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Society News

LEARNING EVENTS AT BCAS

1. Lecture Meeting on Insights into the Current State of the Indian Economy held on Wednesday, 12th August 2026 @ Virtual | Speaker: Dr. Rumki Majumdar

The session provided an overview of the current Indian economic landscape, highlighting key growth drivers, inflation trends, and investment activity. It examined the impact of global economic developments, geopolitical uncertainties, and trade dynamics on India’s growth prospects.

The discussion also covered the role of policy reforms in supporting economic resilience and long term development. Participants gained insights into emerging economic trends and their implications for businesses and professionals. The session emphasized the importance of monitoring macroeconomic indicators and adapting strategies to a changing environment.

An interactive Q&A further enhanced understanding of India’s economic outlook and future opportunities.

Click to watch online on YouTube

2. Webinar on Maharashtra Co-operative Housing Societies Act, 1960 and Rules, 1961 – Recent Updates held on Saturday, 8th August, 2026 @ Virtual |Speaker: CA Ramesh Prabhu.

The Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS), jointly with The Chamber of Tax Consultants (CTC), organised a virtual session on “Maharashtra Co-operative Housing Societies Act, 1960 & Rules, 1961 – Recent Updates” on Saturday, 8th August 2026. The webinar received an enthusiastic response with 620 registrations.

CA Ramesh Prabhu provided an insightful and practical overview of Chapter XIII-B of the Maharashtra Co-operative Housing Societies (MCS) Act, 1960 and the recently introduced Chapter XI-B of the MCS Rules, 1961. The discussion covered the registration of housing societies, key definitions and different categories of membership, admission of members, associate/joint and provisional membership. The speaker also dealt with the provisions relating to transfer of shares, rights and interest in flats, payment of society dues, nomination, succession and transfer pursuant to family arrangements.  Attention was also given to the rights and obligations of members and managing committees, including access to society records, committee disqualifications, and voting rights. The speaker further discussed the management of housing societies under the new Rules, including the functioning of the General Body and Managing Committee. Recent judicial developments and practical issues arising under the housing society framework were discussed enabling participants to better understand the application of the statutory provisions. The session was followed by an engaging Question & Answer segment, wherein the Speaker provided clarifications on the queries raised by the participants.

The webinar concluded on a highly informative note, with participants appreciating the quality of the practical insights shared during the session.

Click to watch online on YouTube

3. Webinar on Income Tax Returns for AY 2026 – 27 held on Thursday, 6th August 2026 @ Virtual | Speaker: CA Ronak Rambhia.

The Direct Tax committee of BCAS had organised a webinar on the Income Tax Returns for AY 2026-27 in virtual mode on Thursday, 6th August, 2026. The webinar was organised to address the changes in the Income Tax Returns and how to be ready for the incoming tax filing season.

CA Ronak Rambhia opened with a detailed explanation of section 139 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 as to the persons applicable to file the Income Tax Returns and under what conditions one in mandatorily required to file an Income Tax Return. He then walked through each return as to which return is applicable to which type of assessee. He covered the applicability from ITR-1 to ITR-7 in detail, and some practical points were explained in detail like in case of partners of a firm, private trust, etc.

He meticulously outlined the pre-requisites for each type of assessee and their specified return so that the professionals would know as to what should be asked from their clients while starting to prepare the Income Tax Returns and what details are required to be mentioned in what schedules. The schedules of all the Income Tax Returns were explained in detail. The reporting of the Future & Option (F&O) income and the intraday trading business schedules was explained through various examples.

He also highlighted key validation points between the reporting in the Tax Audit report and the Income Tax Return, to help avoid mismatches that could trigger adjustments in the intimation under Section 143(1)(a) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Lastly, he gave some practical insights on the problems faced while choosing the due date for private trust, disclosing income under Business income or other sources income and he ended with a final checklist from login to the portal to e-verification process.

The webinar offered a comprehensive and practice-oriented walkthrough of the Income Tax Returns for AY 2026-27.

Click to watch online on YouTube

4. Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on GST Implications of Business Restructuring, Liquidation & Closure held on Tuesday, 21st July 2026 @ Virtual | Speaker: CA Raj Khona (Group Leader) & CA K. Shivarajan (Group Mentor).

  • The discussion deliberated on business swaps between sole proprietorships, emphasizing the taxability exemptions under Notification No. 12/2017-CT(R) and ITC transfer mechanisms via Form GST ITC-02.
  • Key insights were shared regarding internal division transfers across distinct GSTINs under the same PAN, highlighting the applicability of Schedule I deemed supplies and valuation under Rule 28.
  • The interplay between Section 59 of the IBC and GST recovery proceedings was examined, confirming the extinction of claims post-dissolution while assessing director liabilities under Section 89 of the CGST Act.
  • Participants reviewed partnership-to-LLP conversions, confirming statutory vesting benefits, ITC transfers under Section 18(3), and the continuation of export licenses/incentives.
  • The session addressed business closures under Section 29(5), contrasting mandatory stock/machinery reversals against the non-reversibility of immovable property.

The study circle session witnessed active participation with around 163 members logging in and engaging in healthy and high-quality technical discussions.

BCAS OUTREACH & ENGAGEMENTS

1. INC 5 session

The Fifth session of the United Nations Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee on the Framework Convention was held at the UN headquarters in New York from August 3 to 13, 2026.

In addition to the government representatives actually negotiating the documents, the UN also allows other stakeholders such as civil society, academia, and the private sector to attend these sessions and make contributions. Bombay Chartered Accountants Society is one such approved stakeholder.

The current work of the intergovernmental negotiating committee (INC) includes three workstreams:

  1. UN Framework Convention on International Tax Cooperation
  2. Protocol on Taxation of Income from Cross-Border Services
  3. Protocol on Prevention and Resolution of Tax Disputes

At the August 2026 session, for the first time, draft documents for all three workstreams were presented and discussed. The key elements of these documents are briefly summarised.

The Framework Convention is like an umbrella agreement, a multilateral instrument, which can have one or more Protocols. Each Protocol generally deals with a specific issue.

In addition to UN STTR provision, the Protocol on services contains various articles dealing with cross-border services recently included in the UN Model i.e. Article 12AA dealing with “fees for services”, Article 12B dealing with “automated digital services” and Article 12C dealing with “insurance premiums”. These provisions give taxing rights to the source countries even when the service provider does not have a permanent establishment in the source country.

The Protocol on disputes contains innovative dispute prevention mechanisms and dispute prevention mechanisms such as bilateral and multilateral advance rulings on issues not related to transfer pricing, APAs, Coordinated advance pricing arrangements, Cooperative compliance arrangements, Simultaneous tax audits, Joint audits etc.

CA Radhakishan Rawal made various interventions during the discussions. The inputs were predominantly on technical issues arising from drafting of various issues, certain desired policy outcomes and approaches to enhance participation by the countries.

Media Links:

2. Meeting with SEBI Chairman

A delegation of BCAS – Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, led by CA Kinjal Shah, President, and CA Mandar Telang, Vice President, CA (Adv.) Kinjal Bhuta, Joint Secretary, CA Samit Saraf, Joint Secretary and CA Mrinal Mehta, Treasurer along with former BCAS presidents CA Shariq Contractor and CA Chirag Doshi met Mr. Tuhin Kanta Pandey, Chairman of SEBI on 7th August 2026 at SEBI Bhavan, BKC Mumbai.

The delegation briefed Mr. Pandey on the key initiatives and activities of BCAS and discussed potential areas of future collaboration between BCAS and SEBI. As REACH is one of the main pillars of BCAS – the step in this direction, is aimed to be a long-term and mutually beneficial professional association with SEBI.

3. BCAS President Meets R.A. Podar College Vice-Principal to Explore Academic-Professional Collaboration

A meeting between Dr. (CA) Vibha Singh, Vice-Principal of R.A. Podar College of Commerce & Economics, and CA Kinjal Shah, President, BCAS, was held at the BCAS office on 6th August 2026.

They discussed on the possibility of having a meaningful academic and professional association, with the objective of providing students and faculty with greater exposure to the Chartered Accountancy profession, emerging areas of finance, and practical industry knowledge.

Overall, the proposed collaboration can create a sustained platform for knowledge exchange, skill development and professional orientation, benefiting students, faculty and the broader academic community.

4. Churchgate CPE Study Circle Felicitates BCAS President

The President of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) was felicitated by the Churchgate CPE Study Circle of WIRC of ICAI in a ceremony held at Jolly Bhavan No.2, New Marine lines, Churchgate, Mumbai; on 6th August 2026 recognising his contributions to the accounting profession.

The event was attended by members of BCAS, senior Chartered Accountants, students, and members of the Churchgate CPE Study Circle of WIRC of ICAI.

The President emphasised on the forthcoming seminars of BCAS and need for continuous learning.

Churchgate CPE Study Circle, Coordinator, CA Dilip Jani presented a memento to the President, acknowledging his leadership and support for local chapter activities.

5. Borivali (Central) CPE Study Circle Felicitates BCAS President

The President of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) was felicitated by the Borivali (Central) CPE Study Circle in a ceremony held in Borivali on 11th July 2026, recognising his contributions to the accounting profession and to member engagement across the region.

The event was attended by members of BCAS, senior Chartered Accountants, students, and convenors of the Borivali (Central) CPE Study Circle.

The BCAS President emphasised the need to focus on joint programmes and collaborative initiatives with other professional bodies and associations, fostering greater knowledge-sharing and engagement among members.

III. REPRESENTATION

BCAS Submits Representation to the OECD

The Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS), through its International Taxation Committee, submitted a representation to the OECD Centre for Tax Policy and Administration on 22 July 2026 on the proposed revisions to Chapter VII of the OECD Transfer Pricing Guidelines relating to intra-group services.

The representation, submitted under the leadership of CA Kinjal Shah, President, BCAS, CA Mayur Nayak, Chairman, and CA Anil Doshi, Co-Chairman, International Taxation Committee, provides practical suggestions to improve clarity and consistency in the proposed guidance.

BCAS recommended clearer definitions for subjective terms, better guidance on distinguishing shareholder activities from chargeable services, practical allocation keys for common intra-group services, and dedicated guidance on stock-based compensation. The Society also highlighted the growing impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI) on service delivery and suggested that future guidance may be required in this area.

The representation further recommended reviewing the mark-up for low value-adding services, defining core and support services, and providing a practical documentation framework to reduce disputes and improve compliance.

This representation reflects BCAS’s continued commitment to contributing to the development of practical and internationally accepted transfer pricing principles while representing the views of the profession on global tax policy.

Click to Read the Full Representation

IV. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

BCAS LinkedIn Live: Taking Professional Learning Digital

The Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society (BCAS) introduced BCAS LinkedIn Live, a digital initiative aimed at making professional learning more accessible, engaging and widely connected. The initiative was launched with a webinar on “Income Tax Returns for AY 2026–27,” enabling professionals to participate in a technical knowledge session directly through LinkedIn. With a growing community of 24,000+ followers on LinkedIn, BCAS leveraged the platform to expand the reach of its professional knowledge initiatives. The first LinkedIn Live webinar received 700+ views, demonstrating strong audience interest and the potential of LinkedIn Live to further extend BCAS’s digital learning outreach.

Key Benefits:

Provides convenient access to BCAS technical sessions and webinars through LinkedIn.

Enables professionals to participate in knowledge-sharing programmes remotely.

Facilitates access to expert insights and technical updates through a digital platform.

Expands the reach of BCAS’s professional education initiatives.

BCAS continues to expand its digital outreach through the BCAS Website, BCAS Academy and YouTube, now further strengthened by LinkedIn Live Streaming.

Click to watch online at LinkedIn Live Streaming

BCAS News

BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

Yes. I am Independent!

  •  What did you say? ‘Independent’ is a myth? I don’t agree. I am independent. I always work without fear or favour.
  •  What? Mr. Mallya wants me sign his balance sheet urgently – as it is?

No. Never! Tell him, your accounts are full of blunders. I can’t sign them. I am independent. No fear, no favour.

What does he say? I have been saying this last few years; but signing them every year?

So what? This time I won’t tolerate any non-sense.

No; but wait a minute He will change the auditor and my errors will be exposed!

And I need urgent money to pay my son’s fees to be paid in USA. Okay, Okay. I will sign this year but warn him that next year

  •  Who has come? Some boys and girls have come for articleship?

Don’t entertain them. They are useless and over smart. They will interview me and ask questions on stipend, leave and so on.

But I cannot afford to let them go. I need assistants at low cost. I can’t afford graduate employees. Next year, I won’t take any article.

  • Hello! Did you meet the officer? Hearing is over? What, he is asking for something?

Tell him, we won’t pay a single penny. We should not encourage corruption.

Hello, Hold on. This client’s records are not clear. It will cost us heavily. And that officer is vindictive. Our many other matters are with him Tell him, OK we will do his work. But ask him to be reasonable.

  • What? That article wants us to write lesser number of days leave in his termination form? Tell him, I will never do such things. He has to behave. He is arrogant, irresponsible and not at all sincere. We can’t break ICAI rules. He deserves to be punished.

But wait!  He is the son of our valuable client.  We get many assignments through him.  Okay.  We will better get rid of him   But tell others, they should not quote it as a precedent!

  • Hello. Pareshbhai – bolo bolo.

Full day seminar of study circle? How much – 5000? It’s too much. Very difficult. So much work is pending. Anyway, I will join. As it is my CPE hours are short. But I won’t be able to sit there whole day. You will have to adjust it. I will send my man to attend and I will come only for signing.

  • Arey, Mohanbhai, welcome. You have brought 17 balance sheets of housing societies? Mohanbhai, you are expecting too much. How can I sign all these without verifying? You have seen is alright. But I am independent and need to check it thoroughly.
  • What do you say? You have brought fee in cash?

Anyway. You have been my friend for long. I trust you. But next year, be careful. Don’t bring at 11th hour like this.

  • Oh, Mr. Patel, 8 new audits?

How can I take them at this point of time? Only 4 days left for ITR filing. I have to do so many things. Procedure for appointment, writing to previous auditors? No no Sir. I am sorry. Not possible for me.

  • What? Fees are good and will be paid in advance? And you will manage all formalities! But still difficult.

Anyway. Considering our relations, I am obliging. But remember, I am otherwise independent. I work without any fear or favour.

  • Yes, Vijay. What do you want? Increment? How can you expect it? You take so much leave, commit mistakes, there are many complaints against you.

But hold, you are that officer’s nephew, na? I will increase your salaries. But remember, this is the last time. You know, I work without fear or favour.

  • What? Sweeper wants further loan? She already owes us more than 50000/-. How can we keep on giving like this?

Thik hai. Give her 5000/- but she should return it early. Now-a-days, it is difficult to get peons and sweepers.

  • What? Phone from my home? She wants me to come for a movie? Tell her, I have no time. Too much pressure of work. Can’t take her call.

Sarika. Connect to my wife again. Last time I refused like this and suffered very much.

Hello Darling.  When should I reach home?

After all, I am independent. I work without fear or favour!

Regulatory Referencer

I. DIRECT TAX : SPOTLIGHT

  1.  The Income-tax (Third Amendment) Rules, 2026 – Amendment to Rule 332

The amended Rule applies to any search initiated under section 247 or requisition made under section 248 of the Income tax Act, 2025 on or after 1 April 2026. Form ITR -BN (Income tax return for Block Assessment) is inserted – Notification No. 97 of 2026 dated 24 July 2026.

2.  CBDT has notified Foreign Assets of Small Taxpayers- Disclosure Scheme Rules, 2026 and has also released FAQ – Notification No. 114 of 2026 dated 14 August 2026.

II. FEMA

1. RBI releases draft rules for rationalization of Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019

RBI has released the draft Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign Investment) Rules, 2026 to replace and rationalise the existing NDI Rules, 2019. The draft aims to simplify the regulatory framework, harmonise definitions, align FEMA provisions with the FDI Policy, reduce compliance burden and provide greater operational flexibility through a principle-based, investor-neutral and investee-neutral approach. The Rules are currently in draft form and will be finalised after public consultation. Comments on the draft Rules can be submitted by 31st August 2026.

(Press Release No. 2026-2027/726, dated 21st July 2026)

2. RBI excludes eligible FCNR(B) and NRE-backed advances from ANBC for PSL target calculation

RBI, vide circular dated June 8, 2026 on ‘Swap Facility for FCNR (B) Deposits’, introduced a US Dollar-Rupee swap facility for fresh FCNR (B) dollar funds. This has already been covered in our earlier regulatory updates.

RBI has amended the PSL Directions to exclude advances backed by eligible fresh FCNR(B) deposits (3–5 years) and NRE term deposits (3 years or more) mobilised during the specified period from Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for calculating banks’ priority-sector lending targets, thereby incentivising banks to mobilise such foreign currency and NRE deposits.

(Circular No. FIDD.CO.PSD BC.NO.08/04.09.001/ 2026-27, dated 7th August 2026)

3. RBI curtails FCNR(B) swap facility for deposits mobilized to 31st August 2026

Based on the encouraging response to the Swap Facility for FCNR(B) deposits mentioned above and the resultant forex inflows, it has been decided that the Swap facility for FCNR(B) deposits will be available only for deposits mobilized till 31st August 2026 as against the earlier date of 30th September 2026. The Swaps under this facility, i.e., FCNR(B) deposits, may be availed with RBI till September 11, 2026. The Scheme for ECBs and OFCBs will continue to be open till December 31, 2026.

(Press release No. 2026-2027/900, dated 14th August 2026)

Tech Mantra

Netlens

Netlens

NetLens turns your phone into a handheld Wifi survey instrument. Walk around your apartment, your office or your warehouse – and watch a real-time signal heatmap form beneath your steps.

There are three ways to map:

– Heatmap survey: Hold the phone in front of you and walk. The rear camera provides visual-inertial tracking, so every Wifi scan is anchored in 3D using the phone’s own motion. No floor plan to upload, no account, no markers on the walls. The map fills in along the path you walk.

– Quick Scan: A live AR mode for a fast overview. Wifi readings appear directly in your camera view as you move, with no setup and nothing to save.

– Floorplan: No camera required. Import a floor plan, sketch, or screenshot of your space, then walk and tap to drop readings and build a heatmap manually.

WHAT YOU GET

– A Live heatmap that grows as you move, color-graded from weak to excellent signal

– Filter the map to a single access point, or a specific band (2.4 / 5 / 6 GHz)

– Adjustable map layers: heatmap, walk path, photos, and an underlaid floor plan that you can fade to align with real rooms

– Color palettes, including a colorblind-friendly option

– Photo markers placed on the map and carried into the PDF

– Export a clean PDF report, a PNG image, or raw CSV samples
– Group scans into projects and export an entire whole multi-floor building as one combined PDF

– Extra live tools: Signal Meter, Channel Graph, AP Browser, Connection, and a Speed Test with saved history

A very efficient way to map your WiFi coverage and take corrective action at the weak spots.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/netlensapp

Toxly : ingredient scanner

Toxly

Toxly is your AI-Powered Ingredient Safety Guide. It helps you identify what is really inside the products you use every day. Most ingredient labels are designed to be confusing, hiding harmful chemicals, allergens, and toxins behind complex names.

Toxly changes all that. It empowers you to make healthier, more intentional choices for yourself and your family. Using advanced AI and real-time scanning, Toxly decodes complex labels instantly, identifying potential risks so you don’t have to. Whether you are grocery shopping, buying skincare, or checking household cleaners, Toxly provides the transparency you deserve.

Simply point your camera at any ingredient list on the packaging. Powerful OCR (Optical Character Recognition) and AI analysis decode the text in seconds, identifying harmful toxins, endocrine disruptors, and irritants. Get a clear, color-coded breakdown of every ingredient. Components are categorized from “Safe” to “High Risk,” explaining why an ingredient might be harmful based on the latest scientific research. Toxly thus helps you avoid “greenwashing” by revealing the truth behind marketing claims like “natural” or “pure.”

Toxly is optimized for speed. Whether you’re in a crowded supermarket or a store with poor reception, Toxly’s core scanning technology works quickly to give you answers when you need them most.
Toxly is perfect for

  •  Parents: Check your baby’s lotions and food products for ingredients you may wish to avoid.
  •  Skincare Enthusiasts: Identify ingredients such as silicones, parabens, and sulfates that may cause irritation or breakouts for some users.
  •  Health-Conscious Shoppers: Track and avoid artificial dyes, preservatives, and hidden toxins.
  •  Allergy Sufferers: Quickly identify potential triggers in long, complex ingredients lists.

The base version is free, while the Premium version gives unlimited ad-free analyses. Together, we can push for a future where every product is safe for everyone.

Scan with intention. Live with clarity. Download Toxly today.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/toxly

Battery Supervisor

Battery Supervisor

Battery Supervisor helps you better understand how your smartphone battery behaves. It does not just show percentage, voltage and temperature: it collects data over time and organizes it into charts, checks and easy-to-read diagnostics.

With Battery Supervisor you can monitor:

  •  Battery level, voltage and temperature;
  •  Charging and discharging trends;
  •  Estimated app consumption, if you allow usage access;
  •  Abnormal battery drain and screen-off consumption;
  •  Possible charger or cable issues;
  •  Charging sessions;
  •  Battery health estimation through the SOH Wizard.

The main feature is the battery diagnostic report: With one tap, you can get an organized overview highlighting the factors that may have affected battery consumption the most, such as screen, Wi-Fi, mobile data, Bluetooth, GPS, foreground apps, temperature and standby behaviour.

The app also includes historical charts that allows you to observe battery behaviour over time and identify unusual patterns.

Battery Supervisor is designed to be simple and practical: It is useful both for users who simply want better battery control and for those who want to analyze consumption, charging sessions and possible anomalies in greater detail.

The analyses are estimates based on the data available from the Android system and may vary depending on the device, Android version and permissions granted. They do not replace professional measuring tools, but they help you better interpret everyday battery behaviour.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/battsupervisor

Keymate: PC Apps from Phone

Keymate PC Apps from Phone

Keymate is a control pad app that lets you run PC tasks quickly from your phone. Install the Keymate desktop app on your Mac or Windows PC, then connect it to your phone over the same Wi-Fi. Once set up, a tap on your phone can instantly run your favourite shortcuts, type text, launch apps, open URLs and even control media. You can also reduce repetitive tasks on your PC to a single button press.

Key Features

– Run Shortcuts: Trigger your favourite keyboard shortcuts with a single tap.
– Text Input: Save phrases you type frequently and paste them instantly.
– Launch Apps & URLs: Open your go-to apps or websites directly from your phone.
– Media Control: Play/pause, skip tracks, adjust volume, mute, and change screen brightness from your phone.

Keymate is built for anyone who wants to speed up repetitive PC tasks, such as development, design, writing, video editing, music listening, streaming, and presentations.

The Keymate desktop app for Mac or Windows is required.

Android : https://tinyurl.com/keymate

The Taxpayer’s Long Wait For An Order Giving Effect

While winning an appeal on merits should ideally resolve a taxpayer’s issues, in practice, it frequently marks the beginning of a second challenging phase. Once the Commissioner (Appeals), the National Faceless Appeal Centre (NFAC), or the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) rules in favour of the taxpayer, the relief is not automatically applied as a reduced demand or a refund. Instead, the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) must first calculate and implement these figures through an Order Giving Effect(OGE).

WHAT IS AN ORDER GIVING EFFECT?

An Order Giving Effect (“OGE”) is the order passed by the jurisdictional AO to implement the outcome of an appellate or rectification order – re-computing income, tax, interest and refund in line with the relief granted. the Assessing Officer (AO) is under a statutory obligation to pass the OGE within three months from the end of the month in which the appellate or revisionary order is received. This period may only be extended by the Principal Commissioner for reasons recorded in writing. [Section 153(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961]. The provision exists precisely because relief on paper is meaningless until it is given effect to in the taxpayer’s PAN. For eg: a reduced demand, a corrected interest computation, or a refund with interest under section 244A.

BCAS SURVEY

A recent survey conducted for this study by the BCAS indicates that securing this final order is often the most difficult part of the entire process for professionals in the field. This survey was created only limited to the Tax officer’s duty to pass an order giving effect to NFAC/CIT Appeals or ITAT where the direction given for full relief and no verification is required. The results of the BCAS survey are summarized as under:

Survey Question Dominant
Response
On 100%
Q1. Is a follow-up with the jurisdictional officer necessary even after applying for OGE on the portal? Yes, most often 94.7%
Q2. Does the OGE carry mathematical errors requiring a rectification application? Yes / Sometimes (combined) 96.6%
Q3. Does a change of jurisdictional officer/inspector delay the passing of the OGE? Always / Most often (combined) 97.4%
Q4. Even where the AO must pass the OGE suo-motu on NFAC/ITAT’s direction, is a grievance still needed? Yes 86.1%

This reflects that the faceless assessment has still not been able to ease the procedural aspects of passing final orders effecting taxes of the taxpayer’s in whose favour the judgement is ruled. Additionally, Income Tax (CPC) portal also has a field where the taxpayer through his login is able to apply for OGE. Despite this the JAO calls for information to verify the facts which is already ruled in the favour of the taxpayer and the fact that the appellate authorities have not asked the JAO to verify any amount or facts. The matter is purely on merits.

Is it so that JAO does not trust his own system and records. It is a million-dollar question as to who is accountable for such a mess created and followed by the tax authorities. Despite the submissions being copied to the Commissioners, the JAO specially the ITO wards relentlessly delay the process of passing OGE.

THE SUFFERANCE:

The significant challenges taxpayers face regarding the implementation of appellate orders. Currently, the process following a successful appeal before the NFAC or the Tribunal is not self-executing, causing substantial difficulties for taxpayers. Legitimate refunds are frequently delayed well beyond the statutory three-month window, severely impacting working capital. Furthermore, interest under section 244A is often miscomputed or omitted in the rectification orders, necessitating repeated correspondence. Sometimes even the senior citizens having no business income are charged interest under sections 234B and 234C.

Additionally, original disputed demands frequently remain outstanding on the portal. These are offered for adjustment as per intimation under section 245, sometimes even without sending the original intimation for the refund year which gets adjusted under 245. This exposes taxpayers to unwarranted recovery notices, the adjustment of other refunds, and compromised compliance ratings, despite receiving favourable appellate rulings. The administrative burden and professional costs of filing follow-up letters, rectification applications, and grievances are borne entirely by the taxpayer.

Winning an appeal should provide finality rather than initiating a prolonged, unstructured process to secure the Order Giving Effect (OGE).

EASE OF PASSING OGE

The process largely can get self-executing and officer dependent:

– Centralize OGE Processing: Centralize OGE processing on the lines of NFAC/CPC. This will ensure that giving effect to appellate orders is not tied to a single jurisdictional officer whose transfer can stall the file indefinitely.

– Auto-Populate OGE Computation: Auto-populate the OGE computation from the appellate order and the return/assessment data already on record. Utilizing system-validated arithmetic (including interest under section 244A/234 series) will eliminate the manual errors reported in nearly half the cases surveyed.

– Establish a Handover Protocol: Build a mandatory handover protocol on transfer of jurisdiction, with pending-OGE files flagged for time-bound completion by the successor officer rather than resetting the timeline.

– Enforce Statutory Time Limits: Make the section 153(5) time limit self-enforcing through the portal itself. This would trigger an automatic escalation to the range head or a dashboard alert to CBDT once the statutory period lapses, rather than relying on the taxpayer to file a grievance.

– Automate Suo-Motu OGE Generation: Dispense with the need for a taxpayer-initiated grievance in suo-motu situations altogether. The system should generate the OGE automatically once the appellate order is uploaded, requiring human intervention only for genuine complexity.

– Introduce Interest Disincentives: Consider a modest interest disincentive on the Department for OGEs passed beyond the statutory time limit, mirroring the interest the taxpayer bears on delayed payment of tax, to align incentives on both sides.

The law should allow the release of refunds of the assessments years having no pending assessments or rectifications. In the cases where OGEs are required to be passed, the demands which are deleted by the NFACs or ITATs should not be adjusted against such correct refunds. Hence each demand and refund must be treated assessment wise.

CONCLUSION:

Reference is drawn to the latest decision in the Writ Petition of Global Hospitality Licensing SARL vs. ACIT/DCIT (IT), Mumbai (Writ Petition No. 1611 of 2024) dated 22nd June, 2026.

Issue & Background

The petitioner (a Luxembourg entity part of the Marriott group) disputed an assessment order treating its IMPPA receipts as taxable business income in India. The CIT(A)/NFAC ruled the receipts were royalties taxable at a beneficial DTAA rate and directed the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) to pass an OGE. The Revenue received this order by 31st March, 2019, establishing a statutory deadline under section 153(5) to pass the OGE by 31st December, 2019. The AO failed to pass the OGE but subsequently completed penalty proceedings, imposing a penalty of Rs. 12.11 lakhs under section 271(1)(c).

Key Findings & High Court Holding

– Assessment Abates: Failure by the AO to pass the OGE within the mandatory statutory period under section 153(5) results in the abatement of assessment proceedings. The income declared in the petitioner’s return is treated as accepted.

– Penalty Falls: Because the underlying assessment abated, the foundational basis for the section 271(1)(c) penalty vanished, rendering the penalty order legally unsustainable.

– Interest is Not a Cure: The Revenue argued that section 244A(1A) interest remedies delays. The Court rejected this, clarifying that interest merely compensates the assessee and does not legitimize time-barred proceedings. Collecting tax via a time-barred OGE violates Article 265 of the Constitution.

Companion Ruling

The Calcutta High Court reinforced this position in Nomura Research Institute Financial Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. vs. UOI (12th June 2026), holding that an OGE passed beyond the section 153(5) limitation is “non-est” and directing a refund with interest.

Section 153(5) already prescribes a time limit; what is missing is an ecosystem that makes compliance with it the default rather than the exception. Until then, taxpayers who succeed before NFAC or the ITAT will continue to face an unwritten “second appeal” – not on the merits, but simply to have the Department do what it was already directed, and legally obliged, to do. That is not a fair outcome for a taxpayer who has already been vindicated in law.

There is a maxim in salesmanship that “customer is always right” but with the tax authorities it is mostly that “assessee is always wrong” despite the fact appellate authorities have verified the facts and passed the orders on merit of the case.

Is it fair on the part of the JAOs to put the assessee in mental and financial stress round the clock?

Miscellanea

1. TECHNOLOGY

# AI Could Cut 10 Weeks From Cancer Trials. Drugmakers Could Save Millions.

AI-powered systems are increasingly being explored for some of the labour-intensive work involved in running clinical trials.

AI agents could accelerate the clinical development of cancer medicine by approximately 10 weeks while reducing direct operating costs by as much as $5.6 million in late-stage trials.

A Tufts Center for the Study of Drug Development (CSDD) analysis found that AI agents could shorten cancer drug clinical development by about 10 weeks and reduce Phase 3 trial costs by up to $5.6 million. For drugs tested across multiple cancer indications, total benefits could reach $565 million. AI can improve patient recruitment, monitoring, data management, and trial analysis, leading to faster enrollment and quicker database lock. While AI may become a standard tool in clinical trials within 3 to 5 years, human oversight will remain essential, and AI cannot address all challenges in drug development or guarantee clinical success.

(Source: International Business Times – By Matias Civita – 13 August 2026)

2. PHARMACEUTICAL SECTOR

# India’s pharma sector must shift from cost competitiveness to innovation, global quality

For the growth of India’s pharmaceutical sector, prioritizing innovation and advanced manufacturing is essential. Experts indicate that increasing investments in research and digital technologies could propel the market to an impressive USD 130 billion by 2030. Companies must also elevate their quality and comply with global regulatory expectations to compete in the global landscape thus establishing India as an innovation hub in life sciences.

India’s pharmaceutical industry must move beyond its traditional strength in cost-effective generic medicines and focus on innovation, advanced manufacturing, quality excellence, and global regulatory compliance to unlock its next phase of growth, industry experts emphasized. With India targeting a pharmaceutical market size of USD 130 billion by 2030, stakeholders highlighted the need for increased investments in research and development, digital technologies, and contract research, development, and manufacturing services (CRDMO) to drive sustainable growth and global competitiveness.

These insights emerged at the official launch and precursor event for the 19th edition of Convention on Pharmaceutical Ingredients (CPHI) & Pharmaceutical Machinery and Equipment Convention (PMEC) India 2026, held under the banner of the Pharma Leadership Exchange in Hyderabad. The event brought together leading pharmaceutical executives, CXOs, industry veterans, and key stakeholders from across India’s pharmaceutical and life sciences ecosystem ahead of the flagship exhibition scheduled for November 2026 in Delhi-NCR.

(Source: The Economic Times – By PTI – 18 August 2026)

3. DOMESTIC NEWS

# Government approves 31 proposal worth INR 7,877 crore under electronics component scheme

The approvals are aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing of electronic components and strengthening India’s electronics supply chain, according to the Electronics and IT Secretary.

The government has approved 31 new projects on 17 August 2026 under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS), involving investments of ₹7,877 crore. With these approvals, total investments under the scheme have crossed ₹69,000 crore across 106 projects, exceeding the government’s original target of ₹59,000 crore.

The approved projects span key areas such as camera and display modules, connectors, rare earth magnets, speakers, microphones, antennas, and capital goods, supporting India’s goal of strengthening domestic electronics manufacturing and reducing import dependence.

According to Electronics Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, the projects are expected to generate ₹82,243 crore of production and create nearly 10,000 jobs. He also emphasized four priorities for the sector’s growth: design capability, indigenous supply chains, Six Sigma quality standards, and workforce development.

(Source: The Economic Times – By PTI – 18 August 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. EXPOSURE DRAFT

‘Guidance Note on Report under section 92E of the Income-tax Act,1961’ for Public Comments

With a view to keeping the Guidance Note updated and relevant, the Committee proposes to revise the publication for the benefit and guidance of members. Accordingly, the Exposure Draft – “Guidance Note on Report under section 92E of the Income-tax Act,1961- 2022 Edition”, incorporating the proposed changes, has been issued for public comments. The Exposure Draft can be accessed at the following link: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/93928cit-aps6161-exp-draft.pdf

Comments on the above-mentioned Exposure Draft may be submitted at the following link on or latest by 05th September, 2026- https://forms.gle/Zo7Qgg2aFqCGemG66.

II. PUBLICATIONS

1. Compilation of FAQs on Code of Ethics, 2026

The FAQs on Code of Ethics, 2026 to provide practical guidance on the revised Code of Ethics. This compilation has been prepared in line with the revised Code and the decisions of the Council and ESB. It will help members understand the revised Code and uphold the highest standards of professional ethics.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/93879esb-aps6117.pdf

2. Best Practices for Investor Presentation

An ICAI publication offering comprehensive guidance and practical insights. It is intended to strengthen professional knowledge and serve as a reliable reference for Chartered Accountants, students, and other stakeholders.

https://publication.icai.org/publications?committee=Financial+Markets+and+Investors%27+Awareness+Committee

3. Corporate Restructuring Beyond IBC: Emerging Issues and Recommendations by IB and VSB, ICAI and CLC, ICAI.

This publication examines the evolving landscape of corporate restructuring beyond the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, addressing emerging legal, regulatory and commercial issues. It presents a comprehensive analysis of alternative restructuring mechanisms, identifies key challenges, and offers recommendations to strengthen India’s restructuring framework.

https://publication.icai.org/publications?committee=Corporate+Laws+Committee

III. ICAI ANNOUNCEMENTS

1. NEW ICAI Course

1st Batch of Online Certificate Course on Overseas Outsourcing Services – Canada

Duration: 14 September 2026 to 26 October 2026

Registration Last Date: 10 September 2026.

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/93816gtsc-aps6108-canada.pdf

2. Inviting Expression of interest to act as Canada faculty for Proposed Certificate course on Overseas Outsourcing Services.

https://www.icai.org/post/gtsc-eoi-canada-12082026

3. India-USA Trade Facilitation Portal

Unlock Global Trade Opportunities with the INDIA USA TRADE Facilitation Portal.

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), through the Consulate General of India in New York, has authorized the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) to verify members on the India-USA Trade Facilitation Portal.

Objective: To connect verified Indian businesses with U.S. buyers, enabling secure and seamless cross-border trade.

BENEFITS OF REGISTRATION:

  • Access to verified B2B opportunities in the U.S. market
  • Enhanced credibility via ICAI verification
  • Networking with authenticated exporters, importers, and global stakeholders
  • Building trusted business relationships on a secure platform
  • Expanding international business networks confidently

Key Features:

  • ICAI-verified member authentication
  • Verified exporters and importers
  • Secure, transparent business platform
  • Trusted B2B networking and seamless trade facilitation

Registration link https://indiausatrade.mea.gov.in/login?redirect=%2Fadmin%2Fmanage-user

ICAI Announcement Link https://resource.cdn.icai.org/93380gtsc-aps5893.pdf

IV. Audit Tools

Tool For Audit Opinion Formation

https://forms.gle/CkgDyNiGih9PTxvq8

V. GIST of ICAI Opinion

1. Classification of Corporate Liquid Term Deposits (CLTDs)/Flexi Deposits in Financial Statements under Ind AS

A. Facts of the Case

The Company has centralised treasury operations and invests its funds in various instruments, including Corporate Liquid Term Deposits (CLTDs), fixed deposits and mutual funds. Funds are transferred from current accounts to CLTDs through sweep facilities and can be withdrawn prematurely when required. However, premature withdrawal results in a lower applicable interest rate and, in some cases, an additional penalty, resulting in a significant change in the amount realisable.

The Company classified deposits having original maturity of less than three months as cash and cash equivalents, those having original maturity of more than three months but less than twelve months as bank balances other than cash and cash equivalents, and deposits with maturity beyond twelve months as other non-current financial assets. It also classified 91-day deposits as cash equivalents.

C&AG’s observation: C&AG observed that the CLTD/Flexi Deposits were highly liquid and could be withdrawn whenever required without significant restriction and, therefore, should have been classified as cash and cash equivalents.

The Company submitted that the deposits were made based on projected fund requirements and were intended to meet requirements beyond three months. It also pointed out that premature withdrawal resulted in a reduced rate of interest and consequently a significant change in the amount realisable.

B. Query

The Company sought the Committee’s opinion on the following:

1. Whether the classification adopted by the Company in respect of Corporate Liquid Term Deposits (CLTDs)/Flexi Deposits was correct.

2. If not, what should be the appropriate classification of:

(i) CLTDs/Flexi Deposits having original maturity of less than three months;

(ii) CLTDs/Flexi Deposits having original maturity of more than three months and less than twelve months; and

(iii) CLTDs/Flexi Deposits having a remaining maturity of more than twelve months.

3. Whether CLTDs/Flexi Deposits are required to be presented separately from term deposits and, if so, what disclosures should be made.

4. Whether CLTDs/FDs having a maturity period of 91 days should be classified as Cash and Cash Equivalents.

C. Points considered by the Committee

The Committee considered the requirements of Ind AS 7 relating to cash equivalents. An investment qualifies as a cash equivalent when it is short-term and highly liquid, readily convertible into known amounts of cash, subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value, and held for meeting short-term cash commitments rather than for investment purposes.

The Committee observed that the assessment of whether an investment is held for meeting short-term commitments involves judgement and requires consideration of management intention, past practice, investment policy and actual utilisation.

It further noted that the risk of change in value arising from premature withdrawal and the consequent uncertainty in the amount realisable meant that deposits with an original maturity exceeding three months did not satisfy all the criteria for classification as cash equivalents.

D. Opinion

CLTDs/Flexi Deposits having original maturity of more than three months but less than twelve months cannot be classified as cash equivalents in the facts considered. Where they are expected to be realised within twelve months after the reporting date, they should be classified as bank balances other than cash and cash equivalents.

Deposits having maturity beyond twelve months should be classified as other financial assets under non-current assets. Importantly, the three-month period is assessed from the date of acquisition and not by reference to the remaining maturity at the reporting date.

CLTDs/Flexi Deposits having original maturity of up to three months, which satisfy all the criteria for classification as cash equivalents, can be so classified. Accordingly, the 91-day deposits, in the facts considered by the Committee, were classified as cash equivalents.

2. Consolidation of Financial Statements of an Associate Company which is a Section 8 Company under Ind AS

A. Facts of the Case

A Defence Public Sector Undertaking invested in AMF, Foundation, established under the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme. The Company holds 20% shareholding in AMF, which is incorporated as a Section 8 company. The Company has no other subsidiary, associate or joint venture and had accounted for its investment in AMF using the equity method under Ind AS 28.

Statutory auditor’s qualification: The statutory auditor qualified the accounts on the ground that, under Section 8 of the Companies Act, profits cannot be distributed directly or indirectly among members/shareholders. Consequently, according to the auditor, the Company’s profit and investment in the associate were overstated by the Company’s share of AMF’s profit recognised under the equity method.

The Company therefore sought clarification on whether CFS was required when the only associate was a Section 8 company and whether merely disclosing the investment in the standalone financial statements would be sufficient.

B. Query

Whether an investment in a Section 8 company, qualifying as an associate under Ind AS 28, is required to be accounted for using the equity method.

Further, whether CFS is mandatory where the Company has no subsidiary or other associate, and whether the prohibition on distribution of profits by a Section 8 company affects the requirement to apply the equity method.

C. Points considered by the Committee

The Committee observed that 20% shareholding by itself does not conclusively establish significant influence; the requirements of Ind AS 28 must be considered. However, since neither the Company nor the auditor had raised the issue of significant influence, the Committee proceeded on the premise that AMF was an associate.

Under Section 129(3) of the Companies Act, a company having an associate is required to prepare CFS unless an applicable exemption is available. There is no specific exemption merely because the associate is a Section 8 or not-for-profit company.

The Committee further noted that, for associates and joint ventures, consolidation involves application of the equity method under Ind AS 28.

The prohibition on distribution of profits by a Section 8 company does not, by itself, prevent the existence of significant influence. However, restrictions on transfer of funds from the investee should be considered when assessing significant influence.

D. Opinion

If the Company has significant influence over AMF, it should account for AMF using the equity method under Ind AS 28 and prepare CFS. If, after assessment, significant influence does not exist, AMF would not be an associate and the question of consolidation would not arise.

The share of surplus from AMF should be presented in a manner that clearly communicates to users that the surplus of the Section 8 company is not distributable as dividend. The Company should also make appropriate disclosures regarding the nature of its relationship with AMF and restrictions on the transfer of funds under Ind AS 112.

3. Accounting Treatment of Grants under AS 12 – Accounting for Government Grants

A. Facts of the Case

The Company is a Section 8 company under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), Government of India, with 100% equity shareholding by the Government of India. It was established for capacity building of government officials under Mission Karmayogi and is responsible for owning, maintaining and improving the iGOT digital/e-learning platform.

The Company receives various grants from DoPT, including Grant-in-Aid (Salaries), Grant-in-Aid for creation of capital assets, Grant-in-Aid (General) and Grant-in-Aid comprising World Bank funds. The World Bank funding is routed through DoPT, with repayment and servicing obligations resting with the Government.

The Company owns and controls the digital asset and is entitled to the future economic benefits arising from it. It accounts for expenditure on the development of the platform as CWIP and subsequently capitalises it as intangible assets, which are amortised over four years.

B. Query

What should be the accounting treatment for grants received as GIA (World Bank funds) and GIA (General) in relation to CWIP and intangible assets created from such funds?

Whether grant income should be recognised in line with depreciation/amortisation of the related intangible assets and, if so, whether the change should have prospective or retrospective effect.

C. Points considered by the Committee

The Committee considered whether the Government was providing the funds in its capacity as shareholder or as a provider of government grants. Although the Government was the 100% shareholder, the Company had clarified that the funds were received as Government Grants, and not as equity contribution. The sanction letters also described the amounts as grants/grant-in-aid rather than equity contribution.

The Committee therefore concluded that AS 12 was applicable.

It then considered the purpose of the funding. The grants were intended to support the Company’s initial capital and working-capital outlay, including the development and operating expenditure of the iGOT platform until the subscription-based revenue model became operational. The grants were not subject to the primary condition of acquiring or constructing a specific fixed asset or meeting specific revenue expenditure.

D. Opinion

The Committee opined that the GIA (World Bank funds) and GIA (General) are in the nature of promoters’ contribution under AS 12.

Accordingly, these grants should be credited to Capital Reserve and should not be recognised as income in the Statement of Profit and Loss.

Since the Company had not followed the requirements of AS 12 in FY 2022-23 and FY 2023-24, the Committee considered the matter to be an error of prior periods, to be accounted for in accordance with AS 5 relating to prior-period items.

https://cajournal.icai.org/upload/issue/1785550517_6a6d56b56b909_311_Gist_of_Opinions.pdf

VI. ICAI DISCIPLINARY COMMITTEE

1. V.R. vs. CA. P.B.

File No.: PR/G/735/2022/DD/514/2023/DC/1896/2024

Date of Order: 05.02.2026 (Findings dated 22.12.2025)

Certification of Form 10 – modification of charge securing debentures without adequate verification.

Background

During inspection of M/s SAPL, it was observed that the Respondent had certified Form 10 (Particulars for Registration of Charges for Debenture) filed on 23.09.2011 for modification of a charge securing debentures of ₹10 crore. The Company had stated that property was mortgaged as security for the debentures. However, its audited balance sheet as at 31.03.2011 showed net fixed assets of only ₹91,41,570 and current assets of ₹8,98,303. The Form 10 placed on record did not contain the mortgage deed or valuation report. The complaint also alleged that the Form 10 had been signed by the debenture trustee, Shri GPG, although he had denied on oath having signed it.

Key Allegations

  • The Respondent certified Form 10 without verifying the security stated therein.
  • The Form 10 was certified without verifying the supporting mortgage deed and valuation report.
  • The Respondent allegedly failed to verify the authenticity of the Form 10 and the signature of the debenture trustee.
  • The security coverage was substantially inadequate in relation to the ₹10 crore debentures.

Respondent’s Defence

The Respondent did not file a Written Statement and did not furnish the additional documents sought by the Directorate. He also did not appear before the Committee despite repeated opportunities, including hearings on 10.07.2025, 24.07.2025, 20.08.2025, 22.09.2025 and 10.10.2025. Consequently, the Committee proceeded on the basis of the documents available on record.

Findings

The Committee noted that the audited financial statements showed net fixed assets of only ₹91.41 lakh against debentures of ₹10 crore, resulting in a shortfall of close to ₹9 crore in the coverage of the debentures. It further noted that the Form 10 did not contain the mortgage deed or valuation report. The Committee therefore concluded that the Respondent had not exercised due diligence before certifying the statutory Form 10. His failure to respond to the disciplinary proceedings and to provide the documents sought also weighed against him.

Charges Established

Guilty of professional misconduct under Item (7) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 — failure to exercise due diligence or gross negligence in the conduct of professional duties.

Punishment

Reprimand and a fine of ₹4,00,000, payable within 60 days of receipt of the order.

2. A.K.S. vs. CA. A.K.P.

File No.: PR/G/413/2019-DD/68/2020/DC/1929/2024

Date of Order: 05.02.2026 (Findings dated 22.12.2025)

Failure to give adequate reasons for adverse audit opinions and contradictory reporting in the audit report for different financial years.

Background

The Respondent was the statutory auditor of M/s OMSL for FYs 2008-09, 2009-10, 2010-11 and 2011-12. The ROC alleged that the audit reports were general in nature and, although adverse opinions had been expressed, the reports did not specify the reasons supporting those opinions.

For FYs 2008-09, 2009-10 and 2010-11, the Respondent reported, among other matters, that the Company had not maintained proper books of account, the financial statements did not agree with the books, the Accounting Standards had not been complied with, and the financial statements did not give a true and fair view. However, the audit reports themselves did not set out the substantive reasons for these adverse conclusions.

For FY 2011-12, the problem was more serious. The audit report stated that the Company had maintained proper books, that the financial statements were in agreement with the books and complied with Accounting Standards, but simultaneously stated that the accounts did not give the information required by the Companies Act and did not give a true and fair view.

Respondent’s Defence

The Respondent contended that the absence of proper books and records was itself the substantive reason for the adverse reporting. He also submitted that the Company had several accounting deficiencies, including non-maintenance of books under Section 209, non-adherence to the accrual system, improper classification of investments, non-recognition of losses, absence of significant accounting policies and non-compliance with Schedule VI.

Regarding FY 2011-12, he explained the contradictory wording as an unintentional typographical error, stating that the report should have said that the financial statements did not give a true and fair view. He also raised a grievance that relevant portions of the ROC investigation report had not been furnished to him.

Decision of the Committee

The Committee rejected the Respondent’s defence.

It held that where an auditor expresses an opinion other than an unqualified opinion, the substantive reasons for such opinion must be clearly stated in the audit report itself. The Committee relied upon Section 227(4) read with Section 227(3) of the Companies Act, 1956 and AAS-28, which specifically required the reasons for an adverse or modified opinion to be disclosed.

The Committee did not accept the argument that the Respondent’s subsequent explanations given during the disciplinary proceedings could cure the omission in the audit reports. The reasons supporting the adverse opinion were required to form part of the audit report.

More importantly, the Committee rejected the explanation of typographical error for FY 2011-12. It noted that the contradiction was not an isolated drafting error. The report simultaneously stated that the Company had maintained proper books, that the financial statements agreed with those books and complied with Accounting Standards, while also stating that the financial statements did not provide the information required by the Companies Act and did not give a true and fair view. The Committee considered this contradiction, together with the deficiencies in the earlier years’ reporting, to constitute gross negligence and lack of due diligence.

Accordingly, the Committee held the Respondent guilty of professional misconduct under Item (7) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, i.e. failure to exercise due diligence or gross negligence in the conduct of professional duties.

Punishment

The Committee ordered that the Respondent be reprimanded and pay a fine of ₹1,50,000, within 60 days of receipt of the order.

3. Shri MM, CFO of APL. v. CA. SKR

Reference: PR/252/2018/DD/262/2018/DC/1930/2024

Order: 5 February 2026

Provision: Item (7), Part I, Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 – failure to exercise due diligence / gross negligence.

FACTS

The Respondent was the statutory auditor of HC for FY 2016-17. The Company was under a Government-approved closure scheme and had negotiated an OTS with its creditors, including MSME creditors. Some MSME creditors, including Avi Polymers, did not accept the OTS.

Despite approximately ₹32.79 crore of MSME interest being outstanding in the previous year, the FY 2016-17 financial statements showed nil interest payable. The Company wrote back ₹32.79 crore of accrued MSME interest under the OTS. However, certain MSME creditors had not accepted the OTS, and their interest remained unpaid.

Auditor’s Defence

The auditor argued that:

  •  The OTS had been approved and supported by Board minutes;
  •  Management had given a detailed representation explaining the write-back;
  •  He was entitled to rely on management representations and the information available during the audit;
  •  The subsequent arbitration award could not retrospectively create an audit obligation; and
  •  There was no mala fide intention or deliberate negligence.

COMMITTEE’S FINDING

The Committee rejected the defence.

Its central finding was that Sections 16 and 22 of the MSMED Act, 2006 are mandatory. Interest on overdue MSME dues was required to be provided for, and the unpaid principal and interest were required to be separately disclosed in the financial statements.

The Committee considered it significant that:

  1.  Some MSME creditors had not agreed to the OTS;
  2.  Their interest liability therefore remained outstanding;
  3.  The Company’s Board itself subsequently resolved that interest payable to MSME units would be paid as arrived at after negotiation; and
  4.  The auditor nevertheless did not qualify his audit report for the non-provisioning and non-disclosure.

The Committee also noted that the auditor acknowledged the issue in the following year’s audit report, stating that some MSME creditors had not agreed to the OTS and that the Company had not provided for their interest.

Accordingly, the Committee held that reliance on the OTS negotiations, management representation or subsequent adjudication did not absolve the auditor of his responsibility to report the statutory non-compliance existing at the balance-sheet date.

Decision

The Respondent was held guilty of professional misconduct under Item (7) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

Punishment

Reprimand and a fine of ₹5 lakh, payable within 60 days of receipt of the order.

Recent Decisions In GST

I SUPREME COURT

45. [2026] 189 taxmann.com 330 (SC)

Goodluck India Ltd. vs. Union of India dated.06.08.2026

In absence of any ‘saving clause’, the omission of Rule 96(10) w.e.f. 08-10-2024 shall apply to all pending matters in the case of refund of IGST paid on exported goods and services

FACTS

Rule 96(10) of the CGST Rules, 2017 restricted refund of IGST paid on exports in specified circumstances. By Notification No. 20/2024-Central Tax dated 08.10.2024, Rule 96(10) was omitted. Although the GST Council had recommended that the omission should operate prospectively, the Notification contained no saving clause for pending proceedings. The High Court held that the omission would apply to all proceedings pending as on 08.10.2024. The Department challenged this view before the Supreme Court, contending that the omission should operate prospectively, while the assessee claimed that the omission entitled them to claim refund without the restrictions imposed by the erstwhile Rule 96(10).

HELD

The Supreme Court dismissed the appeals and affirmed the High Court’s judgment. Relying on the Constitution Bench decision in Kolhapur Cane Sugar Works Ltd. vs. Union of India, the Court held that, in absence of a saving clause or any statutory mechanism preserving proceedings under an omitted rule, pending proceedings cannot continue under the omitted provision. The Court noted that Rule 96(10) was omitted as it was causing unnecessary complications without any intended benefit, and that the GST Council’s recommendation for prospective operation was advisory and not binding on the rule-making authority. Accordingly, the omission of Rule 96(10), effective from 08.10.2024, applies to pending proceedings as well, enabling refund claims to be considered without the restrictions contained in the omitted provisions. The Court further held that the intention to omit the rule without any saving clause was to bring to end unnecessary complications once and for all and the intention cannot be to keep the complications live for pending proceedings.

[Note: Gujarat High Court in the case of Addwrap Packaging Pvt. Ltd. 2025-TIOL-960-HC-AHM-GST had held that since Rule 96(10) was omitted without a saving or a sunset clause, the pending matters will stand closed].

II HIGH COURT

46. [2026] 189 taxmann.com 403 (Patna) Azad Enterprises vs. State of Bihar dated 06.08.2026.

The Adjudicating Officer has no authority to determine tax liability under section 73(9) prior to expiry of due date of filing of annual return and hence adjudication order passed prior to the said due date is liable to be set aside.

FACTS

The petitioner regularly filed monthly and quarterly GST returns. The due date for filing the annual return for F.Y. 2022-23 under section 44 was 31.12.2023. However, the Adjudicating Authority passed an assessment order under section 73(9) determining tax liability on 25.11.2023 i.e. before the expiry of the said due date. The petitioner subsequently filed its annual return on 20.01.2024. The petitioner challenged the assessment order as well as a consequential bank attachment notice.

HELD

Since the due date for filing the annual return for F.Y. 2022-23 was 31.12.2023, the Proper Officer had no authority to determine tax liability under section 73(9) prior to expiry of that due date. The impugned order dated 25.11.2023 was accordingly set aside, and the matter was remanded for fresh proceedings.

47. [2026] 189 taxmann.com 463 (Delhi)

Kanwal Chaudhary vs. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India dated 13.08.2026.

Advocates enrolled with the Bar Council, who act as Insolvency Professionals under the IBC, shall be governed by the “forward charge mechanism” and shall be liable to obtain GST registration.

FACTS

The petitioner, an Advocate, registered as an Insolvency Professional (IP) was appointed IRP by NCLT Delhi for a corporate debtor. He raised invoices in 2019 for his professional fee but, when asked to issue GST-compliant invoices, he claimed exemption under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM) applicable to Advocates under Notifications 12/2017 and 13/2017. On NCLT’s reference, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) held that “insolvency and receivership services” are not covered under RCM and directed him to issue GST-compliant invoices which order was challenged in this writ petition. The Bar Council of India (BCI) was also a party to the petition, which submitted that when an Advocate is appointed as an Insolvency Professional, under IBC, the nature of services rendered are different from conventional legal services. On behalf of the IBBI, it was pointed out that the total number of Advocates registered as IPs is approximately 273, whereas the total number of registered Insolvency Professionals is 4,558.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court examined section 22 of the CGST Act, Notification No.12/2017 Central Tax (Rate), dealing with exemptions and Notification No.13/2017-Central Tax (Rate), dealing with notified services for attracting liability under the reverse charge mechanism, including a corrigendum thereto issued on 25.09.2017. The Hon’ble Court also examined the statutory framework under the IBC and the IBBI regulations. The Hon’ble Court held that IPs constitute a distinct class, governed exclusively by the IBC and the IBBI Regulations. The fact that such persons possess other qualifications or registrations, would not make them distinct or different from the class as a whole. The Insolvency Professionals as a class, are a singular, and distinct class by themselves. Referring to the scheme of classification of services under the GST, the Hon’ble Court observed that the broad head 982 – “Legal and Accounting Services” – is itself sub-divided into four distinct and mutually exclusive service codes. Legal services under 99821 are exhaustively enumerated in heads 998211 through 998219, the last of which is 998219 – “Other legal services n.e.c.”, and that is the residuary entry, meant to capture any legal service not falling within the preceding specific codes. Insolvency and receivership services, however, do not fall within this residuary entry, or anywhere within the 99821 sub-head at all. They are instead classified under an independent specific subhead, 99824, co-ordinate with and not subordinate to 99821. The Hon’ble Court therefore held that the scheme of classification itself demonstrates that “insolvency and receivership services” are treated as a distinct category of service, separate from “legal services” and hence the nature of the service rendered by an Insolvency Professional is not, for the purposes of GST, to be equated with or subsumed within “legal service” merely because the person rendering it happens to be enrolled as an Advocate. It held that the specific entry prevails over the general one.

Applying the aforesaid principle, the Hon’ble Court held that when an advocate renders services as an Insolvency Professional, the role in which he acts is that of an Insolvency Professional, and not that of an Advocate. It is this role – that of a provider of “insolvency and receivership” services – that is determinative of the nature of services rendered for the purpose of classification, and NOT the underlying professional qualification or the registration of the individual concerned. Accordingly, it held that the Advocates enrolled with the Bar Council, who act as Insolvency Professionals under the IBC, shall be governed by the “forward charge mechanism” and shall be liable to obtain GST registration.

48. (2025) 35 Centax 152 (All.)

M/s. Safecon Lifescience Pvt. Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner Grade 2 dated 09.09.2025.

Section 74 cannot be invoked to deny ITC merely based on irregularities attributable to suppliers at an earlier stage of the supply chain, where the petitioner has duly established the genuineness of the transaction and actual movement of goods

FACTS

The Petitioner was engaged in the business of trading and manufacturing of pharmaceuticals. The Adjudicating Authority received information that the supplier’s registration was cancelled due to irregularities in its own procurements and non-payment of tax. Accordingly, an SCN was issued invoking section 74 of CGST Act on the petitioner alleging that it has availed ITC pertaining to purchases from the above supplier. The Petitioner had submitted genuineness of the transaction through valid invoices, e-way bills, returns and banking payments which was totally ignored by the Adjudicating Authority. The Petitioner preferred an appeal and the Appellate Authority passed order on the basis of information without considering the submissions of the petitioner. The Petitioner therefore preferred a writ challenging the order before the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that once the Petitioner had established the actual movement of goods, and all the conditions for availing ITC such as issuance of valid invoices, payment of tax etc. have been fulfilled, proceedings under section 74 cannot be invoked on the basis of any information when the essential ingredients of fraud, wilful misstatement or suppression undertaken with an intent to evade tax were absent. Accordingly, the High Court allowed
the petition and quashed the proceedings under section 74.

[Note: In the case of Additional Commissioner, Grade 2 vs. M/s Safecon Lifescience Private Limited, where Additional Commissioner filed a Special Leave Petition No. 23993/2026 dated 17.07.2026 before Supreme Court of India, the Apex Court did not find any grounds to admit the petition and hence dismissed the petition.]

49. (2026) 44 Centax 121 (Gau.)

Debabrata Bhowmick vs. Union of India dated 24.06.2026.

Time spent in pursuing rectification of Order-In-Original would be excluded from computation of the limitation period for filing an appeal.

Appeal filed belatedly cannot be rejected without providing an opportunity of being heard even if separate application for condonation of delay was not made.

FACTS

The Petitioner was engaged in the business of medicines. The Adjudicating Authority issued an SCN to the Petitioner under section 73 alleging excess ITC claimed in F.Y. 2020-21 and subsequently, passed an Order-In-Original confirming the demand on 03.01.2025. Aggrieved by the said Order-In-Original, the Petitioner sought rectification of the order on 08.03.2025 which was rejected on 24.04.2025, and accordingly, filed an appeal against the Order-In-Original on 23.05.2025. However, the Appellate Authority passed an Order-In-Appeal refusing to admit the appeal stating the appeal was time barred. Being aggrieved, the Petitioner preferred writ petition before this Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the period spent pursuing rectification i.e. from the date of rectification application (08.03.2025) to the date of passing rectified order (24.04.2025) under section 161 would be excluded while computing the limitation period for filing an appeal under section 107. Moreover, it also held that it is the obligation of the Appellate Authority to provide the Petitioner an opportunity of being heard before dismissing the appeal in cases where appeal was filed belatedly, even if an application for condonation of delay is not filed. Accordingly, the petition was decided in favour of the Petitioner.

III GST APPELLATE TRIBUNAL (GSTAT)

50. (2026) 45 Centax 50 (Tel.)

Reddy Veeranna Constructions Pvt. Ltd. vs. Appeal – I Commissioner dated 28.07.2026

Introduction of mandatory pre-deposit for Orders involving only Penalty under section 112 could not be retrospectively applied where SCN, Adjudicating Order and Appellate Order were issued prior to 01.10.2025.

FACTS

The Adjudicating Authority issued an SCN dated 29.09.2022 alleging fake invoicing without actual supply by Appellant and imposed penalties which were eventually confirmed in the Order-In-Original on 28.08.2023. Further, the Appellate Authority had passed an Order-In-Appeal rejecting the appeal on 12.01.2024. Being aggrieved by Order-In-Appeal, the Appellant filed an appeal before the GSTAT without making 10% pre-deposit of penalty as per the proviso to section 112(8) which came into force only from 01.10.2025. The issue arose before the GSTAT was whether the appeal would be admitted without making the mandatory pre-deposit.

HELD

The Hon’ble Telangana Bench of the Tribunal held that the proviso to section 112(8) requiring pre-deposit in penalty-only appeals was amended prospectively from 01.10.2025 and it would not be applicable to any SCN, Order-In-Original and Order-In-Appeal issued prior to 01.10.2025.

[Note: Even where only SCN is issued prior to 01.10.2025 and Adjudicating Order is issued subsequently after 01.10.2025, still pre-deposit is not required for filing appeals against Orders involving penalty-only as per Delhi High Court in the case of Gaurav Jain vs. Joint Commissioner (Appeals-II) CGST, Delhi Zone. (2026) 45 Centax 75 (Del.) dated 31.07.2026)

51. [2026] 189 taxmann.com 502 (GSTAT – TRIVANDRUM)

M S Steels vs. Commissioner of Kerala State GST, Thiruvananthapuram dated 14.08.2026

Penalty under section 129(3) is not attracted when transportation of goods in the nature of internal stock transfer under same GSTN is done without issue of E-way bill as the transaction involves no supply, no consideration and consequently no tax liability.

FACTS

The Appellant was transporting steel goods under a delivery challan from one of its own premises to its own godown — a stock transfer under the same GSTIN — when the vehicle was intercepted for want of an e-way bill and detained under section 129(1) of the CGST/KGST Act; a penalty was imposed under section 129(3) with no tax demand raised, and was paid to secure release of the goods. The First Appellate Authority upheld the penalty, holding the absence of an e-way bill rendered the transaction “not genuine,” without recording independent findings of fraud or intent to evade tax. The Appellant filed the present Appeal contending that since the movement was a same-GSTIN stock transfer with no sale, consideration, or second party involved, it did not constitute a ‘supply’ under section 7 and hence no tax was ‘payable’, so penalty under section 129(1)(a) (computed with reference to tax payable) could not be sustained; alternatively, at most section 122(1)(xiv) (capped at Rs.20,000) should apply. The Revenue argued that section 129 is a self-contained, non-obstante machinery provision triggered by mere contravention of e-way bill requirements (Rule 138(1)(ii)) irrespective of whether a taxable supply occurred and that mens rea and tax liability are not preconditions for such penalty.

HELD

The Hon’ble GSTAT held that the penalty under section 129 of the CGST/KGST Act is leviable only in terms of the “tax payable” on the goods. In the present case, the transaction in question would not be a ‘supply’ as defined under section 7 of the CGST /KGST Act 2017. Once a determination has been made that tax on the goods is non est, it stands to reason that penalty under section 129(1) of the CGST/KGST Act (which is to be determined in terms of such tax payable), is not leviable. The Hon’ble GSTAT relied upon the decision in the case of Fabricship (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [2024] 164 taxmann.com 80/90 GSTL 302 (Bombay) in support of this view and the Order-in-Appeal was set aside, and the appeal was allowed with consequential relief.

52. [2026] 189 taxmann.com 503 (GSTAT – TRIVANDRUM)

Siddhi Vinayak Automobiles vs. Commissioner of Kerala State GST dated 14.08.2026

Penalty Order issued under section 129(3) of the CGST/SGST Act, 2017 shall be held valid only if it is issued within the prescribed time limit of 7 days from the date of serving of notice.

FACTS:

The Appellant, M/s. Siddhi Vinayak Automobiles, a dealer in automobiles and spare parts, transported goods under two valid Tax e-Invoices dated 16.4.2022. The vehicle was intercepted on 18.4.2022 for want of an e-way bill. Goods were detained and a notice in MOV-07 was issued the same day; a penalty (100% of GST) was imposed under section 129(1) and goods were released on 20.4.2022 on furnishing Bond and Bank Guarantee. However, the confirmation order in MOV-09 under section 129(3) was passed only on 4.6.2022 — 47 days after the notice — well beyond the mandatory 7-day period prescribed under section 129(3). The First Appellate Authority upheld the penalty, holding the transaction “not genuine” solely for want of an e-way bill, without addressing the limitation issue. The Appellant contended before the Tribunal that the order was time-barred and void, while the Revenue argued that this ground was raised for the first time in second appeal and could not now be entertained.

HELD

The Hon’ble GSTAT held that the seven-day period under section 129(3) is mandatory, as the provision uses ‘shall’ and relates to coercive action. Since MOV-09 was issued after 47 days, it was illegal and without jurisdiction. Mere non-generation of an e-way bill, without any intention to evade tax, did not warrant penalty. The appeal was allowed and the penalty order set aside, with consequential relief including release of the Bank Guarantee.

Recent Developments in GST

A. CIRCULARS

(i) Clarification regarding filing of appeal by the Department before GSTAT Circular no.256/02/2026-GST dated 25.07.2026

By the above circular, clarification has been provided regarding the procedure for filing departmental appeals before the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) against orders passed by the appellate authority.

B. OFFICE ORDER

i) The GSTAT President has issued office order bearing no.4/GSTAT/PB/2026 dated 29.07.2026, by which some Benches have been reconstituted and the classification of categories of cases have been revised.

C. GSTN

(a) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 29.07.2026 informing about keeping the proposed e-Way Bill enhancements on hold.

D. INSTRUCTIONS

(i) The CBIC has issued instruction No.1/2026-GST dated 03.08.2026, by which instruction regarding coordination with State Mining Authorities for sharing information relating to illegal mining and transportation of minerals have been issued.

E. ADVANCE RULINGS

26. Indian Wire Products Company (AAAR Order No. 02/WBAAAR/APPEAL/2026 dt.10.7.2026)(WB)

Supply of Hookah in a restaurant is a separate supply. It cannot be considered as ‘Restaurant Supply’. Parliament has not declared every supply made in a restaurant to be a restaurant service.

This appeal was filed by appellant against the Ruling passed by the WBAAR vide Advance Ruling Order No. 33/WBAAR/2025-26 dated 27.02.2026.

The appellant runs a restaurant under the name of “Pappu Chaiwala”. In the course of operating the said restaurant, the appellant also proposes to serve hookah, whether herbal or tobacco based, to customers within the restaurant premises as part of the overall dining experience. In this background, the appellant filed an application before WBAAR, seeking an advance ruling on the following questions:

“i. Whether or not serving of non-tobacco hookah / tobacco-based hookah in the restaurant along with food will be termed as supply of goods or services within the ambit of Clause 6(b) of Schedule II to the CGST Act?

ii. If yes, what will be the rate of tax applicable on herbal (non-tobacco-based) flavours and tobacco-based flavours?”

Before AAR, appellant made his submission to justify that such tobacco hookah service is part of restaurant service and hence covered by clause 6(b) of Schedule II i.e. restaurant service.

The ld. AAR held that the supply of food and the supply of tobacco based / non-tobacco-based hookah constitute two separate composite supplies. While the supply of food was held to be a supply of service falling within Clause 6(b) of Schedule II and liable to GST at 5%, the supply of hookah was held to be a composite supply of goods, the principal supply being the tobacco or non-tobacco products used for smoking. Accordingly, tobacco-based hookah was held taxable at 40% under Heading 2403, together with other applicable levies, whereas non-tobacco-based hookah was held taxable at 18% under the relevant rate notification.

In appeal, the appellant tried to convey that the AAR has erred in reaching to above conclusion. The Revenue supported the order of the AAR.

The ld. AAAR observed that the principal contention of the appellant is that the activity of preparing and serving tobacco-based as well as non-tobacco based hookah within a restaurant forms an integral and naturally bundled component of restaurant service and, therefore, constitutes a composite supply falling within the ambit of Clause 6(b) of Schedule II to the CGST Act, with restaurant service being the principal supply liable to tax at the rate applicable thereto.

The ld. AAAR observed that the controversy before them arises under paragraph 6(b) of Schedule II read with the definition of ‘restaurant service’ as appended to the Notification No.11/2017 Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

The ld. AAAR observed that the conjoint reading of paragraph 6(b) of Schedule II and the definition of ‘restaurant service’ shows that Parliament has not declared every supply made in a restaurant to be a restaurant service.

The ld. AAAR held that rate notification cannot be viewed in isolation from paragraph 6(b) of Schedule II, nor can it enlarge the statutory scope of restaurant service beyond what Parliament has enacted. In view of above, the distinction made by AAR was approved by ld. AAAR and, accordingly, the ld. AAAR disagreed with the appellant and confirmed the order of the AAR.

27. Karam Chand Thapar & Bros (Coal Sales) Ltd. (AAAR Order No. 04/WBAAAR/APPEAL/2026-27 dt.15.7.2026)(WB)

Advance Ruling – Scope

This appeal has been filed by appellant against the ruling passed by the WBAAR vide order no.31/WBAAR/2025-26 dated 13.02.2026.

The background facts are as under:

“2. The appellant entered into three agreements with THDC India Ltd (formerly known as Tehri Hydro Development Corporation Limited) in the year 1996 for execution of work for the construction of Hydro Power Plants which was completed in the year 2007/08 and the final payment was received by the applicant in the year 2011. During the execution of the work, dispute arose over the extra expenses incurred by the applicant for the project which led to several litigations. Accordingly, the Arbitral Tribunal was constituted by Supreme Court and Delhi High Court for deciding all the disputes between the parties pertaining to all the three packages. Finally, in the year 2023, Awards were passed in favour of the applicant which allowed private quarry costs, costs incurred on excavation method change, cost involved in use of higher grade of cement, cost involved in relocation of infrastructure, etc incurred by the applicant. Conciliation Proceedings commenced between THDC India Ltd and the Applicant in June 2024. Accordingly, the payment is received by the applicant as per the Settlement Agreement in October 2024.”

In light of above facts, the appellant sought to get determined as to whether the claim allowed by the Arbitral Tribunal vide the arbitration awards could be termed as supply or not, or whether they constituted liquidated damages etc.

The ld. AAR answered the questions raised for ruling on merits.

During the course of the hearing, the ld. AAAR questioned the maintainability of the advance ruling application itself and observed that although the application had been filed seeking a ruling on a question falling within the scope of Section 97(2)(e) and/or (g) of the CGST Act, 2017, the maintainability of the application would require examination in light of the provisions of Section 95(a) of the CGST Act, 2017, which defines the expression “advance ruling” as a decision provided in relation to the supply of goods or services or both being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant. The ld. AAAR accordingly called upon the appellant to address the issue of maintainability of the application with reference to the aforesaid statutory provisions.

The appellant tried to justify the deciding of issues by the AAR, based on language of Section 95(a) of the CGST Act.

The appellant also challenged the authority of the AAAR to travel beyond the issues decided by the AAR under appeal.

The ld. AAAR observed as under:

19. Section 95(a) of the CGST Act defines an “advance ruling” as a decision provided by the Authority in relation to a supply of goods or services or both being undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by the applicant. The language employed by the Legislature is clear and significant. The jurisdiction of the Authority is thus intrinsically linked with transactions which are prospective or ongoing. Section 97 of the CGST Act specifies the categories of questions on which a ruling may be sought; however, the said provision merely identifies the subject matter of the questions and does not enlarge the jurisdictional requirement embodied in Section 95(a). Consequently, reliance placed by the applicant on Section 97(2)(g) of the CGST Act cannot obviate the necessity of satisfying the jurisdictional condition prescribed under Section 95(a) of the CGST Act.”

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR observed that the AAR can decide transactions which are on going or to be undertaken but cannot extend to completed transaction, as such function lies with the adjudicating authority and not with the AAR.

Regarding objection of appellant about the jurisdiction of the AAAR to raise the issue of maintainability of the AR itself, the ld. AAAR relied upon judgment in case of National Thermal Power Co. Ltd. vs. CIT [(1998) 229 ITR 383 – 1996-VIL-06-SC-DT], in which the Hon. Supreme Court has observed that “…Under Section 254 of the Income-tax Act, the Appellate Tribunal may, after giving both the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit. The power of the Tribunal in dealing with appeals is thus expressed in the widest possible terms.” [emphasis added].

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR held that there is jurisdiction to raise an issue even though it was not subject matter of original proceeding.

Regarding merits of maintainability of the AR, the ld. AAAR revoked the AR given by AAR on the ground that it ought not to have ben entertained. The ld. AAAR also made clear that it has not opined upon the merits of the claims.

28. Chemizone Pvt. Ltd. (AAR Order No. 03/2026-27 in Appl.No.01/2026-27 dt.29.7.2026)(Uttarakhand)

ITC is not eligible on GST paid on upfront Lease Amount

The facts narrated by applicant are that it intended to secure a plot of land on long term lease from Eldeco Sidcul Industrial Park Limited (ESIPL) at Sitargunj;

For this lease, they will be paying an upfront lease amount to M/s ESIPL; M/s ESIPL will be charging GST at appropriate rate on the said upfront Payment, and the applicant intends to construct its factory on this leased land and use it for its manufacturing activities.

With above facts, the applicant has sought advance ruling as to;

“1. Whether they can claim refund/claim ITC of GST paid/payable on the upfront payment of lease amount to Eldeco Sidcul Industrial Park Limited?”

The ld. AAR, after examining scheme of section 97(2) observed that seeking a ruling on the issue of refund of ITC of tax paid by an applicant is not within the purview of Section 97(2) of the Act and, therefore, the Authority has no jurisdiction to pronounce a ruling thereon.

However, the ld. AAR entertained the issue of admissibility of ITC on the tax paid on the upfront payment for securing the lease of an industrial plot.

In this respect, the ld. AAR referred to section 17(5)(d) and reproduced the same in AR.

The ld. AAR also made reference to rulings of other coordinate authorities and appeal orders passed by the ld. AAAR.

The ld. AAR observed as under:

8. We find that in the present case too, as in the case of M/s Agratas Energy Storage Solutions Pvt. Ltd., the applicant intends to construct his factory building on the land secured on long term lease from M/s ESIPL. In the light of the provisions of Section 17(5)(d) of the CGST Act we are of the opinion that the ITC is blocked in respect of goods and services used in construction of immovable property, except plant and machinery. The Explanation appended to Section 17 clearly excludes land, building or any other civil structure from the purview of “Plant and Machinery”. Thus, the intended use of the land is not the construction of any plant and machinery. Therefore, we are of the opinion that the applicant would not be eligible for availing ITC of GST charged by M/s ESIPL on upfront payment of lease amount.”

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that ITC is not eligible on GST paid on the upfront lease amount.

29. S. K. Swamy & Co. (AAR Order No. KAR.ADRG/42/2026 dt.29.7.2026)(Kar)

Classification – Once supply of goods is completed, subsequent supply of services on the same goods is liable to tax separately.

The applicant is engaged in executing works contracts for Indian Railways, such as construction of Rail under bridge, construction of tunnels and supplying and stacking of ballast, earthwork, and also subcontracting of all the above-mentioned works.

The applicant has following question:

“i. What is the output GST rate for loading of ballast which is stacked adjacent to the railway tracks into the railway wagons which is stationed on the railway track by using JCB loader (Machinery)?”

The ld. AAR observed that the issue for determination is whether the activity of loading ballast, stacked adjacent to the railway track, into railway wagons/hoppers placed on the track through deployment of a JCB loader (machinery), where the same contract also includes supply of ballast, is liable to be treated as an independent supply of service, or a composite supply with supply of ballast as the principal supply, or a works contract service under the provisions of the CGST Act, 2017.

The ld. AAR observed that the scope of work primarily comprises the supply of ballast and the loading of such ballast into railway wagons stationed on the railway track through deployment of a JCB loader. It does not involve any activity in the nature of building, construction, fabrication, erection, installation, fitting out, improvement, modification, repair, maintenance, renovation, alteration or commissioning in relation to any immovable property. Therefore, it is not a works contract.

The ld. AAR also examined the possibility of composite supply under Section 2(30) of the CGST Act, 2017, for which the following essential conditions must be satisfied:

“(i) There must be two or more taxable supplies;

(ii) Such supplies must be naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business; and

(iii) One of the supplies must constitute the principal supply.”

The ld. AAR observed that the letter of Acceptance (LoA) separately specifies the quantities and corresponding rates for each item of work to be executed by the applicant, which are as follows:

(a) Supply of ballast at Railway depot or nominated location; and

(b) Loading of Railway’s ballast collected at yard/depot into Railway wagons using a Mechanical Loader or any other method with all lead and lifts, as directed by the Engineer in Charge.

The ld. AAR observed that the applicant first supplies the ballast to the Railways at the designated location and raises a tax invoice for such supply. Upon delivery and unloading at the designated location, the ownership of the ballast is transferred to the Railways. Thereafter, the applicant is neither responsible for the custody of the ballast, nor liable for any loss, damage, or theft thereof.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that each activity is executed separately, is supported by separate consideration, and is invoiced independently. The supply of ballast is complete upon its delivery at the designated location and is not dependent upon the subsequent loading activity. Similarly, the loading of ballast into railway wagons does not alter the nature or character of the completed supply of goods. Therefore, both activities are distinct and independently identifiable supplies and are not composite supply.

Therefore, the ld. AAR held that the supply of ballast is separate transaction of supply of goods, liable to tax accordingly. The ld. AAR further held that the loading activity is also separate and liable to tax under SAC-996719 – ‘Other cargo and baggage handling services’ falling under Heading 9967 ‘Supporting services in transport’ and is liable to GST at the applicable rate of 18%.

30. Rashmiben Sanjaykumar Hemani (Trade Name: Galaxe Prints) (AAR Order No. GUJ/GAAR/R/2026/29 (in Appl. No. Advance Ruling/SGST&CGST/2026/AR/08) dt.4.8.2026)(Guj)

Classification of Services and applicable GST rate – Job Work Services

The applicant is engaged in providing offset printing services on Kraft Paper and Duplex Paper and carries out the said activity strictly on job work basis as defined under Section 2(68) of the CGST Act, 2017.

The applicant has submitted that Kraft paper sheets and Duplex papers are supplied by packaging industries/corrugated box manufacturers, the Principal, to the applicant, under delivery challan for the purpose of offset printing, in accordance with precise specifications, designs and instructions provided by the Principal. Upon completion of offset printing, the processed Kraft paper sheets and Duplex paper are returned to the Principal for further processing. At no point in time does the ownership in goods pass to the applicant and the title, risk and ownership of goods always remains with the Principal.

The applicant has sought Advance Ruling on the following questions:

“(1) Whether GST rate of @5% or 18% is applicable on the job work services of offset printing provided by the applicant on Kraft Paper and Duplex Paper supplied by the Corrugated box manufacturer/Packaging Industries w.e.f. 22.09.2025, in terms of Notification No.15/2025-Central Tax (Rate) dated 17.09.2025?

(2) Whether paper cutting charges, paper sheet loading charges, bundle unloading charges and plate charges shown separately on Sale invoice, are ancillary to and form part of the principal supply of printing services, and whether the same GST rate applicable to printing service would apply to such charges?”

The ld. AAR observed as under in respect of nature of activity.

“On going through the various activities/supplies covering the supply of services provided and shown in a sequence by the applicant in their submission, we find that the entire sequence of activities/supplies which start with the cutting of paper into the required sheet size from the paper reel followed by sorting and stacking of such cut sheets followed by plate making/plate mounting and offset printing followed by drying/curing of printed sheets, varnish/lamination process, quality check and colour matching, bundling/packing of printed sheets and returning back the bundled/packed printed sheets to the principal manufacturer indicates that they are all interconnected with each other and can be stated to be “naturally bundled” and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business. We also find that activity of offset printing is the main supply and all the other supplies carried out pre-offset printing and post-offset printing, can be considered as supporting the main activity/supply of offset printing i.e. the said activities/supplies can be considered as ancillary to the supply of offset printing. We, therefore, find that the supply of services provided by the applicant will indisputably fall under the definition of “composite supply” where offset printing is the “principal supply”. Further, since the type of supply of the job work services provided by the applicant has already been identified as a “composite supply”, the need to refer to the definition of “mixed supply” does not arise.”

The ld. AAR also observed that the job work services carried out by the applicant which is a “composite supply”, fall under Sr.No.26, Heading 9988 “Manufacturing services on physical inputs (goods) owned by others”. Further, since ‘offset printing’ is the principal supply in the aforementioned composite supply, the GST rate applicable on offset printing would be the rate applicable to the said composite supply under entry Sr.no.26 of Notification No.11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017.

Since the kraft paper and duplex paper are taxed @ 18% under Notification No.09/2025-Central Tax (Rate) dated 17.09.2025, the ld. AAR held that the rate of tax on offset printing activity will be under entry no.26(iv) of Notification No.11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 and rate will be 18%.

Section 16(2)(C) Of The CGST Act

यथा मधु समादत्ते रक्षन् पुष्पाणि षट्पदः। तद्वदर्थान्मनुष्येभ्यः आदद्यादविहिंसया॥

“As the bee gathers honey from the flower without harming its fragrance or its bloom,

so should the king gather wealth from his subjects without causing them injury.”

Kautilya, Arthashastra, Book II

Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act conditions Input Tax Credit (ITC) on the supplier’s actual tax payment to the Government. Courts, including the Gujarat High Court in Maruti Enterprise, view ITC as a statutory concession rather than a vested right, necessitating strict compliance. While the Supreme Court’s dismissal in Bhandari Scrap Traders affirmed this, legal debates persist regarding the “impossibility” of recipients verifying supplier payments. Taxpayers face significant risks from supplier defaults and retrospective registration cancellations. Recommended safeguards include invoice-level reconciliation, proactive supplier monitoring, and withholding tax payments until deposit proof is furnished.

INTRODUCTION

Kautilya’s counsel that revenue must be gathered as the bee gathers honey without wounding the flower it draws from is as old as the discipline of public finance itself. The interpretation of section 16 (2) (c) of CGST Act, 2017 as canvassed by the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in Maruti Enterprise vs. Union of India [(2026) 42 Centax 256 (Guj.)], the SLP against which was dismissed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Bhandari Scrap Traders vs. Union of India [(2026) 44 Centax 356 (S.C.)] may require assistance from this principle.

Section 16(2)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017 restricts Input Tax Credit (ITC) to a registered recipient unless the tax charged on the relevant supply has been paid to the Government by the supplier. The recipient ordinarily has no means of compelling or verifying such payment resulting in sustained litigation since 2017, with materially different outcomes depending on the facts of the individual mismatch and the jurisdiction in which it arose. This article traces the issue from first principles, the legal character of ITC itself, the statutory conditions, the department’s enforcement practice, the difficulties it creates for taxpayers and the judicial precedents up to now.

INPUT TAX CREDIT – A RIGHT OR A CONCESSION

The starting point for any analysis of Section 16(2)(c) is the legal character of ITC itself. When GST was introduced, it was marketed to trade and industry on the promise of a “seamless” flow of credit across the supply chain, intended to eliminate the cascading effect of the erstwhile indirect tax regime. That promise, however, did not translate into an enforceable entitlement. The Constitution contains no reference to ITC or to any right to claim it; the entitlement exists only to the extent, and in the form, that the CGST Act itself creates it. Courts have, accordingly, treated the “seamless credit” assurance as a policy aspiration rather than a justiciable right.

It is now a settled law1 that ITC is not a vested or fundamental right, but a statutory concession – available to a taxpayer only to the extent, and subject to the conditions, that the legislature has chosen to allow. In ALD Automotive, examining an analogous credit mechanism under VAT law, the Court held that input credit is “in the nature of a benefit/concession extended to a dealer under the statutory scheme,” and that “the concession can be received by the beneficiary only as per the scheme of the statute.” The Court went on to hold that whenever a concession is granted by statute or notification, its conditions must be strictly complied with in order to avail it – a dealer has no independent right to the benefit outside the four corners of the provision granting it.


1 ALD Automotive Private Limited vs. Commercial Tax Officer, (2019) 13 SCC 225

On the specific question of when a harsh statutory condition may be read down to relieve hardship, the Supreme Court in Authorised Officer, Central Bank of India vs. Shanmugavelu, (2024) 6 SCC 641 held that “harshness of a provision is no reason to read down the same, if its plain meaning is unambiguous and perfectly valid” – reading down is a tool to preserve constitutionality where a provision would otherwise fail, not a general remedy for hardship in an otherwise valid and unambiguous provision.

The above decisions highlight that ITC is a concession, its conditions including Section 16(2)(c) must be interpreted strictly and literally, equitable considerations do not enter the analysis, and hardship alone does not justify reading a clear provision down.

The GST Empty Cup Dilemma Protecting your Input Tax Credit

EVOLUTION OF PROVISIONS UNDER GST

Section 16(1) establishes the basic entitlement: a registered person may take credit of input tax charged on a supply used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business. Section 16(2) then prescribes cumulative conditions without which that entitlement cannot be exercised, and these conditions have themselves changed materially over time.

At inception, Section 16(2) prescribed four conditions, still in force today:

(a) he is in possession of a tax invoice or debit note issued by a supplier registered under this Act…

(b) he has received the goods or services or both…

(c) subject to the provisions of section 41 [or section 43A], the tax charged in respect of such supply has been actually paid to the Government, either in cash or through utilisation of input tax credit admissible in respect of the said supply; and

(d) he has furnished the return under section 39.”

These conditions operated alongside the original Section 41, which permitted credit “as self-assessed” on a provisional basis, and Section 42, which provided for matching between the recipient’s and supplier’s returns. Both GSTR-2 (the recipient’s return, meant to enable that matching) and GSTR-3 (the consolidated return) were suspended within months of commencement, leaving taxpayers to self-assess through GSTR-3B alone, without any live verification mechanism. The consequence of this gap was addressed by the Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Bharti Airtel Ltd. [2021 (54) G.S.T.L. 257 (S.C.)], discussed in detail later in this article, which held that the taxpayer’s obligation to self-assess correctly was not diminished merely because the Government’s own verification infrastructure was not yet functional.

In the absence of the statutory matching process, Rule 36(4) was introduced to cap ITC claimed on invoices not uploaded by the supplier at a percentage of matched credit – 20% from October 2019, reducing to 10% through 2020, and to 5% through 2021. The original non-operational scheme of provisional self-assessed credit and portal driven matching vide Sections 41 and 42 continued to exist simultaneously, though non-operational. It therefore is evident that for the duration of this Rule, a taxpayer was not required, and had no means, to restrict its claims to matched invoices alone; a defined buffer of unmatched credit was expressly permitted.

Section 16(2)(aa) added a fifth condition w.e.f. 01.01.2022:

the details of the invoice must have been furnished by the supplier in its outward-supply statement and communicated to the recipient.

This converted digital matching from Rule 36(4)’s tolerant buffer into an absolute precondition, independent of clause (c)’s payment requirement.

Soon thereafter, w.e.f. 01.10.2022, Section 38 was substituted to generate FORM GSTR-2B automatically, flagging credit as available or restricted. A sixth condition, clause (ba), was added: credit communicated as “restricted” under Section 38 cannot be claimed. Section 41 was then substituted in its entirety w.e.f. 01.10.2022:

“Where credit of input tax has been availed by a registered person in respect of a supply, but the tax payable thereon has not been paid by the supplier, such credit availed shall be reversed along with applicable interest… Provided that where the said tax is subsequently paid by the said supplier, the registered person shall be entitled to re-avail the amount of credit so reversed.”

Sections 42 and 43 – the original, never-operational matching provisions – were thus formally omitted w.e.f. 01.10.2022.

Rule 37A operationalised the new Section 41(2): where a supplier has not filed GSTR-3B by 30 September of the following financial year, the recipient must reverse the corresponding credit by 30 November to avoid interest, and may re-avail it once the supplier subsequently pays.

As a further taxpayer facilitation, the Invoice Management System was introduced on the portal w.e.f. 01.10.2024. IMS allows the recipient to Accept, Reject, or mark Pending each inward supply, with only Accepted invoices flowing into the GSTR-3B credit claim – the first point at which the recipient exercises active control over the matching process rather than passively receiving its output.

One may observe as a summary that under the current regime, a taxpayer must satisfy six cumulative conditions – clauses (a), (aa), (b), (ba), (c), and (d) – read together, before ITC can be claimed and retained. Four of these six did not exist, in their present form, before October 2022.

INTERPRETATION FROM THE DEPARTMENT’S LENS

The conditions set out above are enforced, in practice, through a combination of automated data-matching and a burden of proof placed squarely on the claimant, underpinned by a rationale the Department itself has articulated in fairly simple terms.

The “empty cup” rationale – The department’s justification for Section 16(2)(c) is not, at its core, a technical one – it is essentially fiscal common sense from the exchequer’s point of view. The Government’s position is that it cannot “pour from an empty cup”: it cannot extend a credit to a recipient against tax it has never actually received from the supplier, regardless of what passed between the recipient and the supplier privately. Whatever hardship this creates for the recipient is treated, from the Department’s side, as a consequence of a risk the recipient chose to take when it transacted with that particular supplier, not a risk the exchequer should absorb. This rationale explains why the Department has been largely unmoved by “blind spot” arguments – the recipient’s inability to see or control whether its vendor actually remitted the tax collected – and why the burden of proof, discussed below, has consistently been placed on the recipient rather than shared with, or shifted first to, the Department.

Automated matching as the first filter – The Department’s primary enforcement tool is the comparison between the credit claimed in a taxpayer’s GSTR-3B and the credit reflected in its auto-generated GSTR-2A/2B, built entirely from the supplier’s own filings. Any variance between the two typically triggers a scrutiny notice – commonly in FORM ASMT-10 or as a pre-consultation intimation in FORM DRC-01A – calling upon the taxpayer to explain or reverse the difference.

Circular-based relief for documented, misclassified payment – Recognising that not every mismatch reflects genuine non-payment, the CBIC issued Circular No. 183/15/2022-GST (in respect of FY 2017-18 and 2018-19) and Circular No. 193/05/2023-GST (extending the same relief to FY 2019-20 and 2020-21). These circulars permit a taxpayer to reconcile a GSTR-3B/GSTR-2A variance – for example, where a supplier mistakenly reported a B2B supply as B2C – by producing a certificate from the supplier’s chartered accountant or cost accountant confirming that the supply was made and the tax was in fact paid, in lieu of a corrected GSTR-1. Where the variance is below a specified monetary threshold, a self-certification by the supplier may suffice; above it, the CA/CMA certificate is treated as mandatory.

The burden of proof standard the department applies – Section 155 of the CGST Act places the burden of proving eligibility for ITC on the person claiming it. The Department, relying on the Supreme Court’s decision in State of Karnataka vs. Ecom Gill Coffee Trading Pvt. Ltd., (2023) 18 SCC 809 (discussed later), routinely takes the position that this burden is not discharged merely by producing a tax invoice and evidence of payment through banking channels. In practice, officers now expect a taxpayer to additionally substantiate the genuineness of the underlying transaction – delivery challans, e-way bills, transporter records (goods receipts, lorry numbers, weighment slips), correspondence with the supplier, and the entry of the transaction in the taxpayer’s own stock and accounting records – treating the invoice and payment trail as necessary but not sufficient.

The practical asymmetry this creates – Where an invoice is missing from GSTR-2A/2B or the supplier has not filed GSTR-3B, the Department’s working assumption is typically that the recipient must first prove entitlement affirmatively – including, in many cases, being expected to demonstrate that it exercised some due diligence in transacting with the supplier – rather than the department first pursuing the supplier for the unpaid tax. This is the enforcement posture that several of the judicial precedents discussed later have pushed back against, holding that recovery against the supplier should ordinarily precede reversal of the recipient’s credit; whether that judicial preference has altered the department’s actual practice is a separate question.

CHALLENGES FACED BY TAXPAYERS

Set against the conditions and the enforcement practice outlined above, taxpayers face different scenarios, each carrying a different practical difficulty. Some common scenarios are explained below:

  1.  Invoice missing from GSTR-2A because the supplier filed it as B2C rather than B2B, but did pay the tax; a CA/CMA certificate has been obtained. The taxpayer’s difficulty here is procedural rather than substantive – the tax reached the Government, but proving this requires the taxpayer to obtain the supplier’s cooperation in procuring a CA certificate, which is not always forthcoming.
  2.  Same facts as Scenario 1, but no certificate has yet been obtained. The underlying transaction is clean; the difficulty is purely one of timing and cooperation from the supplier’s professional advisers. One may be able to actually demonstrate that the supplier has regularly filed and continues to file his returns in GSTR3B.
  3.  Invoice correctly reflected in GSTR-2A, but the supplier has not filed GSTR-3B. Every portal-visible check under clauses (a), (aa), and (b) is satisfied; only clause (c)’s payment condition fails, for a reason entirely outside the recipient’s control.
  4.  Invoice reflected in GSTR-2A, but the supplier filed a nil GSTR-3B. This variant is harder to distinguish, at the time of transacting, from genuine supplier distress on the one hand and deliberate evasion on the other – the recipient has no way of telling the two apart in advance.
  5.  Invoice missing from GSTR-2A, and the supplier has not filed GSTR-3B at all. No disclosure and no payment exist on record. This is the scenario in which the Department’s asymmetric enforcement posture is felt most acutely.
  6.  Supplier’s registration cancelled – prospectively or retrospectively – on the supplier’s own application. In these cases, it is the supplier who approaches the Department for cancellation, and the Proper Officer, after examining the particulars, cancels the registration. Even here, the authorities have frequently gone back to the past outward supply transactions of such suppliers and questioned the recipient’s ITC eligibility, even where the supplier had in fact paid the tax on those very transactions – a fact duly verified by the department at the time of processing the cancellation itself.
  7. Supplier’s registration cancelled by the Department, of its own motion (suo motu). This is the more troubling variant, and it arises in two distinct forms. Where the cancellation is prospective, the period of the disputed transaction is, in principle, left untouched, though recipients still frequently face scrutiny. Where the cancellation is retrospective – and this is the more common source of dispute – a supplier who disclosed a supply, filed GSTR-1, and even paid tax through GSTR-3B, may nonetheless have its registration cancelled years later, for reasons that are rarely made available to the recipient, and often without effective notice to a supplier who has by then become uncontactable. The recipient is left to answer for a decision taken between the Department and a third party, in which it had no part and no warning.
  8. Supplier errors, such as an invoice bearing the wrong GSTIN, wrong POS, etc. There could be instances where the supplier, while dealing with a multi-registration entity, reports an invoice against the incorrect GSTIN while the recipient claims it under the correct GSTIN, resulting in a mismatch for the recipient. Similarly, in some cases, the supplier selects reverse charge as applicable though the invoice was actually issued under forward charge. In such cases, despite the supplier having paid GST, the recipient ends up facing scrutiny and litigation.

A further, structural challenge: the Rule 36(4) period. Beyond the above specific scenarios lies a distinct, period-specific difficulty, and one that engages the doctrine of lex non cogit ad impossibilia – discussed in its general form, as argued before and rejected by the Gujarat High Court – in a narrower and more precise sense than the Court actually considered. Between 09.10.2019 and 31.12.2021, Rule 36(4) expressly permitted taxpayers to claim a defined percentage of unmatched credit, while the framework of that period gave the recipient no means of verifying whether the supplier had actually paid the tax on any given invoice – clause (aa) did not yet exist, GSTR-2B in its current form did not exist, and Rule 37A’s reversal-and-re-availment mechanism did not exist. A taxpayer transacting during this window was not merely permitted but structurally invited by the Rules to claim unmatched credit, with no tool available to distinguish, in advance, a genuine unmatched invoice from one that would later prove to involve a defaulting supplier, and no contractual indemnity clause capable of curing the underlying problem, for the reasons given in Part 6. Any demand raised today for reversal of ITC availed within the Rule 36(4) buffer, where the demand rests on a supplier’s subsequent default, arguably asks the taxpayer to have done something the law neither required nor enabled it to do at the relevant time – the precise circumstance the maxim addresses, and one the Gujarat High Court’s general rejection of the doctrine, resting as it does on Rule 37A and contractual indemnity, does not actually reach.

JUDICIAL PRECEDENTS BEFORE MARUTI ENTERPRISE AND BHANDARI SCRAP TRADERS

The case law preceding these two decisions divides broadly into two lines:.

The self-assessment line – In Union of India vs. Bharti Airtel Ltd. [2021 (54) G.S.T.L. 257 (S.C.)], the Supreme Court held, in the context of GSTR-3B rectification during the period GSTR-2/GSTR-3 were non-operational, that the taxpayer’s obligation to self-assess correctly is not excused by gaps in the Government’s own verification infrastructure. This is not a decision about supplier default, but its underlying principle – that the taxpayer bears the risk of imperfect verification tools – recurs throughout the later cases.

The Delhi VAT line, and its extension to GST – In On Quest Merchandising India (P) Ltd. vs. Government of NCT of Delhi, [2018] 10 GSTL 182 (Del), the Delhi High Court read down Section 9(2)(g) of the Delhi VAT Act, 2004, holding that a bona fide purchasing dealer could not be denied credit merely because the selling dealer failed to deposit tax, since the purchaser had no means of verifying or compelling the supplier to pay the taxes. This decision was followed in Shanti Kiran India (P) Ltd. [(2025) 35 Centax 222 (S.C.)] and Arise India Limited [2022 (60) G.S.T.L. 215 (S.C.)], and the Supreme Court subsequently dismissed the Revenue’s special leave petitions against these decisions. The Karnataka High Court applied similar reasoning to Section 70 of the KVAT Act in Tallam Apparels, 2021 SCC OnLine Kar 15785. This entire line was confined to VAT statutes, under which credit, once availed, did not travel beyond the originating State. The extension of this principle to the CGST Act was attempted, and succeeded, in the Tripura High Court’s decision in M/s Sahil Enterprises vs. Union of India [2026-VIL-15-TRI], which read down Section 16(2)(c) itself on the same reasoning.

The burden-of-proof correction – The VAT line was significantly narrowed by the Supreme Court’s decision in State of Karnataka vs. Ecom Gill Coffee Trading Pvt. Ltd., (2023) 18 SCC 809. The Court, highlighting that the burden of proof issue had not been before the Delhi High Court in On Quest Merchandising, distinguished that decision and held that the burden of proving ITC eligibility lies squarely on the claimant, and is not discharged merely by producing a tax invoice or proof of payment through banking channels; the claimant must additionally establish the genuineness of the transaction, including the physical movement of goods.

The purchaser-protective line under GST – Under GST, several High Courts developed a purchaser-protective position under the CGST Act itself, holding that recovery against a defaulting supplier should ordinarily be attempted before the recipient’s credit is disturbed. In M/s D.Y. Beathel Enterprises vs. State Tax Officer [2021-VIL-308-MAD], the Madras High Court quashed a demand against the recipient without the Department having first pursued the supplier, who had collected the tax and not remitted it. In Suncraft Energy Private Limited vs. Assistant Commissioner, State Tax [2023-VIL-487-CAL], the Calcutta High Court reached the same conclusion; the Revenue’s SLP against this decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court in December 2023.

The registration-cancellation line – A further, distinct body of case law addressed the effect of a supplier’s registration being canceled after the disputed transaction, and it distinguishes prospective from retrospective cancellation. On prospective suo motu cancellation, the Allahabad High Court has been consistent: in M/s Singhal Iron Traders vs. Additional Commissioner [2025-VIL-1124-ALH] and M/s Solvi Enterprises vs. Additional Commissioner [2025-VIL-270-ALH], the Court held that no adverse inference arises against the purchaser merely because the supplier’s registration was cancelled after the transaction, where tax was paid and returns were filed at the relevant time. On retrospective cancellation, the case law is more protective of the recipient. In LGW Industries Ltd. vs. Union of India [(2023) 4 Centax 373 (Cal.)], the Court held that a recipient who exercised due diligence at the time of transacting – verifying the supplier’s registration as it then stood, supported by invoices, e-way bills, and banking-channel payment – should not be denied credit solely because of a subsequent cancellation. M/s Gargo Traders vs. Joint Commissioner [2023-VIL-360-CAL] and Shyamalmay Paul vs. Assistant Commissioner [2025-VIL-1315-CAL] both held that retrospective cancellation is not, by itself, a valid ground for denial, and that the authorities must independently verify the physical movement of goods and the banking trail.

By the time Maruti Enterprise came to be decided, the field contained at least three distinguishable threads of precedents:

  • a VAT-derived reading-down position, significantly narrowed by Ecom Gill Coffee Trading;
  • a GST-specific, sequencing-based position requiring recovery against the supplier first; and
  • a registration-cancellation-specific position requiring inquiry beyond the fact of cancellation.

It is against this backdrop that the Gujarat High Court’s judgment has to be read.

WHAT MARUTI ENTERPRISE HELD

Maruti Enterprise dealt with a batch of petitions challenging the vires of Section 16(2)(c) as arbitrary, ultra vires, and violative of Articles 14, 19(1)(g), 265, and 300A, or seeking to read it down to exclude bona fide purchasers. While dismissing the challenge, the Court’s reasoning proceeded in several steps.

  • First, it treated ITC as a statutory concession rather than a vested right, relying on ALD Automotive, and held that its conditions must be interpreted literally rather than equitably.
  • Second, it held that Section 16(2)’s conditions – clauses (a) through (d), on the Court’s own recitation of the text – must be read conjointly, and that the Revenue could not be required to stop its inquiry at clause (b) once genuineness appeared satisfied; clause (c)’s payment condition was equally part of the composite test.
  • Third, and centrally, the Court held that Section 41(2) and Rule 37A cure whatever hardship the provision might otherwise create, since credit denied for a supplier’s default is not permanently lost but merely deferred, to be re-availed once the supplier eventually pays – a mechanism the Court held had no equivalent under the Delhi VAT Act considered in On Quest Merchandising.
  • Fourth, the Court placed weight on Section 155’s burden-of-proof provision, holding that it is for the purchasing dealer to prove that tax collected has in fact been remitted, and adopted the Supreme Court’s holding in Ecom Gill Coffee Trading on this point.
  • Fifth, the Court declined to follow the Tripura High Court’s decision in Sahil Enterprises, holding that it had proceeded on the On Quest Merchandising reasoning without adequately considering the interplay of Sections 41 and 42 read with Rule 37A.

The Court accordingly declined to read down or strike down Section 16(2)(c), while nonetheless recording, in its concluding paragraphs, that the Government ought to undertake a “comprehensive re-evaluation” of the position of genuine purchasers and consider a more robust, technology-driven verification mechanism. The individual writ petitions were remanded for decision on their own facts, with the question of vires alone having been finally determined.

THE DOCTRINE OF LEX NON COGIT AD IMPOSSIBILIA

A distinct strand of the petitioners’ argument, separate from the Article 14/19(1)(g) constitutional challenge, invoked the maxim lex non cogit ad impossibilia – the law does not compel a person to do that which is impossible to perform – which the petitioners submitted was closely connected to the related maxim impotentia excusat legem (a disability that makes it impossible to obey the law can be excused).

The submission was that Section 16(2)(c) mandates the purchaser to do something beyond its control – namely, ensure that a third party, the supplier, remits tax to the Government – and that the provision should accordingly be declared ultra vires or read down. In support, the petitioners relied on the judgment of the Court of Justice of the European Union in Axel Kittel vs. Belgian State and Belgian State vs. Recolta Recycling SPRL (06.07.2006), which held that VAT deduction can be denied where a participant knew or should have known of fraud, but not where the taxable person neither knew nor could have known that the transaction was connected with fraud committed by the seller.

The Gujarat High Court rejected this submission. It held that the maxim, whatever its general force, “does not strictly attract” the scheme of the GST regime, because Section 41 read with Rule 37A ensures that purchasers are “not unfairly penalized for a supplier’s default” – credit is deferred, not permanently lost, and is restored once the supplier eventually pays. The Court went further, holding that the purchaser is not entirely without means of managing the risk: because the GST regime operates on a contract between two private parties, a purchaser can, at the time of entering into the agreement, include a clause holding the supplier liable to indemnify the purchaser for any loss arising from the supplier’s failure to remit the tax collected.

This reasoning is open to a specific objection that the judgment does not address. An indemnity clause reallocates commercial risk between the purchaser and the supplier as a matter of private contract; it does nothing to make it possible for the purchaser to ensure that the tax actually reaches the Government, which is the act Section 16(2)(c) conditions credit upon. Where the supplier is insolvent, untraceable, or deceased, an indemnity clause is, in practical terms, worthless, since there is no one left to enforce it against. The Court’s answer to the impossibility argument therefore substitutes a private remedy against the wrong party (the supplier, who is often the very source of the difficulty) for the actual impossibility the petitioners identified – the purchaser’s inability to compel or verify payment to the Government. Nor does the Rule 37A safety valve the Court otherwise relies on assist a purchaser whose transaction predates 26.12.2022, since the rule did not exist at the relevant time; the Court’s rejection of the impossibility argument is accordingly strongest for the post-Rule 37A period and weakest for transactions before it, including the entirety of the Rule 36(4) period.

