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Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Notice for reassessment — Meaning of period of six or ten assessment years from “relevant assessment year” for which assessment can be made — How to compute “Six years immediately preceding assessment year relevant to previous year in which search is conducted” — Ten assessment years to be reckoned from end of assessment year pertaining to previous year in which search was conducted — Distinct from preceding year spoken of in case of six relevant assessment years — Date of search falling during F. Y. 2024-25 — A. Y. 2025-26 would be first assessment year and A. Y. 2016-17 would be tenth assessment year — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 falls beyond period of ten years prescribed — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 barred by limitation and accordingly invalid.

26. Jayantibhai Karamshibhai Maniya v. ITO: (2026) 488 ITR 90 (Guj): 2026 SCC OnLine Guj 2776

A. Y. 2015-16: Date of order 05/01/2026

Sections. 148, 149(1)(b), 153A(1)(b), Expln 1, and 153C of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Notice for reassessment — Meaning of period of six or ten assessment years from “relevant assessment year” for which assessment can be made — How to compute “Six years immediately preceding assessment year relevant to previous year in which search is conducted” — Ten assessment years to be reckoned from end of assessment year pertaining to previous year in which search was conducted — Distinct from preceding year spoken of in case of six relevant assessment years — Date of search falling during F. Y. 2024-25 — A. Y. 2025-26 would be first assessment year and A. Y. 2016-17 would be tenth assessment year — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 falls beyond period of ten years prescribed — Notice issued for A. Y. 2015-16 barred by limitation and accordingly invalid.

The assessee petitioner was engaged in the business of job work of diamonds during the year under consideration. The petitioner filed the return of income for the A. Y. 2015-16 on March 31, 2016 declaring a total income of Rs.19,85,220. The respondent Assessing Officer issued a notice dated March 31, 2025 u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2015-16 stating therein that a search was initiated u/s. 132 of the Act on May 9, 2024 in the case of the person in respect of whom the petitioner is assessable under the Act. Further, it was stated that the respondent is satisfied, with the approval of the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, that the books of account or documents seized or requisitioned under Section 132 or Section 132A of the Act in the case of Sushil Kumar Keval Kishan Goyal pertain to the petitioner or the person in respect of whom the petitioner is assessable under the Act, and hence, the notice dated March 31, 2025 has been issued under Section 148 of the Act after obtaining prior approval of Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, Ahmedabad-1.

The petitioner filed a writ petition and challenged the notice contending that the notice is barred by time. The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Section 149(1)(b) of the Act refers to the limitation period of ten years, which has elapsed from the end of the “relevant assessment year”. The relevant assessment year in the present case is 2015-2016, which is prior to the cut-off date of April 1, 2021, as specified in the first proviso. The link between section 149 and Sections 153A and 153C of the Act is found in the first proviso to Section 149(1) of the Act. The expression “relevant assessment year” is explained under Explanation 1 to the fourth proviso to Section 153A(1). The first proviso to Section 149(1) of the Act bars the issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before April 1, 2021, if a notice under Section 148 or Section 153A or Section 153C of the Act could not have been issued at that time on account of it being beyond the time limit specified under the provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of Section 149 of the Act or Section 153A or Section 153C of the Act. In the present case, the notice under Section 148 of the Act emanates from the search proceedings undertaken under Sections 132/132A of the Act, and hence the provisions of Sections 153A and 153C of the Act would get attracted, and the reassessment of the petitioner has to be examined by keeping in mind the limitation provided under Sections 153C of the Act, which is pari materia to Section 153A of the Act.

ii) The provisions of Section 153A/153C of the Act find place in the proviso to Section 149 of the Act and, hence, the limitation as provided in Sections 153A/153C of the Act gets triggered upon the initiation of assessment proceedings emanating from a search under Section 132/132A of the Act. We may, at this stage, mention that the Delhi High Court as well as the Madras High Court have already considered the implications of Explanation 1 to Section 153A of the Act to the limitation and the expression “relevant assessment year” used therein in Explanation 1 to Section 153A of the Act.

iii) The statute prescribes different modes of computation for six years and ten years. We reiterate that the provisions of Section 153A(1)(b) of the Act stipulate that the Assessing Officer shall assess or reassess the total income of six years immediately preceding the assessment year relevant to the previous year in which the search is conducted. However, the ten assessment year period, consequently, is to be reckoned from the end of the assessment year pertaining to the previous year in which the search was conducted, as distinct from the preceding year which is spoken of in the case of the six relevant assessment years. Thus, the contention with regard to the computation of six years as well as ten years under the provisions of Section 153A of the Act has already been gone into by the Delhi High Court as well as the Madras High Court, and we have no convincing reason to take a divergent view from the view expressed hereinabove. Applying the aforesaid computation to the facts of the present case, taking the date of the search as May 9, 2024 during the F. Y. 2024-25, the A. Y. 2025-26 will become the first assessment year and, in the same manner, the A. Y. 2016-17 will become the tenth assessment year. Thus, the year under consideration, namely, A. Y. 2015-16, for which the impugned notice has been issued under Section 148 of the Act, would fall beyond the period of ten years prescribed under the statute as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 ((2021) 432 ITR (St) 52), and hence, on this count, the impugned notice can be said to be barred by limitation.

iv) For the foregoing reasons, the impugned notice dated March 31, 2025 issued under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the respondent-Department seeking to reopen the income-tax assessment of the petitioner for the respective assessment year is hereby quashed and set aside. The petitions are allowed accordingly.”

Refund — Section 244A — Return of income — Intimation issued u/s. 143(1) in 2019 — Refund determined along with interest — Interest upto the date of intimation under Section 143(1) — Refund paid only in 2023 — Assessee’s request to grant interest till the date of payment of refund to the assessee — Rejection by the AO — The AO does not have jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest — Delay due to system failure — Cannot be held against the assessee — Once refund determined in the proceedings – Interest runs till the date of payment.

25. Bedmutha Industries Limited v. ACIT

TS-917-HC-2026(Bom.)

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 15/06/2026

S. 244A of ITA 1961

Refund — Section 244A — Return of income — Intimation issued u/s. 143(1) in 2019 — Refund determined along with interest — Interest upto the date of intimation under Section 143(1) — Refund paid only in 2023 — Assessee’s request to grant interest till the date of payment of refund to the assessee — Rejection by the AO — The AO does not have jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest — Delay due to system failure — Cannot be held against the assessee — Once refund determined in the proceedings – Interest runs till the date of payment.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2017-18 on 29/10/2017 claiming a refund of Rs.1,60,47,550. Subsequently, the return of income was revised on 31/01/2019 once again claiming the refund. The return was processed and intimation under Section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was issued on 14/11/2019 determining the refund along with interest under Section 244A. The interest was determined at Rs.25,67,600 upto the date of intimation.

The assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and the assessment was completed under Section 143(3) of the Act accepting the loss returned by the assessee and accepting the refund determined by the assessee in the return of income.

While the refund was determined, the same was not paid to the assessee. As a result, the assessee addressed several communications for the release of refund to the assessee and submitted the bank account details. The assessee also raised grievances on the portal in this regard. Finally, the refund was issued on 10th March 2023.

Thereafter, in April 2024, the assessee made an application for grant of interest u/s. 244A upto the date when the refund amount was actually credited to the assessee. However, the Assessing Officer, vide order dated 25/04/2024 rejected the request of the assessee on the ground that delay in release of refund was on account of the assessee due to incorrect bank details and therefore, the assessee was not entitled to interest upto the date of payment.

Against the said order passed by the Assessing Officer rejecting the grant of interest till the date of payment, the assessee filed a petition before the Hon’ble High Court, inter alia, on the ground that firstly, the question regarding the period to be excluded on account of delay attributable to the assessee ought to be decided by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner under Section 244A(2) and therefore the Assessing Officer could not have assumed the jurisdiction to determine the exclusion of any period and deny interest for such period. Secondly, the reference to proceeding resulting in refund refers to the proceeding in which the refund is determined and since in the present case, the refund was determined in the intimation issued under Section 143(1) on 14/11/2019 it could not be said that the proceedings were delayed on account of any act attributable to the assessee. The assessee had submitted multiple bank accounts and the refund was being attempted to be credited to a bank account which was not the chosen account in the return of income for the relevant assessment year. Further, despite submitting new bank account details, the system continued to re-initiate refund to another bank account. It was also submitted that where the refund cannot be processed due to technical difficulty, the Board’s instructions permit manual payment of refund.

On the other hand, the Department contended that the delay was on account of the details of the assessee’s bank account which was solely attributable to the assessee.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as under:

“i) The proceedings resulting in the refund were the intimation under Section 143(1) dated 14th November 2019 and the Assessment Order under Section 143(3) is dated 24th December 2019. There is no finding anywhere that either of these proceedings was delayed for reasons attributable to the Petitioner. Once the refund stood determined in those proceedings, the statutory consequence under Section 244A(1) was that interest had to run till the date on which the refund was granted. Section 244A(2) does not deal with administrative or post-determination delays in actual remittance of the refund. No such case has been made out here.

ii) There is yet another reason why the impugned order is unsustainable. Section 244A(2) itself provides that where any question arises as to the period to be excluded, it shall be decided by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, whose decision thereon shall be final. The impugned order has been passed by the Assessing Officer i.e., Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax-1, Nashik. Therefore, even assuming that the Revenue wished to invoke Section 244A(2), the Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to decide the question of exclusion of period and deny interest on that basis. On this count also, the impugned order is bad in law.

iii) Even otherwise, the factual foundation on which the impugned order proceeds, is found to be at variance with the record, especially the affidavit filed by Shri Sairaj of CPC. First, they show that till 25th August 2021, approval itself had not been granted by the JAO. Therefore, the suggestion that the entire delay was on account of incorrect bank details furnished by the Petitioner is plainly inaccurate. Second, CPC’s own affidavit shows that the first release in September 2021 was to a bank account which was not the selected account for the relevant year in the Return of Income. Third, once a new bank account was validated and nominated on 25th March 2022 [though the Petitioner has filed a screenshot from the portal which shows that request for validation of this account was made on 31st December 2021 and the same was validated only on 12th January 2022], the system nonetheless continued to re-initiate refund to another account. It was only on 15th March 2023, that the refund was credited to the bank account already validated on 12th January 2022. Thus, the record disclosed by the CPC itself points to a systemic and administrative failure rather than to any default attributable to the Petitioner.

iv) We are unable to accept the Revenue’s broad submission that because some refund attempts failed for bank-related reasons, the entire period of delay must be attributed to the Petitioner. Technology and automated processing are intended to facilitate administration and not to defeat statutory rights. If the system continued to route refund to an incorrect or earlier bank account despite subsequent validation and nomination of another account, that is plainly a system issue. Such system deficiency cannot be held against the Petitioner. Further, if the Department found that automated re-issue was not fructifying despite repeated attempts and grievances, it was always open to it to resort to a manual refund. The Department cannot retain monies admittedly refundable and thereafter deny statutory interest by relying upon its own technological limitations.

v) The Supreme Court in Union of India v. Tata Chemicals Ltd. (2014) 363 ITR 658 (SC) has held that refund due and payable to the assessee is a debt owed by the Revenue and that interest follows as a matter of course as compensation for the use and retention of the money. The Supreme Court observed that the State, having received money without any right and retained and used it, is bound to make the party good.

vi) In these circumstances, the impugned order dated 25th April 2024 cannot be sustained. The Petitioner is entitled to interest under Section 244A on the refund amount till the date on which the refund was actually paid.”

Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order — Order not passed within time limit as provided under Section 153 — Validity and effect of — Order passed by the CIT(A) with direction to re-characterise receipts and apply beneficial tax rate after opportunity of being heard — Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order not passed within statutory time limit provided u/s. 153 — Order passed beyond the time limit — Original assessment does not survive — Return of income to be treated as accepted.

24. Global Hospitality Licensing SARL v. A/DCIT (IT)

2026 (6) TMI 1344 (Bom)

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 22/06/2026

S. 153 of ITA 1961

Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order — Order not passed within time limit as provided under Section 153 — Validity and effect of — Order passed by the CIT(A) with direction to re-characterise receipts and apply beneficial tax rate after opportunity of being heard — Order giving effect to CIT(A) Order not passed within statutory time limit provided u/s. 153 — Order passed beyond the time limit — Original assessment does not survive — Return of income to be treated as accepted.

The assessee is a company and a tax resident of Luxembourg. The assessee is engaged in the business of providing marketing activities on a central / group basis to Mariott chain of hotels worldwide. The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at NIL. The receipts by the assessee under the International Marketing Program Participation Agreement assigned to it by a group company were claimed to be not taxable in India as per the Act and accordingly refund of TDS was claimed by the assessee. In the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer did not agree with the stand taken by the assessee and held that receipts under the IMPPA were taxable as business profits under the provisions of the Act and taxed the same at 40% plus applicable surcharge and cess. The Assessing Officer did not allow any credit of tax deducted at source. Interest under Section 234A and 234B was levied and simultaneously penalty proceedings were initiated under Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The CIT(A) held that the receipts under the IMPPA were in the nature of royalty and directed the Assessing Officer to apply the beneficial rate of tax and also directed the Assessing Officer to allow the credit for tax deducted if found in order. The CIT(A) directed the Assessing Officer to grant the assessee an opportunity of being heard before passing an order in pursuance of the CIT(A)’s order.

Against the said order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal. In the mean while the assessee found that time limit as provided under Section 153 to pass an order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) has expired but the Assessing Officer has not passed an order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) and accordingly, the assessment has abated.

In the circumstances, there was no need of an order from the Tribunal in the appeal filed by the assessee. Therefore, the assessee, vide a letter, withdrew the appeal on the premise that since no order giving effect to the CIT(A)’s order was passed by the Assessing Officer within the statutory time limits, the assessment had abated. The Tribunal permitted the withdrawal of appeal.

Thereafter, the assessee filed an application before the Assessing Officer seeking refund of the excess tax deducted against the amount liable to be paid by the assessee stating that the assessment proceedings had abated and any tax collected in excess of the amount payable by the assessee was liable to be refunded along with interest.

Penalty notice issued along with the assessment order was initially kept in abeyance. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer issued a show cause notice why the order imposing penalty under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act should not be passed. In response to the notice, the assessee submitted that since the assessment stood abated no penalty could be levied. The assessee also submitted a detailed response as to why penalty should not be levied. However, the Assessing Officer, vide order dated 30/03/2023 levied penalty under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

Against the said penalty order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court challenging the validity of the penalty order on the ground that the underlying assessment proceedings had abated on account of failure on the part of the Assessing Officer to pass order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) within the period of limitation provided under Section 153 of the Act.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) Section 153(5) of the IT Act inter alia provides that where effect to an order passed by the CIT(A) is to be given otherwise than by passing a fresh assessment, such effect shall be given within a period of three months from the end of the month in which order of the CIT(A) is received by the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, as the case may be.

ii) As per the second proviso to Section 153(5) of the IT Act, where as a consequence of the order of the CIT(A), verification of any issue by way of submission of any document by the Assessee or any other person is necessary or where an opportunity of being heard is to be provided to the assessee, the order giving effect shall be made within the time specified in sub-section (3). Thus, the larger time limit of nine months as provided for in sub-section (3) is made applicable to cases governed by sub-section (5) which require verification or the grant of an opportunity of being heard, as is the fact in the present case.

iii) In the present case, the CIT(A) has altered the very basis of taxation and directed application of the beneficial rate of taxation applicable to royalty. Consequently, even though the assessed income remained the same, nevertheless, the original computation of tax liability was set at naught and required fresh determination through a valid order giving effect. So far as the submission of the Revenue as to the nature of an order passed in consequence of orders of the appellate authorities with a view to giving effect to the directions contained therein, it is difficult to hold that such an order is an Administrative Order. An order contemplated by Section 153(5) is not ministerial in nature but quasi-judicial, as it determines the rights and liabilities of the assessee in accordance with the appellate directions. It may involve verification, quantification of income, re-computation of tax liability and net sum payable by the assessee-all of which, collectively or independently have substantive civil consequences. Therefore, such an order cannot be trivialised as administrative so as to escape the rigor of limitation. The power coupled with an obligation on the Assessing Officer is to make an assessment u/s. 143 or 144 of the IT Act. The final order after giving effect to the orders of the appellate authorities is an order of assessment and the same is complete only upon computation of the total income and the net tax payable by an assessee.

iv) Respondent No. 1 in the present case also had to verify and allow the credit of the tax deducted at source to arrive at the tax payable by the Petitioner. The term ‘assessment’ bears a comprehensive meaning. It comprehends the whole procedure for ascertaining the total income and the determination of tax liability. The latter is as crucial as the former. The Assessing Officer in terms of Section 143(3) has to determine, by an order in writing, not only the total income but also the net sum which will be payable by the assessee, in consequence of such an order.

v) As far as the consequence of not passing the order giving effect within the time limit as provided for in Section 153 of the IT Act is concerned, an identical controversy arose before this Court in the case of Laqshya Media Limited v. Asst/Dy. CIT [WP no. 468 of 2026], wherein it was held that where the Assessing Officer was obliged to comply with the directions of the Tribunal and complete the assessment upon remand, the inaction on his part to pass any assessment order within the limitation cannot disturb the income returned by the Petitioner.

vi) We disagree with the contention of the Department that the assessment proceedings do not abate merely because the Assessee is entitled to interest under Section 244A(1A) of the IT Act for any delay in passing the OGE. Section 244A(1A) operates solely for the benefit of an assessee by providing compensatory interest, where there is a delay on the part of the Department in granting a refund. It is probably meant to cover a case where an order is passed in time, but the refund is not granted.

vii) However, the grant of such interest cannot validate or cure a belated Assessment Order. Further, in a situation where demand is sought to be raised, the Department cannot impose a tax liability if the OGE is not passed within the period of limitation provided for. It is a settled principle that the Department cannot take advantage of its own default. Article 265 of the Constitution mandates that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. Consequently, any excess tax collected must be refunded, and Section 244A(1A) of the IT Act merely compensates an assessee for delays in grant of such refunds; it does not legitimise proceedings or orders that are otherwise time-barred.

viii) In the present case no order giving effect has been passed pursuant to the appellate order within the time limit provided for in Section 153 of the IT Act as stated above. This has resulted in the assessment abating, and the return of income of the Petitioner is to be regarded as accepted. The penalty proceedings were initiated in the course of the original assessment proceeding where Respondent No. 1 had assessed the Petitioner’s receipt from the IMPPA as its business income. That basis no longer survives. A penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) is levied on the amount of tax sought to be evaded. As in the present case there is no tax that is evaded as it is the income that is declared in the return that now represents the income that is assessed, the levy of penalty is unsustainable. When the very foundation of the penalty proceedings does not survive, the penalty order dated 30 March 2023, therefore, is unsustainable in law.”

House Rent Allowance — Section 10(13A) — Rent paid by employer to the landlord — Recovered from employee’s salary — House Rent Allowance denied by the AO on the ground that the employee did not pay rent and was living in the accommodation provided by the employer — Mode of payment of rent does not change the character of the payment — Incurring of the rent has to be seen — Not the mode of payment to the landlord — Disallowance was not sustainable.

23. Kuldeepkumar D. Kaura v. DCIT

2026 (6) TMI 1458 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2006-07: Date of order 22/06/2026

S. 10(13A) of ITA 1961

House Rent Allowance — Section 10(13A) — Rent paid by employer to the landlord — Recovered from employee’s salary — House Rent Allowance denied by the AO on the ground that the employee did not pay rent and was living in the accommodation provided by the employer — Mode of payment of rent does not change the character of the payment — Incurring of the rent has to be seen — Not the mode of payment to the landlord — Disallowance was not sustainable.

The assessee is an individual and the CEO and COO of one Sterlite Industries India Ltd. The assessee’s return of income was selected for scrutiny on the ground that the assessee had one house property in Delhi which was claimed as self-occupied and therefore exempt. However, the assessee was in Mumbai in a leased premises of the company where the assessee was employed as the CEO.

The assessee claimed exemption of House Rent Allowance (HRA) under Section 10(13A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of the leased premises. It was submitted that being the employee of the company, the employer company paid the lease rent and recovered the same from the salary of the assessee on a monthly basis. The assessee therefore claimed that the assessee was paid HRA by the employer and claimed exemption of Rs.16,19,940 under Section 10(13A) of the Act. The Assessing Officer denied the assessee’s claim for exemption under Section 10(13A) on the ground that the assessee did not pay any rent to the landlord directly and that the assessee was in occupation of premises provided by the employer.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that the Assessing Officer’s reasoning that the employee did not pay rent directly to the landlord and therefore the employee is not eligible for exemption under Section 10(13A) was ill founded. It was observed by the CIT(A) that in the big cities, the rent agreement is often entered between the landlord and the employer to safeguard the interests of the landlord.

The Tribunal, reversed the decision of the CIT(A) and restored the order of the Assessing Officer, holding that the amount was chargeable as perquisite under Section 17(2) of the Act as there was no reimbursement of rent by the employee and the rent was paid directly by the employer to the landlord. Therefore, the ingredients of Section 10(13A) were not fulfilled.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) It is clear that the said provision is inserted with effect from 06/10/1964 and any special allowance granted to the assessee by employer to meet the expenditure actually incurred on payment of rent in respect of residential accommodation occupied by the assessee, as may be prescribed, and to that extent such special allowance would be exempt from the income and would not form part of the total income.

ii) In view of the above unambiguous position of Section 10(13A) of the Act, the CIT(A) was justified in holding that it is immaterial as to who pays the rent, more particularly when in the facts of the case, the assessee has not been provided rent free accommodation by the employer, in fact, the rent of same amount is recovered from the salary of the assessee, which is paid by the employer to the landlord.

iii) Therefore, the reimbursement of the amount which otherwise would have been payable by the assessee but is paid by the employer and recovered from the salary of the assessee and paid to the landlord by the employer, would not make any difference for granting exemption of the HRA under Section 10(13A) of the Act.

iv) Circular No. 90 [F.No. 275/79/72-ITJ] dated 26/6/1972 issued by the CBDT also clarifies the entitlement of eligibility of exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act in Para-4 of the Circular. It is also clarified that it is not necessary for rent receipt from the assessee but expenditure on rent is required to be actually incurred and only clarification is to be made regarding the fact that the employee concerned has incurred the expenditure on rent. Similarly, letter F. No. 12/19/64-IT (A-1) dated 02/01/1967 issued by the Department also clarifies of the expenditure which have been actually incurred for the purpose of claiming exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act.

v) Only in a case where the employee is not incurring any actual expenditure of rent or is residing in his own house, then special allowance paid by the employer to meet with the expenditure on rent by the employee is not eligible for exemption. In the facts of the case, it is not in dispute that the amount of rent is actually recovered from the employee from the salary of the employee by the employer to be paid to the landlord and, therefore, in effect the employee has incurred expenditure on payment of rent, which was first paid on his behalf by the employer. The effect of both the said transactions is same as payment of special allowance by the employer to meet the actual expenditure incurred by the employee on the rent paid.

vi) The question is answered in favour of the assessee and against the revenue as the Tribunal was not right in law in reversing the order of CIT(A) and confirming the addition and was also not right in confirming the addition of HRA of Rs.16,19,940/- by denying exemption under Section 10(13A) of the Act. The order of the CIT(A) deleting the addition is, therefore, restored and the Assessing Officer is directed to allow the claim of the appellant.”

TDS — Section 195 — Payment of interest to a Non-resident — Payment under a judgment debt — Execution of decree — Retains the character of a judgment debt — Cannot be subjected to deduction of tax in the absence of a provision in the decree.

22. DLF Home Developers Limited v. Anto Thomas

2026 (6) TMI 505 – (Ker):

Date of order 19/05/2026:

S. 195 of ITA 1961

TDS — Section 195 — Payment of interest to a Non-resident — Payment under a judgment debt — Execution of decree — Retains the character of a judgment debt — Cannot be subjected to deduction of tax in the absence of a provision in the decree.

A dispute between the Petitioner and the Respondent was referred to an Arbitrator, and by way of an award dated 16/07/2018, the Arbitrator directed the Petitioner to refund the amount paid by the Respondent along with interest. The arbitration award was challenged in appeal before the High Court, and the High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Petitioner. The Petitioner further challenged the order of the High Court by way of an SLP, which also came to be dismissed by the Supreme Court.

Subsequently, the Petitioner submitted a calculation statement regarding the balance amount payable. The said amount was computed after deducting TDS. The amount, as per the statement, was
deposited. The Respondent raised a dispute regarding the deduction of TDS from the interest amount payable. The District Court directed the Petitioner to pay the amount of TDS deducted to the Respondent.

Being aggrieved by the said order of the District Court, the Petitioner filed a writ petition before the High Court and contended that there was a statutory obligation to deduct TDS from the interest payable to a non-resident and, since the Respondent was a non-resident, the amount was paid after deducting TDS to avoid any action from the Income-tax Department.

The Kerala High Court dismissed the petition and held as follows:

“i) As per the judgment of a learned Single Judge of the Delhi High Court in Voith Hydro Ltd. & Ors. v. NTPC Ltd. [2021 SCC OnLine Del. 1325], TDS was not liable to be deducted on amounts payable under a decree.

ii) The Delhi High Court in the said judgment has relied on the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in All India Reporter Ltd. v. Ramachandra D. Datar [AIR 1961 SC 943] and the decision of the High Court of Bombay in Islamic Investment Co. v. Union of India [(2002) 3 Mah. LJ 555], Sino Ocean Ltd. v. Salvi Chemicals Industries Ltd. [2017 SCC OnLine Bom. 9401] and DSL Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. v. Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Co. Ltd. [EP No.422 of 2018, decided on 13.03.2018], which are also judgments which took the same view.

iii) In All India Reporter (supra), the Hon’ble Supreme Court held that under the scheme of the Civil Procedure Code, a decree has to be executed as it stands, subject to such deductions or adjustments as are permissible under the Code and as between the judgment debtor and the decree holder, the amount payable represented a judgment debt. The Court held that for payment of income tax on such debts, no provision was made in the decree and the judgment debtor cannot hence deduct at source the tax payable by the decree holder.

iv) Section 195 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 which requires to deduct TDS does not speak of a decretal debt. The definition of ‘interest’ in Section 2(28A) says that ‘interest’ means interest payable in any manner in respect of any moneys borrowed or debt incurred (including a deposit, claim or other similar right or obligation). The said definition also does not include interest payable on a decree amount. In view of the judgments in All India Reporter Ltd. (supra), Voith Hydro Ltd. (supra), Islamic Investment Co. (supra) and Sino Ocean Ltd. (supra), I do not find any reason to interfere with the order dated 10/11/2025 in EP No.202 of 2023 of the 2nd Additional District Court, Ernakulam.”

Stay of demand — S. 220(6) — Pre-deposit of 20% of the disputed demand — Not a mandatory condition — Issue is decided by the Jurisdictional High Court — Assessee eligible for grant of complete stay of demand.

21. Cadence Design Systems India Pvt. Ltd. v. PCIT:

TS – 652 – HC – 2026 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2020-21 & 2021-22: Date of order 04/05/2026:

S. 220(6) of ITA 1961

Stay of demand — S. 220(6) — Pre-deposit of 20% of the disputed demand — Not a mandatory condition — Issue is decided by the Jurisdictional High Court — Assessee eligible for grant of complete stay of demand.

In the scrutiny assessments for A. Y. 2020-21 and A. Y. 2021-22, additions were made by disallowance in relation to the expenditure incurred in respect of the employee stock option plan. The assessment were completed and demands were raised for both the years. The assessee filed appeals and filed applications for stay of demand u/s. 220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s application for stay of demand was rejected, and the assessee was required to deposit 20% of the demand.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court challenging the rejection of stay of demand, primarily on the ground that when the issue is decided in favour of the assessee by the jurisdictional High Court, the requirement of deposit of 20% of the demand would not be applicable.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The leeway granted in the circular which gives the impression that the Assessing Officer may ask the assessee to deposit a lesser amount than 20%, cannot be construed to mean that in every case the Assessing Officer or the Competent Authority shall ask the assessee to deposit 20% of the due demand.

ii) Once the jurisdictional High Court has taken a view, in normal circumstances, the Assessing Officer or the Competent Authority deciding an application u/s. 220(6) of the Act of 1961 is supposed to grant a complete stay, because judgments of High Court are binding on all the authorities, including the authority deciding the stay application.

iii) The writ petitions are allowed and the impugned orders passed by the Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle 4(2) Delhi dated 21/05/2024 (2020-21) and 18/08/2025 (2021-22) and the order dated 15.09.2025 passed by the Competent Authority for both A. Ys. (2020-21 and 2021-22), to the extent they require 20% of demand pursuant to the impugned assessment orders dated 27/09/2023 (2020-21) and 23/12/2024 (2021-22) to be deposited as a condition for grant of stay of remaining recovery, are set aside. Needless to observe that till disposal of the appeals, the recovery proceedings against the petitioner shall remain stayed. The Assessing Officer to do requisite entry in Income Tax Business Application (ITBA) Portal.”

Settlement of case — Application for settlement in assessment pursuant to search and seizure — Undisclosed income in jewellery business — Modus operandi of inflation of refinery loss — Full and true disclosure in application of the manner in which undisclosed income derived — Rejection of application on ground of failure to make a full and true disclosure — Single Judge of the High Court dismissed the writ petition — Division Bench of the High Court allowed the appeal and held that failure of competent authority to scrutinize the assessee’s application in detail resulted in the dismissal of the writ petition — Order in the writ petition and order rejecting application for settlement of the case set aside — Matter remanded to the competent authority with a direction to scrutinize the application.

20. Khazana Jewellery (P) Ltd. v. Income-Tax Settlement Commission:

(2026) 487 ITR 19 (Mad): 2026 SCC OnLine Mad 3939:

A. Y. 2011-12 to 2017-18: Date of order 16/02/2026:

Ss. 245C(1) and 245D(4) of ITA 1961

Settlement of case — Application for settlement in assessment pursuant to search and seizure — Undisclosed income in jewellery business — Modus operandi of inflation of refinery loss — Full and true disclosure in application of the manner in which undisclosed income derived — Rejection of application on ground of failure to make a full and true disclosure — Single Judge of the High Court dismissed the writ petition — Division Bench of the High Court allowed the appeal and held that failure of competent authority to scrutinize the assessee’s application in detail resulted in the dismissal of the writ petition — Order in the writ petition and order rejecting application for settlement of the case set aside — Matter remanded to the competent authority with a direction to scrutinize the application.

The petitioner/assessee is a company engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of jewels. A search u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was conducted at its premises on April 21, 2016. During the course of the search proceedings, the Managing director admitted, in response to question No. 8 in his sworn statement, that the company’s inflated refinery loss would be around three per cent. to five per cent and that excess gold from the refining process was siphoned off and sold in the black market. By virtue of the inflation of refinery loss, the assessee had generated a sum of Rs. 70.66 crores during A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2016-17, which was stated by the assessee in its letter dated June 29, 2016. In the aforesaid letter dated June 29, 2016, the assesee had offered an amount of Rs. 80 crores (268.200 kgs. of gold bullion) towards stock-in-trade kept with and held by the employees, goldsmiths, agents, etc., in the year of search, i. e., A. Y. 2017-18.

During the pendency of the assessment u/s. 153 of the Act pursuant to the search, the assessee submitted a settlement application dated October 16, 2018 before the competent authority. The application came to be rejected.

The rejection order was challenged by filing writ petition. The learned single judge of the Madras High Court, vide impugned order (Khazana Jewellery Pvt. Ltd. v. ITSC [(2026) 487 ITR 1 (Mad).]), concluded that, in order to be eligible for settlement, the provisions contained in section 245C(1) of the Act require full and true disclosure. As the Settlement Commissioner arrived at the conclusion that there was no full and true disclosure, the rejection of the application could not be faulted. Moreover, it was held that the question of changing the stand by converting the undisclosed portion of income into the income u/s. 69B of the Act was beyond the scope of settlement proceedings.

The assessee filed an appeal. The Division Bench allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) We have perused the application filed by the writ petitioner before the authority. The application itself titles “Confidential Enclosure ‘D’: The manner in which the additional income has been derived”. This contains the details of the assessee’s involvement in inflating refinery loss. The process of refinery, as to how the loss was being assumed and periodically accumulated has been explained in great detail. The details run in as many as 25 paragraphs.

ii) The order passed by the authority rejecting the application, however, says that full and true particulars of the materials and evidence have not been disclosed with regard to the manner in which the undisclosed income, i. e., Rs. 80 crores was derived.

iii) We are of the view that the assessee has submitted details of the manner in which the undisclosed income, i. e., Rs. 80 crores was derived. According to the assessee, the stock-in-trade is directly related to Rs. 80 crores which in turn was a result of inflation of refinery loss, which perhaps the assessee was not correct in claiming as such, and this appears to be only a device not to disclose an income which the assessee otherwise had accumulated.

iv) The aforesaid aspect, in our view, was not taken into consideration in a proper manner by the competent authority. Since the rejection of the application for settlement not only results in imposition of interest, penalty, but also in prosecution, we are of the view that the competent authority was required to closely examine and scrutinise the manner in which income was derived, as was stated by the assessee in his application dated October 16, 2018.

v) We are, therefore, of the view that interest of justice would be served if the competent authority scrutinises in detail the manner in which the assessee derived undisclosed income of Rs. 80 crores. We make it clear that even according to the Revenue, as far as the remaining Rs. 70 crores is concerned, the writ petitioner is already eligible for settlement.

vi) In view of the above consideration, the impugned order passed by the learned single judge (Khazana Jewellery Pvt. Ltd. v. ITSC, 1) is set aside. Consequently, the order dated June 11, 2020 is also set aside. The case is remanded to the competent authority for consideration afresh of the writ petitioner’s application for settlement, keeping in view the observations made by this court, more particularly, the detailed application filed by the writ petitioner explaining the manner in which it derived the undisclosed income.”

S. 115BBE — Scope of amendment — Enhancement of rate of tax from 30% to 60% — Prospective or retrospective operation of taxing statutes — Absence of express retrospective language — Onerous fiscal amendment — Applicable prospectively from 01/04/2017 and not from F. Y. 2016-17.

19. Deepak Maratha (S/o Ramchandra Maratha) v. UOI:

2026 (6) TMI 371 – (Raj):

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 27/05/2026

Ss. 115BBE and 271AAC of ITA 1961

S. 115BBE — Scope of amendment — Enhancement of rate of tax from 30% to 60% — Prospective or retrospective operation of taxing statutes — Absence of express retrospective language — Onerous fiscal amendment — Applicable prospectively from 01/04/2017 and not from F. Y. 2016-17.

The Assessee was engaged in the business of jewellery and bullion. During F. Y. 2016-17, the assessee deposited a sum of Rs. 66.17 lakhs (including Specified Bank Notes) in his bank account during November – December 2016, i.e., the demonetisation period. The assessee filed his return of income on 30/10/2017 declaring a total income at Rs. 7,92,860.

Subsequently, the assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny, and the assessment was completed vide an order dated 21/12/2019 passed u/s. 144 of the Act. The books of account of the assessee were rejected u/s. 145(3) of the Act, and it was held that the assessee could not explain the cash deposit of Rs. 66,17,500 in the bank account. Accordingly, the said amount was treated as unexplained money and was added to the total income u/s. 68 of the Act. Further, tax was computed at 60% on the addition of Rs. 66,17,500, and a separate penalty notice was issued under the newly inserted section 271AAC of the Act.

Section 115BBE was amended by way of the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016, enhancing the rate of tax from 30% to 60% with an additional surcharge of 25% on such tax, resulting in an effective rate of 75% plus 10% of tax as penalty with cess, resulting in an aggregate tax liability of 83.25% w.e.f. 01/04/2017 on income falling u/ss. 68 to 69D of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee challenged the retrospective application of the amended provisions of section 115BBE, whereby income earned prior to 01/04/2017 was taxed at the higher rate of 60% plus surcharge and penalty was also imposed.

The assessee challenged the order by way of a writ petition challenging the validity and vires of the retrospective operation of the amended provisions of section 115BBE of the Act. The core issue before the Hon’ble High Court was as follows:

Whether the amendment to Section 115BBE, which enhanced the rate of tax from 30% to 60%, can lawfully be applied to income arising from transactions completed during Financial Year 2016-17 w.e.f. 01/04/2016 to 31/03/2017, and/or more specifically, whether such enhanced rate operates from 15/12/2016, being the date of notification/Presidential assent to the amending Act, or only from 01/042017, being the effective date expressly specified in the amending provision itself?

The Rajasthan High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The assessee had voluntarily disclosed that the relevant sum of Rs.66,17,500/- deposited in his bank accounts during November/December, 2016 was part of his business income for F. Y. 2016-2017. True, the Assessing Officer was not satisfied the explanation of the assessee about this income. But the fact remains that there was absolutely no concealment of income by the assesse in this case.

ii) The rate prescribed in the principal charging section, Section 115BBE itself, is an integral and inseparable component of the substantive tax liability. It determines the precise fiscal consequence that attaches to the taxable event. An assessee who completes a transaction under a regime prescribing 30% tax acquires, at that moment, a vested right to be assessed at that rate. The subsequent doubling of that rate, from 30% to 60%, without express retrospective language, cannot reach back to alter the consequence of a transaction already complete.

iii) The distinction between “imposing a new tax” and “enhancing an existing rate” has never been recognised as a basis for implying retrospectivity in taxing statutes. Both create or increase a fiscal burden on the subject. As Vatika (supra) holds, citing Halsbury: “retrospective operation should not be given to a statute so as to affect, alter or destroy an existing right or create a new liability or obligation unless that effect cannot be avoided without doing violence to the language of the enactment.” An enhancement of the rate from 30% to 60%, i.e., doubling the burden, plainly “affects or alters” existing rights and cannot be treated as a mere procedural or clarificatory change.

iv) In our opinion, enhancement of principal tax certainly creates new liability. The rate prescribed in the principal charging section is an integral and inseparable component of the substantive tax liability. It defines the precise fiscal consequence that attaches to the taxable event, and an assessee who completes a transaction under a regime prescribing 30% acquires, at that moment, a vested right accrues in his favour to be assessed at that rate. The subsequent doubling of that rate, without any express language for retrospectivity of the doubling of rate of tax cannot relate back and to alter the legal consequences of a transaction already completed.

v) The fundamental rule of interpretation is that legislation is presumed to operate prospectively unless a contrary intention clearly appears, grounded in the principle of lex prospicit non respicit, i.e., law looks forward not backward, since every person is entitled to arrange his affairs by relying on existing law without finding later on that his plans have been upset retrospectively.

vi) The correct legal position which emerges is summarized as below:

“(a) The law applicable to an assessment year is the law in force on the first day of that year — i.e., 01st April. A provision coming into force after that date, without express retrospective language, cannot be applied to assessments for that year.

(b) Changes in law occurring after the commencement of a financial year cannot govern the tax liability for that year unless the amendment is expressly made retrospective.

(c) The amendment to Section 115BBE came into force on 01/04/2017 i.e. the first day of F. Y. 2017-18. For F. Y. 2016-17, the law in force on 01/04/2016, prescribing a rate of 30%, must govern. The enhanced rate of tax @60% came into force on 01/04/2017 and can apply only from that date, i.e. from financial year 2017-18 onwards.

(d) The Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016 contains no express language for its retrospective effect of section 115BBE. We thus hold that the Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act, 2016 is prospective in effect as specified therein (from 15/12/2016, except the amendment of Section 115BBE, which is effective from 01/04/2017).” ‘

vii) The question framed in para 8.1, in the preceding part, is answered accordingly. The appellate authority shall therefore proceed further to adjudicate the assessment order impugned before it keeping in mind what has been enunciated hereinabove, in accordance with law.”

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of power of Commissioner u/s. 264 — Capital gain — Exemption u/s. 54F — Failure to claim exemption u/s. 54F in the return — Revised return not filed — Claimed raised in revision u/s. 264 — Commissioner rejected application u/s. 264 — Held by the High Court that the Power of Commissioner is wide enough to grant relief even for the assessee’s errors and mistakes — Power u/s. 264 is intended to prevent miscarriage of justice and grant relief even where errors are committed by the assessee — Rejection order quashed and set aside — Matter remanded to the Principal Commissioner to consider afresh and decide in accordance with law.

18. Nisarg Ajaykumar Vakharia v. Principal CIT:

(2026) 488 ITR 75 (Bom): 2026 SCC OnLine Bom 3455:

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 03/02/2026:

S. 54F and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of power of Commissioner u/s. 264 — Capital gain — Exemption u/s. 54F — Failure to claim exemption u/s. 54F in the return — Revised return not filed — Claimed raised in revision u/s. 264 — Commissioner rejected application u/s. 264 — Held by the High Court that the Power of Commissioner is wide enough to grant relief even for the assessee’s errors and mistakes — Power u/s. 264 is intended to prevent miscarriage of justice and grant relief even where errors are committed by the assessee — Rejection order quashed and set aside — Matter remanded to the Principal Commissioner to consider afresh and decide in accordance with law.

For A. Y. 2022-23, the assessee filed the return of income on July 19, 2022, declaring his income at Rs. 18.10 crores. The assessee’s income included long-term capital gains of Rs. 11.69 crores. The assessee had purchased an immovable property for Rs. 23.06 crores in December 2020, which was registered on February 1, 2021. The assessee had disclosed the new property under Schedule AL (Assets and Liabilities) of the income-tax return for A. Y. 2022-2023. Accordingly, the assessee was entitled to claim any deduction u/s. 54F but by mistake the assessee had not claimed any such deduction u/s. 54F. The return was processed, and an intimation order u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed on October 19, 2022.

Therefore, the assessee filed a revision application u/s. 264 making a claim for deduction u/s. 54F. The assessee submitted that while filing the income-tax return for A. Y. 2022-2023, an inadvertent mistake had crept in as he did not make a claim u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act against the long-term capital gains on the sale of shares. The assessee also submitted a copy of the intimation order, the sale deed, computation of income, etc.

The Principal Commissioner of Income-tax concluded that since the petitioner had not made the claim in his original return and had also not filed any revised return, he could not make the aforesaid claim before the Commissioner u/s. 264, for the first time. Accordingly, the Principal Commissioner dismissed the application filed by the assessee u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act. While doing so, the Principal Commissioner relied upon the decision of the hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. v. CIT [(2006) 284 ITR 323 (SC); 2006 SCC OnLine SC 1446.].

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) We find that the issue raised in the above writ petition is squarely covered by several decisions of this court in favour of the petitioner. This court has time and again held that revisional powers u/s. 264 are not only wider in their scope but are also intended for preventing miscarriage of justice and providing relief to an assessee, which it is otherwise entitled to.

ii) This court has also taken into consideration the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Goetze (India) Ltd. v. CIT [(2006) 284 ITR 323 (SC); 2006 SCC OnLine SC 1446.] and held that the said decision would be wholly inapplicable since the Hon’ble Supreme Court was not considering the revisional powers as conferred under the provisions of section 264 of the Income-tax Act, but was in the context of a deduction claimed by the assessee by a letter, after the return was filed, without filing of a revised return. If one needs to take support from any decision of this court, the decision rendered in Swaminarayan Mandir Trust v. CIT (Exemptions) [(2026) 488 ITR 65 (Bom).] (Writ Petition No. 2162 of 2025, decided on December 24, 2025) would be apposite.

iii) In view of the aforesaid settled position in law, we are clearly of the view that respondent No. 1 ought to have considered the revision application of the petitioner (filed u/s. 264) even though mistakes/errors were committed by the petitioner itself in the return of the income. Once we are of this view, the impugned order passed u/s. 264 cannot be sustained and would have to be set aside.

iv) The matter is remanded to the Principal Commissioner for fresh disposal in accordance with law.”

Charitable trust — Charitable purpose — Exemption — Filing of audit report within the prescribed time is a condition precedent — Assessee, a trust engaged in providing medical aid to the underprivileged — Delay of 687 days in filing of audit report not condoned by CIT(E) — High Court held that, considering the nature of the work done by the assessee and the fact that the audit report had already been filed, and that the reason for the delay in filing was bona fide, this was a fit case to condone the delay.

17. Manav Vikas Bahuuddeshiya Gramin Seva Sanstha v. CIT (Exemption):

(2026) 486 ITR 427 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 6396:

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 03/03/2025

S. 119(b) of ITA 1961

Charitable trust — Charitable purpose — Exemption — Filing of audit report within the prescribed time is a condition precedent — Assessee, a trust engaged in providing medical aid to the underprivileged — Delay of 687 days in filing of audit report not condoned by CIT(E) — High Court held that, considering the nature of the work done by the assessee and the fact that the audit report had already been filed, and that the reason for the delay in filing was bona fide, this was a fit case to condone the delay.

The assessee is a trust engaged in providing medical aid to the underprivileged. There was a delay of 687 days in filing audit report in Form 10B for the accounting years 2016-17. Therefore, on August 18, 2018, the assessee filed an application before the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Exemption) for condonation of delay of 687 days in filing the audit report in form 10B. The reason given for delay was that the Chartered Accountant of the petitioner was not aware of the online filing requirement, which was newly introduced, and that the mistake was unintentional and due to oversight. By an order dated July 25, 2024, the Commissioner of Income-Tax (Exemption) rejected the application, holding that it was not a genuine reason for the grant of condonation of delay u/s. 119(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Considering that the petitioner is a trust, engaged in providing medical aid to the underprivileged, considering what has been held in Al Jamia Mohammediyah Education Society v. CIT (Exemptions) [[2025] 482 ITR 41 (Bom); 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 1157; [2024] DGLS (Bom) 1521.] and the nature of work being done by the petitioner and the fact that the audit report has already been filed and considering the reason appears to be an honest one, we deem it a fit case to condone the delay.

ii) In view of this, the impugned order is quashed and set aside. and the delay in filing the audit report in form 10B was to be condoned subject to costs of Rs. 10,000 to be paid to the Raman Science Centre and Planetarium, Subhash Road, Empress City, Nagpur, Maharashtra 440 018.”

TDS — Credit for tax deducted — S. 199 — Assessee bank received sale proceeds from auction of borrower’s property under SARFAESI Act — Tax was deducted at source u/s. 194-IA — Property ownership remained with borrower — Sale consideration was not bank’s income — Assessee bank was entitled to credit/refund of TDS from sale proceeds.

16. Pr.CIT v. Punjab National Bank:

(2026) 185 taxmann.com 1003 (Del.)

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 21/04/2026

S. 199 of ITA 1961/S. 390 of ITA 2025

TDS — Credit for tax deducted — S. 199 — Assessee bank received sale proceeds from auction of borrower’s property under SARFAESI Act — Tax was deducted at source u/s. 194-IA — Property ownership remained with borrower — Sale consideration was not bank’s income — Assessee bank was entitled to credit/refund of TDS from sale proceeds.

The Assessee is a Bank. The Assessee sold an immovable property by way of an auction under the SARFAESI Act on account of default by the borrower. The sale proceeds were credited to the Assessee after deduction of tax at source u/s. 194-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

In the assessment proceedings, it was the contention of the Assessee that the Assessee was entitled to refund of the amount deducted from the sale proceeds. It was submitted that the Assessee was merely a custodian of the sale proceeds and did not receive the same in the capacity of the owner and that the Assessee was liable to return the excess consideration over the liability to the borrower. However, the Department contended that the Assessee can neither claim credit of TDS nor claim refund unless the Assessee Bank offered the corresponding income in respect of the sale of immovable property.

