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Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

66. Principal CIT vs. Goldsukh Developers (P) Ltd.: (2025) 483 ITR 715 Bom): 2023 SCC OnLine Bom 3282: (2024) 2 Mah LJ 32

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 10/07/2023

S. 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement Commission — Settlement of cases — Rectification of order of settlement u/s. 245D(6B) — Period of limitation — Application beyond six months of order — Barred by limitation —Petition of the Revenue was dismissed.

The Respondent assessee had filed an application before the Settlement Commission for settlement, and the application of assessee came to be disposed of by an order dated September 20, 2016 wherein the assessee’s application was allowed u/s. 245D(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The said order was challenged by the Revenue by way of writ petition on February 10, 2017. The challenge in the petition was on the ground that there was failure on the part of assessee to make full and true disclosure of income. The assessee raised a preliminary objection on the ground that the said order was passed by consent of both the Revenue (petitioner) and the assessee (respondent No. 1.).

It was the petitioner’s case in the said writ petition that the settlement recorded by the Commission on the consent of the parties was to be ignored because it did not reflect the correct position. It was the case of the Revenue that it had consistently opposed the application of respondent No. 1 for settlement in view of the alleged failure to make full and true disclosure of income.

The High Court dismissed the petition on June 21, 2018, holding that it was not open to the Revenue to challenge the correctness of the fact recorded in the said order by the Commission, particularly when it was not even remotely the case of the Revenue that the consent was given/made on a wrong appreciation of law. The court, of course, held that the remedy for the Revenue would be to move the Commission to correct what, according to the Revenue was an incorrect recording of consent in the impugned order.

Following this, the Revenue (petitioner) filed an application u/s. 245D(6B) on November 22, 2018 before the Settlement Commission for rectification. By the impugned order dated January 15, 2019, the Commission dismissed the application of the petitioner. The Commission came to the conclusion that even if it excluded the time spent pursuing the writ petition from February 10, 2017 to June 21, 2018,the rectification application had still been filed beyond the six months period stipulated in section 245D(6B) and was thus barred by limitation.

The Revenue filed another writ petition challenging this order. The Bombay High Court dismissed the petition and held as under:

“i) We find no error in the finding of the Commission.

ii) Though it was not argued before us and we would keep it open to decide in a proper case, we have our own reservations as to whether the grievance raised by the petitioner before the Commission and in the said writ petition that the consent as recorded was not given would qualify to be a “mistake apparent from the record” which is the only thing the Commission may rectify.”

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

65. Ramesh Madhukar Deole vs. Principal CIT: (2025) 483 ITR 802 (Bom): 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 5145

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 18/11/2024

Ss. 54F, 142(1) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision of order u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner — Assessee filed return in wrong Form and later corrected it, claiming exemption u/s. 54F — Assessee’s CA failed to respond to notice u/s. 142(1) resulting in passing of assessment order ex parte making additions — Revision application u/s. 264 filed before Principal CIT with all materials — Principal CIT accepted assessee’s case on merits in order but rejected revision application as not maintainable — Rejection based solely on earlier failure to respond to notice during assessment proceeding proceedings — Power of Commissioner u/s. 264 wide to remedy bona fide mistakes — Earlier non-compliance with notice cannot render subsequent revision application not maintainable — Order rejecting revision application quashed and matter remanded to Principal CIT.

For the A. Y. 2018-2019, the assessee filed the return of income in wrong Form and subsequently filed the corrected return of income under ITR-3, wherein he claimed deductions and exemptions from capital gains u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s Chartered Accountant failed to respond to the notice u/s. 142(1) of the Act. Consequently, the Assessing Officer passed an ex parte assessment order u/s. 143(3) making additions.

Therefore, the assessee filed revision application u/s. 264 of the Act, praying for deletion of additions. The petitioner submitted all materials in that support of the claim. The Principal Commissioner accepted the assessee’s case on merits but rejected the revision application as not maintainable solely on the ground that the assessee had failed to produce certain materials in response to the notice u/s. 142(1) during the assessment proceedings.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order of rejection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The Principal Commissioner of Income-tax should not have rejected the petitioner’s revision application as not maintainable. We are of the clear opinion that the cause in the present case warranted that the revision be decided on merits and more particularly considering the case of the petitioner, which although was noticed in paragraph 6 of the impugned order, was not taken to its logical conclusion, merely on an erroneous presumption in law that the revision is not maintainable for a reason that the petitioner had failed to produce certain materials in response to notice u/s.142(1) of the Act. In our opinion, there is a manifest error on the part of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax in coming to such conclusion to hold the revision not maintainable in the facts of the present case.

ii) The impugned order dated March 24, 2023 is quashed and set aside. The petitioner’s revision application are remanded to the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax to be decided in accordance with law and an appropriate order be passed thereon within a period of three months from today.”

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

64. Principal CIT vs. Britannia Industries Ltd.

(2025) 346 CTR 242 (Cal.)

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 09/07/2025

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Erroneous and prejudicial order — Lack of proper enquiry — Initiation of 263 at the instance of the AO cannot be done — Finding of the Tribunal well founded — Reliance upon notes submitted by the assessee before the AO — Cannot be stated that the AO did not consider all the factors and accepted the plea of the assessee and completed assessment — CIT is required to consider the explanation offered and take a decision — Failure to render any finding by CIT — Revision u/s. 263 not sustainable.

The scrutiny assessment for A.Y. 2018-19 was completed u/s. 143 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by an order dated 22/03/2021. Subsequently, notice u/s. 263 of the Act was issued, requiring the assessee to show cause why the assessment order should not be treated as erroneous or prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The assessment order was sought to be revised on, inter alia, applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the acquisition of leasehold land and building and the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liabilities. Though the assessee filed a response objecting to the revision of the assessment order, the Principal Commissioner passed an order u/s. 263 setting-aside the assessment order and directing the Assessing Officer to pass the order afresh after considering the issues on which revision was sought to be made.

Against the said order of revision, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal, which was allowed.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) A reading of s. 263 of the Act would clearly show that unless and until the twin conditions are satisfied that the assessment order should be erroneous and it should be prejudicial to the interest of Revenue, the power under s. 263 of the Act cannot be invoked. Apart from that, the statute mandates that the Principal CIT should inquire and be satisfied that the case warrants exercise of its jurisdiction under s. 263 of the Act and such satisfaction should be manifest in the show-cause notice which is issued under the said provision.

ii) The Tribunal considered the factual position and found that out of the five issues which were raised in the show-cause notice issued u/s. 263 of the Act, except for three issues the explanation offered by the assessee in respect of the other issues were accepted by the Principal CIT. Furthermore, on facts, it is clear that the Principal CIT invoked its jurisdiction u/s. 263 of the Act at the instance of the Assessing Officer, which was incorrect. Therefore, the finding of the learned Tribunal that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power u/s. 263 of the Act solely based upon the reference made by the Assessing Officer is well founded.

iii) As regards the merits of the case, i.e. regarding the applicability of section 56(2)(x) to the transaction of purchase of land by the assessee from Bombay Dyeing & Manufacturing Company Ltd., it is undisputed that all the facts were placed before the AO and they were also disclosed in the notes of the tax audit report and the notes to the computation of income filed along with the return of income and those were scrutinised by the Assessing Officer. In fact, the learned Tribunal has extracted the relevant portion of the notes filed by the assessee before the Assessing Officer. Therefore, it cannot be stated that the Assessing Officer did not take into account all the factors and had accepted the plea of the assessee and completed the assessment. Therefore, the Principal CIT to invoke its power under s. 263 of the Act has to apply its mind to the audit report and record its satisfaction that the twin conditions required to be complied with under s. 263 of the Act have not been satisfied. Therefore, the Tribunal was fully justified in holding that the Principal CIT could not have invoked its power under s. 263 of the Act. Though in the show-cause notice it is alleged that these aspects were not taken into consideration by the Assessing Officer, curiously enough in the order passed u/s. 263 of the Act dated 29/03/2023 the Principal CIT states that the Assessing Officer has not considered these aspects during the course of assessment; he has not made any inquiry on the issue nor did he issue any questionnaire in this regard and also held that the assessee in its reply dated 13/03/2023 did not contradict these facts. This finding rendered by the Principal CIT in its order is factually incorrect and the outcome of total non-application of mind. Therefore, the finding rendered by the learned Tribunal is fully justified.

iv) As regards the disallowance of claim u/s. 43B in relation to reversal or write back of provision for liability, the Principal CIT, while passing the order u/s. 263 of the Act miserably failed to render any finding despite the fact that the assessee placed reliance on the decision in the case of Principal CIT vs. Eveready Industries India Ltd. and, accordingly, set aside the order passed by the Assessing Officer with a direction to the Assessing Officer to examine whether the decision in the case of Eveready Industries India Ltd. would be applicable to the case of the assessee or not after giving due opportunity of being heard to the assessee. The manner in which the Principal CIT has dealt with this issue is wholly untenable and, therefore, the learned Tribunal was justified in setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT on that score. Tribunal was right in allowing the assessee’s appeal and setting aside the order passed by the Principal CIT.”

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

63. Nuziveedu Seeds Ltd. vs. CCIT

TS-150-HC-2026(Tel.)

A.Ys.: 2012-13 and 2013-14: Date of order 30/01/2026

Rule 29 of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Rules, 1963

Power of Tribunal — Admission of additional evidence — Rule 29 of ITAT Rules, 1963 — Admission only at the instance of the Tribunal — Parties to the appeal are not entitled as a matter of right to produce additional evidence — Order of the Tribunal allowing the admission of additional evidence held to be in gross violation of the procedure contemplated under Rule 29 — Order of the Tribunal liable to be set-aside.

The assessee, a public limited company, engaged in the research, production and sale of hybrid seeds and crops. In the scrutiny assessment for A. Y. 2012-13 and 2013-14, addition and disallowance was made u/s. 10(1) and section 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee was partly allowed, wherein the addition made u/s. 10(1) of the Act was deleted and the disallowance made u/s. 14A of the Act was confirmed. Against the order of the CIT(A), cross appeals were filed by the assessee and the department. The Tribunal remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer with a direction to examine the nature of business of the assessee and to determine whether the nature of the business was agricultural or not, and also to recompute the disallowance depending upon the determination of the nature of the business of the assessee.

During the pendency of the appeal before the Tribunal, a search was conducted at the business premises of the assessee, wherein certain incriminating material was found. Thereafter, notice u/s. 153A of the Act was issued. Pending the appeal before the Tribunal, the Department filed an application before the Tribunal for admission of additional evidence to bring on record before the Tribunal, the alleged incriminating material / documents found during the course of search. Despite the assessee’s opposition to the admission of the incriminating material as additional evidence, the Tribunal allowed the application. On the basis of the said documents, the Tribunal concluded that the addition u/s. 10(1) was not sustainable and remanded the matter to the AO as regards the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act.

On appeal before the High Court, the assessee challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in invoking Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, 1963 and in accepting the additional evidence since Rule 29 expressly prohibits the department from bringing on record such additional evidence. Further, the assessee also challenged the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal was not justified in taking into account the evidence of proceedings u/s. 153A of the Act as the proceedings u/s. 153A are separate and the same could not be relied upon in an appeal before the Tribunal.

The Telangana High Court decided the appeal, in favour of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) A perusal of Rule 29 of the Rules, makes it clear that the very foremost words of the Rule explicitly provide that the parties to an appeal are not entitled, as a matter of right, to produce additional evidence, either oral or documentary, before the Tribunal. The Rule further makes it clear that it is the Tribunal alone, which is competent to direct either party to produce any witness to be examined or affidavit to be filed or may allow such evidence to be adduced.

ii) Rule 29 of the ITAT Rules, abundantly makes it clear that neither of the parties to the appeal can independently file additional evidence, either oral or documentary and it is only the Tribunal on its own can direct either of the parties to produce any documents or witness or any affidavit to be filed for determination of the dispute and if the income tax authorities decide the case without giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee either on the points specified or not specified, the Tribunal may, for reasons to be recorded, permit the production of such evidence by the assessee. The words envisaged in Rule 29, therefore leaves no scope for either the Revenue or the assessee to file applications to adduce evidence as a matter of right. Only the learned ITAT alone is empowered to direct either of the parties to produce additional evidence and only in the cases where there is total denial of giving sufficient opportunity to the assessee, the assessee has got a right to file such application seeking permission to adduce additional evidence.

iii) The learned ITAT exceeded in its jurisdiction and acted in gross violation of Rule 29 by allowing the application filed by the Revenue in a routine manner and remanding the matter to the Assessing Authority for fresh determination.

iv) The judgements relied upon by the department were distinguishable on the ground that in those cases, the discretion of the Tribunal was exercised to admit additional evidence for substantial causes or where the evidence could not be produced before the lower authorities due to genuine difficulties, such as non-retrievability of emails or documents. The Tribunal, in those cases, acted after determining that the evidence was necessary for proper adjudication. Further, many of those judgments arose under different statutory provisions, such as Order XLI Rule 27 and or other laws, and did not specifically consider Rule 29 of the Rules as that fall for consideration in the instant case. None of the judgments expressly held that either party could file an application for additional evidence as a matter of right under Rule 29

v) In the instant case, the application filed by the Revenue as a matter of right, was allowed by the learned ITAT, without proper appreciation of Rule 29, which is impermissible in law. We are of the considered view, that the impugned orders of the learned ITAT are in gross violation of procedures contemplated under Rule 29 of the Rules and the learned ITAT exceeded its jurisdiction and thus, the impugned order are liable to be set aside.”

Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Adjustment to the return of income — First proviso — Mandatory in nature — No adjustment to be made unless an opportunity is given to the assessee — No prior opportunity to the assessee before making adjustment — Intimation u/s. 143(1) is liable to be quashed and set-aside.

62. Bax India Ventures Pvt. Ltd. vs. CPC

2026 (2) TMI 319 Bom.

Date of order: 02/02/2026

Ss. 143(1) of ITA 1961

Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Adjustment to the return of income — First proviso — Mandatory in nature — No adjustment to be made unless an opportunity is given to the assessee — No prior opportunity to the assessee before making adjustment — Intimation u/s. 143(1) is liable to be quashed and set-aside.

The Assessee company filed its return of income u/s. 139(8A) and claimed the benefit of lower rate of tax as per section 115BAA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Along with the return filed u/s. 139(8A), the assessee also filed Form 10-IC which was mandatory as per section 115BAA of the Act. However, the Assessee’s claim was denied, and an adjustment was made in the Intimation order u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act.

The Assessee challenged the said Intimation order by way of writ petition before the High Court on the ground that the assessee was not given prior intimation about the proposed adjustment and therefore the Intimation order passed u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act was not sustainable and ought to be set-aside.

The contention of the Department was that the present case was that of denying the beneficial rate of tax to the assessee and not that of adjustment to the total income or loss and therefore there was no need to provide an opportunity to the assessee. Further, since the assessee had failed to file the return of income along with Form 10-IC by the due date mentioned u/s. 139(1), the tax was correctly levied at the normal rate of tax.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) Admittedly, no intimation was given to the assessee as contemplated in the first proviso to Section 143 (1) (a). The first proviso, in our opinion, is clearly mandatory in nature, as it clearly stipulates that no adjustment ‘shall be made’ unless an intimation is given to the assessee of such adjustment either in writing or in electronic mode. Once this is a mandatory provision, no Intimation order u/s. 143(1)(a) can be passed, making any adjustment in the Return of Income filed by the assessee, unless such proposed adjustment is first intimated to the assessee and he has been given a chance to respond thereto.

ii) In the facts of the present case, no intimation as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a) was ever issued to the Petitioner. This is an undisputed fact. On this ground alone, the Intimation order dated 1st December, 2025, issued u/s. 143(1)(a), is liable to be quashed and set aside.

iii) We are unable to agree with the submission of the learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the Revenue that this exercise would be an exercise in futility because in the facts of the present case, admittedly, Form 10-IC was not filed by the due date. There could very well be a case where, after belatedly filing a return and belatedly filing Form 10-IC, and before the Intimation order is passed u/s. 143 (1)(a), the Petitioner could have obtained an order seeking condonation of delay in filing form 10-IC u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act. This could possibly be the response that the assessee may give to the CPC in respect of the notice issued under the first proviso to Section 143(1) (a) and contend that the proposed adjustment ought not to be made. It is therefore incorrect to suggest that the intimation proposing an adjustment, as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a), would be an exercise in futility. Once we find that the said provision is mandatory in nature, the same has to be complied with by the Revenue. The Revenue cannot decide in which case it would be futile and in which case it would not.

iv) The Department is free to issue a notice to the assessee as contemplated under the first proviso to Section 143(1)(a) as well as take the response of the Petitioner, if any, into the consideration, and only thereafter pass a fresh Intimation order as contemplated u/s. 143(1)(a)”

Equalisation levy — Refund — Interest on refund — Refund granted as excess Equalisation levy paid by assessee after three years — Obligation on Department to pay interest as compensation for use and retention of money collected in excess — Department’s contention that statute does not provide for payment of interest on refund of equalisation levy not tenable — High Court directed the Department to pay interest at the rate of six per cent from April 1 of the year following the financial year in which excess payments made by assessee till date of actual refund.

61. Group M Media India (P) Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax): (2025) 483 ITR 593 (Bom): 2023 SCC OnLine 2740: (2024) 336 CTR 270 (Bom)

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 18/12/2023

S. 244A of ITA 1961 and Ss. 164(i), 165, 166 and 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016

Equalisation levy — Refund — Interest on refund — Refund granted as excess Equalisation levy paid by assessee after three years — Obligation on Department to pay interest as compensation for use and retention of money collected in excess — Department’s contention that statute does not provide for payment of interest on refund of equalisation levy not tenable — High Court directed the Department to pay interest at the rate of six per cent from April 1 of the year following the financial year in which excess payments made by assessee till date of actual refund.

The petitioner assessee availed “specified services” as defined in clause (i) of section 164 of the Finance Act, 2016, effective from April 1, 2016. Section 164 of the Finance Act, 2016 ((2016) 384 ITR (Stat) 1) provides in clause (i), unless the context otherwise requires, “specified service” means online advertisement, any provision for digital advertising space or any other facility or service for the purpose of online advertisement and includes any other service as may be notified by the Central Government.

For the A. Y. 2018-19, the petitioner filed its statement of specified income originally on June 26, 2018 disclosing the total consideration for specified services at ₹3,99,41,76,889 and equalisation levy of ₹23,96,50,668. After declaring the total levy paid of ₹23,96,50,670, the assessee claimed a refund of ₹4,23,60,940.

By an intimation/order u/s. 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016 the Department determined the refund at ₹4,23,60,940. However, despite repeated requests, the refund was not given. The assessee therefore filed a writ petition alleging that there is failure on the part of the respondents to release the undisputed refund due and determined by the respondents themselves in the intimation/order issued u/s. 168(1) of the Finance Act, 2016 ((2016) 384 ITR (Stat) 1) for the F. Y. 2017-2018 corresponding to the A. Y. 2018-2019 despite reminders sent and for a direction to the respondents to refund an admitted amount of ₹4,23,60,940 plus interest thereon. After filing the writ petition the Department gave the refund of the amount but refused to give interest on refund.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The issue that remains to be decided in this petition is whether the petitioner was entitled to interest on the amount refunded.

ii) The stand of the Revenue is interest is not provided for refund of amounts deposited under the equalisation levy and, therefore, the question of payment of any interest does not arise.

iii) When the collection is illegal, there is corresponding obligation on the Revenue to refund such amount with interest in-as-much as they have retained and enjoyed the money deposited.

iv) In Union of India vs. Tata Chemicals Ltd. [(2014) 363 ITR 658 (SC); (2014) 6 SCC 335; (2014) 3 SCC (Civ) 553; 2014 SCC OnLine SC 176; (2014) 43 taxmann.com 240 (SC).] the apex court also held that refund due and payable to the assessee is debt owed and payable by the Revenue.

v) In the present case, it is not in doubt that the petitioner was entitled to refund of ₹4,23,60,940 because the amount has been paid after the petition was filed. Since the excess amount has been paid over by the petitioner on various dates during the F. Y. 2017-2018, in our view, the refund ought to have been processed and paid latest by July 31, 2018. The interest, therefore, of course, will become payable from April 1, 2018 if we apply the principles prescribed in section 244A of the Act. The amount, as noted earlier, has been paid only on August 21, 2023. Consequently, we are of the view that the petitioner is entitled to interest on this amount of ₹4,23,60,940 from April 1, 2018 up to August 21, 2023 at the rate of six per cent. per annum which is the rate prescribed u/s. 244A of the Act.

vi) This order shall be given effect to and the interest shall be paid over on or before February 15, 2024. If not paid, with effect from February 16, 2024, the rate of interest payable will be at nine per cent. per annum until the date of payment.

vii) This will be in addition to other proceedings to hold the Department and concerned officers to be in wilful disobedience of the orders passed by this court. The difference of three per cent. (nine per cent. – six per cent.) will be recovered from the Officer who will be responsible to have the interest paid.”

Re-opening of assessment — Re-assessment in respect of transactions which were not mentioned in the show cause notice u/s. 148A — Explanation to section 147 — Re-assessment on a different transaction which was not intimated to the assessee in the show cause notice — Reassessment on issues which come to notice of the AO subsequently — AO can make assessment of such issues only after the re-assessment proceedings have commenced — Since the AO proceeded to issue notice u/s. 148 on an issue other than the issue mentioned in the show cause notice, re-opening held to be bad in law and the order u/s. 148A(3) and notice issued u/s. 148A quashed and set-aside.

60. Balmer Lawrie and Company Limited vs. UOI

2026 (1) TMI-628-(Cal.)

A. Y. 2019-20: Date of order 09/01/2026

Ss. 148 and 148A of ITA 1961

Re-opening of assessment — Re-assessment in respect of transactions which were not mentioned in the show cause notice u/s. 148A — Explanation to section 147 — Re-assessment on a different transaction which was not intimated to the assessee in the show cause notice — Reassessment on issues which come to notice of the AO subsequently — AO can make assessment of such issues only after the re-assessment proceedings have commenced — Since the AO proceeded to issue notice u/s. 148 on an issue other than the issue mentioned in the show cause notice, re-opening held to be bad in law and the order u/s. 148A(3) and notice issued u/s. 148A quashed and set-aside.

The assessee, a Government Company, was engaged in several businesses which the company conducts, one such business being to provide travel facilities, including air travel services, to its customers. In the course of its air travel services, the petitioner’s customers often seek air travel insurance, which is facilitated by the assessee through empanelled insurers, one such insurer being Reliance General Insurance (Reliance). Apart from this, the assessee also has hoardings and other spaces at its premises for putting up marketing banners or advertisement material, and the assessee uses the same for generating revenue.

During the F. Y. 2018-19, relevant to A. Y. 2019-20, the assessee received a sum of ₹1,10,33,116/- towards commission for insurance from Reliance and offered the same to tax, while filing its return of income for the said A. Y. on 31/10/2019. The return was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act,1961 and the return of income was accepted.

On 30/03/2025, a show cause u/s. 148A(1) of the Act was issued stating that there was information suggesting that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment within the meaning of section 147 of the Act. Along with the said notice, information was supplied which, inter alia, contained Case Related Information Detail, Dissemination Note and certain other documents, including Excel sheets, relevant chapters of appraisal report pertaining to the search operation conducted in respect of Shri Ajay Mehta and Others and relevant statements recorded during such search operation. By the said notice, the petitioner was asked to show cause as to why a notice u/s. 148 of the Act should not be issued.

In response to the said notice, the assessee furnished its reply and submitted various details, such as details of payments received from Reliance, including UTR numbers and sample policy issued to customers and requested for dropping the reassessment proceedings.

Upon receipt of the said reply, the revenue authorities issued another notice dated 14/06/2025 u/s. 148A(1) of the Act. The annexure to the said notice referred to the earlier notice dated 30/03/2025 issued u/s. 148A(1) of the Act and indicated that the issuer of the fresh notice had taken over charge of Circle 5(1), Kolkata, on 16/05/2025 and had considered the submissions made by the assessee on 09/04/2025. Further, the assessee was requested to furnish further submission/document, if any, on or before 20/06/2025. The said notice was followed by another notice dated 16/06/2025 again u/s. 148A(1) of the Act, along with an annexure, whereby the assessee was informed that the reply dated 09/04/2025 did not correlate with the notice and information shared with the assessee and that the information was therefore once again being shared with the petitioner.

The assessee furnished its fresh reply to the said show cause notice on 20/06/2025, thereby objecting to the impugned proceedings for reassessment on similar lines as done in its earlier reply and prayed to drop the reassessment proceedings.

Thereafter, an order u/s. 148A(3) of the Act was passed by the AO on 28/06/2025, holding the case to be fit for issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the Act. In the said order, the Assessing Officer referred to the transactions of the assessee with one Prudent Insurance Brokers (Prudent) and held that income had escaped assessment insofar as transactions with Prudent were concerned, as there was an unaccounted receipt. Immediately after the said order, notice u/s 148 of the Act was issued on 30/06/2025.

Against the said order and notice, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Calcutta High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The impugned order passed u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961, reveals that the relevant Assessing Officer has proceeded to reopen the petitioner’s case on a ground that did not find mention in the notice to show cause issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961. In the notice to show cause issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has flagged the transactions between the petitioner and Reliance, in the order u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has changed the basis of reopening from the transaction between the petitioner and Reliance to transaction between the petitioner and Prudent. If the explanation sought from the petitioner by the notice issued u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961 was in respect of its transactions with Reliance, then the order u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961 could not have rolled on a different turf. It is very well settled now that an order cannot travel beyond the confines of the notice to show cause.

ii) By proceeding on a ground different than the one urged in the notice u/s. 148A(1) of the said Act of 1961, the Assessing Officer has indirectly accepted the petitioner’s contentions in response to the said notice. That being the position, the defence of the petitioner against reopening of proceedings for assessment of its income could not have been trumped by the Assessing Officer by relying on a ground that was never put to the petitioner.

iii) Information provided to the petitioner and relied on by the Assessing Officer does not suggest that the petitioner’s income has in any manner escaped assessment at least on the basis of the material presently on record. The legal principles established by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Lakhmani Mewal Das (supra) still remain foundational to the income tax jurisprudence. The requirement of “rational connection” which in terms of the said judgment “postulates that there must be a direct nexus or live link between the material coming to the notice of the Income Tax Officer” cannot be given a go-by. Thus direct nexus or live link between the information and the Income Tax Officer’s opinion that income has escaped assessment will have to be established. Indeed at the stage of issuance of notice u/s. 148 the Assessing Officer is not required to conclusively prove that income has escaped assessment but then the information must suggest that there is income has escaped assessment. In the case at hand there is no such suggestion at all.

iv) It must be kept in mind that reopening of assessment is a serious action and it must be done strictly in accordance with law. In the case at hand at least two conditions justifying invocation of writ powers stand satisfied – arbitrariness in changing the ground of reopening indicated in the show cause notice and consequential violation of principles of natural justice in passing an order against the petitioner based on a ground which the petitioner had no opportunity to deal with.

v) A meaningful reading of the provisions of Section 147 of the Act would make it clear that the same would get activated only after completing the drill in Section 148 and 148A (where applicable) and not before that. The power of the Assessing Officer to assess or reassess income in respect of issues which come to his notice subsequently can be exercised only after the assessment or reassessment proceedings have commenced. The emboldened and underscored portion of the Explanation to Section 147 of the said Act of 1961 makes the said aspect very clear.

vi) For all the reasons aforesaid, the order impugned dated June 28, 2025 passed u/s. 148A(3) of the said Act of 1961 and the consequential reopening notice dated June 30, 2025 issued u/s. 148 of the said Act of 1961 in respect of A. Y. 2019-20 fail to withstand judicial scrutiny. The same are set aside.”

Re-opening of assessment — Findings given in Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) — No material or evidence to suggest escapement of income — No infirmity in documentary evidence furnished by the assessee — Re-opening of assessment merely on the basis of STR report is bad-in-law.

59. Vivaansh Eductech (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT

(2025) 181 taxmann.com 873 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2021-22: Date of order 16/12/2025

Ss. 147, 148 and 148A of ITA 1961

Re-opening of assessment — Findings given in Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) — No material or evidence to suggest escapement of income — No infirmity in documentary evidence furnished by the assessee — Re-opening of assessment merely on the basis of STR report is bad-in-law.

A notice u/s. 148A(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, dated 31/03/2025, was issued upon the assessee for AY 2021-22, requiring the assessee to show cause why the case of the assessee should not be re-opened u/s. 148 of the Act. In response to the notice, the assessee furnished a detailed reply objecting to the reopening of the assessment. Thereafter, vide order dated 19/06/2025, it was concluded that the income of ₹12,16,51,000 had escaped assessment and that the case of the assessee was fit for re-opening of assessment.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the said order. The Gujarat High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) A perusal of the impugned notice as well as the impugned order reveals that the respondent has formed such an opinion primarily on the allegation that the petitioner had entered into “circuitous” transactions with related parties. However, we do not find any material or evidence worth the name on record to suggest that there was any escapement of income on account of such transactions, which would invite the rigours of Section 148 of the Act. No finding has been recorded by the respondent-authorities with regard to any exchange of cash or any return of money after the execution of the transactions in question.

ii) The assessment has been re-opened merely on the basis of the findings emerging from the STR (Suspicious Transaction Report), without duly considering the submissions and explanations tendered by the petitioner. We also find that the petitioner had fully disclosed the income and had justified the same in the reply filed before the authorities

iii) The respondent has neither doubted the documentary evidence produced by the petitioner nor pointed out any infirmity in the material furnished in relation to the transactions reflected in the petitioner’s bank account. The said documentary evidence has neither been dealt with nor even considered by the respondent while passing the impugned order.

iv) In such circumstances, the impugned Notice dated 31/03/2025 as well as the impugned Order dated 19/06/2025 cannot be sustained and deserve to be quashed and set aside.”

Offences and prosecution — Criminal prosecution — Income surrendered during the assessment — Tax paid to buy peace and avoid further litigation — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) levied — Concealment of income — Appeal of the assessee allowed by the CIT(A) and ITAT — Department’s appeal before the High Court dismissed — Order of penalty does not exist — Criminal proceedings cannot be allowed to continue in such case.

58. Shiv Kumar Jaiswal vs. The State of UP

2026 (1) TMI 371 (All.)

Date of order 05/01/2026

S. 276C(1) and 277 of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Criminal prosecution — Income surrendered during the assessment — Tax paid to buy peace and avoid further litigation — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) levied — Concealment of income — Appeal of the assessee allowed by the CIT(A) and ITAT — Department’s appeal before the High Court dismissed — Order of penalty does not exist — Criminal proceedings cannot be allowed to continue in such case.

The assessee and his wife jointly owned a hotel and gifted the said hotel, out of love and affection, to one Mr. Raj Kumar, who was one of their family friend, vide a registered gift deed. Subsequently, the said Mr. Raj Kumar gifted ₹75 lakhs to the minor son of the assessee through a registered gift deed. In the assessment, the assessee voluntarily surrendered the capital gains and paid tax thereon so as to avoid further litigation and buy peace on the condition that no penalty proceedings be initiated u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in respect of the aforesaid surrender of income.

However, the Assessing Officer subsequently confirmed the levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act by treating the capital gains as the concealed income. On appeal before the CIT(A), the appeal of the assessee was allowed, and the penalty was deleted. On the Department’s appeal before the Tribunal, the appeal was dismissed, and the issue was decided in favour of the assessee. On further appeal before the High Court, the High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department.

Despite the pendency of the appeal before the CIT(A), the Assessing Officer applied for sanction for criminal prosecution u/s. 276C(1) and 277 of the Act before the competent authority. The competent authority granted sanction to file a complaint against the assessee, and the complaint was filed.

Against this, the assessee filed a Criminal Writ Petition before the High Court seeking quashing of proceedings pending before the court of Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Economic Offence), Lucknow and the summoning order passed by the Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Custom), Lucknow. The Allahabad High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The subject matter of penalty is the same by which, criminal proceedings have been launched. Once the Tribunal has set aside the penalty order, at this juncture, it would not be appropriate to allow criminal proceedings against the applicant. The first appellate Tribunal, the second appellate Tribunal and the High Court have not interfered in the order of penalty and the department could not succeed. Thus, the fact has come on record that the order of penalty does not exist.

ii) The Supreme Court in the case of G.L Didwania AIROnline 1993 SC 421 has considered the aspect of penalty and launching of criminal proceedings. In the said case, the Supreme Court has observed that in the order of the Appellate Tribunal, those conclusions reached by the assessing authority have been set aside and consequently, the very basis of the complaint is knocked out and, therefore, in the interest of justice, proceedings ought to have been quashed by the High Court.

iii) In the case of K.C. Builders AIROnline 2004 SC 638 wherein the Supreme Court has observed that the Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax cannot proceed with the prosecution even after the order of concealment has been set aside by the Tribunal. When the Tribunal has set aside the levy of penalty, the criminal proceedings against the appellants cannot survive for further consideration. In the opinion of the Supreme Court, if the trial is allowed to proceed further after the order of the Tribunal and consequent cancellation of penalty, it will be an idle and empty formality to require the appellants to have the order of Tribunal exhibited as a defence document inasmuch as the passing of the order as aforementioned is unsustainable and unquestionable.

iv) In view of the aforesaid factual and legal position, the application is allowed and the entire as well as all consequential proceedings of complaint pending before the court of Special Chief Judicial Magistrate (Economic Offence), Lucknow, are quashed.”

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Amounts paid by Indian affiliates on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme treated by AO as royalty — American company receiving payments from Indian affiliate for marketing and reservation services in hotel — AO held receipts taxable as royalty under I T Act and under DTAA and alternatively as fees for included services u/s. 9(1)(vii) and article 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and US — DRP rejecting assessee’s objections holding that mere changing of business model did not change nature of receipts chargeable to tax — High Court held that the receipts neither taxable as royalty nor fees for technical services — Not taxable under DTAA as fees for included services

57. CIT(International Taxation) vs. Six Continents Hotels Inc.: (2025) 480 ITR 14 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 2744

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 17/04/2025

Ss. 9(1)(vii), 143(3) and 144C of ITA 1961: Art. 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and the USA

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Amounts paid by Indian affiliates on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme treated by AO as royalty — American company receiving payments from Indian affiliate for marketing and reservation services in hotel — AO held receipts taxable as royalty under I T Act and under DTAA and alternatively as fees for included services u/s. 9(1)(vii) and article 12(4)(a) and (b) of DTAA between India and US — DRP rejecting assessee’s objections holding that mere changing of business model did not change nature of receipts chargeable to tax — High Court held that the receipts neither taxable as royalty nor fees for technical services — Not taxable under DTAA as fees for included services.

The assessee was a non-resident, entitled to the beneficial provisions of the DTAA between India and the USA. During the financial year 2019-2020, the assessee had received a sum of ₹28,11,42,298 which comprised of marketing contribution, priority club receipts and reservation contribution aggregating to ₹21,22,52,199; and the Holidex fees amounting to ₹6,88,90,099 from Indian affiliate being InterContinental Hotels Group (India) Private Limited (IHG India) towards the centralised marketing and reservation related services. The assessee filed its revised return of income for the A. Y. 2020-2021 on March 31, 2021, declaring a total income of ₹1,05,20,740, which was picked up for scrutiny.

The Assessing Officer passed a draft assessment order dated September 15, 2022. The Assessing Officer held that the amounts paid by the Indian hotels for marketing contribution and reservation fees were taxable as royalty under the Act as well as under the India-USA Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) ((1991) 187 ITR (Stat) 102). In the alternative, the Assessing Officer held that the same would be taxable as fees for included services under section 9(1)(vii) of the Act as well as under article 12(4)(a) and article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA, the Assessing Officer determined the total taxable income at ₹39,19,56,083 after making an addition of ₹28,11,42,298 on account of marketing, distribution marketing and frequency marketing programme along with an addition of ₹10,02,93,045 on account of fees for included services/fees for technical services held as chargeable to tax under the Act as well as under the provisions of the DTAA.

The assessee filed objections to the said decision before the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP). The DRP did not accept the assessee’s contentions that the receipts were not in the nature of royalty and concluded that the said fees were in connection with the grant of a licence for the brand for which separate fees was also charged. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer passed the final assessment order dated June 27, 2023.

The assessee carried the matter in appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal allowed the said appeal following the decision in the assessee’s case in the earlier assessment years. To be noted that the assessee’s contention that the receipts, as mentioned above, are not taxable by virtue of the DTAA has been sustained for the past fifteen assessment years.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) The principal question that is required to be addressed is whether the payments received by the assessee on account of providing certain centralised services including marketing services and reservation services can be construed as fees for technical services as defined under section 9(1)(vii) of the Act or fees for included services as covered under article 12(4)(a) of the DTAA. Admittedly, the said issue is covered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue by several decisions of this court including DIT vs. Sheraton International Inc. [(2009) 313 ITR 267 (Delhi); 2009 SCC OnLine Del 4231.], CIT (International Taxation) vs. Sheraton International LLC [2023:DHC:4261-DB.], CIT (International Taxation) vs. Westin Hotel Management LP [ I.T.A. No. 213 of 2024 decided on April 10, 2024 (Delhi).] and CIT (International Taxation) vs. Shangri-La International Hotel Management Pte. Ltd. [ I.T.A. No. 532 of 2023 decided on September 18, 2023 (Delhi).]

ii) In the case of the CIT (International Taxation) vs. Radisson Hotel Interaction Incorporated [(2023) 454 ITR 816 (Delhi); 2022 SCC OnLine Del 3713; 2022: DHC: 004791.], this court had referred to the earlier decisions and dismissed the case, holding that no substantial questions of law arise for consideration by this court. The present appeal must bear the same fate.

iii) In view of the above, no substantial questions of law arise for consideration before this court. Thus, the appeal is dismissed.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of any other person — Satisfaction note — Time of recording satisfaction note — Permissible stages — If not recorded immediately after completion of searched person’s assessment —Proceedings are invalid — Delay of 22 months in recording satisfaction note — Contrary to Circular No. 24/2015 — Notice issued u/s. 153C quashed and set-aside.

56. Parag Rameshbhai Gathani vs. ITO (International Taxation)

(2025) 180 taxmann.com 662 (Guj.)

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 18/11/2025

Ss. 153C r.w.s 132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of any other person — Satisfaction note — Time of recording satisfaction note — Permissible stages — If not recorded immediately after completion of searched person’s assessment —Proceedings are invalid — Delay of 22 months in recording satisfaction note — Contrary to Circular No. 24/2015 — Notice issued u/s. 153C quashed and set-aside.

A search action was carried out on 15/10/2019 upon one Mr. SRT who was a land broker and financer group of assessees. In the course of search, certain incriminating material was found and seized. Upon examination of the material, it was found that financial transactions were carried out with some individuals which included the name of the assessee. Assessment in the case of Mr. SRT was completed in August 2021.

Subsequently, the Assessing Officer of Mr. SRT (searched person) recorded a satisfaction note on 06/06/2023 and transferred the seized material to the Assessing Officer of the assessee. The Assessing Officer of the assessee recorded satisfaction note on 14/07/2023 alleging that the assessee had made payment of on money for purchase of property. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 153C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in the name of the assessee on 09/02/2024.

Against the said notice, the assessee filed petition before the High Court challenging the notice. The Gujarat Hon’ble High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

i) As per the Circular No. 24/2015 dated 31/12/2015 and the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Calcutta Knitwears (2014) 43 taxmann.com 446 (SC), recording of the satisfaction note apply in three stages to the proceedings u/s. 153C of the Act. Though, the Assessing Officer had an opportunity to record the satisfaction note at two stages i.e. stage (a) and (b) as specified in the Circular, the same is not done. The next stage which was available was stage (c) on immediate completion of proceedings of the searched person in August, 2021, however, the satisfaction note was recorded on 06/06/2023, after a period of 22 months. The satisfaction note was drawn by the Assessing Officer of the petitioner on 17/10/2023.

ii) In the case of Jitendra H. Modi (2018) 403 ITR 110 (Guj.), this Court, by placing reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Calcutta Knitwears (supra), has held that satisfaction recorded after 09 months could not be said to be immediate action and hence, the Coordinate Bench of this Court set aside the notices issued under Section 158BD of the Act. In the instant case, there has been a delay of 22 months in recording the satisfaction, which runs contrary to the decision in Calcutta Knitwears (supra) as well as provision ‘(c)’ of Circular No.24/2015 dated 31/12/2015, which uses the expression “immediately after the assessment procedure is completed.

iii) Twin reasons are assigned by the respondents in the affidavit in reply for delay in recording the satisfaction note, (a) COVID-19 pandemic; and, (b) adoption of Faceless Scheme. So far the reason of COVID-19 is concerned, the same runs contrary to the action of the respondents, since the assessment of the searched person was itself done during the pandemic, and in the affidavit-in-reply, the respondent has mentioned that the Omicron variant commenced in December 2021 and continued until February 2022. Thus, even after February, 2022, the satisfaction note has been recorded on 17/10/2023. The second reason of workload due to Faceless Scheme is also a lame excuse, since indubitably the exercise u/s. 153A and 153C of the Act falls outside the purview of the said scheme. Hence, both the reasons assigned appear to be an afterthought, hence the same are rejected

iv) There was no restricting factor on the Assessing Officer to record the satisfaction earlier. The expression “immediate” though is impossible to quantify in period, however, the same cannot be extended to such an extent which defeats the purpose of cost effective, efficient and expeditious completion of search assessments. The intention of using such term is to reduce and avoid long drawn proceedings and to bring certainty to the assessment. Thus, both the writ petitions succeed. The impugned notices issued u/s. 153C of the Act for the respective assessment years are hereby quashed and set aside.”