HOW BHANDARI SCRAP TRADERS CONFIRMED IT

The special leave petitions filed against Maruti Enterprise came up for hearing before a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court on 24.07.2026. The Bench noted that a separate special leave petition against the Tripura High Court’s decision in Sahil Enterprises had been entertained, but observed that the exercise the Gujarat High Court had undertaken – the detailed analysis, from paragraph 42 onwards, of the distinction between the Delhi VAT Act and the CGST Act, together with the scheme of ITC availment set out at paragraph 56 of the impugned judgment – had not been undertaken by the Tripura High Court. The Bench further noted the Gujarat High Court’s reliance on Sections 41, 73, and 74 of the CGST Act in holding that a purchasing dealer under the CGST regime is entitled to re-avail reversed ITC once the supplier discharges the tax liability, a feature the Bench treated as distinguishing the CGST scheme from the Delhi VAT Act’s provisions.

On this basis, the Bench recorded that it found itself “in complete and respectful agreement with the views expressed by the High Court of Gujarat,” affirmed and upheld the impugned judgment, and dismissed the special leave petitions.

IS BHANDARI SCRAP TRADERS THE LAW OF THE LAND?

The answer requires two separate inquiries, not one. The first is the familiar Kunhayammed question – was the dismissal speaking or non-speaking? The second, and the more consequential one on a closer reading of the order, is whether what the Supreme Court actually wrote, even assuming it counts as a speaking order, discloses a ratio decidendi at all, as opposed to a bare conclusion dressed in the language of agreement.

The Supreme Court’s own three-judge bench decision in Kunhayammed v. State of Kerala, (2000) 6 SCC 359, holds that a non-speaking dismissal of a special leave petition attracts no Article 141 effect and produces no merger of the High Court judgment. A speaking dismissal – one giving reasons that engage the substance of the legal question – attracts Article 141, but only to the extent of what is actually reasoned, and still without merger, since leave was never granted. Only where leave is granted and the matter proceeds to disposal as a civil appeal does the High Court judgment merge fully into the Supreme Court’s decision, with Article 141 applying without qualification.

Where Bhandari Scrap Traders falls on this first test. No leave was granted; there is no merger, and Maruti Enterprise remains, formally, a High Court judgment. At first blush, the order appears to clear the second Kunhayammed category – it distinguishes Sahil Enterprises by name, refers to specific paragraphs of the judgment below, and states express agreement with the Gujarat High Court’s reasoning on the DVAT/CGST distinction.

But a closer reading raises a more fundamental difficulty. It is not enough, for a decision to constitute “law declared” under Article 141, that the Supreme Court reaches a conclusion and gestures at the judgment it is affirming. The Supreme Court has itself drawn this distinction. In Secunderabad Club vs. CIT, 2023 INSC 736, it held that a decision binds not because of its conclusion, but because of the principle underlying it – an order unsupported by any deduction, reasoning, or analysis cannot carry precedential value merely because it arrives at a result.

The point was developed further, on facts strikingly close to those here, in Jayant Verma vs. Union of India, (2018) 4 SCC 743. There, the Supreme Court examined an earlier, cryptic order that had reversed a detailed High Court judgment (striking down Section 21A of the Banking Regulation Act) after hearing only one side. It held that where a decision contains no reasoning worth the name, does not engage with the authorities relied upon by the court below, and is arrived at on an ex parte appraisal, it would be hazardous to treat that decision as a declaration of law under Article 141. A bare conclusion, reached without discussion of the relevant statutory provisions or the case law on the point, does not by itself create binding precedent – however firmly the conclusion is stated.

Testing Bhandari Scrap Traders against this standard. The SLP was dismissed at the threshold, without notice to the Union of India as respondent. The order agrees with the Gujarat High Court’s conclusion, but it does not independently formulate the constitutional tests applicable to an Article 14 or Article 19(1)(g) challenge to a taxing provision, does not work through those tests against Section 16(2)(c) on its own terms, and does not offer a distinct line of reasoning of its own explaining why the provision survives constitutional scrutiny. What the order principally does is note that the Delhi VAT Act and the CGST Act are not comparable enactments. But the absence of parity between two statutes is not a constitutional test for validity; it explains why one precedent does not automatically transpose to another statute, but it does not itself demonstrate that Section 16(2)(c) is non-arbitrary, proportionate, or otherwise constitutionally sound. A reference to selected paragraphs of the judgment under challenge, without an independent working-through of the constitutional question, does not disclose a distinct ratio of the Supreme Court.

The parallel to Jayant Verma is closer still on the question of process. The Tripura High Court’s contrary view in Sahil Enterprises was, in substance, reversed without the respondent in that matter being heard, and without the Supreme Court examining the detailed reasoning that had led the Tripura High Court to read down Section 16(2)(c) in the first place. The contrary decisions of the Gauhati and Karnataka High Courts, both relied upon by the Maruti Enterprise petitioners and noted in Part 5 above, do not feature in the Supreme Court’s order at all.

An instructive comparison: the Suncraft Energy dismissal. The Revenue’s SLP against Suncraft Energy – the Calcutta High Court decision requiring recovery against the supplier before the recipient’s credit is disturbed – was also dismissed by the Supreme Court, in December 2023. That order records: “Having regard to the facts and circumstances of this case(s) and the extent of demand being on the lower side, we are not inclined to interfere in these matters in exercise of our powers under Article 136.” This is a dismissal on quantum, not one engaging the merits of the legal question, and falls within Kunhayammed’s first category rather than its second. On this analysis, the Suncraft dismissal – widely treated in practice as Supreme Court endorsement of the purchaser-protective position – does not itself attract Article 141 on the merits, notwithstanding its outcome. The comparison is instructive because it shows that a Supreme Court order can fail to bind for two quite different reasons: because it gives no reasons at all (Suncraft), or, as argued above, because the reasons it gives do not amount to an independent constitutional analysis (Bhandari Scrap Traders, on the Secunderabad Club/Jayant Verma standard).

A stronger comparison – Ecom Gill Coffee Trading. By contrast, State of Karnataka vs. Ecom Gill Coffee Trading Pvt. Ltd., (2023) 18 SCC 809, proceeded as a fully argued civil appeal with leave granted, placing it within Kunhayammed’s third category – full merger, unqualified Article 141 effect – and its reasoning independently works through the burden-of-proof question on its own terms, engaging the authorities on both sides. It is, the least qualified of the three Supreme Court pronouncements discussed, and it is the decision Maruti Enterprise itself relies on most directly for its Section 155 reasoning.

What follows. Two conclusions can be drawn, and they should not be mixed up. First, Bhandari Scrap Traders undoubtedly binds the parties before the Supreme Court in that proceeding, in the ordinary sense that any final order binds the parties to it. Second, and separately, whether the order amounts to “law declared” binding on High Courts and coordinate Benches of the Supreme Court under Article 141 is a materially harder question than its outcome suggests. Applying Secunderabad Club and Jayant Verma, there is a substantial argument that it does not: the order does not disclose the deduction, analysis, or independent constitutional reasoning those decisions require before a conclusion can be treated as a declaration of law, it was arrived at without notice to the Tripura High Court’s successful respondent, and it does not engage the contrary reasoning of the Gauhati or Karnataka High Courts at all.

If this view is correct, it would mean the gate remains open – not merely on the scenario-specific and period-specific points identified elsewhere in this article, but on the constitutional challenge to Section 16(2)(c) itself – for fresh examination before the High Courts, and for independent consideration by a coordinate Bench of the Supreme Court in an appropriate case, including on the DVAT-comparison ground that Bhandari Scrap Traders is, on its face, usually understood to have foreclosed.

A further point follows regardless of which view of the threshold question is correct. Even on the more generous reading of the order – that it does clear the Kunhayammed speaking-order threshold, and binds at least on the narrow DVAT/CGST proposition – it still does not touch the Gujarat High Court’s general rejection of the lex non cogit ad impossibilia argument or the specific points discussed above. The order confines itself to the DVAT/CGST distinction; it does not mention the impossibility doctrine, the Axel Kittel line the petitioners relied on, or the Court’s contractual-indemnity reasoning. On either view of the threshold question, therefore, the Gujarat High Court’s treatment of the impossibility doctrine remains, at present, a High Court finding only.

WAY FORWARD

For the individual writ petitions remanded under paragraph 90 of Maruti Enterprise. A uniform approach across the batched petitions is unlikely to be appropriate. Petitions falling within Scenarios 1 and 3 (documented, misclassified payment) are properly resolved administratively through Circular 183/193’s certification mechanism. Petitions falling within the retrospective suo motu cancellation variant of Scenario 7 warrant the inquiry into physical movement of goods and banking records required by Gargo Traders, Shyamalmay Paul, and LGW Industries. Petitions concerning credit availed within the Rule 36(4) buffer between 09.10.2019 and 31.12.2021 warrant a specific finding on whether the taxpayer could, at the relevant time, have done more than the Rules themselves required.

For the administration. Maruti Enterprise itself calls, at paragraph 88, for a “technology-driven tracking mechanism” to protect genuine purchasers. The Invoice Management System, in its current form, indicates only whether an invoice has been filed by the supplier, not whether the corresponding tax has been paid. Extending IMS to surface payment status at the point a recipient claims credit would meaningfully reduce the incidence of Scenarios 2, 4, and 5 without further litigation.

For future litigation. The conventional reading is that the DVAT-comparison route is closed under Article 141. However, the same is subject to serious challenge, since the order in Bhandari Scrap Traders arguably does not disclose the deduction, analysis, or independent constitutional reasoning that Secunderabad Club and Jayant Verma require before a dismissal can be treated as law declared under Article 141 – meaning a fresh challenge to Section 16(2)(c) remains available before a coordinate Bench in an appropriate case. Independently of that threshold question, and even on the more cautious assumption that the DVAT-comparison route is indeed closed, at least four further arguments remain open, none having been addressed by either Maruti Enterprise or Bhandari Scrap Traders on any reading of the order:

(i) a challenge confined to ITC availed within the Rule 36(4) buffer, engaging lex non cogit ad impossibilia in its precise sense;

(ii) a broader challenge confined to transactions preceding Rule 37A’s introduction in December 2022;

(iii) a challenge premised specifically on the relationship between clauses (aa)/(ba) and clause (c), rather than on Section 16(2)(c) in the abstract; and

(iv) a challenge arising from retrospective cancellation of a supplier’s registration, in respect of which the Calcutta High Court has already required the Department to look beyond the cancellation date to the underlying facts of the transaction.

Litigation confined to any of these grounds, rather than treating Bhandari Scrap Traders as having conclusively settled the field, has a materially better prospect of success than the position currently understood by most practitioners to follow from that decision.

For taxpayers, as a matter of ongoing compliance. Beyond litigation strategy, three practical changes are worth making irrespective of how any pending dispute is resolved. First, recipients should move away from comparing aggregate GSTR-2A/2B and GSTR-3B figures and instead perform invoice-level, transactional reconciliation – an aggregate comparison can mask exactly the kind of misclassification (Scenario 1) or clerical error (Scenario 8) that a certificate or a correction can resolve cheaply if caught early, but which hardens into a full-blown dispute once buried inside a larger, unreconciled variance. Second, recipients should actively track whether their significant suppliers are filing GSTR-3B on time, rather than discovering a default only when a notice arrives years later; several GST-compliance platforms now offer this as a standing feature rather than a one-time reconciliation exercise. Third, and most significantly, the contractual protection the Gujarat High Court gestured toward in Maruti Enterprise – an indemnity clause against the supplier, addressed critically in Part 6 above – is, at best, a remedy of last resort, since it is only as good as the supplier’s continued solvency and traceability. A more robust contractual protection is to withhold a portion of the payment due to the supplier, contractually, until the supplier furnishes proof that the tax component has actually been deposited with the Government – shifting the risk upstream, before payment leaves the recipient’s hands, rather than attempting to recover it downstream from a supplier who may by then be unable to pay either the tax or the indemnity.

Rebate and Capital Gains

The eligibility of Indian residents to claim a Section 87A tax rebate against capital gains taxed at special rates under Sections 111A and 112 remains controversial. While Section 112A explicitly prohibits the rebate, no such text-based restriction exists for Sections 111A or 112. Most ITAT benches allow the claim, arguing that the rebate applies to total tax payable on total income. Conversely, the Rajkot Bench in Kotecha’s case disallowed it, labelling the rebate “rate-sensitive”. However, subsequent rulings clarify that restrictive amendments by the Finance Act 2025 apply only prospectively from AY 2026-27.

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION 

An assessee, being an individual resident in India, is entitled to a deduction (“rebate/relief”) of the prescribed amount from the amount of income tax payable on his total income, subject to certain conditions stipulated under Section 87A of the Income-tax Act, 1961(section 156 of the Income-tax Act, 2025). This rebate is allowed to individuals under both the old and new tax regimes.

Section 111A (section 196) and section 112 (section 197) provide for the taxation of capital gains, short-term or long-term, at special rates. The relevant sections do not contain any provision for prohibiting an assessee in claiming the rebate, wherever eligible against the tax payable on capital gains. Section 112A (section 198) provides for taxation of long-term capital gains in certain cases at special rates. This section, however, expressly prohibits an assessee from claiming rebate under section 87A (section 156) in respect of tax on capital gains of the kinds referred to in section 112A (section 198).

Section 115BAC (section 202) primarily provides for the rate of income tax payable by an individual, etc., on his total income where such total income is calculated in the manner prescribed in the said provision. No prohibition, expressly or otherwise, is found in section 115BAC to deny the benefit of this provision for rebate in respect of the capital gains.

The amount of rebate in respect of a person governed by the new regime of taxation shall not exceed the amount of income tax payable by an individual under the regime of taxation as per the amendment introduced by the Finance Act, 2025 in s.87A w.e.f. Assessment Year 2026-27. Section 196 of the 2025 Act provides for a similar ceiling on the amount of rebate from tax year 2026-27 onwards.

An interesting issue has arisen about the eligibility or otherwise of an individual to claim rebate under section 87A in respect of capital gains being taxed at the special rates under section 111A or section 112 of the Act. While the Ahmedabad, Agra, Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Chennai, Jaipur, Mumbai and Rajkot Benches of the ITAT have held that rebate is allowable to an eligible individual in respect of his total income, including capital gains, the same Rajkot Bench in a later decision has held that no rebate is allowable to an eligible individual in respect of income under the head capital gains, being taxed under the respective provisions prescribing special rate of taxation. Interestingly, after holding against the allowance of rebate, the Rajkot Bench in a recent decision held that rebate is allowable for Assessment Years up to Assessment Year 2025-26 and that the amendment is not applicable till then.

JAYSHREEBEN PALSANA’S CASE

The issue arose in the case of Jayshreeben Jayantibhai Palsana v. ITO, IT Appeal No. 1014 (Ahd.) of 2025 for A.Y. 2024-25, vide order dated 12.08.2025.

The assessee, a resident individual, originally filed her return of income declaring total income of ₹4,27,635, comprising short-term capital gains (‘STCG’) under section 111A of ₹3,79,559, long-term capital gains (‘LTCG’) under section 112A of ₹38,840 and income from other sources of ₹9,236. The return was subsequently revised, wherein the assessee opted for taxation under the new tax regime under section 115BAC(1A).

The revised return resulted in tax liability of ₹13,320, arising solely from STCG taxable under section 111A at 15%. Since the assessee was a resident individual, who had total income below ₹7 lakh and had opted for section 115BAC(1A), she claimed rebate of ₹13,320 under section 87A.

The great rebate debate

However, the Centralized Processing Centre (CPC), Bengaluru, while processing the return under section 143(1), disallowed the rebate and raised a total demand of ₹15,820. The CIT(A) upheld the disallowance, principally relying upon the “subject to” clause in section 115BAC(1A), the provisions of Chapter XII and the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2025.

The core issue before the Tribunal was:

Whether a resident individual who has opted for taxation under section 115BAC(1A), and whose total income does not exceed ₹7 lakh, is entitled to claim rebate under section 87A against tax payable on STCG under section 111A, in the absence of any express restriction in section 87A or section 111A?

The assessee contended that the first proviso to section 87A, applicable from

A.Y. 2024-25, granted rebate to a resident individual opting for section 115BAC(1A) where total income does not exceed ₹7 lakh. The provision contained no exclusion for income taxable at special rates under Chapter XII, including section 111A.

It was further argued that section 112A(6) specifically restricts rebate in respect of specified LTCG, whereas no corresponding restriction existed in section 111A or section 87A. Therefore, the absence of such a restriction must be construed in favour of the assessee. Section 115BAC(1A), according to the assessee, governed the computation of tax rates and did not override the independent rebate provision contained in Chapter VIII.

The assessee also submitted that the Finance Act, 2025 proposed a specific restriction prospectively from A.Y. 2026-27, which itself demonstrated that no such restriction existed for A.Y. 2024-25. Reliance was also placed upon the decision in the case of Chamber of Tax Consultants v Director General of Income Tax (System) 302 Taxman 505 (Bom.).

The CIT(A) supported the action of the CPC on the reasoning that section 115BAC(1A) operated subject to Chapter XII, which contained the special-rate provisions for capital gains under sections 111A and 112A. Consequently, rebate under section 87A could not be utilised against tax payable on such special-rate income. The CIT(A) also relied upon the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2025 to support this interpretation.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal in favour of the assessee. It held that section 87A, as applicable for A.Y. 2024-25, did not distinguish between normal-rate income and income taxable at special rates, nor did it expressly exclude STCG under section 111A.

The Tribunal referred to section 112A, where the Legislature had expressly restricted the rebate, to distinguish it from the provisions of section 111A and s 112. The absence of a similar restriction under section 111A was considered legally significant. It further held that the “subject to” clause in section 115BAC(1A) concerned itself with computation of tax under the special-rate provisions and does not, by itself, restrict a rebate available under Chapter VIII.

The Tribunal also rejected reliance on the Finance Bill, 2025, observing that the proposed restriction was prospective from A.Y. 2026-27 and that an Explanatory Memorandum cannot override the plain language of the existing statute.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to section 87A rebate of ₹13,320 against the tax payable on the STCG, directed the AO to recompute the tax liability and deleted the demand of ₹15,820. The appeal was therefore allowed.

PRAFULCHANDRA KOTECHA’S CASE

The issue recently arose in the case of Prafulchandra Nanalal Kotecha v. ITO ITA No.: 81 (RJT) of 2025 for A.Y.2024-25 vide order dated 22.04.2026.

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income for Assessment Year (A.Y.) 2024-25 declaring total income of approximately ₹5,85,283, comprising income from business, capital gains and income from other sources. The assessee claimed rebate under section 87A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as his total income was below the threshold of ₹7 lakh applicable under the new tax regime under section 115BAC.

The Central Processing Centre (CPC), while processing the return, made an adjustment under section 154 and denied the rebate claimed under section 87A. The assessee challenged the adjustment before the CIT(A), contending that there was no prima facie error apparent from the return, and that the rebate was legally allowable. The CIT(A), however, upheld the denial of the rebate. Consequently, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Rajkot Bench of the ITAT.

The principal issue before the Tribunal was whether an assessee having mixed income, comprising business income, capital gains and income from other sources, with total income below ₹7 lakh and taxable under the new regime, was entitled to claim rebate under section 87A, including against the tax payable on capital gains taxable at special rates under sections 111A, 112 and 112A.

The assessee relied upon the earlier decision of the Rajkot Bench in Manojbhai C. Kamdar v. ITO, ITA No. 572/Rjt/2025 dated 3 November 2025, wherein rebate under section 87A had been allowed in respect of tax on short-term capital gains under section 111A.

It was contended that the assessee’s total income of ₹5,85,283 was below the prescribed threshold of ₹7 lakh under the new regime and, therefore, the assessee was eligible for rebate under section 87A. The assessee argued that section 87A, as applicable for A.Y. 2024-25, contained no express restriction excluding tax payable on capital gains under section 111A. The earlier Tribunal decision had also held that a subsequent amendment restricting the rebate from A.Y. 2026-27 demonstrated that no such restriction existed for A.Y. 2024-25.

The Revenue argued that rebate under section 87A was not available against tax arising from capital gains. According to the Revenue, the rebate was available only against income taxed at normal slab rates and could not be adjusted against income subjected to special rates under the capital-gains provisions. The Revenue supported the denial of the rebate and prayed for dismissal of the appeal.

The Tribunal held that section 87A was “head-neutral but rate-sensitive.” Merely having income under the heads of capital gains or income from other sources did not, by itself, disentitle an assessee from claiming the rebate. However, where income was taxed at special rates, particularly capital gains under sections 111A, 112 and 112A, the rebate could not be given against such special-rate tax.

The Tribunal reasoned that special-rate provisions constituted a separate mechanism for taxation and that capital gains were segregated and taxed independently. Consequently, the rebate under section 87A was held allowable only against the tax attributable to normal-rate income, namely business/professional income and income from other sources, and not against tax on capital gains.

Accordingly, the Assessing Officer was directed to allow the assessee the rebate under section 87A only to the extent of tax payable on normal income and recompute the tax liability. The appeal was therefore partly allowed in favour of the assessee.

OBSERVATIONS

An individual who is resident in India is entitled to claim rebate under section 87A, under the old regime, provided his total income does not exceed `5,00,000. Rebate of the lower of 100% of income-tax liability or `12,500, is available in the form of deduction from the tax liability. In other words, where the tax liability exceeds `12,500, rebate will be available to the extent of `12,500 only. No rebate is available under the old regime if the total income (i.e. taxable income) exceeds `5,00,000.

For a person governed by the new regime, under section 115BAC(1A), the maximum rebate of `60,000 is allowed under section 87A from the amount of income tax payable on total income which is chargeable to tax as per section 87A, provided his total income chargeable to tax under section 115BAC(1A) does not exceed `12,00,000.

Where the total income chargeable to tax exceeds `12,00,000 and the tax payable on such income exceeds the difference between the total income and the tax on income of `12,00,000, he can claim a rebate under section 87A with marginal relief, to the extent of the difference between the tax payable on such total income and the amount by which such tax exceeds the tax on total income of `12,00,000.

Through a plain and literal reading of the text of section 87A (section 156), there is no explicit, overarching clause that mechanically denies a rebate on capital gains taxed at special rates under section 111A (section 196) or section 112 (section 197). The specific exclusion for denying such rebate is embedded in section 112A (section 198), for certain long-term capital gains.

The legal maxim “expressio unius est exclusio alterius” applies here: by explicitly excluding section 112A (s.198) in the statute, the Legislature implicitly allowed the rebate on other special-rate incomes. By failing to explicitly cover section 111A and section 112 (sections 196 and 197), like section 112A (section198), the rebate in respect of the capital gains taxed at a special rate under the respective provisions cannot be denied.

Different benches of the Tribunal have frequently ruled in favour of taxpayers on this issue under consideration. The Ahmedabad, Agra, Bangalore, Chandigarh, Chennai, Indore, Jaipur, Mumbai, and Rajkot Benches have held that section 87A grants a rebate against the “total income-tax payable on total income,” and does not explicitly bar the claim of rebate against the tax on the short-term capital gains u/s 111A (section 197), and that the Assessing Officer and/or Central Processing Centre (CPC) cannot arbitrarily deny the rebate via automated software. Reference may be made to the following:

* Shevgoor Namratha Kamath , ITA No.: 3054/Bang/2025,

* Kiritkumar Champaklal Bhagat, ITA No.: 879/Rjt/2025,

* Pramod Kumar Dubey , ITA No.: 314/Agr/ 2025,

* Gurmindersingh, ITA No.887/Chd./2025,

* Pranay M Kothari, ITA No. 3469/Chny/2025,

* Veenaben Arvindbhai Shah, ITA No.: 2430/Ahd./2025,

* Padmaben Kantilal Ranpara, ITA No.: 516/Raj./ 2025,

* Venkedapathy Venugopal, ITA No.: 2064/Chny/2025,

* Thejaswini Jakkaraju, ITA No.: 218/Bang/2025,

* Seshank Mahadeo, ITA No.2274/Chenny/2025,

* Venkatachalam Venkataman, ITA No.: 1431/Chny/2025,

* Basty Keshav Shenoy, ITA No.: 3134/Bang./2025,

* Pushpa Prakash Misar, ITA No.: 741/Mum./2026,

* Kanhaiya Lal Panchal, ITA No.: 702/Ind./2025,

* Manmohan Jaiswal, ITA No.: 134/Jpr./2026,

* Murari Lal Mishra , ITA No.:196/Jpr./2026,

* Priyamvada Singhal,ITA No1412/Jpr./2025, and

* Rajshree Kothari, 399/Jpr./2026 dt.20.08.2026.

To bridge the gap between the obviously missing text in the main sections and their ulterior and unintended goals, the Income Tax Department uses three primary mechanisms:

  •  Firstly, the Proviso to section 87A (section 156) introduced w.e.f. A.Y. 2026-27 is sought to be applied to deny the rebate in respect of tax on capital gains. The relevant text states that the rebate under the new tax regiment is capped at the tax computed under the rates specified in section 202 [or section 115BAC(1A)]. Because capital gains are taxed at special rates under sections 111A and 112 are under entirely different sections, the Income Tax Department interprets that the balance rebate cannot cross over to cover non-slab tax liabilities under section 115 BAC(1A). This contention in any case cannot help the Income Tax Department to deny the benefit of rebate to persons opting for the old regime of taxation in as much as the amendment has application only to persons governed by the new regime of taxation. Nevertheless, there continues to be no provision in the relevant sections that prohibit the claim of rebate against tax on capital gains.
  •  Secondly, the Central Board of Direct Taxes has issued Circular No. 13/2025, dated 19.09.2025, which explicitly instructed Assessing Officers to disallow Section 87A rebates against special-rate incomes to persons governed by the new tax regime. Obviously the circulars are binding only on the Income Tax Department and not on courts or taxpayers, (refer Anjum M H Ghaswala, 252 ITR 1 (SC).
  •  Thirdly, the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2025 is relied upon to deny the rebate. The Memorandum to the Finance Act 2025 expressly stated that the rebate (up to ₹12 lakh under the new regime) was only meant to relieve slab-rate income taxpayers; not to act as a tax shelter for capital gains. Again, a Memorandum is a tool to interpretation and not a law by itself. Indian courts utilize it to interpret the “mischief” the legislature intended to cure, provided there was a mischief. Refer Shashikant Laxman Kale, 185 ITR 104 (SC).

The Rajkot Bench of the ITAT, in its ruling in Kotecha’s case broke ranks with the prevailing judicial consensus. It held that a section 87A rebate is “head-neutral but rate-sensitive,” meaning thereby that rebate under 87A cannot be granted to and in respect of taxes computed under special rate provisions like sections 111A and 112. The Bench effectively ignored its own co-ordinate bench precedents in Manoj C Kamdar’s case (supra) delivered by the same member—creating an intense judicial paradox.

In tax law, when a co-ordinate bench decides an issue, a subsequent bench of the same tribunal is legally bound to follow it or refer the matter to a Larger/Special Bench. By ignoring previous rulings, Kotecha’s decision entered dangerous per incuriam territory.

The Tribunal in Kotecha’s case introduced an unprecedented judicial philosophy when:

  •  It reasoned that special-rate tax provisions like sections 111A and 112 operated as a complete code and such code was entirely independent of the normal slab-rate taxation. Obviously, these sections do not act or claim to be complete codes as the gains are computed under regular provisions of the Income-tax Act.
  •  It held that the provision for rebate was rate-sensitive and as the rebate was conceptually designed to provide relief from slab rates taxation, the tax liability calculated at special rates cannot be reduced from a general rebate. For this to be true, there should be an express provision that rejects a claim of rebate in the cases of capital gains altogether. 
The ink had barely dried on Kotecha’s order when a co-ordinate bench, ironically,  the very same Rajkot Bench led by the same member, completely bypassed the Kotecha logic. In the case of Kavita Paras Shah, ITA No. 732/Raj/2026, the Bench explicitly ruled that the restriction denying a section 87A rebate on special-rate incomes was introduced prospectively from Assessment Year 2026-27 by the Finance Act, 2025 and for the preceding Assessment Years, the Income Tax Department could not  retroactively import the said restriction, thereby squarely granting the rebate on tax on STCG u/s 111A for A.Y. 2025-26. The decision was delivered by the same member who delivered Kotecha’s decision was a party to this decision.
The Kotecha ruling deviates from the overwhelming majority of the tribunal decisions delivered across India (including Benches at Ahmedabad, Agra, Bengaluru, Chandigarh, Chennai, Indore, Jaipur, Mumbai and Rajkot), and should be viewed at best as an aberration rather than the settled law.
The claim for the rebate by the assessee is stronger. When two conflicting views are available from co-ordinate benches of the same Tribunal, the view favourable to the assessee must prevail, refer 88 ITR 192(SC) Vegetable Products Ltd. As heavily highlighted in Kavita Paras Shah’s case, the text modification by the Finance Act, 2025 is an explicit admission by the Legislature that the text prior to AY 2026-27 did not bar the rebate. The Kotecha ruling or any other ruling cannot apply to a person opting for the old regime of taxation.
In the case of Chamber of Tax Consultants 473 ITR 85 (Bom), while disposing of the writ petition against denial of such claim in the return utility itself, the Bombay High Court made the following observations:
“The revenue did not show any provision under the Income-tax Act which expressly debars an assessee to raise or make the claim under section 87A qua the tax computed at the rates specified in the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC. If that be so, then certainly one cannot accept the argument that the revenues’ case is crystal clear…
The issue raised for consideration on the claim under section 87A is, at best, highly debatable and contentious. Therefore, the revenue would not be justified in assuming that its interpretation is open and shut, and based upon such a conclusion, shut out bona fide claims for rebate under section 87A”
The Bombay High Court therefore did not decide the issue of allowability of rebate in such cases, since that was not the prayer before it.
Under either of the Assessment Years or the enactments, the core thesis stands completely firm. There remains a glaring absence of an explicit, text-based prohibition against claiming a rebate against tax payable at the special rates under section 111A (section 196) or section 112 (sections 197) capital gains based on three established maxims of interpretation:
  •  Both the old and new Acts explicitly state that the rebate is not available against long-term capital gains taxed under section 112A (section 198). In statutory drafting, when the legislature explicitly names one item to exclude it, it deliberately chooses not to exclude the others. By failing to explicitly name sections 111A or 112 (sections 196 and 197) next to section 112A (section 198), the literal text continues to legally permit the rebate against tax payable under such provisions that provide for special rate of taxes.
  •  There is no room for intendment in tax laws as established in the landmark Supreme Court ruling in Cape Brandy Syndicate’s case, 12 TC 358 and consistently followed by the Indian courts: “In a taxing Act, one has to look merely at what is clearly said. There is no room for any intendment.” CIT v. Ajax 55 ITR 741(SC). A Memorandum explaining a Finance Bill does not change what is eventually written into the final legislative text.
  •  Labelling a rebate as “rate-sensitive” is a highly convoluted, non-textual interpretation invented by the Income Tax Department and accepted in Prafulkumar Kotecha’s case. The statute simply says the rebate applies to the “total income-tax payable on total income.” “Total income” by definition includes capital gains.
Till the time the issue under consideration is settled by a court ruling  against the claim, it is wiser to hold that section 87A (section 156(3)) merely acts as a quantitative ceiling, not a qualitative bar on the types of income. Until the legislature explicitly inserts a clear, sweeping clause stating, “no rebate under this section shall be allowed against tax computed under any special rate provisions,” or amends sections 111A and 112 to replicate the strictures of section 112A, a claim for rebate against the tax payable on capital gains at the special rates, in our considered opinion, is valid in law.

DIT v. Star Cruises (India) P. Ltd. : Providing cruise services with on-board entertainment and de-boarding options falls within the meaning of carriage under shipping presumptive taxation.

7. The Director of Income Tax (International Taxation) Vs. Star Cruises (India) P. Ltd. (2026) 188 taxmann.com 1068 (SC)

Special provision for computing profits and gains of shipping business other than cruise shipping in case of non-residents – Section 44B – The meaning of the word ‘carriage’ cannot be restricted to mean the carriage from Port A to Port B – The possibility of passengers de-boarding at intermediate ports was not taken into account by the Assessing Officer – On a voyage, the provision of ancillary services did not take away from the meaning of ‘carriage’ as per Section 44B of the Act.

The Superstar Libra Ltd. (for short, ‘SLL’), a non-resident entity, operated a cruise known as “Superstar Libra” in India. The Assessee (Star Cruises (India) Pvt. Limited), the agent of SLL, was responsible for conducting the cruise and collecting revenue from the sale of cruise packages and shore excursions in India.

The assessee computed the income accruing in favour of SLL by applying Section 44B of the Act and estimated the income at 7.5% of the cruise fare collected by the assessee.

The Assessing Officer, vide order dated 30.03.2007, held that Section 44B of the Act is applicable in cases of carriage of goods, passengers, etc, and, in the view of the Assessing Officer, the term “carriage” means taking or transporting from one place to another or from one port to another. SLL conducted cruise services originating from and terminating at Mumbai Port, i.e., a round trip. During the round trip, SLL extended hospitality and provided entertainment. Therefore, the activity of SLL falls under entertainment and hospitality and does not include carriage of passengers/goods within the meaning of section 44B of the Act. Consequent to such view, the Assessing Officer estimated deemed income at 25% of the cruise fare collected for and on behalf of SLL, not at 7.5% as claimed by the Assessee.

The Assessee carried the matter in appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals). By Order dated 15.06.2007, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal and set aside the Assessment Order dated 30.03.2007.

The Appellate Authority appreciated all the circumstances of the case under Section 44B of the Act and held that the deemed income of SLL was to be estimated at 7.5% of the receipts received from the cruise fare.

The Revenue carried the matter in appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, and the Tribunal, by the order dated 01.07.2009, dismissed the appeal. The Tribunal while rejecting the Assessing Officer’s interpretation of the term ‘carriage’, affirmed that a round-trip voyage constitutes two separate acts of carriage, i.e, from station A to station B and back to station A. Further, the assessee also offered one-way cruises, and passengers booking round-trip cruises were entitled to disembark at intermediate ports without being compelled to return to Mumbai. Also, the booking slips established that the primary fees collected from passengers were for cabin and transport fares. Any on-board entertainment, whether included or paid separately, was incidental to the main business of operating ships. The Tribunal noted that the CBDT Circular Nos. 763 and 169 dated 18.02.1996 and 23.06.1975, respectively, clarified that carriage payments included handling charges and that Section 44B of the Act was designed to simplify the computation of taxable profits for foreign shipping enterprises. Since SLL was a non-resident entity engaged in the business of operating ships, it fulfilled the essential conditions under the said section. The Tribunal therefore directed that SLL’s income be assessed at the statutory presumptive rate of 7.5% of gross cruise fare receipts for tax deduction under Section 195 of the Act rather than at 25% of income estimated by the Assessing Officer.

The Revenue carried the matter in appeal before the High Court, which dismissed the appeals.

The Supreme Court granted leave in the matter(s) on the following two questions, namely: (i) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Hon’ble High Court was justified in upholding the Hon’ble ITAT’s decision that the assessee is engaged in the business of operation of ships and is entitled to be assessed under Section 44B of the Income Tax Act? (ii) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Hon’ble High Court was justified in upholding the Hon’ble ITAT’s decision without appreciating the fact that
the business activity of assessee was primarily that of providing hospitality and entertainment on board the cruise ship and not that of mere transportation of passengers?

The Supreme Court noted that the Assessing Officer was of the view that, to attract the meaning of the word ‘carriage’, the movement should be from place ‘A’ to place ‘B’.

According to the Supreme Court, it was difficult to confine the meaning of the word ‘carriage’ in the matter attributed by the Assessing Officer. The Appellate Authority and the Tribunal, being competent authorities to examine the facts in issue, had held that the activity undertaken by SLL did not fall outside the expression of ‘carriage’ as per Section 44B of the Act. In the facts and circumstances of this case, SLL, being a foreign entity, was providing cruise services in India through the Assessee. The finding recorded was that the possibility of passengers de-boarding at intermediate ports was not considered by the Assessing Officer. On a voyage, the providing of ancillary services did not take away from the meaning of ‘carriage’ as per Section 44B of the Act. The meaning adopted by the Assessing Officer was restrictive in the facts and circumstances of this case. According to the Supreme Court, the error was factually corrected by the impugned Orders.

The Supreme Court without reiterating the same reasoning, was satisfied that, in the facts and circumstances of the case, the view taken in respect of the subject assessment years 2006-07, 2007-08, and 2008-09, namely, that Section 44B of the Act was attracted to the estimated income of SLL, did not warrant interference.

PCIT v. Essar Agrotech Ltd. : Share capital and premium additions under section 68 are unsustainable where the identity, creditworthiness, and transaction genuineness are proved.

11. PCIT – 6, Mumbai Vs. Essar Agrotech Ltd.

[ITXA No. 128 OF 2020, dated 29/07/2026, (Bom) (HC) ] A.Y.2012-13.

Section 68 – Cash Credit – share capital and share premium – identity, genuineness of transactions, and creditworthiness of the parties, have been proved by filing necessary details – complete details of the money trail to explain source of investment.

The Assessee-Company was engaged in the business of agricultural activity and cultivation of flowers, vegetables etc. and rendering services for maintenance of mango orchards. The Assessee-Company filed its Return of Income for A.Y.2012-13 on 30th September 2012 declaring its total income at Rs.11,07,178/. The case of the Assessee was completed under Section 143(3) on 30th March 2015 determining the total income of the Assessee at Rs.11,90,82,890/- by making various additions towards share capital and share premium under Section 68 of the Act, as well as disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income under Section 14A read with Rule 8D(2)(ii) and 8D(2)(iii) of the Income Tax Rules, 1962 (the Rules).

Before the CIT(Appeals), the Assessee submitted that premium was a capital receipt and that the Assessee being a Company, was not required to prove the purpose or justification for charging premium on shares, and what was relevant was whether or not the identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of the parties investing has been proved. According to the Assessee, it had filed all the details in order to prove all the ingredients, and hence the Assessing Officer erred in making any addition towards share capital and share premium under Section 68 of the Act.

The CIT (Appeals) deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer towards disallowance of expenses incurred in relation to exempt income. Further, the CIT (Appeals) also deleted the addition made towards share capital and share premium by following the decision of this Court in Gagandeep Infrastructure Pvt Ltd V/S CIT [(394) ITR 680 (Bom)]. The CIT (Appeals) held that when identity, genuineness of transactions, and creditworthiness of the parties, have been proved by filing necessary details, there was no reason for the Assessing Officer to make the addition only for the reason that shares had been issued at a higher premium. With these observations, he deleted the said addition made by the Assessing Officer.

Aggrieved by the order of the CIT (Appeals), the Revenue preferred an Appeal before the ITAT. As far as the issue regarding the addition towards share capital and share premium was concerned, the ITAT concluded that the CIT (Appeals) rightly deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer on this count. The ITAT, after perusing the facts and circumstances of the present case, concluded that the Assessee had filed complete details including the identity of the subscriber to the share capital, as per which the Assessee had issued Rs.22,50,000/- equity shares at Rs.50/- per share, having a face value of Rs.10/- per share, with a premium of Rs.40/- per share. The ITAT noted that the Assessee had also filed complete details of the financial statements of the subscriber of the shares and its bank statements.

Further, the share capital issued by the Assessee had also been disclosed by the subscriber in its financial statements. The ITAT noted that the matter did not stop here. It noted that the subscriber’s assessment was subjected to scrutiny and an order was passed under Section 143(3) where the Assessing Officer made no adverse comments in respect of the amount invested in the Assessee-Company’s shares. Over and above this, the Assessee had also filed complete details of the money trail to explain the source of the investment made in Assessee-Company’s shares. The ITAT further noted that the subscriber to the share capital had received the amount from various other group companies to make the aforesaid investment. Looking at these facts and considering that it was not the case of the Assessing Officer that the share capital had been issued to an unknown subscriber, nor was the subscriber an accommodation entry provider, the ITAT held that the CIT (Appeals) correctly deleted the aforesaid addition.

The ITAT held that once the identity of the subscriber had been proved with the necessary details, and the genuineness of the transaction and creditworthiness of the parties had been established, then merely for the reason that the shares had been issued at a high premium, addition could not be made under Section 68 of the IT Act. The ITAT held that the issue of shares at a premium and subscription to such shares is a decision between two parties, namely, the Company issuing the shares, and the party subscribing to those shares, and the Assessing Officer did not have any role to play as long as ingredients provided under Section 68 of the IT Act were proved or established.

The learned counsel appearing on behalf of the Revenue drew attention to the second proviso to Section 68. He submitted that the aforesaid proviso stipulates that where the Assessee was a company (not being a company in which the public are substantially interested), and the sum so credited consists of share application money, share capital, share premium or any other such amount by whatever name called, any explanation offered by such Assessee Company shall be deemed to be unsatisfactory unless (a) the person, being a resident in whose name such credit is recorded in the books of such company also offers an explanation about the nature and source of such sum so credited; and (b) such explanation in the opinion of the Assessing Officer has been found to be satisfactory. According to the Revenue, the stipulation in the second proviso to Section 68 had not been fulfilled in the present case and therefore a substantial question of law arose from the impugned order.

The learned Advocate for the Respondent Assessee firstly submitted that the second proviso to Section 68 was inserted by the Finance Act, 2012 with effect from 1st April 2013. In other words, the same came into operation from A.Y. 2013-14. In the facts of the present case, the Assessment Year involved was A.Y. 2012-13 and the said proviso could have no retrospective application, especially considering that the said proviso was not introduced with retrospective effect and does not contain the words “for removal of doubts” or state that it is “declaratory”. He, therefore, submitted that the proviso cannot have retrospective operation and would apply only prospectively from A.Y. 2013-14. Apart from this, the learned counsel submitted that even assuming for the sake of argument that the said proviso were to apply, in the facts of the present case, there was clearly an explanation
about the nature and source of funds that were invested by the subscriber, namely the investor. He, therefore, submitted that the reliance placed on the second proviso to Section 68 was wholly misconceived.

The Hon’ble Court observed that there was no need to determine whether the second proviso to Section 68 operates prospectively or has any retrospective effect. In the facts of the present case, the ITAT had given a factual finding that the subscriber had subscribed to the shares of the Assessee-Company by receiving the amount from various other group companies. This factual finding clearly satisfied the condition laid down in the second proviso to Section 68.

The Hon’ble Court held that no substantial question of law arose in the Appeal. In view of the aforesaid, the Appeal was dismissed.

PCIT v. Ansal Phalak Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. : Addition under section 68 cannot be made when the assessee produces sufficient evidence to prove the genuineness of foreign investment.

10. PCIT – 4, Delhi Vs. M/S Ansal Phalak Infrastructure Pvt Ltd (Now Known As New Look Builders And Developers Pvt Ltd)

[ITA No. 770/2025, dated 19/08/2026, (Delhi) (HC)] [AY 2011-12 ]

[Arising from ITA No. 5658/Del/2015 Delhi Bench: ‘E’ dated 18.12.2024]

Section 68 – Cash Credit – Investment – Compulsory Convertible Debentures – details filed to prove genuineness of the transaction – Onus discharged by assessee.

The Assessing Officer (‘AO’) had made an addition of Rs. 55 crores under Section 68 of the Act against the assessee for Assessment Year (AY) 2011-12, alleging that investment made by two companies namely M/s New Dimension Holdings Ltd. of Mauritius and M/s Velford Ventures Ltd. of Cyprus, in the respondent-assessee company was unexplained.

The aforementioned two companies had made investment and subscribed to the assessee’s shares and Compulsory Convertible Debentures (hereinafter referred to as ‘CCDs’) to the tune of Rs. 55 crores, which raised a doubt in the AO’s mind. Since the amount involved an international transaction, he made a reference to the Transfer Pricing Officer (‘TPO’) while also making a reference to the Foreign Tax and Tax Research (‘FT&TR’).

The AO conducted an enquiry and doubted the creditworthiness of those companies, and vide assessment order dated 31.03.2015 held that the onus to prove creditworthiness of the amount so received lays upon the assessee and since it failed to discharge such burden, he added the amount of Rs. 55 crores under Section 68 of the Act in the hands of the respondent-assessee.

The CIT(A), allowed the assessee’s appeal vide its order dated 28.07.2015, after going through the record and additional evidence which the assessee had produced during the course of appeal being audited accounts of M/s Redfort India Real Estate Fund II LLC, Mauritius, parent investor of the original investor companies, who had invested in respondent-company. Moreover, the CIT(A) dealt with the material, which the assessee had produced before the AO and then recorded a categorical finding that these two companies of Mauritius and Cyprus had entered into an agreement with the respondent-assessee due to which even the name of respondent was changed. He noted that an interest @ 16% p.a. or 16% coupon was paid on the CCDs.

The revenue challenged the said order before the Tribunal, which affirmed the findings recorded by the CIT(A) by way of the order dated 18.12.2024.

The Revenue Counsel pointed out that the Assessment Year in question was 2011-12 i.e., prior to the amendment brought in Section 68 of the Act which was introduced with effect from 01.04.2013 and thus, the AO could well ask an assessee to satisfy about the ‘source of the source’. He contended that since the investment remained unexplained,addition under section 68 of the Act was totally justified.

The counsel for the Assessee submitted that due explanation was given by the assessee. He pointed out that the AO had referred to the TPO’s report and recorded that the TPO had given no adverse report, as well as the fact that the assessee had produced in evidence a copy of the agreement between the investor companies and the respondent-assessee. He argued that the factum of 16% CCDs was known to the AO and yet, he had completely ignored such fact and dealt with only that part which suited his viewpoint and whims, while ignoring the reply which served the cause of the respondent-assessee. The assessee was able to procure the audited balance sheet of M/s Redfort India Real Estate Fund II LLC, Mauritius, being the investor in those two companies that have invested in the respondent-company. The CIT(A) recorded a finding in the assessee’s favour that the investment was genuine and duly explained.

The Hon’ble Court held that the Appellate Authority had gone through and carefully deliberated on the transaction and recorded the finding that the respondent-company was incorporated on 13.09.2010 in the name of Phalak Infrastructure Ltd. with a share capital of 1,00,000 by the Ansal Group for carrying out real estate development. The company entered into an investment-cum-collaboration agreement with New Dimension Holdings Ltd., Mauritius and Velford Ventures Ltd., Cyprus and, as a part of the collaboration agreement, the name of the company was changed to Ansal Phalak Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. with effect from 03.05.2011. The Articles of Association and Memorandum of Association were also revised. It was also found that, upon execution of the agreement, both the foreign investors invested money in the assessee company-New Dimension Holdings Ltd., Mauritius acquired 25.9% shares of the respondent-company for Rs. 5,70,50,000/-, while Velford Ventures Ltd., Cyprus acquired 14 shares of the respondent-assessee for Rs.2,03,000/- and invested Rs. 49,90,47,000/- in CCDs issued by the respondent-company. It was also found that both these companies are registered in Mauritius and Cyprus, and are taxpayers in their respective jurisdictions. The CIT(A) had also recorded that the respondent-assessee had also filed before the AO copies of the prescribed Certificate of Foreign Inward Remittance, issued by the Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation Limited setting out all details of remittance, the purpose of remittance, and the description of remittance, including equity shares application money as well as the issue of CCDs. It is also to be noted that the respondent-assessee had filed copies of the audited balance sheets of both the investors companies. The findings recorded by the CIT(A) and as affirmed by the Tribunal, are based on the material available on record and the Revenue had not been able to show them to be perverse in any manner.

While dismissing the appeal, the Hon’ble Court observed that the Appellate Authority had dealt with each of the documents filed by the assessee with great detail and care – while giving the page numbers of the paperbook – whereas the AO has completely ignored them. The Court further observed that an adjudicatory process enjoins upon an AO to deal with the reply and documents filed by the assessee in an objective manner, and his duty as an AO was not only to protect the interests of the Revenue and generate revenue for the country, but also to judiciously consider the reply and pleas including the judgments and documents which an assessee relies upon or furnishes. Brushing aside or ignoring documents filed by an assessee leads to a breach of the principles of natural justice and hits at the procedural fairness thereby causing injustice which, in the instant case, has been meted out to the assessee.

The appeal of the Revenue was dismissed.

Bipinkumar Girdharlal Parekh v. ACIT : Reopening assessment based on search-related material is invalid if initiated beyond three years for income escapement under fifty lakhs.

30. Bipinkumar Girdharlal Parekh v. ACIT

(2026) 187 taxmann.com 904 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2021-22: Date of order 15th June 2026

S. 148 r.w.s. 149 and 152 of ITA 1961

Re-opening of assessment — Initiated pursuant to search in the case of another Company and Group — Search conducted on 18th June 2023 — Incriminating material found — 148A(1) Notice issued upon the assessee 31st March 2025 — 148A(3) order passed and notice u/s. 148 issued for re-opening the assessment on 19th May 2025 — Since search was conducted on 18th November 2023, provisions of section 147 to 151 as they stood prior to commencement of Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 applied by virtue of section 152 — Alleged escapement of income below Rs. 50 lakhs — Section 149(1)(a) applied — Since 148 notice issued beyond three years, re-opening of assessment liable to be quashed.

The assessee is engaged in the business of transportation and has a business relationship with DCW Ltd. wherein it hires trucks and offers it for transportation. The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2021-22 on 14/12/2021 declaring total income at Rs. 38,51,910. The return of income was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Subsequently, a search was conducted on DCW Ltd. Group on 18/11/2023 u/s. 132 of the Act. Pursuant to the search, a notice u/s. 148A(1) was issued upon the assessee on 31st March 2025 for re-opening the assessment on the ground that the assessee had raised inflated bills for transportation expenses amounting to Rs. 32,71,205 and to that extent the income of the assessee had escaped assessment. In response to the notice, the assessee filed its response and submitted the bills of freight and transportation.

The objections filed by the assessee were rejected and an order dated 19th May 2025 was passed u/s. 148A(3) of the Act holding it to be a fit case for issue of notice u/s. 148 of the Act. A notice u/s. 148 of the Act dated 23/05/2025 was also issued along with the said order.

The assessee challenged the order and the notice u/s. 148 in a writ petition filed before the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court primarily on the ground that since the search was conducted on or after 1st April 2021 but before 1st September 2024, the provisions of the Act as they stood prior to the amendment by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 will be applicable as per the provisions of section 152(3) of the Act and as per the provisions of the Act as they stood prior to the amendment of Finance No.2 Act 2024, approval of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax was required which had not been done in the case of the assessee. Further, the notice issued on 23rd May 2025 u/s. 148 of the Act was barred by limitation as it was issued beyond a period of 3 years from the end of the relevant financial year.

The High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Since the date of search fell within the period from the 1st April 2021 to the 1st September 2024, the provision of sections 147 to 151 of the Act, as they stood prior to the Finance Act (No. 2), 2024, shall apply.

ii) In the present case, the provision of section 149(1)(a) of the Act, which prescribes a time limit of three years, will get attracted, as the alleged escapement of income is below the amount of Rs.50 lakhs, which finds place in the provision of Section 149(1)(b) of the Act. The relevant assessment year in the present case is A.Y. 2021-22, and hence, as per the provision of Section 149(1)(a) of the Act, the end of the relevant assessment year would be 31st March 2022. However, the impugned notice u/s. 148 of the Act has been issued on 23rd May 2025 for A.Y. 2021-22, which is beyond the limitation of three years, and hence, the reopening of the assessment runs contrary to the provision of Section 149 of the Finance (No. 1) Act, 2024, and hence is liable to be interfered with.

iii) The contention raised before us by the Revenue, to the extent that the Finance (No. 2) Act of 2024 will apply in the present case, as there is no search conducted against the petitioner, is misconceived, since the reopening of the assessment against the petitioner is exclusively premised upon the incriminating materials found during the search u/s. 132 of the Act. The provisions of section 152(3) of the Act are not limited for undertaking the reassessment against searched person only, as projected before us by the Revenue, and not against other person, who is not subjected to search. The provision of Section 152(3) of the Act is applicable to all the assessee, where the reassessment proceedings are initiated, ‘on the basis’ or ‘as a consequence’ of a search conducted between 1st April 2021 and 1st September 2025, and against whom incriminating material is found. However, the re-opening of the assessment is subject to limitations as provided u/s. 149 of the Act.

iv) As mentioned herein-above the provision of section 132 of the Act finds place in the provision of section 149 of the Act and hence, the reassessment, since it emanates on the incriminating material found during the search at M/s. DCW Ltd. group, connecting the present petitioner with such material, the provision of section 149 of the Finance (No.1) Act prescribing limitation gets attracted. Thus, on this sole ground, the writ petition succeeds, and the impugned order dated 19th May 2025 and the impugned notice dated 23rd May 2025 are hereby quashed and set aside. The writ petition stands allowed.”

Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. v. Dy. CIT : High Court has jurisdiction if consequences of demand are felt within its territory; non-existent or unserved demands are unsustainable.

29. Capgemini Technology Services India Ltd. v. Dy. CIT: (2026) 488 ITR 292 (Bom): 2026 SCC OnLine Bom 3755: (2026) 350 CTR 719 (Bom)

Date of order 24th March 2026

Article 226 of Constitution of India

Recovery of tax — Writ jurisdiction of High Court under Art. 226 — Territorial jurisdiction of Court:— (A) Power of High Court to issue writ to authority not within its territorial jurisdiction of Court provided cause of action wholly or in part arises within its jurisdiction; (B) Doctrine of forum conveniens and “cause of action” — Court has to consider each matter on appreciation of facts involved therein; (C) Recovery of tax — Notice of demand — Amalgamation of erstwhile company with assessee — Recovery notice issued in the name of erstwhile company originating from Delhi but received by assessee in Pune — Recovery notice and demands having direct impact on assessee in Pune and consequences of recovery notice and demand would be felt in Pune — Transfer of case from Delhi to Pune — Officer who was to defend case and deal with recovery of demand in Pune — Right officer to writ could be issued? — Held by High Court that part of cause of action clearly arising within territorial jurisdiction of Bombay High Court — Writ petition is maintainable before Bombay High Court — The impugned demands cannot be sustained.

By an order of the Delhi High Court dated 16th May 2007, the company F was amalgamated with company A. Thereafter, by an order dated 23rd December 2022 of the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench, A got amalgamated with the assessee company which had its registered office in Pune.

In February 2023, the assessee received a notice u/s. 220 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (dated 5th February 2023) in the name of the erstwhile entity, F, from Assessing Officer Delhi (respondent No. 2). In the said notice, the assessee was asked to pay the outstanding demand, inter alia, of Rs. 3,28,785 for the A. Y. 2001-02, Rs. 1,24,577 for the A. Y. 2002-03 and Rs. 28,87,714 for the A. Y. 2003-04.

Upon receipt of the recovery notice, the assessee filed applications under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (“the RTI Act”) seeking copies of the orders giving rise to such demands. The assessee received a reply from Assessing Officer in Delhi stating that for the A. Ys. 2001-02 and 2002-03, the demands were on account of rectification/intimation orders, but no such orders were provided. Instead, illegible screenshots of the computation sheets from the system were furnished. For the A. Y. 2003-04, it was stated that records were not available.

The assessee preferred appeals before the first appellate authority under the Right to Information Act, wherein directions were issued to Assessing Officer Delhi to furnish full information. Despite such directions, no orders were supplied.

In these circumstances, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court and contended that these demands are non-existent and the recovery notice is bad in law. The Department raised a preliminary objection regarding the territorial jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court to issue writs against authorities located outside its territories. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) After the insertion of article 226(2), every High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises, shall have powers to issue directions, orders or writs to any Government, authority or person notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or the residence of such person is not within those territories. Thus, even if the authority concerned is not within the territorial jurisdiction of a High Court, still the High Court will have the power to issue writ to such authority, provided the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises within the jurisdiction of such High Court. The amendment was aimed at widening the scope of territorial jurisdiction for writs to be issued by different High Courts.

ii) The provisions of article 226(2) cannot be construed as a requirement in addition to the provisions of article 226(1). Article 226(2) has used the phrase “may also be exercised” which clearly suggests that article 226(2) is not an additional condition but an alternate condition. Moreover, article 226(1), as interpreted by the apex court provides for a court to issue a writ only to the authorities within the territories of that court, whereas article 226(2) provides that notwithstanding that the seat of Government or authority or the residence of such person is not within those territories, a writ can be issued by a court where part or whole of cause of action arise. The two clauses are mutually exclusive and both cannot apply simultaneously by the very wordings of the clauses. The whole purpose of introducing article 226(2) was to alleviate the inconvenience caused to the petitioners by dragging them to the court which exercises jurisdiction over the authority or the respondent within the territorial jurisdiction of such court.

iii) The doctrine of forum conveniens and “cause of action” are very fact specific and a court has to consider each matter on appreciation of the facts involved therein. A part of the cause of action has clearly arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this court. In fact, the case of the petitioner is on a better footing as compared to the other cases. In the present case, the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax, Delhi-1, vide order dated 13th December 2023 u/s. 127 of the Act, has transferred the jurisdiction over the case to the Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax/Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax, Circle-1(1), Pune.

iv) In the present case, there is absolutely no material on record to substantiate the existence of valid orders giving rise to the impugned demands. The respondents have failed to produce the orders and service records, despite repeated opportunities. The failure of respondent No. 2 to respond and the inability of the Pune Officer to locate records leads to the inevitable conclusion that no such valid orders exist or were ever served upon the petitioner. An adverse inference must necessarily be drawn against the respondents. Old matters and demands cannot be allowed to suddenly surface on the portal without the underlying orders being available and served. Consequently, the impugned demands cannot be sustained.”

Dinar Tarcar Resources (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT : Prosecution for tax evasion is unsustainable if delay in payment was due to a business ban and lacks guilty intent.

28. Dinar Tarcar Resources (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT

2026 (8) TMI 57 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2012-13: Date of order 28th July 2026

S. 276C of ITA 1961

Prosecution u/s. 276C — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of taxes by the assessee — Delay on account of closure of business due to ban on the activity of mining in the State of Goa — Nil income of the assessee — Outstanding demand paid along with interest and penalty — Submissions of the assessee rejected — Prosecution initiated — Complaint filed against the assessee before the Judicial Magistrate — Mere delay or failure to pay, without mens rea, does not satisfy the penal provision — Specific wilful act or circumstance demonstrating an attempt to evade payment not pointed out — Criminal complaint and the process issued against the petitioners were unsustainable.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2012-13 declaring total income at Rs. 4,76,61,800. The income returned by the assessee was accepted vide order dated 15th March 2016. Subsequently, a letter was addressed to the assessee demanding the payment of declared tax. In response, the assessee filed a letter stating that the assessee was presently unable to pay tax as the mining operations had been suspended in Goa and the assessee had no income. Thereafter, on 4th October 2013 the assessee paid Rs. 30 lakhs towards tax dues. However, the department issued further demand to the assessee.

Subsequently, several communications were exchanged between the assessee and the tax department. The Principal Commissioner issued a notice dated 23rd November 2016 inviting objections to the proposed prosecution u/s. 276C(2) of the Act. The assessee filed objections to the proposed prosecution and stated that the assessee was in genuine difficulty which had led to delay in payment of tax and meanwhile continued to make payment of tax in parts along with penalty and interest. The assessee also responded to the demand notices issued earlier thereby stating that there was no intention to default on the tax payments and also informed that due to the ban on mining in the State of Goa, there was no revenue and hence the assessee was not able to pay the tax liability. It was also informed to the Department that the assessee was seeking to sell some of its assets and pay tax liability from the proceeds thereof. The submissions of the assessee were not considered and order dated 30th January 2017 was passed by the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax granting permission to initiate prosecution u/s. 279(1) of the Act on the ground that the assessee had wilfully evaded the payment of tax liability.

Pursuant to the sanction for launch of prosecution, the assessee paid the outstanding tax liability along with interest u/s. 220(2) of the Act. However, the department filed a complaint before the Chief Judicial Magistrate u/s. 200 of the Criminal Procedure Code on 10th March 2017 alleging offence punishable u/s. 276C(2) of the Act.

By 20th March 2017, the entire liability was cleared by the assessee, therefore, the Assessing Officer passed an order u/s. 154 of the Act holding that the net payable amount by the assessee was NIL. Despite the net amount payable by the assessee being NIL, the Judicial Magistrate issued process against the assessee vide order dated 29th January 2018.

Against the said order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court which was quashed and set-aside and the matter was remanded back to the Judicial Magistrate.

Pursuant to the remand on 1st March 2019 and almost 6 years later, the Judicial Magistrate passed the order once again issuing process which has once again been challenged before the Bombay High Court by way of criminal writ petition.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as under:

“i) Although the section provides an explanation as to what would include ‘wilful attempts’, neither the words ‘wilful’, ‘attempt’ nor the term ‘wilful attempt’ has been specifically defined in the I.T. Act. The explanation to section 276-C(2), which is inclusive, provides meaning to the words ‘wilful attempt’ used in the section. There are four categories of acts which ought to be construed as ‘attempts’ which are listed in the explanation to the section.

ii) A plain reading of the section requires that there ought to be ‘wilful’ ‘attempts’ to evade the payment of tax, penalty or interest under the I.T. Act. The word ‘wilful’ precedes the word ‘attempts’ in the section. Without fulfilling the requirement of ‘wilfulness’, the provisions of the section cannot be made applicable and cannot be invoked to prosecute a person. Therefore, there has to be an intention to evade the liability of tax, penalty or interest.

iii) The Section uses the words ‘wilful attempt’ and not ‘wilful default’. Relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of S. Sundaram Pillai and others v. V. R. Pattabiraman, is remaked that the word ‘wilful’ denotes an act consciously and deliberately done and signifies a course of conduct marked by the exercise of volition rather than one that is accidental, negligent or involuntary. The word ‘wilful’ has a peculiar characteristic indicating the guilty mental state of the party.

iv) Considering the definitions of ‘wilful’ provided in various dictionaries and in the interpretation of the words ‘wilful default’ provided by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the above judgement, a similar meaning ought to be adopted to interpret the term ‘wilful attempt’ used in the section. The word ‘wilful’ introduces a mental element and requires looking into the mind of a person by gauging the person’s actions indicative of one’s state of mind. Thus, in order to prosecute a person under section 276-C(2), the conduct of a person acquires importance.

v) A person, in such a case, ought to have deliberately, intentionally and consciously made attempts to evade payment of tax, penalty or interest under the I.T. Act. It does not include an unintentional act, an accidental act or a casual act or genuine inability. The word ‘wilful’ used in the section imports the concept of mens rea in the requirement of the section. Therefore, on mere delay or mere failure without there being mens rea, the provisions of the Section cannot be invoked. No casual approach can be adopted while invoking the provisions of the section. The provisions of the section being penal, all the ingredients of the offence must be established in the complaint. The complaint should specifically mention wilful attempts made by a person to evade tax, penalty or interest. Merely by making allegations that there is a wilful attempt to evade the tax in the complaint, the complaint cannot be maintained

vi) In the present case, the 1st Petitioner admittedly continued to pay the demands raised by the Respondent. Admittedly, there was delay in view of the closure of the business and therefore the 1st Petitioner has paid the interest. The acts of the 1st Petitioner are bona fide because the 1st Petitioner made requests and sought time to pay the tax liability and periodically kept paying the tax along with interest. Importantly, prior to filing of the said Complaint, out of Rs. 5,20,90,289/- only an amount of Rs. 26,08,047/- was not paid by the 1st Petitioner, which was paid immediately on 20th March 2017. Consequently, on 29th March 2017, the Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Central Circle, Panaji issued an Order holding that the net payable by the 1st Petitioner is NIL. Therefore, the acts of the 1st Petitioner cannot fall within the definition of ‘attempts’, which means an act or an instance of making an effort to accomplish something. In this case, the 1st Petitioner has paid the tax with interest, and therefore certainly the acts of the 1st Petitioner were not ‘wilful’, and there were no attempts to evade the tax liability. The Complaint does not specify the alleged wilful attempts made by the Petitioners to evade tax. The penal provisions are invoked in the present case solely on the basis of vague allegations, without establishing the ingredients of an offence.

vii) In view thereof, I am satisfied that the said Complaint filed by the Respondent is without any basis and does not fulfil the requirement of the Section. The important facts are not considered by the learned CJM. The learned CJM has mechanically passed the impugned Order when, on the face of the said Complaint, the ingredients of the offence were not made out. The learned CJM has not followed the due process of law. Therefore, I reject all the submissions made by Ms. Linhares on behalf of the Respondent. The judgments cited by Ms. Linhares are not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the present case, particularly in view of the fact that no ingredients of the offence are made out in the Complaint. Therefore, I find that no fruitful purpose will be achieved by setting the criminal law in motion. In light of the above, and in the peculiar facts and circumstances of this case, the impugned Order dated 7th November 2025 and Criminal Case pending before the Chief Judicial Magistrate, ‘A’ Court at Merces, are hereby quashed and set aside.”

BCCI v. ACIT : The Tribunal exceeded its jurisdiction by ruling on the merits of a non-statutory “advisory” communication after declaring the appeal unmaintainable

28. BCCI v. ACIT: (2026) 488 ITR 152 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 317: (2025) 344 CTR 883 (Bom)

Date of order 18th February 2025

Ss. 12A, 12AA and 253 of ITA 1961

A. Charitable purpose :— (a) Exemption — Registration — Director (Exemption) by letter expressing view that as consequence of amendment of objects by assessee, assessee’s registration no longer survives — Appeal by assessee to Tribunal challenging the communication — Tribunal accepting the contention of the Department and holding that appeal against communication not maintainable — On merits Tribunal upholding view expressed in communication — High Court held, Tribunal exceeded jurisdiction in going in to merits — Communication quashed with clarification that question of cancellation of assessee’s registration or entitlement to exemption would be decided by authorities without being affected by view expressed therein or by Tribunal; (b) Power to grant exemption — Power to cancel registration — No power to issue “advisories” or non-statutory opinions intending to affect an assessee.

B. Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Appeal challenging communication to assessee from Director (Exemptions) — Department contending in assessee’s appeal that communication not an order and therefore not appealable — Tribunal accepting contention and holding appeal against communication not maintainable — Tribunal not entitled thereafter to enter upon merits of view expressed in communication.

The assessee, the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), is a society established under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act with the aim of promoting sports, particularly cricket. The assessee was granted registration u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, on 12th February 1996. The memorandum of association of the assessee was amended on 1st June 2006 and 21st August 2007. According to the assessee, such amendments do not change the fundamental objects of the assessee, i. e., the promotion of sports. However, such changes were not intimated to the tax authorities who had granted registration u/s. 12A of the Act.

Therefore, by order dated 28th December 2009, the Director of Income-tax (Exemptions) (DIT) wrote to the assessee that since the assessee had modified its objects and no intimation of such modification was sent to the second respondent “it is quite clear that the registration granted to the assessee u/s. 12A of the Act, vide order dated 12th February 1996 does not survive from the date on which the objects were changed, i. e, 1st June 2006. However, as has been mentioned in the above para a fresh application for registration u/s. 12AA of the Act, may be filed along with necessary documents”.

The assessee filed an appeal, before the Tribunal challenging the communication. Before the Tribunal, the Revenue submitted that the Director of Income-tax (Exemptions), by the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 had neither cancelled nor withdrawn the registration dated 12th February 1996 granted to the assessee u/s. 12A of the Act. He contended that by the impugned communication/order, the Director of Income-tax (Exemptions) had merely intimated the assessee of the consequences of the changes in the objects of the assessee. Based on these submissions, the Revenue contended that the appeal u/s. 253 of the Act, would not be maintainable against the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009.

The Tribunal, by the impugned order dated 30th March 2012, accepted the Revenue’s contention that the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 did not amount to either cancellation or withdrawal of registration u/s. 12A of the Act. On this basis, the Tribunal held that the assessee’s appeal was not maintainable u/s. 253 of the Act. After recording the above conclusion in, the Tribunal addressed the merits of the communication/order dated 28th December 2009 and virtually held that the Director of Income-tax (Exemptions)’ view in that communication/order was correct.

The assessee filed an appeal challenging the Order of the Tribunal and, as a matter of abundant caution, filed a writ petition challenging the order of the Tribunal.

The Bombay High Court admitted the appeal and the writ petition and heard and disposed of together. The High Court held as under:

“i) The two main issues involved in these matters are the following:

“(A) Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, after recording a categorical finding that the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 did not amount to any order of cancellation of the Board of Control for Cricket in India’s registration under section 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and further holding that since there was no cancellation, no appeal was maintainable against the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 under section 253 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was justified in nevertheless examining the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 on the merits and recording observations or findings virtually upholding the reasons and perhaps even the conclusion in the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 28 2009 ?

(B) Whether solely based on the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009, which the Revenue styled (or accepted the styling) as an advisory or a non-statutory letter, could any action to deny exemption or cancel section 12A registration be initiated by the Revenue ?”

ii) The Revenue authorities have been conferred statutory powers in matters of assessment or even cancellation of registration granted under section 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Income-tax Act also provides for a procedure to exercise such statutory powers. There is no provision that empowers the statutory authorities to issue “advisories” or non-statutory opinions intended to affect an assessee. If a power is given to do a certain thing in a certain way, the thing must be done in that way or not at all, and the other performance methods are necessarily forbidden.

iii) It is apparent that the Tribunal accepted the Revenue’s contention that the impugned communication/order dated December 28, 2009 was not an order of cancellation or withdrawal of registration u/s. 12A of the Act or an order made u/s. 12AA(3) of the Act and, therefore, no appeal was maintainable against the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009.

iv) Once the Tribunal concluded that the appeal before it against the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009was not “maintainable”, there was no question of the Tribunal evaluating the impugned communication/order on its merits or making any observations or recording any findings regarding its validity or otherwise. Therefore, such observations and findings are without jurisdiction and should not have been made.

v) Therefore, the above findings/observations will have to be ignored by the respondents, inter alia, when deciding the issue of the validity of the assessment order dated 30th December 2009or when disposing of the show-cause notices issued to the assessee for withdrawal or cancellation of its registration u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. This does not mean we have examined the merits of the above observations or findings recorded by the Tribunal.

vi) We have only declared that the above observations/findings are without jurisdiction and, therefore, the same should not be treated as binding by the respondents or others, mainly while deciding the appeal against the assessment order dated 30th December 2009 or in the proceedings initiated for the cancellation of the assessee’s registration u/s. 12A of the Act. All such issues should be examined by the prescribed authorities on their own merits, independently and without being influenced by the above observations or findings recorded by the Tribunal.

vii) For all the above reasons, we dispose of Writ Petition No. 1898 of 2012 by quashing the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 without commenting upon the merits or demerits of the view expressed in the said impugned communication/order but on the ground that the Revenue could not have issued the impugned communication/order, which it agrees, was only an advisory or a non-statutory exercise.

viii) Once again, we clarify that the issues of exemption or cancellation of registration on the merits are left open because they will have to be decided by the prescribed statutory authorities in the manner prescribed under the statute without being influenced by either the impugned communication/order dated 28th December 2009 or the observations/findings recorded by the Tribunal.”

Rajesh R. Hemrajani v. ITAT :The High Court directed the ITAT to deliver judgment within 90 days as mandated by Rule 34 of the Rules.

27. Rajesh R. Hemrajani v. ITAT

2026 (8) TMI 292 (Bom)

A. Y. 2019-20: Date of order 31st July 2026

Rule 34 of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, 1963

Appeal to ITAT — Order of ITAT — Time Limit — Rule 34 of ITAT Rules — Pronouncement of orders — Order to be pronounced within 60 days where no pronouncement date is given and further period not exceeding 30 days when exceptional circumstances arise.

The assessee’s appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal was first heard on 1st July 2025. As per Rule 34(5c) of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, the order should have been passed within a period of 60 days and in exceptional circumstances within a further period of 30 days. Since in the assessee’s case, the order was not passed within the said time limit, the appeal was released on 7th October 2025.

The Appeal of the assessee came up for hearing before the Tribunal for the second time and it was heard on 26/11/2025. Once again, the order was not passed within 90 days and the appeal was released on 27th February 2026 after a period of 90 days.

The appeal was heard by the Tribunal for the third time on 13th May 2026 and as per Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, the 90 days period shall expire on 13th August 2026.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court on the ground that if the order is not passed by 13th August 2026, the appeal would once again be released by the Tribunal. The assessee thus approached the Hon’ble High Court to seek necessary directions.

The High Court allowed the petition and observed as under:

“i) Our judicial conscience is shocked by the above stated information. It cannot be countenanced that a matter closed for judgment, is released without a judgment even when Rule 34 mandates a decision within 90 days. How far would the litigants tolerate the rigours of litigation, when an appeal is released on multiple occasions. In the present case, the appeal has been finally argued on the 3rd occasion, and the time-line is to expire shortly. We have taken a serious note of this aspect.

ii) The IT Appellate Tribunal shall ensure that the judgment in the Petitioner’s case is delivered on or before 13th August 2026

iii) All the Income Tax Appellate Tribunals shall scrupulously follow Rule 34 and ensure that matters which are heard and closed for Judgment, shall also mention the date for pronouncement which shall be within the period of 60 days. A judgment should be delivered within the said period. If on account of exceptional circumstances or extra- ordinary reasons justifying further time being required by the Tribunal, the judgment shall be delivered on or before the 90th day by the concerned Bench.

iv) We direct the Prothonotary and Senior Master of this Court to circulate this order to all the Income Tax Appellate Tribunals, for compliance.”

ITO vs. Tata Industries Ltd : A payer cannot be treated as in default for not deducting tax based on subsequent retrospective indirect transfer tax amendments.

12. [2026] 185 taxmann.com 924 (Mumbai – Trib.)

ITO vs. Tata Industries Ltd

A.Y.: 2006-07 Dated: 15.04.2026

Section 9, 195 and 201 of IT Act, 1961 – The Assessee cannot be treated as an ‘assessee in default’ in respect of payment of consideration to US entities for the acquisition of shares of a foreign company based on the subsequent retrospective insertion of indirect transfer tax provisions in the Act.

FACTS

The Assessee paid a consideration of USD 150 million to two US entities, namely, New Cingular Wireless Services Inc (NCWSI) and MMM Holdings Inc (MHC), for acquiring shares in a Mauritius entity. The Mauritius entity held a stake in an Indian entity, i.e., Idea Cellular Ltd. The Assessing Officer (‘AO’) examined the holding structure & transaction documents and concluded that the acquisition of shares in a Mauritius entity resulted in an indirect transfer of shares in the hands of two US entities. Hence, the AO observed that the Assessee was obliged to deduct taxes at source. In the absence of further information from the Assessee, the AO determined the capital gains on a best-effort basis and treated the taxpayer as an ‘assessee in default’ for failing to deduct tax under Section 201 and levied interest under 201(1A).

The CIT(A) allowed the Assessee’s appeal. Aggrieved by the order, the Department preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT upheld the order of the CIT(A) and made following observations:

  • As held by the Apex Court in GE India Technology Centre Pvt Ltd (327 ITR 456) and Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (432 ITR 471), the payer is obligated to deduct tax at source only if there is income chargeable to tax in India.
  • As on the date of payment of consideration, Explanations 4 and 5 to Section 9(1)(i) of the Act were not part of the statute. Before insertion of these Explanations, which brought indirect transfers within the scope of the charge with retrospective effect, the Apex Court in Vodafone International (341 ITR 1) had held that Section 9(1)(i) of the Act was applicable only to direct transfer of shares and could nott extend to an indirect transfer.
  •  A payer cannot envisage a retrospective amendment to Section 9(1)(i) at the time of making payment. Therefore, a law cannot require a person to perform acts that are impossible to comply with.

On the basis of the above, the ITAT held that the Assessee could not be treated as an ‘assessee in default’ under Section 201 of the Act and directed the AO to refund the taxes remitted under protest.

Goldman Sachs International vs ACIT (IT) : Salary reimbursement paid for seconded employees on a cost-to-cost basis is not fees for technical services under India-UK DTAA

11. [2026] 186 taxmann.com 18 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Goldman Sachs International vs ACIT (IT)

A.Y.: 2023-24 Dated: 30.03.2026

Article 13 of India-UK DTAA – Reimbursement of salary costs paid to seconded employees on a cost-to-cost basis cannot constitute fees for technical services, and is, therefore, not taxable in India.

FACTS

The Assessee, a UK tax resident, seconded a few employees to group companies in India. It also rendered financial services to group companies. As per the terms of the secondment, a part of the salary payable to the seconded employees was paid by the Assessee in the home country and was reimbursed by the Indian entities on a cost-to-cost basis.

The AO assessed the salary reimbursement received by the Assessee from Indian entities as fees for technical services (‘FTS’) under the Act and the DTAA. The Ld. DRP upheld the draft assessment order.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT relied on the following aspects considered by the coordinate bench in Assessee’s group company case [Goldman Sachs Services (P.) Ltd. v. DCIT, (IT) [2022] 138 taxmann.com 162 (Bang-Trib)]. The ruling of the coordinate bench was upheld by the Karnataka High Court [2025] 179 taxmann.com 41 (Kar):

  • The Indian entity to whom the employees were seconded was the economic and de facto employer. The seconded employees offered the entire salary received in both the home and host jurisdictions for taxation in India
  • FTS, as defined under Section 9(1)(vii), excludes from its scope income chargeable under the head “Salaries”. Given that the Indian entity was regarded as the employer and the entire amount was already subject to salary taxation, reimbursement of such amounts could not constitute FTS under the Act.
  • Article 12 of the India-USA DTAA1 excludes payment for services rendered by an employee. Applying the principles of the Commentary to Article 15 of OECD Model Convention to determine the scope of income covered by the Dependent Personal Service Article (DPS), the Indian entity was regarded as the economic employer of seconded employees. Further, the overseas employer was not responsible for the actions of the expatriate employees. The scope of exclusion under the FTS Article should be consistent with the scope of DPS Article. Accordingly, reimbursement of salary without any profit element was not covered by Article 12 of the treaty.

1 FTS Article under India-UK DTAA is parimateria with India-US DTAA

Combine Diamonds (P.) Ltd. v. ACIT : Initiating assessment before furnishing recorded reasons and denying the opportunity to file objections renders the reassessment void ab initio.

51. [2026] 137 ITR(T) 129 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Combine Diamonds (P.) Ltd. v. ACIT

A.Y.: 2009-10 DATE: 11.03.2026

Sec. 68 r.w.s. 147 and 148 – Assessee requested recorded reasons after notice under section 148 – Assessing Officer issued notice under section 142(1) before furnishing reasons and, on furnishing reasons, simultaneously issued notices under sections 142(1) and 143(2) without giving reasonable opportunity to file objections – Whether non-compliance with procedure laid down by Supreme Court in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO renders reopening and consequential assessment void ab initio – Held, yes

FACTS

The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income of Rs. 68.43 lakhs, which was assessed under section 143(3). Subsequently, a notice under section 148 dated 23.03.2016 was issued to reopen the assessment on the basis of information regarding alleged hawala transactions and bogus purchases.

In response to the notice under section 148, the assessee requested that the original return be treated as the return filed in response to the notice and, by letters dated 04.04.2016 and 21.05.2016, sought the reasons recorded for reopening.

Without furnishing the recorded reasons, the Assessing Officer issued a notice under section 142(1) on 01.07.2016. Thereafter, on 15.07.2016, the Assessing Officer furnished the recorded reasons and, on the very same day, issued notices under sections 142(1) and 143(2), without waiting for the assessee to file objections or affording reasonable time for filing objections.

The assessee subsequently filed objections, which were disposed of by the Assessing Officer by letter dated 09.09.2016. Reassessment was thereafter completed under section 143(3) read with section 147, making an addition of Rs. 29.35 lakhs. The Commissioner (Appeals) sustained the reopening and the addition.

Aggrieved, the assessee appealed before the Tribunal and challenged, inter alia, the validity of the reopening on the ground of non-compliance with the procedure prescribed by the Supreme Court in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the Supreme Court in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO had laid down that, upon issuance of notice under section 148: the assessee may seek the recorded reasons; the Assessing Officer is bound to furnish such reasons within a reasonable time; thereafter, the assessee is entitled to file objections; and, the Assessing Officer is required to dispose of the objections by passing a speaking order.

In the present case, the Assessing Officer proceeded with the assessment by issuing a notice under section 142(1) even before furnishing the reasons sought by the assessee. More importantly, after furnishing the reasons on 15.07.2016, the Assessing Officer simultaneously issued notices under sections 142(1) and 143(2), without waiting for the assessee to file objections or giving reasonable time for doing so.

The Tribunal noted that the procedure prescribed in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. was mandatory. It also relied upon the decisions of the Bombay High Court in Fomento Resorts & Hotels Ltd. v. ITO, [Tax Appeal No. 63 of 2007], CIT v. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. [2012] 21 taxmann.com 53 and Pr. CIT v. Shodiman Investments (P.) Ltd., [2018] 93 taxmann.com 153 as well as the Gujarat High Court’s decision in Troikaa Pharmaceuticals Ltd., [2023] 156 taxmann.com 621 which emphasised compliance with the prescribed procedure before proceeding with reassessment.

The Tribunal distinguished the contrary view of the Madras High Court in Home Finders Housing Ltd. v. ITO [2018] 93 taxmann.com 371 and noted the Karnataka High Court’s view in Hewlett Packard Financial Services (India) (P.) Ltd. [2023] 152 taxmann.com 559 that the procedure prescribed in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. is mandatory and its violation vitiates the assessment.

Since the Assessing Officer had initiated assessment proceedings before furnishing the recorded reasons and had proceeded further without allowing the assessee an opportunity to file objections against the reopening, there was clear non-compliance with the mandatory procedure laid down by the Supreme Court.

Accordingly, the Tribunal quashed the notice under section 148 and declared the consequential assessment order as void ab initio.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Shreyas Naynesh Modi v. ITO : The ten percent safe harbour limit applies to the fair market value determined by the Valuation Officer under section 56(2)(x).

50. [2026] 136 ITR(T) 489 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Shreyas Naynesh Modi v. Income-tax Officer

A.Y.: 2018-19 DATE: 23.01.2026

Sec. 56(2)(x) r.w.s. 50C and 55A – Assessee purchased flat for Rs. 2.65 crore against stamp duty valuation of Rs. 3.79 crore – On assessee’s objection, reference to DVO was made who determined FMV at Rs. 2.81 crore – Addition made under section 56(2)(x) on difference between DVO’s FMV and purchase consideration – Whether, the DVO’s FMV replaces SDV and safe harbour limit of 10% applies with reference to FMV determined by DVO – Held, yes

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income for A.Y. 2018-19 declaring total income of about Rs. 8.07 lakhs. The case was selected for scrutiny and notices under sections 143(2) and 142(1) were issued.

He had purchased a flat in Mumbai on 12.04.2017 for a consideration of Rs. 2.65 crores. A registered valuer had estimated its market value at Rs. 2.50 crores, whereas the stamp duty valuation was Rs. 3.79 crores.

During assessment proceedings, the assessee disputed the applicability of section 56(2)(x) and requested that a reference be made to the Departmental Valuation Officer (DVO) under section 55A. The DVO determined the fair market value of the property at Rs. 2.81 crores.

The Assessing Officer added Rs. 16.13 lakhs under the head ‘income from other sources’, being the difference between the DVO’s FMV and the purchase consideration.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the assessee’s claim, holding that the 10% tolerance introduced by Finance Act, 2018 was not applicable to A.Y. 2018-19. The Division Bench, noticing contrary Tribunal decisions, referred the issue to a Special Bench.

HELD

The Special Bench noted that the DVO’s valuation of Rs. 2.81 crores and the purchase consideration of Rs. 2.65 crores differed by 6.09%, which was within the 10% safe harbour limit. The issue before it was whether such limit could be applied with reference to the FMV determined by the DVO.

The Tribunal observed that the safe harbour provisions under sections 50C, 43CA and 56 were introduced to mitigate hardship in genuine real estate transactions, recognising that variations between stamp duty value and actual consideration may arise due to factors such as location and other characteristics of the property.

It held that valuation of an asset necessarily involves estimation and that the DVO’s FMV was also an estimate. Once the assessee disputes the stamp duty valuation and seeks a reference to the DVO, the valuation determined by the DVO replaces the stamp duty valuation for all practical purposes.

The Tribunal therefore held that the safe harbour rule under the third proviso to section 50C(1), and the corresponding provisions including section 56(2)(x), applies to the FMV determined by the DVO. The deeming provision must be taken to its logical end and the beneficial provision must be interpreted purposively and liberally to mitigate hardship in genuine transactions.

Accordingly, the issue was answered in the affirmative

Consolidated Finvest and Holdings Ltd. v. DCIT : Referring valuation under general provisions instead of section 50C(2) denies the department the time-limit extension under section 153.

49. (2026) 188 taxmann.com 1085 (Del Trib)

Consolidated Finvest and Holdings Ltd. v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of Order: 24.07.2026

Sections: 50C, 142A, 153

Where, in making an addition under section 50C, the AO referred the property valuation to the DVO under the general provision of section 142A instead of the special provision of section 50C(2), no extension of the assessment time limit under Explanation 1(v) to section 153 was available.

FACTS

The assessee-company, an NBFC engaged in providing loans and making investments, filed its return for A.Y. 2017-18 and later a revised return declaring total income of Rs. 9,24,88,434. It sold a property at Nariman Point, Mumbai, for a sale consideration of Rs. 2,16,40,000, while stamp duty was paid on a circle rate of Rs. 2,85,80,744. The assessee contended that the Stamp Valuation Authority’s value exceeded fair market value and placed on record an independent Government valuer’s report valuing the property at Rs. 2,13,28,000.

The AO referred the valuation to the Departmental Valuation Officer (DVO) on 11.11.2019, a fact never intimated to the assessee during the assessment proceedings. No DVO report was received before completion of assessment, and the AO completed the assessment on 28.09.2021, invoking section 50C and making an addition of Rs. 69,40,744 for the difference between the circle rate and the actual sale consideration.

On appeal, CIT(A) held that the reference was in fact made under section 142A, and that it attracted the extended time limit under Explanation 1(v) to section 153 (further extended on account of COVID-19 relaxations) making the assessment dated 28.09.2021 timely, and upheld the addition on merits.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) CIT(A) had categorically found that the reference in the present case was made by the AO to the DVO only under section 142A. Section 142A is a residuary, general provision for valuation of any asset, whereas section 50C(2) is a special, specific provision for determining the fair value of a capital asset for computing capital gains under section 48. It is trite law, per the maxim generalia specialibus non derogant, that where there is a conflict between a general and a special provision, the special provision prevails.

(b) Section 50C being a self-contained special provision mandating reference to the DVO where the assessee objects to the Stamp Valuation Authority’s value, and section 153(1) not extending any additional time limit for a reference made under section 50C(2), the AO ought to have completed the assessment within the original time limit, i.e., on or before 31.12.2019, and could have amended the order under section 155(15) upon subsequent receipt of the DVO’s report. This was not undertaken.

(c) Since the reference could not be treated as validly made under section 142A, for this purpose, the extended time limit under section 153 was not available, and the assessment completed on 28.09.2021 was barred by limitation. In any event, no DVO valuation report had been furnished even by the date of completion of assessment, while the assessee had placed on record an independent Government valuer’s report which the AO ought to have considered but did not.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the assessment framed on 28.09.2021 was barred by limitation, both on law and on facts, and directed that the addition made thereunder be deleted.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Hotel Mahalaxmi v. ITO : Notional revaluation of leasehold rights by book entry without new investment cannot be added as unexplained investment under section 69.

48. (2026) 188 taxmann.com 871 (Mum Trib)

Hotel Mahalaxmi v. ITO

A.Y.: 2018-19 Date of Order: 16.07.2026

Section: 69

Where the assessee-firm revalued its existing tenancy/leasehold rights in its business premises on the basis of a Government-approved valuer’s report, crediting the differential to partners’ capital accounts without acquiring any new asset, introducing funds, paying consideration to any third party, or claiming depreciation on the revalued amount, such a book revaluation could not be treated as unexplained investment under section 69.

FACTS

The assessee, a partnership firm engaged in running a hotel/restaurant, had been in continuous possession and occupation of its business premises under tenancy/leasehold rights since 1984. During the relevant year, it revalued the existing tenancy/leasehold rights on the basis of a report by a Government-approved valuer and recorded the revaluation by debiting the fixed asset account and crediting the partners’ capital accounts. No new asset was acquired, no funds were introduced, no consideration was paid to any third party, and no depreciation was claimed on the revalued amount.
The AO treated the revaluation amount of Rs. 18,19,51,875 as unexplained investment under section 69 and added it to the total income.

Upon appeal to CIT(A), the addition was upheld.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) Section 69 applies only where the assessee makes an investment not recorded in the books and offers no explanation as to its nature and source. In the present case there was no investment at all: the tenancy/leasehold asset had already existed with the assessee since 1984, the revaluation was duly recorded in the books, and there was no inflow of funds; invocation of section 69 was therefore wholly misconceived.

(b) Revaluation is a recognised accounting practice undertaken to reflect fair market value and does not result in real income, accrual or receipt, following the Supreme Court’s ruling in CIT v. Shoorji Vallabhdas & Co., (1962) 46 ITR 144 (SC), that income-tax is levied on real income and not on a hypothetical or book entry that does not materialise into actual income.

(c) The tenancy right was not acquired during the year under appeal – the assessee had held it since 1984, as evidenced by municipal records, business licences and rent receipts – so the revaluation could not be equated with an acquisition of a new asset.

(d) There was no transfer within the meaning of section 2(47), as there was no sale, relinquishment or extinguishment of rights, and the asset continued to be held by the assessee; consequently, there was no question of capital gains that arose either.

(e) Simple revaluation of assets by book entry does not give rise to any liability under the Act, following Sanjeev Woollen Mills v. CIT, (2005) 279 ITR 434 (SC), where the Supreme Court held that a notional or imaginary profit arising from revaluation of a fixed asset by a book entry cannot be taxed, and CIT v. Birla Gwalior (P.) Ltd., (1973) 89 ITR 266 (SC), that mere revaluation of assets for accounting purposes does not give rise to taxable income. Where the differential on revaluation is credited to partners’ capital accounts, no transfer under section 2(47) takes place, following Ravinshankar R. Singh v. ITO, (2014) 45 taxmann.com 359 (Mum).

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the addition made by the AO and sustained by CIT(A) under section 69 was not sustainable in law, and directed that it be deleted.

In the result, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Amaltash Residents Welfare Association v. CIT(E): Exclusive member-only maintenance activities are governed by mutuality and do not constitute a charitable purpose under section 12AB.

47. (2026) 188 taxmann.com 868 (Chd Trib)

Amaltash Residents Welfare Association v. CIT(E)

A.Y.: 2027-28 Date of Order : 23.07.2026

Sections: 2(15), 12AB

Where a Residents Welfare Association’s activities of providing maintenance, security, housekeeping and related facility management were confined exclusively to its own members and residents of a particular residential complex, with no benefit extending to the public at large or an indeterminate section thereof, such activities were governed by the principle of mutuality and did not constitute a charitable purpose under section 2(15); CIT(E) had rightly rejected the application for registration under section 12AB.

FACTS

The assessee, a Residents Welfare Association constituted for the welfare, maintenance and management of a residential complex, filed Form No. 10AB seeking registration under section 12AB for A.Y. 2027-28. Its stated activities involved providing maintenance, security, housekeeping, facility management and related services to residents, collecting maintenance charges, service fees and other contributions from members, and deriving rental income from common facilities.

On examining the objects and activities, the CIT(E) observed that the society was primarily engaged in providing maintenance and related services to residents of a specified residential complex; that the activities were confined to a closed group of members and operated on principles of mutuality; and, that they did not constitute charitable activities within the meaning of section 2(15). The application for registration under section 12AB was accordingly rejected.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) The concept of charity necessarily presupposes an element of public benefit, founded on altruism and philanthropy without expectation of reciprocal advantage. A Residents Welfare Association, by contrast, functions on the principle of mutuality: every member contributes maintenance charges and receives maintenance and common facilities in return, so that contributors and beneficiaries substantially constitute the same class of persons.

(b) Services such as maintenance of common areas, security, housekeeping, and organising social or cultural programmes are essentially contractual or reciprocal services rendered for consideration collected from the members themselves, and cannot be equated with relief of the poor, education, medical relief, preservation of environment or any other recognised charitable object under section 2(15). Accepting a contrary interpretation would mean every association formed for mutual convenience becomes entitled to registration under section 12AB, obliterating the distinction the Legislature has consciously maintained between mutuality and charity.

(c) The beneficiaries of the assessee were confined exclusively to its members and residents of a particular housing complex, with no element of benefit available to the public at large or to an indeterminate section of the public. The activities were therefore governed by the doctrine of mutuality and not by the principles governing charitable institutions.

(d) On the plea of inadequate opportunity of hearing, no useful purpose would be served by remanding the matter, since the rejection was founded not on insufficiency of evidence but on the very nature and character of the assessee’s activities; a remand would be an empty formality without altering the legal position.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that since the admitted objects and activities of the assessee did not satisfy the statutory requirement of “charitable purpose” under section 2(15), the CIT(E) had rightly rejected the application for registration under section 12AB, and upheld the impugned order.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was dismissed.

Rajesh Shamji Furia v. ITO : The Tribunal held that a flat acquired under a development agreement qualifies as a long-term asset, allowing section 54 exemptions.

46. ITA No. 1672/Mum./2026

Rajesh Shamji Furia v. ITO

A.Y.: 2018-19 Date of Order: 16.07.2026

Sections: 2(42A), 45, 54, 54F

A redevelopment scheme does not result in extinguishment of the owner’s proprietary rights followed by acquisition of an altogether fresh capital asset. The ownership rights of an existing member continue throughout the redevelopment process and merely undergo substitution from the old structure to the newly constructed premises.

FACTS

The assessee, jointly with his wife, had acquired the original residential flat measuring 510 sq. ft. in Financial Year 2006-07. Subsequently, the society entered into a redevelopment arrangement with the developer under the Development Agreement (DA) executed on 15.02.2013. Under the said agreement, every existing member became entitled to receive, in lieu of the existing premises, a permanent alternate accommodation (PAA) comprising the original carpet area together with 30% additional carpet area without any monetary consideration. The assessee also became entitled to additional area purchased from the developer under the redevelopment scheme and a further area transferred by his mother. The Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement (PAAA) was entered into on 12.01.2018 in which Flat No. 503 was allotted to the assessee as the PAA to which the assessee had already become entitled under the redevelopment arrangement. The assessee sold the said flat on 20.01.2018 and claimed exemption under section 54/54F of the Act on investment in another residential house.

The Assessing Officer (AO), while computing capital gains, proceeded on the footing that Flat No. 503 was a completely new capital asset acquired only upon execution of the PAAA. Since the flat was sold on 20.01.2018, the AO held that the holding period was less than twenty-four months and accordingly assessed the gains as Short-Term Capital Gains, denied the benefit of indexation, and also rejected the claim of exemption under section 54/54F of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who affirmed the said view taken by the AO.

HELD

A redevelopment scheme does not result in extinguishment of the owner’s proprietary rights followed by acquisition of an altogether fresh capital asset. The ownership rights of an existing member continue throughout the redevelopment process and merely undergo substitution from the old structure to the newly constructed premises. The Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement neither creates ownership for the first time nor results in acquisition of an independent capital asset. It merely identifies and records the permanent alternate premises allotted in substitution of the existing premises, pursuant to rights which had already accrued under the Development Agreement. Therefore, the execution of the Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement (PAAA) cannot be regarded as the starting point for computing the period of holding.

In view of the observations in PCIT v. Vembu Vaidyanathan (2019) 413 ITR 248 (Bom.) as well as the decision of the co-ordinate Bench in Mrs. Urmila Jagdish Mehta v. ACIT (ITA No. 5944/Mum/2024, order dated 29.12.2025), the Tribunal held that the period of holding cannot be counted from the date of execution of the conveyance deed or the Permanent Alternate Accommodation Agreement. It held that what is relevant is the point of time when enforceable rights in the property come into existence.

Applying the aforesaid principle, it found that the assessee acquired the original flat in the year 2006. The Development Agreement executed on 15.02.2013 recognised and crystallised the assessee’s entitlement to receive the redeveloped premises consisting of the original carpet area together with 30% additional area without consideration. The additional area purchased from the developer also originated under the same Development Agreement. Also, the area transferred by the assessee’s mother derived its character from rights already held by her, and upon transfer, the assessee stepped into her shoes for determining the period of holding. Therefore, each component comprised in Flat No. 503 emanated from pre-existing rights under the redevelopment arrangement and cannot be dissected into separate capital assets merely because the PAAA was executed subsequently.

The Tribunal found itself unable to agree with the finding of the CIT(A) that the original flat was transferred to the developer and thereafter a new independent asset came into existence. It held that the redevelopment agreement itself shows that the developer merely undertook reconstruction of the society building in consideration of development rights. The existing members never purchased the redeveloped flats as independent purchasers. Rather, they continued to hold their ownership interest in the land and the building, which was substituted by the permanent alternate accommodation allotted in the redeveloped structure. Thus, the redeveloped flat was continuation of the existing capital asset and not acquisition of a fresh capital asset for the first time on 12.01.2018.

The Tribunal held that even assuming, for the sake of argument, that the period of holding is reckoned from the date of the Development Agreement, 15.02.2013, the capital asset was held by the assessee for almost five years before its sale on 20.01.2018, which is well beyond the statutory period prescribed for treating the asset as a long-term capital asset. It observed that, therefore, it is not necessary for us to finally adjudicate whether the holding period should commence from the original acquisition in the year 2006 or from the crystallisation of rights under the Development Agreement in the year 2013, since the asset qualifies as a long-term capital asset under either view.

The Tribunal observed that the assessee has invested the capital gains in purchase of another house within the period prescribed under section 54/54F of the Act. It held that having held that the gains are LTCG, denial of exemption under section 54/54F by the AO and CIT(A) cannot be sustained.

Sanchit Gupta v. DCIT : No liability for higher TDS applies if the system fails to flag an inoperative PAN, provided the seller paid taxes

45. (2026) 1 (CTOTTJ 1692 (Delhi)

Sanchit Gupta v. DCIT

A.Y.: 2024-25

Date of Order: 21.05.2026

Sections: 194IA, 200A, 206AA

No liability to deduct TDS at higher rate prescribed in section 206AA can be cast on the deductor since the system did not red flag the PAN of the deductee as inoperative PAN and consequences of such inoperative PAN provided evidence is brought on record to establish that the seller of the property has reflected sale of property in his return and due taxes are paid.

FACTS

The assessee, along with two co-owners, purchased property during the year under consideration. The consideration paid/ payable by the assessee was Rs. 30,60,000. The assessee deducted and deposited income-tax at source (TDS) under section 194IA of Rs. 30,600 @ 1 per cent of the amount of consideration payable to the seller, vide Challan-cum-statement in Form No. 26QB dated 28th August, 2023. However, the PAN of the seller was not linked with Aadhar, rendering the PAN inoperative as per rule 114AAA(3), which in such cases mandates deduction of income tax at source at higher rate. Thus, in such a situation, section 206AA read with rule 114AAA(3) got triggered, and the assessee’s liability to deduct income tax at source (TDS) was @ 20 per cent of the amount of consideration payable to the seller or the stamp duty value of the property, whichever is higher, while the assessee had deducted TDS @ 1 per cent of the amount of consideration payable to the seller, which led the CPC, TDS to raise demand of Rs. 5,81,400 towards short deduction of income tax at source, and Rs. 5,814 towards interest on short deduction, vide intimation under section 200A dated 29th August, 2023, raising in aggregate demand of Rs. 5,87,210 against the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of CPC, TDS.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

Stringent provisions such as section 206AA are placed on the statute to curb tax evasion and strengthen tax administration. The risk assessment of such inoperative PAN for non-filing of return or evading taxes are on a higher pedestal. The onus is placed on the deductor to ensure that the PAN of the deductee is not inoperative, otherwise higher TDS rates becomes applicable. It observed that the assessee was required to deduct income tax at source @ 20 per cent on the payments made for purchase of property or stamp duty value, whichever is higher, but the assessee deducted income tax at source @ 1 per cent under section 194IA.

The Tribunal held that when the Department is bringing such a stringent measure, and is upgrading its systems and operations through higher technology on a regular and continuous basis, it was expected all the inoperative PANs should have been red-flagged by the system itself, so that once the deductor or any other person wishes to transact with such person holding inoperative PAN due to non-linkage of PAN with Aadhaar number, the system automatically flags that the PAN of the deductee is inoperative. In such cases TDS is required to be deducted as provided under section 206AA read with rule 114AAA(3). Thus, the consequences thereof should have been auto-flagged by the Department’s system reflecting that the income tax is required to be deducted @ 20 per cent with respect to purchase of property instead of rate of TDS @ 1 per cent as stipulated under section 194IA. It held that the Department is equally responsible for such failure. Under these facts and circumstances, it deemed it appropriate that no liability to higher TDS under section 206AA read with rule 114AAA be cast on the assessee, provided evidence is brought on record that the deductee i.e. seller of the property has declared and disclosed the said sale transaction of sale of property in her return of income filed with the Department and due taxes are paid.

The assessee was directed to produce the necessary evidences to that effect. It simultaneously issued directions to the Revenue to verify from their database as to whether the deductee i.e. seller in the instant case has duly declared and disclosed the income arising from the sale of said property and due taxes paid to the Revenue, otherwise appropriate proceedings under the 1961 Act if permitted by law can be initiated against the said deductee i.e. seller.

Hemant Kumar Agrawal v. ITO : Partner’s remuneration from a firm cannot be treated as turnover or gross receipts to qualify for presumptive taxation under section 44ADA.

44. ITA No. 4728/Mum./2025

Hemant Kumar Agrawal v. ITO

A.Y.: 2018-19 Date of Order: 30.01.2026

Section: 44ADA

Remuneration received by an assessee from a partnership firm cannot be treated as turnover to qualify for gross receipts u/s 44ADA of the Act. Accordingly, the remuneration received by a partner from the firm in which he is a partner will not qualify to be covered by section 44ADA of the Act.

Such remuneration received from partnership firm / LLP would qualify to be treated as income under the head ‘business and profession’ and expenditure, if any, incurred for the purpose of earning of such income can be allowed as deduction.

FACTS

The assessee, a practicing Chartered Accountant, an associate full-time partner with the firm M/s Jayesh Sanghrajka and Co. LLP, received a remuneration of Rs 18,00,000 from the said firm. In the return of income, this amount of remuneration was treated as “gross receipts from business” and offered for taxation in accordance with section 44ADA of the Act. Accordingly, an income of Rs 9,00,000 was shown on presumptive basis.

The Assessing Officer (AO) held that the remuneration received by the assessee from partnership firm cannot be treated as “gross receipt” within the meaning of provisions of section 44ADA of the Act. He, accordingly, added back the expenditure of Rs 9,00,000 claimed by the assessee as deduction under section 44ADA of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the income of assessee was from his professional endeavours but in the form of remuneration from the LLP. The Tribunal observed that in view of the ratio of the decisions of the Madras High Court in case of Anandkumar v. ACIT [AIRONLINE 2020 Mad 2136] and Bombay High Court in case of Perizad Zorabian Irani v. PCIT [(2022) 139 taxmann.com 164 (Bom. HC)], remuneration and interest received by the assessee from the partnership firm cannot be termed to be the turnover of the assessee.

It held that the key requirement of presumptive taxation under section 44ADA, could not be satisfied by the assessee in present case, as the remuneration received by the assessee cannot be treated as turnover, to be qualified for ‘gross receipt’ within the meaning of section 44ADA.

It accepted the alternate contention made on behalf of the assessee that such remuneration received from partnership firm / LLP would qualify to be treated as income under the head ‘business and profession’ and expenditure, if any, incurred for the purpose of earning of such income can be allowed as deduction, as held by the Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Ramniklal Kothari [74 ITR 57 (SC)] also supported with the decision of ITAT Delhi, in the case of Atul Kumar Vs. ITO [(2025) 180 taxmann.com 120 (Delhi Trib.)].

The Tribunal held that the income of the assessee, being a practicing Chartered Accountant, earned as remuneration on account of professional engagements, from a chartered accountancy partnership firm / LLP working as a partner would not qualify for inclusion in turnover as “gross receipt” for the purpose of section 44ADA. However, the income from remuneration shall be taxed as income from business and profession, so the expenses, if any, having direct nexus for earning of such income shall be allowed as deductible expenses as per provisions of the Act

Vidhya Vivek Padgaonkar v. ITO: Receipts from educational content assignments constitute professional income under section 44ADA, not business receipts eligible for presumptive taxation under section 44AD.

43. ITA No. 3042/Mum./2026

Vidhya Vivek Padgaonkar v. ITO

A.Y.: 2024-25 Date of Order: 24.06.2026

Sections: 28(v), 40(b), 44AA, 44AD, 44ADA

Section 44AA(1) is inclusive in nature and is not confined only to professions expressly named therein. What is material is character of activity undertaken and degree of specialised knowledge required for its performance. Accordingly, assessee entrusted with functions requiring inherently specialised knowledge, expertise and intellectual application in the field of education was held to be governed by section 44ADA and not section 44AD of the Act.

The taxable event in the hands of the partner is the receipt or accrual of such remuneration. The operation of Section 40(b) is confined to computation of income in the hands of the firm and does not govern the taxability of the amount actually received by the partner.

FACTS I

The assessee filed her return of income declaring therein income from house property, income from services rendered to M/s Apeejay Education Society and remuneration received from Paddy Services LLP. The Assessing Officer (AO) assessed the total income under section 143(3) of the Act by making the following two additions –

(i) Rs 6,42,840 by invoking provisions of section 44ADA; and

(ii) Rs 2,51,704 on account of disallowance claimed on remuneration from firm

The assessee received aggregate consideration of Rs 14,61,000 (subject to TDS u/s 194J) from M/s Apeejay Education Society with whom she was engaged on a contractual basis to undertake academic and curriculum-related assignments. The responsibilities entrusted to her included conceptualisation, preparation and review of academic content and curriculum structure. The assessee treated these receipts as business receipts and offered them for taxation under section 44AD of the Act. The AO held that the nature of services rendered by the assessee is professional in nature and in view of the provisions of section 44AD(6) of the Act, the said receipts are chargeable to tax u/s 44ADA of the Act. He was also influenced by the fact that tax was deducted at source under section 194J of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

HELD I

At the outset, the Tribunal observed that the short question requiring adjudication is whether the receipts derived by the assessee from M/s Apeejay Education Society constitute business income eligible for presumptive taxation under Section 44AD or professional income governed by Section 44ADA.

