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Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

15 Addl CIT vs. Ericsson India Pvt. Ltd
(2024) 468 ITR 2 (SC)

Jurisdiction to impose penalty- No Penalty can be imposed by the TPO u/s. 271G in respect of default that has occurred prior to the date of amendment conferring jurisdiction on TPO (i.e. 1st October, 2014).

For the assessment year 2011-12, the assessee filed its returns together with transfer pricing report. A notice was issued by the Transfer Pricing (TPO) on 18th February, 2014 to produce some documents by 25th March, 2014. The assesee did not comply with the said notice. On 5th December, 2014, TPO issued notice alleging default and proposing penalty u/s. 271G. TPO passed order on 16th January, 2015 proposing certain transfer pricing adjustment and imposing penalty of ₹64,43,03,352 u/s. 271G. A draft assessment order was passed on 22nd June, 2015.

On writ petition being filed before the High Court, the High Court noted that till 1st October, 2014, the jurisdiction and authority to impose penalty u/s. 271G was with the Assessing Officer (AO) as defined in section 2(7A). This changed with enactment of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2014. The amendment expanded the jurisdiction of the TPO, who was for the first time authorized to inflict penalty for non-compliance of the notice.

The High Court following the judgment in Brij Mohan vs. CIT (1979) 120 ITR 1 (SC) and Varkey Chacko vs. CIT (1993) 203 ITR 885 (SC) quashed the order imposing penalty by holding that ‘event of default’ occurred in March, 2014, that is, well prior to the date of coming into force the amendment (from 1st October, 2014) and hence the order passed by TPO in respect of such default was without jurisdiction.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP as the issue was covered by its decision in Varkey Chacko vs. CIT (supra).

16 ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd
(2024) 468 ITR 10 (SC)

Statutory approvals — Approval granted by the statutory authorities, as required under the provision of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe — the statutory scheme encapsulated in the Income-tax Act provides that the reassessment proceedings cannot be triggered till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and the reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of assessment.

The Petitioner challenged the notice dated 30th March, 2018 issued under section 148 of the Act and the order dated 6th December, 2018 disposing of the objections of the Petitioner to the issuance of the aforesaid notice on one singular ground, namely, that the reassessment proceedings were commenced without the approval of the specific authority.

The High Court observed that the approval has a two-stage process. The satisfaction with regards to commencement of reassessment proceedings is required to be recorded by the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax (ACIT); and by Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (PCIT).

The High Court noted that the ACIT had made an endorsement that he was satisfied that it was a fit case for issue of notice u/s. 148, but the PCIT had not made any noting and merely signed the Form of Recording Reasons without a date. The High Court also noted that the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer on 30th March, 2018, were approved by ACIT and PCIT on the same date and the notice was also issued on 30th March, 2018.

The Petitioner had alleged that this was a case of mechanical approval without application of mind and was contrary to law.

In counter affidavit, the respondent made an assertion that the PCIT had conveyed the approval to AO via letter F No. Pr. CIT-Delhi/148/2017-18 dated 30th March, 2018, but the said letter was not annexed.

The High Court held that the approval granted by the statutory authorities, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that the reassessment proceedings cannot be triggered till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and the reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of assessment.

According to the High Court, the second condition requiring Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there were no good reasons to not to furnish the same to the Petitioner along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons for holding the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment.

The High Court therefore set aside the impugned notice and the impugned order.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP in view of the categorical finding recorded in paragraph 13 by the High Court and opining that in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out by the Revenue.

17 PCIT vs. Nitin Nema
(2024) 468 ITR 105 (SC)

Reassessment — Gross Receipts of Sale consideration and income chargeable to tax are not same — Notice issued treating the sale consideration as asset which has escaped assessment is not sustainable.

A notice u/s. 148A(b) was issued observing that the amount of ₹72,05,085 was received by the assessee as a result of export transaction. The assessee had not filed return of income. Hence, a sum of ₹72,05,084 had escaped assessment. Since the amount of ₹72,05,084 was more that ₹50 lakhs, the said income was amenable to proceedings u/s. 148 and 148A.

Assesee filed his objections to the notice issued u/s. 148A(b). After considering the said reply, an order u/s. 148A(d) was passed rejecting the objections of the assessee and consequentially a notice u/s. 148 was issued.

The assesssee challenged the order dated 25th March, 2023 passed u/s. 148A(d) of the Act deciding that it was a fit case for issuance of a notice u/s. 148 for assessment/ reassessment of income which had escaped assessment for the assessment year 2016-17. The assesee further challenged the consequential notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The High Court observed that neither the notice u/s. 148A(b) nor the order u/s. 148A(d), nor the consequential notice u/s. 148 gave any indication that the amount of ₹72,05,084 alleged to be income escaping assessment, included land/building/shares/equities/loans/ advances, etc.

The High Court noted that the assessee had filed a rely to the notice u/s. 148A(b) explaining that the said amount of ₹72,05,084 was gross receipt of sale consideration of 16 scooters. Along with the reply, the details of items sold and payment receipt, computation of total income and computation of tax on total income was worked out.

The High Court observed that the said amount of ₹72,05,084 was the total sale consideration receipt of the transactions in question and not income chargeable to tax, which would obviously be less than the said amount.

The High Court noted the decision of the Karnataka High Court in Sanath Kumar Murali vs. ITO (2023) 455 ITR 370 (Kar) which held that the entirety of sale consideration does not constitute income.

According to the High Court, in passing the order u/s. 148A(d) the Respondent had adopted highly casual and perfunctory approach and elementary aspect of clear distinction between consideration of sale and income chargeable to tax was overlooked.

The High Court opined that had the Revenue arrived at the correct figure of income chargeable to tax instead of gross receipts / consideration, possibility of the amount of ₹72,05,084 coming
down to a figure below ₹50 lakhs could not be ruled out.

The High Court quashed the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 with costs.

The Supreme Court dismissed the SLP observing that it was not inclined to interfere with the impugned judgment and order of the High Court.

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal – Part II

INTRODUCTION

7.1 As stated in Part I of this write-up (BCAJ December, 2024), considerable amendments were made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021. Prior to these amendments, a notice could be issued under section 148 of (the ‘old regime’) within the time limits of 4 years (in all cases) / 6 years (escaped income of ₹ 1 lakh or more) / 16 years (asset outside India) as provided in section 149 of the Act if the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. Considerable amendments in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings (the ‘new regime’) as stated in para 1.4 of Part I of the write-up were brought about by the Finance Act, 2021. The entire procedure for issuance of a reopening notice was revamped by introducing section 148A(d). The erstwhile time limits were also modified and the ‘new regime’ provided for time limit of 3 years in all cases and 10 years in cases where escaped income represented in the form of asset was more than ₹50 lakhs.

7.2 As stated in para 1.3 of Part I of the write up, the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval, etc. was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) and the subsequent Notifications issued under TOLA. In short, the time limits for doing the above acts which were expiring during the period from 20th March, 2020 to 31st March, 2021 were extended upto 30th June, 2021. These Notifications contained an Explanation effectively clarifying that the ‘old regime’ will continue to apply for issuing reassessment notices despite the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021.

7.3 As stated in paras 1.5 and 1.6 of Part 1 of the write-up, reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 for the assessment years 2013 — 14 to 2017 — 18 relying upon the time extension granted by TOLA and following the procedure as per the ‘old regime’ were struck down by several High Courts and the Explanation issued under the Notifications were also struck down.

7.4 As stated in para 1.7 of Part I, the decisions of the High Courts were upheld by the Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1). However, invoking powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court deemed the notices issued under section 148 of the Act to be show cause notice issued under section 148A(b) of the Act under the ‘new regime’ and issued directions to the AOs to provide material and information for reopening to assessee and then pass an order under section 148A(d) after considering assessee’s submissions. Supreme Court kept all the defences available to the assessee under section 149 and / or under the Finance Act, 2021 and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 open. Thereafter, as stated in para 1.8 of Part I of the write-up, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

7.5 Thereafter, as stated in para 1.9 of Part I of the write up, fresh notices were issued under section 148 of the Act after following the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal pertaining to assessment years 2013 – 14 to 2017 – 18. These notices issued between July to September, 2022 were challenged by the assessees before several High Courts and the same were quashed by the High Courts. A brief gist of these decisions is provided in Part I of the write-up. As stated in para 1.10 of Part I of the write-up, the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case (and connected matters) adjudicated on the issues raised by the Revenue in appeals filed against such high court judgments.

UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal (469 ITR 46 – Supreme Court)

8.1 In a challenge by the Revenue to the correctness of the views taken by the High Courts in favour of the assessee, the Supreme Court was called upon to decide two primary issues – (1) whether TOLA and notifications issued thereunder would apply to reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 and (2) whether the reassessment notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ post Ashish Agarwal’s decision between July and September 2022 were valid.

8.2 Before the Supreme Court, the Revenue contended that TOLA was a free-standing legislation and that section 3(1) of TOLA which applied “notwithstanding anything contained in the specified Act” overrides the time limits for issuing a notice under section 148 read with section 149 of the Act. It was further submitted that TOLA did not extend the life of the ‘old regime’ but merely provided a relaxation for the completion or compliance of actions following the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’. It was urged that section 2 of TOLA defined “specified Act” to mean and include the Income-tax Act and that TOLA would continue to apply to the ‘new regime’ which became a part of the Income-tax Act from 1st April, 2021. The Revenue contended that invalidation of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal on the ground that the same were beyond the time limit specified under the Act read with TOLA will completely frustrate the exercise undertaken by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

8.2.1 The Revenue submitted that the first proviso to section 149 [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up] did not expressly bar the application of TOLA and once the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) was read with TOLA, the following would be the position for the different years:

   Assessment  year (1) Within 3 years (2) Expiry of limitation read with TOLA \ for (2) (3) Within 6 years (4)

 

Expiry of limitation read with TOLA for (4) (5)
2013 – 14 31-3-2017 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2020 30-6-2021
2014 – 15 31-3-2018 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2021 30-6-2021
2015 – 16 31-3-2019 TOLA not applicable 31-3-2022 TOLA not applicable
2016 – 17 31-3-2020 30-6-2021 31-3-2023 TOLA not applicable
2017 – 18 31-3-2021 30-6-2021 31-3-2024 TOLA not applicable

The Revenue conceded that for the assessment year 2015-16, all notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 will have to be dropped as they will not fall for completion during the period provided under TOLA. It seems that this is, possibly, on the ground that last date for issuing notice under section 148 was 31st March, 2022 (6 years time limit) under the ‘old regime’ and that was outside the limitation period covered by TOLA (refer para 7.2 above) for extension.

8.3 On the other hand, the assessee submitted that TOLA applied in cases where the period of limitation expired between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 and, therefore, recourse could not be taken to the extended timelines provided under TOLA with respect to the notices issued under section 148 of the ‘new regime’ which came into effect from 1st April, 2021. Assessee further submitted that TOLA did not amend section 149 of the ‘old regime’ but merely extended the specified time limits and that the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ only referred to the period of limitation as specified under the erstwhile section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’. Assessee contended that Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 to extend the time limits expiring under section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ till 30th June, 2021 could not be read into the ‘new regime’ once the ‘old regime’ was repealed and substituted by the ‘new regime’.

8.3.1 Assessee categorized the notices post Ashish Agarwal’s decision under the following four categories and submitted as under:

a. First category — notices for AY 2013–14 and 2014–15 issued after 1st April, 2021 would be barred by limitation as the six-year time limit in terms of section 149 expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively.

b. Second category – notices for AY 2015–16 issued under the ‘old regime’ after 31st March, 2020 but before 1st April, 2021. It was submitted that these notices issued for AY 2015–16 after a period of 4 years which expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ were bad in law as sanction under section 151 of the ‘old regime’ was not properly obtained.

c. Third category — notices for AY 2016–17 and 2017–18 for which the three-year period as per the ‘new regime’ expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. Assessee submitted that the notices were issued after 1st April 2021 after taking sanction of authorities prescribed in section 151(i) instead of those specified in section 151(ii) [refer to in para 1.4 (v) of Part I of the write-up].

d. Directions in the Supreme Court decision in Ashish Agarwal were not intended to apply to assessees who did not challenge the reassessment notices before the High Court or the Supreme Court in the first round.

8.3.2 Assessee further submitted that the applicability of the first proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ had to be tested on the date of issuance of notice under section 148 of the ‘new regime’. Assessee also urged that even if TOLA is read into the Income-tax Act, the time limits for completion of actions could be extended till 30th June, 2021 and that the notices issued under the ‘new regime’ from July 2022 to September 2022 were beyond the extended time limits. Assessee further contended that the decision of Ashish Agarwal could not be interpreted in a manner to exclude the entire period from April 2021 to September 2022 and that the directions issued under Article 142 of the Constitution could not contravene the substantive provisions contained in the Act. With respect to the grant of sanction under section 151, assessee submitted that TOLA applied only to provisions that specified time limits and, therefore, section 151 which did not prescribe any time limits was out of ambit of TOLA.

8.4 After considering the rival contentions and referring to relevant provisions of the Act, the Supreme Court proceeded to decide the relevant issues.

8.4.1 Initially, the Court broadly discussed the relevant legislative and judicial background dealing with various principles relating to : (i) Assessment as a quasi-judicial function, (ii) Assessment as an issue of jurisdiction, (iii) Principles of strict interpretation and workability and (iv) Principle of harmonious construction.

8.4.2 The Court then proceeded to discuss and consider the impact of first proviso to Section 149 under the `new regime ‘ and summarised the position of law in that regard in para 53 as under:

“The position of law which can be derived based on the above discussion may be summarized thus: (i) Section 149(1) of the new regime is not prospective. It also applies to past assessment years; (ii) The time limit of four years is now reduced to three years for all situations. The Revenue can issue notices under Section 148 of the new regime only if three years or less have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year; (iii) the proviso to Section 149(1)(b) of the new regime stipulates that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit survives according to Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime, that is, six years from the end of the relevant assessment year; and (iv) all notices issued invoking the time limit under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.3 The Court also observed that notices will have to be judged based on the law existing on the date the notice is issued. The Court then referred to the proviso to section 149(1)(b) of the ‘new regime’ and observed that the Revenue can issue reassessment notices for past assessment years only if the time limit of 6 years as per section 149(1)(b) of the ‘old regime’ survives. Court then recorded in para 52 a concession made by the Revenue as under:

“……..MrVenkataraman has also conceded on behalf of the Revenue that all notices issued under the new regime by invoking the six year time limit prescribed under Section 149(1)(b) of the old regime will have to be dropped if the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is less than Rupees fifty lakhs.”

8.4.4 After noting that Finance Act, 2021 substituted the ‘old regime’, Court then referred to the legislative practice of amendment by substitution which involves repeal of an earlier provision and its replacement by a new provision and observed that after an amendment by substitution any reference to a legislation must be construed as the legislation as amended by substitution. In the context of application of extended time limit under TOLA to the ‘new regime’, the Court in para 63 observed as under:

“TOLA extended the time limits for completion or compliance of certain actions under the specified Act, which fell for completion during the COVID-19 outbreak. The use of the expression “any” in Section 3(1) indicates that the relaxation applies to “all” or “every” action whose time limit falls for completion from 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021. Section 3(1) is only concerned with the performance of actions contemplated under the provisions of the specified Acts. Consequently, the amendment or substitution of a provision under the specified Acts will not affect the application of TOLA, so long as the action contemplated under the provision falls for completion during the period specified by TOLA, that is, 20 March 2020 to 31 March 2021.”

8.4.5 With respect to the applicability of TOLA to the ‘new regime’ after 1st April, 2021, the Court in para 68 held as under:

“On 1 April 2021, TOLA was still in existence, and the Revenue could not have ignored the application of TOLA and its notifications. Therefore, for issuing a reassessment notice under Section 148 after 1 April 2021, the Revenue would still have to look at: (i) the time limit specified under Section 149 of the new regime; and (ii) the time limit for issuance of notice as extended by TOLA and its notifications. The Revenue cannot extend the operation of the old law under TOLA, but it can certainly benefit from the extended time limit for completion of actions falling for completion between 20 March 2020 and 31 March 2021.”

8.4.6 Furthermore, the Court referred to the non-obstante clause in section 3(1) of TOLA and observed that the same will override section 149 to the extent of relaxing the time limit for issuance of reassessment notices under section 148 of the Act which fell between 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021.

8.4.7 With respect to application of TOLA to grant of sanction under section 151 of the Act, the Court held that the specified authority under section 151 of the Act is directly co-related to the time when a notice is issued. Court further held that TOLA will extend the time limit for grant of sanction by the authority specified under section 151 of the Act.

8.4.8 While dealing with one of the issues raised by the assessee that whether the directions in Ashish Agarwal applied to all the reassessment notices issued under the ‘old regime’ post 1st April 2021 or only those which were challenged by way of writ petitions before the High Courts, after considering the relevant paras of that decision, the Court observed as under at end of para 90:

“The purpose of this Court in deeming the reassessment notices issued under the old regime as show cause notices under the new regime was two-fold: (i) to strike a balance between the rights of the assesses and the Revenue which issued approximately ninety thousand reassessment notices after 1 April 2021 under the old regime; and (ii) to avoid any further appeals before this Court by the Revenue on the same issue by challenging similar judgments and orders of the High Courts (arising from approximately nine thousand writ petitions).”

On this issue, the Court finally held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal would apply PAN India to all the reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 under the ‘old regime’.

8.4.9 The Court then considering the validity of reassessment notices issued between July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal broke down the period into three parts — (i) period upto 30th June, 2021 – covered by the provisions of the Act read with TOLA, (ii) period from 1st July, 2021 to 3rd May 2022 — period before the decision in Ashish Agarwal and (iii) period after 4th May, 2022 – period covered by the directions issued in Ashish Agarwal. Court then referred to the third proviso to section 149 of the Act which excludes (i) the time allowed under section 148A(b) and (ii) the period during which the proceedings under section 148A are “stayed by an order or injunction of any Court”. Thereafter, the Court at paras 105 to 106 explained the legal fiction created by Ashish Agarwal and held as under:

“105. … During the period from the date of issuance of the deemed notice under Section 148A(b) and the date of the decision of this Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra), the assessing officers were deemed to have been prohibited from passing a reassessment order. Resultantly, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed by order of this Court from the date of their issuance (somewhere from 1 April 2021 till 30 June 2021) till the date of decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), that is, 4 May 2022.

106. … A show cause notice is effectively issued in terms of Section 148A(b) only if it is supplied along with the relevant information and material by the assessing officer. Due to the legal fiction, the assessing officers were deemed to have been inhibited from acting in pursuance of the Section 148A(b) notice till the relevant material was supplied to the assesses. Therefore, the show cause notices were deemed to have been stayed until the assessing officers provided the relevant information or material to the assesses in terms of the direction issued in Ashish Agarwal (supra). ”

8.4.10 Referring to exclusion of time granted to the assessee to respond to the notice and total time to be excluded under the third proviso to section 149 of the Act, the Court in para 107 stated as under:

“… Hence, the total time that is excluded for computation of limitation for the deemed notices is: (i) the time during which the show cause notices were effectively stayed, that is, from the date of issuance of the deemed notice between 1 April 2021 and 30 June 2021 till the supply of relevant information or material by the assessing officers to the assesses in terms of the directions in Ashish Agarwal (supra); and (ii) two weeks allowed to the assesses to respond to the show cause notices.”

8.4.11 In the context of time limit for issuing notice under section 148 and deciding validity of such notices issued post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the Court further stated in para 111 as under:

“The clock started ticking for the Revenue only after it received the response of the assesses to the show causes notices. After the receipt of the reply, the assessing officer had to perform the following responsibilities: (i) consider the reply of the assessee under Section *149A(c); (ii) take a decision under Section *149A(d) based on the available material and the reply of the assessee; and (iii) issue a notice under Section 148 if it was a fit case for reassessment. Once the clock started ticking, the assessing officer was required to complete these procedures within the surviving time limit. The surviving time limit, as prescribed under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA, was available to the assessing officers to issue the reassessment notices under Section 148 of the new regime.”

* This should be 148A

8.4.12 Supreme Court then held that the reassessment notices issued under Section 148 of the ‘new regime’ ought to be issued within the time limit surviving under the Income Tax Act read with TOLA and that a reassessment notice issued beyond the ‘surviving period’ will be time barred. Supreme Court explained the ‘surviving period’ as was available to the Assessing Officers for issuing the reassessment notices under the ‘new regime’ by way of an example in para 112:

“Let us take the instance of a notice issued on 1 May 2021 under the old regime for a relevant assessment year. Because of the legal fiction, the deemed show cause notices will also come into effect from 1 May 2021. After accounting for all the exclusions, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days [days between 1 May 2021 and 30 June 2021] to issue a notice under Section 148 of the new regime. This time starts ticking for the assessing officer after receiving the response of the assessee. In this instance, if the assessee submits the response on 18 June 2022, the assessing officer will have sixty-one days from 18 June 2022 to issue a reassessment notice under Section 148 of the new regime. Thus, in this illustration, the time limit for issuance of a notice under Section 148 of the new regime will end on 18 August 2022.”

8.4.13 Finally, Supreme Court set aside the judgments of various High Courts to the extent of the observations made in its present decision.

8.4.14 With respect to the way forward post its decision in Rajeev Bansal, the Supreme Court in its Record of Proceedings dated 3rd October, 2024 (unreported) stated in para 3 as under:

“The assessing officers will dispose of the objections in terms of the law laid down by this Court. Thereafter, the assessees who are aggrieved will be at liberty to pursue all the rights and remedies in accordance with law, save and except for the issues which have been concluded by this judgment.”

Conclusion

9.1 In view of the decision of the Supreme Court, the applicability of TOLA to the provisions of the ‘new regime’ has now been settled. However, the validity of reassessment proceedings initiated for assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–8 will now have to be decided afresh on a case to case basis as per the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in its decision. While doing so, one may also bear in mind that the High Court decisions have been set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in its decision.

9.2 With respect to reassessment proceedings initiated for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the primary point that will have to be considered is as to whether the reopening notices were issued within the ‘surviving period’ as explained by way of an example by the Supreme Court in para 112 of the judgment (refer para 8.4.12 above). Depending on the date on which the 148 notices were issued under the ‘old regime’, it is possible that some of the notices issued for the assessment years 2013–14 and 2014–15 could be barred by limitation. For instance, if the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ was issued on say 21st June 2021, the AO would have 10 days (days between 21st June, 2021 and 30th June, 2021) to issue notice under the ‘new regime’ which would start after receiving the response of the assessee. Assuming that the assessee submitted his response on 9th June 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal, the AO ought to have issued the 148 notice under the ‘new regime’ by 19th June 2022. If the notice is issued after 19th June, 2022, the same would be barred by limitation. For further clarity on this, discussions appearing at paras 8.4.9 to 8.4.11 above is also useful.

9.2.1 In the above example, had the 148 notice under the ‘old regime’ been issued on 29th June, 2021, the time available to the AO for issuing notice under the ‘new regime’ being less than 7 days should be extended to 7 days as per the fourth proviso (as at the time of introduction) to section 149(1) of the Act [refer para 1.4(iv) of Part I of the write-up].

9.2.2 In an event where no response was filed by the assessee pursuant to the information supplied by the AO as per the directions in Ashish Agarwal, the time for issuing 148 notice under the new regime in the above example would start from the end of the date by which the response ought to have been filed by the assessee.

9.2.3 Further, what is envisaged by the third proviso to section 149(1) is exclusion of the time or extended time allowed to the assessee to file a response. In a case where the AO suomotu extends the time to file the response without any request by the assessee such time should not be excluded while computing the period of limitation. In this regard, useful reference may be made to the decision of the Bombay High Court in Godrej Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT Cir. 14(1)(2) [2024] 160 taxmann.com 13 (Bombay).

9.2.4 With respect to reassessment proceedings for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 where income alleged to have escaped assessment is less than R50 lakhs, one can contest the validity of such notices after considering the example of the ‘surviving period’ and considering the dates in each case. In such cases also, the position mentioned in paras 9.2 to 9.2.3 above will be relevant. Further in the context of applying ₹50 lakhs limit, it is worth noting that gross sales consideration is not the income. There is distinction between the two. For this useful reference may be made to the M.P. High Court judgment in the case of Nitin Nema[ (2023) 458 ITR 690] against which Revenue’s SLP is recently dismissed [(2024) 468 ITTR 105-SC]
9.3 With respect to the reassessment proceedings for assessment year 2015–16 initiated on or after 1st April. 2024 the same ought to be dropped by the Assessing Officers in light of the concession made by the Revenue recorded in para 19(f) of the Supreme Court judgment (refer para 8.2.2 above) to this effect (also refer para 8.4.3 above). For this useful reference may also be made to tribunal decisions referred to next para 9.4.

9.4 Reference may be made to a decision of the Mumbai Tribunal in ITO 10(3)(1) vs. Pushpak Realities Pvt. Ltd. (ITA no. 4812, 4814 and 4816/ Mum/2024) where the Tribunal was dealing with the appeal filed by the Revenue challenging the order of the CIT(A) quashing the reassessment proceedings for AY 2013–14 to 2015–16. Tribunal followed the ratio laid down in Rajeev Bansal’s case while deciding the matter. Tribunal held that the notices issued for AY 2013–14 on 29th July 2022 and for AY 2014–15 on 31st July, 2022 were barred by limitation even under TOLA. Tribunal also quashed the 148 notice for AY 2015–16 issued on 28th July, 2022 after noting Revenue’s concession before the Supreme Court that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 and held that the same was barred by limitation under the new provisions of section 149(1). It is worth noting that in this case relevant facts for determining the ‘surviving period’ to find out time limit available for issuing notice under section 148 post Ashish Agarwal’s decision is not available from the ITAT decision. It may be noted that this is ex-parte decision and nobody appeared for the assessee. In the context of AY 2015-16, similar view is also taken by the Mumbai Tribunal in ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) where the reopening notice dated 29th July 2022 for AY 2015-16 is quashed.

9.5 In appropriate cases, based on the facts, the validity of the reassessment notices will have to be seen based on whether the approval of the specified authority under section 151 was validly obtained. In this regard, the example given by the Supreme Court in para 78 is of paramount importance. Supreme Court observes — “For example, the three year time limit for assessment year 2017-2018 falls for completion on 31st March, 2021. It falls during the time period of 20th March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021, contemplated under Section 3(1) of TOLA. Resultantly, the authority specified under Section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ can grant sanction till 30th June, 2021.” From this, it would appear that while TOLA applied for the purposes of section 151 of the ‘new regime’ as well, however, the authority specified in section 151(i) of the ‘new regime’ could grant sanction only upto 30th June 2021 and not beyond that. The 148 notices issued post Ashish Agarwal’s decision were all issued in 2022. In such an event, with respect to 148 notices issued under the ‘new regime’ for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18, the sanction ought to have been obtained from the authority specified under section 151(ii) after 30th June, 2021. If the sanction is not so obtained, the reopening notices for these AYs should be bad in law. In the case of ACIT vs. Manish Financial (ITA nos. 5050 and 5055/ Mum/ 2024) before the Mumbai Tribunal, for AY 2016-17, reassessment notice was issued on 30th July 2022 under the ‘new regime’ post the directions in Ashish Agarwal. The said notice was issued after obtaining sanction of PCIT-19, Mumbai i.e. authority specified u/s. 151(i) of the Act. Tribunal held that the 148 notice was invalid and liable to be quashed as the notice was issued beyond a period of three years and that the approval ought to have been taken from an authority specified u/s. 151(ii) of the Act.

9.6 As stated in para 9.1 above, the decisions of the High Courts are set aside only to the extent of the observations made by the Supreme Court in Rajeev Bansal’s case. As stated in para 5.5 of Part 1 of the write-up, Bombay High Court in the decision of Siemens while adjudicating on the validity of the reassessment proceedings, had also held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’. Supreme Court may be considered to have impliedly approved the above decision of the High Court on the point of change of opinion.

9.7 In the above Rajeev Bansal’s case, the Court has disposed of large number of appeals involving different assessment years and facts by adjudicating on common legal issues. Therefore, each case will have to be finally decided on it’s facts applying the legal position decided by the Supreme Court on given issues. As such, one more round of litigation in many cases can’t be ruled out for the re-assessment notices originally issued during 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021. This set of provision, which was undoubtedly well intended and beneficial to the assessees in the area of reassessments, met with such kind of litigation up to the highest court twice and still cases involved are not concluded with a possibility of further litigation. This reflects the state of affairs in the Country with regard to repetitive and long drawn unending litigation in tax matters leading to uncertainty. Unfortunately, such trend may also continue in future if the past experience of tax litigation is any guide. This also affects the investments and growth prospects of overall economy which is against the interest of every one. As such, some drastic steps are needed to remedy this situation and more importantly, mind set and approach of All Stake Holders need to change in this regard and that is perhaps the need of the hour in overall national interest. Let us be positive and hope for the sunrise.

9.8 Further amendments have been made in the provisions dealing with reassessment proceedings such as sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 etc. by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 w.e.f. 1st September, 2024. Therefore, reassessment notice issued from 1st September, 2024 will be governed by these amended provisions.

Chatting Up About India: Taxpayer Asks From Income Tax Code

The purpose of this article is to present income taxpayer view and some asks. Its cause is some movement in the government about relooking at tax code project more actively. After all, hope of taxpayer cannot be taken or taxed.

Ideally and reasonably, the tax code should mean an enabling force to lead Bharat towards the vision of 2047. For this to happen, taxpayer inputs are critical. Normally taxpayer inputs are taken as a checkbox ticking process. Tax administration does not record reasons for acceptance or rejection of inputs nor communicates anything about them, leave alone reasoning them out. Taxpayer suggestions pass as ‘consultation’, but falls way short of taking the shape of ‘consideration’. Everyone knows that the powerful finally do what they want and what will balance the budget as the obvious and fundamental matters remain off the agenda for decades. At the same time, it will be unfair to ignore work done by this NDA government in last 11 years towards making positive changes.

Nothing in this article that sounds sweeping, is not meant to be so, as there will always be exceptions. The matters in the following paragraphs are based on trends, concept of pre-dominance for the purpose of relevance, emphasis and common sense.

Nation: From Claws to Clauses

The claws of British Raj ended in 1947 and 1950 as we celebrate 75 years of Samvidhaan. The Claws of British ended and a new Rule of Law was envisaged where the nation will run with Clauses that will work for its citizens. The transition is ongoing from the CLAWS of the RAJ to CLAUSES of the STATE and not complete. The legacy system of income taxes is modelled on the Raj. Social Contract (rights, obligations and functions of citizens and government) is still not in place as a diverse country like ours would like. Now we are faced with the magical opportunity to make Bharat glorious for everyone where everyone works towards that common dream. The state obviously is funded by taxes and in that context; the taxpayer is that sub set of the citizenry, which is akin to National Treasure or the precious lot1, that makes a tangible contribution towards making Bharat glorious.


1 Budget Documents of 2024: 19% of Union Budget met by Income taxes

Taxpayer — KarDaataais the real Rashtra Samvardhak

Often the Sarkar takes credit for all development and good news. That is not true largely. Like the AnnaDaata, that is glorified in every political speech (despite them remaining poor and dependent), a taxpayer is the AnnaDaata. She gives nourishment to all schemes, spending, and development through taxes and therefore is a राष्ट्रपोषक, राष्ट्रसंवर्धक, and राष्ट्रकर्तारः. So, taking credit by executive would be like RBI taking credit for every rupee spent or earned since it prints the currency.

The point here is critical: understanding of the KarDaataaas VikasPoshak and should therefore be central to tax laws (by the way, it is not). While many people in the country take to streets, block roads for months, climb on Red Fort and remove tricolour to thrust their demands or protest; the taxpayers who contribute 19 per cent of Union Budget 2024 via income taxes don’t do any of this despite having fair case for a much better treatment. The words of then revenue secretary and now the Reserve Bank of India Governor, Shri Sanjay Malhotra talking to DRI officers pointed out: “We are here not only for revenue, we are here for the whole economy of the country, so if in the process of garnering some small revenue, we are hurting the whole industry or the economy of the country, it is certainly not the intent. Revenue comes in only when there is some income, so we have to be very cautious so that we do not in the process, as they say, kill the golden goose”2


2 https://www.cnbctv18.com/economy/revenue-secretary-sanjay-malhotra-stresses-balanced-approach-to-customs-duty-enforcement-19519098.htm - cnbctv18.com, December 4, 2024

Let’s look at who is this taxpayer?

a) Out of about 140,00,00,000 people of India, 7,54,61,286 individuals file tax returns3.


3 Income Tax Returns Statistics AY 2023-24, Published in June 2024

b) Of the 7.54 Crores individual tax returns, 2,81,61,3614 individual tax returns contributed to ₹6,77,350 Crore as Income Tax Liability5 as declared by them as tax on ₹61,77,988 Crores of GTI or Gross Total Income6. Thus, only 2 per cent of the population in India pays income taxes.


4 Ibid Page 31
5 Ibid Page 6
6 Ibid Page 6

c) Of the above 7.54 Crore people, about 6.92 Crore7 people are in the slab of up to ₹15,00,000 GTI, and declare some 40 Lac Crore as GTI8.


7 Ibid Page 21
8 Ibid page 21

d) During her working life, a taxpayer contributes 5-10-20-30-40 per cent of working life towards this goal excluding indirect taxes and other taxes and levies. How? Because the time spent by her at work, results in earnings, out of that earning, a portion goes as tax. Therefore, she gives on an average 5 per cent to 43 per cent of working life time for the country. That is how Karadaatais Annadataor Vikas Poshak that nourishes the nation.

e) What is a common taxpayer trying to do: He is wanting to come out of poverty / lack and improve his ability to buy for himself and family a life of dignity, comfort, safety and wishes to die without lack and pain.

f) This taxpayer is also “valuable convertible currency” — she can move to other countries and contribute to that country’s development and growth and pay taxes there if the opportunity is better elsewhere. It is well known that Indians are TOP expats anywhere in the world who contribute more and take less from those governments. Richest group in America is of Indian origin — they seek little benefits, they are most educated, they have open outlook, contribute to economy and society in every sphere from taxes to politics.

g) What is beating down the taxpayer in achieving his goal: Inflation and tax obligation defeat the citizen’s aspirations given in (e) above. Therefore, one cannot talk of taxes without inflation. Normally one can compare rise in basic exemption limit by comparing it with inflation indices. But for a moment I wish to present the ‘gold standard’ on how even the Basic Exemption Limit (BEL) furthers this beating of taxpayer:


9 Finance Bill, 1971 for FY 2071-72 
10 https://www.bankbazaar.com/gold-rate/gold-rate-trend-in-india.html

Analysis:

i) Why Gold: Gold has been historically and presently the store of value for all central banks. Value of currency is not the real value nor is declared inflation true reflection of what currency can do. This comparison tells us that BEL is actually going down instead of up, it hasn’t protected taxpayers, and erodes their ability to save and invest. Even if one were to take, ₹700,000 as that BEL, it is more than 30 per cent lower. The author does understand gold as investment class, however it has been so for millennia.

ii) The Basic Exemption Limit if one wants 143 gms. gold should be ₹10.56 lacs at ₹73,909 / 10 gms gold price on 1st April, 2024.

iii) The table shows that BEL has been beating the hell out of taxpayer, especially those on the edge who are trying to stay afloat to remain in the middle income group.

iv) Similar exercise can be done for upper limit of 30 per cent from which maximum rate applies. It could have the same outcome.

h) A taxpayer tries to race and beat the scourge of inflation eating into his savings by investing in modes like the stock market. However, today LTCGs is taxed at flat rate above ₹1.25 Lacs despite continuation of STT (which was brought in place of exemption of LTCG).

i) Inflation basket: The inflation basket doesn’t take two major expenses of middle income group adequately —housing costs and education cost. For emerging middle-income group, which pays this tax at a level that it bleeds, inflation is not factored by tax system fairly. BEL is not ‘inflation adjusted’.

j) What do you get for being a taxpayer: It must be noted that taxpayer doesn’t get ONE BENEFIT from Sarkar that a non-taxpayer doesn’t get (well we received certificates for 1-2 years). Further the taxpayer is susceptible to come into a ‘harassment net’ in the form of not given tax credit despite tax credit in Form 26AS or sending claims for unpaid taxed that are of 10-15 years old without showing any basis and even adjusting refunds against those so called unpaid demands. In fact, if you are general category, your taxes will be used to deny your children admissions on merit by huge margins to the extent that you pay two to three-times apart from being discriminated on marks. One reason for brain drain.

k) Paying taxes will debar you from every incentive a non-taxpayer enjoys at the expense of the taxpayer.

Therefore, the only response a government with a reasonable mind-set, which can grasp the above, is to protect this taxpayer number, and let it grow organically so that it can contribute more by earning more. Disrupting its earning, taking taxes excessively, being unfair will have adverse results.

Tax Administration — A Business Case

The tax administration consists of unelected people but it carries substantial power. The taxpaying citizens’ ask from tax administration is small and reasonable: have clear to understand and easy to comply tax laws and procedures.

At a structural level, the problem with the tax administration is that an individual administrator has nothing to lose personally for a decision he takes or not take whereas the taxpayer has a large monetary stake. This problem gets bigger by slow, expensive, cumbersome and little recourse to justice.

Typically, administrative system is modelled to self-perpetuate — making more of itself and increase the work and importance for itself. This is despite the bureaucracy often identified with sub-par outcomes, corruption, revenue bias, inability to listen to people it is meant to serve, slow implementation, and low standards of services.

Considering the above facts and facets about the taxpayer, the supreme role of tax administration should be to make lives of taxpayers easy, remove difficulties with pace and not have adversarial attitude. The idea of Sarkar vs. Kardaataa where the previous is chasing the latter is a remnant of the Raj. Yet, Sarkar remains the biggest litigant and from tax litigation its track record at winning at all three levels is far from admirable. Therefore, adversity, except with proven evaders and criminals, should be avoided. It just makes business sense.

The idea of serving the taxpayer where he can earn more and therefore he can in absolute terms pay more tax is genetically and historically missing. Tax laws should be made and presented as enablers.

Taxpayer Asks

The following paragraphs carry some simple ideas. Ideas that can:

a) be implemented without much effort,

b) be disproportionately in favour of benefits while evaluating effort vs. benefits ratio,

c) yield long term and short term benefits to taxpayer and tax collector.

d) makeViksit Bharat Sankalp a reality.

e) be measuring rods to evaluate existing laws and as tools to fix undesirable tax laws and their administration.

I. SIMPLICITY OF DRAFTING

Law is how it reads, just as money is what money can buy. Law need not be simple, but its drafting certainly can be.

Anyone who opens the ITA or Rules can tell that it’s not in English that common taxpayer can read and understand both. It is written in terse, dated, Queen’s English that is already BANNED in many countries11 where Queen / King are still on their currency. Such legal writing is culturally misplaced and at best a remnant of the Raj. US and UK had a Plain English movement12 in 1970s. New Zealand has a Legislation Manual13 on drafting laws in a language that is clear for mortals to decipher. It says: “Drafters must never lose an opportunity to make legislation easier to understand. This is primarily a matter of using plain language and drafting clearly14. The Legislation Manual prohibits use of certain words that are everywhere in Indian tax laws.

Indian legislative drafting is far from plain English. India is not Bharat so far as legislative drafting of income tax laws is concerned. We are more British than even the present Britain despite the Queen having left 75 years ago and now even the planet. We haven’t won the battle between Authority and Accessibility yet, which such drafting poses. Lawyers and even CAs too, often tend to believe that complexity in writing is a sign of expertise and even genius. While actually it is only a form of barrier to communication and access at best. A recent MIT report15, posted by Elon Musk16 says the same thing and gives causes and means of obfuscating laws through such writing. How are Indian laws written? Well, most Dharma Shashtras, ArthaShashtra — ideas on conduct and economics are written in poetry, with high level of aesthetics.

Clarity can only come when the language is not a barrier, and drafting is for understanding and not casting a spell. Lack of clarity shows lack of understanding and /and certainly lack of adequate care for the reader. About 0.02 per cent people said English was their first language, 6.8 per cent people said it was their second language, and 3.8 per cent said it was their third language as per last census of 2011. If I were the head of drafting team of Law Ministry, I would have them put this framed:


11 Search Plain English movement and Pg45 , Para 158 of NZ Legislation Manual
12 The movement began in the 1970s in the United States and England. It was a response to criticism of the complexity of legal English and the lack of clarity in consumer information
13 https://www.lawcom.govt.nz/assets/Publications/Reports/NZLC-R35.pdf
14 Ibid Para 118, Page 35
15 https://news.mit.edu/2024/mit-study-explains-laws-incomprehensible-writing-style-0819
16 17th December, 2024 on X

Simplicity is the price for Clarity.
Clarity is the pre-requisite of greatness.17

Here is what research, experience and common sense tells us: Sentences longer than 27 to 30 words don’t land on the other side as they should. I tried redrafting such sections and normally found that in most cases there is 30 per cent flab. The short point is that Income Tax Act should be redrafted largely to:

1. Remove long sentences and break them down in shorter sentences about 30 words in length;
2. Remove / Reduce endless web of clauses, sub clause, sub-sub clauses, explanations, provisos, cross references. Remove all obfuscating words and replace them with common sense words;

3. Shorten the entire law of 1000s of pages by 20 to 30 per cent as legalise is akin to cholesterol and visceral fat in the words of a recent report18.

4. Keep the intent, meaning, key words, numbering and flow as it is. The Act should be contemporaneous and can be rearranged where necessary and yet reduced in size.

Is this doable? Very easily. How long should this take? Perhaps 6-12 Months, if one starts with important clauses.


17 Inspired by Da Vinci quote “Simplicity is the ultimate sophistication”
18 https://www.teamleaseregtech.com/reports/jailed-for-doing-business/ - Jailed for Doing Business, 2022

II. CLARITY

Clarity amongst other meanings would be:

– Words are simple and commonly used

– Where needed, words are defined; no undefined key word should be there;

– Words should not be absurd / redundant – Example: Assessment Year. I wonder whether this has any meaning at all except confusing people. You have year of Birth, year of graduation. Take the word “actually incurred” in Sections 10(5), 10(13A), 17(2) Proviso, 35 (2B)/ (5B) and Section 220 explanation;

– Low on repetition within the section of words and phrases and structuring;

– It’s not over the top long with numerous explanations, provisos, further tarnished by multiple amendments – Example: Read Rule 11UA, Rule 2(a) has 101 words in one sentence.

– Keep control of phrases such as “being”. The word Being seeks to change reality. It creates notion and fiction rather than deal with reality. Such subjectivity causes litigation and tax evasion. Ideas of notional rent (a property which can be reasonably let out). Rent is real, it’s not a word or fiction. Law creates a fiction and then creates a charge.

– Keep control over the phrase “as may be prescribed”. This is the passport to endlessly add directions on taxpayers.

Here is an example of Clarity

Original:

“Notwithstanding anything contained herein, a person who knowingly fails to comply with the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be liable to a fine not exceeding fifty thousand rupees or imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, or both.” (41 words)

Clear:

“If someone knowingly violates this section, he may be fined up to ₹50,000, imprisoned for up to one year, or both.” (21 words)

As you will see Clarity and Simplicity are twins. When they play together, the game is unambiguous.

III. CONGRUENCE OF LAWS WITH EASE OF COMPLIANCE

It is a stated State Policy of PM Modi’s government where ease of living and ease of doing business are pillars of everything. However, the laws are not congruent with the state policy.

Example: Size of ITR. A blank PDF ITR 6 is 80 Pages, ITR 3 is 58 pages, ITR 7 is 33 Pages.ITR 2 is 34 Pages. I could not find ease anywhere in those pages.

Why? Because snoop for data which is otherwise available. For example, for small businesses / companies it is asking Financial Statements
details at trial balance line item level. Today the same government has, and I believe government is one in this country:

i) access to GST data — which is invoice level sale and purchase and expenses.

ii) Annual Filing with MCA of every line item of Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account.

iii) AIS and TIS give transactions;

iv) There is NSDL CAS Data for Financial Assets which an assessee can offer to share.

It’s hard to understand why ITD cannot use some of this data instead of seeking it again under every regulation and then causing internal mismatch within the ITR or ITR and TAR or even ITR and other data sets / points like customs / GST etc. It seems like a trap set up or a synonym for ‘got you’.

Duplication and Excess is an impediment. It is probably a means of the state to see if the same data comes at 3–4 places. But doesn’t help Ease of Doing Business and Ease of Living.

Action Point

1. Take Company Identification Number (CIN) and MCA filing challan number of small companies in ITR, if filing is done and audited accounts are uploaded there;

2. This can be done post ITR also — like UDIN for TAR — within say 30 days instead of giving huge financial data. This will mean authorising ITD to fetch data from MCA;

3. Same for LLP;

4. Further, there is an option to attach FS for all others where there is no tax audit or only take total assets, total liabilities, Sale, Expenses and Profit figures where there is GST.

5. Today there are many options to reduce excess, duplicity and cumbersome data filling which often are made a cause of mismatch and dispute.

IV. RESTRAINT ON AMENDMENTS AND NOTIFICATIONS

RBI brings out Master Circulars / Master Directions once a year on a fixed day. It consolidates all Circulars and Notifications.

125 Notifications and 18 Circulars are issued till 15th December, 2024 under the Direct Tax Laws. Most Notifications are very specific and irrelevant to most people. Circulars are often Q&A or clarifications. Many seem like announcements. Here is the statistics:

Calendar Year Notifications Circulars
2024 (15 Dec) 125/2024 18/2024
2023 106/2023 20/2023
2022 128/2022 25/2022

 

Wouldn’t it be great to have a Quarterly Notification and Circular giving all that is needed unless its life and death situations — like flood relief institutions etc.? Income Tax Department (ITD) must end piecemeal and haphazard approach, which makes income tax law fragmented, messy, and lying all over the place.

Action Point

a. Bring One Notification per quarter or month

b. Bring One Circular per quarter or month

c. Bring and Annual Master Direction collating all changes of the year — Notifications and Circulars.

d. Eventually review all Circulars and Notifications and withdraw what is already a law or Rule and make collation of Circulars that are applicable from a date onwards.

V. FAIRNESS & TIMELINES

a) Laws tilted in favour of tax department

i. Penalties only on taxpayer, nothing on tax officer for their shortcomings.

ii. Interest charged: 12 per cent, Interest given: 6 per cent. This promotes delay in refunds apart from being unfair. Why should a tax payer pay double interest whereas government will pay 6 per cent for delay? This is unfair and promotes late refunds and also causes working capital problems for taxpayer.

iii. Tax Department should be treated akin to trade credit for MSME. Same laws of repayment should apply as often government causes business downfall due to cash flow crunch.

b) Taxpayers’ Charter and Taxpayer Services should be made a law, at least most of it. This will mean that government is committed to taxpayer and treat them as clients. Taxpayer rights and protections are not in the law, but in taxpayer charter on the wall. Much of the taxpayer service should become part of law and tax officer should be bound to deliver basic services – timely response, not closing queries, closing grievances without confirmation of assessee, escalation available for assessee, and so on. RTI like mechanism where 14 days’ rule will apply to provide data to taxpayer. Power without corresponding responsibility and accountability is lacking in the present law.

c) Approval & Discretion without Time lines: This mechanism is most prone to abuse. We all live within time. Taxpayer has to comply within a timeline. Then why not for tax collector at every stage? Example: Taxpayer services like Section 197 certificate. There cannot be anything that requires permission or application or justice without timeline — Say I have to file an appeal in 60 days, shouldn’t ITD dispose appeal in xxx days?

VI. ARBITRARY UNMOVING MONETARY LIMITS

Arbitrary limits that remain unchanged for years and decades:

a. Section 54E: ₹50 lac permitted investment has remained same since 1st April, 2007.

b. TP Study: International transactions of ₹ One Crore and above need a TP Study. This limit is there since TP law was introduced in 2001.

c. ₹100,000 remained as a limit for exempting LTCG from 2018 till 2024.

d. ₹10 Crore on Capital Gains investment in House Property is arbitrary — no explanation, just a law that if you sell shares and buy a property which was allowed without limit, now will be allowed till ₹10 crores. What if a young citizen was planning and saving to buy a dream house for 20 years, and now he will have to pay tax on the tax paid money I invested.

e. Mediclaim limit, 80C limit of ₹150,000, ₹50,000 Standard Deduction Limit have remained unchanged for years.

f. R100 for school allowance19 — this is not a limit; it is an insult. In fact, higher education allowance is a must for taxpayers. Today general category will pay ₹20 lacs minimum in Deemed Medical colleges per year per child despite getting adequate marks. Is this honouring middle income group?


19 Section 10(14), read with Rule 2BB

VII. CONSISTENCY, SURPRISES AND TURNAROUNDS

Taxpayers want consistency and stability. This is the bedrock of any relationship. One of the main ask is to keep the policy and law consistent.

LTCG

Late FM Arun Jaitley, mentioned that India won’t impose tax on LTCG20. In February 2018 tax imposed on LTCG by Shri Jaitley. But it did not end there, STT wasn’t rolled back. Till November ₹36,000 Crores of STT21 collected in FY 24-25 and also LTCG for FY 2023-24 was ₹36, 867 Crores from Individual ITRs between the range of 150,000 to 15,00,00022.


20 25 December 2016, https://www.business-standard.com/article/reuters/india-won-t-impose-long-term-capital-gains-tax-finance-minister-jaitley-116122500535_1.html

21 https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/stt-collection-hits-36000-crore-reaching-97-of-budget-target-amid-market-rally/article68858203.ece

22  Income Tax Returns Statistics AY 2023-24, Published in June 2024, page 25

This is one recent example of lack of consistency and turnaround.

Budget as a Surprise Genie

Is Budget a magic show, where new changes are released? Much of this can stop. There is zero reason to bring out changes via Budgets without informing people in advance.

Example: Sudden change to limit of ₹10 Crore for property Purchase from sale of Shares.

If someone is in the middle of a transaction or is planning for years to buy a property, his costing changes in a big way. If there was knowledge that such changes are effective, then people can plan better. Such changes are used in the Budget as if they are a trap, as in a war where surprise is an element of ambush. Yes some rate changes etc. which are expected, or minor amendments to make law more efficient. However, taxpayer benefit should be above all and taxpayer needs to know what is coming when it’s a major change.

Imagine if this was known in advance that you have 12 months to sell equity, make gains and buy a house if you need to before 12.5 per cent and ₹10 Crore kicks in. Will it result in homes price inflation? Will there be a sell out in equity? I don’t think so. India is way too large now for such changes rocking the markets.

Example of Turnaround: Adding MAT to Tax Free SEZ Units midway in 10-year time period.

SEZ were exempt from tax as scheme. One fine day MAT on SEZ was introduced. This is breaking a promise. Once an investor has started a project with knowledge that there won’t be taxes, and then taxes creep in, it is breaking the contracts through law. A sovereign right need not be used to disrupt and throw taxpayers under the bus.

Predictability attracts investments as it reduces risk and is the bedrock of Trust.

Finally, taxmen always ask this question: will all these increase tax compliance and revenue? The answer is yes, because this government itself has adopted some simplification measures that resulted in better compliance, more tax, and more taxpayers. Mahabharata says Dharma always wins in the end. It means if one does the right things, the end result will be right.

There is a vision and idea of Amrit Kal. Another article will deal with some of the specific changes that are necessary in tax laws and procedures and affecting most taxpayers. Some of these may be redundancy, absurdity, unclarity, complexity and the like. Amrit only comes from manthan, and income tax law requires true manthan, where Amrit and Laxmi can both emerge for all people of Bharat.

Validity Of Reassessment Notice Issued U/S 148 By Jurisdictional Assessing Officer

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

The revised procedure for reassessment introduced with effect from 1st April, 2021 is a two-stage process – a procedure u/s 148A for deciding whether it is a fit case for issue of notice for reassessment, and the procedure for reassessment u/s 148. While the reassessment has to be done in a faceless manner as required by section 151A by the National Faceless Assessment Centre / Faceless Assessing Officer (NFAC / FAO), the procedure u/s 148A to determine whether the case is fit for reassessment is not required to be conducted in a faceless manner and has therefore to be conducted by the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (JAO).

Under section 148A(3) [s.148A(d) till 31st August, 2024], the Assessing Officer (AO) is required to pass an order, after taking approval of the specified authority u/s 151, determining whether or not the case is fit for reassessment. This has to be done by the AO after issuing show cause notice to the assessee and considering the reply of the assessee. If the case is found fit for reassessment, u/s 148(1), the AO is required to issue a notice u/s 148, along with a copy of the order passed u/s 148A(3)/148A(d), requiring the assessee to furnish a return of income for the relevant
assessment year.

In most cases of reassessment, the JAO has been issuing the notice u/s 148 and serving it on the assessee, along with the order u/s 148A(3)/148A(d). The issue has arisen before the High Courts as to whether such a notice u/s 148 should have been issued by the FAO, and therefore whether the notice u/s 148 and the consequent reassessment proceedings are valid in law. While the Karnataka, Telangana, Bombay and Gauhati High Courts have recently taken the view that such notice issued by the JAO is invalid since it ought to have been issued by the FAO, the Delhi High Court has upheld the validity of such a notice issued by the FAO.

While this controversy has been covered in the June 2024 issue of the BCA Journal, at that point of time there were only two High Court decisions on the subject, that of the Calcutta High Court and one of the Bombay High Court. The subsequent High Court decisions have dealt with the subject at great length, in particular, the Delhi High Court, and therefore it was thought fit to cover
the greater detail of this controversy that has come to the fore.

HEXAWARE TECHNOLOGIES’ CASE

The issue had come up for consideration before the Bombay High Court in the case of Hexaware Technologies Ltd vs. ACIT 464 ITR 430.

In this case, the assessee company was engaged in information technology consulting, software development and business process services. For assessment Year 2015-16, the assessee had filed its return of income on 28th November, 2015. Its assessment was completed u/s 143(3) vide assessment order dated 30th November, 2017.

The JAO issued a notice dated 8th April, 2021 under section 148 (pre-amendment) stating that he had reason to believe that income chargeable to tax for Assessment Year 2015-2016 had escaped assessment within the meaning of Section 147. The assessee filed a writ petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the notice u/s 148 on the ground that the notice had been issued on the basis of provisions which had ceased to exist and were no longer in the statute. The writ
petition was allowed by the Bombay High Court on 29th March, 2022, holding that the notice dated 8th April, 2021 was invalid.

On a Special leave Petition filed by the Revenue in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal 444 ITR 1 (SC), the Supreme Court, in exercise of jurisdiction under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, passed orders with respect to the notices and inter alia held that the notices issued under section 148 after 1st April, 2021 be treated as notices issued under section 148A(b); and provided for timelines to be followed by the AOs for providing assessees the information and material relied upon by the Revenue for initiating reassessment proceedings. The Supreme Court also clarified that all the defenses available to assessees under the provisions of the Act would be available to the assessee.

Thereafter, the JAO issued notice dated 25th May, 2022, stating that the notice was issued in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). The assessee filed its objections to the validity of the notice and proposed reassessment vide its letter dated 10th June, 2022. The JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) on 26th August, 2022, holding that it was fit case for reassessment on some of the grounds. Notice u/s 148 was issued manually by the JAO on 27th August, 2022, stating that the JAO had information which suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment for AY 2015-16.

The assessee again approached the Bombay High Court with a writ petition, challenging the validity of notice dated 25th May, 2022, order u/s 148A(d) dated 26th August, 2022 and notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 on various grounds, including that the notice u/s 148 was invalid as it had been issued by the JAO and not by the FAO.

Before the Bombay High Court, on behalf of the assessee, besides other arguments relating to the validity of the notices, it was argued that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, which was not in accordance with Section 151A, which gave power to the CBDT to notify the Scheme for the purpose of assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147, for issuance of notice under section 148 or for conducting of inquiry or issuance of show cause notice or passing of order under section 148A or sanction for issuance of notice under section 151.

In exercise of the powers conferred under section 151A, the CBDT issued a notification dated 29th March, 2022 after laying the same before each House of Parliament, and formulated a Scheme called “the e-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022” (the Scheme). The Scheme provides that (a) the assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147 and (b) the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with Risk Management Strategy (RMS) formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. The notice dated
27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

On behalf of the Revenue, in relation to the jurisdiction of the JAO to issue notice u/s 148, relying on the notification dated 29th March 2022 [Notification No. 18/2022/F. No.370142/16/2022-TPL], it was submitted that:

(i) The guideline dated 1st August, 2022 issued by the CBDT includes a suggested format for issuing notice under section 148, as an Annexure to the said guideline and it requires the designation of the AO along with the office address to be mentioned and, therefore, it is clear that the JAO is required to issue the said notice and not the FAO.

(ii) ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 dated 24th June, 2022, an internal document, regarding issuing notice under section 148 for the cases impacted by Hon’ble Supreme Court’s decision in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra), requires the notice issued under section 148 to be physically signed by the AOs and, therefore, the JAO has jurisdiction to issue notice under section 148 and it need not be issued by FAO.

(iii) FAO and JAO have concurrent jurisdiction and merely because the Scheme has been framed under section 151A, does not mean that the jurisdiction of the JAO is ousted or that the JAO cannot issue the notice under section 148.

(iv) The notification dated 29th March, 2022 provides that the Scheme so framed, is applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B and Section 144B does not refer to issuance of notice under section 148. Hence, the notice cannot be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme.

(v) No prejudice is caused to the assessee when the notice is issued by the JAO and, therefore, it is not open to the assessee to contend that the said notice is invalid merely because the same is not issued by the FAO.

(vi) Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023 issued by CBDT (TPL division) with the subject – “seeking inputs/comments on the issue of challenge of jurisdiction of JAO – reg.” the Office Memorandum contains the arguments of the Revenue in the context of the Scheme to submit that the notice under section 148 is required to be issued by the JAO and not FAO.
It was argued on behalf of the Revenue that no prejudice had been caused to assessee by the JAO issuing the notice, because the reassessment would be done by the FAO. As held by the Calcutta High Court in Triton Overseas (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India 156 taxmann.com 318 (Cal.), this objection of the assessee had to be rejected.

The Bombay High Court analysed the provisions of section 151A and the notification dated 29th March, 2022 issued u/s 151A. It noted that as per the notified scheme, the issuance of notice under section 148 shall be through automated allocation, in accordance with RMS formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 for issuance of notice and in a faceless manner, to the extent provided in Section 144B with reference to making assessment or reassessment of total income or loss of assessee. It observed that the notice u/s 148 dated 27th August, 2022 had been issued by the JAO and not by the NFAC, which was not in accordance with the Scheme.

The Bombay High Court observed that the guidelines dated 1st August, 2022 relied upon by the Revenue were not applicable because these guidelines were internal guidelines as was clear from the endorsement on the first page of the guideline “Confidential For Departmental Circulation Only”. These guidelines were not issued under section 119 and were not binding on the assessee. According to the High Court, these guidelines were also not binding on the JAO as they were contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme framed u/s 151A. The High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sofitel Realty LLP vs. ITO (TDS) 457 ITR 18 (Bom.), where the Court had held that guidelines were subordinate to the principal Act or Rules, and could not restrict or override the application of specific provisions enacted by the legislature. The Court further observed that the guidelines did not deal with or even refer to the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 framed by the Government under section 151A. As per the Court, the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022 u/s 151A, which had also been laid before Parliament, would be binding on the Revenue, and the guideline dated 1st August, 2022 could not supersede the Scheme. If it provided anything to the contrary to the said Scheme, then that was required to be treated as invalid and bad in law.

As regards ITBA step-by-step Document No. 2 regarding issuance of notice u/s 148 relied upon by the Revenue, as per the High Court, an internal document could not depart from the explicit statutory provisions of, or supersede the Scheme framed by the Government under section 151A, which Scheme was also placed before both the Houses of Parliament. This was more so when the document did not even consider or refer to the Scheme. Further, the High Court was of the view that the document was clearly intended to be a manual/guide as to how to use the Income-tax Department’s (ITD) portal, and did not even claim to be a statement of the Revenue’s position/stand on the issue in question.

The Bombay High Court was further of the view that there was no question of concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148 or even for passing assessment or reassessment order. When specific jurisdiction had been assigned to either the JAO or the FAO in the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, then it was to the exclusion of the other. According to the High Court, to take any other view in the matter would not only result in chaos but also render the whole faceless proceedings redundant. If the argument of Revenue was to be accepted, then even when notices were issued by the FAO, it would be open to an assessee to make submission before the JAO and vice versa, which was clearly not contemplated in the Act.

The High Court further noted that the Scheme in paragraph 3 clearly provided that the issuance of notice “shall be through automated allocation” which meant that the same was mandatory, and was required to be followed by the Department, without any discretion to the ITD to choose whether to follow it or not. “Automated allocation” was defined in paragraph 2(b) of the Scheme to mean an algorithm for randomized allocation of cases by using suitable technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, with a view to optimise the use of resources. Therefore, it meant that the case could be allocated randomly to any officer who would then have jurisdiction to issue the notice under section 148. The Court noted that it was not the ITD’s case that the JAO was the random officer who was allocated jurisdiction.

Addressing the Revenue’s argument that the Scheme so framed was applicable only ‘to the extent’ provided in Section 144B, that Section 144B did not refer to issuance of notice u/s 148 and hence the notice could not be issued by the FAO as per the said Scheme, the High Court noted that section 151A itself contemplated formulation of Scheme for both assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as for issuance of notice u/s 148. Therefore, the Scheme, which covered both the aforesaid aspects of the provisions of section 151A, could not be said to be applicable only for one aspect, i.e., proceedings post the issue of notice u/s 148, being assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 and inapplicable to the issuance of notice u/s 148. According to the High Court, such an argument advanced by the Revenue would render clause 3(b) of the Scheme otiose and to be ignored or contravened, as according to the JAO, even though the Scheme specifically provided for issuance of notice u/s 148 in a faceless manner, no notice was required to be issued u/s 148 in a faceless manner. In such a situation, not only clause 3(b) but also the first two lines below clause 3(b) would be otiose, as it dealt with the aspect of issuance of notice u/s 148.

If clause 3(b) of the Scheme was not applicable, then only clause 3(a) of the Scheme remained. What was covered in clause 3(a) of the Scheme was already provided in Section 144B(1), which Section provided for faceless assessment, and covered assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147. Therefore, if Revenue’s arguments were to be accepted, there was no purpose of framing a Scheme only for clause 3(a), which was in any event already covered under faceless assessment regime in Section 144B. Therefore, as per the High Court, the Revenue’s argument rendered the whole Scheme redundant. An argument which rendered the whole Scheme otiose could not be accepted as correct interpretation of the Scheme.

The High Court observed that the phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” in the Scheme was with reference to only making assessment or reassessment or total income or loss of assessee, and was not relevant for issuing notice. The phrase “to the extent provided in Section 144B of the Act” would mean that the restriction provided in Section 144B, such as keeping the International Tax Jurisdiction or Central Circle Jurisdiction out of the ambit of Section 144B, would also apply under the Scheme. Further the exceptions provided in sub-section (7) and (8) of Section 144B would also be applicable to the Scheme.

As per the Bombay High Court, when an authority acted contrary to law, the said act of the Authority was required to be quashed and set aside as invalid and bad in law, and the person seeking to quash such an action was not required to establish prejudice from the said act. An act which was done by an authority contrary to the provisions of the statute itself caused prejudice to an assessee. All assessees are entitled to be assessed as per law and by following the procedure prescribed by law. Therefore, when the Income-tax Authority proposed to act against an assessee without following the due process of law, the said action itself resulted in a prejudice to the assessee.

With respect to the Office Memorandum (OM) dated 20th February, 2023, the Bombay High Court observed that that OM merely contained the comments of the Revenue issued with the approval of Member (L&S), CBDT, and was not in the nature of a guideline or instruction issued u/s 119 so as to have any binding effect on the Revenue. Further, some of the contents of the OM were clearly contrary to the provisions of the Act and the Scheme. These were highlighted by the Court as under:

1. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that issue of the notice u/s 148 had to be through automation in accordance with the RMS referred to in section148. The issuance of notice is not through automation but through “automated allocation”. The term “automated allocation” is defined in clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme to mean random allocation of cases to AOs. Therefore, it is clear that the AOs are randomly selected to handle a case and it is not merely notice sought to be issued through automation.

2. Paragraph 3 of the OM stated that “To this end, as provided in section 148 of the Act, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of RMS.” The reference to “random” in the Scheme is reference to selection of AO at random and not selection of Section 148 cases at random. If the cases for issuance of notice u/s 148 are selected based on criteria of the RMS, then, obviously, the same are not randomly selected, as random means something which is chosen by chance rather than according to a plan. If the ITD’s argument is that the applicability of section 148 is on random basis, then the provisions of section 148 itself would become contrary to Article 14 of the Constitution of India as being arbitrary and unreasonable. The term ‘random’, in the Court’s view, had been used in the context of assigning the case to a random AO, i.e., an AO would be randomly chosen by the system to handle a particular case. The term ‘random’ was not used for selection of case for issuance of notice u/s 148 as had been alleged by the Revenue in the OM. Further, in paragraph 3.2 of the OM, with respect to the reassessment proceedings, the reference to ‘random allocation’ had correctly been made as random allocation of cases to the Assessment Units by the NFAC. The Court observed that when random allocation was with reference to officer for reassessment, then the same would equally apply for issuance of notice u/s 148.

3. The conclusion in paragraph 3 of the OM that “Therefore, as provided in the scheme the notice u/s 148 of the Act is issued on automated allocation of cases to the AO based on the risk management criteria” was also held to be factually incorrect and on the basis of incorrect interpretation of the Scheme by the High Court. Clause 2(1)(b) of the Scheme, which defined ‘automated allocation’, did not provide that the automated allocation of case to the AO was based on the risk management criteria. The reference to risk management criteria in clause 3 of the Scheme was to the effect that the notice u/s 148 should be in accordance with the RMS formulated by the board, which was in accordance with Explanation 1 to Section 148.

4. In paragraph 3.1 of the OM, it was stated that the cases selected prior to issuance of notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected. It was further stated that these cases are ‘flagged’ to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems, the JAO does not have any control over the process and has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether the case will be ‘flagged’ by the system. The contention of the Revenue is that only cases which are ‘flagged’ by the system as per the RMS formulated by CBDT can be considered by the AO for reopening. In clause (i) in Explanation 1 to Section 148, the term “flagged” has been deleted by the Finance Act, 2022, with effect from 1st April, 2022. In any case, whether only cases which are flagged can be reopened or not is not relevant to decide the scope of the Scheme framed under section 151A.

5. As regards the statement in paragraph 3.1 of the OM that “Therefore, whether JAO or NFAC should issue such notice is decided by administration keeping in mind the end result of natural justice to the assessees as well as completion of required procedure in a reasonable time”, the High Court was of the opinion that there was no such power given to the administration under either Section 151A or under the Scheme. The Scheme was clear and categorical that notice u/s 148 shall be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

6. The statement in paragraph 3.3 of the OM that “Here it is pertinent to note that the said notification does not state whether the notices to be issued by the NFAC or the Jurisdictional Assessing Officer (“JAO”)……It states that issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS and that the assessment shall be in faceless manner to the extent provided in section 144B of the Act” was also held to be erroneous by the High Court. The Scheme was categoric that the notice u/s 148 was to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner. The Scheme clearly provided that the notice u/s 148 of the Act was required to be issued by NFAC and not the JAO. Further, unlike as canvassed by Revenue that only the assessment shall be in faceless manner, the Scheme was very clear that both the issuance of notice and assessment shall be in faceless manner.

7. In paragraph 5 of the OM, a completely unsustainable and illogical submission had been made that Section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid out, considering the technological feasibility at the time. Reading the Scheme along with Section 151A made it clear that neither the Section or the Scheme spoke about the detailed specifics of the procedure to be followed therein. The argument of the Revenue that Section 151A considered that the procedure may be modified under the Act was without appreciating that if the procedure was required to be modified, then that would require modification of the notified Scheme. It was not open to the Revenue to refuse to follow the Scheme as the Scheme was clearly mandatory and was required to be followed by all AOs.

8. The argument of the Revenue in paragraph 5.1 of the OM that the Section and Scheme had left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the said Section and Scheme, was without appreciating that one of the main principles laid down in the Scheme was that the notice u/s 148 was required to be issued through automated allocation and in a faceless manner.

The Bombay High Court refused to treat the Calcutta High Court decision in Triton Overseas (supra) as a precedent, since the Calcutta High Court had passed the order without considering the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022. The Calcutta High Court had only referred to the OM dated 20th February, 2023, which had been considered by the Bombay High Court. The Bombay High Court expressed its agreement with the decision of the Telangana High Court in the case of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy vs. ITO 295 Taxman 652, which had held that in view of the provisions of Section 151A read with the Scheme dated 29th March, 2022, the notices issued by the JAOs were invalid and bad in law.

The Bombay High Court therefore held that the notice u/s 148 was invalid and bad in law, being issued by the JAO, as the same was not in accordance with Section 151A.

The view taken in this decision of the Bombay High Court was followed in many more subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court, and by other High Courts in the cases of Govind Singh vs. ITO 300 Taxman 216 (HP), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India 466 ITR 474 (P&H), and Jasjit Singh vs. Union of India 467 ITR 52 (P&H).

T K S BUILDERS’ CASE

The issue came up again for consideration before the Delhi High Court in the case of TKS Builders (P) Ltd v ITO 167 taxmann.com 759. A bunch of other appeals were also decided along with this.

In this case, a notice u/s 148 (pre-amendment) was issued on 31st March 2021. This was challenged by way of a writ petition. The writ petition was decided along with Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 2022 SCC OnLine Del 3141, and interim orders were passed on 24th March, 2022 restraining the tax authorities from taking any coercive action against the assessee in pursuance of the notice u/s 148. Subsequently, on 4th May, 2022, the Supreme Court pronounced its judgment in Ashish Agarwal (supra), treating all such notices issued under the pre-amended section 148 as notices issued u/s 148A(b) as inserted with effect from 1.4.2021.

Pursuant to the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra), a notice u/s 148A(b) was issued to the assessee on 2nd June, 2022. The assessee furnished a response to that notice on 15th June, 2022. As per the procedure prescribed in Section 148A, the JAO passed an order u/s 148A(d) dated 22nd July 2022 rejecting the objections against reassessment. This was followed by issue of a notice u/s 148 of the same date.

Pursuant to Asish Agarwal’s decision, the Delhi High Court passed orders in Suman Jeet Agarwal and bunched cases on 27th September, 2022, reported as Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO 449 ITR 517. Pursuant to this decision of the Delhi High Court, another notice u/s 148A(b) dated 28th October 2022 was issued to the assessee. This was followed by an order u/s 148A(d) dated 13th December, 2022 along with a notice u/s 148 of the same date. Although a final reassessment order dated 24th May, 2023 was passed, this order refers to the notice u/s 148 dated 22nd July, 2022. The assessee filed a writ petition against this order of reassessment.

The challenge to the notice u/s 148 was primarily based on the argument that, after the introduction of sections 144B and 151A read together with the E- Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction to commence proceedings u/s 148.

On behalf of the assessee, it was argued that once the Revenue had chosen to adopt the faceless procedure for assessment even in respect of reassessment, the JAO would have no authority to invoke Section 148. Reliance was placed on the decisions in the cases of Kankanala Ravindra Reddy (supra), Hexaware Technologies (supra), Venkatramana Reddy Patloola vs. Dy CIT 2024 SCC Online TS 1792, Rama Narayan Sah vs. Union of India 299 Taxman 276 (Gau), Jatinder Singh Bhangu vs. Union of India (supra) for this proposition.

The Delhi High Court observed that in the decision in Hexaware Technologies (supra), a detailed reference was made to an Office Memorandum dated 20th February, 2023. However, that document was actually the instructions provided to counsels for the Revenue in connection with the batch of writ petitions pending before that High Court. They were thus rightly construed as not being statutory instructions which the CBDT is otherwise empowered to issue under the Act.

