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Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) – Delay in Receipt of Completion Certificate

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Issue for Consideration
Section 80-IB(10) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for a deduction of 100% of the profits derived from the undertaking of developing and building a housing project approved before 31st March 2008 by a local authority. One of the conditions, contained in clause(a) of s. 80IB(10), subject to which this deduction is granted is that the undertaking has commenced development and construction of the housing project on or after 1st October 1998, and completes such construction:

(i) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority before 1st April 2004, on or before 31st March 2008;

(ii) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority on or after 1st April 2004 but not later than 31st March 2005, within 4 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority;

(iii) where the housing project has been approved by the local authority on or after 1st April 2005, within 5 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority.

The explanation to clause (a) of this sub-section clarifies that the date of completion of construction of the housing project shall be taken to be the date on which the completion certificate in respect of the housing project is issued by the local authority.

Given the fact that there are often delays in issue of the completion certificate by the local authority, the question has arisen before the courts as to whether the benefit of the deduction would be available in a situation where the completion certificate is issued by the local authority beyond the specified time limit, though the actual construction may have been completed within the permissible time-limit. The issue has also arisen as to whether this time limit applies to housing projects whose plans have been approved prior to 1st April 2005, and whether the deduction would be available where the completion certificate has been obtained belatedly, though the housing project has been certified to have been completed within the specified time period.

While the Gujarat and the Delhi High Courts have taken the view that the deduction would be available in cases where completion certificate is not obtained within the prescribed time, the Madhya Pradesh High Court has taken a contrary view and held that the deduction would not be available in such cases.

CHD Developers’ case
The issue came up for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. CHD Developers Ltd. 362 ITR 177.

In that case, the assessee, a real estate developer launched a project in Vrindavan, for which it obtained the approval from the Mathura Vrindavan Development Authority on 16th March 2005. It applied for a completion certificate from the authority on 5th November 2008. For assessment year 2007-08, the assessee claimed a deduction u/s. 80-IB(10).

The assessing officer disallowed the claim for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10), on the ground that the completion certificate had not been granted for the project. The Commissioner(Appeals) upheld the order of the assessing officer.

The Tribunal allowed the benefit of the deduction to the assessee on the following grounds:

(i) the approval for the project was granted on 16th March 2005, before the insertion of the time limits for completion of the project u/s. 80-IB(10), which came into effect from 1st April 2005. Prior to insertion of these time limits for completion of the project, the only requirement of time was that the development and construction of the housing project should commence on or after 1st October 1998. Therefore, at the time of sanction of the project, there was no condition for production of completion certificate.

(ii) It is a settled position in law that the law existing at a particular point of time will be applicable unless and until it is specifically made retrospective by the legislature. The insertion of the requirement of completion certificate within a particular time frame was applicable prospectively and not retrospectively. Had the legislature so intended, nothing prevented the legislature from doing so.

(iii) It was evident from the letter filed for request of completion certificate on 5th November 2008 that the construction had been completed and the request was made for grant of completion certificate of phase I. Since the development authority had neither said that the project was not complete, nor completion certificate was issued to the assessee, the project was presumed to be complete as on 5th November 2008.

(iv) if such certificate was not issued to the assessee, the assessee could not be penalised for the act of an authority on which it had no control, in the absence of any variation or allegation.

Reliance was placed by the tribunal on the decision in the case of CIT vs. Anriya Project Management Services (P) Limited 209 Taxman 1 ( Karn.) for the proposition that the amendment was prospective and did not apply to projects approved before 1st April 2005, where the court had held that another amendment made at the same time to section 80-IB(10), inserting the definition of built-up area, was prospective in nature applicable from 1st April 2005, and did not apply to housing projects approved by the local authority prior to that date.

Besides various other decisions of the Tribunal, the Tribunal had also relied upon the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tarnetar Corporation 362 ITR 174, in deciding the issue in favour of the assessee.

The Delhi High Court, after considering the decision of the tribunal, noted the decisions of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Anriya Project Management Services (P) Limited (supra), the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs Brahma Associates 333 ITR 289, and the Gujarat High Court in the case of Manan Corpn. vs. Asst CIT 214 Taxman 373, all of which had taken the view that the amendments to section 80-IB(10) , effective 1st April 2005 were prospective in nature, and not retrospective.

The Delhi High Court also considered instruction number 4 of 2009 dated 30th June 2009 issued by the CBDT, where the CBDT had clarified that the deduction u/s. 80- IB(10) could be claimed on a year-to-year basis, where the assessee was showing profit from partial completion of the project in every year, and in case it was later found that the condition of completion of the project within the specified time limit of 4 years had not been satisfied, the deduction granted to the assessee in earlier years should be withdrawn. The Delhi High Court inferred from the said instruction that in the post-amendment period, strict adherence to completion period of 4 years was insisted upon where project completion method was followed, and that the limitation of period did not exist prior to the amendment. If an assessee was following percentage of completion method, it would have got the deduction for the earlier years prior to the amendment, but because it was following completed contract method, and the contract was completed after the amendment, the deduction was being denied to it. According to the Delhi High Court, the amendment could not discriminate against those assessees following project completion method.

The Delhi High Court noted that in the case before it, the approval of project for commencement was given prior to the amendment, which required the obtaining of completion certificate within the end of the 4 year period. It agreed with the Gujarat High Court, that the application of such stringent conditions, which were left to an independent body such as the local authority, which was to issue the completion certificate, would have led to not only hardship, but absurdity. Accordingly, the Delhi High Court held that the assessee was entitled to the deduction, and upheld the decision of the Tribunal.

A similar view was taken by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tarnetar Corporation (supra). In that case, the assessee had applied and got approval for the housing project from the local authority before 1st April 2004, and therefore, had to complete the project by 31st March 2008. It completed the construction in the year 2006 and applied for completion certificate in February 2006. This application was rejected in July 2006 for technical reasons, and thereafter, after fresh effort, the completion certificate was received on 19th March 2009. In the meanwhile, several residential units were sold and occupied without the necessary permission before the last date for completion of construction, for which the assessee paid a penalty and got such occupation regularised.

The Gujarat High Court held that it was not in doubt that the assessee had completed the construction well before 31st March 2008. It was true that formal completion certificate was not granted by the municipal authority by that date, and that section 80-IB linked the completion of the construction to the completion certificate being granted by the local authority. However, according to the Gujarat High Court, not every condition of the statute could be seen as mandatory. If substantial compliance of the conditions was established on record, the court could take the view that minor deviation therefrom would not vitiate the very purpose for which deduction was being made available. Accordingly, the Gujarat High Court had held that the assessee was entitled to the benefit of the deduction in that case.

A similar view was also taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Hindustan Samuh Awas Ltd. 377 ITR 150, holding that mere delay in receipt of completion certificate could not result in denial of the deduction.

Global Reality’s case
The issue came up again recently before the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT vs. Global Reality 379 ITR 107.

In this case, the approval for the housing project was granted by the Municipal Corporation before 31st March 2004. The assessee on completion of the project applied to the Municipal Corporation for completion certificate on 16th January 2008. The Inspector of the Municipal Corporation inspected the site on 27th February 2008. The completion certificate was however issued on 4th May 2010, and the certificate did not mention the date of completion of the project. By a subsequent letter dated 23rd March 2011, the Municipal Corporation clarified that the date of completion of the project was 27th February 2008.

The assessee claimed deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) on the basis that the project was completed before the cutoff date, but this claim was rejected by the assessing officer on the ground that in spite of repeated opportunity given to the assessee during assessment proceedings, the completion certificate obtained before 31st March 2008 was not produced before him, and that on inquiry, in December 2008, the Municipal Corporation had confirmed that completion certificate had not been issued to the assessee till that date, and that the application of the assessee was still being processed. The assessee’s appeal was dismissed by the Commissioner(Appeals), but was allowed by the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

Before the High Court, it was argued on behalf of the revenue, that the tribunal had misconstrued the effect of section 80-IB(10)(a), as amended, and that the benefit was available only to specified housing projects, which were completed within the prescribed time. According to the revenue, the express provision introduced in the form of amended clause (a) of section 80-IB(10) must be construed on its own, and not on the logic applicable to other situations mentioned in the same section, where the courts had taken the view that the amended law applied only to projects approved on or after 1st April 2005. The stipulation contained in clause(a) was in the nature of withdrawal of benefit of deduction in respect of projects which had not or could not be completed within the stipulated time. The date of completion of construction had been defined to be the date on which the completion certificate was issued by the local authority. For that, sufficient time had been provided to the developer to complete the project and obtain completion certificate from the local authority well within time.

According to the revenue, in case of housing projects approved before the amendment, they were required to be completed before 31st March 2008, irrespective of the date of approval. In respect of housing projects approved on or after 1st April 2004, they were required to be completed within 4 years from the end of the financial year in which the housing project was approved by the local authority.

It was argued on behalf of the Department that as per clause (ii) of the explanation to section 80-IB(10)(a), compliance of this condition was mandatory. Any other interpretation would result in rewriting the amended provision and render the legislative intent of explicitly providing for the date on which completion certificate was issued by the local authority otiose. The very nature of amended provision in clause (a) showed that it could not be construed as having retrospective effect. Further, developers of housing projects had been treated evenly by giving 4 years time frame from the coming into force of the amendment to complete their projects and for obtaining completion certificate from the local authority with the same time. Any other interpretation would be flawed, as it would result in treating similarly placed persons unequally, as projects approved prior to the amendment would get an unlimited extended period to obtain completion certificate from the local authority to avail of the deduction. By providing an identical cut off period for obtaining completion certificate to similarly placed persons, no hardship whatsoever had been caused.

It was further argued that it was always open to the legislature to provide benefit of deduction to be availed of during a specified period on fulfilment of certain conditions. The 4 years time frame given to the respective class of developers could, by no standards, be said to be asking them to do something which was impossible. Further, it was not a case of withdrawal of benefit or of any vested rights in the concerned assessee, since no developer could claim vested right to continue with the project for an indefinite period. It was argued that the amended provision could neither be termed as amounting to change of any condition already specified nor could it said to be unreasonably harsh or producing absurd results.

On behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on the Supreme Court decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Veena Developers 227 CTR 297 and CIT vs. Sarkar Builders 375 ITR 392, where the Supreme Court had held that section 80-IB(10) as a whole had prospective application and would not apply to housing projects approved by the local authority before the amendment. It was claimed that in any case, an assessee, who maintained books of accounts on work in progress method, as in the assessee’s case, would not be covered by the condition of obtaining completion certificate before the cut-off date. It was further argued that there was a substantial compliance with the condition, even if the completion certificate issued by the local authority was issued after the cut-off date, since the certificate unambiguously recorded the date of completion of project before the cutoff date. The assessee had no control over the working of the local authority, and once the application for issue of completion certificate had been filed prior to 31st March 2008, but the local authority finally issued the certificate after 1st April 2008, confirming that the project was in fact completed before the cut-off date, the assessee must be granted the benefit of the deduction. Taking a contrary view would result in asking an assessee to do something which was impossible and not within its control. The delay caused by the local authority in processing and issuing the completion certificate could not be the basis of denial of benefit to the assessee. Besides placing reliance on the two Supreme Court decisions, the assessee relied on various other High Court decisions, including those of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Tarnetar Corporation (supra) and of the Delhi High Court in the case of CHD Developers Ltd (supra).

The Madhya Pradesh High Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Sarkar Builders (supra). It noted that the issue in that case, as well as in the case of Veena Developers, related to non-compliance with the conditions in other clauses of section 80-IB(10), in particular, clause (d), relating to the commercial area not exceeding 5% of the total project area, and not in relation to the conditions in clause (a), which were the subject matter of the appeal before the High Court. In the case of Sarkar Builders, the Supreme Court had noted that all other conditions were fulfilled by the assessee, including the date by which approval was to be given and the date by which the projects were to be completed. The Supreme Court observed that if clause (d) was applied to projects approved prior to the amendment and completed within the specified time, it would result in an absurd situation and would amount to expecting the assessee to do something which was almost impossible. It was on that basis that the Supreme Court held that the provisions such as clause (d) would have prospective application, and would not apply to projects approved prior to the amendment. Since clause (d) was treated as inextricably linked with the approval and construction of the housing project, the assessee could not be called upon to comply with a new condition, which was not in contemplation either of the assessee or even of the legislature, at the time when the housing project was given approval by the local authority.

Further, the Madhya Pradesh high court observed, the Supreme Court noted that if such a condition was held applicable to projects approved prior to the amendment, then an assessee following the project completion method of accounting would not be entitled to the entire deduction claimed in respect of such housing project merely because he offered his profits to tax in assessment year 2005-06 or a subsequent year, while an assessee following the work in progress method of accounting would be entitled to the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) up to assessment year 2004-05, and would be denied the benefit only from assessment year 2005-06. According to the Supreme Court, it could never have been the intention of the legislature that the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) available to a particular assessee should be determined on the basis of the method of accounting followed. The Supreme court therefore held that section 80-IB(10)(d) was prospective in nature, and would not apply to projects approved prior to the amendment.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court, then referred to the decisions of the Delhi High Court in the case of CHD Developers and of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Tarnetar Corporation. The court noted that though the Delhi High Court had referred to the prospective applicability of clause (d) of section 80-IB(10), which was dealt with by the Supreme Court in Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders cases, it finally concluded on the basis that the application of a stringent condition, which was left to an independent body, such as a local authority, which was to issue the completion certificate, would result in causing hardship to an assessee and also result in absurdity. The court further noted that the Gujarat High Court had found that the assessee completed the construction well before the last date, and also sold several units which were completed and actually occupied, and it had also applied for the permission to the local authority before that date and the court’s decision was on the basis of the finding recorded by the tribunal that the construction was completed in 2006, and that the application for completion certificate was submitted to the principal authority in February 2006. It was in the context of those facts that the Gujarat High court went on to observe that not every condition of statute can be seen as mandatory and that a substantial compliance of such condition was substantiated, the court can take the view that minor deviation thereof would not vitiate the very purpose for which deduction was being made available. The Madhya Pradesh High Court having noted the above stated facts and the reasons for the decisions by the high courts, expressed its inability to agree with the decisions of the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the Supreme Court decisions in the case of Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders had to be understood only in the context of a new condition stipulated regarding the built-up area of the project, by way of an amendment through clause (d), with which the assessee could not have complied at all, even though the construction of the housing project was otherwise in full compliance of all conditions set out in the approval given by the municipal authority. In the view of the Madhya Pradesh High Court, clause (a) could not be considered as a condition that was sought to be retrospectively applied, and that too incapable of compliance, since it dealt with the time frame within which the incomplete housing project was expected to be completed to get the benefit of the prescribed deduction.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, it could not be treated as a new condition linked to the approval and construction, or having retrospective effect as such, since it gave at least 4 years timeframe to both class of housing projects, those approved prior to 1st April 2004 or after 1st April 2004. The 4 years period obviously had prospective effect, though limiting the period for completion of the project to avail of the benefit and such period of 4 years could not be said to be unreasonable, harsh, absurd or incapable of compliance.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court was of the view that it was also not a case of withdrawal of vested right of the developer, since no developer could claim vested right to complete the housing project in an indefinite period. The right arising from section 80-IB was coupled with the obligation or duty to complete the project in the specified time frame. If the developer did not complete the housing project within the specified time, it would not receive that benefit. According to the Court, the provision for claiming tax deduction for profits could certainly prescribe reasonable conditions and time frame for completion of the project in larger public interest.

Addressing the argument as to whether the stipulation contained in clause(a) of section 80-IB(10) could be said to be directory, the Madhya Pradesh High Court observed that considering the substantial benefit offered by section 80-IB of 100% of the profits, which was a burden on the public exchequer due to waiver of commensurate revenue, and the purpose underlying the same, the stipulation for obtaining completion certificate from the local authority before the cut-off date must be construed as mandatory. The fact that compliance with this condition was dependent on the manner in which the proposal was processed by the local authority, could not make the provision a directory requirement. According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, it was a substantive provision mandating issuance or grant of completion certificate by the local authority before the cut-off date, as a precondition to get the benefit of tax deduction. Otherwise, it would be open to an assessee to rely on other circumstances or evidence to plead that the housing project was complete, requiring enquiry into those matters by the tax authorities, in the absence of a completion certificate. According to the High Court, if the argument of substantial compliance were accepted, it would lead to uncertainty about the date of completion of the project, which was the hallmark for availing of the benefit of tax deduction. It was only with this intent, according to the High Court, that the legislature had laid down that the date of completion of construction was taken to be the date on which the completion certificate was issued by the local authority. The Madhya Pradesh High Court observed that to interpret it to include a subsequent certificate issued after the cut-off date would not only result in rewriting of the express provision, but also run contrary to the unambiguous position pronounced in the section and would be against the legislative intent.

According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the provision should then have read as “date of completion of construction of the housing project shall be taken to be the date certified by the local authority in that behalf”, irrespective of the date of issuance of such certificate by the local authority. The High Court observed that only if the assessee was able to prove that the completion certificate was in fact issued by the local authority before the cut-off date, but could not be produced by the assessee within the time due to reasons beyond its control, the argument of substantial compliance of the provision could be tested. Any other interpretation would result not only in uncertainty, but the finding regarding the date of completion also would depend upon the subjective satisfaction of the assessing authority and invest wide discretion in that authority, which eventually would lead to litigation. According to the High Court, if the assessee had failed to comply with the condition of obtaining completion certificate from the local authority before the cut-off date, it must bear the consequence thereof of the denial of benefit of tax deduction offered to it.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court therefore held that the issuance of completion certificate after the cut-off date by the local authority, though mentioning the date of completion of the project before the cut-off date, did not fulfil the conditions specified in 80-IB(10)(a) read with explanation (ii), and accordingly the assessee was not entitled to the benefit of the deduction.

Observations
The condition of obtaining the completion certificate within the prescribed time is applicable to all the projects irrespective of the date of commencement of project and, looked at from the said point of view, the issue on hand has wider implications. The ratio of the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court, if held to be laying down the correct law on the subject, can have serious ramifications. The courts generally, while dealing with the requirement of obtaining certificates by prescribed dates, have taken a liberal view in favour of assesses in cases where the compliance in principle is shown to have been ensured. On touchstone of this test, it may be fair to demand that the benefit of deduction u/s. 80IB(10) should not be denied in cases where the project has been completed by the prescribed date but the application for certificate has been delayed or the cases where the application has been made within the prescribed time but the certificate is issued after the prescribed date. This position in law can be supported by the ratio of the decisions of the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts, squarely and fairly. In our considered opinion, no issue should revolve around the situation discussed in this paragraph and the assesseee should be conferred with the benefit of deduction in respect of the profits and gains derived from a housing project.

In cases where the project has commenced on or after the amendment, difficulties would arise where the assessee has failed to even complete the project by the prescribed date. In such cases, it may be difficult for the assessee to be the beneficiary of the deduction unless the courts read down the explanation to clause(a) or grant deduction on liberal construction of incentive provisions. It may not be possible otherwise to claim deduction, as the legislature has not only forewarned the assessee but has given sufficient time for completion, unless of course the courts read down the said explanation that stipulates time for completion, independent of the main provision. It may not be appropriate to suggest that the condition providing for obtaining of certificate from a local body is absurd, simply because it is a local body. It may also not be possible for the post amendment projects to be covered by the ratio of the decision in Veena Developers’ case, which dealt with the pre amendment project, and that too a pre amended assessment year. Nor will it be possible to be covered by the ratio of the decision in the case of Sarkar Builders’ case which dealt with the pre amended project and post amendment assessment of such a project. The post amendment projects claiming deduction in post amendment assessment years can be said to be claiming deduction with eyes wide open, and would be expected to comply with the conditions. Seeking a ‘read down’ is the best option for them.

As regards the pre-amendment projects, claiming deduction in the post amendment assessment years’, the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court has added an interesting dimension by separating the condition of clause (a) from the remaining conditions in clauses(b) to (d) of section 80IB(10). Subsequent to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Sarkar Builders, it was widely believed that such project would not be subjected to the conditions of the post amendment period. The decision has expressly dissented with the decisions of the Gujarat High Court delivered on similar facts. The Madhya Pradesh High Court has chosen to distinguish the ratio of the Supreme Court decision by restricting the scope of the said decision to clauses (b) to (d). Whether such was the view of the apex court or not, that can be clarified by the court only. In the meanwhile, we hereafter explain how the views of the Gujarat and Delhi High Courts represent a better view.

The whole basis of the Madhya Pradesh High Court order seems to be on the fact that the approval granted is not inextricably linked to the period within which the project construction would be completed. It needs to be kept in mind that the provisions of section 80-IB applied only to large projects, where the project was on the size of a plot of land which had a minimum area of one acre. Obviously, such large projects take a substantial time to complete.

The approval granted by the local authority is of the plans of the project. In most cases, the developer would have planned a phased development of the project, on the basis of which the plans were submitted. If at the point of time of approval of the plans, there was no time limit for completion of the project, a subsequent time limit of 4 years laid down for completion of the project may not suffice to complete the phased development. In such a case, the developer would either need to change the entire plan of the project, so as to ensure completion within the time limit of 4 years, which process would need an amended approval, or would suffer the loss of the deduction u/s. 80-IB in the event of failure to do so. At times, a change of plan may also not be possible on account of the fact that the construction may have been carried out in a particular manner based on the original plan, which does not permit of alteration to reduce the time period of construction.

Therefore, in most cases, the approved plan and the period of construction are inextricably linked to each other, in the same manner as the breakup of the constructed area into commercial area and residential area is linked to the plans approved. Therefore, the ratio of the Supreme Court decisions in Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders applies equally to the period of construction, as it applies to the percentage of commercial area in the project. This commercial aspect does not seem to have been properly appreciated by the Madhya Pradesh High Court.

Secondly, the Madhya Pradesh High Court held that the time limit for issue of the certificate is mandatory, and not directory, on the ground that otherwise an assessing officer would have to make enquiries and use his discretion to find out the correct date of completion. Various decisions of High Courts and the Supreme Court, in the context of different time periods specified under the Income-tax Act, have held that the purpose of laying down a time limit for furnishing of a certificate or audit report is to ensure that the assessing officer is able to complete the assessment on the basis of the certificate or audit report, and that so long as the certificate or audit report is available before the completion of assessment, that would suffice to give the benefit of the deduction or exemption to the assessee, even though the law may have prescribed a time limit for filing of the certificate or audit report, beyond which limit it was actually furnished. In these decisions, it has been invariably held that while the requirement of furnishing of the certificate or audit report is mandatory, the requirement of the time limit within which it has to be furnished is directory. A few such cases where this view has been taken by the Supreme Court is in the cases of CIT vs. Nagpur Hotel Owners Association 247 ITR 201 in the context of application for accumulation u/s. 11(2), CIT vs. G.M. Knitting Industries (P.) Ltd 376 ITR 456 in the context of audit certificate for additional depreciation, CIT vs. AKS Alloys (P.) Ltd. 376 ITR 456 in the context of audit report for deduction u/s. 80-IB, etc.

Therefore, though the obtaining of the certificate should be regarded as mandatory, the time limit for obtaining such certificate should be regarded as directory, particularly so as the actual issue of the certificate is not within the control of the assessee, once he has applied for it within the specified time.

Once the plans had been approved prior to the amendment, and all the conditions then applicable for claim of deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) had been fulfilled, viz. commencement of development of the project on or after 1st October 1998, minimum size of plot of land of one acre, and residential units having a maximum built-up area as specified, the assessee had a right to claim the deduction u/s 80-IB. That was a vested right, which could not have been taken away by a subsequent amendment, adding an additional condition, as rightly held by the Supreme Court in the cases of Veena Developers and Sarkar Builders.

The whole purpose of obtaining the certificate of completion from the local authority was to ensure that the project has been completed within the specified time. This ensured that the objective of the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of making residential housing available was fulfilled. So long as the completion of the project before the specified date could be demonstrated, even if it was by a certificate issued on a later date, and so long as that evidence was available at the time of assessment, the benefit of the deduction should be granted to the assessee.

As held by the Supreme Court in the case of Bajaj Tempo Ltd .196 ITR 188, in case of an incentive provision, the law should be interpreted in a liberal manner so as to grant the benefit of the deduction of the assessee, rather than deny it to the assessee on technical grounds, particularly where there is substantial compliance by the assessee. In that case, the Supreme Court observed:

“A provision in a taxing statute granting incentives for promoting growth and development should be construed liberally. Since a provision intended for promoting economic growth has to be interpreted liberally the restriction on it too has to be construed so as to advance the objective of the section and not to frustrate it.”

Therefore, the view taken by the Delhi and Gujarat High Courts, that the belated obtaining of the completion certificate beyond the prescribed time limit in cases where the plans were approved prior to 1st April 2005, is not fatal to the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80- IB, so long as the completion of the housing project is within the prescribed time, seems to be the better view of the matter.

In any case, if a part of the project is completed and certificate of completion has been received for such part in time, the assessee would certainly be entitled to deduction in respect of the part of the project which has been completed, as held by the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. B. M. and Brothers 42 taxmann.com 24.

Deductibility of Brokerage from Rent u/S. 23

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The annual value of a house property is chargeable to income tax u/s. 22 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, under the head “Income from House Property”. Section 23 provides for a deeming fiction where under “the annual value of any property shall be deemed to be:

(a) The sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to let from year to year; or
(b) where the property or any part of the property is let and the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is in excess of the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable; or
(c) where the property or any part of the property is let and was vacant during the whole or any part of the previous year, and owing to such vacancy, the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is less than the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable.”

The proviso to section 23 allows a deduction from the annual value, of the municipal taxes actually paid during the year. Two other deductions are also permitted by section 24 – standard deduction @ 30% of the annual value, and a deduction for the interest payable on borrowed capital, where the property has been acquired, constructed, repaired, renewed or reconstructed with borrowed capital.

In a case where a property has been let out, the actual rent receivable during the year would be the annual value of the property in accordance with section 23, which value will be further reduced by the deductions specified in section 24 of the Act. In many cases where a property is let out, a broker is appointed to identify a tenant, and brokerage is paid to the broker for finding the tenant. The question has arisen before the Tribunal as to whether such brokerage paid to a broker for letting of the property on rent is an allowable deduction from the actual rent receivable in computing the annual value of the property or not?

While a bench of the Mumbai Tribunal has taken the view that such brokerage is an allowable deduction, another bench of the Mumbai Tribunal has taken a contrary view that brokerage is not an allowable deduction in computing the income from house property .

Govind S. Singhania’s case
The issue came up before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Govind S. Singhania vs. ITO in ITA No. 4581/Mum/2005 dated 3 April 2008 (reported in July 2008 40-A BCA Journal 449).

In that case, relating to assessment year 2002-03, the assessee gave his office premises at Mittal Towers on lease to a company, and incurred expenses of Rs.30,000 for stamp duty and Rs.85,000 for brokerage on account of renewal of lease agreement. The assessing officer held that these expenses were not allowable in computing the income under the head Income from house property, because they did not fall within the category of allowable expenses that were specified by the legislature. The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the order of the assessing officer.

Before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, it was contended by the assessee that it could not have earned the rental income without incurring these expenses. The stamp duty had to be paid as per the provisions of the Stamp Act on the lease agreement, as a mandatory requirement and since the assessee had let out the premises to the company through a broker, the payment of brokerage was also an obligation on the part of the assessee, which he had to incurr in order to earn the rent. It was further argued that the assessee could have asked the tenant to pay the stamp duty and brokerage, and could have adjusted such expenditures by reducing the amount of rent, in which case the assessee would have got a lower rent equivalent to the net rent. Therefore, such expenses were overriding in nature in relation to the rent receivable and were claimed to be allowable in computing the annual value. It was further argued that it was not the actual gross rent, which was to be treated as annual letting value, but the rent (net of these expenses), which was to be treated as actual rent received by the assessee and as annual letting value.

Reliance was also placed on various decisions of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the context of deductibility of the society maintenance and non-occupancy charges paid to the Society, where it had been held by the tribunal that it was the rent net of such charges, which was to be taken as the annual letting value.

The Tribunal observed that it was not in dispute that without incurring those expenses, the assessee would not have earned the rental income. Further, in computing the annual value u/s. 23(1)(b), rental income received or receivable by the owner had to be taken into consideration and such rent had to be taken net of the expenses on stamp duty and brokerage, and that the said expenses had to be deducted from the very beginning, since whatever came into the hands of the assessee was only the net amount.

The Tribunal also found substantial force in the argument of the assessee that had these expenses been borne by the tenant, and only the net rent paid by the tenant, then the amount of such net rent only would have been taken to be the annual letting value u/s. 23(1)(b). Accordingly, the tribunal held that the annual letting value should be taken net of stamp duty and brokerage paid by the assessee.

Radiant Premises’ case
The issue again recently came up before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Radiant Premises (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT 61 taxmann.com 204.

In this case, relating to the assessment year 2010-11, the assessee had earned a gross rental income of Rs. 1.29 crore in respect of its office premises. It had paid a brokerage of Rs.1.12 crore for sourcing and securing a suitable licensee for the office premises, being 2 months of the rent and 2% of the security deposit. After reducing 30% of the annual value amounting to Rs.0.05 crore, the assessee offered the net rental income of Rs.0.12 crore to tax under the head “Income from House Property”.

The assessing officer did not allow the deduction of Rs. 1.12 crore paid towards the brokerage, holding that the computation had to be done only in accordance with the provisions of section 23, and only standard reduction was allowable u/s. 24. According to the assessing officer, there was no express provision regarding allowance of any expenditure such as brokerage, commission, etc. for determination of the annual value of the property, except the taxes levied by the local authority on payment basis in respect of the property. Relying upon the decisions of the tribunal in the cases of Tube Rose Estates (P) Ltd. vs. ACT 123 ITD 498 (Del) and ACIT vs. Piccadilly Hotels (P) Ltd .97 ITD 564, the assessing officer disallowed the claim of brokerage paid by the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the disallowance of brokerage on the ground that such deduction of brokerage was nowhere specified either in section 23 or in section 24.

Before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, it was argued that the payment of brokerage was directly related to the earning of rental income, and had therefore to be deducted from the gross rent, since section 23(1)(b) contemplated the actual rent received/receivable. It was argued that in various decisions, the Tribunal had held that stamp duty charges on license agreement, maintenance charges paid to the Housing Society, etc. were allowable u/s. 23 itself, and on the same analogy, brokerage also had to be allowed.

On behalf of the Department, it was argued that no expenditure could be allowed other than those deductions or expenses as specified in sections 23 and 24. It was further argued that most of the decisions cited by the assessee were in respect of maintenance charges paid to the society, which stood on a different footing, because such charges were for the maintenance of the property itself so that rights in the property could be enjoyed.

The Tribunal negatived the plea of the assessee that the phrase “actual rent received or receivable” meant the rent, net of deductions, actually received in the hands of the assessee. According to the tribunal, what was contemplated u/s. 23 was that the annual value of the property, which was let out should be the amount of rent received or receivable by the owner from the tenant/licensee. The first and foremost condition was that the amount should be in the nature of rent as previously agreed upon between the 2 parties for the enjoyment of rights in the property let out against payment of rent. The deductions envisaged in sections 23 and 24 were only in respect of municipal taxes, 30% of the actual value and interest payable on capital borrowed for acquisition, construction, repair, etc.

According to the Tribunal, the word “rent” connoted a return given by the tenant or occupant of the land or structure to the owner for the possession and use thereof. The rent was a sum agreed between the tenant and the owner to be paid at fixed intervals for the usage of such property. The phrase “rent received” and “rent receivable” contemplated the amount received for the enjoyment of the property and certain rights in the property by the tenant. According to the Tribunal, if there was a charge directly related to the rental income or for the property without which the rights in the property could not be enjoyed by the tenant, then it could be construed as part and parcel of enjoyment of the property from where it was received, and then such charges could be held to be allowable from the rent received or receivable. However, in the Tribunal’s view, the brokerage paid to the third party had nothing to do with the rental income paid by the tenant to the owner for enjoying the property. It could therefore not be said to be a charge that had been created in the property for enjoying the rights, and at best, it was only an application of income received/receivable from the rent.

The Tribunal referred to the decision of the Delhi Tribunal in the case of Tube Rose Estates (supra), for the proposition that where services had been provided by a third party to whom the brokerage was payable, the value of such services was not included in the rent. In that case the Tribunal had also distinguished a situation where part of the rent might have become payable to a third party before it accrued to the assessee in terms of an overriding charge, in which case there was diversion of rent at source, and to that extent, could be claimed as deduction while computing the income from house property. In case of payment of brokerage, the Tribunal had held that there was no charge created on the property, much less an involuntary charge enforceable by law, which could be claimed as a deduction.

The Mumbai Tribunal expressed a view that if expenses such as brokerage, professional fees, etc. were held to be allowable, then numerous other expenses like salary or commission to an employee/agent who collected the rent may also be held to be allowable, which was not the mandate of the law. It noted that the decisions cited before it mainly pertained to maintenance charges paid to a society, which was held to be an allowable deduction u/s. 23 itself. It distinguished between maintenance charges and brokerage paid, on the basis that maintenance charges were paid for the very maintenance of the property so as to enjoy the property itself, whereas brokerage had nothing to do with the property or the rent, and was given to a third party, who had facilitated the agreement between the landlord and the tenant to rent the property. It also distinguished the case where stamp duty had been held to be allowable, on the ground that stamp duty was directly related and was in connection with the lease agreement for renting of the property.

The Mumbai bench of the Tribunal therefore held that payment of brokerage could not be allowed as deduction either u/s. 23 or u/s. 24, and confirmed the disallowance of the brokerage paid while computing the income from house property.

A similar view had also been taken by the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Township Real Estate Developers (India) (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT 51 SOT 411.

Observations
The issue, as far as section 23 is concerned, revolves around the true meaning of the term ‘actual rent received or receivable’. This term is interpreted in a manner that leaves a room for deducting such expenditure from rent where the expenditure is found to be directly related or in connection with the agreement for letting or receipt of rent. This part even Mumbai Tribunal records with approval in the Radiant Premises’ case. Brokerage is an expenditure that is incurred for earning rent. It is also an expenditure connected to the agreement of lease. It is also not in dispute that a broker, on payment of the brokerage, fetches you the best possible rent. There are no two views about it. In fact, brokerage is more directly related to the earning of better rent than the stamp duty and maintenance charges.

Once it is admitted that the said term used in section 23 is capable of inclusion, it is fair to not limit its scope in an arbitrary manner by selecting a few expenditures in preference to the other few. The interpretation that encourages the deduction is preferable, more so when the facts suggest that the brokerage paid has the effect of fetching a better rent and perhaps a better lessee. If society charges are found to be diverted under an overriding title, there does not appear to be logic in leaving the brokerage behind.

In Radiant Premises’ case (supra), the Tribunal took the view that the brokerage was not a diversion of the rent by overriding title, whereas the society charges was a case of diversion of rent by overriding title. While doing so, the Tribunal failed to appreciate that the brokerage preceded the earning of the rent, and that had it not been for the payment of the brokerage, there may have been no earning of rent. Further, society charges are payable as a consequence of letting out on rent, and arise subsequent and consequent to the accrual of rent. Therefore, if society charges are a diversion of income by overriding title, brokerage is all the more so. Both are inextricably linked with the rental income, and paid to third parties, other than the landlord and the tenant.

It is improper to deny deduction of an expenditure on brokerage simply on the ground that the payment was made to a third party. Payment of stamp duty or maintenance charges are always made to the third party and not to a lessee. In any case, the lessor in rare cases makes a payment to the lessee and therefore the condition that the expenditure should qualify for deduction on the basis of the status of the payee is not tenable. In Tube Rose’s case (supra), the Tribunal held that brokerage was not deductible, as it was paid to a third party. That logic does not appear to be correct, since society charges, which are also paid to a third party, have been held to be deductible.

A separate deduction was provided for collection charges vide section 24(1)(vii), till assessment year 1992-93,. Thereafter the scope of deduction u/s. 24(1)(i) for repairs was enhanced to include collection charges, and the quantum of deduction thereunder was raised to 1/5th of the annual value. Subsequently, with effect from assessment year 2002-03, various other deductions allowable till then, u/s. 24, such as insurance premium, annual charge, land revenue tax, etc. along with the deduction for repairs and collection charges, were replaced by a standard deduction u/s. 24(1)(a) at 30% of the annual value.

It does not appear to be appropriate to hold that substitution of new section 24 for its older version eliminated any possibility altogether for claim of any deduction even u/s. 23 of the Act. One cannot conclude that the standard deduction of 30% is meant to cover even collection charges as well, as was done by the Tribunal in Township Real Estate Developers’ case.

The Tribunal, in the case of Banwari Lal Anand vs. ITO 62 ITD 301 (Del), for assessment year 1989-90, in the context of section 24, held that “any sum spent to collect rent”, referred to in section 24(1)(vii), should be interpreted to mean “any amount spent with an aim to collect rent” and in that view of the matter, brokerage was held allowable as an amount spent to collect rent, being an amount spent with an aim to collect rent. Does this mean that after the amendment, brokerage would now not be allowable?

It is true that in computing the income under each head, only such expenses are allowed that are specifically allowed under the specified chapters that deal with the respective head of income. Admitting this position does not rule out the fundamental understanding that only such an income can be subjected to tax which is the real income. Taxing the gross rent without deduction of the brokerage paid is a case of taxing an unreal income.

Lastly, the logic that, had the parties provided for lower rent, with brokerage payable by the tenant, the annual value would have been such lower rent, is an extremely compelling argument to support deduction of brokerage and the logic is approved in Govind Singhania’s case (supra). Can a mere change of form, without change in substance, change the annual value?

No doubt two views may be possible on the subject, the better view appears to be that, just as society charges and stamp duty are held to be allowable deductions in computing the annual value u/s. 23 itself, brokerage paid for obtaining a tenant too shall also be allowable as a deduction in computing the annual value u/s. 23. It is suggested that the law should be amended to put the issue beyond doubt by providing for a specific deduction, as doing so would make the taxation more realistic.

Admission Of Appeal and Section 271(1)(c)

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Issue for Consideration Section 271(1)(c) provides for the imposition of penalty by an AO in cases where he is satisfied that the person has concealed the particulars of his income or has furnished inaccurate particulars of such income. The penalty leviable shall not be less than the amount of tax sought to be evaded but shall not exceed three times the amount of such tax.

Section 273B provides that no penalty shall be imposable where the person proves that there was a reasonable cause for his failure to disclose the particulars of his income or to furnish accurate particulars of such income. It is thus, essential for a person, for escaping the penalty to prove that he had not concealed the particulars of his income or has not furnished inaccurate particulars of his income or in any case he was prevented by a reasonable cause in concealing the income or furnishing the inaccurate particulars.

None of the relevant terms namely, concealment, inaccurate particulars or reasonable cause are defined under the Income-tax Act. Needless to say, that a person has therefore to rely on the several decisions delivered by the Courts for assigning true meaning to the said terms. Over a period, a judicial consensus has emerged where under a decision taken under a bona fide belief is considered to be not a case of concealment or a case of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. Likewise, selecting one of the possible views on a subject that is capable of 2 views is held to be providing the person with a reasonable cause for his failure to disclose or furnish accurate particulars of his income.

There seems to be an unanimity about the understanding that no penalty is leviable in a case where the issue concerning a claim of allowance/disallowance/ addition/ deduction/ exemption is debatable. Recently, the term ‘debatable’ has attracted the attention of the judiciary where under, the Courts are asked to determine whether an issue can be said to be debatable in a case where a High Court has admitted the appeal on merits of the claim by holding the issue to be one which involves a substantial question of law. While the Gujarat High Court has held that simply because an appeal has been admitted on merits of the claim of an assesse, it could not automatically be held that the issue was debatable and that no penalty was leviable. The Bombay High Court approving the 3rd member decision of the Ahmedabad bench of the Tribunal held that the issue became debatable once an appeal on merits of the claim was admitted on the ground that it formed a substantial question of law.

Dharamshi B. Shah’s case
The Gujarat high court had an occasion to consider the issue in the case of the CIT vs. Dharamshi B. Shah, 51 taxmann.com 274 (Gujarat). In the said case, an addition made by the AO on account of capital gains computed u/s. 45(3) was upheld by the tribunal and the assessee’s appeal against such an order was admitted by the High Court. The AO subsequently had passed an order levying penalty u/s. 271(1)(c), which was deleted by the Tribunal on the ground that no penalty was leviable once an appeal on the merits of the case was admitted by the court. In an appeal by the revenue department against such an order of the Tribunal, the court was asked to consider whether merely because the assessee’s appeal in respect of an addition on the basis of which penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) was levied, had been admitted by High Court, it could be said that the issue was debatable so as to delete the penalty. One of the substantial questions of law raised before the court by the revenue was:

“Whether, in the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal is justified in not upholding the penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act imposed by the Assessing Officer and upheld by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) holding that since the substantial question of law in respect of the addition on which the penalty has been levied, has been admitted by the hon’ble Gujarat High Court, the penalty would not survive without appreciating that the addition on which the penalty was levied was confirmed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) and by Income-tax Appellate Tribunal itself ? ”

The Revenue submitted that;

  • in the case before the court, the Tribunal had deleted the penalty imposed by the AO and confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals) solely on the ground that the appeal against the order passed by the Tribunal on the merits of the case, was admitted by the high court and, therefore, the issue was not free from debate and, consequently, the tribunal had set aside the penalty,
  • the issue involved in the appeal was squarely covered by the decision of the court in the case of CIT vs. Prakash S Vyas rendered in Tax Appeal No. 606 of 2010, now reported in 58 taxmann.com 334, wherein the aforesaid view was not accepted by the Division Bench of the court,
  • the impugned order passed by the tribunal was required to be quashed and set aside and the matter was required to be remanded to the Tribunal to decide the appeal afresh in accordance with law and on its own merits.

The court noted the following observations of the tribunal while setting aside the order of the AO levying penalty:

 “… This is the settled position of law that the penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is imposable in respect of any concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income by the assessee. When for the addition made by the Assessing Officer which is confirmed by the Tribunal, a substantial question of law is admitted by the hon’ble Gujarat High Court, it has to be accepted that the issue is not free from debate, and, hence, in our considered opinion, under these facts, it cannot be said that the assessee has concealed his income or furnished inaccurate particulars of income, and, therefore, penalty is not justified. We, therefore, delete the same.”

The court noted with approval its decision on an identical question in Tax Appeal No. 606 of 2010 now reported in 58 taxmann.com 334, wherein the court had observed as under and had quashed and set aside the order of the tribunal deleting the penalty and had remanded the matter to the Tribunal to consider the appeal afresh in accordance with law and on its own merits.

“10. Having, thus, heard learned counsel for the parties, we reiterate that the sole ground on which the Tribunal deleted the penalty was that with respect to the quantum additions, the assessee had approached the High Court and the High Court had admitted the appeal framing substantial questions of law for consideration. In view of the Tribunal, this would indicate that the issue was debatable and that, therefore, no penalty under section 271(1)(c) could be imposed.

11.    We are of the opinion that the Tribunal erred in deleting the penalty on this sole ground. Admission of a tax appeal by the High Court, in majority cases, is ex parte and without recording even prima facie reasons. Whether ex parte or after by-parte hearing, unless some other intention clearly emerges from the order itself, admission of a tax appeal by the High Court only indicates the court’s opinion that the issue presented before it required further consideration. It is an indication of the opinion of the High Court that there is a prima facie case made out and the questions are required to be decided after admission. Mere admission of an appeal by the High Court cannot without there being anything further, be an indication that the issue is a debatable one so as to delete the penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Act even if there are independent grounds and reasons to believe that the assessee’s case would fall under the mischief envisaged in said clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 271 of the Act. In other words, unless there is any indication in the order of admission passed by the High Court simply because the tax appeal is admitted, would give rise to the presumption that the issue is debatable and that, therefore, penalty should be deleted.

12.    This is not to suggest that no such intention can be gathered from the order of the court even if so expressed either explicitly or in implied terms. This is also not to suggest that in no case, admission of a tax appeal would be a relevant factor for the purpose of deciding validity of a penalty order. This is only to put the record straight in so far as the opinion that the Tribunal as expressed in the present impugned order, viz., that upon mere admission of a tax appeal on quantum additions, is an indication that the issue is debatable one and that, therefore, penalty should automatically be deleted without any further reasons or grounds emerging from the record.

13.    This is precisely what has been done by the Tribunal in the present case. The order of the Tribunal, therefore, cannot be sustained. The question framed is answered in favour of the Revenue and against the assessee. The order of the Tribunal is reversed. Since apparently the assessee had raised other contentions also in support of the appeal before the Tribunal, the proceedings are remanded before the Tribunal for fresh consideration and disposal in accordance with law. The tax appeal is disposed of accordingly.”

The court approving the reasons stated in the said decision, quashed and set aside the order of the tribunal and remanded the matter to the Tribunal for fresh consideration and disposal in accordance with law on its own merits while holding that penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) could not be deleted on the sole ground that assessee’s appeal in respect of addition on basis of which penalty was levied had been admitted by the High Court.

Nayan Builders Case

The issue also arose before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nayan Builders, 368 ITR 722 wherein the court found that the appeal of the Revenue department could not be entertained as it did not raise any substantial question of law.

In the said case the addition of income of Rs. 1,04,76,050 and disallowance of expenses of Rs.10,79,221 on brokerage and Rs. 2,00,000 on legal fees made by the A.O. were sustained by the Tribunal and the appeal of the assessee u/s. 260A was admitted by the High Court on the ground that the said addition and the disallowances represented a substantial question of law.

The A.O., pending the disposal of the appeal by the High Court, had levied a penalty of Rs. 37,32,777 u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act which was confirmed by the Commissioner(Appeals). On a further appeal by the assessee to the Tribunal, challenging the levy of the penalty, the Tribunal held that, when the High Court admitted a substantial question of law on the merits of an addition/disallowance, it became apparent that the issue under consideration on the basis of which penalty was levied, was debatable. It held that the admission by the high court lent credence to the bona fides of the assessee in claiming deduction. It held that the mere fact of confirmation of an addition/disallowance would not per se lead to the imposition of penalty, once it turned out that the claim of the assessee could have been considered by a person properly instructed in law and was not completely debarred in law. Relying on the decisions in the cases of Rupam Mercantile Ltd. vs. DCIT, 91 ITD 237(Ahd.) (TM) and Smt. Ramilaben Ratilal Shah vs. ACIT, 60 TTJ 171(Ahd.), the Tribunal held that no penalty was exigible u/s. 271(1)(c), once the high court had held that the issue of addition/disallowance represented a substantial question of law.

On an appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court held that the imposition of the penalty was not justified. The court noted that the Tribunal as a proof that the penalty was debatable and involved an arguable issue, had referred to the order of the court passed in the assessee’s appeal in quantum proceedings and had also referred to the substantial questions of law which had been framed therein.

The court perused its order dated September 27, 2010, passed by it for admitting the Income Tax Appeal No. 2368 of 2009 on merits of the case, and held that there was no case made out for imposition of penalty and the same was rightly set aside. It held that where the high court admitted an appeal on the ground that it involved a substantial question of law, in respect of which penalty was levied, impugned order of penalty was to be quashed. It held that the appeal challenging the order of the Tribunal, passed for deleting the penalty levied, raised no substantial question of law and as a consequence dismissed it with no order as to costs.

Observations

An appeal u/s.260A lies to the High Court from an order of the Tribunal only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law. The issue under consideration in such an appeal should not only involve a question of law but should be one which involves a substantial question of law similar to the one required u/s.100 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908. A full bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Santosh Hazari vs. Purshottam, 251 ITR 84, held that to be a substantial, a question of law must be debatable, not previously settled by law of the land or a binding precedent…. that it was not free from difficulty or that it called for a discussion for an alternate view. It further held that the word “substantial” qualifying “question of law” meant having substance, essential, real, of sound worth, important or considerable.

Recently, the Patna High Court in the case of DCIT vs. Sulabh International Social Service Organisation, 350 ITR 189, has held that a substantial question of law must be one which was debatable and not previously settled under the law of the land or a binding precedent.

A question can be a substantial question of law even when it affects the substantial rights of the party or is of general importance or where a finding based on no evidence is given or where a finding is given without appreciating the admissible evidence or where the order passed is perverse or unreasonable. A question can be held to be a substantial question of law on varied counts – it is largely so in the cases where issues are debatable or call for a discussion for alternate view and are not previously settled by law of the land and binding precedent.

In the context of the provisions of Income-tax Act, it is appropriate in most of the cases, to hold that the issue on hand is debatable, open, capable of having an alternate view once the same is held to be representing a substantial question of law by the Jurisdictional high court at the time of admission of appeal. Once it is so found, it is also appropriate to hold, unless otherwise established, that the assessee was under a bona fide belief for staking his claim and was under a reasonable cause for any failure, if any and in the presence of these factors no penalty u/s. 271(1)(c ) r.w.s.273B was leviable.

The Bombay High Court, in Nayan Builder’s case, following the above discussed logic had held that no penalty u/s.271(1)(c) was leviable once an appeal on merits of the case was admitted by the Court by holding that the issue on merits represented a substantial question of law. It does not appear that even the Gujarat High Court in Dharamshi B. Shah’s case has a different view other than when it held that dropping of the penalty should not be an automatic consequence of an admission of appeal on merits of the case. Even in that case, the Court set aside the order of the Tribunal with a direction to it to examine the issue afresh to find out whether there was a bona fide belief or a reasonable cause in the relevant case or not.

In our experience, a court records its satisfaction about the presence of a substantial question of law only where it is satisfied that the essential requisites forming such a question are placed on record. In the circumstances, the Gujarat High Court may be said to side with the view of the Bombay High Court, which view has been taken by the Court while approving the decisions of the Tribunal in the cases of Rupam Mercantile 91 ITD 273 (Ahd.), Ramilaben Ratilal Shah 60 TTJ 171 (Ahd).

Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) – Deduction of tax under Wrong Section

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Issue for Consideration
Section 40(a)(ia) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for disallowance of 30% of any sum payable to a resident on which tax is deductible at source under chapter XVII-B, where such tax has not been deducted or, after deduction, has not been paid on or before the due date specified in section 139(1). Till assessment year 2014-15, the whole of such sum payable was disallowable.

At times, a taxpayer deducts tax at source under a particular section of the Act, while the tax authorities take a view that tax ought to have been deducted under another section of the Act. For example, an assessee while deducting tax on payment deducts tax at 2% u/s. 194C, while the tax authorities take a view that the tax should have been deducted u/s. 194J as in their view the payment represented the payment of fees for the technical services. If the rate at which tax has been actually deducted is lower than the rate at which tax is deductible in the view of the tax authorities, it is usual for them to disallow the claim for deduction on the ground that the tax was not deducted at source leading to a violation of the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. The question which arises for consideration, under the circumstances, is, whether the tax authorities can disallow the whole or part of the expenditure on the ground that tax has not been deducted at source on such expenditure ignoring altogether the fact that the tax was in fact deducted though under a different provision of the Act .

While the Calcutta High Court has taken the view that no disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) could be made in such cases, the Kerala High Court has taken a contrary view and has held that the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) would apply if tax was deducted under a wrong provision of law and the claim for deduction would be disallowed.

S. K. Tekriwal’s case:
The issue first arose for consideration before the Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT vs. S. K. Tekriwal, 361 ITR 432.

In this case, the assessee had deducted tax at source from payments made to a machinery contractor u/s. 194C as payment to a sub-contractor at the rate of 1%. The assessing officer took a view that the payments were in the nature of machinery hire charges, which amounted to rent under the provisions of section 194-I, and that tax therefore ought to have been deducted u/s. 194-I at the rate of 10%. The assessing officer therefore, disallowed proportionate payments (90%) by invoking section 40(a)(ia).

In the appeal, the Tribunal deleted the disallowance. The Tribunal noted that section 40(a)(ia) had 2 limbs – one requiring deduction of tax, and the second requiring payment of the tax into the government account. There was nothing in that section, treating the assessee as a defaulter where there was a shortfall in deduction. According to the Tribunal, it could not be assumed that on account of the shortfall, there was a default in the deduction. If there was any shortfall due to any difference of opinion as to the taxability of any item or the nature of payments falling under various TDS provisions, the assessee could be declared to be an assessee in default u/s. 201, and no disallowance could be made by invoking the provisions of section 40(a)(ia).

The Calcutta High Court, on an appeal by the Revenue, after noting the observations of the Tribunal, held that no substantial question of law was involved in the case before it, and therefore refused to admit the appeal.

PVS Memorial Hospital’s case:
The issue again came up before the Kerala High Court recently in the case of CIT vs. PVS Memorial Hospital Ltd, 60 taxmann.com 69. The 2 years involved in this appeal were assessment years 2005-06 and 2006-07.

In this case, the assessee was a hospital, which had entered into an agreement with another hospital, where that other hospital had undertaken to perform various professional services in the assessee’s hospital. The assessee, on payment to the other hospital for its services, deducted tax at source at 2% u/s. 194C by treating the payments as the payment for carrying out the work in pursuance of the contract.

The assessing officer took the view that the payment was in the nature of fees for technical services and the tax was deductible at 5% u/s. 194J, and therefore disallowed the entire payment u/s. 40(a)(ia) in both the years. For assessment year 2005-06, the Commissioner(Appeals) as well as the Tribunal confirmed the addition and rejected the appeals.

For assessment year 2006-07, the Tribunal allowed the appeal following the Calcutta High Court’s decision in S. K. Tekriwal’s case(supra). According to the Tribunal, the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) could be made only if both the conditions were satisfied, i.e. tax was deductible at source and such tax had not been deducted. The Tribunal took the view that where tax was deducted by the assessee, even if it was under a wrong provision of law, the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) could not be invoked. The Kerala High Court, while examining the issue, noted that in the case before it, tax was deductible u/s. 194J and not u/s. 194C.

The Kerala High Court on examination of the provisions of section 40(a)(ia), expressed the view that the section was not a charging section but was a machinery section, and that such a provision should therefore be understood in such a manner that it was made workable. For this proposition, it relied on the Supreme Court observations in the case of Gurusahai Saigal vs. CIT 48 ITR 1, where the Supreme Court had observed that the provisions in a taxing statute dealing with machinery for assessment have to be construed by the ordinary rules of construction, that was to say, in accordance with the clear intention of the Legislature, which was to make effective a charge that was levied .

According to the Kerala High Court, if section 40(a)(ia) was to be understood in the manner as laid down by the Supreme Court, the expression “tax deductible at source under chapter XVII-B” had to be understood as a tax deductible at source under the appropriate provision of chapter XVII-B. Therefore, if tax was deductible u/s. 194J but was deducted u/s. 194C, according to the Kerala High Court, such a deduction did not satisfy the requirements of section 40(a)(ia). The latter part of the section that ‘such tax had not been deducted’, in the view of the Kerala High Court, again referred to the tax deducted under the appropriate provision of chapter XII-B.

The Kerala High Court held that a cumulative reading of the provision showed that deduction under a wrong provision of law would not save an assessee from the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) expressly dissenting from the Calcutta High Court’s decision in S. K. Tekriwal’s case(supra), and confirmed the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia).

Observations
On a bare reading of the provisions of section 40(a)(ia), it is gathered
that the said provision requires a disallowance in a case where there
is a failure to deduct tax at source,where it was deductible, or after
deduction the same has not been paid on or before the due date specified
u/s. 139(1). It does not, at least expressly, cover a case of a partial
non-deduction on the lines similar to the one provided u/s. 201 which
provides for the consequences of the failure to deduct tax at source.
Section 201 by express language using the specific terms,“ wholly or
partly” seeks to rope in the cases of partial or a complete failure and
makes an assessee liable for the consequences. The legislature by not
including the above terms “ wholly or partly” in section 40(a)(ia) have
sought to cover the cases of the absolute failure to deduct tax and not
the case of the partial failure to deduct. Importantly section 201, as
it originally stood, did not provide for the cases of partial deduction
and hence did not seek to penalise an assessee in a case where there was
a short deduction of tax by him. Section 201 has since been amended to
rope in the cases of even a partial failure to pay the deducted taxes.

Further,
section 201 of the Income-tax Act clearly brings out that a failure in
whole or in part, would result in an assessee being treated as in
default. Similarly, section 271C clearly specifies that the penalty can
be levied for failure to deduct the whole or any part of the tax as
required by chapter XVII-B. Unlike both the sections, section 40(a)(ia)
uses the term “has not been deducted”, without specifying whether it
applies to deduction in whole or in part.

Secondly, even in
cases of acknowledged failure, the Andhra Pradesh High Court, followed
by many high courts, in the case of P. V. Rajagopal vs. Union of India
99 Taxman 475, held, in the context of the provisions of section 201 as
it then stood [the language of which was similar to the language used in
section 40(a)(ia)], that if there was any shortfall due to any
difference of opinion as to the taxability of any item, the employer
could not be declared to be an assessee in default. The Tribunal in the
cases of DCIT vs. Chandabhoy & Jassobhoy 49 SOT 448 (Bom), Apollo
Tyres vs. DCIT 60 SOT 1 (Coch) and Three Star Granites (P) Ltd vs. ACIT
32 ITR (Trib) 398, held that the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) would
be attracted only in the case of total failure to deduct tax at source,
and where tax had partly been deducted at source, it could not be said
that tax had not been deducted at source. In all these cases, the
tribunal noted the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case
of P. V. Rajagopal vs. Union of India(supra) with approval.

The
enormous litigation on the subject of TDS clearly indicate that there
is a lack of clarity on the applicability of the appropriate provision
of chapter XVIIB for deducting tax at source on a particular payment,
which needs to be interpreted and settled by the courts alone. Over a
period of time, certain clarity has emerged on various types of
payments, but there are still various types of payments where the
position is still not so clear, some of which ultimately have to be
resolved by the Supreme Court.

In such a situation, where a tax
deductor has taken a bona fide view in respect of tax deductible from a
particular type of payment, adopting one of the two possible views on
the matter, should he be penalised by disallowance of the expenditure,
besides being asked to pay the tax short deducted, as well as interest
on such short deduction? Can a tax deductor be expected to have the same
legal competence in interpreting a legal provision as a High Court or a
Supreme Court?

In the context of penalty for concealment, the
Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Reliance Petroproducts (P) Ltd. 322
ITR 58 held that where a taxpayer based on a possible view of a matter,
claimed a deduction, a penalty for concealment could not be levied on
him even where his claim for deduction of such payment was disallowed in
assessment of his total income. The Supreme Court held that if the
contention of the revenue was accepted, then in case of every return
where the claim made was not accepted by the Assessing Officer for any
reason, the assessee would invite penalty u/s. 271(1)(c). That was
clearly not the intendment of the Legislature.

The disallowance
u/s. 40(a)(ia) is a form of penalty on a tax deductor for failing to
perform an onerous duty, and therefore where a taxpayer makes a genuine
mistake, taking a possible interpretation of the provision under which
tax should be deducted, he should not be penalised for it.

Undoubtedly,
the intention was to ensure that a deductor on payment did deduct tax
at source from payments on which tax was deductible at source and in
doing so he should tax at the rate applicable under a specific provision
which in his bona fide belief is the provision that is applicable to
such a payment. The intention of the Legislature certainly could not
have been to penalise actions taken under a bona fide belief of a
deductor, particularly when the view taken by him is a possible one.

The
better view therefore seems to be that taken by the Calcutta High
Court, that no disallowance can be made u/s. 40(a)(ia) where tax has
been deducted at source at a lower rate under a particular section,
though the rate of tax under the correct section under which tax is
deductible at source may be higher, particularly in cases where there is
a genuine dispute as to the appropriate section under which tax is
deductible at source. In our opinion, the mistake if any of deducting
under a wrong provisions of law, if based on a bona fide belief, is a
case of trivial mistake and should not even lead to holding the assessee
as in default as has been held by the apex court in the case of
Hindustan Steels Ltd., 83 ITR 26 (SC). The question of disallowance
should not arise at all.

Reassessment beyond Reasons

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Issue for Consideration
Quite often, one comes across orders of reassessment wherein additions are made in respect of items that are not listed in the reasons recorded for reopening at the time of issue of notice u/s. 147, for reopening an assessment.

In many a case, no additions are made for the issues that formed part of the reasons for reopening, while passing an order of reassessment, and instead, additions are made on altogether new issues that are not part of the reasons recorded.

There has been an ongoing conflict concerning the scope of reassessment. Should the scope extend to cover issues not recorded in the reasons and, if yes, should such extension be denied, at least in cases where the reasons for which the reopening was made, have been found to be invalid on final reassessment. An additional issue that arises is whether a fresh notice u/s. 148 is required to be issued for covering the new issue in reassessment.

The issue about including new issues where additions are also made in respect of the recorded reasons is settled in favour of sustenance of addition on account of a new or additional issues. What appears however, to be open is the issue where addition is made on account of an issue that has not been found in the reasons recorded and where no addition is made for the reasons recorded. Conflicting decisions are delivered on the subject by High Courts with some upholding the right of the Assessing Officer, and some dismissing it.

N. Govindaraju’s case
The issue recently came up for consideration of the Karnataka High court in the case of N. Govindaraju vs. ITO, 60 taxmann.com 333 (Karnataka).In that case, the assessee, an individual, had income from house property, transport business, capital gains and other sources, and had filed the return of income, which was processed u/s. 143(1) and accepted. A notice u/s. 148 was issued for reopening the assessment for the purpose of assessing the income from the sale of property u/s. 45(2) and also for denying the benefit of indexation. The reassessment was completed on total income of Rs.29.91 lakh. No addition was made u/s. 45(2), nor was indexation denied to him in reassessment. Additions were however made for reasons other than the one recorded in the notice.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the reassessment and the Tribunal held that the reopening of assessment was justified in law.

On appeal to the High Court, the assessee raised the following questions for consideration of the court; “Whether the Tribunal was correct in upholding reassessment proceedings, when the reason recorded for re-opening of assessment u/s.147 of Act itself does not survive. Whether the Tribunal was correct in upholding levy of tax on a different issue, which was not a subject matter for re-opening the assessment and moreover the reason recorded for the re-opening of the assessment itself does not survive.”

On behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the order u/s. 147 of the Act had to be in consonance with the reasons given for which notice u/s. 148 had been issued, and once it was found that no tax could be levied for the reasons given in the notice for reopening the assessment, independent assessment or reassessment on other issues would not be permissible, even if subsequently, in the course of such proceedings some other income chargeable to tax was found to have escaped assessment; the reason for which notice was given had to survive, and it was only thereafter that ‘any other income’ which was found to have escaped assessment could be assessed or reassessed in such proceedings; the reopening of assessment should first be valid (which could be only when reason for reopening survived) and once the reopening was valid, then u/s. 147 of the Act, the entire case could be reassessed on all grounds or issues; if reopening was valid and reassessment could be made for such reason, then only the AO could proceed further and not doing so, without even the reason for reopening surviving, it could lead to fishing and roving enquiry and would give unfettered powers to the AO.

The Revenue submitted that under the old section 147 (as it stood prior to 1989), grounds or items for which no reasons had been recorded could not be opened, and because of conflicting decisions of the High Courts, the provisions of the said section had now been clarified to include or cover any other income chargeable to tax which might have escaped assessment and for which reasons might not have been recorded before giving the notice; that the said section 147 was in two parts, which had to be read independently, and the phrase “such income”, in the first part, was with regard to which reasons had been recorded and the phrase “any other income” in the second part was with regard to where no reasons were recorded in the notice and had come to notice of the AO during the course of the proceedings. Both being independent, once the satisfaction in the notice was found sufficient, addition could be made on all grounds, i.e., for which reason had been recorded and also for which no reason had been recorded. All that was necessary was that during the course of the proceedings u/s. 147, income chargeable to tax must be found to have escaped assessment. Strong reliance was placed by the Revenue on the insertion of Explanation 3 in support of its contentions.

The court, on hearing the contentions of the parties, held that once the notice for reopening of a previously closed assessment was held to be valid, the assessment proceedings as well as the assessment order already passed would be deemed to have been set aside and the AO would then have the power to pass fresh assessment order with regard to the entire income which escaped assessment and to levy tax thereon. and doing so was his duty .

The court observed that the issue was whether the latter part of the section relating to ‘any other income’ was to be read in conjunction with the first part (relating to ‘such income’) or not; if it was to be read in conjunction, then without there being any addition made with regard to ‘such income’ (for which reason had been given in the notice for reopening the assessment), the second part could not be invoked; however, if it was not to be so read in conjunction, the second part could be invoked independently even without the reason for the first part surviving.

In the opinion of the court, from a plain reading of section 147, it was clear that its latter part provided that ‘any other income’ chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment and which had come to the notice of the AO subsequently in the course of the proceedings, could also be taxed. It further noted that the sole purpose of Chapter XIV of the Act was to bring to tax the entire taxable income of the assessee and, in doing so, where the AO had reason to believe that some income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment, he might assess or reassess such income. In doing so, it would be open to him to also independently assess or reassess any other income which did not form the subject matter of notice.

The court took note of the conflicting decisions of the high courts on the subject, noting that some had held that the second part of section 147 was to be read in conjunction with the first part, and some had held that the second part was to be read independently.

It held that the insertion of Explanation 3 could not be but for the benefit of the revenue, and not the assessee. In that view of the matter, on reading section 147, it was clear that the phrase ‘and also’ joined the first and second parts of the section; the phrase ‘and’ was conjunctive which was to join the first part with the second part, but ‘also’ was for the second part and was disjunctive; it segregated the first part from the second. Upon reading the full section, the phrase ‘and also’ could not be said to be conjunctive. It was thus clear to the court that once satisfaction of reasons for the notice was found sufficient, i.e., if the notice u/s. 148(2) was found to be valid, then addition could be made on all grounds or issues (with regard to ‘any other income’ also) which might come to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of proceedings u/s. 147, even though reason for notice for ‘such income’ which might have escaped assessment, did not survive.

Importantly, the court held that Explanation 3 was inserted to address the ambiguity in the main provision of the enactment that had arisen because of the different interpretation of different High Courts about the issue whether the second part of the section was independent of the first part, or not. To clarify the same, Explanation 3 was inserted, by which it had been clarified that the AO could assess the income in respect of any issue which had escaped assessment and also ‘any other income’ (of the second part of section 147) which came to his notice subsequently during the course of the proceedings under the section. After the insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147, it was clear that the use of the phrase ‘and also’ between the first and the second parts of the section was not conjunctive and assessment of ‘any other income’ (of the second part) can be made independent of the first part (relating to ‘such income’ for which reasons were given in notice u/s. 148), notwithstanding that the reasons for such issue (‘any other income’) had not been given in the reasons recorded u/s. 148(2).

Considering the provision of section 147 as well as its Explanation 3, and also keeping in view that section 147 was for the benefit of the revenue and not the assessee, and was aimed at garnering the escaped income of the assessee, and also keeping in view that it was the constitutional obligation of every assessee to disclose his total income on which it was to pay tax, it was held by the court that the two parts of section 147 (one relating to ‘such income’and the other to ‘any other income’) were to be read independently. In doing so, it observed that the phrase ‘such income’ used in the first part of section 147 was with regard to which reasons had been recorded u/s. 148(2), and the phrase ‘any other income’ used in the second part of the section was with regard to a case where no reasons had been recorded before issuing notice and a reason had come to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of the proceedings, which could be assessed independent of the first part, even when no addition could be made with regard to ‘such income’, once the notice on the basis of which proceedings had commenced, was found to be valid.

The Karnataka High Court took note of the decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. 331 ITR 236( Bom.) Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT, 336 ITR 136(Dl.) and CIT vs. Adhunik Niryat Ispat Ltd.(Del.) and CIT vs. Mohmed Juned Dadani, 355 ITR 172 (Del.). and noted that, with due respect to the view taken in the aforesaid cases, it was unable to persuade itself to follow the same.

The court concurred with the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Majinder Singh Kang vs. CIT, 344 ITR 358 which was delivered after noticing that the earlier judgments in the cases of CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries 180 ITR 319 and CIT vs. Shri Ram Singh 306 ITR 343 were rendered prior to the insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act, wherein it was held that “a plain reading of Explanation 3 to section147 clearly depicts that the Assessing Officer has power to make additions even on the ground that reassessment notice might not have been issued in the case during the reassessment proceedings, if he arrives at a conclusion that some other income has escaped assessment which comes to his notice during the course of proceedings for reassessment u/s.148 of the Act. The provision nowhere postulates or contemplates that it is only when there is some addition on the ground on which reassessment had been initiated, that the Assessing Officer can make additions on any other grounds on which the income has escaped assessment”.

The court further noted that the same view was reiterated by the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Mehak Finvest (P.) Ltd,.367 ITR 769 wherein it was also noticed that the Special Leave Petition filed against the judgment in the case of Majinder Singh (supra ) had been dismissed by the Supreme Court.

Mohmed Juned Dadani’s case
The issue had arisen in the case of CIT-II vs. Mohmed Juned Dadani, 30 taxmann.com 1 (Gujarat). In this case, the assessment was completed allowing assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80HHC. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer initiated reassessment proceedings taking a view that if two export incentives, i.e., DEPB licence income and excise duty refund were excluded from the income of the assessee, there would be a loss from export business and, consequently, assessee would not be entitled to deduction u/s. 80HHC. In the reassessment, the AO made additions of cash credit u/s. 68 and on account of some unverifiable purchases. However, the AO did not disturb the deduction u/s. 80HHC, previously claimed by the assessee.

The assessee carried such order in appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) where he contended that the AO had no jurisdiction to travel beyond the reasons for reopening the assessment, which appeal however, was rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals). The Tribunal, finding that in the reassessment proceedings, no disallowance had been made towards assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80HHC, which was the reason on the basis of which notice for reopening of the assessment was issued, held that the order of reassessment was without jurisdiction and bad in law.

On revenue’s appeal to the Gujarat High Court, the court addressed the following substantial question of law. “Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was right in law in coming to the conclusion that when on the ground on which the reopening of assessment is based, no additions are made by the Assessing Officer in the order of assessment, he cannot make additions on some other grounds which did not form part of the reasons recorded by him.” .

On behalf of the revenue, it was submitted that the Tribunal committed a grave error in interpreting the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act ; the section as amended w.e.f. 01.04.1989, gave ample authority to an AO to assess or reassess any income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment, as long as the requirements of a valid reopening of the assessment were satisfied; once an assessment was reopened, by virtue of valid exercise of powers u/s. 147 of the Act, thereafter, there would be no further limitation on the AO framing assessment on all or any of the grounds mentioned in the reasons recorded or even on the grounds not so mentioned; that the position was clear even before Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act was added with retrospective effect from 01.04.1989; in any case, by virtue of such Explanation being introduced in section 147, the issue had been put beyond any pale of controversy. The decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in case of Majinder Singh Kang vs. CIT 344 ITR 358 was relied upon by the revenue.

On the other hand, the assessee drew attention to the statutory provisions contained in section 147 of the Act, as amended w.e.f. 01.04.1989, and the explanatory memorandum clarifying the background in which Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act was enacted. It was submitted that section 147 of the Act, prior to introduction of Explanation 3, permitted the AO to assess or reassess any income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment and also any other income which had escaped assessment and which came to the notice of the AO subsequently in the course of the proceedings for reassessment; that the words “and also any other income” must be understood as to be referring to such income which had escaped assessment but the ground for which had not been mentioned in the reasons recorded, in addition to income which had escaped assessment and for which mention had been made in the reasons recorded; that Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act did not change the basic proposition, nor it was meant to do so, as would be clear from the explanatory memorandum explaining the reasons for introduction of the said explanation; that power to reopen the assessment which had been previously closed was peculiar in nature and was available to the AO under the Income-tax Act which was not normally available to an officer exercising judicial or quasi judicial powers; such powers, therefore, must be strictly construed, authorising an AO to assess income under any head even if the same was not part of the reasons recorded for reopening of the assessment, would give wide powers which were possible of arbitrary exercise; that for an AO to assess income on any ground not mentioned in the reasons recorded, it was essential that there was a valid reopening of assessment; if the grounds, on which the reopening of the assessment failed, there would thereafter be no longer a valid reopening of an assessment in which the AO could make any additions on some other grounds.

The Gujarat High Court held that the Tribunal was right in law in coming to the conclusion that when on the ground on which the reopening of assessment was based, no additions were made by the AO in the order of assessment, he could not make additions on some other grounds which did not form part of reasons recorded by him. It was not in dispute that once an assessment was reopened by a valid exercise of jurisdiction u/s. 147, it was open for the AO to assess or reassess any income which had escaped assessment which came to his light during the course of his assessment proceedings which was not mentioned in the reason for issuing notice u/s. 148, provided the ground on which the notice was issued for reopening survived.

Significantly, the court supplied an interesting dimension by noting that in a notice for reassessment which had been issued beyond a period of four years from the end of relevant assessment year, the condition that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment for the reason of the failure on the part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts for the purpose of assessment must also be established. If in such a situation, the stand of the revenue was accepted, a very incongruent situation would come about, if ultimately the AO were to drop the ground on which notice for reopening had been issued, but to chase some other grounds not so mentioned for issuance of the notice. In such a situation, even if a case where notice for reopening had been issued beyond a period of four years, the assessment would continue even though on all the grounds on which the additions were being made, there was no failure on the part of the assessee to disclose true and full material facts. In such a situation, an important requirement of failure on part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts would be totally circumvented. Thus, it was apparent that Explanation 3 to section 147 does not change the situation insofar as the present controversy was concerned.

In deciding the case, the High court approved the decision relied upon by the assessee in the case of CIT vs. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. 331 ITR 236 in which the Bombay High Court considering an identical situation, interpreting the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act, held that the situation would not be different by virtue of introduction of Explanation 3 to the said section. The High Court, placing heavy reliance on the explanatory memorandum, held that if upon issuance of a notice u/s. 148 of the Act, the AO did not assess the income which he had reason to believe had escaped assessment and which formed the basis of a notice u/s.148, it was not open to him to assess independently any other income which did not form the subject matter of the notice.

In addition, the Gujarat High Court approved the decisions in the case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT , 336 ITR 136 (Delhi) wherein the court besides approving the ratio of the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Jet Airways, held that sub-section (2) of section 148 mandated reasons for issuance of notice by the AO and s/s. (1) thereof mandated service of notice to the assessee before the AO proceeded to assess, reassess or recompute the escaped income and those conditions were required to be fulfilled to assess or reassess the escaped income chargeable to tax. The Gujarat High court also approved the observations of the Delhi High Court to the effect that the Legislature could not be presumed to have intended to give blanket powers to the AO such that on assuming jurisdiction u/s. 147 regarding assessment or reassessment of the escaped income, he could keep on making roving inquiry, and thereby including different items of income not connected or related with the reasons to believe, on the basis of which he assumed jurisdiction, and also the finding of the Delhi High Court, that for every new issue coming before the AO during the course of proceedings of assessment or reassessment of escaped income, and which he intended to take into account, he would be required to issue a fresh notice u/s. 148. The ratio of the decision in the case of Asstt. CIT vs. Major Deepak Mehta, 344 ITR 641 (Chhattisgarh) was also approved by the court.

The Gujarat High Court, relying on the Memorandum explaining the provisions of Explanation 3, held that it was meant to be clarificatory in nature and to put the issue beyond any legal controversy; when the Legislature found that in face of the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act post 01.04.1989, some of the courts had taken a view that the AO was restricted to the reassessment proceedings only on issues in respect of which the reasons were recorded for reopening the assessment, such explanation was introduced in the statute; thus, the explanation was meant to be merely clarificatory in nature and was introduced with the purpose of putting at rest the legal controversy regarding the true interpretation of section 147 of the Act which had arisen on account of certain judicial pronouncements especially in the cases of CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries, 180 ITR 319 (P&H), Travancore Cements Ltd. vs. Asstt. CIT 305 ITR 170 (Kerala).

The Gujarat High Court did not agree with the decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in case of Majinder Singh Kang (supra) by noting that all other courts had uniformly taken a view that Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act did not change the situation insofar as the present controversy was concerned, and for the reason that the explanatory memorandum to Explanation 3 to section of the Act was not brought to the notice of the High Court in the said case.

Observations

On a bare reading of the main provision, it is gathered that section 147, as is substituted by the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987 w.e.f. 01.04.1989, enables inclusion of any other income that has escaped assessment and which comes to the notice subsequently in the course of proceedings. Accordingly, it should be possible for an AO to also include any new item while making reassessment, though such item was not included in recorded reasons. This main provision was found to be deficient, in the past by the courts, on the following two counts;

The substituted provision while permitting the AO to rope in a new issue in the scope of reassessment, did not override the specific provisions of section148(2), which required an AO to record reasons before issue of a notice u/s. 148 for doing so.

The substituted provision permitted the AO to rope in a new issue in the scope of reassessment only where the original issue on which the reassessment was reopened has been found to be valid.

One of the above referred deficiencies has been expressly cured by insertion of Explanation 3 w.e.f 01.04.1989 by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2009, whereunder the requirement of the new issue being recorded in reasons for reopening as per section 148(2), before a notice is issued, has been dispensed with. As regards the other deficiency concerning the need for survival of the recorded issue, some courts recently have found that the AO is empowered to expand the scope of reassessment either by virtue of Explanation 3 or independent of it, while a few other courts have found that the deficiency continued in spite of Explanation 3.

The issue that has attracted conflicting views therefore is narrowed down to whether the word ‘and also’ used in the main proviso are conjunctive and cumulative or they are disjunctive and detach the latter part of the provision from the earlier part. In the alternative, whether, with insertion of Explanation 3, the AO is authorised to rope in a new issue, even where no addition is made in respect of the issue recorded in reasons for reopening.

The question is that when the reason recorded for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 itself does not survive, can tax be levied for a totally different reason or issue, which was not the subject matter of reopening the assessment. In other words, if reasons for reopening are (a) and (b) and during reassessment proceedings , income is found to have escaped from assessment for some other reason say, (c) and (d), then, if reasons (a) and (b) do not survive, and no addition can be made for such reasons, can additions be made on the basis of reasons or grounds (c) and (d) that did not find place in the reasons recorded. The related questions are whether the main provision permits such an assessment and whether the insertion of the Explanation 3 has made such an assessment possible.

Section 147 of the Act, even without the aid of Explanation 3, enabled the AO while framing an assessment section 147 of the Act, to assess or reassess such income for which he had recorded his reasons to believe had escaped assessment and also any other income which escaped assessment which came to his notice subsequently in the course of the assessment proceedings.

Insertion of Explanation in a section of an Act is for a different purpose than insertion of a ‘Proviso’. Explanation gives a reason or justification and explains the contents of the main section, whereas ‘Proviso’ puts a condition on the contents of the main section or qualifies the same. ‘Proviso’ is generally intended to restrain the enacting clause, whereas Explanation explains or clarifies the main section. ‘Proviso’ limits the scope of the enactment as it puts a condition, whereas Explanation clarifies the enactment as it explains and is useful for settling a matter or controversy. In the instant case, insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147 does not in any manner override the main section and has been added with no other purpose than to explain or clarify the main section so as to also bring in ‘any other income’ (of the second part of section 147) within the ambit of tax, which may have escaped assessment, and comes to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of the proceedings.

Circular 5 of 2010 issued by the CBDT also makes this position clear. There is no conflict between the main section 147 and its Explanation 3. This Explanation has been inserted only to clarify the main section and not to curtail its scope, even though it is for the benefit of the revenue and not the assessee.

Explanation 3 thus does not, in any manner, even purport to expand the powers of the AO u/s. 147 of the Act. In any case, an explanation cannot expand the scope and sweep of the main body of the statutory provision. In case of S. Sundaram Pillai vs. V. R. Pattabiraman AIR 1985 (SC) 582 the Supreme Court observed that, an explanation added to a statutory provision is not a substantive provision, but as the plain meaning of the word itself shows, it is merely meant to explain or clarify certain ambiguities which may have crept in the statutory provision.

An explanation cannot override the scope of the main provision nor can it extend the scope. An explanation can only explain the scope of the main provision by eliminating the ambiguity.

The Rajasthan High Court in Shri Ram Singh 306 ITR 343 and the Punjab & Haryana High Court in CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries, 180 ITR 319 had interpreted the words ‘and also’, used in the main section itself, in a cumulative and conjunctive sense and held that to read these words as being in the alternative, would be to rewrite the language used by the Parliament. The said decision was delivered before insertion of Explanation 3.

Parliament must be regarded as being aware of the interpretation that was placed on the words “and also”. Parliament however has not taken away the basis of that decision while it was open to the Parliament, having regard to the plenitude of its legislative powers, to do so. It could have clearly provided in Explanation 3 that power to deal with a new issue would be irrespective of survival of the old issues for which reasons were recorded. It was not so done, and in view of that, the provisions of section 147 as they stood after the amendment of 1st April, 1989, continue to hold the field.

The fluid state of law on the issue prevailing up to 31.03.1988, was sought to be addressed by insertion of substituted provision w.e.f. 01.04.1989. This insertion was found inadequate by the courts for addressing the issue under consideration and to meet the concerns of the courts, Explanation 3 is claimed to have been inserted witnesses cannot be procured for various other reasons, like death of both attesting witness, out of jurisdiction, physical incapacity, insanity etc. Section 69 should apply and can be extended to such cases. Hence, the word “not found” occurring in section 69 of Evidence Act should receive a wider purposive interpretation than its literal meaning and should take in situation where the presence of the attesting witness cannot be procured. This view gets its support from Venkataramayya vs. Kamisetti Gattayya (AIR 1927 Madras 662) and Ponnuswami Goundan vs. Kalyanasundara Ayyar (AIR 1930 Madras 770).

It is settled that mode of proving a Will does not ordinarily differ from that of proving any other document except as to the special requirement of attestation prescribed by section 63 of Indian Succession Act. Section 69 imposes a twin fold duty on the propounder. It provides that if no such attesting witness can be found, it must be proved that attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting and also that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person. Hence, to rely on a Will propounded in a case covered by section 69 the propounder should prove i) that the attestation is in the handwriting of the attesting witness and ii) that the document was signed by the executant. Both the limbs will have to be cumulatively proved by the propounder. Evidently, the section demands proof of execution in addition to attestation and does not permit execution to be inferred from proof of attestation. However, section 69 presumes that once the handwriting of attesting witness is proved he has witnessed the execution of the document. The twin requirement of proving the signature and handwriting has to be in accordance with section 67 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Order for Levy of Fees u/s. 234E and Intimation u/s. 200A

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Issue for Consideration
A person deducting tax at source is
required, u/s. 200(3), to prepare and furnish a statement in the
prescribed form (Form No.s 24 Q, 26B, 26Q,27A and 27Q) with
DGIT(Systems) or NSDL in accordance with Rule 31A within the prescribed
time. Likewise, section 206 C requires a person responsible for
collection of tax at source to prepare and furnish a statement in Form
27C in accordance with Rule 37C within the prescribed time.

Section
234E of the Income tax Act, with effect from 1st January, 2012, makes
an assessee liable to pay, by way of fee, a sum of Rs. 200 for every day
of default in filing a statement within the time prescribed in section
200(3) or section 206C(3). However, the fee shall not exceed the amount
of tax deductible or collectible. The amount of fee payable is required
to be paid before filing the statements. The constitutionality of that
levy of fees has been upheld by various high courts. A delay in
furnishing the statement is thus made liable to a fee u/s. 234E.

Section
200A inserted by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2009, w.e.f. 01.04.2010,
provides for the processing of a statement of TDS, furnished u/s 200(3),
to enable the processor to ascertain the correctness of TDS and in
doing so carry out permissible adjustments and levy interest for delay
in payment of the deducted tax. The processor is also required to
prepare and generate an intimation of the sum payable or refundable to
the deductor, and send the same to him. These provisions of the
processing and issue of intimation are modified w.e.f. 01.06.2015 to
provide for the computation of the fee payable u/s. 234E while issuing
an intimation. Simultaneously, section 206 CB is inserted by the Finance
Act, 2015 to provide for processing of the statement of TCS and issue
of intimation w.e.f. 01.06.2015, for the first time.

In recent
times, a number of intimations are issued by the processor u/s 200A,
inter alia levying the fee payable u/s. 234E of the Act and demanding
the same vide such intimations. An aspect common to such intimations is
that all of them are issued before 1st June, 2015.

The
intimations issued before 1st June, 2015, levying and demanding fee u/s
234E, are being challenged by the tax deductors on the ground that the
processor had no authority to demand, under an intimation, any fee prior
to 1st June, 2015 – as such authority is available only from 1st June,
2015. In addition, it is also contended that the processor and/or an AO
in any case had no authority to pass any orders for computing and
levying such fee u/s. 234E of the Act in as much as no power is vested
in them for doing so.

The Amritsar bench of the Income Tax
Appellate Tribunal, under the circumstances held that an intimation,
issued u/s. 200A, demanding the fees u/s 234E, was not valid in law
where it was issued on or before 1st June, 2015. The Chennai bench of
the Tribunal, while concurring with the view, held that the AO was
empowered to pass a separate order for levy of such fee outside the
intimation u/s. 200A of the Act.

Sibia Healthcare’s case
The
issue first arose in the case of the Sibia Healthcare Private Limited,
171 TTJ 145(Asr.). The AO in that case, had processed the statement of
TDS filed for the third quarter of the financial year 2012-13 by the
assessee and had in the process thereof levied the fees u/s. 234 E for
the default of delay in filing the statement. The assessee in the appeal
before the tribunal had called into question the correctness of the
order of the CIT(A) upholding levy of fees, u/s 234 E of the Income-tax
Act, 1961 and challenged such levy by way of intimation dated 11th
January 2014 issued u/s. 200A.

The Tribunal noted that it was a
case in which there was admittedly a delay in filing of the TDS returns,
and the AO(TDS), in the course of the processing of the TDS return, had
raised a demand under an intimation issued u/s. 200A of the Act, for
levy of fees u/s. 234 E for delayed filing of TDS statement. Aggrieved
by the levy of fees, the assessee carried the matter in appeal before
the CIT(A), but without any success. The assessee, not being satisfied,
filed a further appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal, on the above
facts, concerned itself with the question as to whether or not, for the
period prior to 1st June 2015, fees u/s. 234 E of the Act in respect of
defaults in furnishing TDS statements, could be levied in issuing
intimation u/s. 200A of the Act.

The Tribunal noted that there
was no enabling provision for raising a demand in respect of levy of
fees u/s. 234E prior to 1st June, 2015 . It noted that at the relevant
point of time, section 200A permitted computation of amount recoverable
from, or payable to, the tax deductor after making the adjustments on
account of “arithmetical errors” and “incorrect claims apparent from any
information in the statement ” and for “interest, if any, computed on
the basis of sums deductible as computed in the statement”. No other
adjustments in the amount refundable to, or recoverable from, the tax
deductor, were permissible in accordance with the law as it existed at
that point of time.

In the considered view of the Tribunal; the
adjustment in respect of levy of fees u/s. 234E was beyond the scope of
‘permissible adjustments’ contemplated u/s. 200A; as an intimation was
an ‘appealable order’ u/s. 246A(a), the CIT(A) ought to have examined
legality of the adjustment made under the said intimation in the light
of the scope of section 200A which the CIT(A) had not done and instead
he had justified the levy of fees on the basis of the provisions of
section 234E. The answer to the question whether such a levy could be
effected in the course of intimation u/s. 200A. was clearly in the
negative.

Importantly, the Tribunal noted that no other
provision enabling a demand in respect of the levy had been pointed out
to the Tribunal, and it was thus an admitted position that in the
absence of the enabling provision u/s. 200A, no such levy could be
effected. The Tribunal also held that the said intimation was issued
beyond the time permissible in law by noting that a demand u/s. 200A, in
the facts of the case, was to be issued latest by 31st March 2015 and
the defect of delay in issuing the intimation thus was not curable.
Bearing in mind the entirety of the case, the impugned levy of fees u/s.
234 E was found by the tribunal to be unsustainable in law. The
Tribunal therefore, upholding the grievance of the assessee, deleted the
levy of fee u/s. 234E of the Act.

G. Indhirani & Other cases
The
issue again came up before the Chennai bench of the Income tax
Appellate Tribunal in the case of G. Indhirani in ITA No. 1020
&1021/Mds./2015 and other cases. The appeals of the different
assessees directed against the respective orders of the CIT(A), Salem
were heard together and disposed of by a common order as the issue
involved was common. The only issue for consideration of the Tribunal
was with regard to the levy of fee u/s 234E of the Income-tax Act, while
processing the statement furnished by the assessees, u/s. 200A of the
Act.

On behalf of the assessees, it was submitted that the statement filed by the assessee has to be processed only in the manner in which it was laid down u/s. 200A of the Act; levy of fee u/s. 234E of the Act could not be a subject matter of processing the statement u/s. 200A of the Act; such an adjustment was permissible only vide an amendment made in section 200A by the Finance Act, 2015, with effect from 01.06.2015, whereby the parliament empowered the AO to levy fee u/s. 234E of the Act while processing a statement u/s. 200A of the Act; prior to 01.06.2015, the AO had no authority to levy fee, if any, u/s. 234E of the Act; the Amritsar Bench of the Tribunal in I.T.A. No. 90/Asr/2015 vide order dated 09.06.2015, held that prior to 01.06.2015, there was no enabling provision in section 200A for raising a demand in respect of levy of fee u/s. 234E of the Act. It was further contended that the fee levied u/s. 234E of the Act, while processing the statement filed u/s. 200A of the Act was not justified in as much as such a levy of fee, while processing the statement, was beyond the scope of section 200A of the Act.

Attention was invited to section 234E of the Act to highlight that when an assessee failed to deliver the statement within the prescribed time, he was liable to pay by way of fee a sum of Rs. 200/- for every day during the period of the failure. Referring to the words used in the section 234E “he shall be liable to pay”, it was pointed out that the assessee was liable to pay fee and the section did not empower the AO to levy the fee which was clear by reading of section 234E(3) of the Act that provided for payment of the fee before delivery of statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act. It was thus clear that the fee had to be paid by the assessee voluntarily before filing the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act and the AO had no power to levy the fee before the amendment.

On the contrary,on behalf of the Income tax Department, it was submitted that section 234E of the Act provided for payment of fee in cases where the assessee failed to deliver the statement as prescribed in section 200(3) of the Act and therefore, the AO had every authority to levy fee either by a separate order or while processing the statement u/s. 200A of the Act.

On consideration of the rival submissions on either side and perusal of the relevant material on record, the Tribunal noted that section 200A of the Act provided for processing of the statement of tax deducted at source by making adjustment as provided therein; the AO could not make any adjustment other than the one prescribed in section 200A of the Act; it was obvious that prior to 01.06.2015, there was no enabling provision in section 200A of the Act for making adjustment in respect of the statement filed by the assessee with regard to tax deducted at source by levying fee u/s. 234E of the Act; the parliament for the first time enabled the AO to make adjustment by levying fee u/s. 234E of the Act with effect from 01.06.2015.

The Tribunal accordingly held that while processing the statement u/s. 200A of the Act, the AO could not make any adjustment by levying fee u/s. 234E prior to 01.06.2015 in the following words; “In the case before us, the Assessing Officer levied fee u/s. 234E of the Act while processing the statement of tax deducted at source u/s. 200A of the Act. Therefore, this Tribunal is of the considered opinion that the fee levied by the Assessing Officer u/s. 234E of the Act while processing the statement of tax deducted at source is beyond the scope of adjustment provided u/s. 200A of the Act. Therefore, such adjustment cannot stand in the eye of law.”

The assessee next contended that the AO had no authority to levy the fee u/s. 234E in view of the language of the said section 234E which provided that ‘the assessee’ “shall be liable to pay” ‘by way of fee’. The language in the assessee’s opinion clearly conveyed that the assessee had to voluntarily pay the fee and the AO had no authority to levy fee. This argument was found to be very attractive and fanciful by the Tribunal, but was also found to be devoid of any substance.

The Tribunal held that;

  •    the assessee shall pay the fee as provided u/s. 234E(1) of the Act before delivery of the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act when section 234E clearly stated that the assessee was liable to pay fee for the delay in delivery of the statement with regard to tax deducted at source,

  •     if the assessee failed to pay the fee for the periods of delay, then the assessing authority had all the powers to levy fee while processing the statement u/s. 200A of the Act by making adjustment after 01.06.2015,
  •    prior to 01.06.2015, the AO had every authority to pass an order separately levying fee u/s. 234E of the Act,

  •    what was not permissible was levy of fee u/s. 234E of the Act while processing the statement of tax deducted at source and making adjustment before 01.06.2015, it did not mean that the AO could not pass a separate order u/s. 234E of the Act levying fee for the delay in filing the statement as required u/s. 200(3) of the Act.

The Tribunal proceeded to examine the contention of the assessee that the AO had no power to levy fee u/s. 234E in the light of the provisions of Indian Penal Code and in particular section 396 of the Code that provided for punishment for dacoity with murder as also for the liability to fine. It also examined section 408 of the said Code which provided for payment of fine in addition to the punishment in cases of criminal breach of trust by a clerk or servant. Similarly, the other provisions of the Code that provided for fine were referred to by the Tribunal to observe as follows; “The language used by the Parliament in Indian Penal Code is “shall also be liable to fine”. This means that the Magistrate or Sessions Judge, who tries the accused for an offence punishable under the provisions of Indian Penal Code, in addition to punishment of imprisonment, shall also levy fine. If the contention of the Ld. counsel for the assessees is accepted, then the Magistrate or Sessions Judge, as the case may be, who is trying the accused for the offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, may not have authority to levy fine. .. It is well known principle that the fine prescribed under the Indian Penal Code has to be levied by the concerned Magistrate or Sessions Judge who is trying the offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code. Therefore, the contention of the Ld. counsel that merely because the Parliament has used the language “he shall be liable to pay by way of fee”, the assessee has to pay the fee voluntarily and the Assessing Officer has no authority to levy fee could not be accepted. No one would come forward to pay the fee voluntarily unless there is a compulsion under the statutory provision. The Parliament welcomes the citizens to come forward and comply with the provisions of the Act by paying the prescribed fee before filing the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act. However, if the assessee fails to pay the fee before filing the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act, the assessing authority is well within his limit in passing a separate order levying such a fee in addition to processing the statement u/s. 200A of the Act. In other words, before 01.06.2015, the assessing authority could pass a separate order u/s. 234E levying fee for delay in filing the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act. However, after 01.06.2015, the assessing authority is well within his limit to levy fee u/s. 234E of the Act even while processing the statement u/s. 200A and making adjustment.”

The Tribunal, in the facts of the case however, was of the considered opinion that the AO had exceeded his jurisdiction in levying fee u/s. 234E while processing the statement and making adjustment u/s. 200A of the Act and therefore, the impugned intimation of the lower authorities levying fee u/s. 234E of the Act could not be sustained in law. At the same time while holding so in the assessee’s favour, it was made clear by the Tribunal that it was open to the AO to pass a separate order u/s. 234E of the Act for levying fee provided the limitation for such a levy had not expired.

Observations

The constitutional validity of section 234E of the Act has been examined by the Bombay High Court in the case of and Rashmikant Kundalia (Bom.), 373 ITR 248 and is upheld by the court. However, in a series of the decisions of the court in the cases of Narath Mapila LP School, [WP (C)    31498/2013(J)](Ker.), Adithya Bizor P. Solutions(Karn.) [WP No. 6918-6938/2014(T-IT), Om Prakash Dhoot (Raj.) [WP No. 1981 of 2014], a stay has been granted on the recovery of the demands raised in respect of fees u/s. 234E.

The power of the AO, while processing the statement of TDS u/s. 200A, to levy fee u/s. 234E and demand the same vide an intimation issued on 1st June, 2015 or thereafter is not in dispute. Also not in dispute is the fact that such fee cannot be demanded under an intimation that is issued before that date. The amendment of section 200A by the Finance Act, 2015 has made up for the deficiency, if any, by enabling the levy of the fee while processing the statement of TDS and demanding the payment of such levy under an intimation. The dispute appears to be about the power of the AO to levy a fee u/s. 234E outside the intimation u/s. 200A of the Act. Can an income-tax authority levy and demand the fee prescribed u/s. 234E on the basis of provisions of section 234E alone? Can it pass an order outside the provisions of section 200A for demanding the levy of fee? Is it prevented from demanding such fee in view of specific language of section 234E that require an assessee to pay the fee and pay the same before filing the statement u/s. 200(3) of the Act? These are the questions that require Section 234E of the Act, was inserted by the Finance Act 2012 brought into effect from 1st July 2012 reads as under:

234E. Fee for defaults in furnishing Statements

(1)    Without prejudice to the provisions of the Act, where a person fails to deliver or cause to be delivered a statement within the time prescribed in sub-section (3) of section 200 or the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 206C, he shall be liable to pay, by way of fee, a sum of two hundred rupees for every day during which the failure continues.

(2)    The amount of fee referred to in s/s. (1) shall not exceed the amount of tax deductible or collectible, as the case may be.

(3)    The amount of fee referred to in s/s. (1) shall be paid before delivering or causing to be delivered a    statement    in    accordance    with    sub-section    (3) of section 200 or the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 206C.

(4)    The provisions of this section shall apply to a statement referred to in sub-section (3) of section 200 or the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 206C which is to be delivered or caused to be delivered for tax deducted at source or tax collected at source, as the case may be, on or after the 1st day of July, 2012

On a bare reading of the provisions of section 234E, one gathers that the liability to pay the fee is that of the assessee who had defaulted in filing the statement of TDS within the time prescribed u/s. 200(3). It is also clear that the fee is to be paid before the filing of the statement of TDS u/s. 200 by the assessee. It is further clear from a bare reading of the amended provisions of section 200A, in particular clauses (c) and (d), that with effect from 1st June 2015, the fee, if any, shall be computed in accordance with the provisions of section 234E while processing the statement of TDS and the sum payable by, or the amount of refund due to, the deductor shall be determined after adjustment of the amount computed under clause (b) and clause (c) against any amount paid u/s. 200 or section 201 or section 234E and any amount paid otherwise by way of tax or interest or fee and an intimation shall be prepared or generated and sent to the deductor specifying the sum determined to be payable by, or the amount of refund due to, him under clause (d) and the amount of refund due to the deductor in pursuance of the determination under clause (d) shall be granted to the deductor.

It is true that there was no express or specific provisions on or before 1st June, 2015 that empowered an authority to levy such fee and demand the payment of the same. However, such an interpretation would mean that the provisions of section 234E, though introduced w.e.f 1st July, 2012 has no teeth and are redundant till 31st May, 2015. Such an interpretation shall also render many provisions of the Act redundant where they provide for a levy or payment for an offence specified in the respective provision without express provision for levy and demand thereof. It also would mean that for each provision for any tax, interest, fee, levy, fine there should be an express and corresponding provision authorising an income-tax authority to effectively levy the same and demand the same from the assessee failing which the charge would remain ineffective.

The Chennai bench of the Tribunal in G. Indrihani’s case is right in holding that the AO or the authority is empowered to pass an appropriate order for levy of the fees u/s 234E and to demand the same under such an order. The effect of the amendment in section 200A is limited to authorising the AO or any other authority to levy the fee or ascertain the correctness of the fee paid while processing the statement of TDS and demand the same vide an intimation, a power which was not hitherto available till 31st May, 2015. An independent power to pass an order had always been vested in the AO or other authority once a liability to fee for the default was imposed under the Act.

PAN AND NON RESIDENT – Section 206AA

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Issue for Consideration
A person
entitled to receive any sum or income or amount, on which the is
deductible under chapter XVIIB, is required to furnish his Permanent
Account Number(PAN) to the payer as per section 206AA of the Income tax
Act, w.e.f. 01.04.2010. Failure to furnish PAN requires the payer to
deduct tax at the higher of the following rates;

(i) rate specified in the Act,
(ii) rate in force, or
(iii) rate of 20%.

Section 206AA also provides that a person cannot furnish a valid declaration u/s 197A without furnishing his PAN.

Section
195 requires a payer to deduct tax at source, at the rates in force, on
payments to a non-resident or a foreign company of any interest or any
other sum chargeable to tax under the Act. Section 2(37A) defines ‘rate
or rates in force’. One of the clauses of this section provides that for
the purposes of deduction of tax u/s. 195, the rate at which tax to be
deducted is the rate of income tax specified by the Finance Act of the
relevant year or the rate or rates specified in the relevant DTAA.
Section 2 of the Finance (No.2) Act, 2014, vide various sub-sections,
provides for payment of surcharge, education cess and secondary and
higher education cess on taxes, including on tax deduction at source, on
payments to a non-resident or a foreign company.

Issues have arisen, in the context of abovementioned provisions, which are listed as under;

are provisions of section 206AA applicable to cases of payees who are non resident or foreign companies,

are they applicable in cases where the tax is payable as per the provisions of DTAA ,

is
there a liability to deduct and pay surcharge and education cess in
cases where tax is deducted at 20% as per section 206AA, on payments to
non-resident or foreign company, and

what shall be the amount of tax that is to be grossed up for the payment of section 195A in cases where tax is paid by payer.

Bosch Ltd .’s case.
The
issue first came up for consideration of the Bangalore tribunal in the
case of Bosch Ltd., 28 taxmann.com 228 (Bangalore – Trib.) for
Assessment Year 2011-12. In that case, the assessee, a manufacturing
company with both imported and indigenous plant and machinery, entrusted
Annual Maintenance Contracts as well as repairs contracts to foreign
suppliers of machinery and equipments. The suppliers were residents of
Germany. The assessee made payments towards the AMCs and RCs without
deduction of tax at source on the understanding that the payments
represented business receipts of non-resident companies, who did not
have any PE in India, and as such, the payments were not chargeable to
tax in India. The AO as well as the Commissioner (Appeals) held that the
payments made by the assessee to the non-residents towards AMC and RC
were not their business profits, but were ‘fees for technical services’,
and the assessee was liable to withhold tax at the rate of 20 %. They
further held that since non-resident recipients did not furnish their
PANs to assessee-deductor, tax was required to be deducted at source at
higher rate u/s. 206AA.

In the appeal to the Tribunal, as
regards the applicability of the rate of 20% u/s. 206AA, the assessee
submitted that, the non-residents are not required to apply and obtain a
PAN u/s. 139A as per section 139A(8)(d) r.w.rule 114c(b); the reliance
of the CIT(A) on the press note dated 20.01.2010 was misplaced, as a
press note could not override the provisions of law; the provisions of
section 206AA were applicable only where the recipients were required
under the law to obtain the PAN and not otherwise. In support of the
contention, reliance was placed upon the judgment of the Karnataka High
Court in the case of Smt. A. Kowsalya Bai, 346 ITR 156.

On the
other hand, the Income tax Department supported the orders of the CIT(A)
and submitted that as per the form 15CB furnished by the assessee, the
payments for repairs had been treated as ‘FTS’ and the rate of tax was
mentioned as 20%; that the certificate issued by the assessee’s own
auditors was binding on the assessee and the assessee had rightly
deducted tax @ 20%, though out of caution, as provided u/s. 206AA of the
Act; that the CBDT in its press note dated 20.01.2010 had clearly
stated that the procedure of obtaining PAN was easy and inexpensive and
that even non-residents were required to obtain the same; s. 206AA had
overriding effect over all other provisions of the Act and, therefore,
whenever there was taxable income, the non-residents were required to
furnish their PANs to the deductor, failing which the rate specified u/s
206AA had to be applied; the decision of the Karnataka High Court, in
the case of Smt. A. Kowsalya Bai (supra), relied upon by the assessee,
was distinguishable on facts in as much as in that case, the assessees’
therein, whose income was below the taxable limit were residents, while
in the case before the tribunal, the recipients of the remittances were
non-residents having income above the taxable limit; and the income
being taxable in India as FTS, the recipients were required to obtain
PAN, failing which the rate u/s 206AA was applicable.

In
rejoinder, the assessee submitted that the Form 15CB prepared by the C.A
of the assessee company only reflected the opinion or a view of the C.A
and could not be considered as the admission of the assesse, and the
assessee had the right to deny its liability to deduct tax at source and
the issue had to be decided in accordance with law, and not on the
basis of the opinion of the C.A of the assessee.

The tribunal
first dealt with the issue of Form No.15CB and its binding nature on the
assessee. It held that the argument of the Department that the assessee
by furnishing Form No.15CB had admitted that the payment was ‘fees for
technical services’ could not be accepted, because Form No.15CB was a
certificate issued by an accountant (other than an employee) and,
therefore, it was the opinion or view of the accountant and could not be
said to be binding on the assessee; every transaction between the
assessee and the non-residents had to be considered in its own right,
and its nature was to be decided in accordance with the intention of the
parties and in accordance with law; even where it was to be considered
as an admission by the assessee, the same could not be accepted to be
the gospel truth and had to be verified by the AO; and the assessee had
every right to challenge the opinion given by its own C.A and it was for
the Revenue authorities to decide the issue in accordance with law and,
therefore, Form No.15CB alone would not determine the nature of the
transaction.

On applicability of section 206AA the tribunal
observed that the provisions of section 206AA clearly override the other
provisions of the Act and therefore, a nonresident whose income was
chargeable to tax in India had to obtain PAN and provide the same to the
assessee deductor; the only exemption given was that non-resident whose
income was not chargeable to tax, in India was not required to apply
for and obtain a PAN; however, where the income was chargeable to tax
irrespective of the residential status of the recipients, every assessee
was required to obtain a PAN and this provision was brought to ensure
that there was no evasion of tax by foreign entities.

The assessee’s contention that the assesse, being a non resident, was not required to apply for and obtain a Pan by virtue of rule 114(C)(b) of income-tax rules read with section 139a(8)(d) of the income-tax act was negatived by the tribunal as, in its view, the provisions of section 206aa clearly override the other provisions of the act. therefore, a non-recipient whose income was chargeable to tax in india had to obtain a Pan and provide the same to the assessee deductor. the assessee’s reliance upon the decision of the Karnataka high Court in the case of Smt. A. Kowsalya Bai (supra), was found to be misplaced and distinguishable on facts from the facts of the case as, in the case of Smt. A. Kowsalya Bai (supra), the recipients of the interest were residents of india and their total income was less than the taxable limit prescribed by  the  relevant  finance  act.  it  was  in  such  facts  and circumstances that the high Court had held that where the recipients of the ‘interest income’ were not having income exceeding taxable limits, it was not required to obtain a Pan. it held that in the instant case, the recipients were non-residents and admittedly the income exceeded the taxable  limit  prescribed  by  the  relevant  finance act.  In the circumstances, the recipients were bound and were under an obligation to obtain a Pan and furnish the same to the assessee; for failure to do so, the assessee was liable to withhold tax at the higher of rates prescribed u/s. 206aa i.e. 20 % and the Commissioner (appeals) had rightly held that the provision of section 206aa were applicable to the assessee.

   Serum Institute of India LTD.’s case
The issue again came up for consideration of the Pune tribunal in the case of Serum institute of india Ltd., ita no.s 1601 to 1604/Pn/2014. in that case, the assessee, a company incorporated under the Companies act, 1956 was engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of vaccines, and was a major exporter of the vaccines. in the course of its business activities, the assessee made payments to non-residents on account of interest, royalty and fees for technical services during the financial year 2010-11, relevant to the assessment year under  consideration.  These  payments  were  subjected to withholding tax u/s 195 of the act and the assessee deducted tax at source on such payment in accordance with   the   tax   rates   provided   in   the   double  taxation avoidance agreements (dtaas) with the respective countries.  The  tax  rate  so  provided  in  the  dtaas  was lower than the rate prescribed under the act and therefore, in terms of the provisions of section 90(2) of the act, the tax was deducted at source by applying the beneficial rates prescribed under the relevant dtaas.

The ao found that in cases of some of the non-residents, the recipients did not have Permanent account numbers (PANs). As a consequence of such finding, he treated such payments, as cases of ‘short deduction’ of tax in terms of the provisions of section 206aa of the act. as    a consequence, demands were raised on the assessee for the short deduction of tax and also for interest u/s. 201(1a)  of  the  act.  The  aforesaid  dispute  was  carried by the assessee in appeal before the Commissioner (appeals), who allowed the appeals of the assessee.

Aggrieved by the orders of the Commissioner (appeals), the revenue raised common Grounds of appeal as under :-

“1) The CIT(A) erred in law in concluding that sec 206AA is not applicable in case of non-residents as the DTAA overrides the Act as per section 90(2).

2)    The decision of the CIT(A) is not according to the law and erred in ignoring the memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance (No.2) Bill, 2009 which clearly states that the sec. 206AA applies to non-residents and also Press Release of CBDT No.402/92/2006-MC (04 of 2010) dated 20.01.2010 which reiterates  that  sec.  206AA  will also apply to all non-residents in respect of payments/remittances liable to TDS.

3)    The CIT(A) erred in ignoring the decision of  the ITAT Bangalore in the case of Bosch Ltd. vs ITO, ITA No.552 to 558 (Bang.) of 2011 dated 11.10.2012, in which it was held that if the recipient has not furnished the PAN to the deductor, the deductor is liable to withhold tax at the higher rates prescribed u/s. 206AA.”

The assessee   contested the claims of the department and reiterated the contentions raised before the Commissioner(appeals) by submitting that the provisions of section 206aa were not applicable to payments made to non-residents; that the provisions of section139a(8) of the act r.w. rule 114C(1) of the income tax rules, 1962 prescribed that non-residents were not required to apply for Pan; that section 206aa of the act  prescribed  that the recipient should furnish Pan and such furnishing would be possible only where the recipient was required to obtain Pan under the relevant provisions; that where the non-residents were not obliged to obtain a Pan, the requirement of furnishing the same in terms of section 206aa of the act did not arise; that the tax rate applicable in terms of section 206aa of the act could not prevail over the tax rate prescribed in the relevant dtaas, as the rates prescribed in the DTAAs were beneficial.

The assessee relied on the provisions of section 90(2) of the act, which prescribed that provisions of the act were applicable to the extent that they were more beneficial to the assessee, and since section 206aa of the act prescribed higher rate of withholding tax, it would not be beneficial to the assessee vis-à-vis the rates prescribed in the dtaas.

On consideration of the rival submissions, the tribunal observed and held as under;

  •     There cannot be any doubt in view of section 90(2), that the tax liability in india of a non-resident was to be determined in accordance with the more beneficial provisions of the act or the dtaa,

  •     The CIT(a), relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of azadi Bachao andolan and others, (2003) 263 itr 706 (SC), had correctly held that the provisions of the DTAAs would prevail over the general provisions contained in the act to the extent they were beneficial to the assessee,

  •     The dtaas entered into between india and the other relevant countries in the present context, provided for scope of taxation and/or a rate of taxation which was different from the scope/rate prescribed under the act, and for the said reason, the assessee deducted the tax at source having regard to the provisions of the respective DTAAs which provided for a beneficial rate of taxation,

  •     Even the charging section 4 as well as section 5 of the act, which dealt with the principle of ascertainment of total income under the act, were subordinated to the principle enshrined in section 90(2) as was held by the Supreme Court in the case of azadi Bachao andolan and others (supra), and

  •     In so far as the applicability of the scope/rate of taxation with respect to the impugned payments made to the non-residents was concerned, no fault could be found with the rate of taxation invoked by the assessee based on the DTAAs, which prescribed for a beneficial rate of taxation.

  •     In our considered opinion, it would be quite incorrect to say that though the charging section 4 of the act and section 5 of the act dealing with ascertainment of total income are subordinate to the principle enshrined in section 90(2) of the act but the provisions of Chapter XVii-B governing tax deduction at source were not subordinate to section 90(2) of the act.

  •    Notably, section 206aa of the act was not a charging section but was a part of procedural provisions dealing with  collection  and  deduction  of  tax  at  source.  The provisions of section 195 of the act, which cast a duty on the assessee to deduct tax at source on payments to a non-resident, could not be looked upon as a charging provision. in-fact, in the context of section 195 of the act also, the hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of eli Lily & Co., 312 itr 225 (SC) observed that the provisions of tax withholding i.e. section 195 of the act would apply only to sums which were otherwise chargeable to tax under the act. the  Supreme Court in the case of Ge india technology Centre Pvt. Ltd., 327 itr 456 (SC) held that the provisions of dtaas along with the sections 4, 5, 9, 90 & 91 of the act were relevant while applying the provisions of tax deduction at source, and

In view of the schematic interpretation of the act, section 206AA of the act could not be understood to override the charging sections 4 and 5 of the act.

The provisions of section 90(2) of the act had the effect of overriding domestic law, including the charging sections 4 and 5 of the act, and in turn, section 206aa of the act.

The Pune tribunal accordingly held that   where the tax had been deducted on the strength of the beneficial provisions of dtaas, the provisions of section 206AA of the act could not be invoked by the ao to insist on the tax deduction @ 20%, having regard to the overriding nature of the provisions of section 90(2) of the act. The Tribunal affirmed the ultimate conclusion of the CIT(A) in deleting the tax demand relatable to difference between 20% and the actual tax rate on which tax was deducted by the assessee in terms of the relevant dtaas.

Observations
Section 90(2) provides for application of the provisions of the DTAA over the provisions of the income-tax act. The rate of tax provided for in dtaa apply in preference to the rate provided in the Act where beneficial. The internationally acclaimed position that the provisions of dtaa override the provisions of the domestic law is now also enshrined in the income tax act vide section 90(2) of the act. Please see azadi Bachao aandolan, 263 ITR 706, wherein the Supreme court clearly confirms that the provisions of section 90(2) override the provisions of the act as also the provisions of sections 4 and 5 thereof.

Section 206 aa provides for the rate at which tax is to be deducted at source in cases where the payee does not furnish his Pan. the provisions of section 206aa contain non-obstante clause that override the application of other provisions of the act. Section 90(2) also overrides the provisions of the act including the provisions of sections 4 and 5 of the act, in the manner noted above. in the circumstances, the issue that requires to be considered is which provision shall prevail over the other. apparently, both are special provisions and override the general provisions.

The  operation  of  section  206aa  however  is  limited  to the provisions of chapter XVii-B of the act while the application of the dtaa r.w.s.90(2) is sweeping and travels to cover even the charging provisions. A combined reading of these provisions reveal that in deciding the tax that is ultimately payable by the payee, the tax that is determined by applying the dtaa rates, will alone be relevant and the amount of TDS if found higher will be  refunded.  There  does  not  prevail  any  doubt  on  this position in law. There is therefore an agreement that the ultimate charge is based on the rate provided by section 90(2) read with the provisions of the DTAA and not by section 206 AA.

Section 195 read with the rules and the prescribed forms, clearly permit a deductor to deduct tax at such rate that has been provided under the DTAA. On a combined reading of these provisions, it is clear that the tax is to be deducted at the rate provided in DTAA in as much it is the rate at which the income of a non-resident will be ultimately taxable. There is also no disagreement that no tax is deductible where income is otherwise not taxable even where Pan is not furnished.

The two overriding provisions of the act operate in different fields. One for determining the rate at which the tax is deductible, and the other for determining the rate at which the income will ultimately be taxed. the usual approach in situations, where such conflicting special provisions exist, is to apply both of them to the extent possible. Accordingly, one view of resolving the issue on hand is to deduct tax at 20% while making payment to a non-resident who does not furnish Pan, and eventually tax his income at the rate prescribed under the dtaa and grant refund to him. The other view is to shorten this exercise by deducting only such tax as is ultimately payable by a non-resident which, in the absence of section 206AA, is otherwise the correct approach and meets the due compliance of sections 195, 4, 5, 90 and the provisions of the DTAA; an approach which has the benefit of avoiding the round tripping for refund.  The second view is otherwise also supported by acceptance of the position in law by both the parties that provisions of section 206aa are not applicable where no tax is otherwise required to be deducted at source, on the ground that the income of the non-resident is not liable to tax at all.

It is also worthwhile to note that section 206aa is not a charging section and perhaps is also not a provision that creates an obligation to deduct tax at source. A primary obligation to deduct tax at source is under different provisions of chapter XViiB and is not  u/s.  206AA,  which section has a limited scope of redefining the rate at which tax, otherwise deductible, is to be deducted. In the absence of a preliminary obligation to deduct tax at source, provision of section 206aa fails.

An important consideration that has to be kept in mind is that there is no leakage of revenue in adopting the second view. The  tax  that  is  deducted  as  per  the  provisions  of section 195 r.w.s 2(37a) and section 90 and the provisions of the dtaa, is the only tax that is otherwise payable on the income of the non-resident. The tax is deducted in full not leaving claim for payment of balance tax. as against that, not applying the provisions of section 206aa in cases of residents, may result into leakage of some
 
Revenue where the payee without PAN, chooses not to file a return of income.

We are of the considered view that in the following cases, the provisions of section 206aa should not be applied;

•    where the income of the non-resident is not taxable under the income-tax act either on account of the provisions of the income-tax act or on account of the provisions of the dtaa,
•    where the income of the non-resident is taxable at the fixed rate as specified in the Income-tax Act or in the dtaa and the tax deductible u/s. 195 matches such rate.

Logically, in most of the cases of payment to non- residents, the provisions of section 206aa should have no application for the simple reason that the tax that is required to be deducted by the payer u/s. 195, is the same that has to be paid on his total income. nothing less, nothing more, and nothing is gained by asking for  a higher deduction for non-furnishing of the Pan and thereafter refunding the higher tax so deducted.

It is for this reason, perhaps, that the provisions of section 139A(8)  of  the act  r.w.  rule  114C(1)  of  the  income tax rules,   1962   prescribed   that   non-residents   were   not required to apply for Pan.

Having said that, we need to take notice of sub- section(7) of section 206aa which grants exemption, from application of the provisions of section 206aa, in respect of payment of interest on long-term bonds referred to in section  194LC  to  a  non-resident.  This  means  that  the tax is such a case is to be deducted at the specified rate of 5%, even where the non-resident does not furnish Pan. This provision in our opinion should be considered to have been inserted out of abundant precaution, and should not be construed to mean that in all other cases of payments to non-residents, provisions of section 206aa should apply.

There does not seem to be any apparent need for reading down the provisions of section 206AA, in our considered view, to exclude its applicability to the cases of non- residents, in as much as it is possible to exclude such application on the basis of the reasonable interpretation of the two special provisions of the act. However, it may be read down if it is so required in the interest of the administration of law.

The  view  expressed  here  can  be  further  tested  by answering the question as to what shall be the ao’s prescription of the rate at which tax is to be deducted,  on a payment to a non-resident,  where an application   is made to him u/s 195(2) or 195(3). Can an ao order that the tax should be deducted at 20%, disregarding  the provisions of dtaa and the act, simply because the non-resident has not furnished Pan? We do not think so.

The Press note dated 20.01.2010 has no legal force and, in any case, its scope should be restricted to the very limited cases of payments to non-residents, where the tax deducted at source u/s. 195 does not represent the tax that is finally payable by them.

Section 206aa therefore cannot be applied in isolation simply because it contains a non-obstante clause. in applying the provisions, it is necessary to read the provisions of the act and in particularly the provisions    of sections 2(37a), 4, 5, 90 and 195 and the dtaa as also some of the provisions of the act that provide for  the rate at which income of a non-resident is required to be taxed. The   Supreme Court in the case of Ge india technology Centre Pvt. Ltd., 327 ITR 456 (SC) held that the provisions of dtaas along with the sections 4, 5, 9, 90 & 91 of the act would have a role to play while applying the provisions of tax deduction at source contained in chapter XVii B of the act.

In view of the observations, the surcharge and education cess in cases of payments to a non-resident, where applicable, shall be payable   on the basis of the rate    of tax determined in accordance with the provisions of section 195. However, section 206aa shall not apply, as discussed here.

It is also interesting to note that even the Bangalore tribunal in Bosch’s case, while upholding the revenue’s stand that the tax was required to be deducted at 20% in cases of non furnishing of Pan, held that for the purposes of grossing up in terms of section 195A, the rate that has to adopted is the rate in force and not 20% as prescribed by section 206AA.

Payment of Ransom or Protection money and section 37

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Issue for Consideration
An expenditure laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of business or profession is allowed as a deduction, u/s. 37, in computing the income chargeable under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’, provided such an expenditure is not in the nature of a capital expenditure or a personal expenditure of the assessee and is not of the nature covered by section 30 to 36 of the Act.

The expenditure, though incurred for the purposes of business, shall be deemed to have not been incurred for the purposes of business, where the expenditure is incurred for a purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law. No deduction or allowance, therefore can be made in respect of such an expenditure by virtue of Explanation 1 to section 37(1) of the Act.

It is not uncommon for a businessman to make certain payments in the course of his business, the payment of which might be an offence or prohibited by law. Several cases of payments of fines and penalties for violation of law are the examples that immediately come to mind. Such payments largely would be the cases of expenditure that would be hit by the Explanation 1 to section 37(1) and would stand to be disallowed in computing the Total Income.

Cases often arise wherein a businessman, for the purposes of his safety or for safeguarding his business, is required to make certain payments to either the police or security guards or to the gangsters or even to the kidnappers. Such payments, when made to the police or security guards are known as “Security Charges”, when made to gangsters are known as “Protection Money” and as “Ransom” when paid to kidnappers.

Issue arises in the context of Allowance or Deduction when such payment, i.e., security charges or protection money or ransom is made. Whether such payments, though made for business purposes, would be liable for disallowance on the ground of it being construed as an expenditure incurred for a purpose which is an offence or is prohibited by law. Conflicting views of the High Courts highlight the controversial nature of the issue under consideration.

M. S. Swam inathan’s case
Before the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. M. S. Swaminathan, 236 CTR 559, the Revenue had raised the following question for consideration of the high court in an appeal filed by it – “ whether the payment made to local police and local rowdies can be an allowable expenditure as a business expenditure ?

“In the said case, a sum of Rs. 86,000 was claimed as expenditure for money paid to local police and local goons towards the maintenance of the two theatres run by the assessee, viz., Vinayaka Touring Talkies and Sri Krishna Theatre. The expenditure of Rs. 86,000 claimed was disallowed by the AO. The CIT(A), in an appeal filed by the assessee, concurred with the view expressed by the AO and dismissed his appeal. Aggrieved by the same, the assessee filed the second appeal before the tribunal, which allowed the appeal in part, by allowing deduction of Rs. 50,000 as against Rs. 86,000 claimed. Being aggrieved by the same, the appeal was filed by the Revenue before the High Court.

On hearing the rival contentions, the Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal of the Revenue for disallowing the claim of the expenditure by holding as under;

“If any payment is made towards the security, towards the business of the assessee, such amount is an allowable deduction, as the amount spent for the maintenance of peace and law and order in the business premises of the assessee as he was running two cinema theatres. But the amount spent in the instant case claimed by the assessee is towards payment made to the police and rowdies. If any payment is made to the police illegally, it amounts to bribe and such illegal gratification cannot be considered as an allowable deduction and similarly, if any amount is paid to a rowdy as a precautionary measure to see that he shall not cause any disturbance in the theatre run by the assessee, the same is also an amount paid illegally for which no deduction can be allowed by the Department. If the assessee had spent the money for the purpose of security, we would have to concur with the view of the Tribunal. However, in the instant case, the payment has been made to the police and rowdies to keep them away from the business premises which payment be held as illegal and such illegal payment cannot be an allowable deduction.”

Khemchand Motilal Jain, Tobacco Products (P.) Ltd.’s case
The issue arose in the case of CIT vs. Khemchand Motilal Jain, Tobacco Products (P.) Ltd. 340 ITR 99 (MP) before the Madhya Pradesh High Court. In that case, the assessee company was engaged in manufacturing and sale of bidis. One Mr. Sukhnandan Jain was a whole-time director of the assessee-company and was looking after the purchase, sales and manufacturing of bidis. During his business tour in August 1987 to Sagar for purchase of tendu leaves, he was kidnapped for ransom by a dacoit gang headed by Raju Bhatnagar. Immediately, a complaint and FIR were lodged with Sagar Police. The assessee company awaited the action of the police but the police was unsuccessful in getting Mr. Sukhnandan Jain released from the clutches of the dacoit. Ultimately after 20 days, a sum of Rs. 5,50,000 was paid by way of ransom for the release of Mr. Sukhnandan Jain. On the same day of payment of the ransom, Mr. Sukhnandan Jain was released by the dacoits.

The company claimed a deduction of the ransom amount as business expenditure. The AO disallowed the claim of the assessee company on the ground that the ransom money paid to the kidnappers was not an expenditure incidental to business. On appeal, the CIT (Appeals) allowed the claim of the assessee. The Tribunal confirmed the finding of the CIT (Appeals). On appeal, the Revenue contended that the amount of ransom could not have been claimed by way of expenditure as the Explanation to sub-section (1) of section 37 prohibits such expenditure. The Tribunal referred the following question to the Court :“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was justified in law in holding that the amount of Rs. 5,50,000 paid as ransom money to the kidnappers of one of the Directors was an allowable deduction under section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act,1961?”

Before the High Court, the Revenue submitted that the amount of ransom could not have been claimed by way of expenditure as the Explanation of sub-section (1) of section 37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prohibited allowance of such an expenditure. It was submitted that the payment of any amount which was prohibited by law was not a business expenditure and it could not be allowed as an expenditure.

The amicus curiae, and the assessee company supported the orders passed by the appellate authorities and submitted that the payment of ransom was an allowable expenditure. It was pleaded that the amount was paid to the dacoits to get Mr. Sukhnandan Jain, who was on business tour and who was working as the director of the company, released from the dacoit. It was contended that the aforesaid amount was rightly claimed as an expenditure of business. It was insisted that at the relevant time, Mr. Sukhnandan Jain was on a business tour and was staying at a Government Rest House at Sagar, from where he was kidnapped.

The assessee company, in support of its claim, relied upon the judgments in cases of Sassoon J. David & Co. (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT, Bombay 118 ITR 261 and CIT West Bengal, Calcutta vs. Karam Chand Thapar and Brothers (P.) Ltd, 157 ITR 212(Cal.) and Addl. CIT vs. Kuber Singh Bhagwandas, 118 ITR 379(MP).

The  madhya  Pradesh  high  Court  extensively  quoted with approval the findings of the appellate authorities in respect  of  the   contribution  of  Mr.  Sukhnandan  Jain  to the business of the company, his need to travel for the purposes of business, the business exigency for payment of ransom money and the compulsion thereof. The court noted that from the perusal of the facts, it was apparent that  Sukhnandan  jain  was  conducting  business  tour for the company and was staying at a government rest house and the visit was to meet one Bihari Lal for the procurement of quality tendu leaves and it was during the  business  tour,  that  he  was  kidnapped.  The  court further noted that for a period of near about 20 days after lodging a report to the police, when all the efforts of the police were unsuccessful, the company made payment of  ransom  amount  of  Rs.  5,50,000  to  the  kidnappers and ultimately on the same day, Sukhnandan jain was released from the clutches of the dacoits and that both the appellate authorities had found that it was a business expenditure while allowing the claim.

The  court  referred  to  the  provisions  of   explanation  of sub-section (1) of section 37, for determining whether the expenditure could have been disallowed under that provision of the act. It also examined the provisions of section 364a of the indian Penal Code which provided that kidnapping a person for a ransom was a criminal offence. It noted that the aforesaid section 364A provided that kidnapping a person for ransom was an offence and any person doing so or compelling to pay, was liable for punishment as provided in the section, but nowhere it was provided that to save a life of the person if a ransom was paid, it would amount to an offence. No provision was brought to the notice of the court that the payment of ransom was prohibited by any law and in absence of it, the Explanation of sub-section (1) of section 37 was not applicable in the case of the assessee company.

The  madhya  Pradesh  high  Court,  after  analysing  the decisions cited by the assessee company, observed that in the case before the court, Mr. Sukhnandan Jain was on business tour and was staying at a government rest house from where he was kidnapped and to get him released, the amount was paid to the dacoits as ransom money. It thereafter held as under; “If the respondents to save his life paid the aforesaid amount, then the aforesaid amount cannot be treated as an action which was prohibited under the law. No provision could be brought to our notice that payment of ransom is an offence. In absence of which, the contention of the petitioner that it is prohibited under Explanation of section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act has no substance. The entire tour of Sukhnandan Jain was for purchase of tendu leaves of quality and for this purpose he was on business tour and during his business tour, he was kidnapped and for his release the aforesaid amount was paid.”

The high Court accordingly held that the ransom amount was an allowable business expenditure.

Observations
The  bitter  reality  of  the  day  is  that  people  do  have  to regularly cough up money, against their will, for securing the safety of their business or lives or both. in some cases. the payments are made to ensure continuity of the business. In many cases, the payments are not only involuntary but may not be authorised by the law, as well. Such payments are forced by the goons or the guardians of the law and at times by the framers of the law. Barring a very limited section of the society, no one cherishes such payments but are seen, nonetheless to be acquiescing to such extortions in the interest of survival. Cases are available wherein a citizen has to resort to imaginary ways to meet such demands by generating cash from one’s accounted funds. In most of the cases, even approaching the authorities, entrusted with the task of protecting and ensuring the safety of the citizens, involves an extra and additional cost. Therefore, it brings additional pains where such expenditure incurred against one’s will is not allowed as a deduction in computing the total income. On disallowance of the claim, it becomes a case of a double whammy for the businessman.

The Government, instead of ensuring  that its citizens are not extorted to pay money against their will by securing their safety, by booking the extortionists, has, to add insult to the injury, legislated the said Explanation to section 37(1) for providing that such an expenditure is disallowable.

Section 37 of the income-tax act provides for allowance of an expenditure that has been wholly and exclusively incurred for the purposes of the business of the assessee. It is a settled position in law that the expression “wholly and exclusively” does not mean “necessarily”. An expenditure maybe incurred by than assessee without there being a dire necessity for incurring such an expenditure and such an expenditure will not be disallowed once it is shown that the same has been incurred for the purposes of business of the assessee. It is for the assessee to decide whether any expenditure should be incurred in the course of his business or not. Such an expenditure may be incurred voluntarily and without any necessity. Once an expenditure is incurred for promoting the business and to earn profits, the assessee can claim deduction even though there is no compelling necessity to incur such expenditure.

In order to decide whether a payment of money or incurring of expenditure is for the purpose of the business and is an allowable expenditure or not, the test to be applied is that of ‘commercial expediency’. If the payment or expenditure is incurred to facilitate the carrying on of the business of the assessee and is supported by commercial expediency, it does not matter that the payment is voluntary or that it also enures to the benefit of a third party.

An expenditure otherwise allowable u/s. 37, in terms of the tests discussed above, would still be disallowed if  the same is incurred for a purpose which is an offence  or is prohibited by law, in which event the expenditure  so incurred shall be deemed to be not for the purposes of   business   or   profession.   The   purpose   behind   an expenditure assumes a great importance; where the purpose is an offence, the disallowance would take place.

An offence, as per the dictionary, in the context, is an illegal act; a transgression or misdemeanour. accordingly, an expenditure incurred for the purpose which is illegal cannot be allowed under the act. Similarly, an expenditure incurred for achieving a purpose that is prohibited by law would not be allowed a deduction. It appears that there  is very little difference between a purpose which is an offence and a purpose which is prohibited by law. In the context of explanation to section37 (1), one is therefore required to examine whether the payment is being made for a purpose which is prohibited by law.

Ensuring security of the business or of the business personnel, is an essential function of any business and therefore, payment of security charges would neither be an offence nor prohibited by law. We are afraid that the objective of the payee or his purpose behind demanding, collecting or receiving the payment is an  irrelevant  factor while applying the test of explanation 1 to section 37(1), the application of which is qua the payer and is limited to his purpose, as long as the purpose behind his expenditure is not an offence or prohibited by law.

Taking this understanding to the second level of payment of protection money, to a gangster, such a payment should not be disallowed as long as paying such an amount is not an offence under the indian Penal Code or any other law. It is true that for a gangster, demanding protection money or extorting money for not causing any damage, is an offence that is punishable under the indian Penal Code. His offence, however, need not necessarily be the offence of the payer assessee. The objectives and the purposes are different and cannot be equated.

Likewise, payment of ransom for securing the release to a kidnapper is not an offence or is not prohibited under any law. So, however, demanding a ransom is a serious crime that is punishable in law. Accordingly, the payment of ransom shall not be liable for any disallowance, simply on application of explanation 1 to section 37(1).

At the same time, it is significant to note that a payment to a police officer is an offence and is also prohibited by law if the same amounts to bribing him. however, an official payment to the Police Department, for security,  is not an offence and is not liable for disallowance. In Swaminathan’s case (supra), it is not clear that what was the nature of payment to the police. Was it a bribe? if yes, it was liable for disallowance.

Many  years  back,  the  mumbai  tribunal  in  the  case  of Pranav Construction Company, 61 T1TJ 45, held that payments made by a builder of “protection money” to tapories and hawkers was allowable as deduction on being satisfied about the genuineness of the expenditure. The   tribunal   held   that   the   builders   engaged   in construction activities were vulnerable to danger such as extortion, haftas, etc. and unless, they obliged, it would be impossible for them to conduct business.

The view of the madhya Pradesh high Court, in the case of Khemchand Motilal Jain’s case (supra), that payment of ransom for securing the release of the director was not an  expenditure for a purpose that was an offence   or was prohibited by law and was therefore not hit by the explanation 1 to section 37(1) is the correct view in law.

Income from Flats held as Stock in Trade

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Issue for Consideration
A businessman may hold flats as stock-in-trade at the year end. For example, on completion of construction of a building, a builder may be left with unsold houses or offices. Such houses or offices may not be let pending sale, and left vacant. Section 22 of the Income Tax Act requires the annual value of a property, consisting of buildings or land appurtenant thereto, of which the assessee is an owner, to be charged to tax under the head “Income from House Property”. The income under this head is chargeable to tax irrespective of the fact that such flats held in stock-in-trade are not let out and that no rent is received there from. Section 22 however excludes such portions of such property as is occupiedfor the purposes of business or profession carried on by him, the profits of which are chargeable to income tax.

A question that often arises in such circumstances is about the taxability of notional income under the head ‘Income from House Property’ in respect of the flats held as stock-intrade of business from which no rental income is received during the year. Whether the notional income in such cases is taxable at all and if yes, under the head “Income from business or profession” or “Income from house property”. Could it be said that even otherwise the notional income was not taxable on the ground that the unsold flats are occupied for the purposes of business. Further issue is whether rental income from such flats is taxable under the head ‘Income from House Property’ or ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’. While the Delhi High Court has taken the view that notional income is to be taxed under the head “Income from House Property”, the Gujarat high court has held that the rental income in respect of the flats held as stock-in-trade should be taxed under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business and Profession’ .

Ansal Housing Finance and Leasing Co’s case
The issue came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Ansal Housing Finance and Leasing Co Ltd., 354 ITR 180. In this case, the assessee was engaged in the business of development of mini townships, construction of house property, commercial and shopping complexes, etc. It had certain unsold flats, out of the flats that it had constructed.

During the course of assessment proceedings, the assessing officer proposed to assess the annual letting value of flats which the assessee had constructed, but which were lying unsold, on notional basis u/s. 22, under the head “Income from House Property”. The assessee contended that the flats were its stock in trade, were lying vacant, and therefore the annual letting value of the flats could not be brought to tax under the head “Income from House Property”. The assessing officer did not accept the assessee’s stand, and added the notional letting value of the unsold flats to the total income of the assessee.

The Commissioner(Appeals) set aside the addition made by the assessing officer. The appeal to the Tribunal by the revenue was also dismissed.

Before the High Court, it was argued on behalf of the revenue that regardless of whether income was on from the vacant flats, the assessee in its capacity as owner, had to pay tax on the annual letting value. It was argued that tax incidence did not depend on whether the assessee actually rented out the premises or not, but on the mere fact of ownership. Reliance was placed on behalf of the revenue on the Calcutta High Court decision in the case of Azimganj Estate (P) Ltd 206 Taxman 308, where , the builder had flats which were let out, the Court held that the rental income was assessable not under the head of profits or income from business, but under the head income from house property. It was argued before the Delhi high court that so long as the assessee continued to be the owner of the vacant flats, it had to be assessed under the head of income from house property. Since there was no letting out, the basis of assessment had to be annual letting value, which was rational and scientific.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that unlike in the case before the Calcutta High Court, in the present case, the assessee did not actually let out the vacant flats. It was not even in the business of renting out its flats. Letting out vacant or other properties was not part of the business objectives of the assessee, and since it did not derive any income as a result of letting out, that judgment did not apply. It was argued that income tax was a levy on income received, and not only on an amount derived on notional calculations. In the alternative, it was argued that the flats could not be taxed on the basis of their notional annual letting value, because the owner was an occupant, and such occupation was in the course of and for the purpose of business as a builder. It was explained to the court that section 22 saved the case of flat occupied, for the purposes of business, from taxation.

The Delhi High Court held that the levy of income tax in the case of a person holding house property was premised not on whether the assessee carried on business as landlord, but on the ownership. The incidence of charge was because of the fact of ownership.

The High Court further observed that in every case, the Court had to discern the intention of the assessee, and that in the case before it, the intention of the assessee was to hold the properties till they were sold. According to the Court, the capacity of being an owner was not diminished one whit because the assessee carried on the business of developing, building and selling flats in housing estates. It negated the assessee’s argument that since income tax was levied not on the actual receipt but on a notional basis, i.e. Annual Letting Value, it was therefore not sanctioned by law. According to the Court, Annual Letting Value was a method to arrive at a figure on the basis of which the impost was to be effectuated. The existence of an artificial method itself would not mean that levy was impermissible. Parliament had resorted to several other presumptive methods, for the purpose of calculation of income and collection of tax. Application of Annual Letting Value to determine the tax was regardless of whether actual income was received; it was premised on what constituted a reasonable letting value, if the property were to be leased out in the marketplace.

Addressing the alternative argument that the assessee itself was the occupier, because it held the property till it was sold, the Court held that there was no merit in that submission. According to the Court, while there could be no quarrel with the proposition that ‘occupation’ could be synonymous with physical possession, in law, when Parliament intended a property occupied by one who was carrying on business, to be exempted from the levy of income tax was that such property should be used for the purpose of business. The intention of the lawmakers, in other words, was that occupation of one’s own property, in the course of business, and for the purpose of business, i.e., an active use of the property, (instead of mere passive possession) qualified as ‘own’ occupation for business purpose.

The Delhi High Court therefore held that the annual letting value of the unsold flats was taxable, as the income was taxable under the head “Income from House Property”.

Neha Builders’ case
The issue about the head of income came up for consideration before the Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Neha Builders (P) Ltd. 207 CTR 231.

The assessing officer was of the view that since the expenses on maintenance of the property were debited to the profit and loss account, and the building was also shown as stock in trade, the property would partake the character of stock. According to the assessing officer, any income derived from stock could not be taken to be  income  from  property.  the  Commissioner(appeals) upheld the view of the assessing officer. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal, observing that any dividend received on shares held as stock-in-trade was taxable under the head ‘income from other sources’ by virtue of statutory provision, and therefore, any income derived as rent would be taxable under the head ‘income from house property’.

Before the Gujarat high Court, on behalf of the revenue, it was argued that if the property was used as a property, then any income therefrom would be an income from house property, but if the property was used as stock, than any income from such stock would not be an income from house property.

The Gujarat high Court noted that the case of the assessee was that the company was incorporated with the main objects of purchasing, taking on lease, acquiring by sale or letting out the buildings constructed by the company. development of land or property was also one of the businesses for which the company was incorporated.

The high Court noted that income derived from property would always be termed as income from the property, but if the property was used as stock in trade, then the property would partake the character of the stock, and any income derived from the stock would be income from the business, and not income from the property. The court observed that if the business of the assessee was to construct the property and sell it or to construct and let out the same, then that would be business, and the business stocks, which would include movable and immovable properties, would be taken to be stock in trade, and any income derived from such stocks could not be termed as income from property.

The high Court further held that , there was a distinction between “income from business” and “income from property” on one side, and “income from other sources” on the other. in the opinion of the Court, the tribunal was not justified in comparing rental income with dividend income  on  shares  or  interest  income  on  deposits.  The court observed that this comparison was not raised before the subordinate authorities, and  the tribunal on its own supplied the said analogy.

The  high  Court  noted  that  from  the  statement  of  the assessee, it was clear that it was treating the property as stock in trade. From the records, it was also clear that except for the ground floor, which had been let out by the assessee, all other portions of the property constructed had  been  sold  out. That  being  the  case,  right  from  the beginning, the property was held as stock-in-trade.

The Gujarat high Court therefore held that the   income from property held as stock-in-trade was to be assessed as business income.

Observations
There  are  three   issues  involved  here;  the  taxation  of notional income of unsold flats held as stock-in-trade, claim that such flats so held are occupied for the purposes of business and the head of income especially in cases where real income is received on letting of such flats. The related questions could be the allowability of the claims for vacancy allowance and that of the taxes and interest in full. A reasonable certainty that prevailed in relation to taxation of income under the head ‘income from house property,’ where the rental income is received on letting of such flats, is disturbed by the above referred decision of the Gujarat high court in the case of neha Builders. The court in this case held that the rental income of such flats, in the hands of a builder, can be taxed under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business’, dismissing the claim of the assessee that the same should be taxed as ‘income from house property’. In that case, it was the income   tax department that claimed that the income in question should be taxed as the business income. The reasoning of the court that income from flats held as stock-in-trade of a business, should be taxed as the business income, is appealing and is not to be dismissed summarily for the added reason that the court distinguished the decisions delivered in the context of dividend and interest income relating to the business under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business’, to consciously hold that there was a difference between the two heads of income. With this, there at least arises the need for refreshing the debate on the issue.

The case of the unsold flats not let out and remaining vacant is otherwise also on a better pedestal. it is a case where  no  income  whatsoever  is  received.  there  is  no real income is received here, actual or otherwise. in the circumstances, no question should arise about deciding the head of income. The Gujarat high court decision can be applied here with the greater force to contend that the question of deciding the head, as is in the case of the business related dividend income, does not arise at all where there is no income. Independently, the rule that the income from ownership of the property shall always be taxed under the head ‘income from house property’ is not something that is written in stone; an exception is made by section 56(2)(iii) that provides for taxation of such income which is inseparable from letting of other assets. The case for not taxing the flats held as stock-in-trade is also supported by the fact that such flats are exempted from levy of the wealth tax under the Wealth tax act which in turn indicates the intention of the legislature to keep away such flats from the impost of taxation.

