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Article 7(3) of India-UAE and Section 44Cof the IT Act – Prior to amendment with effect from 1st April, 2008, while computing the profits of PE, expenses incurred by HO were allowable without any restriction as per domestic tax law governing computation of income

1- [2025] 171 taxmann.com 230 (SB)

Mashreq Bank Psc vs. DCIT

ITA No:1342 (MUM) of 2006

A.Y.:2002-03Dated: 6th February, 2025

Article 7(3) of India-UAE and Section 44Cof the IT Act – Prior to amendment with effect from 1st April, 2008, while computing the profits of PE, expenses incurred by HO were allowable without any restriction as per domestic tax law governing computation of income

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of the UAE, was engaged in banking business in India through branches. The branch claimed deduction towards expenses incurred by HO without any restriction on the quantum of deduction. Further, it claimed certain expenses that were directly incurred outside India by HO as they were related to business operations of Indian branch.

Applying Section 44C, the AO restricted deduction of HO expenses to 5% of average adjusted total income. Further, the AO denied deduction for certain expenses (such as, SWIFT charges and global accounting software maintenance expenses) that were directly incurred by HO for branch operations.

CONSTITUTION OF SPECIAL BENCH

In Assessee’s case for AY 1996-97, ITAT held that Article 25(1) provided for computation of income and Article 7(3) of India-UAE DTAA should not be interpreted in a manner to restrict the application of domestic law. For AY 1998-99 and 2001-02, ITAT did not follow its earlier order and held that Article 7(3) did not restrict deduction of head office expenses. Therefore, provisions of DTAA should prevail over domestic law. ITAT further noted that amendment to Protocol to India-UAE DTAA with effect from 01 April 2008 restricted allowability of HO expenses.
Given the conflicting view in the Assesses’ own cases and other cases, a Special Bench was constituted at department’s request.

HELD

Head Office Expenses

Article 7(3) deals with determination of profits of PE. It provides for deducting all expenses incurred for PE business, including general and administrative expenses. Prior to amendment of India-UAE DTAA vide Protocol (Notification no. SO 2001(E) (NO) 282/2007, dated 28-11-2007), the Article did not restrict quantum of deduction or provide for reference to domestic law.

The first part of Article 25(1) provides that domestic law provisions deal with income and capital taxation arising in respective states. The later part provides that if any express provision under DTAA is contrary to domestic law, taxation shall be governed by DTAA and not by domestic law. This position aligns with interpretation of Section 90(2) namely, DTAA provisions shall override domestic law provisions to the extent beneficial to Assessee.

The scope of Article 25(1) as regards computation of business profits cannot be interpreted in a way that imposes restrictions on the manner of computing tax liability under Article 7(3), or to read restrictions under domestic law into DTAA. There was no need to introduce limitation via the Protocol if Article 25(1) was to be interpreted otherwise. Article 25(1) and Article 7(3) operate differently as the former deals with eliminating double taxes and later deals with determining business profits.

Provisions contained under DTAA must be interpreted in good faith in accordance with the terms employed by the contracting states. Prior to its amendment, Article 7(3) did not restrict allowability of expenses. This position was changed after re-negotiation of India-UAE DTAA. The amended Article 7(3) was intended to be applied w.e.f. 1st April, 2008. Hence, in absence of an express provision, it could not be applied retrospectively.

India has entered into certain DTAAs, such as those with UK and Germany, which impose restrictions on allowability of expenses, and certain DTAAs, such as those with France, Mauritius, and Japan, which do not impose any such restrictions. This indicates that conditions imposed under respective DTAAs are based on bilateral negotiations between the partners and consideration of economic and political factors.

Therefore, Article 7(3) is an express provision that overrides the provisions of Section 44C of the Act.

DIRECT EXPENSES BY THE HO FOR BRANCH OPERATIONS

Section 44C defines the term ‘head office expenditure’. These are common expenses incurred by HO for HO and various branches and are subsequently allocated to respective branches.

Circular No. 649 dated 31st February, 1993, provides that while computing business profits, the expenditure covered by Section 44C must be allowed without imposing any restriction.

Therefore, an expenditure exclusively incurred outside India for Indian branches must be allowed as a deduction without any limits.

Sec. 48 r.w.s. 50A & 55A.: Assessing Officer has no right to replace Government approved valuer’s opinion with his own.

7 [2024] 116 ITR(T) 261 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Piramal Enterprises Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA NO.:3706 & 5091(MUM.) OF 2010

AY.: 2005-06

Dated: 11th January, 2024

Sec. 48 r.w.s. 50A & 55A.: Assessing Officer has no right to replace Government approved valuer’s opinion with his own.

FACTS I

The assessee had sold a flat at Malabar Hills during the year under consideration and for computing the cost of Acquisition of the said flat the assessee adopted the fair market value as on 1-4-1981 based on valuation report of government valuer. The AO after rejecting the valuation made by the valuer, calculated the cost of acquisition by assessing the rate at ₹1480 per sq. ft. as compiled in the reference book and thereby made an addition of ₹2,98,680/-.

Aggrieved by the order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the addition. Aggrieved by the CIT(A) order, the assessee preferred an appeal before ITAT.

HELD I

The ITAT observed that for the year under consideration, the AO had no power to refer the matter for valuation to the Department Valuation Officer (DVO) but rather had power under section 50A of the Act to refer the case to the valuation officer in case the valuation adopted by the assessee was lower than the fair market value. But at the same time section 50A of the Act inserted by Finance Act, 2012 is prospective in nature as has been held by Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court in case of CIT vs. Puja Prints[2014] 43 taxmann.com 247/224 Taxman 22/360 ITR 697 (Bom.).

The ITAT held that when the assessee had calculated the cost of acquisition on the basis of fair market value determined by the government valuer the AO had no right to replace the government approved valuer’s opinion on his own.

Thus, the appeal of the assessee was allowed to the extent of this ground.

Sec. 24.: Where assessee continued to be owner of part premises of House, rental income should be assessed only under the head income from house property and assessee would be entitled for statutory deduction @30% under section 24(a) for same.

FACTS II

The AO had treated the rental income earned by the assessee during the year under consideration from the let out portion of the property named “RP house” as income from other sources instead of income from house property on the ground that the assessee was not the owner of the property. The CIT(A) had confirmed the action of AO.

Aggrieved by the CIT(A) Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before ITAT.

HELD II

The ITAT followed the order passed by the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal on the identical issue in its own case for A.Y. 2003-04 & 2004-05 wherein rental income earned by the assessee from let out portion of RP house was treated as income from house property and directed the AO to assess the rental income of let out portion of RP house as income from house property.

S. 115BBC – Where the tax department had recognized the assessee-trust as both charitable and religious in terms of approvals granted under section 80G and section 10(23C)(v) and therefore, its case was covered by exception under section 115BBC(2), it cannot be held that the Assessing Officer had formed a legally valid belief for the purpose of section 147 that the cash donations received by the assessee were taxable under section 115BBC. S. 11(1)(a) – Accumulation under section 11(1)(a) is allowable on the gross receipts of the assessee and not on net receipts. S. 11(2) – Any inaccuracy or deficiency in Form No. 10 would not be fatal to the claim of accumulation under section 11(2).

6 (2025) 171 taxmann.com 392 (Mum Trib)

Sai Baba Sansthan Trust vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 932 & 935(Mum) of 2023

A.Ys.: 2013-14

Dated: 17th January, 2025

S. 115BBC – Where the tax department had recognized the assessee-trust as both charitable and religious in terms of approvals granted under section 80G and section 10(23C)(v) and therefore, its case was covered by exception under section 115BBC(2), it cannot be held that the Assessing Officer had formed a legally valid belief for the purpose of section 147 that the cash donations received by the assessee were taxable under section 115BBC.

S. 11(1)(a) – Accumulation under section 11(1)(a) is allowable on the gross receipts of the assessee and not on net receipts.

S. 11(2) – Any inaccuracy or deficiency in Form No. 10 would not be fatal to the claim of accumulation under section 11(2).

FACTS – I

The assessee was a charitable organisation registered under section 12A, section 80G and section 10(23C)(v). It was having a temple complex in the town of Shirdi consisting of Samadhi of a popular Saint fondly called as “Shri Sai Baba” and also other deities. The assessee usually receives huge amount of cash donations by way of hundi collections / charity box collections from the followers/devotees of Shri Sai Baba where the name and address of the contributor is not maintained. The assessee filed its return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 declaring NIL income which was processed under section 143(1).

Taking note of the Annual Information Report (AIR) for A.Y. 2013-14 and based on the stand taken by him for A.Y. 2015-16, the AO sought to reopen the assessee’s assessment by issuing notice under section 148 dated 23.3.2018 on the basis that cash deposits of ₹257 crores received by the assessee were taxable as anonymous donations under section 115BBC.The writ petition filed by the assessee against the notice was rejected by the High Court. SLP against the said High Court judgment was also rejected by the Supreme Court. Accordingly, the AO proceeded to pass the reassessment order wherein he determined the total income of the assessee at ₹67.01 crores, besides bringing the anonymous donations of ₹175.53 crores to tax @ 30% under section 115BBC.

On appeal, CIT(A) held that the reopening of the assessment was valid. On merits, CIT(A) held that the assessee was both charitable and religious trust and hence it would fall within the exceptions provided under section 115BBC(2). Consequently, he held that the anonymous donations received by the assessee were not taxable in the hands of the assessee. However, on other issues, CIT(A) confirmed the additions.

Aggrieved, both the parties filed appeals before the Tribunal.

HELD – I

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) At the time of recording of reasons for reopening, the AO should have been aware of the approval granted to the assessee under section 10(23C)(v) which is granted to a trust existing wholly for public religious purposes or wholly for public religious and charitable purposes. If the approvals under section 80G and section 10(23C)(v) granted by the income tax authorities were read together, there should not have been any doubt that the tax department has recognized the assessee trust as existing “wholly for charitable and religious purposes” which was covered by the exception listed in section 115BBC(2). Accordingly, had the AO considered both these approvals, he would not have entertained the belief that the assessee would be covered by section 115BBC.

(b) The AO had relied upon the approval granted under section 80G only and had chosen a document which would suit his requirement and ignored another important document which went in favour of the assessee, which is not permitted in law.

(c) Even on merits, in the appeals for AY 2015-16 to 2018-19, the Tribunal had held that the assessee was a charitable and religious trust, which order was upheld by the Bombay High Court vide its order dated 8.10.2024 in (2024) 167 taxmann.com 304 (Bombay).

Thus, the Tribunal held that the belief entertained by the AO, without considering the record in totality, could not be considered as a legally valid belief under section 147 and accordingly, the reopening of assessment was not valid.

HELD – II

On the issue of accumulation under section 11(1)(a), following the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Programme for Community Organisation,(2001) 248 ITR 1 (SC), the Tribunal held that accumulation under section 11(1)(a) is to be allowed on the gross receipts and not on the net receipt.

FACTS – III

In the return of income, the assessee had claimed accumulation of income under section 11(2) to the tune of ₹183.26 crores. During the course of assessment proceedings, it came to light that the assessee had omitted to disclose receipts from educational and medical activities to the tune of ₹78.84 crores. The assessee agreed to the addition of said amount and prayed that the deduction under section 11(1)(a) @ 15% of the above receipts should be allowed and further claimed enhanced accumulation under section 11(2) for the balance amount of ₹67.01 crores.

The AO noticed that the Form No. 10 filed by the assessee during assessment proceedings had certain deficiencies such as (a) it did not mention the date;(b) it did not quantify the amount to be accumulated; (c) the Board resolution passed for accumulation mentioned all types of objects; and (d) the amount to be accumulated was incorrectly mentioned as ₹575 crores. Therefore, he rejected the claim for enhancement of accumulation under section 11(2). However, he allowed the claim of accumulation of ₹183.26 crores as was originally claimed in the return of income.

CIT(A) upheld the action of the AO.

HELD – III

The Tribunal observed that the AO, even after pointing out the deficiencies in Form No. 10, had allowed the claim of accumulation under section 11(2) as originally claimed in the return of income. Therefore, such deficiencies should not come in the way of allowing the enhanced accumulation claimed by the assessee during assessment proceedings. In any case, as held by Gujarat High Court in CIT (E) vs. Bochasanwasi Shri Akshar Purshottam Public Charitable Trust, (2019) 102 taxmann.com 122 (Gujarat), any inaccuracy or lack of full declaration in the prescribed format by itself would not be fatal to the claimant for the purpose of section 11(2). Accordingly, the Tribunal directed the AO to allow the enhanced amount of accumulation claimed under section 11(2).

In the result, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed and the appeal of the Revenue was dismissed.

S. 270A – Where the Assessing Officer had not specified in the assessment order or in the notice issued under section 274 read with section 270A as to under which limb of section 270A(2) or section 270A(9) the case of the assessee fell, no penalty under section 270A was leviable. S. 270A – Where the profit of the assessee had been estimated by resorting to section 145(3), no penalty under section 270A was leviable

5 (2025) 171 taxmann.com 133(Pune Trib)

DCIT vs. Chakradhar Contractors and Engineers (P.) Ltd.

ITA No.:1939 & 1940(Pun) of 2024

A.Y.: 2020-21 & 2021-22.

Dated: 26th December, 2024

S. 270A – Where the Assessing Officer had not specified in the assessment order or in the notice issued under section 274 read with section 270A as to under which limb of section 270A(2) or section 270A(9) the case of the assessee fell, no penalty under section 270A was leviable.

S. 270A – Where the profit of the assessee had been estimated by resorting to section 145(3), no penalty under section 270A was leviable

FACTS

The assessee was a company engaged in the business of construction. It filed its return of income declaring total income by estimating the income from contract work at 7.37% of the turnover. The AO completed scrutiny assessment by estimating the income from contract work at 10 per cent of the turnover, which the assessee accepted and paid the due taxes thereon.

Subsequently, the AO initiated penalty proceedings under section 270A. Referring to section 270A(9), he levied penalty @ 200% of the tax payable on the under-reported income in consequence of misreporting.

On appeal, CIT(A) cancelled the penalty on the ground that the AO had not specified the sub-limb under section 270A(9)(a) to (g) and therefore, the penalty was not sustainable.

Aggrieved, the tax department filed appeals before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal held that where the Assessing Officer had not specified, either in the assessment order or in the notice issued under section 274 read with section 270A, as to under which limb of provisions of section 270A(2) or section 270A(9) the case of the assessee falls, no penalty under section 270A was leviable.

Further, applying the various decisions under erstwhile section 271(1)(c) that penalty was not leviable when the profit was estimated, the Tribunal held that since the profit of the assessee had also been estimated by resorting to the provisions of section 145(3), no penalty under section 270A was leviable.

Accordingly, the appeals of the tax department were dismissed.

S. 12AB – Absence of registration under Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959 cannot be a ground to deny registration under section 12AB since such non-registration did not prohibit the assessee to carry out its objects.

4 (2025) 171 taxmann.com 569 (Jaipur Trib)

APJ Abdul Kalam Education and Welfare Trust vs. CIT(E)

ITA No. 567 (Jpr) of 2024

A.Y.: N.A.

Date of Order: 15th January, 2025

S. 12AB – Absence of registration under Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959 cannot be a ground to deny registration under section 12AB since such non-registration did not prohibit the assessee to carry out its objects.

FACTS

The assessee was running a hostel. It obtained provisional registration under section 12A(1)(ac)(vi) on 3.8.2022. Thereafter, it applied for final registration on 30.9.2023.

CIT(E) rejected the application for final registration and cancelled the provisional registration on the grounds that (a) non-registration under the Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959 (RPT) was in violation of section 12AB(1)(b)(ii)(B); (b) it was not specifically mentioned in the trust deed that foreign donations will be taken only after prior approval under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (FCRA); and (c) the assessee was not able to prove genuineness of its activities.

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(E), the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT..

HELD

Distinguishing Aurora Educational Society v. CCIT, (2011) 339 ITR 333 (Andhra Pradesh) and New Noble Educational Society vs. CCIT, (2022) 448 ITR 594 (SC) on the ground that the said cases applied to educational institutions only, the Tribunal observed that a plain reading of section 12AB (1) (b) (ii) (B) shows that compliance of requirement of any other law is required if compliance under such other law is material for achieving its objects. Section 17 of the RPT Act, 1959 requires that trustees of the trust have to apply for registration of a public trust. However, there is no section in the RPT Act, 1959 which prohibits a trust to carry out its objects if it is not registered under the RPT Act, 1959. Both the statutes, namely Income-tax Act and RPT Act, have their own provisions and implications and none of them have overriding effect. Even if the assessee trust was not registered with the RPT Act, 1959 and the concerned officials under the RPT Act, 1959 deemed it necessary to get the entity registered under section 17 of the RPT Act, 1959, appropriate action could be taken against the trustees of the trust. However, this issue cannot be a hurdle in getting registration under section 12AB of the Income-tax Act. Accordingly, the Tribunal directed the CIT(E) to not deny registration on this ground.

Considering the provisions of FCRA, the Tribunal directed the assessee trust to incorporate the relevant amendment in the trust deed mentioning that prior to receiving any foreign remittance whatever may be the form or nomenclature, prior approval will be taken from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Govt. of India, and produce the same for verification (in original) before CIT (E). Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter back to the file of CIT(E).

Since the assessee had furnished all the information and documents such as Income an Expenditure Account, note on activities etc. and the observations of the CIT(E) were either wrong or self-contradictory in nature, the Tribunal held that the CIT(E) was wrong in rejecting the registration on the ground of genuineness of activities and directed him to accept the reply of the assessee in toto.

Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Reassessment Notice issued beyond the surviving time limit would be time-barred. Surviving time limit can be calculated by computing number of days between the date of issuance of deemed notice u/s 148A(b) of the Act and 30thJune, 2021. The clock of limitation which has stopped w.e.f. date of issuance of S. 148 notices under the old regime (which is also the date of issuance of deemed notices) would start running again when final to the notice deemed to have been issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act is received by the AO.

3 Addl CIT vs. Ramchand Thakurdas Jhamtani

ITA No. 3553/Mum./2024

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 28th February, 2025

Section: 149

Reassessment Notice issued beyond the surviving time limit would be time-barred. Surviving time limit can be calculated by computing number of days between the date of issuance of deemed notice u/s 148A(b) of the Act and 30th June, 2021. The clock of limitation which has stopped w.e.f. date of issuance of S. 148 notices under the old regime (which is also the date of issuance of deemed notices) would start running again when final to the notice deemed to have been issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act is received by the AO.

FACTS

For AY 2014-15, a notice u/s 148 of the Act (old regime) was issued to the Assessee on 07.06.2021 (i.e., after the expiry of 4 years but before the expiry of 6 years from the end of AY 2014-2015). Subsequently, in compliance with the judgment of the Apex Court, dated 4.5.2022, in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [444 ITR 1 (SC)], communication, dated 25.05.2022, was sent to the Assessee intimating that the aforesaid notice issued u/s 148 of the Act (under old regime) would be treated as the show-cause notice issued in terms of Section 148A(b) of the Act (under new regime introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 w.e.f. 01.04.2021). The Assessing Officer (AO) also shared with the Assessee material / information on the basis of which he had formed a belief that income had escaped assessment.

The Assessee filed reply on 09.06.2022. Thereafter, order u/s 148A(d) of the Act was passed on 24.07.2022 after taking approval from the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT), Mumbai. This was followed by issuance of notice on 24.07.2022 u/s 148 of the Act (new regime). The reassessment proceedings culminated into passing of the Assessment Order, dated 26.05.2023, passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act.

Aggrieved by the assessment, the Assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who vide Order dated 16.05.2024 allowed the appeal.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred the present appeal before the Tribunal challenging the relief granted by the CIT(A), while the Assessee has filed cross-objection challenging the validity of the re-assessment proceedings.

The contention, on behalf of the Assessee was that the AO has passed order u/s 148A(d) of the Act and has issued notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) after the expiry of surviving period as computed according the judgment of the judgment of the Apex Court in the case UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46]. Therefore, both, the order u/s 148A(d) of the Act and the notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) are barred by limitation.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the issue which arises for consideration is whether the order, dated 24.07.2022, passed u/s 148A(d) of the Act and notice, dated 24.07.2022, issued u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) were passed / issued within the prescribed time. It noted that there is no dispute as to facts. It is admitted position that the notice issued u/s 148 of the Act (old regime) on 24.07.2022, was treated as notice issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act by the Assessing Officer (AO). Thereafter, order u/s 148A(d) of the Act, was passed on 24.07.2022, and the same was followed by issuance of notice dated 24.07.2022, u/s 148 of the Act (new regime). Thus, the notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) was issued after the expiry of 6 years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

The Tribunal noted the observations of Apex Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46] which have been made in relation to the interplay between the judgment of the SC in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [444 ITR 1] and TOLA.

The Tribunal held that on perusal of the observations of the Apex Court it becomes clear that the assessing officer was required to complete the procedures within the ‘surviving time limit’ which can be calculated by computing the number of days between the date of issuance of the deemed notice u/s 148A(d) of the Act and 30th June 2021 (i.e. the extended time limit provided by TOLA for issuing reassessment notices u/s 148, which fell for completion from 20.03.2020 to 31.3.2021).

The clock of limitation which has stopped with effect from the date of issuance of S. 148 notices under the old regime (which is also the date of issuance of the deemed notices), would start running again when final reply to the notice deemed to have been issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act is received by the AO. It was clarified that a reassessment notice issued beyond the surviving time limit would be time-barred.

The Tribunal observed that, in the present case, notice u/s 148 of the Act (old regime) was issued on 07.06.2021 and was deemed to be notice issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act (new regime). Thus, the surviving time limit can be calculated by computing the number of days between the date of issuance of the deemed notice (i.e., 07.06.2021) and 30.06.2021, which comes to 23 days. The clock started ticking only after Revenue received the response of the Assesses to the show causes notices on 09.06.2022. Once the clock started ticking, the AO was required to complete these procedures within the surviving time limit of 23 days which expired on 02.07.2022. Since notice u/s 148 of the Act was issued on 24.07.2022 which fell beyond the surviving time limit that expired on 02.07.2022, the Tribunal held that the notice issued u/s 148 of the Act to be time-barred and therefore, bad in law.

The Tribunal quashed notice dated 24.7.2022 issued u/s 148 of the Act (new regime), the consequential reassessment proceedings and the Assessment Order, dated 26.5.2023, passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act.

Thus, Cross-Objection raised by the Assessee was allowed and accordingly, all the grounds raised by the Revenue in the departmental appeal in relation to the relief granted by the CIT(A) on merits were dismissed as having been rendered infructuous.

In view of the First Proviso to S. 149(1)(b) of the Act a notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) cannot be issued if the period of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year has expired at the time of issuance of the notice. This also ensures that the new time limit of ten years prescribed u/s 149(1)(b) of the Act (new regime) applies prospectively. The said Proviso limits the retrospective operation of S. 149(1)(b) to protect the interests of the assesses.

2 Addl CIT vs. Ramchand Thakurdas Jhamtani

ITA No. 3552/Mum./2024

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of Order: 28th February, 2025

Section: 149

In view of the First Proviso to S. 149(1)(b) of the Act a notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) cannot be issued if the period of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year has expired at the time of issuance of the notice. This also ensures that the new time limit of ten years prescribed u/s 149(1)(b) of the Act (new regime) applies prospectively. The said Proviso limits the retrospective operation of S. 149(1)(b) to protect the interests of the assesses.

FACTS

For AY 2015-16, notice u/s 148 of the Act was issued to the Assessee on 30.06.2021 (i.e., after the expiry of 4 years but before the expiry of 6 years from the end of the relevant AY). Subsequently, in compliance with the judgment of the Apex Court, dated 4.5.2022, in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [444 ITR 1 (SC)], communication, dated 25.05.2022, was sent to the Assessee intimating that the aforesaid notice issued u/s 148 of the Act (under old regime) would be treated as the show-cause notice issued in terms of Section 148A(b) of the Act (under new regime introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 w.e.f. 01.04.2021). The Assessing Officer (AO) also shared with the Assessee material / information on the basis of which he had formed a belief that income had escaped assessment. Thereafter, order u/s 148A(d) of the Act was passed on 27.07.2022 which was followed by issuance of notice u/s 148 of the Act on 27.07.2022.

The reassessment proceedings culminated into passing of the Assessment Order, dated 29.05.2023, passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act.

Aggrieved by the assessment made, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the appeal videhis Order dated 16.05.2024.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred the present appeal before the Tribunal challenging the relief granted by the CIT(A), while the Assessee filed cross-objection challenging the validity of the re-assessment proceedings.

HELD

The Tribunal, first dealt with the cross objections of the Assessee. It noted that the issue which arises for consideration is whether notice, dated 27.07.2022, issued u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) is barred by limitation specified in S. 149 of the Act as contended, on behalf of the Assessee.

The Tribunal observed that it is admitted position that the notice, dated 30.06.2021, issued u/s 148 of the Act (old regime) was treated as notice issued u/s 148A(b) of the Act by the AO. Thereafter, order u/s 148A(d) of the Act was passed on 27.07.2022, and the same was followed by issuance of notice, dated 27.07.2022, issued u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) (i.e. after the expiry of 6 years from the end of the Assessment Year 2015-2016).

The Tribunal noted the contention made on behalf of the Assessee that as per First Proviso to S. 149(1) of the Act, no notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) could have been issued after 31.03.2022.

The Tribunal noted the relevant portions of the decision of the SC, in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46], dealing with notice issued u/s 148 for AY 2015-16 and in relation to first proviso to section 149(1) of the Act (new regime). On perusal of the relevant extracts of the said decision of the SC, the Tribunal held that the SC has clarified as under –
(a) a notice could be issued u/s 148 of the new regime for AY 2021-2022 and assessment years prior thereto only if the time limit for issuance of such notice continued to exist u/s 149(1)(b) of the old regime;

(b) in view of the First Proviso to S. 149(1)(b) of the Act a notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) cannot be issued if the period of six years from the end of issuance of the notice. This also ensures that the new time limit of ten years prescribed u/s 149(1)(b) of the Act (new regime) applies prospectively. The said Proviso limits the retrospective operation of S. 149(1)(b) to protect the interests of the assesses.

Having noted that, in the present case, the time limit of 6 years from the end of AY 2015-2016 expired on 31.03.2022, the Tribunal held that, as per S. 149(1)(b) read with First Proviso to S. 149(1) of the Act (new regime), notice u/s 148 of the Act could not have been issued for the AY 2015-2016 after 31.03.2022. It held that notice, dated 27.07.2022, issued u/s 148 of the Act was barred by limitation.

The Tribunal also noted that before the Apex Court in the case of Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46], the Revenue has conceded that for the AY 2015-16, notices issued on or after 01/04/2021, would have to be dropped and this has been recorded by the SC in para 19 of the decision of the Apex Court.

In view of the above, the Tribunal quashed the notice, dated 27.07.2022, issued u/s 148 of the Act and the consequent the Assessment Order, dated 29.05.2023, passed u/s 147 read with Section 144B of the Act as being bad in law.

Thus, Cross-Objection raised by the Assessee was allowed and accordingly, all the grounds raised by the Revenue in the departmental appeal in relation to the relief granted by the CIT(A) on merits were dismissed as having been rendered infructuous.

Non-compliance by the AO with the provisions contained in S. 148A(d) r.w.s. 151(ii) of the new regime affects the jurisdiction of the AO to issue a notice u/s 148 of the Act. Since the order u/s 148A(d) dated 30.7.2022 and also notice u/s 148 were issued with approval of Principal Commissioner of Income-tax instead of Principal Chief Commissioner of Income-tax or Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, the consequential reassessment proceedings and also the order dated 25.5.2023 passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act were quashed as bad in law and were held to be violative of the provisions contained in Ss. 148A(d), 148 and 151(ii) of the Act.

1 Addl CIT vs. Ramchand Thakurdas Jhamtani

ITA No. 3551/Mum./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order: 28th February, 2025

Sections: 148, 148A, 151

Non-compliance by the AO with the provisions contained in S. 148A(d) r.w.s. 151(ii) of the new regime affects the jurisdiction of the AO to issue a notice u/s 148 of the Act. Since the order u/s 148A(d) dated 30.7.2022 and also notice u/s 148 were issued with approval of Principal Commissioner of Income-tax instead of Principal Chief Commissioner of Income-tax or Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, the consequential reassessment proceedings and also the order dated 25.5.2023 passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act were quashed as bad in law and were held to be violative of the provisions contained in Ss. 148A(d), 148 and 151(ii) of the Act.

FACTS

A notice u/s 148 of the Act (old regime) was issued to the Assessee for the AY 2017-2018 on 28.06.2021 (i.e., after the expiry of 3 years but before 30.06.2021 — extended period time granted by TOLA1 ). Subsequently, in compliance with the judgment of the Apex Court, dated 4.5.2022, in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [444 ITR 1 (SC)], communication, dated 27.05.2022, was sent to the Assessee intimating that the aforesaid notice issued u/s 148 of the Act (under old regime) would be treated as the show-cause notice issued in terms of S. 148A(b) of the Act (under new regime introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 w.e.f. 01.04.2021). The AO also shared with the Assessee material/information on the basis of which he had formed a belief that income had escaped assessment.


1 Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020

Thereafter, order u/s 148A(d) of the Act was passed on 30.07.2022 after taking approval from the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT), Mumbai. This was followed by issuance of notice on 30.07.2022 u/s 148 of the Act (new regime). The reassessment proceedings culminated into passing of the Assessment Order, dated 25.05.2023, passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act.

The appeal preferred by the Assessee against the aforesaid Assessment Order was allowed by the CIT(A) vide Order, dated 16.05.2024.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred the present appeal before the Tribunal challenging the relief granted by the CIT(A), while the Assessee filed cross-objection challenging the validity of the re-assessment proceedings.

HELD

The Tribunal, at the outset, observed that the issue which arises for consideration is whether the PCIT or the PCCIT was the Specified Authority for seeking approval for passing order u/s 148A(d) of the Act and issuance of notice u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) for the AY 2017-18.

The Tribunal having considered the decision of the Apex Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal [(2024) 469 ITR 46], to the extent it has dealt with issue of approval from Specified Authority in terms of section 151 of the Act, noted that the Supreme Court has clarified as under –

(a) under new regime introduced by the Finance Act, 2021 Assessing Officer was required to obtain prior approval or sanction of the ‘Specified Authority’ at four stages – at first stage under Section 148A(a), at second stage under Section 148A(b), at third stage under Section 148A(d), and at fourth stage under Section 148. In the case of Ashish Agarwal [444 ITR 1] the Apex Court waived off the requirement of obtaining prior approval u/s 148A(a) and u/s 148A(b) of the Act only. Therefore, the AO was required to obtain prior approval of the ‘Specified Authority’ according to Section 151 of the new regime before passing an order u/s 148A(d) or issuing a notice u/s 148;

(b) under new regime if income escaping assessment is more than ₹50 lakhs a reassessment notice could be issued after expiry of three years from the end of the relevant previous year only after obtaining the prior approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner(PCCIT) or Principal Director General (PDGIT) or Chief Commissioner (CCIT) or Director General (DGIT);

(c) the test to determine whether TOLA will apply to Section 151 of the new regime is this: if the time limit of three years from the end of an assessment year falls between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021, then the ‘Specified Authority’ under Section 151(i) has an extended time till 30th June 2021 to grant approval;

(d) S. 151(ii) of the new regime prescribes a higher level of authority if more than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus, non-compliance by the AO with the strict time limits prescribed u/s 151 affects their jurisdiction to issue a notice under section 148;

(e) grant of sanction by the appropriate authority is a precondition for the assessing officer to assume jurisdiction under section 148 to issue a reassessment notice.

The Tribunal held that, in the present case, the period of 3 years from the end of the AY 2017-2018 fell for completion on 31.3.2021. The expiry date fell during the time period of 20.3.2020 and 31.3.2021, contemplated u/s 3(1) of TOLA. Resultantly, the authority specified u/s 151(i) of the new regime could have granted sanction till 30th June, 2021.

On perusal of the order, dated 30.07.2022, passed u/s 148A(d) of the Act the Tribunal found that the aforesaid order was passed after taking approval from PCIT. The Tribunal held that since the aforesaid order was passed after the expiry of 3 years from the end of the AY 2017-2018, as per the new regime, the authority specified under Section 151(ii) of the Act (i.e. PCCIT or CCIT) was required to grant approval. The Tribunal also noted that even the notice, dated 30.07.2022, was issued u/s 148 of the Act (new regime) after obtaining the prior approval of the PCIT.

The Tribunal concluded that, in the present case, the approval has been obtained by authority specified u/s 151(i) of the new regime instead of the authority specified u/s 151(ii) of the new regime.

The Tribunal held that non-compliance by the AO with the provisions contained in S. 148A(d) r.w.s. 151(ii) of the new regime affects the jurisdiction of the AO to issue a notice u/s 148 of the Act. Accordingly, the order, dated 30.07.2022 passed u/s 148A(d) of the Act, the consequential reassessment proceedings and the order, dated 25.05.2023, passed u/s 147 r.w.s. 144B of the Act were quashed as being bad in law as being violative of the provisions contained in Ss. 148A(d), 148 and 151(ii) of the Act.

The Tribunal allowed the cross objections filed by the assessee and dismissed, as infructuous, all the grounds raised by the Revenue in the appeal in relation to the relief granted by CIT(A) on merits.

Section: 279(2) :Prosecution — Compounding of offence – compounding application could not have been rejected on delay alone — Limitation — CBDT guidelines dated 16th November, 2022

2. M/s. L. T. Stock Brokers Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Chief Commissioner of Income

[W.P. (L) 21032/2024,

Dated: 4th March, 2025 (Bom) (HC)]

Section: 279(2) :Prosecution — Compounding of offence – compounding application could not have been rejected on delay alone — Limitation — CBDT guidelines dated 16th November, 2022

The Petitioner challenged the Chief Commissioner’s order dated 17 January 2024, made under Section 279(2) of the Act, dismissing the Petitioner’s application for compounding the offence.

The Chief Commissioner has dismissed this application on the sole ground that it was filed beyond 36 months from the date of filing of the complaint against the petitioners. The Chief Commissioner has relied upon paragraph 9.1 of CBDT guidelines dated 16 November 2022 for compounding offences under the Income-tax Act 1961.

The Hon. Court referred to the Co-ordinate bench decision of this Court vide order dated 18th July, 2023 disposing of the Writ Petition (L) No.14574 of 2023 (Sofitel Realty LLP and Ors vs. Income-tax Officer (TDS) and Ors) wherein the Hon. Court considered similar CBDT guidelines dated 23 December 2014. In the context of such guidelines and clauses like Clause 9 of the 2022 guidelines, the Court held that since the Income-tax Act, 1961 had provided for no period of limitation to apply for compounding, such period could not have been introduced through guidelines. In any event, no rigid timeline could have been introduced through such guidelines. This Court held that the compounding application could not have been rejected on delay alone.

The court further referred to the Madras High Court decision in the case of Kabir Ahmed Shakir vs. The Chief Commissioner of Income Tax & Ors Writ Petition No.17388 of 2024 dated 30/08/2024 which was rendered in the context of the 2022 CBDT guidelines.

The counsel for the revenue, however, submitted that even where no limitation is prescribed by the State, the application has to be filed within a reasonable period. Further, she referred to the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Vinubhai Mohanlal Dobaria vs. Chief Commissioner of Income Tax & Anr. [2025] 171 taxmann.com 268 (SC) and submitted that the CBDT guidelines of 2014 were upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme court, including, the paragraph which has prescribed limitation period to file application for compounding.

The Hon. Court observed that the above paragraph states that para 8 of the 2014 guidelines [which had referred to the period of limitation] does not exclude the possibility that in the peculiar case where the facts and circumstances so required, the competent authority should consider the explanation and allow the compounding application. This means that notwithstanding the so-called limitation period in a given case, the competent authority can exercise discretion and allow compounding application.

The Hon. Court observed that the competent authority has treated the guidelines as a binding statute. On the sole ground that the application was made beyond 36 months, the same has been rejected. The competent authority has exercised no discretion as such. The rejection is entirely premised on the notion that the competent authority had no jurisdiction to entertain a compounding application because it was made beyond 36 months. Such an approach was inconsistent with the rulings of this Court, Madras High Court and the Hon’ble Supreme Court decision relied upon by the learned counsel for the revenue.

The impugned order dated 17th January, 2024 was set aside and the Chief Commissioner was directed to reconsider the petitioner’s application for compounding.

Section: 254 (1): Principles of natural justice violated — impugned order passed without hearing the petitioner and / or his representative and without considering the written submissions:

1. Vijay Shrinivasrao Kulkarni vs. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal & Ors.

[WP (C) No. 17572 OF 2024]

AY 2019-20

Dated: 4th February, 2025 (Bom) (HC)]

Arising from ITAT Pune ITA No.1159/Pun/2023 order dated 12th March 2024

Section: 254 (1): Principles of natural justice violated — impugned order passed without hearing the petitioner and / or his representative and without considering the written submissions:

The petitioner assessee in the present case is a 64 year old retired serviceman, who earned income primarily from salary for the Assessment Year 2019-20. He was then an employee of M/s. Pfizer Healthcare India Pvt. Ltd. posted at Aurangabad, from where he derived his salary income.

The petitioner filed his original income tax return for the A.Y. 2019-20 on 1 August 2019 declaring a total income of ₹57,84,740/- The petitioner had claimed relief under section 89(1) of the Act for an amount of ₹ 13,22,187/-. Subsequently, the petitioner’s case was selected for scrutiny. In response to notices, the petitioner submitted copies of computation of income, Form 26AS, Form 16, Form 10E along with other supporting documents.

The AO issued a show cause notice-cum-draft assessment order dated 16 September 2021 to the petitioner directing him to furnish his reply on or before 19 September, 2021. The petitioner filed his submissions / reply dated 16 September 2021 to the show cause notice-cum-draft assessment order issued by AO. The petitioner also requested for the grant of a personal hearing through video conferencing, which was so granted on 23 September 2021.

According to the petitioner, the relief claimed by him under section 89(1) of the Act warranted consideration, as such amount was a salary advance, justifying such relief. However, the petitioner during assessment proceedings withdrew such relief as claimed under section 89(1) and alternatively claimed receipts of Ex-Gratia and other incentives as capital receipts. This was with reference to the amounts received from his employer, i.e., Pfizer Healthcare on account of closure of its plant at Aurangabad and in terms of the settlement to all permanent employees under the financial scheme for employees of Aurangabad 2019, dated 9 January 2019.

The AO proceeded to pass the assessment order dated 29 September 2021. While passing such order, the petitioner’s submissions were rejected on the ground that the amount received by the Petitioner on termination of employment cannot be treated as salary in advance, as claimed by the Petitioner. Thus, the relief claimed by the petitioner under section 89(1) of the Act for an amount of R13,22,187/- was rejected by the assessment order.

The Petitioner being aggrieved by the said assessment order, approached the National Faceless Appeal Centre by filing an appeal. It was during the proceedings initiated by the petitioner before the NFAC that various notices under section 250 of the Act were issued to the petitioner. However, the petitioner’s Chartered Accountant could not respond to the above notices, and sought adjournments, mainly on the ground that a senior CA was intended to be engaged to defend the petitioner in the said proceedings.

The NFAC proceeded to pass an ex-parte order dated 8 September 2023, rejecting the petitioner’s appeal filed before it, thereby confirming the assessment order passed by AO.

The Petitioner, approached ITAT, Pune, by filing an appeal. The appeal filed by the Petitioner was listed for hearing on 11 March 2024 before the Division Bench of ITAT, Pune. The petitioner’s advocate submitted that the matter was required to be remanded to the NFAC, on the ground that the order of the NFAC was an ex-parte order, as it was passed in absence of a hearing being granted to the petitioner / his representative. The Petitioner’s CA also filed an affidavit in this regard. The ITAT rejected the petitioner’s prayer to remand the matter to NFAC and insisted on hearing the appeal on merits. The Petitioner’s advocate then requested for a short adjournment, so that a paper book could be submitted. However, such request was denied. The Petitioner’s advocate then requested to the ITAT to grant one day’s time to submit such paper book and to take up appeal for hearing on merits on the next date. Such request was also rejected by the ITAT. The Petitioner’s advocate was directed to submit written submissions and paper book on the basis of which, the ITAT would pass appropriate orders. The Petitioner through his legal representative accordingly submitted written submissions, along with the paper book and case laws on 12 March 2024, before the ITAT.

It was in the above backdrop that the ITAT proceeded to pass the impugned order dated 12 March, 2024, the Petitioner being aggrieved by such order approached this court by filing a writ petition.

The learned counsel for the Petitioner submitted that the Petitioner is seriously prejudiced by the actions of the ITAT in passing the impugned order dated 12th March, 2024. He further referred to the following orders passed by the ITAT on the same day, i.e., 12th March, 2024, which are summarized below:-

The ITAT had in similar facts and circumstances remanded the matter to the JCIT-A/the NFAC for further consideration on merits. However, ITAT did not adopt the same approach in the present case. According to him, a fair approach ought to have been adopted by the ITAT considering the facts of the case, as no prejudice would have been caused to the Dept.

The Dept contended that the ITAT was justified in concluding, that there was no need to remand the proceedings to AO as such remand would be an exercise in futility. Accordingly, the ITAT was justified in dismissing the appeal of the petitioner.

The Hon. Court observed that this is a case where the violation of the settled principles of natural justice is not just apparent but real, palpable and clearly visible. The Petitioner is deprived of an opportunity to present its case not only before the NFAC but also subsequently before the ITAT. Not affording a reasonable opportunity to the Petitioner to present its case had perpetuated from the ex-parte order passed by NFAC which was not noticed by the ITAT in passing the impugned order.

It was not disputed that the NFAC under the faceless regime passed an ex-parte appeal order, without affording an opportunity to the petitioner of being heard. Thus, evaluation of assessment of the petitioner’s income and rejecting the submissions of the petitioner was undertaken also ought to have been appropriately undertaken by following the natural rules of fairness adhering to the principles of natural justice and such infirmity at least should have been addressed by the ITAT in passing the impugned order.

The Court further observed that on a perusal of the impugned order of the ITAT makes it clear that it proceeded to deal with the case of the petitioner on merits as is evident from the order. The Petitioner submitted that considering the fact that the order impugned before the ITAT itself was passed by NFAC was passed ex-parte, it would be just and proper for the ITAT to remand the matter to NFAC for passing orders on merits, after considering submissions of the petitioner. Also, the written submissions being tendered on behalf of the petitioner before the ITAT on 12th March, 2024 have not being considered in the impugned order being passed by the Tribunal. The Court referred judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Delhi Transport Corporation vs. DTC Mazdoor Union._AIR 1999 SC 564 wherein it was held that Article 14 guarantees a right of hearing to a person who is adversely affected by an administrative order. The principle of audi alteram partem is a part of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. In light of such decision, the petitioner ought to have been granted an opportunity of being heard which, partakes the characteristic of the fundamental right under Article 14 of the Constitution of India.

The Hon. Court further referred to a decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax Madras vs. Chenniyappa Mudiliar (1969) 1 SCC 591 wherein the Supreme Court in interpreting the section 33(4) of the Income Tax Act, 1922 has held that the Appellate Tribunal was bound to give a proper decision on question of fact as well as law, which can only be done if the appeal is disposed-off on merits and not dismissed owing to the absence of the appellant. There is no escape from the conclusion that under the said provision, the Appellate Tribunal had to dispose-off the appeal on merits which could not have been done by dismissing the appeal summarily for default of appearance. The Court observed that the principles laid down in the said decision would squarely apply to the facts and circumstances of the present case, in as much as the Petitioner was neither heard nor were his written submissions placed before the ITAT, considered.

The Hon. Court set aside the impugned order of the ITAT dated 12th March, 2024. Accordingly, the proceedings were remanded to the ITAT, for de novo hearing of the appeal filed before it.

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest: A.Y. 2015-16

6. Munchener Ruckversicherungs Gesellshaft Aktiengesellschaft In Munchen vs. CIT (International Taxation)

[2025] 473 ITR 53 (Del.):

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 3rd September, 2024

S. 155(14) and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision — Non-resident — Application by assessee for revision — Provisions of section 155(14) — Claim for tax deducted at source on amount not taxable in India — Credit not reflected in Form 26AS at time when return originally filed for relevant assessment year but reflected in subsequent assessment year — Commissioner cannot reject application on ground revised return not filed — Department to refund tax deducted at source with statutory interest:

The assessee was a non-resident. For the A.Y. 2015-16, the assessee declared nil income asserting that its receipt of an amount would not be subject to tax in India in terms of the provisions u/s. 90 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and claimed refund of tax deducted at source on the basis the tax credit statement being form 26AS, which included the tax deducted by an entity BALIC. The assessee submitted that the tax deducted at source pertaining to the last quarter of F. Y. 2014-15 was credited by BALIC on 21st January, 2016, that consequently, the original tax deducted at source stood increased. In the return for the A. Y. 2016-17 wherein the claim for tax deducted at source credit stood embedded on account of such amount having by then being captured in form 26AS and which amount had remained unclaimed in A. Y. 2015-16.

The Commissioner (International Taxation) was of the view that since the income received from BALIC was offered to tax, the assessee would not be entitled to the grant of tax deducted at source credit. He held that the assessee had failed to file revised return of income and rejected the assessee’s application u/s. 264.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 155 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribes that where credit for tax has not been given on the ground of either a certificate having not been furnished or filed, but which is subsequently presented before the Assessing Officer, it would be sufficient for the assessment order being amended. Section 155(14) places the Assessing Officer under a statutory obligation to amend the order of assessment once it is established that the contingencies stated in that provision are duly established. Sub-section (14) neither contemplates nor mandates the original return being amended or revised and takes care of contingencies where tax deducted at source is either subsequently credited or is reflected in form 26AS after a time lag. An assessee may face such a spectre on account of a variety of unforeseeable reasons.

ii) Since the tax which was deducted at source by BALIC stood duly embedded in form 26AS which was produced by the assessee and the income earned from that entity had never been held to be subject to tax under the Act, the refusal on the part of the Department to refund that amount was illegal and arbitrary. The factum of tax having been deducted at source by BALIC and pertaining to income transmitted in the A. Y. 2015-16 was not disputed and stood duly fortified from the disclosures which appeared in form 26AS pertaining to that assessment year. It was also not disputed that BALIC had credited the tax deducted at source on 21st January, 2016 and as a consequence of which, the credit was not reflected at the time when the return had been originally filed for the assessment year 2015-16.

iii) The order passed u/s. 264 rejecting the assessee’s application was quashed. The Department was directed to refund the amount of tax deducted at source along with statutory interest.”

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous: A.Y. 2017-18

5. CIT (International Taxation) vs. Zebra Technologies Asia Pacific Pte. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 745 (Del.):

A. Ys. 2017-18

Date of order: 23rd October, 2024

S. 263 of ITA 1961

Revision — Revision order — Validity — Non-resident — Claim for benefits under DTAA — Opinion of Commissioner that assessee conduit company used for treaty shopping not stated in notice — Assessee not given an opportunity to satisfy Commissioner regarding his view — Order of Tribunal setting side revision order not erroneous:

The assessee was a non-resident and distributed electronic products and services related to after sales, repairs, and technical support services to the customers across the globe. It held tax residency certificate of Singapore and sought to avail of the benefit of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement ([1982] 134 ITR (St.) 6). In the A. Y. 2017-18, the assessee received a sum for rendition of technical support, repairs and maintenance services under an agreement with an Indian entity and also an amount in USD from offshore sale of products. According to the assessee, since it did not have a permanent establishment in India and also did not make available technical know-how, knowledge, and skill to the Indian entity under the agreement, the receipts were not chargeable to tax in India under the Act by virtue of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. The Assessing Officer accepted the assessee’s explanation in response to the notices u/ss. 142(1) and 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 during the assessment proceedings which culminated in an assessment order.

The Commissioner was of the view that the Assessing Officer did not conduct the necessary inquiries and verified the facts for accepting the assessee’s claim that its income was not chargeable to tax under the Act by virtue of India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement, that he did not call for the relevant details or verified whether the assessee had a permanent establishment in India during the relevant period, that he did not carry out any inquiry to ascertain whether any commercial substance existed in Singapore and whether the assessee was merely a conduit company and used with an object to obtain the tax benefit under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. Accordingly, he invoked his power u/s. 263.

The Tribunal faulted the Commissioner for not affording the assessee an opportunity to rebut the allegations that it was merely a conduit without any substance and had entered into an agreement for the purposes of taking an advantage of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement and allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) There was no fault with the order of the Tribunal in setting aside the revision order passed by the Commissioner u/s. 263 on the ground that the assessee was not afforded an opportunity to counter the allegation that it was a conduit company without any substance.

ii) In the show-cause notice the Commissioner had faulted the Assessing Officer for not undertaking certain enquiries including verifying whether, (i) the assessee had a permanent establishment in India, (ii) in terms of section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, the income was chargeable as fees for technical services, (iii) tax at source at the rate of 10 per cent. on all the remittances made to the assessee were deducted, (iv) the condition as set out in article 12 of the India-Singapore Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement in regard to taxation of fees for technical services were satisfied, (v) regarding the commercial substance of the assessee in Singapore and (vi) it was a conduit company formed for obtaining the tax benefits under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.

iii) These observations were made only for the purposes of calling upon the assessee to show cause why the proceedings not be initiated u/s. 263 of the Act but, thereafter, the Commissioner had not put the issue regarding treaty shopping to the assessee. The tentative opinion formed by the Commissioner that the assessee was a conduit company for the reasons as articulated in the revision order was not put to the assessee. Hence, the assessee had not been given an opportunity to satisfy the Commissioner regarding such view for the A. Y. 2017-18.”

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision: A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21

4. Sushen Mohan Gupta vs. Principle CIT

[2025] 473 ITR 173 (Del.)

A. Y. 2010-11 to 2020-21

Date of order: 22nd March, 2024

Ss. 156, 220(1), 220(6) and 246A of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Stay of recovery pending appeals before Commissioner (Appeals) — Effect of office memorandum issued by CBDT — Rejection of stay of demand for non-deposit of 20% of disputed demand — Application to the Principal Commissioner — Direction to deposit 40% — Authorities failed to consider prima facie merits of the case — Financial hardship and likelihood of success — Orders rejecting stay of demand unsustainable — Matter remanded to the AO with directions to consider in light of earlier decision:

A search and seizure action was conducted and subsequently notices u/s. 153A of the Act for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2019-20 were issued and on culmination of proceedings so drawn, the assessment orders came to be framed on 30th September, 2021 raising a cumulative demand of ₹ 1,85,62,19,390 for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21.

The Assessee filed appeals before the CIT(A) which are pending. Against the enforcement of demand, the Assessee filed application for stay of demand before the Assessing Officer which came to be rejected on the ground that the Assessee had not deposited 20% of the outstanding demand and therefore the application could not be entertained. In rejecting the assessee’s application for stay of demand, the Assessing Officer relied upon the Office Memorandums of the CBDT dated 29-02-2016 and 31-07-2017.

Thereafter, the Assessee filed application for rectification of mistakes which was disposed and the revised demand recoverable from the Assessee was computed at ₹1,81,37,14,107. The Assessee thereafter filed another stay application before the Assessing Officer for the A.Ys. 2010-11 to 2020-21. During the pendency of the said stay application, the Assessee was served with a letter seeking payment of the outstanding demand followed by a demand notice issued u/s. 220(1) of the Act. In response to the aforesaid, the Assessee filed a detailed response stating that the original assessment was wholly arbitrary and rendered unsustainable in the light of the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Pr.CIT vs. Abhisar Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. The Assessee also offered to pledge properties owned by an entity in which the Assessee’s family members were directors / shareholders to secure the outstanding demand to the extent of 20%. The Assessee’s prayer was rejected.

Aggrieved, the Assessee approached the Principal Commissioner for grant of interim protection against the outstanding demands. The Principal Commissioner disposed the application by observing that during search operations, various incriminating documents were found and seized and credible evidence were collected. He, thus, disposed of the applications of stay of demand and directed the assessee to deposit demand which was 40 per cent of total outstanding demand within 15 days of receipt of his order.

The Assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) The Central Board of Direct Taxes’ Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 could not be read as mandating a pre-deposit of 20 per cent. of the outstanding demand, without reference to the prima facie merits of a challenge that may be raised by an assessee in respect of an assessment order.

ii) The assessee had approached the Principal Commissioner in terms of the provisions made in the Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016. The view taken by the second respondent, that applications for stay could neither be countenanced nor entertained till the assessee deposited 20 per cent. of the pending demand was untenable and erroneous. The Principal Commissioner had proceeded to cause even greater prejudice to the assessee by requiring him to deposit 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand.

iii) According to para 4(C) of the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated February 29, 2016 stated to the effect that where stay of demand was granted by the Assessing Officer on payment of 15 per cent. of the disputed demand and the assessee was still aggrieved, he could approach the jurisdictional administrative Principal Commissioner or the Commissioner for a review of the decision of the Assessing Officer. The Principal Commissioner could not be recognised to stand empowered to subject the assessee to more onerous conditions. Rather than examining the challenge raised by the assessee to the assessment orders and evaluating the prima facie merits of the challenge had in one sense placed him under a harsher burden of depositing 40 per cent. of the outstanding demand as opposed to the direction of 20 per cent. deposit by the second respondent as a pre-condition for the consideration of application for stay under section 220(6) .

iv) Both the authorities had failed to consider the aspect of prima facie merits, likelihood of success and undue hardship. Therefore, their orders were unsustainable and hence quashed and set aside. The matter was remitted to the Assessing Officer to examine the applications for stay afresh considering the legal position.”

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside: A.Y. 2009-10

3. Sesa Sterlite Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2025] 472 ITR 591 (Bom.)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 4th September, 2024

Ss.10B, 133A, 147 and 148 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Exemption u/s. 10B — Newly established hundred per cent. export oriented establishments — Reassessment — Notice — Survey — Denial of claim for deduction u/s. 10B in original assessment — Grant of deduction by Tribunal — Fresh survey during pendency of revenue’s appeal before court — Reassessment on ground of availability of new material would tantamount to getting over anomalous situation — Reassessment proceedings to disallow claim for deduction once again impermissible — Notice and order rejecting assessee’s objections quashed and set aside:

The assessee was in the business of manufacturing and production of iron ore and had three units situated at Amona, Chitradurga and at Codli. These units are export-oriented undertakings and for the assessment year 2009-10, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10B. A survey u/s. 133A was carried out at the assessee’s premises wherein the authorities sought to ascertain the relevant facts in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated July 16, 2014 u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147. The Assessees objections were rejected.

The Assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice and the order rejecting the objection. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 10B(2) provided that section 10B applied to any undertaking which fulfilled all the conditions therein. The assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 10B in respect of the three export-oriented units for the A. Y. 2009-10 and a survey u/a. 133A had been carried out at its premises in connection with the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The assessment order u/s. 143(3) was passed by the Assessing Officer whereunder the claim for deduction u/s. 10B was disallowed in its entirety for the reasons given by the Assessing Officer. He had held that the assessee’s units were not engaged in the business of manufacture and production of any article or thing, that the assessee had not produced satisfactory evidence with regard to the date of commencement of production, that the approval granted by the Development Commissioner for one unit was not ratified by the Board and that the profits of the units was determined without taking into consideration the cost of the wastage from other units which was utilised in the alleged production that was carried out in the unit under reference, and the units were not new units and the setting up of the units in the old mines which were operated by the assessee could not be regarded as new units and that the assessee had not maintained separate books of account for the export oriented units. The Commissioner (Appeals) had upheld the denial of the claim of deduction under section 10B by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal had dealt with all the reasons given by the Assessing Officer and had upheld the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Therefore, entitlement to deduction u/s. 10B had been the subject matter of appeal before the appellate authorities. During the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, a fresh survey was conducted u/s. 133A and on the basis of the materials which were found during the survey in 2014, reassessment u/s. 147 was sought to be justified for the purpose of denying the claim for deduction u/s. 10B. Thus, the reasons of the Assessing Officer in support of his finding could be several but what was relevant was the subject matter of the tax appeal. The third proviso to section 147, which provided that the Assessing Officer could assess or reassess such income, other than the income involving matters which were the subject matters of any appeal, reference or revision, which was chargeable to tax and had escaped assessment, would come into effect.

ii) When the fresh survey u/s. 133A was conducted in the year 2014 during the pendency of the tax appeal before this court, the new materials found by the Assessing Officer were sought to be placed before the Tribunal and this court and the issue under consideration was whether the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B. Assuming that the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 was allowed to continue on the basis of the new materials a situation could arise to be held that the assessee was entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B, whereas in the reassessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer on the basis of the new materials could conclude that the assessee was not entitled to claim deduction u/s. 10B.

iii) Reassessment proceedings were obviously to get over such an anomalous situation that the third proviso to section 147 was meant to cover. If the reassessment proceedings were allowed to continue, it would virtually amount to having an effect of sitting in appeal over the orders passed by this court and the Tribunal which could not be countenanced. Though it was the allegation that fresh evidence was unearthed during the course of fresh survey in March 2014, which indicated that the units considered as new units were not new units but an amalgamation of the existing units. The exercise really was to rely on these materials in support of the findings earlier recorded by the Assessing Officer which was already subject matter of challenge before the competent forum. Assumption of jurisdiction to reopen the assessment was without jurisdiction to once again disallow a claim for deduction u/s. 10B. The notice dated 16th July, 2014 issued u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 for the A. Y. 2009-10 and the order rejecting the assessee’s objections were quashed and set aside.”

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside: A.Y. 2024-25

2. Chamber of Tax Consultants & Ors vs. DGIT (Systems)

[2025] 473 ITR 85 (Bom.)

A. Y. . 2024-25

Date of order: 24th January, 2025

Ss. 87A, 115BAC, 139, 139(5) and 139D of  ITA 1961

Public Interest Litigation — Return of Income — Filing of return in electronic form — Modification of online filing system —Jurisdiction of revenue authorities — Utility not providing for making claim for rebate under section 87A read with proviso to section after 5-7-2024 — Attempt to restrict or prohibit assessee from making particular claim at threshold itself in return of income unconstitutional — No provision under Act which debars assessee to make claim under section 87A qua tax computed at rates specified in provisions of chapter XII other than section 115BAC — Statutory safeguards and remedies in provisions of Act for consequences if claim made in self assessment found to be incorrect or not bona fide — Allowance or disallowance of claim to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process — Assessee cannot be debarred from making claim in return of income whether online or manual — Directions issued to modify utility to enable assessees file returns or revised returns of income — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment order passed by NFAC set-aside:

The Department releases utility for filing income tax returns online every year. The Department published a change in utility with effect from 05-07-2024. The said change unilaterally disabled the assessees from claiming rebate u/s. 87A. As a result, taxpayers, despite being statutorily eligible, were effectively deprived of their entitlements solely due to technical modifications introduced by the revenue.

The Chamber of Tax Consultants filed a petition seeking direction to modify the system and put in place by the Department for filing income tax returns for AY 2024-25 so as to allow the assessees at large to take benefit of rebate available u/s. 87A. It was contended that this unilateral modification is arbitrary, lacks justification, and deprives eligible taxpayers of statutory benefits. The Respondents’ actions violate the principles of fairness and transparency expected from public authorities and seek judicial intervention to ensure compliance with statutory provisions.

The Bombay High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Department could not restrain or prohibit an assessee from claiming section 87A rebate by modifying their utility by which an assessee was forbidden at the threshold itself from making such a claim in the return of income. The provisions of the Act were not so clear as to arrive at a definite conclusion that a rebate under section 87A could not be granted from the tax computed under the other provisions of Chapter XII. Certainly, such a claim whether eligible or not could be examined in the proceedings under section 143(1) or section 143(3). Merely because few selected cases were picked up for scrutiny would not mean and would not authorise any authority under the Act to prevent an assessee from making the claim on which more than one view was possible. Merely because many returns of income were required to be processed and only a few of them were selected for scrutiny assessment under section 143(3) could not be a ground to tweak the utility to prevent at the very threshold, an opportunity to raise a claim on a debatable issue based upon the interpretation of the provisions in sections 87A and 115BAC. Considering the mandates of articles 265 and 300A, ends, howsoever laudable, cannot justify means.

ii) Assuming that the legal provisions were ambiguous, the Department cannot resolve such ambiguity by adopting an interpretation favouring itself through the device of simply tweaking the utility and preventing the assessee from even raising a claim. Therefore, the main question is not whether the interpretation proposed by the learned counsel for the petitioners or that proposed by the learned Additional Solicitor General is correct, but the main question is whether the Department can insist that its interpretation prevails or triumphs because it has the capacity to and has exercised this capacity to tweak the utility and prevent an assessee to even raise a debatable claim. The provisions of the Income-tax Act do not permit the Department to do this without transgressing the constitutional boundaries

iii) The issue raised on the claim u/s. 87A was, at best, highly debatable and contentious. Therefore, the Department would not be justified in assuming that its interpretation was open and shut, and based upon such a conclusion, shut out bona fide claims for rebate under section 87A and could not be done by exercising administrative powers instead of quasi-judicial powers. Disputed claims, except to the limited extent explicitly permitted by the law, could not ordinarily be disposed of by the executive acting in its executive capacity. This is more so when the executive is itself a party to the lis. One of the foundations of our Constitution is the rule of law. This posits that all three organs of governance, the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary function under and in accordance with the law as enshrined in our Constitution.

iv) The Department did not show any provision under the Act which expressly debarred an assessee to raise or make the claim u/s. 87A qua the tax computed at the rates specified in the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC. There was no rebuttal to the petitioner’s contention that a provision like section 112A(6) had been expressly enacted wherever the Legislature intended to deny such a benefit. Therefore, in so far as the prayers of the petitioners were concerned that the utility should permit an assessee to at least make a claim under section 87A, it could not be rejected at the threshold.

v) Whether rebate u/s. 87A was to be allowed only on the tax calculated in accordance with the provisions of section 115BAC or also on taxes calculated under other provisions of Chapter XII would require interpretation of the interplay of section 87A and section 115BAC To what extent the overriding provisions contained in section 115BAC(1A) would result in allowability or denial of rebate under section 87A would have to be examined by interpretative process. The impact of the phrase “subject to the provisions of this Chapter” would also have to be examined along with other provisions for adjudicating the claim under section 87A. What was the purport of the proviso to section 87A on the claim proposed to be made would have to be interpreted in conjunction with the provisions of section 115BAC(1A) and other connected sections. How the phrase “total income” should be construed for section 87A and section 115BAC along with the definition sections, charging sections and scope of total income and the scheme of the Act, would have to be examined. Whether the provisions of section 115BAC restricted itself only to tax rates or computation of total income would also have to be examined. If such exercise was required to be undertaken before coming to a definite conclusion as to whether the rebate under section 87A was to be granted or denied on the tax computed under the provisions of Chapter XII other than section 115BAC, had to be deduced by interpretative and adjudicating process. Therefore, the Department was not justified in modifying the utility from 5th July, 2024, by which an assessee was debarred at the threshold from making the claim, which claim was contentious or debatable.

vi) A combined reading of section 87 and section 87A would mean an assessee has to make a claim, the entitlement of which is to be examined by processing the return under section 143(1) or section 143(3) and the same should be allowed as a deduction. Section 87 which provides for rebate under section 87A uses the phrase “there shall be allowed from the amount of income tax . . .”. The proviso to section 87A uses the phrase “. assessee shall be entitled to a deduction . . .”. If a claim was not made, the Department could contend that the claim could not be allowed.

vii) In the absence of any concrete case, the petitioner’s prayer to direct the Department to make the utilities for filing the return of income online flexible so as to allow an assessee to self compute the income and there should not be any restriction on making of any claim whatsoever and to not release any utilities or make any changes in the utilities for filing of the return of income under section 139 which would not allow any assessee to raise any claim, could not be granted unless there was a demand for justice which had been rejected or a failure on the part of the Department to exercise its duty under the Act. The court should grant no relief in such broad and general terms because the ramifications would be unclear.

viii) The Department was directed to modify the utilities for filing of the return of income u/s. 139 of the Act immediately, thereby allowing the assessees to make a claim of rebate under section 87A of the Act read with the proviso to section 87A , in their return of income for the assessment year 2024-25 and subsequent years including revised returns to be filed u/s. 139(5).”