The Delhi High Court, keeping in mind that its decision was likely to have an impact on a large number of matters, passed a direction on 29th August 2024 for an appropriate affidavit being filed by the Revenue, bearing in mind the larger ramifications of an action annulling innumerable notices which had come to be issued in the meanwhile. Accordingly, a detailed affidavit was filed by the Revenue. The points made in this affidavit included:

1. As envisioned in s.148, the Directorate of Systems randomly selects a number of cases based on the criteria of the RMS. The AO has no role to play in such selection. Consequent to such selection, the information is made available to the AO who, with the prior approval of specified authority, determines which of these cases are fit for proceedings u/s 147 as per the procedure provided in s.148A.

2. The scheme provides for randomized allocation of cases, to ensure fair and reasonableness in the selection of cases. In the procedure for issuance of notice u/s 148, this is ensured, as cases selected prior to issuance of the notice are decided on the basis of an algorithm as per the RMS and are, therefore, randomly selected.

3. Such cases are flagged to the JAO by the Directorate of Systems and the JAO does not have any control over the process.

4. The cases are selected on the basis of RMS in a random manner, and the JAO has no way of predicting or determining beforehand whether a case will be flagged by the Systems.

5. Consequent to the issuance of notice u/s 148 as per the procedure discussed above, cases are again randomly allocated to the Assessment Units by the National Faceless Assessment Centre as per Section 144B(1)(i).

6. Under the provisions of the Act, both the JAO as well as units under NFAC have concurrent jurisdiction. The Act does not distinguish between JAO or NFAC with respect to jurisdiction over a case. This is further corroborated by the fact that u/s 144B, the records in a case are transferred back to the JAO as soon as the assessment proceedings are completed.

7. Since s.144B does not provide for issuance of notice u/s 148, there is no ambiguity in the fact that the JAO still has jurisdiction to issue notice u/s 148.

8. The parent section 151A considers that procedures may be modified under the Act or laid down considering their technological feasibility at the time.

9. The Scheme lays down that the issuance of notice u/s 148 shall be through automated allocation in accordance with the RMS, and that the assessment shall be in a faceless manner to the extent provided in s. 144B.

10. The specifics of the various parts of the procedure will evolve with time as the technology evolves and the structures in the ITD change. The Section and the scheme have left it to the administration to devise and modify procedures with time, while remaining confined to the principles laid down in the Section and scheme. By conducting the procedures at two levels, one with the JAO and other with NFAC, an attempt has been made to introduce checks and balances within the system that the assessee can submit evidences and can avail opportunity of hearing prior to commencement of any proceedings under the Act.

11. Re-assessment proceedings consequent to the issuance of notice conducted as per the faceless assessment ensures convenience of the assessee, equitable distribution of workload among the officers and is also compatible with the technological abilities in the ITD as on date, to ensure a procedure which is seamless, reasonable and fair for the assessee.

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the Court was drawn to the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. The various Faceless Schemes, as envisaged in the Act, were placed on record. Statutory provisions relevant to Faceless Scheme of Assessment were also considered, including sections 135A, 144B, 148 and 151A, and the Faceless Re-Assessment Scheme, 2022.

The Delhi High Court observed that with the advent of technology, the Revenue appeared to have over a course of time adopted new tools for assembling, accumulation and analysis of data embedded in the millions of returns which came to be filed every financial year, adopting measures such as Computer Aided Scrutiny Selection, Annual Information Return data and Central Information Branch data. These measures appeared to have been formulated in order to aid and assist the Revenue with respect to scrutiny assessment, investigation and evaluation.

The Instructions issued by the ITD from time to time, which assisted in appreciating how these new technological capabilities had been deployed by the ITD to aid it in the discharge of its functions, were also placed before the High Court. The order u/s 119 dated 6th September, 2021 and amending order dated 22nd September, 2021, which chronicled various categories of cases which would stand excluded from faceless assessment, were placed before the High Court, as well as the Instructions issued by the Directorate of Systems dated 16th November 2023, relating to the utilization of the Insight Portal and selection of cases in accordance with the RMS as formulated. The Notification issued u/s 120 dated 13th August 2020, which designated the authorities charged with the conduct of faceless assessment in respect of various territorial areas, was also brought to the notice of the High Court.

The Delhi High Court analysed the evolution of the Faceless Assessment Scheme. It noted that the common thread underlying the various facets of the evolving faceless assessment regime from its inception till the present, had been the felt need to enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the process of assessment and reducing the human interface between the AO and the assessee. It further noticed that despite the expressed intent to altogether eliminate the interface between the AO and the assessee, both the Notifications of 12th September, 2019 as well as of 13th August, 2020 had not excluded the involvement of the JAO completely and in the course of the faceless assessment process. As per the High Court, the ITD appeared to have been at all times, cautious of not precluding the involvement of JAO within the faceless assessment process. The retention of the JAO in certain phases of the assessment process reflected a balanced approach, aiming to preserve transparency and efficiency while ensuring that complex issues received appropriate attention from a qualified and experienced AO.

The High Court illustrated this by reference to:

1. the Notification of 12th September, 2019 which mandated that NFAC, after the completion of assessment, would transfer all electronic records of the case to the JAO under certain circumstances;

2. the Notification dated 13th August, 2020, which had introduced amendments to the previous Notification of 12th September, 2019, and had contemplated the role of the JAO in the faceless assessment scheme for transfer of case records, for transfer of case to the AO, and for transfer of case records of penalty proceedings.

The High Court observed that the principal question which arose for its consideration was whether s.144B precluded the JAO from initiating proceedings for reassessment in terms as contemplated u/s 148 and in accordance with the procedure prescribed in s. 148A. Analysing the provisions of s.151A, the High Court noted that as was manifest from the plain language of that provision, the underlying objective of such a scheme was to meet the legislative objective of eliminating the interface between an income tax authority and the assessee, optimal utilization of resources through economies of scale and functional specializations, the introduction of team based assessment, reassessment, recomputation as well as issuance or sanction of notices. Such team-based assessment was intended to be in accordance with the randomized allocation of cases and thus the usage of the expression “dynamic jurisdiction”.

As per the High Court, both section 144B as well as section 151A sought to introduce a system in terms of which assessment or reassessment proceedings could be entrusted to Assessment Units which would be randomly identified. Section 144B and the Explanation appended thereto defined an “automated allocation system” to mean an algorithm for randomised allocation of cases with the aid of suitable technological tools and which were envisaged to extend to the employment of artificial intelligence and machine learning. From a reading of Clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme, 2022, assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 was to be by way of an automated allocation and in a faceless manner to the extent provided in Section 144B. Clause 3 also used the expression “…..in accordance with risk management strategy formulated by the Board as referred to in Section 148 of the Act……”. The reference to RMS in the scheme was clearly intended to align with the concept of information which was spoken of in Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148. According to the High Court, both Explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148 were of critical importance.

The Delhi High Court then went on to elaborate upon the underlying scheme and objective of the RMS which came to be formulated by the Board as well as other data analytical measures which came to be adopted for the purposes of assessment under the Act. The RMS was preceded by the adoption of various technological tools by the ITD for the purposes of analysing returns, extracting data and information pertaining to the constituents of the tax base of the country and the selection of appropriate cases for scrutiny and other measures contemplated under the Act. It noted the response made by the Minister of State for Finance in the Rajya Sabha on 7th December, 2021, where he stated that for the purposes of scrutiny, cases are selected randomly through the CASS process and “in an identity blind manner”. The High Court observed that it would thus appear that by this time, the ITD clearly had in place selection criteria which took into consideration various risk parameters, and which would operate as red flags enabling and assisting the ITD to assess or reassess as well as to scrutinize in a more effective and efficient manner. This process used data analytics and algorithms to identify cases that may need closer inspection based on specific risk parameters, such as unusual financial activity, discrepancies in tax returns, or high-value transactions. The CASS process minimised human intervention in the selection phase, aiming to make the scrutiny process more objective, efficient, and unbiased by focusing on risk-based criteria rather than manual selection.

On the concept of RMS, the High Court took note of the Insight Instruction No. 71 issued by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) specifically addressing this approach. As per the Instruction, RMS and the creation of an Insight Portal were digital tools created internally by the ITD in order to enable an AO to holistically evaluate individual returns, map returns that may be found to be connected and a data set thus becoming available to be used for exploratory, statistical and perhaps even inferential analysis. The Insight Portal thus assimilated data pertaining to each individual assessee across broad parameters, stretching from comparative income tax return information, financial profiles and asset details amongst various other factors. The Insight Portal thus integrated a comprehensive dataset for each individual assessee, encompassing a wide range of parameters. These included comparative analyses of income tax return histories, detailed financial profiles, asset holdings, and additional relevant financial and transactional information. This data assimilation allowed for a nuanced view of each taxpayer’s financial standing and reporting consistency across multiple dimensions. The Insight Instruction dated 16th November 2023 disclosed that the data so collected was made visible to the JAOs on the verification module of the Insight Portal. This enabled the JAO to test the completeness of disclosures made by an individual assessee against material aggregated by the system.

In addition, the Insight Portal enabled the JAO to access a Transaction Number Sequence hyperlink which would disclose the following information pertaining to that particular assessee: (a) bank account (b) aggregate gross amount related to the account (c) cash deposits in that account and (d) information with respect to immovable property transactions and other relevant details. This feature allowed JAOs to verify if a taxpayer‘s information was complete and consistent with the data gathered by the system, making it easier to catch any missing links or inaccurate information.

The Delhi High Court emphasised that the extensive framework of information which was collected, structured and made available on the Insight Portal represented data which was made visible solely to the JAO. This entire spectrum of data, information and comprehensive insight was not digitally pushed to the NFAC in the first instance. The High Court noted that the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) was accorded the ability to randomly select cases which may have been cross referenced on the basis of the criteria and factors on which the RMS was founded. Upon such cases coming to be randomly selected and flagged, the cases so identified were then forwarded to the concerned JAO. What the ITD sought to emphasize was that the cases which were selected by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems) based on the RMS was an exercise independently undertaken, with the JAO having no control over the selection process. It was in that light that the ITD asserted that the JAO could neither predict nor determine beforehand whether a case would be flagged by the Directorate of Income Tax (Systems).

The High Court observed that besides the technological aspects and analytical tools, the Act itself enabled the JAO itself to select cases which may merit further inquiry or investigation on the basis of information as defined. Explanation 1 to s.148 enabled an AO to form an opinion that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment on the basis of (a) information which came to light through the RMS (b) an audit objection (c) information received under agreements with nations (d) information made available to the JAO in terms of a scheme notified u/s 135A or (e) information on which further action was warranted in consequence to an order of a Tribunal or a Court. The Act therefore permitted reassessment not only on RMS data, but also on a variety of other specified inputs, ensuring a broader foundation for initiating reassessment. Under Explanation 2 to Section 148, the material that may be gathered in the course of a search or survey also thus constituted information which came to be placed in the hands of the JAO and which may form the basis for formation of opinion of whether reassessment was merited.

The High Court then took note of the provisions of the Act which broadly identified sources from which information may be gathered by an AO for the purposes of assessment, including sections 133, 133A, 133B and 133C. It took note of the scheme for the purposes of calling for information notified u/s 135A, the powers to make reference to a Valuation officer u/s 142A and the scheme notified u/s 142B for the purposes of faceless inquiry or valuation.

The Delhi High Court then went on to consider provisions of the Act incorporated for the purposes of delineating jurisdictional boundaries and conferment of powers amongst income tax authorities, including sections 120 and 127. It noted that power to transfer a case for the purpose of centralised assessment could be exercised so as to place a particular batch of cases before any AO, irrespective of whether it had been empowered to exercise concurrent jurisdiction. The Court noted that the CBDT notifications issued for the purposes of facilitating conduct of faceless assessment and which in ambiguous terms provided that the authorities so designated in those notifications would exercise powers and discharge functions of an AO ”concurrently”, were of equal significance.

Under section 127, cases originally assigned to one officer or jurisdiction could be reassigned, grouping similar cases together for efficient handling. This power to transfer cases allowed a group of cases to be examined by a particular AO, regardless of whether that officer had authority over the cases initially. The CBDT had also issued notifications to facilitate faceless assessments, where assessments were handled without in-person interaction between the tax official and the taxpayer. These notifications allowed designated tax authorities to share the powers and duties of an AO in a concurrent manner, meaning multiple officers or authorities could simultaneously exercise the functions of an AO, especially in a faceless system. Besides, Section 144B itself conferred a power upon the Principal Chief Commissioner or the Principal Director General to transfer cases to the JAO.

The Delhi High Court took note of the deletion of sub-section (9) of section 144B by the Finance Act 2022, and the explanation given in the Explanatory Memorandum. This provided that assessment proceedings shall be void if the procedure mentioned in the section was not followed. A large number of disputes had been raised under that sub-section involving technical issues arising due to use of information technology, leading to unnecessary litigation, and hence this provision was deleted. According to the High Court, this captured the legislative intent to create an effective, fair, and flexible tax assessment process that balanced structured jurisdictional roles with the adaptability needed for centralized, faceless assessments. Notably, among the various factors that influenced this decision, what is not lost was the delicate balance sought to be struck by the Legislature between procedural adherence and practical efficiency. The Legislature recognised that while strict procedural compliance was fundamental to maintaining fairness and transparency in the assessment process, an inflexible adherence to procedure—especially in a digital and faceless assessment environment—could inadvertently lead to administrative bottlenecks and a surge in litigation. The legislature sought to ensure that the intent of the law was not overshadowed by technicalities.

The High Court observed that it became apparent that the procedure formulated and introduced by virtue of Section 144B, while undeniably transformative and disruptive and transformational, was also in many ways transitional and representative of a phased and evolving process. Various categories of cases were from inception excluded specifically from the ambit of faceless assessment. Section 144B, when it originally came to be inserted in the statute, stood confined to assessments under Sections 143(3) and 144. The words “reassessment”, ”recomputation” came to be added subsequently by virtue of Finance Act, 2022. It was this Amending Act which also added the words “Section 147” specifically in Section 144B. As the court read the section, the focal point and the nucleus of faceless assessment primarily appeared to be the assessment and analysis of returns which had been filed electronically and were to go through the rigors of regular assessment. This position emerged from a reading of the elaborate provisions contained therein and which in minute detail provided how returns were, generally under the faceless scheme, liable to be scrutinised and assessed, the random allocation of those cases to different Assessment Units, the conferment of dynamic jurisdiction upon Assessment Units, the internal review procedure pertaining to draft orders, issuance of notices and a host of other facets pertaining to assessment in general.

The High Court noted that of critical significance was the absence of any provision of Section 144B seeking to regulate the commencement of reassessment action as contemplated under Sections 147, 148 and 148A. The provision was conspicuously silent with respect to commencement of action u/s 147. Of equal importance was the fact that although Section 144B described the various steps to be taken in the course of assessment and assigned roles to different constituents of the NFAC, it did not, at least explicitly, incorporate any machinery provisions which may be read as intended to regulate the pre-issuance stages of a notice u/s 148. While it was true that Section 144B did specifically refer to reassessment, the Court was of the view that the significance of that insertion would perhaps have to adjudged bearing in mind the interpretation of the scheme for reassessment which had been advocated for the Court’s consideration by the ITD. The Court was of the view that this not only appealed to reason but may also be the more sustainable view to adopt if one were to harmoniously interpret the provisions of the Act alongside the schemes for faceless assessment coupled with the underlying objectives of reducing human interface. This approach sought to ensure that the reassessment scheme functioned in concert with the faceless assessment framework.

The Delhi High Court observed that a reassessment need not in all conceivable contingencies be triggered by a return that an assessee may choose to lodge electronically. It is a complex process driven by multiple factors that extend far beyond the initial filing of a return. As per explanations 1 and 2 of Section 148, reassessment may be commenced on the basis of information that may otherwise come to be placed in the hands of the JAO. It may be initiated if an audit objection were flagged and placed for the consideration of the JAO. Material unearthed in the course of a search or material, books of accounts or documents requisitioned under Section 132A could also constitute the basis for initiation of reassessment. Material gathered in the course of survey may also be the basis of formation of opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment. These are not founded on the material or data which may be available with NFAC.

The statute thus clearly conceived of various scenarios where the case of an assessee may be selected for examination and scrutiny on the basis of information and material that fell into the hands of the JAO directly or was otherwise made available with or without the aid of the RMS. The High Court was of the opinion that it would therefore be erroneous to view Section 144B as constituting the solitary basis for initiation of reassessment. Section 144B was primarily procedural and was principally concerned with prescribing the manner in which a faceless assessment may be conducted as opposed to constituting a source of power to assess or reassess in itself. The Dehi High Court observed that Section 144B was not intended to establish a substantive basis for the exercise of reassessment powers; rather, it was inherently procedural. Its function was confined to outlining the processes through which faceless assessments were to be conducted, ensuring efficiency and consistency in the manner of assessment rather than determining the substantive grounds upon which reassessment was founded. Therefore, Section 144B was procedural, forming part of the broader legislative framework aimed at structuring the assessment process without encroaching upon the substantive grounds for reassessment itself. That provision was not the singular and exclusive repository of the power to assess as contemplated under the Act.

The randomized allocation of cases based on the adopted algorithm and the use of technological tools, including artificial intelligence and machine learning, appeared to be primarily aimed at subserving the primary objective of faceless assessment, namely, of reducing a direct interface, for reasons of probity and to obviate allegations of individual arbitrariness. However, as per the High Court, it was wholly incorrect to view the faceless assessment scheme as introduced by virtue of Section 144B as being the solitary route which the Act contemplated being tread for the purposes of assessment and reassessment.

The core attributes of the faceless assessment system revolved around the principle of randomised allocation, where ‘random’ in its literal sense meant that case assignments were made without any predetermined or controlling factor. This principle was a deliberate feature of the faceless assessment framework, aimed at reducing direct human interaction — a facet historically susceptible to biases and potential misconduct. By substituting the human element with a carefully designed algorithm, the system restricted human involvement to only those essential stages, thereby enhancing fairness and accountability.

The High Court observed that Section 144B therefore played a crucial role by establishing the procedural mechanisms for faceless assessments, specifically through the random allocation of cases to different Assessment Units. However, to read into Section 144B a substantive basis for assessments and reassessments would extend its role beyond its intended design. The section‘s true function lay in facilitating an unbiased, algorithm-driven distribution of cases, supporting the overarching objective of minimizing direct human interaction in the assessment process. As per the High Court, it would be incorrect to interpret Section 144B as the sole pathway envisioned by the Act for conducting assessments or initiating reassessments. Instead, it should be recognised as one component within a broader statutory framework that provides multiple avenues for the lawful assessment and reassessment of returns.

The Delhi High Court further observed that the conferred jurisdiction upon authorities for the purposes of faceless assessment itself used the expression “concurrently”. That word would mean contemporaneous or in conjunction with, as opposed to a complete ouster of the authority otherwise conferred upon an authority under the Act. This too was clearly demonstrative of the Act not intending to deprive the JAO completely of the power to reassess. In understanding the concept of concurrent jurisdiction, it was essential to recognise that the retention of a human element within the broader framework of the National Faceless Assessment Centre (NeAC) does not conflict with the powers held by the JAO. Rather, as per the High Court, this setup must be viewed as complementary, reinforcing both accountability and adaptability within the assessment process.

The Delhi High Court referred to its decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust vs CIT(E) 455 ITR 164,where it had been concluded that, while the faceless system centralised case handling through the NFAC, this framework did not completely replace or nullify the JAO‘s role. It held that the CBDT notifications further affirmed this shared responsibility, specifying that the NFAC and the JAO hold concurrent jurisdiction, thereby allowing the faceless system to conduct assessments without stripping the JAO of its foundational authority. In this way, the High Court had held in that case that the JAO‘s retention of original jurisdiction provided a critical balance, ensuring that human oversight remained available within the faceless assessment structure when needed, and that the JAO‘s authority was not merely residual but an active, complementary role that reinforced the flexibility of the assessment system.

The Delhi High Court stated that in that case, the Court came to the firm conclusion that irrespective of the system of faceless assessment that had come to be introduced and adopted, it would be wholly incorrect to hold or construe the provisions of the Act as denuding the JAO of the authority to undertake an assessment or of the said authority being completely deprived of authority and jurisdiction. According to the High Court, the judgment in Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was a resounding answer to the challenge as raised by the writ petitions before it, and reinforced its conclusion of the two permissible modes of assessment being complementary, and the Act envisaging a coexistence of the two modes.

Besides, according to the Delhi High Court, if the position canvassed on behalf of the assessee were to be accepted, the provisions relating to the various sources of information which the JAO stood independently enabled to access and which could constitute material justifying initiation of reassessment, would be rendered a complete dead letter and the information so gathered becoming worthless and incapable of being acted upon. This is because such information is firstly provided to the JAO and it is that authority which is statutorily obliged to assess and evaluate the same in the first instance.

The Delhi High Court held that within the framework of the faceless assessment system, the JAO retained powers that do not conflict with, but rather complement, the objectives of neutrality and efficiency. The faceless assessment scheme centralised processes under the Faceless Assessing Officer (FAO) to reduce direct interaction. However, this structure did not diminish the JAO‘s authority. Instead, the JAO‘s retained jurisdiction was vital for ensuring continuity and accountability, acting as a complementary element to the faceless assessment framework. the JAO‘s powers should be understood as integral and not in conflict with faceless assessment. Rather, it represented a foundational jurisdictional safeguard, enabling the JAO to initiate reassessment based on independent, credible sources of information. This concurrent authority of the JAO reinforced the integrity and adaptability of the faceless system, ensuring that both centralised and jurisdictional assessments operated cohesively within the larger statutory framework.

The High Court also noted that an Assessing Unit of the NFAC derived no authority or jurisdiction till such time as a case was randomly allocated to it, which triggered the assessment process in accordance with the procedure prescribed by Section 144B. The evaluation of data and information would precede the actual process of assessment. As per the Delhi High Court, if the interpretation which was advocated by the assessee were to be countenanced, the appraisal and analysis of information and data functions which the Act entrusted upon the JAO would be rendered wholly unworkable and clearly be contrary to the purpose and intent of the assessment power as constructed under the Act. Eliminating the JAO’s role altogether would not only fail to further these goals but could actually compromise the system‘s functionality and flexibility. The JAO‘s retained powers, particularly in accessing and evaluating specific information sources for reassessment, played a critical role in supplementing the centralized, algorithm-driven processes of faceless assessment. By allowing the JAO to operate in conjunction with the FAO, the Act ensured that both roles work complementarily to deliver comprehensive and balanced assessments. Far from conflicting with the faceless system, the JAO‘s role enhanced it, ensuring that assessments remained grounded in thorough investigation.

The Delhi High Court observed that the decisions of various High Courts which had taken a contrary view, had proceeded on the basis that consequent to faceless assessment coming into force by virtue of Section 144B, the JAO stood completely deprived of jurisdiction. In Hexaware Technologies (supra), a specific issue with respect to the validity of the notice came to be raised, with it being argued that once the scheme of faceless reassessment had come to be promulgated, the JAO would stand denuded of jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court noted that apart from the Faceless E-Assessment Scheme 2022 itself and the instructions which were provided to counsel appearing for the Revenue, most of the High Courts did not appear to have had the benefit of reviewing the copious material which the counsel for the Revenue had so painstakingly assimilated and placed for the Delhi High Court’s consideration. They also did not appear to have had the advantage of a principled stand of the Revenue having been placed on the record of those proceedings.

In Hexaware Technologies (supra), the Bombay High Court ultimately came to conclude that there could be no question of a concurrent jurisdiction of the JAO and the FAO for issuance of notice u/s 148. From a reading of the record, the Delhi High Court observed that it was unclear whether the notifications conferring jurisdiction on authorities of the NFAC for the purposes of conducting faceless assessment was placed before the Bombay High Court. At least the decision made no reference to the notification of 13th August, 2020, which had been produced in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court, and which in clear and unambiguous terms declared that the officers empowered to conduct faceless assessment were being conferred concurrent powers and functions of the AO. The Delhi High Court therefore expressed its inability to concur with Hexaware Technologies decision, bearing in mind the various sources of information and material which may assist a JAO in forming an opinion as to whether income had escaped assessment and which had been commented upon earlier.

The Delhi High Court observed that the other High Courts too as well as subsequent decisions of the Bombay High Court did not appear to have had the advantage of reviewing and analysing the material that had been placed by the Revenue in the proceedings before the Delhi High Court. In Ram Narayan Sah’s case (supra), though the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Sanjay Gandhi Memorial Trust (supra) was cited before it, the judgment of the Gauhati High Court neither entered any reservation nor did it record any reasons which may have assisted the Delhi High Court in discerning what weighed with the Gauhati High Court to brush aside the aspect of concurrent jurisdiction. The Delhi High Court stated that unlike prior cases where certain High Courts, including in Hexaware Technologies (supra), were not provided with the full spectrum of relevant notifications and contextual information, the extensive documentation in the matter before it had helped clarify ambiguities in both law and fact. This record had allowed for a deeper analysis, addressing key points left unexamined in previous judgments, and had illuminated the legislative and procedural intentions behind the faceless assessment scheme, particularly the concurrent jurisdiction between the JAO and FAO.

The Delhi High Court further observed that in a recent decision rendered by the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Talati and Talati LLP vs. Office of ACIT 167 taxmann.com 371, a view had been expressed which appeared to be in tune with the conclusions which the Delhi High Court had reached.

Referring to clause 3 of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, which provided that assessment, reassessment or recomputation u/s 147 as well as issuance of notice u/s 148 would be through automated allocation in accordance with the risk management strategy and in a faceless manner, the Delhi High Court observed that from the punctuation, by the placement of commas, it appeared to have been the clear intent of the author to separate and segregate the phases of initiation of action in accordance with RMS, the formation of opinion whether circumstances warrant action u/s 148 being undertaken by issuance of notice, and the actual undertaking of assessment itself. As per the Delhi High Court, beyond the specific use of punctuation within Clause 3, a comprehensive reading of the Faceless Reassessment Scheme 2022, supported by the extensive material presented by the Revenue, bolstered the clear intent underlying each phase of the faceless assessment process.

The Delhi High Court stated that the Revenue would appear to be correct in its submission that when material comes to be placed in the hands of the JAO by the RMS, he would consequently be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure prescribed u/s 148A. If after consideration of the objections that are preferred, he stood firm in his opinion that income was likely to have escaped assessment, he would transmit the relevant record to the NFAC. It is at that stage and on receipt of the said material by NFAC that the concepts of automated allocation and faceless distribution would come into play. The actual assessment would thus be conducted in a faceless manner and in accordance with an allocation that the NFAC would make. In the opinion of the Delhi High Court, this would be the only legally sustainable construction liable to be accorded to the scheme. This conclusion would thus strike a harmonious balance between the evaluation of information made available to an AO, the preliminary consideration of information for the purposes of formation of opinion and its ultimate assessment in a faceless manner.

The Delhi High Court stated that it was guided by the principles of beneficial construction, to the effect that avoiding an interpretation that would render portions of the Act or the Faceless Assessment Scheme superfluous or ineffective should be avoided. To assert that the JAO‘s powers become redundant under the faceless assessment framework would conflict with beneficial construction, as it would undermine provisions specifically established to support comprehensive data analysis and informed decision-making, such as the JAO‘s access to RMS and Insight Portal information.

The Delhi High Court therefore dismissed the writ petitions filed before it.

OBSERVATIONS

From the text of the decisions in Hexaware Technologies (supra) and those of other High Courts which decided the matter, besides the Delhi High Court, none of the other High Courts had the occasion to examine the Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2022 and the notifications issued for that purpose, in such minute detail as was done by the Delhi High Court. The Delhi High Court went into the object of the Scheme, the manner in which it was to be implemented and the difficulties faced in implementing it and how these were resolved.

In particular, the notification NO. S.O. 2757 [NO. 65/2020/F.NO. 187/3/2020-ITA-I] dated 13th August, 2020, was not considered by those High Courts. This specified as under:

“In pursuance of the powers conferred by sub-sections (1), (2) and (5) of section 120 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) (hereinafter referred to as the said Act, the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby directs that the Income-tax Authorities of Regional e-Assessment Centres(hereinafter referred to as the ReACs) specified in Column (2) of the Schedule below, having their headquarters at the places mentioned in column (3) of the said Schedule, shall exercise the powers and functions of Assessing Officers concurrently, to facilitate the conduct of Faceless Assessment proceedings in respect of territorial areas mentioned in the column (4), persons or classes of persons mentioned in the column (5) and cases or classes of cases mentioned in the column (6) of the Schedule-1 of the notification No. 50 of 2014 in S.O. 2752 (E), dated the 22nd October, 2014 published in the Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part II, section 3, sub-section (ii):”

Had this notification been brought to the attention of the other High Courts, they may perhaps have taken a different view of the matter.

Further, the Revenue filed a detailed affidavit, explaining the logic of various provisions of and governing the Scheme. The Delhi High Court therefore had the opportunity to examine in detail the role of the JAO, the role of the FAO, and the logic behind the bifurcation of the activities of reassessment. Such details were not before the other High Courts. Again, had all such material been before the other High Courts as well, perhaps those decisions may have been otherwise.

One aspect does not seem to have been considered by the Delhi High Court — the purpose of introduction of section 151A. The Delhi High Court has expressed a view that the JAO would be entitled to initiate the process of reassessment by following the procedure u/s. 148A, and thereafter he would transmit the relevant records to the NFAC. The role of NFAC would come into play only after receiving the said materials from the JAO. If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted with effect from 1st November, 2022 by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 only to permit conduct of faceless reassessment proceedings by the NFAC, it may be seen that such a practice was prevalent even before the insertion of Section 151A. The Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2019 as amended by Notification No. 61/2020 dated 13-8-2020 specifically provided for reassessment in pursuance of notices issued under Section 148 also in a faceless manner. Therefore, effectively, there was no change in the position, post insertion of Section 151A, with respect to when the role of NFAC would come into play, If the view is taken that section 151A was inserted only to facilitate faceless reassessment proceedings and not for issue of notice u/s 148, it will render the provisions of Section 151A redundant in so far as it provides specifically for issuance of notice under Section 148, besides conduct of enquiries or issue of show-cause notice or passing of order under Section 148A. This aspect may require greater consideration.

While the Delhi High Court’s view seems to be the better view of the matter, being a more detailed analysis, the matter will be set to rest only after the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue. The Supreme Court had fixed the matters initially for hearing in October and thereafter November 2024, which have since been adjourned to 28th January, 2025. Hopefully, this controversy will soon be resolved in a few months by the Supreme Court.

Closements

Reassessment provisions, applicability of TOLA, and way forward in light of the decision in the case of Rajeev Bansal — Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1 Chapter XIV of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) lays down the procedure for assessment. Sections 147 to 151 contain the reassessment provisions. Considerable amendments have been made in the recent past with respect to these reassessment provisions which also resulted in considerable litigation.

1.2 Prior to the amendments made in the reassessment provisions by the Finance Act, 2021 (the ‘old regime’), the Assessing Officer (‘AO’) could issue a notice under section 148 of the Act provided he had reason to believe that any income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The time limit to issue such notice was prescribed in section 149 of the Act which was divided into three categories — (1) a period of 4 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in all cases; (2) a period of up to 6 years from the end of the relevant assessment year in cases where the income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment (escaped income) amounted to or was likely to amount to ₹1 lakh or more for that year and (3) a period of up to 16 years from the end of the relevant assessment year if the income escaping assessment was in relation to any asset (including financial interest in any entity) located outside India. For the present write-up, we will deal only with the first two categories i.e. time limits of 4 years and 6 years. Proviso to section 147 restricted (except in case of the last category of 16 years relating to overseas assets) the time limit to 4 years (irrespective of the quantum of escaped income) in cases where original assessment is made under section 143(3) or 147 and the assessee has made full and true disclosure of all material facts necessary for his assessment for that year. Such cases will also fall in the category of a four-year time limit and except this, practically, we are largely concerned in this write-up with the category of six years as that becomes applicable under the ‘old regime’ in most cases as this applies to all other cases once the quantum of escaped income is ₹1 lakh or more. Section 151 of the Act mandated that a notice under section 148 of the Act could not be issued unless sanction of an appropriate authority prescribed therein was obtained by the AO before issuance of notice under section 148 of the Act.

1.3 In view of the COVID-19 pandemic, the time limit to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act was extended by the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation of Certain Provisions) Ordinance, 2020 promulgated by the President of India on 31st March 2020 which was repealed on the enactment of the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (‘TOLA’) on 29th September, 2020. As per section 3(1) of the TOLA, the time limit for issuing notice under section 148 of the Act, granting sanction or approval which fell during the period from 20th March 2020 to 31st December, 2020 was extended up to 31st March 2021. The Central Government was also empowered by TOLA to further extend the above dates by way of a notification. In view of these powers, the Central Government issued Notification No.20/2021 on 31st March 2021 wherein the time limit to issue notice under section 148 of the Act or grant sanction under section 151 of the Act which ended on 31st March 2021 was extended to 30th April 2021. Another Notification no. 38 of 2021 issued on 27th April 2021 further extended the above time up to 30th June, 2021. Both these notifications further contained an Explanation that clarified that for the purpose of issuing a notice under section 148 of the Act within the above-extended timelines, the provisions of sections 148, 149, and 151, as they stood as of 31st March, 2021 before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021 [i.e. ‘old regime’], shall apply. The said clarification was issued despite the significant changes brought about by the Finance Act, 2021 in the reassessment provisions with effect from 1st April, 2021.

1.4 Finance Act, 2021 revamped the entire procedure for reassessments (the ‘new regime’) with effect from 1st April, 2021. Significant changes brought about under the ‘new regime’ and which are relevant for the purposes of the present write-up are summarised as under:

(i) The requirement of AO having a reason to believe that income had escaped assessment in section 147 was omitted. Section 147 was amended to provide that if any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment for any assessment year, the AO could reopen such assessment subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 153 (which includes new Section 148A). Section 148, in turn, provided that no notice shall be issued unless there was information with the AO that suggested that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The explanation was inserted in section 148 defining the ‘information’ which would suggest escapement of income chargeable to tax.

(ii) Section 148A was inserted which laid down the procedure that had to be complied with prior to issuance of a notice under section 148. Briefly,

⇒section 148A(a) provided for conducting any inquiry, if required, by the AO with the prior approval of a specified authority with respect to information received;

⇒section 148A(b) required AO to provide the assessee with an opportunity to be heard, with the prior approval of specified authority, by serving a show cause notice seeking his reply as to why a notice under section 148 should not be issued. Assessee was required to file his response within the specified time, being not less than seven days but not exceeding 30 days from the date of such notice or such time as may be extended by AO on the basis of an application by the Assessee.

⇒ section 148A(c) mandated the AO to consider the assessee’s reply, if any as filed above.

⇒ section 148A(d) required the AO to pass an order with the approval of the specified authority as to whether a particular case was a fit case to issue a notice under section 148 of the Act. The said order was to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the assessee’s reply was received by the AO or where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

⇒ Provisions of section 148A are not applicable to certain cases like search etc. as provided in the proviso to section 148A.

(iii) The existing time limits for issuance of notice under section 148 were also modified and the amended section 149 provided for three years from the end of the assessment year in all cases unless the AO had in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence which revealed that the income chargeable to tax, represented in the form of asset, which had escaped assessment amounted to or was likely to amount to fifty lakh rupees or more in which event a notice could be issued for a period of ten years from the end of the relevant assessment year.

(iv) Four provisos were also inserted in section 149. The first proviso prohibited issuance of notice under section 148 at any time in a case for the relevant assessment year beginning on or before 1st April, 2021, if such notice could not have been issued at that time on account of being beyond the time limit specified under section 149(1)(b) as it stood immediately before the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021. The third proviso stated that for the purposes of computing the period of limitation as per section 149, the time or extended time allowed to the assessee as per show-cause notice issued under section 148A(b) or the period during which the proceeding under section 148A is stayed by an order or injunction of any court was to be excluded. The fourth proviso mentioned that where immediately after the exclusion of the period referred to in the third proviso, the period of limitation available to the AO for passing an order under section 148A(d) was less than seven days, such remaining period shall be extended to seven days and the period of limitation under section 149(1) shall also be deemed to be extended accordingly.

(v) With respect to sanctioning authority, section 151 was amended to provide for two categories of authorities: (i) In cases where three or less than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year the specified authorities were — Principal Commissioner or Principal Director or Commissioner or Director. (hereinafter referred to as PCIT or CIT) (ii) In cases where more than three years had elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the specified authorities were – Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or where there was no Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General, Chief Commissioner or Director General (hereinafter referred to as PCCIT or CCIT).

(vi) In this write-up, the reassessment provisions dealing with search cases are not being dealt with. Further amendments are also made in the above sections by the subsequent Finance Acts which are also not being dealt with in the present write-up.

1.5 Reassessment notices were issued under section 148 by the AOs between the period 1st April, 2021 to 30th June, 2021 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18 relying upon the applicable time extensions granted under the TOLA and the subsequent Notifications. However, the procedure as per the ‘new regime’ was not followed by the AOs before issuing the reassessment notices.

1.6 These notices issued under section 148 of the Act without complying with the procedure laid down under the ‘new regime’ were challenged by way of writ petitions in several High Courts. Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), Delhi High Court in Mon Mohan Kohli vs. ACIT (441 ITR 207), Bombay High Court in Tata Communications Transformation Services vs. ACIT (443 ITR 49) and several other High Courts quashed the reassessment notices issued on or after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the reassessment procedure introduced under the ‘new regime’ as being bad in law. Courts also declared the Explanations in the 2 notifications issued under TOLA [referred to in para 1.3. above] as ultra vires and bad in law.

1.7 The tax department challenged the aforesaid view of the High Courts in the Supreme Court. The lead case before the Supreme Court was UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal (444 ITR 1) wherein the Apex Court agreed with the decision of the High Courts that the new reassessment provisions shall apply even in respect of proceedings relating to past assessment years in respect of which notice under section 148 was issued on or after 1st April 2021. Supreme Court, however, also observed that the revenue could not be made remediless. In the exercise of powers under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court issued the following directions:

⇒ Notices issued under section 148 of the Act were deemed to be show-cause notices issued under section 148A(b) of the Act.

⇒ AOs were directed to provide to the assessees information and material relied upon for reopening the case within a period of 30 days to which the assessee could reply within two weeks thereafter. AOs were directed to pass the order under section 148A(d) after following the due procedure.

⇒ The requirement of conducting any inquiry under section 148A(a) was dispensed with as a one-time measure.

⇒ All the defenses available to the assessee under section 149 and/or under the Finance Act, 2021, and in law and rights available to the AOs under the Finance Act, 2021 were kept open.

⇒ The court order would apply to Pan India and all judgments and orders passed by different High Courts on the issue and under which similar notices that were issued after 1st April, 2021, under Section 148 are set aside and shall be governed by the present order and shall stand modified to the aforesaid extent. Further, the order would also govern the writ petitions which were pending before various High Courts on the same issue.

1.8 Thereafter, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (‘CBDT’) issued Instruction no. 1 of 2022 dated 11th May, 2022 (the ‘CBDT’ Instruction’) stating the manner of implementation of the judgment of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal in the following terms:

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal shall apply to all reassessment notices issued between 1st April, 2021 and 30th June, 2021 irrespective of the fact whether such notices were challenged or not.

⇒ Decision in Ashish Agarwal read with the time extension provided by TOLA will allow the reassessment notices to travel back in time to their original date when such notices were to be issued and then new section 149 of the Act would be applied at that point.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2013–14 to 2015–16 could be issued only in cases falling within the scope of section 149(1)(b) and after seeking approval of specified authority as stated in section 151(ii). No notices were to be issued for these AYs if the escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

⇒ Notices for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 are within the period of three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and could be issued after obtaining the approval of the specified authority stated in section 151(i).

1.9 Pursuant to the directions contained in the decision of the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal, AOs supplied information and called for a response from the assessees. Thereafter, new notices were issued by the AOs under section 148 of the Act between July to September 2022 for the assessment years 2013–14 to 2017–18. These new notices issued under section 148 of the Act were challenged by the assessees by way of writ petitions before the different High Courts on several grounds such as notices being barred by limitation, sanction by incorrect authority, etc. Several High Courts held in favour of the assessees on these issues. The judgments of High Courts in these matters were challenged by the tax department before the Supreme Court. In these batch of matters before the Supreme Court consisting of notices issued under the ‘new regime’ post-Ashish Agarwal, there were also cases pertaining to the assessment year 2015–16 where notices were issued prior to 1st April 2021 following the procedure under the ‘old regime’ and in such cases, the issue for consideration by the Supreme Court was whether the sanction was validly obtained from a correct authority and whether TOLA could apply in this regard. Before the Supreme Court, a batch of large number of High Court decisions had come up involving different assessment years. A few of these decisions of the High Courts in the above categories of matters are summarised in this part of the write-up.

1.10 Recently, the Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Rajeev Bansal and connected matters (Civil appeal No.8629 of 2024) while hearing the appeals filed by the tax department against the High Court decisions (referred to in para 1.9 above) has adjudicated on the above issues and is, therefore, thought fit to consider the said decision in this column.

Rajeev Bansal vs. UOI (453 ITR 153 – Allahabad)

2.1 Writ petitions were filed before the Allahabad High Court challenging the notices issued under section 148 for the AYs 2013–14 to 2017–18 from July to September 2022 post the decision in Ashish Agarwal (referred to in para 1.7 above).

2.2 High Court, at the outset, noting that the ratio in the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in Ashok Kumar Agarwal vs. UOI (131 taxmann.com 22), referred to in para 1.6 above, quashing the reassessment notices issued after 1st April, 2021 without complying with the ‘new regime’ was approved by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra). High Court further noted that the ratio laid down therein to the effect that the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021 limited the applicability of TOLA and that the power to grant an extension of time under TOLA was limited only to reassessment proceedings initiated till 31st March, 2021 had been affirmed by the Supreme Court in Ashish Agarwal.

2.3 High Court observed as under:

“At the first blush, this argument of the learned counsels for the revenue seemed convincing by simplistic application of the Enabling Act, treating it as a statute for extension in the limitation provided under the Income-tax Act, 1961, but on deeper scrutiny, in view of the discussion noted above, if the argumentof the learned counsels for the revenue is accepted, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 ineffective until 30-6-2021. In essence, it would render the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 otiose. This view, if accepted, would result in granting an extension of a time limit under the unamended clause (b) of section 149, in cases where reassessment proceedings have not been initiated during the lifetime of the unamended provisions, i.e. on or before 31-3-2021. It would infuse life in the obliterated unamended provisions of clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 149, which is dead and removed from the Statute book w.e.f. 1-4-2021, by extending the timeline for actions therein.

85. In the absence of any express saving clause, in a case where reassessment proceedings had not been initiated prior to the legislative substitution by the Finance Act, 2021, the extended time limit of unamended provisions by virtue of the Enabling Act cannot apply. In other words, the obligations upon the revenue under clause (b) of sub-section (1) of amended section 149 cannot be relaxed. The defenses available to the assessee in view of the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 149 cannot be taken away. The notifications issued by the delegates/Central Government in the exercise of powers under sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Enabling Act cannot infuse life in the unamended provisions of section 149 in this way.”

2.4 High Court also held that the travel back theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ (referred to in para 1.8 above) was a surreptitious attempt to circumvent the decision of the Apex Court in Ashish Agarwal (supra) and that the same had no binding force. The court further observed that it had decided the issue only on the legal principles and the factual aspects of the matter had to be agitated before the appropriate Courts/ forum.

Keenara Industries (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (453 ITR 51 – Gujarat)

3.1 The Gujarat High Court in a batch of writ petitions adjudicated upon the validity of the reassessment notices issued for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra). The primary challenge in this batch of petitions was that these reassessment notices were barred by limitation.

3.2 With respect to AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15, the court noted that the period of six years from the end of the assessment year expired on 31st March, 2020 and 31st March, 2021 respectively. The court observed that a notice under section 148 could be issued on or after 1st April 2021 only if the time for issuing such notice under the ‘old regime’ had not expired prior to the enactment of the Finance Act, 2021.

3.3 High Court held that the new provisions introduced by Finance Act, 2021 came into force on 1st April 2021 and, therefore, a notice which became time-barred prior to 1st April, 2021 as per the old provisions could not be revived under the ‘new regime’.

3.4 The High Court further held that the life of the erstwhile scheme of 148 could not be elongated in the absence of any saving clause under TOLA or the Finance Act, 2021. The court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’.

3.5 In the supplementing view authored by Hon. Justice Bhatt, she concurred with Hon. Justice Gokani that the notices for AYs 2013–14 and 2014–15 were barred by limitation. Hon. Justice Bhatt, however, further held that the decision in Ashish Agarwal (supra) shall govern all the notices issued under the ‘old regime’ irrespective of whether such notices were challenged in the High Courts or not earlier.

JM Financial and Investment Consultancy Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT (451 ITR 205 – Bombay High Court)

4.1 In this case, a notice was issued under section 148 of the ‘old regime’ for AY 2015–16 on 31st March, 2021, i.e., after a period of four years from the end of the relevant assessment year. Assessee contended that sanction for issuance of notice was obtained from Addl.CIT and not PCIT and, therefore, the same was not as per the provisions of section 151 of the ‘old regime’.

4.2 Revenue contended that the sanction was validly obtained as the limitation, inter alia, under the provisions of section 151 which would have expired on 31st March, 2020 under the ‘old regime’ stood extended to 31st March, 2021 in view of TOLA. As such, for A.Y. 2015–16 falls under the category of ‘within four years’ as on 31st March 2020 and the approval could be given by Addl.CIT.

4.3 The High Court rejected the revenue’s contention and observed that TOLA did not apply to AY 2015–16 as the six-year limitation for AY 2015–16 expired only on 31st March, 2022. The court further held that an extension of time to issue notice would not amount to amending the provisions of section 151.

Siemens Financial Services (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT (457 ITR 647 – Bombay)

5.1 In this case, for the A.Y. 2016–17, notice was issued under section 148 on 31st July, 2022 after providing the information/ material as per the requirement of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and passing an order under section 148A(d). This was done after seeking approval of PCIT, i.e., the authority specified in section 151(i) and one of the challenges by the assessee in this case was that the notice was bad in law as AO ought to have obtained the approval of the authority specified in section 151(ii), i.e., PCCIT.

5.2 The High Court held that the notice for AY 16–17 was issued beyond a period of three years and, therefore, approval of the authority specified under section 151(ii) had to be obtained.

5.3 The High Court held that TOLA only sought to extend the time limits and did not affect the scope of section 151. The court further held that in any event, TOLA did not apply to assessment years 2015–16 and thereafter.

5.4 The High Court also rejected the time travel theory stated in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the Instruction had wrongly stated that the notices for AY 2016–17 had to be considered to have been issued within a period of three years.

5.5 Thereafter, the court further held that the concept of‘change of opinion’ will apply even under the ‘new regime’ because it would otherwise give powers to the AO to review which the AO does not possess. The court held that the concept of ‘change of opinion’ was an in-built test to check abuse of power by the AO

Ganesh Dass Khanna vs. ITO (460 ITR 546 – Delhi)

6.1 The Delhi High Court, in this batch of matters, was concerned with the challenge to reassessment notices issued for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 post-Ashish Agarwal (supra) in 2022 where the escaped income was less than ₹50 lakhs. The primary contention of the assessees was that the time limit of three years as provided under the ‘new regime’ had already expired for AYs 2016–17 and 2017–18 and, therefore, the notices issued in 2022 were barred by limitation.

6.2 High Court observed that once the Finance Act, 2021 came into force, the Notifications issued under TOLA lost their legal efficacy. The court further observed that the power to extend the end date for completion of proceedings and compliances conferred on the Central Government under section 3(1) of TOLA, could not be construed as enabling extension of the period of limitation provided under section 149(1)(a) under the ‘new regime’. The court further rejected the reliance of the revenue on the third and the fourth provisos to section 149 for extension of any time or issuance of notice. The court also rejected the travel back theory in the ‘CBDT Instruction’ and held that the same was ultra vires the provisions of section 149(1).

6.3 The High Court quashed these reopening notices on the ground that the same was barred by limitation.

<<To be continued>>

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

13. Bank of Rajasthan Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009, decided on: 16th October, 2024

Broken period interest — Deduction — RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT) — AFS and HFT are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade, therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank — if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available but the position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Appellant-Assessee, a Scheduled Bank, was engaged in the purchase and sale of government securities. The securities were treated as stock-in-trade in the hands of the Appellant. The amount received by the Appellant on the sale of the securities was considered for computing its business income. The Appellant consistently followed the method of setting off and netting the amount of interest paid by it on the purchase of securities (i.e., interest for the broken period) against the interest recovered by it on the sale of securities and offering the net interest income to tax. The result is that if the entire purchase price of the security, including the interest for the broken period is allowed as a deduction, then the entire sale price of the security is taken into consideration for computing the Appellant’s income. According to the Appellant’s case, the assessing officer allowed this settled practice while passing regular assessment orders for the assessment years 1990-91 to 1992-93. However, the Commissioner of Income Tax (for short, ‘CIT’) exercised jurisdiction Under Section 263 of the IT Act and interfered with the assessment orders. The CIT held that the Appellant was not entitled to the deduction of the interest paid by it for the broken period. The Commissioner relied upon a decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. vs. Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Bangalore (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). The Supreme Court in that case held that under the head “interest on securities”, the interest for a broken period was not an allowable deduction. Being aggrieved by the orders of the CIT, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (for short, ‘Appellate Tribunal’). The Tribunal allowed the appeal by holding that the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. was rendered after considering Sections 18 to 21 of the IT Act, which have been repealed. Therefore, the Tribunal held that as the Appellant was holding the securities as stock-in-trade, the entire amount paid by the Appellant for the purchase of such securities, which included interest for the broken period, was deductible. The Respondent Department preferred an appeal before the High Court against the decision of the Appellate Tribunal. By the impugned judgment, the High Court interfered and, relying upon the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. allowed the appeal.

This order was impugned in Civil Appeal Nos. 3291-3294 of 2009 before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court noted that a Scheduled Bank is governed by the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (for short, “the 1949 Act”). The 1949 Act, read with the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India (for short, ‘RBI’), requires Banks to purchase government securities to maintain the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (for short, ‘SLR’). The guidelines dated 16th October, 2000 issued by the RBI categorise the government securities into the following three categories: (a) Held to Maturity (HTM); (b) Available for Sale (AFS); and (c) Held for Trading (HFT).

The interest on the securities is paid by the Government or the authorities issuing securities on specific fixed dates called coupon dates, say after an interval of six months. When a Bank purchases a security on a date which falls between the dates on which the interest is payable on the security, the purchaser Bank, in addition to the price of the security, has to pay an amount equivalent to the interest accrued for the period from the last interest payment till the date of purchase. This interest is termed as the interest for the broken period. When the interest becomes due after the purchase of the security by the Bank, interest for the entire period is paid to the purchaser Bank, including the broken period interest. Therefore, in effect, the purchaser of securities gets interest from a date anterior to the date of acquisition till the date on which interest is first due after the date of purchase.

The Supreme Court further noted that under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (for short, ‘the IT Act’), Section 18, which was repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, dealt with tax leviable on the interest on securities. Section 19 provided for the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on the money borrowed for investment. Section 20 dealt with the deduction of (i) expenses in realising the interest; and (ii) the interest payable on money borrowed for investment in the case of a Banking company. Section 21 provided that the interest payable outside India was not admissible for deduction. Sections 18 to 21 were repealed by the Finance Act, 1988, effective from 1st April, 1989.

The Supreme Court also noted that Head ‘D’ (in Section 14) is of income from “profits and gains of business or profession” covered by Section 28 of the IT Act. Profits and gains from any business or profession that the Assessee carried out at any time during the previous year are chargeable to income tax. Under Section 36(1)(iii), the Assessee is entitled to a deduction of the amount of interest paid in respect of capital borrowed for the purposes of the business or profession. Section 37 provides that any expenditure which is not covered by Sections 30 to 36 and not being in the nature of capital expenditure, laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business or profession shall be allowed for computing the income chargeable under the head “profits and gains of business or profession”. Section 56 of the IT Act provides that income of every kind which is not to be excluded from the total income under the IT Act shall be chargeable to income tax under the head “income from other sources” if it is not chargeable to income tax under any of the other heads provided in Section 14. Therefore, interest on investments may be covered by Section 56. Section 57 provides for the deduction of expenditure not being in the nature of capital expenditure expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of making or earning such income. In the case of interest on securities, any reasonable sum paid for the purposes of realising interest is also entitled to deduction Under Section 57 of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted following decisions on the subject:

  1.  Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC)
  2.  American Express International Banking Corporation (2002) 258 ITR 601 (Bombay)
  3.  Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay vs. Citi Bank NA (dated 12th August, 2008)(SC)
  4.  Cocanada Radhaswami Bank Ltd. MANU/SC/0163/1965 : (1965) 57 ITR 306

After considering the other decisions cited at the bar and the arguments of the parties, the Supreme Court observed that initially, CBDT issued Circular No. 599 of 1991 and observed that the securities held by Banks must be recorded as their stock-in-trade. The circular was withdrawn in view of the decision of this Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541 (SC). In the year 1998, RBI issued a circular dated 21st April, 1998, stating that the Bank should not capitalise broken period interest paid to the seller as a part of cost but treat it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. A similar circular was issued on 21st April, 2001, stating that the Bank should not capitalise the broken period interest paid to the seller as a cost but treated it as an item of expenditure under the profit and loss account. In 2007, the CBDT issued Circular No. 4 of 2007, observing that a taxpayer can have two portfolios. The first can be an investment portfolio comprising securities, which are to be treated as capital assets, and the other can be a trading portfolio comprising stock-in-trade, which are to be treated as trading assets.

The Supreme Court further observed that Banks are required to purchase Government securities to maintain the SLR. As per RBI’s guideline dated 16th October, 2000, there are three categories of securities: HTM, AFS and HFT. As far as AFS and HFT are concerned, there is no difficulty. When these two categories of securities are purchased, obviously, the same are not investments but are always held by Banks as stock-in-trade. Therefore, the interest accrued on the said two categories of securities will have to be treated as income from the business of the Bank. Thus, after the deduction of broken period interest is allowed, the entire interest earned or accrued during the particular year is put to tax. Thus, what is taxed is the real income earned on the securities. By selling the securities, Banks will earn profits. Even that will be the income considered under Section 28 after deducting the purchase price. Therefore, in these two categories of securities, the benefit of deduction of interest for the broken period will be available to Banks.

If deduction on account of broken period interest is not allowed, the broken period interest as capital expense will have to be added to the acquisition cost of the securities, which will then be deducted from the sale proceeds when such securities are sold in the subsequent years. Therefore, the profit earned from the sale would be reduced by the amount of broken period interest. Therefore, the exercise sought to be done by the Department is academic.

The securities of the HTM category are usually held for a long term till their maturity. Therefore, such securities usually are valued at cost price or face value. In many cases, Banks hold the same as investments. Whether the Bank has held HMT security as investment or stock-in-trade will depend on the facts of each case. HTM Securities can be said to be held as an investment (i) if the securities are actually held till maturity and are not transferred before and (ii) if they are purchased at their cost price or face value.

The Supreme Court made a reference to its decision in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax (Central), Calcutta vs. Associated Industrial Development Co. (P) Ltd., Calcutta (1972) 4 SCC 447. In the said decision, it was held that whether a particular holding of shares is by way of investments or forms part of the stock-in-trade is a matter which is within the knowledge of the Assessee. Therefore, on facts, if it is found that HMT Security is held as an investment, the benefit of broken period interest will not be available. The position will be otherwise if it is held as a trading asset.

The Supreme Court noted that on the factual aspects, the Tribunal, in a detailed judgment, recorded the following conclusions:

a. Interest income on securities right from assessment year 1989-90 is being treated as interest on securities and is taxed under Section 28 of the IT Act;

b. Since the beginning, securities are treated as stock-in-trade which has been upheld by the Department right from the assessment year 1982-83 onwards;

c. Securities were held by the Respondent Bank as stock-in-trade.

The findings of the Tribunal had been upset by the High Court. The impugned judgment proceeded on the footing that the decision in the case of Vijaya Bank Ltd. (1991) 187 ITR 541(SC) case would still apply. Thus, as a finding of fact, it was found that the Appellant Bank was treating the securities as stock-in-trade. As the securities were held as stock-in-trade, the income thereof was chargeable under Section 28 of the IT Act. Even the assessing officer observed that considering the repeal of Sections 18 to 21, the interest on securities would be charged as per Section 28 as the securities were held in the normal course of his business. The assessing officer observed that the Appellant-Bank, in its books of accounts and annual report, offered taxation on the basis of actual interest received and not on a due basis.

Therefore, in the facts of the case, as the securities were treated as stock-in-trade, the interest on the broken period cannot be considered as capital expenditure and will have to be treated as revenue expenditure, which can be allowed as a deduction. Therefore, the impugned judgment cannot be sustained, and the view taken by the Tribunal will have to be restored.

14. Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd vs. CIT (2024) 465 ITR 798 (SC)

Business Expenditure — Deduction only on actual payment- Section 43B — Electricity duty on sale of power payable to Government adjusted against sums due to assesses by the Government — To be allowed on production of certificate from Chartered Accountant to establish that the adjustment was made within time.

In an intimation issued u/s. 143(1)(a) for AY 1991-92, the Assessing Officer inter alia disallowed ₹41,65,12,181 being amount of electricity duty payable to the State Government by the assessee on sale of electric power. In a rectification application filed by the assessee it relied upon the letter issued by the under Secretary to the Government of India, Energy and Petrochemical Department to contend that the electricity duty payable had been adjusted against the other amounts receivable from the Government and, hence, the adjustment made u/s. 143(1) and levy of additional tax u/s. 143(1A) was not warranted. The rectification application was rejected holding that there was no proof of such adjustment having been made within the stipulated period.

The appeal of the assessee on this issue was dismissed by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals).

The Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee by following the decision of the co-ordinate Bench of the Tribunal in Ahmedabad Electricity Co. Ltd vs. ITO (ITA No. 378/Ahd/1988) wherein it was held that section 43B was not applicable to the electricity duty payable to the government.

The High Court reversed the order of the Tribunal following the decision of the Hon’ble Gujarat Court in CIT vs. Ahmedabad Electricity Ltd (2003) 262 ITR 97 (Guj), which reversed the order of the Tribunal holding that electricity duty on sale electricity has to be considered as an inadmissible item u/s. 43B of the Act.

On an appeal, the Supreme Court observed that in the context of section 43B of the Act, apart from entitlement, the assessee was duty bound to produce the certificate of a Chartered Accountant showing the proof of payment which the assessee claimed by way of adjustment of 21st August,1990. The Supreme Court noted that such a certificate had not been produced till date. In the circumstances, the Supreme Court directed the assessee to produce the certificate before the Assessing Officer within a period of four weeks from the date of the order and that the Assessing Officer will take the certificate on records and decide the matter in accordance with law.

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

20 SmitaDilipGhule vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes & Others

[WP (ST) No. 2348 OF 2024,

Dated: 8th October, 2024. (Bom) (HC).

Assessment Years 2020–21]

Section 119(2)(b) — Condonation of delay on filing return of income — Delay in obtaining valuation report of land during Covid-19 coupled with fact that assessee was posted on Covid duty and death in family — Sufficient reason for condonation of delay.

The Petitioner was an individual and a doctor by profession. The Petitioner’s return of income, under Section 139(1) of the Act, for the Assessment Year 2020–2021, was due to be filed on 10th January, 2021 as per the extended due date. However, the return of income was filed on 31st March, 2021, declaring total income of ₹6,75,837. The Petitioner had a claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535. The Petitioner had claimed that during the year under consideration, she had transferred two ancestral lands which were jointly owned by her with other family members.

The Petitioner made an Application dated 31st March, 2021 to the Central Board of Direct Taxes (the CBDT), Respondent No.1, requesting it to condone the delay in filing the return and allowing the claim of carry forward of long-term capital loss of ₹99,88,535 by exercising the power vested in Respondent No.1 under Section 119 (2)(b) of the Act, along with supporting evidence.

In the Application for condonation of delay, the Petitioner had given reasons for the delay in filing the return of income. The Petitioner had stated that she was the co-owner, along with other family members, of certain ancestral lands at District Pune. These ancestral lands were transferred during that year. On the above transaction, the Petitioner had to work out long-term capital gain and file a return. The original due date for filing of return of income was 31st July, 2020 but due to the Covid-19 pandemic it was extended up to 31st December, 2020, and subsequently, it was extended up to 10th January, 2021. The Petitioner further stated that due to the Covid-19 pandemic lockdown being announced, the Petitioner, being a doctor, was rendering services to Covid-19 patients. Further, due to various Covid-19 restrictions and the nature of occupation of the Petitioner, she was unable to approach her tax consultant in advance in respect of computation of long-term capital gain. Somewhere around October 2020, when the Petitioner approached her Chartered Accountant on the subject matter of filing of return and computation of long-term capital gain, she was advised to get the valuation of the property done by a Registered Valuer to ascertain the cost of acquisition as on 1st April, 2001. The Petitioner further approached a valuer for the purpose of valuation. The documents were provided to the valuer from time to time during the months of November and December, 2020. However, the valuer was required to physically visit the site to provide the valuation report and was reluctant to do so due to the Covid-19 pandemic and the increase in cases of Covid-19 as the valuer himself was a senior citizen, aged 75 years, having respiratory issues. Due to the requirement of physical visit to the site by the valuer for the valuation of the property to ascertain the cost of acquisition for computation of capital gain under Section 49 of the Act, the valuation could not be completed before the due date of filing of return of income.

The Petitioner further clarified that on 30th November, 2020, the Petitioner had lost her father due to Covid-19. Around the same time, other family members were also affected by Covid-19. Due to this misfortune, the Petitioner was not able to collect information required for valuation nor was she able to coordinate with the tax consultant. This also resulted in delay in getting the valuation done, which led to belated filing of income tax return. After obtaining the Valuation Report dated 16th March, 2021, the Petitioner’s Chartered Accountant was able to calculate the capital gain / loss on the transaction in respect of each co-owner. In ordinary course, this loss would be carried forward and set-off against the income of the subsequent year. But due to delay in the filing of the Return for Assessment Year 2020–2021 within the prescribed due date, the Petitioner was not able to carry forward such loss unless the delay was condoned by Respondent No.1 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act. The Petitioner has stated that it was in these circumstances that the Petitioner had filed the Application before Respondent No.2 under Section 119(2)(b) of the Act..

By an Order dated 20th October, 2023, Respondent No. 1 rejected the Petitioner’s Application for condonation of delay of 80 days in filing the return of income.

The Hon.Court observed that perusal of the provisions of Section 119(2)(b) of the Act shows that the power conferred therein upon Respondent No.1 is for the purpose of “avoiding genuine hardship”. The Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship if the delay in filing the return of income is not condoned. This is because the Petitioner has given valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Petitioner has mentioned that her father had passed away on 30th November, 2022 due to Covid-19 and that her family members were affected by Covid-19 in November 2020. The Petitioner, who is a doctor, was involved in Covid-19 duty at that time. The valuation of land for working out capital gain could not be completed prior to the due date of filing of the return due to the said reasons. Also, the valuer was not able to carry out physical verification of the site until 13th February, 2021 and could provide the Valuation Report until 16th March, 2021. In this context, it is important to note that the valuer was also a senior citizen, aged 75 years. If for these reasons, the delay of 80 days in filing of the Return of Income by the Petitioner was not condoned, then definitely the Petitioner would be put to genuine hardship as the Petitioner was prevented by genuine and valid reasons for not filing the return of income on time. The Hon. Court observed that it can never be that technicality and rigidity of rules of law would not recognise genuine human problems of such nature which may prevent a person from achieving certain compliance. It is to cater to such situations that the legislature has made a provision conferring a power to condone the delay. These are all human issues which prevented the assessee, who is otherwise diligent, in filing the return of income within the prescribed time.

The Hon. Court observed that the Respondent No.1 completely lost sight of the fact that not only was the Petitioner a doctor who was on Covid duty but also that the Petitioner faced various other problems due to the Covid-19 pandemic, and that was the reason why the Petitioner could not file her return of income within time.

Further, in the impugned Order, Respondent No..1 has also rejected the Application on the grounds that the Petitioner, being an educated person, was well equipped with basic taxation law knowledge and had accessibility to tax practitioners. Therefore, the claim of the Petitioner that she was not able to collect various information regarding income tax calculation was not tenable. The Court observed that such explanation of Respondent was unacceptable. The Petitioner has not claimed lack of accessibility to a tax practitioner. It is the case of the Petitioner that for various reasons which arose due to the Covid-19 pandemic, she was not able to obtain the Valuation Report in respect of the property on time and, therefore, was not able to compute the capital loss and file the return of income.

In view of the above, the impugned order dated 20th October, 2023 passed by Respondent No.1 was quashed and set aside. The delay of 80 days in filing of the return of income for Assessment Year 2020–2021 by the Petitioner was condoned.

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

19 20 Media Collective Pvt. Ltd. vs. Pr. ACIT Circle – 16(1) &Ors.

[WP (L) No. 25601 OF 2024,

Dated: 18th November, 2024 (Bom) (HC)]

Section 148: Reassessment — Assessment year 2015–16 — Barred by limitation.

The Assessee-Petitioner challenged the legality of the notice dated 30th July, 2022 issued to the Petitioner under Section 148 of the Income-tax Act for the Assessment Year 2015–16.

There is also a challenge to an order dated 29th July, 2022 passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act passed in pursuance of a notice under Section 148A(b), dated 17th June, 2021 and the consequent assessment order dated 17th May, 2023 passed under Section 147 read with 144B of the Act.

The primary contention urged on behalf of the petitioner is that the impugned assessment order, as also the action taken against the petitioner under Section 148A(b), is illegal for the reason that such proceedings were barred by limitation, considering the provisions of Section 149(1)(b) of the Act, which provides a time limit of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for issuing notice under Section 148 of the Act. As the relevant assessment year being Assessment Year 2015–16, the six years have expired on 31st March, 2022 and for such reason, the impugned proceedings against the Petitioner could not have been adopted. In support of such contention, reliance is placed on the decision of this Court in Hexaware Technology Ltd. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, (2024) 162 Taxmann.com 225 and AkhilaSujith vs. Income Tax Officer, International [2024] 166 taxmann.com 478 (Bombay) where following the decision in Hexaware, this Court quashed the proceeding being barred by limitation also referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal, [2021] 138 taxmann.com 64.

The respondents / revenue did not dispute the contentions as urged on behalf of the petitioner in regard to the limitation as would be applicable to pass the assessment order in question. In this context in Akhila Sujith (supra), considering the position in law, this Court observed thus:

“9. Having heard learned counsel for the parties and having perused the record, in our opinion, considering the observations as made by the Division Bench in Hexaware, we find that the impugned notice itself was illegal and without jurisdiction. There was no foundation on jurisdiction for an assessment order to be passed on the basis of a notice under section 148 which itself was time barred. Thus there is no basis on which we can hold the impugned assessment order to be legal and valid as not only the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act but also the order passed under Section 148A(d) of the Act were barred by limitation as per the first proviso to Section 149 as held in Hexaware. For such reason, we are of the clear opinion that no useful purpose would serve relegating the petitioner to avail an alternate remedy of an appeal, as filing of such appeal itself would be an empty formality.

10. In the aforesaid circumstances, the inherent illegality of the impugned notice under Section 148 of the Act being time-barred, which percolates into the assessment order passed thereunder is an incurable defect, regardless of the forum before which the same is agitated. In these circumstances, it cannot be said that it was not appropriate for the Petitioner to invoke the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226 when the assessing officer has acted without jurisdiction.”

In view of the above, the impugned assessment order could not have been passed as the same was barred by limitation. Accordingly, the petition was allowed.

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

67 Vishwakarma Developers vs. CBDT

[2024] 468 ITR 686 (Bom)

A.Ys. 2015–16 to 2020–21

Date of order: 24th July, 2024

Ss. 119(2)(b), 245C and 245D of ITA 1961

Settlement of cases — Application for settlement — Validity — Conditions precedent for application — Additional conditions imposed by CBDT through circular not valid — Circulars cannot override provisions of Act.

The assessee filed an application for settlement of case u/s. 245C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2015–16 to 2020–21. During the period from August 2022 to September 2023, settlement proceedings were conducted by the Interim Board for Settlement constituted by the Central Government pursuant to the notification dated 10th August, 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The assessee from time to time pursued the proceedings before the Interim Board for Settlement. On 22nd September, 2021, the assessee refiled the settlement application pursuant to the press release on 7th September, 2021, and paid additional interest for the period of March 2021 to September 2021. The application was rejected.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the rejection order. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) On March 28, 2021, Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52) was enacted, as a consequence of which the Settlement Commission came to be abolished, consequent to which the jurisdiction of such Commission to deal with pending applications was transferred to the Interim Board for Settlement which was constituted by the Central Government on August 10, 2021 by Notification No. 91 of 2021 ([2021] 436 ITR (St.) 48). The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) issued a Press Release dated September 7, 2021, in view of the orders passed by the High Courts informing the public at large that a settlement application could be filed even after February 1, 2021, being the date when the Finance Bill was introduced. It was also informed that the settlement application could be filed by taxpayers till September 30, 2021. On September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5), the Central Board of Direct Taxes however issued another order u/s. 119(2)(b) of the Act, which was also subject matter of the press release, in which two additional conditions were incorporated in para 4, in the context of section 245C(5), to the effect that applications could be filed by the assessees, who were eligible, to make an application as on January 31, 2021 and who had assessment proceedings pending on the date of filing of the settlement application. In the decision in Sar Senapati Santaji Ghorpade Sugar Factory Ltd. v. Asst. CIT [2024] 470 ITR 723 (Bom), the court struck down paragraph 4 of the circular dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) of the CBDT, declaring it to be ultra vires of the parent Act, as it incorporated additional eligibility conditions for filing settlement applications.

ii) The order passed by the Interim Board for Settlement rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 245C for settlement of case on the ground that the conditions as incorporated in paragraph 4 of the CBDT notification dated September 28, 2021 ([2021] 438 ITR (St.) 5) issued u/s. 119(2)(b) were applicable since it was contrary to the decision of this court which had struck down paragraph 4 as being ultra vires of the parent Act, was illegal and unsustainable. The assessee was eligible to file its settlement application to be considered by the Interim Board for Settlement for appropriate orders to be passed in accordance with law.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

66 PramilaMahadevTadkase vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 275 (Kar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 7th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — New procedure — Initial notice and order for issue of notice — Issue of notice after three years — Monetary limit — Assessee’s receipt of sale consideration as co-owner less than threshold limit of ₹50 lakhs — Initial notice and order quashed.

The assessee was issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment of the A.Y. 2016–17 u/s. 147 on the grounds that the assessee sold a property. The assessee stated that she was a non-resident, that she and her husband purchased an immovable property in the year 1996 and sold it in the year 2015 for a total consideration of ₹69,30,000, that the tax at source was deducted by the purchaser and that because her husband did not have a Permanent Account Number, the corresponding tax deducted at source was uploaded to her Permanent Account Number.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) According to the terms of section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, notice u/s. 148 of the Act cannot be issued, after three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, unless income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment is likely to amount to rupees fifty lakhs or more.

ii) The assessee and her husband had jointly purchased the immovable property. They, as equal co-owners of the property, had transferred it for a total sale consideration of Rs. 69,30,000. Even if it could be opined that the assessee had received any part of the consideration, it could not be more than 50 per cent. thereof and, therefore, the income that could be alleged to have escaped the assessment would be below the threshold limit of Rs. 50 lakhs and, therefore, the notice u/s. 148A was not valid.”