There is also a good case to hold that even the notional income is saved from taxation by the express provision of section 22 which excludes the income from the property occupied for the purposes of business. It is true that the delhi  high  court  in  the  ansal  housing  finance’s  case explained where a person could be said to be occupying the property for business purposes.With respect, it seems that a contrary view is not ruled out. A businessman holding an unsold flat for the purposes of sale can surely be said to have occupied such a flat for the purposes of his business which business is to keep such flat ready for sale and exhibit it to persons desirous of purchasing it . All this is a part of the business and is possible only where it is occupied by him.

There is also a good case for him in such a case  to claim vacancy allowance u/s 23(1)(c) of the act. the deeming fiction of section 22 is to be applied by determination of annual Value as per section 23 of the act which provision requires due consideration of the fact that the property in question had remained vacant during the year.

It appears that the CBDT also has two conflicting views on the subject which has been evident by the fact that in the case before the Gujarat high court, it sought to contend that the income in question should be taxed under the head “Profits and Gains of Business”.

The history of the income tax act is replete with stories of cases revolving simply around the heads of taxation. the  enormous  litigation  arises  simply  on  account  of the schedular system of taxation which requires the income to be pegged under a specific pigeon hole. This is most evident in the cases involving transactions in securities that has flooded the courts. It is high time that the parliament takes note of unwarranted litigation and does away with the system of head wise taxation, once for all.

Jewellery & Ornaments – Acceptable holdings

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Issue for Consideration
Instruction No. 1916 (F.No. 286/63/93-IT(INV.II), dated 11-5-1994, issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) directs the income tax authorities, conducting a search, to not seize jewellery and ornaments found during the course of search of varying quantities specified in the instructions, depending upon the marital status and the gender of a person searched. The guidelines are issued to address the instances of seizure of jewellery of small quantity in the course of search operations u/s. 132 that have been noticed by the CBDT. A common approach is suggested in situations where search parties come across items of jewellery for strict compliance by the authorities. The CBDT directed that in the case of a person not assessed to wealth-tax, gold jewellery and ornaments to the extent of 500 gms. per married lady, 250 gms. per unmarried lady and 100 gms. per male member of the family, need not be seized.

The High Courts, under the circumstances, relying on the above referred instructions of the CBDT, has consistently held that the possession of the jewellery and ornaments to the extent of the quantities specified in the instruction is to be treated as reasonable and therefore explained and should not be the subject matter of additions in assessment of the total income of a person. Recently the Madras High Court has sounded a slightly discordant note to this otherwise rational view accepted by various high courts.

Satya Narain Patni’s case
The issue, in the recent past had come up for the consideration of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of CIT vs. Satya Naraain Patni, 46 taxmann.com 440 .

A search u/s. 132 was carried out at the business and residential premises of the assessee on 30-06-2004. During the course of search, gold jewellery weighing 2,202.464 gms. valued at Rs.10,53,520/- and silver items valued at Rs.93,678/- were found. Looking to the status of the assessee and the statement given during the course of the search operation by various family members and considering the fact that there were four married ladies in the house, including the wife of the assessee, no jewellery was seized by the authorised officer.

In assessment of the income, however, the jewellery to the extent of 1,600 gms was treated as reasonable by the AO. The balance jewellery weighing 602.464 gms was treated as unexplained in the absence of any satisfactory explanation from the assessee and the value of the same which was determined at Rs. 2,88,176/-, was added back to the income of the assessee, treating the same as purchased out of Income from undisclosed sources of the assessee. In an appeal by the assessee, the Commissioner(Appeals), deleted the additions made by the AO of the value of the jewellery to the tune of Rs. 2,88,176/-. The Tribunal, on appreciation of facts and evidence available on record, also confirmed the order of CIT (A).

The Revenue, in the appeal before the Rajasthan High Court, contended that the AO had given due credit for the jewellery belonging to the various family members; that almost 75% of the jewellery found was treated as explained by the AO himself; only where the assessee or family members were not in a position to explain the balance jewellery, the addition was made; that the assessee or/and other family members were not in a position to adequately explain the source of receipt of aforesaid jewellery and it was the duty of the assessee to lead proper evidence, but since no evidence was led, the AO after giving due credit for 1,600 gms. of jewellery, and being not satisfied with the balance, made the addition which was correct and justified; that the circular of the Board referred to by the tribunal dated 11-05-1994, simply laid down that in case a person was not assessed to wealth tax, then in that case, jewellery and ornaments to the extent of 500 gms. per married lady, 250 gms. per unmarried lady and 100 gms. per male member of the family need not be seized, but that did not mean that the AO was debarred from questioning the possession of the items found; that the circular emphasised only that jewellery would not be seized. However, the AO was duty bound to seek explanation of owning and possessing of such jewellery. The Rajasthan High Court, on due consideration of the facts of the case. and importantly, relying on the Instruction No. 1916 of the CBDT, dismissed the appeal of the Income tax Department by holding as under;

“12. It is true that the circular of the CBDT, referred to supra dt. 11/05/1994 only refers to the jewellery to the extent of 500 gms per married lady, 250 gms per unmarried lady and 100 gms per male member of the family, need not be seized and it does not speak about the questioning of the said jewellery from the person who has been found with possession of the said jewellery. However, the Board, looking to the Indian customs and traditions, has fairly expressed that jewellery to the said extent will not be seized and once the Board is also of the express opinion that the said jewellery cannot be seized, it should normally mean that any jewellery, found in possesion of a married lady to the extent of 500 gms, 250 gms per unmarried lady and 100 gms per male member of the family will also not be questioned about its source and acquisition. We can take notice of the fact that at the time of wedding, the daughter/ daughter-in-law receives gold ornaments jewellery and other goods not only from parental side but in-laws side as well at the time of ‘Vidai’ (farewell) or/and at the time when the daughter-in-law enters the house of her husband. We can also take notice of the fact that thereafter also, she continues to receive some small items by various other close friends and relatives of both the sides as well as on the auspicious occasion of birth of a child whether male or female and the CBDT, looking to such customs prevailing throughout India, in one way or the another, came out with this Circular and we accordingly are of the firm opinion that it should also mean that to the extent of the aforesaid jewellery, found in possession of the various persons, even source cannot be questioned. It is certainly ‘Stridhan’ of the woman and normally no question at least to the said extent can be made. However, if the authorized officers or/and the Assessing Officers, find jewellery beyond the said weight, then certainly they can question the source of acquisition of the jewellery and also in appropriate cases, if no proper explanation has been offered, can treat the jewellery beyond the said limit as unexplained investment of the person with whom the said jewellery has been found.”

The High Court noted that, looking to the status of the family and the jewellery found in possession of four ladies, the quantum of jewellery was held to be reasonable and therefore, the authorised officers, in the first instance, did not seize the said jewellery as the same was within the tolerable limit or the limits prescribed by the Board. Thus, in the view of the court, subsequent addition was held to be not justified and was thus rightly deleted by both the two appellate authorities, namely, Commissioner(Appeals) as well as the tribunal.

V. G. P. Ravidas’ case
The Madras High Court very recently in the case of V.G.P. Ravidas vs. ACIT, 51 taxmann.com 16, offered certain observations that are found to be inconsistent with the near unanimous view of the High Court that the possession of the jewellery and ornaments, to the extent of the quantities specified by the CBDT, should be held to be explained.

In this case, the assessees filed the original return of income for the assessment year 2009-2010 on 30-09- 2009. The Assessing Officer, pursuant to a search u/s. 132, reopened the assessment and a reassessment was completed by him on 29-12-2010. The ao in so assessing the income, treated excess gold jewellery found and seized, of 242.200 gms. and 331.700 gms. respectively, as the unexplained income.

The    assessees    appeals    before    the    Commissioner (Appeals), were dismissed. The Tribunal confirmed the order passed by the Commissioner (appeals). In the appeal before the High Court, the short question that arose for consideration was whether the assessees in both the cases were entitled to plead that the quantum of excess gold jewellery seized did not warrant inclusion in the income of the assessees as unexplained investment in the light of the Board instruction no.1916 [F.no.286/63/93-it (INV.II)], dated 11-05-1994.

the  madras  high  Court  while  dismissing  the  appeals, on the facts of the case before it, inter alia observed in paragraph 10 of its order as under;

“10. The Board Instruction dated  11.5.1994  stipulates the circumstances under which excess gold jewellery or ornaments could be seized and where it need not be seized. It does not state that it should not be treated as unexplained investment in jewellery. In this case,    “

The  high  Court   also  approved  the  observations  of  the Commissioner(appeals)  in  paragraph  8  of  its  order  as follows;

“8. The Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal came to hold that since there was no explanation offered by the assessees before the Assessing Officer or Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) or Tribunal, their mere placing reliance on the Board Instruction No. 1916 [F.No.286/63/93-IT (INV.II)], dated 11.5.1994 will be no avail. In fact, the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) has correctly held that the Board Instruction does not make allowance in calculation of unexplained jewellery and it only states that in the case of a person not assessed to wealth tax, gold jewellery and ornaments to the extent of 500 gms per married lady, 250 gms per unmarried lady and 100 gms per male member of the family, need not be seized. Whereas, “

   Observations

The observations of the madras high Court, in paragraphs 8 and 10 of the its order in the case of V. G. P. Ravidas, suggest that the instruction no. 1916 has a limited application and should be applied by the search authorities in deciding whether the jewellery & ornaments found during the search to the extent of the specified quantities be seized or not. the court appears to be suggesting that the scope of the instructions is not extended to the assessment of income and an assessee therefore cannot simply rely on the said instructions to plead that the possession of the jewellery to the extent of the specified quantity be treated as explained. An outcome of the observations of  the High Court, is that an assessee is required to explain the possession of the jewellery in assessment of the income to the satisfaction of the ao independent of the fact that the jewellery was not seized and has to lead evidences in support of its possession though for the purposes of seizure, its possession was found to be reasonable by the search authorities.

Nothing can highlight the conflict better than the interpretation sought to be placed by the two different authorities of the income tax department. one of them, the search authority,   does not seize the jewellery on   the understanding that the possession thereof  within  the specified quantities is reasonable in the context of customs and practises prevailing in india while the another of them, the assessing authority, does not accept the possession as reasonable and puts the assessee to the onus of explaining the possession of the jewellery found to his satisfaction and failing which he proceeds to add the value thereof to his total income.

The conflicting stand of the authorities belonging to the different departments of the same set up also highlights the pursuit of petty aims ignoring the larger interest of administration of justice by adopting a highly technical approach, best avoided in implementing the revenue laws.

The Gujarat High Court in CIT vs. Ratanlal Vyaparilal Jain, the allahabad high Court in Ghanshyam Das Johri’s case, 41 taxmann.com 295 and the Rajasthan High Court in yet another case, Kailash Chand Sharma 198 CTR 271 have consistently held that the possession of the jewellery of the quantities specified in the instruction issued by the CBDT is reasonable and therefore should be held to be explained in the hands of asesseee and should not be the subject matter of addition by the ao on the ground that the asseseee was unable to explain the possession thereof to  his satisfaction.

The Rajasthan High Court in Patni’s case and the other high Courts before it, rightly noted that considering the practices and the customs prevailing in india of gifting and acquisition of jewellery and ornaments since birth and even before birth, it is not only common but is reasonable for an Indian to possess the jewellery of the specified quantity. The question of applying another yardstick for determining the reasonability in assessment does not arise at all.

The  CBDT  in  fact   a  goes  a  step  further  in  its  human approach to the issue under consideration, in paragraph
(iii)    of the said instructions, when it permits the search party to not seize even such jewellery that has been found to be excess of the specified quantities in paragraph(ii) where the search authorities are satisfied that depending upon the status of the family and community customs and practices, the possession of such jewellery was reasonable. The said paragraph reproduced here clearly settles the issue in favour of accepting what has not been seized as duly explained for the purposes of assessment as well.

“(iii) The authorized officer may, having regard to the status of the family, and the custom and practices of the community to which the family belongs and other circumstances of the case, decide to exclude a larger quantity of jewellery and ornaments from seizure. This should be reported to the director of income tax/Commissioner authorising the search at the time of furnishing the search report.”

This grace of the CBDT clearly confirms that the search authorities do make a spot assessment of the reasonability of possession. It is therefore highly improper, on a later day, for the assessing authority, to take a dim view of the reasonability. It is befitting that the AO allows the grace to percolate downstream to the  case  of  assessment, as well.

Interest u/s. 244A on Refund of Self Assessment Tax

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Issue for Consideration
Section 244A(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for payment of interest on refunds due to the assessee. It provides that, in addition to the amount of refund, the assessee is entitled to simple interest at the rate of ½% for every month or part of a month,in cases where refund is out of any tax paid u/s. 115WJ or tax collected at source u/s. 206C or paid by way of advance tax or treated as paid u/s. 199, for the period commencing from the first day of April of the assessment year to the date on which the refund is granted. In any other case, including the case of a refund of self assessment tax (not being the case where refund is less than 10% of the tax determined), the interest is payable, vide clause(b) of section 244A(1), at the same rate, for every month or part of a month, for the period commencing from the date of payment of the tax or penalty to the date on which the refund is granted.

An Explanation to clause (b) defines the term “date of payment of tax or penalty” to mean the date on and from which the amount of tax or penalty specified in the notice of demand issued u/s. 156 is paid in excess of such demand.

The sub-section reads as under:

244A. Interest on Refunds – (1) Where refund of any amount becomes due to the assessee under this Act, he shall, subject to the provisions of this section, be entitled to receive, in addition to the said amount, simple interest thereon calculated in the following manner, namely :—

(a) where the refund is out of any tax paid under section 115WJ or collected at source under section 206C or paid by way of advance tax or treated as paid under section 199, during the financial year immediately preceding the assessment year, such interest shall be calculated at the rate of one-half per cent for every month or part of a month comprised in the period from the 1st day of April of the assessment year to the date on which the refund is granted:

Provided that no interest shall be payable if the amount of refund is less than ten per cent of the tax as determined under sub-section (1) of section 115WE or sub-section (1) of section 143 or on regular assessment;

(b) in any other case, such interest shall be calculated at the rate of one-half per cent for every month or part of a month comprised in the period or periods from the date or, as the case may be, dates of payment of the tax or penalty to the date on which the refund is granted.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this clause, “date of payment of tax or penalty” means the date on and from which the amount of tax or penalty specified in the notice of demand issued under section 156 is paid in excess of such demand.

The issue has arisen before the courts as to whether any interest is payable u/s. 244A on self-assessment tax paid by the assessee, where such self-assessment tax or a part thereof becomes refundable to the assessee. The questions that arose in addressing the issue on hand were; Can the payment of a self-assessment tax be treated as the payment made in pursuance of a notice and that too in excess of the amount that is specified in the notice of demand u/s. 156? Can such a payment be considered as a payment referred to under clause(a)of section 244A? Does the Explanation to clause(b) have the effect of reducing the scope of clause(b) to payments made in pursuance of demand or not? Whether the generality of clause(b) is otherwise not restricted by explanation to clause(b)?

While the Bombay, Delhi, Madras, Karnataka and Punjab & Haryana High Courts have taken a view that the assessee is entitled to interest u/s. 244A on such refund of self-assessment tax, the Delhi High Court has recently taken a contrary view, holding that no interest is payable u/s. 244A on self-assessment tax refunded to the assessee.

Stock Holding Corporation’s Case
The issue recently came up
before the Bombay High Court in the case of Stock Holding Corporation of
India Ltd vs. N. C. Tewari, CIT & Others, 373 ITR 282.

In
this case, the assessee paid a self-assessment tax of Rs. 2.60 crore in
August 1994 for assessment year 1994-95. In December 1996, the
assessment was completed u/s. 143(3), raising a demand of Rs. 1.76
crore. This demand was partly adjusted against the refund due of Rs.
1.53 crore for another assessment year. The Commissioner(Appeals), on
appeal, granted substantial relief to the assessee in appeal against the
assessment order. While giving effect to the order of the
Commissioner(Appeals) in October 1998, the assessee was granted a refund
of Rs. 2 crore, consisting of tax of Rs. 1.53 crore and Rs. 18.24 lakh
aggregating to Rs. 1.7124 crore and interest of Rs. 29 lakh being
interest on refund of Rs. 1.53 crore. However, no interest was granted
on Rs. 18.24 lakh for the period from the date of payment of tax on
self-assessment till the date of refund.

The assessee filed a
revision application to the Commissioner of Income-tax u/s. 264, seeking
a total interest of Rs. 42.87 lakh, u/s. 244A, consisting of Rs. 33.75
lakh payable on a refund of Rs. 1.53 crore (being the demand adjusted
against refund of another year) and Rs. 9.12 lakh on refund of tax of
Rs. 18.24 lakh (being the tax paid on self-assessment). The Commissioner
partly allowed the revision petition, directing the payment of interest
on Rs. 1.53 crore, but rejecting the claim for interest on refund of
tax paid on self-assessment of Rs. 18.24 lakh. A writ petition was filed
before the Bombay High Court challenging this order.

Before the
Bombay High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was argued that the
issue of grant of interest was no longer in dispute in view of the
Supreme Court decision in the case of Union of India vs. Tata Chemicals
Ltd. 363 ITR 658. It was claimed that refund of any amount due under the
Act to the assesse would entitle the assessee to receive the refund
along with interest. While clause (a) of section 244A(1) governed
refunds of advance tax and tax deducted at source, clause (b) would
govern all other refunds, including tax paid on self-assessment.
Reliance was placed on the CBDT circular number 549 dated 30th October
1989, 182 ITR (St) 1. It was argued that the explanation to section
244A(1)(b) would have no application to the case, as no amount had been
paid in excess of the demand specified u/s. 156.

On behalf of
the revenue, it was argued that the amount paid on self-assessment was
not tax payable in pursuance of a notice of demand. It was contended
that as per the computation of income filed by the assessee, a refund of
Rs. 47.15 lakh only was claimed and consequently, the assessee was
entitled to only refund of the tax, and not to interest thereon. It was
claimed that the decision in Tata Chemicals (supra) was not applicable
to the case before the court, as in that case, the assessee had claimed
interest on refund of amount of TDS that was deducted in excess of tax
that it was liable to deduct in view of an order passed by the
authorities under the Act. Alternatively, it was argued that if at all
any interest was to be allowed to the assessee, it would only be from
the date on which the notice u/s. 156 was issued to the assessee, which
was the date of the assessment order.

The Bombay High Court noted that it was clear that the amount paid by the assessee as self-assessment tax was not covered by clause (a) of section 244A(1), since it was neither a payment of advance tax, nor a tax deducted at source. Thus, it would fall under clause (b), a residuary clause governing refunds of amounts not falling under clause (a). It rejected the revenue’s contention that such tax would not fall under clause (b), because of non- applicability of the said clause. According to the High Court, such a contention was opposed to the meaning  of the provision even on a bare reading of the said clause(b). According to the court, if a tax paid was not covered by clause (a), it fell within clause (b), which was a residuary clause.

The Bombay High Court also observed that the contention of the revenue was otherwise negatived by the CBDT circular number 549 (supra), which clarified, in relation  to the provisions of section 244A, that if the refund was out of any tax, other than advance tax or tax deducted  at source or penalty, interest was payable for the period starting from the date of payment of such tax or penalty and ending on the date of the grant of the refund. The court observed that nowhere did the CBDT even remotely suggest that interest was not payable by the Income-  tax Department on refund of the self-assessment tax. According to the court, the amount paid u/s. 140A on self- assessment was an amount payable as and by way of tax, to meet the likely shortfall in the taxes.

Addressing the arguments of the revenue that no interest at all was payable unless the amount had been paid as tax in pursuance of a notice of demand, and that section 244A did not cover the cases where the payment was gratuitous, as was in the case of the assessee, who sought an interest of Rs. 47 lakh after paying tax on self- assessment of Rs. 2.60 crore, the court observed that
(a)    section 244A(1) commenced with the words “when refund of any amount became due to the assessee under this Act…”, and that (b) clause (b) commenced with the words “in any other case…….” and those words clearly provided that refund of any amount that became due to any assessee under the Act would entitle the assessee to interest u/s. 244A.

In any case, the Court noted , the amount on which the refund was being claimed was originally paid as self- assessment tax u/s. 140A and even the assessing officer in passing the assessment order, had accepted the entire amount paid as self-assessment tax as a payment of tax. In addition, the court observed that when any refund became due to an assessee out of tax paid, it became so only after holding that it was not the tax payable in the first instance. The Bombay High Court therefore rejected the revenue’s contention that the amount of tax paid on self-assessment was not a ‘tax’, and that interest could not be granted on refund of such amounts which were not ‘taxes’.

Addressing the revenue’s argument that the decision of the Supreme Court in Tata Chemicals (supra) was not applicable to the facts of the case before it, the Bombay High Court, analysing the observations of the Supreme Court, observed that it was clear that the requirement to pay interest arose whenever an amount was refunded to an assessee as it was a kind of compensation for use and retention of the money collected by the revenue. The only distinction being made in the facts of the case before it, and those before the Supreme Court was that the amount paid as tax on self-assessment was paid voluntarily, while in the case before the Supreme Court, the tax was deducted at a higher rate in view of the order passed by an authority under the Act. The court observed that there was no distinction between the two, as, when an assessee paid tax either as advance tax or on self- assessment, it was paid to discharge an obligation under the Act and a non-compliance  visited an assessee with a penalty just as non-compliance of orders passed by authorities under the Act would. Thus, according to the court, there was no voluntary payment of tax on self- assessment as was contended by the revenue.

The Bombay High Court then addressed the argument  of the revenue that in view of the explanation to section 244A(1)(b), eligibility thereunder arose only when the amounts were paid consequent to a notice issued u/s. 156. The court noted that the same submission advanced by the revenue before the Supreme Court in the case of Tata Chemicals (supra) had been rejected in that case by the Tribunal, the High Court as well as the Supreme Court.

Rejecting the argument of the revenue that the payment of interest, in any case, should be for the period that commenced from the date of notice u/s. 156, the Bombay High Court observed that; the Supreme Court in Tata Chemicals (supra), held that theExplanation applied only where payment of tax was made pursuant to notice u/s. 156; the payment in the instant case had not been made pursuant to any notice of demand, but was made prior to the filing of the return of income and was in accordance with section 140A; the provisions of section 244A(1)
(b)    required the revenue to pay interest on the amount refunded for the period commencing from the date the payment of tax was made to the revenue, up to the date when refund was granted by the revenue.

The Bombay High Court drew support from the decisions of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Vijaya Bank  338 ITR 489 and of the Delhi High Court in CIT  vs. Sutlej Industries Ltd 325 ITR 331, where, in identical circumstances, it was held that interest u/s 244A was payable from the date of payment of the tax on self- assessment to the date of refund of the amounts. The Court therefore held that interest u/s. 244A was payable on refund of excess self-assessment tax paid by the assessee.

A similar view, that interest was payable under section 244A on refund of self-assessment tax, has also been taken by the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Cholamandalam Investment & Finance Co Ltd 294 ITR 438, and the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Punjab Chemical & Crop Protection Ltd. 231 Taxman 312.

Engineers India’s case

The issue again recently came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Engineers India Ltd 373 ITR 377.

In this case, the assessee filed its return of income for assessment year 2006-07 in November 2006. It filed a revised return disclosing a higher income in November 2008. During the course of assessment proceedings, a disallowance of Rs. 69 lakh was made u/s. 14A read with rule 8D. An appeal was filed against such disallowance to the Commissioner(Appeals), and during the course of hearing before the Commissioner (Appeals), the issue of the assessing officer not having allowed interest u/s. 244A was raised by the assessee. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the assessee’s claim for interest u/s. 244A, following the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Cholamandalam Investment and Finance Company Ltd (supra).

In appeal before the Tribunal by the revenue, the tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner(Appeals), as regards admissibility of interest on the excess self- assessment tax paid.

In the further appeal before the Delhi High Court by the revenue, the revenue argued that interest was payable to the assessee only if it was so provided under the statute. Reliance was placed on the decisions of the Supreme Court in the cases of Sandvik Asia Ltd vs. CIT 280 ITR 643, CIT vs. Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals  358 ITR 291  and Tata Chemicals (supra). On behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on the decisions of the Delhi High Court in the case of Sutlej Industries (supra), and of    the Bombay High Court in the case of Stock Holding Corporation of India (supra).

The Delhi High Court noted that in Sandvik Asia’s case, the issue for consideration by the Supreme Court was as to whether the assessee was entitled to be compensated by the revenue for delay in payment of the amount due to the assessee. Since there was an inordinate delay    in that case on the part of the revenue in refunding the amount, the Supreme Court held that the assessee was entitled to be adequately compensated by way of interest for the delay in payment of the amount “lawfully due to the assessee which are withheld wrongly and contrary to the law”.

The Delhi High Court noted the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Cholamandalam Investment (supra), and observed that the argument in that case revolved around the question as to whether interest would be admissible under clause (a) or clause (b) of section 244A(1), in the context of the distinction on account of the additional requirement in clause (a) that the amount refundable must be more than 10% of the tax determined. The Madras High Court held that the refund was governed by clause (b) and was therefore not subject to that restriction.

The Delhi High Court, then noted the decision of its own court in the case of Sutlej Industries (supra), where the question of law related to whether clause (b) of section 244A(1) excluded the payment of interest on refund of self-assessment tax. It noted that in Sutlej Industries’ case, the assessee had paid self-assessment tax u/s. 140A, in addition to TDS and advance tax.

The Delhi High Court, then noted the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals (supra) where a bench of two judges doubted the correctness of the decision in the case of Sandvik asia(supra), and referred the matter for consideration and authoritative pronouncement to a larger bench. It noted the observations of the larger bench of the Supreme Court, which clarified that only interest provided for under the statute may be claimed by an assessee from the revenue, and no other interest on such statutory interest.

The Delhi High Court, then noted the observations of the Supreme Court in the case of Tata Chemicals (supra), which was a case of whether the deductor of TDS is  also entitled to interest on refund of excess deduction or erroneous deduction of tax at source under section 195.

The Delhi High Court, then analysed  the  decision  of the Bombay High Court in the case of Stock Holding Corporation of India (supra), which was in the context   of an issue similar to that before the Delhi High Court. According to the Delhi High Court, the Bombay High Court did not take note of the clarification given by the Supreme Court in the case of Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals(supra).

The Delhi High Court analysed the provisions relating to payment of advance tax, filing of returns and payment   of self-assessment  tax. It observed,  on  analysis,  that  it was clear from the bare reading of these provisions that whether for purposes of computing  the  advance tax liability or for calculation of self-assessment tax, the assessee was given the liberty to make the estimation of his own accord. The revenue expected proper declaration on the basis of which the liability would be eventually determined, since after all, the necessary information or data was available first to the assessee. It observed that the liability of the revenue to pay interest u/s. 244A on refund of excess amount paid towards the income tax by the assessee required to be examined in the above light.

The court observed that the provisions relating to advance tax in respect of fringe benefits u/s. 115WJ, credit for tax deducted u/s. 199, credit for tax collected at source under section 206C and liability for advance tax u//s 207 had no connection with the liability to pay self-assessment tax and therefore clause (a) of section 244A(1) would not apply to refund out of the amount paid as self-assessment tax. On the other hand, clause (b) was a residuary clause which opened with the expression “in any other case”, and naturally therefore, the liability of the revenue towards interest on refund from out of amount paid as self-assessment tax would fall under this clause.

It noted that under clause (b), the beginning point for purposes of calculating the liability of the revenue towards interest on the amount being refunded was prescribed as the date of payment of tax (penalty). This expression, as defined in the explanation appended to the clause, was indicative of the date of payment of the amount specified in the demand notice u/s. 156. According to the Delhi High Court therefore, the legislation made it clear that for the rest of the clause, the amount paid by the assessee (from which refund was to be made) must have been deposited pursuant to a demand notice issued by the assessing authority. The clause (b) would therefore not apply, by virtue of the Explanation, in case the excess amount being refunded had been paid by the assessee otherwise than in compliance with demand notice or voluntarily. According to the Delhi High Court, this was the import and effect of the Explanation if the language employed thereof was read, understood and construed in its natural and ordinary sense. Since the words used were clear, plain and unambiguous, according to the Delhi High Court, there was no scope for beneficial construction, since it would lead to re-legislation, which was impermissible.

According to the Delhi High Court, the observations of the Supreme Court in Sandvik Asia’s case (supra) must be understood in the light of clarification given in the case  of Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals (supra), and there was no liability on the revenue to pay tax on refund beyond the liability created by the statutory provisions. In the case of Tata Chemicals (supra), the Delhi High Court noted that the collection of the tax through the deductor was found to be illegal, thus giving rise to the liability to pay interest on the refunded amount.

The Delhi High Court therefore,concluded that there could not be a general rule that whenever a refund of income tax paid in excess was to be made, the revenue must necessarily pay interest on the refunded amount. The letter and spirit of the law on the subject, according to the Delhi High Court was that the party which committed the error in proper calculation (or delay in proper assessment) must bear the burden. If the excess amount was paid due to erroneous assessment by the revenue, having exacted such burden wrongfully and inequitably on the assessee and having retained the excess amount thus received, the reimbursement must be accompanied by payment of interest at the statutorily prescribed rate. Conversely, if the assessee was to be blamed for the miscalculation (or for delay, or for want of claim of refund), the revenue did not owe any interest, even if the excess payment of tax was liable to be refunded.

The Delhi High Court therefore expressed its inability    to subscribe to follow the view taken by its own Division Bench in the case of Sutlej Industries (supra). In doing so, it observed that in that case, even otherwise, the question had been examined in the facts and circumstances indicative of high-pitched assessment made by the revenue and the refund of the self-assessment tax resulting from a claim to such effect being made by the assessee in the return. It noted that in the case before it, the revenue had not made the excessive assessment so as to impel the deposit of self-assessment tax in excess, and that the assessee did not make a claim for refund in the return, but that such claim appeared to have been made later.

It also declined to follow the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Cholamandalam Investment (supra), for the same reasons and since, in the view of the Delhi High Court, the proposition of law on the subject was expounded in too broad terms in that case. The Delhi High Court observed that as clarified by the Supreme Court in Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals, there was no general principle of liking the revenue to pay interest on all sum so wrongfully retained. It observed that it was trite that a fiscal statute is to be construed strictly, and the claim of interest on refund of income tax had to be pegged only on the statutory clauses.

In the absence of explanation as to how the assessee erred in calculation of self-assessment tax, and there being no allegation that such excess deposit was pursuant to demand by the revenue, the Delhi High Court therefore held that the claim for interest on excess payment voluntary paid could not be sustained.

Observations
Use of the citizen’s money, whether paid voluntarily or otherwise, by the Government, not representing any liability, should be compensated is an acceptable principle of law and when not provided for specifically, should be read in to the law as has been held by the apex court. Therefore, the case for the interest on refund of an tax , including that of the tax paid on self assessment, is on a sound footing in cases where it has been held back for no fault of the tax payer. This understanding is independent of the provisions of section 244A, which provisions, in our opinion, further strengthens the case for interest.

It is true that the case of interest under consideration is not covered by clause(a) of section 244A(1). Whether the case is however, covered by clause(b) or not is a question that requires to be examined and answered for arriving at the correct view. The additional question that is required to be addressed is whether the Explanation to the clause has the effect of limiting the scope of the clause or not. Obviously, on a bare reading of the clause, it is clear that refund of any tax, other than advance  tax or tax deducted at source or penalty, entitles an assessee to interest u/s. 244A. The clause later on provides that the interest shall be payable for the period starting from the date of payment of such tax or penalty and ending on the date of the grant of the refund. Explanation to the clause defines the term from ‘the date of payment of tax or penalty’ and while doing so it links tax payments to those paid in pursuance of a notice of demand. It is this restriction that has emboldened the revenue to take a stand that no interest is payable on refund of tax paid on self assessment.

Usually an Explanation does not limit the scope of the provision and when it seeks to do so, a question arises over its ability to do so. In the context, it is clear that the intention of the legislature is to grant interest on ‘any refund’ and therefore the Explanation should be interpreted to provide also for the cases where the tax is paid in pursuance of the notice of demand and in addition to provide for the period for which the interest in such cases is to be paid. In our opinion, this is the only way the Explanation can be interpreted considering the clear and unambiguous language of the main provision contained in clause(b). Alternatively, the Explanation could be said to have been inserted only to provide for the period for which interest is to be paid and in that case there would be a tacit acceptance of the fact that   the case under consideration for interest on refund of self assessment tax surely falls under clause(b). Any limitation restricting the period through an Explanation, would be construed as an unauthorised limitation and would therefore have to be read down, especially in a case where the interest is otherwise payable for the moneys withheld by the Government.

The Delhi High Court, in the past, in Sutlej Industries case, had ruled in favour of the assessee when it held that an assessee was entitled to interest u/s. 244A on refund of taxes paid on account of self assessment tax. Instead of following the said decision that was delivered on similar facts, the Delhi High Court distinguished it in Engineers India’s case, which we with respect believe was under an error of facts. An error was committed when It assumed that the payment of self-assessment tax was on account of demand by the revenue, in the case of Sutlej Industries. This erroneous assumption led the court to believe that such payment was on regular assessment, and not on self-assessment and .therefore, the payment was pursuant to a notice of demand u/s. 156, on refund of which there was no doubt that interest was payable u/s. 244A. It is evident from the facts of the case of Sutlej Industries, that the payment of the self-assessment tax was prior to filing of the return of income. The Court, in Engineers India’s case, was therefore not justified in trying to differentiate the ratio of the decision of its  own  division  bench  in the earlier case of Sutlej Industries and in not following that decision.

Judicial propriety and discipline required that in case the division bench in Engineers India’s case disagreed with the earlier decision in Sutlej Industries case, it should have referred the earlier decision to a larger bench of the court, and not taken a different view from that taken by a division bench of the same court in the earlier decision.

The decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Tata Chemicals was rendered after its decision in the case of Gujarat Fluoro Chemicals. Both these decisions contained important observations of the apex court which are very relevant in the context. We are sure that had these observations of the apex court been pressed in service before the court, the decision in Engineers India ‘s case would have been different. The following observations of the Supreme Court in the case of Tata Chemicals (supra) are relevant in this regard (underlined for emphasis):

The refund becomes due when tax deducted at source, advance tax paid, self assessment tax paid and tax paid on regular assessment exceeds tax chargeable for the year as a  result of an order passed in appeal or other proceedings under the Act. When refund is of any advance tax (including tax deducted/collected at source), interest is payable for the period starting from the first day of the assessment year to the date of grant of refund. No interest is, however, payable if the excess payment is less than 10 percent of tax determined u/s. 143(1) or on regular assessment. No interest is payable for the period for which the proceedings resulting in the refund are delayed for the reasons attributable to the assessee (wholly or partly). The rate of interest and entitlement to interest on excess tax are determined by the statutory provisions of the Act. Interest payment is a statutory obligation and non- discretionary in nature to the assessee. In tune with the aforesaid general principle, section 244A is drafted and enacted.

‘A “tax refund” is a refund of taxes when the tax liability is less than the tax paid. As per the old section an assessee was entitled for payment of interest on the amount of taxes refunded pursuant to an order passed under the Act, including the order passed in an appeal. In the present fact scenario, the deductor/assessee had paid taxes pursuant to a special order passed by the assessing officer/ Income Tax Officer. In the appeal filed against the said order the assessee has succeeded and a direction is issued by the appellate authority to refund the tax paid. The amount paid by the resident/ deductor was retained by the Government till a direction was issued by the appellate authority to refund the same. When the said amount is refunded it should carry interest in the matter of course. As held by the Courts while awarding interest, it is a kind of compensation of use and retention of the money collected unauthorizedly by the Department. When the collection is illegal, there is corresponding obligation on the revenue to refund such amount with interest  in as much as they have retained and enjoyed the money deposited. Even the Department has understood the object behind insertion of section 244A, as that, an assessee is entitled to payment of interest for money remaining with the Government which would be refunded. There is no reason to restrict the same to an assessee only without extending the similar benefit to a resident/ deductor who has deducted tax at source and deposited the same before remitting the amount payable to a non-resident/ foreign company.

Providing for payment of interest in case of refund of amounts paid as tax or deemed tax or advance tax is a method now statutorily adopted by fiscal legislation to ensure that the aforesaid amount of tax which has been duly paid in prescribed time and provisions in that behalf form part of the recovery machinery provided in a taxing Statute. Refund due and payable to the assessee is debt-owed and payable by the Revenue. The Government, there being no express statutory provision for payment of interest on the refund of excess amount/tax collected by the Revenue, cannot shrug off its apparent obligation to reimburse the deductors lawful monies with the accrued interest for the period of undue retention of such monies. The State having received the money without right, and having retained  and  used it, is bound to make the party good, just as an individual would be under like circumstances. The obligation to refund money received and retained without right implies and carries with it the right to interest. Whenever money has been received by a party which ex aequo et bono ought to be refunded, the right to interest follows, as a matter of course.

The view that interest is payable under clause (b) of section 244A(1) only where tax is paid pursuant to a notice  of  demand  u/s.  156,  based  on  interpretation of the Explanation to clause (b) is clearly contradictory  to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of   Tata   Chemicals   (supra),   where   the    Supreme Court held as under:

In the present case, it is not in doubt that the payment of tax made by resident/ depositor is in excess and the department chooses to  refund the excess payment of tax to the depositor. We have held the interest requires to be paid on such refunds. The catechise is from what date interest is payable, since the present case does not fall either under clause (a) or (b) of section 244A of the Act. In the absence of an express provision  as contained in clause (a), it cannot be said that the interest is payable from the  1st  of April  of the assessment year. Simultaneously, since  the said payment is not made pursuant to a notice issued u/s. 156 of the Act, Explanation to clause (b) has no application. In such cases, as the opening words of clause (b) specifically referred to “as in any other case”, the interest is payable from the date of payment of tax. The sequel of our discussion is the resident/deductor is entitled not only the refund of tax deposited under Section 195(2) of the Act, but has to be refunded with interest from the date of payment of such tax.

The view, that the language of section 244A is clear and unambiguous, and that the CBDT circular therefore need not be referred to for its interpretation, also does not seem to be justified, given the contrary view on the issue taken by several High Courts (including by the Division Bench of the Dellhi court in Sutlej Industries case ) in the matter. It is a well-established  principle  that  circulars  issued by the CBDT are binding on the assessing officer, and therefore an assessing officer cannot take a view contrary to that expressed by the CBDT to deny the benefit to an assessee. CBDT circular number 549 of 1989 clarifies as under:

“11.4 The provisions of the new section 244A are as under:—

(i)    Sub-section (1) provides that where in pursuance of any order passed under this Act, refund of any amount becomes due to the assessee then—

(a)    if the refund is out of any advance tax paid or tax deducted at source during the  financial year immediately preceding the assessment year, interest shall be payable for the period starting from the 1st April of the assessment year and on the date of grant of the refund. No interest shall, however, be payable, if the amount of refund is less than 10 per cent of the tax determined on regular assessment;
(b)    if the refund is out of any tax, other than advance tax or tax deducted at source or penalty, interest shall be payable for the period starting from the date of payment of such tax or penalty and ending on the date of the grant of the refund. (Refer to example III in para 11.8).”

Very often, taxpayers apprehend that there could be litigation on certain claims for deduction made in the return of income, and prefer to pay a slightly higher amount of tax so that they do not end up paying interest in case  the claim is denied. This cannot be said to be a voluntary payment, since it is on account of the excessive tendency towards litigation of the tax department in recent times.

The facts in Engineer India’s case seem to indicate that it was only the claim for interest u/s. 244A which was made in appeal proceedings and not the claim of refund for the first time as seems to be believed by the court.   In any case, a payment of tax whenever made, cannot be considered to be a voluntary payment, as a rule.     No taxpayer would voluntarily want to pay higher taxes than he is likely to be liable to ultimately pay, given the difficulties in obtaining refunds from the tax department and the low rate of interest paid on refunds.

Therefore, the view taken by the Bombay, Madras, Karnataka, and Punjab and Haryana High Courts, and the Delhi High Court in the case of Sutlej Industries, to the effect that interest is payable u/s. 244A on refund of self-assessment tax paid by an assessee, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Taxability of Carbon Credits

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Synopsis
Purchase and Sale of Carbon Credits is undertaken globally as a part of the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), which is targeted towards reduction of Green Houses Gases in the atmosphere. Under this mechanism, Carbon Credits are purchased and sold for a consideration. The taxability of the gains arising from such sale have been a matter of litigation. The esteemed authors have analysed the conflicting decision and discussed the intricate points related to the taxability under the Income-tax Act, 1961 of the consideration received on the sales of these credits.

Issue
To limit concentration of Green House Gases (GHGs), in the atmosphere, for addressing the problem of global warming, the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted in 1992. Subsequently, to supplement the convention, the Kyoto Protocol came into force in February 2005, which sets limits on the maximum amount of emission of GHGs by countries. The Kyoto Protocol commits certain developed countries to reduce their GHG emissions. In order to enable the developed countries to meet their emission reduction targets, the Kyoto Protocol provides three market-based mechanisms, one of which is the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).

Under the CDM, a developed country can take up a GHG reduction project activity in a developing/least developed country where the cost of GHG reduction is usually much lower, and in consideration for undertaking the activity the developed country would be given carbon credits for meeting its emission reduction targets. Alternatively, entities in developing/least developed countries can set up a GHG reduction project, in their respective countries, get it approved by UNFCCC and earn carbon credits. Such carbon credits generated, by the entities in the developing/least developed country, can be bought, for a consideration, by the entities of the developed countries responsible for emission reduction targets. Under the CDM, carbon credits are measured in terms of Certified Emission Reduction (CER) where one CER is equal to 1 metric tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent, and for which a certificate is issued, which certificate is saleable.

The question has arisen, under the Indian tax laws, as to whether the consideration received by an entity for sale of carbon credits generated by it is of a capital nature or a revenue nature, and whether such amount is taxable or not. Incidental questions are whether such income is eligible for deduction under chapter VIA and whether it is liable for MAT. While the Hyderabad, Jaipur and the Chennai benches of the tribunal have taken the view that sale proceeds of carbon credits are not taxable, being capital receipts arising out of environmental concerns and not out of the business, the Cochin bench of the tribunal has taken the view that the sale proceeds of such carbon credits are taxable as a benefit arising out of business.

My Home Power’s case
The issue first arose for consideration before the Hyderabad bench of the tribunal in the case of My Home Power Ltd vs. Dy. CIT 21 ITR (Trib) 186.

In this case, the company was engaged in the business of power generation through biomass power generation unit. During the relevant year, it received 1,74,037 Carbon Emission Reduction Certificates (CERs) or carbon credits for the project activity of switching off fossil fuel from naphtha and diesel to biomass. It sold 1,70,556 CERs to a foreign company and received Rs. 12.87 crore. It accounted this receipt as capital in nature and did not offer it for taxation.

The assessing officer treated the sale proceeds of the CERs to be a revenue receipt, since they were a tradable commodity, and even quoted on stock exchanges. He accordingly added a net receipt of Rs. 11.75 crore to the returned income. The Commissioner(Appeals) confirmed the order of the assessing officer and further held that it was not income from business and was therefore not entitled for deduction u/s. 80-IA.

Before the Tribunal, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that the main business activity of the assessee was generation of biomass-based power. The receipt had no relationship with the process of production, nor was it connected with the sale of power or with the raw material consumed. It was also not the sale proceeds of any by-product. It was further argued that CERs were issued to every industry, which saved emission of carbon, and was not limited to power projects. Further, the certificates were issued keeping in view the production relating to periods prior to the previous year. It was claimed that the amount was not compensation for loss suffered in the process of production or for expenditure incurred in acquisition of capital assets.

It was further argued that the certificates issued by the UNFCCC under the Kyoto protocol only recognised the achievement made by the assessee in emitting lesser quantity of gases than the assigned quantity, and had no relation to either revenue or capital expenditure incurred by the assessee. The certificate itself did not have any value unless there were other industries which were in need of such certificate, and was not dependent on production. In a hypothetical situation where all the industries in the world were able to limit emissions of gases to the assigned level, it was argued that there would be no value for such certificates issued by UNFCCC.

It was claimed that the process of business commenced from purchase of raw material and ended with the sale of finished products, and that the gain was not earned in any of the in-between processes, nor did it represent receipt to compensate the loss suffered in the process. Therefore, the amount did not represent any income in the process or during the course of business. It was also claimed that the amount did not represent subsidy for establishing the industry or for purchase of raw material or a capital asset. UNFCCC did not reimburse either revenue or capital expenditure, and in fact did not provide any funds, but merely certified that the industry emitted a particular quantity of gases as against the permissible quantity. It was therefore not a subsidy granted to reimburse losses. In fact, no payment was made by UNFCCC, but only a certificate was issued without any consideration of profit or loss or the cost of acquisition of capital assets.

It was also argued that the amount could not be considered to be a perquisite, as it was not received from any person having a business connection with the company, and was not received in the process of carrying on the business. It was claimed that unless there existed a business connection, no benefit or perquisite could be derived.

It was also claimed that the amount did not fall within the definition of income u/s. 2(24). It did not represent an incentive granted in the process of business activity, as the amount was not received under any scheme framed by the government or anybody to benefit the industry or to reimburse either the cost of the raw material or the cost of capital asset. The amount was not an award for the revenue loss suffered by the company, as it was granted without relevance to the financial gains or losses. The payment was made without any relevance to the financial transactions of the assessee and there was no consideration for paying this amount. The amount was paid in the interest of the international community and not in the interest of industry as such, or in the interest of the assessee as a compensation for the loss or expenditure during the course of business, and was therefore a sort of gift given by UNFCCC for the distinction achieved by the assessee in achieving emission of lesser amount of gases than the assigned amount. It was therefore not an income within the meaning of section 2(24) or section 28.

Reliance was placed on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Sterling Foods 237 ITR 579, for the proposition that just as certificates issued by the government for export of goods which were capable of sale, was held as not arising from the industrial undertaking, but from the export promotion scheme of the government, so also such CER certificates were attributable to the climatic protection scheme of the UNFCCC, which had no relevance to the business activities of the assessee.

It was further pointed out that under the draft Direct Taxes Code (DTC), such items were regarded as income, yet no amendment had been made to the Income-tax Act to bring such items to tax as income. Therefore, the intention of Parliament was not to tax such CERs till such time as DTC came into force.

It was pointed out that in the case of subsidies, subsidies received on revenue account alone would be taxed as income, while subsidies received on capital account were not to be taxed, but would be reduced from the cost of the capital asset for the purposes of claiming depreciation. Further, subsidy received for the public good was held as not taxable. In the case of the assessee, the amount did not represent composition for loss on revenue account, nor a gain during business activities, nor a reimbursement of any capital expenditure. It was claimed that the amount received was for public good and was therefore not taxable.

Besides claiming that it was a capital receipt, it was alternatively claimed that the income was not assessable for the relevant assessment year, since it related to reduction of carbon emissions during earlier years, that the amount was eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA since the assessing officer was of the view that it was connected to the production of power and that, if it all it was to be taxed, the expenditure relatable to earning certificates had to be arrived at by taking into consideration the assets used and the materials consumed in the earlier years and such amount had to be reduced from the gross receipts to arrive at the taxable amount.

On behalf of the revenue, it was argued that the underlying intention behind the technological implementation by a company in the developing world is not only to reduce the pollution of atmosphere, but also to earn some profit from out of excess units that can be generated by implementation of the CDM project. It was claimed that the CER credits can be considered as goods, as they had all the attributes of goods, viz. utility, capability of being bought and sold, and capability of being transmitted, transferred, delivered, stored and possessed. According to the revenue, the purchase agreement between the assessee and the foreign company indicated that the sale transaction of CERs was nothing but a transaction in goods.

It was further argued on behalf of the revenue that by implementing the CDM project, the assessee got the benefit of efficiency in respect of reduction of pollution. Had there been no other benefits attached to it, under normal circumstances, the assessee would not have bothered to obtain CERs. It was because of the expenditure incurred for implementation of the project as a pollution reduction measure that the assessee got the benefit of the certificates. The expenditure incurred was claimed in its profit and loss account. Since it was known that the UNFCCC certificates had intrinsic value and had a ready market for redemption or trading, the assessee obviously pursued obtaining of these certificates. Further, these certificates were traded and were therefore akin to shares or stocks transacted in the stock exchange, and were therefore revenue receipts rightly brought to tax by the assessing officer.

The Tribunal observed that carbon credits were in the nature of an entitlement received to improve world atmosphere and environment, reducing carbon, heat and gas emissions. According to the Tribunal, the entitlement earned for carbon credits could at best be regarded as a capital receipt and could not be taxed as a revenue receipt. It was not generated or created due to carrying on of business, but it accrued due to world concern. Its availability and assumption of the character of transferable right or entitlement was only due to the world concern.Therefore, the source of carbon credits was world concern and environment, to which the assessee got a privilege in the nature of transfer of carbon credits. Therefore, the amount received for carbon credits had no element of profit or gain and could not be subject to tax in any manner under any head of income.

According to the Tribunal, carbon credits were made available to the assessee on account of saving of energy consumption and not because of its business. Transferable carbon credits was not a result or incidence of one’s business but was a credit for reduction of emissions. In its view, carbon credits could not be considered to be a by-product. It was a credit given to the assessee under the Kyoto Protocol and because of international understanding. According to the Tribunal, the amount received was not received for producing and selling any product, by-product or of rendering any service in the course of carrying on of the business, but was an entitlement or accretion of capital, and hence income earned on sale of these credits was a capital receipt.

The Tribunal relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Maheshwari Devi Jute Mills Ltd. 57 ITR 36, where it was held that consideration for transfer of surplus loom hours by one mill to another mill under an agreement for control of production was a capital receipt and not an income. It was held that such sale proceeds was on account of exploitation of a capital asset, and it was a capital receipt and not an income. According to the Tribunal, the consideration received by the assessee for carbon credits was similar to the consideration received by transfer of loom hours.

Accordingly, the Tribunal held that carbon credits was not an offshoot of business, but an offshoot of environmental concerns, and that carbon credits did not increase profits in any manner and did not need any expenses. It was a nature of entitlement to reduce carbon emissions, with no cost of acquisition or cost of production to get such entitlement. Therefore, carbon credits was not in the nature of profit or in the nature of income, but a capital receipt.

The view taken by the Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal in this decision was followed by the Chennai bench of the tribunal in the cases of Ambika Cotton Mills Ltd vs. Dy CIT 27 ITR (Trib) 44 and Sri Velayudhaswamy Spinning Mills (P) Ltd vs. Dy CIT 27 ITR (Trib) 106 and recently, the Jaipur bench in the case of Shree Cements Ltd. vs. ACIT, 31 ITR(Trib) 513 has followed the decisions of the Chennai bench.

    Apollo Tyres’ case

The issue again came up before the Cochin bench of the Tribunal in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. vs. ACIT 149 ITD 756, 31 ITR(Trib) 477.

In this case, the assessee received Rs. 3.12 crore from sale of CERs or carbon credits generated in the gas turbine unit. The assessee claimed that the income earned on sale of carbon credits was directly and inextricably linked to generation of power and that the assessee would therefore be entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA. However, the assessing officer and the DRP held that the income was not derived from eligible business and was therefore not eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IA.

Before the Tribunal, the assessee raised an additional ground that the income received on sale of carbon credits was in the nature of capital receipt, and therefore not liable for taxation.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued before the tribunal that the entitlement to carbon credits arose from the undertaking of the developed countries to reduce global warming and climate change mitigation across the world. It was claimed that carbon credits was an incentive provided to a project which employed a methodology to effect demonstrable and measurable reduction of emission of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The mechanism provided for trading CERs provided an opportunity to the holder of such certificate to dispose of the same to an actual user to acquire such credit to be counted toward fulfilment of its committed target reduction. Therefore, the mechanism provided by the United Nations provided an incentive for employment of new technology which helped in emission reduction, and therefore contributed to the desired object to protect the world environment. The purpose of Kyoto protocol was to protect the global environment and incorporate green initiative by adopting new technologies. The underlying object of CERs by the UNFCCC was focused on climate change mitigation by reducing the harmful effect of GHG emission and not to ensure that the recipient of such CER could run his business in a more profitable or cost effective manner.

It was argued on behalf of the assessee that all capital receipts were not income, but only capital gains chargeable u/s. 45 by virtue of the specific definition contained in section 2(24) (vi). Reliance was placed on the decision of the Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal in the case of My Home Power Ltd. (supra) for the proposition that the amount received on transfer of carbon credits was a capital receipt, and therefore not liable for taxation. It was alternatively argued that in case the tribunal found that the income on sale of carbon credits was a revenue receipt, then the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA, because it was inextricably linked to the business of the assessee.

On behalf of the revenue, it was argued that income or amount received by termination or sterilisation of a capital asset would fall in the capital field, but if the amount was received in the course of regular business activity due to sale of a product or entitlement incentive received due to a scheme of the government or the international community, then it would fall in the revenue field. According to the revenue, in the case before the tribunal, there was no sterilisation of any capital asset. The assessee generated power by using a gas turbine. What was given to the assessee was an incentive in the course of its regular business and therefore the amount received on sale of carbon credits had to be treated as a revenue receipt.

It was further submitted that the income on sale of carbon credits was not derived from the industrial undertaking. Though there might be a nexus between the business of the assessee and the receipt of income on sale of carbon credits, the income had to be necessarily derived from the industrial undertaking. In the case before the Tribunal, the income was derived on account of the scheme of the UNFCCC and not from the industrial undertaking. It was therefore argued that the assessee was not entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IA.

The Tribunal analysed the concept of carbon credits. According to it, carbon credits was nothing but an incentive given to an industrial undertaking for reduction of the emission of GHGs, including carbon dioxide. It noted that there were several ways for reduction of emission of GHGs, such as by switching over to wind and solar energy, forest regeneration, installation of energy-efficient machinery, landfill methane capture, etc. According to the Tribunal, it was obvious that carbon credits was nothing but a measurement given to the amount of GHG emission rates in the atmosphere in the process of industrialisation, manufacturing activity, etc. Therefore, carbon credits was a privilege/entitlement given to industries for reducing the emission of GHGs in the course of their industrial activity.

While considering whether the receipt was a capital receipt or a revenue receipt, the Tribunal analysed the decision of the Hyderabad bench of the tribunal in the case of My Home Power Ltd. (supra). It noted that the Tribunal in that case had placed reliance on the judgement of the Supreme Court in Maheshwari Devi Jute Mills Ltd. (supra), and that it had held that the amount received on sale of carbon credits was on sale of entitlement conferred on the assessee by UNFCCC under Kyoto Protocol. It also noted that sale of carbon credits did not result in sterilisation of any capital asset.

Analysing the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Maheshwari Devi Jute Mills Ltd. (supra), the Cochin bench of the Tribunal noted that in the case before the Supreme Court, it was accepted by the revenue at the lower levels that the loom hours were assets belonging to each member and that it was only at the Supreme Court level, that the revenue contended that the loom hour was a privilege, and not an asset. The Supreme Court did not consider the aspect of whether the loom hours was a capital asset, since it had been accepted to be a capital asset, right up to the proceedings before the High Court, and a change in stand was not permitted by the Supreme Court. It was based on these facts that the Supreme Court held that the receipt on sale of loom hours must be regarded as capital receipt and not as income. The Tribunal according held that the said decision did not really help the case of the assesee as it was delivered on the facts of the case and therefore found that the Hyderabad bench was unduly influenced by the said decision of the Supreme Court in concluding that the carbon credits were capital assets.

The Cochin bench of the Tribunal noted that in the case before it, right from the assessment proceedings before the assessing officer till before the Tribunal, the assessee had not made any claim that the carbon credit was a capital asset as defined in section 2(14). Further, the assessee had claimed deduction u/s. 80-IA in respect of sale of carbon credits. Therefore, the assessee had effectively conceded that carbon credits were not capital assets. According to the Tribunal, had the assessee claimed that the carbon credits were capital assets, it would not have claimed deduction u/s. 80-IA on the income derived from sale of the carbon credits. The Tribunal observed that the assessee itself treated the carbon credits as an entitlement or privilege generated in the course of business activity.

The Tribunal noted that the assessee was engaged in the business of manufacture of tyres and for the purpose of captive consumption, the assessee generated electric power by using a gas turbine. In the process of power generation, the assessee reduced emission of carbon dioxide and therefore received carbon credits. According to the Tribunal, it was obvious that carbon credits were obtained by the assessee in the course of its business activity. The Tribunal was of the view that when the carbon credits was an entitlement or privilege accruing to the assessee in the course of carrying on of manufacturing activity, it could not be said that such carbon credits was an accretion of a capital asset. It noted that carbon credits was not a fixed asset or tool of the assessee to carry on its business. According to it, the sale of carbon credits was a trading or revenue receipt.

The Tribunal also considered the aspect of whether import entitlement was at par with carbon credits. It noted that both import entitlements and carbon credits came from a scheme, one of the government and one of the UNFCCC under the Kyoto protocol. It was therefore of the view that both were on par. Following the decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of OK Industries vs. CIT 42 CTR 82, which had held that import entitlement was generated in the course of business activity and could not be treated as an asset within the meaning of section 2(14), the Tribunal held that carbon credits also could not be treated as capital assets.

The Cochin bench of the Tribunal observed that the provisions of section 28(iv) read with section 2(24)(vd), which brought to tax the value of any benefit or privilege arising from business, were not brought to the notice of the Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal in the case of My Home Power Ltd. (supra), and that therefore that decision was not applicable to the case before it.

The Tribunal therefore held that the sale of carbon credits constituted revenue receipts and profits and gains of the business u/s. 28(iv) read with section 2(24)(vd).

    Observations

Sale proceeds of carbon credits have not been specifically included in section 28, or in the definition of income u/s. 2(24). The legislature when desired, has amended the Income-tax Act to include certain specific receipts as income, even though the character of such receipts may not necessarily be in the nature of income. For instance, profits on sale of import entitlements and certain other specified receipts are specifically included as an income u/s. 28(iiia) to (iiie) read with section 2(24)(va) to (ve). Similarly, amounts received under an agreement for not carrying out any activity in relation to business is specifically taxable u/s. 28(va) read with section 2(24)(xii). The Cochin bench of the Tribunal does not seem to have considered this important fact of the omission, to expressly provide for the taxation of the carbon credits, which fact convey the intent of the legislature to not expose such receipts to taxation, which intent is further strengthened by clause(ii) to the proviso to section 28(va).

There is a specific exclusion, from taxation, under the clause(ii) to the proviso to section 28(va) for compensation received from the multilateral fund of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer under the United Nations Environment Programme. Such compensation is similar in character to carbon credits, in the sense that both are received under a multilateral convention for protection of the environment for doing or not doing a particular activity, which results in environment improvement. The intention therefore appears to be not to tax such amounts, since these are rewards for benefiting the world and public in general.

The Cochin bench of the Tribunal seems to have been largely influenced by the fact that the assessee, in the initial stages before the tax authorities, had taken the stand that the amount was taxable and was relatable to its power generation business. It therefore proceeded on the footing that the assessee itself had considered the carbon credits as the receipts arising from its power generation business.

The fact that carbon credits are transferable or that they are traded on stock exchanges is irrelevant for deciding the fact as to whether they are capital receipts or revenue receipts. Similarly, it is not necessary that all benefits arising from business activity are of a revenue nature. For instance, by carrying on business, goodwill or a brand may be generated, which is of a capital nature. In fact the various receipts, now specifically made taxable under different clauses of section 28 aforesaid, are the cases of business receipts in the nature of capital, that are made taxable under specific legislation.

The real issue is whether the carbon credits, even where regarded as benefits or perquisites, arise from the business? The Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal, relied on the Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Sterling Foods (supra) to take a view that the export entitlements did not arise from the business of the industrial undertaking, but from the scheme of the Government. The view of the Cochin bench of the Tribunal, however meritorious, that the carbon credits arose on account of the manner in which the business was carried on, and was not totally divorced from the business activity, is at the most debatable. Considering the importance of the environment protection and the need to promote the measures to protect it, the Government should specifically amend the law if it believes that the carbon credits are taxable as income. In fact, the intention seems to have been to tax it once the DTC came into force, as the draft DTC had provisions for taxing such amount. If the intention is to tax it now, the Income-tax Act needs to be amended on the lines of Clauses (va) to (ve) of section 2(24) and Clauses (iiia) to (iiie) of section 28 for that purpose.

However, for the time being, the issue seems to have been concluded in favour of the assessee, by the Andhra Pradesh High Court, which approved the decision of the Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal in the case of CIT vs. My Home Power Ltd., 365 ITR 82. The Andhra Pradesh High Court agreed with the findings of the Tribunal that carbon credit is not an offshoot of business, but an offshoot of environmental concerns, and that no asset is generated in the course of business, but is generated due to environmental concerns. According to the High Court, the carbon credit was not even directly linked with power generation. The High Court held that the amount received on sale of excess carbon credits, was a capital receipt, and not a business receipt or income.

Acceptance and Repayment of Loans & Deposits – Applicability Journal Entries

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Issue For Consideration

Section
269SS of the Income-tax Act provides that no person shall take or accept
any loan or deposit otherwise than by an account payee cheque or bank
draft or by use of ECS through a bank account if the amount or the
aggregate of amounts of loan or deposit is twenty thousand rupees or
more. Likewise, section 269T provides that any loan or deposit shall be
repaid by an account payee cheque or bank draft drawn in the name of the
person who has made the loan or deposit or by use of ECS through a bank
account, if the amount of loan or deposit together with interest is Rs.
20,000 or more.

A violation of the provisions of section 269SS
attracts the penalty u/s. 271D and of section 269T attracts the penalty
u/s. 271E of an amount that is equivalent to the amount of loan or
deposit taken or repaid. No penalty however, is leviable where the
person is found to be prevented by a reasonable cause for the failure to
comply with the provisions of section 269Ss or section 269T in terms of
section 273B of the Act.

These sections list certain exceptions
wherein the specified transactions shall not be regarded as in
violation of the provisions. None of the exceptions specifically exclude
the transactions that are settled by an accounting entry or adjustment
of accounts. This has led to a controversy in a case where a transaction
of a loan or a deposit is executed or settled by a journal entry not
involving any movement of cash or funds. The Bombay High Court has held
that repayment of a loan by settlement of account through a journal
entry violated the provisions of section 269T while the Delhi High Court
has held otherwise.

Triumph International Finance(I) Ltd .’s case
In
CIT vs. Triumph International Finance (I) Limited, 345 ITR 270(Bom),
the High Court was asked by the Revenue to consider the following
question;

“Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case, the Tribunal was justified in law in holding that transactions
effected through journal entries in the books of the assessee would not
amount to repayment of any loan or deposit otherwise than by account
payee cheque or account payee bank draft within the meaning of section
269T to attract levy of penalty u/s. 271E of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

The
assessee, a Public Limited Company, a member of the NSE and a Category I
Merchant Banker, registered with SEBI, which was engaged in the
business of shares, stock broking, investment and trading in shares and
securities had accepted a sum of Rs. 4,29,04,722/- as and by way of
loan/inter-corporate deposit from the Investment Trust of India before
1st April, 2002, which was repayable during the assessment year
2003-2004. On 3rd October, 2002, it had transferred 1,99,300 shares of
Rashal Agrotech Limited, held by it, to the Investment Trust of India
for an aggregate consideration of Rs.4,28,99,325/-. As a result, the
assessee, on one hand, was liable to repay the loan/ inter-corporate
deposit amounting to Rs. 4,29,04,722/- to the Investment Trust of India
and on the other hand, to receive Rs. 4,28,99,325/- from the Investment
Trust of India towards sale price of the shares of Rashal Agrotech
Limited sold to the Investment Trust of India.

Instead of
repaying the loan/inter-corporate deposit to the Investment Trust of
India and separately receiving the sale price of the shares from the
Investment Trust of India, both the parties agreed that the amounts
payable/ receivable be set-off in the respective books of account by
making journal entries and the balance be paid by account payee cheque.
Accordingly, after setting off of the mutual claims through journal
entries, the balance amount of Rs. 5,397/- due and payable by the
assessee to the Investment Trust of India was paid by a crossed cheque
dated 19th February, 2003 drawn on Citibank.

It had filed its
return of income declaring loss of Rs. 17,27,21,815/- for the assessment
year 2003-2004. The assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) determining
the loss at Rs. 9,84,92,500/-.

Relying on the comments in the Tax
Audit Report regarding repayment of loan/inter-corporate deposit,
otherwise than by an account payee cheque or draft, the AO issued a
show-cause notice u/s. 271E, calling upon the assessee to show cause as
to why action should not be taken against the assessee for violating the
provisions of section 269T of the Act.

The detailed reply
however, was ignored by the AO who by an order dated 21st March, 2006
passed under section 271E of the Act, on the basis of the report of the
Joint Parliamentary Committee of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the Stock
Market Scam, imposed penalty amounting to Rs. 4,28,99,325/- on the
ground that the assessee had repaid the loan/inter-corporate deposit to
the extent of Rs. 4,28,99,325/- in contravention of the provisions of
section 269T of the Act.

On appeal filed by the assessee, the
Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the penalty levied by the AO. On
further appeal filed by the assessee, the Tribunal allowed the appeal by
following its decisions in some of the group cases, and held that the
payment through journal entries did not fall within the ambit of section
269SS or 269T of the Act and consequently no penalty could be levied
either u/s. 271D or 271E of the Act.

The Revenue, in its appeal
to the High Court, submitted that the assessee belonged to the Ketan
Parekh Group, which was involved in the securities scam. It submitted
that the Ketan Parekh Group was found to be indulging in large scale
manipulation of prices of select scrips through fraudulent use of bank
and other public funds and had flouted all the norms of risk management
by making transactions through a large number of entities so as to hide
the nexus between the sources of funds and their ultimate use with the
sole motive of evading tax. It was further submitted that since the
language of section 269T of the Act was clear and unambiguous, the
tribunal ought to have held that repayment of the loan/inter-corporate
deposit otherwise than by account payee cheque or demand draft was in
violation of the provisions of section 269T of the Act and, hence, the
penalty imposed u/s. 271E of the Act was justified.

The
assessee, on the other hand, submitted that section 269T of the Act was
enacted to curb the menace of giving false explanation of the
unaccounted money found during the course of search and seizure; that
the bonafide transaction of repayment of loan or deposit by way of
adjustment through book entries carried out in the ordinary course of
business would not come within the mischief of the provisions of section
269T of the Act; the legislative history as also the circulars issued
by the CBDT confirmed that the provisions were not meant to hit genuine
transactions and the legislative intent was to mitigate any unintended
hardships caused by the provisions to genuine transactions; that in the
present case, genuineness of the transactions entered into by the
assessee with the Investment Trust of India was not in doubt; that no
additions on account of the transactions had been made in the regular
assessment; section 269T postulated that if a loan or deposit was repaid
by an outflow of funds, the same had to be by an account payee cheque
or demand draft and that discharge of the debt in the nature of loan or
deposit in a manner otherwise than by an outflow of funds would not be
hit by the provisions of section 269T.

The assessee  further submitted that instead of repaying the amount by account payee cheque/demand  draft  and receiving back the amount by way of demand draft/cheque, the parties, as and by way of commercial prudence, had settled the account by netting off the accounts and paid the balance by account payee cheque. relying on a decision of the apex Court in the case of J.

B.    Boda and Company P. Limited, 223 ITR 271(SC), it was submitted that the two-way traffic of forwarding bank draft and receiving back more or less same amount by way of bank draft was unnecessary and, therefore, in the facts of the present case, no fault could be found with the repayment of loan through journal entries. it was also submitted that the plain reading of section 269t, that each and every loan or deposit had to be repaid only by an account payee cheque or draft if accepted, would lead to absurdity because, by such interpretation not only mala fide transactions, but even genuine transactions would be affected.

Relying on the judgments of the apex Court in the cases of Kum. A. B. Shanti, 255 ITR 258 (SC) and J. H. Gotla, 156 ITR 323, the assessee submitted that if a strict and literal construction of a statute led to an absurd result, a result not intended to be subserved by the object of the legislation as ascertained from the scheme of the legislation and, if
another construction was possible apart from the strict and literal construction, then, that construction should be preferred to strict literal construction.

Inviting the attention of the court to the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure and the books on accountancy, the assessee submitted that set-off of the claim/counter- claim otherwise than by account-payee cheque or bank draft was legally permissible in commercial transactions as also in the accounting practice. therefore, it must be held that genuine transactions like the transaction in the present case involving repayment of loan through journal entries did not violate section 269t of the act.

In any event, it was contended that having regard to the commercial dealings between the parties it must be held that there was reasonable cause for repaying the loan through journal entries. in view of section 273B of the act, penalty was not imposable u/s. 271 e of the act. In support of the above contention, reliance was placed on the decisions of the high Courts in the cases of Noida Toll Bridge Company Limited, 262 ITR 260 (Del.), Shree Ambica Flour Mills Corporation) 6 DTR 169 (Guj.) and Motta Constructions P. Limited, 338 ITR 66 (Bom.).

On careful consideration of the rival submissions, the court observed that the basic question to be considered in  the  appeal  was  whether  repayment  of  loan  of  Rs. 4,28,99,325/- by making journal entries in the books of account maintained by the assessee was in contravention of section 269t of the act, and, if so, for failure to comply with the provisions of Section 269T, the assessee was liable for penalty u/s. 271e of the act.

The court observed that the argument advanced by the counsel for the assessee that the bonafide transaction of repayment of loan/deposit by way of adjustment through book entries carried out in the ordinary course of business would not come within the mischief of section 269t could not be accepted, because, the section did  not make  any distinction between the bonafide and non-bonafide transactions and required the entities specified therein not to make repayment of any loan/deposit together with the interest, if any otherwise than by an account payee cheque/bank draft if the amount of loan/deposit, with interest if any, exceeded the limits prescribed therein. Similarly, the argument that only in cases where any loan or deposit was repaid by an outflow of funds, section 269t  provided  for  repayment  by  an  account  payee cheque/draft, could not be accepted because section 269t neither referred to the repayment of loan/deposit by outflow of funds nor referred to any of other permissible modes of repayment of loan/deposit, but merely provided for an embargo on repayment of loan/deposit except by the modes specified therein. Therefore, in the case before it, where loan/deposit had been repaid by debiting the account through journal entries, it must be held that the assessee had contravened the provisions of section 269t of the act.

The court found that the reliance on the decision of the apex court in the case of J. B. Boda & Company P. Limited (supra) was misplaced as the aforesaid decision had no relevance to the facts of the present case, because, section 80-o and section 269t operated in completely different fields. The object of section 80-O was to encourage Indian Companies to develop technical knowhow and make it available to foreign companies and foreign enterprises so as to augment the foreign exchange earnings, whereas, the object of section 269t was to counteract evasion of tax.  for  section  80-o,  receiving  income  in  convertible foreign exchange is the basic requirement, where as, for section 269t, compliance of the conditions set out therein is the basic requirement. Section 80-O does not prescribe any particular mode for receiving the convertible foreign exchange,   whereas,   section   269t   bars   repayment of loan or deposit by any mode other than the mode stipulated under that section and for contravention of section 269t penalty is imposable u/s. 271e of the act. In these circumstances, the decision of the apex Court rendered in the context of section 80-o cannot be applied while interpreting the provisions of section 269t of the act.

The  high  Court  further  noted  that  on  reading  section 269t, 271e and 273B together, it became clear that  u/s. 269T it was mandatory for the persons specified therein to repay loan/deposit only by account payee cheque/draft if the amount of loan/deposit together with interest, if any, exceeded the limits prescribed therein; non-compliance of the provisions of section 269t rendered the person liable for penalty u/s. 271e in the absence of the reasonable cause for failure to comply with the provisions of section 269t of the act.

The court refused to accept the argument advanced on behalf of the assessee that if section 269t was construed literally, it would lead to absurdity, because, repayment  of loan/deposit by account payee cheque/bank draft was the most common mode of repaying the loan/deposit and making such common method as mandatory did not lead to any absurdity. Having held so, the court however observed that, in some cases, genuine business constraints necessitated repayment of loan/deposit by a mode other than the mode  prescribed  u/s.  269t  and  to  cater  to  the  needs of such exigencies, the legislature had enacted section 273B which provided that no penalty u/s. 271e should be imposed for contravention of section 269t if reasonable cause for such contravention was shown. the court noted that in the present case, the cause shown by the assessee for repayment of the loan/deposit otherwise than by account-payee cheque/bank draft was reasonable, as it was on account of the fact that the assessee was liable to receive amount towards the sale price of the shares sold by the assessee to the person from whom loan/deposit was received by the assessee, in as much as it would have been an empty formality to repay the loan/deposit amount by account-payee cheque/draft and receive  back almost the same amount towards the sale price of the shares.

Neither the genuineness of the receipt of loan/deposit nor the transaction of repayment of loan by way of adjustment through book entries carried out in the ordinary course of business had been doubted in the regular assessment and there was nothing on record to suggest that the amounts  advanced  by  investment  trust  of  india  to  the assessee represented the unaccounted money of the investment trust of india or the assessee. The fact that the assessee company belonged to the Ketan Parekh Group which was involved in the securities scam could not be a ground for sustaining penalty and it was not in dispute that settling the claims by making journal entries in the respective books was also one of the recognised modes of repaying loan/deposit.

In  the  result,  the  court  held  that  the  tribunal  was  not justified in holding that repayment of loan/deposit through journal entries did not violate the provisions of section 269T of the Act. However, in the absence of any finding recorded in the assessment order or in the penalty order to the effect that the repayment of loan/deposit was not a bonafide transaction and was made with a view to evade tax, it was held that the cause shown by the assessee was a reasonable cause and, therefore, in view of section 273B of the act, no penalty u/s. 271e could be imposed for contravening the provisions of section 269t of the act.

Worldwide Township projects lTD.’s case
The issue   inter alia   recently arose for consideration of the delhi high Court in the case of CIT vs. Worldwide Townships Projects Ltd., 269 CTR 444, wherein the revenue challenged the order of the tribunal holding that the penalty order passed by the ao u/s. 271d of the act was unsustainable in law.

In this case, the assessee filed its return of income for the assessment year 2007-08 on 30-10-2007, which return was taken up for scrutiny. the ao found that during the year in question, the assessee had shown purchases of land  worth  rs.  14.22  crore,  which  had  remained  to  be paid at the end of the year. This was accordingly reflected as Sundry Creditors in the name of one PACL India Ltd., which had purchased lands on behalf of the assessee from several land owners on payments made by it through demand drafts to various land owners on behalf of the assessee.

The AO held  that the transactions amounted to extending of a loan to the assessee by PACL India Ltd and that the said transaction fell foul of the provisions of sections 269SS and 269T of the Act, since no funds had passed through the bank accounts of the assessee for acquisition of the lands. The ao levied a  penalty u/s.  271d holding the assesssee responsible for violation of the provisions of section 269SS for sums aggregating Rs.14,25,74,302/- that, in his view,  were transferred to the loan account    in the form of book entries, otherwise than through an account payee cheque or a account payee draft.

In the appeal by the assessee, the Cit (appeals), relying on the decision of the delhi high Court in the case of Noida Toll Bridge Co. Ltd,: 262 itr 260, disagreed with the findings of the AO and deleted the penalty in the given circumstances  of  the  case.  The  tribunal  held  that  the order passed by the ao was beyond the time permissible u/s. 275(1)(a) and was not tenable in law.

On a further appeal to the high Court by the revenue, the delhi high Court was unable to appreciate as to how, in the given circumstances of the case, there was an offence u/s. 269SS of the Act. The High Court observed that a plain reading of the provision indicated that the import of the above provision was limited and it applied only to a transaction where a deposit or a loan was accepted by an assessee, otherwise than by an account payee cheque or an account payee draft. the ambit of the section was clearly restricted to transactions involving acceptance of money and was not intended to affect cases where a debt or a liability arose on account of book entries. the object of the section was to prevent transactions in currency, which fact was also clearly explicit from Clause (iii) of the explanation to section 269SS of the Act, which defined  a loan or deposit to mean “loan or deposit of money.”  The liability recorded in the books of account by way of journal entries, i.e., crediting the account of a party to whom monies were payable or debiting the account of a party from whom monies were receivable in the books  of account, was clearly outside the ambit of the provision of section 269SS of the Act, because passing such entries did not involve acceptance of any loan or deposit of money. in the present case, admittedly  no  money was transacted other  than  through  banking  channels in as much as PACL India Ltd. made certain payments through banking channels to land owners on behalf of the assessee, which were recorded by the assessee in its books by crediting the account of PACL India Ltd, and in view of that admitted position, no infringement of section 269SS of the Act was made out.

The  delhi  high  Court  noted   that  the  court,  in  the  case of Noida Toll  Bridge Co. Ltd. (supra), had considered     a similar case where a company had paid money to the Government of Delhi for acquisition of a land on behalf  of the assessee therein. It noted that, in the said case, the ao had levied a penalty for alleged violation of the provisions of section 269SS, which was confirmed by the Commissioner(appeals), but was deleted by the tribunal. In an appeal by the Revenue, the High Court held as under:-

“While holding that the provisions of section 269SS of the Act were not attracted, the Tribunal has noticed that: (i) in the instant case, the transaction was by an account payee cheque, (ii) no payment on account was made in cash either by the assessee or on its behalf, (iii) no loan was accepted by the assessee in cash, and (iv) the payment of Rs. 4.85 crore made by the assessee through IL & FS, which holds more than 30% of the paid-up capital of the assessee, by journal entry in the books of account of the assessee by crediting the account of IL & FS. Having regard to the aforenoted findings, which are essentially findings of fact, we are in complete agreement with the Tribunal that the provisions of section 269SS were not attracted on the facts of the case. Admittedly, neither the assessee nor IL & FS had made any payment in cash. The order of the Tribunal does not give rise to any question of law, much less a substantial question of law.”

The  high  Court  accordingly  held  that  there  was  no violation of the provisions of section 269SS on passing of the journal entries for accepting a liability that arose on account of the payment made by a person on behalf of the assessee.

Observations.
Chapter XXB containing sections 269SS to section 269TT were introduced by the Income-tax (Second Amendment) act, 1981 with effect from 11th july, 1981 with a view to counter the evasion of tax. the object of the provisions are explained by the CBDT in its Circular no. 345 dated 28-06-1982 stating that the proliferation of black money posed a serious threat to the national economy and to counter that major economic evil, Chapter XXB was introduced.

It is apparent that the provisions were introduced to control the transactions in cash  and  where  found  to  be without reasonable cause, to punish the persons executing such transactions. any interpretation placed on these provisions shall have to factor in the objective behind the insertion of these provisions, a fact which has been the guiding factor for the judiciary, in case after case, while deciding the issues that routinely arise in applying the  provisions.  this  aspect  has  been  appreciated  by the Bombay high Court when it stated that settling the claims by making journal entries in the respective books was also one of the recognised modes of repaying loan/ deposit and once such settlement is found to be genuine, the question of levy of penalty does not arise. With this finding, in our opinion, the court accepted the principle that the non cash transactions were outside the scope of the set of the provisions, collectively read.

A literal interpretation of these provisions, also, in our respectful opinion, does not lead to bringing an accounting entry within the ambit of these provisions. a loan or deposit has to be ‘taken’ or ‘accepted’ or ‘repaid’ for attracting the provisions. there has to a receipt or a payment;  has to be received or paid. taking, accepting or repaying is a sine qua non of these provisions, failing which the provisions shall not apply. It is essential that this fact is established by the revenue before applying these provisions. these terms, when understood in common parlance, cannot by any stretch of imagination include the act of passing an accounting entry. In ordinary course, one does not take a loan by passing an accounting entry and so it is, in the case of a repayment. An accounting entry can pave a way for settlement or settling a transaction and may consequently result in creation of a debt or extinguishing a debt but cannot be construed as an acceptance or repayment which, in the ordinary meaning of the terms, are acts that require transfer of funds, which, in the case under consideration, is cash. In the absence of any movement of cash, the provisions have no role to play. Any other interpretation would rope in all those transactions wherein a debt is converted into a loan or a deposit.

Any doubt remaining in the matter of interpretation of these provisions is further dispelled by Clause (iii) of the Explanation to both the provisions, section 269 SS and 269T which defines a ‘loan or deposit’ to mean loan or deposit of money. unless a transaction involves money changing hands, the provisions have no role to play. We respectfully submit that it is this aspect of the provisions that the court failed to appreciate; may be due to the fact, recorded in the order, that the assessee admitted that the provisions of s.269t were applicable to its case.

The attention of the Bombay high Court was drawn by the assessee, not with success, to impress that the provisions were not applicable to the cases involving accounting entries, by relying on the decisions in the cases of noida Toll Bridge Company Limited, 262 ITR 260 (Del), Shree Ambica Flour Mills Corporation, 6 DTR 169 (Guj) and Motta Constructions P. Limited, 338 ITR 66 (Bom).

In Motta Constructions P. Limited, 338 ITR 66 (Bom), the same high Court was asked to examine the applicability of section 269 SS to the case of the journal entry passed by the company for acknowledging the debt in favour of a director, who had incurred some expenditure on behalf of the company. the court, in the circumstances, held that the said provisions had no application to the case where a debt was created by a journal entry, in as much as no loan or deposit could be said to have been received by the assessee company.

In Noida Toll Bridge Company Limited, 262 itr 260 (Del.), the High Court held that the provisions of s. 269SS were not applicable to a case of the company crediting the account of one IL & FS on payments made by IL & FS on behalf of the company, where none of the parties had made payment in cash. in Shree Ambica Flour Mills Corporation(2008, ) 6 DTR 169 (Guj) it was held that the payments made by sister concerns for each other were not in violation of section 269SS or section 269T of the Act.

The allahabad  high  Court  also,  in  the  case  of  CIT  vs. Saurabh Enterprises 269 CTR 451, has taken a view that where no cash was involved, but merely adjusting book entries, there was no violation of sections 269SS or 269T. the  income-tax  appellate  tribunal     has,  through  its various decisions, taken a consistent stand that the provisions of section 269SS and section 269T do not apply to the case of a debt created or extinguished by accounting entries. Please see, Bombay Conductors & Electrical Ltd. 56 TTJ (Ahd) 580, Muthoot M. George, 47 TTJ (Coch) 434, Sunflower Builders (P.) Ltd. 61 ITD 227 (Pune). the decision of the ahmedabad tribunal was later on confirmed by the Gujarat High Court reported in 301 itr 328.

Significantly, it is required to be appreciated that even otherwise, an accounting entry may not be and cannot be said to have the effect of resulting in a loan or a deposit. The Supreme Court, in the case of Bombay Steam Navigation Co., 56 ITR 52, observed as under; “An agreement to pay the balance of consideration, due by the purchaser, does not in truth give rise to a loan.    A loan of money results in a debt but every debt does not involve a loan. Liability to pay a debt may arise from diverse sources . Every creditor who is entitled to receive a debt cannot be a lender.”

While it is true that the provisions do not expressly exclude journal entries from the application of section 269SS and section 269T, it is also true that the entries, by themselves, cannot be said to have resulted in receiving a loan or repaying a loan, and without doubt, not in money. the decision of the Bombay high Court, on this limited aspect, needs to be reviewed.

Fresh Claim outside Return of Income or in Appeal

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Synopsis
Admissibility of a claim (which is not made by filing of revised return) before assessing officer/appellate authority, have always been a vexed issue. There are various judicial pronouncements that support the contention that an additional claim can be raised before the appellate authorities, even if it has not been raised before the Assessing Officer nor claimed in the return of income. However, recently the Chennai Tribunal in the case of Chiranjeevi Wind Energy, has held that such claim cannot be entertained.

In this Article, the learned Authors have done a detailed analysis of this decision in view of various judicial pronouncements.

An assessee is required to file his return of income, u/s. 139(1), before the due date specified in Explanation 2 to that section. In case he discovers any omission or any wrong statement in such return of income, he can file a revised return before the expiry of one year from the end of the relevant assessment year, or before the completion of assessment, whichever is earlier, in accordance with the provisions of section 139(5).

Very often, the assessee discovers a mistake or omission in the return of income after the expiry of the time prescribed for revision of his return of income u/s. 139(5). This generally happens during the course of assessment proceedings u/s. 143(2), which normally take place only towards the end of the time limit for completion of assessment, which is two years from the end of the relevant assessment year. The issue arises whether in such cases the assessee can make a claim for a deduction, before the assessing officer or before the appellate authorities, which has not been claimed in the return of income, when he is not in a position to revise his return of income. The Income-tax Department is of the view that such a claim can be made only through a revised return of income filed in time. Relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd vs. CIT 284 ITR 323, the department contends that no such claim can be made outside the revised return of income. The case of the assessees has been that any rightful claim whenever made, should be allowed, if not by the assessing officer, at least by the Commissioner(Appeals) or the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, a stand that is objected to by the Income-tax department on the ground that any claim not considered by the assessing officer cannot be considered by the Commissioner (Appeals) or the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

While the Mumbai bench and other benches of the tribunal has taken the view that the decision of the Supreme Court in Goetze India’s case does not apply to the claim made before the appellate authorities, who can consider any additional claim at their discretion, the Chennai bench of the tribunal has recently taken a contrary view holding that a claim not made before the assessing officer could not be considered by the Commissioner (Appeals).

Mahindra & Mahindra’s case
The issue came up before the Mumbai bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal in the case of Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd vs. Addl. CIT 29 ITR (Trib) 95.

In this case, during the course of the assessment proceedings, the assessee filed a letter with the assessing officer pointing out that the sale proceeds of R & D assets had been added to taxable income u/s. 41(1) in the computation of income, but the sale proceeds had already been reduced from R & D expenses claimed for the year u/s. 35(2AB). Effectively, the same income had been offered to tax twice through oversight. It was therefore claimed by the assessee, during the course of the assessment proceedings, that the addition made to the taxable income u/s. 41(1), in computing the total income, be ignored.

The assessing officer rejected the assessee’s claim on the ground that such a claim was not arising out of the return of income and that such a claim could only be made by filing a revised return of income, in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in Goetze India’s case(supra). The action of the assessing officer was confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals).

On appeal by the assessee, the Tribunal noted that the Bombay High Court, in the case of Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. 349 ITR 336, had held that even if a claim was not made before the assessing officer, it could be made before the appellate authorities. The tribunal therefore held that an assessee was entitled to raise not merely additional legal submissions before the appellate authorities, but was also entitled to raise additional claims before them. According to the Tribunal, the appellate authorities had the discretion whether or not to permit such additional claims to be raised, but it could not be said that they had no jurisdiction to consider the same. They therefore had the jurisdiction to entertain a new claim, but that they may choose not to exercise their jurisdiction in a given case was another matter.

The Tribunal therefore held that the claim of the assessee, made before the assessing officer and also made before the appellate authorities, was to be allowed, subject to verification of the evidence filed by the assessee before the assessing officer.

Chiranjeevi Wind Energy’s case
The issue again came up before the Chennai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Chiranjeevi Wind Energy Ltd. vs. ACIT 29 ITR (Trib) 534.

In this case, the assessee had claimed deduction of Rs. 10,78,976 u/s. 80-IB before the assessing officer which deduction was allowed by the assessing officer. The assessee however raised an issue of additional/ higher deduction of Rs. 50,61,142 u/s. 80-IB before the Commissioner(Appeals), on the ground that the action by the assessing officer, in disallowing certain other claims, has resulted in assessment of the total income at a higher figure and as a consequence thereof the assessee was qualified to claim a higher deduction u/s. 80IB. The Commissioner(Appeals) did not entertain such a claim presumably, on the ground that such a claim was permissible only by filing a revised return of income by relying on the decision of the Supreme court in the Goetze (India)’s case (supra).

On further appeal by the assessee, it was contended by the assessee that it was entitled to a higher deduction on account of the additions to the qualifying income returned by it. The Tribunal noted that the claim made by the assessee of Rs. 10,78,976, was allowed by the assessing officer. Higher deduction claim was never made before the assessing officer and was made before the Commissioner(Appeals) for the first time. It therefore rejected the assessee’s claim for allowance of higher deduction u/s. 80-IB.

Observations
It is a matter of serious concern that the Chennai bench of the Tribunal, in a somewhat brief decision, brushed off the claim of the assessee without considering the developed case law on the subject, in favour of the entertainment of the claim. No specific reason has been given by the tribunal but for stating that the claim was not made before the assessing officer, not realising that the need for the claim arose for the first time on account of the higher assessment by the assessing officer. It was the ground that became available to the assessee on account of the change in circumstances and the same did not exist at the time of filing the return of income.

The Bombay High Court, in the case of Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (supra) has discussed the issue in great detail. It observed as under:

“A long line of authorities establish clearly that an assessee is entitled to raise additional grounds not merely in terms of legal submissions, but also additional claims not made in the return filed by it.

From a consideration of decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Jute Corpn. of India Ltd. vs. CIT 187 ITR 688, it is clear that an assessee is entitled to raise not merely additional legal submissions before the appellate authorities, but is also entitled to raise additional claims before them. The appellate authorities have the discretion whether or not to permit such additional claims to be raised. It cannot however be said that they have no jurisdiction to consider the same. They have the jurisdiction to entertain the new claim. That they may choose not to exercise their jurisdiction in a given case is another matter.”

The high court in that case further held that the decision in the Jute Corporation’s case (supra)  did  not curtail  the ambit of the jurisdiction of the appellate authorities stipulated earlier. it did not restrict the new/additional grounds that might be taken by the assessee before the appellate authority only to those that were not available when the return was filed or even when the assessment order  was  made.  The  appellate  authorities  therefore have jurisdiction to deal not merely with additional grounds which became available on account of change of circumstances or law, but with additional grounds which were available even when the return was filed. Similarly, in National Thermal Power Corpn. Ltd. vs. CIT 229 ITR 383, the  supreme  Court  held  that  the  power  of  the tribunal is expressed in the widest possible terms. It noted that the purpose of the assessment proceedings before the taxing authorities is to assess correctly the tax liability of an assessee in accordance with law. As observed by the supreme Court, if, for example, as a result of a judicial decision given while the appeal is pending before the tribunal,  it  is  found  that  a  non-taxable  item  is  taxed  or a permissible deduction is denied, the assessee is not prevented from raising that question before the tribunal for the first time, so long as the relevant facts are on record in respect of that item. It therefore held that the tribunal is not prevented from considering questions of law arising in assessment proceedings although not raised earlier.

The Bombay high Court, in another judgment in the case of Balmukund Acharya vs. Dy CIT ITA No.217 of 2001 dated 19-12-2008 (reported on www.itatonline.org), has taken the view that even in the case of an intimation u/s.143(1), where the assessee had erroneously offered certain capital gains to tax in the return of income and the returned income was accepted, in appeal, the assessee was entitled to claim that the income which was wrongly offered to tax cannot be taxed.

Importantly, the Supreme Court, in Goetze India’s case (supra), has made it clear that the issue in that case was limited to the power of the assessing authority, and did not  impinge  on  the  power  of  the  income  tax appellate tribunal u/s. 254.

Therefore,   given   the   wide   powers   of   the   appellate authorities, an additional claim can be raised before the appellate authorities, even if it has not been raised before the assessing officer nor claimed in the return of income.

It is interesting to note that the CBdt, as far back as in 1955, vide its Circular no. 14-XL(35) dated 11-04-1955, have stated that:

“Officers of the Department must not take advantage of ignorance of an assessee as to his rights. It is one of their duties to assist a taxpayer in every reasonable way, particularly in the matter of claiming and securing reliefs and in this regard the Officers should take the initiative in guiding a taxpayer where proceedings or other particulars before them indicate that some refund or relief is due    to him. This attitude would, in the long run, benefit the department for it would inspire confidence in him that he may be sure of getting a square deal from the department. Although, therefore, the responsibility for claiming refunds and reliefs rests with assessee on whom it is imposed by law, officers should —

(a)        Draw their attention to any refunds or reliefs to which they appear to be clearly entitled but which they have omitted to claim for some reason or other;
(b)    Freely advise them when approached by them as to their rights and liabilities and as to the procedure to be adopted for claiming refunds and reliefs.”

The law developed, post Goetze (india)’s case, has made it abundantly clear that:

a)    an assessee is entitled to make a fresh claim for deduction or relief before the appellate authorities, during the course of the appellate proceedings, irrespective of the claim not being made by revising the return of income or before the assessing officer during the course of the assessment proceedings. The decision in Goetze (India)’s case has not prohibited such a claim before the appellate authorities.
b)    an assessing officer when confronted with the valid claim, though not made in the return of income or the revised return of income, is required to consider the same on merits and not reject simply on the ground that the claim was made outside the return of income.

In CIT vs. Jai Parabolic Springs Ltd. 306 ITR 42 (Del), the  delhi high Court held that the tribunal had power to allow deduction for expenditure to assessee to which it was otherwise entitled to even though no claim was made by the assessee in the return of income. in this case, the decision of Supreme Court in Goetze (India) Ltd. was considered. Again, the Cochin tribunal in the case of Thomas Kurian 303 ITR (AT) 110 (Coch), held that the Cit(a) had the power to entertain a claim not made in the return of income. In   Lupin Agrochemicals Ltd. ITA No. 3178 (Mum), the case of Goetze (I) Ltd. was considered and it was held that said decision did not prevent an assessee to make legal claim in assessment proceedings and that such claim could be made even in appellant proceedings. In Abbey Chemicals 94 TTJ (Ahd) 275, it was held that the Cit(a) having allowed assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 10B after considering the facts of the case as well as the case law, could not recall his order by taking recourse to section 154, as the error of judgement, if any, committed by the CIT (A), tcould not be qualified as a “mistake” within the meaning of section 154.

The position in respect of the eligibility of the assessee to place a fresh claim, before the assessing officer, is equally good. in Chicago Pneumatic Ind. Ltd. 15 SOT 252 (Mum), the mumbai tribunal  held  that  the  a.o.  was obliged to give relief to the assessee even where the same was not claimed by the assessee by way of    a revised return. In the above case, it was observed   that the government was entitled to collect only the tax legitimately due to it and therefore one had to look into the duties of the a.o. rather than his powers to avoid undue  hardship  to  the  assessees.  the  hon.  Tribunal also referred to the CBDT Circular No. 14 (XL-35) dt. 11.04.1955, which directed the officers as back in 1955 to draw attention of the assessees to refunds and reliefs to which they were entitled but had failed to claim for some reason  or  the  other.  The  case  also  referred  to  another Circular No. F-81/27/65-IT (B) dt. 18.05.1965 and stated that the above circulars were binding on the departmental authorities.  the  above  decision  was  considered  and followed  by  the  hon.  mumbai  tribunal  in  the  case  of Emerson Network Power Ind. 27 SOT 593 (Mum) wherein the Mumbai tribunal held that the assessing officer was obliged to consider the legitimate claim of the assessee made before him but not made in the return of income or by a revised return. In  Rajasthan Commercial House v/s. DCIT,  26 SOT 51 (Uro) (Jodh),  the jodhpur tribunal held that relief claimed by the assessee could be allowed by the a.o. when such claim was made by the assessee vide a rectification application u/s. 154. Also see Dodsal Pvt. Ltd. ITA No. 680/M/04 (Mum). Lastly, the Bombay high court in the case of Balmukund Acharya ITA No. 217 of 2001 (Bom) dated 19-12-2008 again confirmed the power and the duty of the assessing officer when it inter alia held that the authorities under the act were under  an obligation to act in accordance with law and that tax could be collected only as provided under the act and that if any assessee, under a mistake, misconception or on not being properly instructed was over assessed, the authorities under the act were required to assist him and ensure that only legitimate taxes due were collected.

Today, the state of affairs are such that, leave aside the tax payers being advised of reliefs due to them, any claim for such relief by them is denied by Assessing Officers, and when entertained by the appellate authorities, is strongly resisted in appeal, sometimes even by taking the matter to the high Court or supreme Court. What is perhaps required is a change in approach of the income- tax department, where only fair share of taxes is collected, and not maximum tax by any means.  This would perhaps require not just changes to law, but change in attitude of the tax authorities. No government should be happy by short changing its citizens and surely not when they are ignorant of their rights and reliefs.

Period of Holding on Conversion of Leasehold Property into Ownership

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Issue for Consideration
When an
immovable property held as a capital asset is transferred, for
computation of the capital gains, it is essential to first identify the
period of holding of the asset transferred for determining as to whether
the property was a long-term capital asset or a short term capital
asset by applying the definitions of long-term capital asset and short
term capital asset contained in sections 2(29A) and 2(42A) respectively,
of the Income-tax Act, 1961. If the immovable property was held for
more than 36 months, it is a long-term capital asset, or else it is a
short term capital asset. Such classification is important, because the
manner of computation of the gains is more beneficial in the case of
long-term capital gains. Such gains are also taxable at a lower rate,
besides qualifying for certain exemptions.

The complication
arises when the immovable property that is being transferred was to
begin with taken on lease by the assessee, and the leasehold rights
therein were thereafter converted into ownership rights within a period
of 36 months prior to the date of transfer of the immovable property,
with the combined total period of lease and ownership put together
exceeding 36 months. In such cases, the question that has arisen for
consideration is whether the property that is under transfer can be said
to have been held for more than 36 months or not, and accordingly
whether it will be regarded as a long-term capital asset or whether it
would be treated as a short term capital asset.

While the
Karnataka and the Bombay High Courts have taken the view that the gains
arising on sale of the property under such circumstances would be a
short term capital gains, the Allahabad High Court has taken a contrary
view and held that the gains would be classified as longterm capital
gains .

Dr. V. V. Mody’s case
The issue first came up before the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dr. V. V. Mody 218 ITR 1.

In
this case, the assessee was allotted a site by the development
authority in 1972 on lease with a stipulation that the asset in question
would be sold after a period of 10 years to the assesse. A
lease-cum-sale agreement was executed at that point of time, providing
for payment of certain amount by the assessee, and that on payment of
the entire sale consideration, conveyance was agreed to be executed in
favour of the assessee at the end of the 10th year. Subsequently, in
pursuance of the said agreement, a sale deed was executed in favour of
the assessee in March 1982, which was registered in May 1982. The
assessee sold the site in November 1982, and claimed that the capital
gains arising on sale was a long term capital gain, since he held the
site since 1972.

The assessing officer treated the gains as a
short term capital gain, holding that the assessee acquired the site
only in March 1982, when the conveyance was executed in his favour and
the asset that was transferred was a short term capital asset in the
hands of the assessee. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the assessee’s
appeal, agreeing with the view of the assessee that the site had been
held by him since 1972. On appeal by the revenue, the tribunal held that
the rights acquired under the lease-cum-sale agreement were also
capital assets. It held that on transfer of the site, the assessee had
in fact transferred a bundle of rights, a part of which (half) were held
as a long term capital asset. It accordingly directed that 50% of the
sale consideration should be regarded as received pertaining to the
transfer of the short term capital asset , with 50% of the consideration
being regarded as pertaining to the transfer of the long term capital
asset, with 50% of the cost of the asset being attributed to each of the
components.

Before the Karnataka High Court, on behalf of the
assessee, it was argued that the lease rights held by the assessee was a
capital asset, since the expression “property of any kind” in the
definition of capital asset in section 2(14) was wide enough to include
rights enjoyed by an assessee in respect of immovable property, even
though such rights were inferior to the rights of ownership of the
property. It was argued that transfer of such lights would legitimately
give rise to capital gains, and since these rights were held for more
than 36 months, the gains was to be treated as a long-term capital gain.

The Karnataka High Court noted that there were two questions
which arose for consideration before it – what was the capital asset
that had been transferred by the assessee giving rise to the capital
gains, and since when was that capital asset held by the assessee.
According to the High Court, the answers to these questions were
straight and simple. The asset transferred was title to the site, which
the assessee held on the basis of the conveyance in his favour since
March 1982. The gain was therefore a short term capital gain.

The
High Court noted that the approach adopted by the tribunal implied that
the transfer made by the assessee pertained to both the lease rights as
well as title to the property, which in turn meant that as on the date
of the transfer in favour of the purchaser, the assessee combined in
himself the dual capacity of being not only the owner of the property,
but also the lessee thereof. According to the High Court, this approach
was not legally sound and ignored the legal effect of the transfer of
absolute title in favour of the assessee, who was holding the site in
question till March 1982, only on the basis of the leasecum- sale
agreement.

The significance of the transfer was that it brought
about a merger of the lesser interest held by the assessee in the bigger
estate acquired by him under the sale deed in his favour. Merger
implied the vesting of lesser rights held by an individual in the larger
estate that he may acquire qua the property in question. It postulated
the extinction of the lesser estate, whenever the person holding any
such estate acquired a greater estate in respect of the same property.
In the event of the lesser and the greater estate is coinciding in the
same individual, the lesser got annihilated, ground or sunk in the
larger. The doctrine owed its origin to the English common law, but with
equity intervening, the position in England was that merger would be
deemed to take place only in case the party acquiring the larger estate
intended so. The High Court noted that this position was accepted, even
in India except to the extent that the statutory provisions like the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882 mandated otherwise. The High Court noted
the observations made by the Supreme Court in Jyotish Thakur vs.
Tarakant Jha AIR 1963 SC 605 in this regard.

The Karnataka High
Court noted that the assessee held the site in question under an
agreement of lease cum sale, and that it was not in dispute that in so
far as an agreement to sell was concerned, it did not create any right
in the property agreed to be sold. The assessee had valuable interest in
the site in his capacity as a lessee, which leasehold rights was a
capital asset. These rights, being a lesser estate in comparison to the
larger one representing the title or the property, merged with the
larger estate upon the assessee acquiring the title to the property
under the sale deed.

The  Karnataka  high  Court  noted  that  there  were  two questions which arose for consideration before it – what was the capital asset that had been transferred by the assessee giving rise to the capital gains, and since when was that capital asset held by the assessee. According to the high Court, the answers to these questions were straight  and  simple.  The  asset  transferred  was  title  to the site, which the assessee held on the basis of the conveyance in his favour since march 1982. the gain was therefore a short term capital gain.

The high Court noted that the approach adopted by the tribunal implied that the transfer made by the assessee pertained to both the lease rights as well as title to the property, which in turn meant that as on the date of the transfer in favour of the purchaser, the assessee combined in himself the dual capacity of being not only the owner of the property, but also the lessee thereof. According to the high Court, this approach was not legally sound and ignored the legal effect of the transfer of absolute title    in favour of the assessee, who was holding the site in question till march 1982, only on the basis of the lease- cum-sale agreement.

The significance of the transfer was that it brought about a merger of the lesser interest held by the assessee in the bigger estate acquired by him under the sale deed in his favour. Merger implied the vesting of lesser rights held by an individual in the larger estate that he may acquire qua the property in question. It postulated the extinction of the lesser estate, whenever the person holding any such estate acquired a greater estate in respect of the same property. in the event of the lesser and the greater estate is coinciding in the same individual, the lesser got annihilated,  ground  or  sunk  in  the  larger.  The  doctrine owed its origin to the english common law, but with equity intervening, the position in england was that merger would be deemed to take place only in case the party acquiring the larger estate intended so. the high Court noted that this position was accepted, even in india except to the extent that the statutory provisions like the transfer of Property act, 1882 mandated otherwise. The high Court noted the observations made by the Supreme Court in jyotish  Thakur  vs. Tarakant  Jha AIR  1963  SC 605 in this regard.

The Karnataka high Court noted that the assessee held the site in question under an agreement of lease cum sale, and that it was not in dispute that in so far as an agreement to sell was concerned, it did not create any right in the property agreed to be sold. The assessee had valuable interest in the site in his capacity as a lessee, which leasehold rights was a capital asset. these rights, being a lesser estate in comparison to the larger one representing the title or the property, merged with the larger estate upon the assessee acquiring the title to the property under the sale deed.

The Karnataka high Court noted the provisions of section 111(d) of the transfer of Property act, which provided that a lease of immovable property determined in case the interests of the lessee and the lessor in the whole of the property became vested at the same time in one person in the same right. According to the high Court, this provision recognised what was true even on first principles, i.e., a person cannot be a tenant and landlord qua the same property at the same time. In the opinion of the high Court, the question of the assessee intending to keep the two capacities or estates, namely one of leasehold rights and the other of ownership, separately from each other or any such separation of the interests held by him being beneficial to the assessee, did not arise. The question of intention of the assessee or his interest would arise only if the situation was not covered by the provisions of section 111 (d).

The  Karnataka  high  Court  noted  that  from  the  date of sale in favour of the assessee, the assessee  had  only one capacity to describe himself qua the land in question, and that was the capacity of being the absolute owner of the same. it was in that capacity alone that the assessee transferred his title over the site in favour of the purchaser. the sale did not describe the transfer made in favour of the purchaser to be one of the rights which the assessee held in respect of the site prior to the sale deed. All such rights had sunk or drowned in the larger estate and therefore stood extinguished. The legal effect of the transfer made in favour of the assessee was that he had become the absolute owner of the property and therefore all that he could convey and did actually convey to the transferee was the absolute title in the property without any reference to any inferior rights that the assessee had held prior to his becoming owner.

Viewed from that angle, according to the Karnataka high Court, it was apparent that what the assessee transferred had been held by him only from the date of the sale deed in his favour and not earlier to that. Therefore, in the view of the high Court, the question of splitting up the sale price or the cost of acquisition of the asset separately for the purposes of short-term and long-term capital gains did not arise.

The  high  Court  rejected  the  argument  of  the  assessee regarding the transfer of leasehold rights by the assessee, which were long-term capital assets.  according  to  it, the issue was not whether such leasehold rights were    a property or a capital asset, but  whether  any  such right existed and could be transferred by the assessee after it had merged in the larger estate acquired by the assessee.  This  was  so  because  what  was  transferred by the assessee was not the lesser  interest  held  by him prior to becoming the absolute owner, but the total interest acquired by him in the form of absolute title to the property. Unless it was possible for the assessee to hold the two estates simultaneous and independent of each other, the transfer of the title in the property could not be deemed to be a transfer of both the larger and the lesser estates, so as to make them amenable to the process of splitting into long term and short term capital gains.

The   Karnataka   high   Court   therefore   held   that   as from march 1982, the assessee had only one estate representing the title to the property, and the capital gain arising from the transfer of this estate gave rise to a short term gain.

A similar view was taken by the Bombay high Court in the case of CIT vs. Dr. D. A. Irani 234 ITR 850, where it dealt with a case of an assessee having tenancy right over a flat, who acquired the ownership rights to the flat and sold the flat within 5 months of acquisition. In that case as well, the Bombay high Court applied the provisions of section 111(d) of the transfer of Property act, to hold that the gain on sale of the flat was a short term capital gain.

Rama rani kalia’s case

the issue again came up recently before the allahabad high Court in the case of CIT vs. Smt. Rama Rani Kalia 358 ITR 499. in this case, the assessee acquired a property on leasehold basis in 1984. She applied for freehold rights, which were granted by the collector in march 2004. Within 3 days thereafter, the property was sold. the assessee claimed the capital gains on sale of the property to be long term capital gains.

The assessing officer took the view that since the property was sold within 3 days of conversion of the leasehold rights into freehold rights, the capital gains was a short term  capital  gains.  The  Commissioner(appeals)  held that the conversion of leasehold property into freehold property was an improvement of title over the property, since the assessee was the owner of the property even prior to conversion. He therefore held that the gain was a long term capital gains. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Commissioner(appeals).

The  allahabad  high  Court  noted  that  the  difference between a short term capital asset and a long-term capital asset was the period for which the property had been held by the assessee, and not the  nature of title  or the property. according to the high Court, the lessee  of the property had rights as owner of the property for all  purposes,  subject  to  covenants  of  the  lease.  The lessee may transfer the leasehold rights of the property with the consent of the lessor, subject to covenants of the lease deed. The conversion of the rights of the lessee in the property from leasehold right into freehold was only by way of improvement of rights over the property, which she enjoyed.

According to the allahabad high Court, the conversion would not have any effect on the taxability of gains from such property, which was related to the period over which the property was held. Since the property was held by the assessee as a lessee since 1984, and was transferred  in march 2004, after the leasehold rights were converted into freehold rights of the same property, which was in her possession, the conversion was by way of improvement of title, which, according to the high Court, would not have any effect on the taxability of profits .

The allahabad high Court therefore held that the gains arising on sale of property was long term capital gains.

The  allahabad  high  Court,  in  yet  another  decision, delivered in ita no. 134 of 2007 dated 22-11-2007, in the case of Dhiraj Shyamji Chauhan has confirmed that the period of holding in such cases should commence from the date of acquiring leasehold rights.

Observations
The Supreme Court, in the case of A.R. Krishnamurthy vs. CIT 176 ITR 417, held that a land is a bundle of rights. the issue is whether these rights are separable, whether they can be separately transferred, and if transferred together, whether it is possible to bifurcate the rights between those held for more than 36 months and those held for a shorter period. in the case of A R Krishnamurthy, the Supreme Court considered a situation of grant of mining rights, which was one of the bundle of rights acquired on acquisition of the land. in that case, the Supreme Court directed bifurcation of the cost of acquisition to compute the capital gains. In that case, of course, it was the assessee himself who separated the rights, and transferred one of the rights. The court found that each of the rights comprised in the bundle was capable of being separately transferred for a valuable consideration. Conversely, the different rights in an asset can be acquired at different point of time, acquisition     of each of which has the effect of improving the title of the acquirer over the property.   The doctrine of merger, embodied in the transfer of Property act, provides that on acquisition, by the lessee, of the freehold rights in a property, the lesser estate of the lessee i.e., his leasehold rights merge into a larger estate of the lessee i.e., his freehold rights. . .

Section 111 (d) of the transfer of Property act provides as under:

111. A lease of immovable property determines – (a)…..
(b)…..
(c)    ….
(d)    in case the interests of the lessee and the lessor in the whole of the property become vested at the same time in one person in the same right.

From the statutory provision, it is clear that a lease comes to an end when the same person is both the owner as well as the lessee of the property, and therefore the subject matter of transfer is the ownership rights in the property, which remain on merger, to the buyer of the property. To that extent, the views of the Karnataka high Court and the Bombay High Court at first seem to be justified when the courts dealt with the nature of rights or the title that the buyer acquired. What perhaps, was overlooked, with respect, and had remained unaddressed, was the issue whether the asset in question was held for a longer period that began with the date of acquiring the leasehold rights in the property. This issue was specifically dealt with by the allahabad high court in the later decision which after considering the ratio of the decision of the Karnataka high court chose to take a contrary view.

The issue in question, as identified by the Allahabad High Court, is about the period of holding of a capital asset which is determined with reference to the period for which an asset is ‘held by an assessee’. the property all along remained the same i.e., an immovable property. What was changed was the rights over the property – from leasehold  to  ownership.  the  assessee  remained  the same. Holding a property under a leasehold right as a lessee, is also a recognised mode of holding the property. It is only when the property in question is changed, that the period of holding is shortened, for e.g., warrants to shares. When the property remains the same, the change in the title to the property is not a relevant factor for the purposes of the income-tax act.

It is a settled position that lease is one of the modes of acquisition of an immovable property and that leasehold rights are a capital asset capable of being transferred. Applying the law of section 2(47) to the case of a purchase or acquisition, it is possible to hold that an asset is acquired on execution of a lease deed. It is also clear that an immovable property comprises of a bundle of rights and grant of lease is one such right.

In the case of R. K. Palshikar HUF vs. CIT 172 ITR 311, the Supreme Court held that grant of a lease of a property for 99 years amounts to transfer of the property, giving rise to capital gains. if that is the position, and under tax laws, the owner is regarded as having transferred the property, the logical consequence should be that the lessee is then regarded as the deemed owner, a position that is acknowledged by section 27 of the act. Even A.
R. Krishnamurthy’s case (supra) was a case of grant of a mining lease for 10 years, where the Supreme Court followed r. K. Palshikar huf’s decision (supra), taking a view that transfer of capital asset in section 45 includes grant of mining lease for any period.

In fact, section 27 of the income-tax act provides that a person who acquires any rights (excluding any rights by way of a lease from month to month or for a period not exceeding one year) in or with respect to any building or part thereof, by virtue of any such transaction referred to in section 269UA(F), is deemed to be the owner of that building or part thereof. Section 269UA(F), which dealt with acquisition proceedings, refers to, inter alia, a lease for a period exceeding 12 years. Therefore, for all practical purposes, the income-tax act regards the property as having been transferred to the lessee if the lease is for a period exceeding 12 years.

Under such circumstances, is it appropriate to say that the lessee was really not the owner, for the period that he was a lessee, when it comes to payment of capital gains taxes, even if he was a lessee for more than 12 years?

The cost of acquisition is a significant factor in computation of the capital gains. The cost in certain specified cases remains the historical cost, and, in those cases, the courts have taken a consistent view that the period of holding should also be so taken, by relating it back, in the interest of the harmonious construction of the provisions of the act, [h.f.Craig harvey  244 itr 578 (mad.), and manjula j. Shah, 355 itr 474(Bom)].

Alternatively, the cost would have to be taken as the market value as on the date of conversion where a view is taken that the period of holding should be determined with reference to the date of acquisition of the new asset. The law on this aspect is very clear that the cost should be the market value.

In case of an asset held under a deed of conveyance executed in pursuance of an agreement for sale, the period of holding should commence from the date of agreement and not of the deed, though on execution of the deed, the rights under the agreement are extinguished and absolute rights are acquired in the asset.

It may not be possible to separate the gains in two parts nor may it be possible to divide the consideration, but the period of holding can surely be said to have begun from the date of the lease, particularly in a case where the lessee has acquired a dominion over the property with   a right to transfer the same in lieu of consideration paid by him. In fact, in dr. V. V. mody’s case, the lease was coupled with the right to acquire ownership after a period of ten years, which right itself was a capital asset. The definition of the term ‘capital asset’ u/s. 2(14) includes a ‘property of any kind’ and is wide enough to cover the case of a leasehold right. Having acquired a capital asset, it does not vanish in thin air, unless it is lawfully transferred or is improved upon.

The issue therefore is not whether there were two estates or one but is all about the period of holding of the property. It may be that the latest rights that are transferred may not be old, but the property that is transferred is certainly old. Even the pedigree of the new rights is ancestral.

Various explanations contained in ssection  2(42a)  of the Act, precisely confirm the theory of harmonious construction by extending the period of holding in cases of various financial assets referred to therein. This principle also is approved by section 55 of the act. in all cases, where the historical cost is frozen in time, the period of holding of the new asset is extended to cover the period of holding of the old asset as well. this is, otherwise, also true on first principles of taxation.

One strong view is that the issue cannot be determined with reference to the provisions of section 111 of the transfer  of  Property  act.  These  provisions  have  the limited impact of explaining the title of a person over a property.  they  simply  explain  that  the  inferior  rights  of a  person  are  transformed  into  the  superior  rights.  this does not affect the period of holding of the property at all. It only improves the legal title to the property. Tax laws clearly recognise the concept of holding of an asset other than by way of legal title – leasehold rights in a property is one such form of ownership.

In fact, the delhi high Court, in a recent decision in the case of CIT vs. Frick India Ltd. 369 ITR 328, has analysed the meaning of the term “held by the assessee” u/s. 2(42A) as under:

“We would like to elucidate and explain the expression, “held by the assessee” in some detail. General words should normally receive plain and ordinary construction but this principle is subject to the context in which the words are used as the words  reflect  the  intention  of the Legislature. The words have to be construed and interpreted to effectuate the object and purpose of the provision, when they are capable of multiple meanings or are ambiguous. Isolated reading of words can on occasions negate the very purpose. Lord Diplock had referred to the term, “business” as an ‘etymological chameleon’, which suits its meaning to the context in which it is found. The background, therefore, has to be given due regard and not to be ignored, to avoid absurdities. This principle is applicable when we interpret the word, “held” in section 2(42A) of the Act, for the said word is capable of divergent and different connotations and understanding.

The word, ‘held’ as used in section 2(42A) of the Act is with reference to a capital asset and the term, ‘capital asset’ is not confined and restricted to ownership of a property or an asset. Capital assets can consist of rights other than ownership right in an asset, like leasehold rights, allotment rights, etc. The sequitur, therefore, is that the word ‘held’ or ‘hold’ is not synonymous with right over the asset as an owner and has to be given a broader and wider meaning. In Black’s Law Dictionary, Sixth Edition, the word ‘hold’ has been given a variety of meanings under nine different headings. Four of them, i.e, 1, 4, 8 and 9 read as under:

‘1. To possess in virtue of a lawful title; as in the expression, common in grants, “to have and to hold,” or in that applied to notes, “the owner and holder.”
** ** **
4. To maintain or sustain; to be under the necessity or duty of sustaining or proving; as when it is said that a party “holds the affirmative” or negative of an issue in a cause.
** ** **
8.    To possess; to occupy; to be in possession and administration of; as to hold office.

The word ‘held’ was interpreted to mean “lawfully held, to possess by legal title”. The term ‘legal title’ here not only includes ownership, but also title or right of a tenant, which will mean actual possession of the land and a  right to hold the same and claim possession thereof as a tenant (we are not examining rights of a rank trespasser in the  present  decision  and  we  express  no  opinion  in that regard).”

From  this,  it  is  clear  that  the  term  “held”  need  not necessarily refer to only the period of holding as an owner.

Under the law contained in the income-tax act, 1961, in the context, there are only two possibilities:

a.    a transfer arises on conversion of leasehold rights into ownership rights in which case;
i.    liability to capital gains is attracted on such conversion, and
ii.    the fair market value becomes the cost of acquisition of the new asset,
 
9.    To keep; to retain; to maintain possession of or authority over.’

or

b.    there is no transfer on such conversion and the period of holding is extended to include the period during which the asset was held on lease.

The latter view seems to be the more equitable view of the matter, but given the views of the Karnataka and Bombay high Courts, the debate will ultimately be settled only by a decision of the Supreme Court.

Taxability of a Subvention Receipt

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Issue for Consideration
It is not uncommon for a company in the red to
receive financial assistance from its holding company, to enable to it
to turn the corner by recouping its losses, incurred or likely to be
incurred. In such cases, the question that arises under the Income-tax
Act, is about the nature of such receipt. The courts have been asked to
determine whether such receipts, known as subvention receipts, are
taxable or not in the hands of the subsidiary.

The Supreme court in the
case of Sahney Steel and Press Works Ltd., 228 ITR 253, laid down
extensive tests for determination of nature of income in cases wherein
an asseseee receives financial assistance under a scheme formulated by
the Government. It held that the point of time, as also its source and
the form of the assistance, are factors that are irrelevant for
determining the taxability of the receipt. The purpose for which the
payment is received is of the paramount importance for ascertaining the
taxability or otherwise of a receipt.

The issue, in the context of
assistance from the holding company, has been recently examined by the
Delhi High Court and the Karnataka High Court. While the first court
held that the receipt is of capital nature not liable to tax, the latter
held the same to be taxable.

Deutsche Post Bank Home Finance’s case

The Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Deutsche Post Bank Home
Finance Ltd., 24 taxmann.com 341, was required to consider the following
question of law at the behest of the Income tax Department: “Whether
the amount of Rs. 11,22,38,874/-, infused by BHW Holding AG, Germany to
the assessee by way of subvention assistance, is taxable as a revenue
receipt and therefore falls within the definition of ‘income’ under
Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.”

In that case, the assessee,
an Indian company, was engaged in the activity of housing finance. It
was a 100% subsidiary of one German company BHW Holding AG. On an
evaluation by the holding company, the assessee was likely to, on
account of its business activity, incur losses by which its capital
would be substantially if not entirely eroded. By two letters dated
24-09-2004 and 04-02-2005, the holding company granted subvention
assistance to the assessee of Euro 2,000,000, equivalent to Rs.
11,22,38,874. The assessee treated the receipt to be a capital receipt,
not liable to tax.

The Assessing Officer held that the disbursement of
incentive (i.e., subvention receipt ) was by way of casual receipt in
order to assist the assessee to continue its business operation and held
the same to be taxable. On appeal to the CIT(A), the assessee’s
contention that the money received could not be taxed, was accepted by
him. The ITAT rejected the Revenue’s appeal, inter alia, holding that
the holding company had paid the money as subvention payment towards
restoration of the net worth of the company expected to be partly eroded
by the losses suffered/projected by the assessee company for the
financial year 2004-05. The certificate of inward remittance issued by
UTI Bank Ltd confirmed the said fact. This was further supported by the
copy of confirmation received through email wherein the holding company
had certified that they had not claimed the subvention payment as
expenditure in their return of income, no tax benefit had been received
by it in respect of subvention payment and it had capitalised the amount
in its books of account. The ITAT relied on the decision in the case of
CIT vs. Handicrafts & Handloom Export Corporation of India, 140 ITR
532(Delhi).

On behalf of Revenue, before the High Court, it was argued
that the ITAT fell into error in deciding that the subvention receipt
received from the Holding Company was not income, as defined in section
2(24) of the Act.

The Revenue urged that the decision in the
case of the
Handicrafts & Handloom Export Corporation of India vs. CIT, 140 ITR
532(Delhi) relied upon by the Tribunal was not applicable, since the
facts of the case were different. In that case the funds were public in
nature and the cash assistance given by the holding company to STC, was
not subjected to taxation. Reliance was placed upon the decisions in the
cases of Ratna Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. vs. CIT, 33 ITR 644 (All.) and
V.S.S.V. Meenakshi Achi vs. CIT, 50 ITR 206 (Mad.) wherein it was held
that where public funds were used as an incentive or in order to assist,
or give subsidy to recoup a unit’s losses or to provide against a
financial liability, such an assistance would not qualify as income. It
was further stressed that the true and correct test to be applied was to
be the purposive test, spelt out in the decision of CIT vs. Ponni
Sugars & Chemicals Ltd., 306 ITR 392 (SC). It was submitted that
only if the real purpose of the assistance was to protect investment or
to ensure that the liabilities adversely impacting the accounts of the
company were met, then and then only the assistance would fall outside
the ambit of taxation.

The assessee, on the other hand,
submitted that the view taken by the CIT(A) and confirmed by the ITAT
was predominantly based upon the decision in the case of the Handicrafts
& Handloom Export Corporation of India (supra) and that there was
in fact no substantial question of law which required to be answered,
since the issue had been settled by the previous decision in the case of
the Handicrafts & Handloom Export Corporation of India (supra ).

On
hearing the parties, the court narrowed the question to whether
assistance given by the assessee’s holding company was a capital receipt
or a revenue receipt in the hands of the assessee. The court examined
the Revenue’s contention that the decision in Handicrafts & Handloom
Export Corporation of India (supra) was not applicable to the case,
because the nature of funds were public in character and in that view of
the matter the appropriate criteria was the purposive test which
determined the character of funds in a given case as was done in the
case of Ponni Sugar & Chemicals Ltd. (supra) by quoting from the
said decision.

On examination, the court held that there was no
shift in the nature of the determinative test, to decide whether a
receipt was revenue or capital. It observed that no doubt there were
observations in that judgment stating that the character of public funds
was an important factor which persuaded the court to hold that such
assistance did not fall within the definition of income. However, this
did not persuade the court to take a different view in the case before
it, in as much as it was not in dispute that the assessee did incur
losses and the assistance was given at a point of time when the losses
were anticipated.

So far as the decision in Ponni Sugar & Chemicals Ltd. (supra) was concerned, the court held that “no doubt the Court clarified how a subsidy should be treated, i.e., by purposive test. The Court presciently held if the object of the subsidy scheme was to enable the assessee to run the business more profitably then the receipt is to the revenue account. On the other hand, under the subsidy scheme, if the object is to enable the assessee to set up a new unit or expand it then the receipt of the subsidy is to the capital account. Therefore, it is the assessee’s action which determines whether subsidy is to avoid losses and liabilities or boost its profits. On a proper application of the above test we see no difference between the facts of the present case and those in Handicrafts & Handloom Export Corporation of India (supra). The assessee was inevitably on the road to incurring losses; its holding company decided to intervene and render assistance. The ITAT has also recorded that, keeping aside the depreciation which the assessee would have been entitled to, actual losses amounted to Rs. 8.7 crore.”

Having regard to all the circumstances, the Delhi High Court was of the opinion that the subvention money received by the assessee company was not liable to tax.

Siemens Public communication Networks’ case

The issue again came up for consideration of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Siemens Public Communication  Networks  Ltd.  41  taxmann. com 139. The assessee, a company in this case, was incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956 and was engaged in the business of manufacturing Digital Electronic switching systems, computer software and software services. It had filed return of income for the Assessment years 1999-2000, 2000-2001 and 2001-2002 declaring loss of substantial amounts. It had received amounts of Rs. 21,28,40,000, Rs. 1,33,45,000, and Rs. 2,95,84,556, respectively for these assessment years from Siemens AG, a German company who was its principal shareholder. The assessee explained the said sum as “subvention payment” from the principal shareholder of the assessee-company, which was paid to the assessee company for two reasons, namely, the company was a potentially sick company, and that its capacity to borrow had reduced substantially, leading to shortage of working capital.

The letter dated 24-09-1998 issued by Siemens  AG, and the assessee’s letter dated 19-02-2002, explained that Siemens AG, being a parent company, had agreed to infuse further capital by reimbursing the accumulated loss. The case of the assessee was that the payment made by Siemens AG was to make good the loss incurred by it, and the receipt of the subvention monies was a capital receipt in nature, and hence, could not be treated as income or revenue receipt.

The Assessing Officer rejected the contention of the assessee. The first Appellate Authority, however, in appeal, reversed the order of the Assessing Officer treating the said monies received from Siemens AG as capital receipt. The Appellate Tribunal, in the  appeal filed by the revenue, confirmed the findings recorded by the Appellate Authority in the following words; “6. The rival contentions in regard to the above have been very carefully considered. The assessee company (Siemens Public Communications)(sic) apparently paid the assessee or compensated the assessee in view of the continued losses, and this in fact was to augment the capital base and to improve the net worth which had eroded due to losses suffered by the company. With a view to compensate the erosion in the reserves    in (sic) surplus, the parent company pumps into its subsidiary company, funds to stabilise its capital account. It was considering all these reasons that the Commissioner of Income Tax (A) came to the conclusion that it was on capital account. If the amount so paid by the company is treated as revenue income, it would amount to taxing the parent company itself. The other reason is that the parent company paying its subsidiary company, is within the same group and not for  any  purpose  which is in the nature of income, so as to be treated as taxable income.”

The revenue, before the court, submitted that the monies paid by Siemens AG to the assessee were on revenue account and were paid not only to make good the loss but to make the assessee company run, which had no monies to spend over day to day expenditure to keep it running at the relevant time; that on the basis of the said monies/aid extended by Siemens AG, the assessee not only made its loss good, but started running its business in profit; that who paid the amount was absolutely an irrelevant fact and what was important was the object for which such assistance was extended; from the facts of the case, it was clear that in the first assessment year, the assessee company had suffered loss, whereas in the subsequent assessment years, it started making profit, which fact clearly showed that the amount paid by Siemens AG was used for running the business and therefore, it would   fall under the category of revenue receipt and not  capital receipt.

In support of the submissions, reliance was  placed  upon the decisions  of the Supreme Court in the cases  of CIT vs. Ponni Sugars & Chemicals Ltd. 306 ITR 392 and Sahney Steel & Press Works Ltd. vs. CIT 228 ITR 253 (SC).

On the other hand, the assessee submitted that the appeal deserved to be rejected outright, since no substantial question of law was involved. It was further submitted that having regard to the findings of fact recorded by the Appellate Authority and the Tribunal, the question of law as raised, did not fall for consideration as a substantial question of law and that the findings of the Tribunal even on the question of law were justified and the Tribunal had rightly treated the amount paid by Siemens AG as “Subvention payment” and had rightly treated it against the capital account. It was further submitted that the judgments relied upon on behalf of the revenue were not applicable to the facts of the present case.

The Karnataka High Court examined the facts and the law laid down by the Supreme Court in the cases relied upon by the Revenue namely, CIT vs. Ponni Sugars & Chemicals Ltd. (supra) and Sahney Steel & Press Works Ltd. vs. CIT (supra). It observed that applying the above principles to the facts of the present case, and keeping in view the objective behind the payment made by Siemens AG, the court was satisfied that it was received by the assessee on revenue account. From the facts, it was clear to the court that huge amounts were paid by Siemens AG not only to make good the loss, but also to see that the assessee would run more profitably and the payment was by way of assistance in carrying on the business. The court noted that it was not the case of the assessee that the monies paid by Siemens AG were  utilised  either for repayment of the loan undertaken by the assessee for setting up its unit or for expansion of existing unit/business.

The court took note of the observation of the Supreme Court to the effect that the point of time at which the subsidy was paid was not relevant and the source and the form of subsidy was immaterial. In the opinion of the High Court, the main eligibility condition for receipt was that the amount ought to have been utilised by the assessee to meet recurring expenses and/or to run its business more profitably and so also to get out of the loss that it was suffering at the relevant time. In any case, the court noted that the receipt was not for acquiring capital assets or to bring into existence any new asset. As a matter of fact, after getting the financial aid from Siemens AG, the assessee company turned its business from loss to profit, which was evident from the facts reflected in the return of income filed for all the three assessment years. In this backdrop, if the purpose test is applied, it was clear to the court that the payment was made by Siemens AG for meeting recurring expenses/working capital.

The Karnataka High Court questioned the basis of the findings of the tribunal where the tribunal had observed that Siemens AG paid the assessee or  compensated the assessee in view of the continued losses, and such financial aid was extended to augment the capital base and to improve the net worth which had eroded the losses suffered by the company. According to the court, the facts on record spoke otherwise and on the other hand, supported the case of the revenue that the financial aid was extended by Siemens AG not only to make good the loss but to see that the company ran more profitably.

The court, while deciding the issue in favour of the Revenue by allowing its appeal, held as follows; “It is the object which is relevant for the financial assistance which determines the nature of such assistance. In other words, the character of the receipts in the hands of the assessee has to be determined with respect to the purpose for which payment was made. If the financial assistance is extended for repayment of the loan undertaken by the assessee for setting up new unit or for expansion of existing business then the receipt of such aid could be termed as capital  in nature. On the other hand, if the financial assistance  is extended to run business more profitably or to meet recurring expenses, such payment will have to be treated as revenue receipt. It is not the case of the assessee,   in  the  present  case,  that  the  financial  assistance was extended by Siemens AG either  for  setting  up  any unit or expansion of existing business or for acquiring any assets.”

Observations
A receipt of subvention money apparently is in the nature of gift and in the absence of any express provision for taxing such a receipt, the same cannot be brought to income tax. It is only when such a receipt is  in the ordinary course of business and has the effect of augmenting the profits of an assessee or recouping the assessee’s revenue expenditure that a question arises for consideration whether a receipt is taxable or not. A receipt from the holding company to meet the expansion needs of the subsidiary company or for the repayment  of loans are not in dispute and there appears to be kind of an unanimity that such receipts are capital in nature. Also not in dispute is the receipt to arrest the erosion     of capital. It seems that even the Karnataka High Court has expressed no disagreement on this understanding  of the law.

There appears to be no doubt that the purposive test is to be applied, for determination of the issue on hand, as has been laid down by the apex court in the cases of Sahney Steel and Press Works Ltd. and Ponni Sugars  & Chemicals Ltd. (supra). Under the purposive test, as per the court, a receipt will not be taxable in a case where the same is received for the purpose of repayment of the liabilities or for expansion of the undertaking, including for acquisition of the assets.

As against that, a receipt will be taxable where it is for the purposes of meeting the expenditure or for increasing the profit of the business. A receipt to meet the erosion of the net worth will also be on capital account.

It is interesting to note that both the courts have relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case      of CIT vs. Ponni Sugars & Chemicals Ltd. (supra) to deliver contrasting decisions. This has happened mainly for the reason that the assesseee in the case before   the Karnataka High Court had not been able to clearly establish to the satisfaction of the court that the receipt in question was for arresting the erosion of net worth     in spite of the finding of the tribunal on this aspect. The Tribunal had given a finding of fact that the receipt was for improving the net worth of the subsidiary company but the court gave a finding to the contrary by holding that the tribunal was not right, on facts, to have given such finding.

It is also relevant that the assessee in the case before the Karnataka High Court did not cite the favourable decision in the case of Deutsche Post Bank Home Finance (supra) which was a current decision directly on the subject of the subvention receipt. It also did not cite or rely upon the decision in the case of Handicrafts & Handloom Corporation Of India (supra), a decision that was relied upon by the Delhi High Court while deciding the issue in favour of Deutsche Home Bank Finance.

In the case of Handicrafts & Handloom Corporation Of India (supra ), the assessee, a wholly subsidiary company of State Trading Corporation (STC), incurred a loss in  its business of export of handloom, etc. for assessment year 1970-71. STC gave cash assistance at 6 per cent of the foreign earnings of the assessee to recoup the losses. Cash assistance of Rs. 11.70 lakh was given by STC. The question was whether such cash assistance amounted to income. The Court noticed previous rulings of the Allahabad and Madras High Court, respectively,  in cases of Ratna Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. (supra) and V.S.
S.V. Meenakshi Achi (supra), the ratio of which decision was confirmed by the common judgment by the Supreme Court in the case of V. S. S. V. Meenakshi Achi (supra).

The Court held that the amounts given by the STC to  the assessee, i.e., Handicrafts & Handloom Export Corporation of India in order to recoup its losses, which were incurred year after year, were akin to assistance  by a father to ensure the business survival of his child. The Court held that the amount given by the father would only be in the nature of gifts/or voluntary payment and not stemming from any business consideration. The position is similar here, where the shareholder is ensuring the survival of the subsidiary.

In Lurgi India Co. Ltd. 302 ITR 67(Delhi), the assessee received a sum of Rs. 13 crore from its parent company Lurgi Company AG, which was credited to profit and loss account by way of capital grant. However, in computation of total income it was stated that the amount was received from Lurgi AG for recouping its losses. The amount so received was held to be capital grant not chargeable to tax under the Act following the ratio of the decision of  the Hon’ble Delhi High Court in the case of Handicrafts  & Handloom Export Corporation of India vs. CIT (supra). Kindly see the decisions of the Bombay High Court in the case of Indian Textile Engineers, 141 ITR 69 and of the Calcutta high court in the case of Stewarts & Lloyds of India Ltd. 165 ITR 416 which confirm the above treatment of receipt.

The Delhi High Court in the case of Handicrafts & Handloom Corporation Of India (supra ), held that there was a basic difference between the grants made by a Government or from public funds generally to assessee in a particular line of business or trade, with a view to help them in the trade or to supplement their general revenues or trading receipts and not ear-marked for any specific or particular purpose and a case of a private party agreeing to make good the losses incurred by an assessee on account of a mutual relationship that subsisted between them. The former were treated as a trading receipt because they reach the trader in his capacity as such, and were made in order to assist him in carrying on of the trade. The latter were in the nature of gifts or voluntary payments motivated by personal relationship and not stemming from any business considerations. The amount received from parent company was not grants received from an outsider or the Government on such general grounds. The amounts were paid by STC to the assessee in order to enable it to recoup those losses and to enable it to meet its liabilities. The amounts received by the assessee from STC could not be treated as part of the trading receipt.

It seems that subvention money received from the holding company, not as trader, but to recoup the losses likely to be suffered by the subsidiary, should be capital in nature, more so where the holding company otherwise has no trading  relation  with  the  subsidiary  company. A receipt not to meet the recurring expenditure but to help in purchasing capital assets or for expansion of the business is more likely to be capital in nature. So is the case where the receipt is not for the purpose of assisting the assessee to run the business more profitably. A voluntary payment arising out of personal  relationship  of parent and subsidiary company, not stemming from any business considerations, is not a revenue receipt. The case is further strengthened where the holding company does not treat the payment as an expenditure. In our view, the decision of the Karnataka High Court was delivered on the basis of the facts and cannot be taken as laying down any precedent for taxing a subvention receipt in general.

TDS on Aircraft Landing & Parking Charges

Synopsis

The controversy is in regard to deductibility of tax on payments made by Airlines to Airports for use of parking and incidental. The authors analyse two deci- sions of the Delhi High court and one of the Madras High Court. The former held that the Tax should be deducted u/s. 194I considering parking and landing fees as rent. Whereas, Madras High Court held that services of landing and parking included many services in the nature of work done under the contract and covered u/s. 194C. In Authors’ view, the Madras HC decision seems to be more detailed and reasoned.

Airlines pay to airports different types of charges for use of airports and its facilities. Charges are paid for landing and take off facilities, taxiways, parking bay with necessary air traffic control, ground safety services, aeronautical communication services, navi- gation services and meteorological services besides the rent or charges for use of hangars. Landing and parking charges are paid for use of the facility of landing and parking aircrafts at airports. The land- ing charges are based on the weight of the aircraft, using the maximum permissible take-off weight of the aircraft, while parking charges are linked to the size of the aircraft and the period of parking.

Tax is deductible at source u/s. 194-C or 194-I on various types of payments made to the airport au- thorities for use of the airports or the facilities made available there at. The issue has arisen before the courts as to the categorisation of these payments for landing and parking charges for the purposes of TDS – whether it is rent falling u/s. 194-I or Pay- ments to Contractors falling u/s. 194C. Conflicting views have been taken by the Delhi and the Madras High Courts, with the Delhi High Court holding that payment of such landing and parking charges is in the nature of rent, tax being deductible u/s.194-I, and the Madras High Court holding that tax is deductible at source from such payments u/s. 194C.

United Airlines’ Case

The issue first came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of  United Airlines vs. CIT 287 ITR 281.

The Delhi High Court noted that the term “rent” as defined in section 194-I read as under:

“ ‘rent’ means any payment, by whatever name called, under any lease, sub-lease, tenancy or any other agreement or arrangement for the use of any land or any building (including factory building), together with furniture, fittings and the land appurtenant thereto, whether or not such building is owned by the payee;”

According to the court, a perusal of the above provi- sion showed that the word “rent” defined therein had a wider meaning than ‘rent’ as is understood in common parlance. It included any agreement or arrangement for use of land.

The court observed that when the wheels of an aircraft touch the surface of the airfield, use of the land of the airport immediately begins. Similarly, for parking the aircraft in that airport, again, there is use of the land. Hence, the court was of the opinion that landing and parking fee was definitely ‘rent’ within the meaning of the definition in section 194-I as they were payments made for use of the land of the airport.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the arguments of the assessee based on the intention of the provision and its background, holding that considerations of equity were wholly out of place in a taxing statute, and that a strict interpretation was called for.

In the opinion of the Delhi High Court, the definition of the word “rent” in Expln. (i) of section 194-I was very clear and the plain meaning of that provision showed that even the landing of aircraft or parking aircraft amounted to user of the land of the airport.

Hence, according to the court, the landing fee and parking fee would amount to ‘rent’ within the meaning of aforesaid provision, even if it could not be assigned such a meaning in common parlance.

This decision of the Delhi High Court was followed by it in a subsequent decision in the case of CIT vs. Japan Airlines Co. Ltd. 325 ITR 298. In this case, the court also held that a letter from Airports Authority of India stating that payment of such charges at- tract TDS u/s. 194C, was not an argument available to the assessee while deciding the issue before it, though it may be relevant in proving the bona fides of the assessee in penalty proceedings.

Singapore Airlines Case

The issue again recently came up before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Singapore Airlines 358 ITR 237.

In this case, the assessee claimed that the payments made to the International Airport Authority towards landing and parking charges would not come within the definition of “rent” under the explanation to section 194-I. The assessing officer took the view that the charges paid by the assessee towards landing and parking to the International Airport Authority of India for the use of runway for landing and takeoff and also the space in the tarmac of the airport for parking of the aircraft represented rent.

The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the order of the assessing officer. The tribunal followed the decision of the Delhi bench of the tribunal in the case of DCIT vs. Japan Airlines 92 TTJ 687, taking the view that the payment made by the airline could not be construed as payment of rent. The tribunal took the view that the provisions of section 194C would apply to such payments (while holding that the provisions of section 194J would apply to pay- ment for navigation facilities).

Before the Madras High Court, on behalf of the revenue, reliance was placed on the definition of ‘rent’ in the explanation to section 194-I and the decision of the Delhi High Court in Japan Airlines case (supra).

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that the Delhi High Court had considered the definition of “rent” without considering the nature of services offered by the International Airports Authority of India on the landing and parking of the aircraft. It was pointed out that the definition of rent was an exhaustive definition and that considering the preceding enumeration, namely lease, sub-lease or tenancy, the term ‘any other agreement or ar- rangement’ as appearing in the definition had to be understood by applying the principle of ejusdem generis. Therefore, the said arrangement or agree- ment had to be in respect of use of any land or any building as under a tenancy or lease for the payment to qualify as rent. It was pointed out that the Delhi High Court had not taken note of the facts that there was no use of any land as in the case of tenancy or lease and that all that the airlines had paid for was only for the services rendered by the Airport Authority in providing of facilities for landing, including the navigational facility and the payment was measured with reference to various parameters, which were given by the International Airport Authority in its various circulars.

The attention of the court was drawn, in response to the question raised as to whether the various facilities offered and the charges fixed for the same on the basis of weight for the use of the facility would amount to “use of the land” and the charges would fit in within the definition of “rent”, to the Delhi tribunal’s decision in the case of Japan Air- lines, which had considered the various aspects of the services rendered to the airlines, and to the fact that the Delhi High Court in United Airlines’ case (which was followed in Japan Airlines’ case by the Delhi High Court) had not considered any of these aspects while dealing with the issue as to whether the charges would fit in within the definition of “rent”. It was claimed that the Delhi High Court had merely interpreted the provision of law to come to a conclusion that when the wheels of an aircraft coming into an airport touches the surface of the airfield, there was a use of the land immediately, so too on the parking of the aircraft in the airport there was use of the land, and hence the parking and landing fee should be treated as rent. It was argued that the issue should be decided in the light of the various facilities offered by the Airport Authority of India.

The Madras High Court observed that the definition of ‘rent’ began with the phrase “rent to mean”, which indicated an exhaustive definition. It agreed that an arrangement or agreement must necessarily be of the same nature of character of lease, sub- lease and tenancy for it to fall within the definition of rent, following the principle of ejusdem generis. The Madras High Court observed that in United Airlines case, neither the revenue nor the assessee produced any materials on the nature of services rendered. No material was produced to show the true nature of the arrangement or agreement and show whether it was in the nature of a lease or a license for the use of the land for it being char- acterised as rent.

The Madras high court observed that the Delhi tribunal’s case of Japan Airlines was the only case where the various details regarding the nature of services rendered and the payment charged as per the guidelines and principles laid down by the Council of International Civil Aviation Organisation were considered to come to the conclusion that the charges paid did not fall within the definition of ‘rent’. The court noted that the services provided as analysed by the tribunal included charges for landing and takeoff facilities, taxiways with neces- sary draining and fencing of airport, parking route, navigation and terminal navigation. These charges were based on weight formula and maximum per- missible takeoff weight and length of stay.