The Tribunal observed that the engagement letter and the nature of responsibilities discharged by the assessee left little room for doubt that the services rendered were not routine commercial or trading activities. The assessee was entrusted with academic and curriculum-related assignments involving conceptualisation, preparation, evaluation and review of educational content. Such functions inherently require specialised knowledge, expertise and intellectual application in the field of education.

Section 44AD expressly excludes from its ambit any person carrying on a profession referred to in section 44AA(1). The expression employed in section 44AA(1) is of wide amplitude and includes, inter alia, technical consultancy and other professions requiring specialised knowledge and expertise.

It held that the services rendered by the assessee fall within the broad spectrum of professional services contemplated under the said provision. The contention that the profession carried on by the assessee is not specifically enumerated in section 44AA(1) was not accepted. It further held that the statutory provision is inclusive in nature and is not confined only to the professions expressly named therein. What is material is the character of the activity undertaken and the degree of specialised knowledge required for its performance. The Tribunal further observed that though deduction of tax under section 194J may not be determinative by itself, it nevertheless constitutes a relevant factor indicating the nature of the services rendered. In the present case, it held such deduction to be consistent with the substantive nature of the work performed by the assessee.

The Tribunal upheld the findings recorded by the CIT(A) that the receipts in question are professional receipts and that the provisions of Section 44ADA have been correctly applied by the AO.

FACTS II

The assessee received remuneration of Rs.10,91,000/- from Paddy Advisory Services LLP. However, in the hands of the said LLP a deduction of only Rs 8,39,296 was allowed. The assessee contested that in her hands only Rs 8,39,296 should be taxed. The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD II

The Tribunal, having noted the provisions of section 28(v) of the Act, held that the taxable event in the hands of the partner is the receipt or accrual of such remuneration and that the assessee had admittedly received remuneration aggregating to Rs.10,91,000/- from the LLP during the relevant previous year. It held that the disallowance of a portion of such remuneration in the hands of the LLP under section 40(b) does not alter the character or quantum of remuneration received by the partner. It held that the operation of section 40(b) is confined to computation of income in the hands of the firm and does not govern the taxability of the amount actually received by the partner. Once the receipt of remuneration to the extent of Rs.10,91,000/- is undisputed, there exists no legal basis for restricting its taxation in the hands of the assessee to Rs.8,39,296/- merely because a part thereof was disallowed while computing the income of the LLP. The ground of appeal was decided against the assessee

Compilor’s Note: Though the ground was decided against the assessee based on the facts on record, the statutory proviso to section 28(v) provides relief to a partner by restricting taxability to the amount allowed as a deduction in the hands of the firm.

The Courage to Walk Alone

There is a quiet dignity in those who have the courage to walk alone. Society often celebrates those who lead crowds, influence opinions, and command attention. Yet some of life’s greatest acts of courage are performed in silence, without applause or recognition. They belong to those who continue their journey with unwavering faith, even when the path before them is uncertain and the companionship they once cherished is no longer beside them.

As human beings, we are created for relationships. We seek acceptance, companionship, and the reassurance that comes from walking life’s journey with others. Family shapes us, friendships strengthen us, and shared dreams give meaning to our days. Naturally, we find comfort in belonging. Yet there are moments when we must choose between following the crowd and following the quiet voice of our conscience. Standing by one’s principles, despite criticism or misunderstanding, requires uncommon courage. History remembers such individuals because they dared to think independently when it was easier to conform.

Walking alone, in this sense, is never about pride or isolation. It is about integrity. It is about having the strength to remain faithful to one’s values, even when approval is withheld. Such moments refine character. They teach us that truth often demands solitude before it receives acceptance.

But life, in its infinite wisdom, slowly reveals that there is an even deeper meaning to walking alone.

Sometimes, we choose solitude because our convictions demand it. At other times, life chooses it for us.

There comes a moment when destiny quietly rewrites the script we had imagined for ourselves. The hand that once held ours through every joy and every storm is no longer there. The conversations that filled our home become memories. The shared laughter echoes only in the heart. Without warning, the journey that was meant to be travelled together becomes one that must be continued alone.

No one willingly prepares for such solitude.

To lose the person who walked beside us is to lose not merely a companion, but a part of our own existence. In those moments, courage acquires an entirely different meaning. It is no longer the courage to defend an opinion or pursue an unconventional dream. It becomes the courage to awaken each morning with an aching heart, to fulfil responsibilities when grief weighs heavily upon the soul, to smile when tears remain unseen, and to keep walking when every instinct longs to stop.

This is perhaps the purest form of courage. Not the courage that changes the world, but the courage that quietly refuses to let sorrow define one’s life.

Our ancient belief & wisdom reminds us that relationships belong to time, but love belongs to eternity. The body is transient; the soul is not. Those we love never truly disappear. They become woven into our thoughts, our values, our prayers, and the countless quiet moments when we instinctively seek their presence. Every act of kindness reflects what they taught us. Every decision made with integrity honours the life they shared with us. In this way, love transcends physical absence and
becomes a silent companion on every step of our journey.

Gradually, solitude begins to lose its harshness. What first appeared to be emptiness slowly becomes sacred space, a place where grief is transformed into gratitude, where longing deepens into remembrance, and where faith gently fills the silence that loss has left behind. We begin to realise that we are not truly walking alone. The companionship that once came through another’s hand is now experienced through an unseen grace that steadies our spirit and strengthens our resolve.

Perhaps this is the greatest lesson life teaches us. Courage is not simply the strength to stand apart from the crowd. Nor is it merely the determination to pursue one’s convictions. The highest expression of courage is to continue living with love after loss, to embrace life without bitterness, and to transform grief into compassion, purpose, and quiet hope.

The journey may no longer look the way we had imagined. The road may be lonelier than we ever expected. Yet every step taken with faith becomes a prayer. Every sunrise becomes a reminder that life still holds purpose. Every act of goodness becomes a tribute to the one who now walks beside us in spirit rather than in sight.

And perhaps that is the deepest truth of all. We may think we are walking alone, but love never leaves us, faith never abandons us, and the Divine never ceases to guide us. Those who find the courage to keep walking discover that the path of solitude is, in the end, the path that leads them closest to God.

It takes immense strength to rebuild life after profound loss. Every step taken forward is a quiet victory over despair and a tribute to the one who is deeply missed.

Vedanta Limited Demerger Disclosures

COMPILER’S NOTE:

In recent times, corporate India has been undergoing restructuring with – demergers being one of the most adopted method for the same. This, ostensibly unlocks value and creates more wealth for the shareholders and in the process also enables succession planning and focus for the promoters also. There is no specific Indian Accounting Standard (Ind AS) to govern accounting for such demergers. The disclosures are mainly governed by Ind AS 105 (Discontinued Operations), Ind AS 108 (Segment Reporting), Ind AS 1 (framework for preparing and presenting general-purpose financial statements) and Schedule 3 of the Companies Act 2013. These demergers besides approval from the National Company Law Tribunal and Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI – for listed entities), also require approvals from several state and central government ministries and agencies.

Given below are disclosures for a company which has demerged its operations into 6 specific business units.

VEDANTA LIMITED

Extracts from notes to Standalone Financial Statements for the year ended 31st March, 2026

Note 3(d): Acquisitions, Restructuring and Disposal of Subsidiary

(i) Scheme of Arrangement for demerger

On 29 September 2023, the Board approved a Scheme of Arrangement for demerger of various business undertakings into separate resulting companies, which was subsequently modified to exclude the Base Metals undertaking (the “Updated Scheme”). The Updated Scheme received requisite approvals from shareholders and creditors and was sanctioned by the Hon’ble NCLT on 16 December 2025, with TSPL receiving separate approval on 9 January 2026. Consequently, the receipt of aforesaid NCLT approval, being one of the substantial approvals, meets the highly probable criteria prescribed in Ind AS 105 “Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations” for presentation of the Scheme as discontinued operations. Hence Aluminium, Oil and Gas, Iron Ore and Power undertakings have been disclosed as discontinued operations in financial statements. Accordingly, all previous period figures in the statement of profit and loss have also been re-presented/recomputed. Refer note 45 for further details.

Note 45: Scheme of Arrangement for demerger

The Board of Directors, in its meeting held on 29 September 2023, had approved a Scheme of Arrangement (“the Original Scheme”) for demerger of various businesses of the Company, namely, demerger of the Company’s Aluminium (represented by the Aluminium segment), Merchant Power (represented by the Power segment), Oil & Gas (represented by the Oil and Gas segment), Base Metals (represented by the Copper and Zinc International segment) and Iron Ore & Steel (represented by Iron Ore segment and Steel and Cement business) Undertakings, resulting in 6 separate companies(including Vedanta Limited, being the demerged Company), with a mirrored shareholding and consequent listings at BSE Limited and National Stock Exchange of India Limited (“the Stock Exchanges”). The Stock Exchanges gave their no objection to the Scheme.

A first motion application, in respect of the Original Scheme, was filed by the demerged company (i.e., Vedanta Limited) and four resulting companies (i.e., Vedanta Aluminium Metal Limited (“VAML”), Malco Energy Limited (“MEL”), Vedanta Base Metals Limited (“VBML”) and Vedanta Iron and Steel Limited (“VISL”)) before the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench (“NCLT”) on 06 August 2024 (“VEDL First Motion’’). The Hon’ble NCLT by way of its order dated 21 November 2024 (“VEDL NCLT Order”) inter alia:

a) directed the Company to convene a meeting of its equity shareholders, secured creditors and unsecured creditors within 90 days of the date of receipt of the Order;

b) directed MEL to convene a meeting of its secured and unsecured creditors within 90 days of the date of receipt of the Order;

c) dispensed with the meeting of equity shareholders of VAML, MEL, VBML and VISL; and

d) dispensed with the meeting of secured and unsecured creditors of VAML, VBML and VISL.

In December 2024, Vedanta Limited and other five resulting companies decided not to proceed with implementation of Part V of the Original Scheme, i.e., demerger of Base Metal undertaking into VBML, along with making appropriate updates to the Original Scheme (“Scheme”). The non-implementation of the demerger of the Base Metals undertaking shall not affect any other parts of the Original Scheme described above.

In compliance with the VEDL NCLT Order, the meetings were held on 18 February 2025 and the Scheme (with modification to exclude demerger of Base Metals Undertaking) was approved by the equity shareholders, secured creditors and unsecured creditors of the Company, as well as the secured and unsecured creditors of MEL.

On 5 March 2025, Vedanta Limited along with VAML, MEL and VISL, filed a second motion petition before the Hon’ble NCLT inter alia seeking sanction of the Updated Scheme. After multiple hearings with the Hon’ble NCLT, the Updated Scheme was approved by the Hon’ble NCLT vide its order dated 16 December 2025.

Further, a separate first motion application was filed by Talwandi Sabo Power Limited (“TSPL”), one of the resulting companies, with the Hon’ble NCLT, Mumbai on 22 October 2024 (“TSPL First Motion”) for demerger of Merchant Power Undertaking of the Company, since TSPL’s Registered Office (“RO”) was in the process of being changed from Mansa (Punjab) to Mumbai (Maharashtra) at the time of filing VEDL First Motion. The Hon’ble NCLT, Mumbai by its order dated 4 March 2025, disposed the TSPL First Motion by rejecting the scheme (“TSPL NCLT Order”). In an appeal filed by TSPL, the TSPL NCLT Order has been set aside by the Hon’ble NCLAT, New Delhi vide order dated 15 September 2025 and the matter has been remanded to the Hon’ble NCLT for proceeding with TSPL First Motion. The Hon’ble NCLT by way of its order dated 17 October 2025 inter alia directed (i) dispensation of the meeting of equity shareholders of TSPL; and (ii)TSPL to convene a meeting of its secured creditors and unsecured creditors within 90 days of the date of receipt of the order. The meetings were held on 21 November 2025, and the Scheme was approved by the secured creditors and unsecured creditors of TSPL. On 25 November 2025, TSPL filed a second motion petition before the Hon’ble NCLT inter alia seeking sanction of the Updated Scheme. The Updated Scheme has been approved by the Hon’ble NCLT vide its order dated 9 January 2026.

Consequently, the receipt of aforesaid NCLT approval, being one of the substantial approvals, meets the highly probable criteria prescribed in Ind AS 105 “”Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations”” for presentation of the Updated Scheme as discontinued operations. Hence the Aluminium undertaking, Oil and Gas undertaking, Iron Ore undertaking and Power undertaking have been disclosed as discontinued operation in the financial statements. Accordingly, all previous period figures in the statement of profit and loss have also been re-presented/re-computed.

The Board of Directors, at its meeting held on 20 April 2026, has inter alia, approved the following:

i. To make the Scheme effective on 1 May 2026; and

ii. In consultation with VAML, TSPL, MEL and VISL, the Board has fixed 1 May 2026, as the record date for determining the shareholders eligible to receive consideration pursuant to the Scheme.

The impact of the demerger would be given in the period when all substantial conditions as per Scheme are fulfilled/ met.

Brief particulars of the Demerged Undertaking / Discontinued Operations are given as under:

a) Carrying value of net assets of the Demerged Undertaking (net of inter segment balances) as at 31 March 2026

(₹ in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore

Undertaking

Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power

Undertaking

Total
Non-current assets
Property, Plant and Equipment 40,970 1,793 5,046 3,089 50,898
Capital work-in-progress 2,001 394 3,332 1,685 7,412
Intangible assets 901 120 39 0 1,060
Exploration intangible assets under development 1,040 2,143 3,183
Financial assets
   Investments 992 1,775 8,561 4,133 15,461
   Loans 1,309 1,309
   Trade receivables 634 634
   Derivatives 229 229
   Others 1,090 125 1,513 14 2,742
Deferred tax assets (net) 0 1,473 1,473
Other non-current assets 1,929 490 126 92 2,637
Total non-current assets 49,152 6,006 20,760 11,120 87,038
Current assets          
Inventories 4,977 1,010 402 91 6,480
Financial assets
   Investments 1,387 127 20 7 1,541
   Trade receivables 2,276 178 448 179 3,081
   Cash and cash equivalents 1,300 268 1,133 746 3,447
   Other bank balances 268 102 2,576 4 2,950
   Loans 0 689 0 869 1,558
   Derivatives 296 12 0 308
   Others 1,107 721 5,563 230 7,621
Other current assets 773 1,098 78 228 2,177
Total current assets 12,384 4,205 10,220 2,354 29,163
Total Assets (A) 61,536 10,211 30,980 13,474 1,16,201

(₹in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore

Undertaking

Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power

Undertaking

Total
Non-current liabilities
Financial liabilities
    Borrowings 25,088 418 1,015 2,504 29,025
    Lease liabilities 64 200 94 4 362
   Other financial liabilities 0 4 4
   Provisions 197 12 1,360 5 1,574
   Deferred tax liabilities (net) 4,046 19 654 0 4,719
   Other non current liabilities 2,143 26 0 29 2,198
Total non-current liabilities 31,538 675 3,127 2,542 37,882
Current liabilities          
Financial liabilities
    Borrowings 10,323 1,054 2,240 13,617
    Lease liabilities 17 167 54 0 238
Operational buyers’ credit / suppliers’   credit 4,073 1,096 33 204 5,406
   Trade payables 2,433 296 728 53 3,510
   Derivatives 3,327 3,327
   Other financial liabilities 2,392 253 6,755 425 9,825
   Other current liabilities 1,672 441 207 20 2,340
   Provisions 71 53 72 2 198
Total current liabilities 24,308 3,359 10,089 704 38,460
Total Liabilities (B) 55,846 4,035 13,216 3,246 76,342
Net Assets Transferred (A)-(B) 5,690 6,177 17,764 10,228 39,859

 

(b)  Profit from Discontinued Operations

Gross of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2026

(₹ in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power Undertaking Total
Revenue from Operations 50,592 6,073 5,546 1,938 64,149
Total Income 51,077 6,789 7,739 1,952 67,557
Total Expenses 37,474 5,685 5,527 1,830 50,516
Profit before Exceptional Items and Tax 13,603 1,104 2,212 122 17,041
Exceptional Items -389 -863 -25 -2 -1,279
Tax Expense 3,435 134 148 6 3,723
Profit from Discontinued Operations 9,779 107 2,039 114 12,039

Gross of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2025

(₹ in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power Undertaking Total
Revenue from Operations 44,233 5,636 6,283 678 56,830
Total Income 44,829 6,249 8,671 689 60,438
Total Expenses 37,444 5,245 5,695 1,143 49,527
Profit before Exceptional Items and Tax 7,385 1,004 2,976 -454 10,911
Exceptional Items -314 1,113 799
Tax Expense 1,935 77 439 -79 2,372
Profit from Discontinued Operations 5,450 613 3,650 -375 9,338

Net of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2026

(₹in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power Undertaking Total
Revenue from Operations 50,592 6,073 5,546 1,839 64,050
Total Income 51,077 6,305 7,627 1,853 66,862
Total Expenses 37,131 5,685 5,721 1,825 50,362
Profit before Exceptional Items and Tax 13,946 620 1,906 28 16,500
Exceptional Items -389 -863 -25 -2 -1,279
Tax Expense 3,435 134 148 6 3,723
Profit from Discontinued Operations 10,122 -377 1,733 20 11,498

Net of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2025

(₹ in crores)

Particulars Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power Undertaking Total
Revenue from Operations 44,233 5,636 6,283 678 56,830
Total Income 44,595 5,779 8,548 689 59,611
Total Expenses 36,961 5,148 5,765 1,137 49,011
Profit before Exceptional Items and Tax 7,634 631 2,783 -448 10,600
Exceptional Items -314 1,113 799
Tax Expense 1,935 77 439 -79 2,372
Profit from Discontinued Operations 5,699 240 3,457 -369 9,027
(c) Net Cashflows attributable to the Discontinued Operations

Gross of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2026

(₹ in crores)

Year ended 31 March 2026 Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas Undertaking Power Undertaking Total
Net Cash generated from Operating Activities 13,663 865 1,927 1,271 17,726
Net Cash (used in)/generated from Investing Activities -4,790

 

-634

 

4,574

 

-1,317

 

-2,167

 

Net Cash (used in)/generated from Financing Activities -8,801

 

-139

 

-5,876

 

688

 

-14,128

 

Gross of inter segment transactions for the year ended 31st March 2025

(₹in crores)

Year ended 31 March 2026 Aluminium

Undertaking

Iron ore Undertaking Oil & Gas

Undertaking

Power Undertaking Total
Net Cash generated from/(used in) Operating Activities 11,214

 

428

 

5,005

 

-501

 

16,146

 

Net Cash used in Investing Activities -3,732 -290 -3,440 -1,082 -8,544
Net Cash (used in)/generated from Financing Activities -7,347

 

-16

 

-1,063

 

1,687

 

-6,739

 

Total expense includes finance cost which has been allocated between continuing and discontinued operations based on best estimate of debt allocation between business divisions of Vedanta Limited as at 31 March 2026. Accordingly finance cost of comparative periods has been regrouped between continuing and discontinuing operations.

Independent Auditor’s Report on Standalone Financial Statements for the year ended 31st March 2026

Key audit matters How our audit addressed the key audit matter
Accounting and Disclosure for Scheme of Arrangement (“Scheme”) for Demerger (as described in Note 3(c)(A)(vi) and 45 of the Standalone financial statements)

 

During the current year, the Hon’ble NCLT vide its order dated 16 December 2025 has approved the Scheme for demerger of Aluminium undertaking (represented by the Aluminium segment), Oil and Gas undertaking (represented by the Oil and Gas segment) and Iron Ore undertaking (represented by Iron Ore segment) and vide its order dated 9 January 2026 for demerger of Merchant Power Undertaking (represented by the Power segment) of the Company, both orders subjected to other requisite regulatory and Board of Director approvals.

The aforesaid Scheme has been assessed as highly probable by the management in accordance with the criteria prescribed under Ind AS 105 “Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations” and accordingly, the proposed demerger of Aluminium undertaking, Oil and Gas undertaking, Iron Ore undertaking and Merchant Power Undertaking pursuant to the scheme has been accounted and disclosed as Discontinued Operations.

The above transaction is a significant non-routine transaction and has been identified as a key audit matter due to:

a)significant management judgment around determination of the Scheme being assessed as highly probable by the management in accordance with the criteria prescribed under Ind AS 105.

b)significant management judgment around evaluation of giving effect to the Scheme in accordance to Ind AS- 103 “Business Combination”, including:

satisfaction of substantive conditions post 31 March 2026

waiver of any conditions by the Board of Directors to the extent permitted under Applicable Law; andc) significant management judgment and estimates which are sensitive to underlying assumptions such as forecast of future cash flows (including revised assessment of brand and strategic management fees), allocation of borrowings, utilisation of tax assets, identification of all proceedings of any nature for each undertaking, etc. upon the Scheme becoming effective.

Our procedures included the following:

Obtained and read the Scheme and orders passed by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal to understand its key terms and conditions.

Understood the change in structure of the Company from the management.Evaluated the design and tested the operating effectiveness of select internal financial controls relevant for recording the impact of the Scheme and related disclosures.

Evaluated the basis of the management’s assessment of treating the proposed demerger as Discontinued operations in accordance with the applicable accounting standards.

Obtained an update on the other regulatory communications in this respect and current status of the approval from such regulatory authorities.

Read the minutes of meeting of Board of Directors.

Tested the identification of specific assets and liabilities being disclosed as held for distribution and assessed the key estimates and judgement involved therein.

Identified indicators of impairment for assets and liabilities classified as held for distribution and where identified, tested the valuation by assessing the key assumptions used by management, which included:

Assessment of management’s forecasting accuracy of future cashflows by comparing prior year forecasts to actual results.

Capitalisation of Borrowing Costs: Foreign Exchange Gains and Losses under Ind AS 23

A practical framework for applying the exchange-difference provisions

Under Ind AS 23, foreign exchange differences from borrowings can be capitalised as borrowing costs if they are considered interest adjustments to interest costs for qualifying assets. This adjustment is capped at the difference between local and foreign currency borrowing costs. Any excess exchange loss is recognised in profit or loss. Subsequent exchange gains must first reverse previously recognised losses before being treated as gains under Ind AS 21. For multi-year loans, entities choose between discrete-period or cumulative approaches. The cumulative approach is often preferred to maintain consistency with gain treatment.

1. BACKGROUND AND INTRODUCTION

Foreign currency borrowings can create an accounting issue that is easy to overlook: the borrowing cost is not limited to the interest paid on the loan. Under Ind AS 23, certain exchange differences arising on foreign currency borrowings may also be regarded as an adjustment to interest costs. Where the borrowing is directly attributable to the acquisition, construction or production of a qualifying asset, the eligible borrowing costs are capitalised as part of the cost of that asset, subject to the general requirements of Ind AS 23.

The important point is that Ind AS does not permit an entity to capitalise the entire foreign exchange loss merely because the loan was used to finance a qualifying asset. Paragraphs 6(e) and 6A of Ind AS 23 impose a specific restriction: the exchange loss regarded as an adjustment to interest is generally limited by reference to the difference between the cost of borrowing in the local currency and the cost of borrowing in the foreign currency. The treatment of subsequent exchange gains is also specifically addressed.

The practical difficulty becomes greater where a foreign currency borrowing remains outstanding for more than one reporting period. In that situation, an entity may need to consider whether the exchange-difference adjustment should be determined separately for each reporting period or assessed cumulatively over the period of the borrowing. This article explains the basic rule first through a simple mathematical example and then through a more complex multi-year example.

2. RELEVANT ACCOUNTING STANDARD REFERENCES

The key provisions of Ind AS 23 relevant to this issue are:

Reference Relevant principle
Paragraph 6 (e) Borrowing costs include exchange differences arising from foreign currency borrowings to the extent that they are regarded as an adjustment to interest costs.
Paragraph 6A(i) The exchange-loss adjustment is determined by reference to the extent to which the exchange loss does not exceed the difference between the cost of borrowing in the local currency and the cost of borrowing in the foreign currency.
Paragraph 6A(ii) Where an unrealised exchange loss has been treated as an adjustment to interest and a subsequent realised or unrealised gain arises in respect of settlement or translation of the same borrowing, the gain is also treated as an adjustment to interest to the extent of the previously recognised loss.
Paragraphs 8–26 These paragraphs contain principles governing capitalisation of borrowing costs, including the commencement, suspension and cessation of capitalisation.

Accordingly, two questions should be kept separate. First, how much of the exchange difference can be regarded as an adjustment to interest under paragraphs 6(e) and 6A? Second, once that amount is identified, does it meet the general conditions for capitalisation under Ind AS 23?

3. THE BASIC MATHEMATICAL PRINCIPLE

For a foreign currency borrowing used to finance a qualifying asset, the exchange-loss component eligible to be treated as an adjustment to interest is restricted. In the simple annual case, the ceiling is the difference between the cost of a comparable borrowing in the local currency and the cost of the foreign currency borrowing.

Eligible exchange-loss adjustment = lower of:

  • Actual exchange loss for the period
  • Interest on comparable local-currency borrowing less interest on the foreign currency borrowing

4. EXAMPLE 1 – SIMPLE MATHEMATICAL ILLUSTRATION

Assume a company borrows ₹100 crore in a foreign currency to finance the construction of a qualifying asset. The comparable borrowing rate in the local currency is 12%, while the foreign currency borrowing carries an interest rate of 7%.

Particulars Amount
Principal `100 crore
Comparable local borrowing rate 12%
Foreign currency borrowing rate 7%
Interest differential 5%
Interest differential on ₹100 crore `5 crore
Actual exchange loss `8 crore

The maximum exchange loss that can be regarded as an adjustment to interest is therefore ₹5 crore. The actual exchange loss is ₹8 crore. Accordingly:

  • Foreign currency interest: capitalised if the Ind AS 23 conditions for capitalisation of borrowing cost are satisfied.
  • Exchange loss regarded as an adjustment to interest: ₹5 crore.
  • Excess exchange loss: ₹3 crore, recognised in profit or loss rather than treated as borrowing cost.

If, instead, the actual exchange loss were only ₹3 crore, the amount eligible as an adjustment to interest would be ₹3 crore. The fact that the interest differential is ₹5 crore does not create an additional amount that can be capitalised.

5. SUBSEQUENT EXCHANGE GAIN

Paragraph 6A(ii) becomes important where an exchange loss has previously been treated as an adjustment to interest. If a subsequent realised or unrealised exchange gain arises on settlement or translation of the same borrowing, the gain is treated as an adjustment to interest to the extent of the exchange loss previously recognised as an adjustment.

Year Exchange difference Treatment
Year 1 `4 crore loss `4 crore treated as borrowing-cost adjustment
Year 2 `2 crore gain ₹2 crore reduces borrowing cost / reverses the earlier adjustment
Alternative: Year 2 gain of ₹6 crore `6 crore gain ₹4 crore reverses the earlier adjustment; balance of ₹2 crore is recognised under Ind AS 21 as an exchange gain.

6. EXAMPLE 2 – A MORE COMPLEX MULTI-YEAR BORROWING

The more difficult question arises when the foreign currency borrowing extends beyond one reporting period and there is an exchange loss in more than one year. In the author’s view there are two possible approaches: a discrete-period approach and a cumulative approach. The distinction matters because an exchange loss that is not eligible for treatment as an adjustment in one period may, depending on the approach and the facts, affect the computation in a later period.

6.1 Facts

Assume the following two-year borrowing. The figures are illustrative and expressed in the same monetary units:

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Total
Foreign currency interest (A) 25,000 25,000 50,000
Hypothetical local-currency interest (B) 30,000 30,000 60,000
Foreign exchange loss (C) 6,000 3,000 9,000

6.2 Method A – Discrete-Period Approach

Under the discrete-period approach, the paragraph 6(e) adjustment is determined independently for each reporting period. The calculation is therefore:

Year 1: lower of exchange loss of 6,000 and interest differential of 5,000 = 5,000.

Year 2: lower of exchange loss of 3,000 and interest differential of 5,000 = 3,000.

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Total
6(e) adjustment 5,000 3,000 8,000
Foreign exchange loss not treated as adjustment 1,000 Nil 1,000

Thus, under Method A, the total exchange loss regarded as an adjustment to interest over the two years is 8,000, leaving 1,000 of the cumulative exchange loss outside this adjustment to be dealt with in accordance with Ind AS 21.

6.3 Method B – Cumulative Approach

Under the cumulative approach, the assessment is made by considering the borrowing over the relevant period as a whole. The cumulative exchange loss is compared with the cumulative interest differential, with the cumulative adjustment constrained by the cumulative exchange loss.

At the end of Year 1, the cumulative eligible adjustment is 5,000. At the end of Year 2, cumulative exchange loss is 9,000 and cumulative interest differential is 10,000. Accordingly, the cumulative paragraph 6(e) adjustment can reach 9,000.

Since 5,000 was already recognised in Year 1, the additional adjustment in Year 2 is 4,000. This produces the following cumulative result:

Particulars Year 1 Year 2 Total
Cumulative 6(e) adjustment 5,000 4,000 9,000
Foreign exchange loss not treated as adjustment 1,000 (1,000) Nil

The numerical outcome differs between Method A and Method B. Method A produces a total adjustment of 8,000, whereas Method B produces a cumulative adjustment of 9,000. The issue therefore is not merely computational; it involves the unit of account and the relationship between exchange rates and the interest differential over the life of the borrowing.

7. WHICH APPROACH SHOULD BE FOLLOWED?

There is no explicit paragraph in Ind AS 23 that conclusively mandates either the discrete-period or cumulative approach for a multi-year borrowing with exchange losses in successive periods. However, given that the standard mandates a cumulative approach for exchange gains, the author believes that the cumulative approach is more appropriate in these situations as well. Where quarterly or other interim financial information is prepared, the same issue can arise within a financial year. Management should document the basis for the approach selected and apply it consistently.

Dr. Bais Surgical And Medical Institute Pvt. Ltd. v. Dhananjay Pande : Formal entry in a company’s register is not an absolute prerequisite for a person to seek oppression relief.

12. Dr. Bais Surgical And Medical Institute Pvt. Ltd. & Ors. V/s Dhananjay Pande In The Supreme Court of India Civil Appellate Jurisdiction Civil Appeal No. 8973 of 2010

Order date: 04th May,2026

The Supreme Court held that formal entry in a Company’s Register of Members is not an absolute prerequisite for a person to be considered a “Member of the Company” when seeking relief against Oppression and Mismanagement.

The Supreme Court of India, in its judgment addressed a critical question regarding the definition of a “Member” of a Company under the Companies Act, 1956. it clarified that in specific equitable contexts such as petitions for “oppression and mismanagement”—the status of an investor as a “Member” can be recognized even in the absence of a formal entry in the Register of Members.

The judgment examined the interplay between two distinct provisions of the Companies Act, 1956:

  • Section 2(27): Provides a broad, inclusive definition of “member”.
  • Section 41: Outlines the formal procedural requirements for becoming a member, such as agreeing in writing and having one’s name entered in the register of members.

The Court held that for the purposes of invoking jurisdiction under Sections 397 and 398 of the Companies Act, 1956 (remedies against oppression and mismanagement), the term “Member” should not be construed in a “mechanical or technical manner” restricted solely to the requirements of Section 41. Instead, the broader definition under Section 2(27) should apply where the individual has consistently been treated as a stakeholder by the company.

The Court further held that when an investor’s share application money has been accepted and utilized for the company’s business operations (e.g., expanding its facilities or increasing its authorized capital), it constitutes strong evidence of a proprietary interest. Moreover, if a company has treated an individual as a “co-owner” or stakeholder in its official correspondence, such conduct may outweigh the absence of a formal share certificate or an entry in the register.

The Court ruled that since the jurisdiction to grant relief in cases of oppression and mismanagement is equitable in nature, the absence of a formal entry in the register of members does not automatically disqualify a genuine stakeholder from seeking relief. Therefore, the Court rejected the argument that the name of person not entered in the register of members would lack “locus standi” for filing a petition under Sections 397 and 398 of the Companies Act, 1956 (remedies against oppression and mismanagement).

Rafeek Peedi Yakkal Hassan v. Registrar of Companies : Striking off a company name is reversed if the director provides audited financial statements proving ongoing resort project operations.

11. Rafeek Peedi Yakkal Hassan V/s

Registrar of Companies, Kerala & Lakshadweep NATIONAL COMPANY LAW TRIBUNAL, KOCHI BENCH, 189 taxmann.com 423

Order dated 11th August 2026

Where an appellant, director challenged the strike-off of the company’s name, citing its ongoing business and intention to continue operations, and placed on record audited financial statements and tax returns, restoration of the company’s name was directed, subject to the company filing all pending statutory documents and paying applicable fees, penalties, and costs for previous non-compliances within stipulated timelines, with restoration taking effect as if the company’s name had not been struck off.

FACTS:

  • The appellant–shareholder-director holding 99% of M/s. Salim’s Whitefeather Resort Private Limited filed an appeal under Section 252(3) challenging the strike-off of the company’s name. The company was incorporated in 2019 as a company limited by shares with authorised share capital of about Rs. 10 lakhs and paid-up share capital of about Rs. 1 lakh, with the object of developing a resort project. The appellant stated that the company had acquired land and a building permit but, due to the COVID-19 pandemic and a director being abroad, it could not open a bank account or commence operations. The appellant executed a memorandum of understanding with a construction group, placed on record audited financial statements for FYs 2021-22 to 2024-25 and the income tax return for FY 2024-25, and undertook to file all pending statutory documents with applicable fees. The appeal was filed within the 20-year period prescribed by Section 252(3).
  • The Registrar reported that the company failed to commence business; the subscribers did not pay the subscription undertaken in the Memorandum; and the declaration under Section 10A (1) was not filed within180 days of incorporation. A notice in Form STK-1 was issued under Section 248(1), followed by a public notice in Form STK-5 published in the Gazette. As no valid objections were received from the company or its directors, the company’s name was struck off under Section 248(5) and Form STK-7 was issued. The Registrar also recorded that the appellant admitted non-commencement of business. The Registrar did not oppose the appellant’s request for restoration of the company before the Tribunal.

HELD:

  • Upon examining the facts of the case, the Tribunal was satisfied that the Respondent, the Registrar of Companies, was justified in striking off the name of the Company from the Register of Companies in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. The records demonstrated that the Appellant Company had failed to commence business after its incorporation, as the subscribers did not pay the subscription amount undertaken in the Memorandum, and the declaration under Section 10A (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, was not filed within 180 days of incorporation.
  • Section 252(3) confers powers on the Tribunal to order for restoration of the name of the Company in the Register of Companies maintained by ROC, on an appeal made by the (i) Company (ii) Member (iii)creditor or (iv) workman before the expiry of 20 years from the date of publication in the Official Gazette of the notice under Section 248(5), if the Tribunal is satisfied that the Company was, at the time of its name being struck off, carrying on business or in operation or otherwise just that the name of the company be restored to the Register of Companies.
  • The Respondent/Registrar of Companies has not opposed the relief sought by the Appellant for restoration of its name to the Register of Companies. The Appellant has also undertaken to comply with all statutory requirements and to take necessary measures to regularise the defaults committed by the Company. In the absence of any objection from the Respondent/ROC and having regard to the object and purpose of Section 252, the Tribunal considered it appropriate to take a liberal view and grant the Appellant an opportunity to restore the Company and bring its affairs into compliance with law.
  • Upon perusal of the appeal, this Tribunal was of the considered view that sufficient grounds exist for restoring the name of the Company to the Register of Companies. In the present case, the Appellant, being a shareholder holding 99% of the Company’s share capital, has filed the present appeal under Section 252(3), seeking restoration of the Company’s name. The Appellant has placed on record the audited financial statements for the financial years ended 31st March 2022 to 31st March 2025, which prima facie demonstrated that the Company was in operation and carrying on its business at the time the order under Section 248 was passed. Although the Company had committed certain statutory defaults, the Respondent/Registrar of Companies, after following the procedure prescribed under the Act, struck off the Company’s name from the Register of Companies.
  • Certainly, Section 252(3) does not mandate going into the merits of an order passed under Section 248, but the NCLT usually calls for a report from the ROC. Once a person is eligible to file an appeal and has placed on record prima facie proof that, at the time of the order under Section 248, the Company was carrying on its business or was in operation, the Tribunal, after recording its satisfaction, can pass appropriate orders.
  • The right given to the Company, along with any member, creditor, or workman, to file an appeal under Section 252(3) demonstrates the legislative intent that even a struck-off Company retains a limited statutory personality for the purpose of seeking its revival. If the appellant has established that the Company was carrying on business and was in operation and has the intention to continue with its normal operations, or that the restoration is otherwise just and equitable, the NCLT is empowered to pass appropriate orders under the given circumstances. However, the said orders would not exempt the Company from paying the regular fees and penalties, if applicable, for its previous non-compliances.

Tribunal was of the considered view that the Appellant is a shareholder of the Company and in the light of the above findings, this Company Appeal is maintainable in the eyes of law. Accordingly, the appeal was allowed on the following terms: –

i. The Registrar of Companies, Kerala/Lakshadweep, the Respondent, was directed to restore the original status of the Appellant Company, M/s. Salim’s White Feather Resort Private Limited, as if the name of the Company has not been struck off from the Register of Companies, with the resultant and consequential actions like changing the status of the Appellant Company from “Strike off’ to “Active”.

ii. The Appellant Company was directed to file all pending statutory document(s), including Annual Accounts for the period and Annual Returns along with prescribed fees/additional fees/fines as decided by the Registrar of Companies, Kerala/Lakshadweep, within 45 days from the date on which its name is restored on the Register of Companies maintained by the Registrar of Companies, Kerala/Lakshadweep.

iii. The restoration of the Company’s name was also subject to the payment of Rs.10,000/- (Rupees Ten thousand Only) per financial year for which the Company has not filed its financial returns with the ROC towards cost payable through online payment in www.mca.gov.in under miscellaneous fees by mentioning the particulars as “payment of cost for revival of Company” within thirty days from the date of receipt of the order.

iv. The restoration of the Appellant Company’s name in the Register will be subject to their filing all outstanding documents for the defaulting years as required by law and completion of all formalities, including payment of any late fee or other charges that are leviable by the Respondent for the late filing of statutory returns. The name of the Appellant Company shall then stand restored in the Register of the ROC, as if the name of the company had not been struck off.

v. The appellant company was directed to file a copy of this Order with the ROC within 30 days of the receipt of this Order. ROC was directed to give effect to the Order only after perusal of the Compliance report of the cost imposed.

vi. On such delivery and after due compliance with the above directions, the Registrar of Companies, Kerala/Lakshadweep, was directed to publish the order in the Official Gazette under his office name and seal.

vii. The Order was confined to the violations, which ultimately led to the action of striking off the name of the Company, and it will not come in the way of Registrar of Companies, Kerala/Lakshadweep to take appropriate action(s) in accordance with law, for any other violations/offences, committed by the Appellant Company prior to or during the striking of the Company. The Appellant Company shall make good the offences, if any, arising out of non-compliance with various sections under the Act.

Accordingly company appeal was disposed off.

Margin Trading Facility (MTF): Evolution, Existence and the Future Of Leveraged Investing In India

India’s Margin Trading Facility (MTF) has grown fivefold since FY23, reaching ₹1.3 lakh crore by mid-2026, offering investors leveraged purchasing power. While enhancing capital efficiency, leverage magnifies downside risks like margin calls and forced liquidation.

Regulated by SEBI since 2004, proposed 2026 reforms seek risk-controlled optimisation by harmonising collateral and introducing rebalancing periods to ease operational frictions. Compliance requires strict half-yearly audits by Chartered Accountants. As technology drives correlated trading behaviours, future frameworks must monitor leverage across investor, broker, and systemic levels to maintain market stability.

INTRODUCTION

India’s capital market has undergone significant transformation over the past two decades. The growth of digital trading platforms, easier account opening, affordable internet access and increasing financial awareness have brought a larger number of investors into the securities market. At the same time, investors have increasingly looked for greater purchasing power and flexibility without committing their entire capital upfront, thereby contributing to the growing relevance of the Margin Trading Facility (MTF). India’s MTF market has expanded rapidly, with outstanding positions reaching approximately ₹1.3 lakh crore by mid-2026, around 50% higher year-on-year. From ₹25,000 crore in FY23, the MTF book has grown more1 than fivefold, highlighting its emergence as a significant source of leveraged purchasing power in the cash-equity segment.

MTF allows investors to buy eligible securities by paying only a prescribed portion of the purchase value, while the stockbroker finances the balance. It therefore enables investors to take larger positions with lower upfront capital and can improve the efficiency of capital deployment. However, leverage works in both directions. While it can increase gains when markets move favourably, it can also magnify losses when prices fall. MTF is therefore fundamentally different from ordinary cash-segment investing and requires greater attention to margins, liquidity, funding costs and risk management.

Because MTF creates both exposures, i.e., credit exposure as well as market exposure, it operates within a regulatory framework involving SEBI, stock exchanges, clearing corporations and market intermediaries. Over time, SEBI has developed safeguards around eligible securities, margins, collateral, funding sources, broker exposure, disclosures and liquidation. The latest stage of this evolution is reflected in SEBI’s Consultation Paper dated 18th June 2026, which seeks to improve capital efficiency and operational flexibility while retaining the core safeguards of the MTF framework.

EVOLUTION OF THE MTF FRAMEWORK

SEBI formally introduced the regulatory framework for margin trading in 2004. The objective was to bring leveraged trading within a structured regulatory framework rather than leave financing arrangements entirely to individual broker-client agreements. The framework established requirements relating to broker eligibility, approved securities, margins, sources of fund, exposure limits, and disclosures.

As India’s securities markets expanded, the regulatory framework was progressively strengthened. In 2017, SEBI undertook a comprehensive review covering areas such as collateral management, broker exposure, disclosures and operational controls. In 2022, Group I Equity ETFs were added to the securities eligible for MTF, widening the range of instruments that could be financed while retaining liquidity-based eligibility requirements.

Further changes introduced in 2024 addressed client cash collateral and wrong-way risk. Wrong-way risk arises when the security being financed also serves as collateral. If the security falls in value, the broker’s exposure increases, while the value of the collateral protecting that exposure decreases simultaneously.

SEBI’s 2026 consultation paper marks another stage in this evolution, placing greater emphasis on capital efficiency, funding flexibility and operational simplification while retaining appropriate risk controls.

High-Wire-Act-of-Margin-Trading

REGULATORY ARCHITECTURE OF MTF

The MTF framework begins with determining which securities can be financed. Not every listed security is eligible. SEBI permits MTF against eligible Group I equity shares and Group I Equity ETFs that satisfy prescribed liquidity parameters. This liquidity requirement is important because a broker may need to liquidate a funded position if an investor fails to meet a margin obligation. More liquid securities are generally easier to sell without creating excessive market impact.

The second major component is the margin framework. Investors are required to contribute a part of purchase value based on parameters like Value at Risk (VaR) and Extreme Loss Margin (ELM). The margin requirement does not end when the position is created. Funded securities and collateral are marked to market, and investors must replenish any margin shortfall within the prescribed period. Where the shortfall is not restored, the broker may liquidate sufficient securities to recover its outstanding financing.

Risk controls also operate at the broker level. Borrowing for margin funding is subject to limits linked to the broker’s net worth and own capital. Client and security concentration are also restricted, while brokers are required to maintain Board-approved policies covering concentration across securities, sectors and funding exposures.

Investor protection is further supported through daily valuation, margin calls and Rights and Obligations documents that set out funding terms, interest, margin requirements and liquidation procedures.

SEBI’s 2026 Reforms: From Restriction to Risk-Controlled Optimisation

The significance of the 2026 proposals lies in the regulator’s attempt to move MTF from a restriction-focused framework to risk-based framework.

One of the important proposals is to harmonise MTF collateral requirements with collateral accepted in the cash market. This could reduce operational complexity and improve collateral utilisation by creating greater consistency between the two frameworks. SEBI has also proposed recognising Early Pay-In sell credits as eligible collateral for fresh MTF positions. This could allow settlement-related credits to be used more efficiently instead of remaining operationally underutilised.

Another proposal addresses securities that become ineligible for MTF after a position has already been created. Instead of requiring immediate liquidation, a 30-day rebalancing period is proposed to be granted. This may reduce unnecessary forced selling where the change in eligibility does not represent an immediate deterioration in the security itself.

At the broker level, the proposals seek to improve capital efficiency while ring-fencing capital for core broking activities and retaining an overall leverage ceiling of 5.5 times net worth. The direction of reform is therefore clear: the objective is not unrestricted leverage, but more efficient leverage within a controlled risk framework.

The coexistence of client-fund upstreaming and MTF creates a significant operational and reporting challenge for brokers because ordinary client funds and MTF-related funds cannot simply be treated as one fungible pool. SEBI’s upstreaming framework requires clients’ clear credit balances to be upstreamed to clearing corporations in specified forms, while the MTF framework requires separate client-wise ledgers for funds and securities relating to MTF positions. This creates a reconciliation challenge when the same client simultaneously has normal trading balances and an MTF position. The broker must correctly identify which funds are unencumbered, which are supporting MTF obligations, and which can be upstreamed, while also ensuring accurate margin reporting and avoiding double counting of collateral.

The operational complexity becomes particularly important at end-of-day cut-offs, where errors in ledger mapping, collateral classification or reporting can result in short-collection or compliance issues. The 2026 MTF consultation is notable in this context because SEBI has proposed permitting the fungibility of unencumbered funds or securities between a client’s normal and MTF ledgers, potentially reducing some of these operational frictions while retaining the requirement for separate client-wise MTF records.

Relation of MTF with Traders / Investors

MTF can have different implications depending on an investor’s investment horizon and financial capacity.

For short-term traders, MTF can provide additional purchasing power for positions expected to be held for a few days. The advantage is greater market exposure with lower upfront capital, but the investor remains exposed to financing costs and changes in margin requirements.

For medium-term traders, MTF may provide flexibility while an investment thesis develops over several weeks or months. However, the longer a position remains funded, the more significant financing costs, overnight volatility and liquidity management become.

For the youth and digitally active investors, the increasing availability of MTF through online platforms makes leveraged investing more accessible and can provide greater flexibility in deploying limited initial capital. The ability to access financing digitally may make MTF relevant for investors seeking to pursue specific, shorter-term or customised investment opportunities without committing their entire capital upfront. However, greater accessibility also increases the importance of investor education and risk awareness. Lower transaction friction and easy access to leverage may encourage more frequent trading, while financing costs, margin requirements and the possibility of forced liquidation may not always be fully appreciated. Easy access to leverage should therefore not be confused with easy management of leverage. Nevertheless, MTF should be viewed as a complementary capital-allocation tool rather than an alternative to long-term investing.

MTF GLOBALLY

The risks associated with margin financing are not unique to India. Major financial markets have permitted investors to borrow against securities for several decades, but the regulatory approaches differ in the extent to which they rely on prescribed margin requirements, broker-level financial controls, eligible collateral and risk-based monitoring.

The U.S. model demonstrates the benefits of greater flexibility and a mature margin-financing ecosystem, while Hong Kong demonstrates the value of detailed broker-level monitoring of collateral quality, liquidity and concentration. Singapore similarly illustrates the importance of considering the financial capacity and aggregate indebtedness of the intermediary providing financing. These features can potentially provide useful lessons as India’s MTF market expands.

The more important comparison, therefore, is not simply whether one jurisdiction permits more leverage than another. The critical question is where the risk is being monitored. India’s framework has traditionally placed significant emphasis on the eligibility of securities, and has prescribed margins and limits applicable to individual brokers and clients. International experience suggests that these safeguards need to be complemented by greater visibility into the concentration and interconnectedness of leveraged positions. A broker may remain within its individual exposure limits while several brokers, acting independently, may nevertheless have significant exposure to the same security or sector.

The next stage of India’s regulatory development could therefore focus not merely on how much leverage an individual investor or broker can undertake, but also on where that leverage is concentrated across the market and how the market would respond if several leveraged positions were required to be unwound simultaneously.

MTF – Half-Yearly Reporting and Compliance Certification by Chartered Accountants

A Trading Member that has obtained approval from the Exchange and has commenced offering MTF is required to have its MTF books of account audited on a half-yearly basis and submit the prescribed MTF Compliance Certificate to the Exchange within the stipulated timeline. The certificate is to be issued and signed by a Chartered Accountant and should certify the extent of the Member’s compliance with the applicable MTF conditions.

The Chartered Accountant should verify the MTF books, records and supporting documents, including client-wise MTF ledgers, segregation of MTF and Non-MTF accounts, client consent, eligibility of securities, prescribed initial and maintenance margins, MTM requirements, collateral and funded-stock records, and compliance with applicable exposure and indebtedness limits. The Chartered Accountant should also verify the permitted sources and utilisation of MTF funds and ensure that funds of one client have not been used to finance another client’s MTF position.

The Chartered Accountant should further reconcile the MTF records with daily Exchange reporting, bank and borrowing records, demat and pledge records, and examine compliance with margin calls, liquidation, settlement and corporate-action reporting. Particular attention should be given to the separate identification of MTF collateral and funded securities, and restrictions on utilisation of excess MTF collateral for Non-MTF transactions. The final certificate should be issued only after obtaining sufficient supporting evidence to conclude on the Member’s compliance with the applicable MTF requirements.

AI, Rule-Based Trading and Correlated MTF Behaviour

The increasing use of artificial intelligence and rule-based systems introduces a further dimension to MTF risk. At the individual investor level, technology can strengthen risk management by enabling continuous monitoring of leveraged positions, automated alerts, predefined exit conditions and faster identification of margin deterioration. Such tools may reduce reliance on emotional decision-making and allow investors to respond more systematically to changes in market conditions. However, the same technology can create a different form of risk when a large number of investors rely on similar models, market signals, technical indicators, stop-loss parameters or risk thresholds. If these systems generate similar investment decisions, investors may enter or exit the same securities at or around the same time. The interaction becomes more significant when such positions are financed through MTF. For example, a common market signal may lead several investors to build leveraged positions in the same security; a subsequent decline in its price may then trigger similar margin shortfalls, prompting investors and brokers to reduce positions simultaneously. What begins as an individually rational risk-management response can therefore contribute to collective selling pressure and amplify price movements. The concern, therefore, is not that artificial intelligence or rule-based trading inherently makes MTF riskier, but that technology, leverage and correlated investor behaviour can interact in a manner that increases the speed and scale of deleveraging.

The Future of Leveraged Investing in India

India’s regulatory framework provides important safeguards at the investor and broker levels, while international experience demonstrates the value of monitoring collateral quality, concentration, liquidity and intermediary funding capacity. The future framework should therefore continue to monitor risk at three interconnected levels:

Investor level: adequate margin, transparent disclosures, liquidity planning, and disciplined position management.

Broker level: sufficient capital, diversified funding, liquidity buffers, and concentration controls.

System level: monitoring of aggregate leverage, common exposures, market and concentration liquidity, stress scenarios, and collateral quality.

This three-level approach becomes increasingly important as MTF becomes a larger part of India’s capital-market structure. The growth of leverage should be accompanied by equally strong infrastructure to monitor and contain its risks.

MTF has evolved from a relatively specialised leveraged-trading mechanism into an increasingly key component of India’s capital-market ecosystem. Its principal benefit lies in enabling investors to deploy capital more efficiently
and access investment opportunities with greater flexibility, while its principal risks arise from financing costs, margin requirements, liquidity constraints, and the possibility of forced liquidation.

As MTF becomes increasingly technology driven, the risk framework must also recognise the potential for common exposures and correlated behaviour, particularly where technology, rule-based strategies and leverage interact.

M/s. R. R. Builders v. Nandkumar Mulani and Anr : Tribunals may impose a reasonable three-year completion timeline when allotment letters fail to specify the date of possession.

8. Second Appeal (Stamp) No. 19058 of 2026 with Interim Application No. 5313 of 2026

Bombay High Court

M/s. R. R. Builders v. Nandkumar Mulani and Anr

Date of Order: 22.07.2026

The Appellate Tribunal was justified in imposing a reasonable period of three years for completion of project in absence of date of possession specified in the allotment letter and on failure on the part of the builder / promoter to enter into an agreement for sale and complete the project and handover possession to the allottee.

Treating the date of completion at the time of registration (as against the contractual date or a reasonable period of 3 years) is contrary to the statutory scheme and susceptible to undermine the very object of the Act.

FACTS

The Respondent Allottee was allotted a 3BHK Residential Flat measuring approximately 2144 sq ft. in the project then named Godrej Sky by the Appellant vide allotment letter dated 31.01.2013 for a consideration of Rs. 4,03,07,200. An earnest amount of Rs. 1,00,00,000 was paid by the Respondent Allottee in the beginning. Subsequently, the Respondent Allottee made payments and an aggregate amount of Rs. 2,01,53,600, that is, almost 50% of the aggregate consideration was paid to the Appellant. The Appellant neither executed an Agreement for Sale nor was the project anywhere near completion till the year 2021. The Respondent Allottee, vide letter dated 01.07.2021 demanded the refund of amount paid alongwith interest.

Since the Appellant failed to refund the amount paid by the Allottees, a complaint was filed before the Maharashtra Real Estate Regulatory Authority (MahaRERA) which came to be rejected vide order dated 20.09.2023 holding that the complaint was premature as the project was registered with MahaRERA on 05.08.2017 with a declared completion date of 30.06.2025. Aggrieved by the said order, the Respondent Allottee preferred an appeal before the Appellate Tribunal.

The Tribunal held that in absence of specific date of delivery of possession, the Appellant was under an obligation to deliver the possession within a reasonable time, which, in the circumstances of the case was 3 years. Aggrieved by the said order of the Tribunal, the Appellant filed an appeal before the High Court.

HELD

The High Court held that the Appellate Tribunal acted within its powers in imposing the reasonable period of 3 years for completion of project, else it would amount to granting liberty to the promoter for breach of statutory and contractual obligation thereby allowing him to convert his own default into an advantage – a result wholly inconsistent with the regime of fairness and transparency which RERA sought to achieve. The contention of the Appellant that the date of completion at the time of registration must be treated as conclusive was held to be contrary to the statutory scheme and was susceptible to undermine the very object of the Act. No fault could be attributed to the Respondent, who was not responsible for the Appellant’s default. It was held that the liability of the Appellant was squarely governed by the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Newtech Promoters and Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. State of UP (2022) 1 SCC 401. The High Court, thus, held that no substantial question of law arose and dismissed the appeal.

Raipur Development Authority v. Anup Kumar Sahu : Allottees have an unconditional right to refund for possession delays, even without formal contracts specifying the target completion date.

7. MANU/CG/0356/2024

Chhattisgarh High Court

Raipur Development Authority v. Anup Kumar Sahu

Date of Order: 17.01.2024

An allottee has an unconditional right to refund under section 18(1) of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 when there is delay of possession beyond the stipulated date notwithstanding the fact that delay was due to pending litigation and notwithstanding that there was no written agreement or formal contract expressly recording the date of possession.

FACTS

The Respondent filed an application before the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) under section 31 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act 2016, (“the Act”) on the ground that he had not received the possession of the house. It was stated that the Respondent was allotted a 2 BHK Duplex Row House on 10.06.2016 for an amount of Rs. 18,25,000. The Respondent had deposited an amount of Rs. 18,21,250 upto 31.10.2017. However, even after four years of filing the application before the RERA, the Respondent did not get the possession of the said house. Vide a letter dated 27.08.2020, the promoter RDA required the Respondent to deposit an amount of Rs. 23,33,963 wherein the GST amount was also shown.

At the time of purchase of the house, though it was stated that the price was tentative price and the actual price may increase by 2-3%. However, the amount claimed was higher to the extent of 35% instead of 1-2%. The Respondent requested for allotment of house with an increase of 2% and in the alternate requested for allotment of plot in another project known as Indraprastha -2 on the price which was prevailing in the year 2016. Further, the Respondent also submitted that if RDA was not willing to proceed as per the request, the entire deposit amount be refunded to the Respondent.

The Appellant RDA stated that the delay was attributable to the litigation pending before the Green Tribunal and the Supreme Court. Thereafter, there was assembly election and consequently, no development could be carried out. It was stated that the development was carried out upto June 2019 and thereafter application for extension was sought from the State Government. It was stated that the Appellant was ready to return the money and the application be dismissed.

The RERA, vide order dated 02.01.2021 dismissed the application and held that the increased price could not be accepted as there was no agreement executed. However, the application was dismissed, and it was held that since the Respondent failed to deposit the amount he was called upon to deposit by 11.09.2020, the increased amount was not paid, no relief could be granted. Further, it was also held that since the proceedings were pending before the National Green Tribunal and the Supreme Court from 2013 to 2019 and certain orders were passed, the delay caused was reasonable.

Against this order, an appeal was preferred by the Respondent before the Real Estate Appellate Tribunal which was decided in favour of the Respondent vide order dated 07.03.2023 and directions were issued to return the deposit amount of Rs. 18,25,000 paid by the Respondent along with interest at 10.5% from 08.06.2016 within a period of 45 days. Against the said order of the Appellate Tribunal, an appeal has been preferred by the RDA before the High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court remarked that on perusal of the records of RERA, judgements and stay orders of the Green Tribunal and the Supreme Court were not found on record and therefore, no inference could be drawn. The Hon’ble High Court relied upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Newtech Promoters and Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. State of UP & Others etc (Civil Appeal No. 6745-6749 of 2021]and held that the right of an allotee to seek refund is not dependent upon contingencies and if the allotee has exercised the option to get back the deposit, the allottee cannot be directed to take delayed possession of the house. Further, the High Court observed that even though there was no agreement which fixed the time limit for possession, it could be inferred from the other factual aspects such as date of completion registered with RERA (being 31.03.2019), that the target date of completion was 31.03.2019. The additional amount was demanded in July 2020 which was beyond the target date of completion. The High Court held that when the terms were directed by an institution like RDA and general people at large, imposed faith and deposited the amount, then RDA would be bound by the promise and the promise would be enforceable at the instance of the promisee Respondent in the present case, notwithstanding the fact that there was no consideration for the promise and the promise was not recorded by way of a formal contract. Thus, the High Court held that RDA was not entitled to immunity and was under an obligation to refund the deposit.

Wadhwa Group Housing Private Ltd. v. Vijay Choksi and Ors.: Multiple promoters are jointly liable for refunds under section 18, regardless of direct privity of contract with the allottee.

6. MANU/MH/1177/2024

Bombay High Court

Wadhwa Group Housing Private Ltd. v. Vijay Choksi and Ors.

Date of Order: 26.2.2024

In a real estate project having more than one promoter, every promoter is liable to refund the amount u/s 18 along with interest. A promoter cannot escape the statutory liability on the ground that the consideration was received exclusively by the co-promoter or that there was no direct privity of contract with the allottee.

FACTS

Wadhwa Group Housing Pvt. Ltd. (“the Appellant”) preferred an appeal against the order dated 18th October, 2022 passed by Maharashtra Real Estate Appellate Tribunal, Mumbai (AT) directing both the Appellant herein and SSS Escatics Pvt. Ltd. (Respondent No. 2 herein) to refund of entire amount paid by Vijay Choksi (Respondent No. 1) with interest.

Briefly stated, in respect of a project known as The Nest at Mumbai, the Appellant and Respondent No. 2, entered into a Joint Development Agreement (JDA) agreeing to share the constructed areas between them for being sold to customers. Since the project was incomplete on the date of coming into force of Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (“the Act”) it was registered as an ongoing project and the Appellant was declared as a Promoter (Investor).

The Respondent No. 1 booked a 3BHK flat, coming to the share of Respondent No. 2, and was issued an allotment letter dated 24.7.2013 by Respondent No. 2. The Respondent No. 1 paid several amounts to Respondent No. 2 from time to time. Since there was a delay in completion of the project, Respondent No. 1 filed a complaint to MahaRERA who held both Respondent No. 1 as well as promoters responsible for violation of provisions of section 4 of the MOFA and held that the Respondent No. 1 could not claim any equity under the provisions of RERA.

Aggrieved, Respondent No. 1 preferred an appeal against the order of the AT. The AT directed both Respondent No. 2 and the Appellant to refund the entire amount paid by Respondent No. 1 with interest to Respondent No. 1.

Aggrieved, by the order of the AT, the Appellant preferred the present appeal (second appeal) to the High Court on the ground that a promoter who has not received any consideration from an allottee cannot be made liable for giving refund with interest under section 18 of the Act. It also contended absence of direct privity of contract with Respondent No. 1.

HELD

The court held that the term `promoter’ has been so widely defined that it virtually includes every person associated with construction of the building. It held that even a person who is merely an investor in the project along with the Promoter and who is entitled to benefit in the real estate project is also covered by the definition of the term `Promoter’. Since it was an undisputed fact that the Appellant is entitled to a share in the constructed area which it is entitled to sell and accept consideration for such sale, the court held that there is no doubt to the position that both Appellant as well as the Respondent No. 2 are Promoters and are jointly liable in respect of the responsibilities under the RERA and Rules and Regulations made thereunder. Therefore, mere falling of flat in the share of Respondent No. 2 under the JDA would not excuse the Appellant from the responsibilities and liabilities under the RERA, Rules and regulations made thereunder qua that flat. RERA does not demarcate or restrict liabilities of different promoters in different areas. The liability is joint for all purposes under the Act, Rules and Regulations.

As regards the contention urged on behalf of the Appellant that this is not a fresh project after coming into force of RERA and that JDA was executed way back in the year 2012, the court held that mere registration of the project as an ongoing project would not make any difference so far as the joint liability of several promoters is concerned. It observed that the circular dated 4.12.2017 was issued particularly with reference to the ongoing project. By continuing the joint venture with Respondent No. 2 at the time of registration of the project, the Appellant has accepted all the liabilities of a Promoter under the Act and he cannot seek to escape the liability on a specious plea that the payments were made to Respondent No. 2 alone.

Section 18(1)(b) casts a liability on the Promoter to return the amount received from the flat purchaser. Since the Appellant is also a `Promoter’ it is jointly liable to refund the amount along with other promoter, Respondent No. 2. Section 18 cannot be narrowly interpreted to include only that promoter who actually received the amount.

When a claim is raised in respect of a real estate project by a flat purchaser, all promoters become jointly liable qua that flat purchaser irrespective of whether there is privity of contract with each of the promoter or not. This is the scheme of RERA and mere absence of privity of contract with a particular promoter does not relieve such promoter in respect of the liabilities under RERA.

The court held that the Appellant cannot escape the liability to refund the amount received towards sale of flat to Respondent No. 1.

Ruma Mehta & Ors v. Parorch Developers LLP : Allotment letters with clear property descriptions and payment schedules constitute valid contracts, enforceable retroactively under the RERA Act.

5. MANU/RT/0304/2026

Maharashtra Real Estate Appellate Tribunal

Ruma Mehta & Ors v. Parorch Developers LLP

Date of Order: 09.06.2026

An allotment letter that discloses the description of the property, flat, consideration amount, payment schedule, and terms and conditions, etc. fulfils all the ingredients of a valid and concluded contract for sale and purchase, which is enforceable under the provisions of the Act.

Since the Act is retroactive, an allotment letter issued prior to coming into force of the Act is enforceable under the Act.

FACTS

The Appellant booked a flat in the project of the Respondent for a consideration of Rs 3.75 crore by paying a sum of Rs 1.00 crore on 17.2.2014 by cheque. Upon receiving the said payment, the Respondent / Promoter confirmed that it will issue an allotment letter and called for further payments. The Appellant paid two more instalments. Thereafter, allotment letter dated 22.4.2014 was issued. The Promoter assured possession of the said flat by mid-2017. The Appellant thereafter paid further amounts to the Respondent making aggregate of payments to Rs 3.25 crore. Despite follow up when the Respondent failed to hand over possession, the Appellant filed a complaint on 19.4.2019 with the Authority seeking refund of amounts paid with interest under section 18 of the Act.

The Authority held that no directions are warranted under the Act since no agreement for sale was been executed and registered between the parties. Moreover, the cause of action for cancellation of booking has taken place prior to the RERA Act, 2016 coming into force.

Aggrieved, the Appellant preferred an appeal seeking to set aside the order of the Authority and a direction to the Promoter to refund the principal amount along with interest.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that despite having received 90% of the consideration amount, the Promoter failed to execute and register the agreement for sale. Since the Respondent failed to hand over the possession by due date, the Appellant was held to be entitled to a refund along with interest under section 18 of the Act.

The Tribunal observed that a closer examination of the allotment letter revealed that it disclosed the description of the property, flat, consideration amount, payment schedule, and terms and conditions, etc. Acceptance of payments in furtherance of the said allotment letter was held to reveal a clear picture of fulfilment of clauses (a) and (b) of section 2 of Contract Act, 1872. It held that the said letter of allotment constitutes a valid and concluded contract of sale purchase transaction, which is enforceable under the provisions of RERA Act, 2016.

Although the promised date of possession was mid2017, the allotment letter did not mention the same. The Tribunal noted that the Apex Court in Fortune Infrastructure (Now known as M/s. Hicon Infrastructure) & Anr. v. Trevor D’Lima & Ors. [MANU/SC/0253/2018 : (2018) 5 SCR 273] has held that if the date of possession is not mentioned in the agreement, the promoter is expected to hand over the possession of the unit within a reasonable time and the period of three years has been held to be reasonable. Therefore, the due date of possession of the said flat would be February 2017.

In the light of exposition of law contained in the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Newtech Promoters and Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. State of U.P. & Others [Civil Appeal No(s). 6745-6749 of 2021 (arising out of SLP (Civil) No(s). 3711-3715 of 2021 decided on 21st November, 2021], the Tribunal held that the said allotment letter which was executed prior to coming into force the RERA Act, 2016 can be enforced under the provisions of RERA Act, 2016.

It held that the appellant is entitled to seek relief under the provisions of RERA Act, 2016 even though the said allotment letter was executed prior to RERA Act, 2016 coming into force.

IBC Acts As a Shield against Cheque Bouncing Proceedings – Fact or Myth?

Section 138 of the NI Act penalises cheque bouncing, blending civil recovery with criminal penalties. Under the IBC, Section 14 imposes a moratorium shielding corporate debtors from legal proceedings, including s.138 actions, to provide “breathing space” for resolution. However, the Supreme Court clarified that this protection only applies to the company; directors and signatories remain personally liable for criminal prosecution. Recent jurisprudence in Surana (2026) complicates this by proposing a “tiered” approach that separates penal and compensatory facets, referring the conflict to a larger bench for final determination.

INTRODUCTION

One of the most popular sections that several businessmen are aware of is s.138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (“the NI Act”), also colloquially known as the cheque bouncing section. This section provides for imprisonment in certain cases of dishonoured cheques issued by a drawer.

On the other hand, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“the Code”) has become one of the most dynamic and fast-changing legislations. The Code provides for the insolvency resolution process of corporate debtors. The Code gets triggered when a corporate debtor commits a default in payment of a debt, which could be financial or operational. One of the important facets of this resolution process is that of a moratorium on legal proceedings against the corporate debtor contained u/s. 14 of the Code.

However, what happens when the sword of s.138 of the NI Act, meets the impenetrable shield of s.14 of the Code? In short, what happens when a cheque issued by a corporate debtor is dishonoured and that corporate debtor has a moratorium on legal proceedings by virtue of s.14 of the Code? Can there be criminal proceedings against the company and its directors/drawers of the cheques? The answer, interestingly, is yes and no! Let us examine this interesting judicial crossroad.

Cheque-Bouncing-and-Bankruptcy

WHEN DOES S.138 GET TRIGGERED?

Let us briefly examine the impugned section. S.138 of the NI Act provides that if any cheque is drawn by a person (drawer) in favour of another person (payee) and if that cheque is dishonoured because of insufficient funds in the drawer’s bank account, then such drawer is deemed to have committed an offence. The penalty for this offence is imprisonment for a term which may be extended to 2 years and/or with a fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque.

To invoke the provisions of s.138, the following three steps are necessary:

(i) the cheque must be presented to the bank within a period of 3 months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier;

(ii) once the payee is informed by the bank about the dishonour of the cheque, then he must within 30 days of such information make a demand for the payment of the said amount of money by giving a notice in writing, to the drawer of the cheque; and

(iii) the drawer of such cheque fails to make the payment of the said amount of money to the payee of the cheque, within 15 days of the receipt of the said notice.

A fourth step is specified under s.142 of the Act which provides that a complaint must be made to the Court within one month of the date from which the cause of action arises (i.e., the notice period). A rebuttable presumption is drawn by the NI Act that the holder of the cheque received it for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability. In a case where the drawer is a company- the Directors and the persons concerned for running of the company including the Managing Director or any other officer of the entity with whose consent or connivance the offence has been committed can be prosecuted. Section 141 of the Act regulates offences by companies. Under sub-section (1), every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of and responsible to the company for the conduct of its business — typically the Managing Director or a whole-time director — is deemed liable, subject to a proviso permitting such person to show that the offence was committed without his knowledge or that he had exercised due diligence to prevent it. Under sub-section (2), a director, manager, secretary or other officer is additionally liable where the offence is shown to have been committed with his consent or connivance, or is attributable to any neglect on his part. Various Supreme Court decisions have held that non-executive directors/independent directors cannot be prosecuted for such offences.

In Vinay Devanna Nayak v. Ryot Sewa Sahakari Bank Ltd. [2008] 2 SCC 305, a Division Bench of the Apex Court referred to the object of s.138 thus:

“16. Section 138 of the Act…. to regulate financial promises in growing business, trade, commerce and industrial activities of the country and the strict liability to promote greater vigilance in financial matters. ……… The provision has been introduced with a view to curb cases of issuing cheques indiscriminately by making stringent provisions and safeguarding interest of creditors.”

A Three-Judge Bench of the Supreme Court in P. Mohanraj v. Shah Brothers Ispat (P.) Ltd., (2021) 6 SCC 258 explained that s.138 shows that the legislature was cognizant of the fact that what was otherwise a civil liability was now also deemed to be an offence, since this liability was made punishable by law. The transaction covered by the section was a commercial transaction between two parties which involved payment of money for a debt or liability. The explanation to Section 138 made it clear that such debt or other liability meant a legally enforceable debt or other liability. This, coupled with fine that may extend to twice the amount of the cheque that was payable as compensation to the aggrieved party to cover both the amount of the cheque and the interest and costs thereupon, showed that it was really a hybrid provision to enforce payment of a bounced cheque if it was otherwise enforceable in civil law. Further, though the ingredients of the offence were contained in the first part of Section 138 when the cheque was returned by the bank unpaid, the proviso gives a second opportunity to the drawer of the cheque. This again made it clear that the real object of the provision was not to penalise the wrongdoer for an offence that was already made out, but to compensate the victim. The Court concluded that it was clear that a s.138 proceeding could be said to be a “civil sheep” in a “criminal wolf’s” clothing, as it was the interest of the victim that was sought to be protected, the larger interest of the State being subsumed in the victim alone moving a court in cheque bouncing cases.

Again, in Kaushalya Devi Massand v. Roopkishore Khore, [2011] 4 SCC 593, it was held that the gravity of a complaint under the Act could not be equated with an offence under the provisions of the Penal Code, 1860 or other criminal offences. An offence under s.138 of the NI Act was almost in the nature of a civil wrong which had been given criminal overtones.

In R. Vijayan v. Baby (2012) 1 SCC 260, the Court held that s.138 was a unique exercise which blurred the dividing line between civil and criminal jurisdictions. It provided a single forum and single proceeding, for enforcement of criminal liability (for dishonouring the cheque) and for enforcement of the civil liability (for realisation of the cheque amount) thereby obviating the need for the creditor to move two different fora for relief. The apparent intention was to ensure that not only the offender was punished, but also to ensure that the complainant invariably received the amount of the cheque by way of compensation.

In Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod v. State of Maharashtra (2014) 9 SCC 129, a three-Judge Bench of the Court held that Parliament was aware that they were converting civil liability into criminal content inter alia by the deeming fiction of culpability in terms of the pandect comprising s.138.

In Meters and Instruments (P) Ltd. v. Kanchan Mehta (2018) 1 SCC 560 it was held that the object of the statute was to facilitate smooth functioning of business transactions. The provision was necessary as in many transactions cheques were issued merely as a device to defraud the creditors. Dishonour of cheque caused incalculable loss, injury and inconvenience to the payee and credibility of business transactions suffered a setback. The object of the provision was described as both punitive as well as compensatory. The intention of the provision was to ensure that the complainant received the amount of cheque by way of compensation. Though proceedings under section 138 could not be treated as civil suits for recovery, the scheme of the provision, providing for punishment with imprisonment or with fine which could extend to twice the amount of the cheque or to both, made the intention of law clear. The offence under s.138 of the NI Act was primarily a civil wrong.

WHAT PROTECTION DOES S.14 OF THE CODE PROVIDE?

Once the insolvency resolution petition against the corporate debtor is admitted by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) and after the corporate insolvency resolution process commences, the NCLT declares a moratorium prohibiting institution or continuation of any suits against the debtor; execution of any judgment of a Court/authority; any transfer of assets by the debtor; recovery of any property against the debtor. The moratorium continues till the resolution process is completed. Thus, total protection is offered to the debtor against any suits/proceedings.

An extract of the relevant provisions of s.14 of the Code is reproduced below:

“Moratorium.

14. (1) Subject to provisions of sub-sections (2) and (3), on the insolvency commencement date, the Adjudicating Authority shall by order declare moratorium for prohibiting all of the following, namely:

(a) the institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings against the corporate debtor including execution of any judgment, decree or order in any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority;

(b) transferring, encumbering, alienating or disposing of by the corporate debtor any of its assets or any legal right or beneficial interest therein;

(c) any action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest created by the corporate debtor in respect of its property including any action under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (54 of 2002);

(d) the recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such property is occupied by or in the possession of the corporate debtor.

(4) The order of moratorium shall have effect from the date of such order till the completion of the corporate insolvency resolution process:”

The Apex Court in P. Mohanraj (supra) has held that the sweep of the provision was very wide indeed as it included institution, continuation, judgment and execution of suits and proceedings. It was clear that the expression “institution of suits or continuation of pending suits” was to be read as one category, and the disjunctive “or” before the word “proceedings” would make it clear that proceedings against the corporate debtor would be a separate category.

TWO ACTS AT LOGGERHEADS – WHICH WINS?

The question that now arises is that if there is a moratorium against a corporate debtor undergoing insolvency resolution, and a cheque issued by such a company has been dishonoured, then would an action under s.138 of the Act survive?

The Supreme Court in the decision of P. Mohanraj held that the width of the expression “proceedings” under s.14 of the Code was the expression “any judgment, decree or order” and “any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority”. Since criminal proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 [“CrPC”] were conducted before the courts mentioned in Section 6, CrPC, it was clear that a s.138 proceeding being conducted before a Magistrate would certainly be a proceeding in a court of law in respect of a transaction which related to a debt owed by the corporate debtor.

The idea was that it facilitated the continued operation of the business of the corporate debtor to allow it breathing space to organise its affairs so that a new management may ultimately take over and bring the corporate debtor out of financial sickness, thus benefitting all stakeholders, which would include workmen of the corporate debtor. The Apex Court further explained that while s.14(1)(a) referred to monetary liabilities of the corporate debtor, s.14(1)(b) referred to the corporate debtor’s assets, and together, these two clauses formed a scheme which shielded the corporate debtor from pecuniary attacks against it in the moratorium period so that the corporate debtor got breathing space to continue as a going concern in order to ultimately rehabilitate itself. Relying on this explanation, the Supreme Court did not allow cheque bouncing proceedings to continue against the corporate debtor u/s. 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. It held that a quasi-criminal proceeding that is contained in Chapter XVII of the Negotiable Instruments Act would, given the object and context of s.14 of IBC, amount to a ‘proceeding’ within the meaning of s.14(1)(a) of the Code and hence, the moratorium would attach to such a proceeding.

ARE SIGNATORIES ALSO SHIELDED?

In the above-referred decision of P. Mohanraj (supra), the Supreme Court also held that it is clear that the moratorium provision contained in Section 14 of the IBC would apply only to the corporate debtor, the natural persons, i.e., its Directors in charge of its affairs continued to be statutorily liable under of the Negotiable Instruments Act. Accordingly, criminal proceedings could continue unabated against the Managing Director / Other Directors who have drawn the bounced cheque.

It is important to note that this very premise — that a director may be prosecuted independently of the corporate debtor — rests on the ratio laid down in Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels & Tours (P) Ltd., (2012) 5 SCC 661, where a Constitution Bench held that a director cannot be prosecuted under Section 141 of the NI Act unless the company itself is arraigned as an accused in the same complaint. It is this requirement of joinder that gives the s.14 moratorium its practical effect in the first place: the company, being the primary accused, is shielded and the proceeding qua it stands stayed, while the derivative liability of the directors, being independent of that stay, continues to be prosecuted in the very same complaint.

In Narinder Garg v. Kotak Mahindra Bank Ltd. [2022] SCC Online SC 517, the Supreme Court held that the moratorium provisions contained in s.14 of the Code would apply only to the corporate debtor and that the natural persons mentioned in s.141 of the Act would continue to be statutorily liable under the provisions of the Act.

A subsequent decision of the Supreme Court in Ajay Kumar Radheyshyam Goenka v Tourism Finance Corporation of India Ltd., (2023) 10 SCC 545 has observed:

“What follows from the aforesaid is that for difficulty in prosecuting the corporate debtor under section 138 of the NI Act after the approval of the resolution plan under the IBC, we need not let the natural persons i.e., the signatories to the cheques/directors of the corporate debtor escape prosecution. How can one allow the natural persons to escape liability on such specious plea?”

It held that where the proceedings under section 138 of the Act had already commenced and during the pendency the plan was approved or the company got dissolved, the directors and the other accused could not escape from their liability by citing its dissolution. What was dissolved was only the company, not the personal penal liability of the accused covered under the NI Act.

A distinction, however, deserves to be drawn between the personal liability of the director discussed above and the liability of the corporate debtor itself. S.32A of the Code, upheld as constitutionally valid in Manish Kumar v. Union of India, (2021) 5 SCC 1, expressly extinguishes the liability of the corporate debtor itself for offences committed prior to commencement of the CIRP, once a resolution plan was approved and resulted in a change in the management or control of the corporate debtor. This extinguishment, however, was confined to the corporate debtor as a juristic entity; it did not, on its own terms, touch the personal liability of the erstwhile promoters, directors or officers who were in-charge of the affairs of the company at the time the offence was committed, and it was precisely this gap that Goenka (supra) filled by holding that such natural persons continue to remain answerable under s.138 notwithstanding the corporate debtor’s own liability having been extinguished under Section 32A.

It is worth noting that the ground was already unsettled before the two-Judge Bench took up Surana. The Bombay High Court, in Sheetal Gupta vs. National Spot Exchange Limited, 2023 SCC OnLine Bom 3095, directed a stay of criminal proceedings under s.138 of the NI Act against the concerned persons representing the corporate debtors. The Court read the phrase “any debt” in the IBC widely enough to include the liability that could arise from a s.138 complaint and applied P. Mohanraj’s reasoning that such a proceeding was fundamentally a civil-recovery in character. On that basis, it held the applicant-director’s personal insolvency moratorium was covered and stayed the s.138 prosecution against him.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court, in Surendra Kumar Patwa v. Dharmendra Vohra, 2024 SCC OnLine MP 7371, followed this reasoning along with that of P. Mohanraj and likewise extended the interim moratorium to stay s.138 proceedings against an individual in personal insolvency. The Court held that P. Mohanraj’s rationale was not confined to the corporate moratorium and extended the analogy to the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the Code for an individual/personal guarantor, reading “any legal action or proceeding pending in respect of any debt” as wide enough to sweep in s.138 proceedings. It also treated the decision in Ajay Goenka (supra) as distinguishable/per incuriam on the point, since (in its view) Goenka had not squarely engaged with Mohanraj’s civil characterisation of s.138.

TWIST IN THE TALE

The discussion so far has concerned the corporate debtor’s own moratorium under Section 14 of the Code. The same underlying principle — that a director’s personal liability survives independently of the debtor’s insolvency — was reaffirmed by the Supreme Court in the context of the Part III moratorium governing personal insolvency of individuals, in Rakesh Bhanot v Gurdas Agro (P.) Ltd., (2025) 6 SCC 781, where the Court held that the scope and nature of the proceedings under the Code might result in extinguishment of the actual debt by restructuring or through the process of liquidation. However, such extinguishment could not absolve its directors from criminal liability. S.141 of the Act enabled the prosecution of the persons in charge of the affairs and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company along with the company. The statutory liability against the directors was personal and hence, continued to bind natural persons, irrespective of any moratorium applicable to the corporate debtor. The acceptance of the resolution plan under the Code or its implementation did not have any effect on the prosecution under s.138 of the Act. The distinction between the right to sue based on a dishonoured cheque by initiating a civil suit and launching a prosecution under s.138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act was significant. In the case of the former, the interim moratorium operated, but not in case of the latter.

The Court concluded that allowing the signatories to evade prosecution under s.138 by invoking the moratorium would undermine the very purpose of the NI Act which was to preserve the integrity and credibility of commercial transactions, and the personal responsibility persisted, regardless of the insolvency proceedings.

A two-Judge Bench in Dineshchand Surana v. UCO Bank, 2026 INSC 579 has ignited a fresh controversy. The Bench undertook a fundamental re-examination of the interface between the Act and the moratorium provisions of the Code and in doing so introduced a bifurcated or “tiered” understanding of s.138 that had not previously found articulation in this form. The Court held that s.138 proceedings were not monolithic but comprised of two distinct facets — a penal or criminal facet, directed at conviction, sentence and fine as punishment for the offence of dishonour, and a compensatory facet, under which the trial court may direct payment of compensation to the complainant (a remedy that the Bench described as functionally akin to a civil suit for recovery of debt).

On this analysis, the Bench held that the moratorium under the IBC (governing personal insolvency of individuals and partnership firms) cannot attach to the criminal facet, since permitting a debtor to use the moratorium as a shield against prosecution would defeat the penal and deterrent purpose of s.138 and reward evasion of criminal liability. However, because the compensatory facet was civil in substance and directly affected the debtor’s asset pool during the insolvency process, the Bench held that this facet did attract the protection of the moratorium — extending, notably, even to directors made vicariously liable under Section 141 where they were themselves undergoing personal insolvency.

The controversy that Surana has ignited is, in truth, two-fold. First, it questioned the very foundation laid in P. Mohanraj (supra), which had characterised s.138 in essentially unitary civil-recovery terms — famously as a “civil sheep in a criminal wolf’s clothing” — and had accordingly treated the entirety of such proceedings against a corporate debtor as covered by the s.14 moratorium. By dissecting s.138 into penal and compensatory tiers and doubting whether Mohanraj’s civil characterisation can be sustained without qualification, the Bench in Surana effectively signalled disagreement with the reasoning of a coordinate or higher-strength Bench without formally overruling it. Hence, the Court referred the matter for re-examination to a larger Bench. Second, and just as significantly, the tiered approach sat uneasily against the Court’s own very recent ruling in Rakesh Bhanot (supra), which had taken an unqualified, blanket position that the interim moratorium did not stay any facet of s.138 — criminal or compensatory. It held that the reference to the three-Judge Bench may decide on the following questions:

(i) Whether the provisions of s.138 of the Act and the objective underlying the enactment thereof indicate that it is quasi-criminal in nature with a tilt towards the criminal side?

(ii) Whether the moratorium provisions under the IBC should be made applicable on the entire proceedings under s.138 of the Act or only to the compensatory aspect thereof?

Meanwhile, at the High Court level, the interregnum is already being tested. The Telangana High Court in V. Narayana Reddy v. State of Telangana, (2026) ibclaw.in 193 HC, has held that promoters, directors and nominee directors of a corporate debtor cannot seek quashing of s.138 proceedings merely on the ground that IBC proceedings have been initiated or concluded against the company — an approach consistent with the criminal-facet reasoning in Surana itself, even as the larger constitutional question remains pending before the three-Judge Bench.

CONCLUSION

The decision in the case of Surana(supra) has created a new quandary: until the reference is answered, whether Mohanraj’s broader, protection for corporate debtors under s.14 will survive? It is submitted that since Mohanraj is a decision of a three-Judge bench it would hold the fort till reversed by a larger bench.

Duliram Maurya v. Nandram: Prolonged and unexplained delay in depositing balance consideration under a specific performance decree disentitles the purchaser to time extension.

29. Duliram Maurya v. Nandram

2026 Live Law (AB) 5557

August 6, 2026

Specific performance – Failure to deposit balance consideration within time stipulated in decree – Extension of time under section 28 – prolonged and unexplained delay – Discretion to extend time must be exercised on equitable principles – Wilful negligence of decree-holder disentitles extension. [Specific Relief Act, 1963, S.28]

FACTS

The petitioner and respondent entered into an agreement to sell dated 3 July 1991 for a consideration of `25,000/-. The respondent paid `13,000/- as advance and the balance `12,000/- was to be paid at the time of execution of the sale deed.

The respondent instituted a suit for specific performance, which was dismissed by the Trial Court.
In appeal, the suit was decreed. The petitioner was directed to execute the sale deed within two months, and the respondent was directed to deposit the balance consideration within one month.

The petitioner preferred a second appeal. No interim order was passed therein. The respondent did not deposit the balance consideration within the stipulated period. Execution proceedings were initiated only on 6 August 2012. The second appeal was dismissed on 23 September 2019. Thereafter, the petitioner applied under section 28 of the Specific Relief Act for rescission of the contract. The respondent, however, filed an application on 17 November 2025 seeking extension of time for depositing the balance consideration and condonation of delay. The executing court allowed the application subject to payment of Rs.1,000/- as costs. The revision filed by the petitioner was dismissed.

HELD

The Court held that a decree for specific performance is in the nature of a preliminary decree and the Court does not become functus officio upon passing of the decree. Under section 28, the Court retains jurisdiction, until execution of the sale deed, to either rescind the contract/decree or extend the time for payment of the balance consideration.

The power to extend time is, however, discretionary and equitable. While exercising such power, the Court must consider the attending circumstances, conduct of the parties, length of delay and the equities created in favour of the judgment-debtor. Mere expiry of the period stipulated in the decree does not result in automatic rescission; equally, payment after expiry does not result in automatic extension of time.

In the present case, the respondent had failed to deposit the balance consideration within one month of the decree dated 22 November 2003. Though execution proceedings were initiated in 2012 and an application for extension of time was filed, the respondent did not pursue the application. Even after dismissal of the second appeal in 2019, the respondent waited for more than six years before seeking extension of time in 2025.

The Court held that the conduct of the respondent disclosed wilful negligence and demonstrated that he was not genuinely interested in completing his part of the contract. The pendency of the second appeal could not justify the delay, particularly when no stay had been granted, and the respondent had not even contested the second appeal. The fact that the decree of 2003 merged in the judgment, dismissing the second appeal in 2019, did not assist the respondent. Even thereafter, he waited for more than six years before seeking extension of time. The Court held that the courts below had failed to properly balance the equities and had erred in permitting the respondent to deposit the balance consideration after such prolonged and unexplained delay.

The impugned orders are set aside. The Writ Petition was allowed.

Sanjay Sharma v. Krishnadhan Khaware : Disputed limitation issues for probate applications cannot be decided summarily as the right to apply is a continuous right.

28. Sanjay Sharma @ Sanjay Bhardwaj v. Krishnadhan Khaware & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (SC) 683

July 15, 2026

Probate – limitation – Article 137 of Limitation Act – right to apply for probate is a continuous right – limitation does not necessarily commence from death of testator – Order VII Rule 11 – Disputed limitation issue cannot be decided summarily. [Indian Succession Act, 1925, Ss.222, 276; Limitation Act, 1963, Art.137; Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Order VII Rule 11].

FACTS

An application for probate of a Will dated 15 April 1995 was filed in 2005. The testator had died approximately ten years earlier. The objectors applied under Order VII Rule 11 CPC seeking rejection of the probate application on the ground of limitation. The District Judge rejected the probate application and the High Court affirmed the decision.

The issue before the Supreme Court was whether a probate application filed several years after the death of the testator was barred by limitation.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that the Indian Succession Act, 1925 does not prescribe a specific limitation period for an application for probate. Consequently, Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies, prescribing three years from the date when the right to apply accrues.

However, the Court rejected the proposition that the right to apply for probate necessarily accrues on the date of death of the testator.

An application for probate represents a continuous right which may be exercised whenever it becomes necessary to obtain the Court’s authority in relation to the Will. The right therefore accrues when the necessity to apply arises, which need not necessarily be within three years of the testator’s death.

In the present case, the necessity to seek probate arose when persons claiming adversely to the Will took hostile steps, including execution of a General Power of Attorney on 8 August 2005. The probate application filed on 31 August 2005 was therefore within limitation.

The Court also dealt with the second issue concerning Order VII Rule 11 CPC. It held that where limitation involves questions of fact – such as the date on which the applicant acquired knowledge of the relevant facts – the issue becomes a mixed question of law and fact and cannot ordinarily be decided summarily at the Order VII Rule 11 stage.

Further, an Order VII Rule 11 application is not the appropriate stage for making findings concerning whether the Will itself is suspicious or genuine. Such questions require appreciation of evidence in the substantive proceedings.

The Supreme Court accordingly restored the matter to the Civil Court for consideration in accordance with law. The Appeal was allowed.

Mahinder v. Puran Singh : Parliament possesses legislative competence to enact preferential rights of co-heirs for agricultural land under Hindu succession entries.

27. Mahinder & Ors. v. Puran Singh

2026 LiveLaw (SC) 625

July 14, 2026

Hindu Succession – Preferential right of co-heirs – Agricultural land – applicability of section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act – Legislative competence – Distinction between succession-based pre-emption and general pre-emption. [Hindu Succession Act, 1956, S.22; Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule, List III, Entry 5]

FACTS

The parties were siblings and had inherited agricultural land from their father as Class-I legal heirs. Some of the defendants sold their respective inherited shares to a third party. The plaintiff instituted proceedings under section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 claiming the statutory preferential right to acquire the property.

The Trial Court dismissed the suit, relying upon Atam Prakash v. State of Haryana, 1986 AIR 859, which had struck down a provision of the Punjab Pre-emption Act as unconstitutional. The First Appellate Court reversed that decision, relying upon Babu Ram v. Santokh Singh, Civil Appeal No. 2553 of 2019, which had recognised the applicability of section 22 to agricultural land. The High Court declined to interfere in the second appeal.

The Supreme Court was therefore called upon to determine whether section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act applies to agricultural land and whether Parliament possessed legislative competence to enact such a provision.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that section 22 of the Hindu Succession Act applies to agricultural land. The right under section 22 is fundamentally a succession-based right. It is not a general law regulating transfers of agricultural land. Its purpose is to enable Class-I co-heirs who inherit property from a common intestate to prevent strangers from entering into the family property.

Applying the doctrine of pith and substance, the Court held that the dominant character of section 22 falls within Entry 5 of List III of the Seventh Schedule, dealing with succession. The fact that the exercise of the right may affect a proposed transfer does not transform the provision into a law regulating transfer of agricultural land.

Parliament therefore possessed legislative competence to enact section 22 even insofar as agricultural property is concerned. The Court also held that there was no conflict between the cases of Atam Prakash and Babu Ram.

The Court further held that where proceedings under section 22 were instituted before execution of the sale deed, the requirement that the alienation be “about to happen” stood satisfied. The plaintiff was not subsequently required to institute a separate challenge to the completed sale deed merely because the sale was effected during pendency of the section 22 proceedings.

Thus, the preferential right under section 22 is a limited, succession-based right of Class-I co-heirs and is fully enforceable in respect of agricultural land.

Chaitanya Suresh Kambli v. State of Maharashtra : Removing an auditor from the empanelment panel lacks statutory power for permanent debarment, violating their constitutional professional rights.

26. Chaitanya Suresh Kambli v. State of Maharashtra & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (Bom) 368

July 29, 2026

Co-operative societies – Auditor’s panel – Removal from panel for one empanelment period – Permanent debarment from future empanelment – Absence of statutory power to impose perpetual embargo – Restriction violative of Article 19(1)(g). [Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960, Ss. 75(2A), 81; Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Rules, 1961, R.69(1)(g); Constitution of India, Art.19(1)(g)]

FACTS

The petitioner was a qualified certified auditor and had been empanelled on the State Government’s panel of auditors for several years. He had acted as auditor of a Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. continuously for 13 years. This was contrary to the statutory restriction under section 75(2A), under which the same auditor could not be appointed by the same society for more than three consecutive years.

Following a complaint, the Commissioner/Registrar passed an order dated 7 October 2024 directing removal of the petitioner’s name from the panel of auditors published on 7 February 2024, which was operative only until 31 March 2026. When a fresh empanelment process was initiated for 2026-28, the Government relied upon clause 6(x) of its circular, which provided that an auditor whose name had been removed from the earlier panel under Rule 69(1)(g) would not be eligible for re-inclusion.

The petitioner challenged this restriction, contending that the earlier removal was only for the duration of the particular panel and that there was no statutory provision permanently debarring him from future empanelment.

HELD

The Court noted that section 75(2A) prohibits the same auditor from being appointed by the same society for more than three consecutive years. The statutory scheme therefore regulates the auditor-society relationship; it does not contemplate a permanent prohibition against the auditor being empanelled for other societies or in future panels.

Rule 69(1)(g) specifies circumstances in which the name of an auditor may be removed from the panel. However, the Court found no provision in the Act or Rules creating a permanent embargo against future empanelment merely because an auditor’s name had previously been removed from a panel. The Court held that clause 6(x) of the Government circular, insofar as it permanently prevented such an auditor from applying for subsequent empanelment, was unsustainable. A permanent removal from the State’s panel has serious consequences for the auditor’s professional right to carry on his occupation. Since neither section 81 nor Rule 69(1)(g) contemplated permanent debarment, the restriction was held to be violative of Article 19(1)(g).

The Court therefore held that the petitioner’s previous deplanement from the 2024-26 panel could not prevent him from applying for empanelment for 2026-28.

The Writ Petition was made absolute.

Mumtaz Ahmad Shah v. Chief Executive Officer, SRA : Eviction order implementation is a statutory obligation of the competent authority, and lack of enforcement machinery is no defence.

25. Mumtaz Ahmad Shah v. Chief Executive Officer, Slum Rehabilitation Authority & Ors.

2026 LiveLaw (Bom) 353

July 22, 2026

Slum Rehabilitation – Eviction order – Duty of Competent Authority to implement eviction – absence of enforcement machinery no defence – SRA/MHADA required to ensure mechanism for execution of eviction orders. [Maharashtra Slum Areas (Improvement, Clearance and Redevelopment) Act, 1971, Ss. 2(c), 3E, 33]

FACTS

The petitioner claimed possession of Flat which had been allotted to him. The Competent Authority had passed an order dated 4 July 2023 directing that possession of the premises be handed over to the petitioner. The petitioner approached the Bombay High Court under Article 226 seeking implementation of the eviction order. MHADA did not dispute that an eviction order had been passed but submitted that the Competent Authority did not possess the machinery necessary to execute it and had to depend upon the Slum Rehabilitation Authority (SRA). The SRA, in turn, submitted that the contractor previously engaged for execution of eviction orders was no longer available.

HELD

The Court examined sections 3E and 33 of the Maharashtra Slum Areas (Improvement, Clearance and Redevelopment) Act, 1971. Section 33 specifically empowers the Competent Authority to direct eviction and, for that purpose, to use or cause to be used such force as may be necessary.

The Court held that implementation of an eviction order is a statutory obligation of the Competent Authority. The authority cannot pass an eviction order and thereafter contend that it lacks the machinery to enforce it. Merely passing an eviction order without having the means to implement it would render section 33 meaningless and defeat its very object by encouraging unauthorised occupation.

Although the Competent Authority may seek assistance from the SRA, the SRA’s inability to provide machinery does not absolve the Competent Authority of its statutory obligation. The Competent Authority must devise a mechanism and ensure that adequate machinery is available for execution of eviction orders.

The Court directed the Principal Secretary, Housing Department, in coordination with the Vice President and Chief Executive Officer of MHADA and the Competent Authority, to ensure that the necessary machinery is put in place.

The Writ Petition was allowed and listed for compliance.

Non-Tariff Barriers: The New Face of Protectionism

As traditional tariffs decline globally, countries increasingly deploy non-tariff barriers (NTBs) like technical standards, environmental regulations, and data localization laws to protect domestic industries. While often framed as public health or safety measures, these complex, opaque regulations act as disguised protectionism. They disproportionately restrict market access for developing nations, exacerbating global trade inequalities. Looking ahead, NTBs are here to stay. Emerging technologies like AI and digital compliance frameworks will likely be weaponised by advanced economies to reinforce competitive advantages, creating a new generation of sophisticated barriers.

The globe suddenly isn’t shrinking as much. Increasingly the “global village” resembles independent fiefdoms, with political strongmen emerging as undisputed kings. With social, cultural and political upheaval, economics cannot be left behind. Indeed, arguably, there is no motivator stronger than economics to usher in change, whether social, cultural or political.

Since time immemorial, trade has been used as a strategic tool by shrewd statesmen either to assert heft or to avoid economic annihilation. The simple truth about being alive is best described in a phrase “survival of the fittest”, coined by Herbert Spencer and adopted by Charles Darwin.1 When juxtaposed to economics it translates to “dance with the devil”, or thereabouts!


1 Paul, Diane B. The Selection of the ‘Survival of the Fittest’, Journal of the History of Biology, Vol. 21, No. 3, 1988, pp. 411–24.

There are different measures adopted by States to make the life of a product entering the country difficult – by putting a tax (a tariff or customs duty) at the border, thereby directly adding to the price or by using rules and procedures that are not tax and yet can significantly obstruct trade. Tax is charged at the very threshold, when a product crosses the customs border.2 It is visible and the impact is easy to measure, the non-tariff measures on the other hand are rules framed by States in a manner that they affect trade for eg., health and safety rules for food3, quality standards for products4, special permissions for sensitive goods5 etc. These measures are used to shield domestic industries from foreign competition.


2 Section 12 of the Customs Act, 1962 read with Section 3 of the Section 3 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.
3 Food safety and health regulations in India are primarily governed by the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which consolidates various legacy food laws and lays down science-based standards for food items, while regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import. The framework is administered by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India and is supplemented by rules and regulations, including the Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011, Food Safety and Standards (Import) Regulations, 2017, Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011, and the Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulations, 2011.
4 Quality standards for non-food industrial goods, including electronics, chemicals, and consumer products, fall under the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Indian Standards (“BIS”) and relevant line ministries. The governing framework is anchored in the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 (which replaced the 1986 Act), establishing BIS as the national standards body responsible for product standardization, marking, and quality certification. Key non-tariff enforcement mechanisms include Quality Control Orders, issued by ministries, which render specified Indian Standards mandatory and prohibit the manufacture, sale, or import of non-compliant goods. The Compulsory Registration Scheme, which mandates testing and registration for notified electronics, IT, and solar products prior to market entry and the Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme, which requires overseas manufacturers exporting notified goods to India to obtain a valid BIS licence.
5 Imports and exports of sensitive and dual-use items under the FTP 2023 are governed by Section 3 read with Sections 11, 13, and 14 of the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992. Read with Paragraph 2.08, Chapter 2 of FTP 2023, trade in restricted or sensitive items strictly mandates prior import/export authorizations or permissions issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade. Specific control over dual-use, defense, and strategic goods is exercised under the SCOMET framework (Chapter 10, FTP 2023), which requires specialized clearances.

A question to ask in today’s interconnected and yet distant world, is – are these “invisible” rules and procedures a larger hindrance to trade than the old-fashioned taxes on import? From an Indian standpoint what does it mean for the country, its people and the businesses involved?

INDIAN PERSPECTIVE: DECLINING TARIFFS, RISING BARRIERS

A bare reading of the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 (“FTP 2023”) indicates that exports and imports are generally “free” unless specifically restricted/prohibited6. A further perusal of the customs tariff structure over the years would show that they have been gradually falling to meet with India’s international commitment7. Indeed, this is not an Indian phenomenon alone, many countries have reduced tariffs through trade negotiations. At the same time, they have introduced rules/regulations and conditions at and behind the border, that are now a major factor shaping trade.


6 Paragraph 2.01, Chapter 2, FTP 2023. 
7 Explainer: What the WTO’s Latest Trade Policy Review Says About India’s Economy and the Road to Viksit Bharat, 29th July 2026, https://indiasworld.in/explainer-what-the-wtos-latest-trade-policy-review-says-about-indias-economy-and-the-road-to-viksit-bharat/ (last accessed on 01.08.2026) & Report of Trade Policy Review: India, Trade Policy Review Body, 26th May 2026, https://www.wto.org/english/news_e/news_docs/S488_e.pdf (last accessed on 01.08.2026).

RISE OF NON-TARIFF BARRIERS IN GLOBAL TRADE

As the globe turned into a “global village”, a term popularized by Canadian media theorist Marshall McLuhan8, trade expanded and with it there was a global push for trade liberalization. While this promoted free trade in principle, it hindered the ability of governments to use tariff measures as protective shields. Newer methods thus were devised by governments, that pivoted to alternative mechanisms that do not fall foul of international norms while yet offering protection to domestic industries.


8 Mass Media and the Global Village, Yale University Press, 17th November 2016, https://yalebooks.yale.edu/2016/11/17/mass-media-and-the-global-village/, (last accessed on 01.08.2026)

FORMS OF NON-TARIFF BARRIERS: REGULATION AS RESTRICTION

Non-tariff barriers can take various forms, either as regulatory mechanism, export control measures or restrictions on technology transfer etc. Technical barriers to trade have particularly become significant. These include product standards, labeling requirements and safety regulations that imported goods are expected to meet. What may often be justified on grounds of consumer protection and environmental sustainability also act as hidden barriers to trade. An instance that readily comes to mind is the stringent environmental standards that the European Union has imposed. Measures such as the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism, which effectively levy a carbon cost on imports of emission-intensive goods, and the proposed Packaging and Packaging Waste Regulation9, which mandates recyclability and reuse standards, have significantly elevated compliance thresholds for exporters. These may be difficult for exporters from developing countries to comply with, effectively limiting market access to countries that comprise the global south.


9 Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism, European Union, https://taxation-customs.ec.europa.eu/carbon-border-adjustment-mechanism_en. (last accessed on 01.08.2026)

Use of sanitary and phytosanitary measures10, that aim to protect human, animal and plant health can also function as trade barriers. Although measures such as these are essential as public health safeguard, their excessive, strict or selective application may operate as non-tariff barriers to trade by imposing additional compliance burdens on foreign producers.


10 In the Indian context, sanitary and phytosanitary measures are implemented through a combination of statutory frameworks governing food safety, plant health, and animal health. These include the Destructive Insects and Pests Act, 1914 read with the Plant Quarantine (Regulation of Import into India) Order, 2003, which establishes phytosanitary requirements for agricultural imports and the Livestock Importation Act, 1898, which regulates sanitary conditions for the import of livestock and animal products.

In current times data localizations laws11, which require companies to store and process data within national borders, is a growing category of non-tariff barrier. Proliferation of these policies are often justified on grounds of privacy and national security concerns and they tend to become obstacles for foreign parties seeking to operate in those markets.


11 In India, data localisation and cross-border data flow restrictions are emerging through the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, which is to be implemented in a phased manner along with its accompanying rules. The framework emphasises lawful processing, consent-based data use, and conditions governing the transfer of personal data outside India, potentially imposing compliance obligations on foreign entities operating in the Indian market. Comparable regimes in other jurisdictions most notably the European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and the United Kingdom’s data protection framework under the UK GDPR and the Data Protection Act, 2018, have, in practice, operated as regulatory barriers by imposing stringent requirements on cross-border data transfers, particularly under Chapter V of the GDPR (Articles 44–49), which mandate that transfers of personal data to third countries occur only pursuant to adequacy decisions (Article 45), appropriate safeguards such as standard contractual clauses or binding corporate rules (Article 46), or limited derogations in specific situations (Article 49), thereby increasing compliance costs and operational constraints for foreign service providers seeking market access.

PROTECTIONISM IN DISGUISE: IMPACT ON DEVELOPING ECONOMIES

These are just some examples of use of non-tariff barriers to steer trade, at times creating “disguised protectionist” regimes for domestic producers.12 The impact of these measures significantly impede trade and have pronounced effect on developing economies. These measures especially exacerbate global trade inequalities tilting towards advanced economies. The current atmosphere will not be the first or the last instance of countries turning inwards.


12 Kim Moonhwak, Disguised Protectionism And Linkages To The GATT/WTO, World Politics, Vol. 64, No. 3, 2012, pp. 426–75.

Legitimate concerns regarding weaponization of non-tariff barriers aside, it is important to recognize that not all such measures are protectionist. There are many occasions when governments are required to step in on account of genuine policy objectives, such as protecting public health or ensuring product safety etc. The key, however, lies in distinguishing between honest regulations and those designed to restrict trade. It is precisely in this context that the principles of “necessity” and “proportionality” assume significance. Even where a measure pursues a legitimate objective, it may be inconsistent with international norms if it imposes restrictions that exceed what is required to achieve its purpose. The existence of less trade-restrictive alternatives, or a disproportionate burden on foreign producers, may indicate that the measure is, in substance, protectionist.

Lack of transparency and the resultant difficulty in sifting through the maze of regulations to ascertain the genuineness of a measure is the criticism of a non-tariff barrier. While tariffs are clearly defined and the effect thereof, easy to measure, non-tariff barriers are complex and open to interpretation. The diverse and evolving nature of non-tariff measures make it difficult to fathom and regulate. Opacity of reasons, lack of information, unreasoned restrictions are just some of the hallmarks of arbitrary non-tariff barriers that undermine transparency and predictability in international trade.