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

65 Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO

[2024] 468 ITR 5 (Del)

A.Y. 2011–12

Date of order: 26th September, 2023

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Statutory condition — Failure to furnish approval of designated authority to assessee along with reasons recorded — Notice and order disposing of assessee’s objections set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the notice issued u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12 and the order disposing of the objections, on the grounds that the approval for the reassessment proceedings was accorded by the Principal Commissioner without application of mind and not furnished along with the reasons recorded the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) The approval granted by the statutory authorities for reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, as required under the provisions of the Act, has to be furnished to an assessee along with the reasons to believe that income has escaped assessment. The statutory scheme encapsulated in the Act provides that reassessment proceedings cannot be initiated till the Assessing Officer has reasons to believe that income, which is otherwise chargeable to tax, has escaped assessment and, reasons recorded by him are placed before the specified authority for grant of approval to commence the process of reassessment.

ii) There was nothing contained in the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee which would answer the poser raised by the assessee that there was no application of mind by the Principal Commissioner for initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2011–12. The only assertion made by the Revenue was that the Principal Commissioner had conveyed her approval u/s. 151 to the Assessing Officer by way of a letter but had not produced the letter despite the assessee’s raising a specific objection that the Principal Commissioner had not applied his mind while granting approval for the commencement of reassessment proceedings. The condition requiring the Assessing Officer to obtain prior approval of the specified authority was not fulfilled, as otherwise, there was no good reason not to furnish it to the assessee along with the document which contained the Assessing Officer’s reasons recorded for the belief that income otherwise chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. The notice issued u/s. 148 and the order disposing of the objections raised by the assessee were unsustainable and hence set aside.”

[Note: The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition filed by the Revenue and held that in view of the categorical finding recorded in the judgment and in the facts of the case, no case for interference was made out under article 136 of the Constitution [(ITO vs. Tia Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. [2024] 468 ITR 10 (SC)].

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

64 Trans World International LLC TWI vs. Dy. CIT (International Tax)

[2024] 467 ITR 583 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2016–17, 2017–18, 2018–19

Date of order: 14th August, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Initial notice and order — Notice — Validity — Non-resident — Receipt of licence fee from Indian payer on grant of live transmitting right of match under agreement — Agreement bifurcating licence fee between live feed and recorded content — Receipt not liable to tax in India — Notices and order quashed.

The assessee, non-resident, received payments, under a single agreement, for the A.Ys. 2016–17, 2017–18 and 2018–19 with an Indian entity for the grant of exclusive rights for telecast of league matches. The Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that tax was not deducted at source from such receipt received from an Indian payer even though it was income chargeable to tax in India, passed an order u/s. 148A(d) and issued a consequential notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer recorded reasons that only a nominal fraction of such income amounting to five per cent was offered to tax as royalty by the assessee on the grounds that only broadcasting rights for non-live content were taxable in India, that for the remaining amount, claimed to have been received for live content and not covered under royalty, the assessee did not provide any document to substantiate such bifurcation, and that the assessee did not submit any document to substantiate its tax residency and its eligibility for the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement. He rejected the objections raised by the assessee.

The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Clause D of the agreement between the assessee and the Indian entity, for the grant of telecast of matches, bifurcated the licence fee between live feed and recorded content. The view of the Assessing Officer that there was no basis for the bifurcation of the receipt in the ratio of 95 per cent and five per cent was perverse in view of the stipulations contained in the agreement. No contestation existed on the issue of taxability of live feed.

ii) There was no justification to recognize a right inhering in the Revenue to continue the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147. The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notice issued u/s. 148
were quashed.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

63 RatanBej vs. Pr. CIT

[2024] 467 ITR 288 (Jhar)

A.Y. 2016–17

Date of order: 24th January, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(a), 148A(b), 148A(c), 148A(d) and 149(1)(b) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Mandatory condition u/s. 148A(c) — Disposal of assessee’s objections to initial notice u/s. 148A(b) — Non-consideration of assessee’s objections before passing order u/s. 148A(d) for issue of notice — Inquiry proceedings and order and notice quashed and set aside.

Though the assessee had a permanent account number, he did not file returns of income. In the A.Y. 2016–17, the assessee sold an inherited property, in which he and his brother had equal shares. The Assessing Officer (AO) sent a letter u/s. 148A(a) of Income-tax Act, 1961 for inquiry and issued a notice u/s. 148A(b). The assessee raised objection on the grounds that his share of the sale consideration was below the limit of ₹50 lakhs prescribed u/s. 149(1)(b). The AO passed an order u/s. 148A(d) without disposing of the objections raised by the assessee and issued a notice u/s. 148 for reopening of the assessment u/s. 147 for the A.Y. 2016–17.

The assessee filed a writ petition for quashing the order and the notice contending that (a) non-consideration of the reply-cum-objection filed by the assessee in response to the initial notice u/s. 148A(b) was in violation of principles of natural justice and rule of fairness, (b) initiating and concluding the enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A was beyond jurisdiction and barred by limitation u/s. 149. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 148A(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to consider the reply or objections furnished by the assessee to the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b). Non-consideration of reply or objection furnished by the assessee not only amounts to violation of principles of natural justice but is also in contravention of mandatory modalities which are to be followed during the course of enquiry proceedings u/s. 148A.

ii) Sections 148 and 148A introduced by way of the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), have been codified following the judgment in GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. v. ITO [2003] 259 ITR 19 (SC). The provisions mandate that, before seeking to reopen the assessment u/s. 147, the Assessing Officer must serve a notice to the assessee requiring him to file his return of income within specified time and before such notice, the Assessing Officer shall record his reasons for the reopening of the assessment. While the pre-amended provision required the Assessing Officer to have reason to believe that there is escapement of income, the new provision required any information as specified under Explanation 1 to section 148 to be in existence to reopen the assessment.

iii) Section 148A, inserted by the Finance Act, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 52), reiterates the procedure to be followed by the Assessing Officer upon receiving information, including conducting any inquiry regarding the information received, providing an opportunity of being heard to the assessee through serving of notice to show cause within the prescribed time in the notice (which must not be less than seven days and not more than 30 days on the date of serving the notice or the time period till which time extension has been received by the assessee), considering the reply given by the assessee and deciding on the basis of the material that is present, including the reply, about whether the case is fit for issuing a notice u/s. 148 through passing an order u/s. 148A(d) within one month from the reply.

iv) Under the modified section 149, by the Finance Act, 2021, to the effect that an assessment can be reopened within three years from the time of end of relevant assessment year as under clause (a) of section 149(1), if there is information with the Assessing Officer that suggests that there is escapement of income as provided under Explanation 1 to section 148, and up to ten years as provided in clause (b) of section 149(1) in certain exceptional cases, defined as circumstances where income chargeable to tax, within the meaning of “asset” that has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to Rs.50 lakhs or more in that year.

v) Section 26 provides that where a property is owned by two or more persons and their respective shares are definite and ascertainable, such persons shall not be assessed as an association of persons, but the share of each person in income of the property shall be included in his total income.

vi) The Assessing Officer ought to have considered the objections raised by the assessee in response to the notice u/s. 148A(b) and should have disposed of it as mandated u/s. 148A(c).

vii) Since the income escaping assessment was less than Rs. 50 lakhs, section 149(1)(b) could not have been invoked. The assessee and his brother were joint owners of the inherited property with respective share of 50 per cent each and both being joint vendors were entitled to equal share of the consideration amount of Rs. 32,68,000 each and this had been accepted by the Revenue. The reassessment proceeding initiated by the Department was barred by limitation and was beyond jurisdiction. Hence, the entire enquiry proceeding u/s. 148A, the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notice u/s. 148 were quashed.”

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

62 GE Capital US Holdings INC. vs. Dy. CIT (International Taxation)

[2024] 468 ITR 746 (Del)

A.Ys.: 2018–19 and 2019–20

Date of order: 31st May, 2024

Ss. 270A and 270AA of ITA 1961

Penalty — Notice — Validity — Condition precedent — Effect of s. 270A — Difference between under-reporting and misreporting of income — Failure to specify whether notice for levy of penalty for under-reporting or misreporting of income — Notices and levy of penalty invalid and unsustainable.

On writ petitions challenging the orders rejecting the applications of the assessee u/s. 270AA(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for immunity from imposition of penalty and levy of penalty u/s. 270A for the A.Y. 2018–19 and 2019–20, the Delhi High Court, allowing the petition, and held as under:

“i) Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 speaks of various eventualities and which may expose an assessee to face imposition of penalties. These range from failure to comply with notice u/s. 115WD or concealment or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or fringe benefits. Section 270A provides for imposition of penalty for under-reporting and misreporting of income. U/s. 270A(1), a person would be liable to be considered to have under-reported his income if the contingencies spoken of in clauses (a) to (g) of section 270A(2) are attracted. In terms of section 270A(3), the under-reported income is thereafter liable to be computed in accordance with the stipulations prescribed therein. The subject of misreporting of income is dealt with separately in accordance with the provisions comprised in sub-sections (9) and (10) of section 270A. Therefore, under-reporting and misreporting are separate and distinct misdemeanors. A notice for penalty under Section 270A must clearly specify whether the assessee is being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income in order to be considered valid and sustainable.

ii) Section 270AA lays down conditions for immunity from penalty. Sub-section (3) of section 270AA required the Assessing Officer to consider the following three aspects, (a) whether the conditions precedent specified in sub-section (1) of section 270AA have been complied with, (b) The time limit for filing an appeal under section 249(2)(b) has expired. and (c) the subject matter of penalty not falling within the ambit of section 270A(9). While examining an application for immunity, it is incumbent upon the Assessing Officer to ascertain whether the provisions of section 270A stood attracted either on the anvil of under-reporting or misreporting because the Assessing Officer becomes enabled to reject such an application only if it is found that the imposition of penalty is founded on a charge referable to section 270A(9).

iii) In the absence of the Assessing Officer having specified the transgression of the assessee which could be shown to fall within the ambit of sub-section (9) of section 270A, proceedings for imposition of penalty could not have been mechanically commenced. The notices issued for commencement of action u/s. 270A were themselves vague and unclear. Since the notices failed to specify whether the assessee was being charged with under-reporting or misreporting of income and such aspect assumed added significance considering the indisputable position that a prayer for immunity could have been denied in terms of section 270AA(3) only if it were a case of misreporting.

iv) Since an application for grant of immunity could not be pursued unless the assessee complies with clauses (a) and (b) of section 270AA(1), the contention of the Revenue that mere payment of demand would not lead to a prayer for immunity being pursued was unsustainable.

v) Even the assessment orders failed to base the direction for initiation of proceedings u/s. 270A on any considered finding of the conduct of the assessee being liable to be placed within the sweep of sub-section (9) of that provision. The order of assessment and the penalty notices failed to meet the test of ‘specific limb’ as propounded in Pr. CIT v. Ms. MinuBakshi [2024] 462 ITR 301 (Delhi) and Schneider Electric South East Asia (Hq) Pte Ltd. v. Asst. CIT (International Taxation) [2022] 443 ITR 186 (Delhi). A case of misreporting could not have been made out considering the fact that the assessee had questioned the taxability of income asserting that the amount in question would not constitute royalty. The issue as raised was based on an understanding of the legal regime which prevailed. The contentions addressed on that score could neither be said to be baseless nor specious but was based on a judgment rendered by the High Court which was binding upon the Assessing Officer. The position which the assessee sought to assert stood redeemed in view of the decision rendered by the Supreme Court.

vi) The assessee had duly complied with the statutory pre-conditions prescribed in section 270AA(1). Hence it was incumbent upon the Revenue to have concluded firmly whether the assessee’s case fell in the category of misreporting since that alone would have warranted a rejection of its application for immunity. A finding of misrepresentation, failure to record investments, expenditure not substantiated by evidence, recording of false entry in the books of account and the other circumstances stipulated in sub-section (9) of section 270A had neither been returned nor recorded in the assessment order. The show cause notices in terms of which the proceedings u/s. 270A were initiated also failed to specify whether the assessee was being tried on an allegation of under-reporting or misreporting. Since there was a clear and apparent failure on the part of the Revenue to base the penalty proceedings on a contravention relatable to section 270A(9), the application for immunity could not have been rejected.

vii) The orders u/s. 270AA rejecting the assessee’s application u/s. 270AA(4) were not valid. On an overall conspectus orders rejecting the assessee’s applications u/s. 270AA(4) for immunity from imposition of penalty were unsustainable and hence quashed.”

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

61 Pr. CIT vs. Dharmanandan Diamonds Pvt. Ltd

[2024] 467 ITR 26 (Bom)

A.Y. 2009–10

Date of order: 14th June, 2023

Ss. 32 and 43(1) of ITA 1961: R. 5 of IT Rules 1962

Depreciation — Actual cost — Tangible and intangible assets in case of succession — Depreciation claim on revalued assets or WDV — Depreciation claimed by the erstwhile firm on WDV and by the successor Assessee on price revalued by the Government Approved Valuer — Payment made by the Assessee to predecessor at actual cost of assets — Successor Assessee entitled to claim depreciation for subsequent year on the basis of actual cost paid — Order of the Tribunal holding the Assessee eligible to claim depreciation on revalued price of assets is not erroneous.

The Assessee was incorporated on 31st August, 2007 and A.Y. 2008–09 was the first year of the Company. The Assessee was incorporated to take over all the assets and liabilities of a Partnership Firm (‘the Firm’) as on 1st September, 2007. Depreciation on assets was claimed by the erstwhile Firm on WDV basis up to 31st August, 2007 and by the successor Assessee at revalued price from 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008. The revaluation was done by a Government-approved valuer. In the subsequent year, that is, A.Y. 2009–10, the assessment year under consideration, the Assessee claimed depreciation on the WDV as on 31st March, 2008 which was arrived at by the Assessee after claiming depreciation for the period 1st September, 2007 to 31st March, 2008 on the revalued figure. According to the Assessing Officer, the Assessee had claimed excess depreciation and, therefore, he disallowed the depreciation as claimed by the Assessee on the revalued cost.

The Tribunal held that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation on revalued assets instead of written down value.

The Bombay High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) According to the proviso to section 32, aggregate deduction in respect of depreciation on tangible assets or intangible assets allowable to the predecessor firm and the successor assessee, respectively, shall not exceed in any previous year, the deduction calculated at the prescribed rates as if the succession or the amalgamation or the demerger, as the case may be, had not taken place, and such deduction shall be apportioned between the predecessor and the successor. This was applicable only to the A. Y. 2008-09 when the succession took place as for later years, it would not be the case as the assets would no longer belong to the predecessor firm but only the successor assessee, who could claim depreciation.

ii) For the earlier A. Y. 2008-09, the predecessor firm had claimed depreciation for five months from April 1, 2007 to August 31, 2007 and the successor assessee had claimed depreciation for the assessment year 2008-09 for the period from September 1, 2007 to March 31, 2008. By way of illustration, if succession had not taken place during the A. Y. 2008-09 and the predecessor firm would have claimed Rs. 1 crore as depreciation, both predecessor firm and the successor assessee for that year could claim together only Rs. 1 crore as depreciation and nothing more. This is what had happened in the case at hand also.

iii) The appeal pertained to the A. Y. 2009-10 in which year the asset was owned by the successor assessee. According to section 32 read with rule 5 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation in respect of any assets on the actual cost of these assets which would be the actual cost paid to the predecessor firm by the assessee after revaluing the assets. Therefore, the assessee would be entitled to claim depreciation for the subsequent years on the basis of the actual cost paid. For the actual cost no money was paid but shares were issued in lieu of cash and that would be the cost which the assessee had paid to procure the assets. The Tribunal did not err in holding that the assessee was eligible for claiming depreciation u/s. 32 on revalued assets instead of written down value for the A. Y. 2009-10.”

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

60 Pallava Textiles Pvt. Ltd. vs. Assessment Unit

[2024] 467 ITR 539 (Mad.)

A.Y. 2021–22

Date of order: 30th January, 2024

S. 170A of ITA 1961

Assessment — Amalgamation of Companies — Law applicable — Effect of insertion of section 170A with effect from 1st April, 2022 — Assessment to be on the basis of modified return filed by successor to business.

The assessee was a private limited company engaged in the business of manufacturing and trading of yarn and fabric. During the financial year 2020–21, it filed an application before the National Company Law Tribunal, seeking approval for a scheme of amalgamation with a company C. Under the scheme of amalgamation, C merged with the assessee and dissolved without being wound up. The appointed date under the scheme was 1st April, 2020. The National Company Law Tribunal sanctioned the scheme on 18th April, 2022, and the scheme became effective from 1st April, 2020 upon such sanction. Since the last date for filing the return of income was in March 2022, the assessee was constrained to file the standalone return of income on 14th March, 2022. Meanwhile, the Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 143(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and further notices u/s. 142(1) thereof. The assessee replied thereto. After issuing a show-cause notice on 27th December, 2022, the assessment order was issued within two days after the assessee replied to the show-cause notice.

Assessee filed a writ petition to quash the order. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Section 170A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 91) with effect from April 1, 2022. Under the provisions of section 170A a successor of a business reorganisation is required to furnish the modified return within six months from the end of the month in which the order of the court or Tribunal sanctioning such business reorganisation is issued. The provision clearly indicates that any assessment after a business reorganisation is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Under the Companies Act, 2013, a scheme of reorganisation becomes effective upon sanction from the appointed date. All the assets, contracts, rights and liabilities of the transferor shall stand vested with the transferee with effect from that date. Therefore, section 170A of the Act enables the transferee or successor to file the modified return within a specified time limit.

ii) The amended section 170A clearly indicates that any assessment after the business reorganization is sanctioned should be on the basis of the modified return. Since the order of the National Company Law Tribunal was issued on April 18, 2022, the assessee had six months from April 30, 2022 to file the modified return. The option to file the modified return under section 170A of the Act had not been enabled in the portal. In those circumstances, the assessee submitted a physical copy of the modified return on August 24, 2022. Since the last date for filing the return was expiring earlier, the assessee previously submitted the return of the company on standalone basis on March 14, 2022. The first notice to the assessee u/s. 143(2) of the Act was issued on June 28, 2022, which was subsequent to the effective date of merger. All other notices culminating in the assessment order were issued later. In view of the scheme of amalgamation having become effective and thereby operational from April 1, 2020, the assessee’s consolidated return of income, after its amalgamation, should have been the basis for assessment based on the scrutiny. The Assessing Officer had taken into account the standalone returns of the assessee, the standalone returns of C and the consolidated returns of the merged entity for different purposes. Such an approach was not sustainable.

iii) The show-cause notice dated December 27, 2022 was followed by the assessment order in a matter of about five or six days. The issuance of an assessment order within about two days from the receipt of the reply to the show cause, in a matter relating to about 59 additions to income, constituted a further reason to interfere with
the order.

iv) The assessment order dated December 31, 2022 was quashed and the matter was remanded. Upon consideration of the consolidated return of the assessee, which had since been uploaded electronically, it is open to the Department to issue fresh notices and make a reassessment on the basis of such consolidated return of income.”

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

9 [2024] 167 taxmann.com 286 (Mumbai – Trib.)

Ashok Kumar Pandey vs. ACIT

ITA No: 3986/Mum/2023

A.Y.: 2013-14

Dated: 3rd October, 2024

Article 4 of India-US DTAA — On facts, personal and economic relationships of assessee were closer to India, leading to assessee tie-breaking to India

FACTS

The Assessee, filed his return of income, declaring an income of ₹9,500. The Assessee was a dual-resident of India as well as USA and he claimed that his ‘center of vital interests’ was in the USA, under Article 4(2)(a) of the India-US tax treaty. Accordingly, he was a US resident for tax purposes. The AO argued that since a) Assessee’s presence in India was over 183 days; b) assessee had active business in India; he was an Indian tax resident and was also tie-breaking to India. Thus, assessee’s global income was taxable in India.

CIT(A) upheld AO order.

Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT

HELD

ITAT took note of the following facts:

  •  Assessee had a permanent home both in India and USA. Thus, residential status will be determined based on personal and economic relationships.
  •  Personal relationship of assessee is as under:

♦ Assessee and his entire nuclear family are US nationals, holding US passports.

♦ Later, assessee came back to India with his wife, one daughter and son whereas another daughter was staying in the US for studying purpose. All are registered as overseas citizen of India.

♦ His extended family i.e. father, mother, sisters are all US nationals holding US passport.

  •  Economic interest is as under:

♦ Passive investment in USA consisted of cash balance of $57,010; investment in M L Fortress partners $268,866; Coast Access LLC of $16,653; UBS Portfolio closing was $3,21,33,838 in USA

♦ In comparison, passive investment in India consisted of a bank balance of approx. ₹30 lakhs and investment value of approx. ₹50 lakhs.

♦ In terms of active involvement, he and his wife held shares in a company producing films. The assets of the company included work in progress of film, cash and bank balance, unsecured loan. He attended board meetings five times during the year.

  •  Personal and economic relationships, including active business management, took precedence over passive investments in establishing residency.
  •  From the USA, the assessee is deriving rental income where his house property is rented out, he has investments in bank accounts as well as alternative investments. Thus, he does not have any active involvement in the USA for earning wages, remuneration, profit.
  •  Based on his active role in the Indian company, substantial time spent in India, and primary residence with his family in India, the Assessee’s center of vital interests was closer to India, leading to his tie-breaking treaty residency in India.

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

61 [2024] 113 ITR(T) 243 (Chandigarh – Trib.)

SEL Manufacturing Co. Ltd. Vs. DCIT

ITA NO.: 362 (CHD.) OF 2023
A.Y.: 2011-12

DATED: 27th May, 2024

Where assessee-company underwent a CIRP under IBC, 2016, the provisions of IBC, 2016 overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced and once a resolution plan is approved by the Adjudicating authority, Income-tax Department is also bound by terms of the resolution plan so approved.

FACTS

The assessee company had undergone a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) in the terms and provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016 (“IBC”) under the aegis of the Adjudicating Authority of the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”). A petition for CIRP u/s 7 of the IBC was filed by the State Bank of India before NCLT vide Company Petition No. (IB)-114/Chd/Pb/2017. The NCLT admitted the petition vide order dated 1st April, 2018 and vide order dated 10th February, 2021, approved the resolution plan.

The AO initiated reassessment proceedings u/s 147 on the assessee on the basis of information received that the assessee had made accommodation entries with Shree Shyam Enterprises and passed the impugned order making addition of ₹2,08,60,900/- u/s 68 of the Act, on account of alleged unexplained cash credits representing bogus purchases made.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A), on the other hand, enhanced the addition to ₹8,13,85,737/-, invoking the provisions of Section 69C of the Act.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT. The assessee had raised the additional ground before the ITAT, challenging the CIT(A) order as the same was passed ignoring the order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT under IBC, 2016.

HELD

The assessee contented that in terms of the approved resolution plan vide order dated 10th February, 2021 passed by the NCLT, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by Income-tax Department endeavoring to saddle the assessee with a liability for a period prior to approval of the Resolution Plan, was extinguished / abated / withdrawn except to the extent provided for in the approved Resolution Plan and thus, any claim or demand assessed / raised / ordered by the Income-tax Department was not payable by the assessee. The provisions of the IBC override other laws for time being in force and as per Section 31(1) of the IBC, a Resolution Plan once approved shall be binding on the assessee company and, inter-alia, its creditors, including, inter-alia, the Central Government to whom, a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under law are owing.

The ITAT observed that as rightly contended and not disputed, any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Income Tax Department was to be treated in the nature of operational debt and the Department was to be treated as an Operational Creditor of the assessee. The ITAT further observed that the Resolution Plan further provided that all claims that may be made against or in relation to any payments required to be made by the assessee company under any applicable law shall unconditionally stand abated, settled and / or with minimum effect. The Resolution Plan also provided that any claim or demand assessed or raised or ordered by the Department shall not be payable by the assessee company. The plan also provided that no Government Authority including the Income Tax Department shall have any further rights or claims against the assessee company in respect of any claim relating to the period prior to the approval of the Resolution Plan.

The ITAT held that the impugned order was passed ignoring the provisions of the IBC, which overrides the provisions of the other laws for the time being enforced, in so far as they are inconsistent with the provisions of the IBC, and that the impugned order was passed in violation or ignorance of the order dated 10th February, 2021, passed by the NCLT, by which order, the Income Tax Department was precluded from undertaking any action with respect to any issue / transaction prior to the date of commencement of the insolvency process.

In the result, finding merit in the Additional Ground raised by the assessee, the order of CIT(A)was set aside and cancelled. The appeal of the assessee was accordingly allowed.

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

60 [2024] 113 ITR(T)158 (Kol – Trib.)

Rajesh Kumar Jalan vs. PCIT

ITA NO. 254 & 255 (KOL) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2015-16 & 2016-17

Dated: 12th June, 2024

Sec. 263: Where there was no application of mind by CIT to take cognisance u/s 263 on the proposal sent by Additional CIT, order passed u/s 263 was to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee at the relevant time was engaged in trading of cloth and had filed return of income under presumptive taxation scheme contemplated u/s 44AD of the Act. The AO had received information from Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes, West Bengal that the assessee had by fraudulent act opened seven Bank accounts under five proprietorship concerns and received a total sum of ₹112,41,47,898/- over the years. On perusal of the information, the AO recorded the reasons and reopened the assessment in both the assessment years.

The assessee had denied being the operator of any such alleged bank accounts. The AO not being satisfied with the assessee’s submission, passed the assessment orders for both the assessment years estimating profit at 8 per cent of alleged unaccounted sales of ₹30,47,35,796/- for AY 2015-16 and ₹43,08,96,425/- for AY 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the CIT(A) which was pending to be disposed-off.

Meanwhile, the Additional Commissioner of Income Tax, Range-43, Kolkata [Addl. CIT] forwarded a proposal to CIT for initiating proceedings under section 263 of the Act against the assessee. The ld. CIT had reproduced the proposal made by the Addl. CIT and issued a notice under section 263. The Addl. CIT was of the view that the alleged credit of sales ought to be treated as unexplained cash credit against the name of assessee and the AO had erred in treating it as gross turnover.

In response to the show cause notice u/s 263, the assessee had submitted that somebody has personated his identity and opened these fake accounts in his name. The assessee had not undertaken any such business. The CIT not satisfied with the explanation of the assessee, set aside the assessment orders with a direction that AO to recompute income at ₹30,07,20,390/- in A.Y. 2015-16 and ₹43,13,11,955/- in A.Y. 2016-17.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD
The ITAT observed that as per section 263(1), powers of revision granted by section 263 to the learned Commissioner have four compartments-

  1.  the learned Commissioner may call for and examine the records of any proceedings under this Act
  2. He will judge an order passed by an AO on culmination of any proceedings or during the pendency of those proceedings and form an opinion that such an order is erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue

                   [By this stage the learned Commissioner was not required the assistance of the assessee]

3. Issue a show-cause notice pointing out the reasons for the formation of his belief that action u/s 263 is required on a particular order of the Assessing Officer

4. After hearing the assessee, he will pass the order.

To judge the action of CIT taken under section 263, the ITAT followed the decision of the Hon’ble ITAT Mumbai in the case of Mrs. Khatiza S. Oomerbhoy vs. ITO, Mumbai [2006] 100 ITD 173 (Mum. Trib.). One of the principles propounded in the above case-

“The CIT must record satisfaction that the order of the AO is erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the Revenue. Both the conditions must be fulfilled.”

The ITAT observed that the assessee submitted that he had not opened any bank accounts, rather somebody had impersonated him. His case was based on the issue that his IDs were misused and some unknown person had carried out these transactions in his name. He could only know about this when he received information from Sales Tax Authorities, Bureau of Investigation, Commercial Taxes.

During the course of proceedings u/s 263, the assessee was asked to submit his audited financial statements; the assessee was asked to appraise about the status of the complaint lodged by him in Konnagar Police Station. To this, the CIT recorded the finding that the assessee failed to give anything. The ITAT held that, this cannot be expected from a Senior Officer of the Income Tax Department to put somebody under the tax liability without concluding the finding. He ought to have issued notice to the Police Authorities as well as to the Commercial Tax Investigating Authorities for submission of their report. He ought to have first determined whether these accounts belong to the assessee, only thereafter taxability of the amounts available in those accounts would have fallen upon the assessee.

The ITAT further observed that the CIT had reproduced the proposal sent by the Addl. CIT and there was no independent application of his mind for taking cognizance under section 263. The CIT had not recorded any finding. He just put the blame on the assessee to prove a negative aspect. It was for the revenue to first determine that these accounts belonged to the assessee.

Once the assessee had been emphasising that these accounts did not belong to him and he had lodged an FIR in such situation, there should be adjudication of this aspect but CIT simply ignored this aspect under the garb that the assessee failed to substantiate this issue. The ITAT held that it could not be substantiated by the assessee. It was to be investigated by the AO or by the CIT. The role of the AO is not only a prosecutor but he has to play a role of an adjudicator. That very role has to be played by the CIT while exercising the powers under section 263.

Further, the ITAT held that impugned orders are not sustainable because the same very issue was subject matter of appeal before the ld. CIT(Appeals) and by meaning of clause (c) of section 263(1) that aspect could be looked into by the 1st Appellate Authority and no revisionary power ought to have been exercised on that aspect.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed and the impugned orders were quashed.

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

59 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 730 (Raipur Trib)

Avdesh Jain vs. ITO

ITA No.: 30(Rpr.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2010-11

Dated: 9th October, 2024

S. 251 — CIT(A) is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution and is obliged to dispose off the same on merit.

FACTS

The assessee was engaged in the business of retail trading. He filed his return of income for AY 2010-11 by declaring an income of ₹4,67,200. The AO, on the basis of certain information shared by
the Investigation Wing, initiated proceedings under section 147.

The AO observed that as the returned income of the assessee did not suffice to source the business expenditure of ₹8.24 lakhs that was incurred by him, he made an addition of the deficit amount of ₹3.56 lakhs as an unexplained expenditure under section 69C. He also made an addition towards deemed income of ₹60,000 under section 44AE. Accordingly, the AO passed an order under section 147 read with section 144 assessing the income of the assessee at ₹3.51 crores.

On appeal, after noting that despite being given six opportunities the assessee had failed to participate in the proceedings, CIT(A) held that the assessee was not interested in pursuing the matter and disposed of the appeal vide an ex-parte order.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) CIT(A) had disposed-off the appeal for non-prosecution and had failed to apply his mind to the issues which did arise from the impugned order and were assailed by the assessee before him.

(b) Once an appeal is preferred before the CIT(A), it becomes obligatory on his part to dispose-off the same on merit and it was not open for him to summarily dismiss the appeal on account of non-prosecution of the same by the assessee.

(c) A perusal of Section 251(1)(a) / (b) as well as the Explanation to section 251(2) reveals that CIT(A) remains under a statutory obligation to apply his mind to all the issues which arises from the impugned order before him and he is not vested with any power to summarily dismiss the appeal for non-prosecution. This view was also supported by CIT v. Premkumar Arjundas Luthra (HUF), (2017) 297 CTR 614 (Bom).

Accordingly, the Tribunal restored the matter to the file of the CIT(A) for fresh adjudication.

S. 69A — Where the assessee had made frequent cash withdrawals and deposits, he should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage which could be added as unexplained income under section 69A.

58 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 671(Indore Trib)

Kamal Chand Sisodiya vs. ITO

ITA No.: 206(Ind) of 2024

A.Y.: 2011-12

Dated: 11th October, 2024

S. 69A — Where the assessee had made frequent cash withdrawals and deposits, he should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage which could be added as unexplained income under section 69A.

FACTS

The assessee was an individual aged about 75 years who had retired from Government service of 39 years as teacher. During financial year 2010–11, he had made cash deposits of ₹11.61 lakhs in the bank account, which were added to the income of the assessee as unexplained cash deposits by the AO, resorting to section 147.

CIT(A) fully sustained the said addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) the AO has made impugned addition by merely aggregating various credit/deposits made by assessee throughout the financial year 2010-11 in bank account.

(b) On perusal of bank statement, it was found that the assessee has made frequent deposits in bank account, and it was not a case of one times sudden deposit. Further, the assessee had also made frequent cash withdrawals from the very same bank account.

(c) Therefore, looking at the pattern of deposits and withdrawals, the assessee should not be denied the benefit of peak credit and it was only peak shortage could be considered as unexplained income.

Accordingly, after examining the cash flow statements filed by the assessee, the Tribunal restricted the addition to peak shortage of ₹1.05 lakhs.

Ss. 166, 160, 246A — Where the assessment order was framed in the case of the sole beneficiary of the private discretionary trust, appeal against the order could be filed by the beneficiary only and not by the trust.

57 (2024) 167 taxmann.com 378 (Raipur Trib)

Kajal Deepak Trust vs. ITO

ITA No.:70 (Rpr.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2017-18

Dated: 21st August, 2024

Ss. 166, 160, 246A — Where the assessment order was framed in the case of the sole beneficiary of the private discretionary trust, appeal against the order could be filed by the beneficiary only and not by the trust.

FACTS

A minor was the sole beneficiary of the assessee-trust (a private discretionary trust) in which her father and mother were the trustees. The minor filed her return of income for AY 2017-18.

During the course of assessment proceedings of the minor, the AO observed that during the demonetization period, cash deposits of ₹9 lakhs were made in the bank account of the trust. The minor submitted that the cash deposits were made out of accumulated cash gifts received from her friends / relatives in the preceding years. The AO was not satisfied with the explanation and made additions under section 69A in her hands.

Although the assessment was framed in the hands of the minor, the trust filed an appeal before CIT(A). CIT(A) proceeded with the appeal, upheld the assessment order and dismissed the appeal.

Aggrieved with the order of CIT(A), the trust filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that-

(a) The sole beneficiary in whose case the assessment had been framed was a separate and distinct entity as against the private discretionary trust and therefore, the appeal against the said assessment order could not be filed by the trust.

(b) Although the discretionary trust was the primary assessee whose income was liable to be brought to tax in the hands of the representative assessee under section 160(1)(iv), as per section 166, there was no bar on the department to frame direct assessment of a person on whose behalf or for whose benefit income was receivable. Accordingly, when the AO had framed the assessment in the hands of the individual beneficiary, then if the said assessment order was not accepted, it was for the beneficiary to have filed the appeal before CIT(A).

Accordingly, the appeal of the trust was dismissed with liberty to the beneficiary to file an appeal before CIT(A) who was directed to adopt a liberal approach regarding the reasons to the delay for filing of appeal.

Transfer of Capital Asset to Subsidiary / Holding Company

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company, subject to compliance of the specified conditions, is not regarded as a “transfer” under section 47(iv) of the Income Tax Act (“ACT”). Likewise, a transfer of a capital asset by a subsidiary company to the holding company is not regarded as a transfer under section 47(v). A company is defined by section 2(17) and includes an Indian company and a company in which, the public are substantially interested is defined by section 2(18) of the Act and includes the subsidiary company of a company in specified cases. An Indian company is defined by section 2(26) of the Act. The terms or expressions ‘subsidiary company’ or ‘holding company’ are not defined under the Income Tax Act. These terms, however, are defined under sections 2(46) and 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013. (Section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956). The definition of a subsidiary company under the Companies Act includes a step-down subsidiary or sub-subsidiary, ie. a subsidiary of a subsidiary company.

An issue has arisen under the income tax law as to whether a step-down subsidiary is a subsidiary for the purposes of sections 47(iv) and (v) of the Act, and therefore, whether the transfer to or from such a subsidiary is regarded as a case of ‘no transfer’ for the purposes of section 2(47) of the Act; in other words, whether the capital gains on such a transfer is exempt from taxation.

The Gujarat High Court has held that a transfer of capital asset by a holding company, to its step-down subsidiary, is not covered by the provisions of section 47(iv) of the Act while the Bombay High Court, in the context of erstwhile section 108 r.w.s. 104 of the Act has held that a subsidiary included the subsidiary of a subsidiary. Recently, the Kolkata bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, following the decision of the Bombay High Court, has held that a transfer by a holding company to its step-down subsidiary is a case of transfer that is not regarded as a transfer. The Gujarat High Court in deciding the issue has specifically dissented from the decision of the Bombay High Court.

PETROSIL OIL CO. LTD.’S CASE

The issue under consideration first arose in the case of Petrosil Oil Co. Ltd. vs. CIT, 236 ITR 220 before the Bombay High Court in the context of the erstwhile section 108 r.w.s 104 of the Act.

In the said case, the assessee-company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 in India was a wholly owned subsidiary of a company incorporated in United Kingdom (UK company), which itself was also a subsidiary of another company based and registered in the United States of America holding its 100 per cent shares (US Company was one in which the public were substantially interested). Section 104 of the Act provided for the levy of additional tax on undistributed income of a closely held company under certain circumstances. Section 108 provided for the relief from such tax (a) to any company in which the public are substantially interested; or (b) to a subsidiary company of such company if the whole of the share capital of such subsidiary company has been held by the parent company or by its nominees throughout the previous year.”

In the course of assessment, a controversy arose in regard to the appropriate tax rate of income-tax applicable to the assessee-company. The question arose whether the company could be considered a domestic company in which the public are substantially interested. The AO did not accept the contention of the assessee that the assessee-company, being a wholly owned subsidiary of another company which in turn was a subsidiary of another company in which the public were substantially interested, then by virtue of section 108, having been incorporated by reference in definition of ‘a company in which public were substantially interested’ in then s.2(18), it should be deemed to be a company in which public were substantially interested.

The Appellate Commissioner decided in favour of the assessee holding that a subsidiary of a subsidiary also fell within the ambit of clause (b) of section 108 if it satisfied the requirements prescribed therein. The Tribunal was however, of the view that section 108, did not cover a case of sub-subsidiary and decided the appeal before it against the assessee.

On reference, there being a point of difference between the two judges of the Division Bench – one judge holding that to qualify as a ‘company in which the public are substantially interested’ not only the assessee-company but also its parent company / companies must also be domestic company, while the other judge held that the assessee in question was a company in which public was substantially interested in as much as the holding company was the subsidiary of a company which was a company in which public was substantially interested, the case was referred to the Third Judge.

In response, the company, in the context of the relevant issue, submitted that;

  •  The U.S. company fell within section 2(18)(b)(B)(i)(d); as 100 per cent of the shares of the U.K. company were held by the U.S. company, the U.S. company and U.K. company were one and the same; then the assessee would fall within section 2(18)(b)(B)(i)(c); a 100 per cent owned subsidiary of a 100 per cent owned subsidiary should be considered as a subsidiary.
  •  Under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act, a company was deemed to be a subsidiary of another if it was a subsidiary of any company which was the subsidiary of the other; a sub-subsidiary which fulfilled the requirement of section 108(b) would be a subsidiary under section 108(b); in that case 100 per cent of the shares of the assessee were held by the U.K. company whose shares were held by the US holding company, and the assessee, thus, fulfilled the requirement of section 108(b).
  •  Reliance was placed upon the case of Howrah Trading Co. Ltd. vs. CIT 36 ITR 215 (SC), wherein the question was whether a person, who had purchased shares in a company under blank transfer forms and in whose name the shares had not been registered in the books of the company, was or was not a shareholder within the meaning of section 18(5). The Supreme Court, whilst deciding this question, held that under the Indian Companies Act, the expression ‘shareholder’ denoted no other person except a member. The Supreme Court held that no valid reason existed why the word ‘shareholder’ as used in section 18(5) should mean a person other than the one denoted by the same expression in the Indian Companies Act. The Supreme Court was, thus, importing the definition of the term ‘shareholder’ as used in the Companies Act into the Income-tax Act.
  •  The definition under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act must be imported into section 108; even on the doctrine of lifting of corporate veil, it would be found that 100 per cent of the shares of the assessee-company were held by the U.K. company and 100 per cent of the shares of the U.K. company were held by a U.S. company; it must, therefore, be held that the sub-subsidiary was also a subsidiary of the U.S. company and fell within section 108(b).

On behalf of the revenue department, in the context of the relevant issue, it was submitted that section 108(b) applied only to such companies whose entire share capital was held by a company falling under section 108(a); the definition of the expression ‘subsidiary company’ under the Companies Act could not be incorporated into section 108; neither of the two conditions prescribed under section 108(b) were satisfied by the assessee-company; the assessee was not a subsidiary of the U.S. company and, therefore, was not a subsidiary of a company falling within section 108(a); a sub-subsidiary could not be treated as a subsidiary for the purposes of section 108(b); the assessee was, thus, not a company in which the public were substantially interested.

On due consideration of the rival submissions, the court held that;

  •  The Income-tax Act nowhere defined what was a ‘subsidiary company’. The Finance (No. 2) 1971 Act also did not define what was a ‘subsidiary company’
  •  There would be a dichotomy if the assessee-company were to be a subsidiary company of the U.S. company for the purposes of the Companies Act but were deemed not to be a subsidiary of the U.S. company for the purposes of the Act.
  •  The meaning given to the term ‘subsidiary company’ under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act must be imported into section 108. Of course, the further condition laid down under section 108(b) must also be fulfilled. Thus, a sub-subsidiary would be a subsidiary under section 108(b) if the whole of its share capital had been held by the parent company or its nominees throughout the previous year.
  •  If that meaning was incorporated, then it was very clear that the assessee was a subsidiary within the meaning of section 108(b). This was so because, admittedly, the U.S. company was a company in which the public are substantially interested and fell within section 108(a). A 100 per cent owned sub-subsidiary of a 100 per cent owned subsidiary would be a subsidiary within the meaning of section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act and also within the meaning of section 108(b) of the Companies Act. The assessee fulfilled the condition of section 108(b) in as much as, throughout the previous year, 100 per cent of its share capital was held by the U.K. company. Throughout the previous year, 100 per cent of the share capital of the U.K. company was held by the U.S. company. The U.K. company was, thus, a nominee of the U.S. company. The assessee would, thus, be a subsidiary within the meaning of section 108(b).
  •  Once the definition of the expression ‘subsidiary company’ appearing in section 4(1) of the Companies Act was imported to find out the true meaning of the word ‘subsidiary company’ in clause (b) of section 108, it would have to be read in the context of the requirements of clause (b) of section 108. In other words, ‘subsidiary company’ in section 108 could be understood to mean a subsidiary company as defined in section 4(1) of the Companies Act, which met the further requirements of clause (b) of section 108, viz., if the whole of the share capital of such subsidiary company had been held by the parent company or by its nominees throughout the previous year. If company ‘A’ held 100 per cent of the shares of a subsidiary company ‘B’ which held 100 per cent of the shares of another company ‘C’, under the Companies Act, Company ‘A’ could be said to be holding 100 per cent of the shares of company ‘C’ also. In conclusion section 2(6)(a) of the Finance Act, read with section 108(b), covered the case of a subsidiary company which was a subsidiary of a subsidiary company falling therein, if it also met the requirements mentioned in that clause.

KALINDI INVESTMENT (P.) LTD.’S CASE

The issue again came up for consideration before the Gujarat High Court in the case of Kalindi Investment (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT, 256 ITR 713 in the context of section 47(iv) of the Act.

In the said case, the facts were that one Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. was a wholly-owned  subsidiary of the assessee company. Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a wholly-owned subsidiary of Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. As such, Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a step-down subsidiary of the assessee company.

The assessee, a private limited holding company, was earning dividend and interest income from its activities of making or holding investments and financing industrial enterprises. It maintained its books of account on mercantile system of accounting. For the assessment year under consideration, i.e., 1975-76, for which the accounting period ended on 31st March, 1975, the assessee-company filed its return of income declaring total loss of ₹3,02,858. The total loss included an amount of ₹1,26,201 claimed by the assessee to have been incurred on account of short-term capital loss.

At the assessment proceedings, the ITO noted that during the accounting period the assessee had sold its 2,300 shares of Sarabhai Management Corpn. Ltd., a private limited company, on 20th January, 1975, to its subsidiary company, viz., Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. Co. for ₹13,600 only at the rate of ₹6 per share. The said shares had been purchased by the assessee-company on 30th July,1973, for ₹1,38,345 at the rate of ₹60.15 per share. The difference of ₹1,24,545 was claimed by the company as short-term capital loss occasioned as a result of transfer of the said shares by it to Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. The ITO rejected the assessee’s claim on the ground that the transferee-company, i.e., Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was a subsidiary company of the assessee-company and, therefore, the case was clearly covered by the provisions of section 47(iv) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’).

The CIT(A) and the tribunal confirmed the finding of both the lower authorities that the provisions of section 47(iv) were attracted. For this purpose, the Tribunal relied on the definitions of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary company’ as given in section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956.

At the instance of the assessee company the following question was referred by the Tribunal for opinion of the Gujarat Hogh Court:

“1…………….

2. Whether the Tribunal was justified in interpreting various relevant provisions of various Acts such as sections 45, 47(iv)(a), 2(17), 2(26) of the Act as well as section 4, etc., of the Companies Act, 1956, while arriving at the conclusion that the loss in question was incurred on account of transaction between the parent company and the subsidiary company and, hence, the same was disallowable under section 47(iv)(a) of the Act in spite of the fact that the assessee-company did not hold all the share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. ?”

The company contended before the court that:

  •  Section 47(iv) contemplated transfer of a capital asset by a holding company to its subsidiary company and that since Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was not a subsidiary company of the assessee-company, there was no question of applying section 47(iv). The assessee-company did not hold the whole of the share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. and, therefore, clause (a) of section 47(iv) was also not attracted. Of course, there was no dispute about the fact that Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was an Indian company.
  •  The Tribunal erred in invoking the provisions of the Companies Act, for applying section 47(iv) to the facts of the instant case. Section 4(1) of the Companies Act, commenced with the words ‘For the purposes of this Act’, and therefore the definition of ‘holding company’ contained in the aforesaid provision could not be applied for the purposes of section 47(iv) which is a different enactment altogether.
  •  Because the transaction in question resulted into capital loss, the revenue had held that it was not a transfer, but if the transaction had resulted into capital gain, the revenue would have canvassed the other way around to rope in the income as taxable, by treating it as a transfer of capital asset outside the purview of section 47(iv). For that purpose, the revenue would have contended that Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. was not the immediate subsidiary of the assessee-company.

On the other hand, the Revenue, submitted that:

  •  When the Act itself did not contain any definitions of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary company’, and the Companies Act was a special enactment for companies, there was nothing wrong on the part of the Tribunal in relying on the definition of ‘holding company’ contained in section 4 of the Companies Act, more particularly, when the assessee held the entire share capital of Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd. and Kaveri Investments (P.) Ltd., in turn, held the entire share capital of Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. The provisions of section 4(1)(c), read with illustration thereof were clearly applicable in the facts of the instant case.
  •  In any event of the matter, the Commissioner (Appeals) had also given another ground for holding that there was no capital loss and, therefore, also the finding given by the Tribunal is not required to be disturbed.

Having heard the learned counsels for the parties, the court observed that;

  •  although revenue’s first submission appeared to be prima facie attractive, there was no justification for transplanting the definition of ‘holding company’ under the Companies Act into the provisions of section 47 automatically. The Companies Act had been enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to companies and certain other associations.
  •  Various regulatory provisions contained in the Companies Act were meant to make the companies accountable for their activities to the authorities as well as to the shareholders and creditors.
  •  In order to ensure that a company having controlling interest in another company did not escape the liabilities of the other company, section 4(1) gave an expanded definition of a ‘holding company’.
  •  On the other hand, the Income-tax Act was a taxing statute for taxing the Income under various heads and subject them to levy of tax. Capital gains was one such head. Section 45 provided that any profits or gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset effected in the previous year shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head ‘Capital gains’ and shall be deemed to be the income of the previous year in which the transfer took place. Since there could be borderline transactions, the Legislature has taken care to provide in section 47 that certain transfers shall not be considered as transfers for the purpose of levy of capital gains. For instance, any distribution of capital assets on the total or partial partition of an HUF was not to be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains. So also, any distribution of capital assets on the dissolution of a firm, or an AOP was not to be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains. Similarly, any transfer, in a scheme of amalgamation of a capital asset by the amalgamating company to the amalgamated company was also not be treated as a transfer for the purpose of capital gains, subject to compliance with certain conditions.
    • The same section provided that, transfer of a capital asset by a holding company to its Indian subsidiary company or by a subsidiary company to its Indian holding company was not to be treated as a transfer for the purposes of capital gains.
  •  The words ‘any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company’ would, as per the ordinary grammatical construction, contemplate only the immediate subsidiary company of the holding company as the holding company held the share capital only of its immediate subsidiary company.
  •  If the Legislature, while enacting the Act, intended that the provisions of section 4 of the Companies Act should apply to a holding or a subsidiary company under section 47, there was nothing to prevent the Legislature from making such an express provision. The question was when that was not done, whether the provisions of section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act were required to be read into section 47(iv) and (v) by necessary implication.
  •  Section 4 of the Companies Act made it clear that the expanded definition of ‘holding company’ was applicable for the purposes of the Act. The Legislature gave an expanded definition of ‘holding company’ for the purposes of the Companies Act with the object to make the companies more accountable to the authorities, shareholders and creditors, With emphasis on ‘control’ of one company over another, the definition of ‘holding company’ under the Companies Act clearly indicated control over the composition of the Board of Directors or holding more than half in nominal value of equity share capital of the other company, which was sufficient to treat the two companies in question as a holding company and a subsidiary company.
  •  On the other hand, the Legislature has provided different criteria for dealing with a holding company and a subsidiary company in the matter of tax in capital gains on transfer of assets between such companies. The Act has carved out a smaller number of holding and subsidiary companies for the purposes of section 47(iv) and (v). The wider definition of a ‘holding company’ with emphasis on ‘control’ as the guiding factor was not adopted in clauses (iv) and (v) of section 47. It was specifically provided that the parent company or its nominees must hold the whole of the share capital of the company.
  •  The Legislature while enacting the Act, therefore, made a clear departure from the definition of ‘holding company’ as contained in the Act. In this view of the matter, there was no justification for invoking clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 4 while interpreting the provisions of clauses (iv) and (v) of section 47, which laid down two specific conditions for applicability of the said clauses, and which were quite different from the criteria laid down in sub-section (1) of section 4 of the Companies Act, 1956, for giving a more expanded definition of a ‘holding company’ to subject more companies to regulatory control under the Companies Act. On the other hand, the object underlying section 47 was to lay down exceptions to the legal provision (section 45) for taxing gains on transfer of capital assets. The general rule was to construe the exceptions strictly and not to give them a wider meaning.

In this view of the findings, the Gujarat High Court had no hesitation in expressing the view that the Tribunal was not justified in law in treating Ambernath Investments (P.) Ltd. as a subsidiary company of the assessee-company for the purposes of clause (iv) of section 47 of the Income-tax Act.

OBSERVATIONS

The relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act are sections 2(17), 2(18), 2(26), 2(47), 45 and 47. Sections 47(iv) and (v) read as: “47. Transactions not regarded as transfer. –Nothing contained in section 45 shall apply to the following transfers:-

(i) …

(ii) …

(iii) …

(iv) any transfer of a capital asset by a company to its subsidiary company, if-

a. the parent company or its nominees hold the whole of the share capital of the subsidiary company, and

b. the subsidiary company is an Indian company;

(v) any transfer of a capital asset by a subsidiary company to the holding company, if-

a. the whole of the share capital of the subsidiary capital is held by the holding company, and

b. the holding company is an Indian company:”

The relevant provision of the Companies Act, 1956 is section 4(1) which reads as;

“Meaning of ‘holding company’ and ‘subsidiary’:

“4(1). For the purposes of this Act, a company shall, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3), be deemed to be subsidiary of another if, but only if,-

a. that the other controls the composition of its Board of Directors; or

b. that other-

(i) ******

(ii) . . . holds more than half in nominal value of its equity share capital; or

c. the first-mentioned company is a subsidiary of any company which is that other’s subsidiary.”

The Illustration below sub-section (1) of section 4 reads as under:

“Company B is a subsidiary of company A, and company C is a subsidiary of company B. Company C is a subsidiary of company A, by virtue of clause (c) above. If company D is a subsidiary of company C, company D will be a subsidiary of company B and consequently also of company A, by virtue of clause (c) above, and so on.”

The terms “subsidiary company” and “holding company”, as noted earlier, are not defined in the Income Tax Act. These terms are, however, defined under section 4(1)(c) of the Companies Act 1956, now sections 2(46) and 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013. On a bare reading of the definitions provided by the Companies Act, it is clear that 100 per cent subsidiary company of a 100 per cent subsidiary company of a holding company is also regarded as a subsidiary of the holding company. In other words, a step-down subsidiary is treated as a subsidiary of the holding company for the purposes of the Companies Act.

The Gujarat High Court, while examining the issue in the context of section 47 has held that the meaning of the term “subsidiary” for the purposes of section 47 of the Income Tax Act should be gathered from the ordinary understanding of the term and the provisions of the Companies Act should not be imported for assigning the meaning to a subsidiary under the Income Tax Act. In view of the Gujarat High Court, the meaning provided by the Companies Act should not be relied upon in interpreting the provisions of Income Tax Act.

A subsidiary company and a holding company are companies incorporated and registered under the Companies Act and derive their existence from the Companies Act. In the circumstances, it is natural and logical to rely on the meaning supplied by the Companies Act, especially where the term subsidiary company is not defined under the Income Tax Act. It is a settled position in law, to gather the meaning of an undefined term used in the Income Tax Act from any other enactment where such term is defined, more so where the definition is under an enactment under which the entity is born, and is the principal enactment that governs and regulates such an entity. In modern days, it is usual for the legislature, while enacting a new law, to specifically clarify the situation, by providing for a clear right to refer to another enactment for gathering the meaning of an undefined term. The rule of harmonious construction also supports an interpretation that avoids absurdity of limiting the understanding of the term subsidiary company to the Income Tax Act alone. It would create an absurdity where a step-down subsidiary is treated as a subsidiary under the parent enactment governing the companies but is not treated so under the Income Tax Act. The provisions of the General Clauses Act also support such a view. In fact, the legislature was aware that the terms under consideration are not defined under the Income Tax Act and therefore intended that the meaning of such terms would be gathered from the Companies Act that regulates the functioning of such companies.

The Supreme Court in the case of Paresh Chandra Chatterjee vs. State of Assam, AIR 1962, SC 167 confirmed this Rule of Interpretation in the following words;

“Sections 23, 24 and 25 [of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894], lay down the principles for ascertaining the amount of compensation payable to a person whose land has been acquired. We do not see any difficulty in applying those principles for paying compensation in the matter of requisition of land. While in the case of land acquired, the market value of the land is ascertained, in the case of requisition of land, the compensation to the owner for depriving him of his possession for a stated period will be ascertained. It may be that appropriate changes in the phraseology used in the said provisions may have to be made to apply the principles underlying those provisions.” (p. 171).”

It was further observed: “If instead of the word ‘acquisition’ the word ‘requisition’ is read and instead of the words ‘the market value of the land’ the words ‘the market value of the interest in the land’ of which the owner has been deprived are read, the two sub-sections of the section can, without any difficulty, be applied to the determination of compensation for requisition of a land. So too, the other sections can be applied”. (p. 171)

In the case of Howrah Trading Co. Limited vs. CIT 36 ITR 215, the Supreme Court held that in gathering the meaning of the word ‘shareholder’ not defined u/s 18(5) of the Indian Income Tax Act 1992, a complete reliance should be placed on the definition of the term ‘shareholder’ under the Indian Companies Act 1913. It held that “no valid reason existed why “shareholder” as used in section 18(5) of the Act should mean a person other than the one denoted by the same expression in the Indian Companies Act 1913.

Again, the same court in the case of CIT vs. Shantilal (P.) Ltd., 144 ITR 57 (SC) held that “there is no reason why the sense conveyed by the law relating to contract should not be imported into the definition “speculative transaction” under Income Tax Act.”

No particular benefit is sought to be provided by adopting this Rule of Interpretation, which, in any event, cuts either way, as has happened in some of the cases where the loss arising on transfer of capital asset to the subsidiary company was not allowed for set-off, in as much as the income, if any, on such a transfer would have been exempt from tax.

Recently, in the case of Emami Infrastructure Ltd vs. ITO, 91 taxmann.com 62 (Kolkata), the ITAT held that a transfer to a step-down subsidiary by a holding company was a case of a transfer not regarded as a transfer u/s 2(47) of the Act.

The better view, therefore, is that the meaning of the terms ‘subsidiary’ and ‘holding’ companies should be gathered from the Companies Act, as long as they are not defined under the Income Tax Act, more so where the meaning supplied is contextual.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

12. Shriram Investments vs. The Commissioner of Income Tax III, Chennai (Civil Appeal No. 6274 of 2013 dated 4th October, 2024- SC)

Revised return of income — The Assessing Officer has no jurisdiction to consider the claim made by the Assessee in the revised return filed after the time prescribed by Section 139(5) for filing a revised return had already expired.

The Appellant-Assessee filed a return of income on 19th November, 1989 under the Income Tax Act, 1961 (‘IT Act’) for the assessment year 1989–90. On 31st October 1990, the Appellant filed a revised return.

As per intimation issued under Section 143(1)(a) of the IT Act on 27th August 1991, the Appellant paid the necessary tax amount.

On 29th October, 1991, the Appellant filed another revised return. The Assessing Officer did not take cognizance of the said revised return.

The Appellant, therefore, preferred an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) (‘CIT (Appeals)’). By the order dated 21st July, 1993, the CIT (Appeals) dismissed the appeal on the ground that in view of Section 139(5) of the IT Act, the revised return filed on 29th October, 1991 was barred by limitation.

Being aggrieved, the Appellant-Assessee preferred an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (for short, ‘the Tribunal).

The Tribunal partly allowed the appeal by remanding the case back to the file of the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer was directed to consider the Assessee’s claim regarding the deduction of deferred revenue expenditure.

The Respondent Department preferred an appeal before the High Court of Judicature at Madras. By the impugned judgment, the High Court proceeded to set aside the order of the Tribunal on the ground that after the revised return was barred by time, there was no provision to consider the claim made by the Appellant.

Before the Supreme Court, the Appellant relied upon a decision in the case of Wipro Finance Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (2022) 137 taxmann.com 230 (SC). It was contended that the Tribunal did not direct consideration of the revised return but the Tribunal was rightly of the view that the assessing officer can consider claim made by the Appellant regarding deduction of deferred revenue expenditure in accordance with law. It was submitted that the Appellant was entitled to make a claim during the course of the assessment proceedings which otherwise was omitted to be specifically claimed in the return.

Revenue relied upon decisions in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (2006) 157 Taxman 1 (SC) and Principal Commissioner of Income Tax &Anr. vs. Wipro Limited (2022) 446 ITR 1. It was submitted that after the revised return was barred by limitation, there was no question of considering the claim for deduction made by the Appellant in the 2 revised returns. It was submitted that the High Court was absolutely correct in concluding that after the revised return was barred by limitation, the Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to consider the case of the Appellant.

According to the Supreme Court, the issue which arose before the Supreme Court in Wipro Finance Ltd 2022 (137) taxmann.com 230 (SC) was not regarding the power of the Assessing Officer to consider the claim after the revised return was barred by time. In that case, the Court considered the appellate powers of the Tribunal under Section 254 of the IT Act. Moreover, it was a case where the department gave no objection for enabling the Assessee to set up a fresh claim.

The Supreme Court noted that in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd (2006) 157 Taxman 1 (SC), it had held that the Assessing Officer cannot entertain any claim made by the Assessee otherwise than by following the provisions ofthe IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, there was no dispute that when a revised return dated 29th October, 1991 was filed, it was barred by limitation in terms of section 139(5) of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court after noting the provisions of section 139(5) of the IT Act and the decision in Wipro Limited (2022) 446 ITR 1, held that the Tribunal had not exercised its power under Section 254 of the IT Act to consider the claim. Instead, the Tribunal directed the Assessing Officer to consider the Appellant’s claim. The Assessing Officer had no jurisdiction to consider the claim made by the Assessee in the revised return filed after the time prescribed by Section 139(5) for filing a revised return had already expired. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court, there was no reason to interfere with the impugned judgment of the High Court. The appeal was, accordingly, dismissed.

Section 119(2): Condonation of delay — delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22 — Allowed.

18. M/s. Neumec Builders Pvt. Ltd. vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes, New Delhi & Others

WP(L) No. 30260 OF 2024

Dated: 8th October, 2024. (Bom) (HC)

Assessment Years: 2021–22

Section 119(2): Condonation of delay — delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22 — Allowed.

The Petitioner had made an application for condonation of delay on 13th August, 2022, for condoning the delay of two days in filing the Return of Income for Assessment Year 2021–22. Despite repeated reminders, the same had not been decided by the Assessing Officer/Respondent.

The period for filing the Return of Income for the Assessment Year in question was extended up to 15th March, 2022. It was submitted that the Return of Income was filed on 17th March, 2022, i.e., there was a delay of two days due to various reasons which were beyond the control of the Petitioner as also its Chartered Accountant. It was stated that Form 10-IC was filed on 24th March, 2022, also in respect of which delay is required to be condoned, considering the facts of the present case.

In so far as the reason for the delay, as contended by the Petitioner, it was submitted that the Chartered Accountant had made efforts to file a Return of Income and Form 10-IC within the prescribed time limit, however, due to technical difficulties on the Income Tax Portal, the same could not be filed. A screenshot of the technical issues faced by the Chartered Accountant in the filing of Form 10-IC was placed for consideration by the Assessing Officer along with the delay condonation application. It was contended that the Chartered Accountant had made a grievance setting out that sufficient efforts were made to file Form 10-IC, however, despite best efforts, the Form could not be uploaded. Such grievance application was filed by the Chartered Accountant on behalf of the Petitioner on 22nd March, 2022. Further in the office premises of the Chartered Accountant, an incident of fire took place leading to the stoppage of electricity supply to the entire building. It was submitted that the Chartered Accountant has a database, and due to a sudden electricity stoppage, the entire computer system, including the server, was required to be shut-down. It was submitted that after the computer system was restarted, the Chartered Accountant tried to operate his computer system, however, the problems faced by the server led to further delay. The Chartered Accountant could resume the work only after the computer server was fully repaired. A copy of the Affidavit of the Chartered Accountant was also submitted to the Assessing Officer along with the delay condonation application. It was in these circumstances the Petitioner, by its Application dated 13th August, 2022, sought condonation of delay of two days in filing the Return of Income and Form 10-IC.

In support, the Petitioner has also relied on the Circular No.19 of 2023 (F No.173/32/2022-ITA-I) dated 23rd October, 2023 issued under Section 119, read with Section 115 BAA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and Rule 21AE of the Income Tax Rules, 1962, which issues instructions to the subordinate authorities on condonation of delay in filing Form 10-IC for the AY 2021– 2022, and, more particularly, to Clause 3 thereof. Clause 3 (iii) provides that the delay in filing Form 10-IC be condoned where Form 10-IC is filed electronically on or before 31st January, 2024 or 3 months from the end of the month in which the Circular is issued, whichever is later. It was submitted that, although in the present case, the delay is of two days in filing of the Return, however, since the Petitioner had filed its Form 10 IC on 22nd February, 2022, the Petitioner was entitled to the benefit of Clause 3 (iii) of the said Circular in condoning the delay for filing Form 10-IC.

Section 68: Bogus Purchase — the onus of bringing the purchases by the Assessee under the cloud was on the Revenue.

17. Ashok Kumar Rungta vs. Pr. Income Tax Officer 24(1)(1) &Ors.

ITXA No. 1753, 1759 & 2780 of 2028

Dated: 15th October, 2024 (Bom) (HC)

Income Tax Appellate Tribunal order dated 9th August, 2017

Assessment Years 2009–10 to 2011–12

Section 68: Bogus Purchase — the onus of bringing the purchases by the Assessee under the cloud was on the Revenue.

Originally, the Assessing Officer had passed an order dated 21st March, 2014 (“AO Order”) on reassessment of returns for three Assessment Years, disallowing all the expenses incurred towards purchase from certain entities, and thereby adding such expenses to the income of the Appellant-Assessee. The CIT(A) restricted the disallowance @ 10 per cent of certain suspect purchases on the premise that they are bogus purchases. The ITAT upheld the findings of the CIT(A), by disallowing 10 per cent of the total purchases alleged to have been bogus and adding such sum to the income of the Appellant-Assessee for the relevant Assessment Years.

The Appellant-Assessee challenged the order of the ITAT and contended that all the purchases were genuine and must be allowed as legitimate expenses. The Respondent-Revenue wanted the Court to hold that all the expenses ought to have been treated as bogus and that the ITAT was wrong in disallowing only 10 per cent of such expenses vide Income Tax Appeal No. 1349 of 2018, filed by the Revenue against the very same Impugned Order, which was not entertained by a Division Bench of the Court by an order dated 24th April, 2024.

The Hon. Court observed that the grievances of the Revenue being different from the grievances of the Assessee, the dismissal of the Revenue’s appeal is not conclusively determinative of the status of the Assessee’s grievances.

The Hon. Court observed that the ITAT has returned firm findings that the Respondent-Revenue had accepted the sales effected by the Appellant. The ITAT has also returned a finding that the sales are backed by compliance with indirect tax requirements such as sales tax returns and VAT audit reports. The ITAT has also held that it cannot be said that goods have not been sold by the Assessee. Most importantly, the ITAT has returned a firm finding that the adverse findings contained in the AO Order were not based on any cogent and convincing evidence. The court observed that once such a view has been arrived at by the ITAT, which is the last forum for finding of fact, the AO Order disallowing 100 per cent of the purchases under a cloud, is not based on any cogent and convincing evidence, it would follow that the AO Order has been judicially found to be untenable. Therefore, the foundation on which these proceedings were based stands completely undermined. However, the ITAT went on to state that the Appellant-Assessee has also failed to produce the parties from whom the alleged purchases were made and documents to prove the movement of goods (such as lorry receipts). The ITAT came to the view that goods would have indeed been purchased in the grey market. On this basis, it appears that the ITAT took an easy way out by simply upholding the order of the CIT(A) — by disallowing only 10 per cent of the purchases and adding that amount to the income of the Appellant-Assessee.

The Hon. Court examined the judgment of a Division Bench of this Court in the case of The Commissioner of Income Tax-1, Mumbai vs. M/s. NikunjEximp Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. wherein the Court ruled that merely because the suppliers had not appeared before the Assessing Officer or the CIT(A), one cannot conclude that the purchases in question had never been made and that they are bogus. In the case at hand, indeed, the sales are not under a cloud. The only ground for suspecting the purchases is that they were from suspect persons on the basis of input from the investigation wing and sales tax authorities. The ground in the instant case too is that the persons from whom the purchases were made had not been produced before the Assessing Officer. The ITAT has endorsed the CIT(A)’s acceptance of the sales tax returns and the VAT audit report. The ITAT has returned a firm finding that there is no cogent or convincing evidence in the AO Order. Against such a backdrop, the ITAT believed that the factual pattern of the matter at hand is similar to the factual context of Nikunj. That being the case, the outcome too ought to have been similar to Nikunj, where the disallowance was entirely rejected by the ITAT. In the instant case, the ITAT appears to have found it convenient that the CIT(A) had chosen to disallow 10 per cent of the expenses and it appears to be an acceptable consolation to strike a balance. However, the Court observed that once there is a quasi-judicial finding that there is no cogent and convincing evidence at all on the part of the Revenue in leveling an allegation, it would be wrong to expect that the Assessee would still have to prove its innocence. The ITAT ought to have gone into this facet of the matter and dealt with why the 10 per cent disallowance was plausible, reasonable, and necessary in the context of the facts of the case. Such an analysis is totally absent in the Impugned Order.

The Court observed that ad hoc rejection of 10 per cent of the expenses, found in the order of the CIT(A), appears to have been convenient via media that has been endorsed by the ITAT. In the instant case, the onus of bringing the purchases by the Appellant-Assessee under the cloud was on the Respondent-Revenue, which has not discharged this burden in the first place. Apart from the inputs being received from the investigation wing, there is nothing concrete in the material on record that was used to confront the Appellant-Assessee. If the counterparties in these purchases could not be produced years later, simply adopting a 10 per cent margin for disallowance, without any cogent or convincing evidence, would be unreasonable and arbitrary. It is repugnant for the ITAT to uphold such an addition of 10 per cent of the allegedly bogus purchases to the income of the Appellant-Assessee, despite returning a firm finding that the AO Order was untenable and not being backed by cogent and convincing evidence.

Therefore, the ITAT Order was set aside and the assessee’s appeals were allowed.

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

59. Sarfaraz S. Furniturewalla vs. AfshanSharfali Ashok Kumar

[2024] 467 ITR 293(Bom):

Date of order 15th April, 2024:

S.194-Iof the ITA 1961

TDS — Rent — Transit rent — Payment made by developer or landlord to a tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession — Transit rent not taxable as revenue receipt — No liability to deduct tax at source.

On the question of whether there should be a deduction of tax at source u/s. 194-I of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the amount paid by the assessee as “transit rent”, by the developer or builder, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“The ordinary meaning of rent would be an amount which the tenant or licensee pays to the landlord or licensor. The “transit rent”, which was commonly referred to as hardship allowance rehabilitation allowance, or displacement allowance, which was paid by the developer or landlord to the tenant who suffered hardship due to dispossession was not revenue receipt and therefore, not liable to tax. Hence there was no liability to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-I from the amount payable by the developer to the tenant.”

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

58. Principal CIT vs. Shiv Kumar Nayyar

[2024] 467 ITR 186 (Del)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 15th May, 2024

Ss. 132, 133A, 143(3), 153A and 153D of ITA 1961

Search and seizure — Survey — Assessment in search cases — Grant of approval by the competent authority — Approval to be granted for each assessment year — Single approval u/s. 153D granted by competent authority for multiple assessment years — Grant of approval cannot be merely ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by authority — Tribunal not erroneous in setting aside assessment order.

The Tribunal set aside the assessment order passed u/s. 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with section 143(3) as invalid and bad in law on the ground that the approval granted by the Range’s head under section 153D was void since it was granted in a mechanical manner without application of mind.

On appeal by the Revenue the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The approval, for assessment in cases of search or requisition u/s. 153D of the Income-tax Act, 1961 has to be granted for “each assessment year” referred to in clause (b) of sub-section (1) of section 153A. Grant of approval u/s. 153D cannot be merely a ritualistic formality or rubber stamping by the authority. It must reflect an appropriate application of mind.

ii) The order of approval u/s. 153D for assessment u/s. 153A clearly signified that a single approval had been granted for the A. Ys. 2011–12 to 2017–18. The order also failed to make any mention of the fact that the draft assessment orders were perused, much less perusal with an independent application of mind. The concerned authority had granted approval for 43 cases in a single day which was evident from the findings of the Tribunal, succinctly encapsulated in the order. We are unable to find any substantial question of law which would merit our consideration.”

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

57. Jindal Worldwide Ltd. vs. Principal CIT

[2024] 466 ITR 472 (Guj)

A. Y. 2015–16: Date of order 29th April, 2024

S. 264of ITA 1961

Revision — Application for revision u/s. 264 — Power of Commissioner to condone delay — Power should be exercised in a liberal manner — Delay should be condoned where there is sufficient cause for it.

The petitioner is a limited company incorporated under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, and is engaged in the business of weaving, manufacturing, and finishing textiles. The petitioner is also engaged in the business of manufacturing and dealing in denim and other textile activities. For the A. Y. 2015–16, the petitioner filed a return of income on 31st October, 2015 declaring a total loss of ₹8,54,09,913 including the interest subsidy of ₹10,83,16,142 received by the petitioner under the Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) for textile and jute industries, a State interest subsidy of ₹2,27,09,183 and electricity subsidy of ₹1,71,06,082. According to the petitioner the aforesaid subsidies were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts and the return of income was processed u/s. 143(1) of the Act on 17th January, 2017 without framing any assessment u/s. 143(3) and intimation to that effect issued.

It is the case of the petitioner that for the A. Y. 2012–13, the petitioner had received similar subsidies, and the same was treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts during the appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, the additional ground was taken by the petitioner and the same was allowed by the Tribunal while disposing of the appeal being I. T. A. No. 1843/Ahd/2016 by order dated 20th February, 2019 (CIT vs. Jindal Worldwide Ltd.). Therefore, according to the petitioner, the issue of the nature of the subsidy was judicially decided that it would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts.