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee: A.Y. 2015-16

1. Principle CIT vs. Hespera Reality Pvt. Ltd

[2025] 472 ITR 630 (Del.)

A. Y. 2015-16

Date of order: 24th December

Ss.10(38) and 115JB of ITA 1961

Exemption u/s. 10(38) — Long-term capital gains — Book profits — Minimum alternate tax — Amendments in provisions of sections 10 and 115JB — Commissioner (Appeals) and Tribunal not erroneous in allowing exemption u/s. 10(38) on long-term capital gains from sale of shares of amalgamating companies with assessee:

During the F.Y. 2014-15 relevant to the A.Y. 2015-16, five companies which held shares of the entity IBHFL merged with the assessee and three of these companies sold their shares. Since the said amalgamating companies were merged with the assessee with effect from August 1, 2014, the income earned from the transaction of sale of IBHFL shares were assessed in the hands of the assessee. The Assessing Officer was of the view that the amount of long-term capital gains was required to be added to the book profits u/s. 115JB and that the amount was not entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38).

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the entire amount of long-term capital gains was not liable to be included as income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38) and accordingly, deleted the disallowance but upheld the Assessing Officer’s decision regarding the computation of book profits for the purpose of determination of minimum alternate tax u/s. 115JB. On the question, whether the long-term capital gains that arose from the sale of investments were exempted u/s. 10(38), the Tribunal concurred with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and rejected the appeal of the Department.

Delhi High Court dismissed the further appeal by the Department and held as under:

“i) The proviso to section 10(38) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was introduced by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 ([2006] 282 ITR (St.) 14). The inclusion of the proviso was corresponding to the amendments to Explanation 1 of section 115JB. By virtue of the Finance Act, 2006, the Explanation to section 115JB was amended and expenditure incurred in respect of the income exempt u/s. 10, with the exceptions of section 10(38) was excluded for the purposes of calculation of book profits and minimum alternate tax under section 115JB. In other words, the expenditure incurred for earning such income as was exempt from taxation by virtue of section 10(38) was required to be accounted for as expenditure for determining the book profits. Correspondingly, income u/s. 10(38) was also included as a part of the book profits but other incomes covered u/s. 10 were excluded.

ii) The proviso to section 10(38) was added by virtue of the Finance Act, 2006 to abundantly clarify that the income from capital gains on certain assets, which are excluded from the income u/s. 10(38) would be included in computing book profits u/s. 115JB. The proviso to section 10(38) cannot be read in the reverse to mean that if the gains are not included as book profits u/s. 115JB they are liable to be included as income for the purposes of assessment to tax under the normal provisions, notwithstanding that the gains are required to be excluded from income chargeable to tax u/s. 10(38).

iii) There was no fault with the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal, in rejecting the Department’s contention and holding that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s. 10(38) of the long-term capital gains on account of sale of shares by the amalgamating companies, which was denied by the Assessing Officer.”

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

1. K. Krishnamurthy vs. The Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax

(2025) 171 taxmann.com 413 (SC)

Penalty under section 271AAA — The imposition of penalty is not mandatory – Penalty may be levied if there is undisclosed income in the specified previous year — It is obligatory on the part of the Assessing Officer to demonstrate and prove that undisclosed income of the specified previous year was found during the course of search or as a result of the search – Appellant admitted ₹2,27,65,580/- as income for AY 2011-12 during the search before DDIT (Inv.) as well as substantiated the manner in which the said undisclosed income was derived and paid tax together with interest thereon, albeit belatedly, therefore, penalty under Section 271AAA(1) was not attracted on the said amount of  ₹2,27,65,580 — Appellant had not offered in the declaration before the DDIT(Inv.) any income on land transactions belonging to Mr. Sharab Reddy and Mr. NHR Prasad Reddy — Appellant offered ₹2,49,90,000/- under the head “Income From Other Sources” on account of these land transactions during the course of assessment proceedings only and not at any time during the search — Penalty under Section 271AAA(1) of the Income-tax Act 1961 was therefore leviable on the said amount.

A Memorandum of Understanding (‘MOU’) dated 19th January, 2009 was entered into between Mr. Hashim Moosa on the one hand and the Appellant as well as Mr. Surendra Reddy on the other, for procuring lands at a certain price from the land procurers, i.e. the Appellant and Mr. Surendra Reddy. As per Clause 10 of this MOU, ₹10,00,000/- (Rupees Ten lakhs only) was paid to the procurers for arranging facilitation of transfer of land from the landowners to Mr. Hashim Moosa / his nominees. No other payment, except a reimbursement under Clause 11, was contemplated under this MOU.

A transaction was entered into between Mr. Hashim Moosa and the Space Employees’ Co-operative Society Ltd. (in short ‘Society’) on 26th September, 2009. It was in order to facilitate purchase of land for this transaction that the MOU dated 19th January, 2009 was entered into by the Appellant with Mr. Hashim Moosa.

A search and seizure operation was carried out at the Appellant’s premises on 25th November, 2010, under section 132 of the Act. The Appellant disclosed an income of ₹2,27,65,580/- as a consequence of the search and seizure.

A notice dated 21st August, 2012 under Section 142(1) of the Act was issued to the Appellant calling for return of income for Assessment Year (‘AY’) 2011-2012. The Appellant filed his return of income on 05th November, 2012. The Appellant returned a total income of ₹4,77,11,330/- for Previous Year (‘PY’) 2010-2011, relevant to AY 2011-2012.

The Respondent issued the Assessment Order dated 15th March, 2013 for PY 2010-2011 relevant to AY 2011-2012, in respect of the Appellant. The total income assessed was ₹4,78,02,616/-.

The Assessing Officer noted that Space Employees’s Co-operative Housing Society Limited entered into an MOU on 26-09-2009 with Mr. HashimMoosa for acquiring 120 acres (which was further extended to 150 acres) of lands in Hoskote Taluk for a consideration of ₹74,26,980/- per acre. The Society will pay Mr. Moosa ₹73,26,980/- per acre of registered land to and the balance ₹1 lakh per acre shall be deposited in a Joint Escrow Account till the entire 120 acres of land is registered in favour of the Society.

To procure lands for the Society, Mr. HashimMoosa had entered into an MOU on 19-01-2009 with Mr. K. Krishna Murthy (Appellant) and P. Surendra Reddy for procuring lands @ ₹70,00,000/- per acre.

Mr. Krishnamurthy (Appellant) and Mr. Ananda Reddy had transferred 16.25 acres of lands which are in the names Mr. NHR Prasada Reddy and Mr. Sharab Reddy in favour of the Society.

On the basis of the copies of sale deeds collected from the Society, it was seen that Mr. N.H.R. Prasad Reddy sold 7 acres and 36 guntas of land to the Society and received total sale consideration of ₹4,34,50,000/-. Similarly, his brother Mr. N.H. Sharaba Reddy sold 10 acres and 33 guntas of lands to the Society and received sale consideration of ₹5,95,37,500/-. Overall they had sold 18 acres and 29 guntas of land and received total sale consideration of ₹10,29,87,500/. The consideration received by them works out to ₹55,00,000/- per acre.

Though, the Assessee had admitted that he had undertaken transaction and had promised to get alternative lands to Mr. NHR Prasad Reddy & Sharab Reddy, he had not offered any income on this count before the DDIT (Inv.). The Assessee offered an amount of ₹2,49,90,000/- during the course of assessment proceedings under the head income from other sources (income from assignment of rights) being the difference between the cost of lands which he has acquired on behalf of the brothers and cost of lands at which it is transferred to society.

On 30th September, 2013, an order imposing penalty under section 271AAA of the Act was passed against the Appellant for AY 2011-2012. The Respondent imposed penalty on the Appellant solely on the ground that the Appellant did not make payment of tax and penalty in terms of section 271AAA(2) of the Act after receipt of Show Cause Notice and considering the entire received income as the undisclosed income.

On the same day, another order imposing penalty under Section 271AAA of the Act was passed in respect of AY 2010-2011. Penalty at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) was imposed on the entire returned income i.e. ₹4,78,02,616/- amounting to ₹47,80,261/-.

The CIT (Appeals), Bangalore allowed the appeal preferred against the Penalty Order dated 30th September, 2013 in respect of AY 2010-2011 accepting the submission of the Appellant that 2009-10 cannot be the ‘specified previous year’ for the purpose of Section 271AAA of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Appeal preferred against the Penalty Order dated 30th September, 2013 in respect of AY 2011-2012 was however rejected solely relying on Section 271AAA(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 holding that the basic condition existing in the section has not been fulfilled.

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (‘ITAT’) vide order dated 17th October, 2016 rejected the Appellant’s appeal against the CIT(A) order again on the ground of non-compliance with Section 271AAA(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Appellant preferred an appeal under section 260A of the Act.

Before the High Court, it was contended by the Assessee that it had admitted an undisclosed income of ₹2,27,65,580/- and filed returns showing income of ₹4,78,02,616/-. Nothing was found during the course of search. Assessee had voluntarily filed return of income more than what he had admitted before the DDIT. The machinery section had thus failed and therefore, penalty could not have been imposed.

According to the High Court compliance of all three conditions in sub-clause (2) of Section 271AAA of the Act were mandatory and the third condition namely, the payment of tax, together with interest, if any, had not been fulfilled by the Assessee.

On the question as to whether penalty prescribed @10% of undisclosed Income under section 271AAA of the Act can be reduced, if the tax together with interest on the undisclosed income as declared by the Assessee in the course of search in a statement under Section 132(4) is partly complied with, the High Court held that admittedly, the Appellant had not disclosed the income at all. But for search, the same could not have been unearthed. Having filed the returns, the Assessee did not comply with the third condition of sub-section (2). The assessee was therefore not entitled to any relief.

The High Court dismissed the appeal of the Appellant vide the judgment dated 2nd August, 2022.

On 6th January, 2023, the Supreme Court was pleased to issue notice confined to the second question urged before the High Court.

The Supreme Court noted that Section 271AAA(1) of the Income-tax Act 1961 stipulates that the Assessing Officer may, notwithstanding anything contained in any other provisions of the Act, direct the Assessee, in a case where search has been carried out to pay by way of a penalty, in addition to the tax, a sum computed at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) of the undisclosed income of the specified previous year. The Supreme Court was of the view that the imposition of penalty therefore is not mandatory. Consequently, penalty under this Section may be levied if there is undisclosed income in the specified previous year.

According to the Supreme Court, though under Section 271AAA(1) of the Income-tax Act 1961, the Assessing Officer has the discretion to levy penalty, yet this discretionary power is not unfettered, unbridled and uncanalised. Discretion means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour, it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful. [See: Som Raj and Ors. vs. State of Haryana and Ors. 1990:INSC:53 : (1990) 2 SCC 653].

The Supreme Court noted that Section 271AAA(2) of the Act stipulates that Section 271AAA(1) shall not be applicable if the Assessee — (i) in a statement under sub-section (4) of Section 132 in the course of the search, admits the undisclosed income and specifies the manner in which such income has been derived; (ii) substantiates the manner in which the undisclosed income was derived; and (iii) pays the tax, together with interest, if any, in respect of the undisclosed income.

Consequently, if the aforesaid conditions (i) and (ii) are satisfied and the tax together with interest on the undisclosed income is paid up to the date of payment, even with delay, in the absence of specific period of compliance, then penalty at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) under section 271AAA of the Act 1961 is normally not leviable.

The Supreme Court further noted that the expression ‘Undisclosed Income’ has been defined in Explanation (a) appended to Section 271AAA of the Act. According to the Supreme Court, as Section 271AAA is a penalty provision, it has to be strictly construed. The fact that the Assessee had surrendered some undisclosed income during the course of search or that the surrender was emerging out of the statements recorded during the course of search was not sufficient to fasten the levy of penalty. The onus was on the Assessing Officer to satisfy the condition precedent stipulated in the said Explanation, before the charge for levy of penalty is fastened on the Assessee.

Consequently, it is obligatory on the part of the Assessing Officer to demonstrate and prove that undisclosed income of the specified previous year was found during the course of search or as a result of the search.

The Supreme Court further noted that the expression ‘specified previous year’ has been defined in Explanation (b) appended to Section 271AAA of the Act 1961. Since in the present case, the search was conducted on 25th November, 2010 and as the year for filing returns under Section 139(1) of the Act 1961 which ended prior to that date had expired on 31st July, 2010, Explanation b(i) was not applicable so as to make AY 2010-11 the specified previous year. Consequently, by virtue of Explanation b(ii), AY 2011-12 (the year in which the search was conducted) was the specified previous year in the present case for the purpose of Section 271AAA(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court further held that in the present case, the Appellant admitted ₹2,27,65,580/- as income for AY 2011-12 during the search before DDIT (Inv.) as well as substantiated the manner in which the said undisclosed income was derived and paid tax together with interest thereon, albeit belatedly.

Consequently, all the conditions precedent mentioned in Section 271AAA(2) stood satisfied and, therefore, penalty under Section 271AAA(1) was not attracted on the said amount of ₹2,27,65,580/-.

However, in the assessment order dated 15th March, 2013 passed under Section 143(3) of the Act, which has attained finality, it was an admitted position that the Appellant had not offered in the declaration before the DDIT(Inv.) any income on land transactions belonging to Mr. Sharab Reddy and Mr. NHR Prasad Reddy. From the assessment order dated 15th March, 2013, it was apparent that the Appellant offered ₹2,49,90,000/- under the head income from other sources on account of these land transactions during the course of assessment proceedings only and not at any time during the search.

The argument that the said transactions had not been found in the search at the Appellant’s premises but had been found due to ‘copies of sale deeds collected from the society’ had no merits as the sale deeds had been collected as a result of the search and in continuation of the search. The Supreme Court was of the view that as the causation for collecting the sale deeds from the Society was the search at the Appellant’s premises, it cannot be said that the said documents were not found in the course of the search.

The Supreme Court further held that the expression ‘found in the course of search’ is of a wide amplitude. It does not mean documents found in the Assessee’s premises alone during the search. At times, search of an Assessee leads to a search of another individual and / or further investigation / interrogation of third parties. All these steps and recoveries therein would fall within the expression ‘found in the course of search’.

The Supreme Court reiterated that since income of `2,49,90,000/- constituted undisclosed income found during the search, penalty under Section 271AAA(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was leviable on the said amount. Also, as the said amount was not admitted in the declaration before the DDIT(Inv.) during the course of search but was disclosed by the Appellant only during the assessment proceedings, and that too, after the Assessing Officer had asked for copies of the sale deeds from the Society, the exception carved out in Section 271AAA(2) was not attracted to the said portion of the income.

The Supreme Court disposed the appeal with a direction to the Appellant to pay penalty at the rate of 10% (Ten per cent) on ₹2,49,90,000/- and not on ₹4,78,02,616.

Do Provisions Of S.68 Of Income-Tax Act, 1961 Apply To Donations Received By A Charitable Trust?

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Charitable or religious trusts are generally funded by donations (voluntary contributions) received from donors. Such donations are taxable as income (subject to exemption in respect of application and accumulation), as they fall within the definition of income under s.2(24)(iia) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”), which reads as under:

“voluntary contributions received by a trust created wholly or partly for charitable or religious purposes or by an institution established wholly or partly for such purposes or by an association or institution referred to in clause (21) or clause (23), or by a fund or trust or institution referred to in sub-clause (iv) or sub-clause (v) or by any university or other educational institution referred to in sub-clause (iiiad) or sub-clause (vi) or by any hospital or other institution referred to in sub-clause (iiiae) or sub-clause (via) of clause (23C) of section 10 or by an electoral trust.”

Such donations are also regarded as income from property held for charitable or religious purposes by virtue of the provisions of section 12(1). Section 12(1) reads as under:

“Any voluntary contributions received by a trust created wholly for charitable or religious purposes or by an institution established wholly for such purposes (not being contributions made with a specific direction that they shall form part of the corpus of the trust or institution) shall for the purposes of section 11 be deemed to be income derived from property held under trust wholly for charitable or religious purposes and the provisions of that section and section 13 shall apply accordingly.”

A charitable or religious trust registered under section 12A of the Act is entitled to exemption under section 11 in respect of its income from property held for charitable or religious purposes, which would include such donations, to the extent of such income applied, accumulated, etc. as provided in section 11. Therefore, such donations are income in the first place, and are thereafter entitled to exemption to the extent permitted by section 11.

Section 68 of the Act provides for taxation of unexplained cash credits. Section 68 provides as under:

“Where any sum is found credited in the books of an assessee maintained for any previous year, and the assessee offers no explanation about the nature and source thereof or the explanation offered by him is not, in the opinion of the Assessing Officer, satisfactory, the sum so credited may be charged to income-tax as the income of the assessee of that previous year.”

Such unexplained cash credits are taxable at the rate of 60%, plus surcharge at the rate of 25% of such tax, plus education cess of 4% on the tax plus surcharge, i.e. at an effective tax rate of 78%.

An issue has arisen before the High Courts as to whether the provisions of section 68 apply to donations received by charitable trusts; in other words, whether donations received by a charitable trust, which may otherwise qualify for exemption, can be taxed as unexplained cash credits. While the Delhi, Allahabad and Karnataka High Courts have held that such donations received by a charitable trust cannot be brought to tax under section 68, the Punjab & Haryana High Court has held that such donations can be taxed under section 68.

KESHAV SOCIAL & CHARITABLE FOUNDATION’S CASE

The issue first came before the Delhi High Court in the case of DIT(E) vs. Keshav Social & Charitable Foundation 278 ITR 152.

In this case, during the relevant year, the assessee was a charitable trust registered under section 12A. It received donations amounting to ₹18,24,200. The assessee had spent more than 75% of the donations for charitable purposes.

During the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee was asked to furnish details of the donations, i.e. the names and addresses of the donors and the mode of receipt of donations. The assessee was unable to satisfactorily explain the donations. The assessing officer (AO) was of the view that the donations were perhaps fictitious donations, and that the assessee had tried to introduce unaccounted money into its books by way of donations. Therefore, the amount of ₹18,24,200 was treated as cash credit under section 68, and the benefit of exemption under section 11 was denied in respect of such donations.

In first appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) was of the view that the AO was not justified in treating the donations received as income under section 68. He noted that the assessee had disclosed the donations as its income, and had spent 75% of the amount for charitable purposes. Therefore, in his view, the assessee had not committed any default. The Commissioner (Appeals) therefore directed the AO to allow exemption to the assessee under section 11, holding that the treatment of the donations of ₹18,24,200 as income under section 68 was incorrect.

In second appeal, the Tribunal was of the view that since more than 75% of the donations received by the assessee was spent on charitable purposes, the addition of ₹18,24,200 was not correct. The Tribunal accepted the argument of counsel for the assessee that once a donation was received, it was deemed to be received for a charitable purpose unless the donation was received towards the corpus of the trust.

Before the Delhi High Court, on behalf of the revenue, it was submitted that essentially what the assessee was trying to do was to launder its black money or unaccounted income by converting it into donations, and it should not be permitted to do so.

Referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of S Rm M Ct M Tiruppani Trust 230 ITR 636, the High Court observed that every charitable or religious trust was entitled to exemption for income applied to its charitable or religious purposes in India. It noted that on the facts of the case before it, more than 75% of the donations for charitable purposes had been applied for its objects.

The Delhi High Court observed that to obtain the benefit of the exemption under section 11, the assessee was required to show that the donations were voluntary. The High Court further observed that the assessee had not only disclosed its donations, but had submitted a list of donors. According to the High Court, the fact that the complete list of donors was not filed or that the donors are not produced, did not necessarily lead to the inference that the assessee was trying to introduce unaccounted money by way of donation receipts. This was more particularly so in the facts of the case, where admittedly more than 75% of the donations were applied for charitable purposes.

The High Court held that section 68 had no application to the facts of the case, because the assessee had in fact disclosed the donations of ₹18,24,200 as its income. The High Court observed that it could not be disputed that all receipts, other than corpus donations, would be income in the hands of the assessee. Accordingly, there was full disclosure of income by the assessee, and also application of the donations for charitable purposes.

The High Court therefore upheld the decision of the Tribunal, holding that the provisions of section 68 would not apply to the donations received by the assessee trust.

This decision of the Delhi High Court was followed by the Delhi High Court in DIT v Hans Raja Samarak Society217 Taxman 114 (Del)(Mag), by the Allahabad High Court in the case of CIT v Uttaranchal Welfare Society 364 ITR 398, and by the Karnataka High Court in the cases of DIT(E) v. Sri BelimathaMahasamsthana Socio Cultural & Education Trust 336 ITR 694 and CIT v MBA Nahata Charitable Trust 364 ITR 693.

MAYOR FOUNDATION’S CASE

The issue came up again recently before the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Mayor Foundation v CIT 170 taxmann.com 749.

In this case, the assessee was a company registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956. It was also registered under section 12A and section 80G of the Act. It was running one educational institution, Mayor World School, at Jalandhar. The assessee had filed its income tax return, disclosing Nil income. During the year, it received corpus donations of ₹1,43,40,039.

During the course of assessment proceedings, the AO sought to verify the names and addresses of the donors. Notices were issued u/s 133(6) to some donors. 14 donors could be verified, and 7 were found not genuine as the donors’ identity was doubtful. A show cause notice was issued as to why such doubtful donations amounting to `53 lakh should not be taxed as anonymous donations under section 115BBC.

The assessee responded seeking more time to establish contact with such donors and obtain their due replies. None of the donors were produced before the AO. It was pointed out that such donations were received through bank accounts, and certain confirmations were received from 3 company donors.

The AO noticed the following in respect of these 3 companies:

  1.  In the case of all 3, first notices were first returned unserved. Responses were received to the second notices.
  2.  2 of the companies were located in West Bengal, and the replies were sent by post from Mumbai General Post Office.
  3.  2 of the companies were shown as struck-off in the ROC records, and 1 was reflected as dormant.
  4.  There seemed to be no working directors in all 3 companies.
  5.  The assessee had failed to produce any director or shareholder of all the 3 companies.

The AO therefore concluded that the assessee had received huge donations, the sources of income were not genuine, the companies were not working, and the genuineness, identity, sources and credit worthiness of these companies had not been proved. Besides addition of donations of ₹8,00,000,other donations of ₹40 lakh and ₹8 lakh were added as undisclosed cash credit under section 68, and tax was levied under section 115BBC and 115BBE.

In first appeal, the assessee submitted copies of income tax returns and proved the credit worthiness of 2 donees, who were NRIs, and who had given the rupee donations of ₹48 lakh. These additions of ₹48 lakh were deleted. The addition of donations of ₹8 lakh from the 3 corporate entities under section 68 was sustained in first and second appeals, on account of inability to prove any relationship between the donors and the donee, their whereabouts not being produced in the form of documents, and the companies having been struck off or being defunct.

The reasoning which prevailed with the Tribunal was that these companies had been struck-off the record of the Registrar of Companies, and therefore had to be treated as shell companies. Therefore, their identity was in question, the existence of the corporate body having been duly rejected by the Registrar of Companies. The existence of the donors itself was questioned, and the assessee was unable to produce any document in support of their action to restore the company before a judicial authority.

The questions of law raised before the High Court were:

“a. Whether the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal is justified in concurring with the findings of CIT(A) and in confirming the impugned income of ₹8,00,000 under the provisions of section 115BBC, section 68 read with section 115BBE of the Income Tax Act, 1961 being perverse and against the statutory provisions and as upheld in catena of judgments?

b. Whether the orders of the authorities below are illegal, erroneous, without jurisdiction and thus perverse?”

Before the Punjab & Haryana High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was argued that there was sufficient material produced on record to show that the three companies existed and had been filing returns at the time of the corpus donations. Reliance was placed upon the documents in support of the publication that the amounts had been received by way of cheque. It was submitted that the companies were incorporated in 1992, and even if they were no longer registered at the time when the matter was inquired, there was no such reason why addition could have been made. It was submitted that the requisite communication had been made by the companies with the tax authorities, Ledger copy of the accounts and the income tax returns for the year and bank statements had been sent to the assessing officer. The three companies had acknowledged the donations that they had given.

The High Court observed that the companies at West Bengal had sought to give the details of the donations from Mumbai, and it was in such circumstances, that the AO came to the conclusion that the expression given was not bona fide. Opportunity was given to produce the directors, which was not done. It was due to this that the tax authorities had taken the view that the companies were no longer functional and not functioning and struck off by the Registrar of Companies. The High Court observed that nothing had been brought on record that these companies were actually functioning at the time of donations, and when they were struck off.

Under such circumstances, the High Court was of the opinion that the genuineness, identity and credit worthiness of these companies was rightly doubted by the AO, and under such circumstances, the additions had been made.

The High Court was therefore of the view that the question of law raised before it did not arise, keeping in view the facts and circumstances, as the appellant could not produce sufficient material before the authorities to dispel the suspicion which had been raised about the donations received from the companies which were not even based geographically close to the educational institution, and the reason to grant the donations were never properly explained.

OBSERVATIONS

It may be noted that in Mayor Foundation’s case (supra), neither before the Tribunal nor before the High Court were the decisions of other High Courts on the issue cited. Therefore, the Tribunal and the High Court merely decided the matter in that case on the basis of the facts before them, without really examining the legal issues involved in respect of the very applicability of section 68. Further, it seems that in that case, both section 115BBC as well as section 68 were invoked, which was patently incorrect, as the same income cannot be subjected to tax twice.

Section 68 seeks to bring to tax receipts which are not offered to tax as income, such as capital or loans received by a taxpayer. When the charitable trust has already included donations received as income in the first place, the question of applicability of section 68 should not arise.

Section 115BBC is a special provision introduced by the Finance Act 2006 with effect from AY 2007-08, to tax anonymous donations received by charitable trusts at the flat rate of 30%. The CBDT, vide Circular No. 14 of 2006 dated 28th December, 2006,has clarified that section 115BBC has been introduced” to prevent channelisation of unaccounted money to these institutions by way of anonymous donations”. An anonymous donation has been defined as a voluntary contribution where the recipient does not maintain details of the identity, indicating name and address of the donor. This is therefore a specific provision to tax donations received by charitable trusts where the donors are bogus entities. As opposed to this, the provisions of section 68 are general provisions to tax all types of cash credits which are unexplained, and apply to all types of assessees.

Section 115BBC is therefore a specific provision, while section 68 is a general provision. It is well-settled law that the specific provision of law would prevail over a general provision. Therefore, section 115BBC would prevail over the provisions of section 68 in the case of donations received by a charitable trust.

The Bombay High Court, in the recent case of Everest Education Society v ACIT 164 taxmann.com 744, while deciding a review petition against its order upholding treatment of donations as anonymous donations under section 115BBC, observed in paragraph 7 of the judgment that:

“Section 68 of the Act was not applicable since the applicant had disclosed the income from donation.”

Further, the Delhi High Court decision in Keshav Social and Charitable Foundation’s case (supra) has been upheld by the Supreme Court in a short decision disposing of the appeal, in the case reported as DIT(E) v Keshav Social and Charitable Foundation 394 ITR 496.

One aspect of the matter which also needs to be considered is that in Keshav Social & Charitable Foundation’s case, the donations were general donations, while in Mayor Foundation’s case, the donations were corpus donations. Would this make any difference to the aspect of applicability of the provisions of section 68?

This should really not make any difference on account of the following:

a. The provisions of section 115BBC apply equally to corpus donations as they do to general donations.

b. In the view of tax authorities, corpus donations are also income as defined in section 2(24)(iia) in the first place, and are thereafter exempt under section 11(1)(d) if the conditions specified therein are fulfilled.

c. In Uttaranchal Welfare Society’s case before the Allahabad High Court, the question before the High Court was in relation to taxability of corpus donations received under section 68. There also, the Allahabad High Court held that section 68 could not be applied to such corpus donations.

Therefore, the provisions of section 68 should not apply to donations received by registered charitable trusts (whether corpus or otherwise), and if at all, the provisions of section 115BBC may apply in such cases where details of the donor are lacking.

Article 11 India-Luxembourg DTAA – Assessee, having satisfied that it is not a conduit entity, is entitled to the benefits under DTAA and considering commercial and economic substance.

15. [2025] 170 taxmann.com 475 (Delhi – Trib.)

SC Lowy P.I. (LUX) S.A.R.L. vs. ACIT

ITA No: 3568 (Delhi) of 2023

A.Y.: 2021-22

Dated: 30th December, 2024

Article 11 India-Luxembourg DTAA – Assessee, having satisfied that it is not a conduit entity, is entitled to the benefits under DTAA and considering commercial and economic substance.

FACTS

Assessee is a Limited Liability Company and a tax resident of Luxembourg. The Assessee is a subsidiary of a Cayman Island entity and a step-down subsidiary of an offshore fund located in the Cayman Islands. The Assessee is registered as a Category II – Foreign Portfolio Investor registered with SEBI, who has invested in corporate bonds and pass-through certificates of securitization trust.

It offered the interest income from bonds at 10% under Article 11 and claimed treaty benefits with respect to business income and capital gains under Article 7 and Article 13(6) of DTAA, respectively.

The AO verified the financial statements, SEBI registration, and Articles of Association to conclude that the real owner of the income is the ultimate Parent located in the Cayman Islands, with whom India does not have DTAA. The entire holding structure involves treaty shopping, and a TRC is insufficient to claim treaty benefits and beneficial ownership of income. Therefore, the AO denied the tax benefits under DTAA and taxed the interest income from bonds and securitization trusts at 40% and short-term gains at 30%.

The DRP upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

  •  The Assessee has provided a valid TRC and satisfied the conditions prescribed under Article 29 dealing with the limitation of benefits. Having not raised any red flags on the TRC, the revenue cannot overlook the TRC without bringing any evidence to prove that the entity exists as a conduit. The Delhi High Court, in Tiger Global International III Holdings [2024] 165 taxmann.com 850 (Delhi), has held that revenue can look beyond TRC only in case of tax fraud, sham transactions or illegal activities.
  •  The Assessee was incorporated as an investment holding company in Luxembourg, and it has been in existence since 2015 and invested in distressed assets. As a Category – II FPI, it invested in securitization trust/corporate bonds in FY 2018-19. Its geographical concentration shows that it had only 14% investment in India, and the remaining investments were spread across jurisdictions.
  •  The Assessee had paid taxes and filed returns in Luxembourg with respect to income earned from Indiaand other jurisdictions. Substantial operational costs, includes consulting fees, litigation fees, professional charges, and administrative expenses, are incurred in Luxembourg.
  •  The Assessee is in existence to date and continues to hold the investments. This substantiates that they control the assets and the income thereon for their own account; hence, they cannot be regarded as a conduit entity. The AO did not bring any evidence to support his views and presumptions.
  •  The genuineness of the entity is substantiated through various activities, and it operated as a stand-alone entity without depending on its holding company.

The limitation of benefits under Article 29 as amended by Multilateral Instruments (Article 7) requires bringing on record the relevant facts andcircumstances to prove that the principal purpose of arrangements and transactions is only for the purpose of taking treaty benefit. The Revenue, without any cogent materials, failed to establish that the assessee is a conduit entity. Therefore, the benefits of the treaty cannot be denied.

Article 8 of India-USA DTAA – Whether code sharing revenue falls under the scope of ‘operations of aircraft’ and is entitled to relief under the DTAA.

14. [2024] 169 taxmann.com 8 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Delta Air Lines, Inc. vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

ITA No: 235 (Mum.) of 2022

A.Y.: 2018-19

Dated: 7th November 2024

Article 8 of India-USA DTAA – Whether code sharing revenue falls under the scope of ‘operations of aircraft’ and is entitled to relief under the DTAA.

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of the USA, was engaged in the business of aircraft operations in international traffic. It had established a branch office in India, a permanent establishment that was admitted to facilitate the booking of air passenger tickets and freights. The Assessee had three streams of international journey income, namely (i) transportation using their own aircraft, (ii) transportation with a combination of own aircraft and third-party carriers vide code sharing arrangements for one or more parts of the journey, and (iii) entire transportation using third party carriers under code-sharing arrangements.

The Assessee filed NIL return of income claiming benefits under Article 8 of the DTAA. The AO denied the Article 8 benefit w.r.t second and third stream of income, stating income under code sharing cannot be regarded as derived from the operation of aircraft in international traffic. Further, AO was of the view that code sharing arrangements cannot be regarded as a space or a slot charter.

The Ld. DRP and Ld. AO followed the order of the coordinate bench in Assesse’s own case for AY 2010-11 [2015] 57 taxmann.com 1 (Mumbai) to uphold the denial of the treaty benefit qua code-share revenue. The reasoning that was adopted in earlier ITAT ruling, as also by DRP, was as under:

  •  The taxpayer must derive profit from the operation of an aircraft in international traffic as an owner/charter/lessor of the aircraft.
  •  In the case of a code-sharing arrangement, the taxpayer’s activities were only the booking of tickets, and the actual transport of passengers was carried out by a third-party airline. The same cannot hence be regarded as profits derived from international traffic carried out by the assessee.
  • Activities directly linked to the transport of passengers by the Assessee would only fall under the ambit of Article 8(2)(b). Since the transportation is carried on by other airlines, and it cannot be regarded as having direct nexus with activities carried on by the Assessee; hence, the activity relating to transportation by other airlines cannot fall under Article 8(2)(b).
  •  The ruling of the coordinate bench of the tribunal in the case of MISC Berhard [2014] 47 taxmann.com 50 (Mumbai) is not applicable to the case on hand. The MISC (supra) case dealt with revenue earned from feeder vessels, which was used to transport cargo from the Indian Port to the Hub Port and for further transportation by the third party than to mother vessels for the final destination. In the case of Assessee, there are no such instances of transporting to the hub port and then to the final destination. Since the ruling was rendered in the context of India-UK DTAA, the same cannot be applied to India-US DTAA.
  •  The code-sharing arrangement cannot be regarded as slot/space charter for qualifying under Article 8(2) as the assessee does not have exclusivity over space or flights booked.

HELD

On further appeal, the co-ordinate bench dissented with their earlier ruling on account of subsequent judicial developments and ruled in favour of the taxpayer basis the following:

  • The Bombay High Court in Balaji Shipping [2012] 24 taxmann.com 229 (Bombay) held that slot chartering by shipping companies for transportation by third-party shippers could fall under the scope of Article 9 of India-UK DTAA. The High Court held that both the following scenarios were covered under Article 9 i.e., (i) use of a third-party ship for movement between a port in India to the hub port and then for the final destination and (ii) use of a third-party ship for transport from the port in India to the final destination.
  • The Bombay High Court in APL Co. Pte. Ltd [2016] 75 taxmann.com 32 (Bombay) has applied the ruling of Balaji Shipping (supra) while interpreting the India-Singapore DTAA since both treaties’ wordings are parimateria. Therefore, this will have a binding effect when the wording of various treaties is similar. Although the passengers are transported through other airlines, the Assessee issues the tickets up to the final destination. The code-sharing arrangements facilitate the Assessee in providing services to specific destinations where they do not operate. Therefore, applying the Balaji Shipping (supra) ratio rendered in the context of shipping income receipts from code-sharing arrangements is entitled to benefit under Article 8 of DTAA.
  • When the assessee books a seat on a third-party airline through a code-sharing arrangement, it could be regarded as a charter of space in the aircraft, and the entire aircraft need not be chartered.
  • The codes used by the Assessee for booking tickets in third-party airlines are unique to them and are used for partial or complete journeys. This establishes the link between transportation by a third party and the operations of the Assessee, and they transport the passenger on behalf of the Assessee.

Sec. 28: Where during search at residential premises of director of assessee-company, AO found that assessee had made out of books sales and added entire undisclosed sales to income of assessee, however, Commissioner (Appeals) restricted same to profit element embedded therein estimated at rate of 8 per cent of sales, since revenue had not given any basis to justify applying higher rate of net profit at 12.5 per cent instead of 8 per cent, addition restricted by Commissioner (Appeals) to 8 per cent of sales was to be upheld. Also, Commissioner (Appeals) failed to give benefit of income surrendered by assessee voluntarily against addition confirmed by him on account of unaccounted sales, Assessing Officer was to be directed to grant assessee benefit of income surrendered by assessee against addition confirmed by Commissioner (Appeals).

84. ACIT vs. Conor Granito (P.) Ltd

[2024] 116 ITR(T) 479 (Rajkot – Trib.)

ITA NO.: 143 (RJT) OF 2021

CO NO.: 01 (RJT) OF 2022

A.Y.: 2019-20

Dated: 12th January, 2024

Sec. 28: Where during search at residential premises of director of assessee-company, AO found that assessee had made out of books sales and added entire undisclosed sales to income of assessee, however, Commissioner (Appeals) restricted same to profit element embedded therein estimated at rate of 8 per cent of sales, since revenue had not given any basis to justify applying higher rate of net profit at 12.5 per cent instead of 8 per cent, addition restricted by Commissioner (Appeals) to 8 per cent of sales was to be upheld. Also, Commissioner (Appeals) failed to give benefit of income surrendered by assessee voluntarily against addition confirmed by him on account of unaccounted sales, Assessing Officer was to be directed to grant assessee benefit of income surrendered by assessee against addition confirmed by Commissioner (Appeals).

FACTS

During search at the residential premises of the director of the assessee-company, various incriminating material by way of WhatsApp message / images were discovered and on analysis of the same, it was discovered that the assessee had made out of books sales which during the impugned year amounted to ₹2,35,42,980/-. The Assessing Officer added entire undisclosed sales to the income of the assessee. The ld.CIT(A), however, restricted the same to the profit element embedded therein estimated at the rate of @ 8 per cent of the sales.

Aggrieved, the revenue filed an appeal and assessee filed cross objections before the Tribunal –

HELD

ITAT observed that the contention of the Revenue was that the ld.CIT(A) ought to have applied 12.5 per cent net profit rate instead of 8 per cent. However, the Revenue had not given any basis to justify applying higher rate of net profit at 12.5 per cent.

ITAT held that net profit to be applied was to be at justifiable rate depending upon nature of the business and other facts. It should not be an ad hoc rate and there has to be a reasonable basis for applying a particular net profit rate in each case. The DR had not supported his contention of applying 12.5 per cent GP rate with any reasonable basis. ITAT held that profit rate specified in the decision of Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Simit P. Sheth, [2013] 356 ITR 451 as cited by DR could not be justifiable rate in assessee’s case as the nature of activities of both the assessees were not identical.

Therefore, ITAT did not find any merit in the contentions of the DR that the ld.CIT(A) ought to have applied a net profit of 12.5 per cent in the present case. The ground raised by the Revenue was accordingly rejected.

Thus, the appeal of the Revenue was dismissed.

With respect to Cross Objections filed by the assessee, the ld.CIT(A) had failed to give benefit of the income surrendered by the assessee voluntarily against addition confirmed by him on account of unaccounted sales.

In the light of the same, ITAT directed the assessing officer to grant assessee the benefit of the income surrendered of ₹15 lakhs against the addition confirmed by the ld.CIT(A).

The Cross Objection was accordingly allowed.

Sec. 69A: Assessee deposited cash during demonetisation period of `10.75 lakhs which was recorded in his books of account and source of cash deposits was also maintained by assessee. However, Assessing Officer made addition as unexplained money under section 69A and taxed same under section 115BBE. ITAT held that Assessing Officer was not correct in invoking provisions of section 69A and charging tax under section 115BBE as assessee had recorded in his books of accounts and also explained source of such cash deposits.

83. Dipak Balubhai Patel (HUF) vs. ITO

[2024] 115ITR(T) 624 (Ahmedabad- Trib.)

ITA NO.:942(AHD) OF 2023

AY.: 2017-18

Dated: 22nd August, 2024

Sec. 69A: Assessee deposited cash during demonetisation period of `10.75 lakhs which was recorded in his books of account and source of cash deposits was also maintained by assessee. However, Assessing Officer made addition as unexplained money under section 69A and taxed same under section 115BBE. ITAT held that Assessing Officer was not correct in invoking provisions of section 69A and charging tax under section 115BBE as assessee had recorded in his books of accounts and also explained source of such cash deposits.

FACTS

The assessee was a HUF who derived income from House Property and Income from Other Sources. The case was selected for scrutiny assessment and the Assessing Officer found that assessee deposited a sum of ₹10,75,000/- during demonetisation period and issued show cause notice to explain the source of cash deposit.

The assessee explained the source of cash deposit as withdrawal from four other banks accounts of the assesse and the said deposits were duly reflected in his Return of Income. Further since assessee did not have any business income, therefore he had not filed the Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet along with Return of Income. However, the assessee filed the same before the
Assessing Officer along with cash book, wherein cash on hand as on 1st April, 2016 as opening balance was ₹10,09,933/-, which was deposited during demonetisation period.

However, Assessing Officer rejected the Books of Accounts by stating that assessee had shown Closing Cash on hand as zero in return of income filed for the A.Y. 2016-17, and in the Cash Book of F.Y. 2016-17 i.e. A.Y. 2017-18, assessee has shown Opening Balance to the tune of ₹10,09,933/- which was not justifiable and therefore made addition as unexplained money u/s. 69A of the Act.

Aggrieved against the addition, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A) who confirmed the additions by observing that during the previous 3 years, except 2 or 3 instances, all withdrawals were less than ₹10,000 and the appellant claimed that the withdrawals were preserved during last 3 years in his hand and were deposited in the year under consideration.

Since 95 per cent of the withdrawals were less than ₹10,000, CIT(A) observed that as per common sense these cash withdrawals were for day to day expenses and if the appellant had so much of cash with him then what was the need for frequent withdrawals of ₹5,000 and ₹10,000. The CIT(A) relied on decisions of CIT vs. Durga Prasad More [1971] 82 ITR 540 (SC) and Sumati Dayal vs. CIT [1995] 214 ITR 801 (SC) where the Supreme Court has laid down Human Probability test as one of the important test in order to check genuineness of the transactions entered into the books of account of the assesses. Hence it was held by CIT(A) that the appellant failed to satisfactorily explain the source of ₹10,75,000 cash deposited in the bank account and the assessing officer was correct in treating this amount as unexplained cash under section 69A.

The appellant being aggrieved with the order of the CIT(Appeals) filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT observed that during the assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer had rejected the explanation offered by the assessee as the assesse had showed closing cash on hand as Nil in the Return of Income but in the cash book showed the opening balance for A.Y. 2017-18 to the tune of ₹10,09,933/-.

The ITAT further observed that the assessee had filed copies of previous three years Form 26AS, ITR, Statement of Income, Profit and Loss account and Balance Sheet before CIT(A)and further explained that rental income was offered to tax with appropriate TDS u/s. 194I of the Act which was reflecting in Form 26AS records. Since the assessee was a Senior Citizen, he withdrew and kept substantial balance in his bank accounts for emergency medical needs. However, after declaration of the demonetization period, the assessee deposited the withdrawal amounts from his other bank accounts.

The ITAT observed that Assessing Officer erroneously treated cash deposits as unexplained cash and also invoked Section 115BBE of the Act and charged at 60 per cent rate which was not applicable to the present case since the cash deposits were reflected in the books of accounts maintained by the assessee. The ITAT relied on decision in case of Balwinder Kumar ([2023] 151 taxmann.com 338 (Amritsar – Trib.)) and Sri Sriram Manchukonda (2021 TaxCorp (AT.) 91806 Visakhapatnam ITAT) wherein co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal held in favour of the assessee.

Respectfully following the above judicial precedents, ITAT observed that the addition made by AO u/s. 69A will be applicable only when the assessee is found to be the owner of any money etc. which is not recorded in the books of accounts maintained by him and any explanation offered by the assessee is not satisfactory in the opinion of the Assessing Officer.

ITAT observed that in the present case, the assessee had recorded the cash deposits in his books of accounts and source of cash deposits during demonetization period were also been maintained by the assessee. Therefore, ITAT held that the A.O. was not correct in invoking provisions of Section 69A of the Act and charging tax u/s. 115BBE of the Act. Thus the addition made by the Assessing Officer were deleted.

In the result, the appeal filed by the Assessee was allowed.

S. 127–Where the case of the assesse was transferred from one AO to another AO in a different city / locality / place, PCIT was under a statutory obligation to give an opportunity of being heard to the assessee.

82. Amit Kumar Gupta vs. ITO

(2025) 171 taxmann.com 16 (Raipur Trib)

ITA Nos.: 404 & 405 (Rpr) of 2024

A.Ys.: 2011-12 & 2012-13

Dated: 13th January, 2025

S. 127–Where the case of the assesse was transferred from one AO to another AO in a different city / locality / place, PCIT was under a statutory obligation to give an opportunity of being heard to the assessee.

FACTS

During the relevant year, the assessee had made cash deposits amounting to ₹17,05,824 into his bank account but did not file his income tax return. Based on the information gathered from NMS / ITS module, the AO (ITO-1, Ambikapur) initiated proceedings under section 147 by issuing notice under section 148 dated 23rd March, 2018. Thereafter, pursuant to an order under section 127 dated 7.9.2018 passed by PCIT-1, Bilaspur, the assessee’s case was transferred from ITO-1 Ambikapur to ITO-3, Korba. Since the assessee did not come forth with any explanation in response to notice under section 142(1), the AO taxed the entire cash deposit as unexplained money under section 69A vide his order under section 144 read with section 147 dated 16th December, 2018.

The assessee challenged the assessment order before CIT(A), inter alia, on the ground that PCIT had transferred his case from one ITO to another ITO without affording any opportunity of being heard as required under section 127. CIT(A) dismissed the appeal, inter alia, holding that he was not the appropriate forum to challenge the order under section 127 passed by PCIT.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) As can be gathered from section 127(3), in a case where the PCIT transfers the case of as assessee from any AO to any other AO and the offices of all such officers are not situated in the same city, locality or place, then he remains under a statutory obligation to give an opportunity of being heard to the assessee and only after recording his reasons for doing so,
transfer such case. In the assessee’s facts, the case had been transferred pursuant to the order of PCIT, Bilaspur dated 7th September, 2018 from ITO-1, Ambikapur to ITO-3, Korba, that is, offices of said officers were not situated in the same city, locality or place, and therefore, on a conjoint reading of section 127(1) / (3), he was obligated to have given an opportunity to the assessee prior to transfer of his case.

(b) CIT(A) was not right in holding that he was not vested with any jurisdiction to deal with the specific challenge raised by the assessee as regards the validity of the assessment order that was framed by the A.Ode-hors a valid assumption of jurisdiction on his part in absence of an order of transfer under section 127 as required per the mandate of law.

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter back to the file of CIT(A) with a direction to adjudicate the challenge of the assessee as regards the validity of the jurisdiction that was assumed by the A.O for framing of the assessment order passed under section 144 read with section. 147 dated 16th December, 2018 de-hors an order of transfer under section 127 as per the mandate of law.

S. 80G – Where the application for final approval under section 80G was rejected due to incorrect section code in the application, the issue was remanded back to the file of CIT(E) to grant final approval under correct provision if assessee-trust was otherwise eligible.

81. Rotary Charity Trust vs. CIT(E)

(2025)170 taxmann.com 797(Mum Trib)

ITA No.: 6133(Mum) of 2024

A.Y.: 2024-25

Dated: 9th January, 2025

S. 80G – Where the application for final approval under section 80G was rejected due to incorrect section code in the application, the issue was remanded back to the file of CIT(E) to grant final approval under correct provision if assessee-trust was otherwise eligible.

FACTS

Assessee was a registered charitable trust incorporated on 25th September, 1996, engaged in promoting various public charitable activities especially providing education to weaker section of the society and to specially-abled children. It made an application for provisional registration under section 80G of the Act, which was granted under clause (iv) of first proviso to section 80G(5) on 4th April, 2022 which was valid for the period starting 4th April, 2022 to AY 2024-25. Subsequently, the assessee filed application in Form 10AB for final registration; in this Form, instead of selecting section code “clause (iii) of first proviso to section 80G(5)”, the assessee inadvertently once again selected “sub-clause (B)of clause (iv) of first proviso to section 80G (5)”.

CIT(E) rejected the application on the ground that the assessee was not fulfilling the stipulated conditions prescribed undersection 80G(5)(iv)(B).

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that there was merit in the claim of the assessee that it had selected the wrong section code inadvertently while filing the application for final approval in Form 10AB and it was not given the opportunity of being heard by CIT which otherwise would have allowed the assessee to explain the facts to avoid the rejection.

Following the decision in North Eastern Social Research Centre vs. CIT(E), (2024) 165taxmann.com 12 (Kolkata – Trib.), the Tribunal remitted the issue back to the CIT(E) with a direction to grant final approval under clause (iii) to first proviso to section 80G(5) if the assessee was otherwise found eligible.

S.12AB, 13 — Where the applicant trust was a charitable cum religious trust and its objects were for the benefit of a particular religious community or caste, that is, Jains, it was not entitled to registration under section 12AB.

80. Soudharma Brihad Tapogachchiya Tristutik Jain Sangha Samarpanam vs. CIT(E)

(2025)170 taxmann.com 590 (AhdTrib)

ITA No.:1571 (Ahd) of 2024

A.Y.: N.A.

Dated: 3rd January, 2025

S.12AB, 13 — Where the applicant trust was a charitable cum religious trust and its objects were for the benefit of a particular religious community or caste, that is, Jains, it was not entitled to registration under section 12AB.

The assessee-trust was settled on 5th January, 2023 with objects which required it to follow the principles of Jainism, etc. and was registered with the Assistant / Deputy Charity Commissioner, Ahmedabad. It filed application for registration under section 12AB in Form 10AB on 13th January, 2024 before CIT(E). In this application, the applicant mentioned that it had charitable objects in addition to religious objects.

CIT(E) denied registration under section 12AB on the ground that the assessee was a composite trust and its object was restricted to benefit of a particular religious community or caste, that is, Jains, which was a “specified violation” under clause (d) of Explanation below section 12AB(4) read with section 13(1)(b).

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(E), the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

FACTS

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) A perusal of the main objects of the trust made it abundantly clear that all the objects were related to religious activities, more particularly relating to “Jain Community” and to propagate “Jainism”, that is, charitable cum religious in nature and was for the benefit of “Jains” which was a specific violation under clauses (c)/ (d) to Explanation to section12AB(4).

(b) In CIT vs. Dawoodi Bohara Jamat, (2014) 364 ITR 31 (SC), the Supreme Court held that section 13(1)(b)(which prescribed the circumstances wherein the exemption would not be available to a religious or charitable trust)was applicable even to a composite trust / institution having both religious and charitable objects. Section 13(1)(b)was required to be read in conjunction with the provisions of sections 11 and 12 towards determination of eligibility of a trust to claim exemption under the aforesaid provisions, while granting registration.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that the order denying registration to the assessee did not require any interference and dismissed the assessee’s appeal.

While computing long term capital gains, interest on funds borrowed for purchase of property, duly indexed will be allowed as a deduction. Prior to amendment vide Finance Act, 2023 there was no such restriction for excluding the deduction claimed on account of interest paid under Section 24(b) or under the provisions of chapter VIA.

79. DCIT vs. Neville Tuli

ITA No. 3203/Mum./2023

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 26th November, 2024

Section: 48

While computing long term capital gains, interest on funds borrowed for purchase of property, duly indexed will be allowed as a deduction. Prior to amendment vide Finance Act, 2023 there was no such restriction for excluding the deduction claimed on account of interest paid under Section 24(b) or under the provisions of chapter VIA.

FACTS

During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee sold a property, held by him as a long term capital asset, for a consideration of ₹27 crore. This property was purchased from borrowed funds. While computing long term capital gains arising on sale of this property, the assessee deducted ₹9,90,67,611 being indexed cost of acquisition and ₹3,95,42,739 being indexed cost of interest paid to the bank (this was shown under “indexed cost of improvement”) and offered long term capital gain of ₹13,13,89,649.

The amount of interest claimed as deduction while computing long term capital gains was net of the amount claimed in earlier years under section 24(b) of the Act. In earlier years, interest up to ₹1,50,000 was claimed and was allowed as deduction under section 24(b) of the Act.

In the background of the above facts, the Assessing Officer, in the course of assessment proceedings framed two questions viz. (i) Whether interest paid is a cost of acquisition / cost of improvement; and (ii) whether the benefit of indexation is to be allowed to interest cost. The AO having perused the provisions of section 55 held that interest payment on housing loan cannot be said to be expenditure of a capital nature incurred in making any additions or alterations to the capital asset by the assessee after it became his property. He also held that, on a reading of section 55, it is clearly evident that in no situation does the cost of acquisition involve bringing in any cost incurred after the date of acquisition, unless the cost of improvement and, in the instant case there is no improvement to the property. The AO supported his view by the ratio of the decisions of the Tribunal in the case of V Mahesh, ITO vs. Vikram Sadanand Hoskote [(2017) 18 SOT 130 (Mum.)] and Harish Krishnakkant Bhatt vs. ITO [(2004) 91 ITD 311 (Ahd. Trib.)].

The AO disallowed the sum of ₹3,95,42,739 and added the same to the income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who during the course of appellate proceedings noted that a similar claim was allowed in earlier years as well. Having considered the relevant provisions of the Act and the judicial precedents on the issue, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal preferred by the assessee.

Aggrieved, revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that in earlier assessment years as well, the assessee has claimed similar deduction of interest expenditure under the head income from house property and as cost of acquisition / improvement, which has been continuously allowed by the revenue authorities and therefore rule of consistency is required to be followed.

The Tribunal also noted that the Finance Act, 2023 has w.e.f. 1st April, 2024 amended the provisions of section 48 to provide that the cost of acquisition of the asset or cost of improvement thereto shall not include the deductions claimed on account of interest under clause (b) of section 24 or under the provisions of Chapter VIA. It held that for the period prior to the insertion of the said provision which is applicable w.e.f. 1st April, 2024, no such restriction can be imposed and / or made applicable. The Tribunal noted that the CIT(A) has also taken note of this amendment and has rightly held it to be not clarificatory.

The Tribunal after considering the ratio of various decisions on which reliance was placed on behalf of the assessee held that the interest paid on the borrowed funds for the purchase of property for the period prior to the provision inserted vide Finance Act, 2023 which was made applicable from 1st April, 2024, over and above claimed u/s 24(b) of the Act, would be deductible while computing the capital gains. Thus, we answered the question posed accordingly.

The Tribunal held that the order passed by CIT(A) does not suffer from any perversity, impropriety and / or illegality. It upheld the order passed by CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the revenue.

For the purpose of computing the ‘tax effect’, in the present case, only the grounds raised by the Revenue having an impact of determination of total income under the normal provisions of the Act ought to be considered for the reason that the Assessee would continue to be assessed under normal provisions of the Act even if all the grounds raised by the Revenue in departmental appeal are assumed to be allowed in favour of the Revenue.

78. ACIT vs. Bennett Property Holdings Company Limited

ITA No. 556/Mum./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of order: 12th December, 2024

Section: CBDT Circular No. 5 of 2024 dtd. 15th March, 2024 r.w. Circular No. 9 of 2024 dtd 17th September, 2024

For the purpose of computing the ‘tax effect’, in the present case, only the grounds raised by the Revenue having an impact of determination of total income under the normal provisions of the Act ought to be considered for the reason that the Assessee would continue to be assessed under normal provisions of the Act even if all the grounds raised by the Revenue in departmental appeal are assumed to be allowed in favour of the Revenue.

FACTS

For AY 2017-18, the Assessee company, primarily engaged in the business of earning rental income by letting out properties and running business centres, filed original return of income which was subsequently revised. The Assessing Officer (AO), in an order passed under section 143(3), assessed the total income of the Assessee under the normal provisions of the Act at ₹1,20,45,17,348/- and computed Book Profits of the Assessee under Section 115JB of theAct at ₹1,33,19,94,660/-. Since the tax payable on Book Profits was less than the tax payable on the income computed under normal provisions of the Act, the Assessee was assessed to tax under normal provisions of the Act.

Aggrieved by the additions made by the AO while assessing the total income, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) challenging certain additions / disallowances made under normal provisions of the Act viz. (i) disallowance of ₹6,38,05,371/- under Section 14A of the Act; (ii) addition taking deemed annual letting value of the immovable properties lying vacant during the relevant previous year at ₹23,28,000; and (iii) denial of claim of set off of accumulated loss of ₹12,86,53,730 and unabsorbed depreciation of ₹15,65,15,799 relatable to real estate service undertaking of Banhem Estates & IT Parks Ltd. That demerged into the Assessee pursuant to composite scheme of amalgamation and arrangement approved by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court vide order, dated 2nd December, 2016.

The assessee also challenged the following additions made by the AO while computing the amount of book profits u/s 115JB viz. (i) increase in Book Profits by Extra Depreciation of ₹4,38,18,551; (ii) increase in Book Profits by ₹6,38,05,371 disallowed under Section 14A of the Act by invoking provisions contained in Clause (f) of Explanation 1 to Section 115JB of the Act; and (iii) rejection of Assessee’s claim of substitution of long-term capital gain (computed by taking index cost of acquisition) in place of the profit on sale of capital asset appearing in the statement of Profit & Loss Account for the purpose of computing Book Profits.

The assessee also raised additional grounds seeking credit for TDS in respect of companies / undertakings forming part of composite scheme and also challenged computation of interest under section 234B of the Act.

The appeal preferred by the Assessee was disposed off by the CIT(A)as partly allowed vide order, dated 13th December, 2023. The CIT(A) granted partial relief by (a) deleting the addition made under normal provisions of the Act in respect in respect of deemed rental income estimated at ₹23,28,000/-, and (b) accepting Assessee’s contention that no disallowance of expenses can be made in respect of any exempt income by invoking provisions contained in Section14A read with Rule 8D of the IT Rules while computing Book Profits under Section 115JB of the Act.

Since, both, the Assessee as well as the Revenue were aggrieved by the order passed by the CIT(A), the present cross-appeals were preferred before the Tribunal.

Before the Tribunal, on behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the Assessee has been assessed under normal provisions of the Act. Even if the grounds raised by the Revenue in relation to the computation of ‘Book Profits’ under Section 115JB of the Act are allowed in favour of the Revenue, the Assessee would be assessed to tax under the normal provisions of the Act. It was submitted that the grounds of appeal raised by the Revenue pertaining to the additions / disallowance made under the normal provisions of the Act carry tax effect below the specified monetary of ₹60 Lacs fixed by Central Board of Direct Taxes(CBDT) for filing Departmental Appeal before the Tribunal limit. Therefore, the appeal preferred by the Revenue should be dismissed as withdrawn in view of Circular No. 5 of 2024, dated 15th March, 2024, read with Circular No. 9 of 2024, dated 17th September, 2024, issued by CBDT.

HELD
The Tribunal noted that the Revenue has preferred appeal challenging the deletion of addition in respect of deemed annual letting income of ₹23,28,000 under normal provisions of the Act. The Revenue has also challenged the relief granted by the CIT(A) by accepting Assessee’s claim that the ‘Book Profits’ could not be increased by ₹6,38,05,371 (being amount disallowed under Section 14A of the Act read with Rule 8D of the IT Rules), by invoking provisions contained in clause (f) of Explanation 1 to Section 115JB of the Act. Thus, the Tribunal observed that Revenue has raised grounds having impact on the computation of income under normal provisions of the Act and the computation of ‘Book Profits’ under Section 115JB of the Act.

The Tribunal perused the Circular No. 5 & 9 of 2024 issued by the CBDT and held that Circular No.5 of 2024, dated 15th March, 2024, when read with Circular No.9 of 2024, dated 17th September, 2024, issued by CBDT clarifies that the monetary limit of ‘tax effect’ for filing departmental appeals before Tribunal has been increased from ₹50 Lakhs to ₹60 Lakhs. It has also been clarified in Circular No. 9 of 2024 that the aforesaid monetary limit for filing the appeal before the Tribunal would also apply to the pending departmental appeals.

The Tribunal held that for the purpose of computing the ‘tax effect’ involved in the present appeal preferred by the Revenue only the grounds raised by the Revenue having an impact of determination of total income under the normal provisions of the Act ought to be considered. This is because the Assessee has been assessed under the normal provisions of the Act and this would continue to be the case even if all the grounds raised by the Revenue (whether related to computation of income under normal provisions of the Act or related to computation of Book Profits under 115JB of the Act) are allowed.

On examination the grounds raised by the Revenue having impact on computation of income under normal provisions of the Act, the Tribunal found that tax effect involved in the present appeal is below the monetary limit of Rs.60 Lakhs fixed by the CBDT for the purpose of filing departmental appeal before the Tribunal.

On perusal of Para 5.1 of Circular No. 5 of 2024 containing the definition of `tax effect’, the Tribunal observed that ‘tax effect’ has been defined to mean the tax on the total income assessed and the tax that would have been chargeable had such total income been reduced by the amount of income in respect of the issues against which appeal is intended to be filed. It held that when computed as aforesaid, the tax effect in the appeal preferred by the Revenue would fall below the specified monetary limit of ₹60 Lakhs for filing departmental appeals. On perusal of the computation submitted by the Assessee the Tribunal found that the tax effect in the appeal preferred by the Revenue would only be ₹5,63,973 for the reason that the Assessee would continue to be assessed under normal provisions of the Act even if all the grounds raised by the Revenue in departmental appeal are assumed to be allowed in favour of the Revenue. Thus, accepting the contention of the Assessee, we dismiss the appeal preferred by the Revenue as ‘withdrawn’ in terms of Circular No.5 & 9 of 2024 issued by CBDT.

Dismissing the appeal under section 249(4) is unsustainable in a case where an assessee who has not filed the return of income has submitted before the AO that its income is exempt from tax and therefore it is not required to pay advance tax.

