Subscribe to the Bombay Chartered Accountant Journal Subscribe Now!

Category: In the High Courts: Part A-Reported Decisions

Reassessment — Notice for reassessment after 1st April, 2021 — All relevant information provided by assessee prior to original assessment order — AO has no power to review his own order — Query raised by AO answered and accepted during original assessment — Reopening of assessment on mere change of opinion not permissible.

83 Knight Riders Sports Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2023] 459 ITR 16 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2016-17

Date of Order: 26th September, 2023

Ss. 142(1), 143(3), 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice for reassessment after 1st April, 2021 — All relevant information provided by assessee prior to original assessment order — AO has no power to review his own order — Query raised by AO answered and accepted during original assessment — Reopening of assessment on mere change of opinion not permissible.

The assessee-company was engaged in the business of operating and running a cricket team in the Indian Premier League. During the assessment proceedings for the A.Y. 2016-17, the Assessing Officer issued various notices u/s. 142(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, raising queries, inter alia, regarding foreign payments made and the assessee provided the details. An assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act was passed. Thereafter the assessee received notice dated 17th March, 2023, u/s. 148A(b) of the Act alleging that the audit scrutiny of assessment records disclosed payments of consultancy and team management fees to a foreign company and that income was chargeable to tax for the A.Y. 2016-17, had escaped assessment. The Assessing Officer rejected the objections raised by the assessee and passed an order u/s. 148A(d) of the Act, followed by a reassessment notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Reopening of the assessment was not permissible based on change of opinions as the Assessing Officer does not have any power to review his own assessment when during the original assessment the assessee had provided all the relevant information which was considered by the Assessing Officer before passing the assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act. Once a query had been raised during the assessment and query had been answered and accepted by the Assessing Officer while passing the assessment order, it followed that the query raised was a subject of consideration of the Assessing Officer while completing the assessment. This would apply even if the assessment order had not specifically dealt with that issue.

ii) The reopening of the assessment was merely on the basis of change of opinion. This change of opinion did not constitute justification to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The notice dated 17th March, 2023, the order dated 30th March, 2023 and the reassessment notice dated 30th March, 2023, were quashed and set aside.”

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade payment of tax — Self assessment tax shown in the return of income but paid late — Penalty levied for delayed payment of tax — Criminal intent of assessee essential — Nothing on record to show deliberate and wilful default of evasion of tax — Complaint and summoning order quashed.

82 Health Bio Tech Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2023] 459 ITR 349 (P&H.)

A.Y.: 2011-12

Date of Order: 14th September, 2023

Ss. 276C(2) and 278B of ITA 1961

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade payment of tax — Self assessment tax shown in the return of income but paid late — Penalty levied for delayed payment of tax — Criminal intent of assessee essential — Nothing on record to show deliberate and wilful default of evasion of tax — Complaint and summoning order quashed.

The assessee, a registered firm, filed its return of income for A.Y. 2011-12 wherein aggregate amount of tax was shown at ₹1,36,20,887. Subsequently, the return of income was revised and the aggregate amount of tax was shown at ₹1,50,81,728. The tax was not paid in time but was paid late. The Department filed a complaint for offence u/s. 276C(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 of wilful attempt to evade payment of tax. The trial court admitted the complaint and passed an order summoning the assessee as accused.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the revision petition filed by the assessee and held as follows:

“i) It was apparently clear from the facts on record, that there was no attempted evasion on the part of the assessee-company. There was undoubtedly delayed payment, but for that penalty had already been levied. While maintaining both these proceedings simultaneously, the one fact that must be present there, that there was or has been a criminal intent in the mind of the accused right from the beginning.

ii) The income tax was self-assessed and payment was also made by the assessee-company, though belatedly. Thus, the question of evasion of tax did not arise in the present facts and circumstances. The facts and circumstances of the case did not reveal that there was a deliberate and wilful default of evasion of tax on the part of the assessee. The complaint and all the consequential proceedings arising therefrom, including the summoning order were quashed.”

Offences and prosecution — Failure to deposit tax deducted at source before due date — Sanction for prosecution — Reasonable cause — Tax deducted at source — Delay to deposit tax deducted at source due to prevalence of pandemic — Assessee depositing tax deducted at source in phased manner with interest though after due date — Reasonable cause for failure — Prosecution orders set aside.

81 D. N. Homes Pvt. Ltd. vs. UOI

[2023] 459 ITR 211 (Orissa)

A.Y.: 2021-22

Date of Order: 13th October, 2023

Ss. 2(35), 276B, 278AA and 278B of the IT Act

Offences and prosecution — Failure to deposit tax deducted at source before due date — Sanction for prosecution — Reasonable cause — Tax deducted at source — Delay to deposit tax deducted at source due to prevalence of pandemic — Assessee depositing tax deducted at source in phased manner with interest though after due date — Reasonable cause for failure — Prosecution orders set aside.

The assessee is a private limited company. As per the TRACES, the assessee deducted tax of ₹2,58,29,945 for F.Y. 2020-21 relevant to A.Y. 2021-22 which was not deposited with the Central Government before the due date. However, the amount was deposited in a phased manner with delay of 31 days to 214 days. The Department filed a complaint against the assessee for an offence u/s. 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The lower Court took cognizance of the offence.

The Orissa High Court allowed the revision petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The expression “reasonable cause” used in section 278AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 may not be “sufficient cause” but would have a wider connotation than the expression “sufficient cause”. Therefore, “reasonable cause” for not visiting a person with the penal consequences would have to be considered liberally based on facts of each individual case. The issue of there being a reasonable cause or not is a question of fact and inference of law can be drawn.

ii) The legislative intent would be well discernible on consideration of the provisions of section 201 and section 221 which state that penalty is not leviable when the company proves that the default was for “good and sufficient reasons”, whereas, the expression used in section 278AA is “reasonable cause”. The Legislature has carefully and intentionally used these different expressions in the situations envisaged under those provisions. The intent and purport being to mitigate the hardship that may be caused to genuine and bona fide transactions where the assessee was prevented by cause that is reasonable. Therefore, the court must lean for an interpretation which is consistent with the “object, good sense and fairness” thereby eschew the others which render the provision oppressive and unjust, as otherwise, the very intent of the Legislature would be frustrated.

iii) The expression “reasonable cause” in section 278AA qualifies the penal provision laid under section 276B. Both provisions accordingly are to be read together to ascertain the attractability of the penal provision. In a criminal proceeding by merely showing reasonable cause, an accused can be exonerated and for showing that reasonable cause, the standard of proof of suchfact in support thereof is lighter than the proof in support of good and sufficient reason. A reasonable cause may not necessarily be a good and sufficient reason.

iv) The assessee and its principal officer had deposited the entire tax deducted at source with interest for the delayed deposit before the time of consideration of the matter as to launching of the prosecution u/s. 279(1)of the 1961 Act. The tax deducted at source with interest had been accepted and gone to the State exchequer when by then no loss to the Revenue stood to be viewed.

v) The point for consideration by the authority was not to cull out the justification for delay in depositing the tax deducted at source but was whether to launch the prosecution. Hence, the order u/s. 279(1) passed by the Commissioner (TDS) suffered from the vice of non-consideration of the admitted factual settings as to the existence of reasonable cause for the failure to deposit the tax deducted at source and the complaint was vitiated since the failure was on account of the reasonable cause of the prevalence of covid-19 pandemic.

vi) The order of sanction having been passed without due application of mind and in a mechanical manner and putting the blame upon the assessee and its principal officer for not filing any exemption or relaxation notifications or circulars stood vitiated. Hence, the trial court ought not to have taken cognizance of the offences u/ss. 276B, 2(35) and 278B when even the latter two had no penal provisions and its orders were bad in law and, therefore, set aside.”

Fees for technical services — Make available — Meaning of — Recipient of services should apply technology — Services offered to Indian affiliates — Tribunal holding services to Indian affiliates not fees for technical services as make available test not fulfilled — Agreement between assessee and its affiliate effective for long period — Recipient of services unable to provide same service without recourse to service provider — Not fees for technical services: DTAA between India and Singapore s. 12(4)(b).

80 CIT (International Taxation) vs. Bio-Rad Laboratories (Singapore) Pte. Ltd.

[2023] 459 ITR 5 (Del.)

A.Y.: 2019-20

Date of Order: 3rd October, 2023

S. 260A of ITA 1961

Fees for technical services — Make available — Meaning of — Recipient of services should apply technology — Services offered to Indian affiliates — Tribunal holding services to Indian affiliates not fees for technical services as make available test not fulfilled — Agreement between assessee and its affiliate effective for long period — Recipient of services unable to provide same service without recourse to service provider — Not fees for technical services: DTAA between India and Singapore s. 12(4)(b).

The Tribunal held that the services offered by the assessee to its Indian affiliates did not come within the purview of fees for technical services, as reflected in article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA between India and Singapore, as they did not fulfil the criteria of “make available” test.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) According to the Tribunal, the agreement between the assessee and its affiliate had been effective from 1st January, 2010, and it had run for a long period. In order to bring the services in question within the ambit of fees for technical services under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, the services would have to satisfy the ”make available” test and such services should enable the person acquiring the services to apply the technology contained therein. The facts on record showed that the recipient of the services was not enabled to provide the same service without recourse to the service provider.

ii) The analysis and conclusion arrived at by the Tribunal were correct.”

Refund — Assessment — Limitation — Change in law — Remand by Tribunal — AO failing to give effect to remand order of Tribunal within prescribed time — Assessment barred by limitation — Refund in terms of declared income to be granted with interest

79 Aricent Technologies (Holdings) Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2023] 458 ITR 578 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2006–07 and 2007–08

Date of Order: 27th February, 2023

Ss. 153(3), 237 and 254 of ITA 1961

Refund — Assessment — Limitation — Change in law — Remand by Tribunal — AO failing to give effect to remand order of Tribunal within prescribed time — Assessment barred by limitation — Refund in terms of declared income to be granted with interest.

The assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal against the order passed u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(13) for the A.Y. 2007–08 against the entity FSS which had since amalgamated with the assessee. By an order dated 7th January, 2016, the Tribunal partly deleted the disallowance of the project expenses, the disallowance of deduction claimed u/s. 10B and the transfer pricing adjustment of corporate charges and remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer. Pursuant to the order dated 7th January, 2016 passed by the Tribunal, the Transfer Pricing Officer passed an order dated 24th January, 2017. However, the Assessing Officer did not pass any final order.

The Assessee filed writ petition contending that the amount of refund for the A.Y. 2006–07 due to FSS which was amalgamated with the assessee be refunded with applicable interest on the ground that the assessment for the A.Y. 2007–08 was barred by limitation. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 153 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was amended by the Finance Act, 2017 with retrospective effect from June 1, 2016 and in sub-section (3) thereunder the provision regarding limitation for making an assessment pursuant to any order passed by the Tribunal u/s. 254 was included.

ii) Passing a fresh assessment order pursuant to the Tribunal’s order dated January 7, 2016, was barred by limitation under the provisions of section 153(3) and 153(4) and the income as returned by the amalgamated company FSS for the A.Y. 2007–08 would stand accepted. Consequently, any adjustment that would be made against the refund due to FSS for the A.Y. 2006–07 was not sustainable. Therefore, the amount which was due to FSS as refund for the A.Y. 2006–07 was to be refunded to the assessee with applicable interest.”

Refund of tax deducted at source — Payment to non-resident after deducting withholding tax — Refund to the person who made payment and has borne withholding tax — Amount wrongly deducted to be refunded if the person receiving payment not claimed credit therefor — Payee not claiming credit — Assessee deductor to be refunded the amount with interest

78 Grasim Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2023] 458 ITR 1 (Bom.)

A.Ys.: 1990-91 and 1991-92

Date of Order: 1st September, 2023

Ss. 92CA, 144C and 153 of ITA 1961

Refund of tax deducted at source — Payment to non-resident after deducting withholding tax — Refund to the person who made payment and has borne withholding tax — Amount wrongly deducted to be refunded if the person receiving payment not claimed credit therefor — Payee not claiming credit — Assessee deductor to be refunded the amount with interest.

The assessee entered into a foreign technical collaboration agreement with one M/s. D wherein D agreed to render to the assessee outside India certain engineering and other related services in relation to the project set up for Gas based plant in India. The assessee also entered into supervisory agreement with D to provide supervisory services in India. Under the agreement with D, D had agreed to deliver to the assessee necessary design, drawing, data with respect to the sponge iron plant outside India. D also agreed to train outside India certain employees of the assessee so as to make available to the such employees technical information, scientific knowledge, expertise, etc. for the commissioning, operation and maintenance of the plant. The consideration agreed was a sum of US$ 1,62,31,000 net of tax and it was agreed that any withholding tax required to be deducted will be borne by the assessee and D would be paid a net amount of US$ 1,62,31,000. The assessee sought permission from the AO to make remittance to D without deduction of tax at source. However, the AO held that the amount payable to D was taxable as income in India and the assessee was required to deduct tax at source and deposit the tax with the Income-tax Department. The assessee paid under protest a sum of ₹2,73,73,084 and ₹2,81,83,272 as withholding tax on account of two installments of payments made to D. The assessee claimed that since the withholding tax was borne by the assessee and the payment made to D was not chargeable to tax, the assessee would be entitled to refund.

In the return of income filed by D for A.Ys. 1990–91 and 1991–92, D declared NIL income on the ground that the income received by D neither accrued in India nor received in India therefore not chargeable to tax in India. However, in the assessment of D, it was held that amount received by D under the agreement was chargeable to tax in India and accordingly the withholding tax deducted by the assessee was adjusted towards D’s tax liability. The assessee along with D filed a petition before the Bombay High Court challenging, inter alia, the assessment order and the taxability of the amount received by D under the agreement. Vide order dated 5th May, 2010, the Court held that the assessment orders subjecting the amount received by D under the agreement to tax was not correct and the Department was directed to pass a fresh assessment order excluding the income received by D.

Subsequently, the assessee made a request to the AO to pass an order giving effect to the order of the High Court. Reminder letters were sent to the AO time and again. However, there was no action by the AO. Vide order dated 24th August, 2012, the AO refused to give effect to the order of Bombay High Court holding that the assessee was not entitled to the refund of withholding tax deposited by the assessee as the tax was deducted on behalf of D and therefore no effect could be given in the hands of the assessee.

Therefore, the assessee, by way of writ petition, approached the Bombay High Court. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Section 248 of the Act, amended by the Finance Bill, 2007 ([2007] 289 ITR (St.) 122), envisages and deals with a situation where a refund could be made to the person by whom the income was payable and who has borne the withholding tax. The amount wrongly deducted or paid to the Revenue authorities where it was not required to be paid would become refundable to the assessee. This is subject to the condition that the person receiving the payment had not claimed credit therefor.

ii) For over 13 years neither D nor its successor-in-interest had claimed any amount from the Revenue but had issued its no objection to the Department making the refund to the assessee. The assessee would be entitled to credit of any tax deducted at source both by the banks and the Department while depositing the amounts with the Prothonotary and Senior Master, High Court, Bombay giving effect to the order of this court by arriving at net amount refundable for the A.Ys. 1990–91 and 1991–92 and after deducting tax at source for the A.Ys. 1990–91 and 1991–92. The amounts having been deposited with Prothonotary and Senior Master, High Court, Bombay, the Prothonotary and Senior Master shall foreclose the fixed deposit and pay over the amount including interest to the assessee.”

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Validity — New procedure — Income chargeable to tax — Gross receipt of sale consideration not income chargeable to tax — Notice issued treating gross receipt on export transaction as asset which had escaped assessment — Not sustainable

77 Nitin Nema vs. Principal CCIT

[2023] 458 ITR 690 (MP)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of Order: 16th August, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Validity — New procedure — Income chargeable to tax — Gross receipt of sale consideration not income chargeable to tax — Notice issued treating gross receipt on export transaction as asset which had escaped assessment — Not sustainable.

Words and phrases — “Income” — “Income chargeable to tax” — Distinction.

For the A.Y. 2016-17, reassessment proceedings were initiated against the assessee on the ground that the assessee had sold 16 scooters and earned ₹72,05,084 which had escaped assessment. The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the consequential notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act claiming that the income mentioned in the order and the notice was not subject to income tax. What was stated therein was the gross sale consideration and on sale of 16 scooters. The assessee submitted that this income was not subject to tax and therefore sections 148A(d) and 148 did not apply.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) The expression “income chargeable to tax” is not defined in the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, the provisions with respect to computation of business income make clear that the definitions of the expressions “income” and “income chargeable to tax” are at variance with each other. The expression “income” is inclusively defined u/s. 2(24) whereas “income chargeable to tax” denotes an amount which is less than “income”. The “income chargeable to tax” is arrived at after deducting from “income” the permissible deductions under the Act. Therefore, the quantum of “income” is invariably more than “income chargeable to tax”.

ii) The Department had failed to understand the fundamental difference between sale consideration and income chargeable to tax. It had relied upon sections 2(24), 14, 28 and 44AD to emphasize the expression “income”. Neither the notice u/s. 148A(b) nor the order u/s. 148A(d), nor the consequential notice u/s. 148 stated that the income alleged to have escaped assessment included land or buildings or shares or equities or loans or advances. The assessee had filed a reply to the notice u/s. 148A(b) wherein it had submitted that the amount of ₹72,05,084 was the gross receipt of sale consideration of 16 scooters which meant that the amount of ₹72,05,084 was the total sale consideration receipt of the transaction in question, and not income chargeable to tax which would obviously be less than such amount. With the reply the assessee had also furnished the details of items sold and payment receipts, computation of total income and the computation of tax on total income and had submitted these to the Assessing Officer before the passing of the order u/s. 148A(b). There was nothing stated in the provisions of section 148, 148A or 149 which could prevent the assessee from taking advantage of these provisions merely because of his failure to file return of income.

iii) Consequently, this petition stands allowed. The impugned order dated March 25, 2023 u/s. 148A(d) of the Income-tax Act vide annexures P-3 and P-4 are quashed. The notice dated March 25, 2023 vide annexure P-5 u/s. 148 issued by the Income-tax Officer, Ward 1(1), Jabalpur is quashed. However, the Department is at liberty to invoke the provisions of section 148A in accordance with law.”

Reassessment – Notice – Sanction of competent authority :- (a) New procedure – Extension of time limits by 2020 Act – Effect of Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC) – Notices for reassessment issued after 31st March, 2021 u/s. 148 converted into notice deemed to be issued u/s. 148A(b) – Notices do not relate back to original date – Sanction of specified authority to be obtained in accordance with law existing when sanction obtained; (b) Jurisdictional requirement – Notice for A.Y. 2016-17 issued after April 2021 – More than three years elapsing – Approval to be obtained from Principal Chief Commissioner – Approval taken of Principal Commissioner – Notice issued without sanction of correct authority invalid – CBDT instructions for issue of re-assessment notice between 1st April, 2020 and 30th June, 2021 not applicable – Order and notice quashed

76 Siemens Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2023] 457 ITR 647 (Bom.)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of Order: 25th August, 2023

Ss. 147(1), 148, 148A(d), 149(1)(b), 151(i) and 151(ii) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Sanction of competent authority :— (a) New procedure — Extension of time limits by 2020 Act — Effect of Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC) — Notices for reassessment issued after 31st March, 2021 u/s. 148 converted into notice deemed to be issued u/s. 148A(b) — Notices do not relate back to original date — Sanction of specified authority to be obtained in accordance with law existing when sanction obtained; (b) Jurisdictional requirement — Notice for A.Y. 2016-17 issued after April 2021 — More than three years elapsing — Approval to be obtained from Principal Chief Commissioner — Approval taken of Principal Commissioner — Notice issued without sanction of correct authority invalid — CBDT instructions for issue of re-assessment notice between 1st April, 2020 and 30th June, 2021 not applicable — Order and notice quashed.

Reassessment — No power to review assessment — Assessee providing relevant information — AO considered the information before passing assessment order and allowed deduction of expenditure on software consumables as revenue expenditure — Re-assessment by the AO to treat the expenditure as capital expenditure — Change of opinion — Order for issue of notice and consequent notice to be quashed.

The assessee, a NBFC, filed its return of income for A.Y. 2016–17 declaring total income of ₹44,92,46,370. Subsequently, the return of income was revised declaring total income of ₹50,67,32,580. The assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny. During the course of assessment, the assessee submitted a transaction-wise summary of expenditure on software consumables. On 23rd December, 2018, assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed without any adjustment to the total income reported in the revised return. On 25th June, 2021, almost after 3 years, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued stating that there was reason to believe that assessee’s income for A.Y. 2016–17 has escaped assessment within the meaning of section 147 of the Act. Vide letter dated 22nd July, 2021, the assessee replied to the AO that the notice had been issued under the old provisions of the Act and that after 1st April, 2021, the AO should issue notice as per the amended provisions of the Act. The assessee thus requested the AO to drop the proceedings. Thereafter, the AO issued a notice dated 26th November, 2021 u/s. 142(1) which was replied to by the assessee. Subsequently, the AO issued a letter / show cause notice dated 31st May, 2022 u/s. 148A(b) of the Act wherein the earlier notice dated 25th June, 2021 issued u/s. 148 of the Act and the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal were referred and the AO stated that notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act be deemed to be issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act. The AO relied upon the information and material which was annexed with the show cause notice to suggest that income chargeable to tax escaped assessment and also relied upon the approval of the competent authority which was attached with the show cause notice. In response to the show cause notice, the assessee made submissions vide letters dated 9th September, 2022 and 7th July, 2022. Vide order dated 31st July, 2022 passed u/s. 148A(d), the AO rejected the submissions and issued an intimation letter for issue of notice u/s. 148 of the Act and thereafter issued notice dated 31st July, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee filed writ petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the impugned show cause notice dated 31st May, 2022, the order dated 31st July, 2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and the notice dated 31st July, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“(i) The findings of the Bombay High Court in Tata Communications Transformation Services Ltd. v. Asst. CIT [2022] 443 ITR 49 (Bom) (to the effect that section 3(1) of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 does not provide that any notice issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after March 31, 2021 will relate back to the original date such that the provision as existing on such date will be applicable to notices issued relying on the provision of the 2020 Act) have not been disturbed by the Supreme Court in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC). The Supreme Court only modified the orders passed by the respective High Courts to the effect that the notices issued under section 148 of the Act which were subject matter of writ petitions before various High Courts shall be deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act and the Assessing Officer was directed to provide within 30 days to the respective assessee the information and material relied upon by the Department so that the assessee could reply to the show-cause notices within two weeks thereafter. The Supreme Court held that the Assessing Officer shall thereafter pass orders in terms of section 148A(d) in respect of each of the concerned assessees. Thereafter, after following the procedure as required u/s. 148A may issue notice u/s. 148 (as substituted). The Supreme Court also expressly kept open all contentions which may be available to the assessee including those available u/s. 149 of the Act and all rights and contentions which may be available to the concerned assessee and Department under the Finance Act, 2021 and in law, shall be continued to be available. Even by the finding of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal, only the original notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act was converted into a notice deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act. The judgment in Ashish Agarwal does not anywhere indicate the notices that could be issued for eternity would be sanctioned by an authority other than the sanctioning authority defined under the Act.

ii) The 2020 Act only seeks to extend the period of limitation and does not affect the scope of section 151. The Assessing Officer cannot rely on the provisions of 2020 Act and the notifications issued thereunder as section 151 has been amended by the Finance Act, 2021 and the provisions of the amended section would have to be complied with by the Assessing Officer, with effect from April 1, 2021. Hence, the Assessing Officer cannot seek to take the shelter of 2020 Act as a subordinate legislation cannot override any statute enacted by Parliament. Further, the notification extending the dates from March 31, 2021 till June 30, 2021 cannot apply once the Finance Act, 2021 is in existence. The sanction of the specified authority has to be obtained in accordance with the law existing when the sanction is obtained. It is not open to the Central Board of Direct Taxes to clarify that the law laid down by the Supreme Court means that the extended reassessment notices will travel back in time to their original date when such notices were to be issued and, then, the new section 149 of the Act is to be applied. The 2020 Act does not envisage travelling back of any notice.

iii) The approval for issuance of notice u/s. 148A(d) of the Act had not been properly obtained because:

‘(a) the petition related to the A.Y. 2016-17, and as the order and notice were issued beyond the period of three years which elapsed on March 31, 2020 the approval as contemplated in section 151(ii) of the Act would have to be obtained which had not been done by the Assessing Officer. The approval had been taken of the Principal Commissioner who was not the specified authority u/s. 151 of the Act. The sanction was required to be obtained by applying the amended section 151(ii) of the Act and since the sanction had been obtained in terms of section 151(i) of the Act, the order and notice are bad in law and should be quashed and set aside.

(b) even assuming that it is held that these notices travel back to the date of the original notice issued on June 25, 2021, the approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner should have to be obtained in terms of section 151(ii) of the Act as a period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year ended on March 31, 2020 for the A.Y. 2016–17.

(c) Instructions dated May 11, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43) had no applicability to the facts of this case because they expressly provided that they applied only to the issue of reassessment notice issued by the Assessing Officer during the period beginning April 1, 2020 and ending with June 30, 2021 within the time extended under 2020 Act and various notifications issued thereunder.

(d) since the approval of the specified authority in terms of section 151(ii) of the Act was a jurisdictional requirement and in the absence of compliance with this requirement, the reopening of assessment would fail.’

iv) It is settled law that proceedings u/s. 148 cannot be initiated to review the stand earlier adopted by the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer cannot initiate reassessment proceedings to have a relook at the documents that were filed and considered by him in the original assessment proceedings as the power to reassess cannot be exercised to review an assessment. If the change of opinion concept is given a go by, that would result in giving arbitrary powers to the Assessing Officer to reopen assessments. It would in effect be giving power to review which he does not possess. The Assessing Officer has only power to reassess not to review. The concept of change of opinion is an in-built test to check abuse of power by the Assessing Officer.

v) The Assessing Officer did not have any power to review his own assessment when during the original assessment the assessee had provided all the relevant information and the Assessing Officer had considered it before passing the assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act dated December 23, 2018. The assessee had debited an amount of ₹6,41,87,931 on account of software consumables in the profit and loss account and a detailed break-up of the expenses were submitted before the Assessing Officer during the course of assessment proceedings. The Assessing Officer having allowed the amount of software consumables as a revenue expenditure now sought to treat it as capital expenditure which was a clear change of opinion. This was not permissible.”

Income — Diversion of income by overriding title — State Government undertaking entrusted with Government funds with strict instructions regarding its usage — Income of undertaking diverted to State Government by overriding title — No income accrued to undertaking

75 Principal CIT vs. Jharkhand Tourism Development Corporation Ltd.

[2023] 458 ITR 497 (Jhar.)

A.Ys.: 2012–13 and 2014–15

Date of Order: 21st February, 2023

Income — Diversion of income by overriding title — State Government undertaking entrusted with Government funds with strict instructions regarding its usage — Income of undertaking diverted to State Government by overriding title — No income accrued to undertaking.

The assessee is an undertaking of the State Government of Jharkhand incorporated with the object to promote tourism in the State and to create, operate and maintain infrastructure for tourism on behalf of Central and State Government. The assessee received funds from the Government for making payments in accordance with the guidelines of the Government for approved projects and the assessee was liable to return the unutilized funds to the Government. Under the directions from the Government as well as under an Office Memorandum dated 6th December, 2006 issued by the Ministry of Tourism, the Government of India directed the assessee that funds released as installments of Central Financial Assistance (CFA) from the Ministry of Tourism were to be deposited in saving accounts or fixed deposits in banks. Further it was also directed to ensure utilization of interest earned on deposits for the execution and completion of concerned projects without deviation towards any other expenditure. In case, there was no scope for utilization of the amount, such amount had to be returned to the Ministry of Tourism.

Assessee’s case for A.Y. 2014–15 was selected for scrutiny where under the interest income of ₹4,63,76,660 earned on fixed deposit was taken as income and added to the total income of the assessee. For A.Y. 2012–13, the interest of ₹3,23,99,958 earned on fixed deposit was added to the total income of the assessee. Separate appeals were preferred for each of the years before the CIT(A) which were allowed by the CIT(A). The Tribunal confirmed the action of the CIT(A).

The Department filed appeals before the High Court and contended that interest income was covered under the head “Income from Other Sources”. The guidelines of the Ministry of Tourism could not override the statutory provisions of the Act. Further, the Department contended that the fixed deposits were in the name of the assessee and the TDS on interest was also shown and claimed by the assessee. The Department therefore contended that the AO had rightly treated the interest to be the income of the assessee.

The High Court dismissed the appeals of the Department and held as follows:

“i) The assessee was a Jharkhand State Government undertaking incorporated with the object to promote tourism in the State to create, operate and maintain infrastructure for tourism on behalf of the Central and State Government. The funds from the Central and State Governments were disbursed to the assessee for making payment in accordance with the guidelines of the Government for approved projects and were liable to be refunded if unutilised funds as and when Government made requisition therefor. Thus, the funds always remained the property of the Government and the assessee was authorised to use the funds as well and was duty bound to obey the direction on how to manage the surplus. The assessee under the directions of the Government kept a portion of unutilised funds in short-term bank deposits and interest earned from these deposits was transferred to the respective fund accounts of the Government. As a matter of fact, an office memorandum dated December 6, 2006 issued by the Joint Secretary, Ministry of Tourism, had directed the assessee to deposit funds released as instalments of Central Financial Assistance from the Ministry of Tourism in saving accounts or fixed deposits in banks and as a result a substantial amount accrued as interest on deposits made out of the Central Financial Assistance. It was also directed to ensure utilisation of interest earned on deposits for the execution and completion of the projects without deviation to any other head of expenditure. In case there was no scope to utilise the amount of interest for execution of the project, such amount could be returned to the Ministry of Tourism.

ii) Thus, the income never reached the assessee and was diverted at source by an overriding title. The orders of assessment for the A.Ys. 2012-13 and 2014-15 were not valid.”

Deduction of tax at source — Interest on compensation awarded by Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal — Effect of sub-section (3) of section 194A — Interest assessable only if it exceeds ₹ 50,000 in a financial year

74 Smt Kuni Sahoo vs. UOI

[2023] 457 ITR 777 (Guj.)

Date of Order: 30th January, 2023

S. 194A of ITA 1961

Deduction of tax at source — Interest on compensation awarded by Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal — Effect of sub-section (3) of section 194A — Interest assessable only if it exceeds ₹ 50,000 in a financial year.

The Petitioners are the wife and the children of the deceased who died in a road accident. Pursuant to the death of the deceased in a road accident on 7th January, 2013, the Petitioners were awarded compensation of ₹17,90,760 along with interest at 7 per cent per annum with effect from date of application till the date of realisation. On appeal by the opposite party, the compensation stood reduced to ₹ 15,00,000 with interest vide order dated 13th July, 2019. The interest pertained to the period 2013–14 to 2019–20, that is, for a period of six years and if the interest was spread over in the case of each petitioner over a period of six years, the annual interest would come around ₹35,944. The said amount being less than ₹ 50,000, no deduction of tax was required in view of section 194A(3)(ixa) as amended. However, the Insurance company deposited cheques after deduction of tax at source on the interest.

The Petitioners filed writ petitions claiming that the Insurance company should have deposited interest without deducting tax at source. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) Section 194A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being not a charging provision, deals with deduction of tax at source in respect of “interest other than interest on securities”. Under the provisions of section 145A(b) as it existed prior to amendment by virtue of the and sub-section (1) of section 145B of the Act, after the amendment interest received by an assessee on compensation or on enhanced compensation, as the case may be, shall be deemed to be the income of the year in which it is received.

ii) However, u/s. 194A(3)(ixa) the provisions of the section would not be applicable to such income credited by way of interest on the compensation amount awarded by the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal where the amount of such income or, as the case may be, the aggregate of the amounts of such income paid during the financial year does not exceed fifty thousand rupees.

iii) The interest payable under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 was relatable to the period 2013–14 to 2019–20. If the interest were spread over year to year, the amount would not exceed ₹50,000. Under such premise, the deduction of tax at source in respect of interest for delay in deposit of compensation before the Motor Accidents Claims Tribunal would attract the provisions of sub-section (3) of section 194A and no deduction of tax at source was required.”

Commissioner(Appeals) — Power of remand — Scope of s. 251(1)(a) — Commissioner(Appeals) can confirm, reduce, enhance or annul assessment — Finding of Commissioner(Appeals) that AO not justified in making addition and positive direction to delete additions — Order of remand for fresh assessment after further enquiry — Commissioner(Appeals) has no power to remand the matter for fresh assessment after further enquiry — Order of the Tribunal upholding the order of the Commissioner(Appeals) despite noting specific ground by the assessee regarding the powers exceeded by the Commissioner(Appeals) — Order of remand not tenable in law

73 Arun Kumar Bose vs. ITO

[2023] 458 ITR 32 (Cal.)

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of Order: 2nd August, 2023

S. 251(1)(a) of ITA 1961

Commissioner(Appeals) — Power of remand — Scope of s. 251(1)(a) — Commissioner(Appeals) can confirm, reduce, enhance or annul assessment — Finding of Commissioner(Appeals) that AO not justified in making addition and positive direction to delete additions — Order of remand for fresh assessment after further enquiry — Commissioner(Appeals) has no power to remand the matter for fresh assessment after further enquiry — Order of the Tribunal upholding the order of the Commissioner(Appeals) despite noting specific ground by the assessee regarding the powers exceeded by the Commissioner(Appeals) — Order of remand not tenable in law.

The addition made by the AO with respect to sundry creditors was deleted by the Commissioner(Appeals) holding it to be not justified and remanded the matter to the AO for fresh assessment after enquiry. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner(Appeals) despite there being a specific ground raised by the Assessee challenging the action of the Commissioner(Appeals) in remanding the matter back to the AO.

In appeal filed by the Assessee, following questions were raised before the High Court:

“(i) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case the learned Tribunal was justified in upholding the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) when the same is beyond the scope and power vested upon the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) under the provisions of section 251(1)(a) of the said Act ?

(ii) Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case when the additions made in respect of the sundry creditors, namely, M/s. Goodwill Corporation (India), M/s. Quality Udyog and M/s. Swastik Trading and Manufacturing Co. were directed to be deleted as being unsustainable can be subject to the enquiries conducted by the Assessing Officer ?”