The petitioner therefore, on the basis of the aforesaid order passed by the Tribunal filed a revision application u/s. 264 of the Act on 1st July, 2019, to revise the loss return for the A. Y. 2015–16 and treat the various subsidies as capital receipts instead of revenue receipts as erroneously offered in the return of income. The petitioner also requested the respondents to condone the delay in filing the revision application as per the provisions of section 264(3) of the Act. However, the respondent-Principal Commissioner of Income-tax by the impugned order dated 20th March, 2020 rejected the revision application of the petitioner on the ground of limitation by not entertaining the application to condone the delay in preferring the revision application.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee petitioner and held as under:

“i) Section 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, confers wide jurisdiction on the Commissioner. Proceedings u/s. 264 are intended to meet the situation faced by an aggrieved assessee who is unable to approach the appellate authority for relief and has no other alternate remedy available under the Act. The Commissioner has the power to condone the delay in filing an application for revision in case of sufficient cause while considering the question of condonation of delay u/s. 264 of the Act, the Commissioner should not take a pedantic approach but should be liberal. The words “sufficient cause” should be given a liberal construction so as to advance substantial justice when no negligence nor inaction nor want of bona fide is imputable to the assessee.

ii) The application for revision had been filed on the ground that certain subsidies received by the assessee were erroneously treated as revenue receipts instead of capital receipts. The judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); was pronounced on 7th December, 2017 wherein the character of subsidies was decided. The Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Chaphalkar Brothers [2018] 400 ITR 279 (SC); held that the subsidies received by the assessee would be capital receipts and not revenue receipts. This aspect had been considered by the Tribunal in the case of the assessee while allowing the additional ground raised by the assessee for the A. Y. 2012–13. The order of the Tribunal was pronounced on 20th February, 2019 and the assessee had filed the revision application on 1st July, 2019, i. e., within five months from the date of receipt of the order of the Tribunal.

iii) Hence the order dated 20th March, 2020 passed by the Commissioner u/s. 264 of the Act was liable to be quashed and set aside and the delay in preferring the revision application had to be condoned and the matter was remanded back to the respondent to decide the same on the merits after giving an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.”

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

56. Oneness Educational and Charitable Trust vs. CIT(Exemption)

[2024] 466 ITR 654 (Ori)

A. Y. 2021–22: Date of order 9th March, 2024

Ss. 11(1), 119(2)(b) and 139(5)of ITA 1961

Return of income — Charitable purpose — Revised return of income — Delay — Condonation of delay — Genuine hardship — Power to condone delay to be exercised judiciously — Plea that deficit inadvertently not claimed in original return — Excess expenditure incurred in earlier assessment year can be set off against income of subsequent years — Assessee would be entitled to refund if allowed to file revised return — Establishment of genuine hardship — Bona fide reasons to be understood in context of circumstances — Application for condonation of delay to be allowed — Directions accordingly.

The assessee was an educational and charitable trust constituted for educational and charitable purposes registered u/s. 12A(1)(aa) of the Income-tax Act, 1961and was entitled to exemptions u/s. 10(23C), 11 and 12. For the A. Y. 2021–22, the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s. 11 was disallowed on the grounds of delay in filing the audit report in form 10B. The Assessing Officer in his order u/s. 143(1) raised a demand. At the beginning of the F. Y. 2020–21, the assessee had an accumulated deficit and there was a one-time settlement of the loan availed of from its bank. The assessee showed the amount sacrificed by the bank as income although it never claimed the loan principal amount as income or the repayment as application. The accumulated interest also remained unabsorbed and was duly reflected as a deficit in the balance sheet and the past accumulated deficit was not adjusted which resulted in excess of income over expenditure. According to the assessee, it inadvertently failed to claim the deficit in the return of income filed for the A. Y. 2021–22 and filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) challenging the intimation order u/s. 143(1). It also filed an application u/s. 154 for rectification of the order. Though the Assessing Officer rejected the rectification application, he did not dispute the claim of the assessee regarding the non-adjustment of accumulated deficit.

In the meantime, the Commissioner (Exemption) condoned the delay in filing form 10B and consequently, the Assessing Officer reduced the demand raised in the intimation under section 143(1). The assessee took additional grounds before the Commissioner (Appeals) regarding the rejection of the rectification application, disallowance of the set off of past deficit as the application of income, and its inadvertent mistake in claiming the past deficit in the A. Y. 2021–22 u/s. 11(1). The Commissioner (Appeals) observed that the claim of the assessee that in its return it had not set off the past year’s deficit on account of interest waiver under the one-time settlement by the bank, could only be considered in a revised return claiming such set-off and that if the time limit for filing the revised return had lapsed, the only remedy was to make an application u/s. 119(2)(b) for condonation of delay. The application filed by the assessee for condonation of delay in filing the revised return was rejected stating that the assessee having filed the original return of income after due consideration with an undertaking that the information therein was correct and in spite of enough time, no revised return of income having been filed, the genuine hardship for not filing the revised return of income was not justified.

The Orissa High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The assessee has made out a case of genuine hardship in its favor, rejection of the application filed for condonation of the delay u/s. 119(2)(b) in filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) had no justification. The authority had neither in the rejection order u/s. 119(2)(b) nor in the counter affidavit, denied the entitlement of the assessee to claim set off of past years’ deficit u/s. 11. Rather, the Commissioner (Appeals) in his order had acknowledged the entitlement of the assessee to such a claim. The assessee had established the requirement of “genuine hardship”, as enumerated u/s. 119(2)(b). Therefore, the finding of the Commissioner (Exemption) that the assessee had failed to demonstrate “genuine hardship”, was misconceived, and unsustainable. The assessee had filed its return for the A. Y. 2021–22 on the due date of 15th March, 2022. The time limit for filing the revised return of income u/s. 139(5) was 31st December, 2022. On the observation of the Commissioner (Appeals) and finding no other alternative, the assessee filed an application u/s. 119(2)(b). The assessee had clearly stated in its application filed u/s. 119(2)(b) that it had inadvertently erred in claiming the past years’ deficit. Its claim was genuine and unless the time limit for filing a revised return making such a claim was extended, the assessee would be in genuine hardship. The authority without taking into consideration the genuine hardship of the assessee had mechanically rejected the application which was unsustainable.

ii) In view of the provisions of section 119(2)(b) read with the circular dated 9th June, 2015 ([2015] 374 ITR (St.) 25) issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes, which stipulated that an application for claim of refund or loss was to be made within six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for which such application or claim was made, the last date for filing of revised return for the A. Y. 2021–22 was 31st December, 2022 and the assessee had made the application u/s. 119(2)(b) on 16th October, 2023 which was within six-year time limit, as stipulated in the circular for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5). When the assessee had filed the application indicating its genuine hardship, it should have been considered in the proper perspective and not rejected. Accordingly, the order rejected the application for condonation of delay in filing the revised return u/s. 139(5) was quashed and set aside. The authority concerned was to take follow-up action in accordance with the law.

iii) That in view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, the reasons which had been assigned by the concerned authority in the counter affidavit for rejection of the application for condonation of delay under section 119(2)(b) were contrary to the order in question and therefore, unsustainable.”

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Limitation — Bar of limitation — Prescription of new procedure governing initiation of reassessment proceedings from 01-04-2021 — Notice issued beyond the period of limitation of six years in pre-amended provision unsustainable — Order and consequential notice set aside.

55. Manju Somani vs. ITO

[2024] 466 ITR 758 (Del.)

A. Y. 2016–17: Date of order 23rd July, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 148A(d) of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — New procedure — Limitation — Bar of limitation — Prescription of new procedure governing initiation of reassessment proceedings from 01-04-2021 — Notice issued beyond the period of limitation of six years in pre-amended provision unsustainable — Order and consequential notice set aside.

On a writ petition challenging the validity of the reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 of the A. Y. 2016–17, on the statutory prescription of limitation u/s. 149 (as amended by the Finance Act, 2021) by issuance of notice dated 29th April, 2024 u/s. 148, pursuant to the Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); the Delhi High Court held as under:

“i) The proviso to section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 embodies a negative command restraining the Revenue from issuing a notice u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 in respect of an assessment year prior to 1st April, 2021, if the period within which such a notice could have been issued in accordance with the provisions as they existed prior thereto had elapsed. This is manifest from the provision using the expression “no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued” if the time limit specified in the relevant provisions “. . . as they stood immediately prior to the commencement of the Finance Act, 2021” had expired. A reassessment which is sought to be commenced after 1st April, 2021 would therefore, have to abide by the time limits prescribed by section 149(1)(b), 153A or 153B as may be applicable.

ii) Section 149(1)(b) as it stood prior to the introduction of the amendments by way of the Finance Act, 2021 prescribed that no notice u/s. 148 shall be issued if four years “but not more than six years” have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year. Thus the period of six years stood erected as the terminal point which when crossed would have rendered the initiation of reassessment u/s. 147 impermissible in law.

iii) The decision in Twylight Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [2024] 463 ITR 702 (Delhi); does not empower the Revenue to reopen assessments u/s. 147 contrary to the negative covenant which forms part of section 149.

iv) The notice issued u/s. 148 in order to be sustained when tested on the anvil of the pre-amendment to section 149(1)(b), would have to meet the prescription of six years period of limitation and that period in respect of the A. Y. 2016–17 had ended on 31st March, 2023. Therefore, the reassessment proceedings which was commenced pursuant to the notice u/s. 148, dated 29th April, 2024, was unsustainable. The Assessing Officer did not attempt to sustain the initiation of action on any other statutory provision which could be read as extending the time limit that applied. The order u/s. 148A(d) dated 29th April, 2024 and the consequential notice issued u/s. 148 dated 29th April, 2024 were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Issue of notices by jurisdictional AO — Procedure adopted by the department in contravention of statutorily prescribed procedure u/s. 151A — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in Scheme — Notices set aside — Department given liberty to proceed in accordance with amended provisions.

54. Jatinder Singh Bhangu and JyotiSareen vs. UOI

[2024] 466 ITR 474 (P&H)

A. Y. 2020–21: Date of order 19th July, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 151A of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Issue of notices by jurisdictional AO — Procedure adopted by the department in contravention of statutorily prescribed procedure u/s. 151A — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in Scheme — Notices set aside — Department given liberty to proceed in accordance with amended provisions.

For the A. Y. 2020–21, the jurisdictional Assessing Officer issued a notice u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147 on the ground that there was escapement of income on account of the compensation received by the assessees on the acquisition of their agricultural land.

The assesee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice contending that the procedure of faceless assessment prescribed u/s. 144B was not followed and section 151A required for issuance of notices by the Faceless Assessing Officer. The Punjab & Haryana High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) The Central Government in the exercise of powers conferred by section 151A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 by Notification No. S. O. 1466(E), dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) has introduced the e-Assessment of Income Escaping Assessment Scheme, 2022. Under section 151A, the scheme of faceless assessment is applicable from the stage of show-cause notice u/s. 148 as well as section 148A. A detailed procedure of faceless assessment has been prescribed u/s. 144B and section 151A require for issuance of notice and assessment by the Faceless Assessing Officer. Clause 3(b) of the notification clearly provides that the scheme would be applicable to notices u/s. 148. Even otherwise, it is a settled proposition of law that assessment proceedings commence from the stage of issuance of show-cause notice. It is axiomatic in tax jurisprudence that circulars, instructions and letters issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes or any other authority cannot override statutory provisions. The circulars are binding upon authorities but courts are not bound by circulars. The mandate of sections 144B and 151A read with the notification dated 29th March, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) issued thereunder is lucid. There is no ambiguity in the language of statutory provisions and therefore, the office memorandum or any other instruction issued by the Board or any other authority cannot be relied upon. Instructions or circulars can supplement but cannot supplant statutory provisions.

ii) In the wake of the above discussion and findings, we find it appropriate to subscribe to the view expressed by the Bombay, Telangana and Gauhati High Courts. The instant petitions deserve to be allowed and accordingly allowed.

iii) The notices issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer u/s. 148 are hereby quashed with liberty to the respondent to proceed in accordance with procedure prescribed by law.”

Educational trust — Exemption — Corpus fund — Corpus donations whether for material gains or charitable purpose — Absence of material to establish that corpus donations given for securing admission – Cannot be treated as donations towards charitable purposes — Tribunal not justified in holding assessee ineligible for exemption on corpus fund.

53. N. H. Kapadia Education Trust vs. ACIT (Exemption)

[2024] 467 ITR 278 (Guj)

A. Y. 2013–14: Date of order 4th March, 2024

S. 11(1)(d)of ITA 1961

Educational trust — Exemption — Corpus fund — Corpus donations whether for material gains or charitable purpose — Absence of material to establish that corpus donations given for securing admission – Cannot be treated as donations towards charitable purposes — Tribunal not justified in holding assessee ineligible for exemption on corpus fund.

The assessee was an educational trust. For the A. Y. 2013–14, the Assessing Officer found in the scrutiny assessment u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the copies of the receipts issued to students for the payment of the one-time admission fees mentioned that the amount paid was for the one-time admission fees. The Assessing Officer held that such a fee was not a voluntary contribution given with a specific direction to treat it as corpus donation, which could be claimed as exempt u/s. 11(1)(d). Therefore, he disallowed the exemption claimed on the corpus donation and treated it as income of the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) relied on the decision of the Tribunal in the assessee’s case for the A. Ys. 2004–05, 2005–06 and 2009–10 and deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer. On appeal by the Revenue, the Tribunal held that the admission fee could not be treated as “corpus donation” and, that on the facts on record, neither the admission fee charged from the students qualified as a “voluntary” donation, nor there was a specific direction that the amount would be used only for the purpose of the corpus of the trust. The fees charged by the students were neither voluntary nor were directed to be used solely for the purpose of the corpus and therefore, the development fund amount could not be treated as corpus donation. Accordingly, the assessee was not eligible for the benefit of exemption u/s. 11(1)(d) on the corpus donation. However, if the amount was treated as the income of the assessee-trust, then the assessee was eligible for deduction or allowance of expenses incurred against those receipts towards objects of the trust.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held under:

“i) The amounts paid by the parents of the students admitted to the educational institution of the assessee-trust were payments towards corpus donation and were not collected by way of capitation fees. The Assessing Officer had not conducted any inquiry with regard to the examination of parents who had admitted the students in school as to whether the payment was made towards the corpus fund or capitation fee. Though it was true that the donation was bound to have been given for material gain in securing admission, it could not be characterized as a donation towards charitable purpose and the assessee would not be entitled to have the benefit, but in the absence of any material on record, such view could not be taken.

ii) Therefore, the Tribunal had committed an error by treating the admission fees charged from the students as not forming part of the corpus fund of the trust. Therefore, the Tribunal was not justified in confirming the addition of the corpus fund to the income of the assessee by holding that the receipts could not be treated as corpus donation and not eligible for exemption u/s. 11(1)(d).”

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Discretion to admit additional evidence — Sufficient cause to accept additional evidence in appellate proceedings — Additional evidence admitted by Commissioner (Appeals) considering assessee’s illiteracy and unawareness of notices due to language problem — Appellate proceedings continuation of assessment proceedings — Commissioner (Appeals) rightly permitted assessee to produce additional evidence in consonance with Rule 46A.

52. Principal CIT vs. DineshbhaiJashabhai Patel

[2024] 467 ITR 238 (Guj)

A. Y. 2014–15: Date of order 16th January, 2024

Ss. 246A and 251(1)(a) of the ITA 1961; 46A of ITR 1962

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Discretion to admit additional evidence — Sufficient cause to accept additional evidence in appellate  proceedings — Additional evidence admitted by Commissioner (Appeals) considering assessee’s illiteracy and unawareness of notices due to language problem — Appellate proceedings continuation of assessment proceedings — Commissioner (Appeals) rightly permitted assessee to produce additional evidence in consonance with Rule 46A.

The assessee was the proprietor of an enterprise in the waste craft paper business. Though the assessee was given various opportunities, he did not respond to the notices and the Assessing Officer could not verify the genuineness of the sundry creditors. The Assessing Officer treated the sundry creditors as bogus and accordingly made additions in his ex-parte order u/s. 143(3) read with section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee submitted before the Commissioner (Appeals) that he was an illiterate person and was not aware of the notices issued by the Assessing Officer and explained the increase in sales, debtors, closing stock, and creditors as per the balance sheet. The assessee contended that the Assessing Officer did not consider the increase in sales, and closing stock but only picked up the creditor’s amounts and made additions as bogus creditors without any justification. The assessee also furnished the copies of accounts of each creditor from his books of account and contra accounts with their addresses and permanent account numbers, which were duly reconciled by the Commissioner (Appeals) who admitted these documents to go to the root of the controversy involved and called for a remand report from the Assessing Officer. In the remand report the Assessing Officer objected to the acceptance of the additional evidence and also stated that the assessee failed to produce supporting bills or vouchers for the purchases made from the various parties and did not file bank details and proof of payments. In the rejoinder, the assessee furnished copies of audited accounts, sample purchase bills, and contra accounts with bank statements, and the Commissioner (Appeals) after considering this evidences deleted the addition. The Tribunal upheld the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

On appeal, the Department contended that the Commissioner (Appeals) could not have admitted the additional evidence in terms of the provisions of rule 46A(2) of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 since the assessee did not furnish any sufficient cause for not submitting the evidence and had remained absent in the assessment proceedings though the sufficient opportunity was given.
The Gujarat High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue and held as under:

“i) The Commissioner (Appeals) had considered the aspect of additional evidence as objected to by the Assessing Officer after considering the explanation of the assessee that the assessee was an illiterate person and had studied up to fourth standard and he was not able to read in English, and therefore, the provisions of rule 46A(1) more particularly clause (b) thereof was complied with as the assessee was prevented by sufficient cause from producing the evidence which he was called upon to produce by the Assessing Officer.

ii) The Commissioner (Appeals) had stated in his order to the effect that the assessee had in his possession the report u/s. 44AB, a copy of the return of income filed by the creditors, the permanent account number and full addresses of the creditors, copies of accounts of creditors in his books of account, and the proof that the assessee had a continuous trading relationship with the creditors. All such evidence was corroborative and could not have been manipulated at that stage. The Assessing Officer had the opportunity to cross-verify any information during remand proceedings but he had sent the remand report in a very routine manner. The independent corroborative evidence placed on record during the remand proceedings could not be ignored. There was no discrepancy in the sundry creditor’s accounts that could be added to the income of the assessee and hence the addition was deleted.

iii) The assessee being an illiterate person could not appear before the Assessing Officer and the appellate proceedings being the continuation of the assessment proceedings, the Commissioner (Appeals) had rightly permitted the assessee to produce the additional evidence in consonance with rule 46A.”

S. 12A — Where the assessee was granted registration under section 12AB during pendency of assessment proceedings and audit report in Form 10B was also available with CPC at the time of processing of the return of income, exemption under section 11 should not be denied to the assessee-trust vide intimation under section 143(1)(a).

56. SirurShikshanPrasarak Mandal vs. ACIT

(2024) 166 taxmann.com 525 (PuneTrib)

ITA No.: 609(Pun.) of 2024

A.Y.: 2021–22

Dated: 4th September, 2024

S. 12A — Where the assessee was granted registration under section 12AB during pendency of assessment proceedings and audit report in Form 10B was also available with CPC at the time of processing of the return of income, exemption under section 11 should not be denied to the assessee-trust vide intimation under section 143(1)(a).

FACTS

The assessee was a charitable trust formed in 1946 and registered under Bombay Public Trusts Act, 1950 and was engaged in education activities by running various schools / colleges in and around Pune district. It was also holding registration under section 12A / 80G for past many years. For A.Y. 2021–22, the assessee filed its return of income along with audit report in Form 10B on 30th March, 2022 claiming exemption under section 11. The assessee obtained provisional registration under section 12AB on 7th April, 2022.

An intimation under section 143(1) dated 27th October, 2022 was passed, disallowing exemption under section 11 on two grounds, namely, (i) the detail of registration under section 12AB was not mentioned in the return of income; and (ii) trust had not e-filed the audit report in Form 10B one month prior to the due date for furnishing of return under section 139.

While the appeal was pending before Addl. / JCIT(A), the assessee was also approved by CIT(E) under section 12AB for five assessment years, that is, from assessment year 2022–23 to 2026–27. Yet, Addl. / JCIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) Where the delay of 43 days in filing audit report inForm 10B was due to the covid pandemic and such report was available at the time of processing of return by CPC, such delay should have been condoned, as held by co-ordinate bench in ITO vs. P.K. Krishnan Educational Trust, ITA No.3533/Mum/2023 (order dated 7th May, 2024).

(b) Where provisional registration under section 12AB for three years was granted to the assessee on 7th April, 2022 and the return of income was thereafter processed by CPC on 27th October, 2022, in light of erstwhile second proviso to section 12A(2), the assessee was entitled to get the benefit of exemption under section 11.

(c) Following the decision of the co-ordinate bench in Shri Krishnabai Ghat Trust vs. ITO, ITA No.44/PUN2019 (order dated 3rd May, 2019), since the assessee was also granted final registration under section 12AB while matter was pending before the CIT(A), it was entitled for exemption under section 11 for such previous assessment year also.

Thus, the Tribunal held that where on the date of intimation under section 143(1)(a), Form 10B was already filed and was available along with return of income and also the assessee had obtained provisional registration under section 12AB, exemption under section 11 should not have been denied to the assessee.

S. 10(1) — Where the assessee submitted copies of sales bills for agricultural produce, provided justification for not claiming any expenses and consistently declared agricultural income over the years, his claim for exemption under section 10(1) could be regarded as genuine. S. 44AA — An agriculturist is not required to maintain books of accounts under section 44AA in respect of the agricultural activities carried on by him.

55. Ishwar Chander Pahuja vs. ACIT

(2024) 167 taxmann.com 41(Del Trib)

ITA No.: 2560(Del) of 2023

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of Order: 6th September, 2024

S. 10(1) — Where the assessee submitted copies of sales bills for agricultural produce, provided justification for not claiming any expenses and consistently declared agricultural income over the years, his claim for exemption under section 10(1) could be regarded as genuine.

S. 44AA — An agriculturist is not required to maintain books of accounts under section 44AA in respect of the agricultural activities carried on by him.

FACTS

The assessee was deriving salary income as a director, income from house property and income from other sources. He had claimed exemption on agricultural income under section 10(1).

During assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee had not claimed any expenses for earning agricultural income. As required, the assessee filed submissions / evidence to support the claim of exemption under section 10(1). However, the AO rejected the submissions and disallowed the claim on the grounds that the assessee did not furnish any reasonable explanation and computation of agricultural income along with books of account maintained for the agricultural activities.

CIT(A) sustained the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) The assessee was a graduate in agricultural science from Agricultural University, Ludhiana and had a vegetable seeds business. He was holding agricultural land in different places and the details of the sales were also
submitted before the AO. It was also submitted that the agricultural expenses were met out of sale of seedlings to farmers.

(b) Considering the regularity and consistency of declared income over the past years and subsequent assessment years, the income declared by the assessee appeared to be in order.

(c) Since the assessee was an agriculturist whose income fell under section 10(1), he was not required to maintain books of account under section 44AA.
Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Ss. 194-I, 194C — Where Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges are for separate and distinguishable services, the applicable rate of TDS is 2 per cent under section 194 C, and not 10 per cent under section 194-I.

54. Benetton India (P.) Ltd. vs. JCIT

(2024) 167 taxmann.com 76 (DelTrib)

ITA No.:5774 (Del) of 2019

A.Y.: 2011–12

Date of Order: 28th August, 2024

Ss. 194-I, 194C — Where Common Area Maintenance (CAM) charges are for separate and distinguishable services, the applicable rate of TDS is 2 per cent under section 194 C, and not 10 per cent under section 194-I.

FACTS

The assessee was in the business of manufacturing and trading of readymade garments. For the purpose of carrying out its business, it had taken on lease a unit / shop in a mall. During FY 2010–11, it had paid rent, Common Area Maintenance (CAM) and miscellaneous amenity charges to the payee. Value of the services for the aforesaid charges had been separately quantified under the different agreements, and the payment had been made pursuant to separate specific invoices raised by the payee. The assessee had deducted TDS on payments for (a) lease of business premises at the rate of 10 per cent under section 194-I; and (b) CAM services at the rate of 2 per cent under section 194C.

Vide an order under section 201(1) / (1A), the AO held that TDS should have been deducted on payment of CAM charges under section 194-I, treating the same as payment of rent.

CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Following a series of decisions given by co-ordinate benches of ITAT, the Tribunal held that CAM charges paid are for separate and distinguishable services and cannot be said to be for use of building, and therefore, such charges paid were not covered by section 194-I and TDS was deductible under section 194C only.

Allotment letter issued by developer constitutes an agreement for the purpose of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b).

53. Tamojit Das vs. ITO

ITA No. 1200/Kol/2024

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of Order: 3rd October, 2024

Section:56(2)(vii)

Allotment letter issued by developer constitutes an agreement for the purpose of proviso to section 56(2)(vii)(b).

FACTS

The assessee has filed his return of income declaring total income of ₹7,27,020. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the assessee has purchased a residential flat jointly with his wife Smt. Gargi Das through Deed of Conveyance, which was registered on 28th October, 2014 before District Sub-Registrar-II, South 24-Parganas. The value of the said transaction was declared by the assessee at ₹24,05,715 as against stamp duty valuation of ₹38,74,500.

When the assessee was confronted with, the assessee submitted that he had booked this flat with Greenfield City Project LLP and the first payment was made on 8th June, 2010. In support of his contention, he filed (i) copy of receipt from Greenfield City Project LLP, (ii) letter of allotment by Greenfield City Project LLP dated 10th June, 2010, and (iii) copy of typical floor plan purported to be allotment of flat to the assessee.

The AO did not equate this allotment letter and payment of the instalment by the assessee through account payee cheque as an agreement contemplated in proviso appended to section 56(2)(vii)(b) of the Act. The AO made the addition of ₹14,68,785 being the difference of both these amounts (₹38,74,500 and ₹24,05,715) to the total income of the assessee u/s 56(2)(vii) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an application under section 154 of the Act and emphasised that the letter given by the developer demonstrating the booking of the flat amounts to an agreement. The AO rejected the application for rectification.

Aggrieved, the assessee has filed an appeal before the ld. CIT(A), which was dismissed.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the dispute in the present case is whether the allotment letter by the developer is to be construed as an agreement or not. The Tribunal noted that several payments were made from 1st June, 2010 onwards by various account payee cheques. The Tribunal held the interpretation of the revenue authorities to be an incorrect interpretation. It held that the allotment letter is be equated to an agreement to sale. The agreement is not required to be a registered document. The only requirement in the law is that the agreement should be followed by payments through a banking channel, so that its veracity cannot be doubted. In the present case, the assessee has established the genuineness of the allotment letter by showing that the payments were made through account payee cheques. Therefore, the valuation date for the purpose of any deemed gift is the date when first payment was made; in this case, it happened around June 2010. The Tribunal held that the AO erred in taking the valuation of the property as on 28th October, 2014.

The Tribunal proceeded to mention that it would like to draw attention to the CBDT Circular No. 872 dated 16th December, 1993. The issue under this Circular was whether allotment of flats / houses by cooperative societies and other institutions whose scheme of allotment and construction are similar to that of DDA should be treated as the cases of construction for the purpose of section 54 and 54F. Earlier, there was a Circular bearing No. 471 dated 15th October, 1986, wherein it was provided that cases of allotment of flats under the self-financial scheme of the Delhi Development Authority should be treated as cases of construction for the purpose of section 54 & 54F of the Act. The scope of this Circular was enlarged to cover other institutions and cooperative societies, meaning thereby that allotment letter by the developer was always recognised as an agreement to purchase the house. Thus, these are also considered as a construction activity where benefit of set off of capital gain could be granted to the purchaser. Applying that very analogy in the present case, it would reveal that the allotment letter given by the developer to the assessee way back in 2010 would be construed as an agreement of purchase between the developer and the assessee.

The Tribunal held that benefit of proviso appended to section 56(2)(vii)(b) would be available in the present case. The AO has committed an error by ignoring this aspect. If this starts from June 2010 for which the assessee has made payments through account payee cheque is being construed as an agreement, then additions under section 56(2)(vii)(b)(ii) will not survive.

The Tribunal allowed this ground of appeal.

Section 200A before its amendment by the Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 did not permit levy of fee under section 234E, for delay in filing quarterly statements, while processing the quarterly statements.

52. Dream Design and Display India Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT

TS-776-ITAT-2024(Delhi)

ITA Nos. 634 to 639/Del/2024

A.Y.:2013–14

Date of Order: 11th October, 2024

Section: 234F

Section 200A before its amendment by the Finance Act, 2015, w.e.f. 1st June, 2015 did not permit levy of fee under section 234E, for delay in filing quarterly statements, while processing the quarterly statements.

FACTS

In this case, admittedly, the assessee filed quarterly TDS / TCS statements belatedly, i.e., beyond the time limit prescribed under sections 200(3) or 206C(3) as the case may be. The CPC while processing the TDS statements issued intimation / order to the assessee under section 200A of the Act and levied late fees of different amounts computed with reference to section 234E of the Act.

Aggrieved, by levy of late filing fees under section 234E, the assessee challenged the action of the Assessing Officer (AO) before the CIT(A) and contended that the demand by way of late fee under section 234E can be raised only by virtue of the amendment carried out in S. 200A by Finance Act 2015 w.e.f 1st June, 2015 and prior to the amendment, S. 200A of the Act does bear any reference to fee computed under S. 234E. The amendment seeking to levy fee under S. 234E is penal in nature and would thus apply prospectively for the quarters ending after 1st June, 2015 and not to earlier quarters.

The CIT(A), however, dismissed the appeals on the grounds that the appeals filed before him are belated for which no sufficient cause has been shown for condonation. He, thus, dismissed all the appeals in limine without going into the merits of the case.

Aggrieved, the assesssee preferred an appeal to Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the late filing fee under section 234E has been imposed for delay in filing the relevant TDS statements but, however, all such Quarterly TDS statements relate to the period prior to amendment in S. 200A of the Act by Finance Act, 2015. S. 200A specifically provides for computing fee payable under Section 234E w.e.f. 1st June, 2015. It is thus the case of the assessee that section 234E being a charging provision, creating a charge for levying fee for certain defaults in filing statements and fee prescribed under section 234E cannot be levied without a regulatory provision found in section 200A for computation of fee prior to 1st June, 2015. The Tribunal stated that the question which arises is whether late fee can be imposed for default under Section 234E of the Act. It observed that there are many decisions covering the field. Some decisions are in favour of the assessee while others are against. Having noted that the CIT(A) has not adjudicated the issue on merits, the Tribunal, in the interest of justice, proceeded to adjudicate the issue on merits.

The pre-amended section 200A of the Act as of 31st March, 2013, i.e., F.Y. 2012–13 relevant to A.Y. 2013–14 in question, did not permit processing of TDS statement for default in payment of late fee under section 234E of the Act. Hence, the late fee charged for the belated filing of TDS quarterly return could not be recovered by way of processing under section 200A of the Act. The Co-ordinate Bench of Tribunal in Karnataka Grameen Bank vs. ACIT (2022) 145 taxmann.com 192 (Bangalore) observed that the amendment under section 200A providing imposition of fee under section 234E could be computed at the time of processing of return and issue of intimation had come into effect only from 1st June, 2015 and had only prospective effect and therefore, levy of late fee under section 234E would be illegal for statement of TDS in respect of the period prior to 1st June, 2015. In light of the decision of the Coordinate Bench, the late fee for TDS quarterly statement under challenge in captioned appeals cannot be recovered by way of processing under section 200A of the Act.

The Tribunal held that the demand raised with reference to section 234E of the Act cannot be countenanced in terms of the pre-amended provision of S. 200A and hence, requires to be quashed. Consequential interest charges on fee levied under the provisions of the Act also requires to be quashed.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The maximum marginal rate is to be computed by taking the maximum rate of income-tax and maximum rate of surcharge applicable in the case of an individual. It is this rate which applies to a private discretionary trust as well. The levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti avoidance rule and therefore, should be given a strict interpretation.

51. Aradhya Jain Trust vs. ITO

TS-741-ITAT-2024(Mum.)

ITA No. 2197/Mum./2024

A.Ys.: 2022–23

Date of Order: 7th October, 2024

Sections: 2(29C), 167B

The maximum marginal rate is to be computed by taking the maximum rate of income-tax and maximum rate of surcharge applicable in the case of an individual. It is this rate which applies to a private discretionary trust as well.

The levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti avoidance rule and therefore, should be given a strict interpretation.

FACTS

The assessee, a private discretionary trust, filed its return of income declaring total income to be Nil. The return of income was revised to declare a total income of ₹55.75 lakh. In the revised return of income, the assessee computed the tax liability by applying surcharge @ 10 per cent being the rate applicable to the total income declared in the revised return of income.

The return of income was processed under section 143(1) of the Act. In the Intimation generated upon processing of return of income, the amount of total income returned as also the amount of tax computed thereon was accepted. However, surcharge was levied @ 37 per cent on the entire amount of tax of ₹16,72,710 computed by the assessee and accepted in the Intimation.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) where it was contended that the assessee is liable to surcharge at the rate applicable to the total income of the assessee and not at the maximum rate of surcharge. Also that in an intimation under section 143(1), the Assessing Officer (AO) cannot recompute the rate of income-tax or the rate of surcharge thereon. For this proposition, the assessee placed reliance on the decision of Rajasthan High Court in JKS Employees Welfare Fund vs. ITO [199 ITR 765].

The CIT(A) upheld the computation and levy of surcharge @ 37 per cent.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where the assessee contended that the rate of surcharge applicable to the assessee should be according to the income slab of the assessee and should not be at the highest rate of surcharge provided in the Finance Act. It was contended that the issue is covered squarely in favour of the assessee by the decisions of the co-ordinate bench in ITO vs. Tayal Sales Corporation [2003] 1 SOT 579 (Hyd.) and decision of ITAT, Hyderabad Bench in the case of Sriram Trust, Hyderabad vs. ITO in ITA No. 439/Hyd/2024 dated 19th June, 2024.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that according to section 2(29C), when assessee is to be taxed at maximum marginal rate, same is to be arrived at by taking highest slab of tax and highest slab of surcharge applicable in case of an individual. This view is already expressed in the commentary on Income Tax by Chaturvedi and Pithisaria as well as of the book published by Vinod Singhania. The Tribunal observed that, even otherwise, language of law is clear that maximum marginal rate shall be maximum rate of tax and surcharge of the highest rate in case of an individual. It observed that if the surcharge was to be levied according to the slab rate of the assessee, it was not required to be mentioned in section 2(29C) of the Act that rate of income tax (including surcharge of income tax, if any) applicable in relation to the highest slab of income in case of an individual. According to the Tribunal, purpose of mentioning surcharge in that section is to compute maximum marginal rate as high rate of tax and also highest rate of surcharge and that if one reads the provisions as suggested on behalf of the assessee then the word surcharge becomes redundant.

The Tribunal held that:

i) the definition is not capable of any doubt and only meaning that it admits is that the rate on the maximum slab of income and maximum rate of surcharge is to be treated as the maximum marginal rate;

ii) the Finance Act for each year prescribes various slabs for each category of the assessee and the corresponding rates applicable. This view is also supported by the decision of the Hon’ble Kerala High Court in the case of CIT vs. C.V. Divakaran Family Trust [2002] 254 ITR 222 (Ker.);

iii) it is also true that the Policy of Law as suggested in section 2(29C) of the Act is to discourage discretionary trust by charging the income of such trust in the hands of the trustee at the maximum marginal rate except in certain specified situation. Thus, such a policy is defeated if we hold that the beneficiary of a trust is chargeable to tax and also surcharge at the highest slab, but the assessee trust is charged to tax at the highest slab but lower rate of surcharge. We also draw support from the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Gosar Family Trust, Jamnagar etc vs. CIT dated 28th April, 1994 (MANU/ SC/0316/1995);

iv) the levy of maximum marginal rate on trust is thus specific anti Avoidance rule and therefore should be given a strict interpretation. Law prescribes that tax shall be charged on income in respect of which such person is so liable at the maximum marginal rate. There is no provision in the law to charge specific discretionary trust bit lower than the rates of tax and surcharge applicable to a beneficiary individual. The Tribunal mentioned that it draws strength from the decision of the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. JK Holdings [2003] 133 Taxman 443 (Bombay).

As regards the contention of the assessee that CPC does not have any power to vary the rate of surcharge by processing the return of income u/s. 143(1) of the Act, the Tribunal held that CPC has power to compute the correct amount of tax and sum payable by the assessee in terms of provisions of section 143(1)(b) and (c) of the Act. Therefore, on this ground also, the Tribunal did not find any reason to interfere with the order of the learned CIT(A).
The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.

Chamber Research By The Judges Post Conclusion Of Hearing – Whether Justified?

Recently, it has been observed that some Judges undertake Chamber Research after the conclusion of the hearing but before the pronouncement of the final order. This may have an impact on the outcome of the case. Whilst it may be justified in some genuine cases, as highlighted in the conclusion, it may seriously vitiate the principle of natural justice, if the affected parties are not given an opportunity of being heard again. This article throws light on the tenability or otherwise, of such research and various aspects of this issue with the relevant judicial pronouncements.

When the hearing of a case has been concluded before a Tribunal or a Court, sometimes the parties to the dispute are shocked when they see in the final order that certain issues, factual or legal, including certain decisions, are contained in the order, which were neither discussed nor cited by any of the parties to the dispute nor were they put forward before the parties by the Judges during the course of hearing of the case. These factual or legal issues may have proven to be the turning point of the case heard by the Judges, causing serious prejudice to one of the parties to the dispute, who did not get an opportunity of being heard in respect of the said factual or legal issue, including any decision, coming to the mind of the Judges after the conclusion of the hearing.

In this article, an attempt is made to highlight the tenability and legality of chamber research conducted by the Judges after the conclusion of a hearing before the Tribunal or the Court before the final order is pronounced by them. Such chamber research by the Judges undoubtedly violates the principles of natural justice and is not a fair practice. Therefore, the principles of natural justice are discussed hereafter with special emphasis on case laws under the Income-tax Act, 1961, before arriving at the conclusion.

I. BACKGROUND

1. Principles of Natural Justice

While deciding a case by the Judges, if the principles of natural justice are not followed, one of the parties to the dispute against whom the case is decided will be adversely affected as severe prejudice and injustice will be caused to him. The said principles are briefly summarised as under citing the relevant case laws.

i. In Mukhtar Singh v/s. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1957 All 297, the Allahabad High Court observed as under:

“The principles of natural justice are those rules which have been laid down by the courts as being the minimum protection of the rights of the individual against the arbitrary procedure that may be adopted by a judicial or quasi-judicial authority while making an order affecting those rights. These rules are intended to prevent such authority from doing injustice. These principles are now well-settled and are as under:

a. That every person whose civil rights are affected must have a reasonable notice of the case he has to meet.

b. That he must have reasonable opportunity of being heard in his defence.

c. That the hearing must be by an impartial tribunal, i.e. a person who is neither directly or indirectly a party to the case or who has an interest in the litigation, is already biased against the party concerned.

d. That the authority must act in good faith, and not arbitrarily but reasonably.”

The said principles of Natural Justice are discussed as under:

A. The First Principle is: “Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa”: This means that no person shall be a judge in his own cause or a judge should be impartial and without any bias.

The above principle lays down that the judge should be free from the following bias:

a. Pecuniary bias means that the judge should not have any financial interest in the matter in dispute.

b. Personal bias will disqualify the judge if it is a relative, friend or close associate of the Party.

c. Official bias means the bias with regard to the subject matter in dispute or the total absence of preconditioned mind of the judge or prejudice with regard to the subject matter in dispute.

B. The Second Principle is: “Audi alteram partem”: This means that no person shall be condemned unheard or both the parties to the dispute must be heard before deciding the case.

2. The Principles Of Natural Justice to be followed by whom?

In the case of Frome United Breweries Co. v/s. Bath Justice, 1926 App Cas 586, the following proposition was laid down:

“The rule of natural justice has been asserted, not only in the case of Courts of Justice and other Judicial Tribunals, but in the case of authorities which, though in no sense to be called Courts, have to act as judges of the rights of others.”

Thus, rules of natural justice are to be followed by all authorities who act as judges of deciding the rights of others.

3. No person shall be condemned unheard, presupposes sending him a show cause notice

The object of giving notice to the affected party is to give an opportunity to him to present his case and to apprise him of the charges levelled against him.

i. In the case of Swadeshi Cotton Mills v/s. Union of India (AIR 1981 SC 818 SC), the management of the company was taken over by the National Textiles Corporation by exercise of the power by the Government under section 18AA of the Industrial (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 without any notice. The company challenged the said takeover by filing a Writ Petition in the Delhi High Court on the ground of not following the principle of audi alteram partem. The Delhi High Court held that prior notice and hearing were excluded by the statute. The Supreme Court however allowed the appeal and held that such takeover of management of the company without notice was bad in law and invalid, as the rules of natural justice had been violated.

ii. In the case of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India v/s. L. K. Ratna, (AIR 1987 71 SC), a member of the Institute was removed on the ground of misconduct without giving him any prior notice. The Supreme Court held that such removal of the member of the Institute was invalid as no opportunity of being heard was ever given to him.

iii. In Dhakeswari Cotton Mills v/s. CIT, West Bengal, AIR 1955 SC 65, the Court observed as under :
“In this case, we are of the opinion that the Tribunal violated certain fundamental principles of justice in reaching its conclusions. Firstly, it did not disclose to the assessee what information had been supplied to it by the departmental representative. Next, it did not give any opportunity to the company to rebut the material furnished to it by him, and lastly, it declined to take all the material that the assessee wanted to produce in support of its case. The result is that the assessee had not had a fair hearing. The estimate of the gross rate of profits on sales, both by the Income Tax Officer and the Tribunal seems to be based on surmises, suspicions and conjectures.”

iv. In Sangram Singh v/s. Election Tribunal, AIR 1955 SC 425, the Court observed as under:

“Next, there must be ever present to the mind that our laws or procedure are grounded on a principle of natural justice which requires that men should not be condemned unheard, that decisions should not be reached behind their backs, that proceedings that affect their lives and property should not continue in their absence and that they should not be precluded from participating in them. Of course, there must be exceptions and, where they are clearly defined, they must be given effect to. But taken by and large, and subject to that proviso, our laws of procedure should be construed, wherever that is reasonable possible, in the light of that principle.”

v. In the case of Kishinchand Chellaram v/s. CIT (125 ITR 713 SC), the employee of one office of the assessee, made a telegraphic transfer of a certain amount to his counterpart at another office. The Assessing Officer, on the basis of letters from the manager of the bank, without confronting the same to the assessee, treated the said amount remitted as undisclosed income. The Tribunal and the Bombay High Court confirmed the said addition. The Supreme Court reversed the decision of the Bombay High Court on the ground that there was a heavy burden of proof on the Department to inform the assessee that the amount remitted through telegraphic transfer belonged to the assessee by showing the letters from the manager of the bank to the assessee.

vi. The Supreme Court in the case of Uma Nath Pandey and Others V/s. State of Uttar Pradesh and another AIR 2009 SC 2375 held as under:

“The adherence to principles of natural justice as recognized by all civilised States is of supreme importance when a quasi-judicial body embarks on determining disputes between the parties, or any administrative action involving civil consequences is in issue. These principles are well settled. The first and foremost principle is what is commonly known as audi alteram partem rule. It says that no one should be condemned unheard. Notice is the first limb of this principle. It must be precise and unambiguous. It should apprise the party determinatively the case he has to meet. Time given for the purpose should be adequate so as to enable him to make his representation. In the absence of a notice of the kind and such reasonable opportunity, the order passed becomes wholly vitiated. Thus, it is but essential that a party should be put on notice of the case before any adverse order is passed against him. This is one of the most important principles of natural justice. It is after all an approved rule of fair play. The concept has gained significance and shades with time.”

vii. In the case of Biecco Lawrie Ltd. and another v/s. State of West Bengal and another AIR 2010 SC 142, the Supreme Court held as under:

“It is fundamental to fair procedure that both sides should be heard, audi alteram partem, i.e., hear the other side and it is often considered that it is broad enough to include the rule against bias since a fair hearing must be an unbiased hearing. One of the essential ingredients of fair hearing is that a person should be served with a proper notice, i.e., a person has a right to notice. Notice should be clear and precise so as to give the other party adequate information of the case he has to meet and make an effective defence. Denial of notice and opportunity to respond result in making the administrative decision as vitiated. The adequacy of notice is a relative term and must be decided with reference to each case. But generally, a notice to be adequate must contain the following:

a. time, place and nature of hearing;

b. legal authority under which hearing is to be held;

c. statement of specific charges which a person has
to meet.”

4. Rules of natural justice must be followed even though there is no specific provision in that regard in the enactment

i. In Ramnath v/s. Collector of Darbangha, AIR 1955 Patna 345, a case under the Excise Act, with regard to an issue of a license the Court held as under :

“Even if the statute is silent, there is an obvious implication that some sort of enquiry must be made for the section requires the Collector to satisfy himself that there has been a breach of the conditions of the license by the holder or any of his servants. The Collector is under a duty to hear the matter in a judicial spirit for the question at issue is a matter of proprietary or professional right of an individual.”

ii. In Vinayak Vishnu v/s. B. G. Gadre, AIR 1959 Bom 39, the Court held as under :

“It is true that the Arbitration Act does not provide for the procedure to be followed by the arbitrators. Even so, it is well settled that the arbitrators are bound to apply the principles of natural justice. One of these principles is that nothing prejudicial to a party shall be done behind its back or without notice to that party”.

iii. In the case of C. B. Gautam v/s. Union of India 1993 (1) SCC 78 it has been held by the Supreme Court that the Rule of Natural Justice must be read into the provisions of an enactment.

iv. In the case of Meneka Gandhi v/s. Union of India 1978 AIR 599 the Supreme Court held as under :

“It is well established that even where there is no specific provision in a statute or rules made thereunder for showing cause against action proposed to be taken against an individual, which affects the rights of that individual, the duty to give reasonable opportunity to be heard will be implied from the nature of the function to be performed by the authority which has the power to take punitive or damaging action.”

5. The rules of natural justice can not be dispensed with on the ground that notice and hearing will serve no useful purpose

In the case of Board of High School v/s. Kum. Chitra AIR 1970 SC 1039, the Supreme Court observed that the rules of natural justice cannot be dispensed with on the ground that notice and hearing will serve no useful purpose.

6. Rules of natural justice must be followed even though facts are admitted and there are no disputes about facts

The Supreme Court, in the case of S. L. Kapoor Jagmohan 1981 AIR 136, has held that the person against whom any action is proposed to be taken has furnished the information, and hence facts are admitted even then the principle of natural justice of giving notice must be followed.

II. CHAMBER RESEARCH BY THE JUDGES AFTER THE CONCLUSION OF HEARING OF A CASE

1. In the backdrop of the background described above highlighting the principles of natural justice, it is evident that after the conclusion of the hearing, either before the Tribunal or the Court, if the Judges resort to chamber research, whether factual or legal, with regard to the case heard by them, and then they pass the order based on such research, then the said research is vitiated on the following grounds:

i. The said research by the Judges after the conclusion of the hearing can raise a reasonable apprehension of official bias with regard to the subject matter in dispute, thereby preventing the affected party from putting up his defence.

ii. During the said research, if the Judges come across any decision or formulate an opinion with regard to the matter in dispute, such decision found by them or opinion formed by them during chamber research would vitiate the order passed by the Judges as the rules of “audi alteram partem” have been violated, i.e. a show cause notice has not been given as contemplated by this rule so as to given an opportunity to the affected party to put up his defence or counter-argument. In the catena of judgements referred to above, it has been held that the opportunity of hearing by show cause notice is a sine qua non of the rules of natural justice. In the judgements of the Supreme Court referred to above, the giving of notice to the affected party to put up its defence cannot be dispensed with even in cases where the Judges believe that the notice and hearing will not serve any useful purpose and even in cases where the facts are admitted and not disputed.
2. It needs to be appreciated that in the case of JCIT V/s. Saheli Leasing & Industries Ltd. 324 ITR 170 (SC), the Supreme Court has formulated the guidelines to be followed by the courts while writing orders and judgements. Clause (a) and Clause (f) of the said guidelines, which are relevant, are reproduced as under :

“(a) It should always be kept in mind that nothing should be written in the judgement / order which may not be germane to the facts of the case. It should have a co-relation with the applicable law and facts. The ratio decidendi should be clearly spelt out from the judgement/order.”

“(f) After arguments are concluded, an endeavour should be made to pronounce the judgement at the earliest and, in any case not beyond a period of three months. Keeping it pending for a long time, sends a wrong signal to the litigants and the society.”

From the aforesaid paras of the guidelines, it is clear that there is no scope for chamber research by the judges after the conclusion of the hearing, as the guidelines also do not provide for the same as para (f) of the said guidelines clearly state that after the arguments are concluded, an endeavour should be made to pronounce the judgement at the earliest.

3. The following case laws under the Income Tax Act, 1961 are worth mentioning.

a. In the case of Jain Trading Co. v/s. Union of India 282 ITR 640 (Bombay High Court), the Tribunal decided the appeal of the assessee, relying on certain factual aspects which were not put up before the assessee during the course of the appeal hearing. Against the said order of the Tribunal, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application challenging the order of the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal relied upon certain factual aspects of the matter and there were errors committed by the Tribunal while dealing with such factual aspects. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. Against the dismissal of the Miscellaneous Application, the assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Bombay High Court contending that as various factual errors were there in the Tribunal’s order, the Miscellaneous Application was filed and the dismissal of said Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal was unjustified. The Bombay High Court held as under:

“After hearing both the sides and considering the facts and circumstances, we are clearly of the view, that the Tribunal ought to have heard the petitioner and also ought to have dealt with the specific contentions regarding factual errors, by giving proper findings. Hence, we do hereby, quash and set aside the said impugned order dated 28th August, 2003, and remand back the matter to the Tribunal to consider the said Miscellaneous Application for rectification of mistakes, to be decided strictly on its own merits in accordance with law after affording an opportunity of hearing to the Petitioner. Writ Petition stands disposed of accordingly, however, with no order as to costs”.

b. In the case of Naresh Pahuja v/s. ITAT (2009) 224 CTR 284 (Bombay High Court), while passing the order, the Tribunal relied on certain judgements, including that of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v/s. P. Mohankala & Others 291 ITR 271 (SC). The Tribunal also upheld the addition of gifts without taking into consideration the donor’s statement. Against the said order of Tribunal, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application, contending that the reliance on the judgements by the Tribunal which were not cited by either party was not proper, and further that the addition of gifts without taking into consideration the donor’s statement was not tenable. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition in the Bombay High Court challenging the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal. The Bombay High Court set aside the order passed on the Miscellaneous Application and remanded the Miscellaneous Application to the Tribunal to decide the same afresh after hearing the parties in accordance with the law.

c. In the case of DCIT v/s. Manu P. Vyas (2013) 32 taxmann.com 176 (Gujarat High Court) the case of the assessee was that only one question discussed at the time of oral submissions before the Tribunal was as to whether the Tribunal had the power to consider the assessee’s challenge to the validity of search itself and therefore, the Tribunal should not have considered the issues of additions on merits. In the order of the Tribunal, it considered the controversy with regard to the validity of the search and ruled in favour of the revenue. The Tribunal also examined the merits of various additions made. Against the Tribunal’s order, the assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application, contending that the Tribunal should have decided the issue of validity of the search only and should not have decided additions on merits. The Tribunal allowed the Miscellaneous Application by recalling its earlier order. Thereafter, the Revenue challenged the order passed by the Tribunal allowing Miscellaneous Application by filing a Writ Petition before the Gujarat High Court. However, the Gujarat High Court dismissed the Writ Petition of the Revenue, holding that the Tribunal had rightly recalled its order when it proceeded to decide certain issues on merits without giving full opportunity to the assessee to make submissions thereon.

d. In the case of Inventure Growth & Securities Ltd. v/s. ITAT 324 ITR 319 (Bombay High Court), the issue before the Tribunal was as to whether the cost of a membership card of the Bombay Stock Exchange was a plant within the meaning of section 32 (1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and alternatively whether the same could be allowed as a deduction under section 37 (1) of the said Act.

The Tribunal held that membership card could not be considered as a plant for allowing depreciation. On the alternative contention of the assessee, the Tribunal, without giving any notice to the assessee, following another decision in the case of DCIT v/s. Khandwala Finance Ltd. (2009) 309 ITR (AT) 8 (Mumbai), held that expenditure incurred to acquire the membership card could not be allowed under section 37 (1) of the Act. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application before the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal, by relying upon the decision of a co-ordinate bench, had not furnished an opportunity to the assessee to deal with the same, as the said decision had not been cited by either side during the course of the hearing. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Bombay High Court challenging the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application, contending that there were distinguishing features in the case which came up before the Tribunal in the case of DCIT v/s. Khandwala Finance Ltd. (supra), and if an opportunity were granted to the assessee, the distinguishing features would have been brought to the notice of the Tribunal. Surprisingly, it was held by the Bombay High Court as under :

“We have adverted to this submission since we had called upon the counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee to at least prima facie indicate to this court as to whether there were grounds for urging that the decision in Khandwala Finance Limited is distinguishable. We do not propose to render any conclusive finding or even an opinion of this count on that aspect of the matter. However, it would be necessary to note that the distinguishing features in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd., which have been pointed out during the course of submissions by counsel for the assessee, are sufficient for this Court to hold that an opportunity should be granted to the Petitioner to place its own case on the applicability or otherwise of the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd. before the Tribunal.

It is in these circumstances that we are inclined to allow the Miscellaneous Application and to restore the appeal and the cross–objections for fresh consideration before the Tribunal. We clarify that it cannot be laid down as an inflexible proposition of law that an order of remand on a Miscellaneous Application under section 254 (2) would be warranted merely because the Tribunal has relied upon a judgment which was not cited by either party before it. In each case, it is for the Court to consider as to whether a prima facie or arguable distinction has been made and which should have been considered by the Tribunal. It is in this view of the matter that we had called upon Counsel appearing on behalf of the assessee to at least prima facie indicate before this Court the grounds on which the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd.’s case was sought to be distinguished. If we were to be of the view that the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd.’s case was squarely attracted to the facts of the present case, we may not have been inclined to remand the proceedings. An order of remand cannot be an exercise in futility. However, for the reasons which we have already indicated, we find prima facie that prejudice would be sustained by the petitioner by denying him an opportunity to deal with the distinguishing features in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd.”

In the above case, even though prior notice of the co-ordinate decision of the Tribunal, which the Tribunal followed, was not given to the assessee, the High Court allowed the Writ Petition of the assessee only on the ground that the assessee was able to demonstrate before the High Court, the distinguishing features of the said case with the assessee’s case. In other words, had the co – ordinate bench decision of the Tribunal relied upon by the Tribunal applied to the facts of the assessee’s case, the High Court would not have intervened in the matter.

As the Tribunal had not confronted the decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd. to the assessee, so that the assessee could explain the distinguishing features of the said case with the facts of the assessee’s case and justify that the said decision did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. In spite of the fact that there was a clear violation of the principle of audi alteram partem, the High Court called upon the assessee’s counsel to satisfy itself that the facts in the case of Khandwala Finance Ltd. did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case. Instead, the High Court could have simply restored the Miscellaneous Application to the file of the Tribunal, because it is the Tribunal which has to be satisfied about the distinguishing features of the decision in Khandwala Finance Ltd. with the facts of the assessee’s case. It is surprising that the High Court apparently ignored the principle of audi alteram partem.

e. In the case of Rama Industries Ltd. v/s. DCIT (2018) 92 taxmann.com 289 (Bombay) the Mumbai Tribunal allowed the Revenue’s appeal, following the Delhi High Court decision in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT 333 ITR 386 (Delhi), without the same being cited by any of the parties, nor the Tribunal making the reference to it during hearing before it. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application before the Tribunal, seeking to rectify the order passed by it, on the ground that the Tribunal relied on the aforesaid decision of the Delhi High Court after the conclusion of the hearing, as the same was not cited by any of the parties, nor did the Tribunal make reference to it during the course of hearing before it. The said Miscellaneous Application was rejected by the Tribunal. The assessee filed a Writ Petition in the Bombay High Court challenging the rejection of Miscellaneous Application by the Tribunal on the ground that, while passing the order, the Tribunal relied upon the Delhi High Court decision after the conclusion of the hearing. Again, surprisingly, the Bombay High Court held as under :

“We have considered rival submissions. From the extract of the order dated 19th May, 2017 reproduced hereinabove, we note that having directed the restoration of the matter to the Assessing Officer, it goes on to extract certain observations of the Delhi High Court in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. and only thereafter i.e. considering the above decision, decides Ground No. 2 in the Appeal, in favour of the Revenue. In the aforesaid facts, we cannot with certainty state that the decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. had not even remotely influenced the decision taken. In this case, the manner in which the order dated 28th March, 2016 is structured and in the final view / direction given after considering the decision of the Delhi High Court in Logitronics (P.) Ltd., it does prima facie appear to us, have been influenced by it. Therefore, in the present case, Tribunal while dealing with the rectification application, must deal with the Petitioner’s grievance that the Delhi High Court’s decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. does not apply to the present facts. We are satisfied that the above aspect has to be considered while disposing of the rectification application in the present facts.

In the above view, we set aside the common impugned order of the Tribunal dated 19th May, 2017 and restore each of the Petitioner’s rectification application dated 6th September, 2016 to the Tribunal for fresh consideration. This restoration is only to reconsider the Petitioner’s grievance in respect of reference / reliance upon the Delhi High Court decision in Logitronics (P.) Ltd. in the common impugned order dated 28th March, 2016 and pass appropriate order on the rectification application.”

In the above case, even though prior notice of the decision of the Delhi High Court was not given to the assessee, the High Court restored the Miscellaneous Application of the assessee to the Tribunal for fresh consideration to give an opportunity to the assessee to distinguish the said case by observing that “we cannot with certainty state that the decision in Logitronics Pvt. Ltd. had not even remotely influenced the decision taken”. Had the decision of the Delhi High Court applied to the facts of the assessee’s case, the High Court would not have intervened in the matter.

As the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT 333 ITR 386 (Delhi) was relied upon by the Tribunal without any of the parties citing it nor the Tribunal making reference to it during the hearing before it, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. In spite of the fact that there was a violation of the principle of audi alteram partem, the High Court went on to consider as to whether the above decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Logitronics (P.) Ltd. (supra) had influenced the decision taken by the Tribunal. Instead, the High Court could have simply restored the Miscellaneous Application to the file of the Tribunal, as the assessee had no opportunity to distinguish the said Delhi High Court decision from the facts of his case. Here, too, it is surprising that the High Court apparently ignored the principle of audi alteram partem.

III. CONCLUSION

From the aforesaid discussion, it is clear that the chamber research by the judges, after the conclusion of the hearing before the Court or the Tribunal, clearly violates the above Principles of Natural Justice, i.e. Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa and Audi alteram partem. However, surprisingly in the case of Geofin Investment (P.) Ltd. v/s. CIT (2013) 30 taxmann.com 73 (Delhi High Court) the High Court observed as under :

“It is not unusual or abnormal for judges or adjudicators to refer and rely upon judgements / decisions after making their own research.”

In the said case, the Delhi Tribunal allowed Revenue’s Appeal relying on another decision of the Tribunal in the case of Macintosh Finance Estates Ltd. v/s. Addl. CIT (2007) 12 SOT 324 (Mumbai), which was noticed by the Bench after the conclusion of the hearing. The assessee filed a Miscellaneous Application against the order of the Tribunal, contending that the Tribunal relied upon another decision of the Tribunal, which was not cited by either party during the course of the hearing. The said Miscellaneous Application was dismissed by the Tribunal. Against the dismissal of the Miscellaneous Application, the assessee filed a Writ Petition before the Delhi High Court, which was also dismissed by the Delhi High Court, observing as above. It is surprising that even though the Tribunal had not confronted the decision of the co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal in the case of Macintosh Finance Estates Ltd. v/s. Addl. CIT to the assessee so that the assessee could explain the distinguishing features of the said case with the assessee’s case and justify that the said decision did not apply to the facts of the assessee’s case, the rules of natural justice were clearly violated. Instead, the High Court dismissed the Writ Petition filed by the assessee against the dismissal of Miscellaneous Application by holding that it is not unusual or abnormal for judges or adjudicators to refer and rely upon judgements/decisions after making their own research.

It is submitted that if the chamber research is made by the judges after the conclusion of the hearing of the case before them, the result would be alarming. For example, during the course of the hearing of a case, the assessee’s counsel cites case law X and Y before the Judges and the hearing gets completed by hearing the other side. Thereafter, the Judges embark upon chamber research and come to the conclusion that instead of case law X and Y cited by the assessee’s Counsel, case law Z is applicable to the facts of the case and decides the case against the party whose counsel cited case laws X and Y. According to the Delhi High Court, in the case of Geofin Investment (P.) Ltd. (supra), the chamber research by the Judges can be conducted. In the illustration given above, the parties whose counsel did not get an opportunity to express his view on the case law Z relied upon by the Judges, the party represented by him will be severely prejudiced and irreparable injustice will be caused to the said party.

If chamber research by the judges is permitted after the conclusion of the hearing, the above two principles of natural justice will not be followed, as also the catena of judgements of various High Courts and Supreme Courts, laying emphasis on the observance of these two principles of natural justice will be ignored, causing possible detriment to the faith of the public in the judicial system.

However, it is submitted that there may be genuine cases under which the chamber research brings to the notice of judges a particular decision, which, though was in the public domain, went unnoticed by both the parties or any decision pronounced subsequent to the conclusion of hearing which comes to light during conducting chamber research and therefore it is submitted that chamber research by the Judges after the conclusion of hearing is not cast in stone. In such cases, it is suggested that the matter be refixed to give a fair hearing to the affected party so that the principles of natural justice are not violated.

Taxability of Compensation for Reduction in Value of ESOPs

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Employee stock options (ESOPs) are granted to employees by the employer company or its parent company as an incentive. These ESOPs so granted can be exercised only after they vest in the employee over the vesting period, after which the employee can choose to exercise the vested ESOPs by applying for shares of the issuer company (employer or its parent) and making payment of the exercise price to the company. The shares are then allotted to the employee by the company.

Such ESOPs are taxable at the time of exercise of the ESOPs by virtue of clause (vi) of section 17(2) as a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’. This provides that:

“(2) ‘perquisite’ includes the value of any specified security or sweat equity shares allotted or transferred, directly or indirectly, by the employer, or former employer, free of cost or at concessional rate to the assessee.

Explanation: For the purposes of this sub-clause –

(a) ‘specified security’ means the securities as defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (42 of 1956) and, where employees stock option has been granted under any plan or scheme therefore, includes the securities offered under such plan or scheme;

(b) …..

(c) Shall be the fair market value of the specified security or sweat equity shares, as the case may be, on the date on which the option is exercised by the assessee as reduced by the amount actually paid by or recovered from, the assessee in respect of such security or shares;

(d) ………….

(e) ‘Option’ means a right but not an obligation granted to an employee to apply for the specified security or sweat equity shares at a predetermined price;”

At times, it may so happen that the value of the shares for which ESOPs are granted is diminished before the vesting period and the employer may compensate an employee for the diminution in the value of his options, pending the exercise of the options. In such a case, even after the receipt of such compensation, the options continue to exist and can be exercised by the employee.

In one such case, a company compensated employees of its subsidiary for the diminution in the value of their vested but unexercised stock options. On rejection of an application by the employee to the AO, for lower deduction of tax at source, the Delhi High Court held that such compensation was not taxable as a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’; the Madras High Court in the case of another employee of the same company held that such compensation was taxable as a perquisite and was therefore taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and tax was deductible by the employer at source at the time of payment of such compensation. It is this controversy, fuelled by the conflicting decisions of the courts, that is sought to be addressed here on the question whether the receipt for compensating the diminution in value is a perquisite and is taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and is therefore liable to tax deduction at source under s. 192 of the Act by the employer.

The Assessing Officer (AO) in the case before the Madras High Court had in fact conceded that the compensation received was not a perquisite that was taxable under the head ‘Salaries’, but had nonetheless proceeded to hold that the receipt was an income taxable under the head ’Capital Gains’. This issue was not before the Delhi High Court at all, and, therefore, obviously not examined by the court, and as such there is no conflict between the courts on the issue of taxation under the head ‘Capital Gains’. The issue, however, was extensively examined by the Madras High Court to hold that the receipt could not have been taxed as capital gains, though finally it held that receipt was a perquisite taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and was liable to deduction of tax at source under s. 192 of the Act. For the sake of being comprehensive in reproducing the facts, the contentions and the counter contentions on the issue of capital gains and the findings in law of the Madras High Court are also reproduced for the benefit of the readers.

SANJAY BAWEJA’S CASE

The issue first came up before the Delhi High Court in the case of Sanjay Baweja vs. DCIT 299 Taxman 313.

In this case, the assessee was an ex-employee of Flipkart Internet Pvt Ltd (FIPL), an Indian company, which was a step-down subsidiary of Flipkart Pvt Ltd, Singapore (FPS), a Singapore company. FPS gave stock options (ESOPs) to its employees and the employees of its subsidiaries. The assessee had been granted ESOPs from November 2014 to November 2016 during the period of his employment with FIPL. Some of the ESOPs had vested in the assessee before he left the employment of FIPL, and the unvested ESOPs had been cancelled on account of termination of his employment with FIPL. Out of the vested ESOPs, some had been repurchased by Walmart when it acquired FPS, subsequent to the cessation of employment of the assessee with FIPL.

FPS divested another wholly owned subsidiary, PhonePe. Due to such divestment and subsequent distribution to the shareholders of FPS on account of dividend, buy-back, etc., the value of the ESOPs of FPS fell. The Board of Directors of FPS decided that while there was no legal or contractual right under the ESOP plan to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the ESOP holders, at its own discretion, it decided to pay USD 43.67 as compensation for each ESOP, subject to applicable withholding taxes and other tax rules in respective countries of various ESOP holders.

The assessee was, therefore, entitled to certain compensation from FPS for the diminution in the value of his remaining vested ESOPs. The assessee filed an application under section 197, seeking a nil declaration certificate on the deduction of TDS by FPS from such compensation.

The AO rejected the application of the assessee for nil deduction certificate on the following grounds:

  1.  While the assessee had contended that the amount receivable by him did not constitute income under section 2(24), this section provided an inclusive definition of “income”, which was not exhaustive. Therefore, even a receipt not specifically mentioned therein could still be includible in the taxable income of the assessee.
  2.  While the general rule was that every amount received by an assessee was taxable unless specifically exempt under any provision, the assessee had failed to quote any express provision under which this receipt was exempt from tax.
  3.  The assessee had stated that FPS intended to withhold full tax on the payment. If the amount receivable by the assessee was not an income and not taxable, then the question arose as to why the payer intended to withhold tax on it. This implied that the payer was satisfied that the payment was subject to withholding tax.
  4.  Since the assessee stated that he would be reporting this income as exempt in his tax return, and the quantum was quite substantial, there was a high probability that the tax return would be selected for scrutiny assessment, and the assessee’s claim will not be accepted by the AO, which would result in creation of tax demand. Issue of a nil TDS certificate would hence be detrimental to the interest of revenue and recovery of taxes.
  5.  The use of the phrase “directly or indirectly” in section 17(2)(vi) implies that the amount receivable by the assessee in this case would be covered under the purview of “perquisite”.
  6.  The compensation was linked to the vested ESOPs. ESOPs resulted in a taxable perquisite on the allotment of shares, equivalent to the fair market value less the exercise price of the shares so allotted, which was taxable under the head “Salaries” in the hands of the employee or ex-employee, as the case may be. Consequently, the compensation receivable on these ESOPs, even though from a former employer, on account of diminution in value of the underlying shares, should also have the same characterisation and tax treatment, and was hence taxable under the head “Salaries”.

The Delhi High Court noted that ,undisputedly, the assessee had not exercised his vested right with respect to the ESOPs till date, which showed that the right of holding the shares had not been exercised. It analysed the provisions of section 17(2)(vi). The Delhi High Court observed that the determination of whether a particular receipt tantamounted to a capital receipt or a revenue receipt was dependent upon the factual scenario of the case. It noted the decisions of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd 325 ITR 422 and Shrimant Padmaraje R Kadambande vs. CIT 195 ITR 877 in this regard. The Delhi High Court also took note of the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Godrej & Co vs. CIT 37 ITR 381, where a one-time payment was given to the assessee in view of the change in contractual terms between the assessee and the management company. In that case, the Supreme Court held that the amount was received as compensation for the deterioration or injury to the managing agency by reason of the release of its rights to get higher termination, and was, therefore, a capital receipt.

As regards the AO’s argument that the amount was liable to be taxed since FPS intended to deduct TDS, the Delhi High Court observed that the manner or nature of payment, as comprehended by the deductor, would not determine the taxability of such transaction. It was the quality of payment that would determine its character and not the mode of payment. According to the Delhi High Court, unless the charging section of the Act elucidated any monetary receipt as chargeable to tax, the revenue could not proceed to charge such receipt as revenue receipt. The Delhi High Court referred to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Empire Jute Co Ltd vs. CIT 124 ITR 1 for the proposition that the perception of the payer would not determine the character of the payment in the hands of the recipient.

Referring to the provisions of section 17(2)(vi), the Delhi High Court noted that the most crucial ingredient of this provision was – determinable value of any specified security received by the employee by way of transfer / allotment, directly or indirectly, by the employer. As per explanation (c) to this provision, the value of the specified security could only be calculated once the option was exercised. In a literal reading of the provision, the value of specified securities or sweat equity shares was dependent upon the exercise of option. Therefore, for an income to be included as perquisite, it was essential that it was generated from the exercise of options by the employee.

On the facts of the case before it, the High Court noted that the assessee had not exercised options under the ESOP scheme till date but the options were merely held by the assessee. The Delhi High Court was, therefore, of the view that the options did not, therefore, constitute income chargeable to tax in the hands of the assessee, as none of the contingencies specified in section 17(2)(vi) had occurred.

Besides, the Delhi High Court noted that the compensation was a voluntary payment and not a transfer by way of any obligation. It was important that the management proceeded by noting that there was no legal or contractual right under the ESOP scheme to provide compensation for loss in current value or any potential losses on account of future accretion to the ESOP holders. FPS, on its own discretion, had estimated and decided to pay USD 43.67 as compensation for each stock option held on the record date.

According to the Delhi High Court, it was elementary to highlight that the payment in question was not linked to the employment or business of the assessee but was a one-time voluntary payment to all the option holders of ESOP, pursuant to the divestment of PhonePe business from FPS. In the case before it, even though the right to exercise the option was available to the assessee, the amount received by him did not arise out of any transfer of stock options. It was a one-time voluntary payment not arising out of any statutory or contractual obligation.

Therefore, the Delhi High Court held that treatment of the amount of compensation as a perquisite under section 17(2)(vi) could not be countenanced in law, as the stock options were not exercised by the assessee, and the amount in question was a one-time voluntary payment made by FPS to all the option holders in lieu of disinvestment of PhonePe business.

NISHITHKUMAR MUKESHKUMAR MEHTA’S CASE

The issue again came up before a single judge of the Madras High Court in the case of Nishithkumar Mukeshkumar Mehta vs. Dy CIT 165 taxmann.com 386.

In this case, the assessee was an employee of FIPL to whom stock options had been granted by FPS. Compensation was announced by FPS at USD 43.67 per ESOP on divestment of PhonePe business as described above, with former employees to receive the compensation only on vested ESOPs which were not exercised, while existing employees would receive the compensation on all unexercised outstanding ESOPs, whether vested or unvested. Such compensation was proposed to be treated as a perquisite taxable under the head ‘salaries’ by FIPL, with deduction of tax at source under section 192 on that basis. The assessee applied for a nil tax deduction certificate under section 197.

The assessee’s application was rejected by the AO on the basis of the following:

  1.  While the compensation to be received was not chargeable under the head ‘Salaries’, the contention that it was not taxable as capital gains was found to be an illogical contention;
  2.  The value of compensation to be received represented the surrender value of PhonePe shares held by the assessee while holding the FPS ESOPs. Therefore, the claim that no asset was transferred was found to lack credence;
  3.  The surrender or relinquishment of right to sue and litigate was the asset transferred so as to earn this compensation and therefore, the transaction squarely fell under the provisions of section 45.

Therefore, the AO was of the view that there was a capital gain arising out of the transfer of a capital asset, which was taxable under section 45,and therefore, rejected the application u/s 197. Against this rejection of application under section 197, the assessee filed a writ petition to the Madras High Court.

On behalf of the assessee (incidentally represented by the same counsel who had appeared before the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case), before the Madras High Court, it was pointed out that the ESOPs were rights in relation to shares of FPS which had issued such ESOPs. They were, therefore, capital assets. Since the assessee continued to hold the same number of ESOPs before and after receipt of the compensation, there was no transfer of capital assets, and in the absence of transfer of capital assets, capital gains tax could not be levied. Compensation paid to the assessee was a capital receipt, and such capital receipt was taxable as capital gains only if gains accrued from the transfer of capital assets. Since capital assets were not transferred by the assessee, capital gains tax could not be imposed.