77. Srirampura Prathamika Krishi Pathina Sahakara Sangha Ltd. vs. ITO

ITA No. 1731/Bang./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order: 9th January, 2025

Section: 249(4)

Dismissing the appeal under section 249(4) is unsustainable in a case where an assessee who has not filed the return of income has submitted before the AO that its income is exempt from tax and therefore it is not required to pay advance tax.

FACTS

The assessee, a primary agricultural credit co-operative society, providing credit facilities to its members and also supplying the items like kerosene, fertilisers, food grains, etc. to its members did not file return of income. The notice u/s 142(1) of the Act was issued on 4th January, 2018 calling for return of income for the assessment year 2017-18 on or before 3rd February, 2018 but the assessee has neither filed any return of income nor filed any submission or response to the above notice.

Further, during the course of assessment proceedings, the AO found that assessee has deposited huge cash into his bank account with CDCC bank Hosadurga. The information has also been called for from the bank u/s 133(6) of the Act and on verification of the same, it was found that the assessee had deposited during the demonetised period a sum of ₹13,82,000/-.

The AO in his assessment order observed that the assessee vide letter dated 5th September, 2019 furnished the details of income and expenditure statement, profit & loss account and cash book. Further, the assessee in the said letter stated that they have exempted income for the financial year 2016-17 and therefore, not filed the income tax return for the said period.

The AO found the submission made by the assessee as not satisfactory and as the assessee had deposited cash in old currencies of denomination of ₹500/- & ₹1,000/-, amounting to ₹13,32,000/- into their bank account, the entire deposits were treated as assessee’s unaccounted income for the assessment year 2017-18 by invoking the provisions of section 69A of the Act and taxed u/s 115BBE of the Act.

Further, as the assessee had audited his books of accounts as per the provisions of the State Co-operative Society Act of Karnataka and the net profit as per income and expenditure statement was amounting to ₹1,13,376/- and hence a sum of ₹1,13,376/- was also considered by the AO as income of the assessee and brought to tax and accordingly, assessed on a total income of ₹14,45,376/-.

Aggrieved by the assessment completed u/s 144 of the Act dated 25th November, 2019, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A)/NFAC who dismissed the appeal of the assessee on the ground that the assessee had not paid the tax on returned income and the particulars of payment was also not mentioned in column 8 of Form 35. Further, as there was no response to deficiency letter dated 3rd June, 2024,the CIT(A) held that as the assessee has not paid tax on returned income / particulars of payment was not mentioned in column 8 of Form 35, the appeal of the assessee is not maintainable as per section 249(4) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed the appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

It is pertinent to note that section 249(4)(b) of the Act is clear that appeal before the CIT(A) should be admitted only when the assessee has paid an amount equal to the amount of advance tax, which was payable by him. Where the return of income has not been filed the proviso to said section also describe that the assessee will get exemption from this clause, if an application is made before the CIT(A) for not paying an amount equal to the amount of advance tax for any good and sufficient reason to be recorded in writing. The Tribunal noted that in the instant case, the AO in para 6 of the assessment order has observed that the assessee vide letter dated 5th September, 2019 had stated that they have exempted income for the financial year 2016-17 and therefore, not filed the income tax return for the said period. Before the Tribunal, as well, it was submitted that the assessee’s income is exempted and therefore, the question of paying advance tax does not arise in the case of the assessee as no amount is payable by the assessee. Being so, the Tribunal was of the opinion that dismissing the appeal on the grounds that the same is not maintainable as per section 249(4) of the Act is not sustainable as the income of the assessee is exempt from income tax. The assessee is not liable to pay any advance tax even though they have not filed the return of income.

While computing capital gains on slump sale under section 50B r.w.s. 48, transfer expenses are allowable as a deduction. There is no scope of deviation from the statutory provision regarding computation of capital gains in case of slump sale. The first limb i.e. “the expenditure incurred in connection with transfer” cannot be excluded from being claimed as deduction for the purposes of computation u/s 50B.

76. DCIT vs. Larsen and Toubro Ltd.

ITA No. 3369/Mum./2023

A.Y.: 2009-10

Date of Order: 20th December, 2024

Sections: 2(42C), 48, 50B

While computing capital gains on slump sale under section 50B r.w.s. 48, transfer expenses are allowable as a deduction. There is no scope of deviation from the statutory provision regarding computation of capital gains in case of slump sale. The first limb i.e. “the expenditure incurred in connection with transfer” cannot be excluded from being claimed as deduction for the purposes of computation u/s 50B.

FACTS

The Assessing Officer, while reassessing the total income of the assessee, under section 147 of the Act disallowed the sum of ₹27.08 crore claimed by the assessee to be expenditure incurred on transfer while calculation of capital gains on slump sale under section 50B of the Act. The sum of ₹27.09 crore disallowed comprised of Financial Advisory Fee of ₹8.31 crore and other expenses of ₹18.77 crore. The contention of the assessee was that this sum is allowable u/s 48(i) of the Act. These contentions did not find favour with the AO who held that section 50B is a code in itself for computation of capital gains arising on slump sale. Therefore, no other provision other than provision of section 50B shall be applicable.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed this ground of appeal.

Aggrieved, revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal, where on behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on decision of Delhi High Court in case of free CIT vs. Nitrex Chemicals India Ltd [(2016) 75 taxman.com 282] and also on the decision of coordinate bench of theTribunal in case of Wockhardt Hospitals Ltd vs. ACIT [ITA Nos.7454/MUM/2013 and 7021/Mum./2013 for AY2010-11; Order dated 6th January, 2017], wherein in the context of computation of capital gains arising on slump sale of an undertaking, deduction was allowed in respect of expenditure incurred in connection with such transfer by reference to section 48(i) of the Act..

HELD

There is no scope for deviation from the statutory provision regarding computation of capital gains on slump sale.

Section 48 has two limbs –

(i) expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with such transfer;

(ii) the cost of acquisition of the asset and the cost of any improvement thereto.

The networth replaces the value as per section 48(ii). However, the first limb, which is, “the expenditure incurred in connection with the transfer”, cannot be excluded from being claimed as deduction for the purposes of computation under section 50B. The Legislature in its wisdom, clearly excludes indexation of such cost of acquisition and cost of improvement, for the purposes of slump sale in Section 50B itself. The Tribunal placed reliance on decision of Delhi High Court in case of PCIT vs. Nitrix Chemicals India Pvt. Ltd [(2016) 75 taxmann.com 282] and held that while computing capital gains arising on slump sale, in accordance with the provisions of section 50B that includes only the networth of the undertaking treating it as a cost of acquisition and cost of improvement without considering the provision of section 48(i), will be in contradiction to the intention of the Legislature.

The Tribunal observed that there is no dispute that the expenditures claimed by the assessee are incurred in connection with the transfer of the business as a going concern. Then, not computing the capital gains of the slump sale in accordance with the provisions of section 50B that require to treat cost of acquisition and cost of improvement and is allowable as a deduction as per section 48 (ii) of the act as net worth of the undertaking, and not to consider the expenditure incurred for the purpose of transfer as per section 48(i) will be in contradiction to the intention of the Legislature. It held that section 50B cannot be read and understood as argued by the Ld.DR, because the computation provision section 48 to the extent applicable to section 50B as mentioned in clause (2) of section 50B would then become ineffective and inapplicable to a slump sale.

The Tribunal did not agree with the arguments made on behalf of the revenue and held them to be not founded on the basic principles of interpretation. The Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and dismissed the ground of appeal filed by the revenue.

Section 148: Reassessment assessment cannot be opened twice for the same reason.

27. SarikaKansal vs. ACIT

[W.P.(C) 7940/2024 & CM APPL. 32747/2024]

Dated: 30th January, 2025

(Del) (HC).] AY 2017-18

Section 148: Reassessment assessment cannot be opened twice for the same reason.

The petitioner challenged to the impugned order under Section 148A(d) of the Act and the impugned notice 148 of the Act. First, that the impugned order has been passed without considering that the information on the basis of which it was the subject matter of reassessment proceedings, which culminated in an order dated 29th March, 2022 passed under Section 147 read with Section 144B of the Act.

The second ground is that the impugned notice is beyond the period of limitation. According to the petitioner, the limitation for issuance of the impugned notice expired on 31st March, 2024.

The grounds on which the petitioner’s assessment is sought to be reopened revolves around transactions, whereby the petitioner had sold 1,70,000 (One Lac Seventy Thousand) shares of a company named Trustline Real Estate Private Limited (hereafter TREPL) to one Mr. Samir Dev Sharma at the rate of ₹42/- per share. The Assessing Officer (hereafter AO) suspects that the said shares were sold at an apparent consideration, which is below the fair market value with an intent to avoid tax.

The petitioner disputes the same and contends that her income for AY 2017-18 has been reassessed for the same reason that she had sold the shares of TREPL at a value, which was less than the fair market value.

Thus, the first and foremost question to be addressed is whether the AO had reopened the assessment for AY 2017-18 for the same reason that has led the AO to pass the impugned order holding that it is a fit case for issuance of the impugned notice.

The petitioner is an individual and there is no dispute that she files her income tax returns regularly. She had filed her return for AY 2017-18 on 2nd August, 2017 declaring her taxable income as ₹74,77,750/-. The said income also included income arising from sale of 1,70,000 (One Lac Seventy Thousand) shares of TREPL at the rate of ₹42/- per share. The petitioner claims that the said rate was settled on the basis of valuation report, whereby the shares of TREPL were valued taking into account its underlying assets including the first and third floor of the property bearing the address A-20, Friends Colony East, New Delhi (hereafter the Friends Colony property). The petitioner’s return was processed under Section 143(1) of the Act.

On 31st March, 2021, the AO issued a notice under Section 148 of the Act, as in force at the material time, calling upon the petitioner to file her return for AY 2017-18 within a period of fifteen days from the date of the said notice. Subsequently, the AO furnished the reasons for reopening the assessment.

It is apparent from perusal of the reasons that the petitioner’s assessment was reopened on the premise that the petitioner as well as certain other companies had sold the shares of TREPL to one Mr. Samir Dev Sharma during the Financial Year 2016-17 at an abysmally low value. During the course of the reassessment proceedings, the AO issued a notice under Section 143(2) read with Section 147 of the Act calling upon certain information including the information that was relevant for determining the market value of the Friends Colony property. The petitioner responded to the said notice and provided the information as sought for. The petitioner had explained that TREPL owns two floors of the Friends Colony property — first and third floors each having covered area of 2,248.44 sq. ft.

The petitioner asserted that the market value of the Friends Colony property, as determined by the government approved valuer, was ₹8,58,90,408/-(Rupees Eight Crores Fifty-eight Lakhs Ninety Thousand Four Hundred and Eight only) and she had also furnished the copies of the valuation report, balance sheet and profit and loss account of TREPL. A letter dated 24th March, 2022 furnished by the petitioner to the AO in response to the notice issued under Section 143(2) of the Act. The explanation as provided by the petitioner was accepted and the AO passed an assessment order dated 29th March, 2022 accepting the petitioner’s returned income.

Now the AO once again issued a notice dated 28th March, 2024 under Section 148A(b) of the Act enclosing therewith an annexure containing information which according to the AO, suggested that the petitioner’s income had escaped assessment and accordingly, called upon the petitioner to show cause why her assessment for AY 17-18 not be opened.
The Court observed that it was apparent from the reasons that the notice under Section 148A(b) of the Act was issued on the assumption that the petitioner had sold the shares of TREPL at an apparent value which was less than its fair value. It is important to note that whereas in the earlier round of proceedings, the AO had reasoned that income amounting to ₹18,91,41,050/- for AY 2017-18 had escaped assessment, the AO now stated that the information available suggested that the income amounting to ₹32,35,81,536/- had escaped assessment. The said view was premised on the basis that the value of the Friends Colony property was ₹32,35,81,536/- and the petitioner had sold the entire Friends Colony property to Mr. Samir Dev Sharma by transferring the shares of TREPL, which owned the said property. It is material to note that this was clearly the subject matter of examination in the previous round of the reassessment proceedings that had commenced by virtue of the notice dated 31st March, 2021 issued under Section 148 of the Act.

The petitioner responded to the notice by a letter dated 10th April, 2024. Once again, the petitioner reiterated that TREPL owned only two floors of the Friends Colony property – first and third floors and each of the said floors measured 2,248 sq.ft.

The petitioner furnished a valuation report which was furnished earlier disclosing the value of the two floors of the Friends Colony property which was owned by TREPL as ₹8,60,00,000/- (Rupees Eight Crores Sixty Lac Only). She reiterated that the fair market value of the shares sold by her and as determined in terms of Rule 11UAA of the Income Tax Rules, 1962 would amount to ₹42/- per share after considering the market value of the two floors of the Friends Colony property. The AO passed the impugned order holding that it is a fit case for issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act. The impugned order proceeds on the basis that the entire shareholding (25,00,000 shares) of TREPL were transferred to one Mr. Samir Dev Sharma by three persons for a consideration of ₹10,50,00,000/-

The impugned order proceeds on the assumption that TREPL owned the entire Friends Colony property ad-measuring 500 sq. yds. (418.064 sq. mtrs.) and the circle rate in the given area is ₹7,74,000/- per sq. meter. Thus, the value of the immovable property owned by TREPL is ₹32,35,81,536/- and the same had been transferred indirectly by sale of shares of TREPL. The impugned order on the aforesaid basis computes the fair market value of the shares of TREPL sold by the petitioner.

The Hon. Court observed that it is clear that the information on the basis of which the impugned order has been passed was subject matter of examination in the earlier round of reassessment under Section 147 of the Act. The AO’s reason to believe that the petitioner’s income had escaped assessment, which had led to the issuance of notice dated 31st March, 2021, was founded on an assumption that the petitioner had sold the shares of TREPL at a price below its correct value. The notice issued under Section 143(2) of the Act during the said proceedings and the petitioner’s response dated 24th March, 2022 issued to the said notice clearly establishes that the examination revolved around the value of the immovable property held by TREPL (Friends Colony property). The petitioner’s response dated 24th March, 2022 indicates that the petitioner had forwarded the audited balance sheet and the profit and loss account of TREPL and had also explained that TREPL owned only two floors of the Friends Colony property. The AO had examined the said response and accepted the same. Clearly, the impugned order has been passed in respect of the same issue that was subject matter of examination in the earlier round.

The learned counsel for the Revenue contended that there was a difference in the issue involved as the impugned order has been passed on the information that TREPL had owned the entire Friends Colony property. He contended that in the earlier round, the AO had accepted that TREPL held only part of the Friends Colony property, however, information now available suggests that TREPL owns the entire Friends Colony property.

Undisputedly, the impugned order has been passed on the basis that TREPL owns the entire Friends Colony property. However, the same was clearly an issue in the earlier round as well and the petitioner had clearly explained the extent of property owned by TREPL. In her response to the notice dated 28th March, 2024 issued under Section 148A(b) of the Act, the petitioner had reiterated that TREPL owns only two floors of the Friends Colony property and there is no material on record available with the AO to contradict the same. The impugned order does not discuss why the petitioner’s assertion that TREPL owns only two floors of the Friends Colony property had been ignored. The counter affidavit filed on behalf of the Revenue also does not address the said issue. The counter affidavit merely reiterates what is stated in the impugned order.

The Court observed that it is apparent that the impugned order has been passed on surmises without any cogent material to controvert that TREPL owns only two floors of the Friends Colony property and not the entire building at the material time.

The question whether the TREPL owned the entire Friends Colony property is one that is easily verifiable by the AO. However, as noted above, the AO has completely ignored the petitioner’s response to the notice issued under Section 148A(b) of the Act in this regard in the impugned order. Similar approach has also been adopted in the counter affidavit as well.

Section 148A(d) of the Act mandates that the AO is required to pass an order on the basis of record and considering the response to the notice under Section 148A(b) of the Act. In this case, the record indicates that the information on the basis of which the assessment is sought to be reopened was fully examined in the earlier round of reassessment under Section 147 read with Section 144B of the Act. The petitioner’s response clearly stated that TREPL owned only two floors of the Friends Colony property and there is nothing credible on record that controverts it. The impugned order does not even advert to the said issue.

Thus, the impugned order and the impugned notice were quashed and set aside.

Section: 148 — Reassessment — Non-existing entity — notice issued to a non-existing entity post-merger was a substantive illegality and not some procedural violation:

26. City Corporation Limited vs. ACIT Circle – 1 Pune &Ors.

[WP (C) No. 6076 TO 6081 OF 2023]

Dated: 29th January, 2025

(Bom) (HC)] [Assessment Years : 2013-14 to 2019-20]

Section: 148 — Reassessment — Non-existing entity — notice issued to a non-existing entity post-merger was a substantive illegality and not some procedural violation:

The assessee is engaged in constructing and developing infrastructure facilities. In terms of the NCLT’s order dated 27th April, 2020, the CCL got merged with its wholly owned subsidiary “Amanora Future Tower Pvt. Ltd.” (AFTPL), with effect from 1st April, 2018.

By communication dated 27th April, 2020, the Petitioner informed the Income Tax Authority of the merger effective 1st April, 2018. This intimation bore the stamp and endorsement of receipt from the office of the Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle 1(1), Pune.

In the return filed on behalf of the Respondents, no dispute was raised about receiving this intimation on 27th August, 2020.

On 31st March, 2023, the Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle 1(1), Pune, issued a notice dated 31st March, 2013 under Section 148 of the Act, to AFTPL seeking to reopen the case in PAN: AAKCA3074H. The Assistant Commissioner obtained approval from the Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax to issue notice to “Amanora Future Towers Private Limited (now merged with City Corporation Limited)”.

The Petitioner thereupon instituted the writ Petitions, questioning the impugned notice dated 31st March, 2023, inter alia, on the ground that, post-merger, AFTPL was a non- existing entity. Therefore, no notice under Section 148 of the Act, could have been issued to AFTPL.

The learned counsel for the Petitioner, relied on Principal Commissioner of Income Tax, New Delhi vs. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. (2019) 107 taxmann.com 375 (SC); Uber India Systems (P.) Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income(2024) 168 taxmann.com 200 (Bombay); and Alok Knit Exports Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax, Circle 6(1)(1), Mumbai (2021) 130 taxmann.com 457 (Bombay); in support of the contention that the notice issued to a non- existing entity post-merger was a substantive illegality and not some procedural violation. Accordingly, he urged that the impugned notices be quashed and set aside.

The learned counsel for the Respondents, submitted that issuing notices in the name of AFTPL was not illegal. He also submitted that the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax specifically approved the issuance of such notices. It was submitted that the material on record shows that the notice was meant to be served upon the Petitioner. However, due to certain technical glitches, the utility system generated a notice in the name of AFTPL. He said the facts in the present case were like those in Skylight Hospitality LLP vs. Asstt. CIT(2018) 92 taxmann.com 93/254 Taxman 390 (SC). He submitted that, in this case, the Delhi High Court upheld a notice issued to the company that had already merged. Accordingly, it was urged that these Petitions may be dismissed.

The Hon. Court observed that the merger between City Corporation Limited and Amanora Future Towers Private Limited, which was effective from 1st April, 2018, was not disputed. This merger was based on the NCLT’s order dated 27th April, 2020. There was also no dispute about the Petitioner, vide a communication received by the Income Tax Department on 27th August, 2020 informing about the merger effective 1st April, 2018. No dispute was raised about the department not receiving the intimation on 27th August, 2020 or about the department being unaware of the merger. Still, the impugned notices dated 31st March, 2023 under Section 148 of the Act, were issued only in the name of “Amanora Future Towers Private Limited”. The crucial factor being that all such notices were issued to and in the name of ‘Amanora Future Towers Private Limited’

As of the date of the issue of the impugned notices, the noticee ‘Amanora Future Towers Private Limited’ could not have been regarded as a ‘person’ under Section 2(31) of the Act. In fact, that was a non-existent entity. In Maruti Suzuki case the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that notice issued in the name of a non-existent company is a substantive illegality and not merely a procedural violation of the nature adverted to in Section 292B of the Act.

The Hon. Court noted that in the Maruti Suzuki case, the Hon’ble Supreme Court noted that the merged company had no independent existence after the merger. The Court noted that even though the Assessing Officer was informed of the merged company having ceased to exist due to the approved merger scheme, the jurisdictional notice was issued only in its name. The Court held that the basis on which jurisdiction was invoked was fundamentally at odds with the legal principle that the merged entity ceases to exist upon the approved merger scheme. Participation in the proceedings by the petitioner company into which the merged company had merged or amalgamated could not operate as an estoppel against the law.

Similarly in Ubber India Systems case, the Coordinate Bench held that where by virtue of an order passed by the NCLT, the assessee company stood amalgamated with the petitioner, notice issued under Section 148A(b) and Section 148 to the assessee, which was a non-existent company was illegal, invalid and non-est. Similarly, in Alok Knit Exports Ltd(supra), another Coordinate Bench where the Assessing Officer had committed a fundamental error by issuing notice under Section 148 of the IT Act in the name of an entity which had ceased to exist because of it having merged with the petitioner company, the stand of the Assessing Officer that this was only an error which could be corrected under Section 292B could not be sustained.

The Court observed that in the affidavit filed by the tax department there is a clear admission that the amalgamation of the company was brought to the notice of the Department. The only explanation is that “notice was issued on the non-existing company due to technical glitch in the system wherein no field in the notice u/s 148 of the Act is editable.”

The affidavit states that files were moved proposing notices in the names of both entities, AFTPL and the Petitioner (CCL). There was a reference to seizure proceedings, the two PAN numbers, and the lack of an editable field on this notice. Therefore, it was submitted that the notice was generated on AFTPL’s PAN.

In short, the averments in the affidavit purport to apportion the blame on the department’s utility system. Based upon this, the fundamental error is sought to be passed off as a mere technical glitch.

The Court held that based on the above averments and the arguments, the fundamental error in issuing the impugned notices against a non-existing company despite full knowledge of the merger cannot be condone. The impugned notices, which are non-est cannot be treated as “good” as urged on behalf of the Respondents. In Maruti Suzuki case, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that issuing notice in the name of a non-existing company is a substantive illegality and not a mere procedural violation of the nature adverted to in Section 292B of the Act.

The department contention about the facts in the present case being akin to those in Skylight Hospitality LLP case could not be accepted. The Court held that the Special Leave Petition filed by the Skylight Hospitality LLP (supra) against the judgment of the Delhi High Court rejecting its challenge was dismissed in the peculiar facts of the case, which weighed with the Court in concluding that there was merely a clerical mistake within meaning of Section 292B. The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that in Maruti Suzuki case the notice under Section 143(2) under which jurisdiction was assumed by the assessing officer, was issued to a non-existent company. The assessment order was issued against the amalgamating company. “This is a substantive illegality and not a procedural violation of the nature adverted to in Section 292B”.

The Hon. Court also referred to decisions in case of Anokhi Realty (P) Ltd. Vs. Income-tax Officer(2023) 153 taxmann.com 275 (Gujarat); Adani Wilmar Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax(2023) 150 taxmann.com 178 (Gujarat) and in the case of Principal Commissioner of Income Tax -7, Delhi vs. Vedanta Limited ITA No. 88 of 2022 decided on 17th January, 2025.

Accordingly, the impugned notices were quashed and set aside.

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

89. Principal CIT vs. Vikram Dhirani

[2025] 472 ITR 342 (Del)

A. Y. 2007-08

Date of order: 20th August, 2024

Ss.132 and 153A of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment in search cases — Precedents — Additions to income cannot be made on data appearing in pen-drive not unearthed during search which does not constitute incriminating material.

In an appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether the Tribunal erred in deleting the addition made to the income of the assessee in the assessment made pursuant to a search u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A. Y. 2007-08, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) Since the assessment initiated in respect of the A. Y. 2007-08 was one which had already stood concluded, the Tribunal had held that since the pen-drive and the data appearing thereon having not been unearthed in the course of the search u/s. 132 of the Act, it would not constitute incriminating material. It had consequently followed the view consistently taken by this court.

ii) The assessment was confined to section 153A and consequently the significance of the incriminating material found in the course of the search alone would be the basis for any additions to the income. Since the pen-drive was an article which was not recovered in the course of the search but constituted material which had been obtained by the Department through the exchange of information route, there was no ground to interfere with the view expressed by the Tribunal.”

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

88. HansaMetallics Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT

[2025] 472 ITR 737 (P&H)

A. Y. 2012-13

Date of order: 22nd January, 2024

S. 276C of ITA 1961

Offences and Prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Delay in payment of tax does not amount to evasion of tax — Prosecution not valid:

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2012-13 on 29th December, 2012 declaring total income at ₹8,20,53,544. As per the return of income, the self-assessment tax was pending. The self-assessment tax was paid belatedly on 10th July, 2013 along with interest.

The Assessing Officer issued a notice dated 11th February, 2014 requiring the Assessee and its directors to show cause as to why the prosecution proceedings u/s. 276C(2) should not be initiated. On the basis of legal opinion sought from the standing counsel of the Income-tax Department, a complaint was filed u/s. 276C read with section 278B of the Act.

Thereafter, the Criminal Court came to the conclusion that a case was made out and charges were framed.

The Assesseecompany and its directors filed a petition for quashing the complaint and all the consequential proceedings arising therefrom. The Assessee’s contention was that there was no evasion of tax at all. Though there was a delay in payment of tax, but the said tax was admitted / acknowledged in the return of income. On the other hand, the Department contended that the Assessee was well within his financial limits to pay the tax at the time of filing return of income, yet it did not choose to pay the tax and thereby caused loss to the revenue.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Prosecution u/s. 276C(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with the other provisions of the Act can only be launched if there was a wilful evasion or attempt at evasion of either tax, penalty or interest. Delay in payment of Income-tax would not amount to evasion of tax.

ii) It was not in dispute that the Income-tax was self assessed and payment thereof was also made, though belatedly. The tax along with interest was paid on July 10, 2013. The show-cause notice for delayed payment was sent only on February 11, 2014 and February 24, 2014 pursuant to which the complaint was instituted. Therefore, by no stretch of imagination could it be held that there was any evasion of tax on the part of the assessees, though there was a delay in the payment of the tax for which interest was paid. The prosection was not valid.”

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

87. Principal CIT vs. Jupiter Capital Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 561 (Kar)

A. Y. 2014-15

Date of order: 20th February, 2023

S. 2(47) of ITA 1961

Investment business — Scope of definition of transfer — Capital loss — Reduction in number of shares and face value of shares remaining same — Change in redeemable value of shares — Extinguishment of rights in shares — No transfer within meaning of s. 2(47).

In an appeal by the Revenue,on the question whether the Tribunal was right in setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares when no such extinguishment of rights was made out by the assessee as required under section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and there was no reduction in face value of shares, dismissing the appeal, the Karnataka High Court held as under:

“i) The undisputed facts were that pursuant to the order passed by the High Court of Bombay, number of shares had been reduced to 9,988. The face value of the shares had remained same at ₹10 even after the reduction. The Assessing Officer’s view that the voting power had not changed as the percentage of the assessee’s share of 99.88 per cent. had remained unchanged was untenable because if the shares were transferred at face value, the redeemable value would be ₹99,880 whereas the value of 14,95,44,130 number of shares would have been ₹1,49,54,41,300.

ii) The Tribunal had rightly followed the authority in Karthikeya vs. Sarabhai v. CIT [1997] 228 ITR 163 (SC); (1997) 7 SCC 524; 1997 SCC OnLine SC 152, with regard to meaning of transfer by holding that there was no transfer within the meaning of the expression “transfer” as contained in section 2(47). There was no error in the order of the Tribunal setting aside the disallowance of capital loss claimed by the assessee by holding that there was extinguishment of rights of shares.”

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

86. Principal CIT vs. International Coal Ventures Pvt. Ltd.

[2025] 472 ITR 307 (Del)

A. Ys. 2012-13

Date of order: 20th December, 2024

S.4 of ITA 1961

Capital or revenue receipt — Interest on short-term fixed deposit — Capital work-in-progress — Assessee joint venture formed by public sector undertakings to acquire coal mines overseas — Interest earned on fixed deposit of share capital prior to acquisition of coal mines and amounts returned on abandonment of proposal — Interest earned prior to commencement of business on funds brought in form of share capital for specific purpose — Interest received on fixed deposit part of capital cost and to be treated as capital work-in-progress.

The assessee was a joint-venture company formed by five public sector undertakings, SAIL, CIL, RINL, NMDC and NTPC, for the purpose of ensuring adequate and dependable coal supply for its promoter companies. During the financial year relating to the A. Y. 2012-13, the assessee pursued a proposal to acquire and develop a coal mine overseas and received equity contributions from some of these undertakings. The amounts received from RINL were kept in a fixed deposit with a bank. Subsequently since the proposal for acquisition of the coal mine which was being pursued was abandoned, the assessee refunded the amount received from RINL. Since the assessee had earned interest on the amount received from RINL, it paid interest to RINL which confirmed that the amount received by it was accounted for as income in its hand and tax was paid.

In the appeal by the Revenue, on the question whether interest on funds that were called for and earmarked for a specific purpose of acquiring a coal mine and deposited in the short-term fixed deposit could be construed as incidental to setting up the business of acquisition of a coal mine, dismissing the appeal, the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The accounting treatment of capitalising expenses during the preoperative stage of setting up a business, rests on the rationale that the cost incurred for setting up the profit-making apparatus is required to be accounted for as the value of that asset. Such expenditure is incurred for bringing the undertaking into existence. Thus, it would not be apposite to treat such preoperative expenses as revenue expenses since it cannot be matched with the revenue receipts. The amount incurred for construction or acquisition of the asset would necessarily have to be accounted as the cost of that capital asset. This principle applies only in cases where substantial time is required to construct the asset or bring the asset to use. The financial costs for such assets are thus
considered as a part of the intrinsic value of the asset. There is a distinction between the price of an asset and its cost. On the same principles, the amounts received which are directly linked to the
acquisition or construction of the asset, are required to be reduced from the capital cost of the said asset. In one sense, such receipts mitigate the cost of the capital asset and it is essential to reflect the correct cost of the asset.

ii) The Accounting Standard 16 applies to a “qualifying asset”, which is defined as an asset that takes substantial period to get ready for its intended use or sale and also explains that the substantial period of time as contemplated under the standard, primarily depends upon the circumstances of each case. Ordinarily, the same should be considered as twelve months unless a shorter or longer period is justified in the facts and circumstances of the case. It also explains that for estimating this period, “the time which an asset takes technologically or commercially, to get ready for its intended use or sale”, is required to be considered.

iii) Accounting treatment of various items are guided by an overarching principle that final accounts should reflect the true and fair view of the reported entity. In order for a capital value of an asset (which takes a considerable time to bring it to intended use) to be fairly disclosed on historical cost basis, it would be essential to subsume within the cost of the said asset all elements of expenditure, which directly contribute to the cost of that asset. It is for this reason that general administrative cost of an entity which cannot be attributed to a particular asset is not construed as the cost of that asset. But the expenditure that is directly linked to the construction or acquisition of a qualifying asset, is required to be treated as a part of its cost.

iv) If the interest was earned on the amounts which were temporarily kept in fixed deposits in the course of acquisition of the coal mine to set up the assessee’s business, the interest earned would require to be accounted for as the part of the capital value of the business or asset. A caveat was added that such accounting treatment was or would be applicable only if the nature of the asset was such that required time for construction or for putting it in use. Illustratively, the same would be applicable where the asset is to be constructed, developed or is of a nature that required considerable time to bring it to use. In case where a plant is being set up in a factory and the requisite funds for setting up the same are deployed for a period of time, the interest paid on the amount borrowed for the said purpose and interest earned on temporary deposits during the course of deployment are required to be accounted for as a part of the capital costs. This is not true for an off-the-shelf product. Illustratively, if a motor vehicle is purchased from borrowed capital, neither the interest paid nor the interest earned on the funds borrowed for payment of consideration of the same can be accounted for as a part of the cost of the said asset.

v) The assessee was set up to acquire resources to ensure supply of coal and at the material time it was in the process of negotiation for acquiring a coal mine, to set up its business, and thus called for capital from its shareholders for the purpose of payment of the acquisition costs. It was the part of the said funds that were kept in the short-term fixed deposit in the bank for pending payment of the construction. The attempt to acquire the coal mine was aborted and thus the amounts borrowed were repaid to RINL. It was not disputed that the funds in question were not surplus funds of the assessee, the same were called for and were earmarked for acquisition of a coal mine overseas which was to be the assessee’s undertaking as the assessee was formed for the purpose of acquiring and operating a coal mine overseas.

vi) The interest received on borrowed funds, which were temporarily held in interest-bearing deposit, was a part of the capital cost and was required to be capitalised as capital work-in-progress.”

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

85. World Vision India vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 564(Mad.)

A. Y. 2018-19

Date of order: 19th December, 2024

Ss. 37, 142(2A) and 144of ITA 1961:

Best judgment assessment — Estimation of gross receipt — Special Audit Report — Relates only to a particular A. Y. — Special Audit Report for earlier year cannot be the basis to conclude following of similar pattern by Assessee in later A. Y. — Disallowance of administrative and entire salary expenditure —Matter remanded to the AO for re-computation of income.

The assessee filed its return of income for AY 2018-19. The said return was selected for scrutiny assessment. The assessment was completed and order dated 14th September, 2021 was passed. In the said order, the Assessing Officer relied upon special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 as also the assessment orders passed for A. Ys. 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18. The report dated 2nd June, 2017 was prepared u/s. 142(2A) of the Act for AY 2014-15, pursuant to which the assessment orders for AYs 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were passed. The orders for AY 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2017-18 were challenged in appeal before the CIT(A).

In the A. Y 2018-19, the Assessing Officer concluded that the Assessee had applied 67 per cent of the gross receipts for charitable purposes and for the balance the Assessee had failed to establish any documents to substantiate that the amount was utilised for charitable purposes and therefore the demand has been confirmed.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the assessment order mainly on the ground that the basis for coming to the conclusion that the Assessee has failed to utilize the amount for charitable purposes is based on the special audit report dated 2nd June, 2017 which was generated for AY 2014-15. The Hon’ble Madras High Court allowed the petition and remanded the matter back to the AO for the re-computation of income and held as follows:

“i) Prima facie reliance on the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the earlier assessment years could not be a basis to conclude that the similar pattern would have been followed by the assessee during the subsequent assessment years and to do so would amount to assessment by sampling. The special audit report was for the A. Y. 2014-15. In terms of section 142(2A) the special audit report could relate only for a particular assessment year since the expression used is, “if at any stage of the proceedings before him”, the Assessing Officer, having regard to the nature and complexity of the accounts, volume of the accounts, doubts about the correctness of the accounts, multiplicity of transactions in the accounts or specialised nature of business activity of the assessee, and the interests of the Revenue, was of the opinion that it was necessary so to do, he may, with the previous approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner, direct the assessee to get either or both of, (i) getting the accounts audited by an accountant, as defined in sub-section (2) of section 288 , nominated by the competent authority or (b) getting the inventory valued by a cost accountant nominated by the competent authority.

ii) The assessment order indicated that no allowance had been made for the expenses incurred by the assessee towards administrative and salary expenses of the assessee and had only been allowed to accumulate 15 per cent. of the gross receipt. It was the contention of the Department that if no other amount was to be allowed, the Department had to make best judgment assessment u/s. 144. Therefore, the assessment order was set-aside and the matter was remitted back to the Assessing Officer to pass a fresh order on the merits and in accordance with law independently without getting influenced by the special audit report u/s. 142(2A) generated for the A. Y. 2014-15. Since the re-computation of income required a proper consideration, the assessee was directed to give a proper reply with proper evidence explaining the expenses which it sought to exclude.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

84. Neha Bhawsingka vs. UOI

[2025] 472 ITR 335 (Cal)

A. Y. 2022-23

Date of order: 22nd November, 2024

Ss.142(1), 143(2), 144, 144B, 156, 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Ex parte assessment order — Notices of demand and penalty — Validity — Notices u/s. 142(1) and 143(2) — Mandatory condition — Failure to serve notices on assessee — Notices sent to unregistered e-mail address though assessment orders for earlier and subsequent A. Ys. sent to correct e-mail address — Reliance on assessee’s permanent account number database or alternate e-mail address cannot substitute for statutory compliance — Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine jurisdiction and legality of entire assessment process — Ex parte assessment order and consequent demand, penalty notices quashed — Department given liberty to issue fresh notices if necessary in accordance with law:

The assessee was in trading business. For the A. Y. 2022-23, an intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was sent to the assessee’s registered e-mail address, confirming that the return was processed without any discrepancies. Similar communications for the earlier A. Ys. 2019-20 to 2021-22 and the subsequent year 2023-24 were also sent to the same registered e-mail address. While accessing the Income-tax portal, the assessee’s tax consultant discovered that several notices, including u/ss. 143(2) and 142(1) and show-cause notices were issued against the assessee for the A. Y. 2022-23 and sent to an unregistered e-mail address. The ex parte assessment order was passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B making disallowances on account of purchases as non-genuine and unsecured loan as unexplained credit u/s. 68. Penalty notices u/ss. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were also issued.

The assessee filed a writ petition contending that the assessment order and demand notices were vitiated since they were not served at the assessee’s registered e-mail address as required u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address which was not associated with her. The Calcutta High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

i) The assessment order passed u/s. 144 read with section 144B, the consequent demand notice u/s. 156 and the penalty notices u/s. 271(1)(d) and 271AAC(1) were vitiated due to procedural lapses and non-compliance with statutory provisions. The notices u/s. 143(2) and 142(1) were not served to the assessee at her registered e-mail address as mandated u/s. 282 but were sent to an unregistered e-mail address, thereby depriving the assessee of a fair opportunity to respond, violating the principles of natural justice.

ii) The assessee had a legitimate expectation, arising from consistent past practices, that all communications would be sent to her registered e-mail address. The failure to adhere to this established protocol and the absence of proper service of notices invalidated the subsequent assessment proceedings and the ex parte assessment order passed u/s. 144 and 144B. The Revenue’s reliance on the assessee’s permanent account number database or an alternate e-mail address could not substitute for statutory compliance. Procedural irregularities in issuing and serving notices undermine the jurisdiction and legality of the entire assessment process. The assessment order could not be completed without issuance of a notice u/s. 143(2). Hence, the assessment proceedings and the assessment order without issuing the notice u/s. 143(2) were bad in law.

iii) Accordingly, the assessment order, demand notice and penalty notices were quashed and set aside. The authorities were directed to issue fresh notices, if deemed necessary, strictly adhering to the statutory provisions and ensuring proper service to the assessee.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

83. Religare Enterprises Ltd. vs. NFAC

[2025] 472 ITR 329 (Del)

A. Y. 2013-14

Date of order: 28th November, 2024

Ss. 143(3), 144B and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Jurisdiction of NFAC — Exempt income — Jurisdictional AO passing assessment order giving effect to order of Tribunal on issue of disallowance u/s. 14A — Order attaining finality — NFAC cannot continue assessment proceedings in concluded assessment — Assessment Order passed by NFAC set-aside.

The Assessee filed revised return of income for AY 2013-14 declaring total income at ₹2,70,87,75,810. This included income from dividend amounting to ₹4,14,800 which was exempt. The Assessee had not claimed any deduction in respect of expenses amounting to ₹1,83,55,525 u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and an addition of ₹1,93,79,583 was made u/s. 14A of the Act in addition to the amount of ₹1,83,55,525 already disallowed u/s. 14A of the Act. The AO also made disallowances in respect of fines and penalties.

The CIT(A) partly allowed wherein the CIT(A) deleted the additional disallowance made by the AO. In the appeal before the CIT(A), the Assessee had raised an additional ground and claimed allowance of ₹1,83,55,525 which it had not done under the revised return.

The Tribunal remanded the matter regarding disallowance u/s. 14A and disallowance of fines and penalties to the AO for consideration afresh with the direction that the disallowance u/s. 14A was required to be worked out in respect of only those investments which were yielding exempt income. Thereafter, the Assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application requesting that the AO be directed to restrict the disallowance to the extent of exempt income. The Miscellaneous Application was allowed and the Tribunal modified its order and directed that the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act be restricted to the exempt income.

Pursuant to the aforesaid directions, the Jurisdictional AO passed an order dated 4th February, 2023 to give effect to the directions issued by the Tribunal and restricted the disallowance u/s. 14A to the extent of dividend income. However, the AO did not give any specific findings in respect of fines and penalties. The Assessee also did not file any appeal against the said order.

Thereafter, the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NFAC) issued an intimation informing the Assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B of the Act. Against this, the Assessee filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal as the Jurisdictional AO had already passed an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. However, the NFAC passed an order, once again making the same disallowance u/s. 14A and disregarded the directions of the Tribunal. The NFAC also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order of the Jurisdictional AO.

The Assesseefiledwrit petition against the said order of NFAC. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as follows:

“i) There is no provision under the Income-tax Act, 1961 for continuing assessment proceedings after an assessment order is passed. Concluded assessments cannot be opened except by recourse to specific provisions including section 147 of the Act.

ii) The issue of disallowance u/s. 14A had stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The Assessing Officer did not issue any specific findings regarding the fines and penalties amounting to Rs. 35,18,803 and the assessee had not filed any appeal against such decision. Notwithstanding that an order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had proceeded to pass another order. Although, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had passed an order giving effect to the order dated February 25, 2021 and the order dated February 25, 2021 as modified by the order dated April 1, 2022 by the Tribunal, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had issued an intimation dated February 15, 2023 informing the assessee that the assessment would be completed in accordance with the procedure u/s. 144B . The assessee had filed its objections for continuing any proceedings pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal since the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had already passed an order dated February 4, 2023 giving effect to the orders passed by the Tribunal.

iii) The National Faceless Assessment Centre had passed an order dated March 29, 2023 once again reiterating the disallowance of ₹3,60,51,977 made u/s. 14A, which included an additional disallowance of ₹1,93,79,583 which was made by the Assessing Officer in the assessment order dated March 28, 2016. Although, the National Faceless Assessment Centre had found that the order dated April 1, 2022 passed by the Tribunal had confined the disallowance u/s. 14A to ₹4,14,800, such directions were disregarded and had also expressly stated that its order would supersede the order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer. The order dated February 4, 2023 passed by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had set out that it was an order to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal wherein it was held to the effect that after appeal effect income of the assessee (since merged with REL) for the assessment year 2013-14 was recomputed at ₹2,69,43,53,890 under the normal provisions of the Act. Credit for tax deducted at source, advance tax and regular taxes paid were given after verification and interests u/s. 234A, 234B, 234C and 234D were being charged, as applicable.

iv) Therefore, there was no doubt that the proceedings pursuant to the directions issued by the Tribunal stood concluded by the order dated February 4, 2023. The initiation of further proceedings by the National Faceless Assessment Centre pursuant to the orders passed by the Tribunal was without jurisdiction. The assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) read with sections 254 and 144B was set aside.”

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

82. Sunshine Capital Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2025] 472 ITR 293 (Del.)

A. Y. 2008-09

Date of order: 16th April, 2024

Ss.153 and 254 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Order of assessment to give effect to order of Tribunal — Limitation — Commencement of limitation — Receipt of order of Tribunal — Meaning of “received” — Actual receipt of certified copy of the order not necessary — Knowledge of order of Tribunal sufficient.

The case of the Assessee was selected for scrutiny and assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed after making various additions. CIT(A) partly allowed the Assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal, vide its order dated 08-10-2018 remanded the matter to the AO for the purpose of fresh assessment. The Tribunal also deleted the demand reflected on the Income Tax Portal.

Thereafter, the Assessee made several representations from July 2020 to August 2021 to the Department praying for rectification of the error with respect to the demand being reflected on the portal as well as the issue of refund. But there was no action by the Department. Since no reply was received by the Assessee upon representations, the Assessee filed an application in August 2021 in accordance with the Right to Information Act (RTI) to give effect to the order passed by the Tribunal. Pursuant to the RTI application, the AO passed an order in November 2021 wherein it expressed its inability to give appeal effect on the ground that it had not received the order passed by the Tribunal through proper channel. Against this order, the Assessee filed an appeal in December 2021 which came to be disposed vide order passed in January 2022 whereby it was decided that the information provided to the Assessee was adequate.

Thereafter, in February 2022, the Assessee filed an application to the registry of the Tribunal seeking information on service of order passed by the Tribunal. The Assessee was informed by the registry in March 2022 that the order passed by the Tribunal was duly sent to the CIT(Judicial) on 24th August, 2018 for further action. In March 2022, the Assessee also made subsequent representations to rectify the error with respect to the demand reflected on the portal, but to no avail.

The Assessee therefore filed writ petition challenging the inaction on the part of the Department and contended that despite the order passed by the Tribunal being communicated to the concerned authority of the Income tax Department within stipulated time, the Department failed to pass a fresh assessment order. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) Section 153 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, stipulates that an order for fresh assessment pursuant to an order u/s. 254 or section 263 or section 264 of the Act may be made at any time before the expiry of a period of nine months. The provision further encapsulates that the period has to be calculated from the end of the financial year in which the order u/s. 254 of the Act is received by the authorities mentioned in the section. Regarding the word “received” the language couched in section 260A of the Act is similar to that of section 153(3). The contextual interpretation of the phrase “received” postulates the time when the parties are notified about the pronouncement and are represented at that instant in the open court. The legislative intent behind the enactment of section 254(3) of the Act does not prescribe shifting of the onus of proving the receipt of the order under the provision on the assessee, the expression “is received” used in section 153(3) of the Act cannot mean to extend the limitation till perpetuity. The expression “received” employed in section 153(3) of the Act would not strictly mean that a certified copy of the order of the Tribunal, in the given facts and circumstances, ought to have been necessarily supplied to the concerned authority through an appropriate mechanism devised by the respondents. Further, section 254(3) of the Act casts a duty upon the Tribunal to send the copy of the orders passed under section 254 of the Act to the assessee as well as to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner. A conspectus of section 254 read with section 153(3) of the Act would reveal that the provisions cannot be made applicable to the detriment of the assessee.

ii) The material on record showed that the Tribunal sent the order of the remand to the Department on October 24, 2018, but the Department denied having received it. It was sufficient to take note of the Tribunal’s stand of sending a copy of the order to the Department. Moreover, the assessee, as early as on July 30, 2020 itself, made the first communication to the Department to give effect to the order in appeal. The record would show that the subsequent representation sent by the assessee on July 9, 2021 to the Department contained all the requisite information of the orders passed by the concerned authorities in the case of the assessee. No concrete steps had been taken by the Department. Except harping upon the word “received”, the Department had not taken any measure to give effect to the order in appeal. Taking into consideration the Tribunal’s response that the concerned order was sent on October 24, 2018, the Department ought to have passed the order to give effect to the order in appeal within twelve months from then. However, that had not been done by the Department till date.

iii) Since the Department had failed to comply with the order of the Tribunal in passing a fresh assessment order within the stipulated time, the writ petition was to be allowed with the directions to the Department to ensure that the demands of quantum amounting to ₹34.70 crores and penalty amounting to ₹33.98 crores being reflected in the Income-tax Business Application portal were removed within two weeks, that the amount of ₹25,44,671 lying with the Department were refunded to the assessee with applicable interest as per law, that the properties of the assessee were released within two weeks of the passing of this judgment, and that the three bank accounts were defreezed by the Department within two weeks.”

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

19. PCIT vs. Jupiter Capital Pvt. Ltd.

(2025) 170 taxmann.com 305 (SC)

Capital gains – Reduction of share capital – The reduction in share capital of the subsidiary company and subsequent proportionate reduction in the shareholding of the Assessee would be squarely covered within the ambit of the expression “sale, exchange or relinquishment of the asset” used in Section 2(47) the Income-tax Act, 1961 – Percentage of shareholding of the assessee in the Company prior to, and post, reduction in Share Capital is not relevant – Loss incurred on erosion of the net worth is allowable as capital loss.

The Respondent-Assessee was a company engaged in the business of investing in shares, leasing, financing and money lending. The Assessee had made an investment in Asianet News Network Pvt. Ltd. (ANNPL), an Indian company engaged in the business of telecasting news, by purchasing 14,95,44,130 shares having face value of ₹10/- each. Thereafter, the Assessee purchased 38,06,758 shares from other parties, thereby increasing its shareholding to 15,33,40,900 shares which constituted 99.88% of the total number of shares of the company, i.e., 15,35,05,750.

The said company incurred losses, as a result of which the net worth of the company got eroded. Subsequently, the company filed a petition before the Bombay High Court for reduction of its share capital to set off the loss against the paid-up equity share capital. The High Court ordered a reduction in the share capital of the company from 15,35,05,750 shares to 10,000 shares. Consequently, the share of the Assessee was reduced proportionately from 15,33,40,900 shares to 9,988 shares. However, the face value of shares remained the same at ₹10 even after the reduction in the share capital. The High Court also directed the company for payment of ₹3,17,83,474/- to the Assessee as a consideration.

During the year, the Assessee claimed long term capital loss accrued on the reduction in share capital from the sale of shares of such company. However, the Assessing Officer while disagreeing with the Assessee’s claim held that reduction in shares of the subsidiary company did not result in the transfer of a capital asset as envisaged in Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer took the view that although the number of shares got reduced by virtue of reduction in share capital of the company, yet the face value of each share as well as shareholding pattern remained the same. Hence there was no extinguishment of the rights of the shareholders. Extinguishment of rights would mean that the assessee has parted with those shares or sold off those shares to second party, which was not the case here.

In appeal the CIT(A) vide order dated 14th December, 2017 while distinguishing the facts of the present case from those involved in the decision of the Supreme Court in Kartikeya V. Sarabhai vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (reported in (1997) 7 SCC 524) held that any extinguishment of rights would involve parting the sale of percentage of shares to another party or divesting rights therein. The appeal was therefore dismissed.

However, the ITAT reversed the order passed by the CIT(A) and allowed the appeal filed by the Assessee observing that the decision of the Supreme Court in Kartikeya vs. Sarabhai (supra) was squarely applicable to the facts of the present case. On the account of reduction in number of shares held by the Assessee company in ANNPL, the Assessee has extinguished its right of 15,33,40,900 shares and in lieu thereof, the Assessee received 9,988 shares at ₹10/- each along with an amount of ₹3,17,83,474/-. The Assessee’s claim for capital loss on account of reduction in share capital in ANNPL was therefore allowable.

The Revenue went in appeal before the High Court. The High Court, dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and affirmed the order passed by the ITAT, observing that the AO’s view that the voting power of the Assessee had remained unchanged was untenable. The rationale was that if the shares were transferred at face value, the redeemable value would be ₹99,880/- whereas the value of 14,95,44,130 number of shares would have been ₹1,49,54,41,300/. According to the High Court, the ITAT had rightly followed the judgement in the case of Kartikeya V. Sarabhai vs. The Commissioner of Income Tax (supra).

The Supreme Court after having heard the learned ASG appearing for the Revenue, and having gone through the materials on record, were of the view that no error, not to speak of any error of law, was committed by the High Court in passing the impugned order.

According to the Supreme Court, whether reduction of capital amounts to transfer was no longer res integra in view of its decision in Kartikeya V. Sarabhai (supra).

According to the Supreme Court, the following principles are discernible from its aforesaid decision:

a. Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, which is an inclusive definition, inter alia, provides that relinquishment of an asset or extinguishment of any right therein amounts to a transfer of a capital asset. While the taxpayer continues to remain a shareholder of the company even with the reduction of share capital, it could not be accepted that there was no extinguishment of any part of his right as a shareholder qua the company.

b. A company under section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013 has a right to reduce the share capital and one of the modes which could be adopted is to reduce the face value of the preference share.

c. When as a result of the reducing of the face value of the share, the share capital is reduced, the right of the preference shareholder to the dividend or his share capital and the right to share in the distribution of the net assets upon liquidation is extinguished proportionately to the extent of reduction in the capital. Such a reduction of the right of the capital asset clearly amounts to a transfer within the meaning of Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, the face value per share has remained the same before the reduction of share capital and after the reduction of share capital. However, as the total number of shares have been reduced from 15,35,05,750 to 10,000 and out of this the Assessee was holding 15,33,40,900 shares prior to reduction and 9,988 shares after reduction, it can be said that on account of reduction in the number of shares held by the Assessee in the company, the Assessee has extinguished its right of 15,33,40,900 shares, and in lieu thereof, the Assessee received 9,988 shares at ₹10 each along with an amount of ₹3,17,83,474.

The Supreme Court observed that in the case of Kartikeya v. Sarabhai (supra) it has not made any reference to the percentage of shareholding prior to reduction of share capital and after reduction of share capital. In that case, it was observed that reduction of right in a capital asset would amount to ‘transfer’ under Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Sale is only one of the modes of transfer envisaged by Section 2(47). Relinquishment of any rights in it, which may not amount to sale, can also be considered as transfer and any profit or gain which arises from the transfer of such capital asset is taxable under Section 45 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court noted the decision of a Division Bench of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Commissioner of Income-Tax vs. Jaykrishna Harivallabhdas reported in (1998) 231 ITR 108 where the Court clarified that receipt of some consideration in lieu of the extinguishment of rights is not a condition precedent for the computation of capital gains as envisaged under Section 48 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court further noted that in the case of Anarkali Sarabhai vs. CIT reported in (1997) 224 ITR 422, it was observed that the reduction of share capital or redemption of shares is an exception to the Rule contained in Section 77(1) of the Companies Act, 1956 that no company limited by shares shall have the power to buy its own shares. In other words, the
Court held that both reduction of share capital and redemption of shares involve the purchase of its own shares by the company and hence will be included within the meaning of transfer Under Section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

In view of the aforesaid, the Supreme Court held that that the reduction in share capital of the subsidiary company and subsequent proportionate reduction in the shareholding of the Assessee would be squarely covered within the ambit of the expression “sale, exchange or relinquishment of the asset” used in Section 2(47) the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The Supreme Court therefore dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue authorities.

Note: The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Anarkali Sarabhai has been analysed in the column “Closements” in April, 1997 issue of BCAJ.

Whether Obtaining Prior Approval For Reopening Of Assessment Has Become An Empty Ritual?

I. INTRODUCTION

The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, inserted new sections 148, 148A, and 151 relating to the reopening of assessment in the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”).

Sections 148 inter alia provides for procedure for reopening of assessment and section 148A inter alia provides for passing of an order before issuance of notice for reopening of assessment under section 148. As per these sections, the acts of issuing notice for reopening of assessment and passing an order before the issue of notice for reopening of assessment can be done by the Assessing Officer only after obtaining prior approval of the specified authority laid down under section 151, which states that specified authority for section 148 and 148A shall be the Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or the Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director as the case may be.

In this write-up, an attempt is made to show the manner in which the rigours of provisions relating to obtaining prior approval for the reopening of assessment have been toned down as per the recent amendment, and thus, the said provisions have become an empty ritual.

II. IMPORTANT OBSERVATIONS OF THE COURTS IN THE CASE OF REOPENING OF ASSESSMENT

It would be apposite to refer to the important observations of the Courts in the case of reopening of assessment as under :

  1.  The Gujarat High Court in the case of P. V. Doshi vs. CIT (1978) 113 ITR 22 has held that provisions relating to the reopening of assessment are to lay down the necessary safeguards in the wider public interest by way of fetters on the jurisdiction of the authority itself, and they could not be said to be merely for the private benefit of the individual assessee concerned.
  2.  The Supreme Court in the case of ChhugamalRajpal vs. S. P. Chaliha (1971) 79 ITR 603 has held that the provisions of section 151 must be strictly adhered to because it contains important safeguards.
  3.  The Supreme Court in the case of ITO vs. LakhmaniMewal Das (1976) 103 ITR 437 has held that the powers of the Income Tax Officer to reopen assessment, though wide, are not plenary. The reopening of the assessment after the lapse of many years is a serious matter. The Act, no doubt, contemplates the reopening of the assessment if grounds exist for believing that the income of the assessee has escaped assessment.
  4.  The Supreme Court, in the case of has observed, “We must keep in mind the conceptual difference between power to review and power to reassess. The Assessing Officer has no power to review; he has the power to reassess. But reassessment has to be based on the fulfilment of certain preconditions, and if the concept of “change of opinion” is removed, as contended on behalf of the Department, then, in the garb of reopening the assessment, the review would take place”.
  5.  The Bombay High Court, in the case of German Remedies Ltd. vs. DCIT (2006) 285 ITR 26, has held that it is a settled position of law that though the powers conferred under section 147 of the Income Tax Act for reopening the concluded assessment are very wide, the said power cannot be exercised mechanically or arbitrarily.

Thus, in spite of the fact that Courts have held that the provisions relating to the reopening of assessment are to lay down the necessary safeguards in the wider public interest, by the recent amendments by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, the provisions relating to obtaining approval of the specified authority for the reopening of assessment, which acted as an important safeguard, have been watered down to facilitate carrying out of reassessment by the assessing authorities, by toning down the rigours of the provisions relating to “approval” as discussed hereafter.

III. AMENDMENT OF SECTION 151 OF THE INCOME-TAX ACT

It would be apt to have the background of the following provisions of the Act before discussing the provisions relating to approval as provided under section 151 of the Act.

  1.  Earlier, prior to 31st March, 1989, the definition of the “Assessing Officer” under section 2 (7A) of the Act included only the Assistant Commissioner, the Income Tax Officer or the Deputy Commissioner. Thereafter, consequent to subsequent amendments to sub-section (7A) to section 2 from time to time, other officers were included in the definition of “Assessing Officer”, which has been stated hereafter.
  2.  (i) Presently, subsection (7A) to section 2 of the Act, which defines “Assessing Officer” as meaning the Assistant Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner or Assistant Director or Deputy Director or the Income Tax Officer who is vested with the relevant jurisdiction by virtue of directions or orders issued under subsection (1) or sub-section (2) of section 120 or any other provisions of this Act and the Additional Commissioner or Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or Joint Director who is directed under clause (b) of sub-section (4) of that section to exercise or perform all or any of the powers and functions conferred on, or assigned to an Assessing Officer under this Act.

(ii) Sections 116 to 118 deal with the Income Tax Authorities, both quasi-judicial and executive. As per the notifications issued by the Board from time to time pursuant to powers vested in it under section 118, the hierarchy of these authorities is in the same order as provided in section 116. The relevant portion of the said section 116 has been reproduced as under, just to indicate which of these authorities fall within the ambit of the definition of “Assessing Officer” as per section 2 (7A) of the Act :

(a) xx

(aa) xx

(b) xx

(ba) xx

(c) xx

(cc) Additional Directors of Income Tax or Additional Commissioners of Income Tax or xx.

(cca) Joint Directors of Income Tax or Joint Commissioners of Income Tax or xx

(d) Deputy Directors of Income Tax or Deputy Commissioners of Income Tax or xx

(e) Assistant Directors of Income Tax or Assistant Commissioners of Income Tax

(f) Income Tax Officers

(g) xx

(h) xx

(iii) As per section 2 (28C), the Joint Commissioner includes an Additional Commissioner. Further, as per section 2 (28D), the Joint Director includes an Additional Director. Therefore, as per notification issued under section 118 r.w.s. 116, Joint Commissioner of Income Tax is subordinate to Additional Commissioner, but by virtue of section 2 (28C), the rank of Joint Commissioner and Additional Commissioner is at par. Similarly, as per notification issued under section 118 r.w.s. 116, the Joint Director is subordinate to the Additional Director, but by virtue of section 2 (28D), the rank of Joint Director and Additional Director is at par.

3.  Under the then provisions of section 151 operative up to 31st March, 1989, no notice under section 148 could be issued :

a. After the expiry of eight years from the end of the relevant assessment year without the approval of the Board.

b. After the expiry of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year without the approval of the Chief Commissioner or Commissioner.

After the amendment of section 151 w.e.f. 1st April, 1989, the sanctioning authorities depended upon whether an earlier assessment was made under section 143 (3) or section 147 of the Act or not, and also the period after the expiry of the assessment year beyond which the assessment is reopened. The said section provided that where the notice is issued after the expiry of four years from the end of the assessment year, the approval of the Chief Commissioner or the Principal Chief Commissioner or the Principal Commissioner or the Commissioner was required.

From the above provisions, it is clear that where the assessment is reopened beyond the expiry of four years from the end of the assessment year, the approving authorities were not assessing authorities.

But sub-section (2) of section 151 permitted approval of certain Assessing Authorities where the assessment earlier made under section 143 (3) or section 147 is reopened within four years from the end of the assessment year. Thus, approving authorities and Assessing Authorities happened to be the same only in specified cases where the reopening of the assessment was made within four years from the end of the assessment year. It is submitted that the said provisions relating to the approval of assessing authorities were not in tune with the ratio of the Supreme Court decisions discussed hereafter. After the rationalisation of provisions relating to the reopening of assessment by the Finance Act, 2021, and further amended by the Finance Act, 2023, the approving authorities depended upon whether less than three years or more than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. But in both the said cases, the approving authorities were not assessing authorities. From the aforesaid discussion, it is clear that prior to the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2021 and the Finance Act, 2023, earlier section 151 made the distinction between the reopening of assessments after the expiry of a specified number of years or those which are not, as also whether assessment made earlier was under section 143 (3) or section 147. In such cases, where the reopening of assessment was made beyond a specified number of years or in cases where an earlier assessment was made under section 143 (3) or section 147, the approval of Superior Authorities, who were not assessing authorities, was required. The amendments to section 151 made by the Finance Act, 2021 and the Finance Act, 2023 mandated the approval of Superior Authorities who were not Assessing Authorities in all cases, depending upon whether the reopening of assessment was made within three years or beyond the period of three years from the end of the assessment year. Shockingly, as per the recent amendment to section 151 by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024, reopening of assessment can be made with the approval of specified authorities who happen to be the assessing authorities. The Superior Authorities, like the Principal Chief Commissioner, Principal Commissioner, etc., have not been included in the definition of “specified authority” under the amended section 151 of the Act.

The Uttaranchal High Court in the case of McDermott International Inc. vs. Addl. CIT (259 ITR 138) has held that the provision for sanction under section 151 is a safeguard so that the assessee need not be unnecessarily harassed by the Assessing Officer.

After the present amendment to section 151, the specified authorities for the purposes of sections 148 and 148A are the Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or the Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director, as the case may be. The specified authorities enumerated under section 151 fall within the definition of “Assessing Officer” as per section 2 (7A) of the Act, the hierarchy of which is given as above as per section 116 of the Act. If approval of any of them is to be obtained, then the same must be sought by the Assessing Authority who is below their rank as specified authorities are themselves Assessing Officers. Thus, the Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or the Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director, who are themselves the Assessing Authorities, can give approval to the Assessing Authorities below their rank to reopen the assessment. As all these authorities fall within the definition of “Assessing Officer” as per section 2 (7A) of the Act, the amendment made is manifestly arbitrary and unreasonable. This is for the reason that the Superior Authorities like the Board, the Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax, the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax, etc., have been removed from the definition of “specified authority” under section 151 of the Act, with the result that important safeguards in the form of approval of superior authorities as hitherto provided under the predecessor section 151 and earlier section 151, have been removed, with the result that the rigours of obtaining approval have been substantially toned down.

