. vs. Zubedaben Abbasbhai Patel & Ors.

2026:GUJHC:10564

February 10, 2026

Mohammedan Law – Partition and joint family – Concept of ancestral property inapplicable – Perverse interim injunction set aside. [CPC, O.7 R.11; O.39 Rr.1 & 2; Mohammedan Law]

FACTS

A Muslim woman instituted a suit against her four brothers seeking administration of the estate of their deceased parents, claiming shares in several properties alleged to be “ancestral” or “joint family” assets under the Shariat law. In the alternative, the plaintiff claimed compensation of Rs.50 Crores along with interest. The trial court rejected the defendants’ plea under Order VII Rule 11 on the ground of limitation and granted a partial injunction restraining the development of certain lands.

HELD

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the revision application challenging the refusal to reject the plaint but allowed the appeals against the injunction. The Court took note of a family arrangement executed on April 25, 1983, which distributed the lands among the sons and, at the same time provided that each daughter would be paid Rs.30,000/-, upon the sale of any of the lands. It held that the concepts of joint family and ancestral property are alien to Mohammedan Law, which recognises only individual succession and tenancy-in-common upon death. The trial court erred in applying such concepts and in ignoring the unchallenged family settlement and the long acquiescence of the parties. The grant of an injunction based on an affidavit not forming part of the pleadings was termed perverse. Accordingly, the injunction order was quashed.

The civil revision applications was dismissed, and the appeals were allowed.

8. Arun Suri vs. Directorate of Enforcement

2026:DHC:1391-DB

February 16, 2026

Money Laundering – Attachment of ancestral property – “Proceeds of crime” – Property equivalent in value can be attached even if itself untainted. [Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, Ss. 2(1)(u), 5, 42]

FACTS

The Directorate of Enforcement attached a house in Delhi, alleging that it represented value equivalent to the proceeds of crime generated through foreign exchange violations. The appellant contended that the property had been purchased by his father in 1991 from legitimate income and that his interest in the property arose through inheritance, not from any tainted transaction.

HELD

The High Court dismissed the appeal, holding that attachment under Section 5 read with Section 2(1)(u) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (“PMLA”), extends to property of equivalent value if the actual tainted property is unavailable. The Court noted that under Section 2(1)(u), “proceeds of crime” is not limited to property directly derived from criminal activity, but also includes the “value of any such property” or property of “equivalent value” held within the country or abroad, particularly where the original tainted property is located outside India.

The Court further observed that properties acquired prior to the enforcement of the PMLA are not completely immune from action if they are being proceeded against as property equivalent in value to the proceeds of crime. Importantly, the statute does not exempt ancestral or inherited properties when they represent the equivalent value of illicit gains held elsewhere. The Adjudicating Authority had rightly concluded that the property was equivalent to the proceeds of crime, and such a finding was neither perverse nor illegal.

The Appeal was dismissed.

9. Sushila & Ors. vs. Sudhakar & Anr.

SLP (C) No.21717 of 2025

March 10, 2026

Motor accident – Computation of compensation – No deduction for nearing retirement. [Motor Vehicles Act, 1988]

FACTS

A 59-year-old railway employee died in a road accident. The Tribunal deducted 50 per cent of his income on the ground that only six months of service remained. The High Court slightly enhanced compensation but upheld the 50 per cent deduction.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that compensation must be computed on the basis of annual income at the time of death without any deduction on account of the residual service period. Relying on Pranay Sethi (2017), 16 SCC 680, the Court reiterated that a 15 percent addition towards future prospects is applicable for permanent government employees in the age group of 50-60 years..

The Court further clarified that it is not precluded from awarding a higher amount of “just and reasonable” compensation,, even where the claimants have originally sought a lower amount, provided the law justifies such enhancement.

The deduction of 1/3rd towards personal expenses and the application of a multiplier of 9 were affirmed. The total compensation was enhanced to Rs.23,51,362 along with at 6 percent interest p.a. from the date of the claim petition.

The Appeal was allowed.

10. Vinayak Vasudev Tilak (Decd.) vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (Bom) 186

April 2, 2026

Tenancy – Section 88C landlord – termination for personal cultivation – Survival of right after death – extinguishment upon sale of land – absence of bona fide requirement. [Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, 1948, S.88C, 33B]

FACTS

The original landlord was granted a certificate under section 88C of the Bombay Tenancy and Agricultural Lands Act, recognising him as a landlord holding land below the economic holding limit. The validity of the certificate was ultimately upheld by the Supreme Court.

Pursuant thereto, the landlord initiated proceedings under section 33B of the Act in 1990 seeking termination of tenancy on the ground of bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. The landlord died in 1991 without immediate heirs, leaving behind two sisters, whose descendants are the present petitioners.

The petitioners sought to continue the proceedings initiated by the landlord and also independently initiated proceedings under section 33B in 2017. The authorities rejected their claim on the ground that the right to seek termination based on personal cultivation did not survive the death of the landlord.

In appeal, the Collector granted relief to the petitioners. However, in revision, the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal set aside the Collector’s order, holding against the petitioners.

The petitioners challenged the Tribunal’s order before the High Court.

HELD

The Court observed that section 33B confers a right upon a landlord holding an 88C certificate to terminate tenancy based on his bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. Such a requirement is inherently personal to the landlord. Upon the landlord’s death, the issue arises whether such a right survives or can be continued by heirs.

In the present case, the Court held that even assuming such a right could be inherited, the petitioners were required to establish their own bona fide requirement for personal cultivation. The record revealed that, in 2013, the petitioners had sold all their right, title and interest in the subject land to third parties on an “as is where is” basis. Thereafter, further transfers had taken place, and the proceedings were, in fact, being pursued by transferees through powers of attorney.

By virtue of such sale, the foundational requirement of section 33B, namely the need for personal cultivation, stood extinguished. A party that has divested itself of ownership cannot claim a bona fide requirement for cultivation. Further, the petitioners had neither diligently pursued earlier proceedings nor established any subsisting legal entitlement.

In such circumstances, no interference was warranted with the order of the Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal.

The Petitions were dismissed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE

The Annual Report of the IFRS Foundation for 2025 carries the tagline “Fit for the future”. The same can be accessed at ifrs-foundation-annual-report-2025.pdf. The report contains very relevant and interesting information on the formulation of the IFRS and ISSB Standards, as well as details on the governance standards at the Foundation.

The Audit Report on the financial statements of the IFRS Foundation contains the following interesting Key Audit Matters and other risks, which are also graphically depicted in the report.

Extracts from Independent Auditor’s Report to the Trustees of the IFRS Foundation

(for the year ended 31st December 2025)

KEY AUDIT MATTERS (KAMS)

Key Audit Matters (KAMs) are those matters that, in our professional judgement, were of most significance in our audit of the group financial statements of the current period and include the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement (whether or not due to fraud) that we identified. These matters included those that had the greatest effect on: the overall audit strategy; the allocation of resources in the audit; and directing the efforts of the engagement team.

These matters were addressed in the context of our audit of the group financial statements as a whole, and in forming our opinion thereon, we do not provide a separate opinion on these matters.

KAM

Significant risk

Key audit matter

Contributions received after the reporting date

How our scope addressed the matter?
We identified contributions received after the reporting date and incorrectly recognised as revenue within FY2025 as one of the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement due to fraud and error.

 

A significant proportion of income relates to voluntary contributions. These contributions are recognised on a receipts basis, exceptions being those received post year end, which have been designated by the external contributor as related to the previous year. As at year end, £4.6m (2024: £5.4m) is included within contributions receivable. Unpaid contributions were considered a significant risk due to the significant judgements made by management in determining whether they were recognised appropriately in the current year.

In responding to the key audit matter, we performed the following audit procedures:

 

• Performing a non-substantive analytical review of contributions income year on year by contributor and jurisdiction to identify any unusual movements in balance to contribute to the engagement team’s risk assessment of contributions received after the report date.

• Selecting a sample of unpaid contributions and obtaining evidence of subsequent receipt by inspecting post-year-end bank statements to identify whether unpaid contributions have been received post year end. If the contributor had not paid after year end, the engagement team liaised directly with the contributor

to obtain a contribution confirmation directly from them.

• Inspecting correspondence with the contributor for the sample selected to determine whether they had provided a firm commitment to the group to pay the funds due and whether the contribution related to the correct financial year.

Relevant disclosures in the annual report –

The group’s accounting policy on contributed revenue is shown in Note 3 to the financial statements, and related disclosures are included in this note.

Our results –

Based on our audit work, we did not identify material misstatements concerning contributions received after the reporting date.

 

Key audit matter

Income recognised from performance-based grants

How our scope addressed the matter?
We identified income recognised from performance-based grants as one of the most significant assessed risks of material misstatement due to fraud and error.

 

 

Income recognised from performance-based grants was identified as a key audit matter due to the material grants received during the year from several contributors. These grants included several terms and conditions alongside an intended timeframe. Management made significant judgements in determining:

In responding to the key audit matter, we performed the following audit procedures:

 

• confirming with management that the considerations and judgements applied in FY2025 for performance-based grants in accordance with IAS 20 are the same as those set out in the accounting paper for the previous year;

 

• inspecting correspondence between the providers of any material grants and the Foundation, including the signed grant agreements, to identify whether management’s judgements aligned with the agreed conditions;

• the amount of grant income to recognise during the year due to the conditions in the grant agreements applicable in the duration of the grant agreement;

 

• the most appropriate IFRS Accounting Standard to apply in recognising the revenue recognition of the grant income, which management determined was IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance rather than IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers; and

 

• the accounting policy to apply in recognising the grant income.

• inspecting management’s workings for any material grants received during the year to identify expenditures that had not been funded through other contributions during the year;

• inspecting the remaining expenditure for any material grants received during the year, comprising primarily staff costs, to identify whether this expenditure met the criteria of the relevant grant agreement;

• confirming directly with a judgemental sample of the relevant employees whether they worked on the projects stated within the grant agreement during the period for any material grants received during the year; and

• inspecting the Foundation’s bank statements to identify whether the grant monies were received in 2025 for any material grants recognised as revenue during the year.

Relevant disclosures in the annual report

The group’s accounting policy on grant income is shown in Note 3 to the financial statements and related disclosures are included in this note.

 

Our results

Based on our audit work, we did not identify material misstatements concerning income recognised from performance-based grants.

 

 

Battery Arrangements

Accounting for power arrangements, specifically Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS), depends on contractual specifics under Ind AS 116. An arrangement is classified as a lease if the customer conveys the right to control an identified asset by obtaining substantially all economic benefits and directing its use throughout the period. In a specific fact pattern where an electricity generator directs the charging and discharging of a non-substitutable battery for its entire capacity, the arrangement constitutes a lease. However, if the asset is not specifically identified or the generator lacks decision-making authority, the arrangement would not qualify as a lease.

There are several types of arrangements between a buyer and seller of electricity. Globally, there are gross pool and net pool arrangements. In India, buyers needing a reliable and uninterrupted power supply may enter into long-term power purchase agreements (PPA). These arrangements could be between two corporate entities, i.e. a corporate power generator and a corporate user or could be between the generator and an electricity retailer, mainly DISCOMs (electricity distribution companies). Short-term power arrangements can also be fulfilled by buying/selling power on power exchanges, e.g., IEX or PTC. The accounting response will depend upon the exact nature of the arrangement; some arrangements may qualify as leases, others as fixed assets or derivative, and a few as trading transactions.

Recent government tenders in the renewable space also require battery energy storage systems (BESS), along with power generation. There could be a multitude of ways in which such arrangements can be structured, along with the power generation facility. BESS may involve a pure investor investing in the battery storage space, providing battery storage exclusively or to multiple generators or retailers. Sometimes, a BESS owner may also own the power generation facility. Some arrangements may involve the BESS owner entering into a joint venture with a power generator or purchasing power from a generator intermittently or under a long-term lease. Here again, the accounting would depend upon the detailed facts and the nature of the arrangements.

In this article, we take a simple fact pattern of a power generator’s arrangement with a BESS owner and the accounting response.

Fact pattern

A battery owner and an electricity generator enter into a battery offtake arrangement. Under the terms and conditions of the offtake arrangement, the battery owner retains custody of the battery, operates the battery, and maintains it in proper working condition, but is contractually obliged to operate it in accordance with the electricity generator’s instructions, which cover 100% of the battery’s capacity ; the battery cannot be substituted. The electricity generator’s instructions would typically specify whether and when the battery owner charges and discharges the battery. The electricity generator can instruct the battery owner to charge and discharge the battery throughout the period of use (including multiple times during each day).

The electricity generator decides the working hours of the battery, to whom the electricity is to be supplied, and the precise location of the battery and can change the location if necessary. However, the electricity generator cannot use the battery for purposes other than the specified power project; to that extent, the use of the battery is predetermined under the contractual terms.

The transactions occurring under the offtake arrangement are settled as follows:

1. The electricity generator pays a fixed amount to the battery owner over the period of the contract for the right to use the battery. This fixed amount reflects the size of the battery and the period of use and is payable regardless of whether the battery is charged or discharged.

2. The battery owner operates the battery according to the electricity generator’s instructions.

3. The electricity generator pays the battery owner each month in advance.

Paragraph 9 of Ind AS 116 states that ‘a contract is, or contains, a lease if the contract conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time in exchange for consideration’. Applying paragraph B9 of Ind AS 116, to assess whether a contract conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time, the customer—throughout the period of use—must have both:

1. the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the identified asset; and

2. the right to direct the use of that asset.

Is your Battery a lease

Applying Ind AS 116 to the fact pattern

Does the electricity generator have the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the battery (paragraph B9(a) of Ind AS 116)?

Paragraph B21 of Ind AS 116 specifies that ‘a customer can obtain economic benefits from use of an asset directly or indirectly in many ways, such as by using, holding or sub-leasing the asset. The economic benefits from use of an asset include its primary output and by-products (including potential cash flows derived from these items), and other economic benefits from using the asset that could be realised from a commercial transaction with a third party.’

In the fact pattern, the economic benefits derived from use of the battery are its storage capability and capacity; the battery is used to store and then release electricity. The battery offtake arrangement provides the electricity generator with the economic benefits derived from battery storage because the electricity generator has the exclusive right:

1. to use the entire capacity of the battery throughout the period of use (for the duration of the arrangement); and

2. to direct the battery owner as to whether, when and by how much to charge and discharge the battery.

Therefore, applying paragraph B21 of Ind AS 116 to the fact pattern, the electricity generator has the right to obtain substantially all of the economic benefits from use of the battery.

Does the electricity generator have the right to direct the use of the battery (paragraph B9(b) of Ind AS 116)?

Ind AS 116 clarifies that a customer has the right to direct the use of an asset if it has the right to direct how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use (i.e. the right to make relevant decisions about how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use).  A customer has the right to direct the use of an identified asset throughout the period of use only if either:

(a) the customer has the right to direct how and for what purpose the asset is used throughout the period of use; or

(b) the relevant decisions about how and for what purpose the asset is used are predetermined and:

(i) the customer has the right to operate the asset (or to direct others to operate the asset in a manner that it determines) throughout the period of use, without the supplier having the right to change those operating instructions; or

(ii) the customer designed the asset (or specific aspects of the asset) in a way that predetermines how and for what purpose the asset will be used throughout the period of use.

The electricity generator decides the working hours of the battery, when the battery is charged or discharged, to whom the electricity is to be supplied, and the precise location of the battery, and can change the location if necessary. Consequently, the electricity generator directs how and for what purpose the battery is used. Although the battery owner has the right to operate and maintain the battery, and these rights are essential for the efficient use of the battery, as stated in paragraph B27, these are not rights to direct how and for what purpose the battery is used. Hence, the electricity generator has the right to direct the use of the battery, as it has the right to make decisions about the use of the battery during the period of contract.

Conclusion

In the given case, the arrangement between the electricity generator and the battery owner will constitute a lease arrangement. However, if the fact pattern were changed such that the electricity generator does not have the right to use an identified battery and instead, has the right to a specified capacity, which could be easily provided by the battery owner, from a number of batteries that it owns, then the arrangement would not constitute a lease. Additionally, if the generator did not have the ability to make decisions such as those described in the previous paragraphs, the arrangement would not be a lease. Therefore, the fact pattern is of utmost importance in determining a lease, and sometimes changes to the fact pattern that may appear to not be significant could have a significant impact in determining whether the arrangement is a lease.

Goods And Services Tax

I. SUPREME COURT

11. 2026 (3) TMI 1238 (SC) dated 20.03.2026.

Simla Gomti Pan Products Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner of State Tax, U.P.

Mandatory pre-deposit requirement for filing an appeal may, in exceptional cases, be relaxed to balance taxpayer rights and revenue interest.

FACTS

The respondent issued two show cause notices (SCNs) raising substantial tax demands against the petitioner. The petitioner sought copies of documents relied upon in the SCNs from the respondent. The respondent uploaded documents on a portal, which was allegedly inaccessible to the petitioner.

As a result, the petitioner was not able to file replies, and ex-parte assessment orders were passed. The petitioner challenged these orders before the Hon’ble High Court, which declined relief on the ground of availability of an alternate remedy.

Thereafter, the petitioner filed an appeal, which was dismissed for non-compliance with mandatory pre-deposit requirement. Aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble Supreme Court seeking interim protection against coercive recovery.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court directed the petitioner to deposit a reduced interim amount instead of full statutory pre-deposit. The Court held that, in appropriate cases, conditional interim relief may be granted to protect the taxpayer from coercive recovery. Accordingly, the respondent was restrained from taking coercive steps, subject to compliance with the deposit condition. The Court preserved the respondent’s right to contest the matter after compliance. No final adjudication on merits was undertaken at this stage. The Court directed issuance of notice upon proof of deposit within stipulated time.

II. HIGH COURT

12. (2024) 14 Centax 374 (Del.) dated 29.09.2024. Reckitt Benckiser India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India

Anti-profiteering action under section 171 of the CGST Act, 2017 can be sustained only where a demonstrable additional benefit accrues to the supplier.

FACTS:

The petitioner, a real estate developer, was subjected to proceedings under section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 on the allegation of failure to pass on input tax credit (ITC) benefits to homebuyers following the transition to GST. The respondent initiated an investigation based on a complaint, Upon examination of the petitioner’s financial and tax records for pre and post-GST periods, it was found that no additional ITC benefit had accrued to the petitioner. Despite this finding, proceedings under the anti-profiteering framework were continued against the petitioner. Aggrieved, the petitioner, approached the Hon’ble Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that, in the absence of any additional ITC benefit, the provisions of section 171 of the CGST Act were not attracted. It was observed that anti-profiteering obligations arise only when a real benefit is derived by the supplier, in the absence of such benefit, no price reduction is required. Accordingly, the proceedings against the petitioner were held to be unsustainable.

13. (2026) 41 Centax 121 (Guj.) dated 18.03.2026.

Shree Gurukrupa Tradelink P. Ltd. vs. State of Gujarat

Adjudicating authority must grant adequate opportunity of being heard under section 75(4 where an adverse decision is contemplated, irrespective of whether such opportunity is requested by the taxpayer.

FACTS

The petitioner was issued a SCN by the respondent. The petitioner filed a reply but inadvertently selected an option of ‘No’ for a personal hearing. Despite this, the respondent scheduled one personal hearing; however, the petitioner did not appear on the scheduled date. Thereafter, the respondent rejecting the petitioner’s reply and passed an adverse order. The record of proceedings indicated that only one opportunity of hearing had been granted prior to passing the order. Aggrieved by this procedural lapse, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the respondent had violated the statutory mandate under section 75(4) of the GST Act. The provision requires that an adequate opportunity of hearing be granted before passing an adverse order. The Court observed that the petitioner’s selection of ‘No’ for personal hearing cannot override this statutory requirement. Since the respondent rejected the petitioner’s reply, further opportunities of hearing ought to have been granted. Reliance was placed on Yadav Trailor Transport Co. vs. Union of India [R/SCA No. 3027 of 2025, decided on 16.10.2025], which emphasised that adequate hearing opportunities are integral to fair adjudication. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and the matter was remanded for reconsideration.

14. (2026) 41 Centax 258 (Cal.) dated 06.04.2026.

Arup Sarkar vs. State of West Bengal

Cancellation of registration due to procedural non-compliance, in the absence of tax evasion. should be restored since it impedes revenue collection and ease of doing business post filing of returns.

FACTS

The respondent cancelled the GST registration of the petitioner on account of non-filing of returns and non- payment of tax liability. However, no allegation of tax evasion or fraudulent conduct of business operations was recorded by the respondent. The petitioner’s business operations ceased due to absence of valid registration. Without filing pending returns, petitioner filed an appeal before the First appellate authority challenging the cancellation of GST registration. Nonetheless, First Appellate Authority upheld the cancellation order. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that cancellation of registration solely on account of non-filing of returns was not justified. It observed that the absence of registration hampers business operations and, consequently, affects revenue collection. The Court emphasized the need for a pragmatic approach in revenue matters and held that such cancellation is counterproductive to revenue interests. Reliance was placed on Subhankar Golder vs. Asstt. CST (2024) 19 Centax 337 (Cal.), dated 09.04.2024. which held restoration should be permitted upon compliance with statutory requirements.

Accordingly, the Court set aside cancellation, subject to petitioner filing pending returns and discharging the tax dues.

15. (2026) 40 Centax 256 (Bom.) dated 10.03.2026 Smurti Waghdhare vs. Joint Director, Directorate General of GST Intelligence, Mumbai.

Search and seizure proceedings under GST, undertaken without a duly recorded “reason to believe” and adherence to statutory requirements are invalid in law.

FACTS

The respondent conducted search operation at multiple premises of the petitioner. Cash amounting to Rupees 1 crore was seized from the petitioner’s premises as well as parental residence. The respondent alleged involvement in fake ITC transactions based on statements recorded during investigation. The seized cash was subsequently handed over to the Income Tax Department. However, no notice was issued within six months from the date of seizure. Aggrieved by the seizure and continued retention of cash, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the seizure of cash was arbitrary and without authority of law. It observed that section 67(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 requires existence of a valid “reason to believe” for conducting search and seizure. In the present case, no such reasons were recorded by the respondent. The Court placing its reliance on the decision of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of ITO vs. Lakhmani Mewal Das (1976) TMI 647 (SC) wherein it was held that the statutory mandate under section 67(7) of CGST Act, 2017 was violated due to non-issuance of notice within six months. The precedent established that “reason to believe” must have a rational nexus with the material on record. Accordingly, the Court quashed the seizure orders and directed the release of the cash along with applicable interest.

16. (2026) 40 Centax 302 (Bom.) dated 10.02.2026. Om Enterprises vs Union of India

Cancellation of GST registration based on a vague, cyclostyled show cause notice, without specific allegations or proper consideration of the petitioner’s reply, is unsustainable in law.

FACTS

The petitioner was issued a SCN by the respondent alleging that the registration had been obtained by fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts. The notice was in a standard cyclostyled format and did not contain any specify particulars or concrete allegations against the petitioner. The petitioner filed a reply to the said notice; however, without properly considering the reply or addressing its contents , the respondent passed an order cancelling the
petitioner’s GST registration. The cancellation order contained reasons inconsistent with the SCN and referred to a different basis, namely, that the petitioner was found to be non-genuine upon inspection. Aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the action of the respondent in cancelling the petitioner’s registration was unsustainable in law, as the SCN was vague, cyclostyled, and devoid of specific allegations. The Court observed that there were clear inconsistencies between the SCN and the impugned order, reflecting a mechanical and casual exercise of jurisdiction in breach of statutory procedure. It was further held that, despite the availability of an alternate remedy, interference under writ jurisdiction was justified in view of the procedural lapses. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and set aside, and the petitioner’s GST registration was directed to be restored.

17. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 435 (Gujarat) dated 13.03.2026.

SFC Global Commodity (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India

Rejecting the appeal without dealing with the grounds of appeal raised in the appeal memorandum, merely on the grounds of non-appearance of the appellant, is illegal.

FACTS

The petitioner while challenging the order passed by the adjudicating officer, filed his written submissions specifically contending violation of the principles of natural justice, including the denial of an opportunity of personal hearing despite timely filing of replies to RFT-08 notices. It was also contended that the impugned order had been passed in breach of section 75(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act 2017. Further, the petitioner raised grounds in the appeal explaining that the belated generation of RFT-01 was due to an administrative lapse and automatic
system generation, which should not have prejudiced the petitioner. However, the Appellate Authority ignored all such contentions and rejected the appeal solely on the ground that the petitioner, despite being afforded an opportunity of hearing, did not remain present.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the Appellate Authority committed an illegality by rejecting the appeal without considering the submissions raised in the appeal memo

The Court observed that even in cases of non-appearance, it is incumbent upon the Appellate Authority to pass a reasoned order dealing with the grounds raised in the appeal. Accordingly, the matter was remanded back to the Appellate Authority for fresh adjudication after granting an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.

18. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 310 (Bombay) dated 12.03.2026

Neha Piyush Shah vs. Union of India.

Where the petitioner is receiving commission in dealing with vouchers whether, such commission/fees alone would be liable to GST and not the entire value of the vouchers.

FACTS

The petitioner, an individual, was engaged in dealing with vouchers. The department held that such activity amounted to dealing in goods and accordingly confirmed the demand of GST on the petitioner’s turnover. The petitioner relied upon the decision of the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in the case of Premier Sales Promotion (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [2023] 147 taxmann.com 85/96 GST 363/70 GSTL 345 (Kar) to contend that the issuance of vouchers is akin to a pre-deposit and does not constitute a supply of goods or services. The petitioner also referred to Circular No. 243/37/2024-GST dated 31 December 2024, which clarifies that where vouchers are distributed through distributors/sub-distributors/agents on a commission/fee basis, GST would be payable by such distributor/sub-distributor/agent, acting as an agent of the voucher issuer, “on the commission/fee” or any other amount by whatever name called, for such purpose, as a supply of services to the voucher issuer.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court found merit in the submissions advanced by the petitioner and observed that the impugned order-in-original was not in consonance with the clarification provided in the circular dated 31st December 2024. Accordingly, the impugned order was quashed and set aside, and the matter was remanded for passing a fresh order in accordance with law, after duly considering the petitioner’s submissions.

19. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 129 (Gauhati) dated 16.03.2026.

Ganapati Enterprise vs. State of Assam

Where registration was cancelled for non-filing of returns for over six months and the appeal was dismissed as time-barred, the GST officer may restore registration under Rule 22(4) of the CGST Rules upon filing of all pending returns and payment of tax, interest, and late fees.

FACTS

On account of non-filing of GST returns for a continuous period of six months, the petitioners were issued a show cause notice, and thereafter an order was passed, by which the petitioners’ GST registration was cancelled for not furnishing returns for a continuous period of six months or more. Thereafter, the petitioners filed an appeal seeking revocation of the GST cancellation; however, the same was rejected by the Appellate Authority as the time limit prescribed for filing an appeal had elapsed.

Before the Hon’ble High Court, the petitioner contended that they were ready and willing to comply with all the formalities required as per the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017, i.e. to furnish all the pending returns and make full payment of the tax along with applicable interest and late fee.

HELD

Having regard to the fact that the GST registration was cancelled under section 29(2)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017 for non-filing of returns for a continuous period of 6 (six) months or more and the provisions contained in the proviso to sub-rule (4) of Rule 22 of the CGST Rules, 2017 and cancellation of registration entails serious civil consequences, the Hon’ble Court held that if the petitioners approach the competent officer by furnishing all pending returns and paying the entire tax dues, along with applicable interest and late fee, the officer would have the authority and jurisdiction to drop the proceedings and pass an order in the prescribed Form.

Accordingly, the writ petition is disposed of with a direction to the petitioners to approach the concerned authority within a period of 2 (two) months for restoration of their GST registration.

It was further clarified that the limitation period under section 73 (10) of the Central GST Act/State GST Act shall be computed from the date of the present order, except for the financial year 2025-26, which shall be governed by section 44 of the Central GST Act/State GST Act.

20. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 463 (Telangana) dated 08.04.2026

Anjaneya Kirana Merchant vs. Deputy State Tax Officer.

The Court permitted filing of a fresh revocation application where the petitioner failed to submit a reply to the revocation application and the time limit for filing an appeal had also lapsed.

FACTS

The petitioner filed an application for revocation of cancellation of GST registration before the competent authority. A show cause notice was issued; However, the petitioner failed to file a reply, leading to the rejection of the revocation application. The limitation period for filing an appeal had also expired. The petitioner submitted that he had relied on the accountant to file the monthly returns and was unaware of the show cause notice, due to which a reply could not be filed. He therefore sought one opportunity either to file a reply to the show cause notice or to file a fresh revocation application for reconsideration.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court, considering the petitioner’s submission and with the consent of the Government Pleader, granted liberty to the petitioner to file a fresh application for revocation of cancellation of registration before the competent authority within a period of two (2) weeks, manually.

Recent Developments in GST

A. ADVISORY

i) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 14.03.2026 in relation to Payment of pre-deposit while filing of appeal before First Appellate authority.

ii) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 16.03.2026 regarding confirmation of “Tax Liability Breakup, As Applicable” in GSTR-3B.

iii) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 03.04.2026 in relation to difficulty in filing appeals on the GST portal in cases where adjudication orders reflect “NIL” demand due to prior voluntary payment.

iv) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 10.04.2026 by which information is given that pre-deposit percentage field is made editable at the time of filing the appeal on the GST Portal.

B. INSTRUCTIONS

(i) The Department of Revenue has issued Instructions bearing no. GSTAT/Pr. Bench/Portal/125/2025-26/3368 dt.10.03.2026 by which certain instructions are issued in relation to filing of appeals before GSTAT.

C. FINANCE ACT

The amendments in GST, suggested in Budget of 2026-27 and incorporated in Finance Bill, 2026, are now become part of GST Act due to coming into operation Finance Act,2026 (Act No.4 of 2026) dated 30.03.2026

D. ADVANCE RULINGS

6. Naga Hanuman Fish Packers 

(AAR Order No. 15/AP/GST/2025 dt.07.11.2025) (AP)

Classification – Labelled and Packaged: inner packaging which ranges from 0.25 Kgs to 20Kg becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ category, which is mandated to bear the declarations.

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is engaged in the business of processing and exporting of shrimps. The applicant procures raw shrimps locally from farmers and processes them at the factory. Shrimp processing includes washing, de-veining, peeling, de-heading, tail removal, sorting, grading, and freezing. However, further processing can be done independently based on the customer’s requirement to produce the desired results.

The packaged frozen shrimps are exported to international buyers.

With above background applicant has raised following questions before the Ld. AAR.

“1. Is the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), which are packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a print master carton (with a maximum weight of 25 Kilograms each) that includes the design, label, and other specification about the product, subject to GST?

2. Is the export of processed frozen shrimps (HSN 0306), packaged in individual printed pouches or boxes and subsequently placed inside a printed master carton weighing up to 25 Kilograms, subject to GST?”

Applicant referred to entry 2 of Schedule I of Notification No.1/2017-CGST (R) dt. 01.07.2017 as amended vide Notification no.06/2022-CGST(R) dt.13.07.2022 which reads as “All goods (other than fresh or chilled), prepackaged and labelled”.

Based on above, it was canvassed by the applicant that his product is taxable under said entry at 5%.

HELD

After examining the scheme, the ld. AAR observed that a commodity to be considered as ‘pre-packaged and labelled’ shall associate with the following features, viz.,

“a. that which comprises a pre-determined quantity as circumscribed under the meaning of “pre-packaged commodity” vide Section 2(l) of the Legal Metrology Act, and

b. that which is required to bear the declarations under the provisions of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 (1 of 2010) and the rules made there under.”

Based on given facts in query, the ld. AAR held that the inner packaging which ranges from 0.25 Kgs to 20Kg becomes liable to GST, as the same fall within the ambit of ‘prepackaged and labelled’ category, which is mandated to bear the declarations.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the supply will be liable for GST @ 5%, irrespective of the fact whether it is for domestic supply or for export outside the country.

7. Sandeep Vihar Owners Association (M/s. SVOA).

(AAR Order No.KAR.ADRG/12/2026 Dated: 11.02.2026 (Kar)

Valuation – Residential Association:

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is an Apartment Owners’ Association /Resident Welfare Association (RWA) duly registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, 1960.

Applicant has sought advance ruling in respect of the following questions:

“1. If a housing society recovers the actual costs of water supplied to the society and its members through separate monthly debit notes, does this recovery attract GST, despite water being generally exempted from the tax?

2. Whether the applicant liable to pay CGST/ SGST on collection of Common Area Electricity Charges paid by the members and the same recovered on the actual electricity charges billed?

3. Whether the applicant is liable to pay CGST/SGST on amounts which it collects from its members towards a Corpus Fund for future contingencies/major CAPEX. Whether such fund from members will come under the definition of supply and liable to be taxed? If yes, whether it is subject to GST at the time of collection or at the time of utilization?

4. Could the monthly charges levied for the upkeep of the Sandeep Vihar Community Centre be classified as Monthly Maintenance Charges under GST provisions, thereby qualifying for the exemption threshold of Rs. 7500/- per month as per Clause (c) of Sl. No. 77 to the Notification No. 12/2017 State Tax (Rate)dated 30.06.2017?

The ld. AAR noted that the applicant collects monthly maintenance charges from its members to meet the day-to-day maintenance expenses of the society and ensure the smooth functioning of common facilities and services. In addition to these regular charges, the Applicant also collects contributions towards corpus fund, which serves as a reserve to meet future contingencies, unforeseen expenses, major repairs, and long-term capital improvements such as building repainting, structural repairs, refurbishment of water supply systems and similar infrastructure-related requirements.

The applicant, citing his interpretation, sought to contend that none of items involved in questions are taxable.

The ld. AAR held that the Association’s activity towards its members constitute supply of services and falls under Service Code 999598, described as “Home Owners Association”, as per the Scheme of Classification of Services.

In respect of recovery of water charges and electricity charges for common area, the ld. AAR held that the applicant is not selling water or electricity as goods to its members but it is only recovering from members the actual cost of water/electricity procured from third parties such as municipalities or tanker suppliers, electricity body etc. This recovery is integrally linked to the overall service of maintaining the residential complex and its common facilities and rejected the claim of exemption as independent sale of water/electricity or as pure agent.

Regarding the third question about collection of corpus fund from members for the purpose of meeting future capital expenditure, the ld. AAR held then as liable to tax as such collection is towards service to be provided in future.

Applying Section 13(2)(a), the ld. AAR held that the time of supply is triggered on the date of receipt of the corpus fund amount since such collection is considered as an advance towards future supply.

Regarding question (4) about monthly charges levied for the upkeep of the Sandeep Vihar Community Centre and inclusion of same in threshold limit of Rs. 7500/- per month, the ld. AAR held that the monthly maintenance charges collected in the name of Sandeep Vihar Community Centre are towards the day-to-day maintenance, upkeep, and repairs of the Community Centre, which forms an integral part of the entire residential complex and accordingly, the said maintenance charges are exempt from GST within limit of Rs.7,500 per member per month, subject to the condition that the amount represents the inclusive value of maintenance charges for the entire residential complex.

The ld. AAR disposed of application accordingly.

8. Apartment Owners of Raj Lake View

(AAR Order No.KAR.ADRG/11/2026 Dated: 11.02.2026 (Kar)

Valuation for exemption limit – Corpus fund: Corpus fund collection is entirely separate from monthly maintenance charges and both amounts are distinct in character and purpose and therefore, the corpus fund can be treated as separate and independent from monthly maintenance charges, for GST applicability.

FACTS

The facts are that the Applicant is an Apartment Owners’ Association/Resident Welfare Association (RWA) duly registered under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, 1960.

In addition to the monthly maintenance charges, the Applicant also wishes to collect some corpus fund from its members in order to build up a fund that will be used to carry out capital expenditure such as painting, replacement of capital goods etc., in future.

In view of above, the applicant has sought advance ruling in respect of various questions, mainly about inclusion of corpus fund in exemption limit of Rs.7500 u/e. 77 of Notification No. 12/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

The applicant mainly contended that the collection of Corpus fund is not liable and if liable it is includible in exemption limit of Rs.7500/- per member, per month.

Referring to questions raised, the ld. AAR referred to Section 7 of the CGST Act,2017 and observed that the applicant and its members are to be treated as distinct persons under the Explanation to Section 7(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 and since applicant is doing certain activities for its members, the transaction falls in scope of Section 7.

The ld. AAR also observed that the activities undertaken by a Resident Welfare Association for its members are classifiable under Chapter Heading 9995, falling under the description “Services of Membership Organisations”, and more specifically under Service Code 999598, described as “Home Owners Association”, as per the Scheme of Classification of Services (Annexure).

HELD

The ld. AAR held that the nature of services proposed to be provided by the applicant to its members in the future stands clearly identified and determined and the amounts collected toward the corpus fund are in the nature of advances and not deposits and liable to tax as ‘supply’.

Referring to Provisions of Section 13 of the CGST Act, the ld. AAR observed that tax is attracted as per time of supply provided in section 13 i.e. on date of receipt of payment.

Regarding clubbing of corpus collection within exemption limit of Rs. 7,500/-, the ld. AAR observed about nature of service. The ld. AAR noted purpose of monthly maintenance charges, which are applied towards regular, recurring, and continuous services necessary for day-to-day upkeep and functioning of the residential society.

Regarding nature of collection of corpus fund, the ld. AAR observed that the corpus fund is collected one time or infrequently and it is specifically earmarked for capital or major non-recurring expenditures, such as, Major structural repairs of the building, External/internal painting of the building & Replacement or major overhaul of lifts etc.

Based on above, the ld. AAR held that Corpus fund collection is entirely separate from monthly maintenance charges and both amounts are distinct in character and purpose and therefore, the corpus fund can be treated as separate and independent from monthly maintenance charges, for GST applicability.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the corpus fund collection is not includable in exemption limit of Rs. 7,500/-.

[Compiler’s Note:

The implication appears to be that corpus fund collected will be taxable independently without reference to exemption available upto Rs. 7,500/- per member per month.]

9. Laxmi Health Care Centre & ICCU

(AAR Order No.GST-ARA-68/2020-21/B-628 dated: 28.11.2025 (Mah)

Taxability vis-à-vis Healthcare Services

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is a partnership firm and operating as nursing home holding registration certificate under Maharashtra Nursing Home Registration Act, 1949.

The applicant provides health care services with the help of professional doctors and is equipped to treat the patients admitted to the hospital. Also, the hospital has its in-house pharmacy/ chemist operating under trade name “LAXMI CHEMIST” for supply of medicines and allied items. For the purpose of administration and identification, the patients visiting the hospital are categorized as “in-patients” and “out-patients”.

In relation to “in-patients”, applicant provides stay facilities, medicines, consumables etc. during course of the treatment. The medicines are prescribed to them as part of treatment and care for illness. The invoice/bill raised for the treatment to an inpatient is a single bill with detailed bifurcation of charges (like room rent, nursing care charges, laboratory, consumables, medicines, equipment charges, doctor’s fee, etc.) towards all the facilities/ services provided during the course of treatment in the hospital.

The “out-patients” are those who visit the hospital for consultation, diagnosis and check-up from the professional doctors. The doctors prescribe applicable medicines to such patients and it is the choice of the patient whether to follow the medical advice given by the doctor or not.

Based on above facts, applicant sought ruling on following questions:

“1. Whether charges recovered towards pathological test, radiological test and other medical test, bed charges and charges for medicines & other consumables during course rendering medical treatment to in-patients is single supply of healthcare service?

2. Whether applicant is eligible for exemption under Sl. No. 74 of notification 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June 2017 for above charges recovered from in patients under 1 common contract/ invoice?”

The applicant submitted that the services to in-patients are composite services and principal supply is health care services and hence covered by exemption entry 74 in Notification No.12/2017-CT(R) dated 28.6.2017.

The ld. AAR made reference to SAC 9993 wherein in-patient services are covered. The ld. AAR observed as under:

“5.6 Thus, inpatient services means services provided by hospitals to inpatients under the direction of medical doctors aimed at curing, restoring and/ or maintaining the health of a patient and the service comprises of medical, pharmaceutical and paramedical services, rehabilitation services, nursing services and laboratory and technical services till the patient gets discharged. A complete gamut of activities required for well-being of a patient from admission till discharge, provided by a hospital under the direction of medical doctors is a composite supply of service and is covered under ‘Inpatient services’ classifiable under SAC 999311.”

HELD

Based on above position, the ld. AAR held that the charges for in-patients are covered by exemption entry 74 of Notification No.12/2017-CT(R) dated 28.06.2017 subject to fact that tax will be payable on the room rent charges (other than ICU/CCU etc. as mentioned in the notification), if the same is more than Rs.5,000/-.

Thus the ld. AAR disposed of application in affirmative.

10. Vegan Wood Pvt. Ltd.

(AAAR Order No.GUJ/GAAAR/APPEAL/2026/01 (In application no. Advance Ruling/SGST & CGST/2025/AR/01) dated: 25.02.2026 (Guj)

Remand by AAAR – Possible

FACTS

The present appeal was filed under section 100 of the CGST Act, by M/s. Vegan Wood Private Limited (for short – ‘Appellant’) against the

Advance Ruling No. GUJ/GAAR/R/2025/04, dated 21.03.2025 – 2025-VIL-40-AAR.

The appellant is engaged in the manufacture of ‘Natural

Fibre Composite Board’ [NFC], also commonly referred to as Rice Husk Boards, at their manufacturing facility.

The appellant filed application for determination of classification of above product.

The ld. AAR rejected to entertain AR application on ground that the appellant has failed to provide details like purchase invoices of inputs, copies of sales invoices, brochure etc. Considering lack of adequate details, the ld. AAR held that application is non-maintainable.

In appeal, the appellant produced the relevant material.

HELD

The ld. AAAR found that as per plain reading of subsection (1) of the section 101, the appellate authority can pass such order as it thinks fit, by either confirming or modifying the ruling pronounced by the advance ruling authority.

The ld. AAAR also observed that the material produced before it by applicant is for the first time, which needs to be verified for its factual accuracy and with relevance to the issue in question.

The ld. AAAR, therefore, deemed it appropriate to remand back the matter to the AAR to examine the issue afresh in the light of the materials and records now available.

[Compiler’s Note:

Normally when the power in appeal is for ‘confirming’ or ‘modifying’ the order appealed against, remand is not done.

However, considering above appeal order it can be said that the AAAR has power to remand also.]

Intermediary Services – Past, Present & Future!!!

The Finance Act 2026 resolves a decade of litigation by omitting Section 13(8)(b) of the IGST Act, effective March 30, 2026. This amendment aligns Indian law with global destination-based principles, allowing intermediary services provided to foreign clients to qualify as zero-rated exports. However, the transition creates compliance challenges, particularly concerning the Time of Supply for services spanning the amendment date. Furthermore, Indian recipients of foreign intermediary services must now pay GST under the reverse charge mechanism. While the reform enhances competitiveness, its prospective nature suggests that ongoing litigation relating to past liabilities will persist

INTRODUCTION

For over a decade, India’s classification of ‘intermediary services’ has led to aggressive tax assessments and prolonged litigation. By taxing local agents and brokers for services provided to foreign clients, authorities effectively denied such businesses export benefits. While the Finance Act 2026, finally resolves this issue by aligning Indian law with global destination-based taxation principles, navigating the transition requires careful attention to historical definitions, place-of-supply rules, and ongoing litigation.

TAXABILITY UNDER THE PRE-GST REGIME:

Prior to July 1, 2012, service tax law broadly classified such services under the taxable category of “Business Auxiliary Services”. The definition, inter alia, covered activities such as marketing, customer care, procurement, production, and commission agent services.

In July 2012, the Government introduced a specific definition of ‘intermediary services.’ which included any broker or agent facilitating the supply of goods or services between two or more parties. Crucially, it excluded persons providing the main service on a principal-to-principal basis.

Pursuant to this amendment, the supplier’s location deemed to be the place of provision of service. Consequently, services rendered to foreign clients no longer qualified as export of services, resulting in substantial litigation.

The Principal to Principal (‘P2P’) vs. Principal to Agent (‘P2A’) dilemma:

The introduction of the definition of ‘intermediary services’ led to disputes on two fronts:

(i) what constitutes intermediary services; and
(ii) the taxability of cross-border transactions.

The Department often used this definition as a “catch-all” provision to tax all facilitation activities not only when the main transaction was not taxable, but also in cases involving subcontracting. For instance, in cases involving advertising in print media (where service tax was not leviable) or freight forwarders, (where the main service of transportation of goods was not leviable to tax/ exempted/ qualified as exports), the Department sought to classify such transactions as Principal to Agent rather than Principal to Principal, arguing that the margin constituted consideration for business auxiliary or intermediary services. However, in multiple consistent rulings, the Tribunal came to the aid of business. In Grey Worldwide (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Mumbai [2015 (37) S.T.R. 597 (Tri. – Mumbai)], the Tribunal held that incentives received by advertising companies without any contractual obligation were not liable to Service Tax under “Business Auxiliary Services”. Similarly, in (Greenwich Meridian Logistics (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Mumbai [2017 (49) S.T.R. 233 (Tri. – Mumbai)], Tiger Logistics India Limited vs. Commissioner [(2023) 9 Centax 117 (Tri.-Del)], etc.,), the tribunal held that the surplus earned by freight forwarders constituted trading profit and not consideration for intermediary service.

Even businesses dealing in goods were affected. Motor vehicle showrooms received show-cause notices (‘SCNs’) demanding service tax on incentives received from manufacturers for achieving sales targets. These demands were ultimately set aside, with the Tribunal holding such discounts to be a reduction in purchase price and not consideration for a service [CST, Mumbai I vs. Sai Service Station Ltd. [2014 (35) S.T.R. 625 (Tri. – Mumbai)], Jubilant Motor Works (South) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise, Chennai (2024) 17 Centax 239 (Tri.-Mad), Sanghi Cars (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner of CGST and Central Excise, Jaipur (2025) 37 Centax 223 (Tri.-Del), etc.].

GST 2026

These aggressive assessment tactics compelled courts to determine whether a transaction was undertaken on a Principal-to-Principal (‘P2P’) basis or a Principal-to-Agent (‘P2A’) basis. A P2P arrangement would exclude the transaction from the scope of intermediary services, whereas a P2A arrangement would attract the intermediary provisions. The CESTAT in Microsoft India (R&D) Private Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Bangalore East [(2025) 26 Centax 97 (Tri.-Bang)] held that services rendered on a P2P basis cannot be classified as intermediary services. Similarly, in Blackberry India Private Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Tax, Delhi [(2023) 10 Centax 236 (Tri.-Del)], the Tribunal held that the mere fact that consideration is determined on a cost-plus basis does not render the services intermediary in nature. Further, in Marriott International Chain Entities v. Commissioner [2026-VIL-22-CESTAT-DEL-ST], the Tribunal held that activities such as identifying, recruiting, and supervising senior hotel employees for foreign group entities are undertaken in the capacity of an independent contractor-contractee, and do not amount to services provided to end customers on behalf of the principal.

The “benefit” conundrum:

The second area of friction relates to the “place of provision of service”. Board Circular 141/10/2011 dated 13.05.2011 clarified that export benefits would be allowed only if the benefit of the service should accrue outside India. The Circular further stated that the services shall be said to have accrued at the place where effective use and enjoyment of the service has been obtained. In the context of advertising services, the Circular clarified that the effective use of advertising services occurs at the place where the advertising material is disseminated to the audience.

However, the Tribunal in Paul Merchants Ltd. vs. CCE, Chandigarh [2013 (29) S.T.R. 257 (Tri.-Del)] disagreed with this approach and held that the location of the contractual service recipient is the determinative factor for identifying the place of provision of services, reiterating that the contractual relationship is key, and the actual place of performance may not be decisive in determining the place of supply/place of provision of the service. Similarly, in Vodafone Essar Cellular Ltd. vs. CCE, Pune III [2013 (31) S.T.R. 738 (Tri. – Mumbai)], the Tribunal held that International Inbound Roaming Services provided by Vodafone India to Foreign Telecom Operators (FTOs) by enabling their subscribers to access Indian networks while traveling in India’s case qualified as export of service, even though the services were consumed in India. Even in relation to goods, the Tribunal in Microsoft Corporation (I) Private Limited vs. CST, New Delhi [2014 (36) S.T.R. 766 (Tri. – Del.)] held that marketing and promotional activities undertaken in India to boost sales of products manufactured by foreign entities would qualify as export of services, since the services were rendered to foreign manufacturers. Notably, the decisions in Vodafone and Microsoft were subsequently upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in (2025) 33 Centax 152 (S.C.),

TAXABILITY UNDER THE GST REGIME:

Under the GST regime, the definition of “intermediary” and the rule for determining the place of supply remained largely aligned with the service tax regime, i.e., the supplier’s location continued to be the place of supply vide section 13 (8) (b) of the IGST Act, 2017. Therefore, intermediary services provided to foreign clients remained taxable in India. However, under the GST scheme, when an Indian intermediary provides services to a foreign customer and receives consideration in foreign exchange, such a transaction is treated as an intrastate supply, thereby attracting CGST & SGST. The constitutional validity of section 13 (8) (b) was challenged before the Bombay High Court, wherein, after a split opinion, the majority in Dharmendra M. Jani vs. UOI [2023-VIL-346-BOM] held that the provisions are constitutionally valid. However, the court held that a legal fiction created by a central statute (the IGST Act) for a specific purpose cannot extend beyond it to permit the levy of local taxes under other statutes (the CGST or MGST Acts). Therefore, when provided to foreign clients, the intermediary service would be liable to IGST, and not CGST & SGST.

Beyond jurisdictional disputes, the core definition of an ‘intermediary’ remained contentious. To mitigate this, the Board issued Circular 159/15/2021-GST clarifying that the absence of any of the following elements would mean that a service does not qualify as “intermediary services”.

(i) Minimum three parties
(ii) Two distinct supplies
(iii) Agent/ broker character
(iv) Exclusion for services provided on “own account”

The Circular further clarified specific industry-wide issues, such as whether sub-contracting constitutes intermediary services, backend and support services, etc. Despite the above clarifications, ambiguity persisted, compelling businesses to seek judicial intervention. Some notable decisions granting relief are as follows:

  •  In Genpact India Private Limited vs. UOI [(2022) 1 Centax 226 (P&H.)], the High Court had to determine whether BPO Services subcontracted to the Indian service provider by the foreign group company would qualify as export of services, or be taxable under the “intermediary” basket. The High Court, rejecting the Department’s stand, held that in the absence of P2A relationship between the supplier and recipient, the service could not be classified as “intermediary” and therefore, qualified as exports.
  •  The Delhi High Court in Boks Business Services Private Limited vs. Commissioner [(2023) 10 Centax 44 (Del.)] held that service of providing bookkeeping, payroll maintenance, and accounting services through the use of cloud technology to its affiliated entity incorporated in the United Kingdom did not constitute intermediary services.
  •  The Gujarat High Court in Infodesk India Pvt. Limited v. Union of India [2025-VIL-1242-GUJ] held that software consultancy services provided to a parent company under a service agreement on own account did not classify as intermediary services.
  •  In Ernst & Young Ltd. v. Additional Commissioner [73 G.S.T.L. 161 (Del.)], the High Court held that provision of professional and legal services on own account to overseas group entities did not qualify as intermediary services.
  •  In IQVIA RDS (India) Private Limited v. Union of India [2025-VIL-1369-KAR], the High Court held that conducting clinical trials and allied data management services for a foreign parent company does not fall under intermediary services.
  •  In Cube Highways and Transportation Assets Advisor Pvt. Ltd. v. Assistant Commissioner [9 Centax 290 (Del.)], it was held that investment advisory services, including identification of investment opportunities in India and preparation of reports, do not qualify as intermediary services.

What changes from 30.03.2026?

The Finance Act, 2026, notified w.e.f 30.03.2026, omits Section 13 (8) (b) of the Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) Act, 2017. As a result of this amendment, intermediary services provided to foreign clients, which were not eligible for export classification up to 29.03.2026, may now qualify as exports, since the place of supply will be determined u/s 13 (2). Consequently, such services may become eligible for zero-rating.

Sectoral impact of the amendment

While the amendment, in general, brings relief to most sectors by allowing export benefit to services provided to foreign clients, certain sectors may continue to be outside the export classification.

For instance, steamer agents (also known as Shipping Agents) act as the local legal representative of Foreign Principal (the ship owner, operator, or charterer). Since foreign entities cannot easily navigate local port regulations, customs laws, and vendor management from abroad, the steamer agent serves as their “eyes and ears” on the ground and are responsible for all acts of the vessel while in Indian waters. This includes:

  •  Paying port dues and penalties, ensuring compliance with environmental and safety laws,
  • Filing the Import General Manifest (IGM) before the ship arrives and the Export General Manifest (EGM) before it departs,
  • Coordinating with Customs authorities for the “Entry Inwards” and “Grant of Port Clearance”,
  • Liaising with major ports for other documentation, arranging for “Bunkering” (fuel), fresh water, provisions (food), and spare parts delivery,
  • Coordinating with local workshops for underwater inspections or emergency mechanical repair
  • Tracking the movement of empty and loaded boxes within the hinterland

Before the amendment, the services were classified under the intermediary basket. With the amendment becoming effective, the agents must return to the drawing board and determine the place of supply u/s 13. A key question arises as to whether such services are covered: u/s 13 (2), i.e., the general rule which treats the location of recipient of service as the place of supply, or section 13 (3) (a), which provides that the location where the services are actually performed shall be the place of supply in case of services supplied in respect of goods which are required to be made physically available by the recipient of services to the supplier of services, or to a person acting on behalf of the supplier of services in order to provide the services. While one may argue that a steamer agent does not perform any services on the goods and therefore, the section 13 (3) does not apply, the Tribunal had in ATA Freightline (I) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner [2022 (64) G.S.T.L. 97 (Tri.-Bom)] held that the clause will apply only if the goods concerned with the rendering of service are made available to the ‘provider’ or ‘person acting on behalf of provider’ by the ‘recipient of service’ for being put to use in the course of rendering service. It is a fact that the steamer agents provide services relating to vessels, and the provision of such services does not require them to put the vessel to use. Therefore, steamer agents should be eligible to classify their services u/s 13 (2), though litigation on this front cannot be ruled out.

The second impacted sector is the art gallery/ auction house sector, which regularly conducts auctions of paintings, jewelry, and other artifacts. At times, the item is imported from outside India for auction purposes. The art gallery/auction house, as the agent of the owner, may discharge the applicable GST upon the successful completion of the auction. However, the question arises is whether their service fees/ commission charged to the foreign owner would be covered u/s 13 (2) or section 13 (3). In this case, the physical possession of the item passes to the art gallery/ auction house, without which they cannot provide the services. Therefore, GST is payable not only to the sale of items (as an agent), but also on the service charges/ commission received, since the place of supply would still be covered u/s 13 (3) (a).

A similar situation arises for event managers/ line producers (applicable to film production), who provide services to foreign clients on an agency basis. In such cases, section 13 (3) (b) may be triggered since the services would require the recipient to be physically present to receive the services, and therefore, the place of supply would be the location where the services are performed.

IMPACT ON REVERSE CHARGE MECHANISM

As a logical corollary, the amendment would imply that services received from the foreign intermediary by an Indian company would now be classifiable as “import of services” and tax would be payable on reverse charge mechanism. While the tax so paid would be available as input tax credit, this would result in some timing difference and associated cash flow issues.

For example, exporters paying commission to overseas agents will be now required to pay GST under RCM on such remittances. They may face a cash flow issue till the time the input tax credit is utilized against domestic tax payments or refunded under section 54.

Transition impact – time of supply challenges

Services completed before March 30, 2026, face distinct time-of-supply implications. Sections 12 & 13 of the CGST Act, 2017 govern the determination of time of supply (ToS) in ordinary circumstances, while Section 14 applies when there is a change in the effective tax rate. A key question arises: Does the shift to zero-rating constitute a ‘change in the effective rate of tax’? This is relevant because the services remain taxable at 18% pre- and post-amendment, with the only change being eligibility for zero-rating. Therefore, the Time of Supply must be determined in the context of Section 13 r.w. Section 31 of the CGST Act, 2017.

Under Section 13, r.w. Section 31 provides that the time of supply of services in case of regular services, i.e., other than services classified as continuous supply of services, shall be as follows:

  •  Invoice Issued within Time: If the invoice is issued within the period prescribed under Section 31 (generally 30 days), the time of supply is the date of issue of the invoice or the date of receipt of payment, whichever is earlier.
  •  Invoice Not Issued within Time: If the invoice is not issued within the prescribed period, the time of supply is the date of provision of service or the date of receipt of payment, whichever is earlier.

Payments received on or before March 29, 2026, would remain taxable. For pending payments, businesses must track invoice dates. A service completed with its 30-day invoice window triggering before March 29 remains taxable, even if invoiced later.

A detailed review of invoices issued after 29.03.2026 is therefore essential to ensure that transactions are correctly classified particularly to verify whether the completion of service and the expiry of the 30-day period occurred prior to the cut-off date. This issue becomes especially relevant in the context of year-end provisions, which are typically reversed in the subsequent financial year upon issuance of invoices. Where businesses intend to claim that the service was completed on or after March 29, 2026, robust documentary evidence must be maintained to substantiate such claims. In the absence of such evidence, the tax authorities may dispute the export classification.

While the GST law, does not explicitly define “completion of service,” guidance may be drawn from Circular 144/13/2011-ST dated 18.07.2011, which clarifies that completion of service encompasses not only the physical performance of the service, but also the completion of all other auxiliary activities necessary to enable the service provider to issue an invoice. Such auxiliary activities may include measurement, quality testing, and other tasks that may be essential prerequisites for identifying service completion. Taxpayers should evaluate the point of completion of services, keeping these principles in mind.

On the other hand, in the case of a continuous supply of services, the contractual terms assume critical importance, since the liability to issue the invoice is based on the contractual terms u/s 31 (5) (and, more importantly, the 30-day grace available for normal services is not available). Section 31 (5) prescribes the following timelines for issuing the invoice in case of continuous supply of services:

  •  On or before the due date of payment, if ascertainable from the contract.
  • On or before the date of completion of an event, if payment is linked to milestones (e.g., construction milestones).
  •  Before or at the time of receipt of payment, if the due date is not ascertainable.

For example, an indenting agent may have arranged/facilitated transactions for clients during March 2026. under an ongoing contractual arrangement, wherein commission becomes payable upon completion of each deal. However, for administrative convenience, the agent may raise a consolidated invoice at the end of the month.

In such cases, the agent would not be entitled to claim export benefits to the extent that the liability to issue the invoice had already arisen on or before March 29, 2026.

From a reverse-charge perspective (services received from foreign intermediaries), section 13 (3) provides that the liability to pay tax in case of supplies received from unregistered persons shall be the date of issue of invoice by the recipient, which u/r 47A must be issued within 30 days from the date of receipt of the supply, or the date of payment to the supplier, whichever is earlier. Therefore, in cases where the payment to the supplier was made on or before 29.03.2026, the time of supply triggered on or before 29.03.2026, i.e., GST will not be applicable.

However, even if payment is not made to the supplier on or before 29.03.2026, if the self-invoice is generated before 29.03.2026 (whether due or not), the pre-amendment provisions will apply, and GST will not be applicable.

While businesses manage these immediate transitional compliance hurdles, a broader legal question remains: does this amendment apply retrospectively to wipe out past liabilities. For example, in cases where the receipt of service is completed on or before 29.03.2026, when there is no liability to pay tax or to generate a self-invoice, since the supply did not constitute an import of services. It must be noted that since both the location of the supplier and the place of supply were outside India, the levy provisions did not trigger since the supply could not be classified either as interstate or intrastate.

The question is whether generating a self-invoice would create a liability to pay under the amended law, even if the due date to issue a self-invoice falls on or before 29.03.2026? In such a case, a view can be taken that inbound intermediary services that were not liable to tax prior to the amendment became taxable only from 30.03.2026 onwards. Therefore, relying on the landmark decision in the case of Collector of C. Ex., Hyderabad v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd. [1996 (83) E.L.T. 3 (S.C.)], a view can be taken that since no GST was leviable when the service was supplied, the liability cannot be triggered based on collection provisions under the law [specifically, section 13 (3)].

EFFECT OF THE AMENDMENT – RETROSPECTIVE VS. PROSPECTIVE:

Most GST amendments explicitly state if they are retrospective. Because the Finance Act 2026 omits Section 13(8)(b) without such language—and creates new export rights—it operates prospectively. Consequently, taxpayers face a critical battle over pending litigation. It is a settled principle of law, legislation—be it a statutory Act or a rule—is presumed not to have retrospective operation unless a contrary intention is expressly stated.

Further, the amendment results in the omission of a charging or jurisdictional provision with a specific future effective date (30.03.2026) and creates a new set of rights (eligibility for export benefits) and removes a tax disability, it is a substantive change that normally operates prospectively, and not mere “clarificatory” or “declaratory”, to be treated as retrospective.

How does the amendment impact ongoing litigation? Since the IGST Act is a “Central Act” as defined under Section 3(7) of the GCA, the effects of the omission (which is legally equivalent to a repeal) are governed by Section 6 of the GCA. Section 6 (c) provides that, unless a different intention appears, the repeal shall not “affect any right, privilege, obligation or liability acquired, accrued or incurred under any enactment so repealed”. Section 6 (e) further stipulates that any investigation or legal proceeding in respect of such liability may be “instituted, continued or enforced” as if the repealing Act had not been passed.

While some courts have held that an “omission” of a Rule without a savings clause causes pending proceedings to lapse (because Section 6 GCA does not apply to subordinate Rules), the same does not apply to an Act. For the IGST Act, Section 6 specifically preserves liabilities incurred prior to 30.03.2026. It is therefore likely on the Department’s part to maintain that for all periods up to 29.03.2026, Section 13 (8) (b) remains the valid law. Therefore, the liability was “incurred” at the time of supply. The taxpayers may rebut this by arguing that the omission, without a saving clause, reflects a “different intention” under Section 6 of the GCA and, therefore, the pending Show Cause Notices and unfinalized orders should lapse, as they no longer have a statutory foundation to support a demand.

CONCLUSION:

The omission of Section 13(8)(b) marks the end of a decade-long era of litigation and finally aligns Indian intermediary taxation with global ‘destination-based’ principles. While the shift to zero-rating offers a significant competitive boost for Indian service providers, the transition period remains a compliance minefield. Businesses must act to document service completion meticulously and re-evaluate contractual terms to ensure they don’t lose the benefits of this landmark reform to avoidable Time of Supply disputes.”

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

3. Central Bureau of Investigation vs. Baljeet Singh

Criminal Appeal (Arising out of Special Leave Petition (Crl.) No. 12486 of 2025) decided on 10.03.2026

Prosecution – Bribe – Charge of conspiracy and/ or charge of demand and acceptance – If the charge under the Indian Penal Code read with the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 linked with the charge of conspiracy, was the only one levelled, then if one is acquitted, the other cannot be convicted – However, if there is another charge of demand and acceptance against both, which, as against the two, is not inextricably linked by a definite charge of conspiracy, the second charge can be proved against both or against one independently

PW1, the complainant, was a partner of a firm whose Assessing Officer under the Income-tax Act, 1961 was the 1st Appellant/1st Accused (A1). A notice had been issued to the Assessee for the assessment year 2008-09, which was pending in the office of A1.

To finalize the same, PW1 approached the 2nd Appellant/2nd Accused(A2), an Income-tax Inspector who was a subordinate of A1.

It was the complaint of PW1 that in October 2010, he had met both the Appellants concerned in connection with the scrutiny of the accounts of the firm in which he was a partner, pursuant to which he was directed to furnish information, which was duly submitted. On 27.12.2010, PW1 went to the Income-tax Office, where he met A2, who took him to A1. After discussions, when PW1 was coming out with A2, A2 made a demand of Rs.5 lakhs, purportedly on behalf of A1.

PW1 protested, and when the second Appellant persisted, he haggled for a lesser amount, pointing out that in October 2010, the demand was for a far lesser amount of Rs.1,50,000/-. The second Appellant refused to budge, which prompted PW1 to approach the CBI with a complaint.

The complaint was verified by PW22, referred to as the Trap Laying Officer (TLO). The TLO called for two independent witnesses from the House Taxes Department of the Municipal Corporation of Delhi, PW10 and PW18. In the presence of the independent witnesses, there was a telephonic conversation between PW1 and A2, which was recorded on a Digital Voice Recorder (DVR) and transferred to a CD.

PW1 is alleged to have informed A2 that he had only Rs.2 lakhs in his possession, upon which A2 directed PW1 to come to his office in the Drum shaped Building, IP Estate, New Delhi. The pre-trap proceedings were carried out in the presence of the independent witnesses, wherein 200 notes of Rs.1,000/- each, smeared with phenolphthalein powder, were prepared. After noting down their serial numbers, the notes were kept in an envelope, which was also smeared with the powder.

The entire proceedings were recorded and reduced to writing in the Handing Over Memo (HOM), signed by the complainant, the TLO and the independent witnesses. PW1 was given a DVR to record the conversation likely to take place between PW1 and A2.

The team reached the Income Tax Office, upon which PW1, followed by the TLO and the other members of the team, entered the building. PW1, on reaching the office of A2, was informed that he was in A1’s room. PW1 then went to A1’s office room, where he found only A2, to whom he handed over the envelope, which A2 put in his coat pocket.

PW1 walked out of the room, followed by A2, and, as prearranged, touched his shoe to signal the TLO. The TLO gave a signal to the team, confronted A2, and took him back into the room. The independent witnesses also entered the room, PW18 along with the TLO, and PW10 a little later with the other members of the team. The TLO and another constable caught hold of A2’s hands, and one of the independent witnesses, PW18, was asked to search A2. As pointed out by PW1, the envelope was recovered from A2’s coat pocket by PW18 and handed over to the TLO.

The notes were taken out from the envelope recovered from A2’s coat pocket, and both the hands of A2, when submerged in two separate tumblers of Sodium Carbonate solution, turned pink, revealing the taint of acceptance of the powdered envelope with the marked notes.

The TLO asked for A1, who was said to be in the Commissioner’s office. The TLO proceeded to the Commissioner’s office and, after making a request to the Commissioner, escorted A1 back to his room, where the trap team had detained A1. Statements were taken from both A1 & A2, and their arrest were recorded.

After investigation, charges were framed for conspiracy under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code and for the offence under Section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (for brevity, “the PC Act”). The prosecution examined twenty-three witnesses and produced relevant documents, as well as transcript of the conversation between PW1 and A2 over telephone and in person, recorded on the DVR.

The defense examined three witnesses, two of whom were officers of the Income Tax Department, and DW2, a Junior Judicial Assistant at the record room of the Sessions Court at Patiala House Courts. The Trial Court listed fifteen circumstances found to be established and held that the charges against both the accused were proved.

Convicting the Accused under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code r/w Section 7 of the PC Act, and separately under Section 7 of the PC Act, the court imposed a sentence, of years’ rigorous imprisonment on each count and a fine of Rs.1 lakh on each count for both accused, with default sentences of simple imprisonment for months each.

The High Court, by the impugned decision, found that no conspiracy was proved and that there was no proof of a demand having been made by A2 and A1. While disbelieving the conspiracy angle, it noted the trite principle that conspiracy is always difficult to establish since it is invariably conceived and executed in secrecy

Upon examining the evidence, it was found that merely because A1 was the Assessing Officer and A2 was assisting him, this by itself was not sufficient to establish a prior meeting of minds between A1 and A2 in furtherance of the commission of the crime.

In the absence of proof of the conspiracy theory and finding no evidence of demand for a bribe, the High Court overturned the conviction of both the accused.

The Central Bureau of Investigation (the “CBI”) which laid the trap at the instance of the complaint made by PW1, appealed before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court observed that, in addition to the charge under Section 120B of IPC, both the accused were separately alleged to have demanded money and accepted it. This demand and acceptance, even as per the statement of PW1, was not established against A1 but very much present against A2. According to the Supreme Court, the statement that A2 informed PW1 that the bribe was for A1 was of no consequence insofar as A1’s culpability is concerned. However, since A2 was also an officer of the Department carrying on the assessment, actively participating in the assessment proceedings as stated by PW1, A2 was in a position of authority to influence the assessment proceedings, as far as PW1 was concerned, and that was the purpose for which the demand for a bribe was made.

According to the Supreme Court, if the charge under the PC Act linked with the charge of conspiracy was the only one levelled, then if one is acquitted, the other cannot be convicted. However, in this case, there was another charge of demand and acceptance against both, which, as against the two, are not inextricably linked by a definite charge of conspiracy. The second charge can be proved against both or against one independently, as there is no meeting of minds alleged.

The Supreme Court noted from the evidence of PW22 that, after fully corroborating the trap, it was deposed that, on being challenged, A2 remained silent. It was also testified that A2 attempted to escape and take out the money. PW1 pointed out the upper pocket of A2’s coat where he had kept the envelope, which was recovered by PW18, as fully corroborated by PW22. PW10 also stated that the person apprehended in A1’s room turned pale. All these constituted relevant conduct of A2 pointing to his guilt, fortified by the recovery of the marked cash from his body and the fact that his hands, coat and sweater, when washed in the test solution, turned pink, as deposed by the witnesses.

The Supreme Court was unable to accept the order of acquittal passed by the High Court insofar as A2 was concerned, especially noting that the demand had been specifically spoken of by PW1 and had also been stated in his complaint before the CBI. The pre-trap proceedings were clearly established by the evidence of PW1, PW10, PW18 and PW22. Insofar as the trap proceedings are concerned, there was complete corroboration of the testimony of PW1 by that of PW22, the TLO. There was also sufficient corroboration from PW10 and PW18, the independent witnesses, regarding the apprehension of a person, who was identified in Court by PW10. Though not identified by PW18, it was PW18 who recovered the envelope from the coat pocket of the apprehended person, who was A2. The hand wash of A2 was also established beyond doubt. The marked notes were identified from the numbers recorded in the HOM at the time of pre-trap proceedings, corroborated by all the above witnesses. The Supreme Court held that the High Court had rightly observed that there was neither proof of demand nor acceptance by A1, except for the statement of PW1 that A2 demanded the bribe on behalf of A1. No reliance can be placed on such a statement made by the co-accused, and no conviction can be entered on that basis.

However, the Supreme Court was inclined to set aside the acquittal insofar as A2 was concerned and restore the order of the Trial Court convicting him for the offence under Section 7 of the PC Act, there being no conspiracy under Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code established. The sentence of four years of rigorous imprisonment imposed by the Trial Court was modified to one year, considering the age of A2, along with a fine of Rs. 1 lakh and a default sentence of simple imprisonment of three months, as awarded by the Trial Court, which would stand restored and confirmed. A2 was ordered to surrender within a period of four weeks from the date of the order.

The appeal was accordingly allowed to the extent indicated above.

S. 119(2)(b) – Intimation u/s. 143(1) – mistake in the original computation – Delay in filing application – In the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be made – The actual intimation has not been brought on record, nor any proof of service.

3. Paresh M. Shetti Versus Principal Commissioner of Income-Tax (PCIT) – 41

[ WRIT PETITION (L) NO. 10371 OF 2025 Dated: APRIL 15, 2026 ]

S. 119(2)(b) – Intimation u/s. 143(1) – mistake in the original computation – Delay in filing application – In the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be made – The actual intimation has not been brought on record, nor any proof of service.

The Petitioner is a Computer Training Institute, a franchisee of the Computer Management and Information Technology (CMIT), and has been a regular taxpayer for the last 25 years. For the Assessment Year 2008-2009, the Petitioner filed his Income Tax Return through his Chartered Accountant on 31st July 2008. This was the first year of filing e-returns, as the Income Tax Department had transitioned from paper filing to an e-filing mode. According to the Petitioner, the online software through which data was to be entered into the portal did not generate auto-populated tax amounts against the declared incomes. This led to errors, and the amount had to be entered manually.

The Petitioner’s Return was filed on 31st July 2008, which was the last date for filing the Return within the due date. According to the Petitioner, for the Assessment Year in question, he did not receive any intimation under Section 143(1) by post, nor was any intimation visible upon logging into his Income Tax Account electronically.

It transpires that for A.Y. 2018-2019, the Petitioner had claimed a refund of R9,040/- in the return filed with the Income Tax Department. This return was duly processed under Section 143(1) by accepting the income as filed, and the said refund amount, along with interest under Section 244, was approved. However, the Petitioner did not receive credit for this refund because it was purportedly adjusted against an alleged demand for earlier years. This came as a shock to the Petitioner, as he had no knowledge of any such pending demand. It was at this stage that the Petitioner came to know from the portal that a demand of Rs 96,812/- for A.Y. 2008-2009 was outstanding. To ascertain the factual situation, the Petitioner addressed a communication dated 26th November 2019 to the Income Tax Officer, to which there was no response. It is further stated that the Petitioner’s Chartered Accountant also visited the Income Tax Department, and, upon speaking to the concerned ward officials, was advised to lodge a complaint/grievance through the online portal.

Accordingly, the Petitioner filed a grievance on the e-Nivaran portal on 24th January 2020, requesting rectification to nullify the demand. Thereafter, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, from March 2020, all offices were closed, and the Petitioner’s case with respect to the above rectification was temporarily stalled. It has been stated in the Petition that during the period of 2020-2021, the Petitioner and his family faced significant hardship, and the Petitioner was diagnosed with COVID-19 twice during the said period. Due to the severity of his condition, it took considerable time for him to recover. The Petitioner also lost close relatives during this period. Owing to these circumstances, the Petitioner was unable to focus on work-related matters and could not follow up on the grievance filed with the Income Tax Department.

The grievance of the Petitioner filed on the portal was closed on 26th May 2020. The resolution for the grievance stated that the return for A.Y. 2008-2009 declared the income at Rs 5,31,714/- and the credit for prepaid taxes of Rs 35,450/- had already been given. Since the Petitioner contended that the income for that year was Rs 2,81,713, the office was unable to process the rectification request due to the discrepancy between Rs 5,31,714/- and Rs 2,81,713.

Thereafter, upon closely examining the Return filed for A.Y. 2008-2009, the Petitioner found that there was a clear mistake in the original computation, namely, that the Loss from House Property of Rs. 1,50,000/-, was not included in the Return. This occurred because the Petitioner had availed a housing loan at that time, and had claimed such deductions in earlier as well as subsequent years. However, it was inadvertently omitted for A.Y. 2008-2009.

The Petitioner subsequently filed an application under Section 119(2)(b) dated 12th October 2023 with the PCIT-41, seeking permission to file a revised Return for A.Y. 2008-2009 to bringing on record the correct figures. This application was rejected by order dated 25th November 2024, and hence, the present Petition.

The Petitioner contended that the Respondent had rejected the application despite the fact that no intimation under Section 143(1) was either issued or served upon the Petitioner, and therefore, no demand could legally exist. If no demand exists, the question of adjusting the refund for Assessment Year 2018-2019 against a non-existent demand of A.Y. 2008- 2009 does not arise. On this basis, the learned counsel for the Petitioner submitted that the impugned demand of Rs 1,78,495/-, as reflected on the Income Tax e-portal on 10th March 2025, be set aside, and consequently, the interest levied/accrued thereon also be quashed.

The Petitioner, relied upon the decision of this Court in Udayan Bhaskaran Nair Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax-42(3)(1), Mumbai and Ors. (Writ Petition No. 1363 of 2025 decided on 13th January 2026) as well as in the case of Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle-1(1), Pune and Ors. (Writ Petition No. 16068 of 2024 decided on 24th March 2026).

The Revenue contended that there had been negligence on the part of the Petitioner in approaching the Respondent under Section 119(2)(b) for filing the revised Return, and therefore, the Respondent had rightly declined to entertain the application. The Revenue also tendered an email dated 15th April 2026, enclosing a screenshot of the Income Tax Department portal, which appeared to suggest that an intimation under Section 143(1) was /issued on 22nd September 2009 and served on 2nd October 2009. However, the actual intimation was not been brought on record, nor was there any proof of service. This position was admitted.

The Hon. Court observed that, in the case of Udayan Bhaskaran Nair (supra), it had been held that service of intimation under Section 143(1) is mandatory for raising a demand on the assessee. In the absence of such intimation or any independent notice of demand, recovery of such a non-existent demand cannot be made against the Assessee.

Further, the decision in Udayan Bhaskaran Nair (supra) was reiterated in Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. (supra), Where the Court held that when the Department failed to produce the order giving rise to the demand, despite RTI applications and court directions, the demand was liable to be quashed. The Bench held that, in the absence of any intimation or order raising the demand, recovery of such non-existent demand cannot be sustained.

It was mandatory for the Income Tax Department to serve the intimation under Section 143(1) on the Assessee before any demand could be raised. In the facts of the present case, admittedly, apart from the screenshots produced, no intimation under Section 143(1) was brought on record, nor was any material placed to establish that the said demand had in fact been served on the Petitioner.

The Court Was Of The View That No Refund Could Have Been Adjusted Against A Non-Existent Demand. Accordingly, The Petition Was Allowed.

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable; B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

10. Capgemini Technology Services India Limited v. DCIT:

TS-455-HC-2026(BOM):

A. Ys. 2001-02 to 2003-04: Date of order 24/03/2026:

S. 127 and 220 of ITA 1961 and Article 226(2) of the Constitution

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable;

B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

The assessee is a company. The assessee company is the successor company following two successive amalgamations, that is:

a. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited amalgamated into Kappa Investment Limited vide order dated 16/05/2007. The name of the said company was changed to Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited.

b. Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited amalgamated into the assessee company vide order dated 23/12/2022.

In February 2023, the assessee received a recovery notice u/s. 220 of the Act from the Assessing Officer in Delhi requiring the assessee to pay the outstanding demands aggregating to Rs.33.39 lakhs for the A. Ys. 2001-02, 2002-03 and 2003-04. The said notice was in the name of the first mentioned company viz. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited.

Since the assessee was not aware of any such outstanding demands, the assessee filed an application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) seeking copies of orders from which the demands were emanating. The assessee received a response from Assessing Officer in Delhi that the demands were on account of rectification / intimation orders, however, no such orders were provided to the assessee. Some screenshots of the computation sheets were provided and for A. Y. 2003-04, it was stated that no records were available.

The assessee filed appeal under the RTI Act wherein directions were issued to the Assessing Officer in Delhi to furnish full information. Despite the directions, no orders were supplied.

The assessee filed a petition before the Bombay High Court, contending that the demands were non-existent and the recovery was bad in law. A transfer of jurisdiction had taken place from Delhi to Pune and an order (dated 13/12/2023) to that effect was produced by the assessee.

The core issue before the High Court was as to whether the Hon’ble Bombay High Court had the territorial jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution to entertain a writ petition challenging the recovery notice and tax demands originally raised by the Assessing Officer in Delhi against an erstwhile (amalgamated) entity, after the jurisdiction was transferred to Pune and the successor assessee company’s registered office is in Pune.

The High Court allowed the petition and held that it had jurisdiction and on merits, the recovery notices were not maintainable. The High Court held as follows:

“i) The jurisdictional issue of High Court to issue writs against authorities located outside its territories has evolved significantly; Highlighting the provisions of Article 226(2) of Constitution of India as it stood prior to amendment by Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963,

ii) In the present case, the erstwhile entity has amalgamated with the Petitioner, which has its registered office in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice was received in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice and the demands, even if originating from orders passed in Delhi, have a direct impact on the Petitioner in Pune which is within the jurisdiction of this Court; the Petitioner who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, would be affected by the recovery notice and the alleged demands; the consequences of the recovery notices and the alleged demand will be felt in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; it is the Petitioner, who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, who has to defend the proceedings and face the coercive recovery actions. Therefore, a part of the cause of action has clearly arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court. Further, future recovery notices would be issued by the assessing officer in Pune and he is the Officer who would initiate recovery proceedings. Since, the assessing officer in Pune is an authority within the jurisdiction of this Court therefore, the cause of action, at least in part, has arisen so as to confer this Court with the jurisdiction to entertain the present Petition.

iii) Further, in the present case, vide the transfer order dated 13/12/2023, the jurisdiction is transferred from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 of the Act. Thus, a transfer [u/s. 127] implies that all proceedings under the Act in respect of any year which may be pending or which may have been completed or which is yet to be initiated is transferred to the transferee officer. Thus, the jurisdiction over the completed assessments of A.Y.2001-02 to A.Y.2003-04 also stands transferred to the Pune Officer i.e., Respondent No.1. The Delhi Officer is now functus officio. Any relief regarding the impugned demands can only be granted by the Pune Officer (Respondent No.1). The Petitioner is, therefore, correct in contending that since the officer who is to defend the case, redress grievances, and deal with recovery of the alleged demand, is now in Pune. Therefore, he is the right officer to whom a writ can be issued.

iv) Article 226(2) has used the phrase “may also be exercised” which clearly suggests that Article 226(2) is not an additional condition but an alternate condition. Moreover, Article 226(1), as interpreted by the Apex Court provides for a Court to issue a writ only to the authorities within the territories of that Court, whereas Article 226(2) provides that notwithstanding that the seat of Government or authority or the residence of such person is not within those territories, a writ can be issued by a Court where part or whole of cause of action arise. The two clauses are mutually exclusive and both cannot apply simultaneously by the very wordings of the clauses. Therefore, it is not correct to argue that for Article 226(2) to apply, Article 226(1) has to trigger. If this view is accepted, then perhaps, Article 226(2) would become redundant. The whole purpose of introducing Article 226(2) was to alleviate the inconvenience caused to the Petitioners by dragging them to the Court which exercises jurisdiction over the authority or the Respondent within the territorial jurisdiction of such Court.

v) Accordingly, we reject the preliminary objection regarding territorial jurisdiction. We are of the considered view that at least part of the cause of action has arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court, and therefore, we proceed to deal with the merits of the case.

vi) In the present case, there is absolutely no material on record to substantiate the existence of valid orders giving rise to the impugned demands. The Respondents have failed to produce the orders and service records, despite repeated opportunities. The failure of Respondent No.2 to respond and the inability of the Pune Officer to locate records leads to the inevitable conclusion that no such valid orders exist or were ever served upon the Petitioner. An adverse inference must necessarily be drawn against the Respondents.

vii) Old matters and demands cannot be allowed to suddenly surface on the portal without the underlying orders being available and served. Consequently, the impugned demands cannot be sustained.”

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

9. Suresh P. Bhadani (HUF) vs. ITO:

TS-40-HC-2026-Guj:

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 06/01/2026:

Ss. 143(3), 147, 148 and 148(d) of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

The Karta of the Assessee HUF purchased an office, the agreement for purchase of which was executed on 20/06/2017 and thereafter registered sale deed was executed on 28/06/2017. The return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 was filed declaring NIL total income. The case was selected for scrutiny and notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued. The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Act accepting the returned income of the assessee.

Subsequently, in March 2022, re-assessment proceedings were initiated for the reason that the difference in price at which the property was purchased by the assessee and the valuation as per the stamp duty was taxable in the hands of the assessee u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer passed an order u/s. 148A(d) on 01/04/2022 holding the case to be fit case for re-opening of assessment and issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for re-opening the assessment.

The Assessee challenged the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act on the ground that the same issue was considered during the course of original assessment proceedings and the submissions of the assessee were accepted and the income returned by the assessee was accepted without any modification. Therefore, re-opening of assessment on the same issue amounted to change of opinion which was impermissible even under the new provisions of re-opening of assessment.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) The reasons recorded in the Order issued u/s. 148A(d) of the Act was already considered by the Assessing Officer in the Assessment Order dated 30/11/2020. The Assessing Officer does not have the power to review his own assessment arrived at during the original assessment. The petitioner had provided all the information which was considered by the respondent. It was also categorically accepted by learned Senior Standing Counsel Mr. Rutvij Patel that the initiation of the reassessment proceedings was on the basis of reassessment made in the case of co-owner Ms. Bhavnaben. However, the issue which was already concluded by way of assessment order dated 30/11/2020, cannot be reopened again on the very same material

ii) It is settled law that the proceedings u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be initiated to review the earlier stand adopted by the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer cannot initiate reassessment proceedings to have relook with the documents filed in the original assessment proceedings. The power to re-examine cannot be exercised from time to time. This issue has been categorically settled by the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi v. Kelvinator of India Limited reported in (2010) 320 ITR 561. In view of the above, the present petition is required to be allowed and the same is hereby allowed. The impugned order dated 01/04/2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and the notice of same date issued u/s. 148 of the Act are hereby quashed and set aside.”

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

8. Chhattisgarh Rajya Open School v. Dy. CIT(Exemption): (2026) 485 ITR 349 (Chhattisgarh)

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 10/06/2025

Ss. 11, 12, 12A(2) and proviso, 12AA of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

The appellant-assessee society was established with the direction of the Education Department, State of Chhattisgarh on January 10, 2008. The assessee filed its return for the A. Y. 2016-17 on March 31, 2018 declaring the income as Rs. nil. On September 30, 2018, the case of the assessee-society was selected for scrutiny assessment u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the meanwhile, the appellant herein filed an application for registration u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act in the prescribed form claiming exemption on the ground that it is an education institution and involved in charitable purposes which was eventually rejected on April 29, 2019 against which it has preferred an appeal and ultimately, on second round, on July 14, 2023, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) granted approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act to the appellant with effect from April 1, 2019. However, the scrutiny assessment was completed and the Assessing Officer declined the assessee’s claim for exemption of the excess of income over expenditure of Rs.5.24 crores (approximately) u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Income-tax Act and passed the assessment order on December 12, 2018 against which the assessee preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) which was ultimately rejected on October 17, 2019.

The assessee preferred an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal questioning the order of the Assessing Officer as affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and an additional ground was taken that the approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act has been granted by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) on July 14, 2023 and, therefore, by virtue of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act, exemption would apply retrospectively.

The Tribunal by the impugned order rejected the appeal holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act has wrongly been construed, as the assessment proceeding was not pending before the Assessing Officer on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023 and accordingly proceeded to dismiss the appeal.

The assessee filed appeal to High Court u/s. 260A of the Act and raised the following substantial question of law:

“Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is justified in dismissing the appeal by ignoring the order granting approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act which was passed on July 14, 2023 during the pendency of appeal by holding that first proviso to sub-section (2) of section 12A is not attracted and further ignoring the fact that the appeal was already pending before it (ITAT), by recording a finding which is perverse to the record?”

The Chhattisgarh High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the assessment proceeding u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act was adjudicated by the Assessing Officer on December 12, 2018 and on that day, though the appellant-assessee made application u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, it was rejected on July 29, 2019 and after assessment by the Assessing Officer, on second round, ultimately, exemption was granted on July 14, 2023 with effect from April 1, 2019 and thereafter, the assessment proceeding was subjected to appeal by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) also dismissed the appeal on October 17, 2019, as such, on the date of registration, i.e., on July 14, 2023, appeal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, but the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal rejected the contention of the appellant herein holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act would not be applicable as the assessment proceedings were not pending as on the date of registration and, therefore, the first proviso to section 12A(2) would not be applicable to the appellant herein.

ii)
A careful perusal of the aforesaid circular would show that it mandates that registration will have the effect for the period prior to the year of registration or in respect of which the assessment proceedings are pending and the provisions of section 12A of the Income-tax Act entailed unintended consequences of non-application of registration for the period prior to the year of registration and, thereby, non-grant of exemption under sections 11 and 12 up to grant of registration. This position was also recognised by the Central Board of Direct Taxes while issuing the Explanatory Notes to the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 ((2014) 366 ITR (Stat) 21), vide Central Board of Direct Taxes Circular No. 1 of 2015, dated January 21, 2015 ((2015) 371 ITR (Stat) 22). It is, thus, a curative proviso, which is but merely declaratory of the previous law. It has, by removal of the hardship, rendered the procedure more relief oriented. It adequately complies with the natural justice principle of fairness to all. Hence, it has to be presumed and construed as retrospective in nature, in order to give the section a purposive interpretation. (See CIT (Exemptions) v. Shree Shyam Mandir Committee, [(2018) 400 ITR 466 (Raj); 2017 SCC OnLine Raj 4367.] paragraph 26.)

iii) In the instant case, admittedly, on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023, the assessment proceeding which has been affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, which came to be dismissed on September 7, 2023. The question for consideration would be, whether the assessment proceeding as stated in the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act can be taken as pending appeal, in other words, whether the assessment proceeding pending in appeal can be taken to be the proceeding pending before the Assessing Officer? Since the appeal was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act, though it was the second appeal, but in that appeal, substantial question of law was not required to be formulated which was required to be formulated in appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, as such, that appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the assessment order affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is the continuation of original assessment proceedings by the Assessing Officer.

iv) It is a settled position of law that an appeal is a continuation of the proceedings of the original court. Ordinarily, the appellate jurisdiction involves a rehearing on law as well as on fact and is invoked by an aggrieved person. The first appeal is a valuable right of the appellant and therein all questions of fact and law decided by the trial court are open for reconsideration. Therefore, the first appellate court is required to address itself to all the issues and decide the case by giving reasons. The court of first appeal must record its findings only after dealing with all issues of law as well as fact and with the evidence, oral as well as documentary, led by the parties. The judgment of the first appellate court must display conscious application of mind and record findings supported by reasons on all issues and contentions (see : Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari, [(2001) 251 ITR 84 (SC); (2001) 3 SCC 179; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 375.] followed in Madhukar v. Sangram, [(2001) 4 SCC 756; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 682.], B.M. Narayana Gowda v. Shanthamma, [(2011) 15 SCC 476; (2014) 2 SCC (Civ) 619; 2011 SCC OnLine SC 673.], H.K.N. Swami v. Irshad Basith, [(2005) 10 SCC 243; 2004 SCC OnLine SC 731.] and Sri Raja Lakshmi Dyeing Works v. Rangaswamy Chettiar, [(1980) 4 SCC 259; 1980 SCC OnLine SC 102.]).

v) It is held that an appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) affirming the order of the Assessing Officer is the continuation of the original proceedings of the Assessing Officer and thus, the assessment proceeding in appeal pending before the appellate court, i.e., Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and we accordingly hold that appeal proceedings pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal are deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of section 12A of the Income-tax Act. The impugned order so passed after the effective date of grant of registration and subsequent grant of registration on July 14, 2023 operates retrospectively for all relevant years in the present case, the assessment year 2016-17, though registration was granted with effect from April 1, 2019, as we find that the object of the appellant-society is charitable in nature
within the meaning of section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and on which there is absolutely no dispute.

vi) The substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.

vii) Accordingly, we are unable to sustain the impugned order and set aside the same. The appellant-society is entitled for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Income-tax Act. The Assessing Officer is directed to pass consequential order as stated above for the A. Y. 2016-17, expeditiously.

