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Section 56(2)(vii)(c) – The provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(c) get attracted only when a higher than proportionate allotment of fresh shares issued by a company is received by a shareholder

15. [2020] 119 taxmann.com 362 (Jai.)(Trib.)
DCIT vs. Smt. Veena Goyal A.Y.: 2013-14
Date of order: 15th September,
2020

 

Section 56(2)(vii)(c) – The provisions of section
56(2)(vii)(c) get attracted only when a higher than proportionate allotment of
fresh shares issued by a company is received by a shareholder

 

FACTS

The assessee was allotted 11,20,000 shares @ Rs. 10
per share, whereas the A.O. determined the fair market value of each share to
be Rs. 20.37. He made an addition of Rs. 1,16,14,400 being the difference
calculated between fair market value and face value u/s 56(2)(vii)(c).

 

The aggrieved assessee preferred an appeal to the
CIT(A) who, observing that the shareholding percentage of the appellant in the
company was the same both before and after the allotment, allowed the appeal.

 

Aggrieved, Revenue preferred an appeal to the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the issue was the
subject matter of dispute before the ITAT, Mumbai bench in the case of Sudhir
Menon HUF vs. ACIT [2014] 148 ITD 260
wherein the Tribunal held that as
long as there is no disproportional allotment of shares, there was no scope for
any property being received by the taxpayer as there was only an apportionment
of the value of the existing shareholder over a larger number of shares,
consequently no addition u/s 56(2)(vii)(c) would arise.

 

The Tribunal also noted
that in the case of ACIT vs. Subhodh Menon [2019] 175 ITD 449
(Mum.-Trib.)
it has held that only when a higher than proportionate
allotment of fresh shares issued by a company is received by a shareholder do
the provisions of section 56(2)(vii) get attracted.

 

In the present case, since
the percentage of shareholding before and after the allotment of new shares
thereof remained the same, the Tribunal upheld the order passed by the CIT(A)
and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

 

Assessee being mere trader of scrap would not be liable to collect tax at source u/s 206C when such scrap was not a result of manufacture or mechanical working of materials

14. [2020] 78 ITR (Trib.) 451
(Luck.)(Trib.)
Lala Bharat Lal & Sons vs. ITO ITA No. 14, 15 & 16/LKW/2019 A.Ys.: 2014-15 to 2016-17 Date of order: 19th February,
2020

 

Assessee
being mere trader of scrap would not be liable to collect tax at source u/s
206C when such scrap was not a result of manufacture or mechanical working of
materials

 

FACTS

The assessee was in the
business of dealing / trading in metal scrap. For the relevant assessment years
the A.O. held that the assessee was liable to collect tax at source @ 1% of the
sale amount as per the provisions of section 206C(1). The assessee contended
that the sale / trading done by him did not tantamount to sale of scrap as defined
in Explanation (b) to section 206C, as the same had not been generated from
manufacture or mechanical work. This contention was rejected by the CIT(A). The
assessee then filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

The assessee relied on the
decision of the Ahmedabad Tribunal in Navine Fluorine International Ltd.
vs. ACIT [2011] 45 SOT 86
wherein it was held that for invoking the
provisions of Explanation (b) to section 206C, it was necessary that waste and
scrap sold by the assessee should arise from the manufacturing or mechanical
working done by the assessee. Reliance was also placed on Nathulal P.
Lavti vs. ITO [2011] 48 SOT 83 (URO) (Rajkot)
.

 

On the other hand, Revenue
placed reliance on the decision of the special bench of the Tribunal in the
case of Bharti Auto Products vs. CIT [2013] 145 ITD 1 (Rajkot)(SB)
which held that all the traders in scrap were also liable to collect tax at
source under the provisions of section 206C.

Against the arguments of
the Revenue, the assessee relied on the decision of the Gujarat High Court in CIT
vs. Priya Blue Industries (P) Ltd. [2016] 381 ITR 210 (Gujarat)
wherein
the plea of the Revenue to consider the decision of the special bench in case
of Bharti Auto Products vs. CIT (Supra) was dismissed. Reliance
was also placed on the decision of the Ahmedabad Tribunal in the case of Azizbhai
A. Lada vs. ITO [ITA 765/Ahd/2015]
and Dhasawal Traders vs. ITO
[2016] 161 ITD 142
wherein the judgment of the Gujarat High Court in
the case of Priya Blue Industries (P) Ltd. (Supra) was considered
and relief was granted to the assessee.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that it
was an undisputed fact that the assessee was not a manufacturer and was only a
dealer in scrap.

 

In the case of Navine
Fluorine International Ltd. (Supra)
, it was held that to fall under the
definition of scrap as given in the Explanation to section 206C, the term
‘waste’ and ‘scrap’ are one and it should arise from manufacture and if the
scrap is not coming out of manufacture, then the items do not fall under the
definition of scrap and thus are not liable to TCS.

 

Further, in the case of ITO
(TDS) vs. Priya Blue Industries (P) Ltd. [ITA No. 2207/ADH/2011]
, the
Tribunal had held that the words ‘waste’ and ‘scrap’ should have nexus with
manufacturing or mechanical working of materials.

 

The Tribunal relied upon
the decision of the Gujarat High Court in CIT vs. Priya Blue Industries
(P) Ltd. (Supra)
, which held that the expression ‘scrap’ defined in
clause (b) of the Explanation to section 206C means ‘waste’ and ‘scrap’ from manufacture
of mechanical working of materials, which is not useable as such and the
expression ‘scrap’ contained in clause (b) of the Explanation to section 206C
shows that any material which is useable as such would not fall within the
ambit of ‘scrap’.

 

Next, the Tribunal referred
to the decision in the case of Dhasawal Traders vs. ITO (Supra)
which held that when the assessee had not generated any scrap in manufacturing
activity and he was only a trader having sold products which were re-useable as
such, hence he was not supposed to collect tax at source.

 

It was also held that the
Gujarat High Court had duly considered the decision of the special bench.
Accordingly, the Tribunal, following the decision in CIT vs. Priya Blue
Industries (P) Ltd. (Supra)
held that the assessee being a trader of
scrap not involved in manufacturing activity, cannot be fastened with the
provisions of section 206C(1).

 

CIT(E) cannot pass an order denying registration u/s 12AA (without following the procedure of cancellation provided in the Act) from a particular assessment year by taking the ground that lease rental income exceeding Rs. 25 lakhs received from properties held by the trust violated provisions of section 2(15) when such registration was granted in the same order for prior assessment years

13. [2020] 77 ITR (Trib.) 407
(Cuttack)(Trib.)
Orissa Olympic Association vs. CIT(E) ITA No.: 323/CTK/2017 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 6th December,
2019

 

CIT(E)
cannot pass an order denying registration u/s 12AA (without following the
procedure of cancellation provided in the Act) from a particular assessment
year by taking the ground that lease rental income exceeding Rs. 25 lakhs
received from properties held by the trust violated provisions of section 2(15)
when such registration was granted in the same order for prior assessment years

 

FACTS

The assessee was an
association registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 since 1961.
It had made an application for registration u/s 12A in the year 1997 which was
pending disposal. On appeal against the order of assessment for A.Ys. 2002-03
to 2007-08, the Tribunal set aside the assessment pending the disposal of the
petition filed by the assessee u/s 12A by the Income-tax authority.
Accordingly, following the directions of the Tribunal, the CIT(E) called for
information from the assessee society and after considering the submissions,
rejected the application of the association. Aggrieved by this order, the
assessee approached the Tribunal which, vide order in ITA
334/CTK/2011
directed the CIT(E) to look into the matter of
registration afresh, considering the second proviso to section 2(15) as
prospective from 1st April, 2009.

 

Accordingly, after
considering the objects of the assessee, the CIT(E) passed an order stating
that the objects of the assessee were charitable in nature and the activities
were not carried out with the object to earn profits. Registration was granted
from A.Ys. 1998-99 to 2008-09. However, from A.Y. 2009-10 onwards, registration
was denied on the ground that income received by the assessee as commercial
lease rent was in the nature of trade, commerce, or business and it exceeded
Rs. 25 lakhs in all the previous years, thereby violating the provisions of
section 2(15) as amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2009. The assessee filed
an appeal against this order before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it
was an undisputed fact that the CIT(E) had granted registration from A.Y.
1998-99 to 2008-09 after noting that the objects of the assessee were
charitable in nature and were not carried out with an object to earn profits.
It was held that the lease rent incomes received from the property held under
the trust was wholly for charitable or religious purposes and were applied for
charitable purposes, hence the same was not exempt in the hands of the
assessee. Except lease rent incomes, there was no allegation of the CIT(E) to
support that the incomes received by the assessee as commercial lease rent were
in the nature of trade or commerce or trade. It was held that the income earned
by the assessee from commercial lease rent, which was the only ground of
denying the continuance of registration from A.Y. 2009-10 was not sustainable
for denying the registration already granted.

 

It was observed that
registration was granted for limited period but was denied thereafter without
affording an opportunity to the assessee which was contrary to the mandate of
section 12AA(3) and hence denial of registration was unsustainable.

 

Reliance was placed on the
following:

 

1. Dahisar Sports Foundation vs. ITO [2017]
167 ITD 710 (Mum.)(Trib.)
wherein it was held that if the objects of
the trust are charitable, the fact that it collected certain charges or
receipts (or income) does not alter the character of the trust.

 

2. DIT (Exemptions) vs. Khar Gymkhana [2016]
385 ITR 162 (Bom. HC)
wherein it was held that where there is no change
in the nature of activities of the trust and the registration is already
granted u/s12A, then the same cannot be disqualified without examination where
receipts from commercial activities exceed Rs. 25 lakhs as per CBDT Circular
No. 21 of 2016 dated 27th May, 2016.

 

3. Mumbai Port Trust vs. DIT (Exemptions)
[IT Appeal No. 262 (Mum.) of 2012]
wherein it was held that the process
of cancellation of registration has to be done in accordance with the
provisions of sections 12AA(3) and (4) after carefully examining the
applicability of these provisions.

 

Accordingly, it was held
that once the registration is granted, then the same is required to be
continued till it is cancelled by following the procedure provided in
sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 12AA; without following such procedure, the
registration cannot be restricted and cannot be discontinued by way of
cancelling the same for a subsequent period in the same order.

 

Section 23, Rule 4 – Amount of rent, as per leave and license agreement, which is not received cannot be considered as forming part of annual value merely on the ground that the assessee has not taken legal steps to recover the rent or that the licensee has deducted tax at source thereon

12. TS-577-ITAT-2020-(Mum.) Vishwaroop Infotech Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT,
LTU A.Y.: 2012-13
Date of order: 6th November,
2020

 

Section
23, Rule 4 – Amount of rent, as per leave and license agreement, which is not
received cannot be considered as forming part of annual value merely on the
ground that the assessee has not taken legal steps to recover the rent or that
the licensee has deducted tax at source thereon

 

FACTS

The assessee gave four
floors of its property at Vashi, Navi Mumbai on leave and license basis to
Spanco Telesystems and Solutions Ltd. Subsequently, the licensee company
informed the assessee about slump sale of its business to Spanco BPO Services
Ltd. and Spanco Respondez BPO Pvt. Ltd. and requested the assessee to
substitute the names of these new companies as licensee in its place w.e.f. 1st
April, 2008.

 

Due to financial problems
in the new companies, the new companies stopped paying rent from financial year
2010-11 relevant to assessment year 2011-12. As on 31st March, 2011,
the total outstanding dues receivable by the assessee from these two companies
amounted to Rs. 15.60 crores.

 

During the previous year
relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee did not
receive anything from the licensee and therefore did not offer the license fee
to the extent of Rs. 3,85,85,341 for taxation. The licensees had, however,
deducted TDS on this amount and had reflected this amount in the TDS statement
filed by them. While the assessee did not offer the sum of Rs. 3,85,85,341 for
taxation, it did claim credit of TDS to the extent of Rs. 38.58 lakhs.

 

Of the sum of Rs. 15.60
crores receivable by the assessee from the licensee, the assessee, after a lot
of negotiation and persuasion, managed to get Rs 10.51 crores during the
previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration. Since the
assessee could not recover rent for the period under consideration, it did not
declare rental income for the assessment year under consideration.

 

The A.O. brought to tax
this sum of Rs. 3,85,85,341 on the ground that the assessee did not satisfy the
fourth condition of Rule 4, i.e., the assessee has neither furnished any
documentary evidence for instituting legal proceedings against the tenant for
recovery of outstanding rent, nor proved that the institution of legal
proceedings would be useless and that the licensees had deducted TDS on
unrealised rent which TDS is reflected in the ITS Data.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the A.O. on the
ground that the licensee has deducted TDS on unrealised rent.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal challenging the addition of unrealised rent
receivable from the licensees. It was also contended that the assessee did not
initiate legal proceedings against the licensees because the licensees were in
possession of the premises which were worth more than Rs. 200 crores. Civil
litigation would have taken decades for the assessee during which period the
assessee would have been deprived of the possession of the premises. Civil
litigation would have also involved huge litigation and opportunity costs. It
was in these circumstances that the assessee agreed with the licensees, on 20th
November, 2011, to give up all its claims in lieu of possession
of the premises.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that
considering the fact that the assessee has to safeguard its interest and
initiating litigation against the big business house that, too, having
financial problems will be fruitless and it will be at huge cost. It is also in
the interest of the assessee if it could recover the rent, for it will be
beneficial to the assessee first. No one leaves any money unrecovered. The
reasons disclosed by the assessee to close the dispute amicably and recovering
the amount of Rs. 10.51 crores from the company, which was having a financial
problem, itself was a huge task.

 

The Tribunal held that in
its view the situation in the present case amply displays that institution of
legal proceedings would be useless and the A.O. has failed to understand the
situation and failed to appreciate the settlement reached by the assessee. The
Tribunal observed that the A.O. has also not brought on record whether the
assessee is likely to receive the rent in near future; rather, he accepted the
fact that it is irrecoverable. The Tribunal held that the rental income can be
brought to tax only when the assessee has actually received or is likely to
receive or there is certainty of receiving it in the near future. In the given
case, since the assessee has no certainty of receipt of any rent, as and when
the assessee reaches an agreement to settle the dispute it is equal to
satisfying the fourth condition of Rule 4 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962.

 

The Tribunal said that the
addition of rent was unjustified and directed the A.O. to delete the addition.

 

The Tribunal noticed that
the assessee has taken TDS credit to the extent of Rs. 38.58 lakhs. It held
that the A.O. can treat the amount of Rs. 38.58 lakhs as income under the head
`Income from House Property’.

 

Section 45, Rule 115 – Foreign exchange gain realised on remittance of amount received on redemption of shares, at par, in foreign subsidiary is a capital receipt not liable to tax

11. TS-580-ITAT-2020-(Del.) Havells India Ltd. vs. ACIT, LTU A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order: 10th November,
2020

 

Section
45, Rule 115 – Foreign exchange gain realised on remittance of amount received
on redemption of shares, at par, in foreign subsidiary is a capital receipt not
liable to tax

 

FACTS

During the previous year
relevant to assessment year 2008-09, the assessee invested in 3,55,22,067
shares of one of its subsidiary companies, M/s Havells Holdings Ltd., out of
which 1,54,23,053 shares were redeemed at par value in the same year. Upon remittance
of the consideration of shares redeemed the assessee realised foreign exchange
gain of Rs. 2,55,82,186.

 

Since this gain was not on
account of increase in value of the shares, as the shares were redeemed at par
value but merely on account of repatriation of proceeds received on exchange
fluctuation, the gain was treated as a capital receipt in the return of income.

 

The A.O. held that the
assessee had purchased shares in a foreign company for which purchase
consideration was remitted from India and further, on redemption, the sale /
redemption proceeds so received in foreign currency were remitted back to India
which resulted in gain which is taxable as capital gains in terms of section
45.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) which upheld the action of the A.O. The
assessee then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal noted the undisputed fact that investment made by the assessee in the
shares of Havells Holdings Ltd. was made in Euros and redemption of such shares
was also made in Euros. It held that the actual profit or loss on sale /
redemption of such shares therefore has to necessarily be computed in Euros
and, thereafter, converted to INR for the purposes of section 45. In other
words, the cost of acquisition of shares and consideration received thereon
should necessarily be converted into Euros and the resultant gain / loss
thereon should thereafter be converted into INR at the prevailing rate. In the
present case, the net gain / loss on redemption of shares was Nil since the
shares were redeemed at par value and thereby there was no capital gain taxable u/s 45.

 

From a perusal of section
45 it can be seen that for taxation of any profits or gains arising from the
transfer of a capital asset, only gains accruing as a result of transfer of the
asset can be taxed. In the present case, there was no ‘gain’ on transfer /
redemption of the shares insofar as the shares were redeemed at par value.
Thus, there was no gain which accrued to the assessee as a result of redemption
of such shares, since the shares were redeemed at par value. The said
contention is supported by Rule 115 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 which
provides the rate of exchange for conversion of income expressed in foreign
currency. Clause (f) of Explanation 2 to Rule 115(1) clearly provides that ‘in
respect of the income chargeable under the head “capital gains……”.’
rate of
exchange is to be applied. In the present case, since capital gain in GBP /
Euro was Nil, the resultant gain in Indian rupees is Nil. The exchange gain of
Rs. 2,55,82,186 was only a consequence of repatriation of the consideration
received (in Euros) in Indian rupees and cannot be construed to be part of
consideration received on redemption of shares. Thus, the applicability of
section 45 does not come into the picture in the present case.

 

The Tribunal held that the
A.O. was not right in applying section 45 for making the addition. This ground
of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Sections 50, 112 – Capital gains computed u/s 50 on transfer of buildings which were held for more than three years are taxable @ 21.63% u/s 112 and not @ 32.45%, the normal rate

10. TS-566-ITAT-2020-(Mum.) Voltas Ltd. vs. DCIT A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 6th October,
2020

 

Sections
50, 112 – Capital gains computed u/s 50 on transfer of buildings which were
held for more than three years are taxable @ 21.63% u/s 112 and not @ 32.45%,
the normal rate

 

FACTS

For the assessment year
2013-14, the assessee company in the course of an appeal before the Tribunal
raised an additional ground contending that the capital gains computed u/s 50
on sale of buildings should be taxed @ 21.63% u/s 112 instead of @ 32.45%, as
the said buildings were held for more than three years.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, after
referring to the provisions of section 50 and having noted that the Bombay High
Court in the case of CIT vs. V.S. Dempo Company Ltd. [387 ITR 354] has
observed that section 50 which is a special provision for computing the capital
gains in the case of depreciable assets, is restricted for the purposes of
section 48 or section 49 as specifically stated therein and the said fiction
created in sub-sections (1) and (2) of section 50 has limited application only
in the context of the mode of computation of capital gains contained in
sections 48 and 49 and would have nothing to do with the exemption that is
provided in a totally different provision, i.e. section 54E. Section 48 deals
with the mode of computation and section 49 relates to cost with reference to
certain modes of acquisition.

 

The Tribunal also noted
that the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Manali Investment [ITA No.
1658 of 2012]
has held that the assessee is entitled to set-off u/s 74
in respect of capital gains arising out of transfer of capital assets on which
depreciation has been allowed in the first year itself and which is deemed as
short-term capital gains u/s 50.

 

The Tribunal held that the
deeming fiction of section 50 is limited and cannot be extended beyond the
method of computation of gain and that the distinction between short-term and
long-term capital gain is not obliterated by this section. Following the ratio
of these decisions, the Tribunal allowed the additional ground of appeal filed
by the assessee and directed the A.O. to re-examine the detailed facts and
allow the claim.

 

Section 37 – Expenditure incurred on cost of adhesive stamps for obtaining conveyance deed for assignment of receivables is allowable as the same is in connection with facilitating recovery of receivables which is a part of current asset and has been incurred for facilitating the business of the assessee

9. [2020] 120 taxmann.com 33 (Mum.)(Trib.) Demag
Delaval Industries Turbomachinery
(P) Ltd. A.Y.: 2004-05 Date of order: 16th September,
2020

 

Section 37 – Expenditure incurred on cost
of adhesive stamps for obtaining conveyance deed for assignment of receivables
is allowable as the same is in connection with facilitating recovery of
receivables which is a part of current asset and has been incurred for
facilitating the business of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee
acquired an industrial turbine unit of Alstom Project India Limited for a lump
sum consideration. The assessee incurred expenditure of Rs. 59,17,000 being
cost of adhesive stamp affixed on the conveyance deed for assignment of
receivables and claimed it as a deduction on the ground that it was an
expenditure in connection with the acquisition of business and is a revenue
expenditure.

 

The A.O. and the
CIT(A) denied the claim of the assessee on the ground that it is for
acquisition of industrial turbine unit from Alstom Project India Limited. He
held that the stamp duty is nothing but an expenditure incurred in order to
cure or complete the title to capital. Hence, it is capital expenditure.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal and contended that the expenditure
in this regard has been incurred in connection with the conveyance deed of
receivables which are part of the current assets, therefore the expenditure
cannot be treated as expenditure for the purpose of acquisition of capital
assets. Expenditure was very much incurred for the purpose of the business of
the assessee and the same should be allowed as such. In this regard, reliance
was placed on the case of CIT vs. Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Co.
(219 ITR 521)
and India Cement Ltd. vs. CIT (60 ITR 52).

 

HELD

The Tribunal, after going through the conveyance deed, held that the
deed involving duty of Rs. 59,17,000 was for the purpose of assignment of
receivables and that the CIT(A)’s conclusion that the expenditure is to cure
and complete the title to capital is without appreciating the facts of the
case.

 

The Tribunal held that this assignment is admittedly for facilitating
the business of the assessee by assigning receivables. The expenditure is in
connection with facilitating recovery of receivables which is a part of the
current assets. Hence, the expenditure in this regard cannot be said to be in
the capital field of acquiring the business. It is in fact for facilitating the
business of the assessee and in this view of the matter expenditure is
allowable as business expenditure. The ratio of the decisions in the
case of Bombay Dyeing Mfg. (Supra) and India Cements Ltd.
(Supra)
, relied upon on behalf of the assessee, are accordingly germane
and support the case of the assessee. The CIT(A) has been in error in holding
that the case laws are not applicable here.

 

The Tribunal decided this ground of appeal in favour of the assessee.

Section 115JB – When income which is exempt u/s 10 is credited to Profit & Loss Account, the Book Profit u/s 115JB is to be computed by reducing the amount of such income to which section 10 applies

8. [2020] 120 taxmann.com 31 (Del.)(Trib.) ITO vs. Buniyad Developers (P) Ltd. A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 21st September,
2020

 

Section 115JB – When income which is exempt
u/s 10 is credited to Profit & Loss Account, the  Book Profit u/s 115JB is to be computed by
reducing the amount of such income to which section 10 applies

 

FACTS

For the assessment
year 2009-10, the assessee company filed its return of income on 30th
September, 2009 declaring Nil income but paid tax on book profits u/s 115JB at
Rs. 5,73,70,009. The return was processed u/s 143(1). The A.O., in the course
of assessment proceedings for A.Y. 2010-11, having noticed that the lands were
sold in part and that there has been no income declared in respect of its profits
of Rs. 5,58,61,180 earned on sale of land, issued notice u/s 148 and, after
hearing the assessee, made an addition of Rs. 5,41,38,217 with interest income
of Rs. 21,90,212.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, taking note of the remand
assessment in A.Y. 2010-11, found that since the village where the land sold
was located was eight km. away from the municipal limits, the very basis of the
A.O. reopening the assessment proceedings for A.Y. 2009-10 has no locus
standi
as the A.O. has himself in the remand assessment for A.Y. 2010-11
admitted the said fact. He, therefore, allowed the contention of the assessee
on that ground. He also accepted the contention of the assessee that under the
provisions of section 115JB(2)(k)(ii), the profits derived from sale of
agricultural land, which is exempt u/s 10, has to be reduced from the book
profits and, therefore, the assessee is entitled to relief even in respect of
the amount that was offered to tax. He directed the A.O. to compute the tax in
accordance with law by reducing the amount of income to which provisions of
section 10 of the Act apply, if the said amount is credited to the profit and
loss account.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that it is an admitted fact that the land that
was sold was located in village Kishora, which is more than eight km. away from
the municipal limits and the profits earned on the sale of such land are exempt
u/s 10. It noted that in view of the provisions of section 115JB(2)(k)(ii),
the assessee committed a mistake when it computed the book profits including
the sale consideration of agricultural land, which was credited to the profit
and loss account and offered the same to tax.

 

The Tribunal held that

i)   in view of the decision of
the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Shelly Products (2003) 129
Taxman 271,
such a mistake has to be rectified by the Revenue
authorities when it is brought to their notice and they are satisfied with the
genuineness of the claim;

ii)   when the CIT(A) is satisfied
that the income which is exempt u/s 10 is included in the book profit u/s
115JB, which should not be done, the CIT(A) is justified in directing the A.O.
to follow the law and to compute the tax in accordance with the provisions of
section 115JB by reducing the amount of income to which section 10 applies, if
such amount is credited to the profit and loss account.

iii)  the action of the CIT(A) is
perfectly legal and does not suffer any infirmity.

 

The Tribunal declined to interfere with the findings of the CIT(A) and
found the appeal of the Revenue to be devoid of merit.

I. Section 194H r/w/s 201(1) – Discount on sale of set-top boxes and recharge coupons including festival discount and bonus points to customers cannot be considered as commission and therefore not liable for deduction of tax II. Section 36(1)(iii) – Assessee had filed necessary evidence to prove availability of owned funds to cover investment made in capital WIP. Thus, interest paid on borrowed funds was to be allowed u/s 36(1)(iii)

7. [2020] 119 taxmann.com 424 (Mum.)(Trib.) Tata Sky Ltd. vs. ACIT, Circle 7(3) A.Ys.: 2009-10 and 2010-11 Date of order: 10th September,
2020

 

I. Section 194H
r/w/s 201(1) – Discount on sale of set-top boxes and recharge coupons including
festival discount and bonus points to customers cannot be considered as
commission and therefore not liable for deduction of tax

II. Section 36(1)(iii) – Assessee had filed
necessary evidence to prove availability of owned funds to cover investment
made in capital WIP. Thus, interest paid on borrowed funds was to be allowed
u/s 36(1)(iii)

 

FACTS

I.   The assessee was engaged in the business of
providing Direct to Home (DTH) services. The set-top box (STB) installed at the
premises of the subscribers receives television signals through the
broadcasters which are uplinked to the satellite. The main source of income for
the assessee was from the sale of STB’s and sale of recharge coupons to
subscribers. The assessee claimed deduction of discounts offered on sale of
STB’s and recharge coupons. The A.O. contended that the very nature of discount
given by the assessee to distributors is in the nature of commission and
disallowed the expenditure as no tax deduction was made by the assessee. The
CIT(A) upheld the decision of the A.O.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal with the Tribunal.

 

II.   The assessee had certain capital WIP and the
A.O. had observed that no interest expenditure was allocated against it. The
assessee had incurred huge interest expenditure on various loans and the A.O.
disallowed proportionate interest expenditure u/s 36(1)(iii). The CIT(A)
confirmed the disallowance. The assessee preferred an appeal with the Tribunal..

 

HELD

I. The transactions
between the assessee and its distributors were on principal-to-principal basis
and all the risk, loss and damages are transferred to the distributor on
delivery. Further, the distributors were free to sell the STB’s at any price below
the maximum retail price. The assessee had filed the sample copy of invoices
for sale of STB’s and other recharge coupons to prove that it was a sale and
not services to be covered u/s 194H. Therefore, the assessee was not required
to deduct TDS on discount allowed on the sale of STB’s and hardware, recharge
coupon vouchers and disallowance of bonus or credit provided to subscribers,
including sales promotion expenses. The A.O. was directed to delete the
addition made on account of the disallowances.

 

II.   Based on the facts in the case, it was clear
that the assessee had not borrowed specific loan for acquiring capital assets.
The A.O. had disallowed proportionate interest paid on other loans including
loans borrowed for working capital purpose on the ground that the assessee had
used interest-bearing funds for acquisition of capital asset. The A.O. did not
bring on record any evidence to prove that borrowed funds were used for
acquisition of capital work in progress. The assessee filed evidence to the
effect that capital work in progress had been acquired out of the share capital
raised which was sufficient to cover investment in the capital work in
progress. Therefore, the A.O. erred in disallowing proportionate interest
expenses u/s 36(1)(iii).

 

Section 54F: Where the genuineness of the transactions is established, to avail exemption u/s 54F it is not mandatory that the agreement must be registered or possession must be obtained

6. [2020] 77 ITR (Trib.) 394 (Pune)(Trib.) Lalitkumar Kesarimal Jain vs. DCIT ITA No. 1345-1347/Pune/2017 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 24th September,
2019

 

Section 54F: Where the genuineness of the
transactions is established, to avail exemption u/s 54F it is not mandatory
that the agreement must be registered or possession must be obtained

 

FACTS

The assessee earned
long-term capital gains on sale of certain assets and in his return of income
claimed exemption u/s 54F to the tune of Rs. 18.96 crores for purchase of new
residential property. The A.O. rejected the said claim citing the following
reasons: (1) The agreements for purchase were unregistered; (2) The seller had
not given possession of the property; and (3) The assessee was an interested party
in the seller’s concern. The assessee substantiated that he had already paid
Rs. 22.10 crores to the seller before the due date of filing return of income
for the relevant assessment year and the same was not returned. In an
affidavit, the assessee explained the reason for not getting possession from
the seller. However, the CIT(A) upheld the order of the A.O., rejecting the
exemption u/s 54F.

 

The assessee
therefore filed an appeal before the ITAT.

 

HELD

(i)  Section 54F is incorporated to promote housing
projects and development activities and according to it once a person sells
some assets and earns capital gains, that money should be utilised for
procuring some new assets. The assessee should part with that money or a
substantial amount of it, for procuring a new residential house. What
essentially is looked into in this regard is the bona fide nature of the
assessee and the genuineness of the transaction/s.

 

(ii)  It was an undisputed fact that the assessee
had paid a sum of Rs. 22.10 crores to the seller and the Department had not
brought on record any evidence to prove that the said money came back to the
assessee.

 

(iii) The entire ambit of the Income-tax Act is based
within the larger framework of welfare legislation. The object of each
provision is ultimately the development of the society as well as the
individual and at the same time taking care of the interests of taxpayers.

 

(iv) Merely because the assessee had an interest in
the seller concern by itself cannot be reason to deny the benefit of deduction
when the genuineness of the transactions was established and there were several
other persons who were purchasing flats from the same seller and who had
already paid advance amounts.

 

(v) It was further found that the delay in
completion of the project was absolutely circumstantial and neither the
assessee nor the seller had any mala fide intention for delay of the
project.

 

(vi) Referring to the decision of the Supreme Court
in the case of Fibre Boards (P) Ltd. vs. CIT [2015] 376 ITR 596 (SC)
and several other decisions of Tribunals, it was held that it is not mandatory
that the agreement must be registered or possession must be obtained. If it is
substantiated that the transaction is genuine, then benefit of deduction u/s
54F should be given to the assessee.

 

Accordingly, the
assessee was granted the benefit of deduction u/s 54F.

 

Explanation 1 to section 37(1): Deduction made by the buyers from the price, on account of damage / variance in the product quality does not attract Explanation 1 to section 37 (1) and same is an allowable deduction even when the assessee classified it as ‘penalty on account of non-fulfilment of contractual requirements’

5. [2020] 77 ITR
(Trib.) 165 (Del.)(Trib.)
DCIT vs. Mahavir
Multitrade (P) Ltd. ITA No.:
1139/Del/2017
A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 27th
November, 2019

 

Explanation 1 to
section 37(1): Deduction made by the buyers from the price, on account of
damage / variance in the product quality does not attract Explanation 1 to
section 37 (1) and same is an allowable deduction even when the assessee
classified it as ‘penalty on account of non-fulfilment of contractual
requirements’

 

FACTS

The assessee was
engaged in trading of imported coal. It sold coal as per the specifications and
requirements of the buyer and in the event of failure to comply with the
requirements, the buyer used to make deduction while releasing the payment on
account of variation in quantity and quality; the amount of deduction for A.Y.
2012-13 was Rs. 3,66,68,504 which was claimed as a deduction while computing
the business income. During the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee
categorised such deduction as penalty levied for not complying with the terms
of the contract. But the A.O. made an addition on the ground that such penalty
cannot be regarded as a deductible expenditure as per the Explanation to
section 37(1). It was explained to the A.O. that the nature of the product was
such that there was high possibility of degradation or variance and the
deduction made by the buyers represented compensatory levy for not meeting the
specifications / agreed parameters of coal.

 

On an appeal before
the CIT(A), considering various judicial precedents it was held that
exigibility of an item to tax or tax deduction cannot be based merely on the
label (nomenclature) given to it by the assessee. It was held that deduction by
buyers represented the expenditure for the damages caused, which is
compensatory payment made by the assessee and it entitled him to claim the
deduction from the income. It could not be equated with infraction of law as
provided in the Explanation to section 37(1). Accordingly, the additions made
by the A.O. were directed to be deleted.

 

Thereafter, the
Department filed an appeal before the ITAT against the order of the CIT(A).

 

HELD

1.  It was accepted by the A.O. that the assessee
received less payment from the buyers because of the variance in the quality of
coal. The allegation of the A.O. only revealed that there was failure on the
part of the assessee to meet the contractual obligation but it was nowhere
specified as to which provision of law was violated so as to invite the penal
consequences.

 

2. The A.O. had failed to consider the explanation
given by the assessee wherein it was clearly stated that the contract with the
buyers stipulated the consequence of price reduction / adjustment when there
was variation in the quality or quantity of the coal.

 

3. The inability to meet the contractual
obligation by the assessee could not be termed as an offence or infraction of
law so as to deny the claim of the assessee by invoking Explanation 1 to
section 37(1) and exigibility of an item to tax or tax deduction cannot be made
merely on the label given to it by the parties. The penalty was levied on the
assessee for not complying with the terms of the contract, which is a civil
consequence for not complying with certain terms of the contract, and has
nothing to do with any offence.

 

4. The CIT(A) had rightly relied upon the
decisions in Prakash Cotton Mills (P) Ltd. vs. CIT [1993] 201 ITR 684
(SC), Swadeshi Cotton Mills Co. Ltd. vs. CIT [1980] 125 ITR 33 (All.),
Continental Constructions Ltd. vs. CIT [1992] 195 ITR 81 (SC)
and also
the decisions of the Kerala and the Andhra Pradesh High Courts in CIT vs.
Catholic Syrian Bank Ltd. [2004] 265 ITR 177 (Ker.)
and CIT vs.
Bharat Television (P) Ltd. [1996] 218 ITR 173 (AP).

 

Accordingly, the
order of the CIT(A) was upheld.

Section 244A – Interest is payable on refund arising out of payment of self-assessment tax even though refund is less than ten per cent of tax determined

4. [2020] 119 taxmann.com 40 (Del.)(Trib.) Maruti Suzuki India Ltd. vs. CIT ITA Nos. 2553, 2641 (Delhi) of 2013 &
others
A.Ys.: 1999-00 to 1994-95 Date of order: 31st August, 2020

 

Section 244A – Interest is payable on
refund arising out of payment of self-assessment tax even though refund is less
than ten per cent of tax determined

 

FACTS


The assessee
claimed refund of Rs. 201,37,93,163 comprising of advance tax, TDS and
self-assessment tax of Rs. 14,59,79,228 and Rs. 186,78,13,935, the tax paid on
different dates. The A.O. did not allow interest u/s 244A(1)(a) on the amount
of Rs. 14.59 crores as the refund was less than 10% of the tax determined u/s
254 r/w/s 143(3).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order on the
ground that to give effect to the provisions of section 244A(3), the assessee
had to mandatorily cross the limitations imposed u/s 244A(1)(a).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal observed that the CIT(A) treated the entire amount of Rs.
14.60 crores as prepaid taxes for the purpose of section 244A(1)(a). This, according to the Tribunal, was where the
CIT(A) considered / read the provisions wrong. The Tribunal held that the
prepaid taxes consist of TDS and advance tax. The provisions of self-assessment
tax are governed by section 140A which is not covered by the provisions of
section 244A(1)(a). Self-assessment tax which is payable on the basis of return
does not constitute part of advance tax. For the purpose of embargo of 10% of
tax determined in accordance with the provisions of section 244A(1)(a), it is
clear from the provisions of the section that self-assessment tax does not form
part of the embargo as self-assessment tax falls under clause (b) of section
244A(1). The proviso to clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 244A is
applicable and has to be considered for the computational purpose of interest
computable for the refund payable u/s 244A(1)(a).

 

As regards the
question whether or not interest is payable on self-assessment tax paid, the
Tribunal observed that it is trite law that whenever the assessee is entitled
to refund, there is a statutory liability on the Revenue to pay the interest on
such refund on general principles to pay interest on sums wrongfully retained.

 

Section 244A does
not deny payment of interest in case of refund of amount paid u/s 140A. On the
contrary, clause (b) being a residuary clause, necessarily includes payment
made u/s 140A. Since there is no proviso attached to sub-clause (b), the
embargo of 10% is not applicable for calculation of interest for the refund
arising out of payment of self-assessment tax.

 

The Tribunal held
that with regard to the self-assessment tax paid, the assessee is eligible for
interest on the total amount of refund in accordance with the provisions of
section 244A(1)(b). This ground of appeal was allowed.

 

Sections 250 and 271AAA – Ex parte dismissal of appeal by CIT(A), without considering the material on record on the ground that the written submissions were not signed by the assessee, is contrary to the provisions of sub-section (6) of section 250

3. 118 taxmann.com 223 (Raj.)(Trib.) Keshavlal Devkaranbhai Patel vs. ACIT ITA No. 124 /Rajkot/2017 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 28th July, 2020

 

Sections 250 and 271AAA – Ex parte
dismissal of appeal by CIT(A), without considering the material on record on
the ground that the written submissions were not signed by the assessee, is
contrary to the provisions of sub-section (6) of section 250

 

FACTS


Aggrieved by the
order levying penalty u/s 271AAA, the assessee preferred an appeal to the
CIT(A). The assessee had filed his explanation before the A.O. and also before
the CIT(A). However, the submissions filed before the CIT(A) were not signed by
the assessee.