CONCLUSION

All criticism notwithstanding, non-tariff barriers are here to stay. In times to come, at least in the near future they are likely to play a dominant role in global trade. In modern times, with increased emphasis on industrialization, rapid technological advancement and data boom one might expect the world order to assume a more socialist than capitalist character, however, such a proposition is far removed from reality. Equal opportunity is a fiction espoused by socialist idealists that is routinely sacrificed at the altar of ever intensifying contemporary global market, that routinely favours economically and technologically advanced nations.

Artificial Intelligence (“AI”), the contemporary buzzword, is often heralded by its proponents as a transformative technology that will create the possibility of abundance, which would be a perfect setting for a socialist set up and an egalitarian society. This argument overlooks a fundamental human flaw – “greed”. The core question remains: in an increasingly polarized world economic order will the benefits be evenly distributed or will it aggravate economic inequality if the current institutional set up, ownership and market structures remain unchanged? The answer assumes particular significance in the context of international trade. As we look around, advanced economies are already deploying cutting-edge digital standards, algorithm driven compliance mechanisms, cybersecurity requirements, data-governance framework, AI-related technical frameworks, ostensibly legitimate but far from egalitarian.

Technological evolution by itself has never resulted in a level playing field. If at all, each wave of technological advancement is followed by sophisticated regulations, amplifying underlying regulatory asymmetry. The age of AI will be no different. Advanced economies with new age technological capabilities will use them to preserve competitive advantage, if not worsen it. AI has the potential to become the catalyst for the emergence of a new generation of non-tariff barrier.

Death with Dignity: Directives

Maharashtra has established a legally mandated healthcare governance framework for end-of-life care, turning the Supreme Court’s rulings on passive euthanasia and Advance Directives into practical, working machinery. Following a landmark public interest litigation, the state has appointed district-level custodians to receive, store, and digitise citizens’ Advance Directives. Additionally, a July 2026 Government Resolution requires all government and private hospitals to constitute Primary and Secondary Medical Boards to evaluate treatment withdrawal requests. This two-tier checking system protects patient rights, shields treating doctors from prosecution, and establishes a strict compliance and liability audit trail for institutions.

On 17 July 2026, the Government of Maharashtra issued a Government Resolution (GR) directing every government and private hospital in the State to constitute medical committees for considering requests relating to passive euthanasia and end-of-life decisions. It reads like an administrative order for the medical fraternity. For Chartered Accountants who audit hospitals, advise charitable trusts, or sit on the boards of healthcare companies, it is something more: a new, legally mandated governance structure, with its own documentation trail, empanelment records and liability exposure, that hospitals must now build and their advisors must understand.

A COMMON DILEMMA

An elderly woman with advanced dementia develops pneumonia and is ventilated in the ICU, with doctors certain that recovery is not possible. She had always said she did not want to be kept alive artificially. Her family does not know if they may ask for the ventilator to be withdrawn, and her doctors, fearing prosecution, hesitate to raise it themselves.

WHAT DOES THE SUPREME COURT PERMIT?

The Supreme Court in Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, the Court had held that the right to life does not include a right to die by suicide, but left open whether a dignified process of dying might stand on different footing. In Aruna Shanbaug case the Apex Court drew the line India still follows: actively causing death, by lethal injection or similar means, remains a criminal act, while withholding or withdrawing treatment that merely prolongs dying, once recovery is medically impossible, does not.

In 2018, a five-judge Bench in Common Cause v. Union of India went further, holding that the right to refuse treatment is part of the right to life under Article 21, and validating Advance Directives, or Living Wills, as a way to record that refusal in advance. But the 2018 procedure was itself heavy: every directive needed a Judicial Magistrate’s countersignature, and withdrawal required Collector-appointed boards, so cumbersome that almost no state ever implemented it. In January 2023, the same Bench simplified its own guidelines: a directive now needs only two witnesses and attestation by a Notary or a Gazetted Officer, and the decision to withdraw treatment rests with two medical boards rather than magistrates.

Even this remained largely theoretical until March 2026, hence the Apex Court reiterated the principles laid down earlier in Harish Rana v. Union of India. The Court permitted withdrawal of feeding tube for a patient who had been in a vegetative state for over a decade, and held that even artificially administered nutrition and hydration count as “treatment” that can lawfully be withdrawn.

WHY ANOTHER PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION WAS NECESSARY

Even after 2018, and again after 2023, most states did nothing to build the machinery the Court had ordered. After executing my own living will, I discovered there was no one authorised to receive or preserve it. I filed Public Interest Litigation No. 3 of 2024 before the Bombay High Court, seeking directions to the Government of Maharashtra to actually implement what the Supreme Court had already decided. The Bombay High Court accepted the concern and directed the State to act in a time-bound manner, well before Harish Rana gave the issue fresh urgency.

THE IMPACT OF THE PIL

The litigation has produced three concrete reforms. The Government of Maharashtra has appointed custodians across every district of the State, in Mumbai, the Medical Officer of each municipal ward, to receive and preserve Advance Directives. The State has begun digitising these directives for secure storage and retrieval. And the 17 July 2026 GR now requires every government and private hospital to constitute medical committees to process requests for withdrawing or withholding treatment. Together, these create, for the first time, machinery through which the Supreme Court’s judgment can actually operate.

HOW THE FRAMEWORK OPERATES

An Advance Directive is not a property will; it governs medical treatment, not inheritance. Any adult with decision-making capacity may execute one, specifying the conditions, such as terminal cancer, irreversible coma or end-stage organ failure, in which it takes effect, and the treatments (ventilation, dialysis, CPR) to be refused, while requesting pain relief and palliative care. It need not be on stamp paper or government-registered; a handwritten document is valid if signed before two witnesses and attested by a Notary or Gazetted Officer, with a copy filed with the designated custodian. It can be revoked or modified at any time.

When treatment withdrawal is proposed, whether under a directive or, absent one, on a family’s request, the hospital constitutes a Primary Medical Board of specialists to assess whether continued treatment merely prolongs dying. If it agrees, an independent Secondary Medical Board, including a government nominee, must reach the same conclusion before treatment can be withdrawn. Under the July 2026 GR, the Primary Board is chaired by the hospital’s Medical Director and includes the treating specialist and two subject experts. The secondary board the Secondary Board is also convened at the same hospital but involving different doctors. There will be one doctor who shall represent the civil surgeon of the district. This two-tier check is designed to protect patients from unilateral decisions and to protect treating doctors from unwarranted prosecution, the latter being precisely what has made many hospitals reluctant to act even where the law already permits it.

THE ROAD AHEAD

Legal recognition does not by itself change clinical practice. Hospitals need standard operating procedures and documented board composition; doctors need training and assurance against liability; boards and trustees need to know this is now a compliance obligation, not a discretionary courtesy. Much as with financial wills and insurance, most citizens still postpone this planning because it feels distant rather than urgent.

CONCLUSION

Maharashtra’s custodianship system, digitisation drive and mandatory hospital medical boards mark real progress in turning a constitutional right into working practice. For healthcare institutions and their advisors, this is no longer a matter of medical ethics alone: non-constitution of these boards, or inadequate documentation of their decisions, is fast becoming a governance and compliance failure with its own audit and liability trail. The measure of success will not be the number of GRs issued or boards constituted, but whether patients can, in practice, exercise their right to a dignified end of life. The goal of my judicial activism was to have citizens a right to die with dignity practically available and implementable and not merely on paper. It seems that the state of Maharashtra is taking leadership role amongst all the states in this regard.

Consolidation of Section 8 Company With The Sponsor Company

Editorial Note: While this article concludes that in the given examples consolidation is appropriate, based on alternative views discussed in the article, the issue has not been free from debate, and diversity in practice continues.

Under Ind AS 110, a sponsor company must consolidate a Section 8 CSR entity if it exercises control. Control requires three simultaneous elements: power over the entity’s relevant activities, exposure to variable returns (including non-financial benefits like reputation and compliance), and the ability to use power to affect those returns.

In wholly-owned scenarios, control is clearly established, requiring consolidation. However, in minority or guarantee-based setups, the assessment is highly fact-dependent on governance arrangements.

Upon consolidation, intra-group transactions are eliminated, presenting only actual external spending as CSR expenditure in the consolidated financial statements.

I. INTRODUCTION

Companies in India which are subject to Corporate Social Responsibilities (CSR) provisions as required under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 may discharge their CSR obligations either directly or through an eligible implementing agency. Such implementing agency may include Section 8 company, a charitable trust under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 or a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

This article examines the circumstances in which a Section 8 company established for undertaking CSR obligations may require consolidation in the financial statements of the Company that sponsor it (“the Sponsor Company”). The analysis considers the relevant requirements of the Companies Act, 2013 (“the Act”) and the applicable accounting standards, particularly the principles of control under Ind AS 110, ‘Consolidated Financial Statements’ to evaluate whether the Sponsor Company exercises control over the Section 8 Company notwithstanding the absence of an ownership interest or profit motive.

The article further discusses the indicators of control in the context of CSR structures, including governance rights, appointment of directors or trustees, decision-making powers, funding dependence, and the ability to direct relevant activities. Through this analysis, the article seeks to provide practical guidance on determining whether a Section 8 company functioning as a CSR implementing agency should be consolidated with the Sponsor Company.

II. ISSUE UNDER CONSIDERATION

In this article, three illustrative scenarios are analysed below to assess whether, and in what circumstances, a Section 8 Company would be required to be consolidated with the Sponsor Company: –

Scenario – 1: The Sponsor Company, in discharge of its obligations under Section 135 of the Act, has incorporated a wholly owned subsidiary in the form of a Section 8 Company for undertaking CSR activities. The Sponsor Company contributes funds to the Section 8 Company for carrying out such CSR activities. The Section 8 Company receives its entire funding/donation solely from the Sponsor Company.

Scenario – 2: The Sponsor Company, in discharge of its obligations under Section 135 of the Act contributes funds to the Section 8 Company for undertaking CSR activities. The Sponsor Company holds 20% equity interest in the Section 8 Company, while the remaining 80% equity interest is held by two individuals who are employees of the Sponsor Company. The Section 8 Company receives its entire funding/donation solely from the Sponsor Company.

Scenario – 3: The Sponsor Company has incorporated a wholly owned subsidiary in the form of a Section 8 Company for undertaking CSR activities. Unlike the preceding scenarios, the Section 8 Company receives funding/donation from multiple companies, which are utilised towards the implementation of CSR activities.

III. TECHNICAL ANALYSIS

The Sponsor Company needs to determine whether it controls the Section 8 Company as per Ind AS 110 and if yes, then the Sponsor Company would be treated as ‘Parent’ and the Section 8 Company would be treated as ‘subsidiary of the parent’.

Under Ind AS-110, consolidation is required only when all three elements of control are present simultaneously:

a) Power over investee;
b) Exposure, or rights, to variable returns from investee; and
c) Ability to use power over investee to affect the investor’s returns.

Accordingly, each of the three scenarios is analysed below against each of the three elements of the control:-.

POWER OVER INVESTEE

The first element for establishing control is whether the Sponsor Company has ‘power’ over the Section 8 Company.

As per paragraph 10 of Ind AS 110, power exists when an investor has existing substantive rights that provide the current ability to direct the relevant activities of the investee. In this context, ‘current ability’ does not necessarily require the rights to be exercisable immediately. Instead, an investor only needs to have the ability to control relevant activities, and it is not relevant whether the investor exercises this ability.

Therefore, when assessing whether an investor has ‘power’, two critical concepts need to be considered:

  • Identification of the relevant activities; and
  • determination of who has the current ability to direct those activities?

Identification of the relevant activities

Relevant activities are defined as “activities of the investee that significantly affect the investee’s returns.”

Considering the nature and objectives of the Section 8 Company, ‘relevant activities’ may include:

  • identification and implementation of CSR projects;
  • deployment and utilisation of funds;
  • approval of operational programmes and budgets;
  • appointment of key managerial personnel;
  • selection and monitoring of beneficiaries/projects; and
  • strategic and operational oversight of social initiatives.

Assessment of Right to Direct Relevant Activities?

Once the relevant activities are identified, the next step is to determine which investor, if any, has the current ability to direct those activities.

Ind AS 110 requires assessment of substantive rights and not merely legal ownership percentages.

The following factors may indicate existence of power:

  • Board representation by personnel associated with the Sponsor Company;
  • practical ability to influence operational and strategic decisions;
  • dependence of the Section 8 Company on funding/support from the Sponsor Company; and
  • any de facto control arising from governance arrangements.

Conversely, the following factors may indicate absence of power:

  • absence of contractual rights granting unilateral decision-making authority;
  • absence of rights to appoint or remove majority directors;
  • substantive voting rights held by other shareholders; and
  • operational independence of the Section 8 Company.

Accordingly, determination of power would depend upon whether the Sponsor Company, in substance, has the present ability to direct the relevant activities of the Section 8 Company.

Scenario 1: As a wholly owned subsidiary, the Sponsor Company holds 100% of the equity and voting rights in the Section 8 Company and would ordinarily control the appointment and removal of its entire board. This gives the Sponsor Company the current ability to direct all relevant activities of the Section 8 Company. Power is present.

Scenario 2: The Sponsor Company holds only 20% of the equity, with the remaining 80% held by two individual employees of the Sponsor Company. While the Sponsor Company does not hold majority voting rights directly, the relevant question is whether it nonetheless has substantive rights to direct the Section 8 Company’s relevant activities. This could arise, for instance, through its ability to influence the two individual shareholders by virtue of their employment relationship, particularly if the shareholders-cum-employees are, in substance, acting on the direction of the Sponsor Company or through board composition, or governance arrangements. Where the facts establish that the Sponsor Company, in substance, directs the relevant activities — whether through its own minority shareholding combined with influence over the other shareholders or otherwise, power would exist notwithstanding the minority equity stake. Where no such substantive rights can be evidenced and the individual shareholders exercise their voting rights independently, power may not be established merely from the 20% holding. The conclusion is fact-dependent and requires further evidence of substantive rights beyond the equity percentage.

Scenario 3: As in Scenario 1, the Sponsor Company holds 100% of the equity in its wholly owned Section 8 Company subsidiary, giving it the current ability to appoint the board and direct relevant activities. The fact that funding is received from multiple companies does not, by itself, affect the Sponsor Company’s power over the Section 8 Company’s relevant activities, since power is assessed by reference to decision-making rights, not the source of funding. Power is present.

EXPOSURE OR RIGHTS TO VARIABLE RETURNS

The second element of the control assessment under Ind AS 110 requires the investor to assess whether the investor has an exposure, or has rights, to variable returns from its involvement with the investee. Returns can be positive, negative or both.

As explained in Ind AS 110, returns are interpret broadly and need not be limited to financial returns. Variable returns includes:

  • exposure to losses;
  • reputational enhancement or reputational risk;
  • operational synergies;
  • achievement of strategic objectives; and
  • compliance-related benefits.

Scenario 1 and Scenario 3:

In both scenarios, the Sponsor Company is exposed to variable returns through its involvement with the Section 8 Company established to undertake CSR activities. The quality and effectiveness of the Section 8 Company’s operations directly influence the Sponsor Company’s ability to fulfil its obligations under Section 135 of the Act. Consequently, the Sponsor Company is exposed to:

  • reputational enhancement arising from successful CSR initiatives, or reputational damage from ineffective implementation;
  • compliance benefits, or the risk of regulatory scrutiny, depending on whether the CSR obligations are effectively discharged;
  • the achievement (or otherwise) of its CSR and sustainability objectives; and
  • funding and liquidity support requirements, where the Sponsor Company is expected to finance the activities of the Section 8 Company.

In view of above, the Sponsor Company is exposed to variable returns arising from its involvement with the Section 8 Company.

Scenario 2:

Although the Sponsor Company holds only a minority equity interest, its exposure to variable returns remains substantially the same because such returns arise primarily from its role as the Company responsible for discharging its CSR obligations, rather than from its shareholding alone. The Sponsor Company continues to be exposed to variations in reputational outcomes, compliance benefits, achievement of CSR objectives and the effectiveness of CSR implementation. Accordingly, the criterion of exposure to variable returns is also satisfied in this scenario.

ALTERNATIVE VIEW: SECTION 8 COMPANY DOES NOT SATISFY THE “VARIABLE RETURNS” CRITERION

An alternative view is that the Section 8 Company established solely for undertaking CSR activities may not satisfy the “variable returns” criterion under Ind AS 110. The view is based on the fact that:

  • a Section 8 company is prohibited from distributing profits to its members,
  • a Section 8 company cannot distribute its assets to the Sponsor Company upon winding up, and
  • the directors of Section 8 Company are required to discharge independent fiduciary duties in the interests of the Section 8 company.

Consequently, unlike a conventional commercial subsidiary, the Sponsor Company does not possess a residual economic interest in the Section 8 Company. On this basis, some companies have taken the position that a CSR implementing entity of this nature ought not to be consolidated, notwithstanding the Sponsor Company’s involvement in its governance.

As discussed above, Ind AS 110 defines ‘returns’ broadly and does not confine the concept to financial or distributable returns or to a residual economic interest on winding up. Returns include non-financial benefits such as reputational outcomes, achievement of strategic and compliance objectives and operational synergies.

In view of the above, the prohibition on distribution of profits, the absence of a residual economic interest on winding up, and the independent fiduciary duties owed by directors, may not by themselves be conclusive of the absence of variable returns, provided the Sponsor Company continues to derive the non-financial benefits described above from its involvement with the Section 8 Company.

Thus, the alternative view cannot be dismissed outright and the assessment would ultimately depend on the specific facts and governance arrangements in each case.

RELEVANCE OF PROVISION FOR DIMINUTION IN VALUE OF INVESTMENT

It is also relevant to consider whether the accounting treatment adopted by several Sponsor Companies, of fully providing for diminution in the value of their investment in the shares of the Section 8 Company at inception, has any bearing on the assessment of ‘returns’ under Ind AS 110.

Sponsor Companies often recognize a full impairment or diminution in the carrying value of their investment in the equity shares of the Section 8 Company shortly after incorporation on the basis that such investment has little or no real economic value.

The write-down of the investment in the Sponsor Company’s standalone financial statements reflects an assessment of the recoverability of the equity investment carried in its books. The accounting treatment adopted by the Sponsor Company for such investment does not influence the control assessment under Ind AS 110. The existence of control depends upon substantive rights, exposure to variable returns and the ability to use power to affect those returns rather than by the carrying amount assigned to the investment. Accordingly, a full impairment or diminution in the value of the investment neither establishes nor negates control.

ABILITY TO USE POWER TO AFFECT RETURNS

The third element of the control under Ind AS 110 requires the investor to have the ability to use its power over the investee to affect the investor’s variable returns. This element links the first two components of the control model and requires that the investor’s decision-making rights are capable of influencing the returns to which it is exposed. Merely possessing power, or merely being exposed to variable returns, is insufficient in isolation; there must be a demonstrable connection between the two.

Accordingly, this assessment requires establishing linkage between:

  • the investor’s substantive decision-making rights over the relevant activities; and
  • the investor’s exposure, or rights to variable returns arising from its involvement with the investee.

Scenario 1: The Sponsor Company has the current ability to direct all relevant activities of the wholly owned Section 8 Company through its substantive voting and governance rights. The exercise of those rights directly influences the effectiveness of the CSR activities undertaken by the Section 8 company, which in turn has a direct bearing on the Sponsor Company’s CSR objectives, reputational outcomes and compliance position, the linkage criterion is clearly satisfied.

Scenario 2: The linkage would be established only if the Sponsor Company possesses substantive rights that enable it to direct the relevant activities of the Section 8 Company. Where such right exists, the Sponsor Company can influence the outcomes of the CSR programme which has a bearing on its compliance and reputational position. However, if the Sponsor Company merely provides funding and does not have substantive rights, the linkage criterion would not be met.

Scenario 3: As in Scenario 1, the Sponsor Company retains the ability to direct the relevant activities of the wholly-owned Section 8 Company through its substantive voting and governance rights. The participation of other funders towards CSR activities does not dilute this linkage, since these contributors do not acquire decision-making rights over the relevant activities of the Section 8 company. Consequently, the Sponsor Company’s ability to direct the relevant activities continues to influence its own CSR, reputational, and compliance-related returns. Accordingly, the linkage criterion is satisfied.

Conversely, where the Sponsor Company merely provides funding support without possessing substantive decision-making authority, the linkage criterion may not be met.

IV. APPLICABILITY TO SECTION 8 COMPANIES LIMITED BY GUARANTEE

The preceding analysis has been carried out in the context of a Section 8 Company having share capital, where the Sponsor Company holds shares (whether wholly or in part) in the Section 8 Company. In practice, however, a number of Section 8 Companies are incorporated as companies limited by guarantee, without share capital, so that the Sponsor Company holds no shareholding or investment interest in the Section 8 Company. It is, therefore, relevant to consider whether the conclusions reached above would differ in such cases.

The absence of share capital does not, by itself, alter the control assessment under Ind AS 110. Power may exist through contractual or other arrangements, and the standard specifically contemplates that control can arise even where the investor holds less than a majority of the voting rights of the investee, or none at all. Accordingly, in the case of a Section 8 Company limited by guarantee, the ‘power’ element would need to be assessed with reference to substantive rights available to the Sponsor Company through governance arrangements, appointment or removal its members/directors, rights to approve its budgets, projects or key operational decisions, and the extent of the Sponsor Company’s funding of, and consequent influence over, its activities. Where the Sponsor Company holds such substantive rights, power may be established notwithstanding the absence of a shareholding or guarantee-based interest.

The ‘returns’ element would similarly need to be assessed on the same basis as discussed above, namely, whether the Sponsor Company is exposed to non-financial returns such as reputational outcomes, compliance benefits and achievement of its CSR objectives; the absence of a financial or equity interest does not, of itself, preclude the existence of variable returns, since Ind AS 110 does not require returns to arise from an ownership interest.

Consequently, a Section 8 Company limited by guarantee can also meet the definition of a subsidiary of the Sponsor Company under Ind AS 110, provided the power and returns criteria discussed above are otherwise satisfied on the facts, notwithstanding the absence of any shareholding or investment interest. The principles discussed in the preceding scenarios would apply with appropriate modification, having regard to the manner in which power is established in the absence of share capital.

V. PRESENTATION OF CSR EXPENDITURE ON CONSOLIDATION IN CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

The treatment of CSR expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013, can sometimes diverge from the accounting outcomes as required by Ind AS 110, particularly when a “Sponsor Company” utilizes controlled Section 8 Company as its implementation agency.

1. RECOGNITION IN STANDALONE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the CSR Rules, a Sponsor Company normally recognises its contribution to a Section 8 Company as CSR expenditure in its standalone financial statements at the time the contribution is made, provided all the legal requirements for the discharge of the obligation are satisfied.

2. IMPACT OF CONSOLIDATION ON CSR EXPENDITURE PRESENTATION

In case the Section 8 Company fulfills the above criteria and is consolidated under Ind AS 110, the group is presented as a single economic entity. In the consolidated financial statements (CFS): –

  • the CSR contribution represents an intra-group transaction and is eliminated on consolidation;
  • the amount spent by the Section 8 Company during the reporting period on CSR activities is reflected as CSR expenditure;
  • any unspent amount by the Section 8 Company of the CSR contribution received from the Sponsor Company, remains reflected as asset within the CFS. Consequently, the CFS reflects only CSR expenditure to the extent that the Section 8 Company has utilized the funds for activities with external third parties.

For example, the Sponsor Company contributes 100% of its CSR obligation to the Section 8 Company but only 20% of such contribution is utilized by the Section 8 Company during the year, with the balance remaining unspent. In the standalone financial statements, the entire contribution is reflected as CSR expenditure. In the CFS, only 20% of the contribution is reflected as CSR expenditure while the remaining 80% unspent balance forms part of the group’s net assets (e.g. cash or bank balances).

This presentation difference arises since the parent and subsidiary together represent a single economic entity carrying on a common business. While the Sponsor Company may have discharged its statutory obligation under Section 135 of the Act, whereas, the group as a whole, has not yet consumed the economic resource until it is spent externally.

This presentation anomaly is one of the reasons cited in support of the view that consolidation of a Section 8 Company with the Sponsor Company may not, in every case, result in the most appropriate accounting outcome, and reinforces the need for a careful, facts-based assessment of control under Ind AS 110, rather than a presumption of consolidation (or non-consolidation) based on the legal form of the Section 8 Company.

VI. CONCLUSION

The assessment of control under Ind AS 110 is fundamentally based on substance rather than legal form and requires consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances. Although a Section 8 Company is established for charitable purposes and operates under statutory restrictions that differ significantly from those applicable to commercial entities, those characteristics do not automatically preclude consolidation. Equally, neither the existence of shareholding nor the provision of funding, by itself, establishes control. Each of the three elements of the control model—power, exposure to variable returns and the ability to use power to affect those returns—must be evaluated collectively.

Applying the three-part control test under Ind AS 110 to each scenario yields the following conclusions.

Scenario 1: Where the Section 8 Company is wholly owned by the Sponsor Company and the Sponsor Company possesses substantive voting and governance rights enabling it to direct the relevant activities, all three elements of control are satisfied. The Sponsor Company has power over the investee, is exposed to variable returns from its CSR involvement and can use its power to affect those returns. Accordingly, the Section 8 Company is required to be consolidated in accordance with Ind AS 110.

Scenario 2: Where the Sponsor Company holds only a 20% minority equity interest and the balance is held by individual employee-shareholders, the control conclusion is not automatic and depends on facts beyond the shareholding percentage. The assessment requires a comprehensive evaluation of all relevant facts and circumstances, including the Sponsor Company’s substantive rights, board appointment and removal rights, shareholder arrangements, voting patterns, and whether the remaining shareholders are, in substance, able and willing to exercise their rights independently. If the Sponsor Company is able, in substance, to direct the relevant activities, consolidation would be required notwithstanding its minority shareholding. Conversely, if substantive decision-making rights rest with the other shareholders and the individual shareholders are found to exercise independent decision-making authority. Further, the Sponsor Company cannot direct the relevant activities, control would not exist and consolidation would not be required.

Scenario 3: Where the Section 8 Company continues to be wholly owned by the Sponsor Company notwithstanding that it receives CSR funding from multiple corporate contributors, the source of funding does not affect control assessment. Provided that the Sponsor Company retains the substantive rights to direct the relevant activities of the Section 8 company, it continues to satisfy all three elements of the control model under Ind AS 110. The other contributors merely provide financial support and do not acquire decision-making rights over the relevant activities. Accordingly, the Section 8 company remains a subsidiary of the Sponsor Company and is required to be consolidated.

Reference :

  1. Ind AS 110, ‘Consolidated Financial Statements
  2. Companies Act, 2013
  3. EAC Opinion on Consolidation of the financial statements of a Section 8 Company with the Sponsor Company.

Materiality: A Sustainability Perspective

Materiality refers to the identification and prioritisation of matters that are significant enough to demand attention and action. The concept of materiality is interpreted differently across domains depending on the context in which it is applied. The idea of materiality has evolved in tandem with the transformation in the business environment. From a sustainability perspective, materiality serves as the guiding framework in an organisation for sustainability performance and sustainability reporting. The determination of materiality in sustainability frameworks is anchored in the structured due diligence process which aids organisations in identifying, assessing, prioritising and addressing their impacts on the environment, people and economy. A double materiality assessment builds upon the due diligence process to include aspects of financial risks and opportunities arising from sustainability matters in the analysis. The materiality assessment process is an important step toward an organisation’s ultimate goal of becoming a sustainable business enterprise.

INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALITY

The term materiality is familiar to every Chartered Accountant. The concept is introduced early in our accounting education as a fundamental principle that governs the recognition, presentation, and disclosure of financial information in the financial statements. The principle of materiality implies that information which is sufficiently significant to influence the decisions of users of financial statements warrants separate presentation or disclosure.

While materiality is formally defined and applied mostly in the context of financial reporting, the principle is universal across domains such as risk management, regulatory disclosures, and in sustainability frameworks. Materiality has a common theme in all —the identification and prioritisation of matters that are significant enough to demand attention and action.

DEFINITIONS OF MATERIALITY FROM DIFFERENT PERSPECTIVES

The concept of materiality, though consistent in its theme, is interpreted differently across domains depending on the context and objectives in which it is applied. A few perspectives are outlined below:

  • Materiality under Accounting Standards

As per Ind AS 1, information is considered material if omitting, misstating or obscuring it could reasonably be expected to influence the decisions of the primary users of financial statements1. This reflects a reporting-driven perspective, focused on decision usefulness in financial reporting.

  • Materiality under SEBI LODR Regulations

Under SEBI LODR Regulations, materiality is assessed based on whether the omission of disclosing an event or information is likely to result in discontinuity or alteration of publicly available information and could lead to a significant market reaction if it comes to light later2. This represents a market-driven perspective, centred on investor protection and market sensitivity.

  • Materiality in Risk Management Frameworks

In risk management frameworks, materiality is gauged through the identification of major risks that meet the established criteria for being significant enough to impact the achievement of an organisation’s strategy and business objectives.3 This shows an uncertainty-driven perspective, focusing on potential deviations from expected performance or results.

  • Materiality in Sustainability standards

Under sustainability standards, materiality is viewed from different perspectives depending on the objective of the standard. An Impact materiality perspective emphasises the organisation’s effects on the outside world. Financial materiality perspective focuses on how sustainability-related matters influence the organisation’s long-term value and performance.


1 Ind AS 1
2 SEBI Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirement Regulations, 2015 (as amended)
3 Risk Significance and Criteria: ISO 310001:2018

EVOLUTION OF MATERIALITY: FROM FINANCIAL TO SUSTAINABILITY PERSPECTIVE

Over time, the focus of investors and other stakeholders has progressively expanded—from evaluating current financial performance to assessing future risks and, more recently, to understanding sustainability-related impacts. This shift in perspective has been accompanied by a corresponding evolution in the concept of materiality also.

Traditionally, materiality was applied in the context of financial reporting, primarily to determine the recognition, classification, and presentation of financial information. As businesses and markets became more complex, it extended into risk management, where materiality began to include risks that could affect the achievement of strategic and operational outcomes. In the current landscape, the concept has further evolved to include sustainability considerations. Materiality now encompasses identifying and prioritising environmental, social, and governance (ESG) topics that are critical to the long-term viability of the organisation.

The evolution of materiality reflects a broader transformation in the entire business environment. Organisations today operate under increased regulatory pressures, heightened investor expectations, and growing exposure to new and unique challenges such as climate change and geopolitical uncertainties. Therefore, materiality is no longer limited to financial significance alone; it now serves as a strategic tool to identify what is truly necessary for building a resilient and sustainable business enterprise.

SIGNIFICANCE OF MATERIALITY IN SUSTAINABILITY FRAMEWORKS

It is prudent to understand the significance of materiality from a sustainability perspective before delving into how materiality is determined in sustainability frameworks. Organisations can prioritise and manage sustainability matters in a structured manner using materiality as a tool. The importance of materiality can be understood through the following dimensions:

a. Channelising organisational focus and resources

Investors and other stakeholders are increasingly showing interest in how the organisations are mitigating the harmful impacts of their operations on the environment, people and economy. Under these circumstances, materiality helps organisations in determining the most significant of such impacts, thereby guiding the organisation where it needs to direct its efforts and resources effectively. For instance, an increase in the frequency of safety-related incidents may make the issue more pressing, necessitating a greater emphasis on external safety audits and certifications.

b. Enabling strategy formulation and implementation

Sustainability has evolved from being an “also have component” earlier to an “integral component of business strategy”. Materiality in sustainability frameworks acts as a guiding framework for formalising strategic priorities and converting them into actionable items such as capital expenditure planning, research and development initiatives, and new projects selection. For example, rising energy costs identified as a material issue can drive investments in energy efficiency projects or R&D efforts in the use of alternative fuels.

c. Strengthening sustainability disclosures in annual reports

Sustainability disclosures form a critical component of the organisation’s annual report. Materiality helps determine the topics which require detailed reporting like setting of time-bound targets, defining key performance indicators (KPIs), and presenting multi-year performance trends. This makes the disclosures more focused and relevant for the users. For instance, if climate change is identified as a material topic, organisations may take net-zero targets and disclose emissions reduction metrics as the performance indicators.

d. Enhancing stakeholder engagement

Materiality also determines the stakeholders which the organisation needs to target for engagement and the manner of such engagement. Organisations can engage with their stakeholders meaningfully if they link the material impacts to the relevant stakeholders. For example, if the transportation of hazardous goods is identified as material issue, the organisation needs to specifically focus on the logistics partners. Engagement would include communication of safety protocols, conducting training programmes, and real-time communication systems.

DRIVERS OF MATERIALITY IN SUSTAINABILITY FRAMEWORKS

As discussed earlier, materiality in sustainability frameworks is defined in terms of an organisation’s most significant impacts on the stakeholders. This definition highlights three key drivers of materiality—impacts, stakeholders, and significance—each of which plays a distinct role in shaping what is ultimately considered material.

IMPACT

Impact is defined as the effect that an organisation’s business operations have or may have on the environment, people, and economy4. These effects could be actual or potential, short-term or long-term, reversible or irreversible, intended or unintended, and negative or positive. The organisation may directly cause the impact, contribute to it, or have a direct connection to it. How the organisation handles the impact depends on how it is involved in it. It might attempt to mitigate the effects that it causes or contributes to. It may play a role in the mitigation of the effects that it is directly associated with.


4 GRI 1- Foundation 2021

The nature of the organisation’s relationship with an impact determines the extent of its responsibility and the appropriate course of action, as illustrated below:

Impact Nature of impact Source of impact Relationship with the impact Action required
Air Pollution Negative Own Operations Caused by Mitigate air pollution
Supplier Non-compliance with Labour Standards Negative Upstream Value Chain Contributed to Influence the vendor for compliance
Data breach in supplier’s organisation Negative Upstream Value Chain Directly linked to Help in remediation to the extent possible

Table 1: Illustrative Classification of Impacts Based on Source, Relationship and Response

STAKEHOLDERS

Stakeholders are individuals or groups who are directly or indirectly affected by the organisation’s operations (physically, financially, in terms of human rights, or otherwise). The organisation’s operations may have an impact on the interests of stakeholders, either positively or negatively. For example, sponsoring the digitalisation of schools in the district benefits the organisation’s local community has a positive impact. Stakeholders could be directly affected or potentially affected. For example. In the case of bribery (cash for the release of vendor payment), the specific vendor is directly affected, while the remaining vendors are potentially affected. This distinction is critical in determining the appropriate future course of action in terms of impact.

Stakeholder perspectives provide valuable information about how impacts become apparent in the real world. Engaging with stakeholders through dialogues, grievance redressal mechanisms, focused group discussions, or other structured communication methods can help organisations better understand the effects.

Different stakeholders have various interests that are impacted. All interests are not material, and they do not need to be treated equally. Identifying stakeholder interests that are negatively impacted by the organisation’s operations should take precedence over other interests. For example, employees’ physical safety at workplace is inherently more critical than sponsoring the education of the employees’ children. All of the aforementioned factors are important in determining materiality for the organisation.

DUE DILIGENCE

As previously discussed, materiality requires organisations to prioritise their most significant impacts. Since organisations cannot address every impact simultaneously, a structured decision-making process is required to identify which impacts demand the highest priority. This determination of materiality is based on the due diligence process5. It is the process by which organisations identify, assess, prioritise, and address their actual and potential impacts on the economy, the environment, and people. It provides a systematic and evidence-based approach to determining materiality, ensuring that material topics are identified through a structured evaluation rather than on an ad hoc basis.


5 OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises on Responsible Business Conduct

The following steps are involved in due diligence process:

Step 1: Defining the Scope

The scope of the due diligence process must be defined i.e. establishing clear boundaries for identifying impacts. It includes the impacts of the organisation’s own operations as well as the relevant upstream and downstream value chains (suppliers, dealers, customers, and consumers). For example, an FMCG company’s scope may extend to include the environmental impact of how consumers use their products and dispose the empty packing material after use.

Step 2: Identifying the Impacts

The impacts on the environment and people must be identified based on a comprehensive assessment of historical data, available evidence, and information about upstream and downstream value chain partners. For example, community complaints, regulatory observations may provide evidence of identifying pollution as an impact.

At this point, the organisation should consult relevant subject matter experts. They also should refer to relevant sector-specific impacts indicated in various sustainability standards (GRI, SASB, and ESRS6).


6 GRI – Global Reporting Initiative, SASB – Sustainability Accounting Standards Board, ESRS- European Sustainability Reporting Standards.

Organisations may consider asking questions during this process, such as:

  • Does this impact relate to a key area of our operations, products, services or value chain?
  • Has this impact led to any actual harm or benefit to communities, workers, environment, or consumers?
  • Could this impact have potential significant affects (positive or negative) in the near or long term?
  • Have we consulted with affected stakeholders (e.g., workers, communities, NGOs) on this topic?

Step 3: Classifying the Impacts

The identified impacts must be divided into two categories: actual impacts (those that have already occurred or are currently occurring) and potential impacts (those that may occur in the future). For example, air pollution is classified as having an actual negative impact, whereas possibility of an industrial accident is a potential negative impact.

Step 4: Assessing the significance of the Impacts

The impacts are assessed based on their severity factor and the likelihood factor.

Severity factor is a reflection of the scale (the amount of harm it can cause), scope (how widespread the harm is) and Irremediability(how difficult to reverse its consequences) of the impact . For example, Climate change is extremely serious because it is an existential threat for all creatures (scale), it affects everyone on the planet(scope), and it will require enormous and co-ordinated efforts from all countries to mitigate the effects (degree of irremediability).

Likelihood factor is only used to assess potential impacts. It represents the probability that the organisation’s operations will have an impact. For example, likelihood shall be used to assess the impact of an industrial accident in a factory dealing with hazardous chemicals. The likelihood of the impact will less if it currently follows all necessary saftey protoccols.

Step 5: Prioritising the impacts

The significance of an impact is assessed based on its severity and, in the case of potential impacts, its likelihood.7 For potential negative human rights impacts, however, severity takes precedence over likelihood.


7 The actual process of scoring of topics based on severity and likelihood is beyond the scope of this article

The most significant impacts identified through this process constitute the organisation’s material topics. This step also involves identifying the stakeholders affected by each material topic and understanding the nature and extent of the impacts on them.

Step 6: Action, Monitoring and Disclosure

As next steps, the organisation has to address these material topics. It has to take actions to prevent, mitigate, or remediate identified significant impacts and periodically monitor the effectiveness of actions taken. It has to disclose the entire process of how material topics are identified, prioritised, and addressed in its sustainability report.

MATERIALITY PERSPECTIVES IN SUSTAINABILITY REPORTING FRAMEWORKS

With the rapid evolution of sustainability reporting, global reporting frameworks have adopted different perspectives on materiality namely impact materiality perspective, financial materiality perspective and double materiality perspective.

Impact materiality, as adopted by GRI, focuses on the actual and potential impacts that an organisation has on the economy, the environment and people. These impacts are assessed based on their severity and, where relevant, their likelihood, irrespective of whether they result in immediate financial consequences for the organisation. For instance, non-compliance with air pollution norms may adversely affect the health of surrounding communities. Even in the absence of immediate financial implications, such impacts are considered material because of their severity and societal relevance.

Financial materiality, as adopted by IFRS S1, focuses on sustainability-related risks and opportunities that could reasonably be expected to affect an organisation’s enterprise value, including its financial position, financial performance, cash flows, access to finance or cost of capital. Continuing the same example, repeated non-compliance with air pollution norms may result in regulatory penalties, operational disruptions or increased compliance costs, thereby affecting the organisation’s financial performance.

Double materiality, as adopted by ESRS, combines these two perspectives. It recognises that organisations should evaluate sustainability matters not only from the perspective of the impacts they have on the environment and people, but also from the perspective of how those sustainability matters may create financial risks and opportunities for the business. (refer Figure 2). Continuing the same example, air pollution may be material from both an impact and a financial perspective if the organisation has a history of regulatory penalties and recurring complaints from local communities, resulting in financial and reputational consequences.

Materiality in BRSR

The SEBI Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) framework is based on the nine National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct (NGRBC) principles, which prescribe disclosures on a broad range of environmental, social and governance matters. Unlike GRI, BRSR does not require companies to undertake a formal materiality assessment. However, Question 26 of Section A – General Disclosures requires companies to disclose the material sustainability issues pertaining to environmental and social matters that present a risk or an opportunity to the business. Although not mandatory, Indian companies reporting under BRSR may choose to undertake a formal materiality assessment using internationally recognised frameworks such as GRI or ESRS to strengthen governance, strategy formulation and stakeholder engagement.

DOUBLE MATERIALITY ASSESSMENT

A double materiality assessment builds upon the due diligence process discussed earlier, while incorporating an additional analytical layer—namely, the evaluation of financial risks and opportunities arising from sustainability matters. In essence, while the process of identifying and assessing impacts remains unchanged, organisations are required to simultaneously examine how these impacts translate into financial consequences over different time horizons.

FINANCIAL RISKS

Identification of financial risks is an integral component of double materiality assessment. Dependencies on environmental and social resources—may expose the organisation to financial risks due to its own operations, value chain relationships, geographic exposure, or regulatory environment. For example, a cyberattack in an airline company can disrupt its operations entirely, resulting in loss of revenue, regulatory penalties, and reputational damage. Such an event clearly poses a financial risk to the airline company.

FINANCIAL OPPORTUNITIES

Organisations may also consider financial opportunities arising from sustainability-related matters. These opportunities increase the organisation’s ability to sustain operations, improve efficiency, or access new markets. For example, a power generation company increasing the share of renewable energy in its generation capacity is not only reducing its environmental impact but also catering to a new market in a regulatory environment that encourages low-carbon operations. Such strategies create long-term economic value and resilience.

To support this evaluation, organisations may consider questions such as

  • Is this topic currently causing any financial impact on revenues, costs, access to capital, or license to operate?
  • Could this topic affect our future business i.e. revenues, costs, access to capital, or license to operate?
  • Do investors or regulators consider this topic financially material?
  • Does it create opportunities for innovation, efficiency, or market access?

TIME HORIZON

Another new component of double materiality is the consideration of time horizon. Organisations are expected to categorise financial risks and opportunities across short, medium, and long-term periods. Short term means the impacts start appearing within the reporting period, in medium term impacts may materialize in next five years, in the long term, impacts are expected to occur beyond five years8. For example, impacts of rising fuel prices will impact in the same financial year. However, physical risks associated with climate change will start impacting in the medium or long term. Similarly, sustainability related initiatives may also yield financial implications over different timeframes. For example, energy efficiency measures such as LED retrofits may result in immediate cost savings. Investments in renewable energy or R&D efforts in using alternative fuels may generate benefits over a longer time horizon.


8 Organisation may opt for a different time-horizon depending upon its business cycle.

Similar to impact materiality, the assessment of financial materiality is a function of both the magnitude of financial effects and the likelihood of occurrence. The outcome of the double materiality assessment is a consolidated list of topics that are a) material from an impact perspective, b) material from a financial perspective (risks or opportunities), or c) material from both perspectives.

Organisations may then apply appropriate thresholds to prioritise these topics for management action and disclosure9. This integrated approach ensures that both outward impacts and inward financial implications are systematically captured, enabling more informed decision-making and comprehensive sustainability reporting.


9 The actual process of application of thresholds is beyond the scope of this article

Double materiality effectively bridges the gap between sustainability and enterprise risk management by integrating impact-based assessment with forward-looking financial analysis.

An illustrative mapping of topics across impact and financial materiality dimensions is presented below:

Topic Materiality Perspective Time-horizon Risk / Opportunity Stakeholders affected
Environmental management and compliance Financial + Impact materiality Short–medium term Risk • Local communities

• NGOs

• Investor

• Regulator

Occupational health, safety and employee well-being Financial + Impact materiality Short–medium term Risk and opportunity • Employees

• labour unions

• Regulator

Ethical business conduct and anti-corruption Financial materiality Medium–long term Risk and opportunity • Customers

• Investors

• Business partners

• Regulator

Table 2: Illustrative Mapping of Topics Across Materiality Perspectives, Time Horizon and Stakeholders

PITFALLS IN DETERMINING MATERIALITY IN SUSTAINABILITY FRAMEWORKS

The due diligence process and double materiality assessment inherently involve judgement at multiple stages. This judgement can be influenced by subjectivity of the matter, personal bias of the participants, and limited perspectives. While the objective of the process is to identify the most significant impacts and risks, organisations may not arrive at optimal conclusions due to gaps in approach or execution. Some common pitfalls are discussed below.

A key shortcoming observed in practice is the failure to consider sector-specific topics recommended by established sustainability standards. Frameworks such as GRI and (Sustainability Accounting Standards Board) SASB identify issues that are generally considered material for specific industries. Ignoring these reference points can result in an incomplete or non-defensible materiality assessment. For instance, the preparedness for an emergency event is a recognised material topic by SASB for companies in the chemicals sector and should be evaluated irrespective of the organisation’s internal perception.

Another pitfall is the insufficient consideration of stakeholder perspectives. As discussed earlier, materiality is closely linked to interest of the stakeholders. A materiality assessment would be incomplete if stakeholder input was excluded. In order to validate the identified material topics and capture their varied perspectives, organisations should engage with both internal and external stakeholders. For example, an organisation may consider air pollution not material since it is within regulatory limits. However, local communities may still perceive air pollution as a significant concern in the area.

Organisations also often exhibit a weak linkage between materiality and strategy or risk management. Identifying material topics is only the starting point. The real value lies in integrating these topics into strategic planning and enterprise risk management processes. Unless material impacts and financial risks are embedded within governance frameworks and receive Board-level attention, the exercise becomes a compliance formality rather than a strategic tool.

The quality of a materiality assessment depends less on the scoring methodology and more on the quality of governance, stakeholder engagement and professional judgement supporting it.

A further limitation is failure to update the materiality assessment on a regular basis. Materiality is not a static concept. It evolves. Its evolution is triggered by the changes in the business environment, regulatory landscape, and technological developments. Organisations run the risk of missing new emerging impacts if they don’t regularly review their materiality assessments. For example, Artificial Intelligence was relatively insignificant just a few years ago for IT services companies. However, recent advancements in artificial intelligence have made it the most material topic for such companies today.

CONCLUSION

At its core, the concept of materiality retains a consistent essence across domains— significance of a matter in influencing decisions and outcomes. Materiality has a more prominent role in the context of sustainability. It serves as guiding framework for organisations in identifying their most significant impacts, risks, and opportunities. Therefore, materiality is actually a strategic tool—one that directs organisational energies, helps in informed decision-making, and enhances the organisation’s resilience in an increasingly complex business environment. Organisations must actively perform materiality assessment to build a more informed, responsive, and sustainable business enterprise.

References

1. Global Reporting Initiative Standards (GRI)
2. European Sustainability Reporting Standards (ESRS)
3. Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR)
4. OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises on Responsible Business Conduct
5. ISO 31000:2018
6. Indian Accounting Standards

Five Years of AIS TIS: From Nudge to Notice!

The Annual Information Statement (AIS), launched in 2021 to ease compliance, has transitioned from a supportive “nudge” into a harsh enforcement trigger for tax reassessments. Assessing Officers increasingly issue notices based solely on unverified data mismatches, bypassing mandatory statutory inquiry safeguards. This shift is compounded by unreliable third-party reporting, joint-holder mis-attributions, and a confusing maze of internal machine codes. To restore fairness, the author advocates for mandatory officer verification before issuing notices, simplified plain-English explanations, and merging overlapping tax documents into a single self-correction portal.

BACKGROUND

Section 285BB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, read with Rule 114-I of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, mandates the tax department to make available to every assessee an Annual Information Statement (AIS) — a consolidated record of TDS/TCS, Specified Financial Transactions (SFT), tax payments, demand/refund, GST returns, foreign remittances, dividend and mutual fund data reported by third parties (banks, RTAs, depositories, GST Network, and others).1 Alongside AIS sits the Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS), a category-wise aggregated and “processed” version of the same data, and Form 26AS, now restricted to TDS/TCS/Tax Payment/Refunds credits.2 The department’s own FAQ states the object of AIS is to display “complete information’ to the taxpayer before filing, “promote voluntary compliance,” enable pre-filling, and “deter non-compliance.”3


1. Section 285BB, Income-tax Act, 1961, read with Rule 114-I, Income-tax Rules, 1962; incometaxindia.gov.in/annual-information-statement
2. Income Tax Department, “Annual Information Statement (AIS)”, https://www.incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq (Q6, distinction between AIS and Form 26AS effective AY 2023-24)
3. Income Tax Department, “FAQs on AIS”, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq, Q1

When AIS was formally rolled out on the Compliance Portal on 1st November 2021, the Ministry of Finance described it, through a Press Information Bureau release, purely as a taxpayer facility — “a comprehensive view of information to a taxpayer with a facility to capture online feedback.”4 Significantly, that very release told taxpayers that in case of variation between AIS and the TDS/TCS data on the TRACES portal (Form 26AS), the taxpayer “may rely on the information displayed on TRACES portal” for filing and compliance purposes — an official acknowledgment, at the point of launch itself, that AIS data could be unreliable and was not to be treated as final.5 The 2021 Budget speech situated AIS-linked information squarely in the pre-filling and ease-of-compliance space, speaking only of salary, TDS, capital gains, dividend and interest data being pre-filled to reduce the taxpayer’s burden — not of AIS being used as evidentiary ammunition for reopening assessments.6 The information provided by both these forms are helpful to taxpayers especially those they are missing out to remain compliant.


4. Press Information Bureau, “Roll out of new Annual Information Statement (AIS)”, Ministry of Finance, 1 November 2021, PIB Delhi, Release ID 1768560. pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1768560
5. https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1768560&reg=48&lang=2
6. Budget 2021-2022, Speech of Nirmala Sitharaman, Minister of Finance, 1 February 2021, para 169 (pre-filling of salary, TDS, capital gains, dividend and interest data). indiabudget.gov.in

THE PROBLEM

Nearly five years on, AIS has quietly migrated from an information-sharing facility into the principal trigger for CPC action, assessment, and even reassessment. Practitioners now report that Section 148A show-cause notices — and consequent Section 148 reassessment notices — are increasingly issued on the sole strength of an AIS/TIS figure not matching the return, without any independent enquiry by the Assessing Officer.7 The pattern is now common enough to be documented: notices citing “AIS mismatch,” “high-value transaction reported in SFT,” or “TIS figure exceeds returned income” as the entire basis for reopening a case that may be four, five, or even ten years old.8


7. TaxGuru, “Validity of Reassessment Under Section 148 Based on AIS Mismatch” (June 2025); taxguru.in
8. TaxBuddy, “Section 148A Notice: Reassessment and Response Explained”; taxbuddy.com

The department describes this as data-driven, non-intrusive administration. CBDT’s own 2026 framework for this is candidly named NUDGE — Non-intrusive Usage of Data to Guide and Enable — intended to strengthen “behavioural” tax administration and encourage voluntary correction through better use of data.9 The irony bears stating plainly: an instrument conceived and administratively branded as non-intrusive has, in practice, become the trigger for the most intrusive proceeding in the statute — reopening a completed assessment.


9. SAG Infotech, “CBDT Mandates IT Department Readiness for Upcoming Direct Tax Law Overhaul”, January 2026 — CBDT Chairman Ravi Agrawal’s NUDGE (Non-intrusive Usage of Data to Guide and Enable) framework; blog.saginfotech.com

HOW THE MACHINE ACTUALLY WORKS

AIS, TIS and Form 26AS are not, in truth, three documents produced by one system — they are the visible tip of at least seven or eight distinct back-end systems, most of which the taxpayer never sees or is even told exist.

Data collection: OLTAS captures actual tax payments/challans from banks and RBI. TIN, historically run by NSDL e-Governance (now Protean eGov Technologies), received e-TDS/TCS returns and PAN/TAN applications. The Reporting Portal is where banks, RTAs, depositories, mutual funds and insurers upload SFT returns (Form 61A) and FATCA/CRS data (Form 61B) under Section 285BA. GSTN separately feeds GST turnover data into AIS.

Data processing: Project Insight (being replaced by Insight 2.0) houses INTRAC — the Income Tax Transaction Analysis Centre — which de-duplicates and integrates this data into what becomes the AIS you see. A separate unit, CMCPC, runs the compliance-campaign machinery (emails, SMS, letters, calls).

Reconciliation: CPC-TDS at Ghaziabad runs TRACES, matching deductor TDS/TCS returns against OLTAS challans to generate Form 26AS and Form 16/16A. CPC-ITR at Bengaluru, a separate centre, processes the return itself, matches credits, and issues Section 143(1) intimations and refunds.

Enforcement: None of the above is visible to the Assessing Officer directly — flags are routed into ITBA, the Department’s internal case-management system, which is where an AIS mismatch actually becomes a Section 148A notice.

A citizen who has never heard of OLTAS, INTRAC, CMCPC or ITBA is nonetheless expected to reconcile their outputs correctly, on pain of reassessment.10

What “accepted by taxpayer” and “confirmed by source” actually mean: TIS shows a final “value accepted by taxpayer/confirmed by source” for each income head, which is what gets used to pre-fill the ITR. This sounds like independent verification. It is not. “Accepted by taxpayer” simply means the taxpayer did not dispute the entry — not that anyone checked it. “Confirmed by source” means the same bank or company that originally reported the figure has reaffirmed its own number — not that any independent party audited it. Both labels carry an air of finality that the underlying process does not support.11


10 Income Tax Department, Reporting Portal (Project Insight), report.insight.gov.in; internal CBDT correspondence on Project Insight 2.0 transition (Directorate of Income-tax Systems), 2023-25; Reporting Portal FAQs on SFT, taxheal.com (definitions of INTRAC and CMCPC); CPC-TDS/TRACES architecture note, taxindiaonline.com. Vendor/managed-service-provider details for CPC-ITR and the e-filing portal were not independently re-verified and should be confirmed before publication.
11 Income Tax Department, “AIS — Annual Information Statement” help page, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/help/all-topics/e-filing-services/ais-annual-information-statement (definition of “value processed by system” and “value accepted by taxpayer/confirmed by source” in TIS, and its use for ITR pre-filling); AIS FAQ, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq, Q5

IS IT FAIR?

1. AIS/TIS data is admittedly unreliable — and the Department knew it from Day One

AIS/TIS data is frequently wrong, duplicated, or mis-attributed — and the department knew this at rollout, which is precisely why the very first press release on AIS told taxpayers to prefer Form 26AS/TRACES over AIS wherever the two conflict, and why six categories of taxpayer feedback (“not fully correct,” “relates to other PAN/Year,” “duplicate,” “denied,” among others) were built into the system from inception.12 The existence of that feedback mechanism, and of the official advice to distrust AIS in case of conflict, is itself an admission that raw AIS data is not reliable enough to stand alone. Off-market share transfers get double-counted across depositories; joint bank accounts attribute full interest to both holders; SFT filers routinely report gross consideration where net or exempt amounts were involved. Yet reassessment notices routinely treat the unverified, pre-feedback AIS/TIS figure as if it were settled fact — the very opposite of what “reason to believe” under Section 147 has historically required.


12 Income Tax Department, “FAQs on AIS”, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq, Q10 (categories of taxpayer feedback)

2. The statutory safeguard of independent enquiry is being bypassed

The legal threshold for reopening an assessment is not a data mismatch; it is “information” that suggests income has escaped assessment, followed by an independent enquiry and an opportunity of hearing under Section 148A — a safeguard Parliament inserted precisely to stop mechanical reopening. Courts have already had to intervene: the Bombay High Court, in PCIT v. Agfa India Pvt. Ltd., held it mandatory for the Assessing Officer to independently apply his mind to the material on record rather than reproduce a computer-generated flag as “reason to believe.”13 That such a basic proposition needed judicial restatement tells its own story about departmental practice.


13 PCIT v. Agfa India Pvt. Ltd., Bombay High Court, as reported in TaxGuru, “Validity of Reassessment Under Section 148 Based on AIS Mismatch” (June 2025). Primary judgment text not independently verified — please confirm citation before publication.

3. The entire burden of reconciliation sits with the taxpayer, none with the reporting entity

If an SFT filer over-reports, the taxpayer must track it down, raise a feedback request, and hope the source confirms or corrects it — all within compressed reassessment timelines that, post the Finance Act 2024/2025 amendments, can still run out to five years and three months for income above ₹50 lakh. There is no reciprocal accountability on the reporting entity for filing an inflated or duplicated SFT return that sets an entire reassessment machinery in motion.

4. This inverts the Taxpayer’s Charter and natural justice

Section 119A obliges the department to treat every taxpayer as honest unless there is reason to believe otherwise, and to be fair, courteous and reasonable. A regime where an unverified third-party entry — one the taxpayer had no chance to contest before its upload — becomes prima facie grounds to reopen a closed assessment does not sit easily beside that Charter commitment, or beside the constitutional guarantee of fair procedure recognised in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India.14 Natural justice requires that the person be heard before, not merely after, an adverse action is set in motion on data he never had a chance to correct.


14 Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978) 1 SCC 248; indiankanoon.org/doc/1766147/

5. Faceless reassessment compounds the problem

Once AIS flags a mismatch, the faceless machinery under the National Faceless Assessment Centre generates the notice algorithmically, with limited scope for the taxpayer to explain context to a human officer before the show-cause stage. Genuine explanations — a gift already offered to tax, a reversed transaction, an exempt long-term holding or transmission — often need several rounds of correspondence, converting what should be a two-minute reconciliation into a months-long ordeal, with every deadline enforced strictly against the taxpayer and none against the department. A trend is seen, where the officers simply don’t read or decline a matter of fact without countering it with facts that are otherwise.

6. The taxpayer is handed a maze of documents and codes he had no part in creating

Beyond the substantive mismatch problem lies a subtler unfairness: sheer multiplicity. A single fixed-deposit interest entry alone can appear under an SFT code (e.g. SFT-005 for the deposit, SFT-016 for the interest), a TDS section code (194A), an “Information Source” identifier for the reporting bank, and a separate “Information Description” string — four different labels for one transaction, spread across AIS, TIS and 26AS, none of which is explained in plain language on the document itself.15 The SFT taxonomy alone runs from SFT-001 (cash purchase of bank drafts) through SFT-018 and beyond — codes covering everything from credit card payments to buy-back of shares to immovable property — and a taxpayer is simply handed the code, not a plain-English reconciliation of why the same economic transaction surfaces twice under two different labels.


15 Income Tax Department, “FAQs on AIS”, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq, Q2 (TDS/TCS and SFT information codes); Studycafe, “What is SFT & SFT Codes used in Annual Information Statement (AIS)”, listing SFT-001 to SFT-018 (Nov 2021); TaxConcept, “All About the New Annual Information Statement (AIS)” (illustrating SFT-016 interest overlapping with TDS section 194A/193 reporting)

These codes were never designed for the citizen. They exist for machine-to-machine handshakes between OLTAS, TIN, the Reporting Portal and INTRAC — internal bookkeeping convenience for the Department’s own systems — and have been passed on to the taxpayer unmodified, as if self-explanatory. A retired pensioner or a small trader, confronted with a printout reading “SFT-016 / Source: XXXX Bank Ltd / 194A,” has no realistic way of knowing whether this is one transaction counted twice or two genuinely different ones — short of hiring a professional merely to translate the Department’s own internal taxonomy back into ordinary language. Codes built for one government system to talk to another have been handed to the citizen as if they were self-explanatory — and then used against him when he cannot explain them.

The Taxpayer’s Charter promise to be fair, courteous and reasonable must surely include a duty to communicate in a form the citizen can actually parse. A regime that requires professional intermediation simply to read one’s own tax data — before any question of accuracy even arises — imposes a compliance cost that falls hardest on exactly those taxpayers least able to afford representation.

7. The taxpayer has no independent way to verify SFT completeness or correctness

Unlike TDS — where Section 203 obliges the deductor to issue the deductee a Form 16/16A certificate as a matter of law — no provision in Section 285BA or Rule 114E requires a bank, mutual fund, registrar or other reporting entity to ever tell the taxpayer what it has filed against his PAN, or to share a copy. An SFT entry, right or wrong, is simply filed with the Department and surfaces, unannounced, in AIS months later.16


16 Income Tax Department, “FAQs on AIS”, incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq, Q3 (AIS “includes information presently available with Income Tax Department” and “there may be other transactions...not presently displayed”). Contrast Section 203, Income-tax Act, 1961, which obliges a TDS deductor to issue Form 16/16A to the deductee — no equivalent obligation exists on an SFT reporting entity under Section 285BA/Rule 114E to inform the taxpayer of what has been reported. See IndiaFilings, “Form 61A Filing Guide”.

Worse, the Department’s own FAQ concedes that AIS “includes information presently available with Income Tax Department” and that “there may be other transactions relating to the taxpayer which are not presently displayed” — an explicit admission that AIS is not guaranteed to be complete.17 A taxpayer can therefore never be certain, from AIS alone, that what he sees is either accurate or exhaustive — yet he is expected to reconcile his return against it, and risks reassessment years later for whatever discrepancy the Department’s systems eventually notice. Completeness is asserted against the taxpayer but not warranted by the Department. This problem is accentuated, when 26AS continues to show joint purchasers of property in its reporting and without TDS verification/correlation in that year and for that property to determine which PAN made payments and corresponding TDS.


17 FAQ, Q 3 - https://www.incometax.gov.in/iec/foportal/ais-faq

8. A one-way 30-day silence rule favours the reporting entity, not the taxpayer

Neither Section 285BA nor Rule 114E gives a taxpayer any right to approach a reporting entity directly and demand an explanation. The only route is AIS feedback — e.g. marking an entry “relates to other PAN/Year” — which the portal forwards to the entity, giving it 30 days to accept or reject.18 If the entity stays silent or denies it, the original entry simply stands, with no penalty on the entity and no appeal for the taxpayer — the same silence that shields the reporting entity would count against the taxpayer if the roles were reversed.


18 Section 285BA, Income-tax Act, 1961, and Rule 114E, Income-tax Rules, 1962 (no provision for direct taxpayer query to reporting entity). Process description: AIS feedback routed to reporting entity, which has 30 days to accept or reject, failing which original entry stands — MyFinancial, “AIS Mismatch Correction: A Step-by-Step Process for AY 2026-27” (2026); VittSphere ONE, “AIS, TIS, Form 26AS reconciliation before filing ITR” (2026); GetBelong, “AIS Mismatch for NRIs” (2026).

9. Case in Point

Benaifer Vispi Patel v. ITO 2025) 475 ITR 704 (Bom)(HC) is a recent case in point which went to High Court. The Court held (paraphrased from itatonline.org):

… the Court held that it cannot be conceived that at all material times, the information available in the electronic mechanism/system, would be free from errors and defects. Once a defect was pointed out on information as available on portal, it would be duty of Assessing Officer to examine version of assessee in pointing out that information was not correct and same would require due consideration for any further action to be taken to issue notice under section 148. When electronic information was available under faceless mechanism and there was other material available, as may be gathered by Assessing Officer or furnished by assessee, it would be incumbent on Assessing Officer to apply his mind to all such materials and only thereafter take a well-considered view of matter to issue a notice under section 148 by dispensing provisions of section 148A. Court held that reopening notice was arbitrary and vitiated by non-application of mind and is set aside. (AY. 2020-21)

Application of mind is increasingly becoming an issue, as many disgruntled officers seem to plainly take the data blindly and start proceedings.

There are numerous cases where Joint Holder is required to be reported. In case of Mutual Fund investments this appears in both taxpayers. The cause is that Rules are wrong – where MFs are mandated to report both holders. Attribution to all holders: As per the Aggregation Rule guidelines under Rule 114E, the reporting entity must attribute the entire value of the transaction to all the persons in whose name the account or transaction is recorded. In the AI age this is backward as belonging to 20th century mind-set.

Recently the author came across a case where Non Resident purchased property. Money came from overseas, and wife was joint holder. Husband filed the ITR disclosing the property. Wife had no income or investments. Notice and demand were received on the wife. Notice was not served properly. Husband had gone through the scrutiny assessment. The matter reached to the point of bank account seizure. The point is the tax officer failed to apply the nexus – to see the joint registration, name of first holder, movement of money, and payment from a bank account and scrutiny assessment in respect of a property. Application of mind is critical and no system can develop this ability of due care by an officer. It shows a bizarre and brazen display of unprofessional behaviour without accountability and causing harassment to a category of people who send MAXIMUM inward remittances for the nation.

In another live matter, where Jt Holder spouse is facing a 148 matter after receiving Section 133(6) Notice, supplying all papers of all payments and mentioning the name, PAN, and amounts of spouse, still ended up facing 148 proceedings. In the age of TDS deductions under section 194I – where even a marginally intelligent officer and in this case a commissioner should have been able to determine where the funds came – after connecting Bank Statement, TDS entries, TDS Certificates, Property Purchase Documents, Invoices. However, lack of application of mind at commissioner level and a mechanical approach with complete and careless disregard for law, facts and taxpayer is becoming the norm.

THE SOLUTION

1. No notice without AO verification. An AO may not cite an AIS/TIS entry in a Section 148A notice without first checking taxpayer feedback on it and recording what was submitted, in the notice, why that feedback was rejected especially when factually and can be counter checked with TDS payments in case of property purchases.

2. A mandatory pre-notice reconciliation window. A 30-day automated window on the AIS portal to fix genuine data errors before any notice is even considered — consistent with the Department’s own 2021 position that TRACES, not AIS, should prevail in case of doubt.

3. Punish false reporting by SFT filers. Reporting entities whose SFT data is repeatedly found wrong on taxpayer feedback should face mandatory penalty under Section 271FAA or fine per error — false or careless reporting cannot be cost-free for the source while the taxpayer alone pays for it in notices.

4. Publish AIS error rates. CBDT should periodically publish AIS/TIS feedback-acceptance statistics, so the reliability of this “evidence” is known before it is used to reopen assessments.

5. Genuine NUDGE, not disguised enforcement. A mismatch should first trigger a soft, non-adversarial email nudge — as already piloted for virtual digital asset discrepancies19 — escalating to Section 148A only if ignored, not as the first response to a data flag.


19 Business Standard, reporting on CBDT NUDGE email campaign addressing under-reported virtual digital asset (crypto) income, 2025; business-standard.com/topic/cbdt

6. Make it understandable. Every SFT/TDS code must carry a mandatory plain-English explanation on the statement itself. If a code is fit to trigger a notice, it must be fit to explain itself.

7. One composite statement — not three. AIS, TIS and Form 26AS should be merged into a single taxpayer-facing statement with one reconciled figure per income head. Three overlapping documents, each a partial and differently-processed view of the same underlying data, is itself a source of confusion and inconsistent departmental action.

8. Make it less surveillance, more self-service. The AIS/Compliance Portal should be administratively and visually de-linked from the enforcement machinery (ITBA) — rebranded and communicated as a self-correction facility, not a watch-list dossier, with soft-touch language replacing the current compliance-and-deterrence framing.

9. Joint Holders. The AIS/Compliance Portal should be administratively and visually de-linked from the enforcement machinery (ITBA) — rebranded and communicated as a self-correction facility, not a watch-list dossier, with soft-touch language replacing the current compliance-and-deterrence framing.

10. Stop Modifications to AIS TIS 26AS after filing of ITR. Once the ITR is filed, taxpayer permission should be required to update these as the taxpayer has already relied on them. There is a problem of constantly changing forms where one has to check several times what has changed.

CONCLUSION

The officially described themes of transparency and pre-filling tool meant should help taxpayers, not indict them. Understandability of numerous documents is the critical missing component – multiplicity of documents, incorrigible entries in many cases, overlapping and duplicate data is far from being helpful. It is clear that since the machine based reporting came, the officers including at high levels, do not apply their minds and are trigger happy to initiate proceedings where taxpayer has everything to loose and tax administrator can illegally claim 20% deposit for appeals with no cost imposed on him if he loses.

A tool meant to nudge voluntary compliance should be one simple, understandable statement that helps the citizen self-correct — not three coercive ones that punish him for not being able to read them. Until it is, AIS remains, for many honest taxpayers, exactly the surveillance instrument it claims not to be.

Beyond SEO: Why Chartered Accountants Must Prepare For The GEO Era

The manner in which clients discover professional expertise is undergoing a significant transformation. Increasingly, individuals are turning to AI-driven platforms such as ChatGPT, Gemini, and Perplexity AI for answers to tax, regulatory, and business queries instead of relying solely on traditional search engines. This shift has led to the emergence of GEO (Generative Engine Optimisation), which focuses on making professional expertise digitally understandable and discoverable within AI-generated responses. For Chartered Accountants, this development has important implications for visibility, positioning, and client discovery. The article examines how GEO differs from traditional SEO, why digital expertise signals are becoming increasingly relevant, and how professionals can adapt to the evolving AI-driven ecosystem.

In the AI era, professional visibility may increasingly depend not merely on expertise itself, but on whether AI systems can recognise, interpret, and associate that expertise with relevant client queries.

For nearly two decades, professional visibility on the internet revolved around one dominant platform — Google. Businesses and professionals focused extensively on websites, search rankings, and SEO strategies because client discovery largely began with a Google search. A prospective client would search for a tax query, browse multiple websites, compare professionals, and then decide whom to approach.

That model is now undergoing a quiet but significant transformation. Increasingly, individuals are no longer “searching” in the conventional sense. Instead, they are directly asking questions to AI-driven platforms such as OpenAI’s ChatGPT, Google Gemini, Anthropic Claude, and Perplexity AI. More importantly, they are receiving complete, contextual, and conversational responses within seconds — often without opening a single website. This behavioural shift has given rise to a new concept: GEO (Generative Engine Optimisation).

UNDERSTANDING GEO

GEO refers to the process of building a digital presence in a manner that enables AI systems to recognise, interpret, and associate a professional with a particular area of expertise while generating responses.

Traditionally, professionals focused on SEO (Search Engine Optimisation), where the objective was to rank higher on search engines. Success was measured by visibility in search results and website traffic. GEO fundamentally changes that framework.

In the AI-driven ecosystem, users increasingly ask complete questions instead of typing fragmented keywords. Rather than displaying a list of links, AI platforms generate consolidated and contextual answers.

Accordingly, the central question is no longer: “How do I rank on Google?”

The more relevant question now is: “How do I become part of the answer generated by AI?”

That distinction lies at the heart of GEO. In practical terms, GEO depends upon how strongly the digital ecosystem associates a professional with a specific subject area. AI systems infer such associations through publicly available digital signals such as articles, blogs, FAQs, professional insights, educational posts, interviews, discussions, and case-based explanations.

For example, if a Chartered Accountant consistently publishes practical insights on startup taxation, FEMA, ESOPs, NRI taxation, or GST-related matters, such content strengthens publicly visible expertise signals that AI systems may be able to interpret when those signals are included within their underlying data sources or retrieval processes. While this can improve discoverability over time, whether a professional is surfaced in any specific AI response will continue to depend on the design, data sources, licensing arrangements, and retrieval policies of the particular AI platform.

The-new-rule-of-visibility-from-seo-to-Geo

This is why GEO is fundamentally different from traditional digital marketing. It is not merely about visibility or promotion. Rather, it is about building digital interpretability of expertise.

It is important to recognise, however, that AI-generated discoverability is not determined solely by the volume of public content or digital signals. Different AI platforms rely on different combinations of training data, licensed content, retrieval mechanisms, freshness of information, and platform-specific filters. Consequently, the professionals or sources surfaced by one AI system may differ from those identified by another. GEO should therefore be viewed as improving the likelihood that a professional’s expertise can be recognised and interpreted by AI ecosystems, rather than as a guarantee of inclusion in AI-generated responses. Consistent, high-quality public expertise remains an important input, but it operates alongside these platform-specific factors.

How it differs from SEO

Aspect SEO GEO
Focus Ranking higher on search engines Being included in AI-generated answers
User Behaviour Keyword searches → list of links Conversational queries → direct contextual answers
Signals Website traffic, backlinks, keywords Digital expertise signals (articles, blogs, FAQs, case notes, interviews)
Outcome People find your website AI understands what you are known for

In simple terms:

  • SEO helps people find your website.
  • GEO helps AI understand what you are known for.

In an era where professional discovery increasingly begins with AI-generated answers, that distinction may become extremely significant.

A simple exercise every Chartered Accountant should try

Open ChatGPT or Gemini and type queries such as:

  • “Suggest good Chartered Accountants in Mumbai for GST registration.”
  • “Who are good CAs for startup taxation in India?”
  • “Best CA for NRI taxation in Mumbai.”

Observe the responses carefully.

Certain patterns become immediately noticeable:

  • AI systems may mention professionals or firms with stronger, well-structured digital visibility, although responses can vary across platforms depending on their training data, licensing arrangements, retrieval methods, and platform-specific filters.
  • They tend to rely on publicly available expertise signals such as articles, blogs, interviews, and professional commentary.
  • Professionals who consistently explain concepts in a structured and accessible manner are more likely to surface.

This leads to an important introspective question:

Would your name, firm, or expertise appear anywhere within that ecosystem today?

The answer to that question itself explains why GEO matters.

WHY THIS SHIFT IS PARTICULARLY RELEVANT FOR CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS

The Chartered Accountancy profession is fundamentally built upon trust, interpretation, and expertise. Clients approach Chartered Accountants not merely for compliance, but for clarity, guidance, and confidence in decision-making.

Historically, such trust was built primarily through referrals, professional reputation, and personal networks.

Today, however, the first layer of professional validation is increasingly becoming digital. Before contacting a professional, clients now frequently seek preliminary understanding through AI tools. Consider a common example. A business owner wanting to understand the taxability of cross-border SaaS transactions may no longer search: “GST on SaaS services”

Instead, the question may be framed conversationally: “How does GST apply to software services provided to foreign clients from India?”

The response generated by AI is usually structured, practical, and direct. In arriving at such responses, AI systems rely heavily on publicly available digital content — articles, explanatory notes, discussion threads, blogs, interviews, and professional insights that demonstrate subject matter expertise. This development has important implications for professionals.

EXPERTISE WITHOUT VISIBILITY IS GRADUALLY BECOMING INVISIBLE

Consider two Chartered Accountants possessing similar technical competence and experience in GST advisory.

One regularly publishes short practical insights on LinkedIn, writes explanatory notes on emerging industry issues, and discusses case-based interpretations in simple language. The other relies entirely on traditional referrals and maintains virtually no visible digital footprint.

When AI systems repeatedly encounter practical and structured content from the first professional, a digital association gradually develops between that individual and the relevant subject matter. Over time, this increases the likelihood of that expertise being reflected, referenced, or indirectly represented within AI-generated responses.

The second professional, despite being equally competent, remains largely invisible because the digital ecosystem lacks sufficient context to identify and associate expertise with that individual.

This represents the central reason why GEO is becoming increasingly important for professionals.

THE NATURE OF CONTENT IS ALSO CHANGING

Importantly, GEO is not about “gaming algorithms” or creating superficial content purely for visibility. In fact, AI-driven systems tend to favour clarity, consistency, relevance, and usefulness.

Content that performs well within AI ecosystems is typically:

  • Structured and easy to understand
  • Practical rather than purely theoretical
  • Written in conversational language
  • Focused on real-world questions and scenarios
  • Educational in nature

For Chartered Accountants, this presents a significant opportunity because the profession naturally generates practical problem-solving situations every day.

Questions relating to capital gains, ESOP taxation, HUF structures, startup compliance, residency status, FEMA regulations, cross-border transactions, succession planning, and GST implications are inherently explanatory in nature. These are precisely the kinds of subjects users increasingly explore through AI platforms.

A simple illustration highlights this shift.

An article titled: “Analysis of Capital Gains Provisions under the Income-tax Act” may satisfy technical completeness. However, a practical note titled: “Sold a Property After Three Years? Here is How Your Tax Will Actually Be Calculated” is substantially more aligned with how modern users ask questions and how AI systems process contextual understanding. The technical substance may remain identical. The accessibility changes entirely.

GEO AND THE IMPORTANCE OF PROFESSIONAL POSITIONING

Another important dimension of GEO is professional positioning.

Historically, many professionals positioned themselves broadly as “tax consultants” or “practising Chartered Accountants.” In the AI-driven ecosystem, however, sharper positioning creates stronger digital association. Repeatedly discussing focused subject areas: such as startup advisory, NRI taxation, international taxation, forensic audits, FEMA, or real estate taxation, gradually strengthens one’s digital identity in that domain. Over time, expertise that is repeatedly visible becomes expertise that is digitally recognised.

Importantly, this does not imply that every professional must become a social media influencer or produce excessive volumes of content. Consistency and relevance are far more valuable than frequency alone. Even brief but insightful observations, practical interpretations of amendments, FAQs, or case-based explanations can meaningfully strengthen one’s GEO presence.

DISCOVERY IS BECOMING PRE-FILTERED

Perhaps the most significant aspect of this transition is that, in the near future, many clients may never conduct a conventional search at all. Their professional discovery journey may simply become:

  1. Ask AI a question
  2. Receive a refined answer
  3. Identify likely professionals or firms
  4. Reach out directly

In such an environment, professionals who are digitally visible within the AI knowledge ecosystem may enjoy disproportionate discoverability. The significance of this transition is comparable to the early adoption phase of websites and social media. Those who recognised the importance of digital presence early were able to build substantial visibility advantages over time. GEO appears to represent a similar inflection point.

A PRACTICAL 90-DAY GEO ACTION PLAN FOR CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS

Days 1–15: Build Your Professional Identity

  • Optimise your LinkedIn profile
  • Clearly mention your areas of specialisation
  • Use practical descriptions instead of generic labels

Days 15–30: Create Foundational Content

  • Write short posts answering common client questions
  • Focus on clarity rather than technical jargon
  • Simplify practical concepts

Days 30–45: Build Searchable Expertise

  • Publish FAQs, explanatory notes, and short articles
  • Discuss practical scenarios and industry developments
  • Create educational content consistently

Days 45–60: Strengthen Authority Signals

  • Participate in webinars, panel discussions, and podcasts
  • Share practical observations publicly
  • Engage meaningfully within professional communities

Days 60–90: Develop Consistency

  • Commit to at least two professional posts per week
  • Publish one practical article every month
  • Build one clearly identifiable niche area of expertise

CONCLUSION

GEO is not merely another marketing trend. It represents a structural shift in how professional expertise is discovered in the digital age. For years, professionals competed for visibility on search engines. Increasingly, professionals may now compete for relevance within AI-generated answers. In such a world, technical competence alone may not guarantee discoverability.

The professionals who are likely to stand out will be those whose expertise is understandable, accessible, digitally visible, and consistently communicated.

Ultimately, the question is no longer simply: “Are you a good professional?”

The more relevant question increasingly becoming: “Does the digital ecosystem know that you are one?”
GEO is a powerful tool for enhancing discoverability, but it is not a substitute for professional competence, ethical practice, or traditional reputation-building. Chartered Accountants should treat GEO as a complement to their existing credibility rather than a replacement.

From The President

My Dear BCAS Family,

September in Mumbai is a season of transition. As the monsoon begins to recede and the festive spirit gathers momentum, the city prepares to move forward with renewed energy. This transition invites us to pause and reflect: how can we convert reflection into renewal personally, professionally and institutionally?

The Strength to Forgive

Let’s begin with Paryushan. It is perhaps the one festival that asks something genuinely difficult of us. On Kṣamāpanā, His Holiness the 79th Spiritual Sovereign, Jainacharya Yugbhushan Suriji, posed a question that I cannot shake off: We forgive ourselves so easily; why are we harder on others when it is their turn to be forgiven? Why the double standard? His answer was neutrality; extending to others the same generosity we readily extend to ourselves. This is the strength Gandhiji once located in forgiveness itself. “The weak can never forgive. Forgiveness is the attribute of the strong.” There is a lesson here for all of us. We spend our careers examining other people’s numbers, decisions and mistakes. Perhaps it is time we turned that same scrutiny, and the same grace, inward. So, to every member, staff colleague and friend of this Society whom I may have let down this year, knowingly or unknowingly: Michhami Dukkadam.

Building Trust, Breaking Silos

This spirit of reflection and collective responsibility shaped the BCAS Core Group Leadership Retreat 2026.

The last two months gave the Core Group something rare: an actual pause, though it almost did not happen. The BCAS Core Group Leadership Retreat 2026 was originally planned at Avadh Utopia, but the monsoon had other plans. With just ten days to go and the venue rendered unusable, our team went into overdrive, sourcing, evaluating and finalising a new venue, Pearl Resort in Silvassa, without losing a single day for the 120 members who had already blocked their calendars. Two Managing Committee members personally inspected the venue because a brochure and an actual, seamless experience are two very different things.

I mention this not for the logistics, but because it says something about us; the unglamorous scramble behind the scenes is what makes the visible part look effortless. The Leadership Retreat was conceived with a simple thought: to bring our Core Group together, break down silos and create a shared vision for the future.

The retreat delivered exactly what we had hoped for two days of honest conversations, meaningful connections and trust-building across committees and generations of BCAS. My gratitude to every Core Group member who was part of these two days of conversation for your time, your ideas, your faith and, most importantly, your willingness to serve the Society. Together, we will honour the legacy of BCAS, serve the profession and transform the future.

Extending the Reach of BCAS

As part of our “Reach” initiative, BCAS has been engaging with regulators, law enforcement agencies and corporates through the proactive approach of the 4i Committee, led by CA Chirag Doshi. We had a productive meeting with SEBI Chairman Mr. T. K. Pandey to explore how BCAS can contribute to strengthening corporate governance and building regulatory awareness among professionals serving as KMPs, auditors and Independent Directors.

The Economic Offences Wing of the Mumbai Police has also invited us to train senior officers in reading financial statements and identifying fraud modus operandi.

I also met the Vice-Principal of R. A. Podar College to explore a program focused on sharpening the practical skills of students pursuing commerce and finance courses.

These engagements reflect our larger ambition through “Reach”, to take the expertise of our profession beyond our traditional circles and make it more relevant to regulators, institutions, businesses and society at large.

A Community That Removes Obstacles

This September, we will welcome Lord Ganesh into our homes and pandals. The processions and the scale of the celebrations we see today were not always part of public life. Lokmanya Tilak deliberately revived the public celebration of Ganeshotsav to build a sense of community at a time when public gatherings were restricted. He found his answer in the remover of obstacles. That is a useful lens for a professional body too. At our best, that is what BCAS should be; not merely a directory of contacts, but a genuine community that helps remove the obstacles between a member and their next step. Our own retreat this year was a small example of that spirit – a plan disrupted, a challenge we could not have anticipated, and a community that found a way through it together.

A certain stagnation hits many of us mid-career. You’re competent, established, even respected, yet somehow boxed into a role you’ve outgrown: the tax specialist eyeing advisory, the audit partner curious about ESG assurance, the practitioner good at the work but rarely seen for it. If that’s you, lean into this community rather than work through it alone. A cross-professional conversation, a chance meeting at a seminar, an honest coffee with a senior member: this isn’t networking in the transactional sense. It’s closer to what Balgangadhar Tilak understood; people move through obstacles together, not by individually pushing harder against them.

Beyond-the-ledger

Knowledge with Responsibility

Regulatory update: The Taxation and Other Laws Amendment Bill, 2026 moved swiftly through the Lok Sabha. This reflects the government’s continued push for simpler compliance and a more coherent digitaleconomy framework. We’ll examine its implications in the weeks ahead.

GST collections: Gross GST collections rose 15.4% year-on-year to ₹2.11 lakh crore, providing welcome reassurance despite continued uncertainty across global supply chains.

Events: The 60th Members’ RRC has crossed 200 registrations within its first month. Registrations for the 2nd Direct Tax Retreat are also progressing briskly. Members are encouraged to register early.

Giving back: In keeping with its social commitment, BCAS aspires to plant nearly 10,000 trees in the tribal belt of Jawhar, supporting environmental sustainability while creating a regular income source for tribal farmers who nurture them. I humbly appeal to every reader to support this cause.

Moving Forward Together

As we enter the busiest month of the year, alongside the festive season, thoughtful planning will be essential to complete assignments on time without compromising on quality. Wishing you and your teams a productive tax season. One that is successful, smooth and, hopefully, a little less taxing!

Jai Hind.

Listening

In our profession, we are trained to read numbers, interpret laws, identify risks and ask the right questions. We are expected to have answers. Clients come to us because they believe we know something they do not.

It is therefore natural that we speak a lot. But the quality of our spoken or written advice depends on an oftenneglected skill: the ability to listen. And listening is not the same as hearing.

A client may spend twenty minutes explaining a problem, while the professional is already constructing an answer in his head. We hear the initial words, identify the apparent issue and begin solving it. But sometimes the real problem is hidden somewhere beyond the initial words.

Consider a client who seeks advice on whether tax is required to be deducted at source on a particular payment. The legal position may be genuinely debatable with arguments on both sides. The professional instinct is to analyse the provisions, examine the decisions and recommend the interpretation that appears stronger in law.

But suppose we first ask: “What is most important to you in taking this position?”

The answer may change the advice. The client may be willing to adopt an aggressive but defensible interpretation because the amounts involved are substantial. Another client, faced with the same legal question, may prefer the more conservative position because it has thousands of payees, cannot easily recover tax later, or does not wantrecurring disputes in assessment. A third may be concerned about the commercial consequences of withholding tax from a key vendor.

he-Professional-Art-of-Listening

The law has not changed. The competing interpretations remain exactly the same. What changes is our understanding of the client’s real problem. Good professional advice is therefore not merely about identifying the better legal argument. It is also about understanding the consequences the client is willing, or unwilling, to live with.

Listening allows us to discover the question behind the question.

This becomes particularly important as our profession changes. Technology and AI are increasingly capable of retrieving provisions, analysing documents, comparing judicial decisions and even generating technically sound opinions. The relative value of merely knowing information will inevitably decline. What will become more valuable is our ability to understand context, intention, risk and people.

Senior professionals often believe that their experience makes them better listeners. Yet, paradoxically, it can sometimes have the opposite effect. We recognise patterns quickly and therefore assume we already know what the younger colleague is going to say. So, we interrupt and give advice before the other person has finished explaining. In doing so, we may save two minutes of conversation and lose an opportunity to understand something important.

There is another dimension to listening: listening without immediately judging. Not every conversation requires a solution. Sometimes a colleague, client or team member needs to feel safe enough to articulate an innovative, contrarian or uncomfortable thought. If every statement is immediately evaluated, corrected or criticised, people eventually stop bringing us the information we most need to hear. For a profession built on trust, that is costly.

Perhaps the simplest way to improve is to introduce a small discipline into our conversations: pause before responding. Ask one more question. Paraphrase what you have heard. Resist the temptation to formulate the answer while the other person is still speaking.

The objective is not to become passive listeners. Quite the opposite. Great listening is an active professional skill. It requires curiosity, attention, patience and the humility to accept that our first understanding may be incomplete.

The future chartered accountant will still need technical excellence. That is non-negotiable. But technical excellence alone may no longer distinguish one professional from another. The differentiator may be something much more human. The ability to sit across the table from another person, put aside the urge to speak, and genuinely understand what they are trying to tell us.

We spend years learning how to read numbers. Perhaps it is time we became equally good at reading people.

Because sometimes, the most valuable professional advice begins not with an answer, but with a very simple question:

“Tell me more.”

77th Annual General Meeting And 78th Founding Day

The 77th Annual General Meeting of the BCAS was held on Monday, 6th July, 2026 at MCA-The Lounge, Wankhede Stadium, Marine Drive, Vinoo Mankad Road, Churchgate, Mumbai – 400020.

The President, Mr. Zubin F. Billimoria took the chair and called the meeting to order. All the business as per the agenda contained in the notice was conducted, including the adoption of accounts and appointment of auditors.

Mr. Zubin F. Billimoria, announced the results of the election of the President, the Vice-President, two Honorary Secretaries, the Treasurer and eight members of the Managing Committee for the year 2026–27.

CA Sunil Gabhawalla, Editor of the BCA Journal, announced the recipients of the Jal Erach Dastur Awards for the year 2025–26. The Best Article Award was conferred on CA Narasimhan Elangovan for his article, “Leveraging AI for Enhanced CA Practice: A Practical Guide to Publicly Available Models.” The Best Feature Award was jointly conferred on CA Puloma Dalal, CA Jayesh Gogri and CA Mandar Telang for their feature, “Recent Decisions in GST.”

The Editor also announced the S. V. Ghatalia Foundation Fund Award for the Best Audit Article, which was conferred on CA Manish Shah for his article, “Depreciation Policy Changes by Large Technology Companies: Analysis under Indian Accounting Standards.”

Before the conclusion of the AGM, members, including Past Presidents of BCAS, shared their views and reflections on the activities and contributions of the Society.

The occasion also witnessed the release of the July 2026 Special Issue of the BCA Journal on “Globalisation of Indian CA Firms”, along with the release of the book “Comprehensive Analysis of Related Party Transactions” authored by CA Abhinav Kumar K. P., and “Gita for Professionals” (Gujarati Version) authored by CA Chetan Dalal by Mr. Arvind Datar, Senior Advocate.

Following the AGM, the Society celebrated its 78th Founding Day with a lecture delivered by Mr. Arvind Datar, Senior Advocate, on the topic “Four Hurdles to Overcome for Viksit Bharat.” The lecture, attended by a packed audience, provided valuable insights and thought-provoking perspectives on India’s developmental journey.

The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks proposed by CA (Adv.) Kinjal Bhuta, who thanked the speaker for sharing his visionary thoughts on a highly relevant subject.

The following members were elected unopposed for the year 2026–27:

OFFICE BEARERS
President CA Kinjal Shah
Vice President CA Mandar Telang
Hon. Joint. Secretary CA (Adv.) Kinjal Bhuta
Hon. Joint. Secretary CA Samit Saraf
Treasurer CA Mrinal Mehta
MANAGING COMMITTEE

ELECTED MEMBERS

Elected Member Mr. Anand Kothari
Elected Member Ms. Divya B. Jokhakar
Elected Member Mr. Dushyant Bhatt
Elected Member Mr. Hardik Mehta
Elected Member Mr. Mahesh Nayak
Elected Member Ms. Preeti Cherian
Elected Member Ms. Sneh Bhuta
Elected Member Mr. Vishesh Sangoi
CO-OPTED MEMBERS
Member Mr. Prajit Gandhi
Member Mr. Amit Purohit
Member Mr. Gaurav Save
Member Mr. Raj Khona
Member Mr. Jagat Mehta
Member Mr. Parth Shah
EX-OFFICIO
Immediate Past President CA Zubin F. Billimoria
Member, (Editor BCAJ) CA Sunil Gabhawalla

[The video of the lecture is available on the BCAS YouTube Channel. A detailed report on the Founding Day Lecture is provided in the Society News section of this Journal.]

OUTGOING PRESIDENT’S SPEECH

CA Zubin

A very good evening on this rainy day. Thankfully, the rains have cleared off a little, thus providing some respite, so we hope more people will join in later. It is just one year and one day back that I was at the adjoining building giving my acceptance speech, and a year has flown by, and it looks like it was just yesterday that I assumed office. It has been a year of a lot of learning for me, mainly because I had a very young and dynamic team supporting me throughout and, in many cases, even correcting me for the better. I am very happy and proud of all that. In any organisation, a leader is only as good as his team. And while many of you have been saying that I have had a good year, it is actually the team which really deserves all the credit. I deserve all the blame for whatever has gone wrong this year. And for that, I stand before all of you and tender my unconditional apology. If something has gone wrong, if I have hurt somebody’s feelings or have not done something, but ultimately whatever it is, it is all in the interest of the organisation. The incoming team, comprising the incoming President, Kinjalbhai, and the other office-bearers, is young and dynamic, and I am sure that, going forward, they will continue to steer BCAS to greater heights. Kinjalbhai is a very dynamic and seasoned professional in BCAS; he has been through the grind. Along with him, the other team members- Mandar, who is taking over as the vice president; Mrinal, Kinjal Bhuta, and Samit Saraf, the newly inducted member make up a good, well-rounded team. Over the course of the year, our main focus, as discussed at the two earlier AGMs, has been on the five-year plan starting from 2023-24, which rests on the following six pillars:

  • Reach
  • Professional Development 
  • Networking
  • Advocacy
  • Yuva Shakti
  • Chartereds for Change – corresponding to Professional Social Responsibility

Unlike in earlier years, when the president had a separate theme each year, we have decided to continue with the five-year plan here, though the government has long back disbanded the concept of five year plans! Over the course of the year, as I indicated at the last AGM, each of these six pillars has been executed through specific projects and strategic verticals, with a focus on certain areas to facilitate easier monitoring and the implementation of key actionables. Hence, I would like to take you through my report card.

To begin, the year has been characterised by the themes focusing on reach, relevance and renewal. We now have a total of around 12,300 members and journal subscribers across the length and breadth of India, or what I call Bharat, with membership across nearly 400 towns and cities. An important initiative this year that I will discuss later is the digital push, which has garnered nearly 2 million YouTube views over the last year. So just before I go into the specific projects, let us look at, in a nutshell, what we have delivered:

  • Operating Backbone– through ISO renewal, strengthening events team capabilities and stronger MIS. My focus has been on strengthening the operational processes because, ultimately, that is the backbone, since the organisation of events is, to a certain extent, running on autopilot.
  • Member Engagement – through RRCs, lecture meetings, campus hooks and felicitation of fresh CAs.
  • Digital Acceleration – through podcasts, setting up the in-house studio, social growth and BCAS Academy usage.
  • Reach across Bharat – through appointment of Sherpas, Town halls and a geographically spread member base.
  • Women-led Participation – through Sakhi Circle, RefresHER courses and Women’s Day celebration.
  • Advocacy and Impact– through representations, legal success, partnerships and social good.

These and certain other initiatives were implemented through eleven separate projects that covered one or more of the six pillars discussed earlier.

Logistical and Administrative Excellence:

This was the overarching theme binding the implementation of various projects and initiatives, with the aim of becoming a process-agnostic rather than a person-agnostic organisation due to annual leadership changes. All of these are reflected through the following themes:

  • Compliance- Renewal of our ISO registration until 28th February, 2029, for which compliments to the entire office staff and the team led by our office Manager Sachin Kulkarni.
  • Capability – Three staff training programmes were conducted during the year, by internal and external faculties on areas such as Artificial Intelligence and compliance-related awareness sessions, including workplace conduct and Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) responsibilities under POSH guidelines.
  • Systems – Operational upgrades, event consultation team, SOP Reviews and strengthening documentation and MIS.

Initially, the staff found it a little challenging to adapt to these initiatives, but over the course of the year, they have started getting used to them. The other occasional pain point, to a certain extent, has been event execution and related issues, which we have tried to address by partially outsourcing and appointing an external consultant to help with event management. It is still a work in progress, and we hope that this will lead to the desired results in the foreseeable future.

Further, even at the OB level, we have tried to meet every Wednesday, as has been the custom, and during the year, out of the 52 weeks, we have met 37 times. What is more important is that I have made it a point that each of the decisions we have taken is minuted and recorded, because many times we found that, during the course of our functioning, we could not locate the source of what had been decided earlier. Hence, I hope that the succeeding office-bearer teams will not face this problem, and that my successors will also follow this practice as best they can. Without having set the tone at the top, we cannot expect documented policies and procedures to be implemented down the line.

OPERATION BHARAT (PART OF THE “REACH PILLAR”):

The next project is Operation Bharat. As you saw, we now have a membership base of nearly 12,300 members and journal subscribers, of whom nearly 50% are outside Mumbai across nearly 400 towns and cities; hence, we are no longer representing Bombay but truly Bharat. Our new tagline, Empowering the Profession Across Bharat”, which we released earlier during the year, reflects this new reality. So whilst we may not call ourselves Bharat Chartered Accountants Society because we don’t want to change the name, but at least now, we are seen as being across Bharat because many times still when I have been visiting certain other towns and cities, and asked people, whether they are members, I get the answer that we are not from Mumbai. We now hope to dispel all these doubts and myths through this tagline.

Another important facet of Operation Bharat has been that we have now appointed Sherpas in 13 towns and cities. They serve as our local representatives who help us connect with the local organizations and who also help us in organizing programs because one of the issues which had come up in the membership survey which was the last year, not during my year, is that the people out of Mumbai need to have and long for more physical programs. So this is one important need which is getting fulfilled. We hope to appoint more Sherpas going forward. There were a lot of Sherpa led events which were conducted during the year in the form of townhall meetings. or events either singly or jointly with local associations. We have held events during the year in Kolkata, Coimbatore, Jaipur, Thane, Indore and Vadodara and they have received very good response. These covered diverse topics ranging from income tax, GST, IPO readiness, family offices and various other topics. We hope that the momentum for this continues going forward.

MEMBERSHIP HOOKS (PART OF THE “REACH” AND “YUVA SHAKTI” PILLAR):

Whilst we are enrolling members at a fairly reasonable pace across Bharat, our membership base remains quite minuscule compared to the number of chartered accountants, even though we consider ourselves India’s largest and oldest voluntary body of CAs. Hence, it is our constant endeavour to take several initiatives to create meaningful engagement opportunities for members, students, and young professionals, while fostering a stronger sense of association and belonging within the fraternity to attract new members.

Events – They are our main pillar and play a key role in attracting new members. Whilst most of our events are open to non-members, we need more events that are open only to members. Further, during the year, we have striven to keep the fee differential between members and non-members slightly larger, in the hope of converting non-member participants at our events into members going forward. This year, of course, I was lucky to preside over a total of 6 RRCs, as opposed to the usual 4. This is primarily due to two reasons; firstly, the International Tax RRC scheduled for April 2025 got shifted to August 2025 in addition to the regular International Tax RRC held in April 2026; secondly, for the first time we had the Direct Tax RRC in Delhi, which was also a hit. I am happy to announce that nearly 1,400 participants attended the various RRCs during the year compared to a little over 700 participants in the previous year. However, only the General RRC is currently open to members. We hope that, in the future, either the fee differential for the events, including RRCs, is significant or there are more member-specific events, including RRCs.

Lecture Meetings– Another important membership hook is our lecture meetings, which are open to all. As per tradition, these are normally held on Wednesdays, once a month. In the year just gone, I am happy to state. that we have held a total of 17 lecture meetings, which is more than the average lecture meeting of one per month. These provide the necessary leverage for BCAS to attract more CAs towards membership of the Society

Felicitation of Fresh CAs- Another important facet of membership hooks is to tap them young. In this context, we organise felicitation programmes for CAs whenever the results are announced. This year, as the frequency of results has increased, we have held four such programmes; the last felicitation was held only last Friday. A total of nearly 1250 fresh CAs were felicitated. We also provide a 1-year free membership to rankers who attend this felicitation, and accordingly, around 15 freshers were enrolled as members during the year. Whilst I do not have the exact statistics of such conversions, I have been informed that 2 freshers who attended the latest felicitation have become life members. However, if you ask me, the overall response is still not very encouraging because the youngsters are still trying to find their bearings, and unless there is very strong peer pressure or a push from someone in the family, they don’t tend to join BCAS immediately. Accordingly, this is one area where we need to do more work.

AARAMBH & FALCON Initiatives: These are very specific, focused initiatives we started during the year. Through the AARAMBH – Making Articleship Count initiative, BCAS engages directly with students by sharing practical insights, real-life experiences, and guidance from young Chartered Accountants who have recently walked the same path. The sessions are designed to bridge the gap between academic learning and professional realities, enabling students to approach articleship with clarity, confidence, and a long-term perspective. The first session under this initiative was held at H.R. College of Commerce & Economics. The programme witnessed enthusiastic student participation, driven by an engaging panel discussion and vibrant interaction. Through the FALCON (FROM ARTICLESHIP TO LEADERSHIP CARVING ONES NICHE) initiative and taking a cue from the falcon bird, which always strives to go higher and achieve greater heights, BCAS offers aspiring graduates an opportunity to interact with and learn from young Core Group members – those who have walked the path before them. The panellists focus on topics related to articleship, post-qualification professional association, networking, and leadership. To ensure that the aspirants feel both comfortable and confident engaging with the panellists, this initiative has BCAS meet them on their home turf – be it in a college, a coaching class, or even at CA firms. The first session under this initiative was held at N M College of Commerce & Economics. The session was ably supported by the Association of Accountancy Committee of N M College. We hope that more such initiatives will continue in future.

Corporate Membership- During the year, a targeted approach focused on the benefits of Corporate Membership for LLPs, emphasising the flexibility to change nominees every year and the availability of GST Input Credit, though I must admit that the same has not been very successful.

OPERATION NARI SHAKTI (PART OF THE “REACH” PILLAR):

Another specific initiative, which was one of my pet initiatives, is Operation Nari Shakti, which aims to create more space for women professionals and to focus on women’s empowerment, inclusivity, and enhanced professional engagement, coupled with learning and networking and to try and help women who have challenges in returning to the fold. I would like to highlight two specific initiatives in this regard:

Sakhi Circle– This is a women-only study circle, providing a dedicated platform for women CAs to converse, connect and collaborate on professional and technical developments in a supportive environment. During the year, 3 meetings were held by senior women core group members on topics aimed at encouraging women’s uniqueness and on soft skills. Currently, there are around 250 members.

Women’s RefresHER Course:– During the year, the Society launched Specialised RefresHER Course under the BCAS Academy Platform exclusively for women CAs, covering relevant technical, regulatory, and professional subjects to help members stay updated in an evolving professional landscape. A total of 14 sessions were conducted during the year by experienced subject matter experts, all of whom were women. On completion, certificates were issued.

The membership base last year, when I addressed you, was 941; it has now increased to nearly 1200, which is still very low compared to ICAI’s corresponding membership base. I am confident that with these and other initiatives, we will increase it further.

TECHNOLOGY AND DIGITAL INITIATIVES (PART OF THE “PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT”, “NETWORKING” AND “CHARTEREDS’ FOR CHANGE” PILLARS) :

As we are aware, without technology and digitisation, no organisation, whether big or small, can survive. For the first time, we had three podcasts, under the Samvad series, recorded in our own in-house studio, details of which are given in the annual report, including a podcast with His Holiness Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswathi Shankaracharya Swamiji of Kanchipuram, which was the icing on the cake. As I indicated earlier, we have a total of 2 million YouTube views. Social media followers have also increased to around 1 lakh across various platforms. We also have the BCAS Broadcast platform through which we circulate our events, programs, and certain select articles from the journal to the membership base at large. Our Digital Infrastructure for conducting Hybrid and virtual events has also been upgraded in line with the theme of Logistical and Administrative excellence mentioned earlier. This is because our hybrid setup, commissioned in a rush during the COVID-19 pandemic, began experiencing problems and receiving complaints from various event stakeholders. Further, during the year, a series of podcasts were conducted by the International Tax Committee under the “Are you Aware” series. I hope that more committees also have these podcasts with the aim of creating a repository of digital assets, available on BCAS Academy.

BCAS ACADEMY (PART OF THE “PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT” PILLAR):

This was launched during Anand’s term, and it has now moved to the next level, as is evident from its usage base as under:

  • 10,200 active members
  • 4,300 guest users
  • 300 e learn subscribers
  • 1,700 average monthly visits

Beyond its members, the platform is also accessible to non-members for a fee for certain specified courses and resources. Going forward, the aim is to provide self-learning modules and certification courses on contemporary topics, both on a recurring and one-off basis. Accordingly, it has evolved from a content repository to an engagement engine, with more and more professionals becoming engaged.

RESEARCH AND INDUSTRY COLLABORATIONS (PART OF THE “PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT”, “ADVOCACY” AND “NETWORKING” PILLAR):

This is where we move beyond classrooms and play our role as responsible professional citizens. This manifested itself in several ways as under:

Representations: During the year, BCAS engaged proactively and reactively on matters affecting the profession, submitting 13 representations on a wide range of topics. Apart from the standard areas of Income Tax and GST, we also made representations on other topics such as the Overseas Networking guidelines, Charitable Trusts, FEMA, and the Registration process under the SEBI Research Analyst Guidelines, amongst others.

Bombay High Court Writ Petition Success- Another important matter during the year was where we jointly petitioned with several other organisations to the Bombay High Court successfully challenging the rejection of the Section 12A approval under the Income Tax Act to charitable trusts solely due to absence of an irrevocability clause.

Collaborations and Outreach Initiatives: This year, we signed an MOU with SIMSREE, in addition to our existing MOUs with IIM Mumbai, NISM, and BIA. We also collaborated with NITI Aayog and the Indian School of Business on tax-related matters, during which various sessions have been held. Joint programs continue to be held primarily with IMC, CTC, WIRC of ICAI. There was a campus visit to IIM Bangalore, on the sidelines of the RRC. All these initiatives are gaining increasing prominence and importance, and we hope the momentum behind them will continue.

PUBLIC RELATIONS AND MARKETING (PART OF THE “NETWORKING” PILLAR):

We continued to strengthen our brand positioning, member communication, and media outreach during the year by focusing on enhanced visibility, credibility, and engagement across multiple platforms, with the help of external professional support. Through consistent communication and timely sharing of professional insights, events and other technical initiatives, BCAS reinforced its position as a respected and trusted voice in the profession. All this resulted in nearly 300 media mentions during the year.

LEVERAGING THE LIBRARY (PART OF THE “PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT” PILLAR):

Another particularly pet project of mine was trying to leverage the library. As many of you may know, we have a library that was very popular in earlier times. However, in recent years, especially post-pandemic, its use and relevance have declined due to office relocations and reliance on digital tools, especially amongst the younger generation.  Accordingly, a scheme to lend books and organise a reading club was initiated to revive and leverage this valuable resource and revive reading habits, especially amongst the younger generation. Though the response to the book lending is not very good, at least it is a beginning. However, I am pleased to report that the initial sessions of the reading club were attended by nearly 400 people in a hybrid format. The WhatsApp group created is very active and has garnered significant interest and enthusiasm, especially among the younger generation.