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) U/s. 251(1)(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the Commissioner (Appeals) may confirm, reduce, enhance or annul the assessment. On a reading of the Finance Act, 2001 (Circular No. 14 of 2001), the Commissioner (Appeals) had no power to remand the matter to the Assessing Officer for fresh assessment in accordance with the direction given by him after making such further enquiry as may be necessary. Though such power was conferred on the Commissioner (Appeals), the said provision stood omitted by the Finance Act, 2001. In the light of the Explanatory Notes to the Provisions related to Direct Taxes, under paragraph 78.1 dealing with the powers of the Commissioner (Appeals) with effect from June 1, 2001, the Commissioner (Appeals) could not have remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer after having decided the case in favour of the assessee in its entirety.

ii) Though in the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals), the word “prima facie” had been used, from a cumulative reading of an order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals), it was found that the case had been discussed on merits and thereafter, a finding had been recorded that the Assessing Officer was not justified in making the addition and there was a positive direction to delete the addition. Though the assessee had raised a specific ground of exceeding the statutory powers conferred u/s. 251(1)(a) before the Tribunal which had been noted by it in paragraph 3 of the impugned order, this aspect had not been dealt with by the Tribunal. The Tribunal had gone into the correctness of the finding of the Commissioner (Appeals) who held in favour of the assessee and thereafter, had recorded his opinion. Admittedly, the Revenue had not challenged the findings rendered by the Commissioner (Appeals) which was in favour of the assessee.

iii) Thus, not only the Commissioner (Appeals) committed an error of law by remanding the matter to the Assessing Officer for a fresh consideration after having held in favour of the assessee, the Tribunal also did not deal with the said issue. In the light of the statutory embargo, the order of remand passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) is not tenable in law and consequently, was required to be set aside as well as the order passed by the Tribunal.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Additions to be confined to incriminating material found during the course of search — Not erroneous

72 Principal CIT vs. Kutch Salt and Allied Industries Ltd.

[2023] 457 ITR 44 (Guj)

A.Y.: 2007–08

Date of Order: 5th May, 2023

Ss. 132(1), 143(3) and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Additions to be confined to incriminating material found during the course of search — Not erroneous.

For the A.Y. 2007–08, the Assessing Officer in his order u/s. 143(3) read with section 153A(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, made disallowances on account of power and fuel expenses, Registrar of Companies and stamping expenses, sale made to group concern, transportation expenses and interest u/s. 36(1)(iii).

The Commissioner (Appeals) recorded a finding that no incriminating material was found at the premises of the assessee during the search u/s. 132(1) and deleted the additions. The Tribunal upheld his order.

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“The Tribunal had not erred in holding that addition during the assessment u/s. 153A had to be confined to the incriminating material found during the course of search u/s. 132(1). No question of law arose.”

Offences and prosecution — Money laundering — Issue of tax determination certificate in Form 15CB without ascertaining the genuineness of documents — Not an offence

71 Murali Krishna Chakrala vs. Deputy Director, Directorate of Enforcement

[2023] 457 ITR 579 (Mad)

Date of Order: 23rd November, 2022

R. 37BB of Income Tax Rules 1962

Offences and prosecution — Money laundering — Issue of tax determination certificate in Form 15CB without ascertaining the genuineness of documents — Not an offence.

On a complaint given by the Deputy Manager of a Bank, a case was registered against six accused. Since the FIR disclosed the commission of a scheduled offense under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the Enforcement Directorate, took up the investigation of the case. The case was related to moneys remitted abroad on the basis of forged documents. The allegations were to the effect that these persons had opened fictitious bank accounts, submitted forged bills of entry, parked huge amounts in those bank accounts and had them transferred to various parties abroad through the bank in order to make it a legitimate transaction for the alleged purpose of import.

In the course of its investigation, the ED came across 15CB certificates issued by the accused MKC, a Chartered Accountant. In the interrogation, the accused MKC submitted that one of his clients, Mr. KM, approached him for issuance of Form 15CB under Rule 37BB of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, and submitted the documents in support of his request. On perusal of the documents, the accused MKC issued certificates to the effect that it was not necessary to issue Form 15CB for remittances abroad in respect of imports. The certificate numbers were uploaded on the Income-tax portal and copies of certificates were also submitted to the Branch Manager for transferring a sum of R3.45 crores to various entities in Hong Kong.

After completing the investigation, a supplementary complaint was filed by which MKC, inter alia, was declared an accused.

The discharge application was dismissed by the trial court. The Madras High Court allowed the revision petition and held as follows:

i) In issuing form 15CB under rule 37BB of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, a chartered accountant is required only to examine the nature of the remittance and nothing more. The chartered accountant is not required to go into the genuineness or otherwise of the documents submitted by his clients.

ii) The accused MKC had issued five form 15CB in favour of B, which were handed over by him to his client K for which, a sum of ₹1,000 per certificate was given to him as remuneration. The prosecution of MKC in the facts and circumstances of the case at hand, could not be sustained.”

Insurance Business — Computation of profits — Effect of S. 44

70 Sahara India Life Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. ACIT
[2023] 457 ITR 548 (Del.)
A.Y.: 2014–15 
Date of Order: 22nd February, 2023 
S. 44 of ITA 1961

 

Insurance Business — Computation of profits — Effect of S. 44.

 

The assessee carries on a life insurance business. In the assessment for the A.Y. 2014–15, the Assessing Officer (AO) made four disallowances, viz. disallowance on account of amortization of investment, disallowance of interest on TDS, disallowance of unpaid bonus and disallowance on account of unpaid leave encashment.

 

CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s appeal and deleted all the additions. Except on the ground of amortization of investment, the Tribunal reversed the order of the CIT(A) and upheld the disallowances made by the AO.

 

In an appeal by the assessee, the High Court framed the following question of law:

 

“(i) Whether the Tribunal misdirected itself in law and on facts in not appreciating that the profits and gains of the appellant-assessee were to be computed in accordance with the provisions of section 44 read with First Schedule to the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

 

The Delhi High Court allowed the appeal and held as follows:

 

“i) What emerges upon perusal of section 44 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is that it contains a non-obstante clause, which excludes the application of all provisions contained in the Act, which relate to computation of income chargeable under the heads referred to therein, by providing that computation of income qua the said heads will be made in accordance with rules contained in the First Schedule. Therefore, in the event of any dissonance, the provisions of the rules contained in the First Schedule will prevail over the provisions of the Act.

 

ii) Section 44 of the Act provides for a statutory mechanism for computing profits and gains of an insurance business and includes, in this context, the business carried on by a mutual insurance company or even by a co-operative society. In that sense, it moves away from the usual and general method of computing income chargeable to tax by bearing in mind the heads of income referred to in section 14 of the Act. This is plainly evident, since there is a specific reference to section 199, (which broadly deals with granting credit to the person from whose income tax has been deducted at source) and the sections spanning between sections 28 and 43B. The rules contained in the First Schedule appended to the Act will determine the manner in which the profits and gains of the insurance business are to be ascertained.

 

iii) Thus, according to us, the Tribunal has committed an error in law, which needs to be corrected.

 

iv) Therefore, for the foregoing reasons, we allow the appeal and set aside the impugned order. Consequently, the question of law, as framed, is answered in favour of the appellant-assessee and against the respondent-Revenue.”

Capital gains — Capital loss — Capital asset — Leasehold rights in land is a capital asset — Lease of land granted by State Government with permission to build thereon or sub-lease it — Compensation on subsequent cancellation of lease — Loss sustained was a capital loss

69 Principal CIT vs. Pawa Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd.

[2023] 457 ITR 392 (Del)

A.Y.: 2013–14

Date of Order: 18th November, 2022

S. 2(14) of ITA 1961

Capital gains — Capital loss — Capital asset — Leasehold rights in land is a capital asset — Lease of land granted by State Government with permission to build thereon or sub-lease it — Compensation on subsequent cancellation of lease — Loss sustained was a capital loss.

The petitioner, a real estate developer, was allotted a plot of land in Goa by the Government in September 2006. The lease deed was executed and registered in favour of the assessee for an initial period of 30 years which could be further extended by 60 years. The assessee had shown the property as a Fixed Asset in its books of account. Due to a change in the policy, the allotment was subsequently cancelled, and the assessee received ₹28,03,68,246. The said amount included compensation of ₹9,86,07,762. After reducing the indexed cost of cancellation of ₹30,49,54,129, the assessee claimed a long-term capital loss of ₹2,45,85,883 in the return of income filed for the A.Y. 2013–14. On scrutiny assessment, the return of income filed by the assessee was accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) after considering the replies filed by the assessee with respect to the compensation received on cancellation of allotment of plot.

Subsequently, the Principal Commissioner issued notice u/s. 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for revision of order and directed the AO to pass a fresh order keeping in mind that the assessee had wrongly treated the property in question as a capital asset and the assessee’s claim of indexed cost of acquisition could not be allowed.

The Tribunal allowed the assesee’s appeal and held that compensation received for the cancellation of the plot was capital in nature and not revenue receipt.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) The leasehold rights held by the assessee in the plot created an interest in the land in favour of the assessee. The assessee under the terms of the agreement not only had the right to construct on this plot but it had a further right to transfer and alienate the building along with the land to third parties and, therefore, the leased land came within the definition of capital asset u/s. 2(14) of the Act. Further, in this case, the allotment of land was cancelled by the Government of Goa in pursuance of the Act of 2012. The payment received by the assessee towards compensation was in terms of sub-sections (3) and (5) of section 3 of the Act of 2012. The leasehold rights held by the assessee in the plot were a capital asset and the compensation received by the assessee from the Government of Goa on the cancellation of the plot was a capital receipt and not a revenue receipt.

ii) The Assessing Officer’s order was correct and did not suffer from any error, justifying the invocation of powers u/s. 263 of the Act by the Principal Commissioner.”

Capital Gains — Computation of — Deduction u/s. 48 — Determination of actual amount deductible — Tax payable by seller agreed to be reimbursed by the assessee seller — Is an allowable deduction in proportion to assessee’s share

68 Smt. Durga Kumari Bobba vs. DCIT

[2023] 457 ITR 118 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2009–10

Date of Order: 4th July, 2022

S. 48 of ITA 1961

Capital Gains — Computation of — Deduction u/s. 48 — Determination of actual amount deductible — Tax payable by seller agreed to be reimbursed by the assessee seller — Is an allowable deduction in proportion to assessee’s share.

The assessee agreed to sell her shares in a company for a consideration of ₹2,70,32,278. Clause 7 of the agreement dealt with the payment of taxes, and it had been agreed between the parties that the seller would reimburse the tax that may be levied on the company up to the closing date. In substance, what the parties agreed was for consideration towards the sale of shares at ₹2,70,32,278 minus the tax component of ₹90,74,103. The assessee claimed deduction under the head “Capital gains” on the tax component u/s. 48 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer did not allow the claim for deduction.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal in part. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the assessee.

On further appeal to the High Court, it was contended by the assessee that the assessee realised the full value of consideration after excluding the tax component. On the other hand, the Department contended that the tax component which was being claimed as a deduction by the assessee was neither an expenditure in connection with transfer nor was it the cost of acquisition being the only permissible deductions u/s. 48 of the Act. Further, it was contended that since a company is not allowed to claim the tax paid as deduction, applying the same analogy, the assessee cannot be allowed the deduction of tax from the sale consideration.

The Karnataka High Court held as follows:

“i) In the facts of this case, the total amount realised, or in other words, which the appellant got in her hand, is R1.80 crores. The deduction is claimed based on the agreement between the parties. A careful perusal of the agreement shows that the intention of the parties is clear to the effect that the value of the shares shall be the amount agreed between the parties excluding the tax component.

ii) The contention urged by the Department that tax components should be distributed among both sellers merits consideration. Therefore, the appellant shall be entitled to a deduction of only 50 per cent of the tax component proportionate to her shareholding.”

Assessment u/s. 144C — Limitation — Order passed on remand by the Tribunal — Section 144C does not exclude section 153 — Final assessment order barred by limitation — Return of income filed by the assessee to be accepted

67 Shelf Drilling Ron Tappmeyer Ltd. vs. ACIT(IT)

[2023] 457 ITR 161 (Bom.)

A.Ys.: 2014–15 and 2018–19

Date of Order: 4th August, 2023

Ss. 92CA, 144C and 153 of ITA 1961

Assessment u/s. 144C — Limitation — Order passed on remand by the Tribunal — Section 144C does not exclude section 153 — Final assessment order barred by limitation — Return of income filed by the assessee to be accepted.

For the A.Y. 2014–15, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a loss of R120,18,44,672 after fulfilling the condition u/s. 44BB(3) of the Act by exercising the option available to compute its income under the regular provisions of the Act. The asssessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and a draft assessment order was passed on 26th December, 2016, after rejecting the books of account and invoking section 145 of the Act. Despite the option exercised by the assessee, the assessee’s income was computed u/s. 44BB(1) of the Act on the presumptive basis at 10 per cent of the gross receipts.

Objections were filed before the DRP against the draft assessment order. The DRP rejected the objections and gave its directions vide order dated 28th September, 2017, and based on such DRP directions, the final assessment order was passed on 30th October, 2017, u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(13) of the Act.

On appeal, vide order dated 4th October, 2019, the Tribunal disposed of the appeal by remanding the matter back to the Assessing Officer (AO) for fresh adjudication.

The assessee, vide letter dated 5th February, 2020, informed the AO about the order passed by the Tribunal and requested for early disposal of the same. The assessee followed up with the oral requests. Over one year later, on 22nd February, 2021, the AO called upon the assessee to produce the details of contracts entered into by it and reasons for loss incurred during the A.Y. 2014–15. Details were called in time and again, which were replied to. Thereafter, the AO passed an assessment order dated 28th September, 2021, which read like the final assessment order. However, vide communication dated 29th September, 2021, the AO clarified that it was only a draft order. In order to safeguard against the objections being treated as delayed, the assessee filed its objections on 27th October, 2021, before the DRP.

Meanwhile, the assessee also filed a writ petition challenging the order dated 28th September, 2021, on various grounds. The main objection being that the limitation to pass the final order expired on 30th September, 2021, u/s. 153(3) of the Act read with the provisions of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020, and the notifications issued thereunder. Therefore, no final assessment order can be passed in the present case, and the same is time-barred, and therefore, the return filed by the assessee should be accepted.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Although in passing a final assessment order, sub-section (13) of section 144C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 specifically excludes the provisions of section 153 stating that the Assessing Officer shall pass a final order of assessment even without hearing the assessee, in conformity with the directions issued by the Dispute Resolution Panel within one month from the end of the month when such directions were received by him, the exclusion of section 153 or section 153B is specific to, and comes in only at the stage of, passing of the final assessment order after directions are received from the Dispute Resolution Panel and not at any other stage of the proceedings u/s. 144C. Hence, the entire proceedings would have to be concluded within the time limits prescribed.

ii) No doubt, section 144C is a self contained code for assessment and time limits are in-built at each stage of the procedure contemplated. Section 144C envisions a special assessment, one which includes the determination of the arm’s length price of international transactions engaged in by the assessee. The Dispute Resolution Panel was constituted bearing in mind the necessity for an expert body to look into intricate matters concerning valuation and transfer pricing and it is for this reason that specific timelines have been drawn within the framework of section 144C to ensure prompt and expeditious finalisation of this special assessment. The purpose is to fast-track a special type of assessment. That cannot be considered to mean that overall time limits prescribed have been given a go-by in the process.

iii) Wherever the Legislature intended extra time to be provided, it expressly provided therefore in section 153. Sub-section (3) of section 153 also applies to a fresh order u/s. 92CA being passed in pursuance of an order of the Tribunal u/s. 254. Sub-section (4) of section 153 specifically provides that notwithstanding anything contained in sub-sections (1), (1A), (2), (3) and (3A) where a reference under sub-section (1) of section 92CA is made during the course of the proceeding for assessment or reassessment, the period available for completion of assessment or reassessment, as the case may be, under these sub-sections shall be extended by twelve months. Explanation 1 below section 153 also provides for the periods which have to be excluded while computing the twelve-month period mentioned in section 153(3). However, there is no mention anywhere of section 144C.

iv) The time limit prescribed u/s. 153 would prevail over and above the assessment time limit prescribed u/s. 144C since the Assessing Officer may follow the procedure prescribed u/s. 144C, if he deems fit and necessary but then the entire procedure has to be commenced and concluded within the twelve-month period provided u/s. 153(3) because, the procedure u/s. 144C(1) also has to be followed by the Assessing Officer if he proposes to make any variation that is prejudicial to the interest of the eligible assessee. If the Assessing Officer did not wish to make any variation that is prejudicial to the interest of the eligible assessee, he need not go through the procedure prescribed u/s. 144C.

v) The exclusion of applicability of section 153, in so far as the non-obstante clause in sub-section (13) of section 144C is concerned, is for the limited purpose to ensure that de hors the larger time available, an order based on the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel is passed within 30 days from the date of the receipt of such directions. Section and subsection have to be read as a whole with connected provisions to decipher the meaning and intentions. A similar non-obstante clause is also used in section 144C(4) with the same limited purpose, even though there might be a larger time limit u/s. 153, once the matter is remanded to the Assessing Officer by the Tribunal u/s. 254, so that the process to pass the final order u/s. 144C is taken immediately. The object is to conclude the proceedings as expeditiously as possible. There is a limit prescribed under the statute for the Assessing Officer and therefore, it is his duty to pass an order in time.

vi) The date on which the draft assessment order had been passed was 28th September, 2021. Therefore, there was no possibility of passing any final assessment order as the matter had got time-barred on 30th September, 2021. Since the final assessment order had not been passed before this date the proceedings were barred by limitation. Therefore, the return as filed by the assessee should be accepted. Since the order had been passed by the Tribunal on 4th October, 2019, the time would be twelve months from the end of the financial year in which the order u/s. 254 was received. The submission of the Department that when there was a remand the Assessing Officer was unfettered by limitation would run counter to the avowed object of provisions that were considered while framing the provisions of section 144C. The assessment should have been concluded within twelve months as provided in section 153(3) when there had been remand to the Assessing Officer by the Tribunal’s order u/s. 254. Within these twelve months prescribed, the Assessing Officer was to ensure that the entire procedure prescribed u/s. 144C was completed. Since no final assessment order could be passed as it was time-barred, the return of income as filed by the assessee was to be accepted.

vii) This would however, not preclude the Department from taking any other steps in accordance with law.”

Appeal to High Court — Deduction of tax at source — Payment to non-resident — Fees for technical services — Agreement entered into by assessee with USA company for testing and certification of diamonds — Execution of work by laboratory in Hong Kong and payment made in its name as instructed by USA company — Payment to non-resident entity which had no permanent establishment in India — No technical knowledge made available to assessee — Assessee not liable to deduct tax — No question of law arose.

66 CIT(IT & TP) vs. Star Rays

[2023] 457 ITR 1 (Guj)

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of Order: 31st July, 2023

Ss. 9(1)(vii)(b), 201(1), 201(1A) and 260A of ITA 1961; DTAA between India and USA

Appeal to High Court — Deduction of tax at source — Payment to non-resident — Fees for technical services — Agreement entered into by assessee with USA company for testing and certification of diamonds — Execution of work by laboratory in Hong Kong and payment made in its name as instructed by USA company — Payment to non-resident entity which had no permanent establishment in India — No technical knowledge made available to assessee — Assessee not liable to deduct tax — No question of law arose.

The assessee was in the business of cutting, polishing and export of diamonds. For purposes of testing and certification services, the assessee entered into a customer services agreement with GIA, USA, which set up a laboratory in Hong Kong. The invoices were raised by GIA, USA, instructing the assessee to make payment to the offshore bank accounts of GIA, Hong Kong with which the assessee had no direct relationship or any agreement. The assessee made the payments accordingly but erroneously mentioned the name of the beneficiary in forms 15CA and 15CB as GIA, Hong Kong. The Assessing Officer (AO) was of the view that the remittance made by the assessee for diamond testing certification charges to GIA’s Hong Kong laboratory was in the nature of “fees for technical services” u/s. 9(1)(vii)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, which was applicable in the absence of a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and China or Hong Kong and treated the assessee as in default u/s. 201(1) for non-deduction of tax at source. He held that the assessee having made payments to GIA’s Hong Kong laboratory could not claim the benefit of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and USA, and that the assessee ought to have deducted tax on those payments and accordingly passed an order u/s. 201(1) read with section 201(1A). GIA, Hong Kong did not have a permanent establishment in India.

The Tribunal held that in view of the tax residency certificate and form 10F furnished by GIA, USA from the tax authority of that country for the A.Y. 2015–16, the assessee was entitled to the benefits of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and USA, even though such services were not rendered by the USA entity but the service was rendered by a subsidiary situated in Hong Kong, and the payment was merely routed through GIA, USA.

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) The concurrent findings of fact by the authorities were that there was a “take in window” where articles were delivered but the service agreement was between the assessee and GIA, USA. The rightful owner of the remittances was also the U.S.A. entity. Based on factual appreciation, especially the condition in the customer service agreement, the bank invoice and the bank remittance advice, a finding of fact had been arrived at that the assessee was protected under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and the U.S.A. and that mere rendering of services could not be roped into fees for technical services unless the person utilising the services was able to make use of the technical knowledge. A simple rendering of the services was not sufficient to qualify the payment as fees for technical services.

ii) The orders of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal were based on appreciation of facts in the right perspective. No question of law arose.”

Advance tax — Interest u/s. 234B — Advance tax paid in three years proportionately for transaction spread over three years — Transaction ultimately held to be entirely taxable in the first year itself — Assessee is allowed to adjust the advance tax paid in subsequent two assessment years while computing interest liability u/s. 234B.

65 Mrs. Malini Ravindran vs. CIT(A)

[2023] 457 ITR 401 (Mad)

A.Ys.: 2011–12, 2012–13 and 2013–14

Date of Order: 14th November, 2022

Ss. 119 and 234B of ITA 1961

Advance tax — Interest u/s. 234B — Advance tax paid in three years proportionately for transaction spread over three years — Transaction ultimately held to be entirely taxable in the first year itself — Assessee is allowed to adjust the advance tax paid in subsequent two assessment years while computing interest liability u/s. 234B.

The assessee entered into an MOU with a company on 12th December, 2010, for the sale of property for a sale consideration of ₹121,65,21,000. The sale took place over the A.Ys. 2011–12, 2012–13 and 2013–14, and the assessee had computed and paid capital gains for each of the years and also paid advance tax during each of the corresponding financial years. Returns filed by the assessee had become final.

Subsequently, the assessments were re-opened, wherein the Assessing Officer (AO) held that the transfer took place upon the execution of MOU, that is, on 12th December, 2010, and the entire sale consideration was taxable in the A.Y. 2011–12. The AO also made assessments for A.Ys. 2012-13 and 2013-14 on a protective basis.

In the appeal before the first appellate authority, the assessee agreed that the gains were taxable in year one, and the entire demand arose in A.Y. 2011–12. The assessee confirmed that substantive assessment for A.Y. 2011–12 could be confirmed, and the protective assessments for A.Ys. 2012–13 and 2013–14 be cancelled. The CIT(A) confirmed the position vide order dated 31st January, 2019.

While giving effect to the orders passed by the CIT(A), a demand of ₹40,78,17,870 was raised for A.Y. 2011–12 and refunds were due for A.Ys. 2012–13 and 2013–14. The refunds were adjusted against the demand for A.Y. 2011–12 and after adjustment, a sum of ₹8,30,05,290 was determined to be payable by the assessee. The total demand for A.Y. 2011–12 included a sum of ₹19,43,57,718 as interest u/s. 234B of the Act.

The assessee submitted a request for waiver of interest u/s. 234B on the grounds that self-assessment tax / advance tax paid for A.Ys. 2012–13 and 2013–14 be considered as paid towards A.Y. 2011–12. The AO did not accede to her request and held that there was no provision for adjustment of tax paid in one year as against the liability of another year.

Against the said order of rejection of waiver by the AO, as well as the order of the appellate authorities, the petitions were preferred before the High Court. The Madras High Court partly allowing the writ petitions held as under:

“i) The advance taxes relevant to the assessment years 2012–13 and 2013-14 had been paid in time, in the course of financial years 2011–12 and 2012-13, respectively. The reassessments had transpired on 29th December, 2017. The payments were not ad hoc, and had been made specifically towards advance tax for liability towards capital gains in the financial years 2011–12 and 2012–13.

ii) Moreover, the Department had been in possession of the entire amounts from the financial years 2011–12 and 2012–13, since the assessee had satisfied the demands for the corresponding assessment years by way of advance and self-assessment taxes. It was those amounts that had been adjusted against the liability for the assessment year 2011–12 and therefore, substantially revenue neutral.

iii) The phrase ‘or otherwise’ used in section 234B(2) would encompass situations of remittances made in any other context, wherein the amounts paid stood to the credit of the assessee. However, the liability to advance tax had commenced from the financial year relevant to the assessment year in question 2011–12. The assessee sought for credit in respect of the advance tax remitted during the financial years 2011–12 and 2012–13, relevant to the A.Ys. 2012–13 and 2013–14 and there was a delay of one and two years, respectively, since the amounts for which credit was sought for ought to have been remitted in the financial year 2010–11, relevant to the A.Y. 2011–12. To such extent, the assessee was liable to interest u/s. 234B. The order rejecting waiver of interest was set aside to that extent. There was no justification in the challenge to the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the consequential order passed by the Assessing Officer.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery proceedings — Discretion of Income-tax authorities — Discretion to be exercised in a judicious manner

64 Nirmal Kumar Pradeep Kumar (HUF) vs. UOI

[2023] 456 ITR 386 (Jhar)

A.Y.: 2020–21

Date of Order: 2nd May, 2023

S. 220 of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery proceedings — Discretion of Income-tax authorities — Discretion to be exercised in a judicious manner.

In the scrutiny assessment for A.Y. 2020–21, an addition of approximately Rs.202 crores was made on account of payment made by the assessee towards damage to the environment, by treating it as compensation and disallowed under Explanation 1 to section 37(1) of the Act. Pursuant to the completion of the assessment, a demand of Rs.96,99,29,760 was raised. Against the order of assessment, the assessee filed an appeal before the first appellate authority. The assessee also filed a rectification application u/s. 154. Upon rectification application, the order was rectified, and the demand was reduced to Rs.35,28,39,450.

Since the assessee had filed an appeal before the CIT(A), the assessee filed an application for a stay of demand mainly on the grounds that the demand was high-pitched and the disallowance made by the Assessing Officer (AO) was contrary to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Common Cause vs. UOI [2017] 9 SCC 499.

The assessee’s application for stay of demand was rejected by AO, stating that as per the Office Memorandum of CBDT dated 31st July, 2017, the assessee is required to pay at least 20 per cent of the outstanding demand and since the assessee had not paid the said demand of 20 per cent, the stay was rejected. The assessee assailed the application further before the Principal Commissioner who directed the assessee to pay Rs.5 crores by 15th March, 2023, and further directed the assessee to pay Rs.10 lakhs from April 2023 till the disposal of the appeal.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the orders passed by the AO and the Principal Commissioner. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i)    The power under sub-section (6) of section 220 is indeed a discretionary power. However, it is one coupled with a duty to be exercised judiciously and reasonably (as every power should be), based on relevant grounds. It should not be exercised arbitrarily or capriciously or based on matters extraneous or irrelevant. The Income-tax Officer should apply his mind to the facts and circumstances of the case relevant to the exercise of the discretion, in all its aspects. He has also to remember that he is not the final arbiter of the disputes involved but only the first among the statutory authorities.

ii)    Questions of fact and of law are open for decision before two appellate authorities, both of whom possess plenary powers. Thus, in exercising his power, the Income-tax Officer should not act as a mere tax gatherer but as a quasi-judicial authority vested with the power of mitigating hardship to the assessee. The Income-tax Officer should divorce himself from his position as the authoritywho made the assessment and consider the matter in all its facets, from the point of view of the assessee without at the same time sacrificing the interests of the Revenue.

iii)    When it comes to granting a discretionary relief like a stay of demand, it is obvious that the four basic parameters need to be kept in mind: (i) prima facie case, (ii) balance of convenience, (iii) irreparable injury that may be caused to the assessee which cannot be compensated in terms of money, and (iv) whether the assessee has come before the authority with clean hands. The requirements of reasonableness, rationality, impartiality, fairness and equity are inherent in any exercise of discretion, such an exercise can never be according to private opinion. In L. G. ELECTRONICS INDIA PVT. LTD. vs. PR. CIT the court stated that administrative circulars would not operate as a fetter upon the assessing authority which is the quasi-judicial authority to grant a stay.

iv)    Under section 246 of the Act which provides the remedy of preferring an appeal against the assessment order, there is no pre-deposit stipulated.

v)    The Assistant Commissioner had not considered anything and had just mechanically declined to grant a stay placing reliance upon the Office Memorandum dated 31st July, 2017 ([2017] 396 ITR (St.) 55) and recording, inter alia, that since the assessee had not deposited 20 per cent of the disputed demand as stipulated in the Office Memorandum, a stay was liable to be rejected. A bare reading of the order would clearly reveal that there was no independent application of mind and no discussion whatsoever on the prima facie case of the assessee, the balance of convenience and undue hardships including whether the assessee had come with clean hands. Accordingly, the order dated 31st January, 2023 passed by the Assistant Commissioner and the order dated 24th February, 2023 passed by the Principal Commissioner were liable to be quashed and set aside.

vi)    The matter is remitted back to respondent No. 3 to pass a fresh order on the application for stay of the petitioner in view of the principles laid down above, after granting due opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.”

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Notice based on information from Deputy Director in respect of investigation of the firm from which two of assessee’s directors retired alleging that assessee had received bogus accommodation entries in form of imports — Investigation report on which reliance placed by Department not provided to the assessee — Notice vague and not clear — Order for the issue of notice and order of reassessment set aside — Matter remanded

63 Hari Darshan Exports Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2023] 456 ITR 542 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2019–20

Date of Order: 11th July, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Notice based on information from Deputy Director in respect of investigation of the firm from which two of assessee’s directors retired alleging that assessee had received bogus accommodation entries in form of imports — Investigation report on which reliance placed by Department not provided to the assessee — Notice vague and not clear — Order for the issue of notice and order of reassessment set aside — Matter remanded.

The assessee was an exporter. For the A.Y. 2019–20, the assessee was issued a show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, alleging that it had taken accommodation entries in the form of imports from a firm J in which two of the directors of the assessee were partners and had retired. The allegation was on the basis of certain information received from the Deputy Director, Ahmedabad. Along with the notice, a document titled “Verification Details” from the Insight Portal of the Department was provided wherein it was stated that the assessee had used J to import diamonds through a chain of intermediaries to escape any regulation by Government authorities and banks with respect to related party transactions for evading transfer pricing compliance. The assessee was not provided with the requested documentary details of the investigation of J.

Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order u/s. 148A(d) and the consequent notice u/s. 148. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    It was not stated in the order u/s. 148A(d) on what basis the conclusion that the assessee had received accommodation entries in the form of imports from J had been arrived at. The details or documents of the investigation of J or the investigation report had not been made available to the assessee and there was nothing to indicate that this information was provided to the assessee. The order stated that the assessee did not submit any documentary evidence to prove the genuineness of its claim or regarding import to refute the claim that imports were bogus though the assessee had stated that whatever documents were required had been submitted.

ii)    There was no allegation that the assessee had made any imports and was not even called upon to produce documents regarding any imports. Therefore, an allegation could not be made that the assessee had not submitted any documentary evidence regarding imports to refute the claim that imports were bogus. On the facts and circumstances, the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the consequential notice u/s. 148 were quashed and set aside. The matter was remanded to the Assessing Officer for de novo consideration.

iii)    Within two weeks the petitioner shall be provided by respondent No. 1 with copies of all documents/information regarding the investigation of M/s. Jogi Gems, including the statements recorded during the course of investigation and documents collected during the investigation. Respondent No. 1 may redact from the documents, portions that may not pertain to the petitioner or M/s. Jogi Gems.

iv)    Within two weeks of receiving these documents the petitioner shall, if so advised, file a further reply to the notice. The order to be passed under section 148A(d) of the Act shall be a reasoned order dealing with every sub- mission of the petitioner. Before passing any order, personal hearing shall be given to the petitioner, notice whereof shall be communicated at least five working days in advance.”

Reassessment — Notice u/s. 148 — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Entity with which assessee had sale transaction not established to be shell entity — No enquiry conducted by AO pursuant to the receipt of information from investigation wing — Non-application of mind on part of AO — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections set aside

62 B. U. Bhandari Autolines Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2023] 456 ITR 56 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of Order: 10th February, 2023

Ss. 147, 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice u/s. 148 — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Entity with which assessee had sale transaction not established to be shell entity — No enquiry conducted by AO pursuant to the receipt of information from investigation wing — Non-application of mind on part of AO — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections set aside.

For the A.Y. 2016–17, the Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 against the assessee for reopening the assessment u/s. 147. Reasons were recorded that information was received from the Deputy Director (Investigation) that a search was conducted u/s. 132 in the case of one M and others wherein cash in demonetised currency was seized, that M in his statement named one R as the key accomplice and was connected with a shell entity MT, that from the value-added tax returns it was found that the assessee had made a sale with MT and that, therefore, the sale of goods by the assessee to MT was bogus and that income had escaped assessment on that account. The assessee’s objections to the reopening of the assessment were rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notice and the order rejecting the objections. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The issue of reopening of assessment under section 147 had to be tested only on the basis of the reasons recorded, which could neither be improved upon nor substituted by an affidavit or oral submissions. It had not been alleged in the reasons that the entity MT with whom the assessee had made an alleged sale was being run by R although, in the reply affidavit it was stated by the Assessing Officer that MT was one of the entities which was floated by R for the purpose of providing accommodation entries. The reasons recorded also did not furnish any explanation on what basis and material the Assessing Officer had concluded that MT was a shell entity. The verification of the value-added tax returns referred to in the reasons recorded suggested only transactions between the assessee and the entity MT in regard to goods sold. Therefore, there was no material or basis for the Assessing Officer to hold the transaction between the assessee and MT not a genuine transaction of sale or for that reason to hold that MT was a shell entity.

ii)    The Assessing Officer had not independently applied his mind to the information received or conducted his own inquiry into the matter to conclude that income had escaped assessment or that the transaction in question with the alleged shell entity was only a paper transaction. The notice had been issued u/s. 148 without satisfying the conditions precedent u/s. 147. Therefore, the notice and the order rejecting the objections of the assessee were set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Res judicata — General principles — Consistency in decision making — Same decision-making authority rendering two decisions inconsistent with each other for different assessment years facts and circumstances being similar — Order and notice set aside

61 Prem Kumar Chopra vs. ACIT

[2023] 456 ITR 8 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2015–16 and 2016–17

Date of Order: 25th May, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(d) and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Res judicata — General principles — Consistency in decision making — Same decision-making authority rendering two decisions inconsistent with each other for different assessment years facts and circumstances being similar — Order and notice set aside.

The petitioner, a senior citizen, being the proprietor of M/s. Chopra Brothers is an authorised dealer for Kirloskar Electric Motors and is engaged in trading industrial electric motors, mono-block pumps and generator sets, etc. For the A.Y. 2015–16, the petitioner filed a return of his income, declaring the income of Rs.19,94,970 which was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. On 7th April, 2021, the Assessing Officer, respondent No. 1 issued a notice u/s. 148 of the Act, which on being challenged by the petitioner, was set aside in terms of the decision in the case of Mon Mohan Kohli vs. Asst. CIT [2022] 441 ITR 207 (Delhi).

Thereafter, in terms of the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); [2022] SCC OnLine SC 543, respondent issued notice dated 26th May, 2022, u/s. 148A(b) of the Act, alleging that on 26th November, 2016, a search had been conducted on the premises of an entry operator, namely, Shri Mohit Garg and during that search, in his statement, Shri Rajeev Khushwaha admitted to having provided bogus sale / purchase bills in exchange for cash; and that during the year relevant to the A.Y. 2015–16, M/s. Chopra Brothers through its proprietor Shri Prem Kumar Chopra was one of the beneficiaries of such accommodation entries to the tune of Rs.13,71,00,000.