IV. MEANING OF ASSESSMENT AND APPROVAL AND MIX–UP OF ASSESSING POWER AND APPROVING POWER NOT PROPER

Black’s Law Dictionary defines “assessment” as the process of ascertaining and adjusting the shares respectively to be contributed by several persons towards a common beneficial object according to the benefit received. It is often used in connection with assessing property taxes or levying property taxes. The same Dictionary defines “approval” to mean an act of confirming, ratifying, assenting, sanctioning or consenting to some act or thing done by another. In the case of Vijay S. Sathaye vs. Indian Airlines & Others (AIR SCW 6213), the Supreme Court has held that approval means confirming, ratifying, assenting, and sanctioning some act or thing done by another. In the case of Manpower Group Services India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT (430 ITR 399), the Delhi High Court has held that approval means to agree with the full knowledge of the contents of what is approved and pronounce it as good. In the case of Dharampal Satyapal Ltd. V/s. Union of India (2018) 6 GSTROL 351, it has been observed by the Gauhati High Court that grant of approval means due application of mind on the subject matter approved, which satisfies all the legal and procedural requirements. In the context of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the Supreme Court, in the case of Vijayadevi Naval Kishore Bhartia v/s. Land Acquisition Officer (2003) 5 SCC 83, has drawn the distinction between the approving authority and the appellate authority. It has been observed that the Collector, after assessing the land, makes an award for its acquisition and works out compensation payable under section 11 of the said Act, and his award is sent to the Commissioner for his approval as per proviso to section 11 (1) of the said Act. It has further been observed that the said Act has not conferred an appellate jurisdiction on the Commissioner under the proviso to section 11 (1) of that Act, but the appropriate government exercises the appellate power. On the same logic, there is a distinction between the assessing authority and the approving authority. Thus, the assessing power, approving power and appellate powers are separate and distinct, and there should not be a mix-up of the said powers.

Reading section 151 of the Act with section 2 (7A) of the Act, the approving authorities, i.e. Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director, may act as the assessing authorities as also approving authorities. Further, the Joint Commissioner and Additional Commissioner are of the same rank. Again, the Joint Director and the Additional Director are of the same rank. It is a paradox that all these authorities perform dual functions of assessing and approving authorities.

In certain circumstances, the provisions of section 151 may become unworkable.

For example, the Assessing Authority who proposes to issue notice under section 148 may be a Joint Commissioner. How can the Additional Commissioner accord his sanction for reopening as both the Joint Commissioner and the Additional Commissioner are of equal rank? The same reasoning applies in the case of the Joint Commissioner and the Joint Director, as both are of equal rank. In such cases, the sanction for reopening would be vitiated by official bias, resulting in a violation of the principles of natural justice. Reliance is placed on the ratio of the following decisions :

i. In GullapalliNageshwara Rao vs. A. P. State Road Transport Corporation (Gullapalli I) AIR 1959 SC 308, the petitioners were carrying on the motor transport business. The Andhra State Transport Undertaking published a scheme for nationalisation of motor transport in the State and invited objections. The objections filed by the petitioners were received and heard by the Secretary, and thereafter, the scheme was approved by the Chief Minister. The Supreme Court upheld the contention of the petitioners that the official who heard the objections was ‘in substance’ one of the parties to the dispute, and hence, the principles of natural justice were violated.

ii. In Mahadayal vs. CTO AIR 1961 SC 82, according to the Commercial Tax Officer, the petitioner was not liable to pay tax, and yet, he referred the matter to his superior officer and, on instructions from him, imposed tax. The Supreme Court set aside the decision.

iii. Again, no man can be a judge in his own cause. If it is so, his action is vitiated.

V. LEGAL POSITION OF APPROVAL/SANCTION

1. In the case of the State (Anti–Corruption Branch) Government of NCT of Delhi &Anr. vs. R. C. Anand& Another (2004) 4 SCC 615, it has been held by the Supreme Court as under :

“The validity of the sanction would, therefore, depend upon the material placed before the sanctioning authority and the fact that all the relevant facts, material and evidence, including the transcript of the tape record, have been considered by the sanctioning authority. Consideration implies the application of the mind. The order of sanction must ex-facie disclose that the sanctioning authority had considered the evidence and other material placed before it. This fact can also be established by extrinsic evidence by placing the relevant files before the Court to show that all relevant facts were considered by the sanctioning authority.”

2. In the case of Chhugamal Rajpal v/s. S. P. Chaliha (Supra), which related to the reopening of assessment, it was observed by the Supreme Court that the report submitted by the Income Tax Officer under section 151 (2) did not mention any reason for concluding that it was a fit case for the issue of a notice under section 148 and the Commissioner mechanically accorded his permission. On these facts, it was held by the Supreme Court that important safeguards provided in sections 147 and 151 were lightly treated by the Income Tax Officer as well as by the Commissioner, and therefore, notice issued under section 148 of the Act was invalid and had to be quashed.

From the aforesaid decisions of the Supreme Court, it is clear that the approving / sanctioning authority, while approving the documents placed before him, should apply his mind, and the approval / sanction must ex–facie disclose that the approving/sanctioning authority had considered the evidence and other material placed before it. Therefore, if the assessment order is passed by the Additional Commissioner, who is also the Sanctioning Authority, the question arises as to how the aforesaid provisions would be workable. This question arises because the specified authorities stated under section 151 include the Additional Commissioner, who can happen to be the Assessing Officer, as per the definition of Assessing Officer under section 2 (7A) of the Act.

VI. PRIOR APPROVAL OF THE SUPERIOR AUTHORITIES – A CASUAL APPROACH

It is submitted that though the legislature considered obtaining approval / sanction of the Superior Authorities as a safeguard provided to the assessees, the Assessing Officers consider the said provisions of obtaining approval lightly, and the Superior Authorities also act casually in granting approval. The same is evident from the observations of the Bombay and the Allahabad High Courts in the below-noted cases.

  1.  In the case of German Remedies Ltd. v/s. DCIT (2006) 287 ITR 494 in the context of obtaining sanction for the reopening of assessment, the Bombay High Court has observed as under :
    “It is not in dispute that the Assessing Officer on 15th September, 2003, had himself carried file to the Commissioner of Income-tax and on the very same day, the rather same moment in the presence of the Assessing Officer, the Commissioner of Income-tax granted approval. As a matter of fact, while granting approval, it was obligatory on his part to verify whether there was any failure on the part of the assessee to disclose full and true relevant facts in the return of income filed for the assessment of income of that assessment year. It was also obligatory on the part of the Commissioner to consider whether or not the power to reopen is being invoked within 4 years from the end of the assessment year to which they relate. None of these aspects have been considered by him, which is sufficient to justify the contention raised by the petitioner that the approval granted suffers from non-application of mind. In the above view of the matter, the impugned notices and, consequently, the order justifying the reasons recorded are unsustainable. The same are liable to be quashed and set aside.”
  2.  In the case of PCIT vs. Subodh Agarwal (2023) 450 ITR 526 in the context of obtaining sanction for issuing notice to conduct search assessment, the Allahabad High Court has observed as under :

“In the instant case, the draft assessment order in 38 cases, i.e. for 38 assessment years placed before the Approving Authority on 31-12-2017, was approved on the same day, i.e., 31st December, 2017, which not only included the cases of respondent-assessee but the cases of other groups as well. It is humanly impossible to go through the records of 38 cases in one day to apply an independent mind to appraise the material before the Approving Authority. The conclusion drawn by the Tribunal that it was a mechanical exercise of power, therefore, cannot be said to be perverse or contrary to the material on record.”

VII. CONCLUSION

Though the specified authorities of the rank above the assessing authorities can give their approval/sanction for the issue of notice for reopening of assessment under section 148 and passing of order before the issue of notice under section 148 for the reopening of assessment under section 148A, there will not be any accountability as all of them are the Assessing Officers who, perform their duties sitting in the offices usually situated in the same floor of a building. There are chances of getting substantive irregularities getting cured as superior Authorities, such as the Principal Chief Commissioner, Principal Commissioner, etc., have no role to play in giving approval / sanction. Thus, the provisions relating to obtaining prior approval have become an empty ritual. The obtaining of prior approval in such cases may also suffer from a bias, and there is every chance of assessees being harassed by the Assessing Authorities. See the observation of the Uttaranchal High Court in the case of McDermott International Inc. vs. Additional CIT (Supra). Further, the Supreme Court in the case of Manek Lal v/s. Premchand AIR 1957 SC 425 has observed that reasonable apprehension or reasonable likelihood of bias is a vitiating factor.

One is reminded of the Chief Justice of the USA, Justice John Marshall, who had said in the year 1801 that “the power to tax involves the power to destroy”. The fitting reply came about a hundred years later from another Judge from the USA, Justice Holmes, who said, “The power to tax is not the power to destroy while this Court sits”. Such is the importance of Courts. The eminent Jurist and the legendary Tax Counsel Late Mr Nani Palkhivala had said in one of his famous budget speeches that “the bureaucrats are the unacknowledged legislatures of India.” Thus, it is submitted that they have amended section 151 in such a manner that their colleagues do not face any problem in obtaining prior approval while issuing notice for reopening of assessment. The amended provisions have ensured that no matter goes to the Courts on the ground of invalid approvals / sanctions for reopening of assessment by eclipsing several Court decisions where the Courts have quashed reopening of assessment only on the ground of invalid approval / sanction.

In spite of the fact that Courts have observed that for a wider public interest, adequate safeguards should be provided for resorting to the reopening of assessment, the legislature has been making amendment after amendment by removing adequate safeguards to implement the above provisions and making such provisions simple and smooth for the assessing authorities to execute the same. The Hon’ble Finance Minister, while presenting the (Finance No. 2) Bill 2024 in para 140 of her Budget Speech, has stated, “I propose to thoroughly simplify the provisions for reopening and reassessments.” One should ask her a question as to whether such simplification is for the benefit of the Income Tax officials or the benefit of taxpayers.

Article 4 and 12 of India-USA DTAA — Single Member LLC is a taxable entity under US Tax laws, hence entitled to a beneficial rate under the DTAA.

13. General Motors Company USA vs. ACIT, International Taxation

[2024] 166 taxmann.com 170 (Delhi – Trib.)

ITA No: 2359 and 2360 (Delhi) of 2022

A.Y.: 2014-15 & 2015-16

Dated: 5th September, 2024

Article 4 and 12 of India-USA DTAA — Single Member LLC is a taxable entity under US Tax laws, hence entitled to a beneficial rate under the DTAA.

FACTS

General Motors Company USA was a single-member LLC incorporated under the laws of the USA that received fees for technical/included services from two Indian entities. The Assessee claimed the rate of taxation was 15% as per Article 12 of the India-USA DTAA, which is beneficial compared to the rate of 25% under Section 115A for the relevant AY.

The AO believed that the LLC was not subjected to taxation in its own hands as per US tax laws and could not qualify as a ‘resident’ under Article 4 of DTAA. Further, the LLC is not liable to tax in US as it is a fiscally transparent entity and is not partnership or trust to get covered by Article 4(1)(b) of the treaty.. Accordingly, the AO concluded that even if the member of the LLC was a resident of the USA and pays tax on their share of the LLC’s income, the single-member LLC was not entitled to the treaty benefits.

The DRP concurred with the draft order.

Aggrieved by the final order, the Assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

  •  The status of a corporation has to be determined based on the laws in which such LLC is formed. Publication No. 3402 of the Department of Treasury, IRS, USA explained the taxation of LLCs. Depending on its election, a two-member LLC could have been regarded as a corporation, partnership, or disregarded entity for federal tax purposes. A single-member LLC could be regarded as a corporation or a disregarded entity, and income is taxed in the hands of the owner.
  •  Instruction No. 8802 provides instructions for the application for a Tax Residency Certificate (‘TRC’) by an entity subject to US Tax. Further, Form No. 6166 provides that a fiscally transparent entity formed in the US that does not have US owners is not entitled to a TRC.
  •  The TRC issued by the IRS shows that the income of the single-member LLC is taxed in its owner’s hands; hence, the LLC was liable to tax, and the scope of such phrase had to be determined as per US tax laws.
  •  The Assessee satisfied the requirement of being a resident under Article 4 by incorporation and its separate existence from its member. Therefore, it qualifies as a person under DTAA and is entitled to benefits under DTAA.

Section 92, 92A, and 92B(2) – Whether transaction between the foreign Head Office (HO) and its Project Office (PO) in India is subject to transfer pricing provisions.

12. TBEA Shenyang Transformer Group Company Limited vs. DCIT (International Taxation)

[2024] 169 taxmann.com 145 (SB)

ITA No: 581 (Ahd.) of 2017

A.Y.: 2012-13

Dated: 11th November, 2024

Section 92, 92A, and 92B(2) – Whether transaction between the foreign Head Office (HO) and its Project Office (PO) in India is subject to transfer pricing provisions.

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of the Republic of China, obtained a contract for offshore and onshore supply and services via separate agreements. A PO was formed in India to carry out onshore supply and service. A portion of onshore services had been subcontracted to third parties. The HO in China had received and also made payments on behalf of the PO due to the non-availability of a bank account in India at the relevant time.

The AO treated the transaction as reimbursement and referred it to the TPO for ALP determination. The TPO found that the rates received from PGCIL (contractor) for civil work were lower than those paid to subcontractors, suggesting that the PO was not adequately compensated at arm’s length price (ALP), leading to losses.

A Special Bench was constituted on a reference made by the Division Bench because of apparently conflicting views on the applicability of TP provisions to the transactions between an HO and its PE.

Assesses’ Arguments before SB

  •  Even if the PE is considered an enterprise per Section 92F, it does not treat PE as separate from its foreign company.
  •  There is no international transaction as per Section 92 and only fund movement between HO and PO, and the actual transactions are between PE and third parties.
  •  The Taxpayer argued that under Section 90 of the Act, the DTAA provisions override the Act to the extent they are beneficial. Further, Article 9 stipulates that TP adjustments are applicable only when one of the enterprises involved is a resident of the other contracting state. Since neither the HO nor the PE is considered a resident, the Taxpayer contended that transactions between them should not be subject to TP adjustments as per the DTAA.

HELD

  •  The object of fair and equitable tax allocation should be kept in mind while interpreting transfer pricing provisions. The crucial aspect of the case is that the PO had incurred losses while rendering services on behalf of the HO, and an evaluation of whether an independent party would enter such a contract to perform similar services is required.

Whether PE is a separate enterprise

  •  The determination of ALP is computed for an ‘enterprise’, and not for a person. There is a clear distinction between the two terms under the Act. Interpreting the term enterprise as a person will make certain provisions redundant; hence, such interpretation should be avoided.
  •  The SB referred to Article 7(2) and observed that the PE had to be treated as a separate and distinct enterprise to determine business profits.

Income arising from International Transactions

  •  The HO had undertaken the receipts and payments on behalf of the PE. The agreement entered by the HO had a bearing on the PE’s revenue and consequential income. Hence, income had to be understood in a commercial and business sense.
  •  Section 92F(v) defines the term ‘transaction’ and includes arrangement or understanding. The arrangement entered by HO led to a substantial loss in the hands of PO; hence, it must be subject to transfer pricing.

Associated Enterprise

  •  Sections 92A(1) and 92A(2) must be read together and satisfied cumulatively. Section 92A(2) provides scenarios by which an enterprise may participate in management, capital, or control of another.
  •  The SB noted that in cases involving a PE, traditional tests like holding voting power through shares or appointment of directors may not apply, as a PE does not have its own share capital or directors. The SB however indicated that the clauses of the AE definition that refer to the control by one enterprise over the other enterprise on account of certain commercial relationships (e.g. dependence on intangible property or substantial supplier or customer relationships etc.) may apply in HO-PE situations.
  •  The SB directed the division bench to analyze the applicability of Section 92A(2) clauses based on the facts and circumstances.

Deemed International Transactions

  •  The SB also highlighted the difference between Sections 92B(1) and 92B(2). The SB observed that under 92B(1), an international transaction is evaluated at an associated enterprise level, whereas under 92B(2), it was evaluated at a transaction level.
  •  The SB observed that section 92B(2) was triggered when the transaction between an enterprise and an unrelated person was influenced by the associated person of the enterprise. Such influence may be in the form of price or terms and conditions.
  •  The PO carried out the obligations of the contract entered by the HO and incurred substantial losses. When the PO was made to accept the contract terms concluded by HO, provisions of Section 92B(2) may apply.
  •  The SB directed the division bench to analyze the applicability of 92B(2) based on the facts and circumstances.

Treaty Override

  •  The purpose of Article 9 is limited to broadly confirming that similar rules exist in domestic law. Article 9(1) does not bar adjustment of profit under the domestic law even if the conditions differ from those of Article 9(1).
  •  Even if the DTAA is assumed to prevail, profits must be attributed to the PE as if it were an independent enterprise, in line with Article 7 of the DTAA. The SB concluded that this approach aligns with the arm’s length principle and found no conflict between Article 9 of the DTAA and TP regulations of the Act.
  •  Article 7(2) provided that PE had to be treated as a separate and distinct enterprise to determine profits. This reflects the transfer pricing principles, which intend to evaluate how the independent parties would have dealt in an uncontrolled situation. Thus, contention of the assessee that there is a conflict between Article 9 of DTAA and Act is rejected.

Sec. 43A: Where the assessee claimed expenses on account of foreign exchange fluctuation, which were merely reinstatement of losses as per accounting standards and there was no actual payment or remittance, section 43A could not apply.

75. Bando (India) (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT

[2024] 114 ITR(T) 275 (Delhi – Trib.)

ITA NO.: 7743 (DEL) OF 2018

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of Order: 11th July, 2024

Sec. 43A: Where the assessee claimed expenses on account of foreign exchange fluctuation, which were merely reinstatement of losses as per accounting standards and there was no actual payment or remittance, section 43A could not apply.

FACTS

During the year the assessee had claimed losses on account of foreign exchange fluctuation of ₹6,42,33,238/-. The AO had disallowed amount of ₹4,20,57,880/- u/s 37(1) treating exchange fluctuation as capital expenditure on account of ECB loan being utilized for purpose of acquiring capital asset which had enduring benefit. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee was in appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A) in its order sustained the disallowance by invoking the provisions of section 43A instead of section 37 invoked by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal –

HELD

The ITAT observed that the assessee had reinstated income or loss from fluctuation of currency as per accounting standards AS11 and the assessee was regularly following the same system of accounting in the previous years and subsequent years.

The ITAT observed that disallowance u/s 37 and u/s 43A of the Act, both operate in different spheres. Section 43A is a deeming provision for adding or deducting, the fluctuation loss or profit, from the cost of asset whereas disallowance u/s 37 was however for the reasons that capital expenditures are specifically disallowed.

The ITAT held that there was no ground to invoke section 43A since there was merely reinstatement of losses on account of fluctuation in foreign exchange currency and there was no actual payment or remittance. The ITAT following the concept of consistency, allowed the losses claimed for foreign exchange fluctuation.

The appeal of the assessee was accordingly allowed.

Sec. 68: Where the assessee company had placed on record with the AO supporting documentary evidence substantiating the authenticity of its claim of having received share application money from the investor company, viz. confirmation, bank statement, copies of the return of income, financial statements of the investor company, copy of share application forms, copy of PAN, copy of memorandum and articles of association, copy of board resolution and return of allotment in Form No.2, though notice u/s 133(6) was not complied with by the investor company, the AO on the said standalone basis could not draw adverse inferences in the hands of the assessee company for addition u/s 68 in respect of share capital and share premium.

74. ITO vs. Shree Banke Bihari Infracon (P.)Ltd.

[2024] 115ITR(T) 223(Raipur – Trib.)

ITA NO.:95 (RPR) OF 2020

CO.: 8(RPR) OF 2023

AY.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 18th March, 2024

Sec. 68: Where the assessee company had placed on record with the AO supporting documentary evidence substantiating the authenticity of its claim of having received share application money from the investor company, viz. confirmation, bank statement, copies of the return of income, financial statements of the investor company, copy of share application forms, copy of PAN, copy of memorandum and articles of association, copy of board resolution and return of allotment in Form No.2, though notice u/s 133(6) was not complied with by the investor company, the AO on the said standalone basis could not draw adverse inferences in the hands of the assessee company for addition u/s 68 in respect of share capital and share premium.

FACTS

The assessee company was engaged in the business of real estate and building work. The assessee company had e-filed its return of income on 21st December, 2013 declaring a total income of ₹229,982/-. The assessee company’s case was selected for scrutiny proceedings u/s 143(2) of the Act.

During the course of assessment proceedings, it was observed that the assessee company had claimed to have received share capital and share premium of ₹2.05 crores from M/s. Modakpriya Merchandise Pvt. Ltd [the investor company].

The AO had issued notices u/s 142(1) of the Act which was returned unserved by postal authority. The A.O. sought for a direction from the Jt. CIT, Range-4, Raipur, and under his direction issued a commission u/s. 131(1)(d) of the Act. The A.O. directed his Inspector to carry out a spot verification about the existence of the investor company at its old address. The Inspector vide his report dated 23rd March, 2016 informed the A.O. that the investor company was neither available at the address that was provided to him nor any board evidencing the availability of the investor company was found at the said address.

The AO observed that the assessee company had failed to discharge the onus that was cast upon it as regards proving the authenticity of its claim, the identity of the investor company was not established and except for the aforesaid transaction of payment made towards share capital / premium, the bank account of the investor company revealed no other transaction.

Accordingly, the AO being of the view that the assessee company in the garb of share capital/premium had laundered its unaccounted money, thus, made an addition of the entire amount of Rs.2.05 crore (approx.) u/s. 68 of the Act. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee company filed an appeal before the CIT(A).

The CIT(A) observed that the inquiry was done on the back of the assessee company and results of enquiry were not confronted to the assessee before making the addition. The CIT(A) further observed that the AO made inquiry at wrong address of Synagogue Street Kolkata instead of correct address of Mango Lane, Kolkata. The CIT(A) observed that the availability of the investor company could not be gathered by the AO for the reason that the necessary inquiries were carried out at an incorrect address, i.e., the old address of the assessee company. It was also observed that the ARs were attending hearing before the AO and AO could have very well informed the result of the inquiry across the table to the AR. All the documents in respect of M/s Modakpriya Merchandise Pvt. Ltd. such as ITR, audited balance sheet, bank account statement, ROC certificate were furnished. It was observed by CIT(A) that the investment of ₹2.05 crore made by the investor company with the assessee company was sourced from the sale of its investments, and complete details of the same were filed with the AO. Without finding any fault in the documents furnished by the appellant, no adverse finding can be made by the AO.

The CIT(A) observed that the assessee had discharged its onus to prove the existence of the investor company, genuineness of the transaction and the creditworthiness of the investor company and thus, deleted the addition made by the AO.

The revenue being aggrieved with the order of the CIT(Appeals) filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT observed that the investor company had shifted from its old address “Synagogue Street, Kolkata” to its new address: “3, Mango Lane, 4th Floor, Kolkata(WB)-700 001”, however, the spot verification was carried out at its old address. The ROC records of the investor company also revealed its new address. The AO himself on Page 3 of his order had referred to the new address of the investor company. In spite of the above facts, the AO drew the adverse inference about the unavailability of the investor company at its old address and doubted the genuineness of the transactions. The ITAT did not approve the adverse inferences drawn by the AO.

The ITAT observed that the department had accepted the investment of ₹39.99 lacs (approx.) made by the investor company with M/s. Rupandham Steel Pvt. Ltd. during A.Y.2017-18, vide its order u/s. 143(3) dated 31st December, 2019 while framing the assessment for A.Y 2017-18 of M/s. Rupandham Steel Pvt. Ltd. and thus it dispels all doubts about the existence of the investor company.

The ITAT further observed that the AO had issued notice u/s. 133(6) of the Act at the new address of the investor company but it had carried out necessary verifications at its old address. The ITAT held that though notice u/s 133(6) was not complied with, the AO on the said standalone basis could not draw adverse inferences in the hands of the assessee company.

The ITAT observed that the assessee company had placed on record with the AO supporting documentary evidence substantiating the authenticity of its claim of having received share application money from the investor company, viz. confirmation of the investor company, bank statement, copies of the return of income, financial statements of the investor company, copy of share application forms, copy of PAN, copy of memorandum and articles of association, copy of board resolution and return of allotment in Form No. 2. The ITAT also observed that on a perusal of the bank account of the investor company, the amount remitted to the assessee company as an investment towards share application money was not preceded by any cash deposits in the said bank account but is sourced from bank transfers made through RTGS and had filed the confirmations of the source of RTGS as well.

The ITAT held that the assessee company had discharged the double facet onus that was cast upon it as regards proving the authenticity of its claim of having received genuine share application money from the investor company –

i by substantiating based on documentary evidence the “nature” and “source” of the amount so credited in its books of account, i.e. receipt of the share application money from the investor company; and

ii by coming forth with a duly substantiated explanation about the “nature” and “source” of the sum so credited in the name of the investor company, as per the mandate of the “1st proviso” to Section 68 of the Act.

In the result, the appeal of the revenue was dismissed.

S. 12AB–CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12AB on the ground that some of the objects of the applicant-trust had an element of commerciality.

73. (2025) 170 taxmann.com 198 (IndoreTrib)

Aruva Foundation vs. CIT

ITA No.: 398 & 399(Ind) of 2024

A.Y.: N.A.

Date of Order: 11th December, 2024

S. 12AB–CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12AB on the ground that some of the objects of the applicant-trust had an element of commerciality.

FACTS

The assessee-company was incorporated under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 with the objects of, inter alia, selling and marketing of products developed by the weaker sections of the society. It was granted provisional registration / approval under section 12AB and section 80G. Subsequently, it applied to CIT(E) for grant of final registration / approval under section 12AB as well as section 80G.

CIT(E) rejected assessee’s application under section 12ABon the ground that some of the objects of the assessee as mentioned in the Memorandum of Association clearly showed that its intention was to carry out various commercial activities and also to engage in trading of various products and therefore, it was not eligible to obtain registration under section 12AB. He also rejected the application under section 80G on the ground that as a consequence of denial of registration under section 12AB, approval under section 80G was not available to the assessee. Further, the said application was also belated.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed appeals before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) Proviso to section 2(15) defining ‘charitable purpose itself allows commerciality in the activities of assessee but up to a ceiling limit of 20 per cent. Further, section 11(4A) grants exemption to commercial or business activity on fulfillment of certain requirements.

(b) Section 13(8) also provides that the exemption under section 11/12 shall be denied in that previous year only in which the proviso to section 2(15) is violated. Therefore, these provisions of law clearly show that even if any object or activity of assessee, out of various multiple objects and activities, has element of commerciality, that would result in denial of exemption under section 11/12 to that extent and in that particular previous year only; but the CIT(E) in exercise of power under section 12AB cannot deny registration to assessee.

(c) It was also a fact that the assessee had done only charitable activities till date and had not undertaken any activity contemplated under the said “commercial” objects. Therefore, as and when the said activity was actually undertaken by assessee in future, it would be a prerogative of Assessing Officer in that particular year, to ascertain the quantum of exemption under section 11/12 available to assessee.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed and CIT(E) was directed to grant registration under section 12AB.

With regard to the approval under section 80G, the Tribunal observed that the assessee had already filed a fresh application to CIT(E) within the extended timeline of 30.6.2024 [as extended by Circular No. 7/2024 dated 25.04.2024] and therefore, remitted the matter back to the file of CIT(E) for an appropriate adjudication.

S. 12A–If the charitable institution had filed its return of income belatedly but within time allowed under section 139(4), then the tax department must allow exemption under section 11.

72. K M Educational & Rural-development Trust vs. ITO

(2024) 169 taxmann.com 617(Chennai Trib)

ITA No.: 1326(Chny) of 2024

A.Y.: 2018-19

Date of Order: 4th December, 2024

S. 12A–If the charitable institution had filed its return of income belatedly but within time allowed under section 139(4), then the tax department must allow exemption under section 11.

FACTS

The assessee-trust was registered under section 12A. For AY 2018-19, it filed its return of income belatedly on 30th November, 2018 [due date for filing of return under section 139(1) was 30th September, 2018] declaring total income of ₹NIL and claimed a refund of ₹1,96,656. While processing the return of income under section 143(1), the Central Processing Centre (CPC) did not allow the exemption under section 11 on the ground that the return of income / audit report was not filed within the due date under section 139(1).

On appeal, CIT(A) upheld the action of CPC.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Citing CBDT Circular No.F.No.173/193/2019-ITA-I dated 23rd April, 2019 the Tribunal held that CPC and CIT(A)erred in restricting the time limit for filing return of income to the due date under
section 139(1) and therefore, if the assessee had filed its return of income within the time allowed under section 139, that is, even if it is filed belatedly, then CPC was required to allow the exemption under section 11 by rectifying its intimation under section 143(1)(a).

Accordingly, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee and restored the issue back to the file of CIT(A) with a direction to pass rectification order as required vide CBDT Circular dated 23rd April, 2019(supra).

S. 54F–Deduction under section 54F is allowable to the assessee even if the new residential property was purchased by him in the name of his wife.

71. VidjayaneDurairaj -VidjayaneVelradjou vs. ITO

(2024) 169 taxmann.com 625 (ChennaiTrib)

ITA No.:1457 (Chny) of 2024

A.Y.: 2012-13

Date of Order: 4th December, 2024

S. 54F–Deduction under section 54F is allowable to the assessee even if the new residential property was purchased by him in the name of his wife.

FACTS

During FY 2011-12, the assessee sold three immovable properties for consideration of ₹50,40,000 and received the sale proceeds in cash. Out of the sale proceeds, he had deposited ₹19,75,000 into his own bank account and an amount of ₹36,00,000 in his wife’s bank account. Thereafter, a residential property was purchased in the assessee’s wife’s name for ₹44,27,994. The assessee did not file his return of income for AY 2012-13.

Vide notice under section 148 dated 27th March, 2018, the Assessing Officer (AO) reopened the assessment on the ground that he had received information from ITS Data that the assessee had deposited cash into his UCO Bank account to the tune of ₹19,75,000. In response thereto, the assessee filed his return of income claiming deduction of ₹44,27,994 under section 54F being capital gain invested into residential property purchased in his wife’s name. The AO did not allow the claim of deduction under section 54F on the ground that the residential property in question was purchased in the name of the assessee’s wife who was also assessed to tax separately and not in the assessee’s name.

The assessee preferred an appeal before CIT(A) who dismissed the same citing the decision of Punjab and Haryana High Court in Kamal Kant Kamboj vs. ITO, (2017) 88 taxmann.com 541 (Punjab & Haryana).

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the predominant judicial view is that for the purpose of section 54F, new residential house need not be purchased by the assessee in his own name and therefore, following the decision of jurisdictional High Court in erred in CIT vs. V. Natarajan,(2006) 154 Taxman399/287 ITR 271 (Madras), the Tribunal directed the AO to allow deduction under section 54F to the assessee.

 

Penalty levied under section 270A deleted where the assessee having fulfilled the conditions for grant of immunity from levy of penalty u/s 270AA of the Act made a belated application under section 270AA and no opportunity was given to the assessee as also no order passed by the AO rejecting the assessee’s application.

70. Bishwanath Prasad vs. CIT(A)

ITA Nos. 163 to 166/Patna/2023

A.Ys. : 2017-18 to 2020-21

Date of Order: 29th August, 2024

Sections: 270A, 270AA

Penalty levied under section 270A deleted where the assessee having fulfilled the conditions for grant of immunity from levy of penalty u/s 270AA of the Act made a belated application under section 270AA and no opportunity was given to the assessee as also no order passed by the AO rejecting the assessee’s application.

FACTS

All the appeals were against orders passed under section 270A of the Act levying penalty for under-reporting of income. The facts in each of the years under appeal being the same, the Tribunal considered the facts in the case of Nand Kumar Prasad Sah for assessment year 2017-18 and apply the decision to all other appeals.

The assessee, an individual, filed return of income under section 139(1), for AY 2017-18, declaring total income of ₹8,35,425. Subsequently, consequent to search conducted at the business premises of the assessee, the assessee in response to a notice issued under section 153A of the Act filed the return of income declaring therein a total income of ₹13,97,271. The assessment of the assessee for AY 2017-18 stood abated.

The Assessing Officer (AO) completed the assessment under section 153A of the Act by accepting the income returned in response to notice issued under section 153A of the Act. The AO levied penalty with reference to the difference between income assessed under section 153A and the income declared in return of income filed under section 139(1).

The assessee belatedly filed an application under section 270AA for grant of immunity from levy of penalty and initiation of prosecution. The AO rejected the application and levied a penalty of ₹6,20,495.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) claiming that since returned income has been assessed there is no under-reporting under section 270A(2) of the Act. It was also argued that the AO ought to have considered the application for grant of immunity. The CIT(A) dismissed the contentions and confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the Tribunal where two-fold arguments were raised viz. relying on decision of Delhi High Court in PCIT vs. Neeraj Jindal [(2017) 399 ITR 1] it was contended that once the assessee is subjected to search and notice u/s 153A of the Act is issued for furnishing the return and the assessee furnished return since the return filed originally gets abated and become non-est. Therefore, since there is no difference between the returned income and assessed income, no penalty is leviable u/s 270A of the Act. Second fold of the arguments was that the AO erred in rejecting the assessee’s application for grant of immunity without granting an opportunity of being heard which is contrary to the principles of natural justice. Relying on the decision of the Madras HC in Natarajan Anand Kumar vs. DCIT [(2024) 159 taxmann.com 637 (Mad)] it was contended that the ratio of the said decision squarely applies to the present case and that the AO ought to have condoned the delay in furnishing application under section 270AA because the assessee satisfied all the conditions required to be satisfied for grant of immunity.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there is no difference between the income returned under section 153A and assessed income. The Tribunal examined the second fold of the arguments first viz. that the case of the assessee was covered by the decision of the Madras High Court in Natarajan Anand Kumar (supra) and therefore the AO ought to have condoned the delay and granted immunity.

The Tribunal noted that there was no tax and interest payable as per assessment order passed under section 143(3) r.w.s. 153A and assessee had not preferred any appeal against the order of assessment. The application for grant of immunity is required to be filed within one month from the end of the month in which the assessment order is received. Assuming that the assessment order is received by the assessee on the very same date of its passing viz. 31st March, 2022 there is a delay of 45 days in filing an application for grant of immunity. The application of the assessee has been rejected without providing any opportunity of being heard.

The Tribunal observed that –

i) the Madras High Court has in Natarajan Anand Kumar (supra) dealt with almost identical issue and held that it was a fit case to condone the delay of 30 days in filing the application for grant of immunity. The Court condoned the delay;

ii) the Delhi High Court in the case of Ultimate Infratech Private Limited v. National Faceless Assessment Centre in WP 6305/2022 dated 20th April, 2022 where the Court has held that upon satisfaction of the conditions mentioned in section 270AA the assessee acquires a right to be granted immunity under section 270AA;

iii) the Rajasthan High Court in GR Infraprojects Ltd. vs. ACIT [(2024) 158 taxmann.com 80] has held that “Sub-section (4) of section 270AA provides that the Assessing Officer shall pass an order accepting or rejecting any application filed by the assessee seeking immunity from imposition of penalty under section 270A within a period of one month from the end of month in which the application under sub-section (1) is received.

The Tribunal held that the ratio laid down in the above decisions is squarely applicable in favour of the assessee and therefore, it was of the considered view since, the assessee has fulfilled the conditions for grant of immunity from levy of penalty u/s 270AA of the Act, the actions of the AO levying penalty u/s 270A of the Act, is not justified because firstly, no opportunity was given to the assessee and secondly, no order has been passed by the AO rejecting the assessee’s application.

The Tribunal held the case of the assessee to be a fit case for immunity of penalty u/s 270AA of the Act and on this ground itself deleted the impugned penalty. In view of the decision of the Tribunal on the second fold of the arguments of the assessee, the Tribunal held that the first fold of the arguments became academic in nature. The penalty levied by AO and confirmed by the CIT(A) was deleted and the appeals filed by the assessee were allowed.

Where Revenue has failed to establish direct nexus between the borrowed funds and interest-free advances, the presumption is that the interest-free advances have been made out of interest-free funds available with the assessee.

69. SiwanaAgri Marketing Ltd. v. ACIT

ITA No. 1094/Ahd./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order: 27th November, 2024

Section: 36(1)(iii)

Where Revenue has failed to establish direct nexus between the borrowed funds and interest-free advances, the presumption is that the interest-free advances have been made out of interest-free funds available with the assessee.

FACTS

For A.Y. 2017-18, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a total income of ₹31,91,560. While assessing the total income of the assessee under section 143(3) of the Act, the Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed ₹65,86,200 under section 36(1)(iii) of the Act on the ground that the assessee had advanced interest-free loans of ₹5.48 crore while incurring significant interest expenses on unsecured borrowings. He held that the assessee failed to demonstrate the nexus of these advances with interest-free funds and did not demonstrate any business purpose.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) contending that interest-free advances were made out of sufficient interest-free funds available with it. The CIT(A) held that the assessee failed to substantiate its claims with adequate evidence or satisfy the legal requirements under the Act. He observed that no fund flow statement or evidence provided to establish the nexus of interest-free funds with advances and that business purpose or commercial expediency has not been demonstrated. He confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee, on the basis of financial statements it was contended that the assessee has sufficient own funds. The net worth as on 31st March, 2016 was ₹30.31 crore and that on 31st March, 2017 was ₹27.11 crore whereas the amount of loan given during the year is only ₹15.75 lakh and the balance is all opening balances. It was also pointed out that no disallowance was made in earlier years despite the existence of similar advances of ₹5.33 crore and assessee has earned net interest income of ₹1.10 crore during the year thereby negating any suspicion of diversion of interest-bearing funds. Reliance was placed on decision of SC in CIT(LTU) vs. Reliance Industries Ltd. [(2019) 410 ITR 466]. It was contended that the reliance placed by AO and CIT(A) on the decision of S A Builders [Appeal (civil) 5811 of 2006 (SC)] was misplaced in light of later SC ruling in Reliance Industries Ltd. (supra).

HELD

The Tribunal, based on material on record, held that had sufficient interest-free funds amounting to ₹27.10 crores as on 31st March, 2017, which were more than adequate to cover the interest-free advances of ₹5.48 crores. It observed that the CIT(A) did not address the assessee’s submission that no disallowance was made in earlier years despite similar advances. The principle of consistency was disregarded. The CIT(A)’s emphasis on the absence of a fund flow statement is unjustified, as the assessee’s financial statements clearly indicated the sufficiency of interest-free funds and the CIT(A)’s reliance on S.A. Builders vs. CIT (supra) is misplaced.

The Tribunal held that while the decision in the case of S A Builders (supra) emphasizes the requirement of commercial expediency, the principles laid down in CIT vs. Reliance Industries Ltd. (supra), a subsequent decision of the Supreme Court clarifies that where sufficient interest-free funds are available, the presumption arises that such advances are made from those funds. Following the principle established in CIT vs. Reliance Industries Ltd. (supra), it is presumed that such advances are made from interest-free funds. The Revenue has failed to establish a direct nexus between borrowed funds and these advances. Therefore, the disallowance of interest expenses under Section 36(1)(iii) of the Act cannot be sustained.

Where funds were introduced by the partners of the firm as their capital contribution and their confirmations filed, the onus cast on the assessee stood discharged. If the AO is not satisfied with the explanation then the addition may be made in the hands of the partners but not in the hands of the assessee firm.

68. J K Associates vs. ITO

ITA No. 1200/Ahd./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order: 5th December, 2024

Sections: 68, 69A

Where funds were introduced by the partners of the firm as their capital contribution and their confirmations filed, the onus cast on the assessee stood discharged. If the AO is not satisfied with the explanation then the addition may be made in the hands of the partners but not in the hands of the assessee firm.

FACTS

For the assessment year 2017-18, the Assessing Officer (AO) received information that the assessee firm had purchased immovable property of ₹1 crore in Financial Year 2016-17. Since the assessee firm had not filed return of income, he recorded reasons and issued a notice under section 147 of the Act and completed the assessment by making an addition of ₹1 crore in respect of unexplained investment in immovable property.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee it was submitted that the source of investment in the immovable property was duly explained by the assessee before the AO as well as before the Ld. CIT(A). It was submitted that the property was acquired out of capital contribution made by 12 partners of the firms and the details of amount contributed by the individual partners along with their confirmations was filed before the AO. It was further explained that the partners had made withdrawals from other firms as well as taken loan from other entities for making capital contribution to the assessee firm. Therefore, the identity, genuineness and creditworthiness of the partner’s contribution towards the acquisition of property was duly established. Therefore, the AO was not correct in making an addition in the hands of the assessee firm. Relying on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in PCIT vs. VaishnodeviRefoils&Solvex [(2018) 89 taxman.com 80(Gujrat] it was submitted that in case the AO was not satisfied with the explanation of the assessee, then the addition should have been made in the hands of the individual partners but not in the case of assessee firm.

HELD

The AO was not correct in rejecting the evidences filed by the assessee as self-serving documents. The assessee has discharged its onus by explaining the source of investment made in the immovable property. It is not that the amounts were borrowed by the assessee from 3rd parties; rather all the fund had come from its own 12 partners in the form of their capital contribution. The assessee had discharged its onus to explain the source of investment in the immovable property. The confirmation of the partners was also filed in this regard. If the AO was not satisfied about the creditworthiness of the partners, then the enquiry was required to be made at the end of the partners. No addition in respect of unexplained capital contribution made by the partner can be made in the hands of the firm. The Tribunal held that the assessee had discharged its onus to explain the source of investment in the immovable property.

The addition of ₹1 crore made by the AO in respect of unexplained investment in property was deleted.

Credit card dues settled / paid in cash, qualify for addition u/s 69A if the source of cash deposit is not explained.

67. Dipak Parmar vs. ITO

ITA No. 178/Srt./2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of Order: 19th November, 2024

Section: 69A

Credit card dues settled / paid in cash, qualify for addition u/s 69A if the source of cash deposit is not explained.

FACTS

For A.Y. 2017-18, the assessee filed his return of income declaring total income at ₹2,78,400/-. The assessee had made cash payment towards credit card purchases of ₹6,16,142/-. The Assessing Officer ( ‘AO’) asked the assessee to explain the source of the above cash payments. The AO also issued show cause notice which was not replied to by the assessee. Therefore, the AO held that the amount of cash payment of ₹6,16,000/- remained unexplained and constitutes income of the assessee u/s 69A of the Act which is taxable at the rates mentioned in section 115BBE of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who issued seven notices which were not responded neither were any written submissions filed. The CIT(A) concluded that the assessee was not interested in pursuing the appeal and therefore decided the same based on material on record.

The CIT(A) observed that assessee failed to explain the source of cash payment of ₹6,16,000/- towards credit card purchases; hence, the impugned amount constitutes income in the hands of the assessee u/s 69A of the Act. The CIT(A) also relied on the order of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court, in case of Anil Goel vs. CIT, 306 ITR 212 (P& H) wherein relying on the earlier decision of the High Court in case of Popular Engineer Co. vs. ITAT, 248 ITR 577 (P & H), it was held that elaborate reasons need not be recorded by the CIT(A) as has been done by the AO. The reasons are required to be clear and explicit indicating that the authority has considered the issue in controversy. If the appellate / revisional authority has to affirm such an order, it is not required to give separate reasons, which may be required incase the order is to be reversed by the appellate / revisional authority.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where none appeared on behalf of the assessee and therefore the appeal was decided ex-parte.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the assessee had made cash payments for credit card purchases i.e. ₹3,37,650/- with RBL Bank Ltd., ₹1,66,492/- with SBI Cards and Payment Services Pvt. Ltd. and ₹1,12,000/- with City Bank. It observed that both AO and CIT(A) issued several notices but assessee chose not to respond to the notices nor file any written submission. Having observed that the provisions of section 69A are clear, the Tribunal held that in the present case, assessee has purchased the credit cards by making cash payments. It is, therefore, clear that assessee was owner of money (cash) which was used to make credit card purchases. However, he has not explained the nature and source of acquisition of such money, being cash, of ₹6,16,142/-. The AO has added the same u/s 69A of the Act due to non-compliance by assessee to the statutory notices as well as the show cause  notice. The CIT(A) has rightly confirmed the addition because assessee did not attend before him or filed any written submission in support of the grounds raised before him.

The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) holding that the provisions of section 69A are clearly attracted to the facts of the case.

Section 143(3) r.w.s. 148: Reopening of assessment — Assessment completed — Petitioner had explicitly sought for a personal hearing — Not granted – breach of the principles of natural justice.

25. Pico Capital Private Limited vs. Dy. CIT Circle – 8(2)(1) &Ors.

[WP(L) No. 15940 OF 2024]

Dated: 7th January, 2025. (Bom) (HC)

Section 143(3) r.w.s. 148: Reopening of assessment — Assessment completed — Petitioner had explicitly sought for a personal hearing — Not granted – breach of the principles of natural justice.

The Petitioner challenged the assessment order dated 26th March, 2024 and notice dated 31st March, 2023 disposing of objections under Section 148A(d) of the Act. However, the Court considered the challenge to the assessment order dated 26th March, 2024 on the ground that it was made in breach of the principles of natural justice.

The Petitioner, in reply to the show cause notice, had explicitly sought for a personal hearing. There is no dispute on this aspect. However, the impugned order stated video conferencing was not required.

The Court noted that though a personal hearing was sought, the same had been denied to the Petitioner on the ground that the Petitioner would have nothing further to add to the reply already filed by the Petitioner. The Court noted that such an approach, would not be appropriate. If the law requires the grant of a personal hearing, then the same should not be ordinarily denied on the grounds that nothing further could be said in the personal hearing. The Petitioner must be allowed to convince the Assessing Officer of the merits of its version. This is more so when a law provides for a personal hearing when requested by the Assessee.

Attention was invited to Circular No.F.No.225/97/2021/ITA-II dated 6th September, 2021 in the context of approval for the transfer of assessments / penalties proceedings to jurisdictional Assessing Officers. It was observed that the Circular provided that the request for personal hearings shall generally be allowed to the assessee with the approval of the Range Head, mainly after the assessee has filed a written submission to the show cause notice. Personal hearings may be allowed for the assessee, preferably through video conference. If Video Conference is not technically feasible, personal hearings may be conducted in a designated area in the Income-Tax Office. The hearing proceedings may be recorded. Given this Circular, the defence raised, or the justification offered by the Respondents’ affidavit cannot be accepted.

The Court noted that though the assessment order was appealable, however, the Court entertained the petition because a case of complete failure of natural justice was made out. No personal hearing was granted to the Petitioner, and such denial was not for valid reasons.

The impugned assessment order dated 26th March, 2024 was set aside, and remand the matter to the concerned Respondent to dispose of the show cause notice issued to the Petitioner following the law and after granting the Petitioner a personal hearing.

Section: 143(1) – Intimation – ICDS adjustment and valuation of inventory – Writ Petition – Alternate remedy – Article 226 of the Constitution of India : Assessment Year 2022-23.

24. Fiat India Automobiles Limited vs. Dy. Director of Income Tax &Ors.

[WP (L) No. 10495 OF 2023]

Dated: 15th January, 2025 (Bom) (HC)

Section: 143(1) – Intimation – ICDS adjustment and valuation of inventory – Writ Petition – Alternate remedy – Article 226 of the Constitution of India : Assessment Year 2022-23.

The Petition challenges an intimation passed under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’), dated 26th July 2023 for Assessment Year 2022-23, whereby a demand of approximately ₹6,600 Crores was raised.

The Petitioner submitted that since a huge demand of ₹6,600 had been raised, the remedy of appeal would not be an efficacious remedy. Accordingly, the Court should exercise its writ jurisdiction. It was further submitted that prior to passing the impugned intimation order, no opportunity was given to the Petitioner. It was further submitted that on 28th March, 2024 an order under section 143(3) read with Section 144B of the Act came to be passed by the Assessing Officer accepting the return income with a rider which reads as follows :-

“3.1.4…….It is clarified that the issue of ICDS adjustment and valuation of inventory is under adjudication pending with Hon’ble High Court, therefore, no decision with regard to these issues is being taken in this order.”

It was contended that in view of the subsequent 143(3) order, and on a reading of Section 143(4) of the Act, the subject matter of 143(1) gets subsumed in 143(3) proceedings. It was further pointed out that the Petitioner had made an application under Section 154 on 31st July, 2023 for rectifying the mistake which had crept in the intimation under Section 143(1) of the Act. The said rectification application had not been disposed of on the ground that the subject matter of 143(1) was pending before the Court in the present Petition.

The Respondents, justified their action in passing 143 (1) order and submitted that since the matter was pending before this Court, the officer in the 143(3) order stated that the issue of ICDS adjustment and valuation of inventory would be subject to the outcome of this Petition.

The Hon. Court observed that at no point of time, the Hon. Court had restrained the Respondents from adjudicating any issue in the regular assessment proceedings. Accordingly, the observations made in the assessment order under Section 143(3), that since the issue of ICDS adjustment and valuation of inventory was pending before the Court, no decision with regard to this issue has been taken, was incorrect. If the officer was of the view that the ad-interim order amounted to restraining the officer from adjudicating this issue in regular assessment proceedings, then, the Respondents should have approached the Court for clarification. However, at no stage the Hon. Court had restrained the Respondents from adjudicating this issue in regular assessment proceedings.

The Court further observed that, the Petitioner had made an application on 31st July, 2023 for rectification of the intimation. The said application of the Petitioner was not decided by the Assessing Officer on the ground that issue of Section 143(1) adjustment is pending before the Court. The Hon. Court again clarified that the Respondents were not restrained by any order of the Hon. Court from passing any order to decide the rectification application filed by the Petitioner on 31st July, 2023. The Hon. Court observed that in the absence of any restraint order by the Court, the stand of the Respondents not to adjudicate the rectification application was misconceived. The officer ought to have adjudicated the rectification application in accordance with law.

The Hon. Court observed that the intimation under challenge is an appealable under Section 246A(1)(a) of the Act. It was the contention of the Petitioner that no notice was given before passing the intimation. However, in the order dated 23th August 2023, the Respondents have stated that an intimation was issued to the Petitioner on 27th May, 2023 requiring a response and since the Petitioner did not respond, the adjustment was made.

The Court held that this would require adjudication of facts whether any prior intimation was served on the Petitioner before passing the impugned intimation. This factual determination cannot be examined by the Court in the writ proceedings. However, the same can be adjudicated efficaciously before the Appellate Authority. The Court noted that in Section 246A, there is no provision of mandatory pre-deposit for admitting and entertaining the appeal. Therefore, the contention of the Petitioner that the intimation raises a huge demand of ₹6,600 crores, where the remedy of appeal is not efficacious remedy, was rejected. The Court further noted that the Petitioner had the remedy of making an application for stay of the demand and any order passed thereon, if the Petitioner was aggrieved, could be challenged in accordance with law. Therefore, although a huge demand was raised, but in the absence of any pre-deposit for admitting and entertaining the appeal, the Court cannot interfere with the impugned intimation in writ proceedings.

In view of above, the Hon. Court granted the Petitioner liberty to challenge the impugned intimation dated 26th July 2023 by filing an appeal within a period of four weeks from the date of uploading of the present order. The Appellate Authority was directed to consider the appeal on merits without recourse to limitation, since the Petitioner was bonafidely pursuing the Petition before the Court. The Respondent was directed to decide the rectification application dated 31st July 2023 within a period of two weeks from the date of uploading the order after giving an opportunity of personal hearing to the Petitioner.

Refund — Adjustment of demand — Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Powers of the AO — Instructions issued by the CBDT misconstrued — Application for rectification of order pending before Commissioner (Appeals), National Faceless Appeal Centre — Adjustment of refund without considering application for stay of demand arbitrary and illegal — Matter remanded with directions.

81. National Association of Software and Services Companies (NASSCOM) Vs. DCIT(Exemption)

[2024] 470 ITR 493 (Del.)

A. Ys. 2018-19:

Date of order: 1st March, 2024:

Ss. 154, 220(6) and 237 of ITA 1961:

Refund — Adjustment of demand — Recovery of tax — Grant of stay of demand — Powers of the AO — Instructions issued by the CBDT misconstrued — Application for rectification of order pending before Commissioner (Appeals), National Faceless Appeal Centre — Adjustment of refund without considering application for stay of demand arbitrary and illegal — Matter remanded with directions.

The Assessee filed its return of income for A. Y. 2018-19 and claimed a refund of ₹6,45,65,160 on  account of excess tax deducted at source during the year. The Assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny and assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was passed after making several additions which resulted into creation of demand of ₹10,26,85,633.

Against the said order, the Assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The Assessee also filed application for rectification u/s. 154 of the Act for rectifying certain mistakes apparent from the face of the order. The Assessee also filed application for stay of demand. The rectification application filed by the Assessee was rejected by the Assessing Officer. Pending appeal before the CIT(A) and pending disposal of the stay application filed by the Assessee, the Department adjusted the refunds on account of excess tax deducted at source for the A. Ys. 2010-11, 2011-12 and 2020-21 towards the demand raised for the assessment year 2018-19.

The Assessee filed a writ petition challenging the action of the Department. The Delhi High Court allowed the petition and held as follows:

“i) The Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 and the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated July 31, 2017 ([2017] 396 ITR (St.) 55) and neither prescribe nor mandate 15 per cent. or 20 per cent. of the outstanding demand under section 156 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being deposited as a precondition for grant of stay. The earlier Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016, specifically mentions of the discretion vesting in the Assessing Officer to grant stay subject to a deposit at a rate higher or lower than 15 per cent. depending upon the facts of a particular case. The subsequent Office Memorandum dates 31st July, 2017 merely amended the rate to be 20 per cent. and describes the 20 per cent. deposit to be the “standard rate”. The administrative circular would not operate as a fetter upon the power otherwise conferred on a quasi-judicial authority and that it would be wholly incorrect to view the Office Memorandum as mandating the deposit of 20 per cent. of the disputed demand irrespective of the facts of an individual case. The clear and express language employed in sub-section (6) of section 220 states of the Assessing Officer being empowered “in his discretion and subject to such conditions as he may think fit to impose in the circumstances of the case”. Therefore, the 20 per cent. pre-deposit stated in the Office Memorandum cannot be viewed as being an inviolate or inflexible condition. The extent of the deposit which an assessee may be called upon to make would have to be examined and answered considering the factors such as prima facie case, undue hardship and likelihood of success.

ii) The Department had proceeded on incorrect and untenable premise that the assessee was obliged to furnish evidence of having deposited 20 per cent. of the disputed demand before filing its application for stay of demand under section 220(6) could have been considered. The interpretation which was sought to be accorded to the Office Memorandum [F. No. 404/72/93-ITCC], dated 29th February, 2016 (amendment of instruction No. 1914, dated 21st March, 1996 which contained the guidelines issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes regarding procedure to be followed for recovery of outstanding demand, including procedure for grant of stay of demand) was misconceived and untenable. The Department had erred in proceeding on the assumption that the application for consideration of outstanding demands being placed in abeyance could not have even been considered without a 20 per cent. pre-deposit of the disputed demand. On the date when the adjustments of the refund towards the demand of the assessment year 2018-19 was made, the application filed by the assessee under section 220(6) had neither been considered nor disposed of. Therefore, the adjustment of the outstanding demand for the assessment year 2018-19 against the available refunds without attending to that application was arbitrary and unfair. The intimation of adjustments being proposed would hardly be of any relevance or consequence once it was found that the application for stay of demand remained pending.

iii)The matter was remitted to the Department for considering the application of the assessee u/s. 220(6) in accordance with the observations made. The issue of the amount of refund liable to be released would abide by the decision which the Department would take pursuant to the directions”.

Recovery of tax — Company — Liability of director of private company — Order u/s. 179 — Condition precedent — Inability to recover tax dues from company.

80. Manjula D. Rita and Bhavya D. Rita vs. Pr. CIT:

[2025] 472 ITR 116 (Bom):

A. Y. 2012-13: Date of order: 19th June, 2023

Ss. 179 and 264 of ITA 1961:

Recovery of tax — Company — Liability of director of private company — Order u/s. 179 — Condition precedent — Inability to recover tax dues from company.

The petitioners are two out of the four legal heirs of one late Dinesh Shamji Rita (the deceased), who was a director of Bhavya Infrastructure India Private Limited (the company) during the A. Y. 2012-13. The other two legal heirs are married daughters of the deceased and petitioner No. 1. The petitioners are impugning an order dated 9th March, 2020 passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) rejecting the petitioner’s application. The order impugned came to be passed while rejecting an application filed by the petitioners impugning an order dated 7th May, 2018 passed under section 179(1) of the Act.

The company had filed its return of income for the A. Y. 2012-13 on 29th September, 2012 declaring an income of ₹62,47,290. An assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 came to be passed on March 30, 2015 by which several additions were made, i. e., a sum of ₹ 18,37,21,188 u/s. 68 of the Act for unexplained cash credit, interest on loan of ₹1,21,11,106 and disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act of ₹2,06,642. A demand of ₹8,66,76,960 was also made u/s. 156 of the Act.

The deceased applied for stay before the Assessing Officer and filed an appeal before the CIT (A). The Assessing Officer rejected the application for stay by an order dated 16th July, 2015. An application was moved by the deceased before the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax for grant of stay of the demand, which application also came to be rejected. The company, though had not accepted the additions/disallowance, voluntarily paid various amounts in October / November, 2017. Certain properties were attached but the attachment order was later vacated. The petitioner’s revision application u/s. 264 of the Act also came to be rejected.

Thereafter, the petitioners received an order dated 7th May, 2018 passed u/s. 179 of the Act against which the petitioners filed another revision application u/s. 264 of the Act. This revision application came to be rejected by the impugned order dated March 9, 2020.

The petitioners filed writ petition and challenged the order dated 9th March, 2020, passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Act rejecting the petitioner’s application. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is averred in the petition that the deceased took seriously ill and was ailing for almost six months before succumbing to multiple organ failures on 6th May, 2018, a day before the order dated May 7, 2018, came to be passed u/s. 179 of the Act. The order impugned passed by respondent No. 1 u/s. 264 of the Act also is a very brief order in the sense that the only ground on which the application u/s. 264 of the Act came to be rejected is contained in paragraph 4.2 of the impugned order. Respondent No. 1, without considering any of the submissions made by the petitioners, has simply rejected the application u/s. 264 of the Act noting that the notice of the death of the deceased was not brought to the Assessing Officer by anybody and before the order u/s. 179 of the Act was signed by the Assessing Officer and, therefore, as on the date of the passing of the order, there was nothing invalid.

ii) Before passing an order u/s. 179 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer should have made out a case as required u/s. 179(1) of the Act that the tax dues from the company cannot be recovered. Only after the first requirement is satisfied would the onus shift on any director to prove that non-recovery cannot be attributed to any gross neglect, misfeasance, or breach of duty on his part in relation to the affairs of the company.

iii) There was nothing to indicate the steps were taken to trace the assets of the company. Moreover, the order passed u/s. 179 of the Act did not satisfy any of the ingredients required to be met. In view of non-issuance of notice, the assessee had not been given an opportunity to establish that the non-recovery was not attributable to any of the three factors on his part, i.e., gross neglect or misfeasance or breach of duty.

iv) Without going into the merits on the correctness of the assessment order passed or whether the time was ripe to issue notice under section 179 of the Act, we hereby quash and set aside the order dated 9th March, 2020 passed under section 264 of the Act, so also the order dated 7th May, 2018 passed under section 179 of the Act.”

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Seizure of cash by police — Cash produced in Magistrate Court and case registered — Proceedings u/s. 132A — Department requisitioning for release of cash — Release or custody of cash only in accordance with provisions of section 451 of Cr.PC 1973 — First proviso to section 148A applicable — Notices valid though issued non-complying with procedures u/s. 148A.

79. Muhammed C. K. vs. ACIT:

[2025] 472 ITR 161 (Ker):

A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24: Date of order: 11th March, 2024:

Ss. 132A, 147, 148 and 148A of ITA 1961: and S. 451 of Code Of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

Reassessment — Notice — Validity — Seizure of cash by police — Cash produced in Magistrate Court and case registered — Proceedings u/s. 132A — Department requisitioning for release of cash — Release or custody of cash only in accordance with provisions of section 451 of Cr.PC 1973 — First proviso to section 148A applicable — Notices valid though issued non-complying with procedures u/s. 148A.

Certain amount of cash was seized from the assessee by the police and was produced before the magistrate court and a case was registered. It was stated that an application u/s. 451 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 was filed before the Magistrate Court to release the money to the Department.

On a writ petition contending that the money ought to be released to him and that since the money in question was never requisitioned as contemplated by the provisions of section 132A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the notices u/s. 148A, issued for the A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24 without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 148A were illegal and unsustainable the Kerala High Court held as under:

“i) The notices had been issued without following the procedure contemplated u/s. 148A, the notices issued u/s. 148 were not illegal, since on the facts, the situation fell within the first proviso to section 148A, which provided that the procedure u/s. 148A was not applicable in a case covered by the provisions of section 132A, though the Department had filed an application u/s. 451 of the 1973 Code. Though when an item or cash, was produced before a criminal court the Department could not issue a notice u/s. 132A to the court in question, once the item was produced before the court in connection with any criminal case registered by the police or any other law enforcement agency, an application for release or for giving custody of it to the Department could only be in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure and specifically section 451 of the 1973 Code thereof. That did not take away the fact that the Department had initiated proceedings u/s. 132A to requisition the amount from the police station.

ii) Therefore, the case was covered by the first proviso to section 148A and the procedure prescribed under the provisions of section 148A need not be complied with before issuing the notices u/s. 148 for the A. Ys. 2020-21 to 2023-24.”

Re-assessment — Notice after four years — Advance Ruling — Effect of — Binding only on Assessee and AO in relation to transactions in question — Notice for reassessment for subsequent years issued on the basis of rulings in another case — Transactions similar to those in respect of which ruling rendered in Assessee’s case — No change in law or new tangible material and independent formation of belief by the AO — Notices for re-opening invalid.

78. Mrs. Usha Eswar vs. ITO and Ors.

[2024] 470 ITR 200 (Bom.)

A. Ys. 1997-98 – 2000-01

Date of order: 7th July, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 245R and 245S of ITA 1961

Re-assessment — Notice after four years — Advance Ruling — Effect of — Binding only on Assessee and AO in relation to transactions in question — Notice for reassessment for subsequent years issued on the basis of rulings in another case — Transactions similar to those in respect of which ruling rendered in Assessee’s case — No change in law or new tangible material and independent formation of belief by the AO — Notices for re-opening invalid.