PROFESSIONAL SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY (PART OF “CHARTEREDS’ FOR CHANGE” PILLAR):

Various initiatives were undertaken, as under, during the year through which the Society aims to play a wider social role not only for the members but also for their families and the larger community:

  • Entertainment events like CAThon, turf cricket and movie screenings.
  • Several meaningful activities and impactful projects through the BCAS Foundation, which is our CSR arm, including organising blood donation drives and tree-plantation campaigns, supporting various noble causes in partnership with the Rangoonwala Foundation (India) Trust and DBM, including distributing books and donating sewing machines to deserving women to support their livelihoods, amongst others. Details of these and various other activities of the Foundation will be covered later by our Past President Mayurbhai.
  • Out of The Shri. Under the P. N. Shah Students’ Endowment Fund, created towards the end of last year, the first instalment of scholarship support was disbursed during the year to 7 students pursuing the CA course, amounting to Rs. 37,500 each. I would like to acknowledge my deep gratitude to the family members of the late Shri. P.N. Shah for this noble gesture.

Two other unique initiatives undertaken during the year, on “Thought Leadership” and “Dharma & Corporate Life”, deserve special attention.

Thought Leadership- BCAS was one of the support partners at a conclave on “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam Ki Oar 4: The 12 Principles that can Shape a New World”, organised in collaboration with JYOT FOUNDATION. The lecture titled “Ancient Roots, Global Routes: Reimagining Global Leadership for the Indian CA” was organised by BCAS on the sidelines of the conclave.

Dharma and Corporate Life- BCAS was the Support Partner for Dharmam Chara 2026 (walking the path of Dharma and its relevance to Corporate Life), a unique programme by Sri Pratyaksha Charitable Trust under the auspices of Shri Kanchi Kamakoti Peetam, in the benign presence of His Holiness Jagadguru Pujyashri Shankara Vijayendra Saraswathi Shankaracharya Swamiji (“His Holiness”), which was held at the BSE Convention Centre.

We are grateful and humbled by the blessings of HH as we continue towards our journey in the years ahead.

Friends, all these projects are not just one-year initiatives, and I hope many of them will continue in the years to come. For your information, I have highlighted seven specific initiatives that I hope will continue in my concluding President’s Page message in the journal, which will be released later today.

I am sure that the incoming team under Kinjalbhai has a lot of plans, well beyond the year 2027-28, when the 5-year plans expire, and into 2030 and beyond. We now have a young team. Accordingly, because I am moving out, the average age of the OB team has dropped drastically from 45 years last year to 40 years this year. However, the average age of the Managing Committee remains the same at 43 years for the third consecutive year! This young team is well poised to take us towards our goal not only for 2030 but also for the 100th year of BCAS and the 100th year of Bharat. I am sure Kinjalbhai will roll out his plans and has certain exciting things lined up about which he may speak more during his acceptance speech.
All that my team and I have achieved during the last year would not have been possible without the support and guidance of all the past presidents, who have always stood by us; some of you continue to play active roles as Chairmen of committees and in various other matters

And finally, before I conclude, I would like to acknowledge my wife Ferzana and my daughter Farah who have stood by me and tolerated my occasional erratic schedules. Last year, many of you may recollect, my father-in-law Mr Minoo Bilimoria, a life member of BCAS, was also here at the age of 93. He unfortunately passed away in the month of March. I am sure his blessings will always be there, and so will be the blessings of my late parents and my mother-in-law, who would all have been very happy to see me here today. I would also like to acknowledge the respectful presence of Mr. Y. H. Malegam, under whom I had the privilege to work in S.B. Billimoria & Co. Thank you, Sir, for honouring us with your presence. Finally, I would like to acknowledge the presence of Mehul Sheth, Vice President of the Chamber of Tax Consultants. Thank you, Mehulbhai, for gracing the occasion with your presence

All in all, I hope I have done justice to my role as the President of this august organisation. So once again I bow down before all of you with all humility for reposing confidence in me, and I am, needless to say, available whenever the society meets me. I will continue in certain roles as a trustee of the BCAS Foundation and as the Chairman of the Accounting and Auditing Committee, for which my good friend Abhay has graciously stepped down. Hence, my involvement, like many of the past presidents, will continue. So once again, thank you very much. May God bless all of you and may God bless our beloved Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society! Thank you very much.

INCOMING PRESIDENT’S SPEECH

CA Kinjal

SALUTATION

Respected Past Presidents, President – Zubin Billimoria, office bearer colleagues – Mandar, Kinjal, Mrinal & Samit; members of the Managing Committee; Core Group members; our distinguished guests from sister organisations; members of the press; our Yuva Shakti; and every member of this extraordinary family we call the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society.

Namaskar. Kem Chho, Kasa Kai, Khamma Ghani and a very warm good evening to each one of you.

Zubin bhai, let me be candid – you have set a benchmark that I will spend the year striving to live up to. Thank you for a year of deep conviction and extraordinary grace.

MY JOURNEY AT BCAS

My BCAS journey began in 2002 with a simple Communication course—and it changed everything. One meeting led to another; one mentor’s nudge from Sameer Kapadia opened doors I never imagined. From leading study circles to shaping the Technology, HRD, Corporate Laws, Journal, and SMPR committees, every role stretched me further. Working alongside Past Presidents taught me lessons no textbook could. By 2016, I joined the Managing Committee under Chetan Shah; by 2021, I stood as Office Bearer under Abhay Mehta. Twenty-five years later, BCAS isn’t just my journey it’s my family.

THIS MOMENT

Standing here today is beautifully overwhelming. Twenty years ago, in 2006, I sat in this very audience as a newly inducted core group member, listening to the Presidents speak, I remember feeling the immense responsibility they carried and the extraordinary privilege of leading this Society. Today, as I complete 25 years in the Chartered Accountancy profession, that very privilege is mine. I accept it with deep humility and immense gratitude.

ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS

Before I speak of the year ahead, I pause, for gratitude which is the foundation on which this Society stands.

To our Past Presidents, since 1949, you have handed me a living institution which I promise to carry with reverence and responsibility.

To our Core Group members and committee volunteers, the engine room of BCAS, you give your weekends, expertise, and hearts without expectation of return. And to my mentors of my professional journey, CA Mukesh Ghelani, Late CA Kishor Shaparia, Shri Vijay Shah, my Principal(s) – CA Chetan and Ketan Jatania, CA Nihar Jambusaria, and CA Bharat Shah, my gratitude.

To my family and office team, who have graciously agreed to share me with 12,000 members & subscribers.

BCAS IN PERSPECTIVE

Let me place this moment in context, because it is worth standing back and truly seeing where we are.

BCAS was founded on July 6, 1949, just two years after Independence, by a small group of CAs in Mumbai. There were no CPE credits—just a burning desire for quality, integrity, and learning.

Seventy-seven years later, we are 12,000 members & subscribers across 350 towns. With a one lakh social media follower base, 1.3 million YouTube views, a growing Academy, the pan-India Sherpa initiative, and over 1,000 women members following recent record growth, BCAS is surging. Yet, we are only at the beginning of what we can become.

MY LEADERSHIP PHILOSOPHY

At BCAS; we are running a long relay marathon, not a sprint. This baton was passed to me by extraordinary professionals, and I aspire to carry and pass it on with that same care.

Three living values will anchor our path forward:
1. Samanvay (Harmony): Fostering collaboration, bridging differences, and aligning our diverse strengths to move forward together.

2. Spandan (Responsiveness): Tuning into our members’ pulse through proactive initiatives and welfare platforms to build a vibrant ecosystem at BCAS and the BCAS Foundation.

3. Seva (Service): Viewing leadership as purpose, not position, to serve this legacy and its people with absolute humility.

Through harmony in thought (Samanvay), dedication in action (Seva), and responsiveness to our people (Spandan), we will take this institution to unprecedented heights.

THE FIVE-YEAR PLAN: YEAR FOUR

We now enter year four of our collective Five-Year Strategic Plan, going deeper, wider, and bolder across its six pillars.

Allow me to share the aspirations for 2026-27 across each pillar, and I say “aspirations” with full intention, because in a volunteer-driven Society, our plans are expressions of intent and collective will. We will give them our best effort, and let the work speak for itself.

Pillar One: Reach

BCAS’s reach has grown remarkably over the past three years. But reach is about relevance as much as numbers. We aspire to be visible to CA practitioners in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, present at the doorstep of every practitioner in this community.

We hope to intensify our Seminars at Doorsteps programme, carrying knowledge-intensive, faculty-led events to professional hubs across India. We want to go to our members, rather than wait for them to come to us.

We also aspire to pursue opportunities through MOUs and collaborative engagements already executed, as well as with international CA organisations, building a global network and elevating BCAS’s presence on the world stage.

And we wish to launch a Corporate Outreach and Engagement Initiative that bridge BCAS and industry. Because a Society’s reach is measured by how many professionals feel it belongs to them.

Pillar Two: Professional Development

The single most important thing BCAS does is develop professionals. This is our purpose and promise, one we hope to honour more innovatively this year.

We also wish to build pathways into emerging areas, Gift City advisory, M&A and Valuation, IPO support, GCC consulting, Wealth Management, and Virtual CFO services.

On technology, we aim to move beyond awareness into application, with case studies and hands-on sessions helping members integrate digital and AI tools into practice.

On practice management, an under-served area, we hope to share case studies on CA firm growth, valuation, and model agreements. Growing a practice is a skill BCAS can help to nurture.

We aspire to strengthen our publications with monographs on frontier subjects. Our journal, podcasts, and Academy will keep evolving, guided by one belief: learning should meet members where they are.

Close to my heart, we would like to create a structured ‘Career Comeback’ initiative for mid-career professionals returning after stepping away for family, health, or personal reasons, deserving a dignified pathway back with community support.

Because the best investment any professional society can make is in the Professional Development of its members. When members grow, the profession grows.

Pillar Three: Networking

BCAS has always been a community, a family, needing space for informal moments that build real bonds, alongside structured sessions that build knowledge.
This year, we aspire to be deliberate about networking, with dedicated ice-breaking sessions in events longer than two days, since corridor conversations are sometimes as valuable as auditorium sessions.

We would also explore sports as a vehicle for community, informal tournaments and activities helping members connect across seniority and geography.

Because Your network is your net worth — build it with intention.

Pillar Four: Advocacy

BCAS has always been willing to speak, with evidence, respect, and the long-term interest of the profession and public in mind. That voice will continue to grow.

We aspire to deepen proactive dialogue with regulators, visiting them and inviting them for substantive conversations that allow the profession’s perspectives to inform policy while it is still being shaped.

We also aspire to work toward unifying regional bodies to give our fraternity a stronger, unified voice in public discourse.

Because we Speak with evidence. Act with principle. Lead with purpose.

Pillar Five: Yuva Shakti, The Energy That Carries Us Forward

Youth RRC initiative launched in 2013, created a cohort I often call the “Tappu Sena” of BCAS, spirited yet responsible, playful yet purposeful, bold yet grounded in values. Significantly, all five OBs are products of the youth RRC. The average age of our Office Bearers has come down to 40, a nearly 25% reduction from a decade ago.

To our young members, the energy, ideas, and curiosity you bring keep this institution alive and evolving.

While our structured Youth RRC has run its course, the spirit behind it lives on. We aspire to channel that energy into new formats, creating spaces where emerging professionals can learn intensively, connect meaningfully, and grow rapidly.

We would also like to expand our Café Meetings with Founders initiative, bringing young members into intimate conversations with start-up founders and entrepreneurial leaders, the kind of conversations that shift careers and open new possibilities.

Because the best indication of an institution’s future is how much it trusts its youngest members today. The future is not coming. It is already in this room.

Pillar Six: Chartered for Change, Building the Next Chapter

And finally, the pillar that asks the deepest question of all: What is BCAS for, beyond the profession?

We believe Chartered Accountants are institution-builders, community leaders, and agents of social change. Under the banner of Chartered for Change, we aspire to deepen our involvement in the BCAS Foundation’s initiatives, integrating our community into social responsibility programmes that create impact well beyond the boardroom.

Because institutions that endure are those that continuously reimagine themselves, from a foundation of unshakeable values.

MY TEAM

I would be incomplete and unfair if I spoke of this year’s aspirations without acknowledging the team that makes it all possible.

Mandar is steady and execution-driven; Kinjal is versatile and the standard-bearer of Nari Shakti at BCAS; Samit and Mrinal bring experience and innovation.

To our Managing Committee, our Chairpersons across all committees, our Core Group volunteers, you are the real force behind everything BCAS achieves. The role of President in this Society is a privilege of service, not a position of authority. I am here to support, to facilitate, and to be grateful for what all of you make possible.

ACTION IN MOTION

The Team of 2026-27 has already set the wheels in motion.

  1.  This year, we celebrate six decades of the Residential Refresher Course, the 60th RRC, a milestone deserving reverence. We aspire to make it a landmark, immersive experience honouring tradition while looking ahead. The 60th RRC is scheduled from 10th to 13th December 2026 at the Hyatt Regency, Ahmedabad, on the Sabarmati Riverfront. Registration shall open soon; kindly block your calendars and make travel booking.
  2. The 4i Committee revives a long-discussed idea. The vibrancy of any organisation rests on imaginative ideas and innovative initiatives, and we hope this committee becomes BCAS’s change agent, one that dares to propose the seemingly impossible, incubates new projects until they mature, embraces challenges without fear of failure, and offers a platform for big, even outrageous, thinking. We shall commence our journey of creative madness, drawing on members and invitees spanning regulators, senior partners, NGOs, CEOs and entrepreneurs, blended with a young team for execution.
  3.  The Core Group Retreat, a leadership catalyst on 1st and 2nd August, offers core group members the chance to imbibe BCAS’s legacy while networking with an elite circle of our profession. A high-level think tank of Past Presidents and our Young Brigade, co-creating BCAS’s Vision for the CA Profession. We enter this with eyes wide open, knowing the process matters as much as the outcome; we may explore many paths, discard some, and find better ones, for that is the nature of genuine visioning. The Sanskrit shlok – उद्यमेन हि सिध्यन्ति कार्याणि न मनोरथैः, reminds us that it is sustained effort, not mere intention, that brings results. We shall put in the effort. The results will follow.

As I connect this with the philosophy – The Core group retreat represents our pursuit of Samanvay (Harmony among the Team BCAS to co-create a shared vision for the BCAS), 60th RRC represents the Seva (Unwavering Selfless service to the profession which has shaped generations of Chartered Accountants) and 4i committee represents the Spandan (Responsiveness that keeps an institution alive to the future rather than merely a custodian of its past)

CLOSING

Seventy-seven years ago, a handful of chartered accountants dared to dream that a community of professionals could become an institution. They were right, and have left us a living, breathing Society that belongs to all of us.

Today, as I accept the honour of contributing to BCAS as its President, I step into this role with humility, hope, and a deep sense of duty, inspired by the 3 guiding principles of Jainism – सम्यक् ज्ञान, सम्यक् दर्शन, and सम्यक् चारित्र — the wisdom to know, the vision to perceive, and the discipline to do what is right. Let this be our compass and our commitment, as we build not merely an institution of excellence, but a community of purpose, values, and enduring impact.

Thank you & Jai Hind!

Statistically Speaking

1. STRONGEST CURRENCIES IN THE WORLD IN 2026

Ranking Currency
1 Kuwaiti dinar (KWD)
2 Bahraini dinar (BHD)
3 Omani rial (OMR)
4 Jordanian dinar (JOD)
5 British pound (GBP)
6 Gibraltar pound (GIP)
7 Swiss franc (CHF)
8 Cayman Islands dollar (KYD)
9 Euro (EUR)
10 US dollar (USD)

Source: Forbes list

2. TOP AIR FORCES IN THE WORLD

Ranking Country
1 United States Air Force
2 United States Navy
3 Russian Air Force
4 United States Army
5 United States Marines
6 Indian Air Force
7 Chinese Air Force
8 Japanese Air Force
9 Israeli Air Force
10 French Air Force

Source: World Directory of Modern Military Aircraft

3. INCREASE IN DIRECT TAX COLLECTION FOR FY 2026-27

India’s net direct tax collections rose 16.4% year-on-year to Rs 6.51 lakh crore in the current financial year, driven by higher corporate tax, non-corporate tax and securities transaction tax (STT) collections.

Gross direct tax collections increased 16.11% to Rs 7.74 lakh crore during the period, while refunds issued rose 14.57% to Rs 1.22 lakh crore

 

Corporate tax collections, after adjusting for refunds, stood at Rs 2.40 lakh crore, up from Rs 1.97 lakh crore in the corresponding period last year.

Net non-corporate tax collections rose to Rs 3.85 lakh crore from Rs 3.44 lakh crore a year earlier.

 

Net collections from STT climbed to  Rs 26,428.96 crore, compared with Rs 17,875.88 crore in the year-ago period, while net collections under other taxes were marginally negative at Rs 2.02 crore, compared with a positive Rs 269.45 crore a year earlier.

Source: Income tax Department (as on 13 July 2026)

4. INDIA’S FOREX RESERVE RISE

India’s foreign exchange reserves rose by $964 million to $675.16 billion

 

Foreign currency assets (FCAs), the largest component of the country’s forex reserves, increased by $930 million to $546.51 billion
India’s gold reserves also recorded an increase, rising by $24 million to $105.23 billion.

 

Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) increased by $3 million to $18.626 billion, while India’s reserve tranche position with the IMF edged up by $7 million to $4.793 billion.

Source: Reserve Bank of India (as on 10 July 2026)

5. WORLD’S SAFEST COUNTRIES AND MOST UNSAFE COUNTRIES

Ranking Safest Countries Most Unsafe Countries
1 Iceland Russia
2 New Zealand Sudan
3 Switzerland Pakistan
4 Slovenia Ukraine
5 Ireland Israel
6 Austria Afghanistan
7 Portugal
8 Singapore
9 Finland
10 Japan

Source: Global Peace Index

Regulatory Referencer

DIRECT TAX: SPOTLIGHT

1. Condonation of delay in filing Form No. 10AB electronically for approval under clause (ii) of the first proviso to section 80G(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — reg– Circular No. 6/2026 dated 7 Jully 2026

Certain funds and institutions whose approval under first proviso to section 80G(5)(ii) was expiring on 31 March 2026 could not furnish Form No. 10AB for seeking renewal of approval within the due date of 30 September 2025.

The delay in filling Form No. 10AB, where the prescribed application in Form No.10AB has been furnished electronically between 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026 has been condoned. Further, where an application in Form No. 10AB filed electronically between 1 October 2025 to 31 March 2026 has been rejected as on date of issue of this circular solely on the ground that it was furnished beyond the prescribed time limit of 30 September 2025, the delay shall be deemed to have been condoned. The jurisdictional Principal Commissioner or Commissioner of Income-tax are authorized to dispose of such applications on merits and pass an order on or before 31 December 2026.

2. Cost Inflation Index for financial Year 2026-27 is 384. – Notification No. 85 of 2026 dated 15 July 2026

3. Protocol amending the Agreement between the Republic of India and the Government of the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka for the avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income enters into force on 19 June 2026 – Notification No. 88 of 2026 dated 16 July 2026

FEMA

1. RBI permits AD Category-I banks to open repatriable INR accounts for overseas individuals investing under FEM (NDI) Rules, 2019

This circular enables investment in equity instruments of a listed Indian company on a recognized stock exchange in India by all individual person(s) resident outside India. Prior to this circular it was allowed only for NRIs and OCIs. The AD Category-I banks may open a repatriable INR account of an individual person resident outside India in accordance with Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations, 2016 to facilitate investment under Schedule III to the Rules. The amendment significantly broadens the class of eligible investors by replacing only NRI/OCI with all individual person’s resident outside India.

The individual portfolio investment limit has doubled from 5% to 10%. The aggregate portfolio investment limit has increased from 10% to 24% without requiring a special resolution. Earlier aggregate limit was extended to 24% only by special resolution.

The amendment also introduces a clear transition mechanism that if an investor crosses the 10% threshold, they must either divest within 5 trading days or have their investment reclassified as FDI, thereby harmonizing the treatment with the framework applicable to FPIs.

(A.P. (DIR Series 2026-27) Circular No. 14 dated 15th June 2026)

2. RBI mandates daily reporting of FCNR(B), ECB and OFCB mobilised under swap facility

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandates all Authorized Dealer Category-I banks to submit daily reports detailing Foreign Currency Non-Resident [FCNR(B)] deposits, external commercial borrowings (ECBs), and overseas foreign currency borrowings (OFCBs) mobilized under its special concessional swap facilities. The data should be furnished by the bank by 6pm every day. A “nil” statement is required on days when no transactions take place, excluding Saturdays and holidays. The data on FCNR (B) deposits, ECBs and OFCBs from A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 13, dated 8th June 2026 (included in BCAJ July 2026 edition) till issuance of these directions, shall be submitted along with the first reporting due on June 22, 2026.

(A.P. (DIR Series 2026-27) Circular No. 15 dated 19th June 2026)

3. RBI amends FEM (Deposit) Regulations; permits opening of ‘Special Non-Resident Rupee Account’ with ADs in IFSC

This notification expands the scope of Special Non-Resident Rupee (SNRR) accounts. Persons resident outside India can now open these accounts with Authorized Dealer (AD) branches located in India, overseas, and—expressly—in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSC) in India, while eliminating the mandatory “business interest in India” requirement. Transfers between NRO, SNRR, and NRE Accounts are now permitted, provided they follow the established FEMA provisions.

(Notification F. No. FEMA 5(R)(6)/2026-RB, dated 18th June 2026)

4. RBI revises treatment of certain positions for computation of open position limits of AD Banks

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated that Authorized Dealers must ensure their Net Open Positions involving the Indian Rupee (NOP-INR) in the onshore deliverable market do not exceed USD 100 million at the end of each business day as per A.P. (DIR series 2025-26) Circular No. 24, dated 27th March 2026 included in BCAJ May 2026 edition.

Through the A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 13, dated 8th June 2026 (included in BCAJ July 2026 edition) the RBI provided a specific relaxation to AD Category-I banks regarding how they calculate this limit. Banks were permitted to exclude swap positions that arise from Foreign Currency Non-Resident (B), or FCNR (B), deposits, External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) and Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowing.

In this circular, it has been decided that AD Cat-I banks shall exclude the positions arising out of hedged transactions related to FCNR (B) deposits, External Commercial Borrowings and Overseas Foreign Currency Borrowings raised in terms of the aforesaid circulars, while ensuring compliance with the provisions of the A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 24, dated March 27, 2026, and for computation of net overnight open position in terms of the aforesaid Master Direction.

(A.P. (DIR Series 2026-27) Circular No.16, dated 23rd June 2026)

5. RBI rationalizes reporting requirements under FEMA, 1999 for Authorized Persons

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) rationalized reporting requirements for Authorized Persons (APs) under FEMA, 1999, simplifying compliance. Key changes include discontinuing obsolete FLM-1 to FLM-7 registers, removing prior RBI approval for foreign currency write-offs exceeding USD 2,000, and standardizing new, simplified quarterly formats for franchisee and sub-agent tracking.

(A.P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No.17 dated 24th June 2026)

6. RBI reviews circulars issued under FEMA

RBI has rationalized the regulatory framework of FEMA by formally withdrawing 732 obsolete, redundant, and overlapping circulars issued since June 1, 2000, significantly simplifying foreign exchange compliance.

(A.P. (DIR series 2026-27) Circular No. 18, dated 24th June 2026)

New Clause In Second Schedule

Arjun : (to himself) “Oh God! They have revised the Code of Ethics. We don’t know the basic Code itself! Putting more and more burden on us”. Let Bhagwan come. I will get it clarified.

(Chants) – Hey Shrikrishna, Hey Shrikrishna

Shrikrishna : (enters) Arey Arjun, what are you thinking about? Whether the ITR last date will be extended?

Arjun : No, Lord. We have now become insensitive to such issues! Last many years we only begged for extensions. Things will never improve.

Shrikrishna : Then why were you waiting for me to come?

Arjun : See Lord. We CAs are already overburdened. In that, they keep on revising our Code of Ethics. I am told, they have inserted some new clause of misconduct in Second Schedule. What is that?

Shrikrishna : I don’t know whether basically you know the distinction between First and Second Schedule.

Arjun : Lord, I knew it, but forgot.

Shrikrishna : First Schedule contains those clauses that affect you CAs among yourselves. Normally, an outsider is not adversely affected by these items of misconduct. This is the only revision in the schedules.

Arjun : That is why they say, it is of lesser gravity.

Shrikrishna : True. Therefore, punishments prescribed for 1st schedule are much milder as compared to Second Schedule misconduct.

Arjun : Tell me, what is this new clause.

Shrikrishna : Arjun, you are aware of the very familiar item of misconduct – of non-communication with previous auditor.

Arjun : Yes, very much! Many of us try to avoid that communication.

Shrikrishna : That is item (8) of Part I of 1st Schedule. Immediately following item (9) is to ensure that when there is a change in auditor, the provisions of company Law be compiled with.

Arjun : Yes, I know.

Shrikrishna : But surprisingly, there was no express item that mandates the compliance of Company Law provisions while performing the audit.

Arjun : I feel, that was implied. Had he breached the provisions, it would have been a gross negligence. Isn’t it?

Shrikrishna : True. But they have now made it explicit.

Arjun : I don’t understand the object behind this new clause.

Shrikrishna : Arjun, the objective is to uphold the sanctity of the audit process and the statutory obligations attached to the role of an auditor as mentioned under the Companies Act.

Arjun : In short, what was implicit, they have made it explicit. But Lord, my query is why only under Companies Act? Why not similar provisions for audits under other Acts? Like Co-operative societies, Charitable Trusts.

Shrikrishna : Arjun, you have made a very valued point. I agree that the Auditor must act accordingly to the provisions of the respective law under which he is doing the audit.

Arjun : Lord, there are quite a few other revisions in the Code. Just now I am busy with July ITR; but next time tell me about other important changes.

Shrikrishna : One more point, Arjun. Please note that the new clause (5) that we discussed is in Second Schedule, Part I. So its seriousness is more; as an outsider may get aggrieved by your non-compliances.

Arjun : Yes, Lord, that’s a point. Thank you.

“OM SHANTI”

(This dialogue is based on the newly inserted item no. (5) in Part I of Second Schedule. It reads as follows:

‘acts as an auditor of the company in contravention of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013’).

Is It Fair Fast Track Merger: A Wider Door, But The Same Trapdoor

BACKGROUND

Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a simplified route for merger or amalgamation of specified classes of companies without recourse to the full NCLT process. Considering the objective of ease of doing business, the scope of the fast-track merger scheme has expanded over the last few years. The provision originally covered small companies and the merger of a holding company with its wholly owned subsidiary, and the scheme could proceed only after compliance with the statutory pre-conditions, including filing of a notice of objections, approval by members and creditors, and a declaration of solvency by each company involved. Section 233(c) requires each of the companies involved in the merger to file a declaration of solvency in the prescribed form. Rule 25(2) of the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamations) Rules, 2016 prescribes Form CAA.10 for the declaration of solvency.

The scheme is intended to provide a faster and more efficient merger route, but the structure of the solvency declaration has remained substantially the same even as the scope of eligible transactions has expanded. That creates stiffness between the statutory formality and the commercial reality of a merger, particularly where one company is intended to dissolve without winding up and its liabilities are to be taken over by the transferee.

PROBLEM

The issue lies in the requirement that each company involved in the merger must declare solvency in Form CAA.10. The form requires the directors to state, after full enquiry into the company’s affairs, that the company is capable of meeting its liabilities as and when they fall due and will not be rendered insolvent within one year from the date of the declaration. That language is familiar in a winding-up context, but it sits uneasily in a merger where the transferor is not expected to continue as a standalone enterprise after the scheme is implemented.

This becomes especially difficult in group restructurings. A transferor company may have negative net worth or liabilities that are largely intra-group, even though the overall transaction is commercially sound and no external creditor is prejudiced. If the declaration is read strictly on a standalone basis, the company may fail the solvency test even when the merger would improve operational efficiency and simplify the group structure.

UNFAIRNESS

The unfairness lies in the mismatch between the statutory form and the nature of the transaction. A company that is being merged and dissolved under Section 233 is asked to certify its ability to remain solvent for one year, even though it may cease to exist shortly after registration of the scheme. In practical terms, this makes the declaration look less like a merger compliance step and more like a borrowed formality from winding-up law.

The hardship is not theoretical. In Western Region v. Stock Traders Private Limited (C.P. 87/MB/2019, Order delivered on 29.01.2024), the Mumbai NCLT dealt with a holding-subsidiary amalgamation where the transferor had liabilities of about Rs.129.58 lakhs nearly half of which, some Rs.59.99 lakhs, was owed to the transferee itself and would stand extinguished upon the merger, and a negative net worth on a standalone reading. The Official Liquidator objected on the ground of solvency, and the scheme was converted into a full petition under Sections 232 read with 230. The Tribunal noted that a holding company ordinarily supports its subsidiary and that the consolidated net worth after amalgamation against a transferee net worth of Rs.2,853.96 lakhs, resulted in a healthy combined figure of approximately Rs.2,723 lakhs. It held that the objection regarding solvency was not correct and had no substance. Yet the matter had to proceed through the Section 232 route, consuming time and effort that the fast-track framework was intended to save. The problem is more acute when the Regional Director or Official Liquidator takes a strict view. In Asset Auto India Private Limited v. Union of India (Writ Petition No.556 OF 2019, 2024:BHC-OS:15393-DB, Date: 03.08.2024), the Bombay High Court held that the Regional Director could not reject the scheme under Section 233 outright merely on the ground that certain companies were not solvent. The Court held that if the Central Government, after receiving objections or for any reason, was of the opinion that the scheme was not in the public interest or in the interest of creditors, it had to file an application before the Tribunal under Section 233(5), requesting that the scheme be considered under Section 232 within the statutory period of sixty days. That ruling is important because it confirms that the administrative authority cannot finally decide the matter by rejection the scheme where the statute requires adjudication by the Tribunal.

The unfairness is therefore two-fold. First, the solvency declaration can prevent genuinely commercial mergers from using the fast-track route simply because the transferor’s standalone balance sheet is weak. Second, even where the issue is only a matter of interpretation, the matter may be diverted into prolonged litigation, defeating the very objective of a simplified route. The scheme may still eventually be approved, but only after avoidable delay and cost. Further, this burdens the system: the NCLTs are already heavily burdened and time-pressed with other litigation, especially matters relating to the IBC.

The deeper issue is that the declaration in Form CAA.10 is framed as though the company will continue as an independent solvent entity for one year. That may be apt when solvency is being tested in a continuation context, but it is not a perfect fit where the company is being merged into another entity and may be dissolved without winding up under Section 233(8). A strict literal approach can therefore produce a result that is legally formal but commercially unrealistic.

SOLUTION

The law would be fairer if the declaration of solvency were aligned with the merger context. For schemes under Section 233, the declaration could be framed to address the combined or post-merger position rather than require a standalone one-year survival statement from a company that may soon cease to exist. That would better reflect the commercial substance of the transaction and reduce the risk of rejecting otherwise valid schemes on purely technical grounds.

A practical reform could be achieved by revising Form CAA.10 and the related rules so that, in appropriate cases, directors may give a scheme-based or consolidated declaration supported by financial information of the merged entity. Where there is a genuine creditor concern, the Central Government should retain the ability to move the Tribunal under Section 233(5), but the matter should be decided promptly and on merits, rather than by administrative rejection. This would preserve creditor protection while preventing unnecessary delay.

Another possible improvement is to clarify the threshold for solvency review in group reorganisations. Where liabilities are largely intra-group and no external creditor is affected, a strict standalone test may not serve any meaningful protective purpose. A consolidated approach would better serve the policy objective of fast-track mergers and reduce avoidable strain on the NCLT system.

CONCLUSION

Section 233 was enacted to create a faster merger mechanism, but the current provisions relating to solvency declaration requirement can still operate as a trapdoor. The statutory form requires a declaration conceptually closer to winding-up law than to merger law, which can make the fast-track route difficult to use in otherwise straightforward group restructurings.

The issue, then, is not whether solvency matters, but whether the present form of the declaration is fair, proportionate, and suited to a merger — where the company is absorbed into another — rather than to a winding up, where it must survive on its own. Until the Rules and the form are aligned with the legislative intent of simplification and saving time, the route will remain vulnerable to delays, objections, and avoidable litigation.

This carries a larger question of policy direction. The vision of a Viksit Bharat rests, in no small measure, on Viksit compliance — a regulatory architecture that is proportionate, purposive, and calibrated to commercial reality rather than to inherited form. A solvency declaration transplanted from winding-up law, and applied mechanically to a company that the scheme itself is designed to dissolve, is the opposite of that ideal: it imposes cost and delay without any corresponding protective gain. If the fast-track route is to serve the ease-of-doing-business objective for which it was created, the requirement must move from a formal, standalone test to a substance-based one. That is the difference between compliance that merely exists and compliance that is Viksit — developed and fit for the purpose it is meant to serve.

Miscellanea

  •  ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

# The Frontier Model Race Accelerates: OpenAI’s GPT-5.6 Family, Musk’s Grok 4.5 and Google’s Gemma 4 Reshape the AI Landscape

June 2026 witnessed one of the most rapid concentrations of frontier-model launches in the short history of the artificial intelligence industry. OpenAI unveiled a limited preview of its GPT-5.6 family under the code-names “Sol”, “Terra” and “Luna”, differentiated by their reasoning depth, speed and multimodal capability. Google, at its I/O 2026 developer conference, released Gemma 4 12B — an open-weight model designed to run locally on consumer laptops with as little as 16 GB of memory — alongside Gemini Omni Flash, a natively multimodal API for enterprise video workflows, and a lower-cost image generator branded “Nano Banana 2 Lite”. On 28th June 2026, Elon Musk announced on the X platform that Grok 4.5, built on xAI’s new 1.5-trillion-parameter “V9” foundation model, had entered private beta at SpaceX and Tesla, with early evaluation scores approaching those of Anthropic’s Claude Opus.

The compressed launch calendar signals a decisive shift in how AI is being packaged and priced. Frontier capability is no longer confined to hyperscale cloud APIs — open-weight models running on ordinary laptops now deliver performance that would have been considered state-of-the-art only 18 months earlier. For Indian professional-services firms, three practical implications follow: first, the cost of embedding advanced AI into audit, tax-compliance and advisory workflows continues to fall sharply; second, on-device open-weight models materially reduce the data-residency and confidentiality concerns that previously constrained AI use for sensitive client work; and third, the widening choice among frontier vendors creates leverage for enterprise buyers, but also raises the strategic question of which AI ecosystem — US, Chinese or hybrid — Indian firms should standardise on for the next investment cycle.

(Source: Google Blog dated 10th–28th June 2026)

# India Prepares “Reforms 3.0” with Sovereign AI at the Heart of the New Growth Playbook

As global AI competition intensifies, a growing chorus of Indian policymakers and economists has argued that India needs a third generation of economic reforms — tentatively branded “Reforms 3.0” — anchored around sovereign artificial intelligence capability. Building on the 1991 liberalisation (Reforms 1.0) and the GST-plus-IBC generation of structural reforms (Reforms 2.0), Reforms 3.0 would treat AI as a general-purpose technology on par with electricity, requiring co-ordinated investment in indigenous foundation models, sovereign compute infrastructure, high-quality Indian-language data and domestic chip fabrication. Proponents argue that this is essential for India to transition from its current “baseline” 6.5–7% growth trajectory to a sustained “Bharat rate of growth” of 8% and beyond, positioning AI as a driver of high-value manufacturing, skilled employment and long-term technological sovereignty.

In parallel, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation on 30th June 2026 released the SDG National Indicator Framework Progress Report 2026, tracking India’s performance across 277 national indicators covering all 17 Sustainable Development Goals; the Ministry of Home Affairs simultaneously launched the FCRA 2.0 Portal and the e-OCI Card, a fully digital end-to-end platform linked to PAN, Aadhaar, the NGO Darpan database and the ICAI UDIN system for real-time tracking of foreign-contribution filings. Read together, these developments suggest that the government’s reform agenda is converging on a technology-first model of state capacity — one where sovereign AI, digital public infrastructure and real-time compliance tooling reinforce each other. For chartered accountants and advisors, the practical implication is that AI-enabled compliance is transitioning from an option to an expectation across FCRA, GST, income-tax and MCA workflows.

(Source: The Hindu – dated 30th June & 1st July 2026)

  •  WORLD NEWS

# India-UK CETA Enters Force as New Delhi’s Trade Architecture Expands with Japan’s POWERR Framework

July 2026 has proved to be a landmark month for India’s external economic policy. The India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), signed in mid-2025 after almost a decade of negotiation, formally entered into force in July 2026, phasing out tariffs on a wide range of Indian exports — including textiles, gems and jewellery, leather goods, marine products and select engineering items — while opening the Indian market to selected UK services, whisky and premium automobiles. In parallel, the Union Cabinet approved a INR 1.9 trillion (approximately USD 22 billion) production-linked incentive push for the electronics and component-manufacturing ecosystem, aimed at deepening domestic value-addition ahead of the CETA-enabled export ramp-up. Exports to ASEAN and Africa also surged during April-May of FY27, evidencing early success in diversifying India’s export base beyond North America and Europe.

The trade-policy activity was reinforced by a rapid deepening of the India-Japan partnership during the first week of July 2026. The two governments jointly launched a new bilateral framework informally known as “POWERR”, under which Japan committed an initial JPY 80 billion (approximately USD 492 million) concessional loan for transmission-grid modernisation, alongside a Joint Statement on Energy Resilience signed between India’s Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and Japan’s METI to institutionalise co-operation on strategic crude stockpiling. Together, the CETA activation, the electronics-manufacturing thrust and the India-Japan POWERR framework signal a decisive shift in India’s external posture — from participation in the global economic order to co-authorship of it. For Indian businesses and their tax and legal advisors, the priorities now include reassessing supply-chain footprints, GST classification of dual-use imports and transfer-pricing benchmarks for cross-border IP flows within the new FTA network.

(Source: Business Standard– 5th July 2026)

  •  ENVIRONMENT

# India Crosses 100 GW Solar Manufacturing Milestone and Emerges as the World’s Third-Largest Renewable Energy Capacity Holder

In a landmark moment for India’s energy transition, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy in July 2026 announced that India has crossed the 100 GW threshold in solar photovoltaic module manufacturing capacity registered under the Approved List of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM). Solar module manufacturing capacity has expanded from approximately 2.3 GW in 2014 to about 172 GW in 2026, while domestic wind-turbine manufacturing capacity now stands at around 24 GW. India’s total non-fossil-fuel installed power-generation capacity reached 283.46 GW as of 31st March 2026 — comprising 274.68 GW of renewables and 8.78 GW of nuclear — with FY 2025-26 delivering a record annual addition of 55.3 GW of non-fossil capacity, nearly double the previous year’s number. India now ranks as the third-largest holder of renewable energy capacity globally, behind only China and the United States.

The scale of the shift is matched by fiscal and policy commitment. The Union Budget 2026-27 raised the MNRE allocation by 40.52% to INR 44,614.67 crore (approximately USD 5.05 billion), retained the National Green Hydrogen Mission allocation at INR 600 crore, and preserved concessional GST rates on renewable-energy equipment. Indian conglomerates have collectively committed roughly INR 67.4 lakh crore (about USD 800 billion) of investment in green hydrogen, clean energy, semiconductors and electric vehicles through 2034. The Ministry of Power has released a Draft National Electricity Policy 2026 for consultation, aligned with the Viksit Bharat @ 2047 vision. For chartered accountants, the developments carry material implications for advisory work on renewable-energy PLI claims, ITC eligibility on capital goods, transfer-pricing benchmarking of imported cell and wafer inputs, and structuring of long-tenor power-purchase and green-hydrogen offtake contracts.

(Source: DD News – July 2026)

# World Ocean Day 2026: UNEP and WEF Sound Fresh Alarm on Plastic Pollution and Biodiversity Loss as Global Treaty Talks Continue

Marking World Ocean Day on 8th June 2026, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Economic Forum released fresh assessments that together paint a stark picture of the state of global marine ecosystems. According to the UNEP, annual plastic-waste emissions to aquatic ecosystems now stand at approximately 52.1 million metric tonnes per year, with the equivalent of 2,000 garbage trucks of plastic being dumped into the world’s oceans, rivers and lakes every day. The WEF’s June 2026 report “Plastic Pollution and Biodiversity: a Global Overview” identifies plastic pollution as one of the top five drivers of accelerating global biodiversity loss, noting that annual plastic production has surged from about 2 million tonnes in 1950 to nearly 500 million tonnes today, while only around 10% of all plastic ever produced has been recycled.
A companion analysis published by the European Commission’s Directorate-General for Environment on 25th June 2026 identifies the north-eastern Atlantic Ocean as a particularly high-risk marine plastic-pollution zone and recommends that clean-up efforts look beyond the well-known ocean “garbage patches”. Meanwhile, negotiations under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Assembly toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty covering the entire plastic lifecycle continue in the second half of 2026, following an earlier round that adjourned without consensus. For Indian corporates — particularly FMCG, chemical, textile and packaging companies — the direction of travel is clear: Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) obligations under the Plastic Waste Management Rules are set to tighten further, single-use-plastic bans are being extended by successive state governments, and physical-risk and Scope 3 disclosures under SEBI’s BRSR framework will increasingly probe upstream and downstream plastic-value-chain exposures
(Source: UN News/ World Economic Forum – dated 5th–25th June 2026)

ICAI and Its Members

I. ICAI ANNOUNCEMENTS

1. Public Comments – Revision in Stipend Rates

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has accorded in principle approval to the proposed stipend rates payable to articled assistants undergoing 2 years of practical training under the new scheme of education and training. Draft amendments to the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 have been published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part III Section 4 dated 25th June, 2026.

Proposed Stipend Rates (per month)

  • First year – Rs.3,000 to Rs.5,000
  •  Second year Rs.4,000 to Rs.6,000

Stipend rates are dependent upon population of cities/town Candidates registered as articled assistants for a 3 year period on or before commencement of the 2023 amendment will continue to receive stipend at the pre amendment rates.

Stakeholder Participation

  • Suggestions/objections may be submitted by 5th August, 2026.
  • Submissions should be made via online Form: https://forms.gle/hrhgHJWcJz745i87A.

Submissions should be made via online Form

  • The notification and proposed rates are hosted on ICAI’s website: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/93090boso-aps5752-gazette-notification.pdf.

The notification and proposed rates are hosted on ICAI’s

2. Applicability of ‘Guidance Note on Financial Statements of Non-Corporate Entities’ and ‘Guidance Note on Financial Statements of Limited Liability Partnerships’ for annual reporting periods 2025-26 onwards

These Guidance Note(s) shall be applicable to Non-Corporate Entities and Limited Liability Partnerships in a phased manner, as under:

Phase I:

Accounting periods beginning on or after April 1, 2025 – Entities whose turnover exceeds Rs. 5 crores

Phase II

Accounting periods beginning on or after April 1, 2026 – All entities

3. Participation in Tender by Chartered Accountants

The Council of ICAI has decided that wherever the fee quoted by the member or the firm is extremely low and is not commensurate with the size, value, volume, manpower requirement and nature of work, the matter can be referred to Director (Discipline) for appropriate action. This decision shall stand whether or not the tender is issued in the area of service exclusively reserved for chartered accountants.

https://icai.org/post/pdc-announcement-02072027

pdc-announcement-02072027

4. Implementation of ICAI (Global Networking) Guidelines, 2025

It is hereby informed that further implementation of the ICAI (Global Networking) Guidelines, 2025, notified vide Notification No. 3-CACAF/GN-F/2026 dated 11th February, 2026 and published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary, Part III, Section 4, dated 17th February, 2026, is kept in abeyance until further orders.

5. Launch of PRB Web Portal – Peer Review Process

  • Digital Transformation: The Peer Review Board (PRB) of ICAI has launched a fully integrated Web Portal to automate, streamline, and digitize the entire peer review lifecycle.
  • Scope of Automation: The portal covers all stages — submission of applications, allotment of peer reviewers, submission of reports, and generation of peer review certificates.’
  • Effective Date: From 2nd July, 2026, all new peer review applications (Form 1) will be processed exclusively through the PRB Web Portal.
  • Applications via physical documents or email will not be accepted thereafter.

Access & Usage: Both Practice Units and Reviewers must log in to the portal for:

  • Initiating new peer review applications (Form 1)
  • Submitting peer review reports
  • Portal URL: https://prb.icai.org

prb.icai.org

6. Live Virtual Classes & Revisionary Classes for Intermediate and Final students

1. CA Intermediate – Live Virtual Classes (LVC)

Exams Covered: May 2027, September 2027, January 2028

Fees:

(a) Any one Group Rs 1,000 (live) Rs 200 (recorded)

(b) Both Groups Rs 2,000 (live) Rs 400 (recorded)

Link:

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/92666bos-aps5519.pdf

resource.cdn.icai.org

2. CA Intermediate – Live Virtual Revisionary Classes (LVRC)

Exam Covered: September 2026

Fees: NIL

Link:

https://resource.cdn.icai.org/92589bos-aps5359-sep2026-exam.pdf

CA Intermediate – Live Virtual Revisionary Classes (LVRC

3. CA Final – Live Virtual Classes (LVC)

Exams Covered: May 2027, November 2027

Fees: NIL

Link: https://resource.cdn.icai.org/92646bos-aps5498-lvc.pdf

CA Final – Live Virtual Classes (LVC)

Students have unlimited access to recorded lectures

7. Expression of Interest (EOI) – Empanelment of Faculty for the Commercial Laws and Economic Advisory Committee

The Commercial Laws & Economic Advisory Committee of the ICAI invites Expressions of Interest (EOI) from Chartered Accountants and other professionals having significant experience, academic involvement, research exposure, or professional practice in the subject areas covered by the Committee.

The information furnished through the EOI will enable the Committee to identify and engage suitable faculty/resource persons based on their expertise, experience, and subject specialisation for its future programmes and activities.

Interested professionals are requested to submit their details through the online form available at the link: https://forms.gle/w1CPGrWeLLaZqytm9

Expression of Interest

8. ICAI Publications

The Publication Directorate of ICAI has developed the Publication Portal (publication.icai.org), a centralized digital repository designed to provide members and stakeholders seamless access to over 57,000 ICAI publications. The portal features advanced search capabilities, personalized dashboards, and mobile friendly access, ensuring efficient and user friendly navigation of ICAI’s extensive knowledge resources.

9. ICAI TV

ICAI TV has been completely revamped to deliver an enhanced user experience. The upgraded platform now offers personalised dashboards, improved content discovery, and a centralized digital archive featuring ICAI’s technical, educational, and professional video resources. This transformation ensures members and stakeholders can access knowledge more efficiently and intuitively than ever before.

10. Self-Paced Course on Accounting Standards (AS), Ind AS & Ind AS 117

The Accounting Standards Board is pleased to announce the launch of a comprehensive self-paced learning program designed exclusively for ICAI members. This initiative empowers professionals to strengthen their expertise in Accounting Standards (AS), Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), and the newly introduced Ind AS 117 on Insurance Contracts—at their own pace and convenience.

  • Registration Link for Self-paced course on Ind AS https://learning.icai.org/committee/asb/self-paced-ind-as/

Registration Link for Self-paced course on Ind AS

  • Registration Link for Self-paced course on AS: https://learning.icai.org/committee/asb/self-paced-as/

• Registration Link for Self-paced course on AS

  •  Registration Link for Self-paced course on Ind AS 117: https://learning.icai.org/committee/asb/self-paced/ics-ind-as-117/

Registration Link for Self-paced course on Ind AS 117

II. ICAI DISCIPLINARY CASES

1. Case : M.L.B vs. CA. H.B.K
File No.: PR/422/2021/DD/15/2022/DC/1911/2024
Date of Order: 11.02.2026 (Findings dated 06.02.2026)

Companies Act – Certification of revised AOC-4 without compliance with Section 131.

The substantive changes to financial statements or the Board’s Report through a revised AOC-4 require prior approval of the NCLT under Section 131 of the Companies Act, 2013.

A Chartered Accountant must independently verify such statutory compliance before certifying the revised filing.

Particulars                             Details

Background         The Complainant claimed to have purchased 24 lakh equity shares (10% shareholding) of M/s ASPL in 2016. The audited financial statements for FY 2016-17 and the original AOC-4 XBRL filed on 07.11.2017 reflected the Complainant as a shareholder. Subsequently, a revised AOC-4 XBRL, certified by the Respondent and filed on 23.01.2018, omitted the Complainant’s name from the shareholding pattern and also contained changes in the Board’s Report, without obtaining prior approval of the NCLT under Section 131 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Key Allegations

– Certification of a revised AOC-4 XBRL after the original filing without obtaining prior NCLT approval under Section 131.

– Deletion of the Complainant’s name from the shareholding pattern in the revised filing.

– Certification of revised financial statements/Board’s Report without exercising due diligence.

Respondent’s Defence

The Respondent contended that  the Complainant was never the legal shareholder, relying upon subsequent NCLT proceedings. He argued that the revised AOC-4 merely reflected the correct shareholding position, that Section 131 did not apply because only Form AOC-4 was refiled and not the financial statements, that the original AOC-4 was certified by another partner, and that no objection had been raised by MCA regarding the revised filing.

Findings

The Committee held that the revised filing was not a mere clerical correction. The revised AOC-4 XBRL introduced changes in the shareholding pattern and the Board’s Report, both of which formed an integral part of the financial statements. Accordingly, the filing amounted to a revision of financial statements/Board’s Report, attracting Section 131 of the Companies Act, 2013. The Company had admittedly not obtained prior approval of the NCLT. Since the Respondent certified the revised AOC-4 XBRL despite such non-compliance, he failed to exercise the due diligence expected of a Chartered Accountant. The Committee rejected the contention that the dispute regarding ownership of shares or the absence of MCA objections absolved the Respondent of his professional responsibility.

Charges Established   

Guilty under Item (7), Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (failure to exercise due diligence / gross negligence).

Punishment

Reprimand and monetary penalty of ₹50,000, payable within 60 days.

2. Case : TAQRB (based on information received from CBDT) vs. CA. K.N.S.

File No. : PPR/MISC/TAMC/31/2023/DD/14/TAMC/INF/2023/DC/2108/2025

Date of Order :  11.02.2026 (Findings dated 06.02.2026)

Certificate of Practice – Conducting tax audits without holding a valid COP.

Holding a valid Certificate of Practice is a statutory pre-condition for undertaking attest functions. A Chartered Accountant cannot conduct tax audits under section 44AB of the Income-tax Act without a COP, irrespective of professional exigencies or unable to secure sufficient professional work.

Particulars                                              Details

Complainant / Informant     Taxation Audits Quality Review Board (TAQRB), based on information received from the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).

Background                      During a review of tax audit reports filed in FY 2010–11, CBDT furnished information to ICAI regarding members who had reportedly conducted tax audits without holding a Certificate of Practice. Based on the recommendation of TAQRB, disciplinary proceedings were initiated against the Respondent. It was found that the Respondent had certified two tax audit reports under Section 44AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 during FY 2010–11 despite not holding a COP.

Key Allegations   

– Conducted tax audits under Section 44AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without holding a valid Certificate of Practice.

– Uploaded tax audit reports using his ICAI membership number despite being ineligible to undertake attest functions.

Respondent’s Defence

The Respondent admitted that he had certified two tax audit reports without holding a COP. He submitted that he was unable to secure sufficient professional work and therefore undertook a few small tax audits. He also highlighted that more than a decade had elapsed, that he had not signed any professional documents thereafter, and requested leniency. During the hearing, he pleaded guilty to the charge.

Findings

The Committee observed that Section 6(1) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 expressly prohibits a member from practising without obtaining a Certificate of Practice. It noted that the Respondent had admittedly conducted and certified two tax audit reports without a COP and had pleaded guilty before the Committee. The Committee held that inability to obtain sufficient professional work could not dilute the statutory requirement of holding a COP before performing attest functions, and certification of tax audit reports without a COP constituted a clear contravention of the Act.

Charges Established 

Guilty of professional misconduct under Item (1), Part II of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 (contravention of the provisions of the Act).

Punishment

Reprimand under Section 21B(3)(a) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

Significance

The decision reinforces that holding a valid Certificate of Practice is a mandatory statutory pre-condition for undertaking any attest function, including tax audits under Section 44AB of the Income-tax Act. Personal circumstances, lack of professional assignments, or admission of the lapse cannot override the statutory prohibition against practising without a COP.

3.Case:TMD vs. CA. N.C.

File No.: PPR/MISC/TMD/67/2024/DD/19/INF/2024/DC/2154/2025

Date of Order : 11.02.2026

Professional ethics – ICAI Tender Guidelines – Applicability of ICAI Tender Guidelines.

The ICAI Tender Guidelines restricting quotation below the estimated value apply only where the assignment is exclusively reserved for Chartered Accountants. Where the governing rules permit other professionals or authorised persons to undertake the work, participation by Chartered Accountants does not violate the Guidelines.

Particulars                                                                 Details

Complainant /Informant                     Tender Monitoring Directorate (TMD), ICAI.

Background

TMD, while monitoring tenders floated for professional services, noticed that the Respondent’s firm had participated in GeM Tender No. GEM/2023/B/3533649 floated by the Northern Regional Power Committee (NRPC), Ministry of Power for financial audit services. The tender mentioned an estimated bid value of ₹44,000, whereas the Respondent quoted ₹29,500.

Key Allegations

– Participated in a tender allegedly reserved exclusively for Chartered Accountants.

– Quoted a fee lower than the estimated bid value, allegedly violating the ICAI Tender Guidelines and Code of Ethics governing response to tenders.

Respondent’s Defence

The Respondent contended that the assignment was not an area exclusively reserved for Chartered Accountants, as the NRPC Fund Bye-laws permitted the audit to be conducted by officers nominated or authorised by the Chairperson, NRPC. He further submitted that the ₹44,000 represented only the estimated bid value (inclusive of GST) and not the minimum prescribed fee. Relying on ICAI FAQ No. 4 dated 07.04.2016, he argued that members are permitted to respond to tenders where the work is open to other professionals, even if the tender invites only Chartered Accountants.

Findings 

The Committee accepted the Respondent’s defence. It held that Clause 6 of the NRPC Fund Bye-laws expressly permitted the audit to be conducted by officers nominated or authorised by the Chairperson, demonstrating that the assignment was not exclusively reserved for Chartered Accountants. It also relied on the ICAI Tender Guidelines and FAQs, which permit members to respond to tenders where the work is open to other professionals. Consequently, the Committee held that merely quoting below the estimated bid value did not amount to violation of the Tender Guidelines in the facts of the case.

Charges Established

Not Guilty of professional misconduct under Item (1), Part II of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

4. Case: Deputy Registrar of Companies vs. CA. R.T.

File No.: PR/G/14/17/DD/119/2017/DC/1249/2019

Date of Order : 05.02.2026

Statutory audit – Failure to report material misstatement in share capital

An auditor who certifies statutory filings relating to share allotments is expected to ensure that the corresponding changes are reflected in the audited financial statements. Failure to disclose or report a known understatement of paid-up capital constitutes professional misconduct under Items (5), (6) and (7) of Part I of the Second Schedule

Particulars Details

Background

The Respondent was the statutory auditor of M/s Progress Cultivation Ltd. for FYs 2011-12 and 2012-13. The company had an opening paid-up equity share capital of ₹5 lakh and issued further equity shares of ₹40 lakh on 03.11.2011 and ₹15 lakh on 11.11.2011, both evidenced by Form 2 (Return of Allotment) certified by the Respondent himself. Consequently, the company’s paid-up equity share capital should have stood at ₹60 lakh as on 31.03.2012. However, the audited financial statements for both FY 2011-12 and FY 2012-13 disclosed the share capital as only ₹45 lakh, omitting the allotment of ₹15 lakh made on 11.11.2011. Despite certifying both allotment forms, the Respondent failed to report or rectify this material understatement in his audit reports.

Key Allegations

– Failed to disclose a material fact necessary for proper presentation of the financial statements.

– Failed to report a material misstatement relating to paid-up share capital in the audited financial statements.

– Failed to exercise due diligence while conducting the statutory audit.

Respondent’s Defence 

The Respondent did not file any written statement before the Director (Discipline) despite reminders and did not appear before the Disciplinary Committee despite multiple opportunities during both the findings stage and the hearing on punishment. Accordingly, the matter was decided on the basis of the available record.

Findings

The Committee found that the Respondent had certified both Form 2 filings relating to the allotments of ₹40 lakh and ₹15 lakh, yet audited financial statements showing paid-up capital of only ₹45 lakh instead of ₹60 lakh. Since the Respondent was aware of both allotments, his failure to disclose and report the understatement constituted lack of due diligence and gross negligence. His continued non-participation in the disciplinary proceedings further reflected a casual approach. The Committee therefore concurred with the Director (Discipline)’s findings.

Charges Established

Guilty of professional misconduct under Items (5), (6) and (7) of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.

Punishment

Reprimand and monetary penalty of ₹1,00,000, payable within 60 days from receipt of the order.

Company Law

9. Cameron Manufacturing (India) P. Ltd. vs. Regional Director

NCLT Chennai, Order dated 4 June 2026

CP(CA)/155(CHE)/2021)

Where petitioner company sought to revise its FY 2019-20 financial statements to reclassify Rs. 13.99 crores within current assets due to inadvertent error, and fulfilment of statutory requirements was established, permission was granted for such revision subject to applicable accounting standards and liabilities, while further revision for FY 2020-21 was barred as per law.

GIST:

NCLT Chennai permits a company to voluntarily revise its adopted financial statements for FY 2019–20 under Section 131 of the Companies Act, 2013 to correct inadvertent misclassifications and consequential disclosures, while clarifying limits on further revisions for the subsequent year. The Tribunal found the errors to be clerical and confined to reclassification within current assets, held that the statutory procedure under Section 131 and Rule 77 was satisfied, and imposed standard safeguards (shareholder approval, filing with ROC disclosure in Board’s Report). The order preserves the right of other authorities to take action (including tax or compounding), and notes that any taxes or charges arising from the revision must be paid in accordance with law.

FACTS:

TRANSACTION:

During FY 2019–20 the petitioner advanced an inter-corporate deposit (ICD) of ₹30 crores to a related party. Repayments of about ₹16.00 crore were made; ₹13.99 crore remained outstanding as on 31.03.2020.

  •  Adoption and filing: Financial statements for FY 2019–20 were approved by the Board and adopted by shareholders on 31.12.2020, audited by PwC, and later filed with the ROC (filed on 08.09.2021).
  • Errors discovered: After adoption but before filing, management discovered several inadvertent errors:

o The outstanding ICD of ₹13.99 crore was classified as Trade Receivables instead of Short-Term Loans and Advances (both fall under Current Assets in Schedule III).

o Interest income of ₹1.48 crore from the ICD was shown under “Interest Income on Bank deposits” instead of being disclosed as interest from loans and omitted from related-party disclosures.

o Cash flow classification: ICD movement was shown under Operating Activities instead of Investing Activities.

o Omission of disclosure required by Section 186(4).

  •  Petitioner’s action: Filed an application under Section 131 seeking Tribunal approval to revise the FY 2019–20 financial statements to correct the misclassifications and make consequential disclosures. The petitioner served the auditor, impleaded RD and auditor, published required advertisements and served the Income Tax Department (which did not appear).
  •  ROC objections: ROC argued that the company was aware of misclassifications before filing and that the errors amounted to violations of Section 129(5)/Schedule III, Section 186(4) and possibly Section 143(2) (auditor’s report), and suggested compounding under Section 441 might be appropriate. ROC also raised concerns about downstream effects on subsequent years and stakeholders.

DECISION

  • Revision permitted for FY 2019–20: The Tribunal allowed the petition and permitted revision of the financial statements for FY 2019–20 in accordance with applicable accounting standards and the corrections set out in the petition.
  • Conditions and directions: The Tribunal directed procedural safeguards:

o File certified copy of the order with the ROC within 30 days.

o Call a general meeting within two months, publish notice (English and vernacular) explaining reasons for change; place revised financial statements, directors’ statement and auditors’ statement for shareholder approval.

o On shareholder approval, file revised financial statements and auditor/board statements with ROC within 30 days.

o Disclose detailed reasons for revision in the Board’s Report for the relevant year.

o The order does not preclude other authorities (ROC, tax authorities, etc.) from seeking information or initiating proceedings; any taxes/charges arising must be paid as per law.

  •  Limitation on further revision: In line with the second proviso to Section 131(1), the petitioner cannot seek a further revision for the Financial Year 2020–21 (i.e., the Tribunal barred re-opening the next year’s statements under the same provision).
  •  Liberty to tax authorities: The Tribunal noted the interest income had been offered to tax and gave liberty to Income Tax Authorities to examine transactions under relevant law.

BASIS FOR THE DECISION:

Scope of Section 131: The Tribunal emphasized that Section 131 is designed to permit revision of financial statements that do not present a true and fair view or do not comply with Section 129/134, subject to safeguards. The provision is a remedial mechanism to correct statements already adopted or filed.

  1. Nature of the error — reclassification within Current Assets: The Tribunal found the ₹13.99 crore misclassification was a reclassification within the same broad head (Current Assets) under Schedule III. Because both Trade Receivables and Short-Term Loans and Advances are disclosed under Current Assets, the correction did not alter the company’s overall asset position materially.
  2. Inadvertence and supporting evidence: The petitioner produced ledger extracts, bank statements and proof of interest receipts showing the amounts were indeed ICD principal and interest. The Tribunal accepted these documents and concluded the misstatements were inadvertent clerical errors, not deliberate concealment.
  3. Consequential corrections: Reclassification of the principal required consequential adjustments — reclassifying interest income, correcting cash flow classification, and making the Section 186(4) disclosure. The Tribunal treated these as necessary to present a true and fair view.
  4. Procedural compliance: The petitioner complied with Rule 77 (NCLT Rules), serving parties, publishing notices, impleading auditor and RD and the Tribunal was satisfied that statutory requirements for invoking Section 131 were met.
  5. Limits and safeguards: The Tribunal stressed that allowing revision under Section 131 is procedural and does not immunize the company from other statutory proceedings; ROC or tax authorities may still pursue compounding or other actions if warranted. The Tribunal also applied the statutory bar against seeking a second revision for the next financial year.

PRACTICAL IMPLICATIONS AND TAKEAWAYS

  • Permissibility of voluntary revision: Companies may use Section 131 to correct inadvertent accounting misclassifications even after adoption, provided they follow the statutory procedure and can substantiate the corrections with documentary evidence.
  •  Materiality and classification matters: Reclassifications that do not change the overall financial position materially (e.g., within the same Schedule III head) are more likely to be permitted, especially when supported by contemporaneous records.
  •  Procedural strictness: Tribunal approval requires strict compliance with Rule 77 (service, advertisement, impleading relevant parties). Shareholder ratification and filing with ROC are mandatory post-approval.
  • No shield from other authorities: Revision under Section 131 does not prevent ROC, tax authorities, or other regulators from initiating inquiries, compounding, or imposing taxes/penalties if warranted.
  • Care with auditor statements: Where auditors have issued an unqualified report, subsequent discovery of large errors may raise questions about auditor compliance under Section 143(2); the Tribunal noted this but treated it as a separate issue for appropriate authorities.
  • Limit on repeated revisions: Companies cannot repeatedly revise successive years under Section 131; statutory provisos limit reopening of subsequent years.

CONCLUDING NOTE

The NCLT’s order balances the remedial purpose of Section 131; correcting financial statements to reflect a true and fair view with safeguards to protect stakeholders and preserve regulatory oversight. The decision underscores that documentary proof, prompt remedial action, and procedural compliance are decisive when seeking voluntary revision of adopted financial statements.

10. Pannalal Bhansali vs. Bharti Telecom Limited & Ors.

Before Supreme Court of India

Civil Appellate Jurisdiction

In Civil Appeal No. 7655 of 2025

Date of Order: 10th March 2026

The Supreme Court of India held that neither Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013, nor the rules framed thereunder mandate the obtaining of a valuation report from a Registered Valuer for the purpose of reduction of share capital.

FACTS:

M/s BTL, was a closely held unlisted public company, wherein approximately 98.91% of its equity was held by promoter group entities while the remaining 1.09% was held by around 25,000 minority shareholders.

The Board of Directors proposed a reduction of share capital under Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013, with a plan to cancel the entire 1.09% minority shareholding, thereby making BTL a wholly owned subsidiary of the promoter group. For this purpose, M/s BTL appointed a firm of Chartered Accountants to undertake the valuation of its shares instead of appointing a Registered Valuer.

The valuer arrived at a certain price after applying a 25% Discount for Lack of Marketability (DLOM), citing that the shares were unlisted and had no active market. Thereafter, an Extraordinary General Meeting (EOGM) was held, where a Special Resolution was passed with more than 99.9% of the total shareholders voting in favour of the proposed reduction of share capital.

The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) approved the reduction, however, it modified the valuation price, observing that the company had unfairly deducted Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) while determining the share value. Subsequently, certain minority shareholders appealed against NCLT’s order before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) on various grounds. One of the principal grounds raised was that the valuation exercise had been entrusted to an associate entity of the company’s internal auditor, giving rise to allegations of bias and lack of independence. The appellants further contended that the Discount for Lack of Marketability (DLOM) had been applied arbitrarily and without legal basis, thereby artificially depressing the share value. The NCLAT, however, upheld the order of the NCLT. Aggrieved by the said decision, the minority shareholders preferred an appeal before the Supreme Court of India in the matter.

ORDER:

The Supreme Court held that Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013, provides a legally valid mechanism for the reduction of share capital. Unlike certain other provisions of the Act (such as Sections 62, 230, and 232), Section 66 does not statutorily mandate the submission of a valuation report from a Registered Valuer.

Further, the Court observed that a reduction of share capital under Section 66 may simultaneously serve as an exit mechanism for minority shareholders. In this regard, the Court noted that, under Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) 113, “fair value” is a market-based measurement. Therefore, the application of a Discount for Lack of Marketability (DLOM) is permissible and appropriate in the valuation of shares of unlisted or closely held companies that do not have a readily available market, provided that the shareholders are fairly compensated.

The Supreme Court also reaffirmed the principle of shareholders sovereignty, it held that where a reduction of share capital has been approved by the requisite majority through a Special Resolution, (75% in favour), the Court is not required to second-guess about the commercial wisdom of the shareholders. Rather, its role is limited to ensuring that the process is fair, just, equitable, and not contrary to public interest.

Infrastructure Investment Trust (INVIT) – Emerging Asset Class

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are SEBI-regulated vehicles that pool capital to invest in operational infrastructure assets such as roads and power. They allow developers to monetize assets while providing investors with stable, periodic distributions; the regulations mandate the distributing at least 90% of net cash flows. As of March 2026, India has 28 registered InvITs, with assets under management projected to triple by 2030. Governance is ensured through strict leverage limits (70%), mandatory valuations, and unitholder rights. Despite rapid growth, InvITs face sector-specific risks and represent only ~1.5% of India’s GDP compared to mature global markets.

1. INTRODUCTION TO INVIT

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (“InvITs”) are investment vehicles established to facilitate investment in completed and revenue-generating infrastructure assets. Regulated under the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, InvITs enable the pooling of capital from institutional and retail investors for investment in infrastructure sectors such as roads, power transmission, renewable energy, telecom, pipelines, and logistics. They provide infrastructure developers with an efficient mechanism to monetize operational assets and recycle capital into new projects, while offering investors an opportunity to participate in long-term infrastructure assets that generate stable and periodic cash flows through distributions.

InvITs in India are broadly classified into publicly listed InvITs and privately listed InvITs. Publicly listed InvITs are listed on recognized stock exchanges and are accessible to both retail and institutional investors, thereby enhancing market participation and liquidity. In contrast, privately listed InvITs are primarily targeted at institutional investors and accredited investors through private placement.

As of 31st March 2026, the Indian InvIT ecosystem comprises 28 registered InvITs1 spanning diverse infrastructure sectors, including roads, power transmission, renewable energy, telecom infrastructure, pipelines, warehousing, and supply chain assets, reflecting the growing adoption of the InvIT structure across India’s infrastructure landscape. The growing diversification of underlying assets reflects the increasing adoption of the InvIT structure as a preferred vehicle for infrastructure financing and asset monetisation.


1Bharat InvIT Association (BIA) Primer, June 2026

2. INVIT STRUCTURE & CASHFLOW MECHANICS

In an InvIT, a party that originates the assets, the party that manages the portfolio, the party that operates the underlying projects, and the party that holds the assets on trust for the unitholders are required to be functionally different and, in the trustee, structurally separate.

A diagrammatic representation of an InvIT structure is set out below: –

Structure of InviTs

An infographic illustrating the flow of funds from the Unit holder to the SPV through the InvIT structure, and subsequent distribution back to the unitholders in the form of dividend, interest, and capital, is set out as follows:

Cash flow in Invits

3. KEY REGULATORY ARCHITECTURE

The SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014 (the “InvIT Regulations”), notified on 26th September 2014, were designed to facilitate the monetisation of operating infrastructure assets through a yield instrument vehicle. This framework enables institutional and retail investors to participate, thereby substantially reducing exposure to construction and promoter-related risk.

SEBI has been progressively aligned the regulatory framework governing InvIT with the disclosure, issuance and listing standards applicable to equity securities under the SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 and the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, while simultaneously lowering the thresholds that had earlier confined the instrument to a narrow institutional base.

InvITS

The InvIT Regulations have been amended repeatedly over the past two years and are supplemented by the Master Circular for InvITs, updated on 11th July 2025. Key highlights of InvIT regulatory framework include:

  • InvIT Corpus, Offer Size and Composition of Investor Base

A publicly offered InvIT requires a minimum asset value of ₹500 crore, a minimum offer size of ₹250 crore, a minimum public float of 25 per cent, and mandatory listing; The minimum application and trading lot is in the ₹10,000 to ₹15,000 range. Further, the maximum subscription by any investor, other than the sponsor(s), its related parties, and its associates, in initial offer shall not be more than 25 percent of the total unit capital. A privately placed InvIT requires a minimum of five and a maximum of one thousand investors.

  • Ticket Size

Recently, the minimum investment by any investor in a privately placed InvIT was reduced from ₹1 crore to ₹25 lakh, and the separate ₹25 crore minimum investment requirement that had applied where such an InvIT invested, or proposed to invest, not less than 80 per cent of the value of its assets in completed and revenue-generating assets was removed. The effect is to align the primary market allotment lot with the ₹25 lakh secondary market trading lot and to open the private channel to a considerably broader base of high net worth and family office capital.

  • Investment Restrictions

Investment is permitted only in infrastructure as defined in the Harmonised Master List of Infrastructure Sub-sectors issued by the Ministry of Finance, whether held directly or through holding companies and special purpose vehicles. Of this, not less than 80 per cent of the value of InvIT assets must be invested in completed and revenue generating projects. The residual permitted basket comprises under-construction projects, listed and unlisted debt of infrastructure companies; equity of listed companies deriving at least 80 per cent of their income from the infrastructure sector, as per the audited accounts of the previous financial year; government securities; money market instruments; liquid mutual funds and cash equivalents; and, pursuant to the recent amendment, also includes unlisted equity shares and liquid mutual fund schemes, etc.

  • Distribution Waterfall

Regulation 18(6) requires that not less than 90 per cent of Net Distributable Cash Flows (NDCF) be distributed at both the InvIT level and the holding company or SPV level, subject to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 or the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 as applicable. Distributions are to be declared half-yearly for publicly offered InvITs and yearly for privately placed InvITs. Amendment and relaxations have been introduced wherein a holding company may now offset its negative net distributable cash flows against cash flows received from its SPVs where its own NDCF is negative, subject to adequate disclosure.

  • Leverage and its Monitoring

Aggregate consolidated borrowings and deferred payments, net of cash and cash equivalents, must not exceed 70 per cent of the value of InvIT assets. Borrowings above 25 per cent and up to 49 per cent require a credit rating and unitholder approval. Borrowings above 49 per cent only require credit rating of “AAA” or equivalent. The fund must be utilised only for the acquisition or development of an infrastructure project. In addition, the InvIT must have a track record of six consecutive distributions following listing and obtain unitholder approval. Investments in overnight mutual fund schemes are treated as cash and cash equivalents, and the aggregate of cash and cash equivalents is excluded when computing the value of assets for this purpose.

The Third Amendment introduced a risk-based overlap, wherein an InvIT whose borrowings exceed 49 per cent must undertake a valuation of its assets at the end of every quarter and submit both that valuation report and a quarterly report to the designated stock exchanges along with its quarterly financial results. If an InvIT exceeds this 49% limit, SEBI permits fresh borrowings, but restricts them strictly to capital expenditure for enhancement of assets, major maintenance for road projects, and refinancing of principal debt.

  • Valuation of Assets & Disclosure

Regulation 21 requires a full valuation at the end of each financial year, with the report submitted to the designated stock exchanges alongside the annual financial results. Half-yearly valuation reports accompany the quarterly financial results for the quarter ending 30th September, and valuation reports are to be submitted to the trustee simultaneously with their submission to the stock exchanges, within 15 days from receipt. Reporting timelines under Regulation 23 have been aligned with the financial results calendar. The quarterly report on the activities of the InvIT is now due within the period specified by SEBI for quarterly financial results.

  • Governance Norms & Control by Unitholders

The audit architecture has been aligned to the norms applicable to listed companies. Regulation 22 confers on unitholders a set of rights, including annual meetings, approval rights over specified matters, and the right to remove the investment manager, the trustee, the auditor or the valuer. This signifies a major shift of control from the sponsor to the unitholder.

  • Mandatory Disclosure in offer documents

Schedule III of Regulations mandates comprehensive disclosures in every offer document or placement memorandum of an InvIT. It requires disclosure of the InvIT’s constitution and registration details; particulars of the sponsor, investment manager, project manager, trustee and other key parties, details of the investment strategy and underlying infrastructure assets, financial information, valuation methodology, borrowing arrangements, distribution policy, risk factors, related party transactions, taxation; legal and regulatory matters; governance framework; litigation; and sector-specific information necessary for an informed investment decision.

In addition, the Schedule mandates that the offer document be supported by specified documents, including the full valuation report, auditors’ report, project implementation or project management agreement, due diligence certificate of the lead merchant banker, in-principle approval from the recognised stock exchange(s), and such other material reports. Collectively, these mandatory disclosures and supporting documents establish a robust disclosure framework designed to promote transparency, facilitate regulatory oversight and protect investor interests.

The reduction in the private placement ticket, the recalibration of the public float definition, the alignment of reporting calendars, and the shift to risk-based valuation for leveraged structures have been accompanied by tighter and more frequent disclosure requirements.

4. RISKS INVOLVED IN INVIT

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are often presented as stable, yield-generating investment vehicles backed by operational infrastructure assets. However, their apparent stability should not obscure the complex risk architecture embedded within the structure. While the underlying infrastructure assets may generate relatively predictable cash flows, the ability of those cash flows to reach investors depends upon a series of contractual, statutory and operational mechanisms, each of which introduces its own layer of uncertainty. Consequently, an assessment of InvITs requires a holistic examination of asset-level risks, cash flow risks and structural risks inherent in the trust framework.

Equally significant is the fact that many of the principal risks affecting InvITs are not readily diversifiable. Sector-specific risks—such as fluctuations in traffic volumes for toll roads, payment delays by power distribution companies, or tenant concentration in logistics parks—may vary across different asset classes. However, risks arising from leverage limits, evolving regulatory requirements, governance constraints, distribution mechanisms, and valuation practices are common across the InvIT ecosystem.

5. INVIT OUTLOOK – GLOBAL & INDIA

Globally, InvITs (commonly referred to as REITs in several jurisdictions) have evolved into a mature asset class, with over 1,000 listed REITs/InvITs spread across more than forty countries and an aggregate market capitalization of approximately USD 2 trillion2. Compared to mature markets such as the United States, Australia, Singapore and Japan, India’s InvIT market remains at a relatively early stage of development, despite recording strong growth since the framework was introduced in 2014 and the first listings in 2017.

India vs the World: The Gap3

Country REIT and InvIT Market as % of GDP
United States ~12%
Australia ~8–10%
Singapore ~7–9%
Japan ~5–7%
India ~1.5%

While the Indian market has expanded rapidly in terms of assets under management and the number of InvITs, it continues to face certain structural challenges, including

  •  relatively lower retail participation,
  •  limited secondary market liquidity,
  •  a narrower pool of infrastructure assets concentrated primarily in roads and power transmission; and
  • a comparatively smaller institutional investor base.

Continued regulatory reforms, broadening of eligible asset classes, enhanced market liquidity, and greater participation from domestic institutional and retail investors are expected to bridge these gaps and further strengthen India’s position in the global InvIT market.

A notable recent development addressing the liquidity constraints of InvITs is SEBI’s streamlined framework for the conversion of privately placed listed InvITs into publicly offered InvITs. The August 2025 amendments removed conversion-specific sponsor lock-in requirements and aligned the conversion process with the regulatory framework applicable to follow-on public offers, thereby reducing procedural barriers for mature private InvITs seeking access to public markets. Cube Highways Trust is the first InvIT to utilise this framework, having received unitholder approval, filed its offer documents with SEBI, and launched its public offer. This may provide a viable pathway for improving liquidity and expanding institutional participation in the InvIT market without requiring fresh capital to be raised by the trust.

Further, Mutual Funds have also recognised the importance of InvIT as a significant inclusion to their multiasset portfolio & hybrid schemes in order to diversify the investments while providing a relatively stable income stream, thereby also ensuring long term portfolio stability. This move will also contribute to broadening the institutional investor base.

India’s InvIT market is expected to witness a three-fold growth, supported by the Government’s infrastructure development agenda and asset monetisation initiatives. With assets under management of approximately INR 7.1 lakh crore as on 31 March 2026, the industry is projected to expand to nearly INR 21 lakh crore by 2030.


2 https://www.niftytrader.in/markets/reit-invit-aum-20-trillion-sebi-reforms/

3 https://www.niftytrader.in/markets/reit-invit-aum-20-trillion-sebi-reforms/

6. INVIT IN INTEREST OF STAKEHOLDERS

The InvIT market has witnessed increasing investor confidence, reflected in rising assets under management, cumulative distributions exceeding ₹91,000 crore, and a steadily expanding investor base. During FY26 alone, nearly 2 lakh new unitholders joined the InvIT ecosystem, taking the total investor base to approximately 5.58 lakh unitholders, indicating growing retail participation alongside continued institutional interest.4

Supported by stable cash flows from operational infrastructure assets, predictable distribution mechanisms, and a transparent regulatory framework, InvITs are increasingly being recognised by its stakeholders as an opportunity for:

  •  participation in long term financing for existing infrastructure projects;
  •  freeing-up developer capital for investing in new infrastructure projects;
  •  low- risk investments that attract long term investors such as endowment and pension funds’
  •  facilitation ownership of diversified infrastructure assets by retail investors; and
  •  implementation higher standards of governance in infrastructure development & management

InvIT, as a structure, have opened up an opportunity for individual participation in infrastructure investments as an asset class by establishing a regulated, professionally-managed structure while ensuring liquidity, stable income from investments, and diversification of overall investment risk.


4 https://www.business-standard.com/finance/investment/invits-cumulative-distribution-since-inception-reaches-91-000-cr-report-126061601308_1.html

Yoosaf NA. vs. The Initiating Officer (BPU), Kochi: Unaccounted cash with untraceable sources falls within benami property definitions, and filing returns doesn’t exonerate the possessor from the Act.

4. 2026(5) TMI 936 – Appellate Tribunal under SAFEMA

Yoosaf NA. v. The Initiating Officer (BPU), Kochi

Date of Order : 14.5.2026

Possession of unaccounted cash or cash without ownership cannot go scot-free from the purview of the PBPT Act – the same is covered under the Act.

Unaccounted cash, the source of which is unexplained, falls within the definition of `benami property’.

Only two parties, namely, the `benamidar’ and the `beneficial owner’ are sufficient to constitute a benami transaction – The contention that three parties are required for every benami transaction is devoid of merit.

Section 2(9)(D) of the PBPT Act is clearly attracted because the IO could not trace the source from which the appellant collected the cash.

Mere filing of, or an intention to file, an ITR does not exonerate a person from the application of the PBPT Act.

FACTS

On 27.3.2017, during a routine police vehicle check, cash of Rs 50,13,000 was found in possession of the appellant, Shri Yoosaf N.A. and one Shri Jamsheer P.K. The cash was seized since neither the appellant nor Jamsheer was able to explain its source. In a statement recorded under section 131 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and in a subsequent affidavit, the Appellant claimed full personal ownership of the cash seized and submitted that the funds had been pooled from friends and relatives for investment in land at Koduvally. He stated that, since those persons were not willing to appear before the Department, he offered to declare the entire amount as his income in AY 2017-18. The Appellant did not furnish any documents identifying the contributors or substantiating his claim. Shri Jamsheer disowned ownership of any part of the cash.

The Initiating Officer (IO) held that, since the source of the cash was untraceable, the provisions of section 2(9)(D) of PBPTA applied. He passed a Provisional Attachment Order (PAO) dated 12.3.2018. The Adjudicating Authority, vide order dated 25.3.2019, confirmed the action of the IO.

Aggrieved, the Appellant (alleged benamidar) preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the following issues emerged for its decision –

i) Whether cash is not property?

ii) Whether, for any benami transaction, three parties are required?

iii) Whether section 2(9)(D) can be invoked in the absence of any investigation regarding the ownership of the cash?

iv) Whether the provisions of the PBPT Act are not attracted, considering the fact that the Appellant is ready to file ITR qua the seized amount?

The Tribunal having considered the rival submissions held as follows –

As regards issue (i), the Tribunal held that cash is often considered tangible movable property due to its physical nature. Assets represent value of ownership that can be converted into cash (although cash itself is also considered as an asset). Considering the intent of the PBPT Act to curb black money, it held that unaccounted cash or cash without ownership cannot go scot-free from the purview of the PBPT Act and the same would be covered under the Act. Since the source of the cash was unexplained, it held that it falls within the definition of benami property.

As regards issue (ii), it held that the contention of the Appellant that, for any benami transaction, three parties are required, is devoid of any merit, as a benami transaction requires only the `benamidar’ and `beneficial owner’. Accordingly, only two parties are sufficient to constitute a benami transaction, as is apparent from the bare perusal of the definition contained in section 2(9)(D) of the PBPT Act, 1988.

As regards issue (iii) i.e. the contention of the Appellant that section 2(9)(D) cannot be invoked in the absence of any investigation regarding the ownership of the cash, the Tribunal held that the Appellant had not denied the fact that cash was seized from his possession without any valid document / evidence regarding its source. It also observed that it could not ignore the statement of the Appellant recorded under section 131 of the Income-tax Act, wherein he stated that he claimed full ownership of the seized cash of Rs.50,13,000, that Shri Jamsheer has no relationship with the cash, and that the total amount of Rs.50,13,000 seized from him had been received from his friends and relatives as contribution towards investment in an immovable property at Koduvally. However, he did not provide valid documents in support of his claim. Since the Appellant neither challenged the said statement nor disclosed the persons from whom he received such a huge amount, the IO could not trace the source from which the Appellant had collected the cash. Therefore, section 2(9)(D) was clearly attracted.

As regards issue (iv), the Tribunal held that the submission of the Appellant that the provisions of PBPT Act were not attracted because he was ready to file an ITR qua the seized amount was untenable. Firstly, the filing of an ITR after being caught and proceeded against was an afterthought strategy to claim back at least 50% of the seized amount. Secondly, the recovery of cash, in the absence of any explanation, is duly covered within the scope of PBPT Act. The right of action under PBPT Act cannot be restrained merely because the Appellant is ready to file ITR under the Income-tax Act. The principal object of the Income-tax Act is to collect income-tax, whereas the object of PBPT Act is to prohibit the practice of benami transactions, to check the accumulation of wealth in the name of benamidars for the use of the beneficial owner without detection, and to confiscate the property involved in a benami transaction. Both the Acts are enacted for different purposes. Mere filing of, or an intention to file, an ITR does not exonerate a person from the application of PBPT Act where the source of money is unknown and remains unexplained.

Kaluram Berva vs. Initiating Officer, Pune: Properties acquired for a company’s benefit in an individual’s name using company funds constitute benami transactions despite legal caste-related restrictions.

3. [2026] 183 taxmann.com 459 (SAFEMA – New Delhi)

Kaluram Berva v. Initiating Officer, Pune

Date of Order : 27.01.2026

Property acquired in the name of the Appellant with consideration provided by PMPL for the future benefit of PMPL constituted a benami transaction under section 2(9)(A) of the Act.

The plea that the Appellant held the property in a fiduciary capacity was untenable since title had been conclusively transferred through registered sale deeds, which was inconsistent with fiduciary holding.

Further also, the use of name of a scheduled caste individual owing to the Rajasthan Revenue Laws did not take the transaction outside the mischief of the Act.

Property held by a benamidar after the amendment w.e.f. 1.11.2016, though acquired prior to the amendment, continued to be covered by the provisions of the PBPTA in view of the decision in Prism Scan, Accordingly,- the provisional attachment was not invalid merely because the acquisition pre-dated the amendment.

FACTS

The present batch of appeals was preferred by the alleged Benamidar and the Beneficial Owner (PMPL), challenging the order dated 19.5.2022 passed by the Adjudicating Authority (AA) confirming the Provisional Attachment Order (PAO).

The properties had been purchased in the name of the Appellant, though the consideration had been provided by Padmavati Marbles Private Limited (PMPL). The transactions were taken as `benami transaction’, and accordingly the properties standing in the names of the alleged benamidars were attached.

The AA concluded that the alleged benamidar was not even an employee of the Beneficial Owner.

The Appellants contended that –

i) the Purchase of the property by PMPA formed part of its business;

ii) the land in question was agricultural land held by an individual of a Reserved Caste and under the Revenue Laws of State of Rajasthan unless the land was converted into a non-agricultural land it could not have been acquired by a person other than that of a Reserved Caste;

iii) the transaction had been entered into prior to the amendment of the PBPTA; and

iv) the Appellants had acted in a fiduciary capacity and thus matter will fall into the exceptions to section 2(9)(A)

On behalf of the Respondents it was contended that –

i)  the land had been purchased in the name of the appellant with consideration provided by PMPL for its future benefit, and therefore it was clearly a benami transaction. Upon conversion of land from agricultural to non-agricultural use, it was transferred to PMPL;

ii) the purchase of the land could not be regarded as being in a fiduciary capacity, because it is not that the property in the name of the company was given in a fiduciary capacity; and

iii) the transaction for land in question was completed with the registration of the Sale Deed in the name of benamidars and, once it was registered in their names, it cannot be claimed to be in a fiduciary capacity. It could have been in a fiduciary capacity if the land had not been registered in the names of the benamidars.

HELD

The land has been registered in the name of the benamidars, for which consideration was paid by the beneficial owner for its future benefit. It was for future benefit of beneficial owner because, after conversion of the land from agricultural to non-agricultural, it was taken by the appellant company (beneficial owner). Thus, the case in hand squarely falls within the definition of Section 2(9)(A) of the Act of 1988 defining “benami transaction”.

In the fiduciary capacity, title of the property cannot be passed on with concluded transaction. Accordingly, the Tribunal held that it did not agree that, even after conclusion of the transaction by registration of the Sale Deed in favour of the appellants, the holding of the land could be said to be in fiduciary capacity, because the beneficial owner does not hold title to the land so as to pass on to another in a fiduciary capacity.

If the Revenue Laws prohibit transfer of the land by Reserved Caste candidate to a person belonging to another caste, it does not mean that the appellant or, for that matter, anyone, could purchase the property by creating a benami transaction. The reason for purchasing the property in the name of the Reserved Caste candidate does not nullify the provisions of the Act of 1988; rather, in view of the statement of the appellant, no reason remained to interference with the impugned order because the transaction falls under Section 2(9)(A) of the Act of 1988 without any exception. That being the position, the Tribunal held that the Adjudicating Authority rightly confirmed the provisional attachment of the property.

As regards prospective application of the amended Act of 2016 the Tribunal held that no doubt the Apex Court, in the case of Ganpati Dealcom (P.) Ltd. (supra), applied the amending Act of 2016 prospectively, but that judgment has been recalled by the order dated 18.10.2024. Thus, the issue no longer remains open for debate. It is, however, necessary to refer the order of this Tribunal in the case of Prism Scan Express (P.) Ltd. (supra) wherein, while, referring to the judgment in Ganpati Dealcom (P.) Ltd. (supra), the definition of ‘benami transaction’ under Section 2(9)(A) of the Act of 1988 was interpreted with prospective application.

The word ‘ held’ used in Section 2(9)(A) of the Act of 1988 was interpreted and held to be applicable to this case. The land in dispute continued to be held in the names of benamidars on the date of the amendment and for some years thereafter.

If a property is transferred to a person whose consideration was paid or provided by another person prior to 01.11.2016, and such a property is not held by that person on or after the date of the amendment, then such a Benami transaction would not be affected by the Amending Act of 2016.

However, if transfer of property took place prior to 01.10.2016 and the property is “held” even after the aforesaid date by the person who has not paid the consideration, which was paid or provided by another person, then irrespective of the date of transfer of the property, its holding would constitute a “Benami Transaction”.

Compiler’s Note: The readers may also consider the ratio of the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Manjula vs. D.A. Srinivas [2026] 186 taxmann.com 357 (SC)[08-05-2026]

DCIT (BPU-1), Mumbai vs. Jiten Pujari: Cash held by employees in lockers for beneficial owners constitutes a fiduciary holding, exempting it from “benami transaction” definitions.

2. [2026] 166 taxmann.com 672 (SAFEMA – New Delhi)

DCIT (BPU-1), Mumbai v. Jiten Pujari

Date of Order: 09.09.2024

Where the beneficial owners did not disown the cash but claimed the cash to be theirs, it was held that where the cash was found in the lockers of the employees of the beneficial owners, which employees were alleged to be benamidars, the employees were holding the cash in fiduciary capacity and such holding would fall under the exception given under section 2(9)(A)(ii) of the PBPT Act

FACTS

A search was conducted on M/s. Trigon Hotels and Resource Private Limited (THRPL) under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. During the course of search, several bank lockers standing in the name of alleged benamidars were searched, and cash amounting to Rs.9.94 crores was found.

During the search, the statement of the Respondent Benamidar was recorded, wherein he stated that the cash found in the locker belonged to one RKS, the Beneficial Owner. The statement of one VS was also recorded, who stated that the keys to the lockers in which the cash was found were with the Respondent and that the cash belonged to RKS. The statement of one SRP was also recorded, wherein he stated that the cash did not belong to him but had been given to him by the Respondent, and the cash belonged to one SSS, the Beneficial Owner.

The Respondent that the cash was given to him and others for safe custody in their capacity of being the employees of SSS and brothers, the Beneficial Owners, who were holding M/s. Noble India Construction Company. In the affidavit given by the Beneficial Owners, it was stated that the cash found in the lockers were kept in the name of Respondent and others, but the same belonged to SSS, the Beneficial Owner.

The Appellant contended that:

i) there were material inconsistencies in the statements of the witnesses inasmuch as the Respondent and VS stated that the cash belonged to RKS whereas SRP stated that the cash belonged to SSS;

ii) the Respondent was not a long standing employee of M/s. Global India Construction Company belonging to SSS but was merely associated with the firm as a “piece rate worker” and therefore could not claim the benefit of being a long standing employee;

iii) the outcome of the assessment proceedings, wherein the cash had been treated as undisclosed income in the hands of the beneficial owners, had not been taken into consideration; and
iv) the Balance Sheet and books of account did not disclose the cash held by the Beneficial Owners.

On behalf of the Respondent, it was contended that –
i) this was a case where the cash had been entrusted to the Respondent for safe custody in a fiduciary capacity;

ii) the alleged Benamidars had not claimed the cash as their own but had consistently stated that it belonged to the Beneficial Owners;

iii) the Beneficial Owners had not disowned the cash found in the locker and rather, they had claimed it to be theirs and stated that it had been entrusted to the employees for safe custody; and

iv) the case fell within the exception contained in sub-clause (ii) of section 2(9)(A) of the definition of “benami transaction”, as amended by the Amending Act of 2016.

HELD

The Tribunal relied upon the decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Marcel Martins v. M. Printer AIR 2012 Supreme Court 1987 and in the case of RBI v. Jayantilal N. Mistry (2015) 64 taxmann.com 264 (SC) while interpreting the expression “fiduciary capacity”. It held that although fiduciary capacity cannot constitute an exception in every case, it would apply where the money is entrusted to another person for safe custody. The Appellant’s contention regarding inconsistencies in the witness statements was rejected on the ground that the Adjudicating Authority had analysed those statements in detail and reproduced the relevant portions. The Tribunal further observed that the only addition made in the income tax assessment was in respect of the undisclosed cash in the hands of the Beneficial Owners, which, by its very nature, was not reflected in the books of account, thereby supporting the Respondent’s case. In view of the fact that the Respondent never claimed ownership of the property and, at the same time, the Beneficial Owners did not disown the cash found, and in fact claimed it to be theirs, the appeal was dismissed and the issue was decided in favour of the Respondent Benamidar.

Balkar Singh vs. Initiating Officer: Provisional attachments under section 24(4) must relate to the same property previously attached under section 24(3), not different assets.

Editor’s Note:

From this month, we start a new feature titled “BePR Digest”. This feature will digest cases under the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (“Be”), the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (“P”) and the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016 (“R”). We are confident that the readers will find reading this monthly digest of cases useful. We invite feedback from the readers on this new feature.

1. [2026] 182 taxmann.com 25 (SAFEMA – New Delhi)

Balkar Singh v. Initiating Officer

Date of Order : 17.12.2025

Provisional attachment under section 24(4)(a)(i) of PBPT Act provides only for the continuation of a provisional attachment made under section 24(3) till the passing of the order by the Adjudicating Authority – therefore the property attached under section 24(4)(a)(i) cannot be different from the property attached under section 24(3)

FACTS

A provisional attachment under section 24(3) of the PBPT Act was made by the Initiating Officer (IO) in respect of the bank account of the Appellant with Andhra Bank. Subsequently, while passing an order under section 24(4)(a)(i) of the Act for the continuation of provisional attachment till the passing of the order by the Adjudicating Authority (AA), the IO provisionally attached a bank account with Axis Bank in the name of Mala Petro Chemicals and Polymers. On a reference made to the AA, the Provisional Attachment Order was confirmed.

The Assessee filed appeal before the Appellate Tribunal and, for the first time, raised the contention that section 24(4)(a)(i) permits only the continuation of the provisional attachment made under section 24(3). Therefore, an order passed under section 24(4)(a)(i) must relate to the same property that had been attached under section 24(3), and not to a different property. The Appellant further submitted that this was a pure question of law and could therefore be raised for the first time before the Appellate Tribunal.

The Respondent contended that the substitution of the property under attachment was due to an oversight or a bona fide mistake and therefore prayed that the matter be remanded with liberty to revisit the issue or pass a fresh order.

HELD

The Tribunal permitted the Appeallant to raise the legal plea for the first time before it, holding that the issue went to the root of the matter and that, if decided in favour of the Appellant, there would be no necessity to examine the remaining issues.

The Appellate Tribunal noted that the property attached under section 24(3) and the property attached under section 24(4)(a)(i) were indeed different. It held that section 24(4)(a)(i) provides only for the continuation of the attachment order passed under section 24(3), and not for addition or substitution of property under attachment. Accordingly, the Tribunal set aside the provisional attachment orders, while grantingliberty to the Respondent to initiate fresh proceedings, as the legal defect pointed out by the Appellant was curable. The Respondent was therefore permitted to proceed afresh strictly in accordance with law.

Transmission of Flats in Co-Operative Societies: An Updated Position

Recent amendments to the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act streamline flat transmission. Societies transfer interest based on testamentary documents, succession certificates, or registered family arrangement deeds. Crucially, a nominee serves only as a provisional member and trustee, holding the property for the legal heirs without gaining ownership. In Mumbai, probate is no longer mandatory for certain Wills, though societies may request authentication. While minors or persons of unsound mind can inherit through guardians, they face restrictions on the alienation of property. These updates aim to reduce litigation and improve the transmission process.

INTRODUCTION

This Feature has, on multiple occasions, dealt with the nomination of a person in respect of a flat in a co-operative housing society, transmission post the amendment to the probate law, etc. However, recently, in the State of Maharashtra, the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960 (“the Act”) and the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Rules, 1961 (“the Rules”) have been amended with respect to the transmission formalities for a flat in a co-operative housing society. This month’s Feature now presents a holistic view of the transmission process of a flat in a co-operative housing society located in the State of Maharashtra, including the process of nomination.

Procedure on the Demise of a Member

Transmission of the share, right, title and interest of a deceased member of a flat in a co-operative housing society in Maharashtra is governed primarily by Chapter XIII-B of the Act.

Section 154B-13 of the Act provides for the transfer of interest on the death of a Member. On the death of a Member of a society, the society shall transfer share, right, title and interest in the property of the deceased member in the society to a person or persons based on:

(a) Testamentary documents – The term testamentary document means a Will. It may be noted, that, after the omission of Section 213 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, a co-operative society in Mumbai is no longer entitled to insist, as a matter of law, upon production of probate or letters of administration as a precondition to admitting a legatee under a Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh, Jain or Parsi Will as a regular member. However, it is still open to the society — through its bye-laws or by way of a resolution — to require appropriate authentication of the Will, including by way of an affidavit of execution from one or more of the attesting witnesses, an affidavit-cum-indemnity bond from the legatee, and a No-Objection Certificate from the heirs who would have inherited had there been no Will. Some societies may even insist upon a probated Will.

(b) Succession certificate – A succession certificate is a certificate granted by a Court under the Indian Succession Act in respect of any debt due to the deceased or securities owned by him. In case the deceased died leaving behind a Will which only empowered the beneficiaries to collect his debts and securities, then the courts would grant a succession certificate instead of a probate. Ideally, the Act should have mentioned a Letter of Administration, which is a succession document issued in the case of an intestate succession.

(c) Legal heirship certificate – A legal heir certificate is granted under the Bombay Regulation No. VIII of 1827, a pre-independence Order of the then-Governor-General of India. It was issued to provide formal recognition of heirs, executors and administrators and for appointment of administrators and managers of the deceased’s property by the courts. In Anthony Fernandez and others, 1993(1) Bom.C.R. 580 the Bombay High Court held that Bombay Regulation VIII of 1827 continues to be in force and that its provisions are supplemented in certain respects by the Indian Succession Act, 1925.

(d) Family Arrangement Deed – A family arrangement deed is a registered document recording a family arrangement executed by the persons who are entitled to inherit the property of the deceased Member or in favour of a person duly nominated in accordance with the Rules. The Act and the Rules now provide that a society can transfer a flat after the death of a member to the legal heir of such member based on a deed of family settlement. The Rules require that the deed must be registered and must record the terms and conditions with respect to the flat held by the deceased member in the society. The legal heirs must then make an application to the society in Form Y-5 along with the registered deed and an indemnity bond indemnifying the society against any claims in respect of the flat. The society would then invite objections to the proposed transfer by issuing a public notice in two local newspapers. If no claims or objections are received, the flat would be transferred. However, if objections are received, the transfer would not be affected. In such a case, the society would require a Letter of Administration or a Legal Heirship Certificate from a Court.

The Flat successor handbook

Supreme Court decisions such as Kale v. Dy. Director of Consolidation, (1976) AIR SC, 807, Ram Charan Das v. Girja Nandini Devi (1955) 2 SCWR 837; Tek Bahadur Bhujil v. Debi Singh Bhujil, (1966) 2 SCJ 290; K. V. Narayanan v. K. V. Ranganadhan, AIR 1976 SC 1715 have laid down that, under an oral family arrangement/settlement, the terms of which may be recorded in a memorandum, a registered deed is not required. When a document is nothing but a memorandum of what had taken place, it is not a document that would otherwise require compulsory registration. Despite this, the Rules require a registered family settlement document. Parties would need to examine whether this attracts stamp duty as an instrument. This would depend upon the manner in which the deed is drafted. It may be noted that the transmission of a flat under a Will or by way of an intestate succession does not attract any registration or stamp duty. However, the same would not necessarily be true in the case of a deed of family settlement.

While the Act permits transmission in favour of a person named in a Will or under an intestate succession, one must also bear in mind the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Rules/Regulations framed thereunder. For instance, any person resident outside India can own/hold any immovable property in India if it has been inherited from a resident. However, only an NRI/OCI can inherit Indian immovable property from a person resident outside India. Thus, the residential status of the deceased determines which category of non-residents is eligible to inherit the immovable property.

Procedure in the case of Nomination by a Member

The Act provides that the society shall admit a nominee as a provisional member after the death of a member till the legal heir or a person who is entitled to the flat and shares in accordance with law of succession or under a Will or testamentary document is admitted as a member in place of such deceased member. Lastly, it states that if no person has been so nominated, the society shall admit such person as a provisional member as may appear to the Committee to be the heir or legal representative of the deceased member, in the manner as may be prescribed. The Act permits a member of a co-operative society to nominate, in writing, any person to whom his share or interest in the society shall be transferred on his death.

Nominee not the Legal Owner

To refresh, a nomination is not a mode of testamentary disposition. It does not confer beneficial ownership upon the nominee. The nominee, on the death of the member, is no more than a person designated to receive the share or interest of the deceased member from the society and holds the same in trust until the legal heirs or legatees, as the case may be, are ascertained. This proposition has been repeatedly affirmed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India over several decades, most emphatically in Indrani Wahi v. Registrar of Co-operative Societies & Ors., (2016) 6 SCC 440, in which the Supreme Court laid down the law relating to nominations in the context of a flat in a co-operative housing society. This decision was rendered by a Division Bench of the Supreme Court in a case arising out of the West Bengal Co-operative Societies Act, 1983, and the West Bengal Co-operative Societies Rules, 1987. However, the principles laid down are of pan-Indian application in respect of nominations under the co-operative societies legislation. The principal issue before the Supreme Court was whether, on the death of a member of a co-operative society who has made a valid nomination, the society was bound to transfer the share or interest of the deceased member in favour of the nominee — and, conversely, whether the act of transfer in favour of the nominee determined the question of title as between the nominee and the other heirs of the deceased member. The Court held that the transfer of shares or interest in favour of the nominee is with reference to the concerned Cooperative Society and is binding on the said society. The Cooperative Society had no option whatsoever except to transfer the membership in the name of the nominee. However, that would per se, have no relevance to the issue of title between the inheritors or successors to the property of the deceased. Thus, on the death of a member who has made a valid nomination, the co-operative society has “no option whatsoever” but to transfer the share and interest of the deceased member in favour of the nominee. The society does not adjudicate competing claims of heirs and is not entitled to delay or refuse the transfer on the ground that other heirs may have a superior claim in succession.

The transfer of shares and interest in favour of the nominee — vis-à-vis the society — does not adjudicate the question of title. The other heirs and legal representatives of the deceased member retain the right to pursue their claims succession or inheritance, in accordance with applicable personal law, before a competent civil forum. The nominee holds, qua the property in the society, the position of a trustee for the true owners, as may be determined inter se the heirs.

The principles laid down in Indrani Wahi apply with equal force to a co-operative housing society in Maharashtra. The position has been authoritatively reinforced and amplified by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in its decision in Foreshore Co-operative Housing Society Limited v. Divisional Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies & Ors., WP No. 7834 of 2025, decided on 9th December 2025, which is the most up-to-date pronouncement on the working of Section 154B-13 of the Act.

In Foreshore, after a careful textual analysis of Section 154B-12 and Section 154B-13 of the Act, the Court laid down certain principles that are of general application to all co-operative housing societies in Maharashtra. A clear distinction was drawn between transfer of interest by a living member under Section 154B-12 (which used the expression “may transfer” and preserved the discretion of the society to scrutinise the eligibility of the proposed transferee) and the transfer on the death of a member under Section 154B-13 (where the society’s role is confined to giving effect to the statutory succession). On death, “the society’s discretion was significantly reduced. The society could not choose among claimants or impose additional eligibility norms not found in the statute.” The society’s role was confined to verifying the legal status of the nominee or heir. The Bombay High Court in Pravinkumar Jethalal Dave, vs. The State Of Maharashtra, WP No. 2317/2011 in order dated 9th February 2026 was also on similar lines. It held that the nomination only enabled the society to deal with an identified person after the death of a member. The Bombay High Court in Rhea Parthasarathy Versus Sonali Nimesh Lokhandwala, 2025 (6) Bom.C.R has reiterated that nomination under the Act merely indicates the person with whom the society should deal and does not confer ownership rights on the nominee to the exclusion of the legal heirs. Referring to Gopal Vishnu Ghatnekar vs. Madhukar Vishnu Ghatnekar, 1981 Bom.C.R. 1010; Om Siddharaj Co-operative Housing Society Ltd vs. State of Maharashtra & Ors. 1998(4) Bom.C.R. 506; the Court observed that the nominee merely holds the deceased’s share and interest in trust for the lawful heirs. The rights of the heirs are not lost, and the society’s role remains administrative until succession is duly determined by law or Court. It concluded that a nominee is merely a trustee for the lawful heirs

Nomination Formalities

Under the provisions of the Act, a member can nominate any person as nominee and deposit the nomination with the society. The nomination form would be as outlined in the society’s bye-laws. It must be signed by the member and submitted during his lifetime. In case of joint members, a separate nomination form can be submitted by each member for his respective share. Any nomination made can be revoked or varied by submitting a fresh nomination form in accordance with the procedure specified in the society’s bye-laws. “Bye-laws” are defined under the Act as follows: “bye-laws” mean bye-laws registered under this Act and, for the time being in force, and include registered amendments of such by-laws. The bye-laws are the internal rules and regulations adopted by a society to govern its day-to-day operations. Currently, the Model Bye-laws, 2014 issued by the Commissioner for Cooperation and Registrar, Cooperative Societies (CC and RCS) Maharashtra State, Pune have been adopted by most housing societies. Bye-law 31 lays down the process for nomination. It provides that the acknowledgement of the nomination by the Secretary shall be deemed to be the acceptance of nomination by the Secretary. No fees shall be charged for recording the first nomination.

On receipt of the Nomination form, or the letter revoking the earlier nomination, the same shall be placed before the next meeting of the Committee held after its receipt by the Secretary of the Society for recording the same in the minutes of the Committee. The society would maintain the details of such nominees in a Register of Nominations in Form I under Rule 32 of the Rules.