An identical notice dated 25th July, 2022, was issued to the petitioner for the A.Y. 2016–17 as well. The petitioner submitted replies dated 10th June, 2022, and 21st July, 2022, to the said show-cause notice, thereby categorically denying any transaction with M/s. Divya International and Shri Rajeev Khushwaha. Along with the replies, the petitioner also submitted all relevant documents.

By way of order dated 28th July, 2022, respondent, accepting the case set up by the petitioner, dropped the proceedings pertaining to the A.Y. 2016–17, concluding that there is no escapement of income during the financial year 2015–16 relevant to the A.Y. 2016–17 in so far as there is no entry of transaction of sale or purchase by the bogus entity, M/s. Divya International, controlled by the entry operator Shri Rajeev Khushwaha to or from M/s. Chopra Brothers and accordingly held that it is not a fit case for issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act for the A.Y. 2016–17.

But soon thereafter, by way of an order dated 31st July, 2022, for the A.Y. 2015–16, respondent rejected the case set up by the petitioner, observing that there is escapement of income and accordingly held that it is a fit case for issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee, therefore, filed a writ petition challenging the validity of the notice u/s. 148 and the consequent reassessment order. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Consistency, both in content and in procedure has to be adhered to in order to ensure predictability of the decisions. In order to ensure procedural and content consistency in decisions, every decision-making authority should ensure that in a given set of circumstances, their decision must be on the same lines as that of their predecessor or co-ordinate authorities in a similar set of circumstances. Where a decision-making authority finds itself unable to agree with the view earlier taken, by the predecessor or the co-ordinate, the authority concerned is duty bound to record cogent reasons for deviating. The significance of precedence cannot be ignored even in administrative decision-making.

ii)    The doctrine of res judicata does not apply to Income-tax proceedings pertaining to different assessment years since each assessment year is a separate assessment unit in itself only if it rests in a separate factual scenario and is supported by reasoning by the concerned authority.

iii)    The order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 for the A.Y. 2015–16 were infirm since they proceeded on a view inconsistent with the earlier order for the A.Y. 2016–17 despite the facts and circumstances being similar and in the backdrop of a similar set of documentary evidence. The concerned Assistant Commissioner had dropped the proceedings pertaining to the A.Y. 2016–17, while for the A.Y. 2015–16, he had opted to proceed further u/s. 148A. The decision taken for the A.Y. 2016–17 was a reasoned decision, based on the analysis of material on record, but the decision taken subsequently for the A.Y. 2015–16 was not only completely inconsistent with the earlier view but even without reason. Though sanction u/s. 151 was accorded by two different sanctioning authorities the satisfactions recorded in both orders were of the same Assistant Commissioner. There was nothing on record to suggest that the latter sanctioning authority for the A.Y. 2015–16 was apprised of the earlier view taken by the sanctioning authority for the A.Y. 2016–17. An assessee deals with the Department as a whole. The order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 were set aside.”

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful failure to file return — S. 276CC requires mens rea — Belated return and payment of tax and interest based on return accepted — Protective assessment set aside — No imposition of penalty — Prosecution not valid

60 Suresh Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI

[2023] 456 ITR 148 (Jhar)

A.Y.: 2013–14

Date of Order: 29th August, 2022

S. 276CC of ITA 1961

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful failure to file return — S. 276CC requires mens rea — Belated return and payment of tax and interest based on return accepted — Protective assessment set aside — No imposition of penalty — Prosecution not valid.

A search was conducted in the case of the assessee on 19th February, 2014, and subsequently, the assessee was required to file his return of income within 15 days from the date of receipt of the notice issued u/s. 153A of the Act. The assessee failed to file the return of income within the time provided and ultimately filed the same after a lapse of almost 17 months without giving any reasonable cause. The assessee also did not file any petition for condonation of delay.

The Department launched prosecution u/s. 276CC of the Act. The department alleged that the assessee had deliberately, willingly, intentionally and having mens rea in his mind avoided filing the return of income.

The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the prosecution proceedings. The assessee contended that the delay in filing the return was due to death in the family and on account of not getting photocopies of papers and documents which were seized by the Income-tax Department. Further, the assessee submitted that the tax had been paid in full along with interest. The addition made by the Assessing Officer (AO) had been deleted by the CIT(A). No penalty had been levied by the AO. Lastly, the assessee submitted that since no penalty had been levied and no tax was due from the assessee, the launching of prosecution was bad in law.

The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i)    Section 276CC of the Income-tax Act, 1961, provides for prosecution in cases of wilful failure to file returns. The wilful failure referred to in section 276CC of the Act brings in the element of guilt and thus the requirement of mens rea will come into force.

ii)    It was admitted that the assessee had not filed his return on time but had filed the return belatedly with interest, which had been accepted by the authority concerned. The subsequent protective assessment was the subject matter before the first appellate authority, which had set aside the entire further assessment of the assessee.

iii)    The assessee had already deposited the tax as well as the interest in the light of the statute. When the Income-tax Officer had levied interest for the delay in filing of the return, it must be presumed that the Income-tax Officer had extended the time for filing the return after satisfying himself that there were grounds for delay in filing the return. When the amount in question with the interest had already been paid, no sentence could be imposed on the assessee.”

Computation of Capital Gains — Deduction of expenses wholly and exclusively in connection with transfer of capital asset — Transfer of shares – Amount paid for professional advice in accordance with articles of association of company – Deductible

59 Chincholi GururajacharVenkatesh and  Satish Kumar Pandey vs. ACIT

[2023] 456 ITR 459 (Cal)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of Order: 16th December, 2022

S. 48 of ITA 1961

Computation of Capital Gains — Deduction of expenses wholly and exclusively in connection with transfer of capital asset — Transfer of shares — Amount paid for professional advice in accordance with articles of association of company — Deductible.

The assessees held shares of one MTPL. During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee paid professional fees to KPMG and Khaitan & Co in connection with the transfer of shares of MTPL by the assessees to a German Company. During the assessment proceedings, the AO held that the selling expenses were not incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with the transfer of their shares and disallowed the expense.

The CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal confirmed the addition.

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i)    U/s. 48 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in computing capital gains, the expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with the transfer of capital asset is deductible. The word ‘connection’ in section 48(i) reflects that there should be a casual connect and the expenditure incurred to be allowed as a deduction must be united or in the state of being united with the transfer of the capital asset resulting in income by way of capital gains on which tax has to be paid. The expenditure, therefore, should have a direct connection and should not be remote or have indirect result or connect with the transfer.

ii)    Under article 8 of the articles of association of the company a shareholder desirous of selling his shares must notify the number of shares, a ‘fair value’ and the proposed transferee. The assesses’ specific case was that they had engaged the services of the professionals for the purpose. The transfer of shares was not disputed by the Department. Admittedly, K was a firm providing advisory services and K and Co. was a law firm. The assessees had engaged the services of professionals who had identified the investor, negotiated the value and structured the transaction. Therefore, the transaction had an inextricable nexus with the transfer of shares. The expenditure incurred was deductible in computing the capital gains.”

Business expenditure — Accrued or contingent liability — Provision for future expenses based on turnover — Amount set apart to meet future liabilities — Expenses in-built in the contract — Provision not contingent — Allowable deduction

58 Principal CIT vs. CEC SOMA CICI JV

[2023] 456 ITR 705 (Kar)

A.Ys.: 2011–12, 2012–13

Date of Order: 21st March, 2023

S. 37 of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Accrued or contingent liability — Provision for future expenses based on turnover — Amount set apart to meet future liabilities — Expenses in-built in the contract — Provision not contingent — Allowable deduction.

The assessee entered into a contract with BMCRL to design, construct tunnels and do other civil works. The total projected future expenses (non-billable expenses) included the reconstruction of roads damaged while constructing tunnels and during the other construction activities undertaken by the assessee. The non-billable expenses were in-built in the contract and payment for them was made by the assessee and not BMRCL. For the A.Ys. 2011–12 and 2012–13, based on the turnover, the assessee made provision for expenses and claimed deduction. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim.

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal on the grounds that the provision was not contingent in nature but based on the matching expenditure on ascertained liability. The Tribunal upheld his order.

The Karnataka High Court dismissed the appeals filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i)    The provision for expenses was made on a pro rata basis based on the turnover with reference to total unbillable future expenses of the assessee’s project. For the A.Y. 2013–14 after the remand the Assessing Officer had accepted the provision made by the assessee. For the subsequent A.Y. 2014–15, no disallowance had been made.

ii)    The Tribunal was right in setting aside the disallowances made by the Assessing Officer in respect of the deduction of future expenses claimed by the assessee for the A.Ys. 2011–12 and 2012–13.”

Recovery of tax — High-pitched assessment — Stay of recovery — Appeals not disposed of for a long time — Assessee is entitled to stay of recovery proceedings.

57 Jankalyan Vinimay Pvt Ltd vs. DCIT

[2023] 455 ITR 456 (Cal.)

A.Ys.: 2011–12, 2012–13 and 2016–17;

Date of Order: 7th February, 2023

S. 220(6) of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — High-pitched assessment — Stay of recovery — Appeals not disposed of for a long time — Assessee is entitled to stay of recovery proceedings.

For the A.Ys. 2011–12, 2012–13 and 2016–17 high-pitched assessments were completed in the year 2017–18. Well within the period of limitation, the assessee filed the appeals before the Commissioner (Appeals) and the appeals have been pending since 2018. The Assessing Officer rejected the stay application u/s. 220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by communication dated 8th December, 2022.

Assessee filed writ petitions challenging the orders of the Assessing Officer rejecting the application for stay. Allowing the writ petition a Division Bench of the Calcutta High Court held as under:

“Since the appeals were filed in 2018 and the stay applications filed before the Deputy Commissioner during the year 2018 followed by subsequent reminders, were rejected only on 8th December, 2022, and the assessment orders were not given effect to date, there was to be a direction that the appeals filed before the Commissioner (Appeals) be disposed of at an early date and until then, the Department was not to take any coercive action against the assessee for recovery of the Income-tax, which had been assessed.”

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Capital gains — Order for issue of notice without considering reply filed by assessee to initial notice —Words “income chargeable to tax” found in section 149 must be read in terms of “income” as arising out of “capital gains” as provided u/s. 48 in the assessee’s case — Notice barred by limitation — Order and notice set aside.

56 SANATH KUMAR MURALI vs. ITO

[2023] 455 ITR 370 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2016–17; Date of Order: 24th May 2023

Ss. 48, 147, 148, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Capital gains — Order for issue of notice without considering reply filed by assessee to initial notice —Words “income chargeable to tax” found in section 149 must be read in terms of “income” as arising out of “capital gains” as provided u/s. 48 in the assessee’s case — Notice barred by limitation — Order and notice set aside.

On 3rd March, 2023, the notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 came to be issued to the petitioner stating that information was received which suggested that income chargeable to tax for the A.Y. 2016–17 has escaped assessment within the meaning of section 147, detailing the information along with supporting documents. The information was that as per the TDS statement u/s. 194-IA, during the relevant year the assessee had sold an immovable property for a consideration of ₹55,77,700 which has escaped assessment.

The assessee-petitioner filed a reply to the said notice dated 16th March, 2023, in which details were laid out, setting out the sale consideration relating to the sale deed of 22nd November, 2015, as ₹55,77,700 and also furnishing details of the sale deed by virtue of which the petitioner has purchased the property on 24th September, 2011, for a consideration of ₹15,91,735 (cost of acquisition). The assessee also worked out the long-term capital gain at ₹33,85,769. It was submitted that, as the income escaping assessment did not exceed rupees fifty lakh, in terms of section 149(1)(b) of the Income-tax Act, the notice u/s. 148 could not be issued. However, the Assessing Officer rejected the assessee’s submissions and on 21st March, 2023, passed order u/s. 148A(d) and also issued notice u/s. 148 dated 21st March, 2023.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the order and the notice. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) When the procedure is followed culminating in an order passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the authority is required to apply his mind and consider the reply of the assessee to the show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b) and pass a considered order. The words used in section 149(1)(b) are “income chargeable to tax” which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to fifty lakh rupees or more for that year. The income chargeable under the head “Capital gains” which would arise in case of a sale transaction is as provided u/s. 48, which provides that income chargeable under the head “Capital gains” shall be computed by deducting from the full value of the consideration, the cost of acquisition and in the event the property purchased has been held for a period beyond three years in terms of the second proviso to section 48 the words, “cost of acquisition” are to be substituted by the words, “indexed cost of acquisition”.

ii) The words found in section 149 “income chargeable to tax” must be read in terms of “income” as arising out of the “capital gains” as provided u/s. 48 and this is the only manner of understanding the words, “income chargeable to tax” u/s. 149(1)(b). Section 48 provides that the entirety of the sale consideration does not constitute “income”. The Memorandum Explaining the Provisions of Finance Act, 2021 does not in any way lead to a different interpretation of the words, “income chargeable to tax”. The words used u/s. 149 for the purpose of the extended time limit is to be interpreted in terms of the plain wording of section 149 and cannot be construed differently while relying on any executive instruction.

iii) The Assessing Officer had not applied his mind to the reply filed by the assessee to the show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b) nor noticed the legal position while deciding the application of the extended period u/s. 149(1)(b) which was pointed out by the assessee in its reply. There is a bar prohibiting the issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 if three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year unless the case falls under clause (b). Accordingly, no notice u/s. 148 could be issued after three years from the end of the A.Y. 2016-17, and this is subject to the exception of an extended period of limitation of three years, but not more than ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year, if the Assessing Officer had material which would reveal that “the income chargeable to tax” which has escaped the assessment amounted to or was likely to amount to R50 lakhs or more. It could not be stated that since the stage at which the notice was issued was at a premature stage, the entirety of the sale consideration ought to be taken note of.

iv) The order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 for the A.Y. 2016-17 were set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Initial notice — Assessee’s explanation on the ground set down in initial notice accepted — Order for the issue of notice based on new ground — Order invalid — Writ — No question of remanding the matter to AO for passing speaking order — Order u/s. 148A(d) and direction of Court (Single Judge) remanding matter to AO set aside.

55 Excel Commodity and Derivative Pvt Ltd vs. UOI

[2023] 455 ITR 341 (Cal)

A.Y.: 2018–19; Date of Order: 29th August, 2022

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Initial notice — Assessee’s explanation on the ground set down in initial notice accepted — Order for the issue of notice based on new ground — Order invalid — Writ — No question of remanding the matter to AO for passing speaking order — Order u/s. 148A(d) and direction of Court (Single Judge) remanding matter to AO set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the order u/s. 148A(d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Single Judge of the Calcutta High Court held that the order dated 7th April, 2022, was devoid of reasons and without any discussion on the contentions raised by the assessee in its objections to the show-cause notice issued by the Assessing Officer u/s. 148A(b) and quashed the order but remanded the matter back to the Assessing Officer to pass a fresh speaking order.

The Division Bench allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The term “information” in Explanation 1 u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 cannot be lightly resorted to and to give unbridled power to the Department to reopen an assessment. The procedure contemplated u/s. 148A requires the Assessing Officer to consider the reply to the show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b) and thereafter pass a reasoned order u/s. 148A(d). If in the opinion of the Assessing Officer, the information furnished by the assessee in his reply is satisfactory, then nothing more requires to be done. But if the Assessing Officer is of the view that the reply furnished by the assessee is not acceptable, he has to pass a speaking order u/s. 148A(d). Since the Central Board of Direct Taxes noticed that in several cases information made available or the data uploaded by the reporting entities is not fully accurate due to human or technical error it issued a Circular dated 22nd August, 2022, instructing to Departmental officers with regard to the uploading of data on the portal of the Department to effect due verification and opportunity of being heard given to the assessee before initiating proceedings u/s. 148 or 147.

ii) The Assessing Officer had used the information lightly which had resulted in the issuance of notice. The assessee had submitted an explanation to the notice with documents in support of its claim. The Assessing Officer had accepted the explanation given by the assessee that it had not indulged in fictitious derivative transactions and had given up the allegation which had formed the basis of the show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b). Thereafter, he had proceeded on fresh ground alleging that the transaction with some other company was an accommodation entryand passed the order under section 148A(d). The order passed u/s. 148A(d) was not based on the reason for which the notice dated 22nd March, 2022, was issued u/s. 148A(b). Therefore, on that score also, the order u/s. 148A(d) was to be set aside in its entirety without giving any opportunity to reopen the matter on a different issue.

iii) The order was illegal and unsustainable and the necessity to remand the matter to the Assessing Officer did not arise. The order dated 7th April, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) and the direction of the court remanding the matter to the Assessing Officer were set aside. Consequently, no further action could be taken by the Department against the assessee on the issue in question.”

Income — Assessability — Meaning of “Income” — Institution established by State Government to regulate the registration of nurses and maintain standards of professionalism — One-time grant in aid received by the institution to strengthen it — Not assessable as income.

54 H. P. Nursing Registration Council vs. Principal CIT

[2023] 455 ITR 512 (HP)

A.Y.: 2010–11; Date of Order: 25th May, 2022

S. 2(24) of ITA 1961

Income — Assessability — Meaning of “Income” — Institution established by State Government to regulate the registration of nurses and maintain standards of professionalism — One-time grant in aid received by the institution to strengthen it — Not assessable as income.

The assessee was formed under the Himachal Pradesh Nursing Registration Council Act, 1977 and was substantially funded by the Government. The assessee received ₹1 crore from the Government of India under the scheme of upgradation/strengthening of nursing services under human resources for health. In the return of income, the assessee declared NIL income and claimed exemption u/s. 11(1)(a) of the Act. In the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer treated the grant in aid as the income of the assessee u/s. 2(24)(iia) of the Act. The Assessing Officer concluded that the assessee was not entitled to any exemption as its registration u/s. 12AA was effective from 01.04.2010 relevant to A.Y. 2011-12 and the assessee also did not qualify to be entitled to exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act.

The Commissioner(Appeals) and the Tribunal upheld the decision of the Assessing Officer.

The Himachal Pradesh High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The term “income” as defined in section 2(24) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is inclusive of various heads mentioned therein. It was only by way of the amendment, made effective from 1st April, 2016, that such monetary release by a State or the Central Government has been incorporated as income by way of section 2(24)(xviii). Even in this clause exemption has been carved out in respect of subsidy or grant by the Central Government for the purpose of corpus of a trust or institution established by the Central Government or State Government, as the case may be. This clearly illustrates the legislative intent that prior to 1st April, 2016, this type of grant was not specifically included as income. The later inclusion of such a provision will not have a retrospective application. Even by way of the amendment, exemption is available to such institutions.

ii) Since the assessee received only a one-time grant with a specific purpose which nowhere suggested scope of profit generation or revenue for the assessee, the amount received by the assessee by way of grant-in-aid thus could not be termed to be revenue receipt.”

Document Identification Number (DIN) — Orders from AO — Communication of — Validity — Circular of Board mandating DIN for communications — Circular binding on AO — Order passed in violation of Circular — Not a defect curable u/s. 292B — Communication of such orders not valid.

53 CIT(IT) vs. Brandix Mauritius Holdings Ltd.

[2023] 456 ITR 34 (Del.)

A.Y.: 2011–12; Date of Order: 20th March, 2023

S. 292B of ITA 1961 and CBDT Circular No. 19 of 2019 dated 14th August, 2019

Document Identification Number (DIN) — Orders from AO — Communication of — Validity — Circular of Board mandating DIN for communications — Circular binding on AO — Order passed in violation of Circular — Not a defect curable u/s. 292B — Communication of such orders not valid.

For the A.Y. 2011-12, the final assessment order passed on 15th October, 2019 did not bear the Document Identification Number (DIN). In appeal, the assessee challenged the validity of the assessment order. The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee in view of the CBDT Circular No. 19/2019 dated 14th August, 2019 which specifies the manner in which DIN is required to be generated while communicating any correspondence issued by the Department.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as follows:

“i) It is well established that circulars issued by the CBDT in the exercise of its powers u/s. 119 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are binding on the Department. The CBDT Circular No. 19 of 2019 dated
14th August, 2019 ([2019] 416 ITR (St.) 140) sets out the manner in which the document identification number is required to be generated while communicating a notice, order, summons, letter and any correspondence issued by the Income-tax Department, i.e., the Revenue. Inter alia, the object and purpose of allocating document identification numbers to communications, such as notices, orders, summons, letters or any correspondence emanating from the Revenue is to maintain a proper audit trail. Therefore, the CBDT, in the exercise of its powers, has mandated that no communication shall be issued by any Income-tax authority relating to assessment, appeals, orders, statutory or otherwise, exemptions, enquiry, investigation, verification of information, penalty, prosecution, rectification or approval, to the assessee or any other person, on or after 1st October, 2019, unless it is allotted a computer-generated document identification number. Further, there is a specific requirement under the 2019 circular to quote the document identification number in the body of any such communication. The 2019 circular also sets out certain circumstances in which exceptions can be made. These circumstances are categorically referred to in paragraph 3 of the 2019 circular.

ii) The object and purpose of the issuance of the 2019 circular, inter alia, is to create an audit trail. Therefore, the communication relating to assessments, appeals, orders, etcetera which are mentioned in paragraph 2 of the 2019 circular, albeit without a document identification number, can have no standing in law, having regard to the provisions of paragraph 4 of the 2019 circular. Recourse to section 292B of the Act, is untenable, having regard to the phraseology used in paragraph 4 of the 2019 circular.

iii) The final assessment order was passed by the Assessing Officer on 15th October, 2019, u/s. 147 read with sections 144C(13) and 143(3) of the Act. Concededly, the final assessment order did not bear a document identification number. There was nothing on record to show that the Revenue took steps to demonstrate before the Tribunal that there were exceptional circumstances, as referred to in paragraph 3 of the 2019 circular, which would sustain the communication of the final assessment order manually, albeit, without the document identification number.

iv) Given this situation, clearly paragraph 4 of the 2019 circular would apply. Paragraph 4 of the 2019 circular, decidedly provides that any communication which is not in conformity with paragraphs 2 and 3 shall be treated as invalid and shall be deemed to have never been issued. The phraseology of paragraph 4 of the 2019 circular fairly puts such communication, which includes communication of assessment orders, in the category of communications which are non-est in law. The Tribunal was right in holding that the final assessment order was not valid.”

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Scope of proceedings — Appeal by the assessee against order affirming disallowance in part — No cross objections filed by Department — Tribunal remanding of matter in entirety — Prejudicial to the assessee — Tribunal directed to limit its adjudication to issues raised by assessees.

52 Kausalya Agro Farms and Developers Pvt Ltd vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 455 ITR 432 (Telangana)

A.Ys.: 2012–13 to 2014–15, 2016–17 to 2018–19;

Date of Order: 2nd February, 2023

Ss. 36(1)(iii), 147, 254 of ITA 1961

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Scope of proceedings — Appeal by the assessee against order affirming disallowance in part — No cross objections filed by Department — Tribunal remanding of matter in entirety — Prejudicial to the assessee — Tribunal directed to limit its adjudication to issues raised by assessees.

On appeals before the Tribunal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) partly affirming the disallowance of interest expenditure u/s. 36(1)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and on the issue of validity of reopening of reassessment u/s. 147, the Tribunal remanded the matter in entirety to the Assessing Officer to examine afresh in the light of all the evidence of the assessees’ fund position and the issue as to whether the corresponding borrowings claimed to have carried no interest involving plotted land buyers.

The Telangana High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The Tribunal was required to adjudicate the appeals on the grounds which were raised before it by the assessees. Remanding the matter in its entirety to the Assessing Officer had caused serious prejudice to the assessees in as much as even those reliefs which had been granted by the Commissioner (Appeals) stood nullified in view of the Tribunal’s direction to the Assessing Officer to re-do the whole exercise in its entirety. No cross-appeals have been filed by the Department against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) granting substantial relief to the assessees.

ii) The common order of the Tribunal u/s. 254 was to be set aside and the Tribunal directed to hear the appeals before it on the limited grounds urged by the assessee, namely, the disallowance of interest expenditure u/s. 36(1)(iii) to the extent disallowed by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the validity of the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147.”

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Ex-parte order — Powers of Tribunal — Tribunal has the power to set aside ex-parte order — Matter remanded to the Tribunal to decide the appeal on merits.

51 Cement Corporation of India Ltd vs. ACIT

[2023] 456 ITR 61 (Del.)

A.Y.: 2011–12; Date of Order: 6th February, 2023

S. 254 of ITA 1961 and Rule 24 of Income-tax Rules, 1962

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Ex-parte order — Powers of Tribunal — Tribunal has the power to set aside ex-parte order — Matter remanded to the Tribunal to decide the appeal on merits.

By an order dated 24th January, 2018, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee for non-appearance. The order was received by the assessee on 5th February, 2018. On 24th September, 2018, the assessee filed a miscellaneous application before the Tribunal praying for recalling the order dated 24th January, 2018 and requesting for hearing the appeal. The reason for non-appearance before the Tribunal was that the notice of hearing issued by the Tribunal was misplaced by the authorised officer of the assessee company. The assessee was unaware that its appeal had been dismissed and came to know about it only on 5th February, 2018. Further, the inadvertent delay in filing the miscellaneous application was due to the fact that the concerned employees were transferred to a plant outside Delhi and some of them even retired during the relevant period. The assessee thus submitted there was sufficient cause for delay.

The miscellaneous application was dismissed by the Tribunal on 7th September, 2022 on the ground that the time limit of six months for filing the miscellaneous application as provided by section 254(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, expired on 31st July, 2018. In the absence of power with the Tribunal to condone the delay in filing the miscellaneous application, the miscellaneous application came to be dismissed on the ground of limitation.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as follows:

“i) According to rule 24 of the Income-tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1963, if on the date fixed for hearing by the Tribunal, or on any other date to which the hearing is adjourned, the appellant does not appear in person or through an authorized representative, when the appeal is called out for hearing, the Tribunal may dispose of the appeal on the merits or otherwise, after hearing the respondent. The proviso appended to the rule indicates that where an appeal has been disposed of on the merits, and the appellant appears thereafter, the Tribunal shall set aside the ex parte order and restore the appeal, if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for his non-appearance. Although in the main part of rule 24, the expression used is “may”, when read with the proviso appended thereto, it leads to the conclusion that if the Tribunal chooses to dispose of the appeal on the merits or otherwise, after hearing the respondent in the absence of the appellant, and the appellant, thereafter, appears and shows sufficient cause for not appearing on the date when the appeal is disposed of, the Tribunal is obliged, in law, to set aside the order passed and restore the appeal.

ii) Rule 24 of the 1963 Rules which does not have the impediment of limitation, as is prescribed u/s. 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Under section 254, the Tribunal is also vested with incidental and ancillary powers which can be exercised in such situations such as in the assessee’s case. The issue involved in the appeal before the Tribunal which deserved a hearing on the merits, for the reasons that while there was a delay, the assessee had furnished reasons for explaining the delay that the notice of hearing issued by the Tribunal for the hearing on 24th January, 2018, was misplaced, and did not reach the concerned officer, that it was unaware of the passing of the dismissal order dated 24th January, 2018, and came to know about it only on 5th February, 2018, and that the inadvertent delay in filing the miscellaneous application was caused on account of the concerned persons having been temporarily transferred to a plant outside Delhi, and some persons retiring during the relevant period.

iii) The order of the Tribunal was set aside and the matter was remitted to the Tribunal for disposal of the assessee’s appeal on merits.”

Section 37 of the Act and Rule 9A of IT Rules, 1962 – Business expenditure – capital or revenue expenditure – Expenditure incurred on account of abandoned teleserial – Revenue expenditure

23. CIT vs. Prasad Productions; 407 ITR
541 (Mad):  Date of order: 4th April,
2018 A. Y. 2002-03


Section 37 of the Act and Rule 9A of IT
Rules, 1962 – Business expenditure – capital or revenue expenditure –
Expenditure incurred on account of abandoned teleserial – Revenue expenditure


The following question was
raised before the Madras High Court in appeal filed by the Revenue:


“Whether in the facts and
circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in holding that the write off
of expenditure incurred in respect of a teleserial that was abandoned could be
treated as business expenditure during the relevant assessment year, contrary
to the provisions of rule 9A of the Income-tax Rules?” 


The Madras High Court
decided the appeal in favour of the assessee and held as under:


“i)    The issue as to whether the cost of production of an abandoned
teleserial/feature film shall be treated as revenue expenditure or capital
expenditure has to be decided as per the circular issued by the CBDT in
Circular No. 16 of 2015 dated 06/10/2015, wherein it is stated that the cost of
production of an abandoned feature film is to be treated as revenue expenditure
and allowed as per the provisions of section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.


ii)    This circular was taken note of by the Division Bench of this
court in Tiruvengadam Investments Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (2016) 95 CCH 24 (Mad).
Though the circular pertains to a feature film, we find that there cannot be
any distinction between teleserial and feature film as the circular deals with
the aspects regarding to the cost of production of a film. Hence, Circular No.
16 of 2015 dated 06/10/2015 has full application to the facts of the present
case.


iii)    The appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed and the substantial
question of law as framed is answered in favour of the assessee and against the
Revenue.”

Section 37 of the Act and Rule 9A of IT Rules, 1962 – Business expenditure – capital or revenue expenditure – Expenditure incurred on account of abandoned teleserial – Revenue expenditure

31. 
Asianet Communications Ltd. vs. CIT; 407 ITR 706 (Mad); Date of order: 26th June, 2017 A. Y. 2001-02

 

Section 37 – Business expenditure – Capital
or revenue – Amount paid as non-compete fees – No new source of income – Amount
deductible as business expenditure

 

The assessee was a company engaged in the business of television
broadcasting, formed in the year 1991. The assessee was managed by one of the
directors, SK and he was also the president of the company, managing all the
affairs of the company till April 1999. SK had 50% share holding and the
balance was held by a non-resident Indian, RM. SK and RM decided to part ways
and an agreement was arrived at between them by which SK agreed to sell 50% of
his shareholding to RM or to his nominees and to renounce his management of the
company. As a part of the agreement SK agreed not to compete with the business
of the assesee for a period of five years for which the company agreed to pay
him a sum of Rs. 10.5 crore during the previous year relevant to  the A. Y. 2000-2001. This amount was paid to
SK in respect of a non-compete covenant, which was claimed as business
expenditure in computing the income for the same year. The claim was rejected
by the Assessing Officer.

 

The Commissioner
(Appeals) and the Tribunal confirmed the order of the Assessing Officer.

 

On appeal by the
assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

“i)    Any contractual term that
imposes restraint on a contracting party from engaging in any business for a
reasonable term must be backed by consideration. Therefore, the non-compete
compensation is but a consideration paid to the party who is kept out of
competing business during the term of the contract. The non-compete
compensation from the stand point of the payee of such compensation, is paid in
anticipation that absence of a compensation from the other party to the
contract may secure a benefit to the party paying the compensation. There is no
certainty that such benefit would accrue. In other words, in spite of the fact
that a competitor is kept out of the competition, on may still suffer loss.

ii)    The facts clearly disclose
that on account of the payment of non-compete fee, the assessee had not
acquired any new business, the profit making apparatus had remained the same,
the assets used to run the business remained the same and there was no new
business or new source of income, which accrued to the assessee on account of
the payment of the non-compete fee.

iii)    The stand taken by the Revenue that the
assessee had ammortised expenditure spread over for the period of five years
had been found to be factually incorrect, as the assessee had not capitalised
it in its accounts, but treated it as differed revenue expenditure for a period
of five years. That apart, that issue was never raised by the Revenue before
any of the lower authorities. The amount paid under the non-compete covenant
was deductible.”

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Bonafide mistake by assessee including exempt income in the computation of income — Time for filing revised return barred — No restriction on the power of Commissioner to grant relief — Orders rejecting applications of the assessee for revision unsustainable — Matter remanded to Commissioner for reconsideration.

50. Ena Chaudhuri vs. ACIT

[2023] 455 ITR 284 (Cal.)

A.Ys. 2007–08 and 2008–09

Date of order: 18th January, 2023

Section 264 of ITA 1961

 

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Bonafide mistake by assessee including exempt income in the computation of income — Time for filing revised return barred — No restriction on the power of Commissioner to grant relief — Orders rejecting applications of the assessee for revision unsustainable — Matter remanded to Commissioner for reconsideration.

For the A.Ys. 2007–08 and 2008–09 the assessee inadvertently offered to tax exempted income relating to dividend and long-term capital gains and realized this only upon receipt of the order passed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Since the filing of the original return itself was delayed she could not file a revised return u/s. 139(5) for claiming a deduction of the exempted income and therefore, she filed revision applications u/s. 264 before the Commissioner. The Commissioner held that since the orders passed u/s. 143(1) were not erroneous, that since the original returns of income were filed beyond the specified dates the assessee was debarred from filing revised returns and dismissed the revision applications.

The Calcutta High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) On the facts, the Commissioner had committed an error in law in dismissing the revision applications of the assessee filed u/s. 264 by refusing to consider on the merits the claim of the assessee that the income in question was exempted from tax and not liable to tax and was included in her return as taxable income due to a bona fide mistake and which she could not rectify by filing revised return since original return itself was belatedly filed and that she had no other remedy except filing of revision applications u/s. 264.

ii) The Commissioner while refusing to consider the claim of the assessee had misinterpreted Goetze (India) Ltd and also the scope of jurisdiction conferred upon him u/s. 264 by equating it with that of the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer in considering the claim of any allowance or deduction claimed by an assessee in the return of income or without filing any revised return.

iii) The orders of the Commissioner u/s. 264 rejecting the revision applications of the assessee for the A.Ys. 2007–08 and 2008–09 were unsustainable and accordingly set aside. The matters were remanded back to the Commissioner for reconsideration.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Application for stay pleading financial hardship — Plea should be considered and speaking order passed thereon.

49. Tungabhadra Minerals Pvt Ltd vs. Dy. CIT
[2023] 455 ITR 311 (Bom.)
A.Y. 2008–09: Date of order: 30th September, 2022

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Application for stay pleading financial hardship — Plea should be considered and speaking order passed thereon.

Pursuant to search and seizure against the assessee u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the assessment for A.Y. 2008-09 was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act after making an addition of R264.59 crores and consequently demand of R239.54 crores was raised. The assessment order was challenged in an appeal before the CIT(A) which was pending.

The assessee filed a stay application on 30th July, 2021 requesting for a stay of demand on the ground that the assessment order was bad and illegal. The assessee also pleaded financial difficulty. The assessing officer rejected the assessee’s application for stay of demand vide order dated 11th August, 2021 without assigning any reasons.