The assessee was a Non-resident Indian and was regularly assessed to tax in India in respect of income which accrued or arose in India or which was received in India. The Assessee was a resident of Dubai for several years and was a resident of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) as per the definition provided in the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and UAE. The Assessee had made an application to the Authority for Advance Ruling (AAR) seeking tax treatment as well as the rate of tax applicable in respect of income earned by way of dividends, interest and capital gains from sources in India. The said application was not made in respect of a specific assessment year. The AAR found that the Assessee was a resident as per Article 4 of the India — UAE DTAA and that the Assessee was not liable to pay tax in UAE as there was no levy of income tax on an Individual in UAE. The AAR applied the provisions of the Act and Articles 10, 11 and 13 of the DTAA and passed a ruling to the effect that the capital gains from transfer of moveable assets in India will be governed by Article 13(3) and the same will not be taxable in India on or before 1st April, 1994. The dividend income from shares held in India would be taxed at the rate of 15 per cent and income by way of interest on debentures and bonds as well as balance in partnership firm will be taxable at 12.5 per cent. In holding so, the AAR had relied upon its earlier ruling the case of MohsinallyAlimohammedRafik (“Mohsinally”).

Subsequently, after a period of four years, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act for the AYs 1997-98, 1998-99, 1999-2000 and 2000-01 for re-opening the assessment on the ground that the ruling of the AAR was applicable only in respect of AY 1995-96 and that the AAR, in a subsequent ruling in the case of Cyril Eugene Pereria (“Cyril”), after considering the ruling in the earlier case of Mohsinally’s case, concluded that the benefit of DTAA would not be applicable as the applicant therein was not chargeable to tax in UAE. Therefore, the Assessing Officer concluded that the ratio of the ruling in Cyril’s case would be applicable and the benefits of DTAA were wrongly given to the Assessee for the AYs 1997-98 to 2000-01.

The Assessee filed writ petition challenging the re-opening of the assessment. The Bombay High Court allowed the petitions and held as follows:

“i) Section 245S of the Income-tax Act, 1961 states that the ruling pronounced by the Authority for Advance Rulings binds the Authority under section 245R . It is binding on the applicant who has sought the ruling in respect of the transactions in relation to which the ruling has been sought for and on the Commissioner and the Income-tax authorities subordinate to him in respect of the applicant and the transaction. Sub-section (2) of section 245S provides that the ruling shall be binding unless there is a change in the law or the facts on the basis of which the advance ruling has been pronounced.

ii) The Assessing Officer had manifestly exceeded his jurisdiction in reopening the assessment relying on the subsequent ruling of the Authority for Advance Rulings in the case of Cyril Eugene Pereira, In Re [1999] 239 ITR 650 (AAR). The ruling in that case could not bind the assessee nor could it displace the binding effect of the ruling in the assessee’s case. The transaction in respect of which the assessee had sought a ruling and in respect of which the Authority for Advance Rulings had issued the ruling to the assessee was of the same nature as that for the assessment years 1997-98, 1998-99, 1999-2000 and 2000-01. There was no change in law or facts. The Assessing Officer had not personally formed the belief that income liable to tax had escaped assessment and there was no tangible material to conclude that there was any escapement of income. Therefore, the notices under section 148 were set aside. The Director (International Transactions) had ignored the relevant provisions of law. The power to reopen the assessments under section 147 could not have been invoked.”

Deduction of tax at source — Self Assessment Tax — Not required where tax deducted at source on payment — Tax deducted at source from amount received by the Assessee — Assessee entitled to benefit u/s. 205 — Assessee need not produce Form 16A.

77. Incredible Unique Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO:

[2024] 470 ITR 106 (Del)

A. Y. 2011-12

Date of order: 3rd October, 2023

S. 205 of ITA 1961

Deduction of tax at source — Self Assessment Tax — Not required where tax deducted at source on payment — Tax deducted at source from amount received by the Assessee — Assessee entitled to benefit u/s. 205 — Assessee need not produce Form 16A.

The Assessee provided services to an entity by the name of CAL. The value of the service provided amounted to ₹8,50,26,199. The said entity CAL deducted tax at source amounting to ₹24,96,199. Out of ₹24,96,199 deducted by CAL, only an amount of ₹69,897 was deposited towards TDS and the balance ₹24,26,302 remained to be deposited. As a result, the Department did not give full credit of TDS deducted by CAL and raised a demand.

Therefore, the Assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the non-grant of full credit TDS. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) In our view, the petitioner is right inasmuch as neither can the demand qua the tax withheld by the deductor-employer be recovered from him, nor can the same amount be adjusted against the future refund, if any, payable to him.

ii) Thus, for the foregoing reasons, we are inclined to quash the notice dated 28th February, 2018, and also hold that the respondents- Revenue are not entitled in law to adjust the demand raised for the A. Y. 2012-13 against any other assessment year. It is ordered accordingly.”

The High Court dismissed the review petition filed by the Department and held follows:

“i) Under section 205 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 where the tax is deductible at source, the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which tax has been deducted from his income. The bar operates as soon as it is established that the tax had been deducted at source and it is wholly irrelevant as to whether the tax deducted at source is deposited or not and whether form 16A has been issued or not. Form 16A is amongst others, a piece of evidence which can establish deduction of tax at source. That said, form 16A is not the only piece of evidence in that regard. In a case where the assessee can show reliable material other than form 16A and prima facie establish the deduction of tax at source. The assessee cannot be left at the mercy of the tax deductor, who for multiple reasons may not issue form 16A or may not deposit the deducted tax.

ii) The assessee admittedly declared in his return of income the tax deducted at source by CAL. and supported this with his ledger account. Not only this, the assessee even filed a complaint dated 25th January, 2017 with the Department alleging that CAL. had deducted but not deposited the tax deducted at source. But no action was taken on its complaint. The assessee could not be burdened with the responsibility to somehow procure form 16A to secure benefit of the provision of section 205.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Intimation u/s. 143 — Procedure — Corrections to returns must be intimated to assessee — Reply by assessee must be considered.

76. Northern Arc Investment Managers Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. DIT

[2025] 472 ITR 154 (Mad)

Date of order: 10th November, 2023

S. 143 of ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Intimation u/s. 143 — Procedure — Corrections to returns must be intimated to assessee — Reply by assessee must be considered.

A writ petition was filed to direct either the first respondent or the second respondent to permit the petitioner to file their rectification petition to rectify the mistake of double disallowance in the intimation dated July 29, 2023 and also to process the refunds.

The Madras High Court Held as under:

“i) A reading of section 143 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 makes it clear that if there are any corrections, errors, addition or reduction in the return of the assessee, the Department has to intimate it to the assessee. Thereafter, as per the provisions of the Act, the Department is supposed to consider the reply and make suitable modifications in the Income-tax return as requested by the assessee.

ii) The Assessing Officer had not considered the reply filed by the assessee and issued the intimation. The Faceless Assessment Officer has to consider the reply and proceed with the assessee’s case based both on the original returns filed by the assessee and the modified returns after considering the reply of the assessee.”

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

18. HDFC Bank Ltd. vs. State of Bihar &Ors.

(2024) 468 ITR 650 (SC)

Prosecution — Order dated 5th October, 2021 u/s. 132(3) of the IT Act was served upon the Branch Manager of the bank directing the said branch of the bank to stop the operation of any bank lockers, bank — Subsequently, by an order dated 1st November, 2021, the Branch Manager of the said bank was directed to revoke the restraint put on the bank accounts — On 9th November, 2021, the concerned branch of the bank allowed Smt. SunitaKhemka (one of the searched person) to operate her bank locker bearing No. 462 on misinterpretation of the order dated 1st November, 2021 — FIR was registered against Smt. SunitaKhemka and the staff of the bank for the offences punishable u/s. 34, 37, 120B, 201, 207, 217, 406, 409, 420 and 462 of the IPC for breach of the order dated 5th October, 2021 — Held — FIR did not show that the appellant-bank had induced anyone since inception — Bank being a juristic person, question of mens rea does not arise — There was nothing to show that the bank or its staff members had dishonestly induced someone deceived to deliver any property to any person, and that the mens rea existed at the time of such inducement — As such, the ingredients to attract the offence u/s. 420 IPC would not be available — There was not even an allegation of entrustment of the property which the bank has misappropriated or converted for its own use to the detriment of the Income-tax Officer — As such, the provisions of sections 406 and 409 IPC would also not be applicable — Since there was no entrustment of any property with the bank, the ingredients of section 462 IPC were also not applicable — Likewise, since the offences u/s. 206, 217 and 201 of the IPC requires mens rea, the ingredients of the said sections also would not be available against the bank — FIR/complaint also did not show that the bank and its officers acted with any common intention or intentionally co-operated in the commission of any alleged offences — As such, the provisions of sections 34, 37 and 120B of the IPC would also not be applicable — Thus, continuation of the criminal proceedings against the bank would cause undue hardship to the bank — Therefore, the impugned judgment and order of the High Court and the FIR were quashed and set aside.

In October, 2021, Smt. Priyanka Sharma, Dy. Director of IT (Inv.), Unit-2 (2), (being Respondent No. 5 in the proceedings before the Supreme Court), conducted a search and seizure operation in the case of several income-tax assessees including Shri Sunil Khemka (HUF), Smt. SunitaKhemka and Smt. ShivaniKhemka at the third floor of Khataruka Niwas, South Gandhi Maidan, Patna. The said search and seizure operation was conducted based on warrants of authorisation issued u/s. 132(1) of the IT Act, 1961 (IT Act’ for short). During the search, it was found that Smt. SunitaKhemka held a bank locker bearing No. 462 in the Bank (appellant-bank before the Supreme Court) at its Exhibition Road Branch, Patna.

On the basis of the said operation, on 5th October, 2021, an order u/s. 132(3) of the IT Act was served upon the Branch Manager of the appellant-bank at its Exhibition Road Branch, Patna by the concerned Authorised Officer. The order directed the said branch of the appellant-bank to stop the operation of any bank lockers, bank accounts and fixed deposits standing in the names of Shri Sunil Khemka (HUF), Smt. SunitaKhemka and Smt. ShivaniKhemka, among several other individuals and entities, with immediate effect. It was further clarified that contravention of the order would render the Branch Manager liable u/s. 275A of the IT Act and the same would result in penal action.

In compliance of the aforesaid order, the appellant-bank stopped the operation of the bank accounts, bank lockers and fixed deposits of the individuals/entities mentioned in the order. Further, on 7th October, 2021, the appellant-bank blocked the bank accounts of the income-tax assesses named in the order and also sealed the bank locker bearing No. 462 belonging to Smt. SunitaKhemka.

Subsequently, on 1st November, 2021, Respondent No. 5 issued an order to the Branch Manager of the appellant bank at its aforementioned branch thereby directing the appellant-bank to revoke the restraint put on the bank accounts of Smt. SunitaKhemka and three other persons, in view of the restraining order dated 5th October, 2021 passed under s. 132(3) of the IT Act. Accordingly, the said persons, including Smt. SunitaKhemka, were to be allowed to operate their bank accounts. The said order was received by the concerned Branch Manager of the appellant bank of 8th November, 2021 at 4:00 p.m. However, on 2nd November, 2021 at 11:24 a.m., an email was sent to the Branch Manager which contained the same order.

Thereafter, on 9th November, 2021, the concerned branch of the appellant-bank allowed Smt. SunitaKhemka to operate her bank locker bearing No. 462 and proper entries recording the operation of the said locker were made in the bank’s records.

Subsequently, on 20th November, 2021, Respondent No. 5 conducted a search and seizure operation at the bank locker in the concerned branch of the appellant-bank, wherein it was found that Smt. SunitaKhemka had operated her bank locker with the assistance of the concerned officers of the appellant bank. This was validated by the entry made in the bank’s records and the CCTV footage of the bank. Resultantly, the concerned officials of the aforementioned branch of the appellant-bank were found to have breached the restraining order dated 5th October, 2021.

Accordingly, on 20th November, 2021, Respondent No. 5 issued summons u/s. 131(1A) of the IT Act to Abha Sinha-Branch Manager, Abhishek Kumar-Branch Operation Manager and Deepak Kumar-Teller Authoriser being the concerned officials of the appellant-bank at its aforementioned branch.

The aforementioned officials attended the office of Respondent No. 5 and their statements were recorded wherein Abha Sinha and Abhishek Kumar stated that there had been an inadvertent error on the part of the bank officials and they had misinterpreted the order dt. 1st November, 2021. Since the said order pertained to the bank accounts of the concerned individuals including Smt. SunitaKhemka, the bank officials had misread the order to understand / assume that the revocation of the restraint extended to the bank lockers as well. Having misunderstood the order, the bank officials under a bona fide assumption that bank locker had been released as well, allowed Smt. SunitaKhemka to operate the same.

The statement of Smt. SunitaKhemka had also been recorded wherein she stated that her accountant Surendra Prasad, after speaking with Deepak Kumar, had informed her that the restraint on the aforementioned bank locker had been revoked and she could operate the said locker. This was specifically denied by Deepak Kumar in his statement.

Dissatisfied with the said explanations, Respondent No. 5 submitted a written complaint to the SHO, Gandhi Maidan Police Station seeking to register an FIR against Smt. SunitaKhemka and the concerned bank officials on the ground that the order dt. 5th October, 2021 had been violated owing to the unlawful operation of the aforementioned locker.

On the basis of the said complaint, on 22nd November, 2021, an FIR being Case No. 549 of 2021 came to be registered against Smt. SunitaKhemka and the staff of the appellant-bank at its aforementioned branch for the offences punishable under ss. 34, 37, 120B, 201, 207, 217, 406, 409, 420 and 462 of the IPC at the Gandhi Maidan Police Station, Patna.

Aggrieved by the registration of the FIR, the appellant-bank preferred a Criminal Writ Jurisdiction Case thereby invoking the inherent power of the High Court u/s. 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (hereinafter referred to as ‘Cr.P.C.’) for the quashing of the FIR. The High Court vide the impugned order dismissed the writ petition finding it to be devoid of merit.

Being aggrieved thereby, the appellant-bank filed the present appeal before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court observed that for bringing out the offence under the ambit of section 420 IPC, the FIR must disclose the following ingredients: (a) That the appellant-bank had induced anyone since inception; (b) That the said inducement was fraudulent or dishonest; and (c) That mens rea existed at the time of such inducement.

According to the Supreme Court, the appellant-bank being a juristic person the question of mens rea could not arise. However, even reading the FIR and the complaint at their face value, there was nothing to show that the appellant-bank or its staff members had dishonestly induced someone, deceived to deliver any property to any person, and that the mens rea existed at the time of such inducement. As such, the ingredients to attract the offence under s. 420 IPC would not be available.

The Supreme Court further observed that insofar as the provisions of section 409 IPC is concerned, the following ingredients will have to be made out: (a) That there has been any entrustment with the property, or with any dominion over property on a person in the capacity of a public servant or banker, etc.; (b) That the said person commits criminal breach of trust in respect of that property.

For bringing out the case under criminal breach of trust, it will have to be pointed out that a person, with whom entrustment of a property is made, has dishonestly misappropriated it, or converted it to his own use, or dishonestly used it, or disposed of that property.

According to the Supreme Court, in the present case, there was not even an allegation of entrustment of the property which the appellant-bank had misappropriated or converted for its own use to the detriment of the respondent No. 5. As such, the provisions of section 406 and 409 IPC would also not be applicable.

Since there was no entrustment of any property with the appellant-bank, the ingredients of section 462 IPC were also not applicable. Likewise, since the offences under sections 206, 217 and 201 of the IPC requires mens rea, the ingredients of the said sections also would not be available against the appellant-bank.

Further, according to the Supreme Court, the FIR / complaint also does not show that the appellant bank and its officers acted with any common intention or intentionally cooperated in the commission of any alleged offences. As such, the provisions of ss. 34, 37 and 120B of the IPC would also not be applicable.

According to the Supreme Court the present case would squarely fall within categories (2) and (3) of the law laid down by it in the case of State of Haryana &Ors. vs. Bhajan Lal &Ors. 1992 Supp. (1) SCC 335.

The Supreme Court referred to its following observations in the case of Bhajan Lal &Ors. (supra):

“102. In the backdrop of the interpretation of the various relevant provisions of the Code under Chapter XIV and of the principles of law enunciated by this Court in a series of decisions relating to the exercise of the extraordinary power under Art. 226 or the inherent powers under s. 482 of the Code which we have extracted and reproduced above, we give the following categories of cases by way of illustration wherein such power could be exercised either to prevent abuse of the process of any Court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice, though it may not be possible to lay down any precise, clearly defined and sufficiently channelised and inflexible guidelines or rigid formulae and to give an exhaustive list of myriad kinds of cases wherein such power should be exercised. (1) Where the allegations made in the first information report or the complaint, even if they are taken at their face value and accepted in their entirety do not prima facie constitute any offence or make out a case against the accused. (2) Where the allegations in the first information report and other materials, if any, accompanying the FIR do not disclose a cognizable offence, justifying an investigation by police officers under s. 156(1) of the Code except under an order of a Magistrate within the purview of s. 155(2) of the Code; (3) Where the uncontroverted allegations made in the FIR or complaint and the evidence collected in support of the same do not disclose the commission of any offence and make out a case against the accused; (4) Where, the allegations in the FIR do not constitute a cognizable offence but constitute only a non-cognizable offence, no investigation is permitted by a police officer without an order of a Magistrate as contemplated under s. 155(2) of the Code; (5) Where the allegations made in the FIR or complaint are so absurd and inherently improbable on the basis of which no prudent person can ever reach a just conclusion that there is sufficient ground for proceeding against the accused; (6) Where there is an express legal bar engrafted in any of the provisions of the Code or the concerned Act (under which a criminal proceeding is instituted) to the institution and continuance of the proceedings and/or where there is a specific provision in the Code or the concerned Act, providing efficacious redress for the grievance of the aggrieved party; and (7) Where a criminal proceeding is manifestly attended with mala fide and/or where the proceeding is maliciously instituted with an ulterior motive for wreaking vengeance on the accused and with a view to spite him due to private and personal grudge.103. We also give a note of caution to the effect that the power of quashing a criminal proceeding should be exercised very sparingly and with circumspection and that too in the rarest of rare cases; that the Court will not be justified in embarking upon an enquiry as to the reliability or genuineness or otherwise of the allegations made in the FIR or the complaint and that the extraordinary or inherent powers do not confer an arbitrary jurisdiction on the Court to act according to its whim or caprice.”

The Supreme Court was of the view that the continuation of the criminal proceedings against the appellant-bank would cause undue hardship to the appellant-bank.

In the result, the Supreme Court passed the following order – (i) The appeal is allowed; (ii) The impugned judgment and order dt. 8th June, 2022 passed by the learned Single Bench of the High Court of judicature at Patna in Criminal Writ Jurisdiction Case No. 1375 of 2021 is quashed and set aside; (iii) The First Information Report being Case No. 549 of 2021 registered at Gandhi Maidan Police Station, Patna on 22nd November, 2021, against certain officials of the appellant-bank working at its Exhibition Road Branch, Patna for the offences punishable under ss. 34, 37, 120B, 201, 206, 217, 406, 409, 420 and 462 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is also quashed and set aside qua the appellant-bank.

Merger of Intimation under Section 143(1) With Subsequent Assessment Order under Section 143(3)

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

The return of income filed by the assessee first gets processed by the CPC under section 143(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’), and an intimation is issued to the assessee. While processing the return of income, adjustments may be made to the total income as provided in section 143(1) for the reasons as specifically provided in clause (a) of section 143(1) such as arithmetical error, incorrect claim, etc.

Thereafter, a few of the returns are also selected for regular assessment, popularly referred to as scrutiny assessment, by issue of notice under section 143(2) of the Act. The consequential order of regular assessment is then passed under section 143(3) or 144, as the case may be.

In such cases, where the intimation is issued first and then the regular assessment order is passed, the issue often arises as to whether the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) merges with the subsequent assessment order passed. This issue is relevant mainly from the point of view of maintainability of the appeal filed against the intimation issued u/s. 143(1).

In few of the cases, the tribunals have taken a view that the appeal against the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) becomes infructuous in cases where the assessment order has been passed subsequently u/s. 143(3); and that the additions made in the intimation under section 143(1) can be challenged in the appeal against the order under section 143(3). As against this, in few cases, the tribunals have taken a view that the enhancement to the income arising from the adjustments made in an intimation issued u/s. 143(1) cannot be challenged in the appeal filed against the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3), and ought to have been challenged in an appeal against the intimation under section 143(1).

ARECA TRUST’S CASE

The issue had earlier come up for consideration before the Bangalore bench of the tribunal in the case of Areca Trust vs. CIT (A) – ITA No. 433/Bang/2023 dated 26th July, 2023.

In this case, the assessee trust filed its return of income for assessment year 2018-19 on 28th August, 2018 declaring total income at Nil. The return of income was processed by the AO/CPC under section 143(1) of the Act on 28.02.2020. In the said intimation, an amount of ₹23,29,62,417 was considered as income chargeable to tax @ 10 per cent at special rate under section 115BBDA of the Act. Thereafter, the assessment was selected for scrutiny and notice under section 143(2) of the Act was issued on 23rd September, 2019. The assessment under section 143(3) was completed by assessing the total income at the same amount i.e. ₹23,29,62,420/- as per the intimation issued under section 143(1) of the Act.

Being aggrieved by the order passed under section 143(3) of the Act, the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT (A). Before the CIT (A), it was contended that the assessee earned dividend income of ₹23,29,62,417 on mutual funds registered with SEBI and hence the exemption claimed under section 10(35) r.w.s. 10(23) of the Act was to be granted. Further, it was contended that the income was assessed at 10 per cent as per the intimation under section 143(1) of the Act, whereas in the assessment completed under section 143(3) of the Act, it was treated as business profit and taxed at 30 per cent as against the special rate of 10% under section 115BBDA of the Act.

The CIT(A) held that the assessee had filed an appeal against the assessment completed under section 143(3) of the Act, wherein no separate addition was made, but which only incorporated the adjustment made under section 143(1) of the Act. Therefore, it was concluded by the CIT(A) that appeal against the order passed under section 143(3) of the Act was not maintainable, and he did not adjudicate the appeal on merits. However, the CIT(A) directed the AO to dispose of the assessee’s rectification application dated 16.06.2020 against the order passed under section 143(1) of the Act. As regards the rate of tax, the CIT(A) directed the AO to tax the income of ₹23,29,62,420 at 10 per cent as per section 115BBDA of the Act, as was done in the intimation under section 143(1) of the Act. Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was partly allowed.

The assessee filed a further appeal to the tribunal and reiterated the submissions which were made before the CIT (A).

The tribunal held that section 246A specifically provided for an appeal against intimation issued under section 143(1) of the Act. In the case before it, total income had been assessed at ₹23,29,62,420 as per the intimation issued under section 143(1) of the Act. Therefore, according to the tribunal, the cause of action of the assessee arose from the intimation issued under section 143(1) of the Act and appeal ought to have been filed against the same. The assessment completed under section 143(3) of the Act merely adopted the assessed figures in the intimation order passed under section 143(3) of the Act. Therefore, no cause of action arose from the order passed under section 143(3) of the Act. Section 143(4) of the Act only mentioned that on completion of regular assessment under section 143(3) or 144 of the Act, the tax paid by assessee under section 143(1) of the Act shall be deemed to have been paid toward such regular assessment. That by itself did not mean there was a merger of the intimation under section 143(1) with that of regular assessment under section 143(3) / 144 (unless the issue had been discussed and adjudicated in regular assessment under section 143(3) / 144 of the Act).

Accordingly, the tribunal dismissed the appeal of the assessee, with the direction that a liberal approach may be taken for condonation of delay in filing the appeal against the intimation under section 143(1) if the same was filed by the assessee, since the assessee’s application for rectification of the intimation under section 143(1) of the Act had been filed within time and was pending for disposal.

A similar view has also been taken by the tribunal in the following cases –

  •  Epiroc Mining India Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (ITA No. 50/Pun/2024) dated 14.5.2024
  •  Global Entropolis (Vizag) Private Limited vs. AO, NFAC 2023 (8) TMI 81 – ITAT Chennai
  •  Orient Craft Ltd. vs. DCIT (2024) 158 taxmann.com 1124 (Delhi – Trib.)

SOUTH INDIA CLUB’S CASE

Recently, the issue had come up for consideration of the Delhi bench of the tribunalin the case of South India Club vs. Income-tax Officer [2024] 163 taxmann.com 479 (Delhi – Trib)[22-05-2024].

In this case, the assessee society had filed its return of income for assessment year 2018-19 on 30th March, 2019, wherein it had claimed application of income for charitable purposes of ₹6,01,35,500. The return was processed u/s 143(1)(a) of the Act, wherein the exemption claimed u/s. 11 was disallowed on the ground that the total income of the trust, without giving effect to the provisions of section 11 and 12, exceeded the maximum amount which was not chargeable to tax and, therefore, the audit report in Form 10B was required to be submitted along with the return of income. Since, the assessee had not filed its audit report in Form 10B electronically along with or before filing the return of income, exemption u/s 11 was not allowed. Aggrieved with the above order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT (A).

Before the CIT (A), the assessee submitted as under –

  •  The application for registration under Section 12A was submitted on 27th March, 2019. While this application was pending, the assessee filed its return of income for the Assessment Year 2018-19 on 30th March, 2019 claiming the exemption u/s. 11.
  • The intimation u/s.143(1) dated 10th November, .2019 was issued by the DCIT, CPC, wherein the exemption claimed u/s. 11 was denied as Form No. 10B was not e-filed in time.
  • The application for registration under Section 12A was rejected by CIT(E) vide his order dated 30th September, 2019. The order of the CIT(E) was appealed and the assessee received a favourable decision of Hon’ble ITAT dated 13th August, 2020 allowing its appeal and directing the CIT (Exemption) to grant registration u/s 12AA.
  • Consequent to the ITAT’s order, the CIT (Exemptions) granted registration by order dated 5th January, 2021.
  •  It was due to the reason that the registration was not granted on the date when the return of income was filed for the year under consideration, that the assessee could not submit the audit report in Form No. 10B.
  • When the CIT (Exemptions) granted registration on 05.01.2021 the income tax scrutiny assessment for the assessment year 2018-19 was pending which was completed on 8th February, 2021 denying the exemption claimed u/s. 11. The appeal was filed before the CIT (A), NFAC and the same was yet pending.
  • On the basis of the above, the assessee pleaded that when the CIT (Exemptions) granted registration to it w.e.f. Assessment year 2019-20 in accordance with sub-section 2 of Section 12A, on the basis of the application filed in March 2019, automatically the second proviso to that sub section had become applicable, granting the benefit of exemption under section 11 and 12 for pending assessments of earlier assessment years, subject only to the condition that there has been no change in objects and activities in the intervening period.
  • Since there was no change in the objects and activities of the appellant during the financial year concerned, the assessee claimed that the benefit of exemption u/s. 11 and 12 was required to be granted, and the second proviso did not prescribe any other pre-condition to become eligible for the exemption.
  • The assessee also took an alternative plea of non-taxability of the amount received during the year on the basis of the principle of mutuality.

The CIT (A) took the view that the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) merged with the subsequent order passed u/s. 143(3) and, therefore, the appeal on this issue had become infructuous. In addition to this, the CIT (A) also held that the filing of Form 10B before the filing of return was compulsory to grant exemption u/s 11 even in a case where the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) was considered. On that basis, the CIT (A) held that the exemption could not be granted even in an appeal against the order passed u/s. 143(3) without there being any application for condonation of delay by the assessee in respect of filing of Form 10B.Against this order of the CIT (A), the assessee filed an appeal before the tribunal.
Before the tribunal, apart from contending that the exemption u/s. 11 ought to have been granted to it in view of the Second Proviso to Section 12A, the assessee also submitted that once an assessment was selected for scrutiny; notice u/s 143(2) had been issued and an order had been passed u/s 143(3), the intimation u/s 143(1) merged into the assessment order and lost its standalone existence. On this basis, it was contended that intimation u/s. 143(1) and consequential demand should be quashed. The assessee relied upon the following decisions in support of this contention —

  •  ACIT vs. GPT-Bhartia JV (I.T.A No. 13/Gty/ 2022 dated 9th June, 2023)
  •  Dura Roof Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (I.T.A No. 49/Gty/ 2022 dated 14th June, 2023)
  •  M P Madhyam vs. DCIT (I.T.A No. 424 & 426/Ind/2022 dated 30th August, 2023)

On behalf of the revenue, it was argued that there was no decision of the jurisdictional High Court available with respect to the point that upon issuing of notice u/s 143(2) of the Act, passing of the order u/s 143(1) of the Act was impermissible. Further, regarding the issue of pending assessment at the time of granting of registration, it was agreed that the assessment was pending at the time of grant of registration. However, it was submitted that whether other conditions for claiming deductions u/s 11 were fulfilled or not, had to be verified.

The Delhi bench of the tribunal held that the validity of the intimation issued u/s 143(1) was limited to mere intimation of correctness and accuracy of the income declared in ROI and its accuracy based on the information submitted along with the ROI. It did not carry the legitimacy of an assessment. When the return of income was assessed under the regular assessment, then it lost its individuality and merged with the regular assessment. The tribunal concurred with the view of the CIT (A) that the intimation u/s 143(1) merged with the order passed u/s 143(3) of the Act and the appeal against the said intimation became infructuous. However, it was further held that the CIT (A) should have stopped with the above findings and should not have proceeded to decide the issue on merits, because it was brought to his knowledge that the assessee had filed an appeal against the regular assessment order. Therefore, he had travelled beyond his mandate. The issue of allowability of section 11 was already considered in the regular assessment and that issue was already in appeal before another appellate authority. Therefore, reviewing the same by the CIT(A) in an appeal against the intimation u/s. 143(1), which had become infructuous, was uncalled for. With respect to the applicability of the Second Proviso to Section 12A, the tribunal held that this issue has to be raised before the FAA in the appeal against regular assessment passed u/s 143(3).

Accordingly, it was held that the intimation passed u/s 143(1) had merged with the regular assessment passed u/s 143(3), and it did not have legs to stand on its own, once the regular assessment proceedings were initiated.
A similar view has also been taken by the tribunal in the following cases –

  •  National Stock Exchange of India Ltd. vs. DCIT (ITA No. 732/Mum/2023)
  • Lokhandwala Foundation vs. ITO (ITA No. 1702/Mum/2020)

OBSERVATIONS

The issue under consideration is whether, in a case where the regular assessment has been made, the intimation issued under section 143(1) still survives, or it loses its existence and merges with the assessment order passed after the issue of intimation.

There is no express provision under the Act providing for such merger of the intimation issued under section 143(1) with the assessment order passed subsequently either under section 143(3) or under section 144. However, there are several provisions under the Act which need to be considered for the purpose of deciding the issue under consideration, which are discussed below:

  •  Firstly, the processing of the return and issuing intimation under section 143(1) is not expressly prohibited in a case where the notice has already been issued under section 143(2) selecting the return for the purpose of scrutiny assessment. In fact, in sub-section (1D), as it stood prior to its amendment by the Finance Act, 2017, it was provided that the processing of a return shall not be necessary, where a notice has been issued to the assessee under sub-section (2). However, by virtue of the amendment made by the Finance Act, 2017, the provisions of sub-section (1D) have been made inapplicable to the returns pertaining to AY 2017-18 and thereafter. Therefore, the Act provides for both i.e. processing of the return of income as well as making the assessment, if that is required in a particular case. Had it been intended that the intimation issued under section 143(1) should get merged with the assessment order passed subsequently, then the law would not have provided for processing of the return of income at all in a case where the case had already been selected for the scrutiny assessment and that too on a mandatory basis.
  •  Section 246 and section 246A provide for the list of orders against which the appeal can be filed by the assessee. Here, both the orders i.e. the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) and the assessment order passed u/s. 143(3) or 144 have been listed separately. Therefore, it is clear that an appeal can be filed before the Joint Commissioner (Appeals) or Commissioner (Appeals) against both; intimation as well as the assessment order. For filing the appeal against the intimation issued u/s. 143(1), section 246A does not differentiate between cases where the assessment order has been passed subsequently or not. Therefore, technically, the provisions permit filing of the appeal against the intimation issued under section 143(1), even in a case where the appeal has already been filed against the assessment order, if the delay in filing that appeal is condonable.
  •  An intimation under section 143(1) may not have been appealable at a time when no adjustments were permitted under section 143(1)(a). Now that such adjustments are permitted, the right of appeal has been restored, which indicates that such adjustments have to be agitated separately in appeal.
  •  There is no provision in the law for merger of the two appeals, if two appeals are filed separately against the intimation under section 143(1) and against the assessment order under section 143(3). Both appeals have to be adjudicated separately. Withdrawal of any one of the appeals is possible only with the permission of the Commissioner (Appeals).
  •  In civil law, the doctrine of merger is a common law doctrine that is rooted in the idea of maintenance of the decorum of the hierarchy of courts and tribunals. The doctrine is based on the simple reasoning that there cannot be, at the same time, more than one operative order governing the same subject matter. As stated by the Supreme Court in Kunhayammed vs. State of Kerala, (2000) 6 SCC 359, “Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a court, tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of the law”. However, as clarified by the Supreme Court in Supreme Court in State of Madras vs. Madurai Mills Co. Ltd.(1967) 1 SCR 732, “… doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of rigid and universal application and it cannot be said that wherever there are two orders, one by the inferior tribunal and the other by a superior tribunal, passed in an appeal on revision, there is a fusion of merger of two orders irrespective of the subject-matter of the appellate or revisional order and the scope of the appeal or revision contemplated by the particular statute. In our opinion, the application of the doctrine depends on the nature of the appellate or revisional order in each case and the scope of the statutory provisions conferring the appellate or revisionaljurisdiction.”In this case, both the appeals are before the same level of appellate authority, and in the absence of any specific provision, the doctrine of merger of appeals should not apply.
  •  Further, the adjustments made to the returned income while processing the return under section 143(1) and the additions or disallowances made while passing the assessment order are treated differently in so far as the levy of penalty under section 270A is concerned. The former is not considered to be under-reporting of income by the assessee, whereas the latter is considered to be under-reporting of income. Therefore, the enhancement made to the total income of the assessee by way of adjustments as permissible under section 143(1) does not lead to levy of penalty under section 270A. However, the enhancement made to the total income of the assessee by virtue of the assessment order might result in levy of a penalty under section 270A, if other relevant conditions are satisfied. Section 270A(2)(a) provides that a case where the income assessed is greater than the income determined in the return processed under section 143(1)(a) is to be regarded as under-reporting. If a view is to be taken that the intimation issued under section 143(1) gets merged with the assessment order and it loses its existence, then the provisions of section 270A(2)(a)may become redundant.
  •  Also, the intimation issued under section 143(1) is deemed to be a notice of demand under section 156 in a case where any sum is determined to be payable by the assessee under that intimation. Therefore, the assessee is required to make the payment of the said demand within a period of thirty days as provided in section 220. In case if such demand has not been paid within a period of thirty days, then the consequences as provided under the Act like levy of interest under section 220(2) or levy of penalty under section 221 etc. would follow. If a view is to be taken that the intimation issued under section 143(1) gets merged with the assessment order and loses its existence, then it might be possible to also argue that the assessee will not be liable for any consequences that would have otherwise arisen for non-payment of the demand raised in the intimation within a period of thirty days.

Considering the above, it appears that the better view is that the intimation issued under section 143(1) will not lose its existence, even in a case where the assessment order has been passed subsequently. It is only the demand raised vide that intimation, if it has remained outstanding, which will get merged with the demand raised consequent to the passing of the assessment order, wherein the tax liability will be recomputed based on the income assessed finally. Therefore, appeals filed against intimations under section 143(1)(a) would have to be decided independent of the appeals against assessment orders under section 143(1)(a).

It is therefore advisable to file an appeal against adjustments under section 143(1)(a), which according to the assessee are not tenable, and such appeal should be filed independent of whether assessment proceedings under section 143(2) are initiated or not. Such adjustments need not again be the subject matter of the appeal against the assessment order under section 143(3) though retained in that assessment. Of course, as a matter of abundant precaution, till such time as the CBDT does not clarify its views on this matter, the assessee may still choose to take up such matters in the appeal, particularly if the issue has been discussed and has been examined during the assessment proceedings

Article 11 of India-China DTAA — Interest received by China Development Bank qualified for exemption under Article 11(3) since, in fact, it was a financial institution owned by the Government of China.

11 [2024] 165 taxmann.com 603 (Delhi – Trib.)

Income Tax Officer vs. Tata Teleservice Ltd

ITA No: 1393 (Delhi) of 2023

A.Y.: 2016-17

Dated: 21st August, 2024

Article 11 of India-China DTAA — Interest received by China Development Bank qualified for exemption under Article 11(3) since, in fact, it was a financial institution owned by the Government of China.

FACTS

For FY 2015-16, the assessee had made interest payments to M/s. China Development Bank (‘CDB’), a tax resident of China without deducting taxes under Section 195. As per the assessee, CDB was wholly controlled by the Government of China. Therefore, in terms of source rule exemption as provided in Article 11(3) of India-China DTAA, the interest received by CDB was not taxable in India.

While the appeal related to AY 2016-17, in 2018, India and China subsequently executed a Protocol to DTAA, and the amended Protocol explicitly mentioned that ‘CDB’ was a qualified entity for Article 11(3).

According to the TDS officer, CDB was not eligible for exemption since the Government of China held only a 36.45 per cent stake in CDB. Therefore, he treated the assessee as an ‘assessee in default’ for not deducting taxes on interest payments. The officer did not grant an exemption since the protocol amendment entered into effect only on 17th July, 2019. The CIT(A) held that CDB qualified for the benefit of exemption.

Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the Department appealed to ITAT.

HELD

  •  The Ministry of Finance of China directly held 36.45 per cent stake in CDB. Four other entities, which were controlled by other state-owned entities or limited liability companies or funds established under the law of the People’s Republic of China held the remaining stake in CDB.
  •  Audited financial statements of CDB clearly showed that entities that owned CDB were funded either by the Administration of Foreign Exchange or the State Council of China.
  •  The erstwhile Article 11(3) provided the benefit to financial institutions wholly owned by the Government of China, and such provision was expansive in nature.
  •  The newly inserted Article 11(3) vide Notification No.S.O.2562(E)(No.54/2019/F.No.503/02/2008-FTD-II dated 17th July, 2019) provides similar benefit to financial institutions.
  •  Further, the protocol amended vide notification dated 17th July, 2019 specifically included CDB in the list of financial institutions eligible for benefit under Article 11(3).
  •  Under the existing and amended Article 11(3), CDB was a financial institution wholly owned by the Chinese Government and, therefore, it was entitled to the benefit of exemption. Hence, the Assessee could not be treated as ‘assessee in default’.

Article 12 of India-US DTAA — Sincereceipts for providing access to online courses and conduct of examinations did not satisfy ‘make available’ condition, it was not taxable as fees for included services.

10 [2024] 165 taxmann.com 683 (Delhi – Trib.)

Coursera Inc vs. ACIT (International Taxation)

ITA No: 2416 & 3646 (Delhi) of 2023

A.Y.: 2020-21 & 2021-22

Dated: 21st August, 2024

Article 12 of India-US DTAA — Sincereceipts for providing access to online courses and conduct of examinations did not satisfy ‘make available’ condition, it was not taxable as fees for included services.

FACTS

The Assessee, a tax resident of the USA, provided access to online courses and degrees offered by educational institutions and universities through its global online learning platform. The Assessee earned fees for enabling Indian institutions to access its platform. According to the assessee, in terms of Article 12 of India-USA DTAA, such fees were not taxable in India, either as royalties or fees for included services (‘FIS’).

According to the AO, the receipts were in nature of FIS under Article 12(4) due to the following assertions:

  • The services rendered were not confined to ‘content service’ but included a range of user-specific services that involved significant human intervention.
  • Training element was involved in navigating the features of the platform.
  • Since the assessee was not an education institution, the exception made in Article 12(5) was not applicable.

DRP directed the AO to verify the specific agreement and pass a speaking order. In his order passed pursuant to directions of DRP, the AO treated the receipts as FIS.

Being aggrieved, the assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

  •  The educational institutions create the courses and conduct examinations, not the Assessee. The competition certificate issued by the university bears the logo of the Assessee.
  •  The Assessee only provides access to the content created by the universities and does not create any content on their own. Upon payment of fees, the users access the content/study materials through the Assessee’s online platform. The Assessee acts as a facilitator between the universities and users. Hence, the Assessee was an aggregation service provider. The Assessee does not render any technical services while providing users with access.
  •  The AO brought no evidence on record to prove that the Assessee rendered technical services. Even assuming that services are technical in nature, the same could not be regarded as FIS unless the ‘make available’ condition was satisfied. Mere customisation of the webpage does not regard the service as technical. The burden was on the revenue to prove that the assessee had transferred technical knowledge, know-how, or skill as envisaged under Article 12(4).
  •  Relying on the rulings in the case of Elsevier Information Systems GmbH vs. Dy. CIT (IT) [2019] 106 taxmann.com 401 (Mumbai) andRelx Inc. ACIT [2023] 149 taxmann.com 78 (Delhi – Trib.), the ITAT held that receipts towards granting of access to data / information through the platform are towards ‘copyrighted article’. Hence, the same cannot be regarded as royalty.
  •  Further, providing access to data to users of the database does not involve any human intervention and, hence, cannot be regarded as fees for technical services as held by the Supreme Court in Bharati Cellular Ltd 330 ITR 239.

S. 17(3) — Voluntary severance compensation received by an employee for loss of employment could be regarded as capital receipt not subject to tax as profits in lieu of salary under section 17(3).

66 (2024) 168 taxmann.com 369(Ahd. Trib)

Sudhakar Ratan Shanker Gautam vs. ITO

ITA No.: 1033(Ahd) of 2024

A.Y.: 2018-19

Dated: 3rd October, 2024

S. 17(3) — Voluntary severance compensation received by an employee for loss of employment could be regarded as capital receipt not subject to tax as profits in lieu of salary under section 17(3).

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, was employed with “Y” which was subsequently acquired by “E”. Following this acquisition, the assessee’s employment was terminated on 26th October, 2017 on account of redundancy, and he received a severance compensation of ₹15,50,905. This amount was claimed as a capital receipt not chargeable to tax in the return of income filed for AY 2018-19 on 31st August, 2018.

The AO treated this amount as “profits in lieu of salary” under section 17(3) and added it to the total income of the assessee. On appeal, CIT(A) observed that since the compensation received by the assessee was related to the termination of employment, it should be treated as “profits in lieu of salary” under section 17(3)(i), thereby confirming the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that–

(a) Gujarat High Court [in Arunbhai R. Naik vs. ITO, (2015) 64 taxmann.com 216 (Guj)] and various ITAT decisions have consistently held that voluntary severance payments made without contractual obligation are capital receipts and not subject to tax as profits in lieu of salary.

(b) The severance payment received by the assessee was paid for the loss of employment and not for past services. It is consistently held that payments, when not tied to services rendered, are capital in nature and not taxable as salary income. Since the employer had no obligation to pay further amounts upon termination, the compensation should be deemed a capital receipt and thus not taxable under Section 17(3).

(c) Under section 17(3), “profits in lieu of salary” is a key provision that seeks to tax certain payments received by an employee in connection with the termination of employment. On the other hand, capital receipts, especially in the context of employment, typically relate to compensation for the loss of a source of income and are generally not taxable, unless specified. This distinction is critical in determining whether a severance payment or other termination-related compensation is subject to tax as salary income or can be treated as a non-taxable capital receipt.

(d) Section 56(2)(xi), w.e.f. 1st April, 2019, deals with compensation received or receivable in connection with the termination or modification of terms of employment contracts. However, this amendment applies to assessment years starting from AY 2019-20 onwards and not to the case in question.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that severance compensation received by the assessee was a capital receipt, not chargeable to tax under section 17(3).

Where the assessee was not only for the benefit of its members but also for benefit of insurance consumers from the general public, it was regarded as engaged in charitable activity in the nature of advancement of object of general public utility and therefore, principle of mutuality could not be applied. Where participation in the annual meet of the assessee was free of cost, it was not a case of rendering of any service for a fee and therefore, proviso to section 2(15) did not apply.

65 Insurance Brokers Association of India vs. ITO

ITA No. 3955 & 3958 / Mum / 2024

A.Ys.: 2016-17 & 2018-19

Date of Order: 13th November, 2024

Section 2(15), principle of mutuality

Where the assessee was not only for the benefit of its members but also for benefit of insurance consumers from the general public, it was regarded as engaged in charitable activity in the nature of advancement of object of general public utility and therefore, principle of mutuality could not be applied.

Where participation in the annual meet of the assessee was free of cost, it was not a case of rendering of any service for a fee and therefore, proviso to section 2(15) did not apply.

FACTS

The assessee was a company registered under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 in 2001 and was registered as a charitable organization under section 12A of the Act. For AY 2016-17 and 2018-19, the assessee filed its return of income claiming exemption under section 11 of the Act.

For AY 2016-17 and AY 2018-19, the case of the assessee was selected for scrutiny. Relying on Circular No. 11/2008 dated 19th December, 2008, the AO held that the assessee cannot claim exemption under section 11 of the Act since 1st proviso to section 2(15) of the Act was applicable and also held that the principle of mutuality was applicable in assessee’s case and brought to tax the interest income and other income.

CIT(A) confirmed the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

On the question of applying the principle of mutuality, the Tribunal observed that-

(a) It was not in dispute that the assessee was a charitable organisation since it was registered under section 12A of the Act and that the tax department till now had not held the assessee to be otherwise.

(b) A perusal of the financial statements of the assessee showed that the income consisted of subscription fee from members, sponsorship fees for annual event, and bank interest. Further, a perusal of the brochure of the annual event showed that the event was held for the benefit of insurance consumers and brokers and that the events were conducted without collecting any fees.

(c) The assessee was not only for the benefit of members but was also for the benefit of insurance consumers from general public and therefore, the assessee could be regarded as engaged in charitable activity in the nature of advancement of object of general public utility.

Therefore, the Tribunal held that the principle of mutuality was not applicable in the assessee’s case.

On the question of the applicability of proviso to section 2(15), the Tribunal observed that the income of the assessee did not contain any revenue from any activity in the nature of trade, commerce or business. Further, the participation in the annual meet for which the sponsorship fees was received was free of cost and therefore, it could not be held to be a service for a fee for rendering services. Relying on observations of the Supreme Court in ACIT vs. Ahmadabad Urban Development Authority, (2022) 143 taxmann.com 278 (SC), the Tribunal held that the AO was not correct in denying the benefit of section 11 by invoking proviso to section 2(15).

Accordingly, the appeals of the assessee were allowed.

Ss. 12AB, 2(15) – Where the objects and activities of the trust showed that its charitable activities were for the general public at large and not only for the alumni and faculty of the university, it was entitled to registration under section 12AB.

64 (2024) 168 taxmann.com 526 (AhdTrib)

Indus Alumni Association vs. CIT(E)

ITA No.: 916 (Ahd) of 2024

A.Y.: N.A.

Dated: 4th November, 2024

Ss. 12AB, 2(15) – Where the objects and activities of the trust showed that its charitable activities were for the general public at large and not only for the alumni and faculty of the university, it was entitled to registration under section 12AB.

FACTS

The assessee was a trust registered under Gujarat Public Trusts Act, 1950. The main objects of the trust were educational, medical relief and charitable in nature. It was created for the benefit and advancement of the whole mankind of the society without discrimination of caste, creed, sex and religion of any person.

The assessee obtained provisional approval for registration under section 12AB in 2022 and thereafter, applied for final registration under section 12AB by filing Form 10AB on 23rd September, 2023.

After considering the details filed by the assessee, CIT(E) held that the objects of the trust were for the benefit / welfare / interest of the members of the association only, namely alumni and faculty members of Indus University and not for the benefit of the public at large. Accordingly, the trust does not fall within the ambit of charitable purposes as defined under section 2(15) and is not eligible for registration under section 12AB.

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(E), the trust filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) Looking into the objects of the trust, it cannot be held that the assessee had been formed only for the benefit of a particular set of public, namely alumni and faculty members of the University.

(b) Perusal of the activities carried out by the trust, namely — food donation, blood donation, women empowerment, English learning, awareness of ecological concept, new library for the under privileged school children in a village clearly demonstrate that the trust was not doing charitable activities only for the alumni members of the University but for the general public at large.

(c) In any case, this aspect should be considered at the time of grant of exemption under section 11 and the provisions of section 13 should not be invoked at time of grant of registration under section 12AB.

The Tribunal also observed that this view was supported by decision of co-ordinate bench in Parul University Alumni Association vs. CIT(E),(2024) 162 taxmann.com 98 (AhdTrib).

Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed and the impugned order was set aside with a direction to CIT(E) to grant final registration under section 12AB to the assessee-trust.

Annual value of vacant flats held as stock-in-trade is not chargeable as `Income from House Property’.

63 Palm Grove Beach Hotels Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA No. 3858/Mum./2024

A.Y. : 2017-18

Date of Order : 11th October, 2024

Sections: 22, 23

Annual value of vacant flats held as stock-in-trade is not chargeable as `Income from House Property’.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of development of housing complexes, industrial parks and running five star hotels at Kodaikanal, e-filed the return of income for A.Y. 2017-18, declaring total income to be a loss of ₹1,22,20,66,420/-. While assessing the total income of the assessee under section 143(3) of the Act, the Assessing Officer (AO) inter alia taxed deemed annual letting value of finished property held in stock.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before learned CIT(A), who partly allowed the assessee’s appeal by reducing the estimated annual value to 2.5 per cent as against 8.5 per cent determined by the AO in the assessment order.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal, at the outset, observed that the main point for consideration is as to whether the flats held by the assessee as stock-in-trade, be treated as income from house property. The Tribunal noted that the issue is no more res integra and that in this connection the observations made by the Bombay High Court in the case of PCIT, Central 1 vs. Classique Associates Ltd (order dated 28th January, 2019) are important. The Tribunal considered the observations of the court in paragraphs 3 to 5 of the order of the Bombay High Court. The Bombay High Court has, in its decision, considered the ratio of the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Neha Builders (296 ITR 661) and of the Apex Court in Chennai Properties and Investments Ltd. vs. CIT (377 ITR 673). The Tribunal having reproduced the observations of the Bombay High Court found it futile to reproduce the observations of the Gujarat High Court and the Supreme Court. It also observed that the co-ordinate bench in the assessee’s own case by common order dated 1st July, 2021 passed in ITA NO. 1973/MUM/2019 and 1974/MUM/2019 for A.Y. 2014-15 and 2015-16 respectively.

The allotment letter issued by developer is to be construed as an ‘agreement’ for the purpose of section 56(2)(vii)(b). Consequently, benefit of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b) will be available and valuation of the property as on the date of allotment letter will need to be considered and not the valuation as on the date of conveyance.

62 Tamojit Das vs. ITO

ITA No. 1200/Kol./2024

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of Order: 3rd October, 2024

Sections :56(2)(vii)(b)

The allotment letter issued by developer is to be construed as an ‘agreement’ for the purpose of section 56(2)(vii)(b). Consequently, benefit of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b) will be available and valuation of the property as on the date of allotment letter will need to be considered and not the valuation as on the date of conveyance.

FACTS

In the course of assessment proceedings, for AY 2015-16, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee has purchased a residential flat jointly with his wife Smt. Gargi Das through Deed of Conveyance, which was registered on 28th October, 2014 before District Sub-Registrar-II, South 24-Parganas. The value of the said transaction was declared by the assessee at ₹24,05,715/- as against stamp duty valuation of ₹38,74,500/-.

When assessee was confronted with, then the assessee submitted that he has booked this flat with Greenfield City Project LLP and first payment was made on 08.06.2010. In support of his contention, he filed (i) copy of receipt from Greenfield City Project LLP, (ii) letter of allotment by Greenfield City Project LLP dated 10.06.2010 and (iii) copy of typical floor plan purported to be allotment of flat to the assessee.

The AO did not equate the allotment letter and payment of the installment by the assessee through account payee cheque as an agreement contemplated in proviso appended to sub-Clause (2) of section 56(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. He made the addition of the difference between the transaction value and the stamp duty value i.e. ₹14,68,785/- as a deemed gift within the meaning of section 56(2)(vii)(b)(ii) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an application under section 154 wherein he emphasised that the letter given by the developer demonstrating the booking of the flat amounts to an agreement. The AO rejected the application.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the dispute is whether the allotment letter by the developer is to be construed as an agreement or not. The Tribunal perused the copy of the allotment letter. It also noted that the payments of amounts starting from 1st June, 2010 have been made through account payee cheques and that part payment has been made before issuance of the allotment letter.

The Tribunal held the interpretation by both the lower authorities to be incorrect. It held that the allotment letter is be equated to an agreement to sale. The agreement is not required to be a registered document. The only requirement in the law is that agreement should be followed by payments through banking channel, so that its veracity cannot be doubted. It observed that in the present case, the assessee has established the genuineness of the allotment letter by showing that payments were made through account payee cheques. Therefore, the valuation date for the purpose of any deemed gift is the date when first payment was made, in this case it happened around June, 2010. It held that the AO has erred in taking the valuation of the property as on 28th October, 2014.

Section 148 — Reassessment — On deceased person — Not permissible

23 Mary Gene Gracious vs. ITO Ward 20(1)(1), Mumbai
[WP(L) 3460 OF 2024
Dated: 10th December, 2024, (Bom-HC)

Section 148 — Reassessment — On deceased person — Not permissible

The Petitioner challenged the action as resorted by the respondents against Mr. Gene Gracious, the husband of the petitioner by issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act dated 29th July, 2022, which was preceded by a notice issued under Section 148A(b) dated 26th May, 2022, and an order passed thereon under Section 148A(d) dated 29thJuly, 2022.

The case of the petitioner is that the impugned notice under Section 148 and the action prior thereto as initiated by respondent no.1 are non-est and illegal in as much as Mr. Gene Gracious against whom these notices were issued, passed away on 09 November 2016. A Death Certificate issued by Department of Health, Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai.

The Petitioner relying on various decisions contended that the petition is required to be granted as respondent no. 1 could not have resorted to impugned action by issuance of notices underSection 148A(b) and 148, and passing an order under Section 148A(d), against a deceased person.

The Court observed that the Supreme Court has held it to be the first principle of civilised jurisprudence that a person against whom any action is sought to be taken or whose right or interests are being affected should be given reasonable opportunity to defend himself (UMC Technologies Private Limited vs. Food Corporation of India &Anr., Civil Appeal No. 3687 of 2020, decided on 16th November, 2020). This basic jurisprudential principle becomes applicable when any action of such nature was being initiated against Mr. Gene Gracious. Once Mr. Gene Gracious passed away, there was no question of his defending such action or being heard so as to accord any sanctity to such order, and the consequential notice under Section 148 of the Act. The entire action under clause (b) and clause (d) of Section 148A of the Act were of no consequence being non-est. In this situation, even the legal heirs cannot be bound by such order which is non-est, void ab initio.

Also, the scheme of provisions of Section 148A read with Section 148 as applicable in the facts of the present case (AY 2015-16) rests on a foundation that no notice under Section 148 could have been issued without a prior show-cause notice being issued to an assessee. Further, a hearing would need to be granted to the assessee on such show cause notice and thereafter an order could be passed. All this is certainly not possible to be undertaken against a deceased person and / or even against a non-existing entity [refer Principal Commissioner of Income-Tax, New Delhi vs. Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. [2019] 107 taxmann.com 375 (SC).]

Once such mandatory legal compliance itself could not be achieved, on such sole ground, the notice issued under Section 148 preceded by earlier actions is required to be held to be non-est and void ab initio. The department cannot maintain issuance of the notice as impugned to a deceased person.

In the present case, admittedly, the concerned assessee Mr. Gene Gracious passed away on 9th November, 2016, the show cause notice under Section 148A(b) of the IT Act was issued on 26th May, 2022 and an order thereon was passed on 29th July, 2022 under Section 148A(d), as also the impugned notice under Section 148 was also issued on 29th July, 2022. All this has happened after the said assessee, Mr. Gene Gracious had passed away.

In view of the above, the petition deserves to be allowed.

Deduction in respect of the broken period interest — securities held as stock in trade: Expenditure incurred by the assessee on the issue of Fully Convertible Debentures.

22 HDFC Bank Ltd. (formerly, Housing Development Finance Corporation Ltd.) vs. The DCIT Spl. Range – 15
[ITXA No. 58 OF 2006]
Dated: 13th November, 2024. (Bom) (HC) [Arising from ITAT order dated 12th September, 2005]
Assessment Year: 1993-94

Deduction in respect of the broken period interest — securities held as stock in trade: Expenditure incurred by the assessee on the issue of Fully Convertible Debentures.

The appellant is inter alia engaged in the business of providing long term finance in the course of which, various securities are held as stock in trade. These securities are purchased from time to time, which carry interest. The purchase price includes the component of interest for the broken period. The securities which remain unsold at the end of the year are shown in the closing stock at cost. However, while computing the income, the assessee claims deduction on account of interest for the broken period in respect of unsold securities since according to assessee, the entire interest income accrues to the assessee on the fixed date falling after the end of previous year. However, the assessee offered the interest income in respect of such securities in the next year either when the securities were sold or when interest is received.

The Assessing Officer rejected the claim of the assessee and disallowed the sum. The reason for disallowance was that broken period interest formed part of the price of the asset purchased, which has already been debited to Profit & Loss Account and, therefore, question of allowing deduction did not arise in view of the Supreme Court judgment in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner of Income-tax [1991] 187 ITR 541 (SC).

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) also agreed with the Assessing Officer and confirmed the order passed by the Assessing Officer. Against such order passed by the CIT(A), the appellant carried the matter to the Tribunal. The Tribunal also did not accept the contentions as urged on behalf of the assessee that the interest on securities is taxable as business income, since securities are held as stock in trade. As the interest paid on purchase of securities would be on revenue account, the same would entitle the assessee to claim a revenue loss, being the consistent accounting method followed by the assessee. The Tribunal, while rejecting the assessee’s contention, was of the view that when the securities are purchased by the appellant along with interest thereon, the price paid becomes the cost of the asset which is to be debited to Profit & Loss Account. The Tribunal observed that the assessee debited the entire cost of the purchase including broken period interest to Profit & Loss Account as per the commercial practice. Hence, if the security is sold, then profit would form part of the Profit & Loss Account as sales would be credited. It was observed that when such security was not sold, then as per the settled principle of accountancy, it has to be shown in the closing stock either at cost or market price whichever is lower. There is no other method of accounting for computing business profit. The Tribunal rested its view referring to the decision of Supreme Court in Chainrup Sampatram vs. Commissioner of Income-tax [1953] 24 ITR 481 (SC). It is for such reason the Tribunal was of the considered opinion that the question of allowing any deduction separately did not arise.

On further appeal, the Assessee relied on the orders passed by the Division Bench of this Court in American Express International Banking Corporation vs. Commissioner of Income-tax [2002] 258 ITR 601 (Bombay) wherein similar questions as the present questions were raised for the consideration of the Division Bench. The key issue which fell for consideration there was with regard to the correct treatment of the broken period interest and whether the broken period interest (net) paid by the assessee at the time of purchase of securities was a part of the capital costs of the investment. The Court considered the Revenue’s contention that the payment for the broken period interest (net) cannot be claimed as a revenue expenditure. It was the assessee’s contention that the banks were valuing the securities/interest held by it at the end of each year and offered to tax, the appreciation in their value by way of profits/interest earned. In answering such question, the Court considered the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijaya Bank Ltd. (supra), and the question was answered in favour of the assessee.

The decision of the Division Bench in American Express International Banking Corporation (supra) was assailed before the Supreme Court in the proceedings of Special Leave to Appeal (Civil) CC.301-303/2004, which came to be rejected by an order dated 27th January, 2004.

The Assessee further relied on the order passed by the Hon Court in ITA No. 278 of 1997 in the case of Citi Bank N.A. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax wherein similar issues had arisen for consideration of the Court, when the Court answered the questions in favour of the assessee. The order dated 16 April, 2003 passed by the Division Bench was carried to the Supreme Court in the proceedings of Civil Appeal No. 1549 of 2006 in Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Citi Bank N.A. The Supreme Court rejected the Revenue’s appeal by its judgment dated 12 August, 2008 where the Supreme Court, while referring to the decision in Vijaya Bank Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore (supra), as also the decision in case of American Express (supra), rejected the Revenue’s appeal. Similar view was taken by the Supreme Court in dismissing another appeal filed by the Revenue in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Citi Bank N.A., for AY 1982-83.

The Court’s attention was also drawn to a recent decision of the Supreme Court in case of Bank of Rajasthan Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-tax (2024) 167 taxmann.com 430 (SC) wherein the Supreme Court affirmed the view taken by this Court in Citi Bank N.A. (supra), American Express International Banking Corporation(supra) as also in HDFC Bank Ltd. vs. CIT (2014) 49 taxmann.com 335.

In view of the above, the questions of law were answered in affirmative in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue.

Insofar as the other question of law, the same pertains to a deduction in respect of the expenditure incurred by the assessee on the issue of Fully Convertible Debentures. The assessee had made a ‘rights issue’ of Fully Convertible Debentures (FCDs) and in such connection, had incurred expenditure on account of printing expenses, advertisement, professional fees, stamp duty and filing fees, bank charges, packages, etc. This expenditure was claimed as a deduction in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in India Cement Ltd. vs. CIT (1966) 60 ITR 52 (SC). The assessee’s claim for deduction was rejected by the Assessing Officer on the ground that the real intention of the assessee was to increase its capital and not to raise borrowed capital. On appeal, CIT(A) confirmed the disallowance made by the Assessing Officer inter alia following the decision of the Supreme Court in Brooke Bond India Ltd. vs. CIT (1997) 225 ITR 798. It is against such decision of the CIT(A), the assessee approached the Tribunal. The Tribunal in confirming the order passed by the CIT(A) observed that there was no dispute on the entire issue on share capital in parts. It was observed that the true intention was not to raise a loan, but to raise share capital to increase its capital base. The Tribunal opined that it was therefore necessary to apply the ratio of the decision of Supreme Court in Brooke Bond India Ltd. (supra). Accordingly, the expenditure incurred on such public issue was not allowed as a deduction confirming the order passed by the CIT(A), against which the present appeal has been filed.

In assailing such orders of the Tribunal, assessee firstly relied on the decision of the Delhi High Court in Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. ITA No. 93 of 2000 dated 13th September, 2013 wherein one of the issues which fell for consideration was whether the Tribunal was legally correct in allowing debenture issue expenses on the issue of convertible debentures. In answering such issue in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue, the Delhi High Court observed that the said question would stand covered by the decision of Delhi High Court in CIT vs. Havells India Ltd. (2013) 352 ITR 376 (Del.), which followed the decision of the Supreme Court in India Cements Ltd.(supra) and the decision in Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Secure Meters Ltd. (2010) 321 ITR 621 (Raj.). In Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, the Delhi High Court has taken a similar view. A similar view was also taken in case of The Commissioner of Income Tax- 6 vs. M/s. Faze Three Ltd. Income Tax Appeal No. 1761 of 2014 decided on 16th March, 2017.