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

7. Classic Legends (P) Ltd. v. Assessment Unit: (2026) 484 ITR 550 (Bom):

Date of order 09/09/2025:

Ss. 92CA(3), 143(3), 144C, 156, 270A, and 271AAC of ITA 1961

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

In respect of the international transaction of the assessee company the Assessing Officer made a reference to the Transfer Pricing Officer u/s. 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Pursuant to this reference, the Transfer Pricing Officer issued notices to the petitioner and thereafter passed an order u/s. 92CA(3) accepting that the international transactions entered into by the assessee with its associated enterprises were at arm’s length price. In other words, the Transfer Pricing Officer made no variation. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer to passed draft assessment order and the final assessment order u/s. 144C r.w.s. 143(3) of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the petitioner is not a non-resident or a foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii). The question is whether the petitioner would fall within the definition of “eligible assessee” as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(i). On a plain reading of the said provision, the petitioner can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is a case of variation referred to in the said sub-section (1) and which arises as a consequence of the order passed by the Transfer Pricing Officer under sub-section (3) of section 92CA. In the facts of the present case, it is an admitted position that there was no variation in the income of the petitioner by virtue of the order of the Transfer Pricing Officer. That being the position, the petitioner cannot be stated to be an “eligible assessee” as defined in clause (b) of sub-section (15) of section 144C of the Income-tax Act. Once this is the case, the entire procedure for issuance of a draft order calling for the petitioner’s objections thereon and taking further steps as laid down u/s. 144C would, therefore, not apply.

ii) We are unable to agree with the contention of the Revenue that the word “variation” appearing in section 144C(1) and 144C(15) would also include “no variation”. This is clear from section 144C(1) itself which categorically states that the Assessing Officer would have to forward a draft assessment order to the “eligible assessee”, if he proposes to make, on or after October 1, 2009, any variation which is prejudicial to the interest of such assessee. When there is no variation, there is no question of any prejudice being caused to the assessee which would then entail him to file any objections to the draft order as contemplated under sub-section (2) of section 144C. We, therefore, find that the arguments canvassed by the Revenue on this aspect is contrary to the statutory provisions.

iii) It is clear that the petitioner in the present case, not being an “eligible assessee” in terms of section 144C(15)(b) of the Income-tax Act, the Assessing Officer was not competent to pass the draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) of the Income-tax Act. Consequently, there was no occasion for him to thereafter pass a final assessment order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(3) read with section 144B of the Income-tax Act. Accordingly, the draft assessment order dated March 8, 2025; the final assessment order dated April 7, 2025 and the demand notice dated April 7, 2025 as well as the show-cause notices dated April 7, 2025 seeking to impose penalty, are all hereby quashed and set aside.”

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

6. Rallis India Ltd. vs. CPC:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 176 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 19/01/2026:

Ss. 143(1) and 145 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

The Assessee filed its return of income wherein the assessee made a suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 crores u/s. 145(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) in respect of the Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS). Subsequently, in December 2022, a notice u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act was issued proposing to make adjustments u/s. 36(1)(va), 145A and 35(1)(iv) of the Act. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny u/s. 143(2) of the Act.

Thereafter, the Assessee received intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act wherein an adjustment of Rs.1284 crores was made in respect of ICDS as against suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 cores made by the assessee. The adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) of the Act was not proposed in the notice issued u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act issued in the month of December 2022.

The Assessee filed a rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act to rectify the mistake apparent on record. The Assessee also filed an application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer and an appeal was filed before the CIT(A) challenging the intimation issued u/s. 143(1).

The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) without making any variation to the total income on the issues raised in the show cause notice, but computing the income of the assessee adopting the income as given in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) which was determined after the adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made to the income returned by the assessee without considering the assessee’s plea to delete the adjustment. The Assessee challenged this order by way of an appeal filed before the CIT(A). The Assessee also filed a letter pointing out that the addition made in the assessment order emanates from intimation and requested that both the appeals be clubbed and heard together.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee against the assessment order and stated that the issue arising from intimation could not be decided in appeal filed against the assessment order and the issue fell beyond statutory boundaries. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal with liberty to the assessee to file the appeal against the intimation without considering the fact that an appeal against the said intimation was already filed and was pending adjudication.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the intimation and the adjustment made in the said intimation. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held that:

“i) The first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act specifically provides that no adjustment shall be made unless an assessee is given an intimation of the adjustment either in writing or in electronic mode and the response received from the assessee must be considered before making any such adjustment.

ii) In the present case, admittedly the Petitioner has not been given any intimation of the ICDS adjustment before passing the impugned intimation. The proposed adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the IT Act on 14 December 2022 did not raise any issue with regard to the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/-, and no opportunity of being heard was granted to the Petitioner on this issue before the intimation was passed. This is, therefore, a clear breach of the principles of natural justice, and in any event in contravention of the jurisdictional requirements laid down in the first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act.

iii) The fact that the Petitioner had exercised alternate remedy does not debar the Petitioner from invoking the jurisdiction of this Court. The breach of principles of natural justice is one exception that is consistently applied in negating a challenge in a writ petition on the ground of alternate remedy [see Whirlpool Corporation v. Registrar of Trade Marks (1998) 8 SCC 1 (SC)].

iv) In the present case more than two years have elapsed since the Petitioner availed of the alternate remedy and yet no effective hearing of the Petitioner’s appeal has taken place. The Petitioner’s appeal against the order u/s. 143(3) was disposed off summarily without dealing with the merits of the adjustment made. The Petitioner has undertaken to withdraw the appeal before Respondent No. 3 within a period of 15 days from this order, which undertaking is accepted. In these circumstances we have entertained and disposed-off the present petition. In view of the aforesaid discussion, the adjustment made in the intimation u/s. 143(1) in respect of the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/- is hereby quashed and set aside.”

Articles 5 and 7 of India-Netherlands DTAA – Consideration received for the use of a digital platform hosted outside India by users to book accommodation did not constitute a fixed or dependent agent permanent establishment.

3. [2026] 183 taxmann.com 201 (Delhi – Trib.)

Booking.Com B.V. vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

A.Y.: 2018-19

Dated: 06.02.2026

Articles 5 and 7 of India-Netherlands DTAA – Consideration received for the use of a digital platform hosted outside India by users to book accommodation did not constitute a fixed or dependent agent permanent establishment.

FACTS

The Assessee was a tax resident of the Netherlands. It held a valid tax residency certificate (“TRC”). The Assessee had developed a digital platform that showed the availability of hotels/guesthouse accommodation to users and enabled them to make reservation. The users and hotels directly entered into contracts for accommodation, and the Assessee acted merely as an intermediary. The Assessee was entitled to a commission, which was payable only after the user made payment for the accommodation, which was not refundable. The platform was hosted outside India.

For the relevant year, the Assessee did not furnish a return of income (“ROI”). Annual Information Return (“AIR”) and Form 26AS of the Assessee reflected certain transactions. Hence, the AO issued show-cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act. As the AO did not receive any response from the Assessee, the AO reopened the matter by issuing a notice under section 148.

In response to the notice under section 148, the Assessee furnished ROI disclosing ‘nil’ income. The AO alleged that the Assessee had a fixed place and dependent agency permanent establishment
(“PE”) in India. Accordingly, the AO attributed the entire receipts as income. The DRP upheld the order of
the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The Assessee was a tax resident of the Netherlands and was entitled to benefits under the India-Netherlands DTAA. The digital platform that enabled users to reserve hotel accommodation was hosted on servers outside India.

The Assessee did not have any place of business or any equipment owned or at its disposal in India. It also did not have any agent or personnel in India. Further, the hotels had not made accommodation available to the Assessee.

The AO had failed to establish with evidence that (i) the Assessee had an identified place in India at its disposal; and (ii) the Assessee carried on its business in India through such place. Hence, the Assessee did not have a fixed PE in India.

The Assessee was entitled to a commission at a fixed rate, which was computed on accommodation charges received by hotels/guesthouses from users. The terms of the agreement between the Assessee and accommodation providers were on a principal-to-principal basis. Hence, there was no element of agency involved.

Accordingly, the ITAT held that the commission, being booking fees received by the Assessee for enabling users to book accommodation, was taxable only in the Netherlands.

Authors’ Note – During the hearing, Revenue argued that commission should be taxable as royalty / FTS following Delhi ITAT ruling in Sabre Decision Technologies International LLC [2023] 152 taxmann.com 51 (Delhi – Trib.). The ITAT did not comment on the same. The said case pertained to an American LLC providing airline booking application, passenger solutions and consulting services. In the absence of TRC, it was held that consideration was taxable as royalty towards use of process or imparting of information / experience under the domestic law without evaluating scope of treaty provisions.

Additions based on loose sheets/excel data seized during search – Assessee being a salaried employee with no business activity – No ownership or nexus of entries established – Entries found to be group financial projections and borrowings – No corroborative evidence or unexplained assets – Additions deleted.

15. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 368 (Chandigarh- Trib.)

DCIT v. Kapil Romana

A.Y.: 2017-18, 2018-19 AND 2019-20

DATE: 16.06.2025

Section: 68 r.w.s. 69C & 115BBE

Additions based on loose sheets/excel data seized during search – Assessee being a salaried employee with no business activity – No ownership or nexus of entries established – Entries found to be group financial projections and borrowings – No corroborative evidence or unexplained assets – Additions deleted.

FACTS

A search and seizure operation was conducted in the case of the Homeland Group and the assessee, who was a salaried employee managing the financial affairs of the group. During the course of the search, certain loose papers and excel sheets titled “BTD-2011” were found containing details of credit limits, financial arrangements, and names of certain parties with amounts mentioned therein.

The Assessing Officer treated such entries as representing unsecured loans and unexplained expenditure of the assessee and made additions under sections 68 and 69C read with section 115BBE, alleging that the assessee had raised unaccounted funds.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the seized documents did not contain the name of the assessee and merely reflected financial details and projections relating to group entities. It was further noted that the assessee was only a salaried employee with no independent business activity and that no nexus between the entries and the assessee had been established. Accordingly, the additions were deleted.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the seized documents reflected details of credit facilities, borrowings, and financial arrangements of various group concerns and supported the assessee’s explanation that he was managing the financial affairs of the group.

It was noted that the assessee was deriving only salary income and was not maintaining any personal books of account, and no material was brought on record to show that the assessee was engaged in any independent business activity.

The Tribunal further observed that certain entries in the seized documents were found to be reflected in the books of group concerns, thereby supporting the contention that the documents related to group transactions and financial projections rather than personal transactions of the assessee.

It was emphasized that no unexplained assets, investments, or money were found during the course of the search of the assessee, which could corroborate the alleged undisclosed income.

The Tribunal held that the Assessing Officer had failed to establish ownership of the seized documents or any nexus between the entries and the assessee, and that additions were made merely on the basis of assumptions and misinterpretation of documents.

Accordingly, concurring with the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals), the Tribunal held that the additions made under sections 68 and 69C were unsustainable and dismissed the Revenue’s appeals.

Cash deposits – Source explained as advance received under agreement to sell agricultural land and agricultural income – Unregistered agreement supported by affidavits – No requirement of registration for such agreement – Affidavits not rebutted – Explanation held reasonable – Addition deleted.

14. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 544 (Amritsar – Trib.)

Anbhao Parkash vs. ITO

A.Y.: 2012-13

DATE: 30.06.2025

Section: 69

Cash deposits – Source explained as advance received under agreement to sell agricultural land and agricultural income – Unregistered agreement supported by affidavits – No requirement of registration for such agreement – Affidavits not rebutted – Explanation held reasonable – Addition deleted.

FACTS

The assessee, an agriculturist, had deposited cash amounting to ₹16.75 lakhs in his bank account. Based on such deposits and the absence of a return of income, proceedings under section 147 were initiated, and the Assessing Officer made an addition under section 69, treating the cash deposits as unexplained.

The assessee explained that a sum of ₹10 lakhs was received in cash as advance against an agreement to sell agricultural land, and the balance amount was sourced from agricultural income earned from land cultivated jointly with his father, including leased land.

The assessee furnished a copy of the agreement to sell, executed on stamp paper and affidavits of witnesses confirming the transaction. However, the Assessing Officer and the Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the explanation primarily on the ground that the agreement was unregistered and that the supporting documents were not acceptable.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there is no legal requirement for compulsory registration of an agreement to sell agricultural land, and therefore, the validity of such agreement cannot be doubted merely on the ground of non-registration.

It was noted that the affidavits of witnesses confirming the receipt of advance were not controverted by the Assessing Officer through cross-examination, and therefore, such evidence could not be disregarded.

The Tribunal held that, in the absence of any material to the contrary, the explanation of the assessee that the cash deposit of ₹10 lakhs was sourced from advance received under the agreement to sell was reasonable and acceptable.

With respect to the balance deposits, the Tribunal observed that agricultural income earned from cultivated land, including leased land, was supported by documentary evidence such as J-forms and lease agreements, and the genuineness of the agricultural activity had not been disputed by the revenue.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessee had satisfactorily explained the source of cash deposits and that the addition made under section 69 was not sustainable. The addition was therefore deleted, and the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Where the assessee-trust was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes which were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development, and the assessee was not engaged in profit maximisation or charging disproportionately high fees, the activities could not be regarded as commercial activities but fell within “education” and were not hit by proviso to section 2(15).

13. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 634 (Chennai Trib)

DCIT vs. ICT Academy of Tamil Nadu

A.Y.: 2017-18

DATE: 25.03.2026

Section: 2(15)

Where the assessee-trust was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes which were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development, and the assessee was not engaged in profit maximisation or charging disproportionately high fees, the activities could not be regarded as commercial activities but fell within “education” and were not hit by proviso to section 2(15).

FACTS

The assessee was a society registered under section 12A and was engaged in activities relating to skill development, training, certification, and employability enhancement of students and faculty in coordination with Government bodies and educational institutions. It conducted structured training programmes, faculty development initiatives, and vocational courses aligned with national skill development policies. For AY 2017-18, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a total income as Nil after claiming exemption under section 11.
The case of the assessee was selected for scrutiny through CASS. The AO held that the said activities fell under the limb of “general public utility” and invoked the proviso to section 2(15) on the ground that the assessee was generating receipts from certification fees, membership fees, and other related activities, which were in the nature of trade, commerce or business. Accordingly, he denied exemption under section 11 and brought to tax the excess of income over revenue expenditure of ₹2.36 crores.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A), who held that the assessee was carrying on educational activities and was entitled to exemption under section 11 and, therefore, deleted the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

Considering the ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in ACIT v. Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority, (2022) 449 ITR 1 (SC), the Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) The dominant object of the assessee was to impart skill-based education and training with the objective of enhancing employability. Such activities, in the present socio-economic context, formed an integral part of the educational framework. The programmes conducted by the assessee were structured, curriculum-based, and aimed at systematic development of skills and knowledge. Therefore, the same could not be equated with mere commercial or business activities.

(b) The receipts earned by the assessee from certification fees, membership fees and training programmes were incidental to its main object of imparting education and skill development. There was nothing on record to indicate that the assessee was engaged in profit maximization or that the fees charged were disproportionately high so as to characterize the activities as trade, commerce or business.

(c)  The finding of CIT(A) that the assessee did not charge fees at market-driven commercial rates and that the surplus, if any, was ploughed back into its charitable activities remained uncontroverted by the Revenue.

(d)  The Revenue failed to demonstrate, on the basis of cogent material, that the assessee’s activities were driven by a profit motive or that they constituted business activities in substance. The mere presence of receipts from training or certification programmes could not, in isolation, lead to the conclusion that the proviso to section 2(15) was attracted.

(e) The financial statements for the impugned year indicated that the assessee had incurred deficits in several years. This clearly showed that the activities were not driven by a profit motive.

Accordingly, the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) and held that the activities of the assessee fell within the ambit of “education” under section 2(15) and were not hit by the proviso thereto Consequently, the assessee was entitled to exemption under sections 11 and 12.

In the result, the appeal of the revenue was dismissed.

Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed was “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, or that the receipts from an activity exceeded the 20% threshold, it could not, by itself, be decisive to deny registration under section 12AB unless CIT(E) examined the actual activities carried on by the trust and determined under which limb of Section 2(15) the activity would fall, and whether the receipts were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to attainment of the objects.

12. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 591 (Mum Trib)

Govardhan Eco Village Trust v. CIT(E)

A.Y.: N.A.

DATE: 23.03.2026

Section: 2(15), 12AB

Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed was “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, or that the receipts from an activity exceeded the 20% threshold, it could not, by itself, be decisive to deny registration under section 12AB unless CIT(E) examined the actual activities carried on by the trust and determined under which limb of Section 2(15) the activity would fall, and whether the receipts were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to attainment of the objects.

FACTS

The assessee was originally granted registration under section 12A in 1998 for the charitable objects of “advancement of educational and social activities”, and “advancement of any other object of general public utility”. In accordance with the new section 12AB introduced in 2021, the assessee obtained provisional registration in 2021 and was subsequently granted registration in 2024 for AY 2022-23 to 2026-27. The trust deed was amended vide instrument dated 19.4.2024, adding an additional object. Hence, the assessee applied for registration under section 12AB in respect of the amended trust deed.

During the registration proceedings, CIT(E) called for various details, including year-wise details of rental income, the purpose thereof, and copies of rent agreements/MOUs for A.Ys. 2022-23 to 2025-26, etc. He also noted that the trust deed, as originally settled in 1988, contained, inter alia, the objects of “advancement of educational and social activities” and “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

Proceeding on that basis, the CIT(E) formed a view that the receipts from rent and sale of agro and goshala products were commercial in nature, and that the aggregate of such receipts exceeded 20% of the total receipts in each of the concerned years. Accordingly, the application under section 12AB(1)(ac)(ii) was liable to be rejected and, consequentially, approval under section 80G was also to be denied.
Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeals before the ITAT against the rejection of application under section 12AB and section 80G.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It was an admitted position that the assessee had already been granted provisional registration, which remained valid up to A.Y. 2025-26. The proceedings arose in the context of the assessee’s application for registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(ii). At that stage, the enquiry was confined to the objects of the trust, the genuineness of its activities, and compliance with the statutory conditions governing registration. Therefore, while examining such application, the CIT(E) was required to determine, on the basis of the trust deed, the actual activities carried on and the supporting material, whether the assessee’s objects were charitable in law, whether the activities were genuine and carried out in furtherance of such objects, and whether the statutory scheme disentitled the assessee from the grant of registration.

(b) Merely because one of the objects in the trust deed referred to “advancement of any other object of general public utility”, it would not, by itself, conclude the matter unless the CIT(E) also examined the dominant and actual activities carried on by the assessee during the relevant period and determined under which limb of section 2(15) such activities properly fell. If, on facts, the activities were found to be in the nature of education, yoga, preservation of environment, or other specific charitable heads, the matter would stand on a footing distinct from a case falling purely under the residuary category of “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

(c) The mere exceedance of the 20% threshold, by itself, could not have been treated as determinative unless the CIT(E) first arrived at a clear finding, on the basis of the objects and actual activities of the assessee, that the case fell under the residuary limb of “advancement of any other object of general public utility” as contemplated under section 2(15).

(d) Likewise, the character of receipts from agro/goshala products and rent could not have been concluded merely on the basics of nomenclature, without examining whether such receipts were intrinsically connected with and incidental to the attainment of the assessee’s stated charitable objects.

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter to the file of CIT(E) for fresh adjudication on –

(i) whether having regard to the assessee’s objects, actual activities and the material on record, the assessee was entitled to registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(ii);

(ii) whether the activities carried on by the assessee fell under the specific charitable limbs of section 2(15) or under the residuary limb of general public utility;

(iii) whether the receipts from rent and sale of agro/goshala products were independent commercial receipts or were merely incidental and ancillary to the attainment of the main charitable objects;

(iv) whether the reliance placed by the assessee on CBDT Circular No. 11 of 2022 (to contend that the assessee should be deemed to be registered under the new regime and that there was no requirement to issue a provisional registration) was applicable in the facts of the case; and

(v) whether the alleged room-renting activity was, in fact, attributable to the assessee itself.

The Tribunal also clarified that the remand should not be construed as disturbing the provisional registration for its stated period of validity, i.e.,, up to AY 2025-26.

Accordingly, the appeals were allowed for statistical purposes.

Where a tenant received a residential flat on the redevelopment of property in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights, the value of such flat cannot be assessed as income from other sources under section 56, since tenancy rights constitute a capital asset Therefore, its surrender is chargeable to tax as capital gains, and the assessee is eligible to claim exemption under Section 54F.

11. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 174 (Mum Trib)

ITO vs. Varun Jaisingh Asher

A.Y.: 2020-21

DATE: 06.03.2026

Section: 54F, 56

Where a tenant received a residential flat on the redevelopment of property in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights, the value of such flat cannot be assessed as income from other sources under section 56, since tenancy rights constitute a capital asset Therefore, its surrender is chargeable to tax as capital gains, and the assessee is eligible to claim exemption under Section 54F.

FACTS

The assessee and his brother became tenants of a family-owned property after the outgoing tenant vacated the premises i 2013 upon receipt of ₹2.75 crores. They occupied the vacated portion and paid rent of ₹5,000 per month to the owner, supported by rent receipts and electricity bills.

Subsequently, the property was proposed to be redeveloped. The redeveloper required a formal agreement, and therefore, a tenancy agreement was registered on 5.8.2014. The owners entered into a joint development agreement on 11.08.2014; a Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement was executed with the developer in March 2017, after which possession was handed over for redevelopment.

Upon receipt of the Occupation Certificate (OC) in February 2020, the assessee received possession of one residential flat of approximately 1,550 sq. ft. in lieu of surrendering tenancy rights. The assessee filed a return of income for AY 2020-21, claiming exemption under section 54F amounting to ₹11.68 crores on the ground that the flat was consideration for transfer of tenancy rights (a capital asset).

During scrutiny proceedings, the AO disregarded the tenancy agreement, treating it as a colourable device, and taxed the value of the flat under section 56(2)(x)(b) as income from other sources, and also denied exemption under section 54F.

Upon appeal, CIT(A) allowed the claim of the assessee and deleted the addition.

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It was evident that the assessee had placed substantial documentary evidence to establish the existence of tenancy rights, including rent receipts, electricity bills, the registered tenancy agreement dated 05.08.2014, MHADA verification records, and the Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement executed with the developer. These documents clearly demonstrated that the assessee had been occupying the premises as a tenant since 01.04.2013 and that the tenancy rights continued until their surrender in the course of redevelopment of the property. The fact that the tenancy agreement was formally registered in 2014 did not invalidate the existence of tenancy, particularly when the surrounding documentary evidence corroborated continuous occupation and payment of rent.

(b) Tenancy rights constitute a capital asset within the meaning of section 2(14) and the surrender thereof amounts to a transfer under section 2(47). The allotment of a residential flat by the developer under the redevelopment scheme represents consideration received in exchange for such surrender of tenancy rights. Therefore, the transaction squarely falls within the ambit of capital gains and cannot be brought to tax under the residuary provisions of section 56(2)(x).

Noting the orders of the Bombay High Court in the case of assessee’s brother in Vivek Jaisingh Asher v. ITO [2024] 162 taxmann.com 127 (Bom), as well as the Coordinate bench in Vasant Nagorao Barabde v. DCIT, (2025) 174 taxmann.com 1015 (Mum-Trib), the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A), who had concluded that the assessee possessed valid tenancy rights and that the flat received on redevelopment constituted consideration for surrender of such rights. Consequently, the addition made by the AO under section 56(2)(x) was directed to be deleted, and the assessee’s claim of exemption under section 54F was allowed.

Accordingly, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the revenue

The revised notification enhancing the ceiling of exemption under section 10(10AA)(ii) to Rs. 25 lakhs operates only from 01.04.2023, and the benefit of the enhanced limit does not apply to employees who had retired earlier.

10. 2026 (4) TMI 918 – ITAT AHMEDABAD

Madan Lal Grover v. ITO

A.Y.: 2020-21

DATE: 10.4.2026

Section: 10(10AA)

The revised notification enhancing the ceiling of exemption under section 10(10AA)(ii) to Rs. 25 lakhs operates only from 01.04.2023, and the benefit of the enhanced limit does not apply to employees who had retired earlier.

FACTS

The Assessee retired from the services of RBI (Samadhan) Unit handling HRO operations for RBI Region in F.Y. 2019-20 (on 31.05.2019) and, upon retirement, received Rs. 15,90,734/- as “Leave Encashment” benefit in terms of section 10(10AA) of the Act.

The assessee filed his return of income on 07.12.2020 (Later Revised on 08.01.2021), claiming the entire amount of Leave Encashment of ₹15,90,734/- u/s 10(10AA)(ii) of the Act. In an intimation dated 8.12.2021, generated upon processing the return of income u/s 143(1)(a) of Act, the amount of leave encashment was restricted to ₹3,00,000, considering that the assessee did not fall within the category of Central/State Govt. Employees u/s 10(10AA)(ii) of Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A), who dismissed the same.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the Assessee has retired from service of Reserve Bank of India during the year under consideration. The disallowance is contrary to the CBDT’s Notification dated 24.05.2023 (No. 31/2023/F.No. 200/3/2023-ITA-1). In view of the notification section 10(10AA)(i) and 10(10AA)(ii) both are at par & since it is clear that as per explanatory memorandum that no person is being adversely affected by giving retrospective effect to this notification.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the Kerala High Court, in the case of Ramesan P. A. vs. Union of India (WP(C) No. 28983 of 2021 order dated 29.01.2024), had held that the benefit of the notification is not applicable to employees who had retired before 1.4.2023. The Tribunal, having noted the ratio of this decision of the Kerala High Court, held that it is bound by the same. Accordingly, the Tribunal upheld the addition made and dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee

The procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income.

9. 2026 (4) TMI 841 – ITAT PUNE

Expert Global Solutions Private Limited v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2021-22

DATE: 10.4.2026

Section: 80JJAA

The procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income.

FACTS

The assessee filed its return of income on 16.02.2022 declaring a total income of Rs. 8,12,99,130/- after claiming a deduction of Rs. 26,06,220/- u/s 80JJA of the Act. For the assessment year under consideration, the due date for filing the income tax return was on or before 30.11.2021, which was extended up to 15.03.2022. However, the assessee filed Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 on 27.01.2023. The due date for filing Form No.10DA for the assessment year 2021-22 was one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1).

The CPC, vide Intimation u/s 143(1) dated 28.12.2022, made an addition of ₹26,06,220/- on account of the belated filing of Form No.10DA, i.e., after the due date of filing of the return.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Addl. / JCIT(A), who dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee. While doing so he noted that the due date for filing of income tax return for assessment year 2021-22 was on or before 30.11.2021, which was extended up to 15.03.2022. Since the assessee filed the return of income on 16.02.2022, the same was within the due date u/s 139(1) of the Act. However, the assessee filed Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 on 27.01.2023. The due date for filing Form No.10DA for assessment year 2021-22 was one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1). Since the assessee filed Form No.10DA on 27.01.2023, the same was after the due date for filing the income tax return. He referred to CBDT Circular No.1/2022 dated 11.01.2022, according to which the CBDT has extended the due date for filing various audit reports up to 15.02.2022. In view of the above, the Addl. / JCIT(A) held that the assessee was not eligible to claim deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act. He, therefore, upheld the order of the CPC in rejecting the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal, where it contended that the procedural requirement of filing Form No.10DA is directory in nature, and mere delay in filing does not warrant denial of the deduction claimed in the return of income. It was also submitted that when the deduction claimed in the formative year has been examined and accepted by the Income Tax Authorities, the balance deduction claimed in subsequent years should not be disturbed until the deduction has been denied or subsequently withdrawn by the tax authorities.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it is an admitted fact that, due to non-submission of Form No.10DA within the stipulated period, the CPC disallowed the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act and made an addition of ₹26,06,220/- to the returned income. It also observed that the Addl. / JCIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee on the ground that the assessee failed to file Form No.10DA one month prior to the due date for furnishing the return of income u/s 139(1) for assessment year 2021-22, therefore was not eligible for deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act. The Tribunal held that it finds merit in the arguments of the Counsel for the assessee. It further observed that an identical issue had come up before the Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Tarasafe International (P.) Ltd. vs. DDIT [(2024) 168 taxmann.com 514 (Kolkata–Trib.)], wherein, under identical circumstances, the Tribunal had allowed the claim of deduction u/s 80JJA of the Act by setting aside the order of the Addl. / JCIT(A).

The Tribunal, having considered the observations in the case of Tarasafe International (P.) Ltd. (supra), held that since the facts of the instant case are identical to those of the said case, and in the absence of any contrary material brought on record by the DR, the order of the Addl. / JCIT(A) was set aside. The Assessing Officer / CPC was directed to allow the deduction to the assessee u/s 80JJA of the Act as claimed. Accordingly, the grounds raised by the assessee were allowed.

Date of allotment is paramount for considering deduction under section 54, and possession of property has, ipso facto, no effect on claim of deduction under section 54. Deduction under section 54 is allowable in respect of an investment made in booking of a flat under construction one year before the date of transfer of the original asset, even though the scheduled date of completion of the flat booked was beyond three years from the date of transfer of the original asset.

8. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 429 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Arvinder Singh Sahni v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of Order: 12.3.2026

Section : 54

Date of allotment is paramount for considering deduction under section 54, and possession of property has, ipso facto, no effect on claim of deduction under section 54. Deduction under section 54 is allowable in respect of an investment made in booking of a flat under construction one year before the date of transfer of the original asset, even though the scheduled date of completion of the flat booked was beyond three years from the date of transfer of the original asset.

FACTS

During the assessment year under consideration, the assessee earned long-term capital gains of ₹2.31 crore upon the sale of a residential house purchased by him in 2011. The house giving rise to long-term capital gain (original asset) was sold on 19.12.2014. The long-term capital gains arising on transfer of the original asset were claimed to be exempt on the ground that the assessee had, on 31.10.2014, booked a new residential house. The booking being within a period of one year prior to the date of transfer of the original asset giving rise to long-term capital gains, meant that the cost of the house booked on 31.10.2014 qualified for deduction under section 54.

The Assessing Officer (AO), while assessing the total income, denied the claim of deduction under section 54 on the ground that, as per the agreement dated 31.10.2014, possession of the new flat was scheduled to be handed over on 31.12.2018, whereas the time period of three years from the date of sale of the original asset expired on 19.12.2017.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO on the ground that the assessee has not satisfied the conditions of section 54 of the Act.

HELD

At the outset, the Tribunal noted that it was not in controversy that the assessee had purchased a new property within one year prior to the date of sale of the original asset on which the capital gain had been earned. The only controversy that arose related to the date of possession of the new property purchased. The authorities below have emphasized that the assessee was required to purchase or construct a property within the time period prescribed under the law, but in the agreement for sale, the proposed date of possession of the newly purchased property, was 31.12.2018.

It observed that –

i) the Jurisdictional High Court in the case of Pr. CIT v. Vembu Vaidyanathan [(2019) 413 ITR 248 (Bom)], a celebrated judgment on the issue, held that the allottee gets title to the property on the issuance of the allotment letter, and that payment of instalments and delivery of possession are merely follow up action and formalities;

ii) It further observed that this judgment of the High Court was subsequently considered by the Apex Court in Pr. CIT v. Vembu Vaidyanathan [(2019) 265 Taxman 535 (SC)], and ultimately affirmed by dismissal of the Special Leave Petition (SLP) filed by the Revenue;

iii) The Karnataka High Court in Pr. CIT v. C. Gopalaswamy [(2016) 384 ITR 307 (Kar)], also dealt with an identical issue, where the date of possession of the property was much beyond the time available for construction as per Section 54F. The Hon’ble High Court rejected the Revenue’s contention that since construction was not completed, , the benefit should not be allowed, and held that the essence of the provision is whether the assessee has invested the capital gains in a residential house. Once it is demonstrated that the consideration received on transfer has been invested in purchase or construction of a residential house, even i the transactions is not complete in all respects, the benefit cannot be denied;

iv) The ratio of the decisions of the Bombay High Court in CIT v. Girish L. Ragha [(2016) 69 taxmann.com 95 (Bom) and the Delhi High Court in CIT v. Kuldeep Singh [(2014) 49 taxmann.com 167 (Delhi)] also support the assessee’s case.

The Tribunal held –

i) Considering the ratio of the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Vembu Vaidyanathan (supra), the date of allotment is paramount for considering the deduction claimed under section 54, and possession of the property has, ipso-facto, no effect on the claim under section 54;

ii) from the aforesaid judgments, it has become clear that the assessee is required to comply with the conditions by purchasing a residential property within one year prior to, or two years after, the date of sale of the property, or by constructing a house within three years after the date of sale of property/earning the capital gain. Therefore, it agreed with the contention of the assessee that possession is not a ‘sine qua non’ for claiming or denying the benefit under section 54;

iii) In the instant case, admittedly, the assessee, within one year prior to the date of sale of the old property and/or earning the capital gain, had purchased a residential property. Therefore, the assessee is entitled to the benefit of the provisions of section 54, and accordingly, the addition made by the Assessing Officer, as affirmed by the Commissioner, is deleted.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed

Rebate granted to the assessee, pursuant to contractual terms, does not constitute real income.

7. TS-258-ITAT-2026(DEL)

Satya Prasan Rajguru v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2021-22

Date of Order: 26.2.2026

Section: 56

Rebate granted to the assessee, pursuant to contractual terms, does not constitute real income.

FACTS

For the assessment year under consideration, the assessee filed the return of income on 31.12.2021, which was subsequently revised on 31.03.2022, declaring a total income of ₹1,94,39,080/- and claiming deduction u/s 54F of the Act to the tune of ₹9,65,05,033/-. The Assessing Officer (AO) denied the claim of deduction under section 54F of the Act.

Further, the AO observed that the assessee has purchased an apartment in Gurugram for a consideration of ₹32,95,29,561 and had received a rebate of ₹9,81,39,230/- from the developer. The AO rejected the contentions of the assessee that the rebate amount cannot result in an addition to the total income, since the stamp duty value of the apartment was lower than the consideration (net of rebate). The AO considered the rebate of ₹9,81,39,230 to be taxable under section 56(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A), who was of the opinion that a rebate of about 28% to 30% is unheard of and beyond preponderance of probabilities. The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal, where, on a without prejudice basis, it contended that the stamp duty value (SDV) of the apartment was ₹14,68,00,000, whereas the flat was purchased for ₹23,13,90,331; therefore, even the provisions of section 56(2)(x) were not applicable.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the lower authorities have taxed the rebate as income under the head `Income from Other Sources’, but it is questionable whether, in the absence of a specific deeming provision, such an action can be sustained. It further observed that there is no real income; rather, it is a benefit by way of rebate, which the department sought to tax as income, which could have been possible only if the stamp duty value was greater than the consideration.

The Tribunal noted that under the Apartment Buyers Agreement, the rebate of ₹9,81,39,230 allowed to the assessee comprised of the following : Down Payment Rebate of ₹4,27,83,490; Move-in Rebate of ₹2,22,90,000; Special Rebate of ₹1,82,05,740; and Timely Payment Rebate of ₹1,48,60,000. It was observed that the assessee had established that this rebate was not something that accrued suddenly at the conclusion of the deal but was very much part of the terms and conditions contained in the apartment buyer’s agreement. It held that this is not a case where the rebate has been earned by the assessee out of any act beyond the terms and conditions of the agreement so as to be even considered as income `earned’; rather, it was a contractual concession given by the builder for complying with the payment schedule. By way of illustration, the Tribunal observed that the Move In Rebate @ ₹3,000 per sq. feet was allowable for timely completion as per the terms and conditions of the agreement, which appeared to be a prudent approach by the builder to ensure that such high-value properties are not left idle or treated merely as investment asset rather than being occupied by actual users.

The Tribunal held that such rebates are neither uncommon nor unprecedented, so as to appear artificial, but are usually granted by builders to encourage timely or early payments. Therefore, treating such rebates as income u/s 56(1) is not sustainable. It further remarked that the CIT(A) had approached the issue from a common man’s perspective of such high-value real estate transactions, without acknowledging that such transactions command a premium due to the amenities and facilities provided.. It held that questioning the business prudence of the builders in granting such rebates cannot be subject matter of inquiry from the purchaser’s end, and thus, the findings of CIT(A) sustaining the additions on the basis of deemed income u/s 56 of the Act cannot be upheld.

Despite the income being exempt, upon the turnover exceeding the specified amount, the requirement of getting the statutory audit done and obtaining the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act in Form-3CD is mandatory.

6. TS-184-ITAT-2026(Kol)

Jalpaiguri Zilla Regulated Market Committee v. ITO

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order : 10.2.2026

Section: 44AB, 271B

Despite the income being exempt, upon the turnover exceeding the specified amount, the requirement of getting the statutory audit done and obtaining the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act in Form-3CD is mandatory.

FACTS

M/s. Jalpaiguri Zilla Regulated Market Committee (AOP) did not file its return of income for AY 2017-18. In view of the information available with the Department that the assessee had deposited cash in its bank account during the FY 2016-17, a notice u/s 142(1) of the Act was issued asking the assessee to furnish its return of income for the AY 2017-18, but there was no response from the assessee in this regard. Therefore, a show cause notice was issued to the assessee, which also resulted in non-compliance.

The Assessing Officer (‘AO’) therefore completed the assessment u/s 144 of the Act by treating the total credits amounting to ₹2,40,65,509/- in its bank account as the total turnover of the assessee. The net profit of the assessee was estimated @8% of the total receipts, which came to ₹19,25,400/- (8% of ₹2,40,65,509/-) for AY 2017-18.

Since the total turnover in this case was estimated at ₹2,40,65,509/- and sufficient & reasonable opportunities were provided to the assessee, but the assessee failed to get its accounts audited as required u/s 44AB of the Act, penalty proceeding u/s 271B of the Act were initiated for non-filing of the Audit report. The AO levied a penalty of ₹1,20,330/- u/s 271B of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A), who, vide order dated 19.09.2025, dismissed the appeal of the assessee on the ground of non-prosecution.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal the Tribunal, where it claimed that its income was exempt, being an Agricultural Produce Market Committee constituted under State law, which is entitled to full tax exemption under section 10(26AAB) of the Act. It was further contended that such an Agricultural Produce Market Committee or Regulated Market Committee is generally not required to undergo a tax audit under section 44AB or to file income tax returns for such exempt income, provided it is used for statutory purposes. The statutory audit, as specified under the relevant Act, was claimed to have been carried out.

HELD

The Tribunal held that, as per the third proviso to section 44AB, in a case where a person is required by or under any other law to get his accounts audited, it shall be sufficient compliance with the provisions of this section if such person gets the accounts of such business or profession audited under such law before the specified date and furnishes, by that date, the report of the audit as required under such other law and a further report by an accountant in the form prescribed under this section.

It held that the assessee was required to get the audit report u/s 44AB of the Act, in addition to the statutory audit carried out in this case, which had not been done. As regards the contention of the assessee that since its income was exempt, it was not liable for audit u/s 271B of the Act, the Tribunal held that a perusal of section 44AB as well as 271B of the Act shows that the requirement of audit and the penal consequence are dehors the findings of the assessment proceedings relating to computation of income, and the audit under section 44AB of the Act is required on the basis of turnover exceeding the prescribed threshold limit. Hence, despite the income being exempt, since the turnover had exceeded the specified amount for the purpose of getting the statutory audit done, the required audit report u/s 44AB of the Act on Form-3CD was required to be filed.

As regards the contention that the assessee had a reasonable cause for not getting the audit carried out, the Tribunal observed that no such reasonable cause was mentioned before it, except for stating that the income was exempt. Therefore, in the interest of justice and fair play, the Bench considered it appropriate to remand the matter to the CIT(A) for giving another opportunity to the assessee to present its case that it had a reasonable cause for not getting the audit done, who shall decide the issue as per law.

AI Implementation In GST Practice

The question before the GST professional today is no longer whether to adopt Artificial Intelligence, but how to do so with rigour, responsibility, and an informed understanding of its limits. This article examines the distinction between rule-based automation and Generative AI, maps each significant practice area of indirect tax work to the appropriate technology, and offers a practitioner’s framework for adoption that keeps professional accountability intact.

I. INTRODUCTION

The Goods and Services Tax framework, by its very design, is a data-intensive, process-heavy, and interpretation-rich regime. Compliance timelines are unforgiving, the volume of transactions is enormous, and the legal landscape evolves continuously through notifications, circulars, advance rulings, and judicial pronouncements. Against this backdrop, the arrival of Artificial Intelligence (‘AI’) represents both a significant opportunity and a set of risks that demand careful navigation.

In common parlance, the term AI is often used generically, and without appropriate differentiation. A firm that deploys a Python script to automate GSTR-2B reconciliation, and a firm that uses ChatGPT to draft a reply to a show-cause notice, are both said to be ‘using AI’, but the technology involved, the risks assumed, and the oversight required are fundamentally different in each case.

The article is organised around the principal practice areas of an indirect tax firm: Compliance, Advisory, Litigation, and Service Delivery. For each, the article examines where rule-based automation is the appropriate tool, where Generative AI adds genuine value, and — critically — where human professional intervention remains non-negotiable. But, before a detailed discussion on these facets, it is important to appreciate the fundamental distinction between automation and Generative AI.

II. AUTOMATION AND GENERATIVE AI — A FUNDAMENTAL DISTINCTION

A. Rule-Based Automation

Rule-based automation operates on a deterministic logic. It executes pre-defined instructions, and the output for a given input is fixed and reproducible. There is no inference, no interpretation, and no element of probability.

In the context of GST practice, automation has been with us for years, even if we have not always labelled it as such. The GST offline utility that accepts an Excel template and generates a JSON for upload is automation. ASP/GSP platforms that pull data from accounting software, populate returns, and file them through API integrations are automation tools. An Excel macro that formats supplier invoices into the GSTR-1 template is automation. A Python script that matches the purchase register against GSTR-2B and generates a mismatch report is automation.

The defining characteristic of all these tools is predictability. The GSTR-2B reconciliation script that runs tonight will produce the same output as the one that ran last Tuesday, given the same input data.

This predictability is what makes automation trustworthy for compliance tasks, where the cost of an error is a wrong return and can bear serious legal consequences.

B. Generative AI — A Probabilistic Engine

Generative AI — represented by large language models (LLMs) such as ChatGPT (OpenAI), Claude (Anthropic), Gemini (Google), and domain-specific tools like TaxGPT — operates on an entirely different principle. These models do not execute pre-defined rules. They have been trained on vast corpora of text, and when queried, they generate outputs by predicting the most statistically probable sequence of words in response to the input.

This implies that the same query can produce different outputs in different sessions. The model does not look up a database. It generates, and what it generates is a function of its training data, the structure of the prompt, and an element of randomness built into the generation process itself.

This randomness is not a flaw in the technology, rather it is its fundamental nature. The same prompt can result in different responses in terms on end conclusion, depth of reasoning, usage of words, grammar or style of drafting.

The difference is not one of degree but of kind. Automation executes. Generative AI generates. The first is a tool. The second is a collaborator — and like all collaborators, it requires supervision.

AI in GST

III. THE RISKS OF GENERATIVE AI — WHAT EVERY PROFESSIONAL MUST UNDERSTAND

A. Hallucinations

The term ‘hallucination’ in the context of AI refers to the generation of factually incorrect information presented with complete confidence. In the context of GST practice, hallucinations can take several forms:

  •  Fabricated CBIC circular numbers
  • Wrong section references
  • Non-existent AAR or AAAR rulings or Court decisions
  • Overturned or irrelevant Court decisions
  • Pre-amendment tax rates, thresholds, or compliance timelines presented as currently applicable

What makes hallucinations particularly dangerous in a professional advisory context is that they are indistinguishable from accurate output without independent verification. For professionals therefore, the rule should be: no AI-generated citation, whether of a section, a circular, a notification, or a judicial decision, should be included in any client communication, opinion, or legal submission without independent verification against the primary source.

B. Confidentiality — An Overlooked but Critical Dimension

The terms of service of most public-facing LLM platforms permit the use of user inputs for model training and improvement, unless the user has specifically opted out of such data sharing or is accessing the service under an enterprise agreement with explicit data privacy protections.

Professionals should therefore understand the data risk involved. Client GSTINs, turnover figures, ITC positions, outstanding demand details, the substance of notices received, and litigation strategy constitute confidential professional information. The ICAI Code of Ethics imposes a duty of confidentiality that extends to all forms of communication and, by necessary implication, to AI tools used in the course of professional work. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 adds a further regulatory dimension to the handling of identifiable personal and commercial data.

A CA who pastes a client’s show-cause notice — with GSTIN, turnover, and transactional details intact — into a public LLM to generate a draft reply has shared client-privileged information with a third-party platform. The fact that the tool is useful does not make the disclosure permissible.

The mitigation is clear: establish a firm-level AI Data Usage Policy before any tool is deployed. At a minimum, all prompts involving client-specific facts must pass through a redaction protocol — client name replaced with ‘Assessee’, GSTIN with ‘GSTIN-XX’, specific financial figures with placeholders — before being submitted to any public AI tool.

A word of caution: Redaction can be done in various modes. Some redacted text can be retrieved through tools, and if the redaction is reversible, it does not serve any purpose. Further, if the redaction is carried out through an online tool (ILOVEPDF and the likes), the problem is really not resolved. It merely swaps position from a GenAI platform to the redaction platform

C. Unpredictability, Knowledge Cutoffs, and the Audit Trail Problem

The non-deterministic nature of LLM outputs means that the position a tool took on a query today may not be reproduced tomorrow. This creates an audit trail problem: if an AI-generated draft is challenged, the professional cannot reconstruct the basis for the output with the precision that professional workpapers typically require.

Secondly, all LLMs have a training cutoff date — a point beyond which their knowledge of events, legislation, and judicial developments is absent or incomplete. Finance Act amendments, fresh CBIC notifications, and significant AAR orders issued after the cutoff are simply unknown to the model. For a practice area that evolves as rapidly as GST, this is an limitation to be aware about.

IV. MAPPING THE RIGHT TOOL TO THE RIGHT TASK

With the distinction between automation and Generative AI clearly understood, the practitioner needs a framework for deciding which tool to use for which task. Essentially, any task which is rule or process based should be a subject matter of automation rather than Generative AI. Such tasks may involve high volume, but low judgement which can be pre-defined through flowcharts. There may be cluster of tasks in the form of a workflow. The benefits of automation are immense. Once a software is prepared and tested for reconciliation, the reports provided by the software do not need significant human oversight thereafter. However, if Generative AI is used for such tasks, the professional will have to factor the randomness of GenAI and have significant component of human verification of the output before the same can be sent back to the client or uploaded on the portal. Secondly, the professional also undertakes a risk of breach of data confidentiality. Most input data in compliance tasks is client specific and redacting that data would reduce the utility of the entire process. For example, to generate a GSTR1, proper sales register needs to be uploaded, redacted one cannot do the job. Therefore, most of the compliance tasks are amenable to automation rather than Generative AI.

The benefits of Generative AI are triggered when there is a genuine case of generation of content. For example, drafting a reply to a show cause notice. However, as stated earlier, Generative AI comes with significant risks of data confidentiality, hallucinations and unpredictability. Therefore, the draft output can only be considered as an assistant or ‘first
draft’ requiring significant human editing and intervention thereafter. Despite the limitations and need for significant human intervention, there is a clear role of Generative AI in advisory and litigation practices.

Interestingly most GenAI tools can write detailed codes and Agentic AI tools can even automate workflows. Several use cases in the compliance domain exist to use GenAI tools to not directly perform a compliance task but to write codes and develop and debug automation tools that will perform the compliance tasks predictably – essentially offering the best of both the worlds!

V. COMPLIANCE PRACTICE — AUTOMATION FIRST, GENERATIVE AI AS ENABLER

A. The Case for Automation

Returns filing, reconciliations, and portal-related tasks are the natural home of rule-based automation. GSTR-1, GSTR-3B, GSTR-9, and GSTR-9C all follow fixed structures, operate on deterministic rules, and produce outputs that must be identical given the same source data. Compliance software platforms have automated large parts of this workflow. Where customised integrations are required, tools ranging from Tally’s GST modules to Python-scripted API calls to the GSTN infrastructure can handle the job reliably.

The GSTR-2B reconciliation process, in particular, is a classic automation task. The logic is fixed: match supplier GSTINs, invoice numbers, and amounts between the purchase register and GSTR-2B; flag unmatched items; categorise by nature of mismatch; generate an exception report. A well-written Python script or Excel macro will perform this task with 100% consistency at any hour, on any day, without fatigue or error of omission. This is what automation promises, and in compliance work, it delivers.

B. Generative AI as Code Generator

As explained above, the role of Generative AI in the compliance practice should not be to perform compliance tasks but to build the tools that perform them. This is a distinction of considerable practical importance. A professional can describe a reconciliation requirement in plain English to GenAI tool — ‘I need a Python script that reads GSTR-2B data from an Excel file, matches it against our purchase register on the basis of GSTIN and invoice number, and generates a report of unmatched items with the reason for mismatch’. The script can be tested and post verification and debugging (which also can be assisted by the GenAI tool), can be deployed on an ongoing basis without much risk.

The same principle applies to Excel macro generation, SQL query construction, and browser automation scripts using tools such as Selenium, which can be directed to log into the GST portal, navigate to the notices section, download pending notices, and save them to a designated folder — all without human intervention. Platforms such as UiPath and Power Automate offer enterprise-grade Robotic Process Automation capabilities, while Python with the requests and BeautifulSoup libraries provides accessible, scriptable alternatives for technical teams.

It is important to reiterate that all AI-generated code must be tested and validated by a human professional on non-production data before deployment on live client data. The code is a draft. The professional is the reviewer. The accountability for the output remains with the firm.

VI. ADVISORY & LITIGATION PRACTICE — THE HIGHEST STAKES FOR HALLUCINATION

A. Risks and Benefits

Advisory and litigation work are classic examples where the firm generates customised client specific drafts and thus, these areas are prime candidates for usage of Generative AI.

Advisory work like classification opinions, ITC eligibility determinations, place of supply analyses, valuation under the GST Valuation Rules can benefit from the drafting generated by GenAI.

Similarly, the entire spectrum of litigation practice, from replies to demand notices, through appeals before the first appellate authority and the GST Appellate Tribunal, to High Court and Supreme Court proceedings can immensely benefit from usage of GenAI.

Despite the benefits of GenAI in these sectors, the risks of confidentiality and hallucinations continue. In fact, they get amplified immensely. A wrong legal opinion, issued to a client, acted upon, and later found to be based on a fabricated circular, exposes the professional to liability that no amendment can cure.

The ‘confident wrongness’ characteristic of large language models — their tendency to produce incorrect information with the same grammatical fluency and apparent authority as correct information — is the central challenge. Unlike a junior colleague who might hedge an uncertain answer, an LLM does not signal its own uncertainty. It generates the most probable response, whether or not that response is accurate.

B. The Choice of Tool — Open vs. Closed LLMs

The above risks suggest a conscious choice of an AI Tool. A public LLM would have the risks of both confidentiality as well as hallucinations. As compared to the use of such a public LLM, a private or a closed LLM can ensure ring-fencing of hallucination risk. If the LLM can be customised using Retrieval Augmented Generation (‘RAG’, discussed below), it could help in providing grounded realistic responses with verifiable citations based on uploading of all relevant source data like law, circulars, decisions, etc.

C. Retrieval Augmented Generation — The Practical Solution

Therefore, Retrieval Augmented Generation (RAG) represents the most practically accessible solution to the hallucination problem for advisory and litigation work. In a RAG architecture, the LLM does not generate answers purely from its training data. Instead, when a query is submitted, the system first retrieves the most relevant documents from a curated knowledge base — CBIC notifications, circulars, AAR and AAAR orders, High Court and Supreme Court judgments, CBIC FAQs — and provides these as context to the model before generating a response. The answer is therefore grounded in known, verifiable documents, and the citations produced can be checked against the retrieved source.

Building such a knowledge base is an investment, but not an insurmountable one. Most GST practices already maintain organised archives of CBIC circulars and relevant judicial pronouncements. The incremental step is to make these archives machine-readable and searchable in a format compatible with RAG-based deployment.

In the long term, developing a private LLM based on RAG architecture can present significant advantages to the firm. However, the investment and efforts would be huge. One may consider a public RAG based LLM (like Notebook LM from Google) to reap the benefit with reduced efforts and costs.

D. The Human-in-the-Loop Imperative

Regardless of the tool chosen, the advisory workflow with Generative AI must maintain human professional intervention at each critical stage. The model can identify relevant provisions, synthesise case law, and produce a structured first draft. The partner or senior manager must verify each citation, review the reasoning, and take professional ownership of the final opinion or appeal before it reaches the client. AI output issued directly to a client, without this intermediate step, is not professional advisory work — it is a liability waiting to materialise.

E. Some Use Cases: Where Generative AI Genuinely Helps

Within these constraints, Generative AI offers real productivity gains in litigation practice. The most significant is in summarisation. A senior practitioner reviewing a 150-page High Court order for its applicability to a pending matter can use a private LLM to generate a structured summary — identifying the principal issue, the ratio of the decision, the facts that were material to the outcome, and the observations that distinguish it from other cases — in a fraction of the time that manual reading would require. This is a genuine productivity gain.

Similarly, Generative AI can assist in structuring replies to show-cause notices, identifying the appropriate legal framework, drafting the preliminary objections, and organising the factual narrative. The professional then refines the draft, adds the specific client facts, verifies all legal references, and takes ownership of the final submission.

Judicial precedent research is another area of value. A query such as ‘What are the major High Court and tribunal decisions on the eligibility of ITC on construction of a factory building under Section 17(5)(d)?’ can yield a structured overview of the judicial landscape in seconds — a starting point for deeper research, not a substitute for it.

VII. SERVICE DELIVERY — THE VISIBLE FACE OF AI ADOPTION

Beyond the core practice areas, Generative AI offers significant opportunities for enhancing the service delivery infrastructure of a GST practice.

Website content and knowledge dissemination benefit from AI’s capacity to generate well-structured, readable explanations of GST developments rapidly. A GST update on a significant notification or circular — the kind of content that builds a firm’s reputation as a thought leader and drives client enquiries — can be produced in a fraction of the time that manual drafting requires. The firm’s editorial oversight, applied before publication, ensures accuracy.

Presentation and document generation is another area where AI tools provide meaningful productivity gains. First-draft slide decks for client presentations, seminar materials, and internal training programmes — structured around a brief or an outline provided by the professional — can be generated rapidly and refined.

Client-facing chatbots, trained on the firm’s FAQ content and standard CBIC reference material, can provide 24-hour first-level responses to routine queries — registration procedures, return due dates, e-invoicing thresholds, and similar matters that do not require professional judgment. The critical design requirement is a well-defined escalation trigger: queries that involve client-specific facts, interpretation, or any element of advisory judgment must route immediately to a human professional.

Social media communication — a dimension of practice development that has become increasingly important for professional visibility — benefits from AI’s ability to generate concise, accurate, and readable posts on GST updates, compliance reminders, and analytical content. The approval workflow — AI drafts, professional reviews and approves — must be maintained without exception.

Compliance dashboards with natural language query interfaces represent a more advanced application. Rather than requiring a manager to write or run a query to identify, say, all clients with an ITC mismatch exceeding a specified threshold, a natural language interface allows the question to be posed in plain English and the relevant data to be surfaced. This is an area where the boundary between automation and AI is at its most productive.

VIII. A ROADMAP FOR ADOPTION — WHERE TO BEGIN

For a practice considering structured AI adoption, the following phased approach balances risk management with practical progress:

  • Phase 1 — Internal foundation (immediate): Establish a firm-wide AI Data Usage Policy defining which tools are approved, what data can be shared, and the mandatory redaction protocol for client-related prompts. Create a Custom GPT or Claude Project loaded with the firm’s standard FAQs, rate schedules, and reference materials. This provides an internal knowledge assistant at minimal cost.
  • Phase 2 — Compliance automation (within three months): Identify the three to five most time-consuming manual compliance processes in the practice. Commission AI-generated automation scripts for each, with mandatory testing on non-production data before deployment. Build a prompt template library for common compliance research queries.
  •  Phase 3 — Advisory and litigation support (three to twelve months): Implement a RAG-based private/public deployment — either through Azure OpenAI or NotebookLM or an open-source equivalent — with the firm’s curated knowledge base of CBIC circulars, AAR orders, and relevant judicial decisions. Establish a citation verification gate: all AI-sourced references checked against primary sources before use in any client communication.
  • Phase 4 — Client-facing services (ongoing): Deploy a structured chatbot for routine client queries. Develop AI-assisted workflows for website content, presentations, and social media. Build natural language query interfaces for compliance dashboards where the client portfolio and data infrastructure support it.

IX. CONCLUSION

The GST professional who approaches Artificial Intelligence with neither uncritical enthusiasm nor reflexive resistance will find in it a genuinely powerful addition to his professional toolkit. The technology is not neutral, however. It carries risks that are specific to its probabilistic architecture, and those risks land squarely on the professional who deploys it.

As a conclusion, five broad principles can be tabulated as key takeaways:

Principle Formulation
Professional Accountability AI amplifies the professional. It does not transfer accountability. Every output issued to a client, every submission made to an authority, remains the professional’s responsibility — regardless of how it was generated.
Confidentiality First Establish your data protocol before adopting any AI tool. The duty of confidentiality does not pause for technological convenience.

 

Principle Formulation
Verify Before Citing Never cite what you have not verified. AI hallucinations are your professional risk — not the vendor’s.
Right Tool, Right Task Automate compliance. Use Generative AI for intelligence. Do not conflate the two, or deploy GenAI where automation’s determinism is required.
Thoughtful Over Early The competitive advantage in AI adoption lies not in being the earliest adopter, but in being the most thoughtful one.

The GST framework was built on the principle of technology-enabled compliance. The profession that built its competence around that framework is now presented with a second technological inflection point. The firms that navigate it well — that build AI literacy across their teams, that establish clear protocols, that invest in private and customised deployments for high-stakes work — will emerge with a structural competitive advantage. More importantly, they will have served their clients with the diligence that the profession demands.

Rational Exercise Of Testamentary Disposition Freedom

While Indian law grants individuals absolute freedom to bequeath self-acquired property, blindly dividing assets equally among children is often irrational and can spark decades of family litigation. “Equal” distribution rarely equates to “equitable” distribution. Testators must thoughtfully consider complex family dynamics, such as varying financial needs, unequal contributions to family wealth, and the caregiving responsibilities assumed by specific children or daughters-in-law. Chartered Accountants, acting as trusted family advisors, are uniquely positioned to guide this process. To prevent legal challenges, testators should distribute assets equitably and clearly document the rationale behind their distributions in the will.

INTRODUCTION

A Chartered Accountant is respected as a friend, philosopher and guide of his client families because he is well-positioned to know inter-se family relations, besides financial health of a family and all its members and is often called upon to guide a testator making his/ her WILL or while resolving family disputes.

WHAT IS INHERITANCE?

Inheritance, at its core, is transfer of assets, rights, obligations, or characteristics from one entity to another, typically spanning generations. While commonly understood as the passing of money or property upon death, true inheritance encompasses both tangible assets and intangible legacies. The intangibles are mostly imbibed since childhood and imbibing those values may vary amongst children depending on their aptitude and up-bringing.

We examine only inheritance of tangible assets in this write up. Wealth distribution between one’s children is always a sensitive topic for any parent, especially when it comes to handing over a self-made or multi-generation business and amounts invested in assets that are partly illiquid in nature like self-occupied residential house. Similar sensitivities also arise when all children are not equally well settled either in their careers (business, profession or jobs) and/ or in personal lives. These differences can be addressed by resorting to ‘equitable’ distribution factoring in families’ disparities and dynamics as against ‘equal’ distribution and ‘estate equalization’ concepts.

THE LEGAL POSITION IN INDIA:

Under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 (ISA), there is no restriction (absolute freedom) on giving away self-acquired property by Hindus, allowing a testator to bequeath his / her wealth in a disproportionate manner amongst legal heirs or anyone.

In contrast, Islamic law limits testamentary freedom to one-third of the estate, ensuring a balance between individual autonomy and maintenance rights of legitimate dependents. There are also laws in various other developed countries putting some restrictions on this absolute freedom. For instance, Ontario in Canada provides for two restrictions on this freedom – limit on the ability to exclude a spouse and limits to exclude dependents. There is no such restriction in India on Hindus.

Thankfully, in recent times, in an urban set –up, in most cases family size is limited to ‘Hum Do, Hamare Do’. Still, we often come across instances of family disputes while executing testamentary dispositions. Such disputes result in avoidable decades long (thankfully, not centuries long) litigations resulting in huge litigation costs, time involved and strained family and social relations. Many of such disputes may be on account of not being rational in making bequeaths.

Considering such possibilities, there is a need to examine the concept of – Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom. Before we examine the subject, it is necessary to deal with two concepts – Gender Equality and Family Wealth.

GENDER EQUALITY:

In India, a woman is called a Shakti. Unfortunately, the position of women in Indian society deteriorated significantly from an initially respected status in the Vedic period to a state of subordination and marginalization, driven by rising patriarchal norms, deplorable social practices and the diminishing of women’s educational and property rights. To dismantle this deep-rooted patriarchy and cultural norms, massive dose of gender equality was needed and off late, we have witnessed good progress in this direction.

The Art of Rational Inheritance Beyond equal to equitable

FAMILY WEALTH:

However, unfortunately, women in India have suffered from high rate of sexual and domestic violence and massive burden of unpaid household work. Even though women almost work day in and day out doing household work and up-bringing of children, the society has failed to recognize the value of the work done by women in contributing towards nurturing family and social relations as well as in building-up the Family Wealth. At times, men continue to feel that the wealth generated is theirs only.

As a result, often it is observed that women neither get a share in their father’s (parents’) family wealth nor in their husband’s family wealth. Recently in April, 2025, in Angadi Chandranna v. Shankar & Ors. (2025 INSC 532), the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that post-partition, an individual’s share becomes his self-acquired property, making him its absolute owner.

Even though the laws have been amended (supported by certain judicial pronouncements) giving women their well-deserved rights in Family Wealth, these legal positions are subject to what is known as absolute freedom granted by ISA to dispose of self-acquired properties. Possibly, there would be numerous instances where women are requested to give-up (relinquish) their rights under Hindu Succession Act and also in joint family properties.

Thankfully, there is significant amount of awakening noticed on these issues and many parents at least while exercising the freedom granted by ISA, try their best to address the same.

A NOTE OF CAUTION

There is a possibility that a testator may blindly (without appreciating the factors like few illustrated herein) say: “for me all my children are equal”. Though, no doubt, gender equality is highly desirable, particularly in up-bringing of the children, situations may change as children grow up and settle-down in their own lives necessitating rational/ logical application of concept of gender equality while bequeathing the family wealth. If applied routinely and in casual manner, it is bound to lead to major misunderstandings and injustice resulting in avoidable litigation which can bleed all the concerned family members heavily in terms of money, time and strained family & social relations. It is therefore recommended that every testator attempts to be rational while exercising the freedom granted by ISA and his actions are justifiable.

What is – Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom?

An equal distribution of assets in many cases may be neither fair nor rational. Responsible or rational exercise of the freedom of testamentary disposition involves balancing one’s legal right to dispose of self-acquired property with moral, social, and familial obligations, ensuring clarity, fairness, and compliance with the law to prevent future disputes. While ISA allows broad freedom to bequeath property, responsible testamentary planning focuses on providing for dependents, ensuring the validity of the actions and avoiding either misunderstanding or malicious disinheritance.

In view of numerous such factors, generality is difficult. Each family set-up is bound to have its own peculiar facts necessitating proper understanding thereof. The concept may also be termed as distributing assets in an equitable and fair manner rather than merely equal distribution of bequeaths.

In conclusion, the concept demands:

  • Equitable distribution rather than mere equal distribution,
  • Take into account and consider family disparities/ dynamics,
  • The concept of ‘equalisation’ doesn’t necessarily imply impartiality,
  • The testator needs to factor in substantial sums given as bequests during lifetime to meet certain contingencies,
  • If family harmony so permits, have transparent discussion with family members/ heirs about the reasons for specific distribution.

Factors suggesting need for Rational Exercise of Testamentary Disposition Freedom

  • Out of two sons, one stays with parents and he and his wife shoulder all family social and parental obligations and responsibilities. Such a son may join family business and runs the same for joint benefits of his and his parents’ families. The other son may settle abroad or financially remain independent from the family all through with occasional family visits.
  • In a case where there is a son and a daughter, the son takes over father’s family business and runs the same for joint benefits of his and his parents’ families. He and his wife shoulder all family social and parental obligations. Whereas, the daughter gets married and plays mere passive role in supporting the parents.
  • In both the above instances, son with his family may continue to stay with parents in the family residential house for various reasons including substantial amount required to buy a separate house, especially in metropolis cities.

In all the above three instances, rational exercise required is proper consideration as regards business assets as well as the residential house.

  • There may be instances where a son (or one of the two sons) while working on his career or while running his business/ profession, continues to handle parents’ savings (investments) and his savings and makes them grow with his efforts and treat it as his and his parents income and wealth, whereas the other son or married daughter plays no role in earning this income and growth of income and wealth. In such or similar scenarios, rational application requires proper appreciation of efforts put in by the son to augment family’s wealth including that of his parents.
  • At times, in any of the above instances, if the original family house is sold and a bigger residential house is bought with joint family income and wealth, whereas, the other son or married daughter has not contributed to the amount invested in buying a bigger house. In such a case, rational application can segregate the value of parents’ share in the bigger house as the value of original house when sold as family’s wealth.
  • There is also a possibility of one of the children suffering from a physical or a mental limitation while the other child is normal in all respects. A rational approach is required here for appropriate provision for the investment required for maintenance for taking care of physically/ mentally challenged child – son or daughter.
  • There is also possibility of daughter’s marriage being in trouble – financially and/ or otherwise, whereas son or second daughter is enjoying good family life. The parents have to make specific additional provision for such a daughter for yearly maintenance and also for the need of a suitable house for her and her children, depending on the available of total family wealth. Similar consideration is required in case where one daughter is not married and who is dependent on the parents.
  • In most cases it happens that the responsibility (not burden) of taking care of parents in their old age mainly falls on son’s wife. Unfortunately, a social media message says – ‘My Son is My Son till he gets a wife, but My Daughter is My Daughter till the end of life.’ Such misconceptions create undesirable situations including in the matter of testamentary bequests. The parents need to recognize daughter-in-law as integral part of the family rather than an outsider.
  • Considering that all children are not born with equal intelligence, skills or other traits (including what most people believe in – destiny), their upbringing, academic studies, careers and personal family growth may be at variance – at times material variance. The parents need to recognise this issue and provide for testamentary bequests accordingly.
  • Also, there are various family obligations – social as well as parental care (physically and if required, financially) during their advanced age. The children (including daughters-in-law) need to keep in mind that taking care of parents during their old age is a moral obligation and there can’t be and they shouldn’t expect quid-pro-quo for discharging this moral obligation. Often, married daughters or children staying abroad play a passive or little role in taking care of these aspects. Hence, the parents ought to consider this fact as to who has held the fort in their advanced ages while making testamentary bequests.

Legal Basis for fair and equitable distribution:

In India, a will is not inherently invalid merely because it is unfair, unreasonable, or inequitable, even if it divides property unequally among heirs who might otherwise be entitled to equal shares under intestate situation. The Supreme Court has clarified that in matters of testamentary disposition (wills), there is no requirement for the distribution to be “fair and equitable” to all children. However, Indian courts will invalidate or look closely at such wills under specific, well-defined “suspicious circumstances” that suggest the document does not truly reflect the testator’s intentions. A will is valid even if unfair, unless the beneficiary cannot explain the unnatural distribution (the “suspicious circumstances”) to the satisfaction of the court.

Considering the stated legal position in India, a testator should narrate the rationale (justification) for the equitable bequeaths to ensure that the testamentary disposition is moral, ethical as well as legally justifiable.

Major pitfall in drawing up a fair and equitable testamentary disposition:

As stated earlier, each family set-up is bound to have its own peculiar facts necessitating proper understanding thereof and this set-up is at times fluid i.e. changing over a period of time. This is likely to disturb the understanding thereof and as a consequence, actions taken based on such an understanding. The writer is of the view that in most such cases, changes are minor in nature and should not disturb the actions taken. In cases where there is any major event happening, the testator may have to consider making suitable changes in the Will.

CONCLUSION:

A Chartered Accountant is respected as a friend, philosopher and guide of his client families because he is well-positioned to know inter-se family relations, besides financial health of a family and all its members and is often called upon to guide.

The testator making his/ her WILL and the Chartered Accountant guiding his client should keep in mind these facts and probably many others, depending on the peculiar circumstances of each case. More importantly, enough thought should be applied while applying the said two concepts – Gender Equality and Family Wealth, and also while drawing up a testamentary document for an equitable and not equal bequeaths with a narrated rationale as preamble.

Foreign Assets Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS 2026): Income Tax Relief vs. FEMA Risks

The FAST-DS 2026 allows individuals to regularize undisclosed foreign assets (up to ₹5 crore) and reporting lapses (up to ₹1 crore) to gain immunity under the Income-tax and Black Money Acts. Crucially, this tax immunity does not automatically extend to FEMA contraventions.

Taxpayers must independently evaluate potential FEMA violations before disclosure. Common breaches include retaining foreign exchange beyond 180 days, making overseas direct investments in entities with step-down subsidiaries or financial services, using non-compliant remittance routes, or acquiring overseas property through unapproved funding. Taxpayers must adopt a holistic approach, regularizing any FEMA breaches separately through mechanisms like Late Submission Fees or compounding.

The Union Budget 2026 introduced a one-time Foreign Assets Disclosure Scheme (FAST-DS 2026) to provide a compliance window to individual taxpayers for regularising past non-disclosures of overseas income and assets. The scheme permits voluntary disclosure of undisclosed foreign income and foreign assets up to ₹5 crore and cases involving mere reporting lapses, where income has already been offered to tax in India but the corresponding foreign assets were not disclosed, up to ₹1 crore. Eligible individuals can regularise such defaults by paying the prescribed tax and penalty and obtain immunity from prosecution and penal consequences under the Income-tax Act and the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015. The scheme is strictly restricted to individuals and does not extend to companies, LLPs, firms, trusts, or other non-individual entities.

While the scheme offers significant relief from an income-tax standpoint, tax regularisation does not automatically translate into regulatory regularisation, particularly under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA). The framework for tax regularisation and that of exchange-control compliance operate in distinct, albeit intersecting, domains.

It therefore becomes crucial prior to opting for disclosure, that taxpayers carefully assess whether the transactions leading to the acquisition, holding or transfer of such foreign income and assets are compliant with FEMA and the rules and regulations framed thereunder, as immunity granted under the scheme does not extend to FEMA contraventions.

In this article the authors have attempted to address potential violations that may arise in connection with acquisition, holding, or transfer of such foreign assets, along with the possible remedies under FEMA. In the concluding segment, the article briefly examines the avenues available for regularisation of such breaches.

FAST DS 2026

A. FOREIGN BANK ACCOUNT AND DEPOSITS

An individual disclosing balances lying in foreign bank accounts or fixed deposits abroad, triggers critical examination under Regulation 7 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Realisation, Repatriation and Surrender of Foreign Exchange) Regulations, 2015 and, Paragraph 17 of the Master Direction on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), which delineate the obligations in relation to repatriation and surrender of foreign exchange imposed on persons resident in India.

The provisions mandate that a person resident in India is required to surrender any foreign exchange received, realised, unspent or unused, to an authorised person within 180 days from the date of such receipt, realisation, purchase, acquisition or from the date of his return to India, as applicable.

Where a resident individual parks funds in a foreign bank account or fixed deposit beyond the stipulated period, such continued retention of funds, would constitute a contravention of FEMA. The provision also extends to incomes earned from investments; and such income would need to be re-invested or repatriated within this period of 180 days, in accordance with applicable guidelines.

B. OVERSEAS INVESTMENT

Overseas Direct Investment in Foreign Entities having Step-Down Subsidiaries

Under Paragraph 1 of Schedule III of the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Rules, 2022 (OI Rules), a resident individual is permitted to make ODI (ODI) in a foreign entity, with a caveat that such foreign entity must not have any step-down subsidiary (SDS).

In other words, whilst individuals are permitted to acquire control in a foreign entity, permission is expressly denied where such foreign investee entity itself acquires control in another foreign entity, thereby creating a layered corporate structure. That said, the rules carve out specific exceptions for acquisition by way of inheritance, qualification shares, sweat equity shares, shares under employee stock ownership plans or employee benefit schemes.

Thus, resident individuals who have utilized their own funds for investment in foreign start-ups or have invested in offshore holding companies operating through multi-layered structures may inadvertently violate India’s exchange control regime. Such structures, while globally accepted as commercial practice, breach the restriction on step-down subsidiaries, thereby rendering the ODI transaction non-compliant ab initio.

Overseas Direct Investment in Foreign Entities engaged in Financial Services Activity

Paragraph 1 of Schedule III of the OI Rules places an embargo on ODI by resident individuals in foreign entities engaged in financial services activity.

A foreign entity will be considered as engaged in the business of financial services activity if it undertakes an activity, which if carried out by an entity in India, would necessitate registration with or regulation by a financial sector regulator in India (such as Reserve Bank of India, Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, etc.).

Notwithstanding the foregoing, acquisition by way of inheritance, qualification shares, sweat equity shares, shares under employee stock ownership plans or employee benefit schemes is expressly permitted, even if the foreign entity is engaged in the financial service activity.
Individuals often invest in overseas fintech platforms, lending start-ups, trading applications, investment advisory ventures and crypto exchanges, without recognising their classification as financial service entities under FEMA. Consequently, what may appear to be commercially viable investments legally permitted in the host country, may result in a contravention of the ODI framework.

MODE OF FUNDING – NON-COMPLIANT REMITTANCE ROUTES

Regulation 8 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Regulations, 2022 (OI Regulations) mandates that overseas investment be made only through permitted routes, including inter-alia banking channels, swap of securities or debits to accounts maintained in accordance with FEMA. The framework strictly precludes funding transactions through cash payments, informal settlement mechanisms or non-banking routes.

Common non-compliances that have surfaced in the context of ODI funding include:

  • Cash funding through overseas associates, friends or relatives
  • Third-party funding structures
  • Informal fund transfers through hawala arrangements
  • Personal overseas account transfers outside the recognised banking system, including transfers made through fintech platforms

Such funding structures, often adopted in the interest of speed or operational convenience, can result not only in procedural lapses, but also substantive contraventions of the governing regime.

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND SUBMISSIONS FOR ODI

As per Regulation 9 of the OI Regulations, a person resident in India making ODI shall obtain a Unique Identification Number (UIN) before sending outward remittance or acquisition of equity capital in a foreign entity, whichever is earlier, by submitting Form FC along with prescribed supporting documentation to the Authorised Dealer (AD) bank.

The Regulation also prescribes submission of share certificates or other documentary evidence as proof of ODI to the designated AD bank within 6 months from the date of remittance/investment.
A recurrent compliance lapse arises in the delayed filing of Form FC, particularly in cases involving newly incorporated entities. Under the ODI regime, investment / financial commitment is consummated upon incorporation itself, on subscription to the charter documents of the foreign entity, and Form FC is required to be filed contemporaneously with such incorporation. In practice, however, opening of the overseas bank account may take time. As a result, filings are typically deferred until the remittance of funds, when the bank account is operational, resulting in inadvertent delay in submission of Form FC and generation of UIN.

Another common procedural oversight pertains to delay in furnishing share certificates or other documentary evidence of investment within the prescribed timeline to the AD Bank; thereby tainting an otherwise compliant capital transaction with procedural non-compliance.

C. ACQUISITION OF OVERSEAS IMMOVABLE PROPERTY

Mode of Funding – Funding through channels not specified

Regulation 21 of the OI Rules states that overseas immovable property may be acquired:

  •  From a person resident in India: By way of inheritance, gift or purchase
  •  From a person resident outside India: By way of inheritance, purchase out of foreign exchange held in Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) Account, remittances under LRS, joint acquisition with a relative who is a person resident outside India or income/proceeds of assets (other than ODI) acquired as per law.

In this context, borrowings from overseas banks/foreign entities or funds mobilised through friends, associates, third parties or informal non-banking channels do not qualify as legitimate routes for funding and could have ramifications under FEMA.

ACQUISITION OF OVERSEAS IMMOVABLE PROPERTY ON DEFERRED PAYMENT / INSTALMENT BASIS

Transactions involving acquisition of property on a deferred payment / instalment basis may be construed as financing arrangements creating an obligation outside India for the resident individual and being a capital account transaction is therefore not permitted without prior RBI approval. One would need to examine whether setting out clear construction milestones linked to payment of instalments could mitigate the characterisation of the transaction as a financing arrangement.

CONCLUDING REMARKS

The instances discussed above are only illustrative and not exhaustive, and potential FEMA non-compliances arising from foreign asset disclosures may vary widely depending upon the structure and regulatory classification of overseas transactions. While the existence of a FEMA contravention does not restrict or bar disclosure under the FAST-DS 2026, such disclosure invariably necessitates a parallel evaluation of FEMA compliance exposure.

It is pertinent to note that relief under Section 6(4) of FEMA is granted to residents to hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security or overseas immovable property, if the same was acquired when the individual was a person resident outside India or inherited from a person resident outside India.

Taxpayers proposing to avail the scheme should adopt a holistic compliance approach, viewing disclosures not only from an income-tax lens, but also from a FEMA perspective. Where gaps are identified and concerns arise, FEMA provides mechanisms and avenues for regularisation, such as payment of Late Submission Fees (LSF) and compounding of contraventions. It is also relevant to note that FEMA and income tax law operate independently; and non-participation in the FAST-DS 2026 does not, in itself, resolve contraventions under FEMA. Accordingly, while a coordinated review may be advisable, the existence of potential FEMA considerations should not be viewed as a deterrent to making a bona fide disclosure under the scheme.

Navigating The Derecognition Test Under Ind As 109 In Indian Securitisation

Every quarter, Indian NBFCs and housing finance companies announce securitisation transactions that improve capital ratios, unlock liquidity, and signal disciplined balance sheet management. Yet some of those same transactions are later revisited and, in certain cases, restated as secured borrowings. The issue is rarely legal or structural. It is accounting; specifically, the misapplication of the derecognition requirements under Ind AS 109.

This article walks through where Indian structures most often fail: cumulative credit enhancements that leave economic risk with the originator, servicing arrangements that go well beyond administration, pass-through mechanics that look compliant on paper but are not, and a persistent under-appreciation of partial derecognition and continuing involvement. It also sets those requirements against the parallel; and sometimes divergent; framework under the RBI’s 2021 Master Directions. The aim is to give practising CAs a clear, working framework grounded in the actual decision tree in Ind AS 109.

1. GETTING THE SEQUENCE RIGHT: WHAT IND AS 109 ACTUALLY DOES

The derecognition model in Ind AS 109 is more structured than the familiar “cash flows – risks and rewards – control” shorthand suggests. In practice, five questions have to be answered in the right order.

Step 0: Consolidate First (Ind AS 109 para 3.2.1 read with Ind AS 110)

Derecognition is assessed only after all subsidiaries, including securitisation SPVs and other structured entities, are consolidated under Ind AS 110. If the originator controls the SPV, the loans stay on the consolidated balance sheet regardless of how clean the transfer looks at the SPV level.

This is not a theoretical nicety. Many Indian securitisation SPVs are thinly capitalised, bankruptcy-remote entities with activities narrowly defined by trust deeds and transaction documents. Depending on how decision-making, exposure to variable returns, and key rights are structured, an originator may well have to consolidate such an SPV. Once it does, derecognition at the consolidated level is off the table, even if the SPV itself would have met all the tests.

Step 1: Whole Asset or Component? (para 3.2.2)

The standard next asks whether derecognition should be applied to:

  •  The entire financial asset (or pool); or
  •  Only to a part of it.

A part qualifies only if it is:

1. A specifically identified stream of cash flows (for example, only the interest cash flows); or

2. A fully pro-rata share of all cash flows (for example, a vertical 60% interest in every rupee of principal and interest); or

3. A fully pro-rata share of specifically identified cash flows.

Many Indian direct assignment deals and tranche structures sit exactly here: the originator may be transferring, say, the senior 80% of principal cash flows but retaining all excess spread and certain loss-absorbing pieces. If the structure does not fit one of the three categories above, the derecognition analysis applies to the entire asset, not just to the “sold” slice.

Step 2: Have the Rights Expired? (para 3.2.3)

If contractual rights to the cash flows have simply expired; because the loan has been repaid, cancelled, or written off; derecognition follows without further analysis. In securitisation, this is rarely the path; most transactions involve transfers rather than expiries.

Step 3: Has There Been a “Transfer” at All? (paras 3.2.4–3.2.5)

Only now does the standard ask whether the entity has transferred the asset. This can happen in two ways:

1. Transfer of contractual rights to receive cash flows; or

2. Pass-through arrangements, where the originator retains legal title and the right to collect cash flows, but is contractually obliged to pass them on.

The three well-known pass-through conditions (no obligation to pay unless collected; no ability to sell/pledge the asset except as security; remittance without material delay and without reinvestment) sit here in the decision tree. They answer a narrow gateway question: has a transfer occurred at all?

They are not an alternative route that can be invoked when the risks-and-rewards analysis is uncomfortably close. In other words, an originator does not get to say: “The risks and rewards outcome is borderline, so we will instead rely on the pass-through test.” If the contractual rights have been transferred outright, the pass-through limb is simply not engaged.

Step 4: Have Substantially All Risks and Rewards Moved? (paras 3.2.6–3.2.8, B3.2.4–B3.2.5)

Once a transfer is established, the core question is whether the originator has:

  •  Transferred substantially all risks and rewards of ownership;
  • Retained substantially all of them; or
  • Landed in the middle, having transferred some but not most.

The standard is deliberately silent on a numeric threshold. The task is to look at the variability of the asset’s future net cash flows before and after the transfer, across reasonably possible scenarios, and to ask who is bearing that variability.

Substance Over Form The IND AS 109

Crucially, “variability” under Ind AS 109 is not a synonym for “credit loss”. The application guidance identifies a broader set of risks and rewards that have to be considered to the extent they are applicable to the specific asset — including credit risk, interest rate risk, prepayment risk, late payment risk, foreign exchange risk, and equity price risk. For a typical Indian retail loan pool — home loans, vehicle finance, unsecured consumer lending — credit and prepayment risk are usually the two dominant drivers of net cash flow variability, and interest rate risk can become material in longer-tenor floating-rate pools. A scenario framework that tests only credit loss paths will, by construction, miss the prepayment and interest-rate channels through which risk is often retained.

In practice, a convention has developed:

  •  If the originator bears more than around 90% of the expected variability in cash flows, it is viewed as having retained substantially all risks and rewards.
  •  If it bears less than about 10%, it is generally seen as having transferred substantially all risks and rewards.

That convention draws on IASB implementation guidance and market practice; it is not a safe harbour in the standard. Two cautions follow.

First, the convention should be applied to total variability across all applicable risks, not to credit losses alone. A structure where a senior investor bears material prepayment or interest rate risk but minimal credit risk may show a very different overall variability picture from what a credit-loss-only scenario would suggest — in either direction.

Second, applying the convention mechanically, without examining which risks are being retained, can itself produce wrong answers. A structure where an originator keeps a small, deeply subordinated tranche that absorbs virtually all default losses may fail derecognition even if that tranche is “only” 10–15% of the pool. Conversely, a structure that appears to leave significant residual loss exposure with the originator may, once prepayment and interest rate risk are modelled alongside credit risk, land in the middle zone rather than in outright failure.

Step 5: Control and Continuing Involvement (paras 3.2.9, 3.2.16–3.2.21)

If the risks-and-rewards analysis is clearly one-sided, the answer is simple:

  •  Substantially all transferred → derecognise.
  • Substantially all retained → continue to recognise and treat proceeds as a secured borrowing.

The interesting cases sit in the middle zone, where the originator has neither transferred nor retained substantially all risks and rewards. Here, the standard asks: has control been retained?

  •  If the transferee has the practical ability to sell the asset in its entirety to an unrelated third party, unilaterally and without further restrictions, the originator has not retained control and derecognition of the entire asset follows, with separate recognition of any continuing involvement (for example, guarantees or options).
  •  If that ability is missing, the originator is deemed to have retained control and must apply the continuing involvement approach: it keeps the asset on the balance sheet to the extent of its continuing involvement, with the remainder derecognised.

This is an important nuance that tends to be glossed over. Derecognition is not always all or nothing. For guarantees, written or purchased options, or limited credit support, the standard requires
a partial derecognition outcome where the carrying amount of the asset is split between the transferred and retained exposures with reference to the originator’s exposure to changes in the asset’s value.

In the Indian context, this matters for structures with limited first-loss pieces, restricted clean-up calls, or specific loss guarantees: they may support partial derecognition combined with a continuing involvement balance, rather than a simple “keep the whole pool on the books” answer.

2. WHAT A DEFENSIBLE DERECOGNITION FILE LOOKS LIKE

Before getting into the failure points, it is worth front-loading the one thing that tends to be an afterthought in busy closings: documentation. A derecognition conclusion that cannot be traced back to contemporaneous analysis is, in practical terms, a weak conclusion.

At a minimum, a robust file should contain:

1. Scope and consolidation analysis

  • Why the SPV or trust is, or is not, consolidated under Ind AS 110.
  • Whether derecognition is being assessed for the entire asset or a qualifying component under para 3.2.2

2. Comprehensive enhancement and support inventory

  • All contractual credit enhancements (first-loss pieces, cash collateral, sub-loans, guarantees, liquidity or timing facilities, over-collateralisation, excess spread traps).
  • Any implicit or reputational support that management regards as likely in stress scenarios.

3. Probability-weighted scenario analysis

  •  Base, stress, and severe stress scenarios modelled across all material risks — credit loss, prepayment, and, where relevant, interest rate and foreign exchange risk. A credit-loss-only model is not sufficient evidence of who bears variability.
  • Who absorbs what share of losses and upside across those scenarios; how much of the overall variability, aggregated across risks, the originator still bears.

4. Cash flow routing and pass-through mechanics

  •  Actual collection account structures, sweep instructions, and timing.
  • Assessment of commingling, reinvestment rights, and any timing mismatches between collections and investor payouts.

5. Control and continuing involvement analysis

  •  Whether transferees can sell or refinance their positions without originator consent.
  • Treatment of options, guarantees, and limited recourse clauses and their impact on continuing involvement and partial derecognition.

6. Legal and regulatory overlay

  •  True sale and bankruptcy-remoteness opinion under Indian insolvency law, including learnings from cases such as DHFL.
  •  Interaction with the RBI’s Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets; especially where regulatory capital treatment diverges from accounting derecognition.

7. Conclusion memorandum

  • A clear statement of the derecognition conclusion (full, partial with continuing involvement, or none) and, where applicable, the gain or loss on derecognition and servicing asset/liability treatment.

This is not gold-plating. For a judgement that can move capital ratios, headline profit, and regulatory perceptions, it is the bare minimum.

3. WHERE INDIAN STRUCTURES ACTUALLY BREAK

With that framework in place, it becomes easier to see where Indian securitisations most often run into trouble.

This is not a theoretical concern. RBI inspection findings and supervisory communications over the past several years have documented instances where securitisation transactions; including those by prominent NBFCs; were reclassified as secured borrowings following regulatory review, with consequential impact on reported capital ratios and profit.

3.1 The Credit Enhancement Trap

Consider a vehicle finance company securitising a ₹1,000 crore retail pool. The AAA-rated senior tranche; 75% of the pool; is placed with investors. The originator retains a 10% first-loss piece plus several other forms of support. On paper, investors hold the majority. In substance, the risk picture can be very different.