The CIT(A) decided the appeal in favour of the Assessee and the Tribunal affirmed the decision of the CIT(A).

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) When the tax is deducted in relation to the amount paid/received qua purchase/sale of the property, then one has to bear in mind the nature of transaction.

ii) In case of auction/sale of a property under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, the Bank cannot be treated to be the owner, as it only has possession of the property for having security interest in the property and corresponding rights to sell the same for recovery of its dues. The property neither factually nor by any legal fiction  belongs to the Bank. It is actually the borrower who is the owner of the property having created a security interest in relation to the property in favour of the Bank or secured creditor.

iii) The Bank during the course of assessment proceedings, had clearly explained before the Assessing Officer that it had charged interest on the loan amount and has adjusted all expenses from the sale proceeds it received consequent to the auction. When the secured assets are sold by the Bank, it is only a trustee or custodian of the sale proceeds and any excess amount received in relation to the property over and above its outstanding dues and expenses incidental to the auction, has to be returned to the borrower. Similarly, in case there is any deficit, the Bank can recover the same from the borrower in accordance with law.

iv) The property does not belong to the Bank and therefore, irrespective of  the fact that the amount has been deducted u/s. 194IA of the Act, from the sale proceeds, the Bank is entitled to get refund of that amount because, Bank’s asset was not sold by the Bank. The respondent Bank is entitled to get refund of the amount deducted from the sale proceeds, as has been rightly held by the CIT(A). We therefore, do not find any error in the orders of the CIT(A) so also of the Tribunal. They are hereby affirmed.”

Revision — S. 263 — Lack of enquiry and inadequate enquiry — Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act invoked for verification of documentary evidence regarding the claim of utilization out of accumulations made u/s. 11(2) of the Act — No prior show cause notice issued for invocation of Explanation to section 263 —Assessee furnished details during the assessment proceedings — Enquiry was made and possible view taken — Commissioner cannot re-open the matter u/s. 263 because there was another view or because the Commissioner desires further enquiry.

15. CIT(E) v. Impact Foundation (India)

2026 (5) TMI 331 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 04/05/2026

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — S. 263 — Lack of enquiry and inadequate enquiry — Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act invoked for verification of documentary evidence regarding the claim of utilization out of accumulations made u/s. 11(2) of the Act — No prior show cause notice issued for invocation of Explanation to section 263 —Assessee furnished details during the assessment proceedings — Enquiry was made and possible view taken — Commissioner cannot re-open the matter u/s. 263 because there was another view or because the Commissioner desires further enquiry.

The Assessee is a non-profit company registered u/s. 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 and registered u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and is formed for helping organisations to improve implementation of programs which help women and children in education, health and livelihoods. The Assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at Rs. NIL. The Assessee, being registered u/s. 12AA, also claimed benefit u/s. 80G and claimed exemption u/s. 11 of the Act. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny assessment and the income returned by the Assessee was accepted without any additions.

Thereafter, a notice u/s. 263 of the Act was issued for revision of assessment on the ground that as per the schedule of return of income, the Assessee claimed that it had utilised `6 crores from accumulations u/s. 11(2) and since the Assessee had not furnished any documentary evidence for the utilisation of Rs.6 crores and the Assessing Officer had not verified the issue and therefore, the assessment order was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The CIT(E) without considering the contentions of the Assessee invoked the Explanation 2 to section 263 of the Act and held that the Assessing Officer had not verified the documentary evidences, he had also not verified whether the utilisation was as per the Memorandum of Association, third party verifications and therefore the order was erroneous and prejudicial to the interests of the revenue.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held that the CIT(E) could not invoke his power of revision u/s. 263 where the Assessing Officer had conducted enquiries and applied his mind. The Tribunal observed that prior to the passing of assessment order, the Assessing Officer had, after making enquiry, taken the view that the utilisation of funds done by the Assessee was appropriate and completed the assessment without making any addition. Therefore, the assessment was not erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue and the invocation of section 263 was bad in law.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) We are of the view that the ITAT has correctly reached the conclusion that the order passed by the Assessing Officer dated 12th December 2019 was not erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, inasmuch as, the said order was passed on a verification of all the materials submitted by the Assessee before the Assessing Officer. We are also of the view that the Assessee, as recorded in the order of the ITAT, had submitted before the Assessing Officer all the details as called for, in respect of the accumulation of funds in the earlier years, and also submitted details of the amounts utilized out of those funds. The Respondent-Assessee had furnished all the relevant details of Rs. 6 crores spent by it during the year under consideration, out of the amounts accumulated in the preceding year, and therefore the CIT (Exemption), erroneously held that the Respondent-Assessee had furnished utilization of accumulated amounts under broad heads. The CIT (Exemptions), was therefore of the view that the Assessing Officer could have asked for breakup details, and examined with supporting evidences that the said utilization is as per the objects of the Respondent-Assessee.

ii) Such view and approach to our mind, did not warrant invoking the provisions of Section 263 of the Act, inasmuch as it is not the case that the Assessing Officer had not verified any details. In fact, it is very clear that the Respondent-Assessee had, by letters dated 30th January 2019 and 3rd December 2019, along with the required board resolutions, Form No. 10, and details of utilization of funds, along with details of the accumulation of funds made u/s. 11(2) of the Act, given complete details to the Assessing Officer, and on the basis of the verification thereof, the Assessing Officer had passed the assessment order dated 12th December 2019. Thus, the order of the Assessing Officer could not be revised by the CIT (Exemptions), merely on the ground that further details were required to be called for.

ii) It is settled law that the consideration of the Commissioner as to whether an order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue must be based on materials on record of the proceedings called for by him, and if there are no materials on record on the basis of which it can be said that the Commissioner acting in a reasonable manner could have come to such conclusion, the very initiation of proceedings by him would be illegal and without jurisdiction. The ITAT has therefore rightly come to the conclusion that the CIT (Exemptions), could not have initiated proceedings with a view to start de novo or a fishing inquiry in matters or orders which are already concluded, unless he was able to hold that the Assessing Officer’s view on the issue was unsustainable in law.

iii) The ITAT has rightly considered the provisions of section 11(2) and (3) of the Act so as to reach to a conclusion that the Respondent-Assessee had shown that the accumulation and utilization of funds has been rightly made, and therefore, if at all, the taxability of the same was to be decided, then it had to be decided in the year in which the expiry of the accumulated amount takes place, i.e., AY 2022-2023, inasmuch as the funds were accumulated in AY 2016-2017. The ITAT has rightly come to the conclusion that as far as the relevant facts of the present case are concerned, a perusal of Form-10 revealed that the accumulated amount in AY 2016-17 was to the tune of `14.51 crores up to 31st March 2021, i.e. AY 2021-22, and therefore the non-utilization of the accumulated amount as per Section 11(3) (c) would attract taxation in the previous year immediately following the expiry of the period, i.e. AY 2022-23.

iv) It is also not the case that the CIT (Exemptions) had come to the conclusion that there had been non-utilization of the amount accumulated in AY 2016-17. The only issue which the CIT (Exemptions), had flagged was regarding the non-examination by the Assessing Officer of Rs.6 crores expended by the Respondent-Assessee in the relevant AY out of the accumulated amount of Rs.14.51 crores, which is a situation which attracted clause (a) or clause (d) of Section 11(3) of the Act. As rightly held by the ITAT, such situation of invoking the provisions of clause (a) or (d) would only arise in the year after the expiry of the accumulated period, that is AY 2022-23, and not in the relevant AY.’

v) Prior to the invocation of the provisions of Explanation 2 to Section 263 of the Act, the show-cause notice was required to specify that the aforesaid Explanation is to be invoked against the Assessee, and if the show-cause notice does not mention that the Explanation is to be invoked, then the provisions of Section 263 of the Act cannot apply. As the Respondent-Assessee was not confronted with the aforesaid Explanation, hence, such an order, without confronting the Respondent-Assessee with the invocation of Explanation 2 to Section 263 was not appropriate and sustainable in law. We are therefore in agreement with learned Counsel on behalf of the Respondent-Assessee on this issue.

vi) The reliance placed by the learned Counsel for the Appellant-Revenue on the decision of the Sesa Starlite Ltd (supra) is not well founded in to the facts of the present case, as in such case, this Court upheld the proceedings u/s. 263 of the Act on the ground that on the issue of deduction u/s. 10B claimed by the Assessee, there was absolutely no consideration by the Assessing Officer, and hence the assessment order was passed on a non-application of mind to the material on record, it was hence held that, revisionary powers exercised by the Commissioner of Income-Tax u/s. 263 of the Act were correct and not bad in law. However in the facts of the present case, the decision of Sesa Starlight Ltd (supra) would not be applicable, as prior to the passing the assessment order dated 12th December 2019, the Assessing Officer had raised specific queries regarding the utilization of accumulated funds by the Respondent Assessee, and hence it was not a case of non-application of mind on the part of the Assessing Officer which warranted the CIT (Exemptions), Mumbai to exercise his powers u/s. 263 of the Act. The Respondent Assessee has demonstrated the utilisation of the accumulated funds u/s. 11(2) of the Act, and hence it is not a case of ‘no consideration’ by the Assessing Officer. The Respondent-Assessee has in fact by letters dated 30th January 2019 and 3rd December 2019 replied to all the queries as raised by the Assessing Officer prior to passing the assessment order dated 12th December 2019.

vii) The ITAT has rightly set aside the order of CIT (Exemptions), seeking to revise the assessment order by holding that the CIT (Exemptions) had erred in exercising the jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act, and to reach to a conclusion that the Assessing Officer had conducted necessary enquires regarding utilisation of the accumulated income of `6 Crores for the purpose for which it was accumulated, and had accepted the same as a possible view. Resultantly, the impugned order passed by the ITAT does not give rise to any substantial questions of law requiring interference or consideration in the present Appeal.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Time limit for issue of notice u/s. 148 — Exclusion of period for computation of period of limitation — Effect of decision of Supreme Court in case of Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal — “Surviving period” referred to by Court — Exclusion of time allowed to assessee to respond to initial notice — Held by High Court that Number of days remaining for passing order of issuance of notice would be two days — Period of two days expiring on 10/06/2022 or 27/06/2022 — Notice issued on 27/07/2022 issued much after surviving period — Notice barred by limitation.

14. Hitesh Ramniklal Shah v. ACIT: (2026) 486 ITR 281 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 5960

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 11/11/2025

Ss. 147, 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Time limit for issue of notice u/s. 148 — Exclusion of period for computation of period of limitation — Effect of decision of Supreme Court in case of Ashish Agarwal and Rajeev Bansal — “Surviving period” referred to by Court — Exclusion of time allowed to assessee to respond to initial notice — Held by High Court that Number of days remaining for passing order of issuance of notice would be two days — Period of two days expiring on 10/06/2022 or 27/06/2022 — Notice issued on 27/07/2022 issued much after surviving period — Notice barred by limitation.

For the A. Y. 2014-15, the petitioner filed his return of income on September 29, 2014, declaring a total income of ₹64,86,660 in respect of which no scrutiny assessment was made. Respondent No. 1 issued a notice dated June 29, 2021 under the unamended provisions of section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 after obtaining the approval of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax, Mumbai-19. The petitioner filed his return of income on November 18, 2021 in response to the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act declaring the same income that was declared in the original return of income.

After the judgment of the hon’ble Supreme Court in Union of India v. Ashish Agarwal [(2022) 444 ITR 1 (SC); (2023) 1 SCC 617; 2022 SCC OnLine SC 543.] delivered on May 4, 2022, respondent No. 1 issued a notice dated May 25, 2022 u/s. 148A(b) of the Act and called upon the petitioner to furnish his reply within two weeks to show cause as to why a notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued to the petitioner. In reply thereto, the petitioner filed a letter dated June 3, 2022 requesting respondent No. 1 to drop the reopening proceedings. A further reply was filed on June 17, 2022, inter alia, pointing out that the notice is time barred as per section 149 of the Act; that there was no information with respondent No. 1 which suggested that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and submissions were made on the merits to demonstrate that no income has escaped assessment. The petitioner filed another reply on June 25, 2022 pointing out that the same information was already considered while seeking to reassess the income for the A. Y. 2015-16 and, hence, the reopening for the A. Y. 2014-15 should be dropped. However, respondent No. 1 passed an order u/s. 148A(d) dated July 26, 2022 rejecting the submissions of the petitioner and issued a notice dated July 27, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order and the notice on the ground of limitation. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) After considering the above exclusion period, we observe that the remaining days for conclusion of the procedure for passing of an order in terms of section 148A(d) and issuance of the notice u/s. 148 of the Act would be two days. In the present case, whichever way we see it, the period of two days would expire on June 10, 2022 or June 27, 2022 respectively and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148 of the Act issued on July 27, 2022 is time barred, inasmuch as it is issued much after the surviving period.

ii) We concur with the judgments of the co-ordinate Bench in Dhanraj Govindram Kella v. ITO [(2025) 480 ITR 612 (Guj); 2025 SCC OnLine Guj 4831.] and of the Delhi High Court in Ram Balram Buildhome Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO [(2025) 477 ITR 133 (Delhi); 2025 SCC OnLine Del 481.] which have dealt with the surviving period and quashed the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act passed beyond the surviving period.

iii) In view of the above, it is apparent that respondent No. 1 has acted beyond jurisdiction and we accordingly set aside the impugned notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act as well as all the subsequent notices issued u/s. 142(1) and the show-cause notice on the above ground.”

Penalty — Limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) — Penalty u/s. 271E — Acceptance and repayment of deposits in cash in excess of prescribed limit — Assessment order passed on 31/12/2010 with initiation of penalty proceedings — Reference to Additional Commissioner made on 07/06/2011 and penalty order passed on 30/12/2011 — Held by High Court that penalty order barred by limitation — Six months’ limitation period u/s. 275(1)(c) has to be reckoned from date of initiation of penalty proceedings.

13. Principal CIT v. Thapar Homes (P) Ltd.: (2026) 486 ITR 149 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 11073 (2025) 347 CTR 184 (Del)

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 01/08/2025

Ss. 269T, 271E and 275(1)(c) of ITA 1961

Penalty — Limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) — Penalty u/s. 271E — Acceptance and repayment of deposits in cash in excess of prescribed limit — Assessment order passed on 31/12/2010 with initiation of penalty proceedings — Reference to Additional Commissioner made on 07/06/2011 and penalty order passed on 30/12/2011 — Held by High Court that penalty order barred by limitation — Six months’ limitation period u/s. 275(1)(c) has to be reckoned from date of initiation of penalty proceedings.

For the A. Y. 2009-10, the Assessing Officer passed the assessment order on 31/12/2010 u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, with initiation of penalty proceedings u/s. 271E for contravention of section 269T. The reference was made by the Assessing Officer to the concerned Additional Commissioner of Income-tax (ACIT) on 07/06/2011 and pursuant to the notice issued by the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax, the penalty order dated 30/12/2011 u/s. 271E of the Act was passed. The penalty imposed was for ₹3,44,15,000, which is equivalent to the amount paid contrary to section 269T of the Act.

The CIT(A) set aside the penalty order holding that the order was passed beyond the period of limitation u/s. 275(1)(c). The Tribunal affirmed the order and held that the imposition of the penalty u/s. 271E was to have been made before 30/06/2011 and not 31/12/2011.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) The facts in the Pr. CIT v. Thapar Homes Ltd. [(2025) 483 ITR 248 (Delhi); 2023 SCC OnLine Del 7020; 2023 : DHC : 7808-DB.] are identical to the case in hand. The conclusion drawn by this court is that the limitation u/s. 275(1)(c) of the Act had expired on June 30, 2011. The observation of this court that the appellant-Revenue cannot extend the period of limitation by deciding at his whims and fancies when the notice has to be issued. In the case at hand, the reference having been only on June 7, 2011, surely a notice pursuant to the said reference would have been issued after June 7, 2011, which resulted in the penalty order dated December 30, 2011, hence in that regard, the issue is covered by the decision as referred to by Mr. Bhatia, fairly which is, in favour of the respondent-assessee and against the Revenue.

ii) We are of the view as the issue in hand is covered by the judgment in the case of Pr. CIT v. Thapar Homes Ltd. [(2025) 483 ITR 248 (Delhi); 2023 SCC OnLine Del 7020; 2023 : DHC : 7808-DB.], no substantial question of law arises to be decided in the present appeal. The appeal is dismissed against the Revenue and in favour of the assessee.”

Income from Other Sources — S. 56 — Buy-back of shares at a price lower than the fair market value — Buy-back of shares as per section 68 of the Companies Act, 1956 — Extinguishment of shares — Cannot be held as purchase of property or acquisition of capital asset — S. 56 (2) (x) not applicable.

12. Pr.CIT v. Globe Capital Market Ltd.

(2026) 185 taxmann.com 513 (Del.)

A.Y. 2018-19: Date of order 07/04/2026

S. 56 of ITA 1961 and Rule 11UA of the ITR 1962

Income from Other Sources — S. 56 — Buy-back of shares at a price lower than the fair market value — Buy-back of shares as per section 68 of the Companies Act, 1956 — Extinguishment of shares — Cannot be held as purchase of property or acquisition of capital asset — S. 56 (2) (x) not applicable.

The Assessee was engaged in the business of share broking and clearing of trades. In the course of assessment proceedings being conducted u/s. 153A of the Act, the Assessing Officer made an addition of Rs.16.33 crores on account of buy back of shares u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer held that the Assessee had bought back the shares at the rate of Rs.313.40 per share whereas the fair market value of each shares as per Rule 11UA was Rs.370.46 per share, therefore the difference was taxable u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. It was held that though the shares purchased by the Assessee were its own shares, however, shares constitute capital asset and since the shares were purchased by the Assessee at a lower rate than the fair market value, the difference was liable to be taxed as Assessee’s income.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal and held that the nature of transaction was not that of a mere purchase of shares but was a purchase of own shares under buy-back which resulted in reduction of share capital. The Tribunal also decided the issue in favour of the Assessee and the appeal filed by the Department was dismissed.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) But for Section 68 of Companies Act and the procedure provided thereunder, there is no way can a company buy its own shares. Because buying of own shares is otherwise alien to concept of corporate entity and the provisions of the Companies Act. Securities or shares of a Company can, in a given case be a property in the hands of a Corporate entity but for the issuing company, it is a certificate issued to its members in lieu of the contribution they have made towards the capital or for subscribing to the shares. Buy-back of shares essentially means reduction of capital of the company, which otherwise is impermissible, if recourse to Section 68 of the Companies Act is not taken.

ii) One has to bear in mind that sub-section (vii) of section 68 of the Companies Act mandates that after the completion of the buy-back under this Section, the company shall extinguish and physically destroy the shares or security so bought back.

iii) Section 68 of the Companies Act in so many words expresses that the buy-back of share is reduction of the share capital. There can be no doubt that as per sub-section (vii), the respondent-company must have mutilated or destroyed the shares or so-called property which the Assessing Officer has sought to tax.

iv) A person cannot be taxed for so-called deemed profit from the property (shares) which accrues to it consequent to destruction of the very same property. Because, once the shares are bought back, the purported property extinguishes or vanishes. Hence, the very hypothesis that the respondent company had acquired an asset at lesser rate than the fair market value has no legs to stand on. Buy back of its own shares is antitheses to buying an asset.

v) We are of the considered opinion that the CIT(A) was perfectly justified in allowing the appeal. The view which the Assessing Officer had taken in treating the buyback of shares of the company to be a transaction leading to generation of profit/deemed profit is clearly flawed and untenable in the eye of law. The appeal therefore, fails.”

Exemption u/s. 11 — Educational trust — Denial of exemption — Form 10B filed manually within prescribed period — Electronic filing made after delay of 2,732 days — Application for condonation of delay rejected — Held by High Court that assessee’s conduct neither informed with lethargy nor indolence — Rejection of application for condonation of delay in electronically filing unsustainable and orders set aside.

11. The Borivli Education Society v. CIT: (2026) 486 ITR 652 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 1871

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 17/02/2025

S. 11 of ITA 1961

Exemption u/s. 11 — Educational trust — Denial of exemption — Form 10B filed manually within prescribed period — Electronic filing made after delay of 2,732 days — Application for condonation of delay rejected — Held by High Court that assessee’s conduct neither informed with lethargy nor indolence — Rejection of application for condonation of delay in electronically filing unsustainable and orders set aside.

The assessee is an educational trust. For the A. Y. 2014-15 the assessee filed the audit report in Form 10B manually within the prescribed period. But failed to upload it electronically due to the belief of its Chartered Accountant that electronic filing was not mandatory. The Assessing Officer denied the exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 without assigning reasons and without issuing the mandatorily required show-cause notice. Subsequent applications for rectification and for condonation of delay were rejected without affording any opportunity of hearing to the assessee.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the orders. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Based on the aforesaid facts and circumstances, we are satisfied that the petitioner filed form 10B manually or physically within the prescribed period. True, form 10B was not uploaded electronically. At the same time, the petitioner was not intimated for a long time that this was the requirement for which the exemption was being denied. Belatedly, the petitioner was informed that this was one of the reasons. Therefore, the petitioner took expedient steps.

ii) The petitioner also explained that she had nothing to gain from non-compliance. The non-compliance, if any, was due to the advice of a professional chartered accountant. Even the chartered accountant filed an affidavit explaining her bona fides and the factum of the advice. After the petitioner became aware of the reasons, she took several steps and ultimately uploaded form 10B electronically. Still, the application for condonation of delay has been rejected without adequate compliance with the principles of natural justice and fair play.

iii) In all such matters, there is bound to be some lapse on the part of the assessee seeking condonation. However, the delay should be condoned as long as such lapse is not mala fide and the assessee has not derived any undue advantage out of his own lapse. Besides, in such matters, though the length of the delay is one of the considerations, it is not sole consideration. The quality of the explanation offered is crucial, and the focus must be the quality of the cause shown in the explanation.

iv) Besides, in this case, though the delay appears considerable, there is some merit in Dr. Shivaram’s contentions that the delay should be construed from the day the petitioner was informed of the real reason for the denial of exemption. After it was informed of the real reason, the petitioner’s conduct cannot be said to be either informed with lethargy or indolence. The petitioner took several steps and time and again pointed out that form 10B was already filed manually within the prescribed time.

v) For all the above reasons and upon cumulative consideration of the facts and circumstances about which there was no serious dispute, we are satisfied that discretion should have been exercised, and the delay should be condoned.

vi) Accordingly, we set aside the impugned orders dated October 10, 2024 and November 13, 2024 and condone the delay in electronically uploading form 10B.”

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable; B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

10. Capgemini Technology Services India Limited v. DCIT:

TS-455-HC-2026(BOM):

A. Ys. 2001-02 to 2003-04: Date of order 24/03/2026:

S. 127 and 220 of ITA 1961 and Article 226(2) of the Constitution

A. Recovery of demand of predecessor company — High Court held that recovery of old demand without assessment order — Unsustainable;

B. Power of High Court under Article 226(2) — Territorial jurisdiction of High Court — Cause of action — Assessee successor company post amalgamation — Recovery notice issued upon the assessee in respect of the outstanding demand of the predecessor company — Notice issued in the name of the predecessor company by the AO in Delhi — Transfer of jurisdiction from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 vide order dated 13/12/2023 — Office of the AO in Delhi — Functus officio — Amendment in Constitution – Place of cause of action determinative — Part cause of action in Pune — Bombay High Court has jurisdiction in the petition filed by the assessee.

The assessee is a company. The assessee company is the successor company following two successive amalgamations, that is:

a. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited amalgamated into Kappa Investment Limited vide order dated 16/05/2007. The name of the said company was changed to Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited.

b. Arcient Technologies (Holdings) Limited amalgamated into the assessee company vide order dated 23/12/2022.

In February 2023, the assessee received a recovery notice u/s. 220 of the Act from the Assessing Officer in Delhi requiring the assessee to pay the outstanding demands aggregating to Rs.33.39 lakhs for the A. Ys. 2001-02, 2002-03 and 2003-04. The said notice was in the name of the first mentioned company viz. Felxtronics Software Systems Limited.

Since the assessee was not aware of any such outstanding demands, the assessee filed an application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) seeking copies of orders from which the demands were emanating. The assessee received a response from Assessing Officer in Delhi that the demands were on account of rectification / intimation orders, however, no such orders were provided to the assessee. Some screenshots of the computation sheets were provided and for A. Y. 2003-04, it was stated that no records were available.

The assessee filed appeal under the RTI Act wherein directions were issued to the Assessing Officer in Delhi to furnish full information. Despite the directions, no orders were supplied.

The assessee filed a petition before the Bombay High Court, contending that the demands were non-existent and the recovery was bad in law. A transfer of jurisdiction had taken place from Delhi to Pune and an order (dated 13/12/2023) to that effect was produced by the assessee.

The core issue before the High Court was as to whether the Hon’ble Bombay High Court had the territorial jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution to entertain a writ petition challenging the recovery notice and tax demands originally raised by the Assessing Officer in Delhi against an erstwhile (amalgamated) entity, after the jurisdiction was transferred to Pune and the successor assessee company’s registered office is in Pune.

The High Court allowed the petition and held that it had jurisdiction and on merits, the recovery notices were not maintainable. The High Court held as follows:

“i) The jurisdictional issue of High Court to issue writs against authorities located outside its territories has evolved significantly; Highlighting the provisions of Article 226(2) of Constitution of India as it stood prior to amendment by Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963,

ii) In the present case, the erstwhile entity has amalgamated with the Petitioner, which has its registered office in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice was received in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; the recovery notice and the demands, even if originating from orders passed in Delhi, have a direct impact on the Petitioner in Pune which is within the jurisdiction of this Court; the Petitioner who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, would be affected by the recovery notice and the alleged demands; the consequences of the recovery notices and the alleged demand will be felt in Pune, within the jurisdiction of this Court; it is the Petitioner, who is within the jurisdiction of this Court, who has to defend the proceedings and face the coercive recovery actions. Therefore, a part of the cause of action has clearly arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court. Further, future recovery notices would be issued by the assessing officer in Pune and he is the Officer who would initiate recovery proceedings. Since, the assessing officer in Pune is an authority within the jurisdiction of this Court therefore, the cause of action, at least in part, has arisen so as to confer this Court with the jurisdiction to entertain the present Petition.

iii) Further, in the present case, vide the transfer order dated 13/12/2023, the jurisdiction is transferred from Delhi to Pune u/s. 127 of the Act. Thus, a transfer [u/s. 127] implies that all proceedings under the Act in respect of any year which may be pending or which may have been completed or which is yet to be initiated is transferred to the transferee officer. Thus, the jurisdiction over the completed assessments of A.Y.2001-02 to A.Y.2003-04 also stands transferred to the Pune Officer i.e., Respondent No.1. The Delhi Officer is now functus officio. Any relief regarding the impugned demands can only be granted by the Pune Officer (Respondent No.1). The Petitioner is, therefore, correct in contending that since the officer who is to defend the case, redress grievances, and deal with recovery of the alleged demand, is now in Pune. Therefore, he is the right officer to whom a writ can be issued.

iv) Article 226(2) has used the phrase “may also be exercised” which clearly suggests that Article 226(2) is not an additional condition but an alternate condition. Moreover, Article 226(1), as interpreted by the Apex Court provides for a Court to issue a writ only to the authorities within the territories of that Court, whereas Article 226(2) provides that notwithstanding that the seat of Government or authority or the residence of such person is not within those territories, a writ can be issued by a Court where part or whole of cause of action arise. The two clauses are mutually exclusive and both cannot apply simultaneously by the very wordings of the clauses. Therefore, it is not correct to argue that for Article 226(2) to apply, Article 226(1) has to trigger. If this view is accepted, then perhaps, Article 226(2) would become redundant. The whole purpose of introducing Article 226(2) was to alleviate the inconvenience caused to the Petitioners by dragging them to the Court which exercises jurisdiction over the authority or the Respondent within the territorial jurisdiction of such Court.

v) Accordingly, we reject the preliminary objection regarding territorial jurisdiction. We are of the considered view that at least part of the cause of action has arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of this Court, and therefore, we proceed to deal with the merits of the case.

vi) In the present case, there is absolutely no material on record to substantiate the existence of valid orders giving rise to the impugned demands. The Respondents have failed to produce the orders and service records, despite repeated opportunities. The failure of Respondent No.2 to respond and the inability of the Pune Officer to locate records leads to the inevitable conclusion that no such valid orders exist or were ever served upon the Petitioner. An adverse inference must necessarily be drawn against the Respondents.

vii) Old matters and demands cannot be allowed to suddenly surface on the portal without the underlying orders being available and served. Consequently, the impugned demands cannot be sustained.”

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

9. Suresh P. Bhadani (HUF) vs. ITO:

TS-40-HC-2026-Guj:

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 06/01/2026:

Ss. 143(3), 147, 148 and 148(d) of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Original assessment completed u/s. 143(3) —Re-opening of assessment on same set of facts — Issue considered and accepted by the assessing officer in the original assessment — Re-opening on same issue — Change of opinion — Impermissible —Order u/s. 148A(d) and notice u/s. 148 quashed.

The Karta of the Assessee HUF purchased an office, the agreement for purchase of which was executed on 20/06/2017 and thereafter registered sale deed was executed on 28/06/2017. The return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 was filed declaring NIL total income. The case was selected for scrutiny and notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued. The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Act accepting the returned income of the assessee.

Subsequently, in March 2022, re-assessment proceedings were initiated for the reason that the difference in price at which the property was purchased by the assessee and the valuation as per the stamp duty was taxable in the hands of the assessee u/s. 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer passed an order u/s. 148A(d) on 01/04/2022 holding the case to be fit case for re-opening of assessment and issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for re-opening the assessment.

The Assessee challenged the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act on the ground that the same issue was considered during the course of original assessment proceedings and the submissions of the assessee were accepted and the income returned by the assessee was accepted without any modification. Therefore, re-opening of assessment on the same issue amounted to change of opinion which was impermissible even under the new provisions of re-opening of assessment.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) The reasons recorded in the Order issued u/s. 148A(d) of the Act was already considered by the Assessing Officer in the Assessment Order dated 30/11/2020. The Assessing Officer does not have the power to review his own assessment arrived at during the original assessment. The petitioner had provided all the information which was considered by the respondent. It was also categorically accepted by learned Senior Standing Counsel Mr. Rutvij Patel that the initiation of the reassessment proceedings was on the basis of reassessment made in the case of co-owner Ms. Bhavnaben. However, the issue which was already concluded by way of assessment order dated 30/11/2020, cannot be reopened again on the very same material

ii) It is settled law that the proceedings u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be initiated to review the earlier stand adopted by the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer cannot initiate reassessment proceedings to have relook with the documents filed in the original assessment proceedings. The power to re-examine cannot be exercised from time to time. This issue has been categorically settled by the Hon’ble Apex Court in case of Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi v. Kelvinator of India Limited reported in (2010) 320 ITR 561. In view of the above, the present petition is required to be allowed and the same is hereby allowed. The impugned order dated 01/04/2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and the notice of same date issued u/s. 148 of the Act are hereby quashed and set aside.”

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

8. Chhattisgarh Rajya Open School v. Dy. CIT(Exemption): (2026) 485 ITR 349 (Chhattisgarh)

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 10/06/2025

Ss. 11, 12, 12A(2) and proviso, 12AA of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Registration of trust — Retrospective effect — Assessee educational society granted registration u/s. 12AA with effect from 01/04/2019 despite conclusion of assessment for A. Y. 2016-17 — Appeal assessment pending before Appellate Tribunal — Held by High Court that appeal being continuation of original assessment proceeding deemed to be pending proceeding within meaning of first proviso to section 12A(2) — proviso curative and retrospective in nature to mitigate hardship and ensure fairness — Registration to operate retrospectively — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 allowable.

The appellant-assessee society was established with the direction of the Education Department, State of Chhattisgarh on January 10, 2008. The assessee filed its return for the A. Y. 2016-17 on March 31, 2018 declaring the income as Rs. nil. On September 30, 2018, the case of the assessee-society was selected for scrutiny assessment u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In the meanwhile, the appellant herein filed an application for registration u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act in the prescribed form claiming exemption on the ground that it is an education institution and involved in charitable purposes which was eventually rejected on April 29, 2019 against which it has preferred an appeal and ultimately, on second round, on July 14, 2023, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) granted approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act to the appellant with effect from April 1, 2019. However, the scrutiny assessment was completed and the Assessing Officer declined the assessee’s claim for exemption of the excess of income over expenditure of Rs.5.24 crores (approximately) u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Income-tax Act and passed the assessment order on December 12, 2018 against which the assessee preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) which was ultimately rejected on October 17, 2019.

The assessee preferred an appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal questioning the order of the Assessing Officer as affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and an additional ground was taken that the approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act has been granted by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Exemptions) on July 14, 2023 and, therefore, by virtue of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act, exemption would apply retrospectively.

The Tribunal by the impugned order rejected the appeal holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act has wrongly been construed, as the assessment proceeding was not pending before the Assessing Officer on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023 and accordingly proceeded to dismiss the appeal.

The assessee filed appeal to High Court u/s. 260A of the Act and raised the following substantial question of law:

“Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is justified in dismissing the appeal by ignoring the order granting approval u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act which was passed on July 14, 2023 during the pendency of appeal by holding that first proviso to sub-section (2) of section 12A is not attracted and further ignoring the fact that the appeal was already pending before it (ITAT), by recording a finding which is perverse to the record?”

The Chhattisgarh High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the assessment proceeding u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act was adjudicated by the Assessing Officer on December 12, 2018 and on that day, though the appellant-assessee made application u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, it was rejected on July 29, 2019 and after assessment by the Assessing Officer, on second round, ultimately, exemption was granted on July 14, 2023 with effect from April 1, 2019 and thereafter, the assessment proceeding was subjected to appeal by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) also dismissed the appeal on October 17, 2019, as such, on the date of registration, i.e., on July 14, 2023, appeal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, but the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal rejected the contention of the appellant herein holding that the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act would not be applicable as the assessment proceedings were not pending as on the date of registration and, therefore, the first proviso to section 12A(2) would not be applicable to the appellant herein.

ii)
A careful perusal of the aforesaid circular would show that it mandates that registration will have the effect for the period prior to the year of registration or in respect of which the assessment proceedings are pending and the provisions of section 12A of the Income-tax Act entailed unintended consequences of non-application of registration for the period prior to the year of registration and, thereby, non-grant of exemption under sections 11 and 12 up to grant of registration. This position was also recognised by the Central Board of Direct Taxes while issuing the Explanatory Notes to the provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 ((2014) 366 ITR (Stat) 21), vide Central Board of Direct Taxes Circular No. 1 of 2015, dated January 21, 2015 ((2015) 371 ITR (Stat) 22). It is, thus, a curative proviso, which is but merely declaratory of the previous law. It has, by removal of the hardship, rendered the procedure more relief oriented. It adequately complies with the natural justice principle of fairness to all. Hence, it has to be presumed and construed as retrospective in nature, in order to give the section a purposive interpretation. (See CIT (Exemptions) v. Shree Shyam Mandir Committee, [(2018) 400 ITR 466 (Raj); 2017 SCC OnLine Raj 4367.] paragraph 26.)

iii) In the instant case, admittedly, on the date of registration, i.e., July 14, 2023, the assessment proceeding which has been affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, which came to be dismissed on September 7, 2023. The question for consideration would be, whether the assessment proceeding as stated in the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act can be taken as pending appeal, in other words, whether the assessment proceeding pending in appeal can be taken to be the proceeding pending before the Assessing Officer? Since the appeal was pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal u/s. 253 of the Income-tax Act, though it was the second appeal, but in that appeal, substantial question of law was not required to be formulated which was required to be formulated in appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, as such, that appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the assessment order affirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is the continuation of original assessment proceedings by the Assessing Officer.

iv) It is a settled position of law that an appeal is a continuation of the proceedings of the original court. Ordinarily, the appellate jurisdiction involves a rehearing on law as well as on fact and is invoked by an aggrieved person. The first appeal is a valuable right of the appellant and therein all questions of fact and law decided by the trial court are open for reconsideration. Therefore, the first appellate court is required to address itself to all the issues and decide the case by giving reasons. The court of first appeal must record its findings only after dealing with all issues of law as well as fact and with the evidence, oral as well as documentary, led by the parties. The judgment of the first appellate court must display conscious application of mind and record findings supported by reasons on all issues and contentions (see : Santosh Hazari v. Purushottam Tiwari, [(2001) 251 ITR 84 (SC); (2001) 3 SCC 179; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 375.] followed in Madhukar v. Sangram, [(2001) 4 SCC 756; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 682.], B.M. Narayana Gowda v. Shanthamma, [(2011) 15 SCC 476; (2014) 2 SCC (Civ) 619; 2011 SCC OnLine SC 673.], H.K.N. Swami v. Irshad Basith, [(2005) 10 SCC 243; 2004 SCC OnLine SC 731.] and Sri Raja Lakshmi Dyeing Works v. Rangaswamy Chettiar, [(1980) 4 SCC 259; 1980 SCC OnLine SC 102.]).

v) It is held that an appeal pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) affirming the order of the Assessing Officer is the continuation of the original proceedings of the Assessing Officer and thus, the assessment proceeding in appeal pending before the appellate court, i.e., Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of the first proviso to section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and we accordingly hold that appeal proceedings pending before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal are deemed to be the assessment proceeding before the Assessing Officer within the meaning of section 12A of the Income-tax Act. The impugned order so passed after the effective date of grant of registration and subsequent grant of registration on July 14, 2023 operates retrospectively for all relevant years in the present case, the assessment year 2016-17, though registration was granted with effect from April 1, 2019, as we find that the object of the appellant-society is charitable in nature
within the meaning of section 12A(2) of the Income-tax Act and on which there is absolutely no dispute.

vi) The substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.

vii) Accordingly, we are unable to sustain the impugned order and set aside the same. The appellant-society is entitled for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Income-tax Act. The Assessing Officer is directed to pass consequential order as stated above for the A. Y. 2016-17, expeditiously.

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

7. Classic Legends (P) Ltd. v. Assessment Unit: (2026) 484 ITR 550 (Bom):

Date of order 09/09/2025:

Ss. 92CA(3), 143(3), 144C, 156, 270A, and 271AAC of ITA 1961

Assessment — International transaction — Computation of arm’s length price — Reference to TPO — No variation made by TPO in his order — Whether assessee is “eligible assessee” — Assessee is neither non-resident nor foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii) — Assessee can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is variation referred to in section 144C(1) consequent to order of TPO u/s. 92CA(3) — Assessee is not eligible assessee u/s. 144C(15)(b) — Held by High Court that AO cannot pass draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) — Draft assessment order, final assessment order and notice of demand and penalty set aside.

In respect of the international transaction of the assessee company the Assessing Officer made a reference to the Transfer Pricing Officer u/s. 92CA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Pursuant to this reference, the Transfer Pricing Officer issued notices to the petitioner and thereafter passed an order u/s. 92CA(3) accepting that the international transactions entered into by the assessee with its associated enterprises were at arm’s length price. In other words, the Transfer Pricing Officer made no variation. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer to passed draft assessment order and the final assessment order u/s. 144C r.w.s. 143(3) of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is not in dispute that the petitioner is not a non-resident or a foreign company as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(ii). The question is whether the petitioner would fall within the definition of “eligible assessee” as contemplated u/s. 144C(15)(b)(i). On a plain reading of the said provision, the petitioner can be stated to be an “eligible assessee” only if there is a case of variation referred to in the said sub-section (1) and which arises as a consequence of the order passed by the Transfer Pricing Officer under sub-section (3) of section 92CA. In the facts of the present case, it is an admitted position that there was no variation in the income of the petitioner by virtue of the order of the Transfer Pricing Officer. That being the position, the petitioner cannot be stated to be an “eligible assessee” as defined in clause (b) of sub-section (15) of section 144C of the Income-tax Act. Once this is the case, the entire procedure for issuance of a draft order calling for the petitioner’s objections thereon and taking further steps as laid down u/s. 144C would, therefore, not apply.

ii) We are unable to agree with the contention of the Revenue that the word “variation” appearing in section 144C(1) and 144C(15) would also include “no variation”. This is clear from section 144C(1) itself which categorically states that the Assessing Officer would have to forward a draft assessment order to the “eligible assessee”, if he proposes to make, on or after October 1, 2009, any variation which is prejudicial to the interest of such assessee. When there is no variation, there is no question of any prejudice being caused to the assessee which would then entail him to file any objections to the draft order as contemplated under sub-section (2) of section 144C. We, therefore, find that the arguments canvassed by the Revenue on this aspect is contrary to the statutory provisions.

iii) It is clear that the petitioner in the present case, not being an “eligible assessee” in terms of section 144C(15)(b) of the Income-tax Act, the Assessing Officer was not competent to pass the draft assessment order u/s. 144C(1) of the Income-tax Act. Consequently, there was no occasion for him to thereafter pass a final assessment order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(3) read with section 144B of the Income-tax Act. Accordingly, the draft assessment order dated March 8, 2025; the final assessment order dated April 7, 2025 and the demand notice dated April 7, 2025 as well as the show-cause notices dated April 7, 2025 seeking to impose penalty, are all hereby quashed and set aside.”

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

6. Rallis India Ltd. vs. CPC:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 176 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 19/01/2026:

Ss. 143(1) and 145 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Adjustment — ICDS adjustment — Issue of show cause notice before making adjustment — Show cause notice issued proposing to make adjustment on three issues — No prior show cause notice issued for making huge ICDS adjustment — No opportunity of being heard provided to the assessee — Breach of principles of natural justice — Impugned adjustment to be quashed and set-aside.

The Assessee filed its return of income wherein the assessee made a suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 crores u/s. 145(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) in respect of the Income Computation and Disclosure Standards (ICDS). Subsequently, in December 2022, a notice u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act was issued proposing to make adjustments u/s. 36(1)(va), 145A and 35(1)(iv) of the Act. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny u/s. 143(2) of the Act.

Thereafter, the Assessee received intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act wherein an adjustment of Rs.1284 crores was made in respect of ICDS as against suo moto adjustment of Rs.1.15 cores made by the assessee. The adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) of the Act was not proposed in the notice issued u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act issued in the month of December 2022.

The Assessee filed a rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act to rectify the mistake apparent on record. The Assessee also filed an application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer and an appeal was filed before the CIT(A) challenging the intimation issued u/s. 143(1).

The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) without making any variation to the total income on the issues raised in the show cause notice, but computing the income of the assessee adopting the income as given in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) which was determined after the adjustment of Rs.1,284 crores made to the income returned by the assessee without considering the assessee’s plea to delete the adjustment. The Assessee challenged this order by way of an appeal filed before the CIT(A). The Assessee also filed a letter pointing out that the addition made in the assessment order emanates from intimation and requested that both the appeals be clubbed and heard together.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee against the assessment order and stated that the issue arising from intimation could not be decided in appeal filed against the assessment order and the issue fell beyond statutory boundaries. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal with liberty to the assessee to file the appeal against the intimation without considering the fact that an appeal against the said intimation was already filed and was pending adjudication.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the intimation and the adjustment made in the said intimation. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held that:

“i) The first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act specifically provides that no adjustment shall be made unless an assessee is given an intimation of the adjustment either in writing or in electronic mode and the response received from the assessee must be considered before making any such adjustment.

ii) In the present case, admittedly the Petitioner has not been given any intimation of the ICDS adjustment before passing the impugned intimation. The proposed adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the IT Act on 14 December 2022 did not raise any issue with regard to the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/-, and no opportunity of being heard was granted to the Petitioner on this issue before the intimation was passed. This is, therefore, a clear breach of the principles of natural justice, and in any event in contravention of the jurisdictional requirements laid down in the first and second proviso to Section 143(1) of the IT Act.

iii) The fact that the Petitioner had exercised alternate remedy does not debar the Petitioner from invoking the jurisdiction of this Court. The breach of principles of natural justice is one exception that is consistently applied in negating a challenge in a writ petition on the ground of alternate remedy [see Whirlpool Corporation v. Registrar of Trade Marks (1998) 8 SCC 1 (SC)].

iv) In the present case more than two years have elapsed since the Petitioner availed of the alternate remedy and yet no effective hearing of the Petitioner’s appeal has taken place. The Petitioner’s appeal against the order u/s. 143(3) was disposed off summarily without dealing with the merits of the adjustment made. The Petitioner has undertaken to withdraw the appeal before Respondent No. 3 within a period of 15 days from this order, which undertaking is accepted. In these circumstances we have entertained and disposed-off the present petition. In view of the aforesaid discussion, the adjustment made in the intimation u/s. 143(1) in respect of the ICDS adjustment of Rs.1284,66,97,880/- is hereby quashed and set aside.”

A. TDS — Certificate for deduction at lower rate u/s 197 — Validity — Certificate is valid for the assessment year specified in the certificate unless cancelled earlier — Effective throughout the assessment year and not prospectively from the date of certificate. B. Assessee in default u/s. 201(1) — Since certificate operates for the entire assessment year the assessee cannot be deemed as assessee in default — Consequent interest u/s. 201(1A) is unjustified.

5. CIT(TDS) vs. National Highways Authority of India: 2026

TMI 338 – MP:

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 06/03/2026:

Ss. 197 and 201 of ITA 1961:

A. TDS — Certificate for deduction at lower rate u/s 197 — Validity — Certificate is valid for the assessment year specified in the certificate unless cancelled earlier — Effective throughout the assessment year and not prospectively from the date of certificate.

B. Assessee in default u/s. 201(1) — Since certificate operates for the entire assessment year the assessee cannot be deemed as assessee in default — Consequent interest u/s. 201(1A) is unjustified.

One SECCL entered into a contract with the assessee for the development of national highways. The assessee made a payment to SECCL after deducting tax at source u/s. 195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at marginal rates mentioned in the order of the Assessing Officer passed u/s. 197 for different assessment years.

The assessee was treated as the person responsible for making payments to the foreign contractor, deducting tax at source and filing a return u/s. 206 of the Act. On verification, it was noticed that the assessee had made payment of a contract worth of ₹19,61,36,514/- to the deductee company from 01/04/2008 to 30/06/2008 without proper deduction of tax at source. Upon issuance of notice, the assessee filed an explanation that the payments were made with a lower deduction of tax at source because of the order issued u/s. 195/197 by their Assessing Officer on 30/06/2008 for the F.Y. 2008-09.

The Assessing Officer opined that the payments were made by the assessee for a sum of ₹19,61,36,513/- for the period from 10/04/2008 to 24/06/2008, when no certificate for non-deduction of tax at source was in force, meaning thereby, at the time of making such payment or crediting such payment, there was no certificate. The certificate dated 30/06/2008 came into effect from the date of its issuance. Therefore, the period prior to 30/06/2008 suffered a lower deduction of tax at source than the rate prescribed under the Act. The Assessing Officer, passed an order dated 04/03/2011, assessed ₹31,03,54,504/- as total default of TDS and imposed the interest and directed for initiation of proceedings for penalty, in total of ₹41,89,78,580/-.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee. The Tribunal allowed the appeal and held that the assessee was not an assessee in default as contemplated u/s. 201 of the Act.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court admitted the appeal filed by the Department on the following substantial questions of law:-

“1. Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the ITAT was justified in law inholding that the assessee could not be held to be assessee in default u/s 201(1)? and 201(1A) of the Act and thereby granting the relief?

2. Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the ITAT was justified in law in deleting the interest levied u/s 201(1A) of the Act, while failing to appreciate that the deductor cannot consider the assessment status of the deductee unless and until a certificate u/s 197 of the Act is granted by the Assessing Officer?”

The High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) It is clear from the language of Section 197 that if the Assessing Officer is satisfied that the total income of the recipient justifies the deduction of income tax at any lower rate or no deduction of income tax, as the case may be, the Assessing Officer shall on an application made by the assessee in his behalf, give him such certificate as may be appropriate. Under Sub-section (2), where any such certificate is given, the person responsible for paying the income tax shall deduct the income tax at the rate specified in such certificate unless the same is cancelled by the Assessing Officer throughout the assessment year. As per sub-rule (2) of Rule 28AA, the certificate shall be valid for the assessment year to be specified in the certificate, unless it is cancelled at any time before the expiry of the specified period. The assessment in income tax is always for the entire assessment year. Every provision of the Income Tax Act is liable to be applied for a particular assessment year. Even the tax liabilities are fixed on the assessee for the entire assessment year.

ii) As per the proviso to Section 201, any person, including Principal Officer or Company, shall not be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax, if he furnishes a certificate to this effect from the accountant in such form. In view of the above, the question of law No.1 is answered against the revenue that the respondent cannot be held as an assessee in default u/s. 201 and Section 201(1A).

iii) And so far as the question of law No.2 is concerned, the ITAT was justified in deleting the interest levied u/s. 201(1A) of the Act because the assessee had certificate u/s. 197 for an entire assessment year.”

A. Reassessment — Income escaping assessment — Audit Objections — Relevant details submitted and on record before the AO during original assessment — It amounts to review of assessment — Re-considering of same material to arrive at different conclusion cannot be permitted — Re-opening of assessment bad-in-law. B. Reassessment — Time limit for issuance of notice for A. Y. 2016-17 — Time limit of four years from the end of the relevant Assessment Year applicable prior to 01/04/2021 — Notice u/s. 148 issued on 31/03/2023 — Beyond a period of four years — First proviso to section 149 — No notice could have been issued under the pre-amended provisions — Notice and subsequent proceedings barred by limitation.

4. Sapphire Foods India Ltd. vs. ACIT:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 506 (Del.):

A.Y.: 2016-17: Date of order 16/02/2026:

Ss. 147, 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961:

A. Reassessment — Income escaping assessment — Audit Objections — Relevant details submitted and on record before the AO during original assessment — It amounts to review of assessment — Re-considering of same material to arrive at different conclusion cannot be permitted — Re-opening of assessment bad-in-law.

B. Reassessment — Time limit for issuance of notice for A. Y. 2016-17 — Time limit of four years from the end of the relevant Assessment Year applicable prior to 01/04/2021 — Notice u/s. 148 issued on 31/03/2023 — Beyond a period of four years — First proviso to section 149 — No notice could have been issued under the pre-amended provisions — Notice and subsequent proceedings barred by limitation.

The assessee is a company. In the original assessment for AY 2016-17, an addition of ₹24,80,39,169 was made u/s. 56(2)(viib) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on account of premium charged in excess of the fair market value of the shares by adopting book value instead of the DCF method adopted by the Assessee. The appeal filed before the CIT(A) was partly allowed and the second appeal before the Tribunal was pending for orders.

Meanwhile, on 22/03/2023, show cause notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued along with scanned copy of the audit objections raised by the local audit party informing that there was information in possession which suggests that income chargeable to tax for A. Y. 2016-17 has escaped assessment and the assessee was called upon to show cause why notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued.

The audit objections provided along with the show cause notice contained two reasons for re-opening of assessment. The first reason being that the total amount of premium was ₹30,23,74,146 and premium disallowed in the original assessment was only ₹24,80,39,16 and the balance premium of ₹5,43,34,977 was not disallowed. Thus, there was escapement of income. The second reason for re-opening of assessment pointed out by the audit party was that there was no justification why huge bonus was paid by the assessee to its MD / shareholders in the first year when the turnover of the company was negligible. The expenses were not allowable as business expense.

The Assessee filed its response. Based on the response filed by the Assessee, the re-opening of assessment on the first issue regarding share premium was dropped. However, as regards the second issue, the conclusion of the audit party was adopted by the Assessing Officer.

The assessee filed petition before the High Court challenging the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) We are of the view that reopening the assessment on the basis of the objections of the Audit Party, shall in the above facts, amount to reviewing the assessment already made, as the relevant material was available with the assessing officer during that assessment. It is necessary to draw a distinction between a case where the assessee failed to provide some material /information during the assessment, which was flagged by the Audit Party, as against a case where all information was provided by the assessee, but was not considered or commented upon by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order, resulting in a subsequent audit objection. The latter cannot be subject matter of reassessment, as it shall have the effect of reconsidering the same material to arrive at a different conclusion, which cannot be permitted. The attempt of the Revenue to now hold that the amounts are chargeable to tax certainly amounts to a change of opinion, which cannot be sustained.

ii) It is trite law that the Revenue can reopen assessments based on audit objections to the effect that the assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year has not been made in accordance with the provisions of the Act. In fact, Clause (ii) to Explanation 1 of Section 148 of the Act, which was incorporated into the Act by virtue of the Finance Act, 2022 empowers the Assessing Officer to issue notice reopening the assessment when audit objections suggests that income has escaped assessment. However, the first proviso to Section 148 states that no notice shall be issued under the provision, unless the Assessing Officer has information with him which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. The question that arises now is whether notice can be issued u/s. 148, notwithstanding the fact that the issue flagged by the Audit Party was subject matter of examination in the assessment proceedings and a final decision in terms of an assessment order. We are of the view that the mere fact that objections were raised by the Audit Party cannot change or expand the nature of the power vested in the Assessing Officer to assess/reassess the income of the assessee to a power to review an already concluded assessment.

iii) It is clear that the audit objection pointing out that there is no justification available in the file as to why the amounts were paid, cannot be said to be ‘information’ for the respondent to initiate reassessment proceedings, when the Assessing Officer was in possession of the information and necessary documents at the time of the assessment proceedings. As such, the impugned action of the respondents is unsustainable.

iv) In the present case, the assessee had made a return of its income on 18/10/2016 for the relevant assessment year and had provided all necessary material for its assessment. As such, the extended period of six years for reopening the assessment would not be available to the Revenue u/s. 147 of the Act as it existed prior to April 1, 2021. The period of limitation is thus, four years from the end of AY 2016-17. It is a matter of record that the notice u/s. 148 has been issued on 31/03/2023, which is beyond the said period of four years. Therefore, in view of the first proviso to Section 149 of the Act, no notice could have been issued u/s. 148, as no such notice could have been issued under the provisions that were in force prior to April 1, 2021. We hold that the notice dated 31/03/2023 and the subsequent proceedings are barred by limitation.

v) We are of the view that the impugned notice and order, both dated 31/03/2023 need to be set aside. The assessment proceedings initiated pursuant to the same also need to be quashed. We order accordingly.”

Provisional attachment of property — Powers u/s. 281B — Power must be exercised cautiously — Before attachment authorities must examine whether assessee is a regular taxpayer — Mere reliance on factors such as bank loans or hypothetical future demand is incorrect — Attachment without objective satisfaction is impermissible.

3. ARL Infratech Limited vs. DCIT:

2026 (3) TMI 495 – Raj.:

A. Ys. 2021-22 to 2026-27: Date of order 06/03/2026:

S. 281B of ITA 1961:

Provisional attachment of property — Powers u/s. 281B — Power must be exercised cautiously — Before attachment authorities must examine whether assessee is a regular taxpayer — Mere reliance on factors such as bank loans or hypothetical future demand is incorrect — Attachment without objective satisfaction is impermissible.

A search was conducted at the premises of the assessee and assessment order was passed and on the basis of the appraisal report, Investigation Wing made an addition of ₹4.40 lakhs. The assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A) which is pending.

The Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for A. Ys. 2021-22, 2022-23 and 2024-25 and on the basis of apprehension that demand of ₹1.30 crores may be created for A. Ys. 2022-23 and 2024-25, a provisional attachment order was passed by the Assessing Officer exercising powers u/s. 281B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 making a provisional attachment of the industrial plot which was owned by the assessee.

The Assessee challenged the said provisional attachment order before the Rajasthan High Court by way of a petition. The Assessee, inter alia, submitted before the High Court that it had paid ₹45.43 crores for the A. Ys. 2021-22 to 2026-27 and that the attachment was contrary to the guidelines laid down by the CBDT vide Circulars and OM dated 29/02/2016 and 31/07/2017. Further, due to the past record of the assessee, there was no basis to conclude that there was a possibility of non-payment of demand.

The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) While Section 281B of the Act of 1961 gives unequivocal power to the authority to put the properties under attachment, the Hon’ble Apex Court has time and again held that such power has to be exercised by taking into consideration all the aspects as noticed in the case of Radha Krishan Industries (supra) and the contentions prescribed in the statute must be strictly fulfilled. Once such provision has to be treated as draconian in nature, in the opinion of this Court, the minimum requirement is to give an opportunity to the concerned assessee to make the payment or part of it as required in the Office Memorandum issued by the CBDT. A presumption cannot be drawn that the assessee would not make the payment. Principles of natural justice to that extent would be inherent as the civil rights are likely to be harmed, if action is taken u/s. 281B of the Act of 1961

ii) Before invoking power u/s. 281B of the Act of 1961, the authorities must examine whether the assessee before it is a person who has been a regular tax payer. Merely because he may have taken loan from the Bank for his business, may not be the only sufficient ground to attach the properties. Such attachment, even if provisional, creates a sense of apprehension and fear in the minds of bankers who are giving loans to the concerned units for their businesses. Their public reputation is seriously hampered. Therefore, invoking of such provision has to be done by exercising great caution and care and so as not to harm the reputation of an honest income tax payer.

iii) Even if a demand is raised, the same can be challenged in appeal and maximum amount to be deposited for settling the remaining demand is 20% of the said demand. In the present case, demand of ₹1,30,11,024/- has been provisionally assessed and as of today even the demand has not been raised. Therefore, issuing of provisional attachment order would be wholly unjustified and would go contrary to the purpose sought to be achieved.

iv) We, therefore, disapprove the approach adopted by the respondents and set aside the order of attachment dated 01/01/2026. However, we direct the petitioner-assessee to deposit 20% of the demand, provisionally assessed, with the authorities within a period of one week.

v) It is made clear that, ultimately, if the demand is found to be unjustified or deserves to be reduced or waived, the amount as directed by us to be deposited, shall be refunded with interest to the assessee.”

Collection and recovery of tax — Company —Recovery from director of the Company — Attachment of the Bank Account of the wife of the Director — Unjustified — S. 179 is applicable to the Director of the Company — Cannot be extended to the wife of the Director of the Company.

2. Manjulaben Mafatlal Shah vs. TRO:

(2026) 183 taxmann.com 746 (Bom.):

Date of order 17/02/2026:

Ss. 226 r.w.s. 179 of ITA 1961:

Collection and recovery of tax — Company —Recovery from director of the Company — Attachment of the Bank Account of the wife of the Director — Unjustified — S. 179 is applicable to the Director of the Company — Cannot be extended to the wife of the Director of the Company.

A notice u/s. 226(3) was issued upon the Assessee attaching the bank account of the Assessee in respect of liability of one Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited. The Assessee was the wife of the Director of the said Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited and she had nothing to do with the company. She was neither the Director, nor the Shareholder nor the employee of the said company. In view of the facts, it was the contention of the Assessee that the Department did not have the power to attach the bank account of the Assessee which stood in her sole name.

The Assessee challenged the notice and the action of the Department by way of writ petition filed before the Bombay High Court. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The factual position has not been disputed by the revenue. It is not the case of the revenue that the petitioner was ever a director of the company, and against whom an income tax liability arises.

ii) Once this is the case, the Income Tax Department cannot attach the bank account of the Petitioner, and which stands in her sole name, only on the basis that she is the wife of a Director of Shri Ram Tubes Private Limited. Though the Income Tax Department may probably be able to proceed against the Petitioner’s husband by invoking provisions of Section 179, the same is wholly inapplicable to the Petitioner.”

Assessment — Validity of assessment order — Revised return filed within time — Revised return filed during pendency of scrutiny proceedings based on an audit objection — Assessment order passed based on the original return — CIT (Appeals) annulled the assessment order — Tribunal, proceeding on the erroneous basis that revised return was filed beyond period of limitation, set aside order of CIT (Appeals) and restored matter to the AO — High Court held that where revised return filed is validly filed, the assessment order cannot be passed on basis of the original return — Once a revised return is filed, original return stands obliterated — Assessment order set aside, order of CIT (Appeals) modified, and matter remitted to the AO — AO directed to determine taxable income on the basis of revised return.

1. Tripura State Electricity Corporation Ltd. vs. Principal CIT: (2026) 484 ITR 405 (Tri): 2025 SCC OnLine Tri 552:

A. Y. 2013-14: Date of order 14/08/2025:

Ss. 139(1), (5) and 143(2), (3) of ITA 1961:

Assessment — Validity of assessment order — Revised return filed within time — Revised return filed during pendency of scrutiny proceedings based on an audit objection — Assessment order passed based on the original return — CIT (Appeals) annulled the assessment order — Tribunal, proceeding on the erroneous basis that revised return was filed beyond period of limitation, set aside order of CIT (Appeals) and restored matter to the AO — High Court held that where revised return filed is validly filed, the assessment order cannot be passed on basis of the original return — Once a revised return is filed, original return stands obliterated — Assessment order set aside, order of CIT (Appeals) modified, and matter remitted to the AO — AO directed to determine taxable income on the basis of revised return.

The appellant assessee is the Tripura State Electricity Corporation Ltd. The appellant is engaged in the business of sale and distribution of electricity within the State of Tripura. For the A. Y. 2013-2014, the appellant had filed its return of income-tax on September 26, 2013 disclosing the total income computed at a loss figure of (-) ₹182,05,36,779 as against the loss as per the profit and loss account of (-) ₹13,32,27,00,075. The return of the appellant was taken up for scrutiny under the Computer Assisted Scrutiny Selection (CASS), and accordingly, a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on September 4, 2014 to the appellant, and the details were furnished by the appellant on September 23, 2014.

During the pendency of the said proceedings initiated through the notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act issued on September 4, 2014, the appellant, on February 23, 2015, filed a revised return based on an audit objection by the Comptroller and Auditor General. In the meantime, due to a change in the incumbent in the office of the assessing authority, a notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act was issued on June 8, 2015. Subsequent notices were also issued on August 4, 2015 and October 11, 2016. Thereafter, after issuing a show-cause notice on February 26, 2016, the Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax, Agartala Circle, Agartala completed the assessment on March 18, 2016 by disallowing a deduction of ₹40,36,51,685 u/s. 40(a)(ia), 68 and 37 of the Act and determining the income at ₹1,41,68,85,094.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. The CIT (Appeals) held as under:

i) The Assessing Officer did not address the filing of the revised return; Though a revised return was filed on February 23, 2015 after the issuance of the notice dated September 4, 2014 under section 143(2) of the Act, and since the revised return was filed within time, the original return did not survive and stood substituted by the revised return; Therefore, it was not open for the Assessing Officer to advert to the original return. Certain decisions of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana, Karnataka and Gujarat were referred to by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals). He held that the Assessing Officer was required to issue a notice u/s. 143(2) on the revised return, and since the assessment order was completely silent about the revised return filed on February 23, 2015, the assessment order could not be sustained and was annulled.

ii) U/s. 139(5) of the Act, revised return may be filed if the assessee discovers any omission or any wrong statement in the return filed under section 139(1) or in response to the notice issued under section 142(1) of the Act; Such revised return must be filed before expiry of one year from the end of the relevant assessment year or before the completion of assessment, whichever is earlier. In the instant case, the revised return could have been filed by March 31, 2016; it was however filed within time on February 23, 2015; Since the revised return was filed due to comments made by the Comptroller and Auditor General, there was sufficient bona fide reason for filing of the revised return. It was also noted by the appellate authority that, in the report of the Assessing Officer, it was stated that there was no violation of provisions of law while filing the revised return.

iii) Once a revised return has been validly filed, an assessment order cannot be passed on the basis of the notice issued u/s. 143(2) on the original return. It was not open for the Assessing Officer to refer to the original return or the statements filed along with the it, and only the revised return has to be taken into account for the purpose of making the assessment.”

In the appeal filed by the Revenue before the Tribunal, the Department contended that the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) could not have annulled the assessment order because the assessee failed to bring to the knowledge of the Assessing Officer during the continuation of the proceeding under section 143(2) on the original return, that the assessee filed a revised return subsequent to the receiving of notice u/s. 143(2) on the original return, and that too at the appellate stage.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held that, in the cases cited by the assessee, it was observed that when a revised return is filed, the original return stands obliterated, and the determination of the taxable income is to be made on the basis of the revised return; but in those cases it was not held that issuance of notice under section 143(2) on the revised return was mandatory, failing which the entire assessment proceedings would be vitiated.

The Tribunal erroneously noted that the revised return had been filed on March 17, 2016 (though it had been filed on February 23, 2015), and that this was not known to the Assessing Officer, as the return had been filed at the receipt counter, making it impossible for the Assessing Officer to take cognizance of such a fact in such a short period of time.

It, therefore, held that it was only an irregularity and not an illegality, and that it could have been cured by the first appellate authority by calling a remand report from the Assessing Officer after redetermination of the income on the basis of the revised return; however, the assessment order could not be declared as null and void.

It therefore set aside the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and restored the matter to the file of the Assessing Officer, and directed him to redetermine the taxable income of the assessee after taking the details from the revised return of income.

On appeal by the assessee, the Tripura High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration:

“i) “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the learned Tribunal was justified and correct in law in holding that non-issuance and/or non-service of notice u/s. 143(2) in respect of a valid return furnished u/s. 139(5) during the continuance of a scrutiny assessment proceeding u/s. 143(3) was a mere irregularity and not an illegality, and therefore, in not annulling the assessment order u/s. 143(3)?

ii) Whether the learned Tribunal acted perversely in not setting aside the order of the assessing authority in spite of noticing that the appellant had filed a revised return and accepting the legal position that such revised return will obliterate the original return ?”

The High Court allowed the appeal and held as under:

“i) Once the revised return is filed, it is well settled that the original return stands obliterated as rightly held by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) in his order dated July 24, 2018 placing reliance on the judgments in CIT vs. Rana Polycot Ltd., [(2012) 347 ITR 466 (P&H); 2011 SCC OnLine P&H 17591.] and Beco Engineering Co. Ltd. v. CIT, [(1984) 148 ITR 478 (P&H); 1984 SCC OnLine P&H 800.] , etc. So the Assessing Officer can only take into account the revised return for the purpose of making assessment, and he cannot act upon the original return which stood obliterated.

ii) For some reason in the instant case, the Assessing Officer took no notice of the revised return, and continued the proceedings on the basis of the original return and passed an assessment order on March 18, 2016. This is a clear illegality vitiating his order.

iii) The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) noted the correct legal position as set out above, and also gave a finding of fact that there was a bona fide mistake that impelled the assessee to file the revised return on February 23, 2015, i.e., it was necessitated due to comments given by the Comptroller and Auditor General. It also noted that once a valid revised return is filed, the Assessing Officer has to take cognizance of the same, and he had to issue notice u/s. 143(2) on the revised return. The assessment order was totally silent about the revised return which disclosed a loss of (-) ₹194,75,04,007, and that loss had not been considered in the final computation of income. He, therefore, rightly held that the assessment proceeding was vitiated.

iv) Consequently, he ought to have remitted the matter back to the Assessing Officer after setting aside the assessment order passed on March 18, 2016, and directed him to pass an assessment order after taking into consideration the revised return. Instead he merely annulled the assessing authority’s order.

v) In the order passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, there is a clear error in noting that the revised return was filed on March 17, 2016, just a day prior to the passing of the order on March 18, 2016. The revised return had been filed on February 23, 2015 itself, and the Tribunal, had it noted the correct date of filing of the revised return, because there was at least a one year gap between the filing of the revised return and the passing of the assessment order, would not have come to the conclusion that it was impossible for the Assessing Officer to take cognizance of the revised return. This is because a year’s time is good enough for the Assessing Officer to take note of the revised return, ignore the original return, and then pass the assessment order on the basis of the revised return.

vi) Its view that the step taken at the end by the assessee would frustrate the whole assessment machinery is clearly perverse because once the assessee has a right to file a revised return, and such a revised return was filed within time, the Assessing Officer has no choice, but to act on the revised return only because the original return stood obliterated. Once the statute permits the filing of the revised return by giving such a right to the assessee, the Income-tax Department cannot question the wisdom of Parliament in providing such a right to the assessee, and the Tribunal cannot hold that filing of the revised return would frustrate the assessment machinery.

vii) Its view that it is only an irregularity and not an illegality, is also unsustainable having regard to the judgments cited in the decision of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and also more particularly the judgment of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Mahendra Mills, [(2000) 243 ITR 56 (SC); (2000) 3 SCC 615; 2000 SCC OnLine SC 577.] and other connected matters confirming the judgment in Chief CIT (Administration) vs. Machine Tool Corporation of India Ltd., [(1993) 201 ITR 101 (Karn); 1992 SCC OnLine Kar 202.]

viii) In our view, the Assessing Officer committed a clear illegality by ignoring the revised return, and the Tribunal got misled by noting the date of filing of the revised return incorrectly, and came to the perverse conclusion that it would only be an irregularity, and not an illegality.

ix) Therefore, the Tribunal ought to have modified the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) by setting aside the order of the assessing authority and remitted the matter back to the Assessing Officer for redetermining the taxable income of the appellant after taking the details from the revised return of income. Instead, it set aside the order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), but restored the matter to the file of the Assessing Officer without setting aside the assessment order passed on March 18, 2016. This is a clear error of law.

x) Therefore, the second substantial question of law framed by us is held in favour of the appellant, and so we modify the decision of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in the following manner:

            (a) The assessment order dated March 18, 2016 is set aside;

            (b) The order of the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) is modified, and the matter is remitted to the Assessing Officer to redetermine the taxable income of the assessee after taking the details from the revised return of income, and this exercise should be carried out after providing due opportunity of hearing to the assessee.

xi) Having regard to this view taken by us, it is not necessary to decide the first substantial question of law, but we hold that the reference to section 139 in sub-section (1) of section 143 would include a revised return filed under sub-section (5) of section 139 also, and section 143 cannot be applied only to original returns, and should be applied to revised returns too. The appeal is partly allowed as above.

Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

66. Principal CIT vs. Goldsukh Developers (P) Ltd.: (2025) 483 ITR 715 Bom): 2023 SCC OnLine Bom 3282: (2024) 2 Mah LJ 32

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 10/07/2023

S. 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

The Respondent assessee had filed an application before the Settlement Commission for settlement, and the application of assessee came to be disposed of by an order dated September 20, 2016 wherein the assessee’s application was allowed u/s. 245D(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The said order was challenged by the Revenue by way of writ petition on February 10, 2017. The challenge in the petition was on the ground that there was failure on the part of assessee to make full and true disclosure of income. The assessee raised a preliminary objection on the ground that the said order was passed by consent of both the Revenue (petitioner) and the assessee (respondent No. 1.).

It was the petitioner’s case in the said writ petition that the settlement recorded by the Commission on the consent of the parties was to be ignored because it did not reflect the correct position. It was the case of the Revenue that it had consistently opposed the application of respondent No. 1 for settlement in view of the alleged failure to make full and true disclosure of income.

The High Court dismissed the petition on June 21, 2018, holding that it was not open to the Revenue to challenge the correctness of the fact recorded in the said order by the Commission, particularly when it was not even remotely the case of the Revenue that the consent was given/made on a wrong appreciation of law. The court, of course, held that the remedy for the Revenue would be to move the Commission to correct what, according to the Revenue was an incorrect recording of consent in the impugned order.

Following this, the Revenue (petitioner) filed an application u/s. 245D(6B) on November 22, 2018 before the Settlement Commission for rectification. By the impugned order dated January 15, 2019, the Commission dismissed the application of the petitioner. The Commission came to the conclusion that even if it excluded the time spent pursuing the writ petition from February 10, 2017 to June 21, 2018,the rectification application had still been filed beyond the six months period stipulated in section 245D(6B) and was thus barred by limitation.

The Revenue filed another writ petition challenging this order. The Bombay High Court dismissed the petition and held as under:

“i) We find no error in the finding of the Commission.

ii) Though it was not argued before us and we would keep it open to decide in a proper case, we have our own reservations as to whether the grievance raised by the petitioner before the Commission and in the said writ petition that the consent as recorded was not given would qualify to be a “mistake apparent from the record” which is the only thing the Commission may rectify.”

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

65. Ramesh Madhukar Deole vs. Principal CIT: (2025) 483 ITR 802 (Bom): 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 5145

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 18/11/2024

Ss. 54F, 142(1) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

For the A. Y. 2018-2019, the assessee filed the return of income in wrong Form and subsequently filed the corrected return of income under ITR-3, wherein he claimed deductions and exemptions from capital gains u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s Chartered Accountant failed to respond to the notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act. Consequently, the Assessing Officer passed an ex parte assessment order u/s. 143(3) making additions.

Therefore, the assessee filed revision application u/s. 264 of the Act, praying for deletion of additions. The petitioner submitted all materials in that support of the claim. The Principal Commissioner accepted the assessee’s case on merits but rejected the revision application as not maintainable solely on the ground that the assessee had failed to produce certain materials in response to the notice u/s. 142(1) during the assessment proceedings.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order of rejection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The Principal Commissioner of Income-tax should not have rejected the petitioner’s revision application as not maintainable. We are of the clear opinion that the cause in the present case warranted that the revision be decided on merits and more particularly considering the case of the petitioner, which although was noticed in paragraph 6 of the impugned order, was not taken to its logical conclusion, merely on an erroneous presumption in law that the revision is not maintainable for a reason that the petitioner had failed to produce certain materials in response to notice u/s.142(1) of the Act. In our opinion, there is a manifest error on the part of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax in coming to such conclusion to hold the revision not maintainable in the facts of the present case.

ii) The impugned order dated March 24, 2023 is quashed and set aside. The petitioner’s revision application are remanded to the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax to be decided in accordance with law and an appropriate order be passed thereon within a period of three months from today.”

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

64. Principal CIT vs. Britannia Industries Ltd.

(2025) 346 CTR 242 (Cal.)

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 09/07/2025

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

The scrutiny assessment for A.Y. 2018-19 was completed u/s. 143 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by an order dated 22/03/2021. Subsequently, notice u/s. 263 of the Act was issued, requiring the assessee to show cause why the assessment order should not be treated as erroneous or prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The assessment order was sought to be revised on, inter alia, applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the acquisition of leasehold land and building and the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liabilities. Though the assessee filed a response objecting to the revision of the assessment order, the Principal Commissioner passed an order u/s. 263 setting-aside the assessment order and directing the Assessing Officer to pass the order afresh after considering the issues on which revision was sought to be made.

Against the said order of revision, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal, which was allowed.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) A reading of s. 263 of the Act would clearly show that unless and until the twin conditions are satisfied that the assessment order should be erroneous and it should be prejudicial to the interest of Revenue, the power under s. 263 of the Act cannot be invoked. Apart from that, the statute mandates that the Principal CIT should inquire and be satisfied that the case warrants exercise of its jurisdiction under s. 263 of the Act and such satisfaction should be manifest in the show-cause notice which is issued under the said provision.

ii) The Tribunal considered the factual position and found that out of the five issues which were raised in the show-cause notice issued u/s. 263 of the Act, except for three issues the explanation offered by the assessee in respect of the other issues were accepted by the Principal CIT. Furthermore, on facts, it is clear that the Principal CIT invoked its jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act at the instance of the Assessing Officer, which was incorrect. Therefore, the finding of the learned Tribunal that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power u/s. 263 of the Act solely based upon the reference made by the Assessing Officer is well founded.

iii) As regards the merits of the case, i.e. regarding the applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the transaction of purchase of land by the assessee from Bombay Dyeing & Manufacturing Company Ltd., it is undisputed that all the facts were placed before the AO and they were also disclosed in the notes of the tax audit report and the notes to the computation of income filed along with the return of income and those were scrutinised by the Assessing Officer. In fact, the learned Tribunal has extracted the relevant portion of the notes filed by the assessee before the Assessing Officer. Therefore, it cannot be stated that the Assessing Officer did not take into account all the factors and had accepted the plea of the assessee and completed the assessment. Therefore, the Principal CIT to invoke its power under s. 263 of the Act has to apply its mind to the audit report and record its satisfaction that the twin conditions required to be complied with under s. 263 of the Act have not been satisfied. Therefore, the Tribunal was fully justified in holding that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power under s. 263 of the Act. Though in the show-cause notice it is alleged that these aspects were not taken into consideration by the Assessing Officer, curiously enough in the order passed u/s. 263 of the Act dated 29/03/2023 the Principal CIT states that the Assessing Officer has not considered these aspects during the course of assessment; he has not made any inquiry on the issue nor did he issue any questionnaire in this regard and also held that the assessee in its reply dated 13/03/2023 did not contradict these facts. This finding rendered by the Principal CIT in its order is factually incorrect and the outcome of total non-application of mind. Therefore, the finding rendered by the learned Tribunal is fully justified.

iv) As regards the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liability, the Principal CIT, while passing the order u/s. 263 of the Act miserably failed to render any finding despite the fact that the assessee placed reliance on the decision in the case of Principal CIT vs. Eveready Industries India Ltd. and, accordingly, set aside the order passed by the Assessing Officer with a direction to the Assessing Officer to examine whether the decision in the case of Eveready Industries India Ltd. would be applicable to the case of the assessee or not after giving due opportunity of being heard to the assessee. The manner in which the Principal CIT has dealt with this issue is wholly untenable and, therefore, the learned Tribunal was justified in setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT on that score. Tribunal was right in allowing the assessee’s appeal and setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT.”

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

63. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd. vs. CCIT

TS-150-HC-2026(Tel.)

A.Ys.: 2012-13 and 2013-14: Date of order 30/01/2026

Rule 29 of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, 1963

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

The assessee, a public limited company, engaged in the research, production and sale of hybrid seeds and crops. In the scrutiny assessment for A. Y. 2012-13 and 2013-14, addition and disallowance was made u/s. 10(1) and section 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee was partly allowed, wherein the addition made u/s. 10(1) of the Act was deleted and the disallowance made u/s. 14A of the Act was confirmed. Against the order of the CIT(A), cross appeals were filed by the assessee and the department. The Tribunal remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer with a direction to examine the nature of business of the assessee and to determine whether the nature of the business was agricultural or not, and also to recompute the disallowance depending upon the determination of the nature of the business of the assessee.

During the pendency of the appeal before the Tribunal, a search was conducted at the business premises of the assessee, wherein certain incriminating material was found. Thereafter, notice u/s. 153A of the Act was issued. Pending the appeal before the Tribunal, the Department filed an application before the Tribunal for admission of additional evidence to bring on record before the Tribunal, the alleged incriminating material / documents found during the course of search. Despite the assessee’s opposition to the admission of the incriminating material as additional evidence, the Tribunal allowed the application. On the basis of the said documents, the Tribunal concluded that the addition u/s. 10(1) was not sustainable and remanded the matter to the AO as regards the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the High Court, the assessee challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in invoking Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, 1963 and in accepting the additional evidence since Rule 29 expressly prohibits the department from bringing on record such additional evidence. Further, the assessee also challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in taking into account the evidence of proceedings u/s. 153A of the Act as the proceedings u/s. 153A are separate and the same could not be relied upon in an appeal before the Tribunal.

The Telangana High Court decided the appeal, in favour of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) A perusal of Rule 29 of the Rules, makes it clear that the very foremost words of the Rule explicitly provide that the parties to an appeal are not entitled, as a matter of right, to produce additional evidence, either oral or documentary, before the Tribunal. The Rule further makes it clear that it is the Tribunal alone, which is competent to direct either party to produce any witness to be examined or affidavit to be filed or may allow such evidence to be adduced.

ii) Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, abundantly makes it clear that neither of the parties to the appeal can independently file additional evidence, either oral or documentary and it is only the Tribunal on its own can direct either of the parties to produce any documents or witness or any affidavit to be filed for determination of the dispute and if the income tax authorities decide the case without giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee either on the points specified or not specified, the Tribunal may, for reasons to be recorded, permit the production of such evidence by the assessee. The words envisaged in Rule 29, therefore leaves no scope for either the Revenue or the assessee to file applications to adduce evidence as a matter of right. Only the learned ITAT alone is empowered to direct either of the parties to produce additional evidence and only in the cases where there is total denial of giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee, the assessee has got a right to file such application seeking permission to adduce additional evidence.

iii) The learned ITAT exceeded in its jurisdiction and acted in gross violation of Rule 29 by allowing the application filed by the Revenue in a routine manner and remanding the matter to the Assessing Authority for fresh determination.

iv) The judgements relied upon by the department were distinguishable on the ground that in those cases, the discretion of the Tribunal was exercised to admit additional evidence for substantial causes or where the evidence could not be produced before the lower authorities due to genuine difficulties, such as non-retrievability of emails or documents. The Tribunal, in those cases, acted after determining that the evidence was necessary for proper adjudication. Further, many of those judgments arose under different statutory provisions, such as Order XLI Rule 27 and or other laws, and did not specifically consider Rule 29 of the Rules as that fall for consideration in the instant case. None of the judgments expressly held that either party could file an application for additional evidence as a matter of right under Rule 29

v) In the instant case, the application filed by the Revenue as a matter of right, was allowed by the learned ITAT, without proper appreciation of Rule 29, which is impermissible in law. We are of the considered view, that the impugned orders of the learned ITAT are in gross violation of procedures contemplated under Rule 29 of the Rules and the learned ITAT exceeded its jurisdiction and thus, the impugned order are liable to be set aside.”

Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Adjustment to the return of income — First proviso — Mandatory in nature — No adjustment to be made unless an opportunity is given to the assessee — No prior opportunity to the assessee before making adjustment — Intimation u/s. 143(1) is liable to be quashed and set-aside.

62. Bax India Ventures Pvt. Ltd. vs. CPC

2026 (2) TMI 319 Bom.

Date of order: 02/02/2026

Ss. 143(1) of ITA 1961

Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Adjustment to the return of income — First proviso — Mandatory in nature — No adjustment to be made unless an opportunity is given to the assessee — No prior opportunity to the assessee before making adjustment — Intimation u/s. 143(1) is liable to be quashed and set-aside.

The Assessee company filed its return of income u/s. 139(8A) and claimed the benefit of lower rate of tax as per section 115BAA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Along with the return filed u/s. 139(8A), the assessee also filed Form 10-IC which was mandatory as per section 115BAA of the Act. However, the Assessee’s claim was denied, and an adjustment was made in the Intimation order u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act.

The Assessee challenged the said Intimation order by way of writ petition before the High Court on the ground that the assessee was not given prior intimation about the proposed adjustment and therefore the Intimation order passed u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act was not sustainable and ought to be set-aside.

The contention of the Department was that the present case was that of denying the beneficial rate of tax to the assessee and not that of adjustment to the total income or loss and therefore there was no need to provide an opportunity to the assessee. Further, since the assessee had failed to file the return of income along with Form 10-IC by the due date mentioned u/s. 139(1), the tax was correctly levied at the normal rate of tax.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) Admittedly, no intimation was given to the assessee as contemplated in the first proviso to Section 143 (1) (a). The first proviso, in our opinion, is clearly mandatory in nature, as it clearly stipulates that no adjustment ‘shall be made’ unless an intimation is given to the assessee of such adjustment either in writing or in electronic mode. Once this is a mandatory provision, no Intimation order u/s. 143(1)(a) can be passed, making any adjustment in the Return of Income filed by the assessee, unless such proposed adjustment is first intimated to the assessee and he has been given a chance to respond thereto.

ii) In the facts of the present case, no intimation as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a) was ever issued to the Petitioner. This is an undisputed fact. On this ground alone, the Intimation order dated 1st December, 2025, issued u/s. 143(1)(a), is liable to be quashed and set aside.

iii) We are unable to agree with the submission of the learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the Revenue that this exercise would be an exercise in futility because in the facts of the present case, admittedly, Form 10-IC was not filed by the due date. There could very well be a case where, after belatedly filing a return and belatedly filing Form 10-IC, and before the Intimation order is passed u/s. 143 (1)(a), the Petitioner could have obtained an order seeking condonation of delay in filing form 10-IC u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act. This could possibly be the response that the assessee may give to the CPC in respect of the notice issued under the first proviso to Section 143(1) (a) and contend that the proposed adjustment ought not to be made. It is therefore incorrect to suggest that the intimation proposing an adjustment, as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a), would be an exercise in futility. Once we find that the said provision is mandatory in nature, the same has to be complied with by the Revenue. The Revenue cannot decide in which case it would be futile and in which case it would not.

iv) The Department is free to issue a notice to the assessee as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a) as well as take the response of the Petitioner, if any, into the consideration, and only thereafter pass a fresh Intimation order as contemplated u/s. 143(1)(a)”

Equalisation levy — Refund — Interest on refund — Refund granted as excess Equalisation levy paid by assessee after three years — Obligation on Department to pay interest as compensation for use and retention of money collected in excess — Department’s contention that statute does not provide for payment of interest on refund of equalisation levy not tenable — High Court directed the Department to pay interest at the rate of six per cent from April 1 of the year following the financial year in which excess payments made by assessee till date of actual refund.

61. Group M Media India (P) Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax): (2025) 483 ITR 593 (Bom): 2023 SCC OnLine 2740: (2024) 336 CTR 270 (Bom)

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 18/12/2023

S. 244A of ITA 1961 and Ss. 164(i), 165, 166 and 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016

Equalisation levy — Refund — Interest on refund — Refund granted as excess Equalisation levy paid by assessee after three years — Obligation on Department to pay interest as compensation for use and retention of money collected in excess — Department’s contention that statute does not provide for payment of interest on refund of equalisation levy not tenable — High Court directed the Department to pay interest at the rate of six per cent from April 1 of the year following the financial year in which excess payments made by assessee till date of actual refund.

The petitioner assessee availed “specified services” as defined in clause (i) of section 164 of the Finance Act, 2016, effective from April 1, 2016. Section 164 of the Finance Act, 2016 ((2016) 384 ITR (Stat) 1) provides in clause (i), unless the context otherwise requires, “specified service” means online advertisement, any provision for digital advertising space or any other facility or service for the purpose of online advertisement and includes any other service as may be notified by the Central Government.

For the A. Y. 2018-19, the petitioner filed its statement of specified income originally on June 26, 2018 disclosing the total consideration for specified services at ₹3,99,41,76,889 and equalisation levy of ₹23,96,50,668. After declaring the total levy paid of ₹23,96,50,670, the assessee claimed a refund of ₹4,23,60,940.

By an intimation/order u/s. 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016 the Department determined the refund at ₹4,23,60,940. However, despite repeated requests, the refund was not given. The assessee therefore filed a writ petition alleging that there is failure on the part of the respondents to release the undisputed refund due and determined by the respondents themselves in the intimation/order issued u/s. 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016 ((2016) 384 ITR (Stat) 1) for the F. Y. 2017-2018 corresponding to the A. Y. 2018-2019 despite reminders sent and for a direction to the respondents to refund an admitted amount of ₹4,23,60,940 plus interest thereon. After filing the writ petition the Department gave the refund of the amount but refused to give interest on refund.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The issue that remains to be decided in this petition is whether the petitioner was entitled to interest on the amount refunded.

ii) The stand of the Revenue is interest is not provided for refund of amounts deposited under the equalisation levy and, therefore, the question of payment of any interest does not arise.

iii) When the collection is illegal, there is corresponding obligation on the Revenue to refund such amount with interest in-as-much as they have retained and enjoyed the money deposited.

iv) In Union of India vs. Tata Chemicals Ltd. [(2014) 363 ITR 658 (SC); (2014) 6 SCC 335; (2014) 3 SCC (Civ) 553; 2014 SCC OnLine SC 176; (2014) 43 taxmann.com 240 (SC).] the apex court also held that refund due and payable to the assessee is debt owed and payable by the Revenue.

v) In the present case, it is not in doubt that the petitioner was entitled to refund of ₹4,23,60,940 because the amount has been paid after the petition was filed. Since the excess amount has been paid over by the petitioner on various dates during the F. Y. 2017-2018, in our view, the refund ought to have been processed and paid latest by July 31, 2018. The interest, therefore, of course, will become payable from April 1, 2018 if we apply the principles prescribed in section 244A of the Act. The amount, as noted earlier, has been paid only on August 21, 2023. Consequently, we are of the view that the petitioner is entitled to interest on this amount of ₹4,23,60,940 from April 1, 2018 up to August 21, 2023 at the rate of six per cent. per annum which is the rate prescribed u/s. 244A of the Act.

vi) This order shall be given effect to and the interest shall be paid over on or before February 15, 2024. If not paid, with effect from February 16, 2024, the rate of interest payable will be at nine per cent. per annum until the date of payment.

vii) This will be in addition to other proceedings to hold the Department and concerned officers to be in wilful disobedience of the orders passed by this court. The difference of three per cent. (nine per cent. – six per cent.) will be recovered from the Officer who will be responsible to have the interest paid.”

Re-opening of assessment — Re-assessment in respect of transactions which were not mentioned in the show cause notice u/s. 148A — Explanation to section 147 — Re-assessment on a different transaction which was not intimated to the assessee in the show cause notice — Reassessment on issues which come to notice of the AO subsequently — AO can make assessment of such issues only after the re-assessment proceedings have commenced — Since the AO proceeded to issue notice u/s. 148 on an issue other than the issue mentioned in the show cause notice, re-opening held to be bad in law and the order u/s. 148A(3) and notice issued u/s. 148A quashed and set-aside.

60. Balmer Lawrie and Company Limited vs. UOI

2026 (1) TMI-628-(Cal.)

A. Y. 2019-20: Date of order 09/01/2026

Ss. 148 and 148A of ITA 1961

Re-opening of assessment — Re-assessment in respect of transactions which were not mentioned in the show cause notice u/s. 148A — Explanation to section 147 — Re-assessment on a different transaction which was not intimated to the assessee in the show cause notice — Reassessment on issues which come to notice of the AO subsequently — AO can make assessment of such issues only after the re-assessment proceedings have commenced — Since the AO proceeded to issue notice u/s. 148 on an issue other than the issue mentioned in the show cause notice, re-opening held to be bad in law and the order u/s. 148A(3) and notice issued u/s. 148A quashed and set-aside.

The assessee, a Government Company, was engaged in several businesses which the company conducts, one such business being to provide travel facilities, including air travel services, to its customers. In the course of its air travel services, the petitioner’s customers often seek air travel insurance, which is facilitated by the assessee through empanelled insurers, one such insurer being Reliance General Insurance (Reliance). Apart from this, the assessee also has hoardings and other spaces at its premises for putting up marketing banners or advertisement material, and the assessee uses the same for generating revenue.

During the F. Y. 2018-19, relevant to A. Y. 2019-20, the assessee received a sum of ₹1,10,33,116/- towards commission for insurance from Reliance and offered the same to tax, while filing its return of income for the said A. Y. on 31/10/2019. The return was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act,1961 and the return of income was accepted.

On 30/03/2025, a show cause u/s. 148A(1) of the Act was issued stating that there was information suggesting that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment within the meaning of section 147 of the Act. Along with the said notice, information was supplied which, inter alia, contained Case Related Information Detail, Dissemination Note and certain other documents, including Excel sheets, relevant chapters of appraisal report pertaining to the search operation conducted in respect of Shri Ajay Mehta and Others and relevant statements recorded during such search operation. By the said notice, the petitioner was asked to show cause as to why a notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued.

In response to the said notice, the assessee furnished its reply and submitted various details, such as details of payments received from Reliance, including UTR numbers and sample policy issued to customers and requested for dropping the reassessment proceedings.

Upon receipt of the said reply, the revenue authorities issued another notice dated 14/06/2025 u/s. 148A(1) of the Act. The annexure to the said notice referred to the earlier notice dated 30/03/2025 issued u/s. 148A(1) of the Act and indicated that the issuer of the fresh notice had taken over charge of Circle 5(1), Kolkata, on 16/05/2025 and had considered the submissions made by the assessee on 09/04/2025. Further, the assessee was requested to furnish further submission/document, if any, on or before 20/06/2025. The said notice was followed by another notice dated 16/06/2025 again u/s. 148A(1) of the Act, along with an annexure, whereby the assessee was informed that the reply dated 09/04/2025 did not correlate with the notice and information shared with the assessee and that the information was therefore once again being shared with the petitioner.

The assessee furnished its fresh reply to the said show cause notice on 20/06/2025, thereby objecting to the impugned proceedings for reassessment on similar lines as done in its earlier reply and prayed to drop the reassessment proceedings.

Thereafter, an order u/s. 148A(3) of the Act was passed by the AO on 28/06/2025, holding the case to be fit for issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act. In the said order, the Assessing Officer referred to the transactions of the assessee with one Prudent Insurance Brokers (Prudent) and held that income had escaped assessment insofar as transactions with Prudent were concerned, as there was an unaccounted receipt. Immediately after the said order, notice u/s 148 of the Act was issued on 30/06/2025.