 

In view of this,
the CIT(A) dismissed the appeal by recording that the assessee was not
interested in pursuing the appeal.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal found
the order of the CIT(A) to be very cryptic and not having any discussion on the
material already available on record before him. The Tribunal observed that:

(i)   there is no valid and justifiable reason
given by the appellate authority in his order while dismissing the claim of the
assessee;

(ii)  the CIT(A) has recorded in his order that the
assessee has filed written submissions in the office on 29th August,
2017 but without signature, hence the same were not considered by the CIT(A);
and

(iii) the CIT(A) dismissed the appeal for want of
prosecution even when the written submission was on record which did not bear
the signature of the assessee.

 

The Tribunal held
that the CIT(A) ought to have adjourned the matter and passed a further
direction to file fresh written submissions, duly signed. It is a basic
principle that justice should not only be done, but it must also be seen to be
done. In the absence of that, the Tribunal held, the order impugned is not in
consonance with the spirit and object of sub-section (6) of section 250.

 

The Tribunal set
aside the issue to the file of the CIT(A) with a direction to adjudicate it
afresh after giving the assessee an opportunity of being heard and to pass a
speaking order thereon keeping in mind, inter alia, the mandate of the
provisions of section 250(6) in order to render true and effective justice.

Section 50C – Provisions of section 50C are not applicable to introduction of development rights as capital contribution in an AOP of which assessee is a member

2. 119 taxmann.com 186 (Mum.)(Trib.) Network Construction Company vs. ACIT ITA No. 2279/Mum./2017 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 11th August, 2020

 

Section 50C – Provisions of section 50C are
not applicable to introduction of development rights as capital contribution in
an AOP of which assessee is a member

 

FACTS


The assessee firm
acquired development rights in respect of seven buildings of which the assessee
firm developed and sold four on its own and disclosed the profit earned as
business profit in its return of income. The development rights in respect of
the remaining three buildings were shown as investments in the balance sheet as
at 31st March, 2010.

 

As per the joint
venture agreement dated 1st July, 2010, the assessee contributed
development rights in respect of three buildings as ‘capital contribution’ in
an AOP for an agreed consideration of Rs. 5 crores. The assessee contended that
the capital gains were to be computed in accordance with the provisions of
section 45(3).

 

The A.O. treated
the introduction of the development rights as a transfer and computed capital
gains by applying the provisions of section 50C by adopting Rs. 10,10,47,000,
being stamp duty value of these rights, as the full value of consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

The assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal
observed that section 45(3) is a charging provision having two limbs joined by
the conjunction ‘AND’. The first limb is a charging provision which levies
capital gains tax on gains arising from the contribution of a capital asset in the
AOP by a member, and the second limb is an essential deeming fiction for
determining the value of consideration without which the charging provision
would fail. The Tribunal also observed that the provisions of section 50C are
also a deeming fiction which deems only the value of consideration for the
purpose of calculating capital gains in the transfer of a capital asset from
one person to another. It held that the provisions of section 50C are not
applicable in the present case and that the provisions of section 45(3) will be
applied.

 

The Tribunal
reversed the orders of the A.O. and the CIT(A) and allowed this ground of
appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Section 44AD r/w sections 44AB and 144 – Assessing Officer can resort to estimation of income under the provisions of section 44AD only after rejecting the books of accounts of the assessee, by best judgment assessment u/s 144

1. [118 taxmann.com
347]
Saykul Islam vs.
ITO ITA No.
64/Ahd./2018
A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 31st
July, 2020

 

Section 44AD r/w sections
44AB and 144 – Assessing Officer can resort to estimation of income under the
provisions of section 44AD only after rejecting the books of accounts of the
assessee, by best judgment assessment u/s 144

 

FACTS


The assessee is an
individual trading in hardware goods. His business turnover was in excess of
Rs. 1 crore, but he had declared profit at 0.99% of the turnover in his tax
return. The information was provided by the assessee in his return of income
reflecting maintenance of books of accounts, but not audited as required under
the provisions of section 44AB. The A.O. was of the view that as per the
provisions of section 44AD, an assessee may claim lower profits and gains than
the profits and gains specified in sub-section (1) of section 44AD provided
that the assessee keeps and maintains such books of accounts and other
documents as required under sub-section (2) of section 44AA and gets his
accounts audited and furnishes a report of such audit as required u/s 44AB. The
assessee submitted that the net profit percentage was very low in his business
and requested the officer to take the net profit percentage @3% of the
turnover.

 

The A.O. rejected
this contention and estimated the net profit at 8% of the turnover. On appeal
to the CIT(A), he reduced the estimated profit on turnover from 8% to 5%.
Aggrieved by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee filed an appeal with the
Tribunal.

 

HELD


The assessee had
produced all books of accounts, bills, vouchers and other documents; however, without
pointing out any mistake or error in the books of accounts, the A.O. made an
addition at 8%. Moreover, the books of accounts were not rejected. The Tribunal
observed that the A.O. could resort to estimation of net profits only after
rejecting the books of accounts u/s 145(3) and thereafter making best judgment
assessment u/s 144. Instead, he estimated net profits only on the basis of
suspicion that the assessee might be inflating expenses and showing a lower net
profit ratio. On the factual position of the case, the Tribunal directed the
A.O. to estimate the income at 2.5% of the turnover.

 

The appeal of the
assessee was partly allowed.

Sections 2(47), 28(i), 45 – Gains arising on transfer of development rights held as a business asset are chargeable to tax as ‘business income’ – Only that part of the consideration which accrued, as per terms of the agreement, would be taxable in the year of receipt

22. [117 taxmann.com 637 (Del.)(Trib.)] ITO vs. Abdul Kayum Ahmed Mohd. Tamboli ITA No. 1408/Del/2011 A.Y.: 2006-07 Date of order: 6th July, 2020

 

Sections 2(47), 28(i), 45 – Gains arising
on transfer of development rights held as a business asset are chargeable to
tax as ‘business income’ – Only that part of the consideration which accrued,
as per terms of the agreement, would be taxable in the year of receipt

 

FACTS

The assessment of the assessee was re-opened because the consideration
received for transfer of development rights was not offered for taxation. Since
the assessee had handed over possession of the land and also transferred the
development rights, the A.O. in the course of reassessment proceedings taxed
the amount received by the assessee on transfer of development rights as
business income. The assessee submitted that under the contract with the
developer, he was to perform work on the basis of receipt of funds from the
developer. Accordingly, the assessee had offered only a part of the receipts as
income to the extent that receipts had accrued. The balance, according to him,
were conditional receipts. The developer, in response to a notice sent u/s
133(6), confirmed the position as stated by the assessee.

 

But the A.O. opined that the said accounting treatment was not in
consonance with the mercantile system of accounting followed by the assessee. Besides, since the transfer had been
completed, the consideration would be taxable in the year of receipt as
business income.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) and contended
that the balance amount be considered as capital receipts. The CIT(A)
adjudicated in the assessee’s favour and held that only the part of the amount
accrued as per the agreement would be taxable in the year of receipt. He
estimated an amount of 10% of the gross receipts to be taxable in the year of
receipt. The provisions pertaining to capital gains were also held to be
inapplicable as the development rights were business assets.

 

Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

It was evident from
the terms of the joint venture agreement that only part income accrued to the assessee on execution of the project agreement. The balance consideration was a
conditional receipt and was to accrue only in the event of the assessee
performing certain obligations under the agreement. Since the development
rights constituted the business assets of the assessee, the provisions of
capital gains would not be applicable. The order of the CIT(A) taxing 10% of
the gross receipts was justified. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the
CIT(A) and held that only part of the receipts as estimated accrued to the
assessee were taxable.

 

Sections 28, 36(1)(iii) – In a case where since the date of incorporation the assessee has carried on substantial business activities such as raising loans, purchase of land, which was reflected as stock-in-trade in the books of accounts, and entering into development agreement, the assessee can be said to have not only set up but also commenced the business. Consequently, interest on loan taken from bank for purchase of land which was held as stock-in-trade is allowable as a deduction

21. [117 taxmann.com 419 (Del.)(Trib.)] Jindal Realty (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No. 1408/Del/2011 A.Y.: 2006-07 Date of order: 22nd June, 2020

 

Sections 28, 36(1)(iii) – In a case where
since the date of incorporation the assessee has carried on substantial
business activities such as raising loans, purchase of land, which was
reflected as stock-in-trade in the books of accounts, and entering into
development agreement, the assessee can be said to have not only set up but
also commenced the business. Consequently, interest on loan taken from bank for
purchase of land which was held as stock-in-trade is allowable as a deduction

 

FACTS

During the previous
year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, engaged
in real estate business, borrowed monies from banks and utilised the same to
purchase land for township projects and also for giving as advance to other
associate parties for purchase of land by them. The interest on such monies
borrowed was claimed by the assessee as deduction u/s 36(1)(iii), and the
return of income was filed for the previous year declaring a loss.

 

The A.O. disallowed
the claim of deduction of interest on the ground that the assessee had not
commenced any business activity and held the same to be pre-operative in
nature.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O.

 

Still aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held
that since the date of incorporation, the assessee carried on substantial
business activities such as raising loans, purchase of land which was reflected
as stock-in-trade in the books of accounts and entering into development
agreements. The Tribunal relied on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the
case of CIT vs. Arcane Developers (P) Ltd. 368 ITR 627 (Del.)
wherein it is held that in case of real estate business, the setting up of
business was complete when the first steps were taken by the
respondent-assessee to look around and negotiate with parties.

 

Thus, the assessee
had not only set up the business but also commenced the business in the
previous year and therefore was eligible to claim deduction of interest
expenditure u/s 36(1)(iii).

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 50B read with sections 2(19), 2(42C) and 50 – Windmills of an assessee, engaged in the business of aqua culture, export of frozen shrimp, sale of hatchery seed and wind-power generation, along with all the assets and liabilities, constitute an ‘undertaking’ for the purpose of slump sale

20. [117
taxmann.com 440 (Vish.)(Trib.)]
ACIT vs. Devi Sea
Foods Ltd. ITA No.
497/Vish./2019
A.Y.: 2013-2014 Date of order: 19th
June, 2020

 

Section 50B read
with sections 2(19), 2(42C) and 50 – Windmills of an assessee, engaged in the
business of aqua culture, export of frozen shrimp, sale of hatchery seed and
wind-power generation, along with all the assets and liabilities, constitute an
‘undertaking’ for the purpose of slump sale

 

FACTS

The assessee sold
three windmills, declared the gains arising on such sale as a slump sale and
computed the long-term capital gains as per section 50B. The assessee had not
furnished separate financial statements for the windmill business activity;
however, it was claiming deduction u/s 80-IA on the income from the windmill as
a separate business which was allowed by the A.O. from A.Y. 2009-10 onwards.
But at the time of the sale, the A.O. denied the applicability of the
provisions related to slump sale by stating that the windmills did not
constitute an ‘undertaking’ and charged the income as short-term capital gains.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that each windmill is a
unit of the undertaking and is covered by the definition of slump sale. He also
noted that though the assessee had shown windmills as part of the block of
assets, depreciation claim could not be a factor to deny benefit of slump sale.
He directed the A.O. to compute long-term capital gains u/s 50B.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the windmills were part of the assessee’s
business, for which the assessee was claiming deduction since A.Y. 2009-10. The
A.O. had not made any adverse remarks in respect of deduction claimed u/s
80-IA. Though separate books of accounts had not been maintained, the assessee
had demonstrated separate ledger account belonging to the windmill operation,
and income from such activity was independently ascertainable. Further, there
is no requirement in the Act that all assets sold under slump sale should be
together. The Tribunal held that the real test for considering any sale of an asset
as non-slump sale would be any independent asset or liability not forming part
of the business operations. It held that the windmills satisfied all conditions
for being considered as an ‘undertaking’ and the provisions of slump sale would
be applicable.

 

Section 2(22)(e) – No addition can be made u/s 2(22)(e) since as per annual return filed by the assessee, he had transferred his shareholding in borrower company before the advancement of loan by the lender company to the borrowing company

19. [(2020) 117 taxmann.com 451
(Chd.)(Trib.)
ACIT vs. Gurdeep Singh ITA No. 170 (Chd.) of 2018 A.Y.: 2013-2014 Date of order: 26th June, 2020

 

Section 2(22)(e) – No addition can be made
u/s 2(22)(e) since as per annual return filed by the assessee, he had
transferred his shareholding in borrower company before the advancement of loan
by the lender company to the borrowing company

 

FACTS

The assessee was a shareholder in two companies, namely, C Ltd. and J
Ltd. During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under
consideration, C Ltd. gave loans and advances to J Ltd. out of its surplus
funds. The A.O. took a view that since the assessee was holding shares in both
companies in excess of ten percent of total shareholding, the amount of loan is
to be taxed as dividend u/s 2(22)(e) of the Act.

 

The annual return
filed with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) revealed that the assessee held
only one share of C Ltd., whereas the other shares were transferred to J Ltd.
The annual return was belatedly filed with the ROC, along with payment of late
fee, which was accepted by the ROC. Based on the belatedly filed annual return,
the assessee contended that the shares were transferred prior to the
advancement of loan and, therefore, the provisions of section 2(22)(e) were not
applicable. The A.O. did not agree with the submissions made by the assessee
and held the plea of share transfer to be an afterthought since the return with
the Registrar was filed late.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the
appeal since the transfer of shares was accepted by the A.O. while framing assessments
of subsequent years, and also held that the transfer of shares had to be
considered. He also held that the transaction was commercially expedient with
no personal benefit involved.

 

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Revenue could
not establish beyond doubt that the assessee was having substantial interest in
C Ltd. on the date of advancement of loan by C Ltd. to J Ltd. Even though the
annual return was filed belatedly, once accepted by the ROC, it was a legal and
valid document as per law and the effective date for transfer of shares should
be considered as that mentioned in the return filed. To apply a deeming
fiction, the first set of facts is to be proved beyond doubt and the deeming
fiction cannot be applied on the basis of assumption, presumption or suspicion
about the first set of facts. The Tribunal observed that it was the A.O.’s
suspicion that the assessee was holding substantial shares in C Ltd. on the
date of advancement of loan. The Revenue could not rebut the facts beyond
reasonable doubt. The Tribunal upheld the order passed by the CIT(A) and
confirmed the deletion of the addition made u/s 2(22)(e).

 

The appeal filed by
the Revenue was dismissed.

 

 

Section 115BBE, read with sections 69, 143 and 154 – Amount surrendered, in the course of survey, as undisclosed investment in stock and assessed as business income cannot be subsequently brought to tax u/s 115BBE by passing an order u/s 154

18. [(2020) 117 taxmann.com 178
(Jai.)(Trib.)
ACIT vs. Sudesh Kumar Gupta ITA No. 976 (Jp) of 2019 A.Y.: 2014-2015 Date of order: 9th June, 2020

 

Section 115BBE, read with sections 69, 143
and 154 – Amount surrendered, in the course of survey, as undisclosed
investment in stock and assessed as business income cannot be subsequently
brought to tax u/s 115BBE by passing an order u/s 154

 

FACTS

During the course of survey, the assessee surrendered an amount of Rs. 21
lakhs as undisclosed investment in stock. This amount was offered to tax in the
return of income as business income. In the assessment completed u/s 143(3) of
the Act, the returned income was accepted.

 

Subsequently, the A.O. issued a notice u/s 154 proposing to tax the
undisclosed investment of Rs. 21,00,000 in stock u/s 69 and tax thereon levied
u/s 115BBE at 30%. The assessee submitted that the amount admitted as
undisclosed excess stock was on an estimated basis and it had been accepted by
the A.O. in an assessment made u/s 143(3). The A.O. rejected the submission
made by the assessee and passed an order u/s 154 and levied tax on the amount
of undisclosed investment at 30% in accordance with section 115BBE.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the
appeal holding that the A.O. was not justified in invoking the provisions of
section 69 once he had charged it to tax under the head business income while
passing the assessment order u/s 143(3).

 

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted
that the amount of undisclosed investment in stock surrendered by the assessee
was offered as ‘business income’ in the return of income and was accepted by
the A.O. In the course of assessment, there was no adjustment / variation
either in the quantum, nature or classification of income offered by the
assessee. The A.O. had not called for any explanation regarding the nature and
source of such investment during the course of assessment proceedings. Further,
he had neither formed any opinion, nor recorded any satisfaction for invoking
the provisions of section 69. The Tribunal held that since the provisions of
section 69 had not been invoked at the first instance while passing the
assessment order u/s 143(3), they cannot be independently applied by invoking
the provisions of section 154.

 

The Tribunal
dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

Sections 2(47), 45: When the terms of the sale deed and the intention of the parties at the time of entering into the sale deed have not been adhered to whereby full sale consideration has not been discharged, there is no transfer of land, even though the sale deed has been registered, and no income accrues and consequently no liability towards capital gains arises in the hands of the assessee

17. [2020] 117 taxmann.com 424 (Jai.)(Trib.) CIT vs. Ijyaraj Singh ITA Nos. 91 and 152/Jp/2019 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 18th June, 2020

 

Sections 2(47), 45: When the terms of the
sale deed and the intention of the parties at the time of entering into the
sale deed have not been adhered to whereby full sale consideration has not been
discharged, there is no transfer of land, even though the sale deed has been
registered, and no income accrues and consequently no liability towards capital
gains arises in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee in his
return of income filed u/s 139(1) declared long-term capital gains of Rs.
2,51,85,149 in respect of sale of agricultural land situate in Kota. In the
course of assessment proceedings, the assessee revised his return of income
wherein the income under the head long-term capital gains was revised to Rs.
1,10,18,918 as against Rs. 2,51,85,149 shown in the original return. The reason
for revising the return was that out of three sale deeds, two sale deeds of
land executed with Mr. Rajeev Singh were invalid sale deeds and consequently no
transfer took place and hence no capital gain arises in respect of the two
invalid sale deeds. In respect of these two sale deeds, the assessee had
received only Rs. 63 lakhs towards consideration out of Rs. 803 lakhs. The
cheques received from the buyer were dishonoured and even possession was not
handed over to the buyer. The Rajasthan High Court has also granted stay on the
sale deeds executed by the assessee.

 

But the A.O. was of
the view that the contract entered into by the assessee was a legal and valid
contract entered into in accordance with the procedure laid down by law. The
assessee voluntarily agreed to register the sale deed before the Registrar and
on the date of execution and also on the date of registration there was no
dispute between the parties. The A.O. computed long-term capital gains by
considering the full value of consideration, including the two sale deeds which
were contended to be invalid, and computed the full value of consideration u/s
50C of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the transaction in
respect of the two invalid sale deeds is not chargeable to capital gains tax.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted
that the question for its consideration is that where the full value of
consideration has not been discharged by the purchaser of the impugned land as
per the sale deed, and there is violation of the terms of the sale deed,
whether the impugned transaction would still qualify as transfer and be liable
for capital gains tax, given that the same is evidenced by a registered sale
deed. Having considered the provisions of sections 2(24), 2(47), 45 and 48 of
the Act, and also the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the
case of Hira Lal Ram Dayal vs. CIT [122 ITR 461 (Punj. & Har. HC)]
where the question before the Court was ‘whether it is open to the assessee to
prove that the sale transaction evidenced by the registered sale deed was a
sham transaction and no sale in fact took place’, and also the decision of the
Patna High Court in the case of Smt. Raj Rani Devi Ramna vs. CIT [(1992)
201 ITR 1032 (Patna)]
, the Tribunal held that the legal proposition
which emerges is that a registered sale deed does carry an evidentiary value.

 

At the same time,
where the assessee is able to prove by cogent evidence brought on record that
no sale has in fact taken place, then in such a scenario the taxing and
appellate authorities should consider these evidences brought on record by the
assessee and on the basis of an examination thereof, decide as to whether a
sale has taken place in a given case or not. The title in the property does not
necessarily pass as soon as the instrument of transfer is registered and the
answer to the question regarding passing of title lies in the intention of the
parties executing such an instrument. The registration is no proof of an
operative transfer and where the parties had intended that despite execution
and registration of sale deed, transfer by way of sale will become effective
only on payment and receipt of full sale consideration and not at the time of
execution and registration of sale deed.

 

The Tribunal noted
that no payment was received before execution of the sale deed but only
post-dated cheques were received by the assessee. It held that mere handing
over of the post-dated cheques which have been subsequently dishonoured and
returned unpaid to the assessee, cannot be held to be discharge of full sale
consideration as intended and agreed upon between the parties and there is
clearly a violation of the terms of the sale deed by the buyer.

 

Although the sale
deed has been registered, given that the terms of the sale deed and the
intention of the parties at the time of entering into the said sale deed have
not been adhered to whereby full sale consideration has not been discharged,
there is no transfer of the impugned land and no income accrues and
consequently, no liability towards capital gains arises in the hands of the
assessee. The Tribunal also held that it is only the real income which can be
brought to tax and there cannot be any levy of tax on hypothetical income which
has neither accrued / nor arisen or been received by the assessee. Since the
transaction fell through in view of non-fulfilment of the terms of the sale
deed whereby cheques issued by the buyer have been dishonoured, there is no
transfer and no income which has accrued or arisen to the assessee. There is no
real income in the hands of the assessee and in the absence thereof, the
assessee is not liable to capital gains. It observed that a similar view has
been taken by the Pune Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Appasaheb
Baburao Lonkar vs. ITO [(2019) 176 ITD 115 (Pune-Trib.)]
.

 

This ground of
appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.

Section 194C r/w/s 40(a)(ia) – Even an oral contract is good enough to invoke section 194C – Payment of hire charges made by assessee to cab owners for hiring cabs for the purpose of providing transportation services to its customers would attract section 194C – Since payment is made by the assessee, the presumption would be that there was a contract for hiring of vehicles

12.
[2020] 116 taxmann.com 230 (Bang.)
Singonahalli
Chikkarevanna Gangadharaiah vs. ACIT ITA No.
785/Bang/2018
A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of
order: 24th February, 2018

 

Section 194C r/w/s 40(a)(ia) – Even an oral
contract is good enough to invoke section 194C – Payment of hire charges made
by assessee to cab owners for hiring cabs for the purpose of providing
transportation services to its customers would attract section 194C – Since
payment is made by the assessee, the presumption would be that there was a
contract for hiring of vehicles

 

FACTS

The A.O. noticed
from the Profit & Loss account of the assessee that the assessee has debited
a sum of Rs. 6,18,73,785 for vehicle hire charges paid and Rs. 2,48,39,356 for
petrol and diesel expenses paid. The assessee was asked to produce details of
TDS on expenses. However, the assessee failed to do so.

 

Subsequently, the
assessee submitted the PAN cards from cab drivers and owners to whom hire
charges were paid and said that the cab drivers and owners were all regular
income tax payers and hence, as per section 194C, no TDS was made where PAN was
provided.

 

According to the
A.O., section 194C will only apply to a contractor engaged in the  business of plying, hiring or leasing goods
carriages
– and not to a contractor engaged in the business of plying passenger
vehicles
. Accordingly, the A.O. held that the assessee is liable to deduct
TDS and disallowed a sum of Rs. 6,18,73,785 for vehicle hire charges u/s
40(a)(ia) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O.

 

HELD

Upon going through
the provisions of section 194C, the Tribunal held that there is no doubt that
the assessee in this case has made the payments of hire charges to cab owners.
As regards the contention of the assessee that the payments have not been made
in pursuance of any contract, the Tribunal held that a contract need not be in
writing; even an oral contract is good enough to invoke the provisions of
section 194C. The cab owners have received the payments from the assessee
towards the hiring charges, therefore, the presumption normally would be that
there was a contract for hiring of vehicles. Hence, if the assessee has made
the payment for hiring the vehicles, the provisions of section 194C are clearly
applicable.

 

The contract has to
be looked into party-wise, not on the basis of the individual. The Tribunal
held that all the payments made to a cab owner throughout the year are to be
aggregated to ascertain the applicability of the TDS provision as all the
payments pertain to a contract. A contract need not be in writing. It may infer
from the conduct of the parties. It may even be oral. The Tribunal also noted
that u/s 194C, sub-section (5) proviso thereto, if the aggregate amount
paid or credited to a person  exceeds Rs.
75,000, then the assessee shall be liable to deduct income tax at source.

 

The Tribunal then
discussed the amendment brought in by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014 with effect
from 1st April, 2015 by virtue of which only 30% of any sum payable
to a resident is to be disallowed. It noted that in the present case the
authorities below have added the entire sum of Rs. 6,18,73,785 by disallowing
the whole amount. Though the substitution in section 40 has been made effective
from 1st April, 2015, in its view the benefit of the amendment
should be given to the assessee either by directing the A.O. to confirm from
the cab owners as to whether the said parties have deposited the tax or not,
and further restrict the addition to 30% of the disallowance. The Tribunal held
that it will be tied (sic) and meet the ends of justice if the
disallowance is only restricted to 30% of the amount liable for TDS u/s 194C.
Accordingly, this issue is partly allowed.

 

Following the decision of the Calcutta High Court in IT Appeal No.
302 of 2011, GA 3200/2011, CIT vs. Virgin Creations decided on 23rd
November, 2011
, the Tribunal restored the issue to the file of the A.O.
with the direction that the assessee shall provide all the details to the A.O.
with regard to the recipients of the income and the taxes paid by them. The
A.O. shall carry out necessary verification in respect of the payments made to
the cab drivers and taxes paid on the same by the cab drivers and filing of
returns by the recipients. In case the A.O. finds that the recipient has duly
paid the taxes on the income, the addition made by the A.O. shall stand
deleted.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was partly allowed.

Section 54F – Even after amendment w.e.f. A.Y. 2015-16, investment of long-term capital gain in two bungalows located adjacent to each other and used as one residential unit qualifies for exemption u/s 54F – Benefit of exemption could not have been denied on reasoning that there were two different registries of buildings / properties as both properties purchased by assessee were a single property located in same geographical area

7. [2020] 114 taxmann.com 508 (Ahd.)(Trib.)

Mohammadanif Sultanali Pradhan vs. DCIT

ITA No. 1797/Ahd/2018

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of order: 6th January, 2020

 

Section 54F – Even after amendment w.e.f. A.Y. 2015-16,
investment of long-term capital gain in two bungalows located adjacent to each
other and used as one residential unit qualifies for exemption u/s 54F –
Benefit of exemption could not have been denied on reasoning that there were
two different registries of buildings / properties as both properties purchased
by assessee were a single property located in same geographical area

 

FACTS

During the previous year relevant to the A.Y. 2015-16, the
assessee in his return of income declared income under the head capital gain at
Rs. 23,84,101 after claiming exemption u/s 54F for Rs. 1,08,00,000. In support
of the exemption claimed, the assessee contended that he has made investment in
two bungalows which are adjacent to each other, bearing Nos. 18 and 19 located
at survey No. 606/2, TPS No. 92, Sarkhej – Makarba – Okaf – Fatewadi of Mouje
Sarkhej, taluka Vejalpur, district Ahmedabad.

 

The A.O. was of the view that the assessee can claim
exemption u/s 54F with respect to the investment in one bungalow only.
Accordingly, he computed the exemption with respect to one bungalow only
amounting to Rs. 43,77,118 and thus disallowed the excess claim u/s 54F of Rs.
64,22,882.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) and
submitted that both the bungalows are in the same society, adjacent to each
other. As such both the bungalows are one unit for residential purposes.
Therefore, he claimed that he is entitled to deduction / exemption for both the
bungalows u/s 54F.

 

The CIT(A) rejected the claim of the assessee on the ground
that there is an amendment under the provisions of section 54F of the Act where
the expression previously used, ‘a residential house’, has been substituted
with ‘one residential house’. Such amendment is effective with effect from A.Y.
2015-16, i.e., the year under consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(i) the
issue relates to whether the assessee is eligible for exemption u/s 54F of the
Act against the long-term capital gain for the investment made in the two
properties which are adjacent to each other and used as one residential unit.
It noted that indeed, the provision of the law requires that the exemption will
be available to the assessee u/s 54F for the investment in one residential
unit;

 

(ii) under
the provisions of section 54F, there is no definition / clarification provided
about the area of the residential property. It means that one assessee can buy
a huge bungalow / property of, say, one thousand square metres and can claim
the deduction subject to conditions. Similarly, another assessee acquired two
different residential properties adjacent to each other but both the properties
put together were only two hundred square metres – but he will be extended the
benefit of the exemption with respect to one unit only because there are two
different properties based on registry documents;

 

(iii) there can be a situation that the family of the assessee is quite
large, comprising of several members, and therefore he needs two properties
adjacent to each other to accommodate them. So from the point of view of the
assessee it is a single property but he got two different properties registered
as per the requirement of the builder;

 

(iv) the
assessee cannot be deprived of the benefit conferred under the statute merely
on the reasoning that there were two different registries of the buildings /
properties;

 

(v) it
is also not a case of the Revenue / assessee that both the properties purchased
by the assessee were located in different geographical areas. In such a
situation the law amended u/s 54F appears to be applicable where the assessee
buys two properties in two different areas;

 

(vi) the
principles laid down by the courts cannot be just brushed aside on the aspect
of defining one residential unit. It noted the observations of the Hon’ble High
Court of Karnataka in the case of CIT vs. D. Ananda Basappa [(2009) 309
ITR 329]
.

 

The Tribunal held that the assessee
is entitled to claim exemption u/s 54F in respect of investment made in two
adjacent bungalows used as one residential unit. The Tribunal deleted the
addition made by the A.O. and confirmed by the CIT(A).

 

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Section 80P(4): Provisions of section 80P(4) exclude only co-operative banks and the same cannot be extended to co-operative credit societies

20. [2019] 107 taxmann.com 53
(Trib.)(Ahd.)(SB)
ACIT vs. People’s Co-op. Credit Society Ltd. ITA Nos. 1311, 2668 to 2670, 2865, 2866,
2871 & 2905 (Ahd.) of 2012
A.Ys.: 2007-08 to 2009-10 Date of order: 18th April, 2019

 

Section 80P(4):
Provisions of section 80P(4) exclude only co-operative banks and the same
cannot be extended to co-operative credit societies

FACTS

The assessee, a
co-operative credit society, providing credit facilities to its members and
carrying on banking business, claimed deduction u/s 80P(2)(a)(i). The AO
disallowed the same holding that provisions of section 80P(4) are applicable to
the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal.

 

The Revenue then
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

In view of the
contrary decisions by various benches of the Tribunal, a Special Bench (SB) was
constituted by the President to consider the question whether a co-operative
credit society is to be considered as a co-operative bank and whether by virtue
of the provisions of section 80P(4), a co-operative credit society shall be
disentitled to claim deduction u/s 80P(2)(a)(i).

 

At the time of
hearing before the Tribunal, the learned representatives agreed that the issues
before the SB of the Tribunal are now covered in favour of the assessee by
various decisions of the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court – including in the
cases of Pr. CIT vs. Ekta Co-operative Credit Society Ltd. [2018] 91
taxmann.com 42/254, Taxman 33/402 ITR 85 
and CIT vs. Jafari Momin Vikas Co-operative Credit Society
Ltd. [2014] 49 taxmann.com 571/227, Taxman 59 (Mag.) 362 ITR 331 (Guj.).

 

The Tribunal, having considered the ratio of the decisions of the
Jurisdictional High Court in the cases of Pr. CIT vs. Ekta Co-operative
Credit Society Ltd. (Supra)
and CIT vs. Jafari Momin Vikas
Co-operative Credit Society Ltd. (Supra)
, held that the legal position
is quite clear and unambiguous. As held by the Jurisdictional High Court, the
benefit of section 80P(2)(a)(i) cannot be denied in the case of co-operative
credit societies in view of their function of providing credit facilities to
the members and the same are not hit by the provisions of section 80P(4).

 

The appeals filed
by the Revenue were dismissed.

Rule 37BA(3) r/w/s 199: Credit for Tax Deducted at Source has to be allowed in the year in which the corresponding income is assessed even though the tax is deposited by the deductor in the subsequent assessment year

19. [2019] 112 taxmann.com 354 (Trib.)(Pune) Mahesh Software Systems (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No. 1288/Pune/2017 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 20th September, 2019

Rule 37BA(3) r/w/s 199: Credit for Tax Deducted at Source has to be allowed in the year in which the corresponding income is assessed even though the tax is deposited by the deductor in the subsequent assessment year

FACTS
The assessee raised an invoice and offered to tax income arising therefrom in March, 2011. The assessee claimed credit for tax deducted thereon. However, the deductor deposited TDS only in April, 2011, i.e., in the succeeding financial year. Consequently, the TDS claimed by the assessee did not appear in Form 26AS for the year in which the income was booked. The AO, relying on sub-rule (1) of Rule 37BA, did not allow the credit in A.Y. 2011-12.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO.

The assessee then filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the AO had relied on sub-rule (1) of Rule 37BA for denying the benefit of TDS during the year under consideration. It provides that credit for TDS shall be given to the person to whom payment has been made or credit has been given on the basis of information furnished by the deductor. Thus, what is material for sub-rule (1) is the beneficiary of credit and not the time when credit ought to be allowed. The CIT(A), in addition, had relied on sub-rule (4) of Rule 37BA which again provides that credit for TDS shall be granted on the basis of information relating to TDS furnished by the deductor.

The Tribunal observed that the point of time at which the benefit of TDS is to be given is governed by  sub-rule (3) of Rule 37BA which very clearly provides that – ‘credit for tax deducted at source and paid to the Central Government, shall be given for the assessment year for which such income is assessable.’

In view of the above, the Tribunal held that the credit of TDS had to be allowed in the year under consideration even though the TDS was deposited by the deductor in the subsequent assessment year.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Section 142A(6): It is mandatory for the Valuation Officer to submit the Valuation Report within six months from the date of receipt of the reference – Delay in filing the report cannot be condoned

18. [2019] 75 ITR (Trib.) 219 (Hyd.) Shri Zulfi Revdjee vs. ACIT ITA No. 2415/Hyd/2018 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 5th September,
2019

 

Section 142A(6): It is mandatory for the
Valuation Officer to submit the Valuation Report within six months from the date
of receipt of the reference – Delay in filing the report cannot be condoned

 

FACTS

The assessee sold a
property during F.Y. 2012-13. He filed the return of income disclosing capital
gains arising from the sale of the said property. The AO sought to make an
addition u/s 50C of the Act. However, since the assessee objected to it, he
referred the file to the Departmental Valuation Officer (DVO) for valuation of
the property. The DVO submitted the report after the expiry of the period
stipulated u/s 142A(6). Further, he also considered the value of the house as
on the date of registration of agreement. The assessee, inter alia,
raised an objection that the report submitted by the DVO is beyond the
stipulated time limit of six months, as specified u/s 142A(6), and consequently
the assessment is barred by limitation.

 

The assessee
preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal. Aggrieved, the
assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that u/s 142A the valuation report by the DVO has to be submitted
within six months from the date of receipt of the reference. However, the DVO
submitted his report after 15 months from the end of the month in which
reference was made to him. The Tribunal considered whether the time limit for
submission of report could be enlarged or condoned. It noted that the word used
in sub-section (6) of section 142A is ‘shall’, while in other sub-sections it
is ‘may’. In B.K. Khanna & Co. vs. Union of India and others, the
Delhi High Court [156 ITR 796 (Del.)]
has held that where the words
‘may’ and ‘shall’ are used in various provisions of the same section, then both
of them contain different meanings and the word ‘shall’ shall mean ‘mandatory’.
In sub-section (6), since the word ‘shall’ is used, the time limit specified
therein is mandatory and, thus, delay cannot be condoned. The Tribunal held
that the report of the DVO had to be filed within the time limit prescribed
under section 142A(6) and, thus, the Assessment Order passed on the basis of
the DVO’s report is not sustainable.

 

The Tribunal
allowed this ground of appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Section 143(2) – The statutory notice u/s 143(2) of the Act issued by the non-jurisdictional A.O. is void ab initio – If there are discrepancies in the details as per notice issued and details as per postal tracking report, then that cannot be considered as valid service of notice

5.       [2019]
76 ITR (Trib.) 107 (Del.)

Rajeev Goel vs. ACIT

ITA No. 1184/Del/2019

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 26th September, 2019

 

Section 143(2) – The statutory notice u/s 143(2) of the Act
issued by the non-jurisdictional A.O. is void ab initio – If there are
discrepancies in the details as per notice issued and details as per postal
tracking report, then that cannot be considered as valid service of notice

 

FACTS

The assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny by issuing
statutory notice u/s 143(2). The notice was issued by the non-jurisdictional
A.O., i.e., A.O. Circle 34(1), and without any order u/s 127 for transfer of
the case from one A.O. to another. Without prejudice to the assessee’s
contention that the notice was issued by non-jurisdictional A.O., notice u/s
143(2) was not served upon the assessee. While serving notice u/s 143(2), there
were discrepancies in the address stated in the notice and the address
mentioned in the tracking report of the post. The address mentioned in the
notice was with Pin Code 110034 and the Pin Code as per the tracking report was
110006.

 

The assessee had filed an affidavit before the A.O. claiming
that no notice u/s 143(2) was served upon him. He had produced all possible
evidences to prove that there were discrepancies while serving the said notice
and also that the assessment was initiated by non-jurisdictional A.O. These
contentions were not accepted by the A.O.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A)
claiming that the statutory notice u/s 143(2) was issued by the
non-jurisdictional A.O. and, thus, the assessment was void ab initio.
Without prejudice to this, the statutory notice u/s 143(2) was not validly
served upon the assessee. The CIT(A) held that the notice was served upon the
assessee and the assessee had failed to raise objections within the stipulated
period prescribed u/s 124(3) of the Act and hence dismissed the assessee’s
appeal.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there was a difference between the
address mentioned in the PAN database and the address mentioned in the return
of income filed by the assessee. The jurisdiction of the assessee as per his
address in the PAN database was with the A.O. Ward 39(1), whereas the
jurisdiction of the assessee as per his address in his return of income was
with A.O. Circle 47(1). However, the notice was issued by the A.O. Circle 34(1)
who had no jurisdiction over the assessee either on the basis of his
residential address or on the basis of his business address. Further, no order
u/s 127 of the Act was passed either by the Commissioner of Circle 34(1), or
the Commissioner of Circle 47(1) for transfer of the case from one A.O. to
another A.O. Thus, the notice issued by the A.O. Circle 34(1) was held to be void
ab initio
as it was issued by the non-jurisdictional A.O.