Revision u/s. 264 — Revision of intimation issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income — Revision application filed pursuant to decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal in S. K. Ventures — — Rejection of application by CIT — Decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal not acceptable to the Department — High Court held — CIT bound to follow Jurisdictional Tribunal — Merely because order is challenged in appeal before the High Court cannot be the ground to not follow.

55. Dipti Enterprises vs. ADIT

2025 (11) TMI 1856 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2020-21: Date of order 17/11/2025

Ss. 264 of ITA 1961

Revision u/s. 264 — Revision of intimation issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income — Revision application filed pursuant to decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal in S. K. Ventures — — Rejection of application by CIT — Decision of Jurisdictional Tribunal not acceptable to the Department — High Court held — CIT bound to follow Jurisdictional Tribunal — Merely because order is challenged in appeal before the High Court cannot be the ground to not follow.

The assessee firm was engaged in the business of real estate development. The assessee filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2020-21 after claiming deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 which, the assessee was claiming since A. Y. 2010-11. At the time of filing its return of income, the utility automatically calculated the tax liability u/s. 115JC of the Act and deemed total income of the assessee at ₹2,17,85,501. Since the tax payable as per the normal provisions was lower than the tax payable on the deemed total income determined in accordance with the AMT provisions, the total liability was determined at ₹49,97,467 based on the AMT provisions. The return of income filed was accepted u/s. 143(1) of the Act.

According to the assessee, the provisions of 115JC could not be applied to the projects which were already approved prior to the date of introduction of section 115JC. Since the assessee’s projects were approved prior to the date of enforcement of section 115JC the provisions of section 115JC were inapplicable. Therefore, the assessee filed an application u/s. 264 of the Act seeking revision of the of the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) of the Act on the ground that extra tax paid as per the return of income by applying the provisions of section 115JC of the Act be refunded. To support its view, the assessee relied upon the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (order dated 05.03.2019 bearing ITA No. 1248/Mum./2018).

The assessee’s application for revision was rejected on the ground that the decision rendered by the Tribunal was not acceptable to the Department and the decision of the Jurisdictional Tribunal was challenged in appeal before the High Court and was pending disposal. Therefore, no relief could be granted u/s. 264.

Against the said order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble Bombay High Court. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Merely because the order of the appellate authority is “not acceptable” to the department, and is the subject matter of an appeal, can furnish no ground for not following a judicial precedent, unless its operation has been suspended by a competent Court. If this healthy rule is not followed, it would lead to undue harassment to assessees and result in chaos in the administration of tax laws.

ii) Secondly, we hold that the doctrine of binding precedents plays a vital role in tax jurisprudence. It is first required to be ascertained whether, in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, a particular judicial precedent is factually and legally in consonance with the case in hand or not. If it is found that the precedent relied upon is distinguishable, then such parameters based on which it is distinguishable need to be described in the order. The Respondent has not assigned any cogent reasons for distinguishing the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) from that of the Petitioner.

iii) If the assessee is pleading that its interpretation of the applicability of Section 115JC has already been decided by the jurisdictional Tribunal, then in such a case, the Respondent ought to have considered the facts and law of the said case. If the facts are identical, then it ought to have been followed. We are of the view that if in the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the case of the Petitioner is in consonance with the facts in the decision rendered by the jurisdictional Tribunal, then it ought to be followed as a matter of judicial discipline.

iv) Even though in the return of income the taxes were determined and paid pursuant to Section 115JC, the same can be challenged by the Petitioner if being levied without the authority of law. Just because an assessee is under a bona fide mistake of law paid tax which was not exigible as such, cannot by itself, with nothing more, be a ground for the Respondent for not granting legitimate relief under the law we are of the view that provisions of Section 264 would also cover within its ambit a claim which is not made in the Return of Income Thus, we are of the view that provisions of Section 264 would also cover within its ambit a scenario where intimation is issued u/s. 143(1) accepting the returned income of the Petitioner.

v) The matter is remanded to the Respondent to pass a fresh order on the application of Petitioner to consider the applicability of the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) and direct the Respondent to ascertain whether the relevant facts in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) viz-a-viz facts of the present case are identical or not (w.r.t. ascertaining the applicability of the provisions of Section 115JC) within a period of four weeks from the date of uploading of the present order. If it is found that the facts in the case of S.K. Ventures vs. ITO (supra) are identical to the present case, then the ratio laid down in the said order should be followed.”

Offences and prosecution — Compounding of offences — Delay — Compounding application was rejected solely on the ground of delay of 36 months from date of filing complaint — Held, limitation period stipulated in CBDT guidelines — Guidelines treated as binding statutes without exercising discretion — Where Act provided no limitation period, rigid time-line through guidelines is impermissible — Held, mechanical rejection of application without considering facts and circumstances is improper — Order set aside and matter remanded for reconsideration exercising proper discretion.

54. L.T. Stock Brokers (P) Ltd. vs. CIT: (2025) 480 ITR 26 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 517

Date of order 04/03/2025

S. 279(2) of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Compounding of offences — Delay — Compounding application was rejected solely on the ground of delay of 36 months from date of filing complaint — Held, limitation period stipulated in CBDT guidelines — Guidelines treated as binding statutes without exercising discretion — Where Act provided no limitation period, rigid time-line through guidelines is impermissible — Held, mechanical rejection of application without considering facts and circumstances is improper — Order set aside and matter remanded for reconsideration exercising proper discretion.

A complaint was filed by the Income Tax Department against the assessee company for offences under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed an application u/s. 279(2) of the Act for compounding the offences. The Chief Commissioner’s the application by an order dated January 17, 2024, solely on the ground that it was filed beyond 36 months from the date of filing of the complaint against the petitioners. The Chief Commissioner has relied upon paragraph 9.1 of the CBDT guidelines dated September 16, 2022 ((2022) 447 ITR (Stat) 25) for compounding offences under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the order. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The CBDT guidelines of 2014 ((2015) 371 ITR (Stat) 7) which in para 8 referred to the period of limitation, does not exclude the possibility that in the peculiar case where the facts and circumstances so required, the competent authority should consider the explanation and allow the compounding application. This means that notwithstanding the so-called limitation period, in a given case, the competent authority can exercise discretion and allow compounding application.

ii) The competent authority has treated the guidelines as a binding statute in the present case. On the sole ground that the application was made beyond 36 months, the same has been rejected. The competent authority has exercised no discretion as such. The rejection is entirely premised on the notion that the competent authority had no jurisdiction to entertain a compounding application because it was made beyond 36 months. Such an approach is inconsistent with the rulings of this court, the Madras High Court and the hon’ble Supreme Court ruling in the case of Vinubhai Mohanlal Dobaria vs. Chief CIT [(2025) 473 ITR 394 (SC); 2025 SCC OnLine SC 270.] relied upon by the learned counsel for the Revenue.

iii) We set aside the impugned order dated January 17, 2024 and direct the Chief Commissioner to reconsider the petitioner’s application for compounding in the light of the observations made by the hon’ble Supreme Court in Vinubhai Mohanlal Dobaria vs. Chief CIT [(2025) 473 ITR 394 (SC); 2025 SCC OnLine SC 270.]. This means that the Chief Commissioner will have to consider all facts and circumstances and decide whether such facts make out the case for exercising discretion in favour of compounding the offence.”

Charitable trust — Exemption u/s. 11 — Exception u/s. 13 — Salary paid to chairperson treated as payment to person prohibited u/s. 13(3) — AO held the payment is excessive and disallowed 30 per cent of the salary u/s. 40A(2)(a) — CIT(A) deleted addition finding salary reasonable — Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by Department after examining qualification and experience of chairperson — Held, reasonable remuneration for services rendered did not constitute benefit u/s. 13(1)(c) — Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 11.

53. CIT(Exemption) vs. IILM Foundation: (2025) 480 ITR 1 (Del): 2025 SCC OnLine Del 2540

A. Ys. 2009-10 to 2011-12: Date of order 21/04/2025

Ss. 11, 12 and 13 of ITA 1961

Charitable trust — Exemption u/s. 11 — Exception u/s. 13 — Salary paid to chairperson treated as payment to person prohibited u/s. 13(3) — AO held the payment is excessive and disallowed 30 per cent of the salary u/s. 40A(2)(a) — CIT(A) deleted addition finding salary reasonable — Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by Department after examining qualification and experience of chairperson — Held, reasonable remuneration for services rendered did not constitute benefit u/s. 13(1)(c) — Assessee entitled to exemption u/s. 11.

The assessee was a charitable trust registered u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee was predominantly engaged in activities of imparting education through various educational institutions. The relevant assessment years are 2009-10 to 2011-12. The Assessing Officer held the salary paid to the assessee’s chairperson was excessive and not commensurate with her educational qualifications, experience and duties, and since she was a related party being chairperson, disallowed 30 per cent of the payments u/s. 40A(2)(a) of the Act.

The Commissioner (Appeal) deleted the addition finding that the salary is reasonable and following consistence with the A. Y. 2008-09. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue. The Tribunal examined the additional evidence regarding the chairperson’s qualifications and contributions and held that the salary was justified and not unreasonable. The Tribunal held that section 13(1)(c) r.w.s. 13(2)(c) did not bar payment of reasonable salary to persons mentioned in section 13(3) for services rendered.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i) A plain reading of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act indicates that exemptions under section 11/12 of the Act would not operate so as to exclude from the total income of the previous year any income, which is directly or indirectly, for the benefit of the person referred to in sub-section (3) of section 13 of the Act. It is, thus, clear that if any part of the income of a trust for charitable or religious purposes is diverted for the direct or indirect benefit of a person referred to in sub-section (3) of that Act, that part of the income would not be excluded from the total income of the assessee by virtue of section 11/12 of the Act. In other words, the exemption under those sections would not be available to the extent that the said income of a charitable or religious purposes is applied for the benefit of a person specified in sub-section (3) of section 13.

ii) By virtue of clause (c) of sub-section 2 of the Act if any amount is paid by way of a salary or allowance to a person, which is specified under sub-section (3) of section 13 of the Act, it would be deemed that the income of the property or trust has been applied for the benefit of that person for the purposes of clauses (c) and (d) of sub-section (1) of section 13. However, if a person specified under sub-section (3) has rendered any service and the amount or allowance paid to such person is such, that is, reasonably paid for such services, the same cannot be deemed to have been applied for the benefit of the said person for the purposes of clause (c) or (d) of section 13(1) of the Act. This is apparent from the plain language of clause (c) of sub-section (2) of section 13 of the Act. The opening words of the said clause must be read in conjunction with the last words of the said clause—”if any amount is paid by way of salary, allowance or otherwise… in excess of what may be reasonably paid for such services”. Thus, if the amount paid for services is such as is reasonably payable for such service, the same cannot be construed as applied for the benefit of a prohibited person notwithstanding that it is paid to such a person. Consequently, such payment would not fall within the exception of clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 13 of the Act.

iii) The order of the Tribunal holding that the assessee had not violated the provisions of section 13(1)(c) in remunerating its chairperson for the services rendered was not perverse.

iv) In view of the above the questions of law as noted above is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Appeal to High Court u/s. 260A — Additional question of law raised for first time in High Court — Jurisdiction of High Court — General principles — Assessee-company merged with another and ceased to exist — Assessment in name of non-existing entity(Merged company) — Question whether assessment order passed on non-existing entity is void — Question involving jurisdictional issue not raised before Tribunal — Whether merits consideration — Held by High Court that the additionally proposed question of law involved in these appeals is involving jurisdictional issue and hence included.

52. Reliance Industries Ltd. vs. P.L. Roongta: (2025) 479 ITR 763 (Bom): 2025 SCC OnLine Bom 3676

A. Ys. 1993-94 to 1995-96: Date of order 20/01/2025

Ss. 143(3) and 260A of ITA 1961

Appeal to High Court u/s. 260A — Additional question of law raised for first time in High Court — Jurisdiction of High Court — General principles — Assessee-company merged with another and ceased to exist — Assessment in name of non-existing entity(Merged company) — Question whether assessment order passed on non-existing entity is void — Question involving jurisdictional issue not raised before Tribunal — Whether merits consideration — Held by High Court that the additionally proposed question of law involved in these appeals is involving jurisdictional issue and hence included.

In this case the assessee-company had amalgamated with the another company. The Assessing Officer had knowledge of amalgamation. However, the assessment order was passed in the name of the non-existing amalgamating entity. As such the assessment was void. However, the ground that the assessment was void was not taken in appeal before the CIT(A) and also the Tribunal.

The question before the Bombay High Court was that whether the ground that the assessment order was void can be raised first time in the High Court in an appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Mr. Mistri proposes the following question:

‘Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the assessment order under section 143(3) of the Act passed on a non-existent entity is bad in law, void ab initio?’

ii) Section 260A(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides that the appeal shall be heard only on the question so formulated, and the respondents shall, at the hearing of the appeal, be allowed to argue that the case does not involve such question. However, the proviso to this sub-section states that nothing in this sub-section shall be deemed to take away or abridge the power of the court to hear, for reasons to be recorded, the appeal on any other substantial question of law not formulated by it, if it is satisfied that the case involves such question.

iii) Usually, for a case to “involve” such a question, the same should have been raised before the original authority or at least the appellate authorities. When a question was never raised before the original authority or the appellate authorities, then, typically, it would not be easy to hold that such a question was involved and, therefore, should be framed by exercising the powers under the proviso to sub-section (4) of section 260A of the Income-tax Act. However, to the above general proposition, there are exceptions. Suppose a question of law goes to the root of the jurisdiction, and there is no necessity to investigate new facts or if there is no serious dispute on the facts. In that case, such a question can be framed even though the same may not have been raised in the earlier proceedings before the original or appellate authority. Consent, per se, cannot confer jurisdiction upon an authority where such jurisdiction is inherently lacking.

iv) In Ashish Estates and Properties Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2018) 96 taxmann.com 305 (Bom).] , the co-ordinate Bench of this court held that a question which was not raised before the Tribunal should not ordinarily be allowed to be raised in an appeal u/s. 260A unless it was a question on the issue of jurisdiction or question, which went to the root of the jurisdiction.

v) In Santosh Hazari vs. Purushottam Tiwari [(2001) 251 ITR 84 (SC); (2001) 3 SCC 179; 2001 SCC OnLine SC 375; AIR 2001 SC 965.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court held that an entirely new point raised for the first time before the High Court is not a question involved in the case unless it goes to the root of the matter. It will, therefore, depend on the facts and circumstances of each case whether a question of law is a substantial one and involved in the case, or not; the paramount overall consideration being the need for striking judicious balance between the indispensable obligation to do justice at all stages and impelling necessity of avoiding prolongation in the life of any lis.

vi) In CIT vs. Jhabua Power Ltd. [(2015) 13 SCC 443; 2013 SCC OnLine SC 1228; (2013) 37 taxmann.com 162 (SC).], the two questions set out in paragraph 3 of the order were sought to be raised for the first time before the hon’ble Supreme Court. Both the questions related to the issue of limitation and, in that sense, did go to the root of the jurisdiction. The court held that these two questions were required to be answered first by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. Therefore, the appeal was allowed, the decisions of the High Court and the Tribunal were set aside, and the matter was remanded to the Tribunal to decide the questions of law relating to limitation after affording an opportunity of hearing to both parties.

vii) For all the above reasons, we are satisfied that the question proposed by Mr. Mistri is involved in these appeals, and, therefore, we frame the above question in all these appeals. If answered in favour of the assessees, the question would go to the root of jurisdiction.”

Refund — Rejection of application on the ground that request can be made only through TRACES portal and further there is no provision to adjust outstanding demand against refund on TRACES portal — Unjustified — Income-tax authorities bound to refund the amount without any formalities to be completed by the assessee — Non-functionality of portal cannot be the ground for denying the refund statutorily allowed to the assessee — AO directed to either grant refund or set-off the demand payable against the refund.

51. (2025) 345 CTR 99 (MP)

Birla Corporation vs. Principal CIT

F. Ys. 2009-10 and 2011-12: Date of order 18/09/2024

Ss. 220, 240 and 243 of ITA 1961

Refund — Rejection of application on the ground that request can be made only through TRACES portal and further there is no provision to adjust outstanding demand against refund on TRACES portal — Unjustified — Income-tax authorities bound to refund the amount without any formalities to be completed by the assessee — Non-functionality of portal cannot be the ground for denying the refund statutorily allowed to the assessee — AO directed to either grant refund or set-off the demand payable against the refund.

Proceedings u/s. 201/201(1A) were initiated for the A.Ys. 2009-10 to 2011-12 and aggregate tax liability (including interest) of more than r12 crores was determined to be payable by the assessee.

The assessee’s appeal before the CIT(A) was dismissed and the order of the Assessing Officer was confirmed. The assessee filed further appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal set-aside the order and remanded the matter back to the Assessing Officer.

Pursuant to the remand proceedings, the Assessing Officer once again passed the order and determined an aggregate amount about r3 crores. Once again, the assessee challenged the order of the Assessing Officer in appeal before the CIT(A). However, the CIT(A) dismissed the appeal. Thereafter, the assessee filed appeals before the Tribunal which were allowed.

During the pendency of the appeal, the assessee deposited the outstanding tax demand in instalments aggregating to r1.45 crores for FY 2009-10 and ₹3.65 crores for FY 2010-11 under protest. In addition to the above, the assessee also deposited TDS amount of ₹15,03,299.

Pursuant to the order of the Tribunal, the Assessing Officer passed the order for refund of r3.65 crores. However, this amount was not paid to the assessee. The assessee filed a representation for refund of ₹5.25 crores. The Assessing Officer rejected the application on the grounds that (i) request for refund can be made only if the assessee files and application on the TRACES portal in the prescribed form and (ii) that there is no provision available on the TRACES portal to adjust the outstanding demand of PAN or TAN against the pending refunds of the TAN and therefore requested the assessee to deposit the aforesaid demand.

As a result, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Madhya Pradesh High Court. The High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and directed the Assessing Officer to either refund the tax amount or adjust the same against the tax payable by the assessee. In doing so, the Hon’ble High Court held as follows:

“i) The non-functionality of the TRACES Portal shall not be grounds for denying the benefit arising out of the statutory provision under the IT Act. The TRACES is nothing but a online Portal of the IT Department to connect all the stockholders involved in the administration and implementation of TDS and TCS. The TDS is a Centralized Processing Cell created for TDS reconciliation analysis and correction enabling system which cannot run contrary to the provision of the IT Act. The rights which have been given to the assessee under the IT Act cannot be withheld due to the non functionality of the TRACES.

ii) The Online Portal is created to facilitate the stakeholders and not to create hurdles in discharging the statutory duties and the statutory rights. If the Portal does not function in accordance with the Act and Rules then it requires to be suitably modified to achieve the aims and objects of the Act and Rules, therefore, there is a provision in the IT Act about the refund of the amount with interest as well as set off of refund against the tax payable.

iii) The petitioner is ready for a refund as well as for set off. It is for the competent ITO to make a decision either to refund or to adjust the same.”

Refund — First appellate order in favour of the assessee —However, directions given in the order to make enquiry and verify in respect of other years by resorting to S. 148 — Refund cannot be held merely because enquiry and verification is pending — Once the assessee succeeds in appeal consequence of order giving effect and grant of refund should follow — Directions issued to the AO to pass order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A) and grant refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the Act.

50. 2025 (11) TMI 50 (Bom.)

U.S. Instruments Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT and Ors

A. Y. 2009-10: Date of order 15/10/2025

Ss. 153 and 244A of ITA 1961

Refund — First appellate order in favour of the assessee —However, directions given in the order to make enquiry and verify in respect of other years by resorting to S. 148 — Refund cannot be held merely because enquiry and verification is pending — Once the assessee succeeds in appeal consequence of order giving effect and grant of refund should follow — Directions issued to the AO to pass order giving effect to the order of the CIT(A) and grant refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the Act.

The assessee is a private limited company. The assessment for A.Y. 2009-10 was completed vide order dated 28/12/2011 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act after making addition on account of securities premium u/s. 68 of the Act and a demand of ₹15,53,73,190 was raised. Against the said order, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A) which was disposed by the CIT(A) vide order dated 19/02/2024 and the appeal of the assessee was allowed. However, the CIT(A), in his order issued directions for examining the nature and source of amounts received by the assessee in other years by resorting to sections 148 and 150 of the Act.

During the pendency of the appeal before the CIT(A), the assessee had paid ₹1,00,12,856 towards the outstanding tax demand. Pursuant to the order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed a letter to the Assessing Officer requesting him to give effect to the order of the CIT(A) and to issue refund of the taxes paid by the assessee. However, there was no response from the Assessing Officer. The assessee wrote reminder letters, but no refund was granted.

Therefore, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court praying that directions be issued to the Assessing Officer to grant refund along with interest. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) It is undisputed that the Petitioner had paid taxes of ₹1,00,12,856/- against the demand arising out of the assessment order dated 28th December 2011 for A.Y. 2009-10. Such demand no longer survives, as the Commissioner (Appeals) has deleted the additions made. Naturally, the Petitioner would be entitled to refund of such amount with interest as per law.

ii) It is not correct on the part of the Respondents to sit on such refund merely because there are some directions issued by Commissioner (Appeals) to carry out certain inquiries/ verifications in respect of the amounts received in other years. Once, the Petitioner has succeeded in appeal, the natural consequences of passing an order giving effect to such order and grant of refund have to follow. Otherwise, it will lead to an incongruous situation that despite succeeding before the Appellate Authority, the Petitioner is still deprived of his due refund. Such a situation should always be avoided.

iii) The contention of the Department that the Commissioner (Appeals) has issued directions to verify the amounts received in other years and therefore, refund cannot be given to the Petitioner until such directions are complied with, cannot be accepted. Such directions may or may not be complied with, however, refund arising as a result, of the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) cannot be withheld for such reasons. In any event, today there is no outstanding demand against the Petitioner.

iv) As per section 153(5), an order giving effect has to be passed within three months from the end of the month in which the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) has been received. In the present case, it appears that the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was sent on email and uploaded on the portal on 19 February 2024 and in any event, the Petitioner has informed and provided a copy of the order to Respondent No. 1 vide letter dated 23rd February 2024 filed on 27th February 2024. There are no reasons forthcoming for not passing an order giving effect to the order of Commissioner (Appeals). At least, passing of such order is not contingent upon the directions issued by the Commissioner (Appeals).

v) This Court has already quashed and set aside the reassessment notices for the A.Y. 2008-09 and A.Y. 2009-10 vide separate orders dated 15th September 2025 in Writ Petition (L) No. 27782 of 2025 and Writ Petition (L) No. 27786 of 2025, therefore, now there should not be any difficulty for Respondent No. 1 to issue refund as prayed for. Since, the notice u/s. 148 have been quashed, there is no question of the Petitioner co-operating in the proceeding, as no such proceedings exist as on today, in the eyes of law.

vi) We direct that Respondent No. 1 should pass the order giving effect to the order of Commissioner (Appeals) dated 19th February 2024 and grant the refund along with interest u/s. 244A of the I. T. Act. The above action of passing the order and granting of refund should be completed as expeditiously as possible and in any event not later than four weeks from today. We are passing this order as the time period to pass order giving effect has expired long back and that the matter is an old matter and pertains to A.Y. 2009-10 and even the taxes have been paid more than twelve years back”

Re-assessment — Information available on Insight Portal — Incorrect information — Mechanism u/s. 148A — Requirement to verify information u/s. 148A(a) prior to 01/09/2024 — After the amendment, 148(1) is similar to 148A(b) — Despite the amendment, it is the responsibility of the AO to verify information available on insight portal — AO must conduct enquiry, if necessary 148A(1) to be invoked only after verification of the information made available to the AO.

49. 2025 (10) TMI 1242 (Guj.)

Vasuki Global Industrial Limited vs. Principal CIT

Date of order 15/10/2025

S. 148A of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Information available on Insight Portal — Incorrect information — Mechanism u/s. 148A — Requirement to verify information u/s. 148A(a) prior to 01/09/2024 — After the amendment, 148(1) is similar to 148A(b) — Despite the amendment, it is the responsibility of the AO to verify information available on insight portal — AO must conduct enquiry, if necessary 148A(1) to be invoked only after verification of the information made available to the AO.

The assessee is engaged in the business of trading of coal. In the year 2021, summons were issued to the assessee by the Director General of GST (Intelligence) under the GST provisions and the statement of the Director of the assessee company was recorded. Thereafter, the inquiry against the assessee was concluded on payment of tax, interest and penalty under the provisions of the GST Act. Subsequently, in the year 2022, summons were issued to the assessee by the Income-tax Department which were replied to by the assessee and the details called for were also furnished by the assessee.

Thereafter, various buyers and sellers of the assessee who had transacted with the assessee were in receipt of notices for re-opening of their assessment. The notices for re-opening of assessment were issued on the basis of report received from the GST Department wherein the assessee was alleged to be engaged in availing or passing on fake ITC credit to various parties. The GST Department had absolved the assessee from any lapses under the provisions of the GST Act. Though the assessee was absolved by the GST Department, the Income-tax Department continued the re-assessment proceedings in respect of various suppliers of the assessee on the basis of the information available on the insight portal. As a result, the assessee was subjected to queries by its various buyers and suppliers for issue of re-opening notices because of the assessee company.

The assessee thus wrote a letter to the Chairman, CBDT, Director General of GST Intelligence, Principal Chief Commissioner of Income-tax and Principal Commissioner of Income-tax clarifying that it was one Varuni International and not the assessee Vasuki Global Industries Limited who was subjected to alleged bogus fake invoices and passing of the Input Tax Credit. Further, it was also pointed out that the GST registration of the said Varuni International was cancelled by GST authorities and the registration of the assessee was active and the assessee was undertaking business and was subject to audit by the GST Department. It was submitted that re-opening notice issued by the buyers and sellers of the assessee were based on incorrect information available on the insight portal of the Income-tax Department.

The assessee addressed letters to the authorities under the GST Act as well as the Income-tax Act, stating inter alia that the assessee was not involved in GST invoice fraud and that its name was wrongly mentioned in the notices issued upon the buyers and sellers of the assessee company. A request was also made to stop the assessments initiated on incorrect grounds in the case of the assessee and on the basis of incorrect information made available on the Insight Portal.

In view of the foregoing facts, the assessee filed a writ petition before the Gujarat High Court with the prayer to direct the authorities to remove incorrect information from the portal relating to the assessee and correct the same on the basis of latest information received from GST authorities and further to intimate them that no action be taken on the basis of the original incorrect information. The High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Scheme of the Act is well designed to take care of the information which is available on the Insight Portal by providing a mechanism in Section 148A of the Act by issuing notice to the assessed by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to verify the information as per clause (a) to Section 148A of the Act as was existent prior to 1st September, 2024 and thereafter, as per Sub-section (1) of Section 148A of the Act

ii) It appears that the conducting of inquiry, if required, with prior approval of the specified authority with respect to the information which suggest that the income chargeable to tax has escaped the assessment, has been done away after the amendment of Section 148A of the Act with effect from 1st September, 2024. Section 148A(1) therefore is now similar to Section 148A(b) of the Act which was applicable up to 1st September, 2024 and which provided that an opportunity of being heard be provided to the assessee by serving a show cause notice as to why a notice u/s. 148 should not be issued on the basis of information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in his case for the relevant assessment year and results of enquiry conducted, if any, as per clause (a).

iii) Before issuance of the notice u/s. 148A(1) of the Act, it is the responsibility and liability of the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer to verify the information made available on the Insight Portal which suggests that the income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in case of the assessee for the relevant Assessment Year and if necessary, the Assessing Officer must conduct inquiry with prior approval of the specified authority with respect to such information and only after verification of the information made available to the Assessing Officer, the provisions of Section 148A(1) of the Act shall be invoked.”

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — One-time compensation received for surrendering of stock received under stock option scheme of employer :— (a) TDS — Rejection of application u/s. 197 for NIL deduction of tax — Stock option not perquisite amenable to tax — Order rejection application quashed and set aside; (b) Applicability of section 45 — Cost of acquisition of stock option cannot be determined — Capital receipt not chargeable u/s. 45 not chargeable under any other head — Charging section and computation section constituted an integrated code.

48. (2025) 479 ITR 1 (Karn): 2025 SCC OnLine Kar 18963

Manjeet Singh Chawla vs. Dy. CIT(TDS)

A. Ys. 2024-25: Date of order 02/06/2025

Ss. 5, 17(2), 45, 48 and 197 of ITA 1961

Income — Capital or revenue receipt — One-time compensation received for surrendering of stock received under stock option scheme of employer :— (a) TDS — Rejection of application u/s. 197 for NIL deduction of tax — Stock option not perquisite amenable to tax — Order rejection application quashed and set aside; (b) Applicability of section 45 — Cost of acquisition of stock option cannot be determined — Capital receipt not chargeable u/s. 45 not chargeable under any other head — Charging section and computation section constituted an integrated code.

The petitioner is an Indian citizen and a salaried employee of Flipkart Internet Private Limited (FIPL). FIPL is an Indian subsidiary of Flipkart Marketplace Private Limited (FMPL), a company incorporated in Singapore; which is further a wholly owned subsidiary of Flipkart Private Limited, Singapore (FPS). In addition to FMPL, FPS, Singapore has many other subsidiaries including PhonePe which had a wholly owned subsidiary in India known as?

In the year 2012, FPS, Singapore introduced the Flipkart Stock Option Plan, 2012 (FSOP), pursuant to which the petitioner was granted 2,232 stock options with a vesting schedule of four years from January 1, 2016 to March 31, 2023 amongst which 955 stock options were vested, 249 were cancelled and the unvested stock options were 1,028, resulting in the total number of stock options held by the petitioner being 1,983 as on March 31, 2023. Meanwhile, on December 23, 2022, FPS, Singapore announced separation/divestment of PhonePe resulting in reduction and diminishing of the value of the stock options issued in favour of the petitioner. Under these circumstances, FPS, Singapore announced a one-time compensatory payment of USD 43.67 per option as compensation towards loss in value of Flipkart Stock Option plans due to divestment/separation of PhonePe from FPS, Singapore. In pursuance of the same, a sum of ₹71,01,004, i.e., 1,983 x 43.67 x 82 (USD conversion rate) was paid to the petitioner towards the aforesaid one-time compensatory payment due to reduction/diminishing of the value of the stock options issued in favour of the petitioner as stated supra.

The petitioner filed an application dated May 20, 2023 u/s. 197 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 seeking “nil tax deduction certificate” in relation to the aforesaid one-time compensatory payment made to him. The respondents raised certain queries which were clarified by the petitioner vide reply/response dated July 24, 2023. However, the first respondent rejected the application. Being aggrieved, the petitioner filed a writ petition and challenged the order of rejection.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is well settled that tax at source cannot be deducted if payment does not constitute income and the power of the respondents-Revenue to direct deduction of tax under section 197 of the Income-tax Act can be exercised only if there is an income chargeable to tax.

ii) The one-time compensation payment received by the assessee due to reduction on the value of the stock options did not constitute income chargeable to tax but was a capital receipt.

iii) In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances, I am of the considered opinion that the first respondent clearly fell in error in rejecting the application filed by the petitioner seeking issuance of “nil tax deduction certificate” in relation to the subject compensation amount of ₹71,01,004 by passing the impugned order which is illegal, arbitrary and contrary to facts and law as well as the aforesaid principles and statutory provisions and consequently, the impugned order deserves to be set aside and the application filed by the petitioner deserves to be allowed by directing the respondents to issue “nil tax deduction certificate” in favour of the petitioner within a stipulated timeframe.

iv) In the result, the petition is hereby allowed. The impugned order at annexure A dated August 2, 2023 passed by the first respondent is hereby quashed.

v) The respondents are directed to issue “nil tax deduction certificate” in favour of the petitioner as sought for by him together with all consequential benefits flowing therefrom as expeditiously as possible and at any rate, within a period of six weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.”

Application for condonation of delay — S. 119(2)(b) — Delay due to the time taken in obtaining legal advice by the Chartered Accountant — Not due to negligence on the part of assessee but due to the CA in obtaining legal advice — Non-condonation would result in lapsing of brought forward loss to be set-off — Genuine hardship to the assessee — Delay in filing return was to be condoned.

47. (2025) 179 taxmann.com 637 (Del)

Balaji Landmarks LLP vs. CBDT

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 14/10/2025

Ss. 80 r.w.s. 119, 139 and 153 of ITA 1961

Application for condonation of delay — S. 119(2)(b) — Delay due to the time taken in obtaining legal advice by the Chartered Accountant — Not due to negligence on the part of assessee but due to the CA in obtaining legal advice — Non-condonation would result in lapsing of brought forward loss to be set-off — Genuine hardship to the assessee — Delay in filing return was to be condoned.

The assessee firm filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 on 30/03/2019, that is, after a delay of 5 months. The due date for filing return of income for the A. Y. 2018-19 was 31/10/2018. The assessee filed its return of income on 30/03/2019 belatedly within the time prescribed u/s. 139(4) of the Act.

Subsequently, on 15/06/2023, the assessee filed an application u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act to condone the delay of 5 months in filing the return of income. In the said application, condonation was sought on the ground that the Chartered Accountant of the assessee was not acquainted with the legal and accounting treatment to be given to the compensation received in the form of TDR in lieu of compulsory acquisition of immovable property and therefore the assessee sought appropriate legal advice and the time taken for obtaining such legal advice had caused the delay in filing the return of income. However, the assessee’s application was rejected on the ground that the assessee failed to exercise due diligence to ensure timely filing of return of income and that the assessee had ample time to file return of income within time and lastly that the delay was caused due to lack of supervision and therefore did not constitute genuine hardship.

The assessee filed writ petition against the said rejection before the Delhi High Court. It was also submitted that since during the year, the assessee had incurred loss, the same would not be allowed to be carried forward if such delay was not condoned and thereby cause genuine hardship to the assessee. The petition was allowed and it was held as follows:

“i) The delay in the present case is not due to any negligence on the part of the Petitioner but due to inadequate advice by the Chartered Accountant, which fact stands admitted by him in his affidavit.

ii) It is settled law that where an Assessee takes a course of action based on an opinion of a professional, then, in that case, there is a reasonable cause for the Assessee to act based on such advice and that such acts are to be regarded as bona fide. In the present case, the Petitioner ought not to be put to a considerable disadvantage as a result of belated advice given to it by the Chartered Accountant, especially when the issue that was being grappled with is fairly complex and for which there were no well settled judicial precedents at the relevant time.

iii) The delay in filing the return of income for the A.Y.2018-19 is hereby condoned. The return of income filed on 30th March 2019 shall be treated to be a return filed in accordance with Section 153(1B) and the time frame to complete the assessment mentioned therein shall apply.”

Refund — Denial on the ground that TDS not reflected in 26AS — Responsibility of the AO to verify from Form 16A — Taxpayer should not be at the mercy of an officer who delays the payment of genuine refund — Assessee is entitled to refund after verification of Form 16A certificates.

46 . U.P. Rajya Nirman Sahakari Sangh Limited vs. UOI

2025 (10) TMI 537 (All.)

A.Ys. 2009-10 to 2012-13 & 2015-16: Date of order 08/10/2025

Refund — Denial on the ground that TDS not reflected in 26AS — Responsibility of the AO to verify from Form 16A — Taxpayer should not be at the mercy of an officer who delays the payment of genuine refund — Assessee is entitled to refund after verification of Form 16A certificates.

The assessee is a co-operative society claiming exemption u/s. 80P of the Act. Since the assessee’s income is exempt, refund on account of tax deducted at source along with interest was due to the assessee. Despite several applications and reminders, the Department was not issuing the refund to the assessee on the ground that the amount of TDS was not reflected in Form 26AS.

The Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court seeking refund of the amount due to the assessee from the Department and allowing the to the assessee, the credit of TDS for the AYs 2009-10 to 2012-13 and AY 2015-16. The Allahabad High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Delhi High Court in Its Motion v. Commissioner of Income Tax (Writ Petition (CIVIL) No. 2659 of 2012, decided on 14/03/2013) and in Rakesh Kumar Gupta vs. Union of India and Another (Civil Misc. Writ Petition (Tax) No. 657 of 2013, decided on 06/05/2014) held that in the event the TDS amount is not reflected in Form 26AS, refund must still be provided if the petitioner is able to furnish the Form 16A certificates.

ii) A taxpayer should not be left at the mercy of an Assessing Officer who chooses to delay the payment of genuine refunds. Furthermore, as long as the assessee is able to provide documents proving that tax has been deducted at source, the same has to be accepted by the Assessing Officer, who cannot insist that the amount match the figures in Form 26AS. It is the responsibility of the Assessing Officer to verify the amounts provided by the assessee through the proof of Form 16A.

iii) The assessee in the present case is entitled to receive a refund of the amounts once the 16A forms are accepted by the Income Tax Authority.”

Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) — Addition made on the basis of ad hoc estimate — No clear finding that there was concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) cannot be imposed.

45. Pr.CIT vs. Colo Colour Pvt. Ltd.

2025 (9) TMI 1041 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 16/09/2025

S. 271(1)(c) of ITA 1961

Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) — Addition made on the basis of ad hoc estimate — No clear finding that there was concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income — Penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) cannot be imposed.

The assessee was engaged in the business of operating a photo studio and trading in photographic material. The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income at ₹4,32,530. Subsequently, the case was re-opened and the assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 assessing the total income at ₹12,32,570 after making an addition of ₹7,40,776 on account of bogus purchases on an estimate basis and addition of ₹59,262 was made towards unexplained commission expenditure on bogus purchases. The assessee did not file an appeal against the said order and agreed to the addition to buy peace and to avoid litigation.

Thereafter, penalty proceedings were initiated u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act on the ground that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars of income and/or had indulged in concealment of income. The Assessing Officer thus levied penalty at 100% of the tax sought to be evaded in respect of the addition made towards bogus purchase and commission on such bogus purchase.

The CIT(A), allowed the appeal of the assessee and it was held that the penalty was not warranted when the addition was made on the basis of ad hoc estimate and further since the assessee had provided details and furnished necessary documents, there was no case of concealment of income or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The Department’s appeal before the Tribunal was dismissed as the penalty was levied on the basis of an addition which was made on ad hoc estimate basis.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) The condition precedent for levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) is only when the Assessing Officer, in the course of proceedings, is satisfied that an assessee has concealed the particulars of his income or has furnished inaccurate particulars of income. Thus, in applying the penalty provisions u/s. 271(1)(c), it was necessary for the assessing officer to reach to a conclusion, that the assessee had consciously concealed the particulars of his income and/or had deliberately furnished inaccurate particulars of income to gain an undue advantage of not offering the real income to tax. A clear subjective satisfaction of these essentials is a sine qua non for the assessing officer to levy a penalty. Penalty proceedings are penal in nature, as the intention of such provisions is to create an effective deterrent, which will restrain the assessee from adopting any practices detrimental to the fair and realistic assessment as the law would mandate.

ii) The approach of the assessee was certainly, not of the nature which can be recognized to involve any concealment of particulars of income and/or furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. The reason being that the penalty could not have been levied when an ad-hoc estimation of the assessee’s income was made by the assessing officer who restricted the profit element in the purchases at 12.5%.

iii) There was no allowance or a basis for the Assessing Officer to reach to a conclusion that this was a case where the provisions of section 271(1)(c) were required to be invoked, to levy a penalty on the ground that the assessee had furnished inaccurate particulars or had concealed its income.

iv) In the assessment proceedings leading to the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) read with Section 147 of the Act, in so far as the bogus purchases were concerned, the assessee had taken a clear position that the assessee had agreed for the addition to buy peace of mind and to avoid a protracted litigation. Hence, the assessee agreeing with such addition, did not mean that the assessee had accepted, that the assessee had concealed income or furnished inaccurate particulars of income, so as to take a position contrary to the invoices/bills submitted by the assessee supporting its returns. This position not only on the part of the assessee but also on the part of the assessing officer formed the basis of the assessment, leading to the additions as made by the Assessing Officer. Thus, in our clear opinion, there was no warrant for invoking the penalty provision u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, as rightly observed in the concurrent findings of the CIT(A) and the Tribunal. It is also a settled position of law that penalty proceedings and assessment proceedings are independent of each other, hence the parameters which are applicable for passing assessment orders are completely distinct from those applicable not only to initiate penalty proceedings but also in passing a penalty order under the provisions of section 271(1)(c) of the Act.

v) In the light of the above discussion, no interference is called for in the orders passed by the Tribunal.”

Miscellaneous Application — Mistake apparent on record — S. 254(2) — Appeal of the assessee was allowed by the Hon’ble Tribunal on the basis of the judgment of the High Courts prevailing at that time — Subsequently, the Hon’ble Supreme Court reversed the view taken by the High Courts — Subsequent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be the basis to invoke section 254(2).

44. Vaibhav Maruti Dombale vs. Asst. Registrar, ITAT

(2025) 178 taxmann.com 447 (Bom)

A. Y. 2019-20: Date of order 12/09/2025

Ss. 36(1)(va), 43B and 254 of ITA 1961

Miscellaneous Application — Mistake apparent on record — S. 254(2) — Appeal of the assessee was allowed by the Hon’ble Tribunal on the basis of the judgment of the High Courts prevailing at that time — Subsequently, the Hon’ble Supreme Court reversed the view taken by the High Courts — Subsequent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court cannot be the basis to invoke section 254(2).