Suppose a simplified probability-weighted loss analysis looks like this (losses as a percentage of the pool):

Scenario Probability Pool Loss Loss borne by originator Loss borne by investors
Base 50% 2% (₹20) 2% (₹20) 0
Stress 40% 6% (₹60) 6% (₹60) 0
Severe stress 10% 15% (₹150) 10% (₹100) 5% (₹50)
The originator’s expected share of loss is:
  • 0.50 × 20 + 0.40 × 60 + 0.10 × 100 = ₹44.
Total expected loss on the pool is:
  • 0.50 × 20 + 0.40 × 60 + 0.10 × 150 = ₹49.
So, although investors have bought 75% of the notes, the originator is still swallowing roughly 90% of the expected credit loss. That is very close to the “substantially all” line even before considering other forms of continuing exposure.

The problem is compounded when enhancements are reviewed one at a time and signed off in isolation:

  •  First-loss tranche? Market standard.
  • Cash collateral? Rating-driven and prudent.
  • Subordinated loan to the SPV? Necessary capital structure.
  • Corporate guarantee on senior notes? Investor comfort.

Ind AS 109 does not permit this piecemeal lens. Enhancements have to be viewed cumulatively. A stylised snapshot of typical features makes the point:

Enhancement Mechanism Typical Quantum Derecognition Risk Core Concern
First-loss tranche retention 8–12% High Absorbs most probable credit losses
Cash collateral account 7–10% High Funded exposure remains with originator
Excess spread trapping Variable Medium–High Ongoing residual interest in pool performance
Corporate guarantee (senior) Full / Partial Very High Near-complete protection to investors
Liquidity / timing advances 5–8% Medium Can morph into credit risk if advances are unrecoverable
Subordinated loan to SPV 10–15% High Originator is economically subordinated

In one consumer finance deal I observed, there was no explicit first-loss tranche at all; a fact the treasury team leaned on heavily in conversations. On closer reading, the structure featured a sizeable cash collateral account, a subordinated loan to the SPV, a mechanism to trap excess spread, and a timing guarantee. Individually, none of those elements was outside what the market would consider normal. Taken together, they left investors with very little exposure to the pool’s everyday credit risk.

When the numbers were run, the originator’s exposure to variability easily crossed the 90% line. Derecognition failed. The genuine surprise within the deal team at that conclusion says something about how strongly “form” still dominates “substance” in many structuring discussions.

3.2 Servicing: When Administration Turns into Ownership

In India, it is almost a given that the originator continues as servicer. Changing EMI mandates for hundreds of thousands of borrowers, re-documenting security, and altering customer communication flows is expensive and often undesirable. The question is not whether the originator services. It is how.

In one mortgage securitisation, the core sale documents were clean. The real issues lived in the 50-page servicing agreement. Three provisions, taken together, changed the analysis from “agent” to “principal”:

1. Advance servicing fee: the servicer was paid, upfront, the present value of three years of expected servicing fees. If the pool performed poorly, its future workload would fall, but its remuneration would not. That is not a straightforward fee; it is an exposure to pool performance.

2. Clean-up call: the servicer had the right to repurchase the residual pool once it fell below a fixed percentage of original balance. Clean-up calls are common globally, but when combined with local court practice and insolvency risks, an option that can be exercised precisely when the remaining loans are the most distressed has to be examined as a potential continuation of risk.

3. Delinquency repurchase right: any loan hitting 90 DPD could be repurchased at par “for administrative convenience”. Economically, this looked very much like a guarantee on early defaults; the riskiest part of the curve.

The derecognition conclusion was not difficult. This was not a neutral servicing mandate. It was a bundle of rights and obligations that left the bank materially exposed to the same credit risk it claimed to have sold.

Where derecognition does succeed and servicing is retained, there is a further accounting step that is often overlooked:

  • If the expected fees for servicing are higher than the consideration the market would require for such services, a servicing asset is recognised.
  • If the expected fees are lower, a servicing liability arises.

In both cases, Ind AS 109 requires that the original carrying amount of the asset be allocated between:

  •  The portion derecognised; and
  •  The retained servicing right (asset or liability);using their relative fair values at the date of transfer. This “splitting” is not an optional nicety; it is part of the derecognition mechanics.

3.3 Pass-Through: Why the Gateway Test Often Fails in Practice

Where the originator has not transferred the contractual rights to receive cash flows, derecognition is only possible if the arrangement qualifies as a pass-through transfer. That requires all three conditions in para 3.2.5 to be met:

1. No obligation to pay the eventual recipients unless equivalent amounts are collected from the asset;

2. No ability to sell or pledge the asset other than as security for the obligation to pay the recipients;

3. An obligation to remit cash flows without material delay and without reinvestment except in cash or cash equivalents during the settlement period.

In one direct assignment, for operational reasons, borrower EMIs continued to hit originator-controlled accounts. The originator swept funds to the SPV monthly, retained any excess as a “performance incentive”, and advanced shortfalls to ensure investors were paid on schedule; recovering those advances from future excess collections.

Every feature had a commercial explanation. Taken together:

  • EMIs were commingled in originator accounts for the better part of the month.
  • The “performance incentive” created a continuing residual interest well beyond a pure servicing fee.
  • Investor cash flows followed a predetermined schedule, not the actual timing pattern of underlying collections.

From an Ind AS 109 standpoint, the originator had not passed cash flows through. It was managing timing differences, bearing gaps, and sharing upside. The gateway “transfer” test failed; the risks-and-rewards and control tests never even properly arose.

This is not an isolated pattern. Monthly waterfalls; standard in Indian securitisation; are not automatically fatal, but they do create timing differences that need to be weighed against the “no material delay” requirement. Where the originator is, in substance, smoothing and reshaping cash flows, a pass-through conclusion is difficult to sustain.

4. PARTIAL DERECOGNITION AND CONTINUING INVOLVEMENT: THE MIDDLE GROUND

Indian practice often treats derecognition as a binary choice: either the pool is off the books or it is not. Ind AS 109 is more nuanced.

Where:

  •  The originator has transferred the asset (or a qualifying part under para 3.2.2);
  • It has neither transferred nor retained substantially all risks and rewards; and
  • It has retained control; the standard requires recognition of the asset to the extent of continuing involvement.

The most common forms are:

  • A limited credit guarantee on transferred receivables;
  • Written or purchased put and call options;
  • Deeply subordinated residual interests or credit-enhancing interest-only strips.

In such cases, the carrying amount of the asset is split into:

  •  A portion that is derecognised; and
  • A portion that continues to be recognised, measured by reference to the originator’s maximum exposure to changes in the asset’s value.

The associated liability or derivative is measured separately. This approach is particularly relevant where the originator’s support is capped (for example, a guarantee limited to 10% of principal). Treating such structures as a complete failure of derecognition over-states the asset on the originator’s balance sheet and understates the transfer that has actually occurred.

5. IMPLICIT SUPPORT: THE PRESENT AND THE FUTURE

Ind AS 109 and Ind AS 107 both address implicit support; situations where the originator, though not contractually obliged, steps in to support a securitised pool. The standard is clear on two fronts.

First, for the current transaction:

•     If assets have been derecognised and the originator later provides non-contractual support; by making good shortfalls, waiving fees, or absorbing losses; the derecognition conclusion must be revisited. Depending on the nature and extent of support, the originator may have to recognise:

  • A new financial asset;
  • A guarantee or other liability; or
  • In some cases, a renewed continuing involvement in previously derecognised assets.

Second, for future transactions:

  • Once an originator has demonstrated a pattern of stepping in to protect investors beyond contractual terms, users of the financial statements; and, importantly, auditors and regulators; are entitled to assume that similar support is likely in future deals.
  • IFRS 7 (Ind AS 107) explicitly contemplates this forward-looking dimension: disclosures are required that enable users to understand both the support actually provided and the extent to which derecognition conclusions on future transfers may be affected by that history.

For practitioners, the practical takeaway is uncomfortable but unavoidable: a one-off “reputational” support decision can cast a long shadow. It not only creates an immediate accounting event; it also colours the derecognition analysis for every subsequent securitisation the originator undertakes.

6. A WORKED NUMERICAL EXAMPLE

An end-to-end illustration helps to see how the pieces fit together.

6.1 Structure and Assumptions

• Originator holds a homogeneous retail loan pool:

  • Gross carrying amount: ₹1,000
  • Loss allowance (ECL): ₹20
  • Net carrying amount: ₹980

• The originator transfers the pool into an SPV, which issues notes as follows:

  • Senior notes of ₹900 sold to investors.
  • Subordinated notes of ₹100 retained by the originator.
  • The originator also acts as servicer, receiving an annual fee equal to 0.75% of outstanding principal.

Assume:

  • The fair value of the entire pool at the date of transfer is ₹1,020.
  • Fair value of the senior notes issued is ₹918.
  • Fair value of the subordinated notes retained is ₹94.
  • Fair value of the servicing right (based on expected fee flows versus market servicing fee) is ₹8.

Total fair value of the pieces (₹918 + ₹94 + ₹8 = ₹1,020) matches the fair value of the pool.

6.2 Risk and Reward Analysis

A probability-weighted loss analysis similar to the earlier example suggests:

Total expected credit loss on the pool: ₹49.

Expected loss absorbed by the subordinated tranche: ₹44.

The originator therefore bears about 90% of expected credit loss through its subordinated notes. There is no other credit enhancement beyond this tranche. On these numbers alone, and looking only at credit loss, most audit and regulatory reviewers would conclude that substantially all credit risk has been retained. A 90% absorption of expected credit loss sits squarely in the territory where, in practice, the risk-and-reward test is treated as failing — not as an ambiguous middle-zone outcome. The reader should not take 90% as a number that supports derecognition with continuing involvement; in isolation, it does not.

Two considerations, however, are worth running through before closing the analysis:

The subordinated tranche is capped at ₹100. In a truly severe tail scenario, losses above that cap flow through to investors. The absolute ceiling on originator loss is a relevant data point even if the expected-loss share is heavily skewed.

Credit loss is only one dimension of variability. Prepayment risk, interest rate risk, and — where relevant — foreign exchange risk have to be brought into the same calculation. In this example, those risks are borne broadly pro-rata by senior and subordinated holders, so they do not shift the conclusion. In a mortgage pool, they typically would.

Two treatment paths therefore need to be illustrated.

Path A — Risk-and-reward test fails (the likely conclusion on these numbers). The originator has retained substantially all risks and rewards. The pool continues to be recognised on the balance sheet in full. The proceeds of ₹918 received on the senior notes are accounted for as a secured borrowing. No gain on derecognition arises. Interest income on the pool continues to be recognised; interest expense on the borrowing is recognised separately. This is the outcome practitioners should expect to reach on facts of this kind.

Path B — Risk-and-reward outcome is genuinely inconclusive. The numbers above, combined with a fuller scenario model that brings prepayment and interest-rate variability into the frame, may in some structures produce an overall variability share for the originator that is materially below the 90% credit-loss figure — for example, where heavy prepayment optionality in the underlying loans is in substance passed through to investors. Where that fuller modelling pushes the overall variability share into the 40–60% range across the full risk spectrum, the transaction sits in the middle zone and control has to be tested. If the transferee has the practical ability to sell the senior notes freely to an unrelated third party, control has not been retained, and the pool qualifies for derecognition in full with separate recognition of continuing involvement (the subordinated notes and the servicing right). Section 6.3 works through the mechanics for this path, so that the allocation methodology under Ind AS 109 is visible end-to-end.

6.3 Allocation of Carrying Amount and Gain Recognition

The mechanics that follow assume Path B has been reached — that is, that fuller modelling of credit, prepayment and interest rate risk together has placed the originator’s overall variability share within the middle zone, and that the control test (free saleability of the senior notes by the transferee) is satisfied. The allocation and gain computation below then follows.

Ind AS 109 now requires the originator to allocate the net carrying amount of ₹980 between:

  • The portion derecognised (cash flow rights sold via the senior notes);
  • The retained subordinated interest; and
  • The servicing right.

Using relative fair values:

  • Senior notes: 918 / 1,020 = 90%
  • Subordinated notes: 94 / 1,020 ≈ 9.2%
  • Servicing right: 8 / 1,020 ≈ 0.8%

Allocated carrying amounts:

  • To derecognised portion: 90% × 980 ≈ ₹882
  • To retained subordinated interest: 9.2% × 980 ≈ ₹90
  • To servicing asset: 0.8% × 980 ≈ ₹8

(rounded totals reconcile to ₹980).

Accounting entries at the originator level, assuming the transaction falls within Path B of Section 6.2, would be, in simplified form:

  • Dr Cash: ₹918 (proceeds for senior notes)
  • Dr Investment in subordinated notes: ₹94 (initial recognition at fair value — see classification note below)
  • Dr Servicing asset: ₹8
  • Cr Loans (pool): ₹980 (derecognition of carrying amount)
  • Cr Gain on derecognition: ₹40 (balancing figure in this simplified illustration)

Two points on the mechanics are important, because the entry above is easily misread.

Classification of the retained subordinated notes.

The debit of ₹94 is the fair value at the date of transfer. The allocated carrying amount of the retained interest is ₹90 (9.2% × ₹980, per the allocation above). The subordinated notes can be recorded at fair value at inception only if their classification under Ind AS 109 supports that measurement basis. In a typical securitisation structure, the subordinated tranche is designed to absorb credit losses before the senior tranche is touched. Its contractual cash flows are therefore unlikely to represent solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding — the subordination feature itself introduces exposure going beyond basic lending risk. In most Indian structures, a subordinated tranche of this kind will fail the SPPI test and be classified at fair value through profit or loss. If the instrument is at FVTPL, the ₹4 difference between the allocated carrying amount (₹90) and the fair value (₹94) flows through P&L on Day 1 alongside the derecognition gain. If, on the specific facts of a transaction, the retained interest does satisfy SPPI and the relevant business model, it would be carried at amortised cost at the allocated carrying amount of ₹90, and the ₹4 gap would not be recognised up front. The classification analysis is therefore not a footnote — it drives the numbers.

The ₹40 gain as a balancing figure.

The gain of ₹40 is shown here as the residual that makes the entry balance under Path B assumptions. The formal computation under Ind AS 109 is prescribed by paragraph 3.2.12 (difference between the carrying amount measured at the date of derecognition and the consideration received, including any new asset obtained less any new liability assumed), and the application methodology for structures of this kind — allocating the carrying amount of the larger financial asset between the part derecognised and the parts retained, based on relative fair values — is worked through in paragraph 3.2.13 and the application example at B3.2.17. Practitioners applying the framework to their own transactions should work from those paragraphs rather than from the stylised entries above; the actual gain will depend on the classification of each retained component and on the relative-fair-value inputs at the date of transfer.

The conceptual takeaway remains:

  • The gain or loss on derecognition is recognised immediately in profit or loss under Ind AS 109.
  • The originator recognises a servicing asset and a retained investment, both measured and tracked separately going forward — the retained investment in accordance with the classification and measurement requirements applicable to it.

6.4 RBI Guidelines: Why the Gain May Still Not “Count”

Under the RBI’s 2021 Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets, gains arising from securitisation are typically not available for immediate distribution or unrestricted capital recognition. They are required to be amortised over the life of the transaction or appropriated to a separate reserve.

This creates an explicit and deliberate tension:

  • Ind AS 109 wants the full derecognition gain in profit or loss on Day 1.
  • The RBI wants the economic benefit of that gain to emerge in regulatory capital and distributable profits only over time.

NBFCs and HFCs have addressed this in practice by:

  • Recognising the full gain in P&L in accordance with Ind AS 109; and
  • Creating a corresponding appropriation; often styled as a “securitisation reserve”; to align with the RBI’s requirement that gains be spread over the life of the transaction.

From a practitioner’s standpoint, this means that a transaction can pass the derecognition tests robustly and yet leave management explaining why the large headline gain it produced does not translate into immediate regulatory capital relief.

7. REGULATORY CAPITAL VS ACCOUNTING DERECOGNITION

The RBI’s Master Direction on Securitisation of Standard Assets sits alongside Ind AS 109 and often answers a different question: how much regulatory capital relief does this transaction justify?

Two points are worth underlining.

1. The RBI’s framework focuses on:

  • Minimum Retention Requirement (MRR);
  • Minimum Holding Period (MHP);
  • True sale and bankruptcy remoteness;
  • Limits on total retained exposures (for example, the 20% cap on total exposure to a securitisation structure, excluding certain interest-only strips).

A transaction that fails accounting derecognition because the originator still bears, say, 80% of the expected credit loss may still satisfy the RBI’s conditions for regulatory capital relief, provided the formal criteria around MRR, MHP and true sale are met.

2. The reverse is also possible. A structure might satisfy Ind AS 109’s derecognition tests; particularly in synthetic arrangements or highly tailored tranche designs; but not qualify for capital relief under the Directions.

The practical implication is that “failed derecognition” in accounting terms is not automatically a failure in regulatory terms. CAs advising boards and audit committees need to keep those frameworks separate in their analysis and in their explanations.

8. PARTIAL TRANSFERS IN INDIAN STRUCTURES (PARA 3.2.2 IN PRACTICE)

Partial derecognition is not merely a theoretical corner case; it is directly relevant to common Indian structures:

  • Direct assignments where only specific interest cash flows or a pro-rata share of all cash flows are sold;
  • Transactions where senior tranches are sold but junior tranches and excess spread are retained;
  • Deals involving interest-only or principal-only strips.

Where the part transferred is:

  • A specifically identified cash flow stream (for example, only interest), or
  • A fixed pro-rata slice of all cash flows,

Ind AS 109 allows derecognition of that part, provided the rest of the decision tree is satisfied for that component. The remaining part of the asset continues to be recognised.

This matters in practice because it prevents an originator from packaging a subordinated tranche and a residual spread into a single amorphous “retained interest” and then treating the sold tranche as if it were the whole asset for derecognition purposes. Paragraph 3.2.2 forces an explicit analysis of what exactly is being sold and what is being retained.

9. CO-ORIGINATION, IBC, AND TRUE SALE: LEARNING FROM DHFL

Co-origination structures; where NBFCs and larger banks jointly originate loans and then one party seeks to securitise or assign its share; raise questions that go beyond pure credit analysis.

The DHFL proceedings brought that into sharp relief. In that case, receivables that had been assigned to third parties came under a court-ordered freeze when DHFL entered insolvency, at least in the initial stages of litigation. Although the legal position was later clarified and reinforced in favour of bankruptcy remoteness, the episode highlighted two uncomfortable facts:

  • A transaction that looks like a clean assignment on paper can still be caught in the slipstream of an originator insolvency, at least temporarily, if courts or resolution professionals take a broad view of the estate.
  • For Ind AS 109 purposes, the question of whether contractual rights to cash flows have truly been transferred; and whether the transferee has the practical ability to enforce and sell those rights; cannot be answered by reading the transaction documents in isolation from the insolvency framework and enforcement practice.

In co-origination and similar structures, the continuing relationship between the parties, the way security interests are perfected, and how courts have behaved in stress cases all feed into the derecognition analysis. The DHFL experience should, at a minimum, find its way into the legal and risk sections of any serious derecognition file involving Indian receivables.

10. NEW STRUCTURES, SAME UNDERLYING QUESTIONS

The market is experimenting with forms that did not exist when the early Ind AS 109 guidance for India was written. The decision tree, however, has not changed.

  • Synthetic securitisation: credit risk is transferred through credit derivatives or guarantees, while the loans stay on the originator’s balance sheet. Regulatory capital relief may be available if the RBI’s conditions are met. Accounting derecognition is generally not, because contractual cash flow rights remain with the originator and pass-through conditions are not satisfied.
  • Co-origination and loan-by-loan assignments: intertwined underwriting, cross-default arrangements, and shared security require careful unpacking before any conclusion can be drawn on whether a qualifying “part” has been transferred and whether risks and rewards have genuinely shifted.
  • Portfolio sales to ARCs and private credit funds: earn-outs, upside-sharing arrangements, and minimum return guarantees often create continuing involvement. Those features may block full derecognition at inception or require a continuing involvement model that recognises only partial derecognition.

The questions remain the same:

  • Has the right entity been consolidated?
  • Is derecognition being applied to the right unit of account; the whole asset or a qualifying component?
  • Have contractual rights been transferred or is this merely a funding arrangement?
  • Who still bears the real economic variability in cash flows?
  • Does the transferee truly control the asset?
  • What is the extent of continuing involvement?

11. THE PROFESSION’S ROLE

There is a version of securitisation that works well under Ind AS 109 and under the RBI’s Directions:

  • Risk is meaningfully transferred.
  • Enhancements are proportionate rather than overwhelming.
  • Pass-through mechanisms are clean, operationally as well as legally.
  • Servicing arrangements pay for work done without smuggling credit exposure back onto the originator.
  • Any residual exposures are transparent, capped, and accounted for under the continuing involvement model.

That version is achievable. The difficulty is that it often conflicts with the instinct to retain upside, protect investor relationships at all costs, and squeeze capital benefits from structures that, in substance, leave the originator still holding the risk.

For CAs in audit, advisory, and industry roles, the obligation is two-fold:

  • To understand and apply the full decision tree of Ind AS 109; including consolidation, partial derecognition, pass-through gateways, continuing involvement, and implicit support; rather than relying on a simplified three-question checklist;

and

  • To be clear with boards and management teams that accounting conclusions should follow the economic design of the transaction, not the other way around.

Substance, as Ind AS 109 has insisted from the start, is not negotiable.

Does The “Gift-Tax” Provision Extend To The Transfer Of Beneficial Interest In Trusts?

Section 56(2)(x) of the Income Tax Act taxes the receipt of “specified property” for inadequate consideration. However, this provision does not apply to the transfer of a beneficial interest in a trust. Under the Indian Trusts Act and affirmed by Supreme Court precedents, a beneficiary holds only a right against the trustee, not legal ownership of the trust property. Since “specified property” enumerates assets like real estate and shares—excluding mere “interests” or “rights”—beneficial interests fall outside its scope. Furthermore, conflating the two would trigger severe unintended tax consequences for Mutual Funds and REITs.

1. BACKGROUND

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA, often referred to as the ‘gift-tax’ provision, seeks to bring to tax under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’ any sum or specified property received by a person without consideration or for inadequate consideration. Specifically, section 56(2)(x)(c) provides that where any person receives any specified property (other than immovable property) for a consideration less than its fair market value (“FMV”) determined in accordance with Rule 11UA, the difference between the FMV and the consideration actually paid (if any) shall be deemed to be the income of the recipient.

The legislative history of this provision tracing its lineage from sections 56(2)(vii) and 56(2)(viia) of ITA and the Explanatory Memorandum to Finance Bill, 2010 along with subsequent CBDT Circulars make it clear that section 56(2)(x) was introduced primarily as an anti-abuse measure, intended to curb the laundering and circulation of unaccounted money through the guise of gifts or under-valued transfers. This legislative intent has also found judicial affirmation.

Notwithstanding the above, in practical administration, the operation of section 56(2)(x) has increasingly been extended beyond its intended anti-abuse scope. Rather than being confined to cases of tax evasion or money laundering, it has been invoked as a revenue-generating provision, resulting in unintended taxation of legitimate and bona fide transactions.

The question that is considered in this article is whether the receipt of beneficial interest in a trust, as distinct from trust property itself, constitutes the receipt of ‘specified property’ for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) of ITA. To answer this question, it is necessary to understand the architecture of section 56(2)(x), the nature of beneficial interest under Indian trust law, and the judicial precedents that have conclusively held that beneficial interest and trust property are distinct and separate concepts.

2. ARCHITECTURE OF SECTION 56(2)(X)

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA is a receipt-based provision. It is attracted only where a person receives ‘specified property’ either without consideration or for inadequate consideration. The definition of ‘property’ for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) is imported from the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii) of ITA. This definition is exhaustive and enumerates specific categories of property – immovable property, shares and securities, jewellery, archaeological collections, drawings, paintings, sculptures, any work of art, and bullion. The Explanation does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se within its ambit. Undeniably, a beneficial interest in property may constitute a ‘capital asset’ under section 2(14) of ITA.

3. NATURE OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST UNDER THE INDIAN TRUSTS ACT, 1882

3.1 Statutory definition

Section 3 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 (“Trust Act”) defines the ‘beneficial interest’ or ‘interest’ of a beneficiary in the following terms:

“The ‘beneficial interest’ or ‘interest’ of the beneficiary is his right against the trustee as owner of the trust-property.”

The commentary on this definition by J. N. Bagchi in ‘Trusts in Taxation and Tax Planning’ elucidates as follows:

“In this definition the interest of the beneficiary has been defined to be his right against the trustee as owner of the property. The beneficiary has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust according to the definition above. The beneficiary has only the legal right to enforce the benefit conferred by the trust on him and no other interest.”

From the plain language of section 3 of the Trust Act and its authoritative commentary, several propositions of fundamental importance emerge. First, upon settlement of a trust, the trust property vests with the trustee. Second, the trustee is the legal owner of the trust property. Third, the beneficiary has only a legal right to enforce the benefit from the trust property and critically, has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.

The inescapable corollary is that by its very definition, beneficial interest in a trust cannot be equated with the trust property itself.

3.2 Sections 56 and 58 of the Trust Act

Section 56 of the Trust Act confers upon the beneficiary a statutory right to ask for specific execution of the trust and, in specified circumstances, to require the trustee to transfer the trust property to him or to such persons as he may direct. This provision is a statutory acknowledgement that the trust properties economically belong to the beneficiaries. However, the right of the beneficiary under section 56 is a right against the trustee to enforce the terms of the trust — it is not an ownership right in specie in the trust property.

If one were to contend that beneficial interest in a trust is equivalent to the trust property itself, the operation of section 56 of the Trust Act would become redundant. The trust property would always be said to be under the ownership of the beneficiaries, requiring no separate act of transfer. The very existence of section 56 as a mechanism to compel transfer of trust property from trustee to beneficiary belies any such equivalence.

Gift Tax & Trusts Why Beneficial Interst is Exempt

Section 58 of the Trust Act expressly provides that a beneficiary, if competent to contract, may transfer his beneficial interest to any other person. The significance of this provision for the present analysis is twofold. First, it confirms that beneficial interest is a transferable property right. Second, and more fundamentally, it makes clear that on such transfer, what changes hands is only the beneficial interest — the trust property itself continues to remain within the coffers of the trust, and the trustee continues to be the legal owner of such property. There is no transfer of trust property on a transfer of beneficial interest.

Once notice of the transfer of beneficial interest is given to the trustee, the trustee will make distribution of profits and income from the trust property to the transferee. This further confirms that the trust property remains within the trust despite the transfer of beneficial interest by the beneficiary.

3.3 Recommendation of the Indian Law Commission

The term ‘beneficial interest’ was introduced in Indian law on the recommendation of the Indian Law Commission, which observed with the express purpose of departing from the English concept of dual ownership of trust as follows:

“And in order to prevent the possible introduction by pedantic lawyers of conceptions resembling the English ‘legal estate’ and ‘equitable ownership’ we would define the ‘beneficial interest’ of the beneficiary as his right against the trustee as owner of trust property. The beneficiary should, in our opinion, have no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.”

The Statement of Objects and Reasons of the Trust Bill further stated that the beneficiary has, under the Bill, ‘no estate, or interest in the subject matter of the Trust’. This legislative history makes it pellucidly clear that the term ‘beneficial interest’ was deliberately crafted to eliminate any possibility of introducing the English concept of the beneficiary having an ‘equitable interest’ in the trust property. The beneficiary has a ‘beneficial interest’ — a right against the trustee as owner of the property — but no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust.

3.4 Dictionary meaning

The Black’s Law Dictionary (6th edition, page 156) defines ‘beneficial interest’ as:

“Profit, benefit or advantage resulting from a contract, or the ownership of an estate as distinct from the legal ownership or control.”

The Black’s Law Dictionary (9th edition, page 913) defines ‘beneficial interest’ as:

“A right or expectancy in something (such as a trust or an estate), as opposed to legal title to that thing.”

These dictionary meanings reinforce the position under the Trust Act: a beneficiary has a right in the trust, but such right is not equivalent to the ownership of the trust property. The beneficial interest is the right; the trust property is the subject matter. They are distinct.

4. JUDICIAL PRECEDENTS AFFIRMING THE DISTINCTION BETWEEN BENEFICIAL INTEREST AND TRUST PROPERTY

4.1 W.O. Holdsworth v. State of Uttar Pradesh [1957] 33 ITR 472 (SC)

The taxpayers in this case were trustees of an estate settled under a will, who were called upon to pay agricultural income-tax under section 11(1) of the U.P. Agricultural Income-tax Act, 1948. The question was whether the trustees held the land ‘on behalf of’ the beneficiary-annuitants within the meaning of that provision.

The Supreme Court, in a landmark pronouncement, definitively articulated the nature of the trust relationship under Indian law:

“A trustee is the legal owner of the trust property and the property vests in him as such and the beneficiary has only a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property. The trustee holds the trust property for the benefit of the beneficiaries but he does not hold it on their behalf. The expressions ‘for the benefit of’ and ‘on behalf of’ are not synonymous and convey different meanings. The former connotes a benefit which is enjoyed by another thus bringing in a relationship as between a trustee and a beneficiary or cestui que trust; the latter connotes an agency which brings about a relationship as between principal and agent between the parties.”

The Supreme Court thus categorically held that a trustee does not hold property on behalf of beneficiaries — he holds it for the benefit of beneficiaries. The beneficiary has a right against the trustee, and nothing more.

4.2 CWT v. Kripashankar Dayashanker Worah [1971] 81 ITR 763 (SC)

This ruling arose under the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 (“WTA”). Section 21(1) of the WTA provided for levy and recovery of wealth tax from trustees, referring to trustees as holding trust property ‘on behalf of’ beneficiaries. The taxpayer, relying on the ruling in W.O. Holdsworth, argued that since a trustee holds property for the benefit of and not on behalf of beneficiaries, the inartistic language of section 21(1) rendered the provision unworkable.

While the Supreme Court upheld the application of section 21(1) of the WTA, it explicitly acknowledged the legal position under the Trust Act:

“It is well established that a trustee does not hold the trust property on behalf of the beneficiaries but he holds it only for their benefit. Under the Trusts Act, it is indisputable that a trustee is the legal owner of the trust property. He holds the trust property on his own right and not on behalf of someone else though he holds it for the benefit of the beneficiaries.”

The Court proceeded to hold that since Parliament had specifically included trustees in section 21(1) of the WTA, and since the legislative intent was clear, the provision had to be given effect notwithstanding its inartistic drafting. The Court read down the provision to give it meaning in light of the legislative intent.

It is submitted that the ratio of the Kripashankar ruling is restricted to the specific context of section 21(1) of the WTA, where the legislature had made a deliberate, albeit inartistically worded, provision to assess wealth tax in the hands of trustees. The ruling does not, in any sense, hold that under the Trust Act, trustees hold property on behalf of beneficiaries.

4.3 CWT v. Trustees of H.E.H. Nizam’s Family (Remainder Wealth Trust) [1977] 108 ITR 555 (SC)

In this case, the Supreme Court was concerned with the extent of wealth tax liability of a trustee under section 21 of the WTA. A trust had been created with a corpus of Rs. 9 crores divided into 175 notional units, of which 161.5 units were allocated amongst relatives mentioned in the trust deed.

The Supreme Court made the following seminal observations regarding the nature of what is taxable in a trust:

“What is important to note is that in either case what is taxed is the interest of the beneficiary in the trust properties and not the corpus of the trust properties… This position becomes abundantly clear if we look at sub-section (5) which clearly postulates that where a trustee is assessed under sub-section (1) or sub-section (4), the assessment is made on him ‘in respect of the net wealth’ of the beneficiary, that is, the beneficial interest belonging to him.”

The Court illustrated this by a numerical example: where trust property was worth Rs. 10 lacs held for a life beneficiary A and two remaindermen B and C, the total wealth tax assessable on the trustee (or the beneficiaries directly) would be only the actuarial value of A’s life interest plus the present value of B’s and C’s remaindermen interests — which would together amount to less than Rs. 10 lacs. The balance would not be subject to wealth tax.

The Supreme Court expressly acknowledged:

“In fact in most cases, if not all, the aggregate of the values of the life interest and the remaindermen’s interest would be less than the value of the total corpus of the trust property, since the value of the remaindermen’s interest would be the present value of his right to receive the corpus of the trust property at an uncertain future date and this would almost invariably be less than the value of the corpus of the trust property after deducting the value of the preceding life interest.”

The very fact that beneficial interest (as taxable in the hands of beneficiaries or the trustee) is valued differently and typically at a lower amount than the corpus of the trust property is a conclusive illustration that the two are distinct assets. Had beneficial interest been merely another name for trust property, the valuation would have been identical.

4.4 CWT v. Mrs. O.M.M. Kinnison [1986] 161 ITR 824 (SC)

The question in this case was whether the beneficial interest of a non-resident beneficiary under an English will trust where the corpus included Indian shares and managing agency rights constituted an asset ‘located in India’ for purposes of section 6(i) of the WTA.

The Supreme Court affirmed the High Court’s finding that the beneficial interest of the taxpayer was a right in the nature of a chose-in-action enforceable in England, and therefore constituted a foreign asset not subject to wealth tax in India. The Court observed:

“All that the assessee was entitled to on the valuation dates was the right to have the trust administered and… the right of the assessee was a right enforceable in that Court and, therefore, must be regarded as a foreign asset, an asset not located in India.”

Several propositions of significant relevance flow from this ruling. The legal ownership of the trust properties vested with the trustees. The beneficial interest of the taxpayer did not extend to any right of ownership in any of the trust properties in specie. The right which the taxpayer acquired under the trust was a right to have the trust administered in accordance with the provisions of the will. The character of the beneficial interest as a separate, distinct asset — different from the trust property — was affirmed.

4.5 Indian Oil Corporation v. NEPC India Ltd. [2006] AIR 2780 (SC)

In this case, the Supreme Court was called upon to consider whether the right of a creditor-hypothecatee could be equated with the beneficial interest of a beneficiary in trust property. The Court
categorically rejected this equation and, in doing so, provided an authoritative definition of ‘beneficial interest’:

“The term ‘beneficial interest’ has a specific meaning and connotation. When a trust is created vesting a property in the trustee, the right of the beneficiary against the trustee (who is the owner of the trust property) is known as the ‘beneficial interest’. The trustee has the power of management and the beneficiary has the right of enjoyment. Whenever there is a breach of any duty imposed on the trustee with reference to the trust property or the beneficiary, he commits a breach of trust.”

This ruling unequivocally establishes that ‘beneficial interest’ is the beneficiary’s right against the trustee not ownership of or an interest in the trust property itself.

4.6 Yasmin Properties (P) Ltd. v. ACIT [1993] 46 ITD 331 (Mumbai Tribunal)

The Mumbai Tribunal in this case was concerned with the computation of capital gains on the transfer of beneficial interest held in a trust. The Tribunal held that the cost of acquisition of beneficial interest is determinable, and computed it as the proportionate share of the Taxpayer in the corpus.

While arriving at this conclusion, the Tribunal explained the nature of trust ownership as follows:

“When a trust is created, the ownership over the property is split into two: (i) the legal ownership which is acquired by and rests with the trustee; and (ii) the beneficial ownership which is acquired by the beneficiary by virtue of transfer under the trust and which is enjoyed by him. It is very important and curious instance of dual ownership which allows the separation of power of management and the rights of enjoyment. The trust ownership and beneficial ownership are separate and independent of each other in their destination and disposition both. Either of the two may be transferred or encumbered without affecting the other in any way.”

The Tribunal’s ruling, while dealing with the capital gains chapter, is an important recognition that trust ownership and beneficial ownership are separate and independent assets. A transfer of one does not affect the other. This principle is directly relevant to the present controversy: a transfer of beneficial interest does not result in a transfer of the specified property (i.e., the trust property itself) held by the trust.

4.7 Bombay High Court decisions: G.G. Morarji v. CIT [1958] 58 ITR 505 and Dr. R.B. Kamdin [1974] 95 ITR 476

In G.G. Morarji’s case, the Bombay High Court held, under the erstwhile Gift Tax Act, that a beneficiary has an equitable title to the trust property. However, this ruling was expressly overruled by the same Court in Dr. R.B. Kamdin’s case, where it was held that in a case of trust, the property is vested with the trustee and there can be only one owner of the property, i.e., the trustee. The Bombay High Court, in the latter ruling, relied upon the Privy Council ruling in Chhatra Kumari Devi v. Mohan Bikram Shah [1931] LR 58 IA 279 (PC), which had observed:

“The Indian law does not recognise legal and equitable estates… By that law, therefore, there can be but one ‘owner’, and where the property is vested in a trustee, the ‘owner’ must, their Lordships think, be the trustee.”

Importantly, rulings of the Privy Council retain binding force on all High Courts unless overruled by the Supreme Court, as confirmed by the Supreme Court in Shrinivas Krishnarao Kango v. Narayan Devji Kango and Others [1954] AIR 379 (SC) and Delhi Judicial Service Association v. State of Gujarat [1991] AIR 2176 (SC). The Privy Council ruling in Webb v. Macpherson [1903] LR 30 IA 238 (PC) further holds that Indian law knows nothing of the distinction between legal and equitable property. Accordingly, the view in G.G. Morarji’s case is not good law and must give way to the ruling in Dr. R.B. Kamdin.

4.8 Vanraj Ranchhoddas Merchant (through Legal Heir) v. ITO [ITA No. 5234/Mum/2025, AY 2011-12] (Mumbai Tribunal)

In Vanraj Merchant, an individual, held a 20% undivided share along with his four brothers in an ancestral family trust property situated at Colaba, Mumbai, since 10.02.1977. Out of his 20% share, the assessee assigned 10% undivided share in the said trust to his nephew for a consideration of Rs. 28,00,000/- vide registered deed dated 09.01.2010. The Assessing Officer, invoking section 50C of ITA, proposed to substitute the stamp duty valuation of Rs. 1,11,06,716/- as the full value of consideration. The Tribunal, on a careful examination of the registered assignment deed, found that the assessee had not transferred land or building in his own right. The operative clauses consistently described the subject matter of transfer as the life interest of the assessee in the trust property. The Tribunal held:

“The deed does not convey the corpus of the immovable property nor does it divest the trust of its ownership in the land or building. The ownership of the immovable property continued to vest in the trust at all material times, and the assessee merely assigned a limited, determinable and beneficial interest arising therefrom.”

The Tribunal proceeded to explain the nature of a life interest in law with considerable precision:

“In law, a life interest represents a limited estate, the duration of which is co-terminus with the life of the holder and which stands extinguished upon his death… Such an interest does not confer absolute ownership in the immovable property, nor does it vest in the holder the power to deal with the corpus of the property as an owner… Where such life interest arises under a trust arrangement, the position is even more restrictive. Under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, the legal title vests in the trustee, and the beneficiary’s enjoyment is circumscribed by fiduciary and preservative obligations imposed on the trustee for the benefit of all beneficiaries, including remainder men. The beneficiary holding a life interest acquires only a beneficial interest and not ownership of the trust property.”

Applying the principle that deeming fictions must be strictly construed, Tribunal held that the subject matter of transfer was not an immovable property but beneficial interest, and such transfer of beneficial interest did not trigger section 50C of ITA.

While this ruling arises in the context of section 50C of ITA rather than section 56(2)(x), the principles enunciated are of direct and compelling relevance. The Tribunal has unequivocally affirmed that a beneficiary holding a life interest in trust property “acquires only a beneficial interest and not ownership of the trust property”. The legal title vests in the trustee; the beneficiary holds only a limited, determinable right against the trustee. This is precisely the distinction that underpins the argument that beneficial interest does not constitute ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x) of ITA. The Tribunal’s recognition that the nature of the interest transferred and not merely the character of the underlying property must govern the tax analysis, is a principle that applies with equal force in the context of section 56(2)(x).

4.9 Partnership firm analogy

The nature of a beneficiary’s interest in a trust is remarkably analogous to a partner’s interest in a partnership firm, both being unincorporated entities not recognised as distinct legal entities under law.

The Supreme Court, in Addanki Narayanappa v. Bhaskara Krishnappa [1966] AIR 1300 (SC), held in the context of partnership firms:

“Whatever may be the character of the property which is brought in by the partners when the partnership is formed or which may be acquired in the course of the business of the partnership it becomes the property of the firm and what a partner is entitled to is his share of profits, if any, accruing to the partnership from the realisation of this property, and upon dissolution of the partnership to a share in the money representing the value of the property… no partner can deal with any portion of the property as his own. Nor can he assign his interest in a specific item of the partnership property to anyone.”

Just as a partner has a right to receive profits from the partnership property but not ownership of any specific item of partnership property, a beneficiary has a right to receive income and distributions from the trust property but not ownership of any specific trust asset. In both cases, the interest of the co-owner (partner or beneficiary) is a distinct asset from the underlying property of the entity.

During the subsistence of a partnership, a partner may assign his interest but what he assigns is the right to receive the share of profits which the assignor had. Similarly, during the subsistence of a trust, if a beneficiary transfers his beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act, what he transfers are the rights attached to that beneficial interest (right to income, right to corpus on dissolution, right to specific execution etc.), but not the trust property itself, which remains with the trustee.

5. INAPPLICABILITY OF SECTION 56(2)(X) TO TRANSFER OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST

5.1 Beneficial interest is not ‘Specified Property’

As discussed, section 56(2)(x) of ITA is triggered only on the receipt of ‘specified property’ as defined in the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii) of ITA. The specified property does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se. Beneficial interest being a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property, and not the trust property itself, is not a specified property. Its receipt by transfer is therefore beyond the scope of section 56(2)(x) of ITA.

Equally, while a mere transfer of legal title to property (without beneficial interest) is not covered by section 56(2)(x), a transfer of beneficial interest without a transfer of the legal title to the specified property should also not be covered. The provision is aimed at the transfer of the property itself, not rights attached to or arising from that property.

5.2 No transfer of trust property on transfer of beneficial interest

A transfer of beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act does not result in any transfer of the trust property. The trust property continues to remain with the trustee, who remains the legal owner. The transferee of the beneficial interest steps into the shoes of the transferor-beneficiary in terms of the rights to income and corpus distribution, but acquires no ownership of the trust property.

Section 56(2)(x) of ITA contemplates a receipt-based charge, i.e. a person ‘receives’ the specified property. In the context of a transfer of beneficial interest, the transferee does not receive the underlying trust property. He receives only the rights constituting the beneficial interest. In the absence of a receipt of the specified property, the foundational requirement for invocation of section 56(2)(x) is absent.

5.3 Role of section 161 of ITA

It may be argued that section 161 of ITA which provides that trustees shall be assessed to income in a representative capacity in respect of beneficiaries — implies that beneficiaries are to be treated as owners of trust property. This argument must be rejected for the following reasons.

Section 161 of ITA is a fiction limited to the taxability of income. It provides a methodology by which income may be taxed in the hands of trustees as representative assessees of the beneficiaries. It does not purport to determine the ownership of the underlying asset. Income may be taxed in the hands of trustees without altering the nature of the property right held by the beneficiaries.

It is a well-settled principle that a statutory fiction must be construed strictly and cannot be extended beyond the purpose for which it is created — see State Bank of India v. D. Hanumantha Rao [1998] 6 SCC 183 (SC) and CIT v. V.S. Dempo Company Ltd. [2016] 387 ITR 354 (SC). The fiction created by section 161 of ITA is restricted to the assessment of income and cannot be extended to determine ownership of the underlying asset for the purposes of section 56(2)(x) of ITA. Furthermore, the comparable fictions in sections 115U, 115UB, and 115TCA of ITA which provide that investments made by a Venture Capital Fund, Alternative Investment Fund, or Securitisation Trust are to be treated as if made directly by the investor in the underlying assets demonstrate that when Parliament intends to create a fiction of direct ownership, it does so explicitly. The absence of any analogous fiction in section 161 of ITA underlines the limitation of its scope.

6. REPERCUSSIONS IF BENEFICIAL INTEREST WERE EQUATED WITH TRUST PROPERTY

Equating beneficial interest with trust property would lead to a series of anomalous and unintended consequences across Indian tax and commercial law. It is instructive to enumerate these consequences, as they further support the proposition that the two must remain distinct.

Mutual funds in India are organised as trusts. Investors are allotted units representing beneficial interest in the trust. If beneficial interest were equated with the underlying trust property, the following consequences would ensue: (a) in the context of equity-oriented mutual funds, capital gains exemption under section 10(38) of ITA (as it existed) should have been available on transfer of units since the unit-holder would be effectively transferring the underlying listed shares — which is clearly not the legislative intent; and (b) under bilateral tax treaties such as the India-Mauritius DTAA and the India-Singapore DTAA, the transfer of mutual fund units might have to be treated as a transfer of shares of Indian companies, conferring India with a taxing right.

Section 98 of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004 which introduced Securities Transaction Tax (“STT”) provides separate entries for the levy of STT on shares, units of mutual funds, and units of business trusts. The existence of separate legislative entries for shares and mutual fund units is itself a recognition by Parliament that units of mutual funds (beneficial interest in the trust) and the underlying shares (trust property) are distinct instruments. Had they been the same, a single entry would have sufficed.

Real Estate Investment Trusts (“REITs”) are established as trusts by regulation. If beneficial interest (REIT units) were equated with the underlying real estate, a transfer of REIT units would be treated as a transfer of immovable property, potentially attracting section 50C of ITA which provides for stamp duty value as deemed consideration in transfers of immovable property. This would fundamentally undermine the REIT framework.

7. SPECIFIC TRUST VERSUS DISCRETIONARY TRUST: TRANSFERABILITY OF BENEFICIAL INTEREST

Section 58 of the Trust Act permits the beneficiary to transfer his beneficial interest, subject to the law for the time being in force as to the circumstances and extent in and to which he may dispose of such interest. In the case of a specific trust, where the beneficiary is identified and the share in the trust is determined, the beneficial interest is vested and transferable.

In the case of a discretionary trust, the position is more complex. The beneficial interest of a discretionary beneficiary is uncertain, both as to whether the beneficiary will be selected by the trustees and as to the quantum. It is well established under section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 that a mere possibility or expectancy is not a transferable property. Whether a discretionary beneficiary has a ‘present’ beneficial interest in the trust (notwithstanding the uncertainty of selection) or only a mere expectancy is a nuanced question of trust law that warrants careful legal analysis depending upon the terms of the trust deed. This aspect of the law requires input from the legal fraternity.

In either case, whether specific or discretionary trust, the fundamental proposition remains: the beneficial interest is a distinct asset from the trust property. A transfer of beneficial interest does not amount to a transfer of the trust property. Section 56(2)(x) of ITA, being confined to specified property, is not triggered.

8. AUTHOR’S VIEW

Considering the foregoing discussion, the following propositions may be advanced with reasonable confidence:

  •  The definition of ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x) of ITA (read with the Explanation to section 56(2)(vii)) does not include ‘interest’ or ‘rights’ per se. Beneficial interest, being a right against the trustee as owner of the trust property, and not the trust property itself, does not constitute ‘specified property’.
  •  Under Indian trust law as codified in the Trust Act, a beneficiary has no estate or interest in the subject matter of the trust. The beneficial interest is a personal right against the trustee, enforceable as a chose-in-action. The trustee is the sole legal owner of the trust property.
  •  A transfer of beneficial interest under section 58 of the Trust Act does not result in a transfer of the underlying trust property. The trust property remains with the trustee; only the rights constituting the beneficial interest change hands.
  •  The Supreme Court rulings in W.O. Holdsworth (1957), Kripashankar Dayashanker Worah (1971), Nizam’s Family Trust (1977), and Mrs. O.M.M. Kinnison (1986) all consistently affirm that a trustee does not hold trust property on behalf of beneficiaries; the beneficial interest of a beneficiary is a distinct and separate asset; and the valuation of beneficial interest is different from the valuation of the underlying trust property.
  •  The absence of ‘interest’ and ‘rights’ from the definition of ‘specified property’ under section 56(2)(x), combined with the structural and conceptual distinction between beneficial interest and trust property, leads to the conclusion that section 56(2)(x) of ITA is not attracted on the receipt of beneficial interest in a trust, whether by way of gift or for inadequate consideration.
  •  The equating of beneficial interest with trust property would lead to a series of unintended and anomalous consequences across REITs, AIFs, and other trust-based investment vehicles further confirming that such an equation cannot be the correct legal position.

From The President

My Dear BCAS Family,

As I reflect on two recent landmark events with which we were associated, the beginning of the new financial year could not have been more auspicious. In the first event held on 7th April, 2026, at the BSE Convention Centre, BCAS was the Support Partner for Dharmam Chara 2026 (walking the path of Dharma and its relevance to Corporate Life), a unique programme by Sri Pratyaksha Charitable Trust under the auspices of Shri Kanchi Kamakoti Peetam, in the benign presence of His Holiness Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswathi Shankaracharya Swamiji (“His Holiness”).

This was followed by a visit by His Holiness on 9th April, 2026, to bless our office and record a Podcast on “Culture – Foundation for Strong India | Sanskriti – Majboot Bharat ki Neev” moderated by our Past President, CA Mihir Sheth. His Holiness highlighted the importance of ensuring that the benefits of growth and democracy reach every section of society, including those in the remotest regions. We are truly humbled by the following remarks by His Holiness in the visitors’ book:

Professional Excellence the path of Dharma

“Visit to this institution which catalyses economic growth through useful audit & account services has been revealing & highly satisfying. Your contribution to sustained growth of the nation reaching out the gains of democracy to all sections of society, even in deep hinterlands, is commendable. National policies cannot lose sight of the basic dharmic characteristics of our nation. You have been following that path towards Viksit Bharat. Blessings & Prayers for continued good work.”.

“Jaya Jaya Shankara.. Hara Hara Shankara”.

The above events have inspired me to reflect on the theme of spirituality, coupled with dharma, and its impact on professionals and institutions like ours.

CONCEPT OF SPIRITUALITY:

In simple terms, it refers to one’s inner feelings: the pursuit of meaning, purpose, and connection to something larger than oneself. It is perceived by many as comparable to religion, which is more focused on traditions and rituals; however, the two are not identical, as spirituality is much broader and can be professed even by someone who does not follow any religion.

IMPACT ON PROFESSIONALS:

The moment we qualify as CAs, we are bound not only by technical obligations and learning but also by various ethical considerations. In recent years, our profession has faced various regulatory and other challenges, such as fraud and other ethical compromises driven by pressure, which have shaken public trust in the integrity of the financial information we report. The response to all this is through stricter standards, enhanced penalties, and more elaborate compliance architecture. In the long run, professional excellence can be sustained only through our inner spiritual calling and self-reflection by maintaining integrity and ethics under pressure.

Our training is a form of spiritual commitment dressed in professional language. When we swear to uphold public interest, to act with integrity and independence, to serve the cause of truth in financial matters- we are, subconsciously, articulating a form of dharma- by answering questions like who we are, what our duty is, and how we should act in challenging situations. We are placing ourselves in the service of something larger than our own interests, which is fundamentally a spiritual act.

Spirituality can help professionals in several ways, some of which are as follows:

  • Ethical Clarity under Pressure- There are times when our clients or employers force us to compromise on certain transactions or in certain situations. In times like these, a professional who has cultivated an inner life through spiritual practices such as prayer, meditation, and reading would be able to resist the urge to compromise.
  • Practising Humility This manifests itself through knowing one’s limitations since professional overconfidence can sometimes lead to serious unintended consequences with clients, regulators and stakeholders. Spirituality teaches us humility and accountability, which improve our professional relationships.
  • Compassion while Serving Many of us serve small businesses, family enterprises, and individuals navigating tax and compliance matters with limited knowledge and significant anxiety. This could manifest in situations where a small business owner receives a show-cause notice for Income Tax or GST for the first time, or in a family business where there are disputes over succession. While technical competence and the commercial aspect of our engagement come into play, it is the spiritual impulse, through recognition that the person across the table is a human being with limitations, that transforms the nature of our service and engagement as trusted counsellors, thereby making us better advisors.

BCAS’ ROLE:

BCAS is truly an institution with a purpose, founded almost contemporaneously with the ICAI by professionals who understood that ethical rigour is non-negotiable, a commitment that continues to date. The sense of volunteerism, which sustains its functioning, reflects a deep inner calling. Our success is measured not only by the seminars conducted, certifications awarded, publications issued, or representations made, but also by the positive impact they have on professionals and stakeholders, including regulators, without being constrained by regulatory burdens. Apart from the technical committees, non-technical committees, such as the HRD committee, also conduct many programmes to awaken the spiritual instincts of students and professionals. Finally, the BCAS Foundation, which supports various social activities, reflects the spirit of Dharma in ample measure!

PROFESSIONAL DUTY IS SPIRITUAL:

To conclude, I would like to refer to a quote on duty by Swami Vivekananda in Karma Yoga (Volume 1), which perfectly encapsulates the spirit of our professional and ethical obligations.

“Every duty is holy, and devotion to duty is the highest form of the worship of God”.

A big thank you to one and all!

Warm Regards,

CA. Zubin F. Billimoria

President

The Glass Ceiling In Accounting: Women In Leadership Roles

While the nation debates the issue of women’s reservation in Parliament, there is a need for the profession to introspect the issue closer home. We have witnessed a significant rise in female Chartered Accountancy qualifiers, now making up 48% of pass-outs, a record high. The overall representation of women CAs has also surged to 30%, up from a mere 8% in 2000. It’s not just the numbers, but also the talent, more than 75 women aspirants have topped CA exams at different levels in the last decade1.

Despite the talent and intellect, for over seventy-five years, the ICAI has never seen a woman president2. Even globally and in the context of professional practice, the glass wall remained just as sturdy until 2024, when Janet Truncale shattered the final frontier to become the first female Global CEO of a Big Four firm (Ernst & Young)3.


1 http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow/108627341.cms? utm_source= contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst

2 https://icai.org/post/past-president

3 https://www.ft.com/content/0213a7c4-1a0c-4bb7-9851-eb2dd8a93b86

These contrasting facts are indicators of a profound, systemic inertia. Women enter the accounting profession in near-parity, yet during the course of career ascent, the pyramid sharpens into a needle point, excluding them with quiet efficiency. This is the profession’s great paradox: we are masters of balance sheets, yet we have failed to balance our own leadership pipeline.

Why does the pyramid narrow? There is no single, malicious gatekeeper. Instead, it is a byproduct of structural mechanics. In accounting, the transition to partnership is not merely a promotion; it is a shift into entrepreneurship. It demands a decade of uninterrupted visibility and the cultivation of client networks—the “golf course” and “after-hours and outstation networking summit” variables—that often conflict with the peak years of personal responsibility. To ignore this friction is to ignore the reality of human life.

Furthermore, we must admit that aspiration is shaped by environment. When the summit has been occupied by the same demographic for generations, many women (often subconsciously) recalibrate their ambitions. If the finish line appears to be a space where you do not fit, the instinct isn’t always to fight the current; it is to redirect your energy elsewhere.

Candor demands an admission: there are no silver bullets. Any simplistic prescription, like aggressive quotas or preferential treatment, risks undermining the very foundation of our profession—meritocracy. Accounting survives on credibility; if we introduce shortcuts, we risk replacing one form of bias with another. We must seek to broaden the path without eroding the standards.

The path forward requires us to move beyond “accommodation” and consider flexibility instead. A firm that loses its top talent to rigid structures is not just being “traditional”—it is being inefficient. We must redefine career excellence to prioritize sustained contribution over the optics of 24/7 attendance.

We must also formalize the “hidden” economy of the profession. Business development and client relationship management are not innate traits bestowed upon a chosen few; they are skills to be taught. By mentoring intentionally, the current leadership can deliberately bridge the gap for those who lack access to the traditional, informal boys’ clubs.

For seventy-five years, the story of accounting leadership has been written by one hand. Changing that narrative won’t happen through policy manuals, but through a fundamental shift in culture. When firms stop viewing diversity as a mandate and start viewing it as a competitive necessity, the pyramid will finally stop narrowing. We may then have a woman president at the ICAI.

We don’t need to change the standard, but we must change the gate. The next seventy-five years should not be a mirror of the last.

Best Regards,

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

Editor

Who Knows?

We ARE because we KNOW. We will be a stone – jad – if we didn’t know or much lesser in terms of intelligence. In the Indian tradition, we have the Pramaana Shashtra – the theory of knowledge – epistemology. Without going into that, we today have size of knowledge, certainly the availability of it, has increased many fold. There are still giant flaws in KNOWING and PROBLEMS with it. This piece is contemplation on knowing.

Two key types of knowing, amongst others, is Direct Perception called Pratyaksha and INFERENCE – Anumaana. Lot of times the inputs – what we see affects what we perceive and vice versa. Take media, they will make you feel that what you are seeing is all there is. Often it is content out of context that gets extrapolated. Like plague in Surat. BBC TRIED to make the world feel that India got plague when one person was detected with plague.

Our biases, conditioning, experiences, judgments colour our perception. If you like a girl, and she smiles at you, one feels she is probably attracted to you. Or when someone is honest, people feel they aren’t polite. When polite, people may think they are fake! The list is endless and cause problems. These are Errors of knowing. Someone has said: Perception is reality, but not the truth. Thoreau wrote: “It’s not what you look at that matters, it’s what you see”.

Then there is the problem of not knowing but believing that we know. YouTube is filled with such people who predict everything. One woman said 21st March something major would happen, others said in 2000 the world will come to an end. Some predict stock markets or analyse politics. This is erroneous knowing or not knowing projected as knowing. Mark Twain has said it as it should be: It ain’t what you don’t know that gets you into trouble. It’s what you know for sure that just ain’t so.

Who Knows the path to true wisdom

The unknown is infinitesimal times more than known. However, it is equally true that there are more people who claim they know than those who say they don’t know. Probably most want to be ‘known’ as knower rather than otherwise. The Economist January edition in 2020 did not predict COVID effect leading to worldwide shut down nor could it tell Ukraine war despite carrying outlook for the year each year with tons of research.

Add to this muddy windshield, an item called narrative. News channels, keep the facts aside and rather project narrative or coloured facts, politicians avoid facts that lose votes, or give half facts to gain power. Ask a monkey to give you a banana in his hand for a promise of two in future or in after life, he will never give you the one he has. Humans do this all the time (mainly in case of financial and religious frauds) where they give what they have to get many more in future, and often ending up losing that too.

The great texts of India say: Those who know don’t know, those who don’t know, know (यस्यामतं तस्य मतं मतं यस्य न वेद सः). Then, is it best to be in the state of not knowing? Or is there knowing in the state of knowing?

One way to beat the problem of knowing is what the ICAI logo tells us to do – be AWAKE – Jagrat – knowledge is often past, even perception is so. Whereas to be AWAKE makes us perceive reality better with alertness as there is no presumption of certain outcome and the rest. One of the top CIO of a MF was asked about what they think about markets after the American war on Iran. He said we want to be prepared – I thought that was being alert.

In the Rig Veda, ends one of its Hymns not with answers but with questions — and perhaps that is the most honest epistemology of all. In a world drowning in information, noise, narrative, and confident uncertainty, a rare act may simply be to pause and ask: Who knows1? Not as an abdication, but as an awakening. To hold our knowing lightly, to remain alert without presumption, to sit comfortably in the vast space of what we do not yet understand — this is not ignorance. This, perhaps, beginning of wisdom. Who knows!


1 Nasadiya Sukta, 6-7

Learning Events At BCAS

I. BCAS HOSTS DISTINGUISHED INTERACTION WITH ICAI LEADERSHIP

On Thursday, 12th March 2026, a close interaction was organised at the BCAS Office, Jolly Bhavan, featuring CA Prasanna Kumar D, President ICAI, and CA Mangesh Pandurang Kinare, Vice President ICAI. The dignitaries were warmly felicitated by CA Zubin Billimoria, President BCAS, and CA Kinjal Shah, Vice President BCAS, in the presence of select BCAS past presidents, office bearers, Western Region Central Council Members, WIRC ICAI office bearers and elected members, and BCAS Core Group members.

The session, moderated by CA Zubin Billimoria, facilitated a structured, time-bound discussion on key professional issues, including:

  • Representation before the Charity Commissioner
  • Policy sustainability for professional growth
  • Freedom to operate and regulatory minimisation
  • Clarity in networking guidelines
  • Updates on Delhi High Court litigation concerning CAs’ representation rights before Tribunals
  • Profession vs industry dynamics
  • Top three opportunities and challenges facing the profession
  • Future of audit, ethics, and stakeholder expectations
  • Capacity building in audit, technology, and AI
  • CA employability and syllabus dynamism

CA Prasanna Kumar D and CA Mangesh Pandurang Kinare responded thoughtfully to members’ queries, sharing ICAI’s strategic vision and forthcoming developments. The interaction concluded with collaborative ideas for strengthening BCAS-ICAI coordination to advance the chartered accountancy profession.

BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership BCAS-Hosts-Interaction-with-distinguished-ICAI-Leadership

II. Learning Events At BCAS

1. Sakhi Circle – International Women’s Day held on 14th March 2026@ BCAS.

Speakers: Panelists – Hetal Kotak, Nisha Gala

Moderator – Kinjal Bhuta

The Women’s Day Celebration hosted by BCAS featured an engaging panel discussion on Ambition without Apology.

The event opened with an insightful panel discussion that highlighted how careers move through varied phases—from moments of doubt to moments where one’s voice is valued. The panel emphasised themes of continuous learning, authenticity, and staying relevant in a dynamic work environment.

A rapid-fire segment added energy to the discussion, drawing spontaneous and practical insights from the panelists. The evening concluded with a networking activity where participants introduced themselves using two adjectives, prompting self-reflection and encouraging authentic engagement within the group.

The session also reinforced that in person interactions create meaningful value, especially for women professionals, as shared experiences often help them draw strength from one another. Participants agreed that opportunities to connect, converse and collaborate play a vital role in personal and professional growth.

Sakhi-Circle-International-Womens-Day Sakhi-Circle-International-Womens-Day

2. Seminar on Attachment and Seizure Provisions under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 held on Friday, 27th February 2026 @ Hybrid

This event was jointly organised by Finance, Corporate and Allied Laws Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, along with the Commercial & Allied Law Committee of The Chamber of Tax Consultants at the BCAS Auditorium, Churchgate and was conducted as a hybrid event, with participants attending both physically and virtually.

The details of the program was as follows:

Topic Session Summary Faculty
Opening Remarks by CA Kinjal Shah, Vice President BCAS and CA Jayant Gokhale  President CTC
Session I : Keynote Address on the Framework of Search & Seizure under Section 17 of followed by an Interactive Discussion on Defense Strategies and Compliance Informative session which explained the scope of powers vested in the enforcement authorities, the statutory requirement of “reason to believe,” and the procedural safeguards that must be followed during the conduct of such actions. The address also touched on important judicial interpretations that shape the application of the provision. The session provided participants with valuable insights into both the investigative powers under the law and the practical approaches for handling such proceedings. Hon’ble Justice Ms. Aarti Sathe, Judge, Hon’ble Bombay High Court

 

Adv. Sunny Punamiya

CA Shardul Shah

 

Moderator: CA Apurva Shah

 

Session II: Keynote Address on the Framework of Attachment under Sections 5 & 8 of PMLA followed by an Interactive Discussion on the Attachment Procedure Enlightening lecture which explained the concept of provisional attachment, the conditions required for invoking such powers, and the procedure followed by the Enforcement Directorate before and after passing an attachment order. The address also highlighted the role of the Adjudicating Authority under Section 8 in confirming or setting aside the attachment after providing an opportunity of hearing. The session provided an overview of the practical aspects, legal safeguards, and key considerations for professionals dealing with such proceedings, enabling participants to gain a clearer understanding of the statutory process and its implications. Hon’ble Justice Shri. Advaith Sethna, Judge, Hon’ble Bombay High Court

 

Adv. Sunny Punamiya

Adv. Bernardo Reis

 

Moderator: CA Kinjal Shah

 

 

The Seminar provided a comprehensive perspective on the framework of search and seizure and attachment proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, and featured two insightful and interactive sessions that simplified the legal and procedural complexities surrounding these provisions.

The program had 10 physical attendees and 108 virtual attendees. 34 of the participants who attended this seminar were from outside Mumbai.

This informative seminar was coordinated by Shardul Shah, with the help of convenors Raj Khona and Khubi Shah Sanghvi, and Team CTC.

Seminar-on-Attachment-and-Seizure-Provisions-under-Prevention-of-Money-Laundering-Act-2002 Seminar-on-Attachment-and-Seizure-Provisions-under-Prevention-of-Money-Laundering-Act-2002

3. FEMA Study Circle -“Downstream Investment” held on 27th February 2026@ Virtual

The FEMA Study Circle organised a meeting to deliberate on the Downstream Investment provisions as provided under the FEM (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019. The session was chaired by CA Hardik Mehta and led by CA Swetha Prasad.

The discussion covered key aspects as provided below:

  • Definition of downstream investment & indirect foreign investment
  • Aspects to keep in mind before making downstream investments
  • Computation of indirect foreign investment
  • Procedural compliance in relation to downstream investments
  • Pricing & reporting guidelines for downstream investments
  • Relaxations/clarifications issued in relation to downstream investments

The group leader also took the participants through various scenarios for the identification of FOCC, computing foreign ownership, etc. There were good discussions about the issuance of stock options and non-equity instruments by the FOCC and how it would trigger downstream investment provisions. There were deliberations on investment holding entities making downstream investments, considering the recent relaxation by the RBI for NBFCs. The meeting concluded with participants sharing practical learnings on downstream investments.

4. 23rd Residential Leadership Retreat held on Friday, 27th February 2026 and Saturday, 28th February 2026 @ Rambhau Mhalgi – Bhayander

The 23rd Residential Leadership Retreat was conducted over two days on the theme Krishna Niti for Life Excellence, at Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini.

Dr. Girish Jakhotiya

Dr. Girish Jakhotiya, a renowed author and economist, drew structured lessons from the life journey of Lord Krishna, linking key milestones – from Gokul and Mathura to Dwarka and Kurukshetra – with principles of strategic thinking, leadership and self-transformation.

 Dr. Jakhotiya distinguished excellence from perfection and explained “Life Excellence” through four pillars: economic prosperity, intellectual supremacy, social equality, and cultural bliss. Through case studies and illustrations from Krishna’s life, he encouraged participants to examine strategy, risk versus uncertainty, leadership styles, branding, ethical flexibility and institution building.

The Leadership retreat received an encouraging response from members across practice and industry. Around 50 participants from 8+ cities and towns across India enrolled for this residential program. Participants appreciated the clarity of explanations and the practical insights shared by the faculty.

5. BCAS Women’s Study Circle — SAKHI CIRCLE on Voice to Influence – Build Yourself as a Professional Speaker held on Saturday, 21st February 2026@ Virtual.

Speaker: Ms. Kalpana Thakur

The Women’s Study Circle organized an engaging session titled “Voice to Influence – Build Yourself as a Professional Speaker.” The session focused on how individuals can develop their speaking abilities by strengthening three core elements: Action, Belief and Visibility. Participants were encouraged to take proactive steps toward improving their communication skills and not wait for perfection before beginning their journey. The importance of building strong internal beliefs—particularly the confidence to express ideas and share knowledge—was highlighted as the foundation of impactful speaking.

The faculty emphasized the power of visualizing one’s future self and breaking long-term aspirations into smaller, consistent practice-based goals. Practical guidance was provided on preparing content, practicing delivery, presenting effectively, and developing one’s personal brand through clarity and consistency. The session also covered techniques for narrowing down areas of expertise and leveraging digital platforms to enhance visibility and influence. Attendees found the insights valuable for strengthening their professional presence and building themselves as confident speakers.

Motivational Highlight:The rest of my life is going to the best of my life!!

6. ITF Study Circle meeting on the ruling of “Binny Bansal” held on Tuesday, 17th February 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organized an online meeting to discuss the Tribunal ruling in the case of Binny Bansal and its implications.

The session began with brief opening remarks by the Chairman of the session, CA Rashmin Sanghvi. Thereafter, the Group Leader, CA Nithin Surana, explained the case in detail, covering the facts of the case, the arguments of the taxpayer and the tax authorities, and the ruling given by the Tribunal, along with key inputs from the Chairman.

After presenting the case, the Group Leader shared his analysis of the ruling and discussed the legal issues arising from it. The participants actively shared their views on the implications of the ruling.

The Chairman and the Group Leader also shared their perspectives on the possible way forward and the likely outcomes if the matter is taken to higher appellate levels. The discussion was comprehensive and covered the important aspects of the ruling.

7. FEMA Study Circle – “Guarantees under FEMA” held on 13th February 2026@ Virtual.

The FEMA study circle organised a meeting on the revised Guarantee regulations issued by the RBI. The session was chaired by CA Vijay Gupta and led by CA Jigar Mehta.

  • The discussion covered the following aspects:
  • Concept and classification of Guarantees under FEMA
  • Important Definitions
  • Exemptions from Guarantee Regulations
  • Permissions under the Regulations
  • Guarantee as per ODI regulations
  • Reporting requirements
  • Case studies for discussion

The meeting provided insight into the new regulations for the issuance and receipt of inward as well as outward guarantees.

8. Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws Study Circle – NBFCs: Key Regulatory Developments And Emerging Areas held on Thursday, 12th February 2026 @ Virtual.

Speaker: Mr. Kunal Mehta

The Finance, Corporate & Allied Laws (FCAL) Study Circle organised a virtual session on the Zoom platform to discuss the intricate regulatory framework governing Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). The meeting, attended by 52 participants, focused on providing practical insights into the rapidly evolving regulatory landscape and recent developments initiated by the RBI. Key discussion points included identifying major compliance challenges faced by NBFCs in the current dynamic environment. The speaker highlighted best practices for maintaining audit readiness and ensuring robust adherence to statutory requirements. Participants explored the essential concepts of the NBFC framework to better navigate evolving legal standards. The session emphasised the importance of staying updated with shifting regulatory expectations to mitigate operational risks. Attendees engaged in a dialogue regarding the practical application of these regulations within their respective professional capacities. The event concluded with a comprehensive overview of how firms can maintain a proactive stance toward future regulatory shifts.

9. Report on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 & Deliberation on New Income Tax

Association of Corporate Advisers & Executives (ACAE), jointly with Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS), successfully organized a full-day programme on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 and Deliberation on the New Income Tax Law on 7th February, 2026 at Williams Court, 40, Shakespeare Sarani Road, 4th Floor, Kolkata – 700017, bringing together eminent professionals and experts to deliberate on key fiscal and legislative developments impacting the nation.

The Inaugural Session commenced with the ceremonial Lighting of the Lamp by CA. Jai Prakash Agarwal, Chairman of ICAI Dubai Chapter, CA. Kinjal M. Shah, Vice President of BCAS, CA. Niraj Kumar Harodia, President of ACAE, other esteemed dignitaries and ACAE Office Bearers symbolizing the pursuit of knowledge and wisdom.

This was followed by a warm and insightful Welcome Address by CA. Niraj Kumar Harodia who highlighted the significance of the Conclave, shared his reflections on his interactions with the esteemed speakers, spoke about the rich legacy and evolution of ACAE as one of the oldest professional associations in Kolkata and welcomed everyone to the Conclave.

The distinguished Guests of Honour, CA. Kinjal M. Shah, Vice President of BCAS, initiated the deliberations with an analytical perspective on Shaping Responsible, Respected and Future Ready Professionals for Decades.

CA. Jai Prakash Agarwal, Chairman of ICAI Dubai Chapter, further enriched the discussion with his practical insights on Emerging Professional Opportunities in the Middle East.

The first technical session was delivered by eminent Guest Speaker, CA. Pradip N. Kapasi, Past President of BCAS, Mumbai, on an in-depth comparative analysis on the Major Changes between the Income Tax Act, 1961 vis a vis Income Tax Act, 2025, clearly outlining structural reforms, simplification measures, and compliance implications.

CA. Padamchand Khincha, Partner at H C Khincha & Co., Chartered Acountants, Bengaluru, in the second technical session elaborated on the Major Amendments proposed through the Income Tax Bill, 2026, explaining the legislative intent, interpretational aspects, and the anticipated impact on tax administration.

Mr. Sameer Narang, Head at Economics Research Group, ICICI Bank, Mumbai, concluded the speaker sessions with a macro-economic perspective on the Impact of Budget on Indian Economy, addressing fiscal discipline, growth projections, capital expenditure focus, and the overall economic outlook.

The Conclave witnessed enthusiastic participation from over 100 delegates, including members, professionals, and representatives from various industries. The sessions were highly interactive, marked by meaningful discussions and thought-provoking queries, making the programme both informative and intellectually stimulating.

The joint initiative with the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society reinforced the spirit of professional collaboration and knowledge sharing, ensuring that members remain well-equipped to navigate the evolving taxation landscape.

The programme concluded with a formal Vote of Thanks, expressing sincere gratitude to the esteemed speakers, dignitaries, and participants for contributing to the grand success of the Conclave.

Report on Conclave on Union Budget 2026 & Deliberation on New Income Tax

10. ITF Study Circle meeting on “Discussion on Supreme Court Ruling in the case of Tiger Global” held on 27th January 2026@ Virtual.

The International Tax and Finance Study Circle organised an online meeting to discuss the implications of the Supreme Court’s ruling in the case of Tiger Global.

Group Leaders CA Ramesh Khaitan and CA Jimit Devani

The session opened with remarks from the group leaders on their initial thoughts on the Supreme Court ruling, covering the facts of the case, the contentions raised, and the Court’s ruling. Then the group leaders discussed the critical implications of the ruling. Some of the issues discussed included whether a Tax Residence Certificate is sufficient to claim benefits under a tax treaty, the application of the substance-over-form principle, etc. The group leaders discussed the likely next course of action for Tiger Global. The participants also shared divergent views on the implications of the Supreme Court ruling. The participants expressed apprehensions about the wider application of the principles in this ruling and its unintended consequences.

The discussion covered several key issues that will impact similar cases in the future. The session closed with concluding remarks by the Group Leaders.

11. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on Practical Issues under GST in Healthcare Industry held on Thursday, 22nd January 2026 @ Virtual

Group Leader: CA. Shefali Bang

Mentor: CA Parag Mehta

The group leader first presented the Law pertaining to the healthcare industry under GST, followed by five case studies covering the various aspects of Issues in the healthcare industry under GST.

The presentation covered the following aspects of the Healthcare Industry for a detailed discussion:

  • Whether treatment for Substance Use Disorder through OPD consultation, counselling, and supervised medicine dispensing qualifies as an exempt healthcare service under GST, or whether it may be treated as a taxable supply of medicines.

  • Whether doctor consultation and medicines supplied to outpatients by the hospital pharmacy should be treated as separate taxable supplies or a composite supply of healthcare services, and the related ITC reversal mechanism.
  • GST implications in a revenue-sharing arrangement between a diagnostic laboratory and a sample collection centre, focusing on the taxability of sample collection services and diagnostic testing services.
  • Whether health check-up packages marketed by a company through empanelled hospitals and diagnostic centres qualify for GST exemption as healthcare services, particularly when sold to healthy individuals or corporate employees.
  • Whether naturopathy therapies, along with residential accommodation provided by a wellness retreat, constitute a composite exempt healthcare service or whether accommodation should be taxed separately.
  • The reversal of Input Tax Credit (ITC) when certain life-saving drugs become GST-exempt, particularly regarding raw materials, semi-finished goods, finished goods, and capital goods held in stock
  • Around 100 participants from all over India benefited while taking an active part in the discussion. Participants appreciated the efforts of the group leader and the mentor.

III. REPRESENTATION

1. Representation to SEBI on Research Analyst Regulations

BCAS has submitted a representation on 24th February 2026 to SEBI highlighting practical issues faced during registration under the Research Analyst (RA) Regulations, 2014. The representation is based on feedback from professionals and applicants.

Key concerns include the absence of a clear framework for transition from individual to corporate entities, leading to disruption and duplication of processes. BCAS has also pointed out delays in processing applications after delegation to BSE.

Further, the Society has raised issues regarding restrictive interpretation of rules, especially relating to the “other employment” of Principal Officers, and lack of clarity on certain operational aspects.

BCAS has requested SEBI to provide necessary clarifications and streamline the process to reduce difficulties faced by applicants while ensuring investor protection.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/wp-content/uploads/2026/02/SEBI-RA-Representation.pdf

IV. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  • BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

Statistically Speaking

1. INDIA’S ADVERTISING SPEND OUTLOOK

Spends (INR CR)

Source: WPP Media Company (formerly GroupM)

2. INDIA’S CURRENT POPULATION

INDIA’S CURRENT POPULATION

Source: Worldometer

3. MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGES ONLINE AND OFFLINE

MOST SPOKEN LANGUAGES ONLINE AND OFFLINE

Source: Data Reportal, Ethnologue

4. INDIA’S GROWING GDP

INDIA’S GROWING GDP

5. TRADE DEFICIT WIDENS

TRADE DEFICIT WIDENS

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

1. Income tax Rules 2026 notified. They will come into effect from 1 April 2026. – Notification No.22/2026 dated 20 March 2026

II. FEMA

1. RBI modifies the ECB forms in line with the revised ECB Framework under FEM (Borrowing & Lending) Regulations

The RBI, on 9th February 2026 issued new Borrowing and Lending regulations, revising External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) framework. The old ECB forms have been revised in line with the new ECB framework. Part V – Annex I and Annex II have been substituted with Form ECB I/Revised Form ECB I and Form ECB 2 respectively.

[AP (DIR Series 2025-26) Circular No. 23,dated 18th February 2026]

2. RBI introduces ‘Currency Declaration Form’ under FEM (Export and Import of Currency) Regulations, 2015

The RBI has amended Regulation 6 of FEM (Export and Import of currency) Regulations, 2015 by introducing a ‘Currency Declaration Form’. The following points are to be noted with respect to the form:

a. The form needs to be filled in by passengers where the aggregate value of foreign exchange brought in, in the form of currency notes, bank notes, or travellers’ cheque exceeds USD 10,000 or its equivalent, or where the value of foreign currency notes exceeds USD 5,000 or its equivalent.

b. This form needs to be produced to a bank authorised to deal in foreign exchange or a money changer at the time of conversion or reconversion.

c. In case visitors to India do not wish to encash all the foreign exchange declared, they should retain this form for producing the same to  Customs at the time of their departure. This is to enable them to take with them the unutilised balance.

[Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/2026-RB, dated 23rd February 2026]

3. Govt. amends FDI Policy on ‘Investments from Countries sharing land border with India’

In April 2020, Press Note 3 (2020) was introduced to prevent opportunistic takeovers of Indian companies by certain neighbouring countries during Covid-19 pandemic. Government approval was made mandatory for any investment by an investing entity incorporated in a country sharing a land border with India (LBC), or where the beneficial owner of such an investment was a citizen of, or situated in, such LBC.

The Union Cabinet has recently approved changes in these provisions relating to investments from LBCs. The amendments in Para 3.1.1. of the FDI policy have brought much needed clarity. The existing policy has been amended as follows:

a. An entity or citizen of an LBC, or where the beneficial owner of an investment into India is a citizen of such country, can invest only under Government route. This restriction also applies to any transfer of ownership, directly or indirectly, in an existing or future FDI in an entity in India.

b. Beneficial owner (BO) shall have the same meaning as defined under section 2(1)(fa) of Prevention of Money laundering Act, 2002 and shall be determined as per Rule 9(3) of the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005. Further, it is provided that determination of BO shall be applied at the Investor entity level.

c. The above criteria shall be applied in substance. Hence, where a citizen or an entity of an LBC has the ability to directly or indirectly, individually or cumulatively, independently or collectively, whether acting together or otherwise, hold rights/entitlements which:

                  a. exceed the prescribed threshold in an investor entity outside the LBC; or

                 b. enable such citizens or entities to exercise control over such investor entity; or

                  c. enable them to exercise ultimate effective control over the Indian entity in any manner; the beneficial ownership of such an investment shall be deemed to be from an LBC.

                 d. Effectively, investors with non-controlling BO from an LBC of up to 10% shall be permitted under automatic route, subject to applicable sectoral caps, entry route and attendant conditions. However, such investments shall be subject to reporting of relevant information or details by the investee entity to DPIIT.

                e. Further, direct investment from LBCs will still require Government approval. Such applications in following sectors must now be processed and decided within 60 days:

                                    i. Manufacturing of Capital Goods

                                   ii. Electronic Capital Goods

                                  iii. Electronic Components

                                  iv. Polysilicon manufacturing

                                  v. Ingot and wafer manufacturing

In these cases, the majority shareholding and control of the Investee entity will be with resident Indian citizen(s) and/or resident Indian entity(ies) owned and controlled by resident Indian citizen(s), at all times.

              f. The present Rule also covers beneficial owners “situated in” LBC. Thus, even an NRI situated in an LBC could not make a direct investment into an Indian entity without prior Government approval. One important change that Press Note 2 of 2026 brings about is that the Government Route is now applicable only to citizens of these countries or entities incorporated or registered in such countries. Thus, a citizen of countries other than LBCs can invest in Indian entities without prior approval from the Government, even though they may be present in an LBC.

The above amendments will take effect from the date of notification to the NDI Rules.

[Press Release, dated 10th March 2026, Press Note No. (2026 Series), dated 15th March 2026]

III. IFSCA

1.IFSCA specifies a fee structure for entities undertaking or intending to undertake permissible activities in IFSC

The IFSCA has issued a circular prescribing a fee structure for entities undertaking permissible activities in IFSCs and for persons seeking guidance under Informal Guidance Scheme, 2024. The circular applies to applicants seeking license, registration, recognition, or authorisation as well as existing regulated entities. The different categories of fees include application fees, license or registration fees, recurring fees (flat and conditional based on turnover), activity based fees, processing fees, interest on delayed payments, charges for delayed reporting, fees for informal guidance, etc.

The circular also prescribes penalties for delays, including 0.75% monthly interest on unpaid fees and USD 100 per month for delayed regulatory reporting. The circular will apply from FY 2026-27. This circular supersedes previously issued circulars related to fee structured from the date of commencement of this circular i.e. 1st April 2026.

[Circular No. IFSCA-DTFA/1/2026, dated 2nd March 2026 Circular No. IFSCA-DTFA/2/2026, dated 13th March 2026]

2. IFSCA launches a scheme titled “Support for Alternative Trade Instruments under Export Promotion Mission”

IFSCA has launched a scheme titled “Support for Alternative Trade Instruments under Export Promotion Mission (EPM) – NIRYAT PROTSAHAN”. The Scheme aims to improve access to export finance for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) involved in international value chains by providing support for alternative trade finance instruments with a focus on export factoring.

Eligible financial institutions shall ensure compliance with all operational requirements, including submission of claims, reporting obligations, and timelines.

[Circular No. IFSCA-FCR0ITFSR/3/2025 – Banking, dated 19th March 2026]

3. IFSCA issues new measures to ensure operational substance in Capital Market Intermediaries operating in GIFT IFSC

The IFSCA has issued measures to ensure substance in Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) in GIFT IFSC. As part of these measures, IFSCA has been conducting multiple rounds of market intelligence visits. The visits were made to registered office premises of CMIs to verify the presence of substance, including the presence of the Principal Officer and Compliance Officer, as well as the adequacy of infrastructure, in accordance with the provisions of the IFSCA Capital Market Intermediaries Regulations, 2025.

The supervisors made the following key observations:

a. Some CMIs were found to be closed or unattended during business hours.

b. Neither the Principal officer, nor the Compliance Officer, nor authorised personnel were present in some CMIs.

c. The designated Principal and Compliance officers lacked adequate awareness of regulatory framework applicable to CMIs in some cases.

d. Necessary infrastructure was lacking to effectively carry out business activities in a few CMIs.

e. In some CMIs, certain practices were carried out using remote access software like Anydesk, Ultraviewer, etc. Further, the Compliance Officer was also handling the trading desk, which is a conflict of interest.

Based on these observations, IFSCA has initiated appropriate regulatory action against the concerned CMIs in accordance with applicable regulatory framework. All CMIs are advised to ensure substance, including strict adherence to provisions of IFSCA CMIs Regulations, 2025.

[Press Release, dated 19th March 2026]

(Audacity To Complain!)

Arjun Hey Bhagwan, good that you came early today.

Shrikrishna Arjun. You know that I never come nor do I go. I am Omni present!

Arjun That I am aware of. But in this kaliyuga, it seems, your presence is missing at many places. Innocent people are suffering.

Shrikrishna I have told you in Geeta that people suffer due to their own Karma; and my presence may not help unless they surrender to me! And improve their karma.

Arjun Be it as it may! Today I am very much worried. Rather frightened.

Shrikrishna Why? Is it because of wars everywhere? Ukraine, Iran, Afghanistan….

Arjun I am never frightened of wars. Thanks to your blessings, I was always triumphant.

Shrikrishna Then what are you worried about?

Arjun Our own profession! This war of complaints of misconduct is terrible. So much of nuisance. So much of harassment to innocent CAs. And no one to help!

Shrikrishna Yes. I have heard that. But it is common. Everywhere Asat (Evil) is powerful since Sat (सत्) Righteous is not strong and assertive! Anyway, tell me what is the present problem?

Arjun Lord, it is very serious. I have lost my sleep. My friend is totally depressed due to a very mischievous complaint against him. And there is no fault on his part whatsoever!

Shrikrishna In Mahabharata also, there wasShakuni!

Arjun This is super Shakuni! See the audacity of the present complainant. There are two partnership firms with 5 partners each – ABC Caterers and Decorators; and ABC Caterers.

Mrs. A is a common partner in both the firms. One or two other partners are also common.

Shrikrishna Okay. Then?

Arjun ABC Caterers and Decorators (C & D) took a loan from a PSU bank.

Loan application was made on C & D letterhead, their partners’ data was given to bank, Mrs. A has signed the application and other papers.

Loan was sanctioned and disbursed to C & D only.

Shrikrishna Fine. Quite normal.

Arjun Moreover, Mrs. A’s husband was a guarantor to this loan. He was fully aware of everything as Mrs. A was a partner for name’s sake.

Shrikrishna That is also normal.

Arjun Unfortunately, the bank while opening the account, mentioned only ABC Caterers. The words – ‘and Decorators’ were missing. Entire paper work was in the name of C & D only.

Shrikrishna Didn’t they ask the banker?

Arjun They did. They were told that in their system, full name was not accommodated. Only these many characters are accommodated.

C & D firm operated this account as its own, also it utilised the loan amount, but it became NPA!

Shrikrishna Oh!

Arjun Bank started recovery proceedings against C & D.

Shrikrishna Obviously.

Arjun My CA friend audited accounts as if the transactions and bank account were of C & D only. And he was right.

Shrikrishna Did the other firm – ABC Caterers consider these transactions as theirs?

Arjun Not at all! Everybody was fully aware that it was of C & D only and it had nothing to do with the other firm.

Shrikrishna Mr. & Mrs. A were also aware?

Arjun Of course, yes. They were signatories. My friend was also involved right from beginning – in the process of obtaining the loan.

Shrikrishna Now, what is the problem?

Arjun Lord, Mr. A who is fully aware of everything, has filed a complaint against my friend.

Shrikrishna What for?

Arjun My friend was the auditor. The complainant says that he audited the accounts with transactions of C & D although the account on the face it was in the name of the other firm.

Shrikrishna Oh!! That was perhaps the mistake of the bank or the limitation of its system.

Arjun Yes, Lord. The fact remains that it was legally and factually of C & D itself. The bank has taken up legal proceedings against C & D only.

Bank has confirmed all these facts in the recovery proceedings before DRT.

Shrikrishna Very strange! But your friend will be definitely absolved.

Arjun I am not sure since your present has become doubtful! And any complaint takes at least 4 years for disposal. My poor friend is totally depressed and frustrated.

Shrikrishna The lesson is – Don’t trust anyone in such matters. Write to the bank there and then when the account is opened

Arjun I agree. But these are afterthoughts. No one could have even dreamt this. Question is that the guarantor despite being a party to the whole affairs has the audacity to make such a complaint.!

Shrikrishna Don’t worry. I will help him!

Om Shanti.

(This dialogue is based on the current scenario of rampant frivolous complaints of misconduct)

Miscellanea

1. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

# AI Traffic Could Surpass Human Activity by 2027

The internet is on the brink of a fundamental transformation. In a speech at the SXSW conference in Austin, Texas, Cloudflare CEO Matthew Prince warned that traffic generated by AI-powered bots could overtake human online activity as early as 2027. Prince described generative AI as having an “insatiable need for data,” driving automated agents to browse websites at a scale humans could never match. From shopping and research to content generation, these bots are already reshaping the digital landscape, creating real load on servers and networks worldwide.

Prince drew a sharp contrast between human and bot behaviour. A typical human shopping for a digital camera might visit just five websites. An AI agent performing the same task, however, could scan 1,000 times more—potentially 5,000 sites—in seconds. “That’s real traffic, and that’s real load, which everyone is having to deal with and take into account,” Prince said. Before the generative AI boom, bots accounted for roughly 20% of global internet traffic, mostly from legitimate sources like search-engine crawlers. Malicious bots existed, but they were a minority. Now, the explosion of AI tools has flipped the script.

The Cloudflare chief painted a picture of explosive, sustained growth. Unlike the sudden COVID-era surge in streaming (YouTube, Netflix) that strained networks for a few weeks before stabilising, AI-driven traffic is rising steadily with “no sign of slowing down or stopping.” This shift is forcing companies to rethink the very architecture of the internet. Prince highlighted the need for new infrastructure: instant, temporary “sandboxes” for AI agents. These lightweight environments could spin up in the same time it takes a user to open a new browser tab, run the agent’s task, and then shut down automatically. He predicted that, in the near future, millions of such sandboxes could be created every second.

(Source: indianexpress.com dated 21st March 2026)

#India’s outsourcing industry is worth $300bn. Can it survive AI?