The Madras High Court noted that the Delhi tribunal had held that the Airports Authority of India never intended to give exclusive possession of any specific area to the airlines in relation to the landing and parking area. Since a tenancy was created only when the tenant was granted the right to enjoyment of the property by having exclusive possession, the tribunal had held that the payment could not be called a ‘rent’.

Before the High Court, various materials, such as Airport Economic Manual of ICAO and Airports Authority of India Act, 1994, were produced to demonstrate the nature of services provided by the airports. The High Court noted that the principles guiding the levy of charges for landing and take- off showed that the charges were with reference to the number of facilities provided by the airport in compliance with various international protocols and were not for any specified land usage or area allotted. The charges were governed by various considerations on offering facilities to meet the requirements of passenger safety and for safe landing and parking of the aircraft. According to the Madras High Court, the charges were of the nature of fees for services offered, rather than in the nature of rent for use of land.

The Madras High Court observed that it was no doubt true that the Delhi High Court had pointed out that an aircraft, on coming into an airport and on touching the surface of the airfield, began the use of the land, and on parking of the aircraft, used the land however, that alone could not conclude that the use of the land led to a lease or an ar- rangement in the nature of a lease. By the very nature of things, as a means of transport, an aircraft had to touch down for disembarking passengers and goods before it took off. For this facility, the airport charged a price. Given the complexity of landing and takeoff, unlike in the case of vehicles on a road, the airport had to provide navigational facilities, and the charges were calculated based on certain criteria like the weight of the aircraft which charges could not be construed as rent.

The Madras High Court also noted that the runway usage by an aircraft was no different from the us- age of a road by a vehicle or any other means of transport. Just as the use of a road could not be regarded as a use of land, the use of the tarmac could also not be regarded as the use of land. For the purpose of considering whether the payment was rent, such use would not fall within the expres- sion “use of land”.

The Madras High Court therefore expressed its in- ability to accept the view of the Delhi High Court that the use of the land on a touchdown in the airfield would amount to a use of land for the purpose of treating the charges as rent u/s. 194-I. The Madras High Court confirmed the order of the tribunal, holding that tax was not deductible at source u/s. 194-I from such payments.

Observations

When one goes through the decisions of the Delhi High Courts and that of the Madras High Court, it is evident that the decision of the Madras High Court is a more detailed and reasoned one. The Madras High Court has considered not just the law, but has applied the law to the facts of the case before it, by examining the nature of the services provided, unlike the Delhi High Court in whose decision the facts of the case in relation to services rendered, as found by the tribunal, do not seem to have been taken into account as is observed by the Madras High Court.

The definition of the term ‘rent’ contained in the Explanation 1 to section 194-I is an exhaustive definition as is clear by the use of the word ‘mean’ in contrast to ‘includes’, therein. The term “any another agreement or arrangement” should not be widely construed, but should be read by apply- ing the principle of ‘ejusdem generis’. So read , the payment for mere usage of land without any right to enjoy the land can not amount to rent for the purposes of section 194-I , more so, where the use of land is ancillary.

The services for landing and parking includes clear approach, taxiways, light, communication facilities, aerodrome control, air traffic control, meteorologi- cal information, fire and ambulance services, use of light and special radio aids for landing, etc. The landing and parking charges are based on the weight formulae and not on area of parking and hence the parking charges are for the work done under the contract and are covered by section 194C. The Airport Economic Manual lays down different criteria for rental charges for long term use of hangars, etc., where the market value of the land and buildings involved is the criteria, which is different from the criteria used for landing and parking charges. There is a clear distinction between the rent and landing and parking charges.

Looking at the substance of the transaction involving the payment of landing and parking charges, there is clearly no lease or tenancy in land is intended to be granted nor exclusive possession of land is desired to be given. Such an arrangement cannot be treated as rent.

The view taken by the Madras High Court therefore clearly seems to be the better view of the matter, that tax is not deductible u/s. 194-I from landing and parking charges paid to the authorites for use of the airports and the airports facilities of the kinds discussed here.

TDS on Premium Paid for Grant of Lease

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Synopsis U/s. 194-I of the Income Tax Act, 1961, an assessee is required to deduct tax at source from payment of rent made to a resident. In some lease transactions, particularly when land is taken on a lease for a long period of time, a one-time premium is paid for the grant of lease. In addition to the premium, an annual lease rent of a nominal amount may be charged. The issue is whether the payer needs to deduct tax at source from the one-time premium paid.

The issue has been the subject matter of adjudication in various cases and judgment largely depends on the facts of the case. In this article, the authors have analysed various judicial pronouncements in this regard and have made several observations that will help the reader understand the issue in its entirety.

Issue for Consideration

Section 194-I of the Income-tax Act, 1961 requires deduction of tax at source from payment of any income by way of rent to a resident. For this purpose, ‘rent’ has been defined to mean any payment, by whatever name called, under any lease, sub-lease, tenancy or any other agreement or arrangement for the use of (either separately or together) any, land, or building (including factory building), or land appurtenant to a building (including factory building), ……………….. whether or not any one or all of the above are owned by the payee.

Very often, when land is taken on lease for a long period of time, say for 30 years, 50 years or 99 years, a premium is paid for such grant of lease, particularly when the lease is being taken from a Government Authority, such as an Industrial Development Corporation or a Regional Development Authority. In addition to the premium, annual rent may also be charged, which at times may be a nominal amount. The payment of such a premium has been the subject matter of several controversies, under the tax laws, surrounding the liability of the payer to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I and his eligibility to claim deduction for such payment in computing his total income.

One of the issues is whether such a premium is really in the nature of rent for the purposes of section 194-I, and whether tax is deductible at source from such premium, or whether such premium is in the nature of a capital expenditure for the grant of lease of the land and no tax is deductible from such payment. While the Chennai bench of the Tribunal has taken the view that tax is required to be deducted at source u/s. 194-I from the payment of lease premium, the Delhi and Mumbai benches of the Tribunal have taken a contrary view that payment for such premium is a capital expenditure and no tax is required to be deducted at source thereon.

Foxconn India’s case

The issue first arose before the Chennai bench of the tribunal in the case of Foxconn India Developer (P) Ltd. vs. ITO 53 SOT 213.

In this case, the assessee was engaged in the business of developing a Special Economic Zone (SEZ) and had taken on lease, a plot of land of 151.85 acre for a period of 99 years from SIPCOT Ltd., a Tamil Nadu State Government Corporation engaged in industrial development, which was the nodal agency for development of land for SEZ at Sriperumbudur. The assessee paid an amount of Rs. 28.41 crore as upfront charges for the lease. The annual lease rent was Rs. 1 per year for 98 years and Rs. 2 in the 99th year, such rent also being paid in advance. The upfront fee was non-refundable and consisted of Rs. 27.09 crore towards non-refundable upfront charges and Rs. 1.32 crore for payment towards provision of water and pipeline up to the boundary limit.

The Assessing Officer (TDS) took the view that such payment came within the definition of rent as per the explanation to section 194-I, and that the assessee had failed to deduct tax at source thereon. He therefore treated the assessee as in default for non-deduction of TDS and raised a demand for the amount of TDS and interest thereon.

The Commissioner (Appeals) was of the view that the upfront fee was nothing but advance rent, since the annual rent was very small. According to the Commissioner (Appeals), such upfront payment obviated the problem of SIPCOT in collecting the rent annually. He therefore held that the assessing officer was justified in applying section 194-I and holding that the assessee had failed to deduct TDS. However, since the lessor had included upfront and water connections charges received by it as its income and paid tax thereon, he held that the TDS could not be recovered from the assessee following the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Hindustan Coca-Cola Beverages 293 ITR 226, but that interest could be levied u/s. 201(1A) up to the date of payment of final installment of advance tax by SIPCOT Ltd.

Before the Tribunal, it was argued that the upfront fee was a capital outgo, and that by such payment, the assessee derived the right of possession of the land for 99 years; that the right was an asset, giving rise to an enduring benefit; that the assessee had reflected this right acquired by such payment as an asset in its balance sheet; that no tax was deductible on a capital outgo. SIPCOT Ltd. had treated the entire amount received by it as a revenue receipt and part of its business income from the area development activity, and had accordingly treated the transaction as a deemed sale of land. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Patna High Court in the case of Traders and Miners Ltd. vs. CIT 27 ITR 341, for the proposition that lease of land was a transfer of a capital asset.

The Tribunal agreed with the assessee’s contention that it had received a benefit of enduring nature, that the outgo was on capital account and that it had acquired an asset by making such payment. It noted that the assessee had derived an interest in the property since leasehold interest was a valuable right.

However, according to the Tribunal, the question was not as to whether the outgo was capital or revenue, but as to whether the upfront fee fell within the definition of ‘rent’ under the Explanation to section 194-I. According to the Tribunal, section 194-I did not differentiate between a capital outgo and a revenue outgo. It rejected the assessee’s argument that the payment was made before the date of signing of the lease agreement, as not being relevant. According to the Tribunal, it was an accepted position that the payments were for the lease of the land, that the lease was already in contemplation and that the payment would not have been made unless the lease was at least orally agreed to between the parties. Therefore, according to the Tribunal, the payment, by whatever name called, was made under a lease agreement.

According to the Tribunal, the definition of rent would definitely include payments of any type under any agreement or arrangement for the use of land. For the purposes of section 194-I, the Tribunal was of the opinion that the normal meaning of the term rent could not be used, but that the specific definition of rent had to be applied, which, in the opinion of the Tribunal, would squarely cover the payment made by the assessee to SIPCOT Ltd.

The Tribunal therefore upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals), holding that tax was deductible at source. Having held that the tax was deductible at source, the Tribunal however proceeded to hold that such tax could not be recovered from the assessee as the relevant taxes had already been paid by SIPCOT Ltd., and that only interest u/s. 201(1A) could be recovered from the assessee.

Navi Mumbai SEZ’s case

 The issue again came up before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO vs. Navi Mumbai SEZ (P) Ltd., 147 ITD 261.
in this case, the assessee was a special purpose  vehicle constituted by the maharashtra Government Corporation, City and industrial development Corporation of maharashtra ltd. (CidCo) and dronagiri infrastructure Private Limited for developing and operating an SEZ at  navi  mumbai.  CidCo  was  the  town  development authority for navi mumbai, and had acquired privately owned lands in that area for development work. CidCo was also appointed as the nodal agency for setting up the SeZ at navi mumbai.

a development agreement, followed by the lease deed, was entered into between CidCo and the assessee, whereunder the assessee agreed for payment of lease premium, in respect of land acquired by CidCo and allotted to the assessee, from time to time. accordingly, the  assessee  paid  lease  premium  of  rs.  50  crore  in assessment year 2006-07, rs. 946.06 crore in assessment year 2007-08, Rs. 1,033.61 crore in assessment year 2008-09,  and  rs.  146.82  crore  in  assessment  year 2009-10.

By virtue of the lease, the assessee had acquired lease- hold rights in the land for the purpose of developing, designing, planning, financing, marketing, developing necessary infrastructure, providing necessary services, operating and maintaining infrastructure, and administering and managing the SEZ to be known as the navi mumbai SEZ. the assessee had also acquired the rights to determine, levy, collect, retain, and utilise user charges, fees for provision of services and/or tariffs under the lease deed. the lease deed and development agreement assigned to the assessee the right to develop, construct and dispose of residential and commercial spaces. the assessee was also entitled to grant a sub-lease in respect of portions of the lease land, in accordance with applicable laws and as per the lease deed. the assessee was granted the power to assign its rights, title or interest or create a security interest in respect of its right, either fully or in part thereof, in favour of lenders, including the grant of step in rights in the event of default under the financing arrangements for the purposes of obtaining finance for the SEZ. under the development agreement, the assessee acquired sole rights for marketing of the SEZ and the industrial/commercial projects to potential tenants.

The assessing officer took the view that the lease premium was ‘rent’ within the meaning of the said term u/s. 194-i and that the assessee ought to have deducted tax at source from such payment. according to the assessing Officer, almost any and every payment in relation to property under lease transactions was to be treated as rent for the purposes of section 194-i and hence lease premium partook of the character of rent. according to the ao, the various restrictive clauses in the lease agreement negated the assessee’s contention that it had acquired rights in the land and not merely rights to use the land. the ao therefore held that the assessee was in default for non-deduction of tax at source on such payment.

The  Commissioner  (appeals)  noted  that  the  assessee had been allotted land for a period of 60 years on the payment of lease premium and that the lease deed and the development agreement assigned to the assessee leasehold rights, which included a bundle of rights. he held that the payment of lease premium by the assessee was for acquiring the lease and it could not be equated with rent. The Commissioner (Appeals) noted that the definition of the term ‘rent’ specifically used the term ‘for the use of,’ and that the usage was of the utmost importance in any transaction for it to be treated as rent. according to the Commissioner (appeals), a transaction of lease might have stipulations which make it a transaction identical   to the transactions between a landlord and a tenant and that was why various terms like sub-lease, tenancy, etc. had been used in the section. however, in many cases, a lease transaction might not necessarily be similar or identical to a transaction between a landlord and tenant, and instead might indicate a sale transaction, in the sense that certain more valuable rights in the property were transferred.

The Commissioner (appeals) also drew a distinction be- tween a case where the tenant or lessee used the proper- ty for his own purposes or employed it for his own benefit, in which case the consideration would be in the nature  of rent, as against a situation where the property was exploited in a manner that its identity did not remain the same and thereafter it was sold, by the lessee, for a profit, which was the situation in the assessee’s case and hence could not be termed as a transaction between a landlord and a tenant. according to the Commissioner (appeals), the latter was a case where the lessee acquired a capital right to develop the land and exploit it. the Commissioner (appeals) therefore held that the assessee had acquired rights in land and had not paid for the use of the land, and that therefore the provisions of section 194-i were not attracted.

On further appeal by the revenue, the tribunal noted that the word ‘rent’ as defined u/s. 194-I had a wider meaning than that in common parlance. the tribunal also noted that the assessee however had paid the lease premium to acquire the leasehold land and that there was no provi- sion for refund of the lease premium paid by the assessee. it took note of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of A. R. Krishnamurthy vs. CIT 176 itr 417, wherein the apex Court held that a lease of land was a transfer  of interest in the land, that involved a transfer of title in favour of the lessee, though the lessor had the right of reversion after the period of lease terminated. it also took note of the decision of the delhi high Court in the case  of Bharat Steel Tubes Ltd. vs. CIT 252 itr 622, wherein the court held that amount paid for acquiring leasehold rights was premium, which was capital in nature, and that periodical payments made for the continuous enjoyment of the benefits under the lease amounted to rent, which was revenue in nature.

The tribunal also noted the decision of the jurisdictional Bombay high Court in the case of CIT vs. Khimline Pumps Ltd. 258 itr 459, wherein it was held that the payment made for acquiring leasehold rights from a lessee was capital in nature, and could not be treated as an advance rent. according to the tribunal, in the assessee’s case, there was a transfer of substantive interest of the lessor in the leasehold land in favour of the assessee and that the lease premium was a capital expenditure to acquire a capital asset and not for the use of the land.

The  tribunal  observed  that  in  the  case  of  foxconn  in- dia developers (supra) the Chennai bench of the tribu- nal had observed that the payment was made under the lease agreement, and had held that the payment was for use of land and not for acquisition of leasehold land. the tribunal in navi mumbai SeZ’s case therefore, was of the view that the decision of the Chennai bench in foxconn’s case was not applicable to the case before it. the tribu- nal preferred to follow the decision of the delhi tribunal in ITO vs. Indian Newspapers Society 144 itd 668, wherein it was held that the payment of the lease premium was not liable to deduction of tax at source. it also took note of the ratio of the decision of the special bench of the tribunal at mumbai in the case of Jt. CIT vs. Mukund Ltd. 13 Sot 558, where the special bench had held that premium paid for acquiring leasehold rights in land was a capital expenditure.

The mumbai bench of the tribunal therefore held that the premium paid by the assessee did not attract the provisions of section 194-i, and that no tax was required to be deducted at source on such lease premium.

A similar view had been taken earlier by the mumbai bench of the tribunal in the case of ITO vs. Wadhwa & Associates Realtors (P) Ltd. 146 itd 694, in the context of lease of land from mumbai metropolitan regional development authority.

Observations
An immovable property comprises of a bundle of rights, each of them can be separately conveyed for varied consideration to different people. for example, right to own, right to use, right to mine, right to let, right to manage and control, etc. under the general law, sale consideration is received for conveyance of absolute rights in a property while a premium is received for transfer of the partial in- terest of the owner of the property and rent is received for grant of the right to use the property for a period. each of these transfers operate in different fields and the payments there under have different implications.the receipt of the rent is in the revenue field and of the premium is in the capital field. The payment of the rent is revenue expenditure and of the premium is a capital outlay. there may be cases where it may be difficult to draw a precise line between the premium and the rent. there may also be the cases that the parties for convenient reasons chose to use such nomenclatures that do not reveal the true nature of the transactions. the distinction between premium and rent and the norms for identifying each of them is noted by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Panbari Tea Co. Ltd. 57 itr 422 in the following words:

“The real test of a salami or premium is whether the amount paid, in a lump sum or in instalments, is the consideration paid by the tenant for being let into possession. When the interest of the lessor is parted with for a price, the price paid is premium or salami. But the periodical payments made for the continuous enjoyment of the benefits under the lease are in the nature of rent. The former is a capital receipt, and the latter are revenue receipts. There may be circumstances where the parties may camouflage the real nature of the transaction by using clever phraseology.

This section (section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act), therefore brings out the distinction between the price paid for transfer of right to enjoy the property and the rent to be paid periodically to the lessor. When the interest of the lessor is parted with for a price, the price paid is premium or salami. But the periodical payments made for the continuous enjoyment of the benefits under the lease is in the nature of rent. The former is a capital income and the latter a revenue receipt.

In some cases, the so-called premium is in fact advance rent and in others, rent is deferred  price. It is not the form, but the substance of the transaction that matters. The nomenclature used may not be decisive conclusion, but it helps the court, having regard to the other circumstances, to ascertain the intention of the parties.”

It is therefore appropriate to hold that the issue that whether a payment is a premium or a rent is largely a question of fact. the facts will decide as to what has been paid is a premium or a rent, no matter what nomenclature the parties have chosen to use; the facts will decide the character of the payment, no matter it has been paid in one go or in installments. the facts that are relevant for deciding the character are whether the payer’s interest  in the property are transferred or whether the payment is for the limited purpose of use of the property for a period. Where the payment is for use of the property, the same would be on revenue account even where paid in one go for a period exceeding one year. in contrast where the payment is for acquiring a part of the interest of the owner, the same will be on capital account even where paid in installments.

Usually in the long lease, the transaction involves a transfer of interest of the owner in part and of the right to use the property as well as the separate payment being made for each of them. in such circumstances, it is fair for the parties and also for the authorities to respect the contents of the lease deed unless they do not reveal the facts but camouflage them.

An yardstick that can be safely used, in a case where the contents of the lease deed do not clearly reveal the true nature of the transaction and of the payment, is to look for the value of the property in the open market and if the premium matches such value, with a difference attributable to the limited title, it can be said that the payment was made for transfer of interest in the property.

An additional issue is whether the distinction between the two terms is to be ignored while interpreting section 194-i, given the specific definition contained in the Explanation to that section. On the first glance, one may be tempted to hold, like what was done by the Chennai bench in foxconn’s case, that any payment made under a lease, is subjected to the provisions of tax deduction at source as such payment should be termed as ‘rent’ within its extended meaning u/s. 194-I. We are afraid that the view  of the bench requires reconsideration in as much as the term ‘rent’, even u/s. 194-I, covers a payment only where it is for the use of the properties listed therein. The definition of rent in section 194-i uses the term “for the use of” clearly indicating that it is intended to cover the subsequent periodical payments, which are meant for continuous subsequent usage of the property, and not initial capital payment, meant for acquisition of the right to use the property. had section 194-i intended to also cover payments made for acquisition of the right to use property, it would have used the term “for acquisition of the right to use, or for the use of”.

The Chennai bench of the tribunal took the view that it did not matter as to whether the payment of premium was capital in nature or revenue in nature. it proceeded on the footing that the definition of ‘rent’ in section 194-I was broad enough to cover even capital payments. however, given the use of the term “for use of” in the definition, it is clear that what is covered by the definition is only a revenue expenditure, and not a capital expenditure. the distinction, as observed by the Supreme Court in Panbari tea’s case (supra), between rent (revenue) and premium (capital) also does not seem to have been taken into account by the Chennai bench of the tribunal.

In fact, if one takes the Chennai bench’s decision to its logical conclusion, even payment for outright purchase of land or building will be covered by section 194-i, as purchase of land or building includes acquisition of the right to use the land or building. this would be an absurdity, more particularly as there is a separate provision u/s. 194-ia for deduction of tax at source from payments for acquisition of immovable property.

As rightly analysed by the Special Bench of the tribunal in mukund’s case (supra), if the premium is non-refundable and there is a provision for termination of the lease prior to the end of the lease term, without refund of any part of the lease premium for the unexpired lease term, the payment of premium cannot be regarded as a payment of advance rent. unless the agreement shows that the amount of premium was paid as advance rent for all future years and that a lump sum payment of future years’ rent was paid to avail of some concession in rent, the premium paid is to be regarded as a price for obtaining the leasehold rights. in that case, the tribunal also relied upon the Supreme Court decision in the case of Durga Das Khanna vs. CIT 72 ITR 796, where the Supreme Court took a similar view in relation to a lease agreement for a cinema hall.

The delhi high Court, in the case of Krishak Bharati Co- Operative Ltd. vs. DCIT 350 ITR 24, has pointed out that payment of lease premium is a precondition for securing possession. Where the tenure of the lease is quite substantial and the lease virtually creates ownership rights in favour of the assessee, who is at liberty to construct upon the plot, and exclusive possession has been handed over to the assessee at the time of creation of the lease, the lease premium could not be regarded as advance rent to be amortised over the period of the lease.

In the case of R. K. Palshikar HUF vs. CIT 172 ITR 311 (SC), where the lease was for a long period, namely 99 years, the assessee had parted with an asset of an enduring nature, namely, the rights to possession and enjoyment to the properties leased for a period of 99 years subject to certain conditions on which the respective leases could be terminated, and a premium had been charged by the assessee in all the leases, the Supreme Court held that the grant of the leases amounted to transfer of the capital assets.

In Krishak Bharati’s case (supra), the delhi high Court observed that all the cases where the lease premium was held to be in the nature of advance rent were fact dependent. in the case of DCIT vs. Sun Pharmaceutical Industries Ltd. 329 ITR 479 (Guj), the lease premium was held to be deductible as the annual lease rent was a token amount of rs. 40. in CIT vs. Gemini Arts (P) Ltd. 254 itr 201 (mad), the rent was a nominal amount and there was no provision for increase in rent during the period of lease.

As observed by lord Greene m.r. in henriksen vs. Grafton Hotel Ltd. 24 TC 453:

“A payment of this character appears to me to fall into the same class as the payment of a premium of a lease, which is admittedly not deductible. in the case of such a premium, it is nothing to the point to say that the parties, if they had chosen, might have suppressed the premium and made a corresponding increase in the rent. no doubt they might have done so, but they did not do so in fact.” importantly, the Supreme Court in the case of durga das Khanna (supra) held that the onus is on the revenue to demonstrate that the advance rent has been camouflaged as premium and that the premium has been inflated. According to the Supreme Court, where an arm of the government is a party to the lease agreement, the burden on the Assessing Officer to prove such camouflage would be very heavy and onerous.

Therefore, in a situation where an assessee obtains substantial domain over the immovable property by payment of the lease premium, particularly where the lease premium is paid to a Government authority, the premium would be regarded as a payment for acquisition of the property for the lease period, and not as a payment for the user of the property. therefore, the provisions of section 194-I should not be attracted to such payment of lease premium. the ratio of the decisions of the mumbai and delhi benches of the tribunal, to the effect that no tax is deductible at source in respect of such premium, therefore seems to be the better view of the matter.

‘Additional Depreciation’ where assets used for less than 180 days

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Issue for Consideration
An assessee, in addition to the claim of the depreciation, is entitled to a claim of depreciation u/s. 32(1)(iia) (‘additional depreciation’), on purchase of new plant and machinery and installation thereof, at the rate of 20% of the actual cost of such plant and machinery that is used by the assessee in his business of manufacture or production of articles or things.

Under the second proviso to section 32(1), the depreciation allowed to an assessee is reduced to 50% of the depreciation otherwise allowable, in cases where the asset is put to use for less than 180 days in a year.

Depreciation remaining to be absorbed is carried forward to the following year and is allowed to be set off against the income of such year in accordance with the provisions of section 32(2) of the Income-tax Act.

An interesting issue has arisen, in the context of the above provisions, specifically for additional depreciation, in cases where the new plant and machinery is used for less than 180 days. The issue is about whether, in the circumstances narrated above, an assessee has the right to set off the balance 50% of additional depreciation in the year subsequent to the year of purchase and installation of new plant and machinery. While the Delhi, Mumbai and Cochin benches of tribunal have held that the balance additional depreciation can be set-off in the subsequent year, the Chennai bench of tribunal has taken a contrary view, leading us to take notice of this controversy.

Cosmo Films Ltd .’s case
The issue first came up for consideration in the case of DCIT vs. Cosmo Films Ltd., 13 ITR(T) 340 (Delhi), involving the disallowance of arrears of additional depreciation of Rs. 3,34,78,825 and negating an alternate claim for deduction of additional depreciation for assessment year 2004-05.

The assessee company had purchased new plant and machinery during the financial year 2002-03 which were eligible for additional depreciation. They were put to use in that year for less than 182 days. The company had claimed additional depreciation at 50% of the total additional depreciation for assessment year 20003-04 and the balance 50% for the assessment year 2004-05. The claim of the company was disallowed by the AO for assessment year 2004-05 and his action was confirmed by the Commissioner(Appeals).

In the appeal to the Tribunal, the assessee reiterated that, as per the provisions of section 32(1)(iia), the assessee was entitled for a further sum of depreciation equal to 15% of the actual cost of new plant and machinery acquired during the year and installed; that the assessee had been granted a statutory right by provisions of section 32(1) (iia) to claim a further sum equal to 15% of the actual cost in the year of acquisition; that it had claimed additional depreciation during the year which pertained to the additions to the fixed assets during the preceding previous year; the said additions were made during the second half of the financial year 2002-03 relevant to Assessment Year 2003-04 and the additional depreciation was claimed only for 50% of the eligible additional depreciation otherwise available on all the additions made after 30th September, 2002 on account of the second proviso to section 32(1) (ii). Hence, the same was being claimed during the assessment year 2004-05 as it was the balance of the additional depreciation.

The company further explained that the expression “shall be allowed” made it clear that the assessee was entitled to claim an overall deduction equivalent to 15 % of the actual cost of the said additions to the plant and machinery. It contended that the second proviso to section 32(1)(ii) restricted the allowance to 50% in cases where the assets were used for less than 180 days based on the period of usage and such a restriction could not have abrogated the statutory right provided to the assessee by section 32 (1)(iia). It claimed that nowhere in the Act it was prohibited that remaining balance of additional depreciation on the assets added after 30th September, should not be allowed and the second proviso to section 32(1)(ii) could not overlook the one time allowance, which was a statutory right earned in the year of acquisition; had there been intention to restrict the one time allowance to 50%, then it could have been provided in the proviso to clause (iia), as provided in respect of the second hand machines and those used in office, etc. or in respect of office appliances or road transport vehicles.

It was pointed out that the scope of the additional depreciation u/s. 32(1)(iia) introduced by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2002 w.e.f. 01-04-2003 was explained by Circular No. 8 of 2002 dated 27-08-2002 reported in 258 ITR (St.) 13 as being ‘a deduction of a further sum’ as depreciation. Therefore what was proposed to be allowed was depreciation simplicitor though it was called as additional depreciation. Therefore, any balance of the amount of additional sum of depreciation was to be considered to be available for being carried forward and set off in terms of s/s. (2) of section 32 of the Act which provided that where, in the assessment of the assessee, full effect could not be given to any allowance u/s/s. (1) of section 32 in any previous year, then the allowance should be added to the amount of allowance for depreciation for the following previous year and deemed to be part of that allowance, or if there was no such allowance for that previous year, then it would be deemed to be the allowance for that previous year, and so on for the succeeding previous year.

The company, relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Bajaj Tempo Ltd. vs. CIT 196 ITR 188, claimed that a provision for promoting economic growth had to be interpreted liberally and that additional depreciation, being an incentive provision, had to be construed so as to advance the objective of the provision and not to frustrate it. The additional depreciation as provided in Clause (iia) of s/s. (1) of section 32 was a one time benefit whereas the normal depreciation was a year to year feature.;If the benefit was restricted only to 50% then it would be against the basic intention to provide incentive for encouraging industrialisation, which would be unfair, unequitable and unjust. There was no restriction provided in law which restricted the carry forward of the additional sum of depreciation which was a one time affair available to assessee on the new machinery and plant. It was also pleaded that what was expressly granted as an incentive could not be denied through a pejorative interpretation of second proviso to section 32(1)(ii), when such provision by itself did not bar consideration of the balance u/s. 32(2) of the Income-tax Act. Alternatively, it was pleaded that the provisions of section 32(1)(iia) did not stipulate any condition of put to use. Therefore, full deduction was allowable in the year of purchase itself and had to be allowed in full in the assessment year 2003-04, itself.

In reply, the Revenue submitted that the full additional depreciation could be allowed as per section 32(1) (iia) only when the assets were put to use for more than 180 days in the year of acquisition; that the additional depreciation on the assets which were put to use by the assessee for less than 180 days was restricted to 50% of the amount by the second proviso to section 32(1)(ii); that there could not be any carried forward additional depreciation to be allowed in subsequent year; and that compliance of the condition to put to use, in the year of claim, was necessary for allowing any type of depreciation.
On hearing both the sides the tribunal observed and held as under;

•    Additional depreciation was introduced for promoting investment in industrial sector.

•    The intention was clarified by the Finance Minister, the Memorandum explaining the provisions and the Circular explaining the amendments.

•    The provision contained in section 32(1)(iia) wherever desired had placed restriction on the allowance of additional depreciation.

•    The said provision did not contain any restriction on allowance of the unabsorbed additional depreciation in the subsequent year.

•    The intention was not to deny the benefit to the assesses who had acquired or installed new machinery or plant. The second proviso to section 32(1)(ii) restricted the allowance only to 50% where the assets had been acquired and put to use for a period less than 180 days in the year of acquisition which restriction was only on the basis of period of use. There was no restriction that balance of one time incentive in the form of additional sum of depreciation should not be available in the subsequent year.

•    Section 32(2) provided for a carry forward and set off of unabsorbed depreciation. The additional benefit in the form of additional allowance u/s. 32 (1)(iia) was a one time benefit to encourage industrialisation and in view of the decision in the case of Bajaj Tempo Ltd. (supra), the provisions related to it had to be constructed reasonably, liberally and purposively to make the provision meaningful while granting the additional allowance.

•    The assessee deserved to get the benefit in full when there was no restriction in the statute to deny the benefit of balance of 50% when the new plant and machinery were acquired and used for less than 180 days.

•    One time benefit extended to assessee had been earned in the year of acquisition of new plant and machinery. It has been calculated at 15% but restricted to 50% only on account of period of usage of these plant and machinery in the year of acquisition.

•    The expression “shall be allowed” confirmed that the assessee had earned the benefit as soon as he had purchased the new plant and machinery in full but was restricted to 50% in that particular year on account of period of usage. Such restriction could not divest the statutory right.

•    The extra depreciation allowable u/s. 32(1)(iia) was an extra incentive which had been earned and calculated in the year of acquisition but restricted for that year to 50% on account of usage. The incentive so earned must be made available in the subsequent year.

BRAKES INDIA LTD.’S CASE

The issue had again come up for consideration before the Chennai Tribunal in the case of Brakes India Ltd. DCIT(LTU), 144 ITD 0403.

In this case, the assessee company contested the disallowance of additional depreciation of Rs. 4,91,39,749 by the AO and confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals), which was the balance of its claim carried forward from the preceding assessment year. The company had claimed additional depreciation for machinery newly added by it during the preceding assessment year 2006-

7.    Since the machinery were used for a period less than 180 days in the preceding assessment year, the assessee had to restrict its claim to 50% of the normal rate of additional depreciation allowed under the Act. However, for the subsequent assessment year 2007-08, the company claimed carry forward of the balance 50% of the additional depreciation. The AO was of the opinion that additional depreciation could be allowed only for new assets added during the year and since the claim of the assessee related to additions to assets made in the preceding assessment year, it could not be allowed. In other words, as per Assessing Officer, residual additional depreciation from earlier year could not be allowed for carry forward to a subsequent year. The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the action of the AO following the decision of the tribunal for the preceding assessment year in the company’s own case, wherein the Tribunal had confirmed the disallowance of such a claim.

In appeal before the Tribunal, the company supported its claim on several grounds on the lines of the contentions raised by it before the tribunal for assessment year 2006-07 (copy of unreported decision not available) besides contending that section 32(1 )(iia) was amended with effect from 01-04-2006. and under the amended provision, the only condition for the claim was installation of the asset on which additional depreciation was claimed and that such additional depreciation was statutorily allowable, once assets were installed.

The Tribunal noted and held as under;

•    The first requirement for being eligible for a claim of additional depreciation was that the claim should be for a new machinery or plant. A machinery was new only when it was first put to use. Once it was used, it was no longer a new machinery.

•    Admittedly, the machinery, on which carry forward additional depreciation had been claimed, was already used in the preceding assessment year, though for a period of less than 180 days.

•    Therefore, for the impugned assessment year, it was no more a new machinery or plant. Once it was not a new machinery or plant, allowance u/s. 32(1 ) (iia) could not be allowed to it.

•    Additional depreciation itself was only for a new machinery or plant. Carry forward of any deficit of additional depreciation which, as per the assessee, arose on account of use for a period of less than 180 days in the preceding year, if allowed, would not be an allowance for a new machinery or plant.

•    A look at the second proviso to section 32(1)(iia) clearly showed that it restricted a claim of depreciation to 50% of the amount otherwise allowable, when assets were put to use for a period of less than 180 days, irrespective of whether such claim was for normal depreciation or additional depreciation.

•    The intention of the Legislature was to give such additional depreciation for the year in which assets were put to use and not for any succeeding year.

•    There was nothing in the statute which allowed carry forward of such depreciation. There could not be any presumption that unless it was specifically denied, carry forward had to be allowed. What could be carried forward and set off had been specifically mentioned in the Act.

•    The Tribunal in the assessee’s own case in I.T.A. No. 1069/Mds/2010 dated 6th January, 2012, at para 15, held as under:-

“15. We have considered the rival submissions. A perusal of the provisions of section 32 as applicable for the relevant assessment year clearly shows that additional depreciation is allowable on the plant and machinery only for the year in which the capacity expansion has taken place, which has resulted in the substantial increase in the installed capacity. In the assessee’s case, this took place in the assessment year 2005-06 and the assessee has also claimed the additional depreciation during that year and the same has also been allowed. Each assessment year is separate and independent assessment year. The provisions of section 32 of the Act do not provide for carry forward of the residual additional depreciation, if any. In the circumstances, the finding of the learned CIT(A) on this issue is on a right footing and does not call for any interference. Consequently, ground No.1 of the assessee’s appeal stands dismissed.”

The tribunal upheld the orders of the AO and the Commissioner (Appeals) and held that the Commissioner (Appeals) was justified in following the view taken by co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal for the preceding assessment year.

OBSERVATIONS

Section 32(1)(iia) was inserted by Finance (No. 2) Act, 2002 with effect from 01-04-2003. The Finance Minister, in his budget speech, stated that the provision for additional depreciation was introduced to provide incentives for fresh investment in industrial sector and that the clause was intended to give impetus to new investment in setting up a new industrial unit or for cases where the installed capacity of existing units is expanded by at least 25%. The section provided, initially, for additional depreciation at the rate of fifteen percent in respect of the new plant and machinery acquired and installed after 31st March, 2002. These provisions were substituted by the Finance (No. 2) Act of 2004 w.e.f. 01-04-2005 and in its present addition provides for additional depreciation at the rate of twenty percent in respect of the new plant and machinery acquired and installed after 31st March, 2005 by an assessee engaged in the business of manufacture or production of any article or thing. The benefit of additional depreciation is not allowed in respect of the second hand assets, assets installed in office or residence or guest-house, ship, aircraft, vehicles, etc.

The view that an assessee is entitled to claim the deduction for the balance additional depreciation in the succeeding year has been upheld by the Cochin Tribunal in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd., 45 taxmann.com 337, the Mumbai Tribunal in the case of MITC Rolling Mills (P) Ltd., ITA No. 2789/M/2012 dated 13.05.2013 and again by the Delhi Tribunal in the case of SIL Investments, 54 SOT 54. The Chennai bench of the Tribunal however held that the claim for additional depreciation was not allowable every year but only in the year of the installation of the new asset, CRI Pumps, 58 SOT 154. It is therefore clear that but for the lone decision of the Chennai bench in Brakes India Ltd’s case, the overwhelming view is in favour of the allowance of the balance depreciation in the subsequent years.

The original provision for grant of additional depreciation, operating during the period 01-04-2003 to 31-03-2005, contained a very specific provision in the form of first Proviso, to allow a deduction in a previous year in which the new industrial undertaking began to manufacture or produce any article or thing. A specific reference was therefore made to the previous year in which the deduction was allowed. Significantly, under the new provision, no such restriction based on the year is retained, and this again confirms that the new provision effective from A.Y 2006-07, has no limitation concerning the year or years of claim.

The controversy boils down to insignificance when the Revenue realises that the assessee in no case, over a period of life of the asset, can claim a deduction on account of the depreciation as well as the additional depreciation higher than the actual cost of the asset. It perhaps needs to appreciate that there is no loss of revenue at all over a period of time, confirming the fact that the attempts of the Revenue are misdirected when it is contesting the claim of the assessee for the allowance of the balance additional depreciation.

It is true that Clause (iia) of section 32(1) does not contain any restriction or prohibition for claiming the balance additional depreciation in the subsequent year. At the same time, it is also true that the said clause does not expressly provide for such a claim. There neither is an enabling provision nor a disabling provision. In the circumstances a view favourable to the assessee is preferable, more so when the proviso to the said Clause lists several exclusions, and none of them limit the right of an assessee to claim additional deprecation in full nor deny the right of carry forward of the balance amount.

The provision admittedly has been directed towards encouraging industrialisation by allowing additional benefit for acquisition and installation of new plant and machinery. The incentive is aimed to boost new investments in preferred direction. A construction which frustrates the basic purpose of the provision should be avoided in preference of a pragmatic view.

The Finance Minister in his budget speech and the Finance Bill in the Memorandum and the CBDT in its Circular have amplified that the grant of additional depreciation is for incentivising the promotion of capital goods industry. In the circumstances, it is in the fitness of the scheme that the Revenue Department rises to supplement the intentions of the legislature, instead of frustrating the same. It is a settled position in law that an incentive provision should be liberally construed in favour of grant of the deduction. (see Bajaj Tempo Ltd., 196 ITR 188 (SC)). Even otherwise, an interpretation favourable to the assessee should be adopted in cases where two views are possible, Vegetable Products Ltd. 88 ITR 192 (SC), and for the case under consideration, surely two views are possible, as is confirmed by the conflicting decisions of the tribunal on the subject.

In our opinion, the issue under consideration has moved in a narrow compass and in the process, the larger controversy has remained to be addressed, which is, whether there ever was a need to restrict the claim of additional deprecation to 50%, of the eligible amount under the second proviso, in cases where the new asset in question was used for less than 180 days. Had this aspect been addressed by the concerned parties, the understanding of the issue on hand would have been more clear.

Our understanding of the larger issue is as under:

•    The claim for regular depreciation is made possible vide clauses (i) and (ii) of s/s. (1) of section 32 of the Act.
•    The quantum of regular depreciation, so allowed, has been circumscribed to 50% of the deprecation, otherwise allowable, by virtue of the second proviso to the said provision contained in clauses (i) and (ii) of s/s. (1) of section 32 of the Act.

•    The claim for additional depreciation is allowed under a separate Clause namely, Clause (iia) of section 32(1) of the Act, which Clause is otherwise independent of clauses (i) and (ii) above, though it does refer to clause (iia), and therefore, the claim for additional depreciation is independent of the said restrictive second proviso that has application only to the regular depreciation claim made under the said Clauses (i) and (ii).

•    The limitation contained in the said second proviso to Clauses (i) and (ii) should have no application to clause (iia) while claiming additional depreciation.

•    Clause(iia) operates in an altogether different field than that of Clauses (i) and (ii).

•    The claim for additional deprecation therefore shall be allowed in full in the first year itself, irrespective of the number of days of use and should be set off against the income of the year and importantly, to the extent not so set-off, should be carried forward to the subsequent year for being set off against the income for the succeeding year as per the provisions of s/s. (2) of section 32 of the Act.

In our respectful opinion, the additional depreciation is investment based, while the regular depreciation is period based and both are unrelated to each other. For a valid claim of additional depreciation, it is sufficient to establish that new assets are acquired and installed, and once that is proved, the claim has not to be restricted on account of use of such asset for a period of less than 180 days. The additional depreciation, in full, should be allowed, where possible, in the first year itself, and the balance, where remaining to be absorbed, should be carried forward to the succeeding year and should be allowed to be set off against the income of that year.

Year of Taxability of Interest on Refund of Tax

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Synopsis

Section 244A of the Income Tax Act,
entitles an assessee to receive interest on amount of refund of tax due
to him. For an assessee, following the mercantile system of accounting,
the issue arises on the year of accrual of such interest and taxability
thereon.

 The issue being whether such interest is accrued in each year
and hence to be taxed by spreading it over the number of years for which
it is granted or should it be taxed in the year in which it is granted.
This issue had been a subject matter of adjudication before various
courts. Here, the author has analysed various judicial pronouncements in
this regard.

Issue for Consideration:

An assessee is entitled to
receive simple interest, on the amount of refund of tax that becomes due
to him, at the specified rate, for the period commencing from the date
of payment of tax to the date on which the refund is granted, as per the
provisions of section 244A of the Income-tax Act.

Such interest is
usually chargeable to tax under the head “Income From Other Sources” and
is computed in accordance with the method of accounting regularly
employed by the assessee. This interest is taxed in the year of receipt,
in case of an assessee following the cash system of accounting, and in
case of an assessee following the mercantile system of accounting, is
taxed in the year of the accrual of such interest.

The period for which
such interest is granted usually exceeds 12 months. The quantum of
interest also varies in many cases on passing of orders from time to
time, subsequent to the intimation or the first order, ranging from
assessment orders to appellate orders. Again, in many cases, the
assessees are forced to pay taxes towards demands raised in pursuance of
orders that finally do not stand the scrutiny of the appellate
authorities. In all these cases, barring a few cases, the assessee
receives interest only on the final settlement of the disputes
concerning computation of the total income by the highest appellate
authority.

The issue that arises, for consideration, in all such cases
of receipt of interest, is about the year or years of taxation of such
interest, for the period exceeding 12 months, in the hands of the
assessees following the mercantile system of accounting. The issue in a
nutshell is about ascertaining the year of accrual of such interest.
Does such interest, under the mercantile system, accrue from year to
year from the date of payment of tax till the date of the receipt of
such interest or does it accrue only when the refund is ordered by an
authority and interest thereon is granted to the assessee? In the first
case, the interest so received is taxable in more than 1 year, on the
understanding that the interest accrues on a daily basis and is taxable
in more than 1 assessment year while in the later case, it is taxed only
in the year of the passing of an order grating interest.

 The courts
have been asked to adjudicate as to whether such interest accrued form
year to year and is therefore to be taxed by spreading it over the
number of years for which it is granted or should it be taxed in the
year in which it is granted. Recently, the Andhra Pradesh High Court has
held that such interest accrued from year to year and for taxation, it
should be spread over the number of years for which interest is granted
dissenting from the decisions of the Kerala, Orissa and Allahabad High
Court.

Smt. K. Devayani Amma’s case

The issue of years of accrual of
interest on refund, granted u/s. 244, was examined by the Kerala High
Court in the case of Smt. K. Devayani Amma vs. DCIT, 328 ITR 10. In that
case, the Court was asked, by the assessee, to decide whether the
Tribunal was justified in holding that interest received by the assessee
on refund was assessable in the assessment year in which such interest
was granted. In that case, the Assessing Officer granted an amount of
interest of Rs. 2,87,537, u/s. 244, on refund of tax computed in
pursuance of the order passed to give effect to an appellate order for
A.Y. 1983-84, that was decided in favour of the assessee. The order of
refund was passed in the previous year relevant to A.Y. 1994-95 and the
refund together with interest was also received in the said year. The
Assessing Officer taxed the entire interest of Rs. 2,87,537 in the A.Y.
1994-95, by treating such interest as the income of A.Y. 1994-95, on the
ground that interest had accrued during that year.

The assessee
however, contested the liability for tax on the entire interest in one
assessment year on the ground that the interest in question accrued from
year to year, from the date of payment of excess tax till the date of
refund. The contention of the assessee was upheld by the CIT(A), but the
Tribunal agreed with the Assessing Officer by holding that the said
interest accrued in A.Y. 1994-95, only, following the decisions in the
case of CIT vs. Sri Popsingh Rice Mill, 212 ITR 385 (Orissa) and J.K.
Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. vs. Addl. CIT, 104 ITR 695 (All.). The
assessee, in the appeal before the High Court, contended that interest
income was assessable on a year to year basis, spread over the period
commencing from the year in which the tax was paid and ending with the
year in which it was refunded together with interest thereon, by relying
on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Rama Bai vs. CIT,
181 ITR 400.

In reply, the standing counsel for the Income-tax
Department submitted that the interest income accrued only on passing of
the order for granting refund. He also submitted that the decision in
Rama Bai’s case (supra) was delivered in respect of an interest received
under the Land Acquisition Act and was not relevant for determining the
year of taxation of interest received under the Income-tax Act. He also
pointed out that the decision in the case of Sri Popsingh Rice Mill
(supra), delivered by the Orissa High Court, had followed the subsequent
decision of the Supreme Court in preference to its decision in Rama
Bai’s case to hold that the interest was taxable in the year of grant
thereon.

The Kerala High Court noted that the decision in Rama Bai’s
case(supra) concerned itself with taxation of interest under the Land
Acquisition Act and was not binding for deciding an issue of taxation of
interest, granted under the Income-tax Act and that the issue therefore
was required to be considered in light of the statutory provisionsof
the Income-tax Act. The court also observed that the law declared by the
Supreme Court was neutralised by the amendments in section 145A(b) and
section 56(viii) by the Finance (no.2) Act, 2009 concerning the year of
taxation of interest received on compensation or enhanced compensation
for compulsory acquisition .

The Kerala High Court found that the
assessee’s eligibility for interest arose only when the effect was given
to the appellate order and till such time the assessee was not entitled
to any refund at all; that the right to interest on refund arose only
when the refund was ordered in favour of the assessee. Accordingly, in
view of the Court, interest accrued only when the assessee was found to
be eligible for refund of the excess tax, based on the revision of the
assessment order. The Court took notice of the fact that not only the
interest was granted during A.Y. 1994-95, but was also paid during the
said assessment year. The assessee’s appeal was dismissed and the order
of the Tribunal was confirmed by the Court by holding that interest on
refund of tax accrued in the year of passing the order granting refund .

M. Jaffersaheb (Decd.)’s case
The  issue  once  again  arose  recently,   before  the Andhra  Pradesh  High  Court,  in  the  case  of  Shri  M. Jaffer  Saheb  (Decd.)  vs.  CIT,  43  taxmann.com,123. The facts in this case were that for the assessment year 1982-1983, an assessment was completed with substantial additions resulting into a huge demand for  payment  of  taxes.  The  assessee  paid  the  de- manded  tax  and  thereafter  availed  the  appellate remedies and in that process the appellate tribunal finally passed an order granting substantial relief to the assessee on 16-06-1989. The AO gave effect to the  order  of  the  Tribunal  by  an  order  dated  18-09- 1989, refunding the excess amount paid along with interest of Rs. 79,950/- for the period 30-10-1985 to 31-08-1989  which  was  received  thereafter.  The  AO brought  to  the  tax  the  amount  of  interest  in  the assessment year 1990-1991, ignoring the claim of the assessee  to  spread  over  the  said  amount  for  the assessment  years  starting  with  assessment  orders 1985-1986 to 1988-1989. The Appellate Commissioner allowed the claim of the assessee and directed that the  interest,  other  than  the  part  pertaining  to  the assessment year 1990-91, be taxed in the preceding previous years. The Tribunal, on further appeal by the Revenue, reversed the order of the Appellate Commissioner and restored the assessment order passed by the A.O.

At the instance of the assessee, the following two questions of law for the assessment year 1990-1991 were referred to the Andhra Pradesh High Court :

1)    “Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, is the Appellate Tribunal correct in law in holding that interest U/S.244(1A) of the Income-tax Act on the refund due accrues on the date when the Appellate Tribunal passed order and did not accrue on any day anterior to the date of the Tribunal order?”

2)    “Whether on the facts and in the circumstances  of the case, the Appellate Tribunal is correct in law;  in refusing to accept the contention of the applicant that interest on the refund accrued from the previous year relevant to the assessment year 1982-1983 and interest is chargeable to tax in the respective years for which interest is paid?”

The   assessee  submitted  before  the  High  Court that  he  was  entitled  to  the  refund  from  the  date of  payment  of  the  tax  till  the  date  of  granting  of the  refund  and  that  such  interest  accrued  on  day to  day  basis  on  the  excess  amount  paid.  He  submitted  that  the  entitlement  of  the  interest  was  a right conferred by the statute that did not depend on  the  order  for  the  refund  being  made  which was  only  consequential  and  in  law  was  required to  be  made  more  in  the  nature  of  complying  with the  procedural  requirement,  but  his  right  to  claim interest was a statutory right conferred by the Act and  in  that  view  of  the  matter,  it  was  but  fair  to spread the interest amount in the respective years in issue. He relied on the judgment of the Calcutta High Court in the case of   CIT vs. Hindustan Motors Ltd.,   202  ITR   839     for  the  proposition  that  “Accrual  of  interest  takes  place  normally  on  day  to  day basis. Where there is no due date fixed for payment of  interest,  interest  accrues  on  the  last  day  of  the previous  year.  Accrual  of  interest  does  not  depend upon making up of the accounts.” He also relied on the  judgment  of  the  Kerala  High Court  in  the  case of  Peter  John  vs.  CIT,  157  ITR   711  (Ker)(FB)  for  the proposition  that  “Interest  is  separate  from  refund. Interest whether statutory or contractual represents profit  the  creditor  might  have  made  if  he  had  used that money or loss he suffered because he had not that use. It is something in addition to the refund (capital amount) though it arises out of it.” He also relied on the judgment of the Supreme Court  in the case of Ramabai vs. CIT, 181 ITR 401 (SC).

On  the  other  hand,  the  Income-tax  Department submitted  that  the  right  to  claim  interest  by  the assessee was dependent on an orders being passed u/s. 240 and section 244 of the Income-tax Act and in that view of the matter, the right to claim interest  accrued  to  the  assessee  only  on  the  date  of consequential  order  passed  pursuant  to  the  order of the Appellate Authority and as such, the interest income was assessable in the assessment year 1990- 1991.  Reliance was placed on the judgments of the Orissa, Kerala and Allahabad High Courts in the cases of Commissioner of Income-Tax vs. Sri Popsingh Rice Mill,  212 ITR 385 (Orissa), Smt. K. Devayani Amma vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income-Tax and Another 328 ITR 10 (Ker),)and J.K. Spinning and Weaving Mills Co., vs. Additional Commissioner of Income-Tax, Kanpur104 ITR 695  (Allahabad).

The  Andhra  Pradesh  High  Court  examined  the provisions  of  sections  237,  240,  244  and  244A  for ascertaining the statutory position relating to grant of refund and interest thereon. A close scrutiny of the sections 237 and 240, revealed to the Court  that the statutory right was conferred on the assessee to get refund of the excess tax paid and such refund was made available to the asssessee even without his  having  to  make  any  claim  in  that  behalf   in  as much  as  section  244A  of  the  Act  entitled  the  assessee  to  get  interest  on  the  refund  amount  and such  interest  was  payable  from  the  date  of  payment  of  tax  or  payment  of  penalty  from  the  date till  refund was granted.

It  was  clear  to  the  High  Court,  from  the  statutory provisions as applicable to the relevant assessment years, that there was no requirement of the assessee for making a claim either for refund or for interest. As a matter of fact, the Court noticed that sections 243 and 244, were made inapplicable in respect of any assessment for the assessment year commenc- ing on the first day of April, 1989 or any subsequent assessment years.

On a detailed analysis of the decisions of the various Courts in the cases of   Rama Bai vs. CIT, 181 ITR 401 (SC),  CIT  vs.  Sankari  Manickyamma  105  ITR  172  (AP).

Mrs. Khorshed Shapoor Chinai vs. ACED 90 ITR 47 (AP), CIT vs. Govindarajulu Chetty (T.N.K.) 165 ITR 231 (SC),T.N.K.  Govindarajulu  Chetty  vs.  CIT  87  ITR  22  (Mad.), CIT vs.Dr. Sham Lal Narula, 84 ITR 625 (P&H), and CIT, Mysore vs. V.Sampangiramaiah, 69 ITR 159 (Kar), the court  significantly  noted  that   the  principle  which could be culled out was that once the income had legally  accrued  to  the  assessee,  i.e.,  the  assessee had  acquired  a  right  to  receive  the  same,  though its valuation might   be postponed to a future date, the determination or quantification of the amount did  not  postpone  the  accrual.  In  other  words,  if the right had legally accrued to the assessee, then the right should be deemed to have accrued in the relevant  year,  even  though  the  dispute  as  to  the right  was  settled  in  the  later  year,  by  the  one  or the  other  of  the  authorities in the  hierarchy.

The Andhra Pradesh High Court expressly dissented with the decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of Smt. K. Devayani Amma (supra) by observing that;

•    though the Kerala High Court, in the said judge- ment, referred the case of Rama Bai (supra), there was no discussion about the principles that were approved in the judgment of the Supreme Court;

•    though the provisions of sections 240 and 244(1A) of the Act were referred to, the Kerala High Court held that interest on refund arose only on passing an order in favour of the assessee;

•    the eligibility of interest u/s. 244(1A) of the Act arose on an order of revision of assessment passed pursuant to the appellate order which led to grant of refund of excess tax paid by the assessee;

•    the reading of sections 237, 240 and 244(1A) cast a duty on the AO to charge that much of tax which the assessee was liable to pay and mandated the refund of the excess amount along with interest;

•    the hierarchy of appeals provided were only to ensure that the tax authorities adhere to strict rules of taxation and the statutory provisions. Even the final order that might be passed by the higher authority in the hierarchy of authorities provided under statue was also an order of assessment only for the simple reason that the final order passed was nothing but a correction of the original assessment order, which was erroneous.

•    the opinion expressed by the Kerala High Court that interest u/s. 244(1A) of the Act accrued to the assessee only, when it was granted to the assessee along with the refund order issued u/s. 240 of the Act was not correct, especially,   in view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court as quoted in the judgment of the Madras High Court in T. N. K. Govindarajulu Chetty’s case (supra).

•    The court was unable to accept the judgment of Kerala High Court reported in K. Devayani Amma’s case (supra) on the issue.

The  judgment  of  the  Allahabad  High  Court  in  J.K. Spinning  and  Weaving  Mills  Co.  (supra)  was  found to  be  distinguishable  and  not  applicable  in  view of  the  variance  in  the  statutory  scheme  contained in  the  provisions  contained  in  Indian  Income-tax Act,  1922,  with  the  statutory  scheme  under  the Income-tax Act, 1961 and the Allahabad High Court had  taken  into  consideration  that  interest became payable to the assessee only when the assessments for  the  years  in  dispute  were  made  which  were  in fact  made  in  1956,  though  the  assessments  were 1951-1952 and  1952-1953.

The Andhra Pradesh High Court was  unable to agree with  the  reasoning  of  the  judgment  of  the  Orissa High Court in Sri Popsingh Rice Mill case (supra), as the  question  considered  by  the  Orissa  High  Court was in relation to section 244 of the Act and not in relation  to  section  244A  of  the  Act  and  the  Orissa High  Court  had  failed  to  notice  the  judgments  of the  Supreme  Court  and  instead  relied  on  three judgments  which  were  not  dealing  with  interest. Likewise, the other two judgments referred to in the said   judgment also were found to be not relevant for  the  purpose of  deciding the  issue.

The court accordingly answered the questions referred to it in favour of the assessee and against the revenue by holding that the interest on refund accrued from year to year and was not to be taxed in the year of the order granting refund.

Observations
An assessee, following the mercantile system of accounting, is taxed on his income, including interest income, in the year in which the income accrues or arises. An income, in ordinary circumstances, is said to have been accrued on vesting of a legal right to receive such income irrespective of whether it is received or not. Such accrual, based on a right to receive, is independent of the order of any Court  or an authority passed for confirming such right to receive, for the reason that such right to receive arises to a person on the basis of the terms of the agreement or the statutory provisions of any law.

It is an accepted position in law that interest accrues from day to day, in case of a person maintaining books of account and accrues on yearly basis   in case of a person not maintaining the books of account. In both the cases, the interest income is spread over number of years and is taxed on year to year basis.

The Supreme Court in E.D. Sassoon Company Ltd. vs. CIT, 26 ITR 51, observed that the computation of the profits,  whenever  it  may  take  place,  cannot  possi- bly be allowed to suspend its   accrual. The accrual happens  irrespective  of  the   quantification  of  the profits, and is not always linked to computation. For attracting the charge of taxation, what has however got to be determined is whether the income, profits or  gains  accrued  to  the  assessee;  before  it  can  be said  to  have  accrued  to  him,  it  is  necessary  that he must have acquired a right to receive the same or  that  a  right  to  the  income,  profits  or  gains  has become vested in him though its valuation may be postponed or its material station depends on some contingency.

The Supreme Court in Rama Bai (supra)’s case was concerned  with  the  taxability  of  interest  received on account of enhanced compensation, where the assessee’s lands were acquired and not being satis- fied  with  the  compensation  awarded  by  the  Land Acquisition  Officer,  the  assessee  appealed  to  the higher  Courts  and  finally  received  enhanced  com- pensation  along  with  interest  payable  u/s.  28  and 34  of  the  Land  Acquisition  Act.  The  said  amounts were  received  in  the  year  1967  and  were  sought to be assessed in the year 1968-1969. The assessee claimed  that  interest  was  allocable  and  assessable in  different  assessment  years  as  it  accrued  from year  to  year  and  only  that  portion  of  the  interest relating  to  the  period  April,  1967  to  March,  1968 was assessable for the assessment year 1968-1969. The Tribunal referred the following question to the Supreme  Court:  “Whether,  on  the  facts  and  in  the circumstances  of  the  case,  the  interest  received  by the  assesses  as  per  the  City  Civil  Court’s  award  for the period commencing from the date of possession till  31st  March,  1968,  was  entirely  assessable  for  the assessment  year  1968-1969?”  The  Supreme  Court answered  the  question  in  favour  of  assessee  and against the revenue by following its earlier judgment in  the  case  of  CIT  vs.  Govindarajulu  Chetty  (T.N.K.) 165  ITR  231  (SC)  wherein  in  a  short  judgment,  the Apex Court approved the judgment of the Madras High  Court  in  the  case  of  T.  N.  K.  Govindarajulu Chetty  vs.  CIT,  87  ITR  22  (Mad.).  The  Madras  High Court held that;   “11. In this case the liability to pay interest would arise when the compensation amount due  to  the  assessee  had  not  been  paid,  in  each  of the relevant years. Therefore, the accrual of interest has to be spread over the years between the date of acquisition  till  it  was  actually  paid.  We  are  not  in  a position to accept the contention of the revenue that …………… basis for assessing the income. When a statute brings to charge certain income, its intention is to enforce the charge at the earliest point of time.”

The  Supreme  Court  has  pointed  out  in  Laxmipat Singhania  vs.  CIT,72  ITR  291,  that:  “Again,  it  is  not open  to  the  Income-tax  Officer,  if  income  has  accrued to the assessee, and is liable to be included in the  total  income  of  a  particular  year,  to  ignore  the accrual and thereafter to tax it as income of another year on the basis of receipt.” Similar view was taken by the Panjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT  vs.  Dr.  Sham  Lal  Narula,  84  ITR  625   and  by  the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT, Mysore vs. V.  Sampangiramaiah,  69  ITR  159   where  under  the question  which  was  considered  was  “Whether,  on the  facts  and  in  the  circumstance  of  the  case,  the Appellate  Tribunal  was  right  in  law  in  holding  that the  entire  interest  amount  of  Rs.  87,265/-  was  not assessable  in  the  assessment  year  1962-63  and  that only  the  proportionate  interest  referable  to  the  assessment  year  1962-63  was  assessable  in  that  year?” The  Karnataka  High  Court  answered  the  question in the affirmative and in favour of the assessee and against the  revenue.

The  right  to  receive  interest  u/s.  244A  is  entirely based  on  the  right  to  refund  u/s.  240  of  the  Act. Unless an assessee is entitled to a refund of taxes, no  right  to  receive  an  interest  arises  in  his  favour. The  key  consideration  therefore  is  the  right  to a  refund  of  excess  taxes  paid.  Whether  such  a right  to  refund  arises  on  passing  of  an  order  by an  Income-tax  Authority,  for  granting  a  refund,  or that such a right arises with payment of taxes and is  independent  of  the  order  of  the  authority.  The fact that interest u/s. 244A, whenever granted and paid,  is  paid  for  the  period  commencing  with  the date  of  payment  of  tax,  apparently  conveys  that such a right is associated with the payment of excess taxes and only its (interest) payment is deferred to the  year  of  grant  by  an  authority.  This  prima  facie understanding is, further confirmed by the amendments  in  section  145A(2)(B)  and  section  56(2)(Viii) of  the  Act  by  the  Finance  (NO.2)  Act,  2009,  that expressly  provide  that  interest  on  compensation shall  be  taxed  in  the  year  of  receipt  only.  In  other words,  in  the  absence  of  any  provision  for  taxing the  interest income  in  the  year  of  receipt, interest will be taxed in the year of accrual and when such interest pertains to a period exceeding 12 months, its  accrual  happens  on  year  to  year  basis  in  more than 1  assessment year.

On a conspectus reading of the scheme of refund, contained  in  Chapter  XIX  u/s.  237  to  245,  it  is gathered  that  the  right  to  refund  of  excess  taxes paid  is  independent  of  any  requirement  to  claim such  refund.  While  it  is  true  that  an  assessee  is entitled  to  a  refund  of  the  excess  taxes  paid,  only on  satisfaction  of  the  A.O  that  the  taxes  paid  by him  exceeds  the  amount  of  tax  payable  by  him,  it none  the  less  is  independent  of  any  order  section 237  does  not  require  an  Assessing  Officer  to  pass an  order  of  refund,  it  rather  requires  an  Assessing Officer to refund the excess taxes. Likewise, section 244A entitles an assessee to simple interest on the amount of  refund that becomes due to  him.

An assessee is entitled to receive interest u/s. 244A(1) where refund of any amount becomes due to him. The  language  of  section  244A  (1)  may  convey  that unless  an  assessee  becomes  entitled  to  a  refund, he is not entitled to interest and as a consequence of  such  an  understanding,   entitlement  to  interest is  postponed  to  the  time  when  a  refund  becomes due  to  him;  no  interest  therefore  accrues  to  him till  such  time  an  order  of  refund  is  passed.  Such an understanding, we feel, is not supported by the scheme of the Act and in particular by the scheme of  the  refund  and   the  grant  of  interest  thereon. Under  the  scheme,  the  moment  an  excess  tax  is paid,  the  refund  thereof  becomes  due  to  him  and the  entitlement  to  interest  runs  with  the  right  to receive  refund  which  right  arises  with  payment  of taxes, irrespective of an order of refund. This understanding is fortified with the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Jaffersaheb’s case, in as much as the issue therein concerned  taxation of interest received u/s. 244A   in assessment year 1990-91 and the  Court  while  deciding  the  issue  of  the  year  of taxation, examined the implications of the provisions of section 244A w.r.t to the scheme of refund and applied  the  ratio  of  the  decision  of  the  Supreme Court  in  Rama  Bai’s  case.  In  our  considered  view, no  material  difference  exists  between  the  interest that  was  granted  u/s.  244  r.w.s  240  and  the  one now being granted u/s. 244A   r.w.s 240   of the Act as  regards  the  time  of  entitlement.  In  conclusion, it  is  safe  to  hold  that  the  right  to  refund  and  the right to interest thereon are statutory rights which rights arise  on payment of  excess taxes.

The case for the taxation of interest, received under the Income-tax Act, on the year to year basis, by yearly spread over, is greater as compared to the interest received under the Land Acquisition Act for the reason under the scheme of taxation, an amount of refund becomes due, the moment an assessee pays excess tax which is neither dependent on the claim for refund nor on the order of the authorities. Accordingly the decisions of the courts, holding that the interest under the Land Acquisition Act is taxable on the year to year basis, shall apply with greater force, to the cases of receipt of interest, under the Income-tax Act.

Having so concluded that interest is taxable on year to year basis, an assessee is placed in an unenviable position in a case where an Assessing Officer makes substantial additions to the returned income and demands additional tax instead of granting refund. The issue that is required to be considered is about the liability to pay tax on interest that could be said to have accrued, even though the eligibility to refund and consequent interest thereon depends on the outcome of the appeal filed to contest the aforesaid additions to the returned income. While the assessee may not be asked to make the payment of regular taxes but may be required to pay taxes on the accrued interest, which is included in the assessed income, in the hope that he will suc- ceed in the appeal and will be entitled to refund and interest thereon. Nothing  could  be  more  confusing  than  this  in  as much  as,  it  leads  to  an  inference  that  interest  on refund  accrues,  even  before  the  finality  of  refund itself. This confusion is aptly conveyed by Palkhivala’s words  when  he  states  that  ‘one  of  the  delights  of income tax law is occasional incongruities’.  The Bombay  High  Court  noticing  the  confusion  in  the  case of CIT vs. Abbasbhoy, 195 ITR 28, arising on account of the contrasting decisions of the Supreme Court in  the  case  of  Govindarajulu  Chetty  (supra)  and the earlier decision in the case of CIT vs. Hindustan Housing  ,  161  ITR  524,   with  the  hope  that  the  Su- preme Court will resolve the controversy observed that  “the incongruity does not end here. Despite the conclusion  that  interest  in  such  cases  accrues  from year to year, it is doubtful whether it will be possible to hold the assessee responsible for not disclosing interest income in the past on accrual basis.” Kanga & Palkhivala in the 4th edition of their book titled The Law  and  Practice  of  Income  tax  have  commented on  the  assessee’s  obligation  to  return  income,  on account of accrued interest, where the refund is in dispute  in  the  following  words  ,”the  assessee  can always  take  a  stand  that  the  amount  of  compensation  including  enhanced  compensation  or  damages having  been  determined  subsequently,  he  could  not possibly  anticipate  accrual  of  interest”.  Kindly  also see,   pg.  1085  of  volume  1  of  the  10th  edition  of Sampath Iyengar’s Law  of  Income Tax.

This unenviable situation may however be remitted by resorting to rectification proceedings u/s. 154 for amending the order where such interest on disputed refund is taxed on accrual basis. Please see Garden Silk  Mills  Ltd., 221 ITR 861(Guj.)

Taxability of Long Outstanding Liability Not Written Back

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Synopsis

Section 41(1) applies when an assessee gets a remission or benefit in respect of trading liability cessation thereof,or by a unilateral act by the assessee by way of writing back of such liability in his accounts.

The question that arises is if any benefit has been obtained in respect trading liability by remission or cessation, when a creditor’s balance has remained unpaid for a long period of time, though it has not been written back to the profit and loss account, particularly if the recovery of such amount is barred by the law of limitation.

Issue for Consideration

Section 41(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 provides that where an allowance or deduction has been made in the assessment for any year in respect of loss, expenditure or trading liability incurred by the assessee and subsequently during any previous year, the assessee has obtained, whether in cash or in any other manner whatsoever, any amount in respect of such loss or expenditure or some benefit in respect of such trading liability by way of remission or cessation thereof, the amount obtained by such person or the value of benefit accruing to him shall be deemed to be profits and gains of business or profession and accordingly chargeable to Incometax as the income of that previous year.

The provisions of this section, therefore, come into play only when the assessee has “obtained any amount in respect of such loss or expenditure or some benefit in respect of such trading liability by way of remission or cessation of such liability”.

Explanation 1 to this section, inserted with effect from Assessment Year 1997-98, further provides that the expression “loss or expenditure or some benefit in respect of any such trading liability by way of remission or cessation thereof” shall include the remission or cessation of any liability by a unilateral act by the assessee by way of writing off such liability in his accounts.

The question has arisen before the courts as to whether any benefit has been obtained in respect of trading liability by way of remission or cessation when a creditor’s balance has remained unpaid and outstanding for a long period of time, though it has not been written back to the profit and loss account, particularly if the recovery of such amount is barred by the law of limitation.

The Delhi High Court has taken two different views of the matter, one in the case of sundry creditors, and the other in the case of unpaid dues of employees. In one case, it has held that the amount is not taxable u/s. 41(1), while in the other, it is held that such outstanding amount of liability is taxable.

Shri Vardhman Overseas’ Case
The issue first came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Shri Vardhman Overseas Ltd. 343 ITR 408.

In this case, relating to the Assessment Year 2002- 03, the assessee was a company engaged in the manufacture of rice from paddy. It also sold rice after purchasing it from the local market. The Assessing Officer, while verifying the sales and sundry debtors, decided to verify the sundry creditors shown in the books of account. He asked the assessee to submit confirmation letters from the sundry creditors. The assessee did not submit the confirmation letters, on the ground that it was not aware of the present whereabouts of the creditors after a lapse of 4 years, and whatever addresses were available had been given by the suppliers at the time that the purchases were made from them. The assessing officer added the amount of sundry creditors to the assessee’s income.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that the assessee’s conduct clearly showed that the liability shown in the sundry creditors account in its books did not exist. He, therefore, held that the liabilities had ceased to exist, and therefore, the addition made by the assessing officer was held to be justified, but confirmed as taxable u/s. 41(1).

The Tribunal held that since the amounts payable to the sundry creditors were not credited to the profit and loss account for the year but continued to be shown as outstanding as at the end of the year, the tribunal held that the provisions of section 41(1) were not attracted, in the light of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v Sugauli Sugar Works (P) Ltd. 236 ITR 518. According to the Tribunal, this decision of the Supreme Court applied with greater force since, in that decision, the assessee had credited the profit and loss account with the amount standing to the credit of the sundry creditors, whereas in the case before the Tribunal, the amounts payable to the sundry creditors were not credited to the profit and loss account for the year and were still shown as outstanding as at the end of the year. The Tribunal, therefore, deleted the addition made by the assessing officer.

Before the Delhi High Court, on behalf of the revenue, attention was drawn to the fact that the assessee itself had admitted that the amount was outstanding for more than 4 years, and therefore, the assessee had obtained a benefit in the course of its business, which was assessable u/s. 41(1). It was argued that it would make no difference that the liabilities were not written back to the profit and loss account for the year under consideration, because what was to be seen was whether the assessee had obtained a benefit in a practical sense. It was claimed that since the amounts remained unpaid for 4 years, there was a reasonable inference that the assessee was no longer liable to pay those parties. According to the revenue, the benefit arose on account of the fact that the debts were more than 3 years old, and were, therefore, not recoverable from the assessee in view of the law of limitation.

It was argued that Explanation 1 to section 41(1) was not relied upon by the revenue, but the writing back of the accounts of the sundry creditors in the profit and loss account was only one of the many unilateral acts which could be done by the assessee, and even in the absence of such a write back, there could be remission or cessation of the trading liability which resulted in a benefit to the assessee.

The Delhi High Court agreed that the Explanation 1 was not applicable, but observed that it must be established that the assessee had obtained some benefit in respect of the trading liability which had earlier been allowed as a deduction. It noted that there was no dispute that the amounts due to the sundry creditors have been allowed in the earlier assessment years as purchases in computing the business income of the assessee. The question was whether by not paying them for a period of 4 years and above, the assessee had obtained some benefit in respect of the trading liability allowed in earlier years. It observed that the revenue’s argument that, non-payment or non-discharge of liability resulted in some benefit in respect of such trading liability in a practical sense or common sense overlooked the words “by way of remission or cessation thereof”. It observed that it was not enough that the assessee should derive some benefit in respect of such trading liability, but it was also essential that such benefit should arise by way of remission or cessation of the liability.

Analysing the meaning of the terms “remission” and “cessation”, the Delhi High Court noted the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Company Ltd. vs. State of Bombay AIR 1958 SC 328, where the Supreme Court held that when a debt becomes time-barred, it does not become extinguished, but only unenforceable in a court of law. The Supreme Court had also held that modes in which an obligation under contract becomes discharged were well-defined, and the bar of limitation was not one of them. This was the view also taken by the Supreme Court in the case of Sugauli Sugar Works (supra), which was a case where the credits were outstanding for almost 20 years and were written back by credit to the profit and loss account. The Delhi High Court noted that in the Sugauli Sugar Works case, a contention was advanced before the Supreme Court on behalf of the revenue that since the liability remained unpaid for more than 20 years, there was practically a cessation of the debt, which resulted in a benefit to the assessee, which should be brought to tax u/s. 41(1). This argument was not accepted by the Supreme Court in that case.

The Delhi High Court, therefore, held that, as there was no write back of the accounts of the sundry creditors to the profit and loss account, the amount of outstanding liabilities was not taxable u/s. 41(1).
This decision was followed by the Delhi High Court on the same date in the case of CIT vs. Hotline Electronics Ltd. 205 Taxman 245, taking an identical view.
Chipsoft Technology’s Case
The issue again came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Chipsoft Technology (P) Ltd. 210 Taxman 173 (Del)(Mag). In this case, relating to assessment year 2006-07, the assessee had outstanding liabilities on account of employee dues, some of which pertained to salary for the Assessment Year 2005-06, and the balance related to earlier years, extending to as far back as Assessment Year 2000-01.
The Assessing Officer called for confirmations from the employees. The assessee was able to furnish confirmations from only 3 employees out of 170 employees whose dues were outstanding. The Assessing Officer held that there was a cessation of the assessee’s liabilities and that he had obtained benefit in respect of these amounts, and he, therefore, added these amounts to the assessee’s income u/s. 41(1).
The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal, holding that the liability was outstanding in the books of account, and that it did not, therefore, amount to cessation of liability. The Tribunal upheld the Commissioner(Appeals) order.
Before the Delhi High Court, on behalf of the Revenue, it was argued that the amount due to 170 employees remained unchanged and static for about 6 or 7 years and no payment was made during the intervening period. It was pointed out that the assessee did not claim that the employees were actively pursuing their claims and had taken any steps to recover their dues. No correspondence with the employees was filed to substantiate its argument that the amount was still outstanding, and even in the assessment proceedings it was unable to furnish full particulars about its employees. It was, therefore, argued that the liability had ceased. It is further argued that even if it was assumed that at some point the liability existed, the lapse of time and the resultant defence available to the assessee under the Limitation Act justified inclusion of these amounts as the income of the assessee on the ground of cessation of liability. It was claimed that the tribunal had not appreciated that the benefit had accrued to the assessee by virtue of the wage liability becoming time-barred.
The Delhi High Court noted the decisions cited on behalf of the revenue in the case of Kesoram Industries and Cotton Mills Ltd vs. CIT 196 ITR 845 (Cal), and in the case of CIT vs. Agarpara Co. Ltd. 158 ITR 78, where the Calcutta High Court had held, in the context of bonus payable to workmen which had remained outstanding for several years, that once bonus had been offered by the employer, but remained undrawn, it cannot be said that the liability subsisted even after the expiry of the time prescribed by the statute, particularly when there was no dispute pending regarding the payment of bonus. The Calcutta High Court had observed that under these circumstances, it may be inferred that  unclaimed or unpaid bonus was in excess of the requirement of the assessee, and therefore, to that extent, the liability had ceased.
The Delhi High Court observed that the view that the liability did not cease as long as it is reflected in the books and that mere lapse of the time given to the creditor or the workmen to recover the amount due did not efface the liability though it barred the remedy, was an abstract and theoretical one and did not ground itself in reality. According to the Delhi High Court, interpretation of laws, particularly fiscal and commercial legislation, was increasingly based on pragmatic realities, which meant that even though the law permitted the debtor to take all defences and successfully avoid liability, for abstract dualistic purposes, he would be shown as a debtor. According to the Delhi High Court, it would be illogical to say that the debtor or an employer holding
onto unpaid dues should be given the benefit of his showing the amount as a liability, even though he would be entitled in law to say that the claim for its recovery was time-barred, and continue to enjoy the amount.
The Delhi High Court also observed that Explanation 1 to section 41(1) used the term “shall include” and not the term “means”, which meant that there could be other means of deriving benefits by way of cessation or remission of liability. According to the Delhi High Court, even omission to pay over a period of time and the resultant benefit derived by the employer/assessee would qualify as a cessation of liability, though by operation of law. The Delhi High Court rejected the assessee’s argument that no period of limitation was provided for under the Industrial Disputes Act, by referring to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Nedungadi Bank Ltd. vs. K. P. Madhavankutty AIR 2000 SC 839, when the Supreme Court held that even though no period of limitation had been prescribed under that Act, a stale dispute where the employee approached the forum under the said Act after an inordinate delay could not be entertained, or adjudicated.
The Delhi High Court, therefore, held that there was a benefit derived by the employer by cessation or remission of liability and that the amount of outstanding workmen dues was taxable u/s. 41(1).
Observations
Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that every suit instituted, appeal preferred, and application made after the prescribed period shall be dismissed, although limitation has not been set up as a defence. Section 18(1) of that Act provides that where, before the expiration of the prescribed period for a suit or application in respect of any property or right, an acknowledgment of liability in respect of such property or right has been made in writing signed by the party against whom such property or right is claimed, or by any person through whom he derives his title or liability, a fresh period
of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgment was so signed.
Therefore, the law of limitation merely bars filing of a suit for recovery of debts beyond the period of limitation. It does not bar payment of such amounts, where the debtor is willing to pay the liability.
As rightly observed by the Delhi High Court in Vardhaman Overseas’ case, as well as by other Courts, including the Supreme Court, the mere fact that recovery of a liability has been barred by limitation does not mean that the liability has ceased to exist. The assessee may still have the intention of paying off the liability, as and when demanded. Under such circumstances, taxing such liability would not be justified. Further, if such liability is subsequently paid off, the assessee would not be able to claim a deduction in the year of payment. Therefore, taxation of such outstanding amount, which is not written back, does not seem to be justified.
The Delhi High Court, in Chipsoft’s case, did not consider various other decisions of its own High Court, where the High Court had observed that disclosure of a liability in its Balance Sheet has the effect of extending the period of limitation, since it amounts to an acknowledgement of debt by the company for the purposes of section 18 of the Limitation Act. Further, it’s attention was also not drawn to its own earlier decisions in the case of Vardhaman Overseas and Hotline Electronics, where it had held that such amounts, suits for recovery of which may be barred by limitation, did not result in a benefit due to cessation or remission of liability.
Given the express observations of the Supreme Court in Bombay Dyeing’s and Sugauli Sugar Works’ cases, to the effect that a remission of a liability can only be granted by a creditor, and a cessation of the liability can only occur either by reason of operation of law, or by the debtor unequivocally declaring his intention not to honour his liability
when payment is demanded by the creditor, or by a contract between the parties or by discharge of the debt, the Delhi High Court does not seem justified in preferring to follow decisions of another High Court in preference to the decisions of the Supreme Court.
In Chipsoft’s case, the Delhi High Court relied to a great extent on the decisions of the Calcutta High Court in Agarpara’s and Kesoram’s cases. If one looks at the logic behind Agarpara’s case, it proceeds on the footing that the unpaid provision for bonus was an excess provision than that required under the law, and that it was, therefore, no longer
payable. Kesoram’s case dealt with unpaid wages, which were written back to the Profit & Loss Account. Following Agarpara’s case, the Calcutta High Court in Kesoram’s case held that considering the facts that the employer himself came to the conclusion that the unpaid amount of wages would not be claimed by the concerned employees, that it proceeded to forfeit such amount and wrote it back to the credit of the Profit & Loss Account, the reasonable inference that would follow from these facts and circumstances and the conduct of the assessee was that the amount which was provided for was not necessary and was an excess provision.
These facts were not present in Chipsoft’s case, as neither the employer had credited the amounts to the Profit & Loss Account nor were there any actions of the assessee to indicate that such amounts were no longer payable. In Chipsoft’s case, it was not proved by the revenue that such provision was an excess provision. Therefore, the application of the ratio of Agarpara’s and Kesoram’s cases to Chipsoft’s case does not seem to have been justified.
The decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Kohinoor Mills Ltd. vs. CIT 49 ITR 578, which was also a case dealing with unpaid wages, though these were written back to the Profit & Loss Account, was not brought to the attention of the Delhi High Court. The Bombay High Court, in that case, held:
“Where wages are payable but they are unclaimed and their recovery is barred by limitation, the position in law is that the debt subsists, notwithstanding that its recovery is barred by limitation. There is in such a case no ‘cessation of trading liability’ within the meaning of section 10(2A) and the amount of such wages cannot be added to the income.”
This view had been also confirmed by the Bombay High Court in the case of J. K. Chemicals Ltd. vs. CIT 62 ITR 34.
It also needs to be kept in mind that Explanation 1 to section 41(1) was inserted to expressly cover amounts written back by credit to the Profit & Loss Account. If the intention was to cover all liabilities outstanding beyond the period of limitation or beyond a particular period of time, whether written back or not, the explanation would have read differently. It would have provided for the specific year in which such debt, barred by limitation, is deemed to be income.
The view taken by the Delhi High Court in Vardhaman Overseas’ case, that such long outstanding amounts continuing as liabilities in the accounts, cannot be taxed u/s. 41(1), therefore, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Taxability of Income from ‘sale of computer software’ as ‘royalty’

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Issue for consideration

Section 4 and section 5 r.w.s. 9(1)(vi) of the Act provide for taxability of income from royalty in India. Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act by a deeming fiction provides for the taxation of income from royalty in India. Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act defines the word ‘royalty’, which is wide enough to cover both industrial royalties as well as copyright royalties, both being forms of intellectual property. Computer software is regarded as an ‘industrial royalty’ and/or a ‘copyright royalty’. Industrial properties include patents, inventions, process, trademarks, industrial designs, geographic indicators of source, etc. and are generally granted for an article or for the process of making such article. Whereas on the other hand, copyright property include literary and artistic works, plays, films, musical works, knowledge, experience, skill, etc. and are generally granted for ideas, principles, skills, etc.

Just as tangible goods are sold, leased or rented in order to earn monetary gain, on similar lines, the Intellectual Property laws enable authors of the intellectual properties to exploit their work for monetary gain. The modes of exploitation of intellectual property for monetary gains are different for each type of Intellectual Property, which has been covered in various sub-clauses of the definition of ‘royalty’ under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi) and subjected to tax as per the scheme of the Act.

On similar lines, monetary gains arising from exploitation of computer program, an intellectual property, which subsists in computer software is sought to be taxed as royalty under the Act. Explanation 3 to section 9(1)(vi) defines computer software as computer program recorded on any disc, tape, perforated media or other information storage device and includes any such program or any customised electronic data. The Supreme Court in the case of Tata Consultancy Services v. State of AP, 271 ITR 401 held that shelf software were ‘goods’ for the purpose of Sales tax and that there was no distinction between the branded and unbranded software. Without prejudice to the applicability of the aforesaid conclusions as drawn by the Apex Court in context of indirect tax laws, to the provisions of the Act, at least one may refer to the aforesaid decision for a proper understanding as to what software is and what is the nature and character of software, which is also advised by the Apex Court in the decision. The controversy, sought to be discussed here, revolves around the issue whether the income from a sale of the computer software is a ‘royalty’, or is a ‘sale’.

The Revenue holds such sales to be royalty on the ground that during the course of sale of computer software, computer program embedded in it is also licensed and/ or parted with the enduser of the software, and as against the claim of the taxpayers who treat the transaction as one of sale of computer software and not of the computer program embedded in it. The Authority for Advance Rulings (‘AAR’) recently in its ruling in the case of Millennium IT Software Ltd., in re, 62 DTR 1 had an occasion to deal with the aforesaid issue under consideration, wherein the AAR while deciding against the taxpayer’s contention, held that the income from the transaction be regarded as a royalty, liable to tax in India. In deciding the issue in this case the AAR gave findings that were contrary to its own findings on the subject given in the earlier decisions in the cases of Dassault Systems K. K., in re, 322 ITR 125 and FactSet Research Systems Inc, in re, 317 ITR 169.

Millennium IT Software’s case

Millennium IT Software Ltd. (‘Millennium’), a Sri Lankan company, had entered into a software licence and maintenance agreement (‘SLMA’) with Indian Commodity and Exchange Ltd. (‘ICEL’), an Indian company, on 27 March 2009. Under the agreement, Millennium had allowed ICEL to use the software product ‘licensed program’, owned by it. As per the SLMA, an ‘implementation fee’ of Rs.4 crores was agreed to be paid by ICEL to Millennium for licence to use the ‘licensed program’ for 4 years and its installation, with a clause to extend the licence period at the discretion of ICEL. The other relevant terms of SLMA are provided as under:

— Millennium had granted ICEL a ‘right to use’ the licensed program for its business operation;

— Rights granted under the SLMA were nonexclusive, non-transferable, non-assignable, indivisible;

— Millennium had granted rights to make copies of the licensed program to be installed on equipments only at designated sites of ICEL and each copy of licensed program was to carry copyright, trademark and other notice relating to proprietary rights of Millennium;

 — ICEL had no right to sell, distribute or disclose the licensed program or associated documents to any third party;

 — No intellectual property right or licence was granted to ICEL.

Use of source code and reverse engineering of the licensed program was strictly prohibited; Based on the aforesaid clauses in SLMA, Millennium submitted before the AAR that the implementation fee was not chargeable to tax under the provisions of the Act or under the DTAA with Sri Lanka relying on some of the earlier favourable legal decisions on the subject. The Income-tax Department objected to the said contention of Millennium and submitted before the AAR, that consideration towards implementation fee should be termed as industrial intellectual property that was covered under the vires of the definition of ‘royalty’ under Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi).

The AAR however, to begin with, chose to classify computer software as a copyright intellectual royalty as against the Revenue’s contention that it was an industrial intellectual property. The AAR observed that ICEL under SLMA was granted a ‘licence to use’ the computer program which was owned and developed by Millennium and that the consideration paid as ‘implementation fee’ was to enable ICEL to have a ‘right to use’ the licensed program. Further, the AAR held that as per SLMA, Millennium had not only conveyed the ‘right to use’ the software to ICEL but along with the said right had also enabled ICEL to ‘use’ copyright embedded in the program though limited in nature. The AAR in addition to above, held that the second proviso to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act was substantive in nature and if the conditions of second proviso to section 9(1)(vi) were not satisfied, then the intention of the Legislature was to tax even the income from sale of a computer software as a royalty under the Act.

Distinguishing its earlier decision on the facts in the case of Dassault Systems K. K. (supra), the AAR concluded that the consideration received for ‘right to use’ the software is embedded with right or interest in computer program and therefore, would be termed as royalty under the provisions of the Act as well as Article 12.3 of the DTAA with Sri Lanka and made the following observations as regard to DTAA with Sri Lanka:

“The DTAA involved herein is the one between India and Sri Lanka. The definition of royalty contained in this treaty in Article 12.3 shows that it is a payment of any kind received as consideration for the ‘use of or the right to any copyright’. This is seen to differ from some of the later treaties like the one with USA wherein royalty is payment of any kind received as consideration for the ‘use of, or the right to use, any copyright’. The definition in the India-Sri Lanka DTAA is wider than the one found in the IT Act. For, it takes in even the consideration received for permitting another to use a copyright. Even a right to use need not be conferred.

…. It is not necessary even to grant the right to use the copyright if one were to look at it literally, though the grant of a right to use could be said to be included in the grant of a right in the copyright.”

The AAR concluded that the consideration received by Millennium from ICEL be termed as a royalty under the DTAA and u/s.9(1)(vi) of the Income-tax Act.

Dassault Systems’ case

Dassault Systems K. K., (‘Dassault’), a Japanese Company, is engaged in the business of providing ‘Product Lifecycle Management’ software solutions, applications and services. Dassault marketed the aforesaid licensed products mostly through a distribution channel comprising of Value Added Resellers (‘VAR’). VARs are independent third-party resellers who are in the business of selling software products to end-users. As per the business model, Dassault entered into General Value Added Resellers Agreement (‘GVA’) with VARs and sold the software product to VARs for a consideration based on the standard list less discount. The VARs in turn sold the products to end-users at a price independently determined by VARs. The end-users then entered into End User Licence Agreement (‘EULA’) with Dassault and VARs for the product supplied.

Based on the abovementioned facts, Dassault had sought for a ruling from the AAR as to whether the consideration received by Dassault from VARs, from sale of software products would be termed as a business income or a royalty under the Act and/or DTAA between India and Japan. Further, the AAR was explained the modus operandi of the transactions undertaken between Dassault, VARs and the end-users. Dassault submitted before AAR that the end-users including VARs in the sale of software products were only transferred copyrighted software containing computer program but not the copyright therein. It was further contended that consideration was paid for ‘use of copyrighted product and not for use of copyright in computer program’. The end-users/VARs did not avail any of the rights referred to in section 14 of the Copyright Act, 1957 (‘the 1957 Act’). The Income-tax Department objected to the contention of Dassault and submitted that consideration received by Dassault from VARs was on account of rights conferred u/s.14(b) of the 1957 Act and therefore, would be termed as a royalty under the Act.

The AAR to begin with, considered the ordinary meaning of ‘copyright’, reference was made to various definition provisions, modes of transfer of copy-right under the 1957 Act and to the earlier decision of the AAR in the case of FactSet Research Systems Inc., 317 ITR 169. It referred to various clauses of GVA and EULA agreements and the provision of section 14 of the 1957 Act and observed that passing of a ‘right to use’ and facilitating the use of a product for which the owner had a copyright was not the same thing as transferring or assigning rights in relation to the copyright. Further, it observed that “use of a copyrighted product does not entail enjoyment of rights referred in section 14 of the 1957 Act” for computer program and therefore no copyright was transferred and/or parted in the course of said transaction. Merely authorising or enabling a customer to have the benefit of data or instructions therein without any further right to deal with them independently did not entail transfer of rights in relation to copyright or conferment of the right of using the copyright. After negating the objections of the Revenue and in light of the aforesaid observations and references to some of earlier favourable legal decisions on the subject, the AAR held that considering the facts of the case no rights in relation to copyright had been transferred, nor any right of using the copyright as such had been conferred on VARs/end-users in the course of transactions.

In deciding the application, the AAR referred to the provisions of Article 12.3 of the DTAA with Japan which read as under:

“The term ‘royalties’ as used in this article means payments of any kind received as a consideration for the use of, or the right to use, any copyright of literary, artistic or scientific work including cinematograph films and films or tapes for radio or television broadcasting, any patent, trademark, design or model, plan, secret formula or process, or for the use of, or the right to use, industrial, commercial or scientific equipment or for information concerning industrial, commercial or scientific experience.”

On due consideration of the said Article 12 of the DTAA and the provisions of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, the AAR concluded that the income from the transaction under consideration was not a royalty.

Observations

The Income-tax Act, 1961 defines royalty in relation to computer program under Explanation 2(v) to section 9(1)(vi) as ‘transfer of all or any rights (including granting of license) in respect of any copyright ………..A question which requires consideration is therefore, whether the expression ‘transfer of all or any rights’ under the said Explanation can be read to implicitly cover ‘use’ or ‘right to use’.

Observations here are restricted to the provisions of the Act and no references are sought to the text of respective DTAAs, for following reasons:

  •     The definition of royalty and the text of the provisions on royalty under the respective DTAAs are different;

  •     Once the nature of income being discussed here fails to be termed as a ‘royalty’ under the provisions of the Act, then one may not be required even to refer to the provisions of the respective DTAAs, considering the fact that recourse to DTAA is envisaged only for any reliefs and benefits, not conferred by the Act.

The issue under consideration is otherwise a multi- faceted issue and has several dimensions which are sought to be addressed through a few questions and answers thereon.

Does the expression ‘transfer of all or any rights’ under Explanation 2(v) to section 9(1)(vi) include ‘use or right to use’?

A construction of definition of royalty under the Act explains that different actions qua the type of intellectual properties are covered and subjected to tax according to the scheme of the Act, which is tabulated below:
 

The Legislature in its wisdom has distinguished between the royalty for industry intellectual properties and copyright intellectual properties. It appears that the distinction is in sync with the available means through which each type of intellectual property is exploited for earning a monetary gain. To take an illustration, a technical design which belongs to industrial intellectual property type can be exploited for earning monetary gain in any of the ways as mentioned in Explanation 2(i), (ii) and (iii) of section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, but the same test may fail for films, artistic work, etc., a part of copyright intellectual property type, and vice versa.

When different provisions are made depending upon the type of intellectual property, then the part relevant thereto only should be applied while determining whether or not that part shall fall under the definition of royalty. Such a construction is in accordance with the Latin legal maxim ‘Expresso unius est exclusive alterius’. The general meaning of the maxim is that the express mention of one thing implies the exclusion of another. As a fallout of the said construction, it is possible to hold that rights as prescribed in Explanation 2(i) to (iva) of section 9(1)(vi), as in the nature of right to share information and the use or right to use thereof cannot be covered by the expression ‘transfer of all or any right (including granting of licence)’ under Explanation 2(v) of the Act. In other words, the Legislature did not seek to consider ‘use or right to use’ of computer program embedded in computer software as royalty under the Act.


What is meant by the expression ‘transfer of all or any rights (including granting of licence’ and which rights are sought to be covered?

Though the Act defines the word ‘royalty’, but the expressions viz., ‘all or any’, ‘or’ are uncertain as regard to their scope. Similarly, the terms patents, copyrights, process, invention, skill, etc., remain undefined. In such circumstances, one is required to scrutinise the legislative history to ascertain the principal intention of the Legislature. The above-referred terms are defined in their respective governing special Acts on the subject viz., Copyrights Act, 1957 (‘the 1957 Act’); Patents Act, 1970; Trade Marks Act, 1999, etc.

Section 14 of the 1957 Act defines a copyright in the computer program as a list of rights granted to the author of computer program. The Act also provides for the modes for transfer of the said list of rights in computer program viz. assignment and licence of rights. References to other types of intellectual properties provide for similar provisions under the respective Acts. The intention of the Legislature can therefore be considered as referring to the rights as listed in section 14 of the 1957 Act. The aforesaid construction is also supported by the decision of the Special Bench of the Delhi Tribunal in the case of Motorola Inc v. DCIT, 95 ITD 269.
 

Whether the rights referred in section 14 of the Copyrights Act, 1957 are transferred in sale of computer software to end-users?

To answer this pertinent question, one requires to appreciate the nature of the transaction which generally takes place in a sale of computer software to end-users. A sale of computer software to end-users either takes place directly from the author of the computer program to end-users or through the channel of distributors. In either case, the computer program embedded in the computer software may or may not be parted and/or licensed with the computer software. Generally, in such sale transactions, what is sought to be parted with the end-users is the copy of copyrighted program embedded in the computer software and not the copyrighted computer program.

Therefore, it requires to be seen whether in a standard End-user License Agreement (‘EULA’) of computer software between the author and end-users, any of the rights mentioned in section 14 r.w.s. 52 of the 1957 Act are made available to the end-users. A table summarising the rights u/s.14 for computer program, as available to each party, generally, to exercise after the transaction of sale of computer software is reproduced below:

Whereas the author of the computer program, as observed in the Table, has all the rights, the end-user does not have any rights under Section 14. Further, the distributors have rights to sell or give on commercial rental a copy of computer program or give limited right to reproduce and store the said computer programs. In other words, the end-users cannot exercise any rights in respect of copyrights in computer program and therefore, any consider-ation paid to the authors/ distributors by the end-user towards sale of computer software may not qualify for being termed as a ‘royalty’ under the Act. In contrast, under the agreement between the author and distributor, since the right to sell or give on commercial rental is conferred on the distributors, any consideration received by the author from a distributor in such a scenario may qualify to be termed as a ‘royalty’ under the Act.

Whether ‘computer program’ is copyright and/or industrial intellectual property?

Though it may sound ironical, but all the contrary judgments on the subject confirm to the proposition that ‘computer program’ is a literary work and qualifies to be termed as a copyright intellectual property. However, the difference of opinion stems in considering the computer program as industrial intellectual property, not being limited to patents but also as process, invention and secret formula. Since, ‘invention’, and ‘patents’ are not defined under the Act it shall be necessary to rely on the respective special Acts governing the law on the subject. Section 3(k) of the Patents Act, 1970 (‘the 1970 Act’) which defines ‘invention’ specifically excludes computer program from being regarded as invention. Section 2(m) of the 1970 Act defines ‘patent’ as an invention, thereby indirectly excluding computer program from its purview. Further, since the end-users do not have any access to the computer program embedded in computer software, they cannot be said to have rights in relation to a process. Lastly, to classify computer program as a secret formula shall be too far-fetched, considering the fact that a secret formula is placed as genus of ‘technical know-how’ under the provisions of the Act.

As a result, computer program embedded in computer software may only be termed as a copyright intellectual property under Explanation 2(v) to section 9(1)(vi).

Without prejudice to aforesaid discussions, recently the Delhi High Court in a judgement delivered in the case of CIT v. Dynamic Vertical Software India (P)    Ltd., 332 ITR 222, has based on the facts and circumstances of the case where the assessee, a dealer of Microsoft, had been purchasing the on the subject software from Microsoft and selling it further in Indian market held that the payment made by the assessee to Microsoft could not be termed as a ‘royalty’. Therefore, it can be said that computer software is not a copyright intellectual property.

Lastly, if the rights to use intellectual property are capable of and are allowed to be transferred in sale of computer software to end-users, then every second person would have been capable of developing softwares like Microsoft, Oracle, etc. The general understanding of the word ‘royalty’ in the context of copyright refer to a consideration received by the author from the publisher, who published his work and not as a consideration received by the publisher from the end-user on sale of copy of work.

Based on the aforesaid discussions and observations made in the decision in the case of Dassault Systems (supra), it appears that the ratio of the recent decision of the AAR in the case of Millennium IT Systems (supra) may require reconsideration.

Adding to the bandwagon of major judgments, the AAR has recently in the case of Upaid Systems Limited, In re, 885 of 2010, dated 12th October 2011, based on the facts and circumstances of the case, held that the consideration paid by Satyam to Upaid for perpetual licence of right to use computer software shall be taxable as ‘royalty’ under section 9(1)(vi) of the Act.

1    Facts in the case of Dassault Systems K. K. (supra) were different then generally prevailing in the industry or found in the case of Gracemac Corporation v. ADIT, (supra)
2    For limited purpose as provided in section 52 of the Copyright Act, 1957
3    Facts in the case of Dassault Systems K. K. (supra) were different then generally prevailing in the industry or found in the case of Gracemac Corporation v. ADIT, (supra)
4    Motorola Inc v. DCIT, (95 ITD 269) (Del.) (SB)
5    Gracemac Corporation vs ADIT (47 DTR 65) (Del)
6    Sonata Information Technology Ltd vs ACIT (103 ITD 324) (Bang.)
7    Frontline Soft Ltd vs DCIT (12 DTR 131) (Hyd)

Demed Dividend — Loans or Advances to Related Concerns

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Issue for consideration

Dividend is an income under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The term ‘dividend’ is inclusively defined in section 2(22), vide five clauses, (a) to (e). These clauses primarily provide for treatment of certain distribution or payments, by the company, as dividend to the extent of the accumulated profits of the company. Clause (e) provides for payment of certain loans and advances by a company to a certain category of shareholders or for the benefit of this category of shareholders, or to any concern in which such shareholder is a member or a partner and in which he has a substantial interest (popularly referred to as ‘deemed dividend’). This clause reads as under:

“(e) any payment by a company, not being a company in which the public are substantially interested, of any sum (whether as representing a part of the assets of the company or otherwise) made after the 31st day of May 1987, by way of advance or loan to a shareholder, being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares (not being shares entitled to a fixed rate of dividend whether with or without a right to participate in profits) holding not less than 10% of the voting power, or to any concern in which such shareholder is a member or a partner and in which he has a substantial interest (hereafter in this clause referred to as the said concern) or any payment by any such company on behalf, or for the individual benefit, of any such shareholder, to the extent to which the company in either case possesses accumulated profits;”

These loans or advances to the specified shareholders or for the benefit of such shareholders or to the concerns in which such shareholders are substantially interested, are therefore taxable as dividend. Such dividend is not subject to the dividend distribution tax u/s.115-O, and is therefore a taxable income, not exempt u/s.10(34) of the Act.

In cases of payments of loans and advances to the specified concerns, the following questions have arisen before the courts in the recent past, in interpretation of this provision, namely, (a) whether the dividend under this clause is taxable in the hands of a shareholder or in the hands of the concern receiving the loan; (b) should the person being taxed be the registered as well as the beneficial shareholder; and (c) whether in cases of the fiduciary holding, the recipient can be taxed even where he is not the registered owner of the shares by presuming the recipient concern to be the shareholder. While the Bombay High Court had approved the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal that the dividend be taxed in the hands of the shareholder, only and not in the hands of the concern and further that the shareholder has to be both a registered shareholder as well as the beneficial shareholder, recently the Delhi High Court in a dissenting decision has taken a different view of the matter, holding that such dividend is taxable in the hands of the concern receiving the loan or advance where the firm is a beneficial shareholder, not following its own decision in an earlier case.

Universal Medicare’s case The issue came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Universal Medicare Private Limited, 324 ITR 263.

In this case, an amount of Rs.32 lakhs was transferred from the bank account of one company to the bank account of the assessee-company. One of the directors held over 10% of the equity capital of the company, which transferred the funds and also held over 20% of the equity capital of the assessee-company. This transfer was part of a misappropriation by a senior employee, who had opened bank accounts and carried out certain transactions to defalcate funds.

The assessee claimed that the amount was neither an advance nor a loan to the assessee, but represented misappropriation of funds by the senior employee. Alternatively, it was forcefully contended that, even assuming that this was an amount advanced to the assessee, for the purposes of taxation, the deemed dividend would be taxable in the hands of the shareholder and not in the hands of the assessee to whom the payment was advanced. The Assessing Officer concluded that the section 2(22)(e) provided for taxation in the hands of the recipient company and that they were attracted the moment a loan or advance was made and that subsequent defalcation of funds was immaterial. Noting that all the requirements of section 2(22)(e) were fulfilled, the Assessing officer concluded that the loan was to be treated as deemed dividend in the hands of the recipient company and not in the hands of the shareholder director.

The Commissioner (Appeals) affirmed the order of the Assessing officer. The Tribunal reversed the findings of the Commissioner (Appeals) on the reasoning that the amount was taxable in the hands of the shareholder director and not in the hands of the assessee-company and also on the fact that the amount was part of a fraud committed, and that the transaction was not reflected in its books of accounts of the company.

The Bombay High Court analysed the provisions of section 2(22)(e), and observed that the clause was not artistically worded. It noted that Parliament had expanded the ambit of the expression ‘dividend’ by providing an inclusive definition. It noted that the payment by a company had to be by way of an advance or loan. On facts, it noted that the Tribunal had found that no loan or advance was granted to the assessee-company, since the amount in question had actually been defalcated and was not reflected in the books of account of the assessee-company. According to the Bombay High Court, this was a pure finding of fact which did not give rise to any substantial question of law.

The Bombay High Court, on law, concurred with the construction placed on the provisions of section 2(22)(e) by the Tribunal. It held that all payments by way of dividend had to be taxed in the hands of the recipient of the dividend, namely, the shareholder; that the effect of section 2(22) was to provide an inclusive definition of the expression ‘dividend’ and clause (e) expanded the nature of payments which could be classified as dividend; that looking at the different types of payments covered by this clause, the effect of clause (e) was to broaden the ambit of the expression ‘dividend’ by taxing the shareholder where certain payments were made by way of a loan or advance or payments on behalf of or for the individual benefit of such a shareholder and that the definition did not alter the legal position that dividend had to be taxed in the hands of the shareholder and consequently, even assuming that the payment was dividend, the payment was taxable not in the hands of the assessee-company, but in the hands of the shareholder.

National Travel Services’ case

The issue again recently came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. National Travel Services, (ITA Nos. 223, 219, 1204 & 309 of 2010) dated 11th July 2011 (available on www.itatonline. org).

In this case, the assessee was a partnership firm, having three partners. It had taken a loan of Rs.28.52 crore from a company, in which the assessee had invested in equity shares constituting 48.18% of the capital of the company. However, the shares were acquired in the names of two of the partners of the assessee.

Before the Delhi High Court, the assessee highlighted that the issue as to whether the person to whom the payment was made should not only be a reg-istered shareholder but a beneficial shareholder as well was concluded by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Ankitech Pvt. Ltd., (ITA No. 462 of 2009) and other cases, decided on 11th May 2011 (43-A BCAJ 327, June 2011 — full text available on www.itatonline.org), where the Court had held that the loan or advance could be taxed only in the hands of the shareholder, and not in the hands of the company receiving the loan or advance and had observed therein that the expression ‘shareholder, being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares’ referred to in section 2(22)(e) meant that the shareholder should be both a registered shareholder and a beneficial shareholder.

In addition, it was argued that for the purposes of income-tax, a partnership firm is different from its partners. A reference was made to various provisions of the Companies Act [including section 187(c) and section 153 read with section 147], and to SEBI guidelines on joint shareholding in respect of partnership firm, in support of the proposition that the partnership firm in its own right could be the shareholder as distinguished from the partners themselves. Reliance was placed by the assessee on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of CIT v. Raj Kumar Singh and Co., 295 ITR 9, where the Court had held that the conditions stipulated in section 2(22)(e) were not satisfied where the assessee firm was not the shareholder of a company which gave the loan, but partners of the firm were its shareholders.

On behalf of the Department, it was argued that on first principles, under the Indian Partnership Act, a partnership firm was not a separate entity but was synonymous with the partners. It was argued that when shares were acquired by a partnership firm, for want of its own separate legal entity, the shares had to be bought in the names of partners, and in no case, shares could be held in the name of the partnership firm however, for all intended purposes, it was the partnership firm, which was the shareholder in such a case.

The Delhi High Court agreed that the person to whom the loan or advance was made should be a shareholder as well as beneficial owner and proceeded further to examine the question whether the assessee firm could be treated as a shareholder having purchased shares through its partners in the company, or whether the shareholder necessarily had to be a registered shareholder and hence the shares should have been registered in the name of the firm, itself. The Delhi High Court observed that if the assessee’s contention was accepted, a partnership firm could never come within the mischief of section 2(22)(e), because the shares would be necessarily purchased by the firm in the names of its partners since it did not have any separate entity of its own and the firm therefore could never be a registered shareholder.

According to the Delhi High Court, by requiring a firm to be a registered shareholder, the very purpose of enactment of this provision would be defeated, and this would lead to absurd results. The Delhi High Court observed that though a deeming provision had to be strictly construed, it had also to be taken to its logical conclusion by making the law workable and to meet that in case of the purchase of shares by the firm in the name of its partners, it was the firm which was to be treated as shareholder for the purposes of section 2(22)(e).

The Delhi High Court therefore concluded that a partnership firm was to be treated as the shareholder even if the shares were held in the names of its partners, and it was not necessary that the partnership firm had to be the registered shareholder. The loan received was held to be taxable as deemed dividends in the hands of the partnership firm.

Observations

The ratio of the decision in National Travel Services’ case where applied to the issues discussed here is that a person for being taxed has to be a registered and the beneficial shareholder so however in cases of the fiduciary ownership the beneficial owner can be presumed to be the registered owner even where he may not be the one. Such an assumption, found to be permissible in law by the Court, however makes no departure from the understanding held so far that the dividend under clause (e) can never be taxed in the hands of a specified concern where the concern is not holding any shares, beneficially or otherwise, in the capital of the company which makes the payment of the loan or advances. In cases where the payment is sought to be taxed on the basis of the common shareholder, the tax if any shall continue to levied in the hands of the shareholder only and not in the hands of the recipient concern. The ratio of the Court’s own decision in the case of Ankitech Pvt. Ltd. remains uncontroverted to that extent.

The Rajasthan High Court in the case of CIT v. Hotel Hilltop, 313 ITR 116 (Raj.), held that in the case of a payment of an advance by a company to a partnership firm, where a shareholder of the said company holding 10% or more of the shares of the company and who also had substantial interest in the said partnership firm, the amount of payment could not be taxed as a deemed dividend in the hands of the firm, but would be taxed in the hands of the individual, on whose behalf or for whose individual benefit, being such shareholder and partner, the amount was paid by the company to the partnership firm.

The Special Bench of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, in the case of ACIT v. Bhaumik Colour Pvt. Ltd., 313 ITR (AT) 146 (Mum., SB), has held that if a person is a beneficial shareholder but not a registered shareholder, or if a person is a registered shareholder but not the beneficial shareholder, then the provisions of section 2(22)(e) will not apply and in that view of the matter dividend u/s.2(22)(e) cannot be taxed in the hands of a concern where a certain shareholder is a partner with a substantial interest.

The decision of the Delhi High Court in National Travel Services’ case seems to be primarily applicable to cases of partnership firms owning shares in companies which shares are held in the names of their partners. As noted the decision does not seek to alter the understanding in respect of the loan or advances received by the firm where the firm does not hold any shares directly or indirectly through partners of the company in which case, it is only the shareholder who would be taxable i.e., a person who is the owner of the shares of the company and is also the partner of the firm and is otherwise the registered and the beneficial owner of the shares.

While the Delhi High Court has carved out an exception in the cases of partnership firms that own the shares of the company and such firms on account of the fact that partnership firms cannot hold the shares in their own names are holding the shares in the names of the partners. In doing so, the Delhi High Court has taken a view different from that of the Allahabad High Court and the Court in doing so has also not followed the ratio of the decision of the Allahabad High Court in Raj Kumar Singh and Co.’s case (supra).

The concept that the reference to the term ‘shareholder’ means registered shareholder has been laid down by the Supreme Court as far back as in the cases of CIT v. C. P. Sarathy Mudaliar, 83 ITR 170 and Rameshwarmal Sanwarmal v. CIT, 122 ITR 1, which was in the context of an HUF as the shareholder of a company. In fact, even earlier a similar view was taken by the Supreme Court in the case of Howrah Trading Co. Ltd. v. CIT, 36 ITR 215, in the context of taxation of dividends in the hands of a shareholder who had not lodged his shares for transfer, though he had acquired a beneficial interest in the shares. These decisions were rendered in the context of the law as it stood prior to the amendment by the Finance Act, 1987 made effective from 1st April 1988.

The provisions of section 2(22)(e) were amended with effect from 1st April, 1988, by the Finance Act, 1987. Prior to the amendment, only a loan or advance to a shareholder, being a person who had a substantial interest in a company, or any payment by any such company on behalf, or for the individual benefit, of any such shareholder, was taxable as dividend. The amendment introduced the requirement of the shareholder being a beneficial owner of shares holding not less than 10% of the voting power, as well as extended the definition to concerns in which such shareholder was a member or partner, in which he has a substantial interest. This amendment also inserted the definition of ‘concern’ in explanation 3(a), to mean an HUF, or a firm, or an association of persons or a body of individuals or a company.

Does the insertion of this requirement of beneficial ownership of shares mean that the concept of registered shareholder is no longer relevant and therefore once a person is found to be a beneficial owner the dividend will be taxable in his hands, irrespective of the fact that he is not a registered shareholder? The Special Bench of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, in the case of ACIT v. Bhaumik Colour Pvt. Ltd., 313 ITR (AT) 146 (Mum., SB), has held that it is a principle of interpretation of statutes that once certain words in an act have received a judicial construction in one of the superior courts, and the Legislature has repeated them in a subsequent statute, the legislature must be taken to have used them according to the meaning which a Court of competent jurisdiction has given them. The Tribunal therefore held that the expression ‘being a person who is the beneficial owner of shares’ only qualifies the word ‘shareholder’ and does not in any way alter the position that the shareholder has to be a registered shareholder, nor substitute the requirement to a requirement of merely holding a beneficial interest in the shares without being a registered holder of shares. The Tribunal therefore held that if a person is a beneficial shareholder, but not a registered shareholder, or if a person is a registered shareholder, but not the beneficial shareholder, then the provisions of section 2(22)(e) will not apply.

The issue therefore is whether a partnership firm can be regarded as a shareholder in a company where the shares are held by the partners of the partnership firm for and on behalf of the firm. Similar can be the case where the shares are held by the karta of an HUF for and on behalf of the HUF and the trustee of a Trust for and on behalf of the Trust. Whether the shares are assets of the partnership firm or the individual assets of the partners would normally be determined based on how the firm and the partners have treated the assets — for instance, disclosure of the shares as assets of the partnership firm or the partners in their respective accounts, disclosure of the dividends as income of the partnership firm or the partners in their respective accounts, etc. While there may not be any dispute about the beneficial ownership of the firm over the shares, it is not possible to hold the firm as the legal owner in view of the corporate laws prohibiting the holding of shares in the names of the firm and in that view of the matter it is not possible to hold the firm as a registered shareholder and if that be so the dividend cannot be taxed in the hands of the firm and also not in the hands of the partners where the beneficial ownership is not with them.

The fact that a firm is specifically listed among the entities that are regarded as ‘concern’ indicates that the intention is also to rope in loans or advances to partnership firms, and to achieve that the payments to such concerns has to be taxed but will be taxed in the hands of such person who owns shares with certain percentage of voting rights and is also the partner holding a substantial interest in the firm. Dividend cannot be taxed in the hands of the firm in cases where the firm is not the owner of the shares as even the Delhi High Court does not suggest so. Where the firm is the owner of the shares it may not be taxable in its hands in view of the decisions referred to above. The ratio of the Delhi High Court decision therefore, if at all, applies only to a limited situation of a partnership firm, where the partnership firm treats the shares as its own assets, but the shares are held in the names of partners on behalf of the partnership firm.

Since the entire purpose is to tax dividends, and dividends can arise only to the shareholder, the better view of the matter is that it is only the shareholder who can be taxed, even if the advance is to a concern in which he is substantially interested, since the shareholder is deriving an indirect advantage or benefit through such concern.

Cost of acquisition in case of Property of Ex-Rulers

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Issue for consideration : Prior to independence,
India had a large number of native states, each having a separate Ruler.
Many of these ex-rulers owned substantial number of properties even
today, which were part of their princely possessions inherited by them
from their forefathers who had acquired such properties by way of
conquest or by way of jagir (grant).

The Supreme Court in the
case of CIT v. B. C. Srinivasa Setty, 128 ITR 294, held that no capital
gains tax is payable by an assessee where it was not possible to compute
the capital gains u/s.48 of the Act. It held that capital gains could
not be computed in cases where the cost of acquisition could not be
conceived at all. Of course, this position of law has been slightly
altered by the insertion of section 55(2)(a), which provides that the
cost of certain assets shall be deemed to be nil in cases of the assets
specified therein. Sale of such specified assets, though not having any
cost of acquisition, is now subjected to capital gains tax by virtue of
this amendment. Section 55(2)(a) however does not include such property
of ex-rulers.

The question has arisen before the courts as to
whether such property of ex-rulers acquired by their forefathers by way
of conquest or by way of jagir has no cost of acquisition, and the gains
arising on sale of such property is not subject to capital gains tax,
or whether such property has a cost of acquisition and the gains thereon
is subject to capital gains tax on sale. While the Madhya Pradesh,
Madras, and Gujarat High Courts have taken the view that the sale of
such property would not be subject to capital gains tax, the Full Bench
of the Punjab and Haryana High Court has recently taken a contrary view
that the provisions relating to capital gains tax do apply to such
properties. The decision, though rendered in the context of an ex-ruler,
has far-reaching implications inasmuch as it seeks to chart a new
course of thinking by relying on the provisions of section 55(3) for
bringing to tax gains arising even in cases not covered by section
55(2).

Lokendra Singhji’s case : The issue first came up before
the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT v. H.H. Maharaja Sahib
Shri Lokendra Singhji, 162 ITR 93.

In this case, the assessee
was the ex-ruler of the erstwhile State of Ratlam, which was founded by
Maharaja Ratansinghji. A jagir of the entire state of Ratlam was
conferred on Ratansinghji in the 17th century by Emperor Shahjahan for
his daring feat of killing a mad elephant with a dagger. The assessee
sold certain land and building within the compound of Shri Ranjit Vilas
Palace, Ratlam during the relevant year, which property was a part of
the estate received as jagir, and which had been inherited by the
assessee in his capacity as the ruler.

The assessee initially
included the capital gains (loss) on sale of the property in his tax
return, by claiming the fair market value of the land and building on
1st January 1954 as the substituted cost of acquisition. The Assessing
Officer computed the assessment by taking such fair market value as on
1st January 1954 at a lower figure, which figure was slightly enhanced
by the Commissioner (Appeals).

Before the Tribunal, for the 1st
time the assessee raised an additional ground claiming that there was no
cost of acquisition of the asset and as such there could be no capital
gains as a result of the transfer of the property. The Tribunal admitted
the additional ground and came to the conclusion that no capital gains
arose as a result of the sale of the land and building.

Before
the Madhya Pradesh High Court, on behalf of the Revenue, it was argued
that the Tribunal was not justified in holding that no capital gains
arose, and that the main controversy was whether the sale proceeds of
the property were in the nature of capital receipts and whether such
receipts attracted the provisions of section 45. It was argued that as
the assessee had received the property by way of inheritance and himself
opted for substitution of the cost of the capital asset as on 1st
January 1954, the Tribunal was not right in concluding that there being
no cost of acquisition of the property to the initial owner, there was
no question of capital gains.

On behalf of the assessee, it was
submitted that though the property was a capital asset, there was no
gains because the forefathers of the assessee were not required to pay
any cost in terms of money for acquiring the property, given the history
of Ratlam State. It was argued that in the absence of any cost of
acquisition, no liability to capital gains could be fastened on the
assessee, though he might have accepted the valuation as on 1st January
1954 and had disclosed the capital loss in his return of income.
Reliance was placed on the decisions of the Bombay High Court in the
case of CIT v. Home Industries and Co., 107 ITR 609, of the Madhya
Pradesh High Court in CIT v. Jaswantlal Dayabhai, 114 ITR 798, and of
the Supreme Court in CIT v. B. C. Srinivasa Setty, 128 ITR 294, all of
which decisions were rendered in the context of goodwill, for the
proposition that the charging section and the computation provisions
together constituted an integrated code, and where the computation
provisions could not apply at all, such a case was not intended to fall
within the charging section. Reliance was also placed on the decisions
of the Delhi High Court in the case of Bawa Shiv Charan Singh v. CIT,
149 ITR 29, and the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Mrs.
Shirinbai P. Pundole, 129 ITR 448 in the context of tenancy rights.

The
Madhya Pradesh High Court noted that though none of the cases cited by
the assessee related to the sale of an immovable property as was the
case before it, but the gist of all these decisions was that if there
was no cost of acquisition, then the gains on sale would not attract the
provisions of capital gains. According to the Madhya Pradesh High
Court, the liability to capital gains tax would arise in respect of only
those capital assets in the acquisition of which the element of cost
was either actually present or was capable of being reckoned and not in
respect of those assets in acquisition of which the element of cost was
altogether inconceivable, as in the case before it.

The Madhya
Pradesh High Court observed that a case where a person acquired some
property by way of gift or reward (for instance, jagirs from a ruler)
and the property passed on by inheritance to succeeding generations, and
was sold for a valuable consideration, because the initial owner had
not acquired it at some cost in terms of money, it would not attract
capital gains tax in such a transaction of sale, there being no gains
that could be computed as such. The Madhya Pradesh High Court therefore
held that the gains on sale of the property would not attract capital
gains tax.

This view taken by the Court in this case was
followed subsequently by the Court in the case of CIT v. Pushparaj
Singh, 232 ITR 754 (shares/securities transferred to the assessee by the
government as a moral gesture), by the Gujarat High Court in the case
of CIT v. Manoharsinhji P. Jadeja, 281 ITR 19 (property acquired by
forefathers by conquest), and by the Madras High Court in the case of
CIT v. H.H. Sri Raja Rajagopala Thondaiman, 282 ITR 126. The Punjab and
Haryana High Court also took a similar view in the case of CIT v. Amrik
Singh, 299 ITR 14, in the context of ownership acquired by the assessee
by Court’s sanction in terms of section 3 of the Punjab Occupancy
Tenants (Vesting of Proprietary Rights) Act, 1952.

Raja
Malwinder Singh’s case :

The issue again recently came up before the Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v. Raja Malwinder Singh, 334 ITR 48.    In this case the assessee was an ex-ruler of the Pepsu State, which state was acquired under an instrument of annexation. Certain plots of land which were part of that state were sold. The assessee claimed that since the cost of acquisition could not be ascertained, capital gains tax was not attracted.

The Assessing Officer assessed the capital gains by taking the cost of acquisition equal to the market value as on 1st January 1954/1964. The Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the assessee’s appeal and the contention that cost of acquisition was incapable of ascertainment, but the Tribunal reversed the decision, following the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of B. C. Srinivasa Setty (supra). The Division Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court prima facie differed with the view taken by the same court in the case of Amrik Singh (supra), and therefore referred the matter to a large Bench.

On behalf of the Revenue, before the Full Bench, a distinction was sought to be drawn between the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of B. C. Srinivasa Setty (supra) and the case before the Court, on the ground that in a newly started business the value of goodwill was not ascertainable, whereas in the case of acquisition of land, the same was either acquired at some cost or without cost, and under the scheme of the Act, there could be no situation where the cost was incapable of ascertainment.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court noted that in the case before it, the assessee acquired the property by succession from the previous owner. It also noted that according to the assessee, the cost of acquisition by the previous owner could not be ascertained and had failed to exercise the option of adopting the market value on the date of acquisition or the cost of the previous owner. Therefore, according to the Court, the only option available to the Assessing Officer was to compute capital gains by taking the cost of asset to be the fair market value on the specified date (1st January 1954/1964, as the case may be).

According to the Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, even in a case where the cost of acquisition could not be ascertained, section 55(3) statutorily prescribed the cost to be equal to the market value on the date of acquisition. Therefore, capital gains was not excluded even on the plea that value of the asset in respect of which capital gains was to be charged was incapable of ascertainment.

The Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court therefore held that the view taken by it earlier in Amrik Singh’s case was not correct, being against the statutory scheme. The Court also held that the view taken by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in Lokendra Singhji’s case (supra) could not be accepted, as it did not give effect to the mandate of section 55(3), which provided for a situation where the value of the asset acquired could not be ascertained. According to the court, if the market value of an asset on the date of its acquisition could be ascertained, the cost of acquisition had to be taken to be equal to that, and if the value could not be so ascertained, the cost had to be equal to the market value on a specified date (for example, 1-4-1964 or 1-4-1981) at the option of the assessee. The Court observed that it was not the case of the assessee that the land had no market value on the date of its acquisition.

The Full Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court therefore held that once an asset had a market value, on the date of its acquisition, capital gains tax would be attracted by taking the cost of acquisition to be fair market value as on the specified date or at the option of the assessee, the market value on the date of acquisition where no cost was incurred. The Court accordingly held that the gains made on sale of the property of the ex-ruler was subject to capital gains tax.

Observations:

Computation of capital gains is possible where all of the following information is available :

  •     Date of acquisition,

  •     Cost of acquisition,

  •     Mode and manner of acquisition,

  •     Date of transfer,

  •     Consideration for transfer, and

  •     Mode and manner of transfer.

These requirements are sought to be taken care of by provisions of section 45(2) to (6), section 46 to 49, 50 and section 55(1) to (3) and section 2(42A). Further, the decision of the Supreme Court provides for the course of action, to be adopted, where the cost of acquisition and the date of acquisition are not known or cannot be determined. One dimension however, i.e., the mode and the manner of acquisition remains unexplored where no information is available about the mode of acquisition of the previous owner who had acquired the asset by any of the modes not specified by section 49(1). On a harmonious reading of the provisions of Chapter IVE, it appears that the capital gains cannot be brought to tax where the information in relation to any of the above referred dimensions is not available.

The Supreme Court in the case of B. C. Srinivasa Setty, 128 ITR 294 was concerned with the taxability of the receipts on transfer of goodwill. The Court in the context of the said case observed and held as under :

  •     It was impossible to predicate the moment of the birth of goodwill and there can be no account in value of the factors producing goodwill. No business possessed goodwill from the start which generated on carrying on of business and augmented with the passage of time.

  •     The charging section 45 and the computation provisions of section 48 together constituted an integrated code.

  •     All transactions encompassed by section 45 must fall under the governance of its computation provisions. A transaction that cannot satisfy the test of computation must be regarded as never intended to be covered by section 45.

  •     Section 48 contemplated an asset in the acquisition of which it was possible to envisage a cost, an asset which possessed the inherent quality of being available on the expenditure of money to a person seeking to acquire it.

  •     The date of acquisition of an asset was a material factor in applying the computation provisions and for goodwill, it was not pos-sible to ascertain such date.

  •     Taxing the goodwill amounted to taxing the capital value of the asset and not the profits or gains.

The Supreme Court in the above-referred case observed that what was contemplated for taxation was the gains of an asset in the acquisition of which it was possible to envisage a cost; the asset in question should be one which possessed the inherent quality of being available on the expenditure of money to a person seeking to acquire it. Importantly, it observed that it was immaterial that although the asset belonged to such a class it might have been acquired without the payment of money, in which case section 49 would determine the cost of acquisition for the
purposes of section 48. This finding is heavily relied by the taxpayers to canvass that the Court implied that an asset for which no payment is made and which is not covered by section 49 is outside the scope of section 48.

The Court on a reference to section 50 and section 55(2) as also section 49 gathered that section 48 dealt with an asset that was capable of being acquired at cost; these provisions indicated that section 48 excluded such assets for which no cost element could be identified or envisaged and the goodwill was one such asset.

Significantly the Court observed that it was impossible to determine the cost of acquisition of goodwill even in the hands of the previous owner who had transferred the same in one of the modes specified in section 49(1). It also held that section 55(3) could not be invoked in such a case, because the date of acquisition of the previous owner re-mained unknown. In cases where the cost of an asset cannot be conceived at all, it appears that the fair market value as prescribed by section 55(3) cannot be adopted even where the date of acquisition of the previous owner is known. Whether the cost of acquisition is ascertainable or not should be examined from the standpoint of the assessee or the previous owner, as the case may be and in doing so, due importance should be given to the mode of acquisition by the assessee. An asset may be the one which is capable of being acquired at cost and may have a fair market value, but in the context of the assessee, it may not be possible to conceive any cost for him on account of his mode of acquisition.

The observation, findings and the ratio of the decision in the said Srinivasa Setty’s case when applied to the issue under consideration, the following things emerge:

  •     It is essential to determine the cost of acqui-sition in the hands of previous owner where the asset was acquired in any of the modes specified in section 49(1). If such cost to the previous owner cannot be determined, there will be no liability to Capital Gains tax. It is impossible to determine the cost of acquisition of goodwill having regard to the nature of asset.

  •     S/s. 55(3) cannot be invoked in cases where the date of acquisition by the previous owner remains unknown.

The asset i.e., the immovable property, in the facts of the cases under consideration, is an asset that was originally acquired by the forefathers of the transferor on conquest and/or ascension. The assessee transferor acquired the asset by inheritance. In computing the capital gains of the transferor, it was essential to adopt the cost of the previous owner and also determine the date of acquisition of the previous owner. It is an admitted fact that the immediate previous owner of the asset did not incur any cost of acquisition. In such cases, by virtue of the Explanation to section 49(1), one was required to travel back in time to reach such an owner who had last acquired it by a mode of acquisition other than that, that is referred in clause (i) to (iv) of section 49(1). Following the mandate provided by the said Explanation, it was essential to find out the cost of acquisition of the persons from whom the asset was acquired by the forefathers of the assessee, on conquest. Admittedly this was not possible for scores of reasons and therefore the cost to the assessee could not have been ascertained by resorting to the provisions of section 49(1) for computing the capital gains. Accordingly, while it was possible to ascertain the date of acquisition and the period of holding of the asset, the cost of acquisition of such asset remains to be determined as it is unknown and therefore the capital gains could not be computed and be brought to tax in the facts of the case. Further, no cost could have been envisaged in the cases ‘of conquest and/ or ascension. Similarly, where the property was acquired by conquest in a war, it cannot be said that the cost incurred on the war is the cost of acquisition of the property. Therefore, in all such cases of property of ex-rulers, one cannot envisage a cost of acquisition at all, and it is not merely a case of difficulty of determination or ascertainment of cost of acquisition.

One has to at the same time examine whether the conclusion reached in the above paragraph meets the test provided by section 55(3) of the Act. The Full Bench of the Punjab & Haryana High Court has heavily relied on the provisions of section 55(3) for the purposes of overruling the decision of Madhya Pradesh High Court. The said section 55(3) reads as : “where the cost for which the previous owner acquired the property cannot be ascertained, the cost of acquisition to the previous owner means the fair market value on the date on which the capital asset became the property of the previous owner”. Ordinarily, an assessee is required to ascertain his cost only and not of the previous owner unless where section 49(1) apply. From a reading of section 55(3), it is clear that the provision applies only in cases where an assessee is required to ascertain the cost of the previous owner which requirement arises only in cases where the asset is acquired by any of the modes specified in section 49(1) and not otherwise. Section 55(3) appears to take care of situations where the cost of previous owner can-not be ascertained.

On insertion of the said Explanation to section 49(1) w.e.f. 1-4-1965 by the Finance Act, 1965, an assessee is required to adopt that cost of acquisition which was the cost of the previous owner in time who had last acquired the asset under a mode other than the one specified in section 49(1). It appears that the said Explanation is specifically inserted to take care of the situations where it is difficult to ascertain the cost of the previous owner. It requires an assessee to travel back in time and adopt the cost of that owner, previous in time, who last acquired it by any of the mode not specified in section 49(1). It appears that the provisions of section 55(3) are rendered redundant on introduction of the said Explanation. The attention of the Full Bench of the Court was perhaps not invited to the presence of the said Explanation. Had that been done, the Court might not have relied solely on the provisions of section 55(3) for reaching the conclusion derived by it.

The said Explanation has the effect of defining the term ‘previous owner of the property’ to mean the last previous owner of the capital asset who acquired it by a mode of acquisition other than that referred to in section 49(1). The notes to clauses and the memorandum explaining the provi-sion of the Finance Bill, 1965 reported in 55 ITR 131 explain the objective behind the introduction of the said Explanation to section 49(1). Please also see Circular No. 31, dated 21-9-1962 and Circular No. 3-P, dated 11-10-1965.

The Supreme Court on page 301 specifically held that having regard to the nature of the asset, it was impossible to determine the cost of acquisition even of the previous owner for the purposes of section 49(1). It also held that section 55(3) could not be invoked because the date of acquisition by the previous owner remained unknown. It is relevant to note that the Court in that case was concerned with A.Y. 1966-67 and the said Explanation was inserted w.e.f. 1-4-1965. Even assuming that the provision of section 55(3) continues to be relevant, it may be difficult to substitute the fair market value prevailing on the date of conquest or ascension on account of the fact that the asset is acquired on conquest and due to the manner of acquisition of the asset no cost can be envisaged for acquisition of such an asset.

It is relevant to note that presently section 55(2) provides for adopting the cost of acquisition of certain specified assets, including the goodwill at Nil. It provides for cases of the goodwill, tenancy rights, loom hours, stage carriage permits, trade mark or a brand name associated with the business, no-compete rights, right to manufacture, etc. On a closer reading, it is seen that the assets specified for are the ones which are not acquired on a given day for a cost and whose value has been generated over a period of time on regular efforts made over a period. The cost of such an asset including the cost of the regular efforts cannot be identified and quantified. The said section does not provide for such a fiction in cases of the assets acquired on conquest and/or ascension. In the circumstances, it is fair for the assessee to contend that the capital gains in his case cannot be computed as the cost of an asset so acquired could not be taken to be Nil. Wherever the government has intended no cost assets to be subjected to capital gains tax, such assets have been specifically included in the provisions of section 55(2)(a). The very fact that such property of ex-rulers has not been included in this section over the years in spite of so many courts taking the view that the sale of such property is not subject to capital gains tax, clearly indicates that the intention is not to tax such sale proceeds. It is intriguing to note that the Revenue in the past has not relied on section 55(3) while defending the cases of tenancy rights and goodwill. The better view therefore is that such property of an ex-ruler acquired by way of conquest or grant by his ancestors does not have any cost of acquisition, and the capital gains on sale of such property is not subject to tax.

The Direct Tax Code, proposed to be introduced from Financial Year 2012-13, provides that the cost of acquisition will be taken as Nil in all cases where the asset is acquired for no cost in any of the modes for which the cost of the previous owner is not permitted to be adopted.

Neither section 49 nor section 55(3) shall apply in cases where no cost is paid for an asset by the assessee, and the asset is acquired by him by any of the modes not specified by section 49, inas- much as there is no previous owner. Even if there is one, his cost would be ascertainable and therefore section 55(3) does not apply in his case and that section 49(1) cannot apply as the asset is not acquired by any of the modes specified therein.

Use of Borrowed Funds for Reinvestment

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1. Issue for consideration

A benefit of exemption from tax on capital gains tax, is conferred on certain specified persons, subject to reinvestment of the capital gains or the net sales consideration, as the case may be, in specified assets, particularly vide sections 54, 54B, 54EC, 54ED and 54F of the Income-tax Act.

The reinvestment in the specified assets is required to be made within the time prescribed under the respective sections. The prescribed amount is required to be deposited in a designated bank account maintained under the Capital Gains Scheme. In a case where the reinvestment is not made by the due date of filing return of income for the year of capital gains, to be utilised for ultimate reinvestment in specified asset within the stipulated time.

It is common to come across cases, where an assessee has, for the purposes of reinvestment, utilised the funds other than the funds realised on sale of capital assets, borrowed or otherwise, leading to a question about his eligibility for exemption from tax for not having used the sale proceeds directly for reinvestment in specified asset. Conflicting decisions, delivered on the subject, require consideration by the taxpayers and their advisors to enable them avoid any unintended hardship in matters of daily recurrence.

 2. V. R. Desai’s case

The issues recently came up for consideration before the Kerala High Court in the case of CIT v. V. R. Desai, 197 Taxman 52. An appeal in this case was filed by the Revenue u/s.260A of the Act for challenging the order of the Tribunal under which an exemption u/s.54F was granted from paying tax on long-term capital gains. In the peculiar and interesting facts of the case, the assessee was the managing partner of a firm, namely, M/s. Desai Nirman, which was engaged, among other things, in real estate business, including construction and sale of flats. During the previous year relevant to the A.Y. 1995-96, the assessee transferred 12.876 cents of land to the said partnership firm treating it as his contribution to the capital of the firm. The firm in turn credited the capital account of the assessee with an amount of Rs.38,62,800, being the full value of the land brought into the firm by him as his share of capital contribution. The assessee availed a loan from HDFC Bank for the construction of a house and within three years from the date of transfer of land to the firm, he got a new house constructed by another firm of M/s. Desai Home, in which also he was a partner.

There was no dispute that the transfer of the land by the assessee to the partnership firm towards his capital contribution to the firm was a transfer within the meaning of section 2(47) resulting into long-term capital gains as per section 45(3) of the Act. In the return filed for the A.Y. 1995-96, the assessee had in fact offered tax on capital gains on the very same transaction of contribution of the above land towards his capital contribution as managing partner, subject however, to his claim for exemption from capital gains tax u/s.54F of the Act, for investment made in the construction of the new building, out of the loan from HDFC Bank, within three years from the date of transfer of the land to the firm.

The AO noticed that the assessee had not invested the sale consideration in full or part in any of the designated bank accounts maintained under the Capital Gains Scheme prior to the date of filing return in terms of section 54F(4) of the Act. He therefore, completed the assessment and issued intimation u/s.143(1)(a) of the Act, holding that the assessee was not entitled to exemption u/s.54F of the Act. The intimation u/s.143(1)(a) was challenged by the assessee before the first Appellate Authority, who dismissed the appeal. In the second appeal filed by the assessee, the assessee took the contention that disallowance of exemption u/s.54F could not be made while issuing an intimation u/s.143(1)(a) of the Act. In the alternative, the assessee contended that the facts established the construction of a new house within three years from the date of sale of land, and so much so, the assessee was entitled to exemption in terms of section 54F of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the claims of the assessee on both the grounds raised.

The Revenue filed an appeal before the Kerala High Court, challenging the order of the Tribunal. The Revenue contended that in order to qualify for exemption u/s.54F, the assessee should have purchased a residential house within one year before or two years after the date of transfer or should have constructed a residential house within a period of three years from the date of transfer, in either case, by utilising the sale proceeds of land; that, for qualifying for exemption, the assessee should have, before the date of filing return, deposited the net sale consideration received in a nationalised bank in terms of section 54F(4) and the receipt should have been produced along with the return filed.

The assessee on the other hand, contended that in order to qualify for exemption, there was no need to directly utilise the sale consideration in constructing the house and it was enough if during the period of three years, an equivalent amount was invested in the construction of the house, from whatever sources; that the assessee admittedly had constructed a new house within three years from the date of transfer of the property and therefore was eligible for exemption.

The Court observed that the assessee allowed the firm to which the property was transferred to retain and use it as a business asset and towards consideration he got only credit of land value in his capital account and as a result the sale consideration was not received by the assessee in cash, nor could it be deposited in terms of clause 4 of section 54F with any nationalised bank or institution; that the assessee did not have the sale proceeds available for investment in the account under the scheme u/s.54F(3) of the Act. The Kerala High Court, on going through the provisions of section 54F, particularly sub-section (4), held that in order to qualify for exemption from tax on capital gains, the net sale consideration should have been deposited in any bank account specified by the Government for this purpose, before the last date for filing of the return and the assessee should have produced along with the return, a proof of deposit of the amount under the specified scheme, in a nationalised bank.

The Court further observed and held that in order to qualify for exemption u/s.54F(3), the assessee should have first deposited the sale proceeds of the property in any specified bank account, and the construction of the house, to qualify for exemption u/s.54F, should have been completed by utilising the sale proceeds that also were available with the assessee; that in the case before them, though the assessee constructed a new building within the period of three years from the date of sale, it was with the funds borrowed from HDFC. By allowing credit of value of transferred property in the capital account of the assessee in the firm, the assessee conceded that the sale proceeds was neither received, nor was going to be utilised for construction or purchase of a house.

The Court finally held that the assessee was not entitled to exemption u/s.54F, because the assessee neither deposited the sale proceeds for construction of the building in the bank in terms of s/s. (4) before the date of filing return, nor was the sale proceeds utilised for construction in terms of section 54F(3) of the Act and that the assessee was not entitled to claim exemption from tax on capital gains u/s.54F of the Act, which the AO had rightly declined.

3.    P. S. Pasricha’s case

The Bombay High Court vide an order dated 7th October, 2009 passed in ITA 1825 of 2009 in the case of CIT v. Dr. P. S. Pasricha, dismissed the Revenue’s appeal against the order of the Tribunal reported in 20 SOT 468 (Mum.). The facts in the Revenue’s appeal before the Tribunal were that;

  •     the assessee had acquired a residential flat in the building known as ‘Dilwara’ at Cooperage, Mumbai at cost of Rs.3,22,464. The said flat was sold during the year relevant to A.Y. 2001-02 for a total consideration of Rs.1,40,00,000. After claiming deductions for the expenses incurred for sale and the cost of acquisition of the said flat, the long-term capital gains was worked out by the assessee at Rs.1,24,02,738,
  •    subsequent to the sale of the said flat, the assessee purchased a commercial property at Kolhapur out of the sale proceeds of the said flat for a total consideration of Rs.1,25,28,000 and gave the said property on rent to Hughes Telecom Ltd.,

  •     thereafter, within the period specified u/s.54(1) of the Act, the assessee purchased two adjoining residential flats at Mumbai for a total consideration of Rs.1,04,78,750, on the strength of which the assessee claimed exemption u/s.54(1) of the Act from tax on capital gains on the sale of the said flat,

  •    the assessee claimed an exemption u/s.54(1) of the Act to the extent of Rs.1,04,78,750 and returned the taxable capital gains at Rs.19,23,988,

  •     the AO disallowed the claim of deduction u/s.54 on two grounds; that the sale proceeds from original asset were not deployed fully in the new asset and that the assessee had not purchased one single property, but, two units,

  •     the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) and submitted that he had purchased the residential property within the specified period, as such, he was entitled to the exemption u/s.54(1) of the Act. With regard to two residential flats, it was contended that these flats were adjoining flats and they could be used as a single unit, and

  •     the CIT(A) held that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s.54(1) of the Act, even where the capital gains was invested in more than one flat and with regard to investment of sale proceeds, he further held that since the entire sale proceeds was utilised for purchase of both the flats in question, as such, exemption was to be allowed at Rs.1,04,78,750 as claimed by the assessee.

The Revenue, in the context of the discussion here, contended that the sale proceeds received on account of sale of flat in the building known as ‘Dilwara’ was utilised in purchase of commercial properties at Kolhapur; that the assessee had later on, purchased two residential flats in Lady Ratan Tower, Worli, Mumbai for a sum of Rs.1,04,78,750 out of the funds received from different sources; that to avail the benefit of section 54(1), the assessee was required to invest the sale proceeds received on transfer of long-term capital asset in purchase of another residential house, but, in the instant case, the said sale proceeds from earlier capital asset, were utilised to purchase the commercial property; that a residential house was purchased out of the funds obtained from different sources; that alternatively, the identity of the funds should not be changed and in the instant case, the identity was lost once the sale proceeds were exhausted in purchase of a commercial property; as such, the assessee was not entitled for deduction u/s.54(1) of the Act.