It was further argued on behalf of the assessee that it was never held that the asset transferred by the assessee was the relinquishment of the right to sue or litigate. The assessee had no right to receive compensation for the divestment of the PhonePe business by FPS. In the absence of a right to receive compensation, the payment was a discretionary one-time payment by FPS. Even if such compensation had not been paid, the terms of the ESOP scheme did not confer any rights on the assessee, including the right to sue. Further, a right to sue was not transferable as per section 7 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Therefore, the conclusion that the transaction fell within the scope of section 45 was untenable.

It was argued that since the receipt by the assessee was a capital receipt, the Income Tax Act did not provide for TDS thereon. While the Income Tax Act provides for machinery for the computation of capital gains, being the difference between the acquisition price and resale price, there was no machinery provision with regards to taxation of receipts such as compensation in relation to ESOPs. It was submitted that the order of rejection called for interference not only because the conclusion that there was a relinquishment of the right to sue was erroneous, but also because the order did not identify the provision of the Income Tax Act under which the assessee was liable to pay tax or under which tax was liable to be deducted at source.

Reliance was placed upon various judgments of the Supreme Court and High Courts to support the propositions that the compensation was in the nature of a capital receipt, that capital receipts which are not chargeable under section 45 cannot be taxed under any other head, that capital gains tax cannot be imposed in the absence of a computation mechanism, that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred and that tax cannot be deducted at source if the payment does not constitute income.

On behalf of the revenue, it was submitted that ESOPs are capital assets, and that the ESOPs had a higher value while FPS held an interest in PhonePe. Since the value of ESOPs held by the assessee declined on divestment of the PhonePe business by FPS, the assessee had a right to sue for diminution of value. Since the compensation was paid as consideration for relinquishment of the right to sue, such relinquishment qualified as the transfer of a capital asset.

Reliance was placed upon the decision of the Madras High Court in K R Srinath vs. ACIT,268 ITR 436, where the court held that the compensation received for relinquishment of a right to sue for specific performance of a contract relating to the purchase of immovable property was a capital receipt, which was liable to capital gains tax. It was, therefore, argued that the amount of compensation received by the assessee was a capital gain which was taxable, because it accrued from the transfer / relinquishment of the right to sue for compensation for diminution in the value of the ESOPs.

On behalf of the assessee, in rejoinder, it was pointed out that in contrast to the facts of the case in K R Srinath (supra), the ESOP scheme did not confer a contractual right on the assessee to sue for specific performance.

The Madras High Court analysed the provisions of the ESOP scheme and the facts pertaining to the compensation. It then went on to analyse whether the ESOPs were capital assets. It noted that while shares were indisputably capital assets because they qualified as movable goods under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, and the Companies Act, 2013, ESOPs were rights in relation to capital assets, i.e., right to receive capital assets subject to the terms and conditions of the ESOP scheme. Analysing the definition of capital assets, it noted that explanation 1 to section 2(14), which clarifies that property includes and shall be deemed to have always included any rights in or in relation to an Indian company, including rights of management or control or any other rights whatsoever, was not attracted, since the assessee had no rights in the Indian company of which he was an employee.

It, thereafter, went on to analyse the judgments relied upon by the assessee for the proposition that compensation was a capital receipt which was not taxable because it did not accrue from the transfer of a capital asset.

  •  In Kettlewell Bullen & Co Ltd vs. CIT 53 ITR 261 (SC) and Karam Chand Thapar & Bros Pvt Ltd vs. CIT 4 SCC 124, the compensation received for relinquishment of the managing agency was construed as a capital receipt because it was intended to compensate for the impairment of the source of revenue or profit-making apparatus.
  •  In Vodafone India Services (P) Ltd vs. UOI 368 ITR 1 (Bom), receipt arising out of a capital account transaction was held to be not taxable as income in the absence of an express legislative mandate.
  •  In Oberoi Hotel (P) Ltd vs. CIT 236 ITR 903 (SC), compensation received for relinquishment of rights of management of a hotel for a management fee calculated on the gross operating profits and right of first offer in the event of transfer / lease, was held to be for injury inflicted on the capital asset of the assessee, resulting in the loss of the source of the assessee’s income, and was, therefore, construed as a capital receipt.
  • On a similar basis, compensation for variation of the terms of the managing agency was held to be a capital receipt by the Supreme Court in Godrej & Co’s case (supra).
  • In Senairam Doongarmall vs. CIT 42 ITR 392 (SC), compensation received for acquisition of factory buildings adjoining a tea garden with consequential cessation of the production was held to be a capital receipt, while in CIT vs. Saurashtra Cement Ltd 325 ITR 422 (SC), liquidated damages received for failure to supply an additional cement plant was construed as a capital receipt.

According to the Madras High Court, the common thread running through all these cases was that the compensation was paid either for the loss of the profit-making apparatus or, at a minimum, for the sterilisation thereof. Hence, such compensation was held to be a capital receipt.

The Madras High Court observed that, at first blush, the ratio of these cases seems to apply to the case at hand because compensation was paid for the diminution in value of ESOPs and potential losses on account of future accretion to ESOP holders due to the divestment of the PhonePe business. It, however, noted the following significant differences on a closer examination. It noted that the ESOPs were contractual rights, and that the scheme included conditions regarding vesting, cancellation and transfer. In case of breach of the obligation by the insurer to allot shares upon exercise of the option in terms of the ESOP scheme, the assessee would have the right to claim compensation or sue for specific performance. Therefore, the ESOPs were contractual rights that may qualify as actionable claims (though not as defined in The Transfer of Property Act) or choses in action in certain circumstances.

Unlike in the case of managing agency or tea factory in the cited cases, ESOPs were not a source of revenue or profit-making apparatus for the holder because these actionable claims were intrinsically not capable of generating revenue (notional or actual) and could not be monetised, whether by transfer or otherwise, until shares were allotted. Even at the time of allotment,
there was a notional but not an actual benefit. Actual benefit accrued only upon transfer, provided there was a capital gain.

According to the Madras High Court, in all the cited cases, the compensation was received in relation to relinquishment of rights in revenue generating and subsisting capital assets, while in the case of ESOPs, the capital assets came into existence only upon allotment of shares, and revenue generation from the capital assets was possible only thereafter. Therefore, the compensation was not for the loss of or even sterilisation of a profit-making apparatus but by way of a discretionary payment towards potential (as regards unvested options) or actual (as regards vested options) diminution in value of contractual rights. This was supported by the FPS communication that referred to the compensation as being paid without legal or contractual obligation towards loss in value of ESOPs (and not shares).

The Madras High Court noted that the ESOP scheme did not contain any representation or warranty to ESOP holders that no action would be taken that could impair the value of the ESOPs, and therefore, there was no contractual right to compensation. It could, therefore, not be said that a non-existent right was relinquished.

The Madras High Court, therefore, concluded that ESOPs did not fall within the ambit of the expression “property of any kind held by an assessee” in section 2(14) and were consequently not capital assets. Therefore, the receipt was not a capital receipt.

Since the order of rejection by the AO concluded that a capital asset was transferred, the Court then went on to analyse the tenability of that conclusion. Since the ESOPs were not exercised, shares of FPS were not issued or allotted to the assessee, and therefore the assessee neither received nor transferred a capital asset. Since the ESOP scheme did not confer a right to receive compensation for impairment in the value of ESOPs, both the conclusion in the order of rejection the contention on behalf of the revenue, that compensation was paid towards relinquishment of the right to sue, by placing reliance on the decision in the case of K R Srinath, was untenable.

Given this conclusion, the matter could have been remanded by the Court to the AO. However, the counsel for the assessee confirmed to the Court that the relief claimed included a direction for issuance of a nil certificate, and therefore, it was not sufficient to remand the matter for reconsideration. The Madras High Court, therefore, went on to consider the manner in which the Income Tax Act dealt with receipts in relation to the holding of ESOPs. It noted that the definition of “salary” was inclusive and included perquisites, while the definition of “perquisite” was also inclusive and covered the value of a specified security. It analysed that the ESOPs granted to the assessee as an employee of a step-down subsidiary qualified as ESOPs under the Companies Act, 2013, and therefore, fell within the scope of explanation (a) to clause (vi) of section 17(2). It is in this light that the specific issue of whether the compensation paid to the assessee qualified as a perquisite had to be considered.

The Madras High Court noted the decision of the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case (supra), where the Delhi High Court had concluded that the one-time voluntary payment was a capital receipt, which was not liable to tax as a perquisite.

Analysing clause (vi) of section 17(2), the Madras High Court observed that since clause (vi) was illustrative of perquisite, it was not intended to tax the capital gains that may accrue if such specified security were to be sold by the allottee after capital appreciation. Instead, as the plain language indicated, clause (vi) took within its fold and treated as a perquisite the benefit extended to the employee or any other person from out of the grant of specified securities at concessional rates or free of cost. In the specific context of ESOPs, explanation (a) to clause (vi) explains the scope of “specified security” by using expression “includes the securities offered under such plan or scheme”, and not the phrase “includes the securities allotted under such plan or scheme”. Given that the assessee had not exercised the option in respect of the ESOPs held by him, shares of FPS were not issued or allotted to him. According to the court, the inference that followed was that “specified security” in the context of ESOPs was not confined to allotted shares but included securities offered to the holder of ESOPs. The use of “includes” instead of “means” also indicated that the phrase “securities offered under such plan or scheme” was not intended to be exhaustive.

The Madras High Court was of the view that the expression “value of any specified security… transferred directly or indirectly by the employer… free of cost or at concessional rate to the assessee” in clause (vi) was wide enough to encompass the discretionary compensation paid to ESOP holders to compensate for the potential or actual diminution in value thereof. Consequently, especially in view of the inclusive definition of perquisite, merely because the method of valuing the perquisite did not fit neatly into explanation (c) to clause (vi) of section 17(2), did not mean that it could not be taxed as a perquisite, provided the value of the perquisite could be determined. According to the High Court, to determine the value of the perquisite, the benefit that the employee or other person received from the specified security, though not by way of capital gains, should be determinable.

Addressing the issue of ascertainment of the benefit, the Madras High Court observed that ordinarily, the benefit would be the difference between the fair market value of the share and the price at which such share is offered to the ESOP holder. Since such monetary benefit would typically be realised, though notionally, only at the time of exercise of the option and remains a non-monetisable contractual right until then, the fair market price of the shares on the date of exercise of the option is reckoned and the price paid by the option holder is deducted therefrom to determine the value of the perquisite in the form of ESOP. Therefore, explanation (c) to clause (vi) prescribes that the value of the specified security is the difference between the fair market value of the shares on the date of exercise of the option and the price paid by the option holder. In the case before the court, the assessee received a substantial monetary benefit at the pre-exercise stage by way of discretionary compensation for diminution in the value of the stock options.

The Madras High Court referred to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Infosys Technologies Ltd 297 ITR 167, where the Supreme Court considered the question whether the issuer company was liable to deduct TDS under section 192 in respect of shares allotted under an ESOP scheme and subject to a lock-in for a period of five years. The relevant assessment year was 1999–2000, when clause (vi) was not applicable. After holding that the insertion of clause (vi) with effect from assessment year 2000–01 did not apply retrospectively, the Supreme Court held that the notional benefit that accrued from shares that were subject to a lock-in could not be treated as a perquisite because there was no cash inflow to the employees till the end of the lock-in period. The Madras High Court observed that while the principle that notional benefit cannot be taxed as a perquisite was formulated in a specific statutory context which no longer existed, the broader principle laid down therein to the effect that the benefit from the ESOP was to be determined for purposes of and as a prerequisite for taxation as a perquisite continued to apply.

The Madras High Court noted that in the case before it, actual monetary benefit was received at the pre-exercise stage by the assessee and other stakeholders. Such monetary benefit was paid to the assessee on account of being an ESOP holder, and ESOPs were granted to the assessee as an employee under the ESOP scheme. If payments had been made by the assessee in relation to the ESOPs, it would have been necessary to deduct the amount of such payment to arrive at the value of the perquisite. Since the assessee did not make any payments towards the ESOPs and continued to retain all the ESOPs even after the receipt of compensation, the Madras High Court was of the view that the entire receipt qualified as a perquisite liable to be taxed under the head “Salaries”.

Therefore, according to the Madras High Court, it was not necessary to consider whether it fell under any other head of income. Due to the conclusion that the compensation qualified as a perquisite and not as a capital receipt, as per the Madras High Court, the judgments cited in respect of capital gains, including those relating to the absence of the rate or computation mechanism or provision for TDS, lost relevance. For these reasons, the Madras High Court expressed its inability to endorse the view taken by the Delhi High Court in the case of Sanjay Baweja (supra).

OBSERVATIONS

The crucial aspect in this controversy is whether the compensation received for diminution in value of ESOPs is a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’ and if yes, whether the payer was liable to deduct tax at source. The incidental issue is whether the receipt is a capital receipt and the right granted of ESOPs is a capital asset or not. The Madras High Court addressed the issue of capital gains to hold that the employee in question was not holding a capital asset that was transferred resulting into capital gains but proceeded further to hold that the receipt in question was a perquisite liable to taxation under the head ‘Salaries’ and the employer was required to deduct tax at source.

An important point that is required to be noted, at the outset, is that in the case before the Madras High court, the AO had conceded and held that the compensation was not a perquisite under the head ‘Salaries’. In view of the definitive conclusion of the AO on the issue of perquisite, there was no dispute before the High Court on this aspect of taxation under the head ‘Salaries’. It is, therefore, intriguing that the Madras High court proceeded to hold, though it was not asked to do so, that the receipt of compensation was a perquisite that was taxable under the head ‘Salaries’ and was liable to deduction of tax at source under s. 192 of the Act. Could it have done so in the writ jurisdiction, where the issue before the court was perhaps whether the AO was right in holding that the compensation received was a capital gain and was subjected to the deduction of tax at source, when there is no provision for such deduction in respect of the payment of capital gains?

The logic of the Madras High Court was that ESOPs were merely rights to receive capital assets (shares) and not capital assets themselves. In doing so, the definition of “specified security”, which referred to securities as defined in section 2(h) of the securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, was not considered in depth by the High Court.

Section 2(h) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (SCRA) reads as under:

“securities” include—

(i) shares, scrips, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or other marketable securities of a like nature
in or of any incorporated company or other body
corporate;

(ia) derivative;

(ib) units or any other instrument issued by any collective investment scheme to the investors in such schemes;

(ic) security receipt ………….;

(ii) Government securities;

(iia) such other instruments as may be declared by the Central Government to be securities; and

(iii) rights or interest in securities.

Therefore, derivative or rights or interest in securities are also securities. Further, “derivative” is defined in section 2(ac) of SCRA as under:

“derivative” includes —

(A) a security derived from a debt instrument, share, loan, whether secured or unsecured, risk instrument or contract for differences or any other form of security;

(B) a contract which derives its value from the prices, or index of prices, of underlying securities.

Further, section 2(d) of SCRA defines “option” as under:

“option in securities” means a contract for the purchase or sale of a right to buy or sell, or a right to buy and sell, securities in future, and includes a teji, a mandi, a teji mandi, a galli, a put, a call or a put and call in securities.

An option is definitely a derivative, if not a right or interest in a security, and is, therefore, a security by itself. That being so, it would certainly be a capital asset. Therefore, the very basis of the distinction drawn by the Madras High Court in rejecting the decisions cited on behalf of the assessee, and in holding that such a right is merely a chose in action or only a right to receive a capital asset, does not seem to be justified. The fact that an ESOP is a capital asset is also supported by the well-settled view taken by the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Tata Services Ltd 122 ITR 594 and the Madras High Court in the case of K R Srinath (supra), where the High Courts had held that the right to acquire an immovable property or the right to specific performance under an agreement to purchase an immovable property was also a capital asset, the transfer or extinguishment of which was subject to capital gains tax. Besides, the Karnataka High Court in the case of Chittranjan A. Dassanacharya, 429 ITR 570 and the Bangalore bench of the Tribunal in the case of N.R. Ravikrishnan, 155 ITD 355 have held that the right to acquire shares under ESOP was a capital asset and the holding period commenced with the date of grant.

The other angle in the logic of the Madras High Court was that the ESOP scheme did not contain any representation or warranty to ESOP holders that no action would be taken that could impair the value of the ESOPs, and therefore, there was no contractual right to compensation, and therefore, it could not be regarded as a transfer of any rights. On the facts of the case, it was clear that the payment was a voluntary one, and that the assessee was not entitled to any such compensation. The assessee also did not have any right to make such a claim for any compensation under the ESOP scheme. In fact, the assessee’s claim was that since there was no transfer, the amount received could not be taxed as capital gains.

The third basis of the Madras High Court decision was that section 17(2)(vi) was an inclusive definition and, therefore, applied to the compensation received. In this connection, the Madras High Court failed to take note of certain findings of the Supreme  Court in the case considered by it of Infosys Technologies (supra):

Unless a benefit /receipt is made taxable, it cannot be regarded as ‘income’. This is an important principle of taxation under the Act.
…..
Be that as it may, proceeding on the basis that there was ‘benefit’, the question is whether every benefit received by the person is taxable as income? It is not so. Unless the benefit is made taxable, it cannot be regarded as income. During the relevant assessment years, there was no provision in law which made such benefit taxable as income. Further, as stated, the benefit was prospective. Unless a benefit is in the nature of income or specifically included by the Legislature as part of income, the same is not taxable.

As per the Supreme Court, unless an item is specifically included in the definition of “perquisite”, it would not be taxable as a perquisite. This is directly contrary to the view taken by the Madras High Court that even if the compensation did not fall strictly within the definition of perquisite, it would still be taxable as a perquisite since the definition was an inclusive one. Clause (vi) clearly provides for both the date of taxation as well as the computation mechanism — if neither applies, the compensation received would not be taxable as a perquisite.

On the other hand, the various decisions cited on behalf of the assessee before the Madras High Court clearly point out that if a receipt is relatable to a capital asset, it is a capital receipt. Such capital receipt is chargeable to tax as capital gains only if there is transfer of a capital asset. If there is no transfer of a capital asset in connection with which the amount is received, in the absence of a specific charging provision, it is not subject to tax at all. In this case, there was no transfer of a capital asset at all by the assessee.

Therefore, the view taken by the Delhi High Court in Sanjay Baweja’s case that such compensation was not a perquisite, not liable to be taxed under the head ‘Salaries’, and not subject to tax deduction at source, seems to be the better view of the matter.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

9 C I T (E), Pune vs. Lata Mangeshkar Medical Foundation

(2024) 464 ITR 706 (SC)

Charitable Purpose — Exemption — Principle of consistency — High Court upheld the order of the lower authorities which allowed the exemption based on earlier appellate orders which had become final — Special Leave Petition dismissed

The Assessee Trust was running a hospital by the name “Deenanath Mangeshkar Hospital” in Pune. During the assessment proceeding for Assessment Year 2010–2011, the Assessing Officer (“AO”) denied the exemption under Section 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) and then vide assessment order under Section 143(3) of the Act, computed the total income at ₹18,16,02,520. The exemption under section 11 of the Act was denied because —

(i) The Assessee-Trust had not furnished proper information to the Charity Commissioner and there was a shortfall in making provisionsfor the Indigent Patients Fund (“IPF”). According to AO, Assessee should have credited an amount of ₹2.14 crores to the IPF as against ₹75.96 lakhs only.

(ii) The Assessee Trust had generated a huge surplus and therefore, the intention of the trust was
profit-making. AO was of the opinion that the hospital of Assessee did not provide services to the poor and underprivileged class of the society.

(iii) The Assessee-Trust was running a canteen in the hospital with a profit motive and was not providing free meals.

(iv) There was a violation of provisions of Section 13(1)(c) of the Act by Assessee-Trust as remuneration was paid to two individuals, viz., Mrs. Bharati Mangeshkar, who is a trustee with no significant qualification and Mrs. Meena Kelkar, mother of the trustee Dr. Dhananjay Kelkar, who also did not possess any qualification and was beyond 65 years of age.

Being aggrieved by this assessment order dated 22nd March, 2013, Assessee Trust preferred an Appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeal) (“CIT(A)”). The CIT(A) granted relief to Assessee-Trust by restoring the exemption under Section 11 of the Act.

Revenue challenged the said order before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (“ITAT”). The ITAT was pleased to dismiss the Appeal by an order dated 23rd June, 2017.

The order of the ITAT was challenged by the Revenue before the High Court. The High Court noted that CIT(A) while deciding the issue in favour of the Assessee noted that the facts in the year under Appeal, i.e., for Assessment Year 2010–2011 were identical to those of Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010. The CIT(A) followed the orders of his predecessor for Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010 and decided the issue in favour of the Assessee.

Revenue had challenged those orders of CIT(A) and filed an Appeal before the ITAT for Assessment Years  2008–2009 and 2009–2010. The co-ordinate Bench of the ITAT by an order dated 15th April, 2016 upheld the order of CIT(A).

According to the High Court, The ITAT for the assessment year 2010–11 had merely followed what its co-ordinate Bench held in its order dated 15th April, 2016 for Assessment Years 2008–2009 and 2009–2010. Since there was nothing on record that the order of ITAT dated 15th April, 2016 had been set aside or overruled in any manner by the High Court, the ITAT found no reason to interfere with the order of CIT(A). The High Court noted that the Appeals for those years were filed before the High Court for the earlier years had been dismissed on the ground of delay. In the circumstances, the High Court found no reason to interfere with the order of ITAT.

Revenue challenged the said order before the Supreme Court by way of a special leave petition. The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition holding that no case for its interference was made out by the Appellant.

10 PCIT vs. Trigent Software Ltd.

(2024) 464 ITR 770 (SC)

Business Expenditure — Capital or Revenue — Software company abandoned a new software that it was developing — High Court holding that the amount spent was deductible as revenue expenditure — Special Leave Petition dismissed.

The assessee was engaged in the business of software development solutions and management. The assessment for the assessment year 2007–08 was completed u/s. 143(3) r.w.s 147. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim of expenditure of ₹7.09 crores in respect of the development of software that was abandoned.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) allowed the claim of deduction holding that the expenditure for the development of a new product by the assessee was in the assessee’s existing line of business. The CIT(A) further held that though the assessee had shown the expenditure as capital work-in-progress for the earlier assessment years, the deduction had to be allowed as a revenue expenditure in the year in which the project in question was abandoned.

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal upheld the view expressed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals).

The High Court held that the appellant was admittedly in the business of development of software solutions and management, and therefore its endeavour to develop a new software was nothing but an endeavour in its existing line of business of developing software solutions. Admittedly, the product that was sought to be developed never came into existence, and the same was abandoned. No new asset came into existence which would be of enduring benefit to the assessee, and, therefore the expenditure could only be said to be revenue in nature.

The Supreme Court dismissed the special leave petition of the Revenue holding that no case for interference was made out so as to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.

11 Jt. CIT vs. Clix Capital Services Pvt. Ltd.

(2024) 464 ITR 768 (SC)

Penalty notice — Assessment order passed on 28th October, 2011 — Show cause notice u/s. 274 for imposition of penalty issued on 9th November, 2017 — High Court holding that the notice is barred by limitation — SLP dismissed

On 31st October, 2007, the assessee filed its return of income for the assessment year 2007–08 declaring a total income of ₹47,39,42,143.

A revised return of income was filed on 31st March, 2009 declaring the total income of ₹47,14,28,736. In the revised return the assessee inter alia added back certain expenses amounting to ₹84,62,03,987 by way of abundant caution, having regard to the provision of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act. In the succeeding assessment year, that is, the assessment year 2008–09, the assessee claimed the said expense of ₹84,62,03,987 as a deduction, as the said amount had been actually expended.

The assessment order for the assessment year 2007–08 was passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act on 28th October, 2011 determining total income at ₹102,06,71,340.

The Assessing Officer, in an internal communication dated 9th September, 2013 addressed to the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax wrote that a penalty should be imposed on the assesee for failure to deduct tax at source qua assessment year 2007–08. A reminder was sent on 11th July, 2014. A notice u/s. 274 of the Act was issued on 9th November, 2017 calling upon the assessee to show cause as to why penalty should not be imposed u/d. 271C of the Act for the assessment year 2007–08.

The assessee filed a response on 19th December, 2017, inter alia raising a preliminary objection, namely, that the notice was barred by limitation.

The assessee filed a writ petition before the Hon’ble Delhi High Court which directed that an order be passed on the objection of the assessee.

This led to the passing of the order dated 14th June, 2018 which was followed by a second show-cause notice on 27th June, 2018.

The assessee once again approached the court and filed a writ petition challenging both the show cause notices.

The High Court observed that section 275 of the Act has two limbs. The first limb concerns the fixation of a period of limitation when the penalty is sought to be imposed as fallout of action taken in another proceeding. On the other hand, the second limb of clause (c) of sub-section (i) of section 275 of the Act fixes the period of limitation, where initiation of action of imposition of penalty is taken on a standalone basis, that is, not as a consequence of action taken in another proceeding.

For the second limb, the legislature has provided a limitation of six months from the end of the month in which action for imposition of penalty is initiated. But there is no indication, as to when the period of six months ought to commence. The High Court agreed with the assessee that the proceedings should be commenced within a reasonable period.

The High Court was of the view that the show cause notice dated 9th November, 2017 was delayed and therefore quashed the same.

On a special leave petition being filed by the Revenue, the Supreme Court dismissed the same holding that no case for interference was made out for it to exercise its jurisdiction under Article 136 of the Constitution of India.

Section148: Reassessment — Notice — against company that has been successfully resolved under a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”)— effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions.

16 Uttam Galva Metallics Ltd. and Mr. SubodhKarmarkar vs. Asst. CIT

WP(L) No. 9421 OF 2022

A. Y.: 2016-17

Dated: 28th August, 2024 (Bom) (HC)

Section148: Reassessment — Notice — against company that has been successfully resolved under a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (“CIRP”) under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“IBC”)— effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions.

The Petitioner-Assessee was admitted into a CIRP by an order dated 11th July, 2018 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, New Delhi (“NCLT”). Various processes under the IBC were undertaken. Eventually, the company came to be resolved pursuant to a resolution plan finalised by the Committee of Creditors, and approved by the NCLT under Section 31 of the IBC by an order dated 6th May, 2021. The resolution plan, as approved by the NCLT, entails a full waiver of all tax and tax-related interest dues pertaining to the period prior to commencement of the CIRP.

On 27th March, 2021 i.e., well after the resolution plan was approved, the Revenue issued a notice under Section 148 of the Act seeking to initiate reassessment of the Petitioner-Assessee’s income for AY 2016-17, on the premise that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment. On 26th October, 2021, the Revenue issued a communication containing reasons for initiating the said reassessment. It was stated that the original assessment of the Petitioner-Assessee had been completed on December 28, 2018 in terms of the loss of ₹220.25 crores as returned by the Petitioner-Assessee. Thereafter, the Revenue had conducted survey proceedings against some companies and had reason to believe that dealings by the Petitioner-Assessee with those companies could have led to income in the sum of ₹111.28 crores escaping assessment.

On 19th November, 2021, the Petitioner-Assessee submitted its objections, specifically asserting that after approval of a resolution plan under Section 31 of the IBC, the Petitioner-Assessee had begun on a new slate with all past claims and dues being extinguished in terms of the resolution plan. The Petitioner-Assessee made submissions on the import of Section 31 of the IBC and various case law interpreting the IBC. The Petitioner-Assessee also called upon the Revenue to share the documents and material relating to the sanction of reassessment proceedings, under Section 151 of the Act.

Thereafter, on 15th February, 2022 the Petitioner-Assessee called for a speaking order on the objections raised by it. On 18th February, 2022, the Revenue passed an order, rejecting all the objections raised by the Petitioner-Assessee and asserted that while recovery may be impermissible, prosecution of the erstwhile management and recovery from other persons would still be permissible. On such premise, the Revenue refused to drop reassessment proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee. Pursuant to such rejection of the objections, the Revenue issued a notice dated 12th March, 2022 calling upon the Petitioner-Assessee to furnish various details by 21st March, 2022.

Being aggrieved by the Revenue persisting with the reassessment proceedings despite the successful resolution of the Petitioner-Assessee, the Petitioner-Assessee, invoked the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, for quashing and setting aside of the impugned proceedings including all notices and communications received from the Revenue.

The Petitioner contended that Section 31 of the IBC explicitly makes the resolution plan binding on the Revenue. The Petitioner-Assessee has also submitted that the law declared by the Supreme Court, interpreting Section 31 of the IBC fully covers the position that the Petitioner-Assessee is in, namely, that a corporate debtor after being resolved, starts with a clean slate and cannot be pursued for past tax claims.

The Revenue opposing the Petition contended that once the CIRP came to an end (with the approval of the resolution plan), the moratorium on initiating and continuing proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee too came to an end. Therefore, according to the Revenue, the power of the Revenue to continue proceedings against the Petitioner-Assessee would revive. The Revenue quoted from orders of the Supreme Court passed during the course pending CIRP proceedings, when dealing with the import of the moratorium under Section 14 of the IBC, to argue that the approval of the resolution plan can have no bearing on the power of the Revenue to pursue proceedings in relation to past tax claims. The Revenue also argued that there is nothing inconsistent between the IBC and the Act for the non-obstinate provisions in the IBC to have any relevance.

Section 31(1) of IBC and its import:

They are extracted below:

“31. (1) If the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that the resolution plan as approved by the committee of creditors under sub-section (4) of section 30 meets the requirements as referred to in sub-section (2) of section 30, it shall by order approve the resolution plan which shall be binding on the corporate debtor and its employees, members, creditors, including the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority to whom a debt in respect of the payment of dues arising under any law for the time being in force, such as authorities to whom statutory dues are owed, guarantors and other stakeholders involved in the resolution plan.”

[Emphasis Supplied]

The court observed that even a plain reading of the foregoing would show that once the Adjudicating Authority (the NCLT) approves the resolution plan, it would be binding on, among others, the Central Government and its agencies in respect of payment of any statutory dues arising under any law for the time being in force. It is now trite law that the effect of resolution of a corporate debtor is that the terms of resolution bind tax authorities and their enforcement actions — a position in law declared in numerous judgments of the Supreme Court. The judgment in Ghanshyam Mishra and Sons Private Limited vs.. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Company  Limited [(2021) 9 SCC 657](Ghanshyam Mishra) comprehensively summarises the import of various judgments on the point.

The court held that, it is crystal clear that once a resolution plan is duly approved under Section 31(1) of the IBC, the debts as provided for in the resolution plan alone shall remain payable and such position shall be binding on, among others, the Central Government and various authorities, including tax authorities. All dues which are not part of the resolution plan would stand extinguished and no person would be entitled to initiate or continue any proceedings in respect of any claim for any such due. No proceedings in respect of any dues relating to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan can be continued or initiated.

Thus, there can be no manner of doubt that the Impugned Proceedings and their continuation against the Petitioner-Assessee are wholly misconceived and untenable. The Impugned Proceedings are essentially reassessment proceedings, and that too of AY 2016-17. Evidently, such proceedings pertain to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan. The outcome of such proceedings, particularly if adverse to the Petitioner-Assessee, would clearly be in relation to tax claims for the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan. The resolution plan came to be approved on 6th May, 2020. Any attempt to re-agitate the assessment for AY 2016-17, evidently and squarely, constitutes pursuit of claims for the period prior to even the initiation of the CIRP. The conduct of such proceedings would be directly in conflict with the law declared in Ghanshyam Mishra, which makes it clear that continuation of existing proceedings and initiation of new proceedings that relate to operations prior to the CIRP are totally prohibited after the approval of the resolution plan. Consequently, nothing in the Impugned Proceedings can legitimately survive.

Evidently and admittedly, the reassessment proceedings pre-date the CIRP. They would relate to the period prior to the approval of the resolution plan of the Petitioner-Assessee, and therefore stand extinguished. Upon completion of the CIRP, the Petitioner-Assessee has completely changed hands and has begun on a clean slate under new ownership and management.

Consequently, all the notices and communications issued by the Revenue in connection with the Impugned Proceedings, and the consequential actions as impugned in the Writ Petition were quashed and set aside.

Section 119(2): CBDT — Condonation of delay in filing the return of income — the Chartered Accountant of assessee was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife — genuine human problems may prevent a person from achieving such compliances — sufficient cause for condonation of delay.

15 Jyotsna M. Mehta vs. Pr. CIT – 19

WP(L) No. 17939 of 2024

Dated: 4th September, 2024 (Bom) (HC).

Section 119(2): CBDT — Condonation of delay in filing the return of income — the Chartered Accountant of assessee was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife — genuine human problems may prevent a person from achieving such compliances — sufficient cause for condonation of delay.

The application filed by the Assessees / Petitioners  under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961  praying for condonation of delay in filing the return of income. The Petitioners are members of one family. Their accounts and all issues in relation to their income-tax returns were handled by a Chartered Accountant, who could not take timely steps on account of ill health of his spouse. For such reason, the returns of the Petitioners could not be filed within the stipulated time.

The Petitioners contended that they were fully dependent on the Chartered Accountant in all respects from the finalisation of the accounts as also in taking steps to file their respective returns. They contend that there was a genuine reason on the delay caused to the petitioners to file returns, as the Chartered Accountant was in a situation of distress due to the ill-health of his wife, keeping him away from the Petitioners professional work.

In such circumstances, the petitioners filed an application under section 119(2)(b) of the Act praying for condonation of delay in filing of their returns; setting out such reason, which according to the petitioner, was bonafide and a legitimate cause, requiring the delay to be condoned in the filing of the petitioners’ returns. The petitioners also submitted all the medical papers in support of their contentions that the case as made for condonation of delay was bonafide / genuine as reflected from the medical papers. The PCIT disbelieved the petitioners’ case and observed that the reasons are not genuine reasons preventing the petitioners from filing Income-tax returns. In recording such observations, the PCIT has not recorded any reasons as to why the documents as submitted by the petitioner were disbelieved by him, and / or the case of the petitioners was not genuine. Also, there is no contrary material on record, that the petitioner’s case on such ground was required to be rejected.

The Hon Court observed that the approach of PCIT appears to be quite mechanical, who ought to have been more sensitive to the cause which was brought before him when the petitioner prayed for condonation of delay.

The Hon Court further observed that it can never be that technicalities and rigidity of rules of law would not recognise genuine human problems of such nature, which may prevent a person from achieving such compliances. It is to cater to such situations the legislature has made a provision conferring a power to condone delay. These are all human issues and which may prevent the assessee who is otherwise diligent in filing returns, within the prescribed time. The PCIT is not consistent in the reasons when the cause which the petitioners has urged in their application for condonation of delay was common.

The Court further observed that it would have been quite different if there were reasons available on record of the PCIT that the case on delay in filing returns as urged by the petitioners was false, and / or totally unacceptable. It needs no elaboration that in matters of maintaining accounts and filing of returns, the assessees are most likely to depend on the professional services of their Chartered Accountants. Once a Chartered Accountant is engaged and there is a genuine dependence on his services, such as in the present case, whose personal difficulties had caused a delay in filing of the petitioners returns, was certainly a cause beyond the control of the petitioners / assessees. In these circumstances, the assessee, being at no fault, should have been the primary consideration of the PCIT. It also cannot be overlooked that any professional, for reasons which are not within the confines of human control, by sheer necessity of the situation can be kept away from the professional work and despite his best efforts, it may not be possible for him to attend the same. The reasons can be manifold like illness either of himself or his family members, as a result of which he was unable to timely discharge his professional obligation. There could also be a likelihood that for such reasons, of impossibility of any services being provided / performed for his clients when tested on acceptable materials. Such human factors necessarily require a due consideration when it comes to compliances of the time limits even under the Income-tax Act. The situation in hand is akin to what a Court would consider in legal proceedings before it, in condoning delay in filing of proceedings. In dealing with such situations, the Courts would not discard an empathetic /humane view of the matter in condoning the delay in filing legal proceedings, when law confers powers to condone the delay in the litigant pursuing Court proceedings. Such principles which are quite paramount and jurisprudentially accepted are certainly applicable, when the assessee seeks condonation of delay in filing income tax returns, so as to remove the prejudice being caused to him, so as to regularise his returns. In fact, in this situation, to not permit an assessee to file his returns, is quite counter-productive to the very object and purpose, the tax laws intend to achieve. In this view of the matter, the Hon court held that the delay was sufficiently explained and to be condoned.

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Assessee inadvertently filing data of next assessment year instead of relevant assessment year — Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Application for revision rejected only on the ground that intimation is not an order — Inadvertance of the Assessee not with a malafide intention to evade tax — Orders, intimation and communication set aside — Matter remanded to Principal Commissioner for de novo enquiry and fresh consideration.

51 DiwakerTripathi vs. PCIT

[2024] 466 ITR 371 (Bom)

A. Y. 2013-14

Date of order: 29th August, 2023

S. 143(1), 154 and 264 of ITA 1961

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Assessee inadvertently filing data of next assessment year instead of relevant assessment year — Intimation u/s. 143(1) — Application for revision rejected only on the ground that intimation is not an order — Inadvertance of the Assessee not with a malafide intention to evade tax — Orders, intimation and communication set aside — Matter remanded to Principal Commissioner for de novo enquiry and fresh consideration.

The Assessee, an individual, filed his return of income for A.Y. 2013-14 on 28th March, 2015 declaring total income at ₹12,48,160. While filing the return of income, the Assessee mistook the assessment year to be the financial year and filled in all the details of income for the A. Y. 2014-15 in the return of income for the A. Y. 2013-14. In the intimation u/s. 143(1), the AO did not grant credit for tax deducted at source by one of his two employers but granted credit of the
tax deducted at source by the employer for the A. Y. 2013-14 though not claimed by the Assessee in his return. Thereafter, the Assessee filed his return of income for the A. Y. 2014-15 showing the correct income.

The Assessee filed a revised return of income u/s. 139(4) instead of u/s. 139(5) and filed an application u/s. 264 for the A. Y. 2013-14. The application u/s. 264 was rejected only on the ground that the intimation u/s. 143(1) was not an order. According to the Principal Commissioner, the income of an assessee was dependent on the sources he had, the head under which it was assessed, special rate and applicable if any and that determination of income of any assessee was an exercise which involved deep scrutiny and could not be merely substituted by acceptance of the income claimed by the assessee and determination of total income of the assessee could not be the mandate of section 264. The Assessee filed an application u/s. 154 for rectification of the order passed u/s. 264 which was also rejected.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the orders and held as follows:

“i) The power conferred u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is wide and the Commissioner is duty bound to apply his mind to the application filed by the assessee and pass such order thereon. Section 264 also empowers the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to call for the record of any proceedings under the Act in which any order has been passed and make such inquiry or cause such inquiry to be made and pass such order as he thinks fit. Therefore, if he is of the opinion that a detailed inquiry is necessary and he will be hard pressed for time, he may cause such inquiry made by the Assessing Officer and direct the Assessing Officer to file a report.

ii) The assessee’s inadvertence in filling the details of the A. Y. 2014-15 in his return of income for the A. Y. 2013-14 was not a deliberate mistake or an attempt to gain some unfair advantage or to evade tax. Therefore, the orders passed u/s. 264 and section 154 and the intimation issued u/s. 143(1) were quashed and set aside and the matter was remanded for de novo consideration to the Principal Commissioner to dispose of the assessee’s application u/s. 264 on the merits. He could make any inquiry as he deemed fit or cause any inquiry to be made by the Assessing Officer after giving personal hearing to the assessee for clarification or explanation and thereafter pass a speaking order considering every submission of the assessee.”

Refund — Interest on refund — Refund of TDS — Scope of Article 265 — Tax deducted at source and deposited by assessee in anticipation of contract with non-resident — Cancellation of contract — No authority of law in department to retain remittance to non-resident — Assessee entitled to refund with interest.

50 Tupperware India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT(IT)

[2024] 465 ITR 777(Del.)

A. Y. 2012-13

Date of order: 1st February, 2024

Ss. 195 and 237of the ITA 1961; Articles 226, 227 and 265 of the Constitution of India

Refund — Interest on refund — Refund of TDS — Scope of Article 265 — Tax deducted at source and deposited by assessee in anticipation of contract with non-resident — Cancellation of contract — No authority of law in department to retain remittance to non-resident — Assessee entitled to refund with interest.

The assesse company imported molds during the assessment year under consideration from a company in USA and the payment was made according to the rental agreement between the assessee and the USA Company. As per the agreement, the Assessee had to pay lease rent for mold on the basis of actual production days.

Due to a change in the method of charging mold lease rent, deliberations were made between the Assessee and the USA Company to increase the rent. However, before the negotiations were finalised, the Assessee made a provision for higher rent in the books of account as the estimated lease rent came out to be ₹7,19,96,529. Pursuant to the revised estimate, the Assessee deducted TDS of ₹71,99,653 on the higher side and deposited the same. However, subsequently, the increase in mold lease rent did not happen and the rent was recognised to be only ₹45,80,337 which resulted in excess deposit of TDS of ₹67,41,620 as the actual TDS amounted to only ₹4,58,035.

Accordingly, the Assessee made an application to the AO for refund of higher TDS in accordance with the procedure prescribed under the CBDT Circular dated 23rd October, 2007. However, no action was taken by the AO on the said application. Thereafter, the Assessee filed second application dated 16th January, 2017 which was rejected without providing any opportunity of hearing to the Assessee. Thereafter, on 21st March, 2017, the Assessee filed an application before the senior authority, i.e. Respondent No. 2, but to no avail.

The Assessee, therefore filed writ petition before the High Court challenging the orders rejecting the Assessee’s claim for refund of TDS. The Assessee, inter alia, contended that since the negotiations between the petitioner and Dart USA never culminated into a transaction or any agreement, the Assessee is rightfully entitled for claiming the benefit envisaged in the said circular. Further, if any amount credited to the Government does not fall in the category of tax, the said amount cannot be unjustifiably retained by the Government.

On the other hand, the contention of the Department was that under the provisions of the Act, the deductor is not entitled to the refund of excess tax deducted at source deposited by it and only the payee will get the refund.

The Delhi High Court allowed the petition of the Assessee and held as follows:

“i) The cardinal duty of imposition or collection of taxes which flows from article 265 of the Constitution of India is that it can only be exercised by the authority of law and not otherwise

ii) The Department was not entitled to withhold the excess tax deducted at source deposited by the Assessee in lieu of the anticipated liability for the assessment year 2012-13 since it would amount to collection of tax without any authority of law. Regarding the enhanced mold lease rent, the Assessee while anticipating tax liability had made a bona fide payment and had deposited the tax deducted at source at the rate of 10 per cent. Those deliberations did not materialise into a transaction or a contract and thus no income had accrued qua the excess tax deducted at source paid by the Assessee. Consequently, the Department had no right to retain the deducted tax deposited. The orders denying the refund of the excess tax deducted at source deposited by the Assessee on the ground that it did not fall within the gamut of cases mentioned in the Central Board of Direct Taxes circular dated 23rd October, 2007 ([2007] 294 ITR (St.) 32) was set aside. The assessee was entitled to refund of excess tax deducted at source with interest at the applicable rate.”

Reassessment — Notice —Limitation — Amendment in law — Effect of amendment with effect from 1st April, 2021 — Notices dated 31st March, 2021 but dispatched on 1st April, 2021 or thereafter from Income-tax Business Application Portal — Notices barred by limitation.

49 KalyanChillara vs. DCIT

[2024] 465 ITR 729(Telangana)

Date of order: 14th June, 2024

Ss.147, 148, 149 and 151 of the ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice —Limitation — Amendment in law — Effect of amendment with effect from 1st April, 2021 — Notices dated 31st March, 2021 but dispatched on 1st April, 2021 or thereafter from Income-tax Business Application Portal — Notices barred by limitation.

This judgment deals with a batch of petitions which were before the Hon’ble Telangana High Court challenging the notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act.

In all these writ petitions, the last date of service of notice and initiating proceedings for re-opening of assessment was coming to an end on 31st March, 2021. In majority of the cases, the notice issued u/s. 148 was dated 31st March, 2021. However, the notices have been issued from the office of the Department either on 1st April, 2021 or on subsequent dates. The Assessee’s main contention for challenge was that since in all the cases the notices were issued on or after 1st April, 2021, the notices were hit on the ground of limitation.

It was contended on behalf of the Assessees that under the unamended provisions, a notice u/s. 148 had to be issued and served on or before 31-03-2021 and in case the notices have been served on or after 1st April, 2021 then in view of the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal, the amended provisions would be applicable and the notices in the writ petitions before it would not be sustainable. It was contended that the documents maintained by the Department would indicate the date of actual dispatch and the actual date of service of the notice. Further, since the notices are mostly sent by email, the date of dispatch and the date of delivery are reflected. Even the page on the income tax portal would reflect the date and time at the originator’s place and the date and time at the recipient’s end.

On the other hand, it was the contention of the Department that there are large number of notices in the pipeline with the Income-tax Business Application Department by which the email is sent and since there is too much pressure upon the said Department, the notices are normally delayed more because of the network problem and not for any lapse or lacking on the part of officer. Therefore, probably technically, it has to be presumed that the dispatch has been made but for technicalities that arise because of the system and not because of the fault or lacking on the part of the authorities.

The Hon’ble High Court allowed the batch of petitions filed by the Assessees and held as follows:

“i) All the notices u/s. 148 had been issued (not served) on 1st April, 2021 or on a later date. The question of service of these notices and the date of service of notices upon the assessees was of no relevance or consequence since the notices had been dispatched from the Department on or after 1st April, 2021 which itself was beyond the period of limitation. All the notices issued u/s. 148, dated 31st March, 2021, were barred by limitation u/s. 148 and 149, since these notices had left the Income-tax Business Application portal on or after 1st April, 2021 and therefore, were unsustainable.

ii) The objection raised by the learned counsel for the petitioners that the impugned notices under challenge are barred by limitation is sustained. Therefore, the impugned notices in all these writ petitions are as a con sequence set aside / quashed on the ground of it being barred by limitation.”

Reassessment —Search and seizure —Assessment in search cases — Jurisdiction — Assessment of third person — Reassessment based on incriminating material and information collected prior to and post search — Permissible only u/s. 153C — Failure to assess within time limit for assessment u/s. 153C — Reassessment cannot be made u/s. 147 — Notices and orders set aside.

48 Tirupati Construction Co. vs. ITO

[2024] 465 ITR 611 (Raj)

A. Ys. 2016-17, 2017-18

Date of order: 21st March, 2024

Ss. 132, 147, 148, 148A, 148A(b), 153A, 153B and 153C of ITA 1961

Reassessment —Search and seizure —Assessment in search cases — Jurisdiction — Assessment of third person — Reassessment based on incriminating material and information collected prior to and post search — Permissible only u/s. 153C — Failure to assess within time limit for assessment u/s. 153C — Reassessment cannot be made u/s. 147 — Notices and orders set aside.

The assessee was a firm. The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petitions filed by the assesse against the notices for reassessment u/s. 148A and section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and held as under:

“i) Where the basis for reassessment u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is incriminating material and information collected during the search and seizure operation u/s. 132, the only legally permissible course of action is the one provided u/s. 153C and not u/s. 147.

ii) The information as contained in the annexure to the notice and the order passed in exercise of powers u/s. 148A(d) of the Act made it clear that the entire basis for reopening the assessment was nothing but the material and information collected during search conducted in the premises of another assessee. Collection of details relating to search would not mean collection of new incriminating material and information, independent of the incriminating material and information collected during search proceedings. The earlier notice, dated 31st March, 2021, issued u/s. 148 merely stated that the Assessing Officer had reasons to believe that the income chargeable to tax for the A. Y. 2016-17 had escaped assessment u/s. 147. The later notice, dated June 2, 2022, issued u/s. 148A(b) pursuant to the decision in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC), it was stated that there was information pertaining to the assessee which suggested that income chargeable to tax for the A. Y. 2016-17 had escaped assessment u/s. 147. The notice clearly showed that incriminating material and information was found during the search proceedings and not beyond that and to assume jurisdiction u/s. 148A such information was made a basis to draw inferences which were described as pre search and post search investigations. It had been assumed that the incriminating material and information collected during search followed by collection of details which were intrinsically related to such material and information would confer jurisdiction u/s. 147.

iii) The Department had the authority to reopen the assessment by invoking the powers u/s. 153C and draw reassessment proceedings u/s. 153A. That was not done within the period of limitation prescribed u/s. 153B. The Department was fully aware of the fact that proceedings u/s. 153C would be barred by limitation, and therefore, recourse was taken to the provisions u/s. 148 and section 148A which had no application in the assessee’s case. The orders passed for the A. Ys. 2016-17 and 2017-18 were unsustainable and accordingly, quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Sanction of prescribed authority — Sanction accorded by competent authority by merely stating “yes” — Non-application of mind — Notice and reassessment proceedings invalid.

47 Principal CIT vs. Pioneer Town Planners Pvt. Ltd.

[2024] 465 ITR 356(Del.)

A. Y. 2009-10

Date of order: 20th February, 2024

Ss. 147, 148 and 151 of ITA 1961

Reassessment — Notice — Sanction of prescribed authority — Sanction accorded by competent authority by merely stating “yes” — Non-application of mind — Notice and reassessment proceedings invalid.

Subsequent to search operations u/s. 132 of the Income-tax Act,1961 in the premises of certain group entities, of which the assessee was one, reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 were initiated against the assessee. The assessee requested the Assessing Officer to treat the original return as filed in response to the notice u/s. 148. The Assessing Officer, in his order u/s. 143(3) read with section 147, made additions on account of unexplained share premium and expenditure of commission for accommodation entries.

The Tribunal allowed the Assessees appeal and held that the Assessing Officer had initiated the reassessment proceedings on the basis of borrowed satisfaction and without any application of mind and that the prescribed authority had granted approval u/s. 151 in a mechanical manner.

On appeal by the Department the Delhi High Court upheld the decision and held as under:

“i) Section 151 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 stipulates that the Principal Chief Commissioner or Chief Commissioner or Principal Commissioner or Commissioner must be “satisfied”, on the reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer, that it is a fit case for the issuance of notice u/s. 148 to reopen the assessment u/s. 147. Thus, the satisfaction of the prescribed authority is a “sine qua non” for a valid approval. The satisfaction arrived at by the prescribed authority u/s. 151 must be clearly discernible from the expression used at the time of affixing the signature while according approval for reassessment u/s. 147. Such approval cannot be granted in a mechanical manner as it acts as a link between the facts considered and conclusion reached. Merely appending the phrase “Yes” does not appropriately align with the mandate of section 151 as it fails to set out any degree of satisfaction, much less an unassailable satisfaction, for the purpose.

ii) The Principal Commissioner had failed to satisfactorily record his concurrence. Mere penning down the expression “yes” could not be considered to be valid approval. Though the Assistant Commissioner had appended his signature by writing in his hand “Yes, I am satisfied”, the Principal Commissioner had merely written “Yes” without specifically noting his approval, while recording the satisfaction for issuance of notice u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147.

iii) Therefore, the order of the Tribunal holding that the Assessing Officer had initiated the reassessment proceedings on the basis of borrowed satisfaction and that the prescribed authority had granted approval u/s. 151 in a mechanical manner need not be interfered with.”

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Validity — Effect of section 144B, circulars and instructions of CBDT — Notice must be given for proposed additions to income or disallowance along with necessary evidence.

46 Inox Wind Energy Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2024] 466 ITR 463 (Guj)

A. Y. 2021-22

Date of order: 19th March, 2024

S. 144Bof ITA 1961

Assessment — Faceless assessment — Validity — Effect of section 144B, circulars and instructions of CBDT — Notice must be given for proposed additions to income or disallowance along with necessary evidence.

By this petition under articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India, the petitioner has prayed for quashing and setting the assessment order under section 143(3) dated 29th December, 2022 passed by the respondent-Assessing Officer for the A. Y. 2021-22. It is the case of the petitioner that after the aforesaid notices and replies exchanged between the petitioner and the respondent-Assessing Officer, no further show-cause notice was issued to the petitioner on the proposed addition indicating the reasons along with necessary evidence / reasons forming the basis for such additions by the respondent-Assessing Officer and accordingly the petitioner is deprived of opportunity of personal hearing as the impugned assessment order was passed on 29th December, 2022 by assessing the income at ₹71,06,57,281 raising a demand of ₹24,30,03,540 along with a notice for penalty under section 274 read with section 271A of the Act.

The Gujarat High Court allowed the Petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, which provides for faceless assessment, the Assessing Officer is required to frame the assessment notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of section 144B with prior approval of the Board. On a harmonious reading of the circulars, instructions and letters of the Board, it appears that since 2015 as per the desire of the Board, the Assessing Officer is mandatorily required to issue an appropriate show-cause notice duly indicating the reasons for the proposed additions and disallowances along with necessary evidence and reasons forming basis thereof before passing the final order. As a matter of fact, such position will continue even when the case is transferred to the Assessing Officer u/s. 144B(8) of the Act as per Circular No. 27 of 2019 ([2019] 417 ITR (St.) 68).

ii) The Assessing Officer had committed flagrant breach of the principles of natural justice by not issuing a show-cause notice indicating the reasons for the proposed addition or disallowance along with the necessary evidence forming the basis thereof and, therefore, the assessment order had to be quashed and set aside.

iii) The matter is remanded back to the stage of issuance of show-cause notice by the Assessing Officer to the petitioner duly indicating the reasons for the proposed addition/disallowance along with necessary evidence / reasons forming the basis of the same so as to enable the petitioner-assessee to request for personal hearing if any required in compliance of Circular No. 27 of 2019 ([2019] 417 ITR (St.) 68) read with circular dated September 6, 2021 applicable in the facts of the case. Such exercise shall be completed within a period of 12 weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.”

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Procedure to be followed — Objections filed by assessee against draft assessment order before DRP but factum not intimated to AO — Final assessment order passed by AO without directions of DRP — Assessment set aside and to be framed afresh in accordance with directions of DRP.

45 DiwakerTripathi vs. PCIT

[2024] 465 ITR 622 (Del)

A. Y. 2020-21

Date of order: 1st December, 2023

S. 144Cof ITA 1961

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Procedure to be followed — Objections filed by assessee against draft assessment order before DRP but factum not intimated to AO — Final assessment order passed by AO without directions of DRP — Assessment set aside and to be framed afresh in accordance with directions of DRP.

Though the assessee had preferred its objections against the draft assessment order before the Dispute Resolution Panel(DRP) within limitation as provided u/s. 144C(2)(b)(i) read with section 144B(1)(xxiv)(b)(I) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, it inadvertently failed to intimate the Assessing Officer regarding the objections in terms of section 144C(2)(b)(ii) of the Act. The Assessing Officer passed the final assessment order in the absence of the directions of the DRP.

The assessee filed a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“Once the objections have been filed by the assessee against a draft assessment order within the time limit prescribed u/s. 144C(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the rest of the procedure should be followed as prescribed and the final assessment order ought to be passed by the Assessing Officer in accordance with the directions issued by the DRP. No prejudice would be caused to the Department if the assessment order was set aside as the Department would be well within its rights to pass a fresh assessment order post the receipt of directions from the DRP.”

Sulzer Pumps India Pvt. Ltd. vs. DY. CIT [2024] 465 ITR 619 (Bom) followed.

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Draft assessment order — Assessee filing its objections thereto before DRP but failing to communicate this to AO — AO unaware of pending application before DRP — Final assessment order passed during pendency of assessee’s objections to draft assessment order — Order set aside and AO directed to pass fresh order in accordance with directions of DRP.

44 Sulzer Pumps India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT

[2024] 465 ITR 619 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2017-18

Date of order: 27th October, 2021

Ss. 143(3), 144B, 144C(2), 144C(3), 144C(4), 156 and 270A of ITA 1961

Assessment — Eligible assessee — Draft assessment order — Assessee filing its objections thereto before DRP but failing to communicate this to AO — AO unaware of pending application before DRP — Final assessment order passed during pendency of assessee’s objections to draft assessment order — Order set aside and AO directed to pass fresh order in accordance with directions of DRP.

The assessee, under the belief that with the assessments being faceless and completely electronic, the application filed by it u/s. 144C(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 against the draft assessment order for the A. Y. 2017-18 before the Dispute Resolution Panel(DRP) would automatically be communicated to the Assessing Officer by the DRP, failed to directly communicate to the Assessing Officer. While the application was pending the Assessing Officer passed an order u/s. 143(3) read with sections 144C(3) and 144B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, issued a demand notice u/s. 156 and a penalty notice u/s. 270A.

The assessee filed a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“The Assessing Officer could not be faulted for passing the order in question. However, since the assessee had already filed application raising its objections before the Dispute Resolution Panel and section 144C(4) required the Assessing Officer to pass the final order according to the directions that would be issued by the Dispute Resolution Panel, the order passed u/s. 143(3) read with sections 144C(3) and 144B, the notice of demand u/s. 156 and the notice of penalty u/s. 270A were set aside. The Assessing Officer could pass a fresh order in accordance with the directions of the Dispute Resolution Panel in the pending application.”

Long-term capital loss arising from sale of quoted equity shares with STT paid was eligible to be set-off against long-term capital gain earned from sale of unquoted shares, in view of specific provisions of sections 2(14), 10(38), 45, 47 and 48.

50 Riya Gupta vs. DCIT

[2024] 113 ITR(T) 1 (Kol – Trib.)

ITA NO. 46 (KOL.) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2014-15

DATED: 6th June, 2024

Sec. 70

Long-term capital loss arising from sale of quoted equity shares with STT paid was eligible to be set-off against long-term capital gain earned from sale of unquoted shares, in view of specific provisions of sections 2(14), 10(38), 45, 47 and 48.

FACTS

The assessee filed return of income on 31st July, 2014 declaring total income of ₹18,31,980/. -During the assessment proceedings, the AO called for various information from the assessee which were supplied and replied by the assessee. The AO passed the order making various additions including the addition of ₹47,90,616/- resulting on non-allowance of set off of loss from sale of equity shares on recognised stock exchange with STT paid against the profit on sale of unquoted equity shares. The AO rejected the said action on the ground that the long-term capital gain on sale of quoted shares is exempt u/s 10(38) of the Act and similarly the loss incurred was also not liable to be set off against the other taxable income.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee by upholding the order of the AO on this issue on the same reasoning. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The undisputed facts were that during the year, the assessee had earned long term capital gain of ₹50,00,000/- from sale of unquoted shares of M/s IRC Infra and Reality Pvt. Ltd. and also incurred long term capital loss of ₹47,90,616/- from sale of quoted equity shares which was executed on the recognized stock exchange and STT was duly paid. The issue for adjudication was whether the long term capital loss suffered on sale of equity shares can be set off against the long term capital gain earned by the assessee on sale of unquoted equity shares or not.

The ITAT, after perusing provisions of section 2(14), 45, 47 and 48, observed that nowhere any exclusion or exception has been provided to the long-term capital gain resulting from sale of equity shares. The ITAT observed that it’s only the long term capital gain resulting from sale of shares / securities which was granted exemption u/s 10(38) subject to the fulfillment of certain conditions and not the entire source which was excluded from the aforesaid sections.
The ITAT relied on the following Judgments –

  • Hon’ble Kolkata High Court in the case of Royal Calcutta Turf Club vs. CIT [1983] 144 ITR 709/12 Taxman 133
  • United Investments vs. ACIT TS-379-ITAT- 2019 —Kolkata Tribunal
  • Raptakos Brett & Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT (69 SOT 383) —Kolkata Tribunal

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed for the above-mentioned issue.

EDITORIAL COMMENT

The decision of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of CIT vs. Harprasad& Co. (P.) Ltd.[1975] 99 ITR 118 is distinguished on the ground that the principle laid down by the Hon’ble Apex Court that income includes negative income can be applied only when the entire source of income falls within the charging provision of Act but where the source of income is otherwise chargeable to tax but only a specific kind of income derived from such source is granted exemption, then in such case, the proposition that the term income includes loss would not be applicable. In other words, where only one of the streams of income from a source is granted exemption by the legislature upon fulfillment of specified conditions then the concept of income includes loss would not be applicable.

Commissioner (Appeals) has to decide appeal on merits by passing a speaking order and does not have any power to dismiss appeal for non-prosecution.

49 Meda Raja KishorRaghuramy Reddy

[2024] 113ITR(T)258 (Panaji – Trib.)

ITA NO. 127 (PANJ.) OF 2022

A.Y.: 2014-14

DATE: 28th February, 2024

Commissioner (Appeals) has to decide appeal on merits by passing a speaking order and does not have any power to dismiss appeal for non-prosecution.

FACTS

The assessee had filed return of income electronically on 29th November, 2014 declaring total income of ₹37,60,840/-.The assessee’s case was selected for scrutiny proceedings. The assessee had failed to comply with the notices issued by the AO. The AO passed an ex-parte assessment order making the following additions:

  • ₹6,22,72,638/- under section 68 of the Act as unproved creditors
  • ₹39,62,472/- under section 69 of the Act
  • ₹5,78,850/- on account of difference in Form 26AS and return of income.

On appeal before CIT(A), the CIT(A) in a cryptic manner dismissed the appeal of the assessee.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

DELAY IN FILING APPEAL

There was a delay of 1330 days in filing the appeal which included the period of Covid Pandemic.

Considering the principle of substantial justice, respectfully following the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Gupta Emerald Mines (P.) Ltd. vs. Pr. CIT [2023] 156 taxmann.com 198 (SC) [25-09-2023] and Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court in the case of Hindalco Industries Ltd vs. Pr. CIT Writ Petition No. 569 of 2023/ [2024] 158 taxmann.com 485, the ITAT condoned the delay in filling the appeal.

MERITS OF THE CASE

The ITAT observed that the assessee had filed written submission dated 14th August, 2017 containing following documents — Copy of confirmation of Accounts, Copy of Ledgers, Identity and Address proof of Creditors, cash books, bills, vouchers, bank statements, affidavits etc. The ITAT further observed that Form 35 which is form of appeal for filing appeal before CIT(A) was enclosed with application for admission of additional evidence under rule 46A.

The ITAT further observed the following fall outs in the assessment proceedings —

  • It was possible for AO to collect information directly from renowned companies — Jaypee cement Bangalore & JSW Steel [Sundry creditors of the assessee] u/s 133(6) or 131 of the Act.
  • Some of the creditors appeared in the balance sheet from earlier years – under section 68 the amount which was credited during the year only can be added.
  • Assessee had shown Interest income on FD of ₹1,98,487/- and the AO had merely added ₹40,063/- without discussing what was total interest as per Form 26AS statement
  • Fixed Deposit in Ratnakar Bank Account Number 3158 appeared in the balance sheet of the Assessee — the AO had worked out corresponding FD in the Ratnakar Bank at ₹507,087/- without actually calling the details from the Ratnakar Bank.
  • The AO made an addition of ₹31,700/- as receipt from Gammon India Ltd based on 26AS statement — exact amount and exact name appeared in the Balance Sheet – the AO could have called for information u/s 133(6) of the Act from Gammon India Ltd.

The ITAT held that though the assessee had failed to comply with the notices issued by AO, the AO also failed to carry out necessary investigations and to understand the facts in totality.

The ITAT held that the CIT(A) has discretion to admit the Additional evidence, if there was sufficient cause which prevented the assessee from filling the documents during the assessment proceedings. The discretion had to be used in judicious manner and one must be able to reason out. In this case the CIT(A) had not passed a speaking order for rejecting the additional evidence. The CIT(A) had failed to follow the procedure laid down in Rule 46A.

The ITAT also held that the CIT(A) had not adjudicated each and every ground raised by the Assessee on merits. The ITAT followed the Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court in the case of Pr. CIT (Central) vs. Premkumar Arjundas Luthra (HUF) [2016] 69 taxmann.com 407 wherein it was held that CIT(A) has to decide the appeal on merits and CIT(A) does not have any power to dismiss appeal for non-prosecution.

The ITAT set aside the order of the CIT(A) for de novo adjudication after giving opportunity to the assessee. In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed for statistical purpose.

Where the view taken by the AO that the assessee was eligible for deduction under section 80G for CSR expenses was approved by various decisions of Tribunal, PCIT could not invoke revisional jurisdiction under section 263 on the ground that the order of AO was erroneous.

48 American Express (India) P. Ltd. vs. PCIT

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 91 (Del Trib)

ITA No.: 2468(Delhi) of 2023

A.Y.: 2016-17

Dated: 30th August, 2024

Ss. 263, 80G

Where the view taken by the AO that the assessee was eligible for deduction under section 80G for CSR expenses was approved by various decisions of Tribunal, PCIT could not invoke revisional jurisdiction under section 263 on the ground that the order of AO was erroneous.

FACTS

The assessee had incurred expenditure amounting to ₹5,20,00,000 under section 135 of the Companies Act 2013 dealing with Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). It voluntarily disallowed the same in the computation of income; however, it claimed benefit of deduction under section 80G to the extent of ₹3,21,43,427.

During the assessment proceedings, after examining the assessee’s claim of deduction under section 80G, the Assessing Officer allowed the said deduction. PCIT initiated revision proceedings under section 263 on the ground that claim of deduction under section 80G for CSR expenses was not allowable to the assessee.

Aggrieved by order of PCIT, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) In the past, the Tribunal has considered this issue in various cases and consistently held that though CSR expenses which are mandatory under section 135 of the Companies Act are not allowable as deduction under section 37(1), if any part of CSR contribution is otherwise eligible for deduction under Chapter VI-A, there is no bar on the companies to claim the same as deduction under section 80G.

(b) Merely because the PCIT does not agree with the view taken by the AO, the assessment order does not become erroneous. The view taken by the AO in allowing deduction under section 80G for CSR expenses was approved by various decisions of the Tribunal.

(c) The satisfaction of twin conditions set out in section 263, namely, the order is (i) erroneous; and (ii) prejudicial to the interest of Revenue is sine qua non for exercising revisional jurisdiction. If any of the said conditions are not satisfied, the revisional jurisdictional under section 263 cannot be invoked.

It noted that this view was also supported by coordinate bench in JMS Mining P Ltd. v. PCIT, (2021) 130 taxmann.com 118 (KolTrib).

Accordingly, the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the assessee and quashed the revisional order passed by PCIT.

S. 12AB –Registration under section 12AB could be denied to a trust if it had not complied with the applicable State public trusts law.

47 Gurukul Shikshan Sansthan vs. CIT

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 369(JaipurTrib)

ITA No.: 482(Jpr) of 2024

A.Ys.: 2022-23 to 2024-25

Dated: 3rd July, 2024

S. 12AB –Registration under section 12AB could be denied to a trust if it had not complied with the applicable State public trusts law.

FACTS

CIT(E) rejected the assessee-trust’s application for registration under section 12AB dated 26th September, 2023 on the ground that it was not registered under the Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959, genuineness of the activities of the assessee could not be verified due to non-compliance, and that the assessee had filed incomplete Form No. 10AB.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Before the Tribunal, the assessee filed a request for adjournment stating that the assessee-trust had applied for a certificate under the Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, 1959 and was awaiting such certificate.

Rejecting the adjournment request, the Tribunal, vide an ex-parte order, observed that:

(a) As admitted in the adjournment request, as on the date of application for registration, that is, 26th September, 2023, the assessee was not registered under the Rajasthan Public Trusts Act although such registration was mandated under section 17 of the said Act.

(b) Section 12AB(1) mandates that all the applicable laws shall be followed and if any applicable law is not followed by the assessee, then it is not eligible for registration.

Following the decision of Supreme Court in New Noble Educational Society vs. CCIT, (2022) 448 ITR 594 (SC), the Tribunal held that since the assessee had not followed provisions of Rajasthan Public Trusts Act, it was not eligible for registration under section 12AB.

Additionally, the Tribunal observed that since the assessee had neither submitted the details called by CIT nor filed any document before the Tribunal to prove genuineness of its activities, it was not eligible for registration under section 12AB also on this ground.

A determinate trust with sole beneficiary was liable to be taxed at same rate as applicable to its beneficiary.

46 ITO vs. Petroleum Trust

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 504 (MumTrib)

ITA No.: 2694(Mum) of 2024; C.O. No. 133 (Mum) of 2024

A.Y.: 2021-22

Dated: 2nd August, 2024

S. 161

A determinate trust with sole beneficiary was liable to be taxed at same rate as applicable to its beneficiary.

FACTS

The assessee was a discretionary trust, which held investments mainly for its beneficiary, RIIHL. RIIHL, being a limited company, opted to be taxed under the new tax regime under section 115BAA by filing Form 10-IC claiming to be taxed @ 22 per cent (+surcharge / cess). The assessee-trust, being a representative assessee under section 161, claimed to be taxed at same rate applicable to its beneficiary in its return of income. The tax department disagreed with this position.

CIT(A) accepted the status of the assessee as a representative assessee under section 161 and held that since the assessee is a determinate trust with RIIHL as its sole and 100 per cent beneficiary and settlor and since RIIHL has opted to be taxed under the new tax regime @22 per cent, the assessee-trust was also liable to be taxed at the same rate.

Aggrieved, the tax department filed an appeal before the ITAT. The assessee also filed cross objections in support of order of CIT(A).

HELD

Noting language of section 161(1) and following the decision of Bombay High Court in Mrs. Amy F. Cama vs. CIT,(1999) 237 ITR 82 (Bom), the Tribunal held that the tax shall be levied upon and recovered from a representative assessee in like manner and to the same extent as it would be leviable upon and recoverable from the person represented by him, which meant that the assessee-trust will be subject to same rate of tax as applicable to the person represented by it, that is, RIIHL which was taxed @ 22 per cent under section 115BAA.

 

I : Capital gains is taxable in the year in which possession of constructed premises was received by the assessee and not in the earlier year when occupancy certificate was granted. II : The cost of construction given by the developer which is not supported by any particulars cannot be taken as full value of consideration. Section 50D of the Act, would be applicable and accordingly, the full value of consideration should be computed on the basis of guideline value of land or building that is transferred / received on development.

45 AlagappaMuthiah HUF vs. DCIT

ITA No. 775/Bang./2024&954/Bang./2024

AY: 2017-18

Date of Order: 12th August, 2024

Sections: 45, 48

I : Capital gains is taxable in the year in which possession of constructed premises was received by the assessee and not in the earlier year when occupancy certificate was granted.

II : The cost of construction given by the developer which is not supported by any particulars cannot be taken as full value of consideration. Section 50D of the Act, would be applicable and accordingly, the full value of consideration should be computed on the basis of guideline value of land or building that is transferred / received on development.

FACTS I

The assessee HUF along with Alagappa Annamalai HUF were co-owners of land in respect of which they entered into two development agreements dated 10th February, 2011. Under these Development agreements the properties belonging to these two persons were being developed into both residential as well as commercial units. These two persons were allotted the entire commercial unit and 6 apartment units in the residential units.

In the course of a search conducted in the case of Sri Alagappa Annamalai on 4th July, 2019, a sworn statement was recorded from Sri Alagappa Annamalai as to why the capital gain in respect of transaction of entering into development agreement has not been offered for tax in AY 2017-18. In response, it was submitted that capital gain has been offered in the year in which possession of constructed premises has been received. This was done in absence of information about occupancy certificate and cost of construction. Similar statement was recorded in the case of assessee on 5th July, 2019 under section 131. Thereafter, both the assessee and Alagappa Annamalai retracted their respective statements and stated that the possession of the properties was received by them after development on 8th May, 2017 and accordingly the liability to capital gains arose for the assessment year 2018-19 and not for the assessment year 2017-18 as admitted in their earlier statements. Accordingly, they stated that they would be offering capital gains for the assessment year 2018-19 on the above basis in course of assessment proceedings after receipt of notice.

The assessee, accordingly, filed returns in response to notice u/s.153C of the Act offering capital gains by adopting the value determined by the registered valuer. In the assessment proceedings, the A.O. held that the liability to capital gains arises for the assessment year 2017-18 as occupancy certificate was received on 1st February, 2017 for commercial portion and 17th March, 2017 for residential portion. On the other-hand both these persons contended that the liability to capital gains arose for the assessment year 2018-19 on receipt of possession vide letter dated 8th May, 2017 when simultaneous with receiving possession they have returned the deposits. The AO was of the view that the letter of possession was manipulated in collusion with the builder.