India’s $300 billion (£223 billion) outsourcing sector, which accounts for 80% of the country’s total services exports and has created millions of white-collar jobs over the past 30 years, is facing its biggest threat yet from artificial intelligence. The Nifty IT index of the country’s top software firms has already plunged 20% this year, wiping out tens of billions of dollars in market value, after tools such as Anthropic’s Claude agent began automating core legal, compliance and data processes. Some CEOs and investors now warn that traditional IT services could “vanish by 2030”, with AI potentially eliminating up to 50% of entry-level white-collar roles; Jefferies forecasts that application-managed services (currently 22-45% of revenues) will suffer sharp deflation, dragging overall revenue growth down by 3% annually for the next five years before flatlining beyond 2031.

Indian IT giants, however, insist AI will ultimately create far more work than it destroys. Infosys CEO Salil Parekh points out that generative AI could displace 92 million jobs in roles such as front-end developers and testers, yet generate 170 million new positions in data annotation, AI engineering and AI leadership. Nasscom data shows AI-related revenue still accounts for just $10 billion of the industry’s $315 billion total, with sector-wide growth slowing to a modest 6% this year (from double-digit rates previously) and net employee strength projected to rise only
2.3% in 2026. HSBC’s “Software Will Eat AI” report adds that enterprise software firms remain irreplaceable for complex, reliable systems that pure AI cannot yet replicate, suggesting the industry will pivot from experimentation to large-scale AI deployment and outcome-based billing rather than disappear.

(Source: bbc.com dated 18 March 2026)

2. ENVIRONMENT

#An Invisible Crisis: The Hidden Environmental Impact of Pharmaceutical Waste

Pharmaceutical pollution has emerged as a silent global environmental crisis, with around 4,000 active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) currently in use worldwide. According to the UN, 631 pharmaceuticals or their transformation products have been detected in the environment across 71 countries. A major 2022 study found pharmaceutical contamination in river samples from over 1,000 locations in 104 countries, affecting every continent. Traces appear in rivers, lakes, and groundwater everywhere, with Pakistan’s Ravi River identified as the world’s most polluted from pharmaceutical waste. Manufacturing sites discharge concentrations 10 to 1,000 times higher than typical wastewater, and residues have been traced more than 30 km downstream

The ecological damage is already severe. Synthetic hormones act as endocrine disruptors at concentrations as low as one nanogram per litre, causing feminisation in male fish and reproductive failure. In South Asia, the veterinary drug diclofenac triggered a catastrophic decline of over 95% in vulture populations within a decade. Antibiotic residues in water are accelerating the rise of “superbugs,” a major global health threat highlighted by the WHO. While wastewater treatment plants can remove 90–95% of pharmaceutical compounds, the vast majority of pollution stems from human excretion, improper disposal of unused medicines, livestock farming, and factory discharges, raising serious long-term concerns for both ecosystems and human health.

(Source: earth.org – 17 March 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI PUBLICATIONS

1. GUIDANCE NOTE ON AUDIT OF BANKS

The Institute issues a revised edition of the publication “Guidance Note on Audit of Banks” annually. This Guidance Note serves as a comprehensive resource for members, providing detailed guidance on the conduct of statutory audits of banks and their branches.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91301aasb-aps4524-b.pdf

2. BRIDGING THE EXPECTATION GAP – AUDIT VS. FORENSIC

The publication “Bridging the Expectation Gap – Audit vs. Forensic” addresses this critical issue in a structured and objective manner. It offers a clear exposition of the conceptual foundations, scope, and inherent limitations of statutory audits conducted under the Standards on Auditing, while contrasting them with the distinct objectives, methodologies, and deliverables of forensic engagements.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90762caq-aps4099.pdf

3. COMPENDIUM OF OPINIONS

44th Volume of the Compendium of Opinions, which encapsulates the opinions finalised during the period from February 12, 2024 to February 11, 2025.

https://icainet-my.sharepoint.com/:b:/g/personal/eac_icai_ in/IQCUOeRAj9 JjTZSNOKQCL7 svAdoR6l tUGs7etyMBuKenSD8

4. HANDBOOKS

a. Applicability of GST on the Agricultural Sector

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20Applicability%20of%20GST%20on%20Agricultural.pdf

b. Composition Scheme Under GST-February (3rd) 2026 Edition

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20Composition%20Scheme%20Under%20GST-February%20(3rd)%202026%20Edition.pdf

c. E-Commerce Operators under GST

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Handbook%20on%20E-Commerce%20Operators%20under%20GST.pdf

d. Refunds under GST

https://idtc.icai.org/publications.php#:~ :text=Handbook%20on%20Refunds%20under%20GST

e. Significant Judicial and Advance Rulings in GST-A Compilation

https://d23z1tp9il9etb.cloudfront.net/download/pdf26/Significant%20Judicial%20and%20Advance%20Rulings%20in%20GST-A%20Compilation%20 %20February%20(2nd)%202026%20Edition.pdf

5. TAXATION OF DIGITAL ECONOMY – A STUDY

“Taxation of Digital Economy – A Study” presents a comprehensive analysis of evolving tax frameworks impacting digital businesses. It highlights India’s multifaceted response—ranging from the Significant Economic Presence provisions to its commitment under the global Two-Pillar solution—while underscoring the principles of sovereignty and fairness that underpin these measures.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/91170cit-aps4336.pdf

II. ICAI Opinion – Accounting treatment of non-construction fee under Ind AS framework

A. FACTS OF THE CASE

  • The company was allotted land by GMADA for the construction of an office building, with a condition to complete construction within a stipulated period.
  • Due to construction delays, GMADA levied non-construction / extension fees from time to time.
  • The company accounted for such fees (except penal interest) under Capital Work-in-Progress (CWIP), considering them attributable to the asset.
  • C&AG objected, stating that such fees are in the nature of a penalty for delay and should be expensed, not capitalised.

B. QUERY

  • Whether the accounting treatment of non-construction fees debited to CWIP is in compliance with applicable Ind AS.
  • If not, whether any modification in treatment is required.

C. POINTS CONSIDERED BY THE COMMITTEE

  • The Committee restricted its examination to the accounting treatment of non-construction fee only.
  • As per Ind AS 16, only costs directly attributable to bringing the asset to the location and condition necessary for its intended use can be capitalised.
  • Such directly attributable costs are those necessary for the construction or development of the asset, without which the asset cannot be made ready for use.
  • The non-construction fee arises due to delay in construction or non-compliance with stipulated timelines under the allotment terms.
  • The Committee observed that such fees are not necessary for construction activity nor for bringing the asset to its operational condition.
  • Instead, these represent a cost of holding the land without construction or during construction, similar to administrative costs

D. OPINION

  • The non-construction fee relates to delay/non-compliance with construction conditions and is not directly attributable to bringing the asset to its intended operating condition.
  • Accordingly, such expenditure cannot be capitalised under Ind AS 16
  • It should be expensed in the Statement of Profit and Loss with appropriate disclosures.

III. ICAI BOARD OF DISCIPLINE – CASES

Case: In Re : CA. DKA

File No.    :    PPR/P/348/17/DD/334/INF/2017/BOD/489/ 2018

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant Information received from CBI (RC No. G(E)/2005/EOW-I/DLI)

Nature of Case Involvement in fraudulent donation routing through bogus trusts

Background  :A CBI investigation revealed a large-scale fraud (2003–2005) involving the misuse of the name of the Indian Medical Scientific Research Foundation (IMSRF). Fake bank accounts were opened in the name of IMSRF and other fictitious trusts, through which donations aggregating ₹3.26 crore were received and siphoned off. Funds were routed back to donor companies after deducting commission, enabling wrongful tax exemptions.

Key Allegations Acted as a key conspirator in the creation and operation of bogus trusts.

– Facilitated opening of fake bank accounts and routing of funds.

– Had control/association with accounts used for diversion of donations.

– Assisted in enabling fraudulent tax benefits to donor entities.

Respondent’s Defence – Alleged procedural irregularities and lack of proper opportunity.

– Claimed delay and non-supply of documents by ICAI.

– Stated that the related CBI matter was still pending at the pre-charge stage.

– Did not substantively address allegations on merits and largely remained absent during proceedings.

Findings

– Evidence from CBI investigation, bank records, PAN data, and witness statements established active involvement.

– Respondent repeatedly failed to appear despite multiple opportunities

– No credible defence on merits was provided.

– Proceedings remain valid even if member’s status ceases at a later stage.

– Conduct showed a serious ethical breach and disregard for the disciplinary process.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – other misconduct (read with Section 22).

Punishment Removal of name from Register of Members for 3 months

Case : CA. KHJ vs. CA. RK

File No. : PR/29/2020/DD/66/2020/BOD/643/2022

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant CA. KHJ

Respondent CA. RK

Nature of Case Holding Certificate of Practice while in full-time employment

Background The Respondent, holding a Full-Time Certificate of Practice since 2005, was found to be simultaneously working as Chief Financial Officer (CFO) in a government organisation in Bihar, namely JEEVIKA (Bihar Rural Livelihoods Promotion Society). As per ICAI regulations, a CA in practice cannot engage in any other employment without prior permission.

Key Allegations – Continued to hold a full-time COP while working as CFO in a Government organisation.

                               – Engaged in employment without obtaining prior permission from ICAI.

                              – Violated Clause (11), Part I, First Schedule and Regulation 190A.

Respondent’s Defence Claimed employment was contractual and performance-based, not full-time.

– Argued misunderstanding regarding the permissibility of holding COP.’

– Submitted that no attestation work, UDIN generation, or professional practice was carried out.

– Subsequently surrendered COP and membership (2024).

Findings- Documentary evidence (staff list & website) established Respondent as a full-time CFO.

– No evidence of ICAI permission for employment was produced.

– Claim of contractual engagement was unsupported.

– Counsel admitted lapse during the hearing.

– Holding a COP alongside employment is a clear violation of professional ethics.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (11), Part I, First Schedule – engaging in another occupation while in practice.

Punishment Removal of name from the Register of Members for 1 month

Case : Ms. PDP vs. CA. M.S.M.

File No. : PR/300/2018/DD/301/2018/BOD/646/2022

Date of Order : 30.12.2025

Particulars Details

Complainant Ms. PDP

Respondent CA. M.S.M.

Nature of Case Gross negligence in handling ITAT appeal

Background The Complainant engaged the Respondent to represent her in income-tax appellate proceedings (AY 1999–2000 to 2004–05) before CIT(A) and ITAT, Pune. Despite payment of professional fees, the Respondent allegedly failed to appear before ITAT on multiple hearing dates, leading to an ex-parte order confirming a tax demand of approx. ₹56 lakh, causing financial hardship.

Key Allegations Failure to attend ITAT hearings despite engagement and receipt of fees.

– Non-representation resulted in ex-parte order and substantial tax liability.

– Negligence in the discharge of professional duties.

Respondent’s Defence No substantive defence; the Respondent failed to appear or file a reply despite multiple opportunities.

Findings

– ITAT order recorded non-appearance of the authorised representative on hearing dates (page 4).

– Complainant provided documentary evidence, including the appointment letter, fee proof, and ITAT order.

– The Respondent remained absent in all proceedings (7 hearings) and failed to rebut the allegations.

– Conduct was held to constitute gross negligence and dereliction of professional duty.

Charges Established Guilty under Item (2), Part IV, First Schedule – Other Misconduct (lack of due diligence).

Punishment Removal from the Register of Members for 3 months

Company Law

1. Jayaben Shantilal Doshi vs. Ronak Dyeing Ltd.

183 taxmann.com 186 (NCLT – Mumbai Bench)

CP No. 200(MB) of 2023 | Decided: 4th February, 2026

Non-service of notices of general meetings to shareholders and sale of company property at an undervalued price both independently constitute acts of oppression and mismanagement under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013. Further, offer letters for a rights issue must be served on each shareholder individually, a director’s deemed knowledge cannot substitute personal service on other shareholders.

Background: RDL was originally promoted by SDD, Kirti Kumar Vasa (KV), and the Sharma Group, each holding equal stakes. SDD died on 30.03.2013 and his shareholding was transmitted to the Petitioner in FY 2018–19. KV’s group subsequently exited by transferring their shares to the Sharma Group, leaving the Petitioners as the only minority shareholders with 10.79% of the capital.

FACTS

The Petitioners filed a petition under Sections 241–242 of the Companies Act, 2013 alleging four distinct acts of oppression and mismanagement:

  1. Undervalued Sale of Bhuleshwar Property: RDL sold an immovable property at Bhuleshwar, Mumbai vide Deed of Conveyance to M/s Asteya Properties for ₹64.80 lakhs. The Petitioners’ IBBI-registered valuer determined the ready reckoner value at ₹1.25 crore and the fair market value at ₹3.41 crore. The conveyance deed described the property as “open vacant land” with a demolished structure, which contradicted even the photograph filed by the Company itself, showing a two-storeyed structure.
  2. Dilution of Shareholding via 2011 Rights Issue: In March 2011, RDL issued 5,00,000 new equity shares on a rights basis. These shares were allotted exclusively to the Sharma Group and 11 of their relatives (including non-shareholders), with no offer letter served on the Petitioners, SDD, or KV. As a result, the combined shareholding of the SDD group was diluted from 21.56% to 10.79%.
  3. Excessive Director Remuneration: The Respondents and their family members (including daughters of Respondent No. 2 and newly inducted directors Respondents No. 4 & 5) were alleged to be drawing disproportionate remuneration without the requisite qualifications or participation in business activities.
  4. Non-Service of Notices of General Meetings: The Petitioners alleged that they were never served notices of General Meetings or Annual Audited Financial Statements, except for the AGM pertaining to FY 2022–23. This excluded them from any participation in the Company’s affairs after SDD’s demise.

Arguments by the Petitioners

  •  The Bhuleshwar property was sold without a special resolution, as required under Section 180(1)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013, and at a grossly undervalued price — just ₹64.80 lakhs against a fair market value of ₹3.41 crore.
  •  The 2011 rights issue was an oppressive act, as no offer letter was ever served on the Petitioners or SDD; the allotment of a large portion to non-shareholders was illegal under Section 81 of the Companies Act, 1956. The petition was not time-barred because limitation should run from the discovery of fraud in 2023 and the wrong was a “continuing wrong.”
  • Remuneration paid to family members of the Respondents was excessive and unjustified, particularly to those without qualifications or business involvement, and possibly in excess of limits under Section 197 read with Schedule V.
  •  Non-service of meeting notices to shareholders constitutes a continuing act of oppression, depriving them of their statutory rights.
  •  Relief sought included cancellation of the conveyance deed, restoration of shareholding to 21.56%, removal of respondents from the board, forensic audit, appointment of an independent administrator, and, alternatively, winding up.

Arguments by the Respondents

  •  The petition was barred by limitation and delay & laches, particularly the challenge to the 2011 rights issue, which was over 12 years old. SDD had signed Annual Returns for FY 2010–11 and FY 2011–12 showing the changed shareholding, constituting his implied acquiescence.
  • The Bhuleshwar property’s conveyance deed described it as vacant land after demolition of the shed, and a photograph taken in May 2023 could not be used to impute the property’s condition in July 2022. No special resolution was required since the property did not qualify as an “undertaking” under the Explanation to Section 180(1)(a).
  • The Sharma Group submitted that since SDD himself served as a director, the Petitioners cannot solely blame the Respondents for non-service of notices; the Petitioners’ long silence belied their claims.
  • The remuneration to Respondents No. 2 & 3 was commensurate with the company’s growth. Revenue grew 228%, and Plant & Machinery investment grew 260% over 10 years. Remuneration to the daughters (approx. ₹60,000/month) was not excessive. No Income Tax disallowance had been reported in the tax audit report.
  • Respondents were willing to buy out the Petitioners, and a court-appointed valuer determined the share value at ₹178.46 per share.

Decision

The NCLT allowed the petition and made the following key findings and directions:

Sale of Bhuleshwar Property

  • The property did not require a special resolution since its book value was zero and it generated no income — it did not qualify as an “undertaking” under the Section 180(1)(a) explanation. This ground of challenge was rejected.
  • However, the sale was held to be at an undervalued price. The conveyance deed’s description of it as vacant land contradicted both the company’s own photograph and the IBBI valuer’s report. The Respondents filed no counter-valuation report. The sale was declared an act of oppression and mismanagement prejudicial to the members’ interests.

2011 Rights Issue

  •  The challenge qua SDD’s shares was held barred by limitation, as SDD had signed Annual Returns reflecting the changed shareholding and was actively involved in the company — he was expected to have noticed the dilution with reasonable diligence.
  • However, the challenge qua the Petitioners’ direct shareholding was not barred, as the Respondents could not prove service of offer letters to the Petitioners specifically. Notices and offer letters must be served on each shareholder individually, and SDD’s knowledge cannot be imputed to the Petitioners without evidence of authorisation. The allotment to the exclusion of the Petitioners was held to be a continuing wrong and bad in law under Section 81 of the Companies Act, 1956.

Director Remuneration

  • The remuneration to Respondents No. 2 & 3 was found reasonable given the Company’s growth trajectory and no Income Tax disallowance.
  • However, the Tribunal directed the Registrar of Companies to examine whether the total managerial remuneration exceeded the limits prescribed under Section 197 read with Schedule V, and any excess amount is to be factored into the share buyout price.

Non-Service of Notices

  •  Non-service of meeting notices was squarely held to be an act of oppression. The Respondents offered no evidence of dispatch; a bare assertion was insufficient.

Directions

  • Respondents directed to buy out the Petitioners’ shares at the value determined by Valuer, (adjusted upward for items below) within 60 days, failing which interest at 10% p.a.
  • The difference between fair market value (₹3.41 crore) and actual sale consideration (₹64.80 lakhs) of the Bhuleshwar Property, along with interest @ 12% p.a., to be added to the share value.
  • Remuneration in excess of Section 197 limits, if determined by RoC, is to be added to the share buyout value.
  • Petitioners’ shareholding to be adjusted to include the rights shares they were individually entitled to in the 2011 issue.
  • An independent IBBI valuer (Ms. Manisha Satej Dharia) appointed to re-value the Kalyan industrial property, with the revised value to be substituted in the valuer’s report.
  • Alternatively, the company may buy back the Petitioners’ shares.

2. Yerram Vijay Kumar vs. The State of Telangana

Before Supreme Court (SLP (Crl.) No. 11530 OF 2024)

Date of Order: 09th January, 2026

The Supreme Court held that for offences relating to fraud under Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, for which prosecution can be initiated only on a complaint filed by Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) or with its authorization, and a private complaint is not maintainable under Section 212 of the Companies Act, 2013.

FACT

The Special Court for Economic Offences had taken cognizance of “fraud-related” offences under Section 448 Companies Act, 2013 based on a private complaint and the appellant had raised a jurisdictional objection that the Special Court could not take cognizance of “fraud” under the provisions of the Companies Act because Section 212 (6) requires that such complaints to be filed by the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) or the Central Government, not by a private individual.

The Charges on the appellant based on a private compliant taken by the Special Court, were under following provisions:

i) Offences under the Companies Act, 2013

  • Section 448 (False Statement): Relates to intentionally making false statements in any return, report, certificate, or document required under the Act.
  • Section 451 (Punishment for Repeated Default): Relates to enhanced penalties for those who commit the same offence twice within three years.

ii) Offences under the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

The complaint also alleges traditional criminal acts:

  • Section 420: Cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property.
  • Section 406: Punishment for criminal breach of trust.
  • Section 468 & 471: Forgery for the purpose of cheating and using forged documents as genuine.
  • Section 120B: Criminal conspiracy.

The Core Legal Interpretation/Question before Supreme Court was:

Whether a Special Court could take cognizance of offences under Section 448 (punishment for false statements) and Section 451 (punishment for repeated defaults) based on a private complaint?

ORDER

The Supreme Court observed that Section 448 does not prescribe an independent punishment. Instead, it mandates that a person found guilty “shall be liable under Section 447.” Consequently, any proceeding under Section 448 is functionally an “offence covered under Section 447”.

Supreme Court held that the mandatory safeguard in the second proviso of Section 212(6) applies and a Special Court cannot take cognizance of these offences except upon a written complaint by the Director of the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) or an authorized Central Government officer. Accordingly, the Court quashed the proceedings before Special Court specifically to the extent of Sections 448 and 451 of the Companies Act, as they were initiated via a private complaint without SFIO/Government authorisation.

The Court further stated that a person alleging corporate fraud is not remediless but should follow the statutory route, by filing an application under Section 213 before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) to trigger an investigation.

Structural Shift In Merchant Banking Regulations – Aligning With Maturing Capital Markets

The SEBI (Merchant Bankers) (Amendment) Regulations, 2025, modernize India’s capital markets by replacing the 1992 framework. Key reforms include a tiered categorization (Category I and II) with significantly higher net worth requirements, reaching ₹50 crore for Category I by 2028. A new liquid net worth mandate and a cap on underwriting commitments (20x liquid net worth) mitigate systemic risk. To ensure active participation, minimum revenue thresholds are introduced. Furthermore, non-core activities must be managed through Separate Business Units (SBUs), shifting oversight toward substance-based supervision.

I. INTRODUCTION

Merchant bankers occupy a pivotal and institutionally sensitive position within the architecture of the modern capital market and function as the principal intermediaries and gatekeepers between issuers seeking access to capital and investors deploying risk capital.

In the Indian context, merchant bankers have historically played a foundational role in the development and expansion of the country’s primary securities market. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992 (“erstwhile Regulations”), were formulated at a time when India’s equity markets were still in their formative phase. Issue sizes were relatively small, institutional participation was limited, and regulatory priorities were centred on market creation rather than systemic risk containment.

As we deep dive into the Indian Market Scenario in the last few decades, the scale, pace, and complexity of India’s capital markets today bear little resemblance to the conditions that prevailed when the 1992 regulatory framework was introduced.

There are more than 230 registered merchant bankers; however, only a smaller set of Book Running Lead Managers are actively managing Initial Public Offerings (IPOs). The companies planning IPOs in the upcoming Year 2026 number more than 190, of which 84 have received SEBI approval and 108 are awaiting approval. This shall set a new fundraising potential to more than ₹2.5 Lakh Crore from more than 190 issuers1.

Further, there has been a steep rise in the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) Filings, with 19 startups and more than 24 companies preparing IPO documentation. In the month of February 2026 alone;

DRHP’s filed on SME Exchanges – 6 companies

DRHP filed on Mainboard – 2 Companies

SME IPO Listings – 14 Companies

Mainboard IPO Listings -3 Companies2.

The sharp increase in public issue sizes, the rapid expansion of the SME IPO segment and heightened retail investor participation have explicitly highlighted the limitations of the erstwhile Regulations. Acknowledging this structural disconnect, the Securities and Exchange Board of India, through the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Merchant Bankers) (Amendment) Regulations, 2025 (‘’Amended Regulations’’), has undertaken the first comprehensive amendment of the merchant banking framework in over three decades.


1 https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/ipo-market-2026-

over-190-companies-line-up-for-debut-over-rs-2-5-lakh-crore-fundraisingtargetted/

articleshow/126172612.cms

2 https://www.ipoplatform.com

II. REGULATORY RATIONALE FOR REFORM:

The capital adequacy framework under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992, anchored to a uniform net worth requirement for merchant bankers of ₹five crore, had ceased to be proportionate to the scale and complexity of contemporary capital market transactions, thereby requiring increasing minimum net worth requirements in a phased manner from ₹25 Crores in 2027 to ₹50 Crores in 2028 for existing Category I regulated intermediaries, i.e. merchant bankers.

Effective from January 1, 2026, these amendments reflect a clear shift towards a prudential, risk-focused, and activity-based regulatory approach, aimed at strengthening market integrity while aligning Indian standards with evolving international regulatory benchmarks.

This regulatory transition was preceded by a structured consultative process initiated through SEBI’s consultation paper issued in August 2024, which systematically identified key gaps in the existing regime, including inadequate capital thresholds, an open-ended scope of activities, underwriting risk concentration, and the persistence of dormant registrations. This process underscores SEBI’s move towards evidence-based and participatory rulemaking in the regulation of market intermediaries.

III. KEY AMENDMENTS:

a) Capital Re Architecture: Tiered Categorisation and the advent of Liquid Net Worth

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Merchant Bankers) (Amendment) Regulations, 2025, introduce a tiered classification of merchant bankers, creating Category I and Category II intermediaries. Category I merchant bankers are authorised to undertake all permitted activities under Regulation 13A of the Amended Regulations, including lead management of main board public issues, whereas Category II merchant bankers may undertake all other permitted activities except main board public issues. This bifurcation aligns regulatory obligations with market scale, ensuring that high-risk main board mandates are undertaken by well-capitalised entities. The revised norms shall apply to existing MBs in a phased manner as under:

Category Current Requirement (As per 1992 Regulations) Phase 1 (on or before January 2, 2027) Phase 2 (on or before January 2, 2028)
Category I ₹5 crore ₹25 crore & Liquid Net worth – 6.25 Cr. ₹50 crore & Liquid Net worth – 12.5 Cr.
Category II ₹5 crore ₹7.5 crore & Liquid Net worth – 1.875 Cr. ₹10 crore & Liquid Net worth – 2.5 Cr.

*Please note all new applicants shall adhere to the revised Net worth Requirements.

b) Compliances of minimum revenue from permitted activities

It has been observed that several Merchant Bankers are engaged only in activities other than core issue management and its related activities, utilising SEBI registration primarily as a reputational asset rather than as an operational mandate. Accordingly, Merchant Bankers shall now be required to generate minimum revenue on a cumulative basis over the three immediately preceding financial years as ₹Twenty-Five Crores for Category I & ₹Five Crore for Category II. The first assessment with respect to minimum revenue from permitted activities will be carried out w.e.f. 1st April 2029. This will allow only serious and credible market players to sustain in the merchant banking business. However, professionals auditing merchant banking companies, as a matter of practice, reconcile revenue reported in Half-yearly reports to SEBI with minimum revenue from permitted activities reflected in the statement of Profit & Loss to ensure ongoing compliances.

c) Compliances in respect of underwriting obligations

The rapid growth of the SME IPO segment further exposed deficiencies in due diligence standards, underwriting discipline, and conflict management, especially among smaller and thinly capitalised intermediaries. Regulation 22B(2) of the amended regulations caps total underwriting commitments at twenty times a merchant banker’s liquid net worth, replacing the earlier regime that permitted disproportionate exposure based on notional net worth. This reform materially mitigates systemic risk and ensures that underwriting obligations are backed by financial strengths.

d) Threshold for Determining Merchant Banker Association with Issue of Securities

A merchant banker, being a promoter or an associate of either the issuer of the securities or of a person making an offer to sell or purchase securities in terms of any of the regulations made by the Board, shall not lead manage any issue or be associated with any activity undertaken under any of the regulations made by the Board by such issuer or person. The threshold for determining the association of a merchant banker, either by control directly or indirectly through its subsidiary or holding company, has been reduced from fifteen percent to ten percent.

Merchant bankers are prohibited from lead-managing public issues where their key managerial personnel or relatives hold, in aggregate, more than 0.1% of the paid-up share capital or shares whose nominal value is more than Ten Lakh rupees, whichever is lower. These measures reinforce independence, objectivity, and fiduciary accountability across merchant banking operations.

e) Professional Accountability and Institutional Governance

The amended framework also elevates professional standards within merchant banking entities. Principal officers must possess a minimum of five years’ experience in financial markets. Compliance oversight has been strengthened under Regulation 28A through mandatory NISM Series-IX and Series-IIIA certifications, reinforcing regulatory adherence and investor protection. Transitional provisions allow existing compliance officers to continue subject to experience thresholds and timely certification, balancing continuity with enhanced competence.

The Great Upgrade India New Merchant Banking ERA

f) Redefining the Scope of Merchant Banking and the Separate Business Unit (SBU) Framework

The Amendment Regulations explicitly recognise that SBUs are not separate legal entities; the focus is on in substance segregation, operational independence, independent reporting lines, and the maintenance of robust Chinese walls to prevent risk contagion. Under the amended Regulation 13, merchant bankers are expressly permitted to undertake activities directly connected to the securities market lifecycle, including;

(i) managing of public issues, qualified institutions placements, rights issues of securities and advisory or consulting services incidental to such issues;

(ii) managing of:

a. acquisitions and takeovers under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011;

b. buy-back under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Buy Back of Securities) Regulations, 2018;

c. delisting under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, 2021;

d. compliances as may be required under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 in respect of any scheme of arrangement;

e. implementation of a scheme under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Share Based Employee Benefits and Sweat Equity) Regulations, 2021; and

f. advisory or consulting services incidental to the activities specified in clauses (a) to (e);

(iii) underwriting activities as specified by the Board from time to time; private placement of listed or proposed to be listed securities on a stock exchange recognised by the Board and activities incidental thereto.

(iv) advisory or consulting services incidental to the activities specified in clauses (a) to (e);

For the purpose of this clause, ‘securities’ shall be treated as ‘proposed to be listed’ from the date of approval of the board resolution of the issuer, for the issuance of such securities to be listed on a stock exchange recognised by the Board;

(v) managing the international offering of securities and advisory or consulting services incidental to such offering;

(vi) filing of placement memorandum of an alternative investment fund;

(vii) issuance of a fairness opinion;

(viii) managing of secondary market transactions of securities listed on a stock exchange recognized by the Board and activities incidental thereto;

(ix) market making in accordance with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018;

(x) and any other activity as may be specified by the Board from time to time.

Activities outside the core list are no longer permissible as part of merchant banking and must, if undertaken, be conducted through Separate Business Units (SBUs), thereby ensuring a clear distinction between core merchant banking and other financial services activities. To ensure a smooth transition, existing merchant bankers are required to restructure non-core activities into SBUs within six months from the effective date of January 1, 2026.

Key Differences in Erstwhile Regulations and Amended Regulations

Feature 1992 Regulations (Erstwhile Regulations) 2025 Amendments (Amended Regulations) Strategic Shift
Categorization Unitary framework (Category I dominant) Two-tier framework (Category I and Category II) Recognition of market bifurcation between Main Board and SME platforms
Minimum Net Worth ₹5 Crores ₹50 Crores (Category I) / ₹10 Crores (Category II) Increase to ensure financial resilience and institutional strength
Liquidity Requirement No specific liquidity requirement Mandatory Liquid Net Worth (minimum 25%) Shift from book solvency to immediate solvency
Underwriting Exposure No explicit cap on underwriting Underwriting capped at 20× Liquid Net Worth Risk-taking capacity strictly linked to liquid capital
Valuation Activity In-house valuation permitted Valuation prohibited; mandatory use of Registered Valuer Removal of conflict of interest between deal execution and valuation
Data Localization No data localization requirement Mandatory data storage within India Data sovereignty and assured regulatory access
Record Retention Period 5 years 8 years Alignment with tax, enforcement, and other investigation statutes
Activity / Revenue Requirement No minimum revenue requirement Minimum revenue thresholds: ₹25 Cr (Category I) / ₹5 Cr (Category II) “Active player” doctrine to eliminate dormant registrations

VI. Way Forward: Towards a Resilient, Credible and Globally Aligned Merchant Banking Ecosystem

The regulatory overhaul of the merchant banking framework marks a transformative step in the evolution of India’s merchant banking landscape, establishing a regulatory directive that carefully balances prudential discipline with operational flexibility. The Amended Regulations enable market participants to adapt to heightened standards without disrupting market continuity or capital formation.

Some of the key takeaways are:

  •  Merchant banking regulation in India has decisively moved from form-based registration to substance-based supervision, commensurate with the evolving and growing capital market activities.
  • Capital adequacy is operationally enforced through tiered net worth thresholds, liquid asset requirements, and underwriting exposure limits.
  • The positive list framework defines the boundaries and permissible merchant banking activities.
  • Licence continuity is now tied to demonstrable market participation, reinforcing the principle that merchant banking is an active institutional responsibility rather than a passive regulatory entitlement.

Collectively, these measures position India’s merchant banking industry to operate with greater credibility, resilience, and strategic alignment with international standards, ensuring that the primary markets function efficiently and securely while supporting long-term capital formation objectives.

Personal Guarantors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

The IBC treats personal guarantors as a distinct class closely linked to corporate debtors. Their liability is co-extensive, meaning creditors can proceed against them directly without first exhausting remedies against the principal borrower. Supreme Court rulings clarify that a corporate resolution plan does not discharge guarantor obligations, nor does the Section 14 moratorium protect them. To ensure efficiency, insolvency proceedings for both debtors and guarantors are typically consolidated under the NCLT. Ultimately, guarantor liability remains independent, allowing creditors to pursue parallel remedies under statutes like SARFAESI

INTRODUCTION

Personal guarantees have historically been a central feature of commercial lending in India. Promoters and directors frequently provide personal guarantees to secure corporate borrowings. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 introduced a comprehensive framework governing the insolvency of corporate persons as well as individuals, including personal guarantors to corporate debtors.

The evolution of jurisprudence relating to personal guarantors under the IBC reflects an attempt by courts to reconcile traditional contract law principles with the modern insolvency framework. The central issues addressed by courts include the co-extensive liability of guarantors, the independence of guarantor obligations, the jurisdictional forum for insolvency proceedings, and the relationship between proceedings against corporate debtors and guarantors.

A series of landmark judicial pronouncements have clarified these questions and collectively established a coherent legal framework governing the treatment of personal guarantors under the IBC.

CONTRACTUAL FOUNDATIONS: CO-EXTENSIVE LIABILITY OF GUARANTORS

The legal foundation of guarantor liability lies in Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which provides that the liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor unless otherwise agreed.

The Supreme Court has consistently interpreted this provision to mean that a creditor may proceed against the guarantor without first exhausting remedies against the principal borrower.

In K. Paramasivam vs. Karur Vysya Bank Ltd., 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1653, the Court reaffirmed that a financial creditor is entitled to proceed directly against the guarantor even if proceedings have not been initiated against the principal borrower. The Court reiterated that the liability of the guarantor arises immediately upon default and is not contingent upon prior action against the borrower.

Earlier Supreme Court decisions have also recognised this principle. In Bank of Bihar Ltd. vs. Damodar Prasad, AIR 1969 SC 297 : (1969) 1 SCR 620, the Court held that a creditor is not bound to exhaust remedies against the principal debtor before enforcing the guarantee. Similarly, in Industrial Investment Bank of India Ltd. vs. Biswanath Jhunjhunwala, (2009) 9 SCC 478 : AIR 2009 SC 2420, the Court held that the guarantor’s liability arises simultaneously with that of the principal debtor.

These foundational principles continue to inform the interpretation of guarantor liability within the IBC framework.

PERSONAL GUARANTORS UNDER THE INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE

The legal framework governing personal guarantors under the IBC was clarified by the Supreme Court in Lalit Kumar Jain vs. Union of India, (2021) 9 SCC 321 : AIR 2021 SC 2367.

In this case, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the notification dated 15 November 2019, which brought personal guarantors to corporate debtors within the insolvency framework of the IBC.

The Court held that personal guarantors constitute a distinct class of individuals intrinsically connected with corporate debtors, particularly because such guarantors are usually promoters, directors, or individuals closely associated with the corporate debtor’s management and finances.

The Court further held that Parliament was justified in creating a specialised insolvency framework for personal guarantors and placing their insolvency proceedings under the jurisdiction of the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”) where proceedings against the corporate debtor are pending.

Neither a Borrower nor Guarantor Be

RECOGNITION OF PERSONAL GUARANTORS AS A DISTINCT CATEGORY

The Supreme Court further clarified the unique status of personal guarantors in PNB Housing Finance Ltd. vs. Mohit Arora, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 150 and Axis Trustee Services Ltd. vs. Brij Bhushan Singal, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1440.

In these decisions, the Court recognised that personal guarantors represent a separate category of individuals intrinsically linked to corporate debtors. The Court emphasised that insolvency proceedings against corporate debtors and personal guarantors should ideally be adjudicated by the same forum to prevent conflicting outcomes and ensure procedural efficiency.

This principle is reflected in Section 60(2) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which provides that where insolvency proceedings against a corporate debtor are pending before the NCLT, proceedings relating to the insolvency of its personal guarantor must also be filed before the same tribunal.

INDEPENDENCE OF GUARANTOR LIABILITY AFTER RESOLUTION

Another important dimension of guarantor liability under the IBC concerns the effect of a resolution plan on the guarantor’s obligations.

In BRS Ventures Investments Ltd. vs. SREI Infrastructure Finance Ltd., 2024 SCC OnLine SC 330, the Supreme Court held that the approval of a resolution plan for a corporate debtor does not automatically discharge the liability of personal guarantors.

The Court held that the liability of a guarantor arises from an independent contract of guarantee and therefore survives even after the corporate debtor undergoes resolution.

The Court further reaffirmed the well-established principle that a creditor is entitled to recover its dues from guarantors even where the principal debtor has been discharged or has become insolvent.

MORATORIUM AND PROCEEDINGS AGAINST PERSONAL GUARANTORS

The relationship between the moratorium provisions of the IBC and guarantor liability was clarified by the Supreme Court in State Bank of India vs. V. Ramakrishnan, (2018) 17 SCC 394 : AIR 2018 SC 3876.

The Court held that the moratorium imposed under Section 14 of the IBC applies only to the corporate debtor and not to guarantors.

Personal guarantors may avail a separate moratorium under Sections 96 and 101 of the IBC, but this protection arises only when insolvency proceedings are initiated against them under Part III of the Code.

The Court further held that the 2018 amendment to Section 14(3), excluding sureties from the corporate debtor moratorium, is retrospective in nature.

INDEPENDENT INSOLVENCY PROCEEDINGS AGAINST PERSONAL GUARANTORS

The independence of insolvency proceedings against personal guarantors was further affirmed in Mahendra Kumar Jajodia vs. State Bank of India, (2022) 9 SCC 47.

In that case, the Supreme Court dismissed appeals challenging insolvency proceedings initiated under Section 95 of the IBC against personal guarantors even though no insolvency proceedings were pending against the corporate debtor.

The Court thereby affirmed that the insolvency framework applicable to personal guarantors under Part III of the IBC operates independently and does not necessarily depend upon the initiation of insolvency proceedings against the corporate debtor.

JURISDICTIONAL ISSUES: NCLT VERSUS DRT

The jurisdictional framework governing insolvency proceedings against personal guarantors has also been the subject of important judicial clarification.

In Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra, 2023 SCC OnLine Bom 1294, the Bombay High Court held that applications under Section 95 of the IBC against personal guarantors of corporate debtors are not maintainable before the Debt Recovery Tribunal where proceedings against the corporate debtor are pending before the NCLT.

The Court held that the DRT lacks jurisdiction in such circumstances and must either dismiss the application for want of jurisdiction or transfer the proceedings to the NCLT.

PARALLEL REMEDIES UNDER SARFAESI AND IBC

The question whether creditors may pursue remedies under the SARFAESI Act against guarantors while insolvency proceedings against the borrower are pending under the IBC was examined by the Delhi High Court in Kiran Gupta vs. State Bank of India, 2021 SCC OnLine Del 4041.

The Court held that proceedings under the SARFAESI Act against guarantors are not barred merely because insolvency proceedings against the principal borrower are pending under the IBC.

The Court reiterated that the liability of the guarantor is independent and co-extensive, and therefore creditors may pursue remedies against guarantors under other statutory frameworks unless specifically prohibited by law.

ADDITIONAL CLARIFICATION IN RAKESH BHANOT VS. GURDAS AGRO PVT. LTD.

The Supreme Court’s decision in Rakesh Bhanot vs. Gurdas Agro Pvt. Ltd., 2025 SCC OnLine SC 359, further contributed to the jurisprudence concerning insolvency proceedings involving guarantors and related parties.

The Court emphasised that the provisions of the IBC must be interpreted in a manner that preserves the effectiveness of creditor remedies while maintaining the integrity of the insolvency process.

CONCLUSION

The Law relating to personal guarantors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code has evolved significantly through judicial interpretation. The important principles emanating from various decisions are as follows:

a) The liability of guarantors is co-extensive and independent of that of the principal debtor.

b) A creditor may proceed against a guarantor without first suing the principal borrower.

c) Personal guarantors constitute a distinct category under the IBC, closely linked to corporate debtors.

d) Approval of a resolution plan for the corporate debtor does not automatically discharge guarantor liability.

e) The moratorium under the IBC does not extend to personal guarantors.

f) Insolvency proceedings against personal guarantors may proceed independently under Part III of the IBC.

g) Proceedings involving corporate debtors and their guarantors should ordinarily be adjudicated by the same forum to avoid conflicting outcomes.

h) Creditors may pursue parallel remedies under SARFAESI and other statutes against guarantors unless expressly barred.

A personal guarantor’s liability is like the proverbial ‘Sword of Damocles’ which is hanging by a very slender thread and can come down at any time. One may even rephrase Shakespeare’s famous piece of advice appearing in Hamlet (Act I, Scene III) to say, “Neither a Borrower nor a Guarantor be”.

Allied Laws

1. Quantum Park Cooperative Housing Society Ltd vs. AHCL-PEL & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (Bom) 84

February 24, 2026

Deemed conveyance – Application by housing society – Pendency of civil suits regarding alleged illegal construction – Not a bar to consideration of deemed conveyance. [Maharashtra Ownership Flats Act, 1963, S.11]

FACTS

The petitioner’s Society consisted of purchasers of flats in buildings known as “Quantum Park”, constructed on leasehold land at Bandra, Mumbai. The developers had undertaken development of the property under a Slum Rehabilitation Scheme and constructed residential buildings, thereafter executing agreements for sale with individual flat purchasers.

Upon completion of construction and possession being handed over, the petitioner society was registered under the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act. Despite repeated demands, the developers failed to execute conveyance of the land and building in favour of the society.

Consequently, the Society filed an application for deemed conveyance under section 11 of the Maharashtra Ownership Flats Act before the Competent Authority. The application was rejected on the grounds that the area sought to be conveyed exceeded the area allegedly admissible to the society and that certain civil suits were pending regarding the legality of the upper floors in the building.

The society challenged the rejection order before the High Court.

HELD

The Court observed that the pendency of civil suits concerning the legality of certain floors in the building had no direct bearing on the statutory right of the society to obtain conveyance under section 11 of the Act.

The Competent Authority was required to examine the entitlement of the Society to conveyance of the land and building on the basis of the material placed before it. The existence of disputes relating to the construction of certain floors could not be treated as a legal bar to the grant of a deemed conveyance.

By rejecting the application solely on such grounds, the Competent Authority had failed to exercise jurisdiction in accordance with the law.

The impugned order was set aside, and the matter was directed to be reconsidered in accordance with the law.

The Petition was allowed.

2. S. Rajendran vs. DCIT (Benami Prohibition)

2026 INSC 187

February 24, 2026

Insolvency – attachment of property under Benami Transactions Act – challenge before NCLT – Not maintainable – Remedy lies under Benami Act. [Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988; Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, S.14, 60(5)]

FACTS

Investigations conducted under the Benami Act revealed that the promoters of a company had transferred their shareholding in the company to a beneficial owner through an intermediary in exchange for consideration paid in demonetised currency.

Meanwhile, insolvency proceedings were initiated against the company (corporate debtor) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), and the company eventually went into liquidation. Proceedings were initiated under the Benami Act, and a provisional attachment order was passed attaching the immovable properties of the corporate debtor.

The liquidator challenged the attachment order before the National Company Law Tribunal, contending that the attachment violated the moratorium under section 14 of the IBC and that the attached assets formed part of the liquidation estate.

The NCLT rejected the challenge, holding that it lacked jurisdiction to adjudicate the validity of attachment orders passed under the Benami Act. The decision was affirmed by the NCLAT.

The matter was carried to the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that the Benami Act constitutes a self-contained statutory framework providing its own mechanism for adjudication and appeal regarding attachment and confiscation of benami property.

The jurisdiction of the NCLT under section 60(5) of the IBC is not all-pervasive and does not extend to reviewing administrative or quasi-judicial orders passed under independent statutory regimes.

Proceedings under the Benami Act are sovereign actions intended to identify and confiscate property held through illegal transactions. Such proceedings are distinct from recovery actions by creditors and, therefore, are not barred by the moratorium under section 14 of the IBC.

Consequently, the validity of attachment orders passed under the Benami Act must be challenged only before the authorities constituted under that Act and not before insolvency tribunals.

The appeals were dismissed.

3. Om Sakthi Sekar vs. V. Sukumar & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (SC) 240

March 13, 2026

Auction sale – Challenge after confirmation – Protection of bona fide auction purchaser – Revaluation after several years impermissible. [Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993]

FACTS

Respondent borrowers had obtained financial facilities from a bank and created equitable mortgages over several immovable properties. Upon default, the bank initiated recovery proceedings before the Debt Recovery Tribunal.

The DRT issued a recovery certificate and ordered the sale of the mortgaged properties. In the auction conducted in 2010, the appellant emerged as the highest bidder and paid the full consideration. The sale was confirmed, and a sale certificate was issued and registered.

Subsequently, the guarantors challenged the recovery proceedings before the DRAT and thereafter before the High Court. While upholding the validity of the recovery proceedings and auction sale, the High Court remanded the matter to the DRT for reconsideration of the valuation of the properties and directed that, if the sale price was found to be lower than the actual value, the appellant purchaser may be required to pay the difference.

The auction purchaser challenged this direction before the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that once an auction sale conducted pursuant to recovery proceedings has been confirmed and a sale certificate issued, valuable rights accrue in favour of the auction purchaser.

A bona fide third-party purchaser who participates in a public auction conducted by a statutory authority is entitled to protection of his title unless the sale is vitiated by fraud or material irregularity.

In the present case, both the DRT and DRAT had upheld the validity of the auction, and there was no finding of fraud or illegality. The High Court itself had affirmed the validity of the auction but nevertheless remitted the matter for revaluation nearly ten years later.

Such a direction was contrary to settled principles governing court auctions and would undermine certainty in judicial sales.

The appeal was allowed.

4. P. Anjanappa (D) vs. A.P. Nanjundappa & Ors.

(2025) LiveLaw (SC) 1074

November 6, 2025

Partition – Registered relinquishment deed – Effect – Unregistered family settlement admissible for collateral purposes. [Hindu Succession Act, 1956; Registration Act, 1908]

FACTS

The dispute concerned the partition of properties belonging to a joint Hindu family. The plaintiffs claimed that the suit properties were joint family properties liable to partition.

The contesting defendant relied upon registered release deeds executed by his brothers relinquishing their shares in the family property in his favour. He also relied upon a family arrangement recorded in a document known as “palupatti” which purported to record a partition between certain members of the family.

The Trial Court and the High Court refused to recognise the exclusive share claimed by the defendant and held that the unregistered palupatti could not be relied upon to prove partition.

Aggrieved, the defendant’s legal representatives approached the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that a registered relinquishment deed executed by a coparcener releasing his share in joint family property operates immediately upon execution and effectively transfers the releasor’s interest.

The courts below erred in ignoring the effect of the registered release deeds while determining the shares of the parties.

Further, a family arrangement recorded in writing does not necessarily require registration when it is relied upon only for a limited purpose, namely to explain the manner in which parties subsequently held and enjoyed the property.

Such a document may be admitted for collateral purposes even if it is unregistered.

Accordingly, the judgments of the courts below were set aside.

The Appeal was allowed.

5. Pravinkumar Jethalal Dave vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

W.P. No.2317 of 2011 (Bom)(HC)

February 9, 2026

Co-operative societies – Nomination – Nominee does not become owner – Membership dispute among heirs – Authority cannot decide title. [Maharashtra Cooperative Societies Act, 1960, S.23]

FACTS

The petitioner claimed membership in a co-operative housing society in respect of a flat owned by his deceased father. The father had executed a nomination in favour of the petitioner.

After the father’s death, the competent authority granted membership to the petitioner. The order was challenged by the society and by a person claiming tenancy rights through revision proceedings.

The revisional authority set aside the order granting membership on the ground that the nomination form contained overwriting and, therefore, could not be relied upon.

The petitioner challenged the revisional order before the High Court.

HELD

The Court reiterated that a nomination in favour of a person does not confer ownership of the property upon the nominee. A nominee merely represents the legal heirs and holds the property on their behalf.

In the present case, the deceased member had left behind several legal heirs, most of whom had either supported or not opposed the petitioner’s claim for membership. The dispute, if any, was essentially among the legal heirs regarding succession. The tenant had no locus to question the internal arrangement among heirs, and the society had not disputed the petitioner’s eligibility under the Act or bye-laws.

Authorities exercising powers under the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act are concerned only with the regulation of membership and are not competent to decide disputes relating to title or succession.

The revisional authority, therefore, exceeded its jurisdiction in interfering with the order granting membership to the petitioner.

The Writ Petition(s) were allowed.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE:

As part of the initiative on Sustainability Reporting, the Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) had, from FY 2023-24 onwards, mandated publication of Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) for the top 1,000 companies (as per market cap). Assurance for the same was also made mandatory in phases – accordingly, for FY 2024-25, the top 250 companies needed to give Reasonable Assurance; the same will be increased to the Top 500 companies in FY 2025-26 and to the entire 1,00 companies from FY 2026-27 onwards.

Given below are extracts from an Independent Practitioners’ Assurance Report for FY 2024-25 on identified Sustainable information in the BRSR where a Qualified Conclusion has been given.

Larsen & Toubro Ltd (31-3-2025)

From Independent Practitioners’ Assurance Report for FY 2024-25 on identified Sustainable information in the BRSR

1. We have undertaken to perform a reasonable assurance engagement for LARSEN AND TOUBRO LIMITED (the “Company”), vide our engagement letter dated February 20, 2025, in respect of the agreed Sustainability Information or (“BRSR Core indicators”), in accordance with the criteria stated in paragraph 3 below. This Sustainability Information is included in the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (the “BRSR” or the “Report”) of the Integrated Annual Report (the “IAR”) of the Company for the year ended March 31, 2025. This engagement was conducted by our multidisciplinary team, including assurance practitioners, environmental engineers, and specialists.

2. Identified Sustainability Information

Our scope of reasonable assurance consists of the BRSR Core indicators listed in Appendix I to our report. The reporting boundary of the Report is as disclosed in Question 13 of Section A: General Disclosure of the BRSR, with exceptions disclosed by way of note under respective questions of the BRSR, where applicable.

11. BASIS OF QUALIFIED CONCLUSION

i. As described in the Note to BRSR- Section C: Principle 6 “ Business should respect and make efforts to respect and restore the environment” -Essential Indicators 3 and 4 of the Report, which pertains to details related to water, the Company has redesigned its Standard Operating Procedures (the” SOPs”), by implementing a new data management platform and has adopted a hybrid approach consisting of direct measurement through flowmeters or estimation where direct measurement is not possible. However, the Company’s redesigned SOPs are not uniformly implemented across project sites in relation to the use of appropriate estimation methods for water withdrawal, wastewater generation, and water discharge. In the absence of sufficient appropriate evidence to test the completeness and accuracy of the disclosures under Essential Indicators 3 and 4 as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025, we were unable to determine whether any adjustments to the reported figures with respect to those essential indicators were necessary or not as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025.

ii. As described in the Note to BRSR- Section C: Principle 6 “Business should respect and make efforts to respect and restore the environment” -Essential Indicator 9 of the report, which pertains to details related to waste management, the quantification of construction and demolition waste (the “C&D waste”) generated and its disposal is complex due to heterogeneous composition, voluminous nature and due to lack of application of standardised measurement methodology. Considering the complexity, the Company has used estimation methods for measuring waste generation based on volume of activity or output at respective sites and waste generation per unit activity or process. In the absence of sufficient appropriate evidence to test the completeness and accuracy of the disclosures under the C&D waste as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025, we were unable to determine whether any adjustments to the reported figures with respect to the C&D waste were necessary or not as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025.

iii. As described in the Note to BRSR Section C Principle 5 “ Business should respect and promote human rights” -Essential Indicator 3(b) “Gross wages paid to females as % of total wages paid by the entity” and Principle 8 “Business should promote inclusive growth and equitable development” -Essential Indicator 5 “Job Creation in smaller towns”, the Company has considered the wages paid to other-than-permanent workers based on filings made under Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act (the “CLRA”) for the calendar year 2024. The data collation process is largely manual and is not reconciling completely with the source documents (i.e. wage registers, invoices etc.). In the absence of sufficient appropriate evidence to check the accuracy of the disclosures under “Gross wage paid to females as % of total wages paid by the entity” and “Job Creation in smaller towns” as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025, we were unable to determine whether any adjustments to the reported figures with respect to “Gross wages paid to females as % of total wages paid by the entity” and “Job Creation in smaller towns” were necessary or not as at and for the year ended March 31, 2025.

12. QUALIFIED REASONABLE ASSURANCE OPINION

Except for the effect of the matter described in the Basis for Qualified Conclusion section of our report, the Identified Sustainability information as mentioned in Annexure l is fairly presented, in all material respects, in accordance with Criteria mentioned in paragraph 3 above.

Investments Held By Investment Entities and Application Of FVTPL

Under Ind AS 28, investment-oriented entities like venture capital organizations or mutual funds can elect to measure associates and joint ventures at fair value through profit or loss (FVTPL) instead of using the equity method. This election, made at initial recognition, recognizes that these entities prioritize fair value performance. Recent IASB proposals seek to clarify which “similar entities” qualify for this exemption, linking eligibility to a “main business activity” of investing to align with IFRS 18 presentation requirements. These changes are expected to be adopted in India to maintain international accounting convergence.

Investments in associates and joint ventures are ordinarily accounted for using the equity method under Ind AS 28 – Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures. However, the standard recognises that certain types of entities, particularly those engaged in investment activities, evaluate the performance of their investments on a fair value basis.

As per paragraph 18 of Ind AS 28, “When an investment in an associate or a joint venture is held by, or is held indirectly through, an entity that is a venture capital organisation, or a mutual fund, unit trust and similar entities including investment linked insurance funds, the entity may elect to measure that investment at fair value through profit or loss in accordance with Ind AS 109. An entity shall make this election separately for each associate or joint venture, at initial recognition of the associate or joint venture.

Accordingly, paragraph 18 of Ind AS 28 provides an important exemption from the equity method. It is clear that this exemption does not apply to non-investment type entities holding investments in associates. In practice, there may be cases where a group has venture capital activities as well as other activities. In these cases, Ind AS 28 allows an entity to measure the portion of an investment in an associate, that is held through a venture capital organisation or similar entities, at FVTPL (fair value through profit or loss) in accordance with Ind AS 109 Financial Instruments. This is regardless of whether the venture capital organisation has significant influence over that portion of the investment. If an entity makes this election, it must apply equity accounting to the remaining portion of the investment not held through the venture capital organisation.

This approach recognises that investment-oriented entities typically assess performance based on changes in fair value rather than through the periodic recognition of a share of profits under the equity method.

To elaborate, consider a scenario. Parent P operates in the telecommunication business. In addition, it owns a venture capital subsidiary that invests in the retail and e-commerce industry. The board of directors of the parent as well as the subsidiary, monitors the performance of subsidiary’s business based on the fair value of its investments. In this case, even though P itself is not a venture capital organisation, its subsidiary should be able to apply the exemption and account for its investments at FVTPL. In the CFS of P, the investments held (in associates or joint ventures) by the venture capital subsidiary could also be accounted for at FVTPL (choice to be exercised at initial recognition). Any changes in fair value are recognised in profit or loss in the period of change. The author believes that a similar analysis may also apply where a single reporting entity has two different segments: one segment engaged in venture capital activities and the second segment is carrying out other business activities.

It may be clarified that this is an exemption from the requirement of Ind AS 28 to measure interests in joint ventures and associates using the equity method, rather than an exception. If an entity decides, it may apply the equity method to investments in an associate or a joint venture held through a venture capital organisation or similar entities.

Chossing Fair Value The Investment Entity Exemption

Ind AS 28 does not explain which entities comprise “venture capital organisations, or mutual funds, unit trusts and similar entities, including investment-linked insurance funds”. Rather, the same needs to be decided based on the facts of each case. The author believes that, to apply this exemption, an entity should be able to demonstrate that it runs a venture capital business or investment business, rather than merely undertaking some ad hoc activities that a venture capital business may also undertake. Additionally, it is what the entity actually does, rather than what the entity calls itself, for e.g., an entity may title itself as an investment entity, though the activity conducted may not be largely investment related. In such a case, the exemption is not available.
It was noticed by the International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) that an important interpretational issue arose from the wording of paragraph 18 itself, creating diversity in practise, particularly for those in the insurance industry. The insurance industry informed the IASB about diversity in how the requirements for the fair value option in IAS 28 are applied and the effects of that diversity on the classification of income and expenses in the statement of profit or loss in accordance with IFRS 18 Presentation and Disclosure in Financial Statements.

When an investment in an associate or a joint venture is held by, or is held indirectly through, an entity that is a venture capital organisation, or a mutual fund, unit trust and similar entities, including investment-linked insurance funds, the entity may elect to measure that investment at fair value through profit or loss in accordance with IFRS 9. Similar entities include those that have a main business activity of investing in particular types of assets (see paragraph 49(a) of IFRS 18).

An example of an investment-linked insurance fund is a fund held by an entity as the underlying items for a group of insurance contracts with direct participation features. For the purposes of this election, insurance contracts include investment contracts with discretionary participation features. An entity shall make this election separately for each associate or joint venture, at initial recognition of the associate or joint venture.

IFRS 18 requires income and expenses from all investments accounted for using the equity method to be classified in the investing category of the statement of profit or loss. However, it requires income and expenses from investments in associates and joint ventures accounted for using the fair value option in IAS 28 to be classified in the operating category if an entity invests in these assets as a main business activity. Some entities, particularly those in the insurance industry, consider some investments in associates and joint ventures to be part of their main business activity of investing in assets.

Therefore, they consider the related income and expenses to be part of their operating results. To enable them to classify the income and expenses from these investments in the operating category of the statement of profit or loss, some insurers are considering expanding their use of the fair value option in IAS 28 to measure these investments.

In 2023, during the development of IFRS 18, the IASB acknowledged diversity in how stakeholders, particularly those in the insurance industry, interpret which entities are eligible to measure their investments in associates and joint ventures using the fair value option in IAS 28. Some stakeholders interpret the requirement in paragraph 18 of IAS 28 narrowly to refer only to those investments in associates or joint ventures held by or through investment-linked insurance funds. Other stakeholders interpret the requirement more broadly to refer to any investments in associates and joint ventures directly or indirectly related to insurance contracts issued. The IASB observed at that time that clarifying which entities are eligible to use the fair value option in IAS 28 was beyond the scope of that project.

The ED proposes targeted amendments to paragraphs 18 and 19 of IAS 28 to clarify which entities are eligible to elect the fair value option. The election would apply to “an entity that is a venture capital organisation, or a mutual fund, unit trust and similar entities”. The ED removes the reference to “investment-linked insurance funds” and instead clarifies that “similar entities” include those that have a main business activity of investing in particular types of assets, as described in paragraph 49(a) of IFRS 18.

The IASB intends this clarification to address diversity in how the scope of the fair value option in IAS 28 is interpreted in practice, particularly in assessing whether certain types of entities qualify as similar entities. In developing the ED, the IASB proposes a narrow-scope clarification focused on clarifying the meaning of “similar entities” and minimising differing outcomes arising from the interaction between IAS 28 and IFRS 18.

The ED proposes that, on transition:

  •  Where entities have yet to adopt IFRS 18, the amendments will apply at the same time they adopt IFRS 18.
  •  Where entities have adopted IFRS 18 early, the amendments will be applied retrospectively in accordance with paragraph C7 of IFRS 18.

The ED is designed to clarify eligibility for applying the fair value option in IAS 28 by explicitly linking the notion of “similar entities” to IFRS 18’s description of entities with a main business activity of investing in particular types of assets. Entities with a main business activity of investing in particular types of assets may wish to change their election for measuring an investment in an associate or joint venture from the equity method to fair value through profit or loss in accordance with IFRS 9 on transition to IFRS 18. The decision will impact not only the measurement of the investments but will have presentation consequences under IFRS 18.

Although the exposure draft formally amends IAS 28, the issue it addresses is equally relevant in jurisdictions that apply Ind AS, given the close alignment between the two standards. It is therefore reasonable to expect that, if the proposals are finalised, similar amendments may eventually be introduced in the Indian accounting framework to maintain convergence with international standards.

Goods And Services Tax

I. SUPREME COURT

1. (2026) 39 Centax 265 (S.C.) Union of India vs. Torrent Power Ltd. dated 10.02.2026.

Where the incidence of tax has been passed on to consumers, any refundable amount must be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund.

FACTS

The Respondent was engaged in electricity generation and distribution. Respondent had imported natural gas under CIF contracts and paid IGST on ocean freight under reverse charge pursuant to Notification No.10/2017–Integrated Tax (Rate). Respondent later filed refund applications for the tax paid after the levy on ocean freight under CIF contracts was declared unconstitutional in Union of India vs. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. 2020 (33) G.S.T.L. 321 (Guj.). The refund was denied on the ground that the incidence of tax had been passed on to consumers and, therefore the amount was liable to be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund.

Subsequently, the respondent filed a writ petition before Hon’ble Gujarat High Court, where it was held that the respondent was entitled to a refund of the tax paid and its proposal to deposit the refunded amount in a separate account and subsequently pass the benefit to consumers through tariff adjustments approved by the Gujarat Electricity Regulatory Commission was accepted. Being aggrieved, the petitioner filed an appeal before the Supreme Court of India.

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that under section 54(5) of the CGST Act, 2017, when a tax amount is found refundable, it must ordinarily be credited to the Consumer Welfare Fund unless it falls within the specified exceptions. One such exception under section 54(8)(e) allows a refund to the applicant only where the incidence of tax has not been passed on to any other person. In the present case, it was an admitted fact that the Respondent had passed on the burden of the tax to electricity consumers; therefore, the exception did not apply. The Court further held that the procedure adopted by the Gujarat High Court to allow the refund to be deposited in a separate account and later passed on to consumers through tariff adjustments was not contemplated under section 54 of the CGST Act and was, therefore, unsustainable.

Accordingly, the Supreme Court set aside the High Court’s judgment and directed the respondent to transfer the refundable amount to the Consumer Welfare Fund.

II. HIGH COURT

2. (2026) 39 Centax 319 (Mad.) Bharathidasan University vs. Joint Commissioner of GST (ST-Intelligence), Tiruchirappali dated 10.02.2026.

Affiliation fees collected by a university from affiliated colleges are liable to GST, as such affiliation is only a prerequisite to admission and examination and does not qualify for any exemption.

FACTS

The Petitioner collected affiliation fees from colleges affiliated to it for enabling them to admit students and present them for university examinations. During an inspection and investigation conducted by the GST Intelligence authorities, it was found that GST had not been paid on such affiliation fees for the financial years 2019–2020 to 2022–2023.

Following the inspection, the respondent issued separate notices of intimation of liability under section 74(5), calling upon the petitioner to show cause as to why GST, along with 18% interest and penalty, should not be levied. Aggrieved by these notices, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court challenging the said notices.

HELD 

The Hon’ble High Court held that affiliation granted by a university to colleges is only a prerequisite for colleges to admit students and conduct examinations, and does not itself constitute a service relating to admission of students or the conduct of examinations.

Therefore, the affiliation fees collected by the petitioner from affiliated colleges do not fall within the exemption provided under Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) for services relating to admission or conduct of examinations by educational institutions.

Consequently, the Court held that such affiliation fees are amenable to the levy of GST, thereby deciding the issue in favour of the Respondent.

3. (2026) 40 Centax 54 (Bom.) Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corporation Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra dated 20.02.2026.

The Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal has inherent power to grant interim relief, including a stay of recovery during pendency of an appeal, and parties must seek such relief before the Tribunal instead of directly approaching the High Court.

FACTS

The Petitioner was issued an Order-in-Original under the CGST Act confirming tax liability against it. The petitioner filed a first appeal, which was dismissed by the appellate authority through an Order-in-Appeal. Thereafter, the petitioner filed an appeal before the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal. During the pendency of this appeal, the respondent issued demand intimations and a recovery notice for recovery of the tax dues. The Petitioner informed the respondent that the demand amount had been deposited through Form GST DRC-03A and that the appeal was pending before the Tribunal, and subsequently filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking quashing of the intimation and recovery notices and a stay of recovery proceedings.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal possesses inherent and incidental powers to grant interim relief, including stay of recovery proceedings during the pendency of an appeal, even though the CGST Act does not expressly provide for such power. The Court observed that sections 111 and 113 of the CGST Act confer wide appellate powers on the Tribunal, which necessarily include the authority to pass appropriate interim orders to make the appellate remedy effective. Consequently, the Court held that the petitioner should seek interim relief before the Tribunal instead of invoking the writ jurisdiction.

4. (2026) 40 Centax 16 (Guj.) Marhabba Overseas Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India dated 20.02.2026.

Quasi-judicial authorities must verify the authenticity and relevance of judicial precedents and cannot blindly rely on AI-generated or incorrect case citations while deciding matters under GST law.

FACTS

The Petitioner was issued a SCN under section 75 of the CGST Act, and thereafter an impugned order was passed by the respondent. While dealing with the defence submissions recorded in the impugned order, the respondent relied upon various judicial precedents, including Union of India vs. Coastal Container Transporters Association, NKAS Services (P) Ltd., CCE vs. Flock (India) (P) Ltd., Union of India vs. W.N. Chadha, and Rajasthan State Chemical Works. It was noticed during the proceedings that several of these citations were incorrectly referred to, wrongly attributed to Courts, or unrelated to the issues addressed in the impugned order. Consequently, the petitioner filed a Special Civil Application before the Hon’ble High Court challenging the order.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court observed that the reasoning adopted in the impugned order appeared flawed and deceptive, as the respondent had relied on incorrect or unrelated judicial citations without examining the actual judgments.

The Court noted that such practice indicated reliance on AI-generated or mechanically reproduced citations, which could lead to serious errors in quasi-judicial decision-making. The Court held that quasi-judicial authorities must verify the correctness and relevance of judicial precedents before relying on them and should not blindly rely on AI-generated citations.

The Court also observed that guidelines may be required for such authorities, issued notice to the respondent and the Union of India, and granted interim relief by staying the impugned order until further hearing.

5. (2026) 39 Centax 338 (Utt.) Raj Shekhar Pandey vs. State Tax Officer dated 16.02.2026.

Once GST registration is cancelled, service of notice only through the GST portal is insufficient, and the department must ensure effective service through other permissible modes under section 169 of the CGST Act.

FACTS

The Petitioner had surrendered his GST registration. Subsequently, the respondent issued a SCN and later passed an order under the provisions of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 and the communications were made available on the GST portal. The proceedings were thus initiated after the cancellation of the petitioner’s GST registration.

Being aggrieved by the SCN and the order, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking quashing of the said notice and order.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that once the GST registration of an assessee stands cancelled, the assessee cannot be expected to continuously monitor the GST portal. The Court observed that section 169 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 provides multiple modes for service of notice, and making a notice available on the GST portal is only one permissible mode and not the exclusive method. Accordingly, the Court quashed the impugned order, granted liberty to the petitioner to file a reply to the SCN within two weeks, and permitted the respondent to pass a fresh order in accordance with law after granting an opportunity of personal hearing under section 75(4) of the CGST Act.

6. (2026) 40 Centax 88 (Mad.) Reliance Jio Infocomm Ltd. vs. Union of India dated 05.03.2026.

Input Service Distributor can distribute ITC only when such credit becomes legally available after fulfilment of the conditions under section 16(2) of the CGST, 2017 and not merely based on receipt of invoices.

FACTS

The Petitioner had distributed ITC through its Input Service Distributor unit for the period 2018–2019 to 2023–2024 under the CGST Act, 2017. During audit proceedings, the respondent issued a SCN alleging contravention of the provisions relating to the manner and timing of distribution of ITC, particularly with reference to section 20 of the CGST Act and Rule 39(1)(a) of the CGST Rules.

The SCN questioned the distribution of ITC by the ISD unit on the ground of delay in distributing the credit after receipt of invoices. Being aggrieved by the issuance of the SCN, the petitioner filed writ petitions before the Hon’ble High Court challenging the said notice.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that under section 20 of the CGST Act, 2017, an Input Service Distributor is required to distribute only such ITC that is available for distribution, and such credit becomes available only after the statutory conditions prescribed under section 16(2) are fulfilled.

The Court observed that Rule 39(1)(a) of the CGST Rules refers to ITC “available for distribution,” indicating that the obligation to distribute credit arises only when the credit is legally available. Accordingly, the Court clarified that distribution of ITC cannot be required merely upon issuance of invoices and must depend on fulfilment of the statutory conditions governing availment of ITC.

7. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 262 (Andhra Pradesh) Harsha Trading (P.) Ltd., Hyderabad vs. Additional Commissioner of Central Tax dated 23.02.2026.

Once an appeal filed manually is accepted and heard on merits, it cannot be dismissed on technical grounds, such as non-electronic filing of the Appeal.

FACTS

The appellant received an assessment order that was not uploaded to the GST portal, resulting in certain demands. Aggrieved by the said order, the petitioner, after payment of the mandatory pre-deposit, filed the appeal. The said appeal was received and acknowledged without raising any objections, and a notice for hearing was also issued. On the said day, the appeal was heard on the merits.

It is further stated that thereafter, the petitioner also filed additional submissions along with supporting material. Subsequently, the appeal came to be dismissed by the impugned Order on the ground that the appeal was filed manually but not electronically as per Rule 108 of the CGST Rules, 2007.

HELD

Once the Appellate Authority accepted pre-deposit, entertained a manual appeal, issued a hearing notice, and heard the matter on merits, it ought not to have dismissed the appeal on the technical ground of the mode of filing. Any objection to manual filing ought to have been raised at the inception and not after a long pendency.

The dismissal order was set aside, and the matter was remanded to decide the appeal on the merits without reference to the filing mode.

8. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 191 (Himachal Pradesh) Deepak Agro Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh dated 24.02.2026.

Payment made against the show cause notice under protest cannot be considered as a demand admitted so as to conclude the proceedings under section 73(8) of the CGST Act.

FACTS

The petitioner received a show cause notice demanding tax, against which the petitioner filed a response seeking additional time to file a detailed reply and stating that the tax demanded had been deposited under protest.

Subsequently, the petitioner filed a detailed reply along with supporting documents.

Thereafter, the authorities passed an order stating that as the amount of tax and other dues mentioned in the notice, along with applicable interest and penalty, had been paid, the proceedings initiated vide the said notice are hereby concluded. The petitioner appealed the same before the First Appellate Authority, which dismissed the appeal on the ground that the usage of the expression “deemed to be concluded” in section 73(8) of the Act clearly indicates that there is no scope for any decision by the Adjudicating Authority, once payment of tax along with due interest has been made.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court held that the authorities committed an error in treating the deposit made by the petitioner as a voluntary deposit and concluding the notice accordingly. Accordingly, the orders passed by the First Appellate Authority and the Adjudicating Authority were quashed, and the matter was remanded back to the Adjudicating Authority for fresh adjudication.

9. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 219 (Andhra Pradesh) Golden Traders vs. Deputy Assistant Commissioner of State Tax dated 16.02.2026.

Valuation of Goods cannot be determined at the check-post. The right or jurisdiction of the tax authorities of another State to levy penalties or to confiscate goods, on the ground of evasion of tax in another State, does not appear to be a reasonable exercise of power.

FACTS

The issue before the Court was whether the proceedings initiated under section 129 or section 130 of the Central Goods and Services Act, 2017, on the ground of gross under-valuation of goods in transit, especially when there is no dispute that the documents specified under section 68 of the Goods and Services Act, 2017, were available, is proper in law.

In other words was whether the authorities of a check post, of a State, through which the goods are passing, while being transported from one State to another State, can go into the question of the valuation of goods and confiscate and levy a penalty in respect of goods in transit.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court relied upon various judicial pronouncements to hold that the issues of valuation cannot be taken up by the officials at the check post under the provisions of section 129 or section 130 of the G.S.T. Act.

It further observed that the manner of the valuation conducted by the officials was also one-sided and would not withstand scrutiny. The Authorities sent samples to an organisation in Karnataka for valuation, collected without the petitioners’ participation.

It held that, in such cases, the authorities should be directed to draw samples from all consignments, dividing them into three parts: one retained by the respondents, one sent to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer, and one to be given to the petitioners. These samples must be sealed and countersigned by both Officers and petitioners or their representatives. The Jurisdictional Assessing Officer may then proceed based on these samples.

The Hon’ble Court also held that the provisions of section 129 and section 130 of the G.S.T. Act are to ensure due compliance with the taxation laws so as to prevent loss of revenue to the State where the tax is payable. In such a situation, the right or jurisdiction of the tax authorities of another State to levy penalties or to confiscate goods, on the ground of evasion of tax in another State, does not appear to be a reasonable exercise of power.

10. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 115 (Calcutta) Adani Wilmer Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of State Tax dated 25.02.2026.

The right to claim a refund accrued to the petitioner on filing a refund for the relevant month and would continue up to the period of limitation specified in section 54. Any notification subsequent to such accrual of the cause of action (i.e. right to claim refund) cannot curtail such right, as it’s a settled law that a provision that curtails the existing period of limitation would be inapplicable to accrued causes of action.

FACTS

The petitioner had applied for a refund of accumulated unutilised Input Tax Credit (ITC) for the month of May 2021 arising from the inverted duty structure on 16/06/2023. The said application was rejected by the proper officer based on the clarificatory circular bearing no.181/13/2022-GST dated 10/11/2022, which clarified that the restriction imposed by notification no.9/2022-CT dated.13-07-2022 would be applicable in respect of all refund applications filed on or after 18.07.2022. The said notification denied the benefit of inverted duty refund to certain specified animal, vegetable or microbial fats and oils and their cleavage products, in which the petitioner’s product did fall.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court observed that the due date for the petitioner to file its return for the month of May 2021 under section 39 of the said Act of 2017 would be June 20, 2021. Therefore, June 20, 2021, would be the relevant date in terms of the aforesaid Explanation to section 54(1) of the said Act of 2017 and that being so, the petitioner’s application for refund made on June 16, 2023 was well within the two years’ timeframe mentioned in section 54(1) of the said Act of 2017 upon right to claim refund having accrued to the petitioner.

Referring to the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Harshit Harish Jain vs. State of Maharashtra (2025) 3 SCC 365, it was held that it is a settled law that although, ordinarily, the law of limitation applies retrospectively, there are certain exceptions to this rule. One such exception is that a provision that curtails the existing period of limitation would be inapplicable to accrued causes of action. The Hon’ble Court held that, in the present case, the cause of action to apply for a refund accrued to the petitioner on the date the petitioner filed its return and hence its right to claim a refund would continue till the expiry of the period mentioned in section 54(1) of the said Act of 2017. The same could not, therefore, have been curtailed by an executive circular by giving it retrospective effect.

The Court also relied upon various decisions, including Patanjali Foods Ltd. vs. UOI [2025] 172 taxmann.com 133, Vaibhav Edibles (P.) Ltd. vs. State of U.P. [2025] 181 taxmann.com 269 (Allahabad), Priyanka Refineries (P.) Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner ST [2025] 171 taxmann.com 240 (Andhra Pradesh) to hold that merely because an application for refund had been made subsequent to the circular but within the time prescribed under section 54(1) of the said Act of 2017, the same would not disentitle the registered tax payer from claiming a refund, if such person was otherwise eligible and the right to claim refund had arisen/accrued prior to the said circulars.

Accordingly, the Hon’ble Court set aside the order passed by the Appellate Authority and remanded the matter to the Proper Officer to consider the same on merits.

Recent Developments In GST

A. ADVISORY

i) GST has issued an Advisory dated 21.02.2026 in relation to new online facility for eligible taxpayers to apply for withdrawal from the option availed under Rule 14A of the CGST Rules by filing Form GST REG-32 on the GST Portal.

B. ADVANCE RULINGS

  1. Acer India Private Limited (AAAR Order No. 06/2025/A2 dt.8.12.2025)(TN)

Classification – Interactive flat Panels with additional features are classifiable under 85285900, and the applicable rate of GST is 28%.

The appellant had filed application before the ld. AAR and sought clarification on the following questions, viz.,

“a) What is the appropriate classification of various models of ACER Interactive Flat Panels for the purpose of GST?

b) What is the applicable rate of GST?”

The ld. AAR, vide Order No. 29/ARA/2025 dated 12-08-2025 – 2025-VIL-134-AAR, ruled that various models of ACER Interactive flat Panels with additional features are classifiable under 85285900 and that the applicable rate of GST is 28%.

The appellant has preferred this present appeal against said Advance Ruling.

In the appeal, the applicant made various arguments to reiterate that the product is not classifiable under 8528 5900 but under 8471 as Automatic Data Processing Machine (ADP).

Certain rulings of CESTAT and Advance Rulings under the Customs Act were relied upon.

The ld. AAAR observed that the appellant undertakes the supply of various models of ‘ACER’ brand Interactive Flat Panel Display (IFPD) within India, either as finished goods imported by them or manufactured on a contract basis through third parties. Regarding the nature of the product, it was observed that an IFPD is an interactive screen having embedded interactive whiteboard software and a compatible CPU known as an open pluggable specification, and has a built-in processor, memory, and storage along with Android operating Software.

The ld. AAAR also observed the nature of ADP as given in Note of 6(A) of Chapter 84. It is observed that the use of an ADP machine has the benefits of increased efficiency and speed, reduced human error, handling of vast volumes of data, and real-time processing and analysis, which enable user to make swift decisions.

The ld. AAAR then referred to the important features of the product and observed that, in the case of the given product, the primary feature are the screen size, the nature of screen technology, image sharpness and resolution, touch display with IR (Infra-red) technology, interactive white board feature, colours, duration of operation, and wide angle viewing, which relates only to display and viewing. Therefore, the ld. AAAR observed that the principal use of the product is for display and viewing, whereas the other features incorporated in the product upgrade it into an all-in-one facility for the user to avoid attaching multiple gadgets and equipment during its usage.

By elaborate reasoning the ld. AAAR rejected the various arguments given by the appellant, confirmed the classification determined by the ld. AAR, and dismissed the appeal.

2. Shibaura Machine India Pvt. Ltd. (AAAR Order No. 07/2025/AAAR dt.18.12.2025)(TN)

ITC on Electrical Installation in Factory- The taxes under GST paid on the electrical installation work carried out for expansion of a factory for manufacturing activity are not eligible for availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC) by the Appellant, as it is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017

In this case, the Appellant had applied for an Advance Ruling, seeking ruling on the following questions, viz.,

“1) Whether Input Tax Credit (ITC) is eligible on electrical works carried out for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity?

2) What should be the basis to arrive the timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by Supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the Contract and Subsequent Adjustment of Advance in the Service Bills showing both Gross and Net amount.”

The ld. AAR, vide Ruling No.32/ARA/2025 dated 18.08.2025 – 2025-VIL-143-AAR, ruled as follows: –

“1) The taxes under GST paid on the electrical installation work carried out for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity is not eligible for availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC) by the Appellant, as it is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017.

2) The question of answering the second query on the timeline to avail ITC on the ‘Advance component’ involved in the instant contact, does not arise, as the main query on availment of ITC on the said contract is answered in negative.”

This appeal was filed against above ruling.

The facts are that the appellant had entered into an agreement for the erection of electrical works for a new factory with M/s. SMCC Construction India Limited.

Various aspects of the contract were explained, with its photos etc. Appellant was under the bona fide impression that ITC on the above given inward supply was available to them.

The appellant explained eligibility with reference to the provisions of section 16(1) and also explained how the blocking of ITC u/s.17(5)(c)/(d) is not applicable to it.

The ld. AAAR observed that the appellant is engaged in the manufacture of injection moulding machinery and accessories. It was observed that the appellant is expanding its business operation and has constructed a new factory adjacent to its existing factory, for which it has incurred capital expenditure towards procurements in relation to the setting up of the said factory. It was also noted that the appellant has entered into a separate contract and the ‘Scope of Work’ has been specified as “Supply, Installation, Testing and Commissioning of Electrical Works”.

The ld. AAAR made reference to section 16 and section 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) and observed that the electrical installation in the instant case, involving the supply and installation of LT Panels, Busducts, LT Electrical Works, Lightning Protection Works, Light fixtures, and associated civil works, etc., cannot be considered as ‘equipment’ or ‘machinery’ by any means. The ld. AAAR further observed that the work is not capable of being categorized as an ‘Apparatus’, as defined and specified in given section, because it is not just for a specific use or for a particular purpose/function, but is highly generic in nature and is intended for a variety of purposes such as distribution of power supply, providing adequate lighting to the premises, protecting the building/facility from lightning, operation of cranes, etc..

Regarding the other contention about the movable nature of work, the ld. AAAR held that the ‘object’, ‘intendment’, ‘marketability’ of the said work is to be taken into account.

After referring to various aspects for determining the movable/immovable nature of property and after reference to the cited judgments, the ld. AAAR observed that the electrical installation in the instant case, even in the event of considering the fact that the panels, bus-ducts, and other electrical installations are detachable and movable, the object behind their installation, being to assist and enable the operation of cranes and other machinery, indicates that they are basically meant for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of the land and are to be considered as immovable property.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR held that once such electrical installations/fittings are installed, they cease to have an independent existence and become part of the immovable property, and do not get covered within the ambit of “plant and machinery” as defined under the Explanation to Section 17(5) of the CGST Act,2017.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR upheld the advance ruling as correct and rejected the appeal.

3. Shibaura Machine India Pvt. Ltd. (AAAR Order No. 08/2025/AAAR dt.18.12.2025)(TN)

ITC on Fire Fighting System and Public Health Equipment- The taxes under GST paid on the fire-fighting system, and public health equipment carried out for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity are not eligible for availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC) by the Appellant, as it is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017.

The appellant involved in the above case reported at (2) above is also involved in this appeal. In this case, the appellant had put the following questions for ruling by the ld. AAR.

“1) Whether Input Tax Credit (ITC) is eligible on firefighting system and public health equipment for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity?

2) What should be the basis to arrive the timeline to avail ITC on tax invoice raised by Supplier to bill “Advance Component” of the Contract?”

The ld. AAR vide order in AR No.31/ARA/2025 dated 18.08.2025 had ruled as under:

“1. The taxes under GST paid on the fire-fighting system, and public health equipment carried out for expansion of factory for manufacturing activity is not eligible for availment of Input Tax Credit (ITC) by the Appellant, as it is blocked under Sections 17(5)(c) and 17(5)(d) of the CGST/TNGST Acts, 2017.

2. The question, of answering the second query on the timeline to avail ITC on the ‘Advance component’ involved in the instant contract, does not arise, as the main query on availment of ITC on the said contract is answered in negative.”

The appeal was against the said Advance Ruling order. The arguments of the appellant were similar to those made in respect of electrical installation.

The ld. AAAR noted that the Appellant is engaged in the manufacture of injection moulding machinery and accessories. Since they are expanding their business operation, they have constructed a new factory adjacent to their existing factory, whereby they have incurred capital expenditure towards procurements in relation to setting up of this factory. There is a contract with the Supplier for design and construction work for the new factory and a separate contract for fire extinguishers, signage, sprinkler systems, fire detection & alarm systems, and in relation to PHE and sanitary fixtures & fittings, sewage system, water supply system, rain water harvesting system, pumps, etc.

As in the above reported case regarding electric installation, in this case also, appellant reiterated the same arguments as made in respect of electric installation. In addition, it was further submitted that the above installation of the firefighting system is in compliance with the Factories Act,1948.

The ld. AAAR, using the same analogy as in case of electric installation, rejected the arguments that the system constitutes movable goods or that it qualifies as plant and machinery. Regarding the appellant’s contention that the Firefighting system is mandatory infrastructure under the Factories Act, 1948 and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, the ld. AAR held that such mandatory requirements do not confer the right to avail ITC under GST, unless the conditions/restrictions provided under the CGST/TNGST Act, 2017, are satisfied.

Thus, the ld. AAAR confirmed the AR and dismissed the appeal of the appellant.

4. GAIL (India) Ltd. (AAAR Order No. 04/ ODISHA-AAAR /Appeal /2025-26 dt.15.1.2026)(Odisha)

ITC on laying of Pipeline outside Factory- The laying of cross-country pipelines meant for the supply of natural gas does not fall under the definition of plant and machinery, and hence ITC on such pipelines is not admissible in view of the exclusion clause in Section 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017.

The appellant, M/s. GAIL (India) Limited, a Maharatna Public Sector undertaking of Govt. of India, is engaged in the transmission of natural gas. The Appellant Company owns and operates a network of approx. 16,421 km of natural gas pipelines across the country and commands about a 66% market share in gas transmission and over a 54% share in gas trading in India. The Appellant Company obtains authorization from the Petroleum & Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) for laying cross-country pipeline. For completing the said task, the Appellant Company engages different contractor/supplier for procuring pipes, pipe fittings, and services for laying underground pipeline.

Since a huge investment is being made by the Appellant in laying a cross-country pipeline for the transmission of natural gas, the Appellant sought an Advance Ruling as to the admissibility of ITC on inward supplies for laying the pipeline.

The AAR issued ruling vide Order No. 06/ODISHA-AAR/2025-26 dated 23.07.2025 and held that the laying of cross-country pipelines meant for the supply of natural gas does not fall under the definition of plant and machinery, and hence ITC on such pipelines is not admissible in view of the exclusion clause in Section 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act, 2017.

This appeal is against the above advance ruling. The appellant reiterated its submission.

The ld. AAAR noted that the main grounds of appellant are that the pipelines qualify as plant and machinery or as apparatus, equipment or machinery, and hence the blocking provisions provided u/s.17(5)(c) or 17(5)(d) are not applicable and ITC is eligible. The ld. AAAR examined the submissions of the appellant.

The ld. AAAR dealt with the submission of the appellant that the pipeline laid below the surface of the earth is movable goods. It was submitted by appellant that the pipelines are laid underground for carrying natural gas with a pre-designated pressure, and merely because the pipeline is laid below the ground surface for safety purposes, the pipelines do not become immovable property.

The ld. AAAR noted the parameters for considering the question of movable/immovable property and additionally referred to the Petroleum & Minerals Pipelines (Acquisition of Right of User in Land) Act, 1962 which provides for acquiring the “right of user” in land for laying pipelines, thereby acknowledging their permanent nature and attachment to the land.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR rejected the contention of the appellant and held pipeline to be immovable property and, therefore, ineligible for ITC. The Appeal was rejected.

5. Thermo Fisher Scientific India P. Ltd. (AAAR Order No. 02/ODISHA-AAAR/Appeal/2025-26 dt.9.1.2026) (Odisha)

Registration vis-a-vis ‘Fixed Establishment’- Repair and maintenance services provided by the HO of the appellant through FSEs in Odisha do not constitute ‘Place of Business’ under Section 2(85) of CGST Act and also do not constitute a “fixed establishment” in Odisha, as defined u/s.2(50).

The appellant is a Private Limited Company and had filed an appeal against Advance Ruling ORDER No.5/ODISHA-AAR/2025-26dated 11.07.2025 – 2025-VIL-123-AAR pronounced by the AAR.

The ld. AAR has held that the appellant is liable for registration in Odisha. Against above adverse ruling, the appeal was filed before AAAR.

The ld. AAAR framed the issues is to be decided by it as under:

“(i) Whether the repair and maintenance services provided by the Head Office of the Appellant which is in Maharashtra through Field Service Engineer under Annual Maintenance Contract or Comprehensive Maintenance Contracts with the Customers in Odisha constitute a ‘Place of Business’ in Odisha under Section 2(85) of the CGST Act;

(ii) Whether temporary storage of spare parts and tool kit at the Appellant’s location in Odisha constitute a ‘Place of Business’ under Section 2(85) or a ‘Fixed Establishment’ under Section 2(50) of the CGST Act;

(iii) Whether the Appellant is required to obtain separate GST registration on Odisha solely on account of the activities performed by them Odisha”

The facts relevant to above issues are noted as under:

  • “ The appellant is a service provider and provides services under AMC and CMC plan to their clients. The Head Office (H.O) of the appellant which is at Mumbai, issues invoices to the Customers in Odisha as per the Agreements.
  •  Once request is raised by the Customer, the HO sends FSE (Field Service Engineers) to the Client/Customer’s place. The FSE visits the clients and attends the issue. Under the CMC plan, where there is requirement of replacement of spare parts, the HO despatches the necessary spare parts to FSE’s location or the Customer’s location with delivery challan and generates e-way bill for movement of goods from Maharashtra to Odisha. After replacement, the unused spare parts are returned to the HO by the FSE.
  •  The appellant drew attention to Para 5.6 of the ruling in the case of M/s. Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. in AAR, Odisha, for reference. o Additionally, the appellant stated that they do not have any physical permanence in the State of Odisha and therefore not required registration in Odisha.”

The further fact is that the appellant was also registered in Odisha also but sought this advance ruling to ascertain the correct legal position so as to enable it to surrender the existing GSTIN in Odisha and other States, in order to avoid compliances requirements and the complexity of GST.

The ld. AAAR made reference to the definition of ‘place of business’ and also the definition of ‘location of supplier’ in section 2(85) and 2(71), respectively.