 

Further, the Tribunal observed that even if the notice u/s
143(2) issued by the A.O. Circle 34(1) was considered to be valid, the notice
was not duly served upon the assessee. The address mentioned in the notice was
one of Delhi with Pin Code 110034, whereas the notice had been delivered to a
Delhi address with Pin Code 110006. As regards service of notice, the assessee
had filed an affidavit before the A.O. Circle 47(1) claiming that no notice u/s
143(2) was served upon him. The assessee had produced all possible evidences to
prove that there were discrepancies while serving notice u/s 143(2). Besides,
there was also a difference in the name mentioned in the notice which was
Rajeev Goel, whereas that mentioned in the tracking report was Ranjeev Goel.
Hence, on the basis of the aforementioned discrepancies, the notice was held to
be not validly served upon the assessee.

 

The Tribunal decided this ground of appeal in
favour of the assessee.

Section 153(1) r/w clause (iv) of Explanation 1 – Extension of time is provided to complete the assessment in a case where A.O. makes reference to the Valuation Officer only u/s 142A(1) – Where a reference is made to the Valuation Officer u/s 55A or 50C, there is no extension of time to complete the assessment

4.       [2019]
76 ITR (Trib.) 135 (Luck.)

Naina Saluja vs. DCIT

ITA No. 393/LKW/2018

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of order: 25th October, 2019

 

Section 153(1) r/w clause (iv) of Explanation 1 – Extension
of time is provided to complete the assessment in a case where A.O. makes
reference to the Valuation Officer only u/s 142A(1) – Where a reference is made
to the Valuation Officer u/s 55A or 50C, there is no extension of time to
complete the assessment

 

FACTS

The assessee had sold her
two properties and derived income under the head ‘Capital Gains’ during the
relevant A.Y. 2013-14. While computing long-term capital gain, the assessee had
worked out the cost of acquisition on the basis of the circle rates as on 1st
April, 1981. For this purpose, the A.O. had referred the matter to the
Valuation Officer for estimating the correct fair market value of the properties
as on that date. In the meanwhile, the assessee had challenged the Stamp Duty
Value adopted and requested to refer the matter to the Valuation Cell for
valuation of the property as on the date of transfer. As the transaction was
falling under ‘capital gains’, the reference made by the A.O. to the Valuation
Officer was u/s 55A and the reference made by the assessee for valuation was
u/s 50C. The A.O. had received the second valuation report on 21st
March, 2016 and had thereafter called for objections from the assessee on the
second valuation report. The A.O. concluded the assessment and passed an
assessment order on 19th May, 2019 making an addition to the capital
gains on the basis of the said valuation report.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A)
claiming that the assessment completed was beyond the time period prescribed in
section 153 of the Act and, thus, the assessment order was barred by
limitation. However, the CIT(A) held that both the references were made u/s
142A of the Act and thereby concluded that the assessment order was not barred
by limitation. The CIT(A) upheld the assessment order and dismissed the
assessee’s appeal.

 

The assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the reference to the Valuation
Officer u/s 142A can be made for the purpose of assessment or reassessment
where the valuation is required for the purpose of section 69, 69A, 69B or
section 56(2), whereas the references u/s 55A or u/s 50C are specific for the
purpose of computation of capital gains. The provisions of section 142A do not
govern the provisions of computation of capital gains.

 

The first reference to the Valuation Officer was made for
ascertaining the value of the asset as on 1st April, 1981 when it
was sold, and the second reference was made for valuation of property as on the
date of transfer which can only be made under the provisions of section 50C(2)
of the Act. Thus, neither of the references was made u/s 142A of the Act.

 

Further, as per the provision of section 153(1) r/w
Explanation 1, the provision for extension of time for completing the
assessment is available only if the reference is made to the Valuation Officer
u/s 142A. There is no provision for extension of time for completing the
assessment in case the reference is made u/s 55A or u/s 50C. Hence, the
assessment order was to be passed by 31st March, 2016 for the
relevant assessment year. The assessment order was, however, passed on 19th
May, 2016 which was beyond the period of limitation, hence the Tribunal quashed
the assessment order.

 

The Tribunal decided this ground of appeal in
favour of the assessee.

I.Section 194H – Benefit extended by assessee to the distributor under an agreement for supply of mobile phones cannot be treated as commission liable for deduction of tax at source u/s 194H as the relationship between the assessee and the distributor was not of a principal and agent II.Section 37 – Expenditure incurred on Trade Price Protection to counter changes in price of handsets by competitors, life of model, etc. was incurred wholly and exclusively for the purpose of business and was an allowable expenditure u/s 37(1)

11.
[2020] 114 taxmann.com 442 (Delhi)
Nokia
India (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA Nos.:
5791 & 5845(Del)2015
A.Y.:
2010-11 Date of
order: 20th February, 2020

 

I.   Section 194H – Benefit extended by assessee
to the distributor under an agreement for supply of mobile phones cannot be
treated as commission liable for deduction of tax at source u/s 194H as the
relationship between the assessee and the distributor was not of a principal
and agent

 

II.  Section 37 – Expenditure
incurred on Trade Price Protection to counter changes in price of handsets by
competitors, life of model, etc. was incurred wholly and exclusively for the
purpose of business and was an allowable expenditure u/s 37(1)

 

FACTS I

The assessee
company had extended certain benefits / post-sale discounts to the
distributors. These discounts / trade offers did not form part of the agreement
between the assessee and the distributors. The A.O. disallowed the expenditure
u/s 40(a)(ia) considering the fact that no TDS u/s 194H was deducted from these
amounts.

 

HELD I

Upon perusal of the
agreement, the Tribunal observed that the relationship between the assessee and
HCL is that of principal to principal and not that of principal and agent. The
Tribunal held that the discount which was offered to distributors is given for
promotion of sales. This element cannot be treated as commission. There is
absence of  principal-agent relationship
and the benefit extended to distributors cannot be treated as commission u/s
194H of the Act.

 

As regards the applicability of section 194J, the A.O. has not given any
reasoning or finding that there is payment for technical service liable for withholding
u/s 194J. Marketing activities had been undertaken by HCL on its own. Merely
making an addition u/s 194J without the actual basis for the same on the part
of the A.O. is not just and proper.

 

As regards the
contention of the Revenue that discounts were given by way of debit notes and
the same were not adjusted or mentioned in the invoice generated upon original
sales made by the assessee, the Tribunal observed that this contention does not
seem tenable after going through the invoice and the debit notes. In fact,
there is clear mention of the discount for sales promotion.

 

The Tribunal
allowed this ground of appeal and deleted the addition made.

 

FACTS II

The assessee
company had incurred certain expenditure on Trade Price Protection which was
extended to distributors to counter changes in the price of handsets by
competitors, protect them against probable loss, etc. The A.O. had disallowed
the expenditure questioning the commercial expediency involved in incurring the
same.

 

HELD II

The Tribunal held
that the expenditure can be treated as being incurred on account of commercial
expediency considering the modern-day technological changes which are very
fast. It observed that as per the submission made before the A.O., this
expenditure had been covered in a special clause in the Trade Schemes filed.
The Tribunal further held that expenditure incurred for Trade Price Protection
was allowed as deduction since the same was considered as being incurred wholly
and exclusively for the purpose of business.

This ground of
appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 10(13A), Rule 2(h) of Fourth Schedule – For the purpose of computing qualifying amount u/s 10(13A) of the Act, the amount received as performance bonus does not assume character of salary

17. [2020] 113
taxmann.com 295 (Trib.)(Kol.)
Sudip Rungta vs.
DCIT ITA No.
2370/Kol/2017
A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 10th
January, 2020

 

Section 10(13A), Rule 2(h) of Fourth Schedule – For the purpose of
computing qualifying amount u/s 10(13A) of the Act, the amount received as
performance bonus does not assume character of salary

 

FACTS

The assessee was a salaried employee who, for the year under
consideration, filed his return of income declaring total income of Rs.  2,61,97,296. During the year under
consideration, he had received a basic salary of Rs. 30,00,000 and performance
bonus of Rs. 1,50,00,000. In the return he had claimed exemption of HRA of Rs.
8,47,742. The AO called for details of the rent paid and calculation of the
amount of exemption. In response, the assessee submitted that the total rent
paid during the year was Rs. 8,20,000 and for the purposes of computing
exemption, only the basic salary had been regarded as ‘salary’.

 

The AO held that
‘performance bonus’ is covered under the term ‘salary’ as per the meaning
assigned to the definition of ‘salary’ for the purpose of calculating exemption
u/s 10(13A). ‘Performance bonus’ cannot be comprehended as an allowance or
perquisite as defined in Rule 2(h) of the Fourth Schedule to be excluded from
the purview of ‘salary’. Thus, the assessee’s total salary for computation of
exemption u/s 10(13A) for the year under assessment comes to Rs. 30,00,000 plus
Rs. 1,50,00,000, which totals Rs. 1,80,00,000; and 10% of this comes to Rs.
18,00,000. Since the assessee has paid rent of Rs. 8,20,000 which is much less
than the amount of Rs. 18,00,000, the assessee is not entitled to any benefit u/s
10(13A) of the Act. Thus, the AO denied the benefit u/s 10(13A) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A), who only confirmed the action of
the AO.

 

The assessee then
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was submitted that clause (h) of
Rule 2A  specifically provides that
‘salary’ includes dearness allowance if the terms of employment so provide, but
excludes all other allowances and perquisites. Accordingly, the performance bonus
received by the appellant did not form part of ‘salary’ for the purposes of
computing exemption u/s 10(13A) of the Act.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted
that the decision of the Hon’ble Kerala High Court in the case of CIT vs.
B. Ghosal (125 ITR 444)
is on identical facts wherein on the same set
of facts, the Court had held that ‘performance bonus’ does not form part of
‘salary’ as defined in clause (h) of Rule 2A for the purposes of section
10(13A) of the Income tax Act, 1961.

 

Considering the facts narrated above, the Tribunal noted that total rent
paid by the assessee during the year is Rs. 8,20,000. The basic salary for the
purpose of computation of house rent disallowance is Rs. 3,00,000 (10% of Rs.
30,00,000 being basic salary). Therefore, excess of rent paid over 10% of
salary is Rs. 5,20,000 (Rs. 8,20,000 minus Rs. 3,00,000). Therefore, the
assessee is entitled for house rent allowance at Rs. 5,20,000 u/s 10(13A) of
the Act. The AO is directed to allow the exemption of HRA at Rs. 5,20,000.

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Sections 2(47), 45 – Amount received by assessee, owner of a flat in a co-operative housing society, from a developer under a scheme of re-development was integrally connected with transfer of old flat to developer for purpose of re-development, in lieu of which assessee received the said amount and a new residential flat – To be treated as income under head ‘capital gain’

3.       [2020]
115 taxmann.com 7 (Mum.)

Pradyot B. Borkar vs. ACIT

ITA No. 4070/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2011-12

Date of order: 17th January, 2020

 

Sections 2(47), 45 – Amount received by assessee, owner of a
flat in a co-operative housing society, from a developer under a scheme of
re-development was integrally connected with transfer of old flat to developer
for purpose of re-development, in lieu of which assessee received the
said amount and a new residential flat – To be treated as income under head
‘capital gain’

 

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income
declaring total income of Rs. 32,30,000. The A.O., in the course of assessment
proceedings noted that the assessee has offered long-term capital gain of Rs.
31,12,638, towards sale of residential flats at C-20, 179, MIG, Bandra, Mumbai,
and has simultaneously claimed deduction u/s 54 of the Act.

 

The A.O. found that the
assessee owned a flat in the housing society which was given for development
under a scheme of re-development. As per the terms of the development agreement
between the housing society and its members, in addition to receiving a new
residential flat after re-development, each member was also entitled to receive
an amount of Rs. 53,80,500, comprising of the following:

 

Rs. 25,00,000

Compensation for
non-adherence by the re-developer to the earlier agreed terms and that the
member should be required to vacate the old flat.

 

 

Rs. 28,50,500

Beneficial right and interest
in corpus and income of the society and nuisance annoyance and hardship that
will be suffered by the members during the re-development.

 

 

Rs. 30,000

Moving or shifting cost.

 

 

The A.O. held that the amount received is not in any way related
to transfer of capital asset giving rise to capital gain. He assessed the
amount of Rs. 53,30,500 under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
confirmed the action of the A.O. The assessee then preferred an appeal to the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that in the return of income the assessee
has offered the amount of Rs. 53,50,500 as income from long-term capital gain.
But the A.O. has held that the amount is in the nature of compensation received
due to some specific factors and not related to transfer of capital asset. He
also observed that as per the terms of the development agreement, any capital
gain arising due to re-development would accrue to the housing society.
Therefore, the compensation received, Rs. 53,50,500, cannot be treated as
capital gain.

 

The Tribunal held that the amount of Rs. 53,50,500 was
received by the assessee only because of handing over the old flat for the
purpose of re-development. Therefore, the said amount is integrally connected
with the transfer of his old flat to the developer for re-development in
lieu of
which he received the said amount and a new residential flat.
Therefore, the amount of Rs. 53,50,500 has to be treated as income under the
head ‘Capital Gain’. The Tribunal observed that the decision of the Co-ordinate
Bench in Rajnikant D. Shroff [ITA No. 4424/Mum/2014, dated 23rd September,
2016]
supports this view. It held that the amount of Rs. 53,50,500 has
to be assessed under the head ‘Capital Gain’.

 

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 56 read with sections 22 and 23 – Compensation received under an agreement entered into with a tenant granting him an option to take on lease other units which belonged to the assessee is taxable under the head Income from Other Sources

10.
[2020] 116 taxmann.com 223
Redwood
IT Services (P) Ltd. vs. ITO(10)(2)(2), (Mum.) ITA No.
1309(Mum) 2018
A.Y.:
2011-12 Date of
order: 28th February, 2020

 

Section 56 read with sections 22 and 23 –
Compensation received under an agreement entered into with a tenant granting
him an option to take on lease other units which belonged to the assessee is
taxable under the head Income from Other Sources

 

FACTS

The assessee acquired an immovable property which was divided into four
units of which two units, viz. Unit Nos. 3 and 4, were let out. In terms of the
agreement entered into by the assessee with the tenant, the assessee had
granted an option to the tenant to take the other two units, viz. Units 1 and 2,
on lease. Under the option agreement, the assessee agreed to lease the property
in future and restrained itself from leasing it to any other person during the
period for which the option was granted. In consideration of such a covenant,
the assessee received from the tenant a compensation of Rs. 33,75,000 which was
offered by him under the head Income from Other Sources.

 

The A.O. considered
the two units in respect of which option was granted to be deemed let-out units
and charged tax on their market rent, and after allowing the standard deduction
taxed a sum of Rs. 76,64,328 under the head ‘Income from House Property’.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that for income to be assessable under the head Income
from House Property, it should be out of the property let out or deemed to be
let out for the relevant period. In this case the property is neither let out
nor vacant. The compensation cannot, therefore, be assessed under the head
Income from House Property.

 

The amount received
by the assessee is in the nature of compensation for not letting out property
to any third party for a specified period. The meaning thereof is that by
entering into an option agreement, the assessee had renounced its right to let
out Unit Nos. 1 and 2 for a period of nine months from the date of the option
agreement and any amount received in pursuance of the said agreement is in the
nature of compensation which is assessable under the head Income from Other
Sources.

 

The Tribunal held
that the A.O. as well as the CIT(A) were incorrect in coming to the conclusion
that the property is deemed to be let out and income from the said property
needs to be computed u/s 22 of the Act.

 

The Tribunal directed
the A.O. to delete the additions made towards Income from House Property.

 

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Sections 32, 37, 45, 50 – Where the business of the assessee came to a halt, expenses incurred by the assessee for maintaining its legal status and disposing of the assets are allowable u/s 37(1) of the Act Assessee owned leasehold rights in the land and a building was constructed thereon; on transfer of the same, capital gains were to be bifurcated as long-term capital gains on transfer of land u/s 45 and short-term capital gains on transfer of building u/s 50 Unabsorbed depreciation is deemed to be current year’s depreciation and it can therefore be set off against capital gains

25. [2019] 202 TTJ (Bang.) 893 Hirsh Bracelet India (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No. 3392/Bang/2018 A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 3rd July, 2019

 

Sections 32,
37, 45, 50 – Where the business of the assessee came to a halt, expenses
incurred by the assessee for maintaining its legal status and disposing of the
assets are allowable u/s 37(1) of the Act

 

Assessee owned
leasehold rights in the land and a building was constructed thereon; on
transfer of the same, capital gains were to be bifurcated as long-term capital
gains on transfer of land u/s 45 and short-term capital gains on transfer of
building u/s 50

Unabsorbed
depreciation is deemed to be current year’s depreciation and it can therefore
be set off against capital gains

 

FACTS

The assessee company was engaged in the
business of manufacturing wrist watch straps. The assessee had taken land on
lease for a period of 99 years and set up a unit for designing, importing,
exporting, dealing in and manufacturing wrist watch straps. In view of
continued losses and several operational difficulties, the business of the
assessee had to be closed down. The assessee had declared capital gains on the
sale of leasehold rights in land and building as short-term capital gain in the
return of income and, after adjusting current year’s expense and depreciation,
returned a total income.

 

During the course of the assessment
proceedings, the assessee claimed that sale of leasehold rights in land would
result in long-term capital gains. But the A.O. taxed the capital gains as short-term
and did not allow set-off of brought forward business losses. Further, the A.O.
had disallowed the expenditure u/s 37(1), contending that the same could not be
allowed as there was no business in existence.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal.

 

HELD

The various expenses incurred by the
assessee were to maintain its legal status as a company until the assets were
disposed of and the liabilities paid. The Tribunal held that it was essential
for the assessee to incur these expenses and neither the A.O. nor the CIT(A)
has doubted the incurring of the expenditure. The assessee held leasehold
rights in land and it required permission from the Government for transfer of
such rights. This permission was received by the assessee only in the previous
year, 2013-2014. Therefore, even though the business of the assessee had come
to a halt in 2010, it was necessary to maintain the legal status until all the
assets were liquidated. Thus, the expenses incurred by the assessee were to be
allowed as a deduction in computation of income.

 

The assessee had made a claim for the
bifurcation of capital gains into long-term capital gains on transfer of
leasehold rights in land and short-term capital gains on transfer of building,
being a depreciable asset, in accordance with the provisions of section 50. The
assessee was entitled to bifurcate the capital gains and the provisions of
section 50 would be made applicable in computation of capital gains arising
from transfer of building.

 

Unabsorbed depreciation is deemed to be
current year’s depreciation and the same can be set off against capital gains
under the provisions of section 71.

 

These grounds of appeal filed by the
assessee were allowed.

 

Section 147, Explanation 3 & Section 154 – The powers conferred on the A.O. by Explanation 3 to section 147 cannot be extended to section 154 – Any discrepancy that was not a subject matter of reassessment proceedings cannot, subsequently, upon conclusion of reassessment proceedings, be brought up by the A.O. by recourse to section 154

24 [2019] 202 TTJ (Del.) 1014 JDC Traders (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No. 5886/Del/2015 A.Y.: 2007-2008 Date of order: 11th October, 2019

 

Section 147,
Explanation 3 & Section 154 – The powers conferred on the A.O. by
Explanation 3 to section 147 cannot be extended to section 154 – Any
discrepancy that was not a subject matter of reassessment proceedings cannot,
subsequently, upon conclusion of reassessment proceedings, be brought up by the
A.O. by recourse to section 154

 

FACTS

The assessee was a company engaged in the
business of trading, export and printing. For A.Y. 2007-2008 it submitted its
return of income and the same was processed u/s 143(1) of the Act. Reassessment
proceedings were initiated against the assessee for the assessment year in
question after recording reasons for the same. Certain travel expenditure
claimed by the assessee was disallowed and addition was made for the same. On
conclusion of the reassessment proceedings and perusal of the assessment
records by the A.O., he noticed a discrepancy in the amount of stock appearing
in the statement of profit and loss and in the notes to financial accounts. The
A.O. issued a notice u/s 154 to the assessee as regards the difference. The
assessee submitted that the amount stated as closing stock at the time of
preparation of accounts had been inadvertently missed out to be corrected
post-finalisation of accounts and stock reconciliation. The assessee also
submitted that after reconciliation the mistake was detected and corrected. The
A.O. made an addition for the amount of difference in the amounts of closing
stock stated at different values.

The assessee preferred an appeal with the CIT(A).
However, the CIT(A) did not agree with its contention and stated that under the
provisions of Explanation 3 to section 147, the A.O. was justified in assessing
/ reassessing the income which had escaped assessment. Further, there was
nothing wrong in the A.O. rectifying the mistake in the order under sections
147 / 143(3). The assessee then filed an appeal with the ITAT.

 

HELD

The issue relating to the discrepancy in the
value of closing stock was not taken up by the A.O. at the time of reassessment
proceedings u/s 147. A reading of section 147 shows that it empowers the A.O.
to assess or reassess income in respect of any issue which had escaped
assessment, irrespective of the fact whether such aspect was adverted in the
reasons recorded u/s 147. The A.O. had resorted to section 154 to make addition
in respect of the issue of discrepancy in closing stock on conclusion of the
reassessment proceedings. The powers under Explanation 3 to section 147, if
extended to section 154, would empower the A.O. to make one addition after the
other by taking shelter of Explanation 3 to section 147. It was also not the
case that the A.O. had invoked section 154 with respect to the original
assessment finalised u/s 143(3).

 

Thus, the powers of Explanation 3 to section
147 cannot be extended to section 154, and the addition made by the A.O. for
discrepancy of closing stock values upon conclusion of reassessment proceedings
was beyond his jurisdiction.

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

 

Section 64 – Entire loss arising to wife of assessee in the business of Futures and Options (F&O) which business was started by her during the previous year with contribution from assessee in shape of gifts, was liable to be clubbed in hands of assessee in terms of Explanation 3 read in conjunction with section 64(1)(iv) – Assessee was entitled to club full loss from business of F&O in his personal income

8. [2020] 113 taxmann.com 378 (Pune)(Trib.)

Uday Gopal Bhaskarwar vs. ACIT

ITA No. 502/Pune/2019

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 20th January, 2020

 

Section 64 – Entire loss arising to wife of assessee in the
business of Futures and Options (F&O) which business was started by her
during the previous year with contribution from assessee in shape of gifts, was
liable to be clubbed in hands of assessee in terms of Explanation 3 read in
conjunction with section 64(1)(iv) – Assessee was entitled to club full loss
from business of F&O in his personal income

 

FACTS

The assessee, in the return of
income filed by him, clubbed the loss from the business of his spouse amounting
to Rs. 31,56,429 in view of the provisions of section 64. In the course of
assessment proceedings, on being called upon to justify such a claim, the
assessee submitted that during the year under consideration he gifted a sum of
Rs. 94.50 lakhs to Mrs. Priti Bhaskarwar, his wife, who started a business of
Futures and Options (F&O) on 18th September, 2013. The assessee
claimed that she incurred a loss of Rs. 31,56,429 in the business which was
clubbed in his hands.

 

The A.O. accepted the primary claim
of the assessee of his wife having incurred a loss of Rs. 31.56 lakhs in the
business of F&O, which was set up on 18th September, 2013, and further that
the loss from such business was eligible for set-off against the income of the
assessee in terms of section 64(1)(iv) read with Explanation 3 thereto. He,
however, did not accept the assessee’s contention that the entire loss of Rs.
31.56 lakhs be set off against his (the assessee’s) income. Considering the
mandate of Explanation 3 to section 64(1), the A.O. held that only that part of
the business loss incurred by the assessee’s wife could be set off against the
assessee’s income which bears the proportion of amount of investment out of the
gift on the first day of the previous year to the total investment in the
business as on the first day of the previous year.

 

He, therefore, computed the amount
of loss eligible for set-off against the assessee’s income at Rs. 9,72,563 by
multiplying Rs. 31,56,429 (loss incurred by wife in the business) with Rs.
25.00 lakhs (gifts made by the assessee to his wife up to 18th
September, 2013) as divided by Rs. 81,13,648 (opening capital as on 1st April,
2013 as increased by the gift of Rs. 25.00 lakhs given by the assessee up to 18th
September, 2013).

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an
appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

Still aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the core of
controversy is the computation of eligible amount of loss incurred by the
assessee’s wife which is eligible for set-off against the assessee’s income.

 

On going through the mandate of
section 64(1)(vi) of the Act in juxtaposition with Explanation 3 to the
sub-section, it transpires that there can be two possible situations of
utilisation of the assets transferred by husband to wife triggering the
clubbing provision. The first situation can be where the amount of assets
received by the wife is exclusively invested in an asset and further there is
no investment by the wife in such a new asset. The full income resulting from
such an exclusive investment is liable to be clubbed with the total income of
the husband. An example of such a situation can be a wife making a fixed
deposit with a bank, etc. out of the gift of money received from her husband.
The full amount of interest income arising on such FDR is liable to be clubbed
with the income of the husband.

 

The second situation can be where
the amount of assets received by the wife as a gift from her husband is not the
exclusive investment in the business carried on by her. Rather, she has also
made separate investment in the said business. In such a situation of a common
pool of unidentifiable investments in the business, there arises difficulty in
precisely attributing the income of such a business to the investments made out
of the gift received from the husband attracting clubbing and to investments
made out of funds other than the gift received from the husband not attracting
the clubbing provision. It is in such a scenario that the prescription of
Explanation 3 comes into play by providing that the amount of income from the
combined business as relatable to the assets transferred by the husband should
be computed by taking the income from such business earned during the year as
multiplied with the amount of assets received by the wife from her husband as
invested in the business and divided by her total investment in the business,
including the amount of assets received from the husband.

 

In a nutshell, there are three
components in this formula. The first component is the income of the business,
which is to be considered for the year. The second is the amount of assets
received by the wife from her husband as invested in the business, and the
third is the total investment in the business including the amount of assets
received from the husband. The latter two figures are required to be taken as
on the first day of the previous year. Section 3 defines ‘Previous year’ to
mean ‘the financial year immediately preceding the assessment year.’ The proviso
to section 3 states that, in the case of a business newly set up in a financial
year, the previous year shall be the period beginning with the date of the
setting up of the business and ending with the said financial year. Since the
wife of the assessee started the new business of F&O on 18th
September, 2013, the extant case is, ergo, covered by the proviso
to section 3.

 

Having examined the factual position
in detail, the Tribunal held that the entire amount of loss resulting from the
business of F&O started by Mrs. Priti Bhaskarwar with the gifts received
from the assessee is liable to be clubbed in the hands of the assessee.

 

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was
decided in favour of the assessee.

I.Section 43(6), Explanation 2 – In Explanation 2 to section 43(6), deprecation actually allowed shall not include any unabsorbed depreciation – The WDV in the hands of the amalgamated company is to be calculated without considering the unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating companies, for which set-off was never allowed II.When a receipt is held to be capital in nature and not chargeable to tax under the normal provisions of the Act, the same cannot be taxed u/s 115JB of the Act as well III.Section 234B r/w/s 115JB – Interest u/s 234B cannot be levied where liability arises on account of retrospective amendment in the Act

16. [2019] 112
taxmann.com 55 (Trib.)(Mum.)
ACIT vs. JSW Steel
Ltd. ITA No.
156/Bang/2011; CO No. 59/Mum/2012
A.Y.: 2006-07 Date of order: 29th
November, 2019

 

I.  Section 43(6), Explanation 2 – In Explanation
2 to section 43(6), deprecation actually allowed shall not include any
unabsorbed depreciation – The WDV in the hands of the amalgamated company is to
be calculated without considering the unabsorbed depreciation of the
amalgamating companies, for which set-off was never allowed

 

II. When a receipt is held to be capital in nature
and not chargeable to tax under the normal provisions of the Act, the same
cannot be taxed u/s 115JB of the Act as well

 

III.        Section 234B r/w/s 115JB – Interest u/s
234B cannot be levied where liability arises on account of retrospective
amendment in the Act

 

FACTS I

In the return of
income filed by the assessee for the year of amalgamation, i.e., A.Y. 2006-07,
the assessee computed WDV in respect of the assets transferred by the
amalgamating companies by reducing the amount of deprecation (‘actually
allowed’) in A.Y. 2005-06 in accordance with the provisions of Explanation (2)
to section 43(6) of the Act.

 

The AO observed
that the closing WDV of the amalgamating company becomes the WDV in the hands
of the amalgamated company and accordingly determined the WDV of the assets
acquired on amalgamation after considering normal depreciation allowed on
assets of the two amalgamating companies; consequently, he disallowed excess
depreciation of Rs. 6,81,27,607 (being 15% of the difference in the WDV of Rs.
45,41,84,048).

 

However, the AO was
of the view that Explanation (3) has to be read into Explanation (2) and
accordingly the WDV of the assets transferred on amalgamation has to be
computed after reducing the total depreciation in the hands of the amalgamated
companies.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal and directed
the AO to allow depreciation on the increased written down value of the assets.

 

Being aggrieved,
the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD I

The Tribunal
observed that

(i)   the only dispute under consideration is
whether the WDV of the assets transferred on amalgamation was to be computed in
the hands of the amalgamated company considering the unabsorbed depreciation,
i.e., depreciation not given effect to, in the assessment of the amalgamating
companies;

(ii)   the provisions of Explanations (2) and (3) to
section 43(6) explains what will be the WDV of assets in the hands of the
amalgamated company in cases of amalgamation. Similarly, section 32(2) provides
for carry forward of unabsorbed depreciation and section 72A provides for carry
forward of business loss and unabsorbed depreciation in the hands of the
amalgamated company in cases of amalgamation;

(iii) on going through Explanation (2) to section
43(6), it is very clear that it speaks about depreciation ‘actually allowed’ in
relation to the said preceding year in case of the amalgamated company.

 

The Tribunal held
that in view of Explanation (2) to section 43(6) of the Act, the WDV in the
hands of the assessee as on 1st April, 2005 (the appointed date)
would be the WDV of block of assets as on 31st March, 2004 as
reduced by the depreciation ‘actually allowed’ during the said preceding year,
i.e., F.Y. 2004-05, in the hands of the amalgamating companies. Accordingly,
the WDV of assets transferred on amalgamation in the hands of the amalgamating
company has to be necessarily computed in terms of Explanation (2) to section
43(6) of the Act. In terms of this Explanation, while computing the WDV on
amalgamation, the depreciation actually allowed has to be reduced.

 

Since the case of
the AO was that Explanation (3) has to be read into Explanation (2) and,
accordingly, the WDV of assets transferred on amalgamation has to be computed
after reducing the total depreciation in the hands of the amalgamated
companies, the Tribunal found it necessary to read and comprehend as to why the
provision of section (3) to section 43(6) of the Act cannot be applied in the
facts of the present case. It held that Explanation (3) to section 43(6) states
that any depreciation which is carried forward u/s 32(2) shall be deemed to be
depreciation actually allowed. Further, it observed that Explanations (2) and
(3) to section 43(6) of the Act both used the term depreciation actually
allowed. However, as against Explanation (2), Explanation (3) to section 43(6)
of the Act operates as a deeming fiction, wherein depreciation which is carried
forward u/s 32(2) of the Act is deemed to have been actually allowed.

 

The Tribunal held
that in its view Explanation (3) being a deeming fiction, operates only in
particular conditions and in order to remove an anomaly which otherwise would
have been created under the other provisions of the Act. It held that while
interpreting Explanation (3) one needs to be aware of the intention of the
statute. These provisions, along with their intent, have been explained
elaborately by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Hindustan
Petroleum Corporation Limited
where it was held that Explanation (3) to
section 43(6) seeks to find certain anomalies which would have otherwise
existed under the Act. The intention of Explanation (3) is not simply to
nullify the provision of Explanation (2) to section 43(6), as has been read by
the AO. This is also evident from the fact that Explanation (2) has been
introduced from 1st April, 1988, whereas Explanation (3) was always
on the statute, which clearly implies that Explanation (3), which is a legal /
deeming fiction, was not introduced to nullify the impact of Explanation (2) of
the Act.

 

Accordingly, in
terms of Explanation (3) to section 43(6), in the present case, unless the
unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating companies is carried forward in the
hands of the amalgamated company u/s 32(2), Explanation (3) cannot be read into
Explanation (2) to simply conclude that depreciation ‘actually allowed’ also
includes unabsorbed depreciation.

 

It observed that in
view of the ratio of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Doom Dooma India Ltd. [2009] 310 ITR 392
, the words actually
allowed under Explanation (2) only mean depreciation, which has been given
effect to in the computation of income of the amalgamating companies and will
not include unabsorbed depreciation. This legal proposition, it observed, is
also supported by the decision in the case of Silical Metallurgic Ltd.
where the Hon’ble Court held that the statutory provision makes it clear that
the WDV of the asset would be the actual cost of the assets of the assessee
less depreciation allowed to the company. Any unabsorbed depreciation, which
was not set off for carry forward could not be taken into account.

 

A similar view was
taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of Hindustan Petroleum Corpn.
Ltd
. and a Special Leave Petition filed against the aforesaid High
Court decision has been dismissed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court on merits in SLP
(C) No. 19054 of 2008 (SC).
A similar proposition has been laid down by
the Hon’ble Madras High Court in the case of EID Parry India’s vs. CIT
[2012] 209 Taxmann 214.
The Courts have, considering the applicability
of provisions of section 72A, held that deprecation actually allowed shall not
include any unabsorbed depreciation.

 

The Tribunal held
that the WDV in the hands of the amalgamated company was to be calculated
without considering the unabsorbed depreciation of the amalgamating companies,
for which set-off was never allowed. The Tribunal upheld the findings of the
CIT(A) and dismissed this ground of the appeal of the Revenue.

 

FACTS II

The assessee
received a sales tax subsidy of Rs. 36,15,49,828 from the Karnataka Government
for setting up a new industrial unit in the backward area of the state. The
refund of sales tax subsidy was routed through the profit and loss account and
hence the same was considered as part of the book profits u/s 115JB of the I.T.
Act, 1961. Subsequently, the assessee realised that sales tax subsidy being
capital receipt as held by the CIT(A), the same is not taxable under the MAT
provisions; accordingly, the issue was raised before the Tribunal and this
ground was taken by the assessee in the cross-objections filed by it.

 

HELD II

The Tribunal noted
that

(i)   the Coordinate Bench of the ITAT, Mumbai
Tribunal, in the assessee’s own case for A.Y. 2004-05 in ITA No. 923/Bang/2009,
had considered an identical issue and held that where a receipt is held to be
capital in nature not chargeable to tax under the normal provisions of the Act,
the same cannot be taxed u/s 115JB of the I.T. Act, 1961;

(ii)   the Hon’ble Kolkata High Court, in the case of
Pr. CIT vs. Ankit Metal & Power Ltd. [2019] 109
taxmann.com
93
had considered an identical issue and after considering the decision
of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. (Supra)
held that when a receipt is not in the character of income as defined u/s 2(24)
of the I.T. Act, 1961, then it cannot form part of the book profit u/s 115JB.
The Court further observed that the facts of case before the Hon’ble Supreme
Court in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. were altogether different,
where the income in question was taxable but was exempt under a specific
provision of the Act, and as such it was to be included as a part of book
profit; but where the receipt is not in the nature of income at all, it cannot
be included in book profit for the purpose of computation u/s 115JB.

 

The Tribunal
further noted that to a similar effect was the ratio of the following
decisions:

(a)   Sutlej Cotton Mills
Ltd. vs. Asstt. CIT [1993] 45 ITD 22 (Cal. Trib.) (SB);

(b)   Shree Cement Ltd. vs.
Addl. CIT (2015) 152 ITD 561 (Jai. Trib.);

(c)   Sipca India (P) Ltd.
vs. Dy. CIT [2017] 80 taxmann.com 87 (Kol. Trib.)
.

 

As regards the case
laws relied upon, on behalf of the Revenue, the Tribunal held that the Tribunal
or High Court in those cases came to the conclusion that the capital receipt is
in the nature of income, but by a specific provision the same has been exempted
and hence came to the conclusion that once a particular receipt is routed
through the profit and loss account, then it should be part of book profit and
cannot be excluded while arriving at book profit u/s 115JB of the Act, 1961.

 

The Tribunal held
that when a particular receipt is exempt from tax under the Income tax Law,
then the same cannot be considered for the purpose of computation of book
profit u/s 115JB. It directed the AO to exclude the sales tax subsidy received
by the assessee amounting to Rs. 36,15,49,828 from the book profits computed
u/s 115JB.

 

The cross-objection
filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

FACTS III

Section 234B
r/w/s 115JB – Interest u/s 234B cannot be levied where liability arises on
account of retrospective amendment in Act

 

While completing
the assessment, interest of Rs. 9,84,94,367 was levied on total income computed
u/s 115JB on account of retrospective amendment to section 115JB. In the profit
and loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2006, the assessee
had debited provision for deferred tax of Rs. 433.61 crores. In the return of
income filed for A.Y. 2006-07, the aforesaid provision was not added back while
computing book profit u/s 115JB. However, subsequently the Finance Act, 2008
made a retrospective amendment to section 115JB by inserting clause (h) in
Explanation 1 to section 115JB according to which book profits are required to
be increased by an amount of deferred tax and provision thereof; the said
amendment was made with retrospective effect from A.Y. 2001-02. Accordingly,
during the course of assessment proceedings while computing book profits u/s
115JB, the AO, in view of the insertion of clause (h) in Explanation 1 to
section 115JB by the Finance Act, 2008 with retrospective effect, added the
provision for deferred tax liability and consequently interest u/s 234B was
levied which interest arose on account of the retrospective amendment to
section 115JB.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal on the ground
that no liability can be fastened onto the assessee on the basis of
retrospective amendment to the Act.

 

HELD III

The Tribunal noted
that whether interest us/ 234B can be charged on the basis of a retrospective
amendment on recomputed book profit is no longer res integra. The
Coordinate Bench of the ITAT Bangalore Tribunal, in the assessee’s own case for
A.Y. 2005-06 in ITAT No. 924/Bang/2009, had considered an identical issue and
held that no interest can be levied u/s 234 B where liability arises on account
of retrospective amendment in the Act.

 

It observed that in the current year as well, the liability for interest
u/s 234B has arisen only on account of a retrospective amendment to the
provision of section 115JB. Accordingly, the assessee would not have
anticipated the retrospective amendment at the time of making the payments for
advance tax, but would have estimated the liability to pay advance tax on the
basis of the then existing provisions. The Tribunal found no error in the
findings recorded by the CIT(A), while deleting the interest liability u/s 234B
of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the findings of CIT(A) and rejected the ground
taken by the Revenue. This ground of appeal of the Revenue was dismissed.