On behalf of the assessee, in the context, it was contended that no doubt the sale proceeds received on sale of residential flat in the building known as ‘Dilwara’ were utilised to purchase a commercial property at Kolhapur, but the assessee had purchased another residential house within the period specified u/s.54(2) of the Act; that the provisions of section 54 nowhere provided that the same sale proceeds, received on transfer of long-term capital asset, must be utilised for the purchase of another residential house; that the assessee was simply required to acquire the residential house within a period of one year before or two years after the date on which the transfer took place and in the instant case, the assessee had purchased the residential flat before the due date of filing of the return and as such, his claim was not hit by ss.(2) of section 54 of the Act and that the proposition propounded by the Revenue about the identity of the funds was without any basis as it could not be applied where the assessee acquired/purchased the residential house before the transfer took place.

The Tribunal observed that the Revenue’s main dispute was about the utilisation of the sale proceeds for purchase of a commercial property and the purchase of residential house out of the funds obtained from different sources, as such, losing the identity of funds. On an analysis of section 54, the Tribunal did not find much force in the Revenue’s contention as, in the opinion of the Tribunal, the requirement of section 54 was that the assessee should acquire a residential house within a period of one year before or two years after the date on which transfer took place and that nowhere, it had been mentioned that the same funds must be utilised for the purchase of another residential house, only that the assessee should purchase a residential house within the specified period, and source of funds was quite irrelevant. Since the assessee had purchased the residential house before the due date of filing of the return of income, his claim was found to be not hit by sub-section (2) of section 54 of the Act and the Tribunal therefore was of the view that assessee was entitled for deduction u/s.54(1) of the Act.

4.    Observations

The wording of the section makes it clear that the law does not insist that the sale consideration obtained by the assessee itself should be utilised for the purchase of house property. The main part of section 54 provides that the assessee has to purchase a house property for the purpose of his own residence within a period of one year before or two years after the date on which the transfer of his property took place or he should have constructed a house property within a period of three years after the date of transfer. A reading of clauses (i) and (ii) of section 54 would also make it clear that no provision is made by the statute that the assessee should utilise the amount which he obtained by way of sale consideration for the purpose of meeting the cost of the new asset.

The assessee has to construct or purchase a house property for his own residence in order to get the benefit of section 54. The statutory provision is clear and does not call for a different interpretation.

There is no ambiguity in understanding the provisions of section 54 and section 54F. The purpose of these provisions is to confer exemption from tax on investment in residential premises. The Legislature itself has appreciated the fact that it would not always be possible to invest the sale proceeds immediately after the sale transaction and therefore, two years’ or three years’ time is given for reinvestment. Neither it is expected, nor is it prudent to keep the sale proceeds intact and keep the said proceeds unutilised till such time.

The fact that these provisions permit the invest-ment in residential premises even before the date of sale, within one year before the sale, and such an investment qualifies for exemption puts it beyond doubt that the Legislature does not intend to have any nexus between the sale proceeds and the investment that is made for exemption. For the purposes of section 54E, even the earnest money or advance is qualified for exemption as clarified by the CBDT’s Circular No. 359, dated 10th May, 1983.

The provisions of sub-sections (2) of section 54 and (4) of section 54F do not, anywhere mandate that there should be a direct nexus between the amount reinvested and the amount of sale consideration or a part thereof, in any manner. A bare reading of these provisions confirm that they use the same language as is used by the sub-section (1) and therefore to infer a different meaning form reading of these provisions, as is done by the Revenue, to obstruct the claim for exemption in cases where the reinvestment was made out of the borrowed funds or funds other than the sales proceeds, is unwarranted and not desirable.

The issue had first arisen before the very same Kerala High Court in the case of CIT v. K. C. Gopalan, 162 CTR 566 wherein, in the context of somewhat similar facts, the Court in principle held that in order to get benefit of section 54, there was no condition that the assessee should utilise the sale consideration itself for the purpose of acquisition of new property. The ratio of this decision was not brought to the attention of the Kerala High Court in V. R. Desai’s case, neither was this case cited. We are of the view that the decision of the Court would have been quite different had this decision and its ratio been brought to the attention of the Court.

In Prema P. Shah v. ITO, 100 ITD 60 (Mum.), the assessee’s claim for benefit of exemption u/s.54 was allowed by the Tribunal, following the said decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of K. C. Gopalan (supra) by rejecting the argument of the Revenue that the same amount should have been utilised for the acquisition of new asset and holding that, even if an assessee borrowed the required funds and satisfied the conditions relating to investment in specified assets, she was entitled to the exemption.

The decision in the case of K. C. Gopalan (supra), though cited, was erroneously distinguished and not followed by the Tribunal in the case of Milan Sharad Ruparel v. ACIT, 121 TTJ 770 (Mum.) wherein it was held that for exemption u/s.54F, utilisation of borrowed funds for purchase of house was detrimental and that the exemption u/s.54F was not available where the assessee purchased a residential house out of funds borrowed from bank. It was held that for the purposes of section 54F, residential property should either be acquired or constructed by the assessee out of his personal funds or the sale proceeds of the capital asset on which the benefit was claimed. Even here, the Tribunal has agreed that the assessee would be entitled to the exemption, which could not be denied to him on the ground of use of borrowed funds, if he is otherwise in possession of his own funds. Once this is conceded, the reference to sub-sections (3) and (4) and reliance thereon for denial of the exemption appears to be incongruous. Either they prohibit the use of other funds or they do not — there cannot be a third meaning assigned to the existence of these provisions.

Similarly, the claim for exemption was denied by the Tribunal in the case of Smt. Pramila A. Parikh in ITA No. 2755/Mum./1997, in which case the assessee had constructed a residential house out of the loans and thereafter the sale proceeds of shares of M/s. Hindustan Shipping & Weaving Mills were utilised for repayment of loans raised for the construction of a residential house. The assessee claimed exemption u/s.54F of the Act. The Tribunal had held that the assessee was not entitled to exemption u/s.54F as she had constructed the house by taking loans from other persons for the purpose of construction of the house and there-after sold the capital asset and repaid the loan out of the sale proceeds of the same.

The Ahmedabad Tribunal, when asked to exam-ine a similar issue in the context of section 54E, in the case of Jayantilal Chimanlal HUF, 32 TTJ 110, held that for claiming exemption u/s.54E, it was sufficient if sale proceeds were invested in Rural Bonds and that the source of funds was immaterial. Similar was the view in the case of Bombay Housing Corporation v. ACIT, 81 ITD 545, wherein it was held that the condition relating to investment in specified assets u/s.54E was satisfied even where the investment was made by the assessee by borrowing funds instead of a direct investment out of consideration received by it for transfer of capital asset. In that case, it was held that the exemption u/s.54E was available for investment in specified assets out of borrowed funds and that the requirement of section 54E was only that the assessee must invest an amount which was arithmetically equal to the net consideration in the specified assets and that no distinction could be made between an assessee who was forced to borrow for the purpose of making the investment and another assessee who effected the borrowing, not because of forced circumstances, but because he consciously or deliberately used the sale consideration for a different purpose. The fact that instead of making a direct investment in the bonds, the borrowed amount was invested in the bonds should not make any difference. These decisions are sought to be distinguished by the Revenue as was done by the Tribunal in the case of Milan Ruparel (supra) on the ground that the said section 54E did not contain a provision similar to section 54F(4) which required an assessee to deposit the sale proceeds in a designated bank account failing the reinvestment before the due date of return of income.

The provisions in any case are meant to be interpreted liberally in favour of the assessee, being incentive provisions, even where it is assumed that there is some doubt in their interpretation. The Courts have always adopted such liberal interpretation of sections 54 and 54F when there is substantial compliance with the provisions of the section.

Even if one looks at the object of sections 54 and 54F, the intention clearly is to encourage investment in residential housing. So long as that purpose is achieved, the benefit of the exemption should not be denied on technical grounds that the same funds should have been utilised.

REINVESTMENT IN OVERSEAS PREMISES

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1. Issue for consideration:

1.1 Section 54 of the Income-tax Act grants an exemption from payment of tax on capital gains, arising on transfer of a residential house on fulfilment of the conditions specified therein. One of the conditions requires an assessee to re-invest the capital gains in purchasing or constructing a residential house within the prescribed period.

1.2 Section 54F of the Act grants a similar exemption from payment of tax on capital gains, arising on transfer of a capital asset other than a residential house on fulfilment of the conditions specified therein. This Section also amongst other conditions requires an assessee to re-invest the net consideration in purchasing or constructing a residential house within the prescribed period.

1.3 Both these provisions restrict the benefit of exemption to individuals and Hindu Undivided Families and grant exemption, irrespective of the residential status of the assessees. These provisions do not confer or deny the exemptions for tax on the basis of the location of the residential house.

1.4 In the advent of the globalisation, it is not uncommon, that the new residential house is acquired by an assesse at a place located outside India. Such overseas acquisitions have, in turn, triggered a controversy in taxation involving the eligibility of an assessee for exemption based on re-investment of capital gains outside India.

2. Leena J. Shah’s case:

2.1 The issue arose in the case of Smt. Leena J. Shah v. ACIT, 6 SOT 721 (Ahd.) where an assessee perhaps for the first time, contested the action of the CIT(A) in confirming the denial of exemption u/s.54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961 inter alia on the ground that the investment was made by the assessee in purchasing the residential house outside India.

2.2 The assessee, a non-resident sold some plots of land located in India for a total consideration of Rs.44,92,170 and earned the capital gains of Rs.43,80,454 after reducing the indexed cost of Rs.1,11,760. She claimed an exemption for investment in residential house and purchased a residential house in the USA, outside India. The AO denied the exemption by observing that the sale proceeds of the plot of land had not been utilised in acquiring the residential house in India and moreover, the residential house purchased/ constructed in the USA is not subject to tax in India within the meaning of section 54 of the Act. The AO therefore, did not allow the claim of deduction of Rs. 43,80,454 and brought the said amount to tax.

2.3 The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO by holding that section 54F was introduced in the Act by the Finance Bill, 1982 and the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 1982 explained that the exemption u/s.54F was granted with a view to encourage the construction of the house which naturally meant that the house was constructed in India and not outside India.

2.4 The assessee submitted before the Tribunal that; section 54F which was similar to section 54 did not make any distinction between a resident and a non-resident unlike several other sections in which the benefit was clearly and unambiguously denied to a non-resident; the benefit of section 54 and section 54F was intended to be available to both the categories of assessees without any discrimination; any interpretation which militated against the basic principle would not be a just and fair interpretation of the statute and would amount to doing injustice to all nonresidents in general and the appellant in particular who had invested the net consideration in a residential house, though outside India.

2.5 It was further explained that; there was no such stipulation u/s.54F that the new residential house must be located in India; wherever the Legislature found requirement of such stipulation, the same was provided in that section; the language of section was clear, the same was to be read accordingly. The decisions in the case of Padmasundra Rao v. State of Tamil Nadu, Kishore B. Setalvad v. CWT, and Orissa State Warehouseing Corpn. v. CIT were relied upon.

2.6 The honourable Tribunal concurred with the view that the legislative intent behind introduction of section 54F was to be gathered form the Notes, Memorandum and the Circular which in the Tribunal’s view provided that the investment was to be in the residential house located in India. The Tribunal cited several decisions in support of the view that the external aids like Notes, etc. were available for interpretation of the law and the meaning of the provision of section 54F could be gathered from such aids. In the light of the above settled rulings of interpretation of tax statutes, the Tribunal found appropriate that a residential house purchased/constructed must be in India and not outside India, in the USA. It noted that the interpretation put forth by it was strongly supported by the marginal note to section 54F.

3. Prema P. Shah’s case:

3.1 The issue again arose in the case of Prema P. Shah v. ITO, 100 ITD 60 (Mum.) where the question before the Tribunal was whether the exemption contemplated u/s.54(1) could be extended to the capital gains that was reinvested in a residential house purchased in a foreign country on selling the property that was situated in India.

3.2 In that case the brief facts available are that the assessee sold a jointly held residential property located in India for Rs.60 lakh on 4-4-1992 which was purchased for Rs.14 lakh on 29-3-1983. The capital gains was reinvested in purchasing residential house outside India, in London, the UK. The assessee claimed exemption u/s.54, showing long-term capital gains as Nil. The AO denied the exemption claimed on a few grounds including for the fact that the property was located outside India and in his opinion the same was required to be located in India for a valid claim of exemption from taxation.

3.3 The CIT(A) upheld the action of the AO and did not approve the view canvassed by the assessee. While disallowing the assessee’s claim, the CIT(A) observed:

(a) the assessee had taken loan from Barclays Bank and used the assessee’s foreign earning to purchase/lease the property. In other words, the receipts which gave rise to capital gains, were not utilised for the purchase of the property,

(b) the assessee had not purchased the property in India and the Income-tax Act extended to the ‘whole of India’ only,

(c) The lease for 150 years, though perpetual, the benefit of long-term lease obtained in the UK could not be treated as purchase under the Indian laws for the purpose of income taxation.

3.4 The assessee before the Tribunal contended that there was nothing in the statute to show that the property purchased should exist in India so as to claim the benefit contemplated under the Act; that the only stipulation for a valid claim of exemption was that the income should have arisen in India and it was not necessary that it should also be invested in India. For the above proposition, the assessee drew the attention to section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and it was further submitted that if the Legislature had such an intention, it would have been definitely and specifically mentioned, as it had been mentioned in section 11 which provided that any income from property held for charitable or religious purposes was exempt from tax u/s.11(1)(a) only to the extent it applied it to such purposes in India; if the Legislature wanted investment of the capital gains in India itself for exemption, the Legislature would have specifically stated so in the section itself.

3.5 The Tribunal on consideration of the submissions made by the parties was of the considered view that the assessee was entitled to the benefit of exemption form taxation under the Act which did not exclude the right of the assessee to claim the property purchased in a foreign country. The Tribunal held that if all other conditions laid down in the section were satisfied, merely because the property acquired was located in a foreign country, the exemption claimed would not be denied.

4.    Girish M. Shah’s case:

4.1 The issue recently arose in the case of ITO v. Dr. Girish M. Shah, ITA No. 3582/M/ 2009 before ‘G’ Bench of ITAT, Mumbai. In that case, the assessee, non-resident Indian settled in Canada since 1994, sold his flat in Mumbai in 2003, for Rs.16 lakh, that was purchased in April, 1984, for Rs.1,31,401. The assessee claimed the benefit of indexation and reported a net capital gain of Rs.797,801. The entire sale consideration was repatriated to Montreal for a joint purchase of a house for Rs.64.75 lakh. The benefit of section 54 was claimed on the ground that sale proceeds were utilised for purchasing property.

4.2 The AO held that the provisions of the Act were applicable to India only. When a non-resident could not be taxed in India in respect of income received outside India, deduction could in the AO’s view could not be granted in respect of an activity outside India. He also noted that there was no undertaking that capital gains would be paid should the new property be disposed of. The AO, placing reliance on the decision of the Ahmedabad Tribunal in the case of Leena J. Shah v. ACIT in ITA No. 2467 (Ahm.) (supra), denied the benefit of section 54 to the assessee and recomputed the long-term capital gains at Rs.13,51,803.

4.3 On appeal the CIT(A) found that the entire sale proceeds had been utilised in the purchase of the new asset and hence capital gains was not chargeable u/s.54 of the Act. He also held that section 54F did not specify that the new as-set should be situated in India. As there was no specific restriction on location of new asset, the benefit of section 54F could not be denied to the assessee who had satisfied all other conditions, observed the CIT(A). The CIT(A) relied on the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of Mrs. Prema P. Shah v. ITO (supra) for allowing the exemption that was claimed by the assessee.

4.4 The Tribunal vide order dated 17-2-2010 relying on the decision in the cases of Mrs. Prema P. Shah and Sanjiv P. Shah v. ITO (supra) upheld the action of the CIT(A) by holding as follows: “In short, we are of the considered view, for the reasons stated hereinabove, that the assessee is entitled to the benefit u/s.54 of the Act. It does not exclude the right of the assessee to claim the property purchased in a foreign country, if all other conditions laid down in the section are satisfied, merely because the property acquired is in a foreign country”. The Tribunal noted that the jurisdictional High Court had dismissed the Revenue’s appeal against the above order of the Tribunal in the case of Prema P. Shah and Sanjeev P. Shah on account of the tax effect being less than Rs.4 lakh.

4.5 The Tribunal noted that in Leena J. Shah’s case, the issue was for the claim u/s.54F, while in the case before them, it was section 54. It noted that the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal had a greater binding effect.

4.6 Lastly, the Tribunal observed that it was the settled law that if there were two views, the Court had to adopt the interpretation that favoured the assessee.

5.    Observations:

5.1 A bare reading of the provisions of sections 54 and 54F make it abundantly clear that there are no express conditions that require that the capital gains or the net consideration is reinvested in a residential house located in India. There are several provisions of the Income-tax Act which specifically require an investment to be made in India or for an act to be carried out in India. In the circumstances, for denying the claim of exemption, one will have to read the location-based condition in to these provisions, so as to insist on the new house being in India.

5.2 Section 54F was introduced by the Finance Act, 1982 for the purpose of conferring exemption from tax on capital gains in certain cases on investment of the consideration in residential premises. The said provision nowhere mandates that the exemption is conditional and is subjected to investment in residential premises located in India. The language of the law is very clear and does not leave any scope for ambiguity or misunderstanding.

5.3 It is the settled position in law that nothing is to be read in the provisions of the Act or added thereto where the language of the law is clear. In case of section 54 and section 54F the language in the context of location of the premises is clear and unambiguous leaving no scope for application of any external aids of interpretation like, FM’s speech or Notes to clauses or Memorandum explaining the provisions and the Circular explaining the same. It is significant to note that even the Circular, heavily relied upon by the learned AO, at no point or place requires that the construction of residential premises should be in India before an exemption u/s.54F is granted.

5.4 The main plank for denying the exemption is based on the Notes to Clauses, 134 ITR 106 (St.) Memorandum to the Finance Act, 1982, 134 ITR 128 (St) and the Circular of the CBDT bearing Circular No. 346, dated 30-6-1982 issued on introduction of section 54F by the Finance Act, 1982 The relevant paragraph of the Circular is reproduced as under:

“20.1 Under the existing provisions of the IT Act, any profits and gains arising from the transfer of a long-term capital asset are charged to tax on a concessional basis. For this purpose, a capital asset which is held by an assessee for a period of more than 36 months is treated as a ‘long-term’ capital asset.

20.2 With a view to encouraging house construction, the Finance Act, 1982, has inserted a new section 54F to provide that where any capital gain arises from the transfer of any long-term capital asset, other than a residential house, and the assessee purchases within one year before or after the date on which the transfer took place or constructs within a period of three years after the date of transfer, a residential house, the capital gains arising from the transfer will be treated in a concessional manner as under ……”

5.5 The Finance Minister’s speech on introduction of the Finance Act of 1982, 134 ITR (St.) 23, does not prescribe any such condition for exemption based on the location of the new asset-neither the speech suggest that the provision is introduced for promotion of the construction of houses, leave alone in India. The Circular No. 346 appears to have supplied the legislative intent without being authorised to do so.

5.6 Such an ‘Indian’ insistence by the authorities appears to be misplaced, more so when the language of these provisions is clear and leave no room for ambiguity. Even the Circular relied upon by the authorities does not mandate that the construction of houses sought to be promoted is India-specific. Significantly, even the analogy based on the said Circular is not available for rejecting the claim for exemption u/s.54 which provision surely is not handicapped by any Circular explain-ing the alleged intention behind its introduction.

5.7 The law undoubtedly overrides the Circular where the language of the law is clear. The unambiguous language of the law i.e., sections 54 and 54F does not restrict its scope based on the location of the asset. It is a sheer fallacy to read the condition of investment in India in the provisions and assume that exemption u/s.54F from capital gains is intended to give a boost to the construction of residential houses in the country and this objective will not be achieved if the property is acquired or constructed in a foreign country. It is clear that the Circular has presumed that section 54F is introduced for construction of house. Assuming that such presumption of the board is right, it nowhere requires that the house construction should be in India.

5.8 Section 54F is introduced mainly for facilitating purchase of house by the people on sale of other assets. Therefore the exemption at best can be said to be introduced to enable the purchase of house by an individual or HUF without payment of tax. Had it been for the promotion of construction industry, the exemption would have been conferred on all assessees and would not have been restricted to individual and HUF.

5.9 The decision in the case of Leena J. Shah, has been delivered without detailed reasons, in one paragraph, after citing several decisions of the courts to suggest that in interpretation of the law, it is permissible to rely on the external aids of interpretation including the Notes, Memorandum and the Circular. While there cannot be two opinions on this wisdom, what is perhaps overlooked, with full respect, is the established position in law which requires and permits the use of external aids only in cases where the language of the law is unclear and ambiguous and as noted the language here is clear. It is for this reason that the subsequent decisions of the Tribunal have chosen to not follow the ratio of the said decision in Leena J. Shah’s case and have proceeded to allow the exemption in cases of overseas investment. Moreover, the later decisions of the Mumbai Tribunal, being the latest shall prevail over Leena J. Shah’ decision, more so because the said decisions have not only considered the ratio of Leena J. Shah’s decision but have also analysed the law in detail in concluding that the benefit of exemption is available for overseas investment.

5.10 A resident assessee is entitled to and is not denied exemption u/s.54F on purchase of residential premises anywhere in the world. If that is so, in the absence of any specific or implied prohibition, such an investment any-where in the world by a non-resident cannot be denied.

5.11 Once the Income-tax Act, 1961 assumes the power to tax the Income of a non-resident, then the logical consequence of such a power is to confer upon such a person all the benefits that flow from the provisions of the Act unless specifically prohibited.

5.12 The Income-tax Act, wherever required has specifically stipulated in writing that the investment should be made in India, like in sections 10(20A) and 10(20B) 10(22) and 10(24), 10(26) and section 11(1)(a) which reads as under:

“11. (1) Subject to the provisions of sections 60 to 63, the following income shall not be included in the total income of the previous year of the person in receipt of the income —

(a)    income derived from property held under trust wholly for charitable or religious purposes, to the extent to which such income is applied to such purposes in India; and, where any such income is accumulated or set apart for application to such purposes in India, to the extent to which the income so accumulated or set apart is not in excess of 15% of the income from such property; ……”

5.13 Likewise even Chapter XIIA, vide section 115C(f), clearly provides that the investment should be in specified asset of Indian company or Central Government for a person to claim exemption u/s. 54F. Similarly, section 54E to 54ED requires investment in Indian assets for claiming exemption.

5.14 In American Hotel and Lodging Association Educational Institute, 301 ITR 86 (SC), the Court confirmed that the words ‘in India’ could not be read into section 10(23C)(vi). Again, the Supreme Court in the case of Oxford University Press, 247 ITR 658 (SC), wherein the Court was required to examine whether for claiming exemption, it was necessary to carry out any activity in India, in the context, held that it was impermissible to read in the Act, the words ‘in India’ into section 10(22) of the Income-tax Act.

5.15 Article 26 of the Model Convention provide for non-discrimination. According to the said Article, persons who are non-residents of India, residing in the other contracting state, shall not be subjected to taxation provisions that are different or more burdensome than the provisions applicable to residents of India. It is clear that a non-resident Indian being resident of other state should not be discriminated while being taxed in India and should be conferred with the same benefits including of sections 54 and 54F as are available to a resident while being taxed in India under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

5.16 In cases where two views are possible, the benefit of doubt should be given to the assessee. sections 54 and 54F, being a beneficial provision, the Court has to adopt the interpretation that favours the assessee importantly where these provisions are incentive provisions.

Eligibility of Contractual workers for inclusion in Number of Workers

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Issue for consideration

Section 80I(2)(iv) (effective up to 31-3-1991) of the One finds that similar language and expression has been used under the Act of 1922 and has been continued to be used by the Legislature even under the provisions of the 1961 Act while stipulating one of the conditions for the ‘tax holiday’. For ready reference, the language and expressions as used in different provisions over the period are tabulated below:

Comparison of incentive provisions where employment of workers is mandated.


Section

Language
and Expression used

 

 

15C(2)(iii) of the

Employs ten or more workers in manufacturing process carried on with
the aid

1922 Act

of power, or employs twenty or more workers in a manufacturing
process carried on

 

without the aid of power.

 

 

84(2)(iv)
of the

It
employs ten or more workers in a manufacturing process carried on with the

1961 Act

aid of power, or employs twenty or more workers in a manufacturing
process carried

 

on without the aid of power.

 

 

80J(4)(iv)
of the

In
a case where the industrial undertaking manufactures or produces articles,
the

1961 Act

undertaking employs ten or more workers in a manufacturing process
carried on with

 

the of power, or employs twenty or more workers in manufacturing
process carried

 

on without the aid of power.

 

 

80HH(2)(iv)
of the

It
employs ten or more workers in a manufacturing process carried on with the

1961 Act

aid of power, or employs twenty or more workers in a manufacturing
process carried

 

on without the aid of power.

 

 

80I(2)(iv)/

In
a case where the industrial undertaking manufactures or produces articles,
the

80IB(2)(iv) of the

undertaking employs ten or more workers in a manufacturing process
carried on

1961 Act

with the of power, or employs twenty or more workers in manufacturing
process

 

carried on without the aid of power.

 

 

10BA(2)(e) of the

It employs twenty or more workers during the previous year in the
process of

1961 Act

manufacture or production.

 

 

Income-tax Act, 1961, analogous to present section 80IB(2)(iv) of the Act, requires employment of certain number of workers by the new industrial undertaking as one of the conditions for the undertaking to qualify for the ‘tax holiday’. The industrial undertaking should employ ten or more workers in a manufacturing process where the manufacture or production of articles or things takes place with the aid of power or employ twenty or more workers in a manufacturing process if manufacture or production is undertaken without the aid of power.

It appears that one of the aims and objects of the Legislature under the scheme of ‘tax holidays’ over the period is to generate employment in the country.

The language and expression as used in the aforesaid sections have been subject of the judicial interpretation by Courts on different counts viz., the determination of period for which the aforesaid condition needs to be satisfied in a financial year, interpretation of the expression ‘employs’, meaning of the word ‘workers’, etc.

The controversy, sought to be discussed here, revolves around the issue whether the contractual workers or the workers supplied by a contractor for manufacture or production of articles or things could be treated as ‘workers’ employed by the assessee undertaking for the purpose of deduction u/s.80IB/u/s.80I of the Act.

The Bombay High Court recently had an occasion to deal with the aforesaid issue under consideration, wherein the High Court held that it was immaterial as to whether the workers were directly employed or employed by hiring them from a contractor. What was relevant was the employment of ten or more workers and not the mode and the manner in which the said workers were employed. In deciding the issue, the Bombay High Court dissented with the findings that were given on the subject by the Allahabad High Court.

Jyoti Plastic’s case The issue came up recently before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. M/s. Jyoti Plastic Works Private Limited, [339ITR 491 (Bom)]

Jyoti Plastic Works Private Limited (‘Jyoti Plastic’) was engaged in the manufacture of plastic parts which were excisable and had claimed deduction u/s.80IB of the Act. In the reassessment proceedings, the AO disallowed the deduction u/s.80IB of the Act for the following two reasons:

(1) Jyoti Plastic was not a manufacturer, as the goods were manufactured at the factory premises of the job worker; and

(2) The total number of permanent employees employed in the factory were less than ten and thereby the condition as required u/s.80IB (2)(iv) was not satisfied.

The first Appellate Authority and the Mumbai Tribunal allowed the claim of Jyoti Plastic and the Revenue, being aggrieved, carried the issue to the Bombay High Court. As regard the first issue, the Court held in favour of Jyoti Plastic. With respect to the second issue, the Court, in the absence of the meaning of the word ‘worker’ under the Act, referred to the following external aids of construction to determine the meaning of the word ‘worker’:

(1) Black Law Dictionary — ‘worker’ means a person employed to do work for another;

(2)    Section 2(L) of the Factories Act, 1948 — ‘worker’ is a person employed directly or by or through any agency (including a contractor) with or without the knowledge of the principal employer, whether for remuneration or not, in any manufacturing process, or in any other kind or work incidental to or connected with the manufacturing process.

The Court further relied on its earlier judgment in the case of CIT v. Sawyer’s Asia Limited (122 ITR 259) (Bom.), wherein the Court while considering the provisions of section 84(2)(iv) of the Act had observed that the word ‘workers’ should also include ‘casual workers’.

The Revenue relied on the following decisions of the Allahabad High Court to submit otherwise :

(1)    R and P Exports v. CIT, (279 ITR 536); and

(2)    Venus Auto Private Limited v. CIT, 321 ITR 504.

The Bombay High Court distinguished the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the R and P Exports’ case on the ground that the Tribunal in the case before the Bombay High Court had recorded a specific finding of fact that the agreement between Jyoti Plastic and the contractor was a ‘contract of service’ and not ‘contract for service’, whereby the contractual workers were under direct control and supervision of Jyoti Plastic as against the facts which were to the contrary in the case of R and P Exports (supra).

With regard to the decision of Venus Auto Private Limited (supra), the Court acknowledged that the facts in the said case were similar to the facts of the case before the Court; it dissented with the ratio of the decision in the said case and chose to rely on its own decision in the case of Sawyer’s Asia Limited (supra).

The Court finally concluded that since the agreement with the contractor was a ‘contract of service’ i.e., of employer-employee relationship and just because it differed with terms of contract of service with regular employees, that could not be a ground to deny the deduction u/s.80IB of the Act. In other words, so long as the agreement between the parties was a ‘contract of service’ and not ‘contract for service’, it would satisfy the condition prescribed u/s.80IB(2)(iv) of the Act.

Venus Auto’s case

The issue had come up earlier before the Allahabad High Court in the case of Venus Auto Private Limited v. CIT, (321 ITR 504).

Venus Auto Private Limited (‘Venus Auto’) was engaged in the manu-facturing activity of the scooter seat and claimed deduction u/s.80HH and u/s.80I of the Act. In the assessment and appellate proceedings up to the Tribunal stage, Venus Auto’s claim for deduction was rejected on the ground that the condition u/s.80I(2) (iv) of workers employed was not satisfied as the workers employed through the contractor were not to be treated as the workers employed in the industrial undertaking.

On appeal by Venus Auto before the High Court, the Allahabad High Court observed that the word ‘employment’ meant employment of workers by Venus Auto. There should be a relationship of employer and employee between the workers and Venus Auto. The Court observed that with regard to the contractual employees, there was no such employer-employee relationship between Venus Auto and the contractual employees; such relationship existed between the contractor and the contractual employees. The Court on facts and in law distinguished the reliance of Venus Auto on the following decisions:

(1)    Aditya V. Birla v. CBDT, (170 ITR 137) (SC);
(2)    CIT v. K. G. Yediyurappa, (152 ITR 152) (Kar.);
and
(3)    CIT v. V. B. Narania & Co., (252 ITR 884) (Guj.)

Further, the Court observed that vide word ‘it employs’, the Legislature sought to limit the relationship between employer and employee only i.e., between Venus Auto and the workers and therefore, it would not include the workers employed by the contractor.

Observations

‘Tax holidays’ have been provided from time to time vide various sections, viz., section 15C of the Act of 1922 section 84, section 80J, section 80HH, section 80I, section 80IA and section 80IB of the Act of 1961. The intention of the Legislature has been all along to encourage the setting up of new industrial undertakings with a view to expanding industries, employment opportunities and production of goods. The Courts have acknowledged the intention of the Legislature in introducing the said deduction/exemption/relief provisions of the Act and have held that such provisions should be interpreted liberally and reasonably and they should be so construed as to effectuate the object of the Legislature and not to defeat it.

The purpose of ‘tax holiday’ provisions has been apparently to provide tax incentives to stimulate the industry and manufacture of articles, resulting in more employment and economic gain for the country. The element of ‘number of workers to be employed’ being consistently present in all the ‘tax holiday’ provisions justifies the intention of the Legislature to promote and create employment opportunities in the country, thereby reducing unemployment.

In the case of CIT v. P. R. Alagappan, (173 ITR 522) (Mad.), the Court for the purpose of section 80J (4) of the Act explained that a ‘worker’ was a person who worked relying on the definition of ‘worker’ in the Factories Act.

The Court approved of the reference to the definition of ‘worker’ under the Factories Act and also observed that the expression ‘employs’ contemplated ‘contract of service’.

The Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. K. G. Yediruppa & Co., (152 ITR 152) in context of section 80HH(2)(iv) of the Act has held that in absence of definition of the word ‘worker’, the ordinary meaning of the word ‘worker’ meant casual, permanent or temporary workers.

Similarly, in the case of CIT v. Sawyer’s Asia Ltd. (supra), the Bombay High Court for the purpose of deduction u/s.84(2)(iv), observed as under:

“………The undertaking is not required to have ten or more regular workers and it may be said to have satisfied that requirement if the aggregate actual number of workers engaged in the manufacturing process, both regular and normal, is ten in number……….If it chooses to have less than 10 regular workers on its muster roll, it runs the risk of not satisfying the requirement on such days on which the necessary number of casual workers is not available.”

The Court also considered even persons employed on casual basis as eligible to be ‘workers’ for the purpose of satisfaction of condition u/s.84(2)(iv) of the Act.

Similarly, in the case of CIT v. V. B. Narania & Co., (252 ITR 884), the Gujarat High Court, in context of provisions of section 80HH(2)(iv) and section 80J(2) (iv), held by relying on the decision of Apex Court in the case of Harish Chandra Bajpai v. Triloki Singh, (AIR 1957 SC 444), that a contract of employment may be in respect of either piece work or time work. It held that the real test of deciding whether the contract was one of employment or not was to find whether the agreement was for the personal labour of the person engaged, and if that was so, the contract was one of employment and the rest of the facts were immaterial like, whether the work was time work or piece work, or whether the employee did the whole of the work himself, or whether he obtained the assistance of other persons also for the work.

In interpretation of the analogous provisions to sec-tion 80IB(2)(iv)/section 80I(2)(iv) the Courts have interpreted the word ‘worker’ to also include ‘casual and temporary workers’ and the expression ‘employ’ has been interpreted to mean a contract of service, where the requirement of personal labour of the person employed is of importance as against whether the employee is in normal employment of the undertaking or otherwise. The stress is upon the substance of the arrangement rather than its legal form.

Looking from the perspective of intention of the Legislature in creating employment and supported by the above-referred decisions, the better view appears to be that the casual and contractual workers employed directly or through the contractor are to be treated as the ‘workers’ for the purposes of the ‘tax holiday’. The decision in the case of Venus Auto (supra) may require reconsideration.

Commencement of Activity – whether pre-requisite for registration u/s.12AA

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Issue for Consideration

Section 12A r.w.s. 12AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides the procedure for grant of registration of a trust or institution (“trust”). According to this procedure, the trust has to make an application for registration in Form No. 10A prescribed under Rule 17A of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 within one year from the date of creation of the trust or the establishment of the institution. Upon receipt of the application, the Commissioner (SIT) shall call for documents and information and conduct inquiries to satisfy himself about the genuineness of the trust or institution.

After he is satisfied about the charitable or religious nature of the objects and genuineness of the activities of the trust, he will pass an order granting registration. If he is not satisfied, he will pass an order refusing registration. The order granting or refusing registration has to be passed within six months from the end of the month in which the application for registration is received by the Commissioner.

Section 12AA, inserted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1996 with effect from assessment year 1997-98, reads as under:

“12AA Procedure for registration.

(1) The Commissioner, on receipt of an application for registration of a trust or institution made under clause (a) or clause (aa) of ss. (1) of section 12A, shall—

(a) call for such documents or information from the trust or institution as he thinks necessary in order to satisfy himself about institution and may also make such inquiries as he may deem necessary in this behalf; and

(b) after satisfying himself about the objects of the trust or institution and the genuineness of its activities, he—

(i) shall pass an order in writing registering the trust or institution;

(ii) shall, if he is not so satisfied, pass an order in writing refusing to register the trust or institution, and a copy of such order shall be sent to the applicant :

Provided
that no order under sub-clause (ii) shall be passed unless the applicant has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard……

(2) Every order granting or refusing registration under clause (b) of subsection (1) shall be passed before the expiry of six months from the end of the month in which the application was received under clause (a) or clause (aa) of sub-section (1) of section 12A.

(3) Where a trust or an institution has been granted registration under clause (b) of sub-section (1) or has obtained registration at any time under section 12A as it stood before its amendment by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1996 (33 of 1996) and subsequently the Commissioner is satisfied that the activities of such trust or institution are not genuine or are not being carried out in accordance with the objects of the trust or institution, as the case may be, he shall pass an order in writing cancelling the registration of such trust or institution:

Provided
that no order under this sub-section shall be passed unless such trust or institution has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.”

Section 12AA therefore, details the provisions for registration of a trust for which an application has been filed u/s 12A. A reading of sub-clauses (a) and (b) of Section 12AA(1) makes it clear that the CIT has to satisfy himself about the genuineness of the activities of the trust and also about the objects of the trust.

As regards the objects of the trust, these can be determined from a perusal of the Memorandum or the deed of the trust, which is filed along with the registration application. If the objects of the trust are not for any charitable or religious purpose, registration may be refused by the CIT.

On the other hand, in order to determine the genuineness of the activities of the trust or the institution, the CIT has powers to make inquiries, call for documents or information. In cases where application is made after the activity is commenced, the CIT would exercise such powers of inquiry.

Given the time limit prescribed for making application for registration of a trust, in many cases, the application is made before the commencement of any activity by the applicant-trust. A controversy has arisen as to whether the CIT can reject the registration application of a trust, which has not commenced any activity, on the ground of non-determination of genuineness of activities of the trust. While the Delhi, Karnataka and Allahabad High Courts have taken a view that registration u/s. 12AA of the Act cannot be rejected by the CIT on the ground that it had not yet commenced any activity, the Kerala High Court has held that until the activity is commenced by the applicant trust/institution, registration should not be granted by the CIT.

Grant of Registration to a trust u/s. 12AA of the Act is important, since it is one of the conditions for grant of exemption u/s. 11 and 12 for the income of a trust.

Self Employers Service Society’s Case

The issue first came up before the Kerala High Court in the case of Self Employers Service Society v CIT 247 ITR 18.

The society was registered as a charitable society under the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955. The members of the society were mainly merchants. Though it had a large number of charitable objects, it had not commenced any of them during the first year of its functioning. It was accepting recurring deposits from its members and fixed deposits from the public. Loans were being given to its members at 21 % interest. The Commissioner found that in spite of the reference to a large number of charitable objects in its bye-laws, the activity carried on by the society was confined to its members, numbering about 150. Since such activities could not be regarded as charitable in nature, the Commissioner refused registration u/s.12AA.

The High Court noted that though several charitable activities were included in the objects of the society, it had not been able to do any of such charitable activities during the first year of its functioning. The proposal to start a technical educational institution itself was taken after the order of the CIT, rejecting the registration. The Court observed, that in the present case, the charitable society had not done any charitable work during the relevant period, but the activity which was undertaken during the said period was only for the generation of income for its members. It also noted that there were no materials before the Commissioner to be satisfied of the genuineness of the activities of the trust or institution. The Court therefore held that the rejection of the application could not be termed as illegal or arbitrary.

Foundation of Opthalmic and Optometry Research Education Centre’s Case

The issue under consideration again recently arose before the Delhi High Court in the case of DIT vs. Foundation of Ophthalmic and Optometry Research Education Centre 210 Taxman 36.

In this case, the assessee, a society registered under the Society Registration Act on 30th May 2008 with charitable objects of Optometry and Ophthalmic Education applied for registration before the Director of Income-tax (Exemption) [‘DIT(E)’] and filed other documents as sought by DIT(E)’s office from time to time. The DIT(E) refused to grant registration to the assessee by relying on the decision of Kerala High Court in the case of Self Employers Service Society vs CIT (supra), on the ground that no charitable activity was undertaken by the newly established assessee society.

On appeal by the assessee, the Tribunal, following the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Fifth Generation Education Society (185 ITR 634), held that non-commencement of charitable activity cannot be a ground for rejection of application of registration filed by the assessee u/s. 12AA of the Act and thereby upheld the contention of the assessee.

Aggrieved with the judgement of the Tribunal, the Revenue filed an appeal before the High Court reiterating its arguments as placed before the Tribunal. The assessee-applicant on the other hand, relied on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of DIT(E) v. Meenakshi Amma Endowment Trust (2011) (50 DTR 243) , wherein the High Court while considering similar facts of the assessee applicant held that when no activities are undertaken by the newly established trust/institution, then in such a scenario, the objects of the trust have to been taken into consideration by the CIT for determination of question of registration.

The High Court, after hearing the arguments of both the parties, upheld the contention of the assessee. The Court distinguished the judgements of Self Employers Service Society (supra) and Aman Shiv Mandir Trust (Regd.) v. CIT (296 ITR 415)(P&H) relied on by the Revenue on the ground that reasons for refusal of registration in the aforesaid decisions were not that the Trusts were newly registered, but that the activities of the Trusts under consideration were not charitable.

The High Court, after referring to the provisions of section 12AA, further held that the provision did not prohibit or enjoin the CIT from registering a trust solely based on its objects, without any activity, in the case of a newly registered trust. It also observed that the statute did not prescribe a waiting period for a trust to qualify itself for registration. Based on the said observations and following the decision of the Karnataka High Court of Meenakshi Amma Endowment Trust (supra), the appeal of the Revenue was rejected.

The Karnataka High Court in the case of Meenakshi Amma Endowment Trust (supra ) had earlier interpreted the provisions of section 12A r.w.s. 12AA of the Act and opined in context of registration of a newly established trust without undertaking any activity, as under:

“….When the trust itself was formed in January 2008 with the money available with the trust, one cannot expect them to do activity of charity immediately…. In such a situation, the objects of the trust could be read from the trust deed itself. In the subsequent returns by the trust, if the Revenue comes across that factually trust has not conducted any charitable activities, it is always open to the authorities concerned to withdraw the registration already granted or cancel the said registration u/s. 12AA of the Act.

A trust can be formed today and within a week registration u/s. 12A could be sought as there is no prohibition under the Act seeking such registration…..… the objects of the trust for which it was formed will have to be examined to be satisfied about its genuineness and activities of the trust cannot be the criterion, since it is yet to commence its activities.”

In other words, the High Court held that where a trust has not commenced its activities, then the CIT is required to examine the objects of the trust in order to ascertain the genuineness of its activities.

The Allahabad High Court in the case of Fifth Generation Education Society (supra) also had opined on the issue. The Court, while considering the provisions of registration of trust/institution u/s. 12A of the Act relating to assessment years prior to Finance (No. 2)    Act, 1996, held that at the time of considering the application for grant of registration u/s. 12A, the CIT was not required to examine the application of income or carrying on of any activity by the trust. The Court further held that the CIT may at this stage examine whether the application was made in accordance with the requirements of section 12A r.w. Rule 17A, Form 10A was properly filled, along with determination of whether the objects of the trust were charitable or not.

Observations

On perusal of the decisions as discussed above, one may find that the Delhi, Karnataka and Allahabad High Courts have rightly interpreted the procedural provisions of section 12AA of the Act and rejected the contention of the Revenue to read in the condition of actual conduct of charitable activities for grant of registration of trusts, who have not commenced their charitable activities. Instead, in such situations, where trusts are yet to commence their activities, the Courts have sought to ascertain the genuineness of the activities of the trust by relying on their objects.

The Courts have also acknowledged that, injecting such subjectivity of satisfaction of conduct of charitable activities may be susceptible to varied interpretations by the relevant authorities, wherein some may be satisfied with activities of a month or few months, while others may wish to examine the activities of the applicant for a longer time.

The plain and simple procedures laid down in section 12AA do not empower the CIT to reject the grant of registration to trust, until the actual charitable activities are undertaken by the trust. On the contrary, in case of any abuse of procedures of section 12AA by any non-genuine trust, the Act provides for a safeguard by empowering the CIT u/s. 12AA(3) of the Act to cancel the registration of such trusts.

Further, the decision of the Kerala High Court was rightly distinguished by the Delhi High Court, wherein the refusal of registration of trust was not on account of non-commencement of activities of the newly constituted trust, but was for undertaking non-charitable activities. So, the view taken by the Kerala High Court that there had to be some material before the CIT showing the genuineness of activities actually carried on by the trust does not seem to be justified, and the view taken by the other high courts, that carrying on of activity is not a prerequisite for grant of registration u/s.12AA, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Section 40(b) and Interest to partners

The present section 40(b) of the Income-tax Act has
been introduced by the Finance Act, 1992 w.e.f. 1-4-1993 to coincide
with the introduction of the new scheme of taxation of the firm and the
partners. The section provides for the conditions, on compliance of
which the remuneration and the interest to partners, by the firm, shall
not be disallowed in the hands of the firm. In other words the claim of
the firm, for deduction of remuneration and interest to partners, shall
be allowed where it satisfies the conditions stipulated in section
40(b).

For allowance of an interest to the partner, it is
essential that the payment is authorised by and is in accordance with
the terms of the partnership deed and relates to a period falling after
the date of partnership deed and the amount does not exceed the amount
calculated at the rate of 12% simple interest per annum.

It is
usual that the interest is paid to a partner on the capital introduced
by him as increased by the deposits made by him and the share of profits
credited to his account and as reduced by the amounts withdrawn by him
and the share of losses debited to his account. At times, the account is
credited with the share of notional profits arising on revaluation or
is debited with the transfer to reserves created to meet certain
contingencies.

Section 40(b) is silent about the ‘base amount’,
with reference to which the interest of 12% is to be calculated. It also
does not specify the manner in which such base amount is to be
calculated. In the circumstances, issues regularly arise about the
determination of the base amount, with reference to which the interest
payable to a partner is to be ascertained so as to face no disallowance.
Unlike section 115JB, it does not provide for the manner of preparation
of the profit & loss account, nor does it lay down any guidelines
for ascertaining the book profit of the firm, the share of which is to
be credited to the partner’s account.

A controversy has arisen
about the need and necessity to provide depreciation by the firm in its
books of account, while ascertaining the amount of the profit or loss of
the year, to be shared amongst the partners and credited to their
respective accounts. Providing no depreciation or a lower depreciation
results in higher profits being credited to partners’ accounts which in
turn helps in payment of higher interest to them. Is this practice of
not providing depreciation in the books in accordance with the
provisions of the Act, for allowance of interest in the hands of the
firm, is a question that has been addressed by the different benches of
the Tribunal to arrive at the different and conflicting views.

The relevant part of section 40(b), pertaining to interest to partners, reads as under:

“Amounts not deductible.

40.
Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in sections 30 to 38, the
following amounts shall not be deducted in computing the income
chargeable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’,

(b) in the case of any firm assessable as such:

(i) ……………..

(ii)
any payment ………….., or of interest to any partner, which, in
either case, is not authorised by, or is not in accordance with, the
terms of the partnership deed; or

(iii) any payment
……………. , or of interest to any partner, which, in either case,
is authorised by, and is in accordance with, the terms of the
partnership deed, but which relates to any period (falling prior to the
date of such partnership deed) for which such payment was not authorised
by, or is not in accordance with, any earlier partnership deed, so,
however, that the period of authorisation for such payment by any
earlier partnership deed does not cover any period prior to the date of
such earlier partnership deed; or

(iv) any payment of interest
to any partner which is authorised by, and is in accordance with, the
terms of the partnership deed and relates to any period falling after
the date of such partnership deed insofar as such amount exceeds the
amount calculated at the rate of twelve per cent simple interest per
annum; or………………”

The Visakhapatnam Bench of the
Tribunal had an occasion to deal with the issue, wherein the Tribunal
held that the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) was not entitled to recompute the
balance of capital account of the partners, so determined by the
assessee firm. In deciding the said issue, the Bench did not follow the
findings to the contrary of another Bench of the Visakhapatnam Tribunal
on the subject.

Arthi Nursing Home’s case

The
issue under consideration was examined by the Visakhapatnam Tribunal in
the case of Arthi Nursing Home v. ITO, 119 TTJ 415 (Visakha).

 In
that case, Arthi Nursing Home, a partnership firm, had claimed
deduction of interest paid to partners on their respective capital
accounts. Consequent to the findings in the course of the survey
operations conducted on the firm and during the course of assessment
proceedings, it was noticed by the AO that the firm was not providing
for depreciation in the books of account, but was claiming depreciation
in computation of taxable income. The AO was of the view that the firm
by following the practice of not providing the depreciation was
inflating the capital accounts of the partners on which higher interest
was paid. He observed that the said practice was for the purposes of
claiming higher deduction, towards payment of interest, in the hands of
the firm. He was of the view that the firm was required to draw its
profit & loss account by debiting the depreciation. The AO
recomputed the balances in capital accounts of the partners after
charging depreciation. Consequently, the claim for deduction of interest
to partners was disallowed u/s.40(b) as the balance in the capital
accounts of the partners had turned negative after apportioning the
recomputed profits and losses.

 On appeal before the CIT(A), the
action of the AO in disallowing the deduction of interest to partners
u/s.40(b) was confirmed for the following reasons:

  • The
    assessee claimed benefit of depreciation in computing the total income,
    but did not provide the same in computing the profit of the firm to be
    shared amongst the partners. The said practice led to showing higher
    amount of profits in the books of account which inflated the capital
    balances of the partners and the consequent interest to partners;
  • Depreciation,
    like any other head of expenditure, was required to be debited to the
    profit and loss account to arrive at the real profits of the business;
  •  Debiting of depreciation was a cardinal principle of mercantile system of accounting; and
  •  The
    figures of accretion to the capital balances, were exaggerated and
    fictitious, not in accordance with any principles of accountancy.

The
assessee firm’s contention that the AO could not have rewritten books
of account of the firm based on the decisions in the cases of Ambica
Chemical Products v. Dy. CIT, (ITA No. 612/Vizag./1999, dated 31st May,
2005 and 9/Vizag./1999) dated 9th January, 2009, respectively; and ACIT
v. Sant Shoe Store, 88 ITD 524, (Chd.) (SMC) was negatived by the CIT(A)
by holding that the AO had only undertaken an exercise of discovery of
correctness of accounts which was not an exercise of rewriting the books
of account.

Aggrieved with the order of the CIT(A), on appeal
before the Tribunal, the following additional arguments were made by the
firm:

  • Section 40(b) did not provide for the manner of
    computing the profit of the firm for the year and did not have any
    relevance to the claims made in computing the total income; and
  •   
    The firm had been consistently over the years not charging depreciation
    in the books of account, but had claimed depreciation in computing the
    taxable income, which had been accepted by the Revenue authorities.

Likewise, the following additional contentions were raised by the Revenue:

  •    
    Explanation 5 to section 32 of the Act and the Accounting Standards
    prescribed by ICAI required charging of depreciation in the books of
    account; and

  •     The Apex Court in the case of CIT
    v. British Paints India Ltd., (188 ITR 44) held that the books disclosed
    the true state of accounts and the correct income.

The Tribunal after considering the rival submissions upheld the contention of the Revenue authorities for the following reasons:

  •    
    In light of the Apex Court decision in the case of British Paints Ltd.
    (supra), the AO was duty bound to recompute the profit/accretion to the
    capital account of the partners after charging depreciation to the
    profit and loss account;

  •     Explanation 5 to
    section 32 and the Accounting Standards prescribed by the ICAI required
    mandatory charging of depreciation to determine profit and loss of the
    firm for the year; and

  •     The profit and loss
    account prepared without charging depreciation did not reflect the true
    and correct state of affairs of the partnership firm.

The
Tribunal concluded that the AO was justified in correcting the aforesaid
error, thereby disallowing the interest claimed by the assessee firm
u/s.40(b).

Swaraj Enterprises case

The issue under consideration subsequently came up before the Division Bench of the Visakhapatnam

Tribunal in the case of Swaraj Enterprises v. ITO, 132 ITD 488.

In
this case, the assessee firm, like in the case of Arthi Nursing Home
(supra), did not charge depre-ciation in the books of account, but
claimed depre-ciation in computing the total income. As a result the
partners’ accounts were credited with higher share of profits on which
interest was paid to the partners. The AO, by relying on the several
decisions of the High Courts, held that the depreciation was a charge on
profits of the firm and the same should be provided for in computing
the profit that was distributed amongst the partners. He recomputed the
capital account balances of the partners and interest thereof.

On
appeal the CIT(A) relying on the decision in the case of Arthi Nursing
Home (supra) upheld the action of the AO of recomputing the interest to
partners for the purposes of section 40(b).

Aggrieved with the order of the CIT(A), the assessee firm filed an appeal before the Tribunal and contended that:

  •    
    There was no provision under the Act that allowed an AO to rework the
    capital balances of the partners and to recompute the interest to
    partners u/s.40(b);

  •     There was no statutory compulsion for partnership firms to provide for depreciation under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932;

  •    
    The determination of profit for the purposes of the books of account
    and the computation of total income for income tax were two different
    exercises and hence the allowance or disallowance made in computing the
    total income under the Act did not in any way affected the balances in
    the capital accounts of the partners disclosed in the books of account;
    and

  •     Without prejudice, the firm in any case had
    the discretion to select the method of charging depreciation and also
    the rates at which such depreciation was charged, which discretion was
    not vested in the AO.

The Revenue contended that the
depreciation was a charge on the profits of the year and it was a must
for the firm to provide for depreciation to arrive at the true profits
of the firm; that the AO following the British Paints’ case was duty
bound to rework the profit; that action of the firm was not in
accordance with the Accounting Standards and principles and that the
Explanation 5 to section 32 required that the depreciation was charged
to the accounts.

After considering the rival submissions and the decision in the case of Arthi Nursing Home (supra), the Tribunal held as under:

  •    
    The findings of the Apex Court in the case of British Paints Ltd.
    (supra) for reworking the profits were in context of determination of
    taxable income and could not be employed for recomputing the capital
    account of the partners;

  •     The total taxable
    income of the firm remained the same, since the depreciation was already
    claimed in computing the taxable income;

  •    
    Under, the Partnership Act, 1932, there was no statutory compulsion to
    provide for depreciation in the books of account or to follow the
    Accounting Standards prescribed by ICAI;

  •     The
    Companies Act that required an enterprise to follow the mercantile
    method of accounting and employ the Accounting Standards did not apply
    to a partnership firm;

  •     Explanation 5 to section
    32 provided for compulsory depreciation for the purpose of computation
    of taxable income under the Act and nowhere it was provided that it was
    to be applied even in preparing the books of account;

  •    
    U/s.40(b), the AO was allowed only to verify whether the payment of
    interest to any partner was authorised by and was in accordance with the
    terms of partnership deed and whether the period of interest so paid
    fell after the date of partnership deed. The AO could not have reworked
    or redetermined the balance in the capital accounts of the partners; and

  •    
    Even if the depreciation was required to be charged in the books of
    account, the choice to determine the method and the rate of depreciation
    would be at the discretion of the assessee firm and not of the AO.

Based
on the aforesaid findings, the Tribunal ignored its own findings in the
case of Arthi Nursing Home (supra) and upheld the claim of deduction of
inter-est to partners.

Observations

Section 40(b)
is silent as to the amount on which the interest to partners is to be
calculated. As noted, the ‘base amount’ remains to be defined by the
provision. In the context of interest, it has no reference to the books
of account, nor to the book profit unlike the provisions of section
115JB or even those within the section that provide for calculating the
quantum of remuneration payable to the partners. It may not be incorrect
to state that the claim of interest, in the context, is independent of
the books of account.

Unlike section 115JB, this section does not
provide for the method of accounting to be followed, the method of
depreciation to be employed and the rates at which the assets are
required to be de-preciated.

Section 40(b) provides that no
disallowance shall take place where the interest to partners is;
authorised by the partnership deed; in accordance therewith; for the
period falling after the date of partnership deed and the rate of
interest does not exceed 12%. In the circumstances, what is of paramount
importance is that the interest to partners should be authorised by the
deed and if it is so what remains to be seen is that such interest is
paid in the manner provided by the said deed which of course should be
in conformity with the other stipulations stated above. Nothing, beyond
these simple rules, is required to be read in to the provision.

The
computation of total income, under the Act, is largely independent of
the books of account. A debit or credit does not decide the taxability
or allowance of an income or an expenditure. Unless otherwise expressly
stated, the books of account do not determine the taxability or
otherwise under the Act. The allowance or a deduction and the taxability
of an income is governed by the provisions of the Income-tax Act and
not the books of account.

Explanation 5 to section 32 has a very
limited relevance and its application is mainly restricted to the
provisions of section 32(1) and section 43(6) which provide for
determination of the written down value of an asset or a block of
assets. The said provision, at the most, has the effect of altering the
total income that is computed under the Act and does not travel beyond,
to the computation of the book profit, not even for the purposes of
section 115JB.

The Partnership Act, 1932 does not prescribe the
manner in which the books of account are to be maintained, nor do they
provide for the method of accounting to be followed by the firm for
determining its profit or loss. They also do not prescribe for
compulsory depreciation and the rate thereof.

The Companies Act
has no application to the partnership firms and the provisions therein
for mercantile system of accounting, true and fair profit and the
mandatory application of the Accounting Standards do not apply to the
partnership firms.

The Chandigarh Bench of the Tribunal in Sant
Shoe Store’s case was concerned with the allowance of interest on the
capital account of the partners which included credits on revaluation of
the assets, not involving any inflow of funds. The Tribunal even in
such a case approved of the claim of interest made by the firm. Again,
the Tribunal in Ambica Chemical Products approved of the claim of
interest in circumstances where the firm had not provided for
depreciation in the books of account; the claim was allowed to the firm
in two different appeals vide orders passed after a gap of four years
and one of it was passed after the decision in the case of Aarthi
Nursing Home was rendered. A useful reference may be made to the
decision of the Pune Bench in the case of Deval Utensils Factory, 98 TTJ
501 wherein the action of the AO in reworking the capital account
balance, on the basis of which interest was paid to partner was
disapproved.

The rewriting of the books by either side should
be discouraged. If permitted, it may invite the tax-payers to indulge
in creative accounting, for example; by adding back the provision for
taxation where debited to the profit & loss account so as to enhance
the amount of share of profit that is credited to the capital accounts
by holding out that the tax is not an allowable deduction in computing
the total income. The example amplifies the need to stick to the books
of account and the need to avoid importing the computation provisions in
calculation of interest.

The interest to the partners, where
allowed in the hands of the firm, is taxable in the hands of the
partners as business income by virtue of section 28(v). The one that is
disallowed in the hands of the firm, is not taxable in the hands of the
partners by virtue of the proviso to the said section 28(v) of the Act.
The disallowance largely does not result in any loss or gain of revenue
for either side.

This essentially leaves us with the conclusion
that no disallowance shall take place under the provisions of section
40(b) in cases where the interest to partners is authorised by the
partnership deed and the same is calculated as per the terms of the
partnership deed. The case of the firm gets forti-fied where the deed
does not make it mandatory for the firm to charge depreciation in
computing the profit for the year.

Aplicability of Explanation to Section 73

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Section 73 of the Income-tax Act prohibits set-off of losses of speculation business except against profits and gains of another speculation business. The Explanation to section 73 extends the meaning of speculation business for the purposes of such set-off, by deeming any part of the business of a company which consists in the purchase and sale of shares of other companies to be a speculation business.

There are however two exceptions to this deeming fiction — one is for a company whose gross total income consists mainly of income which is chargeable under the heads ‘Interest on Securities’, ‘Income from House Property’, ‘Capital Gains’ and ‘Income from Other Sources’ and the second is for a company the principal business of which is the business of banking or the granting of loans and advances.

The Explanation to section 73 reads as under:

“Where any part of the business of a company (other than a company whose gross total income consists mainly of income which is chargeable under the heads ‘Interest on Securities’, ‘Income from House Property’, ‘Capital Gains’ and ‘Income from Other Sources’, or a company the principal business of which is the business of banking or the granting of loans and advances) consists in the purchase and sale of shares of other companies, such company shall, for the purposes of this section, be deemed to be carried on a speculation business to the extent to which the business consists of the purchase and sale of such shares.”

Two issues have arisen before the Courts, in the context of the first fiction, above, as to how the composition of the gross total income is to be looked at for the purpose of considering the applicability of this Explanation. One issue has been as to how negative income (loss) has to be considered — whether in absolute terms ignoring the negative sign, or to be taken as lower than a positive figure, for determining the majority composition of the gross total income. The second issue has arisen as to whether, for considering the applicability of this Explanation, the deemed speculation business loss is to be set off first against the other business profits, and only the net business income after such set-off is to be considered as ‘included’ in the gross total income and that it is such net business income, so included, that is to be compared with the income from the other heads of income to determine the composition of the gross total income. Naturally, the income under the other heads of income shall gain a higher share in composition of the gross total income where the business income is first set off against the losses of the deemed speculation business.

Considering the second issue, the Calcutta High Court has taken the view that for considering the applicability of the Explanation, the share trading loss is not to be set off against other business profits by adopting the ratio of its earlier decisions in the context of the first issue, the Bombay High Court has held that only the net business income after setting off the share trading loss against other business profits is to be considered as included in the gross total income.

Park View Properties’ case
The issue first came up before the Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT v. Park View Properties P. Ltd., 261 ITR 473.

In this case, the assessee-company had incurred a loss of Rs.8,98,799 in share trading, and had other business profits of Rs.12,32,469, the net business profits being Rs.3,33,670. The assessee had income from other sources and dividend income (which was taxable at that point of time) of Rs.5,73,701. The gross total income, determined after set-off of the share trading loss, was therefore Rs.9,07,371.

The Assessing Officer denied the benefit of the exception to the Explanation to section 73, denying set-off of share dealing loss on the ground that such losses were to be deemed as the loss of a speculation business, on application of the said Explanation. The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the appeal of the assessee, holding that the main source of income of the assessee consisted of income from interest on securities and income from house property. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals), allowing set-off of the share trading business loss without treating the same as a speculation loss.

The Calcutta High Court noted that the Tribunal had allowed the benefit of the exception to the Explanation to section 73 by setting off the share trading loss against the profits of other business for the purposes of determining whether the said Explanation was applicable or not. The Court did not approve the approach of the Tribunal. According to the Calcutta High Court, in order to ascertain whether an assessee would be covered by the Explanation to section 73, it had to be first examined whether the assessee came within the exception provided to the Explanation. This, according to the Court, was to be done by taking into consideration only the business profits, excluding the share trading loss, as could be gathered from the expression ‘gross total income consists mainly of income chargeable under the heads . . . . .’ used in the Explanation that was clear and unambiguous, and reflected the intention of the Legislature.

The Calcutta High Court noted that while computing the gross total income, loss was also to be taken into account, since loss was treated as a negative profit. The Calcutta High Court noted that in the case of Eastern Aviation and Industries Ltd. v. CIT, 208 ITR 1023, the Calcutta High Court had held that the explanation to section 73 could be applied before the principle of deduction was applied, namely, after computing the gross total income.

Applying this principle, the Court observed that if the loss in the share dealing account of Rs.8,98,799 was treated as a negative profit, then definitely the income from other sources and dividend income of Rs.5,73,701 was lower. Therefore, according to the Calcutta High Court, the main income consisted of the business of share trading, which was the main object of the assessee. The Calcutta High Court expressed the view that the business income computed after setting of the loss in share trading of Rs.3,33,670 did not represent the business income, since it was arrived at after applying the benefit of the explanation to section 73, namely, setting off the speculative income.

The Calcutta High Court therefore held that the case did not fall within the exception in the explanation to section 73, and the loss incurred on share trading was to be treated as speculation loss and could not be set off against other income.

Darshan Securities’ case
The issue again recently came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Darshan Securities Pvt. Ltd., (ITA No. 2886 of 2009, dated 2-2-2012 — available on www. itatonline.org).

In this case, the assessee had an income from service charges of Rs.2,25,04,588, and share trading loss of Rs.2,23,32,127, besides a taxable dividend income of Rs.4,79,325. The assessee claimed that in computing the gross total income for the purposes of the Explanation to section 73, the share trading loss had to be first adjusted against the income from service charges.

The Assessing Officer disallowed the set-off of the share trading loss, holding it to be a speculation loss. The Commissioner (Appeals) accepted the assessee’s claim that the case of the company was covered by the first exception to the said Explanation to section 73, as did the Tribunal.

On behalf of the Revenue, it was argued before the Bombay High Court that in computing the gross total income for the purposes of the Explanation to section 73, income under the heads of profits and gains of business or profession must be ignored. Alternatively, it was urged that where the income from business included a loss in trading of shares, such loss should not be allowed to be set off against income from any other source under the head of profits and gains of business or profession.

The Bombay High Court analysed the provisions of section 73 and the Explanation thereto. It noted that the Explanation to section 73 was a deeming fiction applying only to a company and extending only for the purposes of that section. It noted that the bracketed portion of the Explanation carved out an exception.

The Bombay High Court noted that ordinarily income which arose from one source, which fell under the head of profits and gains of business or profession could be set off against the loss, which arose from another source under the same head. Section 73(1) however set up a bar to setting off a loss which arose in respect of a speculation business against the profits and gains of any other business. Consequently, such speculation loss could be set off only against the profits and gains of another speculation business.

According to the Bombay High Court, the explanation provided a deeming fiction of when a company is deemed to be carrying on a speculation business. If the Department’s submissions were accepted, it would lead to an incongruous situation, where in determining as to whether a company was carrying on a speculation business within the meaning of the explanation, section 73(1) would be applied in the first instance. According to the Bombay High Court, this would not be permissible as a matter of statutory interpretation, as the explanation was designed to define a situation where the company was deemed to carry on speculation business. It is only thereafter that section 73(1) can apply. Applying the provisions of section 73(1) to determine whether a company was carrying on speculation business would reverse the order of application, which was impermissible and not contemplated by Parliament.

The Bombay High Court observed that in order to determine whether the exception carved out by the Explanation applied, the Legislature had first mandated a computation of the gross total income. Further, the words ‘consists mainly’ were indicative of the fact that the Legislature had in its contemplation that the gross total income consisted predominantly of income from the 4 heads referred to therein. Obviously, according to the Bombay High Court, in computing the gross total income, the normal provisions of the Act must be applied, and it was only thereafter that it had to be determined as to whether the gross total income so computed consisted mainly of income which was chargeable under the heads referred to in the Explanation.

The Bombay High Court followed the ratio of its earlier decisions in the cases of CIT v. Hero Textiles and Trading Ltd. , (ITA No. 296 of 2001 dated 29-1-2008) and CIT v. Maansi Trading Pvt. Ltd., (ITA No. 47 for 2001 dated 29-1-2008). It also noted that it had dismissed Notice of Motion No. 1921 of 2007 in ITA (Lodging) No. 852 of 2007 for condonation of delay against the Tribunal Special Bench decision in the case of Concord Commercial Pvt. Ltd., which decision had been followed by the Tribunal in this case.

The Bombay High Court therefore held that since the net business income of Rs.1,72,461 was less than the dividend income of Rs.4,79,325, the assessee was covered by the exception carved out in the Explanation to section 73, and would not be deemed to be carrying on a speculation business for the purposes of section 73(1).


Observations

The Calcutta High Court seems to have placed reliance on its decision in the case of Eastern Aviation and Industries Ltd. (supra) in arriving at its conclusion. In particular, it followed the view taken in that case that negative profits are also income and are to be considered in the absolute sense (ignoring the positive or negative signs) for the purpose of the exception carved out in explanation to section 73(1). The Calcutta High Court, however, failed to appreciate that Eastern Aviation’s case dealt with a situation where there was a negative speculation income and negative share trading income, but no other profits from any other business. The question of set-off of share trading loss against any other business profit, therefore, did not arise for consideration in that case. In that case, the gross total income itself also was a negative figure. The reliance placed on the ratio of that decision, therefore, seems to have been misplaced.

Even assuming that the ratio of Eastern Aviation’s case that even negative incomes should be considered in the absolute sense were correct, what needs to be considered is the net position of the income under each head of income, and not the net position of each source of income. In Darshan Securities’ case, the net position of the income under the head business or profession was a positive figure, which was lower than the income under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. Therefore, even applying Eastern Aviation’s case, the ratio of Darshan Securities’ case seems justified.

As rightly observed by the Bombay High Court, one cannot start with a presumption that the explanation applies and that the loss is a loss from speculation business for determining whether the explanation applies. One would therefore have to compute the gross total income without applying the explanation for finding out the applicability of the explanation. In doing so, one would have to apply the normal provisions for computation of gross total income ignoring the explanation to section 73, i.e., by setting off the share trading loss against other business profits, which would normally have been the position in the absence of the explanation. It is only then if it is determined that the explanation applies, as the case falls outside the exception to the explanation, that the prohibition on set-off of the loss would apply.

The view taken by the Bombay High Court that the share trading loss is to be set off against other business income for determining whether explanation to section 73 applies, is therefore the better view of the matter.

EXEMPTION U/S.54F IN CASES WHERE SECTION 50C APPLICABLE

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Issue for consideration:
Section 50C provides for substituting the full value of consideration with the value adopted or assessed by the stamp valuation authorities, in computing the capital gains arising on transfer of land or building or both. Where the value of the property assessed or adopted for stamp duty purposes is higher than the sale consideration as specified in the transfer documents, then such higher value is deemed to be the full value of consideration for the purposes of computation of capital gains u/s.48, by virtue of the provisions of section 50C.

Capital gains on sale of an asset other than a residential house, in the hands of an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family, is eligible for an exemption u/s.54F on purchase or construction of a residential house within the specified period, subject to fulfilment of other conditions. The assessee enjoys a complete exemption from tax where the cost of the new asset is equal or more than the net consideration of the asset transferred and he will get a pro-rated exemption where the cost of the new asset is less than the net consideration.

A question has arisen, in the above facts, as to how such exemption u/s.54F is to be computed in a case where the provisions of section 50C apply. Should one take the sale consideration recorded in the documents of transfer, or should one take the stamp duty value as per section 50C, is an issue which is calling our attention.

To illustrate, if a plot of land is sold for Rs.50 lakhs with its stamp duty valuation being Rs.75 lakhs, and if the cost of the new residential house is Rs.50 lakhs, would the entire capital gains be exempt from tax u/s.54F or would only two-thirds of the capital gains be exempt from tax under this section?

While the Lucknow and the Bangalore Benches of the Tribunal have taken a view that for the purposes of computation of exemption u/s.54F, the stamp duty value being the deemed full value of consideration as per section 50C is to be considered, the Jaipur Bench of the Tribunal has held that it is the actual sale consideration recorded in the document of transfer which is to be considered and not the stamp duty value.

Mohd. Shoib’s case:
The issue first came up before the Lucknow Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Mohd. Shoib v. Dy. CIT, 1 ITR (Trib.) 452.

In this case, the assessee sold 7 plots of land, which had been subdivided from a larger plot of land, for a total consideration of Rs.1.47 crore. In respect of 4 plots of land sold for Rs.83 lakh, the consideration was lower than the valuation adopted by the stamp duty valuation authorities, such valuation being Rs.1,00,61,773. The assessee had purchased a residential house out of a part of the total sale consideration, and claimed exemption u/s.54F which was calculated with reference to the consideration recorded in the documents of transfer by ignoring the difference of Rs.17,61,773 between the stamp duty value and the recorded consideration.

The Assessing Officer enhanced the returned capital gains by Rs.17,61,773, by invoking the provisions of section 50C. In appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals), the assessee challenged the applicability of the provisions of section 50C, which was rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals).

In further appeal to the Tribunal, besides challenging the applicability of section 50C, the assessee claimed that once the assessee had reinvested the net consideration in purchasing the new residential house as per section 54F, then no capital gains would remain to be computed for taxation and therefore provisions of section 50C could not be invoked. It was argued that once the exemption was claimed u/s.54F, there was no occasion to charge capital gains and therefore provisions of section 45 could not be invoked as no capital gains could be computed. Reliance was placed on the use of the words ‘save as otherwise provided in section 54, 54B, . .’ in section 45 for the argument that once the charging section failed, substitution of the sale consideration by the stamp duty valuation would not arise. It was further argued that investment in new asset could be made only of real sale consideration, and not of the notional sale consideration. Once there was no real sale consideration, there could not be any capital gains on notional sale consideration.

On behalf of the Department, it was argued that neither section 45 nor section 50C would fail if the assessee had made investment in exempted assets as per section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Department, section 54F only provided the method of computation of capital gains and did not provide exemption from the charging section 45. It was submitted that if an assessee did not invest the full consideration into a new asset, then he would be required to compute the capital gains in the manner laid down in sections 48 by applying the provisions of section 50C, and the exemption from capital gains was available only to the extent of investment made by the assessee in the new asset. Where a part investment was made in the new asset, then capital gains would be charged with respect to the sale consideration not invested. It was argued that the provisions of section 54, 54F, etc. followed the charging section 45, and that the charging section 45 did not follow the exemption provisions. It was submitted that merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to invest the difference between the notional sale consideration as per section 50C and sale consideration shown by the assessee, the charging of capital gains on the basis of notional sale consideration as per section 50C could not be waived. According to the Department, there were many provisions where a notional income is taxed without giving any occasion to the assessee to make investment out of such notional income and claim deductions under Chapter VIA, etc. It was thus claimed that the charging section could not be made otiose merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to claim deduction or make investments for claiming deduction in respect of additional income assessed.

While upholding the applicability of section 50C to the facts of the case, the Tribunal observed that section 45 provided a general rule that profits or gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset would be chargeable to income-tax under the head capital gains, except as provided in section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Tribunal while charging capital gains on profits and gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset, one had to see and take into account section 54F, and to the extent provided in section 54F and other similar sections, capital gains would not be chargeable. The moment there was a profit or gain on transfer of a capital asset, capital gains would be chargeable within the meaning of section 45, except and to the extent it was saved by section 54F and like sections.

Analysing the provisions of section 54F, the Tribunal noted that it was not the case that merely because provisions of section 54F were applicable to an assessee, that the entire capital gains would be saved and that no capital gains be chargeable. Saving u/s.54F depended upon investment in new asset of net consideration received by the assessee on sale of old asset. The quantum of net consideration was the result of transfer of the old asset, charge of the capital gain was only on the old asset, and investment in new asset did not and could not nullify or take away the case from the charging section 45. According to the Tribunal, first it was section 45 which came into operation, then it was section 48 which provided computation of capital gains, and thereafter it was section 54F which saved the capital gains to the extent of investment in the new asset.

The Tribunal observed that once section 45 came into operation as a result of transfer of capita

Global Income of a Resident- Right to Tax and Dtaa

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Issue for consideration

The primary right of taxing an income of its subjects is accepted internationally to be that of a country of residence (‘Residence State’ ), irrespective of the time and place of earning an income. This rule does not preclude the country of source (‘Source State’) from taxing an income. To avoid double taxation of the same income, countries enter into agreements, to provide that only one of the two countries shall tax an income and the other shall not do so (Income Elimination or Exemption Method ‘IEM’), or to provide for credit for taxes paid ( Tax Credit Method-‘TCM’) in the country of source while taxing the same income in the country of residence. In cases of some income, for example, royalty, fees for technical services, interest, dividends etc., these agreements provide for taxing income in the country of source at a concessional rate. Income arising from an immovable property is generally taxed in the country of source. Likewise, business income is taxed in the country of source provided the businessman has a permanent establishment(‘PE’) in that country. In the same manner, income of a service provider is taxed in the country of source only, when he has a fixed base in that country or his stay in that country exceeds a certain number of days.

These above general rules of taxation or assumptions underlying international taxation, like any contract, are subject to any agreement to the contrary by the contracting countries. Countries which execute Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (‘DTAA’) may agree to adhere to the generally accepted principles of taxation or may agree to differ from them by mutual agreements executed to the contrary.

DTAAs, to give effect to the intentions of the countries, employ different terminologies like; ‘shall be taxed’, ‘shall be taxed only’, ‘may be taxed’, ‘may also be taxed’, ‘may be taxed in’, ‘shall be taxed only in’, ‘shall only be taxable’, etc. Different treatments may be provided for different sources of income in the same DTAA by employing suitable language. It is commonly understood that an income will be taxed in one country only when the DTAA employs the terms like ‘shall be taxed’ or ‘shall be taxed only’. The income will be taxed in both the countries where a DTAA uses ‘may also be taxed’. The employment of the term ‘may be taxed’ however has posed serious issues of interpretation in the Indian context. One school of thought is of the view that use of words ‘may be taxed’ mean that the Source State has the exclusive right of taxation leading to complete exclusion of right of taxation for the Residence State . The other school is of the view that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ preserves the right of taxation of the Residence State while conferring non-exclusive rights on the Source State. Conflicting decisions available on the subject are discussed here.

Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case

The issue arose before the Mumbai bench of the ITAT in the case of Ms. Pooja Bhatt v. Dy.CIT, 26 SOT 574. In that case, the assessee, an Indian resident, had received income from performing stage shows in Canada on which tax was deducted in Canada. The assessee claimed that such income was not taxable in India in view of the India Canada DTAA, 229 ITR 44 (St.). The issue needed to be examined particularly under Article 18 of the said DTAA , which reads as under:

Article 18 ; Artistes and athletes

Notwithstanding the provisions of Articles 7, 15 and 16, income derived by entertainers, such as theater, motion picture, radio or television artistes and musicians, and by athletes, from their personal activities as such may be taxed in the Contracting State in which these activities are exercised.

……….

Strong reliance was placed by the revenue on Article 23 “Elimination of double taxation”, to contend that the insertion of a specific provision for granting tax credit by the Residence State while taxing the income of the resident confirmed the intention to tax such income in both the states. Paragraph 1 of this Article, providing that the laws in force in either of the Contracting States will continue to govern the taxation of income in the respective Contracting States except where provisions to the contrary were made in the Agreement, was greatly relied upon. (For the sake of brevity, this article is not reproduced here.)

The assessee, a film artiste, participated in an entertainment show performed in Canada and received a sum of USD 6000. Tax was deducted at source in Canada equal to the sum of USD 900. The assessee claimed in the course of assessment proceedings that a sum of Rs. 1,86,000 (US dollars 6000) could not be taxed in India in view of Article 18 of India-Canada Treaty, which contention was rejected by the AO. The AO found that the assessee was a resident of India and consequently, it was held by him that her entire global income was taxable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 . It was further observed by him that the assessee was entitled to relief under Article 23(3)(a) of the DTAA. On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. Aggrieved by the same, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that by virtue of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty, the income derived by an artiste or an athlete by performing shows/activities in Canada could not be taxed in India, since Article 18 permitted only the other contracting State, i.e., the source country to tax such income. In support of the proposition, reliance was placed on the decisions of the Hon. Supreme Court in the cases of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar 267 ITR 654 and Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 300 ITR 12, and on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT v. VR. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 [affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra)], wherein the expression “may be taxed” was interpreted to mean that the other contracting State was precluded from taxing the income.

On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was on the issue of domicile, that the expression “may be taxed” was never construed by the court, that the Madras High Court decision was affirmed on different reasoning and, therefore, Supreme Court decision relied on by the assessee was distinguishable. Reliance was placed on the decision in the case of S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177(AAR) wherein the expression ‘may be taxed’ was construed and it was held that such words did not preclude the contracting State of residence taxing the same, if the assessee was liable to tax under the domestic law. According to this judgment, the assessee was only entitled to double taxation relief if tax had been paid in the source country. It was also submitted that the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was distinguished by the AAR, observing that the Supreme Court did not express any opinion regarding the scope of the expression “may be taxed”.

The Revenue further submitted that the India-Canada Treaty was similar to the OECD Model Convention and, therefore, its meaning should be understood as per the OECD Commentary. It was further submitted that there were two categories of treaties. According to one category, the relief was provided by way of exemption from tax, like in the India-Austria Treaty, and the other category was where relief was given by way of credit in respect of tax paid in other country, such as India-Canada Treaty. Therefore, the assessee was only entitled to credit for the tax paid in Canada as per the provisions of Article 23 of India-Canada Treaty. Reference was also made to page 971 of the Commentary by Klaus Vogel to contend that tax could be levied by both countries. Regarding the judgment of the Supreme Court, it was submitted that India- Malaysia Treaty considered by the Apex Court came into effect from 1-4-1973 when OECD Commentary was not in existence and, therefore, the court refused to look into the commentary. However, in the present case, the OECD Commentary was very much in existence at the time of agreement between the two countries and, therefore, the provisions of treaty should be understood as per the OECD Commentary.

The tribunal noted the undisputed facts that – (i) the assessee was a resident of India, (ii) she was an artiste who performed the entertainment show in Canada for which she was paid US Dollars 6,000 equivalent to Indian Rupees 1,86,000, (iii) tax of 900 US Dollars was deducted at source in Canada; there was also no dispute that as per the domestic law, the assessee was liable to pay tax on her entire global income. The question was whether liability to pay tax under the domestic law could be avoided in view of the provisions of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty.

On consideration of the rival contentions, the tribunal held that income derived by the assessee from the exercise of her activity in Canada was taxable only in the source country, i.e., Canada. On an analysis of various Articles contained in Chapter III, the tribunal found that the scheme of taxation was divided in three categories; The first category included Article 7 (Business profits without P.E. in the other State), Article 8 (Air transport), Article 9 (Shipping), Article 14 (capital gains on alienation of ships or aircrafts operated in international traffic), Article 15 (Professional services), Article 19 (Pensions) all of which provided that income shall be taxed only in the State of residence. The second category included Article 6 (Income from immovable property), Article 7 (Business profits where PE is established in other contracting State), Article 15 (Income from professional services under certain circumstances), Article 16 (Income from dependent personal services where employment is exercised in other contracting State), Article 17 (director’s fees), Article 18 (income of Artistes and Athletes), Article 20 (Govt. Service), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in the other contracting State, i.e., State of source. The third category included Article 11(Dividends), Article 12 (Interest), Article 13 (Royalty and fee for technical services), Article 14 (capital gains on other properties) and Article 22 (Other income), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in both the contracting States.

The tribunal noted that this clearly showed that the intention of parties to the DTAA was very clear. Wherever the parties intended that income was to be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically provided in clear terms and as such, it could not be said that the expression “may be taxed” used by the contracting parties gave option to the other contracting State to tax such income. Contextual meaning had to be given to such expression and if the contention of the revenue was accepted, then the specific provisions permitting both the contracting States to levy tax would become meaningless. The conjoint reading of all the provisions of Articles in Chapter III of India-Canada Treaty, led to only one conclusion that by using the expression “may be taxed in the other State”, the contracting parties permitted only the other State, i.e., State of source, to tax such income and by implication, the State of residence was precluded from taxing such income. Wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically so provided and the contention of the revenue that the expression “may be taxed in other State” gave the option to the other State and that the State of residence was not precluded from taxing such income, was unacceptable.

The reliance of the revenue on Article 23, the tribunal observed, was also misplaced as this provision had been made in the treaty to cover the cases falling under the third category i.e., the cases where the income might be taxed in both the countries. The cases falling under the first or second categories would be outside the scope of Article 23, since income was to be taxed only in one state.

Reliance placed by the revenue on the commentary by Klaus Vogel was found to be untenable by the tribunal, on the ground that it was now the settled legal position that commentaries could be looked into as a guiding factor only where the language of the treaty was ambiguous. In support of this view, a reference was made to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiar (supra). In the case before them, it was found that the intention of the contracting parties was very much clear from the treaty itself. In any case, the commentaries were not binding on courts, since the same were of persuasive value or indicative of contemporaneous thinking, and the parties to the agreement were always at liberty to deviate from the same. Even assuming that the commentary supported the stand of the revenue, the same could not be accepted, since parties to the agreement had deviated from the same, clearly indicating their intention in the treaty itself.

The tribunal supported its view by referring to the Madras High Court decision in VR. S.R.M Firm (supra) where the assessee was resident of India and had earned profit on sale of immovable property in Malaysia. Article 6 of Indo-Malaysia Treaty provided that such income may be taxed in the State in which such property was situated. The assessee claimed that he was not liable to pay tax on such income in view of Article 6 of the treaty. In the above facts, the court had held that the income was taxable only in Malaysia. The tribunal observed that since the above decision had been affirmed by the Apex Court, there was no scope for taking a different view, though the Apex Court had observed that the decision of the Madras High Court was being affirmed for different reasons; the conclusion, however. remained that income could not be assessed in the State of residence, where the agreement provided that income may be taxed in the source country.

The tribunal also supported its view by referring to the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Co. (supra) where the court, following the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of VR.S.R.M. Firm (supra), held that income arising on the sale of immovable property in Malaysia could not be taxed in India. It noted that the similar issue was decided in favour of the assessee by the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. R.M. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508. In that case also the assessee who was resident in India had earned income in Malaysia and claimed the same as exempt from tax in India in view of DTAA between India and Malaysia.

The AAR decision in the case of S. Mohan (supra) was found by the tribunal to be based on the interpretation of Article 16 in isolation i.e., without considering the scheme of taxation under the treaty, and the tribunal therefore did not follow the said decision.

It was held that the assessee could not be taxed in respect of the sum of Rs. 1,86,000 under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the overriding provisions of the India-Canada DTAA.

Telecommunications Consultants India Ltd.’s case

The issue recently arose in the case of Telecommunications Consultants Ltd. , 18 ITR(Trib.) 363, before the Delhi bench of the Tribunal. The assessee, a public sector undertaking owned by the Government of India under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications, was in the business of providing full range of consultancy, design and engineering services in all fields of telecommunication in India as well as abroad. On the global front, the assessee had executed turnkey/consultancy projects in many countries in Africa and Middle East, besides South and South East Asian and CIS Countries.

The main issue involved in the appeals before the tribunal was regarding the taxability in India of income earned in a foreign country by the assessee, which was a resident of India. The relevant grounds of appeal read as under :-

“5. That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in confirming the action of the Assessing Officer that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, is exigible to income tax in India under the scheme of the Act.

6.    That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in ignoring that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 is attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, are countries with which India has Comprehensive Agreement for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to taxes on income.”

The assessee claimed that such income was taxable only in the respective countries as per the DTAA and not taxable in India. It submitted that the income attributable to the permanent establishment in the foreign country, with whom DTAA was in existence, should not be considered for the purposes of Indian taxation . It advanced the following contentions in support of its stand;

(i)    For the purposes of interpretation of an international treaty, an important aspect that needed to be considered was that treaties were negotited and entered into at a political level and have several considerations as their basis.

(ii)    The main function of a DTAA was to provide a bargain between two treaty countries as to the division of tax revenues between them in respect of income falling to be taxed in both jurisdictions. [Azadi Bachao Andolan, 263 ITR 706 (SC)].

(iii)    Primary objective of the DTAA entered into by India was avoidance of double taxation and not relief from double taxation. [Sivagami Holdings (P.) Ltd. 20 taxmann.com 166 (Chennai) wherein the ITAT had held that the DTAA was entered into between the countries only for the limited purpose of avoiding the hardship of double taxation and if the income was not taxed in the Contracting State, holding that the same should be taxed in India was an oversimplified statement on the whole regime of DTAA].

(iv)    The prime motivating factor in developing the concept of DTAA was the genuine hardship of the international assessee that the same amount of income became the subject of taxation both in the home state and in the Contracting State. It was to alleviate this burden of double taxation that the instrument of DTAA had evolved through the process of law.

(v)    The mechanism of providing relief in the form of credit was only when, in accordance with the provisions of the DTAA, double taxation could not be avoided. Article 23 of OECD model convention would be applicable only where income may be taxed in both countries. In the instant case, since the income arising from the permanent establishment (PE) was taxable only in the country of source in accordance with Article 7 of the applicable DTAA, application of Article 23 did not arise. [Vr. S.R.M. Firm 208 ITR 400 (Mad.)].

(vi)    Article 4 of the OECD model convention defined “residence” and the determination of residency was not in question. The assessee was a tax resident of India, which was an uncontroverted fact. Therefore, any analysis or reliance on Article 4 of OECD Model Convention (Residence) in respect of residency was not proper and was misplaced.

(vii)    Article 7 of the applicable DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise of the Contracting
State shall be taxable only in the State unless the enterprise carries on business in the other Contracting State through a PE situated therein. Therefore, once the Revenue accepted that there was a PE outside India, its profits would be taxable only in the country of source according to Article 7, and residence would not be a determinative criteria. [Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd. 245 ITR 521 (Mad.)].

(viii)    The classification of the Articles under the DTAA from the OECD Commentary merits consideration in view of the discussion in Ms. Pooja Bhatt, 26 SOT 574 (Mum.) which clearly stipulated that the language of Article 7 which included the phrase ‘may be taxed’ meant the Contracting States permitted only the other Contracting State i.e. State of source of income, to tax such income.

(ix)    From a perusal of the judgment of the Hon. Apex Court in Kulandagan Chettiar, [supra], it could not be inferred that the reasons given by the Special Bench of Hon. ITAT were incorrect, merely because the decision of the Hon. Tribunal was upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for different reasons. [Mideast India Ltd. 28 SOT 395 (Delhi)].

(x)    The ITAT in this judgment on appreciating Article 7 of the relevant DTAA also held that the profits derived from the business carried on through a PE in a contracting State by a resident or an enterprise of the other contracting State, was liable to be taxed in the first mentioned State to the extent the same was directly or indirectly attributable to the PE and the same thus shall not be taxable in other contracting State. The profit in question was earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE in that country and since it was not the case of the revenue that the assessee company had no PE in USSR or that any portion of the profit earned by it in USSR was not attributable to that PE, it followed that the entire income earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE was chargeable to tax in that country as per Article 7(1) of the DTAA between India and USSR.

(xi)    The Bombay High Court in the case of Essar Oil , 345 ITR 443 in the context of India-Oman DTAA has observed that since the taxpayer has a PE in Oman, in view of Article 7 of the DTAA, the profits earned in Oman were rightly excluded in India.

(xii)    The case of ITO (OSD) v. Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), could be regarded as ‘per incuriam’ i.e. was rendered without having been informed about binding precedents that were directly relevant rendered in the matter of S.R.M. Firm (supra) by the jurisdictional High Court. According to the doctrine of ‘per incuriam’, any judgment which had been passed in ignorance of or without considering a statutory provision or a binding precedent was not good law and the same ought to be ignored. [Siddharam Satlingappa Mhetre v. State of Maharashtra AIR 2011 SC 312].

(xiii)    Reliance on OECD Commentary on Model Tax Convention had not been accepted by the Courts of India as having a precedent value. [ Pooja Bhatt (supra) and Kulandagan Chettiar (supra)].

(xiv)    The AAR ruling in S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177 as adverted during the course of the hearing did not in any way support the contention of the Department, since it had been observed in the ruling that the language of treaty provision in which the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in Indo-Malaysia DTAA which was under consideration in Kulandagan Chettiar ( supra) was not comparable to the language employed in Article 16(1) of Indo-Norway DTAA, which was the subject matter of S. Mohan’s ruling.

(xv)  According to the provisions of Section 255, where an earlier co-ordinate bench had taken a decision, a subsequent bench could not differ from such a decision on similar set of facts. In such cases, the matter had to be referred to the President to refer the case to a larger bench. [Sayaji Iron & Engg Co.,121 Taxman 43 (Guj.)].

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the tribu-nal was invited to some fundamental principles of international taxation, to emphasise that where a contracting state is given exclusive right to tax a particular kind of income, then relevant article of convention used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’; that as a rule, such exclusive right was given to state of residence, though there were a few articles where exclusive right to tax was given to state of source also; that the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’ precluded other contracting state from taxing that income’ for an item of income; where attribution of right to tax was not exclusive, the convention used the phrase ‘may be taxed’; regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation was given to state of residence, though this was not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention used the phrase “may be taxed’ and at the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles used phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gave simultane-ous taxing rights to state of source. For these two items of income, no state was given exclusive right to tax. It was further impressed that where for an item of income the phrase ‘may be taxed’ in state of source was used and nothing was mentioned about taxing right of state of residence in convention itself, then state of residence was not precluded from taxing such income and could tax it using inherent right of state of residence to tax global income of its resident. It was only when the state of source was given exclusive right to tax an item of income by using the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’, then the state of residence was precluded from taxing it and it meant state of residence had voluntarily given up its inherent right to tax.

The Revenue highlighted that the assessee was a resident of India and thus being state of residence, India had inherent right to tax global income of as-sessee as per section 5 of IT Act, 1961; it had a PE in foreign countries with whom India had entered into DTAA and had opted for application of DTAA u/s 90(2) of IT Act; the character of income under issue was business income and therefore,Article 7 of relevant DTAAs was applicable.

The Revenue further contended that the combined reading of Article 7 meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attrib-utable to PE and therefore, it might tax it as per its domestic laws. However, this non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of the state of residence to tax global income of its resident. In a situation where state of residence had given up its inherent right, the second sentence of article 7 would have used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’. Now, in all DTAAs applicable in case of the assessee, the second sentence used the phrase ‘may be taxed’. Therefore, the inherent right of India to tax global income of its resident was not lost. The contention of the assessee was fallacious in view of the discussion above. The proper course on the part of the assessee would have been to claim credit of taxes paid in foreign countries, because the relevant DTAA provided that India shall relieve double taxa-tion by giving credit of taxes paid in state of source.

For the Revenue, it was important to examine what the Supreme Court had held in Kulandagan Chet-tiar’s case (supra), as that was the source of all the decisions that followed it, to hold that income once taxed outside India was not taxable in India. It was argued that in that case, the Supreme Court had held that; interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ was not required as the assessee was resident of both India and Malaysia as per their respective do-mestic tax laws and the situation of dual residence was to be reduced to situation of single residence by applying tie breaking rules contained in Article 4(2) of treaty; by applying tie breaking rules, the Supreme Court came to the conclusion that the assessee was having closer personal and economic relations with Malaysia and therefore, the assessee became resident of Malaysia; Malaysia being state of residence for the assessee, Malaysia had inherent right to tax global income of the assessee. This is how income of assessee was held not to be taxable in India which is explained by the Supreme Court at pages 671 & 672 of 267 ITR. Closer examination of this Supreme Court decision showed that it had clearly upheld the basic principle that state of residence (in that case, Malaysia) had the right to tax global income of its resident.

It was further argued that the decisions holding that income arising in state where permanent establishment was situated could be taxed in that state only and state of residence was precluded from taxing such income militated against the basics of DTAA and also were not consistent with ratio of the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) and therefore the ratio therein was not correctly applied in those cases. In all cases relied upon by the assessee, the tax payers were resident of India and there was no situation of dual residence. India remained state of residence and therefore India had inherent right to tax global income of its residents.

Decision in the case of Data Software Research Co. (P.) Ltd. (supra ) was cited to state that the facts therein were exactly the same as were in present case. Reliance was also placed on S. Mohan’s case (supra) in which interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ which was consistent with OECD Commentary had been taken. In that case, issue involved was taxability of salary income under Article 16(1) which used the phrase ‘may be taxable’ for the source state.

In a nutshell, according to the Revenue, if the assessee had paid taxes in foreign countries on income earned from PE in those countries, credit of those taxes could be claimed in India. Therefore, the crux of the controversy was whether India had given up its right to tax under Article 7 of any DTAA applicable to the assessee and if not, India shall give credit for taxes paid in country of source. To give an example, India had given up its right to tax capital gains arising in India to residents of Mauritius under Indo -Mauritius DTAA, but this was not the situation in case of DTAA applicable to present assessee. Reliance was also placed on Manpreet Singh Gambhir (supra) which had also been relied upon by the assessee. In that case, the ITAT had held that assessee was entitled to credit of taxes paid in USA on income earned in USA. Finally, it was prayed that the grounds of assessee’s be dismissed.

The tribunal on hearing the parties in detail and on perusal of the case laws relied upon, observed and held as under;

(i)    Since the assessee company was incorporated in India, the provisions of Income-tax Act, being a domestic law, were applicable to the assessee and all the incomes of the assessee, including the global income, were liable to be taxed in India.

(ii)    Section 5(1)(c) provided that the total income of any previous year of a person who was a resident, includes all income from whatever source derived which accrued or arose to him outside India during such year.

(iii)    As per the provisions of Income-tax Act, the assessee was a resident of India.

(iv)    Due to State of residency, India had inherent right to tax the global income of the assessee as per provisions of Section 5 of Income-tax Act, 1961.

(v)    The combined reading of the sentences of Article 7 of relevant DTAA meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attributable to permanent establishment. Such income may be taxed as per the domestic laws. The non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of state of residency to tax global income of its residents. In the circumstances, where the state of residence of the taxpayer had given up its inherent right to tax the global income, in such situation, the phrase used in Article 7 of the DTAA was “shall be taxable only”. Since all the DTAA applicable in the case of assessee the phrase used “may be taxed”, therefore, inherent right of taxation of global business income in India was not lost.

(vi)    Case laws relied upon by assessee were basically based on the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) where conclusions rested on the fact that the personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital asset were far closer in the State of Malaysia than in India. In view of these facts, the residency of India was held to be irrelevant and in that view of matter, issue was so decided. Assessee’s contention that its foreign income was taxable income in foreign countries and it could not be taxed in India was an untenable contention based on wrong interpretation of Article 7 of relevant DTAA.

(vii)    Only in the case of use of phrase “shall be taxed only”, the state of residence is precluded from taxing it. In such cases, where the phrase “may be taxed” was used, the state of residence had been given its inherent right to tax.

(viii)    The facts of assessee’s case were completely different from the set of facts in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra). In that case, assessee sought a relief under the India-Malaysia DTAA, and the Supreme Court held that it was a case of dual residency. The Supreme Court’s conclusion rested on the fact that personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital assets were far closer in Malaysia than in India and in those facts, the residence of India became irrelevant. The assessee was not having permanent establishment in India in respect of that source of income. On the aspect and scope of the expression “may be taxed”, the Supreme Court had not expressed any opinion. Thus, the facts of that case were completely at variance to the facts of assessee’s case.

(ix)    The facts of the several cases relied upon by the assessee were found to be at variance with the facts in the assessee’s case.

The tribunal therefore rejected the assessee’s appeal.

Observations
The controversy poses some very fundamental issues in taxation of an income from cross country transactions and is therefore surprising that it has been allowed to remain open for long. The issue is further fuelled by the Notification No.S.O. 2123(E) dated 28 August, 2008 wherein the Central Government, in exercise of its powers under section 90, has clarified that the term ‘ may be taxed’ used in the context of an income shall mean that such income shall be included in the total income chargeable to tax in India in accordance with the provisions of the Income tax Act, 1961, and relief shall be granted in accordance with the method for elimination or avoidance of double taxation provided in an agreement. A similar Notification bearing No.S.O. 2124(E) dated 28th August, 2008 has been issued under section 90A of the Act, the efficacy of which was tested recently by the tribunal in the case of Apollo Hospitality Pvt. Ltd.

The raging controversy requires immediate attention also for the fact that the Indian judiciary has taken a stand that is at variance with the international tax practice.

Internationally, two systems of taxation prevail for bringing to tax the profits arising on cross country transactions. One is Residence based taxation and another is Source based taxation. In the former, the Residence State has the primary right of taxation. Almost all countries follow the residence based taxation under which a country can tax its residents on their global income, wherever it is earned, while non-residents are taxed only on the income sourced inside the country. Such powers of taxation are enshrined in the domestic tax laws of a country. India largely follows the residence based taxation system, a fact that can be gathered from section 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Under a source based system, a country can tax a person, whether resident or non- resident, only on income sourced inside the country. A country following this system eliminates the need for any DTAA. It is because of the fact that the countries choose to tax a resident on his world income and the source country also needs to tax such an income, that a need arises for DTAA to eliminate double taxation of the same income.

The Model Conventions (MC), while prescribing the model agreements, rely on any of the two rules or adopt both of them to avoid double taxation. One is to allocate taxing rights between contracting states with respect to various kinds of incomes by adopting what is known as the ‘Distributive rule’ – taxing rights are distributed between contracting states. Exclusive rights to taxation in respect of certain incomes are given to one state and the other state is precluded from taxing those incomes and therefore double taxation is avoided. Generally, such exclusive rights are given to Residence State (see paragraph 19 of the OECD Commentary). The Source State is thereby prevented from taxing those items and double taxation is avoided. In the case of other items of income and capital, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. As regards two classes of income (dividends and interest), although both States are given the right to tax, the amount of tax that may be imposed in the State of source is limited.

The Second rule is to put the Residence State under an obligation to give either credit for taxes paid in the Source State or to exempt the income taxed in the Source State. These two rules have been explained in paragraph 19 of OECD commentary titled ‘Taxation of Income and Capital’. It is the stand of the Government of India that it follows credit method for relieving double taxation as a rule and departs from the said rule only under a specific writing to the contrary.

In respect of other types of income, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. The other state may also tax that income and depending upon taxing rights of Source state, incomes are classified into three categories as explained by paragraphs 20 to 23 of the OECD Commentary .

The scheme of taxation is divided in three categories; The first category includes Article 7, 8, 9 14,15, and 19, all of which provide that income shall be taxed only in the Residence State. The second category includes Article 6, 7, 15 ,16, 17, 18 and 20, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in the Source State. The third category includes Article 11, 12 ,13, 14 and 22, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in both the contracting states.

The distributive rules use the words, ‘shall be taxable only’, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. Interpretation of these phrases has been provided in paragraphs 6 and 7 of OECD Commentary. The commentary states that the use of words “shall be taxable only” in a Contracting State indicates an exclusive right to tax is given to one of the Contracting States; the words “shall be taxable only” in a contracting State preclude the other Contracting State from taxing. The State to which the exclusive right to tax is given is normally the Residence State, but in some Articles the exclusive right may be given to the Source State. For other items of income or capital, the attribution of the right to tax is not exclusive and the relevant Article then states that the income or capital in question “may be taxed”. Regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation is given to state of residence, though this is not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention uses the phrase “may be taxed’. At the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles uses phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gives simultaneous taxing rights to state of source. Thus, for these two items of income, no state is given exclusive right to tax.

At this place, it is to be noted that no single method or a uniform formula is adopted in drafting the tax treaties. Varied approaches are seen to be adopted to convey the mutual understandings of the countries that are party to such treaties. Even within the same treaty, different approaches are adopted for income with different characters. Even the intentions of the parties are conveyed through use of different words on different occasions. For example, paragraph 1 of Article 11 provides that dividend income may be taxed in the other contracting State, while paragraph 2 provides that dividend income may also be taxed in the State of residence. Similarly, Article 14(2) and Article 22 provide that income may be taxed in both the countries.

Article 7 of relevant MC provides that the profit of an enterprise of a contracting state shall be taxable only in that state, i.e Residence State, unless the en-terprise carried on business in other contracting state through a permanent establishment situated therein i.e., in the Source State. If the enterprise carried on business as aforesaid, the profits of the enterprises may be taxed in the other Contracting State, but only so much of them as was attributable directly or indirectly to that permanent establishment. The first part of the Article gives an exclusive right to the taxation of business income to the Residence State as the phrase used as “shall be taxable only”. The real debate is about the second part of the Article 7 where the words used are “may be taxed”. Does this part give exclusive right of taxation only to the Source State or does it give the right to the Residence State as well to tax such an income and while doing so to give credit for taxes paid in Source State? As noted, the OECD commentary as also the commentary by Klaus Vogel support the view that the Source State under Article 7 of MC has a non-exclusive right of taxation.

This position is accepted globally and countries tax the income in the hands of the resident in cases where the relevant Article uses the words ‘ may be taxed’, especially the income of the PE, though taxed in the Source State, and give credit for the taxes paid in the Source State.

It is time to take note of the developed law in India. Is the internationally accepted position ratified by the judiciary in India? The gist of the following decisions reveals the story;

(i)    The Karnataka High Court in the case of R.N. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508 in the context of Indo-Malaysian treaty held that the Malaysian in-come was not taxable in India once it was subject to tax in Malaysia. The court observed that “When a power is specifically recognised as vesting in one, exercise of such a power by others is to be read as not available; such a recognition of power with the Malaysian Government would take away the said power from the Indian Government; the agreement thus operates as a bar on the power of the Indian Government in the instant case. This bar would operate on sections 4 and 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, also.”

(ii)    In the case of Vr. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 (Mad.), the Madras High Court held that an occasion to deal with several cases involving taxation of income earned in Malaysia by Indian residents from different sources mainly capital gains, business income, dividend and interest. The relevant Articles of the said treaty dealing with income with different characteristics, all of them, provided that income may be taxed in Malaysia. In the context of the above facts, the Court held that express conferment of right to tax an income on one of the states conveyed an implied prohibition on the other state to tax the said income. The court observed that “The contention on behalf of the Revenue that wherever the enabling words such as “may be taxed” are used there is no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities exercising powers under the Act, from assessing the category or class of income concerned cannot be countenanced as of substance or merit. As rightly pointed out on behalf of the assessees, when referring to an obvious position such enabling form of language has been liberally used and the same cannot be taken advantage of by the Revenue to claim for it a right to bring to assessment the income covered by such clauses in the agreement, and the mandatory form of language has been used only where there is room or scope for doubts or more than one view possible, by identifying and fixing the position and placing it beyond doubt.” The Court accordingly held that none of the income above mentioned could be taxed in India even though the recipient of income was a resident under the Income Tax Act 1961.

(iii)    In Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd, 245 ITR 521 (Mad.), in the context of Article 7 of the DTAA between India and Sri Lanka, it was held that once an income of a company resident in India was liable to be taxed in Sri Lanka under the said DTAA, then such income could not have been taxed in India. Article 7 of the said DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise shall be taxed in the contracting state of which the enterprise was resident, unless it carried on the business in the other contracting state through a PE (Permanent Establishment) situated in that state.

(iv)    The Supreme Court in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar, 267 ITR 654 was required to examine the true meaning of the words ‘may be taxed’ used in different Articles of the DTAA with Malaysia, 107 ITR 36 (ST). The said case was filed by the revenue against the decision of the Madras High Court to which a reference was made out of the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT. The Special Bench of the ITAT and the High Court had held that income from a firm, resident of India, by way of capital gains on sale of immovable properties at Malaysia and business income from business of rubber estate in Malaysia was not taxable in India . The Madras High Court had rejected the contention of revenue in that case, to the effect that wherever the enabling words such as ‘may be taxed’ were used, there was no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities from assessing the income in India and had found such contention to be devoid of substance or merit. The Court had also found unsafe or unacceptable to apply the OECD Commentary, on MC 1977 as a guide or an aid for construction. Detailed arguments were made by the contesting parties in support of the rival contentions. The Supreme Court, for reasons different than those of the High Court, held that the income of the resident that was taxable in Malaysia was not taxable in India on the finding that the assessee firm in question was resident of Malaysia and not of India by applying the tie-breaker test contained in Article 4 of the said DTAA. The Court held that the Malaysian income was not taxable in India, unless the assessee firm had a PE in India. The Court refused to enter into an exercise in semantics as to whether the expression ‘may be’ meant allocation of power to tax or was only one of the options and it only granted the power to tax in that state and unless tax was imposed and paid, no relief could be sought. The review petition filed by the revenue against the decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court for inordinate delay and for want of any ground to entertain the petition, 300 ITR 5 (SC).

(v)    The Indore Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 299 ITR 143 (MP) held that dividend income earned by a resident of India, from a Malaysian company was not liable to tax in India. In view of this finding of the court, the other question as to whether such dividend income was taxable in India u/s. 5(i)(c) in the hands of the resident assessee, once it was taxed in Malaysia as per Article 11 of the DTAA, was considered by the Court in favor of the assessee. This decision of the MP High Court has been approved by the Supreme Court in the case reported in 300 ITR 1 (SC) by following the decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiair(supra). The Court approved the findings of the Madras High Court in the case of Vr.S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 wherein it was held that dividend income from a Malaysian company was not taxable in India.

(vi)    The AAR in S.Mohan, In Re, 294 ITR 177 (AAR) distinguished the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiair’s case to hold that income of an Indian resident by way of salary for services in Norway was taxable in India. It noted that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ in Article 16 made it possible to subject to tax such remuneration derived by a resident of India. It noted that the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in the contradistinction to the expression ‘shall be taxable’ and as such the right of taxation was available to both the contracting states for bringing to tax the employment income.

(vii)    The Bombay High Court recently in the case of Essar Oil Ltd, 345 ITR 443 (Bom.) dealt with a case of an Indian company with a PE in Oman. Interpreting Article 7 of the Indo-Oman DTAA, the court, following Kullandagan Chettiair’s decision, held that the profit earned by the company from the PE in Oman was to be excluded in computing income liable to Indian tax.

(viii)    In the case of Mideast India Ltd, 28 SOT 395 (Delhi), the assessee company, resident in India derived income from business operations in the USSR that were carried out through its PE in that country. The company had claimed that the said income was not taxable in India by virtue of Article 7(1) of the Indo-USSR treaty which provided that the profits derived through a PE by an Indian Enterprise, in the USSR may be taxed in the USSR only. The Tribunal, following the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiar’s case held that such income was not taxable in India. It observed that “The learned DR has also contended that although the final operative decision of the Special Bench of ITAT has been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the reasoning given by the Hon’ble Supreme Court while affirming the said decision is entirely different from the reasoning given by the Special Bench of the Tribunal. However, as rightly submitted by the learned counsel for the assessee, a perusal of the judgment of the Hon’ble Apex Court shows that there is nothing contained therein to indicate that the reasons given by the Special Bench of ITAT to come to a conclusion as it did were disapproved by the Hon’ble Supreme Court or the same were found to be inappropriate or incorrect… In our opinion, the decision of Special Bench of IT AT in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar (supra) thus still holds the field and the same being squarely on the point in issue involved in the present case and is binding on us, we respectfully follow the same and uphold the impugned order of the learned CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the Assessing Officer to the total income of the assessee on account of income earned by it in the form of profits of business earned in USSR which was entirely attributable to the permanent establishment in that country.”

(ix)    In Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), the tribunal on similar facts held that the income from PE in …………. earned by an Indian resident was taxable in India.

(x)    In Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd., the Chennai bench of the tribunal held that the income from capital gains from sale of shares of the Sri Lankan company by an Indian company was not taxable in India, in view of the Indian-Sri Lankan treaty which provided for taxing such an income in Sri Lanka only through the use of the words ‘may be taxed’. The tribunal rejected the contention of the revenue that the term ‘ may be taxed’ indicated the non-exclusive right of taxation of the Sri Lankan Government in view of the Notification issued in 2008 u/s 90A. It noted that section 90A had a limited application to certain jurisdictions and did not apply to nations. The revenue made a wrong reference, and should have relied on the no-tification issued u/s 90 of the Act, which was not brought to the notice of the Tribunal.

It is apparent from a reading of the above decisions that the income of a PE in the hands of a person resident in India, is taxable in the Source State only and cannot be subjected to tax in India.

There is accordingly a clear cut divide between the international tax practice and the Indian one. The case in support of the Indian understanding is unambiguous and clear, when it comes to treaties containing Articles with use of both the phrases, namely, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. This confirms that wherever the countries intended, they have provided for specific right on Residence State by inserting an additional phrase ‘may also be taxed’ to secure the right of the taxation for the Residence State. This by implication confirms that the Article using the phrase ‘may be taxed’ alone confers an exclusive right of taxation on the Source State. In such a case, the income from Source state will not be taxed in India. This is best brought out by the learned members in Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case. The tribunal in that case has relied upon the contextual interpretation to hold that the Source State had an exclusive right of taxation. In the India Canada treaty, wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they have specifically so provided and this fact clearly confirms that wherever it was not so provided, there arose an exclusive right in favour of the Source State even where the phrase used is “may be taxed in other State”.

As regards the treaties where such a clear cut distinc-tion is not possible by use of the two phraseologies, one will still be supported by a good number of decisions, including that of the high courts, which have taken a view that the Source State alone has an exclusive right of taxation. Some of these decisions, mainly in Mutthaiah and Vr. S.R.M.’s cases, have been delivered independent of the Kulandagan Chettiar’s decision and have provided the sound rationale for doing so. They may also rely upon the decision of the Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar , though the validity of the said decision may be debatable in view of the fact that the said decision may be treated as the one delivered on facts rendered, irrelevant by the Supreme court.

Whether the Notifications issued under section 90(3) and 90A(3) by the Government under the valid powers can be binding or not is another hurdle one will have to pass through, before heaving a sigh of relief. The Notifications, if found to be binding with retrospective effect, will take the steam out of most of the decisions. The recent insertion of explanation 3 to section 90 by the Finance Act 2012, with effect from 1st October 2009, provides that such notifications shall come into force from the date on which the DTAA was entered into. The issue is whether one country, out of two countries which have signed the DTAA, can independently assign its own meaning to the DTAA. It is felt that it may be difficult for the Government to support the validity of the concerned notification, as the same may be considered to provide a meaning that is inconsistent with the provisions of the agreement.

“Used for the purposes of business or profession” for depreciation u/s 32

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The controversy sought to be discussed herein fails to die down and one finds that the same continues to be relevant more so in view of the conflicting judicial views.

The general scheme of the Act is, that income is to be charged regardless of the exhaustion or diminution in the value of capital. To this principle of taxation, an exception is afforded by section 32, wherein an allowance is provided in respect of depreciation on the value of certain capital assets in computing the profits and gains of business or profession u/s. 28 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’).

The relevant part of section 32 of the Act is reproduced below for ease in understanding and ready reference in context of controversy to be discussed:

“32(1) In respect of depreciation of –

 (i) Buildings, machinery, plant or furniture, being tangible assets;

(ii) Know-how, patents, copyrights…. or any other business or commercial rights of similar nature, being intangible assets, acquired on or after the 1st day of April, 1988, owned, wholly or partly, by the assessee and used for the purpose of the business or profession, the following deductions shall be allowed……”

Section 32 while conferring the benefit on the assessee, lays down two conditions to be satisfied by an assessee .These two conditions are, firstly, that the asset must be owned by the assessee and, secondly, the asset must be used for the purpose of business or profession of the assessee.

Pradip Kapasi Gautam Nayak Ankit Virendra Sudha Shah Chartered Accountants Controversies Therefore, ownership and usage of the asset by the assessee for the purpose of the business and profession are the pre-requisites for grant of depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act.

The controversy revolves around the determination of the event in point of time when the asset under consideration can be said to be ‘used’ for the purpose of business or profession. Conflicting decisions of the Courts are available on the subject wherein Delhi, Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana, Madras, Calcutta and Gauhati High Courts have supported the view that an asset which is owned and is kept ready for use should be eligible for grant of depreciation even where the same is actually not used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “passive user of asset”] while the Bombay, Karnataka and Gujarat High Courts have held that not only the asset should be owned by the assessee, but the same should be actually used during the year [hereinafter referred to as “actual user of asset”].

Oswal Agro Mills case

Recently, the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Oswal Agro Mills Ltd. and Anr (supra) (‘the company’) had an occasion to deal with the aforesaid issue under consideration, wherein a question arose for grant of depreciation in respect of assets in the unit of the assessee company at Bhopal, which remained closed throughout the year. The AO denied the claim for depreciation in respect of assets of Bhopal unit of the assessee company on the ground that it was closed throughout the year, which was upheld by the CIT(A) on appeal by the assessee. The Delhi Tribunal, however, reversed the findings of the lower authorities, after considering the submissions of the assessee and held as under:

  • The Bhopal unit remained dormant and could not function due to various reasons and the Revenue could not bring on record that this unit was finally closed or sold out in succeeding years;
  •  That revenue could not controvert that this unit did not form part of the block of assets;
  • If any of the part of the block of assets was not used during the year, but remaining part of the block of assets was in continuous use, then assessee was entitled for the depreciation on the entire block of assets; and
  • If the assessee’s unit was temporarily closed for a year or so and its commercial activities were in lull for that period, then assessee could not be deprived from its claim of depreciation unless and until, it was proved that the assessee had closed its business forever and had no intention of reviving the same.

On further appeal by the Revenue before the Delhi High Court, the Court after referring to the conflicting judgements of other High Courts as referred to above, opined in principle that the passive user of the asset was also recognised as user for the purpose of expression ‘asset used for the purpose of business or profession.’ After relying on its own decisions on the subject, the Court held that even when an asset was not used for certain reason in the concerned assessment year but was kept ready for use, in such a case, assessee should not be denied the claim for depreciation.

For the sake of completeness, as to the facts, in the aforesaid case on facts, the assessee failed to prove that the assets were ready for use, since the assets under consideration were not used for number of years. Even then, the assessee was allowed depreciation on the impugned assets by applying the ‘block of assets’ concept which was brought by the Legislature in section 2(11) of the Act w.e.f. 1st April 1988 vide Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1986 where the grant of depreciation, additions and deletion of assets are considered qua the block of assets and not qua the individual assets. In other words, the High Court held that since the impugned assets had lost their individual identities under the block of asset concept, and therefore, it was not possible to disallow depreciation qua the individual assets of Bhopal unit, once such assets entered the block of assets. Further, the Court also observed that the Revenue would not be put to any loss by adopting such method and allowing depreciation, since whenever the assets at Bhopal unit were sold, it would result in short term capital gain, which would be exigible to tax.

The High Court accordingly agreed that the depreciation was allowed where the asset was ready for use, but allowed the claim of the company for grant of depreciation based on ‘block of assets’ concept as referred to above.

Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case

 In a short judgement by the Bombay High Court in the case of Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal (‘the assessee’) v. CIT and Anr (supra) with limited facts on record, the Court held that the word ‘used’ in s. 32 denoted actually used and not merely ready to use. The assessee submitted before the Court that, since the vehicle was ready to use for the purpose of business even though not actually used, should be allowed claim of depreciation placing reliance on the earlier Bombay High Court decision in the case of Whittle Anderson Ltd. vs CIT (79 ITR 613). The Bombay High Court distinguished the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd (supra) on the ground that in the said case, the Court was concerned with the interpretation of the terms ‘use’ or ‘used’ and further referred to an amendment in section 32 of the Act, post the decision of Whittle Anderson Ltd. Inserted for clarifying that the expression ‘used’ meant actually used for the purpose of the business and accordingly upheld the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in disallowing the claim of depreciation on vehicles kept ready for use.

In a further development, the assessee’s Special Leave Petition (‘SLP’) before the Apex Court reported in 266 ITR (St.) 106 was also dismissed by the Supreme court with the following observations:

“Dismissed
The Bombay High Court in view of the amendment to section 32 held that the expression “used” meant actually used for the purpose of business and upheld the Tribunal’s order that the assessee was not entitled to claim benefit of depreciation on assets not actually used though kept ready to use. [ITA No. 2 of 2001, dt. 9 Jan 2003]”

Before we provide our observations as regard to controversy under consideration, it would be necessary to discuss the relevance of SLP being dismissed and/or rejected and its implications on the order under appeal in the context of doctrine of merger and precedence. The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court to entertain a review petition once a SLP before SC is dismissed, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •    Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or af-firming the order put in issue before it;

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against, while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •    An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and

–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings sub-sequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;

–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

In light of above relevant findings of the Supreme Court, it may be concluded that even though SLP to Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal case was dismissed, irrespective whether being speaking or non-speaking order, it would not be binding as res judicata and/or binding on other parties or serve as doctrine of merger to subsequent proceedings between the parties thereto.

Observations
Upon perusing the provisions of section 32 of the Act and the legislative history thereof, one finds that the word “used” was in the statute from its inception and there has been no change brought in the said section except by the second proviso to section 32 inserted vide Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991 and further substituted by the Income-tax (Amendment) Act, 1998 to its present form, which reads as under:

“Provided further that where an asset referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iia), as the case may be, is acquired by the assessee during the previous year and is put to use for the purpose of business or profession for a period of less than one hundred-eighty days in that previous year, the deduction under this sub-section in respect of such asset shall be restricted to fifty percent of the amount calculated at the percentage prescribed for an asset under clause ……………”

In Dineshkumar Gulabchand Agrawal’s case (supra), the Bombay High Court found that subsequent to the earlier law as laid down in Whittle Anderson Ltd v. CIT(supra), there has been an amendment to section 32 of the Act in context of the word “used” and so earlier decision as relied upon by the assessee had no application. The Bombay High Court as well as the Supreme Court, while ruling, did not provide any reference to the amendment carried out in the expression “used”. It is also not possible for a reader to fathom the above referred amendment out from a plain reading of the said decision.

It may not be incorrect to hold, in the circumstances, that an erroneous presumption was made by the court which error formed the basis of the decision. It may also be correct to presume that neither this error was pointed out to the court by the assessee nor was it pointed out to the apex court. In the alternative, though not expressly referred to by the court, one may gather that the Bombay High Court was probably referring to the expression “put to use” that is referred to in the second proviso to section 32 of the Act. According to the second proviso to section 32 of the Act, if the assets acquired during the previous year are put to use for less than 180 days, then depreciation is restricted to 50% of the depreciation as otherwise available for the whole year.

Surely, the stipulation in the proviso could not have the effect of curtailing the scope of the main provision, unless specifically provided for. Again, had that been the intention, the main provision could have been amended simultaneously, more so where the controversy was fairly known to all concerned. It may be inappropriate to restrict the scope of the term ‘used’ found in the main provision by gathering the meaning thereof from the proviso, which again has been introduced for the limited purpose of restricting the quantum of depreciation and not for the disallowance thereof. Accordingly, even in the context of the proviso, it is not possible to hold that the eligibility of depreciation under the main provision of section 32 is based on actual user of the asset. The courts have consistently upheld the claim of the assessee on being satisfied with readiness of the asset for its use. This view has been unanimously upheld by all the courts including the Bombay high court for the period prior to the amendment and does not require any change on account of the proviso.

The said proviso otherwise is found to be relevant only for the first year of claim of depreciation and has been found to be inapplicable once the identity of the asset is merged with that of the block of assets. Once in the block, it is not possible to seggregate an asset for disallowance, nor it is possible to determine the written down value of an individual asset that is believed to have not been used for the year.

The Act has used several terms surrounding the user. For example; used, wholly used, put to use and partly used. It has also used the term ‘actually’ wherever required, for example in section 43B where actual payment is desired. All these clearly show that the Act would have provided for in clear terms, that the asset should have been actually used, if the intention was to restrict the depreciation to such user only. In the absence of the condition to ‘actually’ use the asset, it is apt that a wider meaning is given to the term ‘used’ as was given by the Bombay high court in the case of CIT v. Vishwanath Bhaskar Sathe, 5 ITR 621.

The expression “put to use” in a general sense may otherwise also mean and include an asset that is ready for use. In many cases, an asset is not actually used during the year, but is kept ready for use. For example, standby plant and machinery, step-ins, spare parts, etc. Further, in many cases like strike, lock out, flood, fire,etc., the assets cannot be actually used, even if desired. In these cases, though the assets are not actually used during the previous year, even then depreciation is not denied considering the intention to use such assets. It is, therefore ,appropriate to hold that the user of asset should signify all such cases where an asset is kept ready for use for the purpose of business or profession.

This view also finds support from the the Circular No. 621 of 1991 (supra), which attempts to match the claim of the depreciation with the income offered for taxation. Once the assessee has derived income from business to which the said asset belongs, the claim for depreciation should not unreasonably be withheld.

The intention of the legislature cannot be gathered from the proviso introduced at a much later date with the limited effect of reducing the quantum of the claim of depreciation and not for denying the same altogether.

An asset is depreciated for several factors and user is just one of them. Therefore, to deny the claim for depreciation simply for non user is otherwise not very appealing. The position at the most can be held to be debatable and where it is debatable, the view beneficial to the assessee should be adopted especially in interpreting the incentive provisions, like, depreciation.

The Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed & Ors. Vs State of Kerala & Anr. (245 ITR 360) while considering the jurisdiction of High Court in cases where a SLP on the same issue is dismissed by the Supreme court, observed as under:

  •     Where an appeal or revision is provided against an order passed by a Court, Tribunal or any other authority before superior forum and such superior forum modifies, reverses or affirms the decision put in issue before it, the decision by the subordinate forum merges in the decision by the superior forum and it is the latter which subsists, remains operative and is capable of enforcement in the eye of law;

  •     The jurisdiction conferred by Article 136 of the Constitution of India is divisible into two stages. First stage is upto the disposal of prayer for special leave to file an appeal. The second stage commences if and when the leave is granted and SLP is converted into an appeal;

  •     Doctrine of merger is not a doctrine of universal or unlimited application. It will depend on the nature of jurisdiction exercised by the superior forum and the content or subject-matter of challenge laid or capable of being laid, shall be determinative of the applicability of merger. The superior jurisdiction should be capable of reversing, modifying or affirming the order put in issue before it;   

  •     Under Article 136 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court may reverse, modify or af-firm the judgement, decree or order appealed against while exercising its appellate jurisdiction and not while exercising the discretionary jurisdiction disposing of petition for special leave to appeal. The doctrine for merger can, therefore, be applied to former and not to the latter;

  •     An order refusing special leave to appeal may be a non-speaking order or a speaking one. In either case, it does not attract doctrine of merger. An order refusing special leave to appeal does not stand substituted in place of the order under challenge. All that it means is, that the Court was not inclined to exercise its discretion so as to allow the appeal being filed;

  •     If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order ie gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications:

–    Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by Supreme Court within the meaning of Article 141 of Constitution of India; and
–    Secondly, other than the declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme
Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceedings subsequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the apex court of the country;
–    But this does not amount to saying that the order of Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of Supreme Court rejecting SLP or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.

Once an asset entered in to the block of assets, in view of the findings of the Delhi High Court in Oswal Agro Mills Ltd’s case (supra), the “user” shall be relevant only in the year of entry of asset into the block, because once it enters the block, it is neither possible nor necessary to consider whether each asset in the block has been used during the subsequent years.

FINALITY OF PROCEEDINGS

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Issue for consideration: A lapse in a completed
assessment can be cured by the Assessing Officer by resorting to the
rectification or reassessment proceedings depending upon the nature of
the lapse. The remedy available to the Assessing Officer permits him to
proceed u/s.147 or u/s.154 for repairing the damage caused in assessing
the total income.

The existence of the information for the
belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment is the sine
qua non for reopening the assessment u/s.147 and discovery of an error
apparent on the record is the sine qua non for rectification u/s.154 of
the Act. These provisions are to be invoked in different circumstances,
but there can be situations where they overlap, and the AO can have
recourse to one or the other.

It is common to come across cases
where an Assessing Officer, faced with the dilemma of choosing between
the two remedies, decides to prefer one over the other and later on
drops the first and proceeds under the second. For example, an Assessing
Officer, dropping the proceedings u/s.154 initiated for curing the
lapse, later on initiates fresh proceedings u/s.147 for curing the same
lapse.

The question that arises in such circumstances is about
the validity of the second proceedings, having once exercised the option
available under the law and thereafter choosing to proceed under the
second option.

The Madras High Court has held that an option
once exercised attains finality and the Assessing Officer is barred from
availing the second remedy. However, The Kerala High Court recently has
held that there is no prohibition on an Assessing Officer proceeding
under the second remedy after dropping the first.

E.I.D. Parry
Limited’s case: The issue arose before the Madras High Court in the case
of CIT v. E.I.D. Parry Ltd., 216 ITR 489. In that case, the assessee, a
company, submitted its income-tax returns for the years 1968-69 and
1969- 70, which were, after enquiry, accepted by the AO and it was
accordingly assessed and subjected to tax. The AO reopened the
proceedings u/s.147(b) of the IT Act by issuing a notice u/s.148 and
substantially changed the assessments, resulting in a demand for tax, on
the basis of the finding that substantial income had escaped
assessment. Pending the adjudication of the appeal by the assessee, the
AO, not satisfied with the reopening u/s.147 and notwithstanding the
pendency of the appeal, took recourse to proceedings for rectification
of mistake u/s.154 of the Act, allegedly for rectification of mistake
apparent from the record.

The High Court observed that the
provisions for rectification of an error apparent from the record and
that for bringing to tax an escaped income were common features in the
tax laws, and they were to be invoked in different circumstances; that
the AO could have recourse to one or the other, but he must have
recourse to the appropriate provision having regard to the facts and
circumstances of each case; that in cases where the two appear to
overlap, the AO must choose one in preference to the other and proceed;
that the AO should not take one as the appropriate proceeding and give
it up at a later stage to have recourse to the other, since such
proceedings were quasi judicial and were intended for the same purpose.

The
Court held that in a case of overlapping remedies, constructive res
judicata and not the statutory inhibition, should make the AO desist
from using one proceeding after the other, instead of using one of the
two with due care and caution. Accordingly, the proceedings for
rectification u/s.154, initiated subsequent to reassessment proceedings
u/s.147, were held to be invalid and not sustainable in law.

India
Sea Foods’ case: The issue again came up for consideration of the
Kerala High Court recently, in ITA No. 128 of 2010 in the case of the
CIT v. India Sea Foods and was adjudged by the High Court vide its order
dated 17th January, 2011. In that case, the question raised in the
appeal filed by the Revenue was whether the AO could give up
rectification proceedings initiated u/s.154 and then proceed u/s.147 of
the Income-tax Act for the same assessment year on the ground that
income had escaped assessment.

In that case the return filed by
the assessee was processed u/s.143(1) and the deduction claimed on
export profit u/s.80HHC was allowed in terms of the claim. The AO later
noticed that excessive relief was granted while computing deduction
u/s.80HHC and, to repair the damage, he initiated the rectification
proceedings u/s.154 for withdrawal of the excess relief by issue of a
notice to the assessee u/s.154(3) of the Act. The AO did not proceed
with the rectification proceedings on receipt of the objections from the
assessee challenging the maintainability of the proceedings u/s.154,
inter alia, on the ground that there was no mistake apparent from the
record. The AO however, later on issued a notice u/s.148 proposing to
bring to tax the escaped income on account of the excess relief granted
u/s.80HHC of the Act.

In the course of the reassessment
proceedings initiated u/s.147, the assessee raised various objections,
including about the maintainability of the reopening u/s.147, by relying
on the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT v. E.I.D. Parry Ltd.
(supra). The AO overruled the objections and withdrew the excess relief
in the order of reassessment, against which the assessee filed an
appeal. The CIT (Appeals) allowed the appeal against which Revenue filed
appeal before the Tribunal. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal, by
upholding the finding of CIT (Appeals) based on the decision of the
Madras High Court to the effect that, after initiation of rectification
proceedings u/s.154, the AO did not have the jurisdiction to proceed to
reassess the escaped income u/s.147 of the Act. The Revenue preferred an
appeal before the Kerala High Court against the order of the Tribunal.

The
Court noted that there was no dispute that the notice u/s.148 was
issued within time and the reassessment also was completed u/s.147
within the statutory period. The question to be considered was whether
the initiation of proceedings u/s.154 and the dropping of the same
affected the validity of re-assessment u/s.147.

The Kerala High
Court expressed its inability to uphold the principle of constructive
res judicata invoked by the Madras High Court in income tax proceedings
for invalidating the subsequent proceedings initiated by the AO
successively. The Court held that the fact that the AO initiated
rectification proceedings u/s.154 did not mean that he should stick to
the same only, and proceed to issue orders as proposed; that the very
purpose of issuing a notice to the assessee was to give him an
opportunity to raise objection against the proceeding which included the
assessee’s right to question the maintainability of the rectification
proceedings. If the assessee convinced the Officer that rectification
was not permissible, the AO was absolutely free to give up the same and
see whether there was any other recourse open to him to achieve the
purpose i.e., to bring to tax the escaped income.

The Kerala High Court was unable to uphold the findings of the first Appellate Authority or the order of the Tribunal on the issue before it, as, in its view, if an assessment happened to be an under-assessment or a mistaken order, the course open to the AO was either to rectify the assessment if it was a mistake falling u/s.154 or to resort to section 147 for bringing to tax an income that had escaped assessment. The Court held that both these provisions were self-contained provisions, wherein conditions for invoking the powers, the procedure to be followed and the time limit within which orders were to be passed, were specified.

The Court allowed the appeal of the Revenue by vacating the orders of the Tribunal and that of the first Appellate Authority and restoring the order of reassessment passed by the AO.

Observations:

The Income-tax Act contains many instances wherein an aggrieved party is provided with alternative remedies, not all of which are mutually exclusive, for redressing the grievance. Depending upon the circumstances, the party has to select the most appropriate remedy. Each of the remedies, by and large, is self-contained and provides for the circumstances and the mechanism for availing the recourse thereunder. Most of them do not contain any overriding provision or a non-obstante clause, eliminating the possibility of the alternative course of action. All of them, without exception, however contain the circumstances in which the recourse under the particular provision is made available, and a failure to satisfy the terms of the provision disentitles the person from availing the benefit of the said provision.

The existence of the information for the belief that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment is the sine qua non for reopening an assessment u/s.147 and the discovery of a mistake apparent from the record is the sine qua non for a rectification u/s.154 of the Act. Usually, these provisions are to be invoked in different circumstances, but there can be situations where they overlap and the AO has the option to take recourse to one or the other. In choosing a particular remedy under the circumstances, the AO is expected to make an intelligent choice as an authority vested with the important power of assessing the total income of an assessee. The choice should be based on an application of mind and should be made after giving due weightage to the facts and circumstances of the case. The option should not be exercised in a routine manner.

In cases where recourse is open to the Assessing Officer to bring to tax escaped income, either by rectification or by way of reassessing the income that has escaped assessment, it is for the officer to choose between one of the two and proceed to pass one order. The AO cannot issue two proceedings, one u/s.154 and the other u/s.147.

The objective of the AO should be to avoid burdening an assessee with multiplicity of proceedings and to ensure that no undue harassment is caused to the assessee; first, on account of the failure to frame a proper order of assessment, followed by another failure to choose the right remedy under the law for repairing the damage caused by the first failure. It is this series of failures that has led the Courts to invoke the principle of constructive res judicata in favour of the assessee, to ensure a kind of disciplined approach, found routinely wanting, in the persons administering the provisions of the Income-tax Act.

There is a judicial acceptance of the principle that the proceedings for assessment of total income cannot be allowed to continue endlessly, and all litigation has to be brought to an end at the earliest possible time, and cannot be allowed to be pursued by resorting to the different provisions, otherwise made available, in succession of each other. Such a witch -hunt is found to be undesirable by the Courts. By resorting to the principle of constructive res judicata, the Courts have tried to bring some semblance of discipline in to the administration of the law.

Having said that, the principle of res judicata is not applicable to proceedings under the Income-tax Act. Therefore, warranting an application of constructive res judicata demands presence of such extraneous circumstances as leave the Court with no option but to invoke constructive res judicata to bring to an end the multiplicity of the proceedings caused by the non-application of mind.

DEDUCTIBILITY OF ADVANCE PAYMENTS – Section 43B

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Issue for consideration
Section 43B of the Income Tax Act provides that certain deductions shall be allowed only in that previous year in which the specified sum is actually paid , irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred according to the method of accounting regularly employed by the assessee. It basically applies to taxes, duties, cess, or fees, contributions to provident funds, superannuation funds, gratuity funds, interest on loans or borrowings from financial institutions or banks and leave encashment.

This section, which was inserted with effect from assessment year 1984-85, to the extent relevant for our discussion, reads as under:

43B. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other provision of this Act, a deduction otherwise allowable under this Act in respect of—

(a) any sum payable by the assessee by way of tax, duty, cess or fee, by whatever name called, under any law for the time being in force, or

(b) any sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution to any provident fund or superannuation fund or gratuity fund or any other fund for the welfare of employees, or

(c) any sum referred to in clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 36, or

(d) any sum payable by the assessee as interest on any loan or borrowing from any public financial institution or a State financial corporation or a State industrial investment corporation, in accordance with the terms and conditions of the agreement governing such loan or borrowing, or

(e) any sum payable by the assessee as interest on any loan or advances from a scheduled bank in accordance with the terms and conditions of the agreement governing such loan or advances, or

(f) any sum payable by the assessee as an employer in lieu of any leave at the credit of his employee,

shall be allowed (irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee according to the method of accounting regularly employed by him) only in computing the income referred to in section 28 of that previous year in which such sum is actually paid by him :

Provided that nothing contained in this section shall apply in relation to any sum which is actually paid by the assessee on or before the due date applicable in his case for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of section 139 in respect of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred as aforesaid and the evidence of such payment is furnished by the assessee along with such return.

Explanation 2 to section 43B provides that for the purposes of clause (a), “any sum payable” means a sum for which the assessee incurred liability in the previous year, even though such sum may not have been payable within that year under the relevant law.

Therefore, in respect of the specified sums , even if the liability has been incurred, but payment has not been made, the deduction would not be allowable in the year in which the liability is incurred, but would be allowable in the year of payment.

The section begins with a non-obstante clause that has the effect of overriding the provisions of the Act . It further states that a deduction otherwise allowable in respect of the specified sums will be allowed in the year of actual payment.

A controversy has arisen in respect of a converse type of situation where the payment has been made, but liability to pay has not yet been incurred, particularly in respect of taxes which are covered by clause (a). While the Kerala High Court has taken the view that the deduction would not be allowable in the year of payment if the liability has not been incurred as per the method of accounting, the Calcutta, Punjab & Haryana and Delhi High Courts have taken a contrary view to the effect that the deduction would be allowable u/s 43B in the year of payment, even if the liability to pay tax or duty was incurred in the next year under the mercantile system of accounting followed by the assessee. A related controversy has also arisen for allowance of deduction, in the year of payment, though the liability to pay the same may not have arisen under the relevant statute governing the expenditure in the year of payment. The special bench of the ITAT favours the grant of allowance in the year of actual payment.

Kerala solvent extractions’ case
The issue arose before the Kerala High Court in the case of CIT v. Kerala Solvent Extractions, 306 ITR 54.

In this case, pertaining to assessment year 1994-95, the assessee which was following the mercantile method of accounting, made an additional payment of Rs. 23 lakhs towards sales tax payable for April 1994. This amount was claimed as a deduction for the year ended 31st March 1994. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim u/s 143(1)(a), since it was specifically stated in the accounts accompanying the return that the amount paid was towards sales tax for April 1994.

The assessee’s appeal against the disallowance was allowed by the Commissioner(Appeals), who held that the disallowance of the amount paid towards advance sales tax was a debatable point. The Tribunal confirmed the order of the Commissioner(Appeals).

Before the Kerala High Court, it was argued on behalf of the Revenue that sales tax liability payable in April 1994 was not an allowable deduction u/s 37(1) r.w.s 145. It was argued that the claim was not allowable as the assessee had not incurred expenditure, and that unless the amount paid was the liability of the assessee for the previous year, it could not be allowed, no matter whether the assessee had paid it or not. On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that the tax having been paid in the previous year, though not a liability of the year, was an allowable deduction under clause (a) of section 43B read with explanation 2.

The Kerala High Court observed that it was not in dispute that the sales tax liability of the assessee was an allowable deduction in the computation of income from business by virtue of section 29 r.w.s 37(1), that income chargeable under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” was to be computed in accordance with either cash or mercantile system of accounting regularly employed by the assessee, that the assessee was following the mercantile system of accounting and that like any other liability, sales tax liability should be claimed and allowed on mercantile basis. It was also undisputed that the sales tax liability of Rs. 23 lakh pertained to April 1994, which fell in the next financial year, and that u/s 145, the assessee was not entitled to deduction of this amount in the earlier year of payment.

According to the Kerala High Court, the issue was whether section 43B entitled the assessee to deduction of liability of the next financial year merely because the amount was paid by the assessee during the previous year relevant to the assessment year. The Kerala High Court observed that words of section 43B showed that the section dealt with deductions otherwise allowable under the provisions of the Act, and that the section only laid down the conditions for eligibility for deduction of certain al-lowances which were otherwise admissible under the Act. According to the Kerala High Court, the scheme of section 43B was to allow the deductions referred to in clauses (a) to (f) only on payment basis, even though the assessee was following the mercantile method of accounting. In other words, section 43B was an exception to section 145, inas-much as even if the claim was allowable deduction based on the system of accounting, it would still be inadmissible u/s 43B if it was not paid on or before the end of the relevant previous year, or at least before the date of filing of the return. The Kerala High Court therefore held that section 43B was only supplementary to section 145 and was only an additional condition for allowance of deductions otherwise allowable under the other provisions of the Act.

The Kerala High Court, on examination of the scheme of the sales tax, noted that under the scheme, the liability for payment of sales tax arose on the due date of filing of the monthly returns and the final return and the liability therefore arose only on due date of filing of the return. Under this scheme, if the assessee remitted any amount in the financial year towards tax payable for any month of the next financial year, this amount did not constitute tax liability of the assessee for that previous year, but would be carried as an amount of tax paid in advance for the next year, and would be adjusted towards tax liability for that year. If the assessee discontinued business, it was entitled to get refund of the tax paid in the earlier year.

According to the Kerala High Court, explanation 2 to section 43B did not justify the claim of the assessee for deduction because even under that provision, only liability incurred by the assessee during the previous year was allowable on payment basis. What the explanation contemplated was incurring of liability by the assessee in the previous year, though the amount was not payable during the previous year under the relevant law. The Kerala High Court noted that so far as sales tax was concerned, it was a tax on sale or purchase of a commodity. Since the liability arose under the statute and the payment was not towards tax due for the previous year or payable in that year, the assessee was not entitled to claim deduction u/s 29 r.w.s 37(1) and 145.

The Kerala High Court therefore held that the asses-see was not entitled to the deduction in the year of payment, and further confirmed that the payment of sales tax was prima facie disallowable, and hence upheld the disallowance u/s 143(1).

Paharpur cooling towers’ case

The issue again came up recently before the Calcutta High Court in the case of Paharpur Cooling Towers Ltd v. CIT, 244 CTR 502.

In this case, for assessment year 1996 -97, the assessee paid a sum of Rs. 3.22 crore on account of excise duty, the liability for payment of which was incurred in the previous year relevant to assessment year 1997- 98. The assessee claimed deduction in respect of the amount actually paid by it during the previous year ended 31st March 1996 in the assessment for assessment year 1996-97, u/s 43B.

The assessing officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for deduction of the excise duty paid on the ground that the liability for such excise duty was not incurred during the previous year relevant to assessment year 1996-97. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the appellant’s claim for deduction of excise duty. The tribunal allowed the appeal of the revenue against the order of the Commissioner(Appeals), upholding the disallowance of such advanced payment of excise duty.

The Calcutta High Court observed that the requirement of section 43B(a) was that the assessee must have actually paid the amount, as well as incurred liability in the previous year for the payment, even though such sum may not have been payable within that year under the relevant law. The court noted that the assessee had undoubtedly paid the duty in the previous year and such payment was made consequent upon the liability incurred in the very year, but in view of the fact that it followed the mercantile system of accounting, the amount was legally payable in the next year. According to the High Court, the amount therefore was clearly covered by section 43B read with explanation 2.