The ld. AAAR observed that all the agreements are entered into between the HO of the Appellant, which is located in Maharashtra (bearing a different GSTIN), and the customers in Odisha. Further, the FSEs of the appellant company provide services to the customers on the direction of the HO and there is no separate administrative set up of the appellant company in Odisha.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR concurred with the argument of the appellant that the service is provided from the HO in Maharashtra. In respect of stock of goods in Odisha, the ld. AAAR observed that the stock referred to by the appellant comprises leftover spare parts retained by engineers after service visit, more specifically leftover spare parts under the CMC plan. Therefore, the goods retained by the FSEs of the appellant are not for trading but are rather incidental in nature

The ld. AAAR also observed that the FSEs, who work as service engineers of the appellant company, cannot be termed as ‘agent’ of the appellant.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR held that repair and maintenance services provided by the HO of the appellant through FSEs in Odisha do not constitute ‘Place of Business’ under Section 2(85) of CGST Act and also do not constitute a “fixed establishment” in Odisha, as defined u/s.2(50).

Taking above view, the ld. AAAR answered the issues raised in the appeal in negative, i.e. held that the appellant is not liable for registration in Odisha.

Writ Petition As An Alternative Remedy

Writ petitions under Articles 32 and 226 offer extraordinary remedies for GST disputes when statutory appeals are inadequate. Courts emphasize the “exhaustion doctrine,” generally requiring litigants to pursue primary appellate routes first. However, writs remain maintainable for violations of natural justice, lack of jurisdiction, or challenging the legality of tax laws. High Courts also intervene against administrative overreach, such as improper provisional attachments or software-driven denials of rights. While statutory remedies handle factual issues, writs are a constitutional necessity for correcting systemic failures.

The doctrine of writ remedy has always piqued the interests of litigants who are in search of a swift resolution to their disputes. The title ‘alternative remedy’ has been consciously used as a misnomer for Writs to emphasise that a writ cannot be a default remedy for legal grievances. These cannot substitute primary appellate remedies as a matter of routine and need to be sparingly used by High Courts.

At the heart of the article lies the sole discerning point of whether “Writ Jurisdiction” can be invoked when one becomes a victim of bureaucratic adversaries and long-standing injustice. Routine appellate remedies can be sluggish, inefficient or ineffective. But is this by itself sufficient for someone to invoke the Writ jurisdiction for enforcing their natural rights and justice? This article is structured as follows: First, it introduces the concept of Writ Jurisdictions by Courts. Second, it explores the discretionary powers of the courts in exercising such jurisdiction. Third, it critically applies the said jurisdiction in the context of GST litigation. Finally, it summarises the approach to be adopted while pursuing the Writ remedy.

CONCEPT OF WRIT JURISDICTION

The writ jurisdiction has its roots in the English Common law. The origin of this doctrine can be traced to the strong legal traditions of England, where it evolved as an organic extension of the prerogative writs. These exceptional remedies, such as the habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, quo warranto, were the much-acclaimed tools of the King’s Bench, employed to uphold justice in the face of bureaucratic or administrative intransigence. With increasing resort to these exceptional remedies, Courts (both English & American), in a pragmatic approach, treated these remedies as exceptional remedies only after the litigant exhausts all other remedies (The Exhaustion Doctrine under American jurisprudence).

Under the Indian Legal system, Article 32 was incorporated into the Indian Constitution, devolving constitutional authority to the Courts in exercising such extraordinary jurisdiction. Article 32 grants the Supreme Court the power to hear matters involving the violation or enforcement of fundamental rights which are guaranteed under the Constitution. This means that if someone believes their fundamental rights have been violated, they can approach the Supreme Court directly for relief. It also ensures that not only do individuals have the right to move the Supreme Court, but the Court also has the power to issue appropriate orders, directions, or writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights

Similarly, Article 226 constitutionally empowered the High Courts to exercise their extraordinary jurisdiction for the issuance of appropriate Writs for the violation of fundamental rights and any other purpose. Article 226 of the Constitution of India confers very wide powers on High Courts to issue writs, but this power is discretionary and the High Court may refuse to exercise the discretion if it is satisfied that the aggrieved person has an adequate or suitable remedy elsewhere. It is a rule of discretion and not a rule of compulsion or the rule of law. Even though there may be an alternative remedy, the High Court may entertain a writ petition depending upon the facts of each case. High Courts can entertain Writs if the cause of action arises in the state over which they possess jurisdiction, irrespective of where the litigant resides.

TYPE OF WRITS

High Courts in India can issue the following types of writs under Article 226 of the Constitution:

  •  Habeas Corpus: To enforce the fundamental right of personal liberty and prevent illegal detention;
  • Mandamus: To compel a public official or authority to perform a duty they are legally obligated to fulfil but have failed or refused to do;
  • Prohibition: To prevent a judicial or quasi-judicial body from exceeding its jurisdiction or pursuing jurisdiction not possessed by it;
  • Certiorari: To order a public authority to certify the legality of its proceedings or to provide information;
  • Quo Warranto: To prevent a person from exercising a power or authority that they are not authorised to exercise;

Among the above, the Writ of Certiorari and/or Mandamus are invoked under the GST law seeking the intervention of the court against gross illegality in the adjudication proceedings.

MAINTAINABILITY OF WRITS

Maintainability of writs is a vast subject in itself. Yet there is neither a possible nor desirable way to lay down a law which lays down a scientific rule to be applied rigidly for entertaining a writ petition. But time and again, Courts on multiple occasions have explicitly spelt out that writs are maintainable in certain circumstances as under1:

(i) Where there is a complete lack of jurisdiction in the officer or authority to take the action or to pass the order impugned.

(ii) Where the vires of an Act, Rules, Notification or any of its provisions have been challenged.

(iii) Where an order prejudicial to the writ petitioner has been passed in violation of principles of natural justice.

(iv) Where enforcement of any fundamental right is sought by the petitioner.

(v) Where a procedure required for a decision has not been adopted.

(vi) Where tax is levied without the authority of law.

(vii) Where the decision is an abuse of the process of law.

(viii) Where palpable injustice shall be caused to the petitioner, if he is forced to adopt remedies under the statute for the enforcement of any fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India.

(ix) Where a decision or policy decision has already been taken by the Government, rendering the remedy of appeal an empty formality or a futile attempt.

(x) Where there is no factual dispute but merely a pure question of law or interpretation is involved.

(xi) Where a show cause notice has been issued with a preconceived or premeditated or closed mind.


1 Summarised in Bharat Mint & Allied Chemicals vs. Commr. of Commercial Tax 2022 (59) G.S.T.L. 394 (All)

GST Litigation The Emergency Exit

THE DOCTRINE OF ALTERNATIVE REMEDY AND JUDICIAL RESTRAINT’

A defining characteristic of the Indian legal system is the principle that a writ petition is not a substitute for a statutory appeal. Generally, where the GST Law provides an efficacious alternative remedy (such as an appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) or the Appellate Tribunal), the High Courts are reluctant to exercise their discretionary power. This is rooted in the “right of the nation-state to impose regulations” necessary to secure tax payments, a position partially mitigated by the requirement that such taxation be implemented through “non-discriminatory rules”. The courts have often observed that the “doors open at odd hours for some” while tens of thousands of cases remain pending, emphasising the need to preserve judicial resources for matters where statutory routes are genuinely unavailable or inadequate.

THE GENERAL RULE OF EXHAUSTION

The judiciary maintains that when a statute creates a specific right or liability and provides a mechanism for its enforcement, that mechanism must be exhausted before invoking the writ jurisdiction. In the context of GST, this means that an order passed by an adjudicating authority should ideally be challenged before the designated appellate authorities and only after that appellate remedy is exhausted should one approach the Writ Court.

ANALYSIS UNDER THE GST LAW

Section 107 of the CGST Act provides a specific statutory mechanism for appeals against adjudication orders. It mandates that any person aggrieved by any decision or order passed by an adjudicating authority may appeal to the Appellate Authority within three months from the date of communication of the order. Similarly, Section 73 and Section 74 of the CGST Act provide the procedural framework for adjudicating tax demands, requiring the proper officer to consider the representation (reply) made by the taxpayer before determining the tax, interest, and penalty. Similarly, other sections relating to registrations, blocking of ITC, assessments culminate into decisions or orders which are appealable u/s 107 of the CGST Act. While the existence of an alternative remedy does not place an absolute jurisdictional bar on the High Court, it operates as a self-imposed restraint. The Courts have consistently adopted a strict approach under the GST regime, holding that where the CGST Act prescribes a specific remedy or procedure, taxpayers must exhaust that remedy rather than approaching the Writ Court prematurely.

On discretionary power

In recent times, the decision of the Supreme Court in Radha Krishan Industries2 has been the guiding force on the point of maintainability of Writs. The Court, relying upon the coveted decisions in Whirlpool Corporation3 and Harbanslal Sahnia vs. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd4, emphasised the wide discretionary powers of Courts to entertain writ petitions. Where the Court believes that there is gross injustice being meted out to the taxpayer (such as invoking draconian powers of provisional attachment without reasonable grounds), it can invoke its Writ jurisdiction. Presence of an alternative remedy does not ipso facto divest the Court of its powers under Article 226. The exhaustion doctrine is a rule of policy, convenience and discretion as well. On the other side, the Supreme Court dismissed the writ petition of Commercial Steel Ltd5 seemingly curtailing the discretion of the Court to entertain Writs in matters involving factual assessment. There are contrary views on the discretionary powers of the Courts to admit writ petitions on matters other than the grounds listed above.


2 2021 (48) G.S.T.L. 113 (S.C.)

3  (1998) 8 SCC 1

4  (2003) 2 SCC 107

5 2021 (52) G.S.T.L. 385 (S.C.)

Interestingly, in Dabur India Ltd6, the Court emphasised that the scope of Writ jurisdictions is for judicial review of the decision-making process and not the decision itself. The power of judicial review extends to jurisdictional limits, committed errors of law, principles of natural justice, and whether the decision is perverse or not. The powers of judicial review are thus distinct from the powers of an appellate court. The order of the Appellate Authority can be judicially reviewed and not appealed against. We will examine certain situations where Writs have been admitted and some of the cases where Courts have refused to entertain writs on the grounds of an alternative remedy.


6 2020 (34) G.S.T.L. 9 (All.)

On Violation of the Principles of Natural Justice

A core tenet of the Indian legal fabric is that “no person shall be condemned unheard” (also codified u/s 75(4)). The object of giving notice to an affected party is to provide an opportunity to present their case and apprise them of the charges levelled. The rules of natural justice are not limited to judicial tribunals; they apply to all authorities acting as “judges of the rights of others”. A writ petition is maintainable if:

  • An order is passed without issuing a Show Cause Notice.
  •  The notice issued is vague, cryptic or fails to specify the charges.
  • Non-furnishing of the relied-upon documents collected during the previous stages
  • Incorrect or ineffective service of notices or orders
  • Denial of cross-examination of the witness

This is the most prominent ground on which Writs are entertained, and the typical relief granted is in the form of remanding the case for a fresh opportunity.

On Lack of Jurisdiction or Statutory Infraction

A writ petition is an appropriate remedy when an authority acts beyond the powers conferred upon it by the GST Law. This includes:

  • Issuance of a notice by an officer not having the jurisdiction to do so.
  • Failure to follow the “statutorily prescribed procedure” for initiating proceedings.
  • Issuance of notices beyond the period of limitation.
  • Parallel proceedings by authorities

In SREI Equipment Finance Ltd7 Adjudication in case of companies under the resolution process of the IBC law was held to be without jurisdiction, warranting the interference of the Court in Writ Jurisdiction. SCN and adjudication post approval for prior-period dues were in the teeth of binding law and were held to be wholly without jurisdiction. Similarly, orders beyond show cause notices (such as the amount of tax, interest and penalty demanded in order is more than the amount specified in the notice) amount to ex-facie violation of statutory provisions (i.e., section 75(7)) and Writ Courts have intervened in such statutory infractions8.

On the contrary, the High Court in Shree Renuka Sugars9 dismissed a writ petition filed at the show cause notice stage when the petitioner claimed that Extra Neutral Alcohol (ENA) was not covered under GST and hence the proper officer lacked jurisdiction. Being a matter involving facts, the High Court dismissed the plea of the petitioner that a pre-deposit of 25% in the form of a bank guarantee ought not to be imposed on it when the levy itself was beyond jurisdiction. The court even refused to permit the petitioner to pursue its legal remedy without committing to the direction of 25% bank guarantee by the High Court.


7  2025 (103) G.S.T.L. 401 (Bom.) 

8  2026 (104) G.S.T.L. 95 (All.) SAI COMPUTERS vs. State of UP

9  2024 (89) G.S.T.L. 440 (Kar.)

ON WRITS AT THE SHOW CAUSE STAGE

Courts have been reluctant to entertain writs at the show cause stage itself and do not interfere in the adjudication proceedings. The Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Vicco Laboratories10 , has advocated abstinence from interference at the show cause stage as a normal rule. Yet as an exception, in case of lack of jurisdiction or abuse of process of law, courts are permitted to interfere in the adjudication proceedings. Similarly, in cases where the binding decisions of the High Court or Supreme Court are not applied, writs have been entertained by the Court at the show cause stage. But in one particular case, the Court11 admitted the Writ Petition since the show-cause notice suffered from the absence of essential ingredients. The officer had merely issued the summary in DRC-01 without specifying the allegations that were levelled against the taxpayer.

On the flip side, the Bombay High Court in PayU Payments Private Limited12 dismissed a writ petition filed against an SCN issued under Section 74 of the CGST Act, invoking the extended period of limitation. The Court held that the scope of judicial review is narrow at the stage of issuing a Show Cause Notice and the Petitioner’s contentions can be raised in response to the notice. The Court noted that mere allegations that the adjudicating authorities will not take a different view do not constitute a valid ground to interfere with the SCN. Similarly, in Chennai Citicentre Holdings Pvt. Ltd13 The Court refused to entertain a writ petition filed directly against an SCN demanding Service Tax/GST. The Court observed that it is certainly not open to the petitioner to challenge the show cause notice itself before this Court and make an attempt to convince this Court on the factual submissions. It directed that the petitioner is legally bound to answer the show cause notice and work out their remedies in a manner known to the law.


10  2007 (218) E.L.T. 647 (S.C.)

11  2022 (64) G.S.T.L. 406 (Jhar.) Juhi Industries Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Jharkhand

12  (2025) 26 Centax 67 (Bom.)

13  2021 (52) G.S.T.L. 597 (Mad.)

On factual grounds

As observed above writ courts are strictly against admission of petitions involving factual grounds. Even in cases where the litigants believe that the invocation of extended period of limitation is illegal on the grounds of fraud, suppression etc, the Courts14 have stated that these are factual grounds and suitably addressable at the appellate forums rather than Writ Courts. The Supreme court also dismissed SLP15 on the ground that the aspect of limitation is a mixed question of fact and law and cannot be examined in Writ jurisdictions.

But courts have intervened on non-consideration of material facts/ legal provisions/circulars, or judicial precedents. In Amman trading company Pvt. Ltd16 it was held that the basic principle of administrative law require that when a defense raised is not considered in the final order, the order is vulnerable on the ground of non-consideration of the contentions raised by the assessee.


14  Ramnath Prasad vs. PCGST (2025) 29 Centax 306 (Pat.)

15  (2024) 20 Centax 519 (Telangana) Sri Krishna Exim LLP vs. UOI

16  (2026 (104) G.S.T.L. 261 (Mad.)

Lack of service of orders

Once again, a subset of the natural justice principles, online service of orders or uploading on the Additional Notices/ orders tab, has been considered as statutorily valid but ineffective service. Accordingly, multiple decisions have been rendered by the Courts17 In writ jurisdiction on natural justice principles, granting the appellant an opportunity to file its appeals against such orders despite being beyond the period of limitation.


17  2025 (102) G.S.T.L. 199 (Mad.) SHARP TANKS AND STRUCTURALS PVT. LTD.  vs. DC_GST

Lack of appellate remedy

Clearly, Courts have entertained Writ Petitions against orders of the appellate advance ruling authority on the ground of lack of an alternative appellate remedy. However, a peculiar observation emerged in JSW Energy’s case18 where the Court denied examining the merits of the Appellate Advance Ruling Order and only limited itself to examining the decision-making process. The litigant can be left remediless insofar as the merits of the case were concerned. This is despite the Supreme Court’s view in Columbia Sportswear19 which directed that Writs are maintainable against the orders of the advance ruling authority.


18  2019 (27) G.S.T.L. 198 (Bom.)

19  2012 (283) E.L.T. 321 (S.C.)

On blocked Electronic Ledgers

Writ Courts have intervened in cases of blocking Electronic Credit ledgers beyond the disputed ITC; in cases of NIL balance or in cases where blocking persisted beyond the statutory 1-year period. Courts have held that the fiscal provision (Rule 86-A) had to be strictly construed and no intendment or negative blocking could be read into its plain text.

On the right to correct mistakes

The judiciary has increasingly recognised that “human errors and mistakes are normal”, and that these errors are made by both the Revenue and the taxpayer. When a departmental system or software limitation prevents a taxpayer from exercising a legitimate right, the High Court may intervene. In Aberdare Technologies Private Limited20, The Supreme Court dismissed an SLP filed by the CBIC against a Bombay High Court judgment. The court held that the “right to correct mistakes like clerical or arithmetical error is a right that flows from the right to do business”. Crucially, the court stated that “software limitation itself cannot be a good justification” to deny the benefit of correction, as software is “meant to ease compliance and can be configured”.


20  (2025) 29 Centax 10 (S.C.)

Constitutional Validity and Unconstitutional Restrictions

If a departmental utility or a specific provision of the law attempts to “restrict or prohibit an assessee from making a particular claim at the threshold itself”, such actions may be challenged as unconstitutional. The courts have noted that the allowance or disallowance of a claim should be deduced through an “interpretative and adjudicating process”, not by pre-emptive technical blocks. Where exports were made through post, the GSTN system did not envisage a process of refund, thus invoking the Writ Court21 to intervene and direct the Government to disburse legally entitled refunds dehors the technical glitch/ difficulty in processing such refunds.


21  (2025) 29 Centax 378 (Bom.) VEA Impex

On Overreach and Misuse of Powers

In Radha Krishan Industries22 The Supreme Court permitted the exercise of jurisdiction against the indiscriminate use of provisional attachment powers by officers without grant of any opportunity to the taxpayer. In Lalita vs. UOI23 the assessee was subjected to provisional attachment u/s 83 of CGST Act, 2017 for 4th time to which the C(applying Supreme Court’s decision in Kesari Nandan24) held that when a statute does not provide for an extension, renewal, reissuance, revival, and the same cannot be done by authorities, such an action would amount to executive overreaching of the statute.


22  2021 (48) G.S.T.L. 113 (S.C.)

23  2025 (102) G.S.T.L. 130 (All.)

24  2025 (101) G.S.T.L. 177

Decisions on challenges to the vires of Circular/ statutory provisions

The High Court25 permitted Writs where the vires of a Circular or statutory provision of subordinate legislation is challenged. Section 107 does not confer any power or jurisdiction upon the Appellate Authority to declare any provision of a statute or a statutory Circular to be ultra vires to the parent Act of the Constitution. It was held that such Power is vested with the Constitutional Court and, therefore, it is a paramount duty of the High Court to decide issues only in writ jurisdiction.


25  (2024) 16 Centax 181 (Cal.) North East Water Tank Manufacturing Private Limited vs. UOI

CONCLUSION

The right to file a writ petition against a GST Show Cause Notice or a confirmed order is necessary to prevent the administrative pillar of the state from becoming fragile. While the slow nature of the court system remains a concern, the High Courts remain vigilant in protecting taxpayers against jurisdictional excess, violations of natural justice, and systemic failures. For the professional, the strategy must be twofold: first, to diligently pursue statutory alternative remedies for factual and routine legal disputes; and second, to identify those “special situations” —such as software-enforced denials of rights, lack of jurisdiction, or the “condemning of a party unheard”—where the extraordinary power of the High Court is not just an option, but a constitutional necessity. As the Supreme Court aptly noted in the Aberdare Technologies case, the right to correct errors is fundamental to the right to do business, and no “software limitation” or procedural rigidity
can be permitted to supersede the core principles of justice.

Validity Of Manually Filed Forms Where E-Filing Mandatory

This feature addresses the validity of manually filed tax forms where e-filing is mandatory. While the Gemini Communication case held a company’s manual return invalid due to strict regulatory mandates, other rulings like Shri Vasavi Gold & Bullion took a liberal view, asserting that procedural rules should not override statutory rights. Generally, courts treat e-filing as a directory requirement, accepting manual submissions if there is justification for technical difficulties or if the form is subsequently e-filed to ensure substantive justice is not denied on mere technicalities.

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Over the past couple of decades, the manner of filing of many income tax forms and returns has been converted from manual filing to electronic filing (e-filing). Such filings include income tax returns, tax audit reports, various certifications required under tax laws, income tax appeals to the Commissioner (Appeals), etc. In most such cases, e-filing is mandatory as per the Income Tax Rules, 1962.

It is, however, common to come across cases where a person files a return, etc., manually instead of through the mandatory e-filing/digital filing/uploading process. At times, the authorities ignore such filings, though made within time, resulting in denial of benefits attached to statutory compliance. Many a time, the person filing manually is not technology efficient, or has no access to the technology required for digital filing, or the power supply or internet connection is not available at that time, or the person is not conversant with the latest requirements.

The issue has arisen before the High Courts and Tribunal as to whether, when a return or form is filed manually before the due date, with e-filing done later belatedly, such manual filing is valid or not.

While the Madras, Bombay and Andhra Pradesh High Courts have taken a liberal view that such manual filing would be valid, recently, the Madras High Court has held that a manually filed income tax return was not valid, since the return was required to be e-filed.

The Paper Trail vs. the Digital Gate is manual tax filling still valid

SHRI VASAVI GOLD & BULLION’S CASE

The issue had come up before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Sri Vasavi Gold & Bullion (P) Ltd 278 Taxman 352.

In this case, pertaining to Assessment Year 2009-10, a reassessment order was passed under section 143(3) read with section 147 on 29th March 2016. The assessee filed an appeal in physical form before the Commissioner (Appeals) on 25th April 2016, within the time limit of 30 days. The appeal memorandum was kept pending in the office of the Commissioner (Appeals) till 12th December 2018.

On 13th December 2018, the Commissioner (Appeals) issued a notice to the assessee stating that, in terms of Rule 45 of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, with effect from 1st March 2016, it was mandatory to file appeals only by way of e-filing, for which the due date had been extended to 15th June 2016. The Commissioner (Appeals) proposed to treat the appeal as non est and called upon the assessee to state whether any appeal had been filed electronically; and if so, to bring it to the notice of the office of the CIT(A) immediately, along with a copy of such e-filed appeal within 10 days from the date of receipt of the said notice, failing which the manual appeal filed would be treated as invalid and disposed of accordingly.

The Commissioner (Appeals) noted that the show cause notice was served on the assessee, but the assessee neither filed the e-appeal nor replied to the notice. Hence, the Commissioner (Appeals) concluded that, in the absence of any material placed by the assessee to demonstrate that there was no negligence, inaction or lack of due diligence in not filing the e-appeal, sufficient cause had not been established by the assessee. Accordingly, the manual appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed in limine.

The assessee preferred a further appeal before the Tribunal, which was allowed, remanding the matter back to the Commissioner (Appeals) for denovo consideration and for disposal of the appeal on merits.

On appeal by the Revenue, before the High Court, , it was contended that the Tribunal erred in holding that the manual appeal filed by the assessee before the Commissioner (Appeals) was a valid appeal even where the e-appeal was not filed as mandated, and in remanding the matter back to the Commissioner (Appeals). It was argued that the Tribunal ought to have appreciated that Rule 45 of the Income-tax Rules mandated assessees to file only e-appeals with effect from 1st March 2016, which time limit was extended till 15th June 2016, only vide Circular No. 20/2016 dated 11th July 2016. It was also contended that the Tribunal ought to have held that the manual appeal filed by the assessee was non-est in view of the mandate under Rule 45 of the Rules. It was further submitted that the assessee could not plead ignorance of law, especially when assisted by professionals, and that there was no reason for the Tribunal to interfere with the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals).

On behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the manual appeal in Form No. 35 was filed well within the period of limitation; that the Commissioner (Appeals) did not intimate the assessee for over three years; and that only on 13th December 2018, was a notice issued, an aspect that was rightly taken note of by the Tribunal while upholding the validity of the manual appeal filed before the CIT(A) and allowing the appeal filed by the assessee.

The Madras High Court observed that there could be no quarrel with the proposition that once the statutory rules mandated a particular procedure requiring an appeal to be e-filed, the same should be filed in such manner, only and not in any other manner. The Court, however, noted the decisions of the Supreme Court wherein it was held that procedural rules are only handmaidens of justice, and if there is a failure to adhere to the procedure, and such failure is pitted against a statutory right of appeal, then such statutory right should not be abdicated or rejected on technical reasons.

Perusing CBDT Circular 20/2016, the High Court noticed that the CBDT had taken note of cases where taxpayers who were required to e-file Form 35 but were unable to do so due to lack of knowledge of the e-filing procedure and/or technical issues, among other reasons.

In order to mitigate the inconvenience caused to taxpayers on account of the new requirement of mandatory e-filing of appeals, the CBDT had extended the time limit for filing such e-appeals to 15th June 2016, and all e-appeals filed within this extended period were treated as appeals filed in time, provided the assessees filed such e-appeals within the extended period.

The High Court observed that the assessee had manually filed the appeal in Form No. 35 in the office of the Commissioner (Appeals) well within the time limit of 30 days. There were two options available to the office of the Commissioner (Appeals), first, to refuse to accept the manual filing citing Rule 45 of the Rules; or second, to receive the appeal and then return it to the assessee with a covering note stating that the relevant rule mandated e-filing of appeal with effect from 1st March 2016. However, the office of the Commissioner (Appeals) did not exercise either of these options and, therefore, the assessee was led to believe that the appeal had been accepted.

The assessee came to know that the manual appeal filed in Form No. 35 would not be entertained only when a notice was issued by the Commissioner (Appeals) after a period of three years. The show-cause notice clearly indicated that the office of the Commissioner (Appeals) was not aware as to whether the assessee had filed any appeal electronically. The facts clearly showed that, at the relevant point of time, the process of integration of manual and digital systems was not in place, as observed by the Court.

The High Court took note of the fact that in courts and tribunals, where a defective appeal is filed or an appeal is not properly presented, there exists a provision to regularize such defects, often upon payment of court fee. It further noted that where there is a lack of jurisdiction, appeal papers are immediately returned with a memo giving the party an opportunity to re-present them after rectifying defects. At the relevant time, in the present case, the office of the Commissioner (Appeals) did not have any such procedure in place to ease these difficulties.

The Madras High Court eventually held that that the manual appeal filed before the Commissioner (Appeals) should be decided on merits and not be dismissed on technical grounds, especially when the assessee was informed only after a period of three years that the manual appeal filed in Form No. 35 was not acceptable. The High Court was of the clear view that the right of appeal, being a statutory and valuable right, should not be denied on technicalities.

A similar view in favour of admitting appeals and forms filed manually has been taken by other High Courts as under:

1. The Bombay High Court, in the case of Nav Chetana Charitable Trust vs. CIT 169 taxmann.com 543, in the context of filing the option in Form 9A manually within time, and e-filing the form after a delay of 799 days.

2. The Bombay High Court, in the case of Borivli Education Society vs. CIT 304 Taxman 34, in the context of filing the audit report in Form 10B manually, which was e-filed only upon being informed of the requirement of uploading Form 10B electronically during the hearing of the rectification application filed  after receipt of intimation under section 143(1) rejecting exemption.

3. The Andhra Pradesh High Court, in the case of Electron Volt Renewables (P) Ltd 168 taxmann.com 378, in the context of filing an appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) manually due to issues arising in affixing digital signatures for online filing.

GEMINI COMMUNICATION’S CASE

The issue came up again recently before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Gemini Communication Ltd 182 taxmann.com 197.

In this case, the assessee company filed a return of income manually for AY 2008-09 on 30th September 2008 and e-filed its return of income on 6th November 2008 belatedly. The assessment under Section 143(3) was passed on 31st December 2010, rejecting the deduction claimed under section 80-IC on the ground that the return filed electronically was belated, as the provisions of section 80AC required that, for the purpose of claiming deduction under section 80-IC, the return ought to have been filed in time.

The appeal by the assessee to the Commissioner (Appeals) was dismissed. On further appeal, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee, expressing the view that the scheme for electronic filing of returns of income has been framed only by the CBDT, and that there was nothing in the Act which made it mandatory for the assessee to file a return only electronically. The Tribunal remanded the case back to the AO to consider the deduction under section 80-IC of the Act as per law.

The Madras High Court observed that the issue in question boiled down to whether the assessee had an option to file its return of income manually. It examined the provisions of section 139 and noted that it did not specify the manner of filing of the return for it to be a valid. It then noted that Rule 12(3), inserted with effect from 14th May 2007, stipulated that all assessees, including companies, were required to file their returns of income electronically. The only option available to the assessee while e-filing was whether to digitally sign the e-return or submit a physical ITR V after e-filing of the return.

The High Court observed that there was no option, under the rule, for filing of a return manually, followed by an electronic return thereafter, especially, beyond the due date. The High Court also noted subsequent amendments to the Rules mandating almost all persons to e-file their returns.

The Madras High Court noted that, in the case before it, the assessee was a company, and in light of the prescription under Circular No.9/2006 dated 10.10.2006, which stated that “All corporate taxpayers are necessarily required to furnish the return for assessment year 2006-07 electronically after 24-7-2006. Thus, a company has to necessarily file e-return either under digital signature or in accordance with two step procedure explained in para 2 or in accordance with the Scheme mentioned at para 3(i). However, for other class of taxpayers, it is optional to furnish an e-return”, it became incumbent upon such assessee to file a return of income electronically following the procedure set out in that Circular. There was no further avenue available for a company to continue filing manual returns of income.

It was also pointed out on behalf of the Revenue that the company had e-filed its earlier two years returns. The High Court observed that the assessee was therefore not unaware of the procedure for submission of the e-return of income.

The High Court further observed that, while it was true that the impetus for the e-filing scheme emanated from the CBDT, there was nothing improper in that, as the CBDT is the apex body for streamlining and managing tax administration. Hence, there was no merit in the Tribunal’s conclusion that the CBDT had overridden statutory stipulations and rules. The necessary amendments to the Rules to enable such mechanisms had been made, and circulars were issued from time to time. The inception of the e-filing schemes was in the interest of administrative efficiency, and was a necessary incident of progress.

The Madras High Court allowed the appeal of the revenue, holding that the manually filed return was an invalid return, and therefore, the deduction claimed under such a return u/s 80IC was not allowable.

OBSERVATIONS

Generally, the Courts have found that the manual return and such other filings under the Act are valid, and that any claim made thereunder are allowable and not to be denied. In some cases, the courts have found the subsequent e-filings to be a factor that strengthens the case of the assessee filing manual return, forms, or reports, more so where difficulties in e-filing have necessitated such manual filings. Besides the decisions referred to above, in various cases where difficulties in e-filing have been pointed out by assessees, the High Courts have permitted manual filing of returns or forms. One may refer to the following cases:

Samir Narain Bhojwani vs. Dy CIT 115 taxmann.com 70 (Bom) – In this case, the Bombay High Court held that procedure of filing return of income cannot bar an assessee from making a claim which he is entitled to. The Court directed the assessee to make an application to the CBDT and, in the meantime, to file the return in electronic form as well as in paper form with the AO and return of income would be taken up for consideration only after the decision of CBDT.

Cosmo Films Limited [TS-282-HC-2019(DEL)] – In this case, the Delhi High Court directed the CBDT to either allow assessee (claiming Sec.10AA deduction) to file return of income manually or alter online utility to enable the assessee to file the return claiming the carry forward of losses of its ineligible unit. The High Court took note of the decision of the Madras High Court in Tara Exports vs. Union of India 98 taxmann.com 363 and observed that ‘when faced with the situation of a software glitch that prevents an Assessee from either filing a return or claiming a benefit, the Courts have repeatedly had to permit the manual filing of return/claims and have directed the Respondents to act on such manual filing of returns.’

Shyam Century Ferrous Ltd vs. ACIT ITA No 1 of 2025 dated 26.6.2025 (Meghalaya HC) – In this case, the Tribunal had held that a mistake could be corrected by filing a revised return and had directed CPC/AO to consider the revised return, if filed. The assessee approached the High Court for directions as it was unable to e-file the revised return, which was mandatory. The Department conceded, and the High Court directed that the CPC/AO would accept the revised returns filed manually/physically, for due consideration.

In Gemini Communication’s case, from a reading of both the High Court’s order and that of the Chennai bench of the Tribunal (144 ITD 634), the facts are not clear as to what was the difficulty that prompted the assessee to file a manual report before the due date and then subsequently e-file an identical return. No such difficulty appears to have been brought to the notice of either Tribunal or the High Court, which necessitated the filing of the manual return.

The only argument taken up seems to have been that the CBDT exceeded its powers in requiring e-filing. This contention, though valid, did not appeal to the court, which, without providing reasons for not accepting it, held in favour of mandatory e-filing of the return.

One aspect that had been appreciated by the Tribunal in Gemini Communication’s case, was that filing of return electronically was a directory requirement and, if the return is filed manually on or before due date, such return should not be ignored. The Tribunal observed that, at most, the AO could have done was require the assessee to file the return again electronically so that the technical requirement of processing was satisfied.

The Madras High Court does not seem to have addressed this aspect of directory versus mandatory requirement while deciding the appeal and instead considered only whether the CBDT requirement was in accordance with the Rules Importantly, the Court did not consider its own ruling in Shri Vasavi Gold & Bullion’s case, which, if cited, may have led the court to decide differently.

There have been a number of decisions where Courts have taken a view that filing of a form was mandatory, but that the time limit laid down in the rules for such filing is a directory requirement, and have therefore accepted belated filing of the form. Similarly, violation of the procedure for e-filing is, in substance, violation of a directory requirement, and not a mandatory requirement, particularly where the return is otherwise complete in all respects. When the same return is subsequently e-filed, that should constitute sufficient compliance with the requirement, particularly in cases where there is adequate justification for not being able to e-file the return.

The better view therefore seems to be that if a return or form is filed manually instead of being e-filed, it will still be valid filing. Where the same return or form is subsequently e-filed, there would certainly be a strong case for accepting the manual filing, particularly where there is a valid justification for the inability to e-file the return or form.

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

1. Dr. Doma T Bhutia vs. UOI

(2025) 481 ITR 501 (SC)

Exemption – Sikkimese Persons – The definition of the term “Sikkimese” under section 10 clause (26AAA) of Explanation (v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by the Finance Act 2023, is only for the purpose of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and not for any other purpose

A writ petition had been filed by a designated Senior Advocate, Dr. Doma T. Bhutia, as a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) before the High Court of Sikkim, Gangtok, challenging the vires to Explanation (v) contained under clause (26AAA) of section 10 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, which was introduced by way of amendment in terms of the Finance Act, 2023, insofar as it dealt with the definition of the term “Sikkimese”. According to the writ petitioner, this amendment to the definition of the term “Sikkimese” under section 10 clause (26AAA) of Explanation (v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by the Finance Act2023, was in violation of Article 371F(k) of the Constitution of India. According to the writ petitioner, it was the responsibility of the State of Sikkim to ensure protection of the old laws, including their preservation/protection, as provided under Article 371F(k) of the Constitution of India, in public interest.

The High Court dismissed the writ petition in view of the clarification provided as per the “Press Release” dated 04th April, 2023, namely, that the term “Sikkimese” defined for the purpose of clause (26AAA) of section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by the Finance Act, 2023, was only for the purpose of Income-tax Act, 1961, and not for any other purpose.

The Supreme Court noted that the Explanation to Section 10 (26AAA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, had been amended pursuant to its judgment in W.P. (C) No.59 of 2013 [Association of Old Settlers of Sikkim and Ors. vs. Union of India and Anr.].

Learned counsel for the petitioner submitted before the Supreme Court that the term “Sikkimese” has been expanded by virtue of the amendment and, therefore, the identity “Sikkimese” people has been lost.

The Supreme Court did not accept the said contention, as according to the Supreme Court, the expression “Sikkimese” has been defined only for the purpose of the Explanation which is to Section 10 (26AAA) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

According to the Supreme Court, if the Parliament, in order to grant a benefit, has expanded the scope of the expression “Sikkimese” under the Explanation to Section 10 (26AAA), the petitioner could have no grievance as that is a matter of policy and the Parliamentary intent.

The Supreme Court however, observed that the expression “Sikkimese” is expanded only for the purpose of grant of benefit to such persons who come within the scope of the Explanation to Section 10 (26AAA) and not for any other purposes as such. Hence, there was no reason to entertain this Writ Petition any further. The Writ Petition was, accordingly, disposed.

The Supreme Court went further to suggest that the Union of India may also issue a formal notification with regard to what has been stated in the press release if not already issued.

2. PCIT vs. Indo Rama Synthetics (I) Ltd

(2025) 481 ITR 660 (SC)

Reassessment – When records (reasons of reopening the assessment) could not be produced before the High Court despite its directions, it could not be demonstrated that findings returned by CIT and the Tribunal were perverse qua the objections and in such circumstances, the High Court had no option but to dismiss the appeal of the Revenue.

Reopening of assessment was questioned by the assessee on multiple grounds including that (i) reasons-recorded for initiating the proceedings were never furnished to the assessee; (ii) there was no suppression of information; (iii) consequent to the amendment, vide Finance Act, 2008, assessee filed a revised return including the amount debited towards deferred tax for the purposes of Section 115JB; (iv) objection to reopening of concluded assessment was not disposed of; and (v) there cannot be reopening of assessment on mere change of opinion.

The objections raised by the assessee to the reopening of the assessment were sustained by the CIT while allowing the appeal(s) vide order dated 30.06.2011, and the appeal(s) preferred by Revenue were dismissed by the Tribunal vide order dated 31.01.2018.

In the course of the appeal preferred by the Revenue against the order of the Tribunal, the High Court directed the Revenue to produce a copy of the ‘reasons to believe’ recorded, and the original order under Section 143(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This was obviously to test the correctness of the findings returned by the CIT and the Tribunal. Those records were, however, not produced by the Revenue despite repeated opportunities on a lame excuse that the records are not traceable. In such circumstances, the High Court concluded that Revenue is not interested in pursuing the appeal and the appeal was, accordingly, dismissed by the impugned order.

On 20.11.2019, the Supreme Court issued a limited notice on the question whether, on mere non-filing of the relevant document, the High Court ought to have drawn an adverse inference on the Revenue’s appeal.

The Supreme Court, having regard to the reasons recorded in detail by the CIT and the Tribunal, was of the view that the direction to produce the records was to test the correctness of the findings returned by the CIT and the Tribunal. When records could not be produced, it could not be demonstrated that findings returned by CIT and the Tribunal were perverse qua the objections. In such circumstances, the Supreme Court was of the view that the High Court had no option but to dismiss the appeal, though it could have desisted from observing that the Revenue was not interested in pursuing the appeal.

According to the Supreme Court, in any view of the matter, the fact remained that in the absence of relevant materials, the findings returned by CIT, affirmed by the Tribunal, were not liable to be interfered with. Consequently, the Supreme Court did not find merit in this appeal. The same was, accordingly, dismissed.

Notice and assessment order passed, in the name of a non-existent entity – scheme of amalgamation – Department intimated.

JSW Steel Coated Products Limited vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre (Assessment unit) & Ors.

[Writ Petition No. 4296 of 2024 dated : 4th March, 2026 (Bombay High Court) ] Assessment Year 2022-23

Notice and assessment order passed, in the name of a non-existent entity – scheme of amalgamation – Department intimated.

The Petitioner (‘JSW Steel Coated Products Limited’) is a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956, engaged in the manufacturing of steel, including special steel products. Vide Order dated 19.05.2023, the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) approved the scheme of amalgamation of JSW Vallabh Tinplate Private Limited (“erstwhile/transferor company’) with the Petitioner, whereby the former company got amalgamated into the Petitioner. Pursuant to the NCLT Order, Form No. INC-28, being notice of the order of the Tribunal, was filed with the Registrar of Companies (‘RoC’) on 26.06.2023.

Pursuant to the amalgamation, the Petitioner, vide its letter dated 29.06.2023, duly communicated to the Authorities the amalgamation of the erstwhile/transferor company, namely ‘JSW Vallabh Tinplate Private Limited’ (hereinafter referred to as“JSW Vallabh Tinplate”)

For A.Y. 2022-23, Respondent No.1 issued a Notice dated 02.06.2023 under Section 143(2) of the Act in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate, intimating that its case has been selected for faceless scrutiny. Further, despite the fact of amalgamation being duly communicated by the Petitioner, Respondent No.1, vide Notice dated 18.10.2023, proceeded with the assessment proceeding against JSW Vallabh Tinplate on its PAN, in terms of Section 143(2) and 144B of the Act for A.Y. 2022-23

Respondent No.1 without considering the preliminary objection of the Petitioner that JSW Vallabh Tinplate was not in existence, proceeded with the issuance of further notices dated 27.01.2024 and 07.02.2024 in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate, in terms of Section 142(1) of Act, seeking production of various accounts/ documents/ information. The Petitioner, thereafter, vide its letter dated 08.02.2024, once again requested Respondent No.1 not to proceed with the assessment proceedings in light of the fact that JSW Vallabh Tinplate was no longer in existence.

Subsequently, Respondent No. 1 issued a show cause notice dated 01.03.2024 in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate. The Petitioner, vide its letter dated 06.03.2024, responded to the said notice under its own name and seal.

Respondent No.1, thereafter, passed the Assessment Order on 21.03.2024 under Section 143(3) of the Act in the name of ‘JSW Vallabh Tinplate Private Limited’ in respect of AY 2022-23. Further, the Notice of demand under Section 156 of the Act and the notice for initiating the penalty proceedings were also issued in the name of ‘JSW Vallabh Tinplate Private Limited’.

The Petitioner contended that upon a scheme of amalgamation being sanctioned, the amalgamating company/transferor company ceases to exist in the eyes of law, as held by the Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of Saraswati Industrial Syndicate Ltd vs. CIT [(1990) 53 Taxman 92 (SC)] and PCIT vs. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. [(2019) 107 taxmann.com 375 (SC)]. Once, such a transferor company ceases to exist, it cannot fall within the definition of a ‘person’ as defined under Section 2(31) of the Act. Consequently, no proceedings can be conducted in respect of a ‘person’ that no longer exists. Thus, the notices and the impugned Assessment Order, having been issued in the name of a non-existent entity, were void ab initio and bad in law.

The Respondent, relying upon the Affidavit in Reply dated 31.07.2025, submitted that the initiation as well as completion of the assessment proceedings were valid in law, and the assessment would not be rendered invalid merely because it was framed in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate. In support of the above, the Revenue placed reliance on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. [(2022) SCC OnLine SC 407] and the decision of Hon’ble Madras High Court in the case of Vedanta Limited vs. DCIT [(2021) 438 ITR 680 (Mad)].

The Hon. Court observed that it is an undisputed fact that the Petitioner had made Respondent No. 1 aware about the amalgamation of “JSW Vallabh Tinplate Private Limited” with the Petitioner during the assessment proceedings for A.Y. 2022-23. Despite the aforesaid, Respondent No.1 issued Notices under Section 142(1) in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate; proceeded to issue the Show Cause Notice in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate; and ultimately even passed the assessment order, issued notice of demand under Section 156, and issued a penalty notice, all in the name of JSW Vallabh Tinplate.

The Hon. Court observed that the issue regarding the invalidity of a notice issued to a non-existent entity was no longer res integra and was covered by the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Principal Commissioner Income Tax vs. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. (supra).

The Court further observed that the decision in Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. (supra) must be appreciated bearing in mind the peculiar facts and circumstances of that case, including the conduct of the assessee therein. It was those facts which appear to have weighed upon the Supreme Court to hold against the assessee. The present case was clearly distinguishable from the facts in the case of Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. (supra) because (i) in that case, there was no intimation by the resultant company i.e., Mahagun India Pvt. Ltd., regarding the amalgamation of Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. into it, to the Income Tax Authorities; (ii) the Assessment Order was made in the name of both the amalgamating company and the resultant company; and (iii) the resultant company also participated in the assessment proceeding holding itself out as the amalgamating company.

The Hon. Court noted that the Petitioner had, at the very threshold, objected to the continuation of the assessment proceeding in the name of a non-existent entity and had consistently maintained such objection throughout. Hence, the decision rendered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mahagun Realtors (P) Ltd. (supra) was wholly inapplicable to the factual situation in the present matter.

The Hon. Court further distinguished the decision of the Hon’ble Madras High Court in the case of Vedanta Limited (supra) wherein the error pertained to multiple changes of the name of an existing company without any change in the PAN, and a corrigendum was also issued to rectify the error, after which the proceedings were continued. However, in the present case, the assessment has been framed in the name, and PAN, of a company which had admittedly ceased to exist upon amalgamation. The said decision in Vedanta Limited (supra) was therefore, held to be distinguishable.

The Hon. Court held that Respondent No.1 has committed a jurisdictional error by issuing notices and passing the Order of Assessment in the name of a non-existent entity. It was no longer res integra that proceedings undertaken in the name of a non-existent entity are void. The Hon. Court relied on the case of J. M. Mhatre Infra Pvt. Ltd. (Erstwhile J M Mhatre, Partnership firm) vs. UOI [WPL 16514 OF 2023 decided on 16.12.2025] and Paras Defence and Space Technologies Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax 15(1)(1) and Others [Writ Petition No.4934 of 2022 decided on 27th January 2026].

Thus, the impugned notices issued under Section 142(1), the Show Cause Notice issued on 01.03.2024, the impugned Order of Assessment passed under Section 143(3) read with Section 144B dated 21.03.2024, and the consequential notice issued raising a demand under Section 156, as well as the penalty notice issued under Section 274 read with Section 270A, all being in the name of a non-existent entity [i.e. JSW Vallabh Tinplate], were held to be void and bad in law.

Stay Application – Pendency of Appeal before CIT(A) – Addition made based on statement recorded of third party which was retracted – Assessee salaried employee – unconditional stay granted and attachment on bank account lifted.

1. Hoshang Jamshed Mohta vs. Income Tax Officer Ward 42(2)(3) & others

[Writ Petition (L) no. 4937 of 2026 dated 23/2/2026 BOMBAY HIGH COURT) A. Y. 2022-23 :

Stay Application – Pendency of Appeal before CIT(A) – Addition made based on statement recorded of third party which was retracted – Assessee salaried employee – unconditional stay granted and attachment on bank account lifted.

During the year under consideration, the Petitioner sold ancestral land admeasuring 4,775 sq. mtrs. in Vesu, Surat, Gujarat to Bhavya Developers (a partnership firm) on 18th October, 2021 for a consideration of ₹10 Crores. This was done by a Registered Conveyance Deed, on which the requisite stamp duty on the value of ₹10 Crores was also paid.

The Petitioner invested a part of the sale consideration in a residential property and purchased a Flat in Mumbai on 20th December, 2021 from Keystone Realtors Pvt. Ltd. for ₹5,27,00,000. The Petitioner claimed deduction of ₹5,03,06,880/- under Section 54F of the Act, and offered the balance to tax as Long Term Capital Gains on the sale of land.

During the course of the scrutiny assessment proceedings, Respondent No.3 issued notice under Section 142 (1) of the Act, seeking details on 7 issues, which included a working of capital gains. It was stated that during the course of a search under Section 132 on 3rd December, 2021 on M/s. Sumangal Safe Deposit Vault LLP and a group key member, Mahendra Champaklal Mehta, certain incriminating documents and material were found. It was, therefore, alleged that the Petitioner had sold one immovable property for a consideration of ₹54,02,80,000/- and received ₹44,02,80,000/- in cash. This was duly replied to by the Petitioner.

Finally, the Assessing Officer passed the Assessment Order under Section 143(3) of the Act, not only denying the Petitioner’s deduction of capital gains under Section 54F, but also adding ₹44.02 Crores to his income under Section 69A of the Act.

Being aggrieved by this Order, the Petitioner preferred an Appeal before the CIT(A), which was pending. The Stay Application filed by the Petitioner had been dismissed by the Assessing Officer, and an attachment had also been levied on the petitioner’s bank account.

The Petitioner approached the Hon. Court seeking a stay of the entire demand and release of the attachment on the bank account till the disposal of the appeal filed by the Petitioner before the CIT(A).

The Hon. Court observed that, in the facts of the present case, a case was made out for an unconditional stay. According to the Revenue, the Petitioner had received a total sum of ₹54.02 Crores for the sale of his ancestral property in Surat, out of which ₹44.02 Crores was received in cash. This was primarily based on the statement of Mr. Mahendra C. Mehta made during the search proceedings conducted under Section 132 of the Act. From the record, it was also clear that the aforesaid statement has thereafter been retracted by the said Mahendra C. Mehta vide his Affidavits dated 8th December, 2021 and 11th March, 2024 respectively.

On these facts, and considering that the amount sought to be added to the income of the Petitioner was four times the sale price of the property, the Hon. Court granted unconditional stay of the demand. The Court had noted that the Petitioner stated in his application seeking a stay that he did not have the means to deposit even 20% of the demand, which amounted to approximately to ₹9 Crores. The Petitioner was a salaried employee of Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Co. Ltd., and it would not be possible for him to deposit such a huge amount.

The Hon. Court set aside the impugned Order dated 22nd December, 2025 and directed that, till the Appeal filed by the Petitioner against the Assessment Order is heard by the CIT(A), any demand arising out of the Assessment Order shall remain stayed. The Court also directed that the lien marked on the petitioner’s bank account shall be forthwith lifted, and the Petitioner shall be entitled to operate the bank account as if there was no lien marked.

A. TDS — Certificate for deduction at lower rate u/s 197 — Validity — Certificate is valid for the assessment year specified in the certificate unless cancelled earlier — Effective throughout the assessment year and not prospectively from the date of certificate. B. Assessee in default u/s. 201(1) — Since certificate operates for the entire assessment year the assessee cannot be deemed as assessee in default — Consequent interest u/s. 201(1A) is unjustified.

5. CIT(TDS) vs. National Highways Authority of India: 2026

TMI 338 – MP:

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 06/03/2026:

Ss. 197 and 201 of ITA 1961:

A. TDS — Certificate for deduction at lower rate u/s 197 — Validity — Certificate is valid for the assessment year specified in the certificate unless cancelled earlier — Effective throughout the assessment year and not prospectively from the date of certificate.

B. Assessee in default u/s. 201(1) — Since certificate operates for the entire assessment year the assessee cannot be deemed as assessee in default — Consequent interest u/s. 201(1A) is unjustified.

One SECCL entered into a contract with the assessee for the development of national highways. The assessee made a payment to SECCL after deducting tax at source u/s. 195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at marginal rates mentioned in the order of the Assessing Officer passed u/s. 197 for different assessment years.

The assessee was treated as the person responsible for making payments to the foreign contractor, deducting tax at source and filing a return u/s. 206 of the Act. On verification, it was noticed that the assessee had made payment of a contract worth of ₹19,61,36,514/- to the deductee company from 01/04/2008 to 30/06/2008 without proper deduction of tax at source. Upon issuance of notice, the assessee filed an explanation that the payments were made with a lower deduction of tax at source because of the order issued u/s. 195/197 by their Assessing Officer on 30/06/2008 for the F.Y. 2008-09.

The Assessing Officer opined that the payments were made by the assessee for a sum of ₹19,61,36,513/- for the period from 10/04/2008 to 24/06/2008, when no certificate for non-deduction of tax at source was in force, meaning thereby, at the time of making such payment or crediting such payment, there was no certificate. The certificate dated 30/06/2008 came into effect from the date of its issuance. Therefore, the period prior to 30/06/2008 suffered a lower deduction of tax at source than the rate prescribed under the Act. The Assessing Officer, passed an order dated 04/03/2011, assessed ₹31,03,54,504/- as total default of TDS and imposed the interest and directed for initiation of proceedings for penalty, in total of ₹41,89,78,580/-.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee. The Tribunal allowed the appeal and held that the assessee was not an assessee in default as contemplated u/s. 201 of the Act.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court admitted the appeal filed by the Department on the following substantial questions of law:-

“1. Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the ITAT was justified in law inholding that the assessee could not be held to be assessee in default u/s 201(1)? and 201(1A) of the Act and thereby granting the relief?

2. Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the ITAT was justified in law in deleting the interest levied u/s 201(1A) of the Act, while failing to appreciate that the deductor cannot consider the assessment status of the deductee unless and until a certificate u/s 197 of the Act is granted by the Assessing Officer?”

The High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) It is clear from the language of Section 197 that if the Assessing Officer is satisfied that the total income of the recipient justifies the deduction of income tax at any lower rate or no deduction of income tax, as the case may be, the Assessing Officer shall on an application made by the assessee in his behalf, give him such certificate as may be appropriate. Under Sub-section (2), where any such certificate is given, the person responsible for paying the income tax shall deduct the income tax at the rate specified in such certificate unless the same is cancelled by the Assessing Officer throughout the assessment year. As per sub-rule (2) of Rule 28AA, the certificate shall be valid for the assessment year to be specified in the certificate, unless it is cancelled at any time before the expiry of the specified period. The assessment in income tax is always for the entire assessment year. Every provision of the Income Tax Act is liable to be applied for a particular assessment year. Even the tax liabilities are fixed on the assessee for the entire assessment year.

ii) As per the proviso to Section 201, any person, including Principal Officer or Company, shall not be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax, if he furnishes a certificate to this effect from the accountant in such form. In view of the above, the question of law No.1 is answered against the revenue that the respondent cannot be held as an assessee in default u/s. 201 and Section 201(1A).

iii) And so far as the question of law No.2 is concerned, the ITAT was justified in deleting the interest levied u/s. 201(1A) of the Act because the assessee had certificate u/s. 197 for an entire assessment year.”

A. Reassessment — Income escaping assessment — Audit Objections — Relevant details submitted and on record before the AO during original assessment — It amounts to review of assessment — Re-considering of same material to arrive at different conclusion cannot be permitted — Re-opening of assessment bad-in-law. B. Reassessment — Time limit for issuance of notice for A. Y. 2016-17 — Time limit of four years from the end of the relevant Assessment Year applicable prior to 01/04/2021 — Notice u/s. 148 issued on 31/03/2023 — Beyond a period of four years — First proviso to section 149 — No notice could have been issued under the pre-amended provisions — Notice and subsequent proceedings barred by limitation.

4. Sapphire Foods India Ltd. vs. ACIT:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 506 (Del.):

A.Y.: 2016-17: Date of order 16/02/2026:

Ss. 147, 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961:

A. Reassessment — Income escaping assessment — Audit Objections — Relevant details submitted and on record before the AO during original assessment — It amounts to review of assessment — Re-considering of same material to arrive at different conclusion cannot be permitted — Re-opening of assessment bad-in-law.

B. Reassessment — Time limit for issuance of notice for A. Y. 2016-17 — Time limit of four years from the end of the relevant Assessment Year applicable prior to 01/04/2021 — Notice u/s. 148 issued on 31/03/2023 — Beyond a period of four years — First proviso to section 149 — No notice could have been issued under the pre-amended provisions — Notice and subsequent proceedings barred by limitation.

The assessee is a company. In the original assessment for AY 2016-17, an addition of ₹24,80,39,169 was made u/s. 56(2)(viib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on account of premium charged in excess of the fair market value of the shares by adopting book value instead of the DCF method adopted by the Assessee. The appeal filed before the CIT(A) was partly allowed and the second appeal before the Tribunal was pending for orders.

Meanwhile, on 22/03/2023, show cause notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued along with scanned copy of the audit objections raised by the local audit party informing that there was information in possession which suggests that income chargeable to tax for A. Y. 2016-17 has escaped assessment and the assessee was called upon to show cause why notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued.

The audit objections provided along with the show cause notice contained two reasons for re-opening of assessment. The first reason being that the total amount of premium was ₹30,23,74,146 and premium disallowed in the original assessment was only ₹24,80,39,16 and the balance premium of ₹5,43,34,977 was not disallowed. Thus, there was escapement of income. The second reason for re-opening of assessment pointed out by the audit party was that there was no justification why huge bonus was paid by the assessee to its MD / shareholders in the first year when the turnover of the company was negligible. The expenses were not allowable as business expense.

The Assessee filed its response. Based on the response filed by the Assessee, the re-opening of assessment on the first issue regarding share premium was dropped. However, as regards the second issue, the conclusion of the audit party was adopted by the Assessing Officer.

The assessee filed petition before the High Court challenging the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) We are of the view that reopening the assessment on the basis of the objections of the Audit Party, shall in the above facts, amount to reviewing the assessment already made, as the relevant material was available with the assessing officer during that assessment. It is necessary to draw a distinction between a case where the assessee failed to provide some material /information during the assessment, which was flagged by the Audit Party, as against a case where all information was provided by the assessee, but was not considered or commented upon by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order, resulting in a subsequent audit objection. The latter cannot be subject matter of reassessment, as it shall have the effect of reconsidering the same material to arrive at a different conclusion, which cannot be permitted. The attempt of the Revenue to now hold that the amounts are chargeable to tax certainly amounts to a change of opinion, which cannot be sustained.

ii) It is trite law that the Revenue can reopen assessments based on audit objections to the effect that the assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year has not been made in accordance with the provisions of the Act. In fact, Clause (ii) to Explanation 1 of Section 148 of the Act, which was incorporated into the Act by virtue of the Finance Act, 2022 empowers the Assessing Officer to issue notice reopening the assessment when audit objections suggests that income has escaped assessment. However, the first proviso to Section 148 states that no notice shall be issued under the provision, unless the Assessing Officer has information with him which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. The question that arises now is whether notice can be issued u/s. 148, notwithstanding the fact that the issue flagged by the Audit Party was subject matter of examination in the assessment proceedings and a final decision in terms of an assessment order. We are of the view that the mere fact that objections were raised by the Audit Party cannot change or expand the nature of the power vested in the Assessing Officer to assess/reassess the income of the assessee to a power to review an already concluded assessment.

iii) It is clear that the audit objection pointing out that there is no justification available in the file as to why the amounts were paid, cannot be said to be ‘information’ for the respondent to initiate reassessment proceedings, when the Assessing Officer was in possession of the information and necessary documents at the time of the assessment proceedings. As such, the impugned action of the respondents is unsustainable.

iv) In the present case, the assessee had made a return of its income on 18/10/2016 for the relevant assessment year and had provided all necessary material for its assessment. As such, the extended period of six years for reopening the assessment would not be available to the Revenue u/s. 147 of the Act as it existed prior to April 1, 2021. The period of limitation is thus, four years from the end of AY 2016-17. It is a matter of record that the notice u/s. 148 has been issued on 31/03/2023, which is beyond the said period of four years. Therefore, in view of the first proviso to Section 149 of the Act, no notice could have been issued u/s. 148, as no such notice could have been issued under the provisions that were in force prior to April 1, 2021. We hold that the notice dated 31/03/2023 and the subsequent proceedings are barred by limitation.

v) We are of the view that the impugned notice and order, both dated 31/03/2023 need to be set aside. The assessment proceedings initiated pursuant to the same also need to be quashed. We order accordingly.”

Provisional attachment of property — Powers u/s. 281B — Power must be exercised cautiously — Before attachment authorities must examine whether assessee is a regular taxpayer — Mere reliance on factors such as bank loans or hypothetical future demand is incorrect — Attachment without objective satisfaction is impermissible.

3. ARL Infratech Limited vs. DCIT:

2026 (3) TMI 495 – Raj.:

A. Ys. 2021-22 to 2026-27: Date of order 06/03/2026:

S. 281B of ITA 1961:

Provisional attachment of property — Powers u/s. 281B — Power must be exercised cautiously — Before attachment authorities must examine whether assessee is a regular taxpayer — Mere reliance on factors such as bank loans or hypothetical future demand is incorrect — Attachment without objective satisfaction is impermissible.

A search was conducted at the premises of the assessee and assessment order was passed and on the basis of the appraisal report, Investigation Wing made an addition of ₹4.40 lakhs. The assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A) which is pending.

The Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for A. Ys. 2021-22, 2022-23 and 2024-25 and on the basis of apprehension that demand of ₹1.30 crores may be created for A. Ys. 2022-23 and 2024-25, a provisional attachment order was passed by the Assessing Officer exercising powers u/s. 281B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 making a provisional attachment of the industrial plot which was owned by the assessee.

The Assessee challenged the said provisional attachment order before the Rajasthan High Court by way of a petition. The Assessee, inter alia, submitted before the High Court that it had paid ₹45.43 crores for the A. Ys. 2021-22 to 2026-27 and that the attachment was contrary to the guidelines laid down by the CBDT vide Circulars and OM dated 29/02/2016 and 31/07/2017. Further, due to the past record of the assessee, there was no basis to conclude that there was a possibility of non-payment of demand.

The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) While Section 281B of the Act of 1961 gives unequivocal power to the authority to put the properties under attachment, the Hon’ble Apex Court has time and again held that such power has to be exercised by taking into consideration all the aspects as noticed in the case of Radha Krishan Industries (supra) and the contentions prescribed in the statute must be strictly fulfilled. Once such provision has to be treated as draconian in nature, in the opinion of this Court, the minimum requirement is to give an opportunity to the concerned assessee to make the payment or part of it as required in the Office Memorandum issued by the CBDT. A presumption cannot be drawn that the assessee would not make the payment. Principles of natural justice to that extent would be inherent as the civil rights are likely to be harmed, if action is taken u/s. 281B of the Act of 1961

ii) Before invoking power u/s. 281B of the Act of 1961, the authorities must examine whether the assessee before it is a person who has been a regular tax payer. Merely because he may have taken loan from the Bank for his business, may not be the only sufficient ground to attach the properties. Such attachment, even if provisional, creates a sense of apprehension and fear in the minds of bankers who are giving loans to the concerned units for their businesses. Their public reputation is seriously hampered. Therefore, invoking of such provision has to be done by exercising great caution and care and so as not to harm the reputation of an honest income tax payer.

iii) Even if a demand is raised, the same can be challenged in appeal and maximum amount to be deposited for settling the remaining demand is 20% of the said demand. In the present case, demand of ₹1,30,11,024/- has been provisionally assessed and as of today even the demand has not been raised. Therefore, issuing of provisional attachment order would be wholly unjustified and would go contrary to the purpose sought to be achieved.

iv) We, therefore, disapprove the approach adopted by the respondents and set aside the order of attachment dated 01/01/2026. However, we direct the petitioner-assessee to deposit 20% of the demand, provisionally assessed, with the authorities within a period of one week.

v) It is made clear that, ultimately, if the demand is found to be unjustified or deserves to be reduced or waived, the amount as directed by us to be deposited, shall be refunded with interest to the assessee.”

Collection and recovery of tax — Company —Recovery from director of the Company — Attachment of the Bank Account of the wife of the Director — Unjustified — S. 179 is applicable to the Director of the Company — Cannot be extended to the wife of the Director of the Company.

2. Manjulaben Mafatlal Shah vs. TRO:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 746 (Bom.):

Date of order 17/02/2026:

Ss. 226 r.w.s. 179 of ITA 1961:

Collection and recovery of tax — Company —Recovery from director of the Company — Attachment of the Bank Account of the wife of the Director — Unjustified — S. 179 is applicable to the Director of the Company — Cannot be extended to the wife of the Director of the Company.

A notice u/s. 226(3) was issued upon the Assessee attaching the bank account of the Assessee in respect of liability of one Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited. The Assessee was the wife of the Director of the said Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited and she had nothing to do with the company. She was neither the Director, nor the Shareholder nor the employee of the said company. In view of the facts, it was the contention of the Assessee that the Department did not have the power to attach the bank account of the Assessee which stood in her sole name.

The Assessee challenged the notice and the action of the Department by way of writ petition filed before the Bombay High Court. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The factual position has not been disputed by the revenue. It is not the case of the revenue that the petitioner was ever a director of the company, and against whom an income tax liability arises.

ii) Once this is the case, the Income Tax Department cannot attach the bank account of the Petitioner, and which stands in her sole name, only on the basis that she is the wife of a Director of Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited. Though the Income Tax Department may probably be able to proceed against the Petitioner’s husband by invoking provisions of Section 179, the same is wholly inapplicable to the Petitioner.”

Assessment — Validity of assessment order — Revised return filed within time — Revised return filed during pendency of scrutiny proceedings based on an audit objection — Assessment order passed based on the original return — CIT (Appeals) annulled the assessment order — Tribunal, proceeding on the erroneous basis that revised return was filed beyond period of limitation, set aside order of CIT (Appeals) and restored matter to the AO — High Court held that where revised return filed is validly filed, the assessment order cannot be passed on basis of the original return — Once a revised return is filed, original return stands obliterated — Assessment order set aside, order of CIT (Appeals) modified, and matter remitted to the AO — AO directed to determine taxable income on the basis of revised return.

1. Tripura State Electricity Corporation Ltd. vs. Principal CIT: (2026) 484 ITR 405 (Tri): 2025 SCC OnLine Tri 552:

A. Y. 2013-14: Date of order 14/08/2025:

Ss. 139(1), (5) and 143(2), (3) of ITA 1961:

Assessment — Validity of assessment order — Revised return filed within time — Revised return filed during pendency of scrutiny proceedings based on an audit objection — Assessment order passed based on the original return — CIT (Appeals) annulled the assessment order — Tribunal, proceeding on the erroneous basis that revised return was filed beyond period of limitation, set aside order of CIT (Appeals) and restored matter to the AO — High Court held that where revised return filed is validly filed, the assessment order cannot be passed on basis of the original return — Once a revised return is filed, original return stands obliterated — Assessment order set aside, order of CIT (Appeals) modified, and matter remitted to the AO — AO directed to determine taxable income on the basis of revised return.

The appellant assessee is the Tripura State Electricity Corporation Ltd. The appellant is engaged in the business of sale and distribution of electricity within the State of Tripura. For the A. Y. 2013-2014, the appellant had filed its return of income-tax on September 26, 2013 disclosing the total income computed at a loss figure of (-) ₹182,05,36,779 as against the loss as per the profit and loss account of (-) ₹13,32,27,00,075. The return of the appellant was taken up for scrutiny under the Computer Assisted Scrutiny Selection (CASS), and accordingly, a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on September 4, 2014 to the appellant, and the details were furnished by the appellant on September 23, 2014.

During the pendency of the said proceedings initiated through the notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act issued on September 4, 2014, the appellant, on February 23, 2015, filed a revised return based on an audit objection by the Comptroller and Auditor General. In the meantime, due to a change in the incumbent in the office of the assessing authority, a notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act was issued on June 8, 2015. Subsequent notices were also issued on August 4, 2015 and October 11, 2016. Thereafter, after issuing a show-cause notice on February 26, 2016, the Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax, Agartala Circle, Agartala completed the assessment on March 18, 2016 by disallowing a deduction of ₹40,36,51,685 u/s. 40(a)(ia), 68 and 37 of the Act and determining the income at ₹1,41,68,85,094.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. The CIT (Appeals) held as under:

i) The Assessing Officer did not address the filing of the revised return; Though a revised return was filed on February 23, 2015 after the issuance of the notice dated September 4, 2014 under section 143(2) of the Act, and since the revised return was filed within time, the original return did not survive and stood substituted by the revised return; Therefore, it was not open for the Assessing Officer to advert to the original return. Certain decisions of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana, Karnataka and Gujarat were referred to by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). He held that the Assessing Officer was required to issue a notice u/s. 143(2) on the revised return, and since the assessment order was completely silent about the revised return filed on February 23, 2015, the assessment order could not be sustained and was annulled.

ii) U/s. 139(5) of the Act, revised return may be filed if the assessee discovers any omission or any wrong statement in the return filed under section 139(1) or in response to the notice issued under section 142(1) of the Act; Such revised return must be filed before expiry of one year from the end of the relevant assessment year or before the completion of assessment, whichever is earlier. In the instant case, the revised return could have been filed by March 31, 2016; it was however filed within time on February 23, 2015; Since the revised return was filed due to comments made by the Comptroller and Auditor General, there was sufficient bona fide reason for filing of the revised return. It was also noted by the appellate authority that, in the report of the Assessing Officer, it was stated that there was no violation of provisions of law while filing the revised return.

iii) Once a revised return has been validly filed, an assessment order cannot be passed on the basis of the notice issued u/s. 143(2) on the original return. It was not open for the Assessing Officer to refer to the original return or the statements filed along with the it, and only the revised return has to be taken into account for the purpose of making the assessment.”

In the appeal filed by the Revenue before the Tribunal, the Department contended that the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) could not have annulled the assessment order because the assessee failed to bring to the knowledge of the Assessing Officer during the continuation of the proceeding under section 143(2) on the original return, that the assessee filed a revised return subsequent to the receiving of notice u/s. 143(2) on the original return, and that too at the appellate stage.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held that, in the cases cited by the assessee, it was observed that when a revised return is filed, the original return stands obliterated, and the determination of the taxable income is to be made on the basis of the revised return; but in those cases it was not held that issuance of notice under section 143(2) on the revised return was mandatory, failing which the entire assessment proceedings would be vitiated.

The Tribunal erroneously noted that the revised return had been filed on March 17, 2016 (though it had been filed on February 23, 2015), and that this was not known to the Assessing Officer, as the return had been filed at the receipt counter, making it impossible for the Assessing Officer to take cognizance of such a fact in such a short period of time.

It, therefore, held that it was only an irregularity and not an illegality, and that it could have been cured by the first appellate authority by calling a remand report from the Assessing Officer after redetermination of the income on the basis of the revised return; however, the assessment order could not be declared as null and void.

It therefore set aside the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and restored the matter to the file of the Assessing Officer, and directed him to redetermine the taxable income of the assessee after taking the details from the revised return of income.

On appeal by the assessee, the Tripura High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration:

“i) “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the learned Tribunal was justified and correct in law in holding that non-issuance and/or non-service of notice u/s. 143(2) in respect of a valid return furnished u/s. 139(5) during the continuance of a scrutiny assessment proceeding u/s. 143(3) was a mere irregularity and not an illegality, and therefore, in not annulling the assessment order u/s. 143(3)?

ii) Whether the learned Tribunal acted perversely in not setting aside the order of the assessing authority in spite of noticing that the appellant had filed a revised return and accepting the legal position that such revised return will obliterate the original return ?”

The High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) Once the revised return is filed, it is well settled that the original return stands obliterated as rightly held by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) in his order dated July 24, 2018 placing reliance on the judgments in CIT vs. Rana Polycot Ltd., [(2012) 347 ITR 466 (P&H); 2011 SCC OnLine P&H 17591.] and Beco Engineering Co. Ltd. v. CIT, [(1984) 148 ITR 478 (P&H); 1984 SCC OnLine P&H 800.] , etc. So the Assessing Officer can only take into account the revised return for the purpose of making assessment, and he cannot act upon the original return which stood obliterated.

ii) For some reason in the instant case, the Assessing Officer took no notice of the revised return, and continued the proceedings on the basis of the original return and passed an assessment order on March 18, 2016. This is a clear illegality vitiating his order.

iii) The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) noted the correct legal position as set out above, and also gave a finding of fact that there was a bona fide mistake that impelled the assessee to file the revised return on February 23, 2015, i.e., it was necessitated due to comments given by the Comptroller and Auditor General. It also noted that once a valid revised return is filed, the Assessing Officer has to take cognizance of the same, and he had to issue notice u/s. 143(2) on the revised return. The assessment order was totally silent about the revised return which disclosed a loss of (-) ₹194,75,04,007, and that loss had not been considered in the final computation of income. He, therefore, rightly held that the assessment proceeding was vitiated.

iv) Consequently, he ought to have remitted the matter back to the Assessing Officer after setting aside the assessment order passed on March 18, 2016, and directed him to pass an assessment order after taking into consideration the revised return. Instead he merely annulled the assessing authority’s order.

v) In the order passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, there is a clear error in noting that the revised return was filed on March 17, 2016, just a day prior to the passing of the order on March 18, 2016. The revised return had been filed on February 23, 2015 itself, and the Tribunal, had it noted the correct date of filing of the revised return, because there was at least a one year gap between the filing of the revised return and the passing of the assessment order, would not have come to the conclusion that it was impossible for the Assessing Officer to take cognizance of the revised return. This is because a year’s time is good enough for the Assessing Officer to take note of the revised return, ignore the original return, and then pass the assessment order on the basis of the revised return.

vi) Its view that the step taken at the end by the assessee would frustrate the whole assessment machinery is clearly perverse because once the assessee has a right to file a revised return, and such a revised return was filed within time, the Assessing Officer has no choice, but to act on the revised return only because the original return stood obliterated. Once the statute permits the filing of the revised return by giving such a right to the assessee, the Income-tax Department cannot question the wisdom of Parliament in providing such a right to the assessee, and the Tribunal cannot hold that filing of the revised return would frustrate the assessment machinery.

vii) Its view that it is only an irregularity and not an illegality, is also unsustainable having regard to the judgments cited in the decision of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and also more particularly the judgment of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Mahendra Mills, [(2000) 243 ITR 56 (SC); (2000) 3 SCC 615; 2000 SCC OnLine SC 577.] and other connected matters confirming the judgment in Chief CIT (Administration) vs. Machine Tool Corporation of India Ltd., [(1993) 201 ITR 101 (Karn); 1992 SCC OnLine Kar 202.]

viii) In our view, the Assessing Officer committed a clear illegality by ignoring the revised return, and the Tribunal got misled by noting the date of filing of the revised return incorrectly, and came to the perverse conclusion that it would only be an irregularity, and not an illegality.

ix) Therefore, the Tribunal ought to have modified the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) by setting aside the order of the assessing authority and remitted the matter back to the Assessing Officer for redetermining the taxable income of the appellant after taking the details from the revised return of income. Instead, it set aside the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), but restored the matter to the file of the Assessing Officer without setting aside the assessment order passed on March 18, 2016. This is a clear error of law.

x) Therefore, the second substantial question of law framed by us is held in favour of the appellant, and so we modify the decision of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in the following manner:

            (a) The assessment order dated March 18, 2016 is set aside;

            (b) The order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is modified, and the matter is remitted to the Assessing Officer to redetermine the taxable income of the assessee after taking the details from the revised return of income, and this exercise should be carried out after providing due opportunity of hearing to the assessee.

xi) Having regard to this view taken by us, it is not necessary to decide the first substantial question of law, but we hold that the reference to section 139 in sub-section (1) of section 143 would include a revised return filed under sub-section (5) of section 139 also, and section 143 cannot be applied only to original returns, and should be applied to revised returns too. The appeal is partly allowed as above.

Articles 13 and 24(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA – Entities interposed to take benefit under DTAA were not entitled to qualify for benefit under capital gains article. Accordingly, the gains arising from alienation of shares acquired before 01 April 2017 were taxable in India.

[2026] 183 taxmann.com 125 (Delhi – Trib.)

Hareon Solar Singapore (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT (International Taxation)

IT APPEAL NOS. 2226 (DELHI) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2020-21

Dated: 30 January 2026

Articles 13 and 24(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA – Entities interposed to take benefit under DTAA were not entitled to qualify for benefit under capital gains article. Accordingly, the gains arising from alienation of shares acquired before 01 April 2017 were taxable in India.

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of Singapore, was incorporated in 2015. The Assessee was a subsidiary of Hareon Hong Kong, which, in turn, was owned by Hareon China. The Singapore tax authorities had granted a tax residency certificate (“TRC”) to the Assessee. The Assessee was incorporated pursuant to a joint venture (“JV”) between Hareon China and third-party entities from India. As part of the JV commitment, investment in Indian Company was made through Hareon Singapore. The Assessee made investments in the form of equity and compulsorily convertible debentures (“CCD”) into an Indian Company.

The Indian Company had received a contract to set up a power generation plant. Hareon China, one of the leading solar PV module manufacturers, agreed to supply PV Modules to the Indian Company.

The Assessee sold the shares and CCDs of an Indian entity and claimed that, under Article 13 of the India-Singapore DTAA, income was taxable only in Singapore.

The AO observed that the Assessee had no employees on its rolls and incurred no expenditure on operating or utility costs, except for payments to consultants. The majority of the board of directors were located outside of Singapore. Hence, control and management of the Assessee was not in Singapore. Even the banking facilities were managed by directors outside of Singapore. Hence, the AO was of the view that the Assessee was a conduit or shell entity, interposed with the primary motive of obtaining a tax benefit that would not have been available if the investment had been made from China or Hong Kong. Accordingly, the AO invoked Article 24A (which is the principal purpose test limitation in the treaty) and denied the claim of treaty benefits. The DRP upheld the order of the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The entity operated as an investment entity with investments in an Indian Company and two other entities (India and Singapore). The investments were funded by the parent company.

The majority of expenses pertained to fair value losses or impairments of investments. Other operating expenditure consisted of (i) forex loss and (ii) professional charges paid to consultants. No employee costs, director’s salary, or other operating expenses were incurred in Singapore.

The majority of directors present at the meeting to decide on an investment in an Indian Company were based outside Singapore. While Assessee claimed director’s meeting held in Singapore to make investment decisions, evidence such as travel tickets, passports, or immigration information was not produced to prove directors’ presence in Singapore.

The JV agreement was signed by one of the directors of the Assessee, who was a Vice President of Hareon China, and his address for communication was listed as USA. The KYC submitted to the bank was signed by the US director, and directors outside Singapore controlled the bank’s facilities.

Hareon China, having contracted to supply PV modules to an Indian Company, decided to invest in the same company through Hareon Singapore. Hence, the sole purpose of investment from Singapore was to
obtain a tax benefit that would otherwise not be available if the investment were made from China or Hong Kong.

The TRC could not be considered as conclusive evidence without considering surrounding circumstances, and in the instant case, such circumstances were against the Assessee.

Based on the above, the ITAT held that the Assessee was not entitled to benefit of Article 13 and hence, gains arising to the Assessee from alienation of shares and CCDs were taxable in India.

Author’s Note – As the hearing of this case was concluded much before Apex Court pronouncement in Tiger Global [2026] 182 taxmann.com 375 (SC), the ITAT had merely placed on the record the fact that the Tiger Global ruling was delivered.

Articles 13 and 24(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA – On facts, in absence of any primary motive of tax avoidance, gains from alienation of shares acquired before 01 April 2017 were taxable only in Singapore

1.[2025] 180 taxmann.com 241 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Fullerton Financial Holdings Pte. Ltd. vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

IT APPEAL NOS. 1137 (MUM) OF 2025

A.Y.: 2022-23 Dated: 28 October 2025

Articles 13 and 24(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA – On facts, in absence of any primary motive of tax avoidance, gains from alienation of shares acquired before 01 April 2017 were taxable only in Singapore

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of Singapore, was incorporated in 2003. The Assessee was an indirect subsidiary of Temasek Holdings Private Limited, an entity owned by the Singapore Government through its Minister of Finance. The Singapore tax authorities had granted a tax residency certificate (“TRC”) and expressed their satisfaction with the Assessee’s operating expenditure. The Assessee operated as an investment company for the group in the financial sector and had investments across Asia. The Assessee, along with its group entity, had investments in India. The Assessee sold its stake in Indian company shares, which were acquired before 1 April 2017 to a Japanese entity for ₹681.32 Crores and it claimed that the gains arising from sale of shares of Indian company were taxable only in Singapore under Article 13(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA.

The AO observed that the Assessee had no employees on its rolls, and the group entities made all management decisions relating to the investment. A major portion of expenses pertained to management charges paid to group entities. Hence, the AO was of the view that the Assessee was a conduit or shell entity with the primary motive of obtaining tax benefit. Accordingly, the AO invoked Article 24A of India-Singapore DTAA and denied treaty benefits. The DRP upheld the order of the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

The examination of the Principal Purpose Test (“PPT”) requires consideration of various factors, such as the commercial rationale, the government framework, economic substance, and transaction’s functional controls.

A ‘conduit company’ means an intermediary that would not have real economic or commercial substance of its own. In the case of the Assessee, it acted as an investment and portfolio company for Temasek Holdings, which was owned by the Singapore Government. Hence, it could not be characterised as a conduit or pass-through entity.

From the functioning of the board of the Assessee, it was evident that all the activities relating to the affairs of the Assessee were managed and controlled from Singapore.

The fact that management of affairs was carried out through group entities could not, by itself, justify ignoring the expenditure test. The Assessee satisfied the S$ 200,000 expenditure-on operations test, and which was substantiated by a confirmation from the Singapore Revenue Authorities and a certificate issued by statutory auditors. Based on management control and expenditure tests, it was evident that the Assessee was not a shell or conduit entity.

The investment of the Assessee in the Indian entity was a long-term strategic investment, and the sale was a commercial realisation of that investment.

The Assessee had demonstrable substance and an independent economic presence in Singapore, and the investment was aligned with the regional expansion objective and not tax-motivated. Further, the ultimate beneficial owner of the investment was the Government of Singapore; hence, it cannot be said that obtaining benefit was the principal purpose of the transaction.

Based on the above, the ITAT held that in terms of Article 13(4A) of India-Singapore DTAA, gains arising from alienation of shares were chargeable to tax only in Singapore.

Author’s Note – The case was decided before the Apex Court ruling in the case of Tiger Global [2026] 182 taxmann.com 375 (SC).

Sec. 54F – Capital gains exemption – Investment in residential plot for construction – Possession not handed over and construction not commenced within prescribed period due to reasons beyond assessee’s control – Subsequent surrender of plot and reinvestment in new residential property – Deduction allowable considering beneficial nature of provision.

5. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 246 (Delhi- Trib.)

Rajni Kumar vs. ITO

A.Y.: 2017-18

DATE: 17.09.2025

Sec. 54F – Capital gains exemption – Investment in residential plot for construction – Possession not handed over and construction not commenced within prescribed period due to reasons beyond assessee’s control – Subsequent surrender of plot and reinvestment in new residential property – Deduction allowable considering beneficial nature of provision.

FACTS

The assessee sold an immovable property and declared long-term capital gains, against which a deduction under section 54F was claimed on the basis of an investment made in a residential plot intended for construction of a house. The assessee had made substantial payments towards the purchase of the plot within the prescribed period.

However, possession of the plot was not handed over by the builder, and consequently, the assessee could not commence construction within the stipulated period. The delay was attributed to factors such as prolonged disputes relating to the Dwarka Expressway project, intervention by Government authorities, regulatory restrictions, and issues concerning the builder. Due to continued non-delivery of possession, the assessee eventually surrendered the allotment, received refund of the investment, and thereafter purchased another residential property.

The Assessing Officer denied the deduction under section 54F on the ground that no residential house was constructed within the prescribed time and that possession of the plot was not obtained. The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the disallowance.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee had invested the entire sale consideration in the purchase of a residential plot with the bona fide intention of constructing a residential house and had complied with the investment requirement within the prescribed time.

It was noted that the failure to obtain possession of the plot and consequent inability to commence construction was due to circumstances beyond the control of the assessee, including governmental and regulatory delays as well as defaults on the part of the builder.

The Tribunal held that section 54F is a beneficial provision intended to promote investment in residential housing and, therefore, deserves liberal interpretation. It emphasized that where the assessee has demonstrated a clear intention and has substantially complied with the requirement of investment, the exemption cannot be denied merely because construction was not completed within the stipulated period due to factors beyond the assessee’s control.

The Tribunal further noted that the assessee had ultimately surrendered the plot and reinvested the amount in another residential property, thereby reinforcing the bona fide intention to acquire a residential house.

Relying on judicial precedents, it was held that non-completion of construction or delay in possession, when not attributable to the assessee, does notdisentitle the assessee from claiming exemption under section 54F. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to deduction under section 54F and allowed the appeal.

Sec. 68 r.w.s. 69C – Bogus exports – Additions based solely on DRI show-cause notice without independent inquiry – No corroborative evidence brought on record – Deletion by CIT(A) justified – Subsequent Customs adjudication having material bearing admitted as additional evidence – Matter remanded for de novo adjudication

4. [2025] 128 ITR(T) 572 (Chandigarh – Trib.)

ITO vs. A.K. Exports

A.Y.: 2002-03, 2005-06, 2006-07 AND 2007-08 DATE: 01.07.2025

Sec. 68 r.w.s. 69C – Bogus exports – Additions based solely on DRI show-cause notice without independent inquiry – No corroborative evidence brought on record – Deletion by CIT(A) justified – Subsequent Customs adjudication having material bearing admitted as additional evidence – Matter remanded for de novo adjudication

FACTS

A search action was conducted in the case of the assessee group by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), pursuant to which show-cause notices were issued alleging that the assessee
and its group concerns were not engaged in genuine manufacturing activities and had undertaken bogus export transactions to fraudulently claim export incentives such as DEPB and duty drawback.

Relying solely on such show-cause notices, the Assessing Officer concluded that the assessee had obtained bogus purchase bills, exported inferior quality goods at inflated prices to non-existent foreign entities, and routed unaccounted money back into India in the guise of export proceeds. Accordingly, foreign remittances were treated as unexplained cash credits under section 68, and further additions were made towards estimated expenditure under section 69C.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) observed that no further action had been taken by the DRI on the show-cause notices even after a considerable lapse of time, and that the Assessing Officer had failed to carry out any independent investigation or bring any corroborative material on record. It was further noted that the exports were supported by documentary evidence, including letters of credit and customs records. Accordingly, the additions made under sections 68 and 69C were deleted.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal before the Tribunal. During the course of hearing, the revenue sought to place on record a subsequent order passed by the Principal Commissioner of Customs (Import) dated 06.02.2024 in the case of the assessee group, containing detailed findings, including disallowance of export incentives and imposition of penalties.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the entire basis of the impugned assessments was the show-cause notices issued by the DRI, and that the Assessing Officer had made additions merely based on allegations contained therein without conducting any independent inquiry or bringing any corroborative evidence on record. It reiterated the settled legal position that additions cannot be sustained based on presumptions, conjectures, or unverified allegations.

The Tribunal noted that the Commissioner (Appeals) had rightly deleted the additions on the ground that no independent investigation was carried out by the Assessing Officer and that the allegations contained in the show-cause notices had not been substantiated through any judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings.

However, the Tribunal further observed that the subsequent adjudication order passed by the Principal Commissioner of Customs (Import), which had culminated from the very same show-cause notices, contained detailed findings and would have a material bearing on the assessment of the assessee.

Invoking Rule 29 of the Income-tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1963, the Tribunal held that the said order constituted additional evidence which could not have been produced earlier despite due diligence, and that its admission was necessary for substantial cause.

Accordingly, the additional evidence was admitted, and the matter was restored to the file of the Commissioner (Appeals) for de novo adjudication in light of the said adjudication order. All issues were kept open for fresh consideration. In the result, the appeals were allowed for statistical purposes.

Where the assessee-trust purchased land out of trust funds originally contributed by the trustees, but the sale deeds were mistakenly registered in the names of the trustees, and the facts showed that the property was used exclusively for running the school without any benefit accruing to the trustees, section 13(1)(c) was not applicable.

3. (2026) 184 taxmann.com 22 (Chennai Trib)

ACIT vs. Everwin Educational & Charitable Trust

A.Y.: 2016-17 Date of Order: 24.02.2026

Section : 13(1)(c), 13(2)(g)

Where the assessee-trust purchased land out of trust funds originally contributed by the trustees, but the sale deeds were mistakenly registered in the names of the trustees, and the facts showed that the property was used exclusively for running the school without any benefit accruing to the trustees, section 13(1)(c) was not applicable.

FACTS

The assessee was a public charitable trust holding registration under section 12A/12AB. For AY 2016-17, it filed the return of income after claiming exemption under section 11. During the year, the trustees had settled two schools, which they were operating in their individual capacity since 1992, along with assets, liabilities and cash balances of about Rs. 19.49 crores, upon the assessee-trust with effect from 1.4.2015. Out of these funds, the trust purchased land parcels worth about Rs. 14.70 crores for establishing a school; however, due to a misunderstanding and bona fide omission, the sale deeds were executed in the names of the trustees without there being any specific mention that they were acting in their fiduciary capacity as trustees of the assessee trust. The trust recorded the land as its asset in its books, the trustees did not disclose the same in their personal balance sheets, and the trust constructed and operated the school thereon after obtaining all statutory approvals in its own name.

The case of the assessee was selected for regular scrutiny, which was completed under section 143(3), accepting the returned income. In exercise of the revisionary power under section 263, CIT(E) set aside the assessment order, holding that the acquisition of the properties in the names of the trustees using the trust funds violated provisions of Section 13(1)(c). Upon receipt of the order under section 263, the AO made an addition of Rs.14.70 crores under section 13(1)(c) read with section 13(2)(g), after concluding that trustees had benefited by registering the land in their own names without spending from their accounts.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). During the pendency of the appeal, the assessee-trust executed a registered rectification deed whereby the original purchase deed was rectified and the name of the purchaser was shown as the assessee-trust instead of the trustees. The property was also mutated in the name of the trust, and encumbrance certificate and property tax were in the name of the trust. Noting this, the CIT(A) held that section 13(1)(c) was wrongly invoked by the AO and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the revenue filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) In order to invoke the provisions of section 13(1)(c), it is required to be shown that there was use or application of income or property for the benefit of a specified person. There ought to be some accompanying enjoyment, diversion or personal advantage to the specified person.

(b) The contemporaneous evidence produced by the assessee, the conduct of the assessee trust and the trustees, more particularly having regard to the fact that the funds to acquire the property were provided by the trustees in the first place, lent credence to the assessee’s plea that the acquisition of the land was not meant to benefit the trustees in their individual capacity.