I – Section 115JB – Provision for leave encashment is not to be added back to the book profit for computation u/s 115JB as it is an ascertained liability determined on actuarial basis II – Provision for wealth tax was not to be reduced from book profit to be computed u/s 115JB

6. [2020] 114 taxmann.com 538 (Mum.)(Trib.)

Caprihans India Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA No. 4252/Mum/2011

A.Y.: 2005-06

Date of order: 23rd December, 2019

 

I – Section 115JB – Provision for leave encashment is not to
be added back to the book profit for computation u/s 115JB as it is an
ascertained liability determined on actuarial basis

 

II – Provision for wealth tax was not to be reduced from
book profit to be computed u/s 115JB

 

FACTS I

While assessing the total income of the assessee u/s 153C
r.w.s. 143(3) of the Act, the A.O. for the purpose of computing book profits
added the amount of provision for leave encashment of Rs. 15,30,070 on the
ground that it was an unascertained liability. He held that the liabilities
pertaining to leave encashment were not ascertained by the end of the financial
year, therefore the assessee had made a provision for the same.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
upheld the action of the A.O.

 

The assessee then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where,
relying on the ratio of the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High
Court in the case of CIT vs. National Hydro Electric Power Corporation
Ltd. [2010] 45 DTR 117 (P&H)
it was contended that the provision
for leave encashment was made in the books on actuarial basis, therefore the
same could not be held to be in the nature of a provision for an unascertained
liability.

 

HELD I

The Tribunal held that if a business liability had definitely
arisen in the accounting year, the deduction should be allowed although the
liability may have to be quantified and discharged at a future date.

 

It observed that this view is fortified by the judgment of
the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Bharat Earth Movers vs. CIT
[2000] 245 ITR 428 (SC).
In the said case, it was observed by the
Hon’ble Apex Court that what should be certain is the incurring of the
liability and the fact that the same is capable of being estimated with
reasonable certainty, although the actual quantification may not be possible.
The Apex Court had observed that the provision for meeting the liability for
encashment of earned leave by the employees is not a contingent liability and
is admissible as a deduction.

 

In view of the above, the Tribunal held that as the provision
for leave encashment had been made by the assessee on actuarial basis,
therefore the same being in the nature of an ascertained liability could not
have been added by the A.O. for the purpose of determining the ‘book profit’
u/s 115JB. This ground of appeal of the assessee was allowed.

 

FACTS II

The assessee, while computing the ‘book profit’ u/s 115JB had
added back the amount of the wealth tax provision. On appeal, the assessee by
way of a specific ground had assailed the addition of the provision for wealth
tax while computing the ‘book profit’ u/s 115JB. However, the CIT(A) declined
to accept the aforesaid claim. Observing that the said provision was covered
u/s 115JB, the CIT(A) had upheld the view taken by the A.O.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal
where it was contended that as the provision for wealth tax does not fall
within any of the items of the ‘Explanation’ to section 115JB, the same could
not be added back while computing the ‘book profit’ under the said statutory
provision. In support of the aforesaid contention, reliance was placed on the
order of the ITAT, Kolkata, Special Bench in the case of JCIT vs. Usha
Martin Industries Ltd. [2007] 104 ITD 249 (SB).

 

HELD II

The Tribunal observed that an addition to the
‘book profit’ which during the period relevant to the year under consideration
was computed as per Part II of Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956 could be
made only if the same was permissible as per Item No. (a) to (k)
of the Explanation to section 115JB. As contemplated in clause (a) of
the ‘Explanation’ to this section, ‘the amount of Income-tax paid or payable,
and the provision therefor’
was liable to be added for computing the ‘book
profit’ u/s 115JB. However, as there was no such provision for making the
addition with regard to wealth tax, the A.O. could not have added the same for
computing the ‘book profit’ of the assessee company u/s 115JB. It observed that
its view is fortified by the order of the ITAT, Kolkata, Special Bench in the
case of JCIT vs. Usha Martin Industries Ltd. [2007] 104 ITD 249 (SB).
The Tribunal directed the A.O. to rework the ‘book profit’ u/s 115JB after
deleting the provision for wealth tax. This ground of appeal of the assessee
was allowed.

Sections 144C(1), 143(3) – For the period prior to 1st April, 2020 in case of an eligible assessee, draft assessment order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 144C(1) is not required to be passed in cases in which no variation in returned income or loss is proposed Mere issuance of draft assessment order, when it was legally not required to be issued, cannot end up enhancing the time limit for completing the assessment u/s 143(3)

2.       [2020]
115 taxmann.com 78 (Mum.)

IPF India Property Cyprus (No. 1) Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA No. 6077/Mum/2018

A.Y.: 2014-15

Date of order: 25th February, 2020

 

Sections 144C(1), 143(3) – For the period prior to 1st April,
2020 in case of an eligible assessee, draft assessment order u/s 143(3) r.w.s.
144C(1) is not required to be passed in cases in which no variation in returned
income or loss is proposed

 

Mere issuance of draft assessment order, when it was legally
not required to be issued, cannot end up enhancing the time limit for
completing the assessment u/s 143(3)

 

FACTS

The A.O., for A.Y. 2014-15, passed a draft assessment order
u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 144C(1) even when no variation was proposed therein to the
income or loss returned by the assessee.

 

The assessee challenged the correctness of the DRP’s order
dated 26th July, 2018 in the matter of assessment u/s 144(C)(1)
r.w.s. 143(3) of the Act. It contended that the A.O. had erred in passing a
draft assessment order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 144C(1) of the Act, even when no
variation has been proposed therein to the income or loss returned by the
assessee and in passing the final assessment order u/s 143(3) of the Act, after
the due date provided u/s 153 of the Act, thus making the final assessment
order illegal, bad in law and non-est.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the short question for
adjudication is whether or not the A.O. was justified in passing a draft
assessment order on the facts of the case, and whether the fact that the A.O.
chose to issue the draft assessment order even though he was not required to do
so, would result in affecting the normal time limit within which the normal
assessment order u/s 143(3) is to be issued. It also observed that there are no
variations in the returned income and the assessee income.

 

The controversy is thus confined to the question as to what
will be the rate on which income returned by the assessee is to be taxed. While
the assessee has claimed taxation @ 10% under article 11(2) of the India-Cyprus
DTAA, the A.O. has declined the said treaty protection on the ground that the
assessee was not beneficial owner of the said interest and, accordingly,
brought the income to tax @ 40% thereof. The Tribunal observed that there is,
quite clearly, no variation in the quantum of income.

 

The Tribunal observed that the assessee before it is a
non-resident company incorporated, and fiscally domiciled, in Cyprus.
Accordingly, in terms of section 144C(15)(b)(ii), the assessee is an eligible
assessee but then there is no change in the figure of income returned by the
assessee vis-a-vis the income assessed by the A.O. It held that there
is, therefore, no question of a draft assessment order being issued in this
case. It noted that the Finance Bill, 2020 proposes to make the issuance of
draft assessment orders in the case of eligible assessees mandatory even when
there is no variation in the income or loss returned by the assessee, but then
this amendment seeks to amend the law with effect from 1st April,
2020. Since the amendment is being introduced with effect from that date, the
Tribunal held that it is beyond any doubt that so far as the period prior to 1st
April, 2020 is concerned, in the cases in which no variations in the returned
income or loss were proposed, the draft assessment orders were not required to
be issued. The Tribunal upheld the plea of the assessee on this point.

 

The Tribunal noted that if no draft assessment order was to
be issued in this case, the assessment would have been time-barred on 31st
December, 2017 but the present assessment order was passed on 17th
August, 2018. It held that since no draft assessment order could have been
issued in this case, as the provisions of section 144C(1) could not have been
invoked, the time limit for completion of assessment was available only up to
31st December, 2017. The mere issuance of a draft assessment order,
when it was legally not required to be issued, cannot end up enhancing the time
limit for completing the assessment u/s 143(3). The Tribunal held the
assessment order to be time-barred.

 

The Tribunal allowed these grounds of appeal filed by the
assessee.

Sections 23, 24(b) – Where assessee is receiving rent from his own son and daughter who are financially independent, property is both a self-occupied and a let-out property – Consequently, interest claim cannot be allowed in full and shall have to be suitably proportioned, restricting the interest claim relatable to the self-occupied part thereof to Rs. 1.50 lakhs

1.       [2020]
115 taxmann.com 179 (Mum.)

Md. Hussain Habib Pathan vs. ACIT

ITA No. 4058/Mum/2013

A.Y.: 2009-10

Date of order: 5th March, 2020

 

Sections 23, 24(b) – Where assessee is receiving rent from
his own son and daughter who are financially independent, property is both a
self-occupied and a let-out property – Consequently, interest claim cannot be
allowed in full and shall have to be suitably proportioned, restricting the
interest claim relatable to the self-occupied part thereof to Rs. 1.50 lakhs

 

The children of the assessee were financially independent;
so instead of just transferring some money to their father, they wanted it to
be regarded (by mutual agreement) as rent – They believed that thus he would
receive funds in the shape of rent and that would also help meet their father’s
(the assessee’s) interest burden and help him with some tax savings – It was to
be regarded as a genuine arrangement in order to minimise assessee’s tax
liability

 

FACTS

The assessee claimed a loss of Rs. 15,32,120 qua his
residential house property in Mumbai. He claimed that he had incurred interest
on borrowed capital of Rs. 21,62,120 which was adjusted against rental income
of Rs. 9,00,000; this (rent), on a field inquiry, was found by the A.O. to be
from the assessee’s major son and major daughter residing in the said property
along with other family members of the assessee.

 

The A.O. was of the view that nobody would charge rent (for
residence) from his own son and daughter, particularly considering that both
are unmarried and living together with their family at its self-owned abode.
The arrangement was therefore regarded as merely a tax-reducing device adopted
by the assessee and liable to be ignored. Treating the house property as a
self-occupied property, the A.O. restricted the claim of interest u/s 24(b) to
Rs. 1,50,000.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
confirmed the action.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal
where he contended that there is nothing to show that the arrangement, which is
duly supported by written agreements furnished in the assessment proceedings,
is fake or make-believe. Rental income cannot be overlooked or disregarded
merely because it arises from close family members. However, on a query from
the Bench, the counsel for the assessee was not able to state the status, i.e.,
self-occupied or rented, of the said premises for the earlier or subsequent
years, though he submitted that this is the first year of the claim of loss. He
was also unable to tell the Bench about the area let out, i.e., out of the
total area available, inasmuch as other family members, including the assessee,
were also residing in the same premises.

 

The Revenue’s case, on the other hand, was of no cognisance
being accorded to an arrangement which is against human probabilities and
clearly a device to avoid tax.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the arrangement is highly unusual,
particularly considering that the rent is in respect of a self-owned property
(i.e., for which no rent is being paid), which constituted the family’s
residence, and with the assessee’s son and daughter both being unmarried.
However, the Bench felt that that may not be conclusive in the matter. Being a
private arrangement not involving any third party, not informing the
co-operative housing society was also found to be of not much consequence. It also
observed that the Revenue has rested on merely doubting the genuineness of the
arrangement without probing the facts further. What was the total area, as well
as its composition / profile? How many family members, besides the assessee
(the owner) and the two ‘tenants’, were resided thereat? Has the area let out
been specified, allowing private space (a separate bedroom each) to the son and
the daughter who would in any case be also provided access to or use of the
common area – specified or not so in the agreement/s, viz. kitchen, balcony,
living area, bathrooms, etc.? How had the rent been received, in cash or
through a bank and, further, how had it been sourced, whether from the assessee
(or any other family member), or from the capital / income of the ‘tenants’?
Why was there no attempt even to inquire whether the arrangement was a
subsisting / continuing one, or confined to a year or two, strongly suggestive
in the latter case of a solely tax-motivated exercise?

 

The Tribunal held that it could, however, well be that the
assessee’s major son and daughter are financially independent (or substantially
so), with independent incomes, sharing the interest burden of their common
residence with their father. As such, instead of transferring funds to him have
decided by mutual agreement to give the amounts as rent as that would, apart
from meeting the interest burden to that extent, also allow tax saving to the
assessee-father. A genuine arrangement cannot be disregarded just because it
results in or operates to minimise the assessee’s tax liability. The Tribunal
found itself in agreement with the assessee’s claim inasmuch as there was
nothing on record to further the Revenue’s case of the arrangement not being a
genuine one, but just that it was an unusual one.

 

However, on quantum the Tribunal found the stand of the
assessee infirm. It held that the house property, that is, the family residence
of the Pathan family, was both a self-occupied and a let-out property in view
of the rent agreements. It observed that the interest claimed (Rs. 21.62 lakhs)
is qua the entire property, which therefore cannot be allowed in full
against the rental income, which is qua only a part of the house
property. The assessee’s interest claim therefore cannot be allowed in full and
shall have to be suitably proportioned, restricting the interest claim
relatable to the self-occupied part thereof to Rs. 1.50 lakhs as allowed. The
assessee shall provide a reasonable basis for such allocation as well as the
working of the area let out. It observed that it may well be that in view of
the joint residence, no area (portion) is specified in the rent agreements. The
number of family members living jointly; their living requirements – which may
not be uniform; fair rental value of the property; etc. are some of the
parameters which could be considered for the purpose. The Tribunal directed the
A.O. to adjudicate thereon per a speaking order, giving definite reasons for
being in disagreement, whether in whole or in part, with the assessee’s claim
within a reasonable time.

 

The Tribunal allowed this ground of appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 56 r/w Rule 11UA – Fair Market Value of shares on the basis of the valuation of various assets cannot be rejected where it has been demonstrated with evidence that the Fair Market Value of the assets is much more than the value shown in the balance sheet

22. [2019] 75 ITR (Trib.) 538 (Del.) India Convention & Culture Centre (P)
Ltd. vs. ITO ITA No. 7262/Del/2017
A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 27th September,
2019

 

Section 56 r/w Rule 11UA – Fair Market
Value of shares on the basis of the valuation of various assets cannot be
rejected where it has been demonstrated with evidence that the Fair Market
Value of the assets is much more than the value shown in the balance sheet

 

FACTS

The assessee company issued 70,00,000 equity
shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 5 per share. The assessee company had
changed land use from agricultural to institutional purposes owing to which the
value of the land increased substantially. It contended before the ITO to
consider the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the land instead of the book value for
the purpose of Rule 11UA. However, the ITO added the entire share premium by
invoking section 56(2)(viib). He computed the FMV of shares on the basis of
book value instead of FMV of land held by the assessee company while making an
addition u/s 56(2)(viib) r/w Rule 11UA.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O. The assessee then preferred
an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee took
refuge of clause (ii) of Explanation (a) to section 56(2)(viib). The counsel
for the assessee argued that the lower authorities have wrongly computed the fair
market value of the shares on the basis of the book value ignoring the fair
market value of the land held by the company; since the assessee had obtained
permission of the competent authority for change of land use from
‘agricultural’ to ‘institutional’ for art, culture and convention centre, its
market value increased substantially. The Tribunal, convinced by the fact of
increase in market value of land, held that valuation of the shares should be
made on the basis of various factors and not merely on the basis of financials,
and the substantiation of the fair market value on the basis of the valuation
done by the assessee simply cannot be rejected where the assessee has
demonstrated with evidence that the fair market value of the asset is much more
than the value shown in the balance sheet.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

 

Section 68 r/w/s 194J – Merely because an amount is reflected in Form 26AS, it cannot be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee where an error was made by a third person

21 [2019] 75 ITR (Trib.) 364 (Mum.) TUV India (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No. 6628/Mum/2017 A.Y.: 2011-12 Date of order: 20th August, 2019

 

Section 68 r/w/s 194J – Merely because an
amount is reflected in Form 26AS, it cannot be brought to tax in the hands of
the assessee where an error was made by a third person

 

FACTS

The assessee filed return of income,
claiming Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) of Rs. 6.02 crores whereas TDS appearing
in the AIR information was Rs. 6.33 crores. During the course of scrutiny
assessment, the ITO concluded that the assessee had not disclosed income
represented by the differential TDS of Rs. 30.88 lakhs. The income was
calculated by extrapolating the differential TDS amount (ten per cent of TDS
u/s 194J) and was taxed as undisclosed income in the hands of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A), claiming that the difference was mainly due to the error made by
one of the clients by wrongly furnishing Permanent Account Number (PAN) of the
assessee instead of that of one of their (other) clients. The assessee produced
all possible evidence to prove that the same was on account of a genuine error
made by its client. The CIT(A) deleted the addition partially and confirmed the
rest of the difference, on the ground that the same was irreconcilable.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee’s
client had erroneously quoted the assessee’s PAN in its TDS return owing to
which higher TDS was reflected in the assessee’s Form 26AS. However, the
assessee duly filed all the details to explain the difference between the TDS
amounts before the ITO during remand proceedings as well as before the CIT(A).

 

It produced evidence by way of emails
exchanged with its client to prove that the error took place while filing TDS
returns by the client. It also filed a revised TDS return as well as ledger
account of the client in the assessee’s books, as well as reconciliation
statements, and offered party-wise explanations. Thus, the assessee discharged
its primary onus as cast under the Income Tax laws.

 

Neither the ITO nor the CIT(A) conducted
necessary inquiries despite having all information in their possession
submitted by the assessee during appellate / remand proceedings.

 

It further observed that the assessee has no
control over the database of the Income-tax Department as is reflected in Form
No. 26AS and the best that the assessee could do is to offer bona fide
explanations for the differential which the assessee did in this case during
appellate / remand proceedings. The CIT(A) / ITO ought to have conducted
necessary inquiries to unravel the truth, but asking the assessee to do the
impossible is not warranted. No defects in the books of accounts are pointed
out by the authorities below nor were the books of accounts rejected by them.
No cogent incriminating material was brought on record by the authorities below
as evidence / to prove that the assessee has received / earned any income
outside its books of accounts.

 

Another important aspect which the Tribunal
considered was that though the principle of res judicata was not applicable
to assessment proceedings under Income tax law, from the assessment orders for
other assessment years indications can be drawn as to the behaviour pattern of
the taxpayer and modus operandi of the taxpayer adopted to defraud
Revenue / conceal income, if any. No such incriminating information is brought
on record by Revenue. Therefore, considering the totality of facts as well as
on the touchstone of preponderance of probabilities, the Tribunal held that no
additions to the income are warranted in the hands of the assessee on account
of the above difference.

 

The ground of appeal filed by the assessee
was allowed.

 

Section 45 – Amount received by assessee in its capacity as a partner of a firm from the other partners on account of reduction in profit-sharing ratio of the assessee, is a capital receipt not chargeable to tax

9. [2019] 116 taxmann.com 385 (Mum.) Anik Industries Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No. 7189/Mum/2014 A.Y.: 2010-11 Date of order: 19th March, 2020

 

Section 45 – Amount received by assessee in
its capacity as a partner of a firm from the other partners on account of
reduction in profit-sharing ratio of the assessee, is a capital receipt not
chargeable to tax

 

FACTS

The assessee was a partner in a partnership firm, namely
M/s Mahakosh Property Developers (the ‘firm’). The assessee was entitled to a
30% share in the profits of the firm. During the year, the assessee received a
sum of Rs. 400 lakhs on account of surrender of 5% share of profit (from 30% to
25%.) This sum was not included in the computation of total income on the
ground that the firm was reconstituted and a right was created in favour of the
existing partners. The existing partners whose share was increased, paid
compensation of Rs. 400 lakhs to the assessee.

The assessee relied
upon the decision of the Hon’ble Madras High Court in A.K. Sharfuddin vs.
CIT (1960 39 ITR 333)
for the proposition that compensation received by
a partner from another partner for relinquishing rights in the partnership firm
would be capital receipt and there would be no transfer of asset within the
meaning of section 45(4) of the Act. Reliance was placed on other decisions
also to submit that the provisions of sections 28(iv) and 41(2) shall have no application
to such receipts.

 

The A.O. held that
the said payment was nothing but consideration for intangible asset, i.e., the
loss of share of partner in the goodwill of the firm. Therefore, this amount
was to be charged as capital gains in terms of the decision of the Ahmedabad
Tribunal in Samir Suryakant Sheth vs. ACIT (ITA No. 2919 &
3092/Ahd/2002)
and the decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in Shri
Sudhakar Shetty (2011 130 ITD 197)
. Finally, the said amount was
brought to tax as capital gains u/s 45(1).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the A.O.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal,

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that the only issue that fell for its consideration was whether or not
the compensation received by an existing partner from other partners for
reduction in profit-sharing ratio would be chargeable to tax as capital gains
u/s 45(1).

 

As per the
provisions of section 45(1), any profits or gains arising from the transfer of
a capital asset effected in the previous year shall be chargeable to capital
gains tax. The Tribunal noted that the answer to the aforesaid question lies in
the decision of the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in CIT vs. P.N.
Panjawani (356 ITR 676)
wherein this question was elaborately examined
in the light of various judicial precedents.

 

The Tribunal noted
that the decision of the Karnataka High Court in P.N. Panjawani (Supra) also
takes note of the fact that the firm is not recognised as a legal entity but
the Income-tax Act recognises the firm as a distinct legally assessable entity
apart from its partners. A clear distinction has been made between the income
of the firm and the income of the partner. It is further noted that there is no
provision for levying capital gains on consideration received by the partner
for reduction in the share in the partnership firm. Upon perusal of paragraph
22 of the decision, it is quite discernible that the factual matrix is
identical in the present case. The aforesaid decision has been rendered after
considering the various case laws on the subject as rendered by the Hon’ble
Apex Court. The Tribunal found the decision to be applicable to the given
factual matrix.

 

The Tribunal held
that the compensation received by the assessee from the existing partners for
reduction in the profit-sharing ratio would not tantamount to capital gains
chargeable to tax u/s 45(1). It deleted the addition made and allowed the
appeal filed by the assessee.

Sections 2(14), 2(47), 45, 56 – Giving up of a right to claim specific performance by conveyance in respect of an immovable property amounts to relinquishment of capital asset. It is not necessary that in all such cases there should have been a lis pending between the parties and in such lis the right to specific performance has to be given up. The payment of consideration under the agreement of sale, for transfer of a capital asset, is the cost of acquisition of capital gains. Amount received in lieu of giving up the said right constitutes capital gains and is exigible to tax

16. [2020] 117
taxmann.com 520 (Bang.)(Trib.)
Chandrashekar
Naganagouda Patil vs. DCIT ITA No.
1984/Bang/2017
A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 29th
June, 2020

 

Sections 2(14),
2(47), 45, 56 – Giving up of a right to claim specific performance by
conveyance in respect of an immovable property amounts to relinquishment of
capital asset. It is not necessary that in all such cases there should have
been a lis pending between the parties and in such lis the right
to specific performance has to be given up. The payment of consideration under
the agreement of sale, for transfer of a capital asset, is the cost of
acquisition of capital gains. Amount received in lieu of giving up the
said right constitutes capital gains and is exigible to tax

 

FACTS

The assessee, an
individual, entered into an agreement dated 9th February, 2005 to
purchase a vacant site in Amanikere village, Bangalore for a consideration of
Rs. 27,60,000. He paid an advance of Rs. 2,75,000 and agreed to pay the balance
at the time of registration of sale deed. The vendor of the property was
required to make out a marketable title to the property. Under clause 8 of the
agreement, the assessee had a right to enforce the terms by way of specific
performance.

 

On 8th
February, 2011, Mr. Channakeshava as vendor, along with the assessee as a
confirming party, sold the property to a third party for a consideration of Rs.
82,80,000. The preamble to the sale deed stated that the assessee has been
added as a confirming party as he was the agreement holder who had a right to
obtain conveyance of the property from the owner. Out of the consideration of
Rs. 1,200 per sq. feet, a sum of Rs. 500 per sq. feet was to be paid to the
vendor, Mr. Channakeshava, and Rs. 700 per sq. feet was to be paid to the
assessee.

 

The assessee
considered the sale consideration of Rs. 48,30,000 so received under the head
capital gains. The A.O. was of the view that under the agreement dated 9th
February, 2005, the assessee did not have any right over the property except a
right to get refund of advance paid. Accordingly, he taxed Rs. 45,55,000 under
the head income from other sources.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O.
by observing that the assessee did not file any suit for specific performance
and did not have any right over the capital asset.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that
the Karnataka High Court has in the case of CIT vs. H. Anil Kumar [(2011)
242 CTR 537 (Kar.)]
held that the right to obtain a conveyance of
immovable property falls within the expression `property of any kind’ used in
section 2(14) and consequently it is a capital asset. The Tribunal held that
the right acquired under the agreement by the assessee has to be regarded as
‘capital asset’. Giving up of the right to claim specific performance by
conveyance in respect of an immovable property amounts to relinquishment of the
capital asset. Therefore, there was a transfer of capital asset within the
meaning of the Act. The payment of consideration under the agreement of sale,
for transfer of a capital asset, is the cost of acquisition of the capital
asset. Therefore, in lieu of giving up the said right, any amount
received constitutes capital gain and it is exigible to tax. It is not
necessary that in all such cases there should have been a lis between
the parties and in such lis the right to specific performance has to be
given up. The Tribunal held that the CIT(A) erred in holding that the assessee
did not file a suit for specific performance and therefore cannot claim the
benefit of the ratio laid down by the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in
the case of H. Anil Kumar (Supra).

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Sections 11, 12, 139, 148 – A failure on the part of the Trust to file its return of income u/s 139(4A) cannot lead to withdrawal of exemption under sections 11 and 12 – Having filed a return of income u/s 139, subsequently, where a return is furnished in response to notice u/s 148, it replaces the return filed u/s 139, including section 139(4A), and all the other provisions of the Act including sections 11 and 12 are applicable – There was no time limit prescribed for submission of return of income and audit report in respect of a Trust whose income before claiming the exemption exceeded the basic exemption limit Clause (ba) to Section 12A, which prescribes time limit for submission of return of income and audit report to be time available u/s 139(1), is effective from A.Y. 2018-19 and is prospective in its application

23. [2019] 202 TTJ (Del.) 928 United Educational Society vs. JCIT ITA Nos.
3674 & 3675/Del/2017 and 2733 & 2734/Del/2018
A.Ys.: 2006-2007 to 2009-2010 Date of order: 28th June, 2019

 

Sections 11, 12, 139, 148 – A failure on
the part of the Trust to file its return of income u/s 139(4A) cannot lead to
withdrawal of exemption under sections 11 and 12 – Having filed a return of
income u/s 139, subsequently, where a return is furnished in response to notice
u/s 148, it replaces the return filed u/s 139, including section 139(4A), and
all the other provisions of the Act including sections 11 and 12 are applicable
– There was no time limit prescribed for submission of return of income and
audit report in respect of a Trust whose income before claiming the exemption
exceeded the basic exemption limit

 

Clause (ba) to Section 12A, which
prescribes time limit for submission of return of income and audit report to be
time available u/s 139(1), is effective from A.Y. 2018-19 and is prospective in
its application

 

FACTS

The assessee was an educational society. The
A.O. had received information about huge investments made by the society in
land and building; however, no return of income had been filed. The A.O. issued
notice u/s 148, in response to which the assessee filed return of income
showing ‘nil’ income after application of section 11. There were two sets of
financial statements prepared, one for the purpose of obtaining loan and
another filed along with the return. In view of this, the A.O. ordered a
special audit to be carried out u/s 142(2A). Based on the report of the special
auditor, the A.O. made a computation of the total income of the society by
disallowing the benefit of exemption u/s 11. The income was assessed under the
head ‘Profits & Gains of Business or Profession’ and the assessee was
assessed in the status of an AOP.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who gave partial relief to the assessee.

 

Still aggrieved, the assessee preferred an
appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The A.O. had denied the benefit of exemption
of section 11 to the assessee on account of the fact that the assessee had not
filed its return of income pursuant to section 139(4A). The assessee was a
society which had been granted registration u/s 12A; it engaged in activities
which were within the meaning of charitable purpose, and once so registered,
the computation of income had to be made in accordance with the provisions of
sections 11 and 12.

 

The fact that the assessee had filed its
return in response to notice issued u/s 148 and not under the provisions of
section 139(4A) cannot be a reason for not granting the benefit of exemption.
Once a return of income is submitted under the provisions of section 148, it
replaces the return filed u/s 139 and all other provisions of the Act,
including sections 11 and 12, become applicable as if it was a return filed
under the provisions of section 139. For a return filed under the provisions of
section 148, the relevant provisions of section 139 have to be applied along
with the procedure for assessment and computation of income, without
restricting it to exclude any procedure. Therefore, the trust was entitled to
claim the exemption u/s 11 in computation of income.

 

Clause (b) of section 12A mandates that
provisions of sections 11 and 12 shall not apply unless the accounts are
audited and a return is filed along with the audited accounts. Thus, as and
when computation was done these conditions had to be complied with. The issue
of whether or not the return was filed in time is not relevant for clause (b)
of section 12A.

 

The Finance Act, 2017 has amended section
12A and a new clause has been inserted specifying the time limit in case of such
trusts to furnish their return of income and audit report within the time
specified in section 139(4A). These provisions are prospectively applicable
from A.Y. 2018-19 onwards and cannot be treated as clarificatory amendments.

 

Note: Clause (ba) to section 12A as inserted
by the Finance Act, 2017 prescribes that the return of income and tax audit
report has to be submitted by a trust within the time provided by section
139(1). Consequently, the ratio of this decision will not apply post
insertion of clause (ba), i.e. for assessment years 2017-18 and thereafter.

 

The grounds of appeal filed by the assessee
were allowed.

 

Rule 34 of the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal Rules – The period of 90 days prescribed in Rule 34(5) needs to be computed by excluding the period during which lockdown was in force

15. [2020] 116 taxmann.com 565 (Mum.)(Trib.) DCIT vs. JSW Ltd. ITA Nos. 6103 & 6264/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 14th May, 2020

 

Rule 34 of the Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal Rules – The period of 90 days prescribed in Rule 34(5) needs to be
computed by excluding the period during which lockdown was in force

 

FACTS

In this case, the hearing of the appeal was concluded on 7th
January, 2020 whereas the order was pronounced on 14th May, 2020,
i.e. much after the expiry of 90 days from the date of conclusion of hearing.
The Tribunal, in the order, suo motu dealt with the procedural issue of
the order having been pronounced after the expiry of 90 days of the date of
conclusion of the hearing. The Tribunal noted the provisions of Rule 34(5) and
dealt with the same.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted
that Rule 34(5) was inserted as a result of the directions of the Bombay High
Court in the case of Shivsagar Veg Restaurant vs. ACIT [(2009) 317 ITR
433 (Bom.)]
. In the rule so framed as a result of these directions, the
expression ‘ordinarily’ has been inserted in the requirement to pronounce the
order within a period of 90 days. It observed that the question then arises
whether the passing of this order beyond 90 days was necessitated by any
‘extraordinary’ circumstances.

It also took note of the prevailing unprecedented situation and the
order dated 6th May, 2020 read with the order dated 23rd
March, 2020 passed by the Apex Court, extending the limitation to exclude not
only this lockdown period but also a few more days prior to, and after, the
lockdown by observing that ‘In case the limitation has expired after 15th
March, 2020 then the period from 15th March, 2020 till the date
on which the lockdown is lifted in the jurisdictional area where the dispute
lies or where the cause of action arises shall be extended for a period of 15
days after the lifting of lockdown
’.

 

The Tribunal also
noted that the Hon’ble Bombay High Court, in an order dated 15th
April, 2020 has, besides extending the validity of all interim orders, also
observed that, ‘It is also clarified that while calculating time for
disposal of matters made time-bound by this Court, the period for which the
order dated 26th March, 2020 continues to operate shall be added and
time shall stand extended accordingly’,
and also observed that the
‘arrangement continued by an order dated 26th March, 2020 till 30th
April, 2020 shall continue further till 15th June, 2020
’.

 

The extraordinary
steps taken suo motu by the Hon’ble jurisdictional High Court and the
Hon’ble Supreme Court also indicate that this period of lockdown cannot be
treated as an ordinary period during which the normal time limits are to remain
in force.

 

The Tribunal held
that even without the words ‘ordinarily’, in the light of the above analysis of
the legal position, the period during which lockout was in force is to be
excluded for the purpose of time limits set out in Rule 34(5) of the Appellate
Tribunal Rules, 1963.

 

The order was
pronounced under Rule 34(4) of the Income Tax (Appellate Tribunal) Rules, 1962,
by placing the details on the notice board.

 

Section 143(3), CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016 – Assessment order passed upon conversion of case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny, in violation of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016, is a nullity

14. TS-279-ITAT-2020 (Delhi) Dev Milk Foods Pvt. Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT ITA No. 6767/Del/2019 A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 12th June, 2020

 

Section 143(3), CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016
– Assessment order passed upon conversion of case from limited scrutiny to
complete scrutiny, in violation of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016, is a nullity

 

FACTS

For assessment year
2015-16, the assessee filed its return of income declaring a total income of
Rs. 19,44,88,700. The case was selected for limited scrutiny through CASS.

 

In the assessment
order, the A.O. stated that the assessee’s case was selected for limited
scrutiny with respect to long-term capital gains but it was noticed that the
assessee had claimed a short-term capital loss of Rs. 4,20,94,764 which had
been adjusted against the long-term capital gains. The A.O. was of the view
that the loss claimed by the assessee appeared to be suspicious in nature
primarily because the loss could possibly have been created to reduce the
incidence of tax on long-term capital gains shown by the assessee. The A.O.
further stated in the assessment order that in order to verify this aspect,
approval of the Learned Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT) was taken
to convert the case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny and that the
assessee was also intimated about the change in status of the case.

 

The A.O. held that
the purchase of shares did not take place and the transactions were sham in
view of documentary evidence, circumstantial evidence, human conduct and
preponderance of probabilities. He observed that the entire exercise was a
device to avoid tax. The A.O. completed the assessment u/s 143(3) after making
an addition of Rs. 4,20,94,764 on account of disallowance of short-term capital
loss, Rs. 8,41,895 for alleged unexplained expenditure on commission, and Rs.
1,93,20,000 on account of difference in computation of long-term capital gains.
Thus, the total income was computed by the A.O. at Rs. 25,67,43,360.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the additions made by the
A.O. on merits.

 

The assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal challenging the validity of the order
passed by the A.O. inter alia on the ground that the return was
primarily selected for limited scrutiny only on the limited issue of long-term
capital gains (LTCG) on which aspect, as per the order of the CIT(A), there
remains no existing addition, and conversion of limited scrutiny to complete
scrutiny was on mere suspicion only and for verification only, on the basis of
invalid approval of the PCIT-3; consequently, the entire addition on account of
disallowance of short-term capital loss of Rs. 4,20,94,764 and Rs. 8,41,895 as
alleged unexplained commission expense is not as per CBDT instructions (refer
Instruction Nos. 19 and 20/2015 of 29th December, 2015) on the
subject and is ultra vires of the provisions of the Act.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, on
perusal of the instructions issued by CBDT vide its letter No. DGIT
VIF/HQ SI/2017-18 dated 30th November, 2017, observed that the
objective behind the issuance of these instructions is to (i) prevent the
possibility of fishing and roving inquiries; (ii) ensure maximum objectivity;
and (iii) enforce checks and balances upon the powers of an A.O.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the proposal drafted by the A.O. on 5th October, 2017
for converting the case from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny and the
original order sheet entries, do not have an iota of any cogent material
mentioned by the A.O. which enabled him to reach the conclusion that this was a
fit case for conversion from limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny.

 

Examining the
proposal of the A.O. of 5th October, 2017 and the approval of the
PCIT dated 10th October, 2017 on the anvil of paragraph 3 of CBDT
Instruction No. 5/2016, the Tribunal held that no reasonable view is formed as
mandated in the said Instruction in an objective manner, and secondly, merely
suspicion and inference is the foundation of the view of the A.O. The Tribunal
also noted that no direct nexus has been brought on record by the A.O. in the
said proposal and, therefore, it was very much apparent that the proposal of
converting the limited scrutiny to complete scrutiny was merely aimed at making
fishing inquiries. It also noted that the PCIT accorded the approval in a
mechanical manner which is in clear violation of the CBDT Instruction No.
20/2015.

The Tribunal noted
that the co-ordinate bench of the ITAT at Chandigarh in the case of Payal
Kumari
in ITA No. 23/Chd/2011, vide order dated 24th
February, 2011
has held that even section 292BB of the Act cannot save
the infirmity arising from infraction of CBDT Instructions dealing with the
subject of scrutiny assessments where an assessment has been framed in direct
conflict with the guidelines issued by the CBDT.

 

In this case, the
Tribunal held that the instant conversion of the case from limited scrutiny to
complete scrutiny cannot be upheld as the same is found to be in total violation
of CBDT Instruction No. 5/2016. Accordingly, the entire assessment proceedings
do not have any leg to stand on. The Tribunal held the assessment order to be
null and quashed the same.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 5 – When an assessee had an obligation to perform something and the assessee had not performed those obligations, nor does he even seem to be in a position to perform those obligations, a partial payment for fulfilling those obligations cannot be treated as income in the hands of the assessee

13. [2020] 116
taxmann.com 898 (Mum.)
ITO vs. Newtech
(India) Developers ITA No.
3251/Mum/2018
A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 27th
May, 2020

 

Section 5 – When
an assessee had an obligation to perform something and the assessee had not
performed those obligations, nor does he even seem to be in a position to
perform those obligations, a partial payment for fulfilling those obligations
cannot be treated as income in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee, under
the joint venture agreement entered into by it with Shivalik Ventures Pvt.
Ltd., was to receive Rs. 5.40 crores on account of development rights from the
joint venture and this payment was to be entirely funded by Shivalik Ventures
Pvt. Ltd., the other participant in the joint venture. Out of this amount, the
assessee was paid Rs. 86.40 lakhs at the time of entering into the joint
venture agreement, Rs. 226.80 lakhs was to be paid on ‘obtaining IOA and
commencement certificate’ by the joint venture, and Rs. 226.80 lakhs was to be
paid upon ‘all the slum-dwellers vacating said property and shifting to
alternate temporary transit accommodation.’

 

In terms of the
arrangement the amount of Rs. 86.40 lakhs was to be treated as an advance until
the point of time when at least 25% of the slum-dwellers occupying the said
property vacated the premises. The agreement also provided that in case the
assessee was unable to get at least 25% of the slum-dwellers occupying the said
property to vacate the occupied property in five years, the entire money will
have to be refunded to Shivalik Ventures Pvt. Ltd., though without any
interest, within 60 days of the completion of the five years’ time limit.
However, even till the time the re-assessment proceedings were going on, the
assessee had not been able to get the occupants of the property to vacate it.
In the financial statements, the amount of Rs. 86,40,000 received was reflected
as advance received.