Against the said order and notice, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Calcutta High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The impugned order passed u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961, reveals that the relevant Assessing Officer has proceeded to reopen the petitioner’s case on a ground that did not find mention in the notice to show cause issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961. In the notice to show cause issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has flagged the transactions between the petitioner and Reliance, in the order u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has changed the basis of reopening from the transaction between the petitioner and Reliance to transaction between the petitioner and Prudent. If the explanation sought from the petitioner by the notice issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961 was in respect of its transactions with Reliance, then the order u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961 could not have rolled on a different turf. It is very well settled now that an order cannot travel beyond the confines of the notice to show cause.

ii) By proceeding on a ground different than the one urged in the notice u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has indirectly accepted the petitioner’s contentions in response to the said notice. That being the position, the defence of the petitioner against reopening of proceedings for assessment of its income could not have been trumped by the Assessing Officer by relying on a ground that was never put to the petitioner.

iii) Information provided to the petitioner and relied on by the Assessing Officer does not suggest that the petitioner’s income has in any manner escaped assessment at least on the basis of the material presently on record. The legal principles established by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Lakhmani Mewal Das (supra) still remain foundational to the income tax jurisprudence. The requirement of “rational connection” which in terms of the said judgment “postulates that there must be a direct nexus or live link between the material coming to the notice of the Income Tax Officer” cannot be given a go-by. Thus direct nexus or live link between the information and the Income Tax Officer’s opinion that income has escaped assessment will have to be established. Indeed at the stage of issuance of notice u/s. 148 the Assessing Officer is not required to conclusively prove that income has escaped assessment but then the information must suggest that there is income has escaped assessment. In the case at hand there is no such suggestion at all.

iv) It must be kept in mind that reopening of assessment is a serious action and it must be done strictly in accordance with law. In the case at hand at least two conditions justifying invocation of writ powers stand satisfied – arbitrariness in changing the ground of reopening indicated in the show cause notice and consequential violation of principles of natural justice in passing an order against the petitioner based on a ground which the petitioner had no opportunity to deal with.

v) A meaningful reading of the provisions of Section 147 of the Act would make it clear that the same would get activated only after completing the drill in Section 148 and 148A (where applicable) and not before that. The power of the Assessing Officer to assess or reassess income in respect of issues which come to his notice subsequently can be exercised only after the assessment or reassessment proceedings have commenced. The emboldened and underscored portion of the Explanation to Section 147 of the said Act of 1961 makes the said aspect very clear.

vi) For all the reasons aforesaid, the order impugned dated June 28, 2025 passed u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961 and the consequential reopening notice dated June 30, 2025 issued u/s. 148 of the said Act of 1961 in respect of A. Y. 2019-20 fail to withstand judicial scrutiny. The same are set aside.”

Re-opening of assessment — Findings given in Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) — No material or evidence to suggest escapement of income — No infirmity in documentary evidence furnished by the assessee — Re-opening of assessment merely on the basis of STR report is bad-in-law.

59. Vivaansh Eductech (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT

(2025) 181 taxmann.com 873 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2021-22: Date of order 16/12/2025

Ss. 147, 148 and 148A of ITA 1961

Re-opening of assessment — Findings given in Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) — No material or evidence to suggest escapement of income — No infirmity in documentary evidence furnished by the assessee — Re-opening of assessment merely on the basis of STR report is bad-in-law.

A notice u/s. 148A(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, dated 31/03/2025, was issued upon the assessee for AY 2021-22, requiring the assessee to show cause why the case of the assessee should not be re-opened u/s. 148 of the Act. In response to the notice, the assessee furnished a detailed reply objecting to the reopening of the assessment. Thereafter, vide order dated 19/06/2025, it was concluded that the income of ₹12,16,51,000 had escaped assessment and that the case of the assessee was fit for re-opening of assessment.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the said order. The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) A perusal of the impugned notice as well as the impugned order reveals that the respondent has formed such an opinion primarily on the allegation that the petitioner had entered into “circuitous” transactions with related parties. However, we do not find any material or evidence worth the name on record to suggest that there was any escapement of income on account of such transactions, which would invite the rigours of Section 148 of the Act. No finding has been recorded by the respondent-authorities with regard to any exchange of cash or any return of money after the execution of the transactions in question.

ii) The assessment has been re-opened merely on the basis of the findings emerging from the STR (Suspicious Transaction Report), without duly considering the submissions and explanations tendered by the petitioner. We also find that the petitioner had fully disclosed the income and had justified the same in the reply filed before the authorities

iii) The respondent has neither doubted the documentary evidence produced by the petitioner nor pointed out any infirmity in the material furnished in relation to the transactions reflected in the petitioner’s bank account. The said documentary evidence has neither been dealt with nor even considered by the respondent while passing the impugned order.

iv) In such circumstances, the impugned Notice dated 31/03/2025 as well as the impugned Order dated 19/06/2025 cannot be sustained and deserve to be quashed and set aside.”

Offences and prosecution — Criminal prosecution — Income surrendered during the assessment — Tax paid to buy peace and avoid further litigation — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) levied — Concealment of income — Appeal of the assessee allowed by the CIT(A) and ITAT — Department’s appeal before the High Court dismissed — Order of penalty does not exist — Criminal proceedings cannot be allowed to continue in such case.

58. Shiv Kumar Jaiswal vs. The State of UP

2026 (1) TMI 371 (All.)

Date of order 05/01/2026

S. 276C(1) and 277 of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Criminal prosecution — Income surrendered during the assessment — Tax paid to buy peace and avoid further litigation — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) levied — Concealment of income — Appeal of the assessee allowed by the CIT(A) and ITAT — Department’s appeal before the High Court dismissed — Order of penalty does not exist — Criminal proceedings cannot be allowed to continue in such case.

The assessee and his wife jointly owned a hotel and gifted the said hotel, out of love and affection, to one Mr. Raj Kumar, who was one of their family friend, vide a registered gift deed. Subsequently, the said Mr. Raj Kumar gifted ₹75 lakhs to the minor son of the assessee through a registered gift deed. In the assessment, the assessee voluntarily surrendered the capital gains and paid tax thereon so as to avoid further litigation and buy peace on the condition that no penalty proceedings be initiated u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of the aforesaid surrender of income.

However, the Assessing Officer subsequently confirmed the levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act by treating the capital gains as the concealed income. On appeal before the CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee was allowed, and the penalty was deleted. On the Department’s appeal before the Tribunal, the appeal was dismissed, and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee. On further appeal before the High Court, the High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department.

Despite the pendency of the appeal before the CIT(A), the Assessing Officer applied for sanction for criminal prosecution u/s. 276C(1) and 277 of the Act before the competent authority. The competent authority granted sanction to file a complaint against the assessee, and the complaint was filed.

Against this, the assessee filed a Criminal Writ Petition before the High Court seeking quashing of proceedings pending before the court of Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Economic Offence), Lucknow and the summoning order passed by the Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Custom), Lucknow. The Allahabad High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The subject matter of penalty is the same by which, criminal proceedings have been launched. Once the Tribunal has set aside the penalty order, at this juncture, it would not be appropriate to allow criminal proceedings against the applicant. The first appellate Tribunal, the second appellate Tribunal and the High Court have not interfered in the order of penalty and the department could not succeed. Thus, the fact has come on record that the order of penalty does not exist.

ii) The Supreme Court in the case of G.L Didwania AIROnline 1993 SC 421 has considered the aspect of penalty and launching of criminal proceedings. In the said case, the Supreme Court has observed that in the order of the Appellate Tribunal, those conclusions reached by the assessing authority have been set aside and consequently, the very basis of the complaint is knocked out and, therefore, in the interest of justice, proceedings ought to have been quashed by the High Court.

iii) In the case of K.C. Builders AIROnline 2004 SC 638 wherein the Supreme Court has observed that the Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax cannot proceed with the prosecution even after the order of concealment has been set aside by the Tribunal. When the Tribunal has set aside the levy of penalty, the criminal proceedings against the appellants cannot survive for further consideration. In the opinion of the Supreme Court, if the trial is allowed to proceed further after the order of the Tribunal and consequent cancellation of penalty, it will be an idle and empty formality to require the appellants to have the order of Tribunal exhibited as a defence document inasmuch as the passing of the order as aforementioned is unsustainable and unquestionable.

iv) In view of the aforesaid factual and legal position, the application is allowed and the entire as well as all consequential proceedings of complaint pending before the court of Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Economic Offence), Lucknow, are quashed.”

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Amounts paid by Indian affiliates on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme treated by AO as royalty — American company receiving payments from Indian affiliate for marketing and reservation services in hotel — AO held receipts taxable as royalty under I T Act and under DTAA and alternatively as fees for included services u/s. 9(1)(vii) and article 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and US — DRP rejecting assessee’s objections holding that mere changing of business model did not change nature of receipts chargeable to tax — High Court held that the receipts neither taxable as royalty nor fees for technical services — Not taxable under DTAA as fees for included services

57. CIT(International Taxation) vs. Six Continents Hotels Inc.: (2025) 480 ITR 14 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 2744

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 17/04/2025

Ss. 9(1)(vii), 143(3) and 144C of ITA 1961: Art. 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and the USA

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Amounts paid by Indian affiliates on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme treated by AO as royalty — American company receiving payments from Indian affiliate for marketing and reservation services in hotel — AO held receipts taxable as royalty under I T Act and under DTAA and alternatively as fees for included services u/s. 9(1)(vii) and article 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and US — DRP rejecting assessee’s objections holding that mere changing of business model did not change nature of receipts chargeable to tax — High Court held that the receipts neither taxable as royalty nor fees for technical services — Not taxable under DTAA as fees for included services.

The assessee was a non-resident, entitled to the beneficial provisions of the DTAA between India and the USA. During the financial year 2019-2020, the assessee had received a sum of ₹28,11,42,298 which comprised of marketing contribution, priority club receipts and reservation contribution aggregating to ₹21,22,52,199; and the Holidex fees amounting to ₹6,88,90,099 from Indian affiliate being InterContinental Hotels Group (India) Private Limited (IHG India) towards the centralised marketing and reservation related services. The assessee filed its revised return of income for the A. Y. 2020-2021 on March 31, 2021, declaring a total income of ₹1,05,20,740, which was picked up for scrutiny.

The Assessing Officer passed a draft assessment order dated September 15, 2022. The Assessing Officer held that the amounts paid by the Indian hotels for marketing contribution and reservation fees were taxable as royalty under the Act as well as under the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) ((1991) 187 ITR (Stat) 102). In the alternative, the Assessing Officer held that the same would be taxable as fees for included services under section 9(1)(vii) of the Act as well as under article 12(4)(a) and article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA, the Assessing Officer determined the total taxable income at ₹39,19,56,083 after making an addition of ₹28,11,42,298 on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme along with an addition of ₹10,02,93,045 on account of fees for included services/fees for technical services held as chargeable to tax under the Act as well as under the provisions of the DTAA.

The assessee filed objections to the said decision before the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP). The DRP did not accept the assessee’s contentions that the receipts were not in the nature of royalty and concluded that the said fees were in connection with the grant of a licence for the brand for which separate fees was also charged. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer passed the final assessment order dated June 27, 2023.

The assessee carried the matter in appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal allowed the said appeal following the decision in the assessee’s case in the earlier assessment years. To be noted that the assessee’s contention that the receipts, as mentioned above, are not taxable by virtue of the DTAA has been sustained for the past fifteen assessment years.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) The principal question that is required to be addressed is whether the payments received by the assessee on account of providing certain centralised services including marketing services and reservation services can be construed as fees for technical services as defined under section 9(1)(vii) of the Act or fees for included services as covered under article 12(4)(a) of the DTAA. Admittedly, the said issue is covered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue by several decisions of this court including DIT vs. Sheraton International Inc. [(2009) 313 ITR 267 (Delhi); 2009 SCC OnLine Del 4231.], CIT (International Taxation) vs. Sheraton International LLC [2023:DHC:4261-DB.], CIT (International Taxation) vs. Westin Hotel Management LP [ I.T.A. No. 213 of 2024 decided on April 10, 2024 (Delhi).] and CIT (International Taxation) vs. Shangri-La International Hotel Management Pte. Ltd. [ I.T.A. No. 532 of 2023 decided on September 18, 2023 (Delhi).]

ii) In the case of the CIT (International Taxation) vs. Radisson Hotel Interaction Incorporated [(2023) 454 ITR 816 (Delhi); 2022 SCC OnLine Del 3713; 2022: DHC: 004791.], this court had referred to the earlier decisions and dismissed the case, holding that no substantial questions of law arise for consideration by this court. The present appeal must bear the same fate.

iii) In view of the above, no substantial questions of law arise for consideration before this court. Thus, the appeal is dismissed.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of any other person — Satisfaction note — Time of recording satisfaction note — Permissible stages — If not recorded immediately after completion of searched person’s assessment —Proceedings are invalid — Delay of 22 months in recording satisfaction note — Contrary to Circular No. 24/2015 — Notice issued u/s. 153C quashed and set-aside.

56. Parag Rameshbhai Gathani vs. ITO (International Taxation)

(2025) 180 taxmann.com 662 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 18/11/2025

Ss. 153C r.w.s 132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of any other person — Satisfaction note — Time of recording satisfaction note — Permissible stages — If not recorded immediately after completion of searched person’s assessment —Proceedings are invalid — Delay of 22 months in recording satisfaction note — Contrary to Circular No. 24/2015 — Notice issued u/s. 153C quashed and set-aside.

A search action was carried out on 15/10/2019 upon one Mr. SRT who was a land broker and financer group of assessees. In the course of search, certain incriminating material was found and seized. Upon examination of the material, it was found that financial transactions were carried out with some individuals which included the name of the assessee. Assessment in the case of Mr. SRT was completed in August 2021.

Subsequently, the Assessing Officer of Mr. SRT (searched person) recorded a satisfaction note on 06/06/2023 and transferred the seized material to the Assessing Officer of the assessee. The Assessing Officer of the assessee recorded satisfaction note on 14/07/2023 alleging that the assessee had made payment of on money for purchase of property. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 153C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the name of the assessee on 09/02/2024.

Against the said notice, the assessee filed petition before the High Court challenging the notice. The Gujarat Hon’ble High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

i) As per the Circular No. 24/2015 dated 31/12/2015 and the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Calcutta Knitwears (2014) 43 taxmann.com 446 (SC), recording of the satisfaction note apply in three stages to the proceedings u/s. 153C of the Act. Though, the Assessing Officer had an opportunity to record the satisfaction note at two stages i.e. stage (a) and (b) as specified in the Circular, the same is not done. The next stage which was available was stage (c) on immediate completion of proceedings of the searched person in August, 2021, however, the satisfaction note was recorded on 06/06/2023, after a period of 22 months. The satisfaction note was drawn by the Assessing Officer of the petitioner on 17/10/2023.

ii) In the case of Jitendra H. Modi (2018) 403 ITR 110 (Guj.), this Court, by placing reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Calcutta Knitwears (supra), has held that satisfaction recorded after 09 months could not be said to be immediate action and hence, the Coordinate Bench of this Court set aside the notices issued under Section 158BD of the Act. In the instant case, there has been a delay of 22 months in recording the satisfaction, which runs contrary to the decision in Calcutta Knitwears (supra) as well as provision ‘(c)’ of Circular No.24/2015 dated 31/12/2015, which uses the expression “immediately after the assessment procedure is completed.

iii) Twin reasons are assigned by the respondents in the affidavit in reply for delay in recording the satisfaction note, (a) COVID-19 pandemic; and, (b) adoption of Faceless Scheme. So far the reason of COVID-19 is concerned, the same runs contrary to the action of the respondents, since the assessment of the searched person was itself done during the pandemic, and in the affidavit-in-reply, the respondent has mentioned that the Omicron variant commenced in December 2021 and continued until February 2022. Thus, even after February, 2022, the satisfaction note has been recorded on 17/10/2023. The second reason of workload due to Faceless Scheme is also a lame excuse, since indubitably the exercise u/s. 153A and 153C of the Act falls outside the purview of the said scheme. Hence, both the reasons assigned appear to be an afterthought, hence the same are rejected

iv) There was no restricting factor on the Assessing Officer to record the satisfaction earlier. The expression “immediate” though is impossible to quantify in period, however, the same cannot be extended to such an extent which defeats the purpose of cost effective, efficient and expeditious completion of search assessments. The intention of using such term is to reduce and avoid long drawn proceedings and to bring certainty to the assessment. Thus, both the writ petitions succeed. The impugned notices issued u/s. 153C of the Act for the respective assessment years are hereby quashed and set aside.”

Revision u/s. 264 — Revision of intimation issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income — Revision application filed pursuant to decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal in S. K. Ventures — — Rejection of application by CIT — Decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal not acceptable to the Department — High Court held — CIT bound to follow Jurisdictional Tribunal — Merely because order is challenged in appeal before the High Court cannot be the ground to not follow.

55. Dipti Enterprises vs. ADIT

2025 (11) TMI 1856 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 17/11/2025

Ss. 264 of ITA 1961

Revision u/s. 264 — Revision of intimation issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income — Revision application filed pursuant to decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal in S. K. Ventures — — Rejection of application by CIT — Decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal not acceptable to the Department — High Court held — CIT bound to follow Jurisdictional Tribunal — Merely because order is challenged in appeal before the High Court cannot be the ground to not follow.

The assessee firm was engaged in the business of real estate development. The assessee filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2020-21 after claiming deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 which, the assessee was claiming since A. Y. 2010-11. At the time of filing its return of income, the utility automatically calculated the tax liability u/s. 115JC of the Act and deemed total income of the assessee at ₹2,17,85,501. Since the tax payable as per the normal provisions was lower than the tax payable on the deemed total income determined in accordance with the AMT provisions, the total liability was determined at ₹49,97,467 based on the AMT provisions. The return of income filed was accepted u/s. 143(1) of the Act.

According to the assessee, the provisions of 115JC could not be applied to the projects which were already approved prior to the date of introduction of section 115JC. Since the assessee’s projects were approved prior to the date of enforcement of section 115JC the provisions of section 115JC were inapplicable. Therefore, the assessee filed an application u/s. 264 of the Act seeking revision of the of the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) of the Act on the ground that extra tax paid as per the return of income by applying the provisions of section 115JC of the Act be refunded. To support its view, the assessee relied upon the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (order dated 05.03.2019 bearing ITA No. 1248/Mum./2018).

The assessee’s application for revision was rejected on the ground that the decision rendered by the Tribunal was not acceptable to the Department and the decision of the Jurisdictional Tribunal was challenged in appeal before the High Court and was pending disposal. Therefore, no relief could be granted u/s. 264.

Against the said order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Merely because the order of the appellate authority is “not acceptable” to the department, and is the subject matter of an appeal, can furnish no ground for not following a judicial precedent, unless its operation has been suspended by a competent Court. If this healthy rule is not followed, it would lead to undue harassment to assessees and result in chaos in the administration of tax laws.

ii) Secondly, we hold that the doctrine of binding precedents plays a vital role in tax jurisprudence. It is first required to be ascertained whether, in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, a particular judicial precedent is factually and legally in consonance with the case in hand or not. If it is found that the precedent relied upon is distinguishable, then such parameters based on which it is distinguishable need to be described in the order. The Respondent has not assigned any cogent reasons for distinguishing the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) from that of the Petitioner.

iii) If the assessee is pleading that its interpretation of the applicability of Section 115JC has already been decided by the jurisdictional Tribunal, then in such a case, the Respondent ought to have considered the facts and law of the said case. If the facts are identical, then it ought to have been followed. We are of the view that if in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the case of the Petitioner is in consonance with the facts in the decision rendered by the jurisdictional Tribunal, then it ought to be followed as a matter of judicial discipline.

iv) Even though in the return of income the taxes were determined and paid pursuant to Section 115JC, the same can be challenged by the Petitioner if being levied without the authority of law. Just because an assessee is under a bona fide mistake of law paid tax which was not exigible as such, cannot by itself, with nothing more, be a ground for the Respondent for not granting legitimate relief under the law we are of the view that provisions of Section 264 would also cover within its ambit a claim which is not made in the Return of Income Thus, we are of the view that provisions of Section 264 would also cover within its ambit a scenario where intimation is issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income of the Petitioner.

v) The matter is remanded to the Respondent to pass a fresh order on the application of Petitioner to consider the applicability of the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) and direct the Respondent to ascertain whether the relevant facts in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) viz-a-viz facts of the present case are identical or not (w.r.t. ascertaining the applicability of the provisions of Section 115JC) within a period of four weeks from the date of uploading of the present order. If it is found that the facts in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) are identical to the present case, then the ratio laid down in the said order should be followed.”

Offences and prosecution — Compounding of offences — Delay — Compounding application was rejected solely on the ground of delay of 36 months from date of filing complaint — Held, limitation period stipulated in CBDT guidelines — Guidelines treated as binding statutes without exercising discretion — Where Act provided no limitation period, rigid time-line through guidelines is impermissible — Held, mechanical rejection of application without considering facts and circumstances is improper — Order set aside and matter remanded for reconsideration exercising proper discretion.

54. L.T. Stock Brokers (P) Ltd. vs. CIT: (2025) 480 ITR 26 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 517

Date of order 04/03/2025

S. 279(2) of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Compounding of offences — Delay — Compounding application was rejected solely on the ground of delay of 36 months from date of filing complaint — Held, limitation period stipulated in CBDT guidelines — Guidelines treated as binding statutes without exercising discretion — Where Act provided no limitation period, rigid time-line through guidelines is impermissible — Held, mechanical rejection of application without considering facts and circumstances is improper — Order set aside and matter remanded for reconsideration exercising proper discretion.

A complaint was filed by the Income Tax Department against the assessee company for offences under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed an application u/s. 279(2) of the Act for compounding the offences. The Chief Commissioner’s the application by an order dated January 17, 2024, solely on the ground that it was filed beyond 36 months from the date of filing of the complaint against the petitioners. The Chief Commissioner has relied upon paragraph 9.1 of the CBDT guidelines dated September 16, 2022 ((2022) 447 ITR (Stat) 25) for compounding offences under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The CBDT guidelines of 2014 ((2015) 371 ITR (Stat) 7) which in para 8 referred to the period of limitation, does not exclude the possibility that in the peculiar case where the facts and circumstances so required, the competent authority should consider the explanation and allow the compounding application. This means that notwithstanding the so-called limitation period, in a given case, the competent authority can exercise discretion and allow compounding application.

ii) The competent authority has treated the guidelines as a binding statute in the present case. On the sole ground that the application was made beyond 36 months, the same has been rejected. The competent authority has exercised no discretion as such. The rejection is entirely premised on the notion that the competent authority had no jurisdiction to entertain a compounding application because it was made beyond 36 months. Such an approach is inconsistent with the rulings of this court, the Madras High Court and the hon’ble Supreme Court ruling in the case of Vinubhai Mohanlal Dobaria vs. Chief CIT [(2025) 473 ITR 394 (SC); 2025 SCC OnLine SC 270.] relied upon by the learned counsel for the Revenue.

iii) We set aside the impugned order dated January 17, 2024 and direct the Chief Commissioner to reconsider the petitioner’s application for compounding in the light of the observations made by the hon’ble Supreme Court in Vinubhai Mohanlal Dobaria vs. Chief CIT [(2025) 473 ITR 394 (SC); 2025 SCC OnLine SC 270.]. This means that the Chief Commissioner will have to consider all facts and circumstances and decide whether such facts make out the case for exercising discretion in favour of compounding the offence.”

Charitable trust — Exemption u/s. 11 — Exception u/s. 13 — Salary paid to chairperson treated as payment to person prohibited u/s. 13(3) — AO held the payment is excessive and disallowed 30 per cent of the salary u/s. 40A(2)(a) — CIT(A) deleted addition finding salary reasonable — Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by Department after examining qualification and experience of chairperson — Held, reasonable remuneration for services rendered did not constitute benefit u/s. 13(1)(c) — Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 11.

53. CIT(Exemption) vs. IILM Foundation: (2025) 480 ITR 1 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 2540

A. Ys. 2009-10 to 2011-12: Date of order 21/04/2025

Ss. 11, 12 and 13 of ITA 1961

Charitable trust — Exemption u/s. 11 — Exception u/s. 13 — Salary paid to chairperson treated as payment to person prohibited u/s. 13(3) — AO held the payment is excessive and disallowed 30 per cent of the salary u/s. 40A(2)(a) — CIT(A) deleted addition finding salary reasonable — Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by Department after examining qualification and experience of chairperson — Held, reasonable remuneration for services rendered did not constitute benefit u/s. 13(1)(c) — Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 11.

The assessee was a charitable trust registered u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee was predominantly engaged in activities of imparting education through various educational institutions. The relevant assessment years are 2009-10 to 2011-12. The Assessing Officer held the salary paid to the assessee’s chairperson was excessive and not commensurate with her educational qualifications, experience and duties, and since she was a related party being chairperson, disallowed 30 per cent of the payments u/s. 40A(2)(a) of the Act.

The Commissioner (Appeal) deleted the addition finding that the salary is reasonable and following consistence with the A. Y. 2008-09. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue. The Tribunal examined the additional evidence regarding the chairperson’s qualifications and contributions and held that the salary was justified and not unreasonable. The Tribunal held that section 13(1)(c) r.w.s. 13(2)(c) did not bar payment of reasonable salary to persons mentioned in section 13(3) for services rendered.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) A plain reading of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act indicates that exemptions under section 11/12 of the Act would not operate so as to exclude from the total income of the previous year any income, which is directly or indirectly, for the benefit of the person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13 of the Act. It is, thus, clear that if any part of the income of a trust for charitable or religious purposes is diverted for the direct or indirect benefit of a person referred to in sub-section (3) of that Act, that part of the income would not be excluded from the total income of the assessee by virtue of section 11/12 of the Act. In other words, the exemption under those sections would not be available to the extent that the said income of a charitable or religious purposes is applied for the benefit of a person specified in sub-section (3) of section 13.

ii) By virtue of clause (c) of sub-section 2 of the Act if any amount is paid by way of a salary or allowance to a person, which is specified under sub-section (3) of section 13 of the Act, it would be deemed that the income of the property or trust has been applied for the benefit of that person for the purposes of clauses (c) and (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13. However, if a person specified under sub-section (3) has rendered any service and the amount or allowance paid to such person is such, that is, reasonably paid for such services, the same cannot be deemed to have been applied for the benefit of the said person for the purposes of clause (c) or (d) of section 13(1) of the Act. This is apparent from the plain language of clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 13 of the Act. The opening words of the said clause must be read in conjunction with the last words of the said clause—”if any amount is paid by way of salary, allowance or otherwise… in excess of what may be reasonably paid for such services”. Thus, if the amount paid for services is such as is reasonably payable for such service, the same cannot be construed as applied for the benefit of a prohibited person notwithstanding that it is paid to such a person. Consequently, such payment would not fall within the exception of clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act.

iii) The order of the Tribunal holding that the assessee had not violated the provisions of section 13(1)(c) in remunerating its chairperson for the services rendered was not perverse.

iv) In view of the above the questions of law as noted above is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Appeal to High Court u/s. 260A — Additional question of law raised for first time in High Court — Jurisdiction of High Court — General principles — Assessee-company merged with another and ceased to exist — Assessment in name of non-existing entity(Merged company) — Question whether assessment order passed on non-existing entity is void — Question involving jurisdictional issue not raised before Tribunal — Whether merits consideration — Held by High Court that the additionally proposed question of law involved in these appeals is involving jurisdictional issue and hence included.

52. Reliance Industries Ltd. vs. P.L. Roongta: (2025) 479 ITR 763 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 3676

A. Ys. 1993-94 to 1995-96: Date of order 20/01/2025

Ss. 143(3) and 260A of ITA 1961

Appeal to High Court u/s. 260A — Additional question of law raised for first time in High Court — Jurisdiction of High Court — General principles — Assessee-company merged with another and ceased to exist — Assessment in name of non-existing entity(Merged company) — Question whether assessment order passed on non-existing entity is void — Question involving jurisdictional issue not raised before Tribunal — Whether merits consideration — Held by High Court that the additionally proposed question of law involved in these appeals is involving jurisdictional issue and hence included.

In this case the assessee-company had amalgamated with the another company. The Assessing Officer had knowledge of amalgamation. However, the assessment order was passed in the name of the non-existing amalgamating entity. As such the assessment was void. However, the ground that the assessment was void was not taken in appeal before the CIT(A) and also the Tribunal.

The question before the Bombay High Court was that whether the ground that the assessment order was void can be raised first time in the High Court in an appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Mr. Mistri proposes the following question:

‘Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the assessment order under section 143(3) of the Act passed on a non-existent entity is bad in law, void ab initio?’

ii) Section 260A(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides that the appeal shall be heard only on the question so formulated, and the respondents shall, at the hearing of the appeal, be allowed to argue that the case does not involve such question. However, the proviso to this sub-section states that nothing in this sub-section shall be deemed to take away or abridge the power of the court to hear, for reasons to be recorded, the appeal on any other substantial question of law not formulated by it, if it is satisfied that the case involves such question.

iii) Usually, for a case to “involve” such a question, the same should have been raised before the original authority or at least the appellate authorities. When a question was never raised before the original authority or the appellate authorities, then, typically, it would not be easy to hold that such a question was involved and, therefore, should be framed by exercising the powers under the proviso to sub-section (4) of section 260A of the Income-tax Act. However, to the above general proposition, there are exceptions. Suppose a question of law goes to the root of the jurisdiction, and there is no necessity to investigate new facts or if there is no serious dispute on the facts. In that case, such a question can be framed even though the same may not have been raised in the earlier proceedings before the original or appellate authority. Consent, per se, cannot confer jurisdiction upon an authority where such jurisdiction is inherently lacking.

iv) In Ashish Estates and Properties Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2018) 96 taxmann.com 305 (Bom).] , the co-ordinate Bench of this court held that a question which was not raised before the Tribunal should not ordinarily be allowed to be raised in an appeal u/s. 260A unless it was a question on the issue of jurisdiction or question, which went to the root of the jurisdiction.

v) In Santosh Hazari vs. Purushottam Tiwari [(2001) 251 ITR 84 (SC); (2001) 3 SCC 179; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 375; AIR 2001 SC 965.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court held that an entirely new point raised for the first time before the High Court is not a question involved in the case unless it goes to the root of the matter. It will, therefore, depend on the facts and circumstances of each case whether a question of law is a substantial one and involved in the case, or not; the paramount overall consideration being the need for striking judicious balance between the indispensable obligation to do justice at all stages and impelling necessity of avoiding prolongation in the life of any lis.

vi) In CIT vs. Jhabua Power Ltd. [(2015) 13 SCC 443; 2013 SCC OnLine SC 1228; (2013) 37 taxmann.com 162 (SC).], the two questions set out in paragraph 3 of the order were sought to be raised for the first time before the hon’ble Supreme Court. Both the questions related to the issue of limitation and, in that sense, did go to the root of the jurisdiction. The court held that these two questions were required to be answered first by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. Therefore, the appeal was allowed, the decisions of the High Court and the Tribunal were set aside, and the matter was remanded to the Tribunal to decide the questions of law relating to limitation after affording an opportunity of hearing to both parties.

vii) For all the above reasons, we are satisfied that the question proposed by Mr. Mistri is involved in these appeals, and, therefore, we frame the above question in all these appeals. If answered in favour of the assessees, the question would go to the root of jurisdiction.”

Refund — Rejection of application on the ground that request can be made only through TRACES portal and further there is no provision to adjust outstanding demand against refund on TRACES portal — Unjustified — Income-tax authorities bound to refund the amount without any formalities to be completed by the assessee — Non-functionality of portal cannot be the ground for denying the refund statutorily allowed to the assessee — AO directed to either grant refund or set-off the demand payable against the refund.

51. (2025) 345 CTR 99 (MP)

Birla Corporation vs. Principal CIT

F. Ys. 2009-10 and 2011-12: Date of order 18/09/2024

Ss. 220, 240 and 243 of ITA 1961

Refund — Rejection of application on the ground that request can be made only through TRACES portal and further there is no provision to adjust outstanding demand against refund on TRACES portal — Unjustified — Income-tax authorities bound to refund the amount without any formalities to be completed by the assessee — Non-functionality of portal cannot be the ground for denying the refund statutorily allowed to the assessee — AO directed to either grant refund or set-off the demand payable against the refund.

Proceedings u/s. 201/201(1A) were initiated for the A.Ys. 2009-10 to 2011-12 and aggregate tax liability (including interest) of more than r12 crores was determined to be payable by the assessee.

The assessee’s appeal before the CIT(A) was dismissed and the order of the Assessing Officer was confirmed. The assessee filed further appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal set-aside the order and remanded the matter back to the Assessing Officer.

Pursuant to the remand proceedings, the Assessing Officer once again passed the order and determined an aggregate amount about r3 crores. Once again, the assessee challenged the order of the Assessing Officer in appeal before the CIT(A). However, the CIT(A) dismissed the appeal. Thereafter, the assessee filed appeals before the Tribunal which were allowed.

During the pendency of the appeal, the assessee deposited the outstanding tax demand in instalments aggregating to r1.45 crores for FY 2009-10 and ₹3.65 crores for FY 2010-11 under protest. In addition to the above, the assessee also deposited TDS amount of ₹15,03,299.

Pursuant to the order of the Tribunal, the Assessing Officer passed the order for refund of r3.65 crores. However, this amount was not paid to the assessee. The assessee filed a representation for refund of ₹5.25 crores. The Assessing Officer rejected the application on the grounds that (i) request for refund can be made only if the assessee files and application on the TRACES portal in the prescribed form and (ii) that there is no provision available on the TRACES portal to adjust the outstanding demand of PAN or TAN against the pending refunds of the TAN and therefore requested the assessee to deposit the aforesaid demand.

As a result, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Madhya Pradesh High Court. The High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and directed the Assessing Officer to either refund the tax amount or adjust the same against the tax payable by the assessee. In doing so, the Hon’ble High Court held as follows:

“i) The non-functionality of the TRACES Portal shall not be grounds for denying the benefit arising out of the statutory provision under the IT Act. The TRACES is nothing but a online Portal of the IT Department to connect all the stockholders involved in the administration and implementation of TDS and TCS. The TDS is a Centralized Processing Cell created for TDS reconciliation analysis and correction enabling system which cannot run contrary to the provision of the IT Act. The rights which have been given to the assessee under the IT Act cannot be withheld due to the non functionality of the TRACES.

ii) The Online Portal is created to facilitate the stakeholders and not to create hurdles in discharging the statutory duties and the statutory rights. If the Portal does not function in accordance with the Act and Rules then it requires to be suitably modified to achieve the aims and objects of the Act and Rules, therefore, there is a provision in the IT Act about the refund of the amount with interest as well as set off of refund against the tax payable.

iii) The petitioner is ready for a refund as well as for set off. It is for the competent ITO to make a decision either to refund or to adjust the same.”

Refund — First appellate order in favour of the assessee —However, directions given in the order to make enquiry and verify in respect of other years by resorting to S. 148 — Refund cannot be held merely because enquiry and verification is pending — Once the assessee succeeds in appeal consequence of order giving effect and grant of refund should follow — Directions issued to the AO to pass order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A) and grant refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the Act.

50. 2025 (11) TMI 50 (Bom.)

U.S. Instruments Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT and Ors

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 15/10/2025

Ss. 153 and 244A of ITA 1961

Refund — First appellate order in favour of the assessee —However, directions given in the order to make enquiry and verify in respect of other years by resorting to S. 148 — Refund cannot be held merely because enquiry and verification is pending — Once the assessee succeeds in appeal consequence of order giving effect and grant of refund should follow — Directions issued to the AO to pass order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A) and grant refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the Act.

The assessee is a private limited company. The assessment for A.Y. 2009-10 was completed vide order dated 28/12/2011 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act after making addition on account of securities premium u/s. 68 of the Act and a demand of ₹15,53,73,190 was raised. Against the said order, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A) which was disposed by the CIT(A) vide order dated 19/02/2024 and the appeal of the assessee was allowed. However, the CIT(A), in his order issued directions for examining the nature and source of amounts received by the assessee in other years by resorting to sections 148 and 150 of the Act.

During the pendency of the appeal before the CIT(A), the assessee had paid ₹1,00,12,856 towards the outstanding tax demand. Pursuant to the order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed a letter to the Assessing Officer requesting him to give effect to the order of the CIT(A) and to issue refund of the taxes paid by the assessee. However, there was no response from the Assessing Officer. The assessee wrote reminder letters, but no refund was granted.

Therefore, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court praying that directions be issued to the Assessing Officer to grant refund along with interest. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) It is undisputed that the Petitioner had paid taxes of ₹1,00,12,856/- against the demand arising out of the assessment order dated 28th December 2011 for A.Y. 2009-10. Such demand no longer survives, as the Commissioner (Appeals) has deleted the additions made. Naturally, the Petitioner would be entitled to refund of such amount with interest as per law.

ii) It is not correct on the part of the Respondents to sit on such refund merely because there are some directions issued by Commissioner (Appeals) to carry out certain inquiries/ verifications in respect of the amounts received in other years. Once, the Petitioner has succeeded in appeal, the natural consequences of passing an order giving effect to such order and grant of refund have to follow. Otherwise, it will lead to an incongruous situation that despite succeeding before the Appellate Authority, the Petitioner is still deprived of his due refund. Such a situation should always be avoided.

iii) The contention of the Department that the Commissioner (Appeals) has issued directions to verify the amounts received in other years and therefore, refund cannot be given to the Petitioner until such directions are complied with, cannot be accepted. Such directions may or may not be complied with, however, refund arising as a result, of the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) cannot be withheld for such reasons. In any event, today there is no outstanding demand against the Petitioner.

iv) As per section 153(5), an order giving effect has to be passed within three months from the end of the month in which the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) has been received. In the present case, it appears that the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was sent on email and uploaded on the portal on 19 February 2024 and in any event, the Petitioner has informed and provided a copy of the order to Respondent No. 1 vide letter dated 23rd February 2024 filed on 27th February 2024. There are no reasons forthcoming for not passing an order giving effect to the order of Commissioner (Appeals). At least, passing of such order is not contingent upon the directions issued by the Commissioner (Appeals).

v) This Court has already quashed and set aside the reassessment notices for the A.Y. 2008-09 and A.Y. 2009-10 vide separate orders dated 15th September 2025 in Writ Petition (L) No. 27782 of 2025 and Writ Petition (L) No. 27786 of 2025, therefore, now there should not be any difficulty for Respondent No. 1 to issue refund as prayed for. Since, the notice u/s. 148 have been quashed, there is no question of the Petitioner co-operating in the proceeding, as no such proceedings exist as on today, in the eyes of law.

vi) We direct that Respondent No. 1 should pass the order giving effect to the order of Commissioner (Appeals) dated 19th February 2024 and grant the refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the I. T. Act. The above action of passing the order and granting of refund should be completed as expeditiously as possible and in any event not later than four weeks from today. We are passing this order as the time period to pass order giving effect has expired long back and that the matter is an old matter and pertains to A.Y. 2009-10 and even the taxes have been paid more than twelve years back”

Re-assessment — Information available on Insight Portal — Incorrect information — Mechanism u/s. 148A — Requirement to verify information u/s. 148A(a) prior to 01/09/2024 — After the amendment, 148(1) is similar to 148A(b) — Despite the amendment, it is the responsibility of the AO to verify information available on insight portal — AO must conduct enquiry, if necessary 148A(1) to be invoked only after verification of the information made available to the AO.

49. 2025 (10) TMI 1242 (Guj.)

Vasuki Global Industrial Limited vs. Principal CIT

Date of order 15/10/2025

S. 148A of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Information available on Insight Portal — Incorrect information — Mechanism u/s. 148A — Requirement to verify information u/s. 148A(a) prior to 01/09/2024 — After the amendment, 148(1) is similar to 148A(b) — Despite the amendment, it is the responsibility of the AO to verify information available on insight portal — AO must conduct enquiry, if necessary 148A(1) to be invoked only after verification of the information made available to the AO.

The assessee is engaged in the business of trading of coal. In the year 2021, summons were issued to the assessee by the Director General of GST (Intelligence) under the GST provisions and the statement of the Director of the assessee company was recorded. Thereafter, the inquiry against the assessee was concluded on payment of tax, interest and penalty under the provisions of the GST Act. Subsequently, in the year 2022, summons were issued to the assessee by the Income-tax Department which were replied to by the assessee and the details called for were also furnished by the assessee.

Thereafter, various buyers and sellers of the assessee who had transacted with the assessee were in receipt of notices for re-opening of their assessment. The notices for re-opening of assessment were issued on the basis of report received from the GST Department wherein the assessee was alleged to be engaged in availing or passing on fake ITC credit to various parties. The GST Department had absolved the assessee from any lapses under the provisions of the GST Act. Though the assessee was absolved by the GST Department, the Income-tax Department continued the re-assessment proceedings in respect of various suppliers of the assessee on the basis of the information available on the insight portal. As a result, the assessee was subjected to queries by its various buyers and suppliers for issue of re-opening notices because of the assessee company.

The assessee thus wrote a letter to the Chairman, CBDT, Director General of GST Intelligence, Principal Chief Commissioner of Income-tax and Principal Commissioner of Income-tax clarifying that it was one Varuni International and not the assessee Vasuki Global Industries Limited who was subjected to alleged bogus fake invoices and passing of the Input Tax Credit. Further, it was also pointed out that the GST registration of the said Varuni International was cancelled by GST authorities and the registration of the assessee was active and the assessee was undertaking business and was subject to audit by the GST Department. It was submitted that re-opening notice issued by the buyers and sellers of the assessee were based on incorrect information available on the insight portal of the Income-tax Department.

The assessee addressed letters to the authorities under the GST Act as well as the Income-tax Act, stating inter alia that the assessee was not involved in GST invoice fraud and that its name was wrongly mentioned in the notices issued upon the buyers and sellers of the assessee company. A request was also made to stop the assessments initiated on incorrect grounds in the case of the assessee and on the basis of incorrect information made available on the Insight Portal.

In view of the foregoing facts, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Gujarat High Court with the prayer to direct the authorities to remove incorrect information from the portal relating to the assessee and correct the same on the basis of latest information received from GST authorities and further to intimate them that no action be taken on the basis of the original incorrect information. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Scheme of the Act is well designed to take care of the information which is available on the Insight Portal by providing a mechanism in Section 148A of the Act by issuing notice to the assessed by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to verify the information as per clause (a) to Section 148A of the Act as was existent prior to 1st September, 2024 and thereafter, as per Sub-section (1) of Section 148A of the Act

ii) It appears that the conducting of inquiry, if required, with prior approval of the specified authority with respect to the information which suggest that the income chargeable to tax has escaped the assessment, has been done away after the amendment of Section 148A of the Act with effect from 1st September, 2024. Section 148A(1) therefore is now similar to Section 148A(b) of the Act which was applicable up to 1st September, 2024 and which provided that an opportunity of being heard be provided to the assessee by serving a show cause notice as to why a notice u/s. 148 should not be issued on the basis of information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in his case for the relevant assessment year and results of enquiry conducted, if any, as per clause (a).

iii) Before issuance of the notice u/s. 148A(1) of the Act, it is the responsibility and liability of the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to verify the information made available on the Insight Portal which suggests that the income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in case of the assessee for the relevant Assessment Year and if necessary, the Assessing Officer must conduct inquiry with prior approval of the specified authority with respect to such information and only after verification of the information made available to the Assessing Officer, the provisions of Section 148A(1) of the Act shall be invoked.”

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — One-time compensation received for surrendering of stock received under stock option scheme of employer :— (a) TDS — Rejection of application u/s. 197 for NIL deduction of tax — Stock option not perquisite amenable to tax — Order rejection application quashed and set aside; (b) Applicability of section 45 — Cost of acquisition of stock option cannot be determined — Capital receipt not chargeable u/s. 45 not chargeable under any other head — Charging section and computation section constituted an integrated code.

48. (2025) 479 ITR 1 (Karn): 2025 SCC OnLine Kar 18963

Manjeet Singh Chawla vs. Dy. CIT(TDS)

A. Ys. 2024-25: Date of order 02/06/2025

Ss. 5, 17(2), 45, 48 and 197 of ITA 1961

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — One-time compensation received for surrendering of stock received under stock option scheme of employer :— (a) TDS — Rejection of application u/s. 197 for NIL deduction of tax — Stock option not perquisite amenable to tax — Order rejection application quashed and set aside; (b) Applicability of section 45 — Cost of acquisition of stock option cannot be determined — Capital receipt not chargeable u/s. 45 not chargeable under any other head — Charging section and computation section constituted an integrated code.

The petitioner is an Indian citizen and a salaried employee of Flipkart Internet Private Limited (FIPL). FIPL is an Indian subsidiary of Flipkart Marketplace Private Limited (FMPL), a company incorporated in Singapore; which is further a wholly owned subsidiary of Flipkart Private Limited, Singapore (FPS). In addition to FMPL, FPS, Singapore has many other subsidiaries including PhonePe which had a wholly owned subsidiary in India known as?

In the year 2012, FPS, Singapore introduced the Flipkart Stock Option Plan, 2012 (FSOP), pursuant to which the petitioner was granted 2,232 stock options with a vesting schedule of four years from January 1, 2016 to March 31, 2023 amongst which 955 stock options were vested, 249 were cancelled and the unvested stock options were 1,028, resulting in the total number of stock options held by the petitioner being 1,983 as on March 31, 2023. Meanwhile, on December 23, 2022, FPS, Singapore announced separation/divestment of PhonePe resulting in reduction and diminishing of the value of the stock options issued in favour of the petitioner. Under these circumstances, FPS, Singapore announced a one-time compensatory payment of USD 43.67 per option as compensation towards loss in value of Flipkart Stock Option plans due to divestment/separation of PhonePe from FPS, Singapore. In pursuance of the same, a sum of ₹71,01,004, i.e., 1,983 x 43.67 x 82 (USD conversion rate) was paid to the petitioner towards the aforesaid one-time compensatory payment due to reduction/diminishing of the value of the stock options issued in favour of the petitioner as stated supra.

The petitioner filed an application dated May 20, 2023 u/s. 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 seeking “nil tax deduction certificate” in relation to the aforesaid one-time compensatory payment made to him. The respondents raised certain queries which were clarified by the petitioner vide reply/response dated July 24, 2023. However, the first respondent rejected the application. Being aggrieved, the petitioner filed a writ petition and challenged the order of rejection.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is well settled that tax at source cannot be deducted if payment does not constitute income and the power of the respondents-Revenue to direct deduction of tax under section 197 of the Income-tax Act can be exercised only if there is an income chargeable to tax.

ii) The one-time compensation payment received by the assessee due to reduction on the value of the stock options did not constitute income chargeable to tax but was a capital receipt.

iii) In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances, I am of the considered opinion that the first respondent clearly fell in error in rejecting the application filed by the petitioner seeking issuance of “nil tax deduction certificate” in relation to the subject compensation amount of ₹71,01,004 by passing the impugned order which is illegal, arbitrary and contrary to facts and law as well as the aforesaid principles and statutory provisions and consequently, the impugned order deserves to be set aside and the application filed by the petitioner deserves to be allowed by directing the respondents to issue “nil tax deduction certificate” in favour of the petitioner within a stipulated timeframe.

iv) In the result, the petition is hereby allowed. The impugned order at annexure A dated August 2, 2023 passed by the first respondent is hereby quashed.

v) The respondents are directed to issue “nil tax deduction certificate” in favour of the petitioner as sought for by him together with all consequential benefits flowing therefrom as expeditiously as possible and at any rate, within a period of six weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.”

Application for condonation of delay — S. 119(2)(b) — Delay due to the time taken in obtaining legal advice by the Chartered Accountant — Not due to negligence on the part of assessee but due to the CA in obtaining legal advice — Non-condonation would result in lapsing of brought forward loss to be set-off — Genuine hardship to the assessee — Delay in filing return was to be condoned.

47. (2025) 179 taxmann.com 637 (Del)

Balaji Landmarks LLP vs. CBDT

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 14/10/2025

Ss. 80 r.w.s. 119, 139 and 153 of ITA 1961

Application for condonation of delay — S. 119(2)(b) — Delay due to the time taken in obtaining legal advice by the Chartered Accountant — Not due to negligence on the part of assessee but due to the CA in obtaining legal advice — Non-condonation would result in lapsing of brought forward loss to be set-off — Genuine hardship to the assessee — Delay in filing return was to be condoned.