(c) It was incorrect for the AO to assume that registration in trustees’ names automatically resulted in benefit to them when the facts and circumstances placed on record showed the contrary, that the property beneficially belonged to the assessee-trust and was all along enjoyed and used by the assessee-trust, and that the individual trustees did not derive any benefit therefrom. There was no iota of evidence to show that the assessee- trust had used or applied any income or property of the trust for the personal benefit of the trustees.

Following the decision of the Tribunal in DDIT vs. A.R. Rahman Foundation [2015] 61 taxmann.com 130 (Chennai-Trib), the Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) that section 13(1)(c) was not applicable, and dismissed all the grounds raised by the revenue.

Where the assessee-society invested in shares of a private limited company and none of its office bearers individually held or controlled substantial interest in the said company, section 13(2)(e) was not applicable in respect of such investment.

2. (2026) 183 taxmann.com 409 (Del Trib)

Jan Kalyan Samiti vs. ITO

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of Order: 06.02.2026

Section: 13(2)(e)

Where the assessee-society invested in shares of a private limited company and none of its office bearers individually held or controlled substantial interest in the said company, section 13(2)(e) was not applicable in respect of such investment.

FACTS

The assessee-society was granted registration under section 12AA in 2004. It filed its return of income for AY 2015-16, declaring Nil income. During the year under consideration, it had purchased 115,000 shares of M/s. RFCPL at Rs.60 per share for an aggregate consideration of Rs.69,00,000. Its case was selected for limited scrutiny under CASS on the grounds that it had undertaken transactions with specified persons. Upon perusal of the list of shareholders of RFCPL produced under section 133(6), the AO contended that Mr. SA (President of the society) held 25.84% voting power in RFCPL through SA(HUF) (11.66%) and the assessee-society (14.18%). He further observed that Mr. SA was a director in another private limited company, which held 17.10% shares in RFCPL. He also contended that another member of the society, Mr. RKM also held 17.10% in RFCPL through a private limited company. Accordingly, the AO held that Mr. SA and Mr. RKM through other entities, controlled 37.84% in RFCPL, from whom the assessee-society had purchased shares for more than the market value, and therefore, the whole of the investment of Rs.69,00,000 was hit by section 13(2)(e).

On appeal, CIT(A) sustained the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) As per the list of shareholders in RFCPL, Mr. SA, as an individual, was not a shareholder. However, he held shares to the extent of 11.66% as a Karta of the HUF. Further, the assessee-society itself held shares of 14.18%. As per the provisions of the Income tax Act, 1961, the assessee-society and the HUF were separate persons.

(b) In order to apply section 13(2)(e), there should be a transaction between the trust or society and a person referred to under section 13(3). In the facts of the case, the persons referred under section 13(3) were the seven office bearers, from whom the assessee should have directly purchased the shares or through the entities wherein the said office bearers controlled or held more than 20% of the voting power or had a substantial interest in such concerns. The AO misunderstood the provision when he observed that the assessee-society held 14.18% and combined that with SA (HUF) who is a separate entity having no interest in the assessee-society, and another private limited company in which one of the office bearer was a director.

(c) In the facts of the case, none of the office bearers directly held more than 20% of shares or had a substantial interest in RFCPL.

Therefore, following the decision of Navajbhai Ratan Tata Trust vs. ADIT, (2022) 140 taxmann.com 157 (Mum Trib), the Tribunal held that section 13(2)(e) was not applicable to the facts of the case and directed the AO to allow the claim of the assessee.

Authors note: “The Tribunal has not considered / examined the applicability of section 13(1)(d) which essentially disallows investment in shares of any company (barring few exceptions) by a tax-exempt charity.”

Software expenses such as annual maintenance charges, database support fees and licence renewal costs, being in the nature of subscriptions for a fixed period and conferring benefits limited to that period, were held to be revenue in nature and allowable as a deduction under section 37(1).

1. (2026) 183 taxmann.com 396 (Mum Trib)

ACIT vs. BNP Paribas India Solutions (P.) Ltd.

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order : 09.02.2026

Section: 37(1)

Software expenses such as annual maintenance charges, database support fees and licence renewal costs, being in the nature of subscriptions for a fixed period and conferring benefits limited to that period, were held to be revenue in nature and allowable as a deduction under section 37(1).

FACTS

The assessee was registered under the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) Scheme and operated as a captive service provider for “B” Group. It filed its return of income, inter alia, debiting software expenditure amounting to Rs. 28,24,19,000 in its profit and loss account. During scrutiny proceedings, AO held that the expenses were capital in nature and therefore, allowed deduction of depreciation only to the extent of 60%.

Upon appeal, CIT(A) allowed the claim of the assessee, treating the software expenses as revenue in nature.

Aggrieved, the revenue filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) On the basis of details of expenditure incurred by the assessee, it was evident that all the expenses were on account of annual maintenance charge, fees for database support, licence renewal cost, etc. They were all “period costs” and “recurring” in nature.

(b) The assessee had incurred these expenses not for acquiring any right in the software, but were towards subscription for a fixed period, giving annual benefits only and no enduring benefits accrued to the assessee by incurring these period costs. Further, no asset or intellectual property right had come into existence, and there was no transfer of ownership to the assessee in these software by incurring such expenses.

Following a number of decisions of the ITAT and High Courts, the Tribunal held that the software expenses claimed by the assessee were revenue expenses and, therefore, deductible under the provisions of section 37(1).

Accordingly, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the revenue.

Section 12AB – Bombay High Court Holds Irrevocability Clause Not A Precondition For Registration

A writ petition was instituted by the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) jointly with the Chamber of Tax Consultants (CTC) and several public charitable trusts, challenging orders passed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) rejecting applications for renewal of registration under section 12AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, on the ground of absence of an irrevocable clause or a dissolution clause in the trust deed.

The Bombay High Court, in Writ Petition (L) No. 7587 of 2026 (order dated 9 March 2026), has rendered a significant ruling, allowing the petition, and granting relief to many trusts, particularly old and established ones, which did not have such clauses.

BACKGROUND AND CONTROVERSY

Pursuant to the revamped registration regime effective from 1 April 2021, the trusts had applied for renewal of registration under section 12AB by filing Form 10AB. The applications were rejected on the following grounds:

  •  the trust deeds did not contain an express clause declaring the trust to be “irrevocable” or providing for dissolution; and
  • the applicants had answered “Yes” to the query in Form 10AB regarding existence of irrevocable clause in the trust deed, which was treated as furnishing “false or incorrect information” and consequently regarded as a “specified violation”.

The challenge before the Court was not merely to address individual rejection orders, but to the approach adopted by the Department, particularly in Mumbai, which had the potential to affect a large number of charitable institutions.

STATUTORY SCHEME

Section 12AB of the Act empowers the Commissioner to grant or refuse registration upon satisfaction regarding:

  1.  the objects of the trust or institution;
  2. the genuineness of its activities; and
  3. compliance with requirements of other laws material for the purpose of achieving its objects.

The provision does not prescribe the presence of any specific clause, such as irrevocability or dissolution, in the trust deed.

CORE ISSUE

The principal issue before the Court was whether the absence of an express irrevocability clause in the trust deed renders the trust “revocable” in law so as to disentitle it from registration under section 12AB.

DECISION AND REASONING

(i) Impermissibility of importing additional conditions

The Court held that the Commissioner had travelled beyond the statutory mandate by insisting upon the presence of an irrevocability clause. Section 12AB does not contemplate such a requirement, either expressly or by necessary implication. The enquiry under the provision is confined to the objects and genuineness of activities, and cannot be expanded by administrative interpretation.

(ii) Proper construction of sections 60 to 63

The Revenue’s reliance on sections 60 to 63 (relating to revocable transfers) was rejected. The Court emphasised that:

  •  Section 63 defines a “revocable transfer” as one where the instrument contains a provision for re-transfer or confers a right to reassume power over the income or assets;
  • such a provision for revocation must be positively found in the instrument;
  • the statute does not provide that the absence of an irrevocability clause renders a transfer revocable.

The Court held that the Department’s approach effectively reversed the legal test laid down in the statute.

(iii) Public charitable trusts under the MPT Act

A substantial part of the judgment is devoted to the scheme of the Maharashtra Public Trusts Act, 1950. The Court noted that:

  • upon dedication, the settlor is completely divested of the trust property;
  •  even where a trust is revoked or deregistered, the property cannot revert to the settlor but is required to be dealt with in accordance with statutory provisions, including vesting in the Public Trusts Administration Fund;
  • Section 55 of the MPT Act embodies the doctrine of cy-pres, ensuring that the property continues to be applied to charitable purposes.

On this basis, the Court concluded that public charitable trusts governed by the MPT Act are inherently irrevocable and the possibility of reversion of assets to the settlor, central to the concept of “revocable transfer” under section 63 does not arise.

(iv) Distinction between “revocable trust” and “revocable transfer”

The Court also clarified that the reference to sections 60 to 63 in section 11 pertains to specific transfers or contributions that may be revocable and not to the nature of the trust itself. A trust may be irrevocable in character, yet receive a donation subject to a revocable condition, in which case the tax consequences are governed by those provisions.

(v) Consistency with earlier precedents

The Court reaffirmed its earlier decision in CIT v. Tara Educational & Charitable Trust ((Income Tax Appeal No. 247 of 2015 dated 31.07.2017), holding that absence of a dissolution clause is not a valid ground for refusal of registration. It noted that the substantive conditions for registration under section 12AB are not materially different from those under section 12AA.

(vi) Adequacy of statutory safeguards

The apprehension of the Revenue regarding possible misuse was found to be unfounded in light of existing safeguards, including:

  • section 13 (denial of exemption where income or property is applied for the benefit of specified persons);
  • section 115TD (tax on accreted income upon conversion or dissolution); and
  • conditions typically imposed while granting registration restricting diversion of assets.

(vii) Defect in Form 10AB

The Court also took note of the practical difficulty arising from the e-filing utility, which compelled applicants to select a particular response in order to upload the form. The subsequent reliance on such response to allege furnishing of incorrect information was held to be arbitrary and unsustainable.

CONCLUSION

The High Court set aside the rejection orders and held that:

  • absence of an express irrevocability or dissolution clause cannot constitute a ground for refusal or cancellation of registration under section 12AB;
  • a public charitable trust is to be regarded as irrevocable unless a power of revocation is expressly reserved; and
  • the Commissioner cannot impose conditions not contemplated by the statutory framework.

The ruling provides much-needed clarity in the administration of the re-registration regime and is likely to have wide application across similarly placed trusts.

ACKNOWLEDGMENT

The petitioners were represented by Mr. Percy Pardiwalla, Senior Advocate along with Mr. Dharan Gandhi Advocate. Their lucid articulation of the statutory scheme assisted the Court in resolving the issues involved. Their contribution is gratefully acknowledged.

Beyond The Business Card

ICAI’s New Era of Responsible Professional Visibility: Analysing the Revised Advertising and Branding Framework for Chartered Accountants

Effective April 2026, the ICAI is introducing a revised ethical framework that shifts from strict advertising restrictions to “responsible professional visibility”. While the core prohibition on direct solicitation under the Chartered Accountants Act remains, the updated Code of Ethics allows CAs to actively engage in thought leadership, share educational insights on digital platforms, and host knowledge-sharing webinars. Furthermore, firms can now provide detailed descriptions of specialized services on their websites rather than just basic write-ups. However, all communication must remain truthful, factual, and devoid of exaggerated claims to maintain professional dignity.

INTRODUCTION

For decades, the chartered accountancy profession in India has been defined by a distinctive professional culture, one that emphasised credibility, independence, and restraint in public communication. Chartered accountants have long played a pivotal role in guiding businesses through taxation, regulatory compliance, financial reporting, and governance. Yet despite this central role, the profession historically maintained a conservative approach toward professional publicity.

Unlike consulting firms, legal practices, and financial advisory organisations that actively communicate their expertise through publications, seminars, and digital platforms, chartered accountants traditionally relied on reputation and referrals rather than marketing to build professional visibility.

This approach was firmly rooted in the ethical framework governing the profession. Clause (6) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 provides that a member shall be deemed guilty of professional misconduct if he solicits professional work directly or indirectly through advertisements, circulars, personal communication, or other forms of publicity.

Over the years, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) supplemented this statutory restriction through detailed guidance under the Code of Ethics and Council Guidelines on Advertisement and Website, which further limited the scope of permissible professional communication.

However, the professional services landscape has evolved significantly. Businesses increasingly identify advisors through digital platforms, research publications, and professional networks. Chartered accountants today operate alongside consulting firms, law firms, and financial advisory organisations that actively communicate their expertise through structured branding and thought leadership.

Recognising these developments, ICAI has introduced important revisions to its ethical framework governing advertising and professional communication. The revised provisions, proposed to be effective from 1 April 2026, signal a calibrated shift toward what may be described as responsible professional visibility.

Rather than removing the prohibition on solicitation, the revised framework clarifies the forms of professional communication that may be permissible when conducted ethically and responsibly. This article analyses these changes from a marketing and professional communication perspective and explores their implications for the future of branding within the chartered accountancy profession.

LEGAL FOUNDATION: THE ETHICAL FRAMEWORK

The regulation of advertising and professional communication within the chartered accountancy profession is primarily anchored in Clause (6) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, which prohibits solicitation of professional work through advertisements or other forms of publicity.

Historically, this provision has been interpreted conservatively, resulting in strict limitations on marketing or promotional communication by chartered accountants.

Further guidance is provided through the ICAI Code of Ethics, particularly under Section 300 – Marketing of Professional Services. This section clarifies that professional accountants may communicate information regarding their services provided that such communication:

  • is not misleading or deceptive
  • does not make exaggerated claims
  • does not disparage other professionals
  • can be substantiated if challenged

The revised framework must therefore be understood not as a removal of the prohibition on solicitation but as a clarification of the types of professional communication that may fall within the ethical boundaries of the profession.

Beyond the Business Card A new Era for Indian CAs

THE EARLIER POSITION: A CULTURE OF RESTRAINED VISIBILITY

Under the earlier regulatory framework, chartered accountants were permitted to maintain professional websites; however, the content of such websites was restricted to what ICAI guidelines referred to as a firm write-up.

The permissible content typically included basic information such as:

  • name and address of the firm
  • names and qualifications of partners
  • contact details
  • broad description of services offered

Promotional language, detailed descriptions of expertise, or marketing-oriented narratives were discouraged.

Similarly, the use of social media platforms for professional communication remained a grey area. Many practitioners avoided sharing professional insights publicly due to concerns that such communication might be interpreted as solicitation of professional work.

While these restrictions were designed to preserve professional dignity, they also limited the ability of chartered accountants to communicate their expertise in an increasingly digital and knowledge-driven professional environment.

THE REVISED FRAMEWORK: TOWARD RESPONSIBLE PROFESSIONAL COMMUNICATION

The revised ethical framework reflects a more contemporary approach to professional communication. While the prohibition on solicitation under Clause (6) remains unchanged, the revised Code of Ethics recognises that professionals may communicate their expertise through educational and informational platforms.

Under Section 300 of the Code of Ethics, communication relating to the marketing of professional services is permissible provided that it remains truthful, factual, and not misleading.

This shift acknowledges that activities such as technical publications, regulatory analysis, and professional commentary may serve the public interest by improving understanding of complex financial and regulatory issues.

The revised framework therefore introduces greater clarity regarding permissible professional communication while continuing to safeguard the integrity of the profession.

KEY DEVELOPMENTS IN ADVERTISING AND PROFESSIONAL VISIBILITY

The revised framework introduces several developments that affect how chartered accountants may communicate their services and expertise.

EXPANDED WEBSITE CONTENT

Under the earlier framework, websites were limited to basic firm write-ups. The revised guidelines allow firms to provide more structured descriptions of their professional services and areas of expertise.

This includes the ability to describe specialised services such as forensic accounting, startup advisory, international taxation, sustainability reporting, and management consultancy services.

These changes are reflected in the updated Council Guidelines on Advertisement and Website issued under Clause (6).

RECOGNITION OF THOUGHT LEADERSHIP

The revised Code of Ethics recognises thought leadership as an important form of professional engagement.

Under Section 300 – Marketing of Professional Services, chartered accountants may communicate professional insights through technical articles, regulatory commentary, research publications, and professional analyses.

Such communication contributes to knowledge dissemination and enhances public understanding of financial and regulatory issues.

DIGITAL PLATFORMS AND PROFESSIONAL ENGAGEMENT

The revised framework acknowledges the growing role of digital platforms in professional communication. Professional networks and digital knowledge platforms allow chartered accountants to share insights on regulatory developments and financial governance practices. Such engagement, when conducted responsibly, supports professional education while maintaining ethical discipline.

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE EVENTS

Professional seminars, webinars, and knowledge sessions are also recognised as legitimate forms of professional engagement. These initiatives enable chartered accountants to contribute to professional education and regulatory awareness among businesses and stakeholders.

TRANSPARENCY IN DESCRIBING EXPERTISE

Another important development is the recognition that professionals may describe their areas of expertise transparently. Firms may communicate their professional capabilities and practice areas provided that such communication remains factual and does not imply superiority over other professionals.

UNDERSTANDING THE SHIFT IN PROFESSIONAL VISIBILITY

The transition from the earlier framework to the revised approach is best understood not as a binary change, but as a shift in how professional communication is interpreted.

Under the earlier regime, communication by chartered accountants was characterised by caution and minimalism. Professional presence was largely confined to static information, with limited scope for articulation of expertise or engagement beyond formal interactions.

In contrast, the revised framework introduces a more enabling environment. Communication, when undertaken within ethical boundaries, is now recognised as a legitimate extension of professional practice.

Firm websites, which were previously restricted to basic descriptions, may now reflect structured and detailed articulation of services. Similarly, digital platforms — once approached with hesitation — are now acknowledged as avenues for sharing knowledge and contributing to professional discourse.

Perhaps most significantly, activities such as publishing technical insights and participating in knowledge forums are no longer viewed conservatively, but are recognised as integral to thought leadership.

This shift reflects a broader transition from restricted visibility to responsible and purposeful professional presence.

APPLYING ETHICAL BOUNDARIES IN PRACTICE

While the revised framework expands the scope of professional communication, it also necessitates careful judgement in its application.

Certain forms of communication remain clearly within acceptable boundaries. These include factual descriptions of services, educational insights shared on professional platforms, and technical or analytical publications that contribute to knowledge dissemination. Similarly, participation in seminars and webinars that are oriented towards education rather than promotion aligns with the intended spirit of the framework.

At the same time, there exists a category of communication that requires thoughtful consideration. Language that moves beyond factual description into subtle positioning, or content that may indirectly promote services without explicit solicitation, must be approached with caution. Likewise, references to professional experience must ensure that confidentiality is preserved and identification risks are minimised.

There are, however, clear boundaries that remain unchanged. Any form of direct or indirect solicitation, exaggerated claims, misleading statements, or explicit client testimonials continues to fall outside permissible limits. The use of communication channels for overt promotional intent remains inconsistent with the ethical foundations of the profession.

The distinction, therefore, lies not merely in the medium of communication, but in its intent, tone, and substance.

CONCLUSION

The revised advertising and professional communication framework introduced by ICAI represents a significant evolution in the regulatory landscape governing the chartered accountancy profession in India.

While the earlier framework focused primarily on restricting publicity, the revised approach recognises that responsible professional visibility is necessary in a modern and digitally connected professional environment.

At the same time, the ethical foundations of the profession remain unchanged. Professional communication must continue to be truthful, factual, and consistent with the dignity and credibility of the profession. When exercised responsibly, the ability to communicate professional expertise can strengthen public trust, enhance regulatory awareness, and contribute meaningfully to the financial ecosystem.

Fraud Reporting – A Convoluted Examination

The article examines India’s complex fraud-reporting landscape, highlighting tensions among regulatory frameworks that define fraud differently and impose varying reporting obligations. Companies face challenges with inconsistent standards across SEBI, NFRA, ICAI, and criminal law, creating timing conflicts and interpretational difficulties that require integrated compliance approaches

1. INTRODUCTION

Over the past decade, India has undergone a significant transformation in the perception of and approach to fraud in the corporate sector. Once regarded as an internal issue that could be discreetly investigated and resolved, fraud now stands prominently under the scrutiny of regulators, shareholders, auditors, and the public.

Despite the widely accepted understanding of fraud as a deceptive act that causes harm, there is no unified, formal definition of fraud. Instead, a mosaic of laws, ranging from the Companies Act, 2013 (the “Act”) and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2024 (“BNS”) to various sectoral regulations, establishes differing standards of evidence, reporting obligations, and consequences. This variation arises from the diverse objectives pursued by these regulations. As a result, different regulators consider a fraud to have occurred at different events. Previously, the impact of these differences was softened by lenient oversight; however, the increasing assertiveness of regulators such as the National Financial Reporting Authority (“NFRA”) and the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) has brought these issues to the forefront. Companies can no longer afford to wait until an investigation concludes to determine their compliance strategy. Instead, they must implement an integrated approach in which investigative processes and compliance strategies continuously inform and strengthen each other, ensuring that every stage of the investigation aligns with all relevant regulatory frameworks.

2. THE REGULATORY LANDSCAPE FOR FRAUD

2.1. Criminal Dimensions: Understanding Fraud in the Eyes of Law Section 4471 of the Act offers an expansive definition of fraud, encompassing any act, omission, concealment of facts, or abuse of position by any person, including an employee, with the intent to deceive, gain undue advantage, or injure the interests of the company, its shareholders, creditors, or others. This broad definition implies that even atypical deceptive acts committed by any person, such as theft of confidential information or insider trading, are classified as fraud regardless of whether they result in a wrongful gain or loss. Section 4482 of the Act, a coterminous provision, criminalises “false statements” or “omissions of material facts” in documents or returns required under the Act.

Although the substantive provisions of criminal law under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (“BNS”) do not explicitly define “fraud,” Section 2(9) of the BNS defines “fraudulently” as acting with the intent to defraud, but not otherwise3. Many provisions of the BNS, including those related to cheating and criminal breach of trust, address or closely align with conduct considered fraudulent.

The offenses mentioned above are classified as criminal because they carry the possibility of imprisonment. The standard of proof required for such violations is “beyond a reasonable doubt”,4 meaning that the evidence must eliminate any reasonable doubt in a reasonable person’s mind regarding the defendant’s guilt. While the BNS does not mandate reporting these offenses, companies are guided by the principles of their governance framework when considering whether to file a complaint with the appropriate authorities.


1 Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013, https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2114/5/A2013-18.pdf, 
Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

2 Section 448 of the Companies Act, 2013, https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2114/5/A2013-18.pdf, 
Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

3 Section 2(9) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/250883_english_01042024.pdf, 
Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

4 Goverdhan vs State of Chattisgarh, 2025, SCC Online, SC 69 

2.2. CIVIL RAMIFICATIONS OF FRAUD: THE LOWER BURDEN OF PROOF

In civil proceedings under the law and disciplinary proceedings for violations of company policies, which generally include fraud, the standard of proof is typically a “preponderance of probabilities”5 rather than “beyond a reasonable doubt.” To establish alleged misconduct, it is sufficient to demonstrate on the basis of the evidence, misconduct is more likely than not.

For instance, if an employee submits inconsistent travel receipts and expense reports, this may indicate a misappropriation of assets under the preponderance of probabilities standard, suggesting it is more likely than not that the employee acted improperly. However, that evidence might not meet the higher “beyond reasonable doubt” standard required in criminal proceedings. Additional evidence, such as clear intent to defraud, eyewitness testimony, or a confession, would be necessary to eliminate any reasonable doubt of guilt.


5 Goverdhan vs State of Chattisgarh, 2025, SCC Online, SC 69

2.3. REPORTING OBLIGATIONS FOR LISTED COMPANIES

For listed companies, SEBI’s Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (“LODR”) impose disclosure requirements in various circumstances, which inter-alia include one where directors6 or senior management commit fraud, or if employees commit material fraud7 that could affect investor decisions. When contrasted with Section 447 of the Act, fraud under LODR has broader applicability as it also encompasses fraud8 as contemplated under the Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market Regulations, 2003 (“PFUTP”). Fraud under PFUTP includes acts that induce another person to deal in securities. Crucially, an intent to deceive is not a prerequisite (when contrasted with Section 447 of the Act), and as such, erroneous financial statements, such as due to reckless application of accounting standards, may be classified as fraud under PFUTP accounting standards, may be classified as fraud under PFUTP.
Fraud under LODR is to be reported at two junctures9; when the fraud is “unearthed”, followed by subsequent reporting when the facts and figures surrounding the fraud are conclusively established. However, the term “unearthed” is undefined within the LODR. This omission creates a subjective threshold for each listed entity, which must decide, based on its specific circumstances and internal procedures, when a potentially fraudulent act has been sufficiently identified to trigger the initial disclosure obligation. Some companies might consider the fraud “uncovered” when there is a credible allegation, while others might wait for preliminary investigations to yield stronger evidence before reporting. This inherent subjectivity means that timing for initial disclosure can vary widely, posing compliance risks if regulators or investors later determine that information was inordinately withheld.


6 Point 6 of Paragraph A of Part A of Schedule III of the SEBI 
(Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025

7 Point 9 of Paragraph B of Part A of Schedule III of the SEBI
 (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, Last Accessed on March, 28, 2025

8 Regulation 2(c) of the Prohibition of Fraudulent and
 Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market Regulations, 2003, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

9 Circular No SEBI/HO/CFD/CFD-PoD-1/P/CIR/2023/123 dated July 13, 2023, 
issued by SEBI, https://www.sebi.gov.in/legal/circulars/jul-2023/disclosure-of-material-events-information-by-listed-entities-under-regulations-30-and-30a-of-securities-and-exchange-board-of-india-listing-obligations-and-disclosure-requirements-regulations-201-_73910.html

 

The convoluted web of fraud reporting

2.4. STATUTORY AUDITORS AS GATEKEEPERS: HIGH STAKES IN FRAUD REPORTING

Section 143(12) of the Act mandates that auditors report to regulators if they have “reason to believe” that employees or officers of the company have committed fraud exceeding ₹1 Crore. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has opined10 that possessing knowledge evidencing the commission of fraud meets this threshold; a standard similar to that implied under LODR. Notably, this standard is lower than the “preponderance of probabilities” and “beyond reasonable doubt.” Further, the ICAI has also clarified11 that an auditor’s obligation qua fraud reporting is to be restricted to matters involving fraudulent financial reporting or misappropriation of assets.

NFRA regulates12 auditors of listed and certain specified companies, while the auditors of the rest, including private companies, are regulated by ICAI. While the ICAI, through its guidance note, has opined that obligations under Section 143(12) of the Act would arise only if the auditor had identified or detected the fraud, NFRA has mandated that frauds have to be reported by auditors regardless of the13 source of identification. These differing directions have led to uncertainty and inconsistent practices among private company auditors, with some adhering to the NFRA’s directions and others following the ICAI’s guidelines.

Furthermore, an auditor must file a report along with the Company’s responses within 60 days of the auditor having knowledge about the fraud14. Realistically, it would be infeasible for a Company to investigate fraud in such a short span, mainly when the objective of the investigation is to meet more rigorous evidentiary standards.


10 Section VIII of Overview of Guidance Note on reporting of fraud under 
Section 143(12) of the Companies Act issued by the ICAI, https://resource.cdn.icai.org/41297aasb-gn-fraud-revised.pdf, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

11 Section III of Overview of Guidance Note on reporting of fraud under 
Section 143(12) of the Companies Act issued by the ICAI, https://resource.cdn.icai.org/41297aasb-gn-fraud-revised.pdfread with Para 3 of SA 240 - The Auditor’s Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements issued by the ICAI, https://resource.cdn.icai.org/15374Link9_240SA_REVISED.pdf, , Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

12 Rule 3 of the National Financial Authority Rules, 2018 of the Companies Act 2013,  
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2114/5/A2013-18.pdf, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

13 Circular dated June 26, 2023, issued by the NFRA, 
https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3e2ad76f2326fbc6b56a45a56c59fafdb/uploads/2023/06/2023062673.pdf, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025

14 Rule 13(2) of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 of the Companies Act, 2013, , 
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2114/5/A2013-18.pdf, Last Accessed on March 28, 2025.

 

3. DIVERGENT TIMELINES AND DEFINITIONS: EMERGING COMPLEXITIES

While the preceding sections outline the distinct evidentiary thresholds and reporting requirements across various statutes and regulations, two overarching complexities merit closer scrutiny. First, differing disclosure obligations create a timing mismatch, often resulting in a single incident being disclosed at multiple junctures. Second, the lack of a uniform definition of fraud across regulatory frameworks fosters interpretational hurdles that can create confusion and discord among stakeholders.

3.1. TENSIONS IN TIMING AND STAKEHOLDER EXPECTATIONS

A pressing concern for listed companies involves the tension between prompt disclosure obligations, such as the near-immediate reporting required under LODR, and management’s desire to confirm or conclusively investigate any alleged wrongdoing before making it public. On one side, transparency and investor protection principles motivate SEBI’s mandate for swift disclosures. Conversely, management must weigh the reputational harm and legal risks of publicising suspicions that may prove baseless later. While there is no obligation to proactively report suspected fraud to auditors, withholding of information from the auditors, particularly when requisitioned, may lead to erosion of the trust between auditors and management and can compromise audit effectiveness.

These conflicts can create a sub-optimal environment where management is reluctant to reveal potential fraud to auditors or regulators before an internal investigation is complete, leading to partial or delayed disclosures. This may also trigger parallel investigations by auditors or regulators, resulting in duplication of effort, complexity, and stakeholder fatigue.

3.2. DISPARITIES IN DEFINITIONS: INTERPRETATIONAL QUAGMIRES

A second layer of complexity arises from how differently fraud is defined under diverse legal and regulatory frameworks. Section 447 of the Act sets out an expansive definition encompassing virtually any deceptive act intended to injure or secure an undue advantage. Meanwhile, LODR captures a broad spectrum of misconduct by not only encompassing fraud committed by directors, senior management, or other employees that could materially affect investor decisions, but also including potential violations under PFUTP, which do not necessarily require an element of deceit.

Under Section 143(12), statutory auditors focus on fraudulent financial reporting or misappropriation of assets above certain thresholds, guided by a standard of “reason to believe.” Management, by contrast, may hesitate to label certain incidents as fraud unless they meet criminal or civil criteria. Such definitional divergences can lead to conflicting interpretations between stakeholders. Auditors might deem a matter reportable under Section 143(12), while management may view it as an infraction that does not rise to the level of fraud. In industries with additional sector-specific regulations, this definitional patchwork can become even more daunting, prompting uncertainty about whether—and under which law—an official complaint or self-reporting obligation is triggered. The result can be inconsistent enforcement and uneven approaches to investigations, ultimately exposing companies to the risk of contradictory outcomes under different legal regimes.

4. MANAGING COMPLEXITIES – AUDITEES PERSPECTIVE

To tackle the regulatory complexities surrounding fraud reporting, companies would benefit from implementing a comprehensive and integrated compliance framework that proactively reconciles the diverse standards across various regulatory regimes. This could inter alia include the following measures:

  •  Establishing a cross-functional fraud response committee comprising representatives from legal, finance, compliance, and audit would create a centralised decision-making body capable of navigating the multifaceted reporting obligations. This committee should develop a tiered disclosure protocol that carefully balances the immediacy required by SEBI’s LODR with the necessity for thorough investigation, potentially utilising preliminary notifications followed by more detailed disclosures as facts emerge.
  •  Companies should also establish clear internal definitions of fraud that encompass the broadest applicable regulatory standards, ensuring that potential incidents are evaluated against all relevant frameworks simultaneously rather than sequentially.
  •  Regular tabletop simulations of fraud scenarios would enhance organisational readiness, allowing management to rehearse responses to various regulatory triggers and stakeholder expectations.
  •  Furthermore, developing robust documentation procedures that thoroughly record the rationale behind disclosure decisions would provide defensible evidence of good faith compliance efforts.
  •  Continuous engagement with auditors through formalised information-sharing protocols could help bridge the disclosure timing gap, fostering transparency while managing reputational risks.

Ultimately, the objective should be to transform what is currently a reactive and often disjointed approach into a strategically integrated system that anticipates regulatory intersections, addresses definitional discrepancies, and harmonises the timing of mandatory disclosures across the regulatory landscape.

5. MANAGING COMPLEXITIES – AUDITORS PERSPECTIVE

Auditors facing the complexities of fraud reporting must establish a robust methodological framework to navigate the regulatory landscape effectively. As gatekeepers with significant reporting obligations under

Section 143(12) of the Companies Act, auditors should develop comprehensive internal protocols that clearly define what constitutes “reason to believe” in potential fraud scenarios, along with detailed documentation templates that capture their decision-making process at each evaluation stage.

Auditors would benefit from maintaining ongoing communication channels with management while preserving their independence, perhaps through structured quarterly fraud risk assessment sessions that facilitate information exchange without compromising objectivity. They should consider implementing a graduated approach to potential fraud indicators, establishing internal thresholds that trigger progressively more intensive scrutiny and documentation before formal reporting obligations are invoked. Given the divergent guidance from NFRA and ICAI, audit firms may consider developing unified firm-wide policies that lean toward the more stringent standard while thoroughly documenting their rationale.

Additionally, training programs that focus on fraud detection techniques and reporting obligations across various regulatory frameworks would enhance auditors’ abilities to identify reportable incidents earlier in the audit process. These measures would empower auditors to meet their statutory obligations while helping to close the timing and definitional gaps that currently complicate the fraud reporting ecosystem.

6. CONCLUSION

In essence, the variability of definitions, evidentiary benchmarks, and reporting obligations highlights the evolving complexity of India’s regulatory framework. What was once a fairly insular exercise, i.e. evaluating misconduct internally and unobtrusively deciding on criminal or civil recourse, now warrants a more transparent and collaborative approach. While there is no singular solution, recognising the complications stemming from varying and sometimes incongruent regulations is crucial for prudent decision-making. Whether establishing a core compliance panel, updating internal procedures for phased disclosures, or strengthening legal and operational processes, each enterprise will have to define its trajectory towards compliance. What endures unchanged, however, is the underlying mandate: the sooner businesses address the potential for discordance in reporting obligations, the better they can shield themselves against the reputational and legal pitfalls that loom large under the heightened regulatory glare.

 

Chatting Up About India: Part II : Statins, Stents and Lifestyle Changes to Unblock the Arteries of Regulations

India’s pursuit of Ease of Doing Business and Ease of Living is severely choked by “regulatory cholesterol”. To unblock economic growth, India must transition from reliance on foreign standards to building home-grown domestic frameworks. Policymakers must focus on process reforms to eliminate systemic frictions, transforming regulations into enabling “trampolines” rather than restrictive safety nets. Key solutions include decriminalizing civil omissions, ensuring perpetual registrations, minimizing duplicative reporting, and enforcing strict timelines with a “silence is consent” rule. Ultimately, achieving true economic freedom requires a comprehensive civil services reform rather than mere superficial tweaks.

It doesn’t matter if a cat is black or white, so long as it catches mice – Deng Xiaoping

In the previous article (BCAJ, March 2026), we examined a “lipid profile” of regulations affecting Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) and Ease of Living (EoL). In this part, we consider certain causes, effects and ways to reduce regulatory cholesterol.

1. STRATEGIC

There are order-setting regulations and there are directional ones. EAM of India talks of Strategic Autonomy. There are many areas where we have none. Consider sovereign rating agencies: We largely depend on global agencies such as S&Ps. We don’t have our own standards1, we depend on western reports, they rank us and we abide by those norms. China has changed this. A recent image circulating in terms basic things used by India and China demonstrated this – our dependence on external. In areas such as social media platforms (we let KOO die), operating systems, financial messaging systems (like SWIFT), and quality standards (ISO), we rely significantly on external frameworks. Even indices such as the SENSEX carry external branding S&P.


1  Say Digitisation of medical records, how can we analyse this massive 
data of reports now available to prepare for prevention, care and predictive analytics

We need domestic, home-grown, home governed, home rooted entities to do work much of what happens in India and see it from Indian lenses. Dependence, identity and confidence go hand in hand and therefore must evolve together. Encouragingly, in capital markets, the dependence on foreign institutional investors has reduced relative to domestic SIP flows. Similar shifts are required across sectors.

We need more changes like this and build our turf on our terms. Regulations, therefore, must enable the creation of domestic institutions, standards, technologies, and services—rooted in Indian conditions and perspectives. This is the strategic dimension of regulation: laws that enable the development of Bharat in a sustained and accelerated manner.

2. STRUCTURAL VS. PROCESS REFORMS

This is already underway, especially we have heard from Shri Sanjeev Sanyal of EAC to the PM, about structural reforms (GST, IBC, Tax, and so on) already undertaken, and now we need more of process reforms to even out frictions in the system.

Process reforms address frictions that, while seemingly small, have large cumulative effects. For instance, closing a company still takes months or years. Similarly, certain public sector entities continue despite diminished relevance, while sectors that are more critical remain understaffed. Process reforms aim to remove these inefficiencies and improve system responsiveness.

He calls these nuts and bolts reforms2.


2 https://dsppg.du.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/Process-Reforms-Working-Paper-Nov-2023_Final.pdf

3. ENABLING

Regulations must enable the very objectives they seek to regulate – growth, quality, employment, and so on. They should remove peripheral burdens and allow focus on core activity. Regulations should create orbits and facilitate shifts in them—not destroy or constrain them. The emphasis must be on enabling transformation rather than constraining activity.

Enabling means removing dross around the core and keeping the main thing the main thing.

The Cardiology of regulation

4. FACILITATING:

Regulations should act as problem-solvers for businesses. Recent GST changes3 demonstrate movement towards trade facilitation. Such responsiveness should become a general principle.

Regulation should rapidly take market inputs, and become the greatest facilitator of free enterprise, which is an expression of freedom and liberty. They should be tested on this question: What can they impede vs. what can they serve. At times, impedance is itself justified as serving a purpose, leading to a self-reinforcing cycle.


3 Referred to as GST 2.0

5. QUANTUM:

A key question is: how much regulatory effort is required merely to remain compliant? Say the number of core regulations to run a business or time spent on compliance vs. to do core work.

Typically, regulatory requirements fall into three categories:

  • Registration
  • Operations (dos and don’ts)
  • Reporting

Registrations should ideally be one-time or long-term, without repeated renewals. Instead of frequent re-registration4, non-compliant entities can be addressed through targeted enforcement.Permissions should be minimal. Regulations should define clear and simple rules of the game, with regulators acting as overseers rather than controllers.

Reporting should be:

  • Infrequent
  • Consolidated
  • Non-duplicative

Currently, reporting often involves duplication across multiple authorities who do not share data effectively. Over time, reporting requirements also tend to expand beyond their original intent a ‘Stretching’ of sorts. Take UDIN5 when it comes to reporting.


4 Section 80G and 12A – These were withdrawn now brought to life from the grave
 instead of targeting certain entities involved in anti-national, conversion, illegal activities.
5 UDIN was meant for authenticity by correlating: Document – Person - Date. 
Now it’s asking way too many things specific to the content.

6. VOLUME AND CHANGES IN REGULATIONS

How many Regulations do authorities introduce and tweak each year? In US 3000 come each year6. India likely experiences similar numbers or more. The concern is:

° how many regulations are introduced,

° how many are amended, and

° how many are repealed?

Every ministry needs to report this. Look at any sarkari agency’s web page—‘new’ red-coloured announcements pop up as if they were badges of honour. Arbitrary changes at any time have become the norm. There is limited institutional incentive for removal of outdated regulations, leading to a cumulative increase. Frequent and sometimes unpredictable changes add to compliance uncertainty.


6 Nikhil Kamath talking to Ruchir Sharma - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lTCzIDITaac&t=2212s at 33.50 min

7. BENEFICIARIES OF REGULATIONS

Regulations often favour incumbents by creating entry barriers. Compliance complexity disproportionately affects small and medium enterprises, both in terms of cost and managerial bandwidth.

In contrast, larger entities may navigate complexity more effectively due to scale and resources. This asymmetry needs to be recognised and addressed.

Biggies flourish from obfuscation, maze of regulation and complexities. Biggies often write the laws for lawmakers. Take the example of ICFR. Authorities applied it to all entities in year one—crazy stuff. Then they withdrew it and adjusted it to cover only those entities that needed them. Obviously, someone pushed this through and some parties benefitted from it, adding no value to the actual ground situation.

8. SAFETY NET VS. TRAMPOLINE:

Erstwhile Singapore PM7 Tharman (now president) gave this example. A BBC reporter asks him about safety nets, obviously trying in a cheeky way to trap him. Tharman said they create Trampoline instead safety nets. Both are made of the same thing, however, trampoline allows people who fall into it to bounce back, to rise. Trampoline is meant to propel and accelerate out of the net. Safety net safeguards against setbacks. It prevents and protects. Trampolines amplify trajectory through responsibility, skill development, exposure and innovation.

In India, we have created many safety nets. We need to tweak them to become trampolines – where the same net protects against setbacks but doesn’t make one dependent. We should not make support perpetual and unconditional, but instead design it to enable a person to earn one’s success eventually.


7 https://youtu.be/nPZ8Kj1nIAU?si=c2EU4QSrplAQ2CLE

9. POLITICS

Laws pass through the colour of politics (preservation and extension of votes), and are often made/repealed that way so that someone can hijack them – like trade unions where job preservation is presented as job creation. Trade unions should rather fight for improvement in ESIC or PF or EPS – for better services and thousands of crores stuck in the so-called ‘inoperative accounts’.

Votes override constitutional fundamentals. Politicians talk about ideas like reservation in the private sector. While reservation, being birth based benefit is a problem and is akin to discrimination based on birth. Laws are made to punish people simply based on a certain person complaining, making acts non bail-able. This is just for political purposes – where objectivity and reason goes missing in favour of outright discrimination. Politicising is a magic show where self-interest is garbed as national interest.

10. DECENTRALISE

Greater decentralisation can improve responsiveness. Proximity of decision-making to stakeholders often results in better outcomes.

Keeping power proximate to people is best, instead of situating it in Delhi. Deregulation often means decentralisation.

11. ABSENCE OF TIMELINES

A critical issue is the absence of defined timelines for regulatory approvals.

We need a count of permissions or approvals from administration that lack a timeline whereas every compliance imposes a timeline on the business. These regulations require free citizens to petition the unelected civil servants for permissions. Where timelines are not specified, applicants are effectively dependent on administrative discretion. Introducing enforceable timelines, along with accountability mechanisms, can significantly improve efficiency.

12. THE REGULATED

To be fair, we have to call out the group whose careless disregard fuels this mess. That is Indians against Indians. I was at Surat station waiting for the train to come. One man walking up the platform ate the last biscuit and simply threw the wrapper on the platform and kept walking. When I see such people, my hope shatters.

It will be a shame to call for rules for basics, which otherwise needs sensitivity – say how to park near the kerb; where to stop on the road or to walk on the footpath (when there is one) instead of on the road. Careless disregard for others – fellow citizens – is a consistent and pervasive element. However, we have seen that better processes – say at the Metro where there is certain order is possible. It is a pity that our own conduct and lapses, trigger regulatory reprimand.

DESTRAGULATION, REFORM & EFFECTIVENESS

There is a saying: power corrupts, and absolute power corrupts absolutely. In our context this means: Regulations corrupts, absolute regulations corrupt absolutely. This often happens (apart from the quantum and excessive severity) when legislation, execution and adjudication are bundled with one set of civil servants / department. Here is a partial checklist to accomplish destrangulation:

Registration vs. Approval / Permission – The idea of ‘permissions’ should be terminated except for prohibited sectors like defence. Registration should be default means to kick start something in business sphere. Recent Charity Trust Re-registration by income tax department, is asking what is already supplied in previous ITRs and Audit Reports already with the department. Registrations should be perpetual once there is periodic reporting.

Compliances: We should call this reporting. Reporting should be minimum, non-duplicating, infrequent and easy. Currently, multiple agencies seek overlapping information, often with strict timelines. A rationalised reporting framework, particularly for SMEs, is necessary.

Decriminalisation: Remember, minor TDS delays led to prosecution! Instead of inventing thousands of ways to prove citizens criminal, let’s be civil again. The state compels the deductor to act as its agent. If the government doubts the deductor’s reliability, it should transfer the responsibility to the payee.

Digitisation: Zero officer interface. Filings flow through automated acceptance and processing as standard practice. Interrelated data sharing eliminates duplication. Once a company enters its CIN or PAN, all other registrations should follow automatically, or any single number (like a consolidated folio) should suffice for all reporting. The same applies to cancellations—companies should be able to opt out of GST online when it’s not applicable. This requires databases and departments to communicate with one another.

Timelines: The legislature must evict laws that let bureaucrats sit on paperwork forever. Implement a ‘Silence is Consent’: if authorities ignore a filing beyond the deadline, the system auto-approves it. No ‘No’ in time? We take that as ‘Yes.’ Non-working portals automatically extend compliance timelines.

Regulatory Opacity and Inefficiency without recourse: Implementation fails because citizens have little to no recourse when the government doesn’t enforce laws as required. Authorities routinely auto-close grievances without verifying whether the taxpayer’s problem was actually resolved.

On the ‘Surprise!’ method of governance: When the government makes abrupt policy U-turns, it shatters trust and paralyzes risk-takers. It is hard to build a business when the floor can keep turning into lava. The government must disclose upcoming changes well in advance and explain implementation methods clearly. All changes should come in a bundle through a consolidated master circular / directions once a year for business laws. Predictability builds the trust that citizens expect from their government.

Process as Punishment: Jail provisions for otherwise civil omissions are threat-based governance. Add bureaucratic discretion and you get corruption and court congestion. The Jan Vishwas principle rejects micromanagement8 in favour of accountability9 and prioritises actual harm10 over paperwork11 variations.


8 By inspectors breathing down your throat

9 Trust based compliance and civil fine for delay

10 Fraud, poisoning the environment etc.

11 Removes jail time for missing paperwork and saves it for ‘harm’

Democracy vs. Economic Growth—A False Choice: Some portray mass prosperity and mass democracy as competing goals. Yet if we can manage mass democracy despite our nation’s vast differences, why should mass prosperity prove harder? Obviously, people in power take helicopter view instead of worm’s eye view. We still have too many people farming instead of working in other sectors. We don’t have jobs problem; we have wage problem. Wages stagnate because productivity stagnates. And productivity stagnates because regulations make it so difficult to establish factories that could train college graduates as apprentices.

CONCLUSION: THE HEALTHY RANGE

First, let me clarify which regulatory cholesterol we’re discussing: the harmful kind—Non-HDL cholesterol beyond acceptable biological limits. Just as Vitamin D affects bone health when deficient but becomes toxic when in excess, regulations require constant monitoring. For regulatory cholesterol, statins or stents cannot cure or even manage an over-regulated system. We need comprehensive lifestyle change across all levels and sectors.

Post-1991 liberalization didn’t deliver Poorna Swaraj. India still waits for crisis-driven transformation. This doesn’t mean abolishing all regulations—or Afghanistan would be a unicorn factory. We need laws that let our people sprint, not crawl. EoDB and EoL remain fundamentally civil services reform problems. Deng said it best: “Reform is China’s second revolution.” In Gandhian terms, Poorna Swaraj remains a distant goal until we achieve genuine EoDB and EoL.

GST on Sale, Transfer, Amalgamation of Business

Under the GST framework, transferring a business as a “going concern” is exempt from tax, ensuring neutrality for genuine reorganizations, whereas itemized asset transfers attract GST. During mergers or demergers, merging entities remain distinct taxable persons until the NCLT order date.

Under Section 18(3) and Rule 41, the transferor can pass unutilized Input Tax Credit (ITC) to the transferee via FORM GST ITC-02, provided liabilities are also transferred. While controversies exist regarding transitional ITC mismatches and unadjusted advances, courts have affirmed the transferee’s right to unutilized ITC and ruled that tax proceedings against non-existent amalgamated entities are void ab initio.

The GST implication on the sale or transfer of a business depends fundamentally on the manner in which such transfer is structured. Under the GST framework, a business may be transferred either as a going concern or through an itemized transfer of individual assets and liabilities, with materially different tax consequences in each case. While the transfer of a business as a going concern is recognized as a distinct category of supply and is eligible for exemption subject to prescribed conditions, an asset-wise transfer attracts GST depending upon the nature of the goods or services involved.

GST Navigator for Business Mergers & Transfers

TRANSFER OF BUSINESS AS A GOING CONCERN

Under the GST law, the taxability of a business transfer depends on how a transaction is structured. Paragraph 4(c) of Schedule II to Central Goods and Services Act, 2017 (CGST Act) read with Notification No. 12/2017–Central Tax (Rate), exempts services by way of transfer of a business as a going concern, whether as a whole or as an independent part thereof. Though “going concern” is not defined under GST law, it is a well-established accounting and commercial concept signifying continuity of operations, transfer of assets along with liabilities and absence of intent to liquidate.

Paragraph 4 of the said Schedule II further provides that when a person ceases to be a taxable person, goods forming part of business assets are deemed to be supplied immediately before such cessation, unless the business is transferred as a going concern. Accordingly, where a division or undertaking is transferred in entirety pursuant to a merger or demerger, together with employees, contracts and liabilities, the deeming fiction does not apply, ensuring tax neutrality for genuine reorganisations. The following illustrations provide further clarity on the distinction.

Illustration-1: Where a company discontinues one of its business divisions and cancels its GST registration for that division while retaining the underlying assets such as machinery, inventory or office equipment, the transfer of such assets would be treated as a deemed supply under Paragraph 4 of Schedule II and GST would be payable on their value. However, where the same division is transferred in its entirety to another company as a going concern, together with employees, contracts and liabilities, pursuant to a scheme of demerger or slump sale, the deeming provision would not apply, and no GST would be payable on the transfer of such business assets.

Illustration-2: Where a partnership firm dissolves and the partners distribute the closing stock and capital assets among themselves without transferring the business as a going concern, such distribution would be treated as a deemed supply and GST would be payable on the value of the assets so distributed. However, if the partnership firm is converted into a company and the entire business is transferred to the company as a going concern, with continuity of operations and transfer of liabilities, the deeming provision would not apply, and no GST would be leviable on the transfer of business assets.

REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS UNDER GST

GST registration is State-specific and entity-specific under Section 25 of the CGST Act. Corporate restructuring approved by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) or Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) does not automatically alter GST registrations. In terms of Section 87(2) of the CGST Act, amalgamating or merging companies are treated as distinct taxable persons up to the date of the NCLT order, notwithstanding any retrospective appointed date mentioned in the scheme. Consequently, the transferor entity must continue to comply with GST obligations, including filing returns and paying tax, until its registration is cancelled.

Post-restructuring, the transferee or resulting entity is required to obtain a fresh GST registration or amend its existing registration to include the transferred business. Cancellation of registration of the transferor operates prospectively and does not extinguish past liabilities. Transfer of ITC on Sale / Merger / Demerger

Section 18(3) of the CGST Act specifically provides that where there is a change in the constitution of a registered person on account of sale, merger, demerger, amalgamation, lease or transfer of business, and such change is accompanied by specific provisions for transfer of liabilities, the registered person is permitted to transfer the unutilized input tax credit (ITC) lying in its electronic credit ledger to the transferee. The manner and conditions for such transfer are prescribed under Rule 41 of CGST Rules 2017 as further clarified by Circular No. 133/03/2020-GST dated 23 March 2020 .

ILLUSTRATION

In a case where a transferor entity transfers only its plant and machinery and unutilized ITC to a transferee entity without transferring its liabilities since the transaction does not involve transfer of liabilities, the conditions of Section 18(3) of the CGST Act read with Rule 41 are not satisfied. Accordingly, the transferor entity is not permitted to transfer the unutilized ITC to the transferee entity.

Under Rule 41, the transferor is required to file FORM GST ITC-02 on the common portal, furnishing details of the transaction and seeking transfer of unutilized ITC. In the case of a demerger, the ITC is required to be apportioned in the ratio of the value of assets of the resulting units as specified in the approved demerger scheme. The term “value of assets” has been clarified to mean the value of the entire assets of the business, irrespective of whether ITC has been availed thereon.

As per Section 232(6) of the Companies Act 2013, a scheme of demerger is deemed to be effective from the appointed date specified therein. Accordingly, for the purpose of apportionment of ITC under Rule 41, the ratio of asset values should be determined as on the appointed date of demerger.

Additionally, the transferor is required to furnish a certificate from a practicing chartered accountant or a cost accountant certifying that the transaction provides for transfer of liabilities. Upon acceptance of FORM GST ITC-02 by the transferee on the common portal, the specified ITC stands credited to the transferee’s electronic credit ledger.

Major Controversies on ITC Mismatches, Credit Notes, Transitional Issues, Unadjusted Advances.


1 Notification No. 16/2019-Central Tax dated 29.03.2019 w.e.f. 29.03.2019

TRANSITIONAL ITC ISSUES

A recurring controversy prevails on the issue of mismatch of ITC between the appointed date under the demerger scheme and the date of filing FORM GST ITC-02. While Rule 41 requires apportionment based on asset values as on the appointed date, the actual transfer is restricted to the ITC available in the electronic credit ledger on the ITC-02 filing date. Since ITC may be availed or reversed during the intervening period due to ongoing operations, disputes arise on whether such intervening adjustments should form part of the transferable ITC pool. Further, ITC transferred through ITC-02 often pertains to pre-demerger periods and may not reflect in the transferee’s GSTR-2B, exposing the transferee for automated mismatch notices and demands.

Another major issue may arise when the transferor is engaged in both taxable and exempt supplies, where Rule 42 reversal of common ITC is applicable. The GST department may insist on a proportionate reversal by the transferor before filing ITC-0 and failing which excess or ineligible ITC gets transferred to the transferee. Taxpayers, on the other hand, contend that Rule 41 does not mandate prior Rule 42 reconciliation as a precondition, and that ITC-02 merely transfers the net balance legally lying in the electronic credit ledger on that date. Insisting on retrospective reversals post ITC-02 effectively results in double adjustment once by restricting transferable credit and again by demanding reversal contrary to the scheme of seamless credit under Section 18(3) which is a vested right of the taxpayer.

Although Section 155 of CGST Act places the burden of proving eligibility of ITC or any claimed benefit on such person, i.e., the transferee, it cannot be invoked to compel the transferee to disprove vague or unquantified past liabilities, especially where the relevant tax periods precede the effective date of transfer and the statutory compliance stood in the name of the transferor.

Another significant issue under Rule 41 arises from post-transfer scrutiny of eligibility, place of supply and nature of credit at the transferee’s end, despite such issues having never been disputed in the hands of the transferor.

Issues on Credit Notes, Debit Notes & Unadjusted Advances

Section 87 of CGST Act provides that the transferor and transferee entities are to be treated as distinct taxable persons up to the date of the order. Accordingly, all inter-se supplies made during the period from the appointed date to the date of the order remain taxable, and any price revision or adjustment must be effected only through debit or credit notes issued between the respective entities. Credit notes issued under Section 34 of CGST Act require corresponding ITC reversal by the recipient, while debit notes permit additional tax payment and ITC availment, subject to the prescribed statutory limits.

Similarly, unadjusted advances create practical difficulty where GST has been paid by the transferor on advances, but the actual supply is made by the transferee post-transfer. Further, under the said Section 87, the transferor and transferee are jointly and severally liable for GST dues up to the date of transfer, to the extent of the business transferred, and any allocation of liabilities in the NCLT scheme operates only inter se between the parties and does not bind the GST authorities.

JUDICIAL DEVELOPMENTS

Recently in the case of Alstom Transport2 Hon. Gujarat High Court examined whether an amalgamating company could claim refund of unutilized ITC after merger. The Court held that upon the merger of Alstom Rail Transportation India Pvt. Ltd. into Alstom Transport India Ltd., pursuant to an NCLT order dated 10 August 2023 effective from 22 September 2023, the transferor entity ceased to exist in law and its GST registration ought to have been cancelled from the effective date. Consequently, unutilized ITC could only be transferred to the transferee in accordance with Section 18(3) read with Rule 41 and could not be partly retained for claiming refund under Section 54(3) of CGST Act as refund is a statutory concession requiring strict compliance. The refund granted to the transferor was therefore held to be legally unsustainable.


2 Alstom Transport India Ltd vs. Additional commissioner, CGST and Central Excise (appeals) & Ors (Writ Petitions (SCA Nos. 11025–11043 of 2025) (23-01-2026)

Further, in another case of Umicore Autocat3 Hon’ble High Court of Bombay (GOA Bench) held that the transferee company is entitled to utilise the unutilised ITC lying in the electronic credit ledger of the transferor company, irrespective of territorial boundaries, since upon amalgamation the transferor had ceased to function and all its assets and liabilities, including ITC, stood vested in the transferee. The Hon’ble Court further directed the GST Council and the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) to evolve an appropriate mechanism to address situations involving inter-State transfer of ITC by upgrading the GSTN system.

Similarly in FLY TXT Mobile4 (AAR -Kerala) it was held that upon merger, the closing balance of CGST and IGST lying in the electronic credit ledger of the transferor can be transferred to the resulting company even where the GST registrations are not within the same State.


3 Umicore Autocat India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India ((2025) 32 Centax 416 (Bom.) [10-07-2025])

4 Flytxt Mobile Solutions Pvt. Ltd. (2025) 36 Centax 149 (A.A.R. - GST - Ker.) [23-07-2025]

PROCEEDINGS AGAINST NON-EXISTENT ENTITIES

Upon amalgamation, the transferor entity ceases to exist in the eyes of law and any proceedings initiated or continued against such a non-existent entity are legally untenable.

In the case of HCL Infosystems5, Hon’ble Delhi High Court held that once a company is dissolved pursuant to amalgamation, any proceedings initiated or continued against such a company are void ab initio. The Hon’ble Court further held that that Section 87 of the CGST Act merely deals with apportionment of liabilities and does not authorize continuation of proceedings against a non-existent entity. Similar views have been expressed by the Karnataka High Court in the case of Trelleborg India6.


5 HCL Infosystems Ltd. vs. Commissioner of State Tax (2024) 25 Centax 72 (Del.)/2025 (93) G.S.T.L. 279 (Del.) [21-11-2024]

6 Trelleborg India Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Karnataka (2024) 20 Centax 355 (Kar.)/2024 (89) G.S.T.L. 37 (Kar.) [02-07-2024]

CONCLUSION

Thus, GST implication in sales, transfers, mergers, and demergers is determined based on transaction structuring. Services by way of transfer of a business as a going concern enable tax neutrality and seamless ITC transfer under Section 18(3) and Rule 41, while asset-wise transfers may attract GST depending upon the nature of the goods or services involved. Proactive planning, robust documentation, clarity in drafting agreement clauses, defining nature of the transaction to be undertaken as well as valuation aspect are essential to mitigate risks and prevent future disputes.

NFRA’S Twin Imperatives: New Audit Documentation And Communication Regime In Audit Governance

The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has issued two circulars shifting auditing from “implied compliance” to “demonstrated governance”. The December 16, 2025 circular strictly mandates contemporaneous audit documentation. Auditors must assemble final files within 60 days and submit them within 7 days of an NFRA request, with zero post-facto alterations or metadata-stripping format conversions allowed. Furthermore, the January 2026 circular enforces robust, documented two-way communication with appropriately identified “Those Charged with Governance” (TCWG). It mandates at least two meetings annually to meaningfully discuss strategic risks, fraud, and controls, actively rejecting superficial presentations.

The Indian audit landscape is undergoing a fundamental shift, moving from mere procedural adherence to a regime of substantive accountability. Two recent circulars issued by the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) dated December 16, 2025, and January 7, 2026 represent a pivotal moment in corporate governance. These mandates collectively signal that NFRA is no longer just observing; it is actively re-engineering the DNA of audit evidence and the bridge of communication between auditors and Those Charged with Governance (TCWG). The “tone at the top” must now resonate with the reality that an audit not documented contemporaneously and communicated transparently is, in the eyes of the regulator, an audit not performed. NFRA has observed notable deficiencies, prompting a clear articulation of compliance requirements.

THE REGULATORY PURVIEW: REALITY CHECK

The reach of NFRA is extensive, covering Public Interest Entities (PIEs) as defined under Rule 3 of the NFRA Rules, 2018. The regulator’s recent outreach indicates a heightened focus on the “middle tier,” with a 2025 survey garnering participation from 383 firms across India to tailor audit quality initiatives.

NFRA STANCE ON TIMELINES, MAINTENANCE, ARCHIVAL AND INTEGRITY OF AUDIT FILES.

The circular dated December 16, 2025, addresses chronic deficiencies in how audit firms maintain and submit their work papers. NFRA has issued a timely reminder and a firm warning to all statutory auditors of PIEs must rigorously adhere to the existing Standards on Auditing (SAs) and Standard on Quality Control (SQC)1 regarding the maintenance, archival, and submission of audit documentation. NFRA has observed notable deficiencies, prompting a clear articulation of compliance requirements.

NFRAs Twin Imperatives the new era of audit accoutability

THE NON-NEGOTIABLE: CONTEMPORANEOUS DOCUMENTATION

The foundational principle of SAs is that audit documentation must be prepared contemporaneously as the audit is performed. NFRA highlights observed instances where audit firms requested unreasonable extensions, using that time to convert file formats or even worse, prepare fresh/additional documentation after the fact. This practice is a direct violation of professional standards and compromises the integrity of the audit process.

Practical Problem: An audit firm receives an NFRA request for a 3-year-old audit file. The original electronic workpapers were poorly maintained, and the firm considers “tidying up” or regenerating certain schedules before submission.

Circular’s Stance: This is explicitly prohibited. Any modification or addition to original workpapers is a violation. The documentation must exist in its final, archived form (assembled within 60 days of the report date) and be ready for submission on short notice.

INTEGRITY OF ELECTRONIC RECORDS

A major point of concern for NFRA is the loss of data integrity during format conversions. The circular emphasizes that audit evidence obtained or prepared originally in electronic form must be preserved and maintained in that exact form.

Practical Problem: To compile a submissiondossier, a firm prints original MS-Excel worksheets and then scans them into a single, unsearchable PDF for NFRA or provides printed manual file to NFRA.

Circular’s Stance: This practice is unacceptable. Printing electronic documents and / or scanning them removes crucial metadata (timestamps, authorship, history of changes), formulas, and links to underlying data. This loss of evidentiary value means the documents “cannot constitute valid audit evidence”. Original electronic files must be preserved electronically unless conversion to any other form can be done without loss of evidentiary value.

RETENTION BEYOND SEVEN YEARS: A CRITICAL CAVEAT

Paragraph 82 and 83 of SQC 1 read with A23 of SA 230 suggests a minimum retention period of seven years from the auditor’s report date. However, NFRA clarifies a critical legal requirement often overlooked by firms.

Practical Problem: A regulatory investigation begins in year six of the retention period. The auditor assumes they can delete the files once the seven years are complete, regardless of the ongoing case.

Circular’s Stance: The auditor must retain the audit files even beyond the standard seven-year timeline if legal or regulatory proceedings have been instituted and are ongoing. Preservation of evidence is a legal requirement under Indian law once production in a proceeding is compelled. Such documents must be retained until the proceedings attain finality.

ACTIONABLE COMPLIANCE POINTS

Firms must update their internal policies immediately to reflect these points of compliance:

  • Submission Window: Be prepared to submit complete files within 7 days of an NFRA request.
  •  Extension Requirements: Extensions are for exceptional circumstances only and require detailed justification and upfront submission of key audit documents (Audit Strategy and Audit Plan, Risk Assessment Summary, Summary of corrected and uncorrected misstatements and copies of all communication with Audit Committees and Board of Directors. Details ascertaining completeness of the Audit file are also required to be submitted which includes details such as total number of pages of paper audit file and / or total volume of electronic file in MBs, The index of the paper audit file and / or list of documents in the electronic file are also required to be submitted along with the application for seeking extension within seven days of receipt of communication from NFRA. These requirements ensure completeness of file integrity to be produced by the entity and would act as a deterrent for preparation of fresh / additional documents to improve the file post the archival date.
  • File assembly and archival: Final files must be assembled and archived within the 60-days from the date of the audit report. If NFRA requisitions a file, it must be submitted within 7 days.

STRENGTHENING THE BRIDGE: COMMUNICATION WITH THOSE CHARGED WITH GOVERNANCE (TCWG)

The Circular dated January 7, 2026, focuses on the “two-way” nature of communication required by SA 260 and SA 265. This circular is applicable to all listed companies, companies and bodies corporate as specified in Rule 3 of NFRA Rules, 2018 and auditors of such companies.

Action items for stakeholders.

Category Key Compliance Requirements / Action Points
Statutory Auditor (Section 143 of CA 2013)

Identify and determine TCWG at the start of the audit at the planning stage and communicate planned scope, timing, and significant risks. The Process of communication must be two ways.

Board of Directors (Section 134 of CA 2013) Approve financial statements including consolidated financial statements, selection of accounting policies, making judgements/ estimates on reasonable and prudent basis, maintaining safeguards on assets and preventing and detecting fraud, preparation of financial statements on a going concern basis, implementation of internal controls over financial reporting and to ensure their operating effectiveness, and provide the Directors’ Responsibility Statement; establish proper systems to ensure compliance with laws and regulations.
Audit Committee (Section 177 of CA 2013) Review and monitor auditor independence and performance; discuss areas of judgment/estimates with auditors (e.g. related party transactions, inter corporate loans and investments, Internal controls, valuation of assets, critical estimates etc.,).The Audit Committee is also responsible to ensure the effectiveness of audit process.
Independent Directors- Schedule IV of CA 2013 Satisfy themselves of the integrity of financial information; ensure concerns are recorded in Board minutes if unresolved, induction and regular updating of skills, knowledge and familiarity with the company, approving related party transactions and reporting concerns about unethical behaviour, actual or suspected fraud and violation of Company’s code of conduct / ethical policy.

NFRA has noted instances where auditors incorrectly identified Management Executives as TCWG or relied solely on the engagement letter for communication. To improve governance, NFRA suggests:

  •  Inadequate evaluation and Incorrect identification of TCWG: SA 260 defines TCWG “as those with responsibility of overseeing the strategic direction of the company and obligations relating to the accountability of the entity”. For some entities, those charged with governance may include management personnel, for example, executive members of a governance board of a private or public sector entity, or an owner-manager It casts mandatory requirement for an auditor to determine appropriate persons as TCWG within the governance structure. The Board of Directors (BOD) or a sub-group thereof could qualify for being considered as TCWG. In case the sub-group of BOD is identified as a TCWG, it would be incumbent on the auditor to determine whether there would arise a need to communicate with the full Board.

SA 260 defines Management as “The person(s) with executive responsibility for the conduct of the entity’s operations. For some entities, management includes some or all of those charged with governance, for example, executive members of a governance board, or an owner-manager” A practical issue would arise in distinguishing TCWG from Management and often discussions with management are erroneously construed as discussions with TCWG.

Executive responsibility involves the mandate of executive leadership to administer and enforce laws and policies through operational oversight. The difference lies in the fiduciary scope of oversight held by the board of directors, focused on “supervision and guidance” of the company’s long-term interests and fiscal performance. It involves a “duty of care” to make informed decisions and a “duty of loyalty” to safeguard shareholder interests versus the duty of execution administrative duty to “carry laws and policies into effect,” focusing on day-to-day operations and tactical implementation.

  •  Documentation of Two-way Communication: Oral communications must be documented in writing with clear communication in an unambiguous manner of auditor’s responsibilities, the form of communication, date and time of communication along with the participants must be specified. The Communications should include discussions such as strategic decisions, suspected or identified fraud discussions, auditors approach for testing internal controls, specialised skill requirements such as fair value measurements, expected credit loss allowance and critical management estimates and forecasts, compliance statements by auditors in relation to Code of Ethics, non-audit services ( section 141 and 144 of CA 2013 compliance) and matters of concern to senior management including from the internal audit function.

Some of the critical aspects of documentation requirements are enunciated as below:

› Purpose and objective of communications to have better understanding of relevant issues and the expected actions arising from the communication process.

› The nodal officers who would represent the engagement team and TCWG respectively.

›  The auditor’s expectation that communication will be two-way, and that those charged with governance will communicate with the auditor matters they consider relevant to the audit, for example, strategic decisions that may significantly affect the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures, the suspicion or the detection of fraud, and concerns with the integrity or competence of senior management.

›  The process for acting and reporting back on matters communicated by the auditor and the process of taking matters back to TCWG and escalation if required.

›  Matters that may be discussed with management in the ordinary course of an audit

›  Manner of communication with third parties for example bankers or lawyers or certain regulatory authorities. Or the Manner in which written communications by the auditor’s may be presented to third parties by TCWG

› Effective means of communications could be structured presentations and written reports as well as less structured communications, including discussions. Written communications may include an engagement letter that is provided to those charged with governance.

›  Audit Committee Meeting (ACM) presentations in bullet form without adequate supporting documentation or e-mail communications with caveats or without management comments or responses are unacceptable.

  •  Frequency of meetings: NFRA has recommended that, auditors and TCWG should meet in person or virtually at least twice a year—once before the audit starts and once before the approval of financial statements. Often presentations made to Audit Committee at the time of approval of financial statements are the only evidence available in the audit file which evidences meetings with lesser frequency.
  • Communication of critical matters not communicated: NFRA identified that often matters such as weakness and deficiencies in internal controls, related party transactions and assessment of arm’s length, significant unusual transactions, non-compliance of laws and regulations, discussions with group entities, borrowings and supplier finance arrangements, land advances, significant investments and matters required to be communicated as prescribed by Standards of Auditing are not communicated to TCWG.
  • Specific Agenda: Interactions must include quantification of materiality, assessment of Risk of Material Misstatement (ROMM), and status of work, significant findings, significant difficulties encountered during the audit must be communicated to TCWG and an agenda for the matters to be communicated and timing and frequency thereof must be finalised at the commencement of the audit engagement for the year.

THE MIRROR OF INTROSPECTION

The dual mandates from NFRA are not merely administrative updates; they are a redefinition of the auditor’s burden of proof. The December 16, 2025 circular, on maintenance, archival, retentions and submission of audit files unmasks the excuses for delayed or altered documentation and emphasis on contemporaneous documentation of audit files.

The circular dated January 7, 2026 on effective two-way communication removes the veil of “management-only” discussions. As practitioners, we must ask ourselves:

  • If a regulator were to demand our audit file today, would it reveal a contemporaneous record of professional scepticism, or a hurried reconstruction of events?
  • Would the minutes of our meetings with the Board reflect a robust challenge of accounting estimates, or a “bullet-point presentation” with no evidence of meaningful dialogue?

The era of “implied compliance” is over. We are now in the age of “demonstrated governance.” It is time for every firm, from the local practices to the global networks to look within and introspect. The files we archive today are the only source of defence we will have tomorrow. The question remains; are we truly ready for that that scrutiny?

From The President

My Dear BCAS Family,

As I start to pen my thoughts, another financial year has ended. This has prompted me to reflect on how the audit profession is keeping pace with the rapidly changing landscape, in which the businesses we audit are no longer confined to tangible assets and predictable revenue streams. We now navigate complex financial instruments, platform-driven business models, increasingly intricate related-party structures and the emerging frontier of ESG and sustainability reporting, where assurance standards are still taking shape. Are we, as a profession, truly keeping pace with the world we are being asked to audit?

Further, technology, primarily driven by AI, is bringing about a tectonic shift in the audit profession. Finally, communication has always been a major pillar of the audit profession, be it in the form of the Audit Report, communication to Those Charged With Governance (TCWG), Engagement team discussions and Audit Documentation, is under greater public scrutiny by various stakeholders and regulators, thereby changing its role and importance.

Accordingly, I feel it is appropriate to discuss the themes of Upskilling and Communication and their roles within the audit profession’s changing dynamics.

The Evolving Auditor Adapt or Fade

UPSKILLING – AN ESSENTIAL IMPERATIVE OF THE AUDIT PROFESSION

Audit, over the years, has been rooted in processes such as planning, execution, and reporting, which require skills such as professional scepticism, technical accounting knowledge, an understanding of internal controls, auditing standards, and relevant laws and regulations. How we apply these processes has drastically transformed over the past few years and we have not seen the last of it.

Some of the important changes like automation of routine work, increasing volume and complexity of data, emerging areas like cyber security and IT audit and the ever-expanding and complex regulatory environment, demand increasingly specialised skill sets which were not the core competency of the profession.

While each of these changes may not represent an immediate threat to the profession, they make it imperative for the auditor to upskill to remain relevant. Further, upskilling cannot be achieved by attending seminars alone; it requires a conscious effort to acquire new capabilities that enable auditors to add greater value and improve the quality and delivery of services. Though the list of areas where upskilling is required is unlimited, the following are, in my view, certain critical domain skills which auditors need to acquire.

Data Analytics: Proficiency in data analytics tools, whether it is Excel or at a more sophisticated level like Power BI, Python, etc., is now a baseline expectation rather than a distinguishing skill. It helps structure and interrogate large datasets, identify anomalies, and provide insightful analysis well beyond routine compliance verification.

Technology and IT Audit: Every auditor working with technology-dependent organisations, which are now predominant, needs knowledge of cloud architecture, application controls, access management, and cybersecurity controls to analyse their impact on financial reporting risk. Certifications such as DISA and CISA, as well as courses offered by ICAI’s Digital Accounting and Assurance Board (DAAB), are valuable starting points.

Soft Skills: As transactional and compliance work becomes more automated, the distinctively human dimensions of the audit relationship assume greater importance. The ability to communicate complex findings in plain language, provide constructive guidance, and build trusted relationships at the board and audit committee levels is a skill no algorithm can replicate.

This brings me to the role of communication within the changing audit paradigm.

CHANGING ROLE OF COMMUNICATION FOR THE AUDIT PROFESSION

The audit profession today operates in an environment of remarkable complexity. The rise of data analytics, artificial intelligence, and blockchain has altered not only how audits are conducted but also what auditors are expected to know and convey. The advent of real-time reporting means that stakeholders no longer wait for an annual report; they expect continuous, transparent, and digestible financial intelligence. These changes demand a corresponding evolution in how auditors communicate.

A few of the relevant changes are as follows:

Changing Architecture of the Audit Report: The traditional audit report, has evolved from a boilerplate template, to include Key Audit Matters, enabling focused communication between the auditors and financial statement users by highlighting areas of significant judgment and estimation, as well as the procedures followed to address them.

Communication to Those Charged with Governance (TCWG): While Standards on Auditing always dealt with this topic, the expectations of Boards, Audit Committees and Management have increased in the recent past with greater expectations of conversations around internal control weaknesses, going concern assessments, fraud risk, management estimates and judgements, related party transactions, etc. Further, the recent circular dated 7th January, 2026, issued by NFRA mandates a two-way communication process, as opposed to the one-way process from the Auditors to the Audit Committee and TCWG, which had been the general norm. Accordingly, commencing from 1st April, 2026, Boards would have to clearly define who would be considered as TCWG and also document an overall communication framework between TCWG and auditors.

Technology and Digital Communications: Digital communication channels like email, video calls, and other digital platforms have transformed the nature of communication, making it more informal, thereby challenging audit documentation in terms of the SAs. Further, the use of AI-driven audit tools and their algorithmic opacity, together with cyber breaches and data privacy considerations under the recently enacted DPDP Act, pose new challenges and limitations for auditors’ client communications.

ROLE OF BCAS

Over the past seven decades, BCAS has supported various capacity-building initiatives, focusing on programmes on emerging and contemporary topics, as well as advocacy and research initiatives such as the recent research paper on Global Taxation. The recent lecture by CA Nawshir Mirza, “Auditors Expectations from Audit Committees,” could not have been more timely in the context of the NFRA circular referred to above. Our mentorship programmes also establish a cross-generational communication channel.

Adaptability is Non-Negotiable

To conclude, I would like to refer to the famous quote by the naturalist and scientist Charles Darwin in the context of the transformation driven by AI and digital transformation, making it imperative for the audit profession to adapt continuously.

“It is not the strongest of the species that survive, nor the most intelligent, but one most responsive to change”

A big thank you to one and all!

Warm Regards,

 

CA. Zubin F. Billimoria

President

When Words No Longer Reveal The Writer

For centuries, the written word has served as a window into the mind of the writer. The clarity of language suggests good reasoning ability, the structure of an argument reveals intellectual discipline, and the tone of expression hints at maturity and judgment.

Not surprisingly, this assumption has shaped many important decision-making processes in professional life. Employers evaluate candidates as fit for the interview rounds through résumés and cover letters. Academic institutions judge merit through essays, statements of purpose and research papers. Organizations assess performance through reports, presentations, and written self-evaluations. Even outside formal settings, articles, blogs, and public commentary allow readers to infer the depth and authenticity of the writer.

Words vs Wisdom The AI Mirror

All of these processes rest on an implicit assumption – that the words on the page are the product of the mind behind them. That assumption is now undergoing a significant disruption.

THE DETACHMENT OF WRITING FROM THINKING

Artificial intelligence has dramatically lowered the effort required to produce a structured article, a professional bio, a thoughtful LinkedIn post, or a carefully worded proposal. Grammar, coherence, and even persuasive tone can be produced instantly. As a result, writing is gradually becoming detached from the thinking that traditionally underpinned it. Quite often, excellent writing may reflect the fluency of an algorithm or efficient prompt writing rather than the clarity of the individual.

This does not mean AI-assisted writing is inherently problematic. In many situations it improves efficiency and communication. The difficulty arises when readers continue to assume that the traditional strong link between writing and thinking still exists. When that assumption persists, the consumer of written material faces a new kind of risk.

THE RISK OF MISPLACED INFERENCE

Employee evaluations illustrate this risk clearly. In many organizations, written self-assessments, project reports, and summaries form a significant part of performance reviews. Traditionally these documents helped managers understand how employees approached problems and articulated insights. Today, such documents may be heavily assisted by AI systems capable of organizing ideas, refining arguments, and enhancing tone. If evaluators rely heavily on the written submission, they may inadvertently reward presentation rather than genuine contribution.

The same challenge arises in recruitment. Résumés, statements of purpose, and cover letters have long been tools for understanding a candidate’s intellectual orientation. Yet these documents can now be drafted and optimized with remarkable ease. The written artifact, once central to evaluation, is gradually losing its diagnostic value as a reliable indicator of original thinking.

The risk exists across other areas as well. In professional services such as auditing, taxation, and advisory, written opinions and reports have traditionally reflected the practitioner’s understanding and judgment. When such documents are increasingly drafted with heavy technological assistance, the ability to distinguish genuine insight from polished language becomes more important than ever.

HOW DO WE SEPARATE THE WHEAT FROM THE CHAFF IN SUCH AN ENVIRONMENT?

At a macro level, as writing becomes easier to generate, deeper capabilities will be the key to differentiate between professionals. At the highest level, the question arises of integrity of the author. AI may generate a perceived reality, which may not be the truth. One will therefore have to rely on other attributes as well.

Some deep questions may help evaluate conceptual clarity. Those who understand underlying principles can apply them flexibly and explain them without relying on prepared language.

Judgment under uncertainty also gains importance. Real professional decisions involve incomplete information and competing priorities. Algorithms can summarize options, but they cannot assume responsibility for choices.

Checking about practical experiences helps since exposure to real-world situations—client interactions, negotiations, and implementation challenges—creates insights that cannot easily be synthesized.

Intellectual humility also becomes a signal of credibility. In an environment where language can appear artificially confident, professionals who acknowledge uncertainty often demonstrate deeper understanding.

Recruitment and evaluation processes will need to focus on these differentiating factors. Instead of treating written output as proof of thinking, evaluators must treat it as the starting point for inquiry. The key question is no longer simply: How well is this written? The more relevant question is: Does the individual genuinely own the thinking expressed here? Written submissions will remain useful, but they should be complemented by methods that test genuine understanding: interactive discussions, scenario-based questioning, and detailed probing of past experiences. Such approaches allow evaluators to observe how individuals think rather than how effectively they can produce polished text. The emphasis must gradually shift from documentation to demonstration. This is most important – can the author say it with the same tone, passion and clarity. These methods will uncover the reality beneath the coverings of writing.

A WORD OF CAUTION FOR PROFESSIONALS

For those seeking AI assistance for writing, a note of caution: while such tools can enhance productivity and improve communication, excessive reliance on them can gradually outsource one’s own thinking process. Maintaining intellectual ownership therefore becomes essential. Professionals must question automated outputs, reflect on their reasoning, and ensure that their understanding extends beyond the words they present. Ultimately, those who use AI as an aid to thinking will benefit. Those who use it as a substitute for thinking may find their credibility increasingly fragile.

CLOSING REFLECTIONS

For centuries, writing was assumed to be a mirror of the mind. Today it may sometimes be a mirror of the machine. In this new environment, the true differentiator will not be the ability to produce impressive language. It will be the ability to demonstrate authentic thought behind that language. And that distinction, unlike good grammar, cannot be automated.

Best Regards,

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

Editor

‘म’ कारा दश चञ्चला:

मा मनो मधुपो मेघो मद्यपो मर्कटो मरुत्

मक्षिका मत्कुणो मत्स्या ‘ म’ कारा दश चञ्चला:

This is a very well-known and interesting saying. It says, there are ten things whose names start with the alphabet M ( म ) which are very unstable ( चञ्चला: ) or unsteady.

The 10 Unstable Ms

मा Means Lakshmi. Wealth. Everybody knows. It is never stable. It comes and suddenly disappears. A super rich man suddenly becomes a pauper!

मनः Mind. It needs no elaboration.

मधुप: Honeybee. It keeps on flying from one tree to another.

मद्यप: A drunk person. No explanation needed.

मर्कट: Monkey. Self-explanatory! Sometimes, a monkey even becomes a ruler of State!

मरुत् Wind or Breeze.

मासिका A fly. Never relaxes at one place.

माकुण: A bug.

मत्स्य: Fish. Seldom is it found at one place. Continuously on the move.

The keen observations of the poets creating such Subhashits is amazing. If one applies one’s mind, there is lot of learning. In fact, it suggests that our life is also unstable. Therefore, all philosophies like Bhagwad Gita and Yoga aim at stabilizing the mind which is the most unstable one. Once mind is stable and detached, we don’t get mentally affected by uncertainties of life.

They say the change is the only constant. All these 10 things keep on changing their places. Man should control his mind so that he can control all unstable things and achieve peace in life.

59th Members’ Residential Refresher Course – A Report

The flagship event of BCAS, the Members’ Residential Refresher Course (RRC), was held in the “Silicon Valley of India” – Bengaluru between Friday, 23rd January, 2026 and Monday, 26th January, 2026.

In an era where the role of the Chartered Accountants is rapidly evolving beyond compliances into Strategy, Leadership, Technology, And Trusted Advisory, Practice 360° – A Holistic Revolution seeks to Re-Imagine the modern CAs’ practice. This Members’ RRC was designed to provide a comprehensive, 360-degree perspective on Professional Practice—integrating technical topics of Taxation and Audit with Technology Adoption, Global Opportunities, Strategic Collaboration and Leadership.

A recce in December 2025 helped the Seminar, Membership & Public Relations (SMPR) Committee to decide the venue as Sheraton Grand Bengaluru Whitefield Hotel & Convention Center, Whitefield, Bengaluru.

As the RRC approached and preparations were in full swing, it was decided to further enhance the value of this year’s RRC paper book. Traditionally, the paper book has comprised only case studies / presentation papers. This year, however, it was thoughtfully expanded to include 16 articles authored by former Presidents of BCAS, eminent Chartered Accountants, a Doctor, and members of the BCAS staff. Last year during the 58th Members’ RRC, the participants paid homage to Ram Lalla and sought His blessings at Shree Ram Mandir, Ayodhya. This year, the SMPR Committee chose to visit an institution of academic excellence – the Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIM-B). The visit to IIM Bangalore with an exclusive session with the Dean, complemented by engaging Group Discussions, Insightful Paper Presentations, and thought-provoking Brain Trust sessions, elicited an exceptional response. With a total of 155 participants drawn from 26 States / Union Territories and 35 cities and towns, the RRC witnessed pan-India participation.

On Day 1, participants from all parts of the country descended into Bengaluru. They were greeted with warm hospitality by the hotel staff and the BCAS events team. Post lunch, all gathered for the Group Discussion on “Taxation (Domestic and International) – Family Office & Succession Planning”.

Inauguration of the 59th

Addressing at Inaugural Session

It was followed by the Inaugural Session wherein President, CA Zubin Billimoria welcomed all the participants and spoke about the Committee’s decision to visit a different kind of temple—the “Temple of Knowledge,” the Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIM-B). Former President and Chairman of the Committee, CA Uday Sathaye, provided a comprehensive overview of the RRC, emphasizing its objectives, relevance and thought process behind its comprehensive agenda including other relevant highlights of RRC. The Chief Guest CA F. R. Singhvi then lit the ceremonial lamp flanked by the President, the Vice President, Former Presidents, the Chairman / Co-Chairman of the Committee, Joint Secretaries and Committee Convenors.

Guiding the Group

CA F R Singhvi & CA Rahul Gabhawala

CA F. R. Singhvi gave a compelling speech on “Ethics in Business and Profession”. He emphasized on the importance of Chartered Accountants practicing their profession with integrity and ethics. He also extolled the members to step out of traditional practice areas and spoke of his dream to see a Big 4/ Big 6 among Indian CA firms.

The next session was a Presentation Paper by CA Rahul Gabhawala on “Technology Masterclass – Workshop on Tools & Techniques in Taxation”. The session was chaired by Former President CA Govind Goyal. The session was conducted in a classroom format, with participants receiving hands-on instruction on their laptops in the fundamentals of Selenium, an open-source browser automation tool.

Day 2 commenced with a Presentation Paper by CA Vishal Doshi on “Audit Quality Maturity Model and Standard of Quality Control 1 – Building Quality Audit Firms” wherein he provided practical guidance on its implementation. The session was chaired by CA Uday Sathaye.

The next session was the replies by CA Girish Vanvari to the Case Studies discussed the previous day. He provided an overview of key considerations of M&A transactions happening in the real world and the practical way forward. The session was chaired by Former President CA Pranay Marfatia.

Speakers RRC

This was followed by a 40-40 session where CA Manish Dafria provided a quick overview of “The Income Tax Act, 2025”. The session was chaired by CA Sanjay Shah.

Post a refreshing and sumptuous lunch, next session “Global Outsourcing – Broadening one’s horizons” was addressed by CA Chetan Venugopal. He introduced the participants to the opportunities available for Chartered Accountants at the global level and shared his journey of leading his organization from being a start-up with two founders, to a multinational organization with more than 2,000 employees! The session was chaired by Vice President, CA Kinjal Shah.

Panel Discussion

Despite a tiring day, the participants enthusiastically attended the last session of the day – the Inter-Disciplinary Brain Trust session covering “Hospitality (Hotel, Travel & Tourism) and Start-ups”. The esteemed panel of CA H. Padamchand Khincha, CA Mandar Telang and CA Mohan Lavi presented their views on the case studies at hand. The session was ably moderated by CA Priya Bhansali and CA Sanjay Dhariwal. The panelists deep dived into the various intricacies of the case studies.

IIM Bangalore Shri Sourav M

Day 3 began on an energetic note, with the enthusiasm of the participants evident in the early hours of the morning as they got into the coaches to head to IIM-B campus. During the guided campus tour, participants enjoyed exploring the lush green and iconic surroundings, enthusiastically capturing photographs at locations made famous by the the movie “3 Idiots” which had been shot on the campus. The tour offered a glimpse into the academic legacy and serene environment of one of India’s premier management institutions.

Following the campus tour, all assembled in the auditorium, setting the stage for the next segment – an engaging session on “Strategic Thinking” by Shri Sourav Mukherji, the Dean, Faculty & Professor, Organizational Behavior and Human Resources Management.

The session commenced with a short introduction on the subject followed by an interactive discussion with the participants on the case study of “Robinhood”. The Professor drew parallels with the challenges faced by modern day business houses/ organizations. He concluded the session with an important message – not all problems have only one right or wrong answer. The same needs to be solved by Critical Thinking, Experimentation and Debates. Post ethnic South Indian meal, the participants embarked on the return journey.

After a refreshing tea break and the RRC group photo, the participants gathered in their break-out groups for the group discussion on a paper “Collaborations & Coalitions – Mergers, Acquisitions, Alliances between CA Firms”.

Group Dicussion

The session following this was the 40:40 session “Government Schemes applicable to MSME & Professional Firms” by CA Piyush Mital wherein he gave an overview of the various subsidies available especially to Chartered Accountants/ their firms. The session was chaired by CA Mrinal Mehta.

The evening concluded with a townhall wherein the President, Vice President, Chairman, Co-Chairman, and Convenors shared their experiences in organising and hosting the RRC. Participants who had contributed towards the RRC in various capactities were felicitated with a memento. With more than 40 participants as first-timers at the RRC, many of them took to the stage to acknowledge the powerful impact the sessions had left on them and promised to become a regular face at future RRCs. The engaging Group Discussions, Insightful Paper Presentations, and thought-provoking Brain Trust session complemented by a visit to IIM Bangalore with an exclusive session by the Dean drew much admiration with positive response.

Day 4 commenced with the replies to the case studies by CA Guru Prasad Makam. He addressed the audience by drawing upon his extensive real-life experiences. He shared his learnings and insights in a frank manner. His talk elicited two standing ovations from the audience. The session was chaired by CA Chirag Doshi.

Following this session was a presentation on “Role of CFO in Disruptive Start-Ups” by CA Rajiv Gupta. The session was chaired by CA Uttamchand Jain.