HELD I

The Tribunal observed that reason for taxing the capital gain as income of assessment year 2017-18 is that the occupancy certificate was received on 17th March, 2017. On behalf of the assessee,it was contended that section 45(5A) has been introduced w.e.f. 1.4.2018 and therefore the same does not apply to the present case. Section 45(5A) applies w.e.f. AY 2018-19 and not AY 2017-18. The Tribunal noted that section 45(5A) cannot be applied retrospectively and also that the possession has been received vide letter dated 8th May, 2017. It held that the parties to the transfer of impugned property mutually agreed to hand over the delivery of the possession vide the said letter and it is to be accepted as true unless it is proved otherwise.There is no basis for the allegation made by the AO that the letter of possession is manipulated in collusion with the builder.The Tribunal, relying upon the decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of N A Haris in ITA No.988/Bang/2018 dated 15th February, 2021 held that the capital gain arising pursuant to development agreement dated 10th February, 2011 is to be taxed in AY 2018-19 and not AY 2017-18 as held by the AO.

FACTS II

The assessee in the retraction letter had informed the AO that it had engaged a registered Valuer to determine the value of the property received by it after development and the said value was –

Commercial portion: ₹82,26,36,541

Residential portion: ₹6,89,11,624

—————————————————————————

                        Total: ₹89,15,48,165

===========================================

The assessee computed the capital gains by adopting the above stated value. In the assessment order, the A.O. varied the computation of capital gains by adopting the full value of consideration at ₹120,03,46,357/- based on the details furnished by the Developer vide letter dated 7th January, 2022. While doing so the A.O. has taken the cost of construction reported by the Developer of ₹4,597 per sft for the commercial portion and ₹3,750 per sft. for the residential portion.

The assessee disputed the cost of construction before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) observed that except for one unsigned sheet, the Developer had not furnished any bills or documents in support of the cost claimed to be incurred by the Developer. The DVO had without giving any reasons stated that the valuation as done by the Registered Valuer is understated.

Before CIT(A), reliance was placed on the decision of the Hon’ble Karnataka High Court in the case of Shankar Vittal Motor Company in ITA 653/2016 dated 1st December, 2021 as well as the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of Smt. Sarojini M. Kushe in ITA 475/2016 dated 1st December, 2021. In the aforesaid cases it has been held that the cost of construction given by the developer which is not supported by any particulars cannot be taken as full value of consideration. The Hon’ble High Court has held that section 50D of the Act, would be applicable and accordingly, the full value of consideration should be computed on the basis of guideline value of land or building that is transferred / received on development.

The CIT(A) determined the full value of consideration for transfer of the undivided interest land to the developer at ₹93,80,19,968/- as against ₹120,03,46,357/- taken by the Assessing Officer. The CIT [A] has noticed that the appellant has transferred 1,94,368sft. of land to the developer. The said land has been valued at ₹4,826 per sft. after deriving the same by reducing the guideline value of the building from the guideline value of the super built-up area. This is because the super built-up area includes both undivided interest in land as well as the built-up area. In this manner the learned CIT[A] has held that the deemed value of consideration for the transfer of the undivided share of land in the project pertaining to the developer share was ₹93,80,19,968/-

HELD II

The method adopted by AO for determining the consideration of the impugned transfer of property is not correct. There is no basis for inclusion of cost of land, finance cost and administrative cost for determining the consideration received by the landlord. The Tribunal held that the most appropriate judgment to be followed is the decision of Karnataka High Court in Shankar Vittal Motor Company in ITA 653/2016 dated 1st December, 2021. It held that no fault can be found with the decision of the CIT(A) which has been rendered by following the ratio of the decision of the Karnataka High Court Shankar Vittal Motor Company in ITA 653/2016 dated 1st December, 2021 as also the decision of the Smt. Sarojini M. Kushe in ITA No.475 of 2016 dated 15th December, 2021. The Tribunal dismissed this ground of appeal of the revenue.

Section 143(1) mandates only processing the return of income to vouch for the arithmetical error, detect the incorrect claim of expenses, losses, verify and cross check the claim made in the audit report, claim of deductions, cross verify the income declared in form 26AS or form 16A etc. and the Revenue is not allowed to go beyond that. Claim not made in the return of income, which has been processed, and time for filing revised return has expired can be made only before the administrative officers or the Board and not in an appeal.

44 PasupatiAcrylon Ltd. vs. ACIT

TS-696-ITAT-2024(DEL)

ITA No. 1773/Delhi/2024

AY: 2019-20

Date of Order: 19th September, 2024

Sections: 37, 143(1)

Section 143(1) mandates only processing the return of income to vouch for the arithmetical error, detect the incorrect claim of expenses, losses, verify and cross check the claim made in the audit report, claim of deductions, cross verify the income declared in form 26AS or form 16A etc. and the Revenue is not allowed to go beyond that.

Claim not made in the return of income, which has been processed, and time for filing revised return has expired can be made only before the administrative officers or the Board and not in an appeal.

FACTS

For the year under consideration, the assessee filed its return of income declaring therein a total income of ₹28,98,24,424. The CPC processed the return of income and passed an intimation accepting the return of income as filed by the assessee.

Assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A) raising a ground that the assessee failed to make a claim of certain business expenditures in the return filed by it, which was duly processed u/s 143(1) of the Act. The CIT(A) held that the claim of business expenses u/s 37 after processing the return of income seems an afterthought. He opined that the assessee can easily file the revised return of income if there is any discrepancy in the original return of income before the due date, which the assessee failed to do so. The due date for filing the revised return of income was 30th November, 2020. The contention of the assessee cannot be accepted by simply writing a letter to the concerned authority for allowing the business expenses which was not claimed in the return of income. The CIT(A) relied on the decision of Supreme Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd, wherein the issue was well-settled, any deduction stating that the assessee can revise the return of income within due date for raising any new claim which was not claimed in the original return of income. Accordingly, he dismissed the appeal.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

All the case law relied by the assessee are relating the fresh claim made by the assessee in the regular assessment proceedings, not in the case of preliminary assessment u/s 143(1) of the Act. The mandate of the preliminary assessment u/s 143(1) of the Act is different, it is only to process the return of income to vouch for the arithmetical error, detect the incorrect claim of expenses, losses, verify and cross check the claim made in the audit report, claim of deductions, cross verify the income declared in form 26AS or form 16A etc. The AO is not allowed to go beyond the above mandate given under section 143(1) of the Act.

The Tribunal noted that the asssessee filed the return of income in which it did not make certain claims which, according to the assessee, are genuine. The return was processed accepting the return of income as filed. The time allowed for filing revised return of income having elapsed the assessee found filing an appeal to be an easy option.

The Tribunal considered the possibilities available to make the fresh claim in case the assessee fails to make the claim in the original return of income. These, according to the Tribunal, are:

i. By filing revised return of income (not possible in this case as the limitation period already elapsed);

ii. Claim in the regular assessment, in case the return is selected for scrutiny. (in this case, not selected, the avenue to go in appeal also ruled out);

iii. The assessee can proceed by filing revision application u/s 264 of the Act before the jurisdictional commissioner. The application has to be filed within one year from the date of passing of the relevant impugned order;

iv. The assessee may file an application u/s 119(2)(b) of the Act before the Board. The board may find it desirable or expedient so to do for avoiding genuine hardship to admit an application or claim for any exemption, deduction, refund or any other relief under the Act. The important thing is that there is no limitation period attached to it. The assessee can approach any time when it has genuine claim.

The Tribunal was of the view that the assessee filed the present appeal before it without there being any grievance in preliminary or intimation order in which the Assessing Officer accepted the return of income filed by the assessee. It held that, the assessee may have two types of fresh claim, which may be genuine claim which is traceable from the return filed by the assessee, which can be claimed by the assessee, the other type is debatable issues which may be claimed only upon making proper verification and assessment, this will lead to discretion of the relevant authorities including the Board. It held that the remedy for the fresh claim is not with any appellate authority and the remedy lies only with the administrative officers or with the board. In case the board rejects the application, the remedy available only in the writ proceedings. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee.

For failure on the part of the payer to deduct TDS, the assessee cannot be penalised by levy of interest under section 234C.

43 Standard Chartered Bank (Singapore) Limited vs. DCIT

TS-615-ITAT-2024(Mum)

Assessment Year: 2021-22

Date of Order: 14th August, 2024

Sections: 234B, 234C

For failure on the part of the payer to deduct TDS, the assessee cannot be penalised by levy of interest under section 234C.

FACTS

The assessee, a company incorporated in Singapore, registered as a Category I Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) with SEBI made investments in debt securities and equity shares in India. The assessee filed return of income for the year under consideration on 15th March, declaring a total income of ₹75,66,62,391. The return of income filed by the assessee was processed under section 143(1) and a demand of ₹47,13,33,940 was raised as a result of TDS credit not been granted and interest under section 234B and 234C being levied.

During the year under consideration, the assessee had received interest on commercial papers and non-convertible debentures amounting to ₹62,10,11,200 and ₹13,68,16,712 respectively which was subject to deduction of tax at source @ 20 per cent. The Assessee had also received interest on government securities which was subject to deduction of tax at source @ 5 per cent. On some part of income received from commercial papers, non-convertible debentures and government securities the payers did not deduct tax at source, though they were liable to deduct tax at source under section 196D and 194LD of the Act. Pursuant to the failure of the payer to deduct tax at source the assessee was required to discharge tax liability by way of advance tax at the time of receipt of such interest income from commercial papers, NCDs and government securities. The assessee did pay the full tax on interest receipts as advance tax.

Levy of interest under section 234B was subsequently rectified but the levy of interest under section 234C at ₹51,75,514 stood.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where, on behalf of the assessee, reliance was placed on following decisions –

i) Goldman Sachs Investment (Mauritius) Ltd. vs. DCIT [(2021) 187 ITD 184 (Mum.-Trib.)];

ii) CIT vs. Madras Fertilisers Ltd. [149 ITR 703 (Mad. HC)].

HELD

The Tribunal observed that it is an undisputed fact that on some part of interest received by the assessee on commercial papers, NCDs and Government Securities, payers have faulted in not deducting tax at source. It was observed that for the fault of the payer, the assessee cannot be held responsible. The Tribunal held that in its understanding of the law, for failure on the part of the assessee to deduct tax at source under sections 196D and 194LD of the Act, the assessee cannot be penalised by levy of interest under section 234C. The Tribunal observed that the assessee has diligently discharged its full tax liability by paying entire advance tax on interest income.

Having examined the provisions of section 234C of the Act, the Tribunal held that it can be seen that advance tax is reduced by any tax deductible or collectible which means that the legislators have taken care of liability of the payer to deduct tax at source on payments and to that extent, assessee is not required to pay any advance tax. In the present case, since the payers faulted in deducting tax at source and assessee discharged its liability by paying full tax, the assessee cannot be levied with interest under section 234C of the Act for the fault of the payers. For this proposition, the Tribunal drew support from the decision of the Bombay High Court in Director of Income-tax (International Tax) v. Ngc Network Asia LLC [(2009) 313 ITR 187 (Bom. HC)] where the court held that when a duty is cast on the payer to deduct and pay tax at source, on payer’s default to do so, no interest under section 234B can be imposed on the payee assessee.

The Tribunal held that it is not a case of deferment of advance tax on income as envisaged in section 234C of the Act. The Tribunal directed the AO to delete the interest levied under section 234C.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Deduction under Sections 54 and 54F can be claimed simultaneously qua investment in the same new asset. The covenants in the sale deed executed and registered are conclusive in the absence of any evidence to the contrary. The crucial date for the purpose of determination of date of purchase for the purpose of section 54 is the date when the possession and control of the property is given to the purchaser’s hands.

42 RamdasSitaramPatil vs. ACIT

TS-618-ITAT-2024(PUN)

ITA No. 621/Pune/2022

AY: 2016-17

Date of Order: 7th August, 2024

Sections: 54 and 54F

Deduction under Sections 54 and 54F can be claimed simultaneously qua investment in the same new asset.

The covenants in the sale deed executed and registered are conclusive in the absence of any evidence to the contrary.

The crucial date for the purpose of determination of date of purchase for the purpose of section 54 is the date when the possession and control of the property is given to the purchaser’s hands.

FACTS

The appellant, an individual, filed his Return of Income for the A.Y. 2016-17 on 7th March, 2017 declaring a total income of ₹96,55,810/-. The assessment was completed by the Assessing Officer (AO) vide order dated 28th December, 2018 passed u/s.143(3) of the Act at a total income of ₹2,59,13,610/-. While doing so, the AO disallowed the claim for deduction of income u/s.54F of ₹98,97,654/- and deduction u/s.54 of ₹63,60,146/-.

During the year under consideration, on 9th February, 2016, the assessee entered into a joint development agreement for a consideration of ₹25,00,000 and 7 constructed flats. On 1st November, 2015, he entered into an unregistered agreement to sell a residential flat in Kolhapur for a consideration of ₹80,00,000. The assessee purchased a bungalow at Kolhapur, whose possession was taken on  31st March, 2015, for a consideration of ₹3,06,00,000, of which ₹1,30,00,000 was paid during the period from 20th May, 2014 to 2nd December, 2014 and ₹90,00,000 was paid in cash in 2014 as per MOU dated 19th May, 2014.

In view of the fact that the possession of the bungalow purchased was received on 31st March, 2015, the assessee claimed deduction under sections 54 and 54F against the long term capital gains arising on two transfers effected by him. The said claim was denied by the AO by holding that (1) deduction u/s.54/54F cannot be claimed simultaneously in respect of the same asset; and (2) payment for purchase of new house was made prior to one year before the sale of the original asset.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who vide impugned order confirmed the action of the AO in disallowing the claim for deduction u/s.54/54F by holding that the possession agreement dated 31st March, 2015 is a fabricated document in view of the statement made by him u/s.132(4) of the Act on 19th December, 2014 that the new residential property is in his possession.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the solitary issue in the present appeal revolves around the entitlement of assessee for deduction u/s.54/54F of the Act. It noted that admittedly, the sale consideration was paid prior to the one year before the sale of original asset. The Tribunal held that there is no bar under law to claim deduction simultaneously u/s. 54 and u/s.54F in respect of the same asset. It observed that the crucial fact which needs to be determined in the present case is the date of purchase of the new residential property.

The Tribunal held that it is settled position of law that the crucial date for the purpose of determination is when the property is purchased for the purpose of section 54 and the date when the possession and control of the property is given to the purchaser’s hands.

The Tribunal applying the principle laid down by the Andhra Pradesh High Court in case of CIT vs. Shahzada Begum [(1988) 173 ITR 397] and also the decision of Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. Dr. Laxmichand Narpal Nagda (deceased) [211 ITR 804] and observing that in the present case, the recital of the sale deed clearly says that possession of the property was taken on 31st March, 2015 which is within the period of one year before the date of sale of the original asset. The Tribunal held that the covenants in the sale deed executed and registered are conclusive in the absence of any evidence to the contrary; the finding of the CIT(A) that it is a fabricated document is a mere bald allegation and cannot be sustained in the eyes of law; the appellant is entitled for deduction us/.54/54F as claimed.

Important Amendments By The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Other Important Amendments

The Hon’ble Finance Minister, during the Union Budget presentation, repeatedly emphasised the government’s endeavour to simplify taxation. This series of articles on the Finance (No. 2) Act of 2024 has thoroughly analysed various amendments to the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”) in five earlier parts, bringing out various nuances of these amendments and helping readers assess whether this promise of simplification has been realised.

In this Article, we continue this analysis, examining a few other significant amendments made to the Act.

(A) AMENDMENTS RELATING TO TDS AND TCS:

Reduction in TDS rates:

A series of welcome amendments in the following sections of the Act has been made, reducing the rates of TDS w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 as under:

It may be pointed out that in addition to the above, the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill (“Memorandum”) also contained a proposal to reduce the rate of TDS applicable to payments of insurance commissions u/s 194D of the Act from 5 per cent to 2 per cent in case of a person other than company. However, this proposal did not find place in the actual Finance Bill and consequently, this amendment has not been made in the Finance Act, 2024.

Accordingly, the rate of TDS u/s 194D applicable to payments of insurance commission, continues to be 5 per cent in case of persons other than a company.

TDS on payment to contractors – Section 194C

Section 194C of the Act provides for withholding of tax on payments made to contractors for carrying out “work” as defined therein.

For the purpose of section 194C, “work” has been defined as under:

“work” shall include:

(a) advertising;

(b) broadcasting and telecasting including production of programmes for such broadcasting or telecasting;

(c) carriage of goods or passengers by any mode of transport other than by railways;

(d) catering;

(e) manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from such customer or its associate, being a person placed similarly in relation to such customer as is the person placed in relation to the assessee under the provisions contained in clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 40A

But does not include manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from a person, other than such customer or associate of such customer.
The above exclusion is now expanded w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to cover:

a. Manufacturing or supplying a product according to the requirement or specification of a customer by using material purchased from a person, other than such customer or associate of such customer; or

b. any sum referred to in sub-section (1) of section 194J.

The reason for specifically excluding sums referred to u/s 194J(1) from the definition of “work”, as stated in the Memorandum, is that some deductors have been deducting tax under section 194C of the Act when in fact they should be deducting tax under section 194J of the Act.

Therefore, w.e.f. 1st October, 2024, if any sum paid or payable falls within the scope of “fees for professional services”, “fees for technical services” or others sums specified under section 194J of the Act, tax would have to be deducted under section 194J and not under section 194C even if the same are paid in pursuance of a work contract.

Interpretation of the terms “fees for technical services”, “royalty” and “fees for professional services” as used in section 194J(1) r.w.s. 44AA r.w. CBDT notification pertaining to professional services, itself has been a subject matter of extensive litigation over the years. Now the amendment in section 194C is likely to complicate the issues even further.

An interesting point to note in this context is that the definition of “work”, as per the Explanation to section 194C of the Act specifically includes “advertising”. The proviso to the said Explanation however excludes the sums referred to in section 194J(1) of the Act. Section 194J(1) includes “professional services”, which, as defined in the Explanation to section 194J, covers within its ambit, inter alia, “advertising”. Therefore, the amendment results in a contradiction whereby, “advertising” is specifically included in the definition of “work” but is again excluded by virtue of the carve out to the said definition. This contradiction could likely trigger litigation in regard to payments made under contracts for “advertising.”

One may wonder as to when, on one hand, TDS rates have been reduced for certain categories of payments for the sake of promoting simplification as seen in the foregoing section, whether such amendment in section 194C, which is likely to result in unsettling of accepted propositions, was necessary at all.

Insertion of new section 194T requiring TDS on payment of salary, remuneration etc. to partners of a firm

Section 194T has been inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 which provides that tax shall be deducted at source by a firm on payment to its partners of any sum in the nature of salary, remuneration, commission, bonus or interest. The rate of TDS prescribed is 10% of these sums, deductible at the time of credit or payment, whichever is earlier.

A threshold limit of ₹20,000 has been provided and no tax is required to be deducted if, aggregate of the above sums likely to be credited or paid to a partner does not exceed ₹20,000.

The provision is applicable to sums in the nature of salary, remuneration, commission, bonus or interest only and therefore, it may be concluded that credit or payment of share of profit to a partner is not covered within the ambit of this provision. Further, though no clarity has been provided in the Memorandum in this regard, it would be reasonable to take a view that withdrawals out of opening balance of the capital account of a partner as on 1st April, 2025 would not require deduction of tax at source under section 194T of the Act.

This amendment is likely to result in various practical issues for the firms, as often the bifurcation between allowable remuneration and profit share can only be determined at the end of the year when firm’s books of accounts have been finalized and “book profit” is determined. Further, whether a particular payment has been made to a partner during the year is out of the opening balance as on 1st April, 2025 or out of the sums credited to capital account during the year, can also be an issue for deliberation and maintaining a track of such payments may become a task in itself.

Again, when the partners of a firm would normally be required to pay advance tax, the intention behind this amendment is not clear and would seem contrary to the object of ‘simplification’ of TDS regime.

TDS on sale of immovable property – section 194-IA

Under section 194-IA(1), any person being a transferee, paying any sum by way of consideration for transfer of any immovable property, is required to deduct tax at source at the rate of 1 percent of such sum (or Stamp duty value-SDV, whichever is higher) at the time of credit or payment thereof, whichever is earlier.

Section 194-IA(2) provides that tax is not required to be deducted if the “consideration” for transfer of immovable property and SDV, both, are less than ₹50 lakhs.

Some taxpayers were taking a view that “consideration” for the purpose of the threshold limit as above is qua-buyer rather than qua-property.

Therefore, to clarify the position, a proviso to section 194-IA(2) has been enacted to provide that where there are multiple transferors or transferees, the consideration shall be the aggregate of amounts payable by all transferees to all transferors for transfer of the immovable property, i.e., aggregate consideration has to be considered for the purpose of determining the limit of R50 lakhs under sub-section (2).

Though this provision is made applicable with effect from 1st October, 2024, since it is only a clarificatory amendment, even for the period prior to the said date, it would be prudent to take the same view considering the legislative intent.

TDS on Floating Rate Savings (Taxable) Bonds (FRSB) 2020 under section 193

Presently, under section 193, tax is required to be deducted by the payer at the time of credit or payment of any income to a resident by way of interest on securities.

However, the TDS provision does not apply to any interest payable on any security of the central or state government except interest in excess of ₹10,000 payable on 8 per cent Savings (Taxable) Bonds 2003 or 7.75 per cent Savings (Taxable) Bonds 2018.

W.e.f. 1st October, 2024, interest in excess of ₹10,000 payable on Floating Rate Savings Bonds 2020 (Taxable) (FRSB) or any other security of the central or state government, as may be notified, will also be covered in this exclusion. Consequently, tax shall be required to be deducted from interest in excess of ₹10,000 on FRSB or any other notified security of central or state government.

TCS on notified goods – section 206C(1F)

Presently, tax at the rate of 1 per cent is required to be collected by a seller on consideration for sale of a motor vehicle exceeding in value of ₹10 lakhs.

W.e.f. 1st January 2025, section 206C(1F) of the Act shall also include within its ambit, any amount of consideration for sale of any other goods as may be notified, exceeding in value of ₹10 lakhs.

As clarified by the Memorandum, this amendment is intended to facilitate tracking of expenditure of luxury goods, as there has been an increase in expenditure on luxury goods by high-net-worth persons and accordingly, the goods to be notified under the section would be in the nature of “luxury goods”.

Therefore, one will have to wait and see as to which goods are notified by the CBDT as “luxury goods” requiring collection of tax at source under this provision.

As practically witnessed by the tax professionals and taxpayers so far, often the tax authorities lose sight of the intent behind the TDS/TCS provisions and adopt a hyper technical approach to make additions to income on the basis of TDS/TCS without verifying correctness of such deduction/collection of tax. While TCS provisions are an acknowledged tool for gathering information aimed at reducing revenue leakage, the continuous expansion of their scope raises concerns about the government’s commitment to simplifying the tax system.

Time limit to file correction statements in respect of TDS/ TCS returns

So far, there was no time limit to file correction statements in respect of TDS/TCS statements, to rectify any mistake or to add, delete or update the information furnished in TDS / TCS statements. Section 200(3) and Section 206C(3) of the Act are now amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 to provide that correction statements cannot be filed after the expiry of 6 years from the end of the financial year in which TDS/TCS were required to filed under those sections.

Extending the scope for lower deduction / collection certificate of tax at source

Section 194Q of the Act requires a buyer to deduct tax at source at the rate of 0.1 per cent from consideration payable to a resident seller, if aggregate consideration for purchase of goods is in excess of R50 lakhs in a previous year. Corresponding provisions are there in section 206C(1H) of the Act to require the seller to collect tax at source on purchase of goods as specified.

Recognising the grievance of the taxpayers that in case of lower margins or losses, funds get blocked on account of TDS/TCS which are ultimately required to be refunded, Section 197 is amended w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to include section 194Q within its scope to enable granting of a lower deduction certificate. Corresponding amendments have been made in section 206C(9) as well to enable granting of a lower deduction certificate in respect of tax collectible under section 206C(1H) of the Act.

Tax deducted outside India deemed to be income received

Section 198 provides that tax deducted in accordance with the provisions of Chapter XVII-B i.e., shall be deemed to be income received.

As stated in the memorandum, some taxpayers were not including the taxes deducted outside India declaring only net income in India but were claiming credit for taxes deducted outside India which resulted in double deduction.

Section 198 is amended with effect from 1st April, 2025 to provide that in addition to TDS under Chapter XVII-B, income tax paid outside India by way of deduction, in respect of which an assessee is allowed a credit against the tax payable under the Act, will also be deemed to be income of the assessee in India.

Alignment of interest rates for late payment of TCS

Section 206C(7) of the Act has been amended w.e.f. 1st April, 2025 to provide that where a person responsible for collecting tax does not collect the tax or after collecting the tax fails to pay it, interest at the rate of 1 per cent p.m. or part thereof is chargeable on the amount of tax from the date on which such tax was collectible to the date on which the tax is collected. Interest shall be chargeable at the rate of 1.5 per cent p.m. or part thereof on the amount of such tax from the date on which such tax was collected to the date on which the tax is actually paid.

Before the amendment, a flat rate of 1 per cent per month or part of the month was applicable on the amount of tax from the date on which it was collectible till the date on which it was paid to the government. To bring parity between TDS and TCS provisions, a differential rate of 1.5 per cent has been made applicable for the period from collection of tax till it is actually paid to the government.

Reduction in extended period allowed for furnishing TDS / TCS statements to avoid penalty

Section 271H of the Act imposes penalty for failure to file TDS / TCS statements within prescribed time. A relief is available presently, that no penalty shall be levied if, after paying TDS / TCS along with fees and interest thereon, TDS / TCS statements are filed before the expiry of one year from the time prescribed for furnishing such statements. This period of one year is now reduced to one month, w.e.f.
1st April, 2025.

It may be pointed out that even if the TDS/TCS returns are filed beyond a period of one month on account of a “reasonable cause” within the meaning of section 273B of the Act, no penalty shall be leviable.

Claim of TDS/TCS by salaried employees

While deducting tax from salaries, any income under the other heads of income (excluding loss) and loss under the head of income from house property along with tax deducted thereon can be considered by the employer under section 192(2B).

However, credit for TCS was not being considered by the employers in absence of a specific provision to that effect. Maximum rate of TCS being as high as 20 per cent in certain cases, non-consideration of TCS by the employers while deducting tax from salary resulted in cashflow issues for the employee.

To address this issue, section 192(2B) is amended w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to provide that TCS shall also be considered by the employer while deducting tax from salaries.

This is a welcome amendment providing much needed relief to the salaried taxpayers.

(B) INCREASED LIMITS OF ALLOWABLE REMUNERATION TO PARTNERS

Presently, as per section 40(b) of the Act, the maximum allowable remuneration to any working partner of a firm is restricted to the following limits:

(a) On first ₹3,00,000 of the book-profit or in case of a loss ₹1,50,000 or at the rate of 90 per cent of the book-profit, whichever is more
(b) On the balance of the book-profit At the rate of 60 per cent

 

The above limits were last revised in A.Y. 2010–11 vide Finance Act (No. 2) of 2009.

Now these limits of allowable remuneration to a working partner under section 40(b)(v) are revised w.e.f. A.Y. 2025–26 as under:

(c) On first ₹6,00,000 of the book-profit or in case of a loss 3,00,000 or at the rate of 90 per cent of the book-profit, whichever is more
(d) On the balance of the book-profit At the rate of 60 per cent

However, after a lapse of 15 years, this revision still seems inadequate, and not in line with the effort directed towards granting reduced individual tax rates to small taxpayers. This limit needs to be significantly increased, if any real benefit is intended out of it.

It is important to note in this context that remuneration clause in partnership deeds is often drafted on the basis of the limits prescribed under section 40(b) of the Act. Therefore, it needs to be examined by persons concerned whether any amendments are required to be made in existing partnership deeds, on account of the above change.

(C) ANGEL TAX ABOLISHMENT

Though often referred to as “Angel Tax”, section 56(2)(viib) is, in fact, not just applicable to angel investors but the provision is applicable to all companies in which the public are not substantially interested. As per the pre-amendment provision, where a company (other than a company in which public are substantially interested) received any consideration for issue of shares in excess of fair market value (FMV) of shares, the excess premium was deemed as income in hands of the company.
Section 56(2) (viib) of the Act was inserted vide Finance Act, 2012 “to prevent generation and circulation of unaccounted money” through share premium received from resident investors in a closely held company in excess of its fair market value.

This provision resulted in extensive litigation as the valuation of shares was a crucial factor and the tax officers often disregarded the valuation made by the companies.

Up-to 31st March, 2024, the provision was restricted to consideration received from a “resident” person. W.e.f. 1st April, 2024, it was made applicable to consideration received from non-residents as well.

After having caused significant controversy and litigation for a long period of time, and specifically after having the scope of the provision expanded in immediately preceding year vide Finance Act 2023, now the provision has been abruptly abolished w.e.f. 1st April, 2025. There is no explanation in the Memorandum to help the taxpayers understand the rationale behind such abrupt abolishment of the provision. The lack of a detailed explanation in the Memorandum only adds to the speculation that the provision could be reinstated in future, creating uncertainty in the mind of a taxpayer.

(D) EXPANSION OF POWERS OF CIT(A)

Over the past two-three years, tax professionals have been experiencing significant delays in disposal of appeals at the first appellate level. Particularly, where the issue is decided by the assessing officer ex-parte and requires calling for a remand report for adjudication by the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) [CIT(A)], delays in such cases are excessive and often unreasonable.

Existing powers of CIT(A) did not contain a power to set aside the matter to the file of the assessing officer. During the pendency of the appeal, the taxpayers are required to pay at least a partial outstanding demand, thereby blocking the funds for a long period of time till disposal of the appeal.

Considering the huge pendency of appeals and disputed tax demands at CIT(A) stage, in cases where assessment order was passed as best judgement case under section 144 of the Act, CIT(A) has now been empowered w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to set aside the assessment and refer the case back to the Assessing Officer for making a fresh assessment.

This would mean that the demand raised in the ex-parte assessments would be quashed and would no longer be enforceable.

In the present faceless regime, it is commonly observed that often the notices issued by the assessing officer are sent to an incorrect email address even after the correct address has been notified by the taxpayer. In such cases, on account of the notices remaining un-responded, orders are passed ex-parte and additions made are often deleted subsequently in appeal. However, during the pendency of appeal, taxpayer is unnecessarily required to pay a part of the demand. Practically, obtaining a refund from the department of this payment after disposal of appeal is often a task in itself.

Therefore, this amendment would grant a huge relief in cases of best judgement assessments.

(E) TAX CLEARANCE CERTIFICATE

Section 230(1A) of the Act presently provides that no person who is domiciled in India, shall leave India, unless he obtains a certificate from the income-tax authorities stating that he has no liabilities under Income-tax Act, 1961, or the Wealth-tax Act, 1957, or the Gift-tax Act, 1958, or the Expenditure-tax Act, 1987; or he makes satisfactory arrangements for the payment of all or any of such taxes, which are or may become payable by that person. Such certificate is required to be obtained where circumstances exist which, in the opinion of an income-tax authority render it necessary for such person to obtain the same.
However, we do not see this provision being actually enforced by the income tax authorities.

Now, w.e.f. 1st October, 2024, a reference to the liabilities under Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 (BMA) is also included in section 230(1A) in addition to the liabilities under other laws as stated therein.

As section 230(1A), was rarely enforced even pre-amendment, one can safely assume that the practical implication of the amendment would be restricted to a very limited extent. The CBDT has already addressed the fears of taxpayers.

A corresponding amendment has also been made in section 132B of the Act, to insert a reference to BMA to allow recovery of existing liabilities under BMA out of the seized assets under section 132.

CONCLUSION

Overall, while some of the amendments in this budget are a step in the right direction, others seem to diverge from the promise of simplifying the tax system. These changes could potentially introduce additional complexities rather than streamlining the process.

In light of the Hon’ble Finance Minister’s information that a holistic review of the Income-tax Act is underway, let us hope that the goal of genuine simplification of tax system would guide future reforms!

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Block Assessment

INTRODUCTION

Chapter XIV-B of the Act was earlier inserted in 1995 to provide for the special procedure for assessment of search cases which was commonly referred to as the ‘block assessment’. Under this erstwhile scheme of block assessment, in addition to the assessments which were to be conducted in a regular manner, a special assessment was required to be made assessing only the ‘undisclosed income’ relating to the block period in a case where the search has been conducted.

The Finance Act, 2003 made these provisions dealing with block assessment in search cases inapplicable to the searches initiated after 31st May, 2003 for the reason that the scheme of block assessment had failed in its objective of early resolution of search assessments. It had provided for two parallel assessments, i.e., one regular assessment and the other block assessment covering the same period, i.e., the block period which had resulted into several controversies centering around the treatment of a particular income as ‘undisclosed’ and whether it is relatable to the material found during the course of search etc. Therefore, the new Sections 153A, 153B and 153C were introduced wherein it was provided that the assessments pending as on the date of initiation of search would abate and only one assessment would be made wherein the total income of the assessee was required to be assessed. Further, separate assessment was required to be made for every year involved unlike the single assessment for the entire block period as provided under Chapter XIV-B.

The Finance Act, 2021 further altered the procedure for making the assessment in search cases on the ground that the provisions of Section 153A, 153B & 153C have also resulted in a number of litigations and the experience with the revised procedure of assessment had been the same as the earlier one. On that basis, the provisions of Sections 153A, 153B & 153C were made inapplicable to the search initiated after 31st March, 2021. No special provisions were made to deal with the assessment in search cases. Instead, the provisions dealing with the reassessment i.e., Section 147, 148, etc. which were also altered substantially by the Finance Act, 2021 were made applicable also to the cases in which search has been conducted with suitable modifications.

Now, the Finance Act (No.2), 2024 has once again restored the scheme of ‘block assessment’ as provided in Chapter XIV-B but in a revised form. Unlike the erstwhile scheme of block assessment which had provided for making parallel assessment of only undisclosed income of the block period, the revised scheme of block assessment provides for making only one assessment of the block period including the undisclosed income as well as the other incomes.

The objective of making this amendment as stated in the Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill is that, under the existing provisions not providing for consolidated assessment, every year only the time-barring year was reopened in the case of the searched assessee. It has resulted in staggered search assessments for the same search and consequentially, the search assessment process takes time for almost up to ten years. Therefore, with the objective of making the search assessment procedure cost-effective, efficient and meaningful, the provisions of block assessment have been reintroduced.

THE CASES IN WHICH THE BLOCK ASSESSMENT CAN BE MADE

The new procedure for making the block assessment is applicable in a case where a search is initiated under Section 132 or requisition is made under Section 132A (referred to as search cases in this article) on or after 1st September, 2024. In respect of the search initiated or requisition made prior to 1st September, 2024, the provisions of Section 147 to 151 shall apply as they were in existence prior to their amendments by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024.

Section 158BA provides for the assessment in the case in which search has been conducted or requisition has been made. Section 158BD provides for the assessment of the other person other than the one in whose case the search was conducted if any undisclosed income belonging to or pertaining to or relating to that other person is found as a result of search.

BLOCK PERIOD

For the purpose of the assessment under these provisions, the block period is defined as consisting of the following periods:

  • Six years preceding the year in which the search was initiated; and
  • Period starting from 1st April of the previous year in which the search was initiated and ending on the date of the execution of the last of the authorisation for such search.

There is no provision allowing the Assessing Officer to make the assessment of income pertaining to any year beyond the period of six years prior to the year of search. Further, the part of the year in which the search is conducted till the conclusion of the search has also been included in the block period.

However, Section 158BA(6) provides that the total income other than undisclosed income of the year in which the last of the authorisation for the search was executed shall be assessed separately in accordance with the other provisions of the Act dealing with the assessment.

ISSUING NOTICE UNDER SECTION 158BC(1)

For the purpose of making the assessment, the Assessing Officer is required to issue a notice to the assessee under Section 158BC(1) requiring him to furnish his return of income within the time specified in the notice which cannot be more than 60 days. The assessee is required to declare his total income, including the undisclosed income in respect of the entire block period.

The return so required to be submitted shall be considered as if it was a return furnished under Section 139 and the Assessing Officer is required to issue the notice under Section 143(2) thereafter. However, if the assessee furnishes his return of income beyond the time period allowed in the notice, then such return shall not be deemed to be a return under Section 139.

The return of income filed in response to the notice issued under Section 158BC(1) is not allowed to be revised thereafter.

SCOPE OF ASSESSMENT

As mentioned earlier, the Assessing Officer is required to make an assessment of the total income and not just the undisclosed income relating to the block period under the new block assessment procedure. Further, the period which is required to be covered is the entire block period and, therefore, there would be only one order of assessment covering the entire block period.

The total income of the block period assessable under this Chater shall be the aggregate of the followings:

i. total income disclosed in the return furnished under section 158BC;

ii. total income assessed under section 143(3) or 144 or 147 or 153A or 153C prior to the date of initiation of search;

iii. total income declared in the return of income filed under section 139 or in response to a notice under section 142(1) or 148 and not covered by (i) or (ii) above;

iv. total income determined where the previous year has not ended, on the basis of entries relating to such income or transactions as recorded in the books of account and other documents maintained in the normal course on or before the date of last of the authorisations for the search or requisition relating to such previous year;

v. undisclosed income determined by the Assessing Officer under section 158BB(2).

Here, it may be noted that Section 158BC(1) requires the assessee to declare his total income, including the undisclosed income, for the block period. Therefore, the total income required to be declared should be inclusive of the total income which has otherwise been declared individually for all the years comprising within the block period while filing the return of income under the other provisions. There is no provision allowing the assessee to exclude the total income which has been already included in the returns filed earlier. Therefore, it is not clear as to when does the case envisaged by clause (iii) above can arise i.e., the total income declared in the return filed under Section 139 etc. but not included in the return filed in response to the notice issued under Section 158BC(1).

Further, a similar issue arises where the income has already been assessed under any of the provisions dealing with the assessment (other than search assessment) prior to the date of initiation of the search. The income so assessed should ideally be included in the total income of the block period which the assessee needs to declare in the return to be filed in response to the notice under Section 158BC(1). Therefore, this component of income gets included twice in the above computation; first under clause (i) if it has been included in the total income declared in the return filed under Section 158BC and second under clause (ii). Similarly, in respect of the previous year, which did not end as on the date on which the search was initiated, the income pertaining to that period would also get included twice; first under clause (i) and second under clause (iv). Had the requirement under Section 158BC been to include only the undisclosed income which the assessee wants to declare voluntarily in the return of income, then the manner of computing the total income of the block period would have worked properly.

The ‘undisclosed income’ includes any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing or any expenditure or any income based on any entry in the books of account or other documents or transactions, where such money, bullion, jewellery, valuable article, thing, entry in the books of account or other document or transaction represents wholly or partly income or property which has not been or would not have been disclosed for the purposes of this Act, or any exemption, expense, deduction or allowance claimed under this Act which is found to be incorrect, in respect of the block period.

Such undisclosed income shall be computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act on the basis of evidence found as a result of search or survey or requisition of books of account or other documents and any other materials or information as are either available with the Assessing Officer or come to his notice during the course of proceedings under this Chapter.

It can be observed that the power of the Assessing Officer to make the addition to the total income is limited only to the ‘undisclosed income’ which is defined for this purpose. Therefore, the issues might arise as they have arisen in past as to whether the Assessing Officer is permitted to make the additions which are unconnected with the incriminating materials found during the course of the search. This would be more relevant in the cases in which the assessment under the other provisions of the Act were pending and they have abated as discussed below.

If the income as mentioned at (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv) above is a loss then it shall be ignored. Further, the losses brought forward or unabsorbed depreciation of any earlier years (prior to the first year of block period) is not allowed to be set off against the undisclosed income but may be carried forward further for the remaining period left after taking into consideration the block period.

ABATEMENT OF ASSESSMENT

Since the Assessing Officer is required to assess the ‘total income’ of the block period, it has been provided that any assessment in respect of any assessment year falling in the said block period pending on the date of initiation of search or making the requisition shall abate. Further, if a reference has been made under section 92CA(1) or an order has been passed under section 92CA(3), then also such assessment along with such reference or the order as the case may be, shall abate.

If the proceeding initiated under this Chapter or the consequential assessment order passed has been annulled in appeal or any other legal proceeding, then such abated assessment shall get revived. However, such revival shall cease to have effect if the order of annulment is set aside.

Further, assessment pending under this Chapter itself (consequent to search earlier conducted in the same case) shall not abate and it shall be duly completed before initiating the assessment in respect of the subsequent search or requisition.

LEVY OF TAX, INTEREST AND PENALTY

The total income relating to the block period shall be charged to tax at the rate of 60 per cent as specified in section 113 irrespective of the previous year or years to which such income relates. Such tax shall be charged on the total income determined as above and reduced by the total income referred to in (ii), (iii) and (iv) as listed above. Further, the tax so charged shall be increased by a surcharge, if any, levied by any Central Act. However, presently, no surcharge has been provided for income chargeable to tax for the block period.

There is no specific provision dealing with the rate of tax at which the total income referred to in (ii), (iii) and (iv) will get charged. However, Section 158BH provides that all other provisions of the Act shall apply to assessment made under this Chapter unless otherwise provided.

The interest under section 234A, 234B or 234C or penalty under section 270A shall not be levied in respect of the undisclosed income assessed or reassessed for the block period.

The assessee shall be charged the interest at the rate of 1.5 per cent of the tax on undisclosed income if he has not furnished the return of income within the time specified in the notice issued under section 158BC or he has not furnished the return of income at all. The interest shall be charged for the period commencing from the expiry of the time specified in the notice and ending on the date of completion of assessment.

The Assessing Officer or the CIT(A) may levy the penalty equivalent to fifty per cent of tax leviable in respect of the undisclosed income. No such penalty or penalty under section 271AAD or 271D or 271DA shall be imposed for the block period if the following conditions are satisfied:

i. The assessee has filed a return in response to the notice issued under section 158BC.

ii. The tax payable on the basis of such return has been paid or if the assets seized consist of money, the assessee offers the money so seized to be adjusted against the tax payable.

iii. No appeal has been filed against the assessment of that part of income which is shown in the return.

If the undisclosed income determined by the Assessing Officer is higher than the income shown in the return, then the penalty shall be imposed on that portion of undisclosed income determined which is in excess of the amount of income shown in the return.

TIME LIMIT TO COMPLETE THE ASSESSMENT

The assessment order is required to be passed within twelve months from the end of the month in which the last authorisation for search was executed or requisition was made. If any reference has been made under section 92CA(1), then period available for making the assessment shall be extended by 12 months.

The provisions of section 144C have been made inapplicable to the assessment to be made under this Chapter. Therefore, the Assessing Officer is not required to provide the draft order to the eligible assessee so as to enable him to file the objections before the DRP if he wishes.

The period commencing from the date on which the search was initiated and ending on the date on which the books of account or documents or money or bullion or jewellery or other valuable article or thing seized are handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over the assessee is required to be excluded from the period of limitation.

Several other periods are also required to be excluded from the period of limitation which are similar to the exclusions which have assessment in Section 153 providing for the time limit to complete the other types of the assessment.

ASSESSMENT OF OTHER PERSONS

If the Assessing Officer is satisfied that any undisclosed income belongs to any person other than the person in whose case the search was conducted or requisition was made, then the money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing, or assets, or expenditure, or books of account, other documents, or any information contained therein, seized or requisitioned shall be handed over to the Assessing Officer having jurisdiction over such other person. Thereafter, that Assessing Officer shall proceed under section 158BC against such other person for the purpose of making his assessment under this Chapter. For this purpose, the block period shall be the same as that determined in respect of the person in whose case the search was conducted, or requisition was made. The time limit for completing the assessment of such person is twelve months from the end of the month in which the notice under section 158BC was issued to him. Further, this time period shall be extended by twelve months if any reference has been made under section 92CA(1).

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Re-Assessment Procedures

1 This Article deals with the amendments made by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 to the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dealing with reassessment provisions. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 is referred to as “the Amending Act”, the Income-tax Act, 1961 is referred to as “the Act”. The provisions of the Act as they stood immediately before their amendment by the Amending Act are referred to as “the erstwhile provisions”, the amended provisions are referred to as “the amended provisions” / “the present provisions” and the provisions as they stood immediately before their amendment by the Finance Act, 2021 are referred to as “the old provisions”. In this Article, the effect of the amendments carried out by the Amending Act to the provisions of sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 and 152 of the Act have been analysed.

2 Introduction / Background: The Finance Act, 2021 amended the procedure for assessment or reassessment of income escaping assessment w.e.f. 1st April, 2021. The Finance Act, 2021 modified inter alia the provisions of sections 147, 148, 149 and also introduced section 148A. These provisions led to widespread litigation. The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024 recognises this and states that “multiple suggestions have been received regarding the considerable litigation at various fora arising from the multiple interpretations of the provisions of aforementioned sections. Further, representations have been received to reduce the time-limit for issuance of notice for the relevant assessment year in proceedings of assessment, reassessment or recomputation.” The Amending Act has amended the reassessment provisions with a view to rationalise the reassessment provisions and with an expectation that the new system would provide ease of doing business to the taxpayers since there is a reduction in time limit by which a notice for assessment or reassessment can be issued.

3 Provisions of the Act dealing with reassessment which have been amended and the effective date from which the amended provisions apply: The Amending Act has amended the provisions of Sections 148, 148A, 149, 151 and 152. Sections 148, 148A, 149 and 151 have been substituted and amendments have been carried out to Section 152. The substituted provisions as also the amendments are effective from 1.9.2024. Section-wise amendments carried out and their impact is explained in subsequent paragraphs.

4 Amendments to Section 148: The Amending Act has substituted a new Section 148 in place of the erstwhile Section 148. The effect of the amended Section 148 is as follows:

4.1 Section 148 requires “issuance of notice” as against “service of notice” earlier: The amended section 148 now provides that the Assessing Officer (AO) shall before making the assessment, reassessment or recomputation under section 147 “issue” a notice to the assessee. The erstwhile section 148 provided for “service” of a notice. Therefore, now the limitation period to file the return of income under section 147 will be with reference to date of “issue” of notice as against the date of “service” of notice under the erstwhile provision. While it is true that in the electronic era, since the notices are generated online the same are dispatched instantly and therefore there would normally be no significant difference between the date of issue of the notice and service thereof. However, at times, it is noticed that due to notices being sent to an incorrect email address, there could be a significant difference between the date of issue of notice and service thereof. In such cases, the time available to the assessee to file return of income will be lower to the extent of time period between the date of issuance of notice and the date of service thereof. To illustrate, if the notice is issued on 25th March, 2025 and it provides that the return be furnished by 30th April, 2025, if such a notice is served on 5th April, 2025, then the time available with the assessee to furnish the return of income is shortened by 10 days, since the assessee will come to know of the notice having been issued only when it is served upon him.

4.2 While Section 148 now provides for “issuance” of notice instead of “service” thereof, the service of notice will still be relevant since, as has been mentioned above, unless the notice is served upon the assessee, the assessee will not be in a position to know about its issuance and comply with the same. Also, since section 153(2) has not been amended the limitation period mentioned in section 153(2) for passing of order of assessment, the time limit for reassessment or re-computation made under section 147 continues to be with reference to date of service of notice under section 148.

4.3 When can notice be said to have been “issued”? Since section 148 provides for issuance of notice by Assessing Officer who is an income-tax authority, in terms of section 282A, it will need to be signed in terms of sub-section (1) of section 282A. Such notice has to be signed and issued in paper form or communicated in electronic form by that authority in accordance with procedure prescribed. Rule 127A prescribes procedure for this purpose.

The Allahabad High Court has, in Daujee Abhushan Bhandar (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India [(2022) 136 taxmann.com 246 (All. HC)], after considering the various provisions, dictionary meanings and the case laws on the subject, held that the words `issue’ or `issuance of notice’ have not been defined in the Act. However, the point of time of issuance of notice may be gathered from the provisions of the 1961 Act, Income-tax Rules, 1962 and the Information Technology Act, 2000. Similar would be the position if the meaning of the word `issue’ may be gathered in common parlance or as per dictionary meaning. Merely digitally signing the notice is not issuance of notice. Issuance of notice will take place when the email is issued from the designated email address of the concerned income-tax authority.

4.4 Notice under section 148 to be accompanied by copy of order passed under section 148A(3) : Section 148 as amended by the Amending Act provides that the notice shall be issued along with a copy of the order passed under section 148A(3) of the Act. The erstwhile provision required that the notice shall be served along with a copy of the order passed, if required, under section 148A(d). The absence of the words “if required” in the amended provisions makes it mandatory for the notice to be accompanied by an order under section 148A(3). This mandate will not be possible to be complied with in a case where information has been received by the AO under the scheme notified under section 135A. This is because section 148A(4) provides that the provisions of section 148A shall not apply to a case where the AO has received information under the scheme notified under section 135A. If the assessee challenges a notice which has been issued pursuant to information received under the scheme notified under section 135A of the Act on the ground that it is not accompanied by an order under section 148A(3), the court will hold that the provisions of section 148 are subject to the provisions of section 148A and therefore since an order u/s 148A(3) is not required to be passed in a case where information is pursuant to a scheme notified u/s 148 being accompanied by an order u/s 148A(3) would not apply to such a case. Also, the court may invoke the doctrines explained by the maxims Impossibilium Nulla Obligato Est; Lex Non Cogitad Impossiblia; Impossibiliumnulla Obligatio Est and hold that the revenue is not expected to perform the impossible. These maxims have been followed by the courts in several cases e.g. Standard Chartered Bank vs. Directorate of Enforcement [(2005) 275 ITR 81 (SC)]; IFCI vs. The Cannanore Spinning & Weaving Mills Ltd. [(2002) 5 SCC 54 (SC)]; Poona Electric Supply Co. Ltd. vs. State [AIR 1967 Bom 27]; Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT [(2021(3) TMI 138 – SC] and Dalmia Power Ltd. vs. ACIT [(2012) 112 taxmann.com 252 (SC)]. However, it would have certainly been advisable that the words “if required” were retained in the amended provisions.

4.5 Time limit for filing return of income now at the discretion of the AO subject to outer limit provided in Section 148: Section 148, as amended by the Amending Act, provides that the notice issued shall specify the period within which the assessee is to furnish a return of income. It is also, however, provided that the time period specified in the notice cannot exceed 3 months from the end of the month in which the notice is issued. The erstwhile provisions of section 148 provided that the notice shall call upon the assessee to furnish a return of income within a period of three months from the end of the month in which such notice is issued or such further period as may be allowed by the AO on the basis of an application made in this regard by the assessee.

The time limit available to furnish the return of income will now be at the discretion of the AO. Failure to furnish the return of income within the period specified in the notice will mean that the return of income so furnished will not be regarded as a return furnished under section 139 and all the consequences thereof will follow e.g. the assessee will not be able to file an updated return under section 139(8A); in terms of the decision of the Supreme Court in Auto & Metal Engineers vs. Union of India [(1998) 229 ITR 399 (SC)] there will be no requirement to issue a notice under section 143(2) and the assessment would commence once return of income is filed.

Earlier, under the erstwhile provisions, when the time period of three months from the end of the month in which the notice is served was provided, an assessee could, if the facts of the case so demanded, file a writ petition and the outcome of the Writ Petition could be known before the date by which the return of income was required to be furnished. Now, possibly, pending the decision in the Writ Petition, an assessee will be required to furnish the return of income, unless a stay is granted by the High Court.

4.6 Express power to the AO to grant extension of time to file return of income on the basis of an application made by the assessee now not there: The erstwhile section 148 empowered the AO to grant, on the basis of an application made by an assessee, an extension of time to furnish return of income in response to notice under section 148. Such a power is not there in section 148 as has been introduced by the Amending Act. Further, in view of the outer limit of the period which may be granted to furnish return of income, it is quite possible to take a view that the AO does not have power to grant an extension of time to furnish the return of income. This view can be supported by the contention that there was an express power to grant extension in the erstwhile provisions, which has not been conferred under the amended provisions. Therefore, legislative intent is not to confer such a power on the AO. Non-furnishing of the return of income by the period specified in the return would render such a return to be a return which has not been furnished under section 139 and all consequences thereof will follow.

4.7 Definition of the expression “the information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment” expanded: A notice under section 148 can be issued only if the AO has information which suggests that the income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of the assessee for the relevant assessment year. The expression “the information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment” was exhaustively defined in the erstwhile regime in Explanation 1 to the erstwhile section 148 whereas, under the amended provisions, this expression is defined exhaustively in Section 148(3).
On a comparison of the definition of this expression under the erstwhile provisions and under the amended provisions, one finds that earlier the definition had five clauses whereas now it has six clauses. The five clauses which were there in the erstwhile regime and which continue in the present provisions are:

(i) information received in accordance with risk management strategy;

(ii) any audit objection to the effect that assessment has not been made in accordance with the provisions of the Act;

(iii) any information received under agreements referred to in section 90 or 90A;

(iv) any information made available pursuant to a scheme notified under section 135A;

(v) any information which requires action in consequence of the order of a Tribunal or a Court.

Clause (vi) which has now been added in the definition of the said expression reads “any information in the case of an assessee emanating from survey conducted under section 133A, other than under sub-section (2A) of the said section, on or after the 1st day of September, 2024”.

The scope of the expression prima facie appears to have been widened whereas actually it is not so, since the information pursuant to survey conducted on assessee constituted deemed information under the erstwhile regime.

Earlier, under the erstwhile regime, if a survey was conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)] and if such a survey was conducted on or after 1.4.2021 and it was conducted on the assessee, then it was deemed that AO had information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. Therefore, an action of survey on the assessee which, under the erstwhile regime, constituted deemed information, now results into an information suggesting that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, with the difference being that the present provisions could even cover a case where information has emanated from a survey under section 133A conducted on some other person and not necessarily on the assessee.

Under the provisions as amended by the Amending Act, what is necessary is that the information in the case of an assessee should emanate from a survey conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)]. Based on the language, it is possible to take a view that the survey need not be on the assessee, but the information should emanate as a result of the survey under section 133A [other than under section 133A(2A)].

4.8 Amended provisions do not provide for any situation / circumstance in which the AO shall be deemed to have information with the Assessing Officer which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment:

Explanation 2 to erstwhile Section 148 provided for situations / circumstances in which the AO was deemed to have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. These were cases related to search initiated / books of accounts or documents pertaining to the assessee found in the course of search on some other person / any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing belonging to the assessee and seized in the course of search of any other person / survey being conducted in the case of an assessee under section 133(A).

Now, under the provisions as amended by the Amending Act, since the assessment in search cases is covered by Chapter XIV-B, this provision is not necessary and therefore is not there. As regards information emanating from survey under section 133A, the same has been included in the definition of the expression “information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment”. This has been analysed in earlier paragraph.

4.9 Requirement to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing notice under section 148 done away with, except in cases where information is pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: Under the erstwhile Section 148, up to 31st March, 2022 the AO was required to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing notice under section 148. This approval was in addition to the approval to be obtained by him for passing an order under section 148A(d) of the Act. The Finance Act, 2022 has w.e.f. 1st April, 2022 done away with this requirement in cases where an order under section 148A(d) was passed with prior approval of Specified Authority that it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148.

Under the provisions of Section 148 as amended by the Amending Act, there is no requirement of obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority before issuance of notice under section 148, except in a case where the AO has received information pursuant to a scheme notified under section 135A of the Act [second proviso to section 148].

4.9 Change in Specified Authority: For the purpose of section 148 and 148A, the Specified Authority is as defined in Section 151. Section 151 has been substituted w.e.f. 1st September, 2024. The Specified Authority as defined in present provisions of section 151 is stated hereafter in para 6.2.

4.10 Role of Specified Authority in case information is received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: In a case where information is received by the AO pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A, then the provisions of Section 148A do not apply and a notice under section 148 can be issued by the AO after obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority. In such a case a question arises as to what is the role of Specified Authority? Is the information received under a scheme notified sacrosanct so that no further inquiry / response is to be called for even in a case where assessee challenges the correctness of the information received by the AO? If the information so received is to be regarded as sacrosanct, then the legislature would not have provided the requirement for obtaining prior approval of Specified Authority before issuing a notice under section 148, as that would then be a mere empty formality.

Under the erstwhile provisions as well, the provisions of section 148A did not apply to information received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A. In that context, in Benaifer Vispi Patel vs. ITO [(2024) 165 taxmann.com 5 (Bombay)], an assessee in whose case there was a discrepancy in the information received pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A, challenged the notice issued to her under section 148 before the Bombay High Court. The court held:

i) it cannot be conceived that at all material times, the information available in the electronic mechanism / system, would be free from errors and defects, in as much as the basic information which is being fed into the system would certainly be filed by the manual method and thereafter such information is converted and disseminated as an electronic data.

ii) since assessee had informed Assessing Officer that interest income disclosed in return was correct, such remarks or explanation as offered by assessee necessarily was required to be considered before Assessing Officer could proceed with issuance of notice under section 148.

Amendments to Section 148A: The Amending Act has substituted a new Section 148A in place of the erstwhile Section 148A. The effect of the amended Section 148A is as follows:

4.10 Conducting an enquiry before issuance of notice under section 148A done away with: Section 148A(a) of the erstwhile provisions empowered the AO to conduct an enquiry, if required, with respect to the information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment. This enquiry could be conducted with prior approval of Specified Authority. Results of the enquiry were to be shared with the assessee. As a result of this power, the AO was reasonably assured of the correctness of the information before he could issue a show cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act.

Under the amended section 148A, there is no express power to the AO to conduct an enquiry before issuance of show cause notice. This will result in notices being issued without verification of the correctness of the information, and in cases where enquiry is conducted after issuance of the show cause notice under section 148A(1), to verify the correctness of the contentions of the assessee, then the AO will be under pressure of time to pass an order under section 148A(4).

4.11 Prior approval of Specified Authority not required for issuing notice under section 148A(1): Section 148A(1) of the amended provisions is akin to section 148A(b) of the erstwhile provisions. Like in the erstwhile regime, there is no requirement to obtain prior approval of Specified Authority for issuing notice under section 148A(1). Where AO has information suggesting that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, the AO is mandated to serve upon the assessee a notice under section 148A(1), before issuing a notice under section 148, asking him to show cause why a notice under section 148 should not be issued in his case for the relevant assessment year. An opportunity of hearing has to be provided to the assessee.

4.12 Statutory mandate to provide information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment along with the notice under section 148A: Under the amended provisions of section 148A(2), it is mandatory for the AO to give information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in his case for the relevant assessment year along with the show cause notice. It is the entire information and material which the AO has, which should accompany the notice issued under section 148A(2). Not giving information along with the notice will be a jurisdictional defect rendering the notice bad in law and liable to be quashed. Furnishing the information subsequently upon the assessee asking for the same, may not meet the requirements of the provision. Opportunity of being heard has to be necessarily provided to the assessee. Not granting opportunity of being heard, apart from being a violation of the principles of natural justice, will be contrary to the statutory mandate of section 148A(1) of the Act. Furnishing / giving partial information or portions of information considered relevant by the AO will not be compliance of the mandate of this provision.

It is not necessary that the AO must merely have information but the ‘information’ must prima facie, satisfy the requirement of enabling a suggestion of escapement from tax – Divya Capital One (P) LTD. vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax & Anr [(2022) 445 ITR 436 (Del)]; Dr. Mathew Cherian & Ors. vs. ACIT [(2022) 329 CTR 809 (Mad.)] and Excel Commodity & Derivative (P) Ltd. vs. UOI [(2022) 328 CTR 710 (Cal.)].

4.13 No statutory time limit for furnishing response to show cause notice issued under section 148A(1): Section 148A(2) of the amended provisions provides that an assessee, on receiving the notice under section148A(1), may furnish his reply within such period as is mentioned in the notice.

Under the erstwhile provisions, it was provided that the AO had to grant a minimum time period of seven days and a maximum time period of 30 days to the assessee to furnish his reply. Also, it was provided that the AO may, on an application made by the assessee, extend the time granted for furnishing a reply. However, the amended provisions do not provide for any minimum or maximum period which needs to be granted. Therefore, the time to be granted to furnish a response to the show cause notice will now be at the discretion of the AO. However, principles of natural justice will demand that a reasonable time be granted to the assessee to furnish his response. There could be a debate as to what constitutes reasonable time. One may contend that a time period of two weeks would be reasonable time period and for this one may place reliance on the circulars of CBDT in the form of SOPs for Assessment Unit under Faceless Assessment Scheme, 2019 being Circular dated 19th November, 2020 and also SOP for Assessment Unit dated 3rd August, 2022, where for the purposes of furnishing response to notices under faceless assessment schemes it is stated that a time period of 15 days be granted. The courts in various contexts have held a time period of 15 days to be reasonable time period. At the worst, the time period of seven days provided in erstwhile provisions could be taken to be a reasonable yardstick.

4.14 Section 148A does not apply to cases where information is received pursuant to scheme notified under section 135A: Like in the erstwhile regime, even the amended provisions provide that where information is received pursuant to the scheme notified under section 135A of the Act, then the provisions of section 148A are not applicable to such information. In such a case, the AO can directly issue a notice under section 148 with prior approval of Specified Authority [Section 148A(4)]

4.15 Express power not available to grant extension of time for furnishing reply to the show cause notice issued under section 148A(1) : The erstwhile provisions of section 148A(b) clearly empowered the AO to grant on the basis of an application by the assessee, further time to furnish response to show cause notice issued by the AO. Such an express power is now missing in the amended provisions of section 148A(1) of the Act. Consequently, the AO having granted time (which he considers to be reasonable) mentioned in the notice issued by him, may refuse to grant extension of time on the ground that the section does not provide so. However, it is possible to contend that the AO has an inherent power to grant extension. In the event, the AO issues notice under section 148A(1) when the issuance of notice under section 148 is getting time barred soon, then the AO will be reluctant to grant extension of time and this may result in avoidable litigation.

4.16 Statutory obligation to provide opportunity of being heard continues: Like in the erstwhile regime, even the amended provisions provide for granting an opportunity of being heard. Opportunity of being heard would mean an opportunity of a personal hearing as well. Not granting an opportunity of being heard would be a fatal defect which may lead to the proceedings being quashed.

4.17 Order under section 148A(3) is to be passed on the basis of material available on record and taking into account reply of the assessee. Does material available on record mean only information available with the AO on the basis of which a notice under section 148A(1) has been issued? The amended provisions in Section 148A(3) provide that an order shall be passed by the AO determining whether or not it is a fit case to issue notice under section 148. This order shall be passed on the basis of material available on record and taking into account the reply of the assessee furnished under section 148A(2).

A question which arises for consideration is as to whether, when the provision refers to material available on record, is it merely the information which the AO has which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment in the case of an assessee or is it any other material as well. The AO, on the basis of information which he has, issues a show cause notice, and the assessee furnishes the response thereto. To verify the correctness of the response furnished by the assessee, the AO may make enquiry by exercising powers vested in him under the Act and the results of such enquiry may also be the basis of determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148. However, the results of such enquiry will need to be shared with the assessee and the assessee granted an opportunity of furnishing his response thereto.

This view also gets support from the provisions of section 149, which provide that if three years but not more than five years have elapsed from the end of relevant assessment year, then a notice under section 148A can be issued only if, as per information with the AO, the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. However, when it comes to issuance of notice under section 148, the requisite condition inter alia is that the AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

On a comparison of the two, it is clear that at the stage of issuance of notice under section 148A, what the legislature envisages is merely information with the AO whereas when it comes to issuance of notice under section 148, the requisite condition is AO having in his possession books of account, documents or evidence. It appears that these books of accounts, documents or evidence can come into possession of the AO in the course of proceedings under section 148A as a result of enquiries or otherwise.

4.18 Passing of an order under section 148A(3) requires prior approval of Specified Authority: The amended provisions of section 148A(3) provide that an order can be passed under section 148A(3), determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148, only with the prior approval of Specified Authority. For this purpose, Specified Authority is defined in section 151 to mean Additional Commissioner or Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director, as the case may be. Under the erstwhile provisions as well prior sanction of the Specified Authority was necessary. However, the Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions was as stated in Para 6.2.

4.19 No outer time limit to pass an order under section 148A(3): Section 148A(d) of the erstwhile provisions provided that an order under section 148A(d) was required to be passed within one month from the end of the month in which the reply of the assessee was received and, where no reply was furnished, within one month from the end of the month in which the time or extended time allowed to furnish a reply expired.

Under the amended provisions, there is no outer limit for passing an order under section 148A(3), but the time limit provided in section 149 for issuance of notice under section 148 will indirectly work as an outer time limit for passing an order under section 148A. The AO will need to ensure that he has sufficient time to issue notice under section 148, which has to be accompanied by an order passed under section 148A(3).

5 Amendments to Section 149: The Amending Act, with effect from 1st September, 2024, has substituted a new Section 149 in place of the erstwhile Section 149. Section 149 provides for limitation period beyond which notice under section 148 / 148A cannot be issued.

5.1 Under the erstwhile provisions of section 149 it was only time limit for issuance of notice under section 148 which was provided. The amended provisions of section 149 provide for separate time limits for issuance of notice under section 148A and also for section 148. The time limits and the conditions for issuance of notice are as under:

Time which has elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year Conditions, if any / Observations
For issuance of notice under section 148A
Not more than three years

 

[Section 149(2)(a)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

 

There is no de minimis as far as quantum of income which has escaped assessment is concerned. It could be a miniscule sum or it could be an amount in excess of ₹50 lakh or much more than that too.

More than three years but not more than five years

 

[Section 149(2)(b)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and

 

Income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment, as per the information with the AO, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more

For issuance of notice under section 148
Not more than three years and three months

 

[Section 149(1)(a)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

 

There is no de minimis as far as quantum of income which has escaped assessment is concerned. It could be a miniscule sum or it could be an amount in excess of ₹50 lakh or much more than that too.

More than three years and three months but not more than five years and three months

 

[Section 149(1)(b)]

AO should have information which suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment; and

 

AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

The limitation under section 149 is for issuance of notice under section 148A and not for passing of an order under section 148A(3).

5.2 Illustrations:

i) For A.Y. 2023–24: A notice under section 148A for A.Y. 2023–24 can be issued at any time up to 31st March, 2027 and a notice under section 148 for A.Y. 2023–24 can be issued at any time up to 30th June, 2027, irrespective of the quantum of income which is alleged to have escaped assessment. After 31st March, 2027, notice under section 148A can be issued up to 31st March, 2029 only if the income escaping assessment as per the information with the AO amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. After 30th June, 2027, notice under section 148 can be issued up to 30th June, 2029 only if AO has in possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more. After 30th June, 2029, notice under section 148 cannot be issued for A.Y. 2023–24.

ii) For A.Y. 2019–20: A notice under section 148A for A.Y. 2019–20 can be issued up to 31st March, 2025 only if income chargeable to tax which is alleged to have escaped assessment as per information with the AO is R50 lakh or more and a notice under section 148 can be issued up to 30th June, 2025 if the AO has in his possession books of account or other documents or evidence related to any asset or expenditure or transaction or entries which show that the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to ₹50 lakh or more.

5.3 Under the erstwhile provisions, Explanation to section 149 defined “asset”, whereas the amended provisions do not have definition of “asset”. Therefore, the term “asset” in section 149 would have to be understood in its normal sense as is explained by the dictionaries. The following are some of the meanings of “asset”:

(i) As per Black’s Law Dictionary (Eighth edition), the word “asset” means, an item that is owned and has value; the entries on a balance sheet showing the items of property owned, including cash, inventory, equipment, real estate, accounts receivable and goodwill; all the property of a person available for paying debts or for distribution;

(ii) In Velchand Chhaganlal vs. Mussan 14 Bom.L.R. 633, it was held that the word “assets” means, a man’s property of whatever kind which may be used to satisfy debts or demands existing against him;

(iii) In Funk & Wag-nail’s Standard Dictionary, “asset” has been defined as meaning, in accounting, the entries in a balance-sheet showing the properties or resources of a person or business as accounts receivable, inventory, deferred charges and plant as opposed to liability. The assets also signify everything which can be made available for the payment of debts. [UOI vs. Triveni Engg. Works Ltd., (1982) 52 Comp. Cas 109 (Del)];

(iv) “Asset” is a word of wide import. In its common acceptation the term means property, real and personal, property owned, property rights. It represents something over which a man has domain and can transfer with or without consideration, and which may be reached by execution process – Oudh Sugar Mills Ltd. vs. CIT [(1996) 222 ITR 726 (Bom)].

5.4 Under the erstwhile provision, the sum of ₹50 lakh alleged to be income chargeable to tax which has escaped assessment was to be computed with reference to aggregate of investment in asset or expenditure incurred in various years in which such investment was made or expenditure incurred, whereas under the amended provisions, the limit of ₹50 lakh is qua each assessment year.

5.5 The time limit for reopening the assessments has been reduced from ten years under the erstwhile provisions to five years under the amended provisions.

6 Amendments to Section 151: The Amending Act has, with effect from 1st September, 2024, substituted a new Section 151 in place of the erstwhile Section 151.

6.1 Under the erstwhile provisions, the Specified Authority for granting approval for the purposes of section 148 and 148A depended upon the time period which has elapsed after the end of the relevant assessment year till the date of issuance of the notice / passing of an order for which approval was being granted. Under the present provisions, irrespective of the number of years which have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, the Specified Authority is the same.

6.2 The Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions and under the amended provisions is as mentioned in the Table below:

Number of years which have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year Specified Authority under the erstwhile provisions Specified Authority under the amended provisions
Three years or less PCIT or PDIT or CIT or DIT The Additional Commissioner or the Additional Director or the Joint Commissioner or the Joint Director
More than three years PCCIT or PDGIT or CC or CDG

6.3 The expression “Assessing Officer” is defined in section 2(7A) inter alia to mean Additional Commissioner or Additional Director or Joint Commissioner or Joint Director who is directed under 120(4)(b) to exercise or perform all or any of the powers and functions conferred on, or assigned to, an Assessing Officer under the Act. Therefore, if an Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner has done an assessment of income of the relevant assessment year which is sought to be reopened, can the very same authority be regarded as Specified Authority authorised to grant approval for the purposes of section 148 and 148A? It would be fallacious to contend that same authority which has framed assessment order can grant approval for issuance of notice for reassessment. It is understood that, presently, in practice, Additional Commissioner or Joint Commissioner does not frame assessments and therefore this question is academic.

7 Amendments to Section 152: The Amending Act has, with effect from 1st September, 2024, inserted sub-sections (3) and (4) in Section 152.

7.1 Sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 152 provide that the provisions of sections 147 to 151, as they stood prior to their amendment by the Amending Act shall continue to apply in the following cases:

(i) where on or after 1st April, 2021 but before
1st September, 2024:

(a) a search has been initiated under section 132; or

(b) requisition is made under section 132A; or

(c) a survey is conducted under section 133A [other than under section 133(2A)]; or

(ii) where a case is not covered by (i) above and prior to 1st September, 2024:

(a) a notice under section 148 has been issued; or

(b) an order has been passed under section 148A(d).

7.2 In view of the above, the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151 shall continue to apply to all cases where, up to 31st August, 2024, a notice under section 148 is issued or an order is passed under section 148A(d) of the Act. It is relevant to note that issuance of notice under section 148 up to 31st August, 2024 or passing of an order (and not necessarily its service) under section 148A(d) is sufficient to have the case covered by the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151.

7.3 In respect of a search which has been initiated up to 31st August, 2024, the provisions of erstwhile sections will apply to the assessee in whose case search is initiated. However, if in such a search, any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable article or thing belonging to any other person is seized, then whether, to such other person, the provisions of erstwhile sections 147 to 151 will apply or will the provisions as amended by the Amending Act apply? It appears that it will be the provisions as amended by the Amending Act which will apply. However, the matter is not free from doubt.

8 Consequence of reduction in time limit for reopening from six years to five years:

8.1 As a result of reduction in time period for re-opening of assessments from six years to five years, on 1st September, 2024, i.e., upon the coming into force of the amended provisions, issuance of notice under section 148 / 148A for assessment year 2018–19 will be time barred. However, if for A.Y. 2018–19, a notice under section 148 is issued up to 31st August, 2024 or an order under section 148A(d) is passed up to 31st August, 2024, then the provisions of erstwhile sections 147 to 151 shall apply. The Department is presently trying to issue notices for A.Y. 2018–19, in all cases where the AO has information that suggests that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment.