The High Court further noted that the position would have been different if the amount was not paid in the previous year, in which case the assessee would not have been eligible to get the benefit. The object of the legislature was to give the benefit of deduction of tax, duty, etc. only on payment of such amount, liability of which the assessee had incurred and not otherwise. Even if the tax or duty was payable in the next year in view of the system of accounting followed by the assessee, according to the Calcutta High Court, if the liability was ascertained in the previous year and the tax was also paid in that same year, there was no scope of depriving the assessee of the benefit of deduction of such amount.

The Calcutta High Court, after analysing the reasons for introduction of section 43B, stated that it was never the intention of the legislature to deprive the assessee of the benefit of deduction of tax, duty, etc, actually paid by him during the previous year, although in advance, according to the method of accounting followed by him. The Calcutta High Court observed that, if the reasoning given by the tribunal were accepted, an advance payer of tax, duty, etc payable in accordance with the method of accounting followed by him would not be entitled to get the benefit even in the next year when liability to pay would accrue in accordance with the method of accounting followed by him, because the benefit of section 43B was given on the basis of actual payment made in the previous year.

The Calcutta High Court therefore held that the advance excise duty paid was allowable as a deduction in the year of payment, though the liability to pay such duty arose in the subsequent year as per the method of accounting employed by the assessee.

A similar view was taken by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Modipon Ltd (No 2) 334 ITR 106, as well as by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v Raj and San Deeps Ltd 293 ITR 12, again in the context of excise duty paid in advance.

Observations

The dispute is two fold. In claiming deduction based on actual payment while computing the total income of the year payment, whether it is necessary that the liability to pay the specified sum has arisen (a) under the respective statute governing the expenditure and(b) under the method of accounting employed by the assessee. The Revenue’s case is that for an allowance of deduction, it is essential that three conditions are satisfied; liability under the governing statute, liability under the method of accounting and the actual payment. It is only on compliance of all the three conditions that an assessee shall be entitled to a valid claim of deduction. In contrast, the assesses are of the view that the only condition necessary for a valid deduction is the actual payment and once that is proved the claim cannot be frustrated.

The purpose behind the introduction of section 43B, and the reasons for introduction of Explanation 2 are narrated by the Explanatory Memorandum reported in 176 ITR (St) 123. It states that the objective of section 43B is to provide for a tax disincentive by denying deduction in respect of a statutory liability which is not paid in time. The first proviso to section 43B was introduced to rule out the hardship caused to certain taxpayers who had represented that since the sales tax for the last quarter cannot be paid within the previous year, the original provisions of section 43B would unnecessarily involve disallowance of the payment for the last quarter. The Memorandum further states that certain courts had interpreted the words “any sum payable” to the effect that the amount payable in a particular year should also be statutorily payable under the relevant statute in the same year. This was against the legislative intent and it was therefore being proposed, by way of a clarificatory amendment and for removal of doubts, that the words “any sum payable” be defined to mean any sum, liability for which had been incurred by the taxpayer during the previous year, irrespective of the date by which such sum was statutorily payable.

The language of the provision specifically provides for overriding or ignoring the method of accounting. Once that is done, there is no enabling provision found in the section that requires looking back to the method of accounting for ascertaining the eligibility of the deduction, otherwise. The only requirement is to ascertain the fact of the actual payment. If the payment is made , the deduction is allowed and should be allowed instead of denying the same.

The actual payment of the specified sum, under the provision, is the key consideration for allowance of the deduction. It emerges nowhere that a person should satisfy the twin conditions of the liability and of the actual payment as well, before a lawful deduction is claimed and allowed. To read the condition of the incurring of the liability in the section amounts to doing a serious violence to the provision and should be avoided. The use of the words ‘irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred’ clearly puts to rest any doubts about the intention of the legislature, which is to allow the deduction in the year of payment, irrespective of the year in which liability was incurred.

Further, nothing is gained by denying a lawful deduction based on actual payment, as the payment is the conclusive proof of the intention of the payer. It may be that in some stray cases, the person making the payment in advance is refunded the sum paid. In such cases, the law has enough provisions to tax the refund in his hands including under the provisions of s.41(1) of the Act.

It is nobody’s case that a deduction should be allowed on payment in respect of an expenditure that is otherwise not allowable under the Act. The deduction should surely be for an expenditure that is allowable in computing the income under the provisions of the Act. In view of this position, any attempt to frustrate a deduction by relying on the opening part of the section which uses the term ‘a deduction otherwise allowable’ should be nipped in the bud. The said term simply means that the claim should be of an expenditure that is otherwise allowable under the Act and not necessarily w.r.t. the method of accounting. If the intention were to first determine the allowability on the basis of the method of accounting , it would have been provided there and then, by stating that ‘ a deduc-tion otherwise allowable on accrual’ or ‘as per the method of accounting’. On the contrary, the latter part simply advises one to ignore the method of accounting.

The next difficulty is about the need for accrual of liability under the relevant statute that provides for the expenditure and its relation to the Explanation 2. The scope of the said Explanation 2 is restricted to only those payments which are covered by clause(a) of s. 43B of the Act. This again emphasizes the fact that the scheme of the deduction is based on one and only condition and that is that of the actual payment, at least as far as the deduction under clauses(b) to(f) are concerned and if that is so, there is nothing that permits assigning of a different treat-ment for clause(a) payments. With great respect to the Calcutta High Court, it seems that the court’s observation that in order for a valid deduction, it was necessary that the liability for such payment should have been incurred under the relevant law in the same year in which the amount was paid, though it might not have become payable under the method of accounting employed by the assessee, does not seem justified. Kindly note that the said Explanation 2 itself supports the claim for the deduction in the year of payment, irrespective of the liability to pay, when it states ‘even though such sum might not have been payable within that year under that law’. If that is so, undue importance is not required to be given, for the purposes of deduction under the Income tax Act, to accrual of liability and the time thereof, under the relevant laws governing the payment of the expenditure. The Delhi High Court seems to support this position when it stated that the purpose of s. 43B is ‘subserved by the payment of the duty to the Department concerned’.

The Special Bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal also had occasion to consider this issue, though again in the context of excise duty, in the case of DCIT v. Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health-care Limited, 299 ITR (AT) 1 (Chd)(SB). Some of the observations of the members of the special bench are interesting and throw considerable light on how section 43B is to be viewed in the case of advance payments, and are reproduced below:

(i)    There is no reference to any condition to establish “accrual of liability” for the claim of deduction. Only actual payment is insisted upon. The whole idea of enactment of section 43B is to change the system and replace the condition of allowability of deduction from incurring of the liability to actual payment. Having in mind the provision of section 43(2) and the purpose of section 43B, there is no question of asking the assessee to prove actual payment as well as incurring of a liability.

(ii)    It is not necessary that the assessee must prove incurring of a specific liability under any statute referred to in the different clauses of section

43B. It must be an expenditure connected and related to the assessee’s business deductible u/s 28 of the Act. It should not be a prohibited item totally unrelated to the business of the assessee. The expression “a deduction otherwise allowable” only means statutory liabilities mentioned in section 43B. The expression “a deduction otherwise allowable” reflects deduction on account of general liability fastened to the assessee’s business on account of duties, taxes, cess or fees by whatever name called, arising in the course of the carrying on of the business. The expression does not mean any specific liability which is required to be incurred.

(iii)    There is no justification to examine the previous year in which liability to pay the sum was incurred, when the mandate is “irrespective of the previous year in which liability was incurred” and the claim is to be allowed on the basis of actual payment. To do otherwise would be in violation of the words “irrespective of the previous year” in which the liability was incurred and disregard the mandate of the section.

(iv)    Section 43B brought in a change in the normal rule of deduction of expense based on the accounting method followed by an assessee. The rule of deduction u/s 43B is actual payment of the liability. When the payments are understood as actual payments, those payments even if mentioned as advance payments, need to be allowed as deduction u/s 43B.

(v)    Section 43B provides for the deduction of sums payable mentioned in clauses (a) to (f), only if actually paid ; but they shall be allowed irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred by the assessee. The expression “irrespective of the previous year” means the deduction has to be allowed regardless of the previous year. Any reference to the time of incurring or accruing of the liability is dispensed with by the statute while concentration is made on the point of actual payment of the sum to the Treasury of the Government.

(vi)    It is highly improbable to presume that an assessee would indulge in tax avoidance by actually paying money towards duties and taxes. Any such benefit arising to an assessee is only incidental.

(vii)    The section does not lay down any rule that the liability to pay the duty must be incurred first and only thereafter the payment of such duty made, so as to claim the deduction under section 43B. The expression “otherwise allowable” refers to a declaration that payments which are available as deductions u/s 43B, are those expenses which are usually allowed by the Income-tax Act for the purpose of computing income. The expression “any sum payable” does not mean “payment outstanding”.

On a combined reading of the provisions together with the Explanatory Memorandum and of the intention and the history behind the provisions, amended form time to time, it is clear that section 43B completely overrides the method of accounting and therefore section 145, and that even advance payments of tax are allowable as deduction, in the year of actual payment, even if the liability to pay the tax did not arise during the previous year, but in a subsequent year.

The view taken by the high courts in favour of the allowance of deduction on payment is , in our respectful opinion, a better view of the matter.

Further, the view that the deduction is allowed under the Income tax Act in the year of payment , as held by the special bench of the ITAT, irrespective of its year of accrual under the relevant statute providing for liability to the expenditure, once the actual payment is made, is a far better view.

Section 14A and its Applicability to Cases of Stock-in-trade

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1. Issue for Consideration

One of the major controversies, revolving around disallowance u/s. 14A, that has remained unresolved, is about the possibility of disallowance of an expenditure in the hands of a dealer in shares and securities, who holds such shares and securities as stock-in-trade. With the passage of time and examination of the issue by the courts, the issue has become more and more controversial.

Section 14A provides that no deduction shall be allowed in respect of an expenditure, incurred by the assessee, in relation to an income which does not form part of the total income.

A dealer in shares and securities is a person who ordinarily receives income from transfer of shares i.e., taxable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’. In addition, he receives income from dividend i.e., exempt from taxation as it does not form part of the total income under the Act. The expenditure incurred by such a person for carrying on the business of dealing in shares and securities, like any other business, is of varied nature that comprises of interest on borrowed funds to administration expenses and also depreciation.

The questions that arise for consideration in the case of a dealer in shares are – Whether any part of his expenditure could be said to have been incurred in relation to earning an exempt income? Can such an expenditure be treated as incurred in relation to earning the dividend income that is not taxable? Can a part of the expenditure at least be considered as related to earning an exempt income and therefore be disallowed? Can one apply the provision of Rule 8D for giving effect to the legislative intent expressed in section 14A? Can one contend that no expenditure is incurred at all for the purposes of earning dividend?

The Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of Daga Capital & Investment, 117ITD129 (SB)(Mum.) had held that the provisions of section 14A applied to the case of a person who was a dealer in shares. The ratio of the said decision to the extent relevant here is recently approved by a decision of the Delhi High Court, reported recently. The said decision of the court is in conflict with the decisions of the Karnataka and the Kerala High Courts. The appellate tribunals in the meanwhile have taken conflicting stands on the subject, throwing the issue wide open.

2. Maxopp Investment’s Decisions

The issue came for consideration in the case of Maxopp Investment Ltd. vs. CIT before the Delhi High Court reported in 347 ITR 272. The assessment years under consideration were A.Y. 1998-99 to A.Y. 2005-06. In the said case,the assessee company was engaged in the business of dealing in shares and securities. It held part of the shares as trading assets for the purpose of acquiring and retaining control over its group companies and the profit from sale of such shares, held as trading assets, was offered to tax as the business income. An amount of Rs. 1.61 crore was claimed as business expenditure u/s. 36(1)(iii), being interest paid on the funds borrowed from investment in shares held as trading assets. The company had a profit on sale of shares of Rs. 1,49,285/- and had received a dividend of Rs. 49,90,860/-.

The A.O. held that the interest claimed by the company was disallowable u/s. 14A. However, he restricted the disallowance to the amount of dividend. The CIT(A) and the ITAT following the Special Bench’s decision in the Daga Capital’s case (supra) upheld the action of the A.O.

In an appeal by the assesseee company to the High Court, on behalf of the company, an emphasis was laid on the expressions “incurred” and “in relation to” for contending that the word “incurred” must be taken literally in the sense that the expenditure must have actually taken place and that the expenditure must also have taken place in relation to income which did not form part of the total income. It was contended that the expression “in relation to” implied that there must be a direct and proximate connection with the subject matter and only that actual expenditure which was made directly and for the object of earning exempt income, i.e., the dividend income could be disallowed u/s. 14A. It was submitted that if the dominant and main objective of spending was not the earning of ‘exempt’ income, then the expenditure could not be disallowed u/s. 14A, provided it was otherwise allowable u/s. 15 to 59 of the said Act. It was also emphasised that the expenditure must be actual and could not be computed on the basis of some formula as stipulated under Rule 8D read with s/s. (2) & (3) of section 14A.

The Delhi High Court did not agree with the submissions of the assessee company that a narrow meaning ought to be ascribed to the expression “in relation to” appearing in section 14A as the context did not suggest that a narrow meaning ought to be given to the said expression. The court observed that the provision was inserted by virtue of the Finance Act, 2001 with retrospective effect from 1-4-1962 confirming the intention of the Parliament that it should appear in the statute book, from its inception that expenditure incurred in connection with income which did not form part of total income ought not to be allowed as a deduction; the factum of making the said provision retrospective made it clear that the Parliament wanted that it should be understood by all that from the very beginning, such expenditure was not allowable as a deduction; the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Walfort Share and Stock Brokers P Ltd: 326 ITR 1 (SC), held that the basic principle of taxation was to tax the net income, i.e., gross income minus the expenditure and on the same analogy the exemption was also in respect of net income; in other words, where the gross income would not form part of total income, it’s associated or related expenditure would also not be permitted to be debited against other taxable income.

The court noted that accepting the submission made on behalf of the assessees, then s/s. (1) would have to be read as follows:-“For the purposes of computing the total income under this Chapter, no deduction shall be allowed in respect of expenditure incurred by the assessee with the main object of earning income which does not form part of the total income under this Act.” It observed that such rereading was certainly not the purport of the said provision; the expression “in relation to”did not have any embedded object and simply meant “in connection with” or “pertaining to”; if the expenditure in question had a relation or connection with or pertained to the exempt income, it could not be allowed as a deduction even if it otherwise qualified under the other provisions of the said Act; in Walfort (supra), the Supreme Court made it very clear that the permissible deductions enumerated in sections 15 to 59 were now to be allowed only with reference to income which was brought under one of the heads of income and was chargeable to tax and that if an income like dividend income was not part of the total income, the expenditure/deduction related to such income, though of the nature specified in sections 15 to 59, could not be allowed against other income which was includible in the total income for the purpose of chargeability to tax.

In deciding that the provisions of section 14A applied in the case of receipt of dividend by a dealer in shares, against the asseessee, the Delhi High Court took note of the law prevailing before insertion of section 14A in the Act with retrospective effect, as was explained by the Supreme Court in the cases of CIT vs. Maharashtra Sugar Mills Ltd: 82 ITR 452 (SC) and Rajasthan State Warehousing Corporation vs. CIT: 242 ITR 450 (SC). The court also took note of the Memorandum explaining the provisions of section 14A and also extensively relied upon the decision of the Supreme court, delivered after introduction of section 14A, in the case of Walfort (supra) where the apex court stated that the insertion of section 14A with retrospective effect, reflected the serious attempt on the part of Parliament not to allow deduction in respect of any expenditure incurred by the assessee in relation to income, which did not form part of the total income against the taxable income. The High Court observed that the apex court in that case, clearly held that in the case of an income like dividend income which did not form part of the total income, any expenditure/deduction relatable to such (exempt or non-taxable) income, even if it was of the nature specified in sections 15 to 59 of the said Act, could not be allowed against any other income which was includible in the total income.

3.    CCI Ltd’s Case

The issue recently came up for consideration of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CCI Ltd vs. JCIT reported in 250 CTR 291. In that case, the assessee company, a dealer in shares & securities, had acquired 93% of shares of Kurl-on Ltd., by availing an interest free loan with the help of a broker who had been paid an amount of Rs.28,00,000/- as brokerage. The assessee company had received a dividend of Rs.46,67,190/- which dividend was exempt from taxation. The assessee company had claimed the brokerage of Rs.28,00,000/- as deduction in computing the business income from dealing in shares & securities. The A.O. in assessing the total income of Assessment year 2007-08 treated the said brokerage expenditure as directly attributable to earning the dividend income and disallowed the same besides disallowing a part of the other business expenditure. The CIT (Appeals) confirmed the said order of the A.O. and the tribunal upheld the action of the A.O in part by directing him to prorate the said expenses over the dividend and the business income.

In an appeal to the Karnataka High Court, the assessee company raised the following question of law:“Whether the provisions of section 14A of the Act are applicable to the expenses incurred by the assessee in the course of its business merely because the assessee is also having dividend income when there was no material brought to show that the assessee had incurred expenditure for earning dividend income which is exempted from taxation?”

The assessee company contended before the High Court that the assessee had incurred an expenditure for purchasing shares and a part of such shares so purchased were sold and the income derived therefrom was offered to tax as business income and the remaining unsold shares yielded dividend; that the assessee had not incurred any expenditure to earn the said dividend income and therefore, no expenditure could be attributed to the said dividend income and the said expenditure could not be disallowed and the assessee was entitled to the benefit of deduction of the entire expenditure incurred in respect of purchase of shares.

On behalf of the Revenue,it was pointed out to the court that when shares retained by the assessee had yielded dividend, when the dividend income was exempted from payment of income tax, the expenditure incurred in acquiring that dividend also should be excluded from amount of expenditure that qualified for allowance and in that view of the matter, the orders passed by the authorities were legal and valid.

The High Court observed that when no expenditure was incurred by the assessee in earning the dividend income, no notional expenditure could be deducted from the said income; that it was not the case of the assessee retaining any shares so as to have the benefit of dividend; 63% of the shares, which were purchased, were sold and the income derived therefrom was offered to tax as business income; the remaining 37% of the shares were retained and had remained unsold with the assessee which unsold shares had yielded dividend, for which, the assessee had not incurred any expenditure at all. It further noted that though the dividend income was exempted from payment of tax, if any expenditure was incurred in earning the said income, the said expenditure also could not be deducted but in the case, when the assessee had not retained shares with the intention of earning dividend income and the dividend income was incidental to his business of sale of shares, which remained unsold by the assessee, it could not be said that the expenditure incurred in acquiring the shares had to be apportioned to the extent of dividend income and that should be disallowed from deductions.

The High Court held that the approach of the authorities, in disallowing a part of the expenditure, was not in conformity with the statutory provisions contained in section 14A of the Act. The orders were held to be not sustainable in law and were set aside.

4.    Observations

Section 14A(1) stipulates that for the purposes of computing the total income under Chapter IV, no deduction shall be allowed in respect of an expenditure “incurred” by the assessee “in relation to” an income which does not form part of the total income under the Income tax Act.

The position in law in respect of the expenditure incurred for earning an income, a part of which was exempt from taxation, prior to the introduction of section 14A, was governed by the ratio of the decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Maharashtra Sugar Mills Ltd: 82 ITR 452 (SC) and Rajasthan State Warehousing Corporation vs. CIT: 242 ITR 450 (SC). It was held therein that no part of expenditure could be disallowed where the expenditure was incurred in earning an income a part of which was taxable and the balance was exempted from taxation.

The object behind the insertion of section 14A is stated in the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2001 :-“Certain incomes are not includible while computing the total income as these are exempt under various provisions of the Act. There have been cases where deductions have been claimed in respect of such exempt income. This in effect means that the tax incentive given by way of exemptions to certain categories of income is being used to reduce also the tax payable on the nonexempt income by debiting the expenses incurred to earn the exempt income against taxable income. This is against the basic principles of taxation whereby only the net income, i.e., gross income minus the expenditure is taxed. On the same analogy, the exemption is also in respect of the net income. Expenses incurred can be allowed only to the extent they are relatable to the earning of taxable income. It is proposed to insert a new section 14A so as to clarify the intention of the Legislature since the inception of the Income Tax Act, 1961 that no deduction shall be made in respect of any expenditure incurred by the assessee in relation to income which does not form part of the total income under the Income-tax Act.The proposed amendment will take effect retrospectively from 1st April, 1962 and will accordingly; apply in relation to the assessment year 1962-63 and subsequent assessment years.”

The law of section 14A has been sought to be explained by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Walfort Share and Stock Brokers P Ltd: 326 ITR 1 (SC),as under:-“Further, section 14 specifies five heads of income which are chargeable to tax. In order to be chargeable, an income has to be brought under one of the five heads. Sections 15 to 59 lay down the rules for computing income for the purpose of chargeability to tax under those heads. Sections 15 to 59 quantify the total income chargeable to tax. The permissible deductions enumerated in sections 15 to 59 are now to be allowed only with reference to income which is brought under one of the above heads and is chargeable to tax. If an income like dividend income is not a part of the total income, the expenditure/ deduction though of the nature specified in sections 15 to 59 but related to the income not forming part of the total income could not be allowed against other income includible in the total income for the purpose of chargeability to tax. The theory of apportionment of expenditure between taxable and non-taxable has, in principle, been now widened u/s. 14 A.”

The issue veers down to examining whether any disallowance is possible in cases where the income that is exempted from taxation is incidental to the main objective of expenditure and that the expenditure has no direct or proximate connection to the income that has been exempted from taxation. The issue is best exemplified with the case of a dealer in shares who incurs expenditure primarily for earning a taxable income from dealing in shares and received an exempt income from dividend as an incidence of his business of dealing in shares.

It is the assessee’s case that only such expenditure that can be disallowed that has been incurred directly in earning an exempt income and that an expenditure which has the distant effect of earning such an income cannot be disallowed where the income that was taxed has a proximate connection to such an expenditure. The revenue on the other hand is of the view that the language of section 14A does not provide for an exclusion, from operation of section 14A, of an expenditure which incidentally results in earning an exempt income; the provision for prorating of an expenditure under Rule 8D rather confirms that at least a part of the expenditure shall stand disallowed in all the cases; the relationship of some part of the expenditure, for earning an exempt income cannot be altogether denied.

The Income Tax Act, 1961 is replete with expressions like ‘in relation to’ and ‘relating to’, for example, sections 28, 35 and 36. While it is true that the terms carry a meaning which is wider than the one provided by the term wholly and exclusively incurred or for the purposes of, it nonetheless cannot be so wide as to include an expenditure with a remote or a distant connection to an exempt income.

Obviously for a dealer in shares, the dominant or the immediate objective is making profit on sale of shares. Earning dividend income cannot be the domi-nant objective and the dividend at the most may represent an incidental objective, unless it is held that earning dividend is also a dominant objective and there is a proximate link with such objective, the expenditure in question cannot be considered as having been incurred in relation to .

In our considered view the A.O., for a valid disallowance, should establish two important things. One that the expenditure incurred has a proximate link with the income that is exempt from taxation and the second that the purchase of shares was made with the main or dominant objective of earning an exempt income. Unless both of these facts are established by the A.O., no expenditure or part thereof should be disallowed u/s. 14A in computing the total income of a person who is a dealer in shares in respect of shares held as stock in trade.

The Kerala High Court in CIT vs. Leena Ramachandran, 339 ITR 296 held that no disallowance of interest claimed u/s. 36(1)(iii) should be made, u/s. 14A, in case of a dealer in shares who purchased shares out of the borrowed funds and held the same as stock-in-trade.

The issue has been sharply brought in focus by the decisions of the tribunal, delivered after considering the decisions of the Kerala High Court in Leena Ramachandran’s case (supra) and of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CCI Ltd. (supra) in the following cases;

In American Express Bank Ltd. ITA No. 5904 & 6022 /Mum/2000 dated 8-8- 2012, it was held that a prorated disallowance of an expenditure must be made u/s. 14A in the case of an assesseee engaged in the business of dealing in shares earning dividend income which is exempted from taxation in his hands. The tribunal distinguished the decision in Leena Ramachandran’s case (supra) by stating that the said decision rather supported the case of disallowance and the observations of the court in relation to shares held as stock-in-trade were to be treated as an obiter dicta and not the ratio decidendi which was to disallow the interest and that was upheld by the court.

In GanjamTrading Co. Pvt. Ltd. ITA No. 3724/ Mum/2005 dated 20-7-2012, the decision of the Special Bench in Daga Capital (supra) was distinguished to hold that the provisions of section 14A did not apply to the case of dealer in receipt of dividend income that was incidental to the dominant income from dealing in shares that was taxable by relying on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd.’ s case (supra).

Similarly in India Advantage Securities Ltd. ITA No. 6711/Mum/2011 dated 20-7-2012, it was held that the provisions of section 14A did not apply to the case of dealer in receipt of dividend income that was incidental to the dominant income from dealing in shares that was taxable by relying on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd.’ s case(supra). In this case, the decision of the tribunal in the case of American Express Bank Ltd(supra) was considered and was not followed.

Likewise, in Prakash K. Shah Securities Pvt. Ltd. ITA No. 3339/Mum/2012, the tribunal held that the provisions of section 14A did not apply to the case of dealer in receipt of dividend income that was incidental to the dominant income from dealing in shares that was taxable by relying on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in CCI Ltd.’ s case(supra).

The issue that was thought to be settled by the special bench decision has been sharply brought back in focus by the conflicting decisions discussed above. The correctness of the decision of the special bench decision was always under a scanner as was clear from the dissenting decision of Shri K.C. Singhal, the Accountant Member, in the context of the income from shares held as stock-in-trade. Even the part that held that Rule 8D was retrospective in its operation has not been accepted by the High Court in the case of Godrej & Boyce Ltd. vs. CIT, 328 ITR 081(Bom), which found the said rule to be prospective in its effect.

The Karnataka High Court in CCI’s case (supra) has relied on the intention of the dealer behind incurring the expenditure and proceeded to hold that no disallowance shall take place where the intention was clearly to earn business income by incurring an expenditure. It favoured ignoring the incidental income behind such an expenditure. This approach of the court charts out a new course by examining the proximity of the expenditure to the income and while doing so, takes into consideration the intention of the legislature stated in the memorandum to nullify the effect of the Supreme court decisions in the cases of Rajasthan Warehousing Co. and Maharashtra Sugar Millls (supra). Such an approach is desirable and is equitable and has the salutary effect of reducing the frivolous litigation in cases where the expenditure incidentally produces some exempt income. Accepting this approach also helps the revenue in avoiding an undesired expenditure on litigation in which the outcome is more likely to favour an assessee. Even the language of section 14A does seem to favour the assesssee.

The meaning of the term ‘in relation to’ can be gathered by referring to the ratio of the decision of the 11 judges bench of the Supreme court in the case of H.H.M. Madhavao Jivajirao Scindia ,Bahadur of Gwalior vs. Union of India, 1971, 1 SCC 85 wherein the court while interpreting the meaning of the term ‘relating to’ by a majority decision held that the term meant a dominant and immediate connection. A reference may also be made to Law Lexicon which states the term ‘in relation to’ requires elimination of the remote connection and indicates nearness or proximity.

The case of the revenue seems to largely hang on rule 8D that provides for the proration of an expenditure. This part of rule 8D cannot override the provisions of section 14A which does not mandate such proration at least in cases where the expenditure is not found to be incurred in relation to an exempt income. It is an accepted position in law that a rule cannot expand the scope of a legislative provision. It is true that s/s. (2) provides for determination of expenditure in accordance with Rule 8D. However, the said Rule while providing the methodology for calculation cannot extend the meaning of the term, ‘in relation to’ by including such expenditure that cannot be construed as having been incurred in relation to an exempt income.

There is one more angle to the issue that is provided by the language of clause (ii) of sub-Rule (2) of Rule 8D when it provides for a calculation with reference to the ‘value of investment’. This language again supports the case that no disallowance is envisaged in respect of shares held as stock in trade.

In cases where the dealer holds the shares as an investor for the purposes of earning dividend income, the disallowance u/s. 14A shall hold water.

Acquisition of New Asset by Assessee for Capital Gains Exemption

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Issue for Consideration

Sections 54, 54B,54EC, 54F, 54GA and 54GB of the Income Tax Act, 1961 provide for exemption of capital gains on an acquisition by an assessee, of a specified asset (purchase, construction, etc.) within the specified time period, subject to fulfilment of various other conditions. Section 54 exempts along term capital gains arising on transfer of a residential house and section 54F grants exemption to long term capital gains arising on transfer of any other capital asset. Section 54B provides for exemption for long term capital gains on transfer of a land used by for agricultural purposes. Similar provisions are contained in other sections for grant of exemption for capital gains on reinvestment by the assessee within the specified period, in specified assets.

All these sections require acquisition by the assessee. Section 54 reads – “the assessee has within a period of ………………purchased, or has ………..constructed a residential house”. The other sections use similar language. In view of the stipulation in the above mentioned provisions, that require the acquisition by an assessee, aquestion has arisen before the courts as to whether the acquisition (purchase, construction, etc.) by the assessee necessarily means that the new asset must be acquired in the name of the assesseeor that it would be sufficient where the funds belonging to the assessee are used for acquiring the specified asset to enable an assessee to claim the exemption from tax.

The courts do not find any difficulty in upholding the claim of the assessee for exemption in cases where the acquisition of the new asset is in the joint names of the assessee and another person, as in the courts opinion such acquisition in joint names would not hamper the claim for exemption, so long as the funds for acquisition of the new house have come from the assessee. The conflict of the judicial view however, has been in respect of acquisition of a new asset in the name of a family member, without the name of the assessee being included, though with the funds from the assessee. While the Madras, Andhra Pradesh and Delhi High Courts have taken the view that even in such a case, the assessee is entitled to the benefit of the exemption, the Punjab & Haryana, Bombay and Delhi High Courts have taken a contrary view.

Prakash’s case
The issue came up before the Nagpur bench of the Bombay High Court in the case of Prakash vs. ITO 312 ITR 40 in the context of section 54F. In that case,the assessee, an elderly person, sold certain plots of land, and acquired a plot of land in the name of his adopted son and constructed a residential building thereon by submitting plans for construction in the name of his son. He did not file his return of income voluntarily, but did so after receipt of a notice u/s. 139(2) from the Assessing Officer. The assessee besides claiming that the plots sold were agricultural land, which was not a capital asset, and that there was therefore no capital gains, also claimed an exemption u/s. 54F in respect of the purchase of a plot of land and the construction of the residential building thereon. It was claimed that the investment in the new asset was made in the son’s name, in view of the advanced age of the assessee.

The Assessing Officer rejected both the contentions of the assessee and subjected the capital gains to tax. He denied the claim for exemption on the ground that the reinvestment was in the son’s name. The Commissioner (Appeals) held that the transfer was of the agricultural land which was not a capital asset, and accordingly no taxable capital gains arose. The Tribunal held that the asset transferred was a capital asset and subject to eligibility of the assessee for an exemption u/s. 54F, a taxable capital gains arose. It however, remanded the matter back to the Commissioner (Appeals) to examine the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 54F.

On remand, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that section 54F contemplates only investment in a residentialproperty by the assessee; it was enough if the sale proceeds were invested in the construction of aresidential house. It was further held by the Commissioner (Appeals) that it was not necessary that the newly constructed house should be in the name of the assessee, and that an adopted son had the samerights as a natural son. The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the appeal of the assessee granting relief u/s. 54F. The Tribunal quashed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals), denting the benefit of the exemption.

On appeal by the assessee, the Bombay High Court examined the provisions of section 54F and the definition of the term “assessee” contained in section 2(7). It noted that as per the scheme of section 54F, the assessee, who is the owner of the original asset, needs to, purchase or construct a residential house within the specified period. It noted that the concepts of “assessee”, “own”, “owner”, “ownership”, “co-owner”, “owner of house property”, and “ownership of property” contained in various sections were very much interlinked and connected for granting the benefits under the Income Tax Act. Referring to the Supreme Court decisions in the cases of Podar Cement (P) Ltd. 226 ITR 625 and Mysore Minerals Ltd 239 ITR 775, it expressed the view that an assessee must have valid title legally conveyed to him after complying with the requirements of law or should at least be entitled to receive income from the property in his own right and have control and domain over the property for legal purposes, while basically excluding a third person of any right over the said property. It was of the view that the object being to give a benefit to the assessee, it meant that the assessee must comply with the conditions strictly in all respects.

The Bombay High Court expressed the view that right from the sale of the original asset till the purchase and/ or construction of the new asset, the ownership and domain over the new asset was a must. According to the High Court, the new property must be owned by the assessee, or he should have legal title over the same. Though others might use and occupy the property along with the assessee, the ownership of the residential house should be of the assessee.

The Bombay High Court noted that by constructing the house in the name of his son, the assessee effectively transferred the new property to his son, who became the owner thereof, in spite of the prohibition on transfer of the new house for a period of 3 years from the date of transfer of the original asset. The High Court noted that the assessee had no domain and/or right on the property, which disentitled him to the claim for exemption, since there was non-compliance of the conditions as per the scheme of section 54F.

The Bombay High Court noted the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court cited before it in the case of Late Mir Gulam Ali Khan 228 ITR 165, where the court had taken the view that the term “assessee” must be given a wide and liberal interpretation, and that where the legal heirs had completed the purchase of the new house after the death of the assessee, the assessee was entitled to the benefit of the exemption. The Bombay High Court however expressed its disinclination to accept the liberal view given to the word “assessee” in Late Mir Gulam Ali Khan’s case, stating that the facts before it were different, since in the case before them, it was the son (who was not the assessee) who had purchased and constructed the new property. It also noted that the assessee had admitted that the son was the beneficial owner of the property.

The Bombay High Court therefore held that the as-sessee was not entitled to the benefit of exemption u/s. 54F.

A similar view has been taken in the context of sec-tion 54B by the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Jai Narayan vs. ITO 306 ITR 335 , where the new land was purchased in the names of the son and the grandson of the assessee, by the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Kalya v CIT 251 CTR 174, where the new land was purchased in the names of the son and the daughter-in-law, and in the context of section 54F, by the Delhi High Court, in the case of Vipin Malik (HUF) vs. CIT 330 ITR 309, where the new house was purchased in the names of the karta and his mother.

Kamal Wahal’s case

The issue came up recently before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kamal Wahal 351 ITR 4.

In this case, the assessee, a retired employee, sold his share in an inherited property, and invested a part of the sale proceeds in purchase of a residential house in the name of his wife. He claimed exemption u/s. 54F for the investment in the residential house.

The assessing officer denied the benefit of the exemption, on the ground that the investment should have been made in the assessee’s name, and not in the name of his wife. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal, following the decisions of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. V Natarajan 287 ITR 271 and of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Mir Gulam Ali Khan vs. CIT 165 ITR 228.The tribunal dismissed the appeal of the revenue, following the judgments of the Madras and Andhra Pradesh High Courts, and also of the Karnataka High Court in the case of DIT vs. Jennifer Bhide 349 ITR 80, where the property was purchased in the joint names of the assessee and her spouse. While noting the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Prakash(supra), the tribunal took the view that where a statutory provision was capable of more than one view, the view favouring the taxpayer should be preferred.

The Delhi High Court approved the decision of the tribunal, noting that besides the decisions referred to by the tribunal, the Delhi High Court itself in the case of CIT vs. Ravinder Kumar Arora 342 ITR 38 had also taken a similar view in the context of section 54F involving purchase of a new property in the joint names of the assessee and his spouse. The Delhi High Court also noted the decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Gurnam Singh 327 ITR 278, where a similar view had been taken in the context of section 54B involving purchase of the new land in the joint names of the assessee and his bachelor son.

According to the Delhi High Court, the predominant judicial view was that, for the purposes of section 54F, the new residential house need not be purchased by the assessee in his own name nor was it necessary that it should be purchased exclusively in his name. It noted that in the case before it, the property was not purchased in the name of a stranger, somebody unconnected with the assessee, but in the name of his wife, and that there was no dispute that the entire investment had come out of sale proceeds and that there was no contribution from the assessee’s wife.

Having regard to the rule of purposive construction and the object of section 54F, the Delhi High Court held that the assessee was entitled to the benefit of exemption u/s. 54F.

Observations

The Andhra Pradesh High Court, in Mir Gulam Ali’s case reiterated the acknowledged position in law, while deciding in favour of the assessee’s claim for exemption, that the exemption provisions should be liberally construed. None of the sections, under scanner, expressly require purchase or construction in the name of the assessee himself and a concerted effort is requfcired by the courts to read that requirement in the law so as to deny the benefit of exemption to the assessee. It is this highly debatable position, perhaps,that has led the courts to favour the assesses including the courts, which originally had taken a stand against the claim for exemption, but had later on, in other cases favoured the claim for exemption from tax. Further, the intention behind sections 54 and 54F and other provisions similarly placed is to encourage reinvestment in residential houses, which purpose is achieved by permitting reinvestment in the name of a close relative.

It is quite common to purchase properties in joint names of husband and wife, or jointly with close relatives and importantly there is no prohibition in law against it. In such an event, if the funds flow from the assessee, it is clear that the assessee cannot be denied the benefit of the exemption. Given this, should it make a difference if the assessee does not include his own name because of the circumstances of his old age or for convenience of simpler succession?

It may be noted that almost all the decisions favouring the assessee have been cases where the property has been purchased in the name of the spouse of the as-sessee and where funds have flown from the assessee. In all such cases, in any case, clubbing provisions would operate and the property would be regarded for both income tax and wealth tax purposes as the property of the assessee. The natural corollary is that the benefit of the exemption should also be given in such cases.

On the other hand, the decisions which have gone against the assessee have been cases where the prop-erty was purchased in the name of a son, daughter-in-law or grandson. In the case of a major son or grandson, clubbing provisions do not apply, and hence perhaps the adverse view was taken by the courts, though not highlighted in so many words .

The decisions involving section 54B which have gone against the assesseehave also been partly decided on account of the fact that section 54B requires use of the new land for agricultural purposes by the assessee unlike section 54F that merely requires acquisition of a residential house, and does not require the assessee to reside therein.

Mir Gulam Ali Khan’s case again was a case where the assessee initiated the process of purchase of the property, but passed away before he could complete the purchase, and the purchase was then completed by his legal heirs. Therefore, the subsequent purchase by the legal heirs was part of the same chain of events of sale of the old property and purchase of the new property initiated by the assessee himself.

Of course, one would need to take into account the provisions of the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988 in such a case. That Act excludes transac-tions entered into in the name of a wife or unmarried daughter. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Bill, 2011, seeks to exclude transactions in the name of spouse, brother or sister or any lineal ascendant or descendant. The law, therefore, seems to recognise that properties of a person can be purchased in the names of certain close relatives. Given this legal background, can the intention be to deny the benefit of an exemption, the conditions of which are otherwise fulfilled, on the mere ground that the property is pur-chased in the name of one such close relative?

In view of the fact that the issue involves interpretation of tax exemption provisions and that the said provisions do not in any case require that the investment has necessarily to be made in the name of the assessee, leading to a possibility of a debate, the better view seems to be that purchase of a property in the name of a spouse or close relative should qualify for the benefit of the exemption u/s. 54, 54B or 54F, as long as the funds belonging to the assessee are used and the assessee retains domain over the property. However, given the fact that while planning one’s affairs one should not plan in a manner so as to attract unnecessary litigation, it is advisable to purchase the property in the joint names of the assessee and such close relative, rather than in the name of the close relative alone.

Deemed Registration and Time Limit for Disposal of Application for Registration of Charitable Trusts u/s.12AA

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Issue for Consideration
Every charitable or religious trust, seeking exemption of its income under the provisions of sections 11 and 12 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, is required to be registered with the Commissioner of Income Tax u/s. 12AA. The procedure for such registration is laid down in section 12AA. S/s. (2) of section 12AA provides that every order, granting or refusing registration by the Commissioner, shall be passed before the expiry of 6 months from the end of the month in which the application u/s. 12A, made by the trust, was received by him.

Since the section does not specifically mention the consequences of non-disposal of the application by the Commissioner within the specified time limit, a controversy has arisen as to what would be the consequences in such a situation. One view is that the trust shall not be made to suffer for the inaction of the Commissioner and the registration shall be deemed to have been granted. The other view is that the trust shall not be granted the exemption from tax, since the same is not registered. One more view is that the time limit prescribed in section 12AA is not mandatory and the Commissioner can and should proceed with the application and take appropriate decision even after the expiry of the time limit and such decision shall have retrospective effect. While the Allahabad High Court has taken the view that in the event of such failure to pass an order, within the specified time by the Commissioner, registration shall be deemed to have been granted u/s. 12AA, as the time limit provided in the section is mandatory and no decision on the application can be taken on expiry of the time limit thereafter, a contrary view has been taken by the Madras and Orissa High Courts to the effect that such a time limit is not mandatory, and that non-disposal of the application shall not result in the deemed registration of the trust and till such time as registration is granted, the trust shall be treated as not registered and non-registration of the trust shall result in denial of the exemption from tax so however the Commissioner shall pass the appropriate orders on the application of the assessee at the earliest though after the expiry of the prescribed time. In short, according to the latest view, the registration cannot be deemed to have been granted and the Commissioner is empowered to deal with and should deal with the application even after the expiry of the time specified in section 12AA.

Society for the Promotion of Education Adventure Sport’s case:

The issue came up before the Allahabad High Court in the case of Society for the Promotion of Education Adventure Sport & Conservation of Environment vs. CIT 216 CTR (All) 167.

The assessee was a society running a school, whose income was entitled to exemption u/s. 10(22). On omission of section 10(22), it applied for registration u/s. 12A. No decision however was taken by the Commissioner on its application within the time limit of 6 months fixed by section 12AA (2), and in fact, no decision was taken, even after a lapse of almost 5 years. On account of such delay, large tax demands were raised on the assessee. The assessee filed a writ petition in the Allahabad High Court challenging the tax demands.

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that the registration
should be deemed to have been granted after the expiry of the period
prescribed u/s. 12AA(2), if no decision had been taken on the
application for registration. Reliance was placed on various decisions
of the Allahabad High Court, which had held that where an application
for extension of time was moved, but was not decided, it would be deemed
to have been allowed; that given the fact that the CIT was required to
give an opportunity to the applicant before refusing registration and
that reasons for refusal were required to be given by the CIT in his
order, the absence of any such opportunity and the order of the CIT
should be taken to mean that he had not found any reason for refusing
registration;, that the legislative intent wasevident by the fact that the order of the CIT granting registration, was not appealable by the Income Tax Department and that the laches and lapses on the part of the Income tax Department could not be to its own advantage by treating the application for registration as rejected.

On behalf of the Department, reliance was placed on a decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Chet Ram Vashisht vs. Municipal Corporation AIR 1981 SC 653, where the Court examined the effect of the failure on the part of the Delhi Municipal Corporation to decide an application for sanction to a layout plan within the period specified in section 313(3) of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957.

The Allahabad High Court observed that what had to be examined was the consequence of such a long delay on the part of the Income tax authorities in not deciding the assesssee’s application for registration. It noted that admittedly after the statutory limitation, the CIT would become functus officio, and he could not, on expiry of the time limit, thereafter pass any order either allowing or rejecting the registration. Obviously, the application could not be allowed to be treated as perpetually undecided. Therefore, the key question, in the opinion of the court, was whether upon lapse of the six-month period without any decision, the application for registration should be treated as rejected or it should be treated as allowed.

The Allahabad High Court distinguished the Supreme Court decision cited on behalf of the revenue, in Chet Ram Vashist’s case (supra), by pointing out that the said decision dealt with a different statute and that one of the important aspects considered by the Supreme Court for taking view in that case that the sanction of the layout was mandatory and could not be deemed to have been granted on expiry of the time limit, was the purpose and objective behind of the provision requiring sanction of the layout plans. The High Court noted that under the relevant provision of the said statute, there was involved an element of public interest, namely, to prevent unplanned and haphazard development or construction to the detriment of the public and any sanction or deemed sanction of a layout plan entailing constructions being carried out, would create an irreversible situation. The Allahabad High Court noted that in the case before it, there was no such element of public interest in the case before it under the provisions of section 12A; that taking a view that non-consideration of the registration application within the time limit would result in deemed registration might, at the worst, cause loss of some revenue or income tax, payable by that individual trust.

The Allahabad High Court compared the act of non-disposal of an application with a situation where the assessing authority failed to make assessment or reassessment within the prescribed limitation, which also led occasionally to loss of revenue from that individual assessee. It observed that taking the contrary view and holding that not taking of a decision within the time limit was of no consequence would leave the assessee totally at the mercy of the tax authorities, as the assessee had not been provided any remedy under the Act against non-decision by the Commissioner on an application by the assessee.

The Allahabad High Court observed that taking the view of deemed registration did not create any irreversible situation, because the CIT had the power to cancel registration u/s. 12AA(3) if he was satisfied that the objects of such trust were not genuine or the activities were not being carried out in accordance with its objects and the only drawback might be that such cancellation would operate only prospectively. The deemed registration, in the court’s view, furthered the object and purpose of the statutory provision.

Considering the pros and cons of the two views, the Allahabad High Court held that the non-consideration of the application for registration within the time fixed by section 12AA(2) led to the deemed grant of registration as there was no good reason to make the assessee suffer merely because the Income Tax Department was not able to keep its officers under check and control and take timely decisions in such simple matters such as consideration of applications for registration, even within the long six-month period provided by section 12AA(2).

The Allahabad High Court therefore directed the Commissioner to treat the assessee as an institution approved and registered u/s. 12AA, to recompute its income by applying the provisions of section 11, and to issue a formal certificate of approval forthwith.

Sheela Christian Charitable Trust’s case:
The issue later also came up before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Sheela Christian Charitable Trust 354 ITR 478 (Mad).

In this case, the trust created in August 2003, made a delayed application for registration u/s. 12AA in August 2005 without a specific request for condonation of delay being filed. It had not filed the accounts since its inception along with the application. Since details of activities and copy of accounts were not filed with the Commissioner, he merely lodged the application and did not process the same. A second application was made in April 2007, seeking retrospective registration from April 2005. This application was rejected by the Commissioner. On appeal, the Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner and remitted the matter back to the Commissioner to decide the matter afresh, after giving opportunity to the assessee.

The Commissioner, as directed by the tribunal, gave an opportunity to the assessee and considered the matter afresh. This time the Commissioner granted the registration to the trust but with prospective effect. He rejected the assessee’s request to grant registration with effect from April 2005, holding that there was no just and reasonable cause for delay in filing the application.

On appeal to the Tribunal, the Tribunal held that so far as condonation of delay was concerned, a pragmatic approach should be adopted and substantial cause of justice should not be denied merely on pedantic reasons. The Tribunal noted that the order granting or refusing registration should have been passed before the expiry of 6 months from the end of the month in which the application was received, and since the Commissioner kept the application pending beyond the permitted time, and it was neither accepted nor rejected within the period of 6 months, the registration should be assumed to have been granted. Reliance was placed by the Tribunal on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of Society for Promo-tion of Education Adventure Sport and Conservation of Environment (supra). It therefore held that the original application of August 2005 was to be treated as accepted, and registration u/s. 12AA should be deemed to have been granted to the trust.

On behalf of the Department, on appeal against the said order of the tribunal, it was argued before the Madras High Court that the Tribunal ought to have held that the trust could not agitate the inaction of the Commissioner on its earlier application in a subsequent application filed by it for registration u/s. 12AA. It was further contended that the tribunal erred in holding that there was a deemed registration by relying on the decisions of the Orissa High Court in the case of Srikhetra, A. C. Bhakti-Vedanta Swami Charitable Trust vs. Asst. CIT (2006) 2 OLR 75 and of the Madras High Court in the case of Anjuman-E-Khyrkhah-E-Aam 354 ITR 474, for the proposition that there was no concept of deemed registration u/s. 12AA(2).

The Madras High Court analysed the provisions of section 12AA(2) and the decision of the Orissa High Court referred to above. It agreed with the Orissa High Court that the time frame laid down u/s. 12AA(2) was only directory and not mandatory and that the Commissioner could pass an order even after the expiry of the statutory time limit. It observed that section 12AA(1)(b)(i) and (ii) made it clear that there was a statutory mandate imposed on the Commissioner to pass an order in writing either registering the trust or refusing to register the trust. It noted that the Madras high court in Anjuman’s case (supra), where the Commissioner had passed an order on the last day of the time limit neither accepting nor rejecting the application but lodging the complaint instead, had rejected the concept of deemed registration and remitted the matter back to the Commissioner to afford an opportunity of hearing to the trust and to decide the matter afresh.

In view of the above, and noting that the counsel for the trust also fairly submitted to the Court that there was no question of “deemed registration” and that the matter be remitted back to the Commissioner for consideration of the matter afresh, the Madras High Court held that non-consideration of the registration application, within the prescribed time, did not amount to “deemed registration” of the trust. The Madras High Court therefore set aside the matter and remitted it back to the Commissioner for consideration of the application afresh, to pass orders after affording sufficient opportunity to the trust.

This decision of the Madras High Court was also followed by it in a subsequent decision in the case of CIT vs. Karimangalam Onriya Pengal Semipu Amaipu Ltd 354 ITR 483, where also a similar concession was given by the counsel for the trust and there also, the Madras High Court remitted the matter back to the Commissioner for consideration afresh.

Observations

The decisions of the Madras High Court seem to have been significantly influenced by the decision of the Orissa High Court in Bhakti-Vedanta Swami Charitable Trust’s case. In that case, the delayed application was made in August 2004, but was claimed to have been misplaced by the tax authorities and was made significantly without a request for condonation of delay. The Orissa High Court observed in that case, as under:

“In our view, the period of 6 months as provided in s/s. (2) of section 12AA is not mandatory. Though the word “shall” has been used, but it is well known that to ascertain whether a provision is mandatory or not, the expression “shall” is not always decisive. It is also well known that whether a statutory provision is mandatory or directory has to be ascertained not only from the wording of the statute, but also from the nature and design of the statute and the purpose which it seeks to achieve. Herein the time-frame under s/s. (2) of section 12AA of the Act has been so provided to exclude any delay or lethargic approach in the matter of dealing with such appli-cation. Since the consequence for non-compliance with the said timeframe has not been spelt out in the statute, this Court cannot hold that the said time limit is mandatory in nature, nor the period of six months has been couched in negative words. Most of the time, negative words indicate a mandatory intent. This Court is also of the opinion that when public duty is to be performed by the public authorities, the time limit which is granted by the statute is normally not mandatory but is directory in the absence of any clear statutory intent to the contrary. See Montréal Street Railway Company vs. Normandin AIR 1917 PC 142. Here, there is no such express statutory intent, nor does it follow from necessary implication.”

In this case, the Orissa High Court directed the authorities to complete the statutory exercise of deciding on the application within a period of six months from the date of the court order, and that if the registration was granted, it would relate back to the date of application. The court also levied costs on the officer for his careless attitude taken and the misleading stand taken before the court by the Department.

The Orissa High Court proceeded on the basis that the task being performed by the Commissioner was a public duty, and therefore took the view that it did that no time limit could be laid down in such a situation. On the other hand, the Allahabad High Court rightly distinguished the process of registration for a trust and noted that in such process, there was merely a tax liability of an individual trust involved, and no public element or public interest involved.

If one would take the decision of the Orissa High Court to its logical conclusion, it would mean that in every case where the time limit was exceeded, the trust would have to approach the High Courts for extending the time limits, since the Commissioner would take the stand that he cannot pass an order once the time limit has expired under the law. This would create untold difficulty for such trusts, for no fault of theirs.

The Orissa High Court decision also ignores the fact that the statute has expressly laid down a time limit for disposal of the application for registration — whereas the High Court’s view seems to be that such a time limit cannot be laid down, but is merely a guidance. As against this, the Allahabad High Court has rightly tried to sub- serve the purpose of laying down the time limit by the legislature, which is to avoid undue delays in processing of applications, which was the norm earlier.

A note may also be taken of the following observations in the decision of the Special Bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal in the case of Bhagwad Swarup Shri Shri Devraha Baba Memorial Shri Hari Parmarth Dham Trust vs. Commissioner of Income Tax 111 ITD 175, while upholding the concept of deemed registration on failure to pass an order within the specified period:

“If the application for registration is to abate because the CIT did not pass an order thereon and the assessee is asked to file another application again that would be putting, the assessee to the grind all over again for no fault of his. That consequence should be avoided. If the application is to be treated as pending, then again the CIT would be getting an extended period of limitation which the section does not allow. Further, it would be uncertain as to how long the period can be extended. The assessee cannot be kept waiting to the end of time. If it is held that the application must be deemed to have been refused, obviously the assessee must be in a position to file an appeal against the refusal to the Tribunal but it will not be able to do so in the absence of a written order containing the reasons for refusal; the appeal remedy would be rendered illusory. That consequence cannot be countenanced. Therefore by a process of exclusion, the conclusion is that the CIT must be deemed to have allowed the registration if he has not passed any order within the time prescribed. That way, the rights of the Department are also protected in the sense that it would be open to the CIT to cancel the deemed registration by invoking s/s. (3) to section 12AA, if it is otherwise permitted and the procedure prescribed therefor is followed. The assessee, if aggrieved by the cancellation of registration, has a right to appeal to the Tribunal u/s. 253(1)(c)…..

It would be incongruous to hold that while the condition that the trust or charitable institution must be registered with the CIT is mandatory or absolute, the provision that the CIT shall pass an order thereon within six months from the end of

the month in which the application was filed is merely directory, leaving it to the convenience of the CIT to pass the order at any time he likes disregarding the time-limit prescribed. That would introduce an element of uncertainty and con-fusion in the administration of the Act and may even compel trusts or institutions claiming exemption u/s. 11 to invoke Art. 226 of the Constitution. Such consequences have to be avoided. The assessments of the trust or charitable institution may in the meantime be completed rejecting the claim for exemption on the ground that it is not registered, even though the trust/charitable institution is found by the AO to satisfy the other conditions such as application of income, investment of the funds and so on. In other words, by not passing the order within the time-limit, the claim of the trust/charitable institution can be frustrated, albeit unintentionally. There is no good ground shown, nor does any appear to exist in the scheme of the Act, to hold that the time-limit within which the CIT has to pass an order on the application for registration of the trust or institution is merely directory. It is not merely a question of prejudice being caused to the assessee, but it is something which goes to the very root of good administration and obedience to the law. It could not have been the intention of the law that the CIT could pass the order granting or refusing registration at any time. Any provision has to be so interpreted as to advance the cause and suppress the mischief.”

The one thing that is clear is that an assessee cannot be altogether denied the benefit of tax exemption on account of the laches of the Commissioner in dealing with the assessee’s application in time; he also cannot refuse to pass an order on the application on the ground that the law prevents him in doing so after the statutorily prescribed time. In short he cannot take benefit of his lapses by inflicting punishment on the assessee. Even under the view of the Orissa and Madras High Courts, not so favourable to the assessees, the need for the Commissioner to dispose the application remaining undisposed, is not dispensed with. The courts have clearly hauled up the authorities for their inaction by awarding the costs and have directed the authorities to dispose the application within the extended time after affording opportunity to the assessee. Importantly, the courts have held that the decision of the authorities when taken shall have retrospective effect, thereby ensuring that no undue harm is caused to the assessee for no fault of his. What perhaps remains to be ensured is that the tax demand, if any, in the intervening period is not pursued and enforced and the assessee is saved the trouble of moving the courts to make the Commissioner act on his application.

The purposive interpretation adopted by the Allahabad High Court, that registration should be deemed to have been granted, however, seems to be the far better and practical view of the matter, fulfilling both the requirements of the provision and its intention. The view is strengthened by the presence of the Proviso to section 12AA(1) which provides for giving an opportunity of hearing to the assesseee, by the Commissioner, before rejecting his application for registration which in turn clearly conveys that the denial of registration on account of non disposal of application is altogether ruled out. This view has the effect of satisfying the law abiding assessee who has made the application in time and is otherwise equitous in as much as the law provides for no condonation of delay in application of the assessee.

‘Turnover Filter’ in ‘Comparability Analysis’ for Benchmarking

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Issue for Consideration
The transfer pricing provisions were introduced in India vide Finance Act, 2001 as a measure to prevent abuse and avoidance of tax by shifting the taxable income to a jurisdiction outside India. These transfer pricing provisions are contained in Sections 92 to 92F of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) and Rules 10A to 10E of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 (‘the Rules’).

The term “arm’s length price (ALP)” is defined u/s. 92F(ii) as a price which is applied or proposed to be applied in a transaction between persons other than associated enterprises, in uncontrolled conditions. The application of ALP is generally based on a comparison of the price, margin or profits from particular controlled transaction with the price, margin or profit from comparable transactions between independent enterprises. A comparison of transaction between the associated (related) enterprises (known as controlled transaction) with transaction between independent enterprises (known as uncontrolled transaction) is referred to as ‘comparability analysis’, which is at the heart of the application of the principle of ALP.

Rule 10B of the Rules provides for ‘comparability analysis’ wherein a comparison of a controlled transaction is undertaken with uncontrolled transaction. The controlled and uncontrolled transaction are comparable if none of the differences between the transactions could materially affect the factor viz, price, cost charged, profit arising, etc, being examined in the methodology, or if reasonably accurate adjustments can be made to eliminate the material effects of such differences. In order to establish the degree of actual comparability and then to make appropriate adjustments to establish arm’s length conditions, it is necessary to compare the attributes of the transactions or enterprises that could affect conditions in arm’s length transactions. Some of the main attributes or comparability factors are as under:

• Characteristics of the property or services transferred;

• Functions performed by the parties (taking into account assets used and risk assumed);

• Contractual terms;

• Economic circumstances of the parties;

• Business strategies by the parties, etc.

While transfer pricing is not an exact science and is itself at a nascent and developing stage in India, therefore, there are bound to be controversies on various aspects of transfer pricing provisions. One of the recent controversies has been in respect of one of these attributes of the comparability analysis between the controlled and uncontrolled transaction, i.e. the relevance of ‘turnover filter’ in comparability analysis for determination of ALP.

‘Turnover filter’ in comparability analysis refers to filtration/truncation of the selected comparables vis-à-vis the company, on the basis of turnover, because the difference in turnover may affect the determination of ALP of the transaction. For instance, Company A with a turnover of Rs. 1,000 crore plus could not be considered as a comparable to Company B who has a turnover of Rs. 1 crore, since Company A shall have higher bargaining power, capacity to execute large contracts, risks assumed, skilled staff, etc vis-à-vis Company B who may not be able to undertake similar transactions. So, for determination of ALP of controlled transaction undertaken by Company B, whether ‘turnover filter’ can be applied in comparability analysis of service companies is the issue.

While the Hyderabad, Delhi and Bangalore benches of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal have taken a stand in favour of the taxpayers allowing ‘Turnover Filter’ in comparability analysis of service companies, the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal has recently taken a contrary view on the subject.

Capgemini India’s case

In Capgemini India Pvt. vs. ACIT (ITA No. 7861/M/2011) (Mum.) dated 28th February 2013, the Appellant had rendered software programming services to its parent Company in US. The Appellant had applied Transactional Net Margin Method (‘TNMM’) as the most appropriate method for benchmarking this international transaction, which was duly accepted by the AO/TPO. Among the various disputes w.r.t. comparability analysis undertaken by the Appellant Company, the AO/TPO had denied the exclusion of comparables viz, Infosys and Wipro, and thereby refused the applicability of ‘turnover filter’.

It was argued before the Tribunal that even though the Appellant Company had considered these companies in its benchmarking exercise, however, the correct and right approach was to exclude such high turnover companies with turnover exceeding Rs. 13,000 crore, whereas the turnover of the Appellant was only around Rs. 558 crore. It was contended that these comparable companies enjoyed economies of scale and better bargaining power vis-à-vis the Appellant Company. Relying on the financials of these comparable companies, it was specifically submitted that the margins of these companies were exceptionally high vis-a-vis the Appellant Company and therefore, these comparables should have been excluded in the benchmarking exercise. Reliance was placed on the following decisions by the Appellant Company to contend that ‘turnover filter’ should be applied and the comparables viz, Infosys and Wipro should be excluded from the benchmarking exercise for want of high turnovers:

• Addl CIT vs. Frost and Sullivan India Pvt. Ltd. (2012) (50 SOT 517)(Mum);

• Dy CIT vs. Deloitte Consulting India (P) Ltd.(2011) (61 DTR 101)(Hyd)(Tri);

• Aginity India Technologies vs. ITO (ITA No. 3856/ Del/2010)(Del)(Tri);

• Genesis Integrating Systems India P. Ltd vs. Dy CIT (2011) (61 DTR 225)(Bang); and

• Brigade Global Services Pvt. Ltd vs. ITO (ITA No. 1494/Hyd/ 2010)(Hyd.)(Tri)

On the other hand, the Department argued that these comparables should not be excluded even though they have exceptionally high turnover and profit. It was argued that economies of scale is not relevant and applicable in case of service companies and the ‘turnover filter’ is relevant only in case of manufacturing companies.

Reliance was placed on the decision of Symantec Software Services Pvt. Ltd (ITA No. 7894/M/2010) [2011-TII-60-Mum-TP], in which the Tribunal had upheld the non-applicability of turnover filter in case of service companies. Further, reliance was also placed on the chart plotted with margin and turnover of the comparables, which concluded that there was no linear relationship between them.

The Tribunal held that turnover filters cannot be applied in case of service companies, since they do not have any high fixed costs and the employees are the only main assets, whose costs are directly related to manpower utilised. Relying on the chart produced by the Department, the Tribunal held that there was no linear relationship between margin and turnover and so the concept of economies of scale does not apply in case of service industry. As regard the contention of the Appellant w.r.t. skilled employees available with the comparables, the Tribunal held that margins of the comparables and the Appellant were not affected on account of such differences and all the companies and comparables had same level of risk as they operated in same field and similar environment. Referring to Rule 10B(2), the Tribunal observed functions performed, asset used and risks assumed [‘FAR’] by the comparable companies should be compared with the Appellant Company in the benchmarking exercise of the international transaction.

As regards the argument of the Appellant Company w.r.t. low bargaining power, it was held by the Tribunal that since the Appellant is a part of multinational group therefore, it cannot be said to have less bargaining power. The Tribunal therefore upheld the contention of the Department, that no turnover filter can be applied in case of service oriented companies.

A similar view has been taken by the Tribunal in the following cases, rejecting the use of turnover filter for comparability analysis of service companies:

•    Vodafone India Services P. Ltd vs. DCIT (ITA No. 7140/M/2012) dated 26th April 2013; and

•    Willis Processing Services India P. Ltd(ITA No. 4547/M/2012);

Genisys Integrating Systems case

In Genisys Integrating Systems India (P) Ltd vs. DCIT (64 DTR 225), the Bangalore Tribunal was opining on the determination of ALP of software development services provided by the Appellant Company to its AEs outside India. TNMM method which was selected as the most appropriate method for determination of ALP was accepted by the AO/ TPO. On the dispute of turnover filter with a range of Rs. 1 crore at the lower end and Rs. 200 crore at the high end, applied during the course of determination of ALP, the Tribunal upheld the following arguments of the Appellant Company:

•    Enterprise level difference is an important facet in determination of ALP. Comparables should have something similar or equivalent and should possess same or almost the same characteristics;

•    A Maruti 800 car cannot be compared to Benz car, even though both are cars only. Unusual pattern, stray cases, wide disparities have to eliminated as they do not satisfy the test of comparability;

•    Companies operating on a large scale benefit from economies of scale, higher risk taking capabilities, robust delivery and business models as opposed to the smaller or medium sizes companies and therefore, size matters;

•    Two companies of dissimilar size therefore, cannot be assumed to earn comparable margins and this impact of difference in size could be removed by a quantitative adjustment to the margins or prices being compared if it is possible to do so reasonably accurately;

•    Reliance was placed on the following decisions, wherein turnover/ quantitative filter was approved for determination of ALP:
–    Dy CIT vs. Quark Systems (P) Ltd (2010)(38 SOT 307)(Chd)(SB);
–    E-Gain Communication (P) Ltd vs. Dy. CIT (2008) (13 DTR 65)(Pune)(Tri);
–    Sony India (P) Ltd vs. Dy CIT (114 ITD 448)(Del);
–    Dy. CIT vs. Indo American Jewellery Ltd. (2010) (40 DTR 386)(Mum)(Tri);
–    Philips Software Centre (P) Ltd vs. Asst. CIT (119 TTJ 721)(Bang.); and
–    Asst. CIT vs. NIT (2011)(57 DTR 334)(Del)(Tri)

•    Further, reliance was placed on the relevant ex-tracts of Para 3.43 of the OECD Transfer Pricing Guidelines, which are as under:

“Size criteria in terms of Sales, Assets or Number of employees. The size of the transaction in absolute value or in proportion to the activities of the parties might affect the relative competitive positions of the buyer and seller and therefore comparability.”

•    NASSCOM also has categorized companies based on turnover, similar to Dun and Bradstreet.

The Tribunal specifically observed that there has to be lower limit and upper limit of range in applying turnover filter, since size matters in business. A big company would be in a position to bargain the price and also attract more customers. It would also have a broad base of skilled employees who are able to give better output. A small company may not have these benefits and therefore, the turnover also would come down reducing profit margin.

The Tribunal therefore approved the use of turn-over filters in comparability analysis of a services company.

A similar view has been taken by the Tribunal, approving the use of turnover filter in comparability analysis of service companies:

•    Adaptec (India) (P) Ltd vs. DCIT (2013)(86 DTR 26)(Hyd.)(Tri);
•    Asst CIT vs. Maersk Global Services Centre (India) P. Ltd. (133 ITD 543)(Mum.);
•    M/s. Patni Telecom Solutions vs. ACIT (1846/ Hyd/2012) dated 25 April 2013;
•    Capital IQ Information Systems vs. Dy. CIT (ITA No. 1961/Hyd/2007);
•    Brigade Global Services (P) Ltd vs. ITO (supra);
•    Triniti Advanced Software Labs (P) Ltd vs. Asst. CIT (2011 TII 92 Tri Hyd-78);
•    Agnity India Technologies (P.) Ltd vs. Asst CIT (supra);
•    Addl CIT vs. Frost and Sullivan India (P) Ltd (supra);
•    Actis Advisors Pvt Ltd vs. DCIT (2012)(20 ITR 138) (Del.)(Tri.);
•    Continuous Computing India (P) Ltd. vs. ITO (2012) (52 SOT 45)(Bang)(URO); and
•    Centillium India P. Ltd vs. DCIT (2012)(20 ITR 69) (Bang)(Tri.)

Observations

On perusal of the contrary decisions discussed above, in all the cases, TNMM was selected and applied as the most appropriate method for bench-marking. TNMM puts more efforts on functional similarities than on product similarities. Functional analysis seeks to identify and compare the eco-nomically significant activities and responsibilities undertaken, assets used and risks assumed by the parties to the transaction. Generally, quantitative and qualitative filters/criteria are used to include or exclude the potential comparables. The choice and application of selection criteria depends on the facts and circumstances of each particular case. Turnover filters are a type of quantitative criteria.

On the touchstone of FAR analysis, the big service companies are generally found providing services to different customers simultaneously, performing additional functions, assuming risks and employing unique intangible assets, unlike small size service companies. Similarly, the goodwill and brands of these companies enjoy premium pricing and due to scale of operations, these companies enjoy economies of scale in lower cost of infrastructural facilities and employees. Employee costs are generally found to be semi-variable in nature, with higher proportion of fixed cost. Further, the big service companies have a capacity and are in a position to execute large service contracts, which may not be possible otherwise for small or medium size service companies. In such a scenario, the bigger companies would also be in a position to have a better bargaining power vis-à-vis other companies.

Economies of scale are the cost advantages that enterprises obtain due to size, with cost per unit of output generally decreasing with increasing scale as fixed costs are spread out over more units of output. Often operational efficiency is also greater with increasing scale, leading to lower variable cost as well. Even though services are different from products, but still they may achieve economies of scale in business operations by using the inputs, viz, process and technology efficiently, which are necessary to render the services. For instance, just as automakers invest in the latest manufacturing processes, service companies can use technology to improve efficiency. A carpet cleaning company may purchase powerful shampooers and vacuums that decrease the time it takes to complete a job by 25 percent, thereby, claiming the cost savings from economies of scale.

Economies of scale should not be confused with the economic notion of returns of scale, which is otherwise sought to be relied by the Department, by proving that there is no linear relationship between margins and turnover and therefore, no economies of scale exist in case of service industry.

Also, the findings of the decision of Symantec Software (supra) which is sought to be relied on by Capgemini India (supra) on the contrary support the applicability of turnover filter, but however, for want of specific facts of the case, it led to opining otherwise against the Appellant Company.

Accordingly, even in case of service oriented companies, if FAR analysis indicates wide disparities in the comparables vis-à-vis taxpayer’s international transaction, then quantitative viz, turnover filter and/or qualitative filters can be applied in comparability analysis for determination of ALP. Therefore, it appears that the ratio of the Mumbai Tribunal decisions requires reconsideration.

A Special Bench of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal has also been constituted by the Delhi Bench in the case of M/s. Fiesecke and Devirent India Pvt Ltd (in ITA No. 5924/Del/2012) on the issue under consideration with the following questions:

“1. Whether for the purposes of determining the Arm’s length Price in relation to the international transactions, quantitative filter of high/low turnover is to be applied and accordingly, high/low turnover companies vis-à-vis the assessee company are to be excluded from the comparable selected for benchmarking the transaction; and

2.    If the answer to question no. 1 is in affirmative then what should be the parameter, if any, for the exclusion of high/low turnover companies vis-à-vis the assessee company.”

Due Date of Payment for Allowability of Employee PF Contribution

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Issue for Consideration

Under the provisions of the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, an eligible employee as well as his employer are required to make periodic contributions to the provident fund (PF) account of the employee. The employer deducts the employee’s contribution from his salary, and pays both the employer’s as well as the employee’s contribution together to the PF account of the employee. Similar provisions are contained under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 and Scheme (ESIC).

The employer’s contribution to the PF, etc., being a business expenditure, is an allowable deduction in computing the income of the employer under the head “Profits & Gains of Business or Profession” u/s.36(1)(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The employee’s PF and ESIC contribution, on deduction by the Employer, is deemed to be the income of the employer in the first place by virtue of section 2(24)(x), but is an allowable business deduction u/s. 36(1)(va). However, in order to claim either the employer’s PF contribution or the employee’s PF contribution as a deduction, the payment of such contribution has to be made by a specified date. While the time limit for the deduction of the expenditure, under the Income-tax Act, of the employer’s contribution is governed by section 43B(b), the employee’s contribution is governed by section 36(1)(va) of the Act.

Section 43B(b) provides that the expenditure would be allowed only in the year of actual payment. Till Assessment Year 2003-04, the proviso to section 43B provided that the deduction of employer’s PF contribution would be allowed only if the amount had actually been paid before the due date referred to in section 36(1)(va). Section 36(1)(va) provides that the employee’s contribution shall be allowed as a deduction if the amount is credited by the employer to the employee’s account on or before the due date by which the employer is required to credit the employee’s contribution under the relevant Act .

Therefore, till Assessment Year 2003-04, both employer’s as well as employees’ PF contributions were allowable as deductions only if the amounts were paid before the due date under the PF law. The proviso to section 43B has however been amended with effect from Assessment Year 2004-05 to provide that section 43B would not apply to payments made before the due date of filing of the return of income u/s. 139(1). In effect therefore, employer’s PF contribution is now allowed as a deduction in the same previous year in which the liability to pay the amount is incurred, so long as the payment is made before the due date of filing of the return of income for that year. No corresponding amendment has been made in section 36(1)(va).

The question has arisen before the tribunal and the courts as to whether the due date of filing of the return of income as applicable to the employer’s PF contribution under the proviso to section 43B can also be taken as the due date for the purposes of allowability of the employees’ PF contribution. Can the amended provisions of section 43B relaxing the time for payment of employer’s contribution be extended and applied even for claiming deduction for employees’ contribution? While the Mumbai and the Kolkata benches and the Special bench of the Tribunal have taken the view that the due date under the PF law is the relevant date for employees’ PF contribution and any payment beyond that date shall defer the deduction to the year of payment, the Delhi and Hyderabad benches of the Tribunal have taken the view that it is the due date of filing of the return of income which is the relevant date and the making of the payment by that date will enable the employer to claim deduction for the employees’ contribution. The latter view has also been the unanimous view of the Karnataka, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand High Courts.

Sudhir Genset’s case:

The issue came up for consideration of the Delhi bench of the tribunal in the case of DCIT vs. Sudhir Genset Ltd. 45 SOT 63 (URO).

In this case, pertaining to assessment years 2005- 06, 2006-07 and 2007-08, the assessing officer had made disallowances of employees’ contributions to PF and ESIC on the ground that the assessee failed to make the payment of employees’ contributions within the due dates as provided in those Acts. The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the disallowance on the ground that though these payments were not made within the limitation provided in the PF Act and ESIC Act, these were paid before the due date of filing of the returns of income in all the three assessment years.

The Delhi bench of the tribunal was of the view that the issue was covered by the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. P.M. Electronics Ltd., 313 ITR 161, where it had been held that if the assessee made payment in the PF and ESIC account, including the employees’ contribution, before the due date of the filing of the return u/s. 139 of the Income-tax Act, then no disallowance of such payment could be made by virtue of section 43B.

Since all the payments were made before the due date of filing of the return of income, the Delhi bench of the tribunal upheld the deletion of disallowance of the employees’ PF contribution.

A similar view was taken by the Hyderabad bench of the Tribunal in the cases of Imerys Ceramics (India) (P) Ltd 24 taxmann.com 320 and Patni Telecom Solutions (P) Ltd 35 taxmann.com 87 (Hyd), where the Tribunal followed the decisions of the Karnataka High Court in the cases of CIT vs. Sabari Enterprises 298 ITR 141 and CIT vs. ANZ Information Technology (P) Ltd. 318 ITR 123.

Besides these two Karnataka High Court decisions, the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. AIMIL Ltd.321 ITR 508, the Karnataka High Court in the case of Spectrum Consultants India (P) Ltd 215 Taxman 597, the Himachal Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nipso Polyfabriks Ltd. 350 ITR 327 and the Uttarakhand High Court in the case of CIT vs. Kichha Sugar Co Ltd. 35 taxmann.com 54 have all taken the view that employees’ PF contribution could not be added back to income or disallowed, even if the payment was made after the due date under the PF Act, so long as the payment was made before the due date of filing of the income-tax return u/s. 139.

LKP Securities’ case:

The issue came up recently before the Mumbai bench of the tribunal in the case of ITO vs. LKP Securities Ltd. ITA No 638/Mum/2012 dated 17th May 2013.

In this case, the assessee made delayed payments of employees’ PF and ESIC contributions, beyond the stipulated dates of 15th and 21st of the following month under the respective Acts. The PF payment was, however, made within the 5 days of grace permitted under PF law. The assessing officer disallowed such payments on the ground that the grace period was only for the purposes of not charging penal interest and other penalties under the PF Act, and was not an extension of the due date under that Act. The Commissioner (Appeals) deleted the disallowance on the ground that the payments were made before the due date of filing of the return of income, following the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of AIMIL Ltd. (supra).

Before the tribunal, on behalf of the revenue, reliance was placed on the Kolkata bench tribunal decision in the case of DCIT vs. Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Ltd., 10 taxmann.com 26, where the tribunal after considering the decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions Ltd 319 ITR 306 and the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Sabari Enterprises (supra), has held that employees’ contributions were not governed by section 43B. It was also argued that the same view was taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pamwi Tissues Ltd. 215 CTR 150. It was therefore argued that employees’ contribution to PF/ESIC was not allowable if not paid before the due dates under the respective Acts.

On behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on the Delhi High Court decision of AIMIL Ltd. (supra), where the court after considering the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Vinay Cement Ltd 213 CTR (SC) 268, had clarified that the amendment to section 43B with effect from assessment year 2004-05 would apply to the employer’s as well as the employees’ contribution to the various welfare funds. The Delhi High Court had also held that the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Pamwi Tissues (supra) was no longer a good law after the Supreme Court decision of Vinay Cements (supra), and that there was no scope for any doubt after the Supreme Court decision in the case of Alom Extrusions (supra). It was therefore argued that any payment by the employer, whether in respect of the employer’s or the employees’ contribution, made before the due date of filing of the return of income would qualify for being allowed as a deduction for the relevant year.

After analysing the provisions of section 43B and the amendments carried out with effect from assessment year 2004-05, the tribunal noted that section 43b(b) covered only the employer’s contribution to such welfare funds, and that the employees’ contribution was not covered by section 43B(b). After considering the provisions of sections 37(1), 2(24)(x), 36(1)(va) and 43B(b), the tribunal noted that while the due date for payment of both employer’s and employees’ contribution under the PF Act was the same, the deductibility of the employer’s contribution under the Income-tax Act was governed by section 37(1) while the employees’ contribution was deemed to be income u/s. 2(24)(x) and governed by section 36(1)(va).

According to the tribunal, even if one overlooked the clear language of section 2(24)(x) read with section 36(1)(va) (on one hand) and section 43B(b) (on the other hand), which clearly concerned separate and distinct sums, and consider for the sake of argument, section 43B(b) as applicable to section 36(1) (va) payments, it would be rendered otiose . This was on account of the fact that the sum had to be otherwise allowable under the relevant provision for section 43B to apply, and since the payment had not been made before the due date specified in section 36(1)(va), it was not allowable under that section, and therefore section 43B did not apply to the case of employees’ contribution. On the other hand, if the payment was made before the due date specified u/s. 36(1)(va), section 43B had no functional relevance.

The Mumbai tribunal also relied on the Kolkata Special Bench tribunal decision in the case of Jt. CIT vs. ITC Ltd. 112 ITD 57, where the Special Bench had held that section 43B did not apply to payment of the employees’ contribution. The tribunal further noted that the decisions of the Supreme Court in the cases of Vinay Cement (supra) and Alom Extru-sions (supra) related to the provisions of section 43B, which did not govern the deductibility of the employees’ contribution, and related merely to the retrospectivity of the amendment in section 43B. This aspect, according to the tribunal, had been explained by the Bombay High Court in the case of Pamwi Tissues ( supra ). Though this decision of Pamwi Tissues has been reversed by the Supreme Court in the case of Alom Extrusions, the reversal was only in respect of the subject matter of retro-spectivity of the amendment. The tribunal observed that the Bombay High Court in Pamwi Tissues’ case endorsed its decision in CIT vs. Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana Ltd 298 ITR 149, wherein issues other than those relating to the amendment to section 43B were also referred to. According to the tribunal, the question of applicability of the amendment in section 43B to the employees’ contribution remained unanswered or unaddressed by the Supreme Court in Alom Extrusions’ case (supra). The Supreme Court in that case did not consider or give any finding that the employees’ contribution, deduction of which was subject to section 36(1)(va), was further subjected to section 43B or that section 43B would apply even if the sum was otherwise not allowable.

As regards the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of AIMIL Ltd., the Mumbai tribunal noted that the said decision was considered by the Kol-kata bench of the tribunal in the case of DCIT vs. Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Ltd., 10 tax-mann.com 26 while deciding the issue against the assesssee. Though AIMIL’s decision covered payment of employees’ contribution to EPF and ESIC, according to the tribunal, the entire deliberation in that decision, as well as the subject matter of the decision was qua section 43B, including the amend-ments thereto. According to the tribunal, the High Court moved on the premise that the employees’ contribution was subject to section 43B(b), and accordingly interpreted the section as well as the nature of the amendments. Further, according to the Mumbai tribunal, the decision of the tribunal which was approved of by the Delhi High Court in AIMIL’s case did not consider the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITC Ltd (supra), and was also inconsistent with the decision of the jurisdictional Bombay High Court in Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana’s case (supra), in so far as it related to the inapplicability of section 43B to payments specified u/s. 36(1)(va). Further, as per the tribunal, the absence of the relevant findings in Alom Extrusions’ case(supra), the decision in the case of AIMIL Ltd. was not the one that had considered all facts of the issue of deductibility of the employees’ contribution. The Mumbai bench of the tribunal therefore preferred not to follow the decision in the case of AIMIL Ltd. on the ground that it was not applicable or germane to the issue under consideration before the tribunal, but opted to follow the decision of the Special Bench of the tribunal in ITC Ltd. (supra) and the decision in the case of Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals (supra), since both of these were consistent with the jurisdictional High Court on the material aspect before the Mumbai bench.

Therefore, the Mumbai tribunal held that the due date for the purposes of allowability of employees’ PF contribution meant the relevant date under the PF Act, and not the due date of filing of the return of income under the Income-tax Act. Following the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana’s case (supra), the Mumbai tribunal however held that the benefit of the grace period had to be considered in computing the due date, and therefore held that any payments of the employees’ contribution made within the grace period was allowable as deduction.

Observations

The Delhi High Court in deciding the issue in favour of the assessee in AIMIL Ltd.’s case, clearly observed that if the employees’ contribution is not deposited by the due date prescribed under the relevant Acts and is deposited late, the employer not only paid interest on delayed payment but also attracted penalties, for levy of which specific provisions are made in the Provident Fund Act as well as the ESI Act. The court noted that those Acts permitted the employer to make the deposit with some delays, subject to the penal consequences. This aspect of the respective laws permitting delayed payment of the dues prevailed on the High Court in taking the view that it did. It is therefore respectfully submitted that had the Mumbai tribunal appreciated that the decision of the Delhi court was a well considered decision that took into account the comprehensive gamut of the provisions of all the statutes relevant to payment of the dues, including the provisions of the Income tax Act, it would have followed the AIMIL Ltd. decision instead of dissenting from it.

The decision of the Mumbai bench of the tribunal, as stated by it, seems to have been mainly swayed by the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana. On going through this decision, while one notes that one of the issues that came up before the Bombay High Court was relating to employees’ contribution, the Bombay High Court has nowhere expressly discussed or highlighted or noted the distinction between the employees’ contribution and the employer’s contribution. The court merely took a note of the provisions of sections 43B and 36(1)(va) and the amendments to section 43B. The Bombay High Court, in that case, was primarily concerned with the issue of the retrospectivity of the amendments to section 43B, just as the Delhi High Court was in the case of AIMIL Ltd. In both the cases, the courts were mainly concerned with the applicability of the amendments in section 43B and if that was so, the Mumbai tribunal did not have much to choose between the said decisions as neither of them perhaps laid down any law as far as the deduction of the employees’ contribution was concerned. Further, the said decision of the Bombay High Court in Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana’s case stood overruled by the Supreme Court decision in Alom Extrusions’ case.

The Special Bench decision in the case of ITC has been rendered on the basis of the specific language of the sections and not by keeping in mind the intention of the legislature and the spirit behind the amendments. In that case, the impact of the permission to make delayed payments under the PF and ESIC Acts on payment of interest and penalty was not examined in depth.

Set-off of Brought Forward Busines Losses against Capital Gains u/s.50

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Issue for consideration

Under the provisions relating to set-off of brought forward business losses u/.s72, a brought forward business loss can be set off only against business profits of the current year, and not against income from any other source, including capital gains of the current year. Gains arising on sale of depreciable business assets forming part of a block of assets, though arising in the course of business, is taxable under the head ‘Capital Gains’ as a deemed shortterm capital gains on account of the specific provisions of section 50.

Section 50 reads as under:

“50. Notwithstanding anything contained in clause (42A) of section 2, where the capital asset is an asset forming part of a block of assets in respect of which depreciation has been allowed under this Act or under the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 (11 of 1922), the provisions of sections 48 and 49 shall be subject to the following modifications:

(1) where the full value of the consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer of the asset together with the full value of such consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer of any other capital asset falling within the block of the assets during the previous year, exceeds the aggregate of the following amounts, namely:

(i) expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with such transfer or transfers;

(ii) the written down value of the block of assets at the beginning of the previous year; and

(iii) the actual cost of any asset falling within the block of assets acquired during the previous year,

such excess shall be deemed to be the capital gains arising from the transfer of short-term capital assets;

(2) where any block of assets ceases to exist as such, for the reason that all the assets in that block are transferred during the previous year, the cost of acquisition of the block of assets shall be the written-down value of the block of assets at the beginning of the previous year, as increased by the actual cost of any asset falling within that block of assets, acquired by the assessee during the previous year and the income received or accruing as a result of such transfer or transfers shall be deemed to be the capital gains arising from the transfer of short-term capital assets.”

The issue has arisen as to whether brought forward business losses can be set off against deemed shortterm capital gains, arising on transfer of depreciable assets, taxable u/s.50, since such gain is really a type of business income. While the Bangalore and Rajkot Benches of the Tribunal have held that unabsorbed business loss cannot be set off against the gains arising u/s.50, the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal has held that the business loss brought forward from earlier years can be set off against such capital gains chargeable u/s.50.

Kampli Co-operative Sugar Factory’s case

The issue had come up before the Bangalore Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Kampli Co-operative Sugar Factory Ltd. v. Jt. CIT, 83 ITD 460. In this case relating to A.Y. 1997-98, the assessee sold the assets of its sugar factory, including the depreciable assets but excluding investments and deposits and the liabilities. The assessee claimed that the sale was a slump sale and the gains thereon was not taxable, since section 50B introduced with effect from A.Y. 2000-01 was not applicable to the year under consideration.

The Assessing Officer broke up the consideration into two parts — one for the land, which was held taxable as a long-term capital gains after deducting the indexed cost of the land, and the other for the depreciable assets, which was held taxable as deemed short-term capital gains after deducting the written-down value of the block of assets. He also did not set off the brought forward business losses against such capital gains.

The Commissioner (Appeals), upheld the order of the Assessing Officer and denied the set-off of the unabsorbed business losses against the capital gains.

The Tribunal confirmed that the sale was not a slump sale and bifurcation of the consideration was justified but proceeded to further examine the issue as to whether the unabsorbed business loss could be set off against the short-term capital gains arising u/s.50. The Tribunal held that the business assets were also capital assets as defined u/s.2(14), giving rise to capital gains on their sale chargeable u/s.45. The Tribunal observed that prior to 1st April, 1988, a component of capital gains arising from the sale of business assets was treated as a business profit by the legal fiction of the then prevailing section 41(2) while section 50 charged the whole amount under the head ‘capital gains’. The Tribunal further noted that the deeming capital gains u/s.50 of the Act is restricted to the capital gains being short-term capital gains and did not deem a business income to be the capital gains u/s.50 of the Act. The Tribunal therefore held that the unabsorbed business losses could not be set off against the capital gains.

A similar view was taken by the Rajkot Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Master Silk Mills (P.) Ltd. v. Dy. CIT, 77 ITD 530, where the Tribunal held that unabsorbed business losses could not be set off against sales proceeds of scrap of building that was taxable u/s.50 as a short-term capital gains. In that case the business had been closed and the income could not be said to have arisen in the course of business.

Digital Electronics’ case

The issue recently came up before the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Digital Electronics’ Ltd. v. Addl. CIT, 135 TTJ (Mum.) 419.

In this case, the assessee sold the factory building and plant and machinery, and claimed set-off of unabsorbed depreciation and brought forward business loss against such short-term capital gains taxable u/s.50. It was claimed that though the income was taxable as capital gains, its character remained that of business income inasmuch as the gains arose on transfer of a business asset on which depreciation was allowed. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of J. K. Chemicals Ltd. v. ACIT, 33 BCAJ (April 2001) page 36 [ITA No. 3206/Bom./89 dated 1st November 1993], where the Tribunal had held on similar facts [though in the context of section 41(2) and capital gains] that the character of such income that arose on transfer of depreciable assets remained that of business income, though it was taxed as capital gains under a deeming fiction.

The Assessing Officer however disallowed such setoff. The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the stand of the Assessing Officer, taking the view that there was no ambiguity in section 72, and that reliance could not be placed on erstwhile provisions of section 41(2).

The Tribunal, analysing the provisions of section 72, observed that the said section 72 stated that the losses incurred under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ which could not be set off against income from any other head of income, had to be carried forward to the following assessment year and was allowable for being set off “against the profits, if any, of that business or profession carried on by him and assessable for that assessment year.” In other words, according to the Tribunal, there was no requirement of the gains being taxable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ and thus, as long as gains were ‘of any business or profession carried on by the assessee and assessable to tax for that assessment year’, the same could be set off against loss under the head profits and gains of business or profession carried forward from earlier years. According to the Tribunal, the gains arising on sale of the business assets was in the nature of business income, though it was taxed under the head ‘Capital Gains’.

The Tribunal therefore held that the unabsorbed business losses could be set off against the capital gains charged to tax u/s.50.


Observations

The income from transfer of a depreciable asset, used for business, has its origin in business and is primarily characterised as a business income. This position in law was acknowledged specifically by old section 41(2) that is deleted w.e.f. 1-4-1988. Even the new section 41(2) provides for the similar treatment for taxing income on sale of depreciable assets used for generation and distribution of power under the head ‘profits and gains of business’.

The Income-tax Act contains provisions, for example, sections 8 and 22, which provide for an income to be taxed under a specific head of income though the same otherwise may have a different character. These provisions contain a deeming fiction and it is understood that they have a limited application.

The Supreme Court following its decisions in the cases of United Commercial Bank Ltd., 32 ITR 688 and Chhugandass & Co., 55 ITR 17, in the case of CIT v. Radhaswami Cocanada Bank Ltd., 57 ITR 306, had established this principle in the context of set-off of business losses against dividend income, which was then taxable under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. It was noted by the Supreme Court that while one set of provisions, i.e., the nature of loss incurred by the assessee, classified the same on the basis of income being taxable under a particular head for the purpose of computation of the net income, the other set of provisions was concerned only with the nature of gains being from business and not with the head of tax. Their Lordships held that as long as the profits and gains were in the nature of business profits and gains, and even if these profits were liable to be taxed under a head other than income from business and profession, the loss carried forward could be set off against such profits of the assessee. The ratio of these decisions was again confirmed by the Supreme Court in the case of Western States Trading Co. Pvt. Ltd., 80 ITR 21.

Even in the context of section 50 gains, the Courts have consistently held that such gains, though taxed under a deeming fiction as short-term capital gains, are eligible for the benefit of exemption from taxation u/s.54E, 54EC, 54F, etc. on its reinvestment in the specified assets [see Assam Petroleum Industries Ltd., 262 ITR 587 (Gau.) Rajiv Shukla, 334 ITR 138 (Del.) and Ace Builders Pvt. Ltd., 281 ITR 210 (Bom.)]. The SLP against the last decision has been dismissed by the Supreme Court.

It is accordingly a fairly settled position in law that a benefit otherwise allowed in law under one provision shall not be denied by extending a fiction contained in any other provision of law unless specifically provided for. No such provision is found to be contained in the provisions of sections 70, 71 and 72 of the Act.

On a closer reading of section 72 one finds that it does not mandate that the income that is sought to be adjusted against the brought forward loss should be the one that is taxable under the head ‘profits and gains of business’. This precisely is brought out by the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal by explaining that there is a distinct difference in the language employed in section 72 in the context of the loss that is to be carried forward, where the loss under the particular head of income is referred to, as against the context of the loss which it can be set off against, where the nature of income is referred to.

Looked at it from one more angle, the income that is sought to be taxed u/s.50 is to a large extent nothing but recoupment of depreciation that has been allowed as a deduction in computing the income under the head ‘profits and gains of business or profession’ and to the extent of the amount representing the recoupment should be considered as the business income.

The Mumbai Tribunal in the above-referred decision in J. K. Chemicals’ case was also impressed by the fact pointed out to the Tribunal that even the form of the Return of Income for the relevant year under consideration in that case provided for a set-off of brought forward business losses against the deemed short-term capital gains.

It is thus clear that in the case of capital assets of a business, the source of the income is really the business itself. It is by virtue of the fact that a business had been carried on that gains arises on sale of assets of that business. The character of the income is therefore that of business income, though there are specific provisions for taxing such gains as capital gains. Even a businessman would regard the character of such income as arising from his business.

Therefore, the view taken by the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in Digital Electronics case seems to be the better view of the matter.

Disallowance of an expenditure ‘Payable’ u/s. 40(a)(ia)

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Issue for Consideration
Section 40(a)(ia) is placed in Chapter IV D that deals with computation of profits and gains of business or profession. The said section lists out various expenditures that are not deductible in computing such profits and gains notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in sections 30 to 38.

The part, relevant for the discussion of the issue under consideration here, reads as under:

“Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in sections 30 to 38, the following amounts shall not be deducted in computing the income chargeable under the head ‘profits and gains of business or profession” –

(a) In the case of any assessee

(i) —————–

(ia)any interest, commission or brokerage, rent, royalty fees for professional services or fees for technical services payable to a resident, or amounts payable to a contractor or sub-contractor, being resident, for carrying out any work (including supply of labour for carrying out any work), on which tax is deductible at source under Chapter XVII-B and such tax has not been deducted or, after deduction, has not been paid, on or before the due date specified in sub-section (1) of section 139:

Provided …………………………………………………..
Provided  further ………………………………………
Explanation: …………………………………………….

On an apparent reading of the provision, it appears that an expenditure of the nature specified in the section, payable to a resident, shall not be allowed to be deducted where tax is deductible at source but has not been paid.

Since its introduction by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2004, w.e.f. assessment year 2005-06, this provision has been the subject matter of one or more controversies, some of them grave, including the challenge to the constitutionality of the provisions. The resistance of the taxpayers attracts sympathy on account of the fact that the provisions are very harsh as they call for disallowance of a genuine business expenditure, in its entirety, simply on account of non-deduction or non-payment of a miniscule amount. This torturous treatment attracts fierce opposition from the taxpayers and provides a breeding ground for an endless spate of litigation involving innovative contentions.

One such proposition, that found favour with the tribunal, is that the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) be restricted to the amount that remained unpaid or payable at the end of the year on which tax is not deducted or is deducted but has not been deposited with the Government. The tribunal based its finding on the use of the term ‘payable’ in section 40(a)(ia) to hold that the said term conveyed that the expenditure that is ‘ paid’ during the year is not disallowable even where the tax is not deducted or is not deposited after deduction. In short, the disallowance is to be restricted to the expenditure that is ‘payable’ and is not to be extended to cover an expenditure that has been ‘paid’.

The Special Bench of the tribunal in Merilyn Shipping & Transports vs. Addl. CIT, 136 ITD 23 (Vishakhapatnam) accepted this line of thinking by holding that the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) were not applicable in respect of such expenditure, the payment for which was made during the year without deducting tax at source. It held that the disallowance was possible only in respect of such expenditure, the payment for which was outstanding at the end of the year.

This decision of the special bench has subsequently been expressly overruled by two decisions of the Calcutta High Court and also by a decision of the Gujarat High Court. In contrast, the Allahabad High Court recently noted that the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) applied only to such expenditure, the payment for which had remained outstanding at the year end. In the meanwhile, the operation of this decision of the special bench was put under an interim suspension by the Andhra Pradesh High Court. However, it is believed that the operation of such suspension was limited to Merilyn Shipping & Transports or at the most to the assesses in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Any issue concerning section 40(a)(ia) assumes importance, as the said provision seeks to disallow a genuine business expenditure, for non-deduction or payment of an insignificant amount of tax.

2. Crescent Export Syndicate’s case

The issue arose before the Calcutta High Court, for the first time, in the case of CIT vs. Crescent Export Syndicate, 33 taxmann.com 250. In this case, the court was concerned with two appeals involving a common issue. In both the cases, the tribunal, relying on the decision of the Special Bench in the case of Merilyn Shipping & Transports, deleted the disallowance by the AO by holding that:

“If all the amounts have been paid, then obviously following the principles laid down by the Hon’ble Special Bench of this Tribunal in the case of Merilyn Shipping & Transports, no addition shall be made. If any amount is found to be payable as on the year end, then the Assessing Officer shall give the assessee adequate opportunity to substantiate his case as to why the disallowance, if any, should not be made by invoking the provisions of section 40(1) (ia) of the Act”.

“As the issue claimed by the assessee is that there is nothing payable as on 31-03-2006 and this expenditure of Rs. 1,08,80,559/- is paid during the year and nothing remains payable, it means that the issue is covered. Principally, we have agreement with the assessee’s counsel and are of the view that the issue is squarely covered in favour of the assessee. Principally, we allow this issue of the assessee but subject to the verification by AO that these expenses are paid within the year i.e., up to 31-03-2006 and nothing remains payable. Hence, this appeal of assessee in principle is allowed in favour of the assessee but subject to verification.”

The revenue filed appeals in both the matters requesting the Calcutta High Court to set aside the orders of the tribunal.

On behalf of the assessee, the following important contentions were placed for the consideration of the court;

• The Legislature has replaced the words “amounts credited or paid” used in the Finance Bill with the word “payable” in the final enactment. The change clearly conveyed the legislative intent of restricting the scope of the disallowance to the amounts ‘payable’ by excluding those amounts that were ‘paid’ during the year.

• Such change was not without any purpose. By changing the words from “credited or paid” to “payable”, the legislative intent has been made clear that only the outstanding amount or the provision for expense liable for TDS was sought to be disallowed in the event there was a default of TDS. Reliance was placed on the decision in the case of CIT vs. Kelvinator of India, 320 ITR 561 wherein the court, in the context of section 147, examined the implications of the deletion of the word ‘opinion’ used in the Finance Bill with the words “reason to believe” on enactment of the Bill, on receipt of representations against the omission of the words “reason to believe”,

• A construction which required, for its support, addition or substitution of words or which resulted in rejection of words, had to be avoided, unless it was covered by the rule of exception, including that of necessity. In the present provision of section 40(a) (ia) of the Act, there was no such exception and the only word used by the legislature was “payable”.

•    The legislative intent had been made clear by consciously replacing the words “credited or paid” with “payable”, that only the outstanding amount or the provision for expenses were liable for TDS were to be disallowed in the event there was default in not following the TDS provisions under Chapter XVII-B of the Act.

•    Sections 194 L and 194 LA provided that tax was to be deducted only at the time of payment. The language in these sections therefore showed that the legislature, where desired, had used different language in different sections.

•    Reference was made, for explaining the scope and effect of section 40(a)(ia), to the circular No.5 of 2005, dated 15th July, 2005, issued by the CBDT to show that the intention to introduce the provision was to curb bogus payments by creating bogus liability.

•    Section 40(a)(ia) created a legal fiction for the amounts outstanding or remained payable i.e. at the end of every year as on 31st March and such fiction could not be extended for taxing the amounts already paid.

•    Section 201 took care of tax to be collected in the hands of the payee and other TDS provisions under

Chapter XVIIB of the Act. No further legal fiction from elsewhere in the statute could be borrowed to extend the field of section 40(a)(ia) for disallowing the genuine and reasonable expenditure on the amounts of expenditure already paid.

•    That there might be two possible constructions. However, the construction that the word ‘payable’ was interchangeable with the word ‘paid’ made the position of the assessee, who had already paid his dues, without deducting tax, worse than the assessee who had not as yet paid his dues. In the case of the assessees, who had paid the dues without deduction of tax, disallowance of the expenditure was permanent and they had no means of deducting the tax later on relatable to the amount already paid in the earlier year and thus the relief contemplated by the proviso could never be availed by them.

•    While the income in the hands of the recipient was taxed, the payer did not get the benefit thereof. A second proviso to clause (ia), effective from 1st April, 2013, was enacted to lessen the rigour of clause (ia).

The Calcutta High Court, on hearing the rival contentions, observed and held as under:

•    The main thrust of the majority view, in the decision of the special bench, was based on the fact that the legislature had replaced the expression “amounts credited or paid” with the expression “payable” in the final enactment.

•    The tribunal fell into an error in not realising that a comparison between the pre-amendment and post-amendment law was permissible for the purpose of ascertaining the mischief sought to be remedied or the object sought to be achieved by an amendment which precisely was what was done by the Apex Court in the case of CIT vs. Kel-vinator of India Ltd. 187 Taxman 312. But the same comparison between the draft and the enacted law was not permissible. Nor could the draft or the bill be used for the purpose of regulating the meaning and purport of the enacted law. It was the finally enacted law which was the will of the legislature.

•    The tribunal once having held “that where the language is clear the intention of the legislature is to be gathered from the language used”, then it was not open to seek to interpret the section on the basis of any comparison between the draft and the section actually enacted nor was it open to speculate as to the effect of the so-called representations made by the professional bodies.

•    The tribunal having held that “Section 40(a)(ia) of the Act created a legal fiction by virtue of which even the genuine and admissible expenses claimed by an assessee under the head ‘income from business and profession,’ if the assessee does not deduct TDS on such expenses, are disallowed”, was it open to the tribunal to seek to justify that by stating that “this fiction cannot be extended any further and, therefore, cannot be invoked by Assessing Officer to disallow the genuine and reasonable expenditure or the amounts of expenditure already paid”? Did that not amount to deliberately reading something in the law which was not there?

•    The tribunal sought to remove the rigour of the law by holding that the disallowance should be restricted to the money which was yet to be paid. What the Tribunal by majority did was to supply the casus omissus which was not permissible and could only have been done by the Supreme Court in an appropriate case as was done in the case of Bhuwalka Steel Industries vs. Bombay Iron & Steel Labour Board , 2 SCC 273.

The Calcutta High Court thereafter endeavoured to show that no other interpretation was possible in the following words:

•    The key words used in section 40(a)(ia), according to the court, were “on which tax is deductible at source under Chapter XVII –B”. If the question was “which expenses are sought to be disallowed?”, the answer was bound to be “those expenses on which tax is deductible at source under Chapter XVII –B”.

Once that was realised, nothing turned on the basis of the fact that the legislature used the word ‘payable’ and not ‘paid or credited’. Unless any amount was payable, it could neither be paid nor credited. If an amount had neither been paid nor credited, there could be no occasion for claiming any deduction.

•    The language used in the draft was unclear and susceptible to giving more than one meaning. By looking at the draft it could be said that the legislature wanted to treat the payments made or credited in favour of a contractor or sub-contractor differently than the payments on account of interest, commission or brokerage, fees for professional services or fees for technical services because the words “amounts credited or paid” were used only in relation to a contractor or sub-contractor. This differential treatment was not intended. Therefore, the legislature provided that the amounts, on which tax was deductible at source under Chapter XVII-B, payable on account of interest, commission or brokerage, rent, royalty, fees for professional services or fees for technical services or to a contractor or sub-contractor should not be deducted in computing the income of an assessee in case he had not deduced, or after deduction had not paid, within the specified time. The language used by the legislature in the finally enacted law was clear and unambiguous whereas the language used in the bill was ambiguous.

•    There could be no denial that the provision in question was harsh. But that was no ground to read the same in a manner which was not intended by the legislature. The law was deliberately made harsh to secure compliance of the provisions requiring deductions of tax at source. It was not the case of an inadvertent error. The suggestion that the second proviso inserted to be made effective from

1st April, 2013 should be held to have retrospective effect, could also not be acceded to for the same reason indicated above.

For the reasons discussed above, the court held that the majority views expressed in the case of Merilyn Shipping & Transports were not acceptable and the appeal was allowed in favour of the revenue.

3.    Vector Shipping Services (P) Ltd.’s case

The issue again came up for consideration of the Allahabad High Court in the case of CIT vs. Vector Shipping Services (P) Ltd. in ITA No. 122 0f 2013, copy available on www. itatonline.org.

The assessee, a shipping service company, engaged the services of another company for ship management work, on its behalf, for which it paid an amount of Rs. 1.17 crore, without deduction of tax at source, on the ground that the said payment represented the reimbursement of expenses incurred by the service provider. The AO disagreed with the view of the assessee company and disallowed the entire payment u/s 40(a)(ia).

On appeal against the order of the AO, the CIT (A) held that “In the light of the above facts ——————– , when such type of expenses incurred by the appellant were totally paid and not remained payable as at the end of the relevant accounting period, provisions of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act are not applicable ………………………………. it is held that the AO was not justified in making addition of Rs.1,17,68,621/- on account of disallowance made under section 40 (a) (ia) of the I.T. Act, 1961. The same is directed to be deleted. Grounds Nos. 2 & 3 are allowed.”

The Tribunal, besides upholding the assessee’s claim that no tax was required to be deducted on a reimbursement, held that section 40(a)(ia) applied only to amounts that were “payable” as at the end of the year and not to amounts that had already been “paid” during the year relying on the decision of the Special Bench in the case of Merilyn Shipping and Transport Ltd 136 ITD 23 (SB) where a similar view was taken.

On appeal by the Income-tax Department, the Allahabad High Court was asked to answer the following:

“(a) Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Hon’ble ITAT has rightly confirmed the order of the CIT (A) and thereby deleting the disallowance of Rs. 1,17,68,621/- made by the Assessing Officer under section 40(a)(ia) of the I.T. Act, 1961 by ignoring the fact that the company M/s Mercator Lines Ltd. had performed ship management work on behalf of the assessee M/s Vector Shipping Services (P) Ltd. and there was a Memorandum of Understanding signed between both the companies and as per the definition of memorandum of understanding, it included contract also.”

The Allahabad High Court, vide an order dated 09-07-2013, observed that the Revenue could not take any benefit from the observations made by the Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of Merilyn Shipping and Transport Ltd. to the effect that section 40 (a) (ia) was introduced in the Act with a view to augment the revenue through the mechanism of tax deduction at source and the provision was brought on statute to disallow the claim of even genuine and admissible expenses under the head ‘Income from Business and Profession’ in case the assessee did not deduct tax on such expenses and that the default in deduction of tax would result in disallowance of expenditure.

The court, importantly, in the context, noted that for disallowing expenses from business and profession on the ground that tax had not been deducted, the amount should be payable and not which had been paid by the end of the year.

4.    Observations

Clarity breeds confusion. The Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of Merilyn Shipping & Transports, 136 ITD 23 (SB) (Vishakhapatnam) held that the language of section 40(a)(ia) was clear and the Calcutta High Court in Crescent Exports Syndicate’s case (supra) also held that the language was clear and unambiguous, to arrive at the conflicting decisions. Now, if the language is clear how could there have been different and importantly diverse views on the meaning of the word ‘payable’? Either one of the views is wrong or there is a genuine possibility of two views on the issue under consideration. We would prefer the latter view to hold that the term ‘payable’, when read in the context and in the background of the circumstances that surrounded its use and also the subsequent insertion of the second proviso for granting relief on payment of tax by the payee, is capable of conveying two views, both of which are possible. Needless to say that when two views are possible, a view beneficial to the taxpayer should be adopted, Vegetable Products 88 ITR 192 (SC). There are no two views on this aspect of the law of interpretation.

The Calcutta High Court’s observations on the legislative intent, if there ever was one, are interesting and so are its observations bordering on the strictures when it held that the language of the law was clear and the tribunal was wrong in gathering the legislative intent. Having said so, the court itself tried to support what in its view was clear with deductive logic supported by analytical tools to provide a harmonious interpretation. No harmony is required to be infused where the language is clear. With utmost respect, it appears that the time is ripe to altogether give up on using the tool of legislative intent as an aid to interpretation. A grave notice is required to be taken of the fact that most of these legislations are passed without any debate and even understanding of the law and it may be that the persons voting in favour of passing the legislation may not even be aware of the subject matter of the vote and of the fact that such a law is being passed with their votes. There is a strong case for the courts, in the present times, to be in tune with the times and supply such interpretation which is just and harmonious and more importantly the one that identifies with common sense.

The situation has the effect of putting the tribunal in an unenviable situation. The conflicting decisions of the High Courts have once again paved the pathway for a fresh consideration of the subject by the tribunal. Usually in such cases, the tribunal charts its own course and is allowed to do so. However, the interesting part is that in the case under consideration, there already is a special bench view, not in one case but in two cases. Merilyn Shipping & Transports, 136 ITD 23 (SB) (Vishakhapatnam) and reiterated in Rajamahendri Shipping & Oilfields Pvt. Ltd. 19 ITR(T) 616 (SB) (Vishakhapatnam). Can a division bench of the tribunal ignore the decision of the special bench to take a view contrary to what has been laid down by a special bench? While the benches of the tribunal functioning within the jurisdiction of the Calcutta and Gujarat High Courts shall follow the judgments in favour of the revenue, it will be most apt for the benches in other jurisdictions to take note of the controversy and decide the case in favour of the taxpayer by following the beaten track that requires the adoption of the view that is favourable to him, applying the principle of interpretation that requires favouring the taxpayer in cases of doubt.

A view is being expressed that the decision in Vector Shipping’s case cannot be considered to be laying any law on the subject of allowability of an expenditure where no tax is deducted, once it is shown that the payment for such an expenditure is made during the year, as was held by the special bench. It is contended by the holders of this view that the question put up for consideration of the court was primarily concerned with the liability of the assessee to deduct tax at source and the court confirmed the tribunal’s findings that the assessee was not liable to deduct tax at source and refused to admit the appeal of the revenue on the ground that no question of law was involved.

Under this view, the observations of the Allahabad High Court should be treated as the obiter dicta and not a binding decision. At this point, it is apt to reproduce the exact words of the Allahabad High Court, to the extent relevant, which read as “It is to be noted that for disallowing expenses from business and profession on the ground that TDS has not been deducted, the amount should be payable and not which has been paid by the end of the year.” These words are not words that can be taken lightly by anyone seriously dealing with the interpretation of law by consigning it to the status of irrelevant observations made out of context. The court in that case has taken a detailed notice of the order of the CIT(A) and of the tribunal, both of which directly and expressly dealt with the issue of the meaning of the term ‘payable’. In fact, the issue of liability to TDS was an issue of lesser importance to the appellate authorities and perhaps to the AO, as well. The only other thing the court noted in the order, was also about addressing the argument of the revenue to the effect that the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) should be read in a manner so as to advance the case of recovery of tax. The court strongly rejected any such contention which was directly surrounding the interpretation of the word ‘payable’. These facts clearly confirmed that the issue under consideration here was duly addressed by the court in the said case, as well.

We are fully conscious that, in the times when the courts and the tribunals are more in favour of deciding an issue by following a decision of the higher court, on an application of the law of precedent, it may be difficult for a taxpayer to persuade a tribunal not to follow the Calcutta and Gujarat High Courts’ comprehensive decisions and to consider the case on merits independently. This is evident in the decision of the Tribunal in Rishti Stock & Shares Pvt. Ltd.‘s case decided by the Mumbai tribunal on 02-08-2013 in CO No. 263/M/2012 arising out of the appeal ITA 112/M/2012, where the Tribunal preferred to follow the Calcutta and Gujarat High Court decisions.

The Calcutta High Court, in Crescent Export Syndicate’s case, delivered its judgment on 03-04-2013 and followed it up in yet another decision delivered on 04-04-2013 in CIT vs. Md. Javed Hossein Mondal, 33 taxmann.com 123. The Gujarat High Court examined the issue in CIT vs. Sikandarkhan N. Tunwar, 295 CTR 75 and vide an order dated 02-05-2013 decided the issue in favour of the revenue independent of the aforesaid two decisions of the Calcutta High Court. The Allahabad High Court in Vector Shipping’s case delivered the decision on 09-07-2013, once again independent of the aforesaid three decisions. Before all this, the Andhra Pradesh High Court had stayed the operation of the Special Bench’s decision in Merilyn Shipping‘s case. Maybe the benefit of ‘2G speed’ was not available to the Department’s counsel in Vector Shipping’s case .

The decision of the Calcutta High Court, like the decision of the special bench, is an erudite decision that has comprehensively analysed the different aspects touching the issue. In comparison, the decision of the Allahabad High Court does not reveal in detail the basis that led it to hold that no disallowance was to be made of an expenditure, the payment of which was made before the year-end without deducting tax at source. The court in that case has confirmed the findings of the tribunal that the assessee was not liable to deduct tax at source on such payments. This however cannot be construed to mean that the court had not applied its mind to the law on the subject or that it had not taken a conscious note of the issue at hand. To distinguish and ignore the express observa-tions and findings on law of a High Court under the pretext that it does not represent the verdict of the court is not a very attractive proposition to any serious student of law. Such a decision deserves equal respect, more so when the reading of the contents confirms that the only issue that was discussed was about the interpretation of section. 40(a)(ia), as otherwise the court concurred with the finding of the fact of the tribunal that the tax was not deductible in the case before it .

The position on the issue under consideration has assumed significance with the decision of the Allahabad High Court in Vector Shipping’s case which has restored the issue for a fresh consideration. The issue should be taken as one that is wide open till such time as it is addressed by the apex court of the land. The Supreme Court has recently allowed the transfer of case for examining the constitutional validity of the provisions of section 40(a)(ia). Please see Maruthi Tubes (P) Ltd., 37 taxmann.com 31.

Section 50C and Tolerance Band

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Issue for consideration

Section 50 C has been introduced by the Finance Act, 2002, with effect from 01-04-2003, to provide for substitution of the full value of consideration with the stamp duty valuation, in cases where such valuation happens to be more than the agreed value. As a result in computing the capital gains, on transfer of land or building or both, as per section 48, the assessee, in ascertaining the full value of consideration, is required to adopt the higher of the agreed value or the stamp duty valuation. The objective behind the introduction of section 50C is to eliminate or reduce the possibility of unaccounted element in the real estate transactions and it is on this account that the provision has been found to be constitutional by a number of high courts.

The provision contains an in-built safeguard, for authorising the assessee to seek a reference to the Valuation Officer, in a case where he is of the opinion that the stamp duty value does not represent the fair market value of the asset transferred by him. In spite of this statutory safeguard , it is usual to come across numerous cases where the assessee genuinely is aggrieved on the valuation put forth by the Valuation Officer.

It is also usual to come across instances, where the assessee is subjected to the additional taxes and interest in cases involving a marginal or insignificant difference. This difference, howsoever insignificant, arises mainly on account of the inherent element of estimation in valuation that is unavoidable. Realising this handicap in the past, while dealing with the similar provisions, the Supreme court held that a tolerance band of 15% be read in to such provisions by the authorities while applying such provisions, with the idea that no taxpayer is unjustly punished for the difference.

It is on this touchstone of avoiding unjust outcome of the literal reading of a statutory provision, one has to test the provisions of section 50C to ascertain,

whether it is possible to read therein, the existence of a tolerance band, to save the tax payers in cases of marginal differences form the noose of additional taxation. The Pune bench of the tribunal is in favour of reading such a tolerance band in the provisions of section 50C while the Kolkata bench holds a contrary view.

Rahul Constructions’ case
The issue first came up for consideration of the Pune bench of the tribunal, in the case of Rahul Constructions vs. DCIT, reported in 38 DTR at page 19, for assessment year 2004-05. In that case, the assessee firm had sold two units in the basement for the total sale consideration of Rs. 19 lakh. The stamp valuation authorities had adopted the value of Rs. 28.73 lakh for the said units. The AO invoking the provisions of section 50C, made a reference to the DVO, u/s. 50C(2), for valuation as per the law. The DVO valued the said units at Rs. 20.55 lakh. The AO adopting the said value of Rs. 20.55 lakh, substituted the full value of consideration and computed the capital gains at a higher amount than the one returned by the assesssee firm.

The explanations advanced by the firm to the AO and the DVO to the effect that the basement in rear building had no “commercial” value, the height was 8-1/2’ only, the units got waterlogged during the rainy season, they were old premises and were used by tenant/lessee and were sold on as is where is basis and the booking was in February, 2001, so valuation of 2001 be considered, were all rejected by them.

The said contentions were reiterated before the CIT(A) and in addition he was asked to apply the tolerance band due to insignificant difference between the agreed value and the DVO’s valuation. It was submitted that there was a marginal difference of Rs. 1,55,000 only, which was 8.5 per cent of the estimated sale value which was within the tolerance limit of 15 per cent for variation as was held by the Supreme Court in the case of C.B. Gautam vs. UOI, 199 ITR 530 (SC) under Chapter XX-C of the Act. The CIT(A) rejected the contentions of the firm to dismiss the appeal by observing that

the provisions of section 50C(1) of the Act were unambiguous and the AO was bound to take the rate as per the stamp valuation authorities and he was not empowered to go beyond the valuation made by the DVO. He distinguished the decision in the case of C.B. Gautam (supra) on the ground that the said decision concerned itself with the case of a purchase of property under Chapter XX-C of the Act. He upheld the action of the AO.

The firm aggrieved with such order of the CIT(A), appealed to the tribunal, inter alia, on the ground that on the facts and in law the learned CIT(A) erred in not appreciating that the difference between the sale consideration shown by the assessee and the value determined by the DVO was marginal and therefore, no addition was justified on account of the valuation determined by the DVO.

The counsel for the assessee reiterated the submissions as were made before the AO and the CIT(A). Referring to the DVO’s report he submitted that the difference between the value adopted by the DVO and the sale consideration received by the firm was less than 10 per cent and submitted that the consideration received by the firm should be considered as representing the fair market valuation and no addition was justified on account of the valuation by the DVO.

In reply the Departmental Representative submitted, that once the matter was referred to the DVO and the valuation adopted by the DVO was found to be less than the value determined by the stamp valuation authorities, the AO was bound to substitute the value determined by the DVO as the deemed sale consideration and the assessee could not challenge the same.

On due consideration of the rival submissions made by both the sides, the tribunal held that the valuation adopted by the DVO was subject to appeal and the same was not final. The value adopted by the DVO was also based on some estimate and that the difference between the sale consideration shown by the assessee at Rs. 19,00,000 and the FMV determined by the DVO at Rs. 20,55,000 was only Rs. 1,55,000 which was less than 10 per cent. It observed that the courts and the tribunals were consistently taking a liberal approach in favour of the assessee where the difference between the value adopted by the assessee and the value adopted by the DVO was less than 10 per cent.

The tribunal noted that the Pune bench of the tribunal in the case of ACIT vs. Harpreet Hotels (P) Ltd. vide ITA Nos. 1156-1160/Pn/2000 had dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue, where the CIT(A) had deleted the addition made on account of the unexplained investment in house construction on the ground that the difference between the figure shown by the assessee and the figure of the DVO was hardly 10 per cent. Similarly, the Pune bench of the tribunal in the case of ITO vs. Kaaddu Jayghosh Appasaheb, vide ITA No. 441/Pn/2004, for the asst. yr. 1992-93, following the decision in the case of Honest Group of Hotels (P) Ltd. vs. CIT 177 CTR (J&K) 232 had held that when the margin between the value as given by the assessee and the Departmental valuer was less than 10 per cent, the difference was liable to be ignored. In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed by the tribunal.

Heilgers’ case

The issue again came up recently, for consideration of the Kolkata tribunal, in the case of Heilgers De-velopment & Construction Co. (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT, 32 taxmann.com 147 by way of appeal by the assessee, for the assessment year 2008-09, on the ground that the ld. CIT(A) erred in confirming the addition made on account of capital gains based on the value determined by the Stamp Valuation Authority that was higher than the sale consideration declared by the assessee which was wrong and needed to be deleted.

In that case, the assessee had sold two commercial premises admeasuring 3265 sq.ft. in aggregate, for the stated aggregate consideration of Rs. 2.12 crore against the stamp duty valuation of about Rs. 2.23 crore, in aggregate. The difference was attributed by the assessee to the long gap of 7 to 9 months between the date of agreement and the date of conveyance. It was argued that considering the difference in market value when compared with the consideration received by the assessee was less than 10%. And therefore the net difference of Rs. 10,98,980 should be ignored in computing the long term capital gains. None of these submissions found favour with the AO and the CIT(A).

In the further appeal before the tribunal, the assesssee’s counsel’s first and basic contention was that the provisions of section 50C could not be invoked at all where the difference in stamp duty valuation vis-a-vis stated sales consideration was less than 15% of the stamp duty valuation; that every valuation was at best an estimate and therefore under valuation could not be presumed when there was only a marginal difference between such an estimate and the apparent consideration declared in the sale document; that the Honourable Supreme Court, in the case of C.B. Gautam vs. Union of India, 199 ITR 530, had recognised a tolerance limit for pre-emptive purchase of property under Chapter XXC, at 15% of variation, mainly for a similar reason, even though no such tolerance band was prescribed in the statute.

Quoting from certain observations in “Sampat Iyen-gar’s Law of Income Tax” (Volume 3; 10th Edition) at page 4362, it was submitted that by the same logic that was employed by the Honourable Supreme Court in Gautam’s case (supra), section 50C was also subject to similar tolerance for the cases with the marginal difference. It was pleaded that the difference in valuation as per the sale deed vis-a-vis the stamp duty valuation being much less than 15% in the present case, the provisions of section 50C did not come into play at all.

The submissions of the assesssee failed to con-vince the tribunal. It noted that the submissions, howsoever attractive as they seemed at the first blush, were lacking in legally sustainable merits. The tribunal observed that ; when a provision for tolerance band was not prescribed in the statute, it could not be open to tribunal to read the same into the statutory provisions of section 50 C- no matter howsoever desirable such an interpretation was; what the provisions of section 50C clearly required was that when stated sales consideration was less than the stamp duty valuation for the purposes of transfer, the stamp duty value, subject to the safeguards built in the provision itself, should be taken as the sales consideration for the purposes of computing capital gains; casus omissus, which broadly referred to the principle that a matter which had not been provided in the statue but should have been there, could not be supplied by the tribunal as laid down in the case of Smt. Tarulata Shyam vs. CIT, 108 ITR 345(SC); the tribunal was itself a creature of the Income-tax Act and it could not, therefore, be open to it to deal with the question of correctness or otherwise of the provisions of the Act.

The tribunal also did not find any merits in the assessee’s claim of undue hardship being caused to the taxpayers and to avoid that a tolerance band be read into the provisions of the section 50C. The safeguard built in section 50C, the tribunal noted, did envisage a situation that whenever an assessee claimed that the fair market value of the property was less than the stamp duty valuation of the property and allowed for a reference to the DVO and at which point all the issues relating to valuation of the property – either on the issue of allowing a reasonable margin for market variations, or on the issue of time gap , could be taken up, before the DVO and, therefore, before subsequent appellate forums as well. This inherent flexibility, the tribunal held might rescue the assessee particularly in the case of marginal differences however, challenging the very application of section 50C was something which tribunal found to be devoid of legally sustainable merits.

Observations

The avowed legislative intention behind the introduction of section 50C is to bring to tax the unaccounted funds, used in the real estate transactions, involving land and/or building. There is no dispute about this aspect. The objective is certainly not to tax a tax payer in respect of the sterile transactions. In this background, any attempt to tax a clean transaction amounts to penalising the person for having entered in to a transaction and such attempt becomes punishing in a case where the difference is marginal.

The valuation, including the valuation by the stamp duty authorities, without doubt involves an element of estimation and can never be precise. Such a valuation, as has been repetitively held by the courts, is, at the most, a guiding factor and cannot be conclusive of the fact of the use of unaccounted funds. Interestingly, the ready reckoner rate, so famously applied by the authorities and blindly relied upon by the AOs, are nothing but the standard and generic rates annually prescribed by the stamp authorities. The prescribed rate is not even the ‘valuation’ of a specific asset. This rate is prescribed for an entire locality or an area and does not take in to consideration several factors that have a direct bearing on the price and therefore the valuation. Hardly does one come across a case where the transaction value exactly matches with the prescribed rates; it is either less or more and in most of the cases more. The values do match only in those transactions where it is so designed to match to avoid the attending issues.

It is therefore essential for the revenue to appreciate and concede that the stamp duty valuation or the DVO’s valuation is essentially an estimation that requires to be adjusted by some tolerance band. Once this wisdom, based on the ground reality, is allowed to percolate, resulting litigation or the fear or the threat thereof shall rest at least in half the cases.

One of the main reasons advanced by the Kolkata bench, for not allowing the case of the assessee, was the inability of the tribunal, as a body, to read down the provisions of the law. The bench stated in clear terms that their powers are circumscribed and the tribunal as a creature of the Income-tax Act cannot read down the provisions of the law so as to permit the application of a tolerance band. The bench expressed its helplessness and explained that such powers were vested with the courts. This also confirms that the last word on the possibility of applying the tolerance band is yet to be said.

The better course, with respect, in our considered view, for the tribunal should have been to accept that the agreed value, considering the insignificant difference, represented the fair market value.

On a careful reading of the provisions of section 50C, one gathers that a reference to the DVO is possible on the primary assumption that the stamp duty valuation exceeds the fair market value. It is also gathered that the job of the DVO is to ascertain the fair market value. The fair market value, so ascertained by the DVO, is subject to the scrutiny of the appellate authorities whose word about the correctness of the fair market value is the final word. In this background of the facts, we are of the considered view that the tribunal, in all such cases involving the marginal difference, shall accept the agreed value as the fair market value, independent of the statutory tolerance band.

Activities Relating to Purchase of Goods from India by a Liaison Office

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Synopsis
Under Section 9, income of a non-resident (NR) from a “business connection” in India would be deemed to accrue or arise in India. However, if the activities of NR are confined to purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export the deeming fiction does not apply.

The scope of the phrase “operations which are confined to the purchase of goods in India” has been a subject matter of controversy, with the Tax Department generally adopting a fairly narrow interpretation. In this feature the authors analyse the various judicial pronouncements in this regard.

Issue for consideration

An income of a foreign company or part thereof, attributable to its operations in India, is taxable in India provided such operations or activities are construed to be a ‘business connection’ within the meaning of the term as defined in Explanation 2 to section 9(1) of the Income-tax Act. Such an income is deemed to accrue or arise in India where it is found to be through or from any business connection in India, whether directly or indirectly. The said Explanation 2 provides that a business connection shall inter alia include any business activity, carried out through a person who habitually exercises an authority to conclude contracts in India on behalf of the non-resident, unless his activity is limited to the purchase of goods or merchandise for the non-resident.

Explanation 1(b) provides that income shall not be deemed to accrue or arise in India, where operations are confined to purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export.

An issue has arisen in cases where an Indian liaison office of a foreign company purchases goods from India for its head office and carries out several activities incidental thereto. The courts have been asked, under the circumstances, to define the true meaning of the term ‘confined to purchase of goods in India’ and explain whether the activities that are carried out for effecting purchase of goods in India could be considered as an independent activity or as an integral part of the purchase of goods in India. In case of the latter, the activity shall not attract Indian taxation and in case of the earlier, it may expose the income attributable to such activity to taxation in India. Recently, the Karnataka High Court has held that such activities constitute purchase of goods in India, while the Authority for Advance Ruling has held the same to be not forming part of purchase.

Columbia Sportswear Co.’s case

The issue arose before the Authority for Advance Rulings In Re Columbia Sportswear Co, 12 taxmann. com 349. The company in this case was incorporated under the laws of the USA, a multinational wholesaler and retailer of outdoors apparel with global operations. It conducted research and development to develop marketable products outside India. In the year 1995, the company established a liaison office in Chennai for undertaking liaison activities, in connection with purchase of goods in India, which activities had subsequently been expanded to Bangladesh and Egypt. Besides coordinating purchase of goods from India, the Indian liaison office also assisted the company in purchase of goods from Egypt and Bangladesh and engaged in quality monitoring and production monitoring of goods purchased from these countries. The goods procured from Egypt and Bangladesh were directly sold to the company in the United States from those countries. In the year 2000, a support office was opened by the Indian liaison office in Bangalore with the approval of the Reserve Bank of India.

The company claimed that;

• its products were produced by independent suppliers worldwide including India.

• the Indian liaison office was involved in activities relating to purchase functions for the company and incidentally was engaged in vendor identification, review of costing data, vendor recommendation, quality control and uploading of material prices into the internal product data management system of the company besides monitoring vendors for compliance with its policies, procedures and standards related to quality, delivery, pricing and labour practices.

• the Indian liaison office did not have any revenue streams; it did not source products to be sold locally in India.

• it did not sell any goods in India and therefore no income arose from its Indian operations.

• no income could be deemed to have accrued or arose in India within the meaning of section 9(1) of the Act.

• its case was covered by Explanation 1(b) of s.9(1) (i) and could not be construed as a case of business connection.

• it did not undertake any activity of trading, commercial or industrial in nature in India.

• the expenditure of the liaison office was entirely met by remittances made by the company.

On these facts, the company approached the Authority seeking a ruling on the question whether, given the nature of the activities carried on by the liaison office, any income accrues or arises in India as per section 5(2)(b) of the Act? Whether the applicant can be said to have a business connection in India as per the provisions of section 9(1)(i) of Act read with Explanation 2? Whether various activities carried out by the India LO, as listed in the Statement of relevant facts (Annexure-III), are covered under the phrase, ‘through or from operations which are confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export’ as stated in part (b) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i) of the Act?

The Authority in paragraph 8 of the decision noted the following facts surrounding the activities of the LO;

“The liaison office of the applicant in India is engaged in vendor identification, review of costing data, vendor recommendation, quality control and uploading of material prices into the internal product data management system of the applicant. The liaison office monitors vendors for compliance with its policies, procedures and standards related to quality, delivery, pricing and labour practices. The liaison office is engaged in quality monitoring and production monitoring for goods purchased from Egypt and Bangladesh. It coordinates, ascertains, monitors and verifies with the vendors to develop the material in line with the quality and aesthetic requirements of the product as provided by the applicant’s product design team. It undertakes laboratory testing of fabrics/garments in India in addition to inspecting the quality of the products. It reviews production and quality assurance including the monitoring of the labour practices compliance and periodic performance reviews. It conveys the orders placed by the applicant on to the suppliers and interacts with the suppliers in relation to capacity utilisation, quality assurance, on-time delivery performance and so on. The role of the quality control team in the liaison office includes executing pre-sourcing factory evaluations to determine the vendor’s ability to manufacture the product to the expectations of the applicant. The quality control team also gives quality training to the newly selected vendors and is responsible for communicating the quality processes of the applicant and expectations to suppliers. The team also ensures that standard methods, tools, machinery and layouts are used. The liaison office also summarises seasonal vendor quality performance for the consideration of the applicant. The liaison office also ensures compliance with the quality process including seeking to ensure that the targeted defect percentage is maintained. It also ensures that the requirements of environmental laws and labour laws of the country are obeyed by the suppliers.”

The Authority concluded that the applicant could not take benefit of Explanation 1(b) to section 9(1) (i) as, in its opinion, the activities carried out by the assessee were not confined to purchase of goods in India. The following findings and observations of the Authority are pertinent;

•    The liaison office had about 35 employees divided into 5 teams dealing with material management, merchandising, production management, quality control and administration support, constituting teams from finance, human resources and information systems.

•    Activities carried on by the liaison office related to ensuring the choosing of quality material, occasionally testing them for quality, conveying of requisite design, picking out of competitive sellers, the ensuring of quality, the ensuring of adherence to the policy of the applicant in the matter of procurement and employment, in the matter of compliance with environmental and other local regulations by the manufacturers – suppliers and in ensuring that the payments made by the applicant reach the suppliers.

•    In the matter of manufacturing of products as per design, quality and in implementing policy, the liaison office was actually doing the work of the applicant, which actually was in the business of designing, manufacturing and selling branded products, brands over which it had exclusive right.

•    The activities of the liaison office were not confined to India. It also facilitated the doing of business by the applicant with entities in Egypt and Bangladesh.

•    A person in the business of designing, manufactur-ing and selling could not be taken to earn a profit only by a sale of goods. The goods as designed and styled by the applicant could not be sold without it being got manufactured and procured in the manner designed and contemplated by the applicant.

•    It would be unrealistic to take the view that all the activities other than the actual sale of the goods are not an integral part of the business of the applicant and have no role in the profit being made by the applicant by the sale of its branded products. It was difficult to accept the argument that what was done in India by the liaison office of the applicant was only to expend money and all its income accrued outside India by the sale of the products.

•    All activities other than the actual sale could not be divorced from the business of manufacture and sale especially in a case like that of the applicant, where the sale was of a branded product, designed and got made by the applicant under supervision, under a brand owned by the applicant. Therefore, the argument on behalf of the applicant that all the activities carried on in India were confined to the purchase of goods in India, could not be accepted.

•    ‘Confined’ meant, ‘limited, restricted’. ‘Purchase’ meant ‘get by payment, buy’.

The Authority observed that what section 9(1)(i), Explanation 1(b) deemed in the case of a non-resident, was that no income arose in India to a person through or from operations which were confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export but, in the case before it, the activities of the liaison office of the applicant in India were not confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export. It further observed that the applicant, in fact, transacted in India its business of designing, quality controlling, getting manufactured consistent with its policy and the laws, the branded products it sold elsewhere and that those activities could not be understood as activities confined to purchase of goods in India for export from India.

Income resulting from manufacture, purchase and sale, in the opinion of the Authority, could not be compartmentalised and confined to one arising out of a sale only, and that the whole process of procurement and sale had to be completed to generate income. Getting manufactured and purchasing formed integral parts of the process of generating income and the liaison office acted as the arm of the applicant regarding that part of the activity, and its functions were not confined to purchase or mere purchase.

Another aspect that influenced the Authority’s decision was the fact that the activities of the liaison office of the applicant in India, was not confined to India but extended to Egypt and Bangladesh. Since the activities of the applicant in India included its business in Egypt and Bangladesh, it could not be stated that the operations of the applicant in India were confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export.

The Authority therefore took the view that the activities of the liaison office gave rise to taxable income in India, not being exempt under explanation 1(b) to section 9(1)(i).

Nike Inc.’s case

The issue recently came up for consideration before the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nike Inc., 34 taxmann.com 170. The company in this case was engaged in the business of sports apparel with its main office in the USA and had globally located associated enterprises or subsidiaries. From its office in the USA, the company arranged for all its subsidiaries the supply of various brands of sports apparel for sale to various customers. It did not carry on any manufacture by itself. It engaged various manufacturers all over the world on a job-to-job basis and made arrangements with its subsidiaries for purchase of the manufactured goods directly and payment for the same to the respective manufacturers.

With a view to procure various apparel from manufacturers from various parts of the world, the company opened a liaison office in India and;

•    employed persons in various categories.

•    the rate or price for each apparel was negotiated by the liaison office with the manufacturer.

•    the quality of each apparel was also indicated and the samples so developed were forwarded to the US office.

•    the liaison office proposed and gave its opinion about the reasonability of the price, etc. and the US office decided about the price, quality, quantity, to whom to be shipped and billed.

•    the local manufacturer in India was conveyed of the decision by the office in the USA and once it was accepted, the local manufacturer carried on his activity.

•    the liaison office kept a close watch on the progress, quality, etc. at the manufacturing workshop and also kept a watch on the time schedule to be followed and rendered such assistance as may be required in the dispatch of the goods, including the actual buyer and the place for export.

For all these activities in India, the liaison office was receiving funds through banking channels from the USA.

For the relevant assessment years, the company filed returns of income declaring nil income. It contended that its activities were to carry on activities that were ancillary and auxiliary to the activities of its head office and other group companies and to act as a communication channel between the head office and parties in India. It claimed that in terms of Explanation 1(b) to section 9(1)(i), no income shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India to a non-resident from operations which were confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purposes of export. In terms of Circular No. 20, dated 7-7-1964, a non-resident would not be liable to tax in India on any income attributable to operations confined to purchase of goods in India for export, even though the non-resident had an office or an agency in India for the purpose, or the goods were subjected to any manufacturing process before being exported from India. Therefore, no income shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India to it, as its operations were restricted to purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export, even though it had a liaison office to facilitate sourcing of products from Indian suppliers.

The Assessing Officer held that the activities of the company were actually beyond its activities required as a liaison office and a part of the entire business was done in India through the liaison office and therefore, the income had accrued or arisen or deemed to have accrued or arisen to the company in India in view of clause (b) of s/s. (2) of section 5. He, therefore, held that the income of the company was chargeable to tax to the extent of income, which was attributable to the activities done in India or accruing or arising in India on its behalf by its liaison office. He further held that 5% of the export value could reasonably be considered as income attributable to India operations, i.e., income accruing or arising in India to the company.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that it was an admitted fact that the company was not involved in the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export, which would have involved transfer of title of goods purchased from the seller to the purchaser and as no purchase took place in the name of the liaison office, it was not entitled to the exemption enumerated in section 9(1). He, therefore, upheld the order of the Assessing Officer.

On second appeal, the tribunal held that the case before it was a case of purchase of the goods for the purpose of export by the assessee. It observed that in the absence of there being any prima facie contract between the assessee and the local manufacturer, the status of the liaison office was that of buyer’s agent, more so when the local manufacturer knew it only as the agent of the buyer i.e., the company had placed the orders on it with a view to buy the goods in the course of export and, as directed, export it to various affiliates of the company. It held that the Explanation 1(b) to section 9(1)(i) clearly applied to the company and hence, no income was derived by the company in India through its operations of the liaison office in India. It accordingly, set aside the orders of the lower authorities and granted relief to the company.

On appeal to the High Court by Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the tribunal and held that the activities of the assesssee were confined to purchase of goods in India and could not be construed to represent any business connection nor could it be said that it resulted in any deemed accrual or arising of any income in India.

In the context of the income accruing or arising from ‘business connection’, the court observed that till 2004, the word ‘business connection’ had not been defined. However, by the Finance Act, 2003, Explanation 2 was inserted in section 9(1)(i), which, though it came into effect from o1-04-2004, was clarificatory in nature. It further took note of the deletion of the Proviso to Explanation 1(b) to section 9(1)(i) by the Finance Act, 1964, with effect from 01-04 -1964, which deletion had the effect of exempting a non-resident from tax in India on any income attributable to operations confined to purchase of goods in India for export, even though the non-resident had an office or agency in India for the purpose, or even though the goods were subjected by him to any manufacturing process before being exported from India.

In the instant case, the court noted that the as-sessee was not carrying on any business in India though it had established a liaison office in India whose object was to identify the manufacturers, give them the technical know-how and see that they manufactured goods according to its specifications, which would be sold to its affiliates. It further noted that the person who purchased the goods paid the money to the manufacturer and in the said income the assessee had no right; the said income could not be said to be an income arising or accruing in India vis-à-vis the assessee; the evidence on record showed that the assessee paid the entire expenses of the liaison office.

According to the court, the payment by the non-resident buyer of some consideration to the assessee outside India, as per the contract between the as-sessee and the buyer entered outside India, was an irrelevant factor in deciding the accrual of income in India and in any case, even if any income arose or accrued to the assessee, it was outside India.

Noting the provisions contained in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(i) concerning the business connection and that the saving for the activities was limited to the purchase of goods or merchandise, the court observed that no income should be deemed to ac-crue or arise in India. The court observed that once the entire operations were confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export, the income derived therefrom should not be deemed to accrue or arise in India u/s. 9. It also observed that the activities of the assessee in assisting the Indian manufacturer to manufacture the goods according to its specification was to see that the said goods manufactured had an international market, and could therefore be exported. The Court concluded that the assessee was not earning any income in India, and, if at all it was earning an income outside India under a contract which was entered into outside India, no part of its income could be taxed in India either u/s. 5 or section 9.

In arriving at the conclusion in favour of the assessee, the court was guided by the decisions of the Supreme Court in the cases of Anglo-French Textile Co. Ltd. vs. CIT ,23 ITR 101 (SC) (para 15) and CIT vs. R.D. Agarwal & Co. 56 ITR 20 (SC).

Observations

Clause (b) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i) clarifies that no income shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India, in the case of a non-resident, through or from operations which are confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export. It clearly conveys that a non-resident can carry an activity in India and such activity may signify a business connection so however the income through or from such activity, if confined to purchase, shall not be deemed to accrue or arise in India.

An activity that travels beyond purchase of goods in India shall expose the income, pertaining to such an activity, to taxation in India under the deeming fiction contained in section 9(1)(i) of the Act. Such an activity may be carried out by a non-resident himself or through his agent or a liaison office.

It therefore is essential, for an exemption from tax, that the activity is confined to purchase of goods for export. The term ‘confined’ to is not defined in the Act and, as has been seen, has been the subject matter of intense conflict. One view of the matter is that the term ‘purchase’ signifies placing of an order for purchase of such goods that are exported. The other view is that the term connotes carrying out all such activities that lead to placing an order of purchase of goods for export, i.e., all activities that precede the placement of an order are ‘purchase’. In the narrowest possible view of the term ’purchase’, the activity is restricted to placing the purchase order, while taking a broader view, even the activities leading to placing an order for purchase of goods shall be included in ‘purchase’ of goods.

The term ‘confined’, in the context, is defined to mean “restrict within certain limits of scope” by the Oxford Dictionary. An activity or activities whose scope is restricted to purchase of goods can be said to be confined under the meaning supplied by the Oxford Dictionary. A plain reading explains that the dictionary does not narrow down or limit a ‘purchase’ to the activity of placing the order of purchase. Isolating activities leading to purchase from its scope is not even implied.

The important thing is to ascertain that can an order for purchase be placed without necessarily undertaking the activities that lead to such an order, such as; identifying the product and its quality, short-listing a vendor, giving product specifications, negotiating the price and fixing it, defining the logistics and specifying the delivery schedule? If the answer, in the context of clause(b) is no, then carrying on the pre- purchase activities shall not result in any deemed accrual of income.

The dictionary meaning of the term ‘purchase’ is to acquire on payment or for a consideration. It needs to be appreciated that an acquisition is not limited to placing an order of purchase but involves the series of acts carried out to successfully acquire a thing and includes the act of payment effected, post purchase, for an acquisition. It is significant to note that the word ‘purchase’ is preceded by the word ’to’, collectively reading ‘to purchase’ and so read, it sets any doubts to rest about the true un-derstanding of the law. To purchase without doubt, shall rope in all activities that enables the placement of a purchase order leading in turn to purchase or acquisition of goods.

The Authority in Columbia Sportswear Co.’s case has refused to appreciate that the activities considered by it to be constituting a business nonetheless were part of an activity of purchase without which it was not possible to purchase goods, and in that view of the mater, such activities were confined to purchase of goods alone and that they were not to be isolated from the purchase of goods as was being represented by the revenue authority.

In contrast, the Karnataka High Court in Nike Inc.’s case took a pragmatic view by holding that the pre-purchase activities were activities that were part of purchase of goods and carrying on such activities did not amount to travelling beyond the scope of the exemption contained in clause (b).

One needs to appreciate that the Reserve Bank of India while permitting a foreign company to set up a liaison office in India ensures that the operations of such an office are restricted in its scope and does not include carrying on of the business in which case, the company shall be required to set up a branch in India. In fact, carrying on of the pre- purchase activities by a liaison office is within the scope of the permission of the Reserve Bank of India.