After the demise of the member, the procedure for admitting the nominee as a provisional member would be as follows:

a) After the death of the member, the nominee must apply for provisional membership in Form Y-4, along with an indemnity in favour of the society. In this respect, Bye-law 33 provides that the Nominee/Nominees shall submit the Application for membership, within 6 months from the death of a Member. If there are more than one Nominees, such Nominees shall make Joint Application to the Society and indicate the name of the Nominee who should be enrolled as Member. The other nominees shall be enrolled as Joint/Associate Members unless the nominees indicate otherwise.

(b) If there is no nomination, or if no nominee comes forth to be admitted as a provisional member, then the society would invite applications from legal heirs by publishing a public notice;

(c) The managing committee of the society would then decide whether to admit a person as a provisional member. If there is more than one claimant, they would be asked to decide inter se who should become the provisional member. If they cannot reach an agreement, then they would need a Court order to that effect;

(d) The Rules expressly provide that the provisional member shall not have any right, title or ownership of the flat and that his name would not be included on the share certificate of the flat. This provides a statutory recognition to what, until now, was judge-made law and was often disputed by nominees. Bye-law 33 also provides that the provisional member shall hold the flat / unit in ‘trust’ till all the Legal Heirs are brought on record and shall not have any ownership rights or create any 3rd party interest or alienate the flat in any manner whatsoever.

Press Reports indicate that, under the draft model Bye-laws 2025-26, nominees would be recognised as “provisional members” immediately upon the death of the original member, entitling them to attend and participate in General Body Meetings — but without voting rights until legal title is actually established in their name. It may be noted that the 2025-26 Model Bye-laws have not yet officially gazetted and, hence, are not final.

Interest acquired by Minor/Person with Unsound Mind

The Act recognises that a minor or a person of unsound mind can acquire, by inheritance or otherwise, the share or interest of a deceased member in a society. There is no bar under the Act to such persons acquiring such a right. They can be admitted as members through their legal representatives or guardians. Such persons would enjoy the rights and discharge their liabilities through their legal representatives or guardians.

It may be noted that such persons would not be able to make a Will in respect of the flat, since a Will can only be made by a major of sound mind. Hence, their estate would always devolve by intestate succession and, subject to their personal law, such as the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, in the case of Hindus. Further, under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the natural guardian of a Hindu minor cannot sell/transfer/alienate the minor’s immovable property without the prior permission of a Court. Thus, although such persons can become owners of the property, these qualifications should be borne in mind.

CONCLUSION

The amendments to the Act, the Rules and the Model Bye-laws are welcome changes and would help ease the transmission process in respect of a flat in a co-operative housing society. Hopefully, these amendments would reduce litigation and disputes and improve the ease of transmission of flats in co-operative housing societies.

Allied Laws

20. Union of India & Anr. v. The Registrar, Central Administrative Tribunal & Anr. 2026 LiveLaw (Mad) 308 July 3, 2026

Family pension – Step-son – Definition of “family” – Nomination for gratuity does not confer eligibility for family pension – Step-son not entitled to family pension. [Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993, R.70, 75]

FACTS

The second respondent was the step-son of a Railway employee who died in service. He claimed a family pension under the Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993.

The gratuity payable to the deceased employee had already been settled in his favour under Rule 70. The Central Administrative Tribunal granted a family pension to the respondent by relying upon the said provision.

The Railways challenged the order of the Tribunal before the High Court.

HELD

The Court held that the entitlement to family pension must be determined strictly in accordance with the definition of “family” under rule 75 of the Railway Services (Pension) Rules.

Though a Government servant may nominate any person for the receipt of gratuity, family pension can be granted only to persons falling within the statutory definition of “family”.

A step-son is not included within the definition of “family” under Rule 75 and is therefore not eligible to receive a family pension. The Tribunal erred in relying upon Rule 70, which governs gratuity and has no application to the grant of a family pension.

The Writ Petition was allowed.

21. Rashmirekha Tripathy & Anr. v. The Branch Manager (Legal Claims), Sriram General Insurance Company Ltd. & Ors. 2026 INSC 661, July 01, 2026

Motor accident compensation – Assessment of income – Income-tax returns – Salaried and self-employed persons – Separate principles for determination of annual income. [Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, S.166, 168]

FACTS

The deceased, aged 39 years, was engaged in the construction business and died in a motor accident.

The Motor Accident Claims Tribunal assessed his annual income at Rs.15,00,000/- on the basis of the income-tax return for the immediately preceding assessment year and awarded compensation of Rs.2.27 crore.

The High Court took the average income disclosed in the previous two income-tax returns, assessed the annual income at Rs.13,33,226/- and reduced the compensation to Rs.1.87 crore.

The claimants approached the Supreme Court. The issue before the Court was whether the income-tax return for immediately preceding year or the average of returns for the previous years should be considered for assessing annual income.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that there can be no rigid formula for computing the annual income of a deceased person or claimant. Income-tax returns, being statutory documents, constitute an important reference point for assessment of income.

A distinction must be drawn between salaried and self-employed persons. In the case of salaried persons, the income-tax return of the immediately preceding year would ordinarily be sufficient, subject to corroborative material relating to promotion or change in salary.

In the case of self-employed persons or persons carrying on business, the average income disclosed in income-tax returns for up to the preceding three years should be taken as a reference point. The nature and growth pattern of the business, its potential growth, initial losses, and other relevant circumstances must also be considered.
Income-tax returns filed after the death or injury are not necessarily liable to be excluded. Where supported by financial statements and surrounding circumstances, such returns may also be considered.

On the facts, considering the nature of the construction business, the annual income of the deceased was fixed at Rs.14,00,000/-, and compensation was determined at Rs.1,97,81,505/-.

The Appeal is allowed.

22. Sardari Lal v. Bishan Dass & Ors. 2026 INSC 669, July 06, 2026

Will – suspicious circumstances – Disinheritance of sole Class-I heir in favour of non-relatives – Propounder required to dispel suspicion – Interference with concurrent findings in second appeal impermissible. [Indian Succession Act, 1925, S.63; Indian Evidence Act, 1872, S.68; Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, S.100]

FACTS

The plaintiff instituted a suit claiming ownership and possession of properties left by her husband, who died issueless. She claimed to be his sole heir.

The defendants relied upon a registered Will allegedly executed by the deceased in 1974, under which his entire estate was bequeathed to them. The plaintiff disputed the Will, alleging fraud, undue influence and suspicious circumstances.

The Trial Court and the First Appellate Court discarded the Will. They noticed, inter alia, the complete exclusion of the testator’s wife, incorrect recitals regarding the relationship of the beneficiaries with the testator, and unexplained circumstances surrounding the execution of the Will.

The High Court, in second appeal, reversed the concurrent findings and dismissed the suit.

The plaintiff’s successor approached the Supreme Court.

HELD

The Supreme Court held that the onus to prove a Will lies upon its propounder. Where suspicious circumstances surround its execution, the propounder must explain such circumstances and dispel the doubts to the satisfaction of the Court.

The complete disinheritance of the sole Class-I heir, namely the testator’s wife, in favour of persons who were not close relatives constituted an unnatural disposition requiring satisfactory explanation. The incorrect recitals regarding the beneficiaries’ relationship with the testator and the testator’s residence and maintenance further raised serious doubts as to whether the Will had executed of the testator’s own free will and with a full understanding of its effect.

Whether the judicial conscience of the Court is satisfied regarding the valid execution of a Will is essentially a question of fact. The High Court could not interfere under section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure with well-reasoned concurrent findings merely by reassessing the evidence.

The Will was rightly discarded by the lower courts. The Appeal was allowed.

23. Anshad Badruddin v. Directorate of Enforcement and Abdul Khader Puttur v. Directorate of Enforcement 2026 LiveLaw (Del) 628, July 2, 2026

Money laundering – proceeds of crime – Receipt of money in personal bank account – Foundational scheduled offence must first be established – Unexplained credit by itself not proceeds of crime – Prolonged incarceration – Bail granted. [Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, S.2(1)(u), 3, 45; Constitution of India, Art.21]

FACTS

The applicants were arrayed as accused in a supplementary prosecution complaint under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 on allegations that they had acted as physical education trainers of an association and received monies from the association.

The Enforcement Directorate alleged that the applicants had personally received funds in their bank accounts and exercised dominion and control over the proceeds of crime.

The applicants sought bail, contending that their role was no graver than that of other accused who had already been granted bail and that no foundational material established that the monies received by them constituted proceeds derived from a scheduled offence.

The Special Court rejected their bail applications.

HELD

The Court held that the question of dominion or control over proceeds of crime arises only after it is first established that the property in question constitutes “proceeds of crime”, namely, property derived or obtained as a result of an accomplished scheduled offence.

The mere fact that money was credited directly to the personal accounts of the applicants does not convert such amounts into proceeds of crime. An unexplained bank credit, without independent material connecting it to a completed scheduled offence, remains merely an unexplained credit.

Neither applicant had been charge-sheeted in the predicate offence. Mere sharing of information between investigating agencies under section 66(2) of the PMLA could not crystallise the existence of a scheduled offence against the applicants.

The applicants had remained incarcerated for more than two years and three months, charges had not been framed, and there was no reasonable likelihood of the trial concluding in the near future. The rigours of section 45 cannot operate to sanction indefinite pre-trial detention.

Considering parity, absence of a foundational scheduled offence at the prima facie stage, and the prolonged incarceration, the applicants were entitled to bail.

The Bail Applications are allowed.

24. Mimansa Nangia & Ors. v. Shivani Hospital Pvt. Ltd. 2026:AHC:103559/ 2026 LiveLaw (AB) 365 May 6, 2026

Specific performance – Readiness and willingness – Financial capacity and conduct of purchaser – Mere escalation in property value no ground to refuse specific performance – Suit within limitation.

[Specific Relief Act, 1963, S.16(c); Limitation Act, 1963, Art.54; Registration Act, 1908, S.32A]

FACTS

The original defendants’ father executed a registered agreement to sell immovable property in favour of the plaintiff company for Rs.5.25 crore. An amount of Rs.2 crore was paid at the time of execution of the agreement, and further amounts were paid towards conversion of the property into freehold.

The vendor died before execution of the sale deed. The original plaintiff repeatedly called upon his legal heirs to execute the conveyance and claimed to have remained ready and willing to pay the balance consideration of Rs.2.84 crore.

The legal heirs resisted the suit, alleging undue influence, inadequate consideration, lack of financial capacity, and absence of continuous readiness and willingness on the part of the plaintiff.

The Trial Court decreed the suit for specific performance. The defendants preferred an appeal.

HELD

The Court held that readiness and willingness must be determined from the financial capacity and overall conduct of the purchaser in the facts and circumstances of each case.

The bank accounts, balance sheets, mutual funds and fixed deposits established that the original plaintiff (respondent) possessed sufficient financial capacity to pay the balance consideration. Its representatives had remained present before the Sub-Registrar for execution of the sale deed, whereas the original defendants (appellants) failed to appear.

The original plaintiff had continuously remained ready and willing to perform its obligations. Mere escalation in the value of the property could not, by itself, constitute a ground to refuse specific performance where the purchaser’s conduct was otherwise unblemished.

The last date fixed for execution of the sale deed was 05.01.2016. The defendants’ failure to appear on that date constituted a refusal of performance for the purposes of Article 54 of the Limitation Act. The suit instituted on 10.01.2017 was therefore within limitation.

No perversity was found in the decree granting specific performance. The defendants were directed to execute the sale deed within one month, failing which the plaintiff was entitled to have it executed through the Court.

The Appeal was dismissed with costs.

IFRS 20 – A New Era In Accounting For Rate-Regulated Activities: Implications For India

IFRS 20, effective January 2029, establishes a robust framework for rate-regulated activities, replacing the temporary Ind AS 114. It mandates recognizing “total allowed compensation” when services are delivered, using discounted cash flows and regulatory interest rates. For India’s power sector, this shift reduces earnings volatility by aligning financial reporting with economic performance rather than tariff billing cycles. Unlike the preservation-focused Ind AS 114, IFRS 20 introduces rigorous measurement and disclosure standards. While evolving from existing ICAI guidance, it significantly enhances transparency, giving investors clearer insights into future recoveries and the quality of regulatory balances.

INTRODUCTION

In May 2026, the IASB issued IFRS 20 Regulatory Assets and Regulatory Liabilities, a comprehensive accounting standard for specified rate-regulated activities. Effective from 1 January 2029, IFRS 20 replaces IFRS 14 and introduces a robust framework for recognising, measuring, presenting and disclosing regulatory assets and regulatory liabilities.

For India, IFRS 20 is particularly relevant because Indian entities currently operate under a mixed landscape. Under Indian GAAP, the ICAI Guidance Note on Accounting for Rate Regulated Activities permits recognition of regulatory assets and liabilities in specified circumstances. Under Ind AS, however, there is currently no equivalent of IFRS 20.

CORE PRINCIPLE OF IFRS 20

The central principle of IFRS 20 is that an entity should recognise the total allowed compensation for regulatory goods or services in the same reporting period in which those goods or services are supplied. Where tariff recovery occurs in a different period, the resulting timing differences are recognised through regulatory assets, regulatory liabilities, regulatory income and regulatory expense.

KEY ACCOUNTING REQUIREMENTS

  • Recognition of enforceable rights and obligations arising from regulatory agreements.
  • Measurement using discounted future cash flows.
  • Use of regulatory interest rates specified or implied by the regulatory framework.
  • Continuous reassessment of future cash-flow estimates.
  • Separate presentation of regulatory income and expense
  • Extensive disclosure requirements.

POTENTIAL IMPACT IF ADOPTED UNDER IND AS

If India adopts an Ind AS equivalent of IFRS 20 (which in all probability it will), regulated entities would recognise many tariff-related rights and obligations directly on the balance sheet. Earnings would better reflect economic performance rather than tariff timing, thereby reducing artificial volatility. Investor understanding of future recoveries and refunds would improve significantly.

However, implementation would require sophisticated modelling of regulatory balances, discounting calculations, regulatory interest tracking, and substantial systems changes.

IFRS 20 VERSUS IND AS 114

One of the most important distinctions is between IFRS 20 and Ind AS 114.

Ind AS 114 (mirroring IFRS 14) is essentially a temporary accommodation standard. It permits first-time adopters that already recognised regulatory deferral account balances under the previous GAAP to continue doing so. It does not establish a comprehensive recognition and measurement model for rate-regulated activities. Its primary purpose is to preserve existing accounting practices until a permanent standard is developed.

IFRS 20, by contrast, is a comprehensive accounting standard. It introduces:

  • A new “total allowed compensation” model
  • Defined concepts of regulatory assets and regulatory liabilities.
  • Detailed recognition criteria based on enforceable rights and obligations
  • Mandatory cash-flow-based measurement.
  • Discounting using regulatory interest rates.
  • Detailed guidance on performance incentives, inflation adjustments, regulatory returns and depreciation-related differences.
  • Comprehensive disclosure requirements

Accordingly, IFRS 20 is not merely an enhancement of IFRS 14 or Ind AS 114; it represents a fundamentally different accounting model.

IFRS 20

LIKELY IMPACT ON INDIAN POWER UTILITIES

The Indian power sector is likely to be among the sectors most significantly affected if IFRS 20 is adopted under Ind AS.

Transmission Utilities

Entities such as Power Grid and state transmission utilities often earn regulated returns based on approved capital bases. IFRS 20 would provide a more structured framework for recognising timing differences arising from tariff orders, true-up adjustments, and delayed recoveries.

Distribution Companies

Electricity distribution companies frequently experience regulatory assets arising from fuel cost adjustments, power purchase cost variations, carrying cost claims and tariff true-ups. IFRS 20 could result in larger recognised regulatory asset balances and greater transparency regarding their expected future recovery.

Generation Companies

Certain regulated generation businesses may experience impacts from deferred tariff recoveries, performance incentives, and regulatory return mechanisms. Earnings could become more stable because economic compensation would be recognised in the period in which it is earned rather than when approved tariffs are billed.

INVESTOR PERSPECTIVE

Analysts would obtain improved visibility into:

  • Future tariff recoveries
  • Regulatory carrying costs.
  • Timing of cash-flow realisation.
  • Quality and recoverability of regulatory balances.

This could improve comparability across utilities and reduce uncertainty surrounding the large regulatory asset positions that are common within the Indian power sector.

CONCLUSION

IFRS 20 represents one of the most significant developments in utility accounting in recent years. By introducing a comprehensive framework for recognising regulatory assets, regulatory liabilities, regulatory income and regulatory expense, it seeks to ensure that financial statements reflect the economic effects of regulation rather than merely the timing of customer billings.
Importantly, India is not starting from a blank slate. The ICAI Guidance Note already recognises the concept of regulatory assets and regulatory liabilities for certain forms of cost-of-service regulation. Consequently, the most significant impact of a future Ind AS equivalent may not be the introduction of regulatory balances themselves, but rather the transition to IFRS 20’s more rigorous recognition criteria, discounted cash-flow measurement requirements, regulatory interest mechanisms, presentation requirements and extensive disclosure framework.

Accordingly, IFRS 20 should be viewed as an evolution of the existing Indian approach rather than a complete conceptual departure, while at the same time representing a major enhancement in transparency, consistency and comparability for regulated entities.

Recent Decisions in GST

I HIGH COURT

38. (2026) 44 Centax 42 (Bom.) Kanakia Spaces Realty Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India dated 24.06.2026.

An SCN issued after amalgamation to a dissolved transferor is jurisdictionally void and section 87 cannot preserve proceedings against an entity without legal existence.

FACTS

Petitioner’s transferor company merged into the petitioner under a sanctioned amalgamation scheme. Transferor consequently stood dissolved, and its name was removed from corporate records. Before GST implementation, it had filed service tax returns and informed the respondent regarding amalgamation and credit transfer. Automatic migration nevertheless generated a GST registration in the dissolved transferor’s name. Petitioner repeatedly informed the respondent that the transferor had ceased to exist. Respondent subsequently cancelled that registration after determining NIL liability. Despite these disclosures, the respondent issued an SCN under section 74 against the dissolved transferor. The respondent thereafter confirmed GST, interest and penalty through an order against that entity. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that proceedings initiated against a company dissolved pursuant to amalgamation were without jurisdiction and void ab initio. Section 87 applies only during the period between the appointed date and the amalgamation order and cannot authorize issuance of an SCN to an entity that has ceased to exist. Accordingly, the demand was quashed, while leaving it open to the authorities to initiate lawful proceedings against the petitioner. Relying on Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Maruti Suzuki India Limited, [2019] 416 ITR 613, dated 25.07.2019, which held that informed proceedings against a dissolved amalgamating company are legal nullities and Vodafone Idea Limited vs. Union of India, (2026) 42 Centax 455, dated 12.02.2026, which clarified that section 87 cannot sustain proceedings against a non-existent entity after amalgamation. Accordingly, the Court held that the impugned proceedings were unsustainable in law.

39. (2026) 44 Centax 203 (Cal.) M.M. Motors v. Senior Joint Commissioner of Revenue dated 13.07.2026.

Adjudication order digitally authenticated within statutory limitation remains valid, although served later and enforceability commences only upon service as per section 169.

FACTS

Petitioner faced adjudication under section 73 for April 2018 to March 2019. Respondent digitally signed the adjudication order on 30 April 2024, the extended limitation’s final day and uploaded the order and Form GST DRC-07 on the common portal on 1st May 2024. The petitioner preferred a statutory appeal after making the prescribed pre-deposit. The appellate authority disposed the appeal by varying the original demand and issued a consequential demand. The petitioner though did not question merits of the appeal; however, challenged the respondent’s competence and validity to enforce the adjudication order which, though based on digital signature within limitation, the service of the order was made after the expiry of limitation period. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the limitation under section 73 governs the issuance of the order and not its subsequent service. Digital authentication on 30.04.2024 completed the adjudication within the prescribed limitation, while uploading the order on 01.05.2024 merely effected service under section 169. Such subsequent communication neither altered the date of issuance nor rendered the order time-barred, although the order became enforceable only upon valid service. Relying on R.K. Upadhyaya vs. Shanabhai P. Patel, (1987) 3 SCC 96 dated 28.04.1987, which distinguishes issuance within limitation from subsequent service as separate statutory acts, the Court held that the CGST Act consciously separates issuance under section 73 from service under section 169. Consequently, the petitioner’s challenge was rejected and the writ petition was dismissed.

40. 2026 (7) TMI 575 Kuehne Nagel Pvt. Ltd. & Anr. vs The Union of India & Ors.(Guj) dated 02.07.2026.

When an original refund claim was unlawfully rejected and decided in favour of Appellant as per Court’s direction, interest must be computed from original claim’s date and not from subsequent application.

FACTS

Petitioner filed an original refund application. Respondent declined to process that application despite supporting certification submitted by the petitioner. Petitioner earlier challenged that refusal before the Hon’ble High Court. The refusal was set aside and the respondent was directed to process the refund claim lawfully. Following that decision, the petitioner filed another refund application. Respondent sanctioned refund of Rs.2,29,32,535/- but rejected claimed interest of Rs.29,51,700/- under section 56 of the CGST Act. Respondent treated the later application as the relevant date for determining delayed-refund interest. Being aggrieved, the petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that the petitioner’s entitlement to interest must be determined with reference to the original refund application and not the subsequent application, which was necessitated by the respondent’s unlawful rejection of the original claim. Accordingly, the later filing could not displace the date of the initial refund application for the purposes of section 56. Relying on Kuehne Plus Nagel Private Limited vs. Union of India, 2025 (12) TMI 310, dated 06.11.2025, which held that a duly supported original refund claim must be processed in accordance with law. Court set aside the impugned order insofar as it denied interest and directed the respondent to reconsider the petitioner’s claim by treating the original refund application as the relevant date.

41. (2026) 38 Centax 331 (Guj.) Jyoti Agro vs. Deputy Commissioner of State Tax dated 08.01.2026.

Refund satisfying substantive statutory conditions cannot be denied merely because portal restrictions or technical defects obstructing the prescribed electronic filing procedure.

FACTS

Petitioner exported goods and accumulated unutilised ITC from zero-rated supplies and filed a refund application under section 54(3) of the CGST Act with supporting documents. Shipping bills could not be uploaded because the portal restricted file size. Respondent also declined to accept their hard copies and rejected the application for alleged defects in the undertaking and declaration. After re-credit, the portal prevented another refund application for the same period. Petitioner therefore filed an application under the “Any Other” category with documents. Respondent issued a deficiency memo citing Rule 89(5) and absence of ledger debit, therefore Petitioner was compelled to reverse the entire ITC once again. Aggrieved, Petitioner approached the Hon’ble High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court held that substantive entitlement to refund cannot be defeated by portal limitations or procedural technicalities. The petitioner had made bona fide efforts to comply with the statutory requirements, furnished the necessary documents, and subsequently reversed the entire ITC through Form GST DRC-03. Relying on Shree Renuka Sugars Limited vs. State of Gujarat (2023) 8 Centax 235 dated 13.07.2023, which held that technical defects cannot defeat a refund where the substantive statutory conditions are satisfied, the Court directed the respondent to verify the documents and decide the petitioner’s fresh manual or electronic refund application on merits. It further held that no objection on the ground of limitation could be raised and an appropriate order was to be passed within six weeks.

42. [2026] 188 taxmann.com 168 (Telangana) SDE Engineers Ltd vs. Commercial Tax Officer dated 03-07-2026.

After examining the lease rent agreements between the parties, the Hon’ble Court held that the activity of leasing office spaces along with all amenities and furniture, including movable assets like furniture, fixtures and equipment, does not constitute transfer of right to use goods liable for VAT.

FACTS

The petitioners are engaged in construction of high-rise buildings in the industrial technology park and the same are let out to software companies in terms of the lease agreement along with all facilities and amenities such as IP floor, centralized air conditioning, raw power supply up to the distribution board, light fittings and functional toilets, portable drinking water facility, electricity, sub-station, DG Power Pack, sewage power plant, fully equipped kitchen and cafeteria, furniture, other fixtures etc. The movability of certain amenities is not disputed by the petitioners. The VAT Department levied tax on rental income received by the petitioners on immovable property along with facilities like generators, air conditioners, transformers, lifts and other amenities like furniture and fit-outs to the lessees under section 4(8) of the Andhra Pradesh Value Added Tax, 2005. The question of law before the Hon’ble Court was “whether the rent received by the petitioners towards immovable property would be amenable to tax under the APVAT Act and under section 5E of the APGST Act (a Pre-GST Act levying tax on transfers the right to use any goods) and whether the petitioners are liable to pay tax for the rental income received on the supply of interiors, furniture and fixtures?” The primary contention of the petitioners was that the entire consideration received by them from the IT companies was by way of rent, and that service tax had been paid on the entire consideration so received.

HELD

After considering the terms of the lease agreement between the parties, the Hon’ble Court observed that the petitioners have not parted with possession or control of the properties, except to the limited extent of permitting the tenants to use them as part of the common amenities and facilities provided under the lease. It further observed that, in several instances, such facilities are intended for the common use of more than one tenant and that rentals are charged on a per-square-foot basis and not separately in respect of furniture and fixtures. After examining the legislative rationale behind the enactment of Article 366(29A) and various judicial pronouncements, the Hon’ble Court held that the VAT department could not have, merely on the basis of presumption, bifurcated the composite lease rentals into components attributable to movable and immovable properties. Referring to Para 97 of the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited [2006] 2 STR 161 (SC), and upon comparing the ingredient stated therein with the facts of the present case, and the terms and conditions of the lease deeds, the Court held that the said requirement is not satisfied since the goods were not specifically identified for delivery as per any clause of the lease deeds. The Court further held that the agreement only prescribed that the petitioners shall provide the service of making available certain facilities and amenities that could be suspended by the petitioners and that the furniture, fixtures and equipment were replaceable. The Court also held that there is no legal right to use goods, insofar as the agreement does not specifically prescribe the same and that effective control and possession are with the landlord and the legal consequences of use are not transferred to the tenants. It held that the goods are not used to the exclusion of the petitioner and that common facilities, including a cafeteria, are commonly used by employees of several IT companies, including the employees of petitioners stationed in the building. The Hon’ble Court thus concluded that the rent paid by the tenants to the petitioners/landlords towards the furniture, equipment, and other movable items provided in the kitchen and cafeteria, in respect of which the tenants have paid rent, would not be amenable to tax under the APGST Act (VAT regime), as such payments arise out of a contract of service.

43. [2026] 188 taxmann.com 508 (Orissa) Magnum Estates (P.) Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner, GST (Appeals) dated 15-07-2026.

When the amount of interest was wrongly mentioned in DRC-07 as tax, the Court set aside the order of the first appellate authority after observing that although the Order-In-Original is rectified, the First Appellate Authority cannot rectify his order.

FACTS

In the course of Audit under section 65 of the GST Act, the petitioner was found to have availed wrong input tax credit in respect of exempt supply. The petitioner reversed the credit, but no interest was paid. Therefore, a show cause notice was issued demanding interest and penalty. In DRC-07, the amount of interest is wrongly shown as demand towards tax, preventing the petitioner from filing the appeal without making payment of pre-deposit. The petitioner filed an appeal before the First Appellate Authority, which was dismissed on 29-09-2025. In the meantime, the Original Authority rectified the Order-in-Original exercising power under section 161 of the GST Act on 28-01-2016.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court declined to entertain the petition on merits as it involved verification of facts. However, the Hon’ble Court perceived that if the petitioner is directed to avail the alternate remedy available under section 112 and were asked to pay pre-deposit of interest, when the law does not require them to do so, justice would not be sub-served. The Court was informed that although the Order-in-Original was subsequently modified, the appellant authority is unable to modify the Order-In-Appeal, as the period for rectification under section 161 of the CGST Act has already lapsed and there is no provision to recall the order of the First Appellate Authority. In these circumstances, the Hon’ble Court set aside the Order of the First Appellate Authority and the matter was remitted to the Appellate Authority for deciding the appeal on merit afresh without being swayed by the earlier order.

II GSTAT

44. [2026] 188 taxmann.com 445 (GSTAT – NEW DELHI) Manoranjan Dash vs. Commissioner, Odisha, Commissionerate of CT GST dated 08-07-2026.

No additional pre-deposit is required for filing an appeal before the Tribunal where the mandatory pre-deposit already paid at the first appellate stage exceeds the pre-deposit required on the balance tax amount that remains in dispute after the relief granted by the First Appellate Authority.

FACTS

The appellant preferred an appeal to the First Appellate Authority against the said Order confirming excess Input Tax Credit to the tune of Rs.11,34,474/-, paying 10% pre-deposit to the extent of Rs.1,13,447/-. The Learned First Appellate Authority reduced the total amount to Rs.1,02,012/- towards tax. As the appellant had already deposited a pre-deposit of Rs.1,13,447/- which was much in excess of the 10% of the confirmed tax demand as per the First Appellate Authority’s order, i.e. Rs.10,201, the appellant did not pay additional pre-deposit, treating that the pre-deposit paid at the first appellate level is sufficient to cover the pre-deposit requirement at the second appeal.

HELD

Referring to the decision of Hon’ble Jharkhand High Court in the case of Ashirwad Food Industries vs. Union of India [2026] 183 taxmann.com 563/114 GST 463/107 GSTL 89 (Jharkhand), the Tribunal held that no further pre-deposit is required to be made under section 112 of the Act

Recent Developments in GST

A. CIRCULARS

Clarification regarding jurisdiction change due to Business Migration

Circular no.255/01/2026-GST dated 25.06.2026

By the above circular, clarification has been provided regarding the jurisdictional position when a registered taxpayer shifts the principal place of business and migrates to another GST jurisdiction is given.

B. GSTN

(a) GSTN has issued Advisory dated 01.07.2026 on the revision of the timeline for amendment of Aggregate Annual Turnover (AATO), 2026.

(b) GSTN has issued an Advisory dated 17.06.2026 in relation to e-Invoice API and e-Way Bill by IRN API changes for mandatory capture of Ship-to GSTIN and Voluntary closure of e-Way Bill.

(c) GSTN has also issued FAQs dated 01.07.2026 on Bill-to/Ship-to Transactions, Export scenarios and API Impact

C. ADVANCE RULINGS

21. Pon Pure Chemical India Pvt. Ltd. (AAR Order No. GUJ/GAAR/R/2026/23 (In App. No. Advance Ruling/SGST & CGST/2025/AR/31) dt.24.06.2026)(Guj)

Liquidated damages payable by the transporters to the applicant for various material defects, breaches and non-performance of the obligations, etc., does not constitute consideration for supply. Such receipts are not liable to GST.

The applicant is engaged in the business of chemicals. For the movement of chemicals from supplier’s location to the applicant’s location or from the applicant’s place of business to the Customer’s place of business or Port etc. the applicant has engaged different transporters. The chemicals being transported , are susceptible to certain unavoidable losses during transportation due to evaporation, spillage, leakages, weight loss due to moisture, absorption or desorption, compaction, etc. As per Industry norms, there is an agreed tolerance limit for such losses. Losses within tolerance limit are anticipated, and the applicant accepts the same, with no recovery being made from the transporters. However, losses exceeding the agreed threshold are considered breaches of the contractual terms, prompting the applicant to seek compensation from transporters for the excess loss. The various circumstances under which compensation is received from the transporters, as well as the quantum of such compensation, are narrated in the advance ruling order.

Under above circumstances, the applicant posed following question before ld. AAR.

“Whether the amount from the transporters as a compensation for loss would be considered as a “Supply of services” by the applicant as per para 5(e) of Schedule II of Section 7 of Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017?”

The applicant submitted its case regarding the non-liability of the above compensation, citing various provisions of law, including that the amount received from the transporters against the above loss of goods being transported cannot be considered as a ‘supply of service’ under Para 5(e) of Schedule II read with Section 7 of the CGST Act and, therefore, GST cannot be levied on such activity. The provisions of the Indian Contract Act,1972 were also cited. Various judgments were also cited.

It was also informed that the applicant had already reversed the Input Tax Credit (ITC) in respect of goods which were lost in transit, in compliance with the provisions of the GST law.

The ld. AAR noted that though there is no formal contract or agreement between the applicant and the transporters for compensation to be paid by the transporters to the applicant, there was a contract for transportation between the applicant and the transporters, wherein a general reference was found to have been made with regard to the compensation claimed by the applicant.

Details of circumstances, under which the compensation is to be paid by the transporters are also available in said transport agreement.

The ld. AAR referred to meaning of Liquidated damages in the Dictionary as well as, as given in Circular No. 178/10/2022-GST dated 3.8.2022.

The ld. AAR observed that the liquidated damages or penalty are not the desired outcome of the contract and that, by accepting the liquidated damages, the party aggrieved by breach of contract cannot be said to have permitted or tolerated the deviation or non-fulfilment of the promise by the other party. The ld. AAR held that compensation in given facts of applicant constituted liquidated damages payable by the transporters to the applicant for various material defects, breaches and non-performance of the obligations as per the contractual terms and, therefore, such receipts are not liable to GST, as they do not constitute consideration for a supply and are not within the ambit of ‘supply of services’.

The ruling was given in favour of the applicant.

22. Sunil Vishvasrao Khune (AAR Order No. GST/ARA-54/2020-21/B-51 dt.30.3.2026)(Mah)

ITC is available on the inputs and input services used in the construction of commercial property which is sold to customers before receipt of the Occupation Certificate/Completion Certificate from the concerned municipal authorities.

The applicant and his wife, out of their surplus/saving funds, had jointly purchased a property/plot of land by an agreement dated 23.7.2003. The said plot was recognized as a capital asset in the personal Balance sheet of the applicant and his wife till date.

The applicant & his wife are not in any business activity in their individual capacity.

The applicant and his wife, with an intention to earn fixed monthly income in the form of rentals, after their retirement, proposed to develop the above plot of land and re-construct the structure thereon as new commercial building. In order to meet the financial requirements for the said construction, the applicant decided to sale few units while under Construction and to generate funds therefrom. With the above back ground, the applicant sought an advance ruling in respect of the following questions.

“1. Whether the activity of construction / developing commercial units on vacant plot of land being acquired as capital asset out of surplus funds be treated as in the course or furtherance of business in respect of income generated on account of following transactions:

a. Sale of commercial units to prospective buyers

b. Rent received on leasing of commercial units

2. If yes, whether input tax credit be eligible for inputs & input services used for the construction of commercial units in case of above transactions i.e.

a. Sale of commercial units to prospective buyers

b. Rent received on leasing of commercial units”

In support of non-liability, various arguments, such as absence of any intention to carry on business, salary back ground, treatment of the property as a capital asset and not as stock in trader etc. were forwarded.

The ld. AAR, referring to definition of ‘business’, observed that any trade, commerce or similar activity would amount to a business, whether or not it is for a pecuniary benefit. The ld. AAR noted that, as per the meaning of ‘commerce’ in general parlance, it is the exchange of goods or services on a large scale between two persons. The ld. AAR observed that the literal meaning of the phrase ‘in the course of or furtherance of business’ means either of following:

Anything done in relation to business while carrying out business; or

Or

simply a revenue-generating ordinary activity of that organization/concern.

The ld. AAR held that the activity of sale of units in an under construction commercial premises/property to prospective buyers would be classified as a business under GST and would amount to a supply under GST. It was further held that leasing of the premises on rent is also a commercial activity which amounts to a supply under GST and is liable to GST.

Regarding ITC, the ld. AAR referred to section 17(5)(d) and held that ITC is not available on the goods or services received by a taxable person for construction of an immovable property on his own account, including when such goods or services or both are used in the course or furtherance of business.

In view of retrospective amendment, the ld. AAR held that the judgment of Hon. Supreme Court in case of Chief Commissioner of CGST & Ors. Vs. M/s Safari Retreats Private Ltd. & Ors. (Civil Appeal No. 2948 of 2023 – 2024-VIL-45-SC) would not be applicable.

Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that the applicant is not eligible to avail input tax credit on the GST paid on the goods or services or both used for the construction of the immovable property to the extent the units are not sold and are treated as his own property.

So far as in respect of sale of commercial property to prospective buyers is concerned , the ld. AAR held that ITC is available on the inputs and input services used in the construction of commercial property which is sold to customers before receipt of the Occupation Certificate/Completion Certificate from the concerned municipal authorities.

Thus, the ld. AAR disposed of application by clarifying the issues as above.

23. The Assistant Commissioner of Revenue, Shibpur Div., Howrah Commissionerate, CGST & Cx. Vs. Navya Electric Vehicle Pvt. Ltd. (AAR Order No.01/WBAAAR/APPEAL/2026-27 dt.6.4.2026)(WB)

Classification – E-Rickshaw Components in CKD form.

This appeal was filed by department against the ruling passed by the WBAAR vide order no. 26/WBAAR/2025-26 dated 16.1.2026, reported in 2026-VIL-05-AAR (reported in March,2026 issue of BCAJ), in respect of the application for Advance Ruling filed by M/s. Navya Electric Vehicle Pvt. Ltd.

The question before the ld. AAR was:

“Whether the supply of a complete set of components of an electric three-wheeler vehicle (e- rickshaw) in Completely Knocked Down (CKD) form, necessary and sufficient for the assembly of the finished vehicle, should be classified as:

(a) the finished vehicle itself or

(b) a set of various individual parts.”

The ld. AAR, in its ruling, held that when the CKD form includes the motor and any three of the other four major components (other than the motor), viz. transmission, axles, chassis and controller, in proportionate numbers for the assembly of the finished vehicle, then they will be covered by the entry at Serial no.441 of Schedule I of Central Notification no.09/2025-Central Tax (Rate) dated 17.9.2025 and liable to tax @ 5%.

The department challenged above ruling on various grounds, including with reference to the meaning of E-Rickshaw and the Rules of interpretation.

The ld. AAAR noted that the principle underlying the ruling is that once the goods supplied possess the essential character of an e-rickshaw, the provisions of Rule 2(a) of the Rules of interoperation becomes applicable and the supply is required to be classified as the complete article, notwithstanding that the vehicle is supplied in an unassembled condition.

The ld. AAAR held that such principle will apply in a case involving the supply of an e-rickshaw in completely knocked down or semi-knocked down condition, but would not apply where only certain specified components, even if major or critical in nature, are supplied.

The ld. AAAR observed that the test adopted by the AAR regarding the supply of a motor together with any three out of four identified components to consider it as a supply of an e-Rickshaw, does not emerge from the language of Rule 2(a), the Customs Tariff or the relevant GST rate notification.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR reversed the AAR and held that;

“I. Classification as an electrically operated vehicle in knocked down condition, and GST rate of 5% on the finished vehicle itself shall be applicable only where:

a) all components necessary for assembly of a complete e-rickshaw are supplied together as a single identifiable unit, kit or package;

b) the components supplied constitute a complete CKD/SKD kit requiring only assembly and not the addition of any essential component.

c) the purchase order, invoice, packing list and other contemporaneous commercial records consistently establish that the transaction is for supply of an e-rickshaw in CKD/SKD condition; and,

d) the actual contents of the consignment correspond with the description contained in such commercial records.

III. Failure to satisfy any of the aforesaid conditions would result in the goods being classified as individual parts and components and taxed at the rate applicable thereto.”

24 Eastern Coalfields Ltd. (AAR Order No.04/WBAAR/ 2026-27 dt.5.6.2026)(WB)

Reclaim of ITC upon retrospective Amendment

The facts are that the applicant had entered into a contract with M/s. China Coal Overseas Development Co. Ltd. (here-in-after referred to as “CODCO”) for a Longwall Mining project vide agreement dated 19.12.2015. In respect of the said contract, the applicant availed services from M/s. Gayatri Projects Ltd. (GPL).

M/s. GPL had raised 3 invoices on applicant against the work done in the months of January 2020, February 2020, and March 2020 on 01.01.2020, 01.02.2020 and 02.03.2020 respectively. Based on the invoices issued by GPL, the applicant had availed ITC. However, owing to the outbreak of COVID-19 pandemic and financial constraints, GST Returns for the said months were filed belatedly, i.e. beyond the cut off period, by the supplier, M/s. GPL. In the above facts, the applicant filed an application for Advance Ruling.

Vide Order No. 07/WBAAR/2021-22 dated 09.08.2021 – 2021-VIL-345-AAR, the ld. AAR, on the facts of the case, held that the ITC availed by the applicant on the invoices raised by GPL would be required to be reversed by the applicant in view of Rule 36 (4) of the CGST/WBGST Rules 2017. Accordingly, during the course of the Advance Ruling proceedings, the applicant reversed the ITC availed earlier on the disputed invoices and intimated the compliance to its jurisdictional officer.

There was an amendment to the GST Act vide Notification no.17/2024-Central Tax dated 17.9.2024, by which section 16(5) was inserted into the CGST Act.

The applicant believed that, pursuant to insertion of Section 16(5) of the CGST Act, 2017, the ITC originally availed pertaining to the months January, February and March 2020, was fully eligible, as the same was availed in the monthly GSTR returns filed before 30th November 2021 and GPL had also filed its GSTR-1 monthly returns on 17.11.2020, well before 30th November 2021.

In this background, the applicant has approached this ld. AAR with following new question:

“Whether, in view of the insertion of sub-section (5) of Section 16 of the CGST/WBGST Act, 2017, by the Finance Act (No 2) of 2024, which operates retrospectively w.e.f. July 2017, whether the applicant is now entitled to reclaim the Input Tax Credit on inward supplies on invoices issued by the Vendor/Supplier pertaining to the tax period January, February and March 2020 which have already been reversed pursuant to the Order of the Advance Ruling Authority dated 09.08.2021?”

Pursuant to the retrospective amendment, the applicant sought to reclaim the ITC that had earlier been reversedThe ld. AAR referred to Section 150 of the Finance (No.2) Act,2024, which provides that:

‘No refund shall be made of all the tax paid or the input tax credit reversed, which would not have been so paid, or not reversed, had section 118 been in force at all material times’

The ld. AAR observed that, since it was a case of re-availing of ITC that had already been reversed, the reclaim of the same would tantamount to a refund of Input Tax Credit and was, therefore, barred by the above provision.

Based on above analysis, the ld. AAR held that the reclaim of the reversed ITC is not permissible.

25. The Deputy Commissioner, State Tax, Bowbazar Charge, Govt. of WB vs. Om Jai Balajee Construction Pvt. Ltd. (AAAR Order No.03/WBAAR/Appeal/2026 dt.2.7.2026)(WB)

Classification – Sun-cured tobacco leaves

This appeal was filed by the Department against the Ruling passed by the WBAAR, vide Advance Ruling Order No. 28/WBAAR/2025-26 dated 13.02.2026 (2026-VIL-31-AAR) in respect of the application for Advance Ruling filed by M/s Om Jai Balajee Construction Private Limited.

The Respondent intended to procure tobacco leaves directly from cultivators/farmers and supply the same, without undertaking any further processing, to other dealers.

The applicant raised the following questions before the ld. AAR:

“(i) What would be the applicable rate of GST on tobacco leaves sold to the other traders, by the Respondent as they were purchased from farmers after sun curing in the fields, without undertaking any processing except the storage/ stocking of the leaves?

(ii) What would be the applicable rate of GST if the Respondent segregates the tobacco into grades depending upon their size (width), colour /shade, length, texture of the leaf etc., and sells such graded tobacco leaf?

(iii) What would be the applicable rate of GST if the tobacco leaves are sold to other dealers after removing the butts to avoid damage to leaves during transportation etc.?”

Upon appreciating submissions from both sides, the ld. AAR took the view that tobacco, which is not stemmed or stripped, retains the essential character of tobacco leaves and that the tariff itself recognises cured tobacco as tobacco leaves.

The ld. AAR also observed that curing does not alter the essential character of tobacco leaves and merely renders them commercially fit for further use, and that they do not lose their character as tobacco leaves merely because moisture and sap are removed through the curing process.

The ld. AAR ruled that;

(a) sun-cured tobacco leaves supplied after storage or stocking; (b) graded tobacco leaves; and (c) tobacco leaves subjected to butting,  continue to retain their character as tobacco leaves and are classifiable under Tariff Item 240110. Accordingly, the Authority held that the above supplies are covered by Entry No. 162 of Schedule I to Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate), as amended, and are liable to GST at the rate of 5%.

The argument of appellant before AAAR was that, though “Tobacco Leaves” attract GST at the rate of 5%, “Unmanufactured Tobacco (other than tobacco leaves)” attract GST at the higher rate prescribed under the relevant GST rate notification, and therefore the higher rate should be applied.

Looking to the basic nature of tobacco leaves, the ld. AAAR concurred with the AAR and held that sun-cured tobacco leaves procured from farmers and supplied by the respondent without any further processing, except storage or stocking, as well as tobacco leaves subjected only to grading, bundling or butting, continue to retain their character as “tobacco leaves” and are rightly covered under Entry No. 162 of Schedule I to Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate), as amended from time to time, and are liable to GST at the rate of 5%. The appeal of department was, thus, rejected.

Sanction For Reassessment – Retrospective Applicability Of Proviso To Section 151

The authors examine whether the 2023 amendment to Section 151, aligning sanctioning authorities with Section 149’s extended time limits, applies retrospectively. For reassessment notices issued beyond three years between 2021 and 2023, the Ahmedabad Tribunal deemed the proviso clarificatory, validating sanctions by the Principal Commissioner. Conversely, the Mumbai Tribunal and Bombay High Court ruled the amendment prospective, finding such sanctions invalid without Principal Chief Commissioner approval. They emphasize that Section 149(2) subordinates limitation periods to Section 151’s mandates. Although the Finance Act 2023 resolved this for subsequent notices, earlier cases remain contested.

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

The time limit for issue of notices for reassessment under section 148 are contained in section 149(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”). This time limit (as it stood on 1st April 2022) was 3 years from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless an asset, expenditure in respect of a transaction, event or occasion or entry in books of account, of a value of more than Rs.50 lakh, had escaped assessment, in which case the time limit was 10 years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

This time limit stood extended by the third and fourth provisos to section 149(1) (applicable from 1st April 2021 till 1st September 2024), which read as under:

“…Provided also that for the purposes of computing the period of limitation as per this section, the time or extended time allowed to the assessee, as per show-cause notice issued under clause (b) of section 148A or the period during which the proceeding under section 148A is stayed by an order or injunction of any court, shall be excluded:

Provided also that where immediately after the exclusion of the period referred to in the immediately preceding proviso, the period of limitation available to the Assessing Officer for passing an order under clause (d) of section 148A is less than seven days, such remaining period shall be extended to seven days and the period of limitation under this sub-section shall be deemed to be extended accordingly…”

Section 151 of the Act stipulates the authority who is required to grant sanction for issue of notice under section 148. From 1st April 2021 till 31st March 2023, section 151 read as under:

“Specified authority for the purposes of section 148 and section 148A shall be,—

(i) Principal Commissioner or Principal Director or Commissioner or Director, if three years or less than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year;

(ii) Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or Chief Commissioner or Director General, if more than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year:”

This section 151 was amended with effect from 1st April 2023, by insertion of a proviso to this section, which read as under:

Provided that the period of three years for the purposes of Clause (i) shall be computed after taking into account, the period of limitation as excluded by the third, fourth and fifth provisos or extended by the sixth proviso to sub section (1) of Section 149 of the Act.”

An issue has arisen before the Tribunal as to whether the insertion of the above proviso to section 151 with effect from 1st April 2023 is clarificatory in nature and therefore retrospective in operation. In particular, for the period from 1st April 2021 to 31st March 2023, where a notice was issued under section 148 on any date subsequent to the expiry of the relevant time limit of 3 years for issue of such notice (i.e. beyond the period of 3 years), by applying the third or fourth proviso to section 149(1), which was the relevant authority for grant of sanction for issue of notice – the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (“Pr CIT”) or Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax (“Pr CCIT”)? In other words, could there be different time limits for issue of notice and for sanctioning of such a notice? Once the time limit for issue of notice is extended, will it also be extended to the power of the Pr. CIT to sanction such a notice, which otherwise was required to be sanctioned by Pr. CCIT only?

The reassessment Authority Rift

While the Ahmedabad bench of the Tribunal has taken a view that the insertion of the above proviso, extending the date for sanction of issue of notice, is clarificatory in nature and therefore applies retrospectively, and that the sanction by the Pr. CIT in such a case was valid, the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal has held that the proviso operated prospectively, and therefore sanction by the Pr. CIT was invalid in such a case. In other words, the issue is about the authority who should have sanctioned the notice within the extended time; the Pr. CIT or the Pr. CCIT. The amendment by the Finance Act, 2023 seeks to settle this conflict for notices issued and sanctioned on or after 1st April, 2023.

PINKIBEN RIDDHESHKUMAR BHANDARI’S CASE

The issue recently came up before the Ahmedabad Bench of the Tribunal in the case of DCIT vs Pinkiben Riddheshkumar Bhandari, TS-954-ITAT-2026 (AHD).

This was a case pertaining to AY 2018-19, where a notice under section 148A, asking the assessee to show cause as to why proceedings under section 148 should not be initiated, was issued on 11th March 2022, to which the assessee filed a reply on 19th March 2022. A notice under section 148 was subsequently issued on 7th April 2022, after obtaining the approval of the Pr. CIT, alleging that income of Rs.44.19 lakh had escaped assessment.

The reassessment proceedings were completed by making the addition of Rs.44.19 lakh on account of bogus long-term capital gains, based on information obtained from the Insight Portal.
In first appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the addition made by the AO both on legal grounds as well as on merits. The Commissioner (Appeals) noted that the income alleged to have escaped assessment was less than Rs.50 lakhs. He observed that as per the provisions of section 149 as in force during the relevant period, no notice under section 148 could have been issued for the relevant assessment year if three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless the case fell under clause (b). As the case of the assessee was clearly covered under section 149(1)(a), the three years’ time period from the end of the relevant year expired on 31 March 2022. Since the notice was issued on 7 April 2022, the same was held to be time barred by the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Commissioner (Appeals) also noted that no notice under section 148 could be issued without the prior approval of the specified authority. As per the provisions of section 151 as in force during the relevant period, the specified authority for the purpose of section 148 and section 148A was the Pr. CIT if three years or less than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. In other cases, it was the Pr. CCIT where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year.

The Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the relevant assessment year in this case was AY 2018-19, and the three-year time period had elapsed on 31 March 2022, and also that the notice under section 148 was issued on 7 April 2022 after obtaining the prior approval of the Pr. CIT. Since, as per the provisions of section 151(ii), the competent authority to give approval after the lapse of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year was the Pr. CCIT, therefore the notice issued under section 148 was liable to be quashed.

In further appeal, the Tribunal examined the third and fourth provisos to section 149(1) as they then stood for the relevant period. It observed that these provisos had escaped the attention of the Commissioner (Appeals). The notice under section 148A(b) was issued by the AO on 11 March 2022, and the reply to that was filed by the assessee on 19 March 2022. As per the third proviso to section 149(1), the limitation period stopped running on 11 March 2022 and restarted on 19 March 2022. Further, as per the fourth proviso, if, after exclusion of the time period allowed to the assessee for filing reply to the notice under section 148A(b), the period of limitation available to the AO for passing order under section 148A(d) was less than seven days, the remaining period was extended to seven days. The Tribunal accordingly held that after excluding the time period of eight days from the date of issue of notice under section 148A(b) till the date of filing of reply by the assessee to this notice, the order under section 148A(d) was passed in time and the notice under section 148 had been issued well within the limitation period.

The Tribunal held that, for the purposes of section 151, the limitation period as provided under section 149, including the extended period under the third and fourth provisos for calculating the time period of three years, would also apply. Therefore, in the view of the tribunal, the three years from the end of the relevant year had to be counted as per the provisions of section 149 for obtaining approval of the specified authority.

The Tribunal observed that it would be an implausible, far-fetched and unconvincing interpretation of the relevant provisions of Sections 149 read with Section 151, to interpret that the three years’ limitation period for issuing of notice u/s 148 as prescribed u/s 149 and that for obtaining approval of the specified authority u/s 151, were different. Both the provisions of Sections 149 and 151, as held by the Tribunal, were required to be read in consonance and in harmony with each other as they operated collectively and not in isolation to each other. Therefore, the three-year period from the relevant assessment year for issuing notice under section 148 and for obtaining section under section 151 had to be counted after excluding the extended period as provided under the third and fourth provisos to section 149.

The Tribunal further noted that this anomaly stood removed by the insertion of the proviso to section 151 by the Finance Act, 2023 with effect from 1 April 2023, which read as under:

“… Provided that the period of three years for the purposes of clause (1) shall be computed after taking into account the period of limitation as excluded by the third or fourth or fifth provisos or extended by the sixth proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149.”

The Tribunal was of the view that this proviso was clarificatory in nature, and supported the view taken by it. Merely because this proviso had been inserted with effect from 1 April 2023, in the view of the tribunal, that would not lead to any conclusion that, before such insertion, the provisions of section 151 were to be read on a standalone basis and in isolation from the provisions of section 149. As per the view taken by the tribunal, even before the insertion of the proviso to section 151, the provisions of sections 149 and 151 had to be read together to arrive at a harmonious view. Hence the period of three years could not be different for the purpose of computing limitation for the issuance of notice under section 148 and for obtaining approval of the specified authority under section 151.

The Tribunal therefore decided this issue against the assessee and in favour of the revenue, holding that the sanction by the Pr. CIT (instead of the Pr. CCIT), during the extended period, was valid.

SHABBIR TAHERI’S CASE

The issue had come up earlier before the Mumbai bench of the tribunal in the case of Shabbir Taheri v ITO, ITA No 1574/Mum/2025, adjudicated by the order dated 15 October 2025.

In this case, the AO had issued show cause notice under section 148A(b) on 20 March 2022. In response to this notice, the assessee furnished his reply on 30 March 2022. After considering the reply of the assessee, the AO passed an order under section 148A(d) on 6 April 2022. Simultaneously, the AO issued notice under section 148 on 6 April 2022, proposing to reassess the income for AY 2018-2019, after obtaining the prior approval of the Pr. CIT on the same day.

The issue of sanction by the Pr. CIT was contested in appeal by the assessee but the appeal was dismissed by the Commissioner (Appeals).

Before the Tribunal, it was argued on behalf of the assessee, that after the expiry of three years from the end of the assessment year under dispute, as per section 151(ii), the specified authority who could grant sanction/approval under section 148A and 148 was only the Pr. CCIT. Since the approval/sanction in the case had been obtained from the Pr. CIT, it was invalid. Hence, all actions taken by the AO pursuant to such approval were also invalid.

On behalf of the revenue, reliance was placed upon a decision of the Mumbai bench of the tribunal in the case of Albert Joseph Rosario v ITO, ITA No 1168/Mum/2025, order dated 22nd July 2025. In this case, a view had been taken that the limitation prescribed under section 149(1) for issuance of notice under section 148 would authorise the Pr. CIT to grant sanction for issue of notice as provided under section 151. As per the reasoning of the bench in that decision, applying the provisions contained in third and fourth proviso to section 149(1) as it then stood, the three year period in terms with section 151(i) was to be determined after excluding the time allowed to the assessee as per show cause notice issued under section 148(b); and further additional time of seven days thereafter to the AO to issue the notice under section 148. The Tribunal chose not to follow the ratio of this decision in view of the other decisions referred to by it in the order.

In adjudicating the appeal in the case under consideration, i.e. Shabbir Taheri’s case, the bench, including the Vice-President of the Tribunal, analyzed the provisions relating to reassessment prior to 1 April 2021, and those as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 with effect from 1 April 2021. The Tribunal noted that section 149(2) provided that the limitation prescribed under section 149(1) for issuance of notice shall be subject to the provisions of Section 151. As per the Tribunal, the use of the word ‘shall’ in section 149(2) made it clear that the limitation prescribed u/s. 149 for issuance of notice u/s. 148 was subject to the timeline prescribed u/s. 151. In other words, the limitation prescribed u/s. 149(1) would not override the timeline prescribed for grant of approval by the specified authority u/s. 151.

The Tribunal noted that the specified authority for grant of sanction before expiry of 3 years from the end of the assessment year was the Pr. CIT, while if more than three years had elapsed, the specified authority was the Pr. CCIT. It found it noteworthy that while the third and fourth provisos were added to section 149(1) effective from 1st April 2021, no corresponding amendment was made to section 151. The proviso to section 151 was added only by the Finance Act, 2023 effective from 1st April 2023. Therefore, as per section 151, as it stood prior to the 2023 amendment, the limitation prescribed under clause (i) of section 151 was three years from the end of the relevant assessment year, without the benefit of further extension as under third, fourth or fifth proviso to section 149(1).

Therefore, according to the Tribunal, keeping in view the provision contained under sub section (2) of section 149 (which made the limitation provided u/s. 149(1) subject to the timeline provided u/s. 151) the limitation provided u/s. 149(1) (including the provisos), could not get imported for the purpose of extending the limitation u/s. 151(i), prior to the amendment of section 151 by Finance Act, 2023. That being the case, the timeline for sanction by specified authority fixed u/s. 151 of the Act had to be scrupulously followed.

The Tribunal relied upon the following decisions of the Bombay High Court, where it had been held that the sanctioning authority for notices issued after expiry of three years was the Pr. CCIT and that the proviso to section 151 would not be applicable in such cases:

Vodafone India Limited, WP No 2678 of 2022

Mystique Media Pvt Ltd v ITO, WP(L) No 12562 of 2024

Punrima Jitendra Navsariwala v ITO, WP No 7 of 2024

Agnello Oswin Dias v ACIT 161 taxmann.com 16 (Bom)

The Tribunal also noted that the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal, after considering the Bombay High Court decision in the case of Vodafone India, had considered the identical issue in the following cases, and decided the matter in favour of the assessee:

Davos International Fund v ACIT, ITA No 1190/Mum/2024

Asha P Kedia 174 taxmann.com 99 (Mum)

The Tribunal also observed that sections 149 and 151 had been enacted for different purposes and operated in different situations. While section 149 prescribed limitation for issuance of notice u/s. 148 and 148A, section 151 prescribed the timeline for the specified authority to grant sanction for sections 148 and 148A. It reiterated that in absence of any enabling provision u/s. 151, the third, fourth, fifth or sixth provisos of section 149(1) could not be read into section 151 to authorise the Pr. CIT to grant sanction for issue of notice under section 148 during the extended time limit u/s. 151(i).

The Tribunal therefore set aside the notice under section 148 for want of sanction from the appropriate authority, and therefore quashed the resultant reassessment order.

OBSERVATIONS

At the outset it is relevant to note that the Tribunal, in holding that the sanction by the Pr. CIT for issue of notice u/s 148 in extended time, was valid in cases of both Pinkiben Riddeshkumar Bhandari (supra) as well as Albert Joseph Rosario (supra), the Bombay High Court decisions on the subject, as well as the earlier decision of Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in Davos International Fund’s case (supra), had not been cited nor considered by the Tribunal.

In Vodafone India’s case (supra), the Bombay High Court held as under:

“3. The impugned order and the impugned notice both dated 7% April 2022 state that the Authority that has accorded the sanction is the PCIT, Mumbai 5. The matter pertains to Assessment Year (“AY”) 2018-19 and since the impugned order as well as the notice are issued on 7th April 2022, both have been issued beyond a period of three years. Therefore, the sanctioning authority has to be the PCCIT as provided under Section 151 (ii) of the Act. The proviso to Section 151 has been inserted only with effect from 1 April 2023 and, therefore, shall not be applicable to the matter at hand.

4. In this circumstances, as held by this Court in Siemens Financial Services Private Limited Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax & Ors.,’ the sanction is invalid and consequently, the impugned order and impugned notice both dated 7th April 2022 under section 148A(d) and 148 of the Act are hereby quashed and set aside.”

In Mystique Media’s case (supra), the Bombay High Court’s order reads as under:

“4. The impugned order and the impugned notice both dated 5th April 2022 state that the Authority that has accorded the sanction is the PCIT, Mumbai. The matter pertains to Assessment Year (“AY”) 2018-2019 and since the impugned order as well as the notice are issued on 5th April 2022, both have been issued beyond a period of three years. Therefore, the sanctioning authority has to be the PCCIT as provided under Section 151(ii) of the Act. The proviso to Section 151 of the Act has been inserted only with effect from 1 April 2023 and, therefore, shall not be applicable to the matter at hand.

5. In the circumstances, as held by this Court in Siemens Financial Services Private Limited Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax & Ors, the sanction is invalid and consequently, the impugned order and impugned notice both dated 5 April 2022 under Sections 148A(d) and 148 of the Act are hereby quashed and set aside.”

In Purnima Navsariwala’s case (supra), the conclusion of the Bombay High Court is as under:

“4…..The matter pertains to Assessment Year (“AY”) 2018-2019. Since the impugned order as well as the notice are both issued on 7th April 2022, both have been issued beyond a period of three years, therefore, the sanctioning authority has to be the PCCIT as provided under Section 151(iii) of the Act. The proviso to Section 151 of the Act has been inserted only with effect from 1 April 2023 and, therefore, shall not be applicable to the matter at hand.

5. In these circumstances, Mr. Shah submits that as held by this Court in Siemens Financial Services Private Limited v. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax & Ors, the sanction is invalid. Mr. Rattesar agrees. Consequently, the impugned order passed under Sections 148A(d) of the Act and impugned notice issued under Section 148 of the Act, both dated 7″ April 2022, are hereby quashed and set aside.”

A similar view has been taken by the Bombay High Court in Alag Property Construction Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT(2025) 179 taxmann.com 578 (Bom) and in Skypak Travels (P.) Ltd. vs. Income-tax Officer [2026] 185 taxmann.com 963 (Bombay). The Court held that where the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year has expired, sanction under section 151(i) could not have been accorded by the Principal Commissioner, and such sanction renders the reassessment proceedings void ab initio.

In Davos International Fund’s case (supra), the Tribunal, after considering the ratio of the Bombay High Court decision in the case of Vodafone India (supra), observed as under:

“8….In the decision of the Vodafone Idea (supra), the Hon’ble High Court has given a specific finding that the proviso to section 151 extending the time limit as per the third, fourth or fifth proviso to section 149 is not applicable for AY 2018-19 as the same is inserted only w.e.f. 01.04.2023. When we apply the said ratio to assessee’s case, in our considered view, the claim of the revenue that the period of 3 years expires only on 09.04.2022 is not correct and that revenue cannot take shelter under the proviso to section 151 which came into effect only from 01.04.2023. Accordingly, the notice issued on 04.04.2022 by the AO is issued beyond three years and therefore the approval should have been obtained by the authorities as specified under section 151(ii) Principal Chief Commissioner. As already stated the approval in assessee’s case is obtained from CIT(IT) and therefore we are inclined to agree with the contention of the assessee that the notice under section 148 has been issued without obtaining the approval from the correct authority as specified under section 151. Respectfully following the above decisions of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court we hold that the notice issued by the AO under section 148 without obtaining approval from correct appropriate authority is invalid and the assessment done under section 147 r.w.s. 144(13) of the Act is liable to be quashed.”

A similar view has been taken by the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal, following the decision in the case of Shabbir Taheri (supra), in the cases of Sanjay Shantilal Dave v Asst Unit 186 taxmann.com 138 (Mum), and Shailesh Asalaraj Jain v Pr CIT, 184 taxmann.com 745 (Mum).

Judicial propriety would have required both benches of the Tribunal to follow the ratio of these decisions. Had these decisions been considered, the view taken by the Tribunal in the cases of Pinkiben Riddeshkumar Bhandari (supra) as well as Albert Joseph Rosario (supra) would have been different.

Further, both these decisions did not consider the impact of section 149(2), as considered by the Tribunal in Shabbir Taheri’s case (supra), which states that the limitation prescribed under section 149(1) shall be subject to the provisions of section 151, and that therefore the provisions of section 151 would override that of section 149(1).

Therefore, the view taken by the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in Shabbir Taheri’s case (supra), is evidently the better view of the matter, that the extension of time limit under the third and fourth provisos to section 149(1) does not apply to section 151 so as to authorise the Pr. CIT to grant sanction for issue of notice under section 148 during the period extended by third and fourth provisos to section 149. Of course, this controversy no longer survives for notices issued on or after 1st April 2023 by the Finance Act 2023, given the insertion of the proviso to section 151 from that date. After the amendment, the issue of notice u/s 148 on or after 1st April, 2023 during the extended period on sanction by the Pr. CIT is valid in law.

Society News

I. LEARNING EVENTS AT BCAS

1. 78th Founding Day Conclave held on Monday, 6th July 2026 @ MCA-The Lounge, Wankhede Stadium, Churchgate, Mumbai

The Fireside Chat featured Advocate Arvind Datar, eminent Senior Advocate, on the topic “Four Hurdles to Overcome for Viksit Bharat,” held on the occasion of the 78th Founding Day of the Bombay Chartered Accountants Society held on Monday, 6th July 2026 at MCA The Lounge, Churchgate, Mumbai. The discussion, moderated by our Past President CA Anil Sathe in conversation with Adv. Arvind Datar, ranged across economic history, manufacturing, governance, judicial reform, and the role of professionals, offering wide-ranging insights on the path to a developed India.

Key takeaways from Advocate Arvind Datar:

1. Reframing India’s Starting Point: Adv. Datar pushed back on the narrative that 1947 India was a “devastated” nation, noting that the country inherited significant infrastructure — 12,000 kilometres of railways, universities, and ports. He argued that India’s real setback was “endless socialism and nationalisation” between 1947 and 1991, not the colonial legacy itself.

2. A Shorter Runway for Viksit Bharat: Citing Elon Musk’s line that “a long goal is a wrong goal,” he suggested India should mentally advance its target from Viksit Bharat 2047 to 2030, since a closer deadline drives greater urgency and action.

3. Manufacturing as the Core Lever: Adv. Datar’s central thesis was that India must raise manufacturing’s share of GDP from around 15% to 25% within six to seven years. He warned that services could shrink due to AI, making manufacturing essential for resilience and durable employment.

4. Lessons from Deng Xiaoping: Drawing on Ezra Vogel’s biography of Deng Xiaoping, he highlighted Deng’s 1978 memo acknowledging China’s backwardness and the need to learn from the capitalist West — a reminder that introspection, not denial, drives national transformation.

5. Atmanirbharata and Globalisation are Compatible: He argued the two are not contradictory: true self-reliance comes from building a stronger domestic manufacturing base, not from insulation. He illustrated import-dependence with examples like China-made luggage trolleys at Indian airports and ₹1,300 crore worth of imported party balloons.

6. Democracy is Not a Growth Impediment: Adv. Datar firmly rejected the idea that authoritarian systems grow faster, calling democracy “non-negotiable” and pointing to its self-correcting power through elections. He noted the human cost of China’s alternative path — around 40 million deaths in the Cultural Revolution — as a price not worth paying.

7. The Case for Decentralisation: He criticised excessive centralisation of power and finance, noting India employs roughly four times more people at the central level relative to local government than developed nations do, the reverse of the ideal ratio. Effective implementation of the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments on panchayats, he said, remains unrealised.

8. FDI Needs Certainty, Not Just Announcements: He described ease of doing business as the sum of ease of starting, running, and closing a business — the last being the hardest in India. He was critical of the Supreme Court’s Tiger Global ruling for undermining certainty on pre-2017 investments, and argued that policy should court smaller “Mittelstand-style” investors rather than chase only marquee names.

9. Rethinking Bilateral Investment Treaties: Adv. Datar called for treaties that include a fair-and-equitable-treatment clause and cover taxation explicitly, criticising India’s current BIT template for its “exhaustion of remedies” requirement, which he said has deterred all but a handful of countries from signing on.

10. MSMEs as the Backbone: Referencing recent research, he noted that 99% of India’s registered MSMEs are “micro” enterprises employing fewer than 10 people, and only about 5 lakh entities cross that threshold. He called for consolidating overlapping compliance requirements (Shops and Establishments Act, Payment of Bonus Act, Wages Act) that burden small businesses.

11. Judicial Reform, State by State: Citing the National Judicial Data Grid, Adv. Datar noted that 70% of Indian cases are resolved within five years, challenging the perception of universal delay, though he acknowledged real backlogs exist. He proposed appointing ad hoc judges under Article 224A and argued reforms should be tailored to each state’s specific caseload rather than applying blanket fixes.

12. Cutting “Calling Work” to Speed Up Trials: A study he sponsored across Karnataka courts found that up to 52% of court time was consumed by procedural “calling work” rather than actual hearings. He suggested shifting this administrative task to registrars or retired judges to potentially double court productivity.

13. Professionals as Nation-Builders: Adv. Datar said chartered accountants and lawyers are uniquely placed to contribute to nation-building given their grasp of tax, economics, and regulation, but urged the government to at least acknowledge and respond to professional bodies’ policy suggestions, even when rejecting them.

14. On Regulation, Education, and Online Gaming: Adv. Datar spoke of India’s “regulatory cholesterol” and argued for systems built on trust rather than designed solely to catch offenders. He advocated introducing English in government schools to level the playing field, and — drawing on his own appearance in gaming-related litigation — argued that skill-based online games should be regulated, not banned outright.

15. Closing Message: Asked for a single most important step toward Viksit Bharat, Datar returned to his central theme: without a rise in manufacturing, India cannot generate durable employment or reduce its dependence on imports for everyday goods — from electronics to party balloons.

Click to watch online at YouTube – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2JwhDJZfhm4&t

2. “Felicitation of Newly Qualified Chartered Accountants of May 2026 Exam” held on Friday, 3rd July 2026@ BCAS

The Seminar, Membership and Public Relations (SMPR) Committee hosted a felicitation ceremony on 3rd July 2026 at the BCAS Hall, Jolly Bhavan, Churchgate, to honour the newly qualified Chartered Accountants from the May 2026 batch. Limited seats of 250 were announced and all the registrations got full in the first two days of declaring the event. The mentor for the event to guide the new passouts was BCAS President CA Kinjal Shah. Before the formal address, he showed a beautifully put-together video which encapsulated all the emotions felt by every CA student, right from the days of struggle and sleepless nights to the day they finally read the words “PASS” on the results screen. The video literally made every person in the room nostalgic and almost teary eyed. After this wonderful start, he guided the students in a very easy and fluid manner as to how the days of struggle in the CA course unknowingly make us more resilient and ready to face real life challenges. He also advised them to try on new things and choose a line of work which interests them the best. He then expressed gratitude towards his association with BCAS and encouraged the new CAs to consider getting associated with BCAS and its activities.

14 rankers attended the event and the then President CA Zubin Billimoria announced a free annual membership for all these rankers. A celebration cake was also cut by the rankers. All the attendees were extremely happy to receive the medals celebrating their achievement.

Speaker: CA Kinjal Shah

Click to watch online at YouTube – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PtfXwrxrk34&t

3. Seminar on GST 2.0 and Beyond: Digitisation, Litigation Trends and Policy Directions held on Wednesday, 1st July 2026 @ BCAS – Hybrid

  • The seminar was held on the occasion of GST Day. It explored India’s transition from a fragmented indirect tax system to a unified digital framework.
  • Mr. Sumit Kumar, highlighted the success of cooperative federalism, noting that the GST Council functions as a unique body in which states and the center make collective, mandatory decisions. The success of GST was reflected in significant revenue growth, with monthly collections crossing the two lakh crore milestone.
  • Mr. Pramod Kumar Rai spoke on the 9-year journey of GST and addressed the various “pain points”, such as the challenges of transit checks and the harsh 200% penalties often imposed for minor clerical aberrations. He called for an introspection of Input Tax Credit (ITC) rules, particularly the “foul play” of blocking credits under Section 17(5) for legitimate business expenses.
  • Mr. Divyesh Lapsiwala spoke on the next phase of reform, the need for creation of a dedicated GST Tariff Heading (GTH) to harmonize classifications and reduce dependency on customs-based descriptions. He addressed administrative hurdles, including the need for standardized show-cause notices and a centralized audit calendar to reduce the burden of repetitive state-wise audits. Concerns were raised regarding the digital economy, specifically the need for clearer guidelines on the registration front.
  • Lastly, the session explored the impact of retrospective amendments, arguing that they should be rare and only used to solve teething problems rather than nullifying favorable court decisions.
  • The seminar concluded with a proposal for a “trusted taxpayer framework” and a rating system to reward compliant businesses with reduced audit frequencies.

Speakers: Mr. Sumit Kumar – Pr. Additional Director General of the Directorate General of Taxpayer Services, Mr. Pramod Kumar Rai – Hon’ble Member (J), GSTAT – Rajkot Bench & Mr. Divyesh Lapsiwala (CA.

Click to watch online at YouTube – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DKKk_Kw_6TE

4. 20th Residential Study Course (RSC) on GST held on Thursday 25th June 2026 to Sunday 28th June 2026 @ The Grand Chola by ITC, Chennai

Day & Date Time Format Topics Speakers/Panelists
Thursday 25th June 2026 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM Group Discussion Assorted issues on Substantive and Procedural aspects in GST [Delegate Zone]

Group Leaders

7:00 PM to 8:30 PM Keynote DPDP Law –  Impact & Challenges for Tax Professionals Adv. Vaitheeswaran K
Friday 26th June 2026 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM General Assembly – GD Replies “Assorted issues on Substantive and Procedural aspects in GST” CA. Sagar Shah
12:15 PM to 01:30 PM Presentation Paper Interplay of jurisprudence of other laws on GST Adv. CA. Arpit Haldia
04:00 PM to 07:00 PM General Assembly – GSTAT National Moot Finals Bench Members:

Adv. Vaitheeswaran K

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

07:00 PM to  08:00 PM General Assembly – Mastering the GSTAT Appeals: From Defect Free Filing to Effective Advocacy Shaik Khader Rahman, IRS

Member, GSTAT Chennai

Saturday 27th June 2026 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM Group Discussion Case studies in GST involving “Principles of Interpretation of Statutes” [Delegate Zone]

Group Leaders

12:15 PM to 01:30 PM General Assembly Use Cases of Practical utility of AI in GST

 

– GST Copilot – A multi agent system for GST Advisory, compliance and litigation

 

– Litigation Management using Python

[Delegate Zone]

 

CA. Tapas Ruparelia

 

CA. Raghavendra Nayak

04:00 PM to 07:30 PM General Assembly – GD Replies Case studies in GST involving “Principles of Interpretation of Statutes” Panelists:

Sr. Adv. V Raghuraman

Adv. Vinay Shraff

Moderator:

CA. Chirag Mehta

  • The 20th Residential Study Course (RSC) organised by the Indirect Taxation Committee was on the topics of Goods and Services Tax (GST). This was also the 10th RSC on GST.
  • Total Registrations of 395 out of which 13 cancellations prior to the event. Effective registration of 382 from over 60 cities across India
  • High delegate participation of 28 group leaders, 12 moot finalist, 30 moot participants in preliminary rounds, 2 T20 speakers, 1 bench member and 1 moderator, thereby RSC harnessing talent of almost 75 delegates plus round 15 volunteer coordinators which accounts for near over 20% of the registered delegates.
  • The Keynote address on the “DPDP Law – Impact & Challenges for Tax Professionals” quite informative for tax practitioners. The Keynote speaker also read out the message from the Justice Anita Sumanth, who could not join in due to her service exigencies. Also the interaction with the GSTAT Bench member regarding expectation of the bench from the filings was fruitful for delegates.
  • Intense discussions amongst 7 groups for both the group discussion paper as well as panel discussion paper were held. Each group was lead by 2 group leaders.
  • The GD Paper covered the Substantial and Practical Issues live in GST.
  • The panel discussion was to improvise the basics of understanding and reading of the law and gain clarity in statutory interpretation of taxation laws.
  • Final round of National GST Appellate Tribunal Moot was held in RSC wherein 12 finalists argued on the real matters; the preliminary round was held as memorial submissions and virtual hearing supported by 10 members in 5 benches. Total 43 participants had participated in the memorial and virtual round.
  • The session on Interplay of Allied Laws with GST underlined the need to look at GST not in isolation but holistically giving due consideration to all the other applicable laws.
  • The T20 sessions of the delegates were on the effective use of AI in GST Practice
  • The RSC ended with leisure trip to Crocodile Park and UNESCO World Hertiage Sites at Mahabalipuram

5. Use of AI and Big Data in Internal Audit – A Practitioner’s Perspective” event held on 25th June 2026@Virtual.

Speaker: KN Vaidyanathan

  • The Technology Initiatives Committee of BCAS organised a webinar on “Use of AI and Big Data in Internal Audit – A Practitioner’s Perspective” on 25th June 2026. The session explained how Artificial Intelligence and Big Data Analytics are reshaping internal audit by enabling predictive, data-driven assurance and helping auditors move beyond traditional sample-based reviews.
  • Drawing on Mahindra Group’s implementation journey, the speaker demonstrated practical AI use cases across the audit lifecycle, including pre-audit planning, audit execution, report generation and continuous monitoring. The session showcased how AI can automate repetitive tasks, improve audit quality, analyse entire data populations and generate deeper business insights.
  • The webinar also highlighted the role of Big Data Analytics in continuous monitoring, early fraud detection, revenue leakage prevention and strengthening internal controls. Practical examples illustrated how technology can significantly improve audit efficiency while enhancing governance.
  • Participants gained valuable insights into the challenges of AI adoption, including data quality, security concerns, AI hallucinations and the importance of developing new skills to effectively leverage AI in audit engagements.
  • The session concluded by emphasising that AI is an enabler for auditors rather than a replacement. Audit professionals were encouraged to embrace a technology-first mindset and leverage AI responsibly to deliver greater value, efficiency and strategic insights.

Click to watch online at BCAS Academy – https://academy.bcasonline.org/courses/use-of-ai-and-big-data-in-internal-audit-a-practitioners-perspective/

6. Direct Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting – “Presumptive Taxation under the Income-tax Act, 2025” held on 23rd June 2026@ Virtual.

The session examined the structural shift in presumptive taxation from the Income Tax Act 1961 to the 2025 Act, covering key policy changes and transition issues for residents and non-residents.

Speaker: CA Krishna Upadhya S

1. Section 58 replaces Sections 44AD, 44ADA and 44AE for residents; Sections 59 and 61 replace the non-resident provisions (44DA, 44B, 44BBA, 44BB, 44BBB, 44BBD, 44BBC).
2. The non-obstante clause has been narrowed from a sweeping override (Sections 28–43C) to a conditional override limited to “the manner of computation” under Section 58(1), raising new interpretive questions on what provisions survive alongside Section 58.

3. Section 58(11) eligibility bars assessees earning commission/brokerage, carrying on agency business or specified profession, or claiming Chapter VIII-C deductions. Isolated brokerage income potentially triggering full disqualification is a flagged drafting concern.

4. Section 58(4) bars all losses, allowances and deductions against presumptive income — raising open questions on set-off of house property losses, brought-forward losses and 80C/80D deductions.

5. Multi-business principle: once the gateway test is cleared, each business is independently tested; failure in one does not disqualify another.

6. Section 58 vs. Section 63 (tax audit) interplay was analysed via a comparative matrix; a literal reading may inadvertently sweep in small and first-time businesses.

7. Goods carriage (Sl. No. 2, old 44AE) and profession schemes (Sl. No. 3, 50% deemed profit, threshold ₹50L/₹75L) were explained, including partner salary/interest deductions.

8. Section 62(4) governs by substance of activity, not formal credentials. Non-specified vocations (YouTubers, content creators, motivational speakers) may access the Sl. No. 1 business scheme within the turnover ceiling.

The session was highly interactive. The speaker presented the provisions in a structured and practical manner, enabling participants to gain clarity on key structural shifts, controversies and transition issues.

7. International Yoga Day Celebration held on Sunday 21st June, 2026@ Shree Ghoghari Lohana Mahajan Bhavan Andheri West, Mumbai.

On June 21, 2026, the BCAS Foundation organized “International Yoga Day Celebrations” with assistance from the Human Resource Development Committee. In Andheri East, Mumbai, the event was co-organized with MaBap.

Mr. Pradeep Thakkar, the accredited Yoga Trainer, conducted the session.

The takeaways from the workshop are briefly given below:

1. Participants were guided to do various exercises and were explained the benefits of doing the exercises.

2. The exercises dealt with Asanas and tips for Osteoarthritis, Knee Pain, Blood Pressure, Diabetes and a lot more.

3. Also, breathing exercises, along with their benefits, were explained to the participants.

4. The benefits of yoga for Flexibility, Strength and overall health were explained in detail.

CA Mayur Nayak – assisted in the presentation and ensured the smooth conduct of the yoga. BCAS Foundation was also awarded with the Certificate of Recognition from the Ministry of Ayush.

8. Full day Seminar on Business Restructuring – A Holistic Perspective held on 18th June, 2026@ Hybrid – IMC

The Direct Tax committee of Bombay Chartered Accountants Society alongwith IMC Chamber of Commerce & Industry and The Chamber of Tax Consultants had organised a full day seminar on Business Restructuring – A Holistic Perspective at Walchand Hirachand Hall, IMC Building, Churchgate, Mumbai and virtually on 18th June, 2026. The seminar was to address the new age business restructuring from various perspectives of Income Tax , SEBI, FEMA, Companies Act and various other regulations applicable.

The keynote address was given by the Presidents of all the 3 associations and they gave their thoughts on the seminar subject. CA Ketan Dalal opened the seminar with the commercial aspects that goes around the promoters or the business owners during the business restructuring process. He shared his practical challenges that a professional has to address during such large commercial business restructuring deals. He mentioned that for a promoter, taxation becomes secondary during the course of such deals.

The second session was taken by CA Abhishek Lahoti, on the regulatory aspects for listed companies in the restructuring process. He covered the provisions applicable under the SEBI, FEMA, Companies Act, Competition Act and the Income Tax Act for various mode of restructuring like the acquisition, divestment and scheme of arrangement mode.

CA Binoy Parikh took the next session on the regulatory aspects for unlisted companies in the restructuring process. He discussed the restructuring process regulatory aspects with practical case studies covering the FEMA, Companies Act, Competition Act and the Income Tax Act for various mode for the unlisted entities.

The next session was taken by Mr. Sanjay Doshi on the due diligence process during the business restructuring. He mentioned to the crowd the importance of due diligence in this process. He also shared what areas should be covered from financial and Tax perspective during the restructuring process of any entity. He explained the role of professionals in guiding the parties by sharing the facts of the restructuring entities.

CA Neeraj Garg explained the key role of Valuation in the business restructuring. He explained with practical case studies about the intricacies of valuation from the taxation angle and the business owner thought process. As valuation is more art than science, he highlighted the practical issues that arise in the valuation process.

Lastly the session concluded with CA Amrish Shah session who touched upon the common tax and FEMA Issues in these mergers and acquisition deals. He covered the GAAR implications during such restructuring within the group. Further, the practical challenges which are faced by large corporate entities in slump sale vs itemized sale transactions. The practical cases of deferred consideration and their accounting were discussed. He mentioned the various funding instruments which are nowadays available for such restructuring process.

The full day seminar offered a comprehensive and a holistic perspective in this Business restructuring.

Click to watch online at BCAS Academy – https://academy.bcasonline.org/courses/seminar-on-business-restructuring-a-holistic-perspective/

9. ITF Study Circle meeting on “Virtual Service PE – Recent Developments” held on 16th June, 2026@ Virtual.

The session began with the opening address by the Chairman of the session on the on the Background and brief introduction of concept and Virtual PE.

Post that the Group Leader explained the nuances of the Virtual PE under the UN & OECD Commentary.

The Group Leader discussed the key points from the Recent Rulings on Virtual PE.

The session concluded with closing remarks by the Chairman of the session and the Group Leader.

Speakers: Chairman of the session – CA Bhaumik Goda & Group Leader – CA Sudin Sabnis

10. Webinar on Charitable Trusts – Recent Developments held on Thursday 21st May 2026 @ Virtual.

The Direct Tax Committee of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, jointly with the IMC Chamber of Commerce and Industry, organised a Webinar on “Charitable Trusts – Recent Developments.” The webinar was conceived in view of the rapidly evolving regulatory framework governing charitable and religious trusts, with significant developments under the Income-tax law, the Maharashtra Public Trusts Act and the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA).

The session provided participants with practical guidance on navigating the changing compliance landscape for charitable institutions. The discussions focused on renewal of registrations, recent legislative amendments, regulatory expectations and best practices for ensuring continued tax exemption and statutory compliance. Emphasis was placed on addressing practical challenges faced by trusts and professionals in day-to-day administration rather than limiting the discussions to theoretical provisions.

CA Anil Sathe discussed the recent changes introduced under the Income-tax Act, 2025 affecting charitable and religious trusts. He explained the practical issues surrounding renewal of registrations, scrutiny proceedings, conditions for availing exemptions and the evolving approach of tax authorities towards compliance. Drawing upon practical experiences, he highlighted the importance of maintaining robust governance, documentation and regulatory discipline for preserving charitable status and avoiding disputes.

Mr. Noshir Dadrawala deliberated upon recent developments under the Maharashtra Public Trusts Act and the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA). He shared valuable practical insights on governance, regulatory compliance, transparency requirements, and emerging expectations from charitable organisations. The session also covered common compliance pitfalls, evolving litigation trends and measures that trustees and advisors should adopt to strengthen governance and ensure smooth functioning of charitable institutions.

Overall, the webinar provided participants with a comprehensive and practice-oriented understanding of the recent developments impacting the charitable sector and equipped them with actionable guidance for effective compliance and risk management.

Speaker: Panelist-CA Anil Sathe & Mr. Noshir Dadrawala

Moderator: CA Gautam Nayak

Click to watch online at YouTube – https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mlZ1WJlQZ7o

II. BCAS IN NEWS & MEDIA

  • BCAS has been featured in several news and media platforms, showing our active involvement, professional contributions, and commitment to the field. This reflects the growing recognition of BCAS in the public and professional space.

Link: https://bcasonline.org/bcas-in-news/

Sanand Properties P. Ltd. vs. JCIT: Reopening assessment based on fresh information uncovering the true nature of transactions is valid and not a change of opinion.

6. Sanand Properties P. Ltd. Vs. JCIT – (2026) 488 ITR 337 –SC

Reopening of assessment – Mere disclosure at the time of original assessment does not preclude the Assessing Officer from reopening the assessment where fresh information emerges which prima facie indicates that certain income has escaped assessment.

Reason to believe – It is immaterial whether the Assessing Officer, at the time of making the original assessment, could or could not have found, through further enquiry or investigation, whether the transaction was genuine or not, if, on the basis of subsequent information, the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

To constitute a “change of opinion”, there must first be a conscious application of mind and formation of an opinion during the original assessment proceedings.

The validity of a reopening must be tested solely on the basis of the reasons recorded at the time of issuing the notice under Section 148.

SPPL, a private limited company, had entered into an agreement dated 29.04.2003 with M/s. Raviraj Kothari & Co. (hereinafter referred to as “RKC”) to constitute an Association of Persons (“AOP”) titled Fortaleza Developers for the purpose of developing a parcel of land into residential housing projects.

SPPL had duly filed its returns of income for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 within the prescribed statutory time. Both returns were selected for scrutiny assessment under Section 143(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, and the respective assessment orders were passed on 21.12.2009 and 20.07.2010 respectively.

However, on 11.01.2011, the Revenue issued two notices under Section 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, for reopening the assessments for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 on the ground that the Assessing Officer had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment within the meaning of Section 147 of the IT Act. Although the reasons recorded for reopening the assessments for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 were recorded separately, they were nearly identical except for the numerical figures pertaining to the respective assessment years.

The reasons recorded stated that a Survey under Section 133A of the IT Act had been conducted at the business premises of SPPL on 23.12.2010, during which the books of account and six documents were seized and impounded. These documents included the original copy of the AOP Agreement dated 29.04.2003 and a copy of the audited financial statements of M/s Fortaleza Developers for FY 2007-08.

Moreover, the statement of one Shri Ashok V. Suratwala, Director of SPPL, was also recorded on oath under Section 131 of the IT Act. According to the ‘reasons recorded’ under Section 148 of the IT Act, all these materials indicated that the income received by SPPL from the AOP was not a share of its profits but a share of its revenue, as it was consideration received against the development rights over the land sold/surrendered by SPPL in favour of the AOP. The AOP had shown such amount paid to SPPL as part of its profits in order to claim a deduction under Section 80IB(10) of the IT Act. SPPL had claimed in its return of income that, since tax on the income of the AOP was payable by the AOP itself under Section 167B(2) of the IT Act, no tax was liable to be paid by SPPL in respect of its share of profit from the AOP. However, in the ‘reasons recorded’, the Assessing Officer concluded that the income received by SPPL from the AOP, being a 35% share of the gross sale receipts and not its share of profits, was not exempt income but was taxable in the hands of SPPL. Since such income had escaped assessment, the Revenue was justified in reopening the assessment under Section 148 of the IT Act.

In response, SPPL, vide letter dated 19.03.2011, filed its objections to the reopening of the assessment, contending that four out of the six documents impounded during the survey under Section 133A, on the basis of which the assessments were sought to be reopened, were already part of the record of the Assessing Officer while finalizing the assessments for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09. However, the objections submitted by SPPL were dismissed by the Assessing Officer vide a speaking order dated 14.07.2011, holding that the reopening of the assessments for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 had been validly initiated.

Aggrieved by the Order dated 14.07.2011, the SPPL challenged the reopening of the assessments by filing Writ Petition (C) No. 1647 of 2011 and Writ Petition (C) No. 1648 of 2011 before the Bombay High Court for AYs 2007-08 and AY 2008-09, respectively.

While the High Court set aside the notice reopening the assessment for AY 2007-08 as invalid, it upheld the notice reopening the assessment for AY 2008-09 as valid.

With respect to AY 2007-08, the High Court, while referring to the Supreme Court’s decision in Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi v. Kelvinator of India Limited [(2010) 320 ITR 561], observed that although the power of the Assessing Officer to reopen assessment under Section 148 is much wider than the position that existed prior to the amendment brought about by the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987, the power to reopen an assessment is nevertheless conditional upon the existence of a reason to believe that income has escaped assessment. Post the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1989, the Assessing Officer has no power to review his assessment, nor can an assessment be reopened merely on the basis of a change of opinion. For the Assessing Officer to validly reopen an assessment in law, there must be tangible material on the basis of which he arrives at the conclusion that income has escaped assessment.

The High Court then went on to observe that the material on record indicates that the return of income by SPPL contained a disclosure of the profits received by it from the AOP, which SPPL claimed to be exempt in light of Section 167B(2) of the IT Act. The High Court placed reliance on the note appended to the return of income, as well as the profit and loss account and ledger extract of SPPL’s capital account with the AOP, which disclosed the share of profits received from the AOP.

More particularly, the High Court focused on two aspects of the assessment order passed under Section 143(3) dated 21.12.2009. First, paragraph 4 of the assessment order stated that SPPL had earned an income of INR 3.49 Crore in the form of profits from the AOP. Secondly, the Assessment Order contained a statement reflecting the Assessing Officer’s awareness that the gross sale proceeds were to be shared between SPPL and its collaborator in the ratio of 35% and 65% respectively. Although the High Court clearly observed that the assessment order referred to the 35:65 ratio of sharing the gross sale proceeds in relation to the Joint Venture Agreement dated 26.08.2002 between SPPL and M/s Raviraj Kothari and Associates (hereinafter referred to as “RKA”), and not to the AOP Agreement dated 29.04.2003, it nevertheless held that these statements, significantly demonstrated that the Assessing Officer was aware that (i) SPPL had returned an income of INR. 3.49 Crore as its share of profits from the AOP; and (ii) under the terms of the agreement, SPPL was entitled to a 35% share of the gross sale proceeds.

The High Court further noted that the order dated 14.07.2011, passed by the Assessing Order rejecting the objections filed by SPPL, did not dispute the factual position that, except for the two documents (namely, an internal audit note and a standard sale agreement, both of which, according to the High Court, did not carry the matter further), the material had in fact been submitted during the course of the assessment proceedings.

The High Court further observed that since the AOP had been duly assessed and had been subjected to an assessment order in which neither the existence nor the validity of the AOP was not questioned, SPPL was not liable to pay income tax with respect of its share of the income of the AOP in view of Section 86 read with Section 67A and Section 167B of the IT Act.

In the aforesaid view of the matter, the High Court held that the Assessing Officer had purported to reopen the assessment for AY 2007-08 in the absence of any valid tangible material and that the reopening amounted to nothing more than a mere change of opinion. Accordingly, the High Court quashed the notice dated 11.01.2011 issued under Section 148 for reopening the assessment for AY 2007-08.

Aggrieved by the said judgment, the Revenue filed Civil Appeal No. 744 of 2013 before the Supreme Court.
Thereafter, when the writ petition challenging the reopening of assessment for AY 2008-09 came up for hearing before the High Court, SPPL argued that since the grounds for reopening the assessment were substantially similar to those for AY 2007-08, and there were no material differences in the factual matrix between the two assessment years, the notice for reassessment for AY 2008-09 should likewise be set aside.

However, with respect to the reopening of assessment for the AY 2008-09, the High Court reached a conclusion different from that in respect of AY 2007-08. This time, the High Court held that the notice issued under Section 148 seeking reopening of the assessment for AY 2008-09 was valid.

The High Court distinguished AY 2007-08 from AY 2008-09 on the basis of the assessment orders passed in the case of the AOP for the respective assessment years. It laid emphasis on the following three aspects in support of its decision concerning AY 2007-08: (i) the assessment order of the AOP for AY 2007-08 contained no discussion regarding the nature of the receipt accruing to SPPL, (ii) the High Court, in its order dated 23.09.2011 relating to AY 2007-08, had noted that neither the existence nor the validity of the AOP had been questioned; and (iii) the Revenue had not sought to reopen the assessment of the AOP for AY 2007-08.

In sharp contrast, the assessment order of the AOP for AY 2008-09 dated 29.12.2010, contained a detailed discussion of the nature of the AOP agreement and concluded that the AOP agreement was based on revenue sharing. Since these detailed observations regarding the nature of the AOP Agreement formed part of the assessment order of the AOP for AY 2008-09, the High Court held that the reopening of of SPPL’s assessment for AY 2008-09 was based on tangible material and, dismissed the writ petition.

Being aggrieved, SPPL filed Civil Appeal No. 9107 of 2012 before the Supreme Court.

In the aforesaid circumstances, both SPPL and the Revenue were before the Supreme Court by way of separate appeals.

According to the Supreme Court, the following questions fell for its consideration:

(i) Whether the reopening of the assessments of SPPL for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09, respectively, was valid?
(ii) Whether the amount accrued to SPPL from the AOP, based on Clause 7 of the AOP Agreement dated 29.04.2003, was liable to be taxed in the hands of SPPL for AYs 2008-09 and 2009-10, respectively?

The Supreme Court noted that, in the present matter, the Revenue had sought to reopen assessments on the basis of the books of account and six documents impounded during the survey dated 23.12.2010 conducted at the premises of SPPL. Along with impounding the aforesaid documents, the statement of Shri Ashok V. Suratwala, Director of SPPL, was recorded on oath under Section 131 of the Act. The relevant portion of the reasons recorded under Section 148, (which was identical for both AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09) read as follows:

“The statement of Shri Ashok V. Suratwala, Director of Assessee Company was recorded on oath Under Section 131 of the Act.

5.The evidences indicate that the assessee has received a share at 35% from the gross receipts on sale of residential units in Fortaleza Complex. The audited financial statements of AOP M/s Fortaleza Developers show that assessee was given 35% of the gross receipts from sale of residential units in the said complex. It did not indicate that assessee has received its share out of the profits of AOP, M/s Fortaleza Developers. This finding was confronted to Shri Ashok V. Suratwala, Director of Assessee Company. In reply he has stated thus:

The development rights over the land belonged to us which are precious. Because of many other factors affecting the output of construction business, the returns that we should have received from those rights could not be exposed to the inherent risks of business. In pursuit of this and in order to safeguard the value of those rights we have devised a formula by which we are entitled to 35% of the gross receipts out of sales of flats in Fortaleza. Amount of the sales do not include other incidental charges charged to the customers like MSEB charges, maintenance charges, legal charges and administrative charges, etc.

5.1 Thus it is clear that assessee has received its share from the gross sale proceeds and not the share of profit. Further, the following facts came to notice.

  • The assessee does not have any employee on its muster.
  • It does not have any stake in the construction of the said Fortaleza Complex except the land it has given to the AOP against which it receives 35% of the sale proceeds of flats.
  • It has been stated that the assessee is the owner of the land and when the land is to be finally transferred to the society/community that will be formed after all the residential unit are sold, the assessee company will sign the conveyance as transferor and AOP as a confirming party.
  • The AOP, M/s Fortaleza Developers, has claimed deduction Under Section 80IB(10) of the Act on the profits and gains of business derived by it from sale of flats in Fortaleza Complex.

6. Thus, it is found that the assessee is not receiving the share of the profit from the AOP, but is receiving the consideration in the form of 35% share in proceeds of sale, against the development rights in a land surrendered by it to other member of AOP and finally to the purchaser of the flat / residential units.

7. In view of this, the income received by Assessee from AOP M/s Fortaleza Developers is not a share of profit, but consideration received against the development rights sold/surrendered. Hence the income of [Rs.3,49,18,587/- for AY 2007-08 & Rs.14,18,52,156 for AY 2008-09] is not an exempt income but taxable in the hands of assessee. Therefore, income of [Rs.3,49,18,587/- for AY 2007-08 & Rs.14,18,52,156 for AY 2008-09] chargeable to tax has escaped assessment within the meaning of sub-clause (iv) of clause (c) of Explanation 2 to Section 147 of the Act. In order to bring the income escaped assessment, assessment is reopened Under Section 148 of the Act. Issue notice Under Section 148 of the Act.”

Before the Supreme Court, learned Counsel for SPPL drew the Court’s attention to the following statement made by SPPL in its return of income for the relevant assessment years to demonstrate that the Assessing Officer was aware of the income accrued to SPPL from the AOP:

“1. The Assessee is a member in the Association of Persons doing business under the name and style of “Fortaleza Developers”. The tax on the income of AOP being payable in the case of the AOP itself. Under Section 167B(2) of the Act, no tax is payable by the Assessee in respect of its share of income from the AOP.

2. For computation of book profit Under Section 115JB of the Income-tax, 1961, share of profit from the AOP has been considered as a ‘non-income’ category as spelt out in Mumbai Tribunal decision in the case of Income-tax officer v. Suraj Jewellery India Ltd. As such this income is deducted from book profit to arrive at profit chargeable under that section.”

Upon a perusal of the material on record, the Supreme Court observed that a copy of the AOP Agreement had indeed submitted by SPPL to the Assessing Officer during the scrutiny assessments for both AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 . SPPL had submitted a copy of the AOP Agreement, along with other documents, by its letter dated 06.11.2009, during the course of scrutiny assessment for that year. On another occasion, SPPL submitted a copy of the AOP Agreement with its letter attached 01.07.2010 during the course of the assessment proceedings for AY 2008-09.

However, according to the Supreme Court, the materials on record indicated that SPPL had not disclosed the primary fact that the income which it had declared as its share of the ‘profit’ of the AOP was, in fact, a 35% share of the gross sale receipts from the residential units sold by the AOP. When the information gathered form the impounded documents and the statement of SPPL’s director came to the knowledge of the Revenue, the true nature of the transaction between SPPL and the AOP came to light.

The Supreme Court was of the view that mere disclosure of the existence of the AOP and the quantum of income derived by SPPL from the AOP at the time of the original assessment does not preclude the Assessing Officer from reopening the assessment where fresh information emerges which prima facie indicates that certain income has escaped assessment. The statements made by SPPL regarding the AOP in its return of income or during the course of the original assessment did not amount to discharging its duty to provide the Assessing Officer with the primary facts relevant to determining the issue in dispute. A perusal of the materials on record indicate that SPPL had merely informed the Revenue that certain income had accrued to it as its share of the profits of the AOP. Even though a copy of the AOP Agreement had been submitted to the Assessing Officer, the specific provision in the agreement, namely Clause 7, which lay at the heart of the dispute, was not specifically brought to the Assessing Officer’s attention.

Upon a detailed reading of the assessment orders for AYs 2007-08 and the 2008-09, respectively, the Supreme Court found that the Revenue had accepted SPPL’s declaration regarding the income derived from the AOP at face value without examining the fundamental nature of the income . In other words, the Revenue had proceeded with the assessments without considering whether the income in question was, in fact, a share of the profits of the AOP. Although the assessment orders were not entirely silent on this income, the discussion therein pertained to entirely different issues.

In the assessment order dated 21.12.2009 passed in the case of SPPL for AY 2007–08, the income accrued to SPPL from the AOP was mentioned only briefly in paragraph No. 4. The relevant extract from paragraph 4 of the assessment order for AY 2007-08 is as follows:

“4. As per the agreement the assessee company received 333.56 lacs, i.e. 35% of the sales proceeds from Raviraj Kothari & Associates. Assessee has also earned Income of Rs.349.19 lacs in the form of share of profit from AOP i.e. M/s. Fortaleza Developers.”

The Supreme Court observed that the ‘agreement’ referred to in the above-mentioned paragraph no. 4 was the Joint Venture Agreement dated 26.08.2002 (hereinafter referred to as “the JV Agreement”), between SPPL and RKA, and not the AOP Agreement dated 29.04.2003 between SPPL and RKC . While the assessment order examined the JV Agreement in great detail, there was no discussion on the AOP Agreement beyond the lone sentence in the above-mentioned paragraph no. 4. This peripheral reference to the income derived from the AOP clearly demonstrated that the Assessing Officer had never formed an opinion on whether such income constituted a share of the AOP’s profit or its revenue. The High Court, however, erroneously conflated the references to the 35:65 gross receipt-sharing arrangement contained in Clause 11 of the JV Agreement with Clause 7 of the AOP Agreement. According to the Supreme Court, despite the superficial resemblance between these two clauses regarding the 35:65 ratio for sharing the sale proceeds between the respective parties, the Assessing Officer’s analysis of the JV Agreement could not be construed as an opinion on Clause 7 of the AOP Agreement or the nature of the income accrued from the AOP. To constitute a “change of opinion”, there must first be a conscious application of mind and the formation of an opinion during the original assessment proceedings.

According to the Supreme Court, in the present case, the Assessing Officer’s discussion in the assessment order for the AY 2007-08 was confined to the JV Agreement. There was perceptible lack of any inquiry or adjudication regarding the specific terms of the AOP Agreement, particularly the nature of the income under Clause 7. In the absence of such an initial inquiry, the plea of “change of opinion” was legally untenable. A change of opinion presupposes the existence of a previously formed opinion. Where no such opinion was formed in the first instance, the Revenue is not precluded from reopening the assessment upon the discovery of facts suggesting that income has escaped assessment. The Supreme Court thus concluded that, since the Revenue had not formed any opinion on the fundamental nature of the income accrued to SPPL from the AOP, namely whether it was a share of profit or revenue, the Revenue retained the authority to reassess the income upon coming across information which prima facie indicated that the income was taxable revenue and not tax-exempt profit.

Coming to the assessment order for AY 2008-09, the Supreme Court found that there was some discussion regarding the income accrued to SPPL from the AOP, but on an issue wholly different from the reasons for reopening assessment. The issue discussed pertained to whether the income, despite being a share of the profits of the AOP, would nevertheless be excluded from the net profit to arrive at its book profit under Section 115JB of the Act. The assessment order indicated that the assessment had proceeded on the assumption that the subject income was profit, without verifying whether that assumption was correct.

Thus, the Supreme Court found that, in the assessment orders for both AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09, the Assessing Officer had not formed any opinion on the fundamental nature of the income accrued to SPPL from the AOP. Hence, when ‘tangible material’ in the form of the impounded documents and the Director’s statement shed light on the manner in which SPPL received its income from the AOP, it gave rise to ‘reasons to believe’ that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. The Supreme Court noted that, in Phool Chand Bajrang Lal and Ors. v. Income Tax Officer and Ors. [ (1993) 4 SCC 77], it had observed that it would be immaterial whether the Income Tax Officer, at the time of making the original assessment, could or could not have found through further enquiry or investigation whether the transaction was genuine, if, on the basis of subsequent information, the Income Tax Officer had reasons to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The Income Tax Officer may inititate reassessment proceedings either because fresh facts come to light which were not previously disclosed or because information regarding previously disclosed facts subsequently comes into his possession and tends to expose the untruthfulness of those facts. In such circumstances, it is not a case of mere change of opinion or of the drawing a different inference from the same facts as previously available, but of acting upon fresh information. Applying the principle laid down in Phool Chand (supra), the Supreme Court held that, when fresh information was obtained during the survey conducted on 23.12.2010 which prima facie led the Assessing Officer to believe that the true nature of the income was revenue and not profit, and that such income had escaped assessment, the reopening could not be discarded as being based merely on change of opinion.

The Supreme Court, therefore, held that the notices reopening SPPL’s assessments for AYs 2007-08 and 2008-09 were issued on the basis of fresh information and not merely on a change of opinion, and were therefore held valid.

However, the Supreme Court clarified that the validity of the reopening of the assessment would not no bearing on the merits of the reassessment orders that may ultimately be passed upon completion of the reopening proceedings.

While the Supreme Court upheld the ultimate conclusion reached by the High Court regarding the validity of the reopening of assessment for the AY 2008-09, it found the reasoning adopted by the High Court to be flawed. According to the Supreme Court, in determining the validity of the reassessment proceedings, the High Court had erroneously travelled beyond the reasons recorded under Section 148 by relying upon the assessment order of the AOP for AYs 2007-08 and the AY 2008-09. According to the Supreme Court, such an approach defeated the principles of natural justice as well as the statutory object underlying the requirement to record reasons and was impermissible in law. In doing so, the High Court overlooked the fact that the reasons recorded under Section 148 serve the important purpose of informing the assessee of the grounds on which the assessment is sought to be reopened, thereby enabling the assessee to file meaningful objections.

The Supreme Court observed that it is a settled law that the validity of a reopening must be tested solely on the basis of the reasons recorded at the time of issuing the notice under Section 148.

Notes: (1) In the above case, after the High Court delivered its judgments on the validity of Notices issued under Sec. 148 for AYs 2007-2008 and 2008-2009, the Revenue passed the reassessment order for AY 2008-2009 and the assessment order for AY 2009-2010. Both these orders were challenged by the assessee and the appeals eventually came up before the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court also dealt with these issues (with reference to the second question framed by it for consideration). However, those aspects are beyond the scope of this write-up, which is confined onlyto the validity of the notices issued under Sec. 148.