 

The assessee was of
the view that no income has arisen in the hands of the assessee in respect of
the above-mentioned transaction. However, the A.O. was of the view that under
the mercantile method of accounting followed by the assessee, the transactions
are recognised as and when they take place and under this method, the revenue
is recorded when it is earned and the expenses are reported when they are
incurred. He held that the assessee has already received an amount of Rs.
86,40,000 during the year and the balance amount will be received by him in
instalments after the fulfilment of the conditions as mentioned in the
agreement. As regards the agreement terms, the A.O. was of the view that since
the stipulation about the payment being treated as an advance till at least 25%
occupants have vacated the property was by way of a modification agreement, it
was nothing but a colourable device to evade taxes.

 

The A.O., in an
order passed u/s 147 r/w/s 143(3) of the Act, taxed the entire amount of Rs. 5,40,00,000
in the year under consideration.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the crux of the issue
was whether income had accrued to the assessee. The basic concept is that the
assessee should have acquired a right to receive the income. Drawing support
from the decisions of the Tribunal in R & A Corporate Consultants
India vs. ACIT (ITA No. 222/Hyd/2012)
and K.K. Khullar vs. Deputy
Commissioner of Income Tax – 2008 (1) TMI 447 – ITAT Delhi-I
, the
CIT(A) held that income can be considered to accrue or arise only when the
assessee is able to evacuate 25% slum-dwellers as per the agreement / deed. If
the assessee is unable to comply with this, the assessee will have to return
the sum to Shivalik.

 

The Revenue was
aggrieved by this and preferred an appeal to the Tribunal,

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that –

i)   the payment to be received by the assessee
was for performance of its obligations under the joint venture agreement;

ii)   when an assessee had an obligation to perform
something and the assessee had not performed those obligations, nor did he even
seem to be in a position to perform those obligations, it cannot be said that a
partial payment for fulfilling the obligations can be treated as income in the
hands of the assessee;

iii)  it was a composite agreement and, irrespective
of whether the modifications are looked at or not, all the terms of the
agreement are to be read in conjunction with each other;

iv)  what essentially flows from the decision of
the Apex Court in E.D. Sassoon & Co. Ltd. vs. CT [(1954) 36 ITR 27
(SC)]
is that a receipt cannot have an income character in the hands of
the person who is still to perform the obligations, if the amount to be
received is for performance of such obligations;

v)  since the obligations of the assessee under
the joint venture agreement are not yet performed, there cannot be any occasion
to bring the consideration for performance of such obligations to tax;

vi)  the very foundation of the impugned taxability
is thus devoid of any legally sustainable basis.

 

As regards the
supplementary agreement, it observed that even if the same were to be
disregarded, income could accrue only on performance of obligations under the
joint venture agreement. In any case, it cannot be open to the A.O. to
disregard the supplementary, or modification whichever way one terms it, only
because its result is clear and unambiguous negation of tax liability in the
hands of the assessee. It also observed that whether the amount is actually
refunded or not, nothing turns on that aspect either.

 

Under the terms of
the joint venture agreement, the assessee was to receive the payment for
performance of its obligations under the agreement and in view of the
uncontroverted stand of the assessee that the obligations have not been
performed till date, the Tribunal held that the income in question never
accrued to the assessee.

The Tribunal held
that the taxability of Rs. 5.40 crores, on account of what is alleged to be
transfer of development rights, is wholly devoid of merits.

 

The appeal filed by
the Revenue was dismissed.

 

Sections 200A, 234E – Prior to amendment of section 200A, with effect from 1st June, 2015, late fee leviable u/s 234E for default in furnishing TDS statement could not be effected in course of intimation while processing TDS statement u/s 200A

12 [2019] 111 taxmann.com 493 (Trib.)(Del.) D.D. Motors vs. DCIT (CPC – TDS) ITA No. 956/Del/2017 A.Y.: 2013-14 Date of order: 18th October, 2019

 

Sections 200A, 234E – Prior to amendment of
section 200A, with effect from 1st June, 2015, late fee leviable u/s
234E for default in furnishing TDS statement could not be effected in course of
intimation while processing TDS statement u/s 200A

 

FACTS

The assessee firm, formed in July, 2012, for
the first time deducted tax at source amounting to Rs. 34,486 in the fourth
quarter of the financial year 2012-13. The amount of tax so deducted was paid
before the due date. However, TDS return was filed on 12th
September, 2013 instead of before the due date of 15th May, 2013.
Vide intimation dated 11th February, 2014, u/s 200A of the Act, a
fee of Rs. 24,000 u/s 234E @ Rs. 200 for the delay of 120 days was charged.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) against the levy of the late fee but the appeal was dismissed. It was contended that prior to 1st June, 2015, late
fee u/s 234E could not be levied while processing u/s 200A.

The assessee filed an appeal to the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that section 200A has
been inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2010 and section 234E w.e.f. 1st
July, 2012. It also noted that it is only w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 that
there is an amendment to section 200A permitting making of an adjustment of
fee, if any, u/s 234E. It observed that at the relevant time when the impugned
intimation u/s 200A was made there was no enabling provision therein for
raising a demand in respect of levy of fees u/s 234E.

 

The Tribunal held that while examining the
correctness of the intimation u/s 200A, it has to be guided by the limited
mandate of section 200A. Except for what has been stated in section 200A, no
other adjustments in the amount refundable to, or recoverable from, the tax
deductor were permissible in accordance with the law as it existed at that
point of time. The adjustment in respect of levy of fees u/s 234E was indeed
beyond the scope of permissible adjustments contemplated u/s 200A.

 

Further, the Tribunal observed that this
intimation is an appealable order u/s 246A (a) and, therefore, the learned
CIT(A) ought to have examined the legality of the adjustment made under this
intimation in the light of the scope of section 200A. The CIT(A) has not done
so. He has justified the levy of fees on the basis of the provisions of section
234E. But that is not the issue here. The issue is whether such a levy could be
effected in the course of intimation u/s 200A. The answer is clearly in the
negative. No other provision enabling a demand in respect of this levy has been
pointed out to us and it is, thus, an admitted position that in the absence of
the enabling provision u/s 200A, no such levy could be effected.

 

The Tribunal observed that a similar view
has been taken by the Coordinate Benches of Chennai, Ahmedabad and Amritsar.

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed. The Tribunal deleted the fee levied u/s 234E.

Section 54 – Investment, for purchase of new residential house, made up to date of filing of revised return of income qualifies for exemption u/s. 54

15

[2019] 104 taxmann.com 303 (Mum.)

Rajendra Pal Verma vs. ACIT

ITA No. 6814/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2013-14

Dated: 12th March, 2019

 

Section 54 – Investment, for
purchase of new residential house, made up to date of filing of revised return
of income qualifies for exemption u/s. 54

 

FACTS

The
assessee e-filed his return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 on 31.03.2013.
Thereafter, he revised his return on 15.11.2014. In the course of assessment
proceedings, the A.O. observed that the assessee had sold a residential flat
and had claimed the entire long term capital gain of Rs. 1.75 crores as exempt
us. 54 of the Act.

 

The A.O.
observed that the assessee entered into an agreement dated 29.12.2014 with the
builder for the purchase of a new residential house. The agreement provided
that the construction of the house would be completed by September, 2017. The
A.O. also observed that the assessee had 
neither invested the capital gains in the purchase of a new house, nor
had he deposited the amount in a capital gains account as required by section
54(2). Accordingly, the A.O. disallowed the claim for exemption u/s. 54 of the
Act.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) who allowed the exemption to
the extent of investment made for purchase of new residential house up to the
due date of filing of the return of income as envisaged u/s. 139(1). He
restricted the claim of exemption to Rs. 83.72 lakhs. Still aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal, on examining the provisions of section 54, observed that on a plain
and literal interpretation of section 54(2), it can be gathered that the
conscious, purposive and intentional wording provided by the legislature of
“date of furnishing the return of income u/s. 139” cannot be
substituted and narrowed down to section 139(1) of the Act. It held that the
date of furnishing the return of income u/s. 139 would safely encompass within
its sweep the time limit provided for filing the “return of income” by the
assessee u/s. 139(4) as well as the revised return filed by him u/s. 139(5).

 

The
Tribunal noted that the question as to whether an assessee would be eligible to
claim exemption u/s. 54 to the extent he had invested in the new residential
property up to the date on which he had filed the revised return of income had
been looked into by a co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO
vs. Pamela Pritam Ghosh [ITA No. 5644(Mum.) of 2016, dated 27.06.2018]
.
The Tribunal in that case had observed that the due date for furnishing the
return of income according to section 139(1) was subject to the extended period
provided under sub-section (4) of section 139.

 

The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to claim exemption u/s.
54 to the extent he had invested towards purchase of new residential property
up to the date of filing revised return u/s. 139(5) [on 15.11.201]. As the
assessee had invested Rs. 2.49 crores towards purchase of the new residential
house up to that date (date of filing of revised return u/s. 139(5)) which is
in excess of long term capital gain, the entire long term capital gain was held
to be exempt u/s. 54. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Corrigendum:  In
the March 2019 issue of BCAJ, in the feature Tribunal News – Part A, the line “The
appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed by the Tribunal”
appearing on
page 56 in the decision at Serial No. 31 – should correctly read as “This
ground of appeal filed by the revenue was allowed by the Tribunal.”

Section 263 – If a matter is examined by the Assessing Officer during the course of assessment and consciously accepts the plea of the assessee, the order can still be subjected to revision u/s. 263 of the Act if the view adopted by the A.O. is unsustainable in law

14

[2019] 104 taxmann.com 155 (Ahmedabad)

Babulal S. Solanki vs. ITO

ITA No. 3943/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2012-13

Dated: 4th March, 2019

 

Section 263 – If a matter is
examined by the Assessing Officer during the course of assessment and
consciously accepts the plea of the assessee, the order can still be subjected
to revision u/s. 263 of the Act if the view adopted by the A.O. is
unsustainable in law

 

FACTS

The
Commissioner, on verification of assessment records of the assessee, observed
that while computing capital gains from transfer of land by the assessee, sale
consideration was taken instead of the jantri value, which was higher,
and therefore the difference between the jantri value and sale
consideration remained untaxed. He opined that the assessment order passed by
the A.O. was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

 

The
assessee, however, submitted that this aspect was specifically examined by the
A.O. and his claim was allowed after due verification of the records and
details pertaining to the sale of land.

 

The Commissioner
did not accept the contention of the assessee and held that since there was no
mention by the A.O. as to why the stamp duty value was not adopted as full
value of consideration, the matter was not examined and thus he directed the
revision of the assessment order u/s. 263 of the Act. Aggrieved, the assessee
preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal noted the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Malabar
Industrial Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (243 ITR 83)
wherein it was held that where
two views are possible and the ITO has taken one view with which the
Commissioner does not agree, it cannot be treated as an erroneous order
prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue unless the view taken by the ITO is
unsustainable in law.

 

The
Tribunal held that even if the matter was examined by the A.O. and it was his
conscious call to accept the plea of the assessee, such a situation would not
take the matter outside the purview of section 263 as the view adopted by the
A.O. in the present case was clearly unsustainable in law.

 

Further,
the Tribunal observed that the Commissioner had directed examination of the
claim on merits and therefore the revision order of the Commissioner did not
call for any interference.

 

The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

Section 54 r.w.s. 139 – Assessee would be entitled to claim exemption u/s 54 to extent of having invested capital gain on sale of old residential flat towards purchase of new residential property up to date of filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5)

24.  [2019] 199 TTJ
(Mum.) 873

Rajendra Pal Verma vs. ACIT

ITA No.: 6814/Mum/2016

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of order: 12th March, 2019

 

Section 54 r.w.s. 139 – Assessee would be entitled to claim
exemption u/s 54 to extent of having invested capital gain on sale of old
residential flat towards purchase of new residential property up to date of
filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5)

 

FACTS

The assessee had e-filed
his return of income on 31st July, 2013. Thereafter, the assessee
filed a revised return of income on 15th November, 2014. The AO
observed that the assessee had during the year under consideration sold an old
residential flat and the entire long-term capital gain (LTCG) on the sale of
the old flat was claimed as exempt u/s 54. The assessee had purchased a new
residential flat as per an agreement dated 29th December, 2014 with
the builder / developer, as per which the construction of the property was
expected to be completed by September, 2017. However, the AO observed that the
assessee had failed to substantiate his claim of exemption u/s 54 amounting to
Rs. 1.75 crores; hence he declined to allow the same.

 

Aggrieved by the order, the assessee preferred an appeal to
the CIT(A). The CIT(A) was of the view that the assessee was entitled for claim
of exemption u/s 54 only to the extent he had invested the LTCG up to the due
date of filing of his return of income for the year under consideration, i.e.,
assessment year 2013-14 as envisaged u/s 139(1), therefore, he had restricted
his claim for exemption up to the amount of Rs. 83.72 lakhs.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that on a perusal of section 54(2), it
emerges that the assessee in order to claim exemption u/s 54 remains under an
obligation to appropriate the amount of the capital gain towards purchase of
the new asset as per the stipulated conditions of section 54.Where the capital
gain was not appropriated by the assessee towards purchase or construction of
the residential property up to the date of filing of the return of income u/s
139, then in such a case the entitlement of the assessee to claim the exemption
by making an investment towards purchase or construction of the new asset would
be available, though subject to the condition that the assessee had deposited
the amount of such capital gain in the CGAS account with the specified bank by
the due date contemplated u/s 139(1). Further, in case any part of the capital
gain had already been utilised by the assessee for the purchase or construction
of the new asset, the amount of such utilisation along with the amount so
deposited would be deemed to be the cost of the new asset.

 

On the basis of the
aforesaid deliberations, it was viewed that the outer limit for the purchase or
construction of the new asset as per sub-section (2) of section 54 was the date
of furnishing of the return of income by the assessee u/s 139. It was viewed
that the date of furnishing of the return of income u/s 139 would safely
encompass within its sweep the time limit provided for filing of the return of
income by the assessee u/s 139(4) as well as the revised return filed by him
u/s 139(5). It was found that the instant case clearly fell within the sweep of
the aforementioned first limb, i.e., sub-section (1) of section 54. As the
assessee in the instant case had utilised an amount of Rs. 2.49 crores (i.e.,
much in excess of the amount of LTCG on sale of the residential property) up
till the date of filing of his revised return of income u/s 139(5) on 15th
November, 2014, therefore, his claim of exemption u/s 54 in respect of the
investment made towards the purchase of the new residential property up to the
date of filing of the revised return of income u/s 139(5) was found to be in
order.

 

Therefore, the assessee in the instant case was entitled to
claim exemption u/s 54 to the extent he had invested towards the purchase of
the new residential property under consideration up to the date of filing of
his revised return of income u/s 139(5), i.e., on 15th
November,  2014.

Section 48 – Legal and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while computing capital gains

5. [2019] 103
taxmann.com 297 (Mum)
AIG Offshore
Systems Services Inc. vs. ACIT ITA No.:
6715/Mum/2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated:  18th January, 2019

 

Section 48 – Legal
and professional expenditure incurred by assessee, a foreign company, for sale
of shares of its Indian subsidiary is an expenditure incurred wholly and
exclusively in connection with transfer and is allowable as deduction while
computing capital gains

 

FACTS


During the previous
year relevant to the assessment year in dispute, the assessee, a foreign
company, carrying on activities as a Foreign Institutional Investor, sold
shares held by it in its Indian subsidiary and offered long-term capital gains
arising from sale of shares of the Indian subsidiary.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the
assessee had claimed deduction of expenditure incurred towards transfer of
shares. The assessee submitted that the said expenditure represented legal /
professional fees paid to lawyers / accounting firms for assisting in transfer
of shares. The AO, however, held that:

 

(i)   the expenditure claimed by the assessee was
not of such nature that without incurring those expenses sale of shares could
not have been done;

(ii)   the objective behind incurring the expenses
was to optimise the economic value of the business and not for the purpose of
transfer of shares; and

(iii)  the documentary evidences relied upon by the
assessee also did not mention the name of the buyer.

 

The AO disallowed
the assessee’s claim for deduction of expenditure while computing capital
gains.

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the disallowance by
holding that the expenditure incurred is in the nature of business expenditure.

 

Still feeling
aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
relying on various decisions, held that expenditure which is intrinsically
connected to the transfer of a capital asset is allowable as deduction u/s.
48(i) of the Act. On a perusal of the documents filed by the assessee, the
Tribunal observed that the expenses were towards advice on sale of entire
shareholding, preparation of share / sale / purchase agreement, preparation of
closing documents including board resolution, share transfer forms, etc., and
were therefore for the transfer of shares. The Tribunal held that it was clear
from the scope of the work that the services rendered by the legal /
professional firm was intrinsically related to transfer of shares of the Indian
subsidiary and therefore the expenditure qualified for deduction u/s. 48(i).
The Tribunal also held that non-mentioning of the name of the buyer did not, in
any way, militate against the fact that the expenditure incurred by the
assessee on account of legal and professional fees was in connection with the
transfer of shares.

 

The appeal of the
assessee was allowed by the Tribunal.

Section 251 – Power of enhancement conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not subject matter of assessment

12. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 261 (Jaipur) Zuberi Engineering Company vs. DCIT ITA Nos.: 977-979/JPR/2018 A.Y.s: 2012-13 to 2014-15 Dated: 21st December, 2018

 

Section 251 – Power of enhancement
conferred on CIT(A) can be exercised only on the issue which is the subject
matter of the assessment. The CIT (Appeals), even while exercising its power
for enhancement u/s. 251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not
subject matter of assessment

 

FACTS


The assessee was a
partnership firm and a contractor engaged in erection and fabrication work. The
assessment was completed making disallowances of various expenses claimed by
the assessee. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) enhanced the assessment by
rejecting books of accounts and estimating higher net profit. On further appeal
to the Tribunal, the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s appeal and held as under.

 

HELD


The power of
Commissioner (Appeals) to enhance an assessment exists in section 251. However,
this power can be exercised only on the issue which is a subject matter of the
assessment. In the instant case, the issue of not accepting the books of
accounts was never taken up by the Assessing Officer in the scrutiny
proceedings. Therefore, the same did not constitute the subject matter of the
assessment. Consequently, it is beyond the scope of the power of enhancement
available with Commissioner (Appeals).

 

It is a settled proposition of law that the
Commissioner (Appeals), even while exercising the power for enhancement u/s.
251, cannot bring a new source of income which was not a subject matter of the
assessment. An issue or claim discussed / taken up in the course of assessment
proceedings becomes the subject matter of assessment but all the probable
issues that are capable of being taken up for scrutiny but are not so taken up
can at most collectively constitute scope of assessment, for which Commissioner
(Appeals) cannot exercise power of enhancement.

 

However, the
Commissioner can exercise revisionary powers in respect of the same subject to
fulfilment of conditions specified u/s. 263. Thus, in the instant case, since
the issue of rejection of books of accounts was not the subject matter of
assessment, the Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) qua
the issue of the power of the Commissioner (Appeals) to reject the books of
accounts.

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

11. (2019) 69 ITR (Trib) 79 (Amritsar) Thakur Raj Kumar vs. DCIT ITA No.: 766/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2014-2015 Dated: 29th November, 2018

 

Even in a limited scrutiny case there is no
bar on the AO as regards adjudication of issues raised by the assessee

 

FACTS


The assessee’s case was selected for complete scrutiny under
Computer-Assisted Scrutiny Selection. However, later, it was converted to
limited scrutiny to examine an issue pertaining to capital gains on securities.
The assessee had sold an agricultural land and offered relevant capital gains
to tax. However, in the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee made a
fresh claim to substitute the cost of acquisition of the land claimed by him in
return of income, for another value. The AO denied his claim citing that the
scrutiny being a limited one, he had no jurisdiction to discuss and pass
judgment on issues not covered within the reasons of scrutiny and the only
recourse available to the assessee was to file a revised return. On appeal to
Commissioner (Appeals), the issue was decided against the assessee. The
assessee therefore preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that though the AO has no jurisdiction to touch upon issues which are not a
subject matter of limited scrutiny, however, there is no bar to adjudicate the
issues raised by the assessee. This is because an AO is obliged to make correct
assessment in accordance with provisions of the law. Further, in terms of
Circular No. 14 dated 11.04.1955, the department cannot take advantage of
ignorance of the assessee to collect more tax than what is legitimately due.

 

The matter was,
thus, remanded to the file of the Assessing Officer to adjudicate the
assessee’s claim. Though the decision in Goetz (India) Limited vs. CIT
(2006) 284 ITR 323(SC)
was relied on by the D.R., the same does not seem to
be discussed by the Tribunal.

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration received from the transfer of original asset or not

10. (2019) 198 TTJ (Mum) 370 Hansa Shah vs. ITO ITA No.: 607/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated : 5th October, 2018

 

Section 54 – An assessee is entitled to
claim deduction u/s. 54 if he purchases a new house property one year before or
two years after the date of transfer of the original asset, irrespective of the
fact whether money invested in purchase of new house property is out of sale consideration
received from the transfer of original asset or not

 

FACTS


During the year,
the assessee had sold a flat jointly held with others and declared her share of
capital gain at Rs. 55,82,426. However, she claimed deduction of the capital
gain u/s. 54 of the Act towards investment made of Rs. 98,90,358 in purchase of
a new flat. The AO noted that the investment of Rs. 98,90,358 included housing
loan of Rs. 50 lakh availed from Citibank. The assessee submitted that the
housing loan was not utilised for the purchase of the new house. The assessee
had produced the loan sanction letter of the bank as well as bank statement to
demonstrate that the housing loan was disbursed much after the purchase of the
new house by the assessee. In fact, the assessee had also explained the source
of funds utilised in the purchase of the new house. However, the AO rejected
the claim of the assessee and reduced the housing loan from the cost of the new
house and allowed the balance amount of Rs. 48,93,358 towards deduction u/s. 54
of the Act. Accordingly, he made an addition of Rs. 6,92,068 towards long-term
capital gain.

 

Aggrieved by the
assessment order, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A)
sustained the addition made by the AO.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that even assuming that the housing loan was utilised
for the purpose of purchase of new house property, it needed to be examined
whether by the reason of utilisation of housing loan in purchase of new house
property, the assessee would not be eligible to claim deduction u/s. 54 of the
Act. For this purpose, it was necessary to look into the provisions of section
54. On a careful reading of the aforesaid provision as a whole and more
particularly sub-section (1) of section 54 of the Act, it became clear that the
only condition which required to be fulfilled was, one year before or two years
after the date of transfer of the original asset the assessee must have
purchased the new house property.

 

In case the logic of the department that for availing deduction the
consideration received by the assessee from the sale of the original asset had
to be utilised for investment in the new house property was accepted, the
provision of section 54(1) would become redundant because such a situation
would never arise in case assessee purchased the new house property one year
before the date of transfer of new asset.

 

Thus, on a plain
interpretation of section 54(1) of the Act, it had to be concluded that if the
assessee purchased a new house property one year before or two years after the
date of transfer of the original asset, he was entitled to claim deduction u/s.
54 of the Act irrespective of the fact whether money invested in the purchase
of the new house property was out of the sale consideration received from transfer
of original asset or not. In the present case, the assessee had purchased the
new house property within the stipulated period of two years from the date of
transfer of the original asset. That being the case, the assessee was eligible
to avail deduction u/s. 54 of the Act.

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 – Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148, requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled

9. [2019] 198 TTJ (Chd) 498 Genius Education Society vs. ACIT ITA No.: 238/Chd/2018 A.Y.: 
2012-13 Dated: 20th August, 2018

     

Section 12A read with section 11 and 12 –
Where return of income had been filed in response to notice u/s. 148,
requirement u/s. 12A filing of return of income stood fulfilled


FACTS


The assessee applied for registration u/s. 10(23C)(vi) which was denied
by the Chief Commissioner. The assessee had also applied for registration as a
charitable society u/s. 12AA on the same day which was granted by the Principal
Commissioner, with effect from 01.04.2012 effective from assessment year
2013-14. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that for the impugned
assessment year, no return of income had been filed by the assessee and the
assessee’s application for approval u/s. 10(23C)(vi) had been rejected.
Consequently, reopening proceedings were initiated by issuing notice under section
148. In response to the same, the assessee filed Nil return of income. During
assessment proceedings, the assessee contended that having been granted
registration u/s. 12AA effective from assessment year 2013-14, the benefit of
the same was available to it in the impugned year also by virtue of the first
proviso to section 12A(2).

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the order of the
AO, holding that benefit of second proviso was not available to the assessee since
in the present case the assessee was ineligible to claim exemption not on
account of absence of registration u/s. 12A, but because of the fact that
assessee had failed to file its return of income and report of audit, as
required under the provisions of section 12A(b).

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that it was not the case of the Revenue that the reopening was valid on the
ground of absence of registration u/s. 12A for the impugned year, therefore
making its income taxable. In fact, the CIT(A) had accepted that reopening
could not have been resorted to on account of absence of registration u/s.12A
for the impugned year on account of the second proviso to section 12A(2).
Therefore, the contention of the assessee on this count was accepted by the
Revenue. But the argument of the Revenue was that because the assessee failed
to comply with the conditions of section 12A(1)(b) which was necessary for
claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12, its income for the impugned year was
taxable, which had thus escaped assessment and, therefore, the reopening was
valid. The said conditions, as pointed out by the CIT(A), were the filing of
return of income accompanied with the report of an auditor in the prescribed
form.

 

The requirement of filing of return of income and the report of audit
have been specified for being eligible for claiming exemption u/s. 11 and 12
along with the grant of registration u/s. 12AA. The section nowhere prescribed
the filing of return by any due date, therefore the findings of the CIT(A) that
the assessee having not filed its return within the prescribed time it had
failed to comply with the requirement prescribed, was not tenable. As for the
requirement of filing report of audit in the prescribed form, the said
condition has been held by courts to be merely procedural and, therefore,
directory in nature and not mandatory for the purpose of claiming exemption
u/s. 11 and 12.

 

Therefore, in view
of the above, no merit was found in the argument of the Revenue that the
assessee was not eligible for exemption u/s. 11 and 12 on account of not having
complied with the requirements of section 12A(1)(b). Since this was the sole
basis for upholding the validity of the reassessment proceedings, it was noted
that the reassessment in the present case was invalid, on account of the second
proviso to section 12A(2) which specially debarred resort to the same in view
of registration having been granted from the immediately succeeding assessment
year. The reassessment framed was therefore set aside and the addition made was
deleted.

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

8. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 99 (Del) Baldev Singh vs. ITO ITA No.: 2970/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 8th March, 2019

 

Sections 10(37), 45 – Interest on enhanced
compensation received from government on compulsory acquisition of agricultural
land is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and consequently TDS
deducted on account of enhanced compensation was liable to be refunded

 

FACTS

The assessee, in
the return of income filed by him, claimed exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act in
respect of enhanced compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146, received by him during the
previous year in respect of agricultural land inherited by him from his
parents.

 

During the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the said
compensation of Rs. 4,69,20,146 comprised of Rs. 2,70,33,074 as principal and
balance Rs. 1,98,85,972 as interest and TDS amounting to Rs. 93,84,030 was
deducted, out of which Rs. 74,45,433 was refunded to the assessee and credited
to his account.

 

The AO, based on
the amendments made in sections 56(2), 145A(b) and 57(iv) of the Act which were
applicable with effect from 1.04.2010 held that interest on enhanced
compensation was liable to be taxed as income in the year in which it was
received, irrespective of the method of accounting followed and accordingly
taxed Rs. 99,42,986 being the interest received after allowing 50% deduction.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). In the appellate proceedings before
CIT(A) it was contended that the Supreme Court has in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass
(HUF) [2009] 315 ITR 1
held interest on enhanced compensation to be a part
of compensation and therefore the same is exempt u/s. 10(37) of the Act. This
decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Ghanshyam Dass (HUF) (supra)
has been followed in the case of CIT vs. Gobind Bhai Mamaiya [2014] 367 ITR
498 (SC)]
. The CIT(A) upheld the action of the AO and observed that the
decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra)
did not deal with exemption u/s. 10(37) of the Act but held that interest u/s.
28 of the Land Acquisition Act is interest on enhanced compensation and is to
be treated as an accretion to the value and part of compensation. He held that
the decision of the SC in Gobind Bhai Mamaiya (supra) is not applicable
to the facts of the case.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Supreme Court
has, in Union of India vs. Hari Singh [(2018) 254 Taxman 126 (SC)]
relied by the assessee, set aside the matter to the AO and specifically directed
the AO to examine the facts of the case and apply the law as contained in the
Act. The SC also directed the AO to find out whether the land was agricultural
land and if that be the case then the tax deposited with the Income-tax
Department shall be refunded to the assessee.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the CIT(A), in his order, did not state that an amount shall be
brought to tax u/s. 45(5) without applying provisions of section 10(37) of the
Act which exempts receipts from being taxed. The Tribunal held that section
45(5) did not make reference to the nature of property acquired but dealt with
the category of cases which fell within the description of “capital assets”.
However, section 10(37) specifically exempted income chargeable under the head
capital gains arising from transfer of agricultural land. It was therefore
clear that the Supreme Court specifically directed the AO to examine if the
compensation received was in respect of the agricultural land, (and if so) the
tax deposited with the Income-tax Department shall be refunded to the
depositors.

 

The Tribunal,
therefore, following ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. Ghanshyam Dass (supra) and Union of India vs. Hari Singh (supra)
directed the AO to refund the TDS amount deducted on account of enhanced
compensation.

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) – Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is prospective

7. [2019] 103 taxmann.com 288 (Del) National Small Industries Corp Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No.: 1367/Del/2016 A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 25th February, 2019

 

Explanation 2 to section 37(1) –
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) inserted with effect from 01.04.2015 is
prospective

 

FACTS


The assessee, a
public sector undertaking, established to promote and develop “Skill India”
through cottage and small industries, incurred expenses under the head
“Corporate Social Responsibility” (CSR) and claimed the same as deduction in
the return of income.

 

The Assessing
Officer (AO) was of the opinion that the claim of such expenses was towards CSR
and therefore could not be allowed. He invoked Explanation 2 to section 37(1)
of the Act and disallowed the expenditure so claimed.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

Still aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held
that Explanation 2 has been inserted in section 37(1) with effect from
01.04.2015 and the same is prospective. The amendment could not be construed as
a disadvantage to the assessee for the period prior to the amendment. The Tribunal
observed that the expense sought to be disallowed under Explanation 2 to
section 37(1) of the Act was the expenditure on CSR which provision itself came
into existence under the Companies Act in the year 2013. It observed that the
lower authorities disallowed the expenditure merely on the ground that
Explanation 2 to section 37(1) of the Act applied to the year under
consideration and the expenditure was therefore to be disallowed.



The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Vatika
Townships Pvt. Ltd. [(2014) 367 ITR 466 (SC)]
held that the amendment would
not affect the allowability of expenses for the assessment year under
consideration.

 

The appeal filed by
the assessee was allowed.

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building

6. [2019] 104 taxmann.com 129 (Mum) ITO vs. Smart Sensors & Transducers Ltd. ITA No.: 6443/Mum/2016 A.Y.: 2011-12 Dated: 6th March, 2019

 

Sections 50, 72 and 74 – Brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss can be set off against
deemed short-term capital gains u/s. 50 arising on sale of factory building


FACTS


The assessee
company in its original return of income declared long-term capital loss on the
sale of its factory building. During the course of assessment proceedings, the
Assessing Officer (AO) noted that the factory building was a depreciable asset
and the gain on sale of such depreciable asset was to be treated as deemed
short-term capital gains as per section 50 of the Act. Subsequently, the
assessee revised its return of income and offered the gains from the sale of
factory building as short-term capital gains after setting-off brought-forward
business loss and brought-forward long-term capital loss.

 

The AO noted that
in view of section 74 of the Act, long-term capital loss can be set off only
against long-term capital gains and that as per section 72 of the Act,
brought-forward business loss can be set off against business income and not
against short-term capital gains. The AO, thus, disallowed the assessee’s claim
for brought-forward business loss and brought-forward capital loss.

 

The aggrieved
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, considering the decision of the
Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments [(2013) 219 Taxman 113 (Bom
HC)]
allowed the assessee’s appeal.

 

Aggrieved, the
Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal,
following the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs.
Manali Investments (supra)
, allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
u/s. 50. The Tribunal noted that the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in its decision
had held that by virtue of section 50, only the capital gain is to be computed
u/s. 50 and the deeming fiction is restricted only for the purposes of section
50 and the benefit of set-off of long-term capital loss u/s. 74 has to be
allowed.

 

As regards the
set-off of brought-forward business loss, this issue was also covered by the
decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Manali Investments (supra).
The Tribunal held that the CIT(A) had rightly allowed the assessee’s claim for set-off of brought-forward business loss as well as
brought-forward long-term capital loss against deemed short-term capital gains
computed u/s. 50.

 

The Tribunal
dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not wholesale review of an earlier order.

4. 
[2019] 103 taxmann.com 154
(Mum.)
Maccaferri
Environmental Solutions (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
7105/Mum./2014
A.Y.: 2010-11 Dated: 12th
December, 2018

 

Section 154 – What is permissible is merely
rectification of an obvious and patent mistake apparent from record and not
wholesale review of an earlier order.

 

FACTS


The assessee, a private limited company,
filed its return of income declaring total income at NIL after setting off
brought forward losses under the normal provisions of the Act. Further, since
the book profit determined by the assessee was a negative figure, there was no
liability to pay MAT on book profits u/s. 115JB of the Act and the same was
accordingly declared and disclosed in the return of income filed by the
assessee. The case was selected for scrutiny and assessment was completed u/s.
143(3) of the Act determining the total income at NIL. Subsequently, the
Assessing Officer (AO) issued notice u/s. 154 of the Act so as to rectify the
mistake of accepting the book profits as such and thereby determined the book
profits at Rs. 6,95,57,438.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal,

 

HELD


The Tribunal made a reference to the well
settled position that the power u/s. 154 to rectify a mistake apparent from
record did not involve a wholesale review of the earlier order and rather, what
was permissible was only to rectify an obvious and patent mistake. The Tribunal
further noted that even debatable points of law would not fall in the meaning
of the expression “mistake apparent” for the purposes of section 154
of the Act. The Tribunal observed that the adjustments made by the AO disagreeing
with the determination of book profits by the assessee u/s. 115JB of the Act
involved a debatable issue which was outside the purview of section 154 of the
Act. The Tribunal held that action of the AO in invoking section 154 was unjust
in law as well as on facts. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the requirements of section 54F.

3.      
[2019] 102 taxmann.com 50
(Jaipur)
Goverdhan Singh
Shekhawat vs. ITO
ITA No.:
517/JP/2013
A.Y.: 2009-10  Dated: 11th
January, 2019

 

Section 54F – Deposit of the amount of
capital gains in a separate savings bank account and utilisation thereof for
the purposes specified u/s. 54F is said to be substantial compliance with the
requirements of section 54F.

 

FACTS


The assessee, an individual, received
certain compensation on compulsory acquisition of land. The assessee offered
the said receipts as long-term capital gains and claimed exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act by depositing the amount of capital gains in a separate savings bank
account. The assessee contended that the amount of gains was deposited under
Capital Gains Accounts Scheme 1988. The Assessing Officer (AO) observed that
the account in which amount was deposited by the assessee was not a Capital
Gains Scheme Account and therefore denied exemption u/s. 54F of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the undisputed facts
viz. that despite having an existing account in another bank, the assessee
opened a new bank account and deposited not only the amount of consideration
but also the TDS refund received by it in this respect. Subsequently, the
assessee utilised the said amount for the construction of house. Thus, the
Tribunal noted that since the assessee had not utilised the amount for the
purposes stated u/s. 54F, he had duly deposited the entire compensation in the
bank account at the time of filing of return of income and claimed exemption
u/s. 54F of the Act. The Tribunal held that the assessee was entitled to claim
exemption as the assessee had substantially complied with the provisions of
sub-section (4) of section 54F.

 

The Tribunal held that the idea of opening
capital gains account under the scheme is to delineate the funds from other
funds regularly maintained by the assessee and to ensure that benefit availed
by an assessee by depositing the amount in the said account is ultimately
utilised for the purposes for which the exemption has been claimed i.e, for
purchase or construction of a residential house.

 

The Tribunal further observed that though
savings bank account was not technically a capital gains account, however the
essence and spirit of opening and maintaining a separate capital gains account
was achieved and demonstrated by the assessee. The Tribunal thus held that
merely because the saving bank account is technically not a capital gains
account, it cannot be said that there is violation of the provisions of s/s.
(4) of the Act in terms of not opening a capital gains account scheme.

 

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the
assessee.

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore, deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

2.      
(2019) 197 TTJ (Mumbai) 966 Kohinoor
Industrial Premises Co-operative Society Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
670/Mum/2018
A. Y.: 2013-14 Dated: 5th
October, 2018

           

Section 22, 24(4) and 56 – Income earned by
assessee from letting out space on terrace for installation of mobile
tower/antenna was taxable as ‘income from house property’ and, therefore,
deduction u/s. 24(a) was available in respect of it.

 

FACTS

 The assessee, a co-operative society, had
derived income from letting out some space on terrace for installation of
mobile towers/antenna which was offered “as income from house
property”. Further, against such income the assessee had claimed deduction
u/s. 24(a). The Assessing Officer observed that, the terrace could not be
termed as house property as it was the common amenity for members. Further, the
Assessing Officer observed that the assessee could not be considered to be
owner of the premises since as per the tax audit report, conveyance was still
not executed in favour of the society. He also observed that the annual letting
value of the terrace was not ascertainable. Accordingly, he concluded that the
income received by the assessee from the mobile companies towards installation
of mobile towers/antenna was to be treated as “income from other
sources”.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) confirmed the order of
the Assessing officer on grounds that the income received by the assessee was
in the nature of compensation received for providing facilities and services to
cellular operators on the terrace of the building.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the terrace of the building could not be considered as distinct and
separate but certainly was a part of the house property. Therefore, letting-out
space on the terrace of the house property for installation and operation of
mobile tower/antenna certainly amounted to letting-out a part of the house
property itself. That being the case, the observation of the Assessing Officer
that the terrace could not be considered as house property was unacceptable. As
regards the observation of the CIT(A) that the rental income received by the
assessee was in the nature of compensation for providing services and facility
to cellular operators, it was relevant to observe, the department had failed to
bring on record any material to demonstrate that in addition to letting-out
space on the terrace for installation and operation of antenna, the assessee
had provided any other service or facilities to the cellular operators. Thus,
from the material on record, it was evident that the income received by the
assessee from the cellular operators/mobile companies was on account of letting
out space on the terrace for installation and operation of antennas and nothing
else. Therefore, the rental income received by the assessee from such
letting-out had to be treated as income from house property.