Closing Ceremony

CONCLUDING SESSION:

In the concluding session, the President and the Chairman expressed their appreciation to all those whose efforts contributed to the smooth and successful execution of yet another RRC, with special appreciation for the support extended by the local members, CA Sujatha G and CA Sanjay Dhariwal.

As the curtains were drawn, marking yet another impactful RRC that encouraged meaningful reflection on the current landscape of the profession and its future direction, the gathering was aptly concluded by a poem in Hinglish by a participant, CA Sweety Kothari:

1) Vanvari Sir ka family office aur succession par flawless deliberation

Singhvi Sir ka professional ethics ka important lesson

Rahul Sir ka computer program ke self writing ka direction

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

2) Vishal Doshi Sir ka AQMM ka point-wise explanation

Chetan Sir ka lecture on broadening horizons

Manish Sir ka IT Act 2025 ka practical vishleshan (analysis)

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

3) Hotel start-ups wala brain trust session

Padamchand Khincha Sir ka complicated issues par refined opinion

Mandarji Mohanji ka har case par full explanation

Priya Ji Sanjay Ji ka soft but up-to-mark moderation

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

4) Guru Sir ka CA firms merger wala equation

Rajiv Sir ka CFO role ki nayi definition

Piyushji ka government subsidy ka simplification

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

5) IIM campus tour par jaana

Gyaan ke mandir ki parikrama lagaana

Sourav Ji ka Robinhood case samjhaana

Hum mein Strategic thinking ki spark jagaana

Chirag Ji ka hare tortoise ki story new perspective se sunaana

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

6) Sessions ke beech mein samay churaana

Different professionals se ghul mil jaana

Lunch dinner par milna aur gapiyana (gossip)

Bus mein Hindi-Tamil songs ek sur mein gaana

Swimming pool ke kinaare der raat tak gossip

Poking, joking, hasna aur khilkhilaana (laughter)

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

7) Uday Sir ke couplets aur enthusiasm

Sheraton ka stay aur delicious vyanjan (delicacies)

Chirag, Preeti, Aditya, Vivek ka flawless coordination

Zubin Sir ka experienced margdarshan

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

8) Siddharth Dikshita ka Bangalore ghumaana

Corner House ka almond fudge khilaana

Raat ko 1 baje waffle order karna

Bangalore RRC mein unforgettable memories banana

Yaad rahega! Yaad rahega!

Group Photos

Learning Events at BCAS

1. Blood Donation & Platelet Donation Awareness Drive held on Friday 13th February 2026 @ BCAS.

On Friday, 13th February 2026, the BCAS Foundation, jointly with the Seminar, Membership & Public Relations Committee of BCAS, held the annual “Blood Donation Drive”, enlisting the support of Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH).

Blood Donation

Doctors and technicians from TMH screened 63 potential donors using a detailed questionnaire they completed. 54 units of blood were collected from eligible donors, including the former president, the Hon. Joint Secretary, the Convenors of the SMPR committee, and BCAS members and staff.

To raise awareness and dispel myths about platelet donation, a “Platelet Donation Awareness Drive” was also held, with donors providing a blood sample for a platelet donation eligibility check.

In recognition of their invaluable contribution, each blood donor was presented with a “Life Saver” medal. NSS volunteers from H R College of Commerce & Economics and Dharma Bharathi Mission canvassed around the area to spread awareness of the drive and encourage interested parties to come and get their eligibility confirmed for donating blood to the noble cause.

2. Public Lecture Meeting on Direct Tax Provisions of Finance Bill, 2026 held on Saturday, 7th February 2026 @ Yogi Sabhagruh Auditorium, Dadar East.

The public lecture on Direct Tax Provisions under the Finance Bill 2026 was delivered by noted tax expert CA Shri Pinakin Desai before a packed audience at Yogi Sabhagruha, Dadar. The session assumed particular significance as this is the first Budget where amendments operate simultaneously in two legislations — the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the new Income-tax Act, 2025, which is set to come into force from 1 April 2026.

Public Lecture Meeting

Shri Desai described the Budget as largely calibrated and balanced, but cautioned that certain policy-level concerns emerging from the transition to the 2025 Act merit closer professional examination. He observed that while the Joint Parliamentary Committee largely confined itself to administrative aspects, some substantive policy shifts embedded in the new legislation may require representation and deeper deliberation at professional forums.

Certain deliberations from his session are covered here in brief:

1. Broad framework:

Unlike prior years, there were virtually no changes to slab rates. The focus was on structural rationalisation:

  • Calibration of Securities Transaction Tax (STT) to moderate speculative activity.
  • Rationalisation of TDS/TCS rates.
  • Reduction of TCS on overseas tour packages from 20% to 2%.

2. Corporate and Structural Reforms

MAT Regime:

From 1 April 2026, companies continuing under MAT may lose MAT credit going forward, effectively nudging domestic companies towards the concessional regime. Foreign companies, lacking this option, appear disproportionately affected.

ICDS and Ind AS Integration:

A proposal to merge ICDS with Ind AS has been introduced. Concerns remain regarding compatibility with IFRS-based accounting standards.

Transfer Pricing and Safe Harbour:

Safe harbour margins for IT-enabled services have been consolidated at 15% with an enhanced turnover threshold of ₹2,000 crore. Correlative relief is now provided to foreign companies where APAs lead to secondary adjustments.

Data Centres and GCCs:

Foreign companies procuring specified data centre services in India are granted tax protection up to 2047, reducing litigation around income attribution.

3. Computation and Compliance Amendments

Dividend and Interest:

No deduction of interest expenditure will be allowed against dividend or mutual fund income under “Income from Other Sources,” raising concerns on taxation of gross income principles.

Employees’ PF Contribution:

A relief measure now allows deduction if employees’ contribution is deposited before the due date of filing the return under section 139(1), even if delayed under the PF Act.

Buyback Taxation:

Buyback proceeds will be taxed under capital gains from 1 April 2026 instead of as dividend income. Promoter-category shareholders face higher specified tax rates, raising interpretational issues.

Unexplained Income:

Voluntary disclosure in the return attracts tax at 30%. If detected in an assessment, immunity from penalty requires payment of tax plus 120% additional tax.

4. Litigation and Procedural Changes

Decriminalisation:

Several prosecution provisions have been removed or diluted, with reduced imprisonment terms and enhanced monetary thresholds — a significant compliance reform.

Retrospective Amendments:

Four retrospective amendments, including one dating back to 2007 relating to DRP timelines, were introduced — a development viewed with concern.

Mandatory Fees:

Certain penalties are proposed to be converted into mandatory fees, removing discretion and the opportunity of hearing.

Combined Assessment and Penalty Orders:

Assessment and penalty may now be passed through a combined order. While the recovery of the penalty may remain stayed on appeal, concerns were expressed about potential bias and increased litigation exposure.

5. Other Notable Clarifications

Sovereign Gold Bonds:

Exemption on redemption will apply only to primary subscribers holding bonds till maturity, though coverage is extended to all bond series prospectively.

Compulsory Acquisition:

Exemption relating to acquisition under the land acquisition law is now incorporated into the Income-tax Act, though limited to individuals and HUFs, creating possible interpretational issues for companies.

In conclusion, Shri Desai remarked that although the Budget may outwardly appear minimalist, it contains several nuanced structural changes with long-term implications for corporate taxation, transfer pricing, litigation strategy, and compliance architecture.

The meeting witnessed an enthusiastic response, with over 400 participants attending in person and more than 11,491 viewers online and still counting.

The lecture meeting can be viewed on the BCAS YouTube channel at the designated QR code.

Public Lecture

3. 26th Course on Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements held from Monday 15th December 2025 to Thursday 29th January 2026@ Virtual.

Following the highly successful and well-received Silver Jubilee edition of the Course on Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, which featured a revised format, this edition returned to the traditional format of live sessions covering all topics. The course broadly included the following:

• 28 sessions on various international tax topics and covered almost all the key articles of the DTAAs.

• An overview of FEMA / MLI / GAAR, Transfer Pricing/ key provisions under the Income-tax Act/ TDS on payments to non-residents/ Dispute resolution under MAP, APA, etc.

• A Brain Trust session with distinguished panelists, and key current issues were debated, with panelists sharing divergent perspectives.

The sessions were relevant for beginners and intermediate levels of knowledge in international tax, with emphasis on case studies and sharing of practical insights.

More than 150 participants from more than 30 cities attended the course.

Scan to watch online at BCAS Academy

26th DTAA

4. Direct Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting – “Analysis of Section 56(2) (x) of the Act with Practical Scenarios” held on Wednesday, 28th January 2026@ Virtual.

Section 56(2)(x) is a significant anti-abuse provision that aims to tax receipts of money or specified property without, or for inadequate consideration. The session highlighted key tax provisions, legal principles, and practical considerations involved in interpreting and applying the provision, particularly in the context of varied practical transactions.

Speaker: CA Chaitee Londhe

  • The session provided an overview of Section 56(2) (x) as a residuary charging provision and explained the conditions governing its applicability.
  • The expanded scope of the provision covering all categories of persons and specified properties was discussed.
  • Judicial principles laid down by courts on the classification of income under appropriate heads were briefly highlighted.
  • Practical implications of receipt of money or property without or for inadequate consideration were examined.
  • Key scenarios involving compensation and indemnity receipts, distress-driven transactions, and waiver of loans were analysed.
  • The taxability of issue and receipt of shares, including valuation-related aspects, was deliberated with reference to case law.
  • The interplay between Section 56(2) (x) and Section 68 was discussed to highlight practical assessment issues.
  • Certain complex and evolving scenarios, including transactions involving relatives and digital assets, were briefly touched upon.

The session was highly interactive, with active participation from the members. The speaker presented the complex provisions of Section 56(2) (x) in a structured and practical manner, enabling participants to gain clarity on its application across varied scenarios.

5. Lecture Meeting on Decision of Supreme Court in Tiger Global and it’s ramifications held on Friday, 23rd January 2026 @ Virtual

The lecture meeting, arranged to discuss the Supreme Court (SC) ruling in the case of Tiger Global pronounced on 15 January 2026, received wide interest from across India, given the ramifications of the decision. The chairman of the Session, Shri R. S. Syal laid down the context of the decision. The moderator CA Mahesh Nayak took the participants through the decision before opening the floor for brainstorming. Other Panelists, CA Rajan Vora and Adv. Rajesh Simhan addressed barrage of questions arising from the SC ruling in the Tiger Global. The Chairman, Adv. R. S. Syal also provided his thoughts on each of the questions raised to the panelists.

The discussion was focused on how one reads some of the observations of the Supreme Court as well as practically, how the decision impacts taxpayers, as well as Chartered Accountants who certify the taxability on foreign remittances. Some of the questions posed to the panel were:

  • Whether the decision of the Supreme Court is only prima facie or is it a final ruling on the taxability?

  • Can Judicial Anti-Avoidance provisions apply when GAAR rules are already in force?
  • What is the difference between an investment and an arrangement, and what is grandfathered under the GAAR rules? Various other practical nuances (such as reopening of past matters / pending matters) were discussed.
  • The Lecture meeting was attended by around 745 participants

The lecture meeting can be viewed on the BCAS YouTube channel at the designated QR code.

Lecture Meeting on Decision of Supreme Court in Tiger Global and it's ramifications

6. Lecture Meeting on Ancient Roots, Global Routes: Reimagining Global Leadership for the Indian CA held on Wednesday, 21st January 2026 @ Mathuradas Vasanji Hall, Grant Road, Mumbai

Seminar, Membership & Public Relations (SMPR) Committee organized a Lecture Meeting was held “Ancient Roots, Global Routes: Reimagining Global Leadership for the Indian CA” – by CA Shourya Doval on 21st January 2026. CA Shourya Doval, in his address, stated that India is emerging as a major economic power, now ranked fourth globally. “There can be no global peace and no global order without India,” he said. The session focused on how Chartered Accountants must navigate a rapidly evolving international economic and financial landscape while remaining anchored to core principles. The discussions centred on ethical leadership and value-based decision-making as essential foundations for developing future leaders in the global economy.

Lecture Meeting on Ancient Roots Global

During the session, he was asked an insightful question: Coming from a proud Indian Military family, what inspired him to pursue Chartered Accountancy? His response reflected both depth and foresight. He explained that until 1990, global leadership was defined by military power, but the world thereafter began to be shaped by economic strength. His father had told him that future global influence would rest with nations built on strong economic foundations — a perspective that deeply resonated with him and ultimately inspired his decision to become a Chartered Accountant, contributing to the economic engine that drives nations forward.

The event concluded with interactions and networking among participants, underscoring BCAS’s focus on professional development and leadership preparedness within the Chartered Accountancy fraternity.

The lecture meeting was positioned alongside a guided tour specially conducted for BCAS members of the Jyot Foundation Exhibition “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam Ki Oar 4: The 12 Principles That Can Shape a New World Order,” designed to provide attendees with an expanded cultural and philosophical understanding of the Global Leadership dialogue.

7. Members’ Awareness Drive on Practice Management held on Saturday, 15th November 2025 to Saturday, 17th January 2026 @ Virtual.

The Seminar, Membership and Public Relations Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) organised the “Members’ Awareness Drive on Practice Management – Reimagining Practice: Awareness, Opportunities & Excellence – Empowering Every Member – One Area at a Time”. It was a 10-session virtual series held every Saturday from 15th November 2025 to 17th January 2026, with the objective of strengthening BCAS members’ practice management capabilities. In acknowledgement of the unwavering support displayed by the members to the flagship event of BCAS, all registered participants of the (then) upcoming 59th Members’ Residential Refresher Course were offered an opportunity to attend the series gratis.

The series focused on equipping practitioners to manage and grow their firms beyond technical competence, covering people management, technology adoption, profitability, collaboration, and future-readiness.

Session Highlights

  1. CA Mrinal Mehta addressed practical challenges and common errors in GST Annual Returns and reconciliations, offering actionable compliance insights
  2. CA Samit Saraf shared effective tools and techniques to strengthen internal audit processes and enhance audit value.
  3. CA Vivek Shah provided a practical roadmap for setting up a CA firm in Dubai, covering opportunities, challenges, costs, and market considerations
  4. CA Anand Banka discussed key nuances and practical complexities under IND AS with real-life application perspectives.
  5. CA Lokesh Nathani emphasised the power of networking in professional growth and building long-term practice sustainability.
  6. CA Nikunj Shah demonstrated how Artificial Intelligence can be harnessed to improve efficiency and competitiveness in CA practice.
  7. CA Mangesh Kinare shared practical insights on financial reporting for SMEs, drawing valuable learnings from disciplinary matters.
  8. CA Milin Mehta elaborated on strategic collaborations and firm mergers as growth drivers for small and mid-sized practices
  9. CA Sushrut Chitale guided members on building a future-ready firm through structured processes, technology, and strategic vision.
  10.  CA Chirag Mehta explained practical aspects of E-Invoicing and automation solutions tailored for small practitioners.

The sessions witnessed enthusiastic participation from the practising members, fostering meaningful discussions and the exchange of practical experiences.

8. BCAS NXT – Learning & Development Bootcamp – Overview of the New Income Tax Act, 2025 held on Friday, 16th January 2026 @ Virtual

The Human Resource Development Committee organised a BCAS NXT Learning & Development Bootcamp on “Overview of the New Income Tax Act, 2025” on Friday, 16th January 2026, from 5.00 pm to 7.00 pm.

The session was led by Ms Shravani Erram, a CA Final student, who delivered a detailed presentation covering an overview of the Income Tax Act, 2025, explaining the rationale behind the introduction of the new Act and the key structural and drafting changes. She highlighted important concepts such as the distinction between tax year and financial year, along with major comparative changes in heads of income, TDS, and TCS provisions. CA Aditya Pradhan, the mentor for the session, provided valuable insights and guidance throughout, offering expert interventions as needed.

The bootcamp was held in person at ASDT & CO and was also streamed online, with active participation from students across India.

More than 150+ students benefited from this session.

Scan to watch online on YouTube.

BCAS NXT - Learning & Development Bootcamp - Overview of the New Income Tax Act

9. GST Compliances & Returns – A Practical Walkthrough: BCAS Initiative for Students held on Tuesday, 13th January 2026 @ N M College.

The session on GST Compliances & Returns – A Practical Walkthrough was organised for third-year B.Com students, with 46 students participating. The objective of the programme was to provide students with a practical understanding of GST compliance and the return filing framework, bridging the gap between academic concepts and real-life application.

GST Compliances & Return

The session conducted by CA Mansi V. Nagda focused on the GST return mechanism and process flow, explaining the compliance cycle from reporting of transactions to filing of returns. A structured explanation of GST utility forms was undertaken, covering GSTR-1, GSTR-2A, and GSTR-3B, with key terminologies, functional flow, inter-linkages, and commonly encountered compliance issues.

Emphasis was laid on understanding outward and inward supply reporting, reconciliation aspects, summary return filing, and the importance of accuracy and timeliness in GST compliance. The session adopted an interactive approach, enabling students to clarify conceptual and procedural aspects of GST returns.

10. Lecture Meeting on The World in 2026 and Beyond held on Friday, 12th December 2025 @ BCAS (Hybrid)

The joint lecture meeting of the Bombay Chartered Accountants Society and the Chamber of Tax Consultants featured Mr Sundeep Waslekar, Founder of Strategic Foresight Group and an internationally recognised expert on geopolitics and future studies. The session examined the evolving global order in 2026 and beyond, focusing on geopolitical tensions, artificial intelligence, economic uncertainty and strategic realignments.

The speaker framed the present period as a transitional and potentially turbulent phase in world history, where the existing global order is weakening while a new framework has yet to stabilise.

Key Global Themes

– Western Political and Economic Strain- Persistent geopolitical conflicts, particularly the prolonged Ukraine war, combined with economic stress and political polarisation, could create instability in parts of the West. Such shifts may alter global power balances and open strategic space for emerging economies.

– The AI Arms Race – The competition between the United States and China has moved beyond consumer AI applications to AI-driven scientific discovery. Advanced systems capable of generating new insights in biology, chemistry and physics could redefine global technological leadership. Risks discussed included AI-enabled cyber warfare, biological threats and even autonomous military escalation, underscoring the need for ethical and strategic safeguards.

– Competing Models of World Order- If large-scale conflict is avoided, the next phase may involve a philosophical contest over models of global governance and power concentration. Current geopolitical manoeuvres were analysed in this broader context.

IMPLICATIONS FOR INDIA

India’s balanced geopolitical stance was described as strategically prudent. However, the speaker cautioned that India must invest more deeply in foundational scientific research and advanced AI systems, rather than limiting itself to application-level innovation. Space technology and next-generation computing were identified as important opportunity areas.

While moderate global growth remains possible, geopolitical shocks and rapid AI investments could significantly influence economic trajectories. The Gulf region’s rise as an AI and data infrastructure hub was noted, though accompanied by regional vulnerabilities.

The session concluded with a balanced perspective — acknowledging serious global risks while emphasising that the majority of nations and people seek stability and prosperity. The coming years will determine whether cooperative global leadership can prevail over destabilising forces.

The lecture witnessed active participation from members across regions, reflecting the profession’s growing engagement with global developments that increasingly influence economic and professional landscapes.

The lecture meeting can be viewed on the BCAS YouTube channel at the designated QR code.

II. BCAS INITIATIVES

  •  BCAS Signs MOU with SIMSREE

The Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) has signed an MOU with Sydenham Institute of Management Studies, Research and Entrepreneurship Education (SIMSREE) to establish a framework for cooperation in the areas of capacity building, training & skill development between the two Insititutions.

The MOU between BCAS & SIMREE is to facilitate and conduct the following activities as mutually agreed upon:

  1. Workshops & Seminars
  2. Curriculum Development
  3. Invitation to select Programs & use of each other’s premises
  4. Research & Advocacy

The MOU Signing Ceremony was conducted in the presence of President CA Zubin Billimoria, Vice President CA Kinjal Shah, Joint Secretary CA Mandar Telang, SMPR Committee Chairman CA Uday Sathaye & Past President CA Pradip Thanawala.

III. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  •  BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

QR Code:

BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

Gen Z

In a senior citizens’ association, members were discussing the present day’ inflation. All had become nostalgic – in the memories of their childhood. They were vying with one-another in describing how cheap the things were in their childhood. Their chat was something like this –

  •  When I used to go to the school, my bus fare was five naye paise! Since I was a regular ‘passenger’, occasionally conductor-uncle left me just like that! No ticket.
  •  Minimum local train fare was 30 naye paise! My father used to travel from Mumbai to Pune in just seven rupees!
  •  When I got married, the gold was 30 rupees a tola!
  •  In my college canteen, vada was 15 naye paise for – two pieces and tea was 10 paise!
  •  Minimum taxi fare was less than one rupee. I think 80 naye paise. That was a luxury. Taxi was hired only when we went on a long travel in a train, since there used to be big luggage with us.
  •  In our school picnic, the contribution per student used to be 3 to 5 rupees which my parents felt to be on higher side!
  •  With chilly and coriander, they used to give pieces of ginger free!

Likewise the discussion was going on. All of them expressed concern over the present day inflation, conveniently forgetting that their pension amount was about 10 times their last drawn salary at the time of retirement. This, of course, is human nature. We often have only one-sided thinking.

One gentleman narrated an interesting experience about Gen Z – his 6-year-old grandson. He said “Friends I was describing all this to my grandson who is just 6-year-old. I told that I used to accompany my father to the market during Diwali festival. He used to carry a few cloth bags with just 10 to 15 rupees in his pocket. We used to buy so many things! Grains, fruits, new clothing, toys, crackers, Diwali sweets, so on and so forth. It was difficult to carry the load of full bags. In addition, we also used to have masala dosa in a small hotel We visited restaurants only once or twice in a year!

My grandson was completely puzzled. He wondered why at all we went to the market to buy things, when everything was available online!

And secondly, he said – ‘Grandpa, now all these purchases may not be possible in such a small amount since, now everywhere CC TV cameras are set!

Regulatory Referencer

I. FEMA

1. RBI notifies FEM (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026; mandates quarterly reporting of guarantees in Form GRN

The RBI issued FEM (Guarantees) Regulations, 2026 superseding the regulations of 2000. It regulates guarantees involving residents and non-residents under FEMA. The following regulations are provided:

a. Prohibition of Indian residents from being parties to guarantees involving non-residents, except as permitted.

b. Exemptions where guarantees provided by overseas or IFSC branches of Authorised dealer banks; certain irrevocable payment commitments and guarantees issued under overseas investment regulations.

c. Permission to Indian resident to act as a Surety or principal debtor.

d. Permission to Indian residents to obtain guarantees as creditors.

e. Reporting requirements – Form GRN introduced.

f. Like other regulations, a late submission fee is prescribed for late reporting and enforcing compliance.

                                                                                                                     [Notification No. FEMA 8(R)/2026-RB, dated 6th January 2026]

2. RBI issues new FEMA regulations on export and import of goods and services, effective October 1, 2026

RBI has notified FEM (Export and Import of Goods and Services) Regulations, 2026 superseding Export Regulations of 2015 and consolidating frameworks for both Import and Export. These regulations will be effective from 1st October 2026.

Subsequently, it has also issued Master Directions with instructions contained therein for export and import effective from the same date. The RBI has directed Authorised Dealers (ADs) to ensure adherence to rules, regulations, directions and Foreign Trade Policy and the ADs shall send all references to RBI through PRAVAAH portal and inform any doubtful transactions to Directorate of Enforcement (DoE). They may bring the contents of the circular to the notice of their customers/ constituents concerned.

Key changes that are going to take place are as follows:

a. Export Proceeds realisation – Earlier, the period was either 9 or 12 months. Proposed uniform period will be 15 months and 18 months for INR invoiced trade. If the export proceeds are unrealised beyond one year or the extended period, then the subsequent exports will be permitted only against full advance payment or irrevocable Letter of Credit.

b. Declaration of Export Value and Reporting – A single unified reporting in ‘Export Declaration Form’ (EDF) which will include reporting for software as well, unlike SOFTEX in the existing reporting framework. EDF will have to filed within 30 days from the month end of raising the invoice. It may cover all the exports for that month.

c. Set off of export receivables against import payables – Earlier, it was permitted in restrictive manner and subject to various conditions. As per the proposed regulations/directions, powers lie with the AD Bank to permit set-off with the same buyer or supplier or their overseas group or associate companies within the prescribed time.

d. Project Exports – Repealing the earlier Memorandum of Instructions on Project and Service exports (PEM) Rule, the new regulations combine these retaining the same definition as per foreign trade Policy (FTP). These transactions must be supported by contracts and verification by AD Banks before permitting receipts/payments.

e. Merchanting Trade Transactions (MTT) – The framework is simplified and AD Bank has been empowered to set internal guidelines. The period between outward and inward remittance or vice versa should not exceed six months. AD Bank must ensure Export data processing and monitoring system (EDPMS) and Import data processing and monitoring system (IDPMS).

f. INR trade settlement – Earlier it was allowed through a series of circulars introducing Vostro Mechanism. Now, Rupee settlement is formally integrated in these regulations.

                                                                                                                                                                                                                 [Notification No. FEMA 23(R)/2026-RB, dated 13th January 2026]

                                                                                                                                                                                                                 [AP (DIR Series 2025-26) Circular No. 20, dated 16th January 2026] 

3. RBI recognises FEDAI as a Self-Regulatory Organisation for Authorised Dealers

FEDAI submitted application under the Omnibus Framework for recognition of Self-Regulatory Organisations (SROs) to be recognised as an SRO. RBI, after examining and since FEDAI is functioning akin to an SRO, decided to recognise it as an SRO for all the Authorised Dealers. One year’s time has been given to FEDAI to bring in line its functioning and governance framework with that of Omnibus SRO Framework.

                                                                                                                                                                                                                       [Press Release No. 2025-2026/1926, dated 14th January 2026]

4. RBI amends Borrowing and Lending Regulations, revising ECB framework and end-use restrictions for borrowed funds.

RBI had released draft Borrowing and Lending Regulations pertaining to External Commercial Borrowing (ECB) for public feedback on 3rd October 2025. Now it has notified the Foreign Exchange Management (Borrowing and Lending) (First Amendment) Regulations, 2026, amending the existing framework under FEMA. The amendments have rationalised the ECB framework by expanding the definitions of eligible borrowers, review of end-user restrictions and simplification of reporting requirements. Following are the key aspects of the amended regulation:

a. Eligible borrowers include:

i.  A person resident in India (other than Individual) incorporated or registered under a Centre or State Act, subject to permissions under governing legislations. This will now include an LLP too.

ii. Entities under restructuring or corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) if expressly allowed under approved resolution plan.

iii. Borrowers facing investigation, adjudication or appeal by law enforcement agency for any contraventions without prejudice to the outcome. Such borrowers must disclose all pending proceedings in Form ECB-1 or Revised Form ECB-1 (for existing ECB).

b. Eligible borrowers include:

i. Any person resident outside India ( including individuals) can now lend under ECB.

c. Maturity Period:

i. A minimum average maturity period (MAMP) of three years shall exist bringing in uniformity over various end-use purposes.

ii. Manufacturing borrowers may raise ECB with MAMP between one year and three years, provided the ECB amount does not exceed USD 150 million.

d. Currency of Borrowing:

i. Borrowing may be in Foreign currency (FCY) or Indian Rupees (INR).

ii. These maybe inter-changed.

iii. The change of currency shall be at the exchange rate prevailing on the date of the agreement for such change or at the rate which does not result in a higher lia1bility arrived by using exchange rate as on agreement date.

e. Cost of Borrowing:

i. It shall be in line with the prevailing market conditions – all in cost ceilings dropped.

ii. For ECBs with MAMPs less than three years, it shall comply with all-in cost ceiling specified for Trade Credit

iii. ECBs from related parties must be on Arm’s Length Basis.

f. Restrictions on the End-use of ECB money –

End-use restrictions are same as sectors restricted for FDI under NDI Rules, 2019. Real Estate Businesses and exceptions thereto are enumerated clearly.

                                                                                                                                                                            [Notification No. FEMA 3(R)(5)/2026-RB, dated 9th February 2026]

II. IFSCA

1. IFSCA approves targeted regulatory relaxations across funds, intermediaries, GICs and BATF services

The 26th meeting of IFSCA was held on 22nd December 2025. The purpose of the meeting was to provide wide range of regulatory reforms to enhance ease of doing business while also saving investor interests. Important changes include the following amendments to Fund Management Regulations:

a. Relaxation of eligibility criteria for key managerial personnel (KMP)

b. One-time extension is dispensed with and allowing multiple extensions of six months for Private Placement Memoranda (PPM)

c. Provide one time revival window for three months made available to the schemes where PPMs have expired

d. Grant a twenty-four-month migration window to appoint IFSC-based custodians

e. Approval of IFSCA (Global In-House Centres) Regulations, 2025

f. Introduction of investor protection measures for under-capitalised open-ended schemes

g. Removal of minimum office space requirements for BATF service providers

h. Rationalisation of Capital Market Intermediaries (CMIs) eligibility

i. Umbrella registration options for CMIs

j. Amendment to IFSCA (Registration of Business) Regulations, 2021 by changing the definition of “Lloyd’s Service Company. Now, it includes service companies promoted by the group entities of Managing Agents of Members of Lloyd’s.

The notifications for all the above are to be released in the due course on the IFSCA website.

                                                                                                                                                                      [Press Release, dated 23rd December 2025]

2. IFSCA notifies Global In-House Centres Regulations to operationalise GICs as financial service

The IFSCA has issued IFSCA (Global In-House Centres) Regulations, 2025 in replacement of IFSCA (GICs) Regulations, 2020. These regulations are aimed to position the IFSCs as Global hubs for high-value financial and related services. It further aims to generate skilled employment, on-shore India-centric financial services presently undertaken offshore. The regulations define eligible Financial Institution Groups, permissible operating models, registration procedures through a Single Window IT system, conditions for grant and validity of registration. However, the framework restricts services largely to non-resident group entities, caps India-related revenue at 10% and prohibits mere transfer of existing India contracts. Further, it also introduces “fit and proper” norms, mandates full time principal and compliance officers based in IFSCs, prescribes foreign currency operations and reporting.

It requires that existing GICs to make the transition to the 2025 regulations within 90 days from the date of commencement of these regulations i.e. 24th December 2025.

                                                                                                                                                                       [Notification No. IFSCA/GN/2025/012, dated 24th December 2025]

3. IFSCA issues clarifications on computation of liquid net worth under IFSCA (Capital Market Intermediaries) Regulations, 2025

Reference is drawn to IFSCA (CMIs) Regulations, 2025 wherein the following changes are made in the definition of Net Worth:

a. Base minimum Capital and interest free deposits maintained by the registered broker dealers and registered clearing members with the RSEs and clearing corporations respectively

b. Margins maintained by registered broker dealers or clearing members in relation to their trading activities in IFSC or Global Access

c. Liabilities are not considered as part of “Net worth” provided in the CMI Regulations

                                                                                                                                                                    [Circular No. IFSCA-PLNP/80/2024– Capital Markets, dated 30th December 2025]

4. IFSCA specifies operating leases, including hybrid leases, of oilfield equipment as a ‘financial product’

The IFSCA has specified that any Operating Lease in respect of ‘Oilfield Equipment’, including any hybrid of operating and financial lease, shall be a financial product. For this notification, “oilfield equipment” shall mean goods used in connection with an oilfield. The oilfield shall have the same meaning as assigned under Section 3(e) of Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948.

                                                                                                                                                                      [Notification No. IFSCA/GN/2026/001, dated 5th January 2026]

5. IFSCA prescribes additional disclosures and process for scheme filings under Third-Party Fund Management

IFSCA has clarified that Registered FMEs authorised for Third-Party Fund Management must file scheme applications using the format/documents prescribed under the IFSCA “Ease of doing business, Filing of Schemes or funds…” circular dated 05.04.2024, and additionally submit third-party fund manager details: (i) legal name, registered office and proof of home-jurisdiction regulatory registration/licence, (ii) a UBO “look-through” chart, and (iii) profiles of board/designated partners and KMPs.

                                                                                                                                                                      [Circular No. IFSCA/AIF/218/2025-Capital Markets, dated 16th January 2026]

6. IFSCA grants a one-time three-month window to extend the validity of expired or expiring PPMs for eligible schemes

Attention is drawn to regulations relating to Placement memorandum (PPM) under IFSCA (Fund Management) Regulations, 2025. The PPMs of a Venture Capital Scheme and Restricted Scheme shall be valid for twelve months from the date of communication. After receiving representations from requesting a flexibility regarding flexibility of PPMs, the IFSCA has provided a one-time window of three months from the date of issuance of this circular. Hence the one-time window will be valid till 27th April 2026.

Similarly, an extension is provided for PPMs for scheme that have not commenced investments. The Fund Management Entities (FMEs) will have to re-file the PPM within three months from issuance of this circular (till 27th April 2026). An important point to be noted here is that there must not be any material change in the PPM with respect to key aspects, including name, investment objective and strategy, structure, etc. Such application shall be accompanied by 50% of the filing applicable for filing new application. Similar extensions are provided for Open-ended schemes.

                                                                                                                                                                                         [Circular No. IFSCA-IF-10PR/1/2023-Capital Markets, dated 27th January 2026]

7. IFSCA introduces website requirement for Finance Companies and Units in GIFT IFSC

IFSCA mandates Finance Companies (FCs) regulated under IFSCA (Finance Company) Regulations, 2021 to maintain a dedicated website or web page. Such website should display the following information about FCs:

a. Brief overview of GIFT IFSC ecosystem,

b. Certificate of Registration clearly reflecting the Registration number and permitted activities

c. A list of products and services offered, with detailed description of each such offering

d. Grievance redressal procedure and contact details of the Grievance redressal officer

e. Name, designation and contact details of key managerial personnel in IFSC (such as Head of FC/FU, CEO, CFO, Compliance officer, Principal officer, as applicable)

                                                                                                                                                                                       [Circular No. IFSCA-FCR/4/2026-Banking, dated 3rd February 2026]

8. IFSCA, India & FCA, UK sign Exchange of Letters to boost regulatory cooperation in identified areas of mutual interest

The IFSCA, India and Financial Conduct Authority of UK have signed an Exchange of Letter (EoL) to formalise regulatory co-operation in identified areas of mutual interest. It was signed on 11th February 2026. The objective is to facilitate sharing of information on developments in regulation for financial products, financial services, financial institutions, developments in regulatory and supervisory frameworks and initiatives, including sharing of best practices.

                                                                                                                                                                                               [Press Release, dated 11th February 2026]

9. IFSCA approves draft Pension Fund Regulations, 2026 to establish framework for retirement savings in IFSC

The IFSCA has issued IFSCA (Pension Fund) Regulations, 2026 on 9th February 2026. The key features of the Draft Regulations are as follows:

a. Pension Product for any Individual above the age of 18 years

b. Participation is entirely voluntary. Investment options include Active Choice (for determining asset allocation) and Auto Choice (for automatic adjustment of allocation based on age)

c. 10% will be allocated towards Health Benefit Option

d. Flexible withdrawal and Exit Framework give options to the individuals the manner in which they want to withdraw.

e. These regulations provide for mandatory registration of Pension Fund Managers (PFMs), Board oversight and framework with three-lines-of-defence model

f. PFMs have the flexibility to invest across equities (domestic and foreign, fixed income assets and other permissible assets.

                                                                                                                                                                                          [Press Release, dated 12th February 2026]

10. IFSCA issues FAQs on IFSCA (Global In-House Centres) Regulations, 2025

The IFSCA has issued Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) on the IFSCA (Global In-House Centres) Regulations, 2025. The FAQs cover matters relating to applications, legal forms and registration, permissible services and service recipients, operating models of a GIC Unit, compliance requirements and restrictions, third-party service providers, and miscellaneous areas.

                                                                                                                                                                                              [FAQs, dated 17th February 2026]

Tech Mantra

Okular

OKULAR

Okular is a Universal Document Viewer. Multi-platform, fast and packed with features, Okular allows you to read PDF documents, comics and ePub books, browse images, visualize Markdown documents, and much more.

With Okular’s “Annotation Mode” you can easily add inline and popup notes, highlight and underline text, or even add your own text on the fly. The Selection Mode allows you to copy and paste almost anything from your documents to elsewhere. And, if the text is too small, you can use the “Magnifier Mode”. With Okular’s “Thumbnail Panel”, you can browse graphically the part of the document you were looking for. You can also view and verify digital signatures embedded in PDFs, check if they are still valid, and detect any modifications since the document was signed. You can even sign PDFs yourself.

Okular is open source and always free. Try it as an efficient replacement for your PDF viewer / editor.

https://okular.kde.org/

Our Home

Home

Our Home is a simple task manager to manage household tasks. It simplifies household management and collaboration with family members and / or roommates, helping you stay organized and connected wherever you go.

You can create and organize tasks by room and assign them to specific family members. Set deadlines and schedule recurring tasks for an organized routine. You can use the built-in calendar to keep track of all tasks and deadlines.

Create shopping lists effortlessly. You can tailor your shopping list to different stores and categories. You can even manage your inventory digitally to see what is in stock and what needs to be replaced!

It helps you collaborate with roommates and family members effortlessly. You can even have an overview of all assigned tasks on a single screen.
Try Our Home today and take the drudgery out of your daily tasks!

Android : https://tinyurl.com/HomeOrganize

Fluent Search

Fluent Search

Fluent Search allows you to search your Windows computer at blazing-fast speeds for files, apps, web content, and more. As you type in the Search Bar, Fluent Search instantly delivers smooth and precise results – saving you time and keeping your workflow uninterrupted.

Fluent Search allows you to locate files, browser tabs, history, apps, open windows and more – all from one powerful search interface.

Just press Ctrl+Alt and the Search Bar appears instantly for your command! Far superior to the Windows Search which is slow and tardy. Try it today for a fluent search experience!

https://fluentsearch.net/

ICAI and Its Members

A. ICAI NOTIFICATION

1. ICAI (GLOBAL NETWORKING) GUIDELINES, 2025

The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India has notified the ICAI (Global Networking) Guidelines, 2025 vide Gazette Notification dated 11th February 2026, enabling Indian CA firms to formally network with global professional entities.

OBJECTIVE AND SCOPE

The Guidelines establish a comprehensive regulatory framework enabling domestic CA firms, networks, and entities registered with ICAI to enter into structured networking arrangements with overseas entities. The framework aims to enhance the global competitiveness of Indian CA firms, foster knowledge and technology sharing, improve service quality, and bring Global Networks under the regulatory oversight of ICAI in respect of their Indian operations.

APPLICABILITY

The Guidelines apply to:

  • ICAI-registered CA firms;
  • Management consultancy entities registered with ICAI;
  • Domestic networks formed under earlier Networking Guidelines;
  • Any domestic entity entering into networking/affiliation/association with foreign entities.

The Guidelines are effective from the date of publication in the Official Gazette.

KEY DEFINITIONS

Important concepts clarified include:

  • Domestic Entity – ICAI-registered firm, network or management consultancy entity.
  • Foreign Entity – Any entity established outside India providing or facilitating professional services (including accounting and assurance).
  • Global Network – A written arrangement between a domestic entity and foreign entity involving cost sharing, common branding, shared resources, quality control, systems, etc.
  • Nodal Officer – A full-time practicing ICAI member in good standing responsible for compliance and liaison.

The definition of “network” is substance-based and includes arrangements involving:

  • Common brand name/logo,
  • Shared quality control policies,
  • Shared systems, technical resources, training,
  • Cost-sharing structures,
  • Shared professional personnel.

KEY FEATURES

The Guidelines introduce a formal two-stage registration process — first, approval of the name of the Global Network (Form AGN, fee: ₹10,000), followed by registration (Form BGN, fee: ₹30,000). Each Global Network must have a distinct ICAI-approved name with the suffix “Global Network.” Domestic entities may be constituents of more than one Global Network.

A Nodal Officer — a senior member of ICAI in good standing and must be managing partner/CEO/MD or equivalent with highest profit/capital share — must be designated for each Global Network to ensure ongoing regulatory compliance, annual reporting, and communication with ICAI.

ANNUAL REPORTING AND COMPLIANCE

Registered Global Networks are required to file an Annual Return (Form DGN) within 120 days of the close of each financial year, disclosing details of revenue, fees exchanged with overseas entities, disciplinary proceedings, and other material information. All information so submitted will be treated as confidential.

ETHICAL AND REGULATORY SAFEGUARDS

The Guidelines require strict compliance with ICAI’s Code of Ethics, the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, and all applicable Indian laws. Key restrictions include prohibition on performing services barred under Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013 for audit clients, and prohibition on fee/profit sharing with non-ICAI registered entities. Any violation constitutes professional misconduct.

POST-REGISTRATION CHANGES AND DE-REGISTRATION

Prescribed forms have been notified for reporting changes in the constitution of a Global Network (Form CGN), de-registration (Form EGN), and withdrawal of name approval (Form FGN). ICAI retains full jurisdiction over acts and omissions during the registration period even after de-registration.

PERMITTED FRAMEWORK OF ARRANGEMENTS

Permissible networking arrangements include:

  • Access to global tools and digital platforms.
  • Technology and process sharing.
  • Quality control alignment.
  • Access to international assignments.
  • Participation in M&A, due diligence, cross-border engagements.
  • Payment/receipt of network fees (one-time or recurring), subject to compliance.

However, mere referral arrangements may not constitute a network unless broader structural integration exists.

PROHIBITED SERVICES

The following are expressly restricted:

  1. Prohibited services under Section 144 of Companies Act, 2013 to audit clients.
  2. Fee sharing with non-members unless permitted under ICAI Code of Ethics.
  3. Any activity violating ICAI Code, CA Act or Regulations.
  4. Activities not conducted at arm’s length.

The Nodal Officer must ensure maintenance of documentation supporting arm’s length nature of transactions.

CONSEQUENCES OF NON-COMPLIANCE

ICAI retains regulatory oversight powers to:

  • Seek additional documentation at any time.
  • Withdraw name approval.
  • Cancel registration.
  • Initiate disciplinary proceedings.
  • Require exit from non-compliant network within 30 days.

Non-compliance constitutes professional misconduct under the CA Act, 1949. Disciplinary action may arise in cases such as:

  • Claiming to be part of unregistered global network.
  • Failure to furnish information.
  • Non-filing of prescribed forms.
  • Including entities in violation of guidelines.
  • Indirect benefit from non-compliant networking arrangements.

https://egazette.gov.in/WriteReadData/2026/270214.pdf

2. UDIN PORTAL – ICAI

The following important updates implemented at the UDIN Portal:

i. Ceiling on UDIN Generation for Tax Audits under Section 44AB (w.e.f. 1st April 2026)

In accordance with the Council’s decision at its 442nd meeting, a ceiling on the maximum number of UDINs generated will be implemented from 1st April 2026, in line with the prescribed limit of 60 Tax Audits. This ceiling will apply to Form 3CA and Form 3CB sub-categories under Section 44AB. Field-level validation has already been activated at the UDIN Portal across all sub-categories under Section 44AB [Clauses (a) to (e)] under the ‘GST and Tax Audit’ category.

https://udin.icai.org/ICAI/announcement/6/148/UDIN_11-02-2026

ii. UDIN Validation Now Based on Five Parameters

The PAN of the assessee has been added as a mandatory field for UDIN generation under the ‘GST & Tax Audit’ category. Accordingly, UDINs will now be validated at the CBDT e-Filing Portal based on five parameters: MRN, UDIN, AY/FY, Form No., and PAN of the assessee. The PAN information will remain confidential and will not be visible to any third-party verifier.

https://udin.icai.org/ICAI/announcement/6/145/UDIN_20-12-2025

iii. Disclosure of Preceding Year’s Audit Details during UDIN Generation

Succeeding auditors will now be required to provide details of the preceding year’s audit while generating UDINs under the ‘GST & Tax Audit’ and ‘Audit & Assurance Functions’ categories. This information will be confidential and not disseminable to any third party.

https://udin.icai.org/ICAI/announcement/6/146/UDIN_20-12-2025

For any clarification, members may write to: udin@icai.in

B. EMPANELMENT

Empanelment of Members to Act as Observers at the Examination Centres for The Chartered Accountants’ Examinations, May 2026.

It is proposed to empanel members to act as Observers for the forthcoming May -2026 Chartered Accountants Examinations scheduled to be held in May 2026. The honorarium of ₹3,750/- per day / per session and ₹500/- as conveyance reimbursement for ‘A’ class cities and ₹400/- for other cities per day (to cover cost of local travel) will be paid. A member who fulfills the above-mentioned eligibility criteria, and is desirous of empaneling himself / herself for the assignment, may do so, online at http://observers.icaiexam.icai.org

Timelines:

  • Opening of the window for empanelment – 20th February 2026 (Friday)
  • Closing of the window for empanelment – 19th March 2026 (Thursday)

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90941exam-aps4120.pdf

C. INVITATION TO COMMENT | EXPOSURE DRAFT

Standard on Auditing for Less Complex Entities (SA for LCE)

The ICAI has proposed to introduce a dedicated Standard on Auditing for Less Complex Entities (SA for LCE) — a tailored auditing standard designed to reflect the specific nature and circumstances of audits of LCEs in both the private and public sectors.

The standard aims to achieve reasonable assurance that financial statements of LCEs are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, while ensuring consistent performance of quality audit engagements. Key highlights include:

Specifically designed for audits of complete sets of general purpose financial statements of LCEs, with provisions for adaptation to special purpose financial statements or specific elements/accounts, where applicable

  • Premised on the firm being subject to SQM 1, with quality audit engagements achieved through proper planning, performance and reporting in accordance with professional standards and applicable legal and regulatory requirements
  • Requires the exercise of professional judgment and maintenance of professional skepticism throughout the engagement
  • Use is optional — even where an entity qualifies as an LCE, the auditor may, at their professional discretion, choose to conduct the audit under the full set of Standards on Auditing instead. But when an audit engagement is conducted using this standard, the Standards on Auditing (SAs) do not apply to that engagement. This standard serves as a standalone framework for eligible LCE audits. If used beyond the scope contemplated in Part A, the auditor is not permitted to represent compliance with the SA for LCE in the auditor’s report.
  • Where the auditor opts for the full SAs, the audit must be planned, performed and reported accordingly, and compliance with the SA for LCE cannot be represented in the auditor’s report
  • The standard does not override applicable local laws or regulations, and auditors remain responsible for ensuring compliance with all relevant legal, regulatory and professional obligations

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90639aasb-aps4044.pdf

Members are invited to share their comments on the above Exposure Draft by March 20, 2026.

Comments may be submitted to:

Secretary, Auditing and Assurance Standards Board The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India ICAI Bhawan, A-29, Sector – 62, Noida – 201 309

Email: aasb@icai.in

D. ICAI PUBLICATION

1. Practitioner’s Guide on Drafting of Modified Opinions in Independent Auditor’s Reports

The AASB of ICAI has released the “Practitioner’s Guide on Drafting of Modified Opinions in Independent Auditor’s Reports” — a practical resource to help auditors draft clear and appropriate modified opinions in compliance with the Standards on Auditing.

The Guide covers:

  • Overview of modified opinion concepts and types
  • Guidance on presentation and headings in auditor’s reports
  • Illustrative formats for Qualified, Adverse, and Disclaimer of Opinion
  • Examples across commonly encountered audit areas and circumstances

Building on earlier publications — the Implementation Guide on Reporting Standards (2018) and Analysis of Modified Opinions (2023) — this Guide serves as an additional layer of practical support for auditors.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90889aasb110225.pdf

2. Guidance on New Labour Codes

The AASB of ICAI has release the “Guidance on New Labour Codes” — a comprehensive resource designed to assist auditors in navigating the audit implications arising from the implementation of the new Labour Codes.

The implementation of the Labour Codes introduces significant auditing considerations, including assessment of risks of material misstatement, compliance with applicable laws and regulations, appropriate accounting treatment for employee-related costs and liabilities, and adequacy of financial statement disclosures.

The Guidance addresses key areas commonly encountered in audit engagements, including:

  • Payroll-related expenses, employee benefit provisions, and statutory dues
  • Understanding the entity’s workforce structure and management’s response to the Labour Codes
  • Designing audit strategies and conducting engagement team discussions on risk assessment
  • Performing appropriate control and substantive procedures
  • Management representations and communication with those charged with governance
  • Audit documentation and reporting considerations, including modifications to the auditor’s opinion, Emphasis of Matter paragraphs, and reporting under CARO and internal financial controls, where applicable

This Guidance, developed with reference to the applicable Standards on Auditing, seeks to equip members with practical direction in effectively discharging their audit responsibilities in the evolving regulatory landscape of labour law reforms.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90779aasb-aps4103-guidance.pdf

3. Technical Guide on Revised Directions issued by CAG under Section 143(5) of the Companies Act, 2013

The AASB of ICAI has released the “Technical Guide on Revised Directions issued by CAG under Section 143(5) of the Companies Act, 2013” — a focused resource to assist auditors of Government companies and Government-owned/controlled companies in effectively responding to the revised directions issued by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).

Government company audits are governed by the specific framework under Section 143(5) of the Companies Act, 2013, which empowers the CAG to issue directions to auditors on the manner of audit. In exercise of these powers, the CAG issued revised directions vide letters dated 23rd May 2025 and 17th October 2025, requiring auditors to focus on the following high-impact thematic areas:

  •  Fair valuation of investments made for post-retirement employee benefits
  • IT-based processing of accounting transactions, with emphasis on IT controls and cybersecurity-related controls
  • Accounting and utilisation of Government grants/subsidies
  • Risk management policy for key risk areas, and identification & valuation of data assets
  • Compliance with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

Recognising the practical challenges auditors may face in interpreting these directions and aligning their audit procedures and reporting responses, the AASB has developed this Technical Guide to provide direction-wise guidance on audit approach and reporting considerations, along with illustrative reporting formats to promote clarity, consistency and quality in auditors’ responses.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90773aasb-aps4101-announcement.pdf

4. FAQs on Unique Document Identification Number (UDIN)

The Sixth Edition of the FAQ on UDIN incorporates the latest developments, member feedback, statutory updates, evolving use cases, and technological enhancements. This edition aims to serve as a comprehensive guide for practicing members and an authoritative reference for stakeholders who rely on CA-certified documents.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90857faqudin2026.pdf

5. Meetings of Committee of Creditors – A Handbook for the Guidance of Insolvency Professionals (Revised February 2026 Edition)

The Insolvency & Valuation Standards Board of ICAI has released the second and updated edition of reference publication for Insolvency Professionals titled “Meetings of Committee of Creditors – A Handbook for the Guidance of Insolvency Professionals (Revised February 2026 Edition)”.

The Committee of Creditors (CoC) plays a central role in the corporate insolvency resolution process, and the effectiveness of the resolution process depends significantly on their informed, transparent and timely decision-making. This revised handbook has been updated to incorporate recent regulatory developments, circulars and judicial pronouncements that directly impact the functioning of the CoC.

The handbook provides comprehensive guidance on:

  • The legal framework governing CoC meetings, including convening, conduct, quorum, voting mechanisms, and documentation of decisions
  • Best practices and procedural discipline to ensure meetings are conducted fairly, transparently and efficiently, consistent with the principles of natural justice
  • Timely issuance of notices and agendas, and adequate dissemination of information to enable informed decision-making
  • Maintenance of neutrality and independence by the Resolution Professional, and proper recording of deliberations and voting outcomes
  • Fiduciary responsibilities of CoC members, the exercise of collective and commercial wisdom in good faith, and balancing stakeholder interests while maximising the value of the corporate debtor

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90897ivsb120226.pdf

6. Issues and Recommendations emerging from the deliberations at International Convention on Insolvency Resolution and Valuation: RESOLVE-2025 by I&VSB ICAI

The Insolvency & Valuation Standards Board, in association with the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), Indian Institute of Insolvency Professionals of ICAI (IIIPI), and ICAI Registered Valuers Organisation (ICAI RVO), hosted the 3rd International Convention on Insolvency Resolution and Valuation – RESOLVE 2025.

Based on deliberations held at RESOLVE-2025, the Board has prepared a consolidated publication capturing key issues and recommendations emerging from the discussions at the Convention.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90890ivsb-yash-11.pdf

E. RESEARCH REPORTS

1. Reprioritising Environmental Claims under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

The research report ‘Reprioritising Environmental claims under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ delves into the “Polluter Pays Principle” and examines the intricate interface between the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) and environmental liabilities, while identifying legislative pathways to effectively integrate environmental claims within the resolution framework.

2. Mahua Flowers: Regulatory, Economic and Social Opportunities

The research report on “Mahua Flowers: Regulatory, Economic and Social Opportunities” analyses the current harvest and utilization scenario of Mahua flowers and provides targeted suggestions for policy initiatives and scalable use cases. Its core objective is to offer pathways to sustainably unlock value from both a social upliftment and an economic growth perspective.

3. REITs and Their Emerging Significance in India: A Regulatory, Market and Professional Perspective

The report offers a comprehensive overview of the REIT ecosystem, covering global benchmarks, India’s regulatory and taxation framework, governance practices, market developments, and the emerging SM REIT structure. It identifies key challenges to wider adoption — including tax clarity, transaction costs, investor awareness and institutional participation — and provides practical recommendations at the policy, market and operational levels.

The report also highlights the growing role of Chartered Accountants in this space, with expanding opportunities in financial reporting, assurance, valuation, taxation, regulatory compliance and ESG reporting, as REITs continue to bridge the real estate and capital markets in India.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90859reit-ya-11.pdf

4. Revitalizing India’s Legal Landscape: Addressing Obsolete Economic and Commercial Laws for A Viksit Bharat @ 2047

The report examines the reliability and relevance of India’s current statutory frameworks through doctrinal analysis and empirical feedback from professional stakeholders. It identifies economic and commercial laws that need strengthening in line with the objectives of Viksit Bharat @ 2047, and aims to support the creation of a contemporary legal system that fosters entrepreneurship, fair competition and robust institutional governance — positioning India as a leading global economy by 2047.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/90860rilld-ya-11.pdf

F. OPINION

Accounting for commission paid for performance bank guarantees, under Ind AS framework

a. Facts of the Case

  • The company, a JV of two PSUs, obtained PNGRB authorisation to develop CGD networks and was required to furnish a Performance Bank Guarantee (PBG) of ₹1,948 crore as a precondition.
  • The promoters provided the PBG and recovered the bank guarantee (BG) commission from the company through debit notes with GST.
  • The company capitalised the BG commission as part of CWIP under AS 16 and depreciated it after commissioning.
  • During supplementary audit for FY 2023-24, C&AG objected, stating that capitalisation overstated profit and assets and that the commission should be expensed.
  • The company defended its treatment on the basis that furnishing the PBG was mandatory for project execution and relied on Ind AS 16 and earlier EAC opinions.

B. QUERY

The querist sought EAC opinion on:

  1. Whether capitalisation of BG commission of ₹13.44 crore relating to the PBG is correct under AS 16.
  2. If not, what should be the appropriate accounting treatment.
  3. If a change is required, whether it should be treated as change in estimate, accounting policy, or prior-period error.

C. POINTS CONSIDERED BY THE COMMITTEE

  • The Committee confined itself to accounting for BG commission paid to promoters and did not examine other project accounting matters.
  •  It noted that no borrowing was taken by the company and the BG commission did not relate to borrowings; therefore AS 23 was not applicable.
  • Under AS 16, only costs directly attributable to bringing the asset to the location and condition necessary for intended use can be capitalised.
  • “Directly attributable” costs are those necessary for construction activity and without which the asset cannot be made ready for use.
  • The Committee observed that BG commission is incurred to obtain authorisation (PBG) and not for construction of the asset.
  • Although furnishing PBG is essential for obtaining the project, the commission does not add value to construction nor bring the asset to operating condition.
  • Further, the BG commission does not create a resource controlled by the company, and hence cannot be recognised as a separate asset.

D. OPINION

The Expert Advisory Committee opined that:

  1. Capitalisation of BG commission is not appropriate.
  2. The BG commission should be recognised as an expense in the Statement of Profit and Loss as and when incurred.
  3. Since the existing treatment is not in accordance with Ind AS, it should be rectified in the current reporting period as an accounting error in accordance with Ind AS 8, with retrospective correction as required.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/.pdf

Financial Reporting Dossier

A. KEY GLOBAL UPDATES

1. IASB: ILLUSTRATIVE EXAMPLES ON REPORTING UNCERTAINTIES IN FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

On November 28, 2025, the International Accounting Standards Board, in response to stakeholders’ concerns about the equity of information in financial statements relating to climate-specific and other uncertainties, issued illustrative examples on reporting such uncertainties in the financial statements.

Reporting uncertainties in the financial statements involves the exercise of judgement in determining what needs to be disclosed. This highlights the need for guidance to ensure consistency and sufficiency of disclosures relating to such uncertainties.

The examples highlight the following:

  •  Application of materiality for specific disclosures required by IFRS (Para 31 – IAS 1)
  • Estimates used to measure recoverable amounts of cash-generating units containing goodwill or intangible assets with indefinite useful lives (Para 134 – IAS 36)
  • Sources of estimation uncertainty (Para 125 – IAS 1)
  • Credit Risk (Para 35A – IFRS 7)
  • Indication of the uncertainties about the amount or timing of those outflows among other disclosures (Para 85 – IAS 37)
  • Aggregation and disaggregation (Para 41 – IFRS 18)

The above examples reiterate the disclosure requirements prescribed in the above-mentioned standards and do not discuss any new matters.

2. FASB: NEW STANDARD TO IMPROVE INTERIM REPORTING

On December 08, 2025, the Financial Accounting Standards Board, to improve the guidance on interim reporting by improving the navigability of the required interim disclosures and clarifying when the guidance is applicable, issued a Narrow-Scope Improvements through Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Interim Reporting (Topic 270).

The improvements are issued following feedback from the stakeholders about the challenges and complexity of Topic 270. As per the Financial Accounting Standards Board these challenges is a result of development of the source literature, the initial codification of the historical content, and subsequent amendments to the Topic as new accounting guidance was issued over time necessitating the improvements in Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Interim Reporting (Topic 270).

The objective of the amendments is to provide clarity about the current requirements, rather than evaluate whether to expand or reduce interim disclosure requirements. These include:

  •  Applicability of Topic 270
  • Types of interim reporting
  • Form and content of interim financial statements
  • Disclosure principle that requires entities to disclose events since the end of the last annual reporting period that have a material impact on the entity

These amendments in the Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Interim Reporting (Topic 270) are effective for interim reporting periods within annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2027, for public business entities and for interim reporting periods within annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2028, for entities other than
public business entities. Early adoption is permitted for all entities.

3. FASB: NEW STANDARD TO IMPROVE HEDGE ACCOUNTING GUIDANCE

On November 25, 2025, the Financial Accounting Standards Board, to clarify certain aspects of the guidance on hedge accounting and to address several incremental hedge accounting issues arising from the global reference rate reform initiative, issued a Hedge Accounting Improvements through the Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Derivatives and Hedging (Topic 815).

The improvements are a follow up to the amendments in the 2019 proposed update, which as per the stakeholders was inadequate in resolving the issues encountered by the stakeholders. Further, a need for update in several areas of the hedge accounting guidance to address the effects of reference rate reform on hedge accounting were identified in 2021 by the stakeholders.

The objective of the updates is to more closely align hedge accounting with the economics of an entity’s risk management activities. The following issues are discussed in the updates

  • Similar Risk Assessment for Cash Flow Hedges: A group of individual forecasted transactions to have similar risk exposure rather than a shared risk exposure
  • Hedging Forecasted Interest Payments on Choose-Your-Rate Debt Instruments: A module with simplified assumptions to assess the probability of occurrence of forecasted transactions and hedge effectiveness.
  • Cash Flow Hedges of Nonfinancial Forecasted Transactions: Allows hedge accounting for eligible components of forecasted spot-market transactions, forward-market transactions, and subcomponents of explicitly referenced components in an agreement’s pricing formula.
  • Net Written Options as Hedging Instruments: Accommodates differences in the loan and swap markets that resulted from the cessation of the LIBOR reference rate and eliminates the requirement for the net written option test in certain instances.
  • Foreign-Currency-Denominated Debt Instrument as Hedging Instrument and Hedged Item (Dual Hedge): Eliminate the recognition and presentation mismatch related to a dual hedge strategy (that is, a hedge for which a foreign currency-denominated debt instrument is both designated as the hedging instrument in a net investment hedge and designated as the hedged item in a fair value hedge of interest rate risk).

These amendments in the Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Derivatives and Hedging (Topic 815) are effective from annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2026, and interim periods within those annual reporting periods. For entities other than public business entities, the amendments are effective for annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2027, and interim periods within those annual reporting periods. Early adoption is permitted for all entities.

4. FASB: NEW STANDARD TO ADD GUIDANCE ON ACCOUNTING FOR GOVERNMENT GRANTS BY BUSINESSES

On December 04, 2025, the Financial Accounting Standards Board, to improve generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) by establishing authoritative guidance on the accounting for government grants received by business entities, issued updates relating to accounting for Government Grants received by Business Entities through the Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Government Grants (Topic 832).

These updates bring in specific authoritative guidance about the recognition, measurement, and presentation of a grant received by a business entity from a government which the GAAP did not provide. The absence of this guidance in the GAAP led the business entities to refer similar but not specific guidance on IAS 20 – Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance, Topic 450 – Contingencies (US GAAP) and Subtopic 958-605 – Not-for-Profit Entities—Revenue Recognition. Hence, to reduce diversity in practice and increase consistency among business entities these updates have been issued.

The following amendments are affected to the updates:

  • Recognition criteria of a government grant received by a business entity if it meets the recognition guidance for a grant related to an asset or a grant related to income and depending upon probability of compliance with the conditions attached to the grant and the receivability of the grant.
  • A grant related to an asset to be recognized on the balance sheet as a business entity incurs the related costs for which the grant is intended to compensate, either as a Deferred income (the deferred income approach) or as an adjustment to the cost basis in determining the carrying amount of the asset (the cost accumulation approach).
  • In case of deferred income approach:
    Measurement: a systematic and rational basis for income recognition over the periods in which a business entity recognizes as expenses the costs for which the grant is intended to compensate.
    Presentation: a general heading such as other income or deducted from the related expense.
  • In case of cost accumulation approach:
    Measurement: no separate subsequent recognition of the government grant proceeds in earnings. Depreciation or subsequent accounting depending upon the carrying amount of the asset.

These amendments in the Accounting Standards Update (ASU) – Government Grants (Topic 832) are effective for annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2028, and interim reporting periods within those annual reporting periods. For entities other than public business entities, the amendments are effective for annual reporting periods beginning after December 15, 2029, and interim reporting periods within those annual reporting periods Early adoption is permitted for all entities.

5. IAASB: NARROW-SCOPE AMENDMENTS RELATED TO IESBA’S USING THE WORK OF EXPERTS

On January 05, 2026, the International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board issued a narrow-scope amendments to its standards arising from the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants’ (IESBA) Using the Work of an External Expert project.

The following standards stands amended:

  1. ISA 620 – Using the work of an auditor’s expert
  2. ISRE 2400 (Revised) – Engagements to Review Historical Financial Statements
  3. ISAE 3000 (Revised) – Assurance Engagements Other than Audits or Reviews of Historical Financial Information
  4. ISRS 4400 (Revised) – Agreed-upon procedures engagements

The amends relates to ethical requirements include provisions related to using the work of an expert, evaluation of competence, capabilities and objectivity of the expert, Prohibition on using the work of an expert if necessary competence or capabilities is not possessed or if no such evaluation is possible.

6. FRC: THEMATIC REVIEW: REPORTING BY THE UK’S SMALLER LISTED COMPANIES

The Financial Reporting Council, to support a high quality of reporting by the UK’s smaller listed companies and by doing so enhance investor confidence in the said companies, issued operational insights in its “Thematic Review: Reporting by the UK’s smaller listed companies”. The review is based on 20 companies with year-ends between September 2024 and April 2025 operating in a range of market sectors listed outside of the FTSE 350.

The publication highlight improvement in the following areas:

  1.  Revenue: An accounting policy on revenue recognition for all material revenue streams should be aptly disclosed and should be consistent with the company’s business model. Explanations relating to the timing of satisfaction of performance obligations, determination of the transaction price, agent versus principal considerations, and the associated judgements should also be aptly disclosed as a part of the accounting policy.
  2. Cash flow statements: A clear explanation of specific transactions and the rationale for the classification of such items as operating, investing and financing activities should be provided. Consistency between the amount in the cashflow and other information must be ensured.
  3. Impairment of non-financial assets: Disclosure relating to the impairment reviews of non-financial assets, significant judgements and estimates, key assumptions and sensitivity analysis.
  4. Financial instruments: Company specific accounting policies for more complex financial instruments including initial classification and subsequent measurement should be disclosed.

B. GLOBAL REGULATORS – ENFORCEMENT ACTIONS AND INSPECTION REPORTS

1. THE FINANCIAL REPORTING COUNCIL, UK

a) Sanctions against KPMG LLP and Anthony Sykes

The Financial Reporting Council (FRC) in relation to serious breaches of the International Standards on Auditing (ISAs) in the statutory audit of the financial statements of N Brown Group plc (N Brown) for the financial year ended 26 February 2022 (FY22) by KPMG LLP (KPMG), imposed sanctions against KPMG and the concern Audit Engagement Partner in the Final Settlement Decision Notice (FSDN) under the Audit Enforcement Procedure.

KPMG and the concern Audit Engagement Partner have admitted to these breaches of the International Standards on Auditing (ISAs) in the audit work performed on impairment of non-current assets.

As per the International Accounting Standard 36 (IAS 36) a non-current asset should be tested for impairment if there are indications that the carrying value is more than the highest amount to be recovered through its use or sale by the company. The Auditors are required to determine if these impairment testing are performed in accordance with the standards. Impairment testing helps reflect accurate picture of the company’s financial position, ensuring that the company’s assets are not overstated.

N Brown is one of the UK’s largest online clothing and footwear retailers and at the relevant time was listed on the Alternative Investment Market of the London Stock Exchange. In FY 2022, there was indication of impairment, as the group’s market capitalisation was substantially lower than its net assets. The audit team identified impairment of non-current assets as a significant risk and key audit area for the audit.

The breaches in the audit performed with respect to IAS 36 is as under:

  • Carrying value of the cash generating unit (CGU).
  • Impairment model methodology.
  • Cash flow forecasts.
  • Discount rate.
  • Sensitivity analysis.
  • Reconciliation to market capitalisation
  • The audit’s team’s overall conclusions.

Even after the breaches mentioned above, the FSDN has not questioned the truth or fairness of the FY 2022 financial statements. Although the inadequate audit work on impairment led to an overstatement of headroom (being the difference between the recoverable amount and carrying value), it has not been alleged that N Brown should have recognised an impairment in FY 2022.

B) FRC IMPOSES SANCTIONS AGAINST BDO LLP AND TWO AUDIT ENGAGEMENT PARTNERS

The FRC, in relation to misconduct by BDO LLP (BDO) and two former audit engagement partners, has imposed sanctions under the Accountancy Scheme against the BDO and its former partners.

The sanctions were imposed following a formal complaint against the respondents in April 2025, which led to an investigation into their conduct under the given circumstances.

In the investigation it was found that a Senior Manager was able to pursue, undetected, a dishonest course of conduct on numerous audits between 2015 and 2019, which included: creating false audit evidence, causing auditor’s reports to be issued without approval from the relevant audit engagement partner, and inserting electronic copies of the audit engagement partners’ signatures in auditor’s reports without their approval.

The outcome of the investigation into the Senior Manager, which provides further details of their Misconduct and the sanctions imposed, was published in November 2024.

The misconduct found in the investigation in the present case is as under:

  • BDO’s inadequate response to internal reports which raised or should have raised concerns as to the Senior Manager’s honesty and integrity.
  • Deficiencies in BDO’s systems and controls for ensuring adequate audit supervision by engagement partners, and audit quality in the period 2012-2019.
  • The failure of the one of the former partners (in the period 2014 – 2019) and the other former partners (in the period 2015 – 2019) to adequately supervise, monitor and oversee 21 and 13 audits respectively, on which the Senior Manager worked, which resulted in each case in an Auditor’s Report being issued without their authority and, in some cases, where inadequate, or no, audit evidence had been obtained.
  • One of the partner’s issuance of 10 Auditor’s Reports (for financial years ending between 2015-2018) in relation to audits on which the Senior Manager worked, when insufficient audit evidence had been obtained and where it is inferred that he had carried out no, or very limited, review of such evidence (if any) as had been obtained.
  • BDO’s liability for the Misconduct of the Senior Manager and the former partners.

2. THE PUBLIC COMPANY ACCOUNTING OVERSIGHT BOARD (PCAOB)

a) PCAOB Sanctions Audit Firm, an Owner of That Firm, and a Former Audit Manager for Multiple Violations of PCAOB Rules and Standards

On January 13, 2026, The PCAOB, in the case involving violations of PCAOB rules and auditing standards in connection with the integrated audit of a public company – Genie Energy Ltd. (“Genie”) – for the year ended December 31, 2022, announced an order sanctioning to Zwick CPA, PLLC(“Firm”), Jack Zwick (“Zwick”) and (2) Jeffrey Hoskow (“Hoskow”).

Violations Found By the PCAOB

  • Failure to properly plan, identify, and assess the risks of material misstatement.
  • Failure to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the Firm’s opinion on internal control over financial reporting.
  • Failure to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence as to Genie’s reported revenue and unbilled revenue.
  • Failure to properly supervise the work of the Firm’s engagement team members.
  • Failure to prepare audit documentation pursuant to PCAOB standards.

b) PCAOB Sanctions U.S. Audit Firm for Violations Related to Communications Between Predecessor and Successor Auditors

On September 23, 2025, The PCAOB, in the case involving violations of PCAOB rules and auditing standards in connection with its transfer of draft workpapers to the Successor Auditors, announced an order sanctioning to Marcum Asia CPAs, LLP, a New York-headquartered firm formerly known as Marcum Bernstein & Pinchuk LLP (“Marcum BP”).

Violations Found By the PCAOB

  • Failure to adhere to the PCAOB rules and auditing standards relating to transfer of draft workpapers to the Successor Auditor.
  • Failure to reach an understanding with the successor auditor as to the use of the draft workpapers, in violation of under AS 2610, “Initial Audits -Communications Between Predecessor and Successor Auditors.”

Due to above violations, the successor auditor improperly used the draft workpapers in its audits and issued an unqualified audit report on the Company’s financial statements for the fiscal year 2015 till 2017. This conduct was the subject of a November 2023 PCAOB enforcement settlement.

c) PCAOB Sanctions Former Audit Partner for Multiple Violations of PCAOB Rules and Standards

On October 25, 2025, The PCAOB, in case of multiple violations of its rules and standards, announced an order imposing sanctions on a former partner in the Lima, Peru, office of Tanaka, Valdivia, Arribas & Asociados Sociedad Civil de Responsabilidad Limitada (“EY Peru”).

The former partner was the partner responsible for EY Peru’s full scope component audit (for the year ended December 31, 2020) of Gilat Networks Peru S.A. (“GNP”), a Latin American subsidiary of an Israel-based provider of satellite-based broadband communications.

Violations Found By the PCAOB

The PCAOB found that during the GNP audit work, the former partner:

  • Violated its rules and standards in evaluating GNP’s revenue recognition, an identified fraud risk;
  • Failure to appropriately supervise the GNP engagement team; and
  • Failure to prepare audit documentation pursuant to PCAOB standards.

d) Deficiencies in Firm Inspection Reports:

K G Somani & Co. LLP

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) has issued a report detailing significant deficiencies in the audits conducted by K G Somani & Co. LLP. These deficiencies, which span various aspects of the firm’s audit practices, have raised serious concerns regarding the quality of their audits, compliance with PCAOB rules, and audit independence. Below is an overview of the key findings from the PCAOB inspection report, categorized into several critical areas:

1) Audits with Unsupported Opinions

One of the most concerning findings in the PCAOB inspection report is the firm’s failure to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support its audit opinions, particularly regarding the financial statements and Internal Control Over Financial Reporting (ICFR). Specific deficiencies identified in this area include:

Issuer A (Information Technology):

  • Revenue, Accounts Receivable, Cash, Goodwill, and Intangible Assets: The firm did not perform adequate testing of these key areas, including revenue recognition and the valuation of goodwill and intangible assets.
  • Inadequate Testing of Revenue Transactions: The firm failed to adequately test revenue transactions to ensure they were correctly recorded in accordance with accounting standards.
  • Failure to Evaluate Key Controls: The audit did not adequately assess controls over critical areas such as journal entries or accounts receivable, which could have flagged material misstatements.
  • Insufficient Fraud Risk Assessment: The firm did not perform sufficient procedures related to journal entries, which could indicate potential fraud. This failure led to an incomplete evaluation of the fraud risks inherent in the audit.

The deficiencies in obtaining sufficient evidence for these areas have resulted in unsupported audit opinions on the financial statements and ICFR of Issuer A. This raises concerns about the accuracy of the firm’s audit conclusions and whether the financial statements provided to stakeholders were truly reliable.

2) Other Instances of Non-Compliance

The inspection also identified several other areas where the firm did not comply with PCAOB standards, further compromising the reliability of their audits. These non-compliance issues include:

  • Journal Entries: The firm did not perform sufficient procedures to ensure that the population of journal entries was complete when testing for possible material misstatements due to fraud, as outlined in AS 1105. This lack of thorough testing increases the risk of overlooking fraudulent activity in the audit.
  • Audit Independence: The firm failed to properly assess the compliance of audit participants with independence requirements, as mandated by AS 2101. This represents a violation of critical PCAOB standards and raises concerns about the objectivity and integrity of the audit process.
  • Risk Identification: The firm did not adequately inquire with the audit committee and the internal audit function about material misstatement risks, including fraud risks, as required under AS 2110. This failure in communication could have led to an incomplete or inaccurate risk assessment for the audit.
  • Internal Control Reports: The firm’s internal control report was deficient, as it failed to reference the financial statements for all years included in the Form 10-K, violating AS 2201. This omission raises concerns about the completeness and accuracy of the firm’s reporting on the effectiveness of internal controls over financial reporting.

3) Independence Issues

The inspection report also identified concerns regarding the firm’s audit independence, an area of particular importance for maintaining the integrity of the audit process. Specifically, the firm may have violated SEC and PCAOB rules regarding audit independence. An indemnification agreement between the audit client and the firm impaired the auditor’s independence, violating Rule 2-01(b) of Regulation S-X.

4) Quality Control

While no major criticisms were found regarding the firm’s quality control system, the PCAOB inspection raised concerns about the effectiveness of monitoring activities within the firm. These concerns suggest that there may be gaps in ensuring that audit procedures consistently align with PCAOB standards across all audits, which could increase the risk of non-compliance in future audits.

The deficiencies identified in the PCAOB inspection report reflect significant gaps in K G Somani & Co. LLP’s audit processes, especially in their testing procedures, risk assessments, and compliance with independence rules. The firm’s inability to test key areas adequately, such as revenue recognition, journal entries, and internal controls, may have led to inaccurate or unsupported opinions on the financial statements and ICFR of its clients. These findings underscore the critical need for corrective action to bring the firm’s audit practices into compliance with PCAOB standards.

Additionally, the potential breach of independence requirements due to the indemnification agreement with the audit client needs to be urgently addressed. The firm must also take steps to improve its internal quality control processes to prevent future instances of non-compliance.

The PCAOB has set a 12-month period for the firm to address these deficiencies. Failure to do so will result in public disclosure of any unresolved issues. The firm’s response to the PCAOB draft inspection report will be evaluated to ensure that the necessary corrective actions are taken to comply with PCAOB standards and maintain the integrity of its audits.

3. THE SECURITIES EXCHANGE COMMISSION (SEC)

a) SEC Charges ADM and Three Former Executives with Accounting and Disclosure Fraud

On January 27, 2026, The SEC in the matter of materially inflating the performance of one of the key segments i.e. Nutrition segment of Archer-Daniels-Midland Company (ADM) filed the following:

  •  Charges against ADM and two former executives.
  • Litigated action against one of its former executives.

As per SEC, the said segment was one that ADM highlighted to its investors as an important driver of the company’s overall growth.

The SEC further highlighted the role of the former executives in directing the ‘adjustments’ to Nutrition segment with other segments of ADM to offset the falling targets in the Nutrition segment in fiscal year 2021 and 2022. These adjustments included retrospective rebates and price change between the Nutrition and Other segment which were not available to other customers thereby passing on the operating profit to Nutrition segment. These transactions thus helped ADM and the executives to show that the Nutrition segment has achieved the desired operating profit of 15% to 20% as promised by the executives to the investors.

The order finds that the above adjustments in annual and quarterly reports of ADM led to false and were misleading as these transactions were inconsistent with the representations by the ADM that intersegment transactions were recorded at amounts “approximating market”.

The former executives of ADM were charged with violating the antifraud provisions of the federal securities laws, reporting, books and records, and internal accounting control provisions of the federal securities laws in case of all the concern executives and aiding and abetting ADM’s violations of the antifraud and failing to reimburse ADM for certain executive compensation as required in case of one of the executive.

The following penal charges are levied:

  • ADM – civil penalty of $40,000,000
  • Executive 1 – Disgorgement and prejudgment interest – $404,343, Civil penalty of $125,000, three-year officer and director bar.
  • Executive 2 – Disgorgement and prejudgment interest – $575,610 and Civil penalty of $75,000
  • Executive 3 – Permanent injunctions, an officer and director bar, disgorgement of ill-gotten gains with prejudgment interest, civil penalties, and reimbursement of certain executive compensation to ADM pursuant to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE

As part of the reform process being undertaken by the Government of India, 29 existing labour legislations were consolidated into a unified framework comprising four labour codes, viz., the Code on Wages, 2019, the Code on Social Security, 2020, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, which were made effective from November 21, 2025. The Ministry of Labour & Employment published draft Central Rules and FAQs to enable assessment of the financial impact due to changes in regulations. The ASB of ICAI has also issued FAQs on key accounting implications arising from the New Labour Codes.

Given below are disclosures by a few select companies on the impact of the above Codes in their results for the quarter and 9 months ended 31st December 2025.

Extracts from the Standalone Financial Results for the quarter and nine months ended December 31, 2025

Reliance Industries Limited   (₹ in crores)

Particulars

 

 

Employee Benefits Expense

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Unaudited Unaudited Unaudited
2,759 2,321 2,181

The Government of India has consolidated 29 existing labour legislations into a unified framework comprising four labour codes, viz., the Code on Wages, 2019, the Code on Social Security, 2020, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 (collectively referred to as the “Codes”). The Codes have been made effective from November 21, 2025. The Ministry of Labour & Employment published draft Central Rules and FAQs to enable assessment of the financial impact due to changes in regulations.

The incremental impact of these changes, assessed by the Company, on the basis of the information available, consistent with the guidance provided by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, is not material and has been recognised in the standalone financial results, of the Company for the quarter and nine months ended December 31, 2025. Once Central / State Rules are notified by the Government on all aspects of the Codes, the Company will evaluate impact, if any, on the measurement of employee benefits and would provide appropriate accounting treatment.

Tata Consultancy Services Limited  (₹ in crores)

Particulars

 

Profit before exceptional items and Tax

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Audited Audited Audited
16,129 16,094 15,509
Exceptional Items
Re-structuring expenses (79) (850)
Statutory impact of new Labour Codes (Refer Note 3) (2,128)
Provision towards legal claim (1,010)
Profit before Tax 12,912 15,244 15,509

Note 3:

On November 21, 2025, the Government of India notified the four Labour Codes – the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 – consolidating 29 existing labour laws. The Ministry of Labour & Employment published draft Central Rules and FAQs to enable assessment of the financial impact due to changes in regulations. The Company has assessed and disclosed the incremental impact of these changes on the basis of legal opinion obtained and the best information available, consistent with the guidance provided by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. Considering the materiality and regulatory-driven, non-recurring nature of this impact, the Company has presented such incremental impact as “Statutory impact of new Labour Codes” under “Exceptional items” in the standalone interim statement of profit and loss for the period ended December 31, 2025. The incremental impact consisting of gratuity of ₹1,816 crore and long-term compensated absences of ₹312 crore primarily arises due to change in wage definition. The Company continues to monitor the finalisation of Central / State Rules and clarifications from the Government on other aspects of the Labour Code and would provide appropriate accounting effect on the basis of such developments, as needed.

Infosys Limited                  (₹ in crores)

Particulars

 

 

Profit before exceptional item and Tax

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
 Audited Audited Audited
10,817 10,469 8,844
Exceptional Item
Impact of Labour Codes (Refer to Note c) (1,146)
Profit before tax 9,671 10,469 8,844

Note c) Impact of Labour Codes:

On November 21, 2025, the Government of India notified provisions of the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020 and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 (‘Labour Codes’), which consolidate twenty-nine existing labour laws into a unified framework governing employee benefits during employment and post-employment. The Labour Codes, amongst other things, introduces changes, including a uniform definition of wages and enhanced benefits relating to leave. The Company has assessed the financial implications of these changes, which has resulted in an increase in gratuity liability arising out of past service cost and an increase in leave liability by ₹1,146 crore. Considering the impact arising out of the enactment of the new legislation is an event of non-recurring nature, the Company has presented this incremental amount as “Impact of Labour Codes” under “Exceptional Item” in the Condensed Standalone Statement of Profit and Loss for the three months and nine months ended December 31, 2025.The Company continues to monitor the developments pertaining to Labour Codes and will evaluate the impact, if any, on the measurement of the employee benefits liability.

Tata Motors Limited (formerly TML Commercial Vehicles Limited) 

                                                                       (₹ in crores)

Particulars

 

Profit before exceptional items and Tax

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
 Audited Audited Audited
2,318 1,757 1,603
Exceptional Items-loss (net) (refer Note 4) 1,545 2,366 24
Profit/(loss) before tax 773 (609) 1,579

Note 4: Exceptional Items- Net losses/ (gains)

                                                                              (₹ in crores)

Particulars Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Audited Audited Unaudited
Provision for/(reversal of) impairment of investment in subsidiary and associate companies 2,355 (1)
Stamp Duty charges 962
Statutory impact of new Labour Codes (refer Note (iii) below) 574
Provision for employee pension scheme 8
Reversal of impairment of property, plant and equipment and provision for Intangible assets under development (net)  – (1)
Employee separation cost 1 1 4
Past Service cost- Post retirement Medicare scheme
Total 1,545 2,366 24

Note (iii):

On November 21, 2025, the Government of India notified the four Labour Codes – the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 – consolidating 29 existing labour laws. The Ministry of Labour & Employment published draft Central Rules and FAQs to enable assessment of the financial impact due to changes in regulations. The Company has evaluated and disclosed the incremental impact of these changes using the best information currently available, consistent with the guidance provided by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. Considering the materiality and regulatory-driven, non-recurring nature of this impact, the Company has presented such incremental impact as “Statutory impact of new Labour Codes” in the financial results for the quarter and nine months ended December 31, 2025. The incremental impact consisting of gratuity of ₹482 crores and long-term compensated absences of ₹92 crores, primarily arises due to change in wage definition. The Company continues to monitor the finalisation of Central / State Rules and clarifications from the Government on other aspects of the Labour Code and would provide appropriate accounting effect on the basis of such developments as needed.

AXIS BANK LTD                          (₹ in crores) 

Particulars

 

 

 

Operating expenses (i)+(ii)

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Unaudited Unaudited Unaudited
9,636.52 9,956.60 9,044.20
(i) Employees cost (Refer Note 7) 2,771.79 3.117.63 2,984.61
(ii) Other operating expenses 6,864.73 6,838.97 6,059.59

 

Note 7: On 21st November 2025, the Government of India consolidated 29 existing labour laws into a unified framework of four Labour Codes (including the Code on Social Security, 2020), collectively referred to as the ‘New Labour Codes’. Since Q3FY21, based on an internal policy, the Bank has been consistently provisioning for gratuity liability, in anticipation of the implementation of the Code on Social Security, 2020. In Q3FY26, the Bank has performed a preliminary assessment of the financial impact of the New Labour Codes based on the draft Central Rules and FAQs published by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, in line with the guidance from the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. The Bank has charged to its Profit and Loss Account for Q3FY26 an amount of ₹25.44 crores towards gratuity, primarily due to changes in the wage definition. As on 31st December 2025, the Bank holds a cumulative provision of ₹434.09 crores towards the New Labour Codes. The Bank will monitor the finalisation of Central and State Rules relating to the New Labour Codes and adjust its estimates and provisions in subsequent reporting periods for gratuity and other aspects of the New Labour Codes, in accordance with applicable accounting standards.

HDFC BANK LIMITED   (₹ in crores)

Particulars

 

 

 

Operating expenses (i)+(ii)

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Unaudited Unaudited Unaudited
18,771.04 17,977.92 17,106.41
(i) Employees cost (Refer Note 12) 7,203.17 6,461.29 5,950.41
(ii) Other operating expenses 11,567.87 11,516.63 11,156.00

 

Note 12: On November 21, 2025, the Government of India notified four Labour Codes – the Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020, and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, collectively referred to as the ‘New Labour Codes’, consolidating 29 existing labour laws. The Ministry of Labour & Employment has published draft Central Rules and FAQs on December 30, 2025, to facilitate assessment of the financial impact arising from these regulatory changes. Accordingly, the Bank has recognised an estimated incremental impact of ₹800.00 crore under ‘Employees cost’ in the Profit and Loss Account during the quarter and nine months ended December 31, 2025, considering best information available. The Bank continues to monitor the finalisation of Central and State Rules and clarifications from the Government on the New Labour Codes and would provide appropriate accounting effect on the basis of such developments, as needed.

LARSEN & TOUBRO LIMITED      (₹ in crores) 

Particulars

 

 

 

Exceptional items before tax

Quarter ended
December 31, 2025 September 30, 2025 December 31, 2024
Reviewed Reviewed Reviewed
(1,108.73) (5,413.00)
Current tax (279.05)
Exceptional Items (net of tax) (Refer Note ii)  (829.68) (5,413.00)

Note (ii): Effective November 21, 2025, the Government of India consolidated 29 existing labour regulations into four Labour codes, namely, The Code on Wages, 2019, The Industrial Relations Code, 2020, The Code on Social Security, 2020 and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, collectively referred to as the ‘New Labour Codes’. The New Labour Codes have resulted in a one-time material increase in provision for employee benefits on account of recognition of past service costs. Based on the requirements of New Labour Codes and the ICAI clarification, the Company has assessed and accounted the estimated incremental Impact of ₹829.68 crore (net of tax) as Exceptional Items in the financial results for the quarter and nine months ended December 31, 2025.

The Limit of Long – Range Forecasting in Goodwill Impairment Reliability, Avoiding Optimism Bias and the Discipline of IND AS 36

Under Ind AS 36, assessing goodwill impairment via “value in use” restricts cash flow forecasts to a five-year maximum, unless explicitly justified. Companies often improperly extend and perpetually defer these projected inflows to avoid recognizing impairment. However, the Standard dictates that extended forecasts must be strictly reliable and validated by historical performance. Regulators like ESMA and NFRA emphasize that repeatedly missing past projections destroys forecast credibility. Furthermore, speculative future enhancements cannot be included. Ultimately, perpetually deferred cash flows fail the reliability test, rendering goodwill impairment unavoidable and mandatory.

INTRODUCTION

Impairment testing of goodwill under Ind AS 36 Impairment of Assets hinges on the recoverability of future economic benefits. The Standard allows for value in use (ViU) assessments using forecasted cash flows, but imposes strict conditions, particularly when entities seek to justify forecast periods beyond five years. In practice, many companies operating in high-tech or capital-intensive sectors rely on extended projections, sometime perpetually deferring expected cash flows to avoid impairment. This practice has drawn global and domestic regulatory scrutiny. This article examines a specific impairment issue involving extended forecast periods and repeatedly deferred cash flows, analysed through the framework of Ind AS 36.

THE ACCOUNTING ISSUE

Consider an Entity X operating in a technology-intensive industry, which acquired a business engaged in developing specialised hardware and embedded solutions. At the acquisition date, the acquired business is largely in a development phase, with limited commercial revenues. A substantial portion of the purchase consideration was recognised as goodwill, allocated to a single cash-generating unit (CGU).

For the purpose of annual impairment testing, the entity employed a ViU model. Management prepared explicit cash flow projections covering ten years, asserting that meaningful revenues and operating cash inflows are expected only in the later years of the forecast period. The use of a forecast period exceeding five years is justified on the basis that:

  • the industry has long development and customer qualification cycles;
  • commercial success is dependent on future regulatory or legislative changes; and
  • management has historical experience of products that took several years to generate revenue.

In the initial impairment tests following the acquisition, significant cash inflows were projected in years seven to ten. However, as time progressed, those cash inflows failed to materialise. In each subsequent impairment test, the management preserved the forecast profile but simply shifted the projected inflows forward by one year, effectively deferring them further into the future.

During one intermediate year, the entity recognised a partial impairment of goodwill, driven by changes in macroeconomic assumptions and discount rates. Yet in the years that followed, despite continued delays in achieving forecast revenues, management maintained the ten-year forecast horizon and did not recognise any further impairment. It was only when management revised its assumptions specifically around timing of inflows and reliability of long-range projections that a substantial impairment was finally recognised.