(2) The Judgement of the Supreme Court in Kelvinator of India Ltd. [320 ITR 561], referred to in the above case, was analyzed by us in the “Closements” column in the June 2010 issue of BCAJ.

Section 148 : Reassessment – service of notice – date of digital signature and date of issuance and receipt.

9. Shreenath Finstock Private Ltd. Vs. Union of India & Ors.

WP (C) NO. 3526 OF 2022, Dated: 06/07/2026, (Bom)(HC)

AY 2013-14.

Section 148 : Reassessment – service of notice – date of digital signature and date of issuance and receipt.

The short ground on which the Notice u/s. 148 and the Assessment Order are challenged was that though the impugned Notice under Section 148 is dated 31st March 2021 and digitally signed on 31st March 2021, it was received by the Petitioner only on 1st April 2021 via e-mail dated 1st April 2021 at 5:51 a.m. If this be the case, then the re-assessment proceedings cannot continue under the unamended provisions of Section 148 of the Act and the same would have to comply with the provisions which were brought into effect by the Finance Act of 2021, which came into effect from 1st April 2021.

The Petitioner, pointed out that the impugned Notice issued under Section 148 of the Act was issued to the Petitioner via email. It was clear from the snapshot of the email that the Notice was received by the Petitioner only on 1st April 2021 at 5:51 a.m. He thus submitted that the date of issuance of the Notice must be considered as 1st April 2021 and, consequently, the Department must comply with the procedure as introduced by the new provisions of the Act w.e.f. 1st April 2021. He submits that the ITBA Portal was entirely under the control of the Income Tax Department and any delay in triggering the issuance of the Notice in the system would be attributable to the Department. To fortify this proposition, he relies on these two judgments of the High Courts:

a) Daujee Abhushan Bhandar (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [2022] 136 taxmann.com 246 (Allahabad) and

b) Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. Income-tax Officer [2022] 143 taxmann.com 11 (Delhi).

The learned counsel for the Respondents, submitted that it was an admitted position that the impugned Notice is dated 31st March 2021 and also digitally signed on 31st March 2021. The Assessing Officer had uploaded the Notice on the ITBA Portal also on 31st March 2021. The digital signature, whenever affixed, bears the real time and in the present case it bears the time of 31st March 2021 at 1:32 p.m. The ITBA system, immediately after the digital signature, in a way, ousts the Assessing Officer, who cannot make any change in the document or stop the outward transmission. Having done so, it was beyond the control of the Assessing Officer once the Notice was uploaded on the ITBA Portal and the Notice was dispatched through the ITBA Portal and intimated to the Petitioner. He thus submitted that the Notice must be deemed to have been ‘issued’ the moment it left the hands of the Assessing Officer i.e. in this case, 31st March 2021 at 1:32 PM. He also submitted that the date of email should not be regarded as the date of issuance of Notice as sending an email is a measure adopted by the Assessing Officer merely out of abundant caution and the actual date of uploading the Notice on the ITBA Portal should be taken as the date to determine the date of issuance of Notice.

To narrow down the controversy and to seek clarification regarding the date on which the email dispatching the impugned Notice was triggered in the system of the Department, the court had passed order to enable the Revenue to bring on record as to when was the e-mail dispatching the Section 148 Notice was triggered in the system of the Income Tax Department.

Thereafter, on written instructions from the Assessing Officer i.e. Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax 3(2)(1), Mumbai, who is Respondent No. 2, it was submitted that as per the system delivery report, the ‘Notice Sent’ time stamp is reflected as 1st April 2021 at 05:51:42 a.m., while the ‘Delivered’ time stamp is reflected as 1st April 2021 at 05:51:47 a.m. Thus, there is no doubt that the email dispatching the impugned Notice itself was triggered on 1st April 2021 from the ITBA Portal and subsequently received by the Petitioner at 5:51 a.m. on 1st April 2021. In view of the above the impugned Notice would be deemed to have been issued on 1st April 2021.

In this context, reliance was placed on the observations of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in Suman Jeet Agarwal (supra), wherein the Hon’ble Court had carved out different categories of impugned Notices based on the actual date mentioned in the Notice, date of digital signature and date of issuance and receipt. The Category – C in the aforesaid judgement reads as under:

“Category C: is in respect of writ petitions where Notice is dated 31st March, 2021 or before, digitally signed on or before 31st March, 2021, however sent and received on or after 1st April, 2021.”

The case of the Petitioner would fall in ‘Category C’ i.e. where Notices were dated 31st March 2021 or before, digitally signed on or before 31st March 2021, however sent and received on or after 1st April 2021. The Hon’ble Court, in respect of Notices falling under ‘Category C’, held as under:

“26.22 We answer question no. (III) against the Department and hold that the time taken by the ITBA’s e-mail software system in triggering the email and transmitting the said e-mails from the ITBA servers is attributable to the Department and therefore for the e-mails despatched on 1st April 2021 or thereafter, the Notices are held not to have been issued on 31st March 2021.”

A similar issue came up in the case of Jose Kattadyil Joseph vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax 19(1), Mumbai & Ors. [Writ Petition No. 430 of 2023 (OS)] wherein we observed that the impugned Notice under Section 148 of the I.T. Act, though dated 31st March 2021, was deemed to be issued on 1st April 2021 (as it was digitally signed on 1st April 2021).

The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India & Ors v/s Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1) observed that Notices issued under the unamended law after 1st April 2021 shall be deemed to have been issued under Section 148A of the I.T. Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and treated to be Show Cause Notices in terms of Section 148A(b) of the Act.

The Hon Court held that the impugned Assessment Order dated 30th March 2022, passed under Section 147 read with Section 144B, and any consequential notices / orders thereof were quashed and set aside. The impugned Notice under Section 148 of the Act issued to the Petitioner under the unamended Section 148 of the Act shall be deemed to be issued under Section 148A of the Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and treated to be a Show Cause Notice in terms of Section 148A(b).

The Assessing Officer shall, within thirty days from the date of uploading this order, provide to the Petitioner information and material relied upon by the Revenue, so that the Petitioner can reply to the Show Cause Notice within two weeks thereafter.

All defences which may be available to the Petitioner, including those available under Section 149 of the Act, and all rights and contentions which may be available to it and the Revenue under the Finance Act, 2021, and in law, shall continue to be available.

In the aforesaid terms the Writ Petition was disposed of.

Section 69A and 153A –Search action – Information – Foreign Asset – no incriminating material – Burden of proof – Addition not justified based on base note – contents of the Base Note incomplete.

8. Pr. Commissioner of Income Tax Central -4, Mumbai Vs. Arunkumar Ramniklal Mehta,

[ITXA. 118 OF 2020 with ITXA. 132 OF 2020, dated 01/07/2026 (Bom)(HC)] Assessment Year 2006-07.

Section 69A and 153A –Search action – Information – Foreign Asset – no incriminating material – Burden of proof – Addition not justified based on base note – contents of the Base Note incomplete.

Two Appeals have been filed against the same order, as one of them raises issues arising out of an Appeal filed by the Revenue before the Tribunal, whereas the other one is concerned with issues arising from the Appeal filed by the Assessee.

The Respondent-Assessee was a promoter and director in various entities forming part of the Rosy Blue Group. He filed his original Return of Income for Assessment Year 2006-07 on 31.07.2006 declaring a total income of Rs.18,16,910. Since his Return of Income was not selected for scrutiny, the intimation as issued under Section 143(1) of the Act had become final.

Information in the form of a Base Note was received by the Government of India from the French Government inter alia, suggesting that the Assessee was a beneficiary of a private discretionary Trust being the Oak Trust, which held certain shares in a company being White Cedar Investments Ltd. (formed and registered in British Virgin Islands). Further, he was also referred to as a beneficiary in respect of another company being Ruby Enterprises Inc. (again formed and registered in British Virgin Islands). Both the said companies [White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc.] had bank accounts with the HSBC Bank in Geneva. The peak balance lying in the said bank account of White Cedar Investments Ltd. for the year under consideration stood at USD 44,861,171, while such peak balance lying in the bank account of Ruby Enterprises Inc. stood at USD 4,020.02.

Pursuant to receipt of the above information, on 25th and 26th August 2011, a search action was carried out on the entities in the Rosy Blue Group, including the Assessee. It is an admitted position that no assessment proceedings were pending in his case for this year at the time of search. Hence, the assessment proceedings did not abate in terms of the second proviso to Section 153A of the Act. Also, no incriminating material was found during the course of the search as relatable to this year.

During the course of search, Mr. Russell Mehta (being the Assessee’s son) clarified that his uncle Mr. Dilip Mehta (being the Assessee’s brother, and then a resident of Belgium) was acting as a legal representative of the Estate of Late Mr. Ramniklal R Mehta (being the Assessee’s father), and who would be aware of the said foreign bank accounts. Based thereon, the Investigation Wing of the Income-tax Department which had carried out the search action, sought information from Mr. Dilip Mehta, who responded by his letter dated 06.01.2012. His statement on oath was also recorded by them under Section 131 of the Act on 10.01.2012. In his statement, he explained that the Late Mr. Ramniklal Mehta owned certain natural pearls and some rubies which had been given by him to his close friend being Mr. Abdul Sultan Meherali, who before his demise handed over the same to his son-in-law Mr. Mohammedali Hassanali. It was his intention that the said assets should be applied for the benefit of the family. As per the directions of Mr. Dilip Mehta, the said assets were sold by Mr. Hassanali around December 2003 realising approximately USD 27,95,000 which were remitted by him in the account of the Estate of Late Mr. Ramniklal Mehta. This position has also been confirmed by Mr. Hassanali by a letter. Mr. Dilip Mehta had invested the said amount in an investment company by name of White Cedar Investments Limited on behalf of the Estate through the Oak Trust. White Cedar Investments Ltd. was an independent investment company with several subscribers. The said investment made by Mr. Dilip Mehta comprised of 5.73% interest in the said company. These facts also stood confirmed by Mr. Karl French, a director of White Cedar Investments Ltd., by a letter. He also confirmed that the present Assessee, including the other beneficiaries, had neither visited nor opened or operated the account of White Cedar Investments Ltd. This fact also stood confirmed by HSBC Bank, Geneva by its letter dated 22.12.2011. Though Mr. Dilip Mehta believed that the said amount would not be chargeable to tax in India, with a view to buy peace, he offered to tax USD 25,70,545 (being 5.73% of USD 4,48,61,171) equivalent to INR 11,46,72,012 based on the exchange rate of INR 44.61 to 1 USD prevailing as on 31.03.2006 in the statement recorded under section 131 of the Act. This was based on a specific understanding that the offer was made to avoid litigation and regularise the Estate’s position and that no penalty shall be levied. For the purposes of payment of taxes arising thereon, he also had to liquidate the said investment in White Cedar Investments Limited.

In view of the search action, a notice dated 14.02.2013 came to be issued under Section 153A of the Act directing the Assessee to file his Returns of Income for the Assessment Years 2006-07 to 2011-12. Pursuant thereto, on 06.03.2013, the Assessee filed his Returns of Income for the said years, including the year under consideration. Similar notices were also issued to other members of the Mehta family, and in the Return of Income as filed by the Estate of Late Mr. Ramniklal Mehta, the aforesaid amount of Rs.11,46,72,012 was offered for tax.

In the Assessment Order dated 30.05.2014 passed under Section 153A in the case of the said Estate, the entire rupee equivalent of the peak balance lying in the HSBC bank account of White Cedar Investments Limited (being Rs.2,00,12,56,838) was added by their Assessing Officer as unexplained money under Section 69A of the Act. The said Assessment Order passed in the case of the Estate has been found by the Tribunal to be unjustified for various technical reasons.

The Returns of Income filed by the Assessee were selected for scrutiny. In the course of the assessment proceedings, the Assessee reiterated and confirmed that he did not have any bank account outside India. The assets and investments as held by him are only those as reflected in his Return of Income. Reliance was placed on the letter dated 06.01.2012 and the statement recorded on 10.01.2012 of Mr. Dilip Mehta. Reference was also invited to the letter dated 27.12.2011 from Mr. Hassanali, the letter dated 22.12.2011 from the HSBC Bank Geneva, and the letter dated 27.12.2011 from Mr. Karl French. Emphasis was laid on the fact that before making an addition in respect of unexplained money, it is incumbent on the Revenue to show that ownership of the same belonged to the Assessee. In the present case, this burden of proof was not discharged. Further, though the Estate had offered for tax an amount of Rs.11,46,72,012 in its Return of Income filed pursuant to notice issued under Section 153A of the Act, in the Assessment Order passed in its case, the rupee equivalent of the entire peak amount being Rs.200,12,56,838 already stands assessed to tax. Further, separate affidavits dated 09.03.2015 [from Mr. Dilip Mehta] and 10.03.2015 [from Mr. Karl French] were also filed confirming the position explained by them in their earlier letters/statements recorded under Section 131 of the Act. A letter dated 05.03.2015 from Solicitors Charles Russel Speechlys was also filed confirming the aforesaid position. Rejecting the aforesaid submissions, the Assessing Officer has made exhaustive reference to the Base Note. The burden of proving/disproving the Assessee’s interest in the said bank accounts held by White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. in HSBC Bank, Geneva has been placed on the Assessee, and it is alleged that the Assessee has not discharged the said burden. Consequent thereto, an amount of USD 4,020.02 equivalent to Rs.1,79,333 belonging to Ruby Enterprises Inc. and USD 4,48,61,171 equivalent to Rs.2,00,12,56,838 was assessed to tax in the Assessee’s hands as unexplained money under Section 69A of the IT Act. In respect of the amount lying in the bank account of White Cedar Investments Ltd., a substantive addition of Rs.28,58,93,834 was made to the extent of 1/7th of the total amount of Rs.2,00,12,56,838 (as there were seven beneficiaries as per the Base Note). The balance amount of Rs.1,71,53,63,004 representing 6/7th of the aggregate amount, was added on a protective basis.

The Assessee filed an Appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), which was partly allowed by him by his Appellate Order dated 31.03.2017. The submissions made by the Assessee before him with respect to the scope of an Assessment under Section 153A being restricted to such additions based on incriminating material found in the course of search and justification in respect of Assessment of the amount of Rs.1,79,333 lying in the bank account of Ruby Enterprises Inc. were dismissed by him. However, he deleted the addition of Rs.2,00,12,56,838 being Rupee equivalent of the USD funds lying in the bank account of White Cedar Investments Ltd.

Aggrieved by the aforesaid Appellate Order, both the Assessee as well as the Revenue filed Appeals before the Tribunal. The Assessee inter alia urged that the additions made by the Assessing Officer were beyond the scope of Section 153A as they were solely based on the Base Note which was already available with him before conducting the search. The Base Note was not a document found in the course of the search. Admittedly, the assessment proceeding for the year under consideration was not pending at the time of search. Hence, the assessment did not abate as per the second proviso to Section 153A of the Act. In such circumstances, no addition could be made in the Assessment Order passed under Section 153A of the IT Act, unless incriminating material in support of such addition was found in the course of search. Further, the USD equivalent of Rs.1,79,333 was found to be lying in the bank account of Ruby Enterprises Inc. with HSBC Bank, Geneva, ownership of which could not be attributed to the Assessee. Hence, addition of the said amount in his hands was not justified. In the Appeal filed by the Revenue before the Tribunal, it was urged that the USD equivalent of Rs.2,00,12,56,838 lying in the bank account of White Cedar Investments Ltd. should be assessed as unexplained money in the hands of the Assessee.

The Tribunal, allowed the appeal filed by the Assessee as well as dismissed the Appeal filed by the Revenue. With respect to the preliminary issue being the scope of assessment under Section 153A, the Tribunal has given a finding of fact that no incriminating material in respect of the bank accounts maintained by White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. with HSBC Bank, Geneva was found during the course of the search. Hence, the additions made by the AO in respect of funds lying in the bank accounts belonging to White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. were not supported by any incriminating material found in the course of search. The Tribunal upheld the Assessee’s contention that the additions as made by the AO based on the Base Note were not justified in the assessment made under Section 153A.

Separately, on the merits of the case also, it held that the Assessee has been expressing his unawareness about the contents of the Base Note right from the beginning. Mr. Dilip Mehta had given an explanation with respect to the investments made in White Cedar Investments Ltd. to the extent of USD 27,95,000 including the source of such investment. For invoking the provisions of section 69A of the Act, the Assessee must be found to be the owner of the money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article. There was nothing on record to indicate that the Assessee, was the owner of the bank account operated and maintained in the name of White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. HSBC Bank, Geneva also confirmed by its letter that the Assessee herein had neither visited nor opened and operated any bank account and that no payments were received or made by him in relation to the said account. Further, the statement recorded under Section 131 and the affidavit given by Mr. Dilip Mehta, letters from Mr. Hassanali, Mr. Karl French and Solicitor Charles Russel Speechlys also supported the case of the Assessee. Since the Revenue could not prove with necessary material that the said bank accounts belonged to the Assessee herein, the provisions of Section 69A of the Act could not be invoked, was the finding of the Tribunal. It has also observed that the sole basis for addition is the Base Note received from the French Government, but which is an unauthenticated document not received from the bank directly. Though the information exchanged between two sovereign countries cannot be ignored, but the contents of the Base Note are incomplete. Based thereon, the Tribunal deleted both the aforesaid additions made by the AO.

On appeal by the Revenue the Court held that the issue of incriminating material was no more a substantial question of law, as the same is covered by the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Abhisar Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. (2023) 454 ITR 212 (SC). As regards question on addition of 69A, it was pointed out that having regard to the plain reading of the section, it is apparent that the burden is on the Revenue to establish that the Assessee, in whose hands an addition is proposed under Section 69A, is to be found as the owner of the asset. The Tribunal has found as a matter of fact that the Assessee was not the owner of the bank account, the balance wherein is sought to be assessed in his hands, and therefore, the addition cannot be sustained. In this view of the matter, no substantial question of law arose for consideration. The court also noted that the Base Note, which was the only evidence relied upon be the Revenue itself, makes it clear that the bank accounts belonged to White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc.

It was an admitted position that the Government of India had received a Base Note from the French Government disclosing that the Respondent Assessee was a beneficiary of the Oak Trust, being a private discretionary trust which held investments in a company being White Cedar Investments Ltd. The said company and Ruby Enterprises Inc. had bank accounts with HSBC Bank in Geneva. Pursuant thereto, a search and seizure action was carried out at the premises of entities belonging to the Rosy Blue Group, including the Assessee herein. On the date of search, i.e. on 25 and 26.08.2011, no assessment proceedings were pending in the case of the Assessee for the Assessment Year 2006-07. The intimation issued under Section 143(1) of the IT Act for the year under consideration became final in the absence of any notice for scrutinising the assessment being issued under Section 143(2) of the IT Act. Hence, the assessment did not abate. In such circumstances, in the Assessment Order passed under Section 153A of the IT Act, only such additions could be made which were based on incriminating material found in the course of the search. That the Base Note, which formed the sole basis for the additions as made by the Assessing Officer in respect of balances lying in the bank account of White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. held with HSBC Bank, Geneva, which was already available with the Revenue before the search, does not qualify as incriminating material found in the course of search.

Further, a bare perusal of Section 69A of the Act also shows that, for invoking the said provision, the Revenue has to first find an Assessee to be the owner of any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article, and such asset has not been recorded in his books of account. Once this condition is fulfilled, the Assessee is under an obligation to explain the source from which such asset has been acquired. Only in such cases where the Assessee is unable to offer any explanation or the explanation as offered by him is found to be not satisfactory, the money or the value of the assets may be deemed to be the income of the Assessee for such Financial Year. In the present case, the Revenue has not discharged the burden of showing that the Respondent Assessee is the owner of the money lying in the said bank accounts. On the face of it, the bank accounts with HSBC Bank, Geneva are of White Cedar Investments Ltd. and Ruby Enterprises Inc. It stands confirmed by the said Bank that the Assessee herein neither visited nor opened or operated the said bank accounts held by the aforesaid two entities. Further, Mr. Dilip Mehta has repeatedly explained the investments made by the Estate of Late Mr. Ramniklal Mehta through the said White Cedar Investments Ltd. to the extent of USD 27,95,000, and that the said company was an investment vehicle in which the Estate only held 5.73% interest. He has also explained the source of funds from which the said investments were made. The said facts are also confirmed by a letter dated 27.12.2011 from Mr. Karl French, being the Director of White Cedar Investments Ltd., and a letter dated 22.12.2011 from the HSBC Bank, Geneva. In such circumstances, the Tribunal was fully justified in holding that the first condition for invoking Section 69A of the Act viz., the Assessee should be found to be the owner of the money in the said bank accounts, has not been satisfied. Hence, the Tribunal was also justified in deleting the additions.

Both the Appeals filed by the Revenue were dismissed.

Section 144 and 144B: Assessment – Service of notice on wrong email ID- Breach of principles of natural justice – without granting a fair and effective opportunity of hearing.

7. Hero Products India Pvt Ltd Vs. National Faceless Assessment Centre & Ors.

[WP No. 5730 OF 2026, Dated: 13/07/2026. (Bom) (HC)]

Section 144 and 144B: Assessment – Service of notice on wrong email ID- Breach of principles of natural justice – without granting a fair and effective opportunity of hearing.

The Petitioner’s registered primary email address on the income tax portal was dhanashree.sawant@apac.hero.ca and its registered secondary email address was chandrasekhar.ella@apac.hero.ca.

The secondary email address, namely chandrasekhar.ella@apac.hero.ca, was also reflected in the database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It is further the case of the Petitioner that while filing its return of income in response to notice under Section 148 on 20th October 2021, the Petitioner had specifically mentioned its email addresses as dhanashree.sawant@apac.hero.ca.

It is the case of the Petitioner that despite the Petitioner’s primary and secondary email IDs being available with the Respondents, all subsequent notices, including notice under Section 143(2) of the Act, were sent to tarini.03@gmail.com. According to the Petitioner, though the said email ID was reflected in the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2015-16, the said email ID does not belong to the Petitioner and appears to have been mentioned by the earlier tax consultants handling the compliance aspects of the Petitioner Company. The Petitioner further states that in the Return of Income for A.Y.2016-17, the email ID rushabhapatel30@gmail.com was mentioned, which pertained to the Chartered Accountant appointed as the Auditor and tax consultant of the Petitioner, who had ceased to represent the Petitioner during the assessment proceedings.

According to the Petitioner, though certain communications appear to have been received on tarini.03@gmail.com and rushabhapatel30@gmail.com, the crucial statutory notices, including the Show Cause Notice and the notice proposing additions, were not effectively served on the Petitioner’s registered email IDs. According to the Petitioner, it was therefore denied a fair and effective opportunity to place its explanation and supporting documents on record before the passing of the impugned Assessment Order. The Petitioner therefore contends breach of principles of natural justice.

It is the case of the Respondents that notices were uploaded on the e-filing portal and were also sent on the email address of the Petitioner. The Respondent submitted that the Petitioner had responded to the notice issued under Section 148 of the Act by seeking the reasons of reopening. The said notice in addition to being uploaded on the ITBA portal, was also sent to the mail ID tarini.03@gmail.com and rushabhapatel30@gmail.com. Thereafter, sufficient notices/ opportunities were given to the Petitioner. The Petitioner could have intimated the National Faceless Assessment Centre about change of their mail on account of change of their CA. In the facts of the present case, no deficiency could be found with the assessment proceedings.

The Court held that it was not in dispute that the Petitioner had furnished its email address being dhanashree.sawant@apac.hero.ca in the return filed in response to notice under Section 148. The secondary email address, namely chandrasekhar.ella@apac.hero.ca, was also registered on the income tax portal and was also reflected in the database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It was also not in dispute that none of the notices were sent on either of these two email addresses registered on the portal.

The Court held that the assessment proceedings culminating into the impugned Assessment Order, had been completed without granting the Petitioner a fair and effective opportunity to respond to the proposed additions. Further that disputes had arisen between the Petitioner and its Auditor, who subsequently resigned on 21st January 2022. In view thereof, further notices issued by the Respondents on the email ID of the said Auditor do not appear to have been effectively communicated to the Petitioner. In view of these peculiar facts, the Petitioner did not get an adequate opportunity to place on record its explanation and supporting documents before passing of the impugned Assessment Order. Therefore, the court directed the Assessing Officer to grant a fresh hearing to the Petitioner on the show cause notice issued, provide an opportunity to the Petitioner to submit its response, and thereafter pass a fresh Assessment Order.

From Published Accounts

COMPILER’S NOTE:

Vide notification date 24th March 2021, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs amended Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 to include disclosure of the utilisation of Borrowed Funds and Share Premium where any loans given or investments are made (directly or indirectly) in other persons / entities on behalf of the company (ultimate beneficiary). This disclosure is an onerous requirement and was introduced with the objective of reporting circuitous lending or investing of funds where the ultimate beneficiary is the company itself.

A similar requirement was also included in Rule 11 of the reporting requirements applicable to statutory auditors while reporting on the financial statements of a Company.

Given below is an illustration of such disclosure and the corresponding reporting by the statutory auditor.

CYIENT LIMITED (YEAR ENDED 31ST MARCH 2026)

Extracts from Note 33 of Standalone financial statements

Other statutory information

i. The Company does not have any Benami property in respect of which any proceeding has been initiated or is pending against the Company

ii. The Company does not have any transactions with companies that have been struck off.

iii. The Company does not have any charges or satisfaction thereof that are yet to be registered with the ROC beyond the statutory period.

iv. The Company has not traded or invested in Crypto currency or virtual currency during the financial year.

v. The Company has not been declared wilful defaulter by any bank, financial institution, Government, or Government authority.

vi. Other than disclosed below, the Company has not advanced or loaned, or invested funds to any other person(s) or entity(ies), including foreign entities (Intermediaries), with the understanding that the Intermediary shall, directly or indirectly, lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the Funding Party (Ultimate Beneficiaries) or provide any guarantee, security, or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries.

For the year ended March 31, 2026

(All amounts in ₹ Millions)

Name of the intermediary to which the funds are advanced or loaned or invested Nature of transaction Date on which funds are advanced or loaned or invested Amount of funds advanced or loaned or invested Parties to which these funds are ultimately advanced or loaned or invested Date on which funds are further advanced or loaned or invested Amount of funds further advanced or loaned or invested
Cyient Semiconductors Private Limited Investment in equity shares April 04, 2025 and March 17, 2026

 

3,785 Cyient GmbH June 11, 2025 341
Cyient Europe Limited May 28, 2025 2,012
Cyient Inc June 11, 2025 243
Cyient Limited June 11, 2025 629
Kinetic Technologies#1 April 08, 2026 460

#1. On December 17, 2025, the Company’s subsidiary, Cyient Semiconductors Private Limited through its wholly owned subsidiary, Cyient Cayman Limited located at Cayman Islands, entered into a definitive agreement to acquire a majority stake in Kinetic Technologies. As at March 31,2026, the acquisition was subject to the fulfilment of customary closing conditions, including receipt of applicable regulatory approvals.

Subsequent to the reporting date, the acquisition was completed on April 8, 2026, following satisfaction of all closing conditions, resulting in Kinetic Technologies becoming a step-down subsidiary of the Company.

The Company has complied with the relevant provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (42 of 1999) and the Companies Act (18 of 2013) for the above transactions, and the transactions are not violative of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (15 of 2003).

Complete details of intermediaries and ultimate beneficiaries

Name Registered address Government Identification Relationship with the Company
Cyient Semiconductors Private Limited 2nd Floor, Cyient Limited, Plot No. 11, Infocity, Madhapur, Hyderabad, Shaikpet, Telangana, India, 500081 CIN:U46521TS20 24PTC188699 Subsidiary
Cyient Semiconductors Inc. 131 Continental Dr, Suite 305, Newark, Delaware, United States of America EIN: 33-1622621 Step-down subsidiary
Cyient Gmbh Düsseldorfer Landstraße 401, 47259 Duisburg, Germany Reg. no: 251924 Subsidiary
Cyient Europe Limited First Floor Block A, Apex Plaza, Forbury Road, Reading, England RG1 1AX United Kingdom. 2743776 Subsidiary
Cyient Inc 99 East River Drive, 5th Floor, East Hartford, CT 06108, USA EIN: 33-0867496 Subsidiary
Cyient Limited 4th floor, ‘A’ wing, Plot No. 11, Software Layout Units, Infocity, Madhapur, Hyderabad, Telangana, India – 500081. CIN No.: L72200TG1991 PLC013134 Subsidiary
Kinetic Technologies P.O. Box 309GT, Ugland House, South Church Street, Grand Cayman MC – 167695 Step-down subsidiary#1 (supra)
Azimuth AI Inc. 131 Continental Dr, Suite 305, Newark, Delaware, United States of America EIN: 88-1363299 Associate

vii. The Company has not received any fund from any person(s) or entity(ies), including foreign entities (Funding Party) with the understanding (whether recorded in writing or otherwise) that the Company shall:

(a) directly or indirectly lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the Funding Party (Ultimate Beneficiaries) or

(b) provide any guarantee, security, or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries

viii. The Company does not have any such transaction that is not recorded in the books of account and that has been surrendered or disclosed as income during the year in the tax assessments under the Income-tax Act, 1961 such as during a search, survey, or under any other relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961).

FROM AUDITOR’S REPORT

With respect to the other matters to be included in the Auditor’s Report in accordance with Rule 11 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014, as amended, in our opinion and to the best of our information and according to the explanations given to us,

(i) to (iii) not reproduced

(iv) (a) The management has represented that, to the best of its knowledge and belief, other than as disclosed in the Note 33 to the Standalone Financial Statements, no funds have been advanced, loaned, or invested (either from borrowed funds, share premium, or any other sources or kind of funds) by the Company to or in any other persons or entities, including foreign entities (“Intermediaries”), with the understanding, whether recorded in writing or otherwise, that the Intermediary shall, whether directly or indirectly, lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the Company (“Ultimate Beneficiaries”) or provide any guarantee, security, or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries;

b) The management has represented that, to the best of its knowledge and belief, other than as disclosed in the Note 33 to the Standalone Financial Statements, no funds have been received by the Company from any persons or entities, including foreign entities (“Funding Parties”), with the understanding, whether recorded in writing or otherwise, that the Company shall, whether, directly or indirectly, lend or invest in other persons or entities identified in any manner whatsoever by or on behalf of the Funding Parties (“Ultimate Beneficiaries”) or provide any guarantee, security, or the like on behalf of the Ultimate Beneficiaries.

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Notice for reassessment — Meaning of period of six or ten assessment years from “relevant assessment year” for which assessment can be made — How to compute “Six years immediately preceding assessment year relevant to previous year in which search is conducted” — Ten assessment years to be reckoned from end of assessment year pertaining to previous year in which search was conducted — Distinct from preceding year spoken of in case of six relevant assessment years — Date of search falling during F. Y. 2024-25 — A. Y. 2025-26 would be first assessment year and A. Y. 2016-17 would be tenth assessment year — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 falls beyond period of ten years prescribed — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 barred by limitation and accordingly invalid.

26. Jayantibhai Karamshibhai Maniya v. ITO: (2026) 488 ITR 90 (Guj): 2026 SCC OnLine Guj 2776

A. Y. 2015-16: Date of order 05/01/2026

Sections. 148, 149(1)(b), 153A(1)(b), Expln 1, and 153C of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Notice for reassessment — Meaning of period of six or ten assessment years from “relevant assessment year” for which assessment can be made — How to compute “Six years immediately preceding assessment year relevant to previous year in which search is conducted” — Ten assessment years to be reckoned from end of assessment year pertaining to previous year in which search was conducted — Distinct from preceding year spoken of in case of six relevant assessment years — Date of search falling during F. Y. 2024-25 — A. Y. 2025-26 would be first assessment year and A. Y. 2016-17 would be tenth assessment year — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 falls beyond period of ten years prescribed — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 barred by limitation and accordingly invalid.

The assessee petitioner was engaged in the business of job work of diamonds during the year under consideration. The petitioner filed the return of income for the A. Y. 2015-16 on March 31, 2016 declaring a total income of Rs.19,85,220. The respondent Assessing Officer issued a notice dated March 31, 2025 u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2015-16 stating therein that a search was initiated u/s. 132 of the Act on May 9, 2024 in the case of the person in respect of whom the petitioner is assessable under the Act. Further, it was stated that the respondent is satisfied, with the approval of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, that the books of account or documents seized or requisitioned under Section 132 or Section 132A of the Act in the case of Sushil Kumar Keval Kishan Goyal pertain to the petitioner or the person in respect of whom the petitioner is assessable under the Act, and hence, the notice dated March 31, 2025 has been issued under Section 148 of the Act after obtaining prior approval of Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, Ahmedabad-1.

The petitioner filed a writ petition and challenged the notice contending that the notice is barred by time. The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Section 149(1)(b) of the Act refers to the limitation period of ten years, which has elapsed from the end of the “relevant assessment year”. The relevant assessment year in the present case is 2015-2016, which is prior to the cut-off date of April 1, 2021, as specified in the first proviso. The link between section 149 and Sections 153A and 153C of the Act is found in the first proviso to Section 149(1) of the Act. The expression “relevant assessment year” is explained under Explanation 1 to the fourth proviso to Section 153A(1). The first proviso to Section 149(1) of the Act bars the issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before April 1, 2021, if a notice under Section 148 or Section 153A or Section 153C of the Act could not have been issued at that time on account of it being beyond the time limit specified under the provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 149 of the Act or Section 153A or Section 153C of the Act. In the present case, the notice under Section 148 of the Act emanates from the search proceedings undertaken under Sections 132/132A of the Act, and hence the provisions of Sections 153A and 153C of the Act would get attracted, and the reassessment of the petitioner has to be examined by keeping in mind the limitation provided under Sections 153C of the Act, which is pari materia to Section 153A of the Act.

ii) The provisions of Section 153A/153C of the Act find place in the proviso to Section 149 of the Act and, hence, the limitation as provided in Sections 153A/153C of the Act gets triggered upon the initiation of assessment proceedings emanating from a search under Section 132/132A of the Act. We may, at this stage, mention that the Delhi High Court as well as the Madras High Court have already considered the implications of Explanation 1 to Section 153A of the Act to the limitation and the expression “relevant assessment year” used therein in Explanation 1 to Section 153A of the Act.

iii) The statute prescribes different modes of computation for six years and ten years. We reiterate that the provisions of Section 153A(1)(b) of the Act stipulate that the Assessing Officer shall assess or reassess the total income of six years immediately preceding the assessment year relevant to the previous year in which the search is conducted. However, the ten assessment year period, consequently, is to be reckoned from the end of the assessment year pertaining to the previous year in which the search was conducted, as distinct from the preceding year which is spoken of in the case of the six relevant assessment years. Thus, the contention with regard to the computation of six years as well as ten years under the provisions of Section 153A of the Act has already been gone into by the Delhi High Court as well as the Madras High Court, and we have no convincing reason to take a divergent view from the view expressed hereinabove. Applying the aforesaid computation to the facts of the present case, taking the date of the search as May 9, 2024 during the F. Y. 2024-25, the A. Y. 2025-26 will become the first assessment year and, in the same manner, the A. Y. 2016-17 will become the tenth assessment year. Thus, the year under consideration, namely, A. Y. 2015-16, for which the impugned notice has been issued under Section 148 of the Act, would fall beyond the period of ten years prescribed under the statute as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 ((2021) 432 ITR (St) 52), and hence, on this count, the impugned notice can be said to be barred by limitation.

iv) For the foregoing reasons, the impugned notice dated March 31, 2025 issued under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the respondent-Department seeking to reopen the income-tax assessment of the petitioner for the respective assessment year is hereby quashed and set aside. The petitions are allowed accordingly.”

Refund — Section 244A — Return of income — Intimation issued u/s. 143(1) in 2019 — Refund determined along with interest — Interest upto the date of intimation under Section 143(1) — Refund paid only in 2023 — Assessee’s request to grant interest till the date of payment of refund to the assessee — Rejection by the AO — The AO does not have jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest — Delay due to system failure — Cannot be held against the assessee — Once refund determined in the proceedings – Interest runs till the date of payment.

25. Bedmutha Industries Limited v. ACIT

TS-917-HC-2026(Bom.)

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 15/06/2026

S. 244A of ITA 1961

Refund — Section 244A — Return of income — Intimation issued u/s. 143(1) in 2019 — Refund determined along with interest — Interest upto the date of intimation under Section 143(1) — Refund paid only in 2023 — Assessee’s request to grant interest till the date of payment of refund to the assessee — Rejection by the AO — The AO does not have jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest — Delay due to system failure — Cannot be held against the assessee — Once refund determined in the proceedings – Interest runs till the date of payment.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2017-18 on 29/10/2017 claiming a refund of Rs.1,60,47,550. Subsequently, the return of income was revised on 31/01/2019 once again claiming the refund. The return was processed and intimation under Section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was issued on 14/11/2019 determining the refund along with interest under Section 244A. The interest was determined at Rs.25,67,600 upto the date of intimation.

The assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and the assessment was completed under Section 143(3) of the Act accepting the loss returned by the assessee and accepting the refund determined by the assessee in the return of income.

While the refund was determined, the same was not paid to the assessee. As a result, the assessee addressed several communications for the release of refund to the assessee and submitted the bank account details. The assessee also raised grievances on the portal in this regard. Finally, the refund was issued on 10th March 2023.

Thereafter, in April 2024, the assessee made an application for grant of interest u/s. 244A upto the date when the refund amount was actually credited to the assessee. However, the Assessing Officer, vide order dated 25/04/2024 rejected the request of the assessee on the ground that delay in release of refund was on account of the assessee due to incorrect bank details and therefore, the assessee was not entitled to interest upto the date of payment.

Against the said order passed by the Assessing Officer rejecting the grant of interest till the date of payment, the assessee filed a petition before the Hon’ble High Court, inter alia, on the ground that firstly, the question regarding the period to be excluded on account of delay attributable to the assessee ought to be decided by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under Section 244A(2) and therefore the Assessing Officer could not have assumed the jurisdiction to determine the exclusion of any period and deny interest for such period. Secondly, the reference to proceeding resulting in refund refers to the proceeding in which the refund is determined and since in the present case, the refund was determined in the intimation issued under Section 143(1) on 14/11/2019 it could not be said that the proceedings were delayed on account of any act attributable to the assessee. The assessee had submitted multiple bank accounts and the refund was being attempted to be credited to a bank account which was not the chosen account in the return of income for the relevant assessment year. Further, despite submitting new bank account details, the system continued to re-initiate refund to another bank account. It was also submitted that where the refund cannot be processed due to technical difficulty, the Board’s instructions permit manual payment of refund.

On the other hand, the Department contended that the delay was on account of the details of the assessee’s bank account which was solely attributable to the assessee.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as under:

“i) The proceedings resulting in the refund were the intimation under Section 143(1) dated 14th November 2019 and the Assessment Order under Section 143(3) is dated 24th December 2019. There is no finding anywhere that either of these proceedings was delayed for reasons attributable to the Petitioner. Once the refund stood determined in those proceedings, the statutory consequence under Section 244A(1) was that interest had to run till the date on which the refund was granted. Section 244A(2) does not deal with administrative or post-determination delays in actual remittance of the refund. No such case has been made out here.

ii) There is yet another reason why the impugned order is unsustainable. Section 244A(2) itself provides that where any question arises as to the period to be excluded, it shall be decided by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, whose decision thereon shall be final. The impugned order has been passed by the Assessing Officer i.e., Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax-1, Nashik. Therefore, even assuming that the Revenue wished to invoke Section 244A(2), the Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest on that basis. On this count also, the impugned order is bad in law.

iii) Even otherwise, the factual foundation on which the impugned order proceeds, is found to be at variance with the record, especially the affidavit filed by Shri Sairaj of CPC. First, they show that till 25th August 2021, approval itself had not been granted by the JAO. Therefore, the suggestion that the entire delay was on account of incorrect bank details furnished by the Petitioner is plainly inaccurate. Second, CPC’s own affidavit shows that the first release in September 2021 was to a bank account which was not the selected account for the relevant year in the Return of Income. Third, once a new bank account was validated and nominated on 25th March 2022 [though the Petitioner has filed a screenshot from the portal which shows that request for validation of this account was made on 31st December 2021 and the same was validated only on 12th January 2022], the system nonetheless continued to re-initiate refund to another account. It was only on 15th March 2023, that the refund was credited to the bank account already validated on 12th January 2022. Thus, the record disclosed by the CPC itself points to a systemic and administrative failure rather than to any default attributable to the Petitioner.

iv) We are unable to accept the Revenue’s broad submission that because some refund attempts failed for bank-related reasons, the entire period of delay must be attributed to the Petitioner. Technology and automated processing are intended to facilitate administration and not to defeat statutory rights. If the system continued to route refund to an incorrect or earlier bank account despite subsequent validation and nomination of another account, that is plainly a system issue. Such system deficiency cannot be held against the Petitioner. Further, if the Department found that automated re-issue was not fructifying despite repeated attempts and grievances, it was always open to it to resort to a manual refund. The Department cannot retain monies admittedly refundable and thereafter deny statutory interest by relying upon its own technological limitations.

v) The Supreme Court in Union of India v. Tata Chemicals Ltd. (2014) 363 ITR 658 (SC) has held that refund due and payable to the assessee is a debt owed by the Revenue and that interest follows as a matter of course as compensation for the use and retention of the money. The Supreme Court observed that the State, having received money without any right and retained and used it, is bound to make the party good.

vi) In these circumstances, the impugned order dated 25th April 2024 cannot be sustained. The Petitioner is entitled to interest under Section 244A on the refund amount till the date on which the refund was actually paid.”

Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order — Order not passed within time limit as provided under Section 153 — Validity and effect of — Order passed by the CIT(A) with direction to re-characterise receipts and apply beneficial tax rate after opportunity of being heard — Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order not passed within statutory time limit provided u/s. 153 — Order passed beyond the time limit — Original assessment does not survive — Return of income to be treated as accepted.

24. Global Hospitality Licensing SARL v. A/DCIT (IT)

2026 (6) TMI 1344 (Bom)

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 22/06/2026

S. 153 of ITA 1961

Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order — Order not passed within time limit as provided under Section 153 — Validity and effect of — Order passed by the CIT(A) with direction to re-characterise receipts and apply beneficial tax rate after opportunity of being heard — Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order not passed within statutory time limit provided u/s. 153 — Order passed beyond the time limit — Original assessment does not survive — Return of income to be treated as accepted.

The assessee is a company and a tax resident of Luxembourg. The assessee is engaged in the business of providing marketing activities on a central / group basis to Mariott chain of hotels worldwide. The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at NIL. The receipts by the assessee under the International Marketing Program Participation Agreement assigned to it by a group company were claimed to be not taxable in India as per the Act and accordingly refund of TDS was claimed by the assessee. In the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer did not agree with the stand taken by the assessee and held that receipts under the IMPPA were taxable as business profits under the provisions of the Act and taxed the same at 40% plus applicable surcharge and cess. The Assessing Officer did not allow any credit of tax deducted at source. Interest under Section 234A and 234B was levied and simultaneously penalty proceedings were initiated under Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The CIT(A) held that the receipts under the IMPPA were in the nature of royalty and directed the Assessing Officer to apply the beneficial rate of tax and also directed the Assessing Officer to allow the credit for tax deducted if found in order. The CIT(A) directed the Assessing Officer to grant the assessee an opportunity of being heard before passing an order in pursuance of the CIT(A)’s order.

Against the said order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal. In the mean while the assessee found that time limit as provided under Section 153 to pass an order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) has expired but the Assessing Officer has not passed an order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) and accordingly, the assessment has abated.

In the circumstances, there was no need of an order from the Tribunal in the appeal filed by the assessee. Therefore, the assessee, vide a letter, withdrew the appeal on the premise that since no order giving effect to the CIT(A)’s order was passed by the Assessing Officer within the statutory time limits, the assessment had abated. The Tribunal permitted the withdrawal of appeal.

Thereafter, the assessee filed an application before the Assessing Officer seeking refund of the excess tax deducted against the amount liable to be paid by the assessee stating that the assessment proceedings had abated and any tax collected in excess of the amount payable by the assessee was liable to be refunded along with interest.

Penalty notice issued along with the assessment order was initially kept in abeyance. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer issued a show cause notice why the order imposing penalty under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act should not be passed. In response to the notice, the assessee submitted that since the assessment stood abated no penalty could be levied. The assessee also submitted a detailed response as to why penalty should not be levied. However, the Assessing Officer, vide order dated 30/03/2023 levied penalty under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

Against the said penalty order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court challenging the validity of the penalty order on the ground that the underlying assessment proceedings had abated on account of failure on the part of the Assessing Officer to pass order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) within the period of limitation provided under Section 153 of the Act.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Section 153(5) of the IT Act inter alia provides that where effect to an order passed by the CIT(A) is to be given otherwise than by passing a fresh assessment, such effect shall be given within a period of three months from the end of the month in which order of the CIT(A) is received by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, as the case may be.

ii) As per the second proviso to Section 153(5) of the IT Act, where as a consequence of the order of the CIT(A), verification of any issue by way of submission of any document by the Assessee or any other person is necessary or where an opportunity of being heard is to be provided to the assessee, the order giving effect shall be made within the time specified in sub-section (3). Thus, the larger time limit of nine months as provided for in sub-section (3) is made applicable to cases governed by sub-section (5) which require verification or the grant of an opportunity of being heard, as is the fact in the present case.

iii) In the present case, the CIT(A) has altered the very basis of taxation and directed application of the beneficial rate of taxation applicable to royalty. Consequently, even though the assessed income remained the same, nevertheless, the original computation of tax liability was set at naught and required fresh determination through a valid order giving effect. So far as the submission of the Revenue as to the nature of an order passed in consequence of orders of the appellate authorities with a view to giving effect to the directions contained therein, it is difficult to hold that such an order is an Administrative Order. An order contemplated by Section 153(5) is not ministerial in nature but quasi-judicial, as it determines the rights and liabilities of the assessee in accordance with the appellate directions. It may involve verification, quantification of income, re-computation of tax liability and net sum payable by the assessee-all of which, collectively or independently have substantive civil consequences. Therefore, such an order cannot be trivialised as administrative so as to escape the rigor of limitation. The power coupled with an obligation on the Assessing Officer is to make an assessment u/s. 143 or 144 of the IT Act. The final order after giving effect to the orders of the appellate authorities is an order of assessment and the same is complete only upon computation of the total income and the net tax payable by an assessee.

iv) Respondent No. 1 in the present case also had to verify and allow the credit of the tax deducted at source to arrive at the tax payable by the Petitioner. The term ‘assessment’ bears a comprehensive meaning. It comprehends the whole procedure for ascertaining the total income and the determination of tax liability. The latter is as crucial as the former. The Assessing Officer in terms of Section 143(3) has to determine, by an order in writing, not only the total income but also the net sum which will be payable by the assessee, in consequence of such an order.

v) As far as the consequence of not passing the order giving effect within the time limit as provided for in Section 153 of the IT Act is concerned, an identical controversy arose before this Court in the case of Laqshya Media Limited v. Asst/Dy. CIT [WP no. 468 of 2026], wherein it was held that where the Assessing Officer was obliged to comply with the directions of the Tribunal and complete the assessment upon remand, the inaction on his part to pass any assessment order within the limitation cannot disturb the income returned by the Petitioner.

vi) We disagree with the contention of the Department that the assessment proceedings do not abate merely because the Assessee is entitled to interest under Section 244A(1A) of the IT Act for any delay in passing the OGE. Section 244A(1A) operates solely for the benefit of an assessee by providing compensatory interest, where there is a delay on the part of the Department in granting a refund. It is probably meant to cover a case where an order is passed in time, but the refund is not granted.

vii) However, the grant of such interest cannot validate or cure a belated Assessment Order. Further, in a situation where demand is sought to be raised, the Department cannot impose a tax liability if the OGE is not passed within the period of limitation provided for. It is a settled principle that the Department cannot take advantage of its own default. Article 265 of the Constitution mandates that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. Consequently, any excess tax collected must be refunded, and Section 244A(1A) of the IT Act merely compensates an assessee for delays in grant of such refunds; it does not legitimise proceedings or orders that are otherwise time-barred.

viii) In the present case no order giving effect has been passed pursuant to the appellate order within the time limit provided for in Section 153 of the IT Act as stated above. This has resulted in the assessment abating, and the return of income of the Petitioner is to be regarded as accepted. The penalty proceedings were initiated in the course of the original assessment proceeding where Respondent No. 1 had assessed the Petitioner’s receipt from the IMPPA as its business income. That basis no longer survives. A penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) is levied on the amount of tax sought to be evaded. As in the present case there is no tax that is evaded as it is the income that is declared in the return that now represents the income that is assessed, the levy of penalty is unsustainable. When the very foundation of the penalty proceedings does not survive, the penalty order dated 30 March 2023, therefore, is unsustainable in law.”

House Rent Allowance — Section 10(13A) — Rent paid by employer to the landlord — Recovered from employee’s salary — House Rent Allowance denied by the AO on the ground that the employee did not pay rent and was living in the accommodation provided by the employer — Mode of payment of rent does not change the character of the payment — Incurring of the rent has to be seen — Not the mode of payment to the landlord — Disallowance was not sustainable.

23. Kuldeepkumar D. Kaura v. DCIT

2026 (6) TMI 1458 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2006-07: Date of order 22/06/2026

S. 10(13A) of ITA 1961

House Rent Allowance — Section 10(13A) — Rent paid by employer to the landlord — Recovered from employee’s salary — House Rent Allowance denied by the AO on the ground that the employee did not pay rent and was living in the accommodation provided by the employer — Mode of payment of rent does not change the character of the payment — Incurring of the rent has to be seen — Not the mode of payment to the landlord — Disallowance was not sustainable.

The assessee is an individual and the CEO and COO of one Sterlite Industries India Ltd. The assessee’s return of income was selected for scrutiny on the ground that the assessee had one house property in Delhi which was claimed as self-occupied and therefore exempt. However, the assessee was in Mumbai in a leased premises of the company where the assessee was employed as the CEO.

The assessee claimed exemption of House Rent Allowance (HRA) under Section 10(13A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of the leased premises. It was submitted that being the employee of the company, the employer company paid the lease rent and recovered the same from the salary of the assessee on a monthly basis. The assessee therefore claimed that the assessee was paid HRA by the employer and claimed exemption of Rs.16,19,940 under Section 10(13A) of the Act. The Assessing Officer denied the assessee’s claim for exemption under Section 10(13A) on the ground that the assessee did not pay any rent to the landlord directly and that the assessee was in occupation of premises provided by the employer.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that the Assessing Officer’s reasoning that the employee did not pay rent directly to the landlord and therefore the employee is not eligible for exemption under Section 10(13A) was ill founded. It was observed by the CIT(A) that in the big cities, the rent agreement is often entered between the landlord and the employer to safeguard the interests of the landlord.

The Tribunal, reversed the decision of the CIT(A) and restored the order of the Assessing Officer, holding that the amount was chargeable as perquisite under Section 17(2) of the Act as there was no reimbursement of rent by the employee and the rent was paid directly by the employer to the landlord. Therefore, the ingredients of Section 10(13A) were not fulfilled.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) It is clear that the said provision is inserted with effect from 06/10/1964 and any special allowance granted to the assessee by employer to meet the expenditure actually incurred on payment of rent in respect of residential accommodation occupied by the assessee, as may be prescribed, and to that extent such special allowance would be exempt from the income and would not form part of the total income.

ii) In view of the above unambiguous position of Section 10(13A) of the Act, the CIT(A) was justified in holding that it is immaterial as to who pays the rent, more particularly when in the facts of the case, the assessee has not been provided rent free accommodation by the employer, in fact, the rent of same amount is recovered from the salary of the assessee, which is paid by the employer to the landlord.

iii) Therefore, the reimbursement of the amount which otherwise would have been payable by the assessee but is paid by the employer and recovered from the salary of the assessee and paid to the landlord by the employer, would not make any difference for granting exemption of the HRA under Section 10(13A) of the Act.

iv) Circular No. 90 [F.No. 275/79/72-ITJ] dated 26/6/1972 issued by the CBDT also clarifies the entitlement of eligibility of exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act in Para-4 of the Circular. It is also clarified that it is not necessary for rent receipt from the assessee but expenditure on rent is required to be actually incurred and only clarification is to be made regarding the fact that the employee concerned has incurred the expenditure on rent. Similarly, letter F. No. 12/19/64-IT (A-1) dated 02/01/1967 issued by the Department also clarifies of the expenditure which have been actually incurred for the purpose of claiming exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act.

v) Only in a case where the employee is not incurring any actual expenditure of rent or is residing in his own house, then special allowance paid by the employer to meet with the expenditure on rent by the employee is not eligible for exemption. In the facts of the case, it is not in dispute that the amount of rent is actually recovered from the employee from the salary of the employee by the employer to be paid to the landlord and, therefore, in effect the employee has incurred expenditure on payment of rent, which was first paid on his behalf by the employer. The effect of both the said transactions is same as payment of special allowance by the employer to meet the actual expenditure incurred by the employee on the rent paid.

vi) The question is answered in favour of the assessee and against the revenue as the Tribunal was not right in law in reversing the order of CIT(A) and confirming the addition and was also not right in confirming the addition of HRA of Rs.16,19,940/- by denying exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act. The order of the CIT(A) deleting the addition is, therefore, restored and the Assessing Officer is directed to allow the claim of the appellant.”

Article 12 of India-USA DTAA – Consideration received for providing access to publicly available information through a database does not constitute royalty. Provision of marketing support services does not encompass ‘making available’ technical knowledge; hence, consideration received will not constitute ‘fees for included services’.

10. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 667 (Delhi – Trib.)

Coforge BPS America Inc. vs. ACIT(IT)

A.Y.: 2021-22 Dated: 09 March 2026

Article 12 of India-USA DTAA – Consideration received for providing access to publicly available information through a database does not constitute royalty. Provision of marketing support services does not encompass ‘making available’ technical knowledge; hence, consideration received will not constitute ‘fees for included services’.

FACTS:

The Assessee, a US company, was engaged in ITES sector, providing title search services to its AEs. The database contained information from public domain about property titles, property tax, mortgage status, etc., for American properties. Indian AE monetized the database by conducting title search reports for customers of US AE, such as banks and insurance companies. The Assessee received an amount of INR 7.73 Crores for providing access to a database and claimed that it was not taxable under India-USA DTAA. The AO observed that such receipts were royalty under Article 12(3) of DTAA as they encompassed commercial experience. The DRP upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD I:

Commercial experience under Article 12(3) of DTAA requires transfer of specialised knowledge or know-how that can be applied by the service recipient on its own.

Tax authority did not bring any evidence on record to prove that the Assessee had shared the search methodology or any information with Indian AE. Providing access to information obtained from public sources cannot result in use or right to use commercial experience. Reliance was placed on coordinate bench in Uptodate Inc v. Dy. CIT [2023] 150 taxmann.com 231 (Delhi-Trib).

Having regard to the foregoing, the ITAT held that consideration received for providing access to database cannot constitute royalty under Article 12(3) of India-USA DTAA

FACTS II:

The Assessee rendered marketing support services (“MSS”) including advice/guidance, suggestions on customer queries, customer identification, etc. The Assessee was remunerated on a cost-plus 10% mark-up basis. During the relevant year, consideration was INR 28.45 Crores. The Assessee contended that income earned by it was not taxable under India-USA DTAA. However, the AO held that consideration was taxable as fees for included services (“FIS”). The DRP upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT

HELD II:

MSS were in the nature of advisory services, which should be classified as consultancy services. In terms of Article 12(4) of India-USA DTAA, a service must satisfy the make available condition to be regarded as FIS. In the instant case, MSS did not satisfy make available requirement.

Having regard to the foregoing, the ITAT held that consideration received towards MSS was not taxable as FIS under Article 12(4) of India-USA DTAA.

Circulars under GST – Scope, Binding Effect and Judicial Limits

Section 168 of the CGST Act empowers the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) to issue circulars and ensure uniform implementation of the Act. These instructions are binding on tax officers but do not bind taxpayers or the judiciary. While circulars can clarify ambiguities or provide benevolent relief, they cannot override the parent statute or impose fresh liabilities. Alternative communications, such as FAQs and regional directives, lack statutory authority. Centralising interpretative power within the Board is essential to prevent regional inconsistencies, uphold the “One Nation, One Tax” framework, and minimize litigation.

INTRODUCTION

Nine years after the introduction of GST, one of the largest sources of litigation is no longer ambiguity in legislation but the multiplicity of administrative clarifications. Circulars, Trade Notices, FAQs, Press Releases, and internal departmental communications often coexist, sometimes expressing different views on the same issue.

To implement the law and ensure compliance, clarifications on statutory provisions are required. Clarifications provide certainty to taxpayers regarding the tax treatment of their transactions and operations. However, the source and the statutory authority issuing these clarifications are critical. The GST regime is administered concurrently by the Centre and the States. If multiple field formations or regional authorities issue independent interpretative directives, the uniformity of the tax system is compromised. For the “One Nation, One Tax” structure to function, clarifications must be issued by a single, authorized, centralized body. This article examines the statutory provisions governing the issuance of circulars and clarifications under the GST law, assesses the legal validity of instructions issued by regional field formations, and highlights the need for centralized administrative control to maintain the uniformity of the GST framework.

SECTION 168 OF THE CGST ACT

To achieve the objective of a harmonized tax structure and to prevent administrative chaos, the law provides for a specific centralized mechanism for issuing clarifications. The power to issue binding instructions under the GST law is derived from Section 168(1) of the Act, which reads as follows:

“The Board may, if it considers it necessary or expedient so to do for the purpose of uniformity in the implementation of this Act, issue such orders, instructions or directions to the central tax officers as it may deem fit, and thereupon all such officers and all other persons employed in the implementation of this Act shall observe and follow such orders, instructions or directions.”

An analysis of this provision reveals three important aspects:

1. The authority to issue such orders, instructions, or directions is vested exclusively in the “Board”. The statute does not delegate this interpretative power to individual Principal Commissioners, Chief Commissioners, or regional field formations.

2. The exercise of this power is conditional upon the objective of achieving “uniformity in the implementation” of the Act. Parliament recognized that GST, being a pan-India tax administered concurrently by the Centre and the States, is highly susceptible to divergent interpretations. Section 168(1) acts as a tool to bind the executive wing to a single, unified interpretation, thereby preventing a situation where different jurisdictions apply the same legal provision differently.

3. The provision mandates that all central tax officers and persons employed in the implementation of the Act are statutorily bound to observe and follow these instructions.

The-Weight-of-the-Word

LEGAL SANCTITY AND BINDING VALUE OF SECTION 168 CIRCULARS

The binding nature of Board circulars has been conclusively interpreted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court over decades of indirect tax litigation. Under the statutory mandate of Section 168(1) of the CGST Act, 2017, the orders, instructions, and directions issued by the CBIC are binding on the officers and persons employed in the implementation of the Act. The objective is to ensure that the administrative machinery operates with a unified approach. Consequently, a proper officer or an adjudicating authority cannot independently adopt a legal interpretation that runs contrary to a Board circular, even if the officer believes that the circular misinterprets the law. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in landmark decisions such as Paper Products Ltd. v. Commissioner of Central Excise [1999 (112) E.L.T. 765 (S.C.)] and Commissioner of Customs v. Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. [2004 (165) E.L.T. 257 (S.C.)], has authoritatively held that the Revenue Department is bound by its own circulars and cannot advance arguments contrary to them in appellate proceedings.

However, this binding effect is unidirectional. While the Department is bound by the interpretations issued by the Board, such circulars hold no binding force on the taxpayer or the judiciary. A taxpayer retains the absolute right to challenge a circular if it imposes a tax liability beyond the contours of the parent statute or misinterprets the legal provisions. Furthermore, the judiciary adjudicates matters based solely on the text of the statute enacted by the Legislature. In the Constitution Bench decision in Commissioner of Central Excise, Bolpur v. Ratan Melting & Wire Industries [2008 (231) E.L.T. 22 (S.C.)], the Supreme Court unequivocally ruled that a circular which is contrary to the statutory provisions has no existence in law. The Court clarified that circulars and instructions merely represent the executive’s understanding of the statutory provisions and cannot override the law itself or the interpretation of the law pronounced by the courts. Therefore, a circular issued under Section 168 serves to standardise departmental action but cannot usurp the interpretative authority of the courts or abrogate the substantive rights of the taxpayer.

CONSTRUCTIVE ROLE OF CIRCULARS:

Circulars are essentially administrative tools designed to ensure that a complex statute is applied consistently across multiple jurisdictions. When utilized within their statutory mandate, they bridge the gap between legislative intent and practical execution. A valid circular serves to mitigate the rigours of the law, clarify ambiguous provisions, and provide standard operating procedures for the assessing officers. By adopting a pragmatic approach and issuing beneficial clarifications, the Board can prevent unwarranted litigation and foster a stable business environment.

Over the past few years, the CBIC has issued several beneficial circulars that have successfully resolved long-standing industry disputes. For instance, Circular No. 178/10/2022-GST provided a detailed clarification on the non-taxability of liquidated damages, notice pay recoveries, and cancellation charges, thereby settling a contentious issue where field formations were demanding tax by treating such instances as an agreement to “tolerate an act”.

Similarly, Circular No. 183/15/2022-GST established a practical mechanism to resolve input tax credit mismatches between Form GSTR-3B and Form GSTR-2A for the initial years of the GST regime. This clarification offered relief to taxpayers facing rigid systemic restrictions and mass disallowances based on mere portal discrepancies. Another pertinent example is Circular No. 199/11/2023-GST, which resolved the dispute between Cross-Charge and Input Service Distributor (ISD) mechanisms by clarifying that the ISD route was not mandatory for distributing common credits in the past periods.

These instances illustrate the proper function of a circular under Section 168 of the CGST Act: to act as a catalyst for dispute resolution, ensure uniformity among tax authorities, and facilitate ease of compliance without altering the statutory framework.

LIMITS OF EXECUTIVE POWER: WHAT A CIRCULAR CANNOT DO

While Section 168 of the CGST Act, 2017 confers upon the Board the power to issue instructions, it is a settled principle of administrative law that executive instructions cannot travel beyond the confines of the parent statute. A circular is a piece of subordinate executive instruction designed to facilitate the implementation of the law; it can supplement the statutory provisions, but it cannot supplant them. The executive cannot use the route of a circular to impose new restrictions, withdraw statutory benefits, or create fresh tax liabilities that are not expressly provided in the parent Act or the Rules.

The judiciary has consistently intervened when the Revenue authorities have attempted to expand the scope of taxation or restrict statutory rights through administrative circulars. The fundamental rule was authoritatively laid down by the Constitution Bench of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Commissioner of Central Excise, Bolpur v. Ratan Melting & Wire Industries [2008 (231) E.L.T. 22 (S.C.)] where it held that “a circular which is contrary to the statutory provisions has really no existence in law”. Furthermore, in Tata Teleservices Ltd. v. Commissioner of Customs [2006 (194) E.L.T. 11 (S.C.)], the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that a circular cannot impose limitations or conditions that are not provided in the statute, nor can it take away the rights conferred by the statute.

In the context of GST, the limitations of the Board’s circular-issuing powers were examined by the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Pitambra Books Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India [2020-VIL-45-DEL]. The dispute involved paragraph 8 of the Master Refund Circular No. 125/44/2019-GST dated 18.11.2019, which artificially restricted taxpayers from clubbing refund claims across successive months if they fell in different financial years. The Court stayed the operation of the said paragraph, observing that the Central Government is not empowered to withdraw benefits or impose stricter conditions than those contemplated by law. The Court noted that while circulars may mitigate the rigours of the law by granting administrative relief beyond the relevant provisions of the statute, they cannot impose constraints that the legislature did not envisage. Following this judicial pronouncement, the Board issued a subsequent clarification to removing the restriction.

Similarly, the Courts have frequently intervened when the Circular is used to restrict substantive rights granted by the Act. In M/s Precot Meridian Limited vs. Commissioner of Customs [2019-VIL-616-MAD], it was held that if the statute provides a benefit (such as an IGST refund on exports), a circular cannot deny it if the statutory conditions are otherwise satisfied. A few more instances are tabulated below:

Circular No. & Date Nature of Conflict with Act/Rules Judicial Decision & Outcome
80/54/2018-GST (31.12.2018) Imposed new conditions for exemptions not found in the original Notification issued u/s 6(1) of the IGST Act. The Madras High Court in Jenefa India vs. Union of India [2021-VIL-763-MAD] held that the Circular was ultra vires the exemption notification.
123/42/2019-GST (11.11.2019) Mandated month-to-month ITC reconciliation, conflicting with the “cumulative period” relaxation allowed under the first proviso to Rule 36(4). In State of Uttar Pradesh vs. Vivo Mobile India Pvt. Ltd. [(2024) 14 Centax 117 (S.C.)], the Court held the circular lost its efficacy for the period February 2020 to August 2020 as it conflicted with the amended statutory law.
125/44/2019-GST (18.11.2019) Paragraph 8 mandated exclusive electronic filing of refund claims, even when technical glitches prevented such filing. The Bombay High Court (Goa Bench) in C. P. Ravindranath Menon vs. UOI [2022 (64) G.S.T.L. 183 (Bom.)] directed the acceptance of manual applications where the portal was not functional.
181/13/2022-GST (10.11.2022) Created an artificial class of assessee for Inverted Duty refunds based on the date of application (before/after 18.07.2022). The Allahabad High Court in Vaibhav Edibles vs State of U.P. [2025-VIL-1238-ALH] held that the artificial classification created by the Circular was discriminatory and violative of Article 14.
109/28/2019-GST (22-7-2019) The petitioners challenged the interpretation that exemption entry 77 applies only where the monthly contribution exceeded Rs.7,500/- and not on a slab wise, i.e., taxable only to the extent that the monthly contribution exceeded Rs.7,500/- The Madras High Court in Greenwood Owners Association vs. UOI [2021 (55) G.S.T.L. 529 (Mad.)] held that clarification was contrary to entry 77 and quashed the Circular.
132/02/2020-GST (18-3-2020) Order No. 9/2019 dated 03.12.2019 suspended the limitation period for filing an appeal u/s 112 and stipulated that the three-month period for filing an appeal would commence only from the date on which the President of the Appellate Tribunal assumed office.

 

The Board Circular clarified that, during this period, an Appellant desirous of filing an appeal u/s 112 was required to voluntarily pay the pre-deposit and intimate the jurisdictional officer of its intention to file such an appeal u/s 112.

The Hon’ble Orissa High Court in Swastik Marketing Vs Chief Commissioner of CT & GST [2025-VIL-1024-ORI] held that the Department’s contention regarding mandatory pre-deposit in the absence of the GSTAT was “fallacious and without any legal basis”.

The Hon’ble Calcutta High Court in Vidya Trading Co. vs Senior Joint Commissioner [2025-VIL-1257-CAL] further held that, as long as the time to prefer an appeal remained available (even if extended due to non-constitution), the authorities could not proceed to recover the entire tax demand; and were confined to the cumulative pre-deposit sums (10% + 10%).

These precedents highlight an important boundary in tax administration: while the Board has the authority to issue directions to ensure uniformity among its officers, it lacks the power to legislate through circulars. Any instruction that introduces conditions not found in the principal Act or the Rules is ultra vires and holds no legal validity before the courts.

MITIGATING POWER OF BENEVOLENT CIRCULARS

While administrative instructions cannot impose fresh liabilities or withdraw statutory rights, the jurisprudence governing tax laws recognises that the Board possesses the authority to issue benevolent circulars that mitigate the rigour of the law. When a statutory provision is susceptible to multiple interpretations, the executive may issue a circular adopting a view that favours the taxpayer, even if a stricter alternative view exists. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in UCO Bank, Calcutta v. Commissioner of Income Tax, W.B. [1999 (4) SCC 599] held that circulars can be issued to tone down the strictness of a provision for the benefit of the assessee. The Court observed that the authority vested with the power under the Act has the right to forgo a revenue advantage to ensure a fair enforcement of its provisions and to reduce unnecessary litigation.

A recent illustration of this principle is Circular No. 210/4/2024-GST dated 26.06.2024, which addresses the valuation of import of services between related persons. Under the normal valuation mechanism, transactions between related persons must be assessed at the open market value. However, the second proviso to Rule 28(1) of the CGST Rules, 2017 States that where the recipient is eligible for full input tax credit, the value declared in the invoice shall be deemed to be the open market value. Interpreting this provision beneficially, the Board clarified that in cases where tax is payable on reverse charge mechanism and the services are procured from unregistered suppliers, the invoice referred to in Rule 28 would mean the self-invoice generated by the recipient under section 31(3) of the Act and in cases where no such invoice is generated, the value of such services may be deemed as ‘Nil’. This clarification adopts a pragmatic and revenue-neutral approach, saving taxpayers from complex valuation disputes for transactions where the tax paid would ultimately be available as credit.

The judiciary has promptly enforced this benevolent clarification against the Department. In the case of Metal One Corporation India Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India [(2024) 24 Centax 13 (Del.)], the Revenue authorities had issued a show cause notice demanding tax on the import of manpower supply services regarding expatriates seconded by overseas group companies. The Hon’ble Delhi High Court quashed the demand by placing reliance on the above Circular. The Court observed that the second proviso to Rule 28 cannot be invoked to displace the legal effect of a ‘Nil’ value where the legislative framework itself permits such a deeming fiction. The Court held, since no invoice was raised by the related domestic entity for the services rendered by its foreign affiliate, the value of such services must be deemed to be ‘Nil’ and, consequently, no tax liability arises. This demonstrates that while circulars cannot supplement the law to the detriment of the taxpayer, they play a vital role in providing administrative relief and certainty when they interpret the law beneficially.

ADMINISTRATIVE MAZE: MULTIPLE ALTERNATIVE MEANS OF CLARIFICATIONS

The centralized statutory mechanism referred to in Section 168(1) of the Act inherently results in delayed clarifications. Consequently, the tax administration frequently relies on alternative modes of communication to disseminate information and interpretations. These include Trade Notices, regional circulars, Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs), Press Releases, social media updates, modus operandi circulars, and advisories. While these documents communicate policy intent or administrative views rapidly, they operate outside the statutory mandate of Section 168 and lack the authority to bind taxpayers or quasi-judicial authorities.

Trade Notices and Regional Directives: Historically, and continuing into the GST regime, regional field formations, such as jurisdictional Principal Commissioners, issue “Trade Notices” or local circulars to guide taxpayers.

Simultaneously, State Commissioners issue Trade Circulars under the respective State Goods and Services Tax (SGST) Acts. While State Commissioners possess the statutory authority under Section 168 of the SGST Act to direct state officers within their jurisdiction, Central field formations do not possess independent statutory authority to issue interpretative Trade Notices under the CGST Act. Section 168 of the CGST Act reserves the power to issue binding orders, instructions, or directions exclusively to the “Board” (CBIC). To ensure widespread publicity, such Circulars direct the field formations to issue trade notices. Therefore, any Trade Notice or regional guideline issued by a local Central Tax formation is expected to derive its content from the relevant circular. Because it derives its content from a Circular, the Supreme Court in Poulose and Mathen v. Collector of Central Excise [1997 (90) E.L.T. 264 (S.C.)] held that Trade Notices based on Board circulars are equally binding on the Department and cannot be departed from unless the Trade Notice itself is modified or rescinded. However, unlike a Circular (which has all-India application), a Trade Notice binds officers only within the jurisdiction of the issuing Commissionerate. A Trade Notice that travels beyond its parent Circular, or is not traceable to any Circular or statutory instrument at all, would attract the same tests of validity discussed earlier for circulars and would not enjoy any greater sanctity merely because it is issued locally.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) and Flyers: The CBIC and the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) regularly publish FAQs, sectoral booklets, and flyers to guide taxpayers on procedural compliance and substantive issues. However, these documents invariably carry a standard disclaimer stating that they are purely for educational and guidance purposes and do not have any legal validity. Because they are not issued under the statutory framework of Section 168 of the CGST Act, 2017, they cannot be cited by the Revenue to create a tax demand, nor can they be relied upon by the taxpayer to enforce a statutory right in judicial proceedings.

Press Releases: The Government frequently issues Press Releases to announce policy decisions, particularly immediately after GST Council meetings. While a Press Release communicates the intent of the executive, it does not constitute the law. The legal standing of Press Releases was recently examined by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Schulke India Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India [2024 (11) TMI 522 (Bom.)]. In this case, a Ministry of Finance Press Release dated 15.07.2020 sought to classify alcohol-based hand sanitizers as “disinfectants” attracting an 18% tax rate. The High Court quashed the Press Release, observing that the classification of a product is essentially an issue of interpretation that must be undertaken independently by judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. The Court held that executive instructions communicated through a Press Release cannot dictate matters of classification or tax rates to adjudicating authorities, reinforcing that such documents lack statutory force and cannot interfere with the separation of powers. Similarly, in Nabha Power Limited v. Punjab State Power Corporation Limited [(2024) 24 Centax 74 (S.C.)], the Supreme Court held that a Government press release announcing Cabinet approval to modify a policy – to be given shape only after the fulfilment of conditions – created no vested rights and did not amount to a legal “order.” In Eurotex Industries & Exports Ltd. v. Union of India [2011 (267) E.L.T. 13 (Bom.)], the Bombay High Court held that an Office Memorandum or press release, not published in the Official Gazette, has no legal force.

This has a practical corollary that deserves emphasis in the article: press notes and media briefings issued immediately after a Council meeting – often the first source of information for trade – carry an even weaker legal status than the Council’s recommendation itself, since Council decisions are not infrequently modified before they are formally notified. Taxpayers who alter their compliance position based on a post-Council press briefing, without waiting for the actual Notification or Circular, do so at their own risk.

Recommendations of the GST Council: The GST Council, constituted under Article 279A of the Constitution of India, serves as the constitutional body responsible for making recommendations to the Union and the States on matters related to GST. However, the recommendations, meeting minutes, and agenda notes of the Council do not possess the independent force of law.

The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India v. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. [2022 (61) G.S.T.L. 257 (S.C.)] conclusively settled this aspect. The Apex Court held that the recommendations of the GST Council are not binding on the Union and States. They are recommendatory in nature and possess persuasive value. To regard them as binding edicts would disrupt fiscal federalism, as both the Parliament and the State Legislatures possess simultaneous power to legislate on GST. The Court clarified that the Government is bound by the recommendations of the GST Council only when it exercises its power to notify secondary legislation, such as Rules and Notifications, to give effect to the uniform taxation system. Until a recommendation of the GST Council is translated into a formal statutory notification or a circular under Section 168, it cannot be enforced as law.

Social Media Communications: With the advent of digital administration, official Twitter (X) handles of the CBIC and GSTN frequently post updates, procedural guides, and clarifications. While these serve as rapid communication tools for deadline extensions or portal updates, they hold no legal standing. Taxpayers and adjudicating authorities cannot rely on social media posts to interpret complex statutory provisions, and any substantive clarification provided on these platforms remains legally invalid unless backed by a formal notification or a circular.

Modus Operandi Internal Circulars: The intelligence and investigative wings, particularly the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI), are entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to tax evasion. A standard mechanism employed to achieve this is the issuance of “Modus Operandi” circulars and alert circulars. The legitimate and primary objective of a modus operandi circular is to sensitize field formations across the country about the latest factual trends, novel mechanisms, and newly detected methodologies of duty evasion. By identifying and compiling these unique evasion tactics, the authorities can effectively guide assessing officers on what factual anomalies to look out for during scrutiny or audit. However, a highly concerning trend has emerged in recent times where regional field formations are actively issuing substantive interpretative guidelines under the guise of internal “Modus Operandi” circulars. Instead of confining these documents to alerting officers about factual fraud or procedural evasion, regional authorities are utilizing them to interpret complex statutory definitions, classify goods, and lay down binding legal conclusions for their subordinate officers.

A prime illustration of this administrative overreach is the recent circular1 issued by the Principal Commissioner of CGST, Siliguri. The Circular interprets that a principal contractor is barred from availing Input Tax Credit (ITC) under Section 17(5)(c) of the CGST Act, relying on the “principle of accretion” to state that the transfer of property occurs directly from the subcontractor to the project owner.

While the intent behind such a circular may be to safeguard revenue, its issuance by a regional authority raises questions regarding statutory competence and jurisdictional overreach. More dangerously, this decentralized issuance of interpretative mandates risks fracturing the “One Nation, One Tax” fabric of the GST framework, creating a fragmented system of regional jurisprudence where the same statutory transaction might be assessed differently depending on the local Commissionerate’s internal circulars.

The Delhi High Court in Association of Technical Textiles Manufacturers and Processors v. Union of India (2023) 12 Centax 195 (Del.) reaffirmed that the statutory power to issue binding instructions, directions, and clarifications under the GST law is vested exclusively in the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under section 168 of the CGST Act. The Court noted that while the impugned clarification had been issued by the Tax Research Unit (TRU), the Revenue was unable to point to any statutory provision conferring such authority on the TRU. Consequently, the Court held that the TRU lacked jurisdiction to issue a clarification on the classification of goods and quashed the circular on this ground alone, without even entering into the merits of the classification dispute.

The judgment draws a clear distinction between the administrative role of the TRU and the statutory authority conferred upon the Board. While the TRU may assist in policy formulation or budgetary matters, it cannot assume the statutory function assigned by Parliament to the Board under section 168. The Court observed that the legislative intent is unambiguous—the power to issue orders, instructions or directions for ensuring uniformity in the implementation of the GST law rests exclusively with the Board, and cannot be exercised by any other wing of the Department unless specifically authorised by the statute.

The decision has implications extending well beyond the classification dispute before the Court. It reinforces the principle that departmental communications, FAQs, press releases or TRU letters cannot acquire the status of statutory clarifications merely because they emanate from the Ministry of Finance. Unless a clarification is issued by the Board in exercise of its powers under section 168, it lacks statutory backing and cannot be treated as binding for the purposes of GST administration. This ruling therefore serves as an important reminder that the source of a clarification is as significant as its content, and that statutory powers cannot be exercised through administrative convenience.

BENEVOLENT FAQ VS. STRICT CIRCULAR: WHICH PREVAILS?

The taxation of maintenance charges collected by Resident Welfare Associations (RWAs) and the interpretation of Entry 77 of Notification No. 12/2017-C.T. (Rate), dated 28-6-2017 presents an example of a direct conflict between benevolent departmental FAQs and strict statutory Circulars. Initially, educational materials and FAQs published by the authorities created an understanding that if the monthly maintenance contribution exceeded the prescribed limit of Rs.7,500 per member, the exemption would still apply up to Rs.7,500, and only the excess amount would be subjected to GST2. However, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) subsequently issued Circular No. 109/28/2019-GST dated 22.07.2019, which strictly clarified that “In case the charges exceed Rs.7500/- per month per member, the entire amount is taxable”. When evaluating which document prevails in assessment proceedings, assessing officers will invariably rely on the Circular. FAQs and educational flyers are accompanied by standard disclaimers stating that they are purely for guidance, are not manuals of instruction, and do not hold any legal validity. In contrast, a Circular is issued under Section 168(1) of the CGST Act, 2017, and it is a settled principle that such directions are statutorily binding on the departmental officers.

Despite the binding nature of the Circular on the tax authorities, it does not bind the taxpayer or the judiciary. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Commissioner of C. Ex., Bolpur vs Ratan Melting & Wire Industries [2008 (231) E.L.T. 22 (S.C.)] conclusively held that circulars represent merely the executive’s understanding of the statutory provisions and are not binding upon the courts. Therefore, an RWA retains the right to challenge the strict assessment by relying on the interpretative logic and arguments originally canvassed in the FAQ. More importantly, the existence of conflicting interpretations propagated by the Department’s own publications serves as a robust defense against the invocation of the extended period of limitation and the imposition of penalties. Under Section 74 of the CGST Act, 2017, the extended period can only be invoked in cases of fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts to evade tax. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Principal Commissioner of CGST, Bhopal vs Surya Roshni Ltd. [2025 (391) E.L.T. 64 (S.C.)] has held that where the Department itself is under confusion or doubt regarding the applicability of the law, the invocation of the extended period of limitation cannot be justified. Thus, the shift in the Department’s stance from a benevolent FAQ to a strict Circular establishes that the issue is interpretational, thereby precluding any allegation of suppression or intent to evade tax against the taxpayer.

CALL FOR UNIFORMITY AND CENTRALISATION

The proliferation of non-statutory clarifications and regional directives results in significant practical difficulties for taxpayers. When assessing officers rely on internal modus operandi circulars, Frequently Asked Questions, or social media updates to issue Show Cause Notices, it creates unwarranted litigation. A taxpayer operating in multiple states may face conflicting tax demands on the exact same transaction, simply because different regional formations adopt varying interpretations. This fragmented approach defeats the core legislative intent of Section 168 of the CGST Act, 2017. The Parliament deliberately restricted the power to issue binding instructions to the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs to ensure absolute uniformity in the implementation of the law. Allowing multiple regional authorities or intelligence units to publish their own interpretative mandates disrupts this statutory safeguard and directly contradicts the foundational principle of a unified Goods and Services Tax.

CONCLUSION

Past experience demonstrates that circulars are most effective when they clarify ambiguity and facilitate compliance. Difficulties arise when executive interpretation seeks to fill perceived legislative gaps or resolve disputes that properly fall within the domain of adjudication and judicial interpretation. The legitimacy of a circular ultimately depends not upon its administrative convenience but upon its fidelity to the statutory framework from which it derives authority. The enduring principle remains that while circulars may illuminate the statute’s path, they cannot be permitted to redraw it.

Further, the administration of GST requires strict discipline and jurisdictional restraint by field formations. While identifying tax evasion and sharing factual intelligence are legitimate administrative functions, regional authorities must refrain from issuing directives that interpret substantive legal provisions. The power to clarify the law, classify goods, or determine the eligibility of input tax credit is exclusively vested in the Board. To foster a stable and predictable tax environment, it is important that the revenue department centralizes all interpretative guidance through formally issued statutory circulars. Adhering strictly to the mechanism provided under Section 168 will not only reduce unnecessary litigation but also preserve the structural integrity of the GST framework across the country.

Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA – Gains derived from alienation of shares by way of buyback are covered within the ambit of ‘reorganization’ under Article 13(5) of DTAA; hence, taxable only in the country of residence

9. [2026] 184 taxmann.com 602 (Delhi – Trib.)

Huntsman Investment [Netherlands] BV vs ADIT (IT) A.Y.: 2009-10 Dated: 25 March 2026

Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA – Gains derived from alienation of shares by way of buyback are covered within the ambit of ‘reorganization’ under Article 13(5) of DTAA; hence, taxable only in the country of residence

FACTS I:

The Assessee, a tax resident of Netherlands, held a 99.98% stake in an Indian entity. Pursuant to a buyback under Section 77A of the Companies Act, 1956, the Assessee alienated 24% of equity shares at INR 23.10/share. It filed return of its income declaring capital gain aggregating to INR 49.43 Crores. The TPO determined arm’s length price (“ALP”) of shares at INR 80.77/share. Pursuant to ALP determination, the AO recomputed the capital gains at INR 123.41 Crores.

Before the DRP, the Assessee raised two contentions – (i) transaction of buyback was exempted from capital gains by virtue of Section 47(iv) of the Act and (ii) alternatively, in terms of Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA, gains, if any, were taxable only in Netherlands. DRP rejected both contentions, and as regards Section 47(iv) of the Act, the benefit was denied since the Assessee did not hold whole of the share capital of Indian entity.

Aggrieved by final order, the Assessee preferred an appeal before ITAT.

The issue before the ITAT was whether the buyback transaction fell within the ambit of ‘Corporate Reorganisation’ under Article 13(5) of the India-Netherlands DTAA. While Accountant Member held that benefit of Article 13(5) should be available in case of buyback of shares, Judicial Member held otherwise. Hence, the issue was referred to third member.

HELD :

According to the ‘exception to exception’ rule under Article 13(5)1, if gains are derived in the course of global reorganization or parent company reorganization, then such gains are taxable only in resident state of alienator.


1Under Article 13(5), any gains derived from alienation of shares of Indian Company that is forming part of at least 
10% interest in capital are taxable in India, if the buyer is a resident of India. However, 
if such alienation is on account of corporate reorganisation, then such gains is taxable only in Netherlands

While the percentage ownership remained the same post-buyback, the quantum of overall holding decreased on account of buyback.

In P. Ramanatha Aiyar’s Major Law Lexicon, the term ‘reorganization’ includes substantial change in a company’s capital structure. ICAI Guidance Note provides that buyback is covered under the definition of “Capital and Finanical Structuring”. ICSI guidance states that buyback is part of corporate reorganization.

Intent of Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA is to provide taxing rights to resident state in respect of gains arising from corporate reorganization involving the transfer of shares within the same group. Accordingly, buyback of shares should qualify as a corporate reorganization.

Having regard to the foregoing, the Third Member held that benefit of Article 13(5) should be available in case of buyback of shares, Accordingly, the gains were taxable only in Netherlands.

Sec. 37(1) – Business expenditure – Disallowance of ‘discount/claim/shortage/deduction’ expenses made solely on proportionate comparison with preceding year without enquiry into supporting details or defects in books – Not sustainable – Matter restored for de novo assessment Sec. 250(6) – Commissioner (Appeals) – Ex parte dismissal of appeal for non-prosecution without adjudicating issues on merits, without specifying points for determination, decision thereon and reasons – Order unsustainable and liable to be set aside.

42. [2026] 134 ITR(T) 49 (Agra – Trib.)

Hari Om Agarwal v. Income-tax Officer

A.Y.: 2017-18 DATE: 17.01.2025

Sec. 37(1) – Business expenditure – Disallowance of ‘discount/claim/shortage/deduction’ expenses made solely on proportionate comparison with preceding year without enquiry into supporting details or defects in books – Not sustainable – Matter restored for de novo assessment Sec. 250(6) – Commissioner (Appeals) – Ex parte dismissal of appeal for non-prosecution without adjudicating issues on merits, without specifying points for determination, decision thereon and reasons – Order unsustainable and liable to be set aside.

FACTS

The assessee, a proprietary concern engaged in trading of grains and pulses, filed return of income declaring income of Rs.7.89 lakhs for A.Y. 2017-18. During the relevant previous year, the assessee’s turnover increased to Rs.16.36 crores as against Rs.6.62 crores in the preceding year.

The Assessing Officer observed that general administration and selling expenses had increased to Rs.68.92 lakhs from Rs.13.74 lakhs and that expenditure under the head ‘Discount/claim/shortage/deduction’ had increased to Rs.59.18 lakhs from Rs.12.18 lakhs.

Though the assessee explained that such expenditure was related to damage, shortage, quantity and weight reduction in goods sold and had furnished ledger accounts containing party-wise details, the Assessing Officer held that the increase in such expenditure was not commensurate with the increase in turnover and disallowed Rs.29.10 lakhs on proportionate basis.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) issued multiple notices; however, except seeking adjournment on one occasion, the assessee did not effectively participate, and the appeal was dismissed ex parte confirming of the assessment order.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee had placed on record ledger accounts containing details of parties and amounts debited under the relevant expenditure head and had thus discharged the primary onus cast upon it.

It was noted that the Assessing Officer had not made any enquiry with the concerned parties, had not examined the correctness of the claim through independent verification, and had not pointed out any specific defect or deficiency in the books or supporting details. The disallowance had been made merely because the expenditure had risen at a rate higher than turnover as compared to the preceding year.

The Tribunal held that such proportionate or comparative disallowance, made only on assumptions and without factual enquiry, was unsustainable in law.

The Tribunal further observed that the Commissioner (Appeals) was statutorily obliged under section 250(6) to decide the appeal on merits by specifying the points for determination, the decision thereon and the reasons for such decision.

Since the appellate order had been passed ex parte without adjudicating the controversy on merits, without calling for records and without seeking any remand report or further enquiry, the same was also unsustainable.

Accordingly, both the assessment order and appellate order were set aside and the matter was restored to the file of the Assessing Officer for de novo assessment after granting proper opportunity of hearing to the assessee. The appeal was allowed for statistical purposes.

Where CIT(E) granted registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G by following the binding judgment of the jurisdictional High Court, imposition of conditions making such registration, approval and all consequential benefits subject to the outcome of a proposed challenge before the Supreme Court was unjustified.

41. (2026) 187 taxmann.com 1010 (Mum Trib)

Keshavlal Vajechand Kapadia Charity Trust v. CIT(E)

A.Ys.: 2027-28 to 2031-32 Date of Order : 24.06.2026

Sections: 12AB, 80G

Where CIT(E) granted registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G by following the binding judgment of the jurisdictional High Court, imposition of conditions making such registration, approval and all consequential benefits subject to the outcome of a proposed challenge before the Supreme Court was unjustified.

FACTS

The assessee trust had applied for renewal of registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G. CIT(E), by separate orders dated 14.02.2026, rejected both applications primarily on the ground that the trust deed did not contain an express clause declaring the trust irrevocable.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeals before ITAT. During pendency of the appeals, the Bombay High Court, in the case of Chamber of Tax Consultants v. CIT (Exemptions) [2026] 184 taxmann.com 374 (Bombay), held that a public charitable trust is presumed to be irrevocable by operation of law unless the trust instrument specifically provides for revocation, and directed that registration/approval not be rejected merely for absence of an express irrevocability clause. Following this judgment, CIT(E) granted registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G to the assessee; however, while granting registration / approval, CIT(E) recorded certain observations, stating that the Revenue was contemplating challenge to the said judgment before the Supreme Court and therefore, by way of abundant caution, the assessee trust, donor entities and other stakeholders were being informed that the registration, approval and consequential benefits flowing therefrom would remain subject to the ultimate outcome of the proceedings before the Supreme Court.

Aggrieved by these observations and caveats, the assessee preferred appeals before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It is a fundamental principle governing judicial discipline that a judgment rendered by the jurisdictional High Court is binding upon all authorities functioning within its territorial jurisdiction so long as it continues to hold the field. The efficacy and binding character of such a judgment do not depend upon whether one of the parties proposes to challenge it before a superior forum. A contemplated appeal, a proposed special leave petition or even a pending challenge before a higher court does not dilute the binding force of the judgment unless its operation is stayed, modified or reversed by a competent judicial authority. Therefore, once CIT(E) accepted the binding nature of the judgment of the Bombay High Court and proceeded to grant registration and approval on that basis, it was not open to simultaneously dilute the effect of such grant by incorporating observations founded merely upon a possible future contingency.

(b) The observations incorporated by CIT(E) travelled beyond the scope of the directions issued by the High Court. The High Court directed that applications should not be rejected solely on the ground of absence of an express irrevocability clause. CIT(E), while implementing those directions, was required to grant or refuse registration in accordance with law and on the basis of the facts before him. Once registration and approval were granted, the statutory recognition so conferred could not be converted into a tentative or conditional recognition by referring to a possible future challenge. Such observations do not emanate from any provision of the Act and are unsupported by any statutory mechanism permitting a registration order to remain perpetually subject to an anticipated future event.

(c) Such caveats also have wider practical ramifications. Registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G are not merely procedural recognitions. They constitute the foundation upon which charitable institutions organise their activities, mobilise resources and secure public participation. Donors, contributors and stakeholders often evaluate the legal status of a charitable institution on the basis of the registration and approvals granted under the Act. An observation by the statutory authority itself suggesting that the approval presently granted may remain subject to an uncertain future outcome is capable of creating avoidable ambiguity and hesitation in the minds of stakeholders. Such uncertainty is neither contemplated by the statutory scheme nor warranted by the judicial directions pursuant to which the approval has been granted.

(d) The validity and efficacy of the registration granted to the assessee must be examined with reference to the law as it exists on the date of grant and not on the basis of speculative future developments. Needless to state, if at any future point of time any superior judicial forum lays down a different legal position, the consequences, if any, would follow in accordance with law. However, such hypothetical future possibilities cannot furnish a legal basis for qualifying a registration that presently stands validly granted.

Noting that the identical issue came up before coordinate bench in ILLA Rajesh Foundation v. CIT (Exemptions) (IT Appeal Nos. 4488 to 4491 of 2026, dated 15.05.2026), the Tribunal held that the impugned observations and caveats which made such registration and consequential benefits subject to the outcome of a proposed challenge before the Supreme Court, are directed to be deleted and the assessee shall be entitled to registration under section 12AB and approval under section 80G as granted by CIT (E) without any such qualification, restriction or conditional rider.

In the result, the appeals of the assessee were allowed.

Where the assessee initially filed Form No. 10AB under an incorrect clause and thereafter filed a fresh application under the correct clause during registration proceedings, such filing was a curative step and continuation of the original proceedings and rejection of registration on the ground that the corrected application was time-barred was not justified.

40. (2026) 187 taxmann.com 993 (Mum Trib)

Akashdeep Education Trust v. ITO

A.Y.: 2026-27 Date of Order : 24.06.2026

Sections: 12A(1)(ac), 12AB

Where the assessee initially filed Form No. 10AB under an incorrect clause and thereafter filed a fresh application under the correct clause during registration proceedings, such filing was a curative step and continuation of the original proceedings and rejection of registration on the ground that the corrected application was time-barred was not justified.

FACTS

The assessee was constituted under a trust deed dated 28.10.1991 and registered with the Charity Commissioner, on 07.03.1992, and had been running educational institutions for over three decades. An earlier application under section 12AA had been rejected by the CIT(E), but on appeal in 2018, the Tribunal had directed grant of registration after examining the trust’s charitable objects and genuineness of activities. Under the regime introduced by the Finance Act, 2020, the assessee was granted provisional registration under section 12AB in Form No. 10AC on 07.04.2023, valid up to 31.03.2025. Before expiry of the provisional registration, the assessee filed Form No. 10AB on 26.03.2025 to convert the provisional registration into regular registration but inadvertently selected “sub-clause (ii): of section 12A(1)(ac) instead of “sub-clause (iii)”. On noticing the defect, CIT(E) issued a show-cause notice on maintainability of the application. The assessee accepted the mistake and filed a fresh Form No. 10AB on 03.09.2025 under the correct sub-clause, clarifying that it was merely a rectification of the earlier inadvertent error.

By order dated 27.03.2026, the CIT(E) rejected the application, holding that the application filed under the correct sub-clause was beyond the prescribed period and time-barred.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) The assessee was not a newly established institution but an educational trust in existence since 1991, whose charitable character and genuineness of activities had already been recognised by the Tribunal in its own earlier case. The CIT(E)’s approach of invoking the ‘commencement of activities’ limb of section 12A(1)(ac) proceeded on a factual premise wholly inconsistent with the admitted position on record.

(b) The original Form No. 10AB was filed on 26.03.2025, prior to expiry of the provisional registration on 31.03.2025, demonstrating the assessee’s intention to seek conversion within the prescribed period. The defect pointed out by CIT(E) was confined to selection of a sub-clause within the same statutory provision and it was not a case that no application had been filed.

(c) The distinction between a fresh claim and a corrective claim is well recognised in law. In the present case, the subsequent application did not introduce any new claim, new relief, new factual foundation or new cause of action. It merely corrected the procedural defect arising from selection of an incorrect statutory limb while seeking the very same relief. The trust deed remained the same; the objects remained the same; the registration sought remained the same; and the supporting documents remained the same. The subsequent application was therefore, in substance and effect, a continuation of the original proceedings and merely rectified a procedural irregularity. Such a curative exercise cannot be construed in a manner that extinguishes the original application which had admittedly been filed before expiry of the provisional registration.

(d) Even assuming, for the sake of argument, that the corrected application was to be viewed independently, the statute itself had conferred upon CIT(E) the power to condone delay where reasonable cause exists. The proviso inserted by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 was very much in force both on the date of filing of the corrected application and on the date of passing of the impugned order. Once such a power stood vested in the authority, it became incumbent upon CIT(E) to examine whether the circumstances leading to the filing of the corrected application constituted reasonable cause.

(e) Despite issuance of notices and conduct of proceedings over time, CIT(E) had not recorded a single adverse finding regarding the trust’s charitable objects, genuineness of activities, utilisation of funds, maintenance of accounts or compliance with statutory requirements; the rejection was founded entirely on limitation. To deny registration in such circumstances would amount to elevating procedural form over substantive justice.

The Tribunal held that having regard to the long-standing existence of the trust since 1991, the earlier Tribunal order directing registration, the provisional registration already granted, the undisputed timely filing of the original Form No. 10AB, the curable nature of the defect, the corrective filing, the statutory power of condonation available with CIT, and the complete absence of any adverse finding regarding charitable objects or genuineness of activities, the impugned order of the CIT(E) is liable to be set aside and the CIT(E) was directed to grant regular registration to the assessee trust in accordance with law.

In the result, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Payment for availing Google AdWords advertising services through Google’s standardised, automated self-service platform could not be characterised as fees for managerial, technical or consultancy services under section 194J and deduction of tax at 2% under section 194C was proper.

39. (2026) 187 taxmann.com 871 (Hyd Trib)

DCIT v. Head Digital Works (P.) Ltd.

A.Y.: 2018-19 Date of Order : 19.06.2026

Sections: 194C, 194J

Payment for availing Google AdWords advertising services through Google’s standardised, automated self-service platform could not be characterised as fees for managerial, technical or consultancy services under section 194J and deduction of tax at 2% under section 194C was proper.

FACTS

The assessee-company, running an online gaming website, availed online advertising space under the Google AdWords program from Google India Pvt. Ltd. and deducted TDS at 2% under section 194C, treating the payments as an advertising contract.

During a survey under section 133A conducted to verify TDS compliance, the AO held that the payments were fees for technical services under section 194J, observing that the AdWords platform involved sophisticated automated algorithms, real-time bidding, data analytics and interfaces, and hence constituted managerial, technical or consultancy services under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii). Accordingly, he passed orders under sections 201(1)/201(1A), treating the assessee as an assessee in default for short deduction of TDS (computed at Rs. 2,55,90,804) with consequential interest under section 201(1A) (Rs.57,75,297).

On appeal, the CIT(A) accepted the assessee’s contention, following CBDT Circular No. 715 dated 8.8.1995 and the decision of Google India (P.) Ltd. v. DCIT, (2022) 143 taxmann.com 302 (Bangalore – Trib.) and accordingly, held that the payments fell under section 194C.

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) For payment to be characterized as “Fee for Technical Services” under Section 194J read with Explanation 2 to Section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, the services rendered must be managerial, technical or consultancy in nature. Technical services require application of human skill, intelligence or direct human intervention; mere use of a highly sophisticated automated technology or standard software interface by the consumer does not mean the service provider is rendering technical services.

(b) In the Google AdWords program, the platform is a standard, automated, self-service portal: the advertiser logs in, selects keywords, sets budgets and uploads ad copy, while matching of keywords, auctioning of ad rank and publishing of the ad are all managed automatically via Google’s algorithm. Presence of a sophisticated automated technology facility does not equate to rendering of technical services; the consumer merely uses an automated facility to purchase advertising space. Reliance on Bharti Cellular Ltd. was misplaced, as the Supreme Court in that case did not decide the issue on merits but remanded it to verify human intervention.

(c) Advertising is specifically covered by section 194C, which includes contracts for advertising. Once the Legislature has consciously made advertising the subject matter of section 194C, it cannot be brought within section 194J merely because the medium is electronic or technologically advanced — a specific provision overrides a general one. This is reinforced by CBDT Circular No. 714 dated 3.8.1995, clarifying that section 194J applies to advertising agencies making payments for professional services, whereas advertising in print or electronic media is governed by section 194C.

(d) The amendment to section 194J by the Finance Act, 2020, reducing the TDS rate on FTS (other than professional services) from 10% to 2%, was intended to reduce litigation on the conflict between sections 194C and 194J. Although effective from A.Y. 2020-21, the rationale justifies extending the benefit to earlier years; since the assessee had already deducted TDS at 2% (matching the amended rate), the order treating it as an assessee in default could not be upheld on this count either.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the payments made by the assessee to Google India Pvt. Ltd. for “Google AdWords program” constituted a simple advertising contract in electronic media falling under section 194C, and the assessee had rightly deducted TDS at 2%.

In the result, the appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

Addition for payment of on-money cannot be sustained merely on the basis of a statement which per statement per se cannot be considered as evidence against third party unless it is tested by cross examination.

38. 2026(6) TMI 1385 – ITAT – Mumbai

Nitish Baburao Bhatkar v. ITO

A.Y.: 2019-20 Date of Order : 23.6.2026

Sections: 28, 132

Addition for payment of on-money cannot be sustained merely on the basis of a statement which per statement per se cannot be considered as evidence against third party unless it is tested by cross examination.

FACTS

The Assessing Officer (AO), on the basis of information obtained from the Investigation Wing that in the course of search on GNP Group, an incriminating document was found and seized, which revealed details of on-money collected by GNP Group, reopened the assessment of the assessee on the ground that the assessee has paid on-money of Rs.30 lakh for purchase of immovable property.

The assessee submitted that he had purchased the industrial unit on 27.8.2020 for a consideration of Rs.27 lakh. Payment of Rs.27 lakh plus other amounts such as development charges, etc was made by cheques, details whereof were furnished. The AO was of the view that since the particulars of the unit purchased by the assessee viz. Unit No. 7 on 1st floor matched with details mentioned on seized material, he concluded that the assessee has made initial payment of Rs 30 lakh in AY 2019-20.

The AO made an addition of Rs.30,00,000 under section 69C disregarding the registered agreement, receipts issued by the builder, bank statement, affidavit of the assessee stating consideration for purchase of immovable property was paid by cheques and also the contention that the seized document mentioned name of one “Mr Anup Tejwani”.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO by passing a non-speaking order.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on the decision in the case of Monica Anand Gupta v. ITO [ITA No. 5561/Mum./2018; Order dated 21.4.2022] where a similar addition made on the basis of a search conducted on COSMOS Group was adjudicated by the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the AO made additions solely on the basis of a report prepared by the investigation team. No cognizance of various documentary evidence furnished by the assessee was taken by the AO or the CIT(A). The AO has not brought any other corroborative evidence of actual payment of on-money on record. There is specific reference about the name of assessee in the Excel sheet relied on by the AO. While the said document contained reference of “Anup Tejwani”, the AO has not explained such name on the seized paper. The statement of the key person is general and the name of assessee was not disclosed.

The Tribunal held that statement per se cannot be considered as evidence against third party unless it is tested by cross examination. It stated that co-ordinate bench of this Tribunal in Prakash Bhaguji Katkade v. ITO [ITA No. 7402/M/2025], deleted similar addition which was made on the basis of search on Cosmos Group. Further, similar additions were deleted in case of Bharat Laxman Bhiwapurkar v. ITO [ITA No.3413/M/2023 dated 04.03.2024], and in Anand Gupta V. ITO [ITA No.5561/Mum/2018].

Considering the aforementioned decisions of the Tribunal on similar set of facts, the Tribunal deleted the addition made by the AO and allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

What the Assessing Officer could not have done directly while exercising jurisdiction under sections 147/148, the CIT(A) cannot be permitted to do indirectly while exercising powers under section 251. What cannot be done directly cannot be permitted to be achieved indirectly. Where no addition survives on the issue for which the assessment was reopened, the Revenue cannot independently assess income on issues unconnected with the reasons recorded for reopening. Power of enhancement is only ancillary to appellate jurisdiction and cannot become an independent source of jurisdiction to assess income which the Assessing Officer himself could not have assessed in the reassessment proceedings If Revenue’s argument that the CIT(A) can at any stage introduce a completely new source of income unrelated to the issue for which reassessment proceedings were initiated, is accepted, then it would virtually render the statutory limitations prescribed under sections 147 to 149 otiose.

37. TS-9340-ITAT-2026(Chandigarh)

Ritu Chopra v. ITO

A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of Order : 22.6.2026

Sections: 147, 251

What the Assessing Officer could not have done directly while exercising jurisdiction under sections 147/148, the CIT(A) cannot be permitted to do indirectly while exercising powers under section 251. What cannot be done directly cannot be permitted to be achieved indirectly.

Where no addition survives on the issue for which the assessment was reopened, the Revenue cannot independently assess income on issues unconnected with the reasons recorded for reopening.
Power of enhancement is only ancillary to appellate jurisdiction and cannot become an independent source of jurisdiction to assess income which the Assessing Officer himself could not have assessed in the reassessment proceedings

If Revenue’s argument that the CIT(A) can at any stage introduce a completely new source of income unrelated to the issue for which reassessment proceedings were initiated, is accepted, then it would virtually render the statutory limitations prescribed under sections 147 to 149 otiose.

FACTS

The assessment of the assessee was reopened to examine source of investment of Rs.79,20,000 made by the assessee in Panchkula Property. The Assessing Officer (AO) not being satisfied with the explanations furnished, added the said sum of Rs.79,20,000 to the total income as unexplained investment under section 69A of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who was satisfied that the investment was made out of sale proceeds of the property at Manesar. Consequently, the CIT(A) deleted the addition of Rs.79,20,000 made by the AO but noticed that the assessee has sold the property at Manesar for a consideration of Rs.1.20 crore and no capital gains thereof has been offered for taxation. The CIT(A), exercising the powers under section 251 of the Act, enhanced the income of the assessee by computing LTCG of Rs.98,94,000.

Aggrieved by the action of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal, where on behalf of the assessee it was contended that the addition made by CIT(A) is wholly without jurisdiction since the capital gain in respect of Manesar property was not a subject matter of reassessment and once the basis of reopening stood extinguished, by reason of CIT(A) having accepted the source of investment of Rs.79,20,000, the CIT(A) could not have introduced a new source of income while exercising powers under section 251 of the Act.

HELD

At the outset, the Tribunal noticed that the reassessment was initiated to verify the source of investment of Rs.79,20,000 in property at Panchkula. The reasons recorded under section 148, the notices issued during reassessment proceedings and the assessment order passed under section 147 read with section 144 clearly revealed that the entire enquiry conducted by the AO was confined to examining the source of such investment. The AO never examined the issue relating to taxability of capital gains arising from sale of the Manesar property. No enquiry was conducted by him from the standpoint of taxability of such gains and no finding whatsoever was recorded in the assessment order in this regard.