Another aspect that requires appreciation is that pre-purchase activities and purchase represent an expenditure and not an income and therefore, even on this account, it is difficult to hold that these activities by themselves can lead to any income or even a deemed income. A right must have emerged to enable the assessee to demand and receive an income before it can be taxed in the hands of the assessee. No such right can be said to have emerged for carrying out pre-purchase activities. The Supreme court in the case of Anglo-French Textiles Co. Ltd., 23 ITR 101(SC) held that no profit could be said to have arisen on mere purchase of goods in India. For some incoherent reason this aspect was not appreciated by the Authority. Secondly, for the purpose of bringing even a deemed income to taxation, it is essential that the income pertaining to such an activity is defined and it is only then that a deemed income could be brought to taxation, as was held by the Supreme Court in the case of Anglo-French Textiles Co. Ltd., 25 ITR 27(SC). The principle so laid down by the apex court has a legislative acceptance in the form of clause (a) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i) of the Act. In the said case, the court held that distribution of profits over different business operations or activities ought only to be made for sufficient and cogent reasons. The principle was reiterated in the case of R.D. Agarwala & Co. 56 ITR 20 and was expressly relied upon by the Karnataka High Court in Nike Inc.’s case and was ignored in Columbia Sportswear co’s case by the Authority.

The following observations and findings of the court in Nike Inc.’s case are helpful in appreciating the intent of the lawmakers; “If we keep the object with which the proviso to clause (b) of Explanation 1 to s/s. (1)(i) of section 9 of the Act was deleted, the object is to encourage exports thereby the Country can earn foreign exchange. The activities of the assessee in assisting the Indian manufacturer to manufacture the goods according to their specification is to see that the said goods manufactured has an international market, therefore, it could be exported. In the process, the assessee is not earning any income in India. If at all he is earning income outside India under a contract which is entered outside India, no part of their income could be taxed in India either u/s. 5 or section 9 of the Act.”

The Authority seems to have been largely influenced by the fact that the Indian office of the foreign company undertook activities of similar nature in Egypt and Bangladesh which in its opinion was outside the scope of exemption granted under clause(b) of Explanation 1 of section 9(1)(i) of the Act. This is clear from the following observations and findings; ‘There is another aspect. The activities of the liaison office of the applicant in India, is not confined to India. It also takes up the identical activities as in India, in Egypt and Bangladesh. The applicant has only pleaded that the goods procured from Egypt and Bangladesh are not imported into India and are sold only to the applicant in the US. Whether products of the applicant are sold in Egypt and Bangladesh is not clear. Whatever it be, since the activities of the applicant in India takes in, its busi-ness in Egypt and Bangladesh, it cannot be stated that the operations of the applicant in India are confined to the purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export.”

The very same Authority in IKEA Trading (Hong Kong) Ltd., 176 Taxman 344 held that re-purchase activities were a part of the purchase of goods and did not take away the benefit of clause (b) of the said Explanation. It however chose not to follow the ratio of the said decision by observing that it was delivered on the facts of that case. In that case, on a finding that the applicant therein, a foreign com-pany having a liaison office in India was engaged only in purchase operations in India for export, it was held that no income was generated by such an activity in India to be taxed in India either from the standpoint of section 5(2) or section 9(1)(i) read with Explanation 1(b) of the Income-tax Act. The AAR in Columbia Sportswear co.’s case confirmed that it was true that the activities undertaken by the applicant therein included some of the activities undertaken by the applicant before it.

The Authority, with respect, was unduly swayed by the proposition that all activities other than the actual sale cannot be divorced from the business of manufacture and sale especially in a case where the sale is of a branded product, designed and got made by the applicant under supervision, under a brand owned by the applicant. What the Authority failed to appreciate is that while what was stated by it was otherwise true but was rendered irrelevant, in the context, by virtue of clause (b) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i) of the Act, which clause specifically excluded an activity of purchase from being labeled as business connection. In that view of the matter, the conclusion of the authority based on the decisions delivered without the benefit of analysing the said clause(b) cannot, with respect, be said to be laying down a good law. It was incorrect to have rejected the contention of the applicant that the decision of the Supreme Court in Anglo-French Textile Co. Ltd’s case (supra) did not govern the situation, anymore, in view of the addition of Expla-nation 1(b) to section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act, taking out activities of purchase while deeming the accrual of income.

The Authority, instead of appreciating the change in law, went on to hold that the activity of purchase cannot be totally divorced from the activity of sale leading to income and this principle, in its opinion, is not affected by the Explanation which only seeks to exclude income from activities limited to purchase of goods in India for the purpose of export. The principle that a purchase of raw material, getting goods manufactured and selling the product form an integral activity remains unshaken in the opinion of the Authority and hence a deemed income arose in the hands of the applicant even on purchase of goods for export form India.

The decisions in the cases of CIT vs. N.K. Jain, 206 ITR 692 (Del.) and Mustaq Ahmed, In 307 ITR 401 (AAR) were also relied on by the applicant in Columbia Sportswear co.’s case to argue that the effect of the Explanation as understood therein supported the position adopted by the applicant. These decisions in our opinion are relevant to the issue being considered here in as much as the issue in those cases was about what constituted a business conncection in cases where the Indian arm of the non-resident was carrying out activities that preceded placing an order for purchasing goods. The Authority, however, chose to ignore these decisions on the ground that can be best explained by reproducing the words of the Authority; “There was no argument based on the decision of the Supreme Court before the High Court. There was no reference to that decision and there was no consideration of an argument that a purchase could not be totally divorced from a sale in such cases. There is no ra-tio emerging that by virtue of the addition of the Explanation, the principle set down by the Supreme Court in Anglo-French Textile Co. Ltd.’s case (supra) is no more relevant or binding.”

The Authority rather relied upon the decision In Mustaq Ahmed’s case (supra), to hold that the Authority, in that case, after noting the decision of the Supreme Court in Anglo-French Textiles’ case and the history of the Explanation to section 9(1) (i)    of the Act, confirmed after a detailed discussion on the question, that the ratio of the decision in that case remained unaffected by the addition of clause (b) to Explanation 1 in the present Act and the principle enunciated in the decision applied with equal vigour, irrespective of Explanation 1(b). Yet another decision relied upon by the applicant In Angel Garment Ltd., In 287 ITR 341, concerning the purchase of goods by a liaison office was held by the Authority to be delivered on the facts of that case and was not applied.

It is true that the activity of purchase contributes to eventual profit and therefore it may not be correct to say that such an activity does not contribute to any income. But what is needed to be appreciated is that the income attributable to such activity of purchase has been specifically excluded from the purview of taxation by the legislature on insertion of clause(b). It is this fact which appears to have been missed by the Authority when it relied on the decision in the Anglo-French Textiles’ case that was rendered on a law that did not have any such exclusion. The whole process of procurement and sale has to be completed to generate income and surely purchasing goods forms an integral part of the process of generating income, but the income, if any, pertaining to such an activity requires to be excluded by the law contained in clause(b) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1).

It is our considered view that the conflict on the issue discussed is not only avoidable but should be avoided by the Revenue by taking a pragmatic stand to include the activities leading to placing an order for purchase of goods in purchase of goods for export. In our opinion, the term purchase of goods is wide enough and should be so construed, in the present days, to include even manufacturing of goods for export out of India, more so when such goods are used for captive consumption by a non-resident.

The discussion here is valid in the context of the provisions of the Income tax Act. The taxation of the assessees governed by a Double Tax Avoidance Agreement will be determined largely by the provisions of such agreement.

Commission to Non-resident Agents – Whether Accruing or Arising in India

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Issue for Consideration Many exporters, located in India, use the services of commission agents located abroad, for procuring orders from abroad. These agents locate customers in foreign countries, and procure orders from them on behalf of the Indian exporters . The goods are then shipped from India to such customers by the Indian exporters, and payment is received directly from such customers by the Indian exporters. The commission agents are generally paid a commission by the Indian exporters as a percentage of the orders procured by the agents, such commission generally being remitted directly from India to the overseas bank accounts of the agents.

The taxability of such commission in India had been an issue that had arisen long back, and the CBDT as far back as 1969, had issued a circular no. 23 dated 23.7.1969, clarifying that such commission was not taxable in India. Further, vide circular no. 786 dated 7.2.2000, the CBDT had again reiterated that such commission was not taxable in India u/s. 5(2) and 9, and that therefore no tax was deductible at source u/s. 195 from such commission. However, vide circular no. 7 of 2009 dated 22.10. 2009, the CBDT has withdrawn both the above referred circulars, no. 23 as well as no. 786, besides the circular no. 163 dated 29.5.1975 which dealt with an agent engaged in the activity of purchase of goods for export. The ostensible reason behind withdrawal of the said circulars was that the interpretation put on the said circulars by some of the taxpayers to claim relief in the opinion of the Board was not in accordance with the provisions of section 9, or the intention behind the issue of the circulars.

In the light of the withdrawal of the above circulars, the question has arisen as to whether such commission to foreign agents is subject to tax in India, and whether tax is accordingly deductible u/s. 195 from such commission. In case of agents who are tax residents of countries with which India has Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements, such income may not be taxable in India on account of the applicability of Article 7 of the DTAA dealing with Business Profits, as business profits are not taxable in India in the absence of a permanent establishment in India. The issue would however assume significance in the case of agents who are tax residents of countries with which India does not have DTAAs, and who would be governed by the provisions of the Income Tax Act.

While the Authority for Advance Rulings has recently taken a view that such commission is chargeable to tax in India under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, the Hyderabad bench of the tribunal has taken a contrary view of the matter.

SKF Boilers & Driers’

Case The issue came up before the Authority for Advance Rulings (AAR) in the case of SKF Boilers and Driers Pvt Ltd, in re, 343 ITR 385.

In this case, the applicant was an Indian company engaged in the manufacture and supply of rice par boiling and dryer plants as per customer requirements. It had received an order from a Pakistani company through two Pakistani agents. The plant was shipped to the Pakistani customer, and on completion of the export order, the commission became payable to the agents as per the agreed terms. A ruling was sought from the AAR as to whether such commission income of the nonresident agents could be deemed to accrue or arise in India and whether tax was required to be deducted at source u/s. 195.

On behalf of the revenue, it was pointed out that there was no DTAA with Pakistan which covered such payment, nor was there any other tax exemption available. It was also stated that circular no. arising to the agents on account of export commission fell u/s. 5(2)(b), as the income had accrued in India when the right to receive the income became vested.

On behalf of the applicant, it was argued that the agents had rendered services abroad and would be entitled to receive commission abroad for the services rendered to foreign clients of the applicant. As services were rendered outside India, and the payment was receivable by the agents abroad, no income would arise u/s. 5(2)(b) read with section 9(1).

The AAR considered the provisions of sections 5 and 9, and observed that they proceeded on the assumption that income had a situs, and the situs had to be determined according to the general principles of law. According to the AAR, the words ‘accrue’ or ‘arise’ occurring in section 5 had more or less a synonymous sense, and income was set to accrue or arise when the right to receive it came into existence. The AAR expressed the view that no doubt the agents had rendered services abroad and had solicited orders abroad, but the right to receive the commission arose in India when the order was executed by the applicant in India. According to the AAR, the fact that the agents had rendered services abroad in the form of soliciting the orders and that the commission was to be remitted to them abroad were wholly irrelevant for the purpose of determining the situs of their income.

The AAR therefore held that the income arising on account of commission payable to the two agents was deemed to accrue and arise in India and was taxable in India in view of the specific provisions of section 5(2)(b) read with section 9(1)(i), and that the provisions of section 195 would therefore apply.

Avon Organics’ case

The issue again came up recently before the Hyderabad bench of the tribunal in the case of ACIT v Avan Organics Ltd., 28 taxmann.com 170.

In this case, the assessee was engaged in the activity of manufacture and sale of chemicals and bulk drugs. It paid commission to foreign agents for services rendered by them in connection with effectuating export sales, and such payments were made by telegraphic transfer directly to the overseas bank accounts of the agents. Such payments were made without deducting tax at source. It was claimed by the assessee that the foreign agents operated in their respective countries and no part of the income arose in India, and hence no tax was required to be deducted at source on the payments made to the foreign agents.

The assessing officer rejected the assessee’s contention by observing that the non-residents were paid by way of telegraphic transfer obtained from banks in India, that the banks acted as agents of the non-residents, and therefore, the non-residents had received the payment in India. He accordingly disallowed the payment of the commission u/s. 40(a)(i). The Commissioner (Appeals) reversed the order of the assessing officer.

Before the tribunal, it was argued on behalf of the revenue that the commission payment being for services rendered by the foreign agents in connection with business activities arising in India, was taxable in the hands of the foreign agents, and therefore the assessee was required to deduct tax at source.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that the foreign agents did not render any part of the services in India, did not have an establishment in India and therefore, commission was not deemed to have arisen in India as per section 5(2)(a). It was further argued that the mere fact of transmission of the commission to foreign agents through telegraphic transfer did not make the banks as agents of the foreign commission agents, amounting to receipt of payment on their behalf in India.

The tribunal examined the material on record and noted that besides the fact of telegraphic transfer of the remittances being made from a bank in India, the assessing officer had no other material on record to show that the foreign agents either rendered any services in India or had any permanent establishment in India. According to the tribunal, only the fact that the remittances towards commission were telegraphically transferred to the foreign agents from banks in Hyderabad would not lead to the inference that the income to the foreign agents accrued or arose in India in terms of section 5(2)(a).

The tribunal therefore held that the assessee was justified in not deducting tax at source from the commission paid to the foreign agents.

A similar view had been taken earlier by the AAR in the case of SPAHI Projects (P) Ltd, in re 183 Taxman 92 and by the Tribunal earlier in the case of DCIT v Divi’s Laboratories Ltd 131 ITD 271 (Hyd). In the latter case, the Tribunal has expressly taken the view that the withdrawal of earlier circulars by the CBDT did not assist the Department in disallowance of such expenditure.

Observations

The controversy to an extent revolves around the question whether the withdrawal of the said circulars changed the legal position, as it was understood that the said circulars only confirmed the legal position that such commission was not taxable in India. Circular nos. 23 and 786, clarified the legal position and confirmed that even the interpretation of the CBDT was that, where the non-resident agent operated outside the country, no part of his income arose in India, and since the payment was usually remitted directly abroad, it could not be held to have been received by or on behalf of the agent in India. The CBDT confirmed that this was its interpretation of sections 5(2) and 9, and this view prevailed within the CBDT right till 22.10. 2009, when circular no. 7 of 2009 was issued for withdrawing the above circulars.

The position stated by the earlier circulars is the correct legal position, and the circulars merely clarified this position, a fact that has been confirmed by the number of tribunal and High Court decisions which, in the past, have upheld the validity of the reasoning and conclusion given in the said circular nos. 23 and 786. Therefore, the mere withdrawal of a circular which clarified the correct legal position would not change the legal position in this regard and if that is so , the stand now taken by the CBDT under the said circular 7 of 2009 has to be taken as the one that is contrary to the true legal position under the Act for taxation of such commission.

The AAR in SKF Boilers & Driers case perhaps erred holding that the place of accrual of an income is to be determined w.r.t the time of its accrual. While it is true that the point of time when commission arises is the time when the export of goods takes place, the AAR, in SKF Boilers & Driers case, erred in taking the view that even the situs of accrual of the income was the place from where the goods were exported. Under tax laws in India, it has been generally accepted that the place where the work is actually done is normally the situs of accrual of the income. For instance, in the case of salary income, the place of rendering of services is regarded as the place of accrual of income. The commission agent did not carry on any activity in India, and just the fact that the moment of accrual of income was linked to the moment of export of goods from India, did not mean that the commission income also accrued in India. The income from the export of goods was not the same as the income by way of commission. The linkage between the quantum or time of accrual between two events does not necessarily imply a linkage between the place of accrual of the two events. For instance, the value of a derivative is derived from its underlying fact, but the place of its accrual would be the place where the contract is entered into, and not the

place where the delivery of the underlying goods takes place. The AAR seems to have mistaken the linkage between the two events vis-a -vis the moment of accrual, to also imply a linkage in the place of accrual.

The AAR in the SKF Boilers & Driers case seems to have overlooked clause (a) of explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i). This clause provides that in the case of a business of which all the operations are not carried out in India, the income of the business that is deemed under this clause to have accrued or arisen in India is only such part of the income as is reasonably attributable to the operations carried out in India. This clause supports the view that the Income Tax Act treats the place where the activity is carried out as a place of accrual of income. This effectively means that if a business is only partly carried out in India, only that part of the income attributable to the business activity carried out in India would be taxable in India. This position is further reiterated by explanation 3 to section 9(1)(i) of the Act. That being the case, if no part of the business activity is carried out in India, as in the case of a foreign commission agent, then no part of the income can be taxed in India.

Further, the Supreme Court, in the case of CIT v Toshoku Ltd 125 ITR 525, considered a situation where an Indian exporter had appointed a non-resident sales agent for exports. The commission was credited in the books of the Indian exporter, and was subsequently paid. While holding that such credit did not constitute receipt of the commission in India, the Supreme Court also considered whether the commission accrued or arose in India. The Supreme Court observed as under:

“The second aspect of the same question is whether the commission amounts credited in the books of the statutory agent can be treated as incomes accrued, arisen, or deemed to have accrued or arisen in India to the non-resident assessees during the relevant year. This takes us to section 9 of the Act. It is urged that the commission amounts should be treated as incomes deemed to have accrued or arisen in India as they, according to the department, had either accrued or arisen through and from the business connection in India that existed between the non-resident assessees and the statutory agent. This contention overlooks the effect of cl. (a) of the Explanation to cl. (i) of s/s (1) of section 9 of the Act, which provides that in the case of a business of which all the operations are not carried out in India, the income of the business deemed under that clause to accrue or in India shall be only such part of the income as is reasonably attributable to the operations carried out in India. If all such operations are carried out in India, the entire income accruing therefrom shall be deemed to have accrued in India. If however, all the operations are not carried out in the taxable territories, the profits and gains of business deemed to accrue in India through and from business connection in India, shall be only such profits and gains as are reasonably attributable to that part of the operations carried out in the taxable territories. If no operations of business are carried out in the tax-able territories, it follows that the income accruing or arising abroad through or from any business connection in India cannot be deemed to accrue or arise in India.

In the instant case, the non-resident assessees did not carry on any business operations in the taxable territories. They acted as selling agents outside India. The receipt in India of the sale proceeds of tobacco remitted or caused to be remitted by the purchasers from abroad, does not amount to an operation carried out by the assessees in India as contemplated by cl. (a) of the Explanation to section 9(1)(i) of the Act. The commission amounts which were earned by the non -resident assessees for services rendered outside India cannot, therefore, be deemed to be incomes which have either accrued or arisen in India.”

From the above decision of the Supreme Court, it is clear that in the absence of any activity being carried out in India by a non-resident commission agent, the commission does not accrue or arise in India, and is not taxable in India.

A view similar to the view taken in the case of Avon Organics in favour of the assessee has been taken by the Hyderabad tribunal in the case of Priyadarshini Spinning Millls (P) Ltd. , 25 taxmann. com 574. The tribunal in this case took a view that no tax was deductible at source u/s. 195 on payment of such commission and that expenditure on commission could not be disallowed u/s. 40(a) (i) of the Act.

In view of the discussion here, it is appropriate to hold that the said Circular No. 7 of 2009 is without the authority of the law and shall have no application in determining the taxability of income by way of commission in the hands of a foreign commission agent rendering services outside India.

Charitable Trusts – Depreciation on Cost of Assets Allowed as Application of Income

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Issue for Consideration

U/s. 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a charitable or religious trust, subject to certain conditions,is entitled to exemption in respect of income from property held under trust for charitable or religious purposes, to the extent that such income is applied for charitable or religious purposes, or accumulated for charitable or religious purposes.

The CBDT has clarified vide its circular number 5 – P(LXX-6) dated 19th June 1968 that for the purposes of such exemption u/s. 11, the income of a trust is to be taken in the commercial sense, and not as computed under the provisions of the Income Tax Act. In other words, the income, that is eligible for exemption, is the one that has been determined as per the books of account. This position clarified by the CBDT is also confirmed by the decisions of the various high courts .

Taking this into account, various high courts have also held that that depreciation had necessarily to be deducted in computing the commercial income, as depreciation was a necessary accounting adjustment to income. Further, various courts, including the Supreme Court in the case of M. Ct. M. Tiruppani Trust vs. CIT 230 ITR 636, have held that all capital expenditure laid out in furtherance of the objects and purposes of the trust would be treated as an application of the income.

The question that has arisen before the courts as to whether, when a trust has claimed the capital expenditure on acquisition of an asset as an application of income for the purposes of claiming exemption u/s. 11, whether depreciation on such asset was also allowable as a deduction in computing the income of the trust. While the Bombay, Punjab and Haryana and Delhi High Courts have taken the view that depreciation would be allowable as a deduction even in such cases where the capital expenditure had been allowed as an application of income for charitable purposes, the Kerala High Court has taken a contrary view, holding that such depreciation should be added back to the income of the trust as disclosed in its books of account.

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection’s case:

The issue came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Institute of Banking Personnel Selection 264 ITR 110. In that case, the assessee was a charitable trust registered under the Bombay Public Trusts Act, 1950, as well as u/s. 12A of the Income Tax Act. It claimed depreciation on buildings, the cost of which had been allowed as a deduction in earlier years. It also claimed depreciation on furniture and fixtures which had been received by transfer from another trust, whose income was also exempt u/s. 11, and which had claimed the cost of such furniture and fixtures as an application of income in earlier years. The Assessing Officer disallowed the depreciation on buildings as well as on furniture and fixtures, on the grounds that capital expenditure incurred was allowed as a deduction from the income of the assessee, and that if depreciation was allowed, it would result in double deduction as full capital cost of furniture and fixtures had been allowed.

 The Bombay High Court referred to its earlier decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Munisuvrat Jain Temple Trust (1994) Tax LR 1084 and DIT(E) v Framjee Cawasjee Institute 109 CTR 463. In the first case, it had been held that the income of a charitable trust was liable to be computed in normal commercial manner, although the trust might not be carrying on any business and the assets in respect whereof depreciation was claimed might not be business assets. It was also held that section 32 of the Income Tax Act would not apply to such depreciation, and that income was to be computed after providing for allowance for normal depreciation, and deducting such depreciation from gross income of the trust.

 In Framjee Cawasjee Institute’s case, it was held that though the amount spent on acquiring the assets had been treated as application of income of the trust in the year in which the income was spent on acquiring those assets, that did not mean that in computing income from those assets in subsequent years, depreciation in respect of those assets could not be taken into account.

The Bombay High Court followed its earlier decisions and took the view that depreciation was allowable even on those assets whose actual cost had been allowed as a deduction in computing the income of the earlier years. A view similar to that of the Bombay High Court has been taken by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Market Committee, Pipli 330 ITR 16 and by the Delhi High Court in the case of DIT vs. Vishwa Jagriti Mission 73 DTR (Del) 195.

Lissie Medical Institutions’ case:

The issue also came up before the Kerala High Court in the case of Lissie Medical Institutions vs. CIT 76 DTR (Ker) 372.

In this case, the assessee was a charitable institution registered u/s.12A, and running a hospital. It acquired medical equipment, such as x-ray units, scanning machines, etc., the expenditure for acquisition of which was treated as application of income for charitable purposes u/s. 11. In computing the income from the hospital, the assessee also claimed depreciation on such equipments, on assets acquired during the year as well as on assets acquired during earlier years.

The Assessing Officer was of the view that the assessee’s case was that of a double deduction of capital expenditure, since acquisition of assets was treated as acquisition of income for charitable purposes, and the value of the assets stood fully written off. On appeal, the tribunal, following the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Escorts Ltd vs. Union of India 199 ITR 43, confirmed such disallowance.

On a further appeal by the assesee, the Kerala High Court observed that if the assessee treated an expenditure on acquisition of assets as application of income for charitable purposes u/s. 11, and the assessee also claimed depreciation on the value of such assets, then in order to reflect the true income that was available for application for charitable purposes, the assessee should write back the depreciation amount in the accounts to form part of the income to be accounted for application for charitable purposes. If this was not done, according to the Kerala High Court, the income which would be available for application for charitable purposes got reduced by the depreciation amount, which in the court’s view was not permissible u/s. 11. The net effect in a case where an assessee claimed depreciation in respect of an asset the full value of which was claimed as an application of income for charitable purposes, such notional claim of depreciation became cash surplus available with the assessee, which remained outside the books of account of the trust, unless it was written back, which was not done by the trust.

The Kerala High Court observed that it did not think it was permissible for a charitable institution to generate income outside the books in this fashion. The Kerala High Court noted that in all the other decisions cited before it of the other high courts, none of the courts had examined the aspect of availability of income to the trust on write back of the depreciation, in cases where depreciation was claimed as a notional cost after the assessee claimed 100% of the cost incurred for it as application of income for charitable purposes, the depreciation so claimed was to be added back as income available.

Interestingly, the Kerala High Court, on a consideration of the clarification of the CBDT filed before it, observed that based on the decisions of other high courts, all the charitable institutions were generating unaccounted income equal to the depreciation amount claimed on a year-to-year basis, which was nothing but black money, and that this aspect had not been considered in any of these decisions.

The Kerala High Court also was of the view that the issue was covered by the decision of the Supreme Court in Escorts’ case (supra), where the Supreme Court had observed that “the mere fact that a baseless claim was raised by some overenthusiastic assessees who sought a double allowance or that such claim may perhaps have been accepted by some authorities is not sufficient to attribute any ambiguity or doubt as to the true scope of the provisions as they stood earlier”.

However, considering the fact that depreciation had been allowed for several years to the assessee, the Kerala High Court observed that the assessee could not be taken by surprise by disallowing depreciation, which was being allowed for several years. It therefore allowed the assessee to write back the depreciation for the year before it, and even for previous years, and carry forward such income for application for subsequent years.

Observations

The CBDT, in spite of its clarification vide its circular number 5 – P(LXX-6) dated 19th June 1968 that for the purposes of such exemption u/s. 11, the income of a trust is to be taken in the commercial sense, and not as computed under the provisions of the Income Tax Act put forward following the interesting contention before the Kerala High Court that seem to have appealed to the court to a great extent :

“The CBDT is of the considered view that where an assessee has acquired an asset, through application of income and has also claimed this amount as expenditure in its income and expenditure account, depreciation on such assets would not be allowable to the assessee. Such notional statutory deductions like depreciation, if claimed as deduction while computing the income of the property held under trust under the relevant head of income, is required to be added back while computing the income for the purpose of application in the income and expenditure account. This would imply that the correct figure of surplus from the trust property is reflected in the income and expenditure account of the trust to determine the income for the purposes of application under section 11 of the Income Tax Act. This would reduce the possibility of revenue leakage which may be a cause for generation of black money.”

One fails to understand as to why depreciation should be written back in the books of account of the assessee, when it is otherwise a charge on the profits of the year and is required to be provided for as per the accounting standards and practices. The accounts will represent a fallacious view where on one side it provides for the depreciation and on the other side it credits a write back of the same depreciation. Again, it is impossible to fathom as to how black money could ever be generated by not writing back depreciation, because there is no outflow of funds from the trust, depreciation is merely a notional entry in accordance with accounting standards and practices. At best, there is a reduction in the commercial profit of the trust.

Perhaps, what the CBDT desired was that in computing the commercial income for the purposes of grant of exemption, the amount of such depreciation should be added back and treated as income available for application for charitable purposes, since the cost of the assets had been treated as an application of income for charitable purposes. This desire however, is not set out in the provisions of the Act and in any case is contrary to its own circular clarifying that the profit of the trust is the one that is understood in the commercial sense and as a consequence thereof has to be computed in the manner as is computed by a commercial man, i.e after providing for depreciation on the assets used by it, irrespective of the fact that the cost of it is treated as an application of income and as a consequence of such treatment is allowed, as a deduction in computing the income of the trust.

Can such depreciation ever be regarded as an income of the trust in commercial terms? In the context of repayment of loan scholarships by scholars who had taken loans by way of scholarships for their studies from a trust, the CBDT had clarified, vide Circular No. 100 dated 24-01-1973 that when such loans were given, they should be treated as an application of income for charitable purposes, but that the re-payment of the loans should then be regarded as income of the trust. No such clarification is issued in the context of application of income qua the capital assets and incidental claim if depreciation thereon. The said circular in fact, supports the view of the assessee, where it goes on to state that the repayment of loan by a trust originally taken is an application of income in the hands of the trust. The Bombay High Court, in the case of CIT vs. Trustees of Kasturbhai Scindia Commission Trust 189 ITR 5, had held that return of a loan by a debtor to a creditor could never constitute an income, even though the trust might have got a deduction as an application for charitable purposes for the amount of loans given, in the year of grant of such loans. By the same logic, depreciation provided by a trust can never be added back as its income, as it is never commercially considered to be income.

The Punjab and Haryana High Court in the Market Committee’s case (supra) has rightly observed, in relation to the argument that allowance of such depreciation amounted to a double deduction and therefore was covered by the decision in the Escorts’ case (supra), that it was not a double deduction. The court observed that the income of the assessee being exempt, it was only claiming that depreciation that was required to be reduced from the income for determining the percentage of funds that were to be applied for the charitable purposes. According to the Punjab and Haryana High Court, it was therefore not a case of a double benefit, and that the decision in the Escorts’ case (supra) was distinguishable.

Similarly, the Delhi High Court in the Vishwa Jagriti Mission’s case (supra), while noting the various High Court decisions holding that depreciation was a necessary deduction in computing the commercial income, observed that the allowance of depreciation was necessary on commercial principles. It distinguished the Escorts’ case on the grounds that the Supreme Court, in that case, was not concerned with the case of a charitable trust involving the question as to whether its income should be computed on commercial principles in order to determine the amount of income available for application to charitable purposes, but was dealing with a case where a deduction was allowed in computing business profits and depreciation was also being claimed while computing business profits. In case of charitable trusts, what was relevant was only the concept of commercial income as understood from the accounting point of view, and there was an authority for the proposition that depreciation was a necessary charge in computing the net income. The Delhi high court also noted that the Supreme Court was concerned with a case where the assessee had claimed deduction of the cost of an asset u/s. 35, which allowed deduction for capital expenditure incurred on scientific research, and the question was whether, after claiming deduction in respect of the cost of the asset u/s. 35, whether the assessee could again claim deduction on account of depreciation in respect of the same asset. The Supreme Court in that case had observed that under general principles of taxation, double deduction was not intended unless clearly expressed and , the case before it was not one of that type.

A capital expenditure is treated as an application of income for charitable purposes, under the Act, while depreciation is a deduction in computing the income itself, which is available for application for charitable purposes. These are two different things. Claiming the cost of an asset as an application for charitable purposes is not the same thing as providing depreciation in computing the profit available for spending for charitable purposes. This is therefore not a case of a double deduction.

The better view of the matter therefore seems to be that of the Bombay, Punjab and Haryana and Delhi High Courts which holds that reduction of depreciation from the income is not a double deduction. The view taken by the Kerala High Court requires reconsideration.

Eligibility for Deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) in Respect of Amount Disallowed u/s. 40(a)(ia)

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Issue for consideration

100% of the profits derived from a housing project is eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Income -tax Act. Like many other provisions of chapter VI-A of the Act, this provision also does not lay down the guidelines for computing the profits from the housing project and in turn leaves a doubt about the quantum of profits that is eligible for deduction. Is it the amount of profits that is computed as per the books of account that is eligible for deduction or is the deduction based on the amount of income computed as per the provisions of the Act and if yes, is deduction limited to the returned income or is allowed w.r.t the assessed income? These are the questions that routinely arise in interpretation of the provisions of chapter VI-A that grant deduction for profits derived from specified sources.

While many of the decisions have taken a view that the term ‘profits’ referred to in the said chapter means and includes the assessed profit that should be eligible for deduction under the respective provisions, some of the decisions, including the recent one of the Ahmedabad bench of the tribunal, have taken a view that the entire assessed income after disallowance should not be eligible for deduction and the deduction should be restricted to profits as per the books of account. The Ahmedabad bench of the tribunal in holding so, also distinguished the case where profits as per the books is increased on account of the disallowance of an expenditure and the one on account of statutory non compliance of the law. The position also needs to be examined in view of the decisions of the apex court in the cases of Pandian Chemicals Ltd. and Liberty India.

Rameshbhai C. Prajapati’s case

The issue recently arose in the case of Rameshbhai C. Prajapati, 23 ITR (Trib.) 516 (Ahd.). In this case, the AO disallowed an amount of Rs. 1,20,895 representing a business expenditure, on which tax, though deducted, was deposited after the due date of filing the return of income. The disallowance had the effect of enhancing the business income of the assessee, the source of which was from a housing project that was otherwise eligible for full deduction u/s. 80-IB(10). The AO restricted the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) to the profits as per the books of account and denied the deduction on the amount disallowed u/s. 40(a)(ia) in the course of assessment. On appeal, the CIT(A) allowed the deduction based on the assessed business income by observing as under;

“3……., there is merit in the submissions that the addition on account of disallowance of expenditure would result in increased business income of the appellant which would be eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10). Hence while holding that he Assessing Officer’s disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) is justified the appellant’s claim of admissibility of deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) on this addition is also justified. Therefore while confirming the order of the Assessing Officer with regard to disallowance of Rs. 1,28,895 he is directed to consider the amount while computing the assessee’s claim of deduction u/s. 80-IB(10).”

On appeal to the tribunal, the Revenue supported the findings of the AO and contended that the CIT(A) erred in allowing deduction u/s. 80-IB (10) of the Act on the addition made u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Act, without appreciating the fact that the addition was not on account of disallowance of any expenditure but was on account of infringement of law, and the AO’s finding that the assessee had deducted tax at source but had violated the law by not depositing the same in time, thereby attracting provisions of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. The assesssee on the other hand relied upon the order of the CIT(A).

The tribunal, on hearing the rival submissions, and carefully perusing the materials on record, noted that, in the case before them, the addition made on account of disallowance of expenditure was due to the deeming fiction created by the penal section of 40(a)(ia) of the Act and the effect of the same could not be imported into a beneficial provision of section 80-IB(10) of the Act. It observed that the deeming fiction created under any provision of the Act could not be imported into a beneficial provision of the Act. It also noted that while computing deduction u/s. 80-IB (10) of the Act, the plain meaning of the language of the Act had to be given effect to and the legal fiction created by virtue of section 40(a)(ia) could not be extended to determine the profit of the business for the purpose of computing deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Act, which had to be applied only for the definite and limited purpose for which it was created.

The tribunal noted with approval the decision in the case of Executors & Trustees of Sir Cawasji Jehangir vs. CIT, 35 ITR 537 (Bom), where it had been explained that unless it was clearly and expressly provided, it was not permissible to impose a supposition on a supposition of law and that it was not permissible to sub-join or track a fiction upon fiction. In light of the said decision, it was apparent to the tribunal that in determining the quantum of deduction u/s 80 IB of the Act, one had to strictly follow the provisions of that section and compute the deduction accordingly without infusing any other provision of the Act, which created a legal fiction. The tribunal held that for computing the profits derived from the business of an undertaking that was developing and building housing projects, for claiming deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Act, any deeming fiction provided under the Act, such as section 40(a)(ia), should not be infused. Instead the normal provisions of the Act had to be adopted and only the profits thus worked out should be eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of the Act.

It was accordingly held that the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) should not be increased on account of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia).

S.B. Builders & Developers’ case

The same issue had come up before the Mumbai bench of thee tribunal in the case of S.B. Builders & Developers, 136 TTJ 420 (Mum.). The assessee in that case was a partnership firm, engaged in the business of building and developing a housing project. During the relevant accounting year, the assessee had only one housing project in hand in respect of which, in filing the return of income, it had claimed a deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) of Rs. 3,76,78,403 which represented the profits from the said project as shown in the Profit & Loss Account. The AO found that, in respect of certain payments relating to the cost of construction, RCC consultancy, architect’s fees, commission and professional charges aggregating to Rs. 4,50,12,485, the assessee had not deducted tax in time, though it was required to do so. He accordingly disallowed the said payments u/s. 40(a)(ia) and added back the said amount to the net profit and determined the gross total income at Rs. 8,26,90,888. Finally, he restricted the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) to Rs. 3,76,78,403, only, i.e. the amount originally claimed in the return of income, and brought to tax Rs. 4,50,12,485, the amount that was disallowed u/s. 40(a)(ia).

On appeal to the CIT(A), the firm claimed that the assessee was entitled to the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) in respect of the profits computed by AO after making the disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). The CIT(A), not impressed by the contention, held that the disallowed expenditure could not be considered to be the profits generated by the industrial undertaking, i.e. the housing project, there being no nexus between the disallowed expenditure and the industrial undertaking. In other words, he held that insofar as the disallowed expenditure was concerned, the industrial undertaking was not the source of the same and section 80-IB(10) could apply only in relation to profits which were “derived” from the industrial undertaking. Relying on the judgments of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Sterling Foods, 237 ITR 579, Pandian Chemicals Ltd. vs. CIT, 262 ITR 278 and Liberty India vs. CIT, 317 ITR 218 , he held that the assessee was not entitled to the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) in respect of the disallowed expendi-ture of Rs. 4,50,12,485 and the deduction was rightly restricted by the AO to the profit of Rs. 3,76,78,403 shown in the Profit and Loss Account. He accordingly confirmed the action of the AO.

On second appeal to the tribunal, the assessee firm relied upon several decisions in support of the case for deduction. In reply, the Revenue contended as under;

•    The decisions relied upon by the assesseee were concerned with deductions to be allowed, whereas in the present case, the deduction was not to be allowed because the assessee had failed to deduct and pay the taxes within the time-frame prescribed and thus it was a case of statutory disallowance of an expenditure and add-back of the same, to which the ratio of the judgments cited could not apply.

•    In the case of Distributors (Baroda) (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India 155 ITR 120(SC) , the earlier judgment of the court in the case of Cloth Traders (P.) Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT, 118 ITR 243, wherein the court had held that the deduction u/s. 80M had to be computed with reference to the gross amount of dividend received by the assessee, was overruled and it was held that the deduction was to be given on the net amount of dividend calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Act.

•    The Supreme Court in Liberty India’s case (supra) held that the profits derived from the eligible business in section 80-IB(1) only meant the operational profits of the eligible business and since in the given case before the tribunal, the amount disallowed u/s. 40(a)(ia ) could not be termed as such profits, it could not qualify for the deduction.

•    Acceptance of the assessee’s contention would result into an artificial inflation of the profits from the housing project which would be against common sense and reality, and would convert an expenditure disallowed into qualifying income of the assessee; a proposition which could not at all be accepted.

•    The Amritsar Bench of the tribunal in the case of Kashmir Tubes vs. ITO ,IT Appeal No. 145 (Asr.) of 2005, dated 07-12-2007, held that a disallowed expenditure could not be considered to be profits derived from the eligible business for the purpose of section 80-IA/80-IB.

The tribunal, on a detailed consideration of the law on the subject, observed as under;
•    U/s. 80-IB(1), an assessee was allowed a deduction in respect of the profits and gains ‘derived’ from any eligible business which inter alia included developing and constructing a housing project mentioned in s/s. (10). The deduction in computing the gross total income was to be given @ 100% of the profits and gains derived from the housing project.

•    Though profits and gains ‘derived’ from the eligible business was not defined in the relevant section as also in chapter VI-A of which the said section was part of, section 80AB afforded a complete answer to the issue in dispute, while stating that for the purpose of computing any deduction under the chapter, notwithstanding anything contained in that section, it was the amount of income of the nature as computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act (before making any deduction under this Chapter) that alone shall be deemed to be the amount of income of that nature which was derived or received by the assessee and which was included in his gross total income.

•    In other words, u/s. 80AB, the income that was derived from the eligible business must be computed in accordance with the provisions of sections 30 to 43D, as provided in section 29, and as such, effect must be given to section 40(a)(ia) in computing the profits and gains derived from the housing project.

•    The payment made without tax deduction had to be disallowed and added back to the profits and the resultant figure of profits, enhanced by the amount of disallowance, was eligible for the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10).

•    It hardly mattered whether, while computing the profits in accordance with the above sections, an amount was allowed as a deduction or was disallowed and added back to the profits, since ‘computation’ included both allowance of a deduction and disallowance or restriction of a deduction in accordance with the statutory provisions.
•    The contention of the revenue, that the accep-tance of the assessee’s claim resulted in an artificial inflation of the profits from the housing project, was against common sense and reality.

•    The words “computed in the manner laid down in this Act” must take precedence over notions like “commercial profits” and one should not be bogged down by the theory that the disallowed expenditure could not be considered as profits “derived” from the housing project or as “operational profits”.

•    The ratio of the judgments in the cases of CIT vs. Albright Morarji & Pandit Ltd. 236 ITR 914 , Grasim Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT, 245 ITR 677, Plastibends India Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT, 318 ITR 352 and Cambay Electric Supply Industrial Co. Ltd. vs. CIT 113 ITR 84. supported the case for an enhanced deduction.

The tribunal distinguished the decisions relied upon by the revenue and in particular the decisions in the cases of Distributors (Baroda) (P.) Ltd., Sterling Foods (supra) and Pandian Chemicals Ltd.(supra).

In the result, it was held that the assessee would be entitled to the deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) in respect of the profits of Rs. 8,26,90,888 assessed by AO as prof-its of the housing project for the year under appeal.

4.    Observations

It is very disturbing that in the present time, when the law is believed to be settled on the subject, the revenue should press such issues in unwarranted litigation. The courts are flooded with such frivolous cases, and one of the major steps to avoid piling up of the cases in the courts will be to stop flooding them with such issues. The only reason this controversy is addressed in this column is to highlight and understand the very novel contention of the revenue for denying the deduction on the enhanced income that found favour with the tribunal. There was no need to have engaged ourselves in this analysis, had the tribunal rejected the revenue’s contentions.

Section 40(a)(ia) disallows a claim for the deduction of an expenditure, in respect of which tax has not been deducted at source and/or paid in time. Section 40(a)(ia) is a part of chapter IV-D that provides for computation of the profits and gains of business. While computing the profits and gains in accordance with the said chapter, no distinction can be made between a section which allows the deduction and a section which disallows or restricts the deduction for failure to fulfill certain conditions. Neither can a distinction be made between an addition or a disallowance. Both the types of sections, those providing for allowance and those for disallowance, are parts of the computation provisions and both have to be given effect to in computing the profits and gains of business. It is this profit so determined, which constitutes the profits that is deemed to be derived from the eligible business. This understanding of the law, as pointed out by the Mumbai bench of the tribunal, is amply clarified by section 80AB when it advisedly uses the expression “…the amount of income of that nature as computed in accordance with the provisions of this Act.”

Section 80AB has an overriding effect over the sections under Chapter VI-A, insofar as the computation of the income eligible for the deduction is concerned. The Mumbai bench of the tribunal, in S.B. Builders case, very aptly took notice of the first proviso to section 92C, which provides that no deduction u/s. 10A, 10AA and 10B or under Chapter VI-A shall be allowed in respect of the amount of income by which the total income of the assessee is enhanced after computation of income under the said section 92C. The said section 92C provides for computation of arms length price in relation to an international transaction, and the effect of the proviso is that if an addition is made on the ground that the price charged is not at arms’ length, the added amount will not enjoy the exemption under the aforementioned sections. No such provision is available in chapter VI-A and in particular in section. 80AB or in section 80-IB(10) or in section 40(a)(ia) of the Act, and to read such a prescription therein, in the absence of statutory mandate, is impermissible in law.

In dealing with the effect of an addition u/s. 41(2) on the quantum of deduction u/s. 80E of chapter VI-A, the Supreme Court in the case of Cambay Electric Supply Industrial Co. Ltd. (supra) while explaining the steps involved in allowing the deduction, observed that the first step involved was to compute the total income of the assessee in accordance with the other provisions of the Act, without considering section 80E. It was then observed that the words “as computed in accordance with the other provisions of this Act” clearly contain a mandate that the total income of the concerned assessee must be computed in accordance with the other provisions of the Act without reference to section 80E and since in the case before them, it was income from business, the same was to be computed in accordance with sections 30 to 43A, that included section 41(2).

The Mumbai bench of the tribunal in S.B. Builders’ case observed that “We will be ignoring the mandate of section 80AB read with section 29 of the Act if we are to accept the stand of the revenue. There is no authority given by these sections to ignore the effect of section 40(a)(ia). Those sections do not say that the assessee will be allowed all the deductions from the profits, but when it comes to disallowing certain claims of expenditure, somehow those provisions will have to be ignored.”

It is useful to note that the Gujarat high court in the case of Keval Constructions, 33 taxmann.com 277 has held that the assessee was eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) on an amount that was increased by disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia). This decision delivered on 10-12-2012 was delivered subsequent to 21-09-2012, the date on which the Ahmedabad bench of the tribunal rendered its decision in the case of Ramesh C. Prajapati. We are sure that, with the sole high court decision on the subject, the controversy for the time being should be rested. The Pune bench of the tribunal in the cases of Magarpatta Township Development, 32 taxmann.com 63 and Kalbhor Gawde Builders, 141 ITD 612 has also upheld the claim of the assessee for a higher deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) on the profits derived from housing project duly enhanced by the amount of disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) of the Act.

Scope of Revision of orders by the Commissioner u/s.263

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Issue for consideration

Section 263 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) corresponding to section 33B of the Income-tax Act, 1922 (‘the 1922 Act’) was inserted in the statute with the main objective of arming the Commissioner of Income-tax (‘CIT’) with the powers of revising any order of the Assessing Officer (‘AO’), where the order is erroneous and resulted in prejudice to the interest of the Revenue. Prior to the introduction of section 33B in the 1922 Act, the Department had no right of appeal against any order passed by the AO and therefore, it was necessary to provide the CIT with the powers of revision.

While the power is not meant to be a substitute for the power of the AO to make assessment, the same can certainly be exercised when the order of the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. Whether or not the order is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue has to be decided from case to case.

The relevant provisions of section 263 reads as under:

“263(1) The Commissioner may call for and examine the record of any proceeding under this Act, and if he considers that any order passed therein by the Assessing Officer is erroneous insofar as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue, he may, after giving the assessee an opportunity of being heard and making or causing to made such inquiry as he deems necessary, pass such order thereon as the circumstances of the case justify, including an order enhancing or modifying the assessment, or cancelling the assessment and directing a fresh assessment . . . . .”

The controversy discussed here revolves around the scope of revisional power of the CIT — whether it extends to issues examined by the AO but not discussed in the assessment order.

The Karnataka High Court recently had an occasion to deal with this issue, wherein the Court held that an assessment order is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, if the AO has not given any conclusion and finding on the ground of revision in the assessment order, thereby, justifying the exercise of powers of revision u/s.263. In deciding the issue, the Karnataka High Court dissented with the earlier findings of the Bombay and Delhi High Courts on the subject.

Gabriel India’s case

The issue under consideration first came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Gabriel India Ltd., (203 ITR 108). In that case, Gabriel had claimed deduction of a sum of Rs.99,326 as ‘Plant relayout expenses’ as being revenue in nature, being business expenditure on account of exercise of merging the two plants which necessarily called for relocation of the facilities as well as adapting the existing structure and other services necessary for the plant as a whole. The AO had accepted the explanation of Gabriel and allowed the deduction as claimed by it.

Upon completion of assessment, the CIT issued notice u/s.263 on the ground that there was an error in the order of the AO in allowing the deduction of the amount, as it was capital in nature. The CIT did not accept the contention of Gabriel that there was proper application of mind by the AO, before allowing the claim of expenditure as revenue in nature.

On appeal by Gabriel to the Tribunal, the Tribunal concluded that the action of the CIT was not in accordance with the provisions of section 263.

Being aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal, the Revenue appealed to the High Court. The High Court, after the considering the facts of the case and perusing the orders of lower authorities, opined that the power of suo moto revision u/s.263(1) was in the nature of supervisory jurisdiction and could be exercised only if the circumstances specified therein existed.

Two circumstances must exist to enable the CIT to exercise power of revision u/s.263:
— The order of AO must be erroneous; and
— By virtue of the order being erroneous, prejudice is caused to the interest of the Revenue.

The High Court held that if the AO acting in accordance with law makes certain assessment, it cannot be termed as erroneous by the CIT simply because according to him the order should have been written more elaborately. The section does not visualise a case of substitution of judgment of the CIT for that of the AO, who has passed the order, unless the decision is held to be erroneous.

The High Court further observed that the AO had exercised the quasi-judicial power vested in him in accordance with law and arrived at a conclusion. Such a conclusion could not be termed as erroneous simply because the CIT did not feel satisfied with the conclusion. In such a case, in the opinion of the CIT, the order may be prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, but it cannot be held to be erroneous for the exercise of revisional jurisdiction u/s.263. According to the Court, for an order to be erroneous, it must be an order which is not in accordance with the law or which has been passed by the AO without making any inquiry in undue haste. The Court noted that though the words ‘prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue’ have not been defined, but it must mean that the orders of assessment challenged are such as are not in accordance with law, in consequence whereof the lawful revenue due to the State has not been realised or cannot be realised. [Following Dawjee Dadabhoy & Co. v. S. P. Jain & Anr., (31 ITR 872) (Cal.) and Addl. CIT v. Mukur Corporation, (111 ITR 312) (Guj.)]

The High Court also observed that for re-examination and reconsideration of an order of assessment, which had already been concluded and controversy about which had been set at rest, to be set again in motion, must be subject to some record available with the CIT and should not be based on the whims and caprice of the revising authority. The High Court made the following specific observations as regards the issue under consideration to uphold the contention of the Tribunal, which is as under: “The ITO in this case had made enquiries in regard to the nature of expenditure incurred by the assessee. The assessee had given detailed explanation in that regard by a letter in writing . . . . . Such a decision of the ITO cannot be held to be ‘erroneous’ simply because in his order he did not make elaborate discussions in that regard . . . . . Moreover, in the instant case, the CIT himself, even after initiating proceedings for revision and hearing the assessee, could not say that the allowance of the claim of the assessee was erroneous . . . . . He simply asked the AO to re-examine the matter. That in our opinion is not permissible.”

Ashish Rajpal case

The issue under consideration had also come up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Ashish Rajpal, (320 ITR 674). In that case, in the course of scrutiny, several communications were addressed by the assessee to the AO, whereby the information, details and documents sought for, were adverted to and filed, which were subject to grounds of revision u/s.263. On challenge before the Tribunal by the assessee of the powers of revision of the CIT, the Tribunal held that the assessee had filed all the relevant details and there was due application of mind by the AO on the grounds of revision. Therefore, merely because the assessment order did not refer to the queries raised during the course of the scrutiny and the response of the assessee thereto, it could not be said that there was no enquiry and that the assessment was therefore erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

On appeal by the Revenue before the High Court, similar conclusions were arrived at and the exercise of the revisional power of the CIT, on the ground that there was lack of proper verification by the AO, was found to be unsustainable. Further, the High Court, after considering the decisions on the subject, explained the meaning of the expression ‘erroneous’ and ‘prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue’ as under:

“…..(iii) An order is erroneous when it is contrary to law or proceeds on an incorrect assumption of facts or is in breach of principles of natural justice or is passed without application of mind, that is, is stereotyped, inasmuch as, the AO, accepts what is stated in the return of the assessee without making any enquiry called for in the circumstances of the case, that is, proceeds with ‘undue haste’. [See Gee Vee Enterprises v. ACIT, (99 ITR 375) (Del.)]

(iv)    The expression ‘prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue’, while not to be confused with the loss of tax, will certainly include an erroneous order which results in a person not paying tax which is lawfully payable to the Revenue. [See Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. (243 ITR 83)]”

Infosys Technologies’ case

The issue under consideration came up recently before the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. Infosys Technologies Ltd., (341 ITR 293).

Infosys had claimed certain deductions for A.Y. 1995-96 and A.Y. 1996-97 towards its tax liability on account of tax deducted at source (‘TDS’) from payments received in respect of its business activities in Canada and Thailand. The aggregate tax relief as claimed as per Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (‘DTAA’) under India-Canada tax treaty and India-Thailand tax treaty for A.Ys. 1995-96 and 1996-97 were Rs.18,12,897 and Rs.48,59,285, respectively. The AO, during the course of original assessment proceedings, after considering the submissions and records of Infosys duly allowed the tax relief as claimed by it under the respective treaties.

However, the CIT, on a consideration of non-speaking order of the AO on the aforesaid tax relief so allowed and in light of Article 23(2) of the India-Canada DTAA and Article 23(3) of the India-Thailand DTAA, was of the view that the order was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The CIT exercised his powers u/s.263 of the Act and remanded the matter to the file of the AO to ascertain the exact tax relief to which Infosys was entitled under respective tax treaties.

On appeal by Infosys before the Tribunal, the revisional orders of the CIT u/s.263 were set aside by the Tribunal vide a common order, on the ground that the orders passed by the AO were not shown as erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue by the CIT.

The Revenue, aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal, appealed to the Karnataka High Court. After considering the arguments of the respective sides and perusing the orders of the lower authorities, the High Court accepted the fact that the CIT in his order does not anywhere explicitly show as to how the order of the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The High Court held that the object of section 263 is to raise revenue for the state. The said provision is intended to plug leakage of revenue by erroneous orders passed by the lower authorities, whether by mistake or in ignorance or even by design.

Reference was made by the Karnataka High Court to the observations of the Supreme Court in the cases of Electro House (82 ITR 824) and Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. v. CIT, (supra) to hold that since the AO had not disclosed the basis on which the tax reliefs were arrived at in the assessment order, which being important for determination of tax liability, there was definitely a possibility of the order being both erroneous and prejudicial. The ratios of the decisions of the Bombay High Court in the case of Gabriel India (supra) and the Delhi High Court in the case of Ashish Rajpal (supra) were referred to but were considered as not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the present case. The High Court held that the argument that the materials had been placed before the AO and therefore, the AO had applied his mind to the same could not be accepted to restrict the power of the CIT to revise the orders u/s.263.

Further, the following specific findings were made by the High Court as regards the issue under consideration to uphold the exercise of revisional power of the CIT u/s.263:

“We are of the clear opinion that there cannot be any dichotomy of this nature as every conclusion and finding by the assessing authority should be supported by reasons, however brief it may be, and in a situation where it is only a question of computation in accordance with the relevant articles of a DTAA and that should be clearly indicated in the order of the assessing authority, whether or not the assessee had given particulars or details of it. It is the duty of the assessing authority to do that and if the assessing authority has failed in that, more so in extending a tax relief to the assessee, the order definitely constitutes an order not merely erroneous but also prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue…….”

Further the AO, pursuant to the directions of the CIT u/s.263, had re-examined the tax reliefs, resulting in some reduction of tax relief to Infosys. On appeal by the assessee before the CIT(A) and further before the Tribunal, the Tribunal had set aside the fresh assessment on the ground that the revisional jurisdiction of the CIT u/s.263 had been set aside at that point in time and the appeal against such fresh assessment by Infosys was accordingly allowed with necessary tax reliefs. Aggrieved by this Tribunal order, the Revenue had appealed against this order to the High Court, which appeal was clubbed with the appeals against the orders u/s.263. The High Court, on taking cogni-zance of these facts, set aside the matters to the file of the Tribunal, for deciding the issue on merits and in accordance with law.

Observations

Recently, the Full Bench of the Gauhati High Court in the case of CIT v. Jawahar Bhattacharjee, (67 DTR 217), after extensively considering the legal decisions and precedents on the subject, explained the expression ‘erroneous’ assessment in context of section 263 is an ‘assessment made on wrong assumption of facts or on incorrect application of law or without due application of mind or without following the principles of natural justice.’ Though the decisions of the Bombay High Court in the case of Gabriel India Ltd. (supra) and the Delhi High Court in the case of Ashish Rajpal (supra) were not specifically referred to in the aforesaid decision, the ratio of these judgments were accepted by the Full Bench in the decision.

The Karnataka High Court in the case of Infosys Technologies Ltd. (supra) has held that the AO should record reasons for his conclusions and findings in the assessment order, irrespective of whether the issue has been accepted or not by the AO. In case the assessment order does not contain the reasons for his findings and conclusions, then it may be construed as an order which is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue, whereby the action of revision by the CIT shall be justified u/s.263.

This interpretation would subject the concluded assessments of the assessees to revision by the CIT for want of duty not performed by the AO in recording reasons for his findings and conclusions in his orders. In other words, the assessees may be penalised for want of non-performance of the duty by the AO. If one were to construe the provisions of section 263 in such a manner, then all settled issues which are concluded at the assessment stage after due application of mind by the AO, may also be subject to revision by the CIT. Such a construction of the expression ‘erroneous order and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue’ by the Karnataka High Court is clearly in contradiction to the Full Bench of the Gauhati High Court and other High Courts as referred to above.

In addition to the above, the following decisions have also held that merely because the AO should have gone deeper into the matter or should have made more elaborate discussion could not be a ground for exercising power u/s.263:

  •    CIT v. Development Credit Bank Ltd., (323 ITR 206) (Bom.);

  •     CIT v. Hindustan Marketing and Advertising Co. Ltd., (341 ITR 180) (Del.);

  •     CIT v. Ganpati Ram Bishnoi, (296 ITR 292) (Raj.);

  •     CIT v. Unique Autofelts (P) Ltd., (30 DTR 231) (P&H);

  •     Hari Iron Trading Co. v. CIT, (263 ITR 437) (P&H); and

  •     CIT v. Goyal Private Family Specific Trust, (171 ITR 698) (All.).

Further, from the limited facts as understood from the order, the Karnataka High Court also failed to appreciate that the material as filed by Infosys during the course of assessment before the AO for the claim of tax relief was also available for consideration before the CIT. However, the CIT, instead of considering the materials on record and then reaching the necessary conclusions, chose to remand the matter to the file of the AO for re-examination without giving any reasons and findings for satisfaction as to how the tax relief so claimed by the assessee was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The CIT, in that case, seems to have relied on the text of the impugned Articles of the DTAAs to remand the matter to the file of the AO for re-examination, without taking cognizance of the material filed by the assessee before the AO for claim of tax reliefs or pointing out any specific defects in the application of the impugned articles. The CIT has also in his order seems to have neither opined, nor demonstrated how the conditions provided under the respective tax treaties were not fulfilled by the assessee or satisfied only for a particular amount out of the total tax relief claimed. Under similar circumstances on different issues, the Bombay High Court in the case of Gabriel India Ltd. (supra), after elaborate discussions as reproduced above, had set aside the revisional order of the CIT.

Though it may sound paradoxical, the Karnataka High Court while expecting the AO, being a quasi-judicial authority, to record the reasons and conclusions for the findings in the assessment order, it allowed the CIT, also a quasi-judicial authority, to exercise the revisional power, though the satisfaction and reasons were not recorded for holding the order of the AO as erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. The powers of revision had been exercised by the CIT merely on the ground of a doubt that the AO had not properly applied his mind in carrying out the procedural aspect of allowing the tax relief as per the impugned Articles under consideration and because the assessment order did not discuss the issue.

While one appreciates that the CIT u/s.263 is never required to come to a firm conclusion before exercising his powers of revision, it is equally true that the CIT being a quasi-judicial authority, is also required to satisfy himself and give reasons before invoking the powers of revision. This legal proposition is also approved in the following decisions rendered in the context of section 263:

  •     CIT v. T. Narayana Pai, (98 ITR 422) (Kar.);
  •     CIT v. Associated Food Products, (280 ITR 377) (MP);
  •     CIT v. Jai Mewar Wine Contractors, (251 ITR 785) (Raj.);
  •     CIT v. Duncan Brothers, (209 ITR 44) (Cal.) — an order of the CIT not bringing any cogent materials on record and based only on certain hypothesis is unsustainable;
  •     CIT v. Kanda Rice Mills, (178 ITR 446) (P&H);
  •     CIT v. Trustees, Anupam Charitable Trust, (167 ITR 129) (Raj.) — the error envisaged in this section is not one which depends on possibility or guesswork, it should be actually an error either of fact or of law; and
  •     CIT v. R. K. Metal Works, (112 ITR 445) (P&H);

Without prejudice to the aforesaid discussions, it would be relevant to mention that in the case of Infosys Technologies (supra), the reference to the observations of the decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of Electro House (supra) and Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. (supra) may not help the case for justification of exercise of revisional power by the CIT u/s.263. While the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Electro House (supra) dealt with the question of whether it is necessary to issue notice to the assessee before assuming jurisdiction u/s.33B of the 1922 Act (corresponding to section 263) vis-à-vis requirements of issue of notice u/s.34 of the 1922 Act (corresponding to section 148, section 149 and section 150), the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Malabar Industrial Co. Ltd. (supra) had a specific finding of fact that the AO had undertaken assessment in absence of any supporting material and without making any inquiry, which does not seem to be the case in Infosys Technologies matter (supra).

In light of the above, the findings of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Infosys Technologies Ltd. (supra) may require reconsideration. Otherwise, practically, considering the manner in which orders are passed by the AOs, wherein the reasons for the conclusions and findings are only spelt out with regard to the issues where the claims of the assessees are not accepted, such a view may give a free hand to the CIT to exercise powers of revision u/s.263 in almost all cases and revise all such settled assessments, which is unwarranted.

Further, judicial propriety and judicial discipline required that the case of Infosys Technologies Ltd. (supra) should have been referred to a Larger Bench of the Karnataka High Court, particularly considering that the same High Court in the case of T. Narayana Pai (supra) had decided otherwise regarding want of satisfaction and recording of a finding by the CIT in the context of section 263.

The view taken by the Bombay and Delhi High Courts, that revision cannot be resorted to in cases where the relevant information has been examined by the Assessing Officer, though not recorded in the assessment order, therefore seems to be the better view.

Service of notice u/S.143(2)

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Issue for consideration

Section 143
of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) provides for assessment by an
Assessing Officer (‘AO’) of the tax payable by an assessee for a
particular assessment year. Section 143 is a purely procedural or
machinery section laying down the procedures for making assessment in
various contingencies. Broadly, section 143 prescribes two types of
assessment — ‘summary assessment’ u/s.143(1) and ‘scrutiny assessment’
u/s.143(2).

As the name suggests, under ‘summary assessment’,
the AO makes regular assessment without inquiry and makes adjustments,
if any, to the income, limited to any arithmetical error in the return
or an incorrect claim which is apparent from any information in the
return. Section 143(2) on the other hand provides for regular assessment
after detailed inquiry. Section 143(2)(ii) enables the AO to make a
regular assessment after detailed inquiry.

The proviso to
section 143(2)(ii) of the Act prescribes the service of notice on the
assessee within a particular period as a pre-requisite to enable the AO
to complete an assessment other than summary assessment. The notice
should specify a date and should call upon the assessee either to attend
before the officer on that date or produce or cause to be produced
before the officer, on that date, any evidence which the assessee may
rely upon in support of his return and it is then up to the assessee to
satisfy the officer by producing necessary material that the return is
correct and complete. At present, the proviso to section 143(2)(ii)
specifies six months from the end of the financial year in which the
return is furnished, as the time-limit within which notice needs to be
served on the assessee for valid assessment of his return of income.

Section
143(2)(ii) and the proviso thereto, read as under: “Section 143(2)
Where a return has been furnished u/s.139, or in response to a notice
u/ss.(1) of section 142, the Assessing Officer shall, —
(i) ……..

(ii)
notwithstanding anything contained in clause (i), if he considers it
necessary or expedient to ensure that the assessee has not understated
the income or has not computed excessive loss or has not underpaid the
tax in any manner, serve on the assessee a notice requiring him, on date
to be specified therein, either to attend his office or to produce, or
cause to be produced, any evidence on which the assessee may rely in
support of the return; Provided that no notice under clause (ii) shall
be served on the assessee after the expiry of six months from the end of
the financial year in which the return is furnished.”

The controversy
sought to be discussed here, revolves around the issue as to whether the
expression ‘served’ used in the proviso to section 143(2) (ii) of the
Act needs to be given a literal meaning of ‘actual physical receipt of
notice by the assessee’ or otherwise needs to be construed as giving a
meaning of ‘issue’ of notice by the AO.

The Punjab and Haryana High
Court had an occasion to deal with this issue, holding that the date of
receipt of notice by the assessee was not relevant to determine whether
the notice had been served within the prescribed time, and that the
expression ‘serve’ meant the date of ‘issue of notice’. In deciding the
issue, the Punjab and Haryana High Court specifically dissented with the
findings of other earlier judgments of the Punjab and Haryana High
Court on the subject.

V.R.A. Cotton Mills’ case

The issue came up
recently before the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of V.R.A.
Cotton Mills (P) Ltd. v. Union of India and Others, (CWP No. 18193 of
2011) dated 27 September 2011 (reported in www.itatonline.org). V.R.A.
Cotton Mills filed a writ petition challenging the notice dated 30
September 2010 issued by the AO u/s.143(2) for A.Y. 2009-10, on the
ground that the notice was not served within the prescribed time limit
and accordingly, claimed that the initiation of assessment proceedings
by the AO was bad in law. The Court opined that the expressions ‘serve’
and ‘issue’ were interchangeable, relying on the following legal
precedents to construe the expression ‘serve’ as the date of issue of
notice:

  •  Banarsi Debi and Anr. v. ITO, (53 ITR 100);
  • Collector of
    Central Excise v. M/s. M. M. Rubber & Co., (1991 AIR 2141 SC);
  • Bhagwandas Goverdhandas Kedia v. Girdharilal Parshottamdas & Co.,
    (AIR 1966 SC 543); and
  • State of Punjab v. Khemi Ram, (AIR 1970 SC
    214). 

The High Court dissented from its own earlier judgment in the case
of CIT v. AVI-OIL India (P.) Ltd., (323 ITR 242), on the ground that
the legal precedents referred to above were not placed before the Court
in the case of AVI-OIL India (supra) and therefore, the Court, in
ignorance of law, had given literal meaning to the word ‘served’ in that
case. Treating the decision of AVI-OIL India (supra) as per incuriam,
the Court in V.R.A. Cotton Mills case (supra) held that the purpose of
the statute would be better served, only if the expression ‘served’ was
considered as being issue of notice. The Court, in light of the
aforesaid findings, dismissed the writ petition of the assessee and
construed the expression ‘served’ as meaning ‘issue’ of notice.

AVI-OIL
India’s case

This issue had come up earlier before the Punjab and
Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v. AVI-OIL India (P.) Ltd.
(supra).

In that case, the assessee filed its return of income on 29
October 2001 for A.Y. 2001-02 and notice u/s.143(2) was issued on 29
October 2002. The notice server visited the factory premises of the
assesseecompany on 31 October 2002 and as per the report of the notice
server, the office was found closed. The AO then directed the notice
server to serve the notice by affixture. This mode of service of notice
by affixture was challenged in appeal and the Court upheld the decision
of the Tribunal that such service of notice was not in accordance with
section 282 of the Act and Rules as prescribed under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908.

In addition, another notice dated 30 October 2002, was
also issued by the AO and sent by Registered post on 30 October 2002.
This notice was served upon the assessee on 1 November 2002. Relying on
the proviso to section 143(2)(ii) of the Act, the assessee-company
submitted that the second notice was non est in law considering that it
was served on the assessee beyond the then prescribed time limit of 12
months from the end of the month in which the return was furnished.

On
perusal of section 143(2) of the Act, the Court held that a notice under
that section is not only to be issued but also has to be served upon
the assessee within the time-limit as provided under the proviso to
section 143(2)(ii) for a valid assessment. The Court further held that
belated service of notice cannot be considered as curable u/s.292B of
the Act, as this section deals with issue of notice and not service of
notice.

In light of these facts, the Court upheld the decision of the
Tribunal of service of notice on the assessee not being a valid service
of notice u/s.143(2).

Observations

Section 143 of the Act corresponds in material particulars to section 23(1) to section 23(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1922 (‘the 1922 Act’). Section 143 has received major overhauls due to changes in the assessment procedures vide Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1970 and Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987. Over the years, amendments have been carried out in the provisions of section 143, to reach its present form. The condition of service of notice on the assessee and the time-limit thereof was introduced in section 143 by the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987. Circular No. 549, dated 31 October 1989 issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), 182 ITR 19 (St.), explains the scope of the amendment in the proviso to section 143(2) of the Act, as under:

“5.10 Commencement of proceedings for scrutiny and completion of scrutiny proceedings [s.s (2) and (3) of section 143] —………….

5.12 Since, under the provisions of s.s (1) of new section 143, an assessment is not to be made now, the provisions of s.s (2) and (3) have also been recast and is entirely different from the old provisions…….

5.13 A proviso to s.s (2) provides that a notice under the sub-section can be served on the assessee only during the financial year in which the return in furnished or within six months from the end of the month in which the return in furnished, whichever is later. This means that the Department must serve the said notice on the assessee within this period, if a case is picked up for scrutiny. It follows that if an assessee, after furnishing the return of income does not receive a notice u/s.143(2) from the Department within the aforesaid period, he can take it that the return filed by him has become final and no scrutiny proceedings are to be started in respect of that return.”

The Legislature, by inserting proviso to section 143(2) has intended that if no notice is received by the assessee within the prescribed time-limit, then the assessee can consider that the return filed by him has become final and that no scrutiny proceedings have been started. The notice can only be received on actual service, and therefore the intention seems to have been to place a time-limit for actual service, and not merely for issue, of the notice.

This position is further supported by Circular No. 621, dated 19 December 1991, 195 ITR 154 (St.), which clarifies as under:

“Extending the period of limitation for the service of notice u/ss.(2) of section 143 of the Income-tax Act — 49. Under the existing provisions of section 143 of the Income-tax Act relating to the assessment procedure, no notice u/ss.(2) thereof can be served on the assessee after the expiry of the financial year in which the return is furnished or the expiry of six months form the end of the month in which the return is furnished, whichever is later.

49.1 The aforesaid period of limitation for the service of notice u/ss.(2) of section 143 does not allow sufficient time to the Assessing Officers to select the returns for scrutiny before assessment. Therefore, s.s (2) has been amended to provide that the notice thereunder can be served on the assessee within twelve months from the end of the month in which the return in furnished.”

This interpretation of the proviso to section 143(2)(ii) of the Act is also supported by the enactment of sections 282 and 292BB. Section 282 prescribes the procedure and manner in which service of notice needs to be generally effected under the provisions of the Act and further, section 292BB of the Act vide a legal fiction holds certain notices as valid service of notice under the Act, based on satisfaction of certain conditions.

Further, section 34 of the 1922 Act corresponds to section 148, section 149 and section 150 of the Act (collectively referred to as ‘reassessment provisions’) which deals with procedure and conditions for reassessment of income of the assessee for a particular assessment year. On comparison of the language of section 143(2) of the Act with the reassessment provisions, one finds that the reassessment provisions have used both the expressions ‘issue of notice’ and ‘service of notice’, as against the provisions of section 143(2), which have consistently used only the expression ‘service of notice’.

The decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Banarsi Debi and Anr. v. ITO (supra) relied upon by the High Court in the V.R.A. Cotton Mills’ case (supra) was delivered in the context of section 34 of the 1922 Act. The Apex Court was considering an amendment in section 34 of the 1922 Act vide section 4 of the Amending Act of 1959, which sought to save the validity of notices issued beyond the prescribed period. Since section 34 used the term ‘served’ and not the term ‘issued’ while the amendment sought to cover notices ‘issued’ beyond the prescribed time, the Supreme Court, in that case, held as under:

(1)    The clear intention of the Legislature was to save the validity of notice as well as the assessment from an attack on the ground that the notice was served beyond the prescribed period;

(2)    That intention could be effectuated if a wider meaning was given to the expression ‘issued’, whose dictionary meaning took into account the entire process of sending the notice as well as the service thereof;

(3)    The word ‘issued’ in section 4 of the Amending Act had to be construed as interchangeable with the word ‘served’ or otherwise the amendment would become unworkable.

On perusal of these findings, one notices that the Apex Court confirmed that the expression ‘issue of notice’ had two meanings. The word ‘issue of notice’ was equated to as being ‘service of notice’ in a wider sense and of ‘notice sent’ in a narrower sense. In order to make the section workable and to further the intention of the Legislature of enacting section 4 of the Amending Act, 1959, the Court had to interpret the word ‘issue of notice’ as ‘service of notice’ in a contextual sense.

When the applicability of these findings were sought to be applied to corresponding reassessment provisions of the 1961 Act, the Supreme Court in the case of R. K. Upadhyaya v. Shanabhai P. Patel, (166 ITR 163), distinguished the decision of Banarsi Debi and Anr. v. ITO, (supra) holding that the scheme of the 1961 Act so far as notice for reassessment was concerned was quite different; and that a clear distinction had been made out between the ‘issue of notice’ and ‘service of notice’ under the 1961 Act.

The decision of Banarsi Debi and Anr. v. ITO (supra) was also distinguished by the High Courts in the following decisions on similar lines:

  •     Jai Hanuman Trading Co. Ltd. v. ITO, (110 ITR 36) (P&H) (FB);

  •     CIT v. Sheo Kumari Devi, (157 ITR 13) (Pat) (FB); and

  •     New India Bank Ltd. v. ITO, (136 ITR 679) (Del.)

Further, the following extracts of observations in the context of ‘issue of notice’ and ‘service of notice’ of the Full Bench of the Patna High Court in the case of Sheo Kumar Devi (supra), need to be noted:

“Once the maze of precedents is out of the way, one might as well examine the issue refreshingly on principle. To my mind, the fallacy that seems to have crept in this context is to suggest that (barring some very peculiar or compulsive textual compulsion) in plain ordinary English, the word ‘issue’ and the word ‘serve’ are synonyms or identical in terms. With great respect, it is not so. Their plain dictionary meaning runs directly contrary to any such assumption. No dictionary says that the issuance of an order is necessarily the service of order on a person as well, or in reverse, that the service of an order on a person is the mathematical equivalent to its issuance. In Chamber’s Twentieth Century Dictionary, the relevant meanings given to the word ‘issue’ are act of sending out, to put forth, to put into circulation, to publish, to give out for use. On the other hand, the word ‘serve’ in the same dictionary has been given the meaning, as a term of law, to deliver or present formally, or give effect to. Similarly in the New Illustrated Dictionary, the relevant meaning attributed to the word ‘issue’ is come out, be published, send forth, publish, put into circulation whilst the relevant meanings attributed to the word ‘serve’ are to supply a person with, make legal delivery of (writ, etc.), deliver writ, etc., to a person. Thus it would appear that the words ‘issue’ and ‘serve’ are distinct and separate and the indeed the gap between the two may be wide, both in point of time and place. An order or notice may be issued today, but may be served two years later. An order or notice may be issued at one place and may be served at a point 1,000 or more miles away. An order issued may not require any service at all……. shape of notification…….. Merely because a statute may provide that an order issued should also be properly served subsequently on the person directly affected would not, in my view, in any way render the words ‘issue’ and ‘serve’ as either synonymous or identical. A very peculiar situation in a statute and the compulsion of sound cannon of construc-tion may sometimes require the enlargement or extension of a word to save the legislation from being rendered nugatory. That, indeed, was the situation in Banarsi Debi case (supra).”

On similar lines, the other decisions as relied on by the Court in the case of V.R.A. Cotton Mills (supra) are not relevant in the context of the issue under consideration, since none of these decisions dealt with the expression ‘issue; or ‘service’ of notice.

On the contrary, the following decisions of the High Courts, delivered in the context of section 143(2), upholding the interpretation of service of notice not being synonymous with issue of notice, were not considered by the High Court in the case of V.R.A. Cotton Mills (supra):

  •     CIT v. Shanker Lal Ved Prakash, (300 ITR 243) (Del.) — in this case, the High Court even issued directions to AOs to dispatch notices at least a fortnight before the expiry of the date of limitation;

  •     CIT v. Yamu Industries Ltd., (306 ITR 309) (Del.) — the principles of section 282 were also applied in this case in interpreting the expression ‘service’ of notice;

  •     CIT v. Cebon India Ltd., (34 DTR 119) (P&H);

  •     CIT v. Pawan Gupta and Others, (318 ITR 322) (Del.) and Rajat Gupta v. CIT, (41 DTR 265) (Del.) — In context of block assessment;

  •     CIT v. Bhan Textiles (P) Ltd., (287 ITR 370) (Del.);

  •     CIT v. Vardhman Estate (P) Ltd., (287 ITR 368) (Del.); and

  •     CIT v. Dewan Kraft Systems (P) Ltd., (165 Taxman 139)(Del.).

One also needs to keep in mind that the requirement of service of notice within the specified period, and not issue of notice within that time, has been provided for to ensure that AOs do not show a notice as having been issued at an earlier date, though issued and dispatched much later, as that could have resulted in possible harassment of assessees.

In the light of the above, the better view is that the expression ‘served’ as referred to in section 143(2)(ii) of the Act and its proviso thereof, has to be given literal meaning of ‘actual receipt of notice by the assessee’ as against the meaning of issue of notice. The decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of V.R.A. Cotton Mills case (supra), with due respect, therefore requires reconsideration.

Further, the principle of judicial propriety and judicial discipline demanded that the matter in the case of V.R.A. Cotton Mills Ltd. (supra) should have been referred to a Larger Bench of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, more particularly after the fact that the same High Court in the cases of Cebon India (supra) and AVI-OIL India Ltd. (supra) had decided otherwise in the context of section 143(2).

Tax Deduction at Source u/s.195

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 S. 195 of the Income-tax Act provides for tax deduction
at source from payment of interest or any other sum chargeable under the
provisions of the Income-tax Act (other than salaries or dividend specified in
S190) to a non-resident or a foreign company at the prescribed time at the rates
in force.

1.2 U/s.195(2), where the payer considers that the whole of
such sum so payable to a non-resident would not be income chargeable of the
recipient, he can make an application to the Assessing Officer to determine the
appropriate proportion of such sum chargeable to tax, and thereupon shall deduct
tax u/s.195(1) only on that proportion of the sum chargeable to tax. Similarly,
sections 195(3) and 197 provide for the payee making an application to the
Assessing Officer for issue of a certificate that income-tax may be deducted at
lower rates of tax or not deducted on payment to be received by him, where such
lower rate or non-deduction is justified.

1.3 The issue has arisen before the courts as to whether, in
a case where the payment to the non-resident or a foreign company does not
comprise any income chargeable to tax in India at all (for example, in case of
payment for purchase of goods imported from the non-resident), whether the payer
has necessarily to apply to the tax authorities for a certificate u/s.195(2) or
whether the payment can be made to such non-resident or foreign company without
any deduction of tax at source, and without obtaining any such certificate
u/s.195(2) or u/s.195(3) or u/s.197.

1.4 While the Karnataka High Court has taken the view that it
is mandatory to obtain such a certificate from the tax authorities, the Delhi
High Court has taken a contrary view that in such cases, the payer can make the
payment without the need for such certificate.

2. Samsung Electronics’ case :


2.1 The issue came up before the Karnataka High Court in the
case of CIT v. Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd., 320 ITR 209. Various other appeals
of different resident payers were also decided vide this judgment.

2.2 In this case, the assessee payer was a branch of a Korean
company engaged in the development, manufacture and export of software for use
by its parent company. The software developed by it was for in-house use by the
parent company. During the relevant years, the assessee imported ready-made
software products from US and French companies for its own use. It did not
deduct tax at source from payments made to the US and French companies on the
ground that the payment to the foreign companies was for purchase of products,
and was not in the nature of royalty, and was not chargeable to tax in India.

2.3 The Assessing Officer held that the payment was in the
nature of royalty, that the assessee was bound to deduct tax at source on the
payments, and accordingly treated the assessee as an assessee in default
u/s.201(1), and also levied interest u/s.201(1A). The Commissioner (Appeals)
dismissed the assessee’s appeals against this order.

2.4 The Tribunal held that the payment was not in the nature
of royalty in terms of the relevant provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements. It also held that it was not incumbent on the assessee to deduct any
amount u/s.195.

2.5 Before the Karnataka High Court, it was argued on behalf
of the Department that the payment was in the nature of royalty on which tax was
required to be deducted at source u/s.195. It was argued that the transaction
was a licence and was therefore in the nature of royalty. It was further claimed
that the assessee was bound to deduct tax u/s.195 and that it could not contend
that it was not the income of the recipient. Reliance was placed on the decision
of the Supreme Court in the case of Transmission Corporation of A.P. Ltd. v.
CIT, 239 ITR 587.

2.6 It was argued by the assessee that the nature of payment
was not royalty even u/s.9(1)(vi), on account of the fact that the non-resident
supplier had merely sold a copyrighted article and not the copyright itself,
relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Tata Consultancy
Services v. State of Andhra Pradesh, 271 ITR 401. It was therefore claimed that
the payment was for purchase of articles/goods in connection with the business
carried on by the assessee. It was further claimed that under the Double
Taxation Avoidance Agreements, since the non-resident recipients had no
permanent establishments in India, the entire income of the non-residents
attributable to the payments was not taxable in India. It was therefore claimed
that there was no obligation on the part of the payer to deduct any amount.

2.7 It was also contended by the other assessees that there
was no obligation on their part to deduct any amount from the payments, as they
were fully and bona fide satisfied that the amount was not taxable in the hands
of the non-resident in India. They had therefore not chosen to apply for any
relief or concession in terms of S. 195(2) and (3). It was further argued that
the words used in S. 195 are ‘chargeable to tax’ and hence a person deducting
tax u/s.195 would have to necessarily first see whether the same was chargeable
to tax and then only, if it was so chargeable, he was to deduct tax. It was
contended that if a person was not liable to be charged to tax, then the payer
could not be held to be a person in default u/s.201.

2.8 The Karnataka High Court considered the decision of the
Supreme Court in Transmission Corporation of AP’s case (supra) and of the
Calcutta High Court in P. C. Ray & Co. (India) Private Limited v. ITO, 36 ITR
365, wherein the Calcutta High Court had held that if the term ‘chargeable under
the provisions of this Act’ means actually liable to be assessed to tax, in
other words, if the sum contemplated was taxable income, a difficulty is
undoubtedly created as to complying with the provisions of the Section.’ The
High Court in that case had held that what was contemplated was not merely
amounts, the whole of which were taxable without deduction, but amounts of a
mixed composition, a part of which only might turn out to be taxable income as
well; and the disbursements, which were of the nature of gross revenue receipts,
were yet sums chargeable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act and came
within the ambit of the Section.

2.9 The Karnataka High Court therefore rejected the arguments
of the assessees that the expression ‘any other sum chargeable under the
provisions of this Act’ would not include cases where any sum payable to
non-resident was trading receipts, which may or may not include ‘pure income’.
According to the Karnataka High Court, the language of S. 195(1) was clear and
unambiguous and cast an obligation to deduct appropriate tax at the rates in
force.

2.10 The Karnataka High Court observed that S. 195 was not a charging Section, nor a Section providing for determination of the tax liability of the non-resident receiving the payments from the resident. The amount deducted by the resident was only a provisional tentative amount, which was kept as a buffer for adjusting this amount against the possible tax liability of the non-resident. Deduction of the amount u/s.195 was not the same as determination of the liability of the non-resident, who may be or may not be liable to pay any tax. Determination of tax liability could only be on the basis of the return of income filed by the non-resident. According to the Karnataka High Court, the only scope and manner of reducing the obligation for deduction imposed on a resident payer in terms of S. 195(1) was by the method of invoking the procedure u/s.195(2) of making an application to the Assessing Officer to determine by general or special order the appropriate proportion of such sum so chargeable, and upon such determination alone, being allowed the liberty of deducting the proportionate sum so chargeable to tax to fulfil the obligations u/s.195(1).

2.11 The Karnataka High Court therefore held that in the absence of an application u/s.195(2), the payer was obliged to deduct tax at source u/s. 195(1), even though the payment did not contain any element of income of the non-resident chargeable to tax in India.

    Van Oord’s case :

3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of Van Oord ACZ India (P) Ltd. v. CIT, (unreported — ITA No. 439 of 2008 dated 15th March 2010, available on www.itatonline.org).

3.2 In this case, the assessee was an Indian subsidiary of a Netherlands company, and was engaged in the business of dredging, contracting, reclamation and marine activities. During the relevant year, the assessee reimbursed mobilisation and demo-bilisation cost to its parent company. This cost related essentially to transportation of dredger, survey equipment and other plant and machinery from countries outside India to the site in India and the transportation of such plant and machinery on com-pletion of the contract, including fuel cost incurred on transportation. These services were contacted by the parent company and were provided by vari-ous non-resident entities. The assessee reimbursed such cost to the parent company on the basis of invoices received by the parent company from the non-resident entities.

3.3 The assessee filed an application to the As-sessing Officer for issue of nil tax withholding certificate in respect of reimbursement of various costs to the parent company. The Assessing Officer issued a certificate of deduction of tax at source at 11%, and the assessee deducted tax at source accordingly on Rs.6.98 crore. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer disallowed payments of Rs.8.66 crore made to the parent company u/s.40(a) (i), on the ground that the assessee had defaulted in deducting tax at source u/s.195.

3.4 The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the disal-lowance made by the Assessing Officer. The Tribu-nal confirmed the addition, stating that the asses-see was mandatorily liable to deduct tax at source u/s.195, and that it was not necessary to determine whether such payment was chargeable to tax in In-dia in the hands of the non-resident. The Tribunal further held that the assessee was a dependent agent permanent establishment of the parent foreign company and therefore the reimbursement of expenses to the foreign parent company was to be subjected to tax.

3.5 Before the Delhi High Court, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that the amount reimbursed to the parent company was not chargeable to tax in India in the hands of the parent company, and that the assessee was consequently not liable to deduct tax at source u/s.195. It was argued that the obligation to deduct tax at source u/s.195 was predicated on the condition that tax was payable by the non-resident on the payments received by it, and once it was established that no such tax was payable by the non-resident, the assessee could not be treated to be in breach of its obligations.

3.6 It was pointed out that the reason for fastening the obligation to deduct tax at source of the payment to non-resident only in a situation where such payment was chargeable to tax in India was that it was not the intention of the law to fasten an absolute liability on the remitter to deduct tax at source from the payment to the non-resident, and then subject the non-resident to the rigorous process of filing return and seeking refund and assessment on the basis of such return. Where the remitter was of the opinion that some part of the income may be chargeable to tax in India, the remitter could approach the Assessing Officer to determine the ap-propriate portion of the income that would be sub-ject to tax in India and the rate on which tax was to be deducted at source. Reliance was placed on the observations of the Supreme Court in the case of Transmission Corporation of AP Ltd. (supra) and various other cases for the proposition that the obligation to deduct tax at source is triggered only when the payment to be made to the non-resident is chargeable to tax in India in the hands of the non-resident recipient.

3.7 On behalf of the Department, it was argued that S. 195 only determines the proportion of liability and presupposes the existence of liability. It was pointed out that the assessee itself had applied for determination of extent of liability. The statutory obligation of the assessee with regard to deduct tax at source was fully crystallised, and therefore there was no justification on the part of the assessee not to deduct tax at source, particularly when the order passed u/s.195(2) had attained finality.

3.8 The Delhi High Court noted that the issue before the Supreme Court in the case of Transmission Corporation of AP (supra) was whether tax at source was to be deducted by the payee on the entire amount paid by it to the recipient or whether it was to be deducted only on the component of pure income profits. It was therefore in the context of whether tax deductible was to be on the gross sum of trading receipts paid to non-residents or whether only on the income component. It was in that context that the Supreme Court held that “any other sum chargeable under the provision of this Act” would include the entire amount paid by the assessee to non-residents. The observations of the Supreme Court therefore needed to be read in that context. The Delhi High Court noted that the Su-preme Court was not concerned in that case with a situation where no tax in the hands of the recipient was payable at all. The Delhi High Court noted that certain observations in the judgment clearly depicted the mind of the Supreme Court that liability to deduct tax at source arose only when the sum paid to the non-resident was chargeable to tax. Once that is chargeable to tax, it was not for the assessee to find out how much of the amount of the receipts was chargeable to tax, but it was its obligation to deduct tax at source on the entire sum paid by the assessee to the recipient.

3.9 The Delhi High Court relied on certain other decisions of the High Courts, including that of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Estel Communications (P) Ltd., 217 CTR 102 and the Karnataka High Court in the case of Jindal Thermal Power Company Limited v. Dy. CIT, 182 Taxman 252, where Courts had taken the view that there was no obligation to deduct tax at source since there was no tax liabil-ity of the non-resident in India. The Delhi High Court noted the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Samsung Electronic Co. Ltd. (supra), and observed that the context in that case was different. The Delhi High Court expressed its disagreement with some of the observations made in that judgment of the Karnataka High Court.

3.10 The Delhi High Court therefore held that the obligation to deduct tax at source arises only when the payment was chargeable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act. The Delhi High Court noted that in the case before it, the income-tax authorities had accepted that the foreign company was not liable to pay any tax in India by accepting the foreign company’s tax return u/s.143(1) and refunding the tax deducted at source. Therefore, the assessee could not be regarded as having defaulted in deduction of TDS u/s.195.

    Observations :

4.1 This issue was also again very recently considered by the Special Bench of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal at Chennai, in the case of ITO v. Prasad Production Ltd., (ITA No. 663/Mds/2003, dated 9th April 2010 — unreported, available on www.itatonline.org).

4.2 The Tribunal in this case considered the decision of the Karnataka High Court in Samsung’s case (supra) as well as that of the Supreme Court in the case of Transmission Corporation of AP (supra). The Tribunal noted that both the Department as well as the assessee were relying upon the Supreme Court decision in the case of Transmission Corporation of AP. It therefore focussed on the observations in that judgment. It noted the provisions of the follow-ing paragraph on page 588 :

“The consideration would be — whether payment of the sum to the non-resident is chargeable to tax under the provisions of the Act or not ? That sum may be income or income hidden or otherwise embedded therein. If so, tax is required to be deducted on the said sum, what would be the income is to be computed on the basis of various provisions of the Act including provisions for computation of the business income, if the payment is a trade receipt. However, what is to be deducted is income-tax pay-able thereon at the rates in force. Under the Act, total income for the previous year would become chargeable to tax u/s.4. Ss.(2) of S. 4, inter alia, provides that in respect of income chargeable U/ss.(1), income-tax shall be deducted at source where it is so deductible under any provision of the Act. If the sum that is to be paid to the non-resident is charge-able to tax, tax is required to be deducted.”

4.3 The Tribunal also noted the observations of the Supreme Court in the case of Eli Lilly & Co., 312 ITR 225, as under :

“To answer the contention herein we need to examine briefly the scheme of the 1961 Act. S. 4 is the charging Section. U/s.4(1), total income for the previous year is chargeable to tax. S. 4(2), inter alia, provides that in respect of income chargeable U/ss.(1), income-tax shall be deducted at source whether it is so deductible under any provision of the 1961 Act which, inter alia, brings in the TDS provisions contained in Chapter XVII-B. In fact, if a particular income falls outside S. 4(1), then the TDS provisions cannot come in.”

4.4 From these two decisions of the Supreme Court, the Tribunal concluded that it was abundantly clear that the charging provisions could not be divorced from the TDS provisions, and that S. 195 would be applicable only if the payment made to the non-resident was chargeable to tax.

4.5 The Tribunal also noted the material difference between the provisions of Ss.(2) and Ss.(3) of S. 195. U/ss.(2), the payer made the application for deduction of tax at lower rates. U/ss.(3), the payee could make an application for deduction of tax at lower rate or without deduction of tax. According to the Tribunal, the reason for such difference was that where the payer had a bona fide belief that no part of the payment bore income character, S. 195(1) itself would be inapplicable and hence there would be no question of going into the procedure prescribed in S. 195(2). Ss.(3) deals with a situation where the payer wants to deduct tax from the payment, but the payee believed that he was not chargeable to tax in respect of that payment. Hence the payee was given an opportunity to seek approv-al of the Assessing Officer to receive the payment without deduction of tax.

4.6 The Tribunal interestingly observed that by deciding whether the payment bore any income character or not, the payer was not determining the tax liability of the total income of the payee, but merely considering the chargeability in respect of the payment that he was making to the payee.

4.7 The tribunal also considered the fact that for the purposes of remittances to non-residents, a chartered accountant’s certificate was prescribed as an alternative to the procedure u/s.195(2). This was evident from the CBDT Circular 767, dated 22-5-1998. It noted that the certification covered all types of payment, whether purely capital or revenue in nature, but exempt either under the act or the relevant Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement or payments bearing pure income character. The Tribunal held that the new format of the CA certificate clearly established the legal position of S. 195 that the payer need not undergo the procedure of S. 195 at all if he was of the bona fide belief that no part of the payment was chargeable to tax in India.

4.8 The Tribunal therefore held that if the asses-see had not applied to the Assessing Officer u/s. 195(2) for deduction of tax at a lower or nil rate of tax under a bona fide belief that no part of the payment made to the non-resident was chargeable to tax, then he was not under any statutory obligation to deduct tax at source on any part of the payment.

4.9 When one looks at the provisions of S. 195(1), the language is clear that it applies only to income chargeable to tax, and not to other items at all. As analysed by the Special Bench of the Tribunal, the Karnataka High Court seems to have misapplied the ratio of the decision of the Supreme Court in Transmission Corporation of AP. The better view seems to be that of the Delhi High Court and that of the Special Bench of the Tribunal that if the income is not chargeable to tax in India in the hands of the non-resident recipient, the payer need not obtain a certificate u/s.195(2) for not deducting tax at source.

4.10 In any case, an appeal to the Supreme Court against the decision of the Karnataka High Court has been admitted by the Supreme Court and has been fixed for hearing on 18th August 2010, on which date one hopes that this controversy will ultimately be laid to rest.

Reopening of a completed assessment

1. Issue for consideration :

    1.1 S. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 permits reassessment of income, where the Assessing Officer has reason to believe that any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment for any assessment year so however no reassessment will ensue where there was no failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly the material facts necessary for assessment. No reopening is possible once it is shown that a mind is applied by the AO to the facts of the case unless the reopening is sought to be made in consequence of the possession of information obtained subsequent to an assessment.

    1.2 Very often substantial details are collected and inquiries are made by the AO but assessment orders are passed without reference to such details and inquiries, allowing a deduction or exemption. The factual question that arises in such cases is whether there has been an application of mind by the Assessing Officer during the assessment proceedings to the issue involved, and whether the deduction, exemption or non-taxation was after due deliberation, in which case reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated. The issue gets added dimensions where the assessee is able to show that he has filed details in response to the AO’s inquiry but the AO claims that he had not noticed the same in the myriad of details furnished with him.

    1.3 The issues that have arisen before the courts in such cases are whether, in a case where a regular order of assessment is passed u/s.143(3) without much discussion on a particular issue, there was an application of mind by the Assessing Officer; whether there was disclosure of material facts by the assessee and whether permitting reopening in such cases would amount to giving premium to an authority exercising quasi-judicial function to take benefit of its own wrong. While the full bench of the Delhi High Court has taken the view that no reassessment proceedings are permissible in such cases, the division bench of the Allahabad High Court, recently, has taken a contrary view.

2. Kelvinator’s case :

    2.1 The issue came up before the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT v. Kelvinator of India Ltd., 256 ITR 1.

    2.2 In this case, the assessment of the assessee was completed u/s.143(3). Subsequently, it was noticed by the Assessing Officer that as indicated in the accounts and tax audit report, certain prior period expenditure and certain disallowable expenditure had been wrongly allowed as deductions. He therefore issued a notice for reassessment u/s.147.

    2.3 The assessee challenged the reassessment proceedings in appeal. The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal holding that the assessee had disclosed all the facts, that no new fact or material was available with the Assessing Officer, and that it was a mere change of opinion on the part of the Assessing Officer. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

    2.4 Before the Delhi High Court, on behalf of the department, it was argued that the change of opinion was relevant only for the purposes of clause (b) of S. 147, and that initiation of reassessment proceedings was permissible when it was found that the Assessing Officer had passed an order of assessment without any application of mind. According to the department, such application of mind could be found out from the order of assessment itself inasmuch as, if the order of assessment did not contain any discussion on the particular issue, the same may be held to have been rendered without any application of mind.

    2.5 On behalf of the assessee, it was argued before the Delhi High Court that the expression ‘reason to believe’ contained in S. 147 denoted that the reassessment must be based on a change of fact or subsequent information or new law. According to the assessee, income escaping assessment must be founded upon or in consequence of any information which must come into the possession of the Assessing Officer after completion of the original assessment.

    2.6 The Delhi High Court, after considering the various decisions cited before it, observed that it was not in dispute that the Assessing Officer did not have the jurisdiction to review his own order. His jurisdiction was confined only to rectification of mistakes as contained in S. 154. The power of rectification of mistakes could be exercised only when the mistake was apparent, and a mistake could not be rectified where it was a mere possible view or where the issues were debatable. Thus, where the Assessing Officer had considered the matter in detail and the view taken was a possible view, the order could not be changed by way of exercising the jurisdiction of rectification of mistake.

    2.7 The Delhi High Court further noted that it was a well settled principle of law that what could not be done directly could not be done indirectly. If the Assessing Officer did not have the power of review, he could not be permitted to achieve the object by taking recourse to initiating a proceeding of reassessment.

    2.8 According to the Delhi High Court, when a regular order of assessment is passed in terms of S. 143(3), a presumption can be raised that such an order has been passed on application of mind. In terms of S. 114(e) of the Indian Evidence Act, judicial and official acts are presumed to have been regularly performed. If it be held that an order which has been passed purportedly without application of mind would itself confer jurisdiction upon the Assessing Officer to reopen the proceeding without anything further, this would amount to giving a premium to an authority exercising quasi-judicial function to take benefit of its own wrong.

    2.9 The Delhi High Court therefore held that since the material was before the Assessing Officer at the time of assessment, the reassessment proceedings were invalid.

3. EMA India’s case :

    3.1 The issue again recently came up before the full bench of the Allahabad High Court in the case of EMA India Ltd. v. ACIT, (unreported — copy of order available on www.itatonline.org).

    3.2 In this case also, the assessment proceedings were completed u/s.143(3), and reassessment proceedings were initiated u/s.147 to disallow prior period expenditure and to tax certain interest which were disclosed in the balance sheet, profit and loss account, tax audit report, and other documents submitted before the Assessing Officer in the earlier proceedings.

3.3 The assessee challenged the reassessment proceedings in a writ petition before the High Court. Before the Allahabad High Court, it was submitted on behalf of the assessee that the initiation of proceedings and issue of notice were based on mere change of opinion and were totally without jurisdiction. It was submitted that the action of the Assessing Officer amounted to review of the earlier assessment order, and that even though the Assessing Officer had noticed such items, he did not assess these items nor add the same to the income during the assessment proceedings. Reliance was placed by the assessee on the full bench decision of the Delhi High Court in Kelvinator’s case (supra).

3.4 On behalf of the department, it was submitted that the initiation of reassessment proceedings was permissible when it was found that certain items of income, though chargeable to tax, had escaped the notice of the Assessing Officer, and no discussion of chargeability to tax of such items of income was made in the assessment order.

3.5 According to the Allahabad High Court, where the assessment order had been passed and certain items of income are not at all discussed and it escaped the notice of the assessing Officer as a result of which the reassessment proceedings were initiated in respect of those items of income, in the circumstances it could not be said that it would amount to review. Since the Assessing Officer did not form any view or any opinion with regard to the items of income which escaped its notice in the original assessment order, it would not amount to review of the order or change of opinion. According to the Allahabad High Court, there could be no change of opinion when no opinion was formed by the Assessing Officer.

3.6 The Allahabad High Court was of review that initiation of reassessment proceedings was permissible where it was found that the Assessing Officer had passed an order of assessment without any application of mind and such application of mind could be found out from the order of assessment itself, inasmuch as, in the event the order of assessment did not contain any discussion on a particular issue, the same may be held to have been rendered without any application of mind. According to the Allahabad High Court, in view of Explanation 1 to S. 147, mere production of account books or other evidence from which material evidence could, with due diligence have been discovered by the assessing authority would not necessarily amount to disclosure. This aspect, according to the Allahabad High Court, had not been considered by the Delhi High Court in Kelvinator’s case.

3.7 The Allahabad High Court therefore held that the reassessment proceedings were valid.

Observations:

4.1 Some controversies do not lead to ‘closements’ soon. The issue being discussed here is an example of one such controversy. Even the attempt in the proposed Direct Tax Code for resolving the controversy in favour of smooth reopening will surely raise new controversies. The issue is fiercely con-tested by the tax payers, in spite of amendments, as they perceive the whole exercise of reassessment as unjust weilding of power by those in the power. One finds a lot of merit in this when one notices the ease with which completed cases are sought to be reopened in large numbers.

4.2 The sting is acutely painful in cases where the reopening is made after expiry of four years, in spite of the fact that there is no failure on the part of the assessee to disclose fully and truly the material facts necessary for assessment. Even in such cases the reopening is sought to be justified on the pretext that the AO had not applied his mind to the material disclosed, though it was produced. The action is sought to be explained by resorting to Explanation 1 to S. 147 and in many cases by relying on Explanation 2 to the said section.

4.3 Fortunately for the tax payers the courts have, by and large, frustrated such attempts of the Revenue in cases where disclosure is found to be evident and also in cases where the material has been furnished in response to an inquiry by the AO. The courts have not given great credence to the Revenue’s contention, often made, that the assessment order is silent on the relevant aspect under contest. The courts have advanced the cause of the tax payers even in cases involving reopening within four years on being convinced that material facts necessary for assessment were disclosed. The courts have also taken a unanimous view that the amendments of 1989 have not materially altered the available law on the subject and that a change of opinion can not lead to a valid reopening even post 1989.

4.4 The Courts have been consistent in holding that the law does not permit a review of an order, not even in the name of reassessment. A thing which can not be done directly can certainly not be done indirectly by resorting to the provisions of re-assessment. It is this principle that has been reiterated by the Full Bench of the Delhi High Court by stating that permitting an AO to reopen a completed case in given circumstances amounted to giving a premium to an authority exercising quasi-judicial function to take benefit of its own wrong.

4.5 Whether this position stated in paragraph 4.4 has been changed by insertion of Explanation 1 and 2. The Courts do not think so. Even after the said insertion the courts are more or less consistent, in holding that a change of opinion can not lead to reopening of a completed assessment and further that in cases where the assessee has not failed in disclosing truly and fully the material facts necessary for assessment, reopening is not possible irrespective of the time of reopening.

4.6 The Punjab & Haryana High Court, in the case of Hari Iron Trading Co. v. CIT, 263 ITR 437, observed that the taxpayer had no control over the actions of an AO and that he was not in a position to direct the framing of an order in a manner that would record fully and truly all that had actually transpired during the course of assessment and in such circumstances it was appropriate to assume that the order had been passed with due diligence unless it was otherwise proved by the AO. It is normally seen that an assessment order rarely records the findings of the inquiry by AO where he is satisfied with the assessee’s explanation furnished in response to his inquiry.

4.7 The Bombay High Court, consistently follow-ing the full bench decision of the Delhi High Court, has held that once an assessment order is passed u/s.143(3) and the assessee has not been found to have failed in disclosing material facts, no reopening was sustainable. Asian Paints Ltd. v. DCIT & Ors., 308 ITR 195, Idea Cellular Ltd. v. DCIT, 301 ITR 407 and GT v. Eicher Ltd., 294 ITR 310. The same is the ratio of the decisions of several High Courts and Tribunals including the latest one by the Tribunal in the case of Vardhman Industries, ITA No. 501/ Jd/2008 dated 14-9-2009 wherein the jodhpur Bench held that even within four years it was not possible to reopen an assessment where the material facts were found to have been disclosed by the assessee. It appears that in all cases of assessments completed after scrutiny, a reopening can follow only on the basis of an information received subsequent to assessment.

4.8 Even the Allahabad High Court in the case of Foramer v. CIT & Ors., 247 ITR 436 had held that no reopening was possible on a mere change of opinion in cases where there was no failure to disclose material facts by an assessee, a decision which was later on approved by the Supreme Court. Had this decision been noted by the court in EVA’s case, the outcome could have been different. It is interesting to note that the full bench of the Delhi High Court in coming to the conclusion in assessee’s favour had concurred with the abovementioned decision of the Allahabad High Court in Foramer’s case.

4.9 The twin decisions of the Gujarat High Court in the cases of Praful Chunilal Patel, 236 ITR 732 and Garden Silk Mills, 237 ITR 668, heavily relied upon by the Allahabad High Court in EVA’s case, were not even followed by the same Gujarat high court and importantly the full bench in Kelvinator’s case had specifically dissented from these decisions of the Gujarat High Court. Like Delhi, the Bombay High Court has refused to follow the said decisions of the Gujarat High Court.

4.10 CBDT Circular No. 549 dated 31-10-1989, while explaining the implication of the scheme of reassessment, specifically clarified vide para 7.2, that the new scheme does not bring about a material change in the existing law providing that no reopening would sustain in cases of change of opinion not involving any failure on the part of the assessee to disclose material facts. It is this circular which has helped information of a definitive judicial consen-sus in the era after amendment of 1989. It is need-less to note that the circulars of the Board are binding on its officers in administering the provisions of the Income-tax Act.

4.11 S. 114 of the Indian  Evidence  Act vide clause provides that due care has been taken by a public officer in performing his duty. Therefore on completion of assessment, it can be presumed that the AO has examined the material produced before him. Frankly, Explanation 1 is an unintended but serious reflection on the state of affairs in the Revenue department, indicating that orders as a rule are passed without due diligence, unless otherwise proved.

4.12 Article 14 has been favourably relied upon by the courts to support the contention that permitting an AO to review his order results in violation of the Constitution which guarantees protection against such administrative actions of the executive.

4.13 A point which emerges from the controversy is that the issue is debatable, and the language adopted by the law is capable of two interpretations. If that is so, a view that is favourable to the assessee should be accepted.

4.14 The decision of the Supreme Court, in the case of Indian Newspaper, relied upon by the Allahabad high court in EVA’s case, clearly supported the view that the reopening of an assessment was not possible for reviewing an order.

4.15 The decision in Kelvinator’s case was delivered by the full bench of the high court. The law of precedent required that the division bench of the high court, of two judges, in EVA’s case should have followed the decision of a larger bench instead of following decisions which were specifically dissented by the full bench. The decision in the case of Shyam Bansal, 296 ITR 95 (All.), again relied upon in EVA’s case did not consider the decision of the full bench and in any case the Revenue in that case was in possession of some information obtained post assessment. The binding force of the decision of the full bench in Kelvinator’s case was specifically considered in the case of KLM Royal Dutch Airlines 292 ITR 49 (Delhi) wherein the Court, in the context of the very same issue, had considered the validity of a decision delivered by the division bench in the case of Consolidated Photo and Finvest Ltd. 281 ITR 394 (Del.) wherein the division bench had failed to follow the decision of the full bench in Kelvinator’s case. The Court in KLM Royal Dutch Airlines’ case held that the decision of the full bench in Kelvinator’s case had to be followed by the division bench of the Court. This position in law of precedent has been reiterated by the Bombay High Court in the case of Eicher Ltd., 294 ITR 310.

PF Payments u/s.43B —Retrospectivity of Amendment

1. Issue for Consideration :

    1.1 S.43B of the Income-tax Act provides that certain expenditures, which would otherwise have been allowable as deductions in computing the total income under the Income-tax Act, shall be allowed as deduction only in the year of actual payment of such items by the assessee notwithstanding the method of accounting followed by the assessee. These expenditures are listed in clauses (a) to (f) of the said Section Clause (b) of the said Section refers to the sums payable by an employer by way of contribution to any Provident Fund, Superannuation Fund, Gratuity Fund, or any other fund for the welfare of employees (‘welfare dues’). Accordingly, the deduction of welfare dues is allowed only where payment of such expenditure is actually made.

    1.2 Till assessment year 2003-04, the second proviso to S.43B provided that no deduction of welfare dues covered by the said clause (b) would be allowed unless such sum had actually been paid on or before the due date as defined in the Explanation to S.36(1)(va), i.e., the due date for payment of such welfare dues under the relevant applicable law. From assessment year 2004-05, the second proviso to S.43B has been omitted, and welfare dues covered by clause (b) were brought into the purview of the first proviso, which provides that the disallowance would not operate if the sums are paid on or before the due date of filing of the Income-tax return of the year in which the liability to pay such sum was incurred, and proof of such payment was furnished along with the return.

    1.3 A dispute has arisen as to whether this amendment was applicable to all pending matters, and therefore applied retrospectively, or whether it applied prospectively from assessment year 2004-05 onwards. While the Bombay High Court has held that the amendment would apply prospectively, the Delhi and Madras High Courts have taken the view that the amendment applied retrospectively.

2. Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana’s case :

    2.1 The issue came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana Ltd. 298 ITR 149.

    2.2 In this case, pertaining to assessment years 1991-92 and 1994-95, the assessee had made payments of provident fund dues before the due date of filing of its return of income, but beyond the due date stipulated under the Provident Fund Act. The amounts had been disallowed by the Assessing Officer, but the assessee’s appeal against such disallowance had been allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals). The Tribunal had also upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

    2.3 Before the Bombay High Court, it was argued on behalf of the Revenue that the deletion of the second proviso to S.43B with effect from 1st April 2004 only meant that the relaxation in S.43B, insofar as employer’s contribution was concerned, would be governed by the first proviso to S.43B from 1st April 2004 only.

    2.4 On behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the amendment was curative and was resorted to for the purpose of removing the hardship caused by the second proviso. A similar amendment had been made in relation to clause (a) relating to tax, duty, cess and fees earlier, and in relation to such amendment, the Supreme Court, in the case of Allied Motors (P) Ltd. vs. CIT 224 ITR 677, had held the amendment to be curative and retrospective. It was argued that the proviso which was inserted to remedy the unintended consequences and to make the provision workable, the proviso which supplied an obvious omission in the Section and was required to be read into the Section to give the Section a reasonable interpretation, was required to be treated as retrospective in operation, so that a reasonable interpretation could be given to the Section as a whole.

    2.5 The Bombay High Court went through the history of S.43B and the amendments carried out to it from time to time. It analysed the decision of the Supreme Court in Allied Motors case. It noted that when the two provisos to S.43 B were added, payments under clause (b) and payments under other clauses of S.43B were treated as two different classes. The Finance Act, 1989 substituted the second proviso, noting certain hardships that were being occasioned by the operation of that proviso. The Bombay High Court noted that, in its wisdom, the Parliament chose not to delete the second proviso but substituted it, and therefore intended that S.43B(b) should be treated as a class by itself distinct from the other sub-Sections. The second proviso was omitted based on the recommendations of the Kelkar Committee Report, which responded to representation by trade and industry that the delayed payment of statutory liability related to labour should be accorded the same treatment as the delayed payment of taxes and interest.

    2.6 The Bombay High Court noted the decision of the Madras High Court in CIT vs. Synergy Financial Exchange Ltd., 288 ITR 366, where the Madras High Court held that the amendment was not retrospective, on the basis that fiscal legislation imposing liability is generally governed by normal presumption that it is not retrospective and that in interpreting the statute, the Courts, in the first instance, have to consider the plain written language of the statute. If on so reading, it is not possible to give effect to the intent of the Parliament, then the Courts resort to purposeful interpretation to give effect to that intent. The Bombay High Court also (inadvertently) noted the decision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson (Assam) Ltd. vs. CIT, 284 ITR 619 as rejecting the contention that the amendment should be read as retrospective, though the Assam High Court in that case upheld the contention of the assessee for allowing deduction for the payments on or before the due date of filing of the return of income.

2.7 The Bombay High Court noted that the amendment was made applicable from the assessment year 2004-05. It observed that in interpreting statutory provisions, the Court also considered the mischief rule, namely, what was the state of law before the act or the amendment, and what was the mischief that the Act or the amendment sought to avoid. From the normal aids to construction, the Court observed that the only mischief that the amendment if at all sought to obviate was the need to eliminate the procedural complexities, reduce paperwork, simplify tax administration and to enhance efficiency and also integrate such tax proposals as the system could at present absorb, and acceptance of the representations made by trade and industry that they should not be denied the benefit of deductions on account of delayed payment of taxes and interest.

2.8 According to the Bombay High Court, the law as it stood earlier was that in relation to the employer’s contribution to provident fund, if it was not paid within the due date, was not eligible for deduction. According to the High Court, this position had been remedied, and the remedial measure had been made applicable from assessment year 2004-05. The Bombay High Court therefore took the view that it could not be said that the amendment was retrospective.

2.9 Subsequent to this decision of the Bombay High Court, the decision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson’s case went up to the Supreme Court in a special leave petition as CIT vs. Vinay Cement Ltd. 213 CTR 268. In a short five-line order, the Supreme Court noted that they were concerned with the law as it stood prior to the amendment of Section 43 B, that in the circumstances the assessee was entitled to claim the benefit under Section 43 B for that period, particularly in view of the fact that he had contributed to Provident Fund before filing of the return, and dismissed the special leave petition.

2.10 Subsequent to this decision of the Supreme Court, the matter again came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pamwi Tissues Ltd. 215 CTR 150, relating to assessment year 1990-91.In this case, when the attention of the Bombay High Court was drawn to the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case, it observed that the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court cannot be said to be the law decided. According to the Bombay High Court, for a judgment to be a precedent, it must contain the three basic postulates – a finding of material facts, direct and inferential, statements of the principles of law applicable to the legal problems disclosed by the facts, and judgment based on the individual effect of the above. The Bombay High Court therefore followed its earlier decision in the case of Godaveri (Mannar) Sahakari Sakhar Karkhana, holding that Provident Fund payment made after the due date under the PF Act but before the due date of filing of the return of income, were not allowable.

3. Nexus Computer’s    case:

3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Madras High Court in the case of CIT vs. Nexus Computer (P) Ltd., 177 Taxman 202.

3.2 In this case pertaining to assessment year 2000-01, the attention of the Madras High Court was drawn by the Revenue to its earlier decision in the case of Synergy Financial Exchange (Supra), wherein it had held that the amendment was not retrospective, and by the assessee, to the decision of the Assam High Court in George Williamson’s case and the dismissal of the special leave petition by the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case.

3.3 The Madras High  Court in that  case (Nexus Computers)noted that the order of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case was a speaking order, which gave reasons for rejecting the special leave petition, and that the reasoning given in the dismissal of the special leave petition in that case would be binding on it as the law declared by the Apex Court under article 141 of the Constitution. Therefore, the Madras High Court held that the Provident Fund payments would be allowable under Section 43 B.

3.4 The issue also came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dharmendra Sharma, 297 ITR 320, in relation to assessment year 2001-02, and in CIT vs. P.M. Electronics Ltd., 177 Taxman 1. The Delhi High Court took note of the decisions of the Madras High Court in Synergy Financial Exchange, the Bombay High Court in Pamwi Tissues, the Supreme Court in dismissing the special leave petition in Vinay Cement’s case, and the Madras High Court in Nexus Computer’s case. The Delhi High Court also observed that judicial discipline required it to follow the view of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case, and hold the amendment to be retrospective. The Delhi High Court therefore disagreed with the approach adopted by the Bombay High Court in Pamwi Tissues case.

4. Observations:

4.1 The issue of whether the amendment is retrospective in operation or not can be for the time being concluded on examination of the true effect of the Supreme Court order in Vinay Cement’s case, delivered while dismissing the special leave petition. As observed by the Bombay High Court, the question is whether it was a dismissal on merits, laying down a binding precedent. If the decision of the Supreme Court is held to have been delivered on merits, it would be the law of the land and be binding on the Courts; if not, the Courts would be empowered to examine the issue independently.

4.2 As observed by the Supreme Court in the case of Kunhayammed vs. State of Kerala, 119 STC 505 :

“If the order refusing leave to appeal is a speaking order, i.e., gives reasons for refusing the grant of leave, then the order has two implications. Firstly, the statement of law contained in the order is a declaration of law by the Supreme Court within the meaning of article 141 of the Constitution. Secondly, other than a declaration of law, whatever is stated in the order are the findings recorded by the Supreme Court which would bind the parties thereto and also the Court, Tribunal or authority in any proceeding subsequent thereto by way of judicial discipline, the Supreme Court being the Apex Court of the country. But, this does not amount to saying that the order of the Court, Tribunal or authority below has stood merged in the order of the Supreme Court rejecting special leave petition or that the order of the Supreme Court is the only order binding as res judicata in subsequent proceedings between the parties.”

4.3 Reading the order of the Supreme Court in Vinay Cement’s case certainly gives the impression that though the order is short, the Supreme Court has applied its mind to the issue at stake while dismissing the petition, and dismissed it on merits, and not merely on technical grounds or as not maintainable. The order therefore seems to set a binding precedent, which all High Courts ought to have followed.

4.4 Further, it is no doubt true that the operation of the proviso gave rise to absurd situations where large amounts were disallowed on account of trivial delays of a few days, even when there was reasonable cause for making delayed payments of labour welfare dues. It does seem rather harsh to take the view that such disallowance was always intended by the Legislature.

4.5 The better view of the matter is therefore the view of the Delhi and Madras High Courts that the omission of the second proviso to S.43Bis retrospective in operation, and applied to all pending matters as on the date of the amendment.

Capital Gains Account Scheme — Due Date for Deposit

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 An assessee is entitled to exemption for long-term
capital gains arising on transfer of any asset u/s.54F, if he purchases or
constructs a residential house within the stipulated period (one year before or
two years after the date of transfer for purchase, and three years after the
date of transfer for construction). The exemption available is of such amount of
capital gain in the ratio of the cost of the new house to the net sale
consideration on transfer of the assets.

1.2 Ss.(4) of S. 54F provides that the amount of net
consideration, which is not appropriated by the assessee towards the purchase of
the new asset within one year before the date of transfer of the original asset,
or which is not utilised by him for the purchase or construction of the new
asset before the date of furnishing the return of income u/s.139, shall be
deposited by him before furnishing such return into an account with a bank under
the Capital Gains Account Scheme, and utilised in accordance with such scheme.
If this is done, the amount actually utilised by the assessee for the purchase
or construction of the new asset together with the amount so deposited is deemed
to be the cost of the new asset for computing the exemption u/s.54F. In other
words, pending actual utilisation for purchase or construction of the new house,
the amount has to be deposited in the Capital Gains Account Scheme. The amount
deposited under the scheme can be utilised only for the purpose of making
payment for purchase or construction of the new house.

1.3 At times, it may so happen that the assessee fails to
deposit the amount under the Capital Gains Account Scheme before the due date
for filing the return of income u/s.139(1), but actually purchases or constructs
a new residential house before the due date for filing belated return of income
u/s.139(4), i.e., within the stipulated time period of two/three years.
The question that arises in such a case is whether the benefit of the exemption
u/s.54F can yet be availed of by the assessee in spite of such failure.

1.4 While the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal has held that the
assessee is not entitled to the exemption in such a case, the Bangalore Bench of
the Tribunal has held that the assessee can still avail of the benefit of the
exemption if such utilisation is before the due date for filing belated return
of income u/s.139(4).

2. Taranbir Singh Sawhney’s case :


2.1 The issue first came up before the Delhi Bench of the
Tribunal in the case of Taranbir Singh Sawhney v. Dy. CIT, 5 SOT 417.

2.2 In this case, the assessee sold certain shares on 25th
June 1996, and deposited the sale proceeds in his bank account on 3rd August
1996. He purchased a residential house on 1st December 1997, without depositing
any amount under the Capital Gains Account Scheme. Thereafter, the assessee
filed his return of income on 13th November 1998, claiming exemption u/s.54F of
the capital gains on sale of shares on account of property purchased on 1st
December 1997.

2.3 The Assessing Officer denied the claim for exemption
u/s.54F, on the ground that the conditions specified in that Section were not
fulfilled by the assessee, since the assessee did not deposit such consideration
in an account under the Capital Gains Account Scheme pending purchase of a
residential house. According to the Assessing Officer, the date of acquisition
of the new residential property was 1st December 1997, which was after the due
date applicable to the assessee of furnishing his return of income u/s.139(1),
i.e., 30th June 1997. According to the Assessing Officer, the net
consideration was neither appropriated towards the purchase of residential
property before the due date, nor was it deposited in the account under the
Capital Gains Account Scheme before that date, resulting in non-fulfilment of
the conditions prescribed u/s.54F. The AO therefore denied the exemption
u/s.54F.

2.4 Before the Commissioner (Appeals), the assessee submitted
that he had opened an independent bank account for depositing the sale proceeds
for onward investment in a residential property, that the entire sale proceeds
so deposited in his bank ac-count were ultimately used for acquiring residential
property, that this account was only used for the purchase of property, and
therefore, in sum and in substance, he had complied with the provisions of S.
54F. the assessee claimed that not maintaining a bank account under the Capital
Gains Account Scheme was a technical breach, the conditions specified in S. 54 F
having been substantially complied with. The Commissioner (Appeals) rejected the
assessee’s contentions and dismissed the appeal.

2.5 Before the Tribunal, it was argued that the denial of
exemption was done on a mere technical lapse. It was claimed that the sale
proceeds of shares were utilised only for the purpose of investment in the new
house property and not for any other purpose. Though the sale proceeds were not
deposited in a bank account under the Capital Gains Account Scheme 1988, they
were kept in a separate bank account and utilised only for the purpose of
investment in the house property. Accordingly, the assessee had substantially
complied with the conditions specified in S. 54F. It was submitted that the
exemption provisions should be construed liberally, as held by the Supreme Court
in the case of Bajaj Tempo Ltd. v. CIT, 196 ITR 188, and that the
provisions of S. 54F should be construed in the manner to further its objectives
and not to restrain it.

2.6 The Tribunal noted the fact that the appropriation of net
consideration in the house property was not made before the due date of filing
of the return as specified u/s.139(1), and that therefore the net consideration
ought to have been deposited in a bank account under the Capital Gains Account
Scheme, 1988. Since this had not been done, according to the Tribunal, it
disentitled the assessee from exemption. According to the Tribunal, the plea of
the assessee that it was a mere technical breach was not a relevant criterion to
decide the eligibility of the assessee for exemption. The Tribunal also held
that the plea of the assessee that the provisions be construed liberally so as
to further its objectives was not tenable having regard to the clear provisions
of law. The Tribunal therefore rejected the assessee’s claim for exemption
u/s.54F.

3. Nipun Mehrotra’s case :


3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Bangalore
Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Nipun Mehrotra v. ACIT, 110 ITD 520.

3.2 In this case, the assessee sold shares for a total net sale consideration of Rs.11,10,833, out of which Rs.9,00,000 was paid as part consideration for acquisition of a new flat between February 2000 and June 2000. The assessee had earlier paid an amount of Rs.22lakhs to the builder for purchase of the flat between February 1999 and October 1999.A further sum of Rs.4 lakhs was paid on 4th September 2000 and Rs.3,98,000 was paid after September 2000 till March 2001. The assessee accordingly claimed exemption u/ s.54F of the entire capital gains.

3.3 The Assessing Officer considered only the payments made after the sale of shares, and since the assessee had made payments of only Rs.9 lakhs before the due date of filing of the return of income, denied exemption u/ s.54F in respect of net sale consideration of Rs.2,10,833, on the ground that the assessee should have invested this amount in the Capital Gains Account Scheme before the due date of filing the return of income for assessment year 2000-01, i.e., before 31st July 2000.

3.4 The Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the order of the Assessing Officer, holding that the language of the statute was clear and unambiguous and that, in the name of liberal interpretation, the provisions could not be circumvented.

3.5 Before the Tribunal, the Department argued that the assessee had not placed any evidence on record to suggest that the sale consideration received from the sale of shares were utilised for the purchase of the new asset, as a sum of Rs.22 lakhs was paid before the shares were sold. According to the Department, the investment of Rs.22 lakhs could not be considered for the purpose of allowing exemption u/ s.54F.

3.6 The tribunal considered the provisions of S. 54F(4). It noted that the assessee had to utilise the amount for the purchase or construction of the new asset before the date of furnishing the return of income u/s.139. Since there was no mention of any sub-section of S. 139, according to the Tribunal, one could not interpret that S. 139 mentioned therein should be read as S. 139(1). Following the decision of the Gauhati High Court in the case of CIT v. Rajesh Kumar [alan, 286 ITR 274 in the context of S. 54(2), the Tribunal was of the view that S. 139 mentioned in S. 54F included not only S. 139(1),but all sub-sections of S. 139.

3.7 According to the Tribunal, the intention behind the insertion of Ss.(4) in S. 54F was to dispense with the rectification of assessments in case the taxpayer failed to acquire the corresponding new asset. Therefore, if the new asset was acquired before the date of filing of the return u/s.139, then the assessee could file such return and there would be no need of rectification. The Tribunal noted that the decision of the Gauhati High Court was not available to the Delhi Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Taranbir Singh Sawhney (supra).

3.8 The Tribunal therefore held that the assessee was entitled to the exemption of the entire amount of Rs.11,10,833 u/s.54F.

4. Observations:

4.1 It is true that the Bangalore Bench has not noted the fact that the subsequent part of S. 54F(4) expressly refers to S. 139(4) – “Such deposit being made in any case not later than the due date applicable in the case of the assesee for furnishing the return of income under Ss.(l) of S. 139 in an account….. “

4.2 However, it is essential to understand the background behind the introduction of the requirement of depositing the amount in the Capital Gains Account Scheme. Prior to introduction of this requirement, it was noticed that assessees would claim the exemption u/ s.54F, by stating their intention to invest in a residential house within the prescribed time period. There was no mechanism for the Assessing Officer to verify whether such investment was made within the prescribed time, and it was felt that many assessees obtained the exemption without any actual investment in a residential house. Hence, this requirement was introduced to ensure that the exemption was not obtained under a false statement that the investment would be made within the prescribed period.

4.3 From that perspective, so long as the investment is made before the date of filing of the income tax return, whether u/s.139(1) or u/s.139(4), the purpose of introduction of the Capital Gains Account Scheme is achieved, namely, ensuring that the investment has actually been made before the return is filed.

4.4 As held by the Gauhati  High Court in the case of Rajesh Kumar [alan (supra), in construing a beneficial enactment, the view that advances the object of the enactment and serves the purpose must be preferred to the one which obstructs the object and paralyses the purpose of the beneficial enactment. Therefore, even if the investment in the house property has been made before the date of filing of the belated return, the purpose of the legislature is achieved, and it is not appropriate to deny the exemption on the ground that there has been a delay in investment, and accordingly a failure to invest in a bank account under the Capital Gains Account Scheme.

4.5 The requirement to invest in a bank account under the Capital Gains Account Scheme is therefore really a procedural requirement to ensure that investment is made in a residential house as claimed in the return of income, where such investment has already not been made. To deny the exemption when there has been substantial compliance by actual investment in a house, on the ground that investment has not been made in the Capital Gains Account Scheme within the prescribed time limit, appears to be unjustified. The time limit therefore needs to be read down as including the time limit for filing of a belated return of income, as held by the Gauhati High Court.

4.6 Therefore,  the view  taken  by the Bangalore Bench of the Tribunal  appears  to be a better view of the matter, as compared  to the view taken by the Delhi Bench.

Restriction on Deduction due to section 80-IA(9)

Controversies

Issue for consideration :

Chapter VIA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 deals with various
deductions. Part A of this Chapter details the scheme of deductions, while part
C contains the provisions for allowing certain deductions in respect to profits
and gains from a business. Section 80A, falling in part A, provides that
deductions are to be made from the gross total income, and that the aggregate
amount of the deductions shall not exceed the gross total income.

Section 80AB, also falling in part A of Chapter VIA, provides
that where any deduction is required to be made or allowed under any section
falling in part C of that Chapter, in respect of any income of the nature
specified in any of the relevant sections which is included in the gross total
income, the amount of income of that nature as computed in accordance with the
provisions of the Income-tax Act shall be deemed to be the amount of income of
that nature derived or received by the assessee and included in his gross total
income.

Section 80IA(9), which falls in part C of Chapter VIA,
provides as under :

“Where any amount of profits and gains of an undertaking or
an enterprise is claimed and allowed under this section for any assessment
year, deduction to the extent of such profits and gains shall not be allowed
under any other provision of this Chapter under the heading
‘C — Deductions in Respect of Certain Incomes’, and shall in no case exceed
the profits and gains of such eligible business of undertaking or enterprise,
as the case may be.”

The question that repetitively arises for the consideration
of the courts is about the quantum of deduction in cases where an assessee is
eligible to claim deduction under more than one section of part C of Chapter VIA
based on different criteria, for instance, u/s.80HHC for export profits and
section 80IA for new industrial undertaking, and the manner of computation of
deductions under both the sections. While the Delhi and Kerala High Courts have
held that for the purpose of computing deduction u/s.80HHC, the deduction
already allowed u/s.80IA has to be reduced from the eligible business profits,
the Bombay and Madras High Courts have taken a contrary view that the amount of
such deduction u/s.80IA is not to be reduced in computing the export profits for
the purpose of deduction u/s.80HHC, so however the aggregate of the deductions
under both the provisions is restricted to the business profits derived from the
eligible business.

To illustrate, if the profits of an eligible business are 100
and the deduction u/s.80IA is 20, the issue is whether, for the purpose of
computation of the deduction u/s.80HHC, the profits of the business are to be
considered as 80 (as held by the Delhi High Court) or as 100 (as considered by
the Bombay High Court). There is no dispute that the total deduction cannot
exceed 100. The issue, therefore, really is whether the profits eligible for
computation of the deduction u/s.80HHC is impacted by the provision of section
80IA(9), or whether the said provision restricts the quantum of deduction
u/s.80HHC after it is computed.

Though the decisions covered in this column pertain to
deductions u/s.80IA and u/s.80HHC, and deduction u/s.80HHC is no longer
available, the principle laid down by these decisions would still be applicable
in the context of section 80IA and other deductions under part C of Chapter VIA.

Great Eastern Exports case :

The issue arose recently before the Delhi High Court in the
case of Great Eastern Exports v. CIT, 237 CTR (Del.) 264, and four other
cases disposed of through a common order.

In all these cases, the assessees had claimed deductions
under both section 80HHC and section 80IA. The Assessing Officer reduced the
amount of business profits by the deduction allowed u/s.80IA for computing the
deduction u/s.80HHC, negating the stand of the assessees that for computing
deduction u/s.80HHC, the eligible profits were to be taken, irrespective of the
deduction allowed u/s.80IA i.e., without reducing such profits by the
amount of deduction claimed u/s.80IA.

The Delhi High Court examined the provisions and the history
of Chapter VIA, and noted that prior to the amendment made by insertion of
section 80IA(9) in 1999, it had been held by the courts that each relief under
Chapter VIA was a separate one and had to be independently determined, and would
not be abridged or diluted by any of the other reliefs.

The argument on behalf of the assessees was that this
amendment had not made any change as to the manner of computation and deduction
of various provisions under part C of Chapter VIA, but only restricted the total
deduction under all those sections to the profits and gains. It was argued that
section 80AB, the controlling and governing section for all deductions under
part C of Chapter VIA, was a non obstante clause and would therefore
prevail over section 80IA(9); it referred to ‘gross total income’, and not ‘net
income’. It was also argued that a harmonious construction should be given
rather than a literal interpretation, considering the object of section 80IA(9)
of preventing deduction of more than 100% of profits and gains of the
undertaking by claiming multiple deductions under different sections.

The Delhi High Court, analysing the provisions of section
80IA(9), observed that by reading the plain language, once an assessee was
allowed deduction u/s.80IA to the extent of such profits and gains, he was not
to be allowed further deductions under part C of Chapter VIA in respect of such
profits and gains, and that in no case the deduction would exceed the profits
and gains of such eligible business. According to the Delhi High Court, the
expressions used ‘deduction to the extent of such profits’ and the word ‘and’ in
this section were very crucial. According to the Court, while the first
expression signified that if an assessee was claiming benefit of deduction of a
particular amount of profits and gains u/s.80IA, to that extent profits and
gains were to be reduced while calculating the deductions under part C of
Chapter VIA. The use of the word ‘and’, signified that the said provision was
independent — namely, the total deduction should not exceed the profits and
gains in a particular year.

The Delhi High Court observed that even a layman who had some proficiency in English would understand the meaning of that provision in the manner that they had explained, and that the provision aimed at achieving two independent objectives. According to the Delhi High Court, if the language of the statute was plain and capable of one and only one meaning, that obvious meaning had to be given to the provision. The Delhi High Court rejected the argument that section 80AB would be rendered otiose by such interpretation, by holding that there was no conflict within the two provisions, as section 80AB dealt with computation of deductions on gross total income, whose purpose was achieved, even otherwise, on reading these provisions and interpreting them in the manner they had done. The Delhi High Court refused to consider the clarification given by CBDT Circular number 772, on the ground that the notice and objects of accompanying reasons were only an aid to construction, which was needed only when literal reading of the provisions led to an ambiguous result or absurdity.

The Delhi High Court therefore held that for the purpose of computing deduction u/s.80HHC, the deduction already allowed u/s.80IA had to be reduced from the profits of the business.

Associated Capsules’ case:

The issue again recently came up before the Bombay High Court in the case of Associated Capsules (P) Ltd. v. Dy. CIT & Anr., 237 CTR (Bom.) 408.

In this case, the assessee had claimed deduction u/s.80IA at 30% of the profits and gains from the eligible business undertakings and deductions u/s.80HHC at 50% of the profits from the export of goods. The Assessing Officer computed the deduction u/s.80HHC on the business profits computed after deducting 30% of such profits which was allowed u/s.80IA.

The Commissioner (Appeals) held that section 80IA(9) did not authorise the Assessing Officer to reduce the amount of profits of business allowed as deduction u/s.80IA from the total profits of business while computing deduction u/s.80HHC, that both deductions have to be computed independently, and thereafter the deduction computed u/s.80IA has to be allowed in full and the deduction computed u/s.80HHC was to be restricted to the balance profits of the business duly reduced by the deduction allowed u/s.80IA, so that the aggregate of the deductions did not exceed the profits of the business of the undertaking.

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal reversed the order of the Commissioner(Appeals), following the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Asst. CIT v. Hindustan Mint & Agro Products (P) Ltd., 119 ITD 107 (Del). The Tribunal held that section 80IA(9) had the effect of reducing the eligible profits available for deduction u/s.80HHC.

Before the Bombay High Court, on behalf of the assessee, it was argued that the restriction imposed by section 80IA(9) was not applicable at the state of computation of deduction u/s.80HHC(3), but was applicable at the stage of allowing deduction u/s.80HHC(1). It was argued that the plain reading of section 80IA(9) did not suggest that the deduction allowable u/s.80HHC had to be computed by reducing the amount of profits allowed u/s.80IA. It was argued that wherever the Legislature intended that the deduction allowed under one section shall affect the computation of deduction allowable under another section, the Legislature had specifically stated so by using the term ‘such part of profits shall not qualify’, which term was not used in section 80IA(9). It was further argued that the expression ‘profits of the business’ for the purpose of deduction u/s.80HHC had been defined in that section, and that section 80IA(9) did not use a non obstante provision to override that definition.

It was further argued on behalf of the assessee that the basis for deduction u/s.80IA and u/s.80HHC were totally different, and that therefore the restriction imposed u/s.80IA(9) had no relation to the computation of deduction u/s.80HHC. It was further urged that the two restrictions contained in section 80IA(9) have to be read together and on such a reading, it was clear that the restrictions were with reference to allowability and not computability of deductions under other provisions of part C of Chapter VIA. Reliance was placed on the explanatory memorandum to the Finance Bill, 1998 explaining the reasons for inserting section 80IA(9), and to the CBDT Circular number 772, dated 23rd December 1998 for this proposition. Lastly, it was argued that deduction u/s.80IA was on one part of the profits (profits of an industrial undertaking), while deduction u/s.80HHC was on a different part of the profits (profits derived from exports), and that both deductions were not allowed on the same profit.

On behalf of the Revenue, it was argued that a plain reading of section 80IA(9) showed that the deduction to the extent of profits claimed and allowed u/s.80IA could not be taken into account while computing deduction u/s.80HHC. It was claimed that in order to check the misuse of double deduction, it was necessary to exclude the deduction allowed u/s.80IA from profits available for deduction u/s.80HHC. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Great Eastern Exports (supra) and on the decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of Olam Exports (India) Ltd. v. CIT, 229 CTR (Ker.) 206, where a similar view had been taken by the courts. Lastly, it was argued that the restrictions u/s.80IA(9) affected the whole of section 80HHC, and not just the allowability.

The Bombay High Court analysed the background and object behind insertion of section 80IA(9), as explained in the explanatory memorandum to the Finance Bill, 1998, 231 ITR (St) 252. The Bombay High Court also examined the language of section 80IA(9) which provided that the deduction to the extent of profits allowed u/s.80IA shall not be allowed under any other provisions, which, according to the Bombay High Court, did not even remotely refer to the method of computing deduction under other provisions, but merely sought to curtail allowance of deduction and not computability of deduction under any other provision of part C of Chapter VIA. According to the Bombay High Court, the words ‘shall not be allowed’, could not be interpreted as ‘shall not qualify’.

The Bombay High Court considered the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Great Eastern Exports (supra), and noted that the Delhi High Court had failed to consider one of the arguments of the counsel for the Revenue in that case. The counsel had argued that in the matter of grant of deduction, the first stage was computation of deduction and the second stage was the allowance of deduction, and that computation of deduction had to be made as provided in the respective sections and it was only at the stage of allowing deduction u/s.80IA(1) and also under other provisions of part C of Chapter VIA, that the provisions of section 80IA(9) came into operation. The Bombay High Court noted that the Delhi High Court had not rejected this argument and therefore could not have arrived at the conclusion that it did without rejecting that argument. The Bombay High Court expressed its dissent with the views of the Kerala High Court for the same reasons.

The Bombay High Court noted that the object of section 80IA(9) was to prevent taxpayers from claiming repeated deductions in respect of the same amount of eligible income and in excess of the eligible profits, and not to curtail the deductions allowable under various provisions of part C of Chapter VIA. The Bombay High Court therefore held that section 80IA(9) did not affect the computability of deduction under various provisions of part C of Chapter VIA, but affected the allowability of such deductions, so that the aggregate deduction u/s.80IA and other provisions under part C of Chapter VIA did not exceed 100% of the profits of the business of the assessee.

A similar view had been taken by the Madras High Court in the case of SCM Creations v. Asst. CIT, 304 ITR 319.

Observations:

The purpose behind insertion of section 80IA(9) has been set out in CBDT Circular No. 772, dated 23rd December, 1998 as under:
“It was noticed that certain assessees claimed more than 100% deduction on such profits and gains of the same undertaking, when they were entitled to deductions under more than one Section of Chapter VIA. With a view to providing suitable statutory safeguard in the Income-tax Act to prevent the taxpayer from taking undue advantage of the existing provisions of the Act by claiming repeated deductions in respect of the same amount of eligible income, even in cases where it exceeds such eligible profits of an undertaking or a hotel, inbuilt restrictions in section 80HHD and section 80IA have been provided by amending the Section, so that such unintended benefits are not passed on to the appellant.”

The purpose of the amendment gathered from the understanding of the Board clearly seems to be to restrict the total of the deductions to 100% of the eligible profits. Had the Delhi High Court appreciated this part of the contention of the assessee that even the Board, the administrative body, was of the view that the scope of the provision contained in section 80IA(9) was to restrict the aggregate of the deductions under the two provisions of the Chapter C to the overall profits and gains, its conclusion may have been different. The Court instead rejected any need to apply its mind to such an analogy on the ground that adopting such an insidious approach was not called for where the language of the provision was clear. The stand of the Board is clearly derived from the memorandum explaining the provisions of section 80IA(9). In any case, the stand taken by the Board could have been taken as a concession conferred on the taxpayer by the Government.

The Chapter is replete with the provisions introduced for curtailing the base for deduction like section 80HHB(5), section 80HHBA(4), section 80HHD(7), section 80IE(4), section 80P, etc. These provisions use a language materially different to the language employed by section 80IA(9) for restricting the scope of the computation of deduction itself. The Parliament where desired had adopted a clear and different language to convey its aim of diluting the basis of deduction and restricting the scope of the computable income.

Section 80IA(9) as explained by the Memorandum and the Circular merely provides that when a deduction u/s.80IA has been allowed, deduction to the extent of such profits and gains shall not be allowed under any other provision, and does not state that such profits and gains shall not be taken into account for computing such other deductions. The Bombay High Court has appreciated in the proper perspective the difference between inclusion of such profits in a computation and inclusion of such profits in the actual deduction as explained by the Memorandum and the Circular.

G. P. Singh in ‘Principles of Statutory Interpretation’ suggests a departure from the rule of literal interpretation as under:
“It has already been seen that a statute has to be read as a whole and one provision of the Act should be construed with reference to other provisions in the same Act so as to make a consistent enactment of the whole statute.

Such a construction has the merit of avoiding any inconsistency or repugnancy either within a section or between a section and other parts of the statute. It is the duty of the Courts to avoid a ‘head on clash’ between two sections of the same Act and whenever it is possible to do so, to construe provisions which appear to conflict so that they harmonise.”

The Bombay High Court’s interpretation in Associated Capsule’s case is a step towards harmonising the provisions of section 80AB, section 80HHC and section 80IA(9).

It is significant to note, specially in the context of section 80HHC, that the deduction under that section is required to be computed w.r.t. the profits of the business which is artificially defined under Explanation (baa) of the said section and such artificial profits are far detached form the profit that is eligible for deduction u/s.80IA and therefore it is difficult to hold that the double deduction is claimed on the same profit. In any case, as noted, the basis on which the amount of deduction is computed under the two different provisions is significantly different.

A provision introduced for restricting the scope of a benefit under another provision has to contain a non obstante clause which is found missing in section 80HHC and on this count alone, any attempt to curtail the basis of the profit eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC should be avoided. Section 80IA(9) should at the most be seen to be achieving the same thing as is achieved by section 80AB and may be taken as a provision introduced to achieve greater clarity on the subject.

The decision of the Bombay High Court has the effect of overruling the two decisions of the Special Bench in the case of Rogini Garments & Others, 111 TTJ 274 (Chennai) and Hindustan Mint & Agro Products (P) Ltd., 123 TTJ 577 (Del.) and dissenting with the two decisions of the High Courts of Delhi and Kerala. In view of the sharp division of views of the Courts and considering the fact that the issue has the large tax effect, it is desired that the issue be settled at the earliest by the Apex Court.

Netting of interest and S. 80HHC

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 S. 80HHC, inserted by the Finance Act, 1983 w.e.f. 1st
April, 1983 for grant of deduction in respect of the profits derived from
exports of goods and merchandise, has since undergone several changes. The
relevant part of the provision, at present, relevant to this discussion, reads
as under :

Explanation : For the purposes of this Section, :


(baa) ‘profits of the business’ means the profits of the
business as computed under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or
profession’ as reduced by :

(1) ninety per cent of any sum referred to in clauses (iiia),
(iiib), (iiic), (iiid) and (iiie) of S. 28 or of any receipts by way of
brokerage, commission, interest, rent, charges or any other receipt of a similar
nature included in such profits; and

1.2 ‘Profits of the business’ as defined in clause (baa) of
the Explanation requires that the profits derived from exports is computed under
the head ‘Profits and gains of business and profession’ and such profits
determined in accordance with S. 28 to S. 44D is to be further adjusted on
account of clause (baa), namely, ninety percent of any receipts by way of
brokerage, commission, interest, rent, charges or any other receipt of a similar
nature included in such profits
.