In answering such question in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue, the Court held that the expenditure incurred thereon was revenue in nature, referring to the decision in Secure Meters Ltd. (supra), as also in Havells India Ltd. (supra) wherein it was held that as the debentures were to be converted in the near future into equity shares, the expenditure incurred needs to be allowed as revenue expenditure on the basis of the factual position as reflected by the accounts and which was the consistent view being accepted by the Courts. The Court also observed that the Revenue has not been able to show any reason which would require the Court to take a different view from the one taken by the various High Courts in the country on an identical issue.

In the light of the above discussion, the question of law also needs to be answered in affirmative in favour of the assessee and against the revenue.

Resultantly, the Appeal stands allowed .

Refund of tax — interests payable thereon — delayed payment of refunds burdens the public exchequer with such interest amounts – Rules would be required to be framed — Accountability to be fixed

21 Bloomberg Data Services (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. DCIT Circle – 6(1)(2) &Ors.
[WP (L) No. 31412 OF 2024]
Dated: 2nd December, 2024 (Bom) (HC)]

Refund of tax — interests payable thereon — delayed payment of refunds burdens the public exchequer with such interest amounts – Rules would be required to be framed — Accountability to be fixed

The Petitioner being aggrieved by the Revenue’s inaction of the refund being not granted to the petitioner for the Assessment Year 2016-17 and 2013-14, and which was being adjusted for the refund for 2023-24, approached the Court. The Petitioner claimed that a large sum of refund of ₹77,64,71,629/- was not being granted to the Petitioner. The Revenue department filed their reply affidavit.

The Court noted that after the earlier orders were passed by the Court, on 29th November, 2024 a refund of ₹77,64,71,629/- was granted in the proportion of ₹45,84,30,382/- for A. Y. 2016-17 and ₹31,80,41,247/- for the A.Y. 2013-14. However, an interest of ₹1,83,37,215/- for A.Y. 2016-17 and ₹1,27,21,649/- for A.Y. 2013-14, totalling to an amount of ₹3,10,58,865/- (₹3.10 crores) was due and payable to the Petitioner which was not granted.

The Court observed that in these situations, payment of interest is an unwarranted burden required to be borne by the Government of India. The Hon. Court was concerned with several similar proceedings reaching the Court. The Court observed that it was not aware as to whether the income tax department has any procedure of any internal control / checks in such matters, in which the interest burden keeps increasing purely for departmental reasons, which may be either negligence or a casual approach on the part of the officials, not taking prompt and timely steps on such issues. Secondly, whether there is any routine audit, as to who would become accountable for such huge interest amounts being required to be paid by the Government of India, when there are refund amounts which are admittedly payable to the assessee’s. Any delay being caused in making payments of such refund and the interests payable thereon, is attributable wholly to the officials of the department, as it is they who are not taking prompt actions.

The Hon Court observed that the petition brings to the fore a serious concern in the laxity of the Respondent-department in the matter of refund of tax to the petitioner and which is an admitted amount. The Court also observed that routinely cases are reaching the Court where refunds for no rhyme or reason are stuck, they are either not being processed or if even processed, they are not being released and in such cases the interest burden on the Government of India / Public exchequer keep mounting every passing day. Once the tax payer is entitled to the refund and when there are no proceedings against the assessee in that regard are intended to be taken by the Revenue, the refund of the tax amount ought to be immediately granted to the assessee. If this is being followed in breach, merely on account of negligence / laxity on the part of the department, it results into an unwarranted interest burden being imposed on the public exchequer. It may be quite easy for the tax officials not to be serious on such issue, however, it cannot be forgotten that such interest payment goes from the taxpayers’ pockets.

The Court observed that why this laxity or lack of prompt and appropriate communication between two authorities / departments, should result in Government of India being unwarrantedly saddled with huge interest amounts is the issue. This can certainly be avoided by an effective mechanism, by having a meaningful and prompt flow of instructions between the concerned officers, handling the assessee’s case. Such unwarranted interest amounts being required to be paid, if saved can be utilised for other essential public expenditures. It is the citizens of the country who are being deprived of the benefits of such amounts instead of the same being paid to the assessee’s, on account of the negligence and / or the fault of the officers of the department. The Court observed that it is routinely seen that when the matters reach the Court, the Revenue instantly takes a position that the refund would be credited to the assessee, without disputing the claim of the assessee for refund, as in such cases there is no defence to such petitions, as it is a statutory obligation on the part of the Revenue to refund that amounts and on such refunds huge interest amounts are paid to the assessee.

The Court directed the Respondent to place an affidavit on record, after taking appropriate instructions from the CBDT and after confirming such affidavit from the CBDT, as to approach the concerned officials are required to follow, in such situations so as to avoid burdening the public exchequer with interest payments.

The Court further observed that if already the rules are not in place, such rules would be required to be framed. If any rules are already framed, as to why such rules are not being strictly adhered. The mechanism by which accountability needs to be fixed on the particular officers, whose actions are increasing the burden on the Government of India, is required to be immediately looked into.

The Court also noted that it was equally conscious that the delayed payment of refunds not only burdens the public exchequer with such interest amounts being required to be paid, but it also brings about a situation that the assessees’ are deprived of these amounts causing them a serious prejudice. Also, the Government of India would not be in a clear position to utilise such funds for any public purpose, as these funds are required, to be in any case paid to the assessee. Thus, any situation of an unjust enrichment is not acceptable. The situation in hand is of a delay, by which a serious prejudice to both the revenue and to the assessee is caused.

Trust — Educational institution — Registration — Validity — Application for registration erroneously made while charitable institution continued to be registered — Assessee permitted to withdraw application filed inadvertently:

75 Purandhar Technical Education Society vs. CIT(Exemption)
[2024] 468 ITR 711 (Bom)
A.Ys. 2022-23 to 2026-27
Date of order: 8th July, 2024
Ss. 12A, 12AA and 12AB of ITA 1961

Trust — Educational institution — Registration — Validity — Application for registration erroneously made while charitable institution continued to be registered — Assessee permitted to withdraw application filed inadvertently:

The assessee was a trust engaged in educational activities and was granted registration u/s. 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee stated that it could not trace the certificate and although it availed of the benefits for certain number of years without any objection from the Department, the authorities called upon the assessee to produce the registration certificate. Hence, the assessee made an application on 14th October, 2019 to obtain a duplicate certificate of registration u/s. 12A but was not responded. The assessee made a fresh application on 19th April, 2022. The assessee contended that both the applications were not decided and the duplicate certificate was also not issued. On 25th March, 2022, the assessee applied for a fresh provisional certificate u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) in the prescribed form 10A as per rule 17A of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, that although the application for provisional registration was made on 4th April, 2022, an order on form 10AC u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) for the A. Y. 2022-23 to 2026-27 was passed by the competent authority thereby granting registration to the assessee. Thereafter, the assessee inadvertently applied for registration under the same provision in form 10AB on 30th September, 2022. The Commissioner (Exemption) issued notices requiring the assessee to submit copy of the provisional registration granted u/s. 12AB and the assessee furnished the necessary details. Another notice was received by the assessee on 9th March, 2023 to which the assessee failed to submit a reply. On 31st March, 2023, the Commissioner (Exemption) passed an order rejecting the assessee’s mistaken application on the ground that the assessee did not possess a copy of the provisional registration granted u/s. 12AB.

The assessee filed a writ petition contended that the Commissioner (Exemption) might take further actions to cancel the registration dated 4th April, 2022, of the assessee and seeking to be fully protected under the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Society for the Promotion of Education [2016] 382 ITR 6 (SC) and to permit withdrawal of the application inadvertently filed u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) :

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The assessee having already been granted registration u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(ii) read with section 12AB(1)(a) of the 1961 Act on April 1, 2022, for a period of five years, i.e., from the A. Y. 2022-23 to 2026-27, there was no need to make a fresh application on September 30, 2022 under which the order rejecting the application for registration had been passed.

ii)Hence the assessee could withdraw its application filed u/s. 12A(1)(ac)(i) , dated September 30, 2022 rendering the order dated March 31, 2023 of no consequence.”

Return — Delay in filing return — Application for condonation of delay — Limitation — Period to be computed with reference to date on which return had been filed

74 Vivek Krishnamoorthy vs. Pr. CIT
[2024] 469 ITR 605 (Kar)
A. Y. 2013-14
Date of order: 2nd November, 2023
S. 119 of ITA 1961

Return — Delay in filing return — Application for condonation of delay — Limitation — Period to be computed with reference to date on which return had been filed

The assessee had to file his Income-tax return before 31st March, 2015 but the Income-tax return was filed on 22nd August, 2015, and because Income-tax return was belated by about five months, an application was filed on 15th November, 2021 under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, for condonation of delay in filing the Income-tax return. The application was rejected on the ground of limitation.

The assessee filed a writ petition against the order. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) In the case of a delay in filing an application to condone delay in filing returns according to the terms of Circular No. 9 of 2015 dated June 9, 2015 ([2015] 374 ITR (St.) 25) the period of six years will have to be computed with reference to the date when the belated Income-tax return is filed.

ii) The assessee’s application for condonation of delay in filing the Income-tax return on August 22, 2015 was to be restored for consideration in the light of the reasons offered to explain the delay between March 31, 2015 and August 22, 2015 and with the directions to consider the application within a reasonable period from the date of receipt of a certified copy of this order.”

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery during first appeal — Requirement of deposit — Discretion to forgo requirement and grant stay — Debatable issue — Direction for stay of recovery proceedings without deposit

73 Chaitanya Memorial Educational Society vs. CIT(Exemption)
[2024] 469 ITR 571 (Telangana)
A. Y. 2018-19
Date of order:9th October, 2023
S. 220(6) of ITA 1961

Recovery of tax — Stay of recovery during first appeal — Requirement of deposit — Discretion to forgo requirement and grant stay — Debatable issue — Direction for stay of recovery proceedings without deposit

The Commissioner (Exemption) while deciding a stay application u/s. 220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, pending an appeal challenging the assessment order for the A. Y. 2018-19, allowed the application subject to the assessee depositing an amount of ₹35 lakhs out of the total outstanding demand of ₹2,50,33,530.

The Telangana High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) In considering whether a stay of demand should be granted, the court is duty bound to consider not merely the issue of financial hardship, if any, but also whether a strong prima facie case raising a serious triable issue has been raised which would warrant dispensation of deposit.

ii) The contention of the assessee was that the assessee had been availing of the exemption from payment of Income-tax on account of the fact that the assessee was a charitable institution and the works executed by it again were with a charitable purpose. Since the assessee availed of the benefits all along prior to the issuance of the demand notice and even in the subsequent years as well, no prejudice was going to be caused if the stay application u/s. 220(6) of the Act, was decided in favour of the assessee. Moreover, though the appeal was filed as early as on April 17, 2021 and the rectification application also was filed on March 20, 2021, both the rectification application and the appeal were still pending consideration or were undecided for more than 2½ years. The Assessing Officer should have allowed the application u/s. 220(6).

iii) In view of the same, we are inclined to allow the writ petition. The impugned order dated September 4, 2023 for the reasons stated above stands set aside/quashed. It is ordered that there shall be stay of the recovery of the entire demand raised by respondent No. 4 dated March 19, 2021 till the disposal of the appeal filed by the petitioner on April 17, 2021.”

Offences and prosecution — Wilful evasion of tax — Deletion of penalty with regard to same issues on ground that there was no concealment of income — Prosecution not valid.

72 RohitkumarNemchandPiparia vs. Dy. DIT(Investigation)
[2024] 469 ITR 593 (Mad)
A. Y. 2008-09
Date of order: 16th November, 2023
S. 276C(1) of ITA 1961

Offences and prosecution — Wilful evasion of tax — Deletion of penalty with regard to same issues on ground that there was no concealment of income — Prosecution not valid.

The assessee was a non-resident for more than 40 years. The respondent lodged a complaint for the offence u/s. 276C(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 alleging that during the course of the enquiry by the Investigation Wing, it was noticed that in the bank account maintained by the petitioner, there was unusual credit of large amount through real time gross settlement and funds were debited for investment in the stock market. The petitioner had entered into 165 share transactions during the financial year 2007-08 and filed his return of income for the A. Y. 2008-09 on February 5, 2009 declaring a taxable income of ₹3,10,226. However, the petitioner has not disclosed any capital gains in the return of income filed for the financial year 2007-08 relevant to the A. Y. 2008-09. Further, the petitioner entered into 165 share transactions to the tune of ₹155.20 crores and short-term capital gains arose from the said transactions is ₹52.13 crores. Though tax has been deducted, it was not fully deducted and the petitioner did not disclose in his return of income under the head “Capital gain” and paid the tax. Thus, the petitioner failed to show the same in his return of income and attempted to evade payment of tax. Only after deduction by the Income- tax Department, the petitioner had share transactions during the relevant financial year and accepted the same. Therefore, the petitioner committed the offence punishable u/s. 276C(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed a Criminal writ petition for quashing the proceedings. The Madras High Court allowed the petition and held as under:

“i) The Commissioner (Appeals) held in the appeal that the assessee was under the bona fide belief that there was no tax liability to be discharged by him on account of his residential status as non-resident external accounts and the deduction of tax at source made by the bank. Thus, the intention to conceal income by furnishing inaccurate particulars was not established. Therefore, the Assessing Officer was directed to delete the penalty imposed on the assessee.

ii) Therefore, once the penalty on the assessee was deleted, the prosecution initiated by the respondent could not be sustained.”

Income from House Property and Business Income — Difference — Finding by Tribunal that the Assessee Company had been formed with the object of developing Commercial Properties — Rental income from such properties is assessable as business income

71 Pr. CIT vs. M. P. Entertainment and Developers Pvt. Ltd.
[2024] 469 ITR 421 (MP)
A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2014-15
Date of order: 16th April, 2024
Ss. 22 and 28 of ITA 1961

Income from House Property and Business Income — Difference — Finding by Tribunal that the Assessee Company had been formed with the object of developing Commercial Properties — Rental income from such properties is assessable as business income

The Assessee had constructed a shopping cum entertainment mall in the name of Malhar Megha Mall and declared the nature of business as carrying on the business of purchase for development of the land, estates, structure and rented income from immovable properties. In the scrutiny assessment for the A. Ys. 2011-12 to 2014-15, the Assessing Officer observed that only part of the construction of the mall was complete and the assessee had started deriving rent from shops and other space in the mall and showed such income under the head Business & Profession. However, as per the Assessing Officer, the Assessee should have bifurcated under the head Income from House Property and Income from Business. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer restricted the claim of depreciation at the rate of 51.6 per cent of the occupied area of the Mall.

The CIT(A) deleted both the additions made by the Assessing Officer. The CIT(A) held that income from letting out properties were essentially required to be computed as Income from Business u/s. 28 and cannot be treated as Income from House Property. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal of the Department and held that where the letting of the property is the main object of the Assessee, its income has to be computed under the head Income from Business and it cannot be treated as Income from House Property.
The Madhya Pradesh High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department held as follows:

“i) In determining whether a particular income is income from house property or business income, in the case of Sultan Brothers Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [1964] 51 ITR 353 (SC) the Supreme Court held that each case has to be looked at from the businessman’s point of view to find out whether the letting was the doing of business or exploitation of the property by the owner.

ii) The Tribunal had found that the main object of the assessee was the business of constructing, owning, acquiring, developing, managing, running, hiring, letting out, selling out or leasing multiplexes, cineplexes, cinema halls, theatres, shops, shopping malls, etc., according to its memorandum and articles of association. The income was liable to be categorised as income derived from the shopping mall under the head of “Income from business” u/s. 28 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Assessing Officer did not find any material against the assessee to come to the conclusion that sub-leasing of the premises was only a part of its predominant object. The assessee right from the construction of the mall till the matter was taken into scrutiny had been offering income from the business of constructing, owning, acquiring, developing, managing, running, hiring, letting out, selling out or leasing multiplexes, cineplexes, cinema halls, theatres, shops, shopping malls, etc., sub-licensed by it under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”.

iii) Therefore, the Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal had rightly set aside the order of the Assessing Officer treating the income as one from house property.”

Company — Computation of Book Profits — Scope of section 115JB — Disallowance u/s. 14A — Amount disallowed cannot be taken into consideration when computing book profits

70 Pr. CIT vs. Moon Star Securities Trading and Finance Co. Pvt. Ltd.
[2024] 469 ITR 15 (Del.)
A. Y. 2011-12
Date of order: 11th March, 2024
Ss. 14A and 115JB of ITA 1961

Company — Computation of Book Profits — Scope of section 115JB — Disallowance u/s. 14A — Amount disallowed cannot be taken into consideration when computing book profits

The assessee earned dividend income of ₹58,09,619. In respect of the dividend income, the Assessee made disallowance u/s. 14A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, in the scrutiny assessment, the AO enhanced the disallowance u/s. 14A to ₹12,65,71,862 computed as per section 14A r.w.r. 8D and made addition under the normal provisions as well as to the book profits computed under the provisions of section 115JB of the Act.

The CIT(A) partly allowed the appeal of the Assessee and restricted the disallowance to ₹2,08,72,836 as against the disallowance of ₹12,65,71,862 determined by the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal deleted the disallowance on the ground that there was no satisfaction recorded by the Assessing Officer. Further, the Tribunal held that the disallowance u/s. 14A of the Act could not be made while computing book profits u/s. 115JB of the Act.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal of the Department and held as follows:

“i) Section 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by virtue of a deeming fiction, considers book profits as the total income of the assessee which is calculated post authorised adjustments to the profits shown in audited Profit and loss account of the assessee. A bare perusal of the provisions would signify that sub-section (1) prescribes the mode and manner of computing the total income of the assessee u/s. 115JB of the Act.

ii) Clause (f) of Explanation 1 only alludes to the amounts of expenditure relatable to any income to which section 10 (excluding provisions contained in clause (38) thereof) or section 11 or section 12 apply. The Assessing Officer does not have the jurisdiction to go behind the net profit shown in the profit and loss account except to the extent provided in the Explanation to section 115JB. The scheme of section 115JB, particularly in relation to clause (f) of Explanation 1 therein, does not envisage any addition of disallowance computed u/s. 14A of the Act to calculate the minimum alternate tax as per section 115JB of the Act. Rather, the two provisions stand separately as no correlation exists between them for the purpose of determining the taxable income.”

Charitable institution — Exemption — Scope of sub-sections (1), (2) and (3) of section 11 — Explanation to section 11 cannot be applied — Accumulated income — Donations to extent of 15 per cent. of surplus income accumulated to other charitable institutions for short period — Not permanent endowments made or donations imbued with some degree of permanency — Donations reversed — Exemption could not be denied

69 CIT(Exemption) vs. Jamnalal Bajaj Foundation
[2024] 468 ITR 723 (Del)
A. Y. 2009-10
Date of order: 31st May, 2024
S. 11 of ITA 1961

Charitable institution — Exemption — Scope of sub-sections (1), (2) and (3) of section 11 — Explanation to section 11 cannot be applied — Accumulated income — Donations to extent of 15 per cent. of surplus income accumulated to other charitable institutions for short period — Not permanent endowments made or donations imbued with some degree of permanency — Donations reversed — Exemption could not be denied

The assessee was a charitable institution registered u/s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assesseeutilised the accumulated fund to extend corpus donations to other charitable institutions in the A. Y. 2009-10. The Assessing Officer was of the view that extending donations to other charitable trusts would amount to utilisation of the funds for a purpose other than those for which the surplus was accumulated u/s. 11(2) which was violative of section 11(3)(c) and section 11(3)(d).

Before the Commissioner (Appeals) the assessee contended that the surplus accumulated income to the extent of 15 per cent. was handed out as donations to other charitable institutions for a temporary period of less than two months and that since the contravention was for a very short period, the exemption u/s. 11(2) should not be withdrawn. The Commissioner (Appeals) held in favour of the assessee on the issue of accumulation of 15 per cent. u/s. 11(2) and his order was affirmed by the Tribunal.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) Donations extended to other charitable institutions would meet the test of application of income for charitable purposes. Section 11(3)(c) and (d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 deals with situations where the income so accumulated is either not utilised or applied for a charitable purpose. It is only in such a situation that the deemed income would lose the sheen of protection of exemption which would otherwise be applicable by virtue of section 11.

ii) In terms of the Finance Act, 2002 ([2002] 255 ITR (St.) 9), an Explanation was appended to section 11(2) which gets attracted in a situation where income referable to clauses (a) or (b) of section 11(1) and so accumulated or set apart is credited or paid to institutions specified therein, not being liable to be treated as application of income for charitable or religious purposes. Explanation 1 to section 11(1) applies to situations where the income applied to charitable causes falls short of 85 per cent. of the income derived. Section 11(2) on the other hand constitutes a gateway which enables the charity to stave off the spectre of the income which is not applied for a charitable purpose coming to be included in the total income of the assessee.

iii) The donations, to the extent of 15 per cent. of the accumulated surplus income, made by the assessee in the A. Y. 2009-10 would not be hit by Explanation 2, inserted by the Finance Act, 2017 ([2017] 393 ITR (St.) 1) with effect from 1st April, 2018 since Explanation 2 applied only to amounts credited or paid to certain categories of institutions and those being in the nature of a contribution accompanied by a direction that the amounts extended would form part of the corpus of those entities. Although the donations were made out of the accumulated income, the money was retrieved within two months.

iv) Section 11(3) and the adverse consequences would have been attracted provided the accumulated income was diverted for a purpose other than charitable or religious, or where it was not utilised for the purpose for which it was so accumulated or set apart during the period of five years contemplated u/s. 11(2)(a). The assessee did not make a permanent endowment or one where the donation stood imbued with some degree of permanency. It also was not that the money was lost or became unavailable to be applied. Since the donations were reversed and had been advanced only for an extremely short duration, the Tribunal had not erred in allowing deduction u/s. 11(1) to the extent of 15 per cent on the deemed income u/s. 11(3)(c) or section 11(3)(d) and for justifiable reasons, had answered the issue in favour of the assessee.”

Capital gains — Transfer — Possession taken in part performance of contract — Agreement must be registered — Joint Development Agreement — Not registered — Ownership of capital asset retained by Assessee throughout — Possession clauses suggesting possession to be parted with for limited purpose of development — Unregistered agreement not effecting transfer of property u/s. 2(47)

68 Prithvi Consultants Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT
[2024] 470 ITR 37 (Bom.)
A.Ys. 2005-06 to 2011-12
Date of order: 5th September, 2023
S. 2(47)(v) of ITA 1961, Ss. 17(1A) of Registration Act, 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882

Capital gains — Transfer — Possession taken in part performance of contract — Agreement must be registered — Joint Development Agreement — Not registered — Ownership of capital asset retained by Assessee throughout — Possession clauses suggesting possession to be parted with for limited purpose of development — Unregistered agreement not effecting transfer of property u/s. 2(47)

In December 2008, the Assessee entered into two Joint Development Agreements (JDA) in respect of two plots of land. These agreements were not registered as required u/s. 17(1A) of the Registration Act. A search and seizure action was carried on in the case of one Mr. PK and others, where the said two JDAs were found. The Department issued notice u/s. 153C of the Act requiring the Assessee to file return of income for the AY 2009-10. Subsequently, notices were issued u/s. 153A and 142(1) for the AYs 2005-06 to 2010-11 as well as notice u/s. 143(2) for AY 2011-12 to conduct inquiry and the assessment of the Assessee’s income. In response to the notices, the Assessee filed response submitting that the Assessee had not received any consideration under the two JDAs. Further the transaction did not constitute transfer u/s. 2(47) of the Act. In March 2013, the Assessee cancelled the two JDAs because of non-performance by the Developer. However, in the assessment, the Assessing Officer concluded that the two JDAs constituted transfer u/s. 2(47) of the Act. He referred to the minimum guaranteed amounts reflected in the JDAs and concluded that additional income had accrued to the Assessee even though the Assessee may not have received any amount.

The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the Assessee. On Department’s appeal before the Tribunal, the order of the CIT(A) was set aside and the assessment order was restored.

On appeal by the Assessee the High Court framed the following questions for consideration:

“i) Whether in the light of section 17(1A) read with section 49 of the Registration Act, 1908, the unregistered agreement dated December 31, 2008, can be construed as a document effecting transfer of the subject properties in terms of section 2(47) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?

ii) Whether in the absence of income having accrued to the appellant in terms of the agreement dated December 31, 2008, the appellant can be made liable to pay tax on capital gains in terms of section 45 read with section 48 of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The Bombay High Court decided the above questions of law in favour of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001 made simultaneous amendments in section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and sections 17 and 49 of the Registration Act, 1908. By these amendments, the words “the contract, though required to be registered, has not been registered, or” in section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, have been omitted. Simultaneously, sections 17 and 49 of the Registration Act, 1908 , were also amended, clarifying that unless the document containing the contract to transfer for consideration any immovable property (for the purpose of section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is registered, it shall not have any effect in law, other than being received as evidence of a contract in a suit for specific performance or as evidence of any collateral transaction not required to be effected by a registered instrument.

ii) The joint development agreements dated December 31, 2008, were not registered, though they were required to be compulsorily registered under section 17(1A) of the Registration Act, 1908, post the introduction of this provision by the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001. In the JDAs the ownership of the capital asset was retained by the assessee throughout. The clauses relating to parting of possession, besides being unclear, suggested that at the highest, possession was to be parted with for the limited purpose of development. The unregistered agreement dated December 31, 2008, could not be construed as a document effecting transfer of the subject properties in terms of section 2(47) of the Act.”

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

15 Addl CIT vs. Ericsson India Pvt. Ltd
(2024) 468 ITR 2 (SC)

Jurisdiction to impose penalty- No Penalty can be imposed by the TPO u/s. 271G in respect of default that has occurred prior to the date of amendment conferring jurisdiction on TPO (i.e. 1st October, 2014).

For the assessment year 2011-12, the assessee filed its returns together with transfer pricing report. A notice was issued by the Transfer Pricing (TPO) on 18th February, 2014 to produce some documents by 25th March, 2014. The assesee did not comply with the said notice. On 5th December, 2014, TPO issued notice alleging default and proposing penalty u/s. 271G. TPO passed order on 16th January, 2015 proposing certain transfer pricing adjustment and imposing penalty of ₹64,43,03,352 u/s. 271G. A draft assessment order was passed on 22nd June, 2015.

On writ petition being filed before the High Court, the High Court noted that till 1st October, 2014, the jurisdiction and authority to impose penalty u/s. 271G was with the Assessing Officer (AO) as defined in section 2(7A). This changed with enactment of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014. The amendment expanded the jurisdiction of the TPO, who was for the first time authorized to inflict penalty for non-compliance of the notice.

The High Court following the judgment in Brij Mohan vs. CIT (1979) 120 ITR 1 (SC) and Varkey Chacko vs. CIT (1993) 203 ITR 885 (SC) quashed the order imposing penalty by holding that ‘event of default’ occurred in March, 2014, that is, well prior to the date of coming into force the amendment (from 1st October, 2014) and hence the order passed by TPO in respect of such default was without jurisdiction.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP as the issue was covered by its decision in Varkey Chacko vs. CIT (supra).

16 ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd
(2024) 468 ITR 10 (SC)

Statutory approvals — Approval granted by the statutory authorities, as required under the provision of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe — the statutory scheme encapsulated in the Income-tax Act provides that the reassessment proceedings cannot be triggered till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and the reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of assessment.

The Petitioner challenged the notice dated 30th March, 2018 issued under section 148 of the Act and the order dated 6th December, 2018 disposing of the objections of the Petitioner to the issuance of the aforesaid notice on one singular ground, namely, that the reassessment proceedings were commenced without the approval of the specific authority.

The High Court observed that the approval has a two-stage process. The satisfaction with regards to commencement of reassessment proceedings is required to be recorded by the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax (ACIT); and by Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT).

The High Court noted that the ACIT had made an endorsement that he was satisfied that it was a fit case for issue of notice u/s. 148, but the PCIT had not made any noting and merely signed the Form of Recording Reasons without a date. The High Court also noted that the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer on 30th March, 2018, were approved by ACIT and PCIT on the same date and the notice was also issued on 30th March, 2018.

The Petitioner had alleged that this was a case of mechanical approval without application of mind and was contrary to law.

In counter affidavit, the respondent made an assertion that the PCIT had conveyed the approval to AO via letter F No. Pr. CIT-Delhi/148/2017-18 dated 30th March, 2018, but the said letter was not annexed.

The High Court held that the approval granted by the statutory authorities, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that the reassessment proceedings cannot be triggered till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and the reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of assessment.

According to the High Court, the second condition requiring Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there were no good reasons to not to furnish the same to the Petitioner along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons for holding the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment.

The High Court therefore set aside the impugned notice and the impugned order.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP in view of the categorical finding recorded in paragraph 13 by the High Court and opining that in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out by the Revenue.

17 PCIT vs. Nitin Nema
(2024) 468 ITR 105 (SC)

Reassessment — Gross Receipts of Sale consideration and income chargeable to tax are not same — Notice issued treating the sale consideration as asset which has escaped assessment is not sustainable.

A notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued observing that the amount of ₹72,05,085 was received by the assessee as a result of export transaction. The assessee had not filed return of income. Hence, a sum of ₹72,05,084 had escaped assessment. Since the amount of ₹72,05,084 was more that ₹50 lakhs, the said income was amenable to proceedings u/s. 148 and 148A.

Assesee filed his objections to the notice issued u/s. 148A(b). After considering the said reply, an order u/s. 148A(d) was passed rejecting the objections of the assessee and consequentially a notice u/s. 148 was issued.

The assesssee challenged the order dated 25th March, 2023 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act deciding that it was a fit case for issuance of a notice u/s. 148 for assessment/ reassessment of income which had escaped assessment for the assessment year 2016-17. The assesee further challenged the consequential notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The High Court observed that neither the notice u/s. 148A(b) nor the order u/s. 148A(d), nor the consequential notice u/s. 148 gave any indication that the amount of ₹72,05,084 alleged to be income escaping assessment, included land/building/shares/equities/loans/ advances, etc.

The High Court noted that the assessee had filed a rely to the notice u/s. 148A(b) explaining that the said amount of ₹72,05,084 was gross receipt of sale consideration of 16 scooters. Along with the reply, the details of items sold and payment receipt, computation of total income and computation of tax on total income was worked out.

The High Court observed that the said amount of ₹72,05,084 was the total sale consideration receipt of the transactions in question and not income chargeable to tax, which would obviously be less than the said amount.

The High Court noted the decision of the Karnataka High Court in Sanath Kumar Murali vs. ITO (2023) 455 ITR 370 (Kar) which held that the entirety of sale consideration does not constitute income.

According to the High Court, in passing the order u/s. 148A(d) the Respondent had adopted highly casual and perfunctory approach and elementary aspect of clear distinction between consideration of sale and income chargeable to tax was overlooked.

The High Court opined that had the Revenue arrived at the correct figure of income chargeable to tax instead of gross receipts / consideration, possibility of the amount of ₹72,05,084 coming
down to a figure below ₹50 lakhs could not be ruled out.

The High Court quashed the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 with costs.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP observing that it was not inclined to interfere with the impugned judgment and order of the High Court.

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal – Part II

INTRODUCTION

7.1 As stated in Part I of this write-up (BCAJ December, 2024), considerable amendments were made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021. Prior to these amendments, a notice could be issued under section 148 of (the ‘old regime’) within the time limits of 4 years (in all cases) / 6 years (escaped income of ₹ 1 lakh or more) / 16 years (asset outside India) as provided in section 149 of the Act if the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. Considerable amendments in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings (the ‘new regime’) as stated in para 1.4 of Part I of the write-up were brought about by the Finance Act, 2021. The entire procedure for issuance of a reopening notice was revamped by introducing section 148A(d). The erstwhile time limits were also modified and the ‘new regime’ provided for time limit of 3 years in all cases and 10 years in cases where escaped income represented in the form of asset was more than ₹50 lakhs.

7.2 As stated in para 1.3 of Part I of the write up, the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval, etc. was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) and the subsequent Notifications issued under TOLA. In short, the time limits for doing the above acts which were expiring during the period from 20th March, 2020 to 31st March, 2021 were extended upto 30th June, 2021. These Notifications contained an Explanation effectively clarifying that the ‘old regime’ will continue to apply for issuing reassessment notices despite the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021.

7.3 As stated in paras 1.5 and 1.6 of Part 1 of the write-up, reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 for the assessment years 2013 — 14 to 2017 — 18 relying upon the time extension granted by TOLA and following the procedure as per the ‘old regime’ were struck down by several High Courts and the Explanation issued under the Notifications were also struck down.

7.4 As stated in para 1.7 of Part I, the decisions of the High Courts were upheld by the Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1). However, invoking powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court deemed the notices issued under section 148 of the Act to be show cause notice issued under section 148A(b) of the Act under the ‘new regime’ and issued directions to the AOs to provide material and information for reopening to assessee and then pass an order under section 148A(d) after considering assessee’s submissions. Supreme Court kept all the defences available to the assessee under section 149 and / or under the Finance Act, 2021 and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 open. Thereafter, as stated in para 1.8 of Part I of the write-up, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

7.5 Thereafter, as stated in para 1.9 of Part I of the write up, fresh notices were issued under section 148 of the Act after following the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal pertaining to assessment years 2013 – 14 to 2017 – 18. These notices issued between July to September, 2022 were challenged by the assessees before several High Courts and the same were quashed by the High Courts. A brief gist of these decisions is provided in Part I of the write-up. As stated in para 1.10 of Part I of the write-up, the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case (and connected matters) adjudicated on the issues raised by the Revenue in appeals filed against such high court judgments.

UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal (469 ITR 46 – Supreme Court)

8.1 In a challenge by the Revenue to the correctness of the views taken by the High Courts in favour of the assessee, the Supreme Court was called upon to decide two primary issues – (1) whether TOLA and notifications issued thereunder would apply to reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 and (2) whether the reassessment notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ post Ashish Agarwal’s decision between July and September 2022 were valid.

8.2 Before the Supreme Court, the Revenue contended that TOLA was a free-standing legislation and that section 3(1) of TOLA which applied “notwithstanding anything contained in the specified Act” overrides the time limits for issuing a notice under section 148 read with section 149 of the Act. It was further submitted that TOLA did not extend the life of the ‘old regime’ but merely provided a relaxation for the completion or compliance of actions following the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’. It was urged that section 2 of TOLA defined “specified Act” to mean and include the Income-tax Act and that TOLA would continue to apply to the ‘new regime’ which became a part of the Income-tax Act from 1st April, 2021. The Revenue contended that invalidation of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal on the ground that the same were beyond the time limit specified under the Act read with TOLA will completely frustrate the exercise undertaken by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

8.2.1 The Revenue submitted that the first proviso to section 149 [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up] did not expressly bar the application of TOLA and once the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) was read with TOLA, the following would be the position for the different years:

   Assessment  year (1) Within 3 years (2) Expiry of limitation read with TOLA \ for (2) (3) Within 6 years (4)

 

Expiry of limitation read with TOLA for (4) (5)
2013 – 14 31-3-2017 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2020 30-6-2021
2014 – 15 31-3-2018 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2021 30-6-2021
2015 – 16 31-3-2019 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2022 TOLA not applicable
2016 – 17 31-3-2020 30-6-2021 31-3-2023 TOLA not applicable
2017 – 18 31-3-2021 30-6-2021 31-3-2024 TOLA not applicable

The Revenue conceded that for the assessment year 2015-16, all notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 will have to be dropped as they will not fall for completion during the period provided under TOLA. It seems that this is, possibly, on the ground that last date for issuing notice under section 148 was 31st March, 2022 (6 years time limit) under the ‘old regime’ and that was outside the limitation period covered by TOLA (refer para 7.2 above) for extension.

8.3 On the other hand, the assessee submitted that TOLA applied in cases where the period of limitation expired between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 and, therefore, recourse could not be taken to the extended timelines provided under TOLA with respect to the notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ which came into effect from 1st April, 2021. Assessee further submitted that TOLA did not amend section 149 of the ‘old regime’ but merely extended the specified time limits and that the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ only referred to the period of limitation as specified under the erstwhile section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’. Assessee contended that Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 to extend the time limits expiring under section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ till 30th June, 2021 could not be read into the ‘new regime’ once the ‘old regime’ was repealed and substituted by the ‘new regime’.

8.3.1 Assessee categorized the notices post Ashish Agarwal’s decision under the following four categories and submitted as under:

a. First category — notices for AY 2013–14 and 2014–15 issued after 1st April, 2021 would be barred by limitation as the six-year time limit in terms of section 149 expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively.

b. Second category – notices for AY 2015–16 issued under the ‘old regime’ after 31st March, 2020 but before 1st April, 2021. It was submitted that these notices issued for AY 2015–16 after a period of 4 years which expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ were bad in law as sanction under section 151 of the ‘old regime’ was not properly obtained.

c. Third category — notices for AY 2016–17 and 2017–18 for which the three-year period as per the ‘new regime’ expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. Assessee submitted that the notices were issued after 1st April 2021 after taking sanction of authorities prescribed in section 151(i) instead of those specified in section 151(ii) [refer to in para 1.4 (v) of Part I of the write-up].

d. Directions in the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal were not intended to apply to assessees who did not challenge the reassessment notices before the High Court or the Supreme Court in the first round.

8.3.2 Assessee further submitted that the applicability of the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ had to be tested on the date of issuance of notice under section 148 of the ‘new regime’. Assessee also urged that even if TOLA is read into the Income-tax Act, the time limits for completion of actions could be extended till 30th June, 2021 and that the notices issued under the ‘new regime’ from July 2022 to September 2022 were beyond the extended time limits. Assessee further contended that the decision of Ashish Agarwal could not be interpreted in a manner to exclude the entire period from April 2021 to September 2022 and that the directions issued under Article 142 of the Constitution could not contravene the substantive provisions contained in the Act. With respect to the grant of sanction under section 151, assessee submitted that TOLA applied only to provisions that specified time limits and, therefore, section 151 which did not prescribe any time limits was out of ambit of TOLA.

8.4 After considering the rival contentions and referring to relevant provisions of the Act, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the relevant issues.

8.4.1 Initially, the Court broadly discussed the relevant legislative and judicial background dealing with various principles relating to : (i) Assessment as a quasi-judicial function, (ii) Assessment as an issue of jurisdiction, (iii) Principles of strict interpretation and workability and (iv) Principle of harmonious construction.

8.4.2 The Court then proceeded to discuss and consider the impact of first proviso to Section 149 under the `new regime ‘ and summarised the position of law in that regard in para 53 as under:

“The position of law which can be derived based on the above discussion may be summarized thus: (i) Section 149(1) of the new regime is not prospective. It also applies to past assessment years; (ii) The time limit of four years is now reduced to three years for all situations. The Revenue can issue notices under Section 148 of the new regime only if three years or less have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year; (iii) the proviso to Section 149(1)(b) of the new regime stipulates that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit survives according to Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime, that is, six years from the end of the relevant assessment year; and (iv) all notices issued invoking the time limit under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.3 The Court also observed that notices will have to be judged based on the law existing on the date the notice is issued. The Court then referred to the proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ and observed that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit of 6 years as per section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ survives. Court then recorded in para 52 a concession made by the Revenue as under:

“……..MrVenkataraman has also conceded on behalf of the Revenue that all notices issued under the new regime by invoking the six year time limit prescribed under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.4 After noting that Finance Act, 2021 substituted the ‘old regime’, Court then referred to the legislative practice of amendment by substitution which involves repeal of an earlier provision and its replacement by a new provision and observed that after an amendment by substitution any reference to a legislation must be construed as the legislation as amended by substitution. In the context of application of extended time limit under TOLA to the ‘new regime’, the Court in para 63 observed as under:

“TOLA extended the time limits for completion or compliance of certain actions under the specified Act, which fell for completion during the COVID-19 outbreak. The use of the expression “any” in Section 3(1) indicates that the relaxation applies to “all” or “every” action whose time limit falls for completion from 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021. Section 3(1) is only concerned with the performance of actions contemplated under the provisions of the specified Acts. Consequently, the amendment or substitution of a provision under the specified Acts will not affect the application of TOLA, so long as the action contemplated under the provision falls for completion during the period specified by TOLA, that is, 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021.”

8.4.5 With respect to the applicability of TOLA to the ‘new regime’ after 1st April, 2021, the Court in para 68 held as under:

“On 1 April 2021, TOLA was still in existence, and the Revenue could not have ignored the application of TOLA and its notifications. Therefore, for issuing a reassessment notice under Section 148 after 1 April 2021, the Revenue would still have to look at: (i) the time limit specified under Section 149 of the new regime; and (ii) the time limit for issuance of notice as extended by TOLA and its notifications. The Revenue cannot extend the operation of the old law under TOLA, but it can certainly benefit from the extended time limit for completion of actions falling for completion between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021.”

8.4.6 Furthermore, the Court referred to the non-obstante clause in section 3(1) of TOLA and observed that the same will override section 149 to the extent of relaxing the time limit for issuance of reassessment notices under section 148 of the Act which fell between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021.

8.4.7 With respect to application of TOLA to grant of sanction under section 151 of the Act, the Court held that the specified authority under section 151 of the Act is directly co-related to the time when a notice is issued. Court further held that TOLA will extend the time limit for grant of sanction by the authority specified under section 151 of the Act.

8.4.8 While dealing with one of the issues raised by the assessee that whether the directions in Ashish Agarwal applied to all the reassessment notices issued under the ‘old regime’ post 1st April 2021 or only those which were challenged by way of writ petitions before the High Courts, after considering the relevant paras of that decision, the Court observed as under at end of para 90:

“The purpose of this Court in deeming the reassessment notices issued under the old regime as show cause notices under the new regime was two-fold: (i) to strike a balance between the rights of the assesses and the Revenue which issued approximately ninety thousand reassessment notices after 1 April 2021 under the old regime; and (ii) to avoid any further appeals before this Court by the Revenue on the same issue by challenging similar judgments and orders of the High Courts (arising from approximately nine thousand writ petitions).”

On this issue, the Court finally held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal would apply PAN India to all the reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 under the ‘old regime’.

8.4.9 The Court then considering the validity of reassessment notices issued between July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal broke down the period into three parts — (i) period upto 30th June, 2021 – covered by the provisions of the Act read with TOLA, (ii) period from 1st July, 2021 to 3rd May 2022 — period before the decision in Ashish Agarwal and (iii) period after 4th May, 2022 – period covered by the directions issued in Ashish Agarwal. Court then referred to the third proviso to section 149 of the Act which excludes (i) the time allowed under section 148A(b) and (ii) the period during which the proceedings under section 148A are “stayed by an order or injunction of any Court”. Thereafter, the Court at paras 105 to 106 explained the legal fiction created by Ashish Agarwal and held as under:

“105. … During the period from the date of issuance of the deemed notice under Section 148A(b) and the date of the decision of this Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra), the assessing officers were deemed to have been prohibited from passing a reassessment order. Resultantly, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed by order of this Court from the date of their issuance (somewhere from 1 April 2021 till 30 June 2021) till the date of decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), that is, 4 May 2022.

106. … A show cause notice is effectively issued in terms of Section 148A(b) only if it is supplied along with the relevant information and material by the assessing officer. Due to the legal fiction, the assessing officers were deemed to have been inhibited from acting in pursuance of the Section 148A(b) notice till the relevant material was supplied to the assesses. Therefore, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed until the assessing officers provided the relevant information or material to the assesses in terms of the direction issued in Ashish Agarwal (supra). ”

8.4.10 Referring to exclusion of time granted to the assessee to respond to the notice and total time to be excluded under the third proviso to section 149 of the Act, the Court in para 107 stated as under:

“… Hence, the total time that is excluded for computation of limitation for the deemed notices is: (i) the time during which the show cause notices were effectively stayed, that is, from the date of issuance of the deemed notice between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 till the supply of relevant information or material by the assessing officers to the assesses in terms of the directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra); and (ii) two weeks allowed to the assesses to respond to the show cause notices.”

8.4.11 In the context of time limit for issuing notice under section 148 and deciding validity of such notices issued post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the Court further stated in para 111 as under:

“The clock started ticking for the Revenue only after it received the response of the assesses to the show causes notices. After the receipt of the reply, the assessing officer had to perform the following responsibilities: (i) consider the reply of the assessee under Section *149A(c); (ii) take a decision under Section *149A(d) based on the available material and the reply of the assessee; and (iii) issue a notice under Section 148 if it was a fit case for reassessment. Once the clock started ticking, the assessing officer was required to complete these procedures within the surviving time limit. The surviving time limit, as prescribed under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, was available to the assessing officers to issue the reassessment notices under Section 148 of the new regime.”

* This should be 148A

8.4.12 Supreme Court then held that the reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the ‘new regime’ ought to be issued within the time limit surviving under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA and that a reassessment notice issued beyond the ‘surviving period’ will be time barred. Supreme Court explained the ‘surviving period’ as was available to the Assessing Officers for issuing the reassessment notices under the ‘new regime’ by way of an example in para 112:

“Let us take the instance of a notice issued on 1 May 2021 under the old regime for a relevant assessment year. Because of the legal fiction, the deemed show cause notices will also come into effect from 1 May 2021. After accounting for all the exclusions, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days [days between 1 May 2021 and 30 June 2021] to issue a notice under Section 148 of the new regime. This time starts ticking for the assessing officer after receiving the response of the assessee. In this instance, if the assessee submits the response on 18 June 2022, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days from 18 June 2022 to issue a reassessment notice under Section 148 of the new regime. Thus, in this illustration, the time limit for issuance of a notice under Section 148 of the new regime will end on 18 August 2022.”

8.4.13 Finally, Supreme Court set aside the judgments of various High Courts to the extent of the observations made in its present decision.

8.4.14 With respect to the way forward post its decision in Rajeev Bansal, the Supreme Court in its Record of Proceedings dated 3rd October, 2024 (unreported) stated in para 3 as under:

“The assessing officers will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Thereafter, the assessees who are aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded by this judgment.”

Conclusion

9.1 In view of the decision of the Supreme Court, the applicability of TOLA to the provisions of the ‘new regime’ has now been settled. However, the validity of reassessment proceedings initiated for assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–8 will now have to be decided afresh on a case to case basis as per the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in its decision. While doing so, one may also bear in mind that the High Court decisions have been set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in its decision.

9.2 With respect to reassessment proceedings initiated for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the primary point that will have to be considered is as to whether the reopening notices were issued within the ‘surviving period’ as explained by way of an example by the Supreme Court in para 112 of the judgment (refer para 8.4.12 above). Depending on the date on which the 148 notices were issued under the ‘old regime’, it is possible that some of the notices issued for the assessment years 2013–14 and 2014–15 could be barred by limitation. For instance, if the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ was issued on say 21st June 2021, the AO would have 10 days (days between 21st June, 2021 and 30th June, 2021) to issue notice under the ‘new regime’ which would start after receiving the response of the assessee. Assuming that the assessee submitted his response on 9th June 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the AO ought to have issued the 148 notice under the ‘new regime’ by 19th June 2022. If the notice is issued after 19th June, 2022, the same would be barred by limitation. For further clarity on this, discussions appearing at paras 8.4.9 to 8.4.11 above is also useful.

9.2.1 In the above example, had the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ been issued on 29th June, 2021, the time available to the AO for issuing notice under the ‘new regime’ being less than 7 days should be extended to 7 days as per the fourth proviso (as at the time of introduction) to section 149(1) of the Act [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up].

9.2.2 In an event where no response was filed by the assessee pursuant to the information supplied by the AO as per the directions in Ashish Agarwal, the time for issuing 148 notice under the new regime in the above example would start from the end of the date by which the response ought to have been filed by the assessee.

9.2.3 Further, what is envisaged by the third proviso to section 149(1) is exclusion of the time or extended time allowed to the assessee to file a response. In a case where the AO suomotu extends the time to file the response without any request by the assessee such time should not be excluded while computing the period of limitation. In this regard, useful reference may be made to the decision of the Bombay High Court in Godrej Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT Cir. 14(1)(2) [2024] 160 taxmann.com 13 (Bombay).

9.2.4 With respect to reassessment proceedings for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 where income alleged to have escaped assessment is less than R50 lakhs, one can contest the validity of such notices after considering the example of the ‘surviving period’ and considering the dates in each case. In such cases also, the position mentioned in paras 9.2 to 9.2.3 above will be relevant. Further in the context of applying ₹50 lakhs limit, it is worth noting that gross sales consideration is not the income. There is distinction between the two. For this useful reference may be made to the M.P. High Court judgment in the case of Nitin Nema[ (2023) 458 ITR 690] against which Revenue’s SLP is recently dismissed [(2024) 468 ITTR 105-SC]
9.3 With respect to the reassessment proceedings for assessment year 2015–16 initiated on or after 1st April. 2024 the same ought to be dropped by the Assessing Officers in light of the concession made by the Revenue recorded in para 19(f) of the Supreme Court judgment (refer para 8.2.2 above) to this effect (also refer para 8.4.3 above). For this useful reference may also be made to tribunal decisions referred to next para 9.4.

9.4 Reference may be made to a decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in ITO 10(3)(1) vs. Pushpak Realities Pvt. Ltd. (ITA no. 4812, 4814 and 4816/ Mum/2024) where the Tribunal was dealing with the appeal filed by the Revenue challenging the order of the CIT(A) quashing the reassessment proceedings for AY 2013–14 to 2015–16. Tribunal followed the ratio laid down in Rajeev Bansal’s case while deciding the matter. Tribunal held that the notices issued for AY 2013–14 on 29th July 2022 and for AY 2014–15 on 31st July, 2022 were barred by limitation even under TOLA. Tribunal also quashed the 148 notice for AY 2015–16 issued on 28th July, 2022 after noting Revenue’s concession before the Supreme Court that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 and held that the same was barred by limitation under the new provisions of section 149(1). It is worth noting that in this case relevant facts for determining the ‘surviving period’ to find out time limit available for issuing notice under section 148 post Ashish Agarwal’s decision is not available from the ITAT decision. It may be noted that this is ex-parte decision and nobody appeared for the assessee. In the context of AY 2015-16, similar view is also taken by the Mumbai Tribunal in ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) where the reopening notice dated 29th July 2022 for AY 2015-16 is quashed.

9.5 In appropriate cases, based on the facts, the validity of the reassessment notices will have to be seen based on whether the approval of the specified authority under section 151 was validly obtained. In this regard, the example given by the Supreme Court in para 78 is of paramount importance. Supreme Court observes — “For example, the three year time limit for assessment year 2017-2018 falls for completion on 31st March, 2021. It falls during the time period of 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021, contemplated under Section 3(1) of TOLA. Resultantly, the authority specified under Section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ can grant sanction till 30th June, 2021.” From this, it would appear that while TOLA applied for the purposes of section 151 of the ‘new regime’ as well, however, the authority specified in section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ could grant sanction only upto 30th June 2021 and not beyond that. The 148 notices issued post Ashish Agarwal’s decision were all issued in 2022. In such an event, with respect to 148 notices issued under the ‘new regime’ for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18, the sanction ought to have been obtained from the authority specified under section 151(ii) after 30th June, 2021. If the sanction is not so obtained, the reopening notices for these AYs should be bad in law. In the case of ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) before the Mumbai Tribunal, for AY 2016-17, reassessment notice was issued on 30th July 2022 under the ‘new regime’ post the directions in Ashish Agarwal. The said notice was issued after obtaining sanction of PCIT-19, Mumbai i.e. authority specified u/s. 151(i) of the Act. Tribunal held that the 148 notice was invalid and liable to be quashed as the notice was issued beyond a period of three years and that the approval ought to have been taken from an authority specified u/s. 151(ii) of the Act.

9.6 As stated in para 9.1 above, the decisions of the High Courts are set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case. As stated in para 5.5 of Part 1 of the write-up, Bombay High Court in the decision of Siemens while adjudicating on the validity of the reassessment proceedings, had also held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’. Supreme Court may be considered to have impliedly approved the above decision of the High Court on the point of change of opinion.

9.7 In the above Rajeev Bansal’s case, the Court has disposed of large number of appeals involving different assessment years and facts by adjudicating on common legal issues. Therefore, each case will have to be finally decided on it’s facts applying the legal position decided by the Supreme Court on given issues. As such, one more round of litigation in many cases can’t be ruled out for the re-assessment notices originally issued during 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021. This set of provision, which was undoubtedly well intended and beneficial to the assessees in the area of reassessments, met with such kind of litigation up to the highest court twice and still cases involved are not concluded with a possibility of further litigation. This reflects the state of affairs in the Country with regard to repetitive and long drawn unending litigation in tax matters leading to uncertainty. Unfortunately, such trend may also continue in future if the past experience of tax litigation is any guide. This also affects the investments and growth prospects of overall economy which is against the interest of every one. As such, some drastic steps are needed to remedy this situation and more importantly, mind set and approach of All Stake Holders need to change in this regard and that is perhaps the need of the hour in overall national interest. Let us be positive and hope for the sunrise.

9.8 Further amendments have been made in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings such as sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 etc. by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 w.e.f. 1st September, 2024. Therefore, reassessment notice issued from 1st September, 2024 will be governed by these amended provisions.

Chatting Up About India: Taxpayer Asks From Income Tax Code

The purpose of this article is to present income taxpayer view and some asks. Its cause is some movement in the government about relooking at tax code project more actively. After all, hope of taxpayer cannot be taken or taxed.

Ideally and reasonably, the tax code should mean an enabling force to lead Bharat towards the vision of 2047. For this to happen, taxpayer inputs are critical. Normally taxpayer inputs are taken as a checkbox ticking process. Tax administration does not record reasons for acceptance or rejection of inputs nor communicates anything about them, leave alone reasoning them out. Taxpayer suggestions pass as ‘consultation’, but falls way short of taking the shape of ‘consideration’. Everyone knows that the powerful finally do what they want and what will balance the budget as the obvious and fundamental matters remain off the agenda for decades. At the same time, it will be unfair to ignore work done by this NDA government in last 11 years towards making positive changes.

Nothing in this article that sounds sweeping, is not meant to be so, as there will always be exceptions. The matters in the following paragraphs are based on trends, concept of pre-dominance for the purpose of relevance, emphasis and common sense.

Nation: From Claws to Clauses

The claws of British Raj ended in 1947 and 1950 as we celebrate 75 years of Samvidhaan. The Claws of British ended and a new Rule of Law was envisaged where the nation will run with Clauses that will work for its citizens. The transition is ongoing from the CLAWS of the RAJ to CLAUSES of the STATE and not complete. The legacy system of income taxes is modelled on the Raj. Social Contract (rights, obligations and functions of citizens and government) is still not in place as a diverse country like ours would like. Now we are faced with the magical opportunity to make Bharat glorious for everyone where everyone works towards that common dream. The state obviously is funded by taxes and in that context; the taxpayer is that sub set of the citizenry, which is akin to National Treasure or the precious lot1, that makes a tangible contribution towards making Bharat glorious.


1 Budget Documents of 2024: 19% of Union Budget met by Income taxes

Taxpayer — KarDaataais the real Rashtra Samvardhak

Often the Sarkar takes credit for all development and good news. That is not true largely. Like the AnnaDaata, that is glorified in every political speech (despite them remaining poor and dependent), a taxpayer is the AnnaDaata. She gives nourishment to all schemes, spending, and development through taxes and therefore is a राष्ट्रपोषक, राष्ट्रसंवर्धक, and राष्ट्रकर्तारः. So, taking credit by executive would be like RBI taking credit for every rupee spent or earned since it prints the currency.

The point here is critical: understanding of the KarDaataaas VikasPoshak and should therefore be central to tax laws (by the way, it is not). While many people in the country take to streets, block roads for months, climb on Red Fort and remove tricolour to thrust their demands or protest; the taxpayers who contribute 19 per cent of Union Budget 2024 via income taxes don’t do any of this despite having fair case for a much better treatment. The words of then revenue secretary and now the Reserve Bank of India Governor, Shri Sanjay Malhotra talking to DRI officers pointed out: “We are here not only for revenue, we are here for the whole economy of the country, so if in the process of garnering some small revenue, we are hurting the whole industry or the economy of the country, it is certainly not the intent. Revenue comes in only when there is some income, so we have to be very cautious so that we do not in the process, as they say, kill the golden goose”2


2 https://www.cnbctv18.com/economy/revenue-secretary-sanjay-malhotra-stresses-balanced-approach-to-customs-duty-enforcement-19519098.htm - cnbctv18.com, December 4, 2024

Let’s look at who is this taxpayer?

a) Out of about 140,00,00,000 people of India, 7,54,61,286 individuals file tax returns3.


3 Income Tax Returns Statistics AY 2023-24, Published in June 2024

b) Of the 7.54 Crores individual tax returns, 2,81,61,3614 individual tax returns contributed to ₹6,77,350 Crore as Income Tax Liability5 as declared by them as tax on ₹61,77,988 Crores of GTI or Gross Total Income6. Thus, only 2 per cent of the population in India pays income taxes.


4 Ibid Page 31
5 Ibid Page 6
6 Ibid Page 6

c) Of the above 7.54 Crore people, about 6.92 Crore7 people are in the slab of up to ₹15,00,000 GTI, and declare some 40 Lac Crore as GTI8.


7 Ibid Page 21
8 Ibid page 21

d) During her working life, a taxpayer contributes 5-10-20-30-40 per cent of working life towards this goal excluding indirect taxes and other taxes and levies. How? Because the time spent by her at work, results in earnings, out of that earning, a portion goes as tax. Therefore, she gives on an average 5 per cent to 43 per cent of working life time for the country. That is how Karadaatais Annadataor Vikas Poshak that nourishes the nation.

e) What is a common taxpayer trying to do: He is wanting to come out of poverty / lack and improve his ability to buy for himself and family a life of dignity, comfort, safety and wishes to die without lack and pain.

f) This taxpayer is also “valuable convertible currency” — she can move to other countries and contribute to that country’s development and growth and pay taxes there if the opportunity is better elsewhere. It is well known that Indians are TOP expats anywhere in the world who contribute more and take less from those governments. Richest group in America is of Indian origin — they seek little benefits, they are most educated, they have open outlook, contribute to economy and society in every sphere from taxes to politics.

g) What is beating down the taxpayer in achieving his goal: Inflation and tax obligation defeat the citizen’s aspirations given in (e) above. Therefore, one cannot talk of taxes without inflation. Normally one can compare rise in basic exemption limit by comparing it with inflation indices. But for a moment I wish to present the ‘gold standard’ on how even the Basic Exemption Limit (BEL) furthers this beating of taxpayer:


9 Finance Bill, 1971 for FY 2071-72 
10 https://www.bankbazaar.com/gold-rate/gold-rate-trend-in-india.html

Analysis:

i) Why Gold: Gold has been historically and presently the store of value for all central banks. Value of currency is not the real value nor is declared inflation true reflection of what currency can do. This comparison tells us that BEL is actually going down instead of up, it hasn’t protected taxpayers, and erodes their ability to save and invest. Even if one were to take, ₹700,000 as that BEL, it is more than 30 per cent lower. The author does understand gold as investment class, however it has been so for millennia.

ii) The Basic Exemption Limit if one wants 143 gms. gold should be ₹10.56 lacs at ₹73,909 / 10 gms gold price on 1st April, 2024.

iii) The table shows that BEL has been beating the hell out of taxpayer, especially those on the edge who are trying to stay afloat to remain in the middle income group.

iv) Similar exercise can be done for upper limit of 30 per cent from which maximum rate applies. It could have the same outcome.

h) A taxpayer tries to race and beat the scourge of inflation eating into his savings by investing in modes like the stock market. However, today LTCGs is taxed at flat rate above ₹1.25 Lacs despite continuation of STT (which was brought in place of exemption of LTCG).

i) Inflation basket: The inflation basket doesn’t take two major expenses of middle income group adequately —housing costs and education cost. For emerging middle-income group, which pays this tax at a level that it bleeds, inflation is not factored by tax system fairly. BEL is not ‘inflation adjusted’.

j) What do you get for being a taxpayer: It must be noted that taxpayer doesn’t get ONE BENEFIT from Sarkar that a non-taxpayer doesn’t get (well we received certificates for 1-2 years). Further the taxpayer is susceptible to come into a ‘harassment net’ in the form of not given tax credit despite tax credit in Form 26AS or sending claims for unpaid taxed that are of 10-15 years old without showing any basis and even adjusting refunds against those so called unpaid demands. In fact, if you are general category, your taxes will be used to deny your children admissions on merit by huge margins to the extent that you pay two to three-times apart from being discriminated on marks. One reason for brain drain.

k) Paying taxes will debar you from every incentive a non-taxpayer enjoys at the expense of the taxpayer.

Therefore, the only response a government with a reasonable mind-set, which can grasp the above, is to protect this taxpayer number, and let it grow organically so that it can contribute more by earning more. Disrupting its earning, taking taxes excessively, being unfair will have adverse results.

Tax Administration — A Business Case

The tax administration consists of unelected people but it carries substantial power. The taxpaying citizens’ ask from tax administration is small and reasonable: have clear to understand and easy to comply tax laws and procedures.

At a structural level, the problem with the tax administration is that an individual administrator has nothing to lose personally for a decision he takes or not take whereas the taxpayer has a large monetary stake. This problem gets bigger by slow, expensive, cumbersome and little recourse to justice.

Typically, administrative system is modelled to self-perpetuate — making more of itself and increase the work and importance for itself. This is despite the bureaucracy often identified with sub-par outcomes, corruption, revenue bias, inability to listen to people it is meant to serve, slow implementation, and low standards of services.

Considering the above facts and facets about the taxpayer, the supreme role of tax administration should be to make lives of taxpayers easy, remove difficulties with pace and not have adversarial attitude. The idea of Sarkar vs. Kardaataa where the previous is chasing the latter is a remnant of the Raj. Yet, Sarkar remains the biggest litigant and from tax litigation its track record at winning at all three levels is far from admirable. Therefore, adversity, except with proven evaders and criminals, should be avoided. It just makes business sense.

The idea of serving the taxpayer where he can earn more and therefore he can in absolute terms pay more tax is genetically and historically missing. Tax laws should be made and presented as enablers.

Taxpayer Asks

The following paragraphs carry some simple ideas. Ideas that can:

a) be implemented without much effort,

b) be disproportionately in favour of benefits while evaluating effort vs. benefits ratio,

c) yield long term and short term benefits to taxpayer and tax collector.

d) makeViksit Bharat Sankalp a reality.

e) be measuring rods to evaluate existing laws and as tools to fix undesirable tax laws and their administration.

I. SIMPLICITY OF DRAFTING

Law is how it reads, just as money is what money can buy. Law need not be simple, but its drafting certainly can be.