The assessee firm filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 on 30/03/2019, that is, after a delay of 5 months. The due date for filing return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 was 31/10/2018. The assessee filed its return of income on 30/03/2019 belatedly within the time prescribed u/s. 139(4) of the Act.

Subsequently, on 15/06/2023, the assessee filed an application u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act to condone the delay of 5 months in filing the return of income. In the said application, condonation was sought on the ground that the Chartered Accountant of the assessee was not acquainted with the legal and accounting treatment to be given to the compensation received in the form of TDR in lieu of compulsory acquisition of immovable property and therefore the assessee sought appropriate legal advice and the time taken for obtaining such legal advice had caused the delay in filing the return of income. However, the assessee’s application was rejected on the ground that the assessee failed to exercise due diligence to ensure timely filing of return of income and that the assessee had ample time to file return of income within time and lastly that the delay was caused due to lack of supervision and therefore did not constitute genuine hardship.

The assessee filed writ petition against the said rejection before the Delhi High Court. It was also submitted that since during the year, the assessee had incurred loss, the same would not be allowed to be carried forward if such delay was not condoned and thereby cause genuine hardship to the assessee. The petition was allowed and it was held as follows:

“i) The delay in the present case is not due to any negligence on the part of the Petitioner but due to inadequate advice by the Chartered Accountant, which fact stands admitted by him in his affidavit.

ii) It is settled law that where an Assessee takes a course of action based on an opinion of a professional, then, in that case, there is a reasonable cause for the Assessee to act based on such advice and that such acts are to be regarded as bona fide. In the present case, the Petitioner ought not to be put to a considerable disadvantage as a result of belated advice given to it by the Chartered Accountant, especially when the issue that was being grappled with is fairly complex and for which there were no well settled judicial precedents at the relevant time.

iii) The delay in filing the return of income for the A.Y.2018-19 is hereby condoned. The return of income filed on 30th March 2019 shall be treated to be a return filed in accordance with Section 153(1B) and the time frame to complete the assessment mentioned therein shall apply.”

Refund — Denial on the ground that TDS not reflected in 26AS — Responsibility of the AO to verify from Form 16A — Taxpayer should not be at the mercy of an officer who delays the payment of genuine refund — Assessee is entitled to refund after verification of Form 16A certificates.

46 . U.P. Rajya Nirman Sahakari Sangh Limited vs. UOI

2025 (10) TMI 537 (All.)

A.Ys. 2009-10 to 2012-13 & 2015-16: Date of order 08/10/2025

Refund — Denial on the ground that TDS not reflected in 26AS — Responsibility of the AO to verify from Form 16A — Taxpayer should not be at the mercy of an officer who delays the payment of genuine refund — Assessee is entitled to refund after verification of Form 16A certificates.

The assessee is a co-operative society claiming exemption u/s. 80P of the Act. Since the assessee’s income is exempt, refund on account of tax deducted at source along with interest was due to the assessee. Despite several applications and reminders, the Department was not issuing the refund to the assessee on the ground that the amount of TDS was not reflected in Form 26AS.

The Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court seeking refund of the amount due to the assessee from the Department and allowing the to the assessee, the credit of TDS for the AYs 2009-10 to 2012-13 and AY 2015-16. The Allahabad High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Delhi High Court in Its Motion v. Commissioner of Income Tax (Writ Petition (CIVIL) No. 2659 of 2012, decided on 14/03/2013) and in Rakesh Kumar Gupta vs. Union of India and Another (Civil Misc. Writ Petition (Tax) No. 657 of 2013, decided on 06/05/2014) held that in the event the TDS amount is not reflected in Form 26AS, refund must still be provided if the petitioner is able to furnish the Form 16A certificates.

ii) A taxpayer should not be left at the mercy of an Assessing Officer who chooses to delay the payment of genuine refunds. Furthermore, as long as the assessee is able to provide documents proving that tax has been deducted at source, the same has to be accepted by the Assessing Officer, who cannot insist that the amount match the figures in Form 26AS. It is the responsibility of the Assessing Officer to verify the amounts provided by the assessee through the proof of Form 16A.

iii) The assessee in the present case is entitled to receive a refund of the amounts once the 16A forms are accepted by the Income Tax Authority.”

Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) — Addition made on the basis of ad hoc estimate — No clear finding that there was concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) cannot be imposed.

45. Pr.CIT vs. Colo Colour Pvt. Ltd.

2025 (9) TMI 1041 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 16/09/2025

S. 271(1)(c) of ITA 1961

Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) — Addition made on the basis of ad hoc estimate — No clear finding that there was concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) cannot be imposed.

The assessee was engaged in the business of operating a photo studio and trading in photographic material. The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at ₹4,32,530. Subsequently, the case was re-opened and the assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 assessing the total income at ₹12,32,570 after making an addition of ₹7,40,776 on account of bogus purchases on an estimate basis and addition of ₹59,262 was made towards unexplained commission expenditure on bogus purchases. The assessee did not file an appeal against the said order and agreed to the addition to buy peace and to avoid litigation.

Thereafter, penalty proceedings were initiated u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act on the ground that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income and/or had indulged in concealment of income. The Assessing Officer thus levied penalty at 100% of the tax sought to be evaded in respect of the addition made towards bogus purchase and commission on such bogus purchase.

The CIT(A), allowed the appeal of the assessee and it was held that the penalty was not warranted when the addition was made on the basis of ad hoc estimate and further since the assessee had provided details and furnished necessary documents, there was no case of concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The Department’s appeal before the Tribunal was dismissed as the penalty was levied on the basis of an addition which was made on ad hoc estimate basis.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) The condition precedent for levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) is only when the Assessing Officer, in the course of proceedings, is satisfied that an assessee has concealed the particulars of his income or has furnished inaccurate particulars of income. Thus, in applying the penalty provisions u/s. 271(1)(c), it was necessary for the assessing officer to reach to a conclusion, that the assessee had consciously concealed the particulars of his income and/or had deliberately furnished inaccurate particulars of income to gain an undue advantage of not offering the real income to tax. A clear subjective satisfaction of these essentials is a sine qua non for the assessing officer to levy a penalty. Penalty proceedings are penal in nature, as the intention of such provisions is to create an effective deterrent, which will restrain the assessee from adopting any practices detrimental to the fair and realistic assessment as the law would mandate.

ii) The approach of the assessee was certainly, not of the nature which can be recognized to involve any concealment of particulars of income and/or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The reason being that the penalty could not have been levied when an ad-hoc estimation of the assessee’s income was made by the assessing officer who restricted the profit element in the purchases at 12.5%.

iii) There was no allowance or a basis for the Assessing Officer to reach to a conclusion that this was a case where the provisions of section 271(1)(c) were required to be invoked, to levy a penalty on the ground that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars or had concealed its income.

iv) In the assessment proceedings leading to the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) read with Section 147 of the Act, in so far as the bogus purchases were concerned, the assessee had taken a clear position that the assessee had agreed for the addition to buy peace of mind and to avoid a protracted litigation. Hence, the assessee agreeing with such addition, did not mean that the assessee had accepted, that the assessee had concealed income or furnished inaccurate particulars of income, so as to take a position contrary to the invoices/bills submitted by the assessee supporting its returns. This position not only on the part of the assessee but also on the part of the assessing officer formed the basis of the assessment, leading to the additions as made by the Assessing Officer. Thus, in our clear opinion, there was no warrant for invoking the penalty provision u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, as rightly observed in the concurrent findings of the CIT(A) and the Tribunal. It is also a settled position of law that penalty proceedings and assessment proceedings are independent of each other, hence the parameters which are applicable for passing assessment orders are completely distinct from those applicable not only to initiate penalty proceedings but also in passing a penalty order under the provisions of section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

v) In the light of the above discussion, no interference is called for in the orders passed by the Tribunal.”

Miscellaneous Application — Mistake apparent on record — S. 254(2) — Appeal of the assessee was allowed by the Hon’ble Tribunal on the basis of the judgment of the High Courts prevailing at that time — Subsequently, the Hon’ble Supreme Court reversed the view taken by the High Courts — Subsequent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be the basis to invoke section 254(2).

44. Vaibhav Maruti Dombale vs. Asst. Registrar, ITAT

(2025) 178 taxmann.com 447 (Bom)

A. Y. 2019-20: Date of order 12/09/2025

Ss. 36(1)(va), 43B and 254 of ITA 1961

Miscellaneous Application — Mistake apparent on record — S. 254(2) — Appeal of the assessee was allowed by the Hon’ble Tribunal on the basis of the judgment of the High Courts prevailing at that time — Subsequently, the Hon’ble Supreme Court reversed the view taken by the High Courts — Subsequent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be the basis to invoke section 254(2).

The return of income filed by the assessee was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Act wherein an adjustment was made towards the amount received from the employees as contribution to any provident fund, superannuation fund etc. and not paid within the due dates prescribed u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee on the ground that Explanation 5 inserted u/s. 43B vide Finance Act 2021 was applicable retrospectively and therefore the addition deserved to be sustained. The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. It was held by the Tribunal that the amendment by way of inserting Explanation 5 to section 43B was prospective in nature. Further, the Tribunal held that the controversy was settled by the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Alom Extrusions 319 ITR 306 and the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Ghatge Patil Transport Ltd. 368 ITR 749.

Subsequently, the Department filed a Miscellaneous Application by relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Checkmate Services P. Ltd. and contended that the issue was settled in favour of the Department. It was the case of the Department that the order passed by the Tribunal was rectifiable u/s. 254(2) on the basis the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange wherein it was held that non-consideration of subsequent decision of Supreme Court was a rectifiable mistake and the provisions of section 254(2) could be invoked on the basis of subsequent decision of the Supreme Court. The Tribunal allowed the Miscellaneous Application filed by the Department and recalled its order.

Against this order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The assessee also filed appeal against the order of the Tribunal where under the appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) The judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd.( [2008] 173 Taxman 322/305 ITR 227 (SC)) is not an authority for the proposition that the power under Section 254(2) of the IT Act can be invoked on the ground of “mistake apparent from the record” on the basis of a subsequent decision of the Superior Court.

ii) The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Reliance Telecom Ltd. (2021) 133 taxmann.com 41 (SC) holds that the powers u/s. 254(2) of the IT Act are akin to Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC. The Explanation to Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC clearly provides that the fact that a decision on a question of law on which the judgement of the Court is based has been reversed or modified by a subsequent decision of a superior court in any other case was not a ground for review of such judgement. Hence, the said Explanation under Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC expressly bars a review on the ground that there is a mistake apparent on the face of the record on the basis of a subsequent decision of a Court.

iii) A subsequent ruling of a Court cannot be a ground for invoking the provisions of Section 254(2) of the IT Act. Section 254(2) of the IT Act can be invoked with a view to rectify any mistake apparent from the record. Admittedly, on the date when the original order was passed by the ITAT on 5th September 2022, it followed the law as it stood then. This was overruled subsequently by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Checkmate Services ([2022] 143 taxmann.com 178 (SC)). Hence, we are of the view, that, on the date when the ITAT passed its original order dated 5th September 2022, it could not be said that there was any error or mistake apparent on the record, giving jurisdiction to the ITAT to invoke Section 254(2) of the IT Act.”

Charitable Institution — Exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) — Assessee a Institution for promoting trade, commerce and industry — Rejection of application for exemption invoking s. 2(15) for A. Y. 2014-15 — Appeal pending against rejection order — On similar facts and circumstances Tribunal granted exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) to assessee for A. Y. 2016-17 and 2017-18 — Matter remanded to the Tribunal for reconsideration — Not challenging order of rejection for A. Y. 2013-14 is assessee’s discretion.

43. Indian Merchants Chamber vs. CIT

(2025) 478 ITR 599 (Bom): 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 4281

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 08/03/2024

Ss. 2(15), 10(23C)(iv), 253 and 254 of ITA 1961

Charitable Institution — Exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) — Assessee a Institution for promoting trade, commerce and industry — Rejection of application for exemption invoking s. 2(15) for A. Y. 2014-15 — Appeal pending against rejection order — On similar facts and circumstances Tribunal granted exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) to assessee for A. Y. 2016-17 and 2017-18 — Matter remanded to the Tribunal for reconsideration — Not challenging order of rejection for A. Y. 2013-14 is assessee’s discretion.

The petitioner is an institution formed and established with the primary object of promoting, advancing and protecting trade, commerce and industry in India. It has been regularly filing return of income since its inception. The Central Government had notified the petitioner as an institution qualifying for this exemption for the A. Ys. 1977-1978 to 2000-2001. Thereafter, up to the A. Y. 2008-2009, the Revenue has granted it exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 as a charitable institution.

According to the assessee, it qualifies for claiming exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act. The Chief Commissioner rejected the assessee’s application for grant of approval u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act for the A. Y. 2014-2015 primarily by invoking the provisions of the proviso to section 2(15) of the Act. According to Chief Commissioner, the assessee is not a charitable institution because it carries on the activities mentioned in the impugned order.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the order of rejection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) For the A. Y. 2016-2017 and the A. Y. 2017-2018, by an order dated September 27, 2022, the Tribunal has set aside the order of rejection passed by CIT (Exemptions) and has held that the petitioner was entitled to exemptions u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act. The petitioner’s application for the A. Y. 2015-2016 is yet to be disposed of by the CIT (Exemptions).

ii) Since the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal for the A. Ys. 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 has been passed after the impugned order was passed, in our view, CIT (Exemptions) should be given an opportunity to apply the law as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal.

iii) Mr. Gulabani submitted that the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal for the A. Ys. 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 has been challenged in this court by way of an appeal which is still pending. Mr. Gulabani submitted that, therefore, the Revenue has not accepted the findings of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. The apex court in Union of India vs. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd. [1992 Supp (1) SCC 443.] held that the mere fact that the order of the appellate authority is not “acceptable” to the Department—in itself an objectionable phrase—and is the subject matter of an appeal can furnish no ground for not following it unless its operation has been suspended by a competent court. The court further observed that if this healthy rule is not followed, the result will only be undue harassment to assessees and chaos in administration of tax laws.

iv) Mr. Gulabani states that a similar order, as impugned in this petition, was passed for the A. Y. 2013-2014 which has not been challenged by the petitioner. In our view, that would make no difference and it is for every assessee to decide whether to accept the order or not to accept. Mr. Mistri submitted that the petitioner is an institution that has been formed and established for promoting, advancing and protecting trade, commerce and industry in India and has been in existence for over 100 years and was established in the year 1907 and the petitioner might have chosen not to contest the order for the A. Y. 2013-2014. But that cannot alter the fact that the law, as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, is the law on the subject.

v) In the circumstances, we hereby quash and set aside the impugned order dated September 23, 2015 and remand the matter to CIT (Exemptions) for de novo consideration. CIT (Exemptions) shall consider and apply the law as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal unless CIT (Exemptions) is able to distinguish on the basis of facts. All rights and contentions are kept open.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Disqualification for exemption where activities in the nature of trade or business carried out — Income from ticket sales by organizing dance events and food stalls — Decision of court in favour of assessee in appeal for earlier assessment years on identical facts and circumstances —Held that organizing cultural events did not constitute business activity to deny exemption and dismissed the appeal filed by the Department.

42. CIT (Exemption) vs. United Way of Baroda

(2025) 478 ITR 530 (Guj): 2024 SCC

OnLine Guj 4431

A. Y. 2015-16: Date of order 22/01/2024

Ss. 2(15), 11, 12 and 13(8) of ITA 1961

Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Disqualification for exemption where activities in the nature of trade or business carried out — Income from ticket sales by organizing dance events and food stalls — Decision of court in favour of assessee in appeal for earlier assessment years on identical facts and circumstances —Held that organizing cultural events did not constitute business activity to deny exemption and dismissed the appeal filed by the Department.

For the A. Y. 2015-16, the assessee, a trust, which organized dance events during festivals, earning income from ticket sales and food stalls filed a nil return claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer denied exemption treating these activities as business under the proviso to section 2(15) and accordingly made disallowances.

The CIT(Appeals) partly allowed the assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the CIT(Appeals).

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“The assessee’s own case for the A. Y. 2014-15, on identical facts and circumstances concurrently found by the appellate authorities, had already been dismissed by the court in the appeal of the Department u/s. 260A holding, inter alia, that organizing dance events could not be termed as a business there were no distinguishing facts to take a different view for the subsequent A. Y. 2015-16.”

Capital Gains — Immovable Property — S. 50C — Sale of immovable property at or above Stamp Duty Value (SDV) — Subsequent increase in SDV — SDV at the time of agreement to sell has to be considered — Subsequent increase in SDV at the time of execution of Sale Deed not to be considered — Proviso to section 50C applicable retrospectively.

41. Pr.CIT vs. Thompson Press (India) Ltd.

(2025) 176 taxmann.com 237 (Del)

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 02/07/2025

S. 50C of ITA 1961

Capital Gains — Immovable Property — S. 50C — Sale of immovable property at or above Stamp Duty Value (SDV) — Subsequent increase in SDV — SDV at the time of agreement to sell has to be considered — Subsequent increase in SDV at the time of execution of Sale Deed not to be considered — Proviso to section 50C applicable retrospectively.

One LMIL, sold land to one MIPL which belonged to the Maccons Group. The agreement to sell was entered amongst the parties on 30/05/2013 and on the same day stamp duty of ₹72 lakhs was paid by the purchaser, that is, MIPL. The said land admeasuring about 20,000 square meters was sold by LMIL at the rate of ₹18,000 per square meter viz. for total consideration of ₹36 crores. Thereafter, LMIL merged into the assessee company.

Subsequently, a search was conducted at the residential and business premises of the Maccons Group on 27/11/2014. During search, sale deed dated 11/10/2013 executed by LMIL was found. The Stamp Duty Value of the property on the date of execution of sale deed was traced to ₹28,000 per square feet and therefore, it was the view of the Department that the consideration should have been ₹56 crores as against ₹36 crores offered by the assessee. This information was received by the Assessing Officer and notice was issued to re-open the assessment. The proceedings were completed vide order dated 05/12/2018 wherein addition u/s. 50C of the Act was made on account of the difference in the sale consideration taken into account by the assessee and the SDV on the date of execution of the agreement.

On appeal, both, the CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee, and held that the addition made by the Assessing Officer was not warranted since the assessee had entered into transaction prior to the increase in the circle rates and that the assessee had paid the stamp duty on the date of entering into agreement to sell.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as under:

“i) It is at once clear that no substantial questions of law arise in the facts of the present case. The issue sought to be raised on behalf of the revenue is whether the proviso to section 50C is applicable retrospectively. However, in view of the express finding that the transaction was at the value which is commensurate with the circle rate at the material time, the fact that the circle rate had been increased subsequently would have little effect for the purposes of section 50C.

ii) The issue involved in the present case is also covered by an earlier decision of this Court in Pr. CIT vs. Modipon Ltd. [IT Appeal No.543 of 2015, dated 30/01/2017]. In the said case, the parties had entered into an agreement to sell, which was duly registered prior to 16/09/2004. The said agreement stipulated a schedule for payment of consideration of the subject immovable property. The parties had adhered to the said schedule and had thereafter entered into a sale deed on 16/09/2004. However, on 16/09/2004, the circle rate was revised upwards. In the aforesaid context, the revenue had contended that the circle rate, as on the date of the sale deed, was required to be considered for the purposes of section 50C. This Court had rejected the said contention holding that where there is adequate external evidence supporting the assessee’s case that the transaction has been recorded and been reflected objectively in the form of a registered instrument (agreement to sell dated 27/05/2004), and all subsequent payments made have adhered to the time schedule agreed upon in respect of the amounts, the application of section 50C would be unwarranted.

iii) The Tribunal’s conclusion that the transaction was covered by two deeds, both of which characterised as sale deeds though not strictly correct in one sense, describes the nature of the agreements between the parties. Quite possibly there can be a situation like the present one where transaction recorded in the agreement to sell are acted upon over a period of time and in the interregnum the circle rates are increased. Application of section 50C in such cases would result in extreme hardship.

iv) Parliament has recognized this mischief and has added proviso to section 50C(i) with effect from 01/04/2017. Having regard to the forgoing reasons, no question of law arises; the appeal is accordingly dismissed.

TDS — Payment without TDS — Disallowance u/s. 40a(ia) — Applicability of proviso to 40a(ia) — Inserted by Finance Act 2013 with effect from 01/04/2013 — Curative and beneficial in nature —Retrospective effect from 01/04/2005 — No dispute as that the recipients had paid taxes on such payments — No disallowance can be made u/s. 40a(ia)

40. [2025] TS – 1087 – HC (Bom.)

Principal CIT vs. Morgan Stanley India Capital Pvt. Ltd. A. Y. 2009-10 Date of order 14/08/2025

S. 43B of ITA 1961

TDS — Payment without TDS — Disallowance u/s. 40a(ia) — Applicability of proviso to 40a(ia) — Inserted by Finance Act 2013 with effect from 01/04/2013 — Curative and beneficial in nature —Retrospective effect from 01/04/2005 — No dispute as that the recipients had paid taxes on such payments — No disallowance can be made u/s. 40a(ia)

In the course of scrutiny assessment for the A. Y. 2009-10, the Assessing Officer disallowed certain expenses of approximately ₹17.64 crores u/s. 40a(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, on the ground that the assessee had not deducted tax at source.

The CIT(A) deleted the disallowance and held that it was merely a case of short deduction and in doing so relied upon the decision of the Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT vs. S. K. Tekriwal (2012 SCC Online Cal13210). The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the Department.

The Bombay High Court concurred with the decision of the Calcutta High Court’s regarding the retrospective application of the second proviso to Section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, introduced effective April 1, 2013 and dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as under:

“i) This proviso deems that an assessee, who fails to deduct tax under Chapter XVII-B but is not considered in default under the first proviso to Section 201(1), is treated as having deducted and paid the tax on the date the payee files their return of income.

ii) Despite the proviso’s introduction in 2013, the court, referring to the co-ordinate bench judgment in the case of Pr.CIT vs. Perfect Circle India Pvt Ltd (Income Tax Appeal No. 707 of 2016, decided January 7, 2019), held that its curative and beneficial nature warrants retrospective application from April 1, 2005, when the main proviso to Section 40(a)(ia) was enacted. Given that the payees (the assessee’s group companies) had paid taxes on the payments received, the Assessing Officer was incorrect in invoking Section 40(a)(ia) to disallow the expenses for the A. Y. 2009-10.

iii) Consequently, there is no substantial question of law requiring further adjudication.”

General Anti-Avoidance Rules — Scope of —Impermissible Avoidance Agreement — Purchase and sale of shares — Cumulative effect of purchase and sale of shares results in loss — No strong material established by the Department to show applicability of s. 96(1) except the timing of transaction — GAAR provisions not applicable — Order passed u/s. 144BA(6) set-aside.

39. (2025) 177 taxmann.com 726 (Telangana)

Smt. Anvida Bundi vs. DCIT

A. Y. 2020-21 Date of order 22/08/2025

Ss. 96 r.w.s 144BA of ITA 1961

General Anti-Avoidance Rules — Scope of —Impermissible Avoidance Agreement — Purchase and sale of shares — Cumulative effect of purchase and sale of shares results in loss — No strong material established by the Department to show applicability of s. 96(1) except the timing of transaction — GAAR provisions not applicable — Order passed u/s. 144BA(6) set-aside.

The Assessee, an individual, held investments in shares and securities. During the year, the assessee sold certain shares (already held by her) and earned long term capital gains of about ₹44.14 crores from sale of shares. In order to deploy the funds available from sale of shares, and keeping in mind the market trend, the assessee purchased shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. to earn short-term capital gains and thereafter to make long-term capital gains from subsequent disposal of investment. The assessee also invested in the units of mutual fund worth ₹32.92 crores during the year. Subsequently, the assessee sold shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. in the same year. The cumulative effect of purchase of shares of M/s. HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. in the open market and sale of shares thereafter resulted in loss of ₹17.65 crores to the petitioner for the same Financial Year 2019-20.

The Department was of the view that the transaction of purchase and sale of shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. during the year amounted to Impermissible Avoidance Agreement (IAA) and the provisions of Chapter X-A, dealing with General Anti-Avoidance Rules were applicable to the said transactions. The assessee filed objections. However, the approving panel passed the order dated 21/03/2023 holding that the transactions undertaken by the petitioner so far as purchase and sale of shares of M/s.HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd., particularly taking into consideration the period of time during which the sale and purchase was made, amounts to “IAA”.

Against the said order, the assessee filed writ petition before the High Court on the contention that the Department had not met any of the criteria envisaged u/s. 96(1) of the Act to treat the transactions as IAA.

The Telangana High Court took note of certain admitted facts such as that the Department had not been able to show or has collected any material to prove that the purchase and sale of shares made by the petitioner was with any of their known persons or entity. There was no nexus between purchase and sale of shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. All the shares were sold through the stock exchange through the DMAT account of the assessee. The assessee was an investor in shares and the purchase and sale of shares by the assessee was not one of the isolated transactions specifically made to save tax. The transactions formed part of the return of the assessee and there was no new material to hold that the so-called arrangement was hit by the GAAR provision. Lastly, except for the timing of transactions, there was also no material to hold the transactions to be an IAA. In view of these facts, the High Court taking note of the report prepared by the expert committee under the Act regarding general anti-avoidance rules held that the report itself has categorically held that sale and purchase through stock market transactions would not come under the GAAR provisions. It was held that timing of a transaction or a taxpayer would not be questioned under the GAAR provisions on sale and purchase of shares made by the assessee. The Telangana High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) So far as the timing part is concerned, which perhaps was the strong point on which the authority concerned has passed the impugned order, it is necessary to take note of the report prepared by the expert committee under the Income Tax Act with regard to general anti-avoidance rules are concerned. The said report itself has categorically held that sale and purchase through stock market transactions would not come under the GAAR provisions. It was held that timing of a transaction or a taxpayer would not be questioned under the GAAR provisions on sale and purchase of shares made by the assessee.

ii) In view of the aforesaid factual matrix of the case, we are of the considered opinion that the Department has not been able to show any arrangement to have been made by the petitioner in the course of selling its shares of M/s.HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd., and it was a pure trading done by the petitioner with no knowledge of purchase and sale carried out by the petitioner. In the absence of any strong material made available by the Department meeting the requirements and ingredients that are reflected under Section 96(1) of the Act, we are of the considered opinion that the writ petition deserves to be and is accordingly allowed. The impugned order dated 23/01/2023 passed by respondent No.3 u/s. 144BA(6) of the Act for the A. Y. 2020-21 is set aside.”

Deduction u/s. 80-IA :— (A) Interest on FD — Funds kept aside periodically by way of FD — Obligation under the license agreement to replace cranes after a certain period — Funds parked in FD to meet contractual obligation — Funds were also parked in FD under a compliance order of the High Court due to a tariff dispute between the assessee and TAMP — Placement of FD imperative for the business — FD was not created for parking of surplus funds — Interest is eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA: (B) Interest on TDS refund — TDS wrongly deducted by customers — TDS was directly part of sales receipt of the assessee — Interest on TDS refund arose due to excess TDS deducted by the customers against the payment to be made to the assessee — TDS was part of business receipt of the assessee — Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA on interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.

38. [2025] 177 taxmann.com 707 (Bom.)

Gateway Terminals India (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT

A. Y. 2012-13 Date of order 26/08/2025

S. 80-IA of ITA 1961

Deduction u/s. 80-IA :— (A) Interest on FD — Funds kept aside periodically by way of FD — Obligation under the license agreement to replace cranes after a certain period — Funds parked in FD to meet contractual obligation — Funds were also parked in FD under a compliance order of the High Court due to a tariff dispute between the assessee and TAMP — Placement of FD imperative for the business — FD was not created for parking of surplus funds — Interest is eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA:

(B) Interest on TDS refund — TDS wrongly deducted by customers — TDS was directly part of sales receipt of the assessee — Interest on TDS refund arose due to excess TDS deducted by the customers against the payment to be made to the assessee — TDS was part of business receipt of the assessee — Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA on interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.

The assessee, a joint venture company, was engaged in the business of operating and maintaining a container terminal at Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) which was eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

During the previous year, the assessee earned interest income from FDs maintained with the banks. These funds were kept in FD with banks because under the license agreement with JNPT, the assessee was under an obligation to replace cranes after a certain period. These cranes were a significant portion of the machinery and equipment of the assessee. The failure to replace cranes as per the license agreement would result in revocation of the license. Therefore, a portion of funds were regularly deposited by way of FDs to meet contractual obligations required to be fulfilled in order to continue the business of maintaining the container terminal. Further, interest was also received on FD due to a tariff dispute between assessee and TAMP and, thus, funds were parked in compliance of order of High Court. In addition to the above, the assessee also earned interest on refund of taxes due to wrongful deduction of TDS by the customers of the Appellant.

In the return of income filed by the assessee, for the A. Y. 2012-13, deduction u/s. 80-IA was claimed which included the above interest income. The assessment was completed by allowing the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IA which included interest income on FD. The interest income on income-tax refund was taxed by the Assessing Officer under the head Income from Other Sources.

On appeal before the CIT(A), the CIT(A) enhanced the income of the assessee by denying deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Act in respect of interest on FD on the ground that it was not derived from an industrial undertaking. The Tribunal rejected the appeal filed by the assessee.

The assessee filed an appeal before the High Court against the said order. The assessee also filed miscellaneous application, which was rejected by the Tribunal. Against the order rejecting the miscellaneous application, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court.

The Bombay High Court disposed of both the appeal and the writ filed by the assessee and decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i) The assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Act on the interest from FDs which was placed by the assessee for planning of replacement of equipments as per the provisions of the agreement with JNPT. The facts that the placement of fixed deposits was imperative for the purpose of carrying on the eligible business of the assessee. The placement of FDs was not for parking surplus funds which were lying idle. The assessee had used these FDs for purchasing cranes for the eligible business and there was a direct nexus between the FDs and the eligible business of the assessee. Thus, in view of the foregoing, the deduction in respect of interest on FD was allowed.

ii) TDS was wrongly deducted by the vendors/customers of the assessee from the payment made to the assessee for using the port facility and, therefore, the TDS wrongly deducted was directly a part of the sales receipt of the assessee from the eligible business. The TDS refund arose to the assessee due to the excess TDS cut by the customers against payment to be made to the assessee and therefore the TDS was a part of the business receipt of the assessee. Had the customers not deducted excess amount of TDS, the assessee would have received the surplus funds which would be used for the business purpose/ repayment of loans etc. The refund received by the assessee was an integral part connected with the receipt of business income by the assessee and the same could not be separated from the business of the assessee. In these circumstances, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA, on the interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.”

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 — Charitable purpose — Applicability of proviso to s. 2(15) — Donations received from donors after deducting an amount shown as deduction of tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J — AO treating receipts as consultancy fees and contractual income based on deduction of tax at source rejected exemption u/s. 11 — Assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected — Held, proviso to s. 2(15) cannot be invoked alleging that services rendered in relation to trade, commerce or business — Provison under which donor deducted tax alone could not determine nature of receipt — No element of trade, commerce or business activity established — Assessee is entitled to exemption — Assessment order and order rejecting revision petition set aside.

37. (2025) 476 ITR 489 (Delhi)

Aroh Foundation vs. CIT

A. Y. 2017-18 Date of order 05/02/2024

Ss. 2(15) proviso, 11, 12, 13(8), 194C, 194J and 264 of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 — Charitable purpose — Applicability of proviso to s. 2(15) — Donations received from donors after deducting an amount shown as deduction of tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J — AO treating receipts as consultancy fees and contractual income based on deduction of tax at source rejected exemption u/s. 11 — Assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected — Held, proviso to s. 2(15) cannot be invoked alleging that services rendered in relation to trade, commerce or business — Provison under which donor deducted tax alone could not determine nature of receipt — No element of trade, commerce or business activity established — Assessee is entitled to exemption — Assessment order and order rejecting revision petition set aside.

The assessee is a non-Governmental organisation registered as a charitable institution u/s. 12A, 12AA and 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee claims to have been working for the upliftment of the poor, underprivileged children and women, health, preservation of the environment and other social causes. In order to fulfil its charitable objectives, the assessee receives various grants from the Government as well as the private sector which is exempted from tax u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act. During the previous year relevant to the A. Y. 2017-18, the assessee received the donations, which included receipts from donors who had deducted tax at source u/s.194C and 194J. The Assessing Officer denied exemption u/s. 11 and 12, treating these receipts as consulting fees and contractual income, invoking the proviso to section 2(15). The assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the rejection order u/s. 264. The assessee contended that at no point of time, except for the A. Y. 2017-2018 was the charitable status of the assessee doubted by the respondent-Revenue and for all previous assessment years, specifically for the A. Ys. 2011-2012, 2012-2013, 2013-2014, and 2015-2016, under similar circumstances, exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act was granted to the assessee and even for the subsequent assessment year, i.e., the A. Y. 2018-2019 as well, similar benefit was extended. However, the benefits for the relevant assessment year in question have been denied merely on the ground that the donor has deducted tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J of the Act, while allocating requisite grants to the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) In the instant case, the sole reason to construe the receipt amounting to ₹5,90,42,892 received by the donors under the tax regime is founded on the assumption that the same is towards professional/technical services or contractual income as tax at source was deducted under sections 194C and 194J of the Act.

ii) We, prima facie, find no merit in the above mentioned rationale as firstly, that alone cannot be the basis to conclude the aforesaid receipt to be considered under the category of consultancy fees and contractual income. Secondly, there is no element of activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business, or any activity of rendering any service in relation to any trade, commerce or business. Thirdly, in the absence of any cogent reason, receipts in question cannot be “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

iii) If the deductor in its Income-tax return, under misconception, deducts tax at source u/ss. 194C and 194J of the Act, the same would not disentitle the assessee to claim benefit u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act unless the case of the assessee is specifically hit by the proviso of section 2(15) of the Act, which is not the case here. The proviso to section 2(15) of the Act would not get attracted merely on the basis of deduction of tax at source by the donor under a particular head.

iv) It is thus seen that deduction of tax at source by donor would not be the determinative factor for denial of benefits u/ss. 11 and 12 of the Act. The respondent-Revenue, in the instant case, in the preceding years as well as in the succeeding years, under almost similar circumstances, has accepted the exemption claimed by the assessee u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act and, therefore, should not have deviated from its consistent approach in denying benefits to the assessee.

v) Accordingly, we find that the assessment order dated December 22, 2019 and the order passed by the revisional authority dated March 27, 2021 suffer from material perversity. The writ petition is accordingly allowed and the impugned orders are hereby, set aside. The receipt of ₹5,90,42,892 shall not be treated as income and the assessee is entitled for exemptions enshrined u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act.”

Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) — Cash payment in excess of prescribed limit — Effect of s. 40A and rule 6DD — Payments to agents cannot be disallowed — Meaning of agent — Assessee’s supervisor acting as agent of assessee, and accounting to him for amounts received and disbursed to individual labourers — Supervisors not sub-contractors and payments made by them to labourers on assessee’s behalf not to be disallowed u/s. 40A(3).

36. (2025) 477 ITR 95 (Calcutta)

Sk. Jaynal Abddin vs. CIT

A. Y. 2006-07 Date of order 02/04/2024

S. 40A(3) of ITA 1961 and Rule 6DD of ITR 1962 and S 182 of Indian Contract Act, 1872

Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) — Cash payment in excess of prescribed limit — Effect of s. 40A and rule 6DD — Payments to agents cannot be disallowed — Meaning of agent — Assessee’s supervisor acting as agent of assessee, and accounting to him for amounts received and disbursed to individual labourers — Supervisors not sub-contractors and payments made by them to labourers on assessee’s behalf not to be disallowed u/s. 40A(3).

The appellant-assessee is engaged in the business of embroidery and stitching. The assessee paid a sum of ₹1,21,49,190 for payment to labourers. According to the assessee, the aforesaid amount was paid to the labourers through supervisors who were employees of the assessee. The assessee used to draw a lump-sum amount from bank by cheque through his employees, i.e., supervisors for payment to be made to labourers. The supervisors used to make payment to labourers and give an account to the assessee in the form of a list containing payments made to each individual labourer. In none of the cases, the payment so made by the supervisors to individual labourer exceeded ₹20,000. The Assessing Officer, while passing the assessment order dated December 31, 2008 for the assessment year in question, i.e., A. Y. 2006-07, invoked section 40A(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by recording the following facts:

“The ground level labourers were not subject to professional tax, Employees’ State Insurance, provident fund, etc. There were no employer-employee relationship with the assessee and the labourers. The assessee simply got the work done by skilled labourers and the payment is ascertained on the basis of quality and quantity of the work done by them. The assessee in his submission dated December 30, 2008 further clarified that the job allotted to the worker are purely temporary. Workers are paid some times for few months even for a few days. Thus, labour welfare measures are neither taken up nor it is practicable. These workers are quite illiterate, partly homeless and fast changing the employer and work on piece rate on the condition of no work no pay.”

The Assessing Officer therefore inferred that the assessee could not produce satisfactory explanation for violation of the provisions of section 40A(3). Therefore, the Assessing Officer disallowed 20 per cent. of ₹1,21,49,191 that is ₹24,29,838 u/s. 40A(3) of the Act.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal and recorded the following finding of fact:

“I have carefully gone through the assessment order and explanation given by the appellant. The Assessing Officer has stated that the payments to the supervisor workers are in excess of ₹20,000 in cash for which he has disallowed the expenses in terms of section 40A(3) of the Income-tax Act. It has already been held in the preceding paragraphs that the so-called sub-contractors are actually supervisor worker and employees of the appellant-firm. The payments made to them are meant for disbursement amongst the workers. It would be seen from the labour sheets that no single payment to the worker exceeds ₹20,000 in cash. The practice followed by the appellant is to withdraw the aggregate amount of labour charges from bank and to disburse the same amongst the individual workers through the supervisor. In not a single case, the individual payments to each worker ever exceeded ₹20,000 as would be seen from the monthly pay sheet and wage summary sheet. Considering the totality of the facts and circumstances and having regard to the case laws cited above, it is held that the disallowance under section 40A(3) made by the Assessing Officer is not called for. Accordingly, the addition of ₹24,29,838 is deleted.”

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the Revenue and has recorded the following finding to hold that the supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee:

“We observe that the assessee with each of the above so-called supervisors ledger account has enclosed the copies of weekly work sheet showing the name of worker, inter alia, amount paid to each of them. However, on the top of the said work sheet, name of the said supervisor is stated. It is observed that the assessee was making lump-sum payment on an ad hoc basis for the purpose of further disbursement to the workers and not as per the amount payable by them to the individual workers. We also observe from each page of the ledger account placed in paper book (supra) that there is a closing balance. Had these supervisors been merely an employee of the assessee along with the other workers, we are of the considered view that there was no question of any closing balance as on March 31, 2006. If the assessee had made the payments to them for the purpose of further disbursement, the assessee would have paid the amount to the so-called supervisors the amounts which were actually payable to them. However, this is not the case. Considering the entries in the ledger account, it fortifies the views of the Assessing Officer that the so-called group leaders or supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee and the workers whose names are mentioned in the work sheet to whom the payments were made through respective so-called group leaders, who were working not under the assessee but under the said so-called group leader.”

On appeal by the assessee the Calcutta High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration:

“Whether the Tribunal was justified in law in judging the applicability of section 40A(3) of the Act with reference to the lump-sum amount paid to the leader of each group of workers for the purpose of disbursement to the individual workers on the appellant’s behalf and not with reference to the payment made to each individual worker and in holding that the group leader was the appellant’s sub-contractor or that the individual workers worked not under the appellant but under such group leader and its purported findings in that behalf are arbitrary, unreasonable and perverse?”

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee, answered the question in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i) On perusal of the assessment order, we find that the Assessing Officer has not disputed the specific case of the appellant-assessee that the supervisors are his employees. The specific stand of the appellant-assessee that the supervisors are his employees, was supported by books of account which were before the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer recorded the finding that since the provisions of Employees’ State Insurance, Provident Fund, etc., were not followed by the assessee, therefore, the individual labourers are not employees of the assessee. The Assessing Officer nowhere disputed the stand of the assessee supported by books of account that the supervisors are employees of the assessee. In paragraph 11 of the impugned order the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal recorded a finding based on surmise and presumption that the supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee. This finding is perverse inasmuch as firstly it is not supported by any evidence and secondly it is contrary to evidence on record in the form of books of account that the supervisors are the employees who have been paid salary. Therefore, the finding recorded by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in the impugned order that the supervisors are sub-contractors, is perverse and is hereby set aside.

ii) Section 40A(3) of the Act afore-quoted, as it stood at the relevant time, clearly provides by the second proviso that no disallowance under this sub-section shall be made, where any payment in a sum exceeding ₹20,000 is made otherwise than by a crossed cheque drawn on a bank or by a crossed bank draft; in such cases and under such circumstances as may be prescribed, having regard to the nature and extent of banking facilities available, considerations of business expediency and other relevant factors. Circumstances as referred in the aforesaid second proviso to section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 have been prescribed in rule 6DD of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. Rule 6DD(1) clearly provides that no disallowance under sub-section (3) of section 40A shall be made where any payment in a sum exceeding twenty thousand rupees is made otherwise than by a crossed cheque drawn on a bank or by a crossed bank draft in the cases and circumstances where the payment is made by any person to his agent who is required to make payment in cash for goods or services on behalf of such person.

iii) Supervisors of the assessee acted as “agent” of the assessee. The word “agent” and “principal” has been defined in section 182 of the Indian Contract Act. An agent is a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with the third persons. The person for whom such act is done, or who is so represented, is called “principal”. Undisputed facts of the present case are that the appellant had withdrawn the amount from his bank account through his employees, i.e., supervisors for disbursement to individual labourers and the supervisors gave an account of the money so received for payment to labourers. Thus, the appellant-assessee is the principal and the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee. It is settled law that an authority of an agent may be express or implied. Submission of account by a supervisor acting as agent of the assessee, for the amount received and disbursed to individual labourers, leaves no manner of doubt that the supervisors who were employees of the assessee, acted as agents of the assessee for the purposes of disbursement of amount to the labourers. The payment so made by the supervisors had not exceeded ₹20,000 to any individual labourer. As per the provisions of section 211 of the Indian Contract Act, agent is bound to conduct the business of his principal according to the directions given by the principal or in the absence of such direction according to the customs which prevail in doing business of the same kind at the place where the agent conducts such business. In the present set of facts the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee in conducting the assessee’s business. There is no material or evidence on record to indicate or establish that the supervisors were sub-contractors. Under the circumstances, the finding recorded by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal that the supervisors were sub-contractors is perverse and contrary to law. Consequently, the said finding is hereby set aside.

iv) We have found that the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee to disburse the amount to individual labourers which in no case exceeded ₹20,000 to any individual labour. Therefore, in view of the circumstances prescribed in the second proviso to section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 read with rule 6DD(1) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 and the above-referred provisions of the Indian Contract Act, the aforesaid payment of ₹1,21,49,190 cannot fall within the scope of section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961. Consequently, the disallowance to the extent of 20 per cent made by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal and to add it in the income of the assessee cannot be sustained and is hereby set aside.

v) For all the reasons afore-stated, the impugned order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to the extent it upholds the disallowance u/s. 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 for ₹24,29,838 cannot be sustained and is hereby set aside. Consequently, the substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Applicability of section 132A — Stolen property — Theft at the premises of the assessee — Criminal Case — Stolen property found by the police — Application to the Trial Court for possession of the stolen property — Objection by the Income-tax Department — Ownership documents submitted by the assessee — Objection of the Tax Department not maintainable.

35. (2025) 345 CTR 433 (MP)

Shravan Kumar Pathak vs. State of MP

A. Y. 2022-23 Date of order 09/05/2024

Ss. 132A of ITA 1961 and 397, 401 & 457 of Cr.PC

Applicability of section 132A — Stolen property — Theft at the premises of the assessee — Criminal Case — Stolen property found by the police — Application to the Trial Court for possession of the stolen property — Objection by the Income-tax Department — Ownership documents submitted by the assessee — Objection of the Tax Department not maintainable.

Assessee is an individual. In the facts of this case, a theft took place at the house of the assessee wherein cash amounting to ₹3 crores and 4 kgs of gold was stolen. A police complaint was filed by the assessee and an FIR was registered by the police. After making investigation, the police arrested the accused and recovered the stolen articles. The Assessee filed an application u/s. 457 of the Criminal Procedure Code before the trial court for handing over the possession of articles seized by the police in his favour.

Against the application moved by the assessee applicant u/s. 457 of the CrPC, the Department filed an objection that the applicant kept such a huge cash amount and gold in his house with an intent to avoid tax liability, which otherwise is a loss to the Government and as such, custody of the seized articles should not be handed over to the assessee. In addition, the Assistant Director, Income Tax, had also asked for the custody of the articles recovered from the thieves.

The application filed by the assessee was rejected by the Trial Court on the ground that the inquiry by the Department had not been concluded and the amount may be subject matter of confiscation and therefore it would not be proper to hand over the possession to the assessee applicant.

Against this order by the Trial Court, the assessee applicant filed a revision application before the High Court. The Madhya Pradesh High Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) From the aforesaid enunciation of law, it is clear that in a criminal case, if any stolen property is seized by the police from the accused, then the Income Tax Department cannot claim possession over the said seized property by issuing notice u/s. 132A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the reason that the same is a separate proceeding and can be initiated only after decision of the Court.

ii) The trial Court on a mere objection raised by the Income Tax Department cannot reject the application preferred by the applicant for the reason that it is the duty of the Court to see whether the person claiming possession over the seized articles, satisfies the Court by producing cogent evidence of his/her ownership or not. From the record of the trial Court, it reveals that while claiming title over the seized articles, the applicant has not only filed a certificate issued by the Tahsildar but also filed other relevant documents of his title over the same and as such, after considering the same, an order in this regard ought to have been passed, but the Court has failed to do so.

iii) Under such circumstances, the impugned order dated 08/04/2022 (Annexure-P/6) passed by the trial Court is not sustainable in the eyes of law and as such, it is hereby set aside.”

Solicitor’s fees — Assessability as income — Amount received by solicitor from clients for certain specific task — Amount is received in fiduciary capacity — Amount is not assessable as income.

34. (2025) 475 ITR 473 (Cal):

CIT vs. Sanderson & Morgans:

A. Y. 2007-08: Date of order 7/2/2024:

S. 4 of ITA 1961

Solicitor’s fees — Assessability as income — Amount received by solicitor from clients for certain specific task — Amount is received in fiduciary capacity — Amount is not assessable as income.