The return of income filed by the assessee was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Act wherein an adjustment was made towards the amount received from the employees as contribution to any provident fund, superannuation fund etc. and not paid within the due dates prescribed u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act.

The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee on the ground that Explanation 5 inserted u/s. 43B vide Finance Act 2021 was applicable retrospectively and therefore the addition deserved to be sustained. The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. It was held by the Tribunal that the amendment by way of inserting Explanation 5 to section 43B was prospective in nature. Further, the Tribunal held that the controversy was settled by the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Alom Extrusions 319 ITR 306 and the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Ghatge Patil Transport Ltd. 368 ITR 749.

Subsequently, the Department filed a Miscellaneous Application by relying on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Checkmate Services P. Ltd. and contended that the issue was settled in favour of the Department. It was the case of the Department that the order passed by the Tribunal was rectifiable u/s. 254(2) on the basis the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange wherein it was held that non-consideration of subsequent decision of Supreme Court was a rectifiable mistake and the provisions of section 254(2) could be invoked on the basis of subsequent decision of the Supreme Court. The Tribunal allowed the Miscellaneous Application filed by the Department and recalled its order.

Against this order, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The assessee also filed appeal against the order of the Tribunal where under the appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) The judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd.( [2008] 173 Taxman 322/305 ITR 227 (SC)) is not an authority for the proposition that the power under Section 254(2) of the IT Act can be invoked on the ground of “mistake apparent from the record” on the basis of a subsequent decision of the Superior Court.

ii) The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Reliance Telecom Ltd. (2021) 133 taxmann.com 41 (SC) holds that the powers u/s. 254(2) of the IT Act are akin to Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC. The Explanation to Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC clearly provides that the fact that a decision on a question of law on which the judgement of the Court is based has been reversed or modified by a subsequent decision of a superior court in any other case was not a ground for review of such judgement. Hence, the said Explanation under Order 47 Rule 1 of the CPC expressly bars a review on the ground that there is a mistake apparent on the face of the record on the basis of a subsequent decision of a Court.

iii) A subsequent ruling of a Court cannot be a ground for invoking the provisions of Section 254(2) of the IT Act. Section 254(2) of the IT Act can be invoked with a view to rectify any mistake apparent from the record. Admittedly, on the date when the original order was passed by the ITAT on 5th September 2022, it followed the law as it stood then. This was overruled subsequently by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Checkmate Services ([2022] 143 taxmann.com 178 (SC)). Hence, we are of the view, that, on the date when the ITAT passed its original order dated 5th September 2022, it could not be said that there was any error or mistake apparent on the record, giving jurisdiction to the ITAT to invoke Section 254(2) of the IT Act.”

Charitable Institution — Exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) — Assessee a Institution for promoting trade, commerce and industry — Rejection of application for exemption invoking s. 2(15) for A. Y. 2014-15 — Appeal pending against rejection order — On similar facts and circumstances Tribunal granted exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) to assessee for A. Y. 2016-17 and 2017-18 — Matter remanded to the Tribunal for reconsideration — Not challenging order of rejection for A. Y. 2013-14 is assessee’s discretion.

43. Indian Merchants Chamber vs. CIT

(2025) 478 ITR 599 (Bom): 2024 SCC OnLine Bom 4281

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 08/03/2024

Ss. 2(15), 10(23C)(iv), 253 and 254 of ITA 1961

Charitable Institution — Exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) — Assessee a Institution for promoting trade, commerce and industry — Rejection of application for exemption invoking s. 2(15) for A. Y. 2014-15 — Appeal pending against rejection order — On similar facts and circumstances Tribunal granted exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) to assessee for A. Y. 2016-17 and 2017-18 — Matter remanded to the Tribunal for reconsideration — Not challenging order of rejection for A. Y. 2013-14 is assessee’s discretion.

The petitioner is an institution formed and established with the primary object of promoting, advancing and protecting trade, commerce and industry in India. It has been regularly filing return of income since its inception. The Central Government had notified the petitioner as an institution qualifying for this exemption for the A. Ys. 1977-1978 to 2000-2001. Thereafter, up to the A. Y. 2008-2009, the Revenue has granted it exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 as a charitable institution.

According to the assessee, it qualifies for claiming exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act. The Chief Commissioner rejected the assessee’s application for grant of approval u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act for the A. Y. 2014-2015 primarily by invoking the provisions of the proviso to section 2(15) of the Act. According to Chief Commissioner, the assessee is not a charitable institution because it carries on the activities mentioned in the impugned order.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the order of rejection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) For the A. Y. 2016-2017 and the A. Y. 2017-2018, by an order dated September 27, 2022, the Tribunal has set aside the order of rejection passed by CIT (Exemptions) and has held that the petitioner was entitled to exemptions u/s. 10(23C)(iv) of the Act. The petitioner’s application for the A. Y. 2015-2016 is yet to be disposed of by the CIT (Exemptions).

ii) Since the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal for the A. Ys. 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 has been passed after the impugned order was passed, in our view, CIT (Exemptions) should be given an opportunity to apply the law as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal.

iii) Mr. Gulabani submitted that the order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal for the A. Ys. 2016-2017 and 2017-2018 has been challenged in this court by way of an appeal which is still pending. Mr. Gulabani submitted that, therefore, the Revenue has not accepted the findings of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. The apex court in Union of India vs. Kamlakshi Finance Corporation Ltd. [1992 Supp (1) SCC 443.] held that the mere fact that the order of the appellate authority is not “acceptable” to the Department—in itself an objectionable phrase—and is the subject matter of an appeal can furnish no ground for not following it unless its operation has been suspended by a competent court. The court further observed that if this healthy rule is not followed, the result will only be undue harassment to assessees and chaos in administration of tax laws.

iv) Mr. Gulabani states that a similar order, as impugned in this petition, was passed for the A. Y. 2013-2014 which has not been challenged by the petitioner. In our view, that would make no difference and it is for every assessee to decide whether to accept the order or not to accept. Mr. Mistri submitted that the petitioner is an institution that has been formed and established for promoting, advancing and protecting trade, commerce and industry in India and has been in existence for over 100 years and was established in the year 1907 and the petitioner might have chosen not to contest the order for the A. Y. 2013-2014. But that cannot alter the fact that the law, as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, is the law on the subject.

v) In the circumstances, we hereby quash and set aside the impugned order dated September 23, 2015 and remand the matter to CIT (Exemptions) for de novo consideration. CIT (Exemptions) shall consider and apply the law as laid down by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal unless CIT (Exemptions) is able to distinguish on the basis of facts. All rights and contentions are kept open.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Disqualification for exemption where activities in the nature of trade or business carried out — Income from ticket sales by organizing dance events and food stalls — Decision of court in favour of assessee in appeal for earlier assessment years on identical facts and circumstances —Held that organizing cultural events did not constitute business activity to deny exemption and dismissed the appeal filed by the Department.

42. CIT (Exemption) vs. United Way of Baroda

(2025) 478 ITR 530 (Guj): 2024 SCC

OnLine Guj 4431

A. Y. 2015-16: Date of order 22/01/2024

Ss. 2(15), 11, 12 and 13(8) of ITA 1961

Charitable purpose — Exemption u/s. 11 and 12 — Disqualification for exemption where activities in the nature of trade or business carried out — Income from ticket sales by organizing dance events and food stalls — Decision of court in favour of assessee in appeal for earlier assessment years on identical facts and circumstances —Held that organizing cultural events did not constitute business activity to deny exemption and dismissed the appeal filed by the Department.

For the A. Y. 2015-16, the assessee, a trust, which organized dance events during festivals, earning income from ticket sales and food stalls filed a nil return claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer denied exemption treating these activities as business under the proviso to section 2(15) and accordingly made disallowances.

The CIT(Appeals) partly allowed the assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the CIT(Appeals).

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“The assessee’s own case for the A. Y. 2014-15, on identical facts and circumstances concurrently found by the appellate authorities, had already been dismissed by the court in the appeal of the Department u/s. 260A holding, inter alia, that organizing dance events could not be termed as a business there were no distinguishing facts to take a different view for the subsequent A. Y. 2015-16.”

Capital Gains — Immovable Property — S. 50C — Sale of immovable property at or above Stamp Duty Value (SDV) — Subsequent increase in SDV — SDV at the time of agreement to sell has to be considered — Subsequent increase in SDV at the time of execution of Sale Deed not to be considered — Proviso to section 50C applicable retrospectively.

41. Pr.CIT vs. Thompson Press (India) Ltd.

(2025) 176 taxmann.com 237 (Del)

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 02/07/2025

S. 50C of ITA 1961

Capital Gains — Immovable Property — S. 50C — Sale of immovable property at or above Stamp Duty Value (SDV) — Subsequent increase in SDV — SDV at the time of agreement to sell has to be considered — Subsequent increase in SDV at the time of execution of Sale Deed not to be considered — Proviso to section 50C applicable retrospectively.

One LMIL, sold land to one MIPL which belonged to the Maccons Group. The agreement to sell was entered amongst the parties on 30/05/2013 and on the same day stamp duty of ₹72 lakhs was paid by the purchaser, that is, MIPL. The said land admeasuring about 20,000 square meters was sold by LMIL at the rate of ₹18,000 per square meter viz. for total consideration of ₹36 crores. Thereafter, LMIL merged into the assessee company.

Subsequently, a search was conducted at the residential and business premises of the Maccons Group on 27/11/2014. During search, sale deed dated 11/10/2013 executed by LMIL was found. The Stamp Duty Value of the property on the date of execution of sale deed was traced to ₹28,000 per square feet and therefore, it was the view of the Department that the consideration should have been ₹56 crores as against ₹36 crores offered by the assessee. This information was received by the Assessing Officer and notice was issued to re-open the assessment. The proceedings were completed vide order dated 05/12/2018 wherein addition u/s. 50C of the Act was made on account of the difference in the sale consideration taken into account by the assessee and the SDV on the date of execution of the agreement.

On appeal, both, the CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee, and held that the addition made by the Assessing Officer was not warranted since the assessee had entered into transaction prior to the increase in the circle rates and that the assessee had paid the stamp duty on the date of entering into agreement to sell.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as under:

“i) It is at once clear that no substantial questions of law arise in the facts of the present case. The issue sought to be raised on behalf of the revenue is whether the proviso to section 50C is applicable retrospectively. However, in view of the express finding that the transaction was at the value which is commensurate with the circle rate at the material time, the fact that the circle rate had been increased subsequently would have little effect for the purposes of section 50C.

ii) The issue involved in the present case is also covered by an earlier decision of this Court in Pr. CIT vs. Modipon Ltd. [IT Appeal No.543 of 2015, dated 30/01/2017]. In the said case, the parties had entered into an agreement to sell, which was duly registered prior to 16/09/2004. The said agreement stipulated a schedule for payment of consideration of the subject immovable property. The parties had adhered to the said schedule and had thereafter entered into a sale deed on 16/09/2004. However, on 16/09/2004, the circle rate was revised upwards. In the aforesaid context, the revenue had contended that the circle rate, as on the date of the sale deed, was required to be considered for the purposes of section 50C. This Court had rejected the said contention holding that where there is adequate external evidence supporting the assessee’s case that the transaction has been recorded and been reflected objectively in the form of a registered instrument (agreement to sell dated 27/05/2004), and all subsequent payments made have adhered to the time schedule agreed upon in respect of the amounts, the application of section 50C would be unwarranted.

iii) The Tribunal’s conclusion that the transaction was covered by two deeds, both of which characterised as sale deeds though not strictly correct in one sense, describes the nature of the agreements between the parties. Quite possibly there can be a situation like the present one where transaction recorded in the agreement to sell are acted upon over a period of time and in the interregnum the circle rates are increased. Application of section 50C in such cases would result in extreme hardship.

iv) Parliament has recognized this mischief and has added proviso to section 50C(i) with effect from 01/04/2017. Having regard to the forgoing reasons, no question of law arises; the appeal is accordingly dismissed.

TDS — Payment without TDS — Disallowance u/s. 40a(ia) — Applicability of proviso to 40a(ia) — Inserted by Finance Act 2013 with effect from 01/04/2013 — Curative and beneficial in nature —Retrospective effect from 01/04/2005 — No dispute as that the recipients had paid taxes on such payments — No disallowance can be made u/s. 40a(ia)

40. [2025] TS – 1087 – HC (Bom.)

Principal CIT vs. Morgan Stanley India Capital Pvt. Ltd. A. Y. 2009-10 Date of order 14/08/2025

S. 43B of ITA 1961

TDS — Payment without TDS — Disallowance u/s. 40a(ia) — Applicability of proviso to 40a(ia) — Inserted by Finance Act 2013 with effect from 01/04/2013 — Curative and beneficial in nature —Retrospective effect from 01/04/2005 — No dispute as that the recipients had paid taxes on such payments — No disallowance can be made u/s. 40a(ia)

In the course of scrutiny assessment for the A. Y. 2009-10, the Assessing Officer disallowed certain expenses of approximately ₹17.64 crores u/s. 40a(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, on the ground that the assessee had not deducted tax at source.

The CIT(A) deleted the disallowance and held that it was merely a case of short deduction and in doing so relied upon the decision of the Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT vs. S. K. Tekriwal (2012 SCC Online Cal13210). The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the Department.

The Bombay High Court concurred with the decision of the Calcutta High Court’s regarding the retrospective application of the second proviso to Section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, introduced effective April 1, 2013 and dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as under:

“i) This proviso deems that an assessee, who fails to deduct tax under Chapter XVII-B but is not considered in default under the first proviso to Section 201(1), is treated as having deducted and paid the tax on the date the payee files their return of income.

ii) Despite the proviso’s introduction in 2013, the court, referring to the co-ordinate bench judgment in the case of Pr.CIT vs. Perfect Circle India Pvt Ltd (Income Tax Appeal No. 707 of 2016, decided January 7, 2019), held that its curative and beneficial nature warrants retrospective application from April 1, 2005, when the main proviso to Section 40(a)(ia) was enacted. Given that the payees (the assessee’s group companies) had paid taxes on the payments received, the Assessing Officer was incorrect in invoking Section 40(a)(ia) to disallow the expenses for the A. Y. 2009-10.

iii) Consequently, there is no substantial question of law requiring further adjudication.”

General Anti-Avoidance Rules — Scope of —Impermissible Avoidance Agreement — Purchase and sale of shares — Cumulative effect of purchase and sale of shares results in loss — No strong material established by the Department to show applicability of s. 96(1) except the timing of transaction — GAAR provisions not applicable — Order passed u/s. 144BA(6) set-aside.

39. (2025) 177 taxmann.com 726 (Telangana)

Smt. Anvida Bundi vs. DCIT

A. Y. 2020-21 Date of order 22/08/2025

Ss. 96 r.w.s 144BA of ITA 1961

General Anti-Avoidance Rules — Scope of —Impermissible Avoidance Agreement — Purchase and sale of shares — Cumulative effect of purchase and sale of shares results in loss — No strong material established by the Department to show applicability of s. 96(1) except the timing of transaction — GAAR provisions not applicable — Order passed u/s. 144BA(6) set-aside.

The Assessee, an individual, held investments in shares and securities. During the year, the assessee sold certain shares (already held by her) and earned long term capital gains of about ₹44.14 crores from sale of shares. In order to deploy the funds available from sale of shares, and keeping in mind the market trend, the assessee purchased shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. to earn short-term capital gains and thereafter to make long-term capital gains from subsequent disposal of investment. The assessee also invested in the units of mutual fund worth ₹32.92 crores during the year. Subsequently, the assessee sold shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. in the same year. The cumulative effect of purchase of shares of M/s. HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. in the open market and sale of shares thereafter resulted in loss of ₹17.65 crores to the petitioner for the same Financial Year 2019-20.

The Department was of the view that the transaction of purchase and sale of shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. during the year amounted to Impermissible Avoidance Agreement (IAA) and the provisions of Chapter X-A, dealing with General Anti-Avoidance Rules were applicable to the said transactions. The assessee filed objections. However, the approving panel passed the order dated 21/03/2023 holding that the transactions undertaken by the petitioner so far as purchase and sale of shares of M/s.HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd., particularly taking into consideration the period of time during which the sale and purchase was made, amounts to “IAA”.

Against the said order, the assessee filed writ petition before the High Court on the contention that the Department had not met any of the criteria envisaged u/s. 96(1) of the Act to treat the transactions as IAA.

The Telangana High Court took note of certain admitted facts such as that the Department had not been able to show or has collected any material to prove that the purchase and sale of shares made by the petitioner was with any of their known persons or entity. There was no nexus between purchase and sale of shares of HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd. All the shares were sold through the stock exchange through the DMAT account of the assessee. The assessee was an investor in shares and the purchase and sale of shares by the assessee was not one of the isolated transactions specifically made to save tax. The transactions formed part of the return of the assessee and there was no new material to hold that the so-called arrangement was hit by the GAAR provision. Lastly, except for the timing of transactions, there was also no material to hold the transactions to be an IAA. In view of these facts, the High Court taking note of the report prepared by the expert committee under the Act regarding general anti-avoidance rules held that the report itself has categorically held that sale and purchase through stock market transactions would not come under the GAAR provisions. It was held that timing of a transaction or a taxpayer would not be questioned under the GAAR provisions on sale and purchase of shares made by the assessee. The Telangana High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) So far as the timing part is concerned, which perhaps was the strong point on which the authority concerned has passed the impugned order, it is necessary to take note of the report prepared by the expert committee under the Income Tax Act with regard to general anti-avoidance rules are concerned. The said report itself has categorically held that sale and purchase through stock market transactions would not come under the GAAR provisions. It was held that timing of a transaction or a taxpayer would not be questioned under the GAAR provisions on sale and purchase of shares made by the assessee.

ii) In view of the aforesaid factual matrix of the case, we are of the considered opinion that the Department has not been able to show any arrangement to have been made by the petitioner in the course of selling its shares of M/s.HCL Technologies Pvt. Ltd., and it was a pure trading done by the petitioner with no knowledge of purchase and sale carried out by the petitioner. In the absence of any strong material made available by the Department meeting the requirements and ingredients that are reflected under Section 96(1) of the Act, we are of the considered opinion that the writ petition deserves to be and is accordingly allowed. The impugned order dated 23/01/2023 passed by respondent No.3 u/s. 144BA(6) of the Act for the A. Y. 2020-21 is set aside.”

Deduction u/s. 80-IA :— (A) Interest on FD — Funds kept aside periodically by way of FD — Obligation under the license agreement to replace cranes after a certain period — Funds parked in FD to meet contractual obligation — Funds were also parked in FD under a compliance order of the High Court due to a tariff dispute between the assessee and TAMP — Placement of FD imperative for the business — FD was not created for parking of surplus funds — Interest is eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA: (B) Interest on TDS refund — TDS wrongly deducted by customers — TDS was directly part of sales receipt of the assessee — Interest on TDS refund arose due to excess TDS deducted by the customers against the payment to be made to the assessee — TDS was part of business receipt of the assessee — Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA on interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.

38. [2025] 177 taxmann.com 707 (Bom.)

Gateway Terminals India (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT

A. Y. 2012-13 Date of order 26/08/2025

S. 80-IA of ITA 1961

Deduction u/s. 80-IA :— (A) Interest on FD — Funds kept aside periodically by way of FD — Obligation under the license agreement to replace cranes after a certain period — Funds parked in FD to meet contractual obligation — Funds were also parked in FD under a compliance order of the High Court due to a tariff dispute between the assessee and TAMP — Placement of FD imperative for the business — FD was not created for parking of surplus funds — Interest is eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA:

(B) Interest on TDS refund — TDS wrongly deducted by customers — TDS was directly part of sales receipt of the assessee — Interest on TDS refund arose due to excess TDS deducted by the customers against the payment to be made to the assessee — TDS was part of business receipt of the assessee — Assessee entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA on interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.

The assessee, a joint venture company, was engaged in the business of operating and maintaining a container terminal at Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) which was eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

During the previous year, the assessee earned interest income from FDs maintained with the banks. These funds were kept in FD with banks because under the license agreement with JNPT, the assessee was under an obligation to replace cranes after a certain period. These cranes were a significant portion of the machinery and equipment of the assessee. The failure to replace cranes as per the license agreement would result in revocation of the license. Therefore, a portion of funds were regularly deposited by way of FDs to meet contractual obligations required to be fulfilled in order to continue the business of maintaining the container terminal. Further, interest was also received on FD due to a tariff dispute between assessee and TAMP and, thus, funds were parked in compliance of order of High Court. In addition to the above, the assessee also earned interest on refund of taxes due to wrongful deduction of TDS by the customers of the Appellant.

In the return of income filed by the assessee, for the A. Y. 2012-13, deduction u/s. 80-IA was claimed which included the above interest income. The assessment was completed by allowing the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IA which included interest income on FD. The interest income on income-tax refund was taxed by the Assessing Officer under the head Income from Other Sources.

On appeal before the CIT(A), the CIT(A) enhanced the income of the assessee by denying deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Act in respect of interest on FD on the ground that it was not derived from an industrial undertaking. The Tribunal rejected the appeal filed by the assessee.

The assessee filed an appeal before the High Court against the said order. The assessee also filed miscellaneous application, which was rejected by the Tribunal. Against the order rejecting the miscellaneous application, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court.

The Bombay High Court disposed of both the appeal and the writ filed by the assessee and decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i) The assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA of the Act on the interest from FDs which was placed by the assessee for planning of replacement of equipments as per the provisions of the agreement with JNPT. The facts that the placement of fixed deposits was imperative for the purpose of carrying on the eligible business of the assessee. The placement of FDs was not for parking surplus funds which were lying idle. The assessee had used these FDs for purchasing cranes for the eligible business and there was a direct nexus between the FDs and the eligible business of the assessee. Thus, in view of the foregoing, the deduction in respect of interest on FD was allowed.

ii) TDS was wrongly deducted by the vendors/customers of the assessee from the payment made to the assessee for using the port facility and, therefore, the TDS wrongly deducted was directly a part of the sales receipt of the assessee from the eligible business. The TDS refund arose to the assessee due to the excess TDS cut by the customers against payment to be made to the assessee and therefore the TDS was a part of the business receipt of the assessee. Had the customers not deducted excess amount of TDS, the assessee would have received the surplus funds which would be used for the business purpose/ repayment of loans etc. The refund received by the assessee was an integral part connected with the receipt of business income by the assessee and the same could not be separated from the business of the assessee. In these circumstances, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA, on the interest received by it on TDS refunded to it.”

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 — Charitable purpose — Applicability of proviso to s. 2(15) — Donations received from donors after deducting an amount shown as deduction of tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J — AO treating receipts as consultancy fees and contractual income based on deduction of tax at source rejected exemption u/s. 11 — Assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected — Held, proviso to s. 2(15) cannot be invoked alleging that services rendered in relation to trade, commerce or business — Provison under which donor deducted tax alone could not determine nature of receipt — No element of trade, commerce or business activity established — Assessee is entitled to exemption — Assessment order and order rejecting revision petition set aside.

37. (2025) 476 ITR 489 (Delhi)

Aroh Foundation vs. CIT

A. Y. 2017-18 Date of order 05/02/2024

Ss. 2(15) proviso, 11, 12, 13(8), 194C, 194J and 264 of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption u/s. 11 — Charitable purpose — Applicability of proviso to s. 2(15) — Donations received from donors after deducting an amount shown as deduction of tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J — AO treating receipts as consultancy fees and contractual income based on deduction of tax at source rejected exemption u/s. 11 — Assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected — Held, proviso to s. 2(15) cannot be invoked alleging that services rendered in relation to trade, commerce or business — Provison under which donor deducted tax alone could not determine nature of receipt — No element of trade, commerce or business activity established — Assessee is entitled to exemption — Assessment order and order rejecting revision petition set aside.

The assessee is a non-Governmental organisation registered as a charitable institution u/s. 12A, 12AA and 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee claims to have been working for the upliftment of the poor, underprivileged children and women, health, preservation of the environment and other social causes. In order to fulfil its charitable objectives, the assessee receives various grants from the Government as well as the private sector which is exempted from tax u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act. During the previous year relevant to the A. Y. 2017-18, the assessee received the donations, which included receipts from donors who had deducted tax at source u/s.194C and 194J. The Assessing Officer denied exemption u/s. 11 and 12, treating these receipts as consulting fees and contractual income, invoking the proviso to section 2(15). The assessee’s revision petition u/s. 264 was rejected.

The assessee filed writ petition challenging the rejection order u/s. 264. The assessee contended that at no point of time, except for the A. Y. 2017-2018 was the charitable status of the assessee doubted by the respondent-Revenue and for all previous assessment years, specifically for the A. Ys. 2011-2012, 2012-2013, 2013-2014, and 2015-2016, under similar circumstances, exemption u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act was granted to the assessee and even for the subsequent assessment year, i.e., the A. Y. 2018-2019 as well, similar benefit was extended. However, the benefits for the relevant assessment year in question have been denied merely on the ground that the donor has deducted tax at source u/s. 194C and 194J of the Act, while allocating requisite grants to the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) In the instant case, the sole reason to construe the receipt amounting to ₹5,90,42,892 received by the donors under the tax regime is founded on the assumption that the same is towards professional/technical services or contractual income as tax at source was deducted under sections 194C and 194J of the Act.

ii) We, prima facie, find no merit in the above mentioned rationale as firstly, that alone cannot be the basis to conclude the aforesaid receipt to be considered under the category of consultancy fees and contractual income. Secondly, there is no element of activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business, or any activity of rendering any service in relation to any trade, commerce or business. Thirdly, in the absence of any cogent reason, receipts in question cannot be “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.

iii) If the deductor in its Income-tax return, under misconception, deducts tax at source u/ss. 194C and 194J of the Act, the same would not disentitle the assessee to claim benefit u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act unless the case of the assessee is specifically hit by the proviso of section 2(15) of the Act, which is not the case here. The proviso to section 2(15) of the Act would not get attracted merely on the basis of deduction of tax at source by the donor under a particular head.

iv) It is thus seen that deduction of tax at source by donor would not be the determinative factor for denial of benefits u/ss. 11 and 12 of the Act. The respondent-Revenue, in the instant case, in the preceding years as well as in the succeeding years, under almost similar circumstances, has accepted the exemption claimed by the assessee u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act and, therefore, should not have deviated from its consistent approach in denying benefits to the assessee.

v) Accordingly, we find that the assessment order dated December 22, 2019 and the order passed by the revisional authority dated March 27, 2021 suffer from material perversity. The writ petition is accordingly allowed and the impugned orders are hereby, set aside. The receipt of ₹5,90,42,892 shall not be treated as income and the assessee is entitled for exemptions enshrined u/s. 11 and 12 of the Act.”

Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) — Cash payment in excess of prescribed limit — Effect of s. 40A and rule 6DD — Payments to agents cannot be disallowed — Meaning of agent — Assessee’s supervisor acting as agent of assessee, and accounting to him for amounts received and disbursed to individual labourers — Supervisors not sub-contractors and payments made by them to labourers on assessee’s behalf not to be disallowed u/s. 40A(3).

36. (2025) 477 ITR 95 (Calcutta)

Sk. Jaynal Abddin vs. CIT

A. Y. 2006-07 Date of order 02/04/2024

S. 40A(3) of ITA 1961 and Rule 6DD of ITR 1962 and S 182 of Indian Contract Act, 1872

Business expenditure — Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) — Cash payment in excess of prescribed limit — Effect of s. 40A and rule 6DD — Payments to agents cannot be disallowed — Meaning of agent — Assessee’s supervisor acting as agent of assessee, and accounting to him for amounts received and disbursed to individual labourers — Supervisors not sub-contractors and payments made by them to labourers on assessee’s behalf not to be disallowed u/s. 40A(3).

The appellant-assessee is engaged in the business of embroidery and stitching. The assessee paid a sum of ₹1,21,49,190 for payment to labourers. According to the assessee, the aforesaid amount was paid to the labourers through supervisors who were employees of the assessee. The assessee used to draw a lump-sum amount from bank by cheque through his employees, i.e., supervisors for payment to be made to labourers. The supervisors used to make payment to labourers and give an account to the assessee in the form of a list containing payments made to each individual labourer. In none of the cases, the payment so made by the supervisors to individual labourer exceeded ₹20,000. The Assessing Officer, while passing the assessment order dated December 31, 2008 for the assessment year in question, i.e., A. Y. 2006-07, invoked section 40A(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by recording the following facts:

“The ground level labourers were not subject to professional tax, Employees’ State Insurance, provident fund, etc. There were no employer-employee relationship with the assessee and the labourers. The assessee simply got the work done by skilled labourers and the payment is ascertained on the basis of quality and quantity of the work done by them. The assessee in his submission dated December 30, 2008 further clarified that the job allotted to the worker are purely temporary. Workers are paid some times for few months even for a few days. Thus, labour welfare measures are neither taken up nor it is practicable. These workers are quite illiterate, partly homeless and fast changing the employer and work on piece rate on the condition of no work no pay.”

The Assessing Officer therefore inferred that the assessee could not produce satisfactory explanation for violation of the provisions of section 40A(3). Therefore, the Assessing Officer disallowed 20 per cent. of ₹1,21,49,191 that is ₹24,29,838 u/s. 40A(3) of the Act.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal and recorded the following finding of fact:

“I have carefully gone through the assessment order and explanation given by the appellant. The Assessing Officer has stated that the payments to the supervisor workers are in excess of ₹20,000 in cash for which he has disallowed the expenses in terms of section 40A(3) of the Income-tax Act. It has already been held in the preceding paragraphs that the so-called sub-contractors are actually supervisor worker and employees of the appellant-firm. The payments made to them are meant for disbursement amongst the workers. It would be seen from the labour sheets that no single payment to the worker exceeds ₹20,000 in cash. The practice followed by the appellant is to withdraw the aggregate amount of labour charges from bank and to disburse the same amongst the individual workers through the supervisor. In not a single case, the individual payments to each worker ever exceeded ₹20,000 as would be seen from the monthly pay sheet and wage summary sheet. Considering the totality of the facts and circumstances and having regard to the case laws cited above, it is held that the disallowance under section 40A(3) made by the Assessing Officer is not called for. Accordingly, the addition of ₹24,29,838 is deleted.”

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the Revenue and has recorded the following finding to hold that the supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee:

“We observe that the assessee with each of the above so-called supervisors ledger account has enclosed the copies of weekly work sheet showing the name of worker, inter alia, amount paid to each of them. However, on the top of the said work sheet, name of the said supervisor is stated. It is observed that the assessee was making lump-sum payment on an ad hoc basis for the purpose of further disbursement to the workers and not as per the amount payable by them to the individual workers. We also observe from each page of the ledger account placed in paper book (supra) that there is a closing balance. Had these supervisors been merely an employee of the assessee along with the other workers, we are of the considered view that there was no question of any closing balance as on March 31, 2006. If the assessee had made the payments to them for the purpose of further disbursement, the assessee would have paid the amount to the so-called supervisors the amounts which were actually payable to them. However, this is not the case. Considering the entries in the ledger account, it fortifies the views of the Assessing Officer that the so-called group leaders or supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee and the workers whose names are mentioned in the work sheet to whom the payments were made through respective so-called group leaders, who were working not under the assessee but under the said so-called group leader.”

On appeal by the assessee the Calcutta High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration:

“Whether the Tribunal was justified in law in judging the applicability of section 40A(3) of the Act with reference to the lump-sum amount paid to the leader of each group of workers for the purpose of disbursement to the individual workers on the appellant’s behalf and not with reference to the payment made to each individual worker and in holding that the group leader was the appellant’s sub-contractor or that the individual workers worked not under the appellant but under such group leader and its purported findings in that behalf are arbitrary, unreasonable and perverse?”

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee, answered the question in favour of the assessee and held as under:

“i) On perusal of the assessment order, we find that the Assessing Officer has not disputed the specific case of the appellant-assessee that the supervisors are his employees. The specific stand of the appellant-assessee that the supervisors are his employees, was supported by books of account which were before the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer recorded the finding that since the provisions of Employees’ State Insurance, Provident Fund, etc., were not followed by the assessee, therefore, the individual labourers are not employees of the assessee. The Assessing Officer nowhere disputed the stand of the assessee supported by books of account that the supervisors are employees of the assessee. In paragraph 11 of the impugned order the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal recorded a finding based on surmise and presumption that the supervisors are nothing but sub-contractors of the assessee. This finding is perverse inasmuch as firstly it is not supported by any evidence and secondly it is contrary to evidence on record in the form of books of account that the supervisors are the employees who have been paid salary. Therefore, the finding recorded by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal in the impugned order that the supervisors are sub-contractors, is perverse and is hereby set aside.

ii) Section 40A(3) of the Act afore-quoted, as it stood at the relevant time, clearly provides by the second proviso that no disallowance under this sub-section shall be made, where any payment in a sum exceeding ₹20,000 is made otherwise than by a crossed cheque drawn on a bank or by a crossed bank draft; in such cases and under such circumstances as may be prescribed, having regard to the nature and extent of banking facilities available, considerations of business expediency and other relevant factors. Circumstances as referred in the aforesaid second proviso to section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 have been prescribed in rule 6DD of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. Rule 6DD(1) clearly provides that no disallowance under sub-section (3) of section 40A shall be made where any payment in a sum exceeding twenty thousand rupees is made otherwise than by a crossed cheque drawn on a bank or by a crossed bank draft in the cases and circumstances where the payment is made by any person to his agent who is required to make payment in cash for goods or services on behalf of such person.

iii) Supervisors of the assessee acted as “agent” of the assessee. The word “agent” and “principal” has been defined in section 182 of the Indian Contract Act. An agent is a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with the third persons. The person for whom such act is done, or who is so represented, is called “principal”. Undisputed facts of the present case are that the appellant had withdrawn the amount from his bank account through his employees, i.e., supervisors for disbursement to individual labourers and the supervisors gave an account of the money so received for payment to labourers. Thus, the appellant-assessee is the principal and the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee. It is settled law that an authority of an agent may be express or implied. Submission of account by a supervisor acting as agent of the assessee, for the amount received and disbursed to individual labourers, leaves no manner of doubt that the supervisors who were employees of the assessee, acted as agents of the assessee for the purposes of disbursement of amount to the labourers. The payment so made by the supervisors had not exceeded ₹20,000 to any individual labourer. As per the provisions of section 211 of the Indian Contract Act, agent is bound to conduct the business of his principal according to the directions given by the principal or in the absence of such direction according to the customs which prevail in doing business of the same kind at the place where the agent conducts such business. In the present set of facts the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee in conducting the assessee’s business. There is no material or evidence on record to indicate or establish that the supervisors were sub-contractors. Under the circumstances, the finding recorded by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal that the supervisors were sub-contractors is perverse and contrary to law. Consequently, the said finding is hereby set aside.

iv) We have found that the supervisors acted as agent of the assessee to disburse the amount to individual labourers which in no case exceeded ₹20,000 to any individual labour. Therefore, in view of the circumstances prescribed in the second proviso to section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 read with rule 6DD(1) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 and the above-referred provisions of the Indian Contract Act, the aforesaid payment of ₹1,21,49,190 cannot fall within the scope of section 40A(3) of the Act, 1961. Consequently, the disallowance to the extent of 20 per cent made by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal and to add it in the income of the assessee cannot be sustained and is hereby set aside.

v) For all the reasons afore-stated, the impugned order of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal to the extent it upholds the disallowance u/s. 40A(3) of the Act, 1961 for ₹24,29,838 cannot be sustained and is hereby set aside. Consequently, the substantial question of law is answered in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.”

Applicability of section 132A — Stolen property — Theft at the premises of the assessee — Criminal Case — Stolen property found by the police — Application to the Trial Court for possession of the stolen property — Objection by the Income-tax Department — Ownership documents submitted by the assessee — Objection of the Tax Department not maintainable.

35. (2025) 345 CTR 433 (MP)

Shravan Kumar Pathak vs. State of MP

A. Y. 2022-23 Date of order 09/05/2024

Ss. 132A of ITA 1961 and 397, 401 & 457 of Cr.PC

Applicability of section 132A — Stolen property — Theft at the premises of the assessee — Criminal Case — Stolen property found by the police — Application to the Trial Court for possession of the stolen property — Objection by the Income-tax Department — Ownership documents submitted by the assessee — Objection of the Tax Department not maintainable.

Assessee is an individual. In the facts of this case, a theft took place at the house of the assessee wherein cash amounting to ₹3 crores and 4 kgs of gold was stolen. A police complaint was filed by the assessee and an FIR was registered by the police. After making investigation, the police arrested the accused and recovered the stolen articles. The Assessee filed an application u/s. 457 of the Criminal Procedure Code before the trial court for handing over the possession of articles seized by the police in his favour.

Against the application moved by the assessee applicant u/s. 457 of the CrPC, the Department filed an objection that the applicant kept such a huge cash amount and gold in his house with an intent to avoid tax liability, which otherwise is a loss to the Government and as such, custody of the seized articles should not be handed over to the assessee. In addition, the Assistant Director, Income Tax, had also asked for the custody of the articles recovered from the thieves.

The application filed by the assessee was rejected by the Trial Court on the ground that the inquiry by the Department had not been concluded and the amount may be subject matter of confiscation and therefore it would not be proper to hand over the possession to the assessee applicant.

Against this order by the Trial Court, the assessee applicant filed a revision application before the High Court. The Madhya Pradesh High Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) From the aforesaid enunciation of law, it is clear that in a criminal case, if any stolen property is seized by the police from the accused, then the Income Tax Department cannot claim possession over the said seized property by issuing notice u/s. 132A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the reason that the same is a separate proceeding and can be initiated only after decision of the Court.

ii) The trial Court on a mere objection raised by the Income Tax Department cannot reject the application preferred by the applicant for the reason that it is the duty of the Court to see whether the person claiming possession over the seized articles, satisfies the Court by producing cogent evidence of his/her ownership or not. From the record of the trial Court, it reveals that while claiming title over the seized articles, the applicant has not only filed a certificate issued by the Tahsildar but also filed other relevant documents of his title over the same and as such, after considering the same, an order in this regard ought to have been passed, but the Court has failed to do so.

iii) Under such circumstances, the impugned order dated 08/04/2022 (Annexure-P/6) passed by the trial Court is not sustainable in the eyes of law and as such, it is hereby set aside.”

Solicitor’s fees — Assessability as income — Amount received by solicitor from clients for certain specific task — Amount is received in fiduciary capacity — Amount is not assessable as income.

34. (2025) 475 ITR 473 (Cal):

CIT vs. Sanderson & Morgans:

A. Y. 2007-08: Date of order 7/2/2024:

S. 4 of ITA 1961

Solicitor’s fees — Assessability as income — Amount received by solicitor from clients for certain specific task — Amount is received in fiduciary capacity — Amount is not assessable as income.

The assessee was a solicitor. For the A. Y. 2007-08, in the return of income, the assessee had shown receipts from profession of ₹ 1,82,02,958. As per the certificate of tax deduction at source, the amount received was ₹ 5,56,88,817. The assessee was required to explain the difference of ₹ 3,74,85,859. The assessee explained that it had been receiving advances from its clients, a portion of which was spent on behalf of the client for counsel’s fees, stamp paper, court fees stamp, payment to rent controller, bank draft in lieu of stamp duty and registration fees, etc. The assessee also gave complete details of payment made head-wise. The Assessing Officer recognised that the money was spent by the assessee on behalf of its clients but added the differential amount of ₹ 3,74,85,859 to the income of the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the amount was not assessable as income of the assessee. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) When a solicitor receives money from his client, he does not do so as a trading receipt but he receives the money of the principal in his capacity as an agent and that also in a fiduciary capacity. The money so received does not have any profit-making quality about it when received. It remains money received by a solicitor as “client’s money” for being employed in the client’s cause. The solicitor remains liable to account for this money to his client. It is not assessable as his income.

ii) No adverse on the basis of section 145 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, could be drawn against the assessee. The money received by the assessee from clients were held by the assessee in a fiduciary capacity. That apart, the payment made by the assessee as agent on behalf of its clients (principal) under various heads, had not been doubted or disputed and instead a finding of fact regarding such payment had been arrived by Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal. The amount was not assessable as income in the hands of the assessee.”

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of Power of Commissioner — Mistake in the return of income — Detected when intimation u/s. 143(1) issued/received — Time limit to file revised return expired — Powers of the Commissioner wide enough to rectify a bonafide mistake committed by the assessee even after the expiry of the time limit to file revised return.

33. 2025 (7) TMI 1439 (Cal.):

Crown Electromechanical Pvt Ltd. vs. Pr.CIT:

A.Y.: 2022-23: Date of order 15/07/2025:

Ss. 264 of ITA 1961

Revision u/s. 264 — Scope of Power of Commissioner — Mistake in the return of income — Detected when intimation u/s. 143(1) issued/received — Time limit to file revised return expired — Powers of the Commissioner wide enough to rectify a bonafide mistake committed by the assessee even after the expiry of the time limit to file revised return.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2022-23 declaring total income at ₹ 9,54,872. However, due to oversight certain figures which were required to be provided in the profit and loss account under Part – A of the return were not included. Subsequently, the return was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued wherein the total income was determined at ₹3,58,76,000 and a demand of ₹1,02,60,400 was determined to be payable by the assessee. It is only when the intimation u/s. 143(1) was issued that the assessee detected the mistake in the return of income filed by the assessee.