 

 

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year, and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the bank account.

1.      
[2019] 198 TTJ (Asr) 114 Satish Kumar vs. ITO ITA No.: 105/Asr/2017 A.Y.: 2008-09 Dated: 15th January, 2019

                                               

Section 68 – Bank account of an assessee
cannot be held to be ‘books’ of the assessee maintained for any previous year,
and therefore, no addition u/s. 68 can be made in respect of a deposit in the
bank account.

 

FACTS


The assessee had filed his return of income
for A.Y. 2008-09. In the course of the assessment proceedings the Assessing
Officer observed that the assessee had during the previous year made a cash
deposits of Rs.11,47,660 in his saving bank account. In the absence of any
explanation on the part of the assessee as regards the ‘nature’ and ‘source’ of
the aforesaid cash deposit in the aforesaid bank account, the Assessing Officer
made an addition of the peak amount of cash deposit of Rs.11,47,660 u/s. 68 of
the Act.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) upheld the addition made
by the Assessing Officer and dismissed the appeal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal held that an addition u/s. 68
could only be made where any sum was found credited in the books of an assessee
maintained for any previous year, and the assessee either offered no
explanation about the nature and source as regards the same, or the explanation
offered by him in the opinion of the assessing officer was not found to be
satisfactory. A credit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee could not be
construed as a credit in the ‘books of the assessee’, for the very reason that
the bank account could not be held to be the ‘books’ of the assessee. Though it
remained as a matter of fact that the ‘bank account’ of an assessee was the
account of the assessee with the bank, or in other words the account of the
assessee in the books of the bank, but the same in no way could be held to be
the ‘books’ of the assessee. Therefore, an addition made in respect of a cash
deposit in the ‘bank account’ of an assessee, in the absence of the same found
credited in the ‘books of the assessee’ maintained for the previous year, could
not be brought to tax by invoking the provisions of section 68.

Sections 47 r.w.s. 2(47), 271(1)(c) – Entire material facts relating to computation of total income having been disclosed by the assessee before the AO – The disallowance of partial relief u/s 47(xiv) on a difference of opinion would not make it a case of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income attracting penalty u/s 271(1)(c)

11. [2019] 202 TTJ (Mum.) 517 ITO vs. Kantilal G. Kotecha ITA No. 205/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 5th July, 2019

 

Sections 47 r.w.s. 2(47), 271(1)(c) –
Entire material facts relating to computation of total income having been
disclosed by the assessee before the AO – The disallowance of partial relief
u/s 47(xiv) on a difference of opinion would not make it a case of furnishing inaccurate
particulars of income attracting penalty u/s 271(1)(c)

 

FACTS

During the year, the assessee converted his
proprietary concern into a public limited company. Thus, the business of the
proprietary concern was succeeded by a public limited company. On succession of
business, the assessee transferred all the assets (including self-generated
goodwill) and liabilities of the proprietary concern, and in consideration for
the said transfer, received fully paid-up equity shares of the public limited
company. The AO denied the exemption u/s 47(xiv) in respect of part of the
goodwill transferred by taking a view that the said goodwill was never
mentioned in the books of the proprietary concern. He further opined that the
goodwill which was transferred from the assessee to the company was not covered
by the exemption u/s 47(xiv). Accordingly, the AO levied penalty u/s 271(1)(c)
for filing inaccurate particulars of income read with Explanation 1 thereon.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) held that merely because
there was no balance mentioned towards ‘Goodwill’ in the balance sheet of the
proprietary concern, it could not be brushed aside that there was no goodwill
at all in the said business which was in existence for 30 years. The CIT(A)
also noted that all the information of goodwill was provided by the assessee in
the return of income and part of the goodwill was also allowed by the AO.
Hence, it was not a case of furnishing any incorrect information in the return
of income. Accordingly, he deleted the penalty levied u/s 271(1)(c) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved by the CIT(A) order, Revenue filed
an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that it had to be seen
whether the denial of exemption u/s 47(xiv) to the extent of goodwill which was
self-generated in the books of the proprietary concern would amount to
furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income. The assessee had given
reasonable explanation as to why there was no value reflected in the balance
sheet of the proprietary concern in respect of the self-generated goodwill. It
was not in dispute that the assessee was in business for the last 30 years
which had earned substantial goodwill for the assessee. Even the AO had
accepted this fact and had partially granted exemption in respect of the same
u/s 47(xiv) in the assessment.

 

The assessee also had a bona fide
belief that since there was no value for the self-generated goodwill in terms
of section 55(2), the allotment of shares for the same pursuant to conversion
of proprietary concern into public limited company would also not be considered
as transfer within the meaning of section 2(47), as the computation mechanism
fails in the absence of cost of the asset. In fact, the AO had accepted the
value of self-generated goodwill to be Rs. Nil. This goes to prove that there
was existence of self-generated goodwill in the hands of the proprietary
concern. Hence, apparently, the claim of exemption u/s 47(xiv) by the assessee
for the transfer of self-generated goodwill together with the other assets and
liabilities could not, per se, be considered as wrong.

 

It was found from the materials available on
record that all these facts were duly reflected in the return of income itself
by the assessee and subsequently during the course of assessment proceedings.
The entire facts of proprietary concern getting converted into public limited
company were made known to the Department. Thus, the assessee’s case falls
under Explanation 1 of section 271(1)(c) of the Act wherein he had offered bona
fide
explanation narrating the entire facts before the AO. Moreover, it was
well settled that the discharge of consideration by way of issue of shares was
a valid consideration and hence for the goodwill portion, the assessee was
allotted shares in the public limited company and would have to be treated as
valid consideration for the transfer of goodwill together with other assets and
liabilities. No explanation furnished by the assessee was found to be false by
the AO. It was only a genuine difference of opinion between the assessee and
the AO in not allowing the claim of exemption u/s 47(xiv).

 

In view of the above, the CIT(A) had rightly
deleted the penalty in respect of denial of exemption u/s 47(xiv) of the Act on
the self-generated goodwill portion partially.

 

Section 72 r.w.s. 254, Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

26.  [2019] 107
taxmann.com 92 (Pune)

Maharashtra State Warehousing Corporation vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 2366 to 2399/Pune/2017

A.Y.s: 2003-04 to 2006-07

Date of order: 3rd June, 2019

 

Section 72 r.w.s. 254,
Section 154 – Business loss determined and carried forward by the AO pursuant
to an order passed in accordance with directions of the Tribunal u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 can be set off in subsequent years though such claim is not made in
the return of income. The AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee which
has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and which
has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years

 

FACTS

The assessee, a State Government Undertaking, was engaged in
providing warehouse facilities in the State of Maharashtra. For A.Y. 2002-03,
while assessing the total income of the assessee, the AO made certain additions
to the returned income. The assessee contested the additions in an appeal
before the CIT(A) as well as before the Tribunal. The Tribunal restored the
matter back to the AO with certain directions.

The AO passed an order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 254 and allowed the
final net business loss to be carried forward.

 

Subsequently, the CIT
invoked section 263 of the Act and held the order passed by the AO u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 to be erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue.

 

The assessee challenged the action of the CIT before the
Tribunal. The Tribunal quashed the order passed by the CIT u/s 263. As a
result, the order passed by the AO based on the directions of the Tribunal
stood restored.

 

Thereafter, the assessee, in order to claim the set-off of
brought-forward business loss of A.Y. 2002-03, filed an application for
rectification of assessment orders for A.Y. 2003-04 to A.Y. 2006-07. The AO
rejected this application.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who
dismissed the appeals of the assessee on the ground that since the set-off was
not claimed in the return of income, the same could not be allowed to the
assessee at a belated stage.

 

The assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that by the time the order u/s 143(3)
r.w.s. 254 was passed whereby loss was determined and allowed to be carried
forward, the assessee had already filed return of income for the subsequent
assessment years and hence the assessee had no occasion to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss and it was a case of supervening impossibility.
The Tribunal held that the AO is duty-bound to give relief to the assessee
which has resulted pursuant to the order passed by the appellate authority and
which has a cascading effect on the subsequent assessment years.

 

Further, the Tribunal relied on the decision of the Bombay
High Court in the case of CIT vs. Pruthvi Brokers & Shareholders (P)
Ltd. [2012] 349 ITR 336
wherein it was held that the assessee is
entitled to raise additional ground not merely in terms of legal submissions
but also additional claims which were not made in the return filed by it. It
was thus held that the assessee was entitled to claim set-off of
brought-forward business loss in A.Y.s 2003-04 to 2006-07.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the
assessee.

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly, notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee, could not be assessed u/s 23

25.  [2019] 106
taxmann.com 346 (Kol.)

Bengal DCL Housing Development Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT

ITA Nos.: 210/Kol/2017 & 429/Kol/2018

A.Y.s: 2011-12 & 2012-13

Date of order: 24th May, 2019

 

Section 22 r.w.s. 23 –Under section 22 annual value is
chargeable to tax in the hands of the owner – The assessee, SPV, promoted by
the State Housing Board, was merely a developer and not the owner. Accordingly,
notional annual value of unsold flats, held as stock-in-trade by the assessee,
could not be assessed u/s 23

 

FACTS

The assessee was a
joint-sector company promoted by the State Housing Board with DCPL for
undertaking large-scale construction of housing complexes within the state to
solve basic housing problems subject to the supervision and overall control by
the State Government. Pursuant to a development agreement, the assessee
undertook construction of a housing complex known as ‘U’. The assessee treated
unsold constructed flats as its stock-in-trade.

 

These flats, in respect of which annual value was sought to
be computed by the AO, were allotted by the assessee to various persons. The AO
noted that the expression ‘allotment’ in the terms and conditions of allotment
was defined to mean ‘provisional allotment’; the definition also stated that
allotment will remain provisional till a formal deed of transfer is executed
and registered in favour of the allottee for his apartment. In respect of the
flats for which no formal deeds were executed and registered, the AO held the
assessee to be the owner. The AO computed and charged to tax the notional
annual value of unsold finished apartments held by the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal before the
Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)] who confirmed the action of the
AO. Still aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that in order to attract charge of tax
under the head ‘house property’, the AO must prove that the assessee is the
owner of the same. The term ‘owner’ for the purposes of Chapter IVC is defined
in section 27. The Tribunal observed that though the value of finished
apartments was included under the head ‘Inventory’ disclosed in the balance
sheet, yet, for the purposes of section 22 the assessee could not be considered
to be the owner of the apartments. The Tribunal noted that the apartments were
allotted prior to the balance sheet date and in respect of such allotments a
substantial part of the consideration was received and reflected by way of
liability in the books of the assessee. Consequent to allotment and receipt of
consideration, the right of specific performance and right to obtain conveyance
accrued in favour of the purchaser. The assessee was debarred from claiming ownership
rights in the apartments already allotted to the flat purchasers.

 

The Tribunal also observed that the apartments did not have
occupancy certificate. And in the absence of a valid occupancy certificate, the
property could not be said to be in a position to be let or occupied. Thus, the
notional annual value of unsold apartments could not be assessed in the hands
of the assessee u/s 23 of the Act.

 

The Tribunal decided the appeal in favour of the assessee.

Section 80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide reasons

10. [2019] 72
ITR 402 (Trib.) (Chand.)
Himuda vs. ACIT ITA Nos.: 480,
481 & 972/Chd/2012
A.Ys.: 2006-07,
2007-08 & 2009-10 Date of order:
10th May, 2019

 

Section
80-IB(10) – Deduction u/s 80-IB(10) cannot be denied even if the return of
income is filed beyond the due date u/s 139(1) owing to bona fide
reasons

 

FACTS

The assessee
filed his return of income beyond the due date u/s 139(1). Later, he filed
revised return claiming deduction u/s 80-IB(10). The AO rejected this claim for
the reason that the original return had been filed beyond the due date
specified u/s 139(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) also confirmed the action. The
assessee therefore appealed to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The first factual observation made by the
Tribunal was that the delay in filing return of income was on account of the
local audit department and an eligible deduction cannot be denied due to
technical default owing to such bona fide reason.

 

Based on a
harmonious reading of sections 139(1), 139(5) and 80AC, the Tribunal considered
various decisions available on the issue:

(i)        DHIR
Global Industrial Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 2317/Del/2010 for A.Y. 2006-07;

(ii)        Unitech
Ltd. in ITA No. 1014/Del/2012 for A.Y. 2008-09;

(iii)       Venkataiya
in ITA No. 984/Hyd/2011;

(iv)       Hansa
Dalkoti in ITA No. 3352/Del/2011;

(v)        SAM
Global Securities in ITA No. 1760/Del/2009;

(vi)       Symbosis
Pharmaceuticals Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No. 501/Chd/2017;

(vii)     Venkateshwara Wires Pvt. Ltd. in ITA No.
53/Jai/2018.

 

The Tribunal applied the ratio of the above decisions to the
facts of the case and allowed the assessee’s claim of deduction u/s 80-IB,
primarily on the basis of the following three judgements:

 

(a) National
Thermal Power Company Ltd. vs. CIT 229 ITR 383;

(b) Ahmedabad
Electricity Co. Ltd. vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351 (FB);

(c) CIT vs.
Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (2012) 349 ITR 336 (Bom.).

 

In all these
decisions, the courts have held that the appellate authorities have
jurisdiction to deal not merely with any additional ground which became
available on account of change of circumstances or law, but also with
additional grounds which were available when the return was filed.

In National
Thermal Power Company (Supra)
, the Supreme Court observed that the Tribunal
is not prevented from considering questions of law arising in assessment which
were not raised earlier; the Tribunal has jurisdiction to examine a question of
law which arises from the facts as found by the authorities below and having a
bearing on the tax liability of the assessee.

 

Besides, the
full bench of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the cases of Ahmedabad
Electricity Company Ltd. vs. CIT
and Godavari Sugar Mills Ltd.
vs. CIT (1993) 199 ITR 351
observed that either at the stage of CIT(A)
or the Tribunal, the authorities can consider the proceedings before them and
the material on record for the purpose of determining the correct tax
liability. Besides, there was nothing in section 254 or section 251 which would
indicate that the appellate authorities are confined to considering only the
objections raised before them, or allowed to be raised before them, either by
the assessee or by the Department as the case may be. The Tribunal has
jurisdiction to permit additional grounds to be raised before it even though
these might not have arisen from any order of a lower appellate authority so
long as these grounds were in respect of the subject matter of the tax
proceedings. Similar ratio was held by the Bombay High Court in CIT
vs. Pruthvi Brokers and Shareholders Pvt. Ltd. (Supra).

 

The Tribunal
further observed that the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Goetze
(India) Limited vs. CIT (2006) 287 ITR 323
, relating to the restriction
of making the claim through a revised return was limited to the powers of the
assessing authority only and not the appellate authority.

 

An assessee cannot be burdened with the
taxes which he otherwise is not liable to pay under the law.

 

Section 148 – Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid notice

9. [2019] 72
ITR 389 (Trib.) (Chand.)
S/Sh. Balbir
Singh & Navpreet Singh vs. ITO ITA Nos.: 657
& 658/CHD/2016
A.Y.: 2008-09 Date of order:
13th May, 2019

 

Section 148 –
Issue of notice u/s 148 is a foundation for reopening of assessment and to be
sent in the name of living person – Where notice is issued in the name of
deceased person, the deceased person could not participate in assessment
proceedings and even provisions of section 292BB could not save such invalid
notice

 

FACTS

The assessment
for A.Y. 2008-09 of the deceased assessee Balbir Singh was reopened u/s 147 of
the Act by way of issuance of a notice in his name only.

 

Considering the
manner of service of the notice and the name in which it was issued, the legal
heir contested the validity of the reopening before the Commissioner (Appeals).
However, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the action taken by the AO as to
the reopening as well as on merits.

 

Aggrieved, the
legal heir of the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed that for valid reopening of a case, notice u/s 148 should be issued in
the name of the correct person. The notice has to be responded to and hence it
is a requirement that it should be sent in the name of a living person. This view
was based on the decision of the Bombay High Court in Sumit Balkrishna
Gupta vs. ACIT in Writ Petition No. 3569 of 2018, order dated 15th February,
2019
, wherein it was held that the issue of a notice u/s 148 of the Act
is the foundation for reopening of assessment.

 

It also relied
on another decision of the Delhi High Court in Rajender Kumar Sehgal vs.
ITO [2019] 101 taxmann.com 233 (Delhi)
wherein it was held that where
the notice seeking to reopen assessment was issued in the name of a deceased
assessee, since she could not have participated in reassessment proceedings,
provisions of section 292BB were not applicable to the case and as a
consequence the reassessment proceedings deserved to be quashed.

 

On the argument
of the learned D.R. that the legal heir of the assessee ought to have informed
the AO of the fact of the assessee’s death, the Tribunal said this contention
had no force because the notice was not served through registered post / or by
regular mode of service but was allegedly served through a substituted mode of
service, i.e., by affixation of the same at the door of the house of the
assessee and the report of service through affixation had not been witnessed by
any person.

 

The Tribunal
remarked, ‘It is not believable that the Revenue officials had visited the
house of the assessee and they could not get the information about the death of
the assessee despite affixation of the notice which is also required to be
witnessed by some independent / respectable (sic) of the village.’

 

The Tribunal
also found that even otherwise, the notice was never served at the address at
which the assessee was actually residing before death, which address was
available in a document with the Income Tax Officer.

 

Based on these
factual and legal grounds, the notice u/s 148 was held to be invalid.

Section 41(1) r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

8. [2019] 201
TTJ (Mum.) 1009
Cable
Corporation of India Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA Nos.:
7417/Mum/2010 & 7369/Mum/2012
A.Y.: 2000-01 Date of order:
30th April, 2019

 

Section 41(1)
r.w.s. 28(iv) – Where assessee assigned its loan obligation to a third party by
making a payment in terms of present value of future liability, surplus
resulting from assignment of loan was not cessation or extinguishment of
liability as loan was to be repaid by third party –The same could not be
brought to tax in the hands of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee
company was engaged in the business of manufacturing and sales of cables.
During the year the assessee borrowed interest-free loan of Rs. 12 crores from
a company, MPPL, which was to be repaid over a period of 100 years. The said
loan was utilised for the purchase of shares by the assessee and not for its
line of activity / business. Thereafter, a tripartite agreement was entered
into between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL under which the obligation of repaying
the above-mentioned loan of Rs. 12 crores was assigned to CPPL at a discounted
present value of Rs. 0.36 crores. The resultant difference of Rs. 11.64 crores
was credited by the assessee to the profit and loss account as ‘gain on
assignment of loan obligation’ under the head income from other sources.
However, while computing the taxable income, the assessee reduced the said
amount from the taxable income on the ground that the same constituted a
capital receipt in the hands of the assessee and was not taxable.

 

The AO observed that the lender, MPPL, had
accepted the arrangement of assignment of loan to CPPL and CPPL had started
paying the instalments to MPPL as per the said tripartite agreement. Thus, the
liability of the assessee was ceased / extinguished; as such, the provisions of
section 41(1) were applicable to this case. He further observed that the
assessee during the course of his business borrowed funds to the tune of Rs. 12
crores and assigned the same to CPPL for Rs. 0.36 crores, thus the resultant
benefit of Rs. 11.6 crores by cessation of liability was a trading surplus and
had to be taxed. The AO further observed that the assessee himself had credited
Rs. 11.64 crores to the profit and loss account as gain on assignment of loan
under the head income from other sources. On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals)
upheld the AO’s order.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
held that the assessee was in the line of manufacturing and trading of cables
and not the purchase and sale of shares and securities. It was apparent from
the facts that the loan was utilised for the purpose of purchase of shares
which was not a trading activity of the assessee. The liability of the loan of
Rs. 12 crores to be discharged over a period of 100 years was assigned to the
third party, viz., CPPL, by making a payment of Rs. 0.36 crores in terms of the
present value of the future liability and the surplus resulting from the
assignment of the loan liability was credited to the profit and loss account
under the head income from other sources; but while computing the total income,
the said income was reduced from the income on the ground that the surplus of
Rs. 11.64 crores represented capital receipt and, therefore, was not taxable.
It was true that both companies, MPPL and CPPL, were amalgamated with the
assessee later on with all consequences. So the issue was whether the surplus
Rs. 11.64 crores resulting from the assignment of loan to CPPL under the said
tripartite agreement between the assessee, MPPL and CPPL was a revenue receipt
liable to tax or a capital receipt as has been claimed by the assessee.

 

The purchase of
shares by the assessee was a non-trading transaction and was of capital nature.
The surplus resulting from the assignment of loan as referred to above was not
resulting from trading operation and therefore was not to be treated as revenue
receipt. The provisions of section 41(1) were not applicable to the said
surplus as its basic conditions were not fulfilled. In other words, the
assessee had not claimed it as deduction in the profit and loss account in the
earlier or in the current year. In order to bring an allowance or deduction
within the ambit of section 41(1), it was necessary that a deduction /
allowance was granted to the assessee.

 

In the instant
case, the loan was utilised for purchasing shares which was a capital asset in
the business of the assessee and the surplus resulting from assignment of loan
was a capital receipt not liable to be taxed either u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1).
Accordingly, the surplus arising from assignment of loan was not covered by the
provisions of section 41(1) and consequently could not be brought to tax either
u/s 28(iv) or u/s 41(1). Further, the surplus had resulted from the assignment
of liability as the assessee had entered into a tripartite agreement under
which the loan was to be repaid by the third party in consideration of payment
of net present value (NPV) of future liability. Thus, the surplus resulting
from assignment of loan at present value of future liability was not cessation
or extinguishment of liability as the loan was to be repaid by the third party
and, therefore, could not be brought to tax in the hands of the assessee.
Therefore, the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) was set aside and the AO was
directed to delete the addition of Rs. 11.64 crores.

Section 271AAB – Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

4.  [2019] 71 ITR 518 (Trib.) (Jai.) DCIT vs. Rajendra
Agrawal ITA No.: 1375
(Jaipur) of 2018
A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 22nd
March, 2019

 

Section 271AAB –
Mere disclosure and surrender of income in statement recorded u/s 132(4) would
not ipso facto lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the
assessee was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act, when the
entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of accounts

 

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, filed his return of income declaring total
income at Rs. 12,01,09,200 which included, inter alia, surrendered
income of Rs. 10,87,68,470 on account of long-term capital gain. The assessment
was completed u/s 143(3) read with section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 at
the total income of Rs. 12,24,18,200. The AO also initiated proceedings for
levy of penalty u/s 271AAB.

 

The AO passed the
order imposing penalty u/s 271AAB(1) @ 30% of the undisclosed income. But the
CIT(A) reduced the penalty from 30% to 10%. Aggrieved, the Revenue filed an
appeal to the Tribunal. The assessee also filed a cross appeal.

 

HELD

The question before the Tribunal was whether the surrender made by the
assessee in the statement recorded u/s 132(4) will be regarded as undisclosed
income without testing the same against the definition as provided under clause
(c) of the Explanation to section 271AAB of the Act.

 

It observed that the
term ‘undisclosed income’ has been defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB
and, therefore, the penalty under the said provision has to be levied only when
the income surrendered by the assessee constitutes ‘undisclosed income’ in
terms of the said definition. It observed that in various decisions the
Tribunal has taken a consistent view that the penalty u/s 271AAB is not
automatic but the AO has to decide whether a disclosure constitutes
‘undisclosed income’ as defined in the Explanation to section 271AAB of the
Act.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the assessee had established that the transactions were recorded
in the books and had also proved their genuineness with documentary evidence.
In such a scenario, mere disclosure and surrender of income would not ipso
facto
lead to the conclusion that the amount surrendered by the assessee
was undisclosed income in terms of section 271AAB of the Act. The Tribunal
observed that the document found during search was not an incriminating
material when the entry and the income were duly recorded in the books of
accounts. The Tribunal also held that the statement of the assessee recorded
u/s 132(4) would not constitute incriminating material and said the income
disclosed by the assessee could not be considered as undisclosed income in
terms of section 271AAB of the Act.

 

The penalty levied
u/s 271AAB of the Act was deleted. The appeal filed by the assessee was
allowed.

Section 13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered as for the benefit of trustees

3. [2019] 71
ITR (Trib.) 687 (Pune)
Parkar Medical
Foundation vs. ACIT
ITA Nos.: 2724
& 2725 (Pune) of 2017
A.Ys.: 2004-05
& 2005-06
Date of order:
20th March, 2019

 

Section
13(1)(c) – Payments made to trustees in professional capacity cannot be considered
as for the benefit of trustees

 

FACTS

The assessee
was a hospital registered u/s 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. At the time of
reassessment proceedings, the AO disallowed Rs. 6,52,748 being professional
charges paid to two of the trustees. He also disallowed Rs. 1,95,000 being
utilisation charges paid to those trustees. These disallowances were made on
the ground that the assessee had violated the provision of section 13(1)(c)
which provides that where any part of the income of a trust enures or any part
of such income or any property of the trust or the institution is, during the
previous year, used or applied, directly or indirectly, for the benefit of any
persons referred to in section 13(3), then such amounts are not to be allowed
as deduction.

 

But the
assessee argued that the trustees were doctors and payments were made to them
for rendering their professional services apart from looking after the
day-to-day activities and managing the hospital. Further, the assessee paid
utilisation fees to the trustees because certain equipments were owned by those
trustees but were utilised by the hospital.

 

These arguments
were rejected by the CIT(A) and now the question before the Hon’ble ITAT was
whether payments made to the trustees were directly or indirectly for the
benefit of those trustees.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
ITAT allowed the appeal of the assessee on the following basis:

 

It was an
undisputed fact that the trustees to whom professional fees were paid were
qualified doctors who, besides looking after the administration and running of
the hospital, were also providing their professional medical services to the
assessee and thus such payments cannot be held to be paid for the direct or
indirect benefit of those trustees.

 

Similarly,
regarding the disallowance of utilisation fees paid to those trustees, the ITAT
held that there was no finding of the AO that utilisation fees paid were
excessive or were being paid for any direct or indirect benefit of those
trustees and hence cannot be disallowed.

 

Section 56(2)(viia) – Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard

2. [2019] 109 taxmann.com 165 (Ahd. – Trib.) Unnati
Inorganics (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No.:
2474/Ahd./2017
A.Y.: 2014-15  Date of order:
11th September, 2019

 

Section 56(2)(viia)
– Value of tangible or intangible assets once substantiated would be replaced
with the book value for the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in
this regard

 

FACTS

The assessee, a
private limited company, filed its return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 declaring
Nil total income. In the course of assessment proceedings the AO noticed that
the assessee company has, during the previous year, issued 10,16,000 shares of
face value of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. 23 per share. The AO made
inquiries regarding the Fair Market Value (FMV) of the shares allotted, having
regard to the provisions of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act, for the purposes of
ascertaining the correctness of the premium charged.

 

The assessee
submitted that the company holds certain land parcels in Vadodara and Dahej
whose FMV is substantially high on the date of allotment of shares and
consequently premium charged of Rs. 23 per share is quite commensurate with the
FMV of shares allotted as contemplated in Explanation to section 56(2)(viib) of
the Act. By producing a valuation report of the land, the assessee demonstrated
that the value of land adopted by the assessee for this purpose is only 45% of
the jantri price. However, the AO disputed the FMV of the fresh
allotment and proceeded to apply the prescribed method of valuation as
stipulated in Rule 11UA to determine the FMV of the shares; for this purpose he
adopted the book value of the assets and liabilities including land as on 31st
March, 2013 and determined the FMV of fresh allotment at Rs 12.84 per share in
place of Rs. 33 per share adopted by the assessee. The AO, accordingly, added a
sum of Rs. 2,04,82,560 to the total income, on issue of shares at a price in
excess of the FMV of the shares, u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the
assessee by observing that (i) no accounting entry has been passed in respect
of the difference between the FMV of the land at the relevant point of time and
its corresponding actual costs as reflected in the books of accounts; (ii) if
share premium was charged on the basis of jantri price, then it was less
than what was required to be charged, and therefore there is arbitrariness in
deciding the issue price; (iii) the assessee first acquired land at Vadodara
for setting up its plant and thereafter acquired another plot of land at Dahej
since it was not in a position to complete legal formalities qua the
first property acquired by it, and therefore there is an element of ad
hocism
in the actions of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that section 56(2)(viib) seeks to enable the
determination of FMV by two methods: (i) prescribed method as purportedly
embedded in Rule 11UA of the Income-tax Rules; and (ii) FMV based on the
intrinsic value of the assets both tangible and intangible on the date of issue
of shares. Thus, the FMV of all the assets (tangibles, intangibles, human
resources, right of management or control or other rights whatsoever in or in
relation to the Indian company), whether recorded in the books or not,
appearing in the books at their intrinsic value or not, is a sufficient warrant
to value the premium on issue of unquoted equity shares by a closely-held
company. Thus, the Explanation (a)(ii) itself implies that book entry for
recognition of intrinsic value is not necessary at all. Moreover, the higher of
the values determined as per the first and second limbs of Explanation shall be
adopted for the purposes of section 56(2)(viib) of the Act.

 

It also observed that the FMV of the land belonging to the assessee
company was sought to be substantiated by the valuation report. And that the
valuation report has not been controverted by the Revenue. No rebuttal of the
fact towards the value of land is on record. It observed that one of the
grounds taken by the Revenue for rejecting the basis of determination of FMV is
that no accounting entry has been passed in respect of difference between the
FMV of the immovable property at the relevant point of time and its actual cost
as reflected in the books of accounts.

 

The Tribunal
held that the value once substituted would be replaced with the book value for
the purposes of FMV regardless of the book entries in this regard. What is
relevant is whether at the time of allotment of shares the value of shares as
claimed existed or not. The valuation report is not evidence in itself but
merely an opinion of an independent having regard to totality of expert facts
and circumstances existing on the date of valuation. So long as the facts and
circumstances exist, the presence or otherwise of valuation report per se
has no effect. It observed that the AO has himself, in a subsequent year,
disputed the higher valuation of Rs. 46 and unequivocally adopted Rs. 33 as its
fair value. The assessee has also been able to demonstrate arm’s length
transaction and unison of two different groups bringing different capabilities and
expertise for furtherance of business. Also, the existing promoters, too,
subscribed at a rate similar to the rate at which shares were allotted to the
new group which, according to the Tribunal, further reinforces the inherent
strengths in the valuations of the company as represented by the value of
equity shares.

The Tribunal
set aside the order of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to delete the addition
made u/s 56(2)(viib) of the Act. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 143 r.w.s. 131 and 133A – Assessing Officer could not make additions to income of the assessee company only on the basis of a sworn statement of its managing director recorded u/s. 131 in the course of a survey without support of any corroborative evidence

23  [2019] 199 TTJ (Coch) 758 ITO vs. Toms Enterprises ITA No. 442/Coch/2018 A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 7th
February, 2019

 

Section
143 r.w.s. 131 and 133A – Assessing Officer could not make additions to income
of the assessee company only on the basis of a sworn statement of its managing
director recorded u/s. 131 in the course of a survey without support of any
corroborative evidence

 

FACTS

A survey action u/s. 133A was conducted in the business
premises of the assessee firm. During the course of survey, summons u/s. 131(1)
was issued by the AO to TCV, managing partner of the firm, and statement u/s.
131 was recorded in which he indicated the gross profit of the assessee at 15%.
On verification of the profit and loss, the AO found that the assessee had
shown gross profit at 10.55% instead of 15% as indicated by the managing
partner. The AO assessed the gross profit at 15% and made an addition to the
income returned.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee preferred
an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) observed that the statement of the managing
partner was not based on any books maintained by the assessee and, therefore,
no addition could be made based on such general statements.

 

Being aggrieved by the CIT(A) order, the Revenue filed an
appeal before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that u/s. 131 the income tax authority
was empowered to examine on oath. The power invested u/s. 131(1) was only to
make inquiries and investigations and not meant for voluntary disclosure or
surrender of concealed income. As per section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act,
1878 admissions were not conclusively proved as against admitted proof. The
burden to prove ‘admission’ as incorrect was on the maker and in case of
failure of the maker to prove that the earlier stated facts were wrong, these
earlier statements would suffice to conclude the matter. The authorities could
not conclude the matter on the basis of the earlier statements alone.

 

If the assessee proved that the statement recorded u/s.
131 was involuntary and it was made under coercion or during their admission,
the statement recorded u/s. 131 had no legal validity. From the CBDT Circular
in F. No. 286/98/2013-IT (Inv. II) dated 18th December, 2014 it was
amply clear that the CBDT had emphasised on its officers to focus on gathering
evidences during search / survey operations and strictly directed to avoid
obtaining admission of undisclosed income under coercion / under influence.

 

The uncorroborated statements collected by the AO could
not be the evidence for sustenance of the addition made by the AO. It had been
consistently held by various courts that a sworn statement could not be relied
upon for making any addition and must be corroborated by independent evidence
for the purposes of making assessments.

 

From the foregoing discussion, the following principles
could be culled out: Firstly, an admission was an extremely important piece of
evidence but it could not be said that it was conclusive and it was open to the
person who made the admission to show that it was incorrect and that the
assessee should be given a proper opportunity to show that the books of
accounts did not correctly disclose the correct state of facts. Secondly,
section 132(4) enabled the authorised officer to examine a person on oath and
any statement made by such person during such examination could also be used in
evidence under the Income-tax Act.

 

On the other hand,
whatever statement was recorded u/s. 133A could not be given any evidentiary
value for the obvious reason that the officer was not authorised to administer
oath and to take any sworn statement which alone had evidentiary value as
contemplated under law. Thirdly, the word ‘may’ used in section 133A(3)(iii),
viz., record the statement of any person which may be useful for, or relevant
to, any proceeding under this Act, made it clear that the materials collected
and the statement recorded during the survey u/s. 133A were not a conclusive
piece of evidence in themselves. Finally, the statement recorded by the AO u/s.
131 could not be the basis to sustain the addition since it was not supported
by corroborative material.

Section 115JAA r.w.s. 263 – Amalgamated company is entitled to claim set-off of MAT credit of the amalgamating company

7.  [2019]
111 taxmann.com 10 (Trib.) (Mum.)
Ambuja Cements Ltd. vs. DCIT ITA No.: 3643/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of order: 5th September,
2019

 

Section 115JAA r.w.s. 263 – Amalgamated
company is entitled to claim set-off of MAT credit of the amalgamating company

 

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the manufacture and
sale of cement, filed its return of income wherein a MAT credit of Rs. 20.12
crores was claimed. The AO, while completing the assessment, allowed MAT credit
of only Rs 6.99 crores instead of Rs 20.12 crores as claimed in the return of
income.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) on several grounds, one of which was that MAT credit was
short-granted. The CIT(A) directed the AO to grant MAT credit in accordance
with law. The AO passed an order giving effect to the order of CIT(A) wherein
he allowed MAT credit of Rs. 20.12 crores to the assessee.

 

The CIT was of
the opinion that the MAT credit allowed by the AO is excessive as the MAT
credit allowed includes Rs. 6.99 crores being MAT credit of ACEL, a company
which was amalgamated into the assessee company. She, accordingly, exercised
her powers u/s 263 of the Act and directed the AO not to grant MAT credit of
Rs. 6.99 crores because according to her the amalgamated company is not
entitled to MAT credit of the amalgamating company.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there is no
restriction with regard to allowance of MAT credit of an amalgamating company
in the hands of the amalgamated company. According to the Tribunal, a plain
reading of the aforesaid provision reveals that MAT credit is allowed to be
carried forward for a specific period.

 

In the case of Skol Breweries Ltd.,
the Tribunal, Mumbai Bench, while deciding an identical issue, has held that
carried forward MAT credit of the amalgamating company can be claimed by the
amalgamated company. A similar view has been expressed by the Tribunal,
Ahmedabad Bench, in Adani Gas Ltd.. If we consider the issue in
the light of the ratio laid down in the aforesaid decisions, there
cannot be two views that the assessee is entitled to claim carried-forward MAT
credit of the amalgamating company Ambuja Cement Eastern Ltd. (ACEL).

 

The Tribunal also observed that while
completing the assessment in case of the amalgamating company ACEL in the A.Y.
2006-07, the AO has also concluded that carried-forward MAT credit of ACEL
would be available in the hands of the present assessee.

 

Keeping in view the assessment order passed
in case of the amalgamating company as well as the decisions referred to above,
the Tribunal held that the principle which emerges is that the carried-forward
MAT credit of the amalgamating company can be claimed by the amalgamated
company. Viewed in this perspective, the decision of the AO in allowing set-off
of carried forward MAT credit of Rs. 6,99,46,873 in the hands of the assessee
cannot be considered to be erroneous. Therefore, one of the conditions of
section 263 of the Act is not satisfied. That being the case, the exercise of
power u/s 263 of the Act to revise such an order is invalid.

 

The Tribunal quashed the impugned order
passed by the CIT.

 

This ground of appeal filed by the assessee
was allowed.

Section 43CA applies only when there is transfer of land or building or both – In a previous year, when an assessee engaged in the business of construction of a commercial project entered into agreements to sell flats / offices (which were under construction) and there was no transfer of any land or building or both in favour of buyers, provisions of section 43CA would not apply

1. [2019] 108
taxmann.com 195 (Mum. – Trib.) Shree Laxmi Estate (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO ITA No.:
798/Mum/2018 A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 5th July, 2019

 

Section 43CA
applies only when there is transfer of land or building or both – In a previous
year, when an assessee engaged in the business of construction of a commercial
project entered into agreements to sell flats / offices (which were under
construction) and there was no transfer of any land or building or both in
favour of buyers, provisions of section 43CA would not apply

 

FACTS

The assessee,
engaged in the construction of a commercial project following the project
completion method of accounting, entered into seven agreements to sell flats /
offices. In each of these cases there was a huge difference between the
consideration as per the agreement entered into by the assessee and the stamp
duty value of the units agreed to be sold. Further, there were a further seven
agreements entered into during the previous year in respect of which the
allotments were made prior to 31st March, 2013. In these seven cases
also there was a huge difference between the agreement value and stamp duty
value.