The assessee was a solicitor. For the A. Y. 2007-08, in the return of income, the assessee had shown receipts from profession of ₹ 1,82,02,958. As per the certificate of tax deduction at source, the amount received was ₹ 5,56,88,817. The assessee was required to explain the difference of ₹ 3,74,85,859. The assessee explained that it had been receiving advances from its clients, a portion of which was spent on behalf of the client for counsel’s fees, stamp paper, court fees stamp, payment to rent controller, bank draft in lieu of stamp duty and registration fees, etc. The assessee also gave complete details of payment made head-wise. The Assessing Officer recognised that the money was spent by the assessee on behalf of its clients but added the differential amount of ₹ 3,74,85,859 to the income of the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the amount was not assessable as income of the assessee. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) When a solicitor receives money from his client, he does not do so as a trading receipt but he receives the money of the principal in his capacity as an agent and that also in a fiduciary capacity. The money so received does not have any profit-making quality about it when received. It remains money received by a solicitor as “client’s money” for being employed in the client’s cause. The solicitor remains liable to account for this money to his client. It is not assessable as his income.

ii) No adverse on the basis of section 145 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, could be drawn against the assessee. The money received by the assessee from clients were held by the assessee in a fiduciary capacity. That apart, the payment made by the assessee as agent on behalf of its clients (principal) under various heads, had not been doubted or disputed and instead a finding of fact regarding such payment had been arrived by Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal. The amount was not assessable as income in the hands of the assessee.”

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of Power of Commissioner — Mistake in the return of income — Detected when intimation u/s. 143(1) issued/received — Time limit to file revised return expired — Powers of the Commissioner wide enough to rectify a bonafide mistake committed by the assessee even after the expiry of the time limit to file revised return.

33. 2025 (7) TMI 1439 (Cal.):

Crown Electromechanical Pvt Ltd. vs. Pr.CIT:

A.Y.: 2022-23: Date of order 15/07/2025:

Ss. 264 of ITA 1961

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of Power of Commissioner — Mistake in the return of income — Detected when intimation u/s. 143(1) issued/received — Time limit to file revised return expired — Powers of the Commissioner wide enough to rectify a bonafide mistake committed by the assessee even after the expiry of the time limit to file revised return.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2022-23 declaring total income at ₹ 9,54,872. However, due to oversight certain figures which were required to be provided in the profit and loss account under Part – A of the return were not included. Subsequently, the return was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued wherein the total income was determined at ₹3,58,76,000 and a demand of ₹1,02,60,400 was determined to be payable by the assessee. It is only when the intimation u/s. 143(1) was issued that the assessee detected the mistake in the return of income filed by the assessee.

By the time the assessee received intimation u/s. 143(1), the time limit to file revised return had expired. Therefore, the assessee resorted to section 264 and filed an application before the Principal Commissioner along with audited accounts and tax audit report and claimed that the profit of the assessee for the assessment year under consideration was only ₹ 9,54,872 as against ₹ 3,58,76,000 determined in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) and thereby requested the Principal Commissioner to consider the income of the assessee correctly. The application was rejected vide order dated 4.3.2025 on the ground that apart from the assessee, none is competent to alter the return filed by the assessee.

Against this order of the Principal Commissioner, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Calcutta High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The learned advocate representing the respondent has placed reliance on the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. vs.CIT; (2006) 284 ITR 323 (SC) on the question whether the assessee could make a claim for deduction other than by filling a revised return.

ii) I note that the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the said case Goetze (India) Ltd. (supra) was dealing with the claim of deduction of the assessee introduced by way of a letter to the Assessing Officer which was disallowed on the ground that there was no provision under the Income Tax Act to make amendment in the return of income by modifying the application at the assessment stage without revising the return. Although, the assessee on an appeal had succeeded before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), the department was able to secure a favorable order by way of reversal on the further appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal. The matter thus, travelled to the Supreme Court. The Hon’ble Supreme Court while considering the above and the power of the Tribunal u/s. 254 of the said Act observed that the tribunal can entertain for the first time a point of law provided the fact on the basis of which the issue of law can be raised was before the Tribunal. While observing as such, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had, however, made it clear that the exercise of powers by Assessing Authority does not impinge upon the power of the Income Tax Tribunal u/s. 254 of the
said Act.

iii) Although, much stress has been laid on the aforesaid judgment, however, I find that in the said cause as noted above, the question as to whether an error by an assessee could be corrected by a revisional authority u/s. 264 was not an issue. As rightly pointed out by the learned advocate representing the petitioner and as would appear from the scheme of Section 264, the consistent view of this Court and all the other High Courts that the power u/s. 264 can be exercised when a bona fide mistake has been committed even by the assessee, an appropriate rectification of the return can be effected thereunder, as has been noted in the judgment delivered in the case of in Ena Chaudhuri vs. ACIT; (2023) 148 taxmann.com 100 (Cal.) in paragraph-11 thereof. The relevant portion of the judgment is extracted hereinbelow:

“11. In my considered view, in the facts and circumstances of the case, Commissioner in refusal to consider the aforesaid claim of the petitioner has misinterpreted and misconstrued the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. (supra) as well as the scope of jurisdiction confer upon him u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by equating the same with that of the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer in considering the claim of any allowance/deduction by an assessee in return or without filling any revised return.”

iv) In view thereof, it is clear that respondent no. 1 had committed error in failing to exercise jurisdiction, thereby rejecting the above application. Having regard thereto, I remand the matter back to the appropriate authority to decide the cause on the basis of the observation made herein. Accordingly, the order passed by respondent no. 1 is set aside.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand pending appeal before CIT(A) — Condition requiring 20 per cent., deposit of outstanding demand is contrary to law — Instruction issued by CBDT misconceived — Non-consideration of prima facie merits and undue hardship — Mechanical approach rejecting stay application solely due to non-deposit of 20 per cent amount is contrary to law — Order of conditional stay set aside — Matter remanded.

32. (2025) 475 ITR 96 (Del):

Centre For Policy Research vs. CIT:

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 09/05/2024:

Ss. 156 and 220(6) of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand pending appeal before CIT(A) — Condition requiring 20 per cent., deposit of outstanding demand is contrary to law — Instruction issued by CBDT misconceived — Non-consideration of prima facie merits and undue hardship — Mechanical approach rejecting stay application solely due to non-deposit of 20 per cent amount is contrary to law — Order of conditional stay set aside — Matter remanded.

The assessee was registered as a charitable trust u/s. 12A r.w.s. 12AA and 12AB(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s registration was cancelled with retrospective effect, which formed the subject matter of a separate writ petition wherein interim orders were passed. Following this cancellation, an assessment order was passed for the A. Y. 2022-23. The assessee filed appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) u/s. 246A of the Act. The assessee also applied for stay of the demand u/s. 220(6) of the Act, during the pendency of the Appeal. The Assessing Officer passed an order requiring the assessee to deposit 20 per cent of the outstanding demand as a precondition for granting protection, failing which recovery proceedings would be initiated.

The assessee filed writ petition against this order. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The order rejecting the stay of demand u/s. 220(6) did not consider either the prima facie merits of the case or the issue of undue hardship to the assessee. The Assessing Officer had erred in proceeding in the assumption that the application for stay of demand could not be entertained without 20 per cent pre-deposit which was a requirement mentioned in the CBDT office memorandum. Such requirement could not be treated as inflexible or inviolable. The quantum of deposit would depend on the facts and circumstances of each case after considering factors such as prima facie case, undue hardship, and likelihood of success.

ii) We, accordingly, allow the instant writ petition and set aside the impugned order dated May 3, 2024. The matter shall in consequence stand remitted to the Assessing Officer who shall examine the application for stay of demand afresh and bearing in mind the legal principles as enunciated in National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) vs. Dy. CIT (Exemption) [(2024) 470 ITR 493 (Delhi)].”

Penalty u/s. 270A — Debatable issue — Receipts chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ u/s. 9(1)(vii) or ‘Fees for included services’ under Article 12 of the DTAA between India and USA — Divergent views taken by the High Courts — Two views possible — Penalty u/s. 270A not leviable.

31. 2025 (8) TMI 768 (Kar):

Pr.CIT(IT) vs. IBM Australia Limited.:

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 31/07/2025:

Ss. 9(1)(vii) and 270A of ITA 1961

Penalty u/s. 270A — Debatable issue — Receipts chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ u/s. 9(1)(vii) or ‘Fees for included services’ under Article 12 of the DTAA between India and USA — Divergent views taken by the High Courts — Two views possible — Penalty u/s. 270A not leviable.

The Assessee Company is a tax resident of Australia filed its return of income and claimed a refund. During the year under consideration, the Assessee had received a sum of about ₹ 65.38 crores from IBM India Limited, a company incorporated in India towards IT Support, including recovery of salary expenses of the employees that were seconded to IBM India. The Assessee’s return was selected for scrutiny and the subject matter of dispute was as to whether the said receipts were chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ (FTS) u/s. 9(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or Fees for Included Service under Article 12 of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and USA. The Assessing Officer penalty u/s. 270A of the Act.

The Tribunal set aside the penalty. The Tribunal had examined the nature of the disputes and had further noted that the decision of this Court in Flipkart Internet (P). Limited vs. DCIT (International Taxation): [2022] 139 taxmann.com 595], had favoured the Assessee. The Tribunal held that given the nature of the disputes, clearly, two views are possible. Thus, the penalty u/s. 270A of the Act could not be levied, as the question involved was a vexed one.

The Karnataka High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and upheld the view of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The question whether such receipts would fall within the scope of FTS/FIS has been subject matter before various Courts. The Hon’ble High Court noted that while most High Courts took a favourable view that such proceeds would not fall within FTS, the Delhi High Court in the case of M/s. Centrica India Offshore Private Limited v. CIT [(2014) 44 taxmann.com 300 (Del.)] had taken the view that secondment of employees would result in absorption of knowledge by the entity to whom such employees had been seconded. Given the possible views, the assessee had opted for Vivad se Vishwas Scheme and settled the issue regarding the levy of tax.

ii) The Assessee operated under the reasonable and bona fide belief that the payments received were not subject to taxation under the Act. We find no infirmity in the said order and no substantial question of law exists for consideration by this court.”

Offence and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Assessee filed a return, accepted with a refund — French Government information under DTAA alleged assessee held Swiss bank accounts — A search conducted u/s. 132 — No incriminating evidence found — Addition made on account of alleged foreign accounts — Tribunal set it aside — Criminal complaints u/s. 276C, 276D, and 277 for tax evasion and non-compliance with a notice to sign a consent form filed — Information from French, not Swiss, authorities was unauthenticated, and no evidence supported tax evasion — Without credible evidence, sections 276C, 276D, and 277 were inapplicable, and complaints were quashed — Non-signing of consent form was penalized under section 271, not warranting criminal proceedings.

30. [2025] 176 taxmann.com 771 (Del.):

Anurag Dalmia vs. ITO:

A. Ys. 2006-07 and 2007-08:

Date of order 21/07/2025:

Ss. 276C r.w.s. 5, 271, 276D and 277 of ITA 1961

Offence and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Assessee filed a return, accepted with a refund — French Government information under DTAA alleged assessee held Swiss bank accounts — A search conducted u/s. 132 — No incriminating evidence found — Addition made on account of alleged foreign accounts — Tribunal set it aside — Criminal complaints u/s. 276C, 276D, and 277 for tax evasion and non-compliance with a notice to sign a consent form filed — Information from French, not Swiss, authorities was unauthenticated, and no evidence supported tax evasion — Without credible evidence, sections 276C, 276D, and 277 were inapplicable, and complaints were quashed — Non-signing of consent form was penalized under section 271, not warranting criminal proceedings.

The assessee filed Income Tax Returns for 2006-07 and 2007-08, declaring total income, which were finalized with refunds issued u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In 2011, French authorities, under the DTAA, informed that the assessee held bank accounts in HSBC Private Bank, Switzerland, linked to four accounts as a beneficial holder.

Based on the information received, a search u/s. 132 of the Act was carried out on 20.01.2012 at the premises of the assessee but no incriminating material was found against the assessee. Assessee’s statements were recorded u/s. 132(4) wherein the assessee denied having any account in HSBC Bank.

In response to the notice issued u/s. 153A, the assessee filed return of income declaring the same income as was previously disclosed in his earlier returns. In the course of assessment, the assessee was required to sign the consent waiver form to procure details of his Bank account from the Swiss Bank. The assessee attended the proceedings through his Chartered Accountant and submitted response and filed the details from time to time. Thereafter, the assessment was completed vide order dated 23.03.2015 wherein certain additions on account of undisclosed alleged Foreign Bank Accounts, particularly the HSBC Bank in Switzerland and the interest presumed to have been received from the alleged Foreign Bank Accounts for the years 2006-07 and 2007-08 were made u/s. 69 of the Act. Additionally, a penalty along with interest, was imposed vide order dated 30.06.2015.

On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. On further appeal before the Tribunal, the additions made by the AO were set aside.

Subsequently, in January 2016, criminal complaint u/s. 276C(1)(i), 277(1) and 276(D) of the Act were filed against the assessee for wilful attempt to evade tax in relation the alleged Foreign Bank Accounts in HSBC Bank, Switzerland, alleged false verification given while filing original Return of Income; non-compliance of notice wherein the assessee was required to sign “the Consent Form”.

The assessee filed Criminal Petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking quashing of the complaints on the ground that the appeal was decided in favour of the assessee by the Tribunal and since the order of the AO was set aside, the criminal proceedings initiated against the assessee became infructuous.

The High Court resolved the petitions in favour of the assessee, on broadly 3 questions as follows:

i. Whether the information received from France under DTAA can be relied upon to initiate criminal case against the accused?

The Hon’ble High Court held that unauthenticated documents received from the French Government under the DTAA without verification by Swiss Authorities and unaccompanied by supporting incriminating material found during a search do not provide sufficient grounds to initiate criminal proceedings. The presence of the assessee’s name in such documents alone does not shift the burden of proof onto the assessee.

ii. Whether the assessee could be compelled to sign the consent waiver form?

The Hon’ble Court stated that failing to sign the Consent Waiver Form, without authenticated incriminating evidence, cannot be considered an offence under Section 276D or as evidence of undisclosed income; however, this non-compliance may result in a penalty under Section 271(1)(b) but does not warrant criminal prosecution.

iii. Whether criminal complaints can be sustained when the assessment order has been set aside by the Tribunal for want of incriminating material?

The Court also concluded that criminal complaints u/s. 276C(1)(i), 276D, and 277(1) are not sustainable when the ITAT has set aside the Assessment Order due to lack of incriminating material, as there is no prima facie case for concealment or false statement that would justify prosecution.

The court emphasised that prosecution requires sufficient evidence to establish a prima facie case, which was absent here, and thus quashed the criminal complaints.

Assessment — Rejection of books of account — Estimation of net profit at 8% — Disallowance u/s. 43B while computing income and tax liability — Since profit was estimated after rejecting books of account Tribunal could not restore the matter to the Assessing Officer to consider whether addition was required to be made.

29. [2025] 177 taxmann.com 181 (Cal.):

Skyscraper Projects (P.) Ltd. vs. Addl.CIT:

A. Ys. 2012-13: Date of order 28/07/2025:

S. 43B of ITA 1961

Assessment — Rejection of books of account — Estimation of net profit at 8% — Disallowance u/s. 43B while computing income and tax liability — Since profit was estimated after rejecting books of account Tribunal could not restore the matter to the Assessing Officer to consider whether addition was required to be made.

The Assessee is engaged in the business of civil construction. The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2012-13. The Assessee’s return was selected for scrutiny. In the course of assessment, the Assessing Officer rejected the books of account of the Assessee and estimated the net profit at 8%, as was done in the earlier assessment years. However, while computing the tax liability, the Assessing Officer made a disallowance u/s. 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and added the said amount while computing tax liability.

CIT(A) held that once the Assessing Officer has estimated the income after rejecting books of account, it is presumed that all the provisions of sections 29 to 43D have been considered and no further addition on account of section 43B was required. On appeal by the Department the Tribunal restored the issue to the file of the Assessing Officer to verify the claim of the assessee in respect of the VAT / Service tax liability paid during the year which had already suffered tax on account of addition made under section 43B of the Act in the preceding year.

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee, took note of the various decisions by the other High Courts which laid down the position that when the profits are estimated, it implies that the Assessing Officer has not relied on the books of accounts and if this fact is accepted then the estimation made by the Assessing Officer of net profit will take care of every addition related to business income or business receipts and no further disallowance can be made and held as under:

“i) In the light of the above legal position and also the undisputed fact being that the gross profit was estimated after rejecting the books of accounts, the order passed by the learned Tribunal restoring the matter to the Assessing Officer is unnecessary and not called for. For the above reasons, the appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.

ii) The substantial questions of law are answered in favour of the assessee and the order passed by the CIT(A) dated 19th August, 2019 stands restored.”

TDS — Statutory authority — Duty to be fair in its commercial dealings — Statutory authority entering into contract with firm for supply of material and performance of engineering work — Tax deducted at source not deposited with Department — Statutory authority retaining part of bill amounts due to firm for its income-tax contingency — Statutory authority had no right to retain any amount due to firm — High Court directed the statutory authority to return withheld amount with interest — Cost imposed on statutory authority to be recovered from its managing director.

28. (2025) 474 ITR 271 (Jharkhand):

Anvil Cables (P) Ltd. vs. State of Jharkhand:

Date of order 08.04.2024:

Sections 195 and 201(1A)

TDS — Statutory authority — Duty to be fair in its commercial dealings — Statutory authority entering into contract with firm for supply of material and performance of engineering work — Tax deducted at source not deposited with Department — Statutory authority retaining part of bill amounts due to firm for its income-tax contingency — Statutory authority had no right to retain any amount due to firm — High Court directed the statutory authority to return withheld amount with interest — Cost imposed on statutory authority to be recovered from its managing director.

The petitioner-firm provided comprehensive engineering, procurement and construction services to the core sector industries in India. The State authority JBVNL entered into a contract with the petitioner for rural electrification work. The JBVNL deducted tax at source at two per cent. From the bill raised by the petitioner for the supply of material and also retained an amount on the pretext of “Income-tax contingencies”. The petitioner requested the JBVNL to release such amount so withheld and also informed that the amount withheld by it was not reflected in Form 26AS. The JBVNL stated that the amount withheld had been kept back to safeguard its interest and that the kept back amount would be released or the tax deducted at source certificate would be issued depending on the outcome of the appeal filed by it against the demand notice u/s. 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner and held as under:

“i) In our opinion, the demand notice issued to the JBVNL that it committed default in not making tax at source deductions cannot cloak the JBVNL with any authority or even an excuse to withhold a certain amount from the running bills of the contractor. This is quite curious that the JBVNL seeks to take a stand before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) that it was not under an obligation to deduct two per cent tax deducted at source from the running bills of the contractor raised towards the supply of materials and, on the other hand, it has retained ₹2,90,32,000 towards payment of two per cent tax at source deductions on that count. This is also relevant that the deductions by the JBVNL starting from the financial year 2016-2017 have accumulated to ₹2,90,32,000 but it did not deposit the said amount with the Income-tax Department. The amount so withheld from the running bills of the petitioner-firm is speculative and a kind of wagering step by JBVNL. The JBVNL has no authority in law to withhold ₹2,90,32,000 as “kept back” amount for the purpose of litigation with the Income-tax Department. The action of JBVNL in withholding ₹2,90,32,000 is therefore held illegal and had to be returned with interest.

ii) This is well-settled that the explicit terms of the contract are always the final words with regard to the intention of the parties. In ONGC Ltd. vs. Saw Pipes Ltd. [(2003) 5 SCC 705; 2003 SCC OnLine SC 545.] the hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the intention of the parties is to be gathered from the words used in the agreement. In Mahabir Auto Stores vs. Indian Oil Corporation [(1990) 3 SCC 752; 1990 SCC OnLine SC 43.] the hon’ble Supreme Court held that the State or its instrumentalities are “State” under article 12 of the Constitution and its actions even in commercial transactions must be reasonable, fair and just. In Mahabir Auto Stores vs. Indian Oil Corporation [(1990) 3 SCC 752; 1990 SCC OnLine SC 43.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court further indicated that the requirement of being just, fair and reasonable on the part of the State and its instrumentalities extends in cases where no formal contract has been entered.

iii) Any unjust retention of money or property of another shall be against the fundamental principles of justice, equity and good conscience. The unauthorised deductions from the running bills of the petitioner-firm are patently illegal. Such deductions caused losses to the petitioner-firm which filed its Income-tax returns but was deprived of ₹2,90,32,000 and thereby suffered business or atleast interest losses. On the other hand, the JBVNL was unjustly enriched and need to restitute the petitioner-firm. The refund of ₹2,90,32,000 must therefore carry interest as a matter of course. In Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. UOI [(2011) 8 SCC 161; (2011) 4 SCC (Civ) 87; 2011 SCC OnLine SC 961.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court held that this is the bounden duty of the court to neutralise unjust enrichment by imposing compound interest and punitive costs.

iv) As per clause 10.7.4 of the Jharkhand State Electricity Regulatory Commission, Ranchi (Electricity Supply Code) Regulation, 2015, the interest rate to be paid on any excess amount paid by the consumer is equivalent to the interest rate paid by the consumer on delay payment surcharge. Therefore, the JBVNL shall pay interest over the withheld amount of ₹2,90,32,000 as per clause 10.7.4 of the Regulation of 2015.

v) The petitioner-firm was unnecessarily dragged to the court and, that too, knowingly and for no fault on its part. The litigation file that has been produced in the court reveals that a decision in the context of the order dated March 14, 2024 passed by this court has been taken at the highest level of the managing director of JBVNL. Therefore, we are of the definite opinion that the JBVNL must be saddled with cost of ₹5 lakhs which shall be recovered from the managing director. This writ petition is allowed, in the aforesaid terms.”

TDS — Credit for TDS — Tax deducted by employer but not deposited with Government — In view of provision of section 205, it is made clear that the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income — Both the circular dt. 1st June 2015 and the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March 2016 have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in section 205 — Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the assessee — Credit of the tax shall be given to the Assessee and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the assessee shall be entitled to the refund, with statutory interest

27. [2025] 343 CTR 133 (Ori):

Malay Kar vs. UOI:

AY. 2013-14: Date of order 03.05.2024:

Sections 199 and 205

TDS — Credit for TDS — Tax deducted by employer but not deposited with Government — In view of provision of section 205, it is made clear that the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income — Both the circular dt. 1st June 2015 and the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March 2016 have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in section 205 — Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the assessee — Credit of the tax shall be given to the Assessee and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the assessee shall be entitled to the refund, with statutory interest.

The Assessee is an employee of M/s. Corporate Ispat Alloys Ltd. During the previous year relevant to A. Y. 2013-14, the Assessee received gross salary of ₹25,39,766 out of which a sum of ₹5,90,112 was deducted at source u/s. 192 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, in the Form 26AS, TDS of only ₹3,21,379 was reflected as deducted and paid by the employer. Thus, there was a difference of ₹2,68,733. The return of income filed by the Assessee was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act was issued. The said intimation was issued without taking into account TDS of ₹2,68,733 deducted by the employer and interest u/s. 234B and 234C was also charged for shortfall in payment of prepaid taxes.

On receipt of intimation, the Assessee addressed a letter to the Managing Director of the employer company for the mismatch of tax deducted u/s. 192 of the Act. The Assessee also sent a letter to the Commissioner of Income-tax (TDS) for initiation of appropriate action against the deductor / employer. The Assessee’s contention was that as per section 143(1)(c), the CPC is under legal obligation to take into account the tax deducted at source, tax collected at source, advance tax, etc. Despite the communication made to CIT(TDS), there was no communication with regard to the steps taken by the authority.

Due to inaction on the part of CPC in granting credit of tax u/s. 143(1)(c), the Assessee filed writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Orissa High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The circular and the Office Memorandum have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in s. 205 of the IT Act. In the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March, 2016, it has been mentioned that the Board had issued directions to the field officers that in case of an assessee whose tax has been deducted at source but not deposited to the Government’s account by the deductor, the deductee assessee shall not be called upon to pay the demand to the extent tax has been deducted from his income. It was further specified that s. 205 of the IT Act puts a bar on direct demand against the assessee in such cases and the demand on account of tax credit mismatch in such situations cannot be enforced coercively.

ii) Sec. 205 of the IT Act read with CBDT circular, referred to above, being statutory one, the said provision has to be adhered to in letter and spirit and to give effect to such provision, CBDT circular was issued on 1st June, 2015 and the Office Memorandum was issued on 11th March, 2016. Therefore, for tax credit mismatch cannot be enforced coercively against the petitioner assessee.

iii) In view of the provisions contained in s. 205 of the IT Act, which provides that where tax is deductible at the source the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income and its applicability is not depending upon the credit for tax being given under s. 199 of the IT Act. Thereby, the Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the petitioner. The credit of the tax shall be given to the petitioner and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the petitioner shall be entitled to the refund, with the statutory interest”

Return — Condonation of delay — Mistake in filling appropriate columns in the return vis a vis intimation by CPC — Assessee submitted corrected return in response to intimation dated 03.09.2019 issued by the CPC — Since the time to file revised return had expired on 31.03.2019, the Assessee filed corrected / revised return u/s. 119(2)(b) — Respondent was only required to consider the revised return as there was only a correction of mistake in the presentation of the correct figures — No impact of the corrected return on the income of the Assessee — It was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that Assessee is entitled to refund — Respondent ought to have allowed the application to condone the delay in filing the corrected / revised return.

26. [2025] 344 CTR 179 (Guj.):

Ujala Dyeing & Printing Mills (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT:

A.Y.: 2018-19: Date of order 04.03.2025:

Secions 119(2)(b), 143(1)(a) and 237

Return — Condonation of delay — Mistake in filling appropriate columns in the return vis a vis intimation by CPC — Assessee submitted corrected return in response to intimation dated 03.09.2019 issued by the CPC — Since the time to file revised return had expired on 31.03.2019, the Assessee filed corrected / revised return u/s. 119(2)(b) — Respondent was only required to consider the revised return as there was only a correction of mistake in the presentation of the correct figures — No impact of the corrected return on the income of the Assessee — It was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that Assessee is entitled to refund — Respondent ought to have allowed the application to condone the delay in filing the corrected / revised return.

The Assessee, a private limited company, filed its return of income for AY 2018-19 on 24.09.2018 declaring total income at ₹81,85,340 and claimed a refund of ₹38,08,115. On 03.09.2019, the Assessee received an intimation from CPC pointing out mismatch in respect of disallowance of expenditure reported in Form 3CD but not taken into account in computing the total income of the Assessee. This was as a result of clubbing of disallowance of expenditure under column 23 instead of column 15 and column 18. In response to the intimation, the Assessee corrected its return of income and filed the corrected return of income electronically as per the intimation received from CPC. Since the mistake was corrected by showing disallowance under correct columns, the total income of the Assessee in the corrected return remained unchanged.

The CPC regarded the return as belated revised return and forwarded the same to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) and deemed it to be a return filed u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act and intimated the Assessee vide letter dated 23.09.2019. Pursuant to receipt of the said communication, the Assessee filed applications dated 30.07.2020 and 06.08.2020 u/s. 119(2)(b) to condone the delay in filing the corrected return of income so as to consider it as revised return for processing the same by the CPC.

Thereafter, a show cause notice dated 10.05.2023 was issued requiring the Assessee to show cause why the application for condonation of delay should not be rejected. The Assessee filed its response and also furnished the details called for by further notice. However, the application was rejected vide order dated 23.08.2023. Thereafter the Assessee, vide letters dated 07.10.2023 and 10.02.2024 requested the Assessing Officer to process the original return filed by the Assessee. Since no response was received, the Assessee filed grievance on 16.03.2024 before the CBDT which was also rejected on 18.02.2024. Once again, the Assessee wrote a letter to the Assessing Officer to grant the refund of ₹38,08,120.

Since no response was received, the Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Gujarat High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The CPC issued the intimation dated 03/09/2019 pointing out the mistake in the return and therefore the petitioner was called upon to submit the response thereto. The petitioner having found such mistake has therefore rightly filed a corrected/revised return under Section 119 (2) (b) of the Act as the time to file the revised return had already expired on 31/03/2019 as per the provision of Section 139(5) of the Act. The respondent was therefore only required to consider such revised return as there was only a correction of the mistake in the presentation of the correct figures in the column-15 and column-18 instead of clubbing the same in column-23 of the return and instead thereof, the respondent has enlarged the scope of Section 119(2)(b) by not redressing such minor corrections to be made in the return of income and has rejected the same on the ground of genuine hardship and advising the petitioner to avail the other legal resources under Section 254 or Section 154 of the Act unmindful of the fact situation that there was no impact on the corrected return on the taxable income of the petitioner and it was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that the petitioner is entitled to the refund, if any, so as to compute the taxable income of the petitioner in accordance with law as provided under Section 143(1)(a) of the Act. The respondent no.2 ought to have allowed the applications to condone the delay in filing the corrected/revised return which was a formality only as only the correct presentation in Form-ITR-6 was not made by the petitioner which has prevented the CPC from processing the return.

ii) Such an irresponsible approach by the respondent no.2 being unmindful of the fact situation has resulted into filing of this petition causing great hardship to the petitioner preventing and denying the legitimate refund to which the petitioner was otherwise eligible to get in the year 2019 itself.

iii) Considering the above fact situation and in view of the foregoing reasons, these petitions succeed and are accordingly allowed. Impugned order dated 24/08/2023 passed u/s. 119 (2)(b) is hereby quashed and set aside and the delay in filing the revised return is hereby ordered to be condoned and respondent no.1 is directed to process/transmit the revised return filed by the petitioner on 6/09/2019 to CPC to process the same in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — Limitation — Notice challenged in writ petition before the High Court — Direction of the Court and quashing of assessment order — Case sent back for deciding assessee’s objection and to pass further orders — No observations on the merits of the case — Applicability of extended period of limitation — In consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction Department cannot claim the benefit of extended period of limitation – Assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 and 144B is beyond the period of limitation.

25. [2025] 343 CTR 181 (Bom.):

Wavy Construction LLP vs. ACIT:

A. Y. 2012-13:

Date of order 20.12.2024:

Sections 143(3), 144B, 147, 148, 153(3)(ii) and 260

Reassessment — Limitation — Notice challenged in writ petition before the High Court — Direction of the Court and quashing of assessment order — Case sent back for deciding assessee’s objection and to pass further orders — No observations on the merits of the case — Applicability of extended period of limitation — In consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction Department cannot claim the benefit of extended period of limitation – Assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 and 144B is beyond the period of limitation.

The Assessee filed its return of income for AY 2012-13 on 29.09.2012. The return was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued. Subsequently, in 2018, notice u/s. 133(6) was issued by the DDIT(I&CI) calling for details in respect of transaction of sale of land by the Assessee. The Assessee filed the details and replies from time to time. Thereafter, in the aforesaid backdrop, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued on 29.03.2019 for re-opening of assessment. The Assessee filed its objections against the re-opening of assessment. The objections raised by the Assessee were rejected vide order dated 25.11.2019 and the assessment was completed vide order dated 19.05.2021.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing objections passed by the Assessing Officer. The Hon’ble High Court, vide order dated 13.12.2019 granted ad interim stay on the notice and the further proceedings. The said interim order continued until 21.09.2021 when the High Court passed the final order disposing the writ petition. While disposing the writ petition, the High Court remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer thereby directing him to consider the objections filed by the Assessee and pass further orders and also gave opportunity to the Assessee to make further submissions. However, there were no observations / findings given on the merits of the case.

In accordance with the directions of the High Court, an opportunity was given to the Assessee and the Assessee filed further submissions. Thereafter, the objections of the Assessee were rejected vide order dated 14.10.2021. The assessment proceedings were transferred to the National Faceless Assessment Centre. Notices were issued u/s. 142(1). However, since the Assessee was not aware of the issuance of notice us/. 142(1), the same remained to be replied. Subsequently, a show cause notice was issued upon the Assessee requiring the Assessee to furnish the response as to why the proposed addition should not be made. In response to the show cause notice, the Assessee filed its reply contending that the assessment was time barred. The Assessee stated that the as per provisions of section 153(2), the time limit for passing the order was 9 months from the end the financial year in which notice u/s. 148 was issued and since the notice u/s. 148 was issued on 29.03.2019, the time limit to pass the order expired on 31.12.2019. Further, the Assessee submitted that even if the period during which the proceedings were stayed by the High Court were excluded, the order ought to have been passed on or before 20.11.2021. It was submitted that all the notices issued after 20.11.2021 were time barred and had no validity in law. The Assessee also filed its response on the merits of the case. Once again show cause notice was issued in September 2022 which was replied by the Assessee and final assessment order came to be passed on 28.09.2022 wherein addition as proposed to be made was added to the total income of the Assessee.

Against this order of re-assessment, the Assessee once again filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) It is clear that the order dated 21 September 2021 passed by the Division Bench (supra) does not contain any findings necessary for disposal of the writ petition in a particular manner, so as to govern the issues which would be decided by the Assessing Officer. We may observe that in the context in hand when the Revenue seeks to take recourse to sub-section (6)(i) of Section 153 of the IT Act so as to avail all the benefits of extended period as stipulated by such provision, necessarily the Court is required to apply the principles as enunciated in the decisions as noted by us hereinabove, so as to make an exception from the applicability of sub-sections (1), (1A) and (2) and subject to the provisions of sub-sections (3), (5) and (5A) can be, only in the event when such assessment, reassessment and recomputation is being made qua the assessee “in consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction” of any Court, as relevant in the present facts.

ii) The words “in consequence of or to give effect” would be required to be read in conjunction. As both these expressions are complementary to each other namely that such assessment, reassessment or recomputation is required to be made on the assessee or any person in consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction contained in an order of the nature as specified in clause (i) of sub-section (6). Thus, the consequence needs to be created by such order and as a result of a finding or direction as may be contained in an order, as the provision envisages. It is but for natural, that any finding or direction needs to be taken to its logical conclusion and which is the sequel which would emanate from a finding or direction in the order. Thus, the intention of the legislature in providing for such expression is that an order which clause (i) of sub-section (6) talks about, is necessarily required to be an order which not only guides, but controls the course of such assessment, reassessment or recomputation, and not otherwise.

iii) As the order dated 21 September 2021 passed by this Court on the petitioner’s writ petition (supra) do not, in any manner, record a finding or issues directions as understood in terms of clause (i) of sub-section(6) of Section 153. We do not see how the Revenue can avoid the consequence of the limitation in the present case, being triggered by the first proviso below Explanation 1. In our opinion, as rightly contended on behalf of the petitioner, applying the provisions of clause (ii) below Explanation 1 read with the first proviso below Explanation 1, certainly the limitation for the Assessing Officer to pass the Assessment Order had come to an end on 20 November 2021 i.e. sixty days from 21 September 2021 (orders passed by the High Court) by applying the extended period as per the first proviso below Explanation 1, whereas the impugned assessment order has been passed almost ten months after the limitation expired. Thus, the case of the Revenue in regard to applicability of the extended period under sub-section (6)(i) of Section 153 cannot be accepted.”

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Payment to non-resident — Royalty — Amount paid for use and resale of computer software through distribution or end user licence agreement is not royalty — Not assessable in India.

24. (2025) 475 ITR 57 (Bom):

CIT(LTU) vs. Reliance Industries Ltd.:

Date of order 21.06.2024:

Section 9(1)(vi)

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Payment to non-resident — Royalty — Amount paid for use and resale of computer software through distribution or end user licence agreement is not royalty — Not assessable in India.

In its application as filed u/s. 195(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the assessee raised contentions as to why remittance made to such foreign parties was not liable to be taxed as “royalty”, under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act. Such application of the assessee was rejected by an order dated September 14, 2003 passed by the Deputy Director of Income-tax (International Taxation).

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed appeal filed by the assessee. In the appeal filed by the Revenue, the primary issue which had arisen for consideration of the Tribunal was as to whether the remittance made by the assessee to foreign parties on account of purchase of certain computer software, required for the business of the assessee, would be liable to tax in India as “royalty” under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or would it be a business income of the recipient companies. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue,

In the appeal filed by the Revenue before the High Court the following substantial question of law which we have reframed:

“Whether the payments made by the assessee for obtaining computer software were liable to be to taxed in India as royalty under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act?”

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) In the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2021) 432 ITR 471 (SC); (2022) 3 SCC 321; 2021 SCC OnLine SC 159; (2021) 125 taxmann.com 42 (SC).] the Supreme Court laid down that amount paid by resident Indian end user and distributer to non-resident computer software manufacturers and suppliers, as consideration for the resale or use of the computer software through end user licence agreement and distribution agreement, is not royalty for the use of copyright of computer software, and that it does not give rise to any income taxable in India.

ii) Accordingly, the remittance made by the assessee to foreign parties on account of purchase of certain computer software, required for the business of the assessee, would not be liable to tax in India as “royalty” under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act.”

Reassessment — International transactions — Arm’s length price — Condition precedent — Notice after four years — Failure to disclose material facts necessary for assessment — Unless assessee shown to be aware of facts, it cannot be said to have failed to disclose them — Nothing to show assessee was aware of third party prices — Transfer pricing study of assessee accepted by Transfer Pricing Officer and assessment completed on basis thereof — Presumption that query raised was considered in assessment — Assessment on basis of change of opinion — Notice not valid:

23 Sanofi India Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT:

(2025) 474 ITR 114 (Bom):

A. Y. 2007-08: Date of order 29 February 2024:

Ss. 92CA, 143(3) 147 and 148 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — International transactions — Arm’s length price — Condition precedent — Notice after four years — Failure to disclose material facts necessary for assessment — Unless assessee shown to be aware of facts, it cannot be said to have failed to disclose them — Nothing to show assessee was aware of third party prices — Transfer pricing study of assessee accepted by Transfer Pricing Officer and assessment completed on basis thereof — Presumption that query raised was considered in assessment — Assessment on basis of change of opinion — Notice not valid:

The assessee petitioner filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2007-2008 on October 30, 2007 declaring a total income of ₹2,33,67,08,748. Subsequently, a revised return was filed on March 25, 2009 wherein a claim of additional tax deducted at source of ₹19,86,957 was made. The case was selected for scrutiny and assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was made on December 28, 2010 determining a total income of ₹240,48,78,390.

Subsequently, the petitioner received a notice dated November 11, 2013 u/s. 148 of the Act for the A. Y. 2007-2008, has escaped assessment. By a communication dated December 16, 2013, the petitioner also received the reasons recorded for reopening of the assessment. The petitioner objected to the reopening and the petitioner’s objections were rejected by an order dated March 31, 2015.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The revenue contended that the reopening was based on the transfer pricing study of the subsequent assessment year, which is the A. Ys. 2008-2009 and 2009-2010. In our view, that would still not help the Assessing Officer to overcome the condition to reopen, namely, failure to truly and fully disclose material facts.

ii) As held by the apex court in Calcutta Discount Co. Ltd. vs. ITO [(1961) 41 ITR 191 (SC); 1960 SCC OnLine SC 10.] , the duty of an assessee does not extend beyond the full and truthful disclosure of all primary facts. Once all the primary facts are before the assessing authority, it requires no further assistance by way of disclosure. It is for the Assessing Officer to decide what inferences of facts can reasonably be drawn and what legal inferences have ultimately to be drawn. The duty of the assessee, the court held, is to disclose fully and truly all primary relevant facts, it does not extend beyond that.

iii) In N.D. Bhatt, Inspecting Assistant Commissioner vs. I.B.M. World Trade Corporation [(1995) 216 ITR 811 (Bom); 1993 SCC OnLine Bom 243.], the Division Bench of this court relying on Indian Oil Corporation vs. ITO [(1986) 159 ITR 956 (SC); (1986) 3 SCC 409; 1986 SCC (Tax) 552; 1986 SCC OnLine SC 161.] observed that the assessee is under an obligation to disclose only all basic facts and the assessee cannot be expected to draw any inference or to disclose any inference to be made from these basic facts. The court also observed that the assessee must be aware of those facts, which are not disclosed before it can be said that there is any omission or failure on his part to disclose the same. In this case, there is not even an allegation that the assessee was aware of the prices at which the third-party companies had imported glimepride and analgin. Reasons also do not record how the assessee must have been aware of those facts. The fact is, a transfer pricing study was submitted by the assessee and the Transfer Pricing Officer has accepted it. Based on the order under sub-section (3) of section 92CA of the Act from the Transfer Pricing Officer, the Assessing Officer has proceeded to compute the total income of the assessee under sub-section (4) of section 92C of the Act in conformity with the arm’s length price as determined by the Transfer Pricing Officer.

iv) In the circumstances, there is nothing to indicate that there was any failure on the part of the assessee to truly and fully disclose any material fact. It has also to be noted that once a query is raised during the assessment proceedings and the assessee has replied to it, it follows that the query raised was subject of consideration of the Assessing Officer while completing the assessment. From the reasons recorded, it is rather obvious that reopening of the assessment by the impugned notice is merely on the basis of “change of opinion” and that “change of opinion” does not constitute justification and/or reasons to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

v) In the circumstances, rule that was granted on May 8, 2015 is made absolute in terms of prayer clause (a), and the notice dated November 11, 2013 issued under section 148 of the Act to reopen the assessment for the assessment year 2007-2008 together with the order dated March 31, 2015 dealing with the petitioner’s objections, are quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Validity — Undisclosed income — Evidentiary value of photocopy of document — Addition on basis of photocopy of sale agreement received by way of complaint for which original document not produced — Burden to prove authenticity of evidence on AO — No evidence of undisclosed income except photocopy of alleged sale agreement of property — Held, addition to income unsustainable and assessment order invalid:

22 Principal CIT vs. Rashmi Rajiv Mehta:

(2025) 474 ITR 97 (Del):

A. Y. 2010-11: Date of order 4 March 2024:

Ss. 69, 143(3) and 147 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Validity — Undisclosed income — Evidentiary value of photocopy of document — Addition on basis of photocopy of sale agreement received by way of complaint for which original document not produced — Burden to prove authenticity of evidence on AO — No evidence of undisclosed income except photocopy of alleged sale agreement of property — Held, addition to income unsustainable and assessment order invalid:

The instant appeals relate to the A. Y. 2010-2011. The genesis of the case pertains to receipt of information by the Assessing Officer in the form of a photocopy of an alleged agreement to sell dated March 5, 2010. The said photocopy of the agreement to sell indicated that the land in Ghittorni, Delhi, was to be purchased against a total consideration of ₹11,00,00,000, wherein, the assessee was described to be a co-purchaser. It has been alleged that the assessee paid a sum of ₹2,75,00,000 as advance for purchase of the said land, which amounted to 25 per cent. of the total consideration. Out of the said amount, a sum of ₹1,38,00,000 was stated to have been paid by way of a cheque and the remaining amount, i.e., ₹1,37,00,000 was allegedly paid in the form of cash at the time of the execution of the said agreement to sell.

In view of the above, a notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued to the assessee on September 26, 2014. The assessee appears filed the return on November 7, 2014, declaring a total income of ₹44,676 for the A. Y. 2010-2011. Consequently, proceedings u/s. 143(3) read with section 147 of the Act were initiated against the assessee. The Assessing Officer, while relying on the photocopy of the said agreement to sell vide assessment order dated March 28, 2016, inter alia, made an addition of ₹9,00,00,000 to the income of the assessee on account of purchase of the said land from undisclosed sources.

The Commissioner(Appeals) vide order dated December 15, 2017, restricted the addition of ₹9,00,00,000 to ₹1,37,00,000, on the ground that it is only the aforesaid amount which can be attributed to the income of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. However, the veracity of the photocopy of the alleged agreement to sell was not doubted by the Commissioner (Appeals). On cross appeals by the Revenue and the assessee both the Tribunal vide common order dated May 28, 2019 dismissed the appeal preferred by the Revenue and the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration.

“A. Whether the photocopy of a document, some part of information/facts recorded on it found to be correct in verification, could be treated as a valid document or not in the absence of the original?”

The High Court confirmed the order of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The entire foundation for addition is laid on the basis of the photocopy of the alleged agreement to sell dated March 5, 2010. The original copy of the said document has not seen the light of the day. Further, there is no other evidence to support the veracity of the recitals made in the aforesaid alleged agreement. Therefore, under the facts of the present case, the same cannot be construed to be a sustainable ground for making addition to the income of the assessee.

ii) We, thus, find that these appeals do not raise any substantial question of law. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal has rightly opined that under the facts of the present cases, sustaining an addition on the basis of photocopy of alleged agreement to sell would be completely unwarranted and unjustifiable. The appeals are, therefore, dismissed.”

Reassessment — Procedure for initiation of proceedings — Objections of assessee for re-opening to be disposed of in separate order — Assessing Officer passing consolidated order disposing of objections and completing re-assessment simultaneously — Violation of principles of natural justice — No reasonable opportunity given to assessee to challenge rejection of objections — Writ petition maintainable — Held, notice and order without jurisdiction and hence quashed:

21 Kesar Terminals and Infrastructure Ltd. vs. DCIT:

[2025] 474 ITR 498 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 7 January 2025:

Ss. 147 and 148 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Procedure for initiation of proceedings — Objections of assessee for re-opening to be disposed of in separate order — Assessing Officer passing consolidated order disposing of objections and completing re-assessment simultaneously — Violation of principles of natural justice — No reasonable opportunity given to assessee to challenge rejection of objections — Writ petition maintainable — Held, notice and order without jurisdiction and hence quashed:

The Assessee’s return of income for AY 2011-12 was selected for scrutiny and assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was completed after revising the claim u/s. 80-IA of the Act. Subsequently, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued on 30.03.2021 proposing to re-open the assessment. In response to the said notice, the Assessee filed return of income 7.04.2021 and on 12.05.2021 requested for reasons for re-opening the assessment. On 6.07.2021, the reasons were furnished to the Assessee. Against the reasons recorded for re-opening of assessment, the Assessee filed objections on 04.08.2021. Thereafter, a notice dated 22.11.2021 was issued u/s. 142(1) of the Act directing the Assessee to justify its claim u/s. 80-IA of the Act. However, the order disposing objections was not passed by the Assessing Officer and directly notice was issued u/s. 142(1) of the Act. In response to the said notice, the Assessee filed its reply requesting the Assessing Officer to dispose of the objections before proceeding further. However, the Assessee’s objections were not disposed of and a consolidated re-assessment order dated 31.03.2022 was passed wherein the objections filed by the Assessee were also disposed.

On writ petition filed by the Assessee against the said order, the Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) An Assessing Officer cannot pass a combined or consolidated order simultaneously disposing of objections to reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and completing the reassessment, as it violates principles of natural justice and mandated procedure. The assessee must be given reasonable opportunity to challenge rejection of objections before assessment is completed.

ii) Since the consolidated order warranted interference due to non-compliance with jurisdictional parameters, relegating the assessee to the alternate remedy would not be appropriate. This court has interfered with consolidated orders in identical circumstances, making assessments and disposing of objections. Therefore, the Department’s objection based on exhaustion of alternate remedy was unsustainable. The assessee had clarified that it had instituted a statutory appeal u/s. 246A after the filing of the writ petition only to protect from the bar of limitation. Its statement to withdraw the appeal was accepted. The notice and the consolidated order were set aside, stating that apart from the fact that the making of such consolidated or combined orders was not approved in decided cases, such a procedure involved breaching the principles of natural justice and fair play.

iii) For all the above reasons, we allow this petition and make the rule absolute in terms of prayer clause (a) and quash, cancel and set aside the impugned notice dated March 30, 2021 and impugned order dated March 31, 2022”.