It noted that issue under consideration stands directly covered by the decisions of the Supreme Court in the cases of CIT v. Rai Bahadur Hardutroy Motilal Chamaria [66 ITR 443] and CIT v. Shapoorji Pallonji Mistry [44 ITR 891] where it has been categorically held that although the powers of the first appellate authority are wide, such powers do not extend to bringing to tax a new source of income which was not considered by the AO. Similar view has been expressed by the Full Bench of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Sardari Lal & Co. [251 ITR 864].

Further, the Delhi High Court in the case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. v. CIT [336 ITR 136] and the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. [331 ITR 236] have categorically held that where no addition survives on the issue for which the assessment was reopened, the Revenue cannot independently assess income on issues unconnected with the reasons recorded for reopening. The jurisdiction under section 147 is founded upon the reasons recorded and cannot be enlarged to unrelated matters once the very basis of reopening fails.

It held that –

i) the Act prescribes specific statutory conditions and time limits for reopening an assessment and bringing to tax income alleged to have escaped assessment. The reassessment jurisdiction is not an unbridled jurisdiction but is circumscribed by the limitations consciously imposed by the legislature. If the contention of the Revenue is accepted that the CIT(A) can, at any stage, introduce a completely new source of income unrelated to the issue for which reassessment proceedings were initiated, it would virtually render the statutory limitations prescribed under sections 147 to 149 otiose;

ii) such an interpretation would confer upon the Appellate Authority a power wider than that available to the AO himself. The consequence would be that although the AO may be precluded from examining a particular issue due to statutory limitations or jurisdictional restrictions, the same issue could nevertheless be brought to tax years later by the Appellate Authority under the guise of enhancement. Such a consequence could never have been intended by the Legislature;

iii) the powers conferred under section 251 are undoubtedly wide; however, they cannot be interpreted in a manner which defeats the safeguards and limitations built into the reassessment provisions. The power of enhancement is only ancillary to appellate jurisdiction and cannot become an independent source of jurisdiction to assess income which the AO himself could not have assessed in the reassessment proceedings;

iv) stated differently, what the AO could not have done directly while exercising jurisdiction under sections 147/148, the CIT(A) cannot be permitted to do indirectly while exercising powers under section 251 of the Act. The settled principle of law is that what cannot be done directly cannot be permitted to be achieved indirectly. Therefore, viewed from this angle also, the enhancement made by the CIT(A) cannot be sustained.

Following the aforesaid judicial precedents and for the reasons recorded hereinabove, the Tribunal held that the enhancement made by the CIT(A) by bringing to tax Long Term Capital Gain of Rs.98,94,000 is beyond the scope of his jurisdiction and is liable to be deleted.

Denial of claim under section 54F cannot be sustained where the case of the assessee was selected for limited scrutiny with the notice under section 143(2) stating verification of large cash deposits in savings bank account to be the reason therefor. Once a revised return is filed, the original return stands replaced. Consequently, the assessment made on the basis of original return by ignoring the revised return which reduced the total income needs to be quashed.

36. 2026(6) TMI 1392 – ITAT – Delhi

Paluri Raghavan Gopala v. ACIT

A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of Order : 24.6.2026

Sections: 139, 143

Denial of claim under section 54F cannot be sustained where the case of the assessee was selected for limited scrutiny with the notice under section 143(2) stating verification of large cash deposits in savings bank account to be the reason therefor.

Once a revised return is filed, the original return stands replaced. Consequently, the assessment made on the basis of original return by ignoring the revised return which reduced the total income needs to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee preferred an appeal against the appellate order passed under section 250 of the Act by National Faceless Appeal Centre confirming the additions made by the Assessing Officer while assessing the total income of the assessee under section 143(3) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal where it raised two additional grounds viz. (i) that the CIT(A) erred in confirming the addition to total income as a result of disallowance of claim under section 54F on the ground that the same was beyond the scope of limited scrutiny; and (ii) the assessment framed on the basis of original return which stood replaced by revised return is bad in law and needs to be quashed.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the notice under section 143(2) merely mentioned cash deposit in savings bank account to be the reason for examination under limited scrutiny. The mere assertion of the Assessing Officer (AO) that issue of transfer of properties being part of limited scrutiny is not sufficient. It held that the AO travelled beyond the scope of limited scrutiny mentioned in the notice issued under section 143(2) of the Act.

As regards the second ground the Tribunal noticed that the assessee has filed a revised return wherein the total income has been reduced. The case of the assessee was that the notice under section 143(2) of the Act was issued with reference to the original return and not with reference to the revised return and that upon filing of revised return, the original return stood replaced.

The DR submitted that the revised return was filed after issuance of notice under section 143(2) of the Act and therefore no cognizance thereof was required to be taken.

The Tribunal held that the issue seems to be settled in favour of the assessee by decision of Tripura High Court in the case of Tripura State Electricity Corporation Ltd. v. PCIT [(2025) (8)TMI 1193 (Tripura HC)] wherein the High Court has held that once revised return is filed, the original return stand obliterated.

The Tribunal noted that in the case of assessee, when the assessment order was passed while re-computing taxable income on the basis of disallowance of capital gain and considering the same to be under the head of business income, the AO has taken return income of Rs. 57,71,360 which admittedly was total income in the original return dated 26.08.2015. Thus, a revised return seems to be completely ignored by the AO.

In view of the aforesaid discussion, the Tribunal allowed the additional ground raised by the assessee.

The enhanced rate of 60% under section 115BBE is applicable only from AY 2018-19. Consequently, during the AY 2017-18, in respect of the professional receipts surrendered in the course of survey, the AO could not have applied the enhanced rate.

35. 2026(6) TMI 1328 – ITAT – Agra

Vikas Chandra Mittal v. ACIT

A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of Order : 24.6.2026

Section: 115BBE

The enhanced rate of 60% under section 115BBE is applicable only from AY 2018-19. Consequently, during the AY 2017-18, in respect of the professional receipts surrendered in the course of survey, the AO could not have applied the enhanced rate.

FACTS

During the survey action conducted u/s 133A of the Act at the business premises of the assessee on 31.08.2016, the assessee surrendered Rs. 20,00,000/- out of professional receipts said to have been invested in building construction. The Assessing Officer (AO) subjected this amount to tax under the provisions of section 115BBE @ 60% as against the normal rate of tax @ 30% paid by the assessee and added to the income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) which was dismissed.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it relied upon the order of the Madras High Court in W.P (MD) No.2078/2020 and WMP (MD) No. 1742/2020 in S.M.I.L.E Microfinance Ltd v. ACIT and also on the order dated 03.02.2025 passed by the Agra Bench in ITA No. 209/Agr/2023 (A.Y.2017-18) in the case of Jai Narayan Maheshwari v. ITO, wherein, the tribunal has referred and relied upon S.M.I.L.E Microfinance Ltd. (supra).

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the main point for determination under appeal is whether impugned amount of Rs. 20,00,000 surrendered by the assessee during the survey conducted on 31.08.2016, for A.Y. 2017-18, has to be taxed at normal rate i.e. @ 30% as against 60% invoked by the revenue u/s 115BBE of the Act.
It noted that it is an undisputed fact that assessee, during the survey conducted on 31.8.2016, relevant to A.Y. 2017-18, disclosed Rs.20,00,000/- as income from professional receipts.
The Tribunal held that in view of the order dated 19.11.2024 passed by Madras High Court in S.M.I.L.E Microfinance Ltd (supra), section 115BBE of the Act applying tax @ 60% cannot be applied in the instant case, which is related to A.Y. 2017-18 and the AO is empowered to impose only @ 30% u/s 115BBE of the Act. The Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee and against the revenue.

Payment made by the assessee to its teachers qualified for deduction of tax at source under section 194J and not under section 192. Regulations, restrictions, guidelines and control exercised in regard to logistical and administrative functions of the workforce are not unique to an education organisations and it is difficult to identify any establishment that does not exercise some degree of control over the administrative and logistical functioning of the workforce, be they salaried or otherwise called as a consultant

34. TS-931-ITAT-2026(Cochin)

Brilliant Study Centre Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO, TDS

A.Y.: 2023-24 Date of Order : 16.6.2026

Sections: 192, 194J, 201, 201(1A)

Payment made by the assessee to its teachers qualified for deduction of tax at source under section 194J and not under section 192.

Regulations, restrictions, guidelines and control exercised in regard to logistical and administrative functions of the workforce are not unique to an education organisations and it is difficult to identify any establishment that does not exercise some degree of control over the administrative and logistical functioning of the workforce, be they salaried or otherwise called as a consultant

FACTS

Consequent to a survey conducted on the assessee, engaged in imparting coaching for medical and engineering aspirants, under section 133A(2A) of the Act, the Assessing Officer (AO) issued a show cause notice to the assessee seeking explanation as to why tax has been deducted at source under section 194J and not under section 192 of the Act in respect of payments made to 121 teachers.

The AO, in the show cause notice, observed that assessee has appointed 121 teachers who are treated as professionals and not employees. He also noted that they were initially treated as employees but subsequently, to meet market competition, were regarded as professionals. He observed that when teachers joined from other institutes they were treated as professionals. The teachers were appointed on the basis of verbal agreement with the management as faculty members. They were paid on hourly basis and were to take lectures for 5 to 7 hours a day. They were not allowed to take lectures in other institutes and were promised an increment of approximately 10%. The assessee responded that all these are administrative measures and that the teachers are not employees but are professionals.

The AO held that in view of the fact that the effective control, set working hours, termination procedure, policies and applicable leave rules along with the non-compete clause, monthly payment of remuneration, medical insurance and provision of transport services are all indicative that the teachers are employees. However, he admitted that each of the teachers have filed their respective returns of income and have offered income for taxation under section 44ADA of the Act which returns have been accepted by the revenue. Relying on certain judicial precedents he held that the relationship of the assessee with the teachers was an employer-employee relationship and therefore tax ought to have been deducted under section 192 and not under section 194J as has been done by the assessee. He passed an order under section 201 demanding the amount of tax short deducted and also interest thereon u/s 201(1A).

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where the submissions made earlier were reiterated and reliance was placed inter alia on the decision of the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in ITA No. 1352/Mum/2014 and 5227/Mum/2014 dated 11.1.2017 wherein it has been held that the payment made to radio jockey on similar terms and conditions has been held to be payment for professional services liable for TDS under section 194J.

HELD

The Tribunal, at the outset, noted that the only issue involved is the section under which tax is required to be deducted at source by the assessee in respect of payments made by the assessee to the teachers engaged by it. The Tribunal noted that the teachers were referred to as ‘consultants’ and fell within the category of visiting teachers. Remuneration was a fixed amount along with a variable component and is termed as `professional fees’. They are not entitled to any statutory benefits like PF, Gratuity, Bonus, Medical reimbursement, leave encashment, etc. Working hours are stipulated and the teachers are expected to be available for extra lectures. Teachers cannot go to other coaching classes. The assessee does not exercise control, intervention or direction over the exercise of professional duties by them and the teachers are free to teach in their own way subject to curriculum. There is no indemnity between the assessee and the teachers and there is no written agreement / contract.

The Tribunal observed that the key distinction is between a contract for service and one of service and depends on several factors. It held that the regulations, restrictions, guidelines and control exercised in regard to logistical and administrative functions of the workforce are not unique to an education organisation and it is difficult to identify any establishment that does not exercise some degree of control over administrative and logistical functioning of the workforce, be they salaried employees or otherwise called as consultants.

The Tribunal found that the identical issue arose before the Madras High Court in case of Dr. Mathew Cherian vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax [(2023) 450 ITR 568 (Madras)] wherein all those decisions relied upon by the revenue authorities are considered and the High Court has held that ‘Where agreement between doctors and hospital revealed that doctors were not entitled for any statutory benefits and doctors held full responsibility for their medical decisions without any interference of hospital, it could be said that intention of parties were to engage in a relationship of equals and not one of master-servant and therefore, department was not justified in issuing reassessment notice under section 148A for taxing income returned by assessees as salary income’.

Following the decision of the Madras High Court, the Tribunal held that the payment made by the assessee to the teachers engaged by it qualified for deduction of tax at source under section 194J of the Act. Accordingly, the order passed by the AO under section 201 / 201(1A) and the order of the CIT(A) confirming the action of the AO were quashed.

Earn-Outs And The Taxman (Part II): Taxation Of Contingent Consideration

The taxation of contingent consideration (earn-outs) remains legally unsettled under the Income-tax Act, 2025. Indian courts maintain that contingent amounts do not accrue in the transfer year because no enforceable right yet exists. Drawing from the UK’s Marren v. Inglis ruling, this contingent right could be treated as a separate capital asset taxed upfront at fair market value, with subsequent gains taxed upon crystallization. Alternatively, taxpayers may argue it is a non-taxable capital receipt if the acquisition cost is indeterminable, despite recent legislative amendments. Additionally, earn-outs tied to continued employment risk being recharacterized and taxed as salary. Legislative clarity is ultimately required to resolve these ambiguities.

In the first part of this article1, the discussion focused on consideration placed in escrow and the difficulties that arise under the Income-tax Act, 2025 (IT Act) where a portion of the sale consideration does not accrue to the seller in the year of transfer, but only becomes receivable later upon fulfillment of stipulated conditions. The present part turns to a related, but conceptually distinct, issue: contingent consideration.

Unlike escrow, which ordinarily involves a retained portion of an already agreed consideration being held back as a risk-allocation mechanism, contingent consideration is typically an additional amount that itself becomes payable only upon the occurrence of uncertain future events (i.e., to say the quantum of the consideration itself depends on the future event). In modern M&A transactions, such earn-out structures are frequently used to bridge valuation gaps and align post-closing incentives. Their tax treatment, however, remains doctrinally unsettled. The issues do not concern timing alone. They extend to the character of the seller’s contractual right, the possible relevance of the English decision in Marren (Inspector of Taxes) v. Inglis2, the implications of the amendment to Section 55(2)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA 1961) by the Finance Act, 2023, and the risk that what is labelled as contingent consideration may, in substance, be recast as salary or business income where it is linked to continued employment or post-closing services.


1 Published in BCAJ 58 (2026) 255.

2 [1980] 1 WLR 983 (HL) cited by HMRC in their capital gains manual, 
available at CG14950 -https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/capital-gains manual/cg14950 (Last accessed 12th July 2026).

This distinction also assumes practical significance at the drafting stage. In a share purchase agreement (SPA), the precise manner in which the earn-out is documented may materially affect its eventual tax treatment. For instance, language that more clearly evidences that the earn-out is part of the negotiated capital value for the shares—rather than compensation for future services—may support capital gains treatment. Similarly, the formulation of the contingency, the length of the earn-out period, and the extent to which the payout is linked to post-closing employment or managerial functions may significantly influence the characterization analysis. These practical aspects are revisited later in this article.

The concept of accrual, relevance of Section 5 and its interplay was discussed in the first part of this article.3 This principle—that contingent consideration does not accrue in the year of transfer if the contingency has not materialized—was clearly articulated by the Bombay High Court in CIT v. Mrs. Hemal Raju Shete4. In this case, consideration for the sale of shares was capped at a maximum of INR 20 crores, but the actual amount payable was dependent on future profits. The Revenue sought to tax the entire INR 20 crores in the year of transfer.

The High Court rejected this view, observing that the consideration was not assured but was merely the maximum that could be received. The Court held that since the amount was contingent upon future profits, no right to claim any particular amount had vested in the assessee during the assessment year. Consequently, the amount could not be said to have accrued.

This view—that the test of accrual is whether there is a legally enforceable right to receive the amount—has been followed in subsequent decisions.5


3 BCAJ 58 (2026) 256, 257.

4 [2016] 239 Taxman 176 (Bom.).

5 Dinesh Vazirani v. PCIT [2022] 445 ITR 110 (Bom.); Modi Rubber Ltd v. DCIT [TS-81-ITAT-2024(DEL)]. 
Cf. Ajay Gulia v ACIT [2012] 209 Taxman 295 (Delhi), wherein it was held that capital gains are chargeable
 in the year of transfer and, therefore, contingent consideration was includible in the full value of consideration,
 even though it had not accrued. It was further observed that Section 48 could not curtail the operation of Section 45(1).
 These observations, particularly regarding the interplay between Sections 45(1) and 48, may warrant reconsideration. 
It is well settled that any income sought to be taxed must first fall within the ambit of Section 5. Although, 
a solitary reading of Section 67(1), a conclusion may be drawn that once the contingent consideration accrues, 
the gains are referable to and thus taxable in the year of transfer, the reasoning adopted in the judgment may nonetheless 
invite closer scrutiny given that Section 5 covers only accruals during the year. The referability condition of Section 2(108)
 would not be met in the year of transfer.

 

 

The Earn Out Enigma

THE LACUNA: TAXATION UPON CRYSTALLIZATION

The current framework of Section 5, Section 67(1)6, and Section 727 does not specifically provide for the taxability of contingent consideration in the year in which the contingency is fulfilled and the additional amount becomes payable.

More specifically, should the additional consideration be subjected to tax as capital gains, retaining the character of the original transfer, but in the year of realization? If so, would this approach conflict with Section 67(1), which mandates that capital gains be charged to tax in the year in which the transfer takes place? Alternatively, should the gain be characterized independently at the time the contingent consideration crystallizes? It may also be argued that the amount received as contingent consideration constitutes a capital receipt falling outside the ambit of Section 67(1), since there is no separate transfer of a capital asset upon the crystallization of the contingency.

At this juncture, it is apposite to acknowledge the prevailing market practice: taxpayers generally offer contingent consideration to tax in the year of its accrual, characterizing it as capital gains of the same nature as the original transfer8 (i.e., if the original gains were long term (LTCG), contingent consideration is also treated as long term, though not in the year of transfer, but in the year of accrual).

The issue, therefore, is not whether the market has adopted a pragmatic convention, but whether that convention is supported by the statute on a strict construction. In addressing this question, one may refer to Section 2(108) of the IT Act,9 which defines “total income”10 to mean the total amount of income referred to in Section 5, computed in the manner as laid down in the IT Act. Accordingly, it is not sufficient that the referability requirement under Section 5—whether by way of accrual or receipt—is satisfied. The computation of such income must also be possible in the manner contemplated by the IT Act.

The objective of the discussion that follows is to examine whether a more technically coherent framework may be derived from English jurisprudence, particularly from the decision in Marren v. Inglis, and whether an alternative argument remains available that the receipt may, in certain circumstances, not be chargeable to tax at all.


6 Section 45(1) of ITA 1961

7 Section 48 of ITA 1961


8 See Footnote 11 on BCAJ 58 (2026) 258.

9 Section 2(45) of ITA 1961.

10 On which Section 4 of the IT Act creates the charge. 
Section 4(1) provides that where any Central Act enacts that income-tax shall
 be charged for any tax year at any rate or rates, income-tax for such tax year 
shall be charged at that rate or those rates in accordance with and subject to 
the provisions of the IT Act. Section 4(2) further provides that the charge of
 income-tax under sub-section (1) shall be on the total income of the tax year of 
every person as determined in accordance with the provisions of the IT Act.

THE ENGLISH POSITION: MARREN V. INGLIS

In the absence of direct Supreme Court / High Court rulings11 on the subsequent taxability of crystallized contingent consideration, the House of Lords decision in Marren (Inspector of Taxes) v. Inglis (supra) could provide instructive guidance.

In Marren, the taxpayer, Inglis, transferred 69 shares of J. L. Inglis (Holdings) Ltd. to Industrial and Commercial Finance Corporation Ltd. (ICFC) under a share sale agreement dated 15 September, 1970. The consideration was structured in two parts: (i) For 41 shares, a fixed consideration of £1,500 per share was paid upfront; and (ii) For the remaining 28 shares, the consideration comprised an immediate cash payment of £750 per share, plus a deferred and contingent amount described as “one-half of the profit”. This deferred amount was contingent upon the flotation of the Company on a recognized stock exchange by 31 December 31, 1975. The Company was floated in November 1972, and the deferred consideration was quantified at £2,825 per share. The Revenue argued that the right to receive the future consideration was a distinct asset (a chose in action) acquired at the time of the original share transfer, and the subsequent receipt of money in 1972 was as a result disposal of that separate asset.

The House of Lords held that the right to receive contingent consideration constituted “property” and therefore an “asset” under the UK Finance Act, 1965 (1965 Act).12 Consequently, the transaction involved the acquisition of this separate asset at the time of the original sale. When the contingency materialized and funds were received, it constituted a disposal of this right, attracting capital gains tax.13 The Court rejected the argument that the receipt was merely the realization of a debt, noting that a contingent right to an unascertainable sum is not a debt until crystallized.14

Lord Fraser noted that the correct approach was to value the contingent right (the chose in action) as of the date of the original transfer and tax that value as part of the initial consideration. Any subsequent gain upon the realization of that right would be a separate taxable event.15


11 See also discussion on Sunil’s decision (infra).

12 The House of Lords referred to Section 22(1) of the 1965 Act which defined asset as 
“All forms of property shall be assets for the purposes of this Part of this Act... 
including— (a) options, debts and incorporeal property generally...”. 
One may note the similarities between this definition and the definition of 
capital asset under Section 2(22) of the IT Act [erstwhile Section 2(14)].

13 The House of Lords referred to Section 22(3) which provided that there is 
disposal of assets by their owner where any capital sum is derived from assets 
notwithstanding that no asset is acquired by the person paying the capital sum. 
One may draw parallels to the concept of extinguishment of rights in the capital asset
 under Section 2(109)(b) of the IT Act [erstwhile Section 2(47)(ii)].

14 For context, Para 11(1) of Schedule 7 of the 1965 Act provided that where a person incurs a debt to another
... no chargeable gain shall accrue to that (that is the original) creditor... on a disposal of the debt...” 
It was held that no debt existed at the time of the initial transfer because a contingent right to an 
unascertainable sum could not be regarded as a debt. When the contingency materialized, while a debt
 may then have arisen, the sum received was “derived from” the asset (the chose in action) that crystallized, 
and was chargeable on that basis. Full text of the 1965 Act can be accessed at https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1965/25/contents/enacted, 
Part III therein dealt with capital gains (Last accessed 12th July 2026).

15 Marren v. Inglis (supra), at p. 988. Basis the question raised before the House of Lords 
(as noted on p. 984 and 985), these observations should be regarded as an obiter dictum and not the ratio decidendi.

APPLICABILITY TO INDIA

Given the similarities between the 1965 Act and the IT Act regarding the definitions of “capital asset” and “transfer”, the ratio in Marren v. Inglis may have significant persuasive value in India.16 If this principle is applied, the “right to receive” contingent consideration should be treated as a separate capital asset distinct from the shares originally transferred.


16 Sampath Iyengar’s Law of Income Tax (13th Ed., Vol. 1, p. 207) notes 
“English statutes may appear superficially to be similar but on deeper scrutiny may reveal differences... 
In some matters, however... the Indian law is in no way different from the English law and 
English decisions can be of assistance in interpretation... English decisions are continued 
to be cited and even followed in Indian Law.” Recently, the Supreme Court, in Jindal Equipment 
Leasing Consultancy Service Ltd v. CIT [2026] 484 ITR 641 (SC), relied on an English precedent
 while examining the taxability of shares received in an amalgamated company in exchange for shares 
held as stock-in-trade in the amalgamating company. In this context, the Court referred to
 Royal Insurance Co Ltd v Stephen [1928] 14 TC 22 (KB), which addressed a comparable issue (see para 19 on p.680).

PROPOSED APPROACH FOR TAXATION

A technically sustainable approach under the IT Act, aligned with Marren v. Inglis, is as follows:

1. Year of Transfer: The full value of consideration should include the initial cash consideration, the deferred consideration (at full value), and the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the contingent right (the separate asset);

2. Valuation: The FMV of the contingent right can be determined using Scenario-Based Methods (for simple structures) or Option Pricing Models such as Black–Scholes (for complex, non-linear structures).17 If the FMV is indeterminable, Section 8018 of the IT Act may be invoked to deem the FMV of the transferred shares as the full value of consideration. As no specific rules are prescribed for the determination of FMV under Section 80, the term must be understood in the context of Section 2(44)19 of the IT Act—i.e., the price that the asset would ordinarily fetch if sold in the open market on the relevant date. In the absence of specific statutory guidance under the IT Act, the valuation could be determined based on a reasonably acceptable date (such as within 180 days prior to the date of transfer, drawing parallels from FEMA pricing guidelines and Rule 15(8)(l) of the Income-tax Rules, 2026)20. Furthermore, the method of valuation should align with generally accepted valuation principles, and reliance may be placed on the valuation standards issued by the ICAI;

• The valuation of the contingent right for the purposes of Section 72, or the underlying shares for the purposes of Section 80, may be carried out by a Chartered Accountant, a Registered Valuer, or a Merchant Banker. It is pertinent to note that, in both instances, there is no strict statutory prescription regarding the specific method, the exact valuation date, or the designated professional required to conduct the valuation21;

• Lord Fraser in Marren (supra)22 also observed that there is a suggestion that it may be impossible to assess the value of the right and nothing that he said was intended to indicate any opinion on the valuation of the right as at the date of transfer of shares; and

3. Year of Crystallization: When the contingency is met and money is received, capital gains should be computed as the difference between the amount received and the cost of acquisition of the right (i.e., the FMV taxed in the year of transfer).

This approach resolves the difficulty of taxing an unknown future sum in the year of transfer while ensuring the income does not escape the tax net. It also addresses the characterization of the gain. If the right is held for more than 24 months before the contingency materializes, the subsequent gain should be long term; otherwise, it is short term.


17 See Grant Thornton, Valuation of Complex Financial Instruments. 
https://www.grantthornton.in/globalassets/1.-member firms/india/assets /pdfs/valuation_and_accounting_complex_fin_instruments.pdf
 (Last accessed on 12th July 2026).

18 Section 50D of ITA 1961.

19 Section 2(22B) of ITA 1961.

20 Rule 3(8) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962.

21 It may not be out of context to quote Viscount Simon from Gold Coast 
Selection Trust Ltd v Humphrey (Inspector of Taxes) [1949] 17 ITR(Supp.) 19 (HL) 
wherein he observed that “valuation is an art, not an exact science. Mathematical 
certainty is not demanded, nor indeed it is possible”. Valuation thus is a subjective issue which cannot be quantified or narrowed down.

22 On p. 988(E).

AN ALTERNATIVE PERSPECTIVE: COULD CONTINGENT CONSIDERATION BE A CAPITAL RECEIPT NOT CHARGEABLE TO TAX?

For the sake of brevity, the discussion around definition of income, requirement of strict construction, sine qua non for Section 67(1) and the statutory lacunae in the IT Act are not discussed in this article.23 These arguments could very well apply even in the context of contingent consideration. The discussion that follows proceeds in the alternative, assuming that the dictum of the House of Lords in Marren v. Inglis (supra) were to apply.

Notwithstanding the conceptual attractiveness of Marren, a substantial line of argument remains available that contingent consideration may, in some cases, constitute a capital receipt not chargeable to tax. This argument may be approached in stages.


23 See BCAJ 58(2026) 258, 259, 260 and 261 for discussion on the same.

CHARACTERIZATION OF THE CONTRACTUAL RIGHT AS A “CAPITAL ASSET”

Section 2(22) of the IT Act defines a capital asset to mean “property of any kind held by an assessee.” The expression “property” is not defined in the IT Act and must, therefore, be understood in its ordinary legal sense and in light of judicial authority. The term is one of the widest amplitude. It is commonly understood as a thing or aggregate of rights belonging to a person, and is often described as a “bundle of rights”.24 Property is nomen generalissimum, and extends to every species of valuable right and interest including real and personal property, easements, franchises, and other incorporeal hereditaments.25 Judicially too, the Supreme Court in CWT v. Ahmed G. Arif26 recognized that “property” is a term of the widest import and, subject to contextual limitations, signifies every possible interest which a person can clearly hold or enjoy.

At first principle, therefore, a right under an agreement to receive additional money in future may readily answer the description of “property”. The real difficulty lies not in the width of the word “property”, but in determining whether an earn-out right, while still contingent and inchoate, is sufficiently vested in law to qualify as a distinct capital asset at the time of the original transfer. This question assumes significance because, if the right itself constitutes a separate capital asset, the subsequent receipt upon crystallization may be analyzed as consideration derived from, or on extinguishment of, that asset rather than merely as a delayed fragment of the original sale price.27

In this regard, the Bombay High Court’s reasoning in CIT v. Abbasbhoy A. Dehgamwalla is relevant. The Court held, in the context of Section 2(14) of the ITA 1961, that an item incapable of transfer under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (TOPA) may fall outside the conception of a capital asset.28 Section 6(e) of the TOPA specifically prohibits the transfer of a “mere right to sue”. Drawing from this reasoning, it may be argued that a purely contingent and unenforceable right to receive earn-out consideration, prior to fulfilment of the stipulated conditions, is analogous to a right that lacks present transferability and therefore does not yet attain the status of a capital asset.

Certain allied concepts help illustrate the point. A legacy before the death of the testator (spes successionis), an unvested employee stock option, or a mere right to sue all involve a form of expectation or contingent entitlement; yet these are not treated as capital assets for the lack of transferability, no present enforceable right or on account of the restriction contained in TOPA. On this line of reasoning, one may contend that, until the contingency is satisfied, the seller has no more than a contractual expectancy and not “property” in the capital asset sense. A similar argument may also be sought to be drawn, by analogy, from the escrow discussion—namely, that some contractual stipulations may be better viewed as part of the mechanics of the bargain rather than as giving rise to an independent asset in the hands of the seller.29

That said, this argument faces substantial difficulty in light of Marren v. Inglis. The House of Lords unanimously treated the seller’s right under the agreement to receive contingent consideration as a distinct chose in action and therefore as “property”. Lord Fraser expressly observed that incorporeal rights to money’s worth can constitute property and further noted that such rights could, in principle, be assigned or otherwise disposed of.30 Given the breadth of the expression “property of any kind” in Section 2(22), and absent any express statutory exclusion, the reasoning in Marren offers a strong basis to regard the earn-out right itself as a separate capital asset, notwithstanding that the amount receivable is uncertain and conditional.

In the author’s view, therefore, while the transferability objection provides an argument at the inception stage, it is ultimately difficult—especially after Marren and the wide judicial understanding of “property”—to maintain that the earn-out right is merely a contractual promise and not an asset at all.31 The utility of this discussion lies elsewhere. It helps frame the argument that, until crystallization, the right may not appropriately be brought to tax upfront as part of the full value of consideration; and, more importantly, it provides a conceptual basis for examining whether, upon a later waiver, cancellation, or mutual surrender of that right (prior to crystallization), there is an extinguishment of rights in a capital asset capable of having independent tax consequences.32 Once the contingency is fulfilled, the right ceases to be inchoate; at that stage, it much more clearly answers the description of “property”, and the argument that no capital asset exists becomes materially harder to sustain.


24  Concise Oxford English Dictionary, 12th edition, p. 1150, Black’s Law Dictionary, 12th Edition, p. 1472.

25 Advanced Law Lexicon by P. Ramanatha Aiyar, Seventh Edition, Volume 3, pp. 5085-5097.

26 [1970] 76 ITR 471 (SC).

27 See discussion on the possible treatment of contingent consideration upon crystallization 
and the relevance of analyzing the right itself as a distinct asset in Marren v. Inglis (supra).

28 CIT v. Abbasbhoy A. Dehgamwalla [1992] 195 ITR 28 (Bom.).

29 See BCAJ 58(2026) 259, 260 where this was discussed.

30 Marren v Inglis (supra) at p. 988.

31 See paragraph 4 of Sunil’s decision (infra). 
This records the reasoning of the CIT(A) as part of the factual background 
leading up to the lis before the Court. In the author’s view, however, 
the treatment of the asset as a short-term capital asset, without granting the
 benefit of the holding period from the date of receipt of such right, may not be
 correct and is not free from doubt. In this regard, one may refer to the observations
 of Bangalore ITAT in N.R. Ravikrishnan v ACIT [2018] 68 ITR(T) 457 (paras 4.4.1-4.4.4).

32 See Section 2(109)(b) of the IT Act [corresponding to Section 2(47)(ii) of the ITA 1961],
 which includes the extinguishment of rights in a capital asset within the ambit of “transfer”.

EXCLUSION FROM THE “FULL VALUE OF CONSIDERATION” UPFRONT

Foregoing analysis gives a robust defense for taxpayers to argue that the FMV of the right to receive contingent consideration should not be included in the full value of consideration accruing or received as a result of the initial transfer of shares or business. Since the contractual right is contingent and unenforceable on the date of the primary transfer, treating it as “consideration” would amount to taxing notional income—income that has neither accrued to nor been received by the taxpayer. This could assist the taxpayer in not paying taxes on the FMV of the right in the year of transfer and overcome the obiter dictum of Lord Fraser.33 It is reiterated that the issue for consideration before the House of Lords was the taxability in the year of receipt of contingent consideration and not the year of transfer of shares. Hence, the observation of Lord Fraser should be understood in that context.


33 Marren v Inglis (supra) at p. 988.

THE “TRANSFER” ELEMENT AND THE TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT

The next aspect for consideration is whether the assessee “transfers” any capital asset upon the receipt of the contingent consideration. Section 2(109) of the IT Act defines “transfer” in the widest possible manner, explicitly including the “extinguishment of any rights therein.” Accordingly, the Revenue may argue that the assessee realizes the contingent consideration as a direct result of the extinguishment of their contractual right under the agreement.

MUTUAL EXTINGUISHMENT OF RIGHTS AND GAAR IMPLICATIONS

The practical benefit of the above discussion (with regard to requirement of transferability element for existence of a capital asset) may be evaluated in instances where a taxpayer mutually agrees with the buyer to give up or cancel their right to receive the contingent consideration prior to the achievement of the performance conditions.

However, a strong note of caution is warranted: this mechanism should not be utilized as a colourable device to avoid tax where there is no genuine commercial rationale for cancelling the right. In such scenarios, the tax authorities are highly likely to invoke the General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) under Chapter XI of the IT Act to scrutinize the transaction. The Revenue may recharacterize the purported capital receipt as a revenue receipt and contend that the income should be taxed as “Income from Other Sources” (IFOS) under Section 92(1) of the IT Act34, thereby attracting the highest applicable tax rates and denying the benefit of lower capital gains rates. It is pertinent to note that substantive jurisprudence on GAAR recharacterization remains nascent; currently, the reported cases stem from writ petitions filed against the directions of the Approving Panel rather than final appellate rulings on the merits of recharacterization.35


34 Section 56(1) of ITA 1961.

35 See Ayodhya Rami Reddy Alla v. PCIT [2024] 466 ITR 497 (Telangana) and Anvida Bandi v. DCIT [2025] 177 taxmann.com 726 (Telangana)
 on the issue of bonus stripping and the applicability of GAAR (prior to the amendment to Section 94(8) of the ITA 1961, 
extending its scope to shares). Subject to one factual distinction—the shares were listed in the latter case—the decisions are diametrically opposed.
 While the former held that GAAR was applicable, the latter ruled that GAAR did not apply.
 Further, in Anvida Bandi, the Court does not appear to have been informed of the 2019 bonus issue, 
as the judgment contains no discussion of that fact. It will be interesting to see whether the Court provides
 an exposition on GAAR and its applicability in Hinduja Global Solutions Limited v. PCIT [WP No. 4867 of 2025 (Bom.)].

FAILURE OF THE COMPUTATION MECHANISM: COST OF ACQUISITION AND THE FINANCE ACT, 2023 AMENDMENT

The final, and perhaps most critical, argument against the taxability of contingent consideration rests on the inability to determine the cost of acquisition. It is crucial to note that the cost of acquisition of this contractual right is not nil. The taxpayer surely incurs a cost to acquire this right (though inchoate / contingent as on the date of transfer, and later getting vested on satisfaction of the conditions / veracity of the promises made), which may include a commercial discount on the initial upfront consideration (accepting a price lower than the FMV of the shares / business on the date of transfer) or the ongoing efforts of the shareholder in assisting the company to achieve the performance thresholds. Therefore, the contractual right is acquired for a cost, but such cost is inherently incapable of precise mathematical determination.

Prior to the amendment of Section 55(2)(a) by the Finance Act, 2023, taxpayers could successfully rely on the Supreme Court judgment in B.C. Srinivasa Setty.36 The Court held that the charging section (Section 45 of ITA 1961) and the computation section (Section 48 of ITA 1961) constitute an integrated code. If the cost of acquisition cannot be determined, the computation mechanism fails and, consequently, the charge under Section 67(1) must also fail.

To counter this, specific amendments were made by successive Finance Acts to gradually expand the scope of assets specified in Section 55(2)(a) of the ITA 1961, with the recent amendment being made by the Finance Act, 2023 to deem the cost of acquisition even in case of “other intangibles” or “other rights”. The amended provision reads as follows:37

“2) For the purposes of sections 48 and 49, ‘cost of acquisition’,-

(a) in relation to a capital asset, being goodwill of a business or profession, or a trade mark or brand name associated with a business or profession, or any other intangible asset or right to manufacture, produce or process any article or thing, or right to carry on any business or profession, or tenancy rights, or stage carriage permits, or loom hours, or any other right.”
(emphasis supplied)

To determine if the position discussed above would still continue post the Finance Act, 2023 amendment, it would be apposite to understand the connotation of the words “any other intangible asset” or “any other right”. The denotation of ‘intangible asset’ and ‘right’ is as under:

A. Intangible asset

Not constituting or represented by a physical object and not precisely measurable in value.38

Any non-physical asset or resource that can be amortized or converted to cash, such as patents, goodwill, and computer programs, or a right to something, such as services paid for in advance. 39

An item of value whose true worth is hard or almost impossible to determine, such as goodwill, reputation, patents and so on.40

B. Right

A moral or legal entitlement to have or do something. 41

The term “right”, in a civil society, is defined to mean that which a man is entitled to have or to do, or to receive from others, within the limits prescribed by law. ‘Right’ is an interest recognized and protected by moral or legal rules. Such right may be a vested right or accrued right or an acquired right. The nature of such right would depend upon and also vary from statute to statute.42

Something that is due to a person by just claim, legal guarantee, or moral principle. A legally enforceable claim that another will do or will not do a given act; a recognized and protected interest the violation of which is wrong. The interest, claim, or ownership that one has in tangible or intangible property. 43

The dictionary meaning of the term “intangible asset” and “right” is sufficiently broad enough to cover the rights under the SPA / Business Transfer Agreement (BTA) (as held in Marren v Inglis) and, accordingly, the cost may be deemed to be nil under Section 90(3) of the IT Act44, thereby making the computation mechanism workable.

However, the terms, viewed in context, may assist in discerning that their scope could be interpreted ejusdem generis. Essentially, the terms “any other intangible asset” and “any other right” should be understood based on the terms that precede them.

The rule of ejusdem generis has been explained thus:45 when particular words pertaining to a class, category or genus are followed by general words, the general words are construed as limited to things of the same kind as those specified. This rule, known as the rule of ejusdem generis, reflects an attempt to reconcile incompatibility between the specific and general words in view of the other rules of interpretation: that all words in a statute are to be given effect if possible, that a statute is to be construed as a whole, and that no words in a statute are presumed to be superfluous.

The rule applies when (1) the statute contains an enumeration of specific words; (2) the subjects of enumeration constitute a class or category; (3) that class or category is not exhausted by the enumeration; (4) the general terms follow the enumeration; and (5) there is no indication of a different legislative intent. If the subjects of enumeration belong to a broad-based genus as also to a narrower genus, there is no principle that the general words should be confined to the narrower genus.

The rule of ejusdem generis dictates that where general words follow specific words in a statute, the general words must be construed as taking their meaning and colour from the specific words preceding them. The specific assets listed in Section 90(3)—goodwill, trademarks, brand name, right to manufacture, tenancy rights, stage carriage permits, loom hours—are all distinct, commercial, business-related intangible assets or rights (except tenancy, which may be acquired for non-business purposes also). Tenancy rights are also acquired pursuant to a rental agreement / lease agreement, which has an element of continuity. A mere contractual right to receive contingent consideration does not share the same genus or commercial character as the specified business intangibles or rights. Therefore, the phrase “any other intangible asset” and “any other right” should be read down to exclude such contractual rights. If this interpretation holds, the cost of acquisition remains indeterminable (and not statutorily nil), meaning the B.C. Srinivasa Setty principle continues to apply, rendering the contingent consideration not chargeable to capital gains tax.

The author wishes to acknowledge that two views are reasonably possible here.46 The interpretation of the above terms may be contended to be wide by applying the mischief rule of interpretation as propounded by Lord Coke in Heydon’s case.47 The Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2023 provides as follows:48

“The existing provisions of the section 55 of the Act, inter alia, defines the ‘cost of any improvement’ and ‘cost of acquisition’ for the purposes of computing capital gains. However, there are certain assets like intangible assets or any sort of right for which no consideration has been paid for acquisition. The cost of acquisition of such assets is not clearly defined as ‘nil’ in the present provision. This has led to many legal disputes and the courts have held that for taxability under capital gains there has to be a definite cost of acquisition or it should be deemed to be nil under the Act. Since there is no specific provision which states that the cost of such assets is nil, the chargeability of capital gains from transfer of such assets has not found favour with the Courts.”

(emphasis supplied)

While the usage of “any other right” after specified rights and similarly “any other intangible asset” after specified intangible assets may, if the memorandum, CBDT circular explaining the amendment and the mischief rule were not considered, have reasonably invited the application of the rule of ejusdem generis to determine the scope of the amendment, the legislative intent would have been put beyond doubt if the words “any other right whatsoever” or “any sort of right” had been used in the statute itself rather than such words being employed only in the memorandum and circular explaining the amendment.

However, the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2023 specifically uses the words “any sort of right” while explaining the legislative intent underlying the introduction of the expression “any other right” in the aforesaid provisions. Thus, the introduction of “any other right” in context may be understood as expressly meant to widen the concept and, therefore, suggests a somewhat contrary intention to the application of the ejusdem generis rule. If this interpretation were to hold good, the amendment would be understood broadly and, hence, the cost of acquisition of the right to receive contingent consideration would be deemed to be nil and capital gains tax would be payable as per the dictum of Marren v Inglis (supra).

For the sake of completeness, if the receipt of contingent consideration escapes the charge of capital gains tax (for the reasons discussed above), the Revenue may attempt to tax such receipts under the residuary head, “Income from Other Sources”. This approach should not be tenable. For the sake of brevity, the reasons supporting this conclusion are not elaborated upon in this section, as they have already been discussed in detail in the first part of this article.49 Additionally, it may be contended that the contingent sum received is a composite payment for the satisfaction and extinguishment of the seller’s rights under the contract, which constitutes consideration for the purposes of Section 92(2)(m).50

To conclude on this branch, the non-taxability position primarily hinges upon the applicability of the ratio of Marren v Inglis (supra) in India. If the ‘right to receive contingent consideration’ is not considered a capital asset, the receipts thereunder would be capital receipts not liable to tax in the absence of a specific fiction to tax the same. However, if it is considered a distinct capital asset, one may have to argue on the non-applicability of Section 90(3) to these rights in order to defend the non-taxability position. It will have to be seen how the Courts would address this line of argument when raised in future.

Given the above discussion, it is pertinent to draw attention to the recent judgment of the Bombay High Court in Sunil Pran Sikand, on an issue akin to contingent consideration.51 In Sunil, the assessee along with his two sons had entered into a development agreement in 1992, under which the property was agreed to be developed by the builder. On the same date, the developer also issued a letter of commitment stating that, if it was able to obtain and load additional transferable development rights (TDR) on the property, it would pay further compensation to the assessee at the agreed rate. During the course of development, the builder obtained TDRs and paid the additional consideration in the previous year relevant to AY 1997-98. Such sums were offered to tax as LTCG in AY 1997-98.

The AO rejected this position and taxed the amount as IFOS on the basis that the original property had already been transferred under the 1992 development agreement and, therefore, no capital asset belonging to the assessee existed when the additional sum was received. In appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals), while substantially agreeing with the Assessing Officer’s reasoning, held that the amount was taxable instead as short-term capital gains, on the footing that the enforceable right arose only when the contingency materialized. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), however, restored the characterization as income from other sources, inter alia, on the basis that the commitment letter was unilateral and could not be read as part of the original development agreement.

The lis before the High Court was threefold: (i) whether the ITAT was justified in holding that, upon receipt of consideration under the development agreement, the assessee had ceased to be the owner of the property; (ii) without prejudice, whether the additional compensation was a capital receipt not liable to tax; and (iii) whether, if no cost had been incurred to acquire the additional FSI / TDR-related entitlement, the amount could at all be brought to tax, essentially on the applicability of the principle in B.C. Srinivasa Setty. The Court held that the development agreement and the letter of commitment, both dated 29 September 1992, ought to be read as one composite arrangement and that the additional amount paid upon loading of TDR was to be regarded as payment under the development agreement itself. Accordingly, the Court held that the ITAT was not correct in treating the sum as IFOS and accepted the assessee’s stand that the amount was taxable as LTCG in the year of receipt. Further, in view of the Court’s answer to question (i), the assessee did not press question nos. (ii) and (iii) pertaining to the capital receipt plea and the no-cost-of-acquisition argument.52

Essentially, it should be borne in mind that the Court never had an occasion to analyze the plea that the additional compensation constituted a capital receipt not chargeable to tax, since that contention was expressly not pressed and the fact that “A case is only an authority for what it actually decides and not what may come to follow logically from it”.53 Equally, one may still contend that the taxability of such additional compensation as LTCG in the year of receipt is not free from difficulty having regard to the definition of “total income” under section 2(108). As discussed in the first part of this article, such consideration could not have been included in the full value of consideration in the year of transfer because, at that stage, the right to receive the same had not accrued and the referability requirement under section 5 was therefore not satisfied. Conversely, in the year of accrual or receipt, the difficulty arises from the charging provision itself, namely section 67(1), under which capital gains are taxable only in the year in which the transfer of the capital asset takes place. Where, as the Court itself recognized, there is no separate transfer of a distinct capital asset at the stage of receipt of the additional amount, the computation in the manner laid down in the IT Act also becomes problematic. In that sense, one limb fails in the year of transfer for want of accrual, while the other fails in the year of receipt for want of a transfer in that year. This statutory lacuna was discussed in detail in the first part of the article and is not reproduced here for the sake of brevity.54 Reference is also drawn to the observations made in Decoding Section 5 (pp. 151-152), wherein it is noted that:

“The same [contingent consideration] cannot be taxed under Section 45(1) as no transfer is taking place in the year of receipt. It is not possible to revisit the taxation for the year of transfer as this part of the consideration did not accrue at all in the year of transfer. Therefore, there appears to be a legislative gap in dealing with this type of situation.”


36 CIT v B.C. Srinivasa Setty [1981] 128 ITR 294 (SC).

37 Section 90(3) of the IT Act corresponds to Section 55(2)(a) of ITA 1961.

38 Concise Oxford English Dictionary, 12th edition, p. 737.

39 Black’s Law Dictionary, 12th Edition, p. 144.

40 Advanced Law Lexicon by P. Ramanatha Aiyar, Seventh Edition, Volume 2, pp. 3248-3249.

41 Concise Oxford English Dictionary, 12th edition, p. 1238.

42 Advanced Law Lexicon by P. Ramanatha Aiyar, Seventh Edition, Volume 4, pp. 5601-5603.

43 Black’s Law Dictionary, 12th Edition, p. 1584.

46 “Such is the character of human language, 
that no word conveys to the mind, in all situations, 
one single definite idea…” per CJ Marshall in McCulloch v Maryland, 17 U.S. (4 Wheat.) 316, 414 (1819).

47 [1584] 76 ER 637. For the sure and true interpretation of all statutes in general, 
be they penal or beneficial, restrictive or enlarging of the common law, four things are to be discerned and considered, 
(a) what was the common law before the making of the Act (in context of statutes, understood as the law before the amendment), 
(b) what was the mischief and defect for which the common law (in context of statutes, understood as the pre-amended law) did not provide, 
(c) what remedy Parliament hath resolved and appointed to cure the disease of the Commonwealth (in context of statutes, understood as the pre-amended law),
 and (d) the true reason of the remedy.

48 Also see Circular 1/2024 explaining the amendments carried out by Finance Act, 2023, p. 78.

49 See BCAJ 58(2026) 261, 262.

50 Section 56(2)(x) of ITA 1961.

51 Sunil Pran Sikand v ACIT [2024] 466 ITR 770 (Bom), 
the case pertained to AY 1997-98 and appeal was admitted by the Court on 13th June 2006 
against the ITAT order dated 20th September 2002. The appellant herein was the son of the deceased assessee.

52 Ibid. para 9.

53 See Lord Halsbury LC, in Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495, 
wherein he inter alia observed that a case is only an authority for what it actually decides and 
that it cannot be quoted for a proposition that may seem to follow logically from it, 
quoted and endorsed by Justice Katju in Sarva Shramik Sanghatana (KV) Mumbai v State of Maharashtra [2008] 1 SCC 494 (SC) (para 15);
 Ambica Quarry Works v State of Gujarat & Others [1987] 1 SCC 213 (para 18); See also CIT v Sun Engineering Works P Ltd [1992] 198 ITR 297 (SC) 
and CIT v Thana Electricity Supply Ltd [1994] 206 ITR 727 (Bombay).

54 See BCAJ 58(2026) 258-261.

NATURE OF INCOME – UNDER WHAT HEAD WOULD THE CONTINGENT CONSIDERATION BE TAXED

Contingent consideration is an obligation on the acquirer to transfer additional assets or equity interests to the former owners of an acquiree if specified future events occur or conditions are met. Common conditions or triggers for such payments include:

  • Financial Performance: Achieving specified performance targets, such as exceeding a certain level of revenue, earnings, or EBITDA within a set period. [akin to the facts of Hemal Raju (supra)];
  • Operational Milestones: Reaching a specific milestone on a research and development project or obtaining regulatory approvals for a product;
  • Share Price Targets: Reaching a specified share price for the acquirer’s stock. [akin to the facts of Inglis (supra)]; or
  • Continuing Employment: Payments linked to the continued employment of selling shareholders who become key employee’s post-acquisition.

While the first three categories generally retain the character of capital receipts55, the fourth category—payments linked to continued employment—exposes the transaction to characterization risks. In practice, particularly involving individual promoters, share purchase agreements often stipulate cumulative conditions: the satisfaction of financial metrics (e.g., achieving ‘X’ EBITDA or a specific share price) coupled with a requirement for continued employment for a defined tenure (Y’ years). In such hybrid scenarios, a critical question arises: should the contingent consideration be regarded as capital receipts (may be taxable as capital gains) or as compensation for services rendered (salary)?56

In the absence of a specific test under the IT Act, the principles laid down in Ind AS 103 (Business Combinations) could be referred to for distinguishing between “purchase consideration” and “remuneration for post-combination services”.57 The distinction turns on the substance of the arrangement. The primary litmus test is the linkage to service: if the contingent payment is automatically forfeited upon termination of employment, it is likely to be treated as remuneration. Conversely, if the payment is unaffected by the cessation of employment, it supports the characterization as additional purchase consideration. Other determinative factors include the reasonableness of the employee’s standalone salary, the proportionality of payments relative to shareholding, and the specific formula used for valuation.58

These propositions are equally applicable under the IT Act. The factors delineated in Ind AS 103 are fundamentally commercial in nature and grounded in the doctrine of substance over form. Accordingly, they would serve as a critical guide in ascertaining the true character of the payment and determining the specific head of income to which it is inextricably connected.

In this regard, reference may be made to the decision of the Madras High Court in Anurag Jain59 and the Authority for Advance Rulings (AAR) ruling in Moody’s Analytics.60 The judgment in Anurag Jain should not be treated as laying down a blanket principle applicable to all situations where a promoter or individual shareholder receives contingent consideration while also being required to continue in employment with the company for a specified period. The mere existence of a continued employment condition should not, by itself, operate as an embargo against characterizing contingent payments as consideration for the transfer of assets. Instead, a holistic evaluation of the surrounding facts and commercial arrangements is warranted. One may refer to Ind AS 103 for the relevant factors, as discussed above.

Notably, such a comprehensive analysis appears to be absent in both the AAR ruling and the decision of the Madras High Court. Considerable emphasis was placed on the forfeiture or restitution of contingent consideration upon termination for cause. However, even where “cause” encompassed failure to achieve specified EBITDA thresholds, the contingent consideration was not, in fact, returnable in such circumstances. This nuance does not appear to have received adequate judicial attention.


55 Taxability as capital gains depending on the discussion undertaken above.

56 It may also be regarded as business income, in the absence of an employer-employee relationship.

57 This distinction is critical for accounting purposes: 
remuneration is recognized as a compensation expense in the post-combination period,
 whereas consideration is measured at its fair value on the acquisition date and forms part of the initial calculation of goodwill.

58 In this regard one may refer to Appendix B of Ind AS 103. Para B54 and Para B55 provide detailed guidance in this regard. 
Broadly, factors such as forfeiture on termination, alignment with employment period, below-market salary, 
disproportionate payouts, or profit-sharing style formulas point toward remuneration, while valuation-linked formulas and 
fair market compensation more strongly support treatment as additional consideration.

59 Anurag Jain v. AAR [2009] 308 ITR 302 (Madras), arising from an AAR order (277 ITR 1).

60 Moody’s Analytics Inc., USA, In re [2012] 348 ITR 205 (AAR).

A SHORT PRACTITIONER’S PERSPECTIVE

To preserve capital gains treatment, earn-out provisions should be drafted as an integral part of the negotiated share consideration, with a consistent commercial narrative across the SPA, employment documents, valuation materials, board papers, and correspondence. Post-closing compensation for sellers who remain involved in the business should be separately documented and benchmarked at arm’s length, and the earn-out should ideally be linked to objective business or valuation metrics rather than continued employment or service-based conditions; drafting should also avoid language suggesting bonus, incentive, or reward, and instead clearly state that the earn-out is part of the share purchase price and not remuneration for services, the following protective clause may be incorporated into the SPA:

DRAFT CLAUSE FOR SPA

“The Parties mutually acknowledge and agree that the Contingent Consideration (as defined herein) payable to the Sellers under Clause [Insert Clause Number] constitutes an integral component of the Purchase Price for the transfer of the Sale Shares and represents the deferred capital value of the Company negotiated between the Parties.

It is expressly clarified that the Contingent Consideration is strictly linked to the achievement of the Financial Milestones and does not, in any manner, constitute remuneration, compensation, bonus, or reward for any past, present, or future employment, consultancy, or other services rendered or to be rendered by the Sellers (or their affiliates) to the Acquirer, the Company, or any of their respective affiliates.

The Parties further acknowledge that any post-closing services provided by the Sellers to the Company shall be governed exclusively by a separate [Employment Agreement / Consultancy Agreement] dated [Insert Date], under which the Sellers shall be independently compensated at an arm’s-length fair market value, which is entirely distinct from and independent of the Sellers’ entitlement to receive the Contingent Consideration under this Agreement.”

APPLICABILITY OF SECTION 92(2)(M)

Section 92(2)(m)(iii)(B) of the IT Act provides that where a person receives any specified property (such as shares) for a consideration that is less than its FMV, the difference between such FMV and the consideration paid is taxable as income from other sources in the hands of the recipient (buyer).

In the context of contingent consideration, a question arises: what constitutes the “consideration” paid by the buyer? Is it merely the upfront cash, or does it include the obligation to pay future contingent amounts?

The term “consideration” is not defined under the IT Act and must be understood in its contextual sense. Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 187261 defines consideration to include past, executed, and executory consideration. For the purposes of Section 92(2)(m), consideration would ordinarily include the initial purchase consideration and deferred consideration (being executory consideration) at their full value.

However, a promise to pay contingent consideration is conditional and cannot be equated with executory consideration simpliciter. Given the uncertainty, the FMV of the obligation to pay (or the corresponding right to receive, in the hands of the seller) should be included in determining the value of consideration.

In essence, the full value of consideration accruing to the transferor may be regarded as the consideration due from the transferee. This aggregate value (Upfront + Deferred + FMV of Contingent Obligation) should be benchmarked against the FMV of the shares received to determine if any deemed income arises under Section 92(2)(m).


61 Section 2(d) reads: “When, at the desire of the promisor,
 the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing or does or abstains from doing, 
or promises to do or the abstain from doing something, such an act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise”.

OBLIGATION TO WITHHOLD TAXES

Section 393(2), Table: Sl. No.1762 casts an obligation on any person responsible for paying to a non-resident any sum chargeable to tax under the IT Act to withhold tax at the rates in force at the time of credit of such income to the account of the payee or at the time of payment thereof, whichever is earlier.

For initial and deferred consideration, the withholding obligation is clear. However, for contingent consideration, the issue is whether withholding is required prior to accrual. Even where contingent consideration is recognized in the books of account (e.g., as a provision under Ind AS), the mere credit of such amount may not be sufficient to trigger withholding obligations if the income has not legally accrued to the payee.

A tenable view is that income has not accrued until the contingency materializes. This position is reinforced by the language of Section 393(2), Table: Sl. No.17, which applies only to sums “chargeable to tax.” If the income has not accrued, it is not yet chargeable.

This is also the practice followed generally and finds mention in the decision of the Mumbai ITAT in Huntsman Investments (Netherlands) B.V.63 In this case, the buyer withheld taxes on the contingent consideration only upon its crystallization, distinct from the closing date consideration.

However, if the rationale of Marren v. Inglis (supra) is adopted—treating the contingent right as a separate asset transferred at closing—it may be prudent, from a risk-mitigation perspective, to withhold tax on the FMV of that right at the time of the initial transfer. Given the ambiguity, the prevailing practice remains to withhold tax on contingent consideration only upon crystallization.


62 Section 195 of ITA 1961.

63 Huntsman Investments (Netherlands) B.V. v DCIT [2024] 166 taxmann.com 63 (Mum Trib). 
While not a direct ruling on the timing of tax withholding, a factual finding was recorded in Para 7, 
wherein it was noted that the buyer had withheld taxes on the contingent consideration only upon its crystallization, 
distinct from the consideration paid at closing. In this case, Huntsman had sold the shares of Huntsman Advanced Materials Solution Private Limited 
to the Pidilite Industries Ltd. for an aggregate consideration of USD 285 million bifurcated into two components:
 ‘closing date consideration’ of USD 256.9 million and the ‘contingent consideration’ of USD 28.1 million.

CONCLUSION

The taxation of contingent consideration remains one of the more unresolved areas of capital gains law under the IT Act. Judicial authority clearly supports the proposition that such consideration does not accrue in the year of transfer so long as the seller has no enforceable right to receive it. The real controversy lies in what follows thereafter.

The principles in Marren v. Inglis provide a conceptually elegant framework by treating the contingent right as a separate capital asset and taxing the value of that right at inception, with further gains computed upon realization. Yet the Indian position is complicated by fundamental questions as to whether the right is itself a capital asset, how such a right is to be valued, and whether Section 90(3), is broad enough to deem the cost of acquisition of such rights to be nil. The issue is therefore far from free from doubt.

“The taxation of contingent consideration remains one of the more unresolved areas of capital gains law under the IT Act. “

A substantial counter-argument remains available that, depending on the nature of the right and the application of B.C. Srinivasa Setty, some receipts may still fall outside the charge to capital gains tax in the absence of a clear statutory fiction. Added to this are practical characterization risks where earn-outs are linked with continued employment and may, in substance, represent remuneration rather than purchase consideration.

Until legislative clarity is provided, the issue is likely to remain contested between literal and purposive readings of the statute. From a policy standpoint, a specific framework—similar in spirit to Section 67(12)—for contingent consideration, escrow releases, and claw backs would greatly reduce uncertainty and litigation. As Chief Justice of India S.H. Kapadia64 observed, “Certainty is integral to the rule of law. Certainty and stability are fundamental to any fiscal system, and tax policy clarity is crucial for taxpayers (including foreign investors) to make rational economic decisions in the most efficient manner”.

Additionally, readers may consider the taxability of contingent consideration in cases involving non-residents who have invested in shares of Indian companies and are residents of countries with which India has a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA). In such cases, while India retains the right to tax gains arising from the transfer of shares in an Indian company, the right to tax gains from the transfer of other assets may lie with the country of residence.65 For instance, in a joint development agreement, where a landowner (a company) parts with a portion of land to a developer in exchange for a right to a share in the project, the consideration for the transfer of land is the right to receive a share in the project. If the landowner transfers this right before receiving the completion certificate, what is being transferred is the right itself, not the land or building. Therefore, in such cases, Section 7866 of the IT Act, which applies only to the transfer of land or building, should not apply.67 A similar distinction should be drawn between the share and the right to receive contingent consideration when applying the DTAA.


64 In Vodafone International Holdings B.V. v Union of India [2012] 341 ITR 1 (SC), para 91. Similarly, refer to the observations of Justice Radhakrishnan in para 3 of his concurring judgment.

65 Illustratively refer to India-Singapore DTAA [Article 13(4B) and 13(5)] and India-Mauritius DTAA [Article 13(3A), Article 13(4)].

66 Section 50C of ITA 1961.

67 The decision of the Bombay High Court in Vidarbha Veneer Industries Ltd, (in liquidation) v ITO [2026] 484 ITR 132 (Bom) 
extending the scope of Section 50C to all immovable properties (not just land and building) 
may warrant reconsideration based on the literal language of the deeming provision. For a detailed critique on the judgment, 
one may refer to 484 ITR (Journal) 1-12.

Revised Code of Ethics, 2026

The Revised Code of Ethics, 2026, effective April 1, 2026, modernizes the ethical framework for Indian Chartered Accountants while preserving core professional integrity. The 13th Edition introduces a restructured three-volume format. Volume I updates domestic provisions, expanding permitted advisory services to include AI, forensics, and sustainability, while relaxing digital communication, website, and advertising guidelines. Volume II converges with the IESBA 2024 Code, strengthening independence rules around non-assurance services, expanding the definition of Public Interest Entities, and updating NOCLAR applicability. Finally, Volume III introduces entirely new ethical standards dedicated to sustainability assurance.

Ethics: A Timeless Foundation Rooted in Indian Tradition

The idea of ethics has deep roots in India’s philosophical and cultural traditions. The principle of Satyameva Jayate — “Truth Alone Triumphs” — reflects a timeless value that has guided personal conduct, public life and social institutions for centuries. Embedded in the national ethos, this principle continues to hold great relevance in modern professional life.

For Chartered Accountants, this ideal translates into a commitment to truth, transparency, fairness and professional responsibility. Ethical conduct is not limited to compliance with prescribed rules; it requires continuous alignment of professional behaviour with fundamental values. These values become especially important in situations where regulations may not provide explicit answers, or where competing interests require careful professional judgment.

Enhanced Significance of Ethics in the Accountancy Profession

The accountancy profession occupies a position of public trust. Chartered Accountants interact with a wide range of stakeholders — clients seeking professional advice, investors making financial decisions, regulators overseeing compliance, financial institutions evaluating credibility, and the public whose confidence supports the economic system.

In such a setting, ethics is not merely a regulatory obligation. It is the defining strength of the profession. The credibility, dignity and long-term sustainability of the Chartered Accountancy profession depend on the trust that society places in its members. That trust can be preserved only when professional competence is supported by integrity, independence and ethical conduct.

Genesis and Evolution of the Ethical Standards Board

Recognising the need for structured ethical guidance, the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India constituted the Ethical Standards Committee in 1976. This marked an important step in institutionalising ethical standard-setting for the profession.

Over the years, the Committee evolved in response to the changing professional environment. It was renamed as the Committee on Ethical Standards and Unjustified Removal of Auditors (CESURA), reflecting an expanded role, including its function as a fact-finding body. Subsequently, it was reconstituted as the Committee on Ethical Standards (CES) in 2005. In December 2008, it assumed its present name — the Ethical Standards Board (ESB) — aligning its role more closely with developments in ethical standard-setting at the national and international levels.

Today, the Ethical Standards Board is responsible for developing and issuing ethical standards, guiding members on matters of professional conduct, examining ethical issues referred by various stakeholders, and promoting awareness and compliance. Its role has steadily expanded from standard-setting to active engagement with the profession on ethical issues arising in practice.
The current year is particularly significant as it marks nearly five decades of the Board’s sustained contribution to strengthening ethical standards within the profession. This milestone reflects ICAI’s continuing commitment to integrity, independence and professionalism.

Evolution of the Code of Ethics

The Code of Ethics is a foundational publication that sets out the ethical framework for the Chartered Accountancy profession in India. Its origins go back to 1963, when ICAI issued the first edition titled the “Code of Conduct”. The initial framework incorporated statutory provisions and judicial interpretations, thereby providing a formal structure for regulating professional behaviour.

With the growth of the profession and changes in the regulatory landscape, the Code underwent significant transformation. In 2001, its nomenclature was changed from “Code of Conduct” to “Code of Ethics”, reflecting a broader and more principle-based approach. The focus expanded beyond prescribed conduct to include values, independence requirements and the exercise of professional judgment.

The evolution of the Code demonstrates the profession’s responsiveness to emerging challenges. Each revision has sought to maintain a balance between regulatory discipline and practical relevance, ensuring that the Code remains robust, contemporary and adaptable.

The Modern CA

The Revised Code of Ethics, 2026: A Significant Milestone

The revised Code of Ethics, 13th Edition, comprising Volumes I, II and III, is applicable with effect from April 1, 2026, except for Serial No. (xxxi) relating to “Assessment and evaluation of Social Impact, CSR Impact, Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting, and the like” under Management Consultancy and Other Services issued under Section 2(2)(iv) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. This particular provision in Volume I is effective from December 11, 2025.

The revision reflects a comprehensive effort to align the Code with contemporary developments, international standards and the evolving needs of the profession. It also recognises the expanding role of Chartered Accountants in areas such as sustainability, technology, forensic services, governance and public interest reporting.

A Revised Structure

The 13th Edition brings a significant structural change. In the earlier 12th Edition, Volume I was converged with the IESBA Code of Ethics, 2018 edition; Volume II contained domestic provisions governing Chartered Accountants; and Volume III served as a Case Laws Referencer.

The revised Code reorganises this structure. Volume I now contains domestic provisions governing Chartered Accountants, including amendments arising from the Chartered Accountants Act, Council decisions and contemporary developments. It also includes the Council General Guidelines. Volume II is converged with the IESBA Code of Ethics, 2024 edition, with suitable modifications for Indian requirements. Volume III is a new addition and deals with Ethics Standards for Sustainability Assurance, including independence standards.

The Case Laws Referencer, which was earlier part of the Code, has now been issued as a separate publication.

A Shloka that Sets the Tone

The revised Code begins with the shloka:

धर्मो रक्षति रक्षितः

Meaning: Dharma protected, protects. Therefore, let us not violate Dharma.

This opening is not merely symbolic. It reflects the philosophy underlying the Code. If professionals protect ethical principles, those principles in turn protect the profession. For a profession built on public trust, this message is both timeless and practical.

VOLUME I: DOMESTIC PROVISIONS

Bringing the Chartered Accountants Act to the Forefront

Volume I has been comprehensively updated to reflect amendments arising from the Chartered Accountants Act, contemporary developments and decisions of the Council. It provides members with a consolidated view of domestic ethical requirements applicable to Chartered Accountants.

Expansion of Professional Services

The revised Code broadens the scope of Management Consultancy and Other Services under Section 2(2)(iv) of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. Earlier, 28 services were recognised under this provision. The revised Code increases the list to 32 by including the following services:

  • Forensic Accounting and Investigation;
  • Research Analyst recognised by a regulator;
  • Assessment and evaluation of Social Impact, CSR Impact, Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting, and the like; and
  • Artificial Intelligence Consultancy in areas of services that can be rendered by a Chartered Accountant in practice.

Further, “Management and operational audits” has been expanded to include Information System Audit. These changes recognise the increasing demand for Chartered Accountants in specialised advisory and assurance areas, including forensic investigations, sustainability reporting, information systems and emerging technologies.

The revised Code also permits Chartered Accountants in practice to enter into partnerships with other recognised professionals under an Insolvency Professional Entity or Registered Valuers Entity, subject to compliance with the provisions of the Code.

Communication with the Previous Auditor

The recognised mode of communication with the previous auditor has been updated from “Registered Acknowledgement Due” to “Registered/Speed Post with Acknowledgement Due”. This change reflects current postal practices and provides practical clarity to members.

Compliance with Appointment Provisions

Clause (9) of Part I of the First Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 has been updated to incorporate amendments arising from the Chartered Accountants, Cost and Works Accountants and Company Secretaries (Amendment) Act, 2022.

The revised provision now requires compliance not only with Sections 139 to 141 of the Companies Act, 2013, but also with any other applicable law governing the appointment of auditors. For instance, appointment of auditors in banking and insurance companies must comply with the relevant sectoral laws.

New Clause Relating to Auditors

A new Clause (5) has been inserted in Part II of the Second Schedule. It provides that a member, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed guilty of professional misconduct if he acts as an auditor of a company in contravention of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

The objective is to uphold the sanctity of the audit process and reinforce the statutory responsibilities attached to the role of an auditor.

Modernising Professional Communication and Visibility

One of the important features of the revised Code is its recognition of modern modes of professional communication. The earlier Code permitted educational videos but restricted the mention of firm names and contact details. The revised provisions now allow members to upload educational audio, video and podcast content, with the firm’s name and contact details, provided the content remains educational in nature.

Restrictions relating to professional visibility have also been relaxed. Members writing articles or letters to the press on subjects connected with the profession may mention the name of the firm in which they are a partner or proprietor. Chartered Accountants in practice may conduct virtual programmes and webcasts, and invitations for such programmes may be sent not only to clients and staff of other Chartered Accountants, but also to others.

Another important change concerns network firms. Firms forming part of a network may now mention the name of the network on professional stationery, and the network may mention the names of the firms forming part of it. Networks registered with ICAI are also permitted to have websites, subject to the applicable website guidelines.

Write-up and Contemporary Forms of Communication

The revised Code significantly updates the Council Guidelines for Advertisement, 2008. The definition of “write-up” has been expanded to include “contemporary form” and “directories”, thereby recognising modern presentation formats and electronic directories as legitimate means of professional communication.
Several restrictions on the content of write-ups have been relaxed:

  • the earlier limit on font size has been removed;
  • the mandatory requirement to mention Membership Number or Firm Registration Number has been dispensed with;
  • members have greater flexibility in including additional professional information;
  • for non-exclusive services, the names of clients and the nature of assignments may be mentioned, subject to the client’s permission; and
  • for services exclusively reserved for Chartered Accountants, only the names of clients may be mentioned, again subject to the client’s permission.

At the same time, the underlying principle remains unchanged. A write-up must comply with the prescribed guidelines. It should not be false, misleading, exaggerated or undignified. Its purpose must be to provide information, not to secure professional work through solicitation or unfair advantage.

Website Guidelines: Pull and Push Technology

The website guidelines have also been modernised. Chartered Accountants, firms and registered networks may use both “pull” and “push” technology for non-exclusive services, while exclusive services must continue to follow the “pull” model.

Websites may display peer review status, Audit Quality Maturity Model level, and affiliation with a registered network. The revised provisions also permit passport-style photographs of persons associated with the firm, photographs of professional events organised by the firm, and photographs of professional events where lectures are delivered by partners or proprietors.

These changes recognise the importance of digital presence in professional practice, while retaining safeguards against solicitation and misleading advertisement.

Listing with Application-Based Service Provider Aggregators

A practical and relevant change relates to listing with online application-based service provider aggregators. Earlier, there was a prohibition where members or firms were listed along with categories such as businessmen, technicians, maintenance workers, event organisers and similar service providers.

The revised position permits members and firms to list themselves with online application-based service provider aggregators for non-exclusive services. This reflects present market realities and the growing use of digital platforms. There is no restriction on listing for non-exclusive services.

Members may also list themselves on platforms of the Government or regulators for providing professional services, such as the GeM portal. Members are also encouraged to use “CA Connect”, the listing portal on the platform of the Institute.

Guidelines on Ethical Issues, 2026

Another important change is the shift in terminology from “Council General Guidelines, 2008” to “Guidelines on Ethical Issues, 2026”. The revised guidelines address several practical matters affecting members in practice.

Non-payment of Undisputed Audit Fees

The revised Code introduces a new chapter on non-payment of undisputed audit fees in the case of continuing audits. A member in practice shall not sign the audit report of a Public Interest Entity if the undisputed audit fees for the previous year have not been paid.

In the case of non-PIE entities, the restriction applies where undisputed audit fees for two consecutive previous years have not been paid. An exemption is provided where insolvency resolution proceedings have been initiated and a Resolution Professional has been appointed.

Indebtedness and Audit Assignment Limits

The limit of indebtedness for accepting appointment as auditor has been increased from ₹1,00,000 to ₹5,00,000. The revised provision also clarifies that, for this purpose, the term “auditor” does not include an internal auditor, concurrent auditor or an auditor giving a report to management.

The limit on the number of company audit assignments has been increased from 30 to 40 audits of companies, excluding One Person Companies and Dormant Companies.
Further, the Guidelines for Practice in Corporate Form have been amended to include services such as forensic accounting, administrative services, research analysis, social impact assessment and evaluation, CSR impact assessment, Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting, and artificial intelligence services that may be rendered through a company.

Audit Fees through Digital Media

In line with the Government of India’s policy to promote the digital economy, the Council has recommended that members or firms should accept audit fees only through digital modes or banking channels.

Volume II: Convergence with the IESBA Code, 2024

Volume II of the revised Code is converged with the IESBA Code of Ethics, 2024 edition, with necessary modifications to suit Indian provisions.

The earlier terminology such as “Professional Accountant”, “Professional Accountant in Public Practice” and “Professional Accountant in Service” has been replaced with “Chartered Accountant”, “Chartered Accountant in Practice” and “Chartered Accountant in Service”. This change brings the language of the Code closer to the Chartered Accountants Act and the professional identity of Indian members.

Honesty as Part of Integrity

The fundamental principle of integrity has always required a Chartered Accountant to be straightforward and honest in professional and business relationships. The revised Code further strengthens this principle by including a specific paragraph on honesty.

Responding to Non-Compliance with Laws and Regulations

The revised Volume II contains provisions relating to Responding to Non-Compliance with Laws and Regulations, commonly known as NOCLAR. The earlier applicability criterion of ₹250 crore has been removed. The provisions now apply to all listed companies and their material subsidiaries as defined in Regulation 16C of SEBI LODR. The provision relating to NOCLAR in the case of an imminent breach has also been restored.

These changes reinforce the public interest responsibility of Chartered Accountants and their role in responding appropriately to non-compliance with laws and regulations.

Non-Assurance Services to Audit Clients

A significant area of revision relates to Non-Assurance Services to Audit Clients, particularly under Section 600. This area is important because providing advisory or consultancy services to an audit client may create threats to independence, especially a self-review threat.

The revised provisions adopt a more consistent structure across subsections. They also introduce new prohibitions, particularly for Public Interest Entity audit clients, where certain non-assurance services may create self-review threats. Examples include valuation services and certain tax advisory services where the effectiveness of the advice depends on a particular accounting treatment.

The revised provisions clarify that advice and recommendations to audit clients may create a self-review threat in certain circumstances. Advisory services are not automatically prohibited; however, the firm must evaluate whether providing such services would affect independence.

Revised Definition of Public Interest Entity

The revised Code incorporates an additional parameter in the definition of Public Interest Entity by including “an entity one of whose main functions is to take deposits from the public”.

The earlier provision has also been modified to include entities having borrowings of ₹500 crore or more, to be assessed at both the beginning and end of the year.

The revised definition of Public Interest Entity is as follows:

A Public Interest Entity means:

(a) a listed entity; or

(b) an entity one of whose main functions is to take deposits from the public; or

(c) an entity:

(i) defined by regulation or legislation as a public interest entity; or

(ii) having borrowings of ₹500 crore or more, to be assessed at both the beginning and end of the year.

This revised definition extends enhanced safeguards to entities that have significant public interest implications.

Volume III: Ethics Standards for Sustainability Assurance

Volume III deals with Ethics Standards for Sustainability Assurance, including independence standards. These standards are converged with the International Ethics Standards for Sustainability Assurance, including International Independence Standards, issued by IESBA.

The standards prescribe requirements for sustainability assurance providers while performing sustainability assurance engagements. They also include provisions relating to independence in such engagements.

Where laws or regulations preclude a sustainability assurance provider from complying with certain provisions of this part, such laws and regulations shall prevail, and the practitioner shall comply with all other applicable provisions. Further, where industry or sector-specific provisions prescribe more stringent or additional requirements, such provisions shall apply to the concerned industry or sector.

The inclusion of sustainability assurance standards is an important development. It recognises the growing relevance of sustainability reporting and assurance, and prepares the profession to meet emerging expectations from businesses, regulators, investors and society.

Balancing Growth with Ethical Integrity

The revised Code strikes a careful balance between enabling professional growth and preserving ethical integrity. It recognises new opportunities in areas such as artificial intelligence, forensic accounting, sustainability, digital platforms and specialised advisory services. At the same time, it reinforces independence, objectivity, transparency and professional dignity.

The changes discussed above are indicative in nature. Members are advised to refer to the complete Code of Ethics available at ethics.icai.org for detailed provisions and applicability.

Role of the Ethical Standards Board Beyond Standard-Setting While formulation of ethical standards remains a central function, the role of the Ethical Standards Board extends well beyond standard-setting. The Board actively supports members in understanding and applying ethical principles in day-to-day professional work.

It also plays an important role in promoting awareness and disseminating knowledge. Through publications, programmes, guidance material and technology-based initiatives, the Board works to strengthen ethical competence within the profession. Its efforts are directed towards ensuring that ethical standards do not remain confined to the text of the Code, but are reflected in actual professional conduct.

CONCLUSION: SUSTAINING THE PROFESSION THROUGH ETHICAL COMMITMENT

The Chartered Accountancy profession derives its strength from the trust it commands. The Ethical Standards Board has played a vital role in nurturing and strengthening this trust. Through its work in standard-setting, guidance, awareness and capacity-building, it has helped ensure that ethical principles remain central to professional practice.
However, the responsibility of upholding ethics does not rest with the Board alone. It belongs equally to every member of the profession. Ethical conduct requires conscious and continuous effort, particularly when professional judgment is tested by pressure, ambiguity or competing interests.

The revised Code of Ethics, 2026 should not be seen merely as a compliance document. It is a guide for professional conduct in a changing world. It explains what is permitted, what is restricted and, more importantly, what is expected from a Chartered Accountant.

For members in practice, it provides clarity on communication, websites, non-assurance services, independence and emerging professional opportunities. For members in service, it reinforces honesty, integrity, responsibility in responding to non-compliance, and the need to act beyond mere employment instructions. For the profession as a whole, it strengthens alignment with global standards and creates a structured path for sustainability assurance.

The message of the revised Code is clear: the profession may modernise, but it must not lose its ethical foundation. Visibility may increase, but dignity must remain. Technology may assist, but professional judgment must remain human. Opportunities may expand, but independence must never be compromised.

Significance of Auditing Opening Balances (SA 510)

Under SA 510, incoming auditors must independently verify opening balances during initial engagements to ensure they lack misstatements affecting the current period. In India, this is especially challenging because professional conduct rules prohibit predecessor auditors from sharing their working papers. Consequently, incoming auditors must essentially reconstruct the prior year’s closing position from scratch using only client records and signed financial statements. Because this workload is rarely priced correctly, practitioners must explicitly plan and budget for opening balance procedures at the initial engagement stage. If sufficient evidence is unavailable or misstatements remain unresolved, the auditor must modify their current year report accordingly.

SA 510: WHAT IT COVERS

SA 510, “Initial Audit Engagements—Opening Balances,” sets out the auditor’s responsibilities in relation to opening balances when taking up an audit for the first time. It applies where the previous year’s financial statements were either not audited or were audited by a predecessor auditor. Accordingly, since a newly incorporated entity preparing its first financial statements has no prior period, this standard does not apply to it. Opening balances extend beyond opening figures and also include matters requiring disclosure at the beginning of the period, such as contingencies and commitments. Where comparative financial information is presented, SA 710 assumes relevance, while SA 300 provides guidance on planning activities at the commencement of an initial audit engagement.

THE RISK OF GETTING IT WRONG

The importance of SA 510 lies in a simple but fundamental proposition: if opening balances are misstated, the current period’s financial statements may also be misstated. The incoming auditor cannot simply carry forward prior balances without independent verification. The reliability of the current year’s audit opinion rests, in part, on the soundness of the starting point.

WHAT THE STANDARD REQUIRES

The auditor’s objective under SA 510 may be summarised in three points:

1. Obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence as to whether opening balances contain misstatements that materially affect the current period;
2. Determine whether accounting policies reflected in opening balances have been consistently applied, or whether changes have been properly accounted for, presented, and disclosed; and

3. Where the prior year was audited by another firm, assess whether any modification in the predecessor auditor’s report remains relevant to the current period.

Where the previous year’s financial statements were audited, the auditor may obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence by reviewing the audited financial statements, including schedules and other supporting documents. Ordinarily, the current auditor can place reliance on the predecessor’s closing balances, except where current-period procedures indicate the possibility of misstatements in opening balances. This conditionality matters: reliance is permitted as a starting position, but it is not unconditional.

VERIFICATION PROCEDURES

The procedures required under SA 510 vary depending on the nature of the balance being verified. It is advisable to complete opening balance procedures before initiating current-period audit work. Once current-year procedures are underway, revisiting opening balances adds complexity, and, in practice, these procedures may not receive the attention they warrant.

For current assets and liabilities:

  • The collection or payment of opening accounts receivable and accounts payable during the current period provides natural evidence of the opening position.
  • Balance confirmations from banks, vendors, and customers on a sample basis corroborate the opening figures independently.

For inventories:

Current period closing procedures provide limited evidence about what was on hand at the start of the year. Additional procedures are therefore required:

  • Observe a current physical inventory count and reconcile it to the opening inventory quantities.
  • Perform audit procedures on the valuation of opening inventory items.
  • Perform audit procedures on gross profit, inventory turnover, and cut-off.

For non-current assets and liabilities (property, plant and equipment, investments, and long-term debt):

  • Third-party balance confirmations and reconciliation.
  • Review of the fixed asset register (FAR) and physical verification documents. Where these are incomplete or unavailable, invoices should be verified on a sample basis for material items.
  • Verification of demat statements and, where investments are not held in demat form, physical verification.

Beyond balance-specific procedures, the auditor must also review the prior year’s audited financial statements and the predecessor auditor’s report, verify the carry-forward of balances, and assess whether any prior qualification or modification continues to affect the current period. Where opening balance misstatements are identified and remain unresolved, they must be communicated to management and those charged with governance in accordance with SA 450.

Two Audits in One

THE STANDARD IN PRINCIPLE, THE PRACTICE IN INDIA

It is worth acknowledging that audit practice has made genuine progress in recent years. Firms increasingly use improved documentation, digital working papers, data analytics, and more structured engagement acceptance procedures. And yet, first-year audits involving opening balances remain an area where gaps persist.

A first-year audit in India is, in effect, two audits. When an auditor takes over an engagement, SA 510 requires independent verification of opening balances. While ISA 510 permits review of the predecessor auditor’s working papers in certain cases, SA 510 modifies this approach for India. Since Clause 1 of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949 treats disclosure of information acquired during a professional engagement to any person other than the client as professional misconduct, a predecessor auditor cannot provide access to working papers to another auditor. Accordingly, SA 510 has replaced the requirement to review predecessor working papers with perusal of the audited financial statements and other relevant documents relating to the prior period financial statements.

The practical consequence is that verifying opening balances requires the incoming auditor to essentially re-perform a closing-balance audit of the prior year from scratch, using only the signed financial statements and whatever records the client makes available. And then the current year’s audit follows on top of that. The workload this implies is rarely reflected in how first-year engagements are scoped or priced.

Opening balance procedures have no natural billing home. In most engagements, the effort required to verify opening balances is absorbed into the current year’s audit fee rather than scoped as a distinct first-year requirement. This is a market reality, but it creates a compliance risk. A critical area that directly affects the reliability of the current period’s financial statements may receive insufficient attention, not because practitioners are unaware of SA 510, but because the engagement economics do not make room for it.

Two further conditions compound these challenges. Client records at the commencement of a new engagement are often incomplete, making independent reconstruction of opening balances more difficult. And there is frequently an expectation from management that the incoming auditor will accept prior balances as given, without the independent verification required by SA 510.

The way around these constraints is the same: plan earlier and plan explicitly.

  • Identify SA 510 as a distinct risk item at the engagement acceptance stage, not after current-period work has begun.
  • Budget separately for first-year opening balance procedures. This makes the scope visible to the client and ensures the work is actually performed.
  • Use a focused checklist for high-risk areas: inventory, fixed assets, provisions, and related-party balances tend to carry the most opening balance risk.
  • Communicate early with management and those charged with governance, particularly where records are incomplete or the prior audit file is unavailable.
  • Strengthen documentation, review discipline, and planning under SA 300.

REPORTING OUTCOMES

Depending on the findings from opening balance procedures, SA 510 may require the auditor to reflect those conclusions in the audit report. The possible outcomes include:

  • where the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding opening balances, the resulting limitation must be reflected in the audit report and may lead to a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, depending on the circumstances;
  • where misstatements in opening balances could materially affect the current period’s financial statements and remain unresolved after additional procedures, they must be communicated in accordance with SA 450, and the opinion may need to be qualified or adverse;
  • where accounting policies reflected in opening balances have not been consistently applied, or changes have not been properly accounted for, presented, or disclosed, the auditor may need to issue a qualified or adverse opinion; and where the predecessor auditor’s opinion was modified, and that matter remains relevant and material to the current period, the current auditor must modify the opinion accordingly. Where the matter has since been resolved or is no longer relevant, that conclusion should be documented appropriately.

PRACTICAL EXAMPLE

Case Illustration – Opening Inventory Misstatement

ABC Ltd. appointed a new auditor for FY 2024-25. During opening balance procedures, the auditor noted that inventory of ₹1 crore carried forward from the previous year included obsolete items that should have been written down. The overstatement affected both opening inventory and current-year profit. Management declined to record an adjustment. Although the issue originated in the prior year, it had a material impact on the current year’s financial statements. Accordingly, the auditor evaluated the need for a modified opinion under SA 510.

Key takeaway: Opening balance errors are not merely historical issues; they can directly affect the current year’s audit opinion.

Case IllustrationInability to Verify Opening Inventory

A newly appointed auditor was engaged to audit a trading company. Opening inventory amounted to ₹15 crore. The auditor had not observed the prior year’s physical stock count and the client was unable to provide adequate stock records, movement registers or valuation workings relating to the opening inventory. As the auditor could not obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding a material opening balance, a limitation of scope arose under SA 510, requiring consideration of a qualified opinion or disclaimer, depending on materiality and pervasiveness.

Key takeaway: When evidence relating to opening balances is unavailable, the issue may affect the auditor’s opinion even when current-year records are otherwise satisfactory.

Case Illustration – Missing Fixed Asset Records

An incoming auditor found that fixed assets of ₹25 crore had been carried forward from prior years, but the entity maintained no comprehensive fixed asset register. For several material assets, management could not provide acquisition documents or evidence of ownership. Since the auditor could not independently verify significant opening balances, additional procedures were required and the impact on the audit opinion had to be evaluated under SA 510.

CONCLUSION

SA 510 warrants greater practical attention because opening balances form the foundation of the current year’s audit opinion. The constraints specific to India, particularly the restriction on access to predecessor working papers under the Clause 1 of Part I of the Second Schedule to the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, mean that compliance requires more deliberate planning than the standard alone might suggest. A first-year audit here is not a routine handover; it is an independent reconstruction of the prior year’s closing position, followed by the current year’s audit. Recognising that reality, and planning for it explicitly, is what sound first-year audit practice looks like.

Letter to The Editor

Dear Sunil Gabhawalla,

Editor, BCAJ

I refer to the July 2026 Globalisation subject:

1. The central concept of globalisation and all the nine articles relating to it are highly exhaustive, supportive and guiding for the 90% of the firms which are placed in the three-partner category. All the articles and authors have given nice inputs. But I would like to specifically mention the write-up by Shri Dinesh Kanabar on talent, leadership and culture. He has gone beyond the traditional analytical matter. All the articles combined together should form a very good guideline.

2. ICAI, mid-size CA firms, young CAs, all leading stakeholders, and the government have declared globalisation of Indian CA firms as their first and foremost priority. In this effort, everybody has missed the most important limiting point, which is as under: all MNCs and the US government are acting as goons in the world; in the process, they will not allow professionals of any other countries to replace or share in the position of the Big 4. The ideology of MNCs and the USA to control the world’s resources, business, and ideology is unending and unrelenting.

3. In the process of going global, there is a danger of Indian CAs becoming part of the Big Four, diluting Indian interest. India, or Indian professionals, may be growing, but will the interest of India or Indians grow as well? It is very clear even today that international forces are playing against our efforts. This needs to be made part of the guidance so that we do not face any frustration in the future.

Kindly review the above position.

In any case, on many platforms I have cited the example of BCAJ. Our journal starts with ethics. I have also suggested to ICAI that our ancient wisdom, which goes beyond time and will continue to go beyond time, should be part of our first article. Ethics should be the starting point, and it should also be the end point, of any great nation, profession, or person. My sincere request is that this be continued for all time to come.

Congratulations to the entire team of BCAJ for making this possible.

Hitesh Shah

Surendranagar

RNPOs @ 2025 Act: New Complexities

The Income-tax Act 2025 simplifies the tax structure for Registered Non-Profit Organisations (RNPOs) but inadvertently introduces three critical drafting anomalies. First, corpus donations excluded from “regular income” might fall into the taxable “residual income” basket, potentially losing their historical tax exemption. Second, income applied towards non-registered purposes risks double taxation, as it is disallowed as a deduction from regular income while simultaneously being taxed as specified income. Finally, the omission of a clause enforcing “additional income-tax” on accreted income when normal tax is zero could render the levy unenforceable. Legislative clarifications are urgently needed.

The provisions relating to charitable institutions (now rechristened as Registered Non-Profit Organisations -RNPOs), have undergone significant structural revamp in the Income-tax Act, 2025 (“2025 Act”). Consolidation of scattered provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in one single chapter XVII-B, arrangement of sections in a logical sequence and expression of law in a simpler language-these changes are undoubtedly welcome and make the law easier to navigate.

At the same time, the extensive restructuring appears to have introduced certain serious structural anomalies and drafting gaps which may have unintended tax consequences for a large number of RNPOs. Some provisions seem capable of altering long-settled tax positions, while others raise computational or interpretational issues that were absent in the 1961 Act. If left unaddressed, these issues may become fertile grounds for avoidable litigation, defeating the very purpose of simplification.

This article examines three such anomalies that merit careful consideration and timely clarification.

ISSUE 1 : WHETHER THE DRAFTING OF 2025 ACT HAS CHANGED THE TREATMENT OF CORPUS DONATIONS?

Treatment of Corpus Donations in the 1961 Act

In the 1961 Act, corpus donations were initially excluded from the definition of income itself by virtue of exclusion contained in clause (iia) of Sec. 2(24). Direct Tax Law (Amendment) Act, 1989 deleted that exclusion from Sec. 2(24)(iia) and instead brought in Sec. 11(1)(d) w.e.f. 01.04.89 providing as follows:

11. (1) Subject to the provisions of sections 60 to 63, the following income shall not be included in the total income of the previous year of the person in receipt of the income—
……….

(d) income in the form of voluntary contributions made with a specific direction that they shall form part of the corpus of the trust or institution, subject to the condition that such voluntary contributions are invested or deposited in one or more of the forms or modes specified in sub-section (5) maintained specifically for such corpus.

Thus, the 1961 Act is very clear in its treatment of corpus donations for registered charitable or religious institutions – a corpus donation, subject to the fulfilment of conditions regarding its investment etc., is excluded from the “total Income” itself, meaning thereby for all practical purposes, it never enters the computation of income at all.

The RNPO Paradox

Relevant Provisions of the 2025 Act

In the 2025 Act, the total income of RNPOs is being categorised into 3 buckets with each bucket having a separate taxability under sec. 334(1):

  • Specified Income- taxable @30%
  • Regular Income- taxable at the applicable rates
  • Residual Income- taxable at the applicable rates

Section 334 makes it clear that the Income-tax payable by an RNPO on its “total income” for any tax year shall be the aggregate of the amounts calculated above.

The definition of “income” contained in Sec. 2(49) of the 2025 Act is similar to the definition contained in Sec. 2(24) of the 1961 Act. As per clause (c) of Sec. 2(49), “Income” of an RNPO includes voluntary contributions received by it.

By virtue of Sec. 335(d), Regular Income of an RNPO includes all voluntary contributions received by it and then Sec. 338(b) provides that the corpus donations received by an RNPO are not to be included in the “regular income”.

Residual Income has been defined in Sec. 355(j) as follows:

“residual income” means the total income without giving effect to the provisions of this Part, as reduced by regular income and specified income.

Residual Income is a new category created by the 2025 Act and as the name suggests, is a residuary figure. It catches whatever remains of the total income when Regular Income and Specified Income have been reduced from it.

The Emerging Anomaly

Against this backdrop, the issue arising is whether, in the era of 2025 Act, corpus donations in the hands of RNPOs continue to enjoy the same exemption as accorded to them by Sec. 11(1)(d) of the 1961 Act, or the structural recalibration of the Act has inadvertently brought about a change in this position?

As mentioned above, the wordings in the 1961 Act are that corpus donation shall not be included in the “total income”. Replacing this, the 2025 Act provides that a corpus donation shall not be included in the “regular income”.

The question arises whether the non-inclusion of a corpus donation in the “regular income” under the 2025 Act is the same as non-inclusion of corpus donation in the “total income” under the 1961 Act? To put it differently, once a corpus donation is excluded from the “Regular Income” under Section 338(b) of the 2025 Act, where does it go? Does it fall into the bucket of “exempt income”, or still remains within the sphere of “total income”?

The issue assumes added significance due to the concept of “Residual Income” introduced in the 2025 Act – Total Income Less Regular Income and Specified Income = Residual Income. And it is here that the drafting anomaly becomes evident. Once a corpus donation- by virtue of being voluntary contribution – falls within the ambit of “total income” of an RNPO, and is then not allowed to enter the “Regular Income” by Sec. 338 (b), it does not move out from the clutches of “total income”, the “Residual Income” is standing there to catch it.

To put it somewhat poetically, in the era of the 2025 Act, a corpus donation appears to be destined for a short and unhappy journey- in the total income as a voluntary contribution, out of Regular Income, and straight into the lap of Residual Income — a basket that, unlike the corpus donation of the 1961 Act, enjoys no exemption from tax. And thus, it appears that the time-tested exemption available to corpus donation has got lost in the drafting of the 2025 Act.

The capital-receipt argument

There is of course a catena of judicial decisions holding that corpus donation being a capital receipt is not includible in the total income at all. But till now, the legal battle regarding taxability or otherwise of corpus donation was limited only to unregistered charitable institutions (One may refer to Dec. 2021 issue of BCA Journal for a detailed discussion on the Taxability of Corpus Donation Received By An Unregistered Trust). Registered institutions were entitled to claim a clear exemption for corpus donation by virtue of provision of Sec. 11(1)(d) of the 1961 Act. Now in the 2025 Act that unambiguous tax position seems to have got shrouded in uncertainty even for the registered NPOs.

Unless clarified, the present drafting of the 2025 Act has the potential to unsettle the long-settled tax exemption of corpus donations enjoyed by the registered charitable institutions in the 1961 Act.

ISSUE 2 : INCOME APPLIED FOR PURPOSES OTHER THAN THE PURPOSE FOR WHICH RNPO IS REGISTERED- WHETHER TAXABLE TWICE ?

Taxable Regular Income

As mentioned above, in the 2025 Act total income of an RNPO is being divided into 3 categories- Specified Income, Regular Income and Residual Income.

Regular Income is the core of this troika covering –

  • income from charitable/religious activities,
  • income from any property, deposit or investment held for charitable/religious purposes
  • Voluntary contributions
  • Gains of permissible commercial activities

This regular income is to be converted into “Taxable Regular Income” (TRI) u/s. 336 by reducing “application of income” and accumulation thereof from the 85% of Regular Income. The resulting Taxable Regular Income, if any, is then taxable at the applicable rate.

Application of Income

Section 341 sets the parameters regarding “application of income” which is to be reduced from the “Regular Income”.

Sub-section (1) of section 341 provides that “any sum applied by it for charitable or religious purpose in India for which it is registered”, shall be allowed as application of income to a registered non-profit organisation.

The words “for the purpose for which it is registered” are significant. They connote that if any amount is applied by an RNPO for a charitable or religious purpose other than the purpose for which it is registered, such amount shall not be treated as application of income. Consequently, such amount shall not be allowed as a deduction from the Regular Income while computing the Taxable Regular Income u/s. 336.

Let’s take an example. The only income of an RNPO is bank interest of Rs. 20 lacs.

The RNPO is registered for educational purposes. During the year, it spends:

  • Rs. 8 lacs on distribution of books to school children and
  • Rs. 9 lacs on some non-educational purposes.

The expenditure of Rs. 8 lacs is in furtherance of the educational objects of the RNPO and therefore qualifies as application of income u/s. 341. However, the expenditure of Rs. 9 lacs on non-educational purposes is not for the purposes for which the RNPO is registered. Accordingly, this amount shall not pass the test of Sec. 341 and shall not be treated as application of income.

As a result, the Taxable Regular Income of the RNPO shall be computed as under:

85% of Regular Income i.e. 85% of Rs. 20 Lacs 17 Lacs
Less : Application of income being Exp. for the purpose for which RNPO is registered 8 Lacs
Taxable Regular Income 9 Lacs

Under section 334, this amount of Rs. 9 Lacs shall be taxable at the applicable rate.

Whether Such Amount Shall be Taxable as “Specified Income” also?

Let us now refer to section 337 dealing with Specified Income.

Section 337 lays down 13 different situations where an amount shall be treated as “Specified Income” of the RNPO. By virtue of Sec. 334, all specified incomes are taxable @ 30%.

Serial No. 10 of the table in Sec. 337 provides that any income applied to purposes other than charitable or religious purposes for which the RNPO is registered shall be treated as “Specified Income” and shall be taxable as such in the tax year in which such application takes place.

Thus, on the one hand, Sec. 341(1) does not allow the application of income for purposes other than for which the RNPO is registered to be reduced from the Regular Income and, on the other hand, Sec. 337 treats the same amount as Specified Income.

Applying this to our above example, the amount of Rs.9 Lacs applied towards non-educational purposes, being applied for purposes other than the objects for which the RNPO is registered, would get covered by TSN 10 of Sec. 337 and accordingly shall be taxable as Specified Income also. The overall implication would be that Regular Income is getting taxed without the benefit of such application and the application itself is also getting taxed separately.

1961 Act Vs. 2025 Act

In the 1961 Act, the corresponding provision for taxability of Specified Income is section 115BBI. There is no provision in Sec. 115BBI similar to Table Sr. No. 10 of Sec. 337 i.e. application of income to purposes other than charitable or religious purposes for which the RNPO is registered is not a “Specified Income” in the 1961 Act.

Moreover, section 115BBI gives a two tier tax calculation mechanism by providing that the income-tax payable shall be the aggregate of, —

(i) the amount of income-tax calculated at the rate of thirty per cent on the aggregate of such specified income; and

(ii) the amount of income-tax with which the assessee would have been chargeable had the total income of the assessee been reduced by the aggregate of specified income referred to in clause (i).

In the 2025 Act, there is no provision corresponding to the above clause (ii) providing for reduction of “specified income” from the regular income or providing that whatever has been included in the Specified Income shall not be included in the Regular Income. Consequently, as demonstrated by the example discussed above, there appears to be a clear case of the same amount being subjected to tax twice—first at the income level as Regular Income, and then again at the application level as Specified Income.

It can certainly be argued that the specific overrides the general and, thus, when the same amount is covered by two categories of income, it should be classified under the more specific head (Specified Income) rather than under the general head (Regular Income). However, acceptance of this proposition would ultimately depend upon judicial approval through the course of litigation—precisely the kind of uncertainty that the 2025 Act seeks to minimise.

Clarifications Needed in the Act

It may be appreciated that both these issues assume greater significance in the backdrop of CPC’s software driven ITR processing, which operates mechanically on the basis of the wordings in the Act and leaves hardly any room for application of the principles of statutory interpretation to mitigate drafting gaps.

For the computational scheme of Regular Income, Specified Income and Residual Income to function seamlessly, the 2025 Act appears to require two clarifications:

a. Whatever is included in the Specified Income, shall be excluded from the Regular Income.
b. Whatever is excluded from Regular Income, shall not be included in the Residual Income.

In the absence of these clarifications, the three categories of income may not have mutual exclusivity and may instead overlap with one another- resulting in the same amount being subjected to tax under more than one category or, conversely, an amount intended to be excluded from taxation inadvertently finding its way into the Residual Income.

ISSUE 3 : TAXABILITY OF ACCRETED INCOME- IS SOMETHING MISSING?

Sec. 352 of the 2025 Act provides for levy of tax on accreted income. The charging provision in sub section 1 reads as follows:

“Every specified person shall, in addition to the income-tax chargeable in respect of his total income, be liable to pay additional income-tax on accreted income at the maximum marginal rate…..”

Sec. 352 vs. Sec. 115TD

Sec. 352 of 2025 Act is the reincarnation of Sec. 115TD of the 1961 Act.

At first glance, both provisions look the same (except for the presentation difference in Sec. 352 by way of addition of a table, formula based calculation etc.). However, a closer reading reveals some significant distinctions.

One would observe that while Sec. 115TD starts with a non-obstante clause- “notwithstanding anything contained in the Act”, its replacement-“irrespective of”-does not find a place in Sec. 352 of 2025 Act.

This omission may, however, be explained by the presence of the comprehensive overriding provision contained in section 334(2) of the 2025 Act which provides that the provisions of the whole chapter XVII-B shall apply irrespective of anything to the contrary contained in any other provision of this Act other than sections 96 to 98.

It is actually another difference which merits consideration.

Both under section 115TD of the 1961 Act and section 352 of the 2025 Act, tax on accreted income is levied as “additional income-tax” and is stated to be payable “in addition to the income-tax chargeable in respect of total income”.

Sec. 115TD(4) of the 1961 Act contains another specific provision regarding the levy of tax :-

4) Notwithstanding that no income-tax is payable by a specified person on its total income computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act, the tax on the accreted income under sub-section (1) shall be payable by such specified person.

In the 2025 Act, the provision corresponding to Sec. 115TD(4) is missing. And this leads to an important question –

Since the tax under section 352 is payable “in addition to the income-tax chargeable in respect of total income”, would it still be payable in a case where there is no total income and no income-tax chargeable in respect of total income in the tax year in which accreted income arises u/s 352?

To put it differently, does the levy of additional income-tax on accreted income u/s. 352 require something to which it can be added/fastened to, or would it still be payable even if there is nothing for it to be “in addition to”?

Additional Income Tax in the 1961 Act

In the 1961 Act, there are at least three similar instances of additional income-tax being levied:

1. Section 115-O (Dividend Distribution Tax)

2. Section 115-QA (Tax on buy-back of shares)

3. Section 115TD (Tax on accreted income)

In each of these cases:

  • The levy has been described as additional income-tax.
  • It is payable “in addition to” the normal income-tax, and
  • There is a specific provision laying down that additional tax would be payable notwithstanding that there is no tax payable on total income. [Ref.: Sec. 115-O(2), 115QA(2) and 115TD(4)]

So, the 1961 Act is clear in its intent – though the additional income-tax is payable “in addition to” the normal tax, by the force of Sec. 115-O(2)/115QA(2)/115TD(4), it will still be payable even if “normal tax” is not there.

Possible Argument under Sec. 352

Section 352 continues to provide that tax on accreted income is payable “in addition to” the tax on total income. However, unlike its predecessor, it is not protected by the declaration of intent that the levy would continue to apply even in the absence of any normal tax liability. This creates room for the argument that the words “in addition to the income-tax chargeable in respect of total income” presuppose the existence of an income-tax liability on total income. If no such liability exists, there is nothing to which the additional income-tax can be added, and accordingly the charging mechanism fails.

It can certainly be counter-argued that even if “income-tax chargeable on total income” is absent, the additional tax u/s 352 would still be there- being added to Zero. However, acceptance of this interpretation raises a conceptual difficulty- if the expression “in addition to” by itself is sufficient to achieve that result, then the specific provisions enacted by Parliament in sections 115-O(2), 115-QA(2), and 115TD(4) of the 1961 Act would become largely redundant.

Additional Income-tax : Judicial Interpretation

The concept of “additional income-tax” has previously come up for judicial interpretation in the context of erstwhile section 143(1A) of the 1961 act, (prior to its amendment by the Finance Act, 1993).

At the relevant time, section 143(1A)(a)(i) provided that where adjustments were made while processing the return under section 143(1), the Assessing Officer shall “further increase the amount of tax payable under sub-section (1) by an additional income-tax…”.

Interpreting this provision, the Delhi High Court in Modi Cement Ltd. v. Union of India (1992) 193 ITR 91 held that where even after the adjustments, returned income was a loss and no tax was payable, the levy of additional income-tax could not be sustained. The courts reasoned that where no tax is payable, “question of there being any further increase to this does not arise” (Also Allahabad High Court in Indo-Gulf Fertilizers And Chemicals vs Union Of India 195 ITR 485).

Although these decisions arose in the context of section 143(1A), the principle underlying them is certainly of relevance. Where the statute contemplates an additional income-tax as an increase over, or in addition to, the normal income-tax, the existence of a normal tax liability may constitute the very foundation for the additional levy.

Whether the omission of the equivalent of section 115TD(4) in section 352 is inconsequential or gives birth to a sustainable legal proposition, the answer will emerge only through future judicial interpretations. Until then, the issue is likely to remain an interesting subject of debate—unless, of course, the legislature settles it first.

CONCLUSION

The Income-tax Act, 2025 is undoubtedly a significant step towards simplifying the law governing charitable institutions. However, simplification should not come at the expense of certainty. It is hoped that the issues discussed above will receive timely attention, either through legislative amendment or suitable clarification, so that the objective of simplification is achieved without giving rise to avoidable litigation.