The assessee made an application before the Principal Commissioner largely on the grounds of financial stringency. However, vide order dated 17th November, 2021, the Principal Commissioner did not accept the plea of the assessee and directed the assessee to make payment of 10 per cent of the demand on or before 15th December, 2021. While passing the order, the Principal Commissioner did not deal with the assessee’s request for a stay on the basis of financial distress. Therefore, the assessee once again on 6th December, 2021 filed application before the Principal Commissioner categorically pointing out financial stringency and prayed for stay of demand. The application was once again rejected by the Principal Commissioner vide his order dated 29th December, 2021 and concluded that 10 per cent of the tax was required to be paid by the assessee.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged that order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) In an application for stay of demand, the aspect of financial hardship is one of the grounds which is required to be considered by the authority concerned and the authority concerned should briefly indicate whether the assessee is financially sound and viable to deposit the amount or the apprehension of the Revenue of non-recovery later is correct warranting deposit.

ii) In the assessee’s application dated 30th July, 2021 the assessee had asserted a categorical case of financial hardship. However, the Assessing Officer rejected the assessee’s application for stay of the demand, without assigning any reasons. The assessee approached the Principal Commissioner praying for the stay of the demand, reiterating the specific grounds in that regard contending that the Assessing Officer had not applied his mind to the aspect of financial stringency. However, the fate of the petition before the Principal Commissioner was not different. Although other issues on the merits had been considered by the Principal Commissioner, there were no reasons in the context of financial hardship, in both the orders passed by the Principal Commissioner being orders dated 11th August, 2021 and an order dated 29th December, 2021. Both orders were not valid.

iii) The Principal Commissioner of Income-tax is directed to hear the petitioner(s) on the stay application on the specific plea of the petitioner in regard to financial stringency and after granting an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner(s), pass an appropriate order on such issue. Let such exercise be undertaken as expeditiously as possible and in any case within two months from today.

iv) In the meantime, till a fresh decision on such an issue is taken, the impugned demands in question, relevant to these petitions, shall not be acted upon by the respondents.”

Recovery of tax — Interest for failure to pay tax — Waiver of interest — Effect of 220(2A) — Advance tax paid in time but mistakenly in the name and PAN of minor son — Amount credited to assessee’s account — Assessee co-operating in inquiry relating to assessment and recovery proceedings — Assessee entitled to complete waiver of interest.

48. FuaadMusvee vs. Principal CIT

[2023] 455 ITR 243 (Mad.)

A.Ys. 2009-10 and 2011-12

Date of order: 9th February, 2023

Section 220(2A) of ITA 1961

 

Recovery of tax — Interest for failure to pay tax — Waiver of interest — Effect of 220(2A) — Advance tax paid in time but mistakenly in the name and PAN of minor son — Amount credited to assessee’s account — Assessee co-operating in inquiry relating to assessment and recovery proceedings — Assessee entitled to complete waiver of interest.

The assessee, an individual, filed his returns of income for A.Y. 2009-10 declaring a total income of ₹88,37,380 and for A.Y. 2011-12 declaring a total income of ₹87,10,242. In the return of income, the assessee included the income of his minor son as per the provisions of section 64 of the Act. However, out of abundant caution, the assessee also filed the return of his minor son separately. The advance tax on the minor’s income was paid under the PAN of the minor son. The assessee, in his return of income, claimed credit of taxes paid of ₹21,27,450 and ₹25,41,037 which included the advance tax paid and tax deducted at source on account of the minor son also.

The return was processed u/s.143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and demand was raised since the credit for advance tax paid by the assessee in the PAN of the minor son was not granted. The assessee was informed that credit cannot be given for the amount paid under a different PAN and was asked to file a rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act.

However, since the assessee had paid the tax amounts, the assessee claimed a waiver of tax amounts and a total waiver of interest of ₹12,20,380 and ₹8,15,179 u/s. 220(2) of the Act for the period 29th December, 2012 to 25th November, 2018 as the assessee had paid the tax in 2011 itself, albeit under the PAN of the minor son. It was the contention of the assessee that since the amount was with the Department for all these years, there was no basis for the demand of interest. The Principal Commissioner, vide order dated 31st March, 2022 granted only a 20 per cent waiver of interest and directed the assessee to pay the balance of 80 per cent.

Aggrieved by the order of the Principal Commissioner, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Madras High Court. The High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) There was no lapse on the part of the assessee in the payment of his taxes and he had not committed any default; the taxes deposited under the assessee’s minor son’s account were duly credited to the assessee’s account immediately on the date of remittance. The petitioner had certainly suffered genuine hardship for no fault of his. Hence, interest could not be levied u/s. 220(2) of the Act when the advance taxes were in fact paid on time though mistakenly in the assessee’s minor son’s permanent account number.

ii) It was also not the case of the Department that the assessee did not cooperate in any enquiry relating to the assessment or any proceedings for recovery of the amount due from him. The Principal Commissioner had granted a partial waiver of interest to the assessee at 20 per cent without giving any reason as to how he arrived at that rate. There was no finding given by the Principal Commissioner that the assessee had not satisfied the three conditions required for waiver of interest u/s. 220(2A). He ought to have granted full waiver of the interest to the assessee, but, instead, erroneously had granted only a 20 per cent. waiver by non-speaking orders.”

Recovery of tax — Private Company — Recovery from the director — Non-recovery not shown to be attributable to neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the assessee — Tax is not recoverable from Director.

47. Geeta P. Kamat vs. PCIT

[2023] 455 ITR 234 (Bom.)

A.Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10

Date of order: 20th February, 2023

Sections 179 and 264 of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Private Company — Recovery from the director — Non-recovery not shown to be attributable to neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the assessee — Tax is not recoverable from Director.

A show cause notice was issued upon the assessee u/s.179 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) requiring the assessee to show cause why recovery proceedings should not be initiated upon her in her capacity as the director of Kaizen Automation Private Limited (KAPL) for the A.Ys. 2008–09 and 2009–10 due to non-recovery of taxes despite the attachment of the bank account.

In response to the show cause notice, the assessee submitted that the non-recovery of taxes could not be attributed to any gross neglect, misfeasance, breach of duty on her part in relation to the affairs of the company. The assessee contended that even though she was the director of KAPL, she neither had any control over the affairs of the company nor did she have any authority or independence to take decisions for the benefit of the company. Further, the assessee did not have any authority to sign any cheques on behalf of the company. No functional responsibility was assigned to her or her husband who was also a shareholder and director in the company.

The Assessing Officer passed the order u/s. 179 of the Act rejecting the contentions of the assessee and held that the assessee had failed to prove that she was not actively involved in the management of the company for the F.Ys. 2007–08 and 2008–09 and that there was no gross neglect misfeasance or breach of duty on the part of the assessee.

Against the said order, the assessee filed a revision application u/s. 264 of the Act which was rejected on the ground that the assessee was a director for the relevant assessment years and hence was liable.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order passed u/s. 179 of the Act. The Bombay High Court, allowing the petition held as follows:

“i) If the taxes due from a private company cannot be recovered, then the same can be recovered from every person who was a director of a private company at any time during the year. Such a director can absolve himself if he proves that non-recovery cannot be attributed to any gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty in relation to the affairs of the company.

ii) The assessee had discharged its burden by bringing material on record to demonstrate a limited role in the company and lack of authority in the management of the company.

iii) The assessing officer had not placed any material on record to controvert the material placed on record by the assessee based on which the assessee could be held to be guilty of gross neglect misfeasance or breach of duty in regard to the affairs of the company.

iv) Theassessee having discharged the initial burden, the assessing officer had to show how the assessee could be attributed to gross neglect, misfeasance or breach of duty.

v) The order passed u/s. 179 by the assessing officer and the revision order passed u/s. 264 by the Principal Commissioner on similar grounds were unsustainable.”

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Service of valid notice — Notice sent to secondary email id though active primary email id given in the last return — No proper service of notice — Notice and subsequent proceedings and order set aside.

46. Lok Developers vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 455 ITR 399 (Bom.)

A.Ys. 2015-16 to 2017-18: Date of order: 15th February, 2023

Sections 144, 144B, 147, 148, 156 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Service of valid notice — Notice sent to secondary email id though active primary email id given in the last return — No proper service of notice — Notice and subsequent proceedings and order set aside.

The petitioner a registered partnership firm which was carrying on a real estate development business. Notices u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening of assessment was served upon the secondary email id as per the PAN Card i.e., on LOKTAX2008@REDIFFMAIL.COM, and not on the primary registered email id i.e., loktax201415@rediffmail.com. The Petitioner filed writ petitions and challenged the reassessment notices dated 28th March, 2021, for the A.Ys. 2015–16, 2016–17 and 2017-18 issued u/s. 148 of the Act, the show-cause notice for proposed variation in the draft assessment order dated 25th March, 2022 and assessment order under section 144B read with section 144, notice of demand under section 156.

The Bombay High Court framed the following questions for consideration:
“Whether subsequent proceedings initiated by the Revenue authorities for non-compliance of notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act would be vitiated on account of notice under section 148 of the Act being served on the secondary email id registered with permanent account number (PAN) instead of the registered primary e-mail id or updated e-mail id filed with the last return of income?”

The High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) The Assessing Officer ought to have considered the primary email id furnished by the assessee in the return filed for the A.Y. 2020–21 and had erred in issuing a notice on the secondary email id when there was a primary email id. The secondary email id had to be used as an alternative or in such circumstances when the authority was unable to effect service of any communication on the primary id. There was no prudence in issuing an email to the secondary email address. The Assessing Officer ought to have sent the notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to both the primary email address and the e-mail address mentioned in the last return of income filed to pre-empt a jurisdictional error on account of valid service.

ii) The assessee was not wrong in refusing to participate in a proceeding vitiated by lack of valid service of notice. Accordingly, the notice u/s. 148 and all consequential proceedings including the notice for proposed variation in income and assessment order u/s. 144B read with section 144 were quashed and set aside. The Assessing Officer was at liberty to proceed with the assessment after issuance of fresh notice in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — Notice u/s. 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice barred by limitation under un-amended provisions — Notice issued on 30th July, 2022 to reopen assessments for A.Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 — Not valid.

45. SumitJagdishchandra Agrawal vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 455 ITR 216 (Guj.)

A.Ys. 2013–14 and 2014–15: Date of order: 20th March, 2023

Sections 147, 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice u/s. 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice barred by limitation under un-amended provisions — Notice issued on 30th July, 2022 to reopen assessments for A.Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 — Not valid.

In the present petitions filed under article 226 of the Constitution, the respective petitioners have called in question the notices issued by Respondent No. 2. Assessing Officer u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 seeking to reopen the assessment in respect of A.Ys. 2013–14 and 2014–15 and the corresponding orders u/s. 148A(d) of July 2022. The challenge is on the basis of limitation. The notices u/s. 148 of the Act were originally issued under the un-amended provisions during the period April to June 2021 and were treated as show-cause notices u/s. 148A(b) of the Act in the light of the decision of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); [2023] 1 SCC 617, and thereupon, the order u/s. 148A(d) was passed in July 2022.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i) Section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, empowers the Assessing Officer to reassess the income of the assessee subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 151 of the Act in case any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. Section 149 deals with the time limit for notice. By the Finance Act, 2021, passed on 28th March, 2021, and made applicable with effect from 1st April, 2021, section 148A was brought into force and section 149 was also recast. The first proviso to section 149 of the Act as introduced by the Finance Act, 2021, inter alia, stipulated that no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued at any time in a case for the assessment year beginning on or before 1st day of April 2021, if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the time limit specified under the provision as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. Due to the pandemic of 2020 the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 was passed. Various notifications were issued from time to time extending the time limits prescribed u/s. 149 of the Act for issuance of reassessment notice u/s. 148. The 2020 Act is a secondary legislation. Such secondary legislation would not override the principal legislation, the Finance Act, 2021. Therefore, all original notices u/s. 148 of the Act referable to the old regime and issued between 1st April, 2021, and 30th June, 2021, which stand beyond the prescribed permissible time limit of six years from the end of A.Y. 2013–14 and A.Y. 2014–15, would be time barred.

ii) The notices u/s. 148 of the Act relatable to the A.Y. 2013–14 or the A.Y. 2014–15, as the case may be, were beyond the permissible time limit, and therefore, liable to be treated as illegal and without jurisdiction.”

Reassessment — Notice — Charitable purpose — Registration — Law applicable — Effect of amendment of section 12A Charitable institution entitled to an exemption for assessment years prior to registration — Reassessment proceedings for earlier years cannot be initiated on account of non-registration.

44. Prem Chand Markanda SD College for Women vs. ACIT(E)

[2023] 455 ITR 329 (P&H)

A.Y. 2015-16: Date of order: 31st January, 2023

Sections 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Charitable purpose — Registration — Law applicable — Effect of amendment of section 12A Charitable institution entitled to an exemption for assessment years prior to registration — Reassessment proceedings for earlier years cannot be initiated on account of non-registration.

The assessee was a society registered under the Registrar of Societies, Punjab running a college exclusively for girls since 1973. The assessee got substantial aid from the State Government in the shape of reimbursement of staff salary and therefore, prior to A.Y. 2016–17, it was entitled to blanket exemption from income tax in terms of clause (iiiab) of s.10 (23C) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee apprehended that it may not fulfill the condition given under Rule 2BBB, which required that for institutions to be substantially financed, the percentage of government grant should not be less than 50 per cent and therefore, the assessee applied for registration u/s. 12AA on 28th March, 2016, before the competent authority. The assessee was granted registration vide order dated 30th September, 2016, which was applicable from A.Y. 2016–17 onwards until withdrawn by the Commissioner. The assessee again applied for fresh registration as per 12AB of the Act. Vide order dated
15th October, 2021, the assessee was again registered for a period of five years from A.Y. 2022–23 to A.Y. 2026–27.

Subsequently, on 16th March 2022, the assessee received a notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Act for reopening the assessment for A.Y. 2015–16 on account of bank interest and cash deposit in two of its bank accounts. In response to the notice, the assessee relied upon the third proviso to 12A(2) to contend that there was a bar to take action u/s. 147 for A.Y. preceding the year in which registration was granted. The objections were rejected vide order dated 29th March, 2022 and notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notices issued under 148A(b) and section 148 of the Act. The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Once the reply filed by the assessee pursuant to the notice had been rejected without examining the third proviso to section 12A(2) relegating the assessee to the alternative remedy would not be appropriate. After issuance of notice u/s. 148A(b) objections were filed by the assessee which were dismissed. A notice u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 was issued wherein no reference was made to the third proviso to section 12A.

ii) Registration of the assessee was granted and was applicable from the A.Y. 2016–17. The registration was valid for claiming the benefit under sections 11 and 12. No proceedings u/s. 147 could be initiated for the A.Y. 2015–16. Hence, the show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b), the consequent order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 being contrary to the third proviso to section 12A(2) of the Act, are set aside.”

Interest on refund — Additional Interest — Law applicable — Delay in granting refund pursuant to order of Tribunal as affirmed by the Court — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest and additional interest — Compensation awarded if process not completed within the prescribed period.

43. Bombardier Transportation India Pvt Ltd vs. DCIT

[2023] 455 ITR 278 (Guj.)

A.Y. 2005-06: Date of order: 23rd January, 2023

Sections 244 and 244A of ITA 1961

Interest on refund — Additional Interest — Law applicable — Delay in granting refund pursuant to order of Tribunal as affirmed by the Court — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest and additional interest — Compensation awarded if process not completed within the prescribed period.

The assessee filed an appeal against the order of penalty u/s 201(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The CIT(A) confirmed the penalty of ₹ 97,59,312. The assessee paid an amount of ₹ 90,46,000 in the F.Y. 2006–07. The Tribunal vide order dated 17th April, 2009 quashed the penalty levied upon the assessee. The department’s appeal before the High Court was dismissed vide order dated 4th August, 2016.

The assessee filed a complaint before the CPGRAMS on 19th June, 2017 for not giving effect to the order of the Tribunal and the High Court and for non-issuance of the refund. Though the replies were received on 11th June, 2017 and 2nd August, 2017, there was no whisper on the refund. Thereafter, on 16th October, 2017, 28th February, 2018, 7th March, 2018, 12th March, 2018, 16th March, 2018, 10th April, 2018 and 11th April, 2018 yet another complaint was filed before the CPGRAMS. The assessee submitted the details for the processing of the refund. However, the refund was not granted.

In such circumstances, due to the non-action on the part of the Department despite several complaints, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Gujarat High Court and prayed that the Assessing Officer be directed to give the refund due to the assessee and the interest and additional interest u/s. 244A due to the assessee shall be paid to the assessee.

The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Sub-section (1) of section 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for interest on delayed refund and sub-section (1A) inserted by the Finance Act, 2016 provides for additional interest.

ii) Two separate portals being available for day-to-day functions for the processing of returns of income and for the processing of the returns or statements of tax deducted at source could not be the reason for the court to overlook the period of five years that had been taken by the Department after the tax appeal had been decided by the court on 4th August, 2016 and there had been no further challenge by the other party. The Department was not sure of the exact outstanding demand against the assessee. Even if there had been a manual deposit prior to the online process sufficient time of five years had been taken by the Department.

iii) With regard to the refund to be returned with the interest, sub-section (1A) inserted in section 244A had to be applied prospectively for the period of delay after the introduction of the relevant statutory provision. Under sub-section (1) of section 244A the Department had to grant interest at the statutory rate and both the provisions, sections 244 and 244A, applied and the Department had to grant the refund accordingly.”

TDS — Payments to non-residents — Failure to deduct tax at source — Order deeming payer to be “assessee-in-default” — Limitation for order — No statutory period of limitation — General principle that in absence of statutory provisions, orders must be passed within reasonable time — Writ — Power of High Court under article 226 to fix reasonable period of limitation — Limitation prescribed for deduction of tax at source on payments to residents applicable to payments to non-residents.

34. Vedanta Limited vs. Dy. CIT(International Taxation)
[2023] 454 ITR 545 (Mad)
A. Ys. 2010-11 to 2015-16
Date of order: 24th February, 2023
Section 201 of ITA 1961

TDS — Payments to non-residents — Failure to deduct tax at source — Order deeming payer to be “assessee-in-default” — Limitation for order — No statutory period of limitation — General principle that in absence of statutory provisions, orders must be passed within reasonable time — Writ — Power of High Court under article 226 to fix reasonable period of limitation — Limitation prescribed for deduction of tax at source on payments to residents applicable to payments to non-residents.

The petitioner-company is engaged in the business of mining and exploration of metals and exploration of oil and natural gas. For the F. Ys. 2009-10 to 2014-15, i.e, A. Ys. 2010-11 to 2015-16, the respondent AO passed the orders under section 201(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (respectively on 31st March, 2017, 31st March, 2017, 28th March, 2019, 22nd March, 2021, 27th March, 2021 and 30th March, 2022) deeming the petitioner to be an “assessee-in-default” and levying consequential interest under section 201(1A) of the Act in respect of payments to non-residents.

In writ petitions filed by the Petitioner challenging the said orders, the High Court considered the following two questions:

“(a) Whether in the absence of limitation being prescribed for the purpose of passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ in view of failure to deduct the whole or any part of the tax in relation to payments made to a non-resident it is permissible for the court to determine the limitation for passing such orders?

(b) If the answer to the above question is in the affirmative, a further question arises as to what would constitute reasonable period for passing such orders?”

The Madras High Court held as under:
“i)    It is trite law that in the absence of statutory prescription of limitation for passing an order, the order ought to be passed within a reasonable period. The authorities under the Income-tax Act, 1961 being creatures of the statute would not be able to determine this. Thus, it is for the High Court in exercise of its plenary jurisdiction under article 226 of the Constitution, to determine what would constitute reasonable time. Reasonableness forms the foundation on which courts would determine limitation in the absence of a legislative prescription for passing orders or taking action.

ii)    Section 201 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as it originally stood did not prescribe any limitation for passing an order u/s. 201 of the Act. By the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2009, with effect from April 1, 2010 sub-section (3) to section 201 of the Act was inserted thereby providing limitation for passing an order u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source in respect of payments to residents. No limitation was however prescribed in so far as passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source in respect of payments to non-residents.
 
iii) The object behind deduction of tax at source is common for payments to residents and non-residents. It is to secure the taxes or a portion thereof at the earliest. The object of tax deduction at source being common for payments both to residents and non-residents, limitation prescribed by the Legislature to pass orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act, deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source in respect of payments to residents should be applied in respect of passing orders deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source even in respect of payments to non-residents.

iv) The limitation for passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source on payments to residents must thus be adopted and treated as constituting ‘reasonable period’ for the purpose of passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct tax at source on payments to non-residents. The extended period of limitation of seven years would be available for passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct taxes in respect of payments to residents. The sequitur is that the ‘reasonable period’ for passing orders u/s. 201(1) of the Act deeming a person to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for failure to deduct taxes in respect of payments to non-residents shall also be seven years from the end of the financial year in which the payment is made or credit given with effect from 1st April, 2010.

v) As the challenge in these writ petitions were limited to the aspect of limitation which is clarified, it is left open to the petitioner to file appeals challenging the order on merits. If the petitioner raises the plea of limitation, the same shall be decided by the appellate authority in accordance with legal position clarified by this court. If the petitioner chooses to file an appeal, the time spent in these writ petitions shall stand excluded while reckoning limitation and the same shall be decided in accordance with law.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Condition precedent — Satisfaction note by AO of searched person — Limitation where no satisfaction is recorded will be taken as year of search.

33. PCIT vs. Gali Janardhana Reddy
[2023] 454 ITR 467 (Kar)
A. Y. 2011-12    
Date of order: 31st March, 2023
Sections 132, 132A, 153A and 153C of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Condition precedent — Satisfaction note by AO of searched person — Limitation where no satisfaction is recorded will be taken as year of search.

On 25th October, 2010, a search was carried out in the case of R and others under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. During the course of search proceedings, certain incriminating materials belonging to the assessee were found and seized. Consequently, the AO of the searched person issued notice under section 153C against the assessee for the A. Ys. 2005-06 to 2010-11 and a notice under section 143(3) for the A. Y. 2011-12. Accordingly, assessments were completed.

The Tribunal set aside the assessment orders and held that there was no satisfaction recorded by the AO of the search person, which was mandatorily required for issuing a notice under section 153C.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)     In CIT v. Gopi Apartment [2014] 365 ITR 411 (All), the Allahabad High Court observed that in the case of an assessment u/s. 153C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, there are two stages: (1) The first stage comprises a search and seizure operation u/s. 132 or proceeding u/s. 132A against a person, who may be referred to as ‘the searched person’. Based on such search and seizure, assessment proceedings are initiated against the ‘searched person’ u/s. 153A. At the time of initiation of such proceedings against the ‘searched person’ or during the assessment proceedings against him or even after the completion of the assessment proceedings against him, the Assessing Officer of such ‘searched person’, if he is satisfied, that any money, document, etc., belongs to a person other than the searched person, shall hand over such money, documents, etc., to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over ‘such other person’. (2) The second stage commences from the recording of such satisfaction by the Assessing Officer of the ‘searched person’ followed by handing over of all the requisite documents, etc., to the Assessing Officer of such ‘other person’, thereafter followed by issuance of the notice of the proceedings u/s. 153C read with section 153A against such ‘other person’.

ii)    The initiation of proceedings against ‘such other person’ is dependent upon satisfaction being recorded. Such satisfaction may be during the search or at the time of initiation of assessment proceedings against the ‘searched person’, or even during the assessment proceedings against him or even after completion thereof but before issuance of notice to the ‘such other person’ u/s. 153C. Even in a case where the Assessing Officer of both persons is the same and assuming that no handing over of documents is required, the recording of ‘satisfaction’ is a must, as that is the foundation, upon which the subsequent proceedings against the ‘other person’ are initiated. The handing over of documents, etc., in such a case may or may not be of much relevance but the recording of satisfaction is still required and in fact it is mandatory.

iii)    In terms of section 153C of the Act, reference to the date of the search under the second proviso to section 153A of the Act has to be construed as the date of handing over of assets and documents belonging to the assessee (being the person other than the one searched) to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction to assess that assessee. Further proceedings, by virtue of section 153C(1) of the Act would have to be in accordance with section 153A of the Act and reference to the date of search would have to be construed as the reference to the date of recording of satisfaction. It would follow that the six assessment years for which assessments or reassessments could be made u/s. 153C of the Act would also have to be construed with reference to the date of handing over of assets and documents to the Assessing Officer of the assessee.

iv)    The Tribunal was right in law in holding that the assessment year relevant to the financial year in which satisfaction note was recorded u/s. 153C of the Act, would be taken as the year of search for the purposes of clauses (a) and (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A of the Act by making reference to the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 153C. Therefore, the Tribunal was right in law in holding that no satisfaction was recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and the notice issued by the Assessing Officer u/s. 153C of the Act would be taken as the year of search for the purpose of clauses (a) and (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A. The Tribunal was right in law in setting aside the assessment order passed for the A. Y. 2011-12 under the facts and circumstances of the case holding that there was no satisfaction recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person in so far as section 153A in the case of the assessee.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Condition precedent for notice of reassessment — Assessee must be furnished material on the basis of which initial notice was issued.

32. Anurag Gupta vs. ITO
[2023] 454 ITR 326 (Bom)
A. Y. 2018-19
Date of order: 13th March, 2023
Sections 148 and 148A of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Condition precedent for notice of reassessment — Assessee must be furnished material on the basis of which initial notice was issued.

For the A. Y. 2018-19, the petitioner’s return of income was processed under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, a notice under section 148A(b) of the Act dated 8th March, 2022, was issued by the AO suggesting that income liable to tax for the A. Y. 2018-19 had escaped assessment and called upon the petitioner to show cause as to why notice under section 148 be not issued. The basis for reopening was the information, which reads as under:

“1. In your case information has been received from the credible sources that a search/survey action u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act was carried out on February 14, 2019 on Antariksh Group. It is seen that you have purchased warehouse from BGR Construction LLP for Rs. 70,00,000 as per sale list seized and impounded during the course of search. This amount includes sale consideration of land and construction cost and the on-money received by BGR Construction LLP. As per the information, it is observed that the payments made to M/s. BGR Construction LLP are not accounted for in its regular books of account. The cash payment on account of on-money of Rs. 70,00,000 was not accounted in its books of account which is evident and the same is received in cash by M/s. BGR Construction LLP. Thus, the source of cash paid by you of Rs. 70,00,000 to BGR remains unexplained.

2. As the above information has been received from the credible sources, and this office is contemplating proceedings u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in your case, you are required to submit your explanation along with appropriate documentary evidence and reconcile the above information with the Income-tax return filed by you, if any. In case, no Income-tax return has been filed by you, you may submit the reconciliation of the above information with your books of account or computation of total income. Also, this may be treated as show-cause notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and final opportunity to submit the details. In the absence of any submission or details from your side with respect to the above, it shall be presumed that you have nothing to say in the matter and the same will be dealt with as per the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.”

This show-cause notice was replied by a communication dated 14th March, 2022, wherein the petitioner totally denied that there was any transaction with BGR Construction LLP and that no warehouse had been booked or payment made to the said entity. The petitioner also denied any “on-money cash transaction” with the said entity and therefore, demanded that the proceedings initiated under section 147 of the Act be dropped.

On 21st March, 2022, the AO issued a clarification in regards to the notice under section 148A(b), this time, stating therein that the petitioner had also executed a conveyance deed with Meet Spaces LLP and, therefore, the AO required the petitioner to furnish payment details regarding this deed also. No response was filed by the petitioner to this communication dated 21st March, 2022. The AO passed the order under section 148A(d) on 25th March, 2022, stated to be with the prior approval of the PCIT, Thane. In the order under section 148A(d), for the purpose of issuance of the notice under section 148 of the Act, the AO proceeds to record its satisfaction, firstly, that cash payments had been made by the assessee to BGR Construction LLP as had been confirmed by the transferee of the said entity in the statement recorded during the survey action and, secondly, that the assessee had entered into a conveyance deed as a purchaser with Meet Spaces LLP for a consideration of Rs. 10,00,000, which remained unexplained.

The Assessee filed writ petition and challenged the notice under section 148A(b) dated 8th March, 2022, the order under section 148A(d) dated 25th March, 2022 and the notice under section 148 dated 26th March, 2022. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)     Section 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, envisages that the assessee must be provided not only information but also the material relied upon by the Revenue for purposes of making it possible to file a reply to the show-cause notice in terms of the section.

ii)    The reassessment proceedings initiated were unsustainable on the ground of violation of the procedure prescribed u/s. 148A(b) of the Act on account of failure of the Assessing Officer to provide the requisite material which ought to have been supplied with the information in terms of the section. The order dated March 25, 2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act, and the notice u/s. 148 of the Act were liable to be quashed.”

Educational institution — Exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) — Scope of section 10(23C)(vi) — Condition precedent for exemption — Institution should exist solely for purposes of education — Receipts and expenses outside India not covered — American trust established in India solely for educational purposes with permission granted by the Central Government — Trust in India supported by the organisation set up in USA — American organisation incurring expenses in support of Indian trust and repatriating amounts to it — Amounts received utilised for purposes of education in India — Assessee entitled to exemption under section 10(23C)(vi).

31. Laura Entwistle vs. UOI
[2023] 454 ITR 345 (Bom)
A. Ys. 2002-03 to 2005-06
Date of order: 8th March, 2023
Section 10(23C)(vi) of ITA 1961

Educational institution — Exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) — Scope of section 10(23C)(vi) — Condition precedent for exemption — Institution should exist solely for purposes of education — Receipts and expenses outside India not covered — American trust established in India solely for educational purposes with permission granted by the Central Government — Trust in India supported by the organisation set up in USA — American organisation incurring expenses in support of Indian trust and repatriating amounts to it — Amounts received utilised for purposes of education in India — Assessee entitled to exemption under section 10(23C)(vi).

The petitioners were the trustees of the American School of Bombay Education Trust. The Trust was constituted under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, by the trust deed, as amended in July 1995 and August 2008. The Trust was set up after the embassy of the United States of America was granted specific permission by the Ministry of External Affairs, New Delhi. The Trust was set up solely for the purpose of education and not for profit. During the years relating to A. Ys. 2002-03 to 2005-06, the Trust was supported by the South Asia International and Educational Services Foundation set up in 1996 in the United States of America wholly and exclusively for charitable and educational purposes within the meaning of section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of the United States of America, and the primary purpose was to provide financial assistance to educational institutions as provided in its constitution. The Foundation was a non-profit organisation, subject to scrutiny by the U.S. Government and exempted from tax payment by U.S. Federal Government under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. The accounts of the Foundation were subject to detailed scrutiny by the Internal Revenue Service. By an order based on the said scrutiny, the Internal Revenue Service continued to approve the Foundation as a not-for-profit Foundation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. The Foundation would incur various expenses in support of school material and freight, salaries of teachers and administrators, education grants, etc. The surplus, if any, arising from time to time was entirely repatriated to the trustees in India and, thereafter, invested by them in accordance with the provisions of section 11(5) of the Act.

The Trust filed a writ petition to set aside the order dated 27th February, 2009 passed by the Chief CIT denying exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and to direct the respondents to grant the exemption to the income, in relation to the A. Ys. 2002-03 to 2005-06. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The Supreme Court in the case of American Hotel and Lodging Association, Educational Institute v. CBDT [2008] 301 ITR 86 (SC) noted that the threshold condition for granting approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is to ascertain that the institution exists solely for education purposes and not for profit. The conditions as stipulated in the third and the thirteenth proviso to section 10(23C) of the Act are the monitoring conditions which may be looked at by the tax authority at a later stage. The Supreme Court observed that section 10(23C)(vi) is analogous to section 10(22). To that extent, the judgments of the court as applicable to section 10(22) would equally apply to section 10(23C)(vi). With the insertion of the provisos to section 10(23C)(vi) the applicant who seeks approval has not only to show that it is an institution existing solely for educational purposes (which was also the requirement u/s. 10(22) but it has now to obtain initial approval from the prescribed authority. There is a difference between stipulation of conditions and compliance therewith. The threshold conditions are actual existence of an educational institution and approval of the prescribed authority for which every applicant has to move an application in the standardized form in terms of the first proviso. It is only if the prerequisite condition of actual existence of the educational institution is fulfilled that the question of compliance with the requirements in the provisos would arise.

ii) It is not correct to introduce the word “India” into the third proviso to section 10(23C) of the Act. The plain words of the proviso do not require the application of the entire income to be in India.

iii) The Department could be concerned only with the application of income in the hands of the Trust or the trustees once received in India. This was because the Trust or the trustees were not transferring or repatriating any money outside India to any person or entity. Furthermore, it was not the case of the Department that having received the monies in India, the Trust or the trustees had not utilized the funds in accordance with the objects for which it was founded. The Department had not substantiated their bold statement that the Trust or the trustees had not invested the surplus money in accordance with law which in any event would not be a criteria at the initial stage of approval. The Foundation was an entity which repatriated money into India and did not receive any repatriation from India. Therefore, the money earned and expenses made by the Foundation in the U. S. A. should not and not ought to concern the Income-tax Department in India. There was absolutely no requirement to certify the correctness of the accounts of the Foundation.

iv) As a matter of record, the Department had granted the Trust or the trustees exemption u/s. 10(22) and 10(23C)(vi) of the Act since the A. Ys. 1999-2000 to 2002-03 and the A. Ys. 2006-07 to 2026-27. It was therefore substantiated that the Trust only existed for educational purposes and not for profit. Once it was established that the Trust or the trustees existed to provide education and not for profit, the exemption could not be denied, for the A. Ys. 2002-03 to 2005-06.”

Collection of tax at source — Scope of section 206C — Income from forest produce — Meaning of “forest produce” — Assessee working on sawn timber purchased from third person — Assessee not liable to collect tax at source.

30. Principal CIT(TDS) vs. Nirmal Kumar Kejriwal
[2023] 454 ITR 777 (Cal)
A. Ys. 2005-06 to 2009-10
Date of order: 2nd August, 2022
Section 206C of ITA 1961

Collection of tax at source — Scope of section 206C — Income from forest produce — Meaning of “forest produce” — Assessee working on sawn timber purchased from third person — Assessee not liable to collect tax at source.  

An order was passed against the assessee under section 206C(6)/206C(7) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that the assessee did not collect any tax on the sale of timber obtained by any other mode other than forest lease in terms of section 206C(1) of the Act. The assessee raised objections to the order. The AO rejected the objections.

The CIT(A) held that section 206C was not applicable to the assessee. This was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 206C introduced by the Finance Act, 1988 was intended to levy and collect presumptive tax in the case of trading in certain goods to remove hardship. The trades mentioned therein are alcoholic liquor for human consumption, timber obtained under a forest lease, timber obtained by any mode other than under forest lease and any other forest produce not being timber, at different rates. The object of introduction of the new provisions for working out the profits on presumptive basis was to get over the problems faced in assessing the income and recovering the tax in the case of persons trading in these items. The provisions were brought into the statute not only to estimate the profits on presumptive basis but also to collect the tax on such transactions at specified rates mentioned in section 206C of the Act. What has to be borne in mind is that, the presumptive tax is collectible on a forest produce. Therefore, the test is whether the assessee had dealt with a forest produce. Basically, forest produce is the produce grown spontaneously.

ii) If timber was being sized, sawn into logs of different dimensions and shapes in activities carried out in saw mills authorised by the Government, it would amount to a different produce. Even in respect of timbers which are procured as described in the table, if it is used in the process of manufacturing, the provisions of section 206C(1) of the Act would not be applicable due to the fact that the product ceased to be a forest produce. Section 206C was not applicable to the assessee.”