9 Sanctions to be obtained: Under the erstwhile provisions, as were in force immediately before their amendment by the Amending Act, subject to certain exceptions, approval was required for:

(i) conducting an enquiry before issuance of notice under section 148A(b);

(ii) passing of an order under section 148A(d) determining whether or not it is a fit case for issuance of notice under section 148;

(iii) up to 31st March, 2022, issuance of notice under section 148 in all cases;

(iv) from 1st April, 2022, for issuance of notice under section 148 in cases where an order under section 148A(d) was not required to be passed.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Buy-Back of Shares

BACKGROUND

The tax treatment of buy-back of shares has been a focal point of legislative intervention since the concept’s inception. In a buy-back, a company purchases its own shares for cancellation and pays consideration to the shareholders. From a shareholder’s perspective, this transaction resembles the sale of shares, with the company itself acting as the buyer. However, from the standpoint of the Companies Act, a company purchasing its own shares cannot hold them as treasury stock, and the quantum of the buy-back is partially linked to reserves, aligning its treatment more closely with dividends. This distinction has significantly influenced the legislative framework governing the taxation of buy-backs.

Prior to the Finance Act of 2013, the law provided that any consideration received by a shareholder on a buy-back was not treated as ‘dividend’ due to a specific exemption under section 2(22)(iv). Such buy-back considerations were instead taxed as ‘capital gains’ under section 46A in the hands of shareholders. In the case of shareholders residing in Mauritius or Singapore, India did not have the right to tax capital gains, allowing the entire buy-back proceeds to be repatriated tax-free. Consequently, companies increasingly used buy-backs as an alternative to dividend payments, thereby avoiding the Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT).

This tax arbitrage was addressed by the Finance Act of 2013 through the introduction of section 115QA, which shifted the tax liability to the company executing the buy-back. The Memorandum to the Finance Bill 2013 highlighted the issue:

“Unlisted Companies, as part of tax avoidance schemes, are resorting to buy-backs of shares instead of paying dividends to avoid the payment of tax by way of DDT, particularly where the capital gains arising to the shareholders are either not chargeable to tax or are taxable at a lower rate.”

Following the amendment, the regime for buy-backs became analogous to that of dividends, with the company paying the tax, and the income being exempt in the hands of shareholders under section 10(34A). The Finance Act 2020 abolished DDT (i.e., section 115-O) and reverted to the classical method of taxation, wherein dividends are taxed in the hands of the shareholders. This change led to a shift from a flat DDT rate to variable tax rates for shareholders — 36 per cent for residents and 20 per cent for non-residents (potentially reduced under DTAA rates). However, section 115QA remained intact, with companies continuing to pay tax at a flat rate of 23.296 per cent (inclusive of surcharge and cess), while the shareholders’ income remained exempt under section 10(34A). This discrepancy once again created an opportunity for tax arbitrage. For resident individual shareholders, dividends were taxed at 36 per cent, whereas buy-backs were taxed at 23.296 per cent. Moreover, since the tax was borne by the company, a larger distributable amount remained with the shareholders, prompting unlisted companies to favour buy-backs over dividend declarations to exploit the tax advantage.

This practice was curtailed by the Finance Act (No. 2) of 2024, which introduced a classical, albeit unconventional, split in the tax treatment. The new law proposes to treat the consideration received on a buy-back as a dividend, while the extinguishment of shares by shareholders is treated as a capital gain. This hybrid treatment is the focus of the article’s analysis.

LAW PRIOR TO AMENDMENT

Section 115QA mandated a flat rate of taxation at 23.296 per cent on the company executing the buy-back, while the consideration received by the shareholder was exempt under section 10(34A). The law, as it stood, had several unique features:

  • Tax Liability on the Company: The obligation to pay tax was placed on the company, allowing it to distribute the entire amount computed under section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, to shareholders. The tax paid on the buy-back did not count towards the limits set by the law, enabling a higher payout to shareholders. Consequently, the effective tax rate, on a derivative basis, reduced to 18.89 per cent (calculated as 23.296/123.926*100).
  • Tax on Distributed Income (DI): The tax was levied on the distributed income, which was defined as the amount received by the company upon the issuance of shares, minus the consideration paid on the buy-back. This definition excluded the cost to the shareholder in cases where shares were purchased through secondary transfers, resulting in tax being paid on a higher amount than the actual income generated.
  • Challenges for Non-Resident Shareholders: Since the tax was paid by the company in addition to the corporate tax, non-resident shareholders faced difficulties in claiming tax credits in their home countries. This scenario often led to the possibility of double taxation.
  • Exemption for Shareholders: With the income being exempt in the hands of shareholders and the tax borne by the company, listed companies frequently offered buy-back prices above market value to incentivize participation. Shareholders, seeing significant value appreciation, were thus motivated to tender their shares in the buy-back.

This tax arbitrage was addressed by the Finance Act (No. 2) of 2024, which introduced significant changes to the tax regime governing buy-backs.

AMENDMENT BY FINANCE (NO. 2) ACT 2024

Finance (No. 2) Act 2024 introduced series of amendment introducing novel method to tax buy back. Following are list of amendments:

i) Introduction of section 2(22)(f) in the ‘Act’ to state that any payment by a company on purchase of its own shares from a shareholder in accordance with the provisions of section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013 is taxable as dividend. (Clause 3 of the Bill)

ii) Insertion of proviso to section 10(34A) of the Act to provide that this clause shall not apply with respect to any buy-back of shares by a company on or after the 1st October, 2024. (Clause 4 of the Bill).

iii) Insertion of a proviso to section 46A of the Act w.e.f. 1st October, 2024 to provide that where a shareholder receives any consideration of the nature referred to in sub-clause (f) of section 2(22) from any company, in respect of any buy-back of shares, then the value of consideration received by the shareholder shall be deemed to be “nil’. (Clause 18 of the Bill)

iv) Insertion of a new proviso to section 57 to provide that that no deduction shall be allowed in case of dividend income of the nature referred to in sub-clause (f) of clause (22) of section 2. (Clause 24 of the Bill)

v) Insertion of a further proviso to sub-section 115QA(1) of the Act whereby it would not apply in respect of any buy-back of shares that takes place on or after 1st October, 2024. (Clause 39 of the Bill)

vi) Amendment to section 194 of the Act on deduction of taxes at source @10 percent on payments of dividend, to make it applicable to sub-clause (f) of clause (22) of section 2. (Clause 52 of the Bill)

Provisions are effective from 1st October, 2024. In other words, buy back before cut-off date will be governed by section 115QA. It is advisable that buy back scheme is complete in all respects (including filing with ROC), to avoid transitionary issues.

IMPLICATIONS IN HANDS OF COMPANY

Previously, companies were required to pay buy-back tax under section 115QA. With the recent legislative changes, the law now treats the payment of consideration by the company as a dividend, making it taxable in the hands of the shareholder. Consequently, the company assumes the role of a tax deductor. It will be required to deduct tax under section 194 or section 195 of the Income Tax Act, depending on the specific circumstances. Following the deduction, the company must remit the tax and comply with the filing requirements for TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) and SFT (Statement of Financial Transactions) returns.

The treatment of buy-back proceeds as dividends remains consistent even in scenarios where the company does not have accumulated profits. The deliberate omission of the phrase “to the extent of accumulated profits,” which is present in other provisions of Section 2(22), underscores the intent to classify buy-back transactions as dividends irrespective of the company’s profit status. This is particularly relevant in cases where the buy-back is funded from the securities premium account. However, from an equity perspective, securities premium fundamentally represents a repayment of capital, and therefore, its characterization as a dividend raises questions. The underlying principle is that securities premium should not be treated as a dividend, as it does not constitute income in the traditional sense but rather a return of capital to shareholders.

An intriguing question arises regarding buy-backs conducted under sections 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, which require approval from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). The query is whether such buy-backs will be treated as dividends. This ambiguity exists because section 2(22)(f) of the Income Tax Act specifically refers to the purchase of shares in accordance with the provisions of section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013. A similar situation emerged concerning section 115QA, where the definition of buy-back initially referred only to section 77A of the Companies Act, 1956. This definition was subsequently broadened by the Finance Act of 2016 to include the purchase of shares in accordance with the provisions of any law in force relating to companies. However, this amendment was applied prospectively.

In the absence of a similar broadening of the language in the current context, it can be argued that only buy-backs conducted in accordance with section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, fall within the scope of the new definition of dividend. At the same time, care and caution needs to be exercised as Court / Tribunal in undernoted decision1 have recharacterised buy back as dividend.

On similar lines, redemption of preference shares is governed by section 55 of Companies Act 2013 and should be outside the purview of provisions.

TAX IMPLICATIONS IN THE HANDS OF RESIDENT SHAREHOLDERS

CHARACTERISATION OF BUY-BACK CONSIDERATION

Section 2(22) of the Income-tax Act defines “dividend,” and clause (f) within this section specifically includes payments made by a company for purchasing its own shares as dividends. This definition of dividend is applied consistently across the entire Act, meaning that the consideration received by shareholders during a buy-back transaction will be treated as dividend income. Consequently, this income must be reported under the head “Income from Other Sources” and taxed accordingly.


1 Cognizant Technology-Solutions India Pvt. Ltd., vs. ACIT [2023] 154 taxmann.com 309 (Chennai - Trib.); Capgemini India (P.) Ltd., In re [2016] 67 taxmann.com 1 (Bombay HC)

Section 57 of the Act prohibits any deductions against this income, implying that the entire buy-back consideration will be taxed on a gross basis, without allowing any deduction for the original cost of the shares. Shareholders must also account for this dividend income when calculating their advance tax obligations. However, interest obligations under Section 234C will only commence from the quarter in which the dividend is actually received.

The Act allows this dividend income to be set off only against losses under the heads “House Property” or “Business Loss.” The fiction of treating buy-back consideration as dividend is intended to be applied uniformly throughout the provisions of the Act. For shareholders that are domestic companies, the benefit of Section 80M should be available. In essence, buy-back consideration deemed as dividend can be considered by the company if it further declares dividends to its shareholders or engages in additional buy-backs, allowing the company to claim a deduction under Section 80M. As a result, tax will only be paid on the income exceeding the relief available under Section 80M. Additionally, an Indian company can claim a capital loss for the shares bought back and set it off against future capital gains, effectively allowing for a double benefit under the new regime.

TAX RATE ON DIVIDEND INCOME

Dividend income, classified as “Income from Other Sources,” is taxed according to the applicable income tax slab rates. The highest tax rate for a resident individual taxpayer is 36 per cent. It’s important to note that the surcharge on Buy-Back Tax (BBT) is capped at 12 per cent, compared to a 15 per cent surcharge on dividend income, potentially resulting in a higher overall tax burden on dividend income. On the other hand, if a shareholder’s income falls below the taxable slab limits, the entire dividend income may be tax-free, allowing the shareholder to carry forward the cost of acquisition as a capital loss.

SHARES HELD AS STOCK IN TRADE

The new scheme of taxation primarily addresses cases where shares are held as capital assets. However, an important issue arises when shares are held as stock-in-trade, which is particularly relevant because dividend income is generally required to be offered for tax under the head “Income from Other Sources” without any deductions.

In the author’s view, since these shares are held as business assets, the appropriate head of income for dividend income should be “Business Income” under Section 28 of the Income-tax Act2. This approach would allow for a more accurate reflection of the economic reality of holding shares as part of the business inventory. Accordingly, the cost of shares should be allowed as a deduction when computing the business income, ensuring that the income is taxed in a manner consistent with its treatment as part of the business operations3. This interpretation aligns with the principle of matching income with related expenses, thereby providing a fair and logical tax outcome for shares held as stock-in-trade.


2 Refer CIT v Coconada Radhaswami Bank Ltd (1965) 57 ITR 306 (SC)
3 Badridas Daga v CIT (1958) 34 ITR 10 (SC); Dr TA Quereshi v CIT (2006) 287 ITR 547 (SC)

COST OF ACQUISITION OF SHARES

From the shareholder’s perspective, the buy-back results in the extinguishment of shares. Under the law, the cost of acquisition of these shares is treated as a capital loss, which can then be set off against other capital gains. This treatment is facilitated by an amendment to Section 46A, a special provision introduced by the Finance Act of 1999. This section states that, subject to the provisions of Section 48, the difference between the consideration received on buy-back and the cost of acquisition is deemed to be capital gains for the shareholder.

The Finance Act (No. 2) 2024 adds a proviso to Section 46A, deeming the value of the consideration received by the shareholder as Nil. Since the consideration is deemed Nil, the cost of acquisition becomes a capital loss, which can be carried forward according to the provisions of the capital gains chapter. The law’s intention is to allow shareholders to offset this loss against future gains, thereby economically maintaining the status quo. The Memorandum to the Finance Bill provides detailed numerical examples illustrating this tax neutrality.

Because the consideration is deemed Nil, this treatment applies uniformly across all provisions of the Act. Notably, the provisions of Section 50D or Section 50CA cannot be used to notionally increase the consideration. This fiction of Nil consideration will also hold true in the context of transfer pricing provisions involving non-resident Associated Enterprises (AEs).

An interesting question arises regarding the determination of the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Section 46A. Shareholders may acquire shares through direct purchase, various modes specified in Section 47 read with Section 49, or by acquiring shares before 31st January, 2018, which would qualify for the grandfathering benefit under Section 55(2)(ac). Section 46A references the cost of acquisition and explicitly makes its provisions subject to Section 48, which outlines the mode of computation but does not define the cost of acquisition itself.

While Section 49 provides the cost of acquisition for specific modes of acquisition, Section 46A does not directly reference this section, nor does it explicitly refer to Section 55, which defines the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Sections 48 and 49. This creates ambiguity, as Section 46A does not provide a clear fallback to Sections 49 and 55 for determining the cost of acquisition.

There are two possible interpretations of this issue:

1. Strict Interpretation (Recourse Not Permissible): Some may argue that Section 46A, being a special provision, is intended to override the general provisions of Sections 45 and 47. If this interpretation is followed, it would imply that recourse to other provisions, such as those allowing for a step-up in cost under Sections 49 and 55, may not be permissible. This view treats Section 46A as a self-contained code, limiting the ability to refer to other sections for determining the cost of acquisition.

2. Contextual Interpretation (Recourse Permissible): On the other hand, it can be argued that this interpretation is too extreme. Section 46A is explicitly made subject to Section 48, and Section 55 provides the cost of acquisition for the purposes of Section 48. Therefore, it stands to reason that the cost step-up provisions, including those under the grandfathering rules in Section 55(2)(ac), should be available to shareholders. Additionally, the headnotes of Section 49 state that it pertains to the “cost with reference to certain modes of acquisition,” which suggests that it should be interpreted in a manner similar to Section 55. This interpretation aligns with the legislative intent to preserve the cost base for shareholders, ensuring that they are not disadvantaged by the lack of explicit reference in Section 46A.

In conclusion, while there is room for debate, the contextual interpretation that allows recourse to Sections 49 and 55 seems more consistent with the broader legislative intent and the structure of the Income-tax Act. This approach ensures that shareholders can benefit from the cost step-up provisions, thereby maintaining their cost base and achieving a fairer tax outcome.

The grandfathering provisions under Section 55(2)(ac) require a comparison of three key values: the cost of acquisition, the fair market value of the asset as on 31st January, 2018, and the full value of consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer. Among these, the lowest value must be adopted as the cost base for computing capital gains.

However, the proviso to Section 46A introduces a significant twist by deeming the third limb—the full value of consideration received — to be Nil in the context of buy-back transactions. As a result, the benefit of the grandfathering provisions effectively becomes unavailable in these cases. Since the deemed consideration is Nil, the computed capital gains could potentially be much higher, negating the protective intent of the grandfathering rules.

Given this scenario, shareholders might find themselves better off by selling their shares in the open market and paying tax on the resultant long-term capital gains, rather than opting for a buy-back. This approach would allow them to fully utilise the grandfathering benefit, thereby reducing their tax liability. Consequently, this provision makes buy-back transactions less attractive compared to a straightforward market sale, especially for shares that have appreciated significantly since 31st January, 2018.

TREATMENT OF CAPITAL LOSS

The cost of acquisition treated as a capital loss in the hands of the shareholder falls under the head “Capital Gains” and is governed by Section 74. A short-term capital loss can be set off against either short-term or long-term capital gains, while a long-term capital loss can only be set off against long-term gains. Overall, capital losses can be carried forward for a period of eight years.

Capital loss from a buy-back may arise from both listed and unlisted shares and can be set off against capital gains from the sale of shares, immovable property, or any other capital asset. This broad spectrum of gains available for set-off provides flexibility to shareholders. There may be instances where capital loss may not be available for set off:

  • If no future gains arise within the eight-year period, the capital loss becomes a dead cost.
  • In cases where the transfer is exempt under the Income-tax Act, such as transfers between a holding company and its subsidiary, the capital loss from a buy-back may not be allowable for set-off. Although the buy-back would be fully taxed, the exemption on the transfer prevents the recognition of the capital loss, leading to double jeopardy for the holding company, which faces taxation without the benefit of loss offset.
  • If shares were converted into stock-in-trade prior to 1st October, 2024, and the buy-back occurs after this date, the entire proceeds would be taxed as dividend income. Simultaneously, the suspended capital gains tax on the conversion would become taxable under Section 45(2) of the Income-tax Act. This situation again results in double jeopardy, as the shareholder faces dual taxation. However, in such cases, the fair market value of the stock-in-trade as on the date of conversion should be allowed as a business loss at the time of the buy-back, providing some relief to the tax payer. From an equity perspective, the consideration is taxed as a dividend at a rate of 36 per cent, while the set-off of capital loss is available against long-term gains taxed at 12.5 per cent or short-term gains at 20 per cent. This discrepancy results in higher taxable income, reducing the real gain in the hands of the shareholder. Additionally, shareholders must file a return of income to carry forward the loss in accordance with Section 80, even if they have no other income chargeable to tax.

For the company, capital loss is attached to the company itself. In cases of merger or demerger, there are no transitional provisions since Section 72A only addresses the transfer of business loss. Furthermore, shareholders of unlisted companies cannot carry forward and set off capital losses if there is a change in shareholding that triggers Section 79.

TAX IMPLICATIONS IN HANDS OF NON-RESIDENT SHAREHOLDER

TAX RATE

For non-resident shareholders, dividend income is taxed under Section 115A of the Income-tax Act at a flat rate of 20 per cent (plus applicable cess and surcharge). However, this rate can be reduced under the provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and the shareholder’s country of residence. Depending on the specific treaty, the tax rate may be reduced to 5 per cent4 or 10 per cent5 or 15 per cent6, provided the non-resident shareholder meets the treaty eligibility criteria, such as the Principal Purpose Test (PPT) or the Limitation of Benefits (LOB) clause.


4 Hongkong, Malaysia, Mauritius if shareholding in India Company is at least 15%
5 UK, Norway, Ireland, France
6 USA, Singapore

Regarding the cost of shares, it will be treated as a capital loss, which can be set off in the manner prescribed earlier. However, this brings into focus a potential tax disadvantage for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) shareholders who do not have any other investments in India. The capital loss arising from the buy-back of shares can typically only be set off against capital gains from the sale of shares in the FDI company. In such cases, the conventional route of declaring dividends might be more tax-efficient for the non-resident shareholder, as it would allow for a more immediate and potentially beneficial tax treatment compared to the deferral and potential loss of the capital loss offset in the buy-back scenario.

DIVIDEND CHARACTERISATION UNDER DTAA

Shareholders have the option to choose between the provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) and domestic law, depending on which is more beneficial to them. The Dividend Article under most DTAAs offers a concessional rate of taxation. However, an important consideration is whether the dividend defined under Section 2(22)(f) of the Income-tax Act qualifies as a dividend under the DTAA.

One approach is the “pick and choose” method, where the shareholder adopts the domestic law definition of “dividend” for characterisation purposes and then opts for the concessional DTAA rate. This approach has been supported by courts and tribunals in various cases7, allowing shareholders to leverage the more favourable aspects of both the domestic and treaty provisions.


7 ACIT vs. J. P. Morgan India Investment Company Mauritius Ltd [2022] 143 taxmann.com 82 (Mumbai - Trib.)

Alternatively, one might argue that the dividend under Section 2(22)(f) does not fall within the Dividend Article of the DTAA. If successful, this argument would imply that the consideration received during the buy-back is not taxable as a dividend under the DTAA. Instead, it would fall under the Capital Gains Article, with its computation governed by domestic law. Under Section 46A, the consideration is deemed to be Nil, and this fiction remains absolute, irrespective of the taxability of the consideration in the hands of the shareholder. The “Other Income” Article in the DTAA would only apply if the income is not addressed by any other specific Article.

For this discussion, let’s consider the Dividend Article as defined in the OECD Model Convention (MC) and the UN Model Convention (MC). The definition of “dividend” under these conventions comprises three parts:

1. Income from shares;

2. Income from other rights, not being debt-claims, participating in profits; and

3. Income from other corporate rights which is subjected to the same taxation treatment as income from shares by the laws of the Contracting State of which the company making the distribution is a resident.

These parts are interconnected, particularly through the use of “other” in the second and third parts, which serves as a linking element. While the first two parts are intended to be autonomous, the third part is complementary, including income from other corporate rights, provided it is subject to the same tax treatment as income from shares under the laws of the source State. However, this does not automatically imply that all income treated domestically as dividend would fall within this definition.

Arguments Supporting that Dividend under Section 2(22)(f) Does Not Fall Within the Definition of Dividend under the DTAA:

  • For income to fall under any of the three limbs of the Dividend definition, it must originate “from” shares, other rights, participation in profits, or corporate rights. The term “from” implies a direct relationship between the income and the asset. The asset must exist at the time the income arises, which is a crucial aspect of the definition.
  • All three limbs require the asset to continue existing after the income is realised. This is consistent with the Supreme Court’s decision in Vania Silk Mills, where it was held that the charge under the capital gains article fails if the asset no longer exists after the transaction.
  • The Dividend Article should be interpreted from the shareholder’s perspective, not the company’s. Section 2(22)(f) is specific to the company, as indicated by the words “any payment by a company on purchase of its own shares from a shareholder.” From the shareholder’s perspective, this payment is the consideration received for selling shares, and the tax consequences should not differ merely because the shares are purchased by the company itself.
  • In cases involving buy-backs, there is a conflict between the Capital Gains Article and the Dividend Article. From the shareholder’s perspective, the transaction results in the extinguishment of rights in the company. This is acknowledged by the Memorandum to the Finance Bill, and the amendment to Section 46A, which deems the consideration to be Nil, indicates that the transaction is governed by capital gains provisions. The characterization of the transaction under the treaty should remain consistent, even if domestic law prescribes a different method of taxing the consideration.
  • The first limb of the Dividend definition deals with “income from shares.” If this were interpreted to include income from the alienation of shares, it would render the Capital Gains Article redundant.
  • The references to “other rights” or “other corporate rights” should be understood as rights arising from shareholding, not from the sale of shares. Klaus Vogel supports this interpretation, noting that “corporate rights” are meant to distinguish from “contractual rights” and should stem from a member’s rights within the company, not from a creditor’s right based on a contract or statute.

““With respect to the second element, income will stem from ‘corporate rights’ if it flows to the recipient because of a right held in the company, rather than against the company which implies a direct deviation from a member right as opposed to the right of a creditor based on any other contractual or statutory relationship.”

  • The OECD Commentary on Articles 10 also suggests that payments reducing membership rights, such as buy-backs, do not fall within the definition of dividends. Following are relevant extracts:

“The reliefs provided in the Article apply so long as the State of which the paying company is a resident taxes such benefits as dividends. It is immaterial whether any such benefits are paid out of current profits made by the company or are derived, for example, from reserves, i.e., profits of previous financial years. Normally, distributions by a company which have the effect of reducing the membership rights, for instance, payments constituting a reimbursement of capital in any form whatever, are not regarded as dividends.”

Arguments Supporting that Dividend under Section 2(22)(f) Does Fall Within the Definition of Dividend under the DTAA:

  • The DTAA does not exhaustively define “dividend,” leaving it to the contracting states to provide definitions. As such, Section 2(22)(f) could fall within the scope of the DTAA’s definition.
  • Characterising capital gains transactions as dividends is not unprecedented. For instance, Section 2(22)(c), which deals with capital reduction, treats payments as deemed dividends to the extent of accumulated profits.
  • The Mumbai Tribunal in KIIC Investment Company vs. DCIT8 sdealt with whether deemed dividends under Section 2(22)(e) fall within the Dividend Article of the India-Mauritius DTAA. The Tribunal held that, given the explicit reference to domestic law in the third limb of the definition, deemed dividends under Section 2(22)(e) should be considered dividends under the DTAA. Following are relevant extract:

“We have considered the aforesaid plea of the assessee, but do not find it acceptable. The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty prescribes that dividend paid by a company which is resident of a contracting state to a resident of other contracting state may be taxed in that other state. Article 10(4) of the Treaty explains the term “dividend” as used in the Article. Essentially, the expression ‘dividend’ seeks to cover three different facets of income; firstly, income from shares, i.e., dividend per se; secondly, income from other rights, not being debt claims, participating in profits; and, thirdly, income from corporate rights which is subjected to same taxation treatment as income from shares by the laws of contracting state of which the company making the distribution is a resident. In the context of the controversy before us, i.e., ‘deemed dividend’ under Section 2(22)(e) of the Act, obviously the same is not covered by the first two facets of the expression ‘dividend’ in Article 10(4) of the Treaty. So, however, the third facet stated in Article 10(4) of the Treaty, in our view, clearly suggests that even ‘deemed dividend’ as per Sec. 2(22)(e) of the Act is to be understood to be a ‘dividend’ for the purpose of the Treaty. The presence of the expression “same taxation treatment as income from shares” in the country of distributor of dividend in Article 10(4) of the Treaty in the context of the third facet clearly leads to the inference that so long as the Indian tax laws consider ‘deemed dividend’ also as ‘dividend’, then the same is also to be understood as ‘dividend’ for the purpose of the Treaty.”


8 [2019] 101 taxmann.com 19 (Mumbai - Trib.)
  • The OECD Commentary on Article 13 supports the idea that domestic law treatment can be decisive in determining whether a transaction falls within the Dividend Article, even when the transaction involves the alienation of shares.

“If shares are alienated by a shareholder in connection with the liquidation of the issuing company or the redemption of shares or reduction of paid-up capital of that company, the difference between the proceeds obtained by the shareholder and the par value of the shares may be treated in the State of which the company is a resident as a distribution of accumulated profits and not as a capital gain. The Article does not prevent the State of residence of the company from taxing such distributions at the rates provided for in Article 10: such taxation is permitted because such difference is covered by the definition of the term “dividends” contained in paragraph 3 of Article 10 and interpreted in paragraph 28 of the Commentary relating thereto, to the extent that the domestic law of that State treats that difference as income from shares.”

  • Klaus Vogel’s Commentary (5th Edition, Page 939) also emphasises that domestic law treatment should prevail when determining whether a payment is considered a dividend, thereby supporting the inclusion of Section 2(22)(f) within the DTAA’s Dividend Article.

“Sale proceeds of shares and other corporate rights generally fall under Article 13 and not under Article 10 ODCD and UN MC, as such income is not derived from shares within the meaning of the OECD MC but stems from the alienation of shares. If one considered sale proceeds to come within the meaning of ‘income from shares’, Article 13 OECD and UN MC would still prevail, however, by virtue of its more specialised nature regarding such transactions. Problems may arise, however, in either case, to the extent that such proceeds may represent undistributed profits of the paying company, as it would open up an easy way to avoid source taxation, in particularly by way of share repurchase in lieu of dividend distribution. Thus, the OECD MC Comm. Acknowledges that Article 13(5) does not prevent source State from taxing ‘the difference between the selling price and the par value of the shares’ as dividend in accordance with Article 10 OECD and UN MC where the shares are sold to the issuing company.
……… (Page 981)

Moreover, nothing in the provision requires income to be derived from an ‘equity investment’: a mere recharacterisation of the income (rather than the underlying right) under domestic law is sufficient to trigger the application of Article 10.”

In the author’s view, the reference to domestic law is broad enough to encompass payments falling within the scope of Section 2(22)(f), allowing them to be treated as dividends under the DTAA. This interpretation aligns with the intention to provide clarity and consistency in the application of tax treaties.

TRANSFER PRICING IMPLICATIONS

Under the Buy-Back Tax (BBT) regime, it was possible to argue that in cases involving Associated Enterprises (AEs), the amount of consideration paid by the company needed to be benchmarked against the Arm’s Length Price (ALP) criteria. Shareholders were largely indifferent to this aspect since the income from the buy-back was exempt in their hands. However, the new taxation regime introduces an intriguing dimension to this issue.

Transfer pricing regulations focus on the substance of the transaction. While the transaction is still treated as a dividend in the hands of the company, it will now require benchmarking as if the buy-back were a transfer, meaning the company must determine the ALP of the consideration paid. Theoretically, there should not be any adverse implications if the consideration paid does not align with the ALP, since buy-back payments are not deductible expenses for the company. The company’s primary responsibility remains the withholding of tax.

A plausible interpretation is that the withholding tax obligation applies to the transaction value rather than the ALP value. In hands of shareholder Section 46A deems the consideration to be Nil for tax purposes. This fiction is absolute and is not affected by the ALP price. Thus, benchmarking needs to be done for compliance purposes without any impact on tax computation.

INTERPLAY WITH SECTION 56(2)(X)

Buybacks often involve a company using its free cash flow to purchase its own shares, leading to an increase in the remaining shareholders’ stakes without them having to dip into their own cash reserves. This tactic has become a popular method for realigning shareholding structures, particularly in the context of family arrangements or the elimination of cross holdings. However, when buy-backs are executed at prices below the Rule 11UA value, questions inevitably arise regarding the applicability of Section 56(2)(x).

At first glance, Section 56(2)(x) applies to the “receipt” of property, a term that has been interpreted to mean the receipt that benefits the recipient. In the case of a buy-back, the shares are technically received by the company solely for the purpose of cancellation, with no economic enrichment resulting from this transaction. This lack of enrichment leads to the failure of the charge under Section 56(2)(x). This line of reasoning has found favour in various judicial decisions9.


9. Vora Financial Services (P.) Ltd. v ACIT [2018] 96 taxmann.com 88 (Mumbai); DCIT v Venture Lighting India Ltd [2023] 150 taxmann.com 523 (Chennai - Trib.); VITP (P.) Ltd v DCIT [2022] 143 taxmann.com 304 (Hyderabad - Trib.);

Section 115QA adds another layer of defence. By shifting the liability to pay Buy-Back Tax (BBT) onto the company, Section 115QA acts as a special provision and a self-contained code. According to the principles of statutory interpretation, a special provision like Section 115QA should override more general provisions such as Section 56(2)(x).

However, the new taxation regime introduces a fresh angle to the interplay with Section 56(2)(x). Section 2(22)(f) deems the payment by a company on the purchase of its own shares as a dividend. Sections 194 and 195 impose an obligation on the company to withhold tax on such payments. Following the fiction created by Section 2(22)(f) to its logical conclusion, this payment should be treated as a dividend for all purposes under the Act, effectively preventing the application of Section 56(2)(x) from the outset.

In the absence of any anti-abuse provision requiring the company to pay dividends at fair market value, it is arguable that considerations below the Rule 11UA value should not be taxed under Section 56(2)(x).

COMPARISON WITH CAPITAL GAIN

Under the new regime, long-term capital gains are taxed at a rate of 12.5 per cent, and short-term capital gains are taxed at 20 per cent on net gains (i.e., consideration minus the cost of acquisition). For non-resident shareholders, dividend income is taxed according to the provisions of the applicable DTAA, with most DTAAs providing a concessional rate of 10 per cent for dividend taxation.

Shareholders, particularly those holding stakes in startups or joint ventures, will need to carefully evaluate buy-back as an alternative to conventional exit strategies. In cases where shares have significantly appreciated, opting for buy-back could result in the gains being taxed as dividends, potentially reducing the overall cash tax outflow. Additionally, the cost of acquisition can be offset against other capital gains, thereby improving overall tax efficiency.

This scenario presents an opportunity to structure transactions more efficiently. Instead of providing an exit through secondary sales, shareholders might consider infusing equity into the company, followed by a buy-back. This approach could optimize the tax implications and enhance the financial outcome of the transaction.

BUY-BACK AND INDIRECT TRANSFER

Explanation 5 to Section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act provides that the shares of a company are deemed to be situated in India if they derive their value substantially from assets located in India. Circular No. 4 of 2015, dated 26th March, 2015, clarified that the declaration of dividends by a foreign company does not trigger the provisions of indirect transfer under Indian tax law. The term “dividend” in this context, as stated in the Circular, derives its meaning from Section 2(22)(f) of the Income-tax Act, which includes payments made by a company on the purchase of its own shares from a shareholder in accordance with the provisions of Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013.

A pertinent issue arises when considering buy-backs by foreign companies, which are not conducted in accordance with Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013. This raises the question of whether a buy-back under the corporate law of a foreign jurisdiction falls within the scope of the indirect transfer provisions.

Non-resident shareholders may consider invoking the Non-Discrimination Article under the applicable DTAA to address this issue. Article 24(1) of many DTAAs provides that nationals of one contracting state shall not be subjected in the other contracting state to any taxation or related requirements that are more burdensome than those imposed on nationals of the other state under similar circumstances.

An argument can be made that the reference to Section 68 should be interpreted as indicative of a buy-back governed by corporate law in general, rather than being limited to Indian law. Non-resident shareholders should not be expected to comply with Section 68 of the Companies Act, 2013, as it applies exclusively to Indian companies. The argument of discrimination has been accepted by the Tribunal in the context of Section 79 in the case of Daimler Chrysler India (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT10, where similar principles were considered.


10 [2009] 29 SOT 202 (Pune)

CONCLUDING REMARKS

There’s no denying that Income Tax is fundamentally a tax on real income — at least, that’s the theory. However, with the numerous fictions introduced over the years — each one merrily overriding the last —the Income-tax Act has started to resemble a novel with more plot twists than logic. It’s like watching a thriller where the protagonist, just when you think you understand the story, wakes up to find themselves in an entirely different movie.

As we navigate these convolutions, it’s worth remembering that all of this complexity is supposed to bring us closer to fairness and clarity. But in reality, it’s a bit like trying to assemble flat-pack furniture without the instructions — there’s always one piece that doesn’t seem to fit, and you’re never quite sure if that extra screw was supposed to go somewhere.

With the introduction of a new Income-tax Act on the horizon, one can’t help but feel a mix of hope and trepidation. Will this new Act finally streamline these fictions, or will it just add a few new chapters to the saga? Either way, as tax professionals, we’ll be here — armed with our calculators and a good sense of humour — ready to decipher the next instalment of this ever-evolving tax code.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Capital Gains

The maiden Budget of the Government in their third innings promises simplification and rationalisation of Capital Gains tax regime under the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”). With the said purpose, the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 (“FA (No. 2) 2024”) provides for standardisation of tax rates for the majority of short-term and long-term capital gains tax as well as period of holding of the majority of listed and unlisted capital assets. However, simultaneously, the Capital Gains Chapter of the Act has been amended at various other places making those provisions more complex and litigious thereby clearly contradicting the intention propagated by the Government.

This Article discusses the various amendments brought in by the FA (No. 2) 2024 under the said Chapter1 and the issues arising therefrom.

PERIOD OF HOLDING

Section 2(42A) of the Act determines “Period of Holding” relevant for the purpose of classifying an asset as short-term or long-term. Earlier, there were three holding periods, namely, 12 months, 24 months and 36 months. The period of 12 months was applicable for selected assets such as listed shares, listed equity oriented funds and zero coupon bonds. Further, the period of 24 months was applicable to unlisted shares and immovable properties, being land or building or both.

The said section has now been amended with effect from 23rd July, 2024 so that now, all listed securities shall be regarded as long-term capital asset if held for more than twelve months and all other capital assets shall be regarded as long-term capital asset if held for more than 24 months.

The same is summarised as under:

Nature of Capital Asset Short term Long term
Listed securities =< 12 months > 12 months
Other Assets =< 24 months > 24 months

The said amendment shall apply to any “transfer” of capital asset undertaken on or after 23rd July, 2024. The word “transfer” would need to be understood as used under the Act in the context of capital assets. Hence, where a capital asset was converted before 23rd July, 2024, the same would be considered to be transferred prior to 23rd July, 2024 due to the specific provisions of section 45(2) and accordingly, the old period of holding shall apply even if the converted asset is sold on or after
23rd July, 2024.

Though the intention of the Legislature is to cover all assets within this purview, the said standard rule would still not apply in case of transfer of an undertaking by way of a slump sale which is governed by the provisions of section 50B of the Act. The proviso to sub-section (1) therein specifically provides that any profits or gains arising from the transfer under the slump sale of any capital asset being one or more undertakings owned and held by an assessee for not more than thirty-six months immediately preceding the date of its transfer shall be deemed to be the capital gains arising from the transfer of short-term capital assets. Hence, a case of slump sale shall be an exception to the general rule as provided through the FA (No. 2) 2024.

Further, listed securities for the purpose of section 2(42A) means the securities as listed on the recognised stock exchanges of India. Accordingly, for foreign listed securities, the relevant period of holding shall still be 24 months and not 12 months.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

RATE OF TAX

Section 112 and section 112A of the Act provides for specific rates of income tax on long-term capital gains in respect of various categories of assets.

Further, section 111A of the Act provides for a specific rate of income tax on short-term capital gains arising from transfer of equity share in a company or a unit of an equity oriented fund or a unit of a business trust (REIT and InVit), subject to the conditions as provided therein.

The rate of tax under the said sections prior to the amendment are tabulated hereunder:

Section Nature of Asset Nature of Capital Gain Rate of Tax
112A Eligible Listed securities* LT 10%
112 Any other long term Capital asset except those covered u/s. 50AA LT 20%**
112(1)(c)(iii)  Unlisted securities transferred by a non-resident/foreign company LT 10% without indexation
111A Eligible Listed securities* ST 15%

* i.e., equity shares, units of equity-oriented funds and business trusts, on which STT is paid at the time of transfer.

** In case of listed securities (other than units) and zero-coupon bonds, option of tax at 10% without indexation is available.

For cases not falling under these provisions, the capital gains are taxable as per the normal applicable rate as provided in the relevant Finance Act.

Further, an exemption up to ₹1 lakh is available from long term capital gain covered u/s. 112A.

Pursuant to various amendments vide FA (No. 2) 2024, the rate of tax applicable w.e.f. 23rd July, 2024 would be as under:

Long-term capital gains: FA (No. 2) 2024 provides a universal tax rate of 12.5 per cent without indexation for all types of long-term capital gains, irrespective of whether the asset is listed or unlisted, STT paid or not, Indian or foreign, held by resident or non-resident, subject to certain exceptions, which are as under:

  • Capital gains arising from assets covered u/s. 50AA is deemed to be short-term capital gains irrespective of period of holding;
  • Capital gains arising from transfer of depreciable assets also continue to be taxed as short-term capital gains u/s. 50A of the Act;
  • In case of immovable property acquired before 23rd July, 2024 by resident individuals or HUFs, the assessee shall have an option to adopt tax rate at 12.5 per cent without indexation or 20 per cent with indexation, whichever is lower. However, loss based on indexed cost would not be allowed to be set-off or carried forward.
  • For non-resident assessees, the benefit of adjustment of foreign exchange fluctuation under first proviso to section 48 on transfer of shares/debentures of Indian Companies continues.
  • Lastly, capital gains up to ₹1.25 Lakhs (aggregate) would not be subject to tax u/s. 112A of the Act. The said limit of ₹1.25 Lakhs would apply to the entire capital gains, whether relating to transfer before or after 23rd July, 2024. Hence, for AY 2025-26, Assessee may choose to set-off this limit against the eligible capital gains u/s. 112A earned pursuant to transfers before 23rd July, 2024, the same being more beneficial to them. For the said purpose, reliance may be placed on the CBDT Circular No. 26(LXXVI-3) [F. No. 4(53)-IT/54], dated 7th July, 1955, wherein the CBDT has clarified that in the absence of any indication on the manner of set-off, the general rule to be followed in all fiscal enactments is that where words used are neutral in import, a construction most beneficial to the assessee should be adopted. Further, it is also settled rule of interpretation that the interpretation, which is more favourable to the taxpayer should prevail, as has been held in the under-noted cases:
  • CIT vs. Vegetable Products Ltd. (88 ITR 192) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Kulu Valley Transport Co. Pvt. Ltd. (77 ITR 518, 530) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Madho Prasad Jatia (105 ITR 179) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Naga Hills Tea (89 ITR 236, 240) (SC);
  • CIT vs. Shahzada Nand (60 ITR 392, 400) (SC).

To give effect to the above, various sections viz. sections 112, 112A, Section 115AD, 115AB, 115AC, 115ACA, 115E, 196B and 196C have been amended to change the rate mentioned therein from 20 per cent to 12.5 per cent in case of long-term capital gains.

The said amendments would apply to transfers undertaken on or after 23rd July, 2024.

SHORT-TERM CAPITAL GAINS

In case of short-term capital gains arising from transfer of equity shares, units of equity-oriented funds and business trusts, on which STT is paid at the time of their transfer, the rate of tax has been increased from 15 per cent to 20 per cent for transfers affected on or after 23rd July, 2024.

Corresponding amendment is made in section 115AD of the Act, which provides rates of taxes for FIIs.

The rate of tax on short-term capital gains for other assets, shall continue to be governed by the rates as applicable to the assessee as per the relevant Finance Act.

These amendments will take effect from 23rd July, 2024 and will accordingly apply in relation to the transfer taking place on or after the said date.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

DEEMED SHORT-TERM CAPITAL GAINS U/S. 50AA

FA, 2023 inserted a new provision, Section 50AA which provides for treating the capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of ‘Market Linked Debentures’ and unit of a ‘Specified Mutual Fund’ as short-term capital gain irrespective of the period of holding.

‘Specified Mutual Fund’ was defined to mean a ‘Mutual Fund by whatever name called, where not more than 35% of its total proceeds is invested in the equity shares of domestic companies’.

The said provision was not applicable to any gain arising from transfer of unlisted bonds and unlisted debentures and accordingly, the same was taxed at the rate of 20 per cent without indexation (in case of LTCG) or at applicable rates (in case of STCG).

Section 50AA has been amended vide FA (No. 2) 2024 redefining the term ‘Specified Mutual Fund’ with effect from AY 2026-27 as under:

  • a Mutual Fund by whatever name called, where more than 65 per centof its total proceeds is invested in debt and money market instruments.
  • a fund which invests at least 65 per cent of its total proceeds in units of a fund referred above (FOFs).

As would be observed, under the new definition, the language has been replaced from earlier negative condition of ‘not’ holding more than 35 per cent in equity shares to a positive condition of holding at least 65% of the total proceeds in debt and money market instruments. As a result, funds other than equity-oriented funds which were covered under the earlier definition, such as on the ETFs, Gold Mutual Fund, Gold ETFs, etc. now stand excluded as such funds do not invest 65 per cent or more of their proceeds in debt instruments.

The said amendment in the definition of ‘Specified Mutual Funds’ is effective only from AY 2026-27 i.e., AY 2026-27 applicable to FY 2025-26 and therefore, capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of unit of funds like ETFs, Gold Mutual Fund, Gold ETFs acquired after 1st April, 2023 and transferred till 31st March, 2025 will still be covered by the existing provisions of Section 50AA.

Further, the scope of section 50AA has been expanded to tax the capital gain arising from transfer, redemption or maturity of unlisted bonds and unlisted debentures as short-term capital gain irrespective of the holding period. The said amendment is effective from 23rd July, 2024 and will accordingly apply in relation to the transfer taking place on or after the said date.

The impact of said amendment on various types of capital assets is tabulated in attached Annexure.

INCREASE IN RATES OF STT (SECTION 98 (CHAPTER VII) OF FINANCE ACT (NO. 2), 2004)

Section 98 of the Finance Act, 2004 provides a list of various taxable securities along with STT levied on their sale and purchase transactions.

As per the said section, the rate of levy of STT on sale of an option in securities is 0.0625 per cent of the option premium and on sale of a future in securities is 0.0125 per cent of the price at which such futures are traded.

The FA (No. 2) 2024 has increased the said rates on sale of an option and a future in securities. The table below enumerates the same:-

Type of Transaction Old rates New rates
Sale of an option in securities 0.0625% of the option premium 0.1 % of the option premium
Sale of a future in securities 0.0125 % of the price at which such “futures” are traded. 0.02% of the price at which such “futures” are traded

The above amendments will take effect from 1st October, 2024.

As per the explanatory memorandum, the trading in derivatives (F&O) is now accounting for a large proportion of trading in stock exchanges. The said amendment has been made keeping in mind the exponential growth of derivative markets in recent times.

GRANDFATHERING OF CAPITAL GAINS IN CASE OF SHARES OFFERED FOR SALE UNDER AN IPO/FPO

Section 112A of the Act provides for a concessional rate of 12.5 per cent (w.e.f. 23rd July, 2024) on long-term capital gains on transfer of, inter alia, equity shares subject to payment of Securities Transaction Tax (STT) at the time of acquisition and on transfer.

Shares which are transferred under Offer for Sale (OFS) at the time of initial public offering are subject to STT as per S. 97(13)(aa) of Chapter VII of the Finance (No. 2) Act, 2004. Further, such shares are exempt from the requirement of STT at the time of acquisition to avail the benefit of section 112A as per CBDT Notification no. 60 of 2018. Hence, gains on transfer of such shares qualify for concessional tax rates u/s. 112A.

The gains chargeable under said section are allowed grandfathering of gains accrued till 31st January, 2018.

Accordingly, S. 55(2)(ac) of the Act provides that the cost of acquisition in case of long-term equity shares acquired before 1st February 2018 shall be grandfathered as under –

Higher of –

a. The cost of acquisition of such asset; and

b. Lower of:

i. The FMV of such asset as on 31st January, 2018; and

ii. The full value of consideration received

Explanation(a)(iii) to S. 55(2)(ac) defines what is FMV in case of an equity share in a company. The said section presently does not cover cases where unlisted shares are subject to STT and accordingly fall under the ambit of section 112A. As a consequence, there is ambiguity with respect to determining COA of the shares transferred under OFS.

With a view to clarify the ambiguity with regards to determining COA of the shares transferred under OFS, Explanation(a)(iii) to S. 55(2)(ac) has been amended with retrospective effect from AY 2018-19 so as to include within its ambit even transfers in respect of sale of unlisted equity shares under an OFS to the public included in an IPO.

In such cases, FMV shall be an amount which bears to the COA the same proportion as CII for the FY 2017-18 bears to the CII for the first year in which the asset was held by the assessee or for the year beginning on the first day of April, 2001, whichever is later.

This amendment is deemed to have been inserted with effect from the 1st day of April, 2018 and shall accordingly apply retrospectively from AY 2018-19 onwards.

CORPORATE GIFTING

Section 47 provides exclusions to certain transactions not regarded as “transfer” for the purposes of Section 45 of the Act. Clause (iii) of section 47 specifies that any transfer of a capital asset under gift, will or an irrevocable trust would not be regarded as transfer. The said provision hitherto applied to all assessees.

The FA (No. 2) 2024 has amended the said clause (iii) of Section 47 with retroactive effect from AY 2025-26 (i.e., for gifts effected on 1st April, 2024 and onwards) to restrict its application only in case of Individuals and HUFs.

As per the Memorandum Explaining the Provisions of the Finance (No. 2) Bill, 2024, even though the Act contains certain anti-avoidance provisions, such as sections 50D and 50CA, in multiple cases taxpayers have argued before judicial fora that transaction of gift of shares by company is not liable to capital gains tax in view of provisions of section 47(iii) of the Act, which has resulted in tax avoidance and erosion of tax base. However, as per the Memorandum, gift can be given only out of natural love and affection and therefore, provisions of section 47(iii) has been restricted to gifts given by individuals and HUFs.

Hence, apparently, the intention of the Legislature is to bring transactions of gift by assessees other than individuals and HUFs within the ambit of provisions such as section 50CA, 50D, etc. However, the question remains as to whether the said provisions can at all apply where there is no consideration involved, irrespective of whether the transaction itself is specifically exempted or not.

Now, the opening words of the provisions such as sections 50CA, 50C, 43CA as well as 50D are identical namely:

“Where the consideration received or accruing as a result of the transfer of ….”

As would be observed, the said provisions apply only where the transfer results in ‘receipt’ or ‘accrual’ of ‘any consideration’. Hence, the moot question which needs consideration is as to whether the said provisions can at all apply where a transfer does not result in receipt or accrual of any consideration.

Now, a transaction involving ‘gift’ essentially means a transaction where no consideration is contemplated at all. The said term is defined u/s. 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 as under:

“”Gift” is the transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration, by one person, called the donor, to another, called the donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee.”

As is clear, a transaction of ‘gift’ is always without consideration. Now, as per the Explanatory Memorandum, section 47(iii) has been restricted only to Individuals and HUFs since as per the Legislature other entities such as corporate bodies cannot give a valid gift in absence of possibility of any natural love or affection.

However, as is clear from the foregoing definition of ‘gift’, there is no condition of natural gift or affection attached to a gift transaction.

In fact, considering the said definition, various Courts have held in the past that even corporate bodies can give a gift as long as the same is permitted in their charter documents such as memorandum of association since there is no requirement in the Transfer Of Property Act that a ‘gift’ can be made only between natural persons out of natural love and affection. See, for example:

  • PCIT vs. Redington (India) Ltd. [2020] 122 taxmann.com 136 (Madras)
  • Prakriya Pharmacem vs. ITO[2016](66 taxmann.com 149)(Guj)
  • DP World (P) Ltd. vs. DCIT (140 ITD 694)(MumT);
  • DCIT vs. KDA Enterprises Pvt. Ltd. (68 SOT 349) (MumT);
  • Deere & Co. Deere & Co. [2011] 337 ITR 277 (AAR).
  • Jayneer infrapower & Multiventures (P.) Ltd. vs. DCIT [2019] 103 taxmann.com 118 (Mumbai – Trib.)

In Redington’s case (supra), the Madras High Court laid down the essentials of a ‘gift’ as under:

(i) absence of consideration;

(ii) the donor;

(iii) the donee;

(iv) to be voluntary;

(v) the subject matter;

(vi) transfer; and

(vii) the acceptance.

The High Court accordingly held that even a corporate body can make a valid gift, however, on the facts of that case, it held the transaction to not be a valid gift.

Now, after the amendment in section 47(iii), the foregoing decisions may not be relevant for the purpose of applying the provisions of section 47(iii) to corporate gifting. However, the following ratios laid down in these decisions are still relevant, namely:

  • Corporate gifting which satisfies the foregoing essential components is a legally valid transaction, and
  • In such transactions, there can never be any element of consideration.

This brings us back to the question as to whether in absence of any ‘receipt’ or ‘accrual’ of ‘any consideration’ in case of a corporate gifting, can the provisions like section 50CA, 50D, etc. at all trigger even if there is no specific exemption for such gifting, considering that existence of ‘consideration’ is a sine qua non under these provisions.

Recently, the Bombay High Court in the case of Jai Trust vs. UOI [2024] 160 taxmann.com 690 (Bombay) had an occasion to examine taxability of shares gifted by a trust and in that context, also examined the provisions of sections 50CA and 50D. The High Court considering the language used in the said sections, held that, these provisions can apply only where any consideration is received or accruing as a result of the transfer. It held that these sections postulates receiving consideration and not a situation where admittedly no consideration has been received.

Hence, even after amendment in section 47(iii), it is possible to argue that unless any consideration can be demonstrated, the deeming provisions of sections 50D, 50CA and the like cannot be applied to a corporate gifting. Indeed, it is settled law the deeming provisions should be construed strictly2 and therefore, to expand the scope of such deeming provisions than what is specifically mentioned in these sections is not permissible. Besides, if all cases of corporate gifting becomes subject to capital gains, then even CSR donations by corporates would be impacted, which certainly cannot be the intention of the Legislature.

Nevertheless, considering the rationale for the amendment provided in the Memorandum, the tax department is likely to more rigorously scrutinise the transactions corporate gifting and try to apply the said deeming provisions to such transactions.

It is also important to note that such corporate gifting of ‘property’ could now be subject to double whammy, one at the end of the donor under the likes of sections 50CA, etc. and second at the end of the donee under the provisions of section 56(2)(x). This would lead to double taxation of same income, which should not be condoned.

From the magnitude of amendments brought in the capital gains taxation, it is clear that the issues thereunder are far from becoming simple and rationale. Amendments in provisions such as section 2(22)(f) and 47(iii) have raised various unanswered questions, which would be settled only in the due course of time as the law develops before the judicial forums.

Annexure

Name of Capital Asset Nature of Capital Gain Relevant provision Period of Holding Rate of Tax
Old provisions

i.e., before 23rd July, 2024

New provisions

i.e., after 23rd July, 2024

Old provisions

i.e., before 23rd July, 2024

New provisions

i.e., after 23rd July, 2024

Listed Equity Shares (STT paid)* LT 112A > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Listed Equity Shares (STT not paid) LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Equity shares LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Units of Equity Oriented MFs (Listed)* LT 112A > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Units of Debt Oriented MFs**

(> 65% in debt or

fund of such  funds)

Always ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024) > 36 months > 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Bonds/Debentures (other than Capital index bonds and Sovereign Gold Bonds) LT 112 (without indexation) > 12 months > 12 months 20%3 (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Bonds/Debentures/Debt-Oriented FOFs LT 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024) > 36 months NA 20% (without indexation) applicable rate
ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA, (No. 2) 2024) ≤ 36 months NA applicable rate applicable rate
Market Linked Debentures ST 50AA (Rates as per First Schedule of FA, (No. 2) 2024) NA NA applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Capital Indexed Bonds and Sovereign Gold Bonds LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Capital Indexed Bonds LT 112 > 36 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 36 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Zero Coupon Bonds LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)  2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Listed Units of Business Trust (InVITs and REITs)* LT 112A > 36 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST 111A ≤ 36 months ≤ 12 months 15.00% 20.00%
Listed Preference Shares LT 112 > 12 months > 12 months 10% (without indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 12 months ≤ 12 months applicable rate applicable rate
Unlisted Preference Shares LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Immovable Properties LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Physical Gold LT 112 > 36 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2)2024 ≤ 36 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate
Foreign Equity LT 112 > 24 months > 24 months 20% (with indexation) 12.5% (without indexation)
ST Rates as per First Schedule of FA (No. 2) 2024 ≤ 24 months ≤ 24 months applicable rate applicable rate

* The limit of exemption from long term capital gain covered u/s. 112A is proposed to be increased from ₹1 Lakh to ₹1.25 lakhs (aggregate).

** For funds purchased before 1st April, 2023, the gains will be LTCG or STCG depending upon its period of holding. Further, this covered even other non-equity funds such as Gold, ETF, Gold funds, etc. purchased on or after 1st April, 2023 and transferred before 1st April, 2025. From 1st April, 2025, these other non-equity bonds / MFs will be taxed as per normal provisions of CG.

Important Amendments by The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 – Charitable Trusts

Important Amendments by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2024 are covered in six different Articles. It is not possible to cover all amendments at length and hence the focus is only on important amendments but with a detailed analysis of their impacts. These in-depth analysis will serve as a future guide to know the existing provisions, current amendments and their rationale, and the revised provisions. We hope the readers will enrich by the detailed analysis. – Editor

 

For the past several years, charitable institutions have awaited the Finance Bill of each year with dread and trepidation, as to what further compliance, burden and complexity would be imposed upon them. Since 2009, many new provisions for charitable institutions have been introduced, making the requirement of claiming exemption increasingly difficult.

Fortunately, some of this year’s amendments have sought to alleviate some of the difficulties being faced by charitable institutions. However, there have been no amendments in respect of many other complex and pressing problems faced by charitable institutions (such as the applicability of the proviso to section 2(15) as to what activity constitutes a business, applicability of tax on accreted income under certain circumstances, the low reporting requirement of a cumulative ₹50,000 for substantial contributors, etc).

The amendments made are analysed below:

MERGER OF SECTION 10(23C) EXEMPTION REGIME WITH SECTION 11 EXEMPTION REGIME

Currently, there are two major schemes of exemption for charitable institutions – one contained in various sub-clauses of section 10(23C) available for educational and medical institutions and certain other specific types of institutions. In particular, exemption under the following sub-clauses requires approval of the CIT – these are applicable to:

(iv) charitable institutions important throughout India or a State;

(v) public religious institutions;

(vi) university or other educational institution existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit, not wholly or substantially financed by the Government and whose gross receipts exceed ₹5 crore;

(vii) hospital or other institution for the reception and treatment of persons suffering from illness or mental defectiveness or for the reception and treatment of persons during convalescence or of persons requiring medical attention or rehabilitation, existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit, not wholly or substantially financed by the Government and whose gross receipts exceed ₹5 crore.

The conditions for exemption under these 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) are contained in the 23 provisos to section 10(23C), and by the Finance Act, 2022, these conditions were almost fully aligned with the requirements contained in section 11 for claim of exemption. Only a few minor differences remained, such as option to spend in subsequent year and exemption for capital gains on reinvestment in capital asset, which are available under section 11 but not available under section 10(23C). Given this alignment, it was expected that the exemption under these 4 sub-clauses would finally be merged with the exemption under section 11.

The Finance (No 2) Act 2024 now begins the process of merger of these two exemption regimes. The first and second provisos to section 10(23C) have now been amended to provide that application for approval or renewal of approval under sub-clauses (iv), (v), (vi) and (via) of section 10(23C) can only be made before 1st October, 2024, and that the Commissioner shall only process such applications made before 1st October, 2024. A 24th proviso has been added to section 10(23C) stating that no approvals shall be granted for applications made on or after 1st October, 2024. Simultaneously, amendments have been made to section 12A(1)(ac) with effect from 1st October 2024, requiring such charitable entities to make an application for registration under that section.

This effectively means that charitable entities whose approval expires on 31st March, 2025, can still apply for renewal up to 30th September 2024 since the application for renewal has to be made six months prior to the expiry of approval. Such applications would be processed, and approvals continued to be granted under section 10(23C). Given that the approval would normally be valid for 5 years, they can therefore continue to claim exemption under sub-clauses (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) till 31st March, 2030 (AY 2030-31). Thereafter, they will have to switch to registration under section 12A, and would then be entitled to exemption under section 11 post registration with effect from A.Y. 2031-32.

In case such entities are late in making an application for approval (beyond 30th September, 2024), they will then have to apply for registration under section 12A, and post registration which would be granted with effect from
1st April, 2025, their claim for exemption would then be under section 11 with effect from A.Y. 2026-27.

In case of other entities whose approval under any of the above 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) expires after 31st March 2025, if such approval is expiring shortly after March 2025, such entities may choose to make an application before 1st October, 2024 or thereafter, since there is only a minimum prior period for application (since the application has to be made at least 6 months prior to the expiry of approval), and there is no specification as to the maximum prior period within which one can make such an application. Depending on whether the application for renewal is made before 1st October, 2024 or thereafter, the application would have to be made either under any of the above 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) or under section 12A, respectively.

All entities whose approval under any of these 4 sub-clauses of section 10(23C) is in force can continue to claim exemption under section 10(23C) till the expiry of that approval.

Effectively therefore, over the next 5 years, all approvals under section 10(23C) will cease to have effect, and entities would migrate to registration under section 12A and consequent claim of exemption under section 11.

Further, exemption for charitable entities under the various other sub-clauses of section 10(23C) and other clauses of section 10 are not being phased out and would continue. These include:

  • Educational or medical institutions wholly or substantially financed by the Government or having gross receipts of less than ₹5 crore – 10(23C)(iiiab), (iiiac),(iiiad) and (iiiae),
  • Research associations – 10(21),
  • Professional regulatory bodies – 10(23A),
  • Khadi and village industries development institutions – 10(23B),
  • Regulatory bodies for charitable or religious trusts – 10(23BBA),
  • Investor Protection Funds of stock exchanges, commodity exchanges and depositories – 10(23EA), 10(23EC) and 10(23ED),
  • Core Settlement Guarantee Fund of clearing corporation – 10(23EE),
  • Notified bodies set up by the Government – 10(46),
  • Housing Boards, Planning & Development Authorities, and other regulatory bodies set up under a State or Central Act – 10(46A), etc.

While no amendment is made to section 11(5) regarding permitted investments, the provisions of section 13(1)(d) have been amended, by adding one more exception in the proviso to section 13(1)(d). The following assets have now been also excluded from the purview of section 13(1)(d):

a. Any asset held as part of the corpus of the trust as on 1st June, 1973;

b. Equity shares of a public company held by the trust as part of the corpus as on 1st June, 1998;

c. Any accretion to such shares held as part of corpus (bonus shares, etc);

d. Debentures issued by a company/corporation acquired by the trust before 1st March, 1983;

e. Jewellery, furniture or other notified article received by way of voluntary contribution. No other article seems to have been notified so far.

AMENDMENT OF SECTION 11(7)

Section 11(7) of the Income Tax Act provides that a trust granted registration under section 12AB cannot claim exemption under section 10, except under certain clauses of section 10. These clauses were:

  • agricultural income – clause (1),
  • educational, medical and other institutions – clause (23C),
  • Investor Protection Fund of Commodity Exchanges – clause (23EC),
  • notified bodies set up by the Government – clause (46), and
  • Housing Boards, Planning & Development Authorities, and other regulatory bodies set up under a State or Central Act – clause (46A).

In some of these cases, once they are approved or notified under the respective clauses, their section 12AB registration becomes inoperative, and can be made operative only by making an application to the Commissioner for doing so. Once section 12AB registration becomes operative, the approval or notification under the respective clause ceases to have effect, and thereafter no claim for exemption can be made under those respective clauses of section 10.

The Finance (No 2) Act, 2024 has added clauses (23EA) – Investor Protection Fund of a stock exchange, (23ED) – Investor Protection Fund of a depository, and (46B) – National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company and trusts managed by it, to these alternative clauses of exemption.

CONDONATION OF DELAY IN MAKING APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION/RENEWAL OF REGISTRATION U/S 12A

Section 12A(1)(ac) of the Income Tax Act provides that a trust would be entitled to exemption under sections 11 and 12 if it makes an application for registration to the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner and application for renewal within the specified timelines. Given the complex provisions specifying the timelines, with six alternative clauses, many charitable organisations mistakenly filed applications for registration/renewal of registration late. Their applications for registration/renewal of registration were rejected by the Commissioner on the ground that the application was made beyond the prescribed time.

Given the fact that such rejection had severe consequences of applicability of the provisions of tax on accreted income under section 115TD, such trusts filed appeals to the Tribunal against such rejection as well as made applications to the CBDT seeking condonation of delay in filing such applications. Almost all the appeals to the tribunal were decided in favour of the trusts, with the matters being sent back to the Commissioner for processing the application on the merits of each case. The CBDT granted condonations from time to time, the latest condonation being vide CBDT circular No. 7/2024 dated 25th April, 2024, whereunder belated/rectified applications could be made till 30th June, 2024.

The Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 has now inserted a proviso to section 12A(1)(ac) with effect from 1st October, 2024, giving powers to the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner to condone any delay in making of such applications if he considers that there is a reasonable cause for delay in filing the application. On condonation of delay, the application shall be deemed to have been filed within time.

By this amendment, on or after 1st October, 2024 the Commissioner can consider condonation of any genuine delays in making of such applications which may be noticed during the course of processing such applications, irrespective of whether the delay was before or after 1st October, 2024. This is a much-needed amendment, so that trusts now need not have their applications rejected merely on account of delay in filing the application due to the Commissioner not having the powers to condone any delay.

MODIFICATION OF TIME LIMITS FOR PROCESSING APPLICATIONS UNDER SECTION 12A(1)(ac)

The applications for registration/renewal of registration under section 12A(1)(ac) are required to be processed by the Commissioner/Principal Commissioner within the timelines specified in section 12AB(3), which requires the order under section 12AB(1) to be passed within such timelines. These timelines have now been amended as under with effect from 1st October 2024:

Sub-clause of s.12A(1)(ac) Type of Application Earlier Time Limit Amended Time Limit
(i) Trusts registered u/s 12A/12AA on 31st March, 2021 for registration u/s 12AB to be made by 30th June, 2021 3 months from the end of the month in which the application was received 3 months from the end of the month in which the application was received
(ii) Trusts registered u/s 12AB for renewal 6 months from the end of the month in which the application was received 6 months from the end of the quarter in which the application was received
(iii) Trusts provisionally registered u/s 12AB for renewal
(iv) Trusts whose registration has become inoperative u/s 11(7) to make operative
(v) Trusts which have modified objects not conforming to conditions of registration
(vi)(B) Trusts which have commenced their activities and not claimed exemption u/s 11 and 12 for any year ending before the date of application
(vi)(A) Trusts which have not commenced their activities for provisional registration 1 month from the end of the month in which the application was received 1 month from the end of the month in which the application was received

This amendment is stated to be for better processing and monitoring.

This being a procedural amendment, the revised timeline of 6 months from the end of the quarter may apply even to applications made prior to 1st October, 2024, where the original timeline for processing has not lapsed before 1st October, 2024. Therefore, in case of applications received in April 2024, where the orders could have been passed till October 2024, the orders can now be passed till December 2024.

APPROVAL U/S 80G

A trust which had commenced its activities could have applied for approval under section 80G only if it had not claimed exemption under clause (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C) or exemption under section 11 for any year ending prior to the date of its application. Therefore, an existing trust having activities for many years claiming exemption under section 11 but not having opted to obtain approval under section 80G earlier, could never have applied for approval. This restriction of not having claimed exemption earlier, has been deleted with effect from 1st October 2024, permitting such existing trusts to seek approval.

Just as in the case of processing of applications under section 12AB, in case of applications for renewal of approval under section 80G or for fresh application under section 80G where activities of the trust have commenced, the timeline for passing the order granting approval or rejecting the application has been amended to a period of 6 months of the end of the quarter in which the application was made, from the period of 6 months from the end of the month in which the application was made.

No amendment has been made to delegate powers to the Commissioner to condone delays in filing applications for approval under section 80G. Perhaps this is on account of the fact that a trust can now make an application at any time after the commencement of its activities. Therefore, even if its earlier application was rejected on account of delay in filing the application, it can make a fresh application again subsequently. However, this will result in it not being approved for the interim period. It would have been better had the power been delegated to the Commissioner in such cases as well.

MERGER OF TRUSTS — SECTION 12AC

A new section, section 12AC, has been inserted with effect from 1st April, 2025. This provides that if a trust approved under clauses (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C) or registered under section 12AB merges with another trust, the provisions of Chapter XII-EB (Tax on Accreted Income) shall not apply if:

(a) The other trust has similar objects;

(b) The other trust is registered u/s 12AB or under clause (iv), (v), (vi) or (via) of section 10(23C); and

(c) The merger fulfils such conditions as may be prescribed.

The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill explains the rationale behind this amendment as under:

“Merger of trusts under the exemption regime with other trusts

1. When a trust or institution which is approved / registered under the first or second regime, as the case may be merges with another approved / registered entity under either regime, it may attract the provisions of Chapter XII-EB, relating to tax on accreted income in certain circumstances.

2. It is proposed that conditions under which the said merger shall not attract provisions of Chapter XII-EB, may be prescribed, to provide greater clarity and certainty to taxpayers. A new section 12AC is proposed to be inserted for this purpose.

3. These amendments will take effect from the 1st day of April, 2025.”

While one understands the need to provide clarity on various exemption provisions in the event of merger of an approved/registered trust with another approved/registered trust (e.g., treatment of accumulation, spending out of corpus, loans, etc), the language of the amendment as well as the Explanatory Memorandum explaining the amendment are a little baffling. This is on account of the fact that as the law stands today, tax on accreted income under section 115TD applies to a merger only when an approved/registered trust merges with a trust which is not approved / registered, or which does not have similar objects. Section 115TD(1)(b) does not apply at all when both the trusts involved in the merger are registered trusts having similar objects. There was therefore no need for such a provision at all.

The further interesting aspect is that since section 115TD has not been amended at all, even if conditions are prescribed for the purposes of section 12AC, these conditions cannot create a charge under section 115TD, which excludes a case where both trusts are approved/registered and have similar objects.

One will have to await the rules that will be prescribed, to fully understand the impact of this amendment.

Whether the Order Passed Under Section 139(9) Invalidating the Return Is Appealable?

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION

Quite often the income tax returns filed by the taxpayers are considered to be defective and the defect notices are being sent by the Centralised Processing Centre. If the defects pointed out have not been resolved, then such a defective return filed is considered to be an invalid return, by virtue of the provisions of section 139(9). Under such circumstances, it is considered that the assessee has not filed his return of income at all for the relevant year. As a result, the assessee does not get the benefits like getting the refund of excess tax paid or carry forward of unabsorbed losses etc. which he was entitled to get otherwise had the return been considered to be a valid return.

Section 246A provides for the dispute resolution mechanism whereby, if the assessee is aggrieved by the order passed by the income-tax authorities, then he can challenge that order by filing an appeal against it before the Commissioner (Appeals). However, the list of orders against which the appeal can be so filed are listed in sub- section (1) of section 246A. Therefore, the appeal can be filed before the Commissioner (Appeals) against a particular order, only if that order is included in the list of orders which are appealable under section 246A.

The order passed under section 139(9), considering the return of income as invalid return due to non-removal of the defects, is not specifically included in the list of orders which are appealable under section 246A. Therefore, the issue arises as to whether the assessee can file the appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against such an order considering the return as a defective return or not. The Pune bench of the tribunal had earlier taken a view that such an order is appealable and the assessee can file the appeal challenging it before the CIT (A). However, in a later case, the Pune bench took a contrary view disagreeing with its earlier decision and held that no appeal can be filed before the CIT (A) against such an order.

DEERE & COMPANY’S CASE

The issue had come up for consideration of the Pune bench of the tribunal in the case of Deere & Company vs. DCIT [2022] 138 taxmann.com 46.

In this case, the assessee was a foreign company and it had filed its return of income for assessment year 2016- 17 declaring the income of ₹474.37 crore and claiming a refund of ₹1.34 crore. The return was processed by the Centralized Processing Centre (CPC), Bengaluru, and a notice dated 15-11-2017 was issued under Explanation (a) to section 139(9) highlighting the difference between the income shown in the return at ₹474.37 crore and as shown in Form No. 26AS at ₹478.62 crore. The assessee responded to the same on 4th December, 2017 through e-portal elaborating the reasons for the difference in the two amounts by maintaining that correct income was reported in the return of income. It was explained that the difference was arising mainly due to two reasons as mentioned below –

1. The assessee had computed its income accruing in India as per Rule 115 whereby invoices raised in foreign currency were converted into Indian Rupees on the basis of SBI TT Buying Rate of such currency prevailing on the date of credit to the account of the payee or payment, whichever is earlier. As against this, the parties on the other hand have deducted tax at source by converting the foreign currency amount into Indian Rupees adopting some other exchange rates.

2. There were certain reimbursements and reversals on which tax had been deducted but they were not in the nature of income of the assessee company.

The DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru rejected the assessee’s contention and declared the return to be invalid by means of the order u/s 139(9) of the Act. The assessee filed an appeal against that order before the CIT(A) which came to be dismissed at the threshold on the ground that the order u/s 139(9) was not appealable under section 246A.

The assessee filed the further appeal before the tribunal against the said order of the CIT (A).