 

The AO asked
the assessee to explain the difference between the agreement value and the
stamp duty value. In response, the assessee submitted that the two values were
different because (i) the stamp valuation authorities have charged stamp duty
by considering the project to be situated in an area different from the area
where the project is situated; (ii) in respect of seven agreements which were
registered during the year but the allotments were made in the earlier year,
the stamp duty value was greater because the allotments were made in an earlier
year whereas the stamp duty was levied on the basis of value prevailing on the
date of registration; (iii) the sale value of properties is based on various
market conditions, location, etc., whereas the stamp duty valuation is based on
thumb rule without taking into account various market conditions, location,
etc.

 

For these
reasons, the assessee pleaded, the agreement value is the correct value and the
buyers were not willing to make any payment over and above the amount stated in
the agreement. The assessee pleaded that in the alternative the provisions be
made applicable in A.Y. 2015-16 when, following the project completion method,
the assessee has offered profits for taxation. The AO added a sum of Rs.
3,41,41,270 being the difference between stamp duty value and the agreement
value of all the 14 flats to the total income of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO. He
then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
noted that during the year under consideration the assessee had not reported
any sales of units since it was following the project completion method. The
project under consideration was completed and profits offered for taxation in
A.Y. 2015-16 by considering agreement value as sale consideration. The Tribunal
observed that it is not in dispute that the assessee had not sold any land or
building or both in respect of any of the units during the year under appeal.
The assessee had only registered the agreement during the year under appeal
wherein it is clearly stated that the subject mentioned property was still
under construction and that the ultimate flat owners shall allow the assessee
to enter upon the subject premises to complete the construction of the flats as
per the said agreement which was subject matter of registration with the stamp
duty authorities. The Tribunal held that what was registered was the ‘property
under construction’ and not the ‘property’ per se. Therefore, the question
was whether in these facts the provisions of section 43CA could at all be
applied.

 

Observing that the provisions of section 43CA are applicable only when
there is transfer of land or building or both, the Tribunal stated that in the
present case neither of these had happened pursuant to the registration of the
agreement. In respect of the seven allotments made prior to 31st March,
2013, the Tribunal observed that the assessee and the prospective purchaser had
specifically agreed that till such time as the agreement to sell is executed
and registered, no right is created in favour of the purchaser and that
allotment is only a confirmation of booking subject to execution of the
agreement which is to be drafted at a later point of time. The said allotment
letter also specifies that the relevant office has been allotted to the buyer
with the rights reserved to the assessee to amend the building plan as it may
deem fit and that the buyer is bound to accept unconditionally and confirm that
any kind of increase or decrease in the area of the said office or shift in the
position of the said office, due to amendment in plan, etc., and in case of
variation of the area, the value of the office shall be proportionately
adjusted.

 

The Tribunal
held that, during the previous year under consideration, the construction of
the property was not completed and that the registration of the agreement
resulted in a transfer of rights in the office (which is under construction)
and not the property per se. It held that there was no transfer of any
land or building or both by the assessee in favour of the flat buyers pursuant
to registration of the agreement in the year under appeal. The Tribunal held
that the provisions of section 43CA cannot be made applicable during the year
under consideration. The Tribunal supported its conclusion by placing reliance
on the decisions of the Tribunal in the case of ITO vs. Yasin Moosa Godil
[(2012) 20 taxmann.com 425 (Ahd. Trib.)]
and Mrs. Rekha Agarwal
vs. ITO [(2017) 79 taxmann.com 290 (Jp. – Trib.)].

 

The Tribunal
allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

 

 

Section 194J, section 40(a)(ia) – Payment made by film exhibitor to distributor is neither royalty nor FTS and is not covered by section 194J and, consequently, does not attract disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia)

29. 
[2019] 71 ITR 332 (Ahd. – Trib.)
ITO vs. Eyelex Films Pvt. Ltd. ITA No.: 1808 (Ahd.) of 2017 & 388
(Ahd.) of 2018
A.Ys.: 2013-14 and 2014-15 Date of order: 7th March, 2019;

 

Section 194J, section 40(a)(ia) – Payment
made by film exhibitor to distributor is neither royalty nor FTS and is not
covered by section 194J and, consequently, does not attract disallowance u/s
40(a)(ia)

 

FACTS

The assessee was an exhibitor of films. It
purchased cinematographic films from the distributors for exhibition in cinema
houses. The revenue earned from box office collections was shared with the
distributors as a consideration for purchase of films. The assessee had not
deducted tax at source on the said payments under the belief that the payment
does not fall under any of the provisions mandating TDS. However, the AO
categorised the said payments as royalty u/s 194J and, in turn, disallowed the
said payments u/s 40(a)(ia).

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal. In turn, the aggrieved Revenue filed an
appeal before the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal discussed the observations made
by the CIT(A) and concurred with its view which was as under:

 

Section 194J defines royalty in Explanation
2 to section 9(1)(vi). As per the said definition, the consideration for sale /
distribution or exhibition of cinematographic films has been excluded. The
payment made by the appellant could not be included under the definition of
royalty u/s 9 of the Act, and therefore the provisions of section 194J were not
applicable. Payments made by the assessee to the distributors were nothing but
the procurement charges, meaning purchases of the rights of exhibition for a
certain period as per the terms and conditions of the contract.

 

The CIT(A) had even discussed the
applicability of section 194C as well as section 9(1)(vii) of the Act and concluded that even section 194C was not applicable as the impugned
payment was not for carrying out any work.

 

CBDT circular dated 8th August, 2019 – The relaxation in monetary limits for departmental appeals vide CBDT circular dated 8th August, 2019 shall be applicable to the pending appeals in addition to the appeals to be filed henceforth

28. 
[2019] 108 taxmann.com 211 (Ahd. – Trib.)
ITO vs. Dinesh Madhavlal Patel ITA No.: 1398/Ahd./2004 A.Y.: 1998-99 Date of order: 14th August, 2019;

 

CBDT circular dated 8th August,
2019 – The relaxation in monetary limits for departmental appeals vide CBDT
circular dated 8th August, 2019 shall be applicable to the pending
appeals in addition to the appeals to be filed henceforth

 

FACTS

The Tribunal vide its order disposed of the
present appeal and 627 other appeals filed by various AOs challenging the
correctness of the orders passed by CIT(A) and also cross-objections filed by
the assessees against the said appeals of the Revenue supporting the orders of
the CIT(A). The tax effect in each of these appeals is less than Rs. 50 lakhs.

 

The Tribunal noted that vide CBDT circular
dated 8th August, 2019 the income tax department has further
liberalised its policy for not filing appeals against the decisions of the
appellate authorities in favour of the taxpayers where the tax involved is
below certain threshold limits, and announced its policy decision not to file,
or press, the appeals before the Tribunal against appellate orders favourable
to the assessees – in cases in which the overall tax effect, excluding interest
except when interest itself is in dispute, is Rs. 50 lakhs or less.

 

Following the said circular, the Tribunal
sought to dismiss all the appeals. However, while dismissing the appeals, the
DR pointed out that the said circular is not clearly retrospective because in
para 4 it says, “(t)he said modifications shall come into effect from the
date of issue of this circular”. Relying on this, the argument sought to be
made was that the limits mentioned in the circular dated 8th August,
2019 will apply only to appeals to be filed after the date of the said
circular. The representatives of the assessees, however, argued that the
circular must be held to have retrospective application and must equally apply
to the pending appeals as well. It was submitted that the said circular is not
a standalone one but is required to be read with old circular No. 3 of 2018 which it seeks to modify.

 

HELD

The Tribunal did not have even the slightest
hesitation in holding that the concession extended by the CBDT not only applies
to the appeals to be filed in future but is also equally applicable to the
appeals pending disposal as of now. The Tribunal observed that the circular
dated 8th August, 2019 is not a standalone circular but has to be read
in conjunction with the CBDT circular No. 3 of 2018 (and subsequent amendment
thereto) and all it does is to replace paragraph Nos. 3 and 5 of the said
circular.

 

It observed that all other portions of the
circular No. 3 of 2018 have remained intact and that includes paragraph 13
thereof. Having noted the contents of paragraph 13 of the said circular No. 3
of 2018, the Tribunal held that the relaxation in monetary limits for
departmental appeals vide CBDT circular dated 8th August, 2019 shall
be applicable to the pending appeals in addition to the appeals to be filed
henceforth.

 

The Tribunal
dismissed all the appeals as withdrawn. As the appeals filed by the Revenue
were found to be non-maintainable and as all the related cross-objections of
the assessees arose only as a result of those appeals and merely supported the
order of the CIT(A), the cross-objections filed by them were also dismissed as
infructuous.


Section 45 – Capital gains arise in the hands of owners and not in the hands of general power of attorney holder

15 [2019] 72 ITR (Trib.) 578 (Hyd.) Veerannagiri Gopal Reddy vs. ITO ITA No. 988/Hyd/2018 A.Y.: 2008-2009 Date of order: 24th May, 2019

 

Section 45 – Capital gains arise in the
hands of owners and not in the hands of general power of attorney holder

 

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, did not file
return of income for A.Y. 2008-09. The AO, however, received information that
the assessee is holding GPA for certain persons and had sold the immovable
property belonging to them for a consideration of Rs. 8,40,000 against a market
value of Rs. 38,08,000 as per the registration authority. Based on this
information, the assessee’s case was reopened u/s 147.

 

In response to the notice u/s 148, the
assessee did not file return of income. Therefore, the AO issued a notice u/s
142(1) along with a questionnaire requiring the assessee to furnish the details
in connection with the assessment proceedings. In response, the assessee filed
a copy of the sale deed and contended that he has executed the sale deed as a
GPA holder only and has not received any amount under the transaction.

 

The AO observed that the assessee had not
filed any evidence in support of his contention but has filed a reply on 29th
February, 2016 in which he has justified the sale of plot for a sum of Rs.
8,40,000 as against a market value of Rs. 38,08,000. Therefore, the AO held
that the assessee sold the plot to his daughter not only as a GPA holder, but
also as owner of the property and has earned capital gain therefrom. The AO
brought the capital gains to tax.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Commissioner (Appeals) who confirmed the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to
the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that in the year 1994
the assessee was given a registered irrevocable GPA by landowners and it was
stated therein that the possession was also given to the assessee to enable him
to handover possession to the purchaser. The GPA did not mention about the
receipt of consideration from whomsoever. It was 13 years later that the
assessee executed the sale deed in favour of his daughter and in the sale deed
it was mentioned that a sum of Rs. 8,40,000 was received by the vendors from
the vendee in the year 1994 and the vendor has handed over possession to the
vendee. The Tribunal agreed with the Revenue authorities that it is not
understandable as to why GPA was executed in favour of the assessee when the
entire consideration was received in 1994 and even possession handed over.

 

The Tribunal also noted that the recitals in
the GPA stated that the assessee is not the owner of the property but has only
been granted authority to convey the property to a third party. Therefore, the
Tribunal held that it cannot be considered that the assessee became owner of
the property by virtue of an irrevocable GPA.

 

It held that in the relevant previous year,
the assessee has executed the sale deed in favour of his daughter and in the
sale deed it has been mentioned that the total sale consideration was paid in
the year 1994. This fact also cannot be accepted, because if the entire sale
consideration was paid in the year 1994, then the vendors or even the GPA
holder could have executed the sale deed in favour of the vendee in that year
itself. Therefore, the sale is only in the year 2007 but capital gain would
arise in the hands of the owners of the property and not the GPA holder.

 

It observed that the Hon’ble Supreme Court
in the case of Suraj Lamps & Industries Pvt. Ltd. vs.
State of Haryana (2012) 340 ITR 2
has held that GPA is not a deed of
conveyance and hence cannot be construed as an instrument of transfer in regard
to any right, title or interest in the immovable property. It also considered
the judgment in Wipro Ltd. vs. DCIT 382 ITR 179 (Kar.), which has
considered the above judgment as well as the judgment in the case of State
of Rajasthan vs. Basant Nahata (2005) 12 SCC 77
to hold that a power of
attorney is not an instrument of transfer in regard to any right, title or
interest in an immovable property.

 

The Tribunal held that since the assessee is
not the owner of the property, capital gains cannot be brought to tax in his
hands.

Sections 37, 263 – Foreign exchange loss arising out of foreign currency fluctuations in respect of loan in foreign currency used for acquiring fixed assets should be allowed as revenue expenditure

14 [2019] 111 taxmann.com 189 (Trib.)(Coch.) Baby Memorial Hospital Ltd. vs. ACIT (CPC –
TDS)
ITA No. 420/Coch/2019 A.Y.: 2014-15 Date of order: 8th November, 2019

 

Sections 37,
263 – Foreign exchange loss arising out of foreign currency fluctuations in
respect of loan in foreign currency used for acquiring fixed assets should be
allowed as revenue expenditure

 

FACTS

For assessment
year 2014-15, the assessment of total income of the assessee was completed u/s
143(3) of the Act by accepting the income returned. The Pr. CIT, on
verification of records, noticed that the assessment order passed by the AO was
prima facie erroneous insofar as it was prejudicial to the interest of
the Revenue.

 

The Pr. CIT
found that the assessee had claimed an amount of Rs. 2,08,09,140 being foreign
exchange loss which was allowed by the AO. According to the Pr. CIT, the
foreign exchange loss was on account of foreign currency loan taken for the
construction of new building and additional equipment and the loss was
recognised translating the liabilities at the exchange rate in effect at the
balance sheet date. The Pr. CIT said that the loss on devaluation of rupee on
account of loan utilised for fixed capital was not deductible u/s 37(1) since
the expenditure is capital in nature. Therefore, he held that the foreign
exchange loss claimed as revenue expenditure is to be disallowed in the
assessment. The Pr. CIT set aside the assessment and invoked the provision of
section 263 of the I.T. Act inter alia for the limited purpose of
verifying whether the foreign exchange loss qualifies for being a revenue
expenditure.

 

Aggrieved, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it contended that the case
of an assessee was a limited scrutiny case and in a limited scrutiny case the
details specific to CASS reasons were furnished and were verified. Therefore,
the order of CIT is invalid.

 

HELD

As regards the
challenge of the assessee to the jurisdiction of CIT, the Tribunal held that
even in a case
of limited
scrutiny assessment, the AO is duty-bound to make a prima facie inquiry
as to whether there is any other item which requires examination and in the
assessment, the potential escapement of income thereof exceeded Rs. 10 lakhs.
The AO ought to have sought the permission of CIT / DIT to convert the ‘limited
scrutiny assessment’ into a ‘complete scrutiny assessment’. If there is no
escapement of income, which would have been more than Rs. 10 lakhs, the Pr. CIT
could not exercise jurisdiction u/s 263 of the I.T. Act. In the present case,
the assessee itself agreed that the Pr. CIT is justified in giving direction to
rework MAT income after adding back the provision for doubtful debts. Now, the
argument of the learned AR that in case of limited scrutiny assessment, the Pr.
CIT could not exercise jurisdiction u/s 263 is devoid of merit. Accordingly,
the Tribunal rejected the ground relating to challenging of the exercise of
jurisdiction by the Pr. CIT u/s 263.

 

The Tribunal
observed that the question for its consideration is whether gain on account of
foreign exchange fluctuation can be reduced from the cost of assets as per the
provisions of section 43(1). It held that as per the provisions of section
43(1), actual cost means actual cost of the capital assets of the assessee
reduced by that portion of the cost of the capital assets as has been met
directly or indirectly by any other person or authority. The section also has
Explanations. However, the section nowhere specifies that any gain or loss on
foreign currency loans acquired for purchase of indigenous assets will have to
be reduced or added to the cost of assets.

 

After having
considered the ratio of various judicial pronouncements and the
provisions of Schedule VI and AS-11, the Tribunal observed that in view of the
revision made in AS-11 in 2003, it can be said that treatment of foreign
exchange loss arising out of foreign currency fluctuations in respect of fixed
assets acquired through loan in foreign currency shall be required to be given
in profit and loss account. The said exchange loss should be allowed as revenue
expenditure in view of amended AS-11 (2003). The Tribunal observed that the
Apex Court had followed treatment of exchange loss or gain as per AS-11 (1994).
It held that in view of revision made in AS-11, now treatment shall be as per
the revised AS-11 (2003). Exchange gain or loss on foreign currency
fluctuations in respect of foreign currency loan acquired for acquisition of
fixed asset should be allowed as revenue expenditure.

The Tribunal held that –

(a)   in its opinion, section 43A is only relating
to the foreign exchange rate fluctuation in respect of assets acquired from a
country outside India by using foreign currency loans which is not applicable
to the indigenous assets acquired out of foreign currency loans;

(b) foreign exchange loss arising out of foreign
currency fluctuations in respect of loans in foreign currency used for
acquiring fixed assets should be allowed as revenue expenditure by charging the
same into the profit and loss account and not as capital expenditure by
deducting the same from the cost of the respective fixed assets. Hence, in its
opinion, there is no potential escapement of income on the issue relating to
allowability of foreign exchange loan taken for the construction of new
building and additional equipment. Accordingly, this ground of appeal filed by
the assessee is allowed.

 

Section 2(15) r.w.s. 10(23C) – Where assessee was conducting various skill training programmes for students to get placement, activities would fall within definition of education u/s. 2(15), thus entitling it for exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab)

22  [2019] 199 TTJ (Del) 922 Process-cum-Product
Development Centre vs. Additional CIT
ITA No. 3401 to
3403/Del/2017
A.Y.s: 2010-11 to 2013-14 Date of order: 4th
February, 2019

 

Section 2(15) r.w.s.
10(23C) – Where assessee was conducting various skill training programmes for
students to get placement, activities would fall within definition of education
u/s. 2(15), thus entitling it for exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab)

 

FACTS

The assessee society was engaged in imparting education
and in the same process trained students by sending them to sports industries,
etc. It conducted various short-duration training programmes of computer
training, training in Computer Accounting System, cricket bat manufacturing,
carom board manufacturing, training in R/P workshop, wood workshop, etc. The
assessee got raw material from industries and after manufacturing the goods
through its trainees, returned the finished goods after receiving its job charges.
The assessee claimed exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab). The AO declined the
exemption on the ground that the assessee did not exist solely for educational
purposes.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A).
The CIT(A) also declined the exemption and recorded further in his order that
the issue of charitable activities of the assessee society being of charitable
nature was not relevant in the instant case as the assessee was yet to be
registered u/s. 12AA.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that the main objects of the assessee
society were to be examined. The AO had relied upon the decision rendered by
the Supreme Court in the case of Sole Trustee Loka Shikshak Trust vs. CIT
[1975] 101 ITR 234
wherein the word ‘education’ as referred in section
2(15) was explained. The Supreme Court had categorically held that ‘education’
connoted the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and
character of students by normal schooling.

 

When the training imparted to the students was not to
produce goods of world standard by doing necessary marketing research and by
identifying products for domestic and export market, such training would be of
no use and the students who had been given training would not be in a position
to get placement. Examination of the audited income and expenditure account of
the assessee society showed that substantial income was from training courses
and there was a minuscule income from job receipts.

 

The
assessee society was admittedly getting raw material from various industries to
produce sport goods for them and the job charges paid by them were again used
for running the training institute, therefore it could not be said by any
stretch of the imagination that the assessee society was not being run for
educational / training purpose. The word ‘education’ was to be given wide
interpretation which included training and developing the knowledge, skill,
mind and character of the students by normal schooling. So, the assessee
society was engaged in imparting training to the students in manufacturing
sport goods and leisure equipments without any profit motive.

 

Further,
the exemption sought for by the assessee society u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) was
independent of exemption being sought by the assessee u/s. 12AA. So, the
exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab) could not be declined on the ground that
registration u/s. 12A had been rejected. The assessee society, substantially
financed by the Government of India, was engaged only in imparting
research-based education / skill training to the students in manufacturing of
sports goods and leisure equipments without any profit motive, to enable them
to get placement; this fell within the definition of education u/s. 2(15),
hence it was entitled for exemption u/s. 10(23C)(iiiab).

 

Section 148 – Mere reliance on information received from Investigation Wing without application of mind cannot be construed to be reasons for reopening assessment u/s. 148

21 [2019] 70 ITR (Trib.) 211
(Delhi)
M/s. Key Components (P) Ltd.
vs. the Income Tax Officer
ITA. No.366/Del./2016 A.Y.: 2005-2006 Date of order: 12th
February, 2019

 

Section 148 – Mere
reliance on information received from Investigation Wing without application of
mind cannot be construed to be reasons for reopening assessment u/s. 148

 

FACTS

The assessee’s case was reopened on the basis of
information received from the Investigation Wing of the Income-tax Department
that the assessee company has taken accommodation entries. The assessee
objected to the reopening; however, the AO completed the assessment after
making an addition of undisclosed income on account of issue of share capital.
The assessee challenged the reopening of the assessment as well as the addition
on merits before the Commissioner (Appeals). The CIT(A), however, dismissed the
appeal of the assessee on both grounds. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an
appeal on the same grounds to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal observed that in this case the AO has merely reproduced the
information which he received from the Investigation Wing, in the reasons
recorded u/s. 148 of the Act. He has neither gone through the details of the
information nor has he applied his mind and merely concluded that the
transaction SEEMS not to be genuine, which indicates that he has not recorded
his satisfaction. These reasons are, therefore, not in fact reasons but only
his conclusion, that, too, without any basis. The AO has not brought anything
on record on the basis of which any nexus could have been established between
the material and the escapement of income. The reasons fail to demonstrate the
link between the alleged tangible material and formation of the reason to
believe that income has escaped assessment, the very basis that enables an
officer to assume jurisdiction u/s. 147.

 

The
Tribunal remarked, “Who is the accommodation entry giver is not mentioned. How
can he be said to be ‘a known entry operator’ is even more mysterious.”

 

In
coming to the conclusion, the Tribunal discussed the following decisions at
length:

 

1.    Pr. CIT vs. Meenakshi Overseas Pvt. Ltd. [395
ITR 677] (Del.)

2.    Pr. CIT vs. G&G Pharma India Ltd. (2016)
[384 ITR 147] (Del.)

3.     Pr. CIT vs. RMG Polyvinyl (I) Ltd. (2017)
[396 ITR 5] (Del.)

4.    M/s. MRY Auto Components Ltd. vs. ITO – ITA.
No. 2418/Del./2014, dated 15.09.2017

5.    Signature Hotels Pvt. Ltd. vs. Income-tax
Officer Writ Petition (Civil) No. 8067/2010 (HC)

6.    CIT vs. Independent Media Pvt. Limited – ITA
No. 456/2011 (HC)

7.    Oriental Insurance Company Limited vs.
Commissioner of Income-tax [378 ITR 421] (Del.)

8.    Rustagi Engineering Udyog (P) Limited vs.
DCIT W.P. (C) 1293/1999 (HC)

9.    Agya Ram vs. CIT – ITA No. 290/2004 (Del.)

10.  Rajiv Agarwal vs. CIT W.P. (C) No. 9659 of
2015 (Del.)

 

Section 234E – In case of default in filing TDS statement for a period beyond 1st June, 2015, fees u/s. 234E cannot be levied for the period before 1st June, 2015

20 [2019] 70 ITR (Trib.) 188 (Jaipur) Shri Uttam Chand Gangwal vs.
The Asst. CIT, CPC (TDS), Ghaziabad
ITA No. 764/JP/2017 A.Y.: 2015-16 Date of order: 23rd
January, 2019

 

Section
234E – In case of default in filing TDS statement for a period beyond 1st
June, 2015, fees u/s. 234E cannot be levied for the period before 1st
June, 2015

 

FACTS

The assessee filed TDS statement in Form 26Q for Q4 of
F.Y. 2014-15 on 22nd July, 2015 for which the due date was 15th
May, 2015. The TDS statement was processed and the ACIT, TDS issued an
intimation dated 30th July, 2015 u/s. 200A of the Act imposing a
late fee of Rs. 13,600 u/s. 234E of the Act for the delay in filing the TDS
statement. On appeal, the Learned CIT(A) confirmed the said levy. The assessee
therefore filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that though the quarterly statement
pertains to the quarter ended 31st March, 2015, the fact remains
that there is a continuing default even after 1st June, 2015 and the
statement was actually filed on 22nd July, 2015. It further observed
that an assessee who belatedly filed the TDS statement even though pertaining
to the period prior to 1st June, 2015 cannot be absolved from levy
of late fee when there is a continuous default on his part even after that
date. The Tribunal, therefore, concluded that, irrespective of the period to
which the quarterly statement pertains, where the statement is filed after 1st
June, 2015, the AO can levy fee u/s. 234E of the Act.

 

At the same time, in terms of determining the period for
which fees can be levied, the only saving could be that for the period of delay
falling prior to 1st June, 2015, there could not be any levy of fees
as the assumption of jurisdiction to levy such fees has been held by the Courts
to be prospective in nature. However, where the delay continues beyond 1st
June, 2015, the AO is well within his jurisdiction to levy fees u/s. 234E for
the period starting 1st June, 2015 to the date of actual filing of
the TDS statement. In the result, the Tribunal partly allowed the assessee’s
appeal by deleting fees for the period prior to 1st June, 2015 and
confirmed the fees levied for the subsequent period.

Section 154 – Non-consideration of decision of Jurisdictional High Court or of the Supreme Court can be termed as ?mistake apparent from the record’ which can be the subject matter of rectification application u/s. 154 even if not claimed earlier by the assessee during assessment proceedings or appellate proceedings

19 [2019] 71 ITR (Trib.) 141 (Mumbai) Sharda Cropchem Limited vs.
Dy. Comm. of Income Tax
ITA No. 7219/Mum/2017 A.Y.: 2012-2013 Date of order: 14th
February, 2019

 

Section 154 –
Non-consideration of decision of Jurisdictional High Court or of the Supreme
Court can be termed as ?mistake apparent from the record’ which can be the
subject matter of rectification application u/s. 154 even if not claimed
earlier by the assessee during assessment proceedings or appellate proceedings

 

FACTS

The assessee’s income was subject to assessment u/s. 143(3).
Additions were made u/s. 35D as also under other sections. The assessee did not
contest addition u/s. 35D but filed appeal against the other additions. In the
meanwhile, the assessee filed an application for rectification to allow the
expenditure on issue of bonus shares, in terms of decision of the Bombay High
Court in CIT vs. WMI Cranes Limited [326 ITR5 23] and the Supreme
Court in CIT vs. General Insurance Corporation [286 ITR 232].
However, the AO denied the rectification; consequently, the assessee appealed
to the Commissioner (Appeals) against the AO’s order rejecting his
rectification application. However, the assessee’s claim was rejected by the
Commissioner (Appeals) also. The assessee then filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the assessee moved
rectification petition u/s. 154 for the first time towards his claim u/s. 35D
relying upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court as well as the decision
of the jurisdictional High Court. The only basis on which the same was denied
by first appellate authority is the fact that there was no mistake apparent
from the record. The Tribunal considered the decision of the Supreme Court in ACIT
vs. Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd. [305 ITR 227]
. It observed
that non-consideration of a decision of the Jurisdictional High Court or of the
Supreme Court could be termed as ‘mistake apparent from the record’.

 

The Tribunal also analysed the said facts from the angle
of constitutional authority – in terms of Article 265 of the Constitution of
India, no tax is to be levied or collected except by the authority of law. It
is trite law that true income is to be assessed and the Revenue could not
derive benefit out of the assessee’s ignorance or procedural defects. The
Tribunal finally allowed the appeal filed by the assessee considering the
principles of rectification pronounced in Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange
Ltd. (supra)
and merits of the case as held in General Insurance
Corporation (supra).

 

Section 143 r.w.s. 148 – Failure to issue notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act after the assessee files the return of income renders the re-assessment order illegal and invalid

18 [2019] 105 taxmann.com 118
(Pune)
ITO
(Exemptions) vs. S. M. Batha Education Trust
ITA No. 2908/Pun/2016 A.Y.: 2012-13 Date of order: 4th
April, 2019

 

Section 143 r.w.s.
148 – Failure to issue notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act after the assessee files
the return of income renders the re-assessment order illegal and invalid

 

FACTS

The AO issued a notice u/s. 148 of the Act dated 29th
September, 2014 to the assessee, a trust engaged in educational
activities. The assessee neither replied to the notice nor filed its return of
income. Thereafter,
the AO issued two separate notices u/s. 143(2) of the Act on 29th
April, 2015 and 1st July, 2015. Subsequently, the assessee filed the
return of income on 21st October, 2015.

 

The AO completed the assessment and passed a reassessment
order. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A).

 

Revenue also preferred an appeal to the Tribunal. The
assessee filed cross-objections challenging the re-assessment proceedings to be
bad in law since no statutory notice u/s. 143(2) was issued by the AO after the
assessee filed the return of income. The Tribunal decided this jurisdictional
issue.

HELD

The Tribunal held that the AO is required to issue
statutory notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act after the assessee files the return of
income in response to notice issued u/s. 148 of the Act. In the absence of such
a statutory notice after return of income is filed by the assessee, the
re-assessment order made by the AO was held to be invalid and illegal.

 

The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by Revenue and
allowed this ground raised by the assessee in its cross-objections.

Section 69 – No addition u/s 69 could be made in year under consideration in respect of investment in immovable property made in earlier year(s)

27. 
[2019] 200 TTJ (Del.) 375
Km. Preeti Singh vs. ITO ITA No. 6909/Del./2014 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 31st October,
2018;

 

Section 69 – No addition u/s 69 could be
made in year under consideration in respect of investment in immovable property
made in earlier year(s)

 

FACTS

The AO made an
addition of Rs. 55.39 lakhs while completing the assessment, being the entire
amount of investment in immovable property. The aforesaid amount of Rs. 55.39
lakhs consisted of cost of property of Rs. 51.86 lakhs and stamp duty of Rs.
3.53 lakhs. The investment made by the assessee during the year under
consideration was only Rs. 12.58 lakhs. The remaining amount of investment was
made in the earlier year(s) for which no addition could be made in the year
under consideration. The assessee 
submitted that the aforesaid investment of Rs. 12.58 lakhs during this
year included Rs. 6.05 lakhs by cheque out of the assessee’s bank account and a
payment of Rs. 6.53 lakhs made in cash. The assessee provided copies of the
accounts from the books of the builder from whom the property was purchased.
She also provided copies of statements of bank accounts. The assessee showed
that there were sufficient deposits in her bank accounts carried forward from
the earlier year to explain the source of the aforesaid cheques. The brought
forward opening balance at the beginning of the year in the bank accounts of
the assessee had accumulated over a period of time in the past few years.

 

On appeal, the CIT(A) upheld the addition of
Rs. 38.58 lakhs out of the aforesaid addition of Rs. 55.39 lakhs made by the
AO.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that on perusal of section
4(1), it was obvious that in the year under consideration no addition could be
made in respect of investments in property made by the assessee in earlier
years or in respect of deposits in bank accounts of the assessee made in the
earlier year which was brought forward to this year for making cheque payments
of the aforesaid total amount of Rs. 6.05 lakhs. Moreover, certain amounts were
invested by the assessee and certain other amounts were deposited in the bank
account of the assessee in previous years relevant to earlier assessment years;
such investments or deposits could not possibly have been out of the income of
the previous year under consideration.

 

It is well settled that each year is a
separate and self-contained period. The income tax is annual in its structure
and organisation. Each ‘previous year’ is a distinct unit of time for the
purposes of assessment; further, the profits made and the liabilities of losses
made before or after the relevant previous year are immaterial in assessing the
income of a particular year. Even if certain income has escaped tax in the
relevant assessment year because of a devise adopted by the assessee or
otherwise, it does not entitle Revenue to assess the same as the income of any
subsequent year when the mistake becomes apparent.

 

In view of the
above, the AO was directed to delete the additions in respect of those amounts
which were invested by the assessee in earlier years, i.e., before previous
year 2008-09. Secondly, the AO was directed to delete the addition amounting to
Rs. 6.05 lakhs which was made by the assessee during the year under
consideration through cheque transactions from the bank account because, as
stated earlier, it was not disputed that the assessee had sufficient deposits
in her bank account at the beginning of the year to explain the source of the
aforesaid transactions by cheque. Thirdly, as far as investment aggregating to
Rs. 6.53 lakhs in cash was concerned, the matter was restored to the file of
the AO with the direction to pass a fresh order on merits on this limited issue
after considering the explanation of the assessee.

Section 37 – Lease rent paid for taking on lease infrastructure assets under a finance lease, which lease deed provided that the assessee would purchase them upon expiry of the lease period, was allowable as a deduction since the assets were used exclusively for the purpose of the business of the assessee

13 [2019] 112 taxmann.com 66 (Trib.)(Del.) NIIT Ltd. vs. DCIT (CPC – TDS) ITA No. 376/Del/2014 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 1st November, 2019

 

Section 37 – Lease rent paid for taking on
lease infrastructure assets under a finance lease, which lease deed provided
that the assessee would purchase them upon expiry of the lease period, was
allowable as a deduction since the assets were used exclusively for the purpose
of the business of the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee, a public limited company
engaged in the business of Information Technology Education and Knowledge
Solutions, filed its return of income on 29th September, 2009
declaring Rs. 25.81 crores, which was processed u/s 143(1) of the I.T. Act,
1961. The assessee had taken certain infrastructure / movable assets on lease
which were located at three places, i.e., Malleswaram Centre, Bangalore;
Mehdipatnam Centre, Hyderabad; and Mylapore Centre, Chennai. The said lease, in
accordance with the mandatory prescription of AS-19, was recognised as a
finance lease. Accordingly, in the books of accounts, the present value of
future lease rentals was recognised as capital asset with a liability of
corresponding amount.

 

Lease rents payable over the period of the
lease were divided into two parts, i.e., (a) principal payment of its cost of
asset, which was reduced from the liability recognised in the books, and (b)
finance charges, which was recognised as expense and debited to the P&L
account. Accordingly, in the books of accounts, out of the total lease rent of
Rs. 56,73,765 paid by the assessee during the relevant previous year, an amount
of Rs. 50,09,835 was adjusted against the principal repayments towards the cost
of asset and the balance amount of Rs. 6,63,930 was recognised as interest and
debited to P&L account.

 

The AO noticed that in the return of income,
the assessee has claimed deduction of Rs. 50,09,835 in respect of payment of
principal amount of finance lease. The AO asked the assessee to explain as to
how this amount is allowable as revenue expenditure. After considering the
reply filed by the assessee, the AO held that though the interest on such
finance lease is allowable as revenue expenditure, payment of principal amount
cannot be allowed as revenue expenditure because it is capital expenditure in
nature in respect of the value of leased assets. The AO, following the order of
ITAT, Delhi Bench in the case of Rio Tinto India (P) Ltd. vs. Asstt. CIT
[2012] 24 taxmann.com 124/52 SOT 629
disallowed the deduction claimed
by the assessee on account of principal amount of finance lease.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal by relying on the decision of the
Tribunal in the case of Rio Tinto India (P) Ltd. (Supra).

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it is pursuant to
lease agreements dated 1st September, 2006, 1st April,
2008 and 1st June, 2009 that the assessee was provided
infrastructure assets on lease. The assets provided on lease and also the terms
and conditions for granting lease have been recorded in these agreements. The
agreements provided that after termination, the assessee would buy the
infrastructure assets. It observed that the infrastructure assets are required
for the purpose of business of the assessee. Therefore, the assessee paid finance
lease rentals to the lessor for the purpose of business. Thus, the assessee is
not the owner of these infrastructure facilities provided on rent.

 

It also noted that a similar claim of the
assessee on the basis of the same agreements have been allowed in favour of the
assessee in preceding A.Ys. 2007-08 and 2008-09 in the scrutiny assessments u/s
143(3) of the I.T. Act, 1961. In A.Ys.
2012-13 and 2014-15 also, the Tribunal has allowed the claim of the assessee of
a similar nature vide order dated 26th July, 2019.

 

The Tribunal held that –

(i)   it is a well-settled law that rule of
consistency does apply to the income tax proceedings. Therefore, the AO should
not have taken a different view in the assessment year under appeal, when
similar claims of the assessee have been allowed as revenue expenditure in
earlier years;

(ii) since the assessee used these items wholly and
exclusively for the purpose of business and was not the owner of the same,
therefore, the assessee rightly claimed the same as revenue expenditure and
rightly claimed the deduction of the same;

(iii) it is also well settled law that the liability
under the Act is governed by the provisions of the Act and is not dependent on
the treatment followed for the same in the books of accounts;

(iv)        Further, it is also well settled that
whether the assessee was entitled to a particular deduction or not would depend
upon the provisions of law relating thereto, and not on the view which the
assessee might take of his right, nor could the existence or absence of entries
in the books of accounts be decisive or conclusive in the matter.

The Tribunal set aside the orders of the
authorities below and deleted the entire addition. The appeal filed by the
assessee was allowed.

 

Section 143 – Assessment order passed in the name and status of the HUF where the notice was issued in the name and status of an individual is invalid and such an assessment order deserves to be quashed

17 [2019] 105 taxmann.com 201
(Pune)
Pravin Tilokchand Oswal
(HUF) vs. ITO
ITA No. 1917/Pun/2018 A.Y.: 2007-08 Date of order: 4th
April, 2019

 

Section 143 –
Assessment order passed in the name and status of the HUF where the notice was
issued in the name and status of an individual is invalid and such an
assessment order deserves to be quashed

 

FACTS

The assessment order was passed in the status of the HUF,
whereas proceedings were initiated by issue of notice u/s. 143(2) of the Act in
the name of the individual. Both the individual and the HUF were assessed to
tax and had different and distinct PAN numbers. The first notice for getting
jurisdiction to make the assessment was issued u/s. 143(2) of the Act in the
name of the individual and the PAN number of the individual was clearly
mentioned. However, assessment was made in the hands of the HUF.

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who decided it on merits but did
not decide the jurisdictional issue and passed an ex parte order against
the assessee.

 

The aggrieved assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal
where it was pointed out that the information received under the Right to
Information Act clearly mentioned that notice was issued for the individual and
proceedings were carried out for the individual. However, the assessment was
made in the name of the HUF.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that since notice was issued in the name
of the individual and assessment completed and made in the name of the HUF, the
assessment order was invalid and bad in law. The Tribunal quashed the
assessment order. It decided in favour of the assessee.