Capital gains — Computation of capital gains — Effect of section 50C — Stamp value deemed to be full value of consideration for transfer of immovable property — Object of provision to prevent unaccounted cash transfers of capital assets — Not applicable in case of compulsory acquisition of land and buildings.

29. Principal CIT vs. Durgapur Projects Ltd
[2023] 454 ITR 367 (Cal)
A. Y. 2015-16
Date of order: 24th February, 2023
Section 50C of ITA 1961

Capital gains — Computation of capital gains — Effect of section 50C — Stamp value deemed to be full value of consideration for transfer of immovable property — Object of provision to prevent unaccounted cash transfers of capital assets — Not applicable in case of compulsory acquisition of land and buildings.

In the A. Y. 2015-16, the assessee had earned capital gain on transfer of land to the National Highways Authority of India on compulsory acquisition. The AO applied section 50C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and added a sum of
Rs. 5,48,43,584 to the total income.

The CIT(A) and the Tribunal held that section 50C was not applicable and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 50C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was inserted by the Finance Act, 2002 with effect from April 1, 2003 for the purpose of taking the value adopted or assessed by the stamp valuation authority as the deemed full value of consideration received or accruing as a result of transfer of a capital asset being land or building or both, in case the consideration received or accruing as a result of transfer is less than such value. The object and purpose behind insertion of the provision in the Act was to curb the menace of the use of unaccounted cash in transfer of capital assets. In a case of compulsory acquisition of land by the Government there is no room for suppressing the actual consideration received on such acquisition.

ii) The Legislature has used the words and expressions in section 50C of the Act consciously to give them a restricted meaning. Hence, the term “transfer” used in section 50C has to be given a restricted meaning and it would not have a wider connotation so as to include all kinds of transfers as contemplated u/s. 2(47) of the Act. The provisions of section 50C will be applicable in cases where transfer of the capital asset has to be effected only upon payment of stamp duty. In a case of compulsory acquisition of a capital asset being land or building or both, the provisions of section 50C cannot be applied as the question of payment of stamp duty for effecting such transfer does not arise.

iii) In the instant case, the property was acquired under the provisions of the National Highways Act, 1956. The property vests by operation of the said statute and there is no requirement for payment of stamp duty in such vesting of property. As such there was no necessity for an assessment of the valuation of the property by the stamp valuation authority in the case on hand. For the reasons as aforesaid it is held that the provisions u/s. 50C of the Income-tax Act cannot be applied to the case on hand.”

Business expenditure — Difference between contingent and ascertained expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Premium payment on redemption of shares which has been quantified is revenue expenditure.

28. AdvocatesNitesh Housing Developers Pvt Ltd vs. DCIT
[2023] 454 ITR 770 (Kar.)
A.Y. 2011-12
Date of order: 2nd August, 2022
Section 37 of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Difference between contingent and ascertained expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Premium payment on redemption of shares which has been quantified is revenue expenditure.

The assessee was a private limited company engaged in the business of development of real estate and execution of engineering contracts. In September 2009, the assessee entered into a debenture subscription and share purchase agreement. The original agreement was modified under a first addendum agreement dated 15th May, 2010 where under, the option of HDFC to convert debentures to preferential shares at the time of redemption was deleted and the parties agreed that debentures shall be compulsorily converted into preference shares entitling HDFC to post internal rate of return of 25 per cent of the subscription amount. A second addendum agreement dated 12th November, 2012 was entered into between the parties whereunder, HDFC once again resumed the right to exercise the option of converting the debentures to preferential shares. For the A. Y. 2011-12, the assessee filed its original return on 30th September 2011 and revised return on 29th September, 2012. The second addendum agreement was executed on 12th November, 2012, prior to filing the revised returns. The AO held that the premium paid or payable on the redemption of preference shares would be arising out of the reserves and surplus and would constitute capital expenditure out of the accumulated surplus and therefore, it was not a revenue expenditure. He further recorded that the expenditure was contingent upon the issue of initial public offer and accordingly disallowed the expenditure of Rs. 28,83,17,552.

The CIT(A) however held that the amount was deductible. The Tribunal recorded that the premium paid on redemption of debentures is revenue expenditure and allowable proportionately during the period of debenture. Having so held, the Tribunal further recorded that the terms of the original purchase agreement may have been changed to suit the convenience of the parties and it was a “make believe” story to claim deduction. The Tribunal reversed the order of the CIT(A) and restored the order of the AO.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“The issuance of the debentures was not in dispute. Deduction of tax at source was also not in dispute. The Tribunal had rightly recorded the correct principle of law that premium paid on redemption of debenture is revenue expenditure. By the second addendum agreement dated November 12, 2012, the HDFC’s right to exercise the option of converting the debentures into preference shares had been restored in consonance with the original agreement. The resultant position was, the HDFC, at its option, could cause the assessee to redeem all debentures on September 20, 2012. The adverse finding recorded by the Tribunal that the parties had changed the agreement to suit their convenience and that it was a ‘make-believe’ story was not supported by any cogent reason nor material on record and therefore, was untenable. The premium payable quantified on redemption of debentures was deductible as revenue expenditure.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — General principles — No incriminating material found during search — Assessment completed on date of search — No additions can be made in assessment pursuant to search

27. S. M. Kamal Pasha vs. Dy. CIT
[2023] 454 ITR 157 (Kar.)
Date of order: 2nd September, 2022
Sections: 132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — General principles — No incriminating material found during search — Assessment completed on date of search — No additions can be made in assessment pursuant to search.

Pursuant to a search and seizure conducted under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the residential premises of the assessee, the AO issued notice under section 153A. The assessee declared a total income of Rs. 99,33,890 in his return filed in response to the notice. Thereafter, the AO passed an order assessing the total income at Rs.7,92,57,600.

The Commissioner(Appeals) set aside the order passed under section 153A. The Tribunal allowed the Department’s appeal.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“The Tribunal was not justified in reversing the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) setting aside the order u/s. 153A when there did not exist any incriminating material found during the search u/s. 132 for issuing notice u/s. 153A. Hence the order of the Tribunal was set aside and the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was restored.”

Search and Seizure — Assessment of third person — Income-tax survey — Statement of assessee during survey not conclusive evidence — Author of diary based on which addition made had expired on date of search and entries not used in case of person against whom search conducted — Addition as unexplained investment in assessee’s case — Erroneous and unsustainable.

26 Dinakara Suvarna vs. DCIT
[2023] 454 ITR 21 (Kar.)
A.Ys.: 2005-06 to 2007-08
Date of order: 08th July 2022
Sections: 69B, 132, 147 and 153C of ITA 1961

Search and Seizure — Assessment of third person — Income-tax survey — Statement of assessee during survey not conclusive evidence — Author of diary based on which addition made had expired on date of search and entries not used in case of person against whom search conducted — Addition as unexplained investment in assessee’s case — Erroneous and unsustainable.

The assessee was a contractor. A search was conducted under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the residential premises of one AK and a diary was seized. The diary contained details of payments made by AK to the assessee. Thereafter, on 21st April, 2009, a survey action under section 133A was conducted in the business premises of the assessee, and his statement was recorded wherein the assessee agreed to offer 8 per cent additional receipts as income. However, the assessee did not file his revised return offering additional income.

On 26th March, 2010, the AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Act and called upon the assessee to show cause as to why the amount agreed to be offered to tax was not declared in the return of income. On 12th April, 2010, the assessee filed his return of income and declared the same income as filed in the original return of income. The assessee vide letter dated 30th May, 2010 objected to the reopening on the grounds that there was no reason to believe that the income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. On 24th December, 2010, the AO passed assessment orders for the A.Ys. 2005-06 to 2007-08 making the additions.

The CIT(Appeals) partly allowed the appeals. The assessee and the Revenue preferred appeals against the said order before the Tribunal. Against the appeal preferred by the Revenue, the assessee preferred cross-objections. The Tribunal partly allowed the appeals and cross-objections filed by the assessee. The appeal preferred by the Revenue for the A.Y. 2007-08 was partly allowed and dismissed the appeals for other years.

The following questions were framed by the Karnataka High Court in the appeal filed by the assessee:

“a)    Whether the Tribunal is correct in law in upholding the action of the Assessing Officer in reopening the assessment u/s. 147 of the Act for the A.Ys. 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08 on the facts and circumstances of the case?

b)    Whether the Tribunal erred in law in not holding that there was no reason to believe that income escaped assessment and all mandatory conditions to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 of the Act were not satisfied on the facts and circumstances of the case?

c)    Whether the Tribunal was correct in law in reversing the deletion made by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) of the addition u/s. 69B in respect of alleged unexplained investments made in properties of Rs. 28,75,500 for the A.Y. 2007-08 on the facts and circumstances of the case?”

The High Court allowed the appeal and held as follows:

“i) The Tribunal had erred in upholding the reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Ys. 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08 and in holding that there was reason to believe that income had escaped assessment and all mandatory conditions to reopen the assessment were satisfied. No proceedings were initiated u/s. 153C. Thus, there was patent non-application of mind. The Assessing Officer had not recorded his satisfaction with regard to escapement of income. The assessee’s admission
during the survey u/s. 133A could not be a conclusive evidence.

ii) The Tribunal had erred in reversing the deletion made by the Commissioner (Appeals) of the addition made u/s. 69B for the A.Y. 2007-08. We have perused the order passed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. It is held therein that the entries in the seized diary could not be relied upon because Smt. Soumya Shetty had passed away and there was no corroborating evidence. The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) has held that it was travesty of justice that the relevant entry has not been used in Shri Ashok Chowta’s case but it has been used in the assessee’s case who is a third party to the proceedings. The Tribunal while reversing the finding of Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) has relied upon the signature of the assessee in the seized diary. Admittedly, the author of the diary had passed away. The addition has been made in the case of the assessee based on the entries in the diary but the said entries have not been used in the case of Shri Chowta. As recorded hereinabove, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Pullangode Rubber Produce Co. Ltd. has held that admission is an important piece of evidence but it cannot be said to be conclusive. Shri Chandrashekar also placed reliance on CIT v. S. Khader Khan Son [2008] 300 ITR 157 (Mad) and contended that a statement recorded u/s. 133A of the Act is not given any evidentiary value because the officer is not authorised to administer oath and to take any sworn statement. Therefore, in view of the fact that the author of the diary had passed away and relevant entry has not been used in the case of Shri Chowta himself, reversing the findings of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is not sustainable.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Effect of insertion of section 153D by Finance Act, 2007 — CBDT circular dated 12th March, 2008 and Manual of Office Procedure laying down the condition of approval of draft order of Commissioner — Circular and Manual binding on Income-tax authorities — Approval granted without application of mind — Order of assessment — Not valid.

25. ACIT Vs. Serajuddin and Co.
[2023] 454 ITR 312 (Orissa)
A. Ys.: 2009-10
Date of order: 15th March, 2023
Sections: 153A and 153D of ITA 1961.

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Effect of insertion of section 153D by Finance Act, 2007 — CBDT circular dated 12th March, 2008 and Manual of Office Procedure laying down the condition of approval of draft order of Commissioner — Circular and Manual binding on Income-tax authorities — Approval granted without application of mind — Order of assessment — Not valid.

The search and seizure operation was carried out in the case of assessee and various other persons and concerns of the assessee. Subsequently, assessments were completed and orders were passed under section 143(3)/144/153A after making various additions/disallowances.

The assessment orders were challenged in appeal. One of the grounds for challenge was in respect of non-compliance with section 153D which required prior approval of the Additional Commissioner (Addl. CIT). Further, the approval had been granted in a mechanical manner without application of mind. The CIT(A) observed that a consolidated approval order given by the Addl. CIT for A.Ys. 2003-04 to 2009-10 and therefore held, partly allowing the appeal, that it was not necessary for the AO to mention the fact of approval in the body of the assessment order. The Tribunal concluded that the approval was granted without application of mind and the assessment orders were accordingly set aside.

The Orissa High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    Among the changes brought about by the Finance Act, 2007 was the insertion of section 153D of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The CBDT circular dated March 12, 2008 ([2008] 299 ITR (St.) 8) refers to the various changes and, inter alia, also to the insertion of a new section 153D. Even prior to the introduction of section 153D in the Act, there was a requirement u/s. 158BG of the Act, which was substituted by the Finance Act of 1997 with retrospective effect from January 1, 1997, of the Assessing Officer having to obtain previous approval of the Joint Commissioner/Additional Commissioner by submitting a draft assessment order following a search and seizure operation.

ii)    The requirement of prior approval u/s. 153D of the Act is comparable with a similar requirement u/s. 158BG of the Act. The only difference is that the latter provision occurs in Chapter XIV-B relating to “Special procedure for assessment of search cases” whereas section 153D is part of Chapter XIV. A plain reading of section 153D itself makes it abundantly clear that the legislative intent was for the Assessing Officer when he is below the rank of a Joint Commissioner, to obtain “prior approval” before he passes an assessment order or reassessment order u/s. 153A(1)(b) or 153B(2)(b) of the Act.

iii)    An approval of a superior officer cannot be a mechanical exercise. While elaborate reasons need not be given, there has to be some indication that the approving authority has examined the draft orders and finds that it meets the requirement of the law. The mere repeating of the words of the statute, or mere “rubber stamping” of the letter seeking sanction by using similar words like “seen” or “approved” will not satisfy the requirement of the law. This is where the Technical Manual of Office Procedure becomes important. Although, it was in the context of section 158BG of the Act, it would equally apply to section 153D of the Act. There are three or four requirements that are mandated therein: (i) the Assessing Officer should submit the draft assessment order “well in time”; (ii) the final approval must be in writing; and (iii) the fact that approval has been obtained, should be mentioned in the body of the assessment order. The Manual is meant as a guideline to Assessing Officers. Since it was issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, the powers for issuing such guidelines can be traced to section 119 of the Act. The instructions under section 119 of the Act are binding on the Department.

iv)    It was an admitted position that the assessment orders were totally silent about the Assessing Officer having written to the Additional Commissioner seeking his approval or of the Additional Commissioner having granted such approval. Interestingly, the assessment orders were passed on December 30, 2010 without mentioning this fact. These two orders were therefore not in compliance with the requirement spelt out in para 9 of the Manual of Official Procedure. The requirement of prior approval of the superior officer before an order of assessment or reassessment is passed pursuant to a search operation is a mandatory requirement of section 153D of the Act and such approval is not meant to be given mechanically. In the present cases such approval was granted mechanically without application of mind by the Additional Commissioner resulting in vitiating the assessment orders themselves.”

Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Failure to deposit tax deducted at source — Failure due to inadvertence of assessee’s official — Assessee depositing tax deducted at source with interest though after delay — Effect of Circular issued by CBDT — Prosecution orders quashed.

24. Dev Multicom Pvt Ltd & Ors vs. State of Jharkhand
[2023] 454 ITR 48 (Jharkhand):
A. Y. 2017-18
Date of order: 28th February, 2022
Sections 276B, 278B and 279(1) of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Failure to deposit tax deducted at source — Failure due to inadvertence of assessee’s official — Assessee depositing tax deducted at source with interest though after delay — Effect of Circular issued by CBDT — Prosecution orders quashed.

The assessee had deducted tax at source. However, this tax deducted at source had been deposited with delay. The assessee paid an interest on the delay in depositing of tax deducted at source. Prosecution notices were served on the assesses and complaint was lodged stating that the assessee and its principal officer had deducted tax but failed to credit the same to the account of Central Government and therefore committed offence punishable u/s. 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed petition to quash the complaint. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i)    Instruction F. No. 255/339/79-IT(Inv.) dated May 28, 1980, issued by the CBDT that prosecution u/s. 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 shall not normally be proposed when the amount of tax deducted at source involved or the period of default is not substantial and the amount in default has also been deposited in the meantime to the credit of the Government. But no such consideration will apply to levy of interest u/s. 201(1A).

ii)    The tax deducted at source in all the cases was deposited with interest by the assessees and there was no reason to proceed with the criminal proceeding after receiving the amount with interest though a delay had occurred in depositing the amount. The continuation of the proceedings would amount to an abuse of the process of the court.

iii)    Apart from one or two cases, the deducted amount was not more than Rs. 50,000. While passing the sanction u/s. 279(1) the sanctioning authority had not considered the Instruction dated May 28, 1980 issued in this regard by the CBDT. Accordingly, the entire criminal proceedings and the cognizance orders in the respective cases passed by the Special Economic Offices whereby cognizance had been taken against the assessees for the offences u/s. 276B and 278B were quashed.”

Industrial undertaking — Special deduction under section 80-IB — Condition precedent — Manufacture of article — Making of poultry feed amounts to manufacture — Assessee entitled to special deduction under section 80-IB.

23. Principal CIT vs. Shalimar Pellet Feeds Ltd
[2023] 453 ITR 547 (Cal)
A. Y. 2008-09 to 2013-14
Date of order: 22nd February, 2022
Section 80-IB of ITA 1961

Industrial undertaking — Special deduction under section 80-IB — Condition precedent — Manufacture of article — Making of poultry feed amounts to manufacture — Assessee entitled to special deduction under section 80-IB.

For the A.Y. 2008-09 to 2013-14, the assessee claimed a deduction under section 80-IB(5) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that the activity of manufacturing poultry feed in their factory was a manufacturing activity. The AO was of the view that there was no manufacturing done and that the assessee only mixed various products, that each one of them had an individual identity and could not be construed to be an input for manufacturing of poultry feed. The AO rejected the asessee’s claim.

The CIT (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s claim and granted deduction. The Tribunal, on the facts and on the grounds that the Central Government had notified the poultry feed industry under section 80-IB(4) affirmed the order of the CIT (Appeals).

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeals filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i)    For the A.Ys. 2008-09, 2009-10 and 2010-11 the appeals were covered by the circular issued by the CBDT and therefore were not maintainable since they involved low tax effect.

ii)    The process undertaken by the assessee in producing the poultry feed amounted to manufacture. The simple test which could be applied was to examine as to whether the individual ingredients which were mixed together to form the poultry feed could be recovered and brought back to their original position. After the process was completed, if such reversal was not possible then the final product had a distinct and separate character and identity. Though the individual ingredients were capable of being consumed by human beings, the end product, namely, the poultry feed could not be consumed by human beings. Therefore, the individual ingredients would lose their identity and get merged with the final product which was a separate product having its own identity and characteristics. Nothing contrary was shown by the Department against the factual findings recorded by the Commissioner (Appeals) after examining the process undertaken by the assessee as affirmed by the Tribunal. The Tribunal was right in confirming the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) granting deduction u/s. 80-IB for the A.Ys. 2011-12, 2012-13 and 2013-14.”

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — Interest — Funds received for project from capital subsidy, debt and equity — Funds placed with banks during period of construction of project — Interest earned thereon capital in nature.

22. Principal CIT vs. Brahmaputra Cracker & Polymer Ltd
[2023] 454 ITR 202 (Gau):
A. Ys. 2011-12, 2014-15 and 2015-16
 Date of order: 12th April, 2023
Section 4 of ITA 1961

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — Interest — Funds received for project from capital subsidy, debt and equity — Funds placed with banks during period of construction of project — Interest earned thereon capital in nature.

The assessee received a capital subsidy from the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers for setting up Integrated a Petro-Chemical Complex. The assessee maintained a separate bank account for such capital subsidy and any excess amount not being utilised was temporarily parked in short-term deposits in banks and interest was earned thereupon. The assessee made these deposits in accordance with the guidelines of the Department of the Public Enterprises. Clarifications were received from the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers indicating that the interest earned on the aforesaid deposits shall be treated as a part of the capital subsidy and will reduce the part of capital subsidy sought from the Government. The assessee claimed these receipts as capital receipts in the return of income. The AO treated these receipts as revenue receipts chargeable to tax.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the Department.

The Gauhati High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“Interest received by the assessee from short-term deposits made out of unutilized capital subsidy, unutilized debt funds, and unutilized equity funds received as capital during the formative years till the project was completed was rightly claimed by the assessee as capital receipts. No question of law arose.”

Assessment — Validity — Amalgamation of companies — Fact of amalgamation intimated to Income-tax authorities — Notice and order of assessment in the name of company which had ceased to exist — Not valid.

21. Inox Wind Energy Ltd vs. Addl./Joint/Deputy/Asst. CIT/ITO
[2023] 454 ITR 162 (Guj.)
A. Y. 2018-19
Date of order: 31st January, 2023
Section: 143 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Validity — Amalgamation of companies — Fact of amalgamation intimated to Income-tax authorities — Notice and order of assessment in the name of company which had ceased to exist — Not valid.

IR was incorporated on 11th October, 2010 under the Companies Act. For the A.Y. 2018-19 the return of income was filed declaring the total income at nil. The case was selected for scrutiny and the notice under section 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was issued on 23rd September, 2019. Pending this assessment, on 25th January, 2021, the composite scheme of arrangement between IR and GFL and the assessee-company was approved by the National Company Law Tribunal and the appointed date for the merger of IR and GFL was fixed on 1st April, 2010 and demerger of the energy business to the assessee-company was from 1st July, 2020. The scheme since came into operation from 9th February, 2021, and the jurisdictional AO received the intimation through e-mail on 10th March, 2021. The assessee informed the respondent about the sanction of the composite scheme on 31st August, 2021 and on 19th September, 2021. Notices continued to be issued in the name of erstwhile company IR, which no longer existed from 1st April, 2020. The show-cause notice-cum-draft assessment order was also issued on 23rd September, 2021. Therefore, on 25th September, 2021, once again the assessee intimated and objected to the notice. However, an order was passed under section 143(3) r.w.s.144B of the Act, assessing the income in the name of IR for the A. Y. 2018-19.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition challenging the validity of the assessment order and held as under:

i)    The assessment in the name of a company which has been amalgamated and has been dissolved is null and void and framing of assessment in the name of such companies is not merely a procedural difficulty, which can be cured.

ii)    The amalgamated company had already brought the facts of amalgamation to the notice of the AO and yet he chose not to substitute the name of the amalgamated company and proceeded to make the assessment in the name of a non-existing company thereby rendering it void. The assessment framed in the name of the non-existing company requires to be quashed.

iii)    While disposing of this petition, as a parting note, it is being observed that this order of quashment against the non-existing company will not preclude the authorities to initiate actions, if permitted under the law against the amalgamated company.

Reassessment – Law applicable – Effect of amendment to sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 – Credit Instruction No. 1 of 2022 has no binding force.

20 Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI
[2023] 453 ITR 153 (All):
A. Y.: 2013-14 to A.Y. 2017-18
Date of order: 22nd February, 2023:
Sections. 147 to 151 of ITA 1961 and Article 142 and 226 of Constitution of India

Reassessment – Law applicable – Effect of amendment to sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 – Credit Instruction No. 1 of 2022 has no binding force.

The assessment years under challenge are A.Y. 2013-14 to A.Y. 2017-18. The dispute pertains to the issue of notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after 1st April, 2021 without following the new regime of tax for reopening of assessment applicable with effect from1st April, 2021. The assessees contended that re-opening of assessment for A. Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 could not be done since the maximum period prescribed in the pre-amended provisions had expired on 31st March, 2021 and therefore the notices issued between 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for AYs. 2013-14 and 2014-15 were time barred. For the AYs. 2015-16 to 2017-18, the contention raised was regarding the monetary threshold and the other requirements prescribed under the new provisions of re-opening with effect from 1st April, 2021.

Various notices were challenged before the High Courts on the basis of the above and the High Courts took the view that the re-assessment notices issued after 01.04.2021 under the pre-existing provisions by applying extension of time with the help of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 were to be quashed and further held that the assessing authorities were at liberty to initiate re-assessment proceedings in accordance with the provisions of the Act.

The matters from various High Courts travelled to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court held that the Department should not have issued notices under the unamended provisions and the notices issued after 01.04.2021 should have been issued under the substituted provisions of section 147 to 151 of the Act. However, in order to strike a balance, the Supreme Court directed that the notices issued under the unamended provisions of the Act shall be deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A as per the substituted provisions.

Pursuant to the Supreme Court decision, the CBDT issued directions regarding implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court. Thereafter, the Department, in pursuance of the decision of the Supreme Court and the directions issued by the CBDT issued notices providing with the material or information on the basis of which re-opening was initiated and proceeded to pass orders u/s. 148A(d) of the Act holding that notice u/s. 148 should be issued.

These orders were challenged by filing writ petitions. The Allahabad High Court framed the following two questions for deciding the issues:

“(i)    Whether the reassessment proceedings initiated with the notice u/s. 148 (deemed to be notice u/s. 148A), issued between April 1, 2021 and June 30, 2021, can be conducted by giving benefit of relaxation/extension under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, (TOLA) 2020 up to March 30, 2021, and then the time limit prescribed in section 149(1)(b) (as substituted with effect from April 1, 2021) is to be counted by giving such relaxation, benefit of TOLA from March 30, 2020 onwards to the Revenue ?

(ii)    Whether in respect of the proceedings where the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) is attracted, benefit of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 will be available to the Revenue, or in other words the relaxation law under Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 would govern the time frame prescribed under the first proviso to section 149 as inserted by the Finance Act, 2021, in such cases ?”

The High Court held as under:

“i)    Sweeping amendments have been made in sections 147 to 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the Finance Act, 2021. The radical and reformative changes governing the procedure for reassessment proceedings in the substituted provisions are remedial and benevolent in nature. A comparison of pre and post amendment section 149 indicates that the period of notice for reassessment proceedings in the pre-amended section 149 was four years and six years. Whereas in the post-amendment section 149(1), the time limit within which notice for reassessment u/s. 148 can be issued is three years in clause (a) and can be extended upto ten years after the lapse of three years as per clause (b), but there is substantial change in the threshold requirements which have to be met by the Revenue before issuance of reassessment notice after the lapse of three years u/s. 149(1)(b). Nor has the only monetary threshold been substituted but the requirement of evidence to arrive at the opinion that the income escaped assessment has also been changed substantially. A heavy burden is cast upon the Revenue to meet the requirements of section 149(1)(b). The first proviso to section 149(1) provides that notice u/s. 148, in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before April 1, 2021, cannot be issued, if such notice could not have been issued at the relevant point of time, on account of being beyond the time limit specified under the unamended provisions section 149(1)(b). The time limit in the unamended section 149(1)(b) of six years, thus, cannot be extended up to ten years under the amended section 149(1)(b), to initiate reassessment proceedings in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149. In other words, the case for the relevant assessment year where the six year period has elapsed as per unamended 149(1)(b) cannot be reopened, after commencement of the Finance Act, 2021, with effect from April 1, 2021.

ii)    The Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 is an enactment to extend timelines only from April 1, 2021 onwards. Consequently, from April 1, 2021 onwards all references to issuance of notice contained in the 2020 Act must be read as reference to the substituted provisions only. In the case of Ashish Agarwal, the Supreme Court invoked its power under article 142 of the Constitution. From a careful reading of the judgment of the Supreme Court, there is no doubt that the view taken by the court in Ashok Agarwal on the legal principles and the reasoning for quashing the notices u/s. 148 of the unamended Income-tax Act, issued after April 1, 2021 had been affirmed in toto. The result is that all notices issued under the unamended Income-tax Act were deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A of the Income-tax Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and construed to be show-cause notices in terms of section 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act. The inquiry as required u/s. 148A(b) was to be completed by the officers and after passing orders in terms of section 148A(d) in respect of the assessee, notice u/s. 148 could be issued after following the procedure as required u/s. 148A. As a one time measure, the requirement of conducting an inquiry with the approval of specified authority at the stage of section 148A(a) was dispensed with.

iii)    In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the 2020 Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the Revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defences available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to section 149(1) cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the Central Government in exercise of powers u/s. 3(1) of the 2020 Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 by this way. As held by the Supreme Court, all defences which may be available to the assessee including those available u/s. 149 of the Income-tax Act and all rights and contentions which may be available to the assessee and revenue under the Finance Act, 2021 shall continue to be available to assessment proceedings initiated from April 1, 2021 onwards.

iv)    Clause 6.2 of the directions issued by the CBDT pursuant to the Supreme Court decision deals with the cases of the A. Ys. 2013-14 to 2017-18 and are based on the misreading of the judgment of the Supreme court. Terming reassessment notices issued on or after April 1, 2021 and ending with June 30, 2021 as “extended reassessment notices”, within the time extended by the 2020 Act and various notifications issued thereunder is an effort of the Revenue to overreach the judgment of the court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal as affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal. In any case, the Central Board of Direct Taxes Instruction No. 1 of 2022 dated May 11, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43), issued in exercise of its power u/s. 119 of the Income-tax Act, as per the Revenue’s own stand, is only a guiding instruction issued for effective implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal. The instructions issued in the third bullet to clause 6.1 and clause 6.2 (i) and (i), being in teeth of the decision of the Supreme Court have no binding force.

v)    The reassessment proceedings initiated with the notice u/s. 148 (deemed to be notice u/s. 148A), issued between April 1, 2021 and June 30, 2021, could not be conducted by giving benefit of relaxation/extension under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation And Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 up to March 30, 2021, and the time limit prescribed in section 149(1)(b) (as substituted with effect from April 1,2021) could not be counted by giving such relaxation from March 30, 2020 onwards to the Revenue.

(vi)    In respect of the proceedings where the first proviso to section 149(1)(6) is attracted, the benefit of the 2020 Act would not be available to the Revenue, or in other words, the relaxation law under the 2020 Act would not govern the time frame prescribed under the first proviso to section 149 as inserted by the Finance Act, 2021, in such cases.

(vii)    That the reassessment notices issued to the assessee in this bunch of writ petitions, on or after April 1, 2021 for different assessment years (the A. Ys. 2013-14 to 2017-18), had to be dealt with, accordingly, by the Revenue.”

Reassessment – Notice – Limitation – Effect of Amendment to Sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and amendment of Certain provisions) Act, 2020 and notification issued under it – CBDT Instruction No. 1 of 2022 could not override provisions of law or decision of Supreme Court – Order passed under section 148A(d) and notice issued under section 148 on 26.07.2022 for A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 – Barred by limitation:

19 Keenara Industries Pvt. Ltd vs. ITO
[2023] 453 ITR 51 (Guj)
A. Ys.: 2013-14 and 2014-15
Date of order: 7th February 2023

Sections. 147 to 151 of ITA 1961 and Art. 226 of Constitution of IndiaReassessment – Notice – Limitation – Effect of Amendment to Sections 147 to 151 by Finance Act, 2021 and Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and amendment of Certain provisions) Act, 2020 and notification issued under it – CBDT Instruction No. 1 of 2022 could not override provisions of law or decision of Supreme Court – Order passed under section 148A(d) and notice issued under section 148 on 26.07.2022 for A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 – Barred by limitation:

During the period between 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021, the Department had issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for A. Y. 2013-14 and A.Y. 2014-15 under the old provisions of the Act despite the fact that new regime of re-opening of provisions had come into force. This was challenged and the matter eventually travelled to the Apex Court, which vide its judgment dated 4th May, 2022 in case of Union of India & Ors. vs. Ashish Agarwal (2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC) adjudicated the issue as to the validity of such reopening notices issued across the nation and gave certain directions to the Department. Consequent to the aforesaid decision of the Supreme Court, the assessing officer issued show cause notice under section 148A(b) and supplied the relevant material on the basis of which the case was sought to be re-opened. Thereafter, on July 26, 2022, the AO passed order under section 148A(d) and issued the consequent notice under section. 148 dated 22nd July, 2022.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of the order under section 148A(d) and the notice under section 148 both dated 26th July, 2022. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Under the new scheme of reassessment as contained in the Finance Act, 2021 the time limit for issuance of notices u/s. 148 of the Act under the substituted provision of section 149 of the Act have been substantially modified. Clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 149 of the Act makes the originally prevailing four year period to three years, whereas clause (b) has extended the previously prevailing limit of six years to ten years in cases where income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment amounting to Rs. 50 lakhs or more. While enacting the Finance Act, 2021, Parliament was aware of the existing statutory laws both under the Act as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 as also the Ordinance and the 2020 Act and notification issued thereunder. However, the new scheme for reassessment which was made effective from April, 1, 2021 does not have any saving clause. The notification dated March 31, 2021 came to be issued before the amended provision of re-opening came into force and thus, the notification was applicable to the unamended provision of reopening. The unamended provisions of re-opening ceased to exist from April 1, 2021, the extension by notification could have no applicability. Notification dated April 27, 2021 was in continuity of the earlier notification dated March 31, 2021 as the unamended provisions of reopening ceased to exist on April 1, 2021. No notification can extend the limitation of the repealed Act.

ii)    In Ashish Agarwal’s case, the Supreme Court, after detailed consideration of provisions of law and extensive submissions made by both the sides, held that the new provision substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 being remedial and benevolent in nature and substituted with the specific aim and protect the right and interest of the assessee as well as being in public interest, respective High Courts have rightly held that the benefit of new provisions shall be made available even in respect of the proceedings relating to the past assessment year provided u/s. 148 of the Act notice has been issued on or after April 1, 2021. The Supreme Court was in complete agreement with the view taken by various High Courts in holding so. At the same time, being concerned about the revenue being remediless as this judgment would result into absence of reassessment proceedings, the Supreme Court permitted the respective notices u/s. 148 of the Act to be deemed to have been issued u/s. 148A of the Act as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021 and to be treated as the show cause notice in terms of section 148A(b) of the Act.

iii)    The test to determine the validity of notice issued after March 31, 2021 is that they should be permissible under the Finance Act, 2021. The Central Board of Direct Taxes Instructions No. 1 of 2022 dated May 11, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43) surely cannot override the provisions of law or the decision of the Supreme Court.

iv)    The Assessing Officer had issued the reassessment notices on or after April 1, 2021 under the erstwhile sections 148 to 151 of the Act relying on Notification No. 20 of 2021 dated March 31, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (ST.) 141) and Notification No. 38 of 2021 dated April 2021 dated April 27, 2021 ([2021] 434 ITR (St.) 11), which extended the applicability of those provisions as they stood on March 31, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 beyond the period of March 31, 2021. Since as per the scheme prescribed under the first proviso to the amended section 149 of the Act, six years had already elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment years the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, as well as the order dated July 26, 2022, passed u/s. 148A(d) for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 were barred by limitation.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Sanction of prescribed authority — One of two reasons recorded already considered by Principal Commissioner in revision and proceedings dropped accepting assessee’s explanation — Sanction for notice under section 148 given without application of mind — Notice not valid: Sections 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961: A. Y. 2012-13:

18 Godrej and Boyce Manufacturing Co Ltd vs. ACIT
[2023] 453 ITR 10 (Bom.)
A. Y.: 2012-13
Date of order 13th January, 2023
Sections. 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Sanction of prescribed authority — One of two reasons recorded already considered by Principal Commissioner in revision and proceedings dropped accepting assessee’s explanation — Sanction for notice under section 148 given without application of mind — Notice not valid: Sections 147, 148, 151 and 263 of ITA 1961: A. Y. 2012-13:

For the A. Y. 2012-13 the AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the notice. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i)    The sanctioning authority u/s. 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is duty bound to apply his or her mind to grant or not to grant approval to the proposal put up before him to issue notice u/s. 148 to reopen an assessment u/s. 147 to the material relied upon by the Assessing Officer for reopening the assessment. Such power cannot be exercised casually in a routine and perfunctory manner.

ii)    One of the reasons recorded for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being the claim for deduction of the diminution in the value of investment in a subsidiary, had already been considered by the Principal Commissioner, who in his revision order u/s. 263 had dropped the proceedings initiated accepting the reply of the assessee and rejecting the audit objection. The Principal Commissioner had accorded the approval u/s. 151 which showed non-application of mind by the Principal Commissioner while according approval for reassessment without considering all documents including his own earlier order passed dropping proceedings u/s. 263.

iii)    The notice u/s. 148 and the order passed on the objections of the assessee were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment – Notice after four years – Sanction of prescribed authority – Limitation – Extension of time limit under provisions of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 applicable only in situations arising out of amendment by Finance Act, 2021 – Sanction not obtained from appropriate authority – Notices quashed:

17 Ambika Iron and Steel Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal CIT
[2023] 452 ITR 285 (Ori)
Date of order: 24th January, 2022
Sections. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment – Notice after four years – Sanction of prescribed authority – Limitation – Extension of time limit under provisions of Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 applicable only in situations arising out of amendment by Finance Act, 2021 – Sanction not obtained from appropriate authority – Notices quashed:

Several notices under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for re-opening of assessment issued prior to 1st April, 2021, that is prior to amendment by the Finance Act 2021, were issued beyond the period of four years and were time barred in terms of the first proviso to section 147 of the Act. Further, the sanction for issuing such notices was obtained from the Joint Commissioner whereas the appropriate authority to record satisfaction was the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax/Commissioner of Income-tax.