1.3 The issue that is being fiercely debated, is concerning
the true meaning of the terms ‘interest, etc.’ and ‘receipts’ used in Expln.
(baa). Whether the terms individually or collectively connote net interest, etc.
i.e., the gross interest income less the expenditure incurred for earning
such income ? A related question, in the event it is held that the terms connote
netting of interest, is should netting be allowed where the interest income is
computed as business income ?

1.4 The issue believed to be settled by the decision of the
Special Bench of the ITAT in the case of Lalsons, 89 ITD 25 (Delhi) became
controversial due to the decisions of the Madras and Punjab and Haryana High
Courts. Again, these decisions of the High Court were not followed by the
decision of the Delhi High Court, upholding the ratio of the Lalsons’ decision.
The peace prevailing thereafter has been short-lived in view of the recent
decision of the Bombay High Court, dissenting form the decision of the Delhi
High Court.

2. Shri Ram Honda Equip’s case :


2.1 The issue arose for consideration of the Delhi High Court
in Shri Ram Honda Power Equip, 289 ITR 475 wherein substantial questions of law
concerning the interpretation of S. 80HHC, Ss. (1) and (3) and clause (baa) of
the Explanation, were raised before the High Court as under :

(a) Does the expression ‘profits derived from such export’
occurring in Ss.(3) r/w Expln. (baa) restrict the profits available for
deduction in terms of Ss.(1) to only those items of income directly relatable to
the business of export ?

(b) Does the expression ‘interest’ in Expln. (baa) connote
net interest, i.e., the gross interest income less the expenditure
incurred by the assessee for earning such income ?

(c) If the expression ‘interest’ implies net interest, then
should netting be allowed where the interest income is computed to be business
income ?

2.2 The two broad issues identified by the Court from the
three questions referred to it were the determination of the nature of interest
income and the issue of netting of interest. The Court noted that the first step
was to determine whether in a given case the income from interest was assessable
as a ‘business income’, computed in terms of S. 28 to S. 44, or as an ‘income
from other sources’ determined u/s.56 and u/s.57 and to ascertain thereafter,
whether while deducting ninety percent of interest therefrom in terms of Expln.
(baa), gross or net interest should be taken in to account.

2.3 It was contended on behalf of the assessee that profits cannot be arrived at by any businessman without accounting
for the expenditure incurred in earning such interest; that the entire clause
(baa) had to be read along with the scheme of S. 80HHC(1) and (3) and given a
meaning that did not produce absurd results; that the interpretation should
reflect a liberal construction conforming to the object of encouraging exports;
that use of the term ‘included in such profits’ following the words ‘brokerage,
commission, interest, rent, charges or any other receipts of a similar nature’
was indicative that such amounts were the ‘net’ amounts and only net interest
was includible in the profits; hence once interest income had been computed as
business income, then netting had to be allowed.

2.4 It was further urged that as per the mandate of clause
(baa) the profits and gains of business or profession had to be first computed
as per S. 28 to S. 44, including S. 37, which envisaged accounting for the
expenditure incurred by an assessee for earning the income. The assessees also
relied on paragraph 30.11 of Circular No. 621, dated. 19-12-1991 which provided
for ad hoc 10 percent deduction to account for the expenses. It was
further urged that the Legislature wherever desired had used the expression
‘gross’ as in S. 80M, S. 40(b), S. 44AB, S. 44AD and S. 115JB, making it clear
that the Legislature in terms of S. 80HHC intended that the interest to be
accounted for in computing the profits should be net interest; that the language
of the Section was unambiguous and therefore there was no need to supply the
word ‘gross’ as qualifying the word ‘interest’. Therefore, applying the same
rule of causus omissus, such word could not be read into the Section.
Reliance was placed on the decision in Distributors (Baroda) (P) Ltd., 155 ITR
120 (SC).

2.5 On the issue of netting, it was submitted on behalf of
the Revenue that even where the interest income was determined to be business
income, netting should not be permitted; that there could be no casus omissus,
in other words, the Court ought not to supply words when none exist; that just
as the assessees argued the Legislature if intended would have used the term
‘net’ and would have said so and in the absence of such a clear enunciation, the
word ‘interest’ has to be interpreted to mean ‘gross interest’; that applying
the strict rule of construction in interpreting the statutes, the expression
‘interest’ occurring in clause (baa) could only mean gross interest and that the
treatment in either case should be uniform.

2.6 On behalf of the Revenue it was further urged that the Legislature had permitted the retention of 10% of interest income to compensate for expenses laid out for earning such income, therefore any further deduction of the expenditure incurred for earning such interest, if permit-ted, would amount to a double deduction which clearly was not envisaged; that clause (baa) of the Explanation to S. 80HHC envisaged a two-step process in computing profits derived from exports, first, the AO was required to apply S. 28 to S. 44 to compute the profits and gains of business or profession. In doing so, the AO might find that certain incomes, which had no nexus to the ex-port business of the assessee, were not eligible for deduction and therefore ought to be treated as income from other sources. Once that was done, then 90% of the receipts referred in clause (baa) had to be deducted in order to arrive at the profits derived from profits. Reliance was placed on the decision of K. Venkata Reddy v. CIT, 250 ITR 147 (AP) in support of this submission. Even if the interest earned was to be construed as part of the business income, the netting should not be permitted since the statute did not specifically say so relying on the judgments in IPCA Laboratory Ltd. v. Dy. CIT, 266 ITR 521 (SC), CIT v. V. Chinnapandi, 282 ITR 389 (Mad.) and Rani Paliwal v. CIT, 268 ITR 220 (P & H).

2.7 The Delhi High Court found merit in the contention of the assessee that not accepting that interest in the context referred to net interest, might produce unintended or absurd results. The Court referring to the decision of Keshavji Ravji & Co. v. CIT, 183 ITR 1 (SC) highlighted that the underlying principle of netting appeared to be logical as no prudent businessman would allow taxation of the interest income de hors the expenditure incurred for earning such income. The words ‘included in such profits’ following the words ‘receipts by way of interest, commission, brokerage, etc.’, was a clear pointer to the fact that only net interest would be includible in arriving at the business profit; once business income had been determined by applying accounting standards as well as the provisions contained in the Act, the assessee would be permitted to, in terms of S. 37, claim as deduction, expenditure laid out for the purposes of earning such business income. The Court noted with approval the proposition for netting of income found from Circular No. 621, dated 19-12-1991 of the CBDT.

2.8 The Court observed that object of S. 80HHC was to ensure that the exporter got the benefit of the profits derived from export and was not to depress the profit further; if the deduction of 90% was of the gross interest itself, the amount spent in earning such interest would depress the profit to that extent by remaining on the debit side of the P&L Account; therefore, it could only be the net interest which could be included in the profits; if netting were not to be permitted, the result would be that the profits of the exporter would be depressed by an item that was expenditure incurred on earning interest, which did not form part of the profit at all; such could not have been the intention of the Legislature.

2.9 The Court did not approve of the contention that the treatment of clause (a) of S. 80HHC(3) should be no different from clause (b) of the same sub-section as the said clause (baa) was relatable only to clause (a) of S. 80HHC(3) and not to clause thereof; the provisions operated in distinct areas and no inter-mixing was contemplated.

2.10 For all these reasons, the Court held that the word ‘interest’ in clause (baa) to the Explanation in S. 80HHC was indicative of ‘net interest’, i.e., gross interest less the expenditure incurred by the assessee in earning such interest. The Court affirmed the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT in Lalsons Enterprises (supra) holding that the expression ‘interest’ in clause (baa) of the Explanation to S. 80HHC connoted ‘net interest’ and not ‘gross interest’.

2.11 The Court noted that in deciding the issue in Rani Paliwal’s case (supra), the Punjab & Haryana High Court, without any detailed discussion simply upheld the Tribunal’s order and therefore did not follow the ratio of the said decision in these words: “We are afraid that there is no reasoning expressed by the High Court for arriving at such a conclusion. For instance, there is no discussion of the CBDT Circular and in particular para 32.11 thereof which indicates that netting is contemplated in Expln. (baa). Also, it does not notice the effect of the words ‘included in such profits’ following the words ‘receipts by way of interest….’ in the said Explanation. We are therefore unable to subscribe to the view taken by the Punjab & Haryana High Court in Rani Paliwal (supra).” The Court accordingly differed with the views of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in Rani Paliwal’s case.

2.12 While differing with the decision of the Madras High Court in Chinnapandi’s case, the Court observed as under: “The Madras High Court in CIT v. V. Chinnapandi (supra) held that even where the interest receipt is treated as business income, the deduction within the meaning of Expln. (baa) is permissible only of the gross interest and not net interest. The High Court appears to have followed the earlier judgment in K. S. Subbiah Pillai & Co. (supra) without noticing that in K. S. Subbiah Pillai (supra), the interest receipt was treated as income from other sources and not as business income. Also, the High Court in V. Chinnapandi (supra) chose to follow Rani Paliwal (supra), which, as explained earlier, gives no reasoning for the conclusion therein. Also, V. Chinnapandi (supra) does not advert to either the CBDT Circular or the judgment of the Special Bench in Lalsons (supra), with which we entirely concur on this aspect.”

2.13 The Court accordingly held that the net interest i.e., the gross interest less the expenditure incurred for the purposes of earning such interest, in terms of Expln. (baa), only be reduced from the profits of the business in cases where the AO treated the interest receipt as business income.

    Asian Star Co. Ltd.’s case:

3.1 Recently the issue again arose before the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Asian Star Ltd. in appeal No. 200 of 2009. In a decision delivered on March 18/19, 2010 the Court was asked to consider the following question of law:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the Tribunal was correct in holding that net interest on fixed deposits in banks received by the assessee-company should be considered for the purpose of working out the deduction u/s.80HHC and not the gross interest?”

3.2 The assessee carried on the business of the export of cut and polished diamonds. A return of income for A.Y. 2003-04 was filed, declaring a total income of Rs. 13.91 crores, after claiming a deduction of Rs.13.22 crores u/s.80HHC. The assessee had debited an amount of Rs. 21.46 crores as interest paid/payable to the Profit and Loss Account net of interest received of Rs. 3.25 crores. The assessee was called upon to explain as to why the deduction u/s.80HHC should not be recomputed by excluding ninety percent of the interest received in the amount of Rs.3.25 crores. By its explanation, the assessee submitted that during the year, it received interest on fixed deposits. The assessee stated that it had borrowed monies in order to fulfil its working capital requirements and the Bank had called upon it to maintain a fixed deposit as margin money against the loans. The assessee consequently contended that there was a direct nexus between the deposits kept in the Bank and the amounts borrowed.

3.3 The Assessing Officer, found that the explanation of the assessee could not be accepted since a plain reading of Explanation (baa) to S. 80HHE suggested that ninety percent of the receipts on account of brokerage, commission, interest, rent, charges or receipts of a similar nature were liable to be excluded while computing the profits of the business. In appeal, the CIT (Appeals) held that the assessee had established a direct nexus between interest-bearing fixed deposits and the ‘interest charging’ borrowed funds and he directed the Assessing Officer to allow the netting of interest income and interest expenses. The view of the CIT (Appeals) was confirmed in appeal by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. The Tribunal held that the finding of the Appellate Authority was based on the existence of a nexus between borrowed funds and fixed deposits. The Tribunal followed its decision in the case of Lalsons Enterprises, 89 ITD 25 (Delhi).

3.4 The Revenue contended that for computing the profits and gains of the business for S. 80HHC, ninety percent of the receipts by way of interest had to be reduced from the profits and gains of business or profession and the ‘receipts’ to be so reduced were the gross receipts; consequently, the gross receipts by way of interest could not be netted against expenditure which was laid out for the earning of those receipts; the reduction provided by the law was independent of any expenditure that was incurred in the earning of the receipts; that non -operational income should be excluded as it had no nexus with the export turnover, while on the other hand, it depressed profits by including expenditure which had been incurred for those very items which led to a consequence which could not have been intended by the Parliament having regard to the beneficial object underlying the provision.

3.5 The summary of the assessee’s contentions was that (i) The words ‘any receipts’ denoted the nature and not the quantum of the receipt;
    The expression, therefore, required the nature of the receipts to be examined; (iii) Explanation (baa) referred to any receipts of a similar nature ‘included in such profits’. The words ‘such profits’ meant profits and gains of business or profession computed u/s.28 to u/s.44D; (iv) Profits could only be arrived at after the deduction of expenditure from income and the net effect thereof constituted profits; (v) Explanation (baa) did not use the expression ‘gross or net’. However, having regard to the purpose and object of the provision and the nature of the language used in the Explanation, ninety percent of the receipts that was required to be excluded had to be computed with reference to inclusion of such receipts in profits and gains of business which in turn involved both credit and debit sides of the profit and loss account; (vi) For purposes of Explanation (baa), income from other sources would not come within the purview of the Explanation; Only business income had to be considered and interest in the nature of business income had to be taken into consideration; (vii)Receipts by way of interest in Explanation (baa) denoted the nature of the receipts and inclusion in ‘such profits’ would denote the quantum of the receipts; (viii) The words used by the Legislature suggested what was included in the total income or had gone into the computation of total income. Consequently, both debit and credit sides of the profit and loss account would have to be consid-ered; (ix) The words ‘such profits’ could only mean such profits as computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act; (x) The words ‘receipt’ and ‘income’ in Explanation (baa) were interchangeably used and consequently, receipts would have to be read as income; (xi) The correct interpretation was to take into consideration netting and exclude all expenses which had a direct nexus with the earning of the income; (xii) The provision being an incentive provision under Chapter VIA, must be beneficially construed in order to encourage exports; (xiii)

The word ‘profits’ denoted profits in a commercial sense; (xiv) the object of the exclusion contained in Explanation (baa) was to sequester certain non-operational income which did not bear a direct nexus with export income and as a consequence, the exclusion could not be confined only to credit side of the profit and loss account, but must extend equally to the debit side, subject to the rider that a clear nexus has to be established.

3.6 The Bombay High Court explaining the rationale underlying the exclusion noted that : Ss.(3) of S. 80HHC was inserted by the Finance Act of 1991, with effect from 1st April 1992; the adoption of the formula in Ss.(3) was to disallow a part of the concession when the entire deduction claimed could not be regarded as being derived from export; S. 80HHC had to be amended several times since the formula had resulted in a distorted figure of export profits where receipts such as interest, rent, commission and brokerage which did not have a direct nexus with export turnover were included in the profit and loss account and resultantly became a subject of deduction; by the amendment, the position that emerged was that receipts which did not have any element of or nexus with export turnover would not become eligible for deduction merely because they formed part of the profit and loss account; this aspect of the history underlying S. 80HHC, had been elaborated upon in the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Lakshmi Machine Works, 290 ITR 667.

3.7 The Court further noted that; the Explanation (baa) had to be read in the context of the background underlying the exclusion of certain constituent elements of the profit and loss account from the eligibility for deduction; what Explanation (baa) postulated was that, in computing the profits of business for S. 80HHC, the profits of business had to be first computed under the head profits and gains of business or profession, in accordance with S. 28 to S. 44D; once that exercise was complete, those profits had to be reduced to the extent provided by clauses (1) and (2) of Explanation (baa); that such receipts by way of brokerage, commission, interest, rent, charges or other receipts of a similar nature, though included in the profits and gains of business or profession, did not bear a nexus with the export turnover and consequently, though included in the computation of profits and gains of business or profession, ninety percent of such receipts had to be excluded in computing the profits of business for S. 80HHC; the reason for the exclusion was borne out by the Circular issued by the CBDT on 19-12-1991 which noted that the formula then existing often presented a distorted figure of export profits when receipts like interest, commission, etc. which did not have an element of turnover were included in the profit and loss account; the Court was required to give a meaning to the provision consistent with the underlying scheme, object and purpose of the statutory provision; the Parliament considered it appropriate to exclude from the purview of the deduction u/s.80HHC, certain receipts or income which did not have a proximate nexus with export turnover though such items formed part of the profit and loss account and form a constituent element in the computation of the profits or gains of business or profession u/s.28 to u/s.44D. The interpretation which Court placed on the provisions of S. 80HHC and on Explanation (baa) must be consistent with the law laid down by the Supreme Court in the cases of CIT v. K. Ravindranathan Nair, 295 ITR 228 295 ITR 228 where the Supreme Court held that processing charges, though a part of gross total income constituted an item of independent income like rent, commission and brokerage and consequently, ninety percent of the processing charges had to be reduced from gross total income to arrive at business profits, and Lakshmi Machine Works (supra) where the issue before the Supreme Court was whether excise duty and sales tax were included in the total turnover for the purpose of working out the formula contained in S. 80HHC(3) and the Supreme Court held that the object of the Legislature in enacting S. 80HHC was to confer benefit on profits accruing with reference to export turnover and the Supreme Court in that case had observed that ‘commission, rent, interest, etc. did not involve any turnover’ and ‘therefore, ninety percent of such commission, interest, etc. was excluded from the profits derived from?the?export,’?just?as?interest, commission, etc. did not emanate from export turnover, so also excise duty and sales tax had to be excluded.

3.8 The Court explained the resultant position in law as that while prescribing the exclusion of the specified receipts the Parliament was, however, conscious of the fact that the expenditure incurred in earning the items which were liable to be excluded had already gone into the computation of business profits as the computation of business profits under Chapter IV is made by amalgamating the receipts as well as the expenditure incurred in carrying on the business; since the expenditure incurred in earning the income by way of interest, brokerage, commission, rent, charges or other similar receipts had also gone into the computation of business profits, the Parliament thought it fit to exclude only ninety percent of the receipts received by the assessee in order to ensure that the expenditure which was incurred by the assessee in earning the receipts which had gone into the computation of the business profits is taken care of; the reason why the Parliament confined the reduction factor to ninety percent of the receipts was stated in the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill of 1991; the Parliament, therefore, confined the reduction to the extent of ninety percent of the income earned through such receipts since it was cognizant of the fact that the assessee would have incurred some expenditure in earning those incomes and therefore it provided an ad hoc deduction of ten percent from such incomes to account for the expenses incurred in earning the receipts; the distortion of the profits that would take place by excluding the receipts received by the assessee which were unrelated to export turnover and not the expenditure incurred by the assessee in earning those receipts was factored in by the Parliament by excluding only ninety percent of the receipts received by the assessee; the Parliament thought it fit to adopt a uniform formula envisaging a reduc-tion of ninety percent to make due allowance for the expenditure which would have been incurred by the assessee in earning the receipts, though in a given case it might be more or less as it was considered to be reasonable parameter of what would have been expended by the assessee; in order to simplify the application of the law, the Parliament treated a uniform expenditure computed at ten percent to be applicable in order to ensure that there is no distortion of profits by exclusion of income not relatable to export profits.

3.9 In view of the objective of the Parliament behind the introduction of the Explanation (baa) and its desire to provide uniformity of the treatment and the fact that the deduction of S. 80HHC was related to export turnover, the Bombay High Court held that the ratio and the findings of the Supreme Court in the case of the Distributors (Baroda) P. Ltd. v. Union of India, 155 ITR 120 were not relevant in the context of the issue under consideration by the Court; it was in order to obviate a distortion that the Parliament mandated that ninety percent of the receipts would be excluded; consequently, while the principle which had been laid down by the Supreme Court in Distributors (Baroda)’s case must illuminate the interpretation of the words ‘included in such profits’, the Court could not, at the same time, be unmindful of the reduction which was postulated by Explanation (baa), the extent of the reduction and the rationale for effecting the reduction.

3.10 The Bombay High Court noted with approval the decisions of the High Courts in the cases of K. S. Subbiah Pillai & Co. (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT, CIT v. V. Chinnapandi, Rani Paliwal v. CIT and CIT v. Liberty Footwears. In view of number of reasons advanced and after a careful consideration the Bombay High Court was not inclined to follow the judgment of the Division Bench of the Delhi High Court in CIT v. Shri Ram Honda Power Equipments as the simi-larity between the provisions of S. 80HHC and S. 80M which was relied upon in the judgment of the Delhi High Court missed the comprehensive position as it obtained u/s.80HHC.Such similarity of the provisions should not result into an assumption that the provisions were identical, when they were not as the Parliament had adopted a fair and reasonable statutory basis of what may be regarded as expenditure incurred for the earning of the receipts. Once the Parliament had legislated both in regard to the nature of the exclusion and the extent of the exclusion, it would not be open to the Court to order otherwise by rewriting the legislative provision. The Court observed with respect that the Delhi High Court had not adequately emphasised the entire rationale for confining the deduction only to the extent of ninety percent of the excludible receipts.

3.11 The displeasure of the Bombay High Court with the decision of the Special Bench in Lalsons Enterprises’s case, can best be explained in the Court’s own words “We are affirmatively of the view that in its discussion on the issue of netting, the Tribunal in its Special Bench decision in Lalsons has transgressed the limitations on the exercise of judicial power. The Tribunal has in effect, legislated by providing a deduction on the ground of expenses other than in the terms which have been allowed by the Parliament. That is impermissible. In the present case, it is necessary to emphasise that the question before the Court relates to the deduction u/s.80HHC. An assessee may well be entitled to a deduction in respect of the expenditure laid out wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business in the computation of the profits and gains of business or profession. However, for the purposes of computing the deduction u/s.80HHC, the provisions which have been enacted by the Parliament would have to be complied. A deduction in excess of what is mandated by the Parliament cannot be allowed on the theory that it is an incentive provision intended to encourage export. The extent of the deduction and the conditions subject to which the deduction should be granted, are matters for the Parliament to legislate upon. The Parliament having legislated, it would not be open to the Court to deviate from the provisions which have been enacted in S. 80HHC.”

3.13 The Bombay High Court allowed the appeal of the Revenue by holding that the Tribunal was not justified in coming to the conclusion that the net interest on fixed deposits in the bank received by the assessee should be considered for the purposes of working out the deduction u/s.80HHC and not the gross interest.

4.Observations:

4.1 The issue has been clearly identified and argued and is further highlighted by sharply contrasting views of the High Courts on the subject. The Apex Court alone can bring finality to this fiercely contested issue.

4.2 As we understand from the reading of the Bombay High Court decision, the case of an exporter for netting of interest, etc. having nexus with the export activity is fortified. It is in cases where such receipts have no nexus with the export activity that a shadow of serious doubt has been cast by the recent decision of the Bombay High Court.

4.3 In bringing a finality to the issue, in addition to the issues which are very succinctly brought to the notice of the Courts by the contesting parties, the following aspects will have to be conclusively adjudicated upon;

4.3.1 While in a good number of cases, it maybe true that the ends of the justice will be met by allowing a deduction of 10% of the income, such a benchmark will be found to be woefully inad-equate in cases where the activity is conducted in an orderly manner, as a business. For example, a broker or a commission agent paying a sizeable amount to a sub-broker or sub-agent or lender of funds advancing loans out of borrowed funds bearing interest. In the examples given, the expenditure surely would exceed the benchmark of 10% of income. The allowance of 10% of income, in such cases, cannot be considered to be reasonable by any standard. In such cases, at least, it will be fair to read that the receipt in question is the net receipt, more so as in the cases of person who had accounted only net receipt in the books.

4.3.2 The allowance of any direct expenditure may have always been presumed and it is for avoiding any controversy in relation to an indirect expenditure that the 10% allowance is granted by the Legislature.

4.3.3 The direct expenditure, if not allowed, will give absurd results inasmuch as the same has the effect of depressing the export profit, otherwise eligible for deduction. If such receipts were to be taken out of the business profits on the footing that they had no connection with the business profits or turnover, it would only be reasonable to hold that expenditure having nexus with such receipts should also be taken out of the business profits on the same footing.

4.3.4 The result surely will be different in case where the assesssee is found to have maintained separate books of account or where the accounting is net of direct cost.

4.3.5 The result will also be different in cases where the assessee on his own had treated the receipt as also the income under a separate head of income.

4.3.6 It is an accepted principle of interpretation that the law has to be read in the context in which has placed. RBI v. Peerless General Finance Investment Co. Ltd., 61 Comp Case 663. The Delhi High Court clarified that it was inclined to adopt this contextual approach further enunciated by the Madras High Court in CIT v. P. Manonmani, 245 ITR 48 (Mad.) (FB). The context in which the word ‘receipt’ is used in Expln. (baa) may mean such receipts as reduced by the expenditure laid out for earning such income. The possible way to reconcile this is as was done by the Delhi High Court by reading the expression ‘receipts by way of brokerage, commission, interest….’ as referring to the nature of receipt, which in the context of S. 80HHC connotes ‘income’.

4.3.7 Paragraph 32.10 of Circular No. 681, dated 19-12- 1991 reads as under: “The existing formula often gives a distorted figure of export profits when receipts like interest, commission, etc., which do not have element of turnover are included in the P&L Account. It has, therefore, been clarified that ‘profits of the business’ for the purpose of S. 80HHC will not include receipts by way of brokerage, commission, interest, rent, charges or any other receipt of a similar nature. As some expenditure might be incurred in earning these incomes, which in the generality of cases is part of common expenses, ad hoc 10% deduction from such incomes is provided to account for these expenses.”

4.3.8 Circular No. 621 explained the provisions of the amendment and in so explaining has favoured netting, as has been highlighted by the Delhi High Court. If that is so, the full effect, though benefi-cial, shall be given to such interpretation advanced by the Circular of the CBDT in preference to the Notes and the Memorandum. Full effect may be given to the above-referred CBDT Circular which acknowledges that ‘receipts by way of brokerage, commission, interest’, etc., are ‘incomes’ and in order to give effect to this expression, the principle of netting will have to be applied.

4.3.9 Due weightage will have to be given to the true meaning of the words ‘included in such profits’ which precede the words ‘receipts by way of brokerage, commission and interest’.

4.3.10 The ratio of the decision of the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court in the case of Distributors (Baroda) (P) Ltd., though considered by the Courts, will have to be revisited in order to conclusively appreciate the meaning of the words and the expressions ‘receipts by way of’ ‘included in such profits,’ ‘such profits’ and ‘computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act’.

4.3.11 The three different expressions, namely, ‘any sums’, ‘receipts’ and ‘profits’, used by the Parliament will have to be reconciled.

4.4 This controversy has plagued a good number of cases and it will be in the fitness of the things that the Government adopts a reconciliatory approach and issues a dispensation or a directive for addressing the issue that does not clog the wheels of justice.

Interest u/s.234A — Taxes paid but return delayed

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 S. 234A(1) of the Income-tax Act provides for levy of
simple interest at the rate of one percent, for every month or part of the
month, for the default of non-furnishing the return of income u/s.139 or S. 142,
on the amount of the tax on total income as determined u/s.143(1) or on regular
assessment as reduced by the advance tax and the tax deducted or collected at
source and such other taxes as are specified in clauses (i) to (vi) of the said
Section.

1.2 The taxes to be reduced from the tax determined on
regular assessment are :

(i) advance tax, if any, paid;

(ii) any tax deducted or collected at source;

(iii) any relief of tax allowed u/s.90 on account of tax
paid in a country outside India;

(iv) any relief of tax allowed u/s.90A on account of tax
paid in a specified territory outside India referred to in that Section;

(v) any deduction, from the Indian income-tax payable,
allowed u/s.91 on account of tax paid in a country outside India; and

(vi) any tax credit allowed to be set off in accordance
with the provisions of S. 115JAA.


1.3 The interest is payable for the period commencing on the
date immediately following the due date for filing return of income defined
under Explanation 1 to mean the date specified in S. 139(1) and ending on the
date of furnishing the return or where no return is furnished, on the date of
completion of assessment u/s.144. Vide Ss.(2) the interest payable U/ss.(1) is
reduced by the interest, if any, paid u/s.140A towards the interest chargeable
u/s.234A.

1.4 A separate levy for default in payment of advance tax is
provided by S. 234B for levy of simple interest at the rate of one percent, for
every month or part of the month, on the amount of the tax on total income as
determined u/s.143(1) or on regular assessment as reduced by such taxes as are
specified in clauses (i) to (v) of Explanation 1 to the said
Section. Such interest is payable by an assessee liable to pay advance tax
u/s.208 where advance tax paid u/s.210 is less than ninety percent of the
assessed tax for the period commencing on 1st April next following the financial
year and ending on the date of determination of total income u/s.143(1) or
regular assessment. Vide Ss.(2)(i) the interest payable U/ss.(1) is reduced by
the interest, if any, paid u/s.140A towards the interest chargeable u/s.234B.

1.5 In cases involving twin defaults of delayed filing return
of income and short payment of advance tax, the person is made liable for
interest for the same period and in some cases on the same amount under two
different provisions of the Act, namely, u/s.234A and 234B. These simultaneous
levies have prompted assessees to challenge the double whammy without success;
however, some success was achieved in cases involving default of delayed return
of income where taxes were paid after the financial year end but before the due
date of filing return of income. The decision of the Delhi High Court upholding
the plea of the assessee that interest was not chargeable u/s.234A for the
period following the due date and ending on the date of filing of return has
recently been dissented by the Gujarat High Court holding that such simultaneous
levies were possible in law.

2. Pronnoy Roy’s case :


2.1 The issue was first considered by the Delhi High Court in
the case of Dr. Pronnoy Roy & Anr. v. CIT, 254 ITR 755. In that case, the
assessee had earned substantial capital gains for the assessment year 1995-96
for which the return was due to be filed on October 31, 1995. Though taxes due
were paid on September 25, 1995, i.e., before the due date of filing of
the return, the return was filed on September 29, 1996, i.e., after a
delay of about 11 months. While the returned income was accepted in assessment
of income, interest was charged u/s.234A on the ground that tax paid on
September, 25, 1995, could not be reduced from the tax due on assessment. A
revision petition u/s.264 of the Act was filed before the Commissioner
requesting for deletion of interest charged u/s.234A of the Act. The
Commissioner in his order, upheld the action of the Assessing Officer stating
that deduction of tax paid on September 25, 1995, was not provided in S. 234A of
the Act, as it compensated for delay/default in filing of return of income and
not the payment of tax. Against the order of the Commissioner, the assessee
filed a writ petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution of India, before
the High Court seeking for a writ of certiorari/mandamus in respect of
the said order passed u/s.264 of the Act upholding the levy of interest u/s.234A
of the Act.

2.2 The following contentions were advanced by the assessee,
before the High Court, in support of the case that no interest be levied
u/s.234A for the period commencing with 25th September 1995, i.e., the
date on which the payment of taxes was made.


* The taxes were paid voluntarily before the due date of filing return of income and once the taxes were found to have been paid no interest u/s. 234A could be levied for the period thereafter in-asmuch as there did not remain any basis for such levy.

  •  Levy of interest u/s.234A was compensatory in character and was introduced for compensating the Government for the loss of revenue and as in the assessee’s case there was no loss of revenue, on payment by the assessee, no compensation was due to the Government.

  • There was no deprival of resources for the State and in the absence of that it was not possible for it to seek damages for the same.

  • The taxes paid by him on 25th September, 1995 should be treated as payment of advance tax.

  • A separate provision, namely, S. 271F provided for the levy of penalty for the default of not filing the return of income by due date w.e.f. 1-4-1999.

  • Simultaneous levies for the same period were unjust and resulted in double jeopardy.

  • The provisions  must  be construed  liberally.

  • In case of doubt, the benefit of doubt should be given to the assessee.

2.3 On behalf of the Revenue it was contended that by reason of S. 234A, interest was charged for default in filing return which did not cease or stop with payment of taxes. That not charging interest would defeat the very objective behind introduction of S. 234A.

2.4 The Delhi High Court upheld the contention of the assessee that no interest was to be charged u/ s.234A for the period commencing from 25th September 1995 for the following reasons:

  • Penalty and interest both could not be charged for failure to perform a statutory obligation.

  • Interest, was payable either by way of compensation or damages and penal interest could be levied only in the case of a chronic defaulter.

  • The common sense meaning of ‘interest’ must be applied in interpretation of S. 234A of the Act and even if the dictionary meaning was to be taken recourse to, the Court was supported by the Collins Cobuild English Language Dictio-nary reprinted in 1991, which defined it as; “Interest is a sum of money that is paid as percentage of a larger sum of money, which has been borrowed or invested. You receive interest on money that you invest and pay interest on money that you borrow.”

  • The question raised when considered from an-other angle was that interest was payable when a sum was due and not otherwise.

  • The object of the amendment was to levy mandatory interest where the return was filed late and tax was also not paid. The provisions made an exception for deduction of the amount of the interest if the same had otherwise been paid or deposited. A statute must be construed having regard to its object in view.

  • The Court noted that in Shashikant Laxman Kale v. UOI, 185 ITR 105, the Apex Court held that interest could not be charged when no tax was outstanding. It further noted that in Ganesh Dass Sreeram v. ITa, 159 ITR 221, it had been held that “Where the advance tax duly paid covers the entire amount of tax assessed, there is no ques-tion of charging the registered firm with inter-est even though the return is filed by it beyond the time allowed, regard being had to the fact that payment of interest is only compensatory in nature. As the entire amount of tax is paid by way of advance tax, the question of payment of any compensation does not arise.”

  • Penalty could not be imposed in the absence of a clear provision. Imposition of penalty would ordinarily attract compliance with the principles of natural justice.

  • Levy of penalty in certain situations would attract the principles of existence of mens rea. While a penalty was to be levied, discretionary power was ordinarily conferred on the authority. Unless such discretion was granted, the provisions  might be held to be unconstitutional.

  • In situation of the nature involved in the case, the doctrine of purposive construction must be taken recourse to.

  • The submission of the Revenue to the effect that payment of tax although the same could be made along with the return, could not be a ground for not charging interest in terms of S. 234A; if given effect to, the object and purpose of S. 234A would be defeated and, thus, the same could not be accepted. The object of S. 234A was to receive interest by way of compensation. If such was the intention of the Legislature, it could have said so in explicit terms.

  • Judicial notice was required to be taken of the fact that the Legislature had enacted S. 271F with effect from April I, 1999, by the Finance (No. 2) Act of 1998, providing for penalty, in the case of a person who was required to furnish a return of his income as required U/ss.(I) of S. 139 of the Act who did not do so.

  • When the statute provided that an interest, which would be compensatory in nature would be levied upon the happening of a particular event or inaction, the same by necessary implication would mean that the same could be levied on an ascertained sum.

  • The definition of ‘Advance tax’ was not an exhaustive one. If the word ‘advance tax’ was given a literal meaning, the same apart from being used only for the purpose of Chapter XVII-C might be held to be tax paid in advance before its due date, i.e., tax paid before the due date. A person, who did not pay the entire tax by way of advance tax, might deposit the balance amount of tax along with his return.

2.5 The Court accordingly held that interest would be payable only in a case, where tax had not been deposited prior to the due date of filing of the income-tax return.

3.  Roshanlal Jain’s case:

3.1 The assesseein Roshanlal S. lain (AOP) v. DCIT, 220 CTR 38 (Guj.), had defaulted in payment of advance tax before the year end, but had paid the shortfall after the year end, and before the due date of filing return of income. The return was filed beyond the due date prescribed u/s.139(1) and the Assessing Officer had charged interest u/ s.234A and u/ s.234B including for the period commencing on the day when the shortfall was made up and ending with the due date prescribed for filing the return of income.

3.2 The assessee challenged the validity of interest charged u/ s.234A and u/ s.234B,besides the constitutional validity of the provisions to submit that S. 234A be held to be ultra vires the Constitution to the extent it required an assessee to pay interest even after the tax has been paid before filing of the return. In relation to S. 234B, it was submitted that when the said provision charged interest for the same period for which interest had already been charged u/ s.234A, the said provision should be held to be unreasonable and should be struck down. The assessee strongly relied on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Dr. Pronnoy Roy, 254 ITR 755 in support of his contentions.

3.3 The Gujarat High Court negatived the contentions of the assessee to hold as under:

  • On a plain reading of the provisions of S. 234A and S. 234B, it was apparent that S. 234A provides for the liability to pay interest for default in late furnishing of return or non-furnishing of return, while S. 234B levied interest for default in payment of advance tax.

  • Both the provisions, i.e., S. 234A and S. 234Bpro-vided for payment of interest on the amount representing the difference between the amount of tax payable on the total income as determined u/s.143(1) or on regular assessment as reduced by the specified taxes.

  • The scheme that emerged on a conjoint reading of S. 4, S. 2(1), S. 190 and S. 207, was that even though assessment of the total income might be made later in point of time, yet the liability to pay income-tax was relatable to the financial year immediately preceding the assessment year in question and such liability had to be dis-charged either by way of having tax deducted at source or collected at source, or by making payment by way of advance tax in accordance with the provisions of S. 208 to S. 219.

  • S. 208 stipulated that advance tax should be paid during a financial year in every case where the amount of such tax payable by the assessee during that financial year, as computed in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVIIof the Act, exceeded the prescribed limit.

  • A statutory liability was cast on the assessee to pay advance tax during the financial year as provided by the legislative    scheme.

  • In the instant case, the assessee did not dispute that there was default in payment of advance tax.

  • Payment of tax on which the assessee was resting its case was admittedly made beyond the financial year and therefore, contrary to the legislative scheme. In the circumstances, the question that was to be posed and answered was whether an assessee who had acted contrary to the legislative scheme could seek an equity.

  • For computing interest u/ s.234A, the difference of the amount on which interest became payable had to be worked out by deducting the advance tax paid, including any tax deducted or collected at source from the tax on the total income determined at the time of an assessment.

  • In the instant case, the default in filing of return of income beyond the prescribed date was also admitted. Therefore, it was not possible to accept the contention of the assessee that the amount paid beyond the financial year should be deducted from the tax on the total income as determined on regular assessment. This has to be so, considering the definition of the term ‘advance tax’ as appearing in S. 2, which categorically stipulates that ‘advance tax’ means the advance tax payable in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-CoEven if contextual interpretation is adopted considering the opening portion of 5.2 which states ‘unless the context otherwise requires’, the contention raised by the assessee did not merit acceptance; the context and setting of the aforesaid provisions do not even, prima facie indicate that any other law, like the one canvassed by the assessee, was possible.

  • S. 140A stipulated that where any tax was payable on the basis of any return required to be furnished, such tax together with interest payable under any provision of the Act for any delay in furnishing return, or any default or delay in payment of advance tax before furnishing the return shall be paid. In other words, the Legislature had specifically provided that once there was default in either furnishing of return or in payment of advance tax or both, as regards the amount and the period, interest had to be worked out by the assessee himself. Thus, there is an inherent indication in the statutory scheme that any payment made beyond the financial year had to be considered, but such payment had to be accompanied by the interest payable for the default committed in filing of the return of income or default in payments of advance tax during the financial year. For this purpose, the Legislature had not equated both defaults, but had instead provided for computing interest separately for both the defaults. Therefore, merely because some amount was paid beyond the financial year but before the return was filed, the assessee could not plead that it was not liable to pay interest u/ s.234A; nor could it be given credit for such payment made beyond the financial year for the purpose of computing interest u/ s.234B for the default in payments of advance tax.

  • There was no merit in the contention of the assessee that it had not incurred any liability to pay interest either u/ s.234A or u/ s.234B. It also could not contend that there was any overlapping of the period for which it could not be made liable for paying interest under both the provisions, considering the fact that both the defaults were independent of each other.

  • The doctrine of double jeopardy envisaged by Article 20(2) of the Constitution or S. 300 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 could have no application in these proceedings. The defaults, and not offences, were not one; non-filing or late filing of return and non-payment or short-payment of advance tax could not be equated.

  • The period for which the liability to pay interest arose, had to be computed in accordance with the term fixed by each of the provisions, viz., S. 234A and S. 234B.

  • The contention, that if the statutory provision re-sulted in an absurdity or mischief not intended by the Legislature, the Court should import words so as to make sense out of the provisions, also did not merit acceptance, considering the fact that on a plain reading of the provisions, the discernible legislative intent could not be said to result in an absurdity.

  • If the plea raised by the assessee was accepted, not only would it require the Court to give a go-bye to the entire statutory scheme, but it would also result in discrimination against majority of the assessees who complied with requirements of the statutory provisions. No person was entitled to seek any relief on the basis of inverse discrimination.

  • There was also no merit in the contention  of the assessee that the provisions contained in S. 234A and S. 234B were ultra vires to the constitution. It was true that the nature of the levy of interest u/ s.234A and u/ s.234Bwas compensatory in character, but from that it was not possible to come to the conclusion that there was any arbitrariness or unreasonableness which would warrant striking down the provision.

3.4 The Gujarat High Court specifically dissented from the decision of the Delhi High Court in Dr. Pronnoy Roy’s case, 254 ITR 755 cited before the Court by the assessee and proceeded to dismiss the writ petition filed by the assessee. The submission of the assessee as to the binding nature of the precedent based on uniformity of expression of opinion on the ground of wise judicial policy also did not deserve acceptance. The Court agreed that there was no dispute about the proposition that in income-tax matters, which were governed by an all India statute, when there was a decision of a High Court interpreting a statutory provision, it would be a wise judicial policy and practice not to take a different view. However, this in the opinion of the Court was not an absolute proposition and there were certain well-known exceptions to it. In cases where a decision was sub silentio, per incuriam, obiter dicta or based on a concession or where a view taken was impossible to arrive at or there was another view in the field or there was a subsequent amendment to the statute or reversal or implied overruling of the decision by a High Court or some such or similar infirmity was manifestly perceivable in the decision, a different view could be taken by the High Court.

4. Observations:

4.1 There are several angles to the issue under consideration, prominent being:

  • the true nature of interest charged u/ s.234A; whether the same is compensatory or penal or both,
  • whether any interest can be charged where the State does not lose any revenue,
  • whether interest can be charged without there being any basis. The base, normally, is the amount unpaid or delayed,
  • the true meaning of the term ‘advance tax’, the true meaning of the term ‘interest’,
  • whether the introduction of S. 271F for levy of penalty has made any difference,
  • whether interest can be levied simultaneously under two different provisions for the same period,
  • whether such simultaneous levies resulted in a case of double jeopardy,
  • whether the levy was in violation of the Indian Contract Act, and
  • whether the levy was in violation of the Constitution of India.

4.2 All these issues, including the issue of the binding nature of an available decision of the High Court, were considered in the above discussed judgments by the Courts in delivering the conflicting verdicts. The Courts have touched upon most of these aspects and have provided their views on the same. As these views so provided are conflicting, an attempt is made to express some views on the subject and reconcile some of them.

4.3 The provisions of S. 234A, S. 234Band S. 243C, replaced the provisions of S. 139(8),S. 215 and S. 216 which provisions in the past postulated for payment of interest. The new provisions are in pari materia with the said provisions. The old provisions were held to be compensatory and not penal in nature. The Courts time and again confirmed that the old provisions could not be anything except compensatory in character. The only material difference in the two situations is that while the old provisions conferred power to waive or reduce the levy of interest, the new provisions make the levy automatic.

4.4 The rationale of levy of interest and penalty has been succinctly stated by the Apex Court in crr v. M. Chandra Sekhar, 151 ITR 433, while considering S. 139(8) of the Act, which is in pari materia with S. 234A in the following terms:

“Now, it will be apparent that delay in filing a return of income results in the postponement of payment of tax by the assessee, resulting in the State being deprived of a corresponding amount of revenue for the period of the delay. It seems that in order to compensate for the loss so occasioned, Parliament enacted the provision for payment of interest.”

4.5 Considering the basis for calculation, the period of calculation and nature thereof implies that interest levy is compensatory in nature. The amount on which the interest is calculated is the amount payable by the assessee towards tax, less the amount already paid by him. The amount of tax which ought to have been paid by the assessee but was not paid because of the non-filing or the delayed filing only can attract interest.

4.6 The golden rule of interpretation of a statute is that it should be read liberally where a statute is capable of two interpretations, the principles of just construction should be taken recourse to. The issue surely admits of two meanings as is clear from the different meanings that the Courts have placed upon it. There is a room here for diverse construction and the provision can be construed to be ambiguous and in the circumstances a construction that leads to a result that is more just can be adopted.

4.7 No loss of revenue is suffered inasmuch as tax has already been paid. Interest is payable either by way of compensation or damages.

4.8 The insertion of S. 271F providing for levy of penalty for delay in filing the return of income abundantly clarifies that the levy of interest u/ s.234 A is compensatory in nature as the penalty, if any, for the default in filing the return of income has been provided by S. 271F. Once this is established, it is easier to accept the view that no compensation can be demanded in the absence of loss of revenue where the taxes are paid leaving no basis for calculation of interest. Two different provisions operating in the same field in the same statute is a proposition difficult to comprehend. If the Government itself has thought of introducing a provision of law levying penalty, having regard to the fact that no such provision existed earlier it cannot be interpreted differently by the Department as it is bound by interpretation supplied by the memorandum reproduced hereafter.

4.9 The memorandum explaining the insertion of S. 271F explains the objective behind its introduction; 231 ITR 228 (St) :

“Providing for penalty for non-filing of returns of income – Under the existing provisions, no penalty is provided for failure to file return of income. The interest chargeable u/ s.234A of the Income-tax Act for not furnishing the return or furnishing the same after the due date is calculated on the basis of tax payable.”

4.10 On a bare reading of the provisions of S. 234A it will be clear that in determining the amount on which interest is leviable, the amount paid by way of advance tax is to be reduced. On a careful reading, it will be clear that the term advance tax for the purposes of S. 234A has not been defined. This is clear from a simple comparison with the provisions of S. 234B which also provides for a similar reduction for the advance tax paid which clarifies that such tax is the one that is referred to in S. 208 and S. 210. In the circumstances, it is possible to take a view that any tax which is paid before the due date of filing the return of income is paid in advance and therefore represented ‘advance tax’. At the same time a note requires to be taken of S. 2(1) which defines the advance tax to mean the tax payable in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-C. This conflict clearly establishes one thing and that is that the issue under consideration is debatable and in that view of the matter a view beneficial to the taxpayer requires to be adopted.

4.11 There also is a constitutionality angle to the issue that was examined by the Gujarat High Court specifically in Roshanlal [ain’s case. Whether Article 14 of the Constitution is violated in any manner, more so if it is found that the provisions of S. 234A provide for discriminatory treatment between persons of the same class placed in similar situations. In this connection the Court observed that a taxing statute enjoys a greater latitude and therefore it was difficult to uphold the proposition that the relevant part of S. 234A was unconstitutional. An inference in regard to contravention of Article 14 of the Constitution would, however, ordinarily be drawn if the provision sought to impose on the same class of persons similarly situated, a burden which led to inequality and the Court found that it was not so in the instant case. The assessee also in that case could not successfully contend that there was any unreasonable classification, considering the majority of assessees who comply with the statutory requirements.

4.12 Similarly the contention of the assessee, in Roshanlal [ain’s case, based on the provisions of S. 59 to S. 61 of the Indian Contract Act also could not carry the case of the assessee any further. The statutory scheme u/s.140A provides to make payment of tax and interest for the stated defaults before the return is filed and, therefore, to contend that the Assessing Officer could not have appropriated the amount paid towards interest did not merit acceptance. The Explanation U /ss.(l) of S. 140A specifically provides that where the amount paid by the assessee under the said sub-section falls short of the aggregate of the tax and interest payable U/ss.(l), the amount so paid shall first be adjusted towards the interest payable as aforesaid and the balance, if any, shall be adjusted towards the tax payable. In light of this specific provision under the Act, the general law under the Contract Act cannot be pressed into service by the assessee.

4.13 The views on the issue under consideration have been sharply divided and the conflict is strongly agitated by both the sides as is clear from the wide cleavage arising on account of the diametrically opposite views of the two High Courts. One must concede that both the views are tenable in law and the issue will continue to haunt the Courts unless the law is amended or the finality to the law is provided by a decision of the Apex Court. Sooner the better as the issue has an application to a very wide spectrum of taxpayers.

Authors’ note:

As we go to press, the Supreme Court in 309 ITR 231, has upheld the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Pronnoy Roy, on the ground that interest levied u/s.234A is compensatory in nature. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court, since the tax due had already been paid, which was not less than the tax payable on the returned income which was accepted, the question of levy of interest did not arise.

Revision u/s.264 — Additional Evidence

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 U/s.264 of the Income-tax Act, the Commissioner is
empowered to revise any order passed by an authority subordinate to him, either
of his own motion or on an application by the assessee for revision. Such
revision order is to be passed after calling for the record of the proceeding in
which the order has been passed, and making inquiry or causing inquiries to be
made.

1.2 The issue has come up before the Courts as to whether,
while considering an application for revision, the Commissioner can take into
account any material or evidence which was not placed before the Assessing
Officer or lower authority passing the order, or events subsequent to the order
sought to be revised.

1.3 While the Calcutta and Gujarat High Courts have taken the
view that the Commissioner can take into account such evidence, the Andhra
Pradesh High Court has taken a contrary view that the Commissioner can consider
only such evidence as was before the subordinate authority who has passed the
order sought to be revised.

2. Phool Lata Somani’s case :


2.1 The issue had arisen before the Calcutta High Court in
the case of Smt. Phool Lata Somani v. CIT, 276 ITR 216.

2.2 In this case, the assessee had made certain investments
in respect of which proof of investment had not been filed before the Assessing
Officer, not even during assessment proceedings. No deduction had therefore been
allowed by the Assessing Officer in respect of such investments.

2.3 The assessee filed a revision application to the
Commissioner u/s.264, claiming deduction in respect of such investment, and
furnished the particulars of investment along with the application for revision.
The Commissioner declined to entertain the revision application on the ground
that the assessee failed to produce the evidence relating to the investment made
by her before the Assessing Officer, despite an opportunity being given to do
so.

2.4 The assessee filed a writ petition before the High Court
challenging such rejection of her revision application. Before the High Court,
on behalf of the assessee it was claimed that the order of the Commissioner was
bad in law as the Commissioner failed to consider the scope and purview of S.
264, which is wider than the power vested u/s.263. It was claimed that the
Commissioner ought to have inquired into the matter as to whether the assessee
failed to produce evidence or furnish particulars. It was further pointed out
that the assessee produced copies of the document showing investments which are
required to be exempted and therefore all required particulars were furnished
with the application for revision. Though it was true that at the time of
assessment the assessee could not produce the document for a variety of reasons,
it was urged that in exercise of his plenary jurisdiction, the Commissioner
should have done justice by allowing the assessee to furnish the document so as
to get the exemption. According to the assessee, the term ‘records’ meant such
records as are available at the time of the decision of the Commissioner, not
limited to the records at the time of passing order by the Assessing Officer.

2.5 On behalf of the Revenue, it was argued before the Court
that the power u/s.264 was absolutely a discretionary power, and the
Commissioner, after having perused records and report furnished by the Assessing
Officer, thought it fit not to interfere with the order passed by the Assessing
Officer. According to the Revenue, the Commissioner in lawful exercise of
jurisdiction had found that the assessee was always a defaulter, and in spite of
opportunity being given, the documents of investment and particulars thereof
were not shown. As such, the Commissioner did not give a premium to the lapses
or laches of the assessee.

2.6 The Court noted the difference between the powers u/s.263
and those u/s.264, particularly the fact that while the power u/s.263 could not
be applied at the instance of the assessee or even at the instance of the
Revenue, but only by the Commissioner himself, the power u/s.264 could be
exercised by the Commissioner, either of his own motion or on an application by
the assessee. It noted that in the case before it, the assessee had made the
application. It was the duty coupled with the power of the Commissioner to make
an inquiry or call for records for inquiry.

2.7 According to the Calcutta High Court, this provision
could be invoked on the application of the assessee for his benefit or for
prejudice. Upon inquiry if it was found that the assessee had been prejudiced by
any order of the Assessing Officer, the Commissioner could undo such wrong with
this power by adopting appropriate, just and lawful measure. The Calcutta High
Court noted that the Kerala High Court had examined the scope of the power
u/s.264 in the case of Parekh Brothers v. CIT, 150 ITR 105. It had taken
the view that the regional power conferred on the Commissioner u/s.264 was very
wide, and that he had the discretion to grant or refuse relief and the power to
pass such order in revision as he thought fit. The discretion, which the
Commissioner had to exercise, was undoubtedly to be exercised judicially, not
arbitrarily according to his fancy.

2.8 Therefore, according to the Calcutta High Court, there
was nothing in S. 264 which placed a restriction on the Commissioner’s
revisional power to give relief to the assessee in a case where the assessee
detected mistakes after the assessment was completed, on account of which he was
over assessed. According to the Court, it was open to the Commissioner to
entertain even a new ground not urged before the lower authorities while
exercising revisional powers.

2.9 According to the Court, the Commissioner, instead of relying solely on the reports of the records of the case, should have made inquiry considering the documents placed before him by the assessee. At least this should have been reflected in the order that he had taken note on the date of making application of the revision, of the tax exempt investment. The Court was of the view that there could have been a variety of reasons for not producing evidence at the time of the assessment; this did not mean that the assessee was precluded from produc-ing evidence of contemporaneous nature at a later stage by filing an application for revision.

2.10 According to the Calcutta High Court, the power of the Commissioner u/ s.264 was to do justice, to prevent miscarriage of justice being rendered. From the records, it appeared that the assessee produced unimpeachable documents showing investment which was otherwise eligible to be taken note of for grant of deduction, and if it had been allowed by the Commissioner, then the assessee would not have suffered over-assessment.

2.11 The Calcutta High Court was therefore of the view that the Commissioner had unjustly refused to entertain the assessee’s application, and therefore the Court set aside the order of the Commissioner and remitted the matter back to the Commissioner for deciding the matter afresh on merits.

2.12 A similar view was taken by the Gujarat High Court in the case of Ramdev Exports v. CIT, 251 ITR 873. In this case, the assessee had not claimed deduction u/s.80HHC at the time when the returns were filed. The income returned by the assessee had been accepted by the Assessing Officer u/s.143(3), and therefore the Commissioner rejected the revision application without going into the merits of the deduction claimed. The Gujarat High Court set aside the order of the Commissioner, directing the Commissioner to reconsider the application on merits.

3. M. S. Raju’s  case:

3.1 The issue again came up recently for consideration before the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of M. S. Raju v. Dy. CIT, 216 CTR (AP) 203.

3.2 In this case, the assessee was a film producer, and certain damages of Rs 30 lakhs were claimed from him for late release of the film. These damages pertained to incomes which were offered to tax in AY. 2001-02, though the dispute arose after the end of the previous year and the amount was ultimately settled and paid after the end of the previous year.

3.3 The liability was not recorded in the accounts relating to AY. 2001-02, nor was there any reference to such amount in the audit report. The assessee however claimed deduction of such amount from its taxable income, which claim was rejected by the Assessing Officer.

3.4 The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the dis-allowance on the ground that the dispute continued till October 2001. The Tribunal held that the liability did not accrue during the relevant previous year, and therefore could not be allowed as a deduction.

3.5 For the A.Y. 2002-03, the assessee filed its return of income without claiming deduction of such damages. The assessment order was completed u/s.143(3) without any claim for such deduction. The assessee filed a revision application u/ s.264 before the Commissioner, requesting him to direct the Assessing Officer to allow deduction of Rs.30 lakhs paid as damages.

3.6 The Commissioner rejected the assessee’s revision application holding that the assessment order for A.Y. 2002-03 made no reference to any claim for deduction of Rs.30 lakhs having been made by the assessee, and that since no such issue arose in the assessment proceedings, the subject matter of the petition had no bearing on the assessment made for A.Y. 2002-03.

3.7 Before the Andhra Pradesh High Court, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that the Commis-sioner had refused to exercise jurisdiction merely on a technical ground, which had resulted in denial of a genuine deduction available to the assessee. It was further argued that the Assessing Officer, in his assessment order for A.Y. 2001-02, had accepted that the liability for compensation had arisen during the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2002-03, and that the Revenue could not now be permitted to totally deny the relief.

3.8 The Andhra  Pradesh High Court examined the provisions of S. 264 for the purpose of ascertaining whether the Commissioner was entitled to examine the question raised for the  first  time  before  him which did not form part of the record before the Assessing Officer or even part of the order of assessment. The Court noted the explanation to S. 263(1) substituted by the. Finance Act, 1988 with effect from 1st June 1988, which defined the word ‘record’ to include all records relating to any proceedings under the Act available at the time of examination by the Commissioner, and the absence of similar provision u/ s.264.

3.9 According to the Andhra Pradesh High Court, the omission to insert a similar definition of the word ‘record’ in S. 264, while inserting this defini-tion in S. 263, was significant. The Andhra Pradesh High Court expressed its inability to agree with the opinion of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Ramdev Exports (supra), since the conscious omis-sion by Parliament to insert a provision in S. 264 similar to explanation (b) of S. 263(1) was not
noticed by the Gujarat High Court. It also did not agree with the opinion of the learned Single Judge of the Calcutta High Court in Smt. Phool Lata Somani’s case.

3.10 The Andhra Pradesh High Court therefore held that the term ‘record’ u/s.264 was only the record of proceedings before the assessing authority, and as the assessee had not claimed any such deduction in the return filed before the assessing authority, he was held not to be entitled to raise this question for the first time in revision proceedings u/ s.264. The Andhra Pradesh High Court therefore dismissed the assessee’s writ petition.

4. Observations:

4.1 In the case of CRT v. Shree Manjunathesware Packing Products & Camphor Works, 231 ITR 53, in the context of S. 263, the Supreme Court held as under:

“It, therefore, cannot be said, as contended by learned counsel for the respondent, that the correct and settled legal position, with respect to the meaning of the word ‘record’ till 1st June 1988 was that it meant the record which was available to the ITO at the time of passing of the assessment order. Further, we did not think that such a narrow interpretation of the word ‘record’ was justified in view of the object of the provision and the nature and scope of the powers conferred upon the CIT. The revisional power conferred on the CIT u/ s.263 is of wide amplitude. It enables the CIT to call for and examine the record of any proceeding under the Act. It empowers the CIT to make or cause to be made such enquiry as he deems necessary in order to find out if any order passed by the AO is erroneous insofar as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. After examining the record and after making or causing to be made an inquiry if he considers the order to be erroneous, then he can pass the order thereon as the circumstances of the case justify. Obviously, as a result of the inquiry, he may come in possession of new material and he would be entitled to take the new material into account. If the material, which was not available to the ITO at the time he made the assessment, could thus be taken into consideration by the CIT after holding an enquiry, there is no reason why the material which has already come on record, though subsequent to the making of the assessment, cannot be taken into consideration by him. Moreover, in view of the clear words used in clause (b) of the explanation to S. 263(1), it has to be held that while calling for and examining the record of any proceeding u/s.263(1), it is and it was open to the CIT, not only to consider the record of that proceeding but also the record relating to that proceeding available to him at the time  of examination…….”

4.2 From the above observations of the Supreme Court, it is clear that the term ‘record’ has been held to include subsequent records as well, not only on account of the explanation, but on account of the scheme and purpose of S. 263.

4.3 The reason for insertion of the explanation to S. 263(1) was to overcome the issue of different Court decisions. The mere fact that no similar amendment was carried out to S. 264 does not mean that the term ‘record’ for that-Section has a totally different meaning. In the context of S. 264, there was no such controversy till the amendment to S. 263, and therefore no reason for any such amendment.

4.4 As  rightly observed by  the Calcutta and Gujarat High Courts, the purpose of S. 264 is to do justice to the assessee. If a technical and narrow view is taken of the record permitted to be considered by the Commissioner, it will result in a mis-carriage of justice, and defeat the very purpose of that Section.

4.5 As noted by the Supreme Court in the context . of S. 263, the very fact that even u/ s.264, the Commissioner is permitted not only to examine the record, but also to make enquiries, which could throw up additional facts, clearly indicates that he can consider all facts which are before him, and not merely the facts which were before the Assessing Officer. No purpose would be served by the Commissioner making enquiries if he is not allowed to consider the facts arising out of the enquiries.

4.6 Therefore, the ratio of the decisions of the Calcutta and Gujarat High Courts seem to represent the better view of the matter, that the Commissioner can  examine all the  facts  and  record before  him while  passing an order u/ s.264.

Power to examine the validity of search

1. Issue for consideration :1. Issue for consideration :

    1.1 S. 132 provides for the conduct of a search and seizure operation, by the specified person, under a warrant issued in consequence of information in his possession where he has a reason to believe, that the circumstances specified in S. 132 for conduct of search exist.

    1.2 An assessment of the person being searched is made u/s.153A to S. 153C of the Act in cases of search conducted on or after 1-6-2003, which in the past was completed under Chapter XIVB in consequence of search up to 31-5-2003.

    1.3 S. 246A provides for an appeal, before the CIT(A), against such an assessment made in consequence of a search and S. 253 provides for second appeal before the ITAT.

    1.4 It is often that the person being searched challenges, in appeal, the validity of the search action, by contesting the adequacy of reasons, or, at times the very existence thereof. In such cases, the issue that often arises for consideration is about the power of the ITAT to examine the validity of a search action.

    1.5 One school of thought holds that the ITAT being a quasi-judicial authority is not empowered to sit in judgment on the validity of the action of an Income-tax authority issuing the warrant, against whose action no specific appeal is provided in the Act. The other school upholds the power of the ITAT to question the validity of a search action.

    1.6 The issue has been examined recently by two courts delivering conflicting decisions requiring us to take a note of the same.

2. Chitra Devi Soni’s case, 313 ITR 174 (Raj.) :

    2.1 In Chitra Devi Soni, 313 ITR 174 (Raj.), the assessee, Chitra Devi, filed an appeal before the Tribunal challenging the validity of the assessment order on the ground that the said order was violative of the principles of natural justice. The assessee contended that the assessment order was bad in law for the reason that the same was passed merely on the surmises and beliefs of the authority without being in possession of any material as was required u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act. According to the assessee, there was no material with the Director to form the belief as was required under the provisions of S. 132(1) and in the absence of any material to this effect, the assessment order passed was not maintainable and, therefore, the assessment order deserved to be set aside.

    2.2 The Tribunal in appeal had adjudicated the said issue, after referring to the various judgments on the subject concerning the Tribunal’s jurisdiction to examine the validity of the authorisation when the same was challenged before the Tribunal.

    2.3 The Tribunal noting the failure of the Revenue authorities to produce the records, held that the search action was invalid in the absence of an authorisation. It held that an authorisation for search was sine qua non for the purpose of passing the order of assessment by the assessing authority and in the case before it, even the factum of authorisation based on reasons had not come on record. In those circumstances, the Tribunal passed the order to the effect that search was not valid and consequentially, the block assessment was held to be illegal.

    2.4 In the above background, the Revenue raised the following question in appeal before the High Court. “Whether for having recourse to assessment for the block period under Chapter XIV-B, a valid search u/s.132 is a condition precedent and mere fact of search is not enough to give jurisdiction to the Assessing Officer to have recourse to the provisions under Chapter XIV-B ? If so, whether, in the facts and circumstances of the present case the Tribunal was right to hold that the search conducted in the present case was invalid ?”

    2.5 The Revenue contended before the Rajasthan High Court that the Tribunal could not look into the validity of the search, conducted under the provisions of S. 132 of the Income-tax Act. It was urged that the Tribunal had no jurisdiction or competence to look into this aspect, and therefore, the judgment rendered by the Tribunal was without jurisdiction and went beyond its competence and the Tribunal had no power to declare a search to be illegal or to be invalid.

    2.6 In reply, the assessee submitted that when the basic foundation, i.e., the authorisation for search issued on the basis of the reasons was not in existence, then the Tribunal had no option but to hold that assessment of the block period was illegal and that the search was without valid authorisaton.

    2.7 It was explained to the Court that for a valid block assessment, it was necessary that a search was conducted u/s.132 and for conducting such search, authorisation was required to be given only where the concerned authority had reasons to believe that there existed circumstances enumerated in clauses (a) to (c) of S. 132(1), and in the absence of authorisation based on such reasons, the block assessment itself could not be made.

2.8 The Court took note of the provisions of Chapter XIB and of S. 132 and observed that a bare reading thereof left the Court in no manner of doubt, in view of the use of word ‘then’, that the act of authorising a search had of necessity to be preceded by the existence of reason based on material in possession of the authority. In other words, existence of reason to believe, in consequence of information in possession of the officer was the sine qua non to entitle the authority to issue an authorisation as required by S. 132. It was obvious to the Court that on dissatisfaction of the abovementioned requirements of law, there could possibly be no authorisation, irrespective of the fact that it might have been made and issued and in turn if any search was conducted in pursuance of such an authorisation issued in the absence of requisite sine qua non, the search could not be said to be a ‘search’ u/s.132 of the Act, as contemplated by the provisions of S. 158B of the Act.

2.9 The Court held that the issue of an authorisation based on the reasons recorded in turn on the basis of the material available went to the root of the matter concerning the jurisdiction of the assessing authority to proceed under Chapter XIV-B and in that view of the matter, the Tribunal was very much justified, and had jurisdiction to go into the question as to whether the search was conducted consequent upon the authorisation having been issued in the background of the existence of eventualities and material mentioned in S. 132(1). In the end the Court observed that it was conscious of the fact that it was not open for the Court to go into the question of sufficiency of the reasons on the basis of which the competent authority might have had entertained the reason to believe the existence of one or more of the eventualities under clauses (a) to (c) but then the question as to whether there at all existed any material to entertain the reason to believe, even purportedly, consequent upon information in his possession, with the competent authority was the matter which could definitely be looked into by the Tribunal so also by the Court as the absence thereof would vitiate the entire action.

3. Paras Rice Mills’ case:

3.1 In the case of Paras Rice Mills, 313 ITR 182 (P &H), a search and seizure action u/s.132(1) of the Act was carried out on September 26, 1995, at the business premises of the assessee and the assessment u/s.158BC was completed in consequence of the said search. The assessee preferred an appeal and also raised grounds contesting the validity of search. The Tribunal held that the search and seizure was illegal as no material was produced before the Tribunal to show that the requirements of S. 132(1) of the Act were complied with.

3.2 The Revenue in an appeal before the High Court raised the following question for consideration of the Punjab & Haryana High Court. “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was right in law in deciding to go into the validity of the action taken u/s.132(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”

3.3 The Revenue contended that the Tribunal acted beyond its jurisdiction in deciding the issue of validity of the action by relying upon the judgments of the Delhi Tribunal in Virinder Bhatia, 79 ITD 340 and of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in Gaya Prasad Pathak, 290 ITR 128.

3.4 In reply, the assessee claimed that the Tribunal had the power to examine the validity of the search and in support of their claim relied on the judgment of the Rajasthan High Court in Smt. Chitra Devi Soni, 313 ITR 174 and also a judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Raj Kumar Gupta (ITA No. 50 of 2002 passed on August 21, 2003).

3.5 The Delhi High Court expressed their agreement with the view taken by the Delhi Tribunal in Virinder Bhatia, 79 ITD 340 and the Madhya Pradesh High Court in Gaya Prasad Pathak, 290 ITR 128 and for the same reason, respectfully disagreed with the view taken by the Rajasthan High Court in Smt. Chitra Devi Soni, 313 ITR 174 and observed that the judgment of the Court  in Raj Kumar  Gupta’s case (supra) did  not deal with the issue of scope of the assessing authority and power of the Tribunal to go into the question of validity of search.

3.6 The Court held that the Tribunal when hearing an appeal against the order of assessment could not go into the question of validity or otherwise of any administrative decision for conducting the search and seizure which might be the subject matter of challenge in independent proceedings where the question of validity or otherwise of administrative order could be gone into. The appellate authority in the opinion of the court was concerned with correctness or otherwise of the assessment, only.

4. Observations:

4.1 It is puzzling for an ordinary mind to question the power of the Tribunal to examine the validity of a search action u/s.132, where the Tribunal’s power to otherwise deal with the validity of an assessment, reassessment or revision under the Income-tax Act is accepted without batting an eyelid. Like reassessment or revision, a search also is authorised by one of specified authorities and it becomes difficult to conceive as to how these acts are different in nature so that one is capable of being tried by the ITAT and the other is not.

4.2 On the first blush, it may appear to be obvious to side with the view of the Rajasthan High Court holding that the Tribunal is vested with the power to examine the validity or otherwise of the search action but on deeper examination of the fact one needs to concede that the case of the revenue also deserves due consideration as the same is also found on the edifice of sound reasoning.

4.3 A right of an appeal is not an inherent right but is derived form statute which in the present case is under S. 246A and S. 253. An appeal lies only in cases where the circumstances listed in these sections exist failing which no appeal can lie. On a reading of these provisions, one would agree that they do not specifically provide for an appeal against the action of the authority issuing a search warrant. There is no provision permitting a person being searched to challenge the act of the authority issuing the search warrant before any other Income-tax authority like CIT(A) or the quasi-judicial authority like Tribunal. The only remedy is to approach the Courts, under the writ jurisdiction, vested under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India, for challenging the validity of the search action. Relying on this understanding the Revenue authorities including the Courts have taken a view that it is not possible for the Tribunal to examine the validity of the search action.

4.4 It is in the context of what is stated above that the MP High Court in Gaya Prasad Pathak, CIT, 290 ITR 128, in an appeal against the third member order of the Tribunal concerning itself with S. 132A, observed that the jurisdiction exercised by the statutory authority while hearing the appeal could not extend to the examination of the justifiability of an action u/s.132A of the Act. That a search warrant issued by the Commissioner was without jurisdiction or not could not be the subject ma tter of assessment as the same did not arise in the course of assessment and therefore, neither the Assessing Officer nor the Appellate authority could dwell upon the said facet as the same was not a jurisdictional fact within the parameters of assessment proceeding or of an appeal arising therefrom where the scope was restricted to adjudication of the fact to the limited extent as to whether such search and seizure had taken place and what had been found during the search and seizure. The validity of search and seizure, in the considered opinion of the Court, was neither jurisdictional fact nor adjudicatory fact and therefore, the same could not be dwelt upon or delved into in an appeal.

4.5 A note also deserves to be taken of the decision of the Special Bench of the Delhi ITAT in the case of Promain Ltd. 95 ITD 489 wherein it has been held that the Tribunal appointed under the Income-tax Act does not have the power to examine the validity of a search action conducted u/s.132 or u/ s.132A while disposing of appeal against the order of block assessment.

4.6 Having noted the case of the Revenue, let us also appreciate the case of the taxpayer which also is founded on the strong base if not stronger than the Revenue’s base. On a careful observation of the provisions of Chapter XIVB as also S. 153A to S. 153C, it is noticed that a search assessment for the block period is made possible in cases where a search action u/s.132 or u/s.132A has taken place. It is only when the AO is satisfied about the fact of the search that he derives a jurisdiction to make a search assessment and it is at this stage that the authority vested with the power to make a search assessment has to satisfy himself about the validity of the search howsoever limited its scope is. Any failure by this authority to satisfy himself can be a subject matter of appeal before the CIT(A) and the tribunal and it is for this reason that the Appellate authority and with respect, an assessing authority has the power to examine whether the prima facie requirements for issue of a search authorisation were present or not.

4.7 An act of issuing a search warrant is an act carried out by the authority appointed under the Act which provides the very source on the basis of which a search assessment for the block period is carried out and it will be fair to subject such an act to examination by an appellate authority in cases where an appeal is filed against the order made on the basis of the presumption of a valid search. The power of a search assessment is derived only form an action u/s.132 or u/s.132A and in that view of the matter it is just to subject the same to the scrutiny of the appellate authorities otherwise empowered to examine the whole canvass of assessment that is springing form the search.

4.8 Article 323 of the Constitution of India lends the source for setting up of a Tribunal including ITAT. The said Article, vide clause 2(i) provides for power to examine material incidental to assessment by the Tribunal. It is this power that should empower the ITAT to examine the reasons and the validity of search.
 
4.9 It is true that the ITAT, being the creature of the Income-tax Act, derives its power under the statute and therefore its powers should be circum-scribed to those which are specifically vested in it by the Act. In our opinion, there is no reason to restrict the power of the ITAT where it is otherwise empowered to examine the validity of assessment.

Needless to say that when an Appellate authority is required to look into the validity of an assessment whose foundation is based on a single act, in this case a search action, it per force is required to examine the source material leading to such an assessment.

4.10 Initiating a search is an administrative action with dire consequences and therefore attracts principles of natural justice not only requiring but empowering the ITAT to examine the source material for search and its validity. Please see Rajesh Kumar, 287 ITR 91 (SC).

4.11 To contest such a scrutiny power of an Appellate authority only on the ground that as the AO does not have power to do so, the same cannot be done by the Appellate authorities as well is not in keeping with the prevailing times.

4.12 While two diametrically opposite views, genuinely possible, on the subject are considered, it will be fair and just and also equitable to read the power of examining validity of the Tribunal while interpreting its power u/s.253 and such reading will support the principles of natural justice instead of , frustrating it. Till such time a consensus of judicial opinion is achieved, an aggrieved person is advised to explore the possibility of approaching the High Court under Article 226 for suitable remedy which though costly may be expeditious.

S. 14A WHERE NO EXPENDITURE INCURRED

1.  Issue for consideration:
  S. 14A
provides for disallowance of an expenditure incurred in relation to an
income which does not form part of the total income under the Act.
Ss.(1) of the said Section reads as under:
  “For the purposes of
computing the total income under this Chapter, no deduction shall be
allowed in respect of expenditure incurred by the assessee in relation
to income which does not form part of the total income under this Act.”

 
Ss.(2) and Ss.(3) inserted by the Finance Act, 2006 w.e.f. 1-4-2007,
are held to be prospectively applicable w.e.f. A.Y. 2007-08 by the
Bombay High Court in the case of Godrej and Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd., 328 ITR
81. These provisions provide for the manner of determination of the
amount of expenditure liable for disallowance in accordance with the
prescribed method and vests the government with the power to prescribe
the rules for computation. In pursuance of this power, Rule 8D has been
introduced by Notification dated 24-3-2008 which is held to be
prospectively applicable from A.Y. 2008-09 onwards, by the said decision
in the case of Godrej and Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. (supra).

  Ss.(3)
of the said Section provides that the provisions of Ss.(2) shall apply
even in cases where an assessee claims that no expenditure has been
incurred by him in relation to an exempt income.

 The Punjab and
Haryana High Court in some of the cases has held that no disallowance
u/s.14A was possible where the nexus between the expenditure claimed and
the exempt income was not established and where there was no finding by
the AO, of the assessee having incurred expenditure for earning an
exempt income. This finding of the Punjab and Haryana High Court
requires to be tested and considered afresh in view of the observations
of the Bombay High Court in its recent decision.

2.  Hero Cycles Ltd.’s case:

 
In CIT v. Hero Cycles Ltd., 323 ITR 518 (P & H), the Revenue for
the A.Y. 2004-05 raised the following substantial question of law:
 
“Whether on the facts and in law, the Tribunal was legally justified in
deleting the disallowance of Rs.3,48,04,375 u/s.14A of the Income-tax
Act, 1961 by ignoring the evidence relied on by the AO and holding that a
clear nexus has not been established that the interest-bearing funds
have been vested for investments generating tax-free dividend income?”

 
In that case, the assessee was engaged in manufacturing of cycles and
parts of two-wheelers in multiple units. It earned dividend income,
which was exempted u/s.10(34) and u/s.(35). The AO made an inquiry
whether any expenditure was incurred for earning this income and as a
result of the said inquiry addition was made by way of disallowance
u/s.14A(3), which was partly upheld by the CIT(A). The Tribunal held
that there was no nexus with the expenditure incurred and the income
generated and recorded as under:

“We have perused the same and
find that the plea of the assessee that the entire investments have been
made out of the dividend proceeds, sale proceeds, debenture redemption,
etc., is borne out of record. In fact the CIT(A) has also come to a
categorical finding that insofar as other units are concerned, none of
their funds have been utilised to make the investments in question. One
aspect which is evident that the interest income earned by the main
unit, Ludhiana, exceeds the expenditure by way of interest incurred by
it, thus obviating the application of S. 14A of the Act. Even with
regard to the funds of the main unit, Ludhiana the funds flow position
explained shows that only the non-interest bearing funds have been
utilised for making the investments. At pp. 3 to 6 of the paper book are
placed the details of the bank accounts, wherein the amount of
dividend, sale proceeds of shares, debenture redemption, etc. have been
received and later on invested in the investments in question. Such
funds are ostensibly without any burden of interest expenditure. Thus,
on facts we do not find any evidence to show that the assessee has
incurred interest expenditure in relation to earning the tax-exempt
income in question. We find that all the details in question were
produced before the AO and the CIT(A) also. The entire evidence in this
regard, which is submitted before the lower authorities have been
compiled in the paper book, to which we have already adverted to in the
earlier part of the order. Therefore, merely because the assessee has
incurred interest expenditure on funds borrowed in the main unit,
Ludhiana, it would not ipso facto invite the disallowance u/s.14A,
unless there is evidence to show that such interest-bearing funds have
been invested in the investments which have generated the ‘tax-exempt
dividend income’. As noted earlier, there is no nexus established by the
Revenue in this regard and therefore, on a mere presumption, the
provisions of S. 14A cannot be applied. Thus, we find that the CIT(A)
erred in partly sustaining the addition. In fact, in the absence of such
nexus, the entire addition made was required to be deleted. We
accordingly hold so.”

  The counsel for the Revenue relied upon
S. 14A(3) and Rule 8D(1)(b) to submit that even where the assessee
claimed that no expenditure had been incurred, the correctness of such
claim could be gone into by the AO and in the present case, the claim of
the assessee that no expenditure was incurred was found to be not
acceptable by the AO and thus disallowance was justified.  

The
Court was unable to accept the submission in view of finding that the
expenditure on interest was set off against the income from interest and
the investments in the shares and mutual funds were out of the dividend
proceeds. In view of this finding of fact, the High Court held that
disallowance u/s.14A was not sustainable. It observed that whether, in a
given situation, any expenditure was incurred which was to be
disallowed, was a question of fact. The Court rejected the contention of
the Revenue that directly or indirectly some expenditure was always
incurred which must be disallowed u/s.14A, and the expenditure so
incurred could not be allowed to be set off against the business income
which may nullify the mandate of S. 14A. It held that the disallowance
u/s.14A required finding of incurring of expenditure; where it was found
that, for earning exempted income, no expenditure had been incurred,
disallowance u/s.14A could not stand. In the case before the Court, the
finding on this aspect, against the Revenue, was not shown to be
perverse. Consequently, disallowance was held to be not permissible. The
Court relied upon the view earlier taken by the Court in IT Appeal No.
504 of 2008, CIT v. Winsome Textile Industries Ltd., decided on 25th
August, 2009, wherein it was observed as under :

  “Contention
raised on behalf of the Revenue is that even if the assessee had made
investment in shares out of its own funds, the assessee had taken loans
on which interest was paid and all the money available with the assessee
was in common kitty, as held by this Court in CIT v. Abhishek
Industries Ltd., (2006) 205 CTR (P&H) 304; (2006) 286 ITR 1
(P&H) and therefore, disallowance u/s.14A was justified. We do not
find any merit in this submission. Judgment of this Court in Abhishek
Industries (supra) was on the issue of allowability of interest paid on
loans given to sister concerns, without interest. It was held that
deduction for interest was permissible when loan was taken for business
purpose and not for diverting the same to sister concern without having
nexus with the business. Observations made therein have to be read in
that context. In the present case, admittedly, the assessee did not make
any claim for exemption. In such a situation, S. 14A could have no
application.”

  The Punjab and Haryana High Court held that no
substantial question of law arose for consideration in the appeal filed
by the Revenue.

  3.  Godrej and Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd.’s case:
 
The issue of disallowance u/s.14A was recently examined in detail by
the Bombay High Court in the case of Godrej and Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. v.
CIT, 328 ITR 81. In that case the assessee had claimed a dividend of
Rs.34.34 crore as exempt from the total taxable income u/s.10(33) for
A.Y. 2002-03 by claiming that no expenditure was incurred in relation to
the said dividend income. The AO was of the view that if the assessee
had not made investments in these securities, it would not have been
required to borrow funds to that extent and consequently, the interest
burden could have been reduced. On this basis, the AO concluded that a
part of the interest payment of Rs.51.71 crore, claimed as deduction,
pertained to funds utilised for the purpose of investment in shares to
the extent of Rs.6.92 crore and disallowed the said amount by resorting
to the provisions of S. 14A. The CIT(A) relying on the decisions for the
earlier years held that no expenditure was incurred for earning the
dividend income. The Tribunal however restored the matter to the file of
the Assessing Officer to verify whether any expenditure besides
interest was incurred for the year in relation to the said dividend
income.

  On the above facts, several questions were raised for
consideration of the High Court by the company, which inter alia
required the Court to examine the need for establishing the nexus of an
expenditure claimed with that of the exempt income.

  It was
contented by the company in the context that no expenditure was incurred
by it in relation to the said dividend income and the interest claimed
by it pertained to earning of the taxable income and that the investment
in shares on which dividend was received was made out of own funds and
therefore no disallowance was possible u/s.14A read with or without Rule
8D. It was further contended that the Tribunal was in error in
restoring the matter back to the file of the Assessing Officer for
examining the facts afresh, as the facts during the year were the same
as were prevailing in the earlier years for which the disallowance was
deleted.

  The Revenue countered the contentions of the company
by stating that the provisions of S. 14A, in particular of Ss.(3), were
applicable to the case of a company where a claim was made by the
company that no expenditure was incurred by the company in relation to
the said dividend income.  The Bombay High Court, in the context,
observed in paragraphs 25 and 69 to 73 of the judgment that once the
Assessing Officer was satisfied about the fact that some expenditure was
incurred in relation to the income not included in the total income, it
was mandatory for him to disallow an appropriate amount computed under
Rule 8D. It noted that Ss.(3) covered a case where the assessee claimed
that no expenditure was made in relation to the concerned income. The
Court held that the claim of the assessee that no expenditure was
incurred was required to be examined by the Assessing Officer,
irrespective of the finding of fact in earlier year that investment in
the shares was made out of the company’s own funds, inasmuch as some
expenditure besides interest could have been incurred and such a
possibility was not examined by the Assessing Officer. Lastly, the Court
held that irrespective of Rule 8D, the Assessing Officer was entitled
to apportion an indirect expenditure by virtue of S. 14A (1) itself and
once a proximate nexus was established, a disallowance by resorting to
apportionment of an expenditure claimed was permissible in law.

  4.  Observations:
 
The decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court was for A.Y.
2004-05, while that of the Bombay High Court was for A.Y. 2002-03.
Admittedly, the benefit of the provisions of S. 14A(2) and (3) and Rule
8D was not available to the Courts, where those provisions are accepted
to be prospective in their application. Under the circumstances,
irrespective of the relevance of the issue being examined for and from
A.Y. 2008-09, the same would continue to be relevant for assessment
years up to A.Y. 2007-08. Accordingly, for a valid disallowance for
those years, the Assessing Officer should have established that an
expenditure was incurred for earning the income not included in the
total income and should have further established nexus of such
expenditure to the income not included in the total income. The issue,
in our opinion, however continues to be relevant even for A.Y. 2008-09
and onwards.

  It is true that Ss.(3) provides expressly for
applicability of S. 14A even in cases where an assessee claims that no
expenditure has been incurred. But then, it is equally true that Ss.(2)
specifically provides that an AO shall proceed to determine the amount
of disallowance only if he is not satisfied with the correctness of the
claim of the assessee that no expenditure was incurred by him in
relation to an exempt income. In doing so, the Assessing Officer shall
be required to establish the nexus of the expenditure sought to be
disallowed with the income not included in total income before
quantifying the disallowance as per Rule 8D.

  Even the Bombay
High Court in Godrej & Boyce’s case (supra) has confirmed that
satisfaction of the AO is an essential pre-condition for applicability
of S. 14A and of Rule 8D and it is for achieving this satisfaction that
the Court restored the case to the file of the Assessing Officer. In
fact, even Rule 8D requires such satisfaction by the AO before
permitting him to compute the amount of disallowance.

  The stand
of the Income-tax Department that applicability of the formula under
Rule 8D is irrespective of absence of expenditure and that a
disallowance of an amount computed as per Rule 8D is mandatory, appears
to be incorrect. Irrespective of the assessment year involved, the
finding by the AO that some expenditure in relation to an exempt income
was incurred by the assessee would be essential for invoking the
provisions of S. 14A, more so, in cases where an assessee has claimed
that he has not incurred any expenditure. It is in the context of the
continued validity of this proposition, that the case for reading down
clause (iii) of sub-rule (2) of Rule 8D continues to be meritorious, as
the said clause (iii) provides for an ad-hoc disallowance independent of
nexus of an expenditure sought to be disallowed to an income not
included in the total income.

  It will be equally incorrect for
the Income-tax Department to solely rely on the provisions of Clause
(iii) of sub-Rule (2) of Rule 8D to advance the case of disallowance by
stating that the amount computed thereunder is deemed to be an
expenditure incurred in relation to an exempt income. The need for nexus
continues to be of relevance. Further, it is well settled that a rule
cannot travel beyond the provisions of the Section under which it falls.

 
The decisions of the Punjab & Haryana High Court, to the effect
that S. 14A requires a finding by the AO of having incurred some
expenditure before the disallowance can be made, continues to be of
significant relevance.

Reopening of a block assessment

1. Issue for consideration :

    1.1 Chapter XIV-B, inserted in the Income-tax Act, 1961 by the Finance Act, 1995 w.e.f. 1-7-1995, provides for a special assessment procedure for taxing an undisclosed income detected as a result of a search action u/s.132 that took place on or after 1st July, 1995 but before 31st May, 2003.

    1.2 The chapter contains complete mechanism for computation and assessment of the total undisclosed income of the block period and includes mechanisms for filing of a return of income, issue of a notice, payment of taxes, interest and penalty. The chapter, as considered by the Courts, is a code by itself.

    1.3 The regular income, i.e., the disclosed income of the block period continues to be governed by the general provisions of the Income-tax Act including those providing for regular assessment of such income.

    1.4 The provisions for special assessment, under Chapter XIV-B, of undisclosed income and that for regular assessment u/s.143(3), operate in different fields and run parallel to each other for assessment of income of an year; one for taxing an undisclosed income, while the other for bringing to tax a disclosed income.

    1.5 Chapter XIV-B also provides for an application of all those provisions of the Act other than those that are specifically differentiated under Chapter XIV-B. In other words, unless otherwise provided in Chapter XIVB, the provisions contained in general law of the Act will apply to the assessment of an undisclosed income even for a block period, except in cases where the chapter provides for any specific departure from the general provisions of the Act by specially providing a different course.

    1.6 An interesting issue that arises, in the context, is about the possibility of reopening a block assessment made under Chapter XIVB and the consequent reassessment of the undisclosed income of the block period. The Courts have been asked to examine the possibility of application of provisions of S. 147 and S. 148 for reopening of a completed block assessment. While the Gujarat High Court finds it to be not possible, the Gauhati High Court has held that it is possible to reopen a completed block assessment.

2. Cargo Clearing Agency (Gujarat)’s case, 307 ITR 1 (Guj.) :

    2.1 In the case of CIT v. Cargo Clearing Agency (Gujarat), 307 ITR 1, certain loose papers were found and seized during the search proceedings u/s.132 of the Act from the residential premises of one of the erstwhile partners of the petitioner-firm and his statement was recorded. An order u/s.158BD of the Act was made on a total income of Rs.40,50,900 after taking approval of the Commissioner of Income-tax, Rajkot for the block period in the status of AOP pursuant to the return of income for the block period filed showing a total undisclosed income at Rs.30,00,000. The assessment was made after various details and explanation were called for, vide notice issued under Chapter XIVB.

    2.2 Subsequently a notice u/s.148 of the Act was issued seeking to reassess the income for the block period by stating that there was a reason to believe that the income for the block period had escaped assessment within the meaning of S. 147 of the Act and that the notice was issued after obtaining the necessary satisfaction of the Commissioner. In spite of repeated letters asking for the reasons recorded u/s.148(2) of the Act, the same were not supplied. In a correspondence addressed to one of the ex-partners it was stated that it was not obligatory to supply reasons recorded and the addressee was directed to file return immediately. It is at this stage that the petitioner had approached the Court challenging the impugned notice issued u/s.148 of the Act.

    2.3 The principal issue raised in the petition was whether it was open to the assessing authority to issue notice u/s.148 of the Act in respect of an assessment framed for a block period under Chapter XIVB of the Act.

    2.4 On behalf of the petitioners, it was contended that S. 147 of the Act permitted an Assessing Officer to reassess an income which had escaped assessment for any assessment year. Emphasising the language of the provision, it was contended that an assessment Chapter XIB was not in respect of any assessment year but was for the block of years and as such it was impossible for the Assessing Officer to form a belief that any income chargeable to tax for any assessment year had escaped assessment.

    2.5 Based on the provisions of S. 147 of the Act and the proviso therein it was submitted that the scheme would fail in the case of assessment for the block period as the limitation u/s.147 that has been prescribed for issuance of notice has been reckoned from the end of a particular assessment year and as such it was not possible to specify the assessment year, in the case of a block assessment, from the end of which the time limit could be computed.

    2.6 The provisions of S. 151 and S. 153 of the Act were also relied upon by the petitioners to point out that the condition for obtaining the sanction of the higher authority as provided by S. 151 of the Act in cases where four years had expired from the relevant assessment year could not be complied with and fulfilled, as in respect of the block period there was no relevant assessment year w.r.t which the time limit could be observed. Similarly, S. 153 of the Act also provided different period of limitation as against the provisions of S. 158BE of the Act which provides for time limit for completion of block assessment.

    2.7 It was also contended that the order of block assessment was passed after the approval of the Commissioner and therefore a reopening with the sanction of the subordinate authority was bad in law.

    2.8 On behalf of the Revenue, it was submitted that S. 158BH of the Act specifically provided that save as otherwise provided in Chapter XIVB, all other provisions of the Act shall apply to assessment made under Chapter XIVB. It was, therefore, contended that when one considered the definition of ‘block period’ as provided in S. 158B(a) of the Act, it was clear that the said term covered the period comprising previous years relevant to 10/6 assessment years preceding the previous year in which the search was conducted u/s.132 of the Act and therefore, wherever the words ‘assessment year’ appeared in Chapter XIV of the Act relating to procedure for assessment, the term ’block period’ had to be read in the place of ‘assessment year’ to make the scheme workable.

2.9 Referring to Ss.(2) of S. 158BA of the Act, it was submitted for the Revenue that for the purpose of charging tax not only S. 113 of the Act was mate-rial, but even S. 4 had to be considered as laid down by the Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Suresh N. Gupta, 297 ITR 322. It was submitted that the Apex Court has considered the entire scheme of Chapter XIVB of the Act and had come to the conclusion that computation of undisclosed income had to be made u/s. 158BB in the manner provided in Chapter IV of the Act and therefore, the application of the said Chapter was not ruled out by the provisions of Chapter XIVB of the Act; that non obstante clause appearing in S. 158BA of the Act had to be read in juxtaposition with S. 158BH of the Act; that the concepts of ‘previous year’ and ‘total income’ were retained in Chapter XIVB of the Act and, therefore, ap-plication of Chapter XIV of the Act could not be ruled out from the block assessment procedure.

2.10 To begin with, the Gujarat High Court observed that in the aforesaid circumstances, when one considered the entire scheme relating to procedure for assessment/reassessment as laid down in the group of Sections from S. 147 to S. 153 of the Act and compared the same with special procedure for assessment of search cases under Chapter XIVB of the Act, it became apparent that the normal procedure laid down in Chapter XIV of the Act had been given a go by when Chapter XIVB of the Act itself laid down that the said Chapter provided for a special procedure for assessment of search cases and the stand of the Revenue that S. 158BH of the Act permitted all other provisions of the Act to apply to assessment made under Chapter XIVB of the Act did not merit acceptance.

2.11 The Apex Court decision, the Court proceeded further, on which great emphasis has been placed on behalf of the Revenue in fact went on to support the view adopted by the petitioner. The Court noted that the controversy before the Apex Court was in relation to the rate of tax which was to be applied to the undisclosed income assessed in terms of Chapter XIVB of the Act and the Apex Court in that case was concerned mainly with computation of undisclosed income u/s.158BB(1) of the Act. The Gujarat High Court pointed out that it had already noticed that S. 158BH of the Act provided for invoking other machinery provisions to an assessment made under Chapter XIVB of the Act which did not require other provisions of the Act to be applied to a block assessment to be made under Chapter XIVB of the Act.

2.12 The Apex Court decision, the Court further noted, also provided for a harmonious construction on the basis of reading of the mode of computation provided in Chapter IV of the Act and provided under Chapter XIVB of the Act by stating that S. 158BH inter alia, provided that other provisions of the Act should apply if there was no conflict between the provisions of Chapter XIVB of the Act and other provisions of the Act. The Court further noted that in a situation where there was a conflict between the provisions of block assessment procedure prescribed under Chapter XIVB of the Act and other provisions of the Act, it would be the special procedure prescribed under Chapter XIVB of the Act which had to prevail.

2.13 The Court further noted that the entire scheme under Chapter XIV of the Act, more particularly from S. 147 to S. 153 of the Act pertaining to reassessment and the special procedure for assessing the undisclosed income of the block period under Chapter XIVB of the Act, were separate and distinct from each other and in the circumstances, as per the established rules of interpretation, unless and until a plain reading of the two streams of assessment procedure did not result in the procedures being independently workable, only then the question of resolving the conflict would arise; to the contrary, in the present case, in the light of the provisions of S. 158BH of the Act, once there was a conflict between the two streams of procedure, as laid down by the Apex Court, the provisions of Chapter XIVB of the Act shall prevail and have primacy.

2.14 Thus, viewed from any angle, the Court held, the stand of the Revenue did not merit acceptance. Once assessment had been framed u/s.158BA of the Act in relation to undisclosed income from the block period as a result of search there was no question of the Assessing Officer issuing notice u/s.148 of the Act for reopening such assessment as the said concept was abhorrent to the special scheme of assessment of undisclosed income for block period. At the cost of repetition it was required to be stated and emphasised that the first proviso u/d 158BC(a) of the Act specifically provided that no notice u/s.148 of the Act was required to be issued for the purpose of proceeding under Chapter XIVB of the Act.
 
Peerchand Ratanlal Baid (HUF)’s case :

3.1 The brief facts in the case of CIT v. Peerchand Ratanlal Baid (HUF), 226 CTR 189 (Gau.) were that a search in the Baid Group of Companies had taken place u/s.132 in the year 1995 . The assessee, a HUF, as the proprietor of one of the group companies, filed the return for the block period 1986-87 to 1996-97 showing undisclosed income of Rs.60 lakhs. The assessment was completed u/s.158BC of the Act, determining an undisclosed income of Rs.1,17,25,416. The assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal against the aforesaid order of assessment which was partly allowed and the undisclosed income for the block period was revised to Rs.24,37,850. Subsequently it was found that some of the documents seized in the case of another group company i.e., M/s. Baid Commercial Enterprises, for the same block period i.e., 1986-87 to 1996-97, pertained to the assessee. Accordingly, the AO initiated the proceedings for reopening asking the assessee to explain why the amount of Rs.59,18,246 covered by the aforesaid seized documents or any part thereof should not be added to the total undisclosed income of the assessee for the block period. The explanation given by the assessee having been found to be unsatisfactory the AO added a sum of Rs.13,66,715 to the undisclosed income of the assessee for the block period revising the assessed income to Rs.38,04,570.

3.2 The Gauhati High Court while upholding the order of the Tribunal allowing the appeal of the assessee on merits and other facets of the case, the Court at the request of the counsel appearing for the assessee, adjudicated a question raised by him to the effect that it was not within the power and jurisdiction of the assessing authority to issue notice u/s.148 of the Act in respect of an assessment for a block period made under Chapter XIV-B of the Act by placing reliance on the judgment of the High Court of Gujarat in Cargo Clearing Agency (Gujarat) v. JCIT, 307 ITR 1 (Guj.).

3.3 The Gauhati High Court expressed its inabil-ity to subscribe to the views recorded by the Gujarat High Court and the reasons contained in support thereof. In reaching the aforesaid conclusion the Court relied on a judgment of the Apex Court in CIT v. Suresh N. Gupta, 297 ITR 322 (SC) which in the respectful opinion of the Court succinctly summed up the situation and provided adequate justification for the Court’s respectful disagreement with the views of the Gujarat High Court expressed in Cargo Clearing Agency’s case (supra).

3.4 Culling from the decision on the said case of Suresh N. Gupta (supra), the Court observed that each ‘previous year’ under the Act was a distinct unit of time for the purpose of assessment and the block period under the scheme of Chapter XIVB; it was an expanded unit of time comprising of 10/6 assessment years preceding the previous years; that the unit of time in both situations above remains constant; that it was open for Parliament to treat 10/ 6 previous years as one unit of time for the purposes of assessment for the block period; that the concept of previous year was retained in Chapter XIVB of the Act; that the non obstante clause in S. 158BA had to be read in juxtaposition with S. 158BH and if so read, other provisions of the Act would be applicable to the scheme under Chapter XIVB, if no conflict arose upon such application.

3.5 The principles noted above, the Court observed, took adequate care of the contrary view of the Gujarat High Court holding that S. 147 could not have any application to a block assessment which was made for 10/6 years without reference to any particular assessment year, as S. 147 of the Act provided only for reassessment of escaped income of any assessment year specified therein.

3.6 As regards the observation of the Gujarat High Court to the effect that all material, in course of block assessment following a search, was available with the AO and therefore the conditions precedent for the exercise of power u/s.147/148 were not satisfied, the Gauhati High Court stated that “we may straightway point out that the aforesaid view does not take care of the situation that has arisen in the present case, details of which have been set out hereinabove. We, therefore, deem it appropriate to understand that the view expressed in Cargo Clearing Agency (supra) cannot be considered to be comprehensive covering all situations to justify exclusion of the power u/s.147/u/s.148 from the provision of the special procedure for block assessments contemplated by Chapter XIVB of the Act”.

3.7 The question of limitation dealt with by the Gujarat High Court, in the considered view of the Court, had to be understood in the context of the separate period of limitation provided by S. 158BE of the Act for completion of block assessments and not for reopening such assessment for the block period; that in the absence of any separate and specific period of limitation for reopening of block assessments in Chapter XIVB, on the ratio of the judgment in CIT v. Suresh N. Gupta (supra), the provisions contained in Chapter XIV prescribing the period of limitation for reopening of assessment must be understood to be applicable to assessments under Chapter XIVB of the Act inasmuch as such application would not bring in any conflict between the provisions of Chapter XIVB and those contained in Chapter XIV.

3.8 The exclusion of S. 148 by the first proviso to S. 158BC(a) of the Act was understood by the Court to be in the context of the notice that was required to be issued by the AO following action taken u/ s.132 and/or S. 132A of the Act; that such notice, in the fact of a concluded assessment for any of the assessment years included in the block period, might partake the character of reopening such an assessment, to clarify which the first proviso to S. 158BC(a) had been inserted; that the question that confronted the Court in the case under consideration was in relation to a stage after conclusion of the assessment for the block period, whereas the afore-said proviso dealt with the stage of initiation of the block assessment proceeding. Consequently and in the light of the foregoing discussions while dismissing the appeal of the Revenue, the Gauhati High Court deemed it proper and appropriate to record their conclusion that the provisions of S. 147 and S. 148 would apply to an assessment for a block pe-riod made under Chapter XIVB of the Act.

Observations :

4.1 The controversy surrounds one of the important clauses that saves the application of the other provisions of Income-tax Act, contained in Chapter XIVB. It reads as under :

“Save as otherwise provided in this chapter, all other provisions of this Act shall apply to assessment made under this chapter.”

4.2 On a bare reading of the provisions of Chapter XIVB, it is confirmed that there are no express or apparently implied provisions in the chapter which provides for reopening of a completed block assessment. It is therefore to be examined whether the general provisions for reopening and reassessment as applicable to a regular assessment con-tained in Chapter XIV, particularly u/s.147 to u/s. 153 can be applied to the case of the block assessment under Chapter XIVB for its successful reopen-ing and succeeding reassessment.

4.3 Again on a bare reading of the abovementioned clause, it is apparent that it is possible to apply all those provisions of the Act in situations and circumstances not dealt with by Chapter XIVB. In other words, the general provisions of the Act would not apply where express provision is made in Chapter XIVB, so however, they will apply with equal force where the chapter does not contain any express provision to deal with an unspecified situation. Reopening of a completed block assessment, as noted above, is one such situation which has not been expressly dealt with by Chapter XIVB.

4.4 In the above stated analysis, on a primary reading of the provisions, one is likely to concur with the decision of the Gauhati High Court in the case of Peerchand Ratilal Baid (HUF) which has for the reasons noted has held that subject to compliance of other conditions it is possible to reopen a completed block assessment.

4.5 Having observed that it is possible to reopen a block assessment, it remains to be seen that whether the ratio of the decision in the case of Cargo Clearing Agency (Gujarat) would nonetheless hold water. The Gujarat High Court decision is a very well reasoned and detailed decision has ruled out the possibility of reopening of a completed block assessment and has supported the conclusion with various findings in law.

4.6 The Gujarat High Court in Cargo Clearing Agency’s case in particular held that; (1) while S. 147 of the Act permits reassessment of income that has escaped assessment for any assessment year, assessment under Chapter XIVB of the Act is for a block period of 10/6 years without reference to any particular assessment year, (2) reassessment of escaped income u/s.147 of the Act is made where income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment either due to the failure of the assessee to file return or failure to disclose fully or truly all material facts for the purposes of assessment or where material already on record had not been processed. In a case of block assessment under Chapter XIVB of the Act escapement of undisclosed income, following a search, cannot be envisaged, as all the materials recovered in the course of the search are available with the AO and there can be no case of non-disclosure of ma-terial facts by the assessee, (3) S. 158BA and S. 158BH, read in juxtaposition, leads to the conclusion that in the absence of any provision for reassessment under Chapter XIVB of the Act the provisions contained in S. 147 under Chapter XIV will not apply to assessments made for the block period, (4) the period of limitation for completion of block assessment provided for by S. 158BE of the Act is shorter than the period of limitation prescribed by S. 153 of the Act. It, therefore, cannot be envisaged that the period of limitation u/s.153 of the Act would apply to block assessment. Any such application of the provisions contained in S. 153 will make the scheme visualised u/s.158BE unworkable, and (5) under Chapter XIVB of the Act certain provisions contained in Chapter XIV have been specifically incorporated, whereas certain other provisions have been specifically excluded. S. 148 has been excluded by the first proviso to S. 158BC(a), whereas S. 142, S. 143, S. 144 and S. 145 have been specifically incorporated by sub-clause (b) of S. 158BC.

4.7 Amongst several reasons advanced by the Gujarat High Court for coming to the conclusion, the two that stand apart for our consideration are :

  •  the Supreme Court’s decision in Suresh Gupta’s case was noted and its implications were considered by the Court while holding that it was not possible to read the provisions of reopening into the chapter of block assessment by suitably modifying the provisions of S. 147 to S. 153 of the Act.

  •  the scheme of block assessment per se ruled out any possibility of a reopening of a block assessment altogether.

4.8 The entire present controversy can be considered and appreciated in light of the legislative intent expressed at the time when Chapter XIVB was introduced vide the Memorandum Explaining the Provisions in the Finance Bill, 1995. The purpose and the object for introducing the said Chapter was explained in the following terms :

“Special procedure for assessment of search cases. Searches conducted by the IT Department are important means of unearthing black money. How-ever, under the present scheme, valuable time is lost in trying to relate the undisclosed incomes to the different years. Tax evaders generally manage to divert the focus to procedural and legal issues and often invent new evidence to explain undisclosed income. By the time search-related assessments are completed, the effect of the search is considerably diluted. Legal battles continue for many years to decide which income is assessable in which assessment year. No finality is reached and the seized assets remain with the Department for a long time. In order to make the procedure of assessment of search cases cost effective, efficient and meaningful, it is proposed to introduce a new scheme of assessment of undisclosed income determined as a result of search u/s.132 or requisition u/s.132A. Under this scheme, the undisclosed income detected as a result of any search initiated, or requisition made, after 30th June, 1995, shall be assessed separately as income of a block of years. Where the previous year has not ended or the due date for filing a return of income for any previous year has not expired, the income recorded on or before the date of the search or requisition in the books of account or other documents, maintained in the normal course, relating to such previous years shall not be included in the block.”

4.9 The memorandum referred to above, is a pointer to the fact that undisclosed income, in other words, the income which has not been disclosed and which has not been taxed, has to be assessed by adopting a special procedure. The special procedure has been evolved to save valuable time which is otherwise lost in the process of co-relating the un-disclosed income to different assessment years by obviating the legal battles involving issues of procedure and interpretation of law. The Legislature found it necessary to arrive at a cost effective, efficient and meaningful procedure to avoid litigations which continue for many years to decide which income, or part of income, is assessable in which assessment year.

4.10 Looking from several angles, to us the view expressed by the Gujarat High Court is a better view inasmuch as the reassessment of escaped income u/ s.147 of the Act is made in cases where income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment either due to the failure of the assessee to file return or failure to disclose fully or truly all material facts for the purposes of assessment or where material already on record had not been processed. It therefore pre-supposes a failure on the part of the assessee to comply with the requirements of the law. In a case of block assessment, on the contrary, under Chapter XIVB of the Act, the escapement of undisclosed income, following a search, cannot be envisaged at all, as all the material recovered in the course of the search is available with the AO and there can be no case of non-disclosure of material facts by the assessee. Not using such material indicates a possible failure on the part of the AO for which no power can not be vested in him to confer benefit for inaction. Moreover, the Gujarat High Court did examine the implications of Suresh N. Gupta’s decision in coming to the conclusion advanced by the Court.

Sale of scrap — Whether income derived from industrial undertaking ?

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 The Income-tax Act, 1961 has provided tax holidays from
time to time in respect of profits derived from certain types of industrial
undertakings, whereby a certain proportion of such profits is allowed as a
deduction under chapter VIA for certain number of years from the date of
commencement of the undertaking. S. 80HH, S. 80HHA, S. 80I, S. 80J and now S.
80IB have all contained such provisions allowing deduction of a certain
percentage of profits derived from such eligible undertakings.

1.2 The common requirement for all such incentive provisions
has been that the gross total income should include profits derived from such
eligible undertakings. Further, the deduction has always been a percentage of
the profits derived from such eligible undertakings. The quantum of the
deduction has therefore been linked to the profits of the eligible undertakings.

1.3 A question has arisen before the Courts as to whether
income from sale of scrap of the eligible undertaking can be regarded as profits
derived from such eligible undertaking, for the purpose of computing the
deduction under the incentive provisions. While the Madras High Court has
consistently taken the view that such income from sale of scrap would form part
of the profits derived from such eligible undertaking, the Madhya Pradesh High
Court has recently taken a contrary view that the income from such sale would
not form part of the profits derived from the eligible undertaking.

2. Fenner India’s case :


2.1 This issue had arisen before the Madras High Court in the
case of Fenner (India) Ltd. v. CIT, 241 ITR 803.

2.2 In this case the assessee was an industrial undertaking
in a backward area manufacturing V-belts, oil seals, O-rings, rubber moulded
products, etc. It was eligible for deduction u/s.80HH in respect of the profits
derived from such industrial undertaking. It claimed a deduction of 20% of the
net profits of such undertaking, including profit on sale of scrap.

2.3 The Assessing Officer disallowed the deduction in respect
of profit on sale of scrap. The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the assessee’s
claim for deduction in regard to the profit on sale of scrap. The Tribunal
however allowed the Revenue’s appeal on further appeal by the Revenue.

2.4 The Madras High Court noted that there was no dispute
that the new industrial undertaking was set up to manufacture V-belts, oil
seals, O-rings, rubber moulded products, etc. and that in the process of
manufacture of the V-belts, oil seals, O-rings, rubber moulded products, certain
scrap resulted. The resulting product of scrap also had a market and was also
sold, such sale being reflected in the turnover of the industrial undertaking.

2.5 Before the Madras High Court, on behalf of the Revenue,
it was argued that profit on the sale of scrap materials could, by no stretch of
imagination, be stated to have been derived from the industrial undertaking, and
if at all, such profits were at best attributable to the industrial undertaking.
It was argued that profits on sale of the manufactured products of the
industrial undertaking alone could be stated to be profits or gains derived from
the industrial undertaking, in respect of which a deduction of 20% was
permissible.

2.6 The Madras High Court noted that an assessee must
establish that his profits and gains were derived from his industrial
undertaking. It was not sufficient if a commercial connection was established
between the profits earned and the industrial undertaking, and the law required
that such profits must have been derived from the industrial undertaking. The
industrial undertaking itself must be the source of that profit and the business
of the industrial undertaking must strictly yield that profit. It must be the
direct source of profit and not a means to earn any other profit.

2.7 The Madras High Court observed that to say that the scrap
materials had no direct link or nexus with the industrial undertaking could not
at all be expected to commend acceptance. The scrap materials came within the
manufacturing process of the industrial undertaking in the manufacture of its
products such as V-belts, oil seals, etc. Therefore, the Madras High Court was
of the view that the profits and gains from the sale of scrap materials were
eligible for deduction of an amount equal to 20% u/s.80 HH, inasmuch as such
gains or profits were derived from the industrial undertaking and includable in
the gross total income of the assessee.

2.8 A similar view had been taken by the Madras High Court in
the cases of CIT v. Wheels India Ltd., 141 ITR 745, CIT v. Sundaram
Clayton Ltd.,
133 ITR 34 and CIT v. Sundaram Industries Ltd., 253 ITR
396.

3. Alpine Solvex‘s case :


3.1 The issue again came up for consideration before the
Indore Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT v. Alpine
Solvex Ltd.,
219 CTR (MP) 499.

3.2 In this case the assessee was a company which had a
solvent extraction plant where soya bean oil was manufactured from soya bean
seeds. The assessee claimed deduction u/s.80HH and u/s.80I on the amount
realised by it by sale proceeds of old gunny bags which were used as packing
material. The sale proceeds of such gunny bags were included in the total
turnover of the undertaking.

3.3 The Assessing Officer rejected the assessee’s claim,
holding that it was not an income derived by the assessee from an industrial
undertaking and that it was therefore not eligible for deduction u/s.80HH and
u/s.80I. The Commissioner(Appeals) allowed the assessee’s appeal. The Tribunal
dismissed the Revenue’s appeal and upheld the order of the Commissioner
(Appeals).

3.4 Before the Madhya Pradesh High Court, on behalf of the Revenue it was contended that the amount earned by the assessee from sale of certain gunny bags lying in the factory could not be said to be the business, much less regular business activity and hence the income derived from sale of such gunny bags could not be said to be an income derived from the industrial undertaking eligible for the benefit of special deduction u/s.80HH/80I. It was argued that the expression ‘income derived from industrial undertaking’ has to be interpreted in a restricted/narrower sense, and hence only income earned directly from the business carried on by the industrial undertaking can be taken into consideration for calculating total income and deduction available under these Sections. Nobody appeared on behalf of the assessee before the Madhya Pradesh High Court.

3.5 The Madhya Pradesh High Court, relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Cambay Electric Supply Industrial Co. Ltd. v. CIT, 113 ITR 84, noted that the expression’ derived from’ was more restricted than the term ‘attributable to’, which was a comparatively broader expression. It further placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Pandian Chemicals Ltd. v. CIT, 262 ITR 278, to the effect that the words ‘derived from’ used in S. 80HH must be understood as something which had direct or immediate nexus with the appellant’s industrial undertaking.

3.6 According to the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the main business of the assessee was to manufacture and sell soya oil by extracting it from soya bean seeds in their extraction plant. Therefore, according to the High Court, all income is derived from sale of soya oil has to be held as income derived from industrial undertaking, and so far as income earned out of sale of gunny bags was concerned, it could not be kept at par with the income derived from sale of soya oil. The High Court was of the view that sale of gunny bags was not the main or even ancillary business activity of the assessee, was not even regular or continuous business activity of the assessee, and that no investment was made by the assessee for sale of gunny bags, inasmuch as no industrial undertaking was established for manufacture and sale of gunny bags. Further, according to the Court the gunny bags were not manufactured by the assessee in its plant, which was established only for production of soya oil. According to the High Court, merely because some gunny bags were lying in the factory as surplus or unused or as waste material and were sold to earn some income, it could not be regarded as an income directly derived from the industrial undertaking.

3.7 The Madhya Pradesh High Court expressed the view that in order to derive income from the industrial undertaking, it must be shown that it was so earned by sale of those goods which were manufactured in the industrial undertaking as a part of the main and day-to-day business activity. The Madhya Pradesh High Court therefore held that the sale of gunny bags did not have a direct or immediate nexus with the industrial undertaking. While placing reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT v. Sterling Foods, 237 ITR 579, the Madhya Pradesh High Court expressed its disagreement with the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Fenner (India) Ltd., noting that the Madras High Court decision did not take into consideration any decision of the Supreme Court.

3.8 The Madhya Pradesh High Court therefore held that the profit on sale of gunny bags was not part of the profits derived from the industrial undertaking eligible for deduction u/s.80HH/80I.

4. Observations:

4.1 It is significant to note that the nature of scrap dealt with by the Madras High Court was quite different from the scrap dealt with by the Madhya Pradesh High Court. The Madras High Court was dealing with a situation where the scrap arose directly out of the manufacturing process, and was an incidental part (though insignificant in value) of the very manufacturing process itself. The Madhya Pradesh High Court, on the other hand, was dealing with a case where the scrap was incidental to the acquisition of raw materials (being packed in gunny bags) or to the packing of manufactured goods. The scrap was therefore not a direct outcome of the manufacturing process, but was incidental to activities associated with the manufacture of the goods. Therefore, on facts, it is possible to distinguish between the nature of the scrap resulting in two different views being taken by the High Courts.

4.2 On a broader level, however, the question that arises is whether the business of an industrial undertaking encompasses only the manufacturing process simpliciter or covers the entire business of manufacture. Can the business of manufacture be said to commence only when the raw material is subjected to the physical process of manufacture, or does it also cover the incidental processes of preparation for manufacture, finishing and ‘Packing? If one takes a view that the business of manufacture involves all these steps as well, then the waste gunny bags clearly arise directly out of the business of manufacture, and should be regarded as the profits of the industrial undertaking.

4.3 The decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Pandian Chemicals (supra) is clearly distinguishable, as it related to interest on electricity deposit, which as the Supreme Court noted:

“Although electricity may be required for the purposes of the industrial undertaking, the deposit required for its supply is a step removed from the business of the industrial undertaking.”

Similarly, the case of Sterling Foods (supra) involved sale of import entitlements, which process was not part of the manufacturing business at all.

4.4 Viewed in this manner, it appears that the Madhya Pradesh High Court took too technical a view of the matter in holding that the waste gunny bags did not arise out of the manufacturing process. It ought to have considered that any income arising from a process which was directly associated with the business of manufacture, and not only the sale of the finished products, was profits derived from the industrial undertaking. Therefore, the view taken by the Madras High Court that sale of scrap forms part of the profits derived from the industrial undertaking, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Sum Payable — s. 43B

Controversies

Issue for consideration :


S. 43B of the Income-tax Act
provides that deductions otherwise allowable in respect of certain sums payable
shall be allowed only in the previous year in which such sums are actually paid,
irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such sum was
incurred by the assessee according to the method of accounting regularly
employed by him.

All the clauses of S. 43B
(other than clause c) start with the term ‘any sum payable’. The meaning of the
term ‘any sum payable’ has been the subject-matter of conflicting decisions of
High Courts. Some Courts held that no disallowance could take place u/s.43B
where the liability towards the expenditure had arisen but time for payment was
not due. As against this few Courts had held that the deduction for an
expenditure of the specified nature would be allowed only on actual payment of
dues. In order to avoid any further conflict, an amendment has been made vide
the Finance Act, 1989 with retrospective effect form 1-4-1984 by insertion of an
Explanation 2 to provide for the meaning of the said term ‘any sum payable. The
scope of the Explanation however is restricted to clause (a) of S. 43B. Clause
(a) of S. 43B deals with tax, duty, cess or fee and this clause when read with
the Explanation 2 means a sum for which the assessee incurred liability in the
previous year even though such sum might not have been payable within that year
under the relevant law.

The meaning of the term ‘any
sum payable’ has as noted been the subject-matter of conflicting decisions of
High Courts. The issue which has arisen has been whether such term includes
amounts in respect of liability which has accrued but is not due for payment.
The Andhra Pradesh High Court, in the context of clause (a) prior to the
insertion of Explanation 2, held that the term means only such items which have
become due for payment, and not items which have accrued but not become due for
payment and therefore no disallowance prior to the insertion of the Explanation
2 was possible for claims of expenditure which were due but not payable. On the
other hand, the Delhi High Court, in the context of clause (d) relating to
interest on loans or borrowings from financial institutions, has recently held
that the term includes all amounts in respect of which liability has been
incurred, irrespective of whether such amounts are due for payment or not and
accordingly, the claim for allowance of an expenditure would not be allowed
unless it was actually paid.

Srikakollu Subba Rao’s
case :


The issue first came up
before the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Srikakollu Rao & Co. v.
Union of India,
173 ITR 708.

In this case, the assessee
had challenged the provisions of S. 43B, which had been then recently introduced
with effect from A.Y. 1984-85. Besides challenging the Constitutional validity
of the provisions, the assessee contended that the provisions did not apply to
sales tax. It was further argued that the liability to pay sales tax for the
month of March 1984, which had been disallowed u/s.43B, could not have been so
disallowed.

On behalf of the assessee,
it was pointed out that under the Andhra Pradesh sales tax rules, such tax was
to be paid by the 25th day of the succeeding month. It was urged that where the
statute itself prescribes the date of payment, no exception could be taken,
acting u/s.43B, that the amount was not paid, rendering a justification for its
disallowance. It was urged that S. 43B can have no application to cases where
the statutory liability which was incurred in the accounting year is also not
payable, according to the statute, in the same accounting year.

The Andhra Pradesh High
Court, while accepting these contentions observed that according to it, not only
should the liability to pay the tax be incurred in the accounting year, but the
amount should also be statutory ‘payable’ in the accounting year. According to
the High Court,
S. 43B itself was clear to that extent — it referred to the ‘sum payable’. The
Andhra Pradesh High Court observed that if the Legislature intended, it should
have so provided that any sum for the payment of which liability was incurred by
the assessee would not be allowed unless such sum was actually paid.

Further, keeping in mind the
object for which S. 43B was enacted, the Andhra Pradesh High Court held that it
was difficult to subscribe to the view that a routine application of that
provision was called for in cases where the taxes and duties for the payment of
which liability was incurred in the accounting year were not statutorily payable
in that accounting year. In fact, the Andhra Pradesh High Court noted the
subsequent amendment permitting the deduction of taxes and duties paid before
the due date of filing of the income tax return as evidence that taxes and
duties not statutorily payable during the accounting year did not fall to be
disallowed u/s.43B.

The Andhra Pradesh High
Court therefore held that the term ‘sum payable’ meant not only cases where the
liability was incurred, but which were also actually payable within the year.
Accordingly, the Andhra Pradesh High Court held that S. 43B did not apply to the
amounts not due for payment within the year.

Triveni Engineering’s case :


The issue again recently
came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of Triveni Engineering &
Industries Ltd. v. CIT,
320 ITR 430.

In this case pertaining to
A.Y. 1991-92, the assessee had taken a loan from Industrial Finance Corporation
of India (‘IFCI’). As per the terms of the loan, the repayment of the loan along
with interest thereon was to be made in five yearly instalments payable from
November 1996 to November 2000. The assessee provided for the interest accrued
on the loan till the end of the previous year ended 31st March 1991. The
assessing officer disallowed such interest.

The Commissioner (Appeals)
confirmed the disallowance of interest and further held that the claim of
interest was not allowable in terms of S. 43B(d).

Before the Delhi High Court, the assessee claimed that it was entitled to claim interest because interest accrues daily and it accrued as per the mercantile system of accounting adopted by the assessee with respect to the loan obtained by it from IFCI.

The Delhi High Court observed that merely because the interest was debited in the books of account maintained on a Mercantile basis could not mean that the interest had become due and accrued, because admittedly the interest liability would not become due during the relevant previous year but only in November 1996. According to the Delhi High Court, interest could not be said to have ac-crued to become due and payable in the relevant previous year. The Delhi High Court observed that the stand of the assessee was incongruous because on the one hand it claimed that interest became due and accrued in the relevant previous year, however, in the same breath it admitted that the same would be due and payable only with effect from November 1996. According to the Delhi High Court, the concept of debiting the books maintained on the mercantile basis was on the principle that the payment had become due and payable and, since it had become payable, it was therefore debited in the books of account. According to the Court, admittedly the interest was not due and payable from the relevant previous year.

The Delhi High Court observed that S. 43B directly and categorically disentitled the assessee from claiming benefit of interest deduction with respect to interest due and payable to financial institution till the interest was actually paid. According to the Delhi High Court, S. 43B made it abundantly clear that interest can only be allowed when it was actually paid and not merely because it was due as per the method of accounting adopted by the assessee. The Delhi High Court was of the view that any other interpretation that the interest should be allowed even when not actually paid would defeat the very purpose of S. 43B.

The Delhi High Court felt that the view taken by the Andhra Pradesh High Court, that where the amount was not due for payment before the end of the relevant previous year such amount, though having accrued, could not be disallowed u/s.43B, could not be accepted by it, as it would negate the intention of existence of S. 43B and would render otiose the expression ‘actually paid’ occurring in S. 43B. In view of the categorical language used in S. 43B(d), the Delhi High Court was of the view that it need not refer to the other subsections and exceptions of S. 43B.

The Delhi High Court therefore upheld the disallowance of interest accrued but not due under the provisions of S. 43B.

Observations:

Subsequent to the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Srikakollu Subba Rao, Explanation 2 to S. 43B was inserted by the Finance Act 1989 with retrospective effect from 1 April 1984. This explanation, clarifies that ‘any sum payable’ would include sums which were not payable within the year under the relevant law, and therefore to that extent nullifies the decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court. It is however relevant to note that the scope of the said explanation, is restricted in it’s application only to clause (a) of S. 43B, i.e., to any sum payable by way of tax, duty, cess or fee. It is consciously not extended to other clauses of S. 43B, though the language used in those clauses is also identical. At the time when Explanation 2 was inserted, S. 43B already contained clauses(b)    and (d) as well, which also used the term ‘any sum payable’. It therefore appears that the conscious intention was to make the expression applicable specifically and only to clause (a) and not to any other clauses of S. 43B. Even when clauses (e) and (f) were inserted in S. 43B, Explanation 2 was not amended to cover these clauses.

The view taken by the Delhi High Court, that allowing the claim for expenditure without actual payment of interest accrued but not due would defeat the very purpose of S. 43B and render it otiose, also does not seem to be justified. When S. 43B was inserted, the purpose for insertion of S. 43B was explained by the Honourable Finance Minister in his budget speech of 1983-84 as under:

“Several cases have come to notice where tax-payers do not discharge their statutory liability such as in respect of excise duty, employer’s contribution to provident fund, Employees State Insurance Scheme, for long periods of time. For the purposes of their income-tax assessments, they nonetheless claim the liability as deduction even as they take resort to legal action, thus depriving the Government of its dues while enjoying the benefit of non-payment. To curb such practices, I propose to provide that irrespective of the method of accounting followed by the taxpayer, a statutory liability will be allowed as a deduction in computing the taxable profits only in the year and to the extent it is actually paid.”

A similar reasoning has been given in the explanatory memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 1983. The intention therefore seems to have been to cover cases of non-payment over long periods of time, and not amounts which are not due for payment. S. 43B would continue to apply to such sums which have become due for payment, but have not yet been paid.

Further support for the fact that amounts not due for payment were not intended to be covered by S. 43B can be gauged from the first proviso to S. 43B, which excludes amounts paid before the due date of the filing of the return of income from the applicability of S. 43B.

The better view of the matter therefore seems to be the view taken by the Andhra Pradesh High Court, that the meaning of the term ‘any sum payable’ does not include amounts not due for payment, other than taxes, duties, cesses or fees covered by clause (a).

Waiver of interest

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration


1.1 Any amount of tax, specified as payable in a notice of
demand u/s.156, is required to be paid within 30 days of the service of notice
as mandated by S. 220(1) of the Income-tax Act.

1.2 The assessee is liable to pay simple interest @ 1% for
every month or part thereof, for default in payment of the amount of tax
referred to in para 1.1 above, as per S. 220(2) of the Act. The interest levied
u/s.220(2) is to be reduced and the excess interest paid is to be refunded in
cases where the unpaid tax on which interest was levied itself is reduced on
account of orders u/s.154, u/s.155, u/s.245D, u/s. 250, u/s.254, u/s.260A,
u/s.262 and u/s.264.

1.3 A provision has been made for reduction or waiver of the
interest levied or leviable u/s.220(2) by insertion of S. 220(2A) w.e.f.
1-10-1994 by the Taxation Laws (Amendment ) Act, 1984 where-under the CBDT and
now the Chief Commissioner or Commissioner is empowered to reduce or waive the
interest u/s.220(2) on satisfaction of the conditions specified therein.

1.4 The said S. 220(2A) reads as under :

“Notwithstanding anything contained in Ss.(2), the Chief
Commissioner or Commissioner may reduce or waive the amount of interest paid
or payable by the assessee under the said sub-section if he is satisfied
that :

(i) payment of such amount has caused or would cause
genuine hardship to the assessee;

(ii) default in the payment of the amount on which
interest has been paid or was payable under the said sub-section was due to
the circumstances beyond the control of the assessee; and

(iii) the assessee has co-operated in any inquiry
relating to the assessment or any proceeding for the recovery of any amount
due from him.”


1.5 In the context of S. 220(2A), the issue that has come up
for consideration of the Courts, repetitively, is, whether an assessee is
obliged to satisfy all the three conditions laid down in S. 220(2A) for
reduction or waiver of interest or that compliance of any one or two of them
will enable the assessee to seek reduction or waiver of interest. In short, the
issue that is for consideration is whether the compliance of three conditions
specified in S. 220(2A) is cumulative or alternative. Recently, the Karnataka
High Court dissenting from the view of the Kerala, Allahabad and Madras High
Courts held that cumulative compliance of the three conditions is not required
for being eligible for reduction or waiver of interest u/s.220(2A) of the Act.

2. Ramapati Singhania’s case :


2.1 In the case of Ramapati Singhania, 234 ITR 655 (All), the
assessee’s application, made u/s.220(2A), for waiver of interest was rejected
for non-compliance of some of the conditions of the said Section. In the writ
petition filed by the assessee, he inter alia pleaded before the High
Court that for the purposes of seeking a waiver u/s.220(2A) it was not necessary
for him to have complied with all the conditions of the said Section and that he
was eligible for the requested waiver even in circumstances where some of the
conditions of the said Section stood complied with. It was emphasised that
payment of tax on capital gains without permitting the set-off of the amount to
which the petitioner was entitled u/s.50B of the Estate Duty Act, caused genuine
hardship to the assessee and thus the petitioner was justified in not making the
payment of taxes in time.

2.2 The Allahabad High Court observed that to avail of the
benefit, it was for the person seeking the relief to make out a case that the
requirements of those provisions were fulfilled and that on a plain reading of
that provision, it was evident that all the three conditions set out therein
must be satisfied cumulatively and if any of these requirements were wanting in
a given case, the discretion to reduce or waive, might be legitimately refused.

2.3 The Court accordingly upheld the action of the
authorities in denying the waiver of interest charged for delayed payment of
taxes.

3. M. V. Amar Shetty’s case :


3.1 In M. V. Amar Shetty v. CCIT & Anr., 219 CTR 141 (Karn.),
the assessee filed a writ petition being aggrieved by an order dated 21st August
2007 passed by the Chief CIT rejecting his request u/s. 220(2A) of the
Income-tax Act seeking reduction on waiver of the interest payable on the
delayed payment of tax demanded pursuant to a notice issued u/s.156 of the Act
and for defaulting in payment of tax. The petition was rejected by the Single
Judge of the Court, against which an appeal was filed by the assessee before the
Division Bench of the Court.

3.2 It was pleaded for the assessee that the impugned order
passed by the CCIT had been passed in violation of the provisions of S. 220(2A)
of the Act and was passed without an application of mind to the conditions
mentioned under the sub-section and that the request made by the petitioner had
been rejected in an arbitrary manner. It was inter alia submitted that
the finding that the petitioner had not satisfied condition (c) for waiver of
interest charged u/s.220(2A) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, by not co-operating
with the Department by filing returns or in the assessment proceedings/payment
of tax demand was not correct and it was also submitted that the CCIT had taken
into consideration the report of the AO, which was not made known to the
assessee and therefore, the order impugned was bad on that ground also.

3.3 For the CCIT, it was submitted that the order passed was
just and proper and did not call for any interference by the Court in the appeal
and that the learned Single Judge was right in dismissing the writ petition.
Reliance was placed upon two judgments in the cases of G.T.N. Textiles Ltd.
v. DCIT & Anr.,
217 ITR 653 (Ker.) and Ramapati Singhania v. CIT & Ors.,
234 ITR 655 (All.) to submit that all the three conditions laid down in S.
220(2A) should have been satisfied before interest could be waived under the
said provision and that in the instant case the CCIT had categorically held that
condition (iii) of S. 220(2A) had not been fulfilled and therefore, the assessee
was not entitled to relief under the said provisions.

3.4 The Court on consideration of the submissions made by both the sides, was not persuaded to accept the submission made on behalf of the CCIT that, all the three conditions laid down in Ss.(2A) of S. 220 should be satisfied before relief could be given to an assessee under the said provision, as was enunciated in the two judgments referred to above and cited before the Court. The Karnataka High Court accordingly directed for due consideration of the assessee’s request for waiver of interest.

4.  Observations:

4.1 S. 220(2A), begins with a non obstante clause and is a self-contained provision. It overrides the charging provision as contained in S. 220(2). At the same time the said provision restricts the power of the authority concerned to reduce or waive the amount of interest paid or payable by an assessee only on satisfaction of the conditions set out in the three causes of S. 220(2A). For claiming relief u/ s. 220(2A), the assessee has to satisfy the three conditions, namely, (i) he has to show that the payment of the amount has caused or would cause genuine hardship to him, (ii) that the default in payment of the amount of tax on which interest has been paid or was payable was due to circumstances beyond his control, and (iii) further that he had co-operated in the enquiry relating to the assessment or any proceeding for recovery of any amount due from him.

4.2 In G.T.N. Textiles Ltd., 217 ITR 653 (Ker.), the assessee had filed an appeal against the judgment of a Single Judge, 199 ITR 347, who had dismissed the original petition challenging the rejection of the application for waiver of interest levied u/ s. 220(2) of the Act. The Court in that case held that the three conditions mentioned above are to be satisfied for the operation of S. 220(2A) of the Act. The Commissioner in the said case had found that one of the necessary conditions for exercising the power u/ s. 220(2A) that the payment of interest has caused or would cause genuine hardship to the assessee was not satisfied in the case of the petitioner who was earning very good income from its business. On the facts of the case, the Kerala High Court upheld the order of the Single Judge.

4.3 In the case of Eminent Enterprises v. CIT, 236 ITR 883 (Ker.), the Kerala High Court again held that even where the first condition was most satisfied, the assessee could not avail waiver of interest.

4.4 Again in the case of Metallurgical & Engineering Consultants (India) Ltd. v. CIT, 243 ITR 547, (Pat.) the Court held that all the three conditions mentioned above are to be satisfied for the operation of S. 220(2A). Where the Commissioner had found that the first condition was not satisfied on the basis of certain facts, and had refused to waive interest u/ s.220(2), there was no scope for the High Court to interfere with such a discretionary order.

4.5 Lately, the Madras High Court in the case of Auro Foods Ltd., 239 ITR 548, held that an assessee for the purposes of waiver of interest u/ s.220(2A) has to satisfy all the three conditions and that non-compliance of anyone of them may expose his petition to rejection by the authorities.

4.6 On a plain reading of S. 220(2A), it is evident that all the three conditions set out therein are to be satisfied cumulatively for seeking a valid relief. Where any of the requirements has not been fulfilled the discretion to reduce or waive may be legitimately refused. Thus satisfaction of one or more but not all conditions may not make an assessee eligible for reduction or the waiver of interest u/ s.220(2A). This is the way the Courts have interpreted the law with the exception of the Karnataka High Court.

4.7 The order of the Karnataka High Court provides for fresh thinking on an almost settled position in law. The Court perhaps has been impressed by the important fact that the provision of S. 220(2A) has been inserted for granting relief to an assessee in circumstances which are found to be judicious by the Court and in a case where the Court finds the case of the assessee to be so judicious, the relief should not be denied on the ground of numerical non-compliance, but instead be granted in a deserving case.

Interest income and mutuality

1. Issue for consideration :

    1.1 Income of certain associations of persons is exempt on the doctrine of mutuality. The common examples of these associations are clubs, societies, trade professional and mutual benefit associations, where the contributors to the fund and the recipients or beneficiaries of the fund are the same persons or class of persons. In other words, such persons are contributing to the common fund for their common good.

    1.2 Receipt of subscription from members to the common fund is exempt on the grounds of mutuality, as in such cases, the contributors and the beneficiaries are the same persons or the same class of persons, and on the same principles, the receipt by the members on distribution is exempt from tax. The difficulty however arises often in cases where the funds are invested for earning interest income; whether such income also qualifies for exemption, on the grounds of mutuality in the hands of the association. The issue gets further complicated if the interest income is earned from investments made with members.

    1.3 For quite some time it was believed that the issue has been settled in favour of non-taxation, as was discussed in the BCAJ in the past. The issue however has reemerged and it appears that the courts presently are divided on this issue under consideration, which fact has made us take note of the same and examine the aspect afresh to ascertain whether the view canvassed in the past requires a reconsideration. While the Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Delhi High Courts have taken the view in a few cases that such interest income is exempt on the grounds of mutuality, the Karnataka, Madras and Gujarat High Courts seem to have taken a contrary view in other cases.

2. Canara Bank Golden Jubilee Staff Welfare Fund’s case :

    2.1 The issue recently came up before the Karnataka High Court in the case of Canara Bank Golden Jubilee Staff Welfare Fund v. Dy. CIT, 308 ITR 202 (Kar.).

    2.2 In this case, the assessee was a society consisting of employees of Canara Bank, established with the object of promoting welfare amongst members who contributed towards the corpus fund. The welfare fund was utilised for advancing loans to members, on which it received interest, which constituted the major portion of its revenue. Surplus funds were kept with the bank, on which interest also was earned. The assessee also earned dividend income on shares.

    2.3 The assessee filed the return of income claiming exemption on the principle of mutuality. The assessment was completed u/s.143(1)(a). Subsequently the income was reassessed, bringing to tax the interest income on investments and dividend income on shares. The Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the appeals of the assessee. The Tribunal also dismissed the assessee’s appeals.

    2.4 Before the High Court, on behalf of the assessee it was argued that the Society was established for mutual benefit of its members, and funds of the Society, consisting of contribution from the members, were used for advancing loans to members and collecting interest from the members. As such, it was claimed that the income was exempt from tax on the principle of mutuality. It was further claimed that the funds collected by the appellant were used to provide monetary assistance to members, and, as a matter of precaution, the surplus funds were kept in the bank, not with the primary object of earning interest, but to keep such funds in safe custody. Further, such interest earned had been used only for the ultimate benefit of members. It was claimed that while applying the principle of mutuality, it was the source of the deposit that had to be taken into consideration and not the manner in which the funds were applied. Reliance was placed by the assessee on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Chelmsford Club v. CIT, 243 ITR 89 and the Andhra Pradesh High Court decision in the case of CIT v. Natraj Finance Corporation, 169 ITR 732.

    2.5 On behalf of the Department, reliance was placed on the earlier Karnataka High Court decision in the case of CIT v. ITI Employees Death and Superannuation Relief Fund, 234 ITR 308, in which case the High Court had taken the view that such interest income was taxable, to contend that the income in question was taxable.

    2.6 The Karnataka High Court, while discussing the principle of mutuality, observed that the following three conditions should exist before an activity could be brought under the concept of mutuality; that no person can earn from himself, that there is no profit motivation, and that there is no sharing of profits. It noted that the source of funds in the case before it was only from the members of the assessee and that the assessee had not received any donations or other monetary grants from any outside source, apart from the members during the relevant years. It was therefore the member’s contribution which had become the corpus fund which was utilised to advance loans to members and invested, from which the interest and dividend has arisen.

    2.7 The Karnataka High Court noted that the funds of the assessee had been invested in the term deposit with the bank which was not a member of the assessee’s welfare fund, and interest had been earned on such investment. Though the bank formed a third-party vis-à-vis the assessee, it could not be said that the identity between the contributors and the recipients was lost in such a case. The High Court observed that in ITI Employees Death and Superannuation Relief Fund’s case (supra), the ingredients of mutuality were missing as, apart from contributions made by members, there were other sources of funding of the trust fund, including contributions made by the ITI management and donations. Further, in that case, the object of the trust was to invest the funds of the trust in banks and securities for earning interest to discharge the liabilities and obligations created under the trust.

    2.8 Taking into consideration the objects of the assessee, the source of funds during the relevant years and the applicability of the funds for the benefit of its members, and keeping in mind the interest on investments and dividend earned on shares was only a small portion of the total earned by investment of the surplus funds wholly contributed by the members of the assessee, the Karnataka High Court held that the interest earned on investment and dividend received on shares was deemed income from the property of the assessee contributed by its members, and was governed by the principle of mutuality and was therefore exempt.

2.9 The Court noted with approval a similar view which had been taken earlier by the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT v. Natraj Finance Corporation, 169 ITR 733. In that case, the assessee was a firm which lent money to its partners, and during the relevant years, received income on out-standing dues from a former partner and on amounts deposited in a savings account with a bank. The Court held that such interest, considering the quantum of such interest in relation to the total income, was also exempt on the grounds of mutuality, as it could not be said that the assessee was carrying on business in order to derive such a small amount of income.

2.10 The Court also noted that the Delhi High Court also, in the case of DIT(E) v. All India Oriental Bank of Commerce Welfare Society, 130 Taxman 575, has held that the principle of mutuality applies to interest income derived by a co-operative society from deposits made out of contributions made by members of the society. In taking this view, the Delhi High Court took a cue from the decision of the Supreme Court in Chelmsford Club v. CIT, 243 ITR 89, where the Supreme Court had laid down the principle that where a number of persons combine together to a common fund for financing of some venture or object and in this respect have no dealings or relations with any outside body, then any surplus generated cannot in any sense be regarded as profits chargeable to tax.

3. Madras  Gymkhana Club’s  case:

3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Madras High Court in the case of Madras Gymkhana Club v. Dy. CIT, 183 Taxman 333.

3.2 The assessee in this case was a sports club providing various facilities to its members, such as restaurant, gymnasium, library, bar, coffee shop and swimming pool. Apart from the surplus funds derived from such activities, it also received interest income from its corporate members on the investment of surplus funds as fixed deposits with them. It claimed that such interest income was covered by the concept of mutuality and was therefore exempt from tax.

3.3 In the course of reassessment proceedings, the income from investment was subjected to tax along with certain other interest income. Both the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal rejected the appeals of the assessee.

3.4 Before the Madras High Court, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that the interest earned by the club out of fixed deposits and other investments made with its own institutional members was covered by the principle of mutuality. On behalf of the Revenue, it was argued that the interest on such investments could not be brought within the concept of mutuality as such investments were in the regular course of business of such club and had no nexus with either membership or regular activities of the club.

3.5 The Madras High Court noted that it had held in an earlier case in Wankaner fain Social Welfare Society v. CIT, 260 ITR 241, that to satisfy the concept of mutuality, the identity was required to be established in relation to the relevant income as regards those contributing to the income and those participating in the distribution of that income. According to the Madras High Court, surplus funds deposited with a member bank enured to the benefit of that member alone, who was in a position to utilise the deposit in any manner it liked, thereby depriving other members of enjoyment of such benefit, which did not satisfy the test of identity of the contributors and the participants. Though the distribution of interest was to all members, there was no identity between the contributors and the participants, inasmuch as the distribution of interest was made both to members with whom funds were deposited and to those with whom funds were not deposited, while the interest was earned only from members with whom funds were deposited.

3.6 The Madras High Court also noted that the club had received donations and gifts as well as sponsorship for programmes and activities, and advertisements. According to the Madras High Court, on a reading of the objects of the club and the provisions for making the investments, the position which emerged was that the investment of surplus funds had nothing to do with the objects of the club. It also noted that substantial amounts had been earned by way of interest from such investment of surplus funds, and that there were no plans for immediate utilisation of such funds.

3.7 The Madras High Court, following the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. Bangalore Club, 287 ITR 263, held that the interest earned on investment of surplus funds, being substantial, could not be held to satisfy the mutuality concept and was therefore taxable.

3.8 A similar view had been taken earlier by the Karnataka High Court in the case of Bangalore Club (supra), where the Karnataka High Court had held that interest on surplus funds placed by the club in fixed deposits with member banks was not exempt on the ground of mutuality. The Court noted that the Karnataka High Court had also earlier in the case of ITI Employees Death and Superannuation Relief Fund (supra) held that interest on investments earned by the fund was not exempt on the grounds of mutuality and so also the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Sports Club of Gujarat Ltd. v. CIT, 171 ITR 504, has held that in the case of a club whose object was to promote the game of cricket and other games and sports, which derived income from investments of surplus funds, the income from interest was not from mutual activity and was therefore liable to tax.

4. Observations:

4.1 When one analyses the decisions on the subject, one notices that the difference of opinion between the Courts hinges on the answers to the following questions:

Firstly, for application of the doctrine of mutuality, in order to claim exemption on the ground of mutuality, is it sufficient that an income arise out of an investment of surplus generated from members, or is it necessary that such income should also arise from members only?

Secondly, does the activity of investment with non-members amount to a separate activity, distinct from the main activity of the entity and therefore not covered by mutuality? Is it not sufficient that the funds invested are out of the surplus of the members and the income received on investment is also for the benefit of the members?

Thirdly, is the object for which funds are invested relevant, is it necessary that the investment income should arise out of the main activity in order for the income to qualify for mutuality?