ISSUE

This evolving pattern of forecast deferral leads to a key technical question under Ind AS 36:

Can management continue to justify the use of an extended forecast period for goodwill impairment testing when prior long-term projections have repeatedly failed to materialise? Does such deferral comply with the requirements of Ind AS 36 for reliable and supportable assumptions?

ACCOUNTING ANALYSIS UNDER IND AS 36

Extended Forecast Periods- Justification Required

As per paragraph 33(b) of Ind AS 36, cash flow projections used in measuring value in use must be based on the most recent financial budgets or forecasts approved by management and cover a maximum period of five years, unless a longer period can be justified.

Paragraph 35 cautions that detailed, explicit and reliable financial budgets and forecasts of future cash flows for periods longer than five years are generally not available and are permitted only where management is confident of their reliability and can demonstrate its ability, based on past experience, to forecast cash flows over that longer period.

In the Entity X example above, repeated deferral of cash inflows without ever meeting prior projections strongly suggests that the extended period fails the reliability test.

The Reliability Trap Navigating Long Range Forecasts in Goodwill impairment

A nearly identical conclusion was reached in the European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA) case – Decision ref EECS/0126-01, published in the 30th Extract from the FRWG (EECS)’s Database of Enforcement. There the enforcer found that repeated use of longer-duration (nine years in that case) forecast horizon, with inflows continually shifted forward, failed to meet the reliability threshold under IAS 36 (which is equivalent to Ind AS 36 in this respect). As a result, the forecast period was reduced to five years, and this adjustment triggered an impairment of goodwill.

Forecast Reliability and Historical Performance

Paragraph 34 of Ind AS 36 requires management to assess the reasonableness of assumptions by, examining the causes of differences between past projections and actual outcomes. This comparison is not optional: it is a direct test of forecast credibility. If historical forecasts have consistently failed to materialise, continued reliance on similar assumptions lacks support under the Standard.

This principle is echoed by the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) in its publication – Audit Committee – Auditor Interactions Series 4 Audit of Accounting Estimates and Judgements Impairment of Non-financial Assets- Ind AS 36, SA 540 etc. NFRA explicitly calls on both auditors and audit committees to challenge management’s assumptions by evaluating past performance:

Has the auditor tested the reasonableness and reliability of future growth projections, profit margins etc., by evaluating the historical trend of actual performance versus budget?” (Paragraph 46.10 of NFRA Series 4)

In case of Entity X, despite multiple years of underperformance relative to forecasts, management continued to defer project inflows without revisiting the model’s reliability, putting it at odds with both Ind AS 36 and NFRA expectations.

Exclusion of Future Enhancements

Paragraph 44 of Ind AS 36 prohibits the inclusion of cash flows that are expected to arise from future restructurings or from improving or enhancing the asset’s performance, unless those actions are already committed. This provision ensures that cash flow projections reflect the asset’s current condition and performance capability, not speculative or aspirational improvements.

In its Audit Committee – Auditor Interactions Series 4, NFRA directly reinforces this standard by urging auditors to scrutinize the nature of projected cash inflows:

“Has the auditor ensured the cash flow estimates exclude inflows and cost savings from future business or performance enhancements” (Paragraph 46.10 of NFRA Series 4)

In the Entity X scenario, although the model did not explicitly include planned restructurings, it effectively assumed that forecasted cash inflows would eventually materialise despite years of consistent underperformance. This implies an unstated expectation of future enhancements, in direct contradiction to the intent of paragraph 44 and NFRA’s caution against including such assumptions in ViU calculations.

Use of Internal vs. External Evidence

Paragraph 33(a) of Ind AS 36 prioritizes external market evidence over internal assumptions. NFRA flags this as a critical focus area:

“Has the auditor tested reasonableness of weightages given to internal and external data?”(Paragraph 46.10 of NFRA Series 4)

Entity X’s model relied entirely on internal conviction, with little alignment to market or regulatory developments.

CONCLUSION

The broader message is that goodwill cannot be supported indefinitely by cash flows that remain perpetually deferred. When time passes but value does not materialise, the issue ceases to be one of timing and becomes one of reliability and once reliability is lost, impairment becomes unavoidable. Ind AS 36 provides clear guardrails through its five-year forecast threshold and reliability clause. ESMA’s decision and NFRA’s Series 4 guidance reinforces these guardrails from a practical reinforcement perspective.

For preparers and auditors, the core lesson is that once management repeatedly fails to deliver on long-term forecasts, those forecasts lose credibility. At that point, impairment is not a conservative stance; it is required and should have been provided much earlier. Professional judgement must favour realism, supported by evidence, over hopeful deferral ensuring that asset values remain aligned with recoverable benefit.

Goods And Services Tax

I. HIGH COURT

103. (2026) 38 Centax 260 (Mad.) Abdul Kader M. vs. State Tax Officer dated 08.01.2026.

Assessment without personal hearing is invalid for violation of natural justice, even if limitation extension is otherwise valid.

FACTS

The Central Government issued Notification No. 09/2023 dated 31.03.2023 and Notification No. 56/2023 dated 28.12.2023 under section 168A of the CGST Act, 2017, extending the limitation period for completing proceedings under section 73. Pursuant to these notifications, the respondent passed an assessment order dated 30.07.2024 in the name of the petitioner’s father determining tax liability. Petitioner’s father died after the order was passed, and the petitioner, being the legal heir, stated that he could not file a reply to the SCN and that no personal hearing was granted, resulting in violation of natural justice. Aggrieved by the notifications and the assessment order, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court challenging their validity.

HELD:

The Hon’ble High Court held that although Notification Nos. 09/2023 and 56/2023 were vitiated and illegal, as declared in Tata Play Ltd. vs. UOI (2025) 32 Centax 318 (Mad.), the initiation of proceedings was valid in view of the limitation extension granted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Suo Motu Writ (C) No. 3 of 2020, read with section 168A of the CGST Act, 2017. However, as the assessment order was passed without granting a personal hearing, in violation of the principles of natural justice, the Court set aside the order and remanded the matter to the assessing authority for fresh adjudication after giving the petitioner, as legal heir, an opportunity to file objections and be heard.

104. (2026) 38 Centax 228 (Cal.) Amar Iron Udyog Pvt. Ltd. vs Union of India dated 13.01.2026.

ITC on imports cannot be denied merely due to non-reflection in GST portal when IGST payment is confirmed by customs authorities

FACTS:

Petitioner imported goods and availed ITC of IGST paid on such imports under section 16 of the CGST Act, 2017. The GST department issued a SCN under section 73 alleging excess availment of ITC on imports on the ground that the petitioner failed to produce certified proof of IGST payment from the customs authorities. Respondent confirmed the demand and the respondent upheld the order ex-parte. Aggrieved, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD:

The Hon’ble High Court held that the customs reports confirmed payment of IGST and explained its non-reflection on the GST portal, requiring reconsideration of the issue. Accordingly, the Court set aside the appellate authority’s findings on excess ITC and remanded the matter to the respondent for fresh decision after giving the petitioner an opportunity of hearing.

105. (2026) 38 Centax 165 (Ker.)E.P. Gopakumar vs. Union of India dated 08.01.2026.

GST exemption on health insurance under Notification 16/2025 applies only to individual policies and not to group insurance policies.

FACTS:

Petitioner was covered under a group health insurance policy arranged through the Indian Bank’s Association with an insurance company and paid GST on the insurance premium. After issuance of Notification No. 16/2025-Central Tax (Rate) dated 17.09.2025 granting GST exemption on health insurance services, the petitioner contended that the exemption should also apply to his group insurance policy and challenged the levy of GST on the premium. However, the respondent continued to levy GST on the ground that the exemption was applicable only to individual health insurance policies and not group insurance policies. Aggrieved by the continued levy of GST, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking exemption and refund of GST paid.

HELD:

The Hon’ble High Court held that the exemption under Notification No. 16/2025-Central Tax (Rate) was intended to apply only to individual health insurance policies and not to group insurance policies obtained through collective bargaining by the Indian Banks’ Association. The Court observed that group insurance policies provided special benefits, lower premiums, and additional advantages not available to individual policyholders, and therefore were distinct from individual policies. Accordingly, the Court held that the petitioner was not entitled to GST exemption on the group insurance premium and dismissed the writ petition.

106. (2026) 39 Centax 117 (Guj.) Reevan Creation vs. State of Gujarat dated 09.01.2026.

Seized goods must be released and bank attachment lifted if statutory timelines under sections 67 and 83 of CGST Act are not followed.

FACTS:

Petitioner was engaged in trading of gold, silver, diamonds, and jewellery, was subjected to search proceedings under section 67(2) of the CGST Act in March 2022, during which gold, other bullion, and cash were seized and its bank accounts were provisionally attached under section 83. Despite lapse of more than one year, the provisional attachment was not lifted, and no notice for confiscation under section 130 or show cause notice within six months of seizure as required under section 67(7) was issued. The petitioner requested release of seized goods and lifting of attachment, but no action was taken by the respondent. Aggrieved by such inaction and violation of statutory timelines, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking release of seized goods and defreezing of bank accounts.

HELD:

The Hon’ble High Court held that as per section 67(7) of the CGST Act, where no notice is issued within six months of seizure, the seized goods must be returned and in the present case, the respondent failed to issue such notice within the prescribed time or even within the extended period. The Court further held that provisional attachment under section 83 automatically ceases after one year, and since no fresh attachment order was issued, continuation of attachment was illegal. Accordingly, the Court directed the respondent to release the seized goods and cash and lift the provisional attachment of bank accounts.

107. (2026) 39 Centax 106 (M.P.) Trishul Construction vs. Union of India dated 21.01.2026.

GST reimbursement in pre-GST contracts cannot be denied on technical grounds.

FACTS:

Petitioner was awarded a railway construction contract prior to the implementation of GST and paid GST of ₹2.34 crore on the works executed after GST came into force in July 2017. The petitioner sought reimbursement (GST neutralization) from the respondent, as the GST burden was contractually to be borne by the respondent. Although the petitioner submitted its claim and supporting documents and the GST payment was verified by the GST department, the respondent rejected the claim on the ground that the final bill had been passed and a no-claim certificate had been submitted, and also because the supplementary agreement was not executed by both parties. Aggrieved by rejection of its GST reimbursement claim, the petitioner filed a writ petition before the High Court.

HELD:

The Hon’ble High Court held that the petitioner had made the GST neutralization claim before completion of the contract and had duly paid GST, which was verified by the authorities. The Court observed that rejection of the claim merely on the ground of final bill and no-claim certificate was unjustified, especially when the supplementary agreement was signed by the petitioner but not executed due to the respondent’s inaction, and the GST burden was admittedly to be borne by the respondent. Accordingly, the Court allowed the petition and directed the respondent to reimburse the GST neutralization amount to the petitioner.

108. (2026) 183 taxmann.com 110 (Madras) N. Ramkhuar Narasimhan vs. Assistant Commissioner (ST) dated 21.01.2026.

Recovery proceeding against directors of company under liquidation by attaching personal bank accounts held unjustified.

FACTS:

Petitioner is a director of a company under proceeding under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and for which an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) was appointed in 2017. Vide an NCLT order, the company was ordered to be liquidated and the IRP was appointed as a Liquidator. Hon’ble High Court observed that the company under liquidation appeared to have carried on business activities between 2019 and 2021 and also incurred certain tax liability. Thus, in respect of the said tax liability incurred by the company under litigation, impugned recovery proceeding was initiated by attaching bank account of the petitioner maintained with the bank. Petitioner, however pleaded that they are no longer associated with the said company under liquidation as the company was in charge of the Liquidator who was earlier IRP during the relevant time. The facts on record revealed that the amount was recovered from the credit ledger of the
company whereas the company was in arrears for interest and penalty confirmed by the orders passed by assessing officers.

HELD:

There is no justification found to attach bank account of the petitioners who are individual directors of the company under liquidation process for the mandate of section 88(3) of the GST Act of Tamil Nadu. However, it was further held that it was open for the petitioner to move suitable application within 15 days of the date of the receipt of the copy of Hon’ble Court’s order before the GST and Income Tax departments to extricate themselves from the liability in the impugned order and subsequent to which, the department will pass an appropriate order after hearing the
petitioner in such regard. The attachment in the petitioner’s bank account shall stand vacated subject to the order to be passed.

109. (2026) 183 taxmann.com 77 (Madras) Tvl Sri Jeyamurugan Building Promoters vs. Commissioner of Commercial Taxes, Chennai dated 29.01.2026.

Though service of show cause notice on a portal is a sufficient service, in absence of response thereto, alternate prescribed modes should have been explored. Passing merely an ex- parte order is an empty formality resulting in multiple litigations.

FACTS:

Petitioner challenged the order passed ex-parte and pleaded they were unaware of all notices and other communications uploaded on the GST common portal and hence they did not file any reply in time. Hence no opportunity could be availed before the order was passed. Also petitioner showed willingness to pay 25% of the disputed tax amount and plead to grant an opportunity of being heard and set aside the ex-parte order. Revenue on the other hand maintained that the notices were uploaded on the portal, however admitted fairly that no opportunity of hearing was granted.

HELD:

Considering the fact, the court noted that it was evident that the petitioner being unaware of the issuance of the notice, did not receive original show cause notice and that the order was passed without granting opportunity of being heard. The court further noted that though uploading of the show cause notice on the common portal was a sufficient service, on knowing that petitioner has not responded to the show cause notice, the officer should have explored possibility of sending notice by other modes as prescribed in section 169 of the GST Act which are also valid modes under the Act or else it is not an effective service but an empty formality and passing of exparte order does not serve an useful purpose and give rise to
multiplicity of litigations. The Court set aside the order on the condition of payment of the disputed tax liability within 4 weeks by the petitioner and remanded the matter and provided 3 weeks’ time of the payment to file the reply and submit required documents and directed respondent to issue a notice of clear 14 days to fix the personal hearing and thereafter pass appropriate orders on merits and in accordance with the law.

II TRIBUNAL

110. (2026) 39 Centax 246 (Tri. – GST – Delhi) Sterling & Wilson Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner, Odisha, Commissionerate of CT GST dated 11.02.2026.

Where GST demand arises due to return mismatch without fraud, the petitioner must be given opportunity to amend returns and reconcile before final tax determination.

FACTS:

Respondent issued a demand under section 74 of the CGST Act along with interest and penalty on the ground of mismatch between GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B returns. Petitioner contended that the difference arose due to debit notes, credit notes and advance adjustments which were duly recorded in its books but could
not be properly reflected in periodical returns due to technical and timing issues. Respondent accepted absence of fraud and converted the proceedings from section 74 to section 73 but still confirmed tax and interest demand. Aggrieved, the petitioner filed an appeal before the GST Appellate Tribunal challenging the demand and seeking opportunity to correct returns.

HELD:

The Hon’ble Tribunal held that the respondent had already accepted that the petitioner had disclosed transactions in its books and there was no fraud or intention to evade tax and the only lapse was non-reflection of debit and credit notes in periodical returns. The Tribunal further held that tax liability could not be finally determined without proper examination and reconciliation by the respondent, and once proceedings were treated under section 73, the matter had to be remanded for fresh determination. Accordingly, the Tribunal set aside the orders to the extent of tax determination and remanded the matter to the respondent for reconsideration after giving the petitioner an opportunity to amend returns and submit supporting documents.

Recent Developments in GST

A. ADVISORY

i) GSTN has issued Advisory, dated 4th January 2026, on Filing Opt-In Declaration for Specified Premises.

ii) GSTN has issued Advisory, dated 23rd January 2026, on RSP-Based Valuation of Notified Tobacco Goods under GST.

iii) GSTN has also issued Advisory, dated 30th January 2026, on Interest Collection and Related Enhancements in GSTR-3B.

B. ADVANCE RULINGS

12. Steel Industrials Kerala Ltd. (AAR Order No. KER/41/2025 dt.08.12.2025) (KER)

Centage Charges vis-à-vis Pure Services to Government. Falls either under Article 243W or 243G of Constitution. Thus, not taxable under GST and are exempt under Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

FACTS

The facts are that Steel Industrials Kerala Limited (SILK), applicant, operates as a government accredited agency for the execution of civil, structural and electro-mechanical projects in the capacity of a Project Management Consultant (PMC).

SILK undertook various PMC assignments for client agencies including the Local Self Government Department (LSGD) and such other Government authorities/entities.

As part of the consideration for the PMC services, SILK collected “centage charges” from the client departments. These centage charges were billed/collected by SILK in respect of the consultancy/PMC activities performed for the Government entities and local bodies. Centage charges represent a percentage-based consultancy/administrative fee collected by SILK for project management and supervisory services rendered to Government departments/local authorities.

Applicant made an application to AAR as to whether collection of Centage charges received from various Government entities are liable to GST or exempt under entry 3 of Notification no.12/2017-CT(Rate) dated 28.6.2017 read with SRO No.371/2017, being pure services, like development of RRT & VET facilities for environmental protection, which fall under Article 243W.

Applicant also raised question of GST already paid for previous periods.

The ld. AAR referred to entry 3 in Notification no.12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.6.2017 and reproduced the same in AR.

HELD

The ld. AAR observed that for eligibility under this exemption, the following conditions must be cumulatively satisfied:

(i) the supply must be pure services (i.e. without supply of goods),

(ii) the service is being supplied to one of the following entities: Central Government or State Government or Union territory or local authority.

(iii) the service provided must be in relation to the function entrusted to the Panchayat or Municipality under Article 243G/ 243W of the Constitution.

The ld. AAR observed that in given case, the transactions are for pure services.

The ld. AAR also referred to meaning of ‘local authority’ mentioned in entry 3 and observed that the organisations to whom the applicant has rendered services are either state government departments or like, which squarely fall within the categories specified in Entry No. 3 of Notification No.12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

The ld. AAR also observed that the activities of various organizations to whom services are provided falls either under Article 243W or 243G of Constitution.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the centage charges mentioned in the application are not taxable under GST and are exempt under Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

Regarding the refund of GST already paid, the ld. AAR referred to section 54 and opined that the applicant can pursue its case u/s. 54. The ld. AAR declined to comment on the eligibility for refund after two years on ground that factors like the issue of unjust enrichment not covered within the scope of this application and needs to be examined by jurisdictional officer on merits, on a case-to-case basis.

Thus, the ld. AAR gave the ruling in favour of applicant.

13. East African India Overseas (AAR Order No. 04/2025-26 dt.6.1.2026) (Uttarakhand)

Classification – Medicated Toilet Soap attract tax @ 18%.

FACTS

The applicant is a registered partnership firm engaged in manufacturing and supply of Pharmaceutical Formulations viz. Tablets, Capsules, Syrup, Toilet Soaps and Medicated Toilet Soaps etc.

Applicant was classifying the toilet soaps as well as medicated toilet soaps under HSN 3401 of the Custom Tariff Act, 1975 till 21.9.2025, and in terms of provision of Notification no.1/2017-CT(Rate) dated 28.6.2017, paying tax on these products @ 18%.

However, vide Notification 09/2025-CT (Rate) dated 17.09.2025, the above notification was superseded and in terms of Schedule I entry at Sl. No. 251, 2.5% rate of CGST (i.e. effective rate of 5%) is prescribed for “Toilet Soap (Other than Industrial Soap) in the form of bars, cakes, moulded pieces or shapes”.However, there being no clarity about medicated toilet soap, applicant raised issues before the ld. AAR as under:

“a. What is the correct rate of GST applicable to Medicated Toilet Soap (HSN 3401) w.e.f. 22.09.2025?

b. Whether Medicated Toilet Soap, being classifiable under HSN 3401, is covered under revised 5% rate applicable to Toilet Soap, or whether it continues under the general 18% slab?”

The applicant submitted that even after changes in the rate of GST effective from 22.9.2025, both Toilet Soap and Medicated Toilet Soap remain covered under HSN 3401. It was submitted that after 22.09.2025, the Toilet Soap, in terms of Schedule-I entry serial no. 251 of notification no. 09/2025-CT(Rate) dated 17.09.2025, has been made liable to GST @ 5% and medicated toilet soap may also remain covered by above entry, liable to tax @ 5%.

HELD

The ld. AAR noted that till 21.9.2025, medicated toilet soap was covered under 18% tax slab at Sl. No.61 of the Schedule III of the Notification 1/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28.6.2017, as said entry covered “all types of soaps” with rate of tax @18%.

The ld. AAR further noted that vide Notification 9/2025-CT (Rate) dated 17.9.2025 Soap is notified under both, Schedule I (attracting GST @ 5%) as well as under Schedule II (attracting GST @ 18%). The ld. AAR reproduced the above relevant entries in AR.

The ld. AAR referred to the method of classification under GST and made detailed reference to relevant entries in Customs Tariff Act.

The ld. AAR noted that the Legislature treated variety of soaps differently like industrial soap is not included in entry 251, which shows that the intention of statue is to treat different types of soaps differently for taxation.

The ld. AAR observed that there is no specific tariff entry mentioning “toilet soap” under the broad heading 3401 of the tariff, but there is separate & specific entry provided for medicated toilet soap under tariff item 34011110 and shaving soap under tariff item 34011120. The ld. AAR interpreted that only the toilet soaps which merit classification under tariff entry 34011190 would be covered in the description of the Entry No. 251 of the Schedule I of the Notification dated 17.09.2025 to be liable to tax @ 5%.

In this respect, the ld. AAR observed that the product ‘medicated toilet soap’ has a specific use and purpose and cannot be equated with the general-purpose use toilet soap, covered by Entry 251.

The ld. AAR held that Entry No.66 of the Schedule II of the said Notification dated 17.9.2025 covers all types of soaps, including medicated toilet soap, which do not find mention in Entry No.251 of Schedule I and would attract tax @ 18%.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the product of applicant viz. medicated toilet soap continues to be liable to tax @ 18%.

14. Navya Electric Vehicle Pvt. Ltd. (AAR Order No. WBAAR 24 of 2025-26 dt.31.10.2025) (WB)

Classification – Supply of CKD e-rickshaw. If a complete set of components of an electric three-wheeler vehicle (e-rickshaw) in a CKD form includes motor and any three of the other four major components (other than motor) viz. transmissions, axles, chassis and controller in proportionate number for the assembly of the finished vehicle, the rate will be 5%. Otherwise 18%.

FACTS

The applicant has made this application raising following questions:

“A) Whether the supply of a complete set of components of an electric three wheeler vehicle (e-rickshaw) in a Completely Knocked Down (CKD) form, necessary and sufficient for the assembly of the finished vehicle, should be classified as the finished vehicle itself?

B) Whether the supply of a complete set of components of an electric three wheeler vehicle (e-rickshaw) in a Completely Knocked Down (CKD) form, necessary and sufficient for the assembly of the finished vehicle, should be classified as a set of parts and what is the applicable rate of GST?”

The applicant submitted that the CKD supply involves providing all necessary components- such as the chassis, motor, battery, controller, body panels and differential- in a single, consolidated shipment to the registered dealers/assemblers, who then assemble and sell the final road-worthy electric vehicle.

The applicant further clarified that the tax rate for the finished electric vehicle is 5% which differs significantly from the tax rates applicable to various individual parts, which may be 18% or 28%.

HELD

The ld. AAR observed that to optimise the logistics and facilitate sale through authorised dealers or assemblers, the applicant intends to supply the vehicles in a Completely Knocked Down (CKD) condition and this CKD supply will involve providing all necessary components, such as chassis, motor, battery, controller, body panels and differential in a single consolidated shipment to the registered dealers or assemblers, who will assemble and sell the final road-worthy electric vehicle.

The ld. AAR further observed that the tax rate of finished electric vehicle is 5% while the individual parts are taxable @ 18%.

The ld. AAR referred to definition of vehicles both from common parlance and with reference to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.

The ld. AAR observed that electric three-wheeler vehicle, commonly known as e-rickshaw, is included in the definition of vehicle in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 with effect from 07.01.2015.

The ld. AAR observed that, as per Notification No. 11/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) Dated 28.06.2017 as amended by Central Notification No. 09/2025-Central Tax (Rate) Dated 17.09.2025, e-rickshaw falls in Schedule I vide entry no. 441 and under the Customs Tariff Act, 1975, e-rickshaw is covered by HSN code 870380 (‘other vehicles, with only electric motor for propulsion’) taxable @ 5% vide above serial no. 441 of Schedule I.

The ld. AAR also observed that the parts and accessories of e-rickshaw are covered by different entries of the CGST Act, 2017 and the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 and generally liable to tax @ 18%.

In reference to fact of applicant, the ld. AAR observed that CKD is a concept that is widely used in automobiles, electronics and furniture industries.

Regarding the above issue, the ld. AAR referred to material which has taken place under Customs law, and relevant parts are reproduced in the AR.

The ld. AAR noted vital points relevant for case and opined that three-wheeler vehicle (e-rickshaw) in a CKD condition can be regarded as finished vehicle.

The ld. AAR ruled that if a complete set of components of an electric three-wheeler vehicle (e-rickshaw) in a CKD form includes motor and any three of the other four major components (other than motor) viz. transmissions, axles, chassis and controller in proportionate number for the assembly of the finished vehicle, the rate will be 5%.

The ld. AAR further held that if the supply does not include either motor or any two of the other four major components (other than motor) viz. transmissions, axles, chassis and controller in proportionate number for the assembly of the finished vehicle, then the supply will be regarded as that of components of e-rickshaw and taxable @ 18% under different serial numbers.

15. Vision Plus Security Control Limited (AAR Order No. STC/AAR/5/2025 dt.31.10.2025) (Chhattisgarh)

Valuation – Diesel and Petrol Charge Invoiced Separately, liable for State VAT. GST not applicable.

FACTS

The facts are that the applicant is to engage in handling of fleet operation for an organization for repair and maintenance for vehicles, insurance, drivers and fuel charges that is based on kilometre basis for commercial vehicles and equipment. The applicant has informed that in course of such contracts, the applicant will raise invoice separately for all services and will charge GST as applicable. Further, they will also charge petrol and diesel to customers for fuel expenses on kilometre basis. It was further informed that they will raise separate invoice for fuel consumption (per km basis) and they will not be included in service charges.

The applicant submitted that petroleum crude is excluded from GST under Section 9(2) of CGST Act and is subject to VAT but apprehensive that when diesel is used as part of a bundled service (like fleet management or transport service billed per kilometre), the transaction may be considered as composite supply of service and liable to GST. The applicant has sought the ruling to avoid dual taxation or misclassification in future.

The applicant has sought advance ruling on the following questions:

  • “Whether the invoice for diesel and petrol charges, invoiced separately on a per kilometer basis, would be considered a supply of goods and liable to VAT, or liable to GST?
  • Whether the fuel component, when not bundled with the service and invoiced distinctly, is to be treated independently for tax purposes?
  • What is the appropriate classification and rate of tax, if GST is applicable?
  • If GST is applicable on fuel charges, then further whether VAT is also applicable?
  • If on above fuel charges VAT is applicable, then can we avail VAT input on purchase of petrol/diesel?”

HELD

The ld. AAR made reference to Article 279A (5) of the Constitution which provides that GST Council shall recommend the date on which GST shall be levied on petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel. The ld. AAR observed that while petroleum products are constitutionally included under GST, the date on which GST shall be levied on such goods, shall be as per the decision of the GST Council and accordingly as per the section 9(2) of the CGST Act, inclusion of all excluded petroleum products, including petrol and diesel in GST will require recommendation of the GST Council.

The ld. AAR also referred to meaning of “composite supply” as provided under Section 2(30) of the CGST Act, 2017 and reproduced the same in AR.

The ld. AAR observed about five essential elements for a supply to be considered as a composite supply.

Based on analysis of facts of separate billing etc., the ld. AAR observed that since petroleum products including diesel, are not leviable to tax under CGST Act, 2017, they are not taxable supply per se under GST Act and therefore, the concept of “composite supply” is not applicable in instant transaction as it involves petroleum products.

The ld. AAR also found that every transaction is subject to the conditions and stipulations as mentioned in the contract / agreement and the facts governing the said transaction and such details are lacking in this application. With above rider, the ld. AAR answered the questions as under:

i) The diesel and petrol charges not liable to tax under GST, being excluded by Section 9(2),

ii) that the transaction in question cannot be treated as composite supply,

iii) that GST is presently not applicable on fuel charges (fuel component) viz. petroleum products, for the reasons discussed above,

iv) that petroleum products continue to be taxed under Value Added Tax (VAT) and

v) ITC is not eligible on VAT paid.

16. Citius Holidays Private Limited (AAR Order No. 27/WBAAR/2025-26 dt.16.1.2026)(WB)

Event Management Service provider is eligible to claim ITC, even on provision of food and beverages, booking of venue, booking of hotel rooms etc. All such are ancillary services.

FACTS

The facts are that applicant operates in the Event Management and Tourism Services industry. In the context of event management, the applicant is required to provide food and beverages, in addition to other services such as the rental of hotels or properties, and the organization of tours. These services are offered to corporate clients for offsite meetings, conferences, training programs, and similar events.

Following questions were raised for ruling by AAR:

“(i) Eligibility to avail Input Tax Credit (ITC) on food and beverage services under Section 17(5) in event management and tourism services.

(ii) Requirement of separate invoices from hotel vendors for claiming ITC on food and beverage services.

(iii) Correct method of invoicing to clients for event packages including food and beverage services.

(iv) Whether the applicant is eligible to claim ITC when the food and beverage invoice is raised by the hotel to the applicant, and the applicant charges the client a margin and issues its own invoice for the same?

(v) In cases where the charges for the conference hall and food are inseparable, and the hotel invoices the amount under a single head (such as “conference package”), is the applicant eligible to avail ITC on the entire value?

(vi) Where the hotel provides a package deal including room accommodation, conference hall, and food, and issues a consolidated invoice, is the applicant eligible to avail ITC on the total invoice amount?”

In support of above questions, applicant submitted following factual position.

  • The applicant is engaged in event management and tours & travel services, including booking of hotels, conference rooms, and arranging meals for participants as part of a comprehensive business package.
  •  These services are offered to corporate clients for offsite meetings, conferences, training programs, and similar events.
  •  The hotel provides the applicant bundled services: room accommodation,conference space, and food (buffet/lunch/dinner/tea/snacks).
  •  A single invoice is generally issued by the hotel to the applicant showing these components (sometimes itemised, sometimes bundled).
  • The applicant charges the client a consolidated event management fee which includes these components.”

HELD

The ld. AAR made reference to section 16 as well as section 17(5) and felt that the pertinent question to be decided is whether the service provided by the applicant in the form of event management and tourism services is a composite supply or a mixed supply. The eligibility of ITC depends upon said determination.

The ld. AAR therefore referred to definition of composite supply in section 2(30) as also scope of event management activity.

After analysis of general scope of event management, the ld. AAR observed that event management involves supply of various kinds of goods and services in a bundled form and it satisfies the definition of composite supply under section 2(30). The ld. AAR also observed that the principal supply is management of event and other supplies of goods and services e.g. provision of food and beverages, booking of venue, booking of hotel rooms etc. are all ancillary services.

Regarding eligibility of ITC on food and beverages, the ld. AAR observed that the applicant makes an outward supply of event management which is taxable supply and foods and beverages are supplied as an element of outward composite supply of event management and therefore, the applicant is eligible for availing Input Tax Credit on food and beverages services under the proviso to Section 17(5).  The ld. AAR considered the pattern of raising invoices by hotel. Normally there is single invoice for all services and applicant also raises single invoice describing event management services. The ld. AAR opined that based on such single invoice the applicant can claim ITC as there is no requirement in law to obtain separate invoices for individual element. The ld. AAR also observed that where there is separate bill for Food/beverages, still the ITC is eligible as there is corresponding supply of said food/beverages, though it may be by separate invoice or by single invoice of event management.

With this observation, the ld. AAR answered questions in favour of applicant.

The Jurisprudence of Hearings under GST

Under GST law, personal hearings act as a crucial safeguard of natural justice, preventing arbitrary adjudication in a digital-first ecosystem. They provide a necessary human interface to resolve information asymmetry between the department and the taxpayer.

Hearings are strictly mandatory before adverse decisions concerning tax assessments, registration cancellations, ITC blocking, and refunds. Key jurisprudential principles mandate that “he who hears must decide”, and authorities cannot bypass the three-adjournment rule using pre-packaged dates. Furthermore, while virtual hearings are now the default, adequate preparation time remains essential to ensure a meaningful defense.

INTRODUCTION

The provisions relating to grant of personal hearing serve as the primary legislative guardian of the taxpayer’s right to be heard, ensuring that no liability is fastened without a meaningful opportunity for defense. This article provides a comprehensive analysis of the law governing hearings, the procedural aspects of hearings, and the implications of procedural lapses.

1. The Role of ‘Personal Hearing’ as a Process of Satisfaction of ‘Principles of Natural Justice’

Adjudication within the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework is fundamentally a quasi-judicial function. Adherence to the principles of natural justice is therefore not a procedural luxury or a “checkbox” exercise for the revenue; it is the basic principle of a legitimate tax administration system. Without these safeguards, the adjudication process risks descending into arbitrariness, which undermines the rule of law.

The personal hearing is a critical interface between impersonal digital processes and the “subjective satisfaction” required of an adjudicating authority before an adverse civil consequence is imposed. Within the digital-first GST ecosystem, the PH provides a human interface enabling the “right reason” of a taxpayer’s defense to thwart arbitrary or “high-pitched assessments.” Central to this is the maxim Audi Alteram Partem (“Hear the other side”).

The personal hearing process holds all the more importance in a situation of systemic “Information Asymmetry” where the Departmental view and portal-driven data often create a vacuum, leaving the taxpayer unaware of the logic behind an “Intimation.” Consequently, the PH serves as the primary “Forum for Grievance Redressal,” allowing the taxpayer to reconcile data discrepancies before an order is crystallised.

2. Provisions under GST Law

There are specific stages and types of GST proceedings—ranging from registration and refunds to assessments and appeals—where the law mandates the grant of an opportunity for a personal hearing.

A. Proceedings relating to determination of tax and penalty:

Section 75(4) is the governing provision for adjudication proceedings under Sections 73 or 74. An opportunity of hearing is mandatory in two independent and mutually exclusive scenarios:

  •  Written Request: When a specific request for a hearing is received in writing from the person chargeable with tax or penalty.
  •  Contemplated Adverse Decision: When the Proper Officer intends to pass an order that is adverse to the taxpayer, regardless of whether the taxpayer has explicitly requested a hearing or not.

In Bharat Mint and Allied Chemicals vs. Commissioner Commercial Tax [2022 (3) TMI 492], the Court clarified that the opportunity for a personal hearing is mandatory before passing an adverse assessment order. Furthermore, the ruling in Mohan Agencies v. State of U.P. [2023 (2) TMI 933] addresses a common digital-age pitfall: even if a taxpayer inadvertently selects “No” in the personal hearing column on the GST portal, the authority remains legally bound to provide a hearing if the decision results in a tax liability.

B. Registration Proceedings

Absence of registration under an indirect tax law results in a significant fetter in the carrying on of the trade. Therefore, obtaining registration emerges as a natural corollary to the fundamental right to carry on trade under Article 19(1)(g). Any adverse action regarding the registration of a taxpayer, including rejection of an application for new registration or amendment of existing registration or cancellation of a registration certificate, or an application for revocation of cancellation of registration cannot be carried out without giving the opportunity of being heard. This has been expressly provided u/s 25, 28 (2), 29 (2) and 30 (2).

In S.B. Traders vs. The Superintendent [2022 (12) TMI 553], the Telangana High Court held that cancellation without a hearing based on “Head Office directions” was mechanical and illegal. Similarly, in Aggarwal Dyeing & Printing Works vs. State of Gujarat [2022 (66) G.S.T.L. 348 (Guj.)], the Court set aside an order cancelling registration retrospectively without specific reasons or hearing.

Your Right to be heard Navigating GST Personal Hearings

C. Input Tax Credit (ITC) Blocking Proceedings

Rule 86A empowers the officer to block ITC based on “reasons to believe”. The said rule does not specifically require the Proper Officer to grant a personal hearing before the blocking of credit. Despite the same, in K-9 Enterprises vs. State of Karnataka [(2023) 9 Centax 192 (Kar.)] it was held that post-decisional hearing or pre-decisional hearing is necessary to satisfy natural justice, as blocking of ITC entails serious civil consequences. Blocking of ITC without hearing or reasons is often quashed. In Mili Enterprise vs. Union of India [2021 (476) VIL-GUJ], the Hon. Court, while issuing notice, observed that even after the powers are exercised under Rule 86(A) of the Goods & Services Tax Rules, 2017, the concerned authority is required to give reasons for blocking the credits in the credit ledger of the Petitioner as a remedial measure.

D. Appeals and Revision

  • First Appellate Authority (Section 107): Section 107 requires the Appellate Authority to give an opportunity to the appellant of being heard. In fact, if the Appellate Authority wishes to pass any order enhancing any fee, penalty, or fine, or reducing the amount of refund/ITC, the appellant is required to be given a reasonable opportunity of showing cause (which implies hearing).
  • Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) (Section 113): Section 113 provides that the Tribunal may pass orders after giving the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard. This is required even in cases where the Tribunal amends its Order for any mistake which results in an enhancement of liability/ reduction in refund.
  • Revision Authority (Section 108): Section 108, empowering the Commissioner with the revision powers, provides that no order shall be passed without giving the person concerned an opportunity of being heard.

E. Refund Proceedings (Section 54)

  • The proviso to Rule 92(3) of the CGST Rules stipulates that no application for refund shall be rejected without giving the applicant an opportunity of being heard. Similarly, if a refund is held erroneous and the amount is sought to be recovered, a notice u/s 73/74 is issued, which again triggers the mandatory hearing requirement under Section 75(4).

F. Special Enforcement Proceedings

  • Any person who is subjected to provisional attachment u/s 83 has an option to file an objection u/r 159 (5) and the Commissioner is required to afford an opportunity of being heard to the person filing the objection before passing an order to release or uphold the attachment. In Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh [2021 (48) G.S.T.L. 113 (S.C.)], the Supreme Court held that the provisional attachment power is stringent and is required to be exercised with due caution, and its validity depends on strict observance of statutory pre-conditions.
  • In proceedings u/s 129 & 130, no tax, interest, or penalty shall be determined without giving the person concerned an opportunity of being heard.
  • The power to arrest u/s 69 is based on “reason to believe.” There is no statutory requirement for a “hearing” before arrest (unlike adjudication). However, safeguards under CrPC apply post-arrest.

G. Miscellaneous Proceedings

  • Assessment of Unregistered Persons (Section 63): Proviso states no such assessment order shall be passed without giving the person an opportunity of being heard.
  • Special Audit (Section 66): The registered person shall be given an opportunity of being heard in respect of any material gathered in the special audit which is proposed to be used in any proceedings.
  • Rectification of Errors (Section 161): The third proviso states that where such rectification adversely affects any person (e.g., increases liability), principles of natural justice (hearing) shall be followed.
  • Advance Ruling (Section 98): The Authority is required to hear the applicant or their authorised representative before admitting or rejecting the application. A ruling can be declared void u/s 104 (fraud/suppression) only after hearing the applicant.
  • Imposition of Penalty (Section 127): Where a penalty is imposed (not covered under other specific proceedings), the proper officer is required to issue an order only after giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

3. Modes of Intimation of Personal Hearing

In a digital tax environment, “effective service” is the prerequisite for a valid hearing. Section 169(1) of the CGST Act provides methods for service, but its application has generated conflicting jurisprudence:

  • The Hierarchy View: Recent rulings from the Madras High Court in Udumalpet Sarvodaya Sangham vs. Authority [2025 (1) TMI 517] and Namasivaya Auto Parts vs. Deputy State Tax Officer [2025 (6) TMI 2027] suggest a hierarchy, requiring attempts at personal delivery, RPAD, or email (Clauses a to c) before resorting to portal upload portal uploads (Clause d) if the former are impracticable.
  • The “No Hierarchy” View: In Poomika Infra Developers vs. State Tax Officer [2025 (4) TMI 1308], it was held that Section 169 does not create a hierarchy and that portal upload is a valid mode of service, though the court urged the Department to implement automated SMS/Email alerts to ensure actual awareness.

Special protection applies to taxpayers with cancelled registrations, as held in AHS Steels vs. Commissioner of State Taxes [2025 (177) taxmann.com 150], such taxpayers are not expected to monitor the portal regularly; thus, service is required to be effected through physical modes like RPAD.

4. Timing/ scheduling of Hearing

“Time” is a critical component of a “real” opportunity to be heard. Providing a taxpayer with adequate preparation time is a necessity for fairness. If a hearing is scheduled before the taxpayer had a chance to digest the allegations or prepare a defense, the opportunity becomes illusory. While the statute does not prescribe a specific advance notice period, Sections 73(8) and 74(8) suggest a 30-day window for tax payment following a Show Cause Notice (SCN). Consequently, courts have inferred that a hearing cannot be scheduled before this response period expires. In Sundar Prabu Deva vs. State Tax Officer [2023-TIOL-1633-HC-MAD-GST], the Madras High Court critiqued “nominal” opportunities where hearings were scheduled before the reply deadline had passed, characterising them as a denial of justice.

Similarly, the necessity of a “sufficient gap” between notice issuance and the hearing date to allow for meaningful preparation was established in Ekam Chemical vs. Collector of Customs – [1998 (98) E.L.T. 46 (Cal.)]

Early Hearing

While a litigant is generally required to wait in the queue, taxpayers have a right to request early hearings in extraneous circumstances. In Amoog Chemicals vs. Commissioner of Customs, Chennai-II [2016 (336) E.L.T. 197 (Mad.)], the Hon’ble High Court held that “While undoubtedly all cases should come in queue, there is required to be an emergency ward also. There may be cases which may cover several appeals requiring urgent attention.” The CESTAT, in the past, allowed early hearing in cases where the issue is already covered by the decision of a High Court/ Supreme Court, where high stakes are involved, or where any special circumstance, such as a company being in liquidation.

The Three-Adjournment Rule: Meaningful Opportunity vs. Paper Formality

Section 75(5) of the CGST Act requires the Proper Officer to grant at least three adjournments if sufficient cause is shown. However, a prevalent administrative practice has emerged where officers issue a single notice listing three alternative dates (e.g., “if you miss date A, appear on date B or C”). Such practices are effectively a technique to circumvent the law. In Regent Overseas Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India [2017 (3) TMI 557 – Gujarat High Court], the Court struck down this practice as a “paper formality” that violates natural justice. The law requires the taxpayer to be allowed to show “sufficient cause” for a specific adjournment. A pre-determined numerical sequence denies the officer the opportunity to exercise discretion based on the circumstances of the delay. Each adjournment is required to follow a fresh notice or a specific application, rather than being treated as a pre-packaged administrative convenience.

5 Physical vs. Virtual Hearings

Traditionally, hearings were conducted physically. However, as a necessity during the COVID-19 pandemic, the hearings transitioned from physical to virtual. CBIC Instruction F. No. 390/Misc/3/2019-JC dated 05.11.2024 has prioritised virtual hearings (VH) as the default mode for all departmental quasi-judicial and appellate authorities under CGST, IGST, Customs, and Excise. The guidelines specify that all hearings shall be done in the virtual mode only, except in case of specific request from the concerned party and after recording the reasons for the same in writing. Even some states, such as Delhi, have mandated virtual hearings in all cases, unless prior permission is obtained from a Zonal In-charge for recorded reasons.

Therefore, in cases where there are clear instructions for virtual hearing and a virtual hearing is not granted, a request for the same can be made and the taxpayer can insist for a virtual hearing. However, if there is no mandate for virtual hearing, a request may be made, which may be accepted or rejected by the proper officer.

However, virtual hearings can pose logistical challenges. For instance, a virtual hearing may be disrupted by technical snags (e.g., poor bandwidth, link not working, power failure). In such cases, the taxpayer is required to take screenshots of the error or “System Log” and email the same to the officer immediately. The Supreme Court directions in Suo Motu Writ (Civil) No. 5/2020, require the authorities to maintain a helpline to address audibility or connectivity issues during the proceeding.

6. Who can conduct the hearing?

The hearing is required to be conducted by the Proper Officer competent to pass the final order or decision, and the same cannot be delegated to juniors or colleague without proper administrative & legal orders. Generally, it is the officer who issued the SCN or the officer to whom the SCN has been made answerable (e.g., Commissioner, Joint Commissioner, or Deputy/Assistant Commissioner depending on monetary limits). For instance, the monetary authority for adjudicating authorities under the CGST are as follows:

  •  Superintendents are restricted to small-value demands (up to ₹10 Lakhs CGST).
  • DC/ACs handle mid-level demands (up to ₹1 Crore CGST).
  • ADC/JCs possess unlimited jurisdiction for any amount exceeding ₹1 Crore.

Therefore, the taxpayer should examine before the personal hearing, whether the Proper Officer before whom the hearing is scheduled is empowered to conduct the proceedings, and if there is any iota of doubt, the same can be challenged during the hearing.

The next issue that arises is whether the Proper Officer, who has been assigned adjudication powers, can delegate it to juniors or colleagues. The answer to this is negative. Adjudication is a quasi-judicial power and cannot be delegated unless there is an express statutory provision permitting it. Mere signing of an adjudication order by a superior (e.g., Chief Commissioner) does not validate it if the hearing or process was not conducted by them in their capacity as the adjudicating authority.

“He Who Hears Must Decide”

It is a cardinal principle of administrative law that the officer who records the oral submissions is required to be the one to pass the final order. If there is a change in the Proper Officer (PO) due to transfer, retirement, or resignation after the hearing but before the order is signed, a fresh hearing becomes mandatory. The successor cannot simply pass an order based on the notes of the predecessor.

The Supreme Court in Automotive Tyre Manufacturers Association vs. Designated Authority 2011 (263) E.L.T. 481 (S.C.) held “If one person hears and another decides, then personal hearing becomes an empty formality”. The Karnataka High Court in Givaudan India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Customs [2021 (376) E.L.T. 485] quashed an investigative report where the hearing was held by one officer and the report was filed by his successor, holding that this offends the basic principles of natural justice.

When a new officer takes over and the process starts de novo, the “proceedings” before the new officer are fresh. Consequently, the limit of “not more than three adjournments” under Section 75(5) should logically reset. This is because the taxpayer’s right to show “sufficient cause” for time is relative to the specific officer’s satisfaction and the current status of the file. However, taxpayers should not use this as a tactic for delay, as courts may view repeated adjournments as “recalcitrant” conduct.

7. Who Can Appear for the Hearing?

Any person who has been issued a notice for personal hearing can either appear in person or through an authorized representative. The following categories of persons qualify as authorized representatives:

  • Relative or Regular Employee: A person related to the taxpayer or a person regularly employed by the taxpayer.
  • Advocate: An advocate who is entitled to practice in any court in India and has not been debarred from practicing.
  • Chartered Accountant (CA), Cost Accountant (CMA), or Company Secretary (CS): A practicing CA, CMA, or CS holding a valid certificate of practice and not debarred.
  • Retired Government Officer: A retired officer of the Commercial Tax Department of any State Government/Union Territory or the Board, who Served in a post not below the rank of a Group-B Gazetted Officer for at least two years and has not retired/resigned from service in the last one year
  • GST Practitioner (GSTP): A person enrolled as a Goods and Services Tax Practitioner u/s 48.

If a person is represented by his authorised representative, they can appear upon submission of a valid vakalat nama (in case of advocates), or Form GST PCT-05 (in case of GSTP), or a letter of authorization (in other cases).

In summons proceedings, personal attendance is required to give evidence on oath. However, the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, introduced Section 70(1A), which permits a person to attend via an authorized representative (unless directed otherwise by the officer). Further, courts have, in multiple cases, held that an advocate may be allowed to be present at a “visible but not audible distance” while recording the statement, but they cannot interfere in the proceedings.

8. Scope of Hearing – Expectations from the authority

The personal hearing is the critical stage where the taxpayer supplements written replies with oral arguments and evidence. A person appearing before the adjudicating authority generally expects the following (in addition to mandatory guidelines laid down in the statute):

A. Adherence to Principles of Natural Justice:

The Adjudicating authority is required to observe the twin pillars of natural justice: Audi Alteram Partem (hear the other side) and Nemo judex in causa sua (no one should be a judge in their own cause). The authority is required to initiate proceedings with an open mind. If the SCN indicates pre-judgment (e.g., using language like “it is concluded that tax is payable”), the proceedings are vitiated (Oryx Fisheries Private Limited vs. Union of India [2011 (266) E.L.T. 422 (S.C.)]).

The hearing is required to be real and meaningful, not a mere formality. Passing an order on the same day the hearing was scheduled is considered a violation of natural justice, as it implies no time was taken for deliberation (Urbanclap Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. vs. State Tax Officer [2020 (41) G.S.T.L. 440 (Mad.)]).

If the authority relies on third-party statements to confirm a demand, the taxpayer has a right to cross-examine those witnesses (Paper Trade Links vs. Union of India [2025 (7) TMI 837 – Madhya Pradesh High Court]).

B. Recording of Proceedings:

The authority is required to prepare a “Record of Personal Hearing” (proceedings sheet) capturing the gist of the arguments. This is required to be signed by both the officer and the taxpayer or representative. For virtual hearings, a PDF of the record is required to be sent within one day, and the taxpayer has 3 days to suggest modifications (CBIC Instruction 05.11.2024).

C. Intimation of defects:

If any defects are found in the submissions made during the hearing (for instance, improper authorisation or delayed appeal), such defects are required to be communicated to the taxpayer or their representative to enable any rectification before any adverse action is taken.

D. Pass the Order within a reasonable time limit

While not always a strict limitation, the AA is expected to pass the order within a reasonable time after the conclusion of the hearing. Excessive delay (e.g., months or years) between the hearing and the order can vitiate the proceedings. The Hon. Supreme Court in Joint Commr. of Income Tax, Surat vs. Saheli Leasing & Industries Ltd. [2010 (253) E.L.T. 705 (S.C.)] held that “Orders to be pronounced at the earliest after conclusion of arguments and in any case not beyond three months and keeping it pending for long time sends wrong signal to litigants and society.”

Similarly, in EMCO Ltd. vs. Union of India [2015 (319) E.L.T. 28 (Bom.)], the Court set-aside an Order passed with a delay of 9 months from the hearing date. The Court held that Authorities are required to pass orders expeditiously after hearing so that all submissions made by a party are considered so as to maintain confidence of citizen in the process of litigation.

9. Scope of hearing – Expectations from the Taxpayer/ authorised representatives.

The personal hearing is the last opportunity for the taxpayer to convince the authority before a demand is crystallised. It requires a balance of exercising rights (like cross-examination and adjournment) while strictly adhering to obligations (decorum and truthfulness). While there are no laid down rules explaining the taxpayer’s roles and responsibilities while appearing for a hearing, following pointers may be referred to as good practice.

  •  Attend the hearing on the scheduled date and time
  • Submit the identity proof/ authorizations
  • Give advance intimation if seeking adjournment, wherever possible.
  • The representative is required to have the file “on their fingertips.” They should know the facts, dates, and relevant provisions thoroughly to answer queries immediately.
  • Never rely solely on oral arguments. Always submit a “Written Submission” or “Hearing Note” summarizing the arguments made during the PH and obtain an acknowledgment.
  • Distinguish between “Admission” (accepting a fact, e.g., shortage of stock) and “Confession” (accepting guilt/evasion) while advancing oral submissions.
  • Insist on cross-examination where the proceedings rely upon third party statements
  • Always verify if the officer conducting the hearing is the “Proper Officer” having jurisdiction over the matter.
  • Maintain the dignity of the proceedings, and be appropriately dressed and groomed.
  • Verify the contents of the proceeding sheet.

10. Copy of PH Memo

The record of what transpired during the hearing is captured in a “Record of Personal Hearing” or “Proceeding Sheet”. The proper officer is expected to prepare a “proceedings sheet” containing
the gist of the personal hearing. This sheet is required to be signed by both the authorized representative/assessee and the proper officer. The same is also required in case of GSTAT Proceedings where the Court officer of the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) is mandatorily required to maintain an “Order sheet” (Rule 54) which includes a complete record of all proceedings, including hearings.

The contents of the PH memo become significant if the Authority does not consider the submissions made and recorded in the PH memo.

Mandatory Provision of Copy to the Taxpayer

Under the prevailing guidelines for virtual hearings, the authority is required to send a soft copy of the PH Memo in PDF format to the appellant through email ID provided, who has a right to correct the record. If the taxpayer does not respond “within 3 days of receipt of such e-mail,” it will be presumed that they agree with the contents.” In the case of Metrolite Roofing Pvt Ltd vs. DCCT & CE [2020-VIL-666-KER], the High Court held that maintaining a record of the personal hearing and issuing a copy thereof are necessary to comply with the requirements of natural justice. Failure to comply with this procedure (specifically noted in the context of VC hearings during the pandemic) led to the quashing of the impugned order.

However, for in-person hearings, there are no specific guidelines requiring that a copy of the PH memo be provided to the taxpayer/ their representative. However, taxpayers/ authorized representatives must insist on a copy of the same from the authorities conducting the hearing.

11. Conclusion

The jurisprudence surrounding GST hearings reflects a delicate balance between leveraging modern technology—through virtual-by-default mandates and portal-based service—and maintaining the ancient, human-centric principles of natural justice. The procedural requirements of personal hearing are not roadblocks to revenue collection; they are the essential safeguards that prevent the “empty formality” of justice. By upholding these safeguards, the administration can reduce the burden of avoidable litigation and foster a more transparent, credible, and efficient adjudicatory environment.

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

13. Jindal Equipment Leasing Consultancy Services Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Delhi – II, New Delhi

(2026) 182 taxmann.com 219(SC)

Amalgamation – Shares issued by amalgamated company in lieu of share of amalgamating company – Taxability – If shares are held as capital assets, the profit arising to the Assessee from the receipt of shares of the amalgamated company in lieu of shares of the amalgamating company would be taxable as capital gains, though exempt under Section 47(vii) – If the shares are held as stock-in-trade, the profit arising to the Assessee from the receipt of shares of the amalgamated company in lieu of shares of amalgamating company would be taxable as “profits and gains of business or profession” under Section 28 if they are readily available for realisation.

The Assessee was an investment company of the Jindal Group. The shares of the operating companies, namely Jindal Ferro Alloys Limited (JFAL) and Jindal Strips Limited (JSL), were held as part of the promoter holding, representing controlling interest. The Assessee had also furnished non-disposal undertakings to the financial institutions / lenders who had advanced loans to the operating companies. These shares were reflected as investments in the balance sheets of the Assessee.

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year 1997-98, pursuant to a scheme of amalgamation approved by orders dated 19.09.1996 and 03.10.1996 of the High Courts of Andhra Pradesh and Punjab & Haryana respectively, under Sections 391 – 394 of the Companies Act, 2013, JFAL was amalgamated with JSL. As per the sanctioned scheme, the appointed date of amalgamation was 01.04.1995, and the orders sanctioning the amalgamation were filed with the Registrar of Companies on 22.11.1996 (the effective date). Under the scheme of amalgamation, the shareholders of JFAL were allotted 45 shares of JSL for every 100 shares of JFAL held by them. Accordingly, the Assessee was allotted shares of JSL in lieu of the shares of JFAL.

The Assessee, in its returns of income filed for the assessment year in question, claimed exemption under Section 47(vii) of the I.T. Act in respect of the receipt of JSL shares in lieu of JFAL shares, treating the same to be capital assets.

However, in the assessment completed under Section 143(3) vide order dated 29.02.2000, the Assessing Officer treated the shares of JFAL as stock-in-trade, denied the exemption under Section 47(vii), and brought to tax the value of JSL shares as business income, computed with reference to their market value.

The said order was upheld by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals).

On further appeal, the Tribunal vide order dated 17.02.2005, allowed the Assessees’ appeals by observing that it was unnecessary to decide whether the shares were held as stock-in-trade or capital assets, since no profit accrues unless the shares held by the Appellants are either sold or transferred for consideration, irrespective of the nature of holding. It was further observed that there was admittedly no sale of shares and, therefore, the only question for consideration was whether the allotment of JSL shares in lieu of JFAL shares under the scheme of amalgamation amounted to a “transfer”. Following the decision of the Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay vs. Rasiklal Maneklal (HUF) and Ors. (1989) 177 ITR 198, the Tribunal concluded that there was no transfer of shares and, consequently, no taxable profit could be said to have accrued to the Appellants.

The Revenue challenged the Tribunal’s decision before the High Court.

After hearing both sides, the High Court, by the impugned judgment, disposed of the appeals in favour of the Revenue and against the Assessees. In doing so, it held that the Tribunal had erred in placing reliance on Rasiklal Maneklal while failing to consider the later and binding decision of the Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income-tax, Cochin vs. Grace Collis and Ors. (2001) 248 ITR 323 (SC). The High Court observed that where the shares of the amalgamating company were held as capital assets, the receipt of shares of the amalgamated company would constitute a “transfer” within the meaning of Section 2(47) of the I.T. Act, though such transfer would be exempt under Section 47(vii). However, in the alternative scenario where the shares were held as stock-in-trade, the High Court held that upon the Assessees receiving shares of the amalgamated company in lieu of those held in the amalgamating company, the assesses had, in effect, realised the value of their trading assets, and the difference in value would be taxable as business profit under Section 28. In reaching this conclusion, the High Court relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in Orient Trading Co. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Calcutta (1997) 224 ITR 371 (SC). Accordingly, the matter was remanded to the Tribunal for determination of the nature of the Assessee’s holding of JFAL shares, i.e., whether such holdings constituted capital assets or stock-in-trade.

Aggrieved thereby, the Assesse preferred an appeal before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court observed that the High Court had returned two findings: first, that if shares are held as capital assets, an amalgamation is indeed a transfer within the meaning of Section 2(47) of the I.T. Act, though exempt under Section 47(vii). The Assessee had not disputed this finding before it. Second, the High Court held that if the shares are held as stock-in-trade, the profit arising to the Assessee from the receipt of JSL shares in lieu of JFAL shares would be taxable as “profits and gains of business or profession” under Section 28. It was the second finding, which had necessitated the present appeal before it.

At the outset, the learned Senior Counsel appearing for the Appellants raised a preliminary objection that the High Court had transgressed its jurisdiction in remitting the matter to the Tribunal with an observation that, if the shares were stock-in-trade, the taxability would arise under Section 28 of the I.T. Act. It was urged that such an issue was neither expressly framed as a substantial question of law by the High Court nor raised by the Revenue in its appeals.

The Supreme Court rejected the preliminary objection of the Petitioner by holding that the said issue went to the very root of the matter, and the High Court was bound to consider it in view of the issue already framed by the Tribunal and the submissions advanced by both sides before the Tribunal as well as before the High Court. Such a question was incidental or collateral to the main issue, and the absence of a formal formulation would not vitiate the impugned judgment of the High Court.

The Supreme Court noted that Section 2(14) excludes stock-in-trade from the definition of a capital asset, while Section 2(47) defines “transfer” only in relation to capital assets. Section 28 casts a wide net, taxing the “profits and gains of business or profession”, including benefits or perquisites arising from business, whether convertible into money or not, or in cash or kind. Section 45 imposes capital gains tax only on the transfer of a capital asset, subject to exceptions under Section 47, including the transfer of shares in a scheme of amalgamation. Section 47(vii) specifically exempts from capital gains tax any transfer by a shareholder of a capital asset being shares of the amalgamating company, in consideration of the allotment of shares in the amalgamated company, provided the amalgamated company is an Indian company.

According to the Supreme Court, there is a difference between a charging provision and an exemption provision. A provision that enables the levy of tax on a particular transaction is a charging provision. Only a transaction that is covered by a charging provision is taxable. Only if the transaction is taxable can there be an exemption. Therefore, the transfer of shares arising out of an order of amalgamation, even if it is treated as a capital asset, is generally taxable but would be exempt from taxation only if both the requirements under Section 47 (vii) are satisfied.

The Supreme Court noted that section 28 contemplates the chargeability of the “profits and gains of any business or profession” carried on by the Assessees during the relevant previous year. What is material, therefore, is that there must be income arising from or in the course of business to be treated as profits or gains. Such profit must be ascertainable with reasonable definiteness at the relevant point of time, and the Assessees must have either received it, or acquired a vested right to receive and commercially realise it, even if the receipt is in kind. It is not necessary for the benefit to be capable of being converted into money. Significantly, Section 28 does not prescribe any precondition as to the precise mode through which the profit must arise. The moment any income arises out of business or profession, the provision becomes applicable.

The Supreme Court further noted that amalgamation, in corporate law, signifies the statutory blending of two or more undertakings into one. It is distinct from winding up: while the transferor company ceases to exist as a separate corporate entity, its business, assets, and liabilities are absorbed into and continue within the transferee.

The Supreme Court after noting plethora of judgements observed that in the context of amalgamation, what transpires is essentially a statutory substitution of one form of holding for another. The shareholder’s interest in the transferor company is replaced by a corresponding interest in the transferee company.

According to the Supreme Court, for the purposes of Section 28, the first test was whether such substitution constituted either a receipt or an accrual of income.

According to the Supreme Court, it is a settled law that income yielding business profits may be realised not only in money but also in kind. Thus, where an Assessee receives shares of the amalgamated company in place of its shares held as trading stock, there is, in form, a receipt of consideration in kind. Though such amalgamations receive the sanction of the Court/Tribunal to be effectuated, they are preceded by decisions taken in meetings of shareholders. In such meetings, valuation reports are placed before the shareholders, and for the amalgamation to be approved, 90% of the shareholders must vote in favour of the amalgamation. The report contains details of the share exchange ratio. Though the value of each share is determined at that stage, it is not tradable, as no right is vested at that point. Ordinarily, such receipt arises only upon the actual allotment of shares, since until that point no asset is placed in the hands of the Assessee. It cannot, however, be ruled out that in certain cases, the terms of the sanctioned scheme may themselves create, from an earlier date, a vested and imminent enforceable right to allotment; in such situations, one may speak of “accrual”. The general position, nevertheless, is that what the law recognises in amalgamation is the receipt of shares in substitution of trading assets.

The Supreme Court thereafter, coming to the next test, observed that mere receipt of shares does not suffice to attract Section 28; commercial realisability is also required when income is received in kind.

According to the Supreme Court, amalgamation, in strict legal terms, does not amount to an “exchange.”

The Supreme Court observed that, the jurisprudence discloses three related strands: first, cases such as Orient Trading Co. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Calcutta (1997) 224 ITR 371 (SC), relying on English decision (Royal Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. Stephen 14 Tax Cases 22), emphasise that receipt of an asset of definite money’s worth in substitution for another may amount to commercial realisation attracting Section 28; second, the decision in Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay vs. Rasiklal Maneklal (HUF) and Ors. (1989) 177 ITR 198, which clarifies that allotment on amalgamation is not an “exchange”, along with other decisions holding it to be a statutory substitution; and third, the ruling in Commissioner of Income-tax, Cochin vs. Grace Collis and Ors. (2001) 248 ITR 323 (SC), which makes it clear that, notwithstanding its statutory character, amalgamation does involve a “transfer” within the meaning of the Income-tax Act.

Reconciling these strands, the Supreme Court was of view that the true test under Section 28, was not the legal label of “exchange” or “transfer”, but whether the Assessee, in consequence of the amalgamation and thereby of its business, has obtained a profit that is real and presently realisable.

According to the Supreme Court, the well-known real-income principle, as emphasised in E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-Tax (1954) 26 ITR 27 (SC) and Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay City I vs. Shoorji Vallabhdas & Co. (1962) 46 ITR 144 (SC), must be applied. Therefore, the enquiry for the Court was whether, as a result of the amalgamation, the Assessee has in fact realised a profit in the commercial sense. This assessment may turn on whether:

(A) the old stock-in-trade has ceased to exist in the Assessee’s books;

(B) the shares received in the amalgamated company possess a definite and ascertainable value; and

(C) the Assessee, immediately upon allotment, is in a position to dispose of such shares and realise money.

If these conditions are satisfied, the substitution bears the character of a commercial realisation and the profit may be taxed under Section 28. Where, however, the allotment of shares is merely a statutory substitution mandated by the scheme of amalgamation, without yielding an immediately realisable benefit, no income can be said to accrue or be received at that stage, and taxability arises only upon the eventual sale of the shares.

For instance:

(A) If a shareholder of Company A receives shares of Company B pursuant to a court-sanctioned amalgamation, but such shares are subject to a statutory lock-in period during which they cannot be sold in the market, the allotment cannot be equated with a commercial realisation. It represents only a replacement of one form of holding by another, without any immediate gain capable of monetisation.

(B) Similarly, where the amalgamated company is closely held and its shares are not quoted on any recognized stock exchange, the mere allotment of such shares does not generate a realisable profit, since no open market exists to ascribe a fair disposal value.

According to the Supreme Court, these illustrations, which are not exhaustive, underline that unless the Assessee is, by virtue of the substitution, placed in possession of an asset which is freely tradable and of an ascertainable market value, the principle of real income bars taxation at the stage of amalgamation. Thus, the substitution of shares upon amalgamation does not, by itself, give rise to taxable income under Section 28. What must be established is that the transaction has the attributes of a commercial realisation resulting in a real and presently disposable advantage. Where this test is satisfied, taxability may arise at the stage of substitution. Otherwise, the accrual or receipt of income is deferred until actual sale.

The Supreme Court thus held that where, under a scheme of amalgamation, the shareholder merely receives, in substitution, shares of the amalgamated company in lieu of the shares held in the amalgamating company, there is no real or completed profit capable of being taxed under Section 28, unless it is shown that the shares are held as stock-in-trade and are readily available for realisation. In the absence thereof, what takes place is only a statutory vesting and substitution of one form of holding for another. Unless and until the substituted shares are commercially realisable – whether saleable, tradeable, or by whatever other mode of disposition so described – so as to yield real income, no taxable event can be said to arise.

The Supreme Court further held that for taxing the profit, the next test should also be satisfied, namely, that profit must be capable of definite valuation, so that the real gain or loss stands crystallized. “Profits”, in the commercial sense, are ascertainable only when the old position is closed and the new position is determined in terms of money’s worth – whether by sale, transfer, exchange, or statutory substitution. This principle is an application of the doctrine of real income and applies with equal force to stock-in-trade as it does to other forms of commercial receipts. Therefore, the test is not satisfied merely by the receipt of realisable shares in substitution of earlier holdings; such shares must also be capable of quantification.

Accordingly, in the context of amalgamation, the issue does not turn on the accrual of income in the abstract sense, but on whether the Assessee has received a commercially realisable consideration in kind. Upon sanction of the scheme, there is only a statutory substitution of rights; no asset then exists in the hands of the Assessee that is capable of commercial realisation. The charge under Section 28 crystallises only upon allotment of the new shares, when the Assessee actually receives realisable instruments capable of valuation in money’s worth. At that point, the old stock-in-trade ceases to exist and stands replaced by new shares having a definite market value. Since these shares are received in the course of business and in substitution of trading assets, their receipt represents a commercial profit or gain arising from business activity. What attracts Section 28 is, therefore, the receipt of shares coupled with their present realisability and their nexus with business. These three conditions-actual receipt, present realisability, and ascertainability of value-together determine the timing of taxability in cases of amalgamation.

Consequently, the profit arising on receipt of the amalgamated company’s shares may be taxed under Section 28 where the shares allotted are tradable and possess a definite market value, thereby conferring a presently realisable commercial advantage. This conclusion flows from the real income principle and not from any judicially created fiction. Equally, it must be emphasised that where such attributes are absent, the Court cannot, by analogy, extend Section 28 to tax hypothetical accretions in the absence of an express statutory mandate.

It was further clarified that the principles enunciated herein lay down a fact-sensitive test. The enquiry whether, consequent upon an amalgamation, the allotment of new shares has resulted in a real and presently realisable commercial benefit must be determined on the facts of each case. The burden lies on the Revenue to establish the same. It is thereafter for the Tribunal, as the final fact-finding authority, to apply these principles to the evidence on record.

The Supreme Court further held that having established that the charge under Section 28 may be attracted if the shares are saleable, tradable, etc., and of definite market value, thereby conferring a presently realisable commercial advantage, it becomes necessary to clarify the general principle. In the context of amalgamation, three points in time require to be distinguished. First, the appointed date specified in the scheme, which determines corporate succession and continuity between the transferor and transferee companies. Secondly, the sanction of the scheme by the Court, which gives statutory force to the amalgamation. At these stages, however, there is only a substitution of rights by legal fiction, without any asset in the hands of the shareholder capable of commercial exploitation. Thirdly, the allotment of new shares in the amalgamated company, which alone crystallises the benefit in the shareholder’s hands, for it is only then that the old stock-in-trade ceases to exist and is replaced by new shares of definite market value capable of immediate realisation. Even if the scheme contemplates the issue of shares in a certain ratio from the appointed date, until allotment there is no identifiable scrip or tradable asset in existence in the hands of the Assessee. Thus, the charge under Section 28 is not attracted on the mere sanction of the scheme or on the appointed date, but only upon the receipt of the new shares, when the statutory substitution translates into a concrete, realisable commercial advantage.

The Supreme Court thus concluded that where the shares of an amalgamating company, held as stock-in-trade, are substituted by shares of the amalgamated company pursuant to a scheme of amalgamation, and such shares are realisable in money and capable of definite valuation, the substitution gives rise to taxable business income within the meaning of Section 28 of the I.T. Act. The charge Under Section 28 is, however, attracted only upon the allotment of new shares. At earlier stages, namely, the appointed date or the date of court sanction, no such benefit accrues or is received.

Notes: –

Following points are worth noting from the above judgment:-

(1) In the above case, the Court has effectively dealt with the implications of cases when the shares are held as stock-in trade.

(2) In such cases, for the purpose of taxing Profits & Gains of Business under Sec. 28 (Business Income), it is essential that the shares of the amalgamated company received by the assessee must be readily available for realisation, and how to ascertain this has also been explained by the Court with illustrative examples. Based on facts, some issue may still arise on this.

(3) In such cases, the question of taxability of Business Income arises only upon allotment of shares of the amalgamated company and not at any earlier stage. The charge under section 28 crystallises upon allotment of the new shares, when the assessee actually receives realisable instruments capable of valuation in money’s worth.

(4) The shares of the amalgamated company received must possess a definite and ascertainable value & the Assessee must be in a position to dispose of such shares and realise money.

(5) The Court has reiterated principles of taxing real income, explained the same, and applied in this case to determine the taxable Business Income and the timing of taxability thereof. In such cases, three conditions must be satisfied for taxing Business Income, viz. actual receipt of shares, present realisability, and ascertainability of value, to determine the timing of taxability of Business Income.

(6) The Judgments of the Supreme Court in the cases of Orient Trading Co. Ltd. and Mrs. Grace Collis referred to in the above case have been analysed in our Column `Closements’ in the February, 1998 and December, 2001 issues of BCAJ. These judgments, as well as the judgment in the case of Rasiklal Maneklal (HUF) -177 ITR 198 – SC – have been considered in the above case. While reconciling the findings of these judgments to decide the issue before it, the Court took the view that the true test under section 28 was not the legal label of “exchange” or “transfer”, but whether the Assessee, in consequence of the amalgamation and thereby in its business, has obtained a profit that is real and presently realisable.

(7) In short, in such cases, the Assessee must, in fact, have realised a profit in the commercial sense, and substitution of shares upon amalgamation does not, by itself, give rise to taxable Business Income. It must be established that the transaction has the attributes of a commercial realisation resulting in a real and presently disposable advantage. The profit in such cases must be capable of valuation/quantification. The burden is on the Revenue to establish this. Otherwise, the accrual or receipt of income is deferred until actual sale. This principle is an application of the doctrine of real income, which applies with equal force to stock-in-trade as it does to other forms of commercial receipts.

Sec 264 – Revision – Communication treating a return as Invalid return u/s. 139(9) of the Act – is an order – revision maintainable.

24. Raj Rayon Industries Limited vs. Principal Commissioner of Income Tax PCIT, Mumbai – 3 and Ors.

[WRIT PETITION NO. 1904 OF 2025 order dated FEBRUARY 3, 2026 ]

Sec 264 – Revision – Communication treating a return as Invalid return u/s. 139(9) of the Act – is an order – revision maintainable.

The Petitioner filed its Return of Income for A.Y. 2022-2023 on 2nd November 2022, declaring a total loss of ₹45.47 Crores. After the Return of Income was filed, the Petitioner was served with the notice dated 14th December 2022 issued under section 139(9) of the Act. This notice was issued by Respondent No.2 stating that the Return filed by the Petitioner for the said Assessment Year was defective as the Petitioner had claimed gross receipts or income under the head “Profits and gains of Business of Profession” of more than ₹10 crores, and despite that, the books of accounts were not audited u/s. 44AB of the Act.

The Petitioner responded to the aforesaid notice and contended that since its turnover was less than ₹10 Crores, it was not required to have its books of accounts audited as required under Section 44AB of the Act. However, Respondent No.2, via an unreasoned order, merely held that the Return of Petitioner was invalid. Being aggrieved by this, the Petitioner filed an application before the 1st Respondent under Section 264 of the IT Act. The 1st Respondent, by the impugned order, held that the declaration of the Return of Income of the Petitioner as invalid, was not an order as contemplated under Section 264, therefore, dismissed the Revision Application as being not maintainable.

The Hon. Court held that the Respondent has completely misdirected himself when he held that declaring the Petitioner’s Return as invalid [by the CPC] was not an order as contemplated under Section 264. The Court observed that, the 1st Respondent referred to the definition of the word ‘order’ to be a mandate, precept, command or authoritative direction. Despite noting the aforesaid definition (in the dictionary), the 1st Respondent went on to hold that the so-called communication addressed by the CPC to the Petitioner was not an order as contemplated under Section 264. The Court held that a declaration given under Section 139(9) of the Act was clearly an order which was revisable under Section 264. It was certainly a mandate, or at the very least, an authoritative direction.

The Court referred the case of TPL-HGIEPL Joint Venture vs. Union of India [(2025) 173 taxmann.com 540 (Bombay)], wherein the case of the Revenue itself was that any declaration given under Section 139(9) of the Act was certainly revisable under Section 264. In fact, this submission of the Revenue was accepted by this Court and the Writ Petition filed by the Petitioner therein was not entertained, relegating the said Petitioner to invoke the remedy under Section 264 of the Act.

In view of the above, the order passed by the 1st Respondent was held to be unsustainable in law and was quashed and set aside. The Revision Application filed by the Petitioner was restored to the file of the 1st Respondent for a de novo consideration.

Sec 264 – Revision – Binding precedent – Authority refusing to follow Special Bench decision of the ITAT- judicial discipline ought to be maintained and cannot be deviated from on the ground that the order passed by the superior authority is “not acceptable” to the department.

23. Samir N. Bhojwani vs. Principal Commissioner of Income Tax, Mumbai & Ors.

[WRIT PETITION (L) NO. 37709 OF 2025 DATE: JANUARY 6, 2026]

Sec 264 – Revision – Binding precedent – Authority refusing to follow Special Bench decision of the ITAT- judicial discipline ought to be maintained and cannot be deviated from on the ground that the order passed by the superior authority is “not acceptable” to the department.

The Petitioner challenges the order passed by Respondent No.1 (Principal Commissioner of Income Tax) under Section 264 of the Income Tax Act, 1961. The main grievance of the Petitioner is that the impugned order refuses to follow the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of SKF India Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax [2024] 168 taxmann.com 328 (Mumbai- Trib.) (SB).

The reasons given by the 1st Respondent for not following the decision of the Special Bench [in SKF (India)] is that the department has not accepted this decision of the ITAT Mumbai and the issue is being contested before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court. Thus, there was no finality on the issue of tax at the rate u/s 112 of the Act for capital gain u/s 50 of the Act and the decision of Special Bench cannot be equated in the nature of declaration of law by the Hon’ble Supreme Court under Article 141 of the Constitution of India or decision by the jurisdictional High Court.

The second ground, mentioned was that even prior to the Special Bench decision of the ITAT, there were conflicting views of various higher judicial authorities regarding the applicable tax rate on capital gains deemed to have arisen out of the transfer of short-term capital assets and even the Special Bench decision of the ITAT was not a Full Bench decision.

With regard to the above second ground, the Hon. Court observed that the decision of the Special Bench was rendered by three members of the ITAT. Therefore, the 1st Respondent came to the erroneous conclusion because one member of the bench dissented from the majority.

The Hon. Court further observed that the 1st Respondent has completely mis-directed himself by not following the binding decision of the ITAT in the case of SKF India (supra). It was not for the Commissioner to decide whether the ITAT was correct in its decision or otherwise. Even though in his personal opinion, he may be of the view that the decision has wrongly decided the law, he was bound to follow the same. If the lower authorities are permitted not to follow binding decisions because in their personal view, they feel that the decision was wrong, the same would lead to complete chaos in the administration of tax law. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India and Others vs. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd [1992 supp (1) SCC 443] has criticized this kind of conduct by the Revenue Authorities.

The decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court was thereafter followed by the Court in the case of M/s. Om Siddhakala Associates vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, CPC [Writ Petition No. 14178 of 2023 decided on 28th March 2024]. Also, in the case of Dipti Enterprises vs. Assistant Director of Income Tax [Writ Petition No. 2621 of 2023 decided on 17th November 2025] has once again reiterated that the lower authorities are bound to follow the same.

The Court held that filing of an appeal by the revenue against the order of the Appellate Tribunal ipso-facto would not absolve the revenue authorities from adhering to the applicable binding judicial precedents. Secondly, the doctrine of binding precedents plays a vital role in tax jurisprudence. It was first required to be ascertained whether, in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, a particular judicial precedent was factually and legally in consonance with the case in hand or not. If it was found that the precedent relied upon was distinguishable, then such parameters based on which it was distinguishable need to be described in the order.

The Hon. Court allowed the Writ Petition and quashed and set aside the impugned order passed under Section 264 of the Act. The matter was remanded to the 1st Respondent to pass a fresh order on the application filed by the Petitioner by following the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of SKF India (supra). The Court clarified that the court have not endorsed the view taken by the Special Bench in SKF India (supra). It was held that judicial discipline ought to be maintained and cannot be deviated from on the ground that the order passed by the superior authority is “not acceptable” to the department.

Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

66. Principal CIT vs. Goldsukh Developers (P) Ltd.: (2025) 483 ITR 715 Bom): 2023 SCC OnLine Bom 3282: (2024) 2 Mah LJ 32

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 10/07/2023

S. 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

The Respondent assessee had filed an application before the Settlement Commission for settlement, and the application of assessee came to be disposed of by an order dated September 20, 2016 wherein the assessee’s application was allowed u/s. 245D(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The said order was challenged by the Revenue by way of writ petition on February 10, 2017. The challenge in the petition was on the ground that there was failure on the part of assessee to make full and true disclosure of income. The assessee raised a preliminary objection on the ground that the said order was passed by consent of both the Revenue (petitioner) and the assessee (respondent No. 1.).

It was the petitioner’s case in the said writ petition that the settlement recorded by the Commission on the consent of the parties was to be ignored because it did not reflect the correct position. It was the case of the Revenue that it had consistently opposed the application of respondent No. 1 for settlement in view of the alleged failure to make full and true disclosure of income.

The High Court dismissed the petition on June 21, 2018, holding that it was not open to the Revenue to challenge the correctness of the fact recorded in the said order by the Commission, particularly when it was not even remotely the case of the Revenue that the consent was given/made on a wrong appreciation of law. The court, of course, held that the remedy for the Revenue would be to move the Commission to correct what, according to the Revenue was an incorrect recording of consent in the impugned order.

Following this, the Revenue (petitioner) filed an application u/s. 245D(6B) on November 22, 2018 before the Settlement Commission for rectification. By the impugned order dated January 15, 2019, the Commission dismissed the application of the petitioner. The Commission came to the conclusion that even if it excluded the time spent pursuing the writ petition from February 10, 2017 to June 21, 2018,the rectification application had still been filed beyond the six months period stipulated in section 245D(6B) and was thus barred by limitation.

The Revenue filed another writ petition challenging this order. The Bombay High Court dismissed the petition and held as under:

“i) We find no error in the finding of the Commission.

ii) Though it was not argued before us and we would keep it open to decide in a proper case, we have our own reservations as to whether the grievance raised by the petitioner before the Commission and in the said writ petition that the consent as recorded was not given would qualify to be a “mistake apparent from the record” which is the only thing the Commission may rectify.”

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

65. Ramesh Madhukar Deole vs. Principal CIT: (2025) 483 ITR 802 (Bom): 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 5145

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 18/11/2024

Ss. 54F, 142(1) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

For the A. Y. 2018-2019, the assessee filed the return of income in wrong Form and subsequently filed the corrected return of income under ITR-3, wherein he claimed deductions and exemptions from capital gains u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s Chartered Accountant failed to respond to the notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act. Consequently, the Assessing Officer passed an ex parte assessment order u/s. 143(3) making additions.

Therefore, the assessee filed revision application u/s. 264 of the Act, praying for deletion of additions. The petitioner submitted all materials in that support of the claim. The Principal Commissioner accepted the assessee’s case on merits but rejected the revision application as not maintainable solely on the ground that the assessee had failed to produce certain materials in response to the notice u/s. 142(1) during the assessment proceedings.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order of rejection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The Principal Commissioner of Income-tax should not have rejected the petitioner’s revision application as not maintainable. We are of the clear opinion that the cause in the present case warranted that the revision be decided on merits and more particularly considering the case of the petitioner, which although was noticed in paragraph 6 of the impugned order, was not taken to its logical conclusion, merely on an erroneous presumption in law that the revision is not maintainable for a reason that the petitioner had failed to produce certain materials in response to notice u/s.142(1) of the Act. In our opinion, there is a manifest error on the part of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax in coming to such conclusion to hold the revision not maintainable in the facts of the present case.

ii) The impugned order dated March 24, 2023 is quashed and set aside. The petitioner’s revision application are remanded to the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax to be decided in accordance with law and an appropriate order be passed thereon within a period of three months from today.”

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

64. Principal CIT vs. Britannia Industries Ltd.

(2025) 346 CTR 242 (Cal.)

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 09/07/2025

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

The scrutiny assessment for A.Y. 2018-19 was completed u/s. 143 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by an order dated 22/03/2021. Subsequently, notice u/s. 263 of the Act was issued, requiring the assessee to show cause why the assessment order should not be treated as erroneous or prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The assessment order was sought to be revised on, inter alia, applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the acquisition of leasehold land and building and the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liabilities. Though the assessee filed a response objecting to the revision of the assessment order, the Principal Commissioner passed an order u/s. 263 setting-aside the assessment order and directing the Assessing Officer to pass the order afresh after considering the issues on which revision was sought to be made.

Against the said order of revision, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal, which was allowed.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) A reading of s. 263 of the Act would clearly show that unless and until the twin conditions are satisfied that the assessment order should be erroneous and it should be prejudicial to the interest of Revenue, the power under s. 263 of the Act cannot be invoked. Apart from that, the statute mandates that the Principal CIT should inquire and be satisfied that the case warrants exercise of its jurisdiction under s. 263 of the Act and such satisfaction should be manifest in the show-cause notice which is issued under the said provision.

ii) The Tribunal considered the factual position and found that out of the five issues which were raised in the show-cause notice issued u/s. 263 of the Act, except for three issues the explanation offered by the assessee in respect of the other issues were accepted by the Principal CIT. Furthermore, on facts, it is clear that the Principal CIT invoked its jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act at the instance of the Assessing Officer, which was incorrect. Therefore, the finding of the learned Tribunal that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power u/s. 263 of the Act solely based upon the reference made by the Assessing Officer is well founded.

iii) As regards the merits of the case, i.e. regarding the applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the transaction of purchase of land by the assessee from Bombay Dyeing & Manufacturing Company Ltd., it is undisputed that all the facts were placed before the AO and they were also disclosed in the notes of the tax audit report and the notes to the computation of income filed along with the return of income and those were scrutinised by the Assessing Officer. In fact, the learned Tribunal has extracted the relevant portion of the notes filed by the assessee before the Assessing Officer. Therefore, it cannot be stated that the Assessing Officer did not take into account all the factors and had accepted the plea of the assessee and completed the assessment. Therefore, the Principal CIT to invoke its power under s. 263 of the Act has to apply its mind to the audit report and record its satisfaction that the twin conditions required to be complied with under s. 263 of the Act have not been satisfied. Therefore, the Tribunal was fully justified in holding that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power under s. 263 of the Act. Though in the show-cause notice it is alleged that these aspects were not taken into consideration by the Assessing Officer, curiously enough in the order passed u/s. 263 of the Act dated 29/03/2023 the Principal CIT states that the Assessing Officer has not considered these aspects during the course of assessment; he has not made any inquiry on the issue nor did he issue any questionnaire in this regard and also held that the assessee in its reply dated 13/03/2023 did not contradict these facts. This finding rendered by the Principal CIT in its order is factually incorrect and the outcome of total non-application of mind. Therefore, the finding rendered by the learned Tribunal is fully justified.

iv) As regards the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liability, the Principal CIT, while passing the order u/s. 263 of the Act miserably failed to render any finding despite the fact that the assessee placed reliance on the decision in the case of Principal CIT vs. Eveready Industries India Ltd. and, accordingly, set aside the order passed by the Assessing Officer with a direction to the Assessing Officer to examine whether the decision in the case of Eveready Industries India Ltd. would be applicable to the case of the assessee or not after giving due opportunity of being heard to the assessee. The manner in which the Principal CIT has dealt with this issue is wholly untenable and, therefore, the learned Tribunal was justified in setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT on that score. Tribunal was right in allowing the assessee’s appeal and setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT.”

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

63. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd. vs. CCIT

TS-150-HC-2026(Tel.)

A.Ys.: 2012-13 and 2013-14: Date of order 30/01/2026

Rule 29 of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, 1963

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

The assessee, a public limited company, engaged in the research, production and sale of hybrid seeds and crops. In the scrutiny assessment for A. Y. 2012-13 and 2013-14, addition and disallowance was made u/s. 10(1) and section 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee was partly allowed, wherein the addition made u/s. 10(1) of the Act was deleted and the disallowance made u/s. 14A of the Act was confirmed. Against the order of the CIT(A), cross appeals were filed by the assessee and the department. The Tribunal remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer with a direction to examine the nature of business of the assessee and to determine whether the nature of the business was agricultural or not, and also to recompute the disallowance depending upon the determination of the nature of the business of the assessee.

During the pendency of the appeal before the Tribunal, a search was conducted at the business premises of the assessee, wherein certain incriminating material was found. Thereafter, notice u/s. 153A of the Act was issued. Pending the appeal before the Tribunal, the Department filed an application before the Tribunal for admission of additional evidence to bring on record before the Tribunal, the alleged incriminating material / documents found during the course of search. Despite the assessee’s opposition to the admission of the incriminating material as additional evidence, the Tribunal allowed the application. On the basis of the said documents, the Tribunal concluded that the addition u/s. 10(1) was not sustainable and remanded the matter to the AO as regards the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the High Court, the assessee challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in invoking Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, 1963 and in accepting the additional evidence since Rule 29 expressly prohibits the department from bringing on record such additional evidence. Further, the assessee also challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in taking into account the evidence of proceedings u/s. 153A of the Act as the proceedings u/s. 153A are separate and the same could not be relied upon in an appeal before the Tribunal.

The Telangana High Court decided the appeal, in favour of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) A perusal of Rule 29 of the Rules, makes it clear that the very foremost words of the Rule explicitly provide that the parties to an appeal are not entitled, as a matter of right, to produce additional evidence, either oral or documentary, before the Tribunal. The Rule further makes it clear that it is the Tribunal alone, which is competent to direct either party to produce any witness to be examined or affidavit to be filed or may allow such evidence to be adduced.

ii) Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, abundantly makes it clear that neither of the parties to the appeal can independently file additional evidence, either oral or documentary and it is only the Tribunal on its own can direct either of the parties to produce any documents or witness or any affidavit to be filed for determination of the dispute and if the income tax authorities decide the case without giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee either on the points specified or not specified, the Tribunal may, for reasons to be recorded, permit the production of such evidence by the assessee. The words envisaged in Rule 29, therefore leaves no scope for either the Revenue or the assessee to file applications to adduce evidence as a matter of right. Only the learned ITAT alone is empowered to direct either of the parties to produce additional evidence and only in the cases where there is total denial of giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee, the assessee has got a right to file such application seeking permission to adduce additional evidence.

iii) The learned ITAT exceeded in its jurisdiction and acted in gross violation of Rule 29 by allowing the application filed by the Revenue in a routine manner and remanding the matter to the Assessing Authority for fresh determination.

iv) The judgements relied upon by the department were distinguishable on the ground that in those cases, the discretion of the Tribunal was exercised to admit additional evidence for substantial causes or where the evidence could not be produced before the lower authorities due to genuine difficulties, such as non-retrievability of emails or documents. The Tribunal, in those cases, acted after determining that the evidence was necessary for proper adjudication. Further, many of those judgments arose under different statutory provisions, such as Order XLI Rule 27 and or other laws, and did not specifically consider Rule 29 of the Rules as that fall for consideration in the instant case. None of the judgments expressly held that either party could file an application for additional evidence as a matter of right under Rule 29

v) In the instant case, the application filed by the Revenue as a matter of right, was allowed by the learned ITAT, without proper appreciation of Rule 29, which is impermissible in law. We are of the considered view, that the impugned orders of the learned ITAT are in gross violation of procedures contemplated under Rule 29 of the Rules and the learned ITAT exceeded its jurisdiction and thus, the impugned order are liable to be set aside.”