Section 54F r.w.s. 45, 2(29B) and 2(42B) – Assessee having acquired rights in a flat vide allotment letter dated 26.02.2008 issued by the builder which was an unconditional allotment, and since the agreement to sell executed by the builder in assessee’s favour subsequently on 25.03.2010 was mere improvement in assessee’s existing rights to acquire a specific property, the gains arising on the sale of the said flat on 04.04.2012 were long term capital gains; assessee was entitled to exemption u/s. 54F

13
[2019]
199 TTJ (Mumbai) 388

ACIT vs. Keyur Hemant Shah

ITA No. 6710/Mum/2017

A.Y.: 
2013-14

Dated: 2nd April, 2019

 

Section 54F r.w.s. 45,
2(29B) and 2(42B) – Assessee having acquired rights in a flat vide allotment
letter dated 26.02.2008 issued by the builder which was an unconditional
allotment, and since the agreement to sell executed by the builder in
assessee’s favour subsequently on 25.03.2010 was mere improvement in assessee’s
existing rights to acquire a specific property, the gains arising on the sale
of the said flat on 04.04.2012 were long term capital gains; assessee was
entitled to exemption u/s. 54F

 

FACTS

The
assessee filed return of income on 31.07.2013 declaring income of Rs. 185.33
lakhs. During the assessment proceedings it was found by the A.O. that the
assessee had sold a flat for a consideration of Rs. 1.20 crores in which he had
a 50% share. The long term capital gain was computed at Rs. 288.73 lakhs out
which Rs. 109.4 lakhs was claimed exempt u/s. 54F and the balance was offered
to tax. It was observed by the A.O. that the agreement for purchase of the flat
was executed on 25.03.2010 and was sold subsequently on 04.04.2012. Hence the
period of holding for the original property was less than 36 months and hence
the capital gains arising out of the same cannot be claimed for exemption u/s.
54F.

 

The
assessee defended the claim by submitting the letter of allotment of the flat
dated 26.02.2008 and asserted that substantial payments for the flat were made by that time and therefore the
period of holding exceeds the required period of 36 months to classify the flat
as long term capital asset.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) allowed exemption of
Rs. 109.40 lakhs u/s. 54F as claimed by the assessee.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held that on perusal of the facts of
the case, it emerged that the assessee had acquired rights in the flat on
26.02.2008. The letter of allotment was not conditional and did not envisage
cancellation of the allotted property. The agreement of sale was executed on
25.03.2010 which was nothing but a mere improvement of the assessee’s right
over the same transaction.

 

There was
nothing to suggest that the construction scheme promised by the builder was
materially different from the terms of allotment. Considering the same, it
confirmed that the resultant gains were long term capital gains in nature. The
assessee had made payments for the new property within the stipulated time and
obtained the new property by 14.04.2012.

 

Therefore,
all conditions of section 54F were fulfilled. There was no reason to deny
benefit of section 54F in this case.

Sections 28(ii), 45 – Amount of Rs. 1.75 crores received by assessee towards professional goodwill was not chargeable u/s 28(ii)(a) as no case was made out by AO to establish that the assessee was the person who was managing the whole or substantially the whole of the affairs of the company Section 55(2) does not specify cost of acquisition of management right. There is no deemed cost of acquisition in the statute. Therefore, the charge u/s 45 never intended to levy a tax on transfer of management rights

6. [2019] 201 TTJ (Rai.) 683 DCIT vs. Dr. Sandeep Dave ITA No.: 175/Rpr/2013 A.Y.: 2009-10 Date of order: 1st July, 2019

 

Sections 28(ii), 45 – Amount of Rs. 1.75
crores received by assessee towards professional goodwill was not chargeable
u/s 28(ii)(a) as no case was made out by AO to establish that the assessee was
the person who was managing the whole or substantially the whole of the affairs
of the company

 

Section 55(2) does not specify cost of
acquisition of management right. There is no deemed cost of acquisition in the
statute. Therefore, the charge u/s 45 never intended to levy a tax on transfer
of management rights

 

FACTS

The assessee received a certain amount from company CARE. According to
it, the amount was received as professional goodwill and was liable to be
treated as capital receipt not liable to capital gain. The AO observed that the
amount was received by the assessee on account of relinquishment of his rights
in the management of a company in favour of CARE, and not on account of
relinquishment of any right relating to professional expertise or acumen as
surgeon. The AO, accordingly, brought the amount to tax holding that it was
covered under the provision of section 28(ii)(a). On appeal, the Commissioner
(Appeals) deleted the addition made by the AO. Aggrieved by this order, the
Revenue filed an appeal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held
that the work of management was entrusted to different committees and such
committees had other members / doctors apart from the assessee. Therefore, it
was incumbent on the Revenue to establish that in spite of there being other
members on various managerial committees, it was the assessee alone who was
actually managing the affairs of different committees. In such a case, it is
the board of directors collectively who can be said to be managing the business
affairs of the company.

 

Management right
has now been included in the definition of ‘property’ and, therefore, is a
‘capital asset’ u/s 2(14). This being so, the taxability of any amount received
against relinquishment of ‘management right’ has to be tested on the touchstone
of provisions relating to computation of capital gain. The assessee argued that
since management right is a capital asset, provisions relating to capital gain
will apply and when such computation provisions are applied, they are
unworkable. It is true that under the scheme of taxation of capital gain it is
not the entire sale consideration of an asset which is chargeable to tax but it
is the ‘profit or gain’ arising on transfer thereof which is taxable. This
observation is subject to the specific provisions of law which prescribe that
in case of some category of capital assets, cost of acquisition is considered
to be nil and, in those cases, full consideration accruing on transfer will
become taxable. In the instant case, it is the stand of the assessee that cost
of acquisition of management right being indeterminate, no capital gain can be
worked out and so the provisions are not workable.

 

Section 55(2) does
not specify the cost of acquisition of ‘management right’. There is no deemed
cost of acquisition provided in the statute. No case has been made out by the
AO to show as to what was the cost of management right in the hands of the
assessee. Therefore, what has been brought to tax is the entire consideration
for relinquishment of management right which runs contrary to the settled
proposition of law, which was laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT
vs. B.C. Srinivasa Setty [1981] 5 Taxman 1/128 ITR 294.
In this
decision, the Supreme Court has laid down the proposition that machinery and
charging provisions constitute an integrated code and in the situation where
the computation provision fails, it has to be assumed that such a transaction
was not intended to be falling within the charging section and, therefore, the
charge on account of capital gain must fail.

 

It is evident that
the Revenue has not established that the assessee was managing the whole or
substantially the whole of the affairs of the company as no case has been made
out by the Revenue that the amount received by the assessee from CARE was on
account of relinquishment of any managerial rights. Even assuming that the
amount received by the assessee is relatable to relinquishment of any
managerial right, in view of the ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in the
case of B.C. Srinivasa Setty (Supra), the cost of any such
managerial right being indeterminate, provisions relating to computation of
capital gain are not workable and, consequently, it has to be held that the
charge u/s 45 never intended to levy a tax on such a transaction. Therefore,
the amount received by the assessee is neither chargeable u/s 28(ii)(a) nor
under the head capital gain.

Section 54 – Condition of not owning more than a residential house on the date of transfer of the original asset would mean absolute ownership and does not cover within its sweep a case where the assessee jointly owns residential house together with someone else

16[2019] 105 taxmann.com 204 (Mum) Ashok G. Chauhan vs. ACIT ITA No. 1309/Mum/2016 A.Y.: 2010-11 Date of order: 12th
April, 2019

 

Section 54 –
Condition of not owning more than a residential house on the date of transfer
of the original asset would mean absolute ownership and does not cover within
its sweep a case where the assessee jointly owns residential house together
with someone else

 

FACTS

The
assessee, an individual, filed his return of income after claiming deduction
u/s. 54F of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) in respect of capital gains
arising from transfer of tenancy rights. In the course of re-assessment
proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the assessee was owner of
two residential houses, one of which was jointly held by him with his wife. The
AO rejected the claim for deduction u/s. 54F on the ground that the assessee
owned two flats on the date of transfer of tenancy rights.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals)
who upheld the order passed by the AO.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal observed that the Legislature has used the word ‘a’ before the words
‘residential house’ and held that what was meant was a complete residential
house and not shared interest in a residential house. It held that joint
ownership is different from absolute ownership and that ownership of
residential house means ownership to the exclusion of all others. The Tribunal
relied on the judgement of the Supreme Court in the case of Seth Banarasi
Dass Gupta vs. CIT [(1987) 166 ITR 783]
wherein it is held that a
fractional ownership was not sufficient for claiming even fractional
depreciation u/s. 32 of the Act.

 

The
Tribunal noted that because of this judgement, the Legislature had to amend
section 32 with effect from 1st April, 1997 by using the expression
‘owned wholly or partly’. But while the Legislature amended section 32 it chose
not to amend section 54F. The Tribunal held that since section 54F has not been
amended the word ‘own’ in section 54F would include only the case where a
residential house is fully and wholly owned by the assessee and consequently
would not include a residential house owned by more than one person.

 

Hence
it was held that the claim for exemption u/s. 54F could not be denied. The
appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 12AA – At the time of granting of registration u/s 12A, the only requirement is examining the objects of the trust / society and genuineness of its activities

5. [2019] 72 ITR 14
(Trib.) (Amrit.)
Acharya Shri Tulsi
Kalyan Kendra vs. CIT(E) ITA No.: 335
(Amritsar) of 2017
A.Y.: 2017-18 Date of order: 28th
January, 2019

 

Section 12AA – At
the time of granting of registration u/s 12A, the only requirement is examining
the objects of the trust / society and genuineness of its activities

 

FACTS

The assessee is a
trust. It had applied for registration u/s 12A of the Act. However, the CIT(E)
denied the said registration citing the following reasons:

(i)    The assessee had carried out certain
activities which were not covered under charitable purposes u/s 2(15) of the
Income-tax Act, 1961;

(ii)    Complete inactivity since inception in 1979
till the sale of land in 2007 reflects that the activities were not in sync
with the stated objects;

(iii)   The registration was sought to be obtained
after a gap of ten years after the sale of land in 2007, indicating
unwillingness to carry out charitable activities;

(iv)   Amendment of the trust deed incorporating the
dissolution clause and at the same time introduction of new trustees indicated
that the motive of the applicant to seek registration under this section was
merely to save on taxes on interest income;

(v)   Changes in the trust deed do not have proper
legal sanction and though a supplementary deed was submitted to the
sub-registrar, his jurisdiction to accept the same was questionable.

 

Aggrieved by the
rejection order passed by the Commissioner, the assessee preferred an appeal to
the Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
observed the following in relation to the reasoning given by the Commissioner:

 

It is trite to say
that at the time of registration u/s 12AA, the CIT(E) has to consider the twin
requirements of (a) objects of the assessee society, and (b) genuineness of its
activity. Nowhere in the order had the CIT(E) either pointed out any defect in
the objects of the society and / or the activities of the applicant assessee
society, or doubted the genuineness of the activities specifically. Therefore,
the Tribunal concluded that the assessee is carrying out its activities in
accordance with its objects specified in the trust deed and for charitable
purposes. As a matter of fact, the Tribunal found that the trust also carried
out other charitable activities as per its objects.

 

The trust was in
operation since 1979. However, much activity was not carried out until 2007 due
to paucity of funds. When the trust had accumulated a good amount of funds from
rollover of investments after sale of land in 2007, it constructed certain
halls / rooms which were used in the course of its charitable activities. This
fact was clearly demonstrated by the assessee and the same was considered to be
a logical reason for not carrying out any activity previously. The main reason
for rejection of registration was that amendment of the trust deed
incorporating the dissolution clause and at the same time introduction of new
trustees indicated the motive of the applicant to seek registration under this
section was merely to save on taxes on interest income. This reasoning given by
the CIT(E) was merely a general remark without considering the intricacies of
the law and therefore the reason was illogical.

 

Considering the
above, the Tribunal directed the CIT(E) to grant registration to the trust. It
further clarified that the CIT(E) while granting the registration shall be at
liberty to endorse the condition, if any, he finds to be reasonable in accordance
with law.

 

Section 40A(3) – No Disallowance u/s. 40A(3) when genuineness of the transaction is not doubted and incurring of such cash expenses was necessary as part of business expediency.

37.  [2018] 66 ITR (Trib.) 371 (Delhi-Trib.) KGL
Networks (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No.:
301/Del./2018
A.Y.:
2014-2015 
Dated: 2nd July, 2018

 

Section 40A(3) – No Disallowance u/s.
40A(3) when genuineness of the transaction is not doubted and incurring of such
cash expenses was necessary as part of business expediency.

 

FACTS


The assessee-company
was a clearing and forwarding agent and had made payments to various reputed
airlines. The Assessing Officer (AO) noted from the tax audit report that the
assessee-company had incurred expenditure amounting to Rs.8,17,807/- in cash.
The A.O. accordingly disallowed the same in light of section 40A(3), being in
excess of Rs. 20,000/-.

The assessee-company challenged the addition
before the Ld. CIT(A) stating that payments were made to various reputed
airlines whose PAN had been duly submitted. The genuineness of the payment was
not doubted, therefore, no disallowance could be made u/s. 40A(3) of the Act.
The CIT(A), however, did not accept the contention of assessee-company and
noted that Rule 6DD had been amended in 2008. The CIT(A) held that the Rule in
its present form does not include any such circumstances like business
expediency or exceptional circumstances, under which, such cash payments could
be made as a business expenditure u/s. 40A(3).

Aggrieved by the order, Assessee Company filed
appeal to ITAT.

 

HELD


The
Tribunal relied on the decision of Attar Singh Gurmukh Singh vs. ITO (1991)
191 ITR 667 (SC)
wherein it was held that section 40A(3) of the Income-tax
Act, 1961, is not arbitrary and does not amount to a restriction on the fundamental
right to carry on business. Consideration of business expediency and other
relevant factors are not excluded. Genuine and bonafide transactions are
not taken out of the sweep of the section. It will be clear from the provisions
of section 40A(3) and Rule 6DD that they are intended to regulate business
transactions and to prevent the use of unaccounted money or reduce the chances
to use black money for business transactions. The contention of the assessee
that owing to business expediency, obligation and exigency, the assessee had to
make cash payment for purchase of goods so essential for carrying on of his
business, was also not disputed by the AO.




It was also held that the primary object of
enacting section 40A(3) was twofold, firstly, putting a check on trading
transactions with a mind to evade the liability to tax on income earned out of
such transaction and, secondly, to inculcate the banking habits amongst the
business community. The ITAT concluded that Even though there was an amendment
in Rule 6DD of I.T. Rules as is noted by the Ld. CIT(A), but in section 40A(3)
of the I.T. Act, 1961 itself, an exception is provided on account of nature and
extent of banking facilities available, consideration of business expediency
and other relevant factors. The nature of business of assessee-company and the
agency carried on by the assessee-company on behalf of others clearly showed
that for business expediency in the line of business of assessee-company,
sometimes cash payments were made to complete the work on behalf of Principal.



The
assessee-company, under such compelling reasons, made payments in cash. The AO
and CIT(A) had not doubted the identity of the payee and the genuineness of the
transaction in the matter. The source of payment was also not doubted by the
authorities. ITAT mainly relied on the decision of ITAT, Delhi in the case of ACIT
vs. Marigold Merchandise (P) Ltd (ITA No. 5170/Del./2014)
.

 

Thus, in the
opinion of the ITAT no disallowance u/s. 40A(3) could be made when genuineness
of the transaction was not doubted and incurring of such expenses was necessary
as part of business expediency.

Section 40(a)(ia) – No Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS u/s. 194C if no oral or written contract between the contractor and contractee.

36.  [2018] 66 ITR (Trib.) 525 (Vizag. – Trib.) ACIT vs.
A. Kasivishwanadhan ITA No.:
138/Viz/2017
A.Y.:
2012-13
Dated: 20th July, 2018

 

Section 40(a)(ia) – No Disallowance u/s.
40(a)(ia) for non-deduction of TDS u/s. 194C if no oral or written contract
between the contractor and contractee.




FACTS


In this case assessee was engaged in the business
which required large labour force within short notice of time. Assessee had
incurred labour expenses and payments were made through maistries who procured
the labour as per the need of the assessee. The Assessing Officer (AO) inferred
that there is a principal/agent relationship between the assessee and Maistry
and the transactions were in the nature of supply of labour contract and
accordingly held that such payments are liable for deduction of tax at source
u/s. 194C of Act. Since the assessee had not deducted TDS on labour charges,
the AO disallowed the expenditure u/s. 40(a)(ia) of Act.

 

Aggrieved by
the order of the AO, the assessee appealed before the CIT(A). The assessee
submitted before the CIT(A) that there was no agreement written or oral between
the assessee and the maistries and in the absence of any contract between both
the parties, it cannot be construed that there exists any principal agent
relationship/contract between them. The Assessee argued that the maistries were
not the labour contractors and they were randomly the first among the group of
few people claiming to be the leader of that group. They procured the labour
along with them as when required and for the sake of convenience, the assessee
made the payments to one of the maistries or group leader who in turn
distributed the payments to the rest of the group members. There was no implied
or express contract for supply of labour between the assessee and the maistry.
Thus there was no contract and the question of deduction of tax at source did
not arise. The CIT(A) observed that the labour maistries were not the labour
contractors and the payments made to labour maistries did not bear the
character of contract payment as contemplated u/s.194C of Act, accordingly held
that the payments made to the maistries did not attract deduction of tax at
source u/s. 194C of the Act and accordingly directed the AO to delete the
addition.

 

Aggrieved by the order, revenue filed appeal
to ITAT.

 

HELD


The Tribunal concluded that the assessee was
engaged in labour oriented industry which required labour at irregular
intervals yet urgently. It was not convenient to find individual labourers and
hence, the assessee identified some of the maistries or group leaders to
procure the labour who can work as per the requirement of the job. As stated by
the AR, the group leaders were only responsible for procuring the labour and
work was done under the assessee’s personal supervision. There was no written
or oral agreement or contract between the maistries and the assessee for
getting the work done through the maistry or to supply the labour as it was a
general practice used for convenience of obtaining distant labourers. Neither
there was a contract for supply of labour nor there was contract for getting
the work done through labour by the assessee with the maistries. The AO simply
considered the payments made to the group leaders and landed in a presumption
that there was contract in existence for supply of labour between the maistries
and the assessee. The AO did not examine the maistries before coming to such
conclusion. As per the provisions of section 194C of the Act, there must be
contract for deduction of TDS including supply of labour for carrying out any
work.

 

Thus, in the
opinion of the ITAT No Disallowance u/s. 40(a)(ia) for non deduction of TDS
u/s. 194C if no oral or written contract exist between the contractor and
contractee.

 

Section 153A – Copies of sale deeds of land found during the course of search operation which were already considered by the AO while framing the assessment u/s. 143(3) cannot be considered as incriminating material and, therefore, the assessment framed u/s. 153A on the basis of the contents of the same sale deeds is bad in law.

35.  [2019] 197 TTJ 502 (Delhi – Trib.) Lord Krishna
Dwellers (P) Ltd vs. DCIT ITA No.:
5294/Del/2013
A.Y.:  2006-07. Dated: 17th December, 2018.

 

Section 153A – Copies of sale deeds of land
found during the course of search operation which were already considered by
the AO while framing the assessment u/s. 143(3) cannot be considered as
incriminating material and, therefore, the assessment framed u/s. 153A on the
basis of the contents of the same sale deeds is bad in law.

 

FACTS


A search operation
was conducted at the premises of the assessee on 21.01.2011. Original return of
income was filed on 21.11.2006 and the assessment was framed u/s. 143(3) of the
Act vide order dated 13.05.2008. During the course of original assessment
proceedings the details of vendors from whom the land was purchased during the
F.Y. 2005-06 alongwith copies of land deed were furnished for verification.
After considering all this, the Assessing Officer framed the assessment. The
same sale deeds were found during the course of search operation and on the
basis of the very same sale deeds, the Assessing Officer came to the conclusion
that an amount of Rs.1.05 crore has been paid to various persons in cash.

 

Aggrieved by
the assessment order, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The
CIT(A) confirmed the same.

 

HELD 


The Tribunal
held that the sale deeds, transactions when duly recorded in the regular books
of account, could not be considered as incriminating material found during the
course of search operation. It was not the case of the Revenue that if the
search and seizure operation had not been conducted, the Revenue could never
have come to know that the assesse had entered into various purchase
transactions of land. The contention of the Departmental Representative that
though the deeds were before the AO, but he examined the deeds only to
ascertain the circle rate vis a vis the transaction rate and never went into
the cash transactions reflected in the land deed was not acceptable. Once a
document is filed before the AO during the course of search proceedings it is
assumed that he has gone through the contents of those documents and has
verified the same.

 

The copies of sale deed filed by the revenue
were the same which were considered by the AO while framing assessment u/s.
143(3). Therefore the assessment framed u/s. 153A was bad in law and was
quashed.

Section 54F r.w.s 50 – Deeming fiction of section 50 cannot be extended to the deduction allowable u/s. 54F and therefore, assessee is entitled for deduction u/s. 54F on the capital gains arising on the sale of depreciable assets as these assets were held for a period of more than thirty-six months.

34.  [2019] 197 TTJ 583 (Mumbai – Trib.) DCIT vs.
Hrishikesh D. Pai ITA No.:
2766/Mum/2017
A.Y.:
2012-13
Dated: 26th September, 2018

           

Section 54F r.w.s 50 – Deeming fiction of
section 50 cannot be extended to the deduction allowable u/s. 54F and
therefore, assessee is entitled for deduction u/s. 54F on the capital gains
arising on the sale of depreciable assets as these assets were held for a
period of more than thirty-six months.

 

FACTS


The assessee, a doctor by profession, had
sold a property, which was used by him for commercial purposes for his clinic and
on which depreciation was also claimed u/s. 32. The said property was held by
the assessee for a period of more than thirty six months before being sold.
Further, the assessee had purchased a new residential flat from the
consideration received from sale of the above property. The assessee claimed
deduction under section 54F on the capital gains arising from the sale of
aforesaid property.

 

The Assessing Officer treated the aforesaid
property as short-term capital assets within the deeming provision of section
50 and held that the assessee was not entitled for deduction u/s. 54F with
respect to short-term capital gains arising on sale of such short term capital
assets, as the deduction u/s. 54F was available only on the long-term capital
gains arising from transfer of long-term capital assets.

 

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the
assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) allowed the deduction
u/s. 54F to the assessee. Being aggrieved by the CIT(A) order, the Revenue
filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

 

HELD


The Tribunal
held that section 50 created a deeming fiction by modifying provisions of
sections 48 and 49 for the purposes of computation of capital gains chargeable
to tax
u/s. 45 with
respect to the depreciable assets forming part of block of assets and there was
nothing in section 50 which could suggest that deeming fiction was to be
extended beyond what was stated in provisions of section 50 and it couldnot be
extended to deduction allowable to the assessee
u/s. 54F which was an independent section operating in
altogether different field.

 

Thus, the assessee was entitled for
deduction u/s. 54F on the capital gains arising on the sale of depreciable
assets being commercial property.

 

In view of the aforesaid, the appeal filed
by the revenue deserved to be dismissed.

Section 23 – Assessee is entitled to claim benefit u/s. 23(1)(c) if assessee intended to let out property and took efforts in letting out of property and the property remained vacant despite such efforts made by the assessee.

33. 
[2019] 101 taxmann.com 45 (Delhi-Trib.)
Priyankanki Singh Sood vs. ACIT ITA No.: 6698/Del./2015 A.Y.: 2012-13 Dated: 13th December, 2018

 

Section 23 – Assessee is entitled to claim
benefit u/s. 23(1)(c) if assessee intended to let out property and took efforts
in letting out of property and the property remained vacant despite such
efforts made by the assessee.

 

FACTS


In the course
of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) observed that the assessee
owned a property at Madras and that the assesse had not offered any income
under the head `Income from House Property’ in respect of the said house
property at Madras. The AO considered the annual value of the property to be
the sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to be let out and
after allowing standard deduction of 30% as per provisions of section 24(a) of
the Act, he made an addition of Rs. 49,849 under the head income from house
property.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal,

 

HELD


The Tribunal
noted that the assessee purchased the said property in 1980 and the same was
continuously let out upto assessment year 2001-02 and thereafter from
assessment year 2002-03, suitable tenant could not be found and hence the
property remained vacant. The Tribunal observed that section 23(1)(c) was
attracted only upon fulfilment of the three conditions cumulatively. Upon cumulative
satisfaction of the three conditions the amount received or receivable shall be
deemed to be the annual value. The three conditions, according to the Tribunal,
are-

  the property or part thereof must be let; and

  it should have been vacant during the whole
or any part of the previous year; and

owing to such
vacancy the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof
should be less than the sum referred to in the clause

 

Further, the Tribunal also observed that
clause (c) would not apply in situations where the property was not let out at
all during the previous years or even if let out was not vacant during whole or
any part of the previous year.

 

The Tribunal observed that the property at
Madras which was in dispute remained vacant after assessment year 2002-03 till
date. The Tribunal noted that since the property could not be let out due to
inherent defects and the property remained vacant, the assessee had rightly
applied section 23(1)(c) of the Act. The said property after being vacant also
was not under self-occupation of the assessee. Further, it was not the case of
the revenue that the property was not let out prior to assessment year 2002-03.
Under the circumstances, the Tribunal, following the decision of the co-ordinate
bench in Premsudha Exports (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT [2008] 110 ITD 158 (Mum.)
held that the assessee was entitled to benefit u/s. 23(1)(c) of the Act. The
appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

CBDT Circulars – CBDT Circular No. 3 of 2018 dated 11th July, 2018 which specifies the revised monetary limits for filing appeal by the department before Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, High Courts and SLPs/appeals before the Supreme Court is applicable even in respect of the appeals filed prior to the date of circular

32. 
[2019] 101 taxmann.com 248 (Ahmedabad-Trib.)
DCIT vs. Shashiben Rajendra Makhijani ITA No.: 254 and 255/Ahd./2016 A.Y.: 2009-10 and 2010-11 Dated: 17th December, 2018

 

CBDT Circulars – CBDT Circular No. 3 of
2018 dated 11th July, 2018 which specifies the revised monetary
limits for filing appeal by the department before Income-tax Appellate
Tribunal, High Courts and SLPs/appeals before the Supreme Court is applicable
even in respect of the appeals filed prior to the date of circular

 

FACTS


During the course of appellate proceedings,
the assessee submitted that the appeals filed by the revenue were to be
dismissed on account of low tax effect in view of the CBDT Circular No. 3 of
2018 dated 11th July, 2018.

 

HELD


The Tribunal observed that, indeed, the tax
effect in the instant appeals was less than the limit of Rs. 20 lakh prescribed
by CBDT Circular No. 3 of 2018 dated 11th July, 2018. The Tribunal
observed the assessee’s case was not covered within the exemption clause,
clause (10) of the said CBDT Circular and since tax effect was less than Rs. 20
lakh, the appeals were held to be not maintainable.

Section 56(2)(vii)(b) – Agricultural land falls within the definition of immovable property and covered within the scope of section 56(2)(vii)(b) irrespective of whether the same falls within the definition of capital asset u/s. 2(14) of the Act or otherwise.

This is the first
and oldest monthly feature of the BCAJ. Even before the BCAJ started, when
there were no means to obtain ITAT judgments – BCAS sent important judgments as
‘bulletins’. In fact, BCAJ has its origins in Tribunal Judgments. The first
BCAJ of January, 1969 contained full text of three judgments.

We are told that the first convenor of
the journal committee, B C Parikh used to collect and select the decisions to
be published for first decade or so. Ashok Dhere, under his guidance compiled
it for nearly five years till he got transferred to a new column Excise Law
Corner. Jagdish D Shah started to contribute from 1983 and it read “condensed
by Jagdish D Shah” indicating that full text was compressed. Jagdish D Shah was
joined over the years by Shailesh Kamdar (for 11 years), Pranav Sayta (for 6
years) amongst others. Jagdish T Punjabi joined in 2008-09; Bhadresh Doshi in
2009-10 till 2018. Devendra Jain and Tejaswini Ghag started to contribute from
2018. Jagdish D Shah remains a contributor for more than thirty years now.

While Part A covered Reported Decisions,
Part B carried unreported decisions that came from various sources. Dhishat
Mehta and Geeta Jani joined in 2007-08 to pen Part C containing International
tax decisions.

The decisions earlier were sourced from
counsels and CAs that required follow up and regular contact. Special bench
decisions were published in full. The compiling of this feature starts with the
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of cases is done on a number of grounds: relevance to readers, case not
repeating a settled ratio, and the rationale adopted by the bench members.

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31.  [2019] 101 taxmann.com 391 (Jaipur-Trib.) ITO vs.
Trilok Chand Sain ITA No.:
499/Jp./2018
A.Y.:
2014-15
Dated: 7th January, 2019

 

Section 56(2)(vii)(b) – Agricultural land
falls within the definition of immovable property and covered within the scope
of section 56(2)(vii)(b) irrespective of whether the same falls within the
definition of capital asset u/s. 2(14) of the Act or otherwise.

 

FACTS


The assessee, an individual, purchased three
plots of land and claimed that the said plots of land did not fall within the
definition of capital asset as per section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961
(“the Act”). The Assessing Officer (AO) invoked provisions of section
56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act and made addition of Rs. 1,51,06,224 being the difference
between the sale consideration as per the sale deed and the value determined by
the stamp valuation authority.

 

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal
to the CIT(A). The CIT(A) held that land in question being agricultural land is
not a capital asset and the said transaction of purchase of land did not
attract the provisions of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act. He further held
that the assessee was in the business of sale/purchase of property and the land
so purchased was his stock-in-trade and since the stock-in-trade is also
excluded from the definition of capital asset, provisions of section
56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act were not applicable. He deleted the addition of Rs.
1,51,06,224 made to the total income of the assessee.

 

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal
to the Tribunal.

 

HELD


Section 56(2)(vii)(b) refers to any
immovable property and the same is not limited to any particular nature of
immovable property. The Tribunal also held that the section refers to
`immovable property’ which by its grammatical meaning would mean all and any
property which is immovable in nature i.e. attached to or forming part of earth
surface. The issue as to whether such agricultural land falls in the definition
of capital asset u/s. 2(14) or whether such agricultural land is part of
stock-in-trade could not be read into the definition of any immovable property
used in the context of section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act and is therefore not
relevant.

 

The appeal filed by the Revenue was
dismissed by the Tribunal.

 

Section 50C – Proviso to section 50C inserted by Finance Act, 2016 w.e.f. 1.4.2017 being curative in nature is retrospective.

19.  [2018] 100 taxmann.com 334 (Delhi-Trib.) Amit Bansal vs.
ACIT ITA No.:
3974/Delhi/2018
A.Y: 2012-13 Dated: 22nd November, 2018

 

Section
50C – Proviso to section 50C inserted by Finance Act, 2016 w.e.f. 1.4.2017
being curative in nature is retrospective.

 

FACTS


For
the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, an individual filed his
return of income declaring total income of Rs.10,20,270/-. During the year
under consideration, the assessee has shown net profit from sale/purchase of
properties under the head ‘Income from other sources’ at Rs.1,33,200/-. 

 

In
the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) asked the
assessee to provide the details of sale and purchase of property as well as to
justify why the income from sale of property is not to be assessed as ‘Capital
gain’ as against the ‘Income from other sources’ treated by the assessee. He
also asked the assessee to justify the impact of section 50C on the said
transaction.

 

The assessee submitted that he has sold the property held
by him jointly with Vikas Bansal on 22nd July, 2011 with net
consideration of Rs. 42 lakh which was purchased by him on 28th
July, 2010 for the sale value of Rs.39,33,600/- and has declared one half share
of profit on sale/purchase of property at Rs1,33,200/-. The assessee further
submitted that he has entered into an agreement to sell the property on 25th
March, 2011 with buyer Phool Pati and taken a part payment of Rs.10 lakh and no
possession was taken on that date. Thereafter, the assessee entered into an
agreement dated 22nd July, 2011 with buyer Phool Pati for final sale
and gave possession of the property in continuation of earlier agreement dated
25th March, 2011 in which the terms of payment were also specified.

 

It
was submitted that there is no registered conveyance deed and the transaction
was entered into just to earn profit from this venture of sale/purchase.
Alternatively, it was argued that the same may be treated as business income as
against ‘Income from other sources’ and not the ‘Capital gains’ in the hands of
the assessee. So far as the application of provisions of section 50C is
concerned, it was submitted that since the transaction is not in the nature of
capital gains, the provisions of section 50C are not applicable.

 

The
AO held that since the agreement of purchase as well as sale of plot involved
the possession of sale of property to be taken or retained in part performance
of a contract of the nature referred to in section 53A of Transfer of Property
Act, 1982, the property was a capital asset as prescribed in section 2(47)(v).
Therefore, it had to be treated as a capital asset and the asset was a
short-term capital asset in the hands of the assessee. The Assessing Officer
further noted that the circle rate of the property as on 22-7-2011 was Rs.
16,000/- per sq. yard as against the circle rate of Rs. 11,000/- as on
25-3-2011. Applying the provisions of section 50C, he determined the full value
of consideration at Rs. 57,21,600/- as against the actual sale consideration of
Rs. 42 lakh. Accordingly, the Assessing Officer determined the short-term
capital gain and made addition.

 

Aggrieved,
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) who confirmed
the action of the AO including the action of taking the circle rate of Rs.
16,000/- per sq. yard as on 22-7-2011.

 

Aggrieved
the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where, on behalf of the
assessee, relying on the ratio of the following decisions

(i)  Rahul G. Patel vs. Dy. CIT [(2018) 173 ITD 1
(Ahd. – Trib.)];

(ii) Smt. Chalasani Naga Ratna Kumaris vs. ITO
[(2017) 79 taxmann.com 104 (Vishakhapatnam – Trib.)];

(iii)       Hansaben Bhaulabhai Prajapati vs. ITO,
ITA No.2412/Ahd/2016 (ITAT, Ahmedabad).

 

it
was submitted that in view of the proviso to section 50C(1), where the date of
the agreement fixing the amount of consideration and the date of registration
for the transfer of the capital asset are not the same, the value adopted or
assessed or assessable by the stamp valuation authority on the date of
agreement may be taken and, thus, it had correctly adopted the rates applicable
on the date of the agreement as against the date of actual sale.

 

HELD


The
Tribunal noted that the proviso to section 50C was inserted by the Finance Act,
2016 with effect from 1-4-2017. It observed that the question that has to be
decided is as to whether the above amendment is prospective in nature i.e.,
will be applicable from assessment year 2017-18 or is retrospective in nature being
curative in nature.

 

The
Tribunal noted that identical issue had come up before the Ahmedabad Bench of
the Tribunal in the case of Dharamshibhai Sonani [2016] 75 taxmann.com
141/161 ITD 627 (Ahd. – Trib.)
where it has been held that amendment to
section 50C introduced by the Finance Act, 2016 for determining full value of
consideration in the case of involved property is curative in nature and will
apply retrospectively. It then proceeded to observe that various other
decisions relied on by the Ld. counsel for the assessee also support the case
of the assessee that where the date of the agreement fixing the amount of
consideration and the date of registration regarding the transfer of the
capital asset in question are not the same, the value adopted or assessed or
assessable by the stamp valuation authority on the date of the agreement is to
be taken for the purpose of full value of consideration.

The
Tribunal accepted the argument made on behalf of the assessee in principle and
restored the issue to the file of the AO with a direction to verify necessary
facts and decide the issue in the light of the above observations directing to
adopt the circle rate on the date of agreement to sell in order to compute the
consequential capital gain.

 

The
appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

 

Section 194H –Where assessee, engaged in business of providing DTH services, sold set top Box (STB) and recharge coupon vouchers to distributors at a discounted rate, discount so offered could not be considered as commission and, hence, not liable for deduction of tax at source under provisions of section 194H.

30.  [2019] 197 TTJ 75 (Mumbai – Trib.) Tata Sky Ltd.
vs. ACIT ITA No.: 6923
to 6926/Mum/2012
A.Y: 2009-10 to
2012-13 Dated: 12th
October, 2018

           

Section 194H
–Where assessee, engaged in business of providing DTH services, sold set top
Box (STB) and recharge coupon vouchers to distributors at a discounted rate,
discount so offered could not be considered as commission and, hence, not
liable for deduction of tax at source under provisions of section 194H.

 

FACTS


The
assessee-company was engaged in business of providing Direct to Home (DTH)
services in the brand name of Tata Sky. The provision of this service required
installation of set top box and dish antenna at the customer’s premises. The
assessee had entered into agreement with distributors for sale/distribution of
settop boxes, prepaid vouchers, recharge vouchers (RCVs) etc. As per the
agreements, STBs and RCVs were sold to distributors at a discounted price. The distributors/dealers
sold these items to customers/subscribers of the assessee-company at a price
not exceeding the MRP mentioned for the product.

 

The Assessing
Officer held that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source in respect of
payments made to the distributors as discount for sale of STBs and recharge
coupons as same was ‘commission and brokerage’ and the same was income in the
hands of distributions for service relevant of assessee. He therefore, treated
the assessee to be in default as per the provisions of section 201(1).

 

Aggrieved by
the assessment order, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A). The
CIT(A) upheld the order of the Assessing officer.

 

HELD


The Tribunal
held that the assessee entered into agreement with the distributor for sale of
Set Top Box (STB) and recharge coupon vouchers. As per agreement products are
sold to distributor at discounted price, as agreed. The distributor/dealer
sells these items to customers/subscribers at a price not exceeding MRP on the
product. As per the agreement, payment of each order for the above items was to
be made by distributor either at the time of placing the order or at the time
of delivery. Apart from the above assessee also provided festival/seasonal
discounts to the distributors. For these discounts assessee did not make any
payment rather it issued credit notes and same was subsequently adjusted from
the payment due from the distributor, so in the financial statements the
discount amount was not reflected.

 

The Tribunal followed the ratio of the Bombay High
Court decisions in the case of CIT vs. Piramal Healthcare Ltd (2015) 230
Taxman 505
and CIT vs. Qatar Airways (2011) 332 ITR 253 wherein it
was held that the assessee should not be visited with the liability to deduct
TDS for non-deduction of tax at source u/s. 194H on the difference between the
discounted price at which it is sold to the distributors and the MRP upto which
they are permitted to sell. The difference between MRP and the price at which
item is sold to the distributor cannot be held to be commission or brokerage.
The distributors are customers of the assessee to whom sales are affected. The
discounts and credit notes credited cannot be considered to be commission
payment u/s. 194H and therefore, the assessee was not liable to deduct the tax at source on the impugned amounts in this case.