By the time the assessee received intimation u/s. 143(1), the time limit to file revised return had expired. Therefore, the assessee resorted to section 264 and filed an application before the Principal Commissioner along with audited accounts and tax audit report and claimed that the profit of the assessee for the assessment year under consideration was only ₹ 9,54,872 as against ₹ 3,58,76,000 determined in the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) and thereby requested the Principal Commissioner to consider the income of the assessee correctly. The application was rejected vide order dated 4.3.2025 on the ground that apart from the assessee, none is competent to alter the return filed by the assessee.

Against this order of the Principal Commissioner, the assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Calcutta High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The learned advocate representing the respondent has placed reliance on the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. vs.CIT; (2006) 284 ITR 323 (SC) on the question whether the assessee could make a claim for deduction other than by filling a revised return.

ii) I note that the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the said case Goetze (India) Ltd. (supra) was dealing with the claim of deduction of the assessee introduced by way of a letter to the Assessing Officer which was disallowed on the ground that there was no provision under the Income Tax Act to make amendment in the return of income by modifying the application at the assessment stage without revising the return. Although, the assessee on an appeal had succeeded before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), the department was able to secure a favorable order by way of reversal on the further appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal. The matter thus, travelled to the Supreme Court. The Hon’ble Supreme Court while considering the above and the power of the Tribunal u/s. 254 of the said Act observed that the tribunal can entertain for the first time a point of law provided the fact on the basis of which the issue of law can be raised was before the Tribunal. While observing as such, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had, however, made it clear that the exercise of powers by Assessing Authority does not impinge upon the power of the Income Tax Tribunal u/s. 254 of the
said Act.

iii) Although, much stress has been laid on the aforesaid judgment, however, I find that in the said cause as noted above, the question as to whether an error by an assessee could be corrected by a revisional authority u/s. 264 was not an issue. As rightly pointed out by the learned advocate representing the petitioner and as would appear from the scheme of Section 264, the consistent view of this Court and all the other High Courts that the power u/s. 264 can be exercised when a bona fide mistake has been committed even by the assessee, an appropriate rectification of the return can be effected thereunder, as has been noted in the judgment delivered in the case of in Ena Chaudhuri vs. ACIT; (2023) 148 taxmann.com 100 (Cal.) in paragraph-11 thereof. The relevant portion of the judgment is extracted hereinbelow:

“11. In my considered view, in the facts and circumstances of the case, Commissioner in refusal to consider the aforesaid claim of the petitioner has misinterpreted and misconstrued the judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. (supra) as well as the scope of jurisdiction confer upon him u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by equating the same with that of the jurisdiction of the Assessing Officer in considering the claim of any allowance/deduction by an assessee in return or without filling any revised return.”

iv) In view thereof, it is clear that respondent no. 1 had committed error in failing to exercise jurisdiction, thereby rejecting the above application. Having regard thereto, I remand the matter back to the appropriate authority to decide the cause on the basis of the observation made herein. Accordingly, the order passed by respondent no. 1 is set aside.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand pending appeal before CIT(A) — Condition requiring 20 per cent., deposit of outstanding demand is contrary to law — Instruction issued by CBDT misconceived — Non-consideration of prima facie merits and undue hardship — Mechanical approach rejecting stay application solely due to non-deposit of 20 per cent amount is contrary to law — Order of conditional stay set aside — Matter remanded.

32. (2025) 475 ITR 96 (Del):

Centre For Policy Research vs. CIT:

A. Y. 2022-23: Date of order 09/05/2024:

Ss. 156 and 220(6) of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand pending appeal before CIT(A) — Condition requiring 20 per cent., deposit of outstanding demand is contrary to law — Instruction issued by CBDT misconceived — Non-consideration of prima facie merits and undue hardship — Mechanical approach rejecting stay application solely due to non-deposit of 20 per cent amount is contrary to law — Order of conditional stay set aside — Matter remanded.

The assessee was registered as a charitable trust u/s. 12A r.w.s. 12AA and 12AB(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee’s registration was cancelled with retrospective effect, which formed the subject matter of a separate writ petition wherein interim orders were passed. Following this cancellation, an assessment order was passed for the A. Y. 2022-23. The assessee filed appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) u/s. 246A of the Act. The assessee also applied for stay of the demand u/s. 220(6) of the Act, during the pendency of the Appeal. The Assessing Officer passed an order requiring the assessee to deposit 20 per cent of the outstanding demand as a precondition for granting protection, failing which recovery proceedings would be initiated.

The assessee filed writ petition against this order. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The order rejecting the stay of demand u/s. 220(6) did not consider either the prima facie merits of the case or the issue of undue hardship to the assessee. The Assessing Officer had erred in proceeding in the assumption that the application for stay of demand could not be entertained without 20 per cent pre-deposit which was a requirement mentioned in the CBDT office memorandum. Such requirement could not be treated as inflexible or inviolable. The quantum of deposit would depend on the facts and circumstances of each case after considering factors such as prima facie case, undue hardship, and likelihood of success.

ii) We, accordingly, allow the instant writ petition and set aside the impugned order dated May 3, 2024. The matter shall in consequence stand remitted to the Assessing Officer who shall examine the application for stay of demand afresh and bearing in mind the legal principles as enunciated in National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) vs. Dy. CIT (Exemption) [(2024) 470 ITR 493 (Delhi)].”

Penalty u/s. 270A — Debatable issue — Receipts chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ u/s. 9(1)(vii) or ‘Fees for included services’ under Article 12 of the DTAA between India and USA — Divergent views taken by the High Courts — Two views possible — Penalty u/s. 270A not leviable.

31. 2025 (8) TMI 768 (Kar):

Pr.CIT(IT) vs. IBM Australia Limited.:

A. Y. 2018-19: Date of order 31/07/2025:

Ss. 9(1)(vii) and 270A of ITA 1961

Penalty u/s. 270A — Debatable issue — Receipts chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ u/s. 9(1)(vii) or ‘Fees for included services’ under Article 12 of the DTAA between India and USA — Divergent views taken by the High Courts — Two views possible — Penalty u/s. 270A not leviable.

The Assessee Company is a tax resident of Australia filed its return of income and claimed a refund. During the year under consideration, the Assessee had received a sum of about ₹ 65.38 crores from IBM India Limited, a company incorporated in India towards IT Support, including recovery of salary expenses of the employees that were seconded to IBM India. The Assessee’s return was selected for scrutiny and the subject matter of dispute was as to whether the said receipts were chargeable to tax as ‘Fees for Technical Service’ (FTS) u/s. 9(1)(vii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or Fees for Included Service under Article 12 of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and USA. The Assessing Officer penalty u/s. 270A of the Act.

The Tribunal set aside the penalty. The Tribunal had examined the nature of the disputes and had further noted that the decision of this Court in Flipkart Internet (P). Limited vs. DCIT (International Taxation): [2022] 139 taxmann.com 595], had favoured the Assessee. The Tribunal held that given the nature of the disputes, clearly, two views are possible. Thus, the penalty u/s. 270A of the Act could not be levied, as the question involved was a vexed one.

The Karnataka High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and upheld the view of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The question whether such receipts would fall within the scope of FTS/FIS has been subject matter before various Courts. The Hon’ble High Court noted that while most High Courts took a favourable view that such proceeds would not fall within FTS, the Delhi High Court in the case of M/s. Centrica India Offshore Private Limited v. CIT [(2014) 44 taxmann.com 300 (Del.)] had taken the view that secondment of employees would result in absorption of knowledge by the entity to whom such employees had been seconded. Given the possible views, the assessee had opted for Vivad se Vishwas Scheme and settled the issue regarding the levy of tax.

ii) The Assessee operated under the reasonable and bona fide belief that the payments received were not subject to taxation under the Act. We find no infirmity in the said order and no substantial question of law exists for consideration by this court.”

Offence and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Assessee filed a return, accepted with a refund — French Government information under DTAA alleged assessee held Swiss bank accounts — A search conducted u/s. 132 — No incriminating evidence found — Addition made on account of alleged foreign accounts — Tribunal set it aside — Criminal complaints u/s. 276C, 276D, and 277 for tax evasion and non-compliance with a notice to sign a consent form filed — Information from French, not Swiss, authorities was unauthenticated, and no evidence supported tax evasion — Without credible evidence, sections 276C, 276D, and 277 were inapplicable, and complaints were quashed — Non-signing of consent form was penalized under section 271, not warranting criminal proceedings.

30. [2025] 176 taxmann.com 771 (Del.):

Anurag Dalmia vs. ITO:

A. Ys. 2006-07 and 2007-08:

Date of order 21/07/2025:

Ss. 276C r.w.s. 5, 271, 276D and 277 of ITA 1961

Offence and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Assessee filed a return, accepted with a refund — French Government information under DTAA alleged assessee held Swiss bank accounts — A search conducted u/s. 132 — No incriminating evidence found — Addition made on account of alleged foreign accounts — Tribunal set it aside — Criminal complaints u/s. 276C, 276D, and 277 for tax evasion and non-compliance with a notice to sign a consent form filed — Information from French, not Swiss, authorities was unauthenticated, and no evidence supported tax evasion — Without credible evidence, sections 276C, 276D, and 277 were inapplicable, and complaints were quashed — Non-signing of consent form was penalized under section 271, not warranting criminal proceedings.

The assessee filed Income Tax Returns for 2006-07 and 2007-08, declaring total income, which were finalized with refunds issued u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. In 2011, French authorities, under the DTAA, informed that the assessee held bank accounts in HSBC Private Bank, Switzerland, linked to four accounts as a beneficial holder.

Based on the information received, a search u/s. 132 of the Act was carried out on 20.01.2012 at the premises of the assessee but no incriminating material was found against the assessee. Assessee’s statements were recorded u/s. 132(4) wherein the assessee denied having any account in HSBC Bank.

In response to the notice issued u/s. 153A, the assessee filed return of income declaring the same income as was previously disclosed in his earlier returns. In the course of assessment, the assessee was required to sign the consent waiver form to procure details of his Bank account from the Swiss Bank. The assessee attended the proceedings through his Chartered Accountant and submitted response and filed the details from time to time. Thereafter, the assessment was completed vide order dated 23.03.2015 wherein certain additions on account of undisclosed alleged Foreign Bank Accounts, particularly the HSBC Bank in Switzerland and the interest presumed to have been received from the alleged Foreign Bank Accounts for the years 2006-07 and 2007-08 were made u/s. 69 of the Act. Additionally, a penalty along with interest, was imposed vide order dated 30.06.2015.

On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. On further appeal before the Tribunal, the additions made by the AO were set aside.

Subsequently, in January 2016, criminal complaint u/s. 276C(1)(i), 277(1) and 276(D) of the Act were filed against the assessee for wilful attempt to evade tax in relation the alleged Foreign Bank Accounts in HSBC Bank, Switzerland, alleged false verification given while filing original Return of Income; non-compliance of notice wherein the assessee was required to sign “the Consent Form”.

The assessee filed Criminal Petition before the Hon’ble High Court seeking quashing of the complaints on the ground that the appeal was decided in favour of the assessee by the Tribunal and since the order of the AO was set aside, the criminal proceedings initiated against the assessee became infructuous.

The High Court resolved the petitions in favour of the assessee, on broadly 3 questions as follows:

i. Whether the information received from France under DTAA can be relied upon to initiate criminal case against the accused?

The Hon’ble High Court held that unauthenticated documents received from the French Government under the DTAA without verification by Swiss Authorities and unaccompanied by supporting incriminating material found during a search do not provide sufficient grounds to initiate criminal proceedings. The presence of the assessee’s name in such documents alone does not shift the burden of proof onto the assessee.

ii. Whether the assessee could be compelled to sign the consent waiver form?

The Hon’ble Court stated that failing to sign the Consent Waiver Form, without authenticated incriminating evidence, cannot be considered an offence under Section 276D or as evidence of undisclosed income; however, this non-compliance may result in a penalty under Section 271(1)(b) but does not warrant criminal prosecution.

iii. Whether criminal complaints can be sustained when the assessment order has been set aside by the Tribunal for want of incriminating material?

The Court also concluded that criminal complaints u/s. 276C(1)(i), 276D, and 277(1) are not sustainable when the ITAT has set aside the Assessment Order due to lack of incriminating material, as there is no prima facie case for concealment or false statement that would justify prosecution.

The court emphasised that prosecution requires sufficient evidence to establish a prima facie case, which was absent here, and thus quashed the criminal complaints.

Assessment — Rejection of books of account — Estimation of net profit at 8% — Disallowance u/s. 43B while computing income and tax liability — Since profit was estimated after rejecting books of account Tribunal could not restore the matter to the Assessing Officer to consider whether addition was required to be made.

29. [2025] 177 taxmann.com 181 (Cal.):

Skyscraper Projects (P.) Ltd. vs. Addl.CIT:

A. Ys. 2012-13: Date of order 28/07/2025:

S. 43B of ITA 1961

Assessment — Rejection of books of account — Estimation of net profit at 8% — Disallowance u/s. 43B while computing income and tax liability — Since profit was estimated after rejecting books of account Tribunal could not restore the matter to the Assessing Officer to consider whether addition was required to be made.

The Assessee is engaged in the business of civil construction. The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2012-13. The Assessee’s return was selected for scrutiny. In the course of assessment, the Assessing Officer rejected the books of account of the Assessee and estimated the net profit at 8%, as was done in the earlier assessment years. However, while computing the tax liability, the Assessing Officer made a disallowance u/s. 43B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and added the said amount while computing tax liability.

CIT(A) held that once the Assessing Officer has estimated the income after rejecting books of account, it is presumed that all the provisions of sections 29 to 43D have been considered and no further addition on account of section 43B was required. On appeal by the Department the Tribunal restored the issue to the file of the Assessing Officer to verify the claim of the assessee in respect of the VAT / Service tax liability paid during the year which had already suffered tax on account of addition made under section 43B of the Act in the preceding year.

The Calcutta High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee, took note of the various decisions by the other High Courts which laid down the position that when the profits are estimated, it implies that the Assessing Officer has not relied on the books of accounts and if this fact is accepted then the estimation made by the Assessing Officer of net profit will take care of every addition related to business income or business receipts and no further disallowance can be made and held as under:

“i) In the light of the above legal position and also the undisputed fact being that the gross profit was estimated after rejecting the books of accounts, the order passed by the learned Tribunal restoring the matter to the Assessing Officer is unnecessary and not called for. For the above reasons, the appeal filed by the assessee is allowed.

ii) The substantial questions of law are answered in favour of the assessee and the order passed by the CIT(A) dated 19th August, 2019 stands restored.”

TDS — Statutory authority — Duty to be fair in its commercial dealings — Statutory authority entering into contract with firm for supply of material and performance of engineering work — Tax deducted at source not deposited with Department — Statutory authority retaining part of bill amounts due to firm for its income-tax contingency — Statutory authority had no right to retain any amount due to firm — High Court directed the statutory authority to return withheld amount with interest — Cost imposed on statutory authority to be recovered from its managing director.

28. (2025) 474 ITR 271 (Jharkhand):

Anvil Cables (P) Ltd. vs. State of Jharkhand:

Date of order 08.04.2024:

Sections 195 and 201(1A)

TDS — Statutory authority — Duty to be fair in its commercial dealings — Statutory authority entering into contract with firm for supply of material and performance of engineering work — Tax deducted at source not deposited with Department — Statutory authority retaining part of bill amounts due to firm for its income-tax contingency — Statutory authority had no right to retain any amount due to firm — High Court directed the statutory authority to return withheld amount with interest — Cost imposed on statutory authority to be recovered from its managing director.

The petitioner-firm provided comprehensive engineering, procurement and construction services to the core sector industries in India. The State authority JBVNL entered into a contract with the petitioner for rural electrification work. The JBVNL deducted tax at source at two per cent. From the bill raised by the petitioner for the supply of material and also retained an amount on the pretext of “Income-tax contingencies”. The petitioner requested the JBVNL to release such amount so withheld and also informed that the amount withheld by it was not reflected in Form 26AS. The JBVNL stated that the amount withheld had been kept back to safeguard its interest and that the kept back amount would be released or the tax deducted at source certificate would be issued depending on the outcome of the appeal filed by it against the demand notice u/s. 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the petitioner and held as under:

“i) In our opinion, the demand notice issued to the JBVNL that it committed default in not making tax at source deductions cannot cloak the JBVNL with any authority or even an excuse to withhold a certain amount from the running bills of the contractor. This is quite curious that the JBVNL seeks to take a stand before the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) that it was not under an obligation to deduct two per cent tax deducted at source from the running bills of the contractor raised towards the supply of materials and, on the other hand, it has retained ₹2,90,32,000 towards payment of two per cent tax at source deductions on that count. This is also relevant that the deductions by the JBVNL starting from the financial year 2016-2017 have accumulated to ₹2,90,32,000 but it did not deposit the said amount with the Income-tax Department. The amount so withheld from the running bills of the petitioner-firm is speculative and a kind of wagering step by JBVNL. The JBVNL has no authority in law to withhold ₹2,90,32,000 as “kept back” amount for the purpose of litigation with the Income-tax Department. The action of JBVNL in withholding ₹2,90,32,000 is therefore held illegal and had to be returned with interest.

ii) This is well-settled that the explicit terms of the contract are always the final words with regard to the intention of the parties. In ONGC Ltd. vs. Saw Pipes Ltd. [(2003) 5 SCC 705; 2003 SCC OnLine SC 545.] the hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the intention of the parties is to be gathered from the words used in the agreement. In Mahabir Auto Stores vs. Indian Oil Corporation [(1990) 3 SCC 752; 1990 SCC OnLine SC 43.] the hon’ble Supreme Court held that the State or its instrumentalities are “State” under article 12 of the Constitution and its actions even in commercial transactions must be reasonable, fair and just. In Mahabir Auto Stores vs. Indian Oil Corporation [(1990) 3 SCC 752; 1990 SCC OnLine SC 43.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court further indicated that the requirement of being just, fair and reasonable on the part of the State and its instrumentalities extends in cases where no formal contract has been entered.

iii) Any unjust retention of money or property of another shall be against the fundamental principles of justice, equity and good conscience. The unauthorised deductions from the running bills of the petitioner-firm are patently illegal. Such deductions caused losses to the petitioner-firm which filed its Income-tax returns but was deprived of ₹2,90,32,000 and thereby suffered business or atleast interest losses. On the other hand, the JBVNL was unjustly enriched and need to restitute the petitioner-firm. The refund of ₹2,90,32,000 must therefore carry interest as a matter of course. In Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. UOI [(2011) 8 SCC 161; (2011) 4 SCC (Civ) 87; 2011 SCC OnLine SC 961.] , the hon’ble Supreme Court held that this is the bounden duty of the court to neutralise unjust enrichment by imposing compound interest and punitive costs.

iv) As per clause 10.7.4 of the Jharkhand State Electricity Regulatory Commission, Ranchi (Electricity Supply Code) Regulation, 2015, the interest rate to be paid on any excess amount paid by the consumer is equivalent to the interest rate paid by the consumer on delay payment surcharge. Therefore, the JBVNL shall pay interest over the withheld amount of ₹2,90,32,000 as per clause 10.7.4 of the Regulation of 2015.

v) The petitioner-firm was unnecessarily dragged to the court and, that too, knowingly and for no fault on its part. The litigation file that has been produced in the court reveals that a decision in the context of the order dated March 14, 2024 passed by this court has been taken at the highest level of the managing director of JBVNL. Therefore, we are of the definite opinion that the JBVNL must be saddled with cost of ₹5 lakhs which shall be recovered from the managing director. This writ petition is allowed, in the aforesaid terms.”

TDS — Credit for TDS — Tax deducted by employer but not deposited with Government — In view of provision of section 205, it is made clear that the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income — Both the circular dt. 1st June 2015 and the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March 2016 have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in section 205 — Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the assessee — Credit of the tax shall be given to the Assessee and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the assessee shall be entitled to the refund, with statutory interest

27. [2025] 343 CTR 133 (Ori):

Malay Kar vs. UOI:

AY. 2013-14: Date of order 03.05.2024:

Sections 199 and 205

TDS — Credit for TDS — Tax deducted by employer but not deposited with Government — In view of provision of section 205, it is made clear that the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income — Both the circular dt. 1st June 2015 and the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March 2016 have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in section 205 — Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the assessee — Credit of the tax shall be given to the Assessee and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the assessee shall be entitled to the refund, with statutory interest.

The Assessee is an employee of M/s. Corporate Ispat Alloys Ltd. During the previous year relevant to A. Y. 2013-14, the Assessee received gross salary of ₹25,39,766 out of which a sum of ₹5,90,112 was deducted at source u/s. 192 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, in the Form 26AS, TDS of only ₹3,21,379 was reflected as deducted and paid by the employer. Thus, there was a difference of ₹2,68,733. The return of income filed by the Assessee was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act was issued. The said intimation was issued without taking into account TDS of ₹2,68,733 deducted by the employer and interest u/s. 234B and 234C was also charged for shortfall in payment of prepaid taxes.

On receipt of intimation, the Assessee addressed a letter to the Managing Director of the employer company for the mismatch of tax deducted u/s. 192 of the Act. The Assessee also sent a letter to the Commissioner of Income-tax (TDS) for initiation of appropriate action against the deductor / employer. The Assessee’s contention was that as per section 143(1)(c), the CPC is under legal obligation to take into account the tax deducted at source, tax collected at source, advance tax, etc. Despite the communication made to CIT(TDS), there was no communication with regard to the steps taken by the authority.

Due to inaction on the part of CPC in granting credit of tax u/s. 143(1)(c), the Assessee filed writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Orissa High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The circular and the Office Memorandum have been issued in consonance with the provisions contained in s. 205 of the IT Act. In the Office Memorandum dt. 11th March, 2016, it has been mentioned that the Board had issued directions to the field officers that in case of an assessee whose tax has been deducted at source but not deposited to the Government’s account by the deductor, the deductee assessee shall not be called upon to pay the demand to the extent tax has been deducted from his income. It was further specified that s. 205 of the IT Act puts a bar on direct demand against the assessee in such cases and the demand on account of tax credit mismatch in such situations cannot be enforced coercively.

ii) Sec. 205 of the IT Act read with CBDT circular, referred to above, being statutory one, the said provision has to be adhered to in letter and spirit and to give effect to such provision, CBDT circular was issued on 1st June, 2015 and the Office Memorandum was issued on 11th March, 2016. Therefore, for tax credit mismatch cannot be enforced coercively against the petitioner assessee.

iii) In view of the provisions contained in s. 205 of the IT Act, which provides that where tax is deductible at the source the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from that income and its applicability is not depending upon the credit for tax being given under s. 199 of the IT Act. Thereby, the Department shall not deny the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer during the relevant financial years to the petitioner. The credit of the tax shall be given to the petitioner and if in the interregnum, any recovery or adjustment is made by the Department, the petitioner shall be entitled to the refund, with the statutory interest”

Return — Condonation of delay — Mistake in filling appropriate columns in the return vis a vis intimation by CPC — Assessee submitted corrected return in response to intimation dated 03.09.2019 issued by the CPC — Since the time to file revised return had expired on 31.03.2019, the Assessee filed corrected / revised return u/s. 119(2)(b) — Respondent was only required to consider the revised return as there was only a correction of mistake in the presentation of the correct figures — No impact of the corrected return on the income of the Assessee — It was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that Assessee is entitled to refund — Respondent ought to have allowed the application to condone the delay in filing the corrected / revised return.

26. [2025] 344 CTR 179 (Guj.):

Ujala Dyeing & Printing Mills (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT:

A.Y.: 2018-19: Date of order 04.03.2025:

Secions 119(2)(b), 143(1)(a) and 237

Return — Condonation of delay — Mistake in filling appropriate columns in the return vis a vis intimation by CPC — Assessee submitted corrected return in response to intimation dated 03.09.2019 issued by the CPC — Since the time to file revised return had expired on 31.03.2019, the Assessee filed corrected / revised return u/s. 119(2)(b) — Respondent was only required to consider the revised return as there was only a correction of mistake in the presentation of the correct figures — No impact of the corrected return on the income of the Assessee — It was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that Assessee is entitled to refund — Respondent ought to have allowed the application to condone the delay in filing the corrected / revised return.

The Assessee, a private limited company, filed its return of income for AY 2018-19 on 24.09.2018 declaring total income at ₹81,85,340 and claimed a refund of ₹38,08,115. On 03.09.2019, the Assessee received an intimation from CPC pointing out mismatch in respect of disallowance of expenditure reported in Form 3CD but not taken into account in computing the total income of the Assessee. This was as a result of clubbing of disallowance of expenditure under column 23 instead of column 15 and column 18. In response to the intimation, the Assessee corrected its return of income and filed the corrected return of income electronically as per the intimation received from CPC. Since the mistake was corrected by showing disallowance under correct columns, the total income of the Assessee in the corrected return remained unchanged.

The CPC regarded the return as belated revised return and forwarded the same to the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO) and deemed it to be a return filed u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act and intimated the Assessee vide letter dated 23.09.2019. Pursuant to receipt of the said communication, the Assessee filed applications dated 30.07.2020 and 06.08.2020 u/s. 119(2)(b) to condone the delay in filing the corrected return of income so as to consider it as revised return for processing the same by the CPC.

Thereafter, a show cause notice dated 10.05.2023 was issued requiring the Assessee to show cause why the application for condonation of delay should not be rejected. The Assessee filed its response and also furnished the details called for by further notice. However, the application was rejected vide order dated 23.08.2023. Thereafter the Assessee, vide letters dated 07.10.2023 and 10.02.2024 requested the Assessing Officer to process the original return filed by the Assessee. Since no response was received, the Assessee filed grievance on 16.03.2024 before the CBDT which was also rejected on 18.02.2024. Once again, the Assessee wrote a letter to the Assessing Officer to grant the refund of ₹38,08,120.

Since no response was received, the Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Gujarat High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The CPC issued the intimation dated 03/09/2019 pointing out the mistake in the return and therefore the petitioner was called upon to submit the response thereto. The petitioner having found such mistake has therefore rightly filed a corrected/revised return under Section 119 (2) (b) of the Act as the time to file the revised return had already expired on 31/03/2019 as per the provision of Section 139(5) of the Act. The respondent was therefore only required to consider such revised return as there was only a correction of the mistake in the presentation of the correct figures in the column-15 and column-18 instead of clubbing the same in column-23 of the return and instead thereof, the respondent has enlarged the scope of Section 119(2)(b) by not redressing such minor corrections to be made in the return of income and has rejected the same on the ground of genuine hardship and advising the petitioner to avail the other legal resources under Section 254 or Section 154 of the Act unmindful of the fact situation that there was no impact on the corrected return on the taxable income of the petitioner and it was only to facilitate the CPC to process the return so that the petitioner is entitled to the refund, if any, so as to compute the taxable income of the petitioner in accordance with law as provided under Section 143(1)(a) of the Act. The respondent no.2 ought to have allowed the applications to condone the delay in filing the corrected/revised return which was a formality only as only the correct presentation in Form-ITR-6 was not made by the petitioner which has prevented the CPC from processing the return.

ii) Such an irresponsible approach by the respondent no.2 being unmindful of the fact situation has resulted into filing of this petition causing great hardship to the petitioner preventing and denying the legitimate refund to which the petitioner was otherwise eligible to get in the year 2019 itself.

iii) Considering the above fact situation and in view of the foregoing reasons, these petitions succeed and are accordingly allowed. Impugned order dated 24/08/2023 passed u/s. 119 (2)(b) is hereby quashed and set aside and the delay in filing the revised return is hereby ordered to be condoned and respondent no.1 is directed to process/transmit the revised return filed by the petitioner on 6/09/2019 to CPC to process the same in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — Limitation — Notice challenged in writ petition before the High Court — Direction of the Court and quashing of assessment order — Case sent back for deciding assessee’s objection and to pass further orders — No observations on the merits of the case — Applicability of extended period of limitation — In consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction Department cannot claim the benefit of extended period of limitation – Assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 and 144B is beyond the period of limitation.

25. [2025] 343 CTR 181 (Bom.):

Wavy Construction LLP vs. ACIT:

A. Y. 2012-13:

Date of order 20.12.2024:

Sections 143(3), 144B, 147, 148, 153(3)(ii) and 260

Reassessment — Limitation — Notice challenged in writ petition before the High Court — Direction of the Court and quashing of assessment order — Case sent back for deciding assessee’s objection and to pass further orders — No observations on the merits of the case — Applicability of extended period of limitation — In consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction Department cannot claim the benefit of extended period of limitation – Assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 147 and 144B is beyond the period of limitation.

The Assessee filed its return of income for AY 2012-13 on 29.09.2012. The return was processed and intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued. Subsequently, in 2018, notice u/s. 133(6) was issued by the DDIT(I&CI) calling for details in respect of transaction of sale of land by the Assessee. The Assessee filed the details and replies from time to time. Thereafter, in the aforesaid backdrop, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued on 29.03.2019 for re-opening of assessment. The Assessee filed its objections against the re-opening of assessment. The objections raised by the Assessee were rejected vide order dated 25.11.2019 and the assessment was completed vide order dated 19.05.2021.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing objections passed by the Assessing Officer. The Hon’ble High Court, vide order dated 13.12.2019 granted ad interim stay on the notice and the further proceedings. The said interim order continued until 21.09.2021 when the High Court passed the final order disposing the writ petition. While disposing the writ petition, the High Court remanded the matter to the Assessing Officer thereby directing him to consider the objections filed by the Assessee and pass further orders and also gave opportunity to the Assessee to make further submissions. However, there were no observations / findings given on the merits of the case.

In accordance with the directions of the High Court, an opportunity was given to the Assessee and the Assessee filed further submissions. Thereafter, the objections of the Assessee were rejected vide order dated 14.10.2021. The assessment proceedings were transferred to the National Faceless Assessment Centre. Notices were issued u/s. 142(1). However, since the Assessee was not aware of the issuance of notice us/. 142(1), the same remained to be replied. Subsequently, a show cause notice was issued upon the Assessee requiring the Assessee to furnish the response as to why the proposed addition should not be made. In response to the show cause notice, the Assessee filed its reply contending that the assessment was time barred. The Assessee stated that the as per provisions of section 153(2), the time limit for passing the order was 9 months from the end the financial year in which notice u/s. 148 was issued and since the notice u/s. 148 was issued on 29.03.2019, the time limit to pass the order expired on 31.12.2019. Further, the Assessee submitted that even if the period during which the proceedings were stayed by the High Court were excluded, the order ought to have been passed on or before 20.11.2021. It was submitted that all the notices issued after 20.11.2021 were time barred and had no validity in law. The Assessee also filed its response on the merits of the case. Once again show cause notice was issued in September 2022 which was replied by the Assessee and final assessment order came to be passed on 28.09.2022 wherein addition as proposed to be made was added to the total income of the Assessee.

Against this order of re-assessment, the Assessee once again filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Hon’ble Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) It is clear that the order dated 21 September 2021 passed by the Division Bench (supra) does not contain any findings necessary for disposal of the writ petition in a particular manner, so as to govern the issues which would be decided by the Assessing Officer. We may observe that in the context in hand when the Revenue seeks to take recourse to sub-section (6)(i) of Section 153 of the IT Act so as to avail all the benefits of extended period as stipulated by such provision, necessarily the Court is required to apply the principles as enunciated in the decisions as noted by us hereinabove, so as to make an exception from the applicability of sub-sections (1), (1A) and (2) and subject to the provisions of sub-sections (3), (5) and (5A) can be, only in the event when such assessment, reassessment and recomputation is being made qua the assessee “in consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction” of any Court, as relevant in the present facts.

ii) The words “in consequence of or to give effect” would be required to be read in conjunction. As both these expressions are complementary to each other namely that such assessment, reassessment or recomputation is required to be made on the assessee or any person in consequence of or to give effect to any finding or direction contained in an order of the nature as specified in clause (i) of sub-section (6). Thus, the consequence needs to be created by such order and as a result of a finding or direction as may be contained in an order, as the provision envisages. It is but for natural, that any finding or direction needs to be taken to its logical conclusion and which is the sequel which would emanate from a finding or direction in the order. Thus, the intention of the legislature in providing for such expression is that an order which clause (i) of sub-section (6) talks about, is necessarily required to be an order which not only guides, but controls the course of such assessment, reassessment or recomputation, and not otherwise.

iii) As the order dated 21 September 2021 passed by this Court on the petitioner’s writ petition (supra) do not, in any manner, record a finding or issues directions as understood in terms of clause (i) of sub-section(6) of Section 153. We do not see how the Revenue can avoid the consequence of the limitation in the present case, being triggered by the first proviso below Explanation 1. In our opinion, as rightly contended on behalf of the petitioner, applying the provisions of clause (ii) below Explanation 1 read with the first proviso below Explanation 1, certainly the limitation for the Assessing Officer to pass the Assessment Order had come to an end on 20 November 2021 i.e. sixty days from 21 September 2021 (orders passed by the High Court) by applying the extended period as per the first proviso below Explanation 1, whereas the impugned assessment order has been passed almost ten months after the limitation expired. Thus, the case of the Revenue in regard to applicability of the extended period under sub-section (6)(i) of Section 153 cannot be accepted.”

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Payment to non-resident — Royalty — Amount paid for use and resale of computer software through distribution or end user licence agreement is not royalty — Not assessable in India.

24. (2025) 475 ITR 57 (Bom):

CIT(LTU) vs. Reliance Industries Ltd.:

Date of order 21.06.2024:

Section 9(1)(vi)

Non-resident — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Payment to non-resident — Royalty — Amount paid for use and resale of computer software through distribution or end user licence agreement is not royalty — Not assessable in India.

In its application as filed u/s. 195(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the assessee raised contentions as to why remittance made to such foreign parties was not liable to be taxed as “royalty”, under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act. Such application of the assessee was rejected by an order dated September 14, 2003 passed by the Deputy Director of Income-tax (International Taxation).

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed appeal filed by the assessee. In the appeal filed by the Revenue, the primary issue which had arisen for consideration of the Tribunal was as to whether the remittance made by the assessee to foreign parties on account of purchase of certain computer software, required for the business of the assessee, would be liable to tax in India as “royalty” under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or would it be a business income of the recipient companies. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue,

In the appeal filed by the Revenue before the High Court the following substantial question of law which we have reframed:

“Whether the payments made by the assessee for obtaining computer software were liable to be to taxed in India as royalty under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act?”

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) In the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2021) 432 ITR 471 (SC); (2022) 3 SCC 321; 2021 SCC OnLine SC 159; (2021) 125 taxmann.com 42 (SC).] the Supreme Court laid down that amount paid by resident Indian end user and distributer to non-resident computer software manufacturers and suppliers, as consideration for the resale or use of the computer software through end user licence agreement and distribution agreement, is not royalty for the use of copyright of computer software, and that it does not give rise to any income taxable in India.

ii) Accordingly, the remittance made by the assessee to foreign parties on account of purchase of certain computer software, required for the business of the assessee, would not be liable to tax in India as “royalty” under the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act.”

Reassessment — International transactions — Arm’s length price — Condition precedent — Notice after four years — Failure to disclose material facts necessary for assessment — Unless assessee shown to be aware of facts, it cannot be said to have failed to disclose them — Nothing to show assessee was aware of third party prices — Transfer pricing study of assessee accepted by Transfer Pricing Officer and assessment completed on basis thereof — Presumption that query raised was considered in assessment — Assessment on basis of change of opinion — Notice not valid:

23 Sanofi India Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT:

(2025) 474 ITR 114 (Bom):

A. Y. 2007-08: Date of order 29 February 2024:

Ss. 92CA, 143(3) 147 and 148 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — International transactions — Arm’s length price — Condition precedent — Notice after four years — Failure to disclose material facts necessary for assessment — Unless assessee shown to be aware of facts, it cannot be said to have failed to disclose them — Nothing to show assessee was aware of third party prices — Transfer pricing study of assessee accepted by Transfer Pricing Officer and assessment completed on basis thereof — Presumption that query raised was considered in assessment — Assessment on basis of change of opinion — Notice not valid:

The assessee petitioner filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2007-2008 on October 30, 2007 declaring a total income of ₹2,33,67,08,748. Subsequently, a revised return was filed on March 25, 2009 wherein a claim of additional tax deducted at source of ₹19,86,957 was made. The case was selected for scrutiny and assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was made on December 28, 2010 determining a total income of ₹240,48,78,390.

Subsequently, the petitioner received a notice dated November 11, 2013 u/s. 148 of the Act for the A. Y. 2007-2008, has escaped assessment. By a communication dated December 16, 2013, the petitioner also received the reasons recorded for reopening of the assessment. The petitioner objected to the reopening and the petitioner’s objections were rejected by an order dated March 31, 2015.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The revenue contended that the reopening was based on the transfer pricing study of the subsequent assessment year, which is the A. Ys. 2008-2009 and 2009-2010. In our view, that would still not help the Assessing Officer to overcome the condition to reopen, namely, failure to truly and fully disclose material facts.

ii) As held by the apex court in Calcutta Discount Co. Ltd. vs. ITO [(1961) 41 ITR 191 (SC); 1960 SCC OnLine SC 10.] , the duty of an assessee does not extend beyond the full and truthful disclosure of all primary facts. Once all the primary facts are before the assessing authority, it requires no further assistance by way of disclosure. It is for the Assessing Officer to decide what inferences of facts can reasonably be drawn and what legal inferences have ultimately to be drawn. The duty of the assessee, the court held, is to disclose fully and truly all primary relevant facts, it does not extend beyond that.

iii) In N.D. Bhatt, Inspecting Assistant Commissioner vs. I.B.M. World Trade Corporation [(1995) 216 ITR 811 (Bom); 1993 SCC OnLine Bom 243.], the Division Bench of this court relying on Indian Oil Corporation vs. ITO [(1986) 159 ITR 956 (SC); (1986) 3 SCC 409; 1986 SCC (Tax) 552; 1986 SCC OnLine SC 161.] observed that the assessee is under an obligation to disclose only all basic facts and the assessee cannot be expected to draw any inference or to disclose any inference to be made from these basic facts. The court also observed that the assessee must be aware of those facts, which are not disclosed before it can be said that there is any omission or failure on his part to disclose the same. In this case, there is not even an allegation that the assessee was aware of the prices at which the third-party companies had imported glimepride and analgin. Reasons also do not record how the assessee must have been aware of those facts. The fact is, a transfer pricing study was submitted by the assessee and the Transfer Pricing Officer has accepted it. Based on the order under sub-section (3) of section 92CA of the Act from the Transfer Pricing Officer, the Assessing Officer has proceeded to compute the total income of the assessee under sub-section (4) of section 92C of the Act in conformity with the arm’s length price as determined by the Transfer Pricing Officer.

iv) In the circumstances, there is nothing to indicate that there was any failure on the part of the assessee to truly and fully disclose any material fact. It has also to be noted that once a query is raised during the assessment proceedings and the assessee has replied to it, it follows that the query raised was subject of consideration of the Assessing Officer while completing the assessment. From the reasons recorded, it is rather obvious that reopening of the assessment by the impugned notice is merely on the basis of “change of opinion” and that “change of opinion” does not constitute justification and/or reasons to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

v) In the circumstances, rule that was granted on May 8, 2015 is made absolute in terms of prayer clause (a), and the notice dated November 11, 2013 issued under section 148 of the Act to reopen the assessment for the assessment year 2007-2008 together with the order dated March 31, 2015 dealing with the petitioner’s objections, are quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Validity — Undisclosed income — Evidentiary value of photocopy of document — Addition on basis of photocopy of sale agreement received by way of complaint for which original document not produced — Burden to prove authenticity of evidence on AO — No evidence of undisclosed income except photocopy of alleged sale agreement of property — Held, addition to income unsustainable and assessment order invalid:

22 Principal CIT vs. Rashmi Rajiv Mehta:

(2025) 474 ITR 97 (Del):

A. Y. 2010-11: Date of order 4 March 2024:

Ss. 69, 143(3) and 147 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Validity — Undisclosed income — Evidentiary value of photocopy of document — Addition on basis of photocopy of sale agreement received by way of complaint for which original document not produced — Burden to prove authenticity of evidence on AO — No evidence of undisclosed income except photocopy of alleged sale agreement of property — Held, addition to income unsustainable and assessment order invalid:

The instant appeals relate to the A. Y. 2010-2011. The genesis of the case pertains to receipt of information by the Assessing Officer in the form of a photocopy of an alleged agreement to sell dated March 5, 2010. The said photocopy of the agreement to sell indicated that the land in Ghittorni, Delhi, was to be purchased against a total consideration of ₹11,00,00,000, wherein, the assessee was described to be a co-purchaser. It has been alleged that the assessee paid a sum of ₹2,75,00,000 as advance for purchase of the said land, which amounted to 25 per cent. of the total consideration. Out of the said amount, a sum of ₹1,38,00,000 was stated to have been paid by way of a cheque and the remaining amount, i.e., ₹1,37,00,000 was allegedly paid in the form of cash at the time of the execution of the said agreement to sell.