The assesses filed writ petitions challenging the validity of such notices.

The Department contended that in view of the notifications issued by the Central Government in terms of provisions of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020, the said limits stood extended.

The Orissa High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i)    The contention of the Department that in view of the notifications issued by the Central Government in terms of the provisions of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 time limits stood extended was untenable since the notifications were issued to deal with the situation arising from the amendment to 1961 Act by the 2021 Act with effect from April 1, 2021 whereas the notices issued u/s. 148 under challenge were issued prior to April 1, 2021.

ii)    It had been stated that the notices had been issued after obtaining the necessary satisfaction of the joint Commissioner whereas the officer authorized to accord necessary satisfaction was the Chief Commissioner or Commissioner.

iii)    The notices u/s. 148 are quashed.”

Offences and prosecution – Compounding of offences – No limitation laid down under section 279 – Power of CBDT to issue directions to Income-tax authorities for proper compounding of offences – CBDT has no power to lay down time limit – Guidelines of CBDT prescribing limitation – Not valid.

16 Footcandles Film Pvt Ltd vs. ITO
[2023] 453 ITR 402 (Bom)
A. Y.: 2010-11
Date of order 28th November, 2022

Section 279 of ITA 1961Offences and prosecution – Compounding of offences – No limitation laid down under section 279 – Power of CBDT to issue directions to Income-tax authorities for proper compounding of offences – CBDT has no power to lay down time limit – Guidelines of CBDT prescribing limitation – Not valid.

By order dated 14th January, 2020, the Magistrate Court convicted the assessee under section 248(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for the offence punishable under section 276B read with section 278B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 whereby the fine of Rs. 10,000 and rigorous imprisonment for one year were imposed. The assessee filed a criminal appeal before the Sessions Court which was pending adjudication. The assessee then filed application for compounding of offence under section 279(2) of the Act along with application for condonation of delay in filing of compounding application. The assessee’s request for compounding application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the order. The assessee, inter alia, contended before the High Court that provisions of section 279(2) do not impose any bar on the authorities to consider the compounding application even when the Magistrate Court had convicted the assessee and the appeal against the Magistrate Court’s order was pending before the Sessions Court. Section 279(2) allows compounding of offence either before or after the institution of proceedings and the word ‘proceedings’ encompasses all the stages of criminal proceedings.

The Department relied upon CBDT Circular No. 25 of 2019 and Circular No. 1 of 2020 to contend that the Circular provides that no application for compounding can be filed after the end of twelve months from the end of the month in which prosecution complaint has been filed and does not permit the authorities to grant such an application beyond the periods specified in the aforesaid circulars.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Offences can be compounded under the provisions of section 279(2) of the Act. The Explanation to section 279(6) provides power to the Board to issue orders, instructions or directions under the Act to other Income-tax authorities for proper composition of offences under the section. The Explanation does not empower the Board to limit the power vested in the authority u/s. 279(2) for the purpose of considering an application for compounding of offence specified in section 279(1). The orders, instructions or directions issued by the CBDT u/s. 119 of the Act or pursuant to the power given under the Explanation will not limit the power of the authorities specified u/s. 279(2) in considering such an application, much less place fetters on the powers of such authorities in the form of a period of limitation.

ii)    The guidelines contained in the CBDT guidelines dated June 14, 2019 could not curtail the powers of the authorities under the provisions of section 279(2). The guidelines in the circular of 2019 set out “Eligibility Conditions for Compounding”. The guidelines, inter alia, state that no application for compounding can be filed after the end of twelve months from the end of the month in which prosecution complaint has been filed in the Court. Guidelines further prescribe that the person seeking compounding of the offence is required to give an undertaking to withdraw any appeals that may have been filed by him relating to the offences sought to be compounded. Guidelines also contain powers to relax the time period prescribed as aforesaid and refers to situations where there is pendency of an appeal.

iii)    A conjoint reading of these provisions leaves one with no manner of doubt that the condition specified regarding the time limit of twelve months is not a rule of limitation, but is only a guideline to the authority while considering the application for compounding. It in no matter takes away the jurisdiction of the authority u/s. 279(2) of the Act to consider the application for compounding on its own merits and decide it. Guidelines also provide the basis on which the application can be rejected. It prescribes the offences which are generally not to be compounded. Clause (vii) refers to offences under any law other than the direct tax laws.

iv)    In the present case the assesses had categorically averred that they had not been convicted under any other law other than direct taxes laws, nor was it the case of the Revenue that the assessee had been convicted under such law other than direct taxes laws. The assessee had deposited the tax deducted at source due, though beyond time limit set down, but before any demand notice was raised or any show-cause notice was issued. The tax deducted at source was deposited along with penal interest thereon. Detailed reason for not depositing it within the time stipulated under the law had been filed in the reply to the show-cause notice issued earlier. Though the assesses had been convicted, a proceeding in the form of an appeal was pending before the sessions court, which was yet to be disposed of, and in which there was an order of suspension of sentence imposed on the second assessee.

v)    Under these circumstances, the findings arrived at in the order dated June 1, 2021, that the application for compounding of offence, u/s. 279 of the Act, was filed beyond twelve months, as prescribed under the CBDT guidelines dated June 14, 2019, were contrary to the provisions of section 279(2). The authorities had failed to exercise jurisdiction vested in it while deciding the application on the merits and consideration of the grounds set out when the application for compounding of offence was filed before it. On this count, the order dated June 1, 2021 is quashed and set aside.

vi)    Consequently, we remand the application, under the provisions of section 279(2) of the Income-tax Act, of the petitioners back to respondent No. 3 to consider afresh on its own merits.

vii)    Respondent No. 3 shall dispose of the application of the petitioners preferably within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of this judgment.

viii)    Until disposal of the application of the petitioners for compounding of offence, under sub-section (2) of section 279 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by respondent No. 3, the proceedings, being Criminal Appeal No. 127 of 2020, along with Criminal Miscellaneous Application No. 407 of 2020, pending before the City Sessions Court, Greater Mumbai, shall remain stayed.”

Assessment pursuant to revision order – Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal – Pending appeal before the Appellate Tribunal against the revision order, AO issued notice for assessment pursuant to revision order – Assessee directed to co-operate with AO – But demand, if any, to be kept in abeyance till the disposal of appeal by the Tribunal.

15 Taqa Neyveli Power Co. Pvt Ltd vs. ITAT
[2023] 452 ITR 302 (Mad)
A.Y.: 2016-17
Date of order: 14th March, 2022
Section 263 of ITA 1961

Assessment pursuant to revision order – Appeal to the Appellate Tribunal – Pending appeal before the Appellate Tribunal against the revision order, AO issued notice for assessment pursuant to revision order – Assessee directed to co-operate with AO – But demand, if any, to be kept in abeyance till the disposal of appeal by the Tribunal.

For A.Y. 2016-17, the assessment order was passed under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, the Commissioner passed a revision order under section 263 of the Act. The assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal against the revision order. Pending appeal before the Tribunal, the AO initiated the assessment pursuant to revision order and required the assessee to furnish the submissions along with the necessary evidence/documents in respect of the findings given in the revision order.

The assessee filed a writ petition and contended that the appeal is pending before the ITAT against the order passed in revision under section 263 of the Act, since there is no provision to seek for stay of further proceedings pursuant to the order under appeal, the assessing authority has issued this communication dated 6th February, 2022. By doing this, they want to complete the proceedings, and once they complete the proceedings, they may further go ahead with issuance of demand notice. Hence, the assessee’s appeal which is pending for consideration would become infructuous and therefore, till the disposal of the appeal, the assessing authority may be precluded from proceeding further pursuant to the notice dated 6th February, 2022.

The Madras High Court disposed the writ petition with directions as under:

“i)    Once an appeal has been filed against the revision order u/s. 263 wherein the date has been fixed for hearing before the Tribunal, the assessing authority could wait till such time.

ii)    The assessing authority could proceed with the assessment proceedings pursuant to the date fixed for hearing before the Tribunal on the basis of the order passed by the Commissioner and the assessee should co-operate by filing reply or the documents sought for.

iii)    Once the order has been passed by the assessing authority, and it is adverse to the assessee, no further proceedings, including the notice of demand should be made by the Assessing Officer till the disposal of appeal which was pending before the Tribunal and for which hearing has been fixed.

iv)    Depending upon the outcome of the Tribunal order it was open to the Assessing Officer to proceed against the assessee in accordance with law.”

Search and seizure — Block assessment — Undisclosed income — Appeal to CIT (Appeals) — Failure to furnish all material in department’s possession to assessee except documents relied upon — Directions issued to CIT (Appeals).

14 Deepak Talwar vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 452 ITR 61 (Del.)

A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2017-18

Date of order: 27th January, 2023

Sections 132, 143(3), 153A and 246A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Block assessment — Undisclosed income — Appeal to CIT (Appeals) — Failure to furnish all material in department’s possession to assessee except documents relied upon — Directions issued to CIT (Appeals).

Pursuant to a search, the AO passed orders under section 143(3) r.w.s.153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2017-18 making additions and accordingly raising demand. The assessee’s appeal under section 246A was pending before the CIT (Appeals) against such orders. The assessee requested the Department to furnish the material and information in the possession of the Department. That was not done. The assessee filed a writ petition for a direction to that effect.

The Department’s case was that since the documents were voluminous and collating them would involve a long time, the documents relied upon were furnished and if some of them were not furnished they would be furnished shortly and that in respect of the documents which were in the possession of the Department but were not relied upon, there was no legal obligation on its part to furnish them to the assessee.

The Delhi High Court directed the CIT (Appeals) to take a decision in the matter with regards to the documents which, although, in the possession of the Department had not been relied upon and before proceeding further placed on record a list of those documents, whereupon, the assessee would have an opportunity to make a submission, as to the relevance of those documents for the purposes of prosecuting the assessee’s appeal. However, the CIT (Appeals) would not pass a piecemeal order. The order would be composite and would deal with the aforesaid aspect and the merits of the appeal.

Reassessment — DTAA — Effect of section 90 — Tax residency certificate granted by another country — Binding on income-tax authorities in India — Amount not assessable in India under DTAA — Notice of reassessment in respect of such income — Not valid.

13 Blackstone Capital Partners (Singapore) Vi FDI Three Pvt Ltd vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

[2023] 452 ITR 111 (Del)

A. Y. 2016-17

Date of order: 30th January, 2023

Sections 90, 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — DTAA — Effect of section 90 — Tax residency certificate granted by another country — Binding on income-tax authorities in India — Amount not assessable in India under DTAA — Notice of reassessment in respect of such income — Not valid.

The petitioner- Blackstone Capital Partners (Singapore) VI FDI Three Pvt Ltd was a non-resident in India and majority of its directors were residents of Singapore.  During the A. Y. 2016-17, the petitioner sold the equity shares purchased in the A. Y. 2014-15. For the A. Y. 2016-17, the petitioner filed the return of income on 29th September, 2016. In terms of the said return of income, the petitioner claimed that the gains earned by it on sale of Agile shares were not taxable in India by virtue of Article 13(4) of the Double Tax Avoidance Agreement entered into and subsisting between India and Singapore based on the Tax Residency Certificate. In its return of income, the petitioner made all the requisite disclosures with regard to the investment and sale of shares like the petitioner was a non-resident in India and majority of its directors were residents of Singapore. The petitioner’s return of income was processed under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 with no demand, on 8th October, 2016. On 31st March, 2021 a notice was issued to the petitioner under section 148 of the Act for the A. Y. 2016-17. The petitioner filed a return of income on 28th April, 2021 and also filed objections which were rejected.

The Petitioner filed a writ petition challenging the notice and the order rejecting the objections. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The core issue that arises for consideration in the present writ petition is whether the respondent-Revenue can go behind the tax residency certificate issued by the other tax jurisdiction and issue reassessment notice u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to determine issues of residence status, treaty eligibility and legal ownership.

ii)    The Income-tax Act, 1961, recognizes and gives effect to Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements. Section 90(2) of the Act stipulates that in case of a non-resident taxpayer with whose country India has a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, the provisions of the Act would apply only to the extent they are more beneficial than the provisions of such Agreement. On March 30, 1994, the CBDT issued Circular No. 682 emphasising that any resident of Mauritius deriving income from alienation of shares of an Indian company would be liable to capital gains tax only in Mauritius in accordance with Mauritius tax law and would not have any capital gains tax liability in India. This circular was a clear enunciation of the provisions contained in the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, which would have overriding effect over the provisions of sections 4 and 5 of the Act by virtue of section 90. The Supreme Court, in the case of UOI v. Azadi Bachaa Andalon , upheld the validity and efficacy of Circular No. 682 dated March 30, 1994 ([1994] 207 ITR (St.) 7) and Circular No. 789 dated April 13, 2000 ([2000] 243 ITR (St.) 57), issued by the CBDT. The court further held that the certificate of residence is conclusive evidence for determining the status of residence and beneficial ownership of an asset under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.

iii)    The assessee had a valid tax residency certificate dated February 3, 2015 from the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore evidencing that it was a tax resident of Singapore and thereby was eligible to claim tax treaty benefits between India and Singapore. The tax residency certificate is statutorily the only evidence required to be eligible for the benefit under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and the respondent’s attempt to question and go behind the tax residency certificate was wholly contrary to the Government of India’s consistent policy and repeated assurances to foreign investors. In fact, the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore had granted the assessee the tax residency certificate after a detailed analysis of the documents, and the Indian Revenue authorities could not disregard it as that would be contrary to international law.

iv)    Accordingly, the tax residency certificate issued by the other tax jurisdiction was sufficient evidence to claim treaty eligibility, residence status, legal ownership and accordingly the capital gains earned by the assessee was not liable to tax in India. No income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment and the notice of reassessment was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice — Initial notice issued in the name of deceased assessee — Invalid — Notice and order under section 148A(d) set aside

12. Prakash Tatoba Toraskar vs. ITO
[2023] 452 ITR 59 (Bom)
Date of order: 10th February, 2023
Sections 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d)
of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Initial notice issued in the name of deceased assessee — Invalid — Notice and order under section 148A(d) set aside

The AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dated 30th June, 2021for reopening the assessment under section 147 in the name of the assessee who had died on 4th November, 2019.. Pursuant to the judgment in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC) the AO treated the notice issued under section 148 in the name of the deceased assessee to be a show-cause notice under section 148A(b). By that time the assessee had died. The legal heir of the the deceased assessee objected and did not participate in the assessment proceedings. The AO passed an order under section 148A(d).

The legal heir filed a writ petition and challenged the reassessment proceedings and the order under section 148A(d). The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Notwithstanding the objection having been taken by the legal heir of the deceased assessee, an order u/s. 148A(d) was passed on June 30, 2022. The initial notice issued u/s. 148 and the subsequent communication dated May 20, 2022 purporting to be a notice u/s. 148A(b) were in the name of the deceased assessee. The notice issued u/s. 148 against a dead person would be invalid, unless the legal representatives submit to the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer without raising any objection.

ii)    The petition is allowed. The notice dated June 30, 2021 issued u/s. 148, the communication dated May 20, 2022 purporting to be a notice u/s. 148A(b) and the order dated June 30, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) were set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Jurisdiction — Notice issued by officer who had no jurisdiction over the assessee — Notice defective and invalid — Notice and order rejecting objections of the assessee set aside.

11 Ashok Devichand Jain vs. UOI

[2023] 452 ITR 43 (Bom) A. Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 8th March, 2022

Sections 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Jurisdiction — Notice issued by officer who had no jurisdiction over the assessee — Notice defective and invalid — Notice and order rejecting objections of the assessee set aside.

The petitioner assesee filed a writ petition challenging a notice dated 30th March, 2019 issued by the Income Tax Officer under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2012-13 and an order passed on 18th November, 2019 rejecting the petitioner’s objection to reopening on various grounds.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The primary ground that has been raised is that the Income-tax Officer who issued the notice u/s. 148 of the Act, had no jurisdiction to issue such notice. According to the petitioner as per CBDT Instruction No. 1 of 2011 dated January 31, 2011, where income declared/returned by any non-corporate assessee is up to Rs. 20 lakhs, then the jurisdiction will be of Income-tax Officer and where the income declared/returned by a non-corporate assessee is above Rs. 20 lakhs, the jurisdiction will be of Deputy Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner.

ii)    The petitioner has filed return of income of about Rs. 64,34,663 and therefore, the jurisdiction will be that of Deputy Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner and not Income-tax Officer. Mr. Jain submitted that since notice u/s. 148 of the Act has been issued by the Income-tax Officer, and not by the Deputy Commissioner/Assistant Commissioner that is by a person who did not have any jurisdiction over the petitioner, such notice was bad on the count of having been issued by an officer who had no authority in law to issue such notice.

iii)    The notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 is a jurisdictional notice and any inherent defect therein is not curable.

iv)    On the facts that the notice u/s. 148 having been issued by an Income-tax Officer who had no jurisdiction over the assessee had not been issued validly and without authority in law. The notice and the order rejecting the assessee’s objections were set aside.”

International transactions — Draft assessment order — Limitation — Effect of sections 153 and 144 — Issue of directions by Commissioner has no effect on limitation — Direction of Commissioner does not extend limitation.

10 Pfizer Healthcare India Pvt Ltd vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 452 ITR 187 (Mad)

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 11th November, 2022

Sections 144, 144C and 153 of ITA 1961

International transactions — Draft assessment order — Limitation — Effect of sections 153 and 144 — Issue of directions by Commissioner has no effect on limitation — Direction of Commissioner does not extend limitation.

The assessee was engaged in the business of manufacture, research, development and export to its group entities. It had filed its return for the A. Y. 2015-16. The time limit for completion of regular assessment in terms of section 153(1) of the Act, being 21 months from the end of the relevant assessment year, was 31st December, 2017. A reference was made to the Transfer Pricing Officer, since the business of the assessee included transactions that related to entities abroad for which a proper determination of arm’s length price was to be made. There was a request by the Transfer Pricing Officer for exchange of information and a reference was made to the competent authority in terms of section 90A of the Act. The reference for exchange of information was made by the Transfer Pricing Officer on 29th October, 2018 and the last of the information sought was received by him on 27th March, 2019. The order of the Transfer Pricing Officer was passed on 24th May, 2019. The draft assessment order dated 26th July, 2019, was passed in terms of section 143(3) r.w.s 144C(1).

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the draft assessment order. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Section 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is only a machinery provision that provides for the procedure for passing of a transfer pricing order and does not constitute a prescription for computing limitation. Section 153 deals exclusively with limitation and the statutory extensions and exclusions therefrom, as set out under the Explanation thereto. Section 92CA(3A) sets out the specific time periods to be adhered to in completion of the transfer pricing proceedings and works as limitation within the period of overall limitation provided u/s. 153 for the completion of assessment. The limitations set out under sub-section (3A) of section 92CA are to be construed in the context of, and within the overall limitation provided for, u/s. 153. There is no situation contemplated that would alter the limitation set out u/s. 153C save the exclusions set out under Explanation 1 to section 153C itself. The time limits set out under sub-section (3A) of section 92CA are thus subject to the limitation prescribed u/s. 153 that can, under no circumstances, be tampered with.

ii)    The second proviso to Explanation 1 to section 153 states that the period of limitation available to the Assessing Officer for making an order of assessment shall be extended to 60 days. The 60 days period, thus, must run from the date of the transfer pricing order to provide for seamless completion of assessment. The transmission of a transfer pricing order from the Transfer Pricing Officer to the Assessing Officer is an internal administrative act and cannot impact statutory limitation, which is the exclusive prerogative of section 153.

iii)    Power is granted to the Joint Commissioner to issue directions u/s. 144A for completion of assessment. That provision states that the Joint Commissioner, on his own motion or on reference made to him by the Assessing Officer or assessee, may call for and examine the record of any proceedings in which the assessment is pending. If he considers that having regard to the nature of the case, amount involved or any other reason, it is necessary or expedience to issue directions for the guidance of the Assessing Officer, he may do so and such directions shall be binding upon the Assessing Officer. The issuance of the direction and the communication of such direction by the Joint Commissioner to the Assessing Officer to aid in the completion of assessment is expected to be within the overall limits provided for completion of assessment u/s. 153 and Explanation 1 thereto and nowhere is it contemplated that such reference would extend the limitation.

iv)    The last of the information in this case was received by the Transfer Pricing Officer on March 27, 2019, by which time, the time for completion of regular assessment had itself long elapsed, on December 31, 2018. The order was barred by limitation.

v)    In the light of the detailed discussion as above, the impugned order of assessment is held to be barred by limitation and is set aside. This writ petition is allowed.”

Interest under section 201(1A) – TDS – Interest for delay in remitting tax deducted at source – No liability for interest if tax is not deductible at source.

9 Special Tahsildar, Land Acquisition (General) vs. GOI[2023] 451 ITR 484 (Ker)

Date of order: 15th September, 2022

Section 201(1A) of ITA 1961Interest under section 201(1A) – TDS – Interest for delay in remitting tax deducted at source – No liability for interest if tax is not deductible at source.

Special Tahsildar, Land Acquisition (General) paid compensation to persons from whom the land was acquired for establishing the Government Medical College and deducted tax at source from the compensation paid. The tax deducted in the month of January 2014 was paid to the credit of the Government only in the month of June 2014 and the reason for the delay was explained to be the fact that Tahsildar was deputed for election duty during the period January 2014 to May 2014 in connection with the General Elections. However, the AO levied interest under section 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Tahsildar filed a writ petition and challenged the demand for interest.

It was then contended on behalf of the Tahsildar that the liability to deduct tax and pay it to the Department is only in respect of sums for which the tax is required to be deducted at source. Since the lands which were the subject matter of acquisition were agricultural lands, which fell outside the definition of capital asset under section 2(14) of the Act, there was no question of deducting tax at source in respect of compensation paid to the land owners and therefore levy of interest under section 201(1A) was unwarranted.

The Department contended that levy of interest under section 201(1A) was statutory and the moment there was delay in payment of tax deducted, interest had to be levied.

The Kerala High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    It is clear from a reading of section 201 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, that the liability to deduct tax arises only when it is required to be deducted under the provisions of the Act. In other words, where there is no liability to deduct tax at source, the mere fact that tax was deducted at source and paid to the Income-tax Department belatedly, cannot give rise to a claim for interest u/s. 201(1A) of the Act. Interest u/s. 201(1A) of the Act is obviously to compensate the Government for the delay in payment of taxes, which are rightfully due to the Government.

ii)    Since the Department itself had refunded the amount of tax deducted at source, it could not be said at this point of time that the land in question was not agricultural land falling outside the definition of capital asset u/s. 2(14).

iii)    The delay in remitting the amounts deducted as tax at source arose only on account of the fact that the Officer in question was deputed for election duty for the period from January 2014 to May 2014 in connection with the Lok Sabha Elections of 2014. Cumulatively, these facts made it clear that the levy of interest under 201(1A) was wholly unwarranted in the facts and circumstances of this case.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Cash credit — Assessment completed on the date of search — No incriminating document against the assessee found during the search — Long-term capital gains added as unexplained cash based on statement of the Managing Director of searched entity recorded under section 132(4) — Addition unsustainable.

8 Principal CIT vs. Suman Agarwal
[2023] 451 ITR 364 (Del)
A. Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 28th July, 2022
Sections 68, 132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Cash credit — Assessment completed on the date of search — No incriminating document against the assessee found during the search — Long-term capital gains added as unexplained cash based on statement of the Managing Director of searched entity recorded under section 132(4) — Addition unsustainable.

Search and seizure operations were conducted under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and survey operations were carried out under section 133A in the business and residential premises of one KRP and its group companies which provided bogus accommodation entries. The AO relied upon a letter and the statement recorded under section 132(4) of the Managing Director of KRP and issued a notice under section 153A against the assessee for the A. Y. 2011-12. He held that the amount of long- term capital gains claimed by the assessee in her return of income was an accommodation entry pertaining to shares of a company KGN and treated the amount as unexplained cash credit under section 68 of the Act.

The Tribunal found that there was no incriminating material against the assessee found during the search of the assessee and held that statements recorded under section 132(4) would not by themselves constitute as incriminating material in the absence of any corroborative evidence and accordingly set aside the addition made by the AO.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    The Department had not placed on record any incriminating material which was found as a result of the search conducted u/s. 132. There was no reference to the company KGN in either the letter or the statement of the managing director of the company KRP in respect of which search was conducted u/s. 132(4). No other material found during the search pertaining to KGN had been placed on record.

ii)    There was no infirmity in the order passed by the Tribunal setting aside the addition made u/s. 68 by the Assessing Officer. No question of law arose.”

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Transactions not disclosed in initial notice under section 148A(b) considered in order under section 148A(d) for issue of notice of reassessment — Department cannot travel beyond initial notice — Order under section 148A(d) and consequent notice under section 148 set aside.

7 Prakash Krishnavtar Bhardwaj vs. ITO
[2023] 451 ITR 424 (Chhattisgarh)
Date of order: 1st December, 2022
Sections 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Transactions not disclosed in initial notice under section 148A(b) considered in order under section 148A(d) for issue of notice of reassessment — Department cannot travel beyond initial notice — Order under section 148A(d) and consequent notice under section 148 set aside.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the order under section 148A(d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, dated 22nd July, 2022, directing the issue of notice under section 148 and the consequent notice under section 148 dated 22nd July, 2022. It was pointed out that the transaction of Rs. 14 lakhs considered by the Department in the order under section 148A(d) was not in the noticeunder section 148A(b) which is not permitted in law. It was contended that if the said Rs. 14 lakh transaction which has been considered by the Department is excluded from the proceedings then the amount would be less than Rs. 50 lakh and would therefore be outside the purview of the assessment proceedings as per the CBDT circular dated 11th May, 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43).

Chhattisgarh High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    From the two notices that were issued on June 29, 2021 and on May 25, 2022, i. e., the notices initially issued u/s. 148 (old provision) and u/s. 148A(b) (new provision), the Department had not disclosed the fact that the assessee had suppressed Rs. 14 lakhs transaction which had also escaped assessment u/s. 147. In the absence of its being stated in the notice the assessment of such amount would prima facie be bad since the Department could not travel beyond the show-cause notice.

ii)    Given the facts and circumstances and in view of the circular dated May 11, 2022, issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes the order u/s. 148A(d) and the consequent notice u/s. 148 dated July 22, 2022 were unsustainable and therefore were set aside reserving the right of the Department to take appropriate recourse available in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — Notice after four years — Notice should clearly specify material not disclosed by the assessee — Expenditure on account of advertisement and sales promotion allowed by the AO after applying his mind to details furnished by the assessee — No failure on part of the assessee to disclose all material facts truly and fully — Notice under section 148 on the ground that in A. Y. 2015-16, the same has been treated as capital expenditure — Notice unsustainable.

6 Asian Paints Ltd vs. ACIT
[2023] 451 ITR 45 (Bom)
A. Y. 2014-15
Date of order: 9th January, 2023
Sections 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice after four years — Notice should clearly specify material not disclosed by the assessee — Expenditure on account of advertisement and sales promotion allowed by the AO after applying his mind to details furnished by the assessee — No failure on part of the assessee to disclose all material facts truly and fully — Notice under section 148 on the ground that in A. Y. 2015-16, the same has been treated as capital expenditure — Notice unsustainable.

The assessee was a manufacturer and seller. It evolved a marketing strategy or scheme called “colour idea store” which envisaged a specified and designated area in the shops of the dealers for exclusive display of its products. The assessee accordingly entered into agreements with dealers as regards sharing of costs incurred for setting up of the designated area for use and display of its products but the stores continued to belong to the dealers. Such expenditure was claimed as deduction, and advertising and sales promotion expenses. For the A. Y. 2014-15, the AO accepted the assessee’s claim and passed an order under section 143(3) r.w.s. 144C(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. On 31st March, 2021, a notice was issued under section 148 to reopen the assessment under section 147 on the basis of assessment proceedings for the A. Y. 2015-16, in which the expenses for “colour idea store” were considered as capital expenditure on which depreciation of 10 per cent was allowed. The assessee’s objections were rejected.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i)    During the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer had sought the relevant details with regard to the advertisement and sales promotion expenses which were furnished by the assessee. The Assessing Officer had also disallowed some of the expenses which were shown in the break-up under the head “details of advertisement and sales promotion expenses” while passing the order of assessment which showed that the Assessing Officer had applied his mind to the assessee’s claim while passing the order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(3).

ii)    The reasons for reopening the assessment did not state what material or fact was not disclosed by the assessee. Therefore, it was clear that there was a complete disclosure of all the primary material facts on the part of the assessee and there was no failure on its part to disclose fully and truly all the facts which were material and necessary for the assessment. The notice u/s. 148 did not satisfy the jurisdictional requirement of section 147 and therefore, was unsustainable and accordingly quashed.”

Penalty — Levy of penalty — Limitation — Limitation starts from date of assessment when the AO initiates penalty proceedings and not from date of sanction for penalty proceedings.

5 Principal CIT Vs. Rishikesh Buildcon Pvt Ltd and Ors.
[2023] 451 ITR 108 (Del)
A. Y. 2006-07
Date of order 17th November 2022
Section 275 of ITA 1961

Penalty — Levy of penalty — Limitation — Limitation starts from date of assessment when the AO initiates penalty proceedings and not from date of sanction for penalty proceedings.

For A. Y. 2006-07, the AO passed the assessment order on 17th December, 2008 and recorded that penalty proceedings were to be initiated. A reference was made by the AO to the prescribed authority on 18th March, 2009. The prescribed authority issued a show-cause notice to the assessee on 24th March, 2009. The penalty order was passed on 29th September, 2009.

The Tribunal held that the penalty order was passed after the expiry of the time limit laid down under section 275(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and accordingly set aside the penalty order.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    Where the Assessing Officer has initiated penalty proceedings in his/her assessment order, that date is to be taken as the relevant date as far as section 275(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is concerned.

ii)    The quantum proceedings were completed by the Assessing Officer on December 17, 2008, and the Assessing Officer initiated the penalty proceedings in December, 2008. Thus, the last date by which the penalty order could have been passed was June 30, 2009. The six month period from the end of the month in which action of imposition of penalty was initiated would expire on June 30, 2009.

iii)    However, in this case, admittedly, the penalty orders were passed on September 29, 2009, and therefore, the Tribunal rightly concluded that the orders were barred by limitation.”

Offences and prosecution — Willful attempt to evade tax — Failure to produce accounts and documents — Concealment of income — Failure to disclose foreign account opened in year 1991 when the assessee was 55 years of age — Admission regarding foreign bank account after investigation by the department and issue of notices and levy of penalty — Assessee cannot take the benefit of circular recommending no prosecution where the assessee is aged 70 years or more at time of offence — Prosecution justified.

4 Rajinder Kumar vs. State
[2023] 451 ITR 338 (Del)
A. Y.: 2006-07
Date of order: 16th December, 2022
Sections 271, 271(1)(b), 274, 276C(1), 276D and 277 of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Willful attempt to evade tax — Failure to produce accounts and documents — Concealment of income — Failure to disclose foreign account opened in year 1991 when the assessee was 55 years of age — Admission regarding foreign bank account after investigation by the department and issue of notices and levy of penalty — Assessee cannot take the benefit of circular recommending no prosecution where the assessee is aged 70 years or more at time of offence — Prosecution justified.

In the year 2011 based on the information received from France that the assessee had opened an account in a bank in London on 20th August, 1991, a search and seizure was conducted under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at various business premises and residence of the assessee on 23rd August, 2011. A notice under section 153A was issued to the assessee to file a return. A penalty was levied for the failure to comply with notices issued under section 142(1). The assessee filed a revised return for the A. Y. 2006-07 declaring the balance in the bank account in London as income from other sources on the basis of details provided at the time of search and assessment proceedings.

A notice under section 277, r.w.s 279(1) was issued and the assessee furnished details of payment of the entire taxes, penalties and interest. Thereafter, criminal complaints under section 276C(1)(ii) and 277 were filed against the assessee. The assessee filed an application under section 245(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 for discharge on the grounds that he was 80 years old citing Instruction No. 5051 dated 7th February, 1991 issued by the CBDT. The application was rejected. Against this, the assessee filed a criminal writ petition.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The assessee could not take benefit of Instruction No. 5051 dated February 7, 1991. He had opened the account in the bank in London on August 20, 1991 and it was only after the Government of France brought to the knowledge of the competent authorities that the assessee disclosed it in the year 2011. During the period relevant to the A. Y. 2006-07 the assessee allegedly had the maximum credit balance in his foreign bank account. The foreign account was opened in the bank in London on August 20, 1991 and was not disclosed.

ii)    Taking the date of birth of the assessee, as claimed by him, as March 30, 1936, at the time of commission of offence in the year 1991 he was 55 years of age. Instruction No. 5051 dated February 7, 1991 stated that prosecution normally be not initiated against a person who has attained the age of 70 years at the time of commission of offence. Therefore, in terms of Instruction No. 5051 dated February 7, 1991, the age of the assessee had to be taken at the time of commission of offence and not when the proceedings were initiated. It was only after the notice u/s. 274 read with section 271 of the Act was issued and penalty u/s. 271(1)(b) of the Act for failure to comply with notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act was also levied on September 26, 2013 that the assessee had chosen to file a revised return on February 16, 2015. By doing so he could not evade the judicial process of law for not disclosing his correct income and foreign account since the year 1991.”

Interest under section 220(2) — Original assessment order set aside and matter remanded — Fresh assessment order — Interest payable from such fresh assessment order.

3 Principal CIT vs. AT and T Communication Services (India) Pvt Ltd
[2023] 451 ITR 92 (Del)
A. Y.: 2004-05
Date of order: 17th November, 2022
Section 220(2) of ITA 1961

Interest under section 220(2) — Original assessment order set aside and matter remanded — Fresh assessment order — Interest payable from such fresh assessment order.