Penalty — Share Application Money — Share application money otherwise than by account payee cheque or bank draft — Neither loan nor deposit but for participation in capital of company — Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period of time — Provisions of s. 269SS or s. 269T or consequential penalty provisions u/s. 271D or s. 271E not applicable:

20 CIT vs.Vamshi Chemicals Ltd:

[2025] 474 ITR 422 (Cal.):

A. Ys. 2004-05 to 2007-08: Date of order 6 May 2024:

Ss. 269SS, 269T, 271D and 271E of ITA 1961

Penalty — Share Application Money — Share application money otherwise than by account payee cheque or bank draft — Neither loan nor deposit but for participation in capital of company — Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period of time — Provisions of s. 269SS or s. 269T or consequential penalty provisions u/s. 271D or s. 271E not applicable:

During the assessment years under appeal, the assessee received share application money for issue of preference shares amounting to ₹20,000 or more from persons otherwise than by an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft. The Assessing Officer issued a show cause notice for penalty u/s. 271D / 271E of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ground that the Assessee violated the provisions of section 269SS. The Additional Commissioner imposed penalty u/s. 217D for A.Y.s 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08 and imposed penalty u/s/ 271E for A.Y.s 2004-05, 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08.

The Tribunal held that share application money or its repayment is neither a loan nor a deposit and as such provisions of section 269SS or 269T were not attracted and consequently no penalty could be imposed u/s. 271D or 271E of the Act.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) The words “loan or deposit” has been defined in Explanation (iii) to section 269T of the Income-tax Act, 1961 which is not an expansive definition. It provides that “loan or deposit” means any loan or deposit of money which is repayable after notice or repayable after a period and, in case of a person other than a company including loan or deposit of any nature. Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period. It is for participation in the capital of the company. Share application money is for participation in capital of a company which is neither a loan nor a deposit. Therefore, neither under the definition of the words “loan or deposit” as given in Explanation (iii) to section 269T of the Act, 1961 nor in ordinary sense, share application money can be said to be a loan or deposit. Once share application money is neither loan nor deposit, then neither section 269SS nor section 269T shall attract. Consequently, no penalty either u/s. 271D or u/s. 271E could be imposed.

ii) Looking into the objects and purpose of sections 269SS and 269T read with Explanation defining the words “loan and deposit”, the share application money received could neither be said to be loan nor a deposit, and was for participation in capital of the assessee which was neither a loan nor a deposit and, therefore, the provisions of these sections would not be attracted. Consequently, no penalty u/s. 271D or section 271E could be imposed.

iii) Hence, there was no illegality in the order of the Tribunal holding that the receipt of share application money or its repayment was neither a loan nor a deposit and as such, the provisions of section 269SS or 269T were not attracted and consequently no penalty could be imposed u/s. 271D or section 271E.”

Income — Interest — Capital or revenue receipt — Precedents — Purchase of property in auction paying full consideration — Auction subsequently nullified by Court order — Interest received on amount by direction of Court not compensation — Amount Bonafide receipt by Assessee as successful auction bidder and not as compensation from order of Court — Held, interest receipt capital in nature and not assessable as income from other sources:

19 Pr. CIT vs. INS Finance and Investment Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 475 ITR 83 (Del):

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 30 May 2024:

S. 56(2)(viii) of ITA 1961:

Income — Interest — Capital or revenue receipt — Precedents — Purchase of property in auction paying full consideration — Auction subsequently nullified by Court order — Interest received on amount by direction of Court not compensation — Amount Bonafide receipt by Assessee as successful auction bidder and not as compensation from order of Court — Held, interest receipt capital in nature and not assessable as income from other sources:

The Assessee had acquired a right to purchase a property through an auction carried out by Punjab National Bank (PNB) and thereafter paid the entire purchase price. However, subsequently, the auction came to be annulled and the Punjab and Haryana High Court, vide order dated 21 September 2010 directed for refund of the whole amount deposited by the Assessee along with interest accrued thereon.

The Assessee added an amount of ₹3,19,07,676 to the Capital Reserve in the Balance Sheet. The Assessee also claimed TDS credit of ₹54,41,122. In the scrutiny assessment for AY 2011-12, the Assessing Officer was of the view that the interest so received along with the refund of amount deposited by the Assessee was not a capital receipt and thus made addition of ₹3,19,07,676 to the total income of the Assessee.

The CIT(A) affirmed the order of the Assessing Officer. However, for the purpose of computation, the CIT(A) directed that ₹3,19,07,676 should be offered as income by dispersing it over a period concerning other relevant AYs. Against this order of the CIT(A), both the Assessee as well as the Assessing Officer filed rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act. The Assessee contended that the amount should be considered as capital receipt and the Assessing Officer contended that the apportionment of the amount over the other AYs was contrary to the provisions of section 145A(b) and therefore should not be apportioned. However, the CIT(A) allowed the application of the Assessee and modified its earlier order and held that the amount received was in the nature of a capital receipt not chargeable to tax. The Tribunal held that the interest received by the Assessee was capital receipt not chargeable to tax.

The Delhi High Court, dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) It is crystal clear that the interest accrued on the compensation received herein can be termed as a capital receipt and thus, the same is not chargeable to tax. In the present case, the amount in question was received due to the order passed by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in CWP No. 1470/2010 on account of cancellation of the auction.

ii) The Tribunal had appropriately characterised the interest on the amount received by the assessee under the court order as capital receipt and rightly held that it was not chargeable to tax. It was ex facie evident from the order of the Tribunal that it had considered the aspect that the amount received by the assessee was not in the nature of debt but was received on account of cancellation of the auction of the property.

iii) However, it is pertinent to point out that this amount cannot be characterised as compensation granted by the Court on account of cancellation of the auction. Rather, such an amount was a bonafide amount of the successful auction bidder, which he had deposited against the purchase of the land. The amount so received by the assessee was the entitlement of the successful bidder which was given back to the assessee vide an order of the Court. Thus, when the amount in question was not in the nature of compensation, then, as a natural corollary, the interest accrued on the said amount cannot tantamount to revenue receipts and hence, the same cannot be subjected to tax as per Section 56(2)(viii) of the Act.”

Income — Valuation of shares — Shares allotted as part of employee stock purchase scheme — Lock-in period during which shares could not be transferred — Valuation of shares taking into account restrictive condition:

18 Ravi Kumar Sinha vs. CIT:

[2025] 474 ITR 594 (Del.):

A.Ys.: 1997-98 to 1999-00: Date of order 14 August 2024:

S. 17 of ITA 1961

Income — Valuation of shares — Shares allotted as part of employee stock purchase scheme — Lock-in period during which shares could not be transferred — Valuation of shares taking into account restrictive condition:

The Assessee was allotted 11,50,500 shares at ₹15 per share under the Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS). Out of these, 25% of the shares were subject to lock-in period of 12 months and the balance 75% of the shares were subject to lock in period of 18 months. During the previous financial year, the Assessee paid only ₹10.50 per share against the issue price of ₹15 per share. The employer company obtained independent valuation report in respect of the shares in question, the value of which was determined at ₹22.50 per share. In the return of income filed by the Assessee, the Assessee took the position that due to lock-in period, the shares were not marketable and therefore the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the shares could not exceed the face value of the shares. Thus, the Assessee did not offer any income in respect of the shares. The Assessing Officer held that the market price of the shares was ₹49.45 per share and the Assessee was allotted shares at a concessional rate of ₹15 per share and therefore the difference of ₹34.45 was liable to be taxed as perquisite u/s. 17(2)(iiia) of the Act. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer made an addition of ₹3,96,34,725.

The CIT(A) held that since the shares were subject to a lock-in and therefore not available for trade, it would be inappropriate to take the quoted price appearing on the Stock Exchange for the purpose of determining FMV. However, keeping in mind the valuation report, the CIT(A) held that the FMV should be taken at ₹22.50 per share. Against the said order of the CIT(A), both the Assessee as well as the Department filed appeals before the Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A).

The Delhi High Court allowed the appeal filed by the Assessee, and held as follows:

“i) In DY. CGT vs. BPL LTD. [2022] 448 ITR 739 (SC); 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1405 , the Supreme Court observed that equity shares which are quoted and transferable in the stock exchange are to be valued on the basis of the current transactions and quotations in the open market. The market quotations would reflect the market value of the equity shares that are transferable in a stock exchange, but this market price would not reflect the true and correct market price of shares suffering restrictions and bar on their transferability. It is a fact that the market price fluctuates, and the share prices can move up and down. Share prices do not remain static. Equally, the restriction or bar on transferability has an effect on the value/price of the shares. Easy and unrestricted marketability are important considerations that would normally impact valuation/price of a share. The expression “if sold in the open market” does not alter the nature of the property. What the expression postulates is to permit the assessee or the authorities to assume a sale in the open market, which is to limit the property to be valued at the price that a person would be prepared to pay in the open market with all rights and obligations. The value would not exceed the sum, which a willing purchaser would pay, given the fact that the right to purchase is restricted or barred. This does not imply that the valuation of the shares can be made artificially and by ignoring the restrictions on the property. Valuation cannot ignore the limitations attached to the shares.

ii) The shares in question would become transferable post the lock-in-period. In the light of the restriction with respect to marketability and tradeability of the stock in question, the fair market value could not have been recognised to exceed the face value of the shares and thus the determinative being ₹15. The valuation report was at best a medium adopted by the employer in order to broadly ascertain its obligations for the purposes of withholding tax. It could not have consequently been taken into consideration for the purposes of determining the fair market value. The face value alone would be conclusive for purposes of taxation.

iii) Well-settled position in law is that the Act does not contemplate a tax being levied on notional income.”

Settlement Commission — Settlement of case — Power of Settlement Commission — Immunity from penalty and prosecution — Factors to be considered — Assessee co-operated in process of settlement and made full and true disclosure — Settlement Commission exercising discretion to proceed with application and granting immunity from penalty and prosecution considering Bonafide conduct of assessee — Order of Settlement commission need not be interfered with in writ jurisdiction:

17 . Dy. CIT vs. ASM Traxim Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 474 ITR 25 (Del):

A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2011-12:

Date of order 28th October, 2024:

Ss. 245C, 245D(4) and 245H of ITA 1961:

Settlement Commission — Settlement of case — Power of Settlement Commission — Immunity from penalty and prosecution — Factors to be considered — Assessee co-operated in process of settlement and made full and true disclosure — Settlement Commission exercising discretion to proceed with application and granting immunity from penalty and prosecution considering Bonafide conduct of assessee — Order of Settlement commission need not be interfered with in writ jurisdiction:

During the search u/s. 132 and survey u/s. 133A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Department seized documents and material and also recorded the statements of various individuals of the assessee-company which belonged to the same group. During the pendency of assessment proceedings u/s. 153A and 153C Settlement applications were filed based on a combined or consolidated account which was prepared by chartered accountants. The Settlement Commission held such accounts to be unreliable on grounds of discrepancies found and the auditors themselves having expressed reservations with respect to the finding in their report and which was also qualified by various disclaimers. The Settlement Commission thereafter, directed a joint verification of all available primary records. Pursuant to the joint verification the Settlement Commission rejected the audited book results and based upon the joint verification determined the income for the purpose of disposal of the settlement applications.

On a writ petition filed by the Revenue challenging the order of the Settlement Commission u/s. 245D(4) in so far as it granted immunity to the assessee from prosecution and penalty proceedings the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) Once the conditions of full and true disclosure is held to be satisfied, the same would not partake of a separate or different hue for the purpose of section 245H of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Any view to the contrary if taken, would result in an incongruous situation arising since it would constrain the court to hold that the test of full and true disclosure applies differently for the purpose of computation and grant of immunity from prosecution and penalty proceedings. While the power to grant immunity stands enshrined in a separate provision in Chapter XIX-A, such power is exercised Contemporaneously by the Settlement Commission while disposing of an application u/s. 245D for settlement . The Statute does not prescribe the power of computation and grant of immunity being exercised on the basis of tests and precepts which could be said to be separate or distinguishable. Section 245H postulates the power of immunity being liable to be invoked identically on a full and true disclosure of income and co-operation rendered before the Settlement Commission. The Act confers a finality and conclusiveness upon orders made by the Settlement Commission. This becomes evident from the reading of section 245-I which proscribes any matter or issue which stands concluded by an order of the Settlement Commission being reopened in any proceedings under the Act. The Legislature intended to imbue finality upon an order of the Settlement Commission is further underscored by section 245-I using the expression “save as otherwise provided ….”. Thus, an order under Chapter XIX-A could be reviewed or reopened only on grounds set out therein and no other.

ii) The Settlement of the case was primordially based on the applicant making a full and true disclosure before the Settlement Commission which was enjoined thereafter to conduct proceeding in terms of the provisions contained in Chapter XIX-A. It was such disclosure which was thereafter tested and evaluated by the Settlement Commission in terms as contemplated under subsection (2) and (2C) of section 245D. The applications as made by the assessee had crossed that threshold. The Computation of income itself was concluded by the Settlement Commission based upon a joint verification that was undertaken. The assesses themselves had taken a stand that their audited accounts were not liable to be taken in to consideration and that they could not form the basis for the proceedings as were laid before the Settlement Commission and had admitted that those accounts were unreliable. It was in such backdrop they had participated in the proceedings before the Settlement Commission and had agreed to collaborate in the ascertainment of a true and correct computation of income for the A. Ys. 2004-05 to 2011-12 being undertaken. It was this position as struck by parties which appear to have informed the decision of the Settlement Commission to order a joint verification.

iii) The Settlement Commission had at no stage concluded that the application as made were liable to be rejected either on the ground that the assessee had failed to make a full and true disclosure or that they had failed to co-operate in the proceedings. If these twin conditions were found to be satisfied for the purpose of section 245D(4), such issue could not be questioned or reagitated while examining the validity of the discretionary power exercised by the Settlement Commission u/s. 245H. Both section 245D(4) and section 245H are premised on identical considerations. It would be incorrect to uphold the contention of a perceived dichotomy between the opinion with respect to full and true disclosure u/s.245D and that which would guide section 245H.

iv) The essential ingredients liable to be borne in consideration by the Settlement Commission for the purpose of grant of immunity are co-operation by the applicant in the computation of total income in the settlement proceedings and a full and true disclosure of income being made. The joint survey which was undertaken was itself based on all original documents and material having been duly placed by the assessee. It was therefore, not alleged that the assessee either failed to co-operate in those proceedings or withheld information. Chapter XIX-A also does not envisage the Settlement Commission to be bound by the voluntary disclosure that an applicant may choose to make. It is empowered to enquire and investigate as well as call for report and material before completing the computation of income. The order of the Settlement Commission u/s. 245D(4) did not warrant interference under article 226 of the Constitution of India.

v) The power to sever and disgorge a part which is offending and unsustainable could be wielded, provided it does not impact the very foundation of an order. The consideration for the framing of an order u/s. 245D(4) and 245H did not proceed on a consideration of factors which could be said to be distinct or independent. Both were informed by and founded upon co-operation and full and true disclosure and which were the essential prerequisites for computation of the settlement amount as well as consideration of grant of immunity. These two factors thus constituted the very substratum of an application for settlement. Interfering with the grant of immunity on grounds as suggested by the Department would essentially amount to the court questioning the validity of the acceptance of the application itself by the Settlement Commission and that was not even their suggestion in these proceedings. If the twin statutory conditions are found to be satisfied and thus meriting an order of settlement u/s. 245D(4) being rendered, the position would not very or undergo a change when it came to the question of grant of immunity.”

Salary — Perquisites :— 1) Meaning of perquisite — Condition precedent for considering payment as perquisite — Amount must have been paid to the Assessee as employee — Stock options provided to ex-employees — Stock option was not perquisite — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax; 2) Assessability — Stock options given to ex-employee — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax:

16. Sanjay Baweja vs. DCIT(TDS):

[2025] 474 ITR 376 (Del.):

Date of order 30th May, 2024:

Ss. 5 and 17(2) of ITA 1961

Salary — Perquisites :— 1) Meaning of perquisite — Condition precedent for considering payment as perquisite — Amount must have been paid to the Assessee as employee — Stock options provided to ex-employees — Stock option was not perquisite — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax; 2) Assessability — Stock options given to ex-employee — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax:

The Assessee is an ex-employee of a company FIPL, which is a wholly owned subsidiary of FMPL, and FMPL in turn is a wholly owned subsidiary of FPL, Singapore. In 2012, FPL introduced an Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) wherein FPL granted certain stock options to eligible persons, including employees of its subsidiaries. As per the plan, the Assessee was granted 1,27,552 stock options on and from 01-11-2014 to 31-11-2016 with a vesting schedule of four years. Due to the restructuring at FPL, the Assessee received a communication in April 2023 from FPL that based on the number of options held by the Assessee as on 23-12-2022, FPL had, as a one-time measure, decided to grant compensation of USD 43.67 per option towards loss in the value of options. Further, it was also stated that FPL would be withholding tax on the said compensation.

Thereafter, the Assessee filed an application u/s. 197 for no deduction of tax by FPL. However, the application was rejected on the ground that the amount received would be in the nature of perquisite u/s. 17(2)(vi) of the Act. Against the said rejection, the Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) An amount received by an employee as a perquisite would be taxable. Perquisites, as defined in section 17(2) of the Act, constitute a list of benefits or advantages, which are made taxable and are incidental to employment and received in excess of salary. As per section 17(2)(vi) of the Act, perquisites include the value of any specified security allotted or transferred, directly or indirectly, by the employer, or former employer, free of cost or at a concessional rate to the employee-assessee. The most crucial ingredient of this inclusive definition is “determinable value of any specified security received by the employee by way of transfer or allotment, directly or indirectly, by the employer”. As per Explanation (c) to section 17(2)(vi) of the Act, the value of specified security could only be calculated once the option is exercised. A literal understanding of the provision would provide that the value of specified securities or sweat equity shares is dependent upon the exercise of option by the assessee. Therefore, for an income to be included in the inclusive definition of “perquisite”, it is essential that it is generated from the exercise of options, by the employee. Hence the condition precedent for considering a payment as a perquisite, is that the payment must be made by an employer to his employee.

ii) The manner or nature of payment, as comprehensible by the deductor, would not determine the taxability of such transaction. It is the quality of payment that determines its character and not the mode of payment. Unless the charging section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 elucidates any monetary receipt as chargeable to tax, the Department cannot proceed to charge such receipt as a revenue receipt and that too on the basis of the manner or nature of payment, as comprehensible by the deductor of tax at source.

iii) The stock options were merely held by the assessee and had not been exercised till date and thus, they did not constitute income chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee as none of the contingencies specified in section 17(2)(vi) of the Act had occurred. Moreover, the compensation was a voluntary payment and not transfer by way of any obligation. The present was not a case where the option holder had exercised his right. Rather, the facts suggested that the assessee had not exercised his options under the plan till date. Due to the disinvestment of the business from the Singapore company, the board of directors of that company had decided to provide a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders pursuant to employees stock option plan. The management proceeded by noting that there was no legal or contractual right under the plan to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the stock option holders. The payment in question was not linked to the employment or business of the assessee, rather it was a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders of stock options, pursuant to the disinvestment of the business from the Singapore company. Even though the right to exercise an option was available to the assessee, the amount received by him did not arise out of any transfer of stock options by the employer. Rather, it was a one-time voluntary payment not arising out of any statutory or contractual obligation. The rejection of application was not valid. [Since the transaction already took place on July 31, 2023, liberty was accorded to the assessee to file an application for refund of the tax deducted at source before the Department. The Department was further directed to consider the application of the assessee.]”

Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in payment of tax deducted at source — Delayed payment of tax deducted at source to Department with interest without objection by Department — Delay explained by assessee as due to crisis in company — No malafide intention of evasion on part of assessee — Prosecution after a lapse of more than three years quashed:

15. SVSVS Projects Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Telangana:

[2025] 474 ITR 306 (Telangana):

A.Ys. 2011-12: Date of order 30th January, 2024:

S. 276B of ITA 1961:

Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in payment of tax deducted at source — Delayed payment of tax deducted at source to Department with interest without objection by Department — Delay explained by assessee as due to crisis in company — No malafide intention of evasion on part of assessee — Prosecution after a lapse of more than three years quashed:

There was an allegation against the Assessee that for the AY 2011-12, TDS was deducted by the Assessee but not deposited with the Central Government in time. As per the data available online, there was a delay on 39 occasions and on the basis of several such delays, it was alleged that the Assessee deliberately did not deposit tax to the credit of Central Government which was a punishable offence u/s. 276B. The Assessing Officer issued a letter dated 16/01/2013 stating that the tax deducted at source payable was ₹77,37,097 which was delayed and the interest for such delay was ₹13,36,278. However, the Assessee had paid interest of ₹12,37,164 and therefore balance interest of ₹99,114 was payable u/s. 201(1A) of the Act. The said balance interest was paid on 19th March, 2013.

Subsequently, on 14th March, 2014, a letter was issued by the Commissioner proposing to launch prosecution for not depositing the TDS with the Central Government within the stipulated time and an opportunity of hearing was given to the Assessee on 7th April, 2014. On 25/07/2014, the Assessee responded by stating that the entire amount of TDS along with interest was paid and that the delay was not wilful or negligent but due to financial crisis in the company. On 2nd December, 2016, the Commissioner granted sanction for prosecution and complaint was filed by the Assessing Officer on 3rd February, 2017.

The Telangana High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The payment of the entire tax deducted at source for the A. Y. 2011-12 with interest was paid by the assessee even prior to the letter addressed by the Income-tax Officer. Having received the notice, the balance of tax deducted at source interest was also paid. The Department had accepted both the tax deducted at source amounts and the interest component without any objection. Having accepted the entire amount nearly one year thereafter, the proposal for launching prosecution was made and two years and nine months thereafter sanction was accorded by the Commissioner for prosecution. No doubt, the tax deducted at source was credited to the Central Government account, though with a delay. However, the penal interest that was attracted was totally paid without raising any objection. The delay had occurred on 39 occasions and since the payments were delayed, the interest component was collected.

ii) The assessee had clarified that the delay in crediting the tax deducted at source to the Central Government account was on account of crisis in the company. In such circumstances, it could not be said that the company entertained any fraudulent intention to avoid payment of the tax deducted at source. No useful purpose would be served at this length of time by prosecuting the assessee. When the entire amount of tax deducted at source with interest had been paid even prior to the first communication from the Department and the balance interest amount had been paid after notice, it would be appropriate to quash the proceedings against the assessee. Accordingly, the criminal proceedings against the assessee before the Special Judge for Economic Offences were quashed.”

A. Offences and Prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in depositing with revenue — Assessee depositing tax deducted with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest though belatedly — Effect of circulars issued by CBDT — Interpretation of provisions of s. 276B to include delay in deposit of tax deducted at source manifestly arbitrary — Prosecution quashed: B. Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Principal Officer — Directors of Assessee company prosecuted for delay in payment of tax deducted at source with Revenue — Non-issue of notice and order to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee — No order imposing penalty as “deemed to be an assessee in default” on assessee or its directors — Criminal complaints against directors of assessee not stating consent, connivance or negligence on their part as required u/s. 278B(2) — Directors of assessee cannot be prosecuted: C. Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Scope of s. 278B(2) — Conduct of business of company must have nexus with the offence committed — Amendment in law from year 1997 — Use of the phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter VII-B” — Linked only with and explains manner of deduction of tax and payment thereof — Assessee deposited entire tax deducted at source with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest belatedly — Prosecution quashed:

14. Hemant Mahipatray Shah vs. Anand Upadhyay:

[2025] 482 ITR 1 (Bom.):

A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19: Date of order 12th August, 2024:

Ss. 2(35)(b), 201, 221, 276B, 278B and 279(1) of ITA 1961

A. Offences and Prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in depositing with revenue — Assessee depositing tax deducted with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest though belatedly — Effect of circulars issued by CBDT — Interpretation of provisions of s. 276B to include delay in deposit of tax deducted at source manifestly arbitrary — Prosecution quashed:

B. Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Principal Officer — Directors of Assessee company prosecuted for delay in payment of tax deducted at source with Revenue — Non-issue of notice and order to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee — No order imposing penalty as “deemed to be an assessee in default” on assessee or its directors — Criminal complaints against directors of assessee not stating consent, connivance or negligence on their part as required u/s. 278B(2) — Directors of assessee cannot be prosecuted:

C. Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Scope of s. 278B(2) — Conduct of business of company must have nexus with the offence committed — Amendment in law from year 1997 — Use of the phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter VII-B” — Linked only with and explains manner of deduction of tax and payment thereof — Assessee deposited entire tax deducted at source with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest belatedly — Prosecution quashed:

The petitioner is a Director of a company M/s. Hubtown Ltd (‘the Assessee Company’). During the previous years relevant to A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19. The Assessee Company deducted tax at source but delayed paying the same to the Government.

Show cause notices were issued to the Assessee Company and its Directors which were replied and the explanations provided. However, the Assessing Officer arrived at a conclusion that the Assessee and its Directors were responsible for paying tax as per section 204 and had, therefore, committed default u/s. 200 read with rule 30 of the Income-tax Rules without reasonable cause to pay the tax so deducted under the various sections of the Act from payments made to various parties, which amounted to an offence punishable u/s. 276B read with section 278B.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (TDS) gave sanction u/s. 279(1) to prosecute the Assessee Company and its Directors u/s. 276B r.w.s. 278B as prima facie they were liable to be prosecuted under these sections. Accordingly, complaints were filed before the Magistrate Court. The Magistrate arrived at a conclusion and issued process against the Assessee Company and the Petitioner.

The order of the Magistrate was challenged before the Sessions Court by filing criminal revision application. However, the Sessions Court also rejected the revision application and confirmed the issuance of process directed by the Magistrate.

The Petitioner Director filed writ petition against the said order of the Sessions Court. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The scope of section 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as amended by the Finance Act, 1997 ([1997] 225 ITR (St.) 113), will have to be understood in its correct perspective. It covers cases of failure to pay and not mere delay in deposit of tax deducted at source. In the unamended provisions prior to the year 1997, the words “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B” could be read along with the words “both”. Under the amended provisions from the year 1997, the criminal liability is attracted on failure to pay. The phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B” is separately mentioned in clause (a) of section 276B and hence, is linked only with and explains the manner in which tax is required to be deducted and not the manner of payment thereof. Therefore, under the amended provisions, if the tax deducted at source has been paid in full, even with some delay, section 276B would not be attracted.

ii) Prosecution u/s. 276B should not normally be proposed when the amount involved and/or the period of default is not substantial and the amount in default has also been deposited in the meantime to the credit of the Government. No such situation will apply to levy of interest u/s. 201(1A). In this context CBDT bearing F. No. 255/339/79-IT(Inv.), dated May 28, 1980 may be referred to.

iii) The provisions of 278B(1) is for prosecuting an offender, the term “conduct of business of the company” must have a nexus with “the offence committed” and hence, in the context of such offence u/s. 276B ought to be interpreted (which is in relation to “failure to pay” the tax deducted at source) to be the “principal officer” who has been made responsible, u/s. 204(iii) , for paying the tax deducted at source to the Government. The proviso to section 278B(1) prescribes “absence of knowledge” as a valid defence for invoking the section. Where a person is declared a “principal officer” of a company by an “order” under section 201(1), it would, prima facie, fulfil the requirement of presumption of knowledge. The term “director” which has been separately defined u/s. 2(20) has not been used in section 278B(1). As such director is not covered thereunder. Sub-section (2) of section 278B which commences with a non obstante clause provides an action to prosecute a person which expressly applies to a director. Emphasis is on the words “with the consent”, “connivance” or “attributable to the neglect” of such director, manager, secretary or other officer of the company.

iv) Admittedly, tax deducted at source by the assessee had already been deposited with interest as provided u/s. 201(1A). No notice had been issued by the Assessing Officer to any of the petitioners u/s. 2(35)(b) to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee. The complaints had been filed against the assessee and the petitioners who were its directors, for delay in depositing the tax deducted at source. The taxes deducted at source by the assessee had already been deposited with interest as provided for u/s. 201(1A). No order as contemplated u/s. 201(1) read with section 201(3) had been passed treating any of the petitioners as principal officer of the assessee and by which such principal officer was “deemed to be assessee-in-default”. No order imposing penalty, either initially or further penalty, as “deemed to be an assessee-in-default” u/s. 221 has been passed against the assessee or any of the petitioners for the A. Y. 2017-18. Though the petitioners were “directors” of the assessee, no contention had been made in the complaints regarding “consent”, “connivance” or “negligence” as required u/s. 278B(2)

v) A combined reading of circulars dated May 28, 1980 and April 24, 2008 contemplate that prosecution ought not to be launched where the tax has been deposited. The words “where the amount of default has been deposited in the meantime” in the circular dated May 28, 1980 signify such intent and the words “in addition to the recovery steps as may be necessary in such cases” in circular dated April 24, 2008 also signifies that there are pending arrears which need to be recovered. The ratio laid down in Madhumilan Syntex Ltd. vs. Union of India [2007] 290 ITR 199 (SC), would not be applicable in view of the circular dated April 24, 2008 and, therefore, it cannot be treated as a precedent for the period after April 24, 2008. The circular dated April 24, 2008 prescribes that the prosecution is to be launched within sixty days of detection of the default. Though the circular also prefixes the requirement with the words “preferably”, it also signifies that if not in sixty days the period cannot extend indefinitely for an unreasonable period. If section 276B is interpreted to include the delay in deposit of tax deducted at source it would make the provision manifestly arbitrary.

vi) The definition of “principal officer” as contemplated in section 2(35) , required the Assessing Officer to issue notice to any person connected with the management or administration of the assessee for his intention of treating him as the ”principal officer” thereof. The obligation did not end with mere issue of a notice. Section 201(1) , proviso to section 201(1) and 201(3) made it mandatory for the Assessing Officer to pass an order. The order was also appealable under section 246(1)(i). The order would determine which officer of the assessee was proposed to be dealt as “principal officer” and in view of the exclusion under the proviso to section 201(1), whether the assessee and its principal officer should be “deemed to be assessee-in-default”.

vii) Section 2(35)(b) postulates the Assessing Officer to issue notice of his “intention to treat” a person connected with the management and administration of an assessee as its “principal officer” that mere issuance of notice would not ipso facto become a final “determination” of classification and identification of a person as “principal officer”. Since treating a person as such would not only have civil but also penal consequences. As such, an order making such determination was necessary. Such “adjudication” was contemplated u/s. 201 when such person other than the assessee was held to be a principal officer and was also thereafter deemed to be an assessee-in-default. Any person aggrieved by such order would have remedies available under section 246(1)(i). The term “principal officer” has been used singular and not in plural and the word “officer” is further premised by the word “principal” which signifies “main” officer and not all the officers who may in some way be connected with the management or administration of the company.“Determination” could therefore, be done only while passing an order u/s. 201(1). Section 204(iii) also defines and fixes the responsibility for paying the tax deducted at source in relation to the company on its “principal officer”.

viii) The offences being offences u/s. 276B would imply that the failure to pay the tax deducted at source must have direct relation, namely, consent, connivance or neglect of such person.

ix) The Revenue had not invoked the provisions of section 221 read with section 201(1) to impose penalty against the assessee or the principal officer of the assessee for “failure to pay the whole or any part of tax, as required by or under this Act” and hence could not be permitted to prosecute the petitioners for the same substantive act which was also categorized as an “offence” u/s. 276B . As such, further trial of the petitioners by the criminal court was not permissible which would tantamount to abuse of process of the court. The orders of issuance of process by the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrates and the orders rejecting the criminal revision applications by the Additional Sessions Court were quashed and set aside.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Mandatory condition u/s. 158BD — Initiation of proceedings by assessee’s AO without satisfaction note from searched person’s AO — Failure to follow mandatory procedure — High Court held that initiation of proceedings without jurisdiction:

13. Principal CIT vs. MiliaTracon Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 473 ITR 155 (Cal.):

Block period 01/04/1996 to 07/05/2002:

Date of order 3rd July, 2024:

Ss.132 and 158BD of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Mandatory condition u/s. 158BD — Initiation of proceedings by assessee’s AO without satisfaction note from searched person’s AO — Failure to follow mandatory procedure — High Court held that initiation of proceedings without jurisdiction:

A search conducted at the premises of UIC group led to the discovery of certain share certificates issued in the name of the assessee. The Assessing Officer of the assessee initiated proceedings u/s. 158BD of the Income-tax Act, 1961, without recording a satisfaction note as mandated and the assessee denied any undisclosed income. Subsequently, summons were issued to four individuals u/s. 131 but could not be served. The Assessing Officer of the assessee communicated the reasons for initiation of proceedings through a letter. The assessee submitted block returns of income and contested the proceedings, asserting that they were improperly initiated.

The Assessing Officer passed an assessment order. The satisfaction note reproduced in the assessment order was prepared by the Assessing Officer of the assessee and not by the Assessing Officer of the searched person, as required u/s. 158BD.

The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the validity of the initiation of proceedings but granted relief on certain additions. The Tribunal reversed the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals), concluding that the initiation of proceedings was without jurisdiction since the mandatory requirements of recording satisfaction and transferring documents by the Assessing Officer of the searched person to the assessee’s Assessing Officer were not followed.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenues and held as under:

“i) U/s. 158BD of the Income-tax Act, 1961, satisfaction note has to be recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and send it to the Assessing Officer of such other person, the third party.

ii) The initiation of proceedings u/s. 158BD was unauthorised and lacked jurisdiction. The satisfaction note required u/s. 158BD must be recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and sent to the Assessing Officer of the third person assessee. This requirement was not met in this case, as the note was prepared by the Assessing Officer of the assessee, contrary to statutory provisions. Additionally, the mandatory procedure for transferring seized documents to the assessee’s Assessing Officer was not followed. There was no illegality in the order of the Tribunal.”

Refund — Effect of section 240 — Refund consequent on appellate order — Refund should be granted without application for it. Interest on refund — Effect of section 244 — Deduction of tax at source — Tax deducted at source and deposited has to be treated as tax duly paid — Such amount be taken into consideration in computing interest on refund — Interest payable from first day of April of relevant Assessment Year to the date on which refund is ultimately granted:

12. ESS Singapore Branch vs. DCIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 541 (Del.):

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 22nd August, 2024:

Ss.199, 240 and 244 of  ITA 1961

Refund — Effect of section 240 — Refund consequent on appellate order — Refund should be granted without application for it. Interest on refund — Effect of section 244 — Deduction of tax at source — Tax deducted at source and deposited has to be treated as tax duly paid — Such amount be taken into consideration in computing interest on refund — Interest payable from first day of April of relevant Assessment Year to the date on which refund is ultimately granted:

The Assessee filed return of income for AY 2014-15 and claimed a refund of ₹3,65,970. The case was selected for scrutiny wherein the Assessing Officer raised an issue as to whether the revenue earned by the assessee including the consideration for live feed, would constitute royalty and thus be taxable. The Assessing Officer framed the draft assessment order holding that the consideration received towards live feed was taxable as royalty under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP), affirmed the view taken by the AO pursuant to which the final order was passed.

On appeal before the Tribunal, the Tribunal held that there was a clear distinction between a copyright and a broadcasting right, broadcast or live coverage which does not have a copyright, and therefore, payment for live telecast was neither payment for transfer of any copyright nor any scientific work so as to fall under the ambit of royalty under Explanation 2 to Section 9(1)(vi) and decided the appeal in favour of the assessee. Further, the Tribunal gave directions to the Assessing Officer to verify and grant credit for tax deducted at source as claimed by the assessee. Pursuant to the direction of the Tribunal, the assessee filed application before the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer restricted the benefit of TDS to the amount which was claimed in the return of income on the ground that amount reflected in Form 26AS was not claimed by the assessee in the return of income. It was also held that for the purposes of refund, the assessee had to follow the procedure as laid out in section 239 of the Act.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition filed by assessee and held as follows:

“i) The unquestionable mandate of section 240 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 , as would be manifest from a reading of that provision, is that in cases where a refund becomes due and payable consequent to an order passed in an appeal or other proceedings, the Assessing Officer is obliged to refund the amount to the assessee without it having to make any claim in that behalf.

ii) Tax deducted at source duly deposited becomes liable to be treated as tax duly paid in terms of section 199 and interest thereon would consequently flow from the first day of April of the relevant assessment year to the date on which the refund is ultimately granted by virtue of section 244A(1)(a) of the Act.

iii) The undisputed position was that the Assessing Officer was called upon to give effect to a direction framed by the Tribunal. Viewed in that light, the stand taken by the Assessing Officer was unsustainable in so far as it restricted the claim of the assessee to the disclosures made in the return of income. It was wholly illegal and inequitable for the Department to give short credit to the tax duly deducted and deposited based on the claim that may be made in a return of income.

iv) Direction issued to respondents to acknowledge the credit of tax deducted at source as reflected in form 26AS of the assessee amounting to ₹2,27,83,28,430 and to recompute the total refund at ₹2,03,40,32,090.”

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Delay in submitting Form 10 for accumulation of income — Not a ground for re-assessment. Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Board Circular acknowledging difficulties of assessee’s in uploading form — Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim — Re-assessment not justified. Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Matter of procedure Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim —Re-assessment not justified

11. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India vs. DCIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 696 (Del.):

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 5th August, 2024:

Ss.11(2), 147, and 148A of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Delay in submitting Form 10 for accumulation of income — Not a ground for re-assessment.

Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Board Circular acknowledging difficulties of assessee’s in uploading form — Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim — Re-assessment not justified.

Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Matter of procedure Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim —Re-assessment not justified:

The Assessee is a company registered u/s. 8 of the Companies Act and holds registration u/s. 12AA of the Act. Re-assessment proceedings were initiated against the assessee for the A. Y. 2016-17 on account of failure to digitally file and upload Form 10 on or before the due date of filing return of income u/s. 139(1) of the Act. While the assessee filed Forms 10A and 10B after the due date of return of income, however, the same were submitted before the Assessing Officer prior to the completion of the assessment proceedings. Assessment order was framed on 1st December, 2018 and the accumulation u/s. 11(2) was accepted.

The re-opening of assessment was challenged in a writ petition filed before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the Petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) Section 11(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, speaks of a statement in the prescribed form (form 10) being “furnished” to the Assessing Officer. The change in the “prescribed manner” u/s. 11(2)(a) for the submission of form 10 and which moved to a digital filing was introduced for the first time by virtue of the Finance Act, 2015 ([2015] 373 ITR (St.) 25) and the Income-tax (First Amendment) Rules, 2016 ([2016] 380 ITR (St.) 66). Prior to those amendments, all that section 11(2)(a) required was for the assessee to apprise the Assessing Officer, by a notice in writing, of the purposes for which the income was sought to be accumulated and the mode of its investment or deposit in accordance with section 11(5). The requirement of form 10 being furnished electronically was undisputedly introduced for the first time by way of the 2016 Amendment Rules. The electronic submission of form 10 is essentially a matter of procedure as opposed to being a mandatory condition which may be recognised to form part of substantive law. An action for reassessment would have to be based on the formation of an opinion that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. That primordial condition would clearly not be satisfied on the mere allegation of a delayed digital filing of form 10.

ii) The action for reassessment was not founded on income liable to tax having escaped assessment. The Department also did not question the acceptance of the accumulations in terms of section 11(2) in the assessment order dated 1st December, 2018. The entire action for reassessment was founded solely on form 10 having been submitted after 17th October, 2016 which was the due date in terms of section 139(1). The order u/s. 148A(d) dated 31st March, 2023 and the consequent initiation of reassessment proceedings through notice u/s. 148 of the Act of even date were not valid and were liable to be quashed.”

Reassessment—Scope of jurisdiction of AO— Notice — Reasons recorded — Grounds must be recorded before issue of notice — AO is not entitled to record additional reasons thereafter —Re-assessment based on other grounds recorded after issue of notice not valid — Order and notice quashed: Re-assessment — Applicability of Explanation 3 to section 147 — Explanation applied only where power to re-assess validly invoked:

10. ATS Infrastructure Ltd. vs. ACIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 595 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2014-15 to 2016-17: Date of order 18th July, 2024:

Ss.147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961:

Reassessment—Scope of jurisdiction of AO— Notice — Reasons recorded — Grounds must be recorded before issue of notice — AO is not entitled to record additional reasons thereafter —Re-assessment based on other grounds recorded after issue of notice not valid — Order and notice quashed:

Re-assessment — Applicability of Explanation 3 to section 147 — Explanation applied only where power to re-assess validly invoked:

Notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued on the ground that the assessee had received loan from its 100% subsidiary. In response to the notice, the assessee submitted that the assessee had not received any loan from its subsidiary but on the contrary it had repaid the loan. The Assessing Officer, vide order dated 23rd July, 2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act accepted the explanation of the assessee. However, he alleged that the assessee had not been able to completely explain the source of the money which was used to repay a part of the loan and therefore the amount towards loan of ₹25,53,42,435 was treated as income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment.

The Assessee challenged the aforesaid order in a writ petition before the High Court mainly contending that the Department had changed their stand and sought to re-open the assessment on a ground which did not form part of the original notice.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition, quashed the proceedings and held as follows:

“i) The validity of the reassessment proceedings initiated u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, upon issue of a notice u/s. 148, would have to be adjudged from the stand point of the reasons which formed the basis for the formation of opinion with respect to escapement of income. That opinion cannot be one of changing or fresh reasoning or a felt need to make further enquiries or undertake an exercise of verification. The court would be primarily concerned with whether the reasons which formed the basis for formation of the requisite opinion are tenable and sufficient to warrant invocation of section 147.

ii) The enunciation with respect to the indelible connection between section 148A(b) and section 148A(d) are clearly not impacted by Explanation 3. U/ss. 147 and 148 the subject of validity of initiation of reassessment would have to be independently evaluated and cannot be confused with the power that could ultimately be available in the hands of the Assessing Officer and which could be invoked once an assessment has been validly reopened. Explanation 3 which forms part of section 147, would apply only when it is found that the power to reassess had been validly invoked and the formation of opinion entitled to be upheld in the light of the principles which are well settled. The Explanations would be applicable to issues which may come to the notice of the Assessing Officer in the course of proceedings of reassessment subject to the supervening requirement of the reassessment action itself having been validly initiated and the assessment has been validly reopened. Explanation 3, cannot consequently be read as enabling the Assessing Officer to attempt to either deviate from the reasons originally recorded for initiating action u/s. 147 or section 148 nor can the Explanations be read as empowering the Assessing Officer to improve upon, supplement or supplant the reasons which formed the basis for initiation of action under these provisions.

iii) The proviso to section 147 linked the initiation of reassessment to the existence of information which already existed or was in the possession of the Assessing Officer which was the basis for formation of the opinion that income liable to tax had escaped assessment. The provision fortified the view that the foundational material alone would be relevant for the purposes of evaluating whether reassessment powers u/s. 147 were justifiably invoked. Accordingly, the reassessment proceedings were unsustainable. Considering the import of Explanation 3 as well as the language in which section 147 stood couched, there was no justification to differ from the legal position which had been enunciated in Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT [2011] 336 ITR 136 (Delhi); which had been affirmed and approved subsequently in CIT (Exemption) vs. Monarch Educational Society [2016] 387 ITR 416 (Delhi); and CIT vs. Software Consultants [2012] 341 ITR 240 (Delhi). Consequently, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the subsequent notice u/s. 148 were quashed. The Department was granted liberty to take such action as may otherwise be permissible in law.”

Reassessment — Faceless assessment — Notice — New procedure — Effect of provisions of s. 151A and notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued by Central Government — Notice issued by jurisdictional AO invalid:

9. Everest Kanto Cylinder Ltd. vs. Dy./ Asst. CIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 148 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 4th July, 2024:

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 151A of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Faceless assessment — Notice — New procedure — Effect of provisions of s. 151A and notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued by Central Government — Notice issued by jurisdictional AO invalid:

On a writ petition challenging the initial notice issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the order passed on such notice u/s. 148A(d) and the consequent notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2017-18 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 the Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“The jurisdictional Assessing Officer did not have jurisdiction to issue the notice u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 in view of the provisions of section 151A read with the notification dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) issued by the Central Government. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b) and the order u/s. 148A(d) were set aside. The consequent notice issued u/s. 148 was illegal and invalid.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Limitation — Date of commencement of limitation period — Reference to DRP — Directions of DRP uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in income-tax business application portal visible and accessible by AO — Intimation of order of DRP received by AO on 3rd February, 2022 and assessment completed on 22nd March, 2022 — Held, assessment order barred by limitation:

8. CIT vs. Ramco Cements Ltd.:

[2025] 474 ITR 9 (Mad):

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 19th December, 2024:

Ss.143(3), 144B and 144C(13) of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Limitation — Date of commencement of limitation period — Reference to DRP — Directions of DRP uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in income-tax business application portal visible and accessible by AO — Intimation of order of DRP received by AO on 3rd February, 2022 and assessment completed on 22nd March, 2022 — Held, assessment order barred by limitation:

The order of the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) was uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in the Department’s portal of Income-tax Business Application for National e-Faceless Assessment Centre, Delhi. The order was received by the Assessing Officer on 3rd February, 2022 as per the case history data and the proceedings were completed by the Assessing Officer on 22nd March, 2022. On the questions of whether the date of receipt of direction of the DRP was 31st January 2022 or 3rd February, 2022 and whether the completion of proceedings by 22nd March, 2022 was within the time limit stipulated u/s. 144C(13), the Madras High Court, dismissing the appeal filed by the Revenue, held as under:

“i) The commencement of limitation for the passing of the final assessment order is 30 days from the end of the month when the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel are received by the Assessing Officer. Section 144C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a code by itself that provides for very strict timelines for completion of an assessment. Hence the stipulation in regard to limitation cannot be reckoned in a manner so as to give rise to more than one interpretation, where either party can take benefit of a later date.

ii) The communication from the Dispute Resolution Panel to the Tribunal confirmed that the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel had been uploaded in the Income-tax Business Application on 31st January, 2022 itself. Since the Income-tax Business Application portal could be accessed by both the assessee as well as the Assessing Officer on their furnishing necessary credentials, the point that remained to be determined was how there could be two dates, i. e., 31st January, 2022 and 3rd February, 2022, when the same order was served upon the Faceless Assessment Officer and which date was to be reckoned as the point of commencement of limitation.

iii) The internal processes followed by the Income-tax Department make it possible for the user to initiate proceedings in the Income-tax Business Application portal using two methodologies. According to the unmasking report, if the Dispute Resolution Panel user selects the option of “draft order u/s. 144C” in the screen, then a link is created with the assessment module such that the direction passed by the Dispute Resolution Panel would automatically be reflected in the case history or notings of the Assessing Officer, both the Faceless Assessment Officer and jurisdictional Assessing Officer. The second method is where the Dispute Resolution Panel user has initiated proceedings, by using the option of manually entering the details of the order u/s. 144C in the screen. In such circumstances, the Dispute Resolution Panel order does not reflect automatically in the case history or notings of the assessment proceedings. According to the report, the second option had been availed by the Dispute Resolution Panel user and hence though the order was uploaded by the Dispute Resolution Panel user in the Income-tax Business Application on 31st January, 2022 itself, such uploading was not noticed by the Assessing Officer. However, as far as the Assessing Officer was concerned, an advisory issued by the Income-tax Business Application team on visibility of orders passed by Dispute Resolution Panels to other Income-tax Business Application users, was relevant. Paragraphs 1 and 2 of the advisory stipulated the two methods or options for uploading of the order. However, whatever be the method chosen, the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel would be visible in the 360-degree screen to the Faceless Assessment Officer, if any assessment work-item were pending with him, in relation to a permanent account number. In other words, in the event of pending assessment proceedings, he would have to key in the concerned permanent account number of the assessee, such that, panoramic, 360-degree visibility was available to him to view the Dispute Resolution Panel directions as and when uploaded, which in the assessee’s case was on 31st January, 2022. The order of assessment dated 22nd March, 2022 had been passed u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(13) read with section 144B. This provision required an assessment to be framed only in faceless mode by a Faceless Assessment Officer and it was he who had framed the assessment. The advisory had made it clear that the Faceless Assessment Officer would be able to view the Dispute Resolution Panel order in the 360-degree screen, since the assessment was pending with him. This feature had evidently been provided to ensure that an officer could access or receive the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel as soon as it was uploaded by the Secretariat of the Dispute Resolution Panel and the pending proceedings would be completed within the statutory limitation provided. Hence, there was no protection available to the Department by the Dispute Resolution Panel user having selected the second manual option, since an Assessing Officer, in order to ensure that the assessment proceedings were strictly in accordance with statutory limitation, had been given full and complete access to all inputs required for completion of the assessment including the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel immediately on their uploading into the Income-tax Business Application portal by the Dispute Resolution Panel. Clearly, limitation could not be dependent on varying user functionalities which were nothing but internal processes. If such contention was accepted, the commencement of limitation would vary depending on the option exercised by the user which would defeat the purpose of statutory limitation. The starting point of limitation was thus to be reckoned from the earliest instance when the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel would be visible to the officer and could not be taken to fluctuate from one methodology to another depending on the option exercised by the user. The concluding portion of the advisory stated that the Dispute Resolution Panel order would be visible in the 360-degree screen to the Faceless Assessment Officer for his ready access. Therefore, all that was required to gain complete and up-to-date access to all relevant data in regard to an assessment would be available on the 360-degree screen.

iv) The fact that the Faceless Assessment Officer had merely chosen to await intimation when the order u/s. 144C had admittedly been uploaded on the Income-tax Business Application by the Dispute Resolution Panel user, and his consequent belated response, could not lead to a situation of disadvantage to the assessee, particularly when the advisory provides a methodology by which the Faceless Assessment Officer could access the document uploaded by the Dispute Resolution Panel simultaneously. The Tribunal was right in holding that the date of receipt of the direction of the Dispute Resolution Panel by the Assessing Officer was 31st January, 2022 being the date of uploading of the order of the Dispute Resolution Panel in the Department’s portal or website though the intimation of the Dispute Resolution Panel’s order was received by the Assessing Officer only on 3rd February, 2022 as per the case history data and the completion of the proceedings by the Assessing Officer on 22nd March, 2022.”