In view of the above, a notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued to the assessee on September 26, 2014. The assessee appears filed the return on November 7, 2014, declaring a total income of ₹44,676 for the A. Y. 2010-2011. Consequently, proceedings u/s. 143(3) read with section 147 of the Act were initiated against the assessee. The Assessing Officer, while relying on the photocopy of the said agreement to sell vide assessment order dated March 28, 2016, inter alia, made an addition of ₹9,00,00,000 to the income of the assessee on account of purchase of the said land from undisclosed sources.

The Commissioner(Appeals) vide order dated December 15, 2017, restricted the addition of ₹9,00,00,000 to ₹1,37,00,000, on the ground that it is only the aforesaid amount which can be attributed to the income of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. However, the veracity of the photocopy of the alleged agreement to sell was not doubted by the Commissioner (Appeals). On cross appeals by the Revenue and the assessee both the Tribunal vide common order dated May 28, 2019 dismissed the appeal preferred by the Revenue and the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court framed the following substantial question of law for consideration.

“A. Whether the photocopy of a document, some part of information/facts recorded on it found to be correct in verification, could be treated as a valid document or not in the absence of the original?”

The High Court confirmed the order of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The entire foundation for addition is laid on the basis of the photocopy of the alleged agreement to sell dated March 5, 2010. The original copy of the said document has not seen the light of the day. Further, there is no other evidence to support the veracity of the recitals made in the aforesaid alleged agreement. Therefore, under the facts of the present case, the same cannot be construed to be a sustainable ground for making addition to the income of the assessee.

ii) We, thus, find that these appeals do not raise any substantial question of law. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal has rightly opined that under the facts of the present cases, sustaining an addition on the basis of photocopy of alleged agreement to sell would be completely unwarranted and unjustifiable. The appeals are, therefore, dismissed.”

Reassessment — Procedure for initiation of proceedings — Objections of assessee for re-opening to be disposed of in separate order — Assessing Officer passing consolidated order disposing of objections and completing re-assessment simultaneously — Violation of principles of natural justice — No reasonable opportunity given to assessee to challenge rejection of objections — Writ petition maintainable — Held, notice and order without jurisdiction and hence quashed:

21 Kesar Terminals and Infrastructure Ltd. vs. DCIT:

[2025] 474 ITR 498 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 7 January 2025:

Ss. 147 and 148 of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Procedure for initiation of proceedings — Objections of assessee for re-opening to be disposed of in separate order — Assessing Officer passing consolidated order disposing of objections and completing re-assessment simultaneously — Violation of principles of natural justice — No reasonable opportunity given to assessee to challenge rejection of objections — Writ petition maintainable — Held, notice and order without jurisdiction and hence quashed:

The Assessee’s return of income for AY 2011-12 was selected for scrutiny and assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was completed after revising the claim u/s. 80-IA of the Act. Subsequently, notice u/s. 148 of the Act was issued on 30.03.2021 proposing to re-open the assessment. In response to the said notice, the Assessee filed return of income 7.04.2021 and on 12.05.2021 requested for reasons for re-opening the assessment. On 6.07.2021, the reasons were furnished to the Assessee. Against the reasons recorded for re-opening of assessment, the Assessee filed objections on 04.08.2021. Thereafter, a notice dated 22.11.2021 was issued u/s. 142(1) of the Act directing the Assessee to justify its claim u/s. 80-IA of the Act. However, the order disposing objections was not passed by the Assessing Officer and directly notice was issued u/s. 142(1) of the Act. In response to the said notice, the Assessee filed its reply requesting the Assessing Officer to dispose of the objections before proceeding further. However, the Assessee’s objections were not disposed of and a consolidated re-assessment order dated 31.03.2022 was passed wherein the objections filed by the Assessee were also disposed.

On writ petition filed by the Assessee against the said order, the Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) An Assessing Officer cannot pass a combined or consolidated order simultaneously disposing of objections to reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and completing the reassessment, as it violates principles of natural justice and mandated procedure. The assessee must be given reasonable opportunity to challenge rejection of objections before assessment is completed.

ii) Since the consolidated order warranted interference due to non-compliance with jurisdictional parameters, relegating the assessee to the alternate remedy would not be appropriate. This court has interfered with consolidated orders in identical circumstances, making assessments and disposing of objections. Therefore, the Department’s objection based on exhaustion of alternate remedy was unsustainable. The assessee had clarified that it had instituted a statutory appeal u/s. 246A after the filing of the writ petition only to protect from the bar of limitation. Its statement to withdraw the appeal was accepted. The notice and the consolidated order were set aside, stating that apart from the fact that the making of such consolidated or combined orders was not approved in decided cases, such a procedure involved breaching the principles of natural justice and fair play.

iii) For all the above reasons, we allow this petition and make the rule absolute in terms of prayer clause (a) and quash, cancel and set aside the impugned notice dated March 30, 2021 and impugned order dated March 31, 2022”.

Penalty — Share Application Money — Share application money otherwise than by account payee cheque or bank draft — Neither loan nor deposit but for participation in capital of company — Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period of time — Provisions of s. 269SS or s. 269T or consequential penalty provisions u/s. 271D or s. 271E not applicable:

20 CIT vs.Vamshi Chemicals Ltd:

[2025] 474 ITR 422 (Cal.):

A. Ys. 2004-05 to 2007-08: Date of order 6 May 2024:

Ss. 269SS, 269T, 271D and 271E of ITA 1961

Penalty — Share Application Money — Share application money otherwise than by account payee cheque or bank draft — Neither loan nor deposit but for participation in capital of company — Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period of time — Provisions of s. 269SS or s. 269T or consequential penalty provisions u/s. 271D or s. 271E not applicable:

During the assessment years under appeal, the assessee received share application money for issue of preference shares amounting to ₹20,000 or more from persons otherwise than by an account payee cheque or account payee bank draft. The Assessing Officer issued a show cause notice for penalty u/s. 271D / 271E of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the ground that the Assessee violated the provisions of section 269SS. The Additional Commissioner imposed penalty u/s. 217D for A.Y.s 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08 and imposed penalty u/s/ 271E for A.Y.s 2004-05, 2005-06, 2006-07 and 2007-08.

The Tribunal held that share application money or its repayment is neither a loan nor a deposit and as such provisions of section 269SS or 269T were not attracted and consequently no penalty could be imposed u/s. 271D or 271E of the Act.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) The words “loan or deposit” has been defined in Explanation (iii) to section 269T of the Income-tax Act, 1961 which is not an expansive definition. It provides that “loan or deposit” means any loan or deposit of money which is repayable after notice or repayable after a period and, in case of a person other than a company including loan or deposit of any nature. Share application money is neither repayable after notice nor repayable after a period. It is for participation in the capital of the company. Share application money is for participation in capital of a company which is neither a loan nor a deposit. Therefore, neither under the definition of the words “loan or deposit” as given in Explanation (iii) to section 269T of the Act, 1961 nor in ordinary sense, share application money can be said to be a loan or deposit. Once share application money is neither loan nor deposit, then neither section 269SS nor section 269T shall attract. Consequently, no penalty either u/s. 271D or u/s. 271E could be imposed.

ii) Looking into the objects and purpose of sections 269SS and 269T read with Explanation defining the words “loan and deposit”, the share application money received could neither be said to be loan nor a deposit, and was for participation in capital of the assessee which was neither a loan nor a deposit and, therefore, the provisions of these sections would not be attracted. Consequently, no penalty u/s. 271D or section 271E could be imposed.

iii) Hence, there was no illegality in the order of the Tribunal holding that the receipt of share application money or its repayment was neither a loan nor a deposit and as such, the provisions of section 269SS or 269T were not attracted and consequently no penalty could be imposed u/s. 271D or section 271E.”

Income — Interest — Capital or revenue receipt — Precedents — Purchase of property in auction paying full consideration — Auction subsequently nullified by Court order — Interest received on amount by direction of Court not compensation — Amount Bonafide receipt by Assessee as successful auction bidder and not as compensation from order of Court — Held, interest receipt capital in nature and not assessable as income from other sources:

19 Pr. CIT vs. INS Finance and Investment Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 475 ITR 83 (Del):

A. Y. 2011-12: Date of order 30 May 2024:

S. 56(2)(viii) of ITA 1961:

Income — Interest — Capital or revenue receipt — Precedents — Purchase of property in auction paying full consideration — Auction subsequently nullified by Court order — Interest received on amount by direction of Court not compensation — Amount Bonafide receipt by Assessee as successful auction bidder and not as compensation from order of Court — Held, interest receipt capital in nature and not assessable as income from other sources:

The Assessee had acquired a right to purchase a property through an auction carried out by Punjab National Bank (PNB) and thereafter paid the entire purchase price. However, subsequently, the auction came to be annulled and the Punjab and Haryana High Court, vide order dated 21 September 2010 directed for refund of the whole amount deposited by the Assessee along with interest accrued thereon.

The Assessee added an amount of ₹3,19,07,676 to the Capital Reserve in the Balance Sheet. The Assessee also claimed TDS credit of ₹54,41,122. In the scrutiny assessment for AY 2011-12, the Assessing Officer was of the view that the interest so received along with the refund of amount deposited by the Assessee was not a capital receipt and thus made addition of ₹3,19,07,676 to the total income of the Assessee.

The CIT(A) affirmed the order of the Assessing Officer. However, for the purpose of computation, the CIT(A) directed that ₹3,19,07,676 should be offered as income by dispersing it over a period concerning other relevant AYs. Against this order of the CIT(A), both the Assessee as well as the Assessing Officer filed rectification application u/s. 154 of the Act. The Assessee contended that the amount should be considered as capital receipt and the Assessing Officer contended that the apportionment of the amount over the other AYs was contrary to the provisions of section 145A(b) and therefore should not be apportioned. However, the CIT(A) allowed the application of the Assessee and modified its earlier order and held that the amount received was in the nature of a capital receipt not chargeable to tax. The Tribunal held that the interest received by the Assessee was capital receipt not chargeable to tax.

The Delhi High Court, dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as follows:

“i) It is crystal clear that the interest accrued on the compensation received herein can be termed as a capital receipt and thus, the same is not chargeable to tax. In the present case, the amount in question was received due to the order passed by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in CWP No. 1470/2010 on account of cancellation of the auction.

ii) The Tribunal had appropriately characterised the interest on the amount received by the assessee under the court order as capital receipt and rightly held that it was not chargeable to tax. It was ex facie evident from the order of the Tribunal that it had considered the aspect that the amount received by the assessee was not in the nature of debt but was received on account of cancellation of the auction of the property.

iii) However, it is pertinent to point out that this amount cannot be characterised as compensation granted by the Court on account of cancellation of the auction. Rather, such an amount was a bonafide amount of the successful auction bidder, which he had deposited against the purchase of the land. The amount so received by the assessee was the entitlement of the successful bidder which was given back to the assessee vide an order of the Court. Thus, when the amount in question was not in the nature of compensation, then, as a natural corollary, the interest accrued on the said amount cannot tantamount to revenue receipts and hence, the same cannot be subjected to tax as per Section 56(2)(viii) of the Act.”

Income — Valuation of shares — Shares allotted as part of employee stock purchase scheme — Lock-in period during which shares could not be transferred — Valuation of shares taking into account restrictive condition:

18 Ravi Kumar Sinha vs. CIT:

[2025] 474 ITR 594 (Del.):

A.Ys.: 1997-98 to 1999-00: Date of order 14 August 2024:

S. 17 of ITA 1961

Income — Valuation of shares — Shares allotted as part of employee stock purchase scheme — Lock-in period during which shares could not be transferred — Valuation of shares taking into account restrictive condition:

The Assessee was allotted 11,50,500 shares at ₹15 per share under the Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS). Out of these, 25% of the shares were subject to lock-in period of 12 months and the balance 75% of the shares were subject to lock in period of 18 months. During the previous financial year, the Assessee paid only ₹10.50 per share against the issue price of ₹15 per share. The employer company obtained independent valuation report in respect of the shares in question, the value of which was determined at ₹22.50 per share. In the return of income filed by the Assessee, the Assessee took the position that due to lock-in period, the shares were not marketable and therefore the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the shares could not exceed the face value of the shares. Thus, the Assessee did not offer any income in respect of the shares. The Assessing Officer held that the market price of the shares was ₹49.45 per share and the Assessee was allotted shares at a concessional rate of ₹15 per share and therefore the difference of ₹34.45 was liable to be taxed as perquisite u/s. 17(2)(iiia) of the Act. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer made an addition of ₹3,96,34,725.

The CIT(A) held that since the shares were subject to a lock-in and therefore not available for trade, it would be inappropriate to take the quoted price appearing on the Stock Exchange for the purpose of determining FMV. However, keeping in mind the valuation report, the CIT(A) held that the FMV should be taken at ₹22.50 per share. Against the said order of the CIT(A), both the Assessee as well as the Department filed appeals before the Tribunal. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A).

The Delhi High Court allowed the appeal filed by the Assessee, and held as follows:

“i) In DY. CGT vs. BPL LTD. [2022] 448 ITR 739 (SC); 2022 SCC OnLine SC 1405 , the Supreme Court observed that equity shares which are quoted and transferable in the stock exchange are to be valued on the basis of the current transactions and quotations in the open market. The market quotations would reflect the market value of the equity shares that are transferable in a stock exchange, but this market price would not reflect the true and correct market price of shares suffering restrictions and bar on their transferability. It is a fact that the market price fluctuates, and the share prices can move up and down. Share prices do not remain static. Equally, the restriction or bar on transferability has an effect on the value/price of the shares. Easy and unrestricted marketability are important considerations that would normally impact valuation/price of a share. The expression “if sold in the open market” does not alter the nature of the property. What the expression postulates is to permit the assessee or the authorities to assume a sale in the open market, which is to limit the property to be valued at the price that a person would be prepared to pay in the open market with all rights and obligations. The value would not exceed the sum, which a willing purchaser would pay, given the fact that the right to purchase is restricted or barred. This does not imply that the valuation of the shares can be made artificially and by ignoring the restrictions on the property. Valuation cannot ignore the limitations attached to the shares.

ii) The shares in question would become transferable post the lock-in-period. In the light of the restriction with respect to marketability and tradeability of the stock in question, the fair market value could not have been recognised to exceed the face value of the shares and thus the determinative being ₹15. The valuation report was at best a medium adopted by the employer in order to broadly ascertain its obligations for the purposes of withholding tax. It could not have consequently been taken into consideration for the purposes of determining the fair market value. The face value alone would be conclusive for purposes of taxation.

iii) Well-settled position in law is that the Act does not contemplate a tax being levied on notional income.”

Settlement Commission — Settlement of case — Power of Settlement Commission — Immunity from penalty and prosecution — Factors to be considered — Assessee co-operated in process of settlement and made full and true disclosure — Settlement Commission exercising discretion to proceed with application and granting immunity from penalty and prosecution considering Bonafide conduct of assessee — Order of Settlement commission need not be interfered with in writ jurisdiction:

17 . Dy. CIT vs. ASM Traxim Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 474 ITR 25 (Del):

A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2011-12:

Date of order 28th October, 2024:

Ss. 245C, 245D(4) and 245H of ITA 1961:

Settlement Commission — Settlement of case — Power of Settlement Commission — Immunity from penalty and prosecution — Factors to be considered — Assessee co-operated in process of settlement and made full and true disclosure — Settlement Commission exercising discretion to proceed with application and granting immunity from penalty and prosecution considering Bonafide conduct of assessee — Order of Settlement commission need not be interfered with in writ jurisdiction:

During the search u/s. 132 and survey u/s. 133A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Department seized documents and material and also recorded the statements of various individuals of the assessee-company which belonged to the same group. During the pendency of assessment proceedings u/s. 153A and 153C Settlement applications were filed based on a combined or consolidated account which was prepared by chartered accountants. The Settlement Commission held such accounts to be unreliable on grounds of discrepancies found and the auditors themselves having expressed reservations with respect to the finding in their report and which was also qualified by various disclaimers. The Settlement Commission thereafter, directed a joint verification of all available primary records. Pursuant to the joint verification the Settlement Commission rejected the audited book results and based upon the joint verification determined the income for the purpose of disposal of the settlement applications.

On a writ petition filed by the Revenue challenging the order of the Settlement Commission u/s. 245D(4) in so far as it granted immunity to the assessee from prosecution and penalty proceedings the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) Once the conditions of full and true disclosure is held to be satisfied, the same would not partake of a separate or different hue for the purpose of section 245H of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Any view to the contrary if taken, would result in an incongruous situation arising since it would constrain the court to hold that the test of full and true disclosure applies differently for the purpose of computation and grant of immunity from prosecution and penalty proceedings. While the power to grant immunity stands enshrined in a separate provision in Chapter XIX-A, such power is exercised Contemporaneously by the Settlement Commission while disposing of an application u/s. 245D for settlement . The Statute does not prescribe the power of computation and grant of immunity being exercised on the basis of tests and precepts which could be said to be separate or distinguishable. Section 245H postulates the power of immunity being liable to be invoked identically on a full and true disclosure of income and co-operation rendered before the Settlement Commission. The Act confers a finality and conclusiveness upon orders made by the Settlement Commission. This becomes evident from the reading of section 245-I which proscribes any matter or issue which stands concluded by an order of the Settlement Commission being reopened in any proceedings under the Act. The Legislature intended to imbue finality upon an order of the Settlement Commission is further underscored by section 245-I using the expression “save as otherwise provided ….”. Thus, an order under Chapter XIX-A could be reviewed or reopened only on grounds set out therein and no other.

ii) The Settlement of the case was primordially based on the applicant making a full and true disclosure before the Settlement Commission which was enjoined thereafter to conduct proceeding in terms of the provisions contained in Chapter XIX-A. It was such disclosure which was thereafter tested and evaluated by the Settlement Commission in terms as contemplated under subsection (2) and (2C) of section 245D. The applications as made by the assessee had crossed that threshold. The Computation of income itself was concluded by the Settlement Commission based upon a joint verification that was undertaken. The assesses themselves had taken a stand that their audited accounts were not liable to be taken in to consideration and that they could not form the basis for the proceedings as were laid before the Settlement Commission and had admitted that those accounts were unreliable. It was in such backdrop they had participated in the proceedings before the Settlement Commission and had agreed to collaborate in the ascertainment of a true and correct computation of income for the A. Ys. 2004-05 to 2011-12 being undertaken. It was this position as struck by parties which appear to have informed the decision of the Settlement Commission to order a joint verification.

iii) The Settlement Commission had at no stage concluded that the application as made were liable to be rejected either on the ground that the assessee had failed to make a full and true disclosure or that they had failed to co-operate in the proceedings. If these twin conditions were found to be satisfied for the purpose of section 245D(4), such issue could not be questioned or reagitated while examining the validity of the discretionary power exercised by the Settlement Commission u/s. 245H. Both section 245D(4) and section 245H are premised on identical considerations. It would be incorrect to uphold the contention of a perceived dichotomy between the opinion with respect to full and true disclosure u/s.245D and that which would guide section 245H.

iv) The essential ingredients liable to be borne in consideration by the Settlement Commission for the purpose of grant of immunity are co-operation by the applicant in the computation of total income in the settlement proceedings and a full and true disclosure of income being made. The joint survey which was undertaken was itself based on all original documents and material having been duly placed by the assessee. It was therefore, not alleged that the assessee either failed to co-operate in those proceedings or withheld information. Chapter XIX-A also does not envisage the Settlement Commission to be bound by the voluntary disclosure that an applicant may choose to make. It is empowered to enquire and investigate as well as call for report and material before completing the computation of income. The order of the Settlement Commission u/s. 245D(4) did not warrant interference under article 226 of the Constitution of India.

v) The power to sever and disgorge a part which is offending and unsustainable could be wielded, provided it does not impact the very foundation of an order. The consideration for the framing of an order u/s. 245D(4) and 245H did not proceed on a consideration of factors which could be said to be distinct or independent. Both were informed by and founded upon co-operation and full and true disclosure and which were the essential prerequisites for computation of the settlement amount as well as consideration of grant of immunity. These two factors thus constituted the very substratum of an application for settlement. Interfering with the grant of immunity on grounds as suggested by the Department would essentially amount to the court questioning the validity of the acceptance of the application itself by the Settlement Commission and that was not even their suggestion in these proceedings. If the twin statutory conditions are found to be satisfied and thus meriting an order of settlement u/s. 245D(4) being rendered, the position would not very or undergo a change when it came to the question of grant of immunity.”

Salary — Perquisites :— 1) Meaning of perquisite — Condition precedent for considering payment as perquisite — Amount must have been paid to the Assessee as employee — Stock options provided to ex-employees — Stock option was not perquisite — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax; 2) Assessability — Stock options given to ex-employee — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax:

16. Sanjay Baweja vs. DCIT(TDS):

[2025] 474 ITR 376 (Del.):

Date of order 30th May, 2024:

Ss. 5 and 17(2) of ITA 1961

Salary — Perquisites :— 1) Meaning of perquisite — Condition precedent for considering payment as perquisite — Amount must have been paid to the Assessee as employee — Stock options provided to ex-employees — Stock option was not perquisite — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax; 2) Assessability — Stock options given to ex-employee — No exercise of stock option — No income chargeable to tax:

The Assessee is an ex-employee of a company FIPL, which is a wholly owned subsidiary of FMPL, and FMPL in turn is a wholly owned subsidiary of FPL, Singapore. In 2012, FPL introduced an Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) wherein FPL granted certain stock options to eligible persons, including employees of its subsidiaries. As per the plan, the Assessee was granted 1,27,552 stock options on and from 01-11-2014 to 31-11-2016 with a vesting schedule of four years. Due to the restructuring at FPL, the Assessee received a communication in April 2023 from FPL that based on the number of options held by the Assessee as on 23-12-2022, FPL had, as a one-time measure, decided to grant compensation of USD 43.67 per option towards loss in the value of options. Further, it was also stated that FPL would be withholding tax on the said compensation.

Thereafter, the Assessee filed an application u/s. 197 for no deduction of tax by FPL. However, the application was rejected on the ground that the amount received would be in the nature of perquisite u/s. 17(2)(vi) of the Act. Against the said rejection, the Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) An amount received by an employee as a perquisite would be taxable. Perquisites, as defined in section 17(2) of the Act, constitute a list of benefits or advantages, which are made taxable and are incidental to employment and received in excess of salary. As per section 17(2)(vi) of the Act, perquisites include the value of any specified security allotted or transferred, directly or indirectly, by the employer, or former employer, free of cost or at a concessional rate to the employee-assessee. The most crucial ingredient of this inclusive definition is “determinable value of any specified security received by the employee by way of transfer or allotment, directly or indirectly, by the employer”. As per Explanation (c) to section 17(2)(vi) of the Act, the value of specified security could only be calculated once the option is exercised. A literal understanding of the provision would provide that the value of specified securities or sweat equity shares is dependent upon the exercise of option by the assessee. Therefore, for an income to be included in the inclusive definition of “perquisite”, it is essential that it is generated from the exercise of options, by the employee. Hence the condition precedent for considering a payment as a perquisite, is that the payment must be made by an employer to his employee.

ii) The manner or nature of payment, as comprehensible by the deductor, would not determine the taxability of such transaction. It is the quality of payment that determines its character and not the mode of payment. Unless the charging section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 elucidates any monetary receipt as chargeable to tax, the Department cannot proceed to charge such receipt as a revenue receipt and that too on the basis of the manner or nature of payment, as comprehensible by the deductor of tax at source.

iii) The stock options were merely held by the assessee and had not been exercised till date and thus, they did not constitute income chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee as none of the contingencies specified in section 17(2)(vi) of the Act had occurred. Moreover, the compensation was a voluntary payment and not transfer by way of any obligation. The present was not a case where the option holder had exercised his right. Rather, the facts suggested that the assessee had not exercised his options under the plan till date. Due to the disinvestment of the business from the Singapore company, the board of directors of that company had decided to provide a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders pursuant to employees stock option plan. The management proceeded by noting that there was no legal or contractual right under the plan to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the stock option holders. The payment in question was not linked to the employment or business of the assessee, rather it was a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders of stock options, pursuant to the disinvestment of the business from the Singapore company. Even though the right to exercise an option was available to the assessee, the amount received by him did not arise out of any transfer of stock options by the employer. Rather, it was a one-time voluntary payment not arising out of any statutory or contractual obligation. The rejection of application was not valid. [Since the transaction already took place on July 31, 2023, liberty was accorded to the assessee to file an application for refund of the tax deducted at source before the Department. The Department was further directed to consider the application of the assessee.]”

Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in payment of tax deducted at source — Delayed payment of tax deducted at source to Department with interest without objection by Department — Delay explained by assessee as due to crisis in company — No malafide intention of evasion on part of assessee — Prosecution after a lapse of more than three years quashed:

15. SVSVS Projects Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of Telangana:

[2025] 474 ITR 306 (Telangana):

A.Ys. 2011-12: Date of order 30th January, 2024:

S. 276B of ITA 1961:

Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in payment of tax deducted at source — Delayed payment of tax deducted at source to Department with interest without objection by Department — Delay explained by assessee as due to crisis in company — No malafide intention of evasion on part of assessee — Prosecution after a lapse of more than three years quashed:

There was an allegation against the Assessee that for the AY 2011-12, TDS was deducted by the Assessee but not deposited with the Central Government in time. As per the data available online, there was a delay on 39 occasions and on the basis of several such delays, it was alleged that the Assessee deliberately did not deposit tax to the credit of Central Government which was a punishable offence u/s. 276B. The Assessing Officer issued a letter dated 16/01/2013 stating that the tax deducted at source payable was ₹77,37,097 which was delayed and the interest for such delay was ₹13,36,278. However, the Assessee had paid interest of ₹12,37,164 and therefore balance interest of ₹99,114 was payable u/s. 201(1A) of the Act. The said balance interest was paid on 19th March, 2013.

Subsequently, on 14th March, 2014, a letter was issued by the Commissioner proposing to launch prosecution for not depositing the TDS with the Central Government within the stipulated time and an opportunity of hearing was given to the Assessee on 7th April, 2014. On 25/07/2014, the Assessee responded by stating that the entire amount of TDS along with interest was paid and that the delay was not wilful or negligent but due to financial crisis in the company. On 2nd December, 2016, the Commissioner granted sanction for prosecution and complaint was filed by the Assessing Officer on 3rd February, 2017.

The Telangana High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The payment of the entire tax deducted at source for the A. Y. 2011-12 with interest was paid by the assessee even prior to the letter addressed by the Income-tax Officer. Having received the notice, the balance of tax deducted at source interest was also paid. The Department had accepted both the tax deducted at source amounts and the interest component without any objection. Having accepted the entire amount nearly one year thereafter, the proposal for launching prosecution was made and two years and nine months thereafter sanction was accorded by the Commissioner for prosecution. No doubt, the tax deducted at source was credited to the Central Government account, though with a delay. However, the penal interest that was attracted was totally paid without raising any objection. The delay had occurred on 39 occasions and since the payments were delayed, the interest component was collected.

ii) The assessee had clarified that the delay in crediting the tax deducted at source to the Central Government account was on account of crisis in the company. In such circumstances, it could not be said that the company entertained any fraudulent intention to avoid payment of the tax deducted at source. No useful purpose would be served at this length of time by prosecuting the assessee. When the entire amount of tax deducted at source with interest had been paid even prior to the first communication from the Department and the balance interest amount had been paid after notice, it would be appropriate to quash the proceedings against the assessee. Accordingly, the criminal proceedings against the assessee before the Special Judge for Economic Offences were quashed.”

A. Offences and Prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in depositing with revenue — Assessee depositing tax deducted with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest though belatedly — Effect of circulars issued by CBDT — Interpretation of provisions of s. 276B to include delay in deposit of tax deducted at source manifestly arbitrary — Prosecution quashed: B. Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Principal Officer — Directors of Assessee company prosecuted for delay in payment of tax deducted at source with Revenue — Non-issue of notice and order to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee — No order imposing penalty as “deemed to be an assessee in default” on assessee or its directors — Criminal complaints against directors of assessee not stating consent, connivance or negligence on their part as required u/s. 278B(2) — Directors of assessee cannot be prosecuted: C. Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Scope of s. 278B(2) — Conduct of business of company must have nexus with the offence committed — Amendment in law from year 1997 — Use of the phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter VII-B” — Linked only with and explains manner of deduction of tax and payment thereof — Assessee deposited entire tax deducted at source with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest belatedly — Prosecution quashed:

14. Hemant Mahipatray Shah vs. Anand Upadhyay:

[2025] 482 ITR 1 (Bom.):

A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19: Date of order 12th August, 2024:

Ss. 2(35)(b), 201, 221, 276B, 278B and 279(1) of ITA 1961

A. Offences and Prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Delay in depositing with revenue — Assessee depositing tax deducted with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest though belatedly — Effect of circulars issued by CBDT — Interpretation of provisions of s. 276B to include delay in deposit of tax deducted at source manifestly arbitrary — Prosecution quashed:

B. Offences and prosecution — Sanction for prosecution — Principal Officer — Directors of Assessee company prosecuted for delay in payment of tax deducted at source with Revenue — Non-issue of notice and order to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee — No order imposing penalty as “deemed to be an assessee in default” on assessee or its directors — Criminal complaints against directors of assessee not stating consent, connivance or negligence on their part as required u/s. 278B(2) — Directors of assessee cannot be prosecuted:

C. Offences and prosecution — Deduction of tax at source — Scope of s. 278B(2) — Conduct of business of company must have nexus with the offence committed — Amendment in law from year 1997 — Use of the phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter VII-B” — Linked only with and explains manner of deduction of tax and payment thereof — Assessee deposited entire tax deducted at source with Revenue for A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19 with interest belatedly — Prosecution quashed:

The petitioner is a Director of a company M/s. Hubtown Ltd (‘the Assessee Company’). During the previous years relevant to A.Ys. 2012-13 to 2018-19. The Assessee Company deducted tax at source but delayed paying the same to the Government.

Show cause notices were issued to the Assessee Company and its Directors which were replied and the explanations provided. However, the Assessing Officer arrived at a conclusion that the Assessee and its Directors were responsible for paying tax as per section 204 and had, therefore, committed default u/s. 200 read with rule 30 of the Income-tax Rules without reasonable cause to pay the tax so deducted under the various sections of the Act from payments made to various parties, which amounted to an offence punishable u/s. 276B read with section 278B.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (TDS) gave sanction u/s. 279(1) to prosecute the Assessee Company and its Directors u/s. 276B r.w.s. 278B as prima facie they were liable to be prosecuted under these sections. Accordingly, complaints were filed before the Magistrate Court. The Magistrate arrived at a conclusion and issued process against the Assessee Company and the Petitioner.

The order of the Magistrate was challenged before the Sessions Court by filing criminal revision application. However, the Sessions Court also rejected the revision application and confirmed the issuance of process directed by the Magistrate.

The Petitioner Director filed writ petition against the said order of the Sessions Court. The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The scope of section 276B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as amended by the Finance Act, 1997 ([1997] 225 ITR (St.) 113), will have to be understood in its correct perspective. It covers cases of failure to pay and not mere delay in deposit of tax deducted at source. In the unamended provisions prior to the year 1997, the words “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B” could be read along with the words “both”. Under the amended provisions from the year 1997, the criminal liability is attracted on failure to pay. The phrase “as required by or under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B” is separately mentioned in clause (a) of section 276B and hence, is linked only with and explains the manner in which tax is required to be deducted and not the manner of payment thereof. Therefore, under the amended provisions, if the tax deducted at source has been paid in full, even with some delay, section 276B would not be attracted.

ii) Prosecution u/s. 276B should not normally be proposed when the amount involved and/or the period of default is not substantial and the amount in default has also been deposited in the meantime to the credit of the Government. No such situation will apply to levy of interest u/s. 201(1A). In this context CBDT bearing F. No. 255/339/79-IT(Inv.), dated May 28, 1980 may be referred to.

iii) The provisions of 278B(1) is for prosecuting an offender, the term “conduct of business of the company” must have a nexus with “the offence committed” and hence, in the context of such offence u/s. 276B ought to be interpreted (which is in relation to “failure to pay” the tax deducted at source) to be the “principal officer” who has been made responsible, u/s. 204(iii) , for paying the tax deducted at source to the Government. The proviso to section 278B(1) prescribes “absence of knowledge” as a valid defence for invoking the section. Where a person is declared a “principal officer” of a company by an “order” under section 201(1), it would, prima facie, fulfil the requirement of presumption of knowledge. The term “director” which has been separately defined u/s. 2(20) has not been used in section 278B(1). As such director is not covered thereunder. Sub-section (2) of section 278B which commences with a non obstante clause provides an action to prosecute a person which expressly applies to a director. Emphasis is on the words “with the consent”, “connivance” or “attributable to the neglect” of such director, manager, secretary or other officer of the company.

iv) Admittedly, tax deducted at source by the assessee had already been deposited with interest as provided u/s. 201(1A). No notice had been issued by the Assessing Officer to any of the petitioners u/s. 2(35)(b) to treat any of them as principal officer of the assessee. The complaints had been filed against the assessee and the petitioners who were its directors, for delay in depositing the tax deducted at source. The taxes deducted at source by the assessee had already been deposited with interest as provided for u/s. 201(1A). No order as contemplated u/s. 201(1) read with section 201(3) had been passed treating any of the petitioners as principal officer of the assessee and by which such principal officer was “deemed to be assessee-in-default”. No order imposing penalty, either initially or further penalty, as “deemed to be an assessee-in-default” u/s. 221 has been passed against the assessee or any of the petitioners for the A. Y. 2017-18. Though the petitioners were “directors” of the assessee, no contention had been made in the complaints regarding “consent”, “connivance” or “negligence” as required u/s. 278B(2)

v) A combined reading of circulars dated May 28, 1980 and April 24, 2008 contemplate that prosecution ought not to be launched where the tax has been deposited. The words “where the amount of default has been deposited in the meantime” in the circular dated May 28, 1980 signify such intent and the words “in addition to the recovery steps as may be necessary in such cases” in circular dated April 24, 2008 also signifies that there are pending arrears which need to be recovered. The ratio laid down in Madhumilan Syntex Ltd. vs. Union of India [2007] 290 ITR 199 (SC), would not be applicable in view of the circular dated April 24, 2008 and, therefore, it cannot be treated as a precedent for the period after April 24, 2008. The circular dated April 24, 2008 prescribes that the prosecution is to be launched within sixty days of detection of the default. Though the circular also prefixes the requirement with the words “preferably”, it also signifies that if not in sixty days the period cannot extend indefinitely for an unreasonable period. If section 276B is interpreted to include the delay in deposit of tax deducted at source it would make the provision manifestly arbitrary.

vi) The definition of “principal officer” as contemplated in section 2(35) , required the Assessing Officer to issue notice to any person connected with the management or administration of the assessee for his intention of treating him as the ”principal officer” thereof. The obligation did not end with mere issue of a notice. Section 201(1) , proviso to section 201(1) and 201(3) made it mandatory for the Assessing Officer to pass an order. The order was also appealable under section 246(1)(i). The order would determine which officer of the assessee was proposed to be dealt as “principal officer” and in view of the exclusion under the proviso to section 201(1), whether the assessee and its principal officer should be “deemed to be assessee-in-default”.

vii) Section 2(35)(b) postulates the Assessing Officer to issue notice of his “intention to treat” a person connected with the management and administration of an assessee as its “principal officer” that mere issuance of notice would not ipso facto become a final “determination” of classification and identification of a person as “principal officer”. Since treating a person as such would not only have civil but also penal consequences. As such, an order making such determination was necessary. Such “adjudication” was contemplated u/s. 201 when such person other than the assessee was held to be a principal officer and was also thereafter deemed to be an assessee-in-default. Any person aggrieved by such order would have remedies available under section 246(1)(i). The term “principal officer” has been used singular and not in plural and the word “officer” is further premised by the word “principal” which signifies “main” officer and not all the officers who may in some way be connected with the management or administration of the company.“Determination” could therefore, be done only while passing an order u/s. 201(1). Section 204(iii) also defines and fixes the responsibility for paying the tax deducted at source in relation to the company on its “principal officer”.

viii) The offences being offences u/s. 276B would imply that the failure to pay the tax deducted at source must have direct relation, namely, consent, connivance or neglect of such person.

ix) The Revenue had not invoked the provisions of section 221 read with section 201(1) to impose penalty against the assessee or the principal officer of the assessee for “failure to pay the whole or any part of tax, as required by or under this Act” and hence could not be permitted to prosecute the petitioners for the same substantive act which was also categorized as an “offence” u/s. 276B . As such, further trial of the petitioners by the criminal court was not permissible which would tantamount to abuse of process of the court. The orders of issuance of process by the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrates and the orders rejecting the criminal revision applications by the Additional Sessions Court were quashed and set aside.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Mandatory condition u/s. 158BD — Initiation of proceedings by assessee’s AO without satisfaction note from searched person’s AO — Failure to follow mandatory procedure — High Court held that initiation of proceedings without jurisdiction:

13. Principal CIT vs. MiliaTracon Pvt. Ltd.:

[2025] 473 ITR 155 (Cal.):

Block period 01/04/1996 to 07/05/2002:

Date of order 3rd July, 2024:

Ss.132 and 158BD of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of third person — Mandatory condition u/s. 158BD — Initiation of proceedings by assessee’s AO without satisfaction note from searched person’s AO — Failure to follow mandatory procedure — High Court held that initiation of proceedings without jurisdiction:

A search conducted at the premises of UIC group led to the discovery of certain share certificates issued in the name of the assessee. The Assessing Officer of the assessee initiated proceedings u/s. 158BD of the Income-tax Act, 1961, without recording a satisfaction note as mandated and the assessee denied any undisclosed income. Subsequently, summons were issued to four individuals u/s. 131 but could not be served. The Assessing Officer of the assessee communicated the reasons for initiation of proceedings through a letter. The assessee submitted block returns of income and contested the proceedings, asserting that they were improperly initiated.

The Assessing Officer passed an assessment order. The satisfaction note reproduced in the assessment order was prepared by the Assessing Officer of the assessee and not by the Assessing Officer of the searched person, as required u/s. 158BD.

The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the validity of the initiation of proceedings but granted relief on certain additions. The Tribunal reversed the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals), concluding that the initiation of proceedings was without jurisdiction since the mandatory requirements of recording satisfaction and transferring documents by the Assessing Officer of the searched person to the assessee’s Assessing Officer were not followed.

The Calcutta High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenues and held as under:

“i) U/s. 158BD of the Income-tax Act, 1961, satisfaction note has to be recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and send it to the Assessing Officer of such other person, the third party.

ii) The initiation of proceedings u/s. 158BD was unauthorised and lacked jurisdiction. The satisfaction note required u/s. 158BD must be recorded by the Assessing Officer of the searched person and sent to the Assessing Officer of the third person assessee. This requirement was not met in this case, as the note was prepared by the Assessing Officer of the assessee, contrary to statutory provisions. Additionally, the mandatory procedure for transferring seized documents to the assessee’s Assessing Officer was not followed. There was no illegality in the order of the Tribunal.”

Refund — Effect of section 240 — Refund consequent on appellate order — Refund should be granted without application for it. Interest on refund — Effect of section 244 — Deduction of tax at source — Tax deducted at source and deposited has to be treated as tax duly paid — Such amount be taken into consideration in computing interest on refund — Interest payable from first day of April of relevant Assessment Year to the date on which refund is ultimately granted:

12. ESS Singapore Branch vs. DCIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 541 (Del.):

A. Y. 2014-15: Date of order 22nd August, 2024:

Ss.199, 240 and 244 of  ITA 1961

Refund — Effect of section 240 — Refund consequent on appellate order — Refund should be granted without application for it. Interest on refund — Effect of section 244 — Deduction of tax at source — Tax deducted at source and deposited has to be treated as tax duly paid — Such amount be taken into consideration in computing interest on refund — Interest payable from first day of April of relevant Assessment Year to the date on which refund is ultimately granted:

The Assessee filed return of income for AY 2014-15 and claimed a refund of ₹3,65,970. The case was selected for scrutiny wherein the Assessing Officer raised an issue as to whether the revenue earned by the assessee including the consideration for live feed, would constitute royalty and thus be taxable. The Assessing Officer framed the draft assessment order holding that the consideration received towards live feed was taxable as royalty under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP), affirmed the view taken by the AO pursuant to which the final order was passed.

On appeal before the Tribunal, the Tribunal held that there was a clear distinction between a copyright and a broadcasting right, broadcast or live coverage which does not have a copyright, and therefore, payment for live telecast was neither payment for transfer of any copyright nor any scientific work so as to fall under the ambit of royalty under Explanation 2 to Section 9(1)(vi) and decided the appeal in favour of the assessee. Further, the Tribunal gave directions to the Assessing Officer to verify and grant credit for tax deducted at source as claimed by the assessee. Pursuant to the direction of the Tribunal, the assessee filed application before the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer restricted the benefit of TDS to the amount which was claimed in the return of income on the ground that amount reflected in Form 26AS was not claimed by the assessee in the return of income. It was also held that for the purposes of refund, the assessee had to follow the procedure as laid out in section 239 of the Act.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition filed by assessee and held as follows:

“i) The unquestionable mandate of section 240 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 , as would be manifest from a reading of that provision, is that in cases where a refund becomes due and payable consequent to an order passed in an appeal or other proceedings, the Assessing Officer is obliged to refund the amount to the assessee without it having to make any claim in that behalf.

ii) Tax deducted at source duly deposited becomes liable to be treated as tax duly paid in terms of section 199 and interest thereon would consequently flow from the first day of April of the relevant assessment year to the date on which the refund is ultimately granted by virtue of section 244A(1)(a) of the Act.

iii) The undisputed position was that the Assessing Officer was called upon to give effect to a direction framed by the Tribunal. Viewed in that light, the stand taken by the Assessing Officer was unsustainable in so far as it restricted the claim of the assessee to the disclosures made in the return of income. It was wholly illegal and inequitable for the Department to give short credit to the tax duly deducted and deposited based on the claim that may be made in a return of income.

iv) Direction issued to respondents to acknowledge the credit of tax deducted at source as reflected in form 26AS of the assessee amounting to ₹2,27,83,28,430 and to recompute the total refund at ₹2,03,40,32,090.”