The assessee is engaged in the business of network design, management, communication, connectivity services and related products. For the A. Y. 2004-05, the assessee filed its return of income on 30th October, 2004 declaring an income of Rs. 29,30,15,180. However, the income was assessed at Rs. 32,15,72,740 vide original assessment order dated 28th December, 2006. The Tribunal vide its order dated 30th September, 2014, set aside the original assessment order dated 28th December, 2006 and restored the matter to the file of the AO for determining the issue of taxability of the amounts received as brand building fund, the allowability of brand building expenses as well as a separate claim for other expenses. On 29th March, 2016 the AO reframed the assessment and passed a fresh assessment order under section 143(3) r.w.s 254 of the Act. The AO reconfirmed the disallowance of the brand expenses for a sum of Rs. 2,66,42,537 and the total income was determined as Rs. 31,96,57,720.

In the Income-tax Computation Form (ITNS 50) issued pursuant to the aforesaid assessment order, the AO levied interest under section 220(2) of the Act and raised a demand of Rs. 1,75,74,756 computed on the basis of the original assessment order dated 28th December, 2006.The Tribunal held that the interest under section 220(2) of the Act can be charged only after expiry of the period of 30 days from the date of service of demand notice issued pursuant to the fresh assessment order dated 29th March, 2016.On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    Where an issue arising out of the original assessment is restored to the file of the Assessing Officer by the higher appellate authorities, there is an extinguishment of the original demand, i. e, the demand raised under the first assessment order.

ii)    Interest u/s. 220(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, can be levied only after expiry of the time limit prescribed in the fresh demand notice issued by the Assessing Officer in pursuance of the fresh reframed assessment order. The reframed order is the subsisting assessment order. Section 220(2) of the Act does not contemplate a levy of interest which relates back to the date of the passing of original order which was subsequently set aside by appellate authorities or applies to pendency of proceedings. This also becomes clear from Circular No. 334 dated April 3, 1982 ([1982] 135 ITR (St.) 10). Para 2.1 of the circular expressly states that if the assessment order is “set aside” by the appellate authority, no interest u/s. 220(2) of the Act can be charged pursuant to the original demand notice. No interest is payable on the demand raised by the original order when the original order of the Assessing Officer is set aside by the appellate authority and a fresh assessment order is passed.

iii)    The Tribunal by order dated September 30, 2014, set aside the original assessment order dated December 28, 2006, and restored the matter to the file of the Assessing Officer for determining the issue of taxability of the amounts received as brand building fund, the allowability of brand building expenses as well as a separate claim for other expenses. On remand, the Assessing Officer on March 29, 2016 reframed the assessment and passed a fresh assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act read with section 254 of the Act. The Assessing Officer reconfirmed the disallowance of brand expenses.

iv)    The Tribunal was right in holding that interest u/s. 220(2) of the Act could be charged only after expiry of the period of 30 days from the date of service of demand notice issued pursuant to the fresh assessment order dated March 29, 2016.”

Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Business expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of such expenditure — Circular issued by the CBDT stating amendment to have effect from A. Y. 2015-16 onwards — Binding on the Department — Corporate social responsibility expenditure for earlier years allowable.

2 Principal CIT vs. PEC Ltd and Anr
[2023] 451 ITR 436 (Del):
A. Ys.: 2013-14, 2014-15
Date of order: 29th November, 2022
Section 37 of ITA 1961

Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Business expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of such expenditure — Circular issued by the CBDT stating amendment to have effect from A. Y. 2015-16 onwards — Binding on the Department — Corporate social responsibility expenditure for earlier years allowable.

For the A.Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, the AO disallowed the claim of the assessees under section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 of the expenses on account of corporate social responsibility endeavor undertaken by them. According to the Department, the funds utilized by the assessees to effectuate their corporate social responsibility obligations involved application of income and not an expense incurred wholly and exclusively for carrying on the business.

The Tribunal relied upon Circular No. 1 of 2015 dated 21st January, 2015 issued by the CBDT and held that the amendment brought about in section 37(1) by the way of Explanation 2 was prospective in nature and was not applicable for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, and accordingly deleted the disallowances.

On appeals by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    Explanation 2 was inserted in section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 with effect from April 1, 2015. The Memorandum which was published along with the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2014 clearly indicated that the amendment would take effect from April 1, 2015 and, accordingly, would apply in relation to A. Y. 2015-16 and subsequent years. This position is also exemplified in the circular dated January 21, 2015 ([2015] 371 ITR (St.) 22) issued by the CBDT.

ii)    Circulars issued by the CBDT were binding on the Department. Therefore, the Tribunal had not erred in allowing the deduction claimed by the assessees u/s. 37 of the expenses incurred for their corporate social responsibility endeavours.”

Charitable purpose — Registration — Cancellation of registration — Condition precedent for cancellation — Registration granted after considering genuineness of the institution — Cancellation of registration on same provisions in trust deed — Not valid.

1 Sri Ramjanki Tapovan Mandir vs. CIT(Exemption)
[2023] 451 ITR 458 (Jhar)
Date of order: 3rd November, 2022
Section 12AA of ITA 1961:

Charitable purpose — Registration — Cancellation of registration — Condition precedent for cancellation — Registration granted after considering genuineness of the institution — Cancellation of registration on same provisions in trust deed — Not valid.

The assessee was registered under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. By order dated 4th September, 2018 the CIT (Exemptions), Ranchi cancelled the registration. This was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the assessee the Jharkhand High Court framed the following substantial questions of law:

“(1)    Whether the registration once granted under section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 could be cancelled on the basis of same set of provision of the trust which were examined earlier ?

(2)    Whether the Income-tax authorities have the jurisdiction under section 12AA(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to question the legality and propriety of the trust deed of the assessee or its inquiry is limited to the conditions stipulated under section 12AA(3) namely,—

(i)    that the activities of the trust are not genuine, or

(ii)    are not being carried out in accordance with the objects of the trust?

(3)    Whether in the facts and circumstances of the case, the findings of the learned Income-tax Appellate Tribunal that the appellant failed to give satisfactory explanation regarding the sale proceeds which is utilized for charitable objects of the trust, is perverse?”

The High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i)    Section 12AA(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, contemplates existence of two contingencies for cancellation of the registration already granted, namely: (i) If the activities of the trust are not genuine ; or (ii) are not being carried out in accordance with the objects of the trust.

ii)    The trust deed is an understanding between the author of the trust and its trustee, and, the Income-tax Department is not authorized to comment on execution of the trust deed. Once registration has been granted to a charitable trust u/s. 12AA of the Act after being satisfied about the genuineness of the activities of the trust, it cannot be cancelled on the basis of the same set of provisions of the trust which were examined earlier.

iii)    It is trite law that the Tribunal cannot travel beyond the reasons recorded in the order before it and develop a complete de novo case for the Revenue, which was not the basis of the order passed by the authority.

iv)    It was an admitted fact that registration u/s. 12AA of the Act was granted to assessee-trust on the basis of the trust deed dated September 20, 2005. It was further an admitted fact that in the trust deed dated September 20, 2005, it was specifically recorded, inter alia, that the lands of the trust were under threat of encroachment by local inhabitants, and, in order to save the land in question, it was felt necessary to utilize the land by giving it for development for construction of buildings and flats and the proceeds received from consideration amount were to be utilized for the purposes of the trust. On the basis of the same trust deed, the benefit of exemption u/s. 12A of the Act was granted by granting registration to the trust u/s. 12AA. However, notice was issued to the trust dated December 18, 2017 directing the trust to show cause, inter alia, as to why its registration should not be cancelled for violation of the aims and objectives mentioned in the trust deed and memorandum of association. Thereafter, the CIT (Exemptions) passed order dated September 4, 2018 cancelling the registration granted in favour of the assessee-trust.

v)    The CIT(Exemptions), while cancelling the registration, went beyond the terms of the trust deed and proceeded to cancel the registration recording, inter alia, that the trust deed dated September 20, 2005 was contrary to the wishes of the founder of the trust and the earlier instruments of trust, i. e., trust deeds of the years 1948 and 1987. Thus, the CIT(Exemptions) clearly travelled beyond the scope of inquiry as contemplated u/s. 12AA(3) for declaring that the activities of the trust were not genuine. The Supreme Court, in clear terms, held that u/s. 44 of the Bihar Hindu Religious Trust Act, 1950, a religious trust has power to transfer its immovable property after taking previous sanction, and, that the deity could transfer its land for fulfilling its objectives. Thus, the finding rendered by the CIT(Exemptions) for cancellation of the registration certificate was directly contrary to the order passed by the Supreme Court in the case of the assessee-trust itself.

vi)    The Tribunal had upheld the order of the CIT(Exemptions). The Tribunal despite the order of the Supreme Court, being brought to its notice, held that the activity of the trust was not genuine and bona fide, as the Pujari of the trust changed the original trust deeds and had violated the objects of the trust in transferring the property of the trust. This finding of the Tribunal was not sustainable in the eye of law. That apart, the Tribunal had clearly travelled not only beyond the show-cause notice, but, also the order passed by the CIT(Exemptions). In an earlier proceeding pertaining to the year 2013-14, the Tribunal had clearly held that the trust deeds were not relevant for allowing the benefit of exemption and the income derived from transfer of property was as per the objects of the trust. The CBDT Instruction No. 883-CBDT F. N. 180/54/72-IT (AI) dated September 24, 1975 stated that the investment of net consideration received on the transfer of a capital asset in fixed deposit with a bank for a period of six months or above would be regarded as utilization of the net consideration for acquiring another capital asset within the meaning of section 11(1A) of the Income-tax Act. Admittedly, the assessee-trust had deposited the sale proceeds in fixed deposit with the bank for a period of more than six months and, thus, it could not be said that the assessee-trust had utilised the sale proceeds contrary to the objects of the trust. The cancellation of registration was not valid.

vii)    Accordingly, the instant appeal is allowed and the questions of law framed at the time of admitting the appeal are answered in the affirmative in favour of the appellant.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Condition precedent — Prior approval of prescribed authority in respect of each assessment year — Sanction of prescribed authority for various assessees granted on single day — AO passing draft assessment order and final assessment order on same day of approval — Approval illegal and non est

87 Principal CIT vs. Subodh Agarwal

[2023] 450 ITR 526 (All)

A. Y.: 2015-16

Date of order: 12th December, 2022

Sections 132, 153A, 153D and 260A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Condition precedent — Prior approval of prescribed authority in respect of each assessment year — Sanction of prescribed authority for various assessees granted on single day — AO passing draft assessment order and final assessment order on same day of approval — Approval illegal and non est

Pursuant to a search and seizure operation under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 conducted on 31st August, 2015, the assessment for the A.Y. 2015-16 was completed under section 153A/143(3) of the Act by the Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax, Central Circle-1, Kanpur, vide order dated 31st December, 2017and various additions were made.

The Tribunal set aside the order of the AO. The Tribunal found as under: The AO prepared the draft assessment order on 31st December, 2017 for the A.Y. 2015-16. The approval of the draft assessment order under section153D was given on 31st December, 2017 itself and the final assessment order was passed on the same day, i.e., on 31st December, 2017 by the AO. The Additional Commissioner of Income-tax granted approval of draft assessment orders under section 153D in 38 cases which also included the case of the assessee. The Tribunal having taken note of the said undisputed facts, came to the conclusion that it was humanly impossible for the approving authority to peruse the material based on which, the draft assessment order was passed. It was, thus, concluded that the approving authority granted approval under section 153D of the Act in a mechanical manner which vitiated the entire proceedings.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Allahabad High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    Section 153D of the Income-tax Act, 1961 requires that the Assessing Officer shall obtain prior approval of the Joint Commissioner in respect of “each assessment year” referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A which provides for assessment in case of search u/s. 132. The requirement of approval u/s. 153D is a prerequisite to pass an order of assessment or reassessment. A conjoint reading of section 153A(1) and section 153D leaves no room for doubt that approval with respect to “each assessment year” is to be obtained by the Assessing Officer on the draft assessment order before passing the assessment order u/s. 153A. The approval of the draft assessment order being an in-built protection against any arbitrary or unjust exercise of power by the Assessing Officer, cannot be said to be a mechanical exercise, without application of independent mind by the approving authority on the material placed before him and the reasoning given in the assessment order. The prior approval of superior authority means that he should appraise the material before him and appreciate the factual and legal aspects to ascertain that the entire material has been examined by the assessing authority before preparing the draft assessment order. It is trite in law that the approval must be granted only on the basis of material available on record and the approval must reflect the application of mind to the facts on record.

ii)    The Tribunal on undisputed facts had concluded that the approving authority under section 153D had exercised his power mechanically which vitiated the entire proceedings under section 153A and that it was humanly impossible for the approving authority to peruse and apply his independent mind to appraise the material in one day in respect of 38 assessees including that of the assessee based on which the draft assessment order was passed. Therefore, its conclusion was not perverse or contrary to the material on record.

iii)    For the A.Y. 2015-16, the Assessing Officer had prepared the draft assessment order on December 31, 2017, the approval of the draft assessment order u/s. 153D was given on the same date and the final assessment order was also passed on the same day by the Assessing Officer. The submission of the Department that the grant of approval was an administrative exercise of power on the part of the approving authority and that the approval was in existence on the date of the passing of the assessment order and hence it could not be vitiated was a fallacy since the prior approval of superior authority meant that he had appraised the material before him so as to appreciate the factual and legal aspects to ascertain that the entire material had been examined by the assessing authority before preparing the draft assessment order. The appeal was devoid of merit. No question of law arose.”

(A) Salary — Difference between salary and professional income — Factors to be considered whether particular income constituted salary — Remuneration of doctors working in hospital — Contracts between hospital and doctors should be considered — Contracts showing relationship between hospital and doctors not of master and servant — Remuneration not taxable as salary

86 DR. Mathew Cherian vs. ACIT

[2023] 450 ITR 568 (Mad):

A.Y.: 2018-19

Date of order: 1st September, 2022

Sections 15, 28, 147, 148 and 148A of ITA 1961:

(A) Salary — Difference between salary and professional income — Factors to be considered whether particular income constituted salary — Remuneration of doctors working in hospital — Contracts between hospital and doctors should be considered — Contracts showing relationship between hospital and doctors not of master and servant — Remuneration not taxable as salary

(B) Reassessment — Notice — Law applicable — Effect of amendments w.e.f. 1st April, 2021 — Show-cause notice under section 148A and opportunity to assessee to be heard — Notice under section 148A should be based on tangible “information” — Remuneration of doctors working in hospital — Order under section 148A for issue of notice of reassessment without examining contracts between the hospital and doctors — Order under section 148A not valid

The assessee is a practicing doctor. On the basis of documents seized in the course of a survey at a hospital, and consequent inferences, the authorities came to the conclusion that (i) an employer-employee relationship was established between the assessee doctor and the hospital, (ii) the assessee was to be construed as an employee and not full time or visiting consultant, and (iii) the income returned by the doctor had to be assessed under the head “Salary” and not “professional income”. For the A.Y. 2018-19, show-cause notice was issued to the assessee (doctor) under clause (b) of section 148A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed replies objecting to the proposal to treat the income returned under the head “Salary” and not “Professional Income” and submitting that none of the documents found were incriminating or supported the issuance of the notices. An order was passed under section 148(d) of the Act rejecting the arguments.

The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i)    As on April 1, 2021, the scheme of reassessment under the Income-tax Act, 1961 law has undergone a sea change. While the provisions earlier required the officer to have “reason to believe” that there had been escapement of income from tax, what is now required is “information” that suggests escapement of income from tax. Section 148A stands activated only if the Income-tax Department is in possession of “information”, which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. The definition of “information” is wide and could include just about any material in the possession of the officer. However, the caveat is that such information must enable the suggestion of escapement of tax. Then again, the mandate cast upon the officer u/s. 149A(d) is that he has to decide whether it is a “fit case” for issue of a notice for reassessment, upon a study of the material in his possession, including the response of the assessee. Thus, not all information in the possession of the officer can be construed as “information” that qualifies for initiation of proceedings for reassessment, and it is only such “information” that suggests escapement and which, based upon the material in his possession, that the officer decides as “fit” to trigger reassessment, that would so qualify. The “information” in the possession of the Department must prima facie, satisfy the requirement of enabling a suggestion of escapement from tax. This is not to say that the sufficiency or adequacy of the “information” must be tested, as such an analysis would be beyond the scope of jurisdiction of the court in writ jurisdiction. However, whether at all the “information” gathered could lead to a suggestion of escapement from tax can certainly be ascertained. For the purposes of such ascertainment and to determine “fitness” to reassess, the materials gathered must be seen in the context of the allegation of tax evasion, taking assistance of decided cases to ascertain whether or not the allegation is sustainable. In the present regime of reassessments, an  Assessing Officer must be able to establish proper nexus of information in his possession, with probable escapement from tax. No doubt the term used is “suggests”. That is not to say that any information, however tenuous, would suffice in this regard and it is necessary that the information has a live and robust link with the alleged escapement.

ii)    There is a distinction between a contract for service and one of service, and depends on several factors. The regulations, restrictions, guidelines and control exercised in regard to logistical and administrative functions of the work force have to be considered. It is difficult to identify any establishment that does not exercise some degree of control over the administrative and logistical functioning of the workforce, be they salaried or otherwise. What is vital is that professionals discharge their professional duties and function in a free and fully independent fashion without any interference from the hospital management. Though it is expected that there would be regular quality control measures, this would not lead to the inference that there is control exercised over the discharge of professional functions. The prima facie test for determination of a master-servant relationship is the right of the master to supervise and control the work done by the servant in the matter of not just directing what work is to be done but also the manner in which he shall execute the work. Application of the test of control in the case of skilled employments to decide whether there is relationship of master-servant would be unreal and would not result in a proper conclusion. Thus the question of whether there was “right of control” by the employer would depend on the facts in each case and on the terms of the contracts between the parties.

iii)    In all the cases the entity searched was the KMC hospital. The Assessing Officer had come to the conclusion that the hospital exercised total control over the doctors in regard to their timings of work, holidays, call duties based on the exigencies of work, termination, entitlement to private practice, increments and other service rules. However, the agreements between the hospital and the assessees revealed the following terms : (i) The doctors were referred to as consultants and fell within the category of visiting consultants or full time consultants, as against part-time and special category consultants who also attended the hospital. (ii) The remuneration paid was of a fixed amount along with a variable component depending on the number of patients treated, and was termed “salary”. (iii) The consultants were not entitled to any statutory service benefits such as provident fund, gratuity, bonus, medical reimbursement, insurance or leave encashment. (iv) Working hours were stipulated as 8 a. m. to 5 p. m. and the consultants were expected to be available on call in the night. (v) They were permitted a month’s vacation and leave on a case-to-case basis and depending on need. (vi) Private practice was permitted in the case of both categories, upon the satisfaction of certain conditions, such as service of two years in the hospital and other conditions. (vii) The hospital did not exercise any control, intervention or direction over the exercise of professional duties by the assessees. (viii) The assessees were wholly responsible for professional indemnity insurance and the hospital did not indemnify the doctors from any manner of claims. The intention of the parties appeared to engage in a relationship as equals. The hospital, on the one hand, and the professional, on the other, engaged in a relationship where the former provided the administrative infrastructure and facilities and the latter, the professional skill and expertise to result in a mutual rewarding result. The fact that the remuneration paid was variable, and the doctors were not entitled to any statutory benefits also pointed to the absence of an employer-employee relationship. The mere presence of rules and regulations did not lead to a conclusion of a contract of service.

iv)    Rules and regulations are necessary to ensure that the workplace functions in a streamlined and disciplined fashion. Thus, the mere existence of an agreement that indicated some measure of regulation of the service of the doctors, could not lead to a conclusion that they were salaried employees. The fact that the doctors held full responsibility for their medical decisions and actions and the hospital bore no responsibility in this regard was also of paramount importance, relevant to determine the nature of the relationship as being one of equals, rather than one of master-servant. The order contained clear, categoric and conclusive findings that were adverse to the assessees. There were no disputed facts at play and rather, it was only the interpretation of admitted facts and conclusions arrived at by the officer, that were challenged. The “information” in the possession of the Revenue did not, in the light of the settled legal position lead to the conclusion that there had been escapement of tax. The order u/s. 148A was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Service of notice without signature of AO digitally or manually — Notice invalid — Consequent proceedings without jurisdiction — Notices and order issued beyond period of three years after relevant assessment year — Show-cause notice and order for issue of notice and notice for reassessment quashed and set aside

85 Prakash Krishnavtar Bhardwaj vs. ITO
[2023] 451 ITR 27 (Bom)
A Y.: 2015-16
Date of order: 9th January, 2023
Sections 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Service of notice without signature of AO digitally or manually — Notice invalid — Consequent proceedings without jurisdiction — Notices and order issued beyond period of three years after relevant assessment year — Show-cause notice and order for issue of notice and notice for reassessment quashed and set aside

The relevant year is the A.Y. 2015-16. The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the impugned notice under clause (b) of section 148A dated 21st March, 2022, order under clause (d) of section 148A dated 2nd April, 2022 and notice under section 148 dated 2nd April, 2022 passed by the respondents under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“The notice issued under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 admittedly having no signature of the Assessing Officer affixed on it, digitally or manually, was invalid, and would not vest the Assessing Officer with any further jurisdiction to proceed with the reassessment under section 147. Consequently, the Assessing Officer could not assume jurisdiction to proceed with the reassessment proceedings. The notice having been sought to be issued after three years from the end of the relevant assessment year 2015-16 any steps taken by the Assessing Officer the notice issued u/s. 148A(b) and the order passed u/s. 148A(d) were without jurisdiction and therefore, arbitrary and contrary to article 14 of the Constitution of India and consequently set aside.”

Refund — Tax deposited by the assessee in compliance with order of Tribunal — Fresh assessment not made and becoming time-barred — Assessee entitled to refund of amount with statutory interest deducting admitted tax liability

84 BMW India Pvt Ltd vs. Dy. CIT

[2023] 450 ITR 695 (P&H)

A. Y.: 2009-10

Date of order: 5th July, 2022

Section 237 of ITA 1961

Refund — Tax deposited by the assessee in compliance with order of Tribunal — Fresh assessment not made and becoming time-barred — Assessee entitled to refund of amount with statutory interest deducting admitted tax liability

For the A.Y. 2009-10, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal against the order under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal stayed the order subject to the condition that the assessee deposited an amount of Rs. 10 crores in two instalments and remanded the matter back for fresh assessment. The assessee complied with the order and deposited the amount. The issue with respect to the depreciation amount disallowed was not raised and was conceded by the assessee. According to the remand order dated 21st February, 2014 the authorities were required to pass fresh order before 31st March, 2017.

The assessee filed a writ petition claiming refund of Rs. 10 crores after deduction of tax liability on the admitted depreciation disallowance on the ground that the assessment proceedings had become time-barred. The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“The assessee was entitled to refund of the excess amount deposited by it after deduction of the tax liability against the disallowance of depreciation which stood admitted by the assessee before the Tribunal with the statutory interest on the refund amount for the period starting from April 1, 2017 till the date of actual payment.”

Infrastructure facility — Special deduction under section 80-IA(4)(iii) of ITA 1961 — Construction of technology park — Finding recorded by the Tribunal in earlier assessment years that the assessee had not leased more than 50 per cent of area to single lessee — Notification to be issued by CBDT is only a formality once approval is granted by Government — Order of Tribunal deleting disallowance need not be interfered with

83 Principal CIT vs. Prasad Technology Park Pvt Ltd

[2023] 450 ITR 564 (Karn)

A. Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 17th October, 2022:

Section 80-IA(4)(iii) of ITA 1961

Infrastructure facility — Special deduction under section 80-IA(4)(iii) of ITA 1961 — Construction of technology park — Finding recorded by the Tribunal in earlier assessment years that the assessee had not leased more than 50 per cent of area to single lessee — Notification to be issued by CBDT is only a formality once approval is granted by Government — Order of Tribunal deleting disallowance need not be interfered with

The assessee constructed and set up a technology park. For the A.Y. 2014-15, the AO disallowed its claim for deduction under section 80-IA(4)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that the assessee had leased out more than 50 per cent of the allocable industrial area to a single lessee which was in contravention of the Industrial Park Scheme, 2002.

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal following the order in the assessee’s own case for the A.Ys. 2007-08 and 2008-09 and his order was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    The Tribunal was correct in holding that the assessee was entitled to deduction under section 80-IA(4)(iii) and that the notification issued by the CBDT was only a formality once the approval was granted by the Government. For the A. Y. 2008-09 in the assessee’s own case the Tribunal had called for a remand report by the Commissioner (Appeals) and recorded a finding that the assessee had not leased out more than 50 per cent of the total area in favour of any one of the lessees. Based on that finding, the Tribunal had allowed the assessee’s appeal.

ii)    The questions of law are answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Income — Accrual of income — Time of accrual — Retention money — Payment contingent on satisfactory completion of contract — Accrued only after obligations under contract were fulfilled — Cannot be taxed in year of receipt

81 Principal CIT vs. EMC Ltd

[2023] 450 ITR 691 (Cal)

A. Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 25th July, 2022

Section 4 of Income-tax Act, 1961

Income — Accrual of income — Time of accrual — Retention money — Payment contingent on satisfactory completion of contract — Accrued only after obligations under contract were fulfilled — Cannot be taxed in year of receipt

The assessee was a contractor. For the A.Y. 2014-15, since the contractee had deducted tax under section 194C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the assessee followed the mercantile system of accounting, the AO treated the retention money withheld by the contractee as income in accordance with the terms of contract.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the retention money was to be excluded from the income in the A.Y. 2014-15 but the tax deducted at source claimed by the assessee relatable to such retention money was to be allowed in the year in which the assessee declared the retention money as its income. The Tribunal held that the right to receive the retention money accrued only after the obligations under the contract were fulfilled and the assessee had no vested right to receive in the A.Y. 2014-15, and that therefore, it could not be taxed as income of the assessee in the year in which it was retained.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal on consideration of the undisputed facts had applied the correct legal position and had granted relief to the assessee holding that the retention money of  Rs. 142.53 crores did not arise in the relevant A.Y. 2014-15. The Department had not made out any ground to interfere with the order passed by the Tribunal.

ii)    Accordingly, the appeal filed by the Revenue is dismissed and the substantial questions of law are answered against the Revenue.”

Business deduction — Loss — Loss on forward contracts for foreign exchange — Transactions to hedge against risk of foreign exchange fluctuations falling within exceptions of proviso (a) to section 43(5) — Loss not speculative and to be allowed

80 Principal CIT vs. Simon India Ltd

[2023] 450 ITR 316 (Del)

A. Y.: 2009-10

Date of order: 2nd December, 2022

Sections 37(1) and 43(5) proviso (A) of ITA 1961

Business deduction — Loss — Loss on forward contracts for foreign exchange — Transactions to hedge against risk of foreign exchange fluctuations falling within exceptions of proviso (a) to section 43(5) — Loss not speculative and to be allowed

The assessee provided engineering consultancy and related services such as engineering designing, construction and commissioning of plants and installations. For the A.Y. 2009-10, the AO was of the view that the loss on forward contracts claimed by the assessee was a speculative loss under section 43(5) and was liable to be disallowed in terms of the CBDT Instruction No. 3 of 2010, dated 23rd March, 2010. He held that since the forward contracts had not matured, the losses were required to be considered as notional losses and accordingly made a disallowance.

The Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the disallowance. The Tribunal held that the loss on account of forward contracts was allowable under section 37(1) and was covered as a hedging transaction under proviso (a) to section 43(5).

On appeal by the Department the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    In terms of the CBDT Instruction No. 3 of 2010, dated March 23, 2010 Assessing Officers were instructed to examine the “marked to market” losses. The instruction explained “marked to market” as a concept where financial instruments are valued at market rate to report their actual value on the date of reporting. Such “marked to market” losses represent notional losses and are required to be added back for the purposes of computing taxable income under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The CBDT also instructed Assessing Officers to examine whether such transactions were speculative transactions where losses on account of foreign exchange derivative transactions arise on actual transaction. However, it is well settled that the CBDT instructions and circulars which are contrary to law are not binding.

ii)    In CIT v. Woodward Governor India P. Ltd. [2009] 312 ITR 254 (SC) the Supreme Court referred to Accounting Standard-11 in terms of which exchange rate differences arising on foreign currency transactions are to be recognized as income or expenses in the period in which they arise, except in cases of exchange differences arising on repayment of liabilities for acquiring fixed assets.

iii)    The forward contracts were entered into by the assessee to hedge against foreign exchange fluctuations resulting from inflows and outflows in respect of the underlying contracts for provisions of consultancy and project management. Concededly, the assessee did not deal in foreign exchange. The transactions fell within the exceptions of proviso (a) to section 43(5). There was no allegation that the assessee had not been following the system of accounting consistently. The assessee had stated that it was reinstating its debtors and creditors in connection with execution of contracts entered into with foreign entities on the basis of the value of the foreign exchange. Therefore, the loss on account of forward contracts would require to be recognized as well. The assessee computed its income by taking into account the foreign exchange value as it stood on the due date.

iv)    The orders of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal that the loss, on account of forward contracts could not be considered as speculative and that the Assessing Officer had erred in disallowing it were not erroneous. No question of law arose.”

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — Race club — Membership fees received from members — Capital receipt

82 Principal CIT vs. Royal Western India Turf Club Ltd

[2023] 450 ITR 707 (Bom)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 22nd December, 2021

Section 4 of ITA 1961

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — Race club — Membership fees received from members — Capital receipt

 

The assessee ran a race course. It received membership fees from its members. For the A. Y. 2009-10, the AO disallowed the amount credited by the assessee as general reserve and claimed to be capital receipt, by treating it as revenue receipt.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held it to be capital receipt. The Tribunal held that from the date of incorporation of the assessee in the year 1925 onwards, the entrance fees received from the members of the assessee were treated as capital in nature and majority of these orders were passed under section 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and relying on the judgment in CIT vs. Diners Business Services Pvt Ltd [2003] 263 ITR 1 (Bom) held that any sum paid by a member to acquire the rights of a club was a capital receipt.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The Tribunal had not committed any perversity or applied incorrect principles to the given facts and when the facts and circumstances were properly analysed and correct test was applied to decide the issue at hand, no question of law arose.”

Reassessment — Notice after four years — Condition precedent — Failure on part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly — Assessee disclosing all material facts in response to notices — Reasons recorded not specifying material that the assessee had failed to disclose — Notice issued on erroneous factual basis — Mere reproduction of statutory provisions do not suffice — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside

79 Rajeshwar Land Developers Pvt Ltd vs. ITO

[2022] 450 ITR 108 (Bom)

A Y.: 2013-14

Date of order: 13th June, 2022

Sections: 142(1), 143(2), 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice after four years — Condition precedent — Failure on part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly — Assessee disclosing all material facts in response to notices — Reasons recorded not specifying material that the assessee had failed to disclose — Notice issued on erroneous factual basis — Mere reproduction of statutory provisions do not suffice — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside

For the A. Y. 2013-14, the AO issued a notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to reopen the assessment on the ground that the assessee had claimed excess deduction of Rs. 7,44,36,332 on account of other expenses which were required to be disallowed as details of expenses in annexure amounted to only Rs. 12,71,375. The assessee filed objections and submitted that the AO had overlooked the second page of Note 15 in the return of income wherein the details of the amount of Rs. 7,44,36,332 were mentioned and the break up given. The assessee’s objections were rejected.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i)    During the original scrutiny assessment the Assessing Officer had looked at all the documents on record and had stated so in the assessment order. The assessee had submitted details of all expenses, a list of creditors and details of purchasers in response to the notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2). The details such as steel purchase, electrical materials, plumbing, labour charges, etc., were provided in detail. Even the queries in respect of other expenses, unsecured loans were furnished. In the assessment order also, it was stated that the reply, details, clarifications and explanation filed by the assessee were considered.

ii)    Therefore, the reasons given ought to have specified the failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly all material facts. It was not enough to reproduce the language of the statutory provision. The reasons did not give any particulars as to the failure on the part of the assessee. It was nowhere stated that the second page of Note-15 was not part of the assessment record. Furthermore, it was not explained as to how the second page came to be missed. Even when this fact was stated by the assessee, while disposing of the objections, the Assessing Officer did not state that the second page of the note was not available.

iii)    The notice for reopening of the assessment and the order rejecting the assessee’s objections were on an erroneous factual ground without looking at the relevant page. Since the foundation for reopening the assessment on the facts was erroneous, apart from various other legal challenges that arose, the notice and consequent order were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Notice for A. Y. 2013-14 sent by e-mail and received by the assessee on 1st April, 2021 — Notice issued beyond time limit — Not valid

78 Mohan Lal Santwani vs. UOI

[2022] 449 ITR 476 (All)

A. Y.: 2013-14

Date of order: 25th April, 2022

Sections: 147, 148 and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Notice for A. Y. 2013-14 sent by e-mail and received by the assessee on 1st April, 2021 — Notice issued beyond time limit — Not valid

For the A. Y. 2013-14 a notice under section 148 was sent by the Department by e-mail. The e-mail was received by the assessee on 1st April, 2021. The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of the notice.

The Allahabad High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The principles of judicial discipline and propriety and binding precedent, are as follows :

(a)    Judicial discipline and propriety are the two significant facets of administration of justice. The principles of judicial discipline require that orders of the higher appellate authorities are followed unreservedly by the subordinate authorities. The mere fact that the order of the appellate authority is not “acceptable” to the Department, in itself an objectionable phrase, or that is the subject matter of an appeal can furnish no ground for not following it unless its operation has been suspended by a competent court. If this healthy rule is not followed, the result will only be undue harassment to assessees and chaos in administration of tax laws.

(b)    Just as judgments and orders of the Supreme Court have to be faithfully obeyed and carried out throughout the territory of India under article 141 of the Constitution, so should be judgments and orders of the High Court by all inferior courts and tribunals subject to supervisory jurisdiction within the State under articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution.

(c)    If an officer under the Income-tax Act, 1961 refuses to carry out the clear and unambiguous direction in a judgment passed by the Supreme Court or High Court or the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, in effect, it is denial of justice and is destructive of one of the basic principles in the administration of justice based on hierarchy of courts.

(d)    Unless there is a stay obtained by the authorities under the Income-tax Act, 1961 from a higher forum, the mere fact of filing an appeal or special leave petition will not entitle the authority not to comply with the order of the High Court. Even though the authority may have filed an appeal or special leave petition, where it either could not obtain a stay or the stay is refused, the order of the High Court must be complied with. Mere filing of an appeal or special leave petition against the judgment or order of the High Court does not result in the assailed judgment or order becoming inoperative and unworthy of being complied with.

ii)    It was evident that the notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2013-14 was issued to the assessee on April 1, 2021, whereas the limitation of issuing the notice expired on March 31, 2021. Thus, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was time barred and consequently it was without jurisdiction. The notice cannot be sustained and is hereby quashed. Consequently, the order dated March 19, 2022 and the reassessment order dated March 29, 2022 for the A. Y. 2013-14 can also not be sustained and are hereby quashed inasmuch as, the jurisdictional notice itself was without jurisdiction.”