Anyone who opens the ITA or Rules can tell that it’s not in English that common taxpayer can read and understand both. It is written in terse, dated, Queen’s English that is already BANNED in many countries11 where Queen / King are still on their currency. Such legal writing is culturally misplaced and at best a remnant of the Raj. US and UK had a Plain English movement12 in 1970s. New Zealand has a Legislation Manual13 on drafting laws in a language that is clear for mortals to decipher. It says: “Drafters must never lose an opportunity to make legislation easier to understand. This is primarily a matter of using plain language and drafting clearly14. The Legislation Manual prohibits use of certain words that are everywhere in Indian tax laws.

Indian legislative drafting is far from plain English. India is not Bharat so far as legislative drafting of income tax laws is concerned. We are more British than even the present Britain despite the Queen having left 75 years ago and now even the planet. We haven’t won the battle between Authority and Accessibility yet, which such drafting poses. Lawyers and even CAs too, often tend to believe that complexity in writing is a sign of expertise and even genius. While actually it is only a form of barrier to communication and access at best. A recent MIT report15, posted by Elon Musk16 says the same thing and gives causes and means of obfuscating laws through such writing. How are Indian laws written? Well, most Dharma Shashtras, ArthaShashtra — ideas on conduct and economics are written in poetry, with high level of aesthetics.

Clarity can only come when the language is not a barrier, and drafting is for understanding and not casting a spell. Lack of clarity shows lack of understanding and /and certainly lack of adequate care for the reader. About 0.02 per cent people said English was their first language, 6.8 per cent people said it was their second language, and 3.8 per cent said it was their third language as per last census of 2011. If I were the head of drafting team of Law Ministry, I would have them put this framed:


11 Search Plain English movement and Pg45 , Para 158 of NZ Legislation Manual
12 The movement began in the 1970s in the United States and England. It was a response to criticism of the complexity of legal English and the lack of clarity in consumer information
13 https://www.lawcom.govt.nz/assets/Publications/Reports/NZLC-R35.pdf
14 Ibid Para 118, Page 35
15 https://news.mit.edu/2024/mit-study-explains-laws-incomprehensible-writing-style-0819
16 17th December, 2024 on X

Simplicity is the price for Clarity.
Clarity is the pre-requisite of greatness.17

Here is what research, experience and common sense tells us: Sentences longer than 27 to 30 words don’t land on the other side as they should. I tried redrafting such sections and normally found that in most cases there is 30 per cent flab. The short point is that Income Tax Act should be redrafted largely to:

1. Remove long sentences and break them down in shorter sentences about 30 words in length;
2. Remove / Reduce endless web of clauses, sub clause, sub-sub clauses, explanations, provisos, cross references. Remove all obfuscating words and replace them with common sense words;

3. Shorten the entire law of 1000s of pages by 20 to 30 per cent as legalise is akin to cholesterol and visceral fat in the words of a recent report18.

4. Keep the intent, meaning, key words, numbering and flow as it is. The Act should be contemporaneous and can be rearranged where necessary and yet reduced in size.

Is this doable? Very easily. How long should this take? Perhaps 6-12 Months, if one starts with important clauses.


17 Inspired by Da Vinci quote “Simplicity is the ultimate sophistication”
18 https://www.teamleaseregtech.com/reports/jailed-for-doing-business/ - Jailed for Doing Business, 2022

II. CLARITY

Clarity amongst other meanings would be:

– Words are simple and commonly used

– Where needed, words are defined; no undefined key word should be there;

– Words should not be absurd / redundant – Example: Assessment Year. I wonder whether this has any meaning at all except confusing people. You have year of Birth, year of graduation. Take the word “actually incurred” in Sections 10(5), 10(13A), 17(2) Proviso, 35 (2B)/ (5B) and Section 220 explanation;

– Low on repetition within the section of words and phrases and structuring;

– It’s not over the top long with numerous explanations, provisos, further tarnished by multiple amendments – Example: Read Rule 11UA, Rule 2(a) has 101 words in one sentence.

– Keep control of phrases such as “being”. The word Being seeks to change reality. It creates notion and fiction rather than deal with reality. Such subjectivity causes litigation and tax evasion. Ideas of notional rent (a property which can be reasonably let out). Rent is real, it’s not a word or fiction. Law creates a fiction and then creates a charge.

– Keep control over the phrase “as may be prescribed”. This is the passport to endlessly add directions on taxpayers.

Here is an example of Clarity

Original:

“Notwithstanding anything contained herein, a person who knowingly fails to comply with the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be liable to a fine not exceeding fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, or both.” (41 words)

Clear:

“If someone knowingly violates this section, he may be fined up to ₹50,000, imprisoned for up to one year, or both.” (21 words)

As you will see Clarity and Simplicity are twins. When they play together, the game is unambiguous.

III. CONGRUENCE OF LAWS WITH EASE OF COMPLIANCE

It is a stated State Policy of PM Modi’s government where ease of living and ease of doing business are pillars of everything. However, the laws are not congruent with the state policy.

Example: Size of ITR. A blank PDF ITR 6 is 80 Pages, ITR 3 is 58 pages, ITR 7 is 33 Pages.ITR 2 is 34 Pages. I could not find ease anywhere in those pages.

Why? Because snoop for data which is otherwise available. For example, for small businesses / companies it is asking Financial Statements
details at trial balance line item level. Today the same government has, and I believe government is one in this country:

i) access to GST data — which is invoice level sale and purchase and expenses.

ii) Annual Filing with MCA of every line item of Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account.

iii) AIS and TIS give transactions;

iv) There is NSDL CAS Data for Financial Assets which an assessee can offer to share.

It’s hard to understand why ITD cannot use some of this data instead of seeking it again under every regulation and then causing internal mismatch within the ITR or ITR and TAR or even ITR and other data sets / points like customs / GST etc. It seems like a trap set up or a synonym for ‘got you’.

Duplication and Excess is an impediment. It is probably a means of the state to see if the same data comes at 3–4 places. But doesn’t help Ease of Doing Business and Ease of Living.

Action Point

1. Take Company Identification Number (CIN) and MCA filing challan number of small companies in ITR, if filing is done and audited accounts are uploaded there;

2. This can be done post ITR also — like UDIN for TAR — within say 30 days instead of giving huge financial data. This will mean authorising ITD to fetch data from MCA;

3. Same for LLP;

4. Further, there is an option to attach FS for all others where there is no tax audit or only take total assets, total liabilities, Sale, Expenses and Profit figures where there is GST.

5. Today there are many options to reduce excess, duplicity and cumbersome data filling which often are made a cause of mismatch and dispute.

IV. RESTRAINT ON AMENDMENTS AND NOTIFICATIONS

RBI brings out Master Circulars / Master Directions once a year on a fixed day. It consolidates all Circulars and Notifications.

125 Notifications and 18 Circulars are issued till 15th December, 2024 under the Direct Tax Laws. Most Notifications are very specific and irrelevant to most people. Circulars are often Q&A or clarifications. Many seem like announcements. Here is the statistics:

Calendar Year Notifications Circulars
2024 (15 Dec) 125/2024 18/2024
2023 106/2023 20/2023
2022 128/2022 25/2022

 

Wouldn’t it be great to have a Quarterly Notification and Circular giving all that is needed unless its life and death situations — like flood relief institutions etc.? Income Tax Department (ITD) must end piecemeal and haphazard approach, which makes income tax law fragmented, messy, and lying all over the place.

Action Point

a. Bring One Notification per quarter or month

b. Bring One Circular per quarter or month

c. Bring and Annual Master Direction collating all changes of the year — Notifications and Circulars.

d. Eventually review all Circulars and Notifications and withdraw what is already a law or Rule and make collation of Circulars that are applicable from a date onwards.

V. FAIRNESS & TIMELINES

a) Laws tilted in favour of tax department

i. Penalties only on taxpayer, nothing on tax officer for their shortcomings.

ii. Interest charged: 12 per cent, Interest given: 6 per cent. This promotes delay in refunds apart from being unfair. Why should a tax payer pay double interest whereas government will pay 6 per cent for delay? This is unfair and promotes late refunds and also causes working capital problems for taxpayer.

iii. Tax Department should be treated akin to trade credit for MSME. Same laws of repayment should apply as often government causes business downfall due to cash flow crunch.

b) Taxpayers’ Charter and Taxpayer Services should be made a law, at least most of it. This will mean that government is committed to taxpayer and treat them as clients. Taxpayer rights and protections are not in the law, but in taxpayer charter on the wall. Much of the taxpayer service should become part of law and tax officer should be bound to deliver basic services – timely response, not closing queries, closing grievances without confirmation of assessee, escalation available for assessee, and so on. RTI like mechanism where 14 days’ rule will apply to provide data to taxpayer. Power without corresponding responsibility and accountability is lacking in the present law.

c) Approval & Discretion without Time lines: This mechanism is most prone to abuse. We all live within time. Taxpayer has to comply within a timeline. Then why not for tax collector at every stage? Example: Taxpayer services like Section 197 certificate. There cannot be anything that requires permission or application or justice without timeline — Say I have to file an appeal in 60 days, shouldn’t ITD dispose appeal in xxx days?

VI. ARBITRARY UNMOVING MONETARY LIMITS

Arbitrary limits that remain unchanged for years and decades:

a. Section 54E: ₹50 lac permitted investment has remained same since 1st April, 2007.

b. TP Study: International transactions of ₹ One Crore and above need a TP Study. This limit is there since TP law was introduced in 2001.

c. ₹100,000 remained as a limit for exempting LTCG from 2018 till 2024.

d. ₹10 Crore on Capital Gains investment in House Property is arbitrary — no explanation, just a law that if you sell shares and buy a property which was allowed without limit, now will be allowed till ₹10 crores. What if a young citizen was planning and saving to buy a dream house for 20 years, and now he will have to pay tax on the tax paid money I invested.

e. Mediclaim limit, 80C limit of ₹150,000, ₹50,000 Standard Deduction Limit have remained unchanged for years.

f. R100 for school allowance19 — this is not a limit; it is an insult. In fact, higher education allowance is a must for taxpayers. Today general category will pay ₹20 lacs minimum in Deemed Medical colleges per year per child despite getting adequate marks. Is this honouring middle income group?


19 Section 10(14), read with Rule 2BB

VII. CONSISTENCY, SURPRISES AND TURNAROUNDS

Taxpayers want consistency and stability. This is the bedrock of any relationship. One of the main ask is to keep the policy and law consistent.

LTCG

Late FM Arun Jaitley, mentioned that India won’t impose tax on LTCG20. In February 2018 tax imposed on LTCG by Shri Jaitley. But it did not end there, STT wasn’t rolled back. Till November ₹36,000 Crores of STT21 collected in FY 24-25 and also LTCG for FY 2023-24 was ₹36, 867 Crores from Individual ITRs between the range of 150,000 to 15,00,00022.


20 25 December 2016, https://www.business-standard.com/article/reuters/india-won-t-impose-long-term-capital-gains-tax-finance-minister-jaitley-116122500535_1.html

21 https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/stt-collection-hits-36000-crore-reaching-97-of-budget-target-amid-market-rally/article68858203.ece

22  Income Tax Returns Statistics AY 2023-24, Published in June 2024, page 25

This is one recent example of lack of consistency and turnaround.

Budget as a Surprise Genie

Is Budget a magic show, where new changes are released? Much of this can stop. There is zero reason to bring out changes via Budgets without informing people in advance.

Example: Sudden change to limit of ₹10 Crore for property Purchase from sale of Shares.

If someone is in the middle of a transaction or is planning for years to buy a property, his costing changes in a big way. If there was knowledge that such changes are effective, then people can plan better. Such changes are used in the Budget as if they are a trap, as in a war where surprise is an element of ambush. Yes some rate changes etc. which are expected, or minor amendments to make law more efficient. However, taxpayer benefit should be above all and taxpayer needs to know what is coming when it’s a major change.

Imagine if this was known in advance that you have 12 months to sell equity, make gains and buy a house if you need to before 12.5 per cent and ₹10 Crore kicks in. Will it result in homes price inflation? Will there be a sell out in equity? I don’t think so. India is way too large now for such changes rocking the markets.

Example of Turnaround: Adding MAT to Tax Free SEZ Units midway in 10-year time period.

SEZ were exempt from tax as scheme. One fine day MAT on SEZ was introduced. This is breaking a promise. Once an investor has started a project with knowledge that there won’t be taxes, and then taxes creep in, it is breaking the contracts through law. A sovereign right need not be used to disrupt and throw taxpayers under the bus.

Predictability attracts investments as it reduces risk and is the bedrock of Trust.

Finally, taxmen always ask this question: will all these increase tax compliance and revenue? The answer is yes, because this government itself has adopted some simplification measures that resulted in better compliance, more tax, and more taxpayers. Mahabharata says Dharma always wins in the end. It means if one does the right things, the end result will be right.

There is a vision and idea of Amrit Kal. Another article will deal with some of the specific changes that are necessary in tax laws and procedures and affecting most taxpayers. Some of these may be redundancy, absurdity, unclarity, complexity and the like. Amrit only comes from manthan, and income tax law requires true manthan, where Amrit and Laxmi can both emerge for all people of Bharat.

Validity Of Reassessment Notice Issued U/S 148 By Jurisdictional Assessing Officer

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

The revised procedure for reassessment introduced with effect from 1st April, 2021 is a two-stage process – a procedure u/s 148A for deciding whether it is a fit case for issue of notice for reassessment, and the procedure for reassessment u/s 148. While the reassessment has to be done in a faceless manner as required by section 151A by the National Faceless Assessment Centre / Faceless Assessing Officer (NFAC / FAO), the procedure u/s 148A to determine whether the case is fit for reassessment is not required to be conducted in a faceless manner and has therefore to be conducted by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO).

Under section 148A(3) [s.148A(d) till 31st August, 2024], the Assessing Officer (AO) is required to pass an order, after taking approval of the specified authority u/s 151, determining whether or not the case is fit for reassessment. This has to be done by the AO after issuing show cause notice to the assessee and considering the reply of the assessee. If the case is found fit for reassessment, u/s 148(1), the AO is required to issue a notice u/s 148, along with a copy of the order passed u/s 148A(3)/148A(d), requiring the assessee to furnish a return of income for the relevant
assessment year.

In most cases of reassessment, the JAO has been issuing the notice u/s 148 and serving it on the assessee, along with the order u/s 148A(3)/148A(d). The issue has arisen before the High Courts as to whether such a notice u/s 148 should have been issued by the FAO, and therefore whether the notice u/s 148 and the consequent reassessment proceedings are valid in law. While the Karnataka, Telangana, Bombay and Gauhati High Courts have recently taken the view that such notice issued by the JAO is invalid since it ought to have been issued by the FAO, the Delhi High Court has upheld the validity of such a notice issued by the FAO.

While this controversy has been covered in the June 2024 issue of the BCA Journal, at that point of time there were only two High Court decisions on the subject, that of the Calcutta High Court and one of the Bombay High Court. The subsequent High Court decisions have dealt with the subject at great length, in particular, the Delhi High Court, and therefore it was thought fit to cover
the greater detail of this controversy that has come to the fore.

HEXAWARE TECHNOLOGIES’ CASE

The issue had come up for consideration before the Bombay High Court in the case of Hexaware Technologies Ltd vs. ACIT 464 ITR 430.

In this case, the assessee company was engaged in information technology consulting, software development and business process services. For assessment Year 2015-16, the assessee had filed its return of income on 28th November, 2015. Its assessment was completed u/s 143(3) vide assessment order dated 30th November, 2017.

The JAO issued a notice dated 8th April, 2021 under section 148 (pre-amendment) stating that he had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax for Assessment Year 2015-2016 had escaped assessment within the meaning of Section 147. The assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the notice u/s 148 on the ground that the notice had been issued on the basis of provisions which had ceased to exist and were no longer in the statute. The writ
petition was allowed by the Bombay High Court on 29th March, 2022, holding that the notice dated 8th April, 2021 was invalid.

On a Special leave Petition filed by the Revenue in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal 444 ITR 1 (SC), the Supreme Court, in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, passed orders with respect to the notices and inter alia held that the notices issued under section 148 after 1st April, 2021 be treated as notices issued under section 148A(b); and provided for timelines to be followed by the AOs for providing assessees the information and material relied upon by the Revenue for initiating reassessment proceedings. The Supreme Court also clarified that all the defenses available to assessees under the provisions of the Act would be available to the assessee.

Thereafter, the JAO issued notice dated 25th May, 2022, stating that the notice was issued in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). The assessee filed its objections to the validity of the notice and proposed reassessment vide its letter dated 10th June, 2022. The JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) on 26th August, 2022, holding that it was fit case for reassessment on some of the grounds. Notice u/s 148 was issued manually by the JAO on 27th August, 2022, stating that the JAO had information which suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment for AY 2015-16.

The assessee again approached the Bombay High Court with a writ petition, challenging the validity of notice dated 25th May, 2022, order u/s 148A(d) dated 26th August, 2022 and notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 on various grounds, including that the notice u/s 148 was invalid as it had been issued by the JAO and not by the FAO.

Before the Bombay High Court, on behalf of the assessee, besides other arguments relating to the validity of the notices, it was argued that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, which was not in accordance with Section 151A, which gave power to the CBDT to notify the Scheme for the purpose of assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147, for issuance of notice under section 148 or for conducting of inquiry or issuance of show cause notice or passing of order under section 148A or sanction for issuance of notice under section 151.

In exercise of the powers conferred under section 151A, the CBDT issued a notification dated 29th March, 2022 after laying the same before each House of Parliament, and formulated a Scheme called “the e-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022” (the Scheme). The Scheme provides that (a) the assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147 and (b) the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with Risk Management Strategy (RMS) formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. The notice dated
27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

On behalf of the Revenue, in relation to the jurisdiction of the JAO to issue notice u/s 148, relying on the notification dated 29th March 2022 [Notification No. 18/2022/F. No.370142/16/2022-TPL], it was submitted that:

(i) The guideline dated 1st August, 2022 issued by the CBDT includes a suggested format for issuing notice under section 148, as an Annexure to the said guideline and it requires the designation of the AO along with the office address to be mentioned and, therefore, it is clear that the JAO is required to issue the said notice and not the FAO.

(ii) ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 dated 24th June, 2022, an internal document, regarding issuing notice under section 148 for the cases impacted by Hon’ble Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra), requires the notice issued under section 148 to be physically signed by the AOs and, therefore, the JAO has jurisdiction to issue notice under section 148 and it need not be issued by FAO.

(iii) FAO and JAO have concurrent jurisdiction and merely because the Scheme has been framed under section 151A, does not mean that the jurisdiction of the JAO is ousted or that the JAO cannot issue the notice under section 148.

(iv) The notification dated 29th March, 2022 provides that the Scheme so framed, is applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B and Section 144B does not refer to issuance of notice under section 148. Hence, the notice cannot be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme.

(v) No prejudice is caused to the assessee when the notice is issued by the JAO and, therefore, it is not open to the assessee to contend that the said notice is invalid merely because the same is not issued by the FAO.

(vi) Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023 issued by CBDT (TPL division) with the subject – “seeking inputs/comments on the issue of challenge of jurisdiction of JAO – reg.” the Office Memorandum contains the arguments of the Revenue in the context of the Scheme to submit that the notice under section 148 is required to be issued by the JAO and not FAO.
It was argued on behalf of the Revenue that no prejudice had been caused to assessee by the JAO issuing the notice, because the reassessment would be done by the FAO. As held by the Calcutta High Court in Triton Overseas (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India 156 taxmann.com 318 (Cal.), this objection of the assessee had to be rejected.

The Bombay High Court analysed the provisions of section 151A and the notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued u/s 151A. It noted that as per the notified scheme, the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with RMS formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. It observed that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

The Bombay High Court observed that the guidelines dated 1st August, 2022 relied upon by the Revenue were not applicable because these guidelines were internal guidelines as was clear from the endorsement on the first page of the guideline “Confidential For Departmental Circulation Only”. These guidelines were not issued under section 119 and were not binding on the assessee. According to the High Court, these guidelines were also not binding on the JAO as they were contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme framed u/s 151A. The High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sofitel Realty LLP vs. ITO (TDS) 457 ITR 18 (Bom.), where the Court had held that guidelines were subordinate to the principal Act or Rules, and could not restrict or override the application of specific provisions enacted by the legislature. The Court further observed that the guidelines did not deal with or even refer to the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 framed by the Government under section 151A. As per the Court, the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 u/s 151A, which had also been laid before Parliament, would be binding on the Revenue, and the guideline dated 1st August, 2022 could not supersede the Scheme. If it provided anything to the contrary to the said Scheme, then that was required to be treated as invalid and bad in law.

As regards ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 regarding issuance of notice u/s 148 relied upon by the Revenue, as per the High Court, an internal document could not depart from the explicit statutory provisions of, or supersede the Scheme framed by the Government under section 151A, which Scheme was also placed before both the Houses of Parliament. This was more so when the document did not even consider or refer to the Scheme. Further, the High Court was of the view that the document was clearly intended to be a manual/guide as to how to use the Income-tax Department’s (ITD) portal, and did not even claim to be a statement of the Revenue’s position/stand on the issue in question.

The Bombay High Court was further of the view that there was no question of concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148 or even for passing assessment or reassessment order. When specific jurisdiction had been assigned to either the JAO or the FAO in the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, then it was to the exclusion of the other. According to the High Court, to take any other view in the matter would not only result in chaos but also render the whole faceless proceedings redundant. If the argument of Revenue was to be accepted, then even when notices were issued by the FAO, it would be open to an assessee to make submission before the JAO and vice versa, which was clearly not contemplated in the Act.

The High Court further noted that the Scheme in paragraph 3 clearly provided that the issuance of notice “shall be through automated allocation” which meant that the same was mandatory, and was required to be followed by the Department, without any discretion to the ITD to choose whether to follow it or not. “Automated allocation” was defined in paragraph 2(b) of the Scheme to mean an algorithm for randomized allocation of cases by using suitable technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, with a view to optimise the use of resources. Therefore, it meant that the case could be allocated randomly to any officer who would then have jurisdiction to issue the notice under section 148. The Court noted that it was not the ITD’s case that the JAO was the random officer who was allocated jurisdiction.

Addressing the Revenue’s argument that the Scheme so framed was applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B, that Section 144B did not refer to issuance of notice u/s 148 and hence the notice could not be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme, the High Court noted that section 151A itself contemplated formulation of Scheme for both assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as for issuance of notice u/s 148. Therefore, the Scheme, which covered both the aforesaid aspects of the provisions of section 151A, could not be said to be applicable only for one aspect, i.e., proceedings post the issue of notice u/s 148, being assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 and inapplicable to the issuance of notice u/s 148. According to the High Court, such an argument advanced by the Revenue would render clause 3(b) of the Scheme otiose and to be ignored or contravened, as according to the JAO, even though the Scheme specifically provided for issuance of notice u/s 148 in a faceless manner, no notice was required to be issued u/s 148 in a faceless manner. In such a situation, not only clause 3(b) but also the first two lines below clause 3(b) would be otiose, as it dealt with the aspect of issuance of notice u/s 148.

If clause 3(b) of the Scheme was not applicable, then only clause 3(a) of the Scheme remained. What was covered in clause 3(a) of the Scheme was already provided in Section 144B(1), which Section provided for faceless assessment, and covered assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147. Therefore, if Revenue’s arguments were to be accepted, there was no purpose of framing a Scheme only for clause 3(a), which was in any event already covered under faceless assessment regime in Section 144B. Therefore, as per the High Court, the Revenue’s argument rendered the whole Scheme redundant. An argument which rendered the whole Scheme otiose could not be accepted as correct interpretation of the Scheme.

The High Court observed that the phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” in the Scheme was with reference to only making assessment or reassessment or total income or loss of assessee, and was not relevant for issuing notice. The phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” would mean that the restriction provided in Section 144B, such as keeping the International Tax Jurisdiction or Central Circle Jurisdiction out of the ambit of Section 144B, would also apply under the Scheme. Further the exceptions provided in sub-section (7) and (8) of Section 144B would also be applicable to the Scheme.

As per the Bombay High Court, when an authority acted contrary to law, the said act of the Authority was required to be quashed and set aside as invalid and bad in law, and the person seeking to quash such an action was not required to establish prejudice from the said act. An act which was done by an authority contrary to the provisions of the statute itself caused prejudice to an assessee. All assessees are entitled to be assessed as per law and by following the procedure prescribed by law. Therefore, when the Income-tax Authority proposed to act against an assessee without following the due process of law, the said action itself resulted in a prejudice to the assessee.

With respect to the Office Memorandum (OM) dated 20th February, 2023, the Bombay High Court observed that that OM merely contained the comments of the Revenue issued with the approval of Member (L&S), CBDT, and was not in the nature of a guideline or instruction issued u/s 119 so as to have any binding effect on the Revenue. Further, some of the contents of the OM were clearly contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme. These were highlighted by the Court as under:

1. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that issue of the notice u/s 148 had to be through automation in accordance with the RMS referred to in section148. The issuance of notice is not through automation but through “automated allocation”. The term “automated allocation” is defined in clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme to mean random allocation of cases to AOs. Therefore, it is clear that the AOs are randomly selected to handle a case and it is not merely notice sought to be issued through automation.

2. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that “To this end, as provided in section 148 of the Act, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of RMS.” The reference to “random” in the Scheme is reference to selection of AO at random and not selection of Section 148 cases at random. If the cases for issuance of notice u/s 148 are selected based on criteria of the RMS, then, obviously, the same are not randomly selected, as random means something which is chosen by chance rather than according to a plan. If the ITD’s argument is that the applicability of section 148 is on random basis, then the provisions of section 148 itself would become contrary to Article 14 of the Constitution of India as being arbitrary and unreasonable. The term ‘random’, in the Court’s view, had been used in the context of assigning the case to a random AO, i.e., an AO would be randomly chosen by the system to handle a particular case. The term ‘random’ was not used for selection of case for issuance of notice u/s 148 as had been alleged by the Revenue in the OM. Further, in paragraph 3.2 of the OM, with respect to the reassessment proceedings, the reference to ‘random allocation’ had correctly been made as random allocation of cases to the Assessment Units by the NFAC. The Court observed that when random allocation was with reference to officer for reassessment, then the same would equally apply for issuance of notice u/s 148.

3. The conclusion in paragraph 3 of the OM that “Therefore, as provided in the scheme the notice u/s 148 of the Act is issued on automated allocation of cases to the AO based on the risk management criteria” was also held to be factually incorrect and on the basis of incorrect interpretation of the Scheme by the High Court. Clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme, which defined ‘automated allocation’, did not provide that the automated allocation of case to the AO was based on the risk management criteria. The reference to risk management criteria in clause 3 of the Scheme was to the effect that the notice u/s 148 should be in accordance with the RMS formulated by the board, which was in accordance with Explanation 1 to Section 148.

4. In paragraph 3.1 of the OM, it was stated that the cases selected prior to issuance of notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected. It was further stated that these cases are ‘flagged’ to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems, the JAO does not have any control over the process and has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether the case will be ‘flagged’ by the system. The contention of the Revenue is that only cases which are ‘flagged’ by the system as per the RMS formulated by CBDT can be considered by the AO for reopening. In clause (i) in Explanation 1 to Section 148, the term “flagged” has been deleted by the Finance Act, 2022, with effect from 1st April, 2022. In any case, whether only cases which are flagged can be reopened or not is not relevant to decide the scope of the Scheme framed under section 151A.

5. As regards the statement in paragraph 3.1 of the OM that “Therefore, whether JAO or NFAC should issue such notice is decided by administration keeping in mind the end result of natural justice to the assessees as well as completion of required procedure in a reasonable time”, the High Court was of the opinion that there was no such power given to the administration under either Section 151A or under the Scheme. The Scheme was clear and categorical that notice u/s 148 shall be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

6. The statement in paragraph 3.3 of the OM that “Here it is pertinent to note that the said notification does not state whether the notices to be issued by the NFAC or the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (“JAO”)……It states that issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS and that the assessment shall be in faceless manner to the extent provided in section 144B of the Act” was also held to be erroneous by the High Court. The Scheme was categoric that the notice u/s 148 was to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner. The Scheme clearly provided that the notice u/s 148 of the Act was required to be issued by NFAC and not the JAO. Further, unlike as canvassed by Revenue that only the assessment shall be in faceless manner, the Scheme was very clear that both the issuance of notice and assessment shall be in faceless manner.

7. In paragraph 5 of the OM, a completely unsustainable and illogical submission had been made that Section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid out, considering the technological feasibility at the time. Reading the Scheme along with Section 151A made it clear that neither the Section or the Scheme spoke about the detailed specifics of the procedure to be followed therein. The argument of the Revenue that Section 151A considered that the procedure may be modified under the Act was without appreciating that if the procedure was required to be modified, then that would require modification of the notified Scheme. It was not open to the Revenue to refuse to follow the Scheme as the Scheme was clearly mandatory and was required to be followed by all AOs.

8. The argument of the Revenue in paragraph 5.1 of the OM that the Section and Scheme had left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the said Section and Scheme, was without appreciating that one of the main principles laid down in the Scheme was that the notice u/s 148 was required to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

The Bombay High Court refused to treat the Calcutta High Court decision in Triton Overseas (supra) as a precedent, since the Calcutta High Court had passed the order without considering the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022. The Calcutta High Court had only referred to the OM dated 20th February, 2023, which had been considered by the Bombay High Court. The Bombay High Court expressed its agreement with the decision of the Telangana High Court in the case of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy vs. ITO 295 Taxman 652, which had held that in view of the provisions of Section 151A read with the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, the notices issued by the JAOs were invalid and bad in law.

The Bombay High Court therefore held that the notice u/s 148 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, as the same was not in accordance with Section 151A.

The view taken in this decision of the Bombay High Court was followed in many more subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court, and by other High Courts in the cases of Govind Singh vs. ITO 300 Taxman 216 (HP), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India 466 ITR 474 (P&H), and Jasjit Singh vs. Union of India 467 ITR 52 (P&H).

T K S BUILDERS’ CASE

The issue came up again for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of TKS Builders (P) Ltd v ITO 167 taxmann.com 759. A bunch of other appeals were also decided along with this.

In this case, a notice u/s 148 (pre-amendment) was issued on 31st March 2021. This was challenged by way of a writ petition. The writ petition was decided along with Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 2022 SCC OnLine Del 3141, and interim orders were passed on 24th March, 2022 restraining the tax authorities from taking any coercive action against the assessee in pursuance of the notice u/s 148. Subsequently, on 4th May, 2022, the Supreme Court pronounced its judgment in Ashish Agarwal (supra), treating all such notices issued under the pre-amended section 148 as notices issued u/s 148A(b) as inserted with effect from 1.4.2021.

Pursuant to the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), a notice u/s 148A(b) was issued to the assessee on 2nd June, 2022. The assessee furnished a response to that notice on 15th June, 2022. As per the procedure prescribed in Section 148A, the JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) dated 22nd July 2022 rejecting the objections against reassessment. This was followed by issue of a notice u/s 148 of the same date.

Pursuant to Asish Agarwal’s decision, the Delhi High Court passed orders in Suman Jeet Agarwal and bunched cases on 27th September, 2022, reported as Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 449 ITR 517. Pursuant to this decision of the Delhi High Court, another notice u/s 148A(b) dated 28th October 2022 was issued to the assessee. This was followed by an order u/s 148A(d) dated 13th December, 2022 along with a notice u/s 148 of the same date. Although a final reassessment order dated 24th May, 2023 was passed, this order refers to the notice u/s 148 dated 22nd July, 2022. The assessee filed a writ petition against this order of reassessment.

The challenge to the notice u/s 148 was primarily based on the argument that, after the introduction of sections 144B and 151A read together with the E- Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction to commence proceedings u/s 148.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that once the Revenue had chosen to adopt the faceless procedure for assessment even in respect of reassessment, the JAO would have no authority to invoke Section 148. Reliance was placed on the decisions in the cases of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy (supra), Hexaware Technologies (supra), Venkatramana Reddy Patloola vs. Dy CIT 2024 SCC Online TS 1792, Rama Narayan Sah vs. Union of India 299 Taxman 276 (Gau), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India (supra) for this proposition.

The Delhi High Court observed that in the decision in Hexaware Technologies (supra), a detailed reference was made to an Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023. However, that document was actually the instructions provided to counsels for the Revenue in connection with the batch of writ petitions pending before that High Court. They were thus rightly construed as not being statutory instructions which the CBDT is otherwise empowered to issue under the Act.

The Delhi High Court, keeping in mind that its decision was likely to have an impact on a large number of matters, passed a direction on 29th August 2024 for an appropriate affidavit being filed by the Revenue, bearing in mind the larger ramifications of an action annulling innumerable notices which had come to be issued in the meanwhile. Accordingly, a detailed affidavit was filed by the Revenue. The points made in this affidavit included:

1. As envisioned in s.148, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of the RMS. The AO has no role to play in such selection. Consequent to such selection, the information is made available to the AO who, with the prior approval of specified authority, determines which of these cases are fit for proceedings u/s 147 as per the procedure provided in s.148A.

2. The scheme provides for randomized allocation of cases, to ensure fair and reasonableness in the selection of cases. In the procedure for issuance of notice u/s 148, this is ensured, as cases selected prior to issuance of the notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per the RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected.

3. Such cases are flagged to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems and the JAO does not have any control over the process.

4. The cases are selected on the basis of RMS in a random manner, and the JAO has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether a case will be flagged by the Systems.

5. Consequent to the issuance of notice u/s 148 as per the procedure discussed above, cases are again randomly allocated to the Assessment Units by the National Faceless Assessment Centre as per Section 144B(1)(i).

6. Under the provisions of the Act, both the JAO as well as units under NFAC have concurrent jurisdiction. The Act does not distinguish between JAO or NFAC with respect to jurisdiction over a case. This is further corroborated by the fact that u/s 144B, the records in a case are transferred back to the JAO as soon as the assessment proceedings are completed.

7. Since s.144B does not provide for issuance of notice u/s 148, there is no ambiguity in the fact that the JAO still has jurisdiction to issue notice u/s 148.

8. The parent section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid down considering their technological feasibility at the time.

9. The Scheme lays down that the issuance of notice u/s 148 shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS, and that the assessment shall be in a faceless manner to the extent provided in s. 144B.

10. The specifics of the various parts of the procedure will evolve with time as the technology evolves and the structures in the ITD change. The Section and the scheme have left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time, while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the Section and scheme. By conducting the procedures at two levels, one with the JAO and other with NFAC, an attempt has been made to introduce checks and balances within the system that the assessee can submit evidences and can avail opportunity of hearing prior to commencement of any proceedings under the Act.

11. Re-assessment proceedings consequent to the issuance of notice conducted as per the faceless assessment ensures convenience of the assessee, equitable distribution of workload among the officers and is also compatible with the technological abilities in the ITD as on date, to ensure a procedure which is seamless, reasonable and fair for the assessee.

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the Court was drawn to the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. The various Faceless Schemes, as envisaged in the Act, were placed on record. Statutory provisions relevant to Faceless Scheme of Assessment were also considered, including sections 135A, 144B, 148 and 151A, and the Faceless Re-Assessment Scheme, 2022.

The Delhi High Court observed that with the advent of technology, the Revenue appeared to have over a course of time adopted new tools for assembling, accumulation and analysis of data embedded in the millions of returns which came to be filed every financial year, adopting measures such as Computer Aided Scrutiny Selection, Annual Information Return data and Central Information Branch data. These measures appeared to have been formulated in order to aid and assist the Revenue with respect to scrutiny assessment, investigation and evaluation.

The Instructions issued by the ITD from time to time, which assisted in appreciating how these new technological capabilities had been deployed by the ITD to aid it in the discharge of its functions, were also placed before the High Court. The order u/s 119 dated 6th September, 2021 and amending order dated 22nd September, 2021, which chronicled various categories of cases which would stand excluded from faceless assessment, were placed before the High Court, as well as the Instructions issued by the Directorate of Systems dated 16th November 2023, relating to the utilization of the Insight Portal and selection of cases in accordance with the RMS as formulated. The Notification issued u/s 120 dated 13th August 2020, which designated the authorities charged with the conduct of faceless assessment in respect of various territorial areas, was also brought to the notice of the High Court.

The Delhi High Court analysed the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. It noted that the common thread underlying the various facets of the evolving faceless assessment regime from its inception till the present, had been the felt need to enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the process of assessment and reducing the human interface between the AO and the assessee. It further noticed that despite the expressed intent to altogether eliminate the interface between the AO and the assessee, both the Notifications of 12th September, 2019 as well as of 13th August, 2020 had not excluded the involvement of the JAO completely and in the course of the faceless assessment process. As per the High Court, the ITD appeared to have been at all times, cautious of not precluding the involvement of JAO within the faceless assessment process. The retention of the JAO in certain phases of the assessment process reflected a balanced approach, aiming to preserve transparency and efficiency while ensuring that complex issues received appropriate attention from a qualified and experienced AO.

The High Court illustrated this by reference to:

1. the Notification of 12th September, 2019 which mandated that NFAC, after the completion of assessment, would transfer all electronic records of the case to the JAO under certain circumstances;

2. the Notification dated 13th August, 2020, which had introduced amendments to the previous Notification of 12th September, 2019, and had contemplated the role of the JAO in the faceless assessment scheme for transfer of case records, for transfer of case to the AO, and for transfer of case records of penalty proceedings.

The High Court observed that the principal question which arose for its consideration was whether s.144B precluded the JAO from initiating proceedings for reassessment in terms as contemplated u/s 148 and in accordance with the procedure prescribed in s. 148A. Analysing the provisions of s.151A, the High Court noted that as was manifest from the plain language of that provision, the underlying objective of such a scheme was to meet the legislative objective of eliminating the interface between an income tax authority and the assessee, optimal utilization of resources through economies of scale and functional specializations, the introduction of team based assessment, reassessment, recomputation as well as issuance or sanction of notices. Such team-based assessment was intended to be in accordance with the randomized allocation of cases and thus the usage of the expression “dynamic jurisdiction”.

As per the High Court, both section 144B as well as section 151A sought to introduce a system in terms of which assessment or reassessment proceedings could be entrusted to Assessment Units which would be randomly identified. Section 144B and the Explanation appended thereto defined an “automated allocation system” to mean an algorithm for randomised allocation of cases with the aid of suitable technological tools and which were envisaged to extend to the employment of artificial intelligence and machine learning. From a reading of Clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme, 2022, assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 was to be by way of an automated allocation and in a faceless manner to the extent provided in Section 144B. Clause 3 also used the expression “…..in accordance with risk management strategy formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 of the Act……”. The reference to RMS in the scheme was clearly intended to align with the concept of information which was spoken of in Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148. According to the High Court, both Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148 were of critical importance.

The Delhi High Court then went on to elaborate upon the underlying scheme and objective of the RMS which came to be formulated by the Board as well as other data analytical measures which came to be adopted for the purposes of assessment under the Act. The RMS was preceded by the adoption of various technological tools by the ITD for the purposes of analysing returns, extracting data and information pertaining to the constituents of the tax base of the country and the selection of appropriate cases for scrutiny and other measures contemplated under the Act. It noted the response made by the Minister of State for Finance in the Rajya Sabha on 7th December, 2021, where he stated that for the purposes of scrutiny, cases are selected randomly through the CASS process and “in an identity blind manner”. The High Court observed that it would thus appear that by this time, the ITD clearly had in place selection criteria which took into consideration various risk parameters, and which would operate as red flags enabling and assisting the ITD to assess or reassess as well as to scrutinize in a more effective and efficient manner. This process used data analytics and algorithms to identify cases that may need closer inspection based on specific risk parameters, such as unusual financial activity, discrepancies in tax returns, or high-value transactions. The CASS process minimised human intervention in the selection phase, aiming to make the scrutiny process more objective, efficient, and unbiased by focusing on risk-based criteria rather than manual selection.

On the concept of RMS, the High Court took note of the Insight Instruction No. 71 issued by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) specifically addressing this approach. As per the Instruction, RMS and the creation of an Insight Portal were digital tools created internally by the ITD in order to enable an AO to holistically evaluate individual returns, map returns that may be found to be connected and a data set thus becoming available to be used for exploratory, statistical and perhaps even inferential analysis. The Insight Portal thus assimilated data pertaining to each individual assessee across broad parameters, stretching from comparative income tax return information, financial profiles and asset details amongst various other factors. The Insight Portal thus integrated a comprehensive dataset for each individual assessee, encompassing a wide range of parameters. These included comparative analyses of income tax return histories, detailed financial profiles, asset holdings, and additional relevant financial and transactional information. This data assimilation allowed for a nuanced view of each taxpayer’s financial standing and reporting consistency across multiple dimensions. The Insight Instruction dated 16th November 2023 disclosed that the data so collected was made visible to the JAOs on the verification module of the Insight Portal. This enabled the JAO to test the completeness of disclosures made by an individual assessee against material aggregated by the system.

In addition, the Insight Portal enabled the JAO to access a Transaction Number Sequence hyperlink which would disclose the following information pertaining to that particular assessee: (a) bank account (b) aggregate gross amount related to the account (c) cash deposits in that account and (d) information with respect to immovable property transactions and other relevant details. This feature allowed JAOs to verify if a taxpayer‘s information was complete and consistent with the data gathered by the system, making it easier to catch any missing links or inaccurate information.

The Delhi High Court emphasised that the extensive framework of information which was collected, structured and made available on the Insight Portal represented data which was made visible solely to the JAO. This entire spectrum of data, information and comprehensive insight was not digitally pushed to the NFAC in the first instance. The High Court noted that the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) was accorded the ability to randomly select cases which may have been cross referenced on the basis of the criteria and factors on which the RMS was founded. Upon such cases coming to be randomly selected and flagged, the cases so identified were then forwarded to the concerned JAO. What the ITD sought to emphasize was that the cases which were selected by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) based on the RMS was an exercise independently undertaken, with the JAO having no control over the selection process. It was in that light that the ITD asserted that the JAO could neither predict nor determine beforehand whether a case would be flagged by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems).

The High Court observed that besides the technological aspects and analytical tools, the Act itself enabled the JAO itself to select cases which may merit further inquiry or investigation on the basis of information as defined. Explanation 1 to s.148 enabled an AO to form an opinion that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment on the basis of (a) information which came to light through the RMS (b) an audit objection (c) information received under agreements with nations (d) information made available to the JAO in terms of a scheme notified u/s 135A or (e) information on which further action was warranted in consequence to an order of a Tribunal or a Court. The Act therefore permitted reassessment not only on RMS data, but also on a variety of other specified inputs, ensuring a broader foundation for initiating reassessment. Under Explanation 2 to Section 148, the material that may be gathered in the course of a search or survey also thus constituted information which came to be placed in the hands of the JAO and which may form the basis for formation of opinion of whether reassessment was merited.

The High Court then took note of the provisions of the Act which broadly identified sources from which information may be gathered by an AO for the purposes of assessment, including sections 133, 133A, 133B and 133C. It took note of the scheme for the purposes of calling for information notified u/s 135A, the powers to make reference to a Valuation officer u/s 142A and the scheme notified u/s 142B for the purposes of faceless inquiry or valuation.

The Delhi High Court then went on to consider provisions of the Act incorporated for the purposes of delineating jurisdictional boundaries and conferment of powers amongst income tax authorities, including sections 120 and 127. It noted that power to transfer a case for the purpose of centralised assessment could be exercised so as to place a particular batch of cases before any AO, irrespective of whether it had been empowered to exercise concurrent jurisdiction. The Court noted that the CBDT notifications issued for the purposes of facilitating conduct of faceless assessment and which in ambiguous terms provided that the authorities so designated in those notifications would exercise powers and discharge functions of an AO ”concurrently”, were of equal significance.

Under section 127, cases originally assigned to one officer or jurisdiction could be reassigned, grouping similar cases together for efficient handling. This power to transfer cases allowed a group of cases to be examined by a particular AO, regardless of whether that officer had authority over the cases initially. The CBDT had also issued notifications to facilitate faceless assessments, where assessments were handled without in-person interaction between the tax official and the taxpayer. These notifications allowed designated tax authorities to share the powers and duties of an AO in a concurrent manner, meaning multiple officers or authorities could simultaneously exercise the functions of an AO, especially in a faceless system. Besides, Section 144B itself conferred a power upon the Principal Chief Commissioner or the Principal Director General to transfer cases to the JAO.

The Delhi High Court took note of the deletion of sub-section (9) of section 144B by the Finance Act 2022, and the explanation given in the Explanatory Memorandum. This provided that assessment proceedings shall be void if the procedure mentioned in the section was not followed. A large number of disputes had been raised under that sub-section involving technical issues arising due to use of information technology, leading to unnecessary litigation, and hence this provision was deleted. According to the High Court, this captured the legislative intent to create an effective, fair, and flexible tax assessment process that balanced structured jurisdictional roles with the adaptability needed for centralized, faceless assessments. Notably, among the various factors that influenced this decision, what is not lost was the delicate balance sought to be struck by the Legislature between procedural adherence and practical efficiency. The Legislature recognised that while strict procedural compliance was fundamental to maintaining fairness and transparency in the assessment process, an inflexible adherence to procedure—especially in a digital and faceless assessment environment—could inadvertently lead to administrative bottlenecks and a surge in litigation. The legislature sought to ensure that the intent of the law was not overshadowed by technicalities.

The High Court observed that it became apparent that the procedure formulated and introduced by virtue of Section 144B, while undeniably transformative and disruptive and transformational, was also in many ways transitional and representative of a phased and evolving process. Various categories of cases were from inception excluded specifically from the ambit of faceless assessment. Section 144B, when it originally came to be inserted in the statute, stood confined to assessments under Sections 143(3) and 144. The words “reassessment”, ”recomputation” came to be added subsequently by virtue of Finance Act, 2022. It was this Amending Act which also added the words “Section 147” specifically in Section 144B. As the court read the section, the focal point and the nucleus of faceless assessment primarily appeared to be the assessment and analysis of returns which had been filed electronically and were to go through the rigors of regular assessment. This position emerged from a reading of the elaborate provisions contained therein and which in minute detail provided how returns were, generally under the faceless scheme, liable to be scrutinised and assessed, the random allocation of those cases to different Assessment Units, the conferment of dynamic jurisdiction upon Assessment Units, the internal review procedure pertaining to draft orders, issuance of notices and a host of other facets pertaining to assessment in general.

The High Court noted that of critical significance was the absence of any provision of Section 144B seeking to regulate the commencement of reassessment action as contemplated under Sections 147, 148 and 148A. The provision was conspicuously silent with respect to commencement of action u/s 147. Of equal importance was the fact that although Section 144B described the various steps to be taken in the course of assessment and assigned roles to different constituents of the NFAC, it did not, at least explicitly, incorporate any machinery provisions which may be read as intended to regulate the pre-issuance stages of a notice u/s 148. While it was true that Section 144B did specifically refer to reassessment, the Court was of the view that the significance of that insertion would perhaps have to adjudged bearing in mind the interpretation of the scheme for reassessment which had been advocated for the Court’s consideration by the ITD. The Court was of the view that this not only appealed to reason but may also be the more sustainable view to adopt if one were to harmoniously interpret the provisions of the Act alongside the schemes for faceless assessment coupled with the underlying objectives of reducing human interface. This approach sought to ensure that the reassessment scheme functioned in concert with the faceless assessment framework.

The Delhi High Court observed that a reassessment need not in all conceivable contingencies be triggered by a return that an assessee may choose to lodge electronically. It is a complex process driven by multiple factors that extend far beyond the initial filing of a return. As per explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148, reassessment may be commenced on the basis of information that may otherwise come to be placed in the hands of the JAO. It may be initiated if an audit objection were flagged and placed for the consideration of the JAO. Material unearthed in the course of a search or material, books of accounts or documents requisitioned under Section 132A could also constitute the basis for initiation of reassessment. Material gathered in the course of survey may also be the basis of formation of opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment. These are not founded on the material or data which may be available with NFAC.

The statute thus clearly conceived of various scenarios where the case of an assessee may be selected for examination and scrutiny on the basis of information and material that fell into the hands of the JAO directly or was otherwise made available with or without the aid of the RMS. The High Court was of the opinion that it would therefore be erroneous to view Section 144B as constituting the solitary basis for initiation of reassessment. Section 144B was primarily procedural and was principally concerned with prescribing the manner in which a faceless assessment may be conducted as opposed to constituting a source of power to assess or reassess in itself. The Dehi High Court observed that Section 144B was not intended to establish a substantive basis for the exercise of reassessment powers; rather, it was inherently procedural. Its function was confined to outlining the processes through which faceless assessments were to be conducted, ensuring efficiency and consistency in the manner of assessment rather than determining the substantive grounds upon which reassessment was founded. Therefore, Section 144B was procedural, forming part of the broader legislative framework aimed at structuring the assessment process without encroaching upon the substantive grounds for reassessment itself. That provision was not the singular and exclusive repository of the power to assess as contemplated under the Act.

The randomized allocation of cases based on the adopted algorithm and the use of technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, appeared to be primarily aimed at subserving the primary objective of faceless assessment, namely, of reducing a direct interface, for reasons of probity and to obviate allegations of individual arbitrariness. However, as per the High Court, it was wholly incorrect to view the faceless assessment scheme as introduced by virtue of Section 144B as being the solitary route which the Act contemplated being tread for the purposes of assessment and reassessment.

The core attributes of the faceless assessment system revolved around the principle of randomised allocation, where ‘random’ in its literal sense meant that case assignments were made without any predetermined or controlling factor. This principle was a deliberate feature of the faceless assessment framework, aimed at reducing direct human interaction — a facet historically susceptible to biases and potential misconduct. By substituting the human element with a carefully designed algorithm, the system restricted human involvement to only those essential stages, thereby enhancing fairness and accountability.

The High Court observed that Section 144B therefore played a crucial role by establishing the procedural mechanisms for faceless assessments, specifically through the random allocation of cases to different Assessment Units. However, to read into Section 144B a substantive basis for assessments and reassessments would extend its role beyond its intended design. The section‘s true function lay in facilitating an unbiased, algorithm-driven distribution of cases, supporting the overarching objective of minimizing direct human interaction in the assessment process. As per the High Court, it would be incorrect to interpret Section 144B as the sole pathway envisioned by the Act for conducting assessments or initiating reassessments. Instead, it should be recognised as one component within a broader statutory framework that provides multiple avenues for the lawful assessment and reassessment of returns.

The Delhi High Court further observed that the conferred jurisdiction upon authorities for the purposes of faceless assessment itself used the expression “concurrently”. That word would mean contemporaneous or in conjunction with, as opposed to a complete ouster of the authority otherwise conferred upon an authority under the Act. This too was clearly demonstrative of the Act not intending to deprive the JAO completely of the power to reassess. In understanding the concept of concurrent jurisdiction, it was essential to recognise that the retention of a human element within the broader framework of the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NeAC) does not conflict with the powers held by the JAO. Rather, as per the High Court, this setup must be viewed as complementary, reinforcing both accountability and adaptability within the assessment process.

The Delhi High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust vs CIT(E) 455 ITR 164,where it had been concluded that, while the faceless system centralised case handling through the NFAC, this framework did not completely replace or nullify the JAO‘s role. It held that the CBDT notifications further affirmed this shared responsibility, specifying that the NFAC and the JAO hold concurrent jurisdiction, thereby allowing the faceless system to conduct assessments without stripping the JAO of its foundational authority. In this way, the High Court had held in that case that the JAO‘s retention of original jurisdiction provided a critical balance, ensuring that human oversight remained available within the faceless assessment structure when needed, and that the JAO‘s authority was not merely residual but an active, complementary role that reinforced the flexibility of the assessment system.

The Delhi High Court stated that in that case, the Court came to the firm conclusion that irrespective of the system of faceless assessment that had come to be introduced and adopted, it would be wholly incorrect to hold or construe the provisions of the Act as denuding the JAO of the authority to undertake an assessment or of the said authority being completely deprived of authority and jurisdiction. According to the High Court, the judgment in Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was a resounding answer to the challenge as raised by the writ petitions before it, and reinforced its conclusion of the two permissible modes of assessment being complementary, and the Act envisaging a coexistence of the two modes.

Besides, according to the Delhi High Court, if the position canvassed on behalf of the assessee were to be accepted, the provisions relating to the various sources of information which the JAO stood independently enabled to access and which could constitute material justifying initiation of reassessment, would be rendered a complete dead letter and the information so gathered becoming worthless and incapable of being acted upon. This is because such information is firstly provided to the JAO and it is that authority which is statutorily obliged to assess and evaluate the same in the first instance.

The Delhi High Court held that within the framework of the faceless assessment system, the JAO retained powers that do not conflict with, but rather complement, the objectives of neutrality and efficiency. The faceless assessment scheme centralised processes under the Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO) to reduce direct interaction. However, this structure did not diminish the JAO‘s authority. Instead, the JAO‘s retained jurisdiction was vital for ensuring continuity and accountability, acting as a complementary element to the faceless assessment framework. the JAO‘s powers should be understood as integral and not in conflict with faceless assessment. Rather, it represented a foundational jurisdictional safeguard, enabling the JAO to initiate reassessment based on independent, credible sources of information. This concurrent authority of the JAO reinforced the integrity and adaptability of the faceless system, ensuring that both centralised and jurisdictional assessments operated cohesively within the larger statutory framework.

The High Court also noted that an Assessing Unit of the NFAC derived no authority or jurisdiction till such time as a case was randomly allocated to it, which triggered the assessment process in accordance with the procedure prescribed by Section 144B. The evaluation of data and information would precede the actual process of assessment. As per the Delhi High Court, if the interpretation which was advocated by the assessee were to be countenanced, the appraisal and analysis of information and data functions which the Act entrusted upon the JAO would be rendered wholly unworkable and clearly be contrary to the purpose and intent of the assessment power as constructed under the Act. Eliminating the JAO’s role altogether would not only fail to further these goals but could actually compromise the system‘s functionality and flexibility. The JAO‘s retained powers, particularly in accessing and evaluating specific information sources for reassessment, played a critical role in supplementing the centralized, algorithm-driven processes of faceless assessment. By allowing the JAO to operate in conjunction with the FAO, the Act ensured that both roles work complementarily to deliver comprehensive and balanced assessments. Far from conflicting with the faceless system, the JAO‘s role enhanced it, ensuring that assessments remained grounded in thorough investigation.

The Delhi High Court observed that the decisions of various High Courts which had taken a contrary view, had proceeded on the basis that consequent to faceless assessment coming into force by virtue of Section 144B, the JAO stood completely deprived of jurisdiction. In Hexaware Technologies (supra), a specific issue with respect to the validity of the notice came to be raised, with it being argued that once the scheme of faceless reassessment had come to be promulgated, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court noted that apart from the Faceless E-Assessment Scheme 2022 itself and the instructions which were provided to counsel appearing for the Revenue, most of the High Courts did not appear to have had the benefit of reviewing the copious material which the counsel for the Revenue had so painstakingly assimilated and placed for the Delhi High Court’s consideration. They also did not appear to have had the advantage of a principled stand of the Revenue having been placed on the record of those proceedings.

In Hexaware Technologies (supra), the Bombay High Court ultimately came to conclude that there could be no question of a concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148. From a reading of the record, the Delhi High Court observed that it was unclear whether the notifications conferring jurisdiction on authorities of the NFAC for the purposes of conducting faceless assessment was placed before the Bombay High Court. At least the decision made no reference to the notification of 13th August, 2020, which had been produced in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court, and which in clear and unambiguous terms declared that the officers empowered to conduct faceless assessment were being conferred concurrent powers and functions of the AO. The Delhi High Court therefore expressed its inability to concur with Hexaware Technologies decision, bearing in mind the various sources of information and material which may assist a JAO in forming an opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment and which had been commented upon earlier.

The Delhi High Court observed that the other High Courts too as well as subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court did not appear to have had the advantage of reviewing and analysing the material that had been placed by the Revenue in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court. In Ram Narayan Sah’s case (supra), though the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was cited before it, the judgment of the Gauhati High Court neither entered any reservation nor did it record any reasons which may have assisted the Delhi High Court in discerning what weighed with the Gauhati High Court to brush aside the aspect of concurrent jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court stated that unlike prior cases where certain High Courts, including in Hexaware Technologies (supra), were not provided with the full spectrum of relevant notifications and contextual information, the extensive documentation in the matter before it had helped clarify ambiguities in both law and fact. This record had allowed for a deeper analysis, addressing key points left unexamined in previous judgments, and had illuminated the legislative and procedural intentions behind the faceless assessment scheme, particularly the concurrent jurisdiction between the JAO and FAO.

The Delhi High Court further observed that in a recent decision rendered by the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Talati and Talati LLP vs. Office of ACIT 167 taxmann.com 371, a view had been expressed which appeared to be in tune with the conclusions which the Delhi High Court had reached.

Referring to clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, which provided that assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 would be through automated allocation in accordance with the risk management strategy and in a faceless manner, the Delhi High Court observed that from the punctuation, by the placement of commas, it appeared to have been the clear intent of the author to separate and segregate the phases of initiation of action in accordance with RMS, the formation of opinion whether circumstances warrant action u/s 148 being undertaken by issuance of notice, and the actual undertaking of assessment itself. As per the Delhi High Court, beyond the specific use of punctuation within Clause 3, a comprehensive reading of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, supported by the extensive material presented by the Revenue, bolstered the clear intent underlying each phase of the faceless assessment process.

The Delhi High Court stated that the Revenue would appear to be correct in its submission that when material comes to be placed in the hands of the JAO by the RMS, he would consequently be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure prescribed u/s 148A. If after consideration of the objections that are preferred, he stood firm in his opinion that income was likely to have escaped assessment, he would transmit the relevant record to the NFAC. It is at that stage and on receipt of the said material by NFAC that the concepts of automated allocation and faceless distribution would come into play. The actual assessment would thus be conducted in a faceless manner and in accordance with an allocation that the NFAC would make. In the opinion of the Delhi High Court, this would be the only legally sustainable construction liable to be accorded to the scheme. This conclusion would thus strike a harmonious balance between the evaluation of information made available to an AO, the preliminary consideration of information for the purposes of formation of opinion and its ultimate assessment in a faceless manner.

The Delhi High Court stated that it was guided by the principles of beneficial construction, to the effect that avoiding an interpretation that would render portions of the Act or the Faceless Assessment Scheme superfluous or ineffective should be avoided. To assert that the JAO‘s powers become redundant under the faceless assessment framework would conflict with beneficial construction, as it would undermine provisions specifically established to support comprehensive data analysis and informed decision-making, such as the JAO‘s access to RMS and Insight Portal information.

The Delhi High Court therefore dismissed the writ petitions filed before it.

OBSERVATIONS

From the text of the decisions in Hexaware Technologies (supra) and those of other High Courts which decided the matter, besides the Delhi High Court, none of the other High Courts had the occasion to examine the Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2022 and the notifications issued for that purpose, in such minute detail as was done by the Delhi High Court. The Delhi High Court went into the object of the Scheme, the manner in which it was to be implemented and the difficulties faced in implementing it and how these were resolved.

In particular, the notification NO. S.O. 2757 [NO. 65/2020/F.NO. 187/3/2020-ITA-I] dated 13th August, 2020, was not considered by those High Courts. This specified as under:

“In pursuance of the powers conferred by sub-sections (1), (2) and (5) of section 120 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) (hereinafter referred to as the said Act, the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby directs that the Income-tax Authorities of Regional e-Assessment Centres(hereinafter referred to as the ReACs) specified in Column (2) of the Schedule below, having their headquarters at the places mentioned in column (3) of the said Schedule, shall exercise the powers and functions of Assessing Officers concurrently, to facilitate the conduct of Faceless Assessment proceedings in respect of territorial areas mentioned in the column (4), persons or classes of persons mentioned in the column (5) and cases or classes of cases mentioned in the column (6) of the Schedule-1 of the notification No. 50 of 2014 in S.O. 2752 (E), dated the 22nd October, 2014 published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part II, section 3, sub-section (ii):”

Had this notification been brought to the attention of the other High Courts, they may perhaps have taken a different view of the matter.

Further, the Revenue filed a detailed affidavit, explaining the logic of various provisions of and governing the Scheme. The Delhi High Court therefore had the opportunity to examine in detail the role of the JAO, the role of the FAO, and the logic behind the bifurcation of the activities of reassessment. Such details were not before the other High Courts. Again, had all such material been before the other High Courts as well, perhaps those decisions may have been otherwise.

One aspect does not seem to have been considered by the Delhi High Court — the purpose of introduction of section 151A. The Delhi High Court has expressed a view that the JAO would be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure u/s. 148A, and thereafter he would transmit the relevant records to the NFAC. The role of NFAC would come into play only after receiving the said materials from the JAO. If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted with effect from 1st November, 2022 by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 only to permit conduct of faceless reassessment proceedings by the NFAC, it may be seen that such a practice was prevalent even before the insertion of Section 151A. The Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2019 as amended by Notification No. 61/2020 dated 13-8-2020 specifically provided for reassessment in pursuance of notices issued under Section 148 also in a faceless manner. Therefore, effectively, there was no change in the position, post insertion of Section 151A, with respect to when the role of NFAC would come into play, If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted only to facilitate faceless reassessment proceedings and not for issue of notice u/s 148, it will render the provisions of Section 151A redundant in so far as it provides specifically for issuance of notice under Section 148, besides conduct of enquiries or issue of show-cause notice or passing of order under Section 148A. This aspect may require greater consideration.

While the Delhi High Court’s view seems to be the better view of the matter, being a more detailed analysis, the matter will be set to rest only after the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue. The Supreme Court had fixed the matters initially for hearing in October and thereafter November 2024, which have since been adjourned to 28th January, 2025. Hopefully, this controversy will soon be resolved in a few months by the Supreme Court.

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA, and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal — Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Chapter XIV of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) lays down the procedure for assessment. Sections 147 to 151 contain the reassessment provisions. Considerable amendments have been made in the recent past with respect to these reassessment provisions which also resulted in considerable litigation.

1.2 Prior to the amendments made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021 (the ‘old regime’), the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) could issue a notice under section 148 of the Act provided he had reason to believe that any income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The time limit to issue such notice was prescribed in section 149 of the Act which was divided into three categories — (1) a period of 4 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in all cases; (2) a period of up to 6 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in cases where the income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment (escaped income) amounted to or was likely to amount to ₹1 lakh or more for that year and (3) a period of up to 16 years from the end of the relevant assessment year if the income escaping assessment was in relation to any asset (including financial interest in any entity) located outside India. For the present write-up, we will deal only with the first two categories i.e. time limits of 4 years and 6 years. Proviso to section 147 restricted (except in case of the last category of 16 years relating to overseas assets) the time limit to 4 years (irrespective of the quantum of escaped income) in cases where original assessment is made under section 143(3) or 147 and the assessee has made full and true disclosure of all material facts necessary for his assessment for that year. Such cases will also fall in the category of a four-year time limit and except this, practically, we are largely concerned in this write-up with the category of six years as that becomes applicable under the ‘old regime’ in most cases as this applies to all other cases once the quantum of escaped income is ₹1 lakh or more. Section 151 of the Act mandated that a notice under section 148 of the Act could not be issued unless sanction of an appropriate authority prescribed therein was obtained by the AO before issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act.