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Delay in submitting Form 10 for accumulation of income — Not a ground for re-assessment. Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Board Circular acknowledging difficulties of assessee’s in uploading form — Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim — Re-assessment not justified. Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Matter of procedure Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim —Re-assessment not justified

11. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India vs. DCIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 696 (Del.):

A. Y. 2016-17: Date of order 5th August, 2024:

Ss.11(2), 147, and 148A of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Condition precedent — Reason to believe that income has escaped assessment — Delay in submitting Form 10 for accumulation of income — Not a ground for re-assessment.

Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Board Circular acknowledging difficulties of assessee’s in uploading form — Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim — Re-assessment not justified.

Charitable purpose — Requirement of digital submission of Form 10 for accumulation of income — Matter of procedure Failure to file in time — No dispute as to genuineness of claim —Re-assessment not justified:

The Assessee is a company registered u/s. 8 of the Companies Act and holds registration u/s. 12AA of the Act. Re-assessment proceedings were initiated against the assessee for the A. Y. 2016-17 on account of failure to digitally file and upload Form 10 on or before the due date of filing return of income u/s. 139(1) of the Act. While the assessee filed Forms 10A and 10B after the due date of return of income, however, the same were submitted before the Assessing Officer prior to the completion of the assessment proceedings. Assessment order was framed on 1st December, 2018 and the accumulation u/s. 11(2) was accepted.

The re-opening of assessment was challenged in a writ petition filed before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the Petition of the assessee and held as follows:

“i) Section 11(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, speaks of a statement in the prescribed form (form 10) being “furnished” to the Assessing Officer. The change in the “prescribed manner” u/s. 11(2)(a) for the submission of form 10 and which moved to a digital filing was introduced for the first time by virtue of the Finance Act, 2015 ([2015] 373 ITR (St.) 25) and the Income-tax (First Amendment) Rules, 2016 ([2016] 380 ITR (St.) 66). Prior to those amendments, all that section 11(2)(a) required was for the assessee to apprise the Assessing Officer, by a notice in writing, of the purposes for which the income was sought to be accumulated and the mode of its investment or deposit in accordance with section 11(5). The requirement of form 10 being furnished electronically was undisputedly introduced for the first time by way of the 2016 Amendment Rules. The electronic submission of form 10 is essentially a matter of procedure as opposed to being a mandatory condition which may be recognised to form part of substantive law. An action for reassessment would have to be based on the formation of an opinion that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. That primordial condition would clearly not be satisfied on the mere allegation of a delayed digital filing of form 10.

ii) The action for reassessment was not founded on income liable to tax having escaped assessment. The Department also did not question the acceptance of the accumulations in terms of section 11(2) in the assessment order dated 1st December, 2018. The entire action for reassessment was founded solely on form 10 having been submitted after 17th October, 2016 which was the due date in terms of section 139(1). The order u/s. 148A(d) dated 31st March, 2023 and the consequent initiation of reassessment proceedings through notice u/s. 148 of the Act of even date were not valid and were liable to be quashed.”

Reassessment—Scope of jurisdiction of AO— Notice — Reasons recorded — Grounds must be recorded before issue of notice — AO is not entitled to record additional reasons thereafter —Re-assessment based on other grounds recorded after issue of notice not valid — Order and notice quashed: Re-assessment — Applicability of Explanation 3 to section 147 — Explanation applied only where power to re-assess validly invoked:

10. ATS Infrastructure Ltd. vs. ACIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 595 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2014-15 to 2016-17: Date of order 18th July, 2024:

Ss.147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961:

Reassessment—Scope of jurisdiction of AO— Notice — Reasons recorded — Grounds must be recorded before issue of notice — AO is not entitled to record additional reasons thereafter —Re-assessment based on other grounds recorded after issue of notice not valid — Order and notice quashed:

Re-assessment — Applicability of Explanation 3 to section 147 — Explanation applied only where power to re-assess validly invoked:

Notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued on the ground that the assessee had received loan from its 100% subsidiary. In response to the notice, the assessee submitted that the assessee had not received any loan from its subsidiary but on the contrary it had repaid the loan. The Assessing Officer, vide order dated 23rd July, 2022 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act accepted the explanation of the assessee. However, he alleged that the assessee had not been able to completely explain the source of the money which was used to repay a part of the loan and therefore the amount towards loan of ₹25,53,42,435 was treated as income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment.

The Assessee challenged the aforesaid order in a writ petition before the High Court mainly contending that the Department had changed their stand and sought to re-open the assessment on a ground which did not form part of the original notice.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition, quashed the proceedings and held as follows:

“i) The validity of the reassessment proceedings initiated u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, upon issue of a notice u/s. 148, would have to be adjudged from the stand point of the reasons which formed the basis for the formation of opinion with respect to escapement of income. That opinion cannot be one of changing or fresh reasoning or a felt need to make further enquiries or undertake an exercise of verification. The court would be primarily concerned with whether the reasons which formed the basis for formation of the requisite opinion are tenable and sufficient to warrant invocation of section 147.

ii) The enunciation with respect to the indelible connection between section 148A(b) and section 148A(d) are clearly not impacted by Explanation 3. U/ss. 147 and 148 the subject of validity of initiation of reassessment would have to be independently evaluated and cannot be confused with the power that could ultimately be available in the hands of the Assessing Officer and which could be invoked once an assessment has been validly reopened. Explanation 3 which forms part of section 147, would apply only when it is found that the power to reassess had been validly invoked and the formation of opinion entitled to be upheld in the light of the principles which are well settled. The Explanations would be applicable to issues which may come to the notice of the Assessing Officer in the course of proceedings of reassessment subject to the supervening requirement of the reassessment action itself having been validly initiated and the assessment has been validly reopened. Explanation 3, cannot consequently be read as enabling the Assessing Officer to attempt to either deviate from the reasons originally recorded for initiating action u/s. 147 or section 148 nor can the Explanations be read as empowering the Assessing Officer to improve upon, supplement or supplant the reasons which formed the basis for initiation of action under these provisions.

iii) The proviso to section 147 linked the initiation of reassessment to the existence of information which already existed or was in the possession of the Assessing Officer which was the basis for formation of the opinion that income liable to tax had escaped assessment. The provision fortified the view that the foundational material alone would be relevant for the purposes of evaluating whether reassessment powers u/s. 147 were justifiably invoked. Accordingly, the reassessment proceedings were unsustainable. Considering the import of Explanation 3 as well as the language in which section 147 stood couched, there was no justification to differ from the legal position which had been enunciated in Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT [2011] 336 ITR 136 (Delhi); which had been affirmed and approved subsequently in CIT (Exemption) vs. Monarch Educational Society [2016] 387 ITR 416 (Delhi); and CIT vs. Software Consultants [2012] 341 ITR 240 (Delhi). Consequently, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the subsequent notice u/s. 148 were quashed. The Department was granted liberty to take such action as may otherwise be permissible in law.”

Reassessment — Faceless assessment — Notice — New procedure — Effect of provisions of s. 151A and notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued by Central Government — Notice issued by jurisdictional AO invalid:

9. Everest Kanto Cylinder Ltd. vs. Dy./ Asst. CIT:

[2025] 473 ITR 148 (Bom.):

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 4th July, 2024:

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 151A of ITA 1961:

Reassessment — Faceless assessment — Notice — New procedure — Effect of provisions of s. 151A and notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued by Central Government — Notice issued by jurisdictional AO invalid:

On a writ petition challenging the initial notice issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the order passed on such notice u/s. 148A(d) and the consequent notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2017-18 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 the Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“The jurisdictional Assessing Officer did not have jurisdiction to issue the notice u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 in view of the provisions of section 151A read with the notification dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) issued by the Central Government. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b) and the order u/s. 148A(d) were set aside. The consequent notice issued u/s. 148 was illegal and invalid.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Limitation — Date of commencement of limitation period — Reference to DRP — Directions of DRP uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in income-tax business application portal visible and accessible by AO — Intimation of order of DRP received by AO on 3rd February, 2022 and assessment completed on 22nd March, 2022 — Held, assessment order barred by limitation:

8. CIT vs. Ramco Cements Ltd.:

[2025] 474 ITR 9 (Mad):

A. Y. 2017-18: Date of order 19th December, 2024:

Ss.143(3), 144B and 144C(13) of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Limitation — Date of commencement of limitation period — Reference to DRP — Directions of DRP uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in income-tax business application portal visible and accessible by AO — Intimation of order of DRP received by AO on 3rd February, 2022 and assessment completed on 22nd March, 2022 — Held, assessment order barred by limitation:

The order of the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) was uploaded on 31st January, 2022 in the Department’s portal of Income-tax Business Application for National e-Faceless Assessment Centre, Delhi. The order was received by the Assessing Officer on 3rd February, 2022 as per the case history data and the proceedings were completed by the Assessing Officer on 22nd March, 2022. On the questions of whether the date of receipt of direction of the DRP was 31st January 2022 or 3rd February, 2022 and whether the completion of proceedings by 22nd March, 2022 was within the time limit stipulated u/s. 144C(13), the Madras High Court, dismissing the appeal filed by the Revenue, held as under:

“i) The commencement of limitation for the passing of the final assessment order is 30 days from the end of the month when the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel are received by the Assessing Officer. Section 144C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is a code by itself that provides for very strict timelines for completion of an assessment. Hence the stipulation in regard to limitation cannot be reckoned in a manner so as to give rise to more than one interpretation, where either party can take benefit of a later date.

ii) The communication from the Dispute Resolution Panel to the Tribunal confirmed that the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel had been uploaded in the Income-tax Business Application on 31st January, 2022 itself. Since the Income-tax Business Application portal could be accessed by both the assessee as well as the Assessing Officer on their furnishing necessary credentials, the point that remained to be determined was how there could be two dates, i. e., 31st January, 2022 and 3rd February, 2022, when the same order was served upon the Faceless Assessment Officer and which date was to be reckoned as the point of commencement of limitation.

iii) The internal processes followed by the Income-tax Department make it possible for the user to initiate proceedings in the Income-tax Business Application portal using two methodologies. According to the unmasking report, if the Dispute Resolution Panel user selects the option of “draft order u/s. 144C” in the screen, then a link is created with the assessment module such that the direction passed by the Dispute Resolution Panel would automatically be reflected in the case history or notings of the Assessing Officer, both the Faceless Assessment Officer and jurisdictional Assessing Officer. The second method is where the Dispute Resolution Panel user has initiated proceedings, by using the option of manually entering the details of the order u/s. 144C in the screen. In such circumstances, the Dispute Resolution Panel order does not reflect automatically in the case history or notings of the assessment proceedings. According to the report, the second option had been availed by the Dispute Resolution Panel user and hence though the order was uploaded by the Dispute Resolution Panel user in the Income-tax Business Application on 31st January, 2022 itself, such uploading was not noticed by the Assessing Officer. However, as far as the Assessing Officer was concerned, an advisory issued by the Income-tax Business Application team on visibility of orders passed by Dispute Resolution Panels to other Income-tax Business Application users, was relevant. Paragraphs 1 and 2 of the advisory stipulated the two methods or options for uploading of the order. However, whatever be the method chosen, the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel would be visible in the 360-degree screen to the Faceless Assessment Officer, if any assessment work-item were pending with him, in relation to a permanent account number. In other words, in the event of pending assessment proceedings, he would have to key in the concerned permanent account number of the assessee, such that, panoramic, 360-degree visibility was available to him to view the Dispute Resolution Panel directions as and when uploaded, which in the assessee’s case was on 31st January, 2022. The order of assessment dated 22nd March, 2022 had been passed u/s. 143(3) read with section 144C(13) read with section 144B. This provision required an assessment to be framed only in faceless mode by a Faceless Assessment Officer and it was he who had framed the assessment. The advisory had made it clear that the Faceless Assessment Officer would be able to view the Dispute Resolution Panel order in the 360-degree screen, since the assessment was pending with him. This feature had evidently been provided to ensure that an officer could access or receive the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel as soon as it was uploaded by the Secretariat of the Dispute Resolution Panel and the pending proceedings would be completed within the statutory limitation provided. Hence, there was no protection available to the Department by the Dispute Resolution Panel user having selected the second manual option, since an Assessing Officer, in order to ensure that the assessment proceedings were strictly in accordance with statutory limitation, had been given full and complete access to all inputs required for completion of the assessment including the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel immediately on their uploading into the Income-tax Business Application portal by the Dispute Resolution Panel. Clearly, limitation could not be dependent on varying user functionalities which were nothing but internal processes. If such contention was accepted, the commencement of limitation would vary depending on the option exercised by the user which would defeat the purpose of statutory limitation. The starting point of limitation was thus to be reckoned from the earliest instance when the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel would be visible to the officer and could not be taken to fluctuate from one methodology to another depending on the option exercised by the user. The concluding portion of the advisory stated that the Dispute Resolution Panel order would be visible in the 360-degree screen to the Faceless Assessment Officer for his ready access. Therefore, all that was required to gain complete and up-to-date access to all relevant data in regard to an assessment would be available on the 360-degree screen.

iv) The fact that the Faceless Assessment Officer had merely chosen to await intimation when the order u/s. 144C had admittedly been uploaded on the Income-tax Business Application by the Dispute Resolution Panel user, and his consequent belated response, could not lead to a situation of disadvantage to the assessee, particularly when the advisory provides a methodology by which the Faceless Assessment Officer could access the document uploaded by the Dispute Resolution Panel simultaneously. The Tribunal was right in holding that the date of receipt of the direction of the Dispute Resolution Panel by the Assessing Officer was 31st January, 2022 being the date of uploading of the order of the Dispute Resolution Panel in the Department’s portal or website though the intimation of the Dispute Resolution Panel’s order was received by the Assessing Officer only on 3rd February, 2022 as per the case history data and the completion of the proceedings by the Assessing Officer on 22nd March, 2022.”

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Powers of Appellate Tribunal — Power to rectify mistakes in its order — Failure to follow law laid down by jurisdictional High Court — Mistake to be rectified — Matter remanded to Tribunal: Precedent — Decision of High Court — Binding on all income-tax authorities under its jurisdiction:

7. Uttar Gujarat Vij Co. Ltd. vs. ITO:

[2025] 473 ITR 729 (Guj):

A. Y. 2010-11, 2012-13 to 2014-15:

Date of order 1st April, 2024:

S. 254 of ITA 1961

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal — Powers of Appellate Tribunal — Power to rectify mistakes in its order — Failure to follow law laid down by jurisdictional High Court — Mistake to be rectified — Matter remanded to Tribunal:

Precedent — Decision of High Court — Binding on all income-tax authorities under its jurisdiction:

The petitioner-company is owned by the Government of Gujarat and carrying on business of distribution of electricity. For the A. Y. 2013-14, the petitioner filed return of income on 30th September, 2013 declaring the total income at ₹nil after claiming set-off of brought forward business loss and unabsorbed depreciation. The case of the petitioner was selected for scrutiny assessment by issuing notice dated 4th September, 2014 u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and final assessment order was passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act on 29th December, 2016. The Assessing Officer, while framing the assessment, treated the interest income received on staff loan and other advances along with the miscellaneous receipt as income from other sources as against the income from business or profession as declared by the petitioner. Other additions were also made by the Assessing Officer.

The CIT(Appeals) partly allowed the appeal filed by the assessee. In the appeal before the Tribunal the assessee had relied on the judgment of the jurisdictional Gujarat High Court which was not considered by the Tribunal. The Tribunal dismissed the Miscellaneous Application filed by the assessee seeking review of the order of the Tribunal.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The decision of a High Court, is binding on all subordinate courts and Appellate Tribunals within the territory of the State and subject to the supervisory jurisdiction of the court. Not following the binding decision of the co-ordinate Bench and jurisdictional High Court rendered on identical facts would be a mistake apparent on record which could be rectified by the Appellate Tribunal u/s. 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

ii) The Tribunal could not have taken a different view from what was already taken by the co-ordinate Bench under similar facts which was confirmed by this court in Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT in Tax Appeal No. 63 of 2020 dated 16th March, 2020 (Guj). The Tribunal in Gujarat UrjaVikas Nigam Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT in Tax Appeal No. 63 of 2020 dated 16th March, 2020 (Guj) had held that interest income on staff loans was required to be treated as “business income” instead of “income from other sources” which was confirmed on appeal by this court. The decisions of the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal and this court were binding upon the Tribunal. When the Tribunal had not followed the decision on the identical facts by the co-ordinate Bench which was confirmed by this court, there was a mistake apparent on the face of the record in the order passed by the Tribunal which ought to have been considered by the Tribunal and the miscellaneous application filed by the assessee could not have been dismissed.

iii) The order of the Tribunal was set aside. The matter was remanded to the Tribunal to pass orders afresh. [Matter remanded.]”

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest: A.Y. 2015-16

6. Munchener Ruckversicherungs Gesellshaft Aktiengesellschaft In Munchen vs. CIT (International Taxation)

[2025] 473 ITR 53 (Del.):

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 3rd September, 2024

S. 155(14) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest:

The assessee was a non-resident. For the A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee declared nil income asserting that its receipt of an amount would not be subject to tax in India in terms of the provisions u/s. 90 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and claimed refund of tax deducted at source on the basis the tax credit statement being form 26AS, which included the tax deducted by an entity BALIC. The assessee submitted that the tax deducted at source pertaining to the last quarter of F. Y. 2014-15 was credited by BALIC on 21st January, 2016, that consequently, the original tax deducted at source stood increased. In the return for the A. Y. 2016-17 wherein the claim for tax deducted at source credit stood embedded on account of such amount having by then being captured in form 26AS and which amount had remained unclaimed in A. Y. 2015-16.

The Commissioner (International Taxation) was of the view that since the income received from BALIC was offered to tax, the assessee would not be entitled to the grant of tax deducted at source credit. He held that the assessee had failed to file revised return of income and rejected the assessee’s application u/s. 264.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 155 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribes that where credit for tax has not been given on the ground of either a certificate having not been furnished or filed, but which is subsequently presented before the Assessing Officer, it would be sufficient for the assessment order being amended. Section 155(14) places the Assessing Officer under a statutory obligation to amend the order of assessment once it is established that the contingencies stated in that provision are duly established. Sub-section (14) neither contemplates nor mandates the original return being amended or revised and takes care of contingencies where tax deducted at source is either subsequently credited or is reflected in form 26AS after a time lag. An assessee may face such a spectre on account of a variety of unforeseeable reasons.

ii) Since the tax which was deducted at source by BALIC stood duly embedded in form 26AS which was produced by the assessee and the income earned from that entity had never been held to be subject to tax under the Act, the refusal on the part of the Department to refund that amount was illegal and arbitrary. The factum of tax having been deducted at source by BALIC and pertaining to income transmitted in the A. Y. 2015-16 was not disputed and stood duly fortified from the disclosures which appeared in form 26AS pertaining to that assessment year. It was also not disputed that BALIC had credited the tax deducted at source on 21st January, 2016 and as a consequence of which, the credit was not reflected at the time when the return had been originally filed for the assessment year 2015-16.

iii) The order passed u/s. 264 rejecting the assessee’s application was quashed. The Department was directed to refund the amount of tax deducted at source along with statutory interest.”

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous: A.Y. 2017-18

5. CIT (International Taxation) vs. Zebra Technologies Asia Pacific Pte. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 745 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2017-18

Date of order: 23rd October, 2024

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous:

The assessee was a non-resident and distributed electronic products and services related to after sales, repairs, and technical support services to the customers across the globe. It held tax residency certificate of Singapore and sought to avail of the benefit of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement ([1982] 134 ITR (St.) 6). In the A. Y. 2017-18, the assessee received a sum for rendition of technical support, repairs and maintenance services under an agreement with an Indian entity and also an amount in USD from offshore sale of products. According to the assessee, since it did not have a permanent establishment in India and also did not make available technical know-how, knowledge, and skill to the Indian entity under the agreement, the receipts were not chargeable to tax in India under the Act by virtue of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The Assessing Officer accepted the assessee’s explanation in response to the notices u/ss. 142(1) and 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 during the assessment proceedings which culminated in an assessment order.

The Commissioner was of the view that the Assessing Officer did not conduct the necessary inquiries and verified the facts for accepting the assessee’s claim that its income was not chargeable to tax under the Act by virtue of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, that he did not call for the relevant details or verified whether the assessee had a permanent establishment in India during the relevant period, that he did not carry out any inquiry to ascertain whether any commercial substance existed in Singapore and whether the assessee was merely a conduit company and used with an object to obtain the tax benefit under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. Accordingly, he invoked his power u/s. 263.

The Tribunal faulted the Commissioner for not affording the assessee an opportunity to rebut the allegations that it was merely a conduit without any substance and had entered into an agreement for the purposes of taking an advantage of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) There was no fault with the order of the Tribunal in setting aside the revision order passed by the Commissioner u/s. 263 on the ground that the assessee was not afforded an opportunity to counter the allegation that it was a conduit company without any substance.

ii) In the show-cause notice the Commissioner had faulted the Assessing Officer for not undertaking certain enquiries including verifying whether, (i) the assessee had a permanent establishment in India, (ii) in terms of section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, the income was chargeable as fees for technical services, (iii) tax at source at the rate of 10 per cent. on all the remittances made to the assessee were deducted, (iv) the condition as set out in article 12 of the India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement in regard to taxation of fees for technical services were satisfied, (v) regarding the commercial substance of the assessee in Singapore and (vi) it was a conduit company formed for obtaining the tax benefits under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.

iii) These observations were made only for the purposes of calling upon the assessee to show cause why the proceedings not be initiated u/s. 263 of the Act but, thereafter, the Commissioner had not put the issue regarding treaty shopping to the assessee. The tentative opinion formed by the Commissioner that the assessee was a conduit company for the reasons as articulated in the revision order was not put to the assessee. Hence, the assessee had not been given an opportunity to satisfy the Commissioner regarding such view for the A. Y. 2017-18.”

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision: A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21

4. Sushen Mohan Gupta vs. Principle CIT

[2025] 473 ITR 173 (Del.)

A. Y. 2010-11 to 2020-21

Date of order: 22nd March, 2024

Ss. 156, 220(1), 220(6) and 246A of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision:

A search and seizure action was conducted and subsequently notices u/s. 153A of the Act for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2019-20 were issued and on culmination of proceedings so drawn, the assessment orders came to be framed on 30th September, 2021 raising a cumulative demand of ₹ 1,85,62,19,390 for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21.

The Assessee filed appeals before the CIT(A) which are pending. Against the enforcement of demand, the Assessee filed application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer which came to be rejected on the ground that the Assessee had not deposited 20% of the outstanding demand and therefore the application could not be entertained. In rejecting the assessee’s application for stay of demand, the Assessing Officer relied upon the Office Memorandums of the CBDT dated 29-02-2016 and 31-07-2017.

Thereafter, the Assessee filed application for rectification of mistakes which was disposed and the revised demand recoverable from the Assessee was computed at ₹1,81,37,14,107. The Assessee thereafter filed another stay application before the Assessing Officer for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21. During the pendency of the said stay application, the Assessee was served with a letter seeking payment of the outstanding demand followed by a demand notice issued u/s. 220(1) of the Act. In response to the aforesaid, the Assessee filed a detailed response stating that the original assessment was wholly arbitrary and rendered unsustainable in the light of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Pr.CIT vs. Abhisar Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. The Assessee also offered to pledge properties owned by an entity in which the Assessee’s family members were directors / shareholders to secure the outstanding demand to the extent of 20%. The Assessee’s prayer was rejected.

Aggrieved, the Assessee approached the Principal Commissioner for grant of interim protection against the outstanding demands. The Principal Commissioner disposed the application by observing that during search operations, various incriminating documents were found and seized and credible evidence were collected. He, thus, disposed of the applications of stay of demand and directed the assessee to deposit demand which was 40 per cent of total outstanding demand within 15 days of receipt of his order.

The Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) The Central Board of Direct Taxes’ Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 could not be read as mandating a pre-deposit of 20 per cent. of the outstanding demand, without reference to the prima facie merits of a challenge that may be raised by an assessee in respect of an assessment order.

ii) The assessee had approached the Principal Commissioner in terms of the provisions made in the Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016. The view taken by the second respondent, that applications for stay could neither be countenanced nor entertained till the assessee deposited 20 per cent. of the pending demand was untenable and erroneous. The Principal Commissioner had proceeded to cause even greater prejudice to the assessee by requiring him to deposit 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand.

iii) According to para 4(C) of the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated February 29, 2016 stated to the effect that where stay of demand was granted by the Assessing Officer on payment of 15 per cent. of the disputed demand and the assessee was still aggrieved, he could approach the jurisdictional administrative Principal Commissioner or the Commissioner for a review of the decision of the Assessing Officer. The Principal Commissioner could not be recognised to stand empowered to subject the assessee to more onerous conditions. Rather than examining the challenge raised by the assessee to the assessment orders and evaluating the prima facie merits of the challenge had in one sense placed him under a harsher burden of depositing 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand as opposed to the direction of 20 per cent. deposit by the second respondent as a pre-condition for the consideration of application for stay under section 220(6) .

iv) Both the authorities had failed to consider the aspect of prima facie merits, likelihood of success and undue hardship. Therefore, their orders were unsustainable and hence quashed and set aside. The matter was remitted to the Assessing Officer to examine the applications for stay afresh considering the legal position.”

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside: A.Y. 2009-10

3. Sesa Sterlite Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2025] 472 ITR 591 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 4th September, 2024

Ss.10B, 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside:

The assessee was in the business of manufacturing and production of iron ore and had three units situated at Amona, Chitradurga and at Codli. These units are export-oriented undertakings and for the assessment year 2009-10, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10B. A survey u/s. 133A was carried out at the assessee’s premises wherein the authorities sought to ascertain the relevant facts in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated July 16, 2014 u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147. The Assessees objections were rejected.

The Assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice and the order rejecting the objection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 10B(2) provided that section 10B applied to any undertaking which fulfilled all the conditions therein. The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 10B in respect of the three export-oriented units for the A. Y. 2009-10 and a survey u/a. 133A had been carried out at its premises in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The assessment order u/s. 143(3) was passed by the Assessing Officer whereunder the claim for deduction u/s. 10B was disallowed in its entirety for the reasons given by the Assessing Officer. He had held that the assessee’s units were not engaged in the business of manufacture and production of any article or thing, that the assessee had not produced satisfactory evidence with regard to the date of commencement of production, that the approval granted by the Development Commissioner for one unit was not ratified by the Board and that the profits of the units was determined without taking into consideration the cost of the wastage from other units which was utilised in the alleged production that was carried out in the unit under reference, and the units were not new units and the setting up of the units in the old mines which were operated by the assessee could not be regarded as new units and that the assessee had not maintained separate books of account for the export oriented units. The Commissioner (Appeals) had upheld the denial of the claim of deduction under section 10B by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal had dealt with all the reasons given by the Assessing Officer and had upheld the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Therefore, entitlement to deduction u/s. 10B had been the subject matter of appeal before the appellate authorities. During the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, a fresh survey was conducted u/s. 133A and on the basis of the materials which were found during the survey in 2014, reassessment u/s. 147 was sought to be justified for the purpose of denying the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Thus, the reasons of the Assessing Officer in support of his finding could be several but what was relevant was the subject matter of the tax appeal. The third proviso to section 147, which provided that the Assessing Officer could assess or reassess such income, other than the income involving matters which were the subject matters of any appeal, reference or revision, which was chargeable to tax and had escaped assessment, would come into effect.

ii) When the fresh survey u/s. 133A was conducted in the year 2014 during the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, the new materials found by the Assessing Officer were sought to be placed before the Tribunal and this court and the issue under consideration was whether the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B. Assuming that the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 was allowed to continue on the basis of the new materials a situation could arise to be held that the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B, whereas in the reassessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer on the basis of the new materials could conclude that the assessee was not entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B.

iii) Reassessment proceedings were obviously to get over such an anomalous situation that the third proviso to section 147 was meant to cover. If the reassessment proceedings were allowed to continue, it would virtually amount to having an effect of sitting in appeal over the orders passed by this court and the Tribunal which could not be countenanced. Though it was the allegation that fresh evidence was unearthed during the course of fresh survey in March 2014, which indicated that the units considered as new units were not new units but an amalgamation of the existing units. The exercise really was to rely on these materials in support of the findings earlier recorded by the Assessing Officer which was already subject matter of challenge before the competent forum. Assumption of jurisdiction to reopen the assessment was without jurisdiction to once again disallow a claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The notice dated 16th July, 2014 issued u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 for the A. Y. 2009-10 and the order rejecting the assessee’s objections were quashed and set aside.”

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside: A.Y. 2024-25

2. Chamber of Tax Consultants & Ors vs. DGIT (Systems)

[2025] 473 ITR 85 (Bom.)

A. Y. . 2024-25

Date of order: 24th January, 2025

Ss. 87A, 115BAC, 139, 139(5) and 139D of  ITA 1961

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside:

The Department releases utility for filing income tax returns online every year. The Department published a change in utility with effect from 05-07-2024. The said change unilaterally disabled the assessees from claiming rebate u/s. 87A. As a result, taxpayers, despite being statutorily eligible, were effectively deprived of their entitlements solely due to technical modifications introduced by the revenue.

The Chamber of Tax Consultants filed a petition seeking direction to modify the system and put in place by the Department for filing income tax returns for AY 2024-25 so as to allow the assessees at large to take benefit of rebate available u/s. 87A. It was contended that this unilateral modification is arbitrary, lacks justification, and deprives eligible taxpayers of statutory benefits. The Respondents’ actions violate the principles of fairness and transparency expected from public authorities and seek judicial intervention to ensure compliance with statutory provisions.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Department could not restrain or prohibit an assessee from claiming section 87A rebate by modifying their utility by which an assessee was forbidden at the threshold itself from making such a claim in the return of income. The provisions of the Act were not so clear as to arrive at a definite conclusion that a rebate under section 87A could not be granted from the tax computed under the other provisions of Chapter XII. Certainly, such a claim whether eligible or not could be examined in the proceedings under section 143(1) or section 143(3). Merely because few selected cases were picked up for scrutiny would not mean and would not authorise any authority under the Act to prevent an assessee from making the claim on which more than one view was possible. Merely because many returns of income were required to be processed and only a few of them were selected for scrutiny assessment under section 143(3) could not be a ground to tweak the utility to prevent at the very threshold, an opportunity to raise a claim on a debatable issue based upon the interpretation of the provisions in sections 87A and 115BAC. Considering the mandates of articles 265 and 300A, ends, howsoever laudable, cannot justify means.

ii) Assuming that the legal provisions were ambiguous, the Department cannot resolve such ambiguity by adopting an interpretation favouring itself through the device of simply tweaking the utility and preventing the assessee from even raising a claim. Therefore, the main question is not whether the interpretation proposed by the learned counsel for the petitioners or that proposed by the learned Additional Solicitor General is correct, but the main question is whether the Department can insist that its interpretation prevails or triumphs because it has the capacity to and has exercised this capacity to tweak the utility and prevent an assessee to even raise a debatable claim. The provisions of the Income-tax Act do not permit the Department to do this without transgressing the constitutional boundaries

iii) The issue raised on the claim u/s. 87A was, at best, highly debatable and contentious. Therefore, the Department would not be justified in assuming that its interpretation was open and shut, and based upon such a conclusion, shut out bona fide claims for rebate under section 87A and could not be done by exercising administrative powers instead of quasi-judicial powers. Disputed claims, except to the limited extent explicitly permitted by the law, could not ordinarily be disposed of by the executive acting in its executive capacity. This is more so when the executive is itself a party to the lis. One of the foundations of our Constitution is the rule of law. This posits that all three organs of governance, the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary function under and in accordance with the law as enshrined in our Constitution.

iv) The Department did not show any provision under the Act which expressly debarred an assessee to raise or make the claim u/s. 87A qua the tax computed at the rates specified in the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC. There was no rebuttal to the petitioner’s contention that a provision like section 112A(6) had been expressly enacted wherever the Legislature intended to deny such a benefit. Therefore, in so far as the prayers of the petitioners were concerned that the utility should permit an assessee to at least make a claim under section 87A, it could not be rejected at the threshold.

v) Whether rebate u/s. 87A was to be allowed only on the tax calculated in accordance with the provisions of section 115BAC or also on taxes calculated under other provisions of Chapter XII would require interpretation of the interplay of section 87A and section 115BAC To what extent the overriding provisions contained in section 115BAC(1A) would result in allowability or denial of rebate under section 87A would have to be examined by interpretative process. The impact of the phrase “subject to the provisions of this Chapter” would also have to be examined along with other provisions for adjudicating the claim under section 87A. What was the purport of the proviso to section 87A on the claim proposed to be made would have to be interpreted in conjunction with the provisions of section 115BAC(1A) and other connected sections. How the phrase “total income” should be construed for section 87A and section 115BAC along with the definition sections, charging sections and scope of total income and the scheme of the Act, would have to be examined. Whether the provisions of section 115BAC restricted itself only to tax rates or computation of total income would also have to be examined. If such exercise was required to be undertaken before coming to a definite conclusion as to whether the rebate under section 87A was to be granted or denied on the tax computed under the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC, had to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process. Therefore, the Department was not justified in modifying the utility from 5th July, 2024, by which an assessee was debarred at the threshold from making the claim, which claim was contentious or debatable.

vi) A combined reading of section 87 and section 87A would mean an assessee has to make a claim, the entitlement of which is to be examined by processing the return under section 143(1) or section 143(3) and the same should be allowed as a deduction. Section 87 which provides for rebate under section 87A uses the phrase “there shall be allowed from the amount of income tax . . .”. The proviso to section 87A uses the phrase “. assessee shall be entitled to a deduction . . .”. If a claim was not made, the Department could contend that the claim could not be allowed.

vii) In the absence of any concrete case, the petitioner’s prayer to direct the Department to make the utilities for filing the return of income online flexible so as to allow an assessee to self compute the income and there should not be any restriction on making of any claim whatsoever and to not release any utilities or make any changes in the utilities for filing of the return of income under section 139 which would not allow any assessee to raise any claim, could not be granted unless there was a demand for justice which had been rejected or a failure on the part of the Department to exercise its duty under the Act. The court should grant no relief in such broad and general terms because the ramifications would be unclear.

viii) The Department was directed to modify the utilities for filing of the return of income u/s. 139 of the Act immediately, thereby allowing the assessees to make a claim of rebate under section 87A of the Act read with the proviso to section 87A , in their return of income for the assessment year 2024-25 and subsequent years including revised returns to be filed u/s. 139(5).”

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee: A.Y. 2015-16

1. Principle CIT vs. Hespera Reality Pvt. Ltd

[2025] 472 ITR 630 (Del.)

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 24th December

Ss.10(38) and 115JB of ITA 1961

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee:

During the F.Y. 2014-15 relevant to the A.Y. 2015-16, five companies which held shares of the entity IBHFL merged with the assessee and three of these companies sold their shares. Since the said amalgamating companies were merged with the assessee with effect from August 1, 2014, the income earned from the transaction of sale of IBHFL shares were assessed in the hands of the assessee. The Assessing Officer was of the view that the amount of long-term capital gains was required to be added to the book profits u/s. 115JB and that the amount was not entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38).

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the entire amount of long-term capital gains was not liable to be included as income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38) and accordingly, deleted the disallowance but upheld the Assessing Officer’s decision regarding the computation of book profits for the purpose of determination of minimum alternate tax u/s. 115JB. On the question, whether the long-term capital gains that arose from the sale of investments were exempted u/s. 10(38), the Tribunal concurred with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and rejected the appeal of the Department.

Delhi High Court dismissed the further appeal by the Department and held as under:

“i) The proviso to section 10(38) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was introduced by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 ([2006] 282 ITR (St.) 14). The inclusion of the proviso was corresponding to the amendments to Explanation 1 of section 115JB. By virtue of the Finance Act, 2006, the Explanation to section 115JB was amended and expenditure incurred in respect of the income exempt u/s. 10, with the exceptions of section 10(38) was excluded for the purposes of calculation of book profits and minimum alternate tax under section 115JB. In other words, the expenditure incurred for earning such income as was exempt from taxation by virtue of section 10(38) was required to be accounted for as expenditure for determining the book profits. Correspondingly, income u/s. 10(38) was also included as a part of the book profits but other incomes covered u/s. 10 were excluded.

ii) The proviso to section 10(38) was added by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 to abundantly clarify that the income from capital gains on certain assets, which are excluded from the income u/s. 10(38) would be included in computing book profits u/s. 115JB. The proviso to section 10(38) cannot be read in the reverse to mean that if the gains are not included as book profits u/s. 115JB they are liable to be included as income for the purposes of assessment to tax under the normal provisions, notwithstanding that the gains are required to be excluded from income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38).

iii) There was no fault with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal, in rejecting the Department’s contention and holding that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38) of the long-term capital gains on account of sale of shares by the amalgamating companies, which was denied by the Assessing Officer.”

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

89. Principal CIT vs. Vikram Dhirani

[2025] 472 ITR 342 (Del)

A. Y. 2007-08

Date of order: 20th August, 2024

Ss.132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

In an appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether the Tribunal erred in deleting the addition made to the income of the assessee in the assessment made pursuant to a search u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2007-08, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) Since the assessment initiated in respect of the A. Y. 2007-08 was one which had already stood concluded, the Tribunal had held that since the pen-drive and the data appearing thereon having not been unearthed in the course of the search u/s. 132 of the Act, it would not constitute incriminating material. It had consequently followed the view consistently taken by this court.

ii) The assessment was confined to section 153A and consequently the significance of the incriminating material found in the course of the search alone would be the basis for any additions to the income. Since the pen-drive was an article which was not recovered in the course of the search but constituted material which had been obtained by the Department through the exchange of information route, there was no ground to interfere with the view expressed by the Tribunal.”

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

88. HansaMetallics Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT

[2025] 472 ITR 737 (P&H)

A. Y. 2012-13

Date of order: 22nd January, 2024

S. 276C of ITA 1961

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2012-13 on 29th December, 2012 declaring total income at ₹8,20,53,544. As per the return of income, the self-assessment tax was pending. The self-assessment tax was paid belatedly on 10th July, 2013 along with interest.

The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated 11th February, 2014 requiring the Assessee and its directors to show cause as to why the prosecution proceedings u/s. 276C(2) should not be initiated. On the basis of legal opinion sought from the standing counsel of the Income-tax Department, a complaint was filed u/s. 276C read with section 278B of the Act.

Thereafter, the Criminal Court came to the conclusion that a case was made out and charges were framed.

The Assesseecompany and its directors filed a petition for quashing the complaint and all the consequential proceedings arising therefrom. The Assessee’s contention was that there was no evasion of tax at all. Though there was a delay in payment of tax, but the said tax was admitted / acknowledged in the return of income. On the other hand, the Department contended that the Assessee was well within his financial limits to pay the tax at the time of filing return of income, yet it did not choose to pay the tax and thereby caused loss to the revenue.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Prosecution u/s. 276C(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with the other provisions of the Act can only be launched if there was a wilful evasion or attempt at evasion of either tax, penalty or interest. Delay in payment of Income-tax would not amount to evasion of tax.

ii) It was not in dispute that the Income-tax was self assessed and payment thereof was also made, though belatedly. The tax along with interest was paid on July 10, 2013. The show-cause notice for delayed payment was sent only on February 11, 2014 and February 24, 2014 pursuant to which the complaint was instituted. Therefore, by no stretch of imagination could it be held that there was any evasion of tax on the part of the assessees, though there was a delay in the payment of the tax for which interest was paid. The prosection was not valid.”

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

87. Principal CIT vs. Jupiter Capital Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 561 (Kar)

A. Y. 2014-15

Date of order: 20th February, 2023

S. 2(47) of ITA 1961

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

In an appeal by the Revenue,on the question whether the Tribunal was right in setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares when no such extinguishment of rights was made out by the assessee as required under section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and there was no reduction in face value of shares, dismissing the appeal, the Karnataka High Court held as under:

“i) The undisputed facts were that pursuant to the order passed by the High Court of Bombay, number of shares had been reduced to 9,988. The face value of the shares had remained same at ₹10 even after the reduction. The Assessing Officer’s view that the voting power had not changed as the percentage of the assessee’s share of 99.88 per cent. had remained unchanged was untenable because if the shares were transferred at face value, the redeemable value would be ₹99,880 whereas the value of 14,95,44,130 number of shares would have been ₹1,49,54,41,300.

ii) The Tribunal had rightly followed the authority in Karthikeya vs. Sarabhai v. CIT [1997] 228 ITR 163 (SC); (1997) 7 SCC 524; 1997 SCC OnLine SC 152, with regard to meaning of transfer by holding that there was no transfer within the meaning of the expression “transfer” as contained in section 2(47). There was no error in the order of the Tribunal setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares.”