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Powers of Appellate Tribunal — Power to rectify mistakes in its order — Failure to follow law laid down by jurisdictional High Court — Mistake to be rectified — Matter remanded to Tribunal: Precedent — Decision of High Court — Binding on all income-tax authorities under its jurisdiction:

7. Uttar Gujarat Vij Co. Ltd. vs. ITO:

[2025] 473 ITR 729 (Guj):

A. Y. 2010-11, 2012-13 to 2014-15:

Date of order 1st April, 2024:

S. 254 of ITA 1961

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Powers of Appellate Tribunal — Power to rectify mistakes in its order — Failure to follow law laid down by jurisdictional High Court — Mistake to be rectified — Matter remanded to Tribunal:

Precedent — Decision of High Court — Binding on all income-tax authorities under its jurisdiction:

The petitioner-company is owned by the Government of Gujarat and carrying on business of distribution of electricity. For the A. Y. 2013-14, the petitioner filed return of income on 30th September, 2013 declaring the total income at ₹nil after claiming set-off of brought forward business loss and unabsorbed depreciation. The case of the petitioner was selected for scrutiny assessment by issuing notice dated 4th September, 2014 u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and final assessment order was passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act on 29th December, 2016. The Assessing Officer, while framing the assessment, treated the interest income received on staff loan and other advances along with the miscellaneous receipt as income from other sources as against the income from business or profession as declared by the petitioner. Other additions were also made by the Assessing Officer.

The CIT(Appeals) partly allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. In the appeal before the Tribunal the assessee had relied on the judgment of the jurisdictional Gujarat High Court which was not considered by the Tribunal. The Tribunal dismissed the Miscellaneous Application filed by the assessee seeking review of the order of the Tribunal.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The decision of a High Court, is binding on all subordinate courts and Appellate Tribunals within the territory of the State and subject to the supervisory jurisdiction of the court. Not following the binding decision of the co-ordinate Bench and jurisdictional High Court rendered on identical facts would be a mistake apparent on record which could be rectified by the Appellate Tribunal u/s. 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

ii) The Tribunal could not have taken a different view from what was already taken by the co-ordinate Bench under similar facts which was confirmed by this court in Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT in Tax Appeal No. 63 of 2020 dated 16th March, 2020 (Guj). The Tribunal in Gujarat UrjaVikas Nigam Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT in Tax Appeal No. 63 of 2020 dated 16th March, 2020 (Guj) had held that interest income on staff loans was required to be treated as “business income” instead of “income from other sources” which was confirmed on appeal by this court. The decisions of the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal and this court were binding upon the Tribunal. When the Tribunal had not followed the decision on the identical facts by the co-ordinate Bench which was confirmed by this court, there was a mistake apparent on the face of the record in the order passed by the Tribunal which ought to have been considered by the Tribunal and the miscellaneous application filed by the assessee could not have been dismissed.

iii) The order of the Tribunal was set aside. The matter was remanded to the Tribunal to pass orders afresh. [Matter remanded.]”

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest: A.Y. 2015-16

6. Munchener Ruckversicherungs Gesellshaft Aktiengesellschaft In Munchen vs. CIT (International Taxation)

[2025] 473 ITR 53 (Del.):

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 3rd September, 2024

S. 155(14) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest:

The assessee was a non-resident. For the A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee declared nil income asserting that its receipt of an amount would not be subject to tax in India in terms of the provisions u/s. 90 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and claimed refund of tax deducted at source on the basis the tax credit statement being form 26AS, which included the tax deducted by an entity BALIC. The assessee submitted that the tax deducted at source pertaining to the last quarter of F. Y. 2014-15 was credited by BALIC on 21st January, 2016, that consequently, the original tax deducted at source stood increased. In the return for the A. Y. 2016-17 wherein the claim for tax deducted at source credit stood embedded on account of such amount having by then being captured in form 26AS and which amount had remained unclaimed in A. Y. 2015-16.

The Commissioner (International Taxation) was of the view that since the income received from BALIC was offered to tax, the assessee would not be entitled to the grant of tax deducted at source credit. He held that the assessee had failed to file revised return of income and rejected the assessee’s application u/s. 264.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 155 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribes that where credit for tax has not been given on the ground of either a certificate having not been furnished or filed, but which is subsequently presented before the Assessing Officer, it would be sufficient for the assessment order being amended. Section 155(14) places the Assessing Officer under a statutory obligation to amend the order of assessment once it is established that the contingencies stated in that provision are duly established. Sub-section (14) neither contemplates nor mandates the original return being amended or revised and takes care of contingencies where tax deducted at source is either subsequently credited or is reflected in form 26AS after a time lag. An assessee may face such a spectre on account of a variety of unforeseeable reasons.

ii) Since the tax which was deducted at source by BALIC stood duly embedded in form 26AS which was produced by the assessee and the income earned from that entity had never been held to be subject to tax under the Act, the refusal on the part of the Department to refund that amount was illegal and arbitrary. The factum of tax having been deducted at source by BALIC and pertaining to income transmitted in the A. Y. 2015-16 was not disputed and stood duly fortified from the disclosures which appeared in form 26AS pertaining to that assessment year. It was also not disputed that BALIC had credited the tax deducted at source on 21st January, 2016 and as a consequence of which, the credit was not reflected at the time when the return had been originally filed for the assessment year 2015-16.

iii) The order passed u/s. 264 rejecting the assessee’s application was quashed. The Department was directed to refund the amount of tax deducted at source along with statutory interest.”

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous: A.Y. 2017-18

5. CIT (International Taxation) vs. Zebra Technologies Asia Pacific Pte. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 745 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2017-18

Date of order: 23rd October, 2024

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous:

The assessee was a non-resident and distributed electronic products and services related to after sales, repairs, and technical support services to the customers across the globe. It held tax residency certificate of Singapore and sought to avail of the benefit of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement ([1982] 134 ITR (St.) 6). In the A. Y. 2017-18, the assessee received a sum for rendition of technical support, repairs and maintenance services under an agreement with an Indian entity and also an amount in USD from offshore sale of products. According to the assessee, since it did not have a permanent establishment in India and also did not make available technical know-how, knowledge, and skill to the Indian entity under the agreement, the receipts were not chargeable to tax in India under the Act by virtue of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The Assessing Officer accepted the assessee’s explanation in response to the notices u/ss. 142(1) and 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 during the assessment proceedings which culminated in an assessment order.

The Commissioner was of the view that the Assessing Officer did not conduct the necessary inquiries and verified the facts for accepting the assessee’s claim that its income was not chargeable to tax under the Act by virtue of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, that he did not call for the relevant details or verified whether the assessee had a permanent establishment in India during the relevant period, that he did not carry out any inquiry to ascertain whether any commercial substance existed in Singapore and whether the assessee was merely a conduit company and used with an object to obtain the tax benefit under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. Accordingly, he invoked his power u/s. 263.

The Tribunal faulted the Commissioner for not affording the assessee an opportunity to rebut the allegations that it was merely a conduit without any substance and had entered into an agreement for the purposes of taking an advantage of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) There was no fault with the order of the Tribunal in setting aside the revision order passed by the Commissioner u/s. 263 on the ground that the assessee was not afforded an opportunity to counter the allegation that it was a conduit company without any substance.

ii) In the show-cause notice the Commissioner had faulted the Assessing Officer for not undertaking certain enquiries including verifying whether, (i) the assessee had a permanent establishment in India, (ii) in terms of section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, the income was chargeable as fees for technical services, (iii) tax at source at the rate of 10 per cent. on all the remittances made to the assessee were deducted, (iv) the condition as set out in article 12 of the India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement in regard to taxation of fees for technical services were satisfied, (v) regarding the commercial substance of the assessee in Singapore and (vi) it was a conduit company formed for obtaining the tax benefits under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.

iii) These observations were made only for the purposes of calling upon the assessee to show cause why the proceedings not be initiated u/s. 263 of the Act but, thereafter, the Commissioner had not put the issue regarding treaty shopping to the assessee. The tentative opinion formed by the Commissioner that the assessee was a conduit company for the reasons as articulated in the revision order was not put to the assessee. Hence, the assessee had not been given an opportunity to satisfy the Commissioner regarding such view for the A. Y. 2017-18.”

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision: A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21

4. Sushen Mohan Gupta vs. Principle CIT

[2025] 473 ITR 173 (Del.)

A. Y. 2010-11 to 2020-21

Date of order: 22nd March, 2024

Ss. 156, 220(1), 220(6) and 246A of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision:

A search and seizure action was conducted and subsequently notices u/s. 153A of the Act for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2019-20 were issued and on culmination of proceedings so drawn, the assessment orders came to be framed on 30th September, 2021 raising a cumulative demand of ₹ 1,85,62,19,390 for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21.

The Assessee filed appeals before the CIT(A) which are pending. Against the enforcement of demand, the Assessee filed application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer which came to be rejected on the ground that the Assessee had not deposited 20% of the outstanding demand and therefore the application could not be entertained. In rejecting the assessee’s application for stay of demand, the Assessing Officer relied upon the Office Memorandums of the CBDT dated 29-02-2016 and 31-07-2017.

Thereafter, the Assessee filed application for rectification of mistakes which was disposed and the revised demand recoverable from the Assessee was computed at ₹1,81,37,14,107. The Assessee thereafter filed another stay application before the Assessing Officer for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21. During the pendency of the said stay application, the Assessee was served with a letter seeking payment of the outstanding demand followed by a demand notice issued u/s. 220(1) of the Act. In response to the aforesaid, the Assessee filed a detailed response stating that the original assessment was wholly arbitrary and rendered unsustainable in the light of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Pr.CIT vs. Abhisar Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. The Assessee also offered to pledge properties owned by an entity in which the Assessee’s family members were directors / shareholders to secure the outstanding demand to the extent of 20%. The Assessee’s prayer was rejected.

Aggrieved, the Assessee approached the Principal Commissioner for grant of interim protection against the outstanding demands. The Principal Commissioner disposed the application by observing that during search operations, various incriminating documents were found and seized and credible evidence were collected. He, thus, disposed of the applications of stay of demand and directed the assessee to deposit demand which was 40 per cent of total outstanding demand within 15 days of receipt of his order.

The Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) The Central Board of Direct Taxes’ Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 could not be read as mandating a pre-deposit of 20 per cent. of the outstanding demand, without reference to the prima facie merits of a challenge that may be raised by an assessee in respect of an assessment order.

ii) The assessee had approached the Principal Commissioner in terms of the provisions made in the Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016. The view taken by the second respondent, that applications for stay could neither be countenanced nor entertained till the assessee deposited 20 per cent. of the pending demand was untenable and erroneous. The Principal Commissioner had proceeded to cause even greater prejudice to the assessee by requiring him to deposit 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand.

iii) According to para 4(C) of the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated February 29, 2016 stated to the effect that where stay of demand was granted by the Assessing Officer on payment of 15 per cent. of the disputed demand and the assessee was still aggrieved, he could approach the jurisdictional administrative Principal Commissioner or the Commissioner for a review of the decision of the Assessing Officer. The Principal Commissioner could not be recognised to stand empowered to subject the assessee to more onerous conditions. Rather than examining the challenge raised by the assessee to the assessment orders and evaluating the prima facie merits of the challenge had in one sense placed him under a harsher burden of depositing 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand as opposed to the direction of 20 per cent. deposit by the second respondent as a pre-condition for the consideration of application for stay under section 220(6) .

iv) Both the authorities had failed to consider the aspect of prima facie merits, likelihood of success and undue hardship. Therefore, their orders were unsustainable and hence quashed and set aside. The matter was remitted to the Assessing Officer to examine the applications for stay afresh considering the legal position.”

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside: A.Y. 2009-10

3. Sesa Sterlite Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2025] 472 ITR 591 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 4th September, 2024

Ss.10B, 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside:

The assessee was in the business of manufacturing and production of iron ore and had three units situated at Amona, Chitradurga and at Codli. These units are export-oriented undertakings and for the assessment year 2009-10, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10B. A survey u/s. 133A was carried out at the assessee’s premises wherein the authorities sought to ascertain the relevant facts in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated July 16, 2014 u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147. The Assessees objections were rejected.

The Assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice and the order rejecting the objection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 10B(2) provided that section 10B applied to any undertaking which fulfilled all the conditions therein. The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 10B in respect of the three export-oriented units for the A. Y. 2009-10 and a survey u/a. 133A had been carried out at its premises in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The assessment order u/s. 143(3) was passed by the Assessing Officer whereunder the claim for deduction u/s. 10B was disallowed in its entirety for the reasons given by the Assessing Officer. He had held that the assessee’s units were not engaged in the business of manufacture and production of any article or thing, that the assessee had not produced satisfactory evidence with regard to the date of commencement of production, that the approval granted by the Development Commissioner for one unit was not ratified by the Board and that the profits of the units was determined without taking into consideration the cost of the wastage from other units which was utilised in the alleged production that was carried out in the unit under reference, and the units were not new units and the setting up of the units in the old mines which were operated by the assessee could not be regarded as new units and that the assessee had not maintained separate books of account for the export oriented units. The Commissioner (Appeals) had upheld the denial of the claim of deduction under section 10B by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal had dealt with all the reasons given by the Assessing Officer and had upheld the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Therefore, entitlement to deduction u/s. 10B had been the subject matter of appeal before the appellate authorities. During the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, a fresh survey was conducted u/s. 133A and on the basis of the materials which were found during the survey in 2014, reassessment u/s. 147 was sought to be justified for the purpose of denying the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Thus, the reasons of the Assessing Officer in support of his finding could be several but what was relevant was the subject matter of the tax appeal. The third proviso to section 147, which provided that the Assessing Officer could assess or reassess such income, other than the income involving matters which were the subject matters of any appeal, reference or revision, which was chargeable to tax and had escaped assessment, would come into effect.

ii) When the fresh survey u/s. 133A was conducted in the year 2014 during the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, the new materials found by the Assessing Officer were sought to be placed before the Tribunal and this court and the issue under consideration was whether the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B. Assuming that the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 was allowed to continue on the basis of the new materials a situation could arise to be held that the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B, whereas in the reassessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer on the basis of the new materials could conclude that the assessee was not entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B.

iii) Reassessment proceedings were obviously to get over such an anomalous situation that the third proviso to section 147 was meant to cover. If the reassessment proceedings were allowed to continue, it would virtually amount to having an effect of sitting in appeal over the orders passed by this court and the Tribunal which could not be countenanced. Though it was the allegation that fresh evidence was unearthed during the course of fresh survey in March 2014, which indicated that the units considered as new units were not new units but an amalgamation of the existing units. The exercise really was to rely on these materials in support of the findings earlier recorded by the Assessing Officer which was already subject matter of challenge before the competent forum. Assumption of jurisdiction to reopen the assessment was without jurisdiction to once again disallow a claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The notice dated 16th July, 2014 issued u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 for the A. Y. 2009-10 and the order rejecting the assessee’s objections were quashed and set aside.”

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside: A.Y. 2024-25

2. Chamber of Tax Consultants & Ors vs. DGIT (Systems)

[2025] 473 ITR 85 (Bom.)

A. Y. . 2024-25

Date of order: 24th January, 2025

Ss. 87A, 115BAC, 139, 139(5) and 139D of  ITA 1961

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside:

The Department releases utility for filing income tax returns online every year. The Department published a change in utility with effect from 05-07-2024. The said change unilaterally disabled the assessees from claiming rebate u/s. 87A. As a result, taxpayers, despite being statutorily eligible, were effectively deprived of their entitlements solely due to technical modifications introduced by the revenue.

The Chamber of Tax Consultants filed a petition seeking direction to modify the system and put in place by the Department for filing income tax returns for AY 2024-25 so as to allow the assessees at large to take benefit of rebate available u/s. 87A. It was contended that this unilateral modification is arbitrary, lacks justification, and deprives eligible taxpayers of statutory benefits. The Respondents’ actions violate the principles of fairness and transparency expected from public authorities and seek judicial intervention to ensure compliance with statutory provisions.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Department could not restrain or prohibit an assessee from claiming section 87A rebate by modifying their utility by which an assessee was forbidden at the threshold itself from making such a claim in the return of income. The provisions of the Act were not so clear as to arrive at a definite conclusion that a rebate under section 87A could not be granted from the tax computed under the other provisions of Chapter XII. Certainly, such a claim whether eligible or not could be examined in the proceedings under section 143(1) or section 143(3). Merely because few selected cases were picked up for scrutiny would not mean and would not authorise any authority under the Act to prevent an assessee from making the claim on which more than one view was possible. Merely because many returns of income were required to be processed and only a few of them were selected for scrutiny assessment under section 143(3) could not be a ground to tweak the utility to prevent at the very threshold, an opportunity to raise a claim on a debatable issue based upon the interpretation of the provisions in sections 87A and 115BAC. Considering the mandates of articles 265 and 300A, ends, howsoever laudable, cannot justify means.

ii) Assuming that the legal provisions were ambiguous, the Department cannot resolve such ambiguity by adopting an interpretation favouring itself through the device of simply tweaking the utility and preventing the assessee from even raising a claim. Therefore, the main question is not whether the interpretation proposed by the learned counsel for the petitioners or that proposed by the learned Additional Solicitor General is correct, but the main question is whether the Department can insist that its interpretation prevails or triumphs because it has the capacity to and has exercised this capacity to tweak the utility and prevent an assessee to even raise a debatable claim. The provisions of the Income-tax Act do not permit the Department to do this without transgressing the constitutional boundaries

iii) The issue raised on the claim u/s. 87A was, at best, highly debatable and contentious. Therefore, the Department would not be justified in assuming that its interpretation was open and shut, and based upon such a conclusion, shut out bona fide claims for rebate under section 87A and could not be done by exercising administrative powers instead of quasi-judicial powers. Disputed claims, except to the limited extent explicitly permitted by the law, could not ordinarily be disposed of by the executive acting in its executive capacity. This is more so when the executive is itself a party to the lis. One of the foundations of our Constitution is the rule of law. This posits that all three organs of governance, the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary function under and in accordance with the law as enshrined in our Constitution.

iv) The Department did not show any provision under the Act which expressly debarred an assessee to raise or make the claim u/s. 87A qua the tax computed at the rates specified in the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC. There was no rebuttal to the petitioner’s contention that a provision like section 112A(6) had been expressly enacted wherever the Legislature intended to deny such a benefit. Therefore, in so far as the prayers of the petitioners were concerned that the utility should permit an assessee to at least make a claim under section 87A, it could not be rejected at the threshold.

v) Whether rebate u/s. 87A was to be allowed only on the tax calculated in accordance with the provisions of section 115BAC or also on taxes calculated under other provisions of Chapter XII would require interpretation of the interplay of section 87A and section 115BAC To what extent the overriding provisions contained in section 115BAC(1A) would result in allowability or denial of rebate under section 87A would have to be examined by interpretative process. The impact of the phrase “subject to the provisions of this Chapter” would also have to be examined along with other provisions for adjudicating the claim under section 87A. What was the purport of the proviso to section 87A on the claim proposed to be made would have to be interpreted in conjunction with the provisions of section 115BAC(1A) and other connected sections. How the phrase “total income” should be construed for section 87A and section 115BAC along with the definition sections, charging sections and scope of total income and the scheme of the Act, would have to be examined. Whether the provisions of section 115BAC restricted itself only to tax rates or computation of total income would also have to be examined. If such exercise was required to be undertaken before coming to a definite conclusion as to whether the rebate under section 87A was to be granted or denied on the tax computed under the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC, had to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process. Therefore, the Department was not justified in modifying the utility from 5th July, 2024, by which an assessee was debarred at the threshold from making the claim, which claim was contentious or debatable.

vi) A combined reading of section 87 and section 87A would mean an assessee has to make a claim, the entitlement of which is to be examined by processing the return under section 143(1) or section 143(3) and the same should be allowed as a deduction. Section 87 which provides for rebate under section 87A uses the phrase “there shall be allowed from the amount of income tax . . .”. The proviso to section 87A uses the phrase “. assessee shall be entitled to a deduction . . .”. If a claim was not made, the Department could contend that the claim could not be allowed.

vii) In the absence of any concrete case, the petitioner’s prayer to direct the Department to make the utilities for filing the return of income online flexible so as to allow an assessee to self compute the income and there should not be any restriction on making of any claim whatsoever and to not release any utilities or make any changes in the utilities for filing of the return of income under section 139 which would not allow any assessee to raise any claim, could not be granted unless there was a demand for justice which had been rejected or a failure on the part of the Department to exercise its duty under the Act. The court should grant no relief in such broad and general terms because the ramifications would be unclear.

viii) The Department was directed to modify the utilities for filing of the return of income u/s. 139 of the Act immediately, thereby allowing the assessees to make a claim of rebate under section 87A of the Act read with the proviso to section 87A , in their return of income for the assessment year 2024-25 and subsequent years including revised returns to be filed u/s. 139(5).”

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee: A.Y. 2015-16

1. Principle CIT vs. Hespera Reality Pvt. Ltd

[2025] 472 ITR 630 (Del.)

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 24th December

Ss.10(38) and 115JB of ITA 1961

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee:

During the F.Y. 2014-15 relevant to the A.Y. 2015-16, five companies which held shares of the entity IBHFL merged with the assessee and three of these companies sold their shares. Since the said amalgamating companies were merged with the assessee with effect from August 1, 2014, the income earned from the transaction of sale of IBHFL shares were assessed in the hands of the assessee. The Assessing Officer was of the view that the amount of long-term capital gains was required to be added to the book profits u/s. 115JB and that the amount was not entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38).

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the entire amount of long-term capital gains was not liable to be included as income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38) and accordingly, deleted the disallowance but upheld the Assessing Officer’s decision regarding the computation of book profits for the purpose of determination of minimum alternate tax u/s. 115JB. On the question, whether the long-term capital gains that arose from the sale of investments were exempted u/s. 10(38), the Tribunal concurred with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and rejected the appeal of the Department.

Delhi High Court dismissed the further appeal by the Department and held as under:

“i) The proviso to section 10(38) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was introduced by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 ([2006] 282 ITR (St.) 14). The inclusion of the proviso was corresponding to the amendments to Explanation 1 of section 115JB. By virtue of the Finance Act, 2006, the Explanation to section 115JB was amended and expenditure incurred in respect of the income exempt u/s. 10, with the exceptions of section 10(38) was excluded for the purposes of calculation of book profits and minimum alternate tax under section 115JB. In other words, the expenditure incurred for earning such income as was exempt from taxation by virtue of section 10(38) was required to be accounted for as expenditure for determining the book profits. Correspondingly, income u/s. 10(38) was also included as a part of the book profits but other incomes covered u/s. 10 were excluded.

ii) The proviso to section 10(38) was added by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 to abundantly clarify that the income from capital gains on certain assets, which are excluded from the income u/s. 10(38) would be included in computing book profits u/s. 115JB. The proviso to section 10(38) cannot be read in the reverse to mean that if the gains are not included as book profits u/s. 115JB they are liable to be included as income for the purposes of assessment to tax under the normal provisions, notwithstanding that the gains are required to be excluded from income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38).

iii) There was no fault with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal, in rejecting the Department’s contention and holding that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38) of the long-term capital gains on account of sale of shares by the amalgamating companies, which was denied by the Assessing Officer.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

89. Principal CIT vs. Vikram Dhirani

[2025] 472 ITR 342 (Del)

A. Y. 2007-08

Date of order: 20th August, 2024

Ss.132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

In an appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether the Tribunal erred in deleting the addition made to the income of the assessee in the assessment made pursuant to a search u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2007-08, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) Since the assessment initiated in respect of the A. Y. 2007-08 was one which had already stood concluded, the Tribunal had held that since the pen-drive and the data appearing thereon having not been unearthed in the course of the search u/s. 132 of the Act, it would not constitute incriminating material. It had consequently followed the view consistently taken by this court.

ii) The assessment was confined to section 153A and consequently the significance of the incriminating material found in the course of the search alone would be the basis for any additions to the income. Since the pen-drive was an article which was not recovered in the course of the search but constituted material which had been obtained by the Department through the exchange of information route, there was no ground to interfere with the view expressed by the Tribunal.”

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

88. HansaMetallics Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT

[2025] 472 ITR 737 (P&H)

A. Y. 2012-13

Date of order: 22nd January, 2024

S. 276C of ITA 1961

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2012-13 on 29th December, 2012 declaring total income at ₹8,20,53,544. As per the return of income, the self-assessment tax was pending. The self-assessment tax was paid belatedly on 10th July, 2013 along with interest.

The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated 11th February, 2014 requiring the Assessee and its directors to show cause as to why the prosecution proceedings u/s. 276C(2) should not be initiated. On the basis of legal opinion sought from the standing counsel of the Income-tax Department, a complaint was filed u/s. 276C read with section 278B of the Act.

Thereafter, the Criminal Court came to the conclusion that a case was made out and charges were framed.

The Assesseecompany and its directors filed a petition for quashing the complaint and all the consequential proceedings arising therefrom. The Assessee’s contention was that there was no evasion of tax at all. Though there was a delay in payment of tax, but the said tax was admitted / acknowledged in the return of income. On the other hand, the Department contended that the Assessee was well within his financial limits to pay the tax at the time of filing return of income, yet it did not choose to pay the tax and thereby caused loss to the revenue.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Prosecution u/s. 276C(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with the other provisions of the Act can only be launched if there was a wilful evasion or attempt at evasion of either tax, penalty or interest. Delay in payment of Income-tax would not amount to evasion of tax.

ii) It was not in dispute that the Income-tax was self assessed and payment thereof was also made, though belatedly. The tax along with interest was paid on July 10, 2013. The show-cause notice for delayed payment was sent only on February 11, 2014 and February 24, 2014 pursuant to which the complaint was instituted. Therefore, by no stretch of imagination could it be held that there was any evasion of tax on the part of the assessees, though there was a delay in the payment of the tax for which interest was paid. The prosection was not valid.”

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

87. Principal CIT vs. Jupiter Capital Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 561 (Kar)

A. Y. 2014-15

Date of order: 20th February, 2023

S. 2(47) of ITA 1961

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

In an appeal by the Revenue,on the question whether the Tribunal was right in setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares when no such extinguishment of rights was made out by the assessee as required under section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and there was no reduction in face value of shares, dismissing the appeal, the Karnataka High Court held as under:

“i) The undisputed facts were that pursuant to the order passed by the High Court of Bombay, number of shares had been reduced to 9,988. The face value of the shares had remained same at ₹10 even after the reduction. The Assessing Officer’s view that the voting power had not changed as the percentage of the assessee’s share of 99.88 per cent. had remained unchanged was untenable because if the shares were transferred at face value, the redeemable value would be ₹99,880 whereas the value of 14,95,44,130 number of shares would have been ₹1,49,54,41,300.

ii) The Tribunal had rightly followed the authority in Karthikeya vs. Sarabhai v. CIT [1997] 228 ITR 163 (SC); (1997) 7 SCC 524; 1997 SCC OnLine SC 152, with regard to meaning of transfer by holding that there was no transfer within the meaning of the expression “transfer” as contained in section 2(47). There was no error in the order of the Tribunal setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares.”

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

86. Principal CIT vs. International Coal Ventures Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 307 (Del)

A. Ys. 2012-13

Date of order: 20th December, 2024

S.4 of ITA 1961

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

The assessee was a joint-venture company formed by five public sector undertakings, SAIL, CIL, RINL, NMDC and NTPC, for the purpose of ensuring adequate and dependable coal supply for its promoter companies. During the financial year relating to the A. Y. 2012-13, the assessee pursued a proposal to acquire and develop a coal mine overseas and received equity contributions from some of these undertakings. The amounts received from RINL were kept in a fixed deposit with a bank. Subsequently since the proposal for acquisition of the coal mine which was being pursued was abandoned, the assessee refunded the amount received from RINL. Since the assessee had earned interest on the amount received from RINL, it paid interest to RINL which confirmed that the amount received by it was accounted for as income in its hand and tax was paid.

In the appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether interest on funds that were called for and earmarked for a specific purpose of acquiring a coal mine and deposited in the short-term fixed deposit could be construed as incidental to setting up the business of acquisition of a coal mine, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The accounting treatment of capitalising expenses during the preoperative stage of setting up a business, rests on the rationale that the cost incurred for setting up the profit-making apparatus is required to be accounted for as the value of that asset. Such expenditure is incurred for bringing the undertaking into existence. Thus, it would not be apposite to treat such preoperative expenses as revenue expenses since it cannot be matched with the revenue receipts. The amount incurred for construction or acquisition of the asset would necessarily have to be accounted as the cost of that capital asset. This principle applies only in cases where substantial time is required to construct the asset or bring the asset to use. The financial costs for such assets are thus
considered as a part of the intrinsic value of the asset. There is a distinction between the price of an asset and its cost. On the same principles, the amounts received which are directly linked to the
acquisition or construction of the asset, are required to be reduced from the capital cost of the said asset. In one sense, such receipts mitigate the cost of the capital asset and it is essential to reflect the correct cost of the asset.

ii) The Accounting Standard 16 applies to a “qualifying asset”, which is defined as an asset that takes substantial period to get ready for its intended use or sale and also explains that the substantial period of time as contemplated under the standard, primarily depends upon the circumstances of each case. Ordinarily, the same should be considered as twelve months unless a shorter or longer period is justified in the facts and circumstances of the case. It also explains that for estimating this period, “the time which an asset takes technologically or commercially, to get ready for its intended use or sale”, is required to be considered.

iii) Accounting treatment of various items are guided by an overarching principle that final accounts should reflect the true and fair view of the reported entity. In order for a capital value of an asset (which takes a considerable time to bring it to intended use) to be fairly disclosed on historical cost basis, it would be essential to subsume within the cost of the said asset all elements of expenditure, which directly contribute to the cost of that asset. It is for this reason that general administrative cost of an entity which cannot be attributed to a particular asset is not construed as the cost of that asset. But the expenditure that is directly linked to the construction or acquisition of a qualifying asset, is required to be treated as a part of its cost.

iv) If the interest was earned on the amounts which were temporarily kept in fixed deposits in the course of acquisition of the coal mine to set up the assessee’s business, the interest earned would require to be accounted for as the part of the capital value of the business or asset. A caveat was added that such accounting treatment was or would be applicable only if the nature of the asset was such that required time for construction or for putting it in use. Illustratively, the same would be applicable where the asset is to be constructed, developed or is of a nature that required considerable time to bring it to use. In case where a plant is being set up in a factory and the requisite funds for setting up the same are deployed for a period of time, the interest paid on the amount borrowed for the said purpose and interest earned on temporary deposits during the course of deployment are required to be accounted for as a part of the capital costs. This is not true for an off-the-shelf product. Illustratively, if a motor vehicle is purchased from borrowed capital, neither the interest paid nor the interest earned on the funds borrowed for payment of consideration of the same can be accounted for as a part of the cost of the said asset.

v) The assessee was set up to acquire resources to ensure supply of coal and at the material time it was in the process of negotiation for acquiring a coal mine, to set up its business, and thus called for capital from its shareholders for the purpose of payment of the acquisition costs. It was the part of the said funds that were kept in the short-term fixed deposit in the bank for pending payment of the construction. The attempt to acquire the coal mine was aborted and thus the amounts borrowed were repaid to RINL. It was not disputed that the funds in question were not surplus funds of the assessee, the same were called for and were earmarked for acquisition of a coal mine overseas which was to be the assessee’s undertaking as the assessee was formed for the purpose of acquiring and operating a coal mine overseas.

vi) The interest received on borrowed funds, which were temporarily held in interest-bearing deposit, was a part of the capital cost and was required to be capitalised as capital work-in-progress.”

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

85. World Vision India vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 564(Mad.)

A. Y. 2018-19

Date of order: 19th December, 2024

Ss. 37, 142(2A) and 144of ITA 1961:

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2018-19. The said return was selected for scrutiny assessment. The assessment was completed and order dated 14th September, 2021 was passed. In the said order, the Assessing Officer relied upon special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 as also the assessment orders passed for A. Ys. 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18. The report dated 2nd June, 2017 was prepared u/s. 142(2A) of the Act for AY 2014-15, pursuant to which the assessment orders for AYs 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were passed. The orders for AY 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were challenged in appeal before the CIT(A).

In the A. Y 2018-19, the Assessing Officer concluded that the Assessee had applied 67 per cent of the gross receipts for charitable purposes and for the balance the Assessee had failed to establish any documents to substantiate that the amount was utilised for charitable purposes and therefore the demand has been confirmed.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the assessment order mainly on the ground that the basis for coming to the conclusion that the Assessee has failed to utilize the amount for charitable purposes is based on the special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 which was generated for AY 2014-15. The Hon’ble Madras High Court allowed the petition and remanded the matter back to the AO for the re-computation of income and held as follows:

“i) Prima facie reliance on the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the earlier assessment years could not be a basis to conclude that the similar pattern would have been followed by the assessee during the subsequent assessment years and to do so would amount to assessment by sampling. The special audit report was for the A. Y. 2014-15. In terms of section 142(2A) the special audit report could relate only for a particular assessment year since the expression used is, “if at any stage of the proceedings before him”, the Assessing Officer, having regard to the nature and complexity of the accounts, volume of the accounts, doubts about the correctness of the accounts, multiplicity of transactions in the accounts or specialised nature of business activity of the assessee, and the interests of the Revenue, was of the opinion that it was necessary so to do, he may, with the previous approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, direct the assessee to get either or both of, (i) getting the accounts audited by an accountant, as defined in sub-section (2) of section 288 , nominated by the competent authority or (b) getting the inventory valued by a cost accountant nominated by the competent authority.

ii) The assessment order indicated that no allowance had been made for the expenses incurred by the assessee towards administrative and salary expenses of the assessee and had only been allowed to accumulate 15 per cent. of the gross receipt. It was the contention of the Department that if no other amount was to be allowed, the Department had to make best judgment assessment u/s. 144. Therefore, the assessment order was set-aside and the matter was remitted back to the Assessing Officer to pass a fresh order on the merits and in accordance with law independently without getting influenced by the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the A. Y. 2014-15. Since the re-computation of income required a proper consideration, the assessee was directed to give a proper reply with proper evidence explaining the expenses which it sought to exclude.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

84. Neha Bhawsingka vs. UOI

[2025] 472 ITR 335 (Cal)

A. Y. 2022-23

Date of order: 22nd November, 2024

Ss.142(1), 143(2), 144, 144B, 156, 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

The assessee was in trading business. For the A. Y. 2022-23, an intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sent to the assessee’s registered e-mail address, confirming that the return was processed without any discrepancies. Similar communications for the earlier A. Ys. 2019-20 to 2021-22 and the subsequent year 2023-24 were also sent to the same registered e-mail address. While accessing the Income-tax portal, the assessee’s tax consultant discovered that several notices, including u/ss. 143(2) and 142(1) and show-cause notices were issued against the assessee for the A. Y. 2022-23 and sent to an unregistered e-mail address. The ex parte assessment order was passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B making disallowances on account of purchases as non-genuine and unsecured loan as unexplained credit u/s. 68. Penalty notices u/ss. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were also issued.

The assessee filed a writ petition contending that the assessment order and demand notices were vitiated since they were not served at the assessee’s registered e-mail address as required u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address which was not associated with her. The Calcutta High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

i) The assessment order passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B, the consequent demand notice u/s. 156 and the penalty notices u/s. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were vitiated due to procedural lapses and non-compliance with statutory provisions. The notices u/s. 143(2) and 142(1) were not served to the assessee at her registered e-mail address as mandated u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address, thereby depriving the assessee of a fair opportunity to respond, violating the principles of natural justice.

ii) The assessee had a legitimate expectation, arising from consistent past practices, that all communications would be sent to her registered e-mail address. The failure to adhere to this established protocol and the absence of proper service of notices invalidated the subsequent assessment proceedings and the ex parte assessment order passed u/s. 144 and 144B. The Revenue’s reliance on the assessee’s permanent account number database or an alternate e-mail address could not substitute for statutory compliance. Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine the jurisdiction and legality of the entire assessment process. The assessment order could not be completed without issuance of a notice u/s. 143(2). Hence, the assessment proceedings and the assessment order without issuing the notice u/s. 143(2) were bad in law.

iii) Accordingly, the assessment order, demand notice and penalty notices were quashed and set aside. The authorities were directed to issue fresh notices, if deemed necessary, strictly adhering to the statutory provisions and ensuring proper service to the assessee.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

83. Religare Enterprises Ltd. vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 329 (Del)

A. Y. 2013-14

Date of order: 28th November, 2024

Ss. 143(3), 144B and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

The Assessee filed revised return of income for AY 2013-14 declaring total income at ₹2,70,87,75,810. This included income from dividend amounting to ₹4,14,800 which was exempt. The Assessee had not claimed any deduction in respect of expenses amounting to ₹1,83,55,525 u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and an addition of ₹1,93,79,583 was made u/s. 14A of the Act in addition to the amount of ₹1,83,55,525 already disallowed u/s. 14A of the Act. The AO also made disallowances in respect of fines and penalties.

The CIT(A) partly allowed wherein the CIT(A) deleted the additional disallowance made by the AO. In the appeal before the CIT(A), the Assessee had raised an additional ground and claimed allowance of ₹1,83,55,525 which it had not done under the revised return.

The Tribunal remanded the matter regarding disallowance u/s. 14A and disallowance of fines and penalties to the AO for consideration afresh with the direction that the disallowance u/s. 14A was required to be worked out in respect of only those investments which were yielding exempt income. Thereafter, the Assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application requesting that the AO be directed to restrict the disallowance to the extent of exempt income. The Miscellaneous Application was allowed and the Tribunal modified its order and directed that the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act be restricted to the exempt income.

Pursuant to the aforesaid directions, the Jurisdictional AO passed an order dated 4th February, 2023 to give effect to the directions issued by the Tribunal and restricted the disallowance u/s. 14A to the extent of dividend income. However, the AO did not give any specific findings in respect of fines and penalties. The Assessee also did not file any appeal against the said order.

Thereafter, the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NFAC) issued an intimation informing the Assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B of the Act. Against this, the Assessee filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal as the Jurisdictional AO had already passed an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. However, the NFAC passed an order, once again making the same disallowance u/s. 14A and disregarded the directions of the Tribunal. The NFAC also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order of the Jurisdictional AO.

The Assesseefiledwrit petition against the said order of NFAC. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) There is no provision under the Income-tax Act, 1961 for continuing assessment proceedings after an assessment order is passed. Concluded assessments cannot be opened except by recourse to specific provisions including section 147 of the Act.

ii) The issue of disallowance u/s. 14A had stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The Assessing Officer did not issue any specific findings regarding the fines and penalties amounting to Rs. 35,18,803 and the assessee had not filed any appeal against such decision. Notwithstanding that an order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had proceeded to pass another order. Although, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had passed an order giving effect to the order dated February 25, 2021 and the order dated February 25, 2021 as modified by the order dated April 1, 2022 by the Tribunal, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had issued an intimation dated February 15, 2023 informing the assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B . The assessee had filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal since the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had already passed an order dated February 4, 2023 giving effect to the orders passed by the Tribunal.

iii) The National Faceless Assessment Centre had passed an order dated March 29, 2023 once again reiterating the disallowance of ₹3,60,51,977 made u/s. 14A, which included an additional disallowance of ₹1,93,79,583 which was made by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order dated March 28, 2016. Although, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had found that the order dated April 1, 2022 passed by the Tribunal had confined the disallowance u/s. 14A to ₹4,14,800, such directions were disregarded and had also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer. The order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had set out that it was an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal wherein it was held to the effect that after appeal effect income of the assessee (since merged with REL) for the assessment year 2013-14 was recomputed at ₹2,69,43,53,890 under the normal provisions of the Act. Credit for tax deducted at source, advance tax and regular taxes paid were given after verification and interests u/s. 234A, 234B, 234C and 234D were being charged, as applicable.

iv) Therefore, there was no doubt that the proceedings pursuant to the directions issued by the Tribunal stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The initiation of further proceedings by the National Faceless Assessment Centre pursuant to the orders passed by the Tribunal was without jurisdiction. The assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) read with sections 254 and 144B was set aside.”

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

82. Sunshine Capital Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2025] 472 ITR 293 (Del.)

A. Y. 2008-09

Date of order: 16th April, 2024

Ss.153 and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

The case of the Assessee was selected for scrutiny and assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed after making various additions. CIT(A) partly allowed the Assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal, vide its order dated 08-10-2018 remanded the matter to the AO for the purpose of fresh assessment. The Tribunal also deleted the demand reflected on the Income Tax Portal.

Thereafter, the Assessee made several representations from July 2020 to August 2021 to the Department praying for rectification of the error with respect to the demand being reflected on the portal as well as the issue of refund. But there was no action by the Department. Since no reply was received by the Assessee upon representations, the Assessee filed an application in August 2021 in accordance with the Right to Information Act (RTI) to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. Pursuant to the RTI application, the AO passed an order in November 2021 wherein it expressed its inability to give appeal effect on the ground that it had not received the order passed by the Tribunal through proper channel. Against this order, the Assessee filed an appeal in December 2021 which came to be disposed vide order passed in January 2022 whereby it was decided that the information provided to the Assessee was adequate.

Thereafter, in February 2022, the Assessee filed an application to the registry of the Tribunal seeking information on service of order passed by the Tribunal. The Assessee was informed by the registry in March 2022 that the order passed by the Tribunal was duly sent to the CIT(Judicial) on 24th August, 2018 for further action. In March 2022, the Assessee also made subsequent representations to rectify the error with respect to the demand reflected on the portal, but to no avail.

The Assessee therefore filed writ petition challenging the inaction on the part of the Department and contended that despite the order passed by the Tribunal being communicated to the concerned authority of the Income tax Department within stipulated time, the Department failed to pass a fresh assessment order. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Section 153 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, stipulates that an order for fresh assessment pursuant to an order u/s. 254 or section 263 or section 264 of the Act may be made at any time before the expiry of a period of nine months. The provision further encapsulates that the period has to be calculated from the end of the financial year in which the order u/s. 254 of the Act is received by the authorities mentioned in the section. Regarding the word “received” the language couched in section 260A of the Act is similar to that of section 153(3). The contextual interpretation of the phrase “received” postulates the time when the parties are notified about the pronouncement and are represented at that instant in the open court. The legislative intent behind the enactment of section 254(3) of the Act does not prescribe shifting of the onus of proving the receipt of the order under the provision on the assessee, the expression “is received” used in section 153(3) of the Act cannot mean to extend the limitation till perpetuity. The expression “received” employed in section 153(3) of the Act would not strictly mean that a certified copy of the order of the Tribunal, in the given facts and circumstances, ought to have been necessarily supplied to the concerned authority through an appropriate mechanism devised by the respondents. Further, section 254(3) of the Act casts a duty upon the Tribunal to send the copy of the orders passed under section 254 of the Act to the assessee as well as to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner. A conspectus of section 254 read with section 153(3) of the Act would reveal that the provisions cannot be made applicable to the detriment of the assessee.

ii) The material on record showed that the Tribunal sent the order of the remand to the Department on October 24, 2018, but the Department denied having received it. It was sufficient to take note of the Tribunal’s stand of sending a copy of the order to the Department. Moreover, the assessee, as early as on July 30, 2020 itself, made the first communication to the Department to give effect to the order in appeal. The record would show that the subsequent representation sent by the assessee on July 9, 2021 to the Department contained all the requisite information of the orders passed by the concerned authorities in the case of the assessee. No concrete steps had been taken by the Department. Except harping upon the word “received”, the Department had not taken any measure to give effect to the order in appeal. Taking into consideration the Tribunal’s response that the concerned order was sent on October 24, 2018, the Department ought to have passed the order to give effect to the order in appeal within twelve months from then. However, that had not been done by the Department till date.

iii) Since the Department had failed to comply with the order of the Tribunal in passing a fresh assessment order within the stipulated time, the writ petition was to be allowed with the directions to the Department to ensure that the demands of quantum amounting to ₹34.70 crores and penalty amounting to ₹33.98 crores being reflected in the Income-tax Business Application portal were removed within two weeks, that the amount of ₹25,44,671 lying with the Department were refunded to the assessee with applicable interest as per law, that the properties of the assessee were released within two weeks of the passing of this judgment, and that the three bank accounts were defreezed by the Department within two weeks.”