1.3 In view of the COVID-19 pandemic, the time limit to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation of Certain Provisions) Ordinance, 2020 promulgated by the President of India on 31st March 2020 which was repealed on the enactment of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) on 29th September, 2020. As per section 3(1) of the TOLA, the time limit for issuing notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval which fell during the period from 20th March 2020 to 31st December, 2020 was extended up to 31st March 2021. The Central Government was also empowered by TOLA to further extend the above dates by way of a notification. In view of these powers, the Central Government issued Notification No.20/2021 on 31st March 2021 wherein the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act or grant sanction under section 151 of the Act which ended on 31st March 2021 was extended to 30th April 2021. Another Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 further extended the above time up to 30th June, 2021. Both these notifications further contained an Explanation that clarified that for the purpose of issuing a notice under section 148 of the Act within the above-extended timelines, the provisions of sections 148, 149, and 151, as they stood as of 31st March, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 [i.e. ‘old regime’], shall apply. The said clarification was issued despite the significant changes brought about by the Finance Act, 2021 in the reassessment provisions with effect from 1st April, 2021.

1.4 Finance Act, 2021 revamped the entire procedure for reassessments (the ‘new regime’) with effect from 1st April, 2021. Significant changes brought about under the ‘new regime’ and which are relevant for the purposes of the present write-up are summarised as under:

(i) The requirement of AO having a reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in section 147 was omitted. Section 147 was amended to provide that if any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment for any assessment year, the AO could reopen such assessment subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 153 (which includes new Section 148A). Section 148, in turn, provided that no notice shall be issued unless there was information with the AO that suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The explanation was inserted in section 148 defining the ‘information’ which would suggest escapement of income chargeable to tax.

(ii) Section 148A was inserted which laid down the procedure that had to be complied with prior to issuance of a notice under section 148. Briefly,

⇒section 148A(a) provided for conducting any inquiry, if required, by the AO with the prior approval of a specified authority with respect to information received;

⇒section 148A(b) required AO to provide the assessee with an opportunity to be heard, with the prior approval of specified authority, by serving a show cause notice seeking his reply as to why a notice under section 148 should not be issued. Assessee was required to file his response within the specified time, being not less than seven days but not exceeding 30 days from the date of such notice or such time as may be extended by AO on the basis of an application by the Assessee.

⇒ section 148A(c) mandated the AO to consider the assessee’s reply, if any as filed above.

⇒ section 148A(d) required the AO to pass an order with the approval of the specified authority as to whether a particular case was a fit case to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act. The said order was to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the assessee’s reply was received by the AO or where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

⇒ Provisions of section 148A are not applicable to certain cases like search etc. as provided in the proviso to section 148A.

(iii) The existing time limits for issuance of notice under section 148 were also modified and the amended section 149 provided for three years from the end of the assessment year in all cases unless the AO had in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence which revealed that the income chargeable to tax, represented in the form of asset, which had escaped assessment amounted to or was likely to amount to fifty lakh rupees or more in which event a notice could be issued for a period of ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

(iv) Four provisos were also inserted in section 149. The first proviso prohibited issuance of notice under section 148 at any time in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before 1st April, 2021, if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the time limit specified under section 149(1)(b) as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. The third proviso stated that for the purposes of computing the period of limitation as per section 149, the time or extended time allowed to the assessee as per show-cause notice issued under section 148A(b) or the period during which the proceeding under section 148A is stayed by an order or injunction of any court was to be excluded. The fourth proviso mentioned that where immediately after the exclusion of the period referred to in the third proviso, the period of limitation available to the AO for passing an order under section 148A(d) was less than seven days, such remaining period shall be extended to seven days and the period of limitation under section 149(1) shall also be deemed to be extended accordingly.

(v) With respect to sanctioning authority, section 151 was amended to provide for two categories of authorities: (i) In cases where three or less than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year the specified authorities were — Principal Commissioner or Principal Director or Commissioner or Director. (hereinafter referred to as PCIT or CIT) (ii) In cases where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the specified authorities were – Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or where there was no Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General, Chief Commissioner or Director General (hereinafter referred to as PCCIT or CCIT).

(vi) In this write-up, the reassessment provisions dealing with search cases are not being dealt with. Further amendments are also made in the above sections by the subsequent Finance Acts which are also not being dealt with in the present write-up.

1.5 Reassessment notices were issued under section 148 by the AOs between the period 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18 relying upon the applicable time extensions granted under the TOLA and the subsequent Notifications. However, the procedure as per the ‘new regime’ was not followed by the AOs before issuing the reassessment notices.

1.6 These notices issued under section 148 of the Act without complying with the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’ were challenged by way of writ petitions in several High Courts. Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), Delhi High Court in Mon Mohan Kohli vs. ACIT (441 ITR 207), Bombay High Court in Tata Communications Transformation Services vs. ACIT (443 ITR 49) and several other High Courts quashed the reassessment notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the reassessment procedure introduced under the ‘new regime’ as being bad in law. Courts also declared the Explanations in the 2 notifications issued under TOLA [referred to in para 1.3. above] as ultra vires and bad in law.

1.7 The tax department challenged the aforesaid view of the High Courts in the Supreme Court. The lead case before the Supreme Court was UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1) wherein the Apex Court agreed with the decision of the High Courts that the new reassessment provisions shall apply even in respect of proceedings relating to past assessment years in respect of which notice under section 148 was issued on or after 1st April 2021. Supreme Court, however, also observed that the revenue could not be made remediless. In the exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court issued the following directions:

⇒ Notices issued under section 148 of the Act were deemed to be show-cause notices issued under section 148A(b) of the Act.

⇒ AOs were directed to provide to the assessees information and material relied upon for reopening the case within a period of 30 days to which the assessee could reply within two weeks thereafter. AOs were directed to pass the order under section 148A(d) after following the due procedure.

⇒ The requirement of conducting any inquiry under section 148A(a) was dispensed with as a one-time measure.

⇒ All the defenses available to the assessee under section 149 and/or under the Finance Act, 2021, and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 were kept open.

⇒ The court order would apply to Pan India and all judgments and orders passed by different High Courts on the issue and under which similar notices that were issued after 1st April, 2021, under Section 148 are set aside and shall be governed by the present order and shall stand modified to the aforesaid extent. Further, the order would also govern the writ petitions which were pending before various High Courts on the same issue.

1.8 Thereafter, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 (the ‘CBDT’ Instruction’) stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal in the following terms:

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal shall apply to all reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 irrespective of the fact whether such notices were challenged or not.

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal read with the time extension provided by TOLA will allow the reassessment notices to travel back in time to their original date when such notices were to be issued and then new section 149 of the Act would be applied at that point.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2013–14 to 2015–16 could be issued only in cases falling within the scope of section 149(1)(b) and after seeking approval of specified authority as stated in section 151(ii). No notices were to be issued for these AYs if the escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 are within the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and could be issued after obtaining the approval of the specified authority stated in section 151(i).

1.9 Pursuant to the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal, AOs supplied information and called for a response from the assessees. Thereafter, new notices were issued by the AOs under section 148 of the Act between July to September 2022 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18. These new notices issued under section 148 of the Act were challenged by the assessees by way of writ petitions before the different High Courts on several grounds such as notices being barred by limitation, sanction by incorrect authority, etc. Several High Courts held in favour of the assessees on these issues. The judgments of High Courts in these matters were challenged by the tax department before the Supreme Court. In these batch of matters before the Supreme Court consisting of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post-Ashish Agarwal, there were also cases pertaining to the assessment year 2015–16 where notices were issued prior to 1st April 2021 following the procedure under the ‘old regime’ and in such cases, the issue for consideration by the Supreme Court was whether the sanction was validly obtained from a correct authority and whether TOLA could apply in this regard. Before the Supreme Court, a batch of large number of High Court decisions had come up involving different assessment years. A few of these decisions of the High Courts in the above categories of matters are summarised in this part of the write-up.

1.10 Recently, the Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal and connected matters (Civil appeal No.8629 of 2024) while hearing the appeals filed by the tax department against the High Court decisions (referred to in para 1.9 above) has adjudicated on the above issues and is, therefore, thought fit to consider the said decision in this column.

Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI (453 ITR 153 – Allahabad)

2.1 Writ petitions were filed before the Allahabad High Court challenging the notices issued under section 148 for the AYs 2013–14 to 2017–18 from July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal (referred to in para 1.7 above).

2.2 High Court, at the outset, noting that the ratio in the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), referred to in para 1.6 above, quashing the reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the ‘new regime’ was approved by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). High Court further noted that the ratio laid down therein to the effect that the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 limited the applicability of TOLA and that the power to grant an extension of time under TOLA was limited only to reassessment proceedings initiated till 31st March, 2021 had been affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

2.3 High Court observed as under:

“At the first blush, this argument of the learned counsels for the revenue seemed convincing by simplistic application of the Enabling Act, treating it as a statute for extension in the limitation provided under the Income-tax Act, 1961, but on deeper scrutiny, in view of the discussion noted above, if the argumentof the learned counsels for the revenue is accepted, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 ineffective until 30-6-2021. In essence, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 otiose. This view, if accepted, would result in granting an extension of a time limit under the unamended clause (b) of section 149, in cases where reassessment proceedings have not been initiated during the lifetime of the unamended provisions, i.e. on or before 31-3-2021. It would infuse life in the obliterated unamended provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149, which is dead and removed from the Statute book w.e.f. 1-4-2021, by extending the timeline for actions therein.

85. In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the Enabling Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defenses available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the delegates/Central Government in the exercise of powers under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Enabling Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 in this way.”

2.4 High Court also held that the travel back theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ (referred to in para 1.8 above) was a surreptitious attempt to circumvent the decision of the Apex Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra) and that the same had no binding force. The court further observed that it had decided the issue only on the legal principles and the factual aspects of the matter had to be agitated before the appropriate Courts/ forum.

Keenara Industries (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (453 ITR 51 – Gujarat)

3.1 The Gujarat High Court in a batch of writ petitions adjudicated upon the validity of the reassessment notices issued for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra). The primary challenge in this batch of petitions was that these reassessment notices were barred by limitation.

3.2 With respect to AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the court noted that the period of six years from the end of the assessment year expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. The court observed that a notice under section 148 could be issued on or after 1st April 2021 only if the time for issuing such notice under the ‘old regime’ had not expired prior to the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021.

3.3 High Court held that the new provisions introduced by Finance Act, 2021 came into force on 1st April 2021 and, therefore, a notice which became time-barred prior to 1st April, 2021 as per the old provisions could not be revived under the ‘new regime’.

3.4 The High Court further held that the life of the erstwhile scheme of 148 could not be elongated in the absence of any saving clause under TOLA or the Finance Act, 2021. The court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’.

3.5 In the supplementing view authored by Hon. Justice Bhatt, she concurred with Hon. Justice Gokani that the notices for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 were barred by limitation. Hon. Justice Bhatt, however, further held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra) shall govern all the notices issued under the ‘old regime’ irrespective of whether such notices were challenged in the High Courts or not earlier.

JM Financial and Investment Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (451 ITR 205 – Bombay High Court)

4.1 In this case, a notice was issued under section 148 of the ‘old regime’ for AY 2015–16 on 31st March, 2021, i.e., after a period of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. Assessee contended that sanction for issuance of notice was obtained from Addl.CIT and not PCIT and, therefore, the same was not as per the provisions of section 151 of the ‘old regime’.

4.2 Revenue contended that the sanction was validly obtained as the limitation, inter alia, under the provisions of section 151 which would have expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ stood extended to 31st March, 2021 in view of TOLA. As such, for A.Y. 2015–16 falls under the category of ‘within four years’ as on 31st March 2020 and the approval could be given by Addl.CIT.

4.3 The High Court rejected the revenue’s contention and observed that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 as the six-year limitation for AY 2015–16 expired only on 31st March, 2022. The court further held that an extension of time to issue notice would not amount to amending the provisions of section 151.

Siemens Financial Services (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT (457 ITR 647 – Bombay)

5.1 In this case, for the A.Y. 2016–17, notice was issued under section 148 on 31st July, 2022 after providing the information/ material as per the requirement of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and passing an order under section 148A(d). This was done after seeking approval of PCIT, i.e., the authority specified in section 151(i) and one of the challenges by the assessee in this case was that the notice was bad in law as AO ought to have obtained the approval of the authority specified in section 151(ii), i.e., PCCIT.

5.2 The High Court held that the notice for AY 16–17 was issued beyond a period of three years and, therefore, approval of the authority specified under section 151(ii) had to be obtained.

5.3 The High Court held that TOLA only sought to extend the time limits and did not affect the scope of section 151. The court further held that in any event, TOLA did not apply to assessment years 2015–16 and thereafter.

5.4 The High Court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the Instruction had wrongly stated that the notices for AY 2016–17 had to be considered to have been issued within a period of three years.

5.5 Thereafter, the court further held that the concept of‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’ because it would otherwise give powers to the AO to review which the AO does not possess. The court held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ was an in-built test to check abuse of power by the AO

Ganesh Dass Khanna vs. ITO (460 ITR 546 – Delhi)

6.1 The Delhi High Court, in this batch of matters, was concerned with the challenge to reassessment notices issued for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra) in 2022 where the escaped income was less than ₹50 lakhs. The primary contention of the assessees was that the time limit of three years as provided under the ‘new regime’ had already expired for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 and, therefore, the notices issued in 2022 were barred by limitation.

6.2 High Court observed that once the Finance Act, 2021 came into force, the Notifications issued under TOLA lost their legal efficacy. The court further observed that the power to extend the end date for completion of proceedings and compliances conferred on the Central Government under section 3(1) of TOLA, could not be construed as enabling extension of the period of limitation provided under section 149(1)(a) under the ‘new regime’. The court further rejected the reliance of the revenue on the third and the fourth provisos to section 149 for extension of any time or issuance of notice. The court also rejected the travel back theory in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the same was ultra vires the provisions of section 149(1).

6.3 The High Court quashed these reopening notices on the ground that the same was barred by limitation.

<<To be continued>>

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

13. Bank of Rajasthan Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009, decided on: 16th October, 2024

Broken period interest — Deduction — RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT) — AFS and HFT are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade, therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank — if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available but the position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Appellant-Assessee, a Scheduled Bank, was engaged in the purchase and sale of government securities. The securities were treated as stock-in-trade in the hands of the Appellant. The amount received by the Appellant on the sale of the securities was considered for computing its business income. The Appellant consistently followed the method of setting off and netting the amount of interest paid by it on the purchase of securities (i.e., interest for the broken period) against the interest recovered by it on the sale of securities and offering the net interest income to tax. The result is that if the entire purchase price of the security, including the interest for the broken period is allowed as a deduction, then the entire sale price of the security is taken into consideration for computing the Appellant’s income. According to the Appellant’s case, the assessing officer allowed this settled practice while passing regular assessment orders for the assessment years 1990-91 to 1992-93. However, the Commissioner of Income Tax (for short, ‘CIT’) exercised jurisdiction Under Section 263 of the IT Act and interfered with the assessment orders. The CIT held that the Appellant was not entitled to the deduction of the interest paid by it for the broken period. The Commissioner relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). The Supreme Court in that case held that under the head “interest on securities”, the interest for a broken period was not an allowable deduction. Being aggrieved by the orders of the CIT, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (for short, ‘Appellate Tribunal’). The Tribunal allowed the appeal by holding that the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. was rendered after considering Sections 18 to 21 of the IT Act, which have been repealed. Therefore, the Tribunal held that as the Appellant was holding the securities as stock-in-trade, the entire amount paid by the Appellant for the purchase of such securities, which included interest for the broken period, was deductible. The Respondent Department preferred an appeal before the High Court against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal. By the impugned judgment, the High Court interfered and, relying upon the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. allowed the appeal.

This order was impugned in Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009 before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court noted that a Scheduled Bank is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (for short, “the 1949 Act”). The 1949 Act, read with the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (for short, ‘RBI’), requires Banks to purchase government securities to maintain the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (for short, ‘SLR’). The guidelines dated 16th October, 2000 issued by the RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT).

The interest on the securities is paid by the Government or the authorities issuing securities on specific fixed dates called coupon dates, say after an interval of six months. When a Bank purchases a security on a date which falls between the dates on which the interest is payable on the security, the purchaser Bank, in addition to the price of the security, has to pay an amount equivalent to the interest accrued for the period from the last interest payment till the date of purchase. This interest is termed as the interest for the broken period. When the interest becomes due after the purchase of the security by the Bank, interest for the entire period is paid to the purchaser Bank, including the broken period interest. Therefore, in effect, the purchaser of securities gets interest from a date anterior to the date of acquisition till the date on which interest is first due after the date of purchase.

The Supreme Court further noted that under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (for short, ‘the IT Act’), Section 18, which was repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, dealt with tax leviable on the interest on securities. Section 19 provided for the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on the money borrowed for investment. Section 20 dealt with the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on money borrowed for investment in the case of a Banking company. Section 21 provided that the interest payable outside India was not admissible for deduction. Sections 18 to 21 were repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, effective from 1st April, 1989.

The Supreme Court also noted that Head ‘D’ (in Section 14) is of income from “profits and gains of business or profession” covered by Section 28 of the IT Act. Profits and gains from any business or profession that the Assessee carried out at any time during the previous year are chargeable to income tax. Under Section 36(1)(iii), the Assessee is entitled to a deduction of the amount of interest paid in respect of capital borrowed for the purposes of the business or profession. Section 37 provides that any expenditure which is not covered by Sections 30 to 36 and not being in the nature of capital expenditure, laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business or profession shall be allowed for computing the income chargeable under the head “profits and gains of business or profession”. Section 56 of the IT Act provides that income of every kind which is not to be excluded from the total income under the IT Act shall be chargeable to income tax under the head “income from other sources” if it is not chargeable to income tax under any of the other heads provided in Section 14. Therefore, interest on investments may be covered by Section 56. Section 57 provides for the deduction of expenditure not being in the nature of capital expenditure expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of making or earning such income. In the case of interest on securities, any reasonable sum paid for the purposes of realising interest is also entitled to deduction Under Section 57 of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted following decisions on the subject:

  1.  Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC)
  2.  American Express International Banking Corporation (2002) 258 ITR 601 (Bombay)
  3.  Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay vs. Citi Bank NA (dated 12th August, 2008)(SC)
  4.  Cocanada Radhaswami Bank Ltd. MANU/SC/0163/1965 : (1965) 57 ITR 306

After considering the other decisions cited at the bar and the arguments of the parties, the Supreme Court observed that initially, CBDT issued Circular No. 599 of 1991 and observed that the securities held by Banks must be recorded as their stock-in-trade. The circular was withdrawn in view of the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). In the year 1998, RBI issued a circular dated 21st April, 1998, stating that the Bank should not capitalise broken period interest paid to the seller as a part of cost but treat it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. A similar circular was issued on 21st April, 2001, stating that the Bank should not capitalise the broken period interest paid to the seller as a cost but treated it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. In 2007, the CBDT issued Circular No. 4 of 2007, observing that a taxpayer can have two portfolios. The first can be an investment portfolio comprising securities, which are to be treated as capital assets, and the other can be a trading portfolio comprising stock-in-trade, which are to be treated as trading assets.

The Supreme Court further observed that Banks are required to purchase Government securities to maintain the SLR. As per RBI’s guideline dated 16th October, 2000, there are three categories of securities: HTM, AFS and HFT. As far as AFS and HFT are concerned, there is no difficulty. When these two categories of securities are purchased, obviously, the same are not investments but are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade. Therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank. Thus, after the deduction of broken period interest is allowed, the entire interest earned or accrued during the particular year is put to tax. Thus, what is taxed is the real income earned on the securities. By selling the securities, Banks will earn profits. Even that will be the income considered under Section 28 after deducting the purchase price. Therefore, in these two categories of securities, the benefit of deduction of interest for the broken period will be available to Banks.

If deduction on account of broken period interest is not allowed, the broken period interest as capital expense will have to be added to the acquisition cost of the securities, which will then be deducted from the sale proceeds when such securities are sold in the subsequent years. Therefore, the profit earned from the sale would be reduced by the amount of broken period interest. Therefore, the exercise sought to be done by the Department is academic.

The securities of the HTM category are usually held for a long term till their maturity. Therefore, such securities usually are valued at cost price or face value. In many cases, Banks hold the same as investments. Whether the Bank has held HMT security as investment or stock-in-trade will depend on the facts of each case. HTM Securities can be said to be held as an investment (i) if the securities are actually held till maturity and are not transferred before and (ii) if they are purchased at their cost price or face value.

The Supreme Court made a reference to its decision in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax (Central), Calcutta vs. Associated Industrial Development Co. (P) Ltd., Calcutta (1972) 4 SCC 447. In the said decision, it was held that whether a particular holding of shares is by way of investments or forms part of the stock-in-trade is a matter which is within the knowledge of the Assessee. Therefore, on facts, if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available. The position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Supreme Court noted that on the factual aspects, the Tribunal, in a detailed judgment, recorded the following conclusions:

a. Interest income on securities right from assessment year 1989-90 is being treated as interest on securities and is taxed under Section 28 of the IT Act;

b. Since the beginning, securities are treated as stock-in-trade which has been upheld by the Department right from the assessment year 1982-83 onwards;

c. Securities were held by the Respondent Bank as stock-in-trade.

The findings of the Tribunal had been upset by the High Court. The impugned judgment proceeded on the footing that the decision in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541(SC) case would still apply. Thus, as a finding of fact, it was found that the Appellant Bank was treating the securities as stock-in-trade. As the securities were held as stock-in-trade, the income thereof was chargeable under Section 28 of the IT Act. Even the assessing officer observed that considering the repeal of Sections 18 to 21, the interest on securities would be charged as per Section 28 as the securities were held in the normal course of his business. The assessing officer observed that the Appellant-Bank, in its books of accounts and annual report, offered taxation on the basis of actual interest received and not on a due basis.

Therefore, in the facts of the case, as the securities were treated as stock-in-trade, the interest on the broken period cannot be considered as capital expenditure and will have to be treated as revenue expenditure, which can be allowed as a deduction. Therefore, the impugned judgment cannot be sustained, and the view taken by the Tribunal will have to be restored.

14. Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd vs. CIT (2024) 465 ITR 798 (SC)

Business Expenditure — Deduction only on actual payment- Section 43B — Electricity duty on sale of power payable to Government adjusted against sums due to assesses by the Government — To be allowed on production of certificate from Chartered Accountant to establish that the adjustment was made within time.

In an intimation issued u/s. 143(1)(a) for AY 1991-92, the Assessing Officer inter alia disallowed ₹41,65,12,181 being amount of electricity duty payable to the State Government by the assessee on sale of electric power. In a rectification application filed by the assessee it relied upon the letter issued by the under Secretary to the Government of India, Energy and Petrochemical Department to contend that the electricity duty payable had been adjusted against the other amounts receivable from the Government and, hence, the adjustment made u/s. 143(1) and levy of additional tax u/s. 143(1A) was not warranted. The rectification application was rejected holding that there was no proof of such adjustment having been made within the stipulated period.

The appeal of the assessee on this issue was dismissed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals).

The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee by following the decision of the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Ahmedabad Electricity Co. Ltd vs. ITO (ITA No. 378/Ahd/1988) wherein it was held that section 43B was not applicable to the electricity duty payable to the government.

The High Court reversed the order of the Tribunal following the decision of the Hon’ble Gujarat Court in CIT vs. Ahmedabad Electricity Ltd (2003) 262 ITR 97 (Guj), which reversed the order of the Tribunal holding that electricity duty on sale electricity has to be considered as an inadmissible item u/s. 43B of the Act.

On an appeal, the Supreme Court observed that in the context of section 43B of the Act, apart from entitlement, the assessee was duty bound to produce the certificate of a Chartered Accountant showing the proof of payment which the assessee claimed by way of adjustment of 21st August,1990. The Supreme Court noted that such a certificate had not been produced till date. In the circumstances, the Supreme Court directed the assessee to produce the certificate before the Assessing Officer within a period of four weeks from the date of the order and that the Assessing Officer will take the certificate on records and decide the matter in accordance with law.

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

20 SmitaDilipGhule vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes & Others

[WP (ST) No. 2348 OF 2024,

Dated: 8th October, 2024. (Bom) (HC).

Assessment Years 2020–21]

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

The Petitioner was an individual and a doctor by profession. The Petitioner’s return of income, under Section 139(1) of the Act, for the Assessment Year 2020–2021, was due to be filed on 10th January, 2021 as per the extended due date. However, the return of income was filed on 31st March, 2021, declaring total income of ₹6,75,837. The Petitioner had a claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535. The Petitioner had claimed that during the year under consideration, she had transferred two ancestral lands which were jointly owned by her with other family members.

The Petitioner made an Application dated 31st March, 2021 to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (the CBDT), Respondent No.1, requesting it to condone the delay in filing the return and allowing the claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535 by exercising the power vested in Respondent No.1 under Section 119 (2)(b) of the Act, along with supporting evidence.

In the Application for condonation of delay, the Petitioner had given reasons for the delay in filing the return of income. The Petitioner had stated that she was the co-owner, along with other family members, of certain ancestral lands at District Pune. These ancestral lands were transferred during that year. On the above transaction, the Petitioner had to work out long-term capital gain and file a return. The original due date for filing of return of income was 31st July, 2020 but due to the Covid-19 pandemic it was extended up to 31st December, 2020, and subsequently, it was extended up to 10th January, 2021. The Petitioner further stated that due to the Covid-19 pandemic lockdown being announced, the Petitioner, being a doctor, was rendering services to Covid-19 patients. Further, due to various Covid-19 restrictions and the nature of occupation of the Petitioner, she was unable to approach her tax consultant in advance in respect of computation of long-term capital gain. Somewhere around October 2020, when the Petitioner approached her Chartered Accountant on the subject matter of filing of return and computation of long-term capital gain, she was advised to get the valuation of the property done by a Registered Valuer to ascertain the cost of acquisition as on 1st April, 2001. The Petitioner further approached a valuer for the purpose of valuation. The documents were provided to the valuer from time to time during the months of November and December, 2020. However, the valuer was required to physically visit the site to provide the valuation report and was reluctant to do so due to the Covid-19 pandemic and the increase in cases of Covid-19 as the valuer himself was a senior citizen, aged 75 years, having respiratory issues. Due to the requirement of physical visit to the site by the valuer for the valuation of the property to ascertain the cost of acquisition for computation of capital gain under Section 49 of the Act, the valuation could not be completed before the due date of filing of return of income.

The Petitioner further clarified that on 30th November, 2020, the Petitioner had lost her father due to Covid-19. Around the same time, other family members were also affected by Covid-19. Due to this misfortune, the Petitioner was not able to collect information required for valuation nor was she able to coordinate with the tax consultant. This also resulted in delay in getting the valuation done, which led to belated filing of income tax return. After obtaining the Valuation Report dated 16th March, 2021, the Petitioner’s Chartered Accountant was able to calculate the capital gain / loss on the transaction in respect of each co-owner. In ordinary course, this loss would be carried forward and set-off against the income of the subsequent year. But due to delay in the filing of the Return for Assessment Year 2020–2021 within the prescribed due date, the Petitioner was not able to carry forward such loss unless the delay was condoned by Respondent No.1 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act. The Petitioner has stated that it was in these circumstances that the Petitioner had filed the Application before Respondent No.2 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act..

By an Order dated 20th October, 2023, Respondent No. 1 rejected the Petitioner’s Application for condonation of delay of 80 days in filing the return of income.

The Hon.Court observed that perusal of the provisions of Section 119(2)(b) of the Act shows that the power conferred therein upon Respondent No.1 is for the purpose of “avoiding genuine hardship”. The Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship if the delay in filing the return of income is not condoned. This is because the Petitioner has given valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Petitioner has mentioned that her father had passed away on 30th November, 2022 due to Covid-19 and that her family members were affected by Covid-19 in November 2020. The Petitioner, who is a doctor, was involved in Covid-19 duty at that time. The valuation of land for working out capital gain could not be completed prior to the due date of filing of the return due to the said reasons. Also, the valuer was not able to carry out physical verification of the site until 13th February, 2021 and could provide the Valuation Report until 16th March, 2021. In this context, it is important to note that the valuer was also a senior citizen, aged 75 years. If for these reasons, the delay of 80 days in filing of the Return of Income by the Petitioner was not condoned, then definitely the Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship as the Petitioner was prevented by genuine and valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Hon. Court observed that it can never be that technicality and rigidity of rules of law would not recognise genuine human problems of such nature which may prevent a person from achieving certain compliance. It is to cater to such situations that the legislature has made a provision conferring a power to condone the delay. These are all human issues which prevented the assessee, who is otherwise diligent, in filing the return of income within the prescribed time.

The Hon. Court observed that the Respondent No.1 completely lost sight of the fact that not only was the Petitioner a doctor who was on Covid duty but also that the Petitioner faced various other problems due to the Covid-19 pandemic, and that was the reason why the Petitioner could not file her return of income within time.

Further, in the impugned Order, Respondent No..1 has also rejected the Application on the grounds that the Petitioner, being an educated person, was well equipped with basic taxation law knowledge and had accessibility to tax practitioners. Therefore, the claim of the Petitioner that she was not able to collect various information regarding income tax calculation was not tenable. The Court observed that such explanation of Respondent was unacceptable. The Petitioner has not claimed lack of accessibility to a tax practitioner. It is the case of the Petitioner that for various reasons which arose due to the Covid-19 pandemic, she was not able to obtain the Valuation Report in respect of the property on time and, therefore, was not able to compute the capital loss and file the return of income.

In view of the above, the impugned order dated 20th October, 2023 passed by Respondent No.1 was quashed and set aside. The delay of 80 days in filing of the return of income for Assessment Year 2020–2021 by the Petitioner was condoned.

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

19 20 Media Collective Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. ACIT Circle – 16(1) &Ors.

[WP (L) No. 25601 OF 2024,

Dated: 18th November, 2024 (Bom) (HC)]

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

The Assessee-Petitioner challenged the legality of the notice dated 30th July, 2022 issued to the Petitioner under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act for the Assessment Year 2015–16.

There is also a challenge to an order dated 29th July, 2022 passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act passed in pursuance of a notice under Section 148A(b), dated 17th June, 2021 and the consequent assessment order dated 17th May, 2023 passed under Section 147 read with 144B of the Act.

The primary contention urged on behalf of the petitioner is that the impugned assessment order, as also the action taken against the petitioner under Section 148A(b), is illegal for the reason that such proceedings were barred by limitation, considering the provisions of Section 149(1)(b) of the Act, which provides a time limit of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for issuing notice under Section 148 of the Act. As the relevant assessment year being Assessment Year 2015–16, the six years have expired on 31st March, 2022 and for such reason, the impugned proceedings against the Petitioner could not have been adopted. In support of such contention, reliance is placed on the decision of this Court in Hexaware Technology Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, (2024) 162 Taxmann.com 225 and AkhilaSujith vs. Income Tax Officer, International [2024] 166 taxmann.com 478 (Bombay) where following the decision in Hexaware, this Court quashed the proceeding being barred by limitation also referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal, [2021] 138 taxmann.com 64.

The respondents / revenue did not dispute the contentions as urged on behalf of the petitioner in regard to the limitation as would be applicable to pass the assessment order in question. In this context in Akhila Sujith (supra), considering the position in law, this Court observed thus:

“9. Having heard learned counsel for the parties and having perused the record, in our opinion, considering the observations as made by the Division Bench in Hexaware, we find that the impugned notice itself was illegal and without jurisdiction. There was no foundation on jurisdiction for an assessment order to be passed on the basis of a notice under section 148 which itself was time barred. Thus there is no basis on which we can hold the impugned assessment order to be legal and valid as not only the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act but also the order passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act were barred by limitation as per the first proviso to Section 149 as held in Hexaware. For such reason, we are of the clear opinion that no useful purpose would serve relegating the petitioner to avail an alternate remedy of an appeal, as filing of such appeal itself would be an empty formality.

10. In the aforesaid circumstances, the inherent illegality of the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act being time-barred, which percolates into the assessment order passed thereunder is an incurable defect, regardless of the forum before which the same is agitated. In these circumstances, it cannot be said that it was not appropriate for the Petitioner to invoke the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226 when the assessing officer has acted without jurisdiction.”

In view of the above, the impugned assessment order could not have been passed as the same was barred by limitation. Accordingly, the petition was allowed.

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

67 Vishwakarma Developers vs. CBDT

[2024] 468 ITR 686 (Bom)

A.Ys. 2015–16 to 2020–21

Date of order: 24th July, 2024

Ss. 119(2)(b), 245C and 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

The assessee filed an application for settlement of case u/s. 245C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2015–16 to 2020–21. During the period from August 2022 to September 2023, settlement proceedings were conducted by the Interim Board for Settlement constituted by the Central Government pursuant to the notification dated 10th August, 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The assessee from time to time pursued the proceedings before the Interim Board for Settlement. On 22nd September, 2021, the assessee refiled the settlement application pursuant to the press release on 7th September, 2021, and paid additional interest for the period of March 2021 to September 2021. The application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the rejection order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) On March 28, 2021, Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52) was enacted, as a consequence of which the Settlement Commission came to be abolished, consequent to which the jurisdiction of such Commission to deal with pending applications was transferred to the Interim Board for Settlement which was constituted by the Central Government on August 10, 2021 by Notification No. 91 of 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a Press Release dated September 7, 2021, in view of the orders passed by the High Courts informing the public at large that a settlement application could be filed even after February 1, 2021, being the date when the Finance Bill was introduced. It was also informed that the settlement application could be filed by taxpayers till September 30, 2021. On September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5), the Central Board of Direct Taxes however issued another order u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act, which was also subject matter of the press release, in which two additional conditions were incorporated in para 4, in the context of section 245C(5), to the effect that applications could be filed by the assessees, who were eligible, to make an application as on January 31, 2021 and who had assessment proceedings pending on the date of filing of the settlement application. In the decision in Sar Senapati Santaji Ghorpade Sugar Factory Ltd. v. Asst. CIT [2024] 470 ITR 723 (Bom), the court struck down paragraph 4 of the circular dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) of the CBDT, declaring it to be ultra vires of the parent Act, as it incorporated additional eligibility conditions for filing settlement applications.

ii) The order passed by the Interim Board for Settlement rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 245C for settlement of case on the ground that the conditions as incorporated in paragraph 4 of the CBDT notification dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) issued u/s. 119(2)(b) were applicable since it was contrary to the decision of this court which had struck down paragraph 4 as being ultra vires of the parent Act, was illegal and unsustainable. The assessee was eligible to file its settlement application to be considered by the Interim Board for Settlement for appropriate orders to be passed in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

66 PramilaMahadevTadkase vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 275 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 7th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

The assessee was issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment of the A.Y. 2016–17 u/s. 147 on the grounds that the assessee sold a property. The assessee stated that she was a non-resident, that she and her husband purchased an immovable property in the year 1996 and sold it in the year 2015 for a total consideration of ₹69,30,000, that the tax at source was deducted by the purchaser and that because her husband did not have a Permanent Account Number, the corresponding tax deducted at source was uploaded to her Permanent Account Number.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) According to the terms of section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notice u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be issued, after three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is likely to amount to rupees fifty lakhs or more.

ii) The assessee and her husband had jointly purchased the immovable property. They, as equal co-owners of the property, had transferred it for a total sale consideration of Rs. 69,30,000. Even if it could be opined that the assessee had received any part of the consideration, it could not be more than 50 per cent. thereof and, therefore, the income that could be alleged to have escaped the assessment would be below the threshold limit of Rs. 50 lakhs and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148A was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

65 Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 5 (Del)

A.Y. 2011–12

Date of order: 26th September, 2023

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12 and the order disposing of the objections, on the grounds that the approval for the reassessment proceedings was accorded by the Principal Commissioner without application of mind and not furnished along with the reasons recorded the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) The approval granted by the statutory authorities for reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe that income has escaped assessment. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and, reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of reassessment.

ii) There was nothing contained in the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee which would answer the poser raised by the assessee that there was no application of mind by the Principal Commissioner for initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12. The only assertion made by the Revenue was that the Principal Commissioner had conveyed her approval u/s. 151 to the Assessing Officer by way of a letter but had not produced the letter despite the assessee’s raising a specific objection that the Principal Commissioner had not applied his mind while granting approval for the commencement of reassessment proceedings. The condition requiring the Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there was no good reason not to furnish it to the assessee along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons recorded for the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee were unsustainable and hence set aside.”

[Note: The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition filed by the Revenue and held that in view of the categorical finding recorded in the judgment and in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out under article 136 of the Constitution [(ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. [2024] 468 ITR 10 (SC)].

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

64 Trans World International LLC TWI vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax)

[2024] 467 ITR 583 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2016–17, 2017–18, 2018–19

Date of order: 14th August, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

The assessee, non-resident, received payments, under a single agreement, for the A.Ys. 2016–17, 2017–18 and 2018–19 with an Indian entity for the grant of exclusive rights for telecast of league matches. The Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that tax was not deducted at source from such receipt received from an Indian payer even though it was income chargeable to tax in India, passed an order u/s. 148A(d) and issued a consequential notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer recorded reasons that only a nominal fraction of such income amounting to five per cent was offered to tax as royalty by the assessee on the grounds that only broadcasting rights for non-live content were taxable in India, that for the remaining amount, claimed to have been received for live content and not covered under royalty, the assessee did not provide any document to substantiate such bifurcation, and that the assessee did not submit any document to substantiate its tax residency and its eligibility for the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. He rejected the objections raised by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Clause D of the agreement between the assessee and the Indian entity, for the grant of telecast of matches, bifurcated the licence fee between live feed and recorded content. The view of the Assessing Officer that there was no basis for the bifurcation of the receipt in the ratio of 95 per cent and five per cent was perverse in view of the stipulations contained in the agreement. No contestation existed on the issue of taxability of live feed.

ii) There was no justification to recognize a right inhering in the Revenue to continue the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148
were quashed.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

63 RatanBej vs. Pr. CIT

[2024] 467 ITR 288 (Jhar)

A.Y. 2016–17

Date of order: 24th January, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(a), 148A(b), 148A(c), 148A(d) and 149(1)(b) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

Though the assessee had a permanent account number, he did not file returns of income. In the A.Y. 2016–17, the assessee sold an inherited property, in which he and his brother had equal shares. The Assessing Officer (AO) sent a letter u/s. 148A(a) of Income-tax Act, 1961 for inquiry and issued a notice u/s. 148A(b). The assessee raised objection on the grounds that his share of the sale consideration was below the limit of ₹50 lakhs prescribed u/s. 149(1)(b). The AO passed an order u/s. 148A(d) without disposing of the objections raised by the assessee and issued a notice u/s. 148 for reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2016–17.

The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the order and the notice contending that (a) non-consideration of the reply-cum-objection filed by the assessee in response to the initial notice u/s. 148A(b) was in violation of principles of natural justice and rule of fairness, (b) initiating and concluding the enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A was beyond jurisdiction and barred by limitation u/s. 149. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 148A(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to consider the reply or objections furnished by the assessee to the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b). Non-consideration of reply or objection furnished by the assessee not only amounts to violation of principles of natural justice but is also in contravention of mandatory modalities which are to be followed during the course of enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A.

ii) Sections 148 and 148A introduced by way of the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), have been codified following the judgment in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO [2003] 259 ITR 19 (SC). The provisions mandate that, before seeking to reopen the assessment u/s. 147, the Assessing Officer must serve a notice to the assessee requiring him to file his return of income within specified time and before such notice, the Assessing Officer shall record his reasons for the reopening of the assessment. While the pre-amended provision required the Assessing Officer to have reason to believe that there is escapement of income, the new provision required any information as specified under Explanation 1 to section 148 to be in existence to reopen the assessment.

iii) Section 148A, inserted by the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), reiterates the procedure to be followed by the Assessing Officer upon receiving information, including conducting any inquiry regarding the information received, providing an opportunity of being heard to the assessee through serving of notice to show cause within the prescribed time in the notice (which must not be less than seven days and not more than 30 days on the date of serving the notice or the time period till which time extension has been received by the assessee), considering the reply given by the assessee and deciding on the basis of the material that is present, including the reply, about whether the case is fit for issuing a notice u/s. 148 through passing an order u/s. 148A(d) within one month from the reply.

iv) Under the modified section 149, by the Finance Act, 2021, to the effect that an assessment can be reopened within three years from the time of end of relevant assessment year as under clause (a) of section 149(1), if there is information with the Assessing Officer that suggests that there is escapement of income as provided under Explanation 1 to section 148, and up to ten years as provided in clause (b) of section 149(1) in certain exceptional cases, defined as circumstances where income chargeable to tax, within the meaning of “asset” that has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to Rs.50 lakhs or more in that year.

v) Section 26 provides that where a property is owned by two or more persons and their respective shares are definite and ascertainable, such persons shall not be assessed as an association of persons, but the share of each person in income of the property shall be included in his total income.

vi) The Assessing Officer ought to have considered the objections raised by the assessee in response to the notice u/s. 148A(b) and should have disposed of it as mandated u/s. 148A(c).

vii) Since the income escaping assessment was less than Rs. 50 lakhs, section 149(1)(b) could not have been invoked. The assessee and his brother were joint owners of the inherited property with respective share of 50 per cent each and both being joint vendors were entitled to equal share of the consideration amount of Rs. 32,68,000 each and this had been accepted by the Revenue. The reassessment proceeding initiated by the Department was barred by limitation and was beyond jurisdiction. Hence, the entire enquiry proceeding u/s. 148A, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 were quashed.”

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

62 GE Capital US Holdings INC. vs. Dy. CIT (International Taxation)

[2024] 468 ITR 746 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2018–19 and 2019–20

Date of order: 31st May, 2024

Ss. 270A and 270AA of ITA 1961

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

On writ petitions challenging the orders rejecting the applications of the assessee u/s. 270AA(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for immunity from imposition of penalty and levy of penalty u/s. 270A for the A.Y. 2018–19 and 2019–20, the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 speaks of various eventualities and which may expose an assessee to face imposition of penalties. These range from failure to comply with notice u/s. 115WD or concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or fringe benefits. Section 270A provides for imposition of penalty for under-reporting and misreporting of income. U/s. 270A(1), a person would be liable to be considered to have under-reported his income if the contingencies spoken of in clauses (a) to (g) of section 270A(2) are attracted. In terms of section 270A(3), the under-reported income is thereafter liable to be computed in accordance with the stipulations prescribed therein. The subject of misreporting of income is dealt with separately in accordance with the provisions comprised in sub-sections (9) and (10) of section 270A. Therefore, under-reporting and misreporting are separate and distinct misdemeanors. A notice for penalty under Section 270A must clearly specify whether the assessee is being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income in order to be considered valid and sustainable.

ii) Section 270AA lays down conditions for immunity from penalty. Sub-section (3) of section 270AA required the Assessing Officer to consider the following three aspects, (a) whether the conditions precedent specified in sub-section (1) of section 270AA have been complied with, (b) The time limit for filing an appeal under section 249(2)(b) has expired. and (c) the subject matter of penalty not falling within the ambit of section 270A(9). While examining an application for immunity, it is incumbent upon the Assessing Officer to ascertain whether the provisions of section 270A stood attracted either on the anvil of under-reporting or misreporting because the Assessing Officer becomes enabled to reject such an application only if it is found that the imposition of penalty is founded on a charge referable to section 270A(9).

iii) In the absence of the Assessing Officer having specified the transgression of the assessee which could be shown to fall within the ambit of sub-section (9) of section 270A, proceedings for imposition of penalty could not have been mechanically commenced. The notices issued for commencement of action u/s. 270A were themselves vague and unclear. Since the notices failed to specify whether the assessee was being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income and such aspect assumed added significance considering the indisputable position that a prayer for immunity could have been denied in terms of section 270AA(3) only if it were a case of misreporting.

iv) Since an application for grant of immunity could not be pursued unless the assessee complies with clauses (a) and (b) of section 270AA(1), the contention of the Revenue that mere payment of demand would not lead to a prayer for immunity being pursued was unsustainable.

v) Even the assessment orders failed to base the direction for initiation of proceedings u/s. 270A on any considered finding of the conduct of the assessee being liable to be placed within the sweep of sub-section (9) of that provision. The order of assessment and the penalty notices failed to meet the test of ‘specific limb’ as propounded in Pr. CIT v. Ms. MinuBakshi [2024] 462 ITR 301 (Delhi) and Schneider Electric South East Asia (Hq) Pte Ltd. v. Asst. CIT (International Taxation) [2022] 443 ITR 186 (Delhi). A case of misreporting could not have been made out considering the fact that the assessee had questioned the taxability of income asserting that the amount in question would not constitute royalty. The issue as raised was based on an understanding of the legal regime which prevailed. The contentions addressed on that score could neither be said to be baseless nor specious but was based on a judgment rendered by the High Court which was binding upon the Assessing Officer. The position which the assessee sought to assert stood redeemed in view of the decision rendered by the Supreme Court.

vi) The assessee had duly complied with the statutory pre-conditions prescribed in section 270AA(1). Hence it was incumbent upon the Revenue to have concluded firmly whether the assessee’s case fell in the category of misreporting since that alone would have warranted a rejection of its application for immunity. A finding of misrepresentation, failure to record investments, expenditure not substantiated by evidence, recording of false entry in the books of account and the other circumstances stipulated in sub-section (9) of section 270A had neither been returned nor recorded in the assessment order. The show cause notices in terms of which the proceedings u/s. 270A were initiated also failed to specify whether the assessee was being tried on an allegation of under-reporting or misreporting. Since there was a clear and apparent failure on the part of the Revenue to base the penalty proceedings on a contravention relatable to section 270A(9), the application for immunity could not have been rejected.

vii) The orders u/s. 270AA rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 270AA(4) were not valid. On an overall conspectus orders rejecting the assessee’s applications u/s. 270AA(4) for immunity from imposition of penalty were unsustainable and hence quashed.”

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

61 Pr. CIT vs. Dharmanandan Diamonds Pvt. Ltd

[2024] 467 ITR 26 (Bom)

A.Y. 2009–10

Date of order: 14th June, 2023

Ss. 32 and 43(1) of ITA 1961: R. 5 of IT Rules 1962

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

The Assessee was incorporated on 31st August, 2007 and A.Y. 2008–09 was the first year of the Company. The Assessee was incorporated to take over all the assets and liabilities of a Partnership Firm (‘the Firm’) as on 1st September, 2007. Depreciation on assets was claimed by the erstwhile Firm on WDV basis up to 31st August, 2007 and by the successor Assessee at revalued price from 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008. The revaluation was done by a Government-approved valuer. In the subsequent year, that is, A.Y. 2009–10, the assessment year under consideration, the Assessee claimed depreciation on the WDV as on 31st March, 2008 which was arrived at by the Assessee after claiming depreciation for the period 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008 on the revalued figure. According to the Assessing Officer, the Assessee had claimed excess depreciation and, therefore, he disallowed the depreciation as claimed by the Assessee on the revalued cost.

The Tribunal held that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation on revalued assets instead of written down value.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) According to the proviso to section 32, aggregate deduction in respect of depreciation on tangible assets or intangible assets allowable to the predecessor firm and the successor assessee, respectively, shall not exceed in any previous year, the deduction calculated at the prescribed rates as if the succession or the amalgamation or the demerger, as the case may be, had not taken place, and such deduction shall be apportioned between the predecessor and the successor. This was applicable only to the A. Y. 2008-09 when the succession took place as for later years, it would not be the case as the assets would no longer belong to the predecessor firm but only the successor assessee, who could claim depreciation.

ii) For the earlier A. Y. 2008-09, the predecessor firm had claimed depreciation for five months from April 1, 2007 to August 31, 2007 and the successor assessee had claimed depreciation for the assessment year 2008-09 for the period from September 1, 2007 to March 31, 2008. By way of illustration, if succession had not taken place during the A. Y. 2008-09 and the predecessor firm would have claimed Rs. 1 crore as depreciation, both predecessor firm and the successor assessee for that year could claim together only Rs. 1 crore as depreciation and nothing more. This is what had happened in the case at hand also.

iii) The appeal pertained to the A. Y. 2009-10 in which year the asset was owned by the successor assessee. According to section 32 read with rule 5 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation in respect of any assets on the actual cost of these assets which would be the actual cost paid to the predecessor firm by the assessee after revaluing the assets. Therefore, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation for the subsequent years on the basis of the actual cost paid. For the actual cost no money was paid but shares were issued in lieu of cash and that would be the cost which the assessee had paid to procure the assets. The Tribunal did not err in holding that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation u/s. 32 on revalued assets instead of written down value for the A. Y. 2009-10.”

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

60 Pallava Textiles Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assessment Unit

[2024] 467 ITR 539 (Mad.)

A.Y. 2021–22

Date of order: 30th January, 2024

S. 170A of ITA 1961

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

The assessee was a private limited company engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of yarn and fabric. During the financial year 2020–21, it filed an application before the National Company Law Tribunal, seeking approval for a scheme of amalgamation with a company C. Under the scheme of amalgamation, C merged with the assessee and dissolved without being wound up. The appointed date under the scheme was 1st April, 2020. The National Company Law Tribunal sanctioned the scheme on 18th April, 2022, and the scheme became effective from 1st April, 2020 upon such sanction. Since the last date for filing the return of income was in March 2022, the assessee was constrained to file the standalone return of income on 14th March, 2022. Meanwhile, the Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and further notices u/s. 142(1) thereof. The assessee replied thereto. After issuing a show-cause notice on 27th December, 2022, the assessment order was issued within two days after the assessee replied to the show-cause notice.

Assessee filed a writ petition to quash the order. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 170A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 91) with effect from April 1, 2022. Under the provisions of section 170A a successor of a business reorganisation is required to furnish the modified return within six months from the end of the month in which the order of the court or Tribunal sanctioning such business reorganisation is issued. The provision clearly indicates that any assessment after a business reorganisation is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a scheme of reorganisation becomes effective upon sanction from the appointed date. All the assets, contracts, rights and liabilities of the transferor shall stand vested with the transferee with effect from that date. Therefore, section 170A of the Act enables the transferee or successor to file the modified return within a specified time limit.

ii) The amended section 170A clearly indicates that any assessment after the business reorganization is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Since the order of the National Company Law Tribunal was issued on April 18, 2022, the assessee had six months from April 30, 2022 to file the modified return. The option to file the modified return under section 170A of the Act had not been enabled in the portal. In those circumstances, the assessee submitted a physical copy of the modified return on August 24, 2022. Since the last date for filing the return was expiring earlier, the assessee previously submitted the return of the company on standalone basis on March 14, 2022. The first notice to the assessee u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on June 28, 2022, which was subsequent to the effective date of merger. All other notices culminating in the assessment order were issued later. In view of the scheme of amalgamation having become effective and thereby operational from April 1, 2020, the assessee’s consolidated return of income, after its amalgamation, should have been the basis for assessment based on the scrutiny. The Assessing Officer had taken into account the standalone returns of the assessee, the standalone returns of C and the consolidated returns of the merged entity for different purposes. Such an approach was not sustainable.

iii) The show-cause notice dated December 27, 2022 was followed by the assessment order in a matter of about five or six days. The issuance of an assessment order within about two days from the receipt of the reply to the show cause, in a matter relating to about 59 additions to income, constituted a further reason to interfere with
the order.

iv) The assessment order dated December 31, 2022 was quashed and the matter was remanded. Upon consideration of the consolidated return of the assessee, which had since been uploaded electronically, it is open to the Department to issue fresh notices and make a reassessment on the basis of such consolidated return of income.”

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

9 [2024] 167 taxmann.com 286 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Ashok Kumar Pandey vs. ACIT

ITA No: 3986/Mum/2023

A.Y.: 2013-14

Dated: 3rd October, 2024

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

FACTS

The Assessee, filed his return of income, declaring an income of ₹9,500. The Assessee was a dual-resident of India as well as USA and he claimed that his ‘center of vital interests’ was in the USA, under Article 4(2)(a) of the India-US tax treaty. Accordingly, he was a US resident for tax purposes. The AO argued that since a) Assessee’s presence in India was over 183 days; b) assessee had active business in India; he was an Indian tax resident and was also tie-breaking to India. Thus, assessee’s global income was taxable in India.

CIT(A) upheld AO order.

Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT

HELD

ITAT took note of the following facts:

  •  Assessee had a permanent home both in India and USA. Thus, residential status will be determined based on personal and economic relationships.
  •  Personal relationship of assessee is as under:

♦ Assessee and his entire nuclear family are US nationals, holding US passports.

♦ Later, assessee came back to India with his wife, one daughter and son whereas another daughter was staying in the US for studying purpose. All are registered as overseas citizen of India.

♦ His extended family i.e. father, mother, sisters are all US nationals holding US passport.

  •  Economic interest is as under:

♦ Passive investment in USA consisted of cash balance of $57,010; investment in M L Fortress partners $268,866; Coast Access LLC of $16,653; UBS Portfolio closing was $3,21,33,838 in USA

♦ In comparison, passive investment in India consisted of a bank balance of approx. ₹30 lakhs and investment value of approx. ₹50 lakhs.

♦ In terms of active involvement, he and his wife held shares in a company producing films. The assets of the company included work in progress of film, cash and bank balance, unsecured loan. He attended board meetings five times during the year.

  •  Personal and economic relationships, including active business management, took precedence over passive investments in establishing residency.
  •  From the USA, the assessee is deriving rental income where his house property is rented out, he has investments in bank accounts as well as alternative investments. Thus, he does not have any active involvement in the USA for earning wages, remuneration, profit.
  •  Based on his active role in the Indian company, substantial time spent in India, and primary residence with his family in India, the Assessee’s center of vital interests was closer to India, leading to his tie-breaking treaty residency in India.

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

61 [2024] 113 ITR(T) 243 (Chandigarh – Trib.)

SEL Manufacturing Co. Ltd. Vs. DCIT

ITA NO.: 362 (CHD.) OF 2023
A.Y.: 2011-12

DATED: 27th May, 2024

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

FACTS

The assessee company had undergone a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) in the terms and provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016 (“IBC”) under the aegis of the Adjudicating Authority of the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”). A petition for CIRP u/s 7 of the IBC was filed by the State Bank of India before NCLT vide Company Petition No. (IB)-114/Chd/Pb/2017. The NCLT admitted the petition vide order dated 1st April, 2018 and vide order dated 10th February, 2021, approved the resolution plan.

The AO initiated reassessment proceedings u/s 147 on the assessee on the basis of information received that the assessee had made accommodation entries with Shree Shyam Enterprises and passed the impugned order making addition of ₹2,08,60,900/- u/s 68 of the Act, on account of alleged unexplained cash credits representing bogus purchases made.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A), on the other hand, enhanced the addition to ₹8,13,85,737/-, invoking the provisions of Section 69C of the Act.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT. The assessee had raised the additional ground before the ITAT, challenging the CIT(A) order as the same was passed ignoring the order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT under IBC, 2016.

HELD

The assessee contented that in terms of the approved resolution plan vide order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by Income-tax Department endeavoring to saddle the assessee with a liability for a period prior to approval of the Resolution Plan, was extinguished / abated / withdrawn except to the extent provided for in the approved Resolution Plan and thus, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by the Income-tax Department was not payable by the assessee. The provisions of the IBC override other laws for time being in force and as per Section 31(1) of the IBC, a Resolution Plan once approved shall be binding on the assessee company and, inter-alia, its creditors, including, inter-alia, the Central Government to whom, a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under law are owing.

The ITAT observed that as rightly contended and not disputed, any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Income Tax Department was to be treated in the nature of operational debt and the Department was to be treated as an Operational Creditor of the assessee. The ITAT further observed that the Resolution Plan further provided that all claims that may be made against or in relation to any payments required to be made by the assessee company under any applicable law shall unconditionally stand abated, settled and / or with minimum effect. The Resolution Plan also provided that any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Department shall not be payable by the assessee company. The plan also provided that no Government Authority including the Income Tax Department shall have any further rights or claims against the assessee company in respect of any claim relating to the period prior to the approval of the Resolution Plan.

The ITAT held that the impugned order was passed ignoring the provisions of the IBC, which overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of the IBC, and that the impugned order was passed in violation or ignorance of the order dated 10th February, 2021, passed by the NCLT, by which order, the Income Tax Department was precluded from undertaking any action with respect to any issue / transaction prior to the date of commencement of the insolvency process.

In the result, finding merit in the Additional Ground raised by the assessee, the order of CIT(A)was set aside and cancelled. The appeal of the assessee was accordingly allowed.

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

60 [2024] 113 ITR(T)158 (Kol – Trib.)

Rajesh Kumar Jalan vs. PCIT

ITA NO. 254 & 255 (KOL) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2015-16 & 2016-17

Dated: 12th June, 2024

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee at the relevant time was engaged in trading of cloth and had filed return of income under presumptive taxation scheme contemplated u/s 44AD of the Act. The AO had received information from Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes, West Bengal that the assessee had by fraudulent act opened seven Bank accounts under five proprietorship concerns and received a total sum of ₹112,41,47,898/- over the years. On perusal of the information, the AO recorded the reasons and reopened the assessment in both the assessment years.

The assessee had denied being the operator of any such alleged bank accounts. The AO not being satisfied with the assessee’s submission, passed the assessment orders for both the assessment years estimating profit at 8 per cent of alleged unaccounted sales of ₹30,47,35,796/- for AY 2015-16 and ₹43,08,96,425/- for AY 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) which was pending to be disposed-off.

Meanwhile, the Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Range-43, Kolkata [Addl. CIT] forwarded a proposal to CIT for initiating proceedings under section 263 of the Act against the assessee. The ld. CIT had reproduced the proposal made by the Addl. CIT and issued a notice under section 263. The Addl. CIT was of the view that the alleged credit of sales ought to be treated as unexplained cash credit against the name of assessee and the AO had erred in treating it as gross turnover.

In response to the show cause notice u/s 263, the assessee had submitted that somebody has personated his identity and opened these fake accounts in his name. The assessee had not undertaken any such business. The CIT not satisfied with the explanation of the assessee, set aside the assessment orders with a direction that AO to recompute income at ₹30,07,20,390/- in A.Y. 2015-16 and ₹43,13,11,955/- in A.Y. 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD
The ITAT observed that as per section 263(1), powers of revision granted by section 263 to the learned Commissioner have four compartments-

  1.  the learned Commissioner may call for and examine the records of any proceedings under this Act
  2. He will judge an order passed by an AO on culmination of any proceedings or during the pendency of those proceedings and form an opinion that such an order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue

                   [By this stage the learned Commissioner was not required the assistance of the assessee]

3. Issue a show-cause notice pointing out the reasons for the formation of his belief that action u/s 263 is required on a particular order of the Assessing Officer

4. After hearing the assessee, he will pass the order.

To judge the action of CIT taken under section 263, the ITAT followed the decision of the Hon’ble ITAT Mumbai in the case of Mrs. Khatiza S. Oomerbhoy vs. ITO, Mumbai [2006] 100 ITD 173 (Mum. Trib.). One of the principles propounded in the above case-

“The CIT must record satisfaction that the order of the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. Both the conditions must be fulfilled.”

The ITAT observed that the assessee submitted that he had not opened any bank accounts, rather somebody had impersonated him. His case was based on the issue that his IDs were misused and some unknown person had carried out these transactions in his name. He could only know about this when he received information from Sales Tax Authorities, Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes.

During the course of proceedings u/s 263, the assessee was asked to submit his audited financial statements; the assessee was asked to appraise about the status of the complaint lodged by him in Konnagar Police Station. To this, the CIT recorded the finding that the assessee failed to give anything. The ITAT held that, this cannot be expected from a Senior Officer of the Income Tax Department to put somebody under the tax liability without concluding the finding. He ought to have issued notice to the Police Authorities as well as to the Commercial Tax Investigating Authorities for submission of their report. He ought to have first determined whether these accounts belong to the assessee, only thereafter taxability of the amounts available in those accounts would have fallen upon the assessee.

The ITAT further observed that the CIT had reproduced the proposal sent by the Addl. CIT and there was no independent application of his mind for taking cognizance under section 263. The CIT had not recorded any finding. He just put the blame on the assessee to prove a negative aspect. It was for the revenue to first determine that these accounts belonged to the assessee.

Once the assessee had been emphasising that these accounts did not belong to him and he had lodged an FIR in such situation, there should be adjudication of this aspect but CIT simply ignored this aspect under the garb that the assessee failed to substantiate this issue. The ITAT held that it could not be substantiated by the assessee. It was to be investigated by the AO or by the CIT. The role of the AO is not only a prosecutor but he has to play a role of an adjudicator. That very role has to be played by the CIT while exercising the powers under section 263.

Further, the ITAT held that impugned orders are not sustainable because the same very issue was subject matter of appeal before the ld. CIT(Appeals) and by meaning of clause (c) of section 263(1) that aspect could be looked into by the 1st Appellate Authority and no revisionary power ought to have been exercised on that aspect.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed and the impugned orders were quashed.

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

59 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 730 (Raipur Trib)

Avdesh Jain vs. ITO

ITA No.: 30(Rpr.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2010-11

Dated: 9th October, 2024

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

FACTS

The assessee was engaged in the business of retail trading. He filed his return of income for AY 2010-11 by declaring an income of ₹4,67,200. The AO, on the basis of certain information shared by
the Investigation Wing, initiated proceedings under section 147.

The AO observed that as the returned income of the assessee did not suffice to source the business expenditure of ₹8.24 lakhs that was incurred by him, he made an addition of the deficit amount of ₹3.56 lakhs as an unexplained expenditure under section 69C. He also made an addition towards deemed income of ₹60,000 under section 44AE. Accordingly, the AO passed an order under section 147 read with section 144 assessing the income of the assessee at ₹3.51 crores.

On appeal, after noting that despite being given six opportunities the assessee had failed to participate in the proceedings, CIT(A) held that the assessee was not interested in pursuing the matter and disposed of the appeal vide an ex-parte order.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) CIT(A) had disposed-off the appeal for non-prosecution and had failed to apply his mind to the issues which did arise from the impugned order and were assailed by the assessee before him.

(b) Once an appeal is preferred before the CIT(A), it becomes obligatory on his part to dispose-off the same on merit and it was not open for him to summarily dismiss the appeal on account of non-prosecution of the same by the assessee.

(c) A perusal of Section 251(1)(a) / (b) as well as the Explanation to section 251(2) reveals that CIT(A) remains under a statutory obligation to apply his mind to all the issues which arises from the impugned order before him and he is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution. This view was also supported by CIT v. Premkumar Arjundas Luthra (HUF), (2017) 297 CTR 614 (Bom).

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter to the file of the CIT(A) for fresh adjudication.