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

86. Principal CIT vs. International Coal Ventures Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 307 (Del)

A. Ys. 2012-13

Date of order: 20th December, 2024

S.4 of ITA 1961

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

The assessee was a joint-venture company formed by five public sector undertakings, SAIL, CIL, RINL, NMDC and NTPC, for the purpose of ensuring adequate and dependable coal supply for its promoter companies. During the financial year relating to the A. Y. 2012-13, the assessee pursued a proposal to acquire and develop a coal mine overseas and received equity contributions from some of these undertakings. The amounts received from RINL were kept in a fixed deposit with a bank. Subsequently since the proposal for acquisition of the coal mine which was being pursued was abandoned, the assessee refunded the amount received from RINL. Since the assessee had earned interest on the amount received from RINL, it paid interest to RINL which confirmed that the amount received by it was accounted for as income in its hand and tax was paid.

In the appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether interest on funds that were called for and earmarked for a specific purpose of acquiring a coal mine and deposited in the short-term fixed deposit could be construed as incidental to setting up the business of acquisition of a coal mine, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The accounting treatment of capitalising expenses during the preoperative stage of setting up a business, rests on the rationale that the cost incurred for setting up the profit-making apparatus is required to be accounted for as the value of that asset. Such expenditure is incurred for bringing the undertaking into existence. Thus, it would not be apposite to treat such preoperative expenses as revenue expenses since it cannot be matched with the revenue receipts. The amount incurred for construction or acquisition of the asset would necessarily have to be accounted as the cost of that capital asset. This principle applies only in cases where substantial time is required to construct the asset or bring the asset to use. The financial costs for such assets are thus
considered as a part of the intrinsic value of the asset. There is a distinction between the price of an asset and its cost. On the same principles, the amounts received which are directly linked to the
acquisition or construction of the asset, are required to be reduced from the capital cost of the said asset. In one sense, such receipts mitigate the cost of the capital asset and it is essential to reflect the correct cost of the asset.

ii) The Accounting Standard 16 applies to a “qualifying asset”, which is defined as an asset that takes substantial period to get ready for its intended use or sale and also explains that the substantial period of time as contemplated under the standard, primarily depends upon the circumstances of each case. Ordinarily, the same should be considered as twelve months unless a shorter or longer period is justified in the facts and circumstances of the case. It also explains that for estimating this period, “the time which an asset takes technologically or commercially, to get ready for its intended use or sale”, is required to be considered.

iii) Accounting treatment of various items are guided by an overarching principle that final accounts should reflect the true and fair view of the reported entity. In order for a capital value of an asset (which takes a considerable time to bring it to intended use) to be fairly disclosed on historical cost basis, it would be essential to subsume within the cost of the said asset all elements of expenditure, which directly contribute to the cost of that asset. It is for this reason that general administrative cost of an entity which cannot be attributed to a particular asset is not construed as the cost of that asset. But the expenditure that is directly linked to the construction or acquisition of a qualifying asset, is required to be treated as a part of its cost.

iv) If the interest was earned on the amounts which were temporarily kept in fixed deposits in the course of acquisition of the coal mine to set up the assessee’s business, the interest earned would require to be accounted for as the part of the capital value of the business or asset. A caveat was added that such accounting treatment was or would be applicable only if the nature of the asset was such that required time for construction or for putting it in use. Illustratively, the same would be applicable where the asset is to be constructed, developed or is of a nature that required considerable time to bring it to use. In case where a plant is being set up in a factory and the requisite funds for setting up the same are deployed for a period of time, the interest paid on the amount borrowed for the said purpose and interest earned on temporary deposits during the course of deployment are required to be accounted for as a part of the capital costs. This is not true for an off-the-shelf product. Illustratively, if a motor vehicle is purchased from borrowed capital, neither the interest paid nor the interest earned on the funds borrowed for payment of consideration of the same can be accounted for as a part of the cost of the said asset.

v) The assessee was set up to acquire resources to ensure supply of coal and at the material time it was in the process of negotiation for acquiring a coal mine, to set up its business, and thus called for capital from its shareholders for the purpose of payment of the acquisition costs. It was the part of the said funds that were kept in the short-term fixed deposit in the bank for pending payment of the construction. The attempt to acquire the coal mine was aborted and thus the amounts borrowed were repaid to RINL. It was not disputed that the funds in question were not surplus funds of the assessee, the same were called for and were earmarked for acquisition of a coal mine overseas which was to be the assessee’s undertaking as the assessee was formed for the purpose of acquiring and operating a coal mine overseas.

vi) The interest received on borrowed funds, which were temporarily held in interest-bearing deposit, was a part of the capital cost and was required to be capitalised as capital work-in-progress.”

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

85. World Vision India vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 564(Mad.)

A. Y. 2018-19

Date of order: 19th December, 2024

Ss. 37, 142(2A) and 144of ITA 1961:

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2018-19. The said return was selected for scrutiny assessment. The assessment was completed and order dated 14th September, 2021 was passed. In the said order, the Assessing Officer relied upon special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 as also the assessment orders passed for A. Ys. 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18. The report dated 2nd June, 2017 was prepared u/s. 142(2A) of the Act for AY 2014-15, pursuant to which the assessment orders for AYs 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were passed. The orders for AY 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were challenged in appeal before the CIT(A).

In the A. Y 2018-19, the Assessing Officer concluded that the Assessee had applied 67 per cent of the gross receipts for charitable purposes and for the balance the Assessee had failed to establish any documents to substantiate that the amount was utilised for charitable purposes and therefore the demand has been confirmed.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the assessment order mainly on the ground that the basis for coming to the conclusion that the Assessee has failed to utilize the amount for charitable purposes is based on the special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 which was generated for AY 2014-15. The Hon’ble Madras High Court allowed the petition and remanded the matter back to the AO for the re-computation of income and held as follows:

“i) Prima facie reliance on the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the earlier assessment years could not be a basis to conclude that the similar pattern would have been followed by the assessee during the subsequent assessment years and to do so would amount to assessment by sampling. The special audit report was for the A. Y. 2014-15. In terms of section 142(2A) the special audit report could relate only for a particular assessment year since the expression used is, “if at any stage of the proceedings before him”, the Assessing Officer, having regard to the nature and complexity of the accounts, volume of the accounts, doubts about the correctness of the accounts, multiplicity of transactions in the accounts or specialised nature of business activity of the assessee, and the interests of the Revenue, was of the opinion that it was necessary so to do, he may, with the previous approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, direct the assessee to get either or both of, (i) getting the accounts audited by an accountant, as defined in sub-section (2) of section 288 , nominated by the competent authority or (b) getting the inventory valued by a cost accountant nominated by the competent authority.

ii) The assessment order indicated that no allowance had been made for the expenses incurred by the assessee towards administrative and salary expenses of the assessee and had only been allowed to accumulate 15 per cent. of the gross receipt. It was the contention of the Department that if no other amount was to be allowed, the Department had to make best judgment assessment u/s. 144. Therefore, the assessment order was set-aside and the matter was remitted back to the Assessing Officer to pass a fresh order on the merits and in accordance with law independently without getting influenced by the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the A. Y. 2014-15. Since the re-computation of income required a proper consideration, the assessee was directed to give a proper reply with proper evidence explaining the expenses which it sought to exclude.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

84. Neha Bhawsingka vs. UOI

[2025] 472 ITR 335 (Cal)

A. Y. 2022-23

Date of order: 22nd November, 2024

Ss.142(1), 143(2), 144, 144B, 156, 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

The assessee was in trading business. For the A. Y. 2022-23, an intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sent to the assessee’s registered e-mail address, confirming that the return was processed without any discrepancies. Similar communications for the earlier A. Ys. 2019-20 to 2021-22 and the subsequent year 2023-24 were also sent to the same registered e-mail address. While accessing the Income-tax portal, the assessee’s tax consultant discovered that several notices, including u/ss. 143(2) and 142(1) and show-cause notices were issued against the assessee for the A. Y. 2022-23 and sent to an unregistered e-mail address. The ex parte assessment order was passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B making disallowances on account of purchases as non-genuine and unsecured loan as unexplained credit u/s. 68. Penalty notices u/ss. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were also issued.

The assessee filed a writ petition contending that the assessment order and demand notices were vitiated since they were not served at the assessee’s registered e-mail address as required u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address which was not associated with her. The Calcutta High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

i) The assessment order passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B, the consequent demand notice u/s. 156 and the penalty notices u/s. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were vitiated due to procedural lapses and non-compliance with statutory provisions. The notices u/s. 143(2) and 142(1) were not served to the assessee at her registered e-mail address as mandated u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address, thereby depriving the assessee of a fair opportunity to respond, violating the principles of natural justice.

ii) The assessee had a legitimate expectation, arising from consistent past practices, that all communications would be sent to her registered e-mail address. The failure to adhere to this established protocol and the absence of proper service of notices invalidated the subsequent assessment proceedings and the ex parte assessment order passed u/s. 144 and 144B. The Revenue’s reliance on the assessee’s permanent account number database or an alternate e-mail address could not substitute for statutory compliance. Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine the jurisdiction and legality of the entire assessment process. The assessment order could not be completed without issuance of a notice u/s. 143(2). Hence, the assessment proceedings and the assessment order without issuing the notice u/s. 143(2) were bad in law.

iii) Accordingly, the assessment order, demand notice and penalty notices were quashed and set aside. The authorities were directed to issue fresh notices, if deemed necessary, strictly adhering to the statutory provisions and ensuring proper service to the assessee.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

83. Religare Enterprises Ltd. vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 329 (Del)

A. Y. 2013-14

Date of order: 28th November, 2024

Ss. 143(3), 144B and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

The Assessee filed revised return of income for AY 2013-14 declaring total income at ₹2,70,87,75,810. This included income from dividend amounting to ₹4,14,800 which was exempt. The Assessee had not claimed any deduction in respect of expenses amounting to ₹1,83,55,525 u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and an addition of ₹1,93,79,583 was made u/s. 14A of the Act in addition to the amount of ₹1,83,55,525 already disallowed u/s. 14A of the Act. The AO also made disallowances in respect of fines and penalties.

The CIT(A) partly allowed wherein the CIT(A) deleted the additional disallowance made by the AO. In the appeal before the CIT(A), the Assessee had raised an additional ground and claimed allowance of ₹1,83,55,525 which it had not done under the revised return.

The Tribunal remanded the matter regarding disallowance u/s. 14A and disallowance of fines and penalties to the AO for consideration afresh with the direction that the disallowance u/s. 14A was required to be worked out in respect of only those investments which were yielding exempt income. Thereafter, the Assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application requesting that the AO be directed to restrict the disallowance to the extent of exempt income. The Miscellaneous Application was allowed and the Tribunal modified its order and directed that the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act be restricted to the exempt income.

Pursuant to the aforesaid directions, the Jurisdictional AO passed an order dated 4th February, 2023 to give effect to the directions issued by the Tribunal and restricted the disallowance u/s. 14A to the extent of dividend income. However, the AO did not give any specific findings in respect of fines and penalties. The Assessee also did not file any appeal against the said order.

Thereafter, the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NFAC) issued an intimation informing the Assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B of the Act. Against this, the Assessee filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal as the Jurisdictional AO had already passed an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. However, the NFAC passed an order, once again making the same disallowance u/s. 14A and disregarded the directions of the Tribunal. The NFAC also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order of the Jurisdictional AO.

The Assesseefiledwrit petition against the said order of NFAC. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) There is no provision under the Income-tax Act, 1961 for continuing assessment proceedings after an assessment order is passed. Concluded assessments cannot be opened except by recourse to specific provisions including section 147 of the Act.

ii) The issue of disallowance u/s. 14A had stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The Assessing Officer did not issue any specific findings regarding the fines and penalties amounting to Rs. 35,18,803 and the assessee had not filed any appeal against such decision. Notwithstanding that an order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had proceeded to pass another order. Although, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had passed an order giving effect to the order dated February 25, 2021 and the order dated February 25, 2021 as modified by the order dated April 1, 2022 by the Tribunal, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had issued an intimation dated February 15, 2023 informing the assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B . The assessee had filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal since the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had already passed an order dated February 4, 2023 giving effect to the orders passed by the Tribunal.

iii) The National Faceless Assessment Centre had passed an order dated March 29, 2023 once again reiterating the disallowance of ₹3,60,51,977 made u/s. 14A, which included an additional disallowance of ₹1,93,79,583 which was made by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order dated March 28, 2016. Although, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had found that the order dated April 1, 2022 passed by the Tribunal had confined the disallowance u/s. 14A to ₹4,14,800, such directions were disregarded and had also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer. The order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had set out that it was an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal wherein it was held to the effect that after appeal effect income of the assessee (since merged with REL) for the assessment year 2013-14 was recomputed at ₹2,69,43,53,890 under the normal provisions of the Act. Credit for tax deducted at source, advance tax and regular taxes paid were given after verification and interests u/s. 234A, 234B, 234C and 234D were being charged, as applicable.

iv) Therefore, there was no doubt that the proceedings pursuant to the directions issued by the Tribunal stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The initiation of further proceedings by the National Faceless Assessment Centre pursuant to the orders passed by the Tribunal was without jurisdiction. The assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) read with sections 254 and 144B was set aside.”

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

82. Sunshine Capital Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2025] 472 ITR 293 (Del.)

A. Y. 2008-09

Date of order: 16th April, 2024

Ss.153 and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

The case of the Assessee was selected for scrutiny and assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed after making various additions. CIT(A) partly allowed the Assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal, vide its order dated 08-10-2018 remanded the matter to the AO for the purpose of fresh assessment. The Tribunal also deleted the demand reflected on the Income Tax Portal.

Thereafter, the Assessee made several representations from July 2020 to August 2021 to the Department praying for rectification of the error with respect to the demand being reflected on the portal as well as the issue of refund. But there was no action by the Department. Since no reply was received by the Assessee upon representations, the Assessee filed an application in August 2021 in accordance with the Right to Information Act (RTI) to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. Pursuant to the RTI application, the AO passed an order in November 2021 wherein it expressed its inability to give appeal effect on the ground that it had not received the order passed by the Tribunal through proper channel. Against this order, the Assessee filed an appeal in December 2021 which came to be disposed vide order passed in January 2022 whereby it was decided that the information provided to the Assessee was adequate.

Thereafter, in February 2022, the Assessee filed an application to the registry of the Tribunal seeking information on service of order passed by the Tribunal. The Assessee was informed by the registry in March 2022 that the order passed by the Tribunal was duly sent to the CIT(Judicial) on 24th August, 2018 for further action. In March 2022, the Assessee also made subsequent representations to rectify the error with respect to the demand reflected on the portal, but to no avail.

The Assessee therefore filed writ petition challenging the inaction on the part of the Department and contended that despite the order passed by the Tribunal being communicated to the concerned authority of the Income tax Department within stipulated time, the Department failed to pass a fresh assessment order. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Section 153 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, stipulates that an order for fresh assessment pursuant to an order u/s. 254 or section 263 or section 264 of the Act may be made at any time before the expiry of a period of nine months. The provision further encapsulates that the period has to be calculated from the end of the financial year in which the order u/s. 254 of the Act is received by the authorities mentioned in the section. Regarding the word “received” the language couched in section 260A of the Act is similar to that of section 153(3). The contextual interpretation of the phrase “received” postulates the time when the parties are notified about the pronouncement and are represented at that instant in the open court. The legislative intent behind the enactment of section 254(3) of the Act does not prescribe shifting of the onus of proving the receipt of the order under the provision on the assessee, the expression “is received” used in section 153(3) of the Act cannot mean to extend the limitation till perpetuity. The expression “received” employed in section 153(3) of the Act would not strictly mean that a certified copy of the order of the Tribunal, in the given facts and circumstances, ought to have been necessarily supplied to the concerned authority through an appropriate mechanism devised by the respondents. Further, section 254(3) of the Act casts a duty upon the Tribunal to send the copy of the orders passed under section 254 of the Act to the assessee as well as to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner. A conspectus of section 254 read with section 153(3) of the Act would reveal that the provisions cannot be made applicable to the detriment of the assessee.

ii) The material on record showed that the Tribunal sent the order of the remand to the Department on October 24, 2018, but the Department denied having received it. It was sufficient to take note of the Tribunal’s stand of sending a copy of the order to the Department. Moreover, the assessee, as early as on July 30, 2020 itself, made the first communication to the Department to give effect to the order in appeal. The record would show that the subsequent representation sent by the assessee on July 9, 2021 to the Department contained all the requisite information of the orders passed by the concerned authorities in the case of the assessee. No concrete steps had been taken by the Department. Except harping upon the word “received”, the Department had not taken any measure to give effect to the order in appeal. Taking into consideration the Tribunal’s response that the concerned order was sent on October 24, 2018, the Department ought to have passed the order to give effect to the order in appeal within twelve months from then. However, that had not been done by the Department till date.

iii) Since the Department had failed to comply with the order of the Tribunal in passing a fresh assessment order within the stipulated time, the writ petition was to be allowed with the directions to the Department to ensure that the demands of quantum amounting to ₹34.70 crores and penalty amounting to ₹33.98 crores being reflected in the Income-tax Business Application portal were removed within two weeks, that the amount of ₹25,44,671 lying with the Department were refunded to the assessee with applicable interest as per law, that the properties of the assessee were released within two weeks of the passing of this judgment, and that the three bank accounts were defreezed by the Department within two weeks.”

Refund — Adjustment of demand — Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Powers of the AO — Instructions issued by the CBDT misconstrued — Application for rectification of order pending before Commissioner (Appeals), National Faceless Appeal Centre — Adjustment of refund without considering application for stay of demand arbitrary and illegal — Matter remanded with directions.

81. National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) Vs. DCIT(Exemption)

[2024] 470 ITR 493 (Del.)

A. Ys. 2018-19:

Date of order: 1st March, 2024:

Ss. 154, 220(6) and 237 of ITA 1961:

Refund — Adjustment of demand — Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Powers of the AO — Instructions issued by the CBDT misconstrued — Application for rectification of order pending before Commissioner (Appeals), National Faceless Appeal Centre — Adjustment of refund without considering application for stay of demand arbitrary and illegal — Matter remanded with directions.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2018-19 and claimed a refund of ₹6,45,65,160 on  account of excess tax deducted at source during the year. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed after making several additions which resulted into creation of demand of ₹10,26,85,633.

Against the said order, the Assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The Assessee also filed application for rectification u/s. 154 of the Act for rectifying certain mistakes apparent from the face of the order. The Assessee also filed application for stay of demand. The rectification application filed by the Assessee was rejected by the Assessing Officer. Pending appeal before the CIT(A) and pending disposal of the stay application filed by the Assessee, the Department adjusted the refunds on account of excess tax deducted at source for the A. Ys. 2010-11, 2011-12 and 2020-21 towards the demand raised for the assessment year 2018-19.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the action of the Department. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 and the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated July 31, 2017 ([2017] 396 ITR (St.) 55) and neither prescribe nor mandate 15 per cent. or 20 per cent. of the outstanding demand under section 156 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being deposited as a precondition for grant of stay. The earlier Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016, specifically mentions of the discretion vesting in the Assessing Officer to grant stay subject to a deposit at a rate higher or lower than 15 per cent. depending upon the facts of a particular case. The subsequent Office Memorandum dates 31st July, 2017 merely amended the rate to be 20 per cent. and describes the 20 per cent. deposit to be the “standard rate”. The administrative circular would not operate as a fetter upon the power otherwise conferred on a quasi-judicial authority and that it would be wholly incorrect to view the Office Memorandum as mandating the deposit of 20 per cent. of the disputed demand irrespective of the facts of an individual case. The clear and express language employed in sub-section (6) of section 220 states of the Assessing Officer being empowered “in his discretion and subject to such conditions as he may think fit to impose in the circumstances of the case”. Therefore, the 20 per cent. pre-deposit stated in the Office Memorandum cannot be viewed as being an inviolate or inflexible condition. The extent of the deposit which an assessee may be called upon to make would have to be examined and answered considering the factors such as prima facie case, undue hardship and likelihood of success.

ii) The Department had proceeded on incorrect and untenable premise that the assessee was obliged to furnish evidence of having deposited 20 per cent. of the disputed demand before filing its application for stay of demand under section 220(6) could have been considered. The interpretation which was sought to be accorded to the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 (amendment of instruction No. 1914, dated 21st March, 1996 which contained the guidelines issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes regarding procedure to be followed for recovery of outstanding demand, including procedure for grant of stay of demand) was misconceived and untenable. The Department had erred in proceeding on the assumption that the application for consideration of outstanding demands being placed in abeyance could not have even been considered without a 20 per cent. pre-deposit of the disputed demand. On the date when the adjustments of the refund towards the demand of the assessment year 2018-19 was made, the application filed by the assessee under section 220(6) had neither been considered nor disposed of. Therefore, the adjustment of the outstanding demand for the assessment year 2018-19 against the available refunds without attending to that application was arbitrary and unfair. The intimation of adjustments being proposed would hardly be of any relevance or consequence once it was found that the application for stay of demand remained pending.

iii)The matter was remitted to the Department for considering the application of the assessee u/s. 220(6) in accordance with the observations made. The issue of the amount of refund liable to be released would abide by the decision which the Department would take pursuant to the directions”.

Recovery of tax — Company — Liability of director of private company — Order u/s. 179 — Condition precedent — Inability to recover tax dues from company.

80. Manjula D. Rita and Bhavya D. Rita vs. Pr. CIT:

[2025] 472 ITR 116 (Bom):

A. Y. 2012-13: Date of order: 19th June, 2023

Ss. 179 and 264 of ITA 1961:

Recovery of tax — Company — Liability of director of private company — Order u/s. 179 — Condition precedent — Inability to recover tax dues from company.

The petitioners are two out of the four legal heirs of one late Dinesh Shamji Rita (the deceased), who was a director of Bhavya Infrastructure India Private Limited (the company) during the A. Y. 2012-13. The other two legal heirs are married daughters of the deceased and petitioner No. 1. The petitioners are impugning an order dated 9th March, 2020 passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) rejecting the petitioner’s application. The order impugned came to be passed while rejecting an application filed by the petitioners impugning an order dated 7th May, 2018 passed under section 179(1) of the Act.

The company had filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2012-13 on 29th September, 2012 declaring an income of ₹62,47,290. An assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 came to be passed on March 30, 2015 by which several additions were made, i. e., a sum of ₹ 18,37,21,188 u/s. 68 of the Act for unexplained cash credit, interest on loan of ₹1,21,11,106 and disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act of ₹2,06,642. A demand of ₹8,66,76,960 was also made u/s. 156 of the Act.

The deceased applied for stay before the Assessing Officer and filed an appeal before the CIT (A). The Assessing Officer rejected the application for stay by an order dated 16th July, 2015. An application was moved by the deceased before the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax for grant of stay of the demand, which application also came to be rejected. The company, though had not accepted the additions/disallowance, voluntarily paid various amounts in October / November, 2017. Certain properties were attached but the attachment order was later vacated. The petitioner’s revision application u/s. 264 of the Act also came to be rejected.

Thereafter, the petitioners received an order dated 7th May, 2018 passed u/s. 179 of the Act against which the petitioners filed another revision application u/s. 264 of the Act. This revision application came to be rejected by the impugned order dated March 9, 2020.

The petitioners filed writ petition and challenged the order dated 9th March, 2020, passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Act rejecting the petitioner’s application. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is averred in the petition that the deceased took seriously ill and was ailing for almost six months before succumbing to multiple organ failures on 6th May, 2018, a day before the order dated May 7, 2018, came to be passed u/s. 179 of the Act. The order impugned passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Act also is a very brief order in the sense that the only ground on which the application u/s. 264 of the Act came to be rejected is contained in paragraph 4.2 of the impugned order. Respondent No. 1, without considering any of the submissions made by the petitioners, has simply rejected the application u/s. 264 of the Act noting that the notice of the death of the deceased was not brought to the Assessing Officer by anybody and before the order u/s. 179 of the Act was signed by the Assessing Officer and, therefore, as on the date of the passing of the order, there was nothing invalid.

ii) Before passing an order u/s. 179 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer should have made out a case as required u/s. 179(1) of the Act that the tax dues from the company cannot be recovered. Only after the first requirement is satisfied would the onus shift on any director to prove that non-recovery cannot be attributed to any gross neglect, misfeasance, or breach of duty on his part in relation to the affairs of the company.

iii) There was nothing to indicate the steps were taken to trace the assets of the company. Moreover, the order passed u/s. 179 of the Act did not satisfy any of the ingredients required to be met. In view of non-issuance of notice, the assessee had not been given an opportunity to establish that the non-recovery was not attributable to any of the three factors on his part, i.e., gross neglect or misfeasance or breach of duty.

iv) Without going into the merits on the correctness of the assessment order passed or whether the time was ripe to issue notice under section 179 of the Act, we hereby quash and set aside the order dated 9th March, 2020 passed under section 264 of the Act, so also the order dated 7th May, 2018 passed under section 179 of the Act.”

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Seizure of cash by police — Cash produced in Magistrate Court and case registered — Proceedings u/s. 132A — Department requisitioning for release of cash — Release or custody of cash only in accordance with provisions of section 451 of Cr.PC 1973 — First proviso to section 148A applicable — Notices valid though issued non-complying with procedures u/s. 148A.

79. Muhammed C. K. vs. ACIT:

[2025] 472 ITR 161 (Ker):

A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24: Date of order: 11th March, 2024:

Ss. 132A, 147, 148 and 148A of ITA 1961: and S. 451 of Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Seizure of cash by police — Cash produced in Magistrate Court and case registered — Proceedings u/s. 132A — Department requisitioning for release of cash — Release or custody of cash only in accordance with provisions of section 451 of Cr.PC 1973 — First proviso to section 148A applicable — Notices valid though issued non-complying with procedures u/s. 148A.

Certain amount of cash was seized from the assessee by the police and was produced before the magistrate court and a case was registered. It was stated that an application u/s. 451 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 was filed before the Magistrate Court to release the money to the Department.

On a writ petition contending that the money ought to be released to him and that since the money in question was never requisitioned as contemplated by the provisions of section 132A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the notices u/s. 148A, issued for the A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24 without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 148A were illegal and unsustainable the Kerala High Court held as under:

“i) The notices had been issued without following the procedure contemplated u/s. 148A, the notices issued u/s. 148 were not illegal, since on the facts, the situation fell within the first proviso to section 148A, which provided that the procedure u/s. 148A was not applicable in a case covered by the provisions of section 132A, though the Department had filed an application u/s. 451 of the 1973 Code. Though when an item or cash, was produced before a criminal court the Department could not issue a notice u/s. 132A to the court in question, once the item was produced before the court in connection with any criminal case registered by the police or any other law enforcement agency, an application for release or for giving custody of it to the Department could only be in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and specifically section 451 of the 1973 Code thereof. That did not take away the fact that the Department had initiated proceedings u/s. 132A to requisition the amount from the police station.

ii) Therefore, the case was covered by the first proviso to section 148A and the procedure prescribed under the provisions of section 148A need not be complied with before issuing the notices u/s. 148 for the A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24.”

Re-assessment — Notice after four years — Advance Ruling — Effect of — Binding only on Assessee and AO in relation to transactions in question — Notice for reassessment for subsequent years issued on the basis of rulings in another case — Transactions similar to those in respect of which ruling rendered in Assessee’s case — No change in law or new tangible material and independent formation of belief by the AO — Notices for re-opening invalid.

78. Mrs. Usha Eswar vs. ITO and Ors.

[2024] 470 ITR 200 (Bom.)

A. Ys. 1997-98 – 2000-01

Date of order: 7th July, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 245R and 245S of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Notice after four years — Advance Ruling — Effect of — Binding only on Assessee and AO in relation to transactions in question — Notice for reassessment for subsequent years issued on the basis of rulings in another case — Transactions similar to those in respect of which ruling rendered in Assessee’s case — No change in law or new tangible material and independent formation of belief by the AO — Notices for re-opening invalid.

The assessee was a Non-resident Indian and was regularly assessed to tax in India in respect of income which accrued or arose in India or which was received in India. The Assessee was a resident of Dubai for several years and was a resident of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) as per the definition provided in the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and UAE. The Assessee had made an application to the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) seeking tax treatment as well as the rate of tax applicable in respect of income earned by way of dividends, interest and capital gains from sources in India. The said application was not made in respect of a specific assessment year. The AAR found that the Assessee was a resident as per Article 4 of the India — UAE DTAA and that the Assessee was not liable to pay tax in UAE as there was no levy of income tax on an Individual in UAE. The AAR applied the provisions of the Act and Articles 10, 11 and 13 of the DTAA and passed a ruling to the effect that the capital gains from transfer of moveable assets in India will be governed by Article 13(3) and the same will not be taxable in India on or before 1st April, 1994. The dividend income from shares held in India would be taxed at the rate of 15 per cent and income by way of interest on debentures and bonds as well as balance in partnership firm will be taxable at 12.5 per cent. In holding so, the AAR had relied upon its earlier ruling the case of MohsinallyAlimohammedRafik (“Mohsinally”).

Subsequently, after a period of four years, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for the AYs 1997-98, 1998-99, 1999-2000 and 2000-01 for re-opening the assessment on the ground that the ruling of the AAR was applicable only in respect of AY 1995-96 and that the AAR, in a subsequent ruling in the case of Cyril Eugene Pereria (“Cyril”), after considering the ruling in the earlier case of Mohsinally’s case, concluded that the benefit of DTAA would not be applicable as the applicant therein was not chargeable to tax in UAE. Therefore, the Assessing Officer concluded that the ratio of the ruling in Cyril’s case would be applicable and the benefits of DTAA were wrongly given to the Assessee for the AYs 1997-98 to 2000-01.

The Assessee filed writ petition challenging the re-opening of the assessment. The Bombay High Court allowed the petitions and held as follows:

“i) Section 245S of the Income-tax Act, 1961 states that the ruling pronounced by the Authority for Advance Rulings binds the Authority under section 245R . It is binding on the applicant who has sought the ruling in respect of the transactions in relation to which the ruling has been sought for and on the Commissioner and the Income-tax authorities subordinate to him in respect of the applicant and the transaction. Sub-section (2) of section 245S provides that the ruling shall be binding unless there is a change in the law or the facts on the basis of which the advance ruling has been pronounced.

ii) The Assessing Officer had manifestly exceeded his jurisdiction in reopening the assessment relying on the subsequent ruling of the Authority for Advance Rulings in the case of Cyril Eugene Pereira, In Re [1999] 239 ITR 650 (AAR). The ruling in that case could not bind the assessee nor could it displace the binding effect of the ruling in the assessee’s case. The transaction in respect of which the assessee had sought a ruling and in respect of which the Authority for Advance Rulings had issued the ruling to the assessee was of the same nature as that for the assessment years 1997-98, 1998-99, 1999-2000 and 2000-01. There was no change in law or facts. The Assessing Officer had not personally formed the belief that income liable to tax had escaped assessment and there was no tangible material to conclude that there was any escapement of income. Therefore, the notices under section 148 were set aside. The Director (International Transactions) had ignored the relevant provisions of law. The power to reopen the assessments under section 147 could not have been invoked.”

Deduction of tax at source — Self Assessment Tax — Not required where tax deducted at source on payment — Tax deducted at source from amount received by the Assessee — Assessee entitled to benefit u/s. 205 — Assessee need not produce Form 16A.

77. Incredible Unique Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO:

[2024] 470 ITR 106 (Del)

A. Y. 2011-12

Date of order: 3rd October, 2023

S. 205 of ITA 1961

Deduction of tax at source — Self Assessment Tax — Not required where tax deducted at source on payment — Tax deducted at source from amount received by the Assessee — Assessee entitled to benefit u/s. 205 — Assessee need not produce Form 16A.

The Assessee provided services to an entity by the name of CAL. The value of the service provided amounted to ₹8,50,26,199. The said entity CAL deducted tax at source amounting to ₹24,96,199. Out of ₹24,96,199 deducted by CAL, only an amount of ₹69,897 was deposited towards TDS and the balance ₹24,26,302 remained to be deposited. As a result, the Department did not give full credit of TDS deducted by CAL and raised a demand.

Therefore, the Assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the non-grant of full credit TDS. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) In our view, the petitioner is right inasmuch as neither can the demand qua the tax withheld by the deductor-employer be recovered from him, nor can the same amount be adjusted against the future refund, if any, payable to him.

ii) Thus, for the foregoing reasons, we are inclined to quash the notice dated 28th February, 2018, and also hold that the respondents- Revenue are not entitled in law to adjust the demand raised for the A. Y. 2012-13 against any other assessment year. It is ordered accordingly.”

The High Court dismissed the review petition filed by the Department and held follows:

“i) Under section 205 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 where the tax is deductible at source, the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from his income. The bar operates as soon as it is established that the tax had been deducted at source and it is wholly irrelevant as to whether the tax deducted at source is deposited or not and whether form 16A has been issued or not. Form 16A is amongst others, a piece of evidence which can establish deduction of tax at source. That said, form 16A is not the only piece of evidence in that regard. In a case where the assessee can show reliable material other than form 16A and prima facie establish the deduction of tax at source. The assessee cannot be left at the mercy of the tax deductor, who for multiple reasons may not issue form 16A or may not deposit the deducted tax.

ii) The assessee admittedly declared in his return of income the tax deducted at source by CAL. and supported this with his ledger account. Not only this, the assessee even filed a complaint dated 25th January, 2017 with the Department alleging that CAL. had deducted but not deposited the tax deducted at source. But no action was taken on its complaint. The assessee could not be burdened with the responsibility to somehow procure form 16A to secure benefit of the provision of section 205.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Intimation u/s. 143 — Procedure — Corrections to returns must be intimated to assessee — Reply by assessee must be considered.

76. Northern Arc Investment Managers Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. DIT

[2025] 472 ITR 154 (Mad)

Date of order: 10th November, 2023

S. 143 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Intimation u/s. 143 — Procedure — Corrections to returns must be intimated to assessee — Reply by assessee must be considered.

A writ petition was filed to direct either the first respondent or the second respondent to permit the petitioner to file their rectification petition to rectify the mistake of double disallowance in the intimation dated July 29, 2023 and also to process the refunds.

The Madras High Court Held as under:

“i) A reading of section 143 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 makes it clear that if there are any corrections, errors, addition or reduction in the return of the assessee, the Department has to intimate it to the assessee. Thereafter, as per the provisions of the Act, the Department is supposed to consider the reply and make suitable modifications in the Income-tax return as requested by the assessee.

ii) The Assessing Officer had not considered the reply filed by the assessee and issued the intimation. The Faceless Assessment Officer has to consider the reply and proceed with the assessee’s case based both on the original returns filed by the assessee and the modified returns after considering the reply of the assessee.”

Trust — Educational institution — Registration — Validity — Application for registration erroneously made while charitable institution continued to be registered — Assessee permitted to withdraw application filed inadvertently:

75 Purandhar Technical Education Society vs. CIT(Exemption)
[2024] 468 ITR 711 (Bom)
A.Ys. 2022-23 to 2026-27
Date of order: 8th July, 2024
Ss. 12A, 12AA and 12AB of ITA 1961

Trust — Educational institution — Registration — Validity — Application for registration erroneously made while charitable institution continued to be registered — Assessee permitted to withdraw application filed inadvertently:

The assessee was a trust engaged in educational activities and was granted registration u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee stated that it could not trace the certificate and although it availed of the benefits for certain number of years without any objection from the Department, the authorities called upon the assessee to produce the registration certificate. Hence, the assessee made an application on 14th October, 2019 to obtain a duplicate certificate of registration u/s. 12A but was not responded. The assessee made a fresh application on 19th April, 2022. The assessee contended that both the applications were not decided and the duplicate certificate was also not issued. On 25th March, 2022, the assessee applied for a fresh provisional certificate u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) in the prescribed form 10A as per rule 17A of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, that although the application for provisional registration was made on 4th April, 2022, an order on form 10AC u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) for the A. Y. 2022-23 to 2026-27 was passed by the competent authority thereby granting registration to the assessee. Thereafter, the assessee inadvertently applied for registration under the same provision in form 10AB on 30th September, 2022. The Commissioner (Exemption) issued notices requiring the assessee to submit copy of the provisional registration granted u/s. 12AB and the assessee furnished the necessary details. Another notice was received by the assessee on 9th March, 2023 to which the assessee failed to submit a reply. On 31st March, 2023, the Commissioner (Exemption) passed an order rejecting the assessee’s mistaken application on the ground that the assessee did not possess a copy of the provisional registration granted u/s. 12AB.

The assessee filed a writ petition contended that the Commissioner (Exemption) might take further actions to cancel the registration dated 4th April, 2022, of the assessee and seeking to be fully protected under the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Society for the Promotion of Education [2016] 382 ITR 6 (SC) and to permit withdrawal of the application inadvertently filed u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) :

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The assessee having already been granted registration u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(ii) read with section 12AB(1)(a) of the 1961 Act on April 1, 2022, for a period of five years, i.e., from the A. Y. 2022-23 to 2026-27, there was no need to make a fresh application on September 30, 2022 under which the order rejecting the application for registration had been passed.

ii)Hence the assessee could withdraw its application filed u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) , dated September 30, 2022 rendering the order dated March 31, 2023 of no consequence.”

Return — Delay in filing return — Application for condonation of delay — Limitation — Period to be computed with reference to date on which return had been filed

74 Vivek Krishnamoorthy vs. Pr. CIT
[2024] 469 ITR 605 (Kar)
A. Y. 2013-14
Date of order: 2nd November, 2023
S. 119 of ITA 1961

Return — Delay in filing return — Application for condonation of delay — Limitation — Period to be computed with reference to date on which return had been filed

The assessee had to file his Income-tax return before 31st March, 2015 but the Income-tax return was filed on 22nd August, 2015, and because Income-tax return was belated by about five months, an application was filed on 15th November, 2021 under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for condonation of delay in filing the Income-tax return. The application was rejected on the ground of limitation.

The assessee filed a writ petition against the order. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) In the case of a delay in filing an application to condone delay in filing returns according to the terms of Circular No. 9 of 2015 dated June 9, 2015 ([2015] 374 ITR (St.) 25) the period of six years will have to be computed with reference to the date when the belated Income-tax return is filed.

ii) The assessee’s application for condonation of delay in filing the Income-tax return on August 22, 2015 was to be restored for consideration in the light of the reasons offered to explain the delay between March 31, 2015 and August 22, 2015 and with the directions to consider the application within a reasonable period from the date of receipt of a certified copy of this order.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery during first appeal — Requirement of deposit — Discretion to forgo requirement and grant stay — Debatable issue — Direction for stay of recovery proceedings without deposit

73 Chaitanya Memorial Educational Society vs. CIT(Exemption)
[2024] 469 ITR 571 (Telangana)
A. Y. 2018-19
Date of order:9th October, 2023
S. 220(6) of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery during first appeal — Requirement of deposit — Discretion to forgo requirement and grant stay — Debatable issue — Direction for stay of recovery proceedings without deposit

The Commissioner (Exemption) while deciding a stay application u/s. 220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, pending an appeal challenging the assessment order for the A. Y. 2018-19, allowed the application subject to the assessee depositing an amount of ₹35 lakhs out of the total outstanding demand of ₹2,50,33,530.

The Telangana High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) In considering whether a stay of demand should be granted, the court is duty bound to consider not merely the issue of financial hardship, if any, but also whether a strong prima facie case raising a serious triable issue has been raised which would warrant dispensation of deposit.

ii) The contention of the assessee was that the assessee had been availing of the exemption from payment of Income-tax on account of the fact that the assessee was a charitable institution and the works executed by it again were with a charitable purpose. Since the assessee availed of the benefits all along prior to the issuance of the demand notice and even in the subsequent years as well, no prejudice was going to be caused if the stay application u/s. 220(6) of the Act, was decided in favour of the assessee. Moreover, though the appeal was filed as early as on April 17, 2021 and the rectification application also was filed on March 20, 2021, both the rectification application and the appeal were still pending consideration or were undecided for more than 2½ years. The Assessing Officer should have allowed the application u/s. 220(6).

iii) In view of the same, we are inclined to allow the writ petition. The impugned order dated September 4, 2023 for the reasons stated above stands set aside/quashed. It is ordered that there shall be stay of the recovery of the entire demand raised by respondent No. 4 dated March 19, 2021 till the disposal of the appeal filed by the petitioner on April 17, 2021.”

Offences and prosecution — Wilful evasion of tax — Deletion of penalty with regard to same issues on ground that there was no concealment of income — Prosecution not valid.

72 RohitkumarNemchandPiparia vs. Dy. DIT(Investigation)
[2024] 469 ITR 593 (Mad)
A. Y. 2008-09
Date of order: 16th November, 2023
S. 276C(1) of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Wilful evasion of tax — Deletion of penalty with regard to same issues on ground that there was no concealment of income — Prosecution not valid.