[It was directed that the Revenue shall ensure that the date and time of triggering of e-mail for issuing notices and orders are reflected in the online portal relating to the concerned assessees.]

Rectification of mistake — Mistake apparent from record — Set-off of loss — Opinion of audit party on manner of set-off of loss — Opinion on a point of law — Not a mistake apparent from record — No reassessment proceedings could also have been permissible — Rectification order set aside

77 Ambarnuj Finance and Investment Pvt Ltd vs. Dy CIT

[2022] 450 ITR 40 (Del)

A. Y.: 2017-18

Date of order: 2nd November, 2022

Section: 154 of ITA 1961

Rectification of mistake — Mistake apparent from record — Set-off of loss — Opinion of audit party on manner of set-off of loss — Opinion on a point of law — Not a mistake apparent from record — No reassessment proceedings could also have been permissible — Rectification order set aside:

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the rectification order passed under section 154 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dated 15th February, 2021, passed by the Deputy Commissioner during the pendency of the assessee’s application for settlement of disputed tax under the Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas Act, 2020 and also seeking a direction to reconsider its application for settlement of disputed tax under the 2020 Act for the A. Y. 2017-18.

The Delhi High Court held as under:

“i)    There was no mistake apparent in the computation of income in the assessment order dated December 21, 2019, within the meaning of section 154 of the 1961 Act which could have been a subject matter of rectification. The objection raised by the audit party was not a mistake apparent from the record, which could be corrected u/s. 154 of the 1961 Act, but an opinion in law on the manner in which set-off of business losses was to be permitted. The legal opinion of the audit party was at variance with the opinion of the Assessing Officer, who determined that it was permissible to add as income, the amount arising from disallowed bad debt resulting in reduction of loss, while passing the original assessment order. Therefore, there were two different legal opinions available on record with respect to the sequence of set off giving rise to a debatable issue. There was no legal error in the method of computation made in the original assessment order dated December 21, 2019. The Assessing Officer acting upon the audit party’s objection had set off the loss as claimed by the assessee in its original return, first against the other heads of income and then taxed the amount of disallowed bad debt as a stand alone addition to the returned income. This was contrary to facts as the amount of the disallowed bad debt had to be added to the income of the assessee to arrive at the net income or net loss and was not chargeable to tax as a separate head of income as was sought to be done.

ii)    The objection raised by the audit party on the sequence of set-off of losses was an opinion on law and no reassessment proceedings could also have been permissible. The Assessing Officer himself was not of the independent opinion that the original assessment order passed by him on December 21, 2019, was erroneous in law and there was no new or fresh material before him except the opinion of the audit party. The objection raised by the audit party was in regard to the law which on the facts was debatable could not have formed the basis for passing a rectification order under section 154 of the 1961 Act. Therefore, the rectification order was set aside.”

Income — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Fees for technical services — Technical services do not include construction, assembly and design — Contract for design, manufacture and supply of passengers rolling stock including training of personnel — Dominant purpose of contract was supply of passenger rolling stock — Training of personnel ancillary — Amount received under contract could not be deemed to accrue or arise in India:

76 CIT vs. Bangalore Metro Rail Corporation Ltd [2022] 449 ITR 431 (Karn)
A. Y.: 2011-12
Date of order: 30th June, 2022
Section: 9(1)(vii) of ITA 1961:

Income — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Fees for technical services — Technical services do not include construction, assembly and design — Contract for design, manufacture and supply of passengers rolling stock including training of personnel — Dominant purpose of contract was supply of passenger rolling stock — Training of personnel ancillary — Amount received under contract could not be deemed to accrue or arise in India:

The assessee entered into a contract with a consortium consisting of BEML, H, MC and ME, of which, BEML was the consortium leader, for design manufacture, supply, testing and commissioning of passenger rolling stock, including training of personnel and supply of spares and operation. The total cost of the contract was Rs. 1672.50 crores. The Department conducted a survey under section 133A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and observed that a sum of Rs. 182 crores had been paid by the assessee to the consortium. The Department was of the view that the assessee ought to have deducted tax at source before making the payment. Accordingly, a show-cause notice dated 27th December, 2011was issued calling upon the assessee to show cause why it should not be treated “as an assessee-in-default” under section 201(1) of the Act for not deducting tax at source and remitting it to the Government. The assessee submitted its reply contending, inter alia, that the contract was one for supply of coaches and other activities such as design, testing, commissioning and training were only incidental to achieving the dominant object and therefore, it would constitute a sale of goods and hence, the provisions of section 194C or section 194J would not apply. It also contended that the assessee was not aware how the consortium partners had utilized the 10 per cent. of the contract amount given as “mobilisation amount”. The AO, not being satisfied with the assessee’s reply, treated it as ”an assessee-in-default” and levied tax and interest thereon under section 201(1A) of the Act.

The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeals.

On appeals by the Department, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    A careful perusal of Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 shows that fees for technical services do not include construction, assembly and mining operation, etc.

ii)    The contract was one for designing, manufacturing, supply, testing, commissioning of passenger rolling stock and training personnel. The total contract was for Rs. 1,672.50 crores whereas, the training component was about Rs. 19 crores. All cheques had been issued in favour of BEML. Firstly, the Revenue had taken a specific stand before the Tribunal that the contract was a composite contract. Secondly, the dominant purpose of the contract was for supply of rolling stocks and the cost towards service component was almost negligible. Thirdly, the word “assembly” must include the manufacture or assembly of rolling stock by BEML, being the consortium leader. Fourthly, the entire payment had been made in favour of BEML. Fifthly, the Revenue had not raised any objection with regard to payment of 90 per cent. of the project costs, so far as deduction u/s. 194J was concerned.

iii)    For these reasons the questions raised by the Revenue were not substantial questions for consideration. The tax and interest thereon levied u/s. 201(1A) were not valid.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption under section 11 — Effect of s13 — Transactions between trustee and related party — Diversion of income of charitable institution must be proven for application of s.13 — No evidence of diversion of funds — Exemption could not be denied to the charitable institution

75 CIT(Exemption) vs. Shri Ramdoot Prasad Sewa Samiti Trust

[2022] 450 ITR 288 (Raj)

A. Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 8th December, 2022

Sections: 11 and 13 of ITA 1961

Charitable purpose — Exemption under section 11 — Effect of s13 — Transactions between trustee and related party — Diversion of income of charitable institution must be proven for application of s.13 — No evidence of diversion of funds — Exemption could not be denied to the charitable institution

The respondent-assessee is a trust registeredunder section 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee had claimed exemption under section 11 of the Act for the A. Y. 2012-13. The AO noticed that the assessee had made total purchases of raw materials worth Rs. 12.24 crores (rounded off) out of which purchases of Rs. 9 crores were made from Pawansut Trading Company Pvt Ltd. Upon further scrutiny it was found that the one Kishorepuri Ji Maharaj was the main trustee of the assessee-trust and also the director of the said company and from whom purchases worth 75 per cent. were made. The AO was of the opinion that such substantial purchases made from a related party had to be at arm’s length. The AO thereupon referred to section 13 of the Act and without any further discussion concluded that the assessee-trust has made purchases on unreasonable rates from Pawansut Trading Pvt Ltd, New Delhi who is person specified under section 13(3). The AO held that the management of the trust has used the property of the trust for their personal benefits without justification which attracts the provisions of section 13(1)(c)(ii) r.w.s. 13(2)(g) of the Act as such the assessee is not eligible to claim exemption under sections 11 and 12 of the Act.

The Commissioner (Appeals) called for the remand report and thereafter deleted the disallowance by observing that the rates of purchase by the assessee from the related party were same as with unrelated party. Further, there were no findings in the assessment order on the basis of which additions were made except that purchases have been made from the related party. The appellant has also proved that such purchases were made at the same rate as paid to unrelated party. The Tribunal confirmed the view of the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Rajasthan High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i)    Clause (g) would be applicable in a case where any income or property of a trust or institution is diverted during the previous year in favour of any person referred to in sub-section (3). Sub-section (3) in turn relates to persons or institutions which are closely related such as the author of the trust or the founder of the institution, any trustee of the trust or manager of the institution etc. Clause (g) would apply where any income or property of the trust or institution is “diverted” during the previous year in favour of any person referred to in sub-section (3). The crux of this provision is diversion of income. Mere transaction of sale and purchase between two related persons would not be covered under the expression “diversion” of income. Diversion of income would arise when the transaction is not at arm’s length and the sale or purchase price is artificially inflated so as to cause undue advantage to other person and divert the income.

ii)    The assessee and P Ltd. were entities covered under sub-section (3) of section 13. However, the Assessing Officer never examined whether the transactions between the assessee and the company were at arm’s length. He merely referred to statutory provisions and without further discussion came to the conclusion that disallowance had to be made. The Commissioner (Appeals) not only criticised this approach of the Assessing Officer but also independently examined whether the transaction was at arm’s length. It was found that the rate paid to the related person was the same as paid to the unrelated party.

iii)    The Tribunal confirmed this view and correctly so. On the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law the Tribunal was correct in allowing exemption u/s. 11 of the Act, to the assessee.”

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest — Interest earned from fixed deposits of unutilised foreign external commercial borrowing loans during period of construction — Interest received was capital receipt

74 Principal CIT vs. Triumph Realty Pvt Ltd (No. 1)[2022] 450 ITR 271 (Del)

A. Y.: 2012-13

Date of order: 31st March, 2022

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest — Interest earned from fixed deposits of unutilised foreign external commercial borrowing loans during period of construction — Interest received was capital receipt

The assessee availed foreign external commercial borrowings of Rs. 82.37 crores for the purpose of acquisition of a capital asset, i. e., renovation and refurbishment of hotel acquired by the assessee under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002. The entire loan was disbursed in a single tranch in the A. Y. 2012-13 and during this year, the assessee could utilise only Rs. 33.70 crores. Therefore, the assessee had temporarily made fixed deposits of the external commercial borrowing funds till utilisation for fixed asset or capital expenditure. The assessee had paid interest of Rs. 13.38 crores on the borrowings and had earned interest of Rs. 4.03 crores on the fixed deposits. The net interest of Rs. 9.35 crores was added to the preoperative expenditure pending capitalization.

The Tribunal allowed the capitalisation of interest on fixed deposit receipts earned during the period of construction.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“The Tribunal had not erred in allowing the capitalisation of interest on fixed deposits earned during the period of construction by the assessee. No question of law arose.”

Business expenditure — Deduction only on actual payment — Electricity duty — Assessee, a licensee following mercantile system of accounting — Merely an agency to collect electricity duty from consumers and to pay it to State Government — Provisions of section 43B not applicable

73 Principal CIT vs. Dakshin Haryana Bijli Vitran Nigam Ltd

[2022] 449 ITR 605 (P&H)

A. Y.: 2008-09

Date of order: 3rd August, 2022

Section: 43B of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Deduction only on actual payment — Electricity duty — Assessee, a licensee following mercantile system of accounting — Merely an agency to collect electricity duty from consumers and to pay it to State Government — Provisions of section 43B not applicable

The assessee was a licensee under the Electricity Act, 2003 and distributed power in the State of Haryana. For the A. Y. 2008-09, the AO made a disallowance with respect to the electricity duty under section 43B of the 1961 Act.

The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal deleted the disallowance.

On appeals by the Revenue, the Punjab & Haryana High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i)    Under section 43B(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 a deduction otherwise allowable under the Act in respect of any sum payable by the assessee by way of tax, duty, cess or fee, by whatever name called, under any law for the time being in force, shall be allowed (irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee according to the method of accounting regularly employed by him) only in computing the income referred to in section 28 of the previous year in which such sum is actually paid by him. Section 43B contains a non obstante clause. It was inserted by Finance Act, 1983 with an intent to curb the malpractice at the hands of certain taxpayers, who claimed statutory liability as a deduction without discharging it and pleaded the mercantile system of accounting as a defence.

ii)    The liability to pay electricity duty lies on the consumer and it is to be paid to the State Government. Section 4 of the Punjab Electricity (Duty) Act, 1958 casts a duty on the licensee to collect the electricity duty from the consumers and to pay it to the State Government. The licensee is only a collecting agency.

iii)    The contention of the Department that section 43B of the 1961 Act would be attracted merely for the reason that the assessee followed the mercantile system of accounting was rejected. The Department was required to show that the electricity duty was payable by the assessee. There was no such provision contained in the 1958 Act which showed that the liability to pay the electricity duty was upon the assessee. Rather section 4 of the 1958 Act read with the provisions contained in the Punjab Electricity (Duty) Rules, 1958 made it clear that the assessee was merely an agency assigned with a statutory function to collect electricity duty from the consumers and to pay it to the State Government. Therefore, the provisions of section 43B of the 1961 Act would not be applicable to the assessee.”

Assessment — International transactions — Proceedings under section 144C mandatory — Draft assessment order proposing variations to returned income must be submitted to DRP — Order of remand — Order passed on remand must also be submitted to DRP — Failure to do so is an incurable defect

72 Principal CIT vs. Appollo Tyres Ltd

[2022] 449 ITR 398 (Ker)

A. Y.: 2009-10

Date of order: 23rd September, 2021

Section: 144C of ITA 1961

Assessment — International transactions — Proceedings under section 144C mandatory — Draft assessment order proposing variations to returned income must be submitted to DRP — Order of remand — Order passed on remand must also be submitted to DRP — Failure to do so is an incurable defect

For the A. Y. 2009-10, for determination of the arm’s length price of the assessee’s international transactions, a reference was made to the Transfer Pricing Officer under section 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The AO served on the assessee the draft assessment order under section 144C(1) of the Act. The assessee filed objections to the draft assessment order under section 144C of the Act upon which the Dispute Resolution Panel(DRP) issued directions to the AO. The AO passed a final assessment order against which the assessee appealed before the Tribunal. The Tribunal allowed the appeal in part and remitted the matter to the AO for fresh assessment on the issues referred to the AO. The AO thereupon passed a revised final assessment order under section 144C of the Act. The assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against the revised final assessment order who allowed the appeal in part. Against this order the Department filed an appeal to the Tribunal while the assessee filed cross objections questioning the legality and propriety of the revised final assessment order of the AO. The Tribunal dismissed the Department’s appeal and allowed the assessee’s cross objections.

The Kerala High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    In cases to which section 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is attracted, the assessment could be completed only by following the procedure u/s. 144C of the Act. At the first instance the Assessing Officer u/s. 144C(1) forwards a draft of the proposed order of assessment known as draft order to the assessee, in the event the Assessing Officer proposes a variation to the income return which is prejudicial to the assessee. The assessee u/s. 144C(2) has the option within 30 days to accept the variation or file objections to the proposed draft variation of the Assessing Officer. The issues at divergence being proposed variation and objections of the assessee are made over to the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) u/s. 144C(15). The DRP follows the procedure stipulated by section 144C(5) to (12) and finally issues directions to the Assessing Officer. The directions of the DRP are binding on the Assessing Officer and the final assessment order is issued by the Assessing Officer in terms of the DRP directives. The Assessing Officer does not have jurisdiction to make a revised final assessment order without recourse to the DRP. The omission in redoing the procedure u/s. 144C is not a curable defect. Once there is a clear order of setting aside of an assessment order with the requirement of the Assessing Officer/Transfer Pricing Officer to undertake a fresh exercise of determining the arm’s length price, the failure to pass a draft assessment order, would violate section 144C(1) of the Act result. This is not a curable defect in terms of section 292B of the Act.

ii)    The requirement of redoing the same procedure upon remand to the Assessing Officer u/s. 144C is mandatory and omission in following the procedure is an incurable defect. Hence the order was not valid. The filing of appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) could not be treated as a waiver of an objection available to the assessee in this behalf u/s. 144C. Section 253(1)(d) provides for appeal only when order has been made u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C of the Act.

iii)    For the above reasons and the discussion the questions are answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Search and Seizure — Assessment in search cases — Undisclosed Income — Penalty — Change of Law — New Provision specially dealing with penalty in search cases — No incriminating document seized during search — Penalty could be imposed only under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c).

42. Pr. CIT vs. Jai Maa Jagdamba Flour Pvt Ltd
[2023] 455 ITR 74 (Jharkhand)
A.Y. 2014–15: Date of order: 21st February, 2023
Sections 153A, 271(1)(c) and 271AAB of ITA 1961.

Search and Seizure — Assessment in search cases — Undisclosed Income — Penalty — Change of Law — New Provision specially dealing with penalty in search cases — No incriminating document seized during search — Penalty could be imposed only under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c).

Search and seizure operation was carried out on one J group on 3rd September, 2014. Assessee was one of the members of the J Group. During the course of search, no incriminating material was found in the case of assessee. Pursuant to the search, the AO issued a notice under section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and required the assessee to file its return of income. Initially, the assessee filed its return, declaring a loss. However, subsequently, the AO confronted the assessee with audited financial statements, the assessee revised its return of income and declared profit. The AO, therefore, imposed penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Act for concealing the particulars of its income, and furnishing inaccurate particulars of such income.

On appeal, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee on the ground that penalty can be imposed upon the assessee under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c) of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the view of the CIT(A).

The Jharkhand High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    According to section 271AAB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, where a search u/s. 132(1) was initiated on or after July 1, 2012, penalty is leviable on the undisclosed income at the rate and conditions specified u/s. 271AAB(1) for the specified previous year. The section also defines the term “undisclosed income” and “specified previous year” and starts with non obstante clause and excludes the applicability of section 271(1)(c), if the undisclosed income pertains to the specified previous year.

ii)    Since the search was conducted on September 3, 2014, i. e., after July 1, 2012 the assessee’s case was covered by section 271AAB and the Assessing Officer should have initiated proceedings and levied penalty u/s. 271AAB(1)(c) and not u/s. 271(1)(c). On the date of search the due date to furnish the return for the A. Y. 2014-15 had not expired and the assessee had furnished the return on November 30, 2014. The assessee had not admitted any income in the statement recorded u/s. 132(4) nor had paid any taxes on the admitted income. Therefore, the case of the assessee was not governed by section 271AAB(1)(a) or (b) but fell u/s. 271AAB(1)(c) where the minimum penalty prescribed is 30 per cent. and maximum penalty is 90 per cent. of undisclosed income. Whether incriminating document was found or not was immaterial since the law mandated that the penalty if any should have been levied u/s. 271AAB. There was no infirmity in the order of the Tribunal affirming the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).”

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Factors to be considered — Assessee having strong prima facie case — Assessment at a high-pitched rate — Demand causing undue financial hardship to the assessee — Stay ordered.

41. BHIL Employees Welfare Fund No. 4 vs. ITO
[2023] 455 ITR 130 (Bom)
A.Y. 2017–18: Date of order: 7th January, 2023
Sections 69 and 220 of ITA 1961.

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Factors to be considered — Assessee having strong prima facie case — Assessment at a high-pitched rate — Demand causing undue financial hardship to the assessee — Stay ordered.

The assessee was formerly formed for the benefit of the employees of the erstwhile Bajaj Auto Limited. The assessee was formerly known as “Bajaj Auto Employees Welfare Fund No. 4” and was allotted PAN in the status of a Firm. As per the scheme of demerger approved by the Court, the automobile business was transferred to Bajaj Auto Limited and finance was transferred to Bajaj Finserv Limited with effect from 31st March, 2007, and Bajaj Auto Limited’s name was changed to Bajaj Holdings and Investment Limited (“BHIL”) on 5th March, 2008. Pursuant to the scheme of demerger, the name of Bajaj Auto Welfare Employees Fund was changed to BHIL Employees Welfare Fund No. 4 as per trust deed dated 16th February, 2015, and on application, the assessee was allotted PAN with the status of Trust.

On 31st March, 2021, the AO issued notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 under the old name and PAN of the assessee on the ground that the assessee failed to file income tax return. Thereafter, notices were issued under section 142(1) under the old name and PAN of the assessee calling for various details. In December 2021, the assessee filed a response, stating inter alia that the Income-tax Utility did not allow the assessee to select any status other than the Firm on account of which the assessee was not able to file the return of income. Further, the assessee submitted that even if the assessment was re-opened, the re-opening should be conducted in the new PAN and not the old one. Thereafter, further notices were issued by the Department against which the assessee responded its inability to file the return of income due to technical difficulties. The assessment was completed ex-parte and the assessment order was passed under section 144 r.w.s. 144B and 147 of the Act and demand of Rs. 9,62,39,316 was raised.

Against the order of assessment, the assessee filed appeal before the CIT(A) and also filed application for stay of entire demand before Respondent No. 1. The assessee’s application for stay was granted subject to fulfilment of conditions, inter alia that 20 per cent of the demand be paid within 15 days. On application for stay of demand before the Respondent No. 2 for A.Ys. 2014–15 and A.Y. 2017–18, the stay of demand was granted for A.Y. 2017–18 on the condition that the assessee has to pay 10 per cent of the disputed demand. However, meanwhile, Respondent No. 1 addressed a letter to the assessee calling upon the assessee to pay 20 per cent of the demand and was informed that the failure to make the payment would result in penalty under section 221 of the Act. The assessee filed application for stay of demand before the CIT(A) and requested for early hearing of the appeal.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as follows:

“i)    In the case of UTI Mutual Fund (supra) this Court held that in considering whether a stay of demand should be granted, the Court is duty bound to consider not merely the issue of financial hardship if any, but also whether a strong prima facie case is made out and serious triable issues are raised that would warrant a dispensation of deposit. It was further held that calling upon petitioner to deposit, would itself occasion undue hardship where a strong prima facie case has been made out. We are of the opinion that the respondents have failed to consider the ratio of the judgment in its true letter and spirit inasmuch as respondents called upon the petitioner to deposit 10% of the demand when the petitioner had a strong prima facie case. In our view, the deposit would itself occasion undue hardship to the petitioner who are Trust created for the purpose of benefiting the employees.

ii)    In the case of Humuza Consultants (supra) this Court has held that where a prima facie case in favour of the petitioner was found and it appeared that the assessment was high pitched, a stay was granted with regard to the impugned demand notices. In this case too it appears that the petitioner would have a strong prima facie case and they would not be liable to pay such a high demand if their assessment was considered in their capacity/status of a Trust as against the status of a Firm.

iii)    We are in agreement with the legal propositions enunciated in the aforesaid three judgments of this Court and are bound by it and do not propose to take a different view. Accordingly, we are of the opinion that both the matters deserve to be remanded back with a direction that the Respondents to consider the Petitioner’s application under their status as a Trust and try to dispose of the matter preferably within a period of 4 months from the date of this order. No coercive steps shall be taken against the assessee for the recovery of the demand in pursuance of the impugned notice dated 30th March 2022.”

Reassessment — Validity — Proper procedure to be followed — Reasons for notice and satisfaction note for approval not furnished to assessee — Documents relied on for issue of notice not furnished to assessee — Order of reassessment Not Valid.

40. Sahebrao Deshmukh Co-op Bank Ltd vs ACIT
[2023] 455 ITR 92 (Bom.)
A.Y. 2013–14: Date of order: 10th February, 2023
Sections 147 and 148 of ITA 1961.

Reassessment — Validity — Proper procedure to be followed — Reasons for notice and satisfaction note for approval not furnished to assessee — Documents relied on for issue of notice not furnished to assessee — Order of reassessment Not Valid.

The AO issued notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, dated 31st March, 2021, for re-opening of assessment for the A.Y. 2013–14. The AO claimed that the notice was being issued after obtaining necessary satisfaction of the PCIT. Thereafter, on 26th January, 2022, the AO issued notice under section 142(1) of the Act, calling upon the assessee to furnish the accounts and documents. In response to the said notice as also the notice dated 31st March, 2021, issued under section 148 of the Act, the assessee filed its reply on 27th January, 2022, and requested the AO to furnish a copy of reasons recorded for re-opening of assessment. On the same day, the assessee also filed its return of income. The AO, vide notice dated 5th February, 2022, provided the reasons recorded for re-opening. As per the reasons recorded, a survey was conducted under section 133A on 14th December, 2016, at the premises of Shri Shripal Vora at Bhavnagar and unaccounted cash was seized from the premises. From the statements on oath recorded under section 131 of the Act, it was revealed that the assessee was involved in the business of providing accommodation entry and charging commission at the rate of 2.75 per cent of the transaction. On receipt of reasons recorded, the assessee, vide letter dated 21st February, 2022, requested the AO to provide satisfaction note of the PCIT, whose approval had been obtained for issuing the notice under section 148 of the Act. There was no reply from the AO on this and on 24th February, 2022, the AO fixed a hearing without providing the documents requested by the assessee. On 28th February, 2022, the assessee once again requested for details called for earlier and requested for virtual hearing through video conference. Thereafter, various communications were exchanged between the assessee and the AO and the AO passed the order dated 31st March, 2022 and held that an amount of Rs. 2 Crores had escaped assessment.

The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the notices and the order of reassessment. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The Assessing Officer was duty bound to issue, with the notice u/s. 148 of the Act, the reasons which formed the basis for reopening of assessment, the satisfaction note and order of the Principal Commissioner, who granted approval to issuance of the notice with the note of the Assessing Officer in support of his request for approval, the appraisal report from the Deputy Director of Income-tax (Investigation) and the statements of V at Bhavnagar, recorded under section 131 in the search and seizure of the premises of S Ltd, which were referred to in the notice.

ii)    None of these documents was sent to the assessee in compliance with the general directions issued by the court. The Assessing Officer had rejected the request of the assessee for furnishing all these documents without assigning any reasons for such rejection or dealing with the specific objections and the request made by the assessee in its order. Despite specific request for a personal hearing by the assessee before passing the assessment order, the Assessing Officer had neither granted it nor dealt with the request but had gone ahead and passed the assessment order without hearing the assessee.

iii)    The Assessing Officer had acted in contravention of the provisions of article 14 of the Constitution of India. Consequently, the order dated 31st March, 2021 issued u/s. 148 of the Act, the order rejecting the objections to reopening dated 22nd March, 2022, the assessment order dated March 31, 2022, the notice of demand dated
31st March, 2022 issued u/s. 156 of the Act, and the penalty notice dated 31st March, 2022 issued u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, were quashed and set aside.

iv)    The matter was remanded back to the Assessing Officer with specific direction to provide the assessee with the satisfaction note of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax, granting approval for issue of notice and all other documents and material which formed the basis of reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer for issuing notice u/s. 148 of the Act and after giving opportunity to the assessee proceed to pass order.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments made by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice bared by limitation under unamended provisions — Notice issued on 30th June, 2021 to reopen assessment for A.Y. 2014–15 — Not valid.

39. Sunny Rashikbhai Laheri vs. ITO
[2023] 455 ITR 35 (Guj):
A.Y. 2014–15: Date of order: 21st March, 2023
Sections 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961.

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments made by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice bared by limitation under unamended provisions — Notice issued on 30th June, 2021 to reopen assessment for A.Y. 2014–15 — Not valid.

For the A.Y. 2014–15, a notice under section 148 (unamended) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was originally issued on 30th June, 2021. The said notice was treated as show-cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act in the light of the decision of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); and thereupon, the order under section 148A(d) was passed on 21st July, 2022. Consequential notice under section 148, dated 21st July, 2022 was also issued.

The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the order under section 148A(d), dated 21st July, 2022 and the notices under section 148. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    By the Finance Act, 2021, passed on March 28, 2021, and made applicable with effect from 1st April, 2021, section 148A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was brought into force. It relates to conducting of inquiry and providing opportunity to the assessee before notice under section 148 of the Act could be issued. Along with substitution of new section 148A, section 149 of the Act was also recast by the Legislature. Section 149 as it stood immediately before commencement of the Finance Act, 2021, that is before 1st April, 2021 in the old regime, inter alia, provided for time limit for notice. It stated, inter alia, that no notice under section 148 shall be issued for the relevant assessment year, as per clause (b), if four years, but not more than six years, have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year unless the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to one lakh rupees or more for that year. In other words, limitation of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year operated as the time limit in the old regime for issuance of notice under section 148 beyond which period, it was not competent for the Assessing Officer to issue notice for reassessment.

ii)    This embargo continues in the new regime also. In view of the pandemic of March 2020 the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 was passed. Various notifications were issued from time to time extending the time line prescribed under section 149. The 2020 Act is a secondary legislation. It would not override the principal legislation the Finance Act, 2021. Hence, all original notices under section 148 of the Act referable to the old regime and issued between 1st April, 2021 and June 30, 2021 would stand beyond the prescribed permissible time limit of six years from the end of the A.Y. 2013-14 and the A.Y. 2014-15. Therefore, all such notices relating to the A.Y. 2013-14 or the A. Y. 2014-15 would be time barred as per the provisions of the Act as applicable in the old regime prior to 1st April, 2021. Furthermore, these notices cannot be issued as per the amended provision of the Act.

iii)    The notice dated 30th June, 2021 issued by the Assessing Officer under section 148 of the Act, seeking to reopen the assessment in respect of A.Y. 2014-15, and the order dated 21st July, 2022 passed by the respondent under section 148A(d) of the Act, and all consequential actions, as may have been taken, were quashed and set aside.”

Deduction of tax at source — Recovery of demand — Bar against direct demand on assessee — Employer deducted tax at source from assessee’s salary but not paid into Government account — Assessee cannot be denied credit for tax deducted at source — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest of amount if any adjusted towards demand.

38. Milan Arvindbhai Patel vs. ACIT
[2023] 455 ITR 82 (Guj.)
A.Ys. 2010–11 to 2012–13: Date of order: 13th February, 2023
Sections 156, 205, 226 and 237 of ITA 1961.

Deduction of tax at source — Recovery of demand — Bar against direct demand on assessee — Employer deducted tax at source from assessee’s salary but not paid into Government account — Assessee cannot be denied credit for tax deducted at source — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest of amount if any adjusted towards demand.

The assessee was a pilot working with Kingfisher Airlines. The assessee received notice from the AO seeking recovery of outstanding demand of Rs. 19,40,707 for A.Y. 2011–12 and Rs. 25,12,913 for A.Y. 2012–13. In fact, the assessee was eligible for a refund of Rs. 45,570 for A.Y. 2012–13. However, since the amount deducted as TDS had not been deposited by the Airlines to the Central Government, the assessee’s claim for credit of TDS was denied. As a result, demand was raised along with interest.

The assessee filed a writ petition seeking to cancel the outstanding demands under section 156 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, to quash the recovery notices under section 226, and to recover the unpaid tax deducted at source from the assessee’s employer and refund under section 237 of the amount which was adjusted against the outstanding demands for the A.Ys. 2010–11, 2011–12 and 2012–13. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Section 205 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides that when tax is deductible at source, the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which the tax has been deducted from that income. Its applicability is not dependent upon the credit for tax deducted being given under section 199.

ii)    The Department could not deny the assessee the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer from his salary during the relevant financial years. Credit for tax deducted at source should be given to the assessee and if in the interregnum any recovery or adjustment was made by the Department, the assessee was entitled to the refund with statutory interest.”

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of — Not retrospective — Expenditure in discharge of assessee’s obligation as mandated by law — Utilisation of funds by recipient irrelevant — Corporate social responsibility expenditure incurred by assessee for earlier years allowable.

37. Principal CIT vs. Steel Authority of India Ltd
[2023] 455 ITR 139 (Del)
Date of order: 6th January, 2023
Section 37(1) of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of — Not retrospective — Expenditure in discharge of assessee’s obligation as mandated by law — Utilisation of funds by recipient irrelevant — Corporate social responsibility expenditure incurred by assessee for earlier years allowable.

The assessee was a public sector undertaking. The AO disallowed the assessee’s claim of the corporate social responsibility expenditure on the ground that the expenditure was made of enduring long-term benefits for the communities in which the assessee operated, and included establishments of medical facilities, sanitation, schools and houses and vocational training centres, and that it was to be treated as capital expenditure.

The CIT(A) held that the assessee did not establish any direct nexus between the incurring of the corporate social responsibility expenditure and the running of its business and upheld the order of the AO. The Tribunal held that prior to the insertion of Explanation 2 to Section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 with effect from 1st April, 2015, the settled legal position was that corporate social responsibility expenditure was allowable under section 37(1) until a specific bar for allowing such expenditure was introduced prospectively in 2014, and allowed the deduction.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    Explanation 2 was inserted by the Finance Act, 2014 with effect from April 1, 2015 to section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and is prospective.

ii)    The Assessing Officer without specifying which part of the assessee’s corporate social responsibility expenditure was directed towards capital assets had straightaway held that the expenditure was capital in nature by taking into account, albeit illustratively, the purposes for which the recipient had utilized the funds. The capital asset on which the funds were utilised by the recipient was not the asset of the payer, i. e., the assessee. The assessee had provided funds in discharge of its obligation as mandated by law on the advice of the Department of Public Enterprises and therefore, it could not be said that the obligation placed on the assessee by law was not connected wholly and exclusively to its business.

iii)    There is nothing on record which would show that the assessee had directed investment of funds which were offered in fulfilment of discharge of its legal obligation in a capital asset. The Tribunal had concluded that the corporate social responsibility expenses incurred by the assessee were allowable under section 37. Explanation 2 appended to section 37(1) was not retrospective in nature. No question of law arose.”

Business expenditure — Broken period interest paid for purchase of securities held as stock-in-trade — Deductible expense.

36. CIT vs. State Bank of Hyderabad
[2023] 455 ITR 122 (Telangana.)
A.Y. 1998–99: Date of order: 4th January, 2023
Sections 28 and 37 of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Broken period interest paid for purchase of securities held as stock-in-trade — Deductible expense.

The assessee, a banking company, filed its return of income for A.Y. 1998–99 and claimed deduction of broken period interest paid by it on purchase of securities which were held by the assessee bank as stock-in-trade. The AO denied the claim of the assessee by relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Limited vs. Addl.CIT (1991) 187 ITR 541(SC), wherein it was held that such expenditure was required to be capitalised and cannot be allowed as deduction. This view was confirmed by the CIT(A).

The Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that the assessee had purchased the securities to hold them as stock-in-trade, and therefore, the interest paid for broken period was allowable as deduction.

On appeal by the Department, the Telangana High Court upheld the view of the Tribunal and held as follows:

“i)    We find that it is the contention of the respondent that respondent had been holding its securities all along as stock-in-trade which is not in dispute. For successive assessment years, Revenue has accepted the fact that respondent had been holding the securities as stock-in-trade.

ii)    Circular No. 665 dated 5th October, 1993 of the CBDT has clarified the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijaya Bank Ltd (supra). CBDT has clarified that where the banks are holding securities as stock-in-trade and not as investments, principles of law enunciated in Vijaya Bank Ltd (supra) would not be applicable. Therefore, CBDT has clarified that assessing officer should determine on the facts and circumstances of each case as to whether any particular security constitute stock-in-trade or investment taking into account the guidelines issued by Reserve Bank of India from time to time.

iii)    It is in the above back drop that Tribunal has held that the respondent had purchased securities to hold them as stock-in-trade. Therefore, interest paid on such securities would be an allowable deduction.

iv)    We are in agreement with the finding returned by the Tribunal. That apart, this is a finding of fact rendered by the Tribunal and in an appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 we are not inclined to disturb such a finding of fact, that too, when the legal position is very clear.”