4.2 The Supreme Court in CIT v. Bankipur Club Ltd., 226 ITR 97, held that a host of factors, not one single factor, have to be considered to arrive at a conclusion as to whether the principle of mutuality applies in a given case or not, and further observed that whether or not the persons dealing with each other are a mutual club or not and whether such persons are carrying on a trading activity or an adventure in the nature of trade is largely a question of fact.

4.3 In the case of Chelmsford Club (supra), the issue before the Supreme Court was whether the annual letting value. of the clubhouse of the Chelmsford Club, which provided recreational and refreshment facilities exclusively to its members and their guests, was liable to income-tax. In that case, certain observations of the Supreme Court indicate that the principle of mutuality has to be considered qua the business or the object thereof. However, one must keep in mind the facts of the case before the Supreme Court, where there was no actual income arising other than out of the activity of the club, and therefore the Supreme Court did not have occasion to consider whether the principle of mutuality should be applied to certain incomes separately.

4.4 In the case of Bankipur Club (supra), the Su-preme Court cited from the Halsbury’s Laws of England as under:

“Where a number of persons combine together and contribute to a common fund for the financing of some venture or object and will in this respect have no dealings or relations with any outside body, then any surplus returned to those persons cannot be regarded in any sense as profit. There must be complete identity between the contributors and the participators. If these requirements are fulfilled, it is immaterial what particular form the association takes. Trading between persons associating together in this way does not give rise to profits which are chargeable to tax.

Where the trade or activity is mutual, the fact that, as regards certain activities, only certain members of the association take advantage of the facilities which it offers does not affect the mutuality of the enterprise.

Members’ clubs are an example of a mutual undertaking; but, where a club extends facilities to non-members, to that extent the element of mutuality is wanting …. “.

The Supreme Court in that case  also cited from Simon’s Taxes as under:

…. it is settled law that if the persons carrying on a trade do so in such a way that they and the customers are the same persons, no profits or gains are yielded by the trade for tax purposes and therefore, no assessment in respect of the trade can be made. Any surplus resulting from this form of trading represents only the extent to
which the contributions of the participators have proved to be in excess of requirements. Such a surplus is regarded as their own money and returnable to them. In order that this exempting element of mutuality should exist, it is essential that the profits should be capable of coming back at some time and in some form to the persons to whom the goods were sold or the services rendered …. “

4.5 In the above referred Bankipur Club’s case, the Court was concerned with the clubs’ entitlement to exemption for (i) the receipts or surplus arising from the sales of drinks, refreshments, etc., (ii) amounts received by way of rent for letting out the buildings, and (iii) amounts received by way of admission fees, periodical subscriptions and receipts of similar nature, from its members and guests. The Supreme Court noted that the amounts received by the clubs for supply of drinks, refreshments or other goods as also the letting out of building for rent or the amounts received by way of admission fees, periodical subscription, etc. from the members of the clubs were only for/towards charges for the privileges, conveniences and amenities provided to the members, which they were entitled to as per the rules and regulations of the respective clubs. It also noted that different clubs realised various sums on the above counts only to afford to their members the usual privileges, advantages, conveniences and accommodation. In other words, the services offered on the above counts were not with any profit motive, and were not tainted with commerciality. The facilities were offered only as a matter of convenience for the use of members (and their friends, if any, availing of the facilities occasionally). On that reasoning, the Supreme Court held that the excess-surplus arising from the mutual arrangement, including amounts received from guests (though third parties), was exempt on the grounds of mutuality. Incidentally, one of the assessees in this case was Cawnpore Club, where the income that was sought to be assessed was derived from property let out and also interest received from ED.R., N.s.C., etc. The Supreme Court delinked that case and did not decide it, directing it to be put up for a separate hearing.

4.6 In the case of Chelmsford Club (supra), the Supreme Court observed :

“It is clear that it is not only the surplus from the activities of the business of the club that is excluded from the levy of income-tax, even the annual value of the club-house, as contemplated in S. 22 of the Act, will be outside the purview of the levy of income-tax.”

” …. we are of the view that the business of the appellant is governed by the principle of mutuality – even the deemed income from its property is governed by the said principle of mutuality.”

4.7 From the foregoing, relying on the views of the the Courts and the commentaries on taxation, the emerging view is that the surplus from the activity of mutual benefit association of any form is exempt from taxation and such exemption is not restricted to some specific incomes.

4.8 An incidental  question  that may as well be addressed is whether the activity of investment is an integral part of the object of the mutual benefit association or is an independent activity which aspect would depend upon the facts of each case. Various factors as follows may be helpful in examining this aspect: (i) Whether the investment is a mere temporary deployment of surplus funds, or of a long-term nature? (ii) Whether the intention behind making the investment is merely to see that the funds are not kept idle, but deployed till such time as required? (iii) Is the quantum of investment income small as compared to members’ contributions ? (iv) Whether the surplus has been built up only out of member contributions? Generally, if the investment income is small in relation to member contributions and the investment is primarily with a view to deploy unutilised funds, the investment activity cannot be regarded as an activity independent of the object of the association, and would be part of the surplus qualifying for exemption.

4.9 The rigours surely will be easy when investment is made with the members of the association. However here also, difference might be carved out between an investment made as an investor and the one made in the normal course.

4.10 The rigours will also be eased in cases where an investment of the association’s funds has been made pending the use of surplus funds on activi-ties of the association.

4.11 With utmost respect for the Madras High Court, the insistence on commonality between the contributors and the beneficiaries in case of investments, seems to be misplaced. The test of commonality is required to be satisfied w.r.t. the members’ contributions, and not w.r.t. the interest income arisng out of deployment of such members’ contributions. It is also helpful that the interest income that arises out of the deployment of surplus funds of members is earned for the members’ benefit, who surely are the participants on distribution of such an income.

4.12 An important principle of mutuality is that the members receive back that which was their own. The fact that in the meanwhile the funds belonging to them were deployed would not materially alter the applicability of the principle where the income remains, in reality, the income of the members.

4.13 The issue however continues to be contentious as is evident from the conflicting decisions of the Courts including the decision in the case of Rajpath Club Ltd., 211 ITR 379 (Guj.), Gulmarg Association & Anr., 90 TTJ 184 (Ahd.) and Sagar Sanjog CHS Ltd. ITA No. 1972, 1973 and 1974/Mum./2005.

4.14 The better view in the meanwhile seems to be that interest income of a mutual benefit association earned on its investments is exempt from tax under the doctrine of mutuality and the case for its exemption is stronger where the deployment of funds is merely a part of and incidental to the object of the association.

Exemption for Educational Institution

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 S. 10(23C) of the Income-tax Act contains 3 clauses for
granting exemption to universities or other educational institutions — (iiiab),
(iiiad) and (vi). The common requirement for exemption under all these three
clauses is that the university or other educational institution should exist
solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit.

1.2 There has been a debate as to the meaning of the term
‘not for purposes of profit’. The tax authorities have sought to interpret this
requirement as meaning that an Institute which earns a surplus would not be
eligible for the benefit of exemption u/s.10(23C).

1.3 While the Uttarakhand High Court has supported this view
of the tax authorities by holding that in a case of surplus, the educational
institution is not eligible for the exemption, the Bombay High Court and the
Punjab and Haryana High Courts have taken a contrary view that the institution
cannot be regarded as existing for purposes of profit simply because it has a
surplus, and would continue to be eligible for the exemption.

2. Queens’ Educational Society’s case :


2.1 The issue came up before the Uttarakhand High Court in
the case of CIT v. Queens Educational Society, 319 ITR 160.

2.2 In this case involving various educational societies
registered under the Societies Registration Act and imparting education to
children, the assessees had claimed exemption u/s.10(23C)(iiiad), on the ground
that they existed solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of
profit.

2.3 The Assessing Officer rejected the claim for exemption.
The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the benefit of exemption, and the Tribunal
upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

2.4 The Uttarakhand High Court disapproved the observations
of the Tribunal as hypothetical when the Tribunal noted that there was hardly
any surplus left after investment into fixed assets, that the assessees were
engaged in imparting education and had to maintain a teaching and non-teaching
staff and to pay for the salaries and other expenses, that it became necessary
to charge fees from students for meeting all these expenses, that the charging
of fee was incidental to the prominent objective of the trust of imparting
education, that the school was initially being run in a rented building and the
surplus enabled the Society to acquire its own property, computers, library
books, sports equipment, etc. for the benefit of the students, and that the
members of the Society had not utilised any part of the surplus for their own
benefit. The High Court also noted the Tribunal’s observations that profit was
only incidental to the main object of spreading education, and that if there was
no surplus out of the difference between the receipts and outgoings, the trust
would not be able to achieve its objects.

2.5 The Uttarakhand High Court observed that the reasons
recorded by the Tribunal were hypothetical, and that the Tribunal failed to
appreciate that the profit percentage was 30% and 27% of the total receipts.
According to the Uttarakhand High Court, the law was well settled that is the
profit was proved by an educational Society, then that would be income of the
society as a surplus amount remained in the account books of the Society after
meeting all the expenses incurred towards imparting education. The Uttarakhand
High Court relied on observations of the Supreme Court in the case of
Aditanar Educational Institution v. Addl. CIT,
224 ITR 310 for this
proposition.

2.6 The Uttarakhand High Court observed further that the
objects clause contained other noble and pious objects and the Society had done
nothing to achieve those objects except pushing the main object of providing
education and earning profit. According to the Uttarakhand High Court, with the
profit which it had earned, the Society had strengthened or enhanced its
capacity to earn more rather than to undertake any other activities to fulfil
other noble objects for the cause of poor and needy people or advancement of
religious purposes. The High Court observed that the investment in fixed assets
might have been connected with the imparting of education, but the same had been
constructed and/or purchased out of income from imparting education with a view
to expand the institution and to earn more income.

2.7 The Uttarakhand High Court therefore held that the
Society was not eligible for exemption, as it was existing for purposes of
profit, as evidenced by the surplus earned by the Society.

3. Vanita Vishram Trust’s case :


3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Mumbai High
Court in the case of Vanita Vishram Trust v. CCIT, (unreported — Writ
Petition Nos. 366 & 367 of 2010, dated 6th May 2010 — available on
www.itatonline.org).

3.2 In this case, the assessee was a public charitable trust
registered under the Bombay Public Trusts Act, 1950. It had been running primary
and secondary schools and colleges in Mumbai since 1929 and in Surat since 1940.
Its main object was education of women. Its memorandum provided that no portion
of the income or property of the Association would be paid directly or
indirectly by way of dividend, bonus or otherwise to the members of the
Association, and that the surplus if any, was not to be paid or distributed
amongst the members of the Association, but to be transferred to another
institution or institutions having similar objects. Till A.Y. 2004-05, the trust
was allowed exemption u/s.10(22) and u/s.10(23C)(vi).

3.3 The assessee filed applications for continuation of
approval u/s.10(23C)(vi) with the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (CCIT). The
CCIT held that the trust had other objects, such as construction of ashrams for
Gujarati Hindu women, and was therefore not existing solely for education. He
also noted that since the trust had a surplus in excess of 12% of the receipts
from its activities, which was invested in making additions to assets and
increasing bank deposits, it was not entitled to the exemption. He therefore
rejected the applications for approval.

3.4 Before the Bombay High Court, it was argued on behalf of the assessee that for nearly 80 years, the assessee had been carrying on only the activity of conducting schools and colleges and had not carried on any other activity. It was also argued that the incidental existence of a surplus generated from the activity of conducting schools and colleges would not detract from the character of the assessee as existing solely for educational purposes and not for profit, and that the entire surplus was utilised only for the purpose of education, there being a specific provision in the Memorandum under which no part of the profits could be distributed. It was further argued that the existence of a surplus did not disentitle an institution to the grant of approval, and that the purpose of the surplus was to build up corpus for the capital enhancement of the educational institutions conducted by the trust, which was not a commercial purpose, but a purpose directly proximate to the main object of conducting educational institutions.

3.5 On behalf of the Revenue, it was argued that the threshold requirement of S. 10(23C)(vi) was the existence of an educational institution or university, and its existence solely for educational purposes and not for profit.

3.6 Noting the fact that the trust had carried on only the running of schools and colleges for the last 80 years, the Bombay High Court noted that even in the past, the tax authorities had held the trust to be existing solely for educational purposes. The Bombay High Court noted that in a reference made to a Division Bench of the Bombay High Court u/s.256(1) on the issue of whether the same assessee (as was now before it) was entitled to exemption u/s.10(22) on interest earned on surplus funds of the school run by it, the Division Bench had observed that merely because a certain surplus arose from the operations of the trust, it could not be held that the institution was run for the purpose of profit, so long as no person or individual was entitled to any portion of the profit and the profit was utilised for the purpose of promoting the objects of the institution.

3.7 In that case, the Division Bench had relied on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Aditanar Educational Institution (supra), in holding that as a principle of law, if after meeting the expenditure, a surplus resulted incidentally from an activity law-fully carried on by the educational institution, the institution would not cease to be one which was existing solely for educational purposes since the object was not to make profit. The Bombay High Court noted the findings of the earlier Division Bench in the case of the same assessee holding that the assessee existed only for educational purposes which consisted of running educational institutions, and not for earning profits.

3.8 The Bombay High Court also pointed out the provisions of the third proviso to S. 10(23C), which permitted an accumulation not exceeding 15% for a period of not more than 5 years. According to the Bombay High Court, this provision established that the Parliament did not regard the accumulation of income by a university or other educational institution as a disabling factor, so long as the purpose of accumulation was the application of the income wholly and exclusively to the objects for which the institution had been established. The Parliament had however placed a limit on the amount and period of such accumulation.

3.9 Referring to the decision of the Uttarakhand High Court in Queens’ Educational Society’s case, the Bombay High Court observed that that case seemed to be distinguishable, as the assessee in that case was construed to be one which existed with the object of enhancing the income and of earning profits as opposed to the provision of education. However, with reference to the observations of the Uttarakhand High Court that though it was entitled to pursue other noble and pious objects, the assessee had done nothing to achieve them and had only pursued the main object of providing education and earning profit, the Bombay High Court observed that the requirement that the institution must exist solely for educational purposes would militate against an institution pursuing other objects. The Bombay High Court therefore disagreed with the views expressed by the Uttarakhand High Court that the benefit of the exemption should be denied on the ground that the assessee had only pursued its main object of providing education and had not pursued the other objects for which the trust was constituted.

As observed by the Bombay High Court, if the assessee were to pursue other objects, it would clearly violate the requirement of existing solely for educational purposes.

3.10 The Bombay High Court therefore directed the CCIT to grant approval to the assessee u/s. 10(23C)(vi) as an educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit.

3.11 A similar view was taken by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Pinegrove International Charitable Trust v. Union of India, 188 Taxman 402, where the Punjab and Haryana High Court held that merely because profits have resulted from activity of imparting education would not result in change of character of institution that it existed solely for educational purposes.

4.Observations:

4.1 Since all the three High Courts in the above cases have referred to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Aditanar Educational Institution (supra ) in support of the view taken by each of them, and relied on the same observations, it is necessary to understand the ratio of that decision and those observations of the Supreme Court in Aditanar’s case.

4.2 In Aditanar’s case (supra ), the Supreme Court was considering a case of a Society which was running various schools, and had received donations. The tax authorities sought to tax the donations, on the ground that the Society was not an educational institution, but merely a financing body. While holding that the Society itself was also an educational institution existing solely for educational purposes, the Supreme Court observed as under:

“We may state that the language of S. 10(22) of the Act is plain and clear and the availability of the exemption should be evaluated each year to find out whether the institution existed during the relevant year solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit. After meeting the expenditure, if any surplus results incidentally from the activity lawfully carried on by the educational institution, it will not cease to be one existing solely for educational purposes since the object is not one to make profit. The decisive or acid test is whether on an overall view of the matter, the object is to make profit. In evaluating or appraising the above, one should also bear in mind the distinction/difference between the corpus, the objects and the powers of the concerned entity. The following decisions are relevant in this context: Governing Body of Rangaraya Medical College v. ITO, (1979) 117 ITR 284 (AP) and Secondary Board of Education v. ITO, (1972) 86 ITR 408 (Orissa).”

4.3 The Supreme Court therefore impliedly approved the ratio of these two decisions of the Andhra Pradesh High Court and the Orissa High Court. In Rangaraya Medical College’s case, the Andhra Pradesh High Court had held that merely because certain surplus arose from the society’s operations, it could not be held that the institution was run for purpose of profit, so long as no person or individual was entitled to any portion of the said profit and the said profit was utilised for the purpose and for the promotion of the objects of the institution.

4.4 In Secondary Board of Education’s case, the Orissa High Court held:

“One of the sources of income of the Board is profits from compilation, publication, printing and sale of textbooks. The profits so earned enter into the Board fund. The income and expenditure of the Board is controlled and the entire expenditure is to be directed towards development and expansion of educational purposes. Even if there is some surplus, it remains as a part of the sinking fund to be devoted to the cause of education as and when necessary. This being the objective and there being various ways of control of the income and expenditure, the Board of Secondary Education cannot be said to be existing for purposes of profit. It exists solely for purposes of education.”

4.5 It therefore appears that so long as the main object is provision of education, surplus arising from any of the activities would not disentitle the claim for exemption, so long as the surplus can be utilised only for education. This view is also supported by the permitted accumulation.

4.6 Further, the Punjab & Haryana High Court in Pinegrove’s case, has rightly observed that there is a definite purpose behind allowing setting up of educational institutions by private sector, including trusts/societies. Various educational colleges could not have been established for want of funds, and the Government which lacked funds thought that the private sector could assist in this regard. The Court observed that in every educational institution, there is bound to be a profit to support growth of the educational infrastructure and activities. Interestingly, the Punjab & Haryana High Court has held that in computing the surplus, capital expenditure has also to be deducted, as that is also an expenditure on the objects of the trust.

4.7 As rightly observed by the Bombay High Court in Vanita Vishram’s case, where S. 10(23C) itself now permits an accumulation of income up to 15% of the income of the trust, a trust cannot be penalised by treating it as existing for purposes of profit merely because it earns and accumulates such a surplus. In any case, today it is restricted from accumulating a surplus exceeding a particular level and beyond a particular period. As observed by the Supreme Court in Aditanar’s case, there is a clear distinction between the objects, which is that of education, and the powers, which is to spend on objects or accumulate surplus.

4.8 The Uttarakhand High Court seems to have misinterpreted the observations of the Supreme Court in Aditanar’s case, regarding the corpus, objects and powers, to mean that the assessee should pursue other objects as well. As rightly pointed out by the Bombay High Court, if this interpretation were adopted and the assessee pursued other non- educational objects, it may in fact result in total denial of the benefit meant only for educational institutions.

4.8 The better view therefore is that of the Mumbai and Punjab & Haryana High Courts, that an educational trust cannot be held to be existing for purposes of profit and not for education merely because it earns a surplus from its activities.

Deductibility of expenditure on stamp duty and registration charges

1. Issue for consideration :

    1.1 The deductibility or otherwise of payments connected with a property under a lease has always been a source of protracted litigation. Some of such issues are :

  •  Whether payment of premium for acquiring a leasehold asset is a revenue or capital expenditure.

  • Whether payment of lease rent in lump sum is a revenue or capital expenditure.

  •   Whether expenditure incurred for repairs and renovation of leasehold property is allowable as a deduction or not.

  •    Whether expenses on construction of building on a leasehold property is a capital or revenue expenditure.

    1.2 One more issue, which regularly comes for consideration of Courts, is about the deductibility of an expenditure incurred on stamp duty and registration charges, in executing a lease deed, paid by a lessee.

    1.3 The issue remained controversial, in spite of several Courts holding the expenditure to be deductible, because of the decisions of the Karnataka and some other High Courts holding the expenditure in question to be not allowable. Recently, the Himachal Pradesh High Court had an occasion to examine the true purpose of the dissenting decision of the Karnataka High Court in adjudicating the issue under consideration, namely, deductibility of expenditure on stamp duty and registration charges.

2. Hotel Rajmahal’s case :

    2.1 The issue earlier came for consideration of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Hotel Rajmahal v. CIT, 152 ITR 218.

    2.2 The facts behind the legal formulation were that the assessee, a firm consisting of five partners, came into force with effect from March 2, 1974. The firm took over a running business with boarding and lodging facilities in the name and style ‘Hotel Rajmahal’ at Bangalore by executing a lease deed dated April 24, 1974, for which it incurred an expenditure of Rs.11,270 by way of stamp duty, registration fee and legal expenses. The lease was for a period of ten years with option for renewal for another period of ten years.

    2.3 The assessee filed a return disclosing an income of Rs.67,220 for the A.Y. 1975-76, the relevant previous year ending December 31, 1974 after deducting the aforesaid sum of Rs.11,270. The AO completed the assessment accepting the return allowing the said deduction, but the Commissioner revised the order u/s.263 of the Act by disallowing the expenditure of Rs.11,270 on the ground that it was of capital nature having been incurred for acquisition of a capital asset. The appeal preferred by the assessee, against the order of the Commissioner, was dismissed by the Tribunal by holding that the assessee had started the business only during the relevant year for the first time and that the lease was for a considerably long period and therefore, the benefit arising from the transaction be considered as of an enduring nature.

    2.4 At the instance of the assessee, the following question of law was referred for the opinion of the Court :

    “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, Rs.11,270 being the expenditure incurred by the assessee by way of stamp duty, registration fee and legal expenses for the execution of registration of the lease deed dated April 24, 1974, is to be allowed in computing its income for the A.Y. 1975-76 ?”

    2.5 The assessee, urged before the Court that the period of lease was not relevant for deciding whether the sum claimed for deduction was in the nature of revenue expenditure or capital in nature; what was important to consider was whether the said amount spent was a necessary outgoing for the use of a thing from which the assessee was to earn profit.

    2.6 In support of the contention, the assessee relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in India Cements Ltd. v. CIT, 60 ITR 52 as also on the two decisions of the Bombay High Court in the cases of CIT v. Hoechst Pharmaceuticals Ltd., 113 ITR 877 and CIT v. Bombay Cycle & Motor Agency Ltd., 118 ITR 42.

    2.7 The Court observed that the contention of the assessee could have been relevant, provided the assessee was engaged in a business prior to the execution of the lease deed and the expenditure incurred was incidental to such business, but the assessee in the given case, for the first time, entered into the business in respect of which he spent the amount for executing and registering the lease deed and but for the execution of the lease deed, he would not have got the apparatus of the business and the leasehold rights. The Court held that the expenditure had really brought into existence an asset of enduring nature and the expenditure in connection with the acquisition of such rights should be distinguished from the expenditure incidental to the existing business and that the former could not be allowed u/s.37 of the Act, though the latter may in certain circumstances be allowed.

    2.8 The Court further observed that the assessee could not draw support from those decisions of the Supreme Court and the Bombay High Court since they concerned themselves with cases where a certain sum of money was spent towards stamp duty, registration fees, lawyer’s fees, etc., for the purpose of the existing business of the assessee.

    2.9 In the instant case, as already stated by the Court, it was for the first time that the assessee entered into the business by executing the lease whereunder the assessee secured the leasehold rights for an initial period of ten years with an option to renew for another period of ten years and as such the expenditure incurred for securing this kind of asset, by way of stamp duty, registration charges and legal fees was an expenditure of capital nature.

    2.10 At this juncture, we need to take note of the decisions in the cases of United Commercial Corporation, 78 ITR 800 (All) and Govind Sugar, 152 ITR 218 (Kar.), wherein the expenses in question were held to be not allowable, irrespective of the fact that they were incurred after the business was set up.

3. Gopal Associates’ case :

3.1 Recently, the Himachal Pradesh High Court in the case of CIT v. Gopal Associates, 222 CTR 307 was required to consider the issue of allowability of the expenditure on stamp duty and registration charges in executing a lease deed. In that case, during the A.Y. 1994-95, the assessee took on lease, a fruit processing plant from the HPMC. The lease deed was executed on 27th December, 1993 for a period of 7 years but was later terminated. The assessee had spent a sum of Rs.3,44,251 as stamp duty and registration charges on execution of the lease deed. The AO treated this expenditure as capital expenditure by relying upon the judgment of the Karnataka High Court in the case Hotel Rajmahal (supra). On the other hand, the assessee relying upon the judgments of the Madras, Kerala and Gujarat High Courts in Sri Krishna Tiles & Potteries Madras (P) Ltd. v. CIT, 173 ITR 311 (Mad.), Plantation Corporation of Kerala Ltd. v. Commissioner of Agri. IT, 205 ITR 364 (Ker.) and Gujarat Machinery Manufacturing Ltd. v. ClT, 211 ITR 1010 (Guj.) contended that the amount spent as stamp duty and registration charges should be treated as revenue expenditure. The CIT(A) and Tribunal accepted the plea of the assessee.

3.2 The Revenue filed an appeal challenging the order of the Tribunal by raising the following substantial question of law:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case the Tribunal was right in law in holding that the expenditure incurred on stamp duty and registration charges at the time of execution of lease agreement for taking on lease the fruit processing plant for seven years was allowable as revenue expenditure.”

3.3 The Himachal Pradesh High Court noted that the Karnataka High Court in Hotel Rajmahal’s case (supra) did not really discuss the matter in detail but held that when for the first time the assessee entered a lease deed securing leasehold rights for a long period, the expenditure incurred on stamp duty registration and legal fees, etc. should be treated as expenditure of capital nature. The Court however chose to follow the decision of the Madras High Court  in Sri Krishna  Tiles & Potteries  Madras  (P) Ltd. case (supra) which in turn followed the law laid down by the Bombay High Court in ClT v. Cinceita Ltd., 137 ITR 652 (Born.) and accordingly dis-agreed with the decision of the Karnataka High Court to hold that irrespective of whether the incidental expenditure was incurred in connection with or related to capital expenditure, the same had to be treated as revenue expenditure.

3.4 The Court also  noted that the Kerala High Court also took the same view in Plantation Corporation’s case (supra) and the Gujarat High Court in Gujarat Machinery’s case (supra) dealt with the same question and held that the amount spent on registration and stamp charges was a revenue expenditure.

3.5 The Court chose to follow the reasoning given by the Bombay, Madras, Kerala and Gujarat High Courts and respectfully disagreed with the judgment of the Karnataka High Court.

3.6 In view of the findings, the Court decided the substantial question against the Revenue by holding that the expenditure in question was a revenue expenditure allowable as a deduction.

Observations:

4.1 The short but interesting  issue is whether  the expenditure  in question  for drawing  up a proper and effective deed of lease, namely, the expenditure in respect  of stamp  duty,  registration  charges  and professional fees paid to the. solicitors who prepared and got registered  the deed  of lease is an expenditure resulting in an enduring  benefit simply because it is in some manner  incurred  at the same time and is connected  that way to a property  acquired  under a lease. Further,  the fact that the lease is of a longer period will have any bearing in deciding the issue or not.

4.2 We need to note that there is no element of premium in the said amounts claimed as expenditure and the expenditure would have been the same even if the lease had been of a shorter duration. The expenditure in question is not for acquiring the lease-hold right which is normally acquired on payment of premium, but is incurred to meet certain expenses which have necessarily to be incurred in order to conform to the legal requirements laid down in this behalf for getting a legal deed of lease. It is incurred for drawing up and registering a valid deed of lease not suffering from legal infirmities to facilitate the carrying on of the business of the as-sessee.

4.3 The contention that the assessee obtains an en-during benefit by obtaining the lease deeds and any expenses incurred in connection therewith should be treated as capital expenditure, more so when the lease is for a longer a period should be examined in light of the decisions of the Supreme Court in the cases of Empire Jute Co. Ltd. CIT, 124 ITR I, CfT v. Associated Cement Companies Ltd., 172 ITR 257 and Alembic Chemicals Works Co. Ltd. v. CIT, 177 ITR 377, which have laid down pragmatic and practical tests to find out whether an expenditure is revenue or capital in nature. The Supreme Court held that even in a case where expenditure is incurred for obtaining an advantage of enduring benefit, emphasis should be placed on the nature of the advantage in a commercial sense and if the advantage consists merely in facilitating the assessee’s trading operations or enabling the management and conduct of the assessee’s business to be carried on more efficiently or profitably, while leaving the fixed capital untouched, the expenditure should be held to be on revenue account, even though the advantage may endure for an indefinite future.

4.4 The test of ‘enduring benefit’ has been held to be not a decisive or conclusive test: it cannot be applied blindly and mechanically. The question must be viewed in the larger context of business necessity or expediency. If the expenditure is so related to the carrying on or the conduct of the business, it may be regarded as an integral part of the profit-earning process and not for acquisition of an asset or a right of a permanent character. If the expenditure helps in the profit-earning process, it should not be treated as resulting in acquisition of a profit-earning machinery or apparatus.

4.5 The Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Cinceita Pvt. Ltd., 137 ITR 652, held that though the period of the lease was for 20 years with an option for renewal at a higher rent, yet the expenditure claimed by the assessee was the only expenditure required for drawing up a proper and effective lease deed, namely, the expenditure in respect of the stamp duty, registration charges and professional fees paid to the solicitors, who prepared and registered the lease deed. It noted that there was no element of premium in the amount claimed as expenditure for acquiring the leasehold premises and moreover, the expenditure would have been the same even if the lease was for a shorter duration of any period exceeding one year. Importantly, the Court held that merely because the period of the lease was longer it could not be held that the expenditure resulted in acquiring an asset or advantage of an enduring nature. Therefore, the sum spent was held to be allowable as revenue expenditure.

4.6 The Kerala High Court in the case of Plantation Corporation, 205 ITR 364, held that the Appellate Tribunal had overemphasised the fact that the assessee had acquired an enduring benefit on planting rubber trees by obtaining long-term lease arrangement. The expenditure incurred relating to stamp duty, adjudication fee, registration fee, etc. in respect of lease deeds covering the lands leased to the assessee by the Government was revenue expenditure according to the Court.

4.7 The Madras High Court in the case of Sri Krishna Tiles & Potteries Madras (P) Ltd., 173 ITR 317, held that there was a transfer of interest in the property which was the subject matter of the agreement and the Tribunal was justified in holding that the amount paid as salami was a capital expenditure; however, the sum paid towards stamp duty, registration charges and professional fees to the lawyers was allowable as revenue expenditure.

4.8 The Gujarat High Court in the case of Gujarat Machinery Mfg. Ltd. 211 ITR 1010, in a case dealing with the claim by the lessor, held that the assessee had let an immovable property in consideration of obtaining rent from the lessee and that the assessee (lessor) had not spent any money for acquisition of an asset or rights of a permanent character. On the contrary, the assessee, as a lessor, had parted with some of its rights as owner of the immovable property in favour of the lessee. The assessee was the owner of the property and by executing the lease deed in favour of the lessee, it was not acquiring any new source of income or new asset. Therefore, the expenditure for the stamp duty and the registration of the lease deed could not be said to have been laid out for acquisition of any asset or a right of a permanent nature. The expenditure was laid out for earning rent or was spent as part of the process of profit earning. The expenditure was related to the carrying on or conduct of the business or of earning income by letting out the immovable property which was already owned by the assessee. Merely because the expenditure was related to a capital asset, it did not become a capital expenditure. Therefore, the expenditure incurred by the assessee for letting out the property was revenue expenditure. The Court in arriving at the decision relied on CIT v. Khandelwal Mining and Ores Pvt. Ltd., 140 ITR 701 (Born.) and CIT v. Katihar Jute Mills (P) Ltd., 116 ITR 781 (Cal.).

4.9 In CIT v. Hoechst Pharmaceuticals Ltd., 113 ITR 877, it was held by the Bombay High Court that expenses incurred by way of brokerage and stamp duty for acquiring office premises on lease for a short period of five years were allowable as a deduction in computing the total income of the assessee, since the assessee could not be said to have acquired or brought into existence an advantage of an enduring character.

4.10 The Bombay High Court again in CIT v. Bombay Cycle & Motor Agency Ltd., 118 ITR 42, allowed the claim of the assesses for deduction of the expenses in question. In that case, one of the leases in question was for a period of ten years and the other for a period of five years. The Tribunal had taken the view that the fact that the amounts had been spent in connection with the opening of new branches was by itself no justification for disallowance, that no asset of an enduring nature had been brought into existence, and that the period of the lease by itself was not indicative of securing an asset of an enduring nature and that the expenditure could not be disallowed as of a capital nature.

4.11 It appears that the decisions in the cases of United Commercial Corporation, 78 ITR 800 (All.) and Govind Sugar, 152 ITR 218 (Kar.), wherein the expenses in question were held to be not allowable irrespective of the fact that they were incurred after the business was set up require reconsideration. The view that the expenditure on stamp duty, registration charges and professional fees for drafting the lease deed be allowed as a revenue expenditure is a better view.

Taxability of interest on disputed compensation

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 The Government under the Constitution of India is vested
with the power to compulsorily acquire the private property of its subject in
the given circumstances on payment of compensation. This compensation may in
some cases get enhanced, by the Government or by a Court, where the owner of the
property challenges the quantum of compensation. In such cases of enhancement,
the owner in addition to the compensation is granted interest on the delayed
payment which usually spreads over a period exceeding a year. It is also seen
that the Government in turn challenges the orders of enhancement and interest
thereon, passed by the Courts, before the higher forum, before whom the issue is
finally settled.

1.2 In the circumstances stated in paragraph 1.1, the issues
that arise under the law of income-tax are; whether the compensation received is
taxable or not; whether the interest received thereon is taxable or not and if
yes in which year it will be taxable and whether the interest can be taxed
pending the finalisation of the dispute surrounding the quantum of compensation.

1.3 The first issue referred to in paragraph 1.2 is sought to
be taken care of by insertion of S. 45(5) which provides for taxation of deemed
capital gains on compulsory acquisition of a property. The second issue about
the year of taxation of the interest is rested by the decision of the Apex Court
in the case of Ramabai v. CIT, 181 ITR 400 (SC), wherein it was held that
the interest received on additional compensation should not be taken to have
been accrued in the year of the order, but should be held to have accrued year
after year from the date of handing of the possession of the property till the
date of the order granting the interest and should be spread over the period for
which the same was granted and should be taxed in the respective years. The
third issue continues to emerge repeatedly before the Courts requiring the
Courts to address the issue of the taxability of interest pending its
finalisation.

1.4 A good number of decisions of the High Courts confirms
that the interest on enhanced compensation cannot be taxed till such time the
same is free of any dispute and it is only when the payment thereof is free of
any disputes that it can be brought to tax. As against this, the Revenue
regularly relies on the sole decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court which
held that the interest should be taxed in the year in which the same was
received under the order of additional compensation and the fact that the
Government had filed an appeal against the order of enhancement shall not defer
the taxation.

2. M. Sarojini Devi’s case :


2.1 The issue came up for consideration of the Andhra Pradesh
High Court in the case of CIT v. M. Sarojini Devi, 250 ITR 759. In that
case, land belonging to the assessee had been acquired by the Government in the
year 1966 and compensation was awarded by the Land Acquisition Officer. The
amount of compensation was challenged by the assessee and on reference,
compensation at a higher rate was awarded in the previous year relevant to the
A.Y. 1976-77, together with an interest of Rs.43,642 for the period 1966 to
1975. The State Government challenged the said order of enhancement in an appeal
before the Supreme Court, which was pending. The Assessing Officer held that the
entire amount of interest on enhanced compensation was liable to tax in A.Y.
1976-77.

2.2 The assessment was challenged in appeal before the
Appellate Commissioner who held that the amount of interest received by the
assessee could not be taxed, as the matter had not become final and an appeal
was pending before the Supreme Court. In deciding the issue, he relied on a
judgment of the same Court in CIT v. Smt. Sankari Manickyamma, 105 ITR
172 (AP). On further appeal before the Tribunal, the Appellate Commissioner’s
view was upheld by following the said decision of the Court.

2.3 The Revenue being aggrieved referred the following
question to the Court : “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case, the interest on compensation for the assessment year for which the
interest should be brought to tax is the one in which it was awarded or the year
in which issue of quantum of compensation becomes final ?”

The question raised was reframed by the Court as follows;
“Whether the AO has to wait till the final disposal by the final Court in an
acquisition matter before the interest accrued is taxed ?”

2.4 The Court on consideration of the facts noted that the
question was already answered by the Supreme Court in Rama Bai v. CIT,
181 ITR 400 (SC). The Court observed that the fact that the compensation was
enhanced by the High Court in an appeal and the interest accruing thereon was
received by the assessee made him liable to pay the tax, however, the interest
would be spread over the period for which it accrued to him, in accordance with
the Supreme Court judgment. It also noted that in case the judgment enhancing
the compensation in favour of the assessee was reversed by the Supreme Court,
the assessee, even after payment of tax on the accrued interest, would not be
remediless, as he could seek refund of the tax so paid, by making appropriate
application for rectification of the assessment. Lastly, the Court was of the
view that the judgment relied upon by the Tribunal in Smt. Sankari Manickyamma’s
case, 105 ITR 172 (AP), stood reversed in view of the judgment of the Supreme
Court in Rama Bai’s case, 181 ITR 400.

2.5 The Andhra Pradesh High Court for the above reasons,
answered the question in favour of the Revenue and against the assessee.

3. Karanbir Singh’s case :


3.1 The Punjab & Haryana High Court recently was required to
deal with the issue in the case of CIT v. Karanbir Singh, 216 CTR 585. In
that case land belonging to the assessee was acquired by the Punjab State
Electricity Board in 1962. During the previous year relevant to A.Y. 1986-87,
the assessee received enhanced compensation and interest to the tune of
Rs.11,87,485 and Rs.17,06,686, respectively. The State Government filed an
appeal against the said order of enhancement, which appeal was pending at the
time of assessment. The AO held that the entire amount of interest received of
Rs.17,06,686 was assessable in the assessee’s hands for the A.Y. 1986-87, as the
amount was actually received during that year.

3.2 Aggrieved by the order of assessment on this count, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) and inter alia contended that the amount of interest received by the assessee was not taxable in his hands during the year in question in terms of judgment of the Supreme Court in CIT v. Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd., 161 ITR 524. The CIT(A) did not accept the contention of the assessee, but directed for taxing only that amount of interest which accrued to the assessee during the assessment year in question, by relying on the decision in the case of Smt. Rama Bai v..CIT, 181 ITR 400 (SC).

3.3 The assessee, being still aggrieved, preferred an appeal before the Tribunal where the Tribunal relying upon decision of the Supreme Court in Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd.’s case (supra) accepted the appeal of the assessee by holding that no amount of interest should be taxable, as the matter regarding compensation had not attained finality and was still fluid.

3.4 At the instance of the Revenue, the following question was referred to the Punjab & Haryana High Court; “Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in holding that the amount of interest on enhanced compensation received in June, 1985 in consequence upon judgment of District Judge and the amount having been utilised/invested in discretion of the assessee was not includible in the total income of the assessee ?”

3.5 The Revenue contended that the principles of law laid down in Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd.’s case (supra) were not applicable in the facts and circumstances of the present case, as the right to receive compensation by the assessee was not in dispute and it was only the quantification thereof on account of which the appeals were pending at the relevant time; that merely because the quantum issue had not attained finality, the amount which had actually been received and was available at the discretion of the assessee could not be held to be non-taxable, as the same would be totally against the spirit of the taxing statute. Reliance was placed upon the judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in CIT v. Smt. M. Sarojini Devi (supra).

3.6 The High Court noted that against a solitary judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Smt. M. Sarojini Devi’s case (supra), there were many judgments of different Courts taking a view in favour of the assessee on the issue, namely, CIT v. Laxman Das & Anr., 246 ITR 622 (All), Director of IT (Exemption) v. Goyal Charitable Trust, 125 CTR (Del.) 426, 215 ITR 672 (Del.), Chief CIT & Anr. v. Smt. Shantavva, 188 CTR (Kar.) 162,267 ITR 67 (Kar.) and CIT v. Abdul Mannan Shah Mohammed, 248 ITR 614 (Bom.). It also noted that a special leave peti-tion in a similar case was dismissed by the Supreme Court reported in CIT v. [anabaiViihabai Dudhe, 268 ITR (St) 215.

3.7 The High Court agreed that the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Smt. M. Sarojini Devi’s case (supra) had taken the view that the AO need not wait till the matter regarding assessment of compensation attained finality, however, for arriving at the above conclusion, much discussion was not available in that judgment. As against that, the Court found that in a number of judgments as referred to above, different Courts had held that such interest was to be taxed in the year of settlement of dispute and that under similar circumstances, a special leave petition to appeal against the judgment of the Bombay High Court had also been dismissed.

3.8 Keeping in view the totality of circumstances and the ratio of judgment referred to above, the Court decided the issue’ in favour of the assessee and against the Revenue, by holding that the Revenue was not entitled to tax the amount of interest received by the assessee on account of acquisition of land till such time the proceedings in reference thereto attained a finality.

Observations:

4.1 The Supreme Court in CIT v. Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd., 161 ITR 524 (SC), held that when the Government had appealed against the award and the- additional amount of compensation was deposited in the Court, it was not taxable at that stage, as the additional compensation would not accrue as income when it was specifically disputed by the Government in appeal.

4.2 A position  that has emerged  and  has gained acceptance on account of the above decision of the Supreme  Court  is that  where  the disputed  additional compensation does not accrue till such time the dispute relating thereto is settled; the question of taxing interest thereon should not arise at all, as the same has also not accrued till then.

4.3 The Bombay High Court following  the above referred Supreme Court decision in the case of Abdul Mannan Shah’s case (supra) held that in view of the said judgment of the Supreme Court, there was no merit in the Revenue’s appeal and that no substantial question of law arose as the judgment of the Supreme Court, on facts, squarely applied to the facts of the case before them. In that case, the Court was required to consider the taxability of the interest on enhanced compensation pending the appeal by the Government.

4.4 Recently a similar view was expressed by the Delhi High Court in Paragon Constructions (I) (P) Ltd. v. CIT & Anr., 274 ITR 413, in a matter pertaining to arbitration where the amount of arbitration award received by the assessee was not held to be taxable till the proceedings attained a finality.

4.5 The issue appears to be fairly settled in favour of the assessee, not only by the decisions of the High Courts, but also by the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd. (supra) and in all fairness the Revenue should accept the position law laid down under these decisions to be final where the right to receive enhanced compensation itself is disputed by the Government. This acceptance will in turn avoid any futile litigation. The interest on enhanced compensation whenever in dispute before whichever forum should not be brought to tax till such time there remains no dispute regarding the quantum of enhanced compensation payable or paid in pursuance of an order of compulsory acquisition.

4.6 It is at the same time appropriate to note that the Supreme Court in the above mentioned case of Hindustan Housing & Land Development Trust Ltd. (supra) held that when the right to receive enhanced compensation itself was under dispute and was not absolute that the compensation cannot be said to have accrued, however, where the right was admitted and only quantification thereof was disputed, the taxation of the admitted undisputed amount need not be deferred. In that case, the enhanced compensation awarded by the arbitrators was allowed to be withdrawn on furnishing of a security bond that the amount released would be refunded in the event of the assessee found to be disentitled to the compensation so enhanced. In Abdul Mannan Shah’s case (supra), the case before the Bombay High Court, the assessee was permitted to withdraw the amount of interest deposited in the Court on furnishing the security for refund.

TDS on Discount on Airline Tickets

Controversies

1. Issue for Consideration :



1.1 Airlines generally sell air tickets through travel
agents who are paid a commission on sale of such tickets which commission is
worked out on the basis of the minimum fares prescribed by the airlines. Tax
is deducted by the airlines on this commission u/s. 194H of the Act. Where the
tickets are provided to the travel agent by the airlines at a price below the
published fare, the difference, known as ‘discount’, or a part thereof is
retained by him while selling the tickets to the passengers, which is in
addition to the regular commission earned by him. No tax is deducted by the
Airlines on this amount retained by the travel agents. All airlines are
required to file a list of their standard fares with the Director General of
Commercial Aviation, which are called published fares. Usually tickets are
provided by airlines to travel agents at significant discounts to the
published fares and sold by the agents to their customers by passing over the
difference in full or part. Under IATA rules, the travel agents receive their
commission as a percentage of the published fares, in respect of which tax is
deducted at source by the airline under Section 194H.

1.2 S. 194 H defines ‘commission or brokerage’, vide
Explanation(i), as under :

” ‘Commission or brokerage’ includes any payment received
or receivable, directly or indirectly by a person acting on behalf of another
person for services rendered (not being professional services) or for any
services in the course of buying or selling of goods or in relation to any
transaction relating to any asset, valuable article or thing not being
securities.”

1.3 In recent years, tax authorities have sought to take a
stand that the discount from published fares given by airlines to travel
agents (which in turn is generally passed on by the travel agent to the
customer in full or part) amounts to an additional special commission, and
that TDS is deductible on this amount under Section 194H.

1.4 The issue has now reached Courts and the Bombay High
Court has held that such discount is not in the nature of brokerage or
commission and no tax is deductible thereon. The Delhi High Court has taken a
view that tax is deductible on such discount.


2. Qutar Airways’ case :


2.1 The issue came up before the Bombay High Court in the
case of CIT vs. Qutar Airways (Income Tax Appeal No.99 of 2009),
ITATOnline.org.

2.2 In this case, it had been claimed by the Revenue that
the difference between the published price and the minimum fixed commercial
price amounted to an additional special commission, and that TDS was therefore
deductible by the airline on this amount under Section 194H.

2.3 The Tribunal had granted relief to the airline,
following its earlier decision in the case of Korean Air vs. DCIT,
holding that TDS was not deductible in similar circumstances.

2.4 Before the Bombay High Court, the counsel for the
Revenue contended that it was not the Revenue’s case that the difference
between the principal price of the tickets (as published) and the minimum
fixed commercial price amounted to brokerage.

2.5 The Bombay High Court noted that though an appeal had
been preferred against the decision of the Tribunal in Korean Air’s case, the
appeal had been rejected by the High Court for non-removal of office
objections under rule 986. The Court noted that for Section 194 H to apply,
the income being paid out by the airline must be in the nature of commission
or brokerage, and must necessarily be ascertainable in the hands of the
recipient.

2.6 On the facts of the case before it, the Bombay High
Court noted that the airlines had no information about the exact rate at which
the tickets were ultimately sold by the agents, since the agents had been
given discretion to sell the tickets at any rate between the fixed minimum
commercial price and the published price. It was noted by the Court that it
would be impracticable and unreasonable to expect the airline to get feedback
from their numerous agents in respect of each ticket sold. The Court was of
the view that if the airlines had discretion to sell the tickets at a price
lower than the published price, then the permission granted to the agent to
sell it at a lower price could neither amount to commission or brokerage in
the hands of the agent. The Bombay High Court however clarified that any
amount which the agent earned over and above the fixed minimum commercial
price would naturally be income in his hands and would be taxable as such in
his hands.

2.7 The Bombay High Court therefore held that no TDS was
deductible under Section 194H in respect of such discount over the published
fares given by airlines to travel agents.


3. Singapore Airlines’ case :

3.1 The issue again recently came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of Singapore Airlines and 12 other airlines — CIT vs. Singapore Airlines Ltd. (ITA Nos.306/2005 and 123/2006).

3.2 In this case, a survey was conducted on the airlines. This revealed that supplementary commission was being paid to travel agents. The travel agent, after sale, would send the details every two weeks to an organisation Billing Settlement Plan (‘BSP’), which was an organisation approved by the International Air Transport Association, which would prepare an analysis of the billing and send it to each airline. In this analysis, this amount was shown as supplementary commission. The airlines either accounted for this as supplementary commission or incentives/deals. Some travel agents confirmed that such supplementary commission had not been passed on by them to customers. From April 2002, the procedure was changed and tickets were sold at the net price. The Department started proceedings against the airlines for non-deduction of TDS under Section 194H on such supplementary commission.

3.3 The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the stand of the Department. The Tribunal however allowed the airline’s appeal, holding that the airline received only the net fare from the agent, that any surplus or deficit from such net fare was the profit or loss of the agent, and since such profit or loss was on account of his own efforts and on his own account, did not emanate from services rendered to the airline.

3.4 Before the Delhi High Court, on behalf of the Department it was argued that:

    i) the relationship between the assessee-airline and the travel agent was that of a principal and agent and not one of principal to principal.

    ii) the supplementary commission retained by the travel agent was not a discount as claimed by the assessee-airline since it was paid for services rendered by the travel agent in the course of buying and selling of tickets;

    iii) the submission of the assessee-airline that they had a dual/hybrid relationship with their agent, that is, insofar as the transaction which involved payment of standard commission was that of agency, while that which involved the retention of supplementary commission by the travel agent, that is, price obtained over and above the net fare, was a result of a principal-to-principal relationship ought to be rejected, for the reason that no evidence whatsoever was placed by the assessee-airline to establish that there was such a dual relationship between the parties. The Standard Format Agreement (as approved by lATA), that is, the Passenger Sales Agency (PSA) Agreement executed by the assessee airline was silent as regards any such dual relationship to which the assessee-airline had adverted to;

v) the main provision of Section 194-H included within its ambit payment by cash, cheque, draft or by any other mode. Thus retention of money by the travel agent was covered by the main provisions of Section 194H. It was not the case of the assessee-air line either before the Assessing Officer or the CIT(A) that the travel agent was required to only remit the net fare to the airlines, and this was not even a condition in the PSA Agreement. The net fare was actually arrived at by deducting from the gross fare, tax, standard commission and supplementary commission. While standard commission was fixed by lATA the supplementary commission was variable, as it was dependent on the policies of the airline vis-a-vis their agents. If net fare was the basis for the entire transaction, then there was no necessity of intervention of BSP to carry out a billing analysis, as then the amount payable by the travel agent to the assessee-airline could easily be calculated by taking into account the product of the number of tickets sold and the net fare; and

vi)     the amount of supplementary commission which had to be paid on each transaction was embedded in the deal code which was known only to the three concerned parties, that is, the assessee-airline, the travel agent and BSP.Since the assessee-airline was the person responsible for payment of supplementary commission to the travel agent, the tax could have been deducted as and when the billing analysis statement was handed over by the BSP to the airline. It was thus contended that the supplemen-tary commission fell within the ambit of the explanation to Section 194H.

3.5 On behalf of the assessee-airlines, it was argued before the Delhi High Court that:

    i) supplementary commission was only a nomenclature which finds mention in the billing analysis statement of BSP.The said supplementary commission denotes a notional figure which is the difference between the published fare less standard IATAcommission (9% or 7%). The net fare is the amount received by the assessee from its travel agents. In other words, the

supplementary commission is not a commission within the meaning of Section 194H;

    ii) supplementary commission can only be brought within the ambit of Section 194H, if it fulfils the following criteria as prescribed under the said provision-

    a. the sum received must be in the nature of income,

    b. such income must denote any payment received or receivable directly or indirectly by the payee from the payer, that is, the assessee, and

    c. the recipient should be a person acting on behalf of that another person, and that, the sum received or receivable whether directly or indirectly should be for services rendered in the course of buying and selling of goods, that is, tickets in the present case.

    iii) the Department had not been able to produce any evidence to show that the difference between the published fare and the net fare (i.e., the fare the assessee received from the travel agents) was realised by the travel agents. The difference as reduced by standard commission and taxes which is referred to as supplementary commission is only a notional figure and this cannot be termed as a commission within the meaning of Section 194H. What the assessee is entitled to receive is only the net fare. There is no right in the assessee-airline to receive the published fare from the travel agent on sale of tickets;

    iv) the notional figure of supplementary commission as appearing in the billing analysis statement of the BSP is neither income nor can it be construed as payment received or receivable, directly or indirectly by the travel agents in its capacity as the agent of the assessee-airline for any services rendered to the assessee-airline. The billing analysis statement of BSP is not a statement of account as contended by the Revenue;

    v) since there was no evidence to suggest that the difference between published fare and the net fare was actually received by the travel agent, there was no obligation on the part of the assessee-airline to deduct tax at source on such notional commission which had not been realised;

    vi) in these circumstances the provisions of Section 194H were unworkable;

    vii) the travel agents had paid tax on the said supplementary commission and hence the Revenue was precluded from raising demands on the assessee-airline.

3.6 Analysing the provisions of Section 194H, the Delhi High Court noted that the provisions of Section 194H would be attracted only if:

    i) there is a principal-agent relationship between the assessee-airline and the travel agent;

    ii) the payments made by assessee-airline to the travel agent, who is a resident is an income by way of commission;

    iii) the income by way of commission should be paid by the assessee-airline to the travel agent for services rendered by the travel agent or for any services in the course of buying or selling of goods;
 
    iv) the income by way of commission may be received or be receivable by the travel agent from the assessee-airline either directly or indirectly; and

    v) lastly, the point in time at ‘which obligation to deduct tax at source of the assessee-airline will arise only when credit of such income by way of commission is made to the account of the travel agent or when payment of income by way of commission is made by way of cash, cheque or draft or by any other mode, whichever is earlier.

3.7 Analysing the terms of the PSA agreement and the manner in which the airlines and travel agents functioned, the Delhi High Court concluded that:

    i) the travel agent acted on behalf of the airline to establish a legal relationship between an airline and a passenger, and was therefore an agent of the airline, which was his principal;

    ii) since it was undisputed that the amount received and retained by the travel agent over and above the net fare would be assessable to tax in his hands as his income, and tax had actually been paid by agents on such income, supplementary commission was ‘income’ within the meaning of Section 194H;

    iii) the supplementary commission is not a discount, on account of the fact that the payment retained by the travel agent is inextricably linked to the sale of the traffic document/ air ticket, and the travel agent does not obtain proprietary rights to the traffic documents/air tickets;

    iv) there are no two transactions, for one of which commission is paid to the agent, and the second of which is between principal to principal, but just one transaction of sale of tickets on behalf of the airline to the passenger;

    v) the amount received by the travel agent over and above the net fare is known to the airline when it receives the billing analysis made by BSP.

The Delhi High Court therefore held that the amount received and retained by the travel agent over and above the net fare was in the nature of commission, liable to deduction of TDS under Section 194H.

4. Observations:
4.1 The conclusions of the Delhi High Court are weighed by one of the facts that the travel agent is an agent of the airline and therefore all and any receipt by him represents commission in his hands, including the difference between the published fare and the net fare.

4.2 The difference between the published fare and the net fare really consists of two components – one component is that of commission as a pre-agreed percentage of the published fare, which is undoubtedly commission covered by the provisions of Section 194H. The other component is the amount not realised by the agent from the client, and therefore not paid to the airline.

4.3 To illustrate, take a situation where the published fare is Rs.50,OOO, the agent’s commission is 7% (Rs.3,500), and the agent sells the ticket to the passenger for Rs.27,500. The agent would collect Rs.27,500 from the passenger and pay Rs.24,OOO to the airline as net fare (ignoring tax), after deducting his commission of Rs.3,500. In this case, the difference between the published fare and the net fare is Rs.26,OOO, consisting of the agent’s commission of Rs.3,500 and the discount passed on to the client of Rs.22,500. This amount of Rs.22,500 is really a discount given by the airline to the passenger through its agent, the travel agent. The travel agent is therefore holding such discount of Rs.22,500 in trust for the passenger, to whom the airline has permitted him to grant such discount.

4.4 With respect to the concerned parties, it was not impressed upon the Delhi High Court that the difference between the published fare and the net fare, in fact was a discount given to the passenger by the airline through the agent and it was the airline alone, ‘which undoubtedly had proprietary rights in the tickets, till such time it was sold to the passengers and the benefit derived by the passenger was a benefit passed on by the airline and not by the agent who received it in trust for the passenger. If the difference is viewed as a discount given to the passenger routed through the agent, as was done by the Bombay High Court, the view taken by the Delhi High Court might have been quite different. As rightly appreciated by the Bombay High Court, the factual position is that the airline has merely granted a permission to the agent to sell the tickets at a lower price, which discount granted through the agent can certainly not be regarded as commission.

4.5 The issue, if any, arises only where in the above example, the travel agent pays to the airline, Rs. 23,000 and not Rs. 24,000 and in the process retains for himself an amount of Rs. 1000. It is this Rs. 1000, whose true nature has to be examined w.r.t. the provisions of s. 194H. This difference so retained may not be a commission within the meaning of Section 194H, unless it is brought within the ambit of Section 194H by proving that the sum received was in the nature of income received or receivable directly or indirectly by the payee from the payer, (that -, IS, the airlines.) and the recipient, (that is, travel agent,) should be a person acting on behalf of that another person, and that, the sum received or reeivable, whether directly or indirectly should be for services rendered in the course of buying and selling of goods, (that is, tickets in the present case). The difference cannot be termed as a commission within the meaning of Section 194H. What the airline is entitled to receive is only the net fare. There is no right in the assessee-airline to receive the published fare from the travel agent on sale of tickets. It cannot be construed as payment received or receivable, directly or indirectly, by the travel agents in its capacity as the agent of the airline for any services rendered to the airline.

4.6 Therefore, the view taken by the Bombay High Court that such discount is not liable to deduction of TDS u/s.194H seems to be the better view of the matter, as compared to the view taken by the Delhi High Court.

Monetary limit for filing of appeal by Income-tax Department

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 The Income-tax Department, aggrieved by an order of the
CIT(A), has the right to appeal u/s.253 to the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal and
to the High Court u/s.260A when aggrieved by an order of the Tribunal. An appeal
can also be filed before the Supreme Court with the permission of the Court
against the decision of the High Court. Every year a large number of appeals are
filed by the Income-tax Department, some of which are filed in a routine manner.
Prosecuting these appeals, filed as a matter of course, results in a huge annual
expenditure, at times exceeding the benefit derived from such prosecution.

1.2 Realising the leakage of substantial revenue and with the
intent to avoid litigation, the Government of India, in all its Revenue
Departments, has evolved a policy of refraining from filing an appeal before the
higher authorities, where the monetary effect of the contentious issues causing
grievance, in terms of tax, is less than the acceptable limit. This benevolent
policy of the Government prevents the Courts from being flooded with the cases.

1.3 In pursuance of this policy, the Central Board of Direct
Taxes issues instructions to the Income-tax authorities, directing them to avoid
filing of appeals, where the tax effect of an issue causing a grievance is less
than the monetary limit prescribed under such instructions. Presently,
Instruction No. 2 of 2005, dated October 24,2005, advises the authorities to
refrain from filing appeal before the Tribunal, w.e.f. 31-10-2005, in cases
where the tax effect of the disputed issues is Rs.2,00,000 or less and before
the High Court where such tax effect is Rs.4,00,000 or less and before the
Supreme Court where such tax effect is Rs.10,00,000 or less.

1.4 The said Circular of 2005 is issued in substitution of
the Instruction No. 1979, dated 27-3-2000 which provided that no appeal be
filed, by the Income-tax Dept. before the Tribunal in cases where the tax effect
of the disputed issues is Rs.1,00,000 or less and before the High Court where
such tax effect is Rs.2,00,000 or less and before the Supreme Court where such
tax effect is Rs.5,00,000 or less. The said Circular of 2000 was in substitution
of the Instruction No. 1903, dated 28-10-1992, wherein monetary limits of
Rs.25,000 before the Tribunal, Rs.50,000 for filing reference to the High Court
and Rs.1,50,000 for filing appeal to the Supreme Court were laid down. The said
instruction was in substitution of Instruction No. 1777, dated 4-11-1987.

1.5 It is common to come across cases where the monetary
limit, prescribed by the CBDT prevailing at the time of filing an appeal, has
undergone an upward revision before the time of the hearing of such appeal. In
such cases, the issue that often arises is about the applicability of the
upwardly revised limits, relying upon which the defending assessees contend that
the appeal by the Income-tax Department is not maintainable. The issue was
believed to be settled in favour of the taxpayers by a decision of the Bombay
High Court till recently when the validity of the said decision, in the context
of Instruction of 2005, has been doubted by another Bench of the same Court.

2. Pithwa Engg. Works’ case :


2.1 The issue first came up for consideration in the case of
CIT v. Pithwa Engineering Works, 276 ITR 519 (Bom). The Court examined
whether in deciding the maintainability of an appeal by the Income-tax
Department, the monetary limit of the tax effect, upwardly revised and
prevailing at the time of adjudicating an appeal, should be applied in
preference to the limit prevailing a the time of filing an appeal. In the said
case, at the time of filing the appeal before the High Court, the Instruction
then prevailing, provided for a monetary limit of Rs.50,000. However at the
time, when the appeal came up for hearing , this limit was revised to
Rs.2,00,000 vide Circular dated 27-3-2000.

2.2 The Court took note of its own decision in the case of
CIT v. Camco Colour Co.,
254 ITR 565, where-in it was held that the
instructions issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, New Delhi, dated March
27,2000 were binding on the Income-tax Department. Under the said Instruction,
the monetary limit, for filing a reference to the High Court, earlier fixed at
Rs.50,000 was revised and fresh instructions were issued to file references only
in cases where the tax effect exceeded Rs.2,00,000.

2.3 The Court in the case before them observed that the said
instructions dated March 27, 2000 reflected the policy decision taken by the
Board, not to contest the orders where the tax effect was less than the amount
prescribed in the above Circular with a view to reduce litigation before the
High Courts and the Supreme Court. The Court did not find any force in the
contention of the Revenue that the said Circular was not applicable to the old
referred cases as such a contention was not taken to a logical end.

2.4 The Bombay High Court negatived the submission of the
Revenue that so far as new cases were concerned, the said Circular issued by the
Board was binding on them and in compliance with the said instructions, they did
not file references if the tax effect was less than Rs.2 lakh, however, the same
approach was not to be adopted with respect to the old referred cases where the
tax effect was less than Rs.2 lakh. The Court did not find any logic behind such
an approach. The Court held that the Circular of 2000 issued by the Board was
binding on the Revenue.

2.5 The Court further proceeded to observe that the Court
could very well take judicial notice of the fact that by passage of time money
value had gone down, the cost of litigation expenses had gone up; the assesses
on the file of the Department have increased; consequently the burden on the
Department had also increased to a tremendous extent; the corridors of the
superior Courts were choked with huge pendency of cases. The Court noted that in
the aforesaid background, the Board had rightly taken a decision not to file
references if the tax effect was less than Rs.2 lakh and the same policy needed
to be adopted by the Department even for the old matters.

2.6 Finally the Court held that the Board’s Circular dated
March 27, 2000 was very much applicable even to the old references which were
still undecided and the Income-tax Department was not justified in proceeding
with the old references, wherein the tax impact was minimal and further there
was no justification to proceed with decades old references having negligible
tax effect.

3. Chhajer Packaging’s case :


3.1 The issue recently came up for consideration, once again, before the same Bombay High Court in the case of CIT v. Chhajer Packaging and Plastics Pvt. Ltd., 300 ITR 180 (Born). In that case, the appeal was filed by the Income-tax Department prior to 24-10-2005, the date when Circular No.2 of 2005 was issue for an upward revision of the monetary limit from Rs.2,OO,OOO to Rs.4,OO,OOO.

3.2 The assessee company in that case, raised the preliminary objection, by relying upon Instruction/ Circular No.2 of 2005, dated October 242005 to plead that since the limit of appeal u/ s.260A of ‘the Act to be preferred was raised to Rs.4 lakh and as the tax effect in its case did not exceed Rs.4 lakh, the Department ought not to have pursued its appeal.

3.3 The above-stated submission of the company was opposed by the Revenue, by contending that the present appeal was filed by the Department in August, 2004, while instruction was issued only on October 24, 2005, which was prospective in nature and therefore, the appeal by the Income-tax Department did not fall within the ambit of the instruction dated October 24, 2005.

3.4 The assessee company in its turn relined upon – the judgment of the Division Bench of the High Court at Bombay, in CIT v. Pithwa Engg. Works, 276 ITR 519, wherein the Court dealt with a similar Circular dated March 27,2000, wherein financial limit for preferring appeals u/ s.260A of the Act before the High Court, was raised to Rs.2 lakh. Reliance was placed on the following observations in the penultimate paragraph (page 521) ; ” In our view, the Board’s Circular dated March 27, 2000, is very much applicable even to the old references which are still undecided” to claim that the Circular was applicable to the appeals which were still pending.

3.5 The  Bombay High Court at the  outset observed that the views of the Court in  Pithwa Engineering’s case  pertained to Circular dated March 27, 2000. Thereafter the Court referred to Instruction  No. 2/2005,  dated  October 24, 2005, paragraph 2 “In partial modification of the above  instruction, it has now been decided by the Board that appeals will henceforth be filed only in cases where the tax effect exceeds  the revised  monetary limits given  hereunder”.

3.6 Taking  into consideration the portion underlined for the purpose of emphasis, the Court held that the Revenue was justified in contending that the Circular was applicable only prospectively and that it made no reference to pending matters. On the basis of the text and considering the applicability of the Circular dated October 24, 2005, the Court declined to follow the view taken by the Court in Pithwa Engineering’ case regarding the earlier circular.

4. Observations:

4.1 The available  statistics  reveal that the number of appeals  filed by the Income-tax  Department  far outnumber  the appeals  filed by the taxpayers.  This simple statistics convey an important  and alarming fact when read with the fact that ninety  per cent of these  appeals  are decided  against  the Income-tax Department.  The emerging  conclusion  is that most of these appeals  are filed as a matter  of course,  in a routine  manner  without  application  of mind as to the viability, efficacy and the cost involved  in prosecuting these appeals. The Government  today, is the biggest litigant.

4.2  The aforesaid  facts when examined  in the light of another  equally  disturbing  fact that  the Courts today  are flooded  with the number  of cases, which if disposed  of at the present  pace,  will be adjudicated  after a scaringly long  period.

4.3  It is realisation    of these  facts and of the enormous  costs involved    therein that  the Government of India  evolved a benevolent policy  of refraining from pursuing appeals where the  tax  effect in monetary terms  was negligible. It also decided to review the prescribed monetary limits from time to time, keeping in mind the  inflation factor. This avowed  policy has been religiously  followed  by the Government  by revising  the said limits periodically.

4.4  It is this policy background   that  was  kept  in mind  by the Bombay High Court  while deciding  in Pithwa  Engineering’s   case that  the  revised  monetary limits should  be applied  at the time of adjudicating  the appeals.  This was done to promote  the said avowed  policy of avoiding  litigation  and promote the breathing  space in the corridors  of Court and was not done to defeat  the power  of an executive to provide  guidelines  for administration   of the law that it is vested  with.  This angle  of the Court, if appreciated,  will enable  the Income-tax  Department to welcome  the said decision  with open arms.

4.5 Unfortunately, in Chaajer Packaging’s case the aspects narrated in the above paragraph were not pressed as is apparent from the reading thereof or the Court was not impressed by the same, if they were brought to the attention of the Court. We are sure that had the avowed policy of the Government and the logic of the Court in Pithwa Engineering’s case been brought to the notice of the Court, the decision in Chhajer Packaging’s case could have been different.

4.6 The Bombay High Court even in Carrico Colour Co.’s case, 254 ITR 565 (Born.), much before the Pithwa Engineering’s case had applied the Circular of 2000 in deciding a reference on 26-11-2001 which was filed in 2000 and pertained to A.y. 1990-91.

4.7 With utmost respect to the Court, attention is invited to Paragraph 7 of the said instruction of 2000 which reads as ‘ This instruction will come into effect from 1st April, 2000.’ The said Circular dated 27-3-2000 was specifically made effective from a later date i.e., 1st April, 2000 and was otherwise prospective. In spite of the said Circular being specified to be prospective in its nature, the Court in Pithwa Engineering’s case had held the same to be retrospective. This fact takes away the logic supplied in Chhajer Packaging’s case wherein relying on the use of the term ‘henceforth’ in paragraph 2 of the instructions of 2005, it was held that the said instructions of 2005 were not prospective.

4.8 The Bombay High Court in our opinion should have followed its own decision in Pithwa Engineering’s case as per the law of precedent, as the facts were the same in both the cases. In case of a disagreement, the later case should have been referred to the full Bench. The said decision needs a reconsideration.

‘Urban Land’ Under Wealth Tax Act

Controversies

1.
Issue for consideration :


1.1 Wealth tax is chargeable
on the assets specified in S. 2(ea) of the Wealth-tax Act. One of such assets is
an ‘urban land’, which has been defined in Explanation 1(b) of the said Section.
The definition reads as under :


” ‘Urban land’ means land
situate :



(i) in any area which is
comprised within the jurisdiction of a municipality (whether known as a
municipality, municipal corporation, notified area committee, town area
committee, town committee or by any other name) or a cantonment board and
which has a population of not less than ten thousand according to the last
preceding census of which relevant figures have been published before the
valuation date; or

(ii) in any area within
such distance, not being more than eight kilometres from the local limits of
the municipality or cantonment board referred to in sub-clause (i) as the
Central Government may, having regard to the extent of, and scope for,
urbanisation of that area and other relevant considerations, specify in this
behalf by Notification in the Official Gazette,

but does not include land
on which construction of a building is not permissible under any law for the
time being in force in the area in which such land is situated or the land
occupied by any building which has been constructed with the approval of the
appropriate authority or any unused land held by the assessee for industrial
purposes for a period of two years from the date of its acquisition by him or
any land by the assessee as stock-in-trade for a period of ten years from the
date of its acquisition by him.”

1.2 One of the exceptions
contained in the said definition excludes an urban land occupied by any building
which has been constructed with the approval of the appropriate authority or an
unused land held by the assessee for industrial purposes for a period of two
years from the sate of its acquisition.

1.3 We intend to examine
here, the liability to wealth tax in a case where the work for construction of
an industrial building has begun in pursuance of the approval by appropriate
authority, but is not completed within the period of two years or a case where
work for construction of a residential building has begun in pursuance of the
approval by appropriate authority, but is not completed. The case of the
taxpayers for exemption from levy of the wealth tax rests on the contention that
once the work of construction of a building has commenced, the structure even
though incomplete should be recognised as ‘building’ nonetheless, and in the
alternative a land on which the work of constructing a building is in progress,
ceases to be a ‘land’. It is argued that since the building is being
constructed, the same is exempt for the purpose of wealth tax in terms of the
meaning to be given to urban land more importantly on account of the objective
behind the levy of tax. The Revenue, on the other side is of the view that such
a land on which the building is under construction continues to be a land and
therefore liable to wealth tax. The conflicting decisions, available on the
subject, of the High Court highlight the importance of the issue that requires
consideration. The Karnataka and the Gujarat High Courts are of the view that
the land under discussion is liable to wealth tax, while the Kerala and Punjab &
Haryana High Courts hold that no wealth tax is chargeable once the work of
construction has begun.

2.
Giridhar G. Yadalam’s case, 325 ITR 223 (Karn.) :


2.1 Recently the Karnataka
High Court examined this issue in the case of CWT v. Girdhar G. Yadlam.
The assessee in that case was assessed in the status of a Hindu undivided family
and the assessment year in question was 2000-01. The assessee owned a plot of
land which was given to a developer for construction of residential flats in the
year 1995-96, so however the ownership of the same was retained by him as
contended by him in the income-tax proceedings. The assessee had claimed, in the
income-tax proceedings, that it had retained ownership of the land until flats
were fully constructed and possession of the assessee’s share was handed over.
It had contended that the development agreement constituted only permissive
possession for the limited purpose of construction of flats. The assessee
contended that it continued to be the owner of the land till the flats were
sold. A notice u/s.17 of the Wealth-tax Act was issued to the assessee for
bringing to tax the said land under development. On due consideration of the
facts, the Assessing Officer treated the said land as an urban land and brought
it to tax. An appeal was filed against such an order was allowed by the CWT
(Appeals) whose order was confirmed by the Tribunal following its decision in
WTA Nos. 4-5/Bang./2003, dated March 22, 2004.

2.2 Aggrieved by the order
of the Tribunal the Revenue filed an appeal before the Karnataka High Court
raising the following questions of law :


(a) Whether the Tribunal
was correct in holding that the value of properties held by the assessee at
Adugodi and Koramangala is not chargeable to wealth tax, as the same are not
urban land but land with superstructure and cannot form part of the wealth
as defined u/s.2(ea) of the Act ?

(b) Whether the
properties of the assessee cannot be brought to wealth tax assessment ?


2.3 The High Court on appreciation of the opposing contention observed that what was excluded was the land occupied by any building which had been constructed; admittedly, in the case on hand, the building was not fully constructed, but was in the process of construction and hence could not be understood as a building which had been constructed. It held that the Courts had to interpret any definition in a reasonable manner for the purpose of fulfilling the object of the Act and the Courts. It held that the term ‘constructed’ had its own meaning and would mean ‘fully constructed’ as understood in the common parlance.

2.4 The Court further observed that the Tribunal had chosen to blindly follow its earlier order, without noticing the intention of the Legislature and the specific wording in the Section and neither the owner nor the builder nor the occupant would pay any tax to the Government in terms of the Wealth-tax Act, if the order of the Tribunal was accepted. The ‘land occupied by any building which has been constructed’, should be interpreted in a manner that would fulfil the intention of the Legislature.

2.5 The Court did not approve the theory of openness of the land for the purpose of taxation accepted by the Tribunal as in its opinion the Tribunal had failed to notice the principle that each word in taxing status had its own significance for the purpose of taxation. The Court observed that the words ‘land on which the building is constructed’ had not been properly appreciated/ considered by the Tribunal.

2.6 The Court further observed that the interpretation of any word would depend upon the wording in a particular context and the object of the Act as understood in law and therefore, was not prepared to blindly accept the meaning given to the term ‘building’ in the Law Lexicon. That the use of the words ‘building constructed’ in the Act made all the difference for the purpose of interpretation.

2.7 The Court took note of its own judgment in the case of Vysya Bank Ltd. v. DCWT, 299 ITR 335 (Karn.) to buttress its findings in favour of the Revenue. It also distinguished the judgment of the Orissa High Court in CWT v. K. B. Pradhan, 130 ITR 393 (Orissa) which examined the meaning of the term ‘house’ for the propose of the Wealth-tax Act as in the said case, the Court was considering only the word ‘house’ and not ‘building constructed’ as in the case before it.

2.9 The Court further observed that it could not forget that the Parliament in its wisdom had chosen to provide an exemption only under certain circumstances which could not be extended without any legal compulsion in terms of the Act. The Court finally held that a land on which completed building stood, such land alone would qualify for exemption. The Court accordingly accepted the appeal of the Revenue.

    Apollo Tyres Ltd.’s case, 325 ITR 528 (Ker.):
3.1 The Kerala High Court was appraised of the same issue in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. v. CWT, 325 ITR 528 (Ker.). In that case, the assessee, a public limited company was engaged in production and sale of automotive tyres. It was allotted a plot in Gurgaon on December 29, 1995 on which it commenced construction of a commercial building in November, 1997, and completed construction of a four-storeyed building with basement and started occupying it from March 29, 2000. After completion of the construction of the building, the land and building were granted exemption from wealth tax as the said assets fell under the exempted category. However, in the course of assessment for the A.Y. 1998-99, the Wealth-tax Officer assessed the value of the land treating it as urban land u/s.2(ea) rejecting the assessee’s contention that construction of building was in progress on the valuation date, that is, March 31, 1998, and as such the land could not be treated as urban land under Explanation 1(b) to S. 2(ea) of the Act. The first Appellate Authority upheld the claim of exemption of the assessee, but the Tribunal on appeal by the Department, reversed the order of the first Appellate Authority and upheld the assessment order by relying on the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of CWT v. Giridhar G. Yadalam (supra).

3.2 The appellant company submitted that the exemption ceased to be available only where, after two years of acquisition, the land was continuously kept vacant without utilising it for construction of building for industrial or commercial purposes. It was highlighted that the assessee had started construction of a commercial building as on the valuation date and in the course of two years and thereafter the assessee had completed the construction of the building and had started using the building which was no longer assessed by the Wealth-tax Officer as the building qualified for exemption. It contended that commencement of construction of the building on the urban land itself was use of the building for industrial purpose.

3.3 The Revenue on the other hand contended that the intention of the Legislature in limiting the exemption for vacant land up to two years was only to ensure that if the assessee wanted to get exemption beyond two years, the assessee should have completed construction of the building in the course of two years and used the building for industrial purposes. It further contended that unless the building was constructed and put to use for industrial purpose, before the year end, the land could not be said to have been used for industrial purpose. In other words, the value of urban land could be assessed to wealth tax until completion of construction of the building and until commencement of use of such building for commercial or industrial purpose.

3.4 The Kerala High Court held that the urban land that was subjected to tax under the definition of ‘asset’ generally covered vacant land, only. It noted the fact that under the exception clause ‘the land occupied by any building which has been constructed with the approval of the appropriate authority’ was exempt from the purview of tax which according to the Court clarified that when an urban land was utilised for construction of a building with the approval of the prescribed authority, then the land ceased to be identifiable as urban land; that the section contemplated for taxing such a land on which an illegal construction was made without approval by the appropriate authority and that it was only in such a case that such land would still be treated as urban land, no matter building was constructed thereon; that however, if a building was constructed with the approval of the prescribed authority, then such land went out of the meaning of ‘urban land’.

3.5 The question according to the Kerala High Court to be considered was whether during the period of construction of the building, the urban land on which such construction was made could be assessed to wealth tax. In the Court’s view, once the land was utilised for construction purposes, the land ceased to have its identity as vacant land and it could not be independently valued. The Court pertinently noted that the building under construction whose work was in progress was not brought within the definition of ‘asset’ for the purpose of levy of wealth tax. It also noted that there was no dispute that as and when construction of the building was completed, there could be no separate assessment of urban land and the assessment was thereafter only on the value of the building, if it was not exempted from tax. The commercial building constructed by the appellant assessee, the Court noted, fell within the exemption clause as commercial building was not subjected to wealth tax. The commencement of construction in the opinion of the Court amounted to the use of the land for industrial purpose as without construction of the building the land could not be used for the purpose for which it was allotted.

3.6 For removal of doubts the Court noted that part construction and abandoning further construction would not entitle the assessee for exemption, unless the assessee eventually completed construction of the building and used the building for commercial or industrial purpose. As in the case before the Court, the assessee progressively completed construction of a four-storeyed building with basement and started using it within the course of two years from the valuation date, the assessee was entitled to exemption; that the assessee could not be expected to complete the construction of

    four-storeyed massive building in the course of two years which was the period provided in Explanation 1(b) of S. 2(ea). Keeping in mind the exemption available to productive assets, the Court felt that there was no scope for levy of tax during the period of construction of the productive asset, namely, commercial building by utilising the urban land. In other words, once the non-productive asset like urban land was converted to a productive asset like a building which qualified for exemption, then the assessee could start availing of exemption even during of conversion of such non-productive asset to productive asset. The Court confirmed the eligibility of the assessee for claim of exemption for urban land on which they were constructing a commercial building on the valuation date.

    Observations:
4.1 The present scheme of the wealth tax primarily seeks to tax an unproductive asset and leaves un-taxed an asset, which is put to a productive use. This is amply clarified by the Finance Minister’ speech and the memorandum explaining the objects behind the introduction of the new scheme of wealth tax while moving the Finance Bill, 1992. Once an asset is shown to be a not non-productive asset, it ceases to be outside the ambit of the wealth tax. The activity of construction ensures that the land in question is a ‘productive asset’ and no wealth tax can be levied on an asset which is productive.

4.2 A land on being put to construction cannot be termed as an open land and even perhaps a ‘land.’ A land is a surface of the earth and once the surface is covered, it cannot be termed as the land, leave alone the urban land.

4.3 The decision in Giridhar G. Yadalam’s case under comment was discussed by the Kerala High Court in Apollo Tyres Ltd. v. ACIT, (supra), and only thereafter the Court did not subscribe to the view that construction should have been completed within two years. The Kerala High Court found that Giridhar Yadalam’s case was inapplicable, where the assessee constructed the building in stages though the full construction took four years.

4.4 The purpose and the objective behind introduction of the provision, brought in with effect from April 1, 1995, should be kept in mind. It was for bringing to tax an unutilised open land that the provision was introduced. Once a land is admitted to be put to use for the purposes of construction, it ceased to be a chargeable land and should not be subjected to tax if the construction of the building is eventually completed and is not used a subterfuge to avoid any tax. While there is no doubt that a land that is put to use for construction within two years, is exempt for two years from tax, for the period thereafter it is no longer a virgin land, so that it is not liable to tax.

4.5 Once land is married to a superstructure, it can no longer be treated as land simpliciter. It is also not a property capable of being occupied for use and be termed as a building. A building under construction is neither vacant land, nor can it be treated as a building prior to completion as is generally understood for municipal tax. The Supreme Court in Municipal Corporation of Greater Bombay v. Polychem Limited, AIR 1974 SC 1779 with regard to municipal tax had held that unfinished building would not justify any valuation, since it cannot be treated as a building. The Madras High Court in CWT v. S. Venugopala Konar, 109 ITR 52 has held that only the amount spent on construction would be the value of the property under construction. The Karnataka High Court referred to the decision in State of Bombay v. Sardar Venkat Rao Gujar, AIR 1966 SC 991, where it was held that a building in order for it to be con-sidered as a building should have walls and a room. The Supreme Court in that case had followed the decision in Moir v. Williams, (1892) 1 QB 264.

4.6 The Gujarat High Court, in CWT v. Cadmach Machinery Co. Pvt. Ltd., 295 ITR 307 (Guj.) found that the land on which construction had started would not be treated as building, so that the land value could be included under the law u/s.40(3)(vi) of the Finance Act, 1993 differing from the decision of the Delhi High Court in CWT v. Prem Nath Mo-tors P. Ltd., 238 ITR 414. Recently, in the case of CIT v. Smt. Neena Jain, WTA Nos. 17 to 20, dated 19-2-2010, the Punjab & Haryana High Court has upheld the view that a house under construction is not liable to WT and is not an urban land.

4.7 The Cochin Bench of the Tribunal in the cases of Mathew L. Chakola v. CWT, 9 SOT 617 (Cochin) and Meera Jacob v. WTO, 14 SOT 486 (Cochin), held that once construction activity started on an urban land, the land lost its character of an urban land and was outside purview of definition of the ‘urban land’. Similarly, in Federal Bank Ltd. v. JCIT, 295 ITR (AT) 212 (Cochin), it was held by the Tribunal that once the building was under construction, the land was no longer a vacant land so as to be made liable for wealth tax u/s.2(ea) of the Wealth-tax Act.

4.8 In the said case of Meera Jacob v. WTO, 14 SOT 486 (Cochin), the Tribunal has also upheld the alternative contention of the appellant that once a land was put to construction, it ceased to be an asset liable to wealth tax, as the activity of construction ensured that the land in ques-tion was a ‘productive asset’ and no wealth tax could be levied on an asset which was productive; wealth tax was chargeable only on such assets which were not productive. For supporting this proposition, the Cochin Bench followed its own decision in the case of Federal Bank Ltd. 295 ITR (AT) 212 (Cochin). The Cochin Bench in the said decision also held that once a land was subjected to construction, it ceased to be an open land; it is only an open land that could be treated as a land; a land was a surface of the earth and once the surface was covered, it ceased to be the land, leave alone the urban land.

4.9 It is exempt primarily for the reason that land on which construction is in progress is not an asset u/s.2(ea) as it has not been so listed. A land acquired for industrial use will be exempt for two years after its acquisition provided the construction starts during the third year. Once the construction has begun, as stated, the land ceases to be chargeable to wealth tax, subject to the condition that such construction eventually leads to completion of building. It needs to be appreciated that the exemption given for a land on which construction is in progress is in relaxation of levy of wealth tax on urban land.

4.10 In the case of Vysya Bank Ltd. v. DCWT 299ITR335 (Karnataka) the Bank had entered into an agreement for purchase of property on June 17, 1978 and was put in possession of the property. The Assessing Officer ruled that the assessee had become the owner of the property and was liable to wealth tax. On an appeal by the assessee to the Court, the Karnataka High Court examined the meaning of the terms ‘assets’ and ‘urban land’ and also the judgment of the Apex Court in CWT v. Bishwanath Chatterjee, (1976), 103 ITR 536 and ultimately ruled that the Assessing Authority was not justified in including the vacant land in the net wealth of the assessee for the purpose of computation of wealth as on the valuation date for the purpose of the Wealth-tax Act.

4.11 It is relevant to note that there are no rules for valuation of a property under construction. Neither there is a provision which state that such a property should be valued merely as land.

4.12 As noted by the Kerala High Court, the better view is that the decisions of the Karnataka High Court and the Gujarat High Court need review.

Slump sale and S. 50B

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 S. 50B provides for taxation of capital gains arising in
a slump sale. ‘Slump sale’ has been defined by S. 2(42C) to mean transfer of one
or more undertakings as a result of sale for a lump sum consideration without
values being assigned to individual assets and liabilities in such sales other
than for the purposes of payment of stamp duty. An ‘undertaking’ has been
defined vide S. 2(19AA) to include any part or a unit or a division thereof or a
business activity as a whole.

1.2 These provisions are introduced by the Finance Act, 1999
w.e.f. 1-4-2000 to put to rest the serious doubts prevailing for long about the
taxability or otherwise of gains in slump sale of business on a going concern
basis.

1.3 The newly introduced provisions besides providing for the
taxability of such gains provide for the detailed mechanism for determination of
the period of holding and the computation of capital gains.

1.4 The doubts about the taxability of gains in slump sale
for the period up to A.Y. 1999-2000 continue to persist with the views with
equal force persisting. While some Benches of the Tribunal have favoured the
taxability, others have exempted the gains form the ambit of taxation.

1.5 As if the above-referred controversy was in-sufficient, a
new controversy has arisen about the applicability of the newly inserted
provisions to the pending assessments. A recent decision of one of the Benches
of the Tribunal has taken a view conflicting with the prevailing view that the
said provisions were prospective in nature.

2. Asea Brown Boveri Ltd.’s case :


2.1 In the case of ACIT v. Asea Brown Boveri Ltd., 110
TTJ 502 (Mum.), the Tribunal was concerned with the issue as to whether the
transaction in question was a slump sale or an itemised sale. It was also
concerned about the taxability or otherwise of the gains arising on transfer of
a business in a slump sale. Though the Tribunal in this case had held that the
impugned transaction did not amount to slump sale, it was felt necessary to deal
with the issue of taxability of profits or gains if the impugned transaction was
held to be a slump sale without prejudice to the aforesaid finding.

2.2 The Tribunal for the reasons recorded in their order held
that profit arising on slump sale was taxable, as it was possible to compute the
capital gains including the cost of acquisition in some manner and the limited
question before them was about the mode of computation to be adopted for working
out the profits/gains from the slump sale. The Tribunal noted that there were
two provisions which were relevant in this behalf : (i) the provisions of S.
50B, which were specific to the computation of capital in case of slump sales,
and (ii) the general provisions of S. 45, which were applicable in the absence
of special procedure prescribed in S. 50B.

2.3 On applicability of S. 50B, the Revenue submitted that
once the transaction was held to be a slump sale, the taxability of the profits
and gains arising on such sale had to be brought to tax u/s.50B of the IT Act,
as the said S. 50B, being a procedural and computational provision, was
retroactive in its operation and therefore should govern all the pending
proceedings. Against the contentions of the Revenue, the assessee, on the other
hand, contended that S. 50B did not have retrospective operation and hence the
taxability of profits/gains from a slump sale could not be considered u/s.50B
which Section was operative from A.Y. 2000-01, only.

2.4 The Tribunal after taking note of the several
provisions including that of S. 2(42C) and S. 2(19AA) confirmed that S. 50B had
been inserted in the IT Act by the Finance Act, 1999 w.e.f. 1st April 2000 and
was applicable w.e.f. A.Y. 2000-01, while the appeal before them related to A.Y.
1997-98 and accordingly the newly inserted provisions were not available on the
statute book for the assessment year under appeal. This fact however did not
deter the Tribunal to apply the said provisions of S. 50B, as in their opinion
the concept of slump sale which hitherto judicially recognised was now been
codified and inserted in the form of clause (42C) in S. 2 of the IT Act; that
what was earlier the judge-made law was now a codified law; the Bombay High
Court in the case of Premier Automobiles Ltd. v. ITO, 264 ITR 193 held
that the concept of slump sale initially evolved under judge-made law was
subsequently recognised by the Legislature by inserting S. 2(42C); that
insertion of the new provisions was nothing but codification of what was
hitherto judicially recognised and S. 2(42C) was nothing but declaration of the
existing law of slump sale.

2.5 The Tribunal further noted that the Court in the said
case was concerned with the A.Y. 1995-96 when S. 50B was not in existence and
still the Court accepted that profits and gains arising on slump sale were
taxable, which in the opinion of the Tribunal showed that it had always been the
law that profits and gains from slump sale were taxable; the natural corollary
to the said decision was that the provisions of S. 50B(1) declaring that any
profit or gain arising from the slump sale would be chargeable to tax as capital
gains, was merely declaratory of the law as it then existed.

2.6 The Tribunal also proceeded to answer the obvious question as to what was the necessity of en-acting S. 50B when it was merely declaratory of the existing law. The Tribunal observed that the answer to that question lay in the provisions of Ss.(2) and Ss.(3) of S. 50B, which provided for the mechanism for the computation of cost of acquisition and the cost of improvement. It noted that the absence of any statutory mode of computation of cost of acquisition/improvement, difficulties were being experienced in the computation of capital gains arising from the slump sale, which were resolved by introduction of S. 50B; the heading of S. 50B which read: “Special provision for computation of capital gains in case of slump sale” clarified that S. 50B dealt with computation of capital gains in cases of slump sale; while Ss.(l) of S. 50B declared the existing law and thus put the same beyond the pale of any doubt, Ss.(2) and Ss.(3) thereof merely laid down the machinery for computation of capital gains from slump sale.

2.7 The Tribunal  proceeded to examine whether the computational provisions in S. 50B(2) and (3), enacted to provide simplicity, uniformity and certainty, the three pillars of taxation for the computation of capital gains, were retroactive or not. In order to answer this question, the Tribunal referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in CWT v. Sharvan Kumar Swarup & Sons, 210 ITR 886 (SC), wherein it had been held that machinery provisions, which provide for the machinery for the quantification of the charge, were procedural provisions and therefore would have retroactive operation and apply to all pending proceedings. Ss.(2) and Ss.(3) of S. 50B are thus procedural provisions inasmuch as they have been enacted to quantify and thereby simplify the procedure for computation of cost of acquisition/improvement in cases of slump sale. Based on the aforesaid findings, the Tribunal held that the provisions of S. 50B(2) and (3) were machinery provisions and hence would have retroactive operation and apply to all pending matters.

2.8 In deciding the issue the Tribunal also rejected the plea of the assessee that S. 50B could not have retroactive operation as it would mean, by the same logic, that the amendments made in S. 55(2)(a) deeming the cost of acquisition of certain assets to be nil would equally have retroactive operation. The assessee for this contention had relied on CIT v. D.P. Sandu Brothers Chembur (P) Ltd., 273 ITR 1, wherein it was held that the amendments to S. 55(2)(a) -(., deeming the cost of acquisition of a tenancy right to be nil had only prospective effect and not retrospective effect. The aforesaid decision was found to be rendered in the context of the provisions of S. 55(2)(a), which deemed the cost of acquisition of tenancy right to be nil and not in the context of S. 50B(2) and (3) which merely simplified and standardised the procedure for computation of cost of acquisition/improvement in cases of slump sale.

3. Sankheya Chemicals’ case:

3.1 In Sankheya Chemicals Ltd. v. ACIT, 8 SOT 50 (Mum.), the Chemical Division of the assessee-company was sold as a going concern on 1st April, 1990 for a lump sum price of Rs.20 lakhs. The said business consisted of the leasehold rights of the land, factory building, plant and machinery and electrical installation which was transferred to the subsidiary company, along with other assets and liabilities including transfer of raw material and other licences, etc.

3.2 The same Mumbai Tribunal was inter alia asked to consider whether provisions of S. 50B were retroactive in its operation so as to bring within its net the gains of transfer of a business for a slump consideration prior to introduction of S. 50B.

3.3 Taking into consideration the facts of the case in totality, the Tribunal held that no tax was exigible to the gains arising on the transfer of the business undertaking as a going concern by the assessee-company and the gains on such transfer were not includible in the hands of the assessee as income from short-term capital gains by relying on Coromandel Fertilisers Ltd. v. DCIT, 90 ITD 344 (Hyd.). The Tribunal also noted that S. SOBof the IT Act was introduced w.e.f. 1st April 2000 and in the facts of the present case, the business undertaking was sold on 1st April 1990, i.e., prior to the introduction of the provisions of S. SOBof the IT Act.

3.4 The Mumbai Tribunal in this case noted with approval the decision of the Hyderabad Bench in the case of Coromandel Fertilizers Ltd. (supra) which held as under:  “……S. 50 and S. SOB are mutually exclusive.  In other  words,  S. 50B is attracted when  there  is a slump  sale and  S. 50 is attracted when  there is an itemised  sale. S. SOBwas not applicable  for the assessment  year  in question,  as it had no retrospective  operation.  So, the position that emerged  was that what  was transferred  by the assessee was the cement  unit as a going  concern  for a lump sum price, and so, the sale in question  was a slump  sale, and so, S. 50 was not attracted,  (para 34)…..  “

Observations:

4.1 With utmost respect for the Bench of the Tribunal delivering the decision in the case of Asea Brown Boveri’s case, it is to be noted that the Tribunal erred in not appreciating the correct ratio of the Bombay High Court’s decision in the case of Premier Automobiles Ltd. The Court in that case while deciding the appeal in favour of the assessee had nowhere directly or indirectly stated that the provisions of S. SOB were retrospective in its operation. The Coud was only asked to decide whether the transfer in the said case was a slump sale or an itemised sale. This is clear from p. 235 of the said report as under : “In this appeal, we were only required to consider whether the transaction was a slump sale and having come to the conclusion that there was a sale of business as a whole, we have to remand the matter back to the AO to compute the quantum of capital gains. For that purpose, the AO will have to decide the cost of the undertaking for the purposes of the computing capital gains that may arise on transfer. That, the AO will also be required to decide its value u/ s.55 of the IT Act. Further, the AO will be required to decide on what basis indexation should be allowed in computing the capital gains and the quantum thereof. Lastly, the AO,will be required to decide the quantum of depreciation on the block of assets. It may be mentioned that these parameters which we have mentioned are not exhaustive. They are some of the parameters under the Act.” In fact, the Court only directed the authorities to compute gains if that was possible and nothing beyond that. The Court in that case was not concerned with the issue as to whether there at all arose any taxable capital gains on slump sale.

4.2 The Tribunal itself noted with approval that in Premier Automobiles case (supra) the Court had left the issue of working out the cost of acquisition to the AO with the observations, which even the Tribunal found to be quite significant. It further ob-served that “the Hon’ble jurisdictional High Court in the aforesaid case has not excluded the applicability of the parameters prescribed in S. 50B(2) and for computing the cost of acquisition/improvements in cases of slump sale”. This observation makes it clear that the Bombay High Court nowhere confirmed the applicability of the said provisions.

4.3 Thus, contrary to what has been stated by the Tribunal, we do not find that the said decision of the Tribunal was in conformity with the decision of the Bombay High Court in Premier Automobiles case in-asmuch as the issue adjudicated by the Tribunal was never before the High Court in the said case.

4.4 The Supreme Court in Sandu Bros. (supra) was asked to examine whether the provisions of S. 55 providing for adoption of Nil cost in case of tenancy was retrospective and was applicable to assessment years prior to AY. 1995-96. The Supreme Court after analysing the facts and the law held that the said provisions had only prospective application. The issue before the Tribunal in Asea Borwn Boveri’s case was largely similar and the assessee was right in relying on the said decision to support its case that provisions of S. SOBwere not to apply retroactively.

4.5 The Tribunal itself noted that the provisions of S. SO Band Ss.(l) in particular had the effect of removing existing anomaly about the taxation of gains on slump sale. This finding of the Tribunal confirmed that the new provision created a specific charge on such gains for the first time by providing the elaborate mechanism for making the said charge effective. The definitions of the terms ‘slump sale’, ‘undertaking’ and ‘net worth’ give a fresh meaning to the understanding of the said terms and therefore make it all the more difficult to support the Tribunal’s view that the newly inserted provisions are retroactive. Even the Legislature has nowhere expressed that the provisions were clarificatory, leave alone retroactive. Neither the provisions, nor the notes on clauses and the memorandum explaining the provisions as also the Circular following the insertion make such a claim.

4.6 The issue was examined by the Hyderabad Bench in the case of Coromandel Fertilizers Ltd. (supra), which clearly held that the provisions of S. 50Bwere not retrospective or retroactive. This decision was followed by the Mumbai Bench in the Sankheya Chemicals’ case (supra), which sadly was not taken note of.

4.7 The better view is that S. SOB should be applied prospectively and not retrospectively. The issue however calls for adjudication by the Special Bench of the Tribunal in view of the cleavage of the opinions amongst the Benches.

Allowability of Broken Period Interest

Controversies

1.
Issue for consideration :


1.1 Interest on government
securities is normally payable half-yearly. When government securities are
traded, the purchaser has to pay the seller not only the purchase price of the
securities but also the interest accrued on the government securities from the
last due date of the interest till the date of purchase of the securities. This
interest from the last due date till the date of purchase/sale is referred to as
broken period interest. While the purchaser of the government securities would
pay the broken period interest, the seller would receive the broken period
interest. For a trader in government securities, including a bank, the net
position of broken period interest for the year would either be an income or an
expenditure, depending upon the quantum of government securities bought and sold
and the dates on which such transactions were effected.

1.2 In a situation where the
net broken period interest for the year is an expenditure, the issue has arisen
before the courts as to whether such broken period interest is deductible as
business expenditure. While the Bombay High Court has held that such amount of
broken period interest is an allowable deduction, the Rajasthan High Court has
taken a contrary view and held that such broken period interest cannot be
allowed as a deduction.

2.
American Express Bank’s case :


2.1 The issue first came up
before the Bombay High Court in the case of American Express International
Banking Corporation v. CIT,
258 ITR 601.

2.2 In this case, the
assessee, which was a bank, was required to maintain statutory liquidity ratio
in relation to its business in the form of government securities. It also traded
in government securities. During the year, the assessee paid Rs.7,13,627 to
sellers towards broken period interest accrued on securities till the date of
purchase by the assessee, and received Rs.4,07,288 from buyers towards broken
period interest on securities sold by it. The assessee claimed the net amount of
Rs.3,06,399 as business expenditure u/s.37.

2.3 The Assessing Officer
taxed the amount of Rs.4,07,288 received by the assessee towards broken period
interest, but denied deduction of Rs.7,13,627 broken period interest paid by the
assessee. The denial was on the ground that the expenditure was for purchase of
income-bearing assets, and was therefore a capital expenditure, which could not
be set off as expenditure against the income from such assets. The Commissioner
(Appeals) held that the amount was allowable as a deduction u/s.28. The Tribunal
upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals), holding that the broken period
interest of Rs.7,13,627 was allowable as a deduction.

2.4 On behalf of the
Revenue, it was argued that the government securities purchased were income
bearing assets, and that the amount spent on such purchase was capital outlay.
It was therefore argued that capital outlay on purchase of the assets could not
be set off as expenditure against income accruing from the assets purchased.
Reliance was placed on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of
Vijaya Bank v. Additional CIT,
187 ITR 541. It was also argued that a
composite price had been paid for the purchase, consisting of interest accrued
as well as the price, and that there was no provision under the Income-tax Act
which authorised bifurcation of such a price. It was also argued that the
interest income was chargeable to tax under the head ‘Interest on Securities’,
and that therefore S. 28 could not be invoked for claiming the net interest as a
deduction.

2.5 On behalf of the
assessee, it was argued that the assessee was computing its profit from trading
in securities, which had to be computed u/s.28. To compute the correct profits,
the interest income for the period that the securities were held by the assessee
had to be recorded as its income, and it was on this basis that the net broken
period interest was claimed as a deduction. It was further argued that the
interest income in respect of such trading activity had not been taxed under the
head ‘Interest on Securities’ but under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business
or Profession’. It was argued that the method of accounting followed by the
assessee was consistently followed by it, as well as by all other banks. It was
further argued that when the income of such broken period interest was taxed,
the payment of such broken period interest could not be disallowed.

2.6 The Bombay High Court
observed that Vijaya Bank’s case (supra) was a case where the interest on
government securities was taxable under the head ‘Interest on Securities’,
whereas the case before it was a case where the interest was taxed under the
head ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’. The Bombay High Court noted
that there was no loss of revenue under the method of accounting followed by the
bank. The Bombay High Court therefore held that the broken period interest paid
by the bank was an allowable deduction in computing its business profits.

2.7 In CIT v. Citibank
NA,
264 ITR 18, the Bombay High Court has followed the view taken by it
earlier in American Express’ case.

3.
Bank of Rajasthan’s case :


3.1 The issue again recently
came up before the Rajasthan High Court in the case of CIT v. Bank of
Rajasthan Ltd.,
316 ITR 391.

3.2 In this case, pertaining
to a year subsequent to deletion of the head of income ‘Interest on Securities’,
an order had been passed u/s.263 making an addition to the income returned by
the assessee-bank, representing the broken period interest paid by the bank.
This order was on the basis that such interest was not allowable as a deduction
in view of the Supreme Court decision in Vijaya Bank’s case (supra). The
Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal, holding that Vijaya Bank’s case did not
apply after the deletion of the head of income ‘Interest on Securities’. The
Tribunal followed the decision of the Bombay High Court in American Express
International Banking Corpo-ration’s case (supra), and quashed the order
u/s. 263.

3.3 The Rajasthan High Court considered the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijaya Bank’s case (supra), and observed that even if that decision related to deduction of interest under the head ‘Interest on Securities’, it had relied upon the English decision of the Court of Appeals in the case of CIR v. Pilcher, 31 TC 314, for the well-settled principle that outlay on the purchase of an income-bearing asset is in the nature of capital outlay and no part of the capital for laid out can be set off as expenditure against income accruing from the asset in question. It was on that reasoning that the deduction had not been allowed in that case. According to the Rajasthan High Court, the ratio of Vijaya Bank’s decision still held good even after the deletion of the head of income ‘Interest on Securities’.

3.4 The Rajasthan High Court expressed its dissent with the decision of the Bombay High Court in American Express International Banking Corporation’s case on the ground that if carried to the logical conclusion, it permitted a post-mortem of the purchase component of the asset and permitted deduction of interest element paid as business expenditure. According to the Rajasthan High Court, the Supreme Court judgment proceeded on an established legal principle deduced from previous English judgments, and could not therefore be brushed aside.

3.5 The Rajasthan High Court therefore held that the ratio of Vijaya Bank’s decision (supra) applied to the case before it, and held that the broken period interest was not deductible in computing the income of the bank.

    Observations:
4.1 The whole controversy seems to revolve around the validity and continued applicability of the Supreme Court decision in Vijaya Bank’s case (supra). It would therefore be worthwhile to consider the facts and the ratio of that decision, and the circumstances in which it was rendered.

4.2 Unfortunately, the decision of the Supreme Court is a brief one-page judgment. The decision of the Karnataka High Court from which this matter came up to the Supreme Court is however reported in Tax LR (1976) 524, from which the facts can be deduced. Also, the Bombay High Court has drawn out certain facts from the deci-sion of the Karnataka High Court as well as the Supreme Court. From the decision of the Supreme Court, it is clear that though the issue before it was with reference to taxation of interest under the head of income ‘Interest on Securities’ as well as deduction u/s.28 in computation of income under the head of income ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’, the Supreme Court seems to have answered the issue only from the perspective of ‘Interest on Securities’. One significant factor that needs to be understood is that under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’, all expenditure incurred for the purpose of the business or profession is allowable, unless specifically prohibited, as also all losses incurred during the course of carrying on of the business or profession, unlike in the case of ‘Interest on Securities’ where only expenditure incurred for purpose of realising the interest on securities is deductible as expenditure. It was therefore perhaps on account of the restricted allowability that the Supreme Court took the view that it did in Vijaya Bank’s case.

4.3 The other aspect of Vijaya Bank’s decision, as analysed by the Bombay High Court, is that Vijaya Bank had taken over the assets and liabilities of Jayalakshmi Bank Ltd., which included the government securities and interest accrued thereon. It was such interest which was claimed as a deduction by Vijaya Bank, which had accrued to Jayalakshmi Bank prior to takeover of assets and liabilities by Vijaya Bank. On the facts, it appears therefore that such government securities were investments of Vijaya Bank, and not its stock in trade. It may however be noted that the second question raised before the Supreme Court pertained to broken period interest in case of securities purchased from the open market. The Bombay High Court does not seem to have looked at this aspect of the Supreme Court’s decision.

4.4 Where the government securities form part of a trading business, it certainly cannot be said that the amount paid for the acquisition of stock in trade is a capital outlay, as such purchases and stock form part of the circulating capital of the business. The entire purchase is on revenue account, and is an allowable expenditure of the business. Therefore, even if a view is taken that the broken period interest forms part of the purchase cost of the government securities and cannot be broken up, it would still be allowable as a revenue expenditure.

4.5 Further, as anybody familiar with the government securities market in India would be aware, the purchase price of government securities quoted on the markets does not include the interest component for the broken period. Such interest component for the broken period has to be invariably computed separately and is payable over and above and in addition to the negotiated purchase price. Given this commercial reality, to say that the broken period interest is a part of the purchase price would be incorrect. In reality, what is being paid for over and above the purchase price is the right to receive the interest accrued up to the date of the transaction. Therefore, irrespective of whether the securities are held as stock in trade or as investments, such interest paid for would have to be reduced from the total interest received subsequently on the due date, since the interest received includes the interest for which payment is made.

4.6 It is also important to note that business profits have to be computed in accordance with the method of accounting followed by the assessee. In preparing its accounts, the assessee would have to follow accounting standards applicable to it. The accounting standards applicable to in-vestments (e.g., AS-13) require that when unpaid interest has accrued before the acquisition of an interest -bearing investment and is therefore included in the price paid for the investment, the subsequent receipt of interest is allocated between pre-acquisition and post-acquisition periods; the pre-acquisition portion is deducted from cost. This supports the view that the subsequent interest receipt on the due date has to be partly adjusted against the broken period interest paid, and it is only the net amount which is really the income.

4.7 Even under the Income-tax Act, all business losses and revenue expenditure are allowable as deduction in computing business income. The payment of broken period interest on purchase of government securities held as trading assets is certainly a business expenditure, if not a busi-ness loss, and is therefore clearly an allowable deduction.

4.8 Lastly, the CBDT had clarified vide its Circular No. 599, dated 24 April 1991 [189 ITR (St) 126], that securities held by banks must be regarded as stock in trade, and that interest payments and receipts for broken period on purchase of securities must be regarded as revenue payments/receipts, and only the net interest on securities should be brought to tax as business income. Though the Circular was issued subsequent to the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijaya Bank’s case, it had not considered the ratio of that decision which was rendered on 19 September 1990. This Circular was therefore withdrawn on 31 July 1991 vide CBDT Circular No. 610 [191 ITR (St) 2]. By a subsequent Circular No. 665, dated 5 October 1993 [204 ITR (St.) 39], the CBDT clarified that the Supreme Court, in Vijaya Bank’s case, was not directly concerned with the issue whether securities form part of stock in trade or capital assets. The CBDT has clarified that whether a particular item of investment in securities constitute stock in trade or capital asset is a question of fact, and that banks are generally governed by the instructions of the Reserve Bank of India from time to time with regard to the classification of assets and also the accounting standards for investments. Assessing Officers have therefore been directed to determine the facts and circumstances of each case whether a particular security constitutes stock in trade or investment after taking into account the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India. In a sense, the CBDT has also therefore indirectly accepted the fact that where the government securities are held as trading assets (stock in trade), the allowability of broken period interest as a deduction should not really be an issue.

4.9 The view taken by the Rajasthan High Court therefore does not seem to be justified, given the fact that government securities are generally held as stock in trade by banks. Therefore, the view taken by the Bombay High Court is the better view of the matter, and broken period interest should be allowed as a deduction where the securities are held as stock in trade. Even if the securities are held as investments, logically the interest income actually received includes the broken period interest paid for, and to that extent the amount received on the due date does not constitute income of the recipient.

Deductibility of ‘set-on’ amount under Payment of Bonus Act

Controversies

1. Issue for consideration :


1.1 The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 requires an employer,
running a factory or an establishment where twenty or more workers are employed,
to pay to the employees such amount or amounts by way of bonus as prescribed
under the said Act, subject to a maximum amount prescribed therein. The amount
payable is calculated with reference to the allocable surplus to be computed in
accordance with the provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder.

1.2 The Act inter alia provides for setting aside an
amount, out of the allocable surplus, that is found to be in excess of the
maximum amount payable towards bonus for an year, subject to a maximum of twenty
per cent of the salary, wages, etc. Such a provision, prescribed u/s.15 of the
Act, is allowed for meeting the shortfall, if any, in any of the four years
including the fourth year. The amount so provided for becomes free at the expiry
of the four years, provided there was no shortfall in any of the said years. S.
28 of the said Act provides for punishment with fine and imprisonment for
non-compliance of the provisions of the Act.

1.3 The excess so set aside is known as ‘set-on’ amount for
which a provision is made in the books of account by debiting the profit & loss
account of the year. The issue has arisen about the deductibility of this
provision of set-on amount. The Gauhati High Court has held that the set-on
amount is allowable as deduction while several High Courts including the Bombay
High Court recently held that such an amount is not deductible.

2. India Carbon Ltd.’s case :


2.1 In India Carbon Ltd. v. CIT, 180 ITR 117 (Gau.),
the question in the reference arose as to whether bonus amounts set apart
(called ‘set-on’ amount) debited to the profit & loss account of the company
could be deducted from the income of the company or not for A.Y. 1976-77. The
assessee a company claimed deduction of two amounts, Rs.8,56,241 as bonus paid,
and Rs.7,36,915 the amount deposited in ‘set-on’ account. The former was claimed
u/s.36(1)(ii) and the latter u/s.37 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The ITO allowed
the deduction of Rs.8,56,241 but rejected the claim for Rs.7,36,915. The
Appellate Authority allowed deduction for both the payments. The Tribunal
however overturned the decision of the Appellate Authority and rejected the
claim for deduction of the set-on amount of Rs.7,36,915. The Tribunal was not
impressed with the contention of the company that it regularly adopted the
mercantile method of accounting and the deduction in the past assessment years
was allowed to the company.

2.2 Being aggrieved by the order of the Tribunal, the company
referred the following questions for consideration of the Gauhati High Court
under Ss.(1) of S. 256, :

(i) “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case, the Tribunal was justified in reversing the order of the AAC and
disallowing the statutory liability of bonus set-on computed according to the
provisions of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?

(ii) Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case, the Tribunal was justified in disregarding and rejecting the method of
accounting regularly employed by the appellant company ?

(iii) Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the
case, the Tribunal was justified in holding that bonus set-on cannot be
regarded as a liability of the year in which the computed amount should be
carried forward for being set-on in the manner prescribed under the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965 ?”

2.3 The company contended that the set-on amount is not
prohibited to be deducted u/s. 40(a)(ii) and, therefore, such amounts were
expenditure for the business; the assessee could not utilise the amount
irretrievably and it was commercially expedient to provide for such set-on.

2.4 In reply the Revenue argued that the amount in question
was a reserve fund; the amount stood deposited in the account books of the
assessee and could be utilised by the assessee and, therefore, was not an
expenditure; such an amount, to be paid in future, could not be allowed either
u/s.28 or u/s.30 to u/s.36 or u/s.37 of the Income-tax Act.

2.5 The Gauhati High Court noted the following amongst other
things :

  • The
    Government of India in 1961 to obtain industrial peace, appointed a committee
    called the Tripartite Commission and on acceptance of the committee’s report
    on 6-12-1964, with modifications, the Government of India promulgated on
    29-5-1965, an Ordinance which was replaced by the Act No. 21 of 1965 called
    the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, to regulate the bonus payments in the country
    with some exceptions.
     


  • The
    Act contained 40 Sections, 4 Schedules and the Rules. They provided together
    for ascertainment of gross profits, available surplus and allocable surplus
    and set out the sums to be deducted from gross profits besides the manner of
    calculation of taxes. The Act also provided for eligibility of workmen for
    bonus and for a minimum bonus to be paid and defined the limit of maximum
    bonus. Rules were provided explaining how the number of working days was to be
    reckoned.
     


  • The
    Act inter alia vide S. 15 provided for how amounts were to be carried
    forward (referred to as ‘set-on’) and when the set-on amount was to be
    utilised with the help of the Fourth Schedule. The utilised amount was called
    the ‘set-off’ amount. Register was prescribed to show the set-on and set-off
    amounts.


2.6 The Court further noted that what constituted ‘expenditure’ was a many splendoured controversy; its meaning had gained many facets and dimensions over the years in fiscal statutes and in its trail had brought to surface many fresh controversies. It referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in Indian Molasses Co. (P.) Ltd. v. CIT, 37 ITR 66, to notice that an ‘expenditure’ was that which was paid out and paid away; an amount which passed out irretrievably from the hands of the assessee was ‘expenditure’. Referring to CIT v. Malayalam Plantations Ltd., 53 ITR 140 (SC), the Court noted that the expenditure was wider in meaning and scope than when used to mean expenditure for earning profits; not all that was spent in a business could be construed as expenditure. ‘Commercial expediency’ and ‘reasonableness of expenditure’ were considered relevant for allowing a deduction, as was held in CIT v. Walchand & Co. (P.) Ltd., 65 ITR 381 (SC), and these aspects were to be looked at from the point of view of business. In Shree Sajjan Mills Ltd. v. 156 ITR 585 (SC), the Gauhati High Court noted, that contribution to the gratuity fund created for the benefit of employees in an irrevocable trust, was allowed to be deducted.

2.7 The three cases where the issue was considered under the Payment of Bonus Act, against the assessee’s claim for deduction, were noted by the Court:

  •     In Malwa Vanaspati & Chemical Co. Ltd. v. CIT, 154 ITR 655 (MP), it was held that S. 15 created a liability which was not a subsisting liability and, therefore, such amounts were held in reserve for meeting a future liability which contingent in nature, more so where the assessee did not deposit the amount with the Bonus Act authority.

  •     In Rayalaseema Mills Ltd. v. CIT, 155 ITR 19 (AP), it was held that set-on was not covered by S. 28 and S. 37 of the Income-tax Act and therefore, not an expenditure and the set-on amount was carried forward for a limited period for four years which was not the same as amounts paid to a third party, and, therefore, not loss, not a trading liability and not an expenditure.

  •     In P. K. Mohammed Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT, 162 ITR 587 (Ker.) the set-on amount was construed to be deposits made under the compulsion of a statute to satisfy a contingent liability to be paid in future.

2.8 The Gauhati High Court also noted that in three other cases, the Madras High Court had examined the issue of deductibility of an amount set aside for payment of bonus to workers independent of the Payment of Bonus Act. In CIT v. Somasundaram Mills (P.) Ltd., 95 ITR 365 (Mad.), CIT v. Anamallais Bus Transports (P.) Ltd., 99 ITR 445 (Mad.) and again in 118 ITR 739 (Mad.), it was held that the amount set aside as such for payment of bonus represented a contingent liability and could not be allowed as expenditure; the workmen did not have a right in such amounts.

2.9 The Court referred to the rule that required the statutory maintenance of registers and the columns therein. It noted that the Register ‘B’ showed set-on and set-off; that the amounts shown in columns, 3, 4 and 5 of the Fourth Schedule were amounts which were to be paid or have been paid to the employees; columns 2 to 5 in Form ‘B’ showed the amounts paid or to be paid. The Court observed that these columns, coupled with the language of S. 15 of the Act, indicated that the set-on amount could not be used or utilised by the assessee for business purposes and the amount deposited was held for the benefit of workmen; the use of words ‘utilised for the purpose of payment of bonus’ in S. 15 made this clear.

2.10 The Court posed itself a question, the answer thereto was considered crucial for deciding the issue whether a set-on amount was deductible or not. “In case such amounts were used by the assessee and the amounts were lost in the business, could a businessman be heard to contend that amounts were lost in business, there was nothing left to be paid to workmen and that as such he might be absolved from paying the bonus to workmen?”

2.11 The Court answered that the assessee could not utilise the set-on amount for business; that on making the deposit the assessee was divested of the right to invest or utilise the amount for business; the columns shown in the Fourth Schedule, Form B and the language used in the Schedule and in S. 15 of the Act indicated that the set-on amount, after it was deposited, could not be utilised; the amount was to be paid in four years. The Court was not impressed by the contention that the assessee could utilise the amount in business as the amounts set on were akin to the funds in an irrevocable trust such as referred to in Shree Sajjan Mills Ltd. v. CIT (supra) and the assessee was not an owner of the funds. The issue of deduction when viewed from the point of business as was done in CIT v. Walchand and Co. (P.) Ltd. (supra), would lead to an inevitable answer in favour of allowance of claim of the assessee.

2.12 The set-on amount could not be utilised by the assessee and had to be deposited perforce under the statute, and in that view of the matter such amount was an expenditure allowable for deduction. The Court observed that the company would be liable for punishment for fine and imprisonment u/s.28 of the Act for contravention where it utilised or used the amount. The set-on amount for the aforesaid reasons was an expenditure incurred by the assessee, and, therefore, had to be deducted.

    3. Ingersoll-Rand’s case:

3.1 In Ingersoll-Rand (India) Ltd. v. CIT, 320 ITR 513 (Bom.), the question that had been referred for consideration of the High Court at the instance of the assessee read as?: “Whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in holding that the set-on liability u/s.15 of the Payment of Bonus Act, amounting to Rs.24,73,865 was not allowable as a deduction in computing the total income of the assessee for the year under reference?”

3.2 The Court in the beginning took notice of the fact that S. 15(1) of the Payment of Bonus Act laid down that where for any accounting year the allocable surplus exceeded the amount of maximum bonus payable to the employees in the establishment u/s.11, then the excess should, subject to a limit of twenty per cent of the total salary or wage of the employees employed in the establishment in that accounting year, be carried forward for being set on in the succeeding accounting year and so on up to and inclusive of the fourth accounting year to be utilised for the purpose of payment of bonus.

3.3 The Court also noted that the issue of deduc-tion of set-on bonus was already considered by several High Courts and particularly, in favour of the Revenue by the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Malwa Vanaspati & Chemical Co. Ltd. v. CIT, 154 ITR 655, the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Rayalaseema Mills Ltd. v. CIT, 155 ITR 19 and the Kerala High Court in P. K. Mohammed (P) Ltd. v. CIT, 162 ITR 587. It also took note of the contrary view taken by the Gauhati High Court in India Carbon Ltd. v. CIT, 180 ITR 117. The Court noted that amongst the High Courts, there were two different views, though the majority of the High Courts have taken a view that the sum in question was not an allowable deduction.

3.4 The Bombay High Court observed that in India Carbon’s case (supra) the Gauhati High Court proceeded to hold that; the assessee could not utilise the amount for business; that on making deposit it was divested of the right to invest or utilise the amount for business; the amount had to be paid in future in the course of a cycle of four years; the amount if utilised would be in contravention of the Act and punishable. On this basis it held that the amount deposited under the provisions of the Act, which could not be utilised for the purposes of business, amounted to expenditure allowable.

3.5 Attention of the Court, on behalf of the company, was drawn to the judgment of the Supreme Court in Bharat Earth Movers v. CIT, 245 ITR 428 (SC), to contend that considering the ratio of that judgment, the allocable surplus would be an allowable deduction. In that case, the company had floated a scheme for its employees for encashment of leave and created a fund by making a provision for meeting such liability under a leave reserve account which was maintained so as to provide for encashment and payment of leave and vacation leave was paid from the leave reserve. On the basis of facts, the Court held that the provision made by the appellant company for meeting the liability incurred by it and the leave encashment scheme was entitled to deduction.

3.6 The Court relying on the precedents in favour of the Revenue held that an amount set on u/s.15 of the Payment of Bonus Act was not an accrued liability, but only a provision to meet a future liability, if any, and therefore, being a contingent liability, it was not allowable as deduction. It observed that; what the assessee was required by statute to do was to keep a reserve with itself, of what was known as allocable surplus to meet a future shortfall, if any, for a period of four years; the shortfall could not be estimated with reasonable certainty, though statutorily the liability had to be incurred; the extent of the liability also could not be estimated with reasonable certainty as if there were profits to meet the bonus liability the reserve would not be expended; only in the event there were no sufficient profits would the allocable surplus be utilised to meet the liability; the amount was merely a reserve fund which the Payment of Bonus Act mandated; after the expiry of four succeeding accounting years if the amount was not utilised the assessee was free to make use of the amount; the amount to be adjusted for the subsequent year, depended therefore on the shortfall which could not be anticipated with reasonable certainty; the amount was not deducted in the hands of the assessee unless it was utilised; the deduction claimed was not an accrued liability, but only a provision u/s.15(1) of the Payment of Bonus Act to meet a future liability, if any; the Tribunal was right in law in holding that the set-on liability u/s.15 of the Payment of Bonus Act was not allowable as a deduction in computing the total income of the assessee for the year under reference.

3.7 The judgment in Bharat Earth Movers (supra) case was found by the Bombay High Court to be clearly distinguishable and, therefore, not applicable.

    4. Observations:

4.1 S. 15 of the Payment of Bonus Act reads as under:

    1) “Set-on and set-off of allocable surplus — (1) Where for any accounting year, the allocable surplus exceeds the amount of maximum bonus payable to the employees in the establishment u/s.11, then, the excess shall, subject to a limit of twenty per cent of the total salary or wage of the employees employed in the establishment in that accounting year, be carried forward for being set on in the succeeding accounting year and so on up to and inclusive of the fourth accounting year to be utilised for the purpose of payment of bonus in the manner illustrated in the Fourth Schedule.

    2) Where for any accounting year, there is no available surplus or the allocable surplus in respect of that year falls short of the amount of minimum bonus payable to the employees in the establishment u/s.10, and there is no amount or sufficient amount carried forward and set on U/ss.(1) which could be utilised for the purpose of payment of the minimum bonus, then, such minimum amount or the deficiency, as the case may be, shall be carried forward for being set off in the succeeding accounting year and so on up to and inclusive of the fourth accounting year in the manner illustrated in the Fourth Schedule.

    3) The principle of set-on and set-off as illustrated in the Fourth Schedule shall apply to all other cases not covered by Ss.(1) or Ss.(2) for the purpose of payment of bonus under this Act.

    4) Where in any accounting year any amount has been carried forward and set on or set off under this Section, then, in calculating bonus for the succeeding accounting year, the amount of set-on or set-off carried forward from the earliest accounting year shall first be taken into account.”

4.2 S. 28 provides for penalty for violation of any of the provisions of the Act. It reads as:

“If any person —

    a) contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or any rule made thereunder; or

    b) to whom a direction is given or a requisition is made under this Act fails to comply with the direction or requisition, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.”

4.3 The primary thing that emerges out of the provisions of the Act is that the setting aside of the prescribed amount of ‘set-on’ is a statutory requirement and non-compliance thereof attracts the stringent punishment. Also emerges is the fact that the Income-tax Act does not provide for any express disallowance of the amount of ‘set-on’ un-less a view is taken that it is hit by S. 43B. It is also clear that such amount is not free for utilisation at the whims and fancies of the establishment which is rather duty bound to utilise the said amount for meeting the shortfall of any of the four years. Specific formula are provided by the Act for scientifically calculating the ‘set-on’ amount with the precision. There is nothing uncertain about the quantum of the provision. There is every possibility that the liability might emerge as had that not been anticipated, the law would not make any provision for such ‘set-on’. The sum is set aside for the labour welfare under a statutory stipulation.

4.4 The establishment is made presently liable for setting aside an amount not out of the profit, but out of the allocable surplus under a provision of law and under the mercantile system of accounting, it falls for allowance u/s.37 of the Income-tax Act. The establishment is divested of the set-on amount on creating a provision as per statute and on provision ceases to be the owner of the funds and holds thereafter as trustee or a custodian of the funds. The employees have an overriding title for the pre-scribed period of four years and the set-on money cannot be frittered away at the sweet will of the employer during the said period of four years.

4.5 For allowance of a deduction, actual parting of funds is not necessary and in any case, settlement by accounts is also an expenditure. The Supreme Court in the case of Metal Box Ltd., 73 ITR 53 held that an accrued but undischarged liability is allowable and a discounted value of a contingent liability in given circumstances be sometimes an expenditure. The Calcutta High Court in case of Electric Lamp Mfg. (India) Ltd., 165 ITR 115 (Cal.) held that a provision of a statutory liability on actuarial valuation is allowable as a deduction.

4.6 It may be true that the payment as also the quantum thereof is not certain, that fact alone should not deter the allowance of the claim for deduction. In the event the amount or part thereof was found to be not payable, the same nonetheless will be liable for taxation u/s.41 of the Act. No income escapes taxation by allowing the claim. In fact the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Rayalaseema Mills Ltd. v. CIT, 155 ITR 19 (AP) was pleased to hold that the obligation for setting on was statutory, but was confined only to the four succeeding accounting years, whereafter the assessee was free to make such use of the amount, if any, remaining, as it thinks fit. The Court accordingly confirmed that for the period of four years, the assessee was prevented from using the said funds at his will leading to a reasonable inference that the liability cannot at least be construed to be contingent and the funds set aside were not free. The said decision also noted the fact that the set-on amount could be utilised for payments in case of the need and only after the expiry of the four year period that the funds will be a part of the general revenue. The better view appears to be in favour of allowance of a set-on amount more importantly in view of provisions of S. 41 of the Act which ensures that no expenditure, that is not incurred finally, escapes taxation.

Ownership of a Part of the House and Exemption u/s. 54F

Synopsis

Section 54F, which allows exemption to an assessee from capital gains tax upon reinvestment of sale proceeds into a residential property, has been prone to litigation. A new area of controversy is now emerging with conflicting decisions rendered by various tribunals – whether part or joint ownership of a property at the time of transfer of the original asset could be construed as ownership of “one” residential property as intended under the proviso to section 54F(1). In this article, the authors discuss the conflicting tribunal judgments and their interpretation on this issue.

Issue for Consideration

An assessee, being an individual or a HUF, is exempted from payment of income tax on capital gains arising from the transfer of an asset, not being a residential house, u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act on reinvestment of the net consideration in purchase or construction of a residential house, within the specified period. This exemption from tax is subject to fulfillment of the other conditions specified in section 54F, one of which is that the assessee should not own more than one residential house, other than the new house, on the date of transfer of the said asset. This condition prescribed by item (i) of Clause (a) of the Proviso to section 54F(1) reads as under; “Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall apply where – (a) the assessee, – (i) owns more than one residential house, other than the new asset, on the date of transfer of the original asset; or…..”. Till assessment year 2000-01, the condition was that the assessee should not own any other residential house on the date of transfer, other than the new house.

An ownership of more than one house is fatal to the claim of exemption from tax on capital gains. The term ‘more than one residential house’ and the term ‘owns’ are not defined by section 54F or the Income-tax Act. Whether the Income-tax Department, while applying these terms, is required to establish that the assessee is the sole owner of a whole house, absolutely to the exclusion of other persons or is it sufficient if it establishes the co-ownership or joint ownership of the house or a part of the house by the assessee held together with the other persons, is the question that is being debated by the different benches of the tribunal. The issue involves the interpretation of these terms on which the different benches of the tribunal have taken conflicting stands that require due consideration. The Mumbai and the Chennai benches of the tribunal have taken a stand that the co-ownership of a house at the time of transfer does not amount to ownership of a house and is not an impediment for the claim of exemption u/s. 54F, while the Hyderabad and the Chennai benches of the tribunal have denied the benefit of section 54F in cases where the assessees have been found to be holding a share in the ownership of the house as on the date of transfer of the asset.

Rasiklal N. Satra’s Case

The issue first came up for consideration of the Mumbai bench of the tribunal in the case of Rasiklal N. Satra, 98 ITD 335. In that case, the assessee had derived capital gains of Rs. 6,68,698 for A.Y. 1998-99 on sale of shares in respect of which gains, an exemption u/s. 54F was claimed on the strength of purchase of a house at Vashi, Navi Mumbai. The AO in the course of assessment noticed that the assessee was the co-owner of a house at Sion on the date of transfer of the said shares which co-ownership was held to be in violation of one of the conditions of section 54F. The AO accordingly denied the claim of exemption, on the ground that the assessee owned another house on the date of transfer of the shares.

Before the CIT (Appeals) it was contended that a shared interest in the property did not amount to ownership of the property, a contention that was accepted by the CIT (Appeals) who allowed the claim of the assessee for exemption from tax.

In the appeal by the AO to the tribunal, the Income-tax Department contended that a share in the ownership of a house amounted to the ownership of house and as such the assessee had violated the condition in section 54F and as a result was not eligible for the claim of exemption from tax. The assessee reiterated his contention that a shared interest in the property was not equivalent to the ownership of the house. He also relied on the provisions of section 26 of the Act to contend that the joint owners were to be assessed in the status of an AOP unless the shares of the owners were definite and ascertainable. He contended that he had no definite share in the house and he could not be held to be the owner of the house.

The tribunal noted that the only issue before it was as to whether the assessee could be said to be the owner of the Sion house or not. In the context, it observed that the Legislature had used the word ‘a’ before the words ‘residential house’ which must mean a complete residential house and would not include a shared interest in a residential house; where the property was owned by more than one person, it could not be said that any one of them was the owner of the property; in such a case no individual person, of his own, could sell the entire property though no doubt, he could sell his share of interest in the property but as far as the property was considered, it would continue to be owned by co-owners; joint ownership was different from absolute ownership; in the case of a residential unit, none of the co-owners could claim that he was the owner of a residential house; ownership of a residential house meant an ownership to the exclusion of all others and where a house was jointly owned by two or more persons, none of them could be said to be the owner of that house.

The tribunal fortified its views with the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Seth Banarsi Dass Gupta vs. CIT, 166 ITR 833, wherein, it was held that a fractional ownership was not sufficient for claiming even fractional depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act. It observed that because of the said judgment, the Legislature had to amend the provisions of section 32 with effect from 01-04-1997 by using the expres-sion ‘owned wholly or partly’. It held that the word ‘own’ would not include a case where a residential house was partly owned by one person or partly owned by other person(s). It further observed that after the judgment of Supreme Court in the case of Seth Banarsi Dass Gupta (supra), the Legislature could have also amended the provisions of section 54F so as to include part ownership and since, the Legislature had not amended the provisions of section 54F, it had to be held that the word ‘own’ in section 54F would include only the case where a residential house was fully and wholly owned by assessee and consequently would not include a residential house owned by more than one person. In the present case, admittedly the house at Sion, Mumbai, the tribunal further noted, was purchased jointly by assessee and his wife. As it was nobody’s case that wife was a benami of assessee, as such it had to be held that assessee was not the owner of a residential house on the date of transfer of original asset. Consequently, the exemption u/s. 54F could not be denied to assessee.

Holding of a share or a part ownership in the house was not considered by the tribunal to be representing the ownership of a house for the purposes of compliance of conditions contained in the Proviso to section 54F(1) of the Act. The benefit of section 54F conferred on the assessee by the CIT (Appeals) was confirmed by the tribunal.

Apsara Bhavana Sai’s Case

The issue recently came up for consideration of the Hyderabad bench of the tribunal in Apsara Bhavana Sai’s case, 40 taxmann.com 528.

In this case, the assessee had claimed an exemption u/s. 54F in respect of long term capital gains arising from sale of shares, for A.Y. 2008-09. During the course of assessment, the AO noticed that the as-sessee owned two houses, i.e. more than one house, as she had declared income from these two houses under the head ‘Income from House Property’. He was of the opinion that the assessee had violated the condition of section 54F(1) that prohibited her from owning more than one house on the date of transfer of shares. He accordingly called upon the assessee to explain her case for the exemption.

The assessee, inter alia, claimed that one of the houses at ‘My Home Navadeep’ was held jointly by her with her husband. Relying on the decision in the case of Rasiklal N. Satra (supra), she argued that a share in a house, per se, was not equated with the ownership of the house and her co-ownership of the said house, should not be a ground for denial of benefit of section 54F to her.

The AO noted that the assessee, as a joint owner, was holding the rights of ownership over the house and could not be said to be not the owner of the property, more so where the entire rental income of the house was offered for taxation in her hands. Relying on an unreported decision of the Chennai bench of the tribunal, in the case of Dr. P. K. Vasanthi Rangrajan dated 25-07-2005 in ITA No. 1753/MDS/2004, the AO denied the exemption to the assessee. He also relied on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Chandanben Maganlal, 245 ITR 182 to support his action.

Before the CIT(A), the assessee reiterated that a share in the joint property should be regarded as a share only and not as an ownership, relying on the decisions in the cases of Rasiklal N. Satra (supra) and Seth Banarsi Dass Gupta, 166 ITR 783 (SC) where it was held that a co-owner was a person entitled to a share in the property but could not be recognised as the single owner. The decisions in the cases of Shiv Narain Chaudhary, 108 ITR 104 (All.) and in T. N. Aravinda Reddy, 120 ITR 46 (SC) were also relied upon. The assessee further contended that the decision of the tribunal in the case of Rasikal N. Satra (supra) was not contested further, and therefore, shall be considered as final. She maintained that part ownership of the house property could not be a disqualification for claiming exemption u/s. 54F as a joint ownership in a house should not be considered in counting the numeric strength of the house property as envisaged under the provisions for claiming exemption u/s. 54F. The assessee submitted that that the share in a joint ownership in the property at ‘My Home Navadeep’ should be excluded and not considered as disqualification for claiming exemption u/s. 54F of the Act.

The CIT(A) observed that;

•    admittedly the house was jointly owned by the assessee with her husband and the question, therefore, was whether the part ownership of the assessee of the said flat could be considered as ownership of the flat.

•    in the case of Dr. P. K. Vasanthi Rangarajan (supra), wherein it had been held that if an assessee owned a part of a residential property, though not fully, it amounted to owning of a residential property as envisaged in section 54F and the assessee became disqualified for exemption u/s. 54F,

•    Mumbai bench in the case of Rasiklal N. Satra (supra) had taken a view that ownership was different from absolute ownership and that none of the co-owners could claim that he was the owner of the residential house as the ownership of a residential house meant ownership to the exclusion of all others relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Seth Banarasi Dass Gupta (supra), holding that fractional ownership was not sufficient for claiming even fractional depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act.

•    the said decision in the case of Rasiklal N. Satra (supra) was not contested further,

•    the Chennai bench of the tribunal, in a later decision in the case of Asstt. CIT vs. K. Surendra Kumar in ITA No. 1324/Mds/2010 dated 12-08-2011, had followed the same decision of the Mumbai bench going against the decision of their co-ordinate bench in the case of Dr. P.K. Vasanthi Rangarajan (supra), wherein the tribunal noted that the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Seth Banarasi Dass Gupta (supra) had not been considered in Dr. P.K.Vasanthi Rangrajan’s case, whereas the same was considered by the Mumbai bench in the case of Rasiklal N. Satra (supra).

•    the Chennai bench in the said K. Surendra Kumar ‘s case held that since in the said case the assessee was only a part owner of the two residential properties, he could not be said to be owning a residential house as required for the purpose of benefit u/s. 54F of the Act.

The CIT(A) held that as the assessee was only a part owner of the property at ‘My Home Navadeep’, in the light of the decisions of the Mumbai and Chennai benches, the assessee could not be considered as owning the said property, to the exclusion of the joint owner, i.e., her husband, so as to be called the ‘owner’ for the purpose of section 54F of the Act. The CIT(A) held that the assessee could be said to be owning only one property as on the date of sale of shares, and therefore, was eligible for deduction u/s. 54F and accordingly, decided the grounds raised by the assessee in her favour and directed the Assessing Officer to revise the computation of income.

Against the order of the CIT(Appeals), the Income tax Department filed an appeal before the tribunal wherein it was pleaded; that the CIT(A) wrongly granted deduction u/s. 54F of the Act, though the assessee was owning more than one residential house; that the assessee being partial owner of the property at ‘My Home Navdeep’ and absolute owner of the other house situated at Meenakshi Royal Court, was owning more than one house and was not entitled for deduction u/s. 54F of the Act; even fractional or partial ownership of the immovable property disentitled the assessee for claiming deduction u/s. 54F of the Act ; that the judgments relied on by the assessee were relating to granting of deduction u/s. 32 and the language used therein was entirely different from section 54F of the Income- tax Act and these judgments were not applicable to the facts of the case; that the assessee was to be treated as owning more than one residential house and she could not granted deduction u/s. 54F of the Act in view of the judg-ments in the cases of CIT vs. Ravinder Kumar Arora, 342 ITR 38(Delhi), Mrs. Kamlesh Bansal vs. ITO, 26 SOT 3 (Delhi) (URO), Madgul Udyog vs. CIT, 184 ITR 484 (Cal.)and Dy. CIT vs. Greenko Energies (P.) Ltd. in ITA Nos. 3-7/Hyd/13 dated 10.5.2013.

The tribunal, on due consideration of the material on record, observed that the exemption u/s. 54F had been granted to the assessee with a view to encourage construction of one residential house and the construction/purchase of a house other than one residential house was not covered by section 54F of the Act; that the concession provided u/s. 54F w.e.f. 01-04-2001 would not be available in a case where the assessee already owned, on the date of transfer of the original assets, more than one residential house; it was clear that emphasis had been given on owning more than one residential house by an assessee and the assessees who already owned more than one residential house on the date of transfer of the original asset, were not eligible for the concession provided u/s. 54F of the Act even if the other residential house might be either owned by the assessee wholly or partially. In other words, when any assessee who owned more than one residential in his/her own title exercising such dominion over the residential house as would enable other being excluded therefrom and having right to use and occupy the said house and/or to enjoy its usufruct in his/her own right should be deemed to be the owner of the residential house for the purpose of section 54F of the Act and that the proviso to section 54F of the Act clearly provided that no deduction shall be allowed if the assessee owned on the date of transfer of the residential asset more than one residential house.

For concluding the case in favour of the Income tax Department, the tribunal relied upon the decisions in cases of Smt. Bhavna Thanawala vs. ITO, 15 SOT 377 (Mum), Ravinder Kumar Arora vs. Asstt. CIT, 52 SOT 201(Delhi) and V. K. S. Bawa vs. Asstt. CIT, 56 ITD 232 (Delhi).

Observations

Section 54F on its original enactment by the Finance Act, 1982 disentitled an assessee for the claim of exemption from tax in a case where he owned any one other house as on the date of transfer, other than the new house. Realising the genuine difficulties faced by the assesses, a relaxation was made by the Finance Act, 2000 with insertion of the Proviso in s/s. (1) so as to enable an assessee to own one residential house as on the date of the transfer of the asset. The sum and the substance of the Proviso is that an assessee is not disentitled from claiming an exemption on account of his ownership of one house as on the date of transfer.

The issue is two dimensional. The Income-tax Department has to cross two hurdles, not one, before it can successfully deny the benefit of exemption to the assessee. One, it has to establish that the term ‘owns’ include an ownership of a ‘part ownership’ or a ‘joint or co-ownership’ of the house. Second, it has to establish that the term ‘one’ includes within its ambit ‘a fraction of one’. In our opinion, the tribunal has not considered the other equally important aspect of the condition stipulated and have emphasised the first aspect of the issue only, while deciding the issue either way.

On a reading of the said Proviso, it is evident that the legislature, unlike other provisions, has not expressly stated that the term ‘owns’, or for that matter the term ‘one residential house’, shall include a co-ownership of a part of the residential house. The Act, at many places, clearly provide that a part of a building is also included in the building. For example; Explanation (b) of section 194IA, 269UA(d)(i) and (ii), section 32, etc.. In the absence of an express provision, it is inappropriate to read the Proviso in a manner so as to include the ownership of a part of the house therein and circuitously hold that such an interpretation represents the legislative intent.

The decisions relied upon by the AO and by the Hyderabad tribunal in the cases of Chandanben Maganlal (Guj) and Ravindar Kumar Arora (Del) are the cases that involved the issue of eligibility of an assessee for exemption u/s. 54F on the strength of acquiring co-ownership rights in a new house on transfer of an asset other than a residential house. These cases, therefore, dealt with the interpretation of the main provision of s/s. (1) which employs a different language than the Proviso and are therefore distinguishable. The main provision requires ‘purchase’ of ‘a’ residential house while the Proviso restricts ownership to ‘one’ residential house. The terms employed are not only different, they are used in different context for different objective and should be interpreted in a manner that facilitates the objective and not frustrate the incentive provisions. While ‘a’ house may include a part of the house, it is very difficult, if not impossible, to state that ‘one’ includes a part of one, as well. Section 54F(1), in three places, has used different terminologies conveying the different objectives of the legislature. At one place in main sub-section (1), it has used ‘a residential house’; in the Proviso ‘one residential house’ is used in Items (a)(i) and (b) while in Items (a)(ii) and (iii) ‘any residential house’ has been used.

Section 13 of the General Clauses Act provide that ‘single’ includes ‘plural’ and the ‘plural’ includes ‘single’. It does not provide that ‘one’ includes a fraction of one. ‘One’ is a full and complete number; an integer; a whole number, complete in itself; single and integral in number, the lowest cardinal number; not capable of being substituted by a part i.e. an incomplete number.

The fact that the different benches have taken conflicting views and even the Chennai bench has taken conflicting views in two different cases clearly indicate that more than one view is available. It is by now a settled a proposition of taxation laws that a view beneficial to the assessee should be adopted in a case where two views are possible. Vegetable Products Ltd. 88 ITR 192 (SC). It is also a settled po-sition in law that an incentive provision should be liberally interpreted to facilitate the conferment of an incentive on the assessee. Bajaj Tempo Ltd. 196 ITR 188 (SC) and Strawboard 177 ITR 431 (SC).

It may be possible to hold that a co-owner or a part owner is also the owner of a house but the same may not be true while supplying a meaning to ‘one’ house. A part of a house cannot be treated as one house and ownership of a part of house cannot be considered as the ownership of one house.

A useful reference may also be made to the provisions of section 32 which expressly covers the cases of the whole or part ownership of an asset for grant of depreciation. The term ‘wholly or partly’ used before the term ‘owned’ in section 32(1) clearly convey the legislative intent of covering an asset that is partly owned for grant of depreciation. In its absence, it was not possible for a co-owner of an asset to claim the depreciation as was held in the case of Seth Banarasi Dass Gupta (Supra). In that case, a fractional share in an asset was not considered as coming within the ambit of single ownership. It was held that the test to determine a single owner was that “the ownership should be vested fully in one single name and not as joint owner or a fractional owner”.

The better view, in our considered opinion is to ignore the case of co-ownership for the purposes of application of restrictions contained in Proviso to section 54F(1) of the Income-tax Act so as to enable the claim of exemption.