The assessee was a non-resident for more than 40 years. The respondent lodged a complaint for the offence u/s. 276C(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 alleging that during the course of the enquiry by the Investigation Wing, it was noticed that in the bank account maintained by the petitioner, there was unusual credit of large amount through real time gross settlement and funds were debited for investment in the stock market. The petitioner had entered into 165 share transactions during the financial year 2007-08 and filed his return of income for the A. Y. 2008-09 on February 5, 2009 declaring a taxable income of ₹3,10,226. However, the petitioner has not disclosed any capital gains in the return of income filed for the financial year 2007-08 relevant to the A. Y. 2008-09. Further, the petitioner entered into 165 share transactions to the tune of ₹155.20 crores and short-term capital gains arose from the said transactions is ₹52.13 crores. Though tax has been deducted, it was not fully deducted and the petitioner did not disclose in his return of income under the head “Capital gain” and paid the tax. Thus, the petitioner failed to show the same in his return of income and attempted to evade payment of tax. Only after deduction by the Income- tax Department, the petitioner had share transactions during the relevant financial year and accepted the same. Therefore, the petitioner committed the offence punishable u/s. 276C(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed a Criminal writ petition for quashing the proceedings. The Madras High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The Commissioner (Appeals) held in the appeal that the assessee was under the bona fide belief that there was no tax liability to be discharged by him on account of his residential status as non-resident external accounts and the deduction of tax at source made by the bank. Thus, the intention to conceal income by furnishing inaccurate particulars was not established. Therefore, the Assessing Officer was directed to delete the penalty imposed on the assessee.

ii) Therefore, once the penalty on the assessee was deleted, the prosecution initiated by the respondent could not be sustained.”

Income from House Property and Business Income — Difference — Finding by Tribunal that the Assessee Company had been formed with the object of developing Commercial Properties — Rental income from such properties is assessable as business income

71 Pr. CIT vs. M. P. Entertainment and Developers Pvt. Ltd.
[2024] 469 ITR 421 (MP)
A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2014-15
Date of order: 16th April, 2024
Ss. 22 and 28 of ITA 1961

Income from House Property and Business Income — Difference — Finding by Tribunal that the Assessee Company had been formed with the object of developing Commercial Properties — Rental income from such properties is assessable as business income

The Assessee had constructed a shopping cum entertainment mall in the name of Malhar Megha Mall and declared the nature of business as carrying on the business of purchase for development of the land, estates, structure and rented income from immovable properties. In the scrutiny assessment for the A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2014-15, the Assessing Officer observed that only part of the construction of the mall was complete and the assessee had started deriving rent from shops and other space in the mall and showed such income under the head Business & Profession. However, as per the Assessing Officer, the Assessee should have bifurcated under the head Income from House Property and Income from Business. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer restricted the claim of depreciation at the rate of 51.6 per cent of the occupied area of the Mall.

The CIT(A) deleted both the additions made by the Assessing Officer. The CIT(A) held that income from letting out properties were essentially required to be computed as Income from Business u/s. 28 and cannot be treated as Income from House Property. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the Department and held that where the letting of the property is the main object of the Assessee, its income has to be computed under the head Income from Business and it cannot be treated as Income from House Property.
The Madhya Pradesh High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department held as follows:

“i) In determining whether a particular income is income from house property or business income, in the case of Sultan Brothers Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [1964] 51 ITR 353 (SC) the Supreme Court held that each case has to be looked at from the businessman’s point of view to find out whether the letting was the doing of business or exploitation of the property by the owner.

ii) The Tribunal had found that the main object of the assessee was the business of constructing, owning, acquiring, developing, managing, running, hiring, letting out, selling out or leasing multiplexes, cineplexes, cinema halls, theatres, shops, shopping malls, etc., according to its memorandum and articles of association. The income was liable to be categorised as income derived from the shopping mall under the head of “Income from business” u/s. 28 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer did not find any material against the assessee to come to the conclusion that sub-leasing of the premises was only a part of its predominant object. The assessee right from the construction of the mall till the matter was taken into scrutiny had been offering income from the business of constructing, owning, acquiring, developing, managing, running, hiring, letting out, selling out or leasing multiplexes, cineplexes, cinema halls, theatres, shops, shopping malls, etc., sub-licensed by it under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”.

iii) Therefore, the Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal had rightly set aside the order of the Assessing Officer treating the income as one from house property.”

Company — Computation of Book Profits — Scope of section 115JB — Disallowance u/s. 14A — Amount disallowed cannot be taken into consideration when computing book profits

70 Pr. CIT vs. Moon Star Securities Trading and Finance Co. Pvt. Ltd.
[2024] 469 ITR 15 (Del.)
A. Y. 2011-12
Date of order: 11th March, 2024
Ss. 14A and 115JB of ITA 1961

Company — Computation of Book Profits — Scope of section 115JB — Disallowance u/s. 14A — Amount disallowed cannot be taken into consideration when computing book profits

The assessee earned dividend income of ₹58,09,619. In respect of the dividend income, the Assessee made disallowance u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, in the scrutiny assessment, the AO enhanced the disallowance u/s. 14A to ₹12,65,71,862 computed as per section 14A r.w.r. 8D and made addition under the normal provisions as well as to the book profits computed under the provisions of section 115JB of the Act.

The CIT(A) partly allowed the appeal of the Assessee and restricted the disallowance to ₹2,08,72,836 as against the disallowance of ₹12,65,71,862 determined by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal deleted the disallowance on the ground that there was no satisfaction recorded by the Assessing Officer. Further, the Tribunal held that the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act could not be made while computing book profits u/s. 115JB of the Act.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) Section 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by virtue of a deeming fiction, considers book profits as the total income of the assessee which is calculated post authorised adjustments to the profits shown in audited Profit and loss account of the assessee. A bare perusal of the provisions would signify that sub-section (1) prescribes the mode and manner of computing the total income of the assessee u/s. 115JB of the Act.

ii) Clause (f) of Explanation 1 only alludes to the amounts of expenditure relatable to any income to which section 10 (excluding provisions contained in clause (38) thereof) or section 11 or section 12 apply. The Assessing Officer does not have the jurisdiction to go behind the net profit shown in the profit and loss account except to the extent provided in the Explanation to section 115JB. The scheme of section 115JB, particularly in relation to clause (f) of Explanation 1 therein, does not envisage any addition of disallowance computed u/s. 14A of the Act to calculate the minimum alternate tax as per section 115JB of the Act. Rather, the two provisions stand separately as no correlation exists between them for the purpose of determining the taxable income.”

Charitable institution — Exemption — Scope of sub-sections (1), (2) and (3) of section 11 — Explanation to section 11 cannot be applied — Accumulated income — Donations to extent of 15 per cent. of surplus income accumulated to other charitable institutions for short period — Not permanent endowments made or donations imbued with some degree of permanency — Donations reversed — Exemption could not be denied

69 CIT(Exemption) vs. Jamnalal Bajaj Foundation
[2024] 468 ITR 723 (Del)
A. Y. 2009-10
Date of order: 31st May, 2024
S. 11 of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption — Scope of sub-sections (1), (2) and (3) of section 11 — Explanation to section 11 cannot be applied — Accumulated income — Donations to extent of 15 per cent. of surplus income accumulated to other charitable institutions for short period — Not permanent endowments made or donations imbued with some degree of permanency — Donations reversed — Exemption could not be denied

The assessee was a charitable institution registered u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assesseeutilised the accumulated fund to extend corpus donations to other charitable institutions in the A. Y. 2009-10. The Assessing Officer was of the view that extending donations to other charitable trusts would amount to utilisation of the funds for a purpose other than those for which the surplus was accumulated u/s. 11(2) which was violative of section 11(3)(c) and section 11(3)(d).

Before the Commissioner (Appeals) the assessee contended that the surplus accumulated income to the extent of 15 per cent. was handed out as donations to other charitable institutions for a temporary period of less than two months and that since the contravention was for a very short period, the exemption u/s. 11(2) should not be withdrawn. The Commissioner (Appeals) held in favour of the assessee on the issue of accumulation of 15 per cent. u/s. 11(2) and his order was affirmed by the Tribunal.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) Donations extended to other charitable institutions would meet the test of application of income for charitable purposes. Section 11(3)(c) and (d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 deals with situations where the income so accumulated is either not utilised or applied for a charitable purpose. It is only in such a situation that the deemed income would lose the sheen of protection of exemption which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of section 11.

ii) In terms of the Finance Act, 2002 ([2002] 255 ITR (St.) 9), an Explanation was appended to section 11(2) which gets attracted in a situation where income referable to clauses (a) or (b) of section 11(1) and so accumulated or set apart is credited or paid to institutions specified therein, not being liable to be treated as application of income for charitable or religious purposes. Explanation 1 to section 11(1) applies to situations where the income applied to charitable causes falls short of 85 per cent. of the income derived. Section 11(2) on the other hand constitutes a gateway which enables the charity to stave off the spectre of the income which is not applied for a charitable purpose coming to be included in the total income of the assessee.

iii) The donations, to the extent of 15 per cent. of the accumulated surplus income, made by the assessee in the A. Y. 2009-10 would not be hit by Explanation 2, inserted by the Finance Act, 2017 ([2017] 393 ITR (St.) 1) with effect from 1st April, 2018 since Explanation 2 applied only to amounts credited or paid to certain categories of institutions and those being in the nature of a contribution accompanied by a direction that the amounts extended would form part of the corpus of those entities. Although the donations were made out of the accumulated income, the money was retrieved within two months.

iv) Section 11(3) and the adverse consequences would have been attracted provided the accumulated income was diverted for a purpose other than charitable or religious, or where it was not utilised for the purpose for which it was so accumulated or set apart during the period of five years contemplated u/s. 11(2)(a). The assessee did not make a permanent endowment or one where the donation stood imbued with some degree of permanency. It also was not that the money was lost or became unavailable to be applied. Since the donations were reversed and had been advanced only for an extremely short duration, the Tribunal had not erred in allowing deduction u/s. 11(1) to the extent of 15 per cent on the deemed income u/s. 11(3)(c) or section 11(3)(d) and for justifiable reasons, had answered the issue in favour of the assessee.”

Capital gains — Transfer — Possession taken in part performance of contract — Agreement must be registered — Joint Development Agreement — Not registered — Ownership of capital asset retained by Assessee throughout — Possession clauses suggesting possession to be parted with for limited purpose of development — Unregistered agreement not effecting transfer of property u/s. 2(47)

68 Prithvi Consultants Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT
[2024] 470 ITR 37 (Bom.)
A.Ys. 2005-06 to 2011-12
Date of order: 5th September, 2023
S. 2(47)(v) of ITA 1961, Ss. 17(1A) of Registration Act, 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882

Capital gains — Transfer — Possession taken in part performance of contract — Agreement must be registered — Joint Development Agreement — Not registered — Ownership of capital asset retained by Assessee throughout — Possession clauses suggesting possession to be parted with for limited purpose of development — Unregistered agreement not effecting transfer of property u/s. 2(47)

In December 2008, the Assessee entered into two Joint Development Agreements (JDA) in respect of two plots of land. These agreements were not registered as required u/s. 17(1A) of the Registration Act. A search and seizure action was carried on in the case of one Mr. PK and others, where the said two JDAs were found. The Department issued notice u/s. 153C of the Act requiring the Assessee to file return of income for the AY 2009-10. Subsequently, notices were issued u/s. 153A and 142(1) for the AYs 2005-06 to 2010-11 as well as notice u/s. 143(2) for AY 2011-12 to conduct inquiry and the assessment of the Assessee’s income. In response to the notices, the Assessee filed response submitting that the Assessee had not received any consideration under the two JDAs. Further the transaction did not constitute transfer u/s. 2(47) of the Act. In March 2013, the Assessee cancelled the two JDAs because of non-performance by the Developer. However, in the assessment, the Assessing Officer concluded that the two JDAs constituted transfer u/s. 2(47) of the Act. He referred to the minimum guaranteed amounts reflected in the JDAs and concluded that additional income had accrued to the Assessee even though the Assessee may not have received any amount.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the Assessee. On Department’s appeal before the Tribunal, the order of the CIT(A) was set aside and the assessment order was restored.

On appeal by the Assessee the High Court framed the following questions for consideration:

“i) Whether in the light of section 17(1A) read with section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908, the unregistered agreement dated December 31, 2008, can be construed as a document effecting transfer of the subject properties in terms of section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?

ii) Whether in the absence of income having accrued to the appellant in terms of the agreement dated December 31, 2008, the appellant can be made liable to pay tax on capital gains in terms of section 45 read with section 48 of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The Bombay High Court decided the above questions of law in favour of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001 made simultaneous amendments in section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and sections 17 and 49 of the Registration Act, 1908. By these amendments, the words “the contract, though required to be registered, has not been registered, or” in section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, have been omitted. Simultaneously, sections 17 and 49 of the Registration Act, 1908 , were also amended, clarifying that unless the document containing the contract to transfer for consideration any immovable property (for the purpose of section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is registered, it shall not have any effect in law, other than being received as evidence of a contract in a suit for specific performance or as evidence of any collateral transaction not required to be effected by a registered instrument.

ii) The joint development agreements dated December 31, 2008, were not registered, though they were required to be compulsorily registered under section 17(1A) of the Registration Act, 1908, post the introduction of this provision by the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001. In the JDAs the ownership of the capital asset was retained by the assessee throughout. The clauses relating to parting of possession, besides being unclear, suggested that at the highest, possession was to be parted with for the limited purpose of development. The unregistered agreement dated December 31, 2008, could not be construed as a document effecting transfer of the subject properties in terms of section 2(47) of the Act.”

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

67 Vishwakarma Developers vs. CBDT

[2024] 468 ITR 686 (Bom)

A.Ys. 2015–16 to 2020–21

Date of order: 24th July, 2024

Ss. 119(2)(b), 245C and 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

The assessee filed an application for settlement of case u/s. 245C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2015–16 to 2020–21. During the period from August 2022 to September 2023, settlement proceedings were conducted by the Interim Board for Settlement constituted by the Central Government pursuant to the notification dated 10th August, 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The assessee from time to time pursued the proceedings before the Interim Board for Settlement. On 22nd September, 2021, the assessee refiled the settlement application pursuant to the press release on 7th September, 2021, and paid additional interest for the period of March 2021 to September 2021. The application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the rejection order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) On March 28, 2021, Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52) was enacted, as a consequence of which the Settlement Commission came to be abolished, consequent to which the jurisdiction of such Commission to deal with pending applications was transferred to the Interim Board for Settlement which was constituted by the Central Government on August 10, 2021 by Notification No. 91 of 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a Press Release dated September 7, 2021, in view of the orders passed by the High Courts informing the public at large that a settlement application could be filed even after February 1, 2021, being the date when the Finance Bill was introduced. It was also informed that the settlement application could be filed by taxpayers till September 30, 2021. On September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5), the Central Board of Direct Taxes however issued another order u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act, which was also subject matter of the press release, in which two additional conditions were incorporated in para 4, in the context of section 245C(5), to the effect that applications could be filed by the assessees, who were eligible, to make an application as on January 31, 2021 and who had assessment proceedings pending on the date of filing of the settlement application. In the decision in Sar Senapati Santaji Ghorpade Sugar Factory Ltd. v. Asst. CIT [2024] 470 ITR 723 (Bom), the court struck down paragraph 4 of the circular dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) of the CBDT, declaring it to be ultra vires of the parent Act, as it incorporated additional eligibility conditions for filing settlement applications.

ii) The order passed by the Interim Board for Settlement rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 245C for settlement of case on the ground that the conditions as incorporated in paragraph 4 of the CBDT notification dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) issued u/s. 119(2)(b) were applicable since it was contrary to the decision of this court which had struck down paragraph 4 as being ultra vires of the parent Act, was illegal and unsustainable. The assessee was eligible to file its settlement application to be considered by the Interim Board for Settlement for appropriate orders to be passed in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

66 PramilaMahadevTadkase vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 275 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 7th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

The assessee was issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment of the A.Y. 2016–17 u/s. 147 on the grounds that the assessee sold a property. The assessee stated that she was a non-resident, that she and her husband purchased an immovable property in the year 1996 and sold it in the year 2015 for a total consideration of ₹69,30,000, that the tax at source was deducted by the purchaser and that because her husband did not have a Permanent Account Number, the corresponding tax deducted at source was uploaded to her Permanent Account Number.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) According to the terms of section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notice u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be issued, after three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is likely to amount to rupees fifty lakhs or more.

ii) The assessee and her husband had jointly purchased the immovable property. They, as equal co-owners of the property, had transferred it for a total sale consideration of Rs. 69,30,000. Even if it could be opined that the assessee had received any part of the consideration, it could not be more than 50 per cent. thereof and, therefore, the income that could be alleged to have escaped the assessment would be below the threshold limit of Rs. 50 lakhs and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148A was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

65 Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 5 (Del)

A.Y. 2011–12

Date of order: 26th September, 2023

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12 and the order disposing of the objections, on the grounds that the approval for the reassessment proceedings was accorded by the Principal Commissioner without application of mind and not furnished along with the reasons recorded the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) The approval granted by the statutory authorities for reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe that income has escaped assessment. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and, reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of reassessment.

ii) There was nothing contained in the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee which would answer the poser raised by the assessee that there was no application of mind by the Principal Commissioner for initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12. The only assertion made by the Revenue was that the Principal Commissioner had conveyed her approval u/s. 151 to the Assessing Officer by way of a letter but had not produced the letter despite the assessee’s raising a specific objection that the Principal Commissioner had not applied his mind while granting approval for the commencement of reassessment proceedings. The condition requiring the Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there was no good reason not to furnish it to the assessee along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons recorded for the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee were unsustainable and hence set aside.”

[Note: The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition filed by the Revenue and held that in view of the categorical finding recorded in the judgment and in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out under article 136 of the Constitution [(ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. [2024] 468 ITR 10 (SC)].

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

64 Trans World International LLC TWI vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax)

[2024] 467 ITR 583 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2016–17, 2017–18, 2018–19

Date of order: 14th August, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

The assessee, non-resident, received payments, under a single agreement, for the A.Ys. 2016–17, 2017–18 and 2018–19 with an Indian entity for the grant of exclusive rights for telecast of league matches. The Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that tax was not deducted at source from such receipt received from an Indian payer even though it was income chargeable to tax in India, passed an order u/s. 148A(d) and issued a consequential notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer recorded reasons that only a nominal fraction of such income amounting to five per cent was offered to tax as royalty by the assessee on the grounds that only broadcasting rights for non-live content were taxable in India, that for the remaining amount, claimed to have been received for live content and not covered under royalty, the assessee did not provide any document to substantiate such bifurcation, and that the assessee did not submit any document to substantiate its tax residency and its eligibility for the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. He rejected the objections raised by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Clause D of the agreement between the assessee and the Indian entity, for the grant of telecast of matches, bifurcated the licence fee between live feed and recorded content. The view of the Assessing Officer that there was no basis for the bifurcation of the receipt in the ratio of 95 per cent and five per cent was perverse in view of the stipulations contained in the agreement. No contestation existed on the issue of taxability of live feed.

ii) There was no justification to recognize a right inhering in the Revenue to continue the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148
were quashed.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

63 RatanBej vs. Pr. CIT

[2024] 467 ITR 288 (Jhar)

A.Y. 2016–17

Date of order: 24th January, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(a), 148A(b), 148A(c), 148A(d) and 149(1)(b) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

Though the assessee had a permanent account number, he did not file returns of income. In the A.Y. 2016–17, the assessee sold an inherited property, in which he and his brother had equal shares. The Assessing Officer (AO) sent a letter u/s. 148A(a) of Income-tax Act, 1961 for inquiry and issued a notice u/s. 148A(b). The assessee raised objection on the grounds that his share of the sale consideration was below the limit of ₹50 lakhs prescribed u/s. 149(1)(b). The AO passed an order u/s. 148A(d) without disposing of the objections raised by the assessee and issued a notice u/s. 148 for reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2016–17.

The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the order and the notice contending that (a) non-consideration of the reply-cum-objection filed by the assessee in response to the initial notice u/s. 148A(b) was in violation of principles of natural justice and rule of fairness, (b) initiating and concluding the enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A was beyond jurisdiction and barred by limitation u/s. 149. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 148A(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to consider the reply or objections furnished by the assessee to the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b). Non-consideration of reply or objection furnished by the assessee not only amounts to violation of principles of natural justice but is also in contravention of mandatory modalities which are to be followed during the course of enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A.

ii) Sections 148 and 148A introduced by way of the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), have been codified following the judgment in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO [2003] 259 ITR 19 (SC). The provisions mandate that, before seeking to reopen the assessment u/s. 147, the Assessing Officer must serve a notice to the assessee requiring him to file his return of income within specified time and before such notice, the Assessing Officer shall record his reasons for the reopening of the assessment. While the pre-amended provision required the Assessing Officer to have reason to believe that there is escapement of income, the new provision required any information as specified under Explanation 1 to section 148 to be in existence to reopen the assessment.

iii) Section 148A, inserted by the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), reiterates the procedure to be followed by the Assessing Officer upon receiving information, including conducting any inquiry regarding the information received, providing an opportunity of being heard to the assessee through serving of notice to show cause within the prescribed time in the notice (which must not be less than seven days and not more than 30 days on the date of serving the notice or the time period till which time extension has been received by the assessee), considering the reply given by the assessee and deciding on the basis of the material that is present, including the reply, about whether the case is fit for issuing a notice u/s. 148 through passing an order u/s. 148A(d) within one month from the reply.

iv) Under the modified section 149, by the Finance Act, 2021, to the effect that an assessment can be reopened within three years from the time of end of relevant assessment year as under clause (a) of section 149(1), if there is information with the Assessing Officer that suggests that there is escapement of income as provided under Explanation 1 to section 148, and up to ten years as provided in clause (b) of section 149(1) in certain exceptional cases, defined as circumstances where income chargeable to tax, within the meaning of “asset” that has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to Rs.50 lakhs or more in that year.

v) Section 26 provides that where a property is owned by two or more persons and their respective shares are definite and ascertainable, such persons shall not be assessed as an association of persons, but the share of each person in income of the property shall be included in his total income.

vi) The Assessing Officer ought to have considered the objections raised by the assessee in response to the notice u/s. 148A(b) and should have disposed of it as mandated u/s. 148A(c).

vii) Since the income escaping assessment was less than Rs. 50 lakhs, section 149(1)(b) could not have been invoked. The assessee and his brother were joint owners of the inherited property with respective share of 50 per cent each and both being joint vendors were entitled to equal share of the consideration amount of Rs. 32,68,000 each and this had been accepted by the Revenue. The reassessment proceeding initiated by the Department was barred by limitation and was beyond jurisdiction. Hence, the entire enquiry proceeding u/s. 148A, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 were quashed.”

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

62 GE Capital US Holdings INC. vs. Dy. CIT (International Taxation)

[2024] 468 ITR 746 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2018–19 and 2019–20

Date of order: 31st May, 2024

Ss. 270A and 270AA of ITA 1961

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

On writ petitions challenging the orders rejecting the applications of the assessee u/s. 270AA(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for immunity from imposition of penalty and levy of penalty u/s. 270A for the A.Y. 2018–19 and 2019–20, the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 speaks of various eventualities and which may expose an assessee to face imposition of penalties. These range from failure to comply with notice u/s. 115WD or concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or fringe benefits. Section 270A provides for imposition of penalty for under-reporting and misreporting of income. U/s. 270A(1), a person would be liable to be considered to have under-reported his income if the contingencies spoken of in clauses (a) to (g) of section 270A(2) are attracted. In terms of section 270A(3), the under-reported income is thereafter liable to be computed in accordance with the stipulations prescribed therein. The subject of misreporting of income is dealt with separately in accordance with the provisions comprised in sub-sections (9) and (10) of section 270A. Therefore, under-reporting and misreporting are separate and distinct misdemeanors. A notice for penalty under Section 270A must clearly specify whether the assessee is being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income in order to be considered valid and sustainable.

ii) Section 270AA lays down conditions for immunity from penalty. Sub-section (3) of section 270AA required the Assessing Officer to consider the following three aspects, (a) whether the conditions precedent specified in sub-section (1) of section 270AA have been complied with, (b) The time limit for filing an appeal under section 249(2)(b) has expired. and (c) the subject matter of penalty not falling within the ambit of section 270A(9). While examining an application for immunity, it is incumbent upon the Assessing Officer to ascertain whether the provisions of section 270A stood attracted either on the anvil of under-reporting or misreporting because the Assessing Officer becomes enabled to reject such an application only if it is found that the imposition of penalty is founded on a charge referable to section 270A(9).

iii) In the absence of the Assessing Officer having specified the transgression of the assessee which could be shown to fall within the ambit of sub-section (9) of section 270A, proceedings for imposition of penalty could not have been mechanically commenced. The notices issued for commencement of action u/s. 270A were themselves vague and unclear. Since the notices failed to specify whether the assessee was being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income and such aspect assumed added significance considering the indisputable position that a prayer for immunity could have been denied in terms of section 270AA(3) only if it were a case of misreporting.

iv) Since an application for grant of immunity could not be pursued unless the assessee complies with clauses (a) and (b) of section 270AA(1), the contention of the Revenue that mere payment of demand would not lead to a prayer for immunity being pursued was unsustainable.

v) Even the assessment orders failed to base the direction for initiation of proceedings u/s. 270A on any considered finding of the conduct of the assessee being liable to be placed within the sweep of sub-section (9) of that provision. The order of assessment and the penalty notices failed to meet the test of ‘specific limb’ as propounded in Pr. CIT v. Ms. MinuBakshi [2024] 462 ITR 301 (Delhi) and Schneider Electric South East Asia (Hq) Pte Ltd. v. Asst. CIT (International Taxation) [2022] 443 ITR 186 (Delhi). A case of misreporting could not have been made out considering the fact that the assessee had questioned the taxability of income asserting that the amount in question would not constitute royalty. The issue as raised was based on an understanding of the legal regime which prevailed. The contentions addressed on that score could neither be said to be baseless nor specious but was based on a judgment rendered by the High Court which was binding upon the Assessing Officer. The position which the assessee sought to assert stood redeemed in view of the decision rendered by the Supreme Court.

vi) The assessee had duly complied with the statutory pre-conditions prescribed in section 270AA(1). Hence it was incumbent upon the Revenue to have concluded firmly whether the assessee’s case fell in the category of misreporting since that alone would have warranted a rejection of its application for immunity. A finding of misrepresentation, failure to record investments, expenditure not substantiated by evidence, recording of false entry in the books of account and the other circumstances stipulated in sub-section (9) of section 270A had neither been returned nor recorded in the assessment order. The show cause notices in terms of which the proceedings u/s. 270A were initiated also failed to specify whether the assessee was being tried on an allegation of under-reporting or misreporting. Since there was a clear and apparent failure on the part of the Revenue to base the penalty proceedings on a contravention relatable to section 270A(9), the application for immunity could not have been rejected.

vii) The orders u/s. 270AA rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 270AA(4) were not valid. On an overall conspectus orders rejecting the assessee’s applications u/s. 270AA(4) for immunity from imposition of penalty were unsustainable and hence quashed.”

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

61 Pr. CIT vs. Dharmanandan Diamonds Pvt. Ltd

[2024] 467 ITR 26 (Bom)

A.Y. 2009–10

Date of order: 14th June, 2023

Ss. 32 and 43(1) of ITA 1961: R. 5 of IT Rules 1962

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

The Assessee was incorporated on 31st August, 2007 and A.Y. 2008–09 was the first year of the Company. The Assessee was incorporated to take over all the assets and liabilities of a Partnership Firm (‘the Firm’) as on 1st September, 2007. Depreciation on assets was claimed by the erstwhile Firm on WDV basis up to 31st August, 2007 and by the successor Assessee at revalued price from 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008. The revaluation was done by a Government-approved valuer. In the subsequent year, that is, A.Y. 2009–10, the assessment year under consideration, the Assessee claimed depreciation on the WDV as on 31st March, 2008 which was arrived at by the Assessee after claiming depreciation for the period 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008 on the revalued figure. According to the Assessing Officer, the Assessee had claimed excess depreciation and, therefore, he disallowed the depreciation as claimed by the Assessee on the revalued cost.

The Tribunal held that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation on revalued assets instead of written down value.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) According to the proviso to section 32, aggregate deduction in respect of depreciation on tangible assets or intangible assets allowable to the predecessor firm and the successor assessee, respectively, shall not exceed in any previous year, the deduction calculated at the prescribed rates as if the succession or the amalgamation or the demerger, as the case may be, had not taken place, and such deduction shall be apportioned between the predecessor and the successor. This was applicable only to the A. Y. 2008-09 when the succession took place as for later years, it would not be the case as the assets would no longer belong to the predecessor firm but only the successor assessee, who could claim depreciation.

ii) For the earlier A. Y. 2008-09, the predecessor firm had claimed depreciation for five months from April 1, 2007 to August 31, 2007 and the successor assessee had claimed depreciation for the assessment year 2008-09 for the period from September 1, 2007 to March 31, 2008. By way of illustration, if succession had not taken place during the A. Y. 2008-09 and the predecessor firm would have claimed Rs. 1 crore as depreciation, both predecessor firm and the successor assessee for that year could claim together only Rs. 1 crore as depreciation and nothing more. This is what had happened in the case at hand also.

iii) The appeal pertained to the A. Y. 2009-10 in which year the asset was owned by the successor assessee. According to section 32 read with rule 5 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation in respect of any assets on the actual cost of these assets which would be the actual cost paid to the predecessor firm by the assessee after revaluing the assets. Therefore, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation for the subsequent years on the basis of the actual cost paid. For the actual cost no money was paid but shares were issued in lieu of cash and that would be the cost which the assessee had paid to procure the assets. The Tribunal did not err in holding that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation u/s. 32 on revalued assets instead of written down value for the A. Y. 2009-10.”

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

60 Pallava Textiles Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assessment Unit

[2024] 467 ITR 539 (Mad.)

A.Y. 2021–22

Date of order: 30th January, 2024

S. 170A of ITA 1961

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

The assessee was a private limited company engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of yarn and fabric. During the financial year 2020–21, it filed an application before the National Company Law Tribunal, seeking approval for a scheme of amalgamation with a company C. Under the scheme of amalgamation, C merged with the assessee and dissolved without being wound up. The appointed date under the scheme was 1st April, 2020. The National Company Law Tribunal sanctioned the scheme on 18th April, 2022, and the scheme became effective from 1st April, 2020 upon such sanction. Since the last date for filing the return of income was in March 2022, the assessee was constrained to file the standalone return of income on 14th March, 2022. Meanwhile, the Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and further notices u/s. 142(1) thereof. The assessee replied thereto. After issuing a show-cause notice on 27th December, 2022, the assessment order was issued within two days after the assessee replied to the show-cause notice.

Assessee filed a writ petition to quash the order. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 170A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 91) with effect from April 1, 2022. Under the provisions of section 170A a successor of a business reorganisation is required to furnish the modified return within six months from the end of the month in which the order of the court or Tribunal sanctioning such business reorganisation is issued. The provision clearly indicates that any assessment after a business reorganisation is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a scheme of reorganisation becomes effective upon sanction from the appointed date. All the assets, contracts, rights and liabilities of the transferor shall stand vested with the transferee with effect from that date. Therefore, section 170A of the Act enables the transferee or successor to file the modified return within a specified time limit.

ii) The amended section 170A clearly indicates that any assessment after the business reorganization is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Since the order of the National Company Law Tribunal was issued on April 18, 2022, the assessee had six months from April 30, 2022 to file the modified return. The option to file the modified return under section 170A of the Act had not been enabled in the portal. In those circumstances, the assessee submitted a physical copy of the modified return on August 24, 2022. Since the last date for filing the return was expiring earlier, the assessee previously submitted the return of the company on standalone basis on March 14, 2022. The first notice to the assessee u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on June 28, 2022, which was subsequent to the effective date of merger. All other notices culminating in the assessment order were issued later. In view of the scheme of amalgamation having become effective and thereby operational from April 1, 2020, the assessee’s consolidated return of income, after its amalgamation, should have been the basis for assessment based on the scrutiny. The Assessing Officer had taken into account the standalone returns of the assessee, the standalone returns of C and the consolidated returns of the merged entity for different purposes. Such an approach was not sustainable.

iii) The show-cause notice dated December 27, 2022 was followed by the assessment order in a matter of about five or six days. The issuance of an assessment order within about two days from the receipt of the reply to the show cause, in a matter relating to about 59 additions to income, constituted a further reason to interfere with
the order.

iv) The assessment order dated December 31, 2022 was quashed and the matter was remanded. Upon consideration of the consolidated return of the assessee, which had since been uploaded electronically, it is open to the Department to issue fresh notices and make a reassessment on the basis of such consolidated return of income.”

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

59. Sarfaraz S. Furniturewalla vs. AfshanSharfali Ashok Kumar

[2024] 467 ITR 293(Bom):

Date of order 15th April, 2024:

S.194-Iof the ITA 1961

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

On the question of whether there should be a deduction of tax at source u/s. 194-I of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the amount paid by the assessee as “transit rent”, by the developer or builder, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“The ordinary meaning of rent would be an amount which the tenant or licensee pays to the landlord or licensor. The “transit rent”, which was commonly referred to as hardship allowance rehabilitation allowance, or displacement allowance, which was paid by the developer or landlord to the tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession was not revenue receipt and therefore, not liable to tax. Hence there was no liability to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I from the amount payable by the developer to the tenant.”

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

58. Principal CIT vs. Shiv Kumar Nayyar

[2024] 467 ITR 186 (Del)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 15th May, 2024

Ss. 132, 133A, 143(3), 153A and 153D of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

The Tribunal set aside the assessment order passed u/s. 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with section 143(3) as invalid and bad in law on the ground that the approval granted by the Range’s head under section 153D was void since it was granted in a mechanical manner without application of mind.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The approval, for assessment in cases of search or requisition u/s. 153D of the Income-tax Act, 1961 has to be granted for “each assessment year” referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A. Grant of approval u/s. 153D cannot be merely a ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by the authority. It must reflect an appropriate application of mind.

ii) The order of approval u/s. 153D for assessment u/s. 153A clearly signified that a single approval had been granted for the A. Ys. 2011–12 to 2017–18. The order also failed to make any mention of the fact that the draft assessment orders were perused, much less perusal with an independent application of mind. The concerned authority had granted approval for 43 cases in a single day which was evident from the findings of the Tribunal, succinctly encapsulated in the order. We are unable to find any substantial question of law which would merit our consideration.”

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

57. Jindal Worldwide Ltd. vs. Principal CIT

[2024] 466 ITR 472 (Guj)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 29th April, 2024

S. 264of ITA 1961

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

The petitioner is a limited company incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, and is engaged in the business of weaving, manufacturing, and finishing textiles. The petitioner is also engaged in the business of manufacturing and dealing in denim and other textile activities. For the A. Y. 2015–16, the petitioner filed a return of income on 31st October, 2015 declaring a total loss of ₹8,54,09,913 including the interest subsidy of ₹10,83,16,142 received by the petitioner under the Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) for textile and jute industries, a State interest subsidy of ₹2,27,09,183 and electricity subsidy of ₹1,71,06,082. According to the petitioner the aforesaid subsidies were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts and the return of income was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Act on 17th January, 2017 without framing any assessment u/s. 143(3) and intimation to that effect issued.

It is the case of the petitioner that for the A. Y. 2012–13, the petitioner had received similar subsidies, and the same was treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts during the appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the additional ground was taken by the petitioner and the same was allowed by the Tribunal while disposing of the appeal being I. T. A. No. 1843/Ahd/2016 by order dated 20th February, 2019 (CIT vs. Jindal Worldwide Ltd.). Therefore, according to the petitioner, the issue of the nature of the subsidy was judicially decided that it would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts.

The petitioner therefore, on the basis of the aforesaid order passed by the Tribunal filed a revision application u/s. 264 of the Act on 1st July, 2019, to revise the loss return for the A. Y. 2015–16 and treat the various subsidies as capital receipts instead of revenue receipts as erroneously offered in the return of income. The petitioner also requested the respondents to condone the delay in filing the revision application as per the provisions of section 264(3) of the Act. However, the respondent-Principal Commissioner of Income-tax by the impugned order dated 20th March, 2020 rejected the revision application of the petitioner on the ground of limitation by not entertaining the application to condone the delay in preferring the revision application.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee petitioner and held as under:

“i) Section 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, confers wide jurisdiction on the Commissioner. Proceedings u/s. 264 are intended to meet the situation faced by an aggrieved assessee who is unable to approach the appellate authority for relief and has no other alternate remedy available under the Act. The Commissioner has the power to condone the delay in filing an application for revision in case of sufficient cause while considering the question of condonation of delay u/s. 264 of the Act, the Commissioner should not take a pedantic approach but should be liberal. The words “sufficient cause” should be given a liberal construction so as to advance substantial justice when no negligence nor inaction nor want of bona fide is imputable to the assessee.

ii) The application for revision had been filed on the ground that certain subsidies received by the assessee were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts. The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); was pronounced on 7th December, 2017 wherein the character of subsidies was decided. The Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); held that the subsidies received by the assessee would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts. This aspect had been considered by the Tribunal in the case of the assessee while allowing the additional ground raised by the assessee for the A. Y. 2012–13. The order of the Tribunal was pronounced on 20th February, 2019 and the assessee had filed the revision application on 1st July, 2019, i. e., within five months from the date of receipt of the order of the Tribunal.

iii) Hence the order dated 20th March, 2020 passed by the Commissioner u/s. 264 of the Act was liable to be quashed and set aside and the delay in preferring the revision application had to be condoned and the matter was remanded back to the respondent to decide the same on the merits after giving an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.”

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

56. Oneness Educational and Charitable Trust vs. CIT(Exemption)

[2024] 466 ITR 654 (Ori)

A. Y. 2021–22: Date of order 9th March, 2024

Ss. 11(1), 119(2)(b) and 139(5)of ITA 1961

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

The assessee was an educational and charitable trust constituted for educational and charitable purposes registered u/s. 12A(1)(aa) of the Income-tax Act, 1961and was entitled to exemptions u/s. 10(23C), 11 and 12. For the A. Y. 2021–22, the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 11 was disallowed on the grounds of delay in filing the audit report in form 10B. The Assessing Officer in his order u/s. 143(1) raised a demand. At the beginning of the F. Y. 2020–21, the assessee had an accumulated deficit and there was a one-time settlement of the loan availed of from its bank. The assessee showed the amount sacrificed by the bank as income although it never claimed the loan principal amount as income or the repayment as application. The accumulated interest also remained unabsorbed and was duly reflected as a deficit in the balance sheet and the past accumulated deficit was not adjusted which resulted in excess of income over expenditure. According to the assessee, it inadvertently failed to claim the deficit in the return of income filed for the A. Y. 2021–22 and filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) challenging the intimation order u/s. 143(1). It also filed an application u/s. 154 for rectification of the order. Though the Assessing Officer rejected the rectification application, he did not dispute the claim of the assessee regarding the non-adjustment of accumulated deficit.

In the meantime, the Commissioner (Exemption) condoned the delay in filing form 10B and consequently, the Assessing Officer reduced the demand raised in the intimation under section 143(1). The assessee took additional grounds before the Commissioner (Appeals) regarding the rejection of the rectification application, disallowance of the set off of past deficit as the application of income, and its inadvertent mistake in claiming the past deficit in the A. Y. 2021–22 u/s. 11(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the claim of the assessee that in its return it had not set off the past year’s deficit on account of interest waiver under the one-time settlement by the bank, could only be considered in a revised return claiming such set-off and that if the time limit for filing the revised return had lapsed, the only remedy was to make an application u/s. 119(2)(b) for condonation of delay. The application filed by the assessee for condonation of delay in filing the revised return was rejected stating that the assessee having filed the original return of income after due consideration with an undertaking that the information therein was correct and in spite of enough time, no revised return of income having been filed, the genuine hardship for not filing the revised return of income was not justified.

The Orissa High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The assessee has made out a case of genuine hardship in its favor, rejection of the application filed for condonation of the delay u/s. 119(2)(b) in filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) had no justification. The authority had neither in the rejection order u/s. 119(2)(b) nor in the counter affidavit, denied the entitlement of the assessee to claim set off of past years’ deficit u/s. 11. Rather, the Commissioner (Appeals) in his order had acknowledged the entitlement of the assessee to such a claim. The assessee had established the requirement of “genuine hardship”, as enumerated u/s. 119(2)(b). Therefore, the finding of the Commissioner (Exemption) that the assessee had failed to demonstrate “genuine hardship”, was misconceived, and unsustainable. The assessee had filed its return for the A. Y. 2021–22 on the due date of 15th March, 2022. The time limit for filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) was 31st December, 2022. On the observation of the Commissioner (Appeals) and finding no other alternative, the assessee filed an application u/s. 119(2)(b). The assessee had clearly stated in its application filed u/s. 119(2)(b) that it had inadvertently erred in claiming the past years’ deficit. Its claim was genuine and unless the time limit for filing a revised return making such a claim was extended, the assessee would be in genuine hardship. The authority without taking into consideration the genuine hardship of the assessee had mechanically rejected the application which was unsustainable.

ii) In view of the provisions of section 119(2)(b) read with the circular dated 9th June, 2015 ([2015] 374 ITR (St.) 25) issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, which stipulated that an application for claim of refund or loss was to be made within six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for which such application or claim was made, the last date for filing of revised return for the A. Y. 2021–22 was 31st December, 2022 and the assessee had made the application u/s. 119(2)(b) on 16th October, 2023 which was within six-year time limit, as stipulated in the circular for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5). When the assessee had filed the application indicating its genuine hardship, it should have been considered in the proper perspective and not rejected. Accordingly, the order rejected the application for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5) was quashed and set aside. The authority concerned was to take follow-up action in accordance with the law.

iii) That in view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, the reasons which had been assigned by the concerned authority in the counter affidavit for rejection of the application for condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) were contrary to the order in question and therefore, unsustainable.”