Firstly, the tribunal held that the DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru could not have acted u/s 139(9) in an attempt to correct the mismatch and in the process declared the return as invalid, thereby depriving the assessee from refund claimed in the return of income. The tribunal observed that the AO had activated clause (a) of an Explanation to section 139(9), which stated that: “the annexures, statements and columns in the return of income relating to computation of income chargeable under each head of income, computation of gross total income and total income have been duly filled in”. On this basis, it was held that if all the annexures, statements and columns etc. of the return have been duly filled in, there could be no defect as per clause (a). The defect referred to in clause
(a) was of only non-filling of the requisite columns of the return of income. If the relevant columns in the return of income were duly filled in but were not tallying with the figures reported in Form 26AS due to a valid difference of opinion then it was not covered by clause (a). Further, the tribunal also observed that the Finance Act, 2016 inserted sub-clause (vi) in section 143(1) providing that that if certain amount of income appearing in Form 26AS etc. is not fully or partly included in the total income returned by the assessee, then the AO will process the return u/s 143(1) and make adjustment by way of addition to the total income so computed by the assessee. Therefore, if the intention of the Legislature had been to treat the mismatch of income between Form 26AS and as shown in the return of income rendering the return defective, then there was no need to incorporate clause (vi) of section 143(1)(a) of the Act requiring the AO to carry out the adjustment during the processing of return of income on this score.

With respect to the effect of the return being considered as invalid under section 139(9), the tribunal observed that there were two possibilities. The first possibility was that the assessee could have again filed a fresh return. However, the AO, sticking to his earlier stand, would have held such return also as invalid on the same premise, throwing the proceedings in a vicious circle resulting in an impasse. The second possibility was that the AO, having knowledge of the assessee having taxable income, could have issued a notice u/s 142(1)(i) requiring the assessee to file a return of income. This would have resulted in the assessee filing its return and then the AO determining correct total income of the assessee as per law after making assessment u/s 143(3) of the Act. However, in the instant case, the AO did not issue any notice u/s 142(1) (i) and pushed the proceedings to a dead end, leaving the assessee without any apparent legal recourse. It was under such circumstances, left with no option, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ld. CIT(A) against the order u/s 139(9) of the Act, which has been dismissed as not maintainable on the ground that an order u/s 139(9) is not covered by the list of appealable orders given in section 246A.

In view of these facts, the tribunal held that the assessee could not have been left remediless. Every piece of legislation is ultimately aimed at the well-being of the society at large. No technicality could be allowed to operate as a speed breaker in the course of dispensation of justice. In the context of taxes, if a particular relief was legitimately due to an assessee, the authorities would not circumscribe it by creating such circumstances leading to its denial.

The tribunal held that the first look at different clauses of section 246A(1) transpired that an order u/s 139(9) was ex-facie not covered therein. However, there were two clauses of section 246A(1), namely, (a) and (i), which in the opinion of the tribunal could provide succor to the assessee. The clause (a) of section 246A provided for filing an appeal before CIT(A), inter alia, against “an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under this Act”. The word ‘order’ in the expression ‘an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability’ was not preceded or succeeded by the word ‘assessment’. Thus any order passed under the Act against the assessee, impliedly including an order u/s 139(9) as in the present case, having the effect of creating liability under the Act which he denies or jeopardizing refund, got covered within the ambit of clause (a) of section 246A(1).

Further, Clause (i) of section 246A(1) dealt with the filing of an appeal before the CIT(A) against an order u/s 237. Section 237 provided that ‘If any person satisfies the Assessing Officer that the amount of tax paid by him or on his behalf or treated as paid by him or on his behalf for any assessment year exceeds the amount with which he is properly chargeable under this Act for that year, he shall be entitled to a refund of the excess.’ Technically speaking, the AO has not passed an order u/s 237 but only u/s 139(9) of the Act. Firstly, the AO could not have treated the return as invalid u/s 139(9) because of mismatch between the figure of income shown in the return and that in Form 26AS and secondly, if at all he did so on a wrong footing, he ought to have issued notice u/s 142(1)(i) of the Act for enabling the assessee to file its return so that a regular assessment could take place determining the correct amount of income and the consequential tax/refund. Here was a case in which the assessee has been deprived by the DCIT (CPC), Bengaluru of any legal recourse to claim the refund. Considering the intent of section 237 in mind and the unusual circumstances of the case, the tribunal held that the order passed by the AO was also akin to an order refusing refund u/s 237 making it appealable u/s 246A(1)(i).

On this basis, the tribunal held that the appeal against the order passed under section 139(9) was maintainable before the CIT (A).

The Mumbai bench of the tribunal has followed this decision of the Pune bench in the case of V.K. Patel Securities Pvt. Ltd. v. ADIT (ITA No. 1009/Mum/2023).

AMRUT RAJENDRAKUMAR BORA’S CASE

The issue, thereafter, came up for consideration before the Pune bench of the tribunal again in the case of Amrut Rajendrakumar Bora [ITA No. 563/Pun/2023 – Order dated 4-8-2023].

In this case, the return of income filed by the assessee for assessment year 2018-19 was treated as invalid under section 139(9) on account non-removal of the defects which were pointed out to the assessee. The appeal filed by the assessee before the CIT (A) against the said order was dismissed on the same ground that it was not an appealable order as per the provisions of section 246A. Before the tribunal, the assessee primarily relied upon the decision in the case of Deere & Co. (supra). As against that, the revenue placed strong reliance on section 246A and contended that it did not contain any specific clause regarding the maintainability of appeal against an order passed under section 139(9) of the Act.

The tribunal held that section 246A was a self-exhaustive provision providing remedy of an appeal against the orders passed by lower authorities in various clauses from (a) to (r) followed by Explanation(s) and statutory proviso(s); as the case may be. The order passed under section 139(9) is not covered specifically under any of the clauses. The tribunal held that a stricter interpretation in such an instance has to be adopted in light of Hon’ble Apex Court’s landmark decision in Commissioner of Customs (Imports), Mumbai vs. M/s. Dilip Kumar And Co. & Ors. [2018] 9 SCC 1 (SC) (FB).

As far as clause (i) was concerned, the tribunal held that it could come into play only when the concerned taxpayer was denying his liability to be assessed under the Act which was not the case as the point involved was limited to the validity of the return of income filed by the assessee. The tribunal further held that section 246A envisaged an appellate remedy before the CIT(A) not based on various consequences faced by an assessee or by way of necessary implications but as per various orders passed by the field authorities under the specified statutory provisions only.

The decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Deere & Co. (supra) was held to be per inquirium for not adopting the stricter interpretation as was required. Accordingly, the tribunal upheld the order of the CIT (A) dismissing the appeal of the assessee as not maintainable.

OBSERVATIONS

It is a well-settled principle that the right to make an appeal is not an inherent right, but a statutory right. Therefore, an appeal can be filed against a particular order only if such order is made appealable under the Act. Hence, an appeal cannot be filed before CIT(A) against any order which is not included in the above list. The Supreme Court in the case of Gujarat Agro Industries Co Ltd. vs. Municipal Corporation of City of Ahmedabad (1999) 45 CC 468 (SC) has held that the right of appeal is the creature of a statute. Without a statutory provision creating such a right, the person aggrieved is not entitled to file an appeal. Similarly, in the case of National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Nicolletta Rohtagi (2002) 7 SCC 456, the Supreme Court has held that the right of appeal is not an inherent right or common law right, but it is a statutory right. The appeal can be filed only if the law so provides.

In light of these principles, one needs to examine the provisions of section 246A for the purpose of determining whether the appeal can be filed against the order passed under section 139(9) considering the return as a defective return. The relevant provision of section 139(9) read as under –

“Where the Assessing Officer considers that the return of income furnished by the assessee is defective, he may intimate the defect to the assessee and give him an opportunity to rectify the defect within a period of fifteen days from the date of such intimation or within such further period which, on an application made in this behalf, the Assessing Officer may, in his discretion, allow; and if the defect is not rectified within the said period of fifteen days or, as the case may be, the further period so allowed, then, notwithstanding anything contained in any other provision of this Act, the return shall be treated as an invalid return and the provisions of this Act shall apply as if the assessee had failed to furnish the return”

As rightly noted by the tribunal in both the cases as discussed above, the order passed under section 139(9) is not included specifically in the list of orders which are made appealable under sub-section (1) of section 246A. On perusal of sub-section (1) of section 246A, it can be observed that it lists down several orders which have been passed under the specific provisions of the Act which does not include the order passed under section 139(9) of the Act. The only sub-clause which refers to the order in general without referring to any specific provision of the Act is sub-clause (a). It refers to the ‘order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under this Act’. Therefore, one needs to examine as to whether the order passed under section 139(9) can be considered to be in the nature of an order against the assessee where the assessee denies his liability to be assessed under the Act.

When a person files his return of income taking a particular position, it results into a self-assessment of his liability under the Act. When such a return of income filed by the assessee is considered to be an invalid return of income for non-removal of defects as per the provisions of section 139(9), return of income becomes non-est in law i.e. as if it had never been filed. Consequentially, the self-assessment of the liability which had been declared through the return of income also becomes invalid. Thus, there is no assessment of the liability of the assessee under the Act till that point in time unless it is followed by the specific assessment being made in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Act, which may be either a regular assessment under section 144 or reassessment under section 147. Further, by passing an order under section 139(9), the Assessing Officer is not assessing the liability of the assessee under the Act. Therefore, strictly speaking, the order passed under section 139(9) does not result into assessment of the assessee’s liability in any manner which could have been denied by the assessee.

Alternatively, a view can be taken that the order passed invalidating the return also results in rejecting the self- assessment of the liability of the assessee as declared in the return of income. It might be possible that the assessee claims certain benefits while assessing his liability under the Act in the return of income which has been submitted. Such benefits can be in the nature of claim of loss, or claim of refund on account of excess tax paid in the form of advance tax or TDS. On account of the fact that the return is being considered as invalid return, the benefits so claimed also get rejected indirectly. Therefore, under such circumstance, it is possible to take a view that the liability of the assessee gets increased indirectly as a result of denial of the benefits, which had been claimed by the assessee through the return of income. Although such an increase in the liability of the assessee is not due to any order of assessment, there is an order passed under section 139(9) which is affecting the quantum of the liability of the assessee under the Act. If the claim of refund as made by the assessee in the return becomes invalid, then it results into overcharging of tax upon the assessee to that extent. Therefore, it may be considered as an order affecting the liability of the assessee as originally declared in the return of income and, hence, appealable under section 246A.

The question of applying strict interpretation as laid down by the Supreme Court in the case of Dilip Kumar & Co. (supra) does not arise here as we are not dealing with the exemption provision. The principles of strict interpretation were laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the exemption provision as the exemption granted affects the exchequer which will then results in increase in tax liability of the other taxpayers. The provision of section like 246A providing for the remedy of filing an appeal against the order passed by the Assessing Officer is no way be compared with the case which was before the Supreme Court in which such a strict interpretation was required.

If a view is taken that the order passed under section 139(9) is not appealable under the provisions of section 139(9), then the only remedies available to the assessee would be to file the petition of revision under section 264 or to knock the doors of the high court by filing certiorari or mandamus writ against such orders. Therefore, a better view seems to be the one which was taken by the Pune bench of the tribunal in its earlier case of Deere & Co. However, the readers may explore the other alternatives as they would be left with no remedy if the appeal filed is not being entertained by following the contrary view.

The CBDT has been given the powers under sub- clause (r) of section 246A(1) to issue direction making any particular order passed by the Assessing Officer as appealable in the case of any person or class of persons having regard to the nature of the cases, the complexities involved and other relevant considerations.

This is a fit case where the CBDT should issue the necessary direction providing for the appeal against the order passed under section 139(9) treating the defective return of income as invalid return.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

Excise Commissioner Karnataka and Another

vs. Mysore Sales International Ltd. and Ors.

(2024) 466 ITR 205 (SC)

8. Tax collection at source — The liquor vendors (contractors) who bought the vending rights on auction could not be termed as “buyer” under Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act because they were excluded from the definition of “buyer” as per Clause (iii) of Explanation (a) to Section 206C, in as much as the goods [arrack] were not obtained by him by way of auction (i.e., only licence to carry on the business was obtained) and that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer was fixed under a state enactment. Merely because there is a price range providing for a minimum and a maximum under the State Act, it cannot be said that the sale price is not fixed.

Principles of natural justice — Even though the statute may be silent regarding notice and hearing, the court would read into such provision the inherent requirement of notice and hearing before a prejudicial order is passed — Before an order is passed under Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act, it is incumbent upon the assessing officer to put the person concerned to notice and afford him an adequate and a reasonable opportunity of hearing, including a personal hearing.

Prior to 1993, there were several private bottling units in the State of Karnataka, and they were manufacturing and selling arrack.

In the year 1993, the state government discontinued private bottling units from engaging in the manufacture or bottling of arrack and instead decided as a policy to restrict those operations in the hands of state government companies or undertakings, such as, Mysore Sales International Limited and Mysore Sugar Company Limited.

Mysore Sales was entrusted with the above task for the northern districts of the State of Karnataka, while for the rest of the state, Mysore Sugar was entrusted with the responsibility.

The Karnataka Excise Act, 1965 (“the Excise Act”) provides for a uniform law relating to production, manufacture, possession, import, export, transport, purchase and sale of liquor and intoxicating drugs and the levy of duties of excise thereon in the State of Karnataka and for certain matter related thereto. Under the Excise Act, several Rules have been framed for appropriate enforcement of the excise law.

Auctions are conducted periodically for the purpose of conferring lease right for retail vending of arrack. It was conducted with reference to designated areas. Successful bidders are entitled to procure arrack from Mysore Sales and Mysore Sugar depending upon the area allotted to them and then to sell it in retail trade within their respective allotted areas. The retail sale price is fixed by the state government in terms of the Rules.

Section 206C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 casts an obligation on the “seller” of alcoholic liquor, etc., of collecting tax at source at the specified time from the “buyer”. As per Explanation (a), certain persons were not included within, rather excluded from, the definition of “buyer”.

A circular came to be issued by the Excise Commissioner of Karnataka on 16th June, 1998 to which an addendum was also issued. The circular clarified that since arrack was not obtained through auction and since the selling price of arrack was fixed by the Excise Commissioner, there was no question of recovery of tax from the excise (liquor) vendors or contractors.

In view of the above, Mysore Sales and Mysore Sugar (Assesses) did not recover the tax from the liquor vendors.

Assessing Officer (AO) issued notices dated 26th October, 2000 calling upon the Assessee to show cause as to why it should not pay the requisite tax amount which it had failed to collect from the “buyers”, i.e., the excise contractors for the financial years relevant to the assessment years under consideration. The Assessee had submitted its reply to such notice. Thereafter, the AO passed orders dated 17th January, 2001 under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act for the assessment years 2000–2001, 1999–2000, 1998–1999, 1997–1998, 1996–1997 and 1995–1996. The AO held that the Assessee is a “seller” and the liquor vendors are “buyers” in terms of Section 206C of the Income-tax Act and hence, the Assessee was under a legal obligation to collect income tax at source from the liquor vendors (contractors) for the financial years relevant to the aforesaid assessment years. By the aforesaid orders, the Assessee was directed to pay certain sums of money as tax, which it had failed to collect from the liquor vendors or contractors. Following such orders, consequential demand notices for the respective assessment years under Section 156 of the Income-tax Act were also issued to the Assessee by the AO.

Mysore Sales / Mysore Sugar filed writ petitions before the High Court. While the main contention was that Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act was not applicable to it, a corollary issue raised was that before passing the order under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act, no opportunity of hearing was given to it. Therefore, there was violation of the principles of natural justice. Learned Single Judge vide the judgment and order dated 27th October, 2003 [(2004) 265 ITR 498] dismissed the writ petitions confirming the orders passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act.

Thereafter, Mysore Sales and Ors. preferred writ appeals before the Division Bench. However, by the judgment and order dated 13th March, 2006 [(2006) 286 ITR 136], the writ appeals were dismissed by affirming the orders passed by the AO and also that of the learned Single Judge.

Aggrieved by the aforesaid, SLP(C) No. 12524 of 2006 was preferred by Mysore Sales. After leave was granted on 23rd April, 2007, the same came to be registered as Civil Appeal No. 2168 of 2007. Mysore Sugar also filed an SLP.

According to the Supreme Court, the short point for consideration in this appeal was whether provisions of Section 206C of the Income-Tax Act were applicable in respect of the Appellant and whether the liquor vendors (contractors) who bought the vending rights from the Appellant on auction could be termed as “buyer” within the meaning of Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act or excluded from the said definition of “buyer” as per Clause (iii) of Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the said Act.

The Supreme Court noted that under Section 17 of the Excise Act, the state government grants lease of right to any person for manufacture, etc., of liquor, arrack in this case. The licencing authority, i.e., Excise Commissioner, may grant to the lessee a licence in terms of his lease. In supplement to the above provision, Rule 3(1) of the 1987 Rules provides that the Excise Commissioner shall grant a licence for any specified area or areas for the manufacture or bottling of arrack. From 1st July, 1993, sub-Rule (2) of Rule 3 has come into force as per which provision the licence under Rule 3 of the 1987 Rules shall be issued only to a company or agency owned or controlled by the state government or to a state government department. This is how Mysore Sales was granted licence for the manufacture and bottling of arrack. Through a process of auction, excise contractors are shortlisted who are thereafter granted licence or permits to vend arrack by retail in their respective area(s). They are required to procure the arrack from the warehouse or depot on payment of the issue price fixed by the Excise Commissioner as per Rule 5(1) of the 1967 Rules. Rule 2 makes it very clear that no arrack in retail vend shall be sold except in sealed bottles or in sealed polythene sachets obtained from either a warehouse or a depot. For such retail vending, Rule 3 of the 1967 Rules requires the excise contractor to construct a counter in the shop. The right to retail vend of liquor is granted either by tender or by auction or by a combined process of tender-cum- auction, etc. As per Rule 17 of the 1987 Rules, the price to be paid by the lessee for the right of retail vend of arrack to the government for the supply of bottled arrack shall be fixed by the Commissioner with prior approval of the government. In so far the retail price is concerned, Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules says that the excise contractor can sell the arrack at a price within the range of minimum floor price and maximum ceiling price that may be fixed by the Excise Commissioner.

The Supreme Court observed that Sub-section (1) of Section 206C provides that every person who is a seller shall collect from the buyer of the goods specified in the table a sum equal to the percentage specified in the corresponding entry of the table. The collection is to be made at the time of debiting of the amount payable by the buyer to the account of the buyer or at the time of the receipt of such amount from the said buyer, be it in cash or by way of cheque or by way of draft, etc. In so far alcoholic liquor for human consumption (other than India made foreign liquor, i.e., IMFL), the amount to be collected is 10 per cent. Sub-section (3) provides that any person collecting such amount under Sub-section (1) shall pay the said amount within seven days of the collection to the credit of the central government or as the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) directs. Sub- section (4) clarifies that any amount so collected under Section 206C(1) and paid under Sub-section (3) shall be deemed as payment of income tax on behalf of the person from whom the amount has been collected and credit shall be given to such person for the amount so collected and paid at the time of assessment proceeding for the relevant assessment year. Sub-section (5) says that every person collecting such tax shall issue a certificate to the buyer within 10 days of debit or receipt of the amount. Sub-section (5A) requires the person collecting tax to prepare half yearly returns for the periods ending on 30th September and 31st March for each financial year and submit the same in the prescribed form before the competent income tax authority. Sub-section (6) says that any person responsible for collecting the tax, fails to collect the same, shall notwithstanding such failure be liable to pay the tax which he ought to have collected to the credit of the central government in accordance with the provisions of Sub-section (3). Sub-section (7) deals with a situation where such tax is not collected in which event the seller is liable to pay interest at the prescribed rate. Sub-section (8) on the other hand deals with a situation where the seller does not deposit the amount even after collecting the tax. In such an event also, he would be liable to pay interest.

The Explanation defines “buyer” and “seller” for the purposes of Section 206C. While Explanation (a) defines “buyer”, (b) defines “seller”. As per Explanation (a), “buyer” means a person who obtains, in any sale by way of auction, tender or by any other mode, goods of the nature specified in the table in Sub-section (1) or the right to receive any such goods but “buyer” would not include:

(i) a public sector company;

(ii) a buyer in the further sale of such goods obtained in pursuance of such sale;

(iii) a buyer where the goods are not obtained by him by way of auction and where the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any State Act.

On the other hand, “seller” has been defined to mean the central government, a state government or any local authority or corporation or authority established by or under a central, state or provincial act or any company or firm or cooperative society.

According to the Supreme Court, as per Explanation (a) (iii), if the goods are not obtained by the buyer by way of auction and where the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any state enactment, then such a person would not come within the ambit of “buyer”. Explanation (a)(iii), thus, visualises two conditions for a person to be excluded from the meaning of “buyer” as per the definition in Explanation (a). The first condition is that the goods are not obtained by him by way of auction. The second condition is that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed under a state enactment. These two conditions are joined by the word “and”. The word “and” is conjunctive to mean that both the conditions must be fulfilled; it is not either of the two. Therefore, to be excluded from the ambit of the definition of “buyer” as per Explanation (a)(iii), both the conditions must be satisfied.

In view of the above, the Supreme Court examined the position of an excise contractor. The Supreme Court noted that Mysore Sales was the licensee for the manufacture and bottling of arrack for specified area(s). By a process of auction or tender or auction- cum-tender, etc., excise contractors were shortlisted who are thereafter granted permits to vend arrack by retail in their respective area(s). These retail vendors, i.e., excise contractors had to procure the arrack from the warehouse or depot maintained by Mysore Sales on payment of the issue price fixed by the Excise Commissioner. The arrack was procured in sealed bottles or in sealed polythene sachets. Therefore, according to the Supreme Court, by the process of auction, etc., the excise contractors are only shortlisted and conferred the right to retail vend of arrack in their respective areas. It cannot be said that by virtue of the auction, certain quantities of arrack were purchased by the excise contractors. Thus, at this stage, there were two transactions, each distinct. The first transaction was shortlisting of excise contractors by a process of auction, etc., for the right to retail vend. The second transaction, which was contingent upon the first transaction, was obtaining of arrack for retail vending by the excise contractors on the strength of the permits issued to them post successful shortlisting following auction. Therefore, it was clear that arrack was not obtained by the excise contractors by way of auction. What was obtained by way of auction was the right to vend the arrack on retail on the strength of permits granted, following successful shortlisting on the basis of auction. Thus, the first condition under Clause (iii) was satisfied.

The Supreme Court observed that in Union of India vs. Om Parkash S.S. and Company (2001) 3 SCC 593, it had considered the issue of tax collection at source in respect of the liquor trade under Section 206C of the Income-tax Act and as to whether a licensee who is issued a licence by the government permitting him to carry on the liquor trade would be a “buyer” as defined in Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act. It was held that “buyer” would mean a person who by virtue of the payment gets a right to receive specific goods and not where he is merely allowed / permitted to carry on business in that trade. On licences issued by the government permitting the licensee to carry on liquor trade, provisions of Section 206C are not attracted as the licensee does not fall within the concept of “buyer” referred to in that section. It was emphasised that a buyer has to be a buyer of goods and not merely a person who acquires a licence to carry on the business.

The requirement of the second condition under Explanation (a)(iii) is that the sale price of such goods to be sold by the buyer is fixed by or under any state statute. After the arrack is obtained in the above manner by the excise contractor, such person has to sell the same in the area(s) allotted to him at the sale price fixed as per Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules. Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules enables the excise contractor to sell the arrack in retail at a price within the range of minimum floor price and maximum ceiling price which is fixed by the Excise Commissioner. A minimum price and a maximum price are fixed within which range the arrack has to be sold by the excise contractor. Thus, according to the Supreme Court, the price of arrack to be sold in retail is not dependent on the market forces but pre-determined within a range. Therefore, though price range is provided for by the statute, it cannot be said that because there is a price range providing for a minimum and a maximum, the sale price is not fixed. The sale price is fixed by the statute but within a particular range beyond which price, either on the higher side or on the lower side, the arrack cannot be sold by the excise contractor in retail. Therefore, the arrack is sold at a price which is fixed statutorily under Rule 4 of the 1967 Rules and thus, the second condition stands satisfied.

The Supreme Court held that since both the conditions as mandated under Explanation (a)(iii) were satisfied, the excise contractors or the liquor vendors selling arrack would not come within the ambit of “buyer” as defined under Explanation (a) to Section 206C of the Income-tax Act.

The Supreme Court further held that though there is no express provision in Sub-section (6) or any other provision of Section 206C of the Income-tax Act regarding issuance of notice and affording hearing to such a person before passing an order thereunder, nonetheless, it is evident that an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act, as in the present case, is prejudicial to the person concerned as such an order entails adverse civil consequences. It is trite law that when an order entails adverse civil consequences or is prejudicial to the person concerned, it is essential that principles of natural justice are followed. In the instant case, though show-cause notice was issued to the Assessee to which reply was also filed, the same would not be adequate having regard to the consequences that such an order passed under Section 206C(6) of the Income-tax Act would entail. Even though the statute may be silent regarding notice and hearing, the court would read into such provision the inherent requirement of notice and hearing before a prejudicial order is passed. We, therefore, hold that before an order is passed under Section 206C of the Income-tax Act, it is incumbent upon the AO to put the person concerned to notice and afford him an adequate and reasonable opportunity of hearing, including a personal hearing.

The Supreme Court allowed the appeals.

Notes:

1. Though the issue relates to TCS under the Income-tax Act, interestingly, the judgment is reported as Excise Commissioner, Karnataka & Anr [Appellant(s)] vs. Mysore Sales International Ltd & Ors [Respondent(s)]. From the facts, it appears that the Appellant was Mysore Sales International Ltd.

2. In the judgment, it seems inadvertently, in paras 4.5 to 4.8, reference is made to tax deduction at source [TDS] instead of tax collection at source [TCS]. In the above write-up, reference to TDS is avoided.

3. The provisions referred to in the judgment are those in force prior to amendments made by the Finance Act, 2003. It is worth noting that the definition of “buyer” has substantially undergone change as compared to the earlier one, and the current definition does not have the exclusion of the type from the scope of “buyer” under Section 206C which was considered in the above judgment.

Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA — on facts, assessee was not a conduit company and hence, qualified for exemption of capital gains under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA

[2024] 164 taxmann.com 440 (Delhi – Trib.)

India Property (Mauritius) Company-II vs. ACIT

ITA No:1020/Del/2023

A.Y.: 2018–19

Dated: 18th July, 2024

8. Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA — on facts, assessee was not a conduit company and hence, qualified for exemption of capital gains under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA.

FACTS

The assessee is a company incorporated in Mauritius. It is engaged in the business of investment activities. The assessee company claimed to be holding valid tax residency certificate (‘TRC’) and Global Business License-I (‘GBL-I License’) issued by Mauritius Financial Services Commission. During the relevant year, the assessee had transferred shares of certain Indian companies and earned long-term capital gains. Having regard to provisions of section 90(2) of the Act, read with Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA, the assessee claimed the same as exempt and filed its return of income declaring NIL income.

Return of income of the assessee was selected for scrutiny and pursuant to the directions of DRP, the AO denied DTAA benefits. In reaching his conclusion, the AO had examined fund flow, structure, business operation and other aspects of the assessee. The AO observed that on the principle of doctrine of substance over form and principal purpose test, the assessee did not qualify for benefit under clause 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA because of following reasons.

(a) The assessee had acquired the shares through its group company and immediately upon receipt of sale consideration, the assessee transferred the funds to another group company.

(b) The assessee had not incurred any expense on wages or salaries.

(c) The assessee did not have any physical assets such as land and building nor did it pay any rent.

(d) Though the assessee had 7 directors, no remuneration was paid to them during the relevant year. Further out of 7 directors, 4 directors were non-residents and 2 directors were executive directors of group company. One executive director of group company was attending board meetings by teleconference.

(e) The directors who were based in Mauritius did not have any effective say in management. The adviser company and sub-adviser company were both based outside Mauritius. Thus, the effective control and management of the assessee was outside Mauritius.

(f) The assessee has argued that it holds a valid TRC and as per Circular No.789 dated 13th April, 2000, and as per Supreme Court decision in UOI vs. Azadi Bachao Andolan [2003] 263 ITR 706 (SC) and other judicial precedents, DTAA benefits should be granted on the basis of TRC issued by Mauritius revenue authorities. However, subsequent judicial precedents and decisions have held that TRC is not conclusive in deciding tax residency and granting of benefit under DTAA.

HELD

ITAT held that the assessee is the beneficial owner of income on account of the following facts:

  • The assessee had made investments long time ago. Even after disinvestment from the said companies, it continued to hold substantial investments.
  • In its decision in Vodafone BV, Bombay High Court had made a conscious distinction between companies which were without any commercial substance and were established for investments, and those which were interposed as owner of shares in India at the time of disposal of shares to a third party, solely with a view to avoid tax.
  • The AO has nowhere alleged on the basis of any evidence that any investment flowing from India was received for creating the assessee. The assessee had held investments for over five years before it transferred them. The assessee had earlier also made investments and had sold them and even now held investments in various companies. The assessee was beneficially and legally holding the investments in its own name. On facts, it could not be called a fly-by-night operator created merely for purpose of tax avoidance.
  • The genuineness of the activities of assessee could not merely be questioned on the basis that Directors were not residents of Mauritius or that there were no operational expenses or no remuneration was paid to directors.
  • Revenue cannot question genuineness of business operations of an assessee without establishing that administrative activities were sham. The assessee had validly discharged its burden by establishing that the external service provider had been outsourced and it had paid for their services. It is the wisdom and discretion of the assessee as to how it should conduct its day-to-day activities.
  • The AO sought to establish that the assessee was a conduit company by alleging that investment funds were immediately transferred to the assessee before investment, and sale consideration received by the assessee was immediately transferred in the form of share buyback and dividend. However, since the assessee is an investment fund, such transactions are normal. What is material is how long the investments were held and whether the investments had commercial expediency. In his order the AO has reproduced the resolutions of the assessee indicating why the investments were being sold and how the sale proceeds were to be distributed to the investors. Conduit company could not be presumed merely because sale consideration was immediately transferred as the invested funds were to be returned to investors with gains made.
  • The commercial rationale for incorporating the assessee in Mauritius was not for tax avoidance but to attract funds from different jurisdictions for investment in India. In its decision in Azadi Bachao Andolan case, Supreme Court has mentioned that when endeavour of Government of India is to facilitate investment in joint venture and infrastructure projects for the benefit of economy, then attributing malice to investment funds like the assessee is not justified. The AO has not brought any evidence on record to rebut the statutory presumption of genuineness of business activity of the assessee on the basis of TRC.
  • Accordingly, the Tribunal allowed the appeal in favour of the assessee.

S. 12A, 13 — CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12A by invoking section 13(1)(b) since section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment and not at the time of grant of registration

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 141 (Ahd Trib)

Bargahe Husaini Trust vs. CIT

ITA No.: 826(Ahd) of 2023

A.Y.: N.A.

Date of Order: 22nd July, 2024

41. S. 12A, 13 — CIT(E) cannot deny registration under section 12A by invoking section 13(1)(b) since section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment and not at the time of grant of registration.

FACTS

The assessee-trust was granted provisional registration under section 12A on 24th January, 2022. Thereafter, it filed application for grant of final registration in Form 10AB on 18th March, 2023.

On perusal of the application, the CIT(E) observed that the objects of the applicant were for the benefit of a particular community or caste, that is, Khoja Shia Ishna Ashari Samaj, and hence, covered by the disallowance under section 13(1)(b). He, therefore, rejected the application for final registration under section 12A.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Noting various judicial precedents including that of jurisdictional High Court / Tribunal, the Tribunal held that provisions of section 13 can be invoked only at the time of framing assessment by AO and not at the time of grant of registration under section 12A by CIT(E). Accordingly, the appeal of the assessee-trust was allowed and the matter was restored to the file of CIT(E) for de-novo consideration.

S. 12A / 12AB — Where the show cause notice was issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT(E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 2014 in so far as section 12AA /12AB do not provide for cancellation of registration with retrospective effect

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 39(Cuttack Trib)

Maa Jagat Janani Seva Trust vs. CIT

ITA No.: 248(Ctk) of 2023

Date of Order: 16th July, 2024

40. S. 12A / 12AB — Where the show cause notice was issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT(E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1st April, 2014 in so far as section 12AA /12AB do not provide for cancellation of registration with retrospective effect.

FACTS

The assessee trust was granted registration under section 12A on 21st May, 2014, w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. It had also filed Form 10A to get re-registration under section 12A and Form 10AC was issued granting registration for the period from AY 2022-23 to AY 2026-27 vide an order dated 5th April, 2022.

Subsequently, a show cause notice was issued by CIT(E) to the assessee on 6th October, 2022 wherein the assessee was asked to explain as to why registration should not be cancelled. The assessee responded from time to time; however, CIT (E) held that the assessee had not submitted any categorical explanation or reply to the show cause notice and cancelled the registration under section 12AA with retrospective effect from 1st April, 2014.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that:

(a) A perusal of the order cancelling the registration showed that CIT(E) had not given any reason for rejecting various explanation given by the assessee to various show-cause notices issued.

(b) In any case, the show cause notice for cancellation of registration having been issued on 6th October, 2022, CIT (E) could not have cancelled registration retrospectively with effect from 1.4.2014 insofar as the provisions of section 12AA/12AB do not provide for the cancellation of registration with retrospective effect, as held by the Tribunal in Amala Jyothi Vidya Kendra Trust vs. PCIT, (2024) 206 ITD 601 (Bangalore Trib).

Accordingly, the Tribunal cancelled the order of CIT(E) and allowed the appeal of the assessee.

S. 45 — Revaluation of asset held by partnership firm and crediting amount of said revaluation to partners’ capital account is transfer taxable section45(4) and the fair market value fixed by stamp authorities should be taken as deemed value of consideration for purpose of section 48

(2024) 165 taxmann.com 261 (Hyd. Trib)

Shree Estatesvs. ITO

ITA No.:469(Hyd) of 2023

A.Y.: 2018-19

Date of Order: 30th July, 2024

39. S. 45 — Revaluation of asset held by partnership firm and crediting amount of said revaluation to partners’ capital account is transfer taxable section45(4) and the fair market value fixed by stamp authorities should be taken as deemed value of consideration for purpose of section 48.

S. 251 — Where CIT(A) considered the same income considered by AO but taxed it under the correct provision, the power exercised by CIT(A) cannot be said to be beyond scope of section 251(1).

FACTS

The assessee was a partnership firm registered on 15th May, 2017 with three partners, formed with capital contribution of land parcels by two partners and ₹1 lakh by third partner. Subsequently, it was reconstituted on 8th November, 2017 with six partners. The firm also revalued the land held by it in its books of account upwards to the tune of ₹12,56,24,460, thereby increasing the value of the land. The said revaluation amount was credited to the capital account of the partners. Subsequently, three partners also converted their loans given to the firm into capital account for which the existing partners agreed.

The assessee filed its return of income declaring total income of ₹1. The case was selected for scrutiny to verify substantial increase in capital in a year. During the course of assessment proceedings, the AO called upon the assessee to furnish the necessary capital account of partners and explain the substantial increase in partners’ capital account. The AO was not satisfied with the explanation furnished by the assessee and therefore, treated the entire capital account as unexplained credit taxable under section 68.

CIT(A) deleted the addition made under section 68; however, he held that the revaluation reserve credited to the partners’ capital account was available for withdrawal by the partners and such credit was taxable under section 45(4).

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT, inter alia, taking an additional legal ground challenging the jurisdiction of CIT (A) to tax a new source of income.

HELD

On the additional legal ground, the Tribunal observed that once the first appellate authority is having the coterminus powers with that of AO, then the powers of CIT (A) under section 251(1)(a) are wide enough to consider any other issues which come to his knowledge during the course of appellate proceedings. However, such issues should have emanated either from the assessment order or from the return of income filed by the assessee. In other words, CIT (A) can very well consider the issues which have been dealt by the AO as it is or he can deal with the issues under proper provisions of law, if facts so demand; but he cannot consider a new issue or new source of income which is either not considered by the AO or not emanated from the return of income filed by the assessee. In the present case, the issue considered by the AO was increase in capital account of partners on account of revaluation of the assets held by the firm and credited such revaluation amount to the capital account of the partners and said issues fall under section 45(4), but the AO considered the issue under section 68 as unexplained cash credit. CIT (A) having noticed this fact had rightly invoked section 45(4). Therefore, the powers exercised by CIT (A) cannot be said to be beyond the scope of section 251(1).

On the issue of taxability under section 45(4), the Tribunal observed –

(a) Following CIT vs. Mansukh Dyeing and Printing Mills, (2022) 449 ITR 439 (SC), the revaluation of the asset held by the firm and crediting the amount of said revaluation to the partners’ capital account is a transfer which falls under section 45(4) and any profit or gain arising from the transfer needs to be taxed in the hands of the appellant firm.

(b) Under section 45(4), the fair market value of the asset on the date of such transfer is deemed to be the full value of consideration for the purpose of section 48. The value recorded by the assessee in the books of account for the purpose of revaluation of asset cannot be a fair market value of the property because it is not ascertainable as what is the basis on which said value has been arrived at.

(c) The guideline value fixed by the stamp duty authorities reflects the correct fair market value of any property and it may be a yardstick to determine the fair market value of the property. Therefore, in absence of contrary evidence to that effect, the fair market value fixed by the stamp duty value authorities should be taken as deemed full value of the consideration for the purpose of section 48 read with section 45(4).

Sec. 153D: Approval u/s 153D is a mandatory and not procedural requirement and mechanical approval without application of mind by the approving authority would vitiate assessment orders

[2024] 112 ITR (T) 224 (Pune – Trib.)

SMW Ispat (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT

ITA NO. 56 TO 67 AND 72 & 73 (PUN.) OF 2022

A.Y.: 2009-10 TO 2014-15

Date of Order: 20th December, 2023

38. Sec. 153D: Approval u/s 153D is a mandatory and not procedural requirement and mechanical approval without application of mind by the approving authority would vitiate assessment orders.

FACTS

The assessee is a company engaged in the business of manufacturing of TMT Bars. A search and seizure action was conducted at different premises of the Mantri-Soni Group of Jalna / Bhilwara and their family members on 2nd May, 2013. A notice us 153A was issued upon the assessee on 13th February, 2014 requiring him to furnish the return of income from the date of receipt of notice.

The AO had added an amount of ₹2,00,00,000 which was taken from M/s. Sangam Infratech Limited, Bhilwara as unsecured loans on account of accommodation entry in the hands of the assessee. The AO further added unsecured loans of ₹85,00,000 taken from M/s. Swift Venture Pvt Ltd. and determined total income at ₹3,23,94,890 vide its order dated 30th March, 2016 passed us 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A). The CIT(A) in its order confirmed both the additions made by the AO. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

The assessee challenged the action of the AO of initiating the proceedings us 153A of the Act and passing the assessment order us 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

HELD

The assessee argued that the Joint Commissioner of Income Tax, Central Range, Nashik granted approval u/s. 153D of the Act on mechanical basis without any independent application of mind, the said approval nowhere deals with the merits of case relating to the additions made in the draft assessment order, the said approval nowhere mentions any reason or justification as to why such approval is being granted and it amply proves beyond doubt that the same was given in mechanical manner with a biased approach without any independent application of mind.

The ITAT observed that there should be some indication that the approving authority examined relevant material in detail while granting the approval u/s 153D of the Act. The approval u/s. 153D is a mandatory requirement and such approval is not meant to be given mechanically. The ITAT observed that on an examination of the approval dated 21st March, 2016 which was placed on record, no reference whatsoever was made by the JCIT or no indication was given for examination of evidences, documents, statements of various persons, etc.

The ITAT also observed that the AO sought approval u/s 153D of the Act on 18th March, 2016, the JCIT granted approval on 21st March, 2016 and the final assessment order u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act was passed on 30.03.2016 which clearly indicates that the approving authority granted approval in one day [19th March, 2016 & 20th March, 2016 was a Saturday & Sunday] mechanically without examining the relevant material.

The ITAT followed the decision of Hon’ble High Court of Orissa in the case of M/s. Serajuddin & Co. in ITA Nos. 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 of 2022 and held that the approval granted u/s. 153D of the Act mechanically without application of mind which resulted in vitiating the final assessment order dated 30th March, 2016 u/s. 143(3) r.w.s. 153A of the Act.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed for the above-mentioned issue.

EDITORIAL COMMENT

The decision of Hon’ble High Court of Orissa in the case of M/s. Serajuddin & Co. in ITA Nos. 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44 of 2022 was confirmed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court vide order dated 28th November, 2023 in SLP(C) No. 026338/2023.

Sec. 68 r.w.s. 148: Where nothing was brought on record by the Assessing Officer to substantiate that assessee had taken accommodation entry, reopening notice was to be quashed

[2024] 112 ITR (T) 158 (Kol – Trib.)

R. S. Darshan Singh Motor Car Finance (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO

ITA NO. 265(KOL) OF 2024

A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 2nd May, 2024

37. Sec. 68 r.w.s. 148: Where nothing was brought on record by the Assessing Officer to substantiate that assessee had taken accommodation entry, reopening notice was to be quashed.

FACTS

The assessee is a non-banking financial company [NBFC]. The AO had received information from Asst. Director of Income Tax (Investigation) (OSD), Unit-4, Kolkata that the assessee is one of the beneficiaries of the accommodation entries and had received total amount of ₹35,00,000 from M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. during the FY 2012-13. A notice u/s 148 was issued on 19th March, 2020 on perusal of the said information. The assessee had objected the reopening of the assessment proceedings. The AO disposed of the objections without assigning any reasons and enhanced the income of the assessee by ₹35,00,000 as unexplained cash credit u/s 68 of the Act. On appeal before CIT(A), the CIT(A) confirmed the impugned addition of ₹35,00,000 and upheld the assessment order.

Aggrieved by the Order, the assessee preferred an appeal before the ITAT on several grounds and filed an application for additional ground of appeal – “That the impugned order passed u/s 147 of the Act making an addition of ₹35,00,000 is not based on any information leading to escapement of ₹35,00,000 and therefore the entire proceeding is without jurisdiction and hence bad in law”

HELD

The ITAT observed that evidently the assessee had received sum of ₹20,00,000 from M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. during the FY 2012-13. The AO had not brought on record anything to substantiate the alleged receipt of ₹35,00,000 except for the fact that he had received credible information.

Assessee had relied on the following judgments:

  • CIT(Exemptions) vs. B. P. Poddar Foundation for Education [2023] 448 ITR 695 (Cal. HC)
  • CIT vs. Lakshmangarh Estate & trading Co. [2013] 220 Taxman 122 (Cal.)
  • Peerless General Finance and Investment Co. Ltd. vs. DCIT [2005] 273 ITR 16 (Cal. HC)

Relying on the above judgments, the ITAT opined that the burden lies with the AO to verify the genuineness of the credible information and that the information as alleged to be received by AO cannot be said to be a credible information. The ITAT also observed that in the preceding AY 2012-13, reopening was initiated by the then AO against the assessee on the same issue i.e. on the basis of transaction with M/s. Brahma Tradelinks Pvt. Ltd. but no addition was made.

The ITAT held that the AO did not apply his own mind to the information and examine the basis and material of the information, he accepted the plea in a mechanical manner and thus, the issuance of notice u/s 148 of the Act was illegal, wrong and quashed the notice.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

Section 250(6) of the Act obligates the CIT(A) to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. CIT(A) has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case

Maa Chintpurni Mining Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO
ITA No. 28/Ranchi/2024
A.Y.: 2015-16
Date of Order: 13th August, 2024
Section: 250

36. Section 250(6) of the Act obligates the CIT(A) to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. CIT(A) has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of mining, filed its return of income electronically on 29th October, 2015 declaring total income at ₹21,960. The case of the assessee was selected under limited scrutiny under CASS for the reason ‘large share premium received during the year’. During the assessment proceedings, the assessee failed to substantiate the nature of amount received to the tune of ₹68,11,000 whether it was share premium or otherwise to the satisfaction of the AO.

The assessment order stated that the assessee did not make due compliance to notices issued from time to time. Thus, the Assessing Officer (AO) framed the assessment u/s.144 of the Act assessing total income at ₹68,32,955 after making addition of ₹68,11,000 on account of unexplained cash credit u/s.68 of the Act.

Against the assessment order, the assessee preferred appeal before the ld. CIT(A). Before him, vide three grounds of appeal, the assessee contested the addition made on the ground that the AO erred in making the addition of the amount credited in the bank account as cash credit u/s 68 of the Act. Besides, he erred in making the addition which was not the subject matter of Limited scrutiny. The CIT(A) in his order narrated the non-compliant attitude of the assessee stating that despite number of notices sent through ITBA portal on several occasions, there was no response from the assessee. Therefore, he proceeded to dispose of the appeal based on materials on record. The CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the assessee upholding the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal where written submissions were filed on behalf of the assessee.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that while the CIT(A) has claimed that despite several notices issued allowing opportunity of hearing to the assessee during appellate proceedings, there was no compliance, the AR on the other hand, has inter alia claimed vide written submission above (which have been reproduced by the Tribunal in its order) that the CIT(A) ignored the written submission made on e-filing portal within the due date of time allowed. Copies of e-proceeding acknowledgements were enclosed with the written submissions which the Tribunal found to be self-speaking.

The Tribunal held that evidently, it appeared to the Bench that the compliance made by the assessee through e-portal was not in the knowledge of the CIT(A) for some technical issue. Since the appellate proceedings were taken up by NFAC in a faceless manner, such lack of communication cannot be ruled out due to technical glitches. It held that it would be in the fitness of things that the matter be adjudicated de novo on the grounds of appeal before the CIT(A)/NFAC after taking account the reply and other supporting material as claimed by the assessee to have been filed on e-portal.

The Tribunal held that the appeal has not been decided on merits due to miscommunication between the department and the assessee. Referring to provisions of Section 250(6) of the 1961 Act the Tribunal held that CIT(A) is obligated to state points for determination in appeal before him, the decision thereon and the reasons for determination. He has no power to dismiss appeal of assessee on account of non-prosecution and without deciding on the merits of the case.

Thus, in the in the interest of justice, the Tribunal restored the matter to CIT(A) emphasising the need for a thorough and compliant adjudication process.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed for statistical purposes.

It is not necessary that the consideration of the original asset be invested in new residential house. Construction of new house can commence before the date of transfer of original asset. Where return of income is filed under section 139(4), investment in new residential house till the date of filing of such return qualifies for deduction under section 54

Jignesh Jaysukhlal Ghiya vs. DCIT

ITA No. 324/Ahd./2020 A.Y.: 2013-14

Date of Order: 7th August, 2024

Sections: 54, 139(4)

35. It is not necessary that the consideration of the original asset be invested in new residential house. Construction of new house can commence before the date of transfer of original asset. Where return of income is filed under section 139(4), investment in new residential house till the date of filing of such return qualifies for deduction under section 54.

FACTS

For the assessment year under consideration the assessee filed his return of income declaring total income of ₹31,71,420. The Assessing Officer (AO) assessed the total income by making an addition of ₹23,17,183 as long-term capital gains.

The assessee sold a residential house on 9th January, 2013 for a consideration of ₹45,00,000 and purchased an unfinished flat on 17th February, 2014 and sale consideration was paid between 4th August, 2011 to 8th December, 2011 (much before sale of original house). The assessee also entered into a Construction Agreement on 25th February, 2014 to complete the construction of unfinished flat for a total consideration of ₹51,65,000. This consideration was paid during 8th December, 2011 to 16th February, 2014. Thereafter, the assessee filed his belated Return of Income u/s. 139(4) of the Act and claimed exemption u/s. 54 (restricted to ₹23,17,183). The Assessing Officer (AO) denied the benefit of section 54 as the assessee failed to deposit unutilised amount of capital gain in separate account and also did not file the Return of Income as prescribed u/s. 139(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who partly allowed the appeal and directed the AO to recompute the deduction under section 54 by considering only that part of the investment made in new property which was made after the date of sale of the original house and before the due date of filing of return of income under section 139(1) of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee it was submitted that construction of the new flat has been completed within three years (25th February, 2014) from the date of transfer of original asset (9th January, 2013). Thus, assessee is eligible for exemption u/s. 54 even in respect of investment made prior to the date of transfer of original asset. The date of commencement of construction is irrelevant for the purpose of claim of exemption u/s. 54 of the Act, so long as construction is completed within three years from the date of “transfer of original asset”. Further, the assessee is eligible for exemption u/s. 54 of the Act even in respect of amount of investment in construction made prior to the date of “transfer of original asset”. Reliance was placed on the following decisions:

i) Bhailalbhai N. Patel vs. DCITITA 37/Ahd/2014;

ii) ACIT vs. Subhash S. Bhavnani – (2012) 23 taxmann. com 94 (Ahd);

iii) Kapil Kumar Agarwal vs. DCIT-(2019) 178 ITD 255 (Del);

iv) CIT vs. J. R. Subramanya Bhat (1987) 165 ITR 571 (Karnataka);

v) CIT vs. H. K. Kapoor-(1998) 234 ITR 753 (Allahabad);

vi) CIT vs. Bharti Mishra-(2014) 41 taxmann.com 50 (Del);

HELD

The Tribunal found that both the lower authorities have taken a common view that the sale consideration of the old residential house should form part of construction in the residential house for claiming deduction 54 of the Act. It held that that the assessee is eligible to claim deduction under this section, even if a new residential house is purchased within one year before the date of transfer of original asset, which means that assessee has to make use of funds other than the sale consideration of original asset for investing in a new residential house and it is not mandatory that only the sale consideration of original asset be utilised for purchasing or constructing a new residential house. Since the assessee, in the present case, has utilized other funds (apart from sale consideration) for constructing new residential house, for this reason only he cannot be denied deduction u/s 54 of the Act.

The Tribunal having quoted the provisions of section 54 held that there is no mention about the date of start of construction of residential house, but it only refers to a construction of a residential house, which is the date of completion of the constructed residential house habitable for the purpose of residence.

As regards the question as to whether the assessee is entitled for claiming exemption u/s. 54 where the return is filed belatedly u/s. 139(4) of the Act it noted that this issue is considered by the Co-ordinate Bench of this Tribunal in the case of Manilal Dasbhai Makwana vs. ITO [(2018) 96 Taxmann.com 219] where the Tribunal has held that “when an assessee furnishes return subsequent to due date of filing return under s.139(1) but within the extended time limit under s.139(4), the benefit of investment made up to the date of furnishing of return of income prior to filing return under s.139(4) cannot be denied on such beneficial construction.”

It also noted that the Madras High Court in the case of C. Aryama Sundaram vs. CIT [(2018) 97 taxmann.com 74] has on identical facts decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that “It is not a requisite condition of section 54 that the construction could not have commenced prior to the date of transfer of asset resulting in capital gain.”

The Tribunal following the above judicial precedents held that the assessee is eligible for deduction u/s. 54 of the Act and directed the AO to grant deduction and delete the addition made by him.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Mistake in tax calculation whereby tax was calculated at slab rate instead of rate mentioned in section 115BBE is a mistake which can be rectified under section 154 and therefore provisions of section 263 cannot be invoked in such a scenario

Dhashrathsinh Ghanshyamsinh vs. PCIT

ITA No. 223/Ahd./2021

A.Y.: 2015-16

Date of Order: 8th August, 2024

Sections: 115BBE, 154, 263

34. Mistake in tax calculation whereby tax was calculated at slab rate instead of rate mentioned in section 115BBE is a mistake which can be rectified under section 154 and therefore provisions of section 263 cannot be invoked in such a scenario.

FACTS

The assessee filed return of income for AY 2015-16 declaring total income to be a loss of ₹31,52,060. The case was selected for limited scrutiny. The Assessing Officer (AO) passed an order under section 143(3) assessing the total income to be ₹1,89,07,363. The additions made by the AO comprised of addition in respect of interest free advance amounting to ₹3,60,000, addition in respect of cash gift amounting to ₹34,00,000, addition in respect of unsecured loan amounting to ₹19,50,000 and addition in respect of cash deposit in Bank amounting to ₹1,63,49,423. The PCIT issued show cause notice under Section 263 of the Act dated 28th February, 2020 in respect of the observation that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee failed to submit any documentary evidence regarding the source of cash deposit in the Bank and gift received in cash and, therefore, the addition made under section 68 should have been taxed at 30 per cent and not as per the slab rates. Thus, the PCIT passed order under Section 263 on 30th April, 2020 directing the AO to calculate tax as per Section 115BBE of the Act.

Aggrieved, assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The PCIT has not pointed out the aspect of assessment order being erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The Tribunal observed that all the additions made by the AO are in consonance with the Income-tax statute. The calculation of tax as per Section 115BBE of the Act is a mistake which can be rectified under Section 154 of the Act and, therefore, the provisions of Section 263 of the Act cannot be invoked in this scenario as it is not derived from Section 263 of the Act where the mistake in the assessment order carried out by the AO can be rectified. Thus, invocation of Section 263 of the Act itself was held to be not justifiable in the assessee’s case.

Section 69C — Bogus Purchase — Genuineness of purchase transaction

Pr. CIT – 1 Mumbai vs. SVD Resins & Plastics Pvt. Ltd

ITXA No. 1662 & 1664 of 2018

A.Ys.: 2009–2010 and 2010–2011

Dated: 7th August, 2024, (Bom) (HC)

14. Section 69C — Bogus Purchase — Genuineness of purchase transaction.

Briefly, the facts are that the assessee was engaged in the business of trading in resins and chemicals on wholesale basis. On information received from the DGIT (Investigation), Mumbai, the Assessing Officer (AO) invoked Section 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 to reopen the completed assessment by issuing notice under Section 148 dated 12th March, 2013. In response thereto, the assessee filed a revised return on 20th March, 2013, as also sought the reasons as recorded by the AO. The AO was of the opinion that the assessee had made purchases amounting to ₹1,34,25,500 from six parties who were declared by the Sales Tax Department as ingenuine dealers. It is not in dispute that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee filed ledger accounts, confirmation of suppliers, purchase bills, delivery bank statements and other documentary evidences to justify the genuineness of the purchases. The AO nonetheless was of the opinion that the disputed purchases did not have nexus with the corresponding sales. Accordingly, he made an addition of the said amount under Section 69C of the Act on the grounds of there being unexplained payments qua the disputed purchases.

Before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), the assessee contended that the AO has not rejected the books of accounts by invoking the provisions of Section 145(3); hence, the AO was not justified in invoking the provisions of Section 69C. It was also the assessee’s case that during the hearing in question as well as the preceding two years, the assessee had declared gross profit for the AY 2007–2008 at 4.23 per cent and for the AY 2008–2009 at 4.28 per cent. It was also contended that for the subsequent AY 2009–2010, a gross profit of 4.74 per cent was declared in respect of the disputed purchase; the disclosed gross profit was 0.27 per cent which was lower by 4.47 per cent than the normal gross profit margin of 4.74 per cent in respect of other accepted genuine transactions. It was also contended that if the disallowance is sustained, there will be an abnormal increase in the gross profit at 17.81 per cent which was almost impossible in trading activity of chemicals, and hence, it was urged before the CIT(A) that an alternate to estimate the total income at 5 per cent on the purchases needs to be accepted. Considering the rival contentions, the CIT(A) estimated the profit at 12.5 per cent on the purchases made by the assessee. The CIT(A) reduced the declared GP from 12.5 per cent and confirmed the addition to the extent of 7.76 per cent.

The Tribunal considering the proceeding and the respective contentions as urged on behalf of the revenue passed the impugned order in which it was observed that the CIT(A) has rightly estimated the profit in regard to the purchases at 12.5 per cent; however, the Tribunal observed that CIT(A) was not correct in reducing the gross profit already returned by the assessee at 4.74 per cent out of the 12 per cent, for the reason that the gross profit returned by the assessee related to the sales made by the assessee and did not have link to the purchases for which assessee might have procured bills by making savings in VAT, etc. For such reason, the Tribunal partly allowed the grounds as raised by the revenue and directed the AO to estimate the income at 12.5 per cent in each of the assessment years, on the purchases so made. The Tribunal rejected the assessee’s challenge to the orders passed by the CIT(A) while partly allowing the revenue’s appeals and dismissing the assessee’s appeal.

The appellant’s / revenue’s primary submission that the approach of the CIT(A) as also the part acceptance of such approach by the tribunal in the impugned order needs interference of this Court on the question of law as raised by the revenue. It is submitted that entire purchases of ₹1,34,25,500 were required to be discarded as bogus purchases, and the relevant amounts brought to tax by making additions to the assessee’s income, as rightly undertaken by the AO. However, the revenue was not in a position to dispute that the assessee had furnished all the relevant documents in so far as the purchases are concerned, namely, the ledger accounts, confirmation of suppliers, purchase bills, delivery statements and other documentary evidence, despite which the AO on the basis of information received from the Sales Tax Department had decided to make additions of the said amounts on the grounds that the purchases were presumed to be doubtful. The revenue further stated that the suppliers were not independently examined nor was their evidence recorded.

The assessee submitted that all these are factual issues which are being raised by the revenue and no question of law rises for consideration of the Court. Reliance was placed on the decision of a co-ordinate bench of this Court in the case of Pr. Commissioner of Income Tax-17 vs. Mohammad Haji Adam & Company, [2019] 103 taxmann.com 459 (Bombay) to contend that in similar circumstances, the Court had not entertained the revenue’s appeal and the same was dismissed, with observations that no question of law had arisen for consideration of the Court in similar facts.

The Honourable Court observed that the basic premise on the part of the AO so as to form an opinion that the disputed purchases were not having nexus with the corresponding sales, appears to be not correct. It was seen that what was available with the department was merely information received by it in pursuance of notices issued under Section 133(6) of the Act, as responded by some of the suppliers. However, an unimpeachable situation that such suppliers could be labelled to be not genuine qua the assessee or qua the transaction entered with the assessee by such suppliers was not available on the record of the assessment proceedings. It was an admitted position that during the assessment proceedings, the assessee filed all necessary documents in support of the returns on which the ledger accounts were prepared, including confirmation of the supplies by the suppliers, purchase bills, delivery bank statements, etc., to justify the genuineness of the purchases; however, such documents were doubted by the AO on the basis of general information received by the AO from the Sales Tax Department. The Honourable Court held that to wholly reject these documents merely on a general information received from the Sales Tax Department would not be a proper approach on the part of the AO, in the absence of strong documentary evidence, including a statement of the Sales Tax Department that qua the actual purchases as undertaken by the assessee from such suppliers, the transactions are bogus. Such information, if available, was required to be supplied to the assessee to invite the response on the same and thereafter take an appropriate decision. Unless such specific information was available on record, it is difficult to accept that the AO was correct in his approach to question such purchases, on such general information as may be available from the Sales Tax Department, in making the impugned additions. This for the reason that the same supplier could have acted differently so as to generate bogus purchases qua some parties, whereas this may not be the position qua the others. Thus, unless there is a case to case verification, it would be difficult to paint all transactions of such supplier to all the parties as bogus transactions. Thus a full addition could be made only on the basis of proper proof of bogus purchases being available as the law would recognise before the AO, of a nature which would unequivocally indicate that the transactions were wholly bogus. In the absence of such proof, by no stretch of imagination, a conclusion could be arrived, that the entire expenditure claimed by the petitioner qua such transactions need to be added, to be taxed in the hands of the assessee.

The Honourable Court observed that in a situation as this, the AO would be required to carefully consider all such materials to conclude that the transactions are found to be bogus. Such investigation or enquiry by the AO also cannot be an enquiry which would be contrary to the assessments already undertaken by the Sales Tax Authorities on the same transactions. This would create an anomalous situation on the sale-purchase transactions. Hence, wherever relevant, any conclusion in regards to the transactions being bogus needs to be arrived only after the AO consults the Sales Tax Department and a thorough enquiry in regards to such specific transactions being bogus is also the conclusion of the Sales Tax Department. In a given case, in the absence of a cohesive and coordinated approach of the AO with the Sales Tax Authorities, it would be difficult to come to a concrete conclusion in regard to such purchase / sales transactions being bogus merely on the basis of general information so as to discard such expenditure and add the same to the assessee’s income. Any halfhearted approach on the part of the AO to make additions on the issue of bogus purchases would not be conducive. It also cannot be on the basis of superficial inquiry being conducted in a manner not known to law in its attempt to weed out any evasion of tax on bogus transactions. The bogus transactions are in the nature of a camouflage and /or a dishonest attempt on the part of the assessee to avoid tax, resulting in addition to the assessee’s income. It is for such reason, the approach of the AO is required to be a well-considered approach and in making such additions, he is expected to adhere to the lawful norms and well-settled principles. After such scrutiny, the transactions are found to be bogus as the law would understand, in that event, they are required to be discarded by making an appropriate permissible addition.

The Honourable Court further observed that the Tribunal directed the AO to assess the income from such disputed transaction at 12.5 per cent in each of the assessment years, on the purchases so made by the assessee. However, in a given case if the Income Tax Authorities are of the view that there are questionable and / or bogus purchases, in that event, it is the solemn obligation and duty of the Income Tax Authorities and more particularly of the AO to undertake all necessary enquiry including to procure all the information on such transactions from the other departments / authorities so as to ascertain the correct facts and bring such transactions to tax. If such approach is not adopted, it may also lead to the assessee getting away with a bonanza of tax evasion and the real income would remain to be taxed on account of a defective approach being followed by the department.

The Honourable Court further observed that the decision in Mohammad Haji Adam & Company [2019] 103 taxmann.com 459 (Bombay) as relied on behalf of assessee is also quite opposite in the context in hand. In this decision, the Court observed that the findings which were arrived by the CIT(A) as also by the tribunal would suggest that the department did not dispute the assessee’s sales, as there was no discrepancy between the purchases as shown by the assessee and the sales declared. This was held to be an acceptable position, in dismissing the revenue’s appeal on the grounds that no substantial question of law had arisen for consideration of the Court.

In view of the same the appeals are accordingly dismissed.

Section 22 vis-à-vis 28 — Income from house property” or “business income” — Rule of consistency — Applicable to tax proceeding

Pr. CIT – 3 Mumbai vs. Banzai Estates P. Ltd.

ITXA No. 1703, 1727 & 1900 of 2018

A.Ys.: 2008–09, 2009–10 and 2010–11.

Dated: 9th July, 2024, (Bom) (HC).

13. Section 22 vis-à-vis 28 — Income from house property” or “business income” — Rule of consistency — Applicable to tax proceeding.

The issue before the Tribunal was as to whether the income received by the Respondent-Assessee from the property owned by it be accepted as “income from house property” or as contended by the Revenue, it should be treated as “business income”.

The Assessee is engaged in the business of hiring and leasing of properties. The Assessee declared an income from a self-owned property situated at MBC Tower, TTK Road, Chennai (for short, “MBC Tower property”) as income from house property. Apart from such income, the Assessee also declared rental income received from sub-letting of four other properties not owned by the Assessee, as income from business. The Assessing Officer did not accept the income earned from the MBC Tower property as “income from house property” and held such income necessarily to be a “business income”.

The CIT-A confirmed the view taken by the Assessing Officer in assessing the income earned by the Assessee from the self-owned property, as income from business (“profits and gains from business”).

Before the Tribunal, the Assessee contended that in the past, the Assessee was consistently treating rental income from the MBC Tower property as income from house property, which was accepted by the Revenue. The Tribunal was of the view that the Revenue was consistent in accepting Assessee’s income derived from MBC Tower property as “income from house property”; it was observed that the Assessing Officer however had taken a reverse position, for the assessment years in question, by treating its income from MBC Tower property to be “income from business”, without a valid reason. The Tribunal, referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in Raj Dadarkar & Associates vs. Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax [2017] 394 ITR 592 (SC) held that in the present case, Section 22 of the Act was clearly applicable as the property in question was owned by the Assessee. The Tribunal also observed that the Supreme Court in the case of Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Shambhu Investment (P.) Ltd. [2003] 263 ITR 143 (SC) confirmed the decision of the Calcutta High Court in Shambhu Investment P. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-Tax [2001] 249 ITR 47 (Calcutta), wherein the High Court had taken a view that when the Assessee was the owner of certain premises, then the income derived from such property would be income from house property. The Tribunal also considered other relevant decisions to come to a conclusion that the Appeal filed by the Assessee must be allowed.

The revenue submitted that this was a clear case where the income earned by the Assessee from letting out the MBC Tower property was required to be assessed as income, under the head “business income”, and not under the head of “income from house property” for the reason that the primary business of the Assessee was a business of letting out properties and deriving income therefrom. It was submitted that for such reason, the rental income received by the Assessee from MBC Tower property could not be categorised under the head “income from house property”. The Revenue placed reliance on the decision of the Supreme Court in Chennai Properties & Investment Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income-tax, Central-III, Tamil Nadu [2015] 277 CTR 185 (SC). Thus, the primary contention as urged on behalf of the Revenue is that in the context of Section 22 read with Section 24 of the Act, the provisions would permit a distinction in categorising income under different heads, in the facts and circumstances in hand. It is her contention that such a position stands approved by the Supreme Court in the case of Chennai Properties & Investment Ltd (supra).

The Assessee submitted that Section 22 of the Act makes no distinction on the basis of the Assessee’s business, and in fact, it was appropriate in the facts of the present case for the Assessee to treat the rental income from the MBC Tower property as an income from house property. It was submitted that there was nothing improper much less illegal for the benefit being conferred under Section 24 of the Act, to be availed by the Assessee. It was submitted that in fact in the previous three Assessment Years, i.e., in 2005–06, 2006–07 and 2007–08, the Revenue had accepted that this very income be taken to be income from house property and without any material change in the circumstances, much less in law, the Revenue has taken a position contrary to what had prevailed in the earlier assessment years. Hence, it was not appropriate for the Assessing Officer to take a different position for the Assessment Years in question. It was therefore submitted that the questions of law as raised by the Revenue do not arise for consideration on the principles of consistency which need to be accepted, and as applied by the Tribunal.

The Honourable Court held that it is not possible to accept the contentions as urged on behalf of the Revenue, so as to hold that the present proceedings give rise to any substantial question of law raised by the Revenue in the present Appeals. Section 22 of the Act, making a provision for “income from house property” ordains that the “annual value” of property consisting of any buildings or lands appurtenant thereto of which the Assessee is the owner, other than such portions of such property as he may occupy for the purposes of any business or profession carried out by him, the profits of which are chargeable to income-tax, shall be chargeable to income-tax under the head “income from house property”. Section 23 provides the manner in which “annual value” would be determined. Section 24 provides for deductions from income from house property.

In the present case, the Assessee has availed of deduction under Section 24, which appears to be one of the reasons that the Assessing Officer thought it appropriate to disallow what was accepted in the earlier three Assessment Years: 2005–06, 2006–07 and 2007–08. On a bare reading of Section 22, we find that in the present case, the basic requirements for the Assessee to consider the income as received from MBC Tower property as “income from house property” stands clearly satisfied, as the Assessee derives income from house property “owned by it”. Even if the Assessee is to be in the business of letting or subletting of properties and deriving income therefrom, there is no embargo on the Assessee from accounting the income received by it, from the property “owned by Assessee” (MBC Tower) as “income from house property” and at the same time, categorising the rental income from other properties not of Assessee’s ownership under the head “income from business”. The Revenue’s reading of Section 22 differently to those who are in the business of letting out properties as in the present case namely in combination of a property of Assessee’s ownership and also to have income from properties which are not of Assessee’s ownership from which rental income is derived would amount to reading something into Section 22 than what the provision actually ordains. The legislature does not carve out any such categorisation / exception. Thus, the Revenue is not correct in its contention that in the circumstances in hand, a straightjacket formula is required to be applied, namely, that section 22 is unavailable to an Assessee, who is in the business of letting out properties.

In the prior Assessment Years, the Assessing Officer had accepted the Assessee’s treatment of such income as an income from house property, which is one of the factors which has weighed with the Tribunal to allow the Appeals filed by the Assessee, on the principle of consistency. The Court was of the opinion that such principles are appropriately applied by the Tribunal. The Supreme Court has held it to be a settled principle of law that although strictly speaking res judicata does not apply to income tax proceedings, and as such, what is decided in one year may not apply in the following year. Thus, when a fundamental aspect permeating through different Assessment Years has been treated in one way or the other and that has been allowed to continue, such position ought not be changed without any new fact requiring such a direction. (See M/s. Radhasoami Satsang, Saomi Bagh, Agra vs. Commissioner of Income Tax [1992] 193 ITR 321 (SC). The decision of the Supreme Court in M/s. Radhasoami Satsang (supra) has been referred in a decision of a recent origin in Godrej & Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd. vs. Dy. Commissioner of Income Tax, Mumbai, &Anr (2017) 7 SCC 421.

The further refer to a decision of this Court in the case of Principal Commissioner of Income-tax vs. Quest Investment Advisors (P.) Ltd [2018] 409 ITR 545 (Bombay), in which this Court referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. Anr. vs. Union of India Ors [2006] 282 ITR 273 (SC) which followed the decision in Radhasoami Satsang Sabha (supra) accepted the rule of consistency.

The Honourable Court further observed that the Revenue’s reliance on the decision in Chennai Properties (supra) was not well founded for the reason that in such case, the assessee itself had chosen to account such income derived by the assessee, as an income under the head “income from business”. This was a case where the Revenue was of the contrary view, namely, that such income ought not to be allowed as an income from business and must be treated as income from house property. The Supreme Court thus held that the income was rightly disclosed by the Assessee under the head “gains from business”, and it was not correct for the High Court to hold that it needs to be treated as income from house property. The situation being quite different in the said case, the same would not be applicable in the present facts. This is not a case where the Assessee itself had taken a position that such income be treated as income from business.

Accordingly the Appeals were dismissed.

Section 37: Payments under a Memorandum of Settlement with the trade union — Expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.: Section 40A(9) of the Act.

CIT vs. M/s. Tata Engineering & Locomotive

Company Ltd.

[ITXA NO. 321 of 2008 & 2070 of 2009

A.Ys.: 1987–88 and 1988–89

Dated: 30th July, 2024, (Delhi) (HC)].

12. Section 37: Payments under a Memorandum of Settlement with the trade union — Expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.: Section 40A(9) of the Act.

The two Appeals arise from common order dated 26th October, 2004 passed by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, and involve identical questions of law, extracted below:

“(A) Whether the ITAT was justified in law in upholding the action of the CIT(A) in deleting the disallowance of R1,96,71,842/- made under section 40A(9) of the Act ?

(B) Whether a payment made under a memorandum of settlement under the Industrial Disputes Act can be said to be a payment required by or under any law ?”

The short point that arose for consideration was whether the payments made under a Memorandum of Settlement dated 31st March, 1986 between the Respondent-Assessee and the trade union could be allowed as revenue expenditure under Section 37(1) of the Act; the disallowance canvassed by the Appellant-Revenue was based on the purported applicability of Section 40A(9) of the Act.

The payments were envisaged under a Memorandum of Settlement dated 31st March, 1986 between the Respondent-Assessee and the trade union, namely, TELCO-Workers’ Union, Jamshedpur (“Workmen’s Union”) of the workers employed by the Respondent-Assessee. The expenses were primarily defended as being revenue expenditure as expenses towards development and welfare of the local population in the vicinity of the factory with benefits flowing the business. Such expenditure was claimed to have helped the Respondent-Assessee get the benefit of goodwill and local harmony in the conduct of its business operations in the local ecosystem, thereby justifying the claim that such expenditure should be allowed as revenue expenditure. Apart from these submissions, the Respondent-Assessee also claimed that such expenditure, having been envisaged in the Memorandum of Settlement entered into with the Workmen’s Union of the employees, the expenditure could also be defended as payments made under the law in terms of the settlement reached with the employees.

The Honourable Court observed that from a plain reading of the Memorandum of settlement, it would become clear that the Respondent-Assessee had been expending various amounts towards “Community Services” and “Social Welfare”, and this was recited in the Memorandum of Settlement, with a statement that such measures would continue. There is no commitment of any specific amount that would be spent under these heads of expenses. Owing to the linkage of the expenses with the settlement entered into with the Workmen’s Union, the Appellant-Revenue has argued that Section 40A(9) would disallow deduction of such expenditure in the computation of income under the Act.

Both, the lower authorities gave a concurrent findings to state the nature of these expenses do not fall within the jurisdiction of Section 40A(9) and that they ought to be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act.

The Honourable Court observed that it was apparent that the expenditure on community services and social welfare, in the context of the Respondent-Assessee’s business in that region, was being undertaken even before the execution of the Memorandum of Settlement. The document merely recited that the Company would continue to spend on such measures. Indeed, employees and their extended families would have benefited from such expenditure, which is why it finds mention in the Memorandum of Settlement. However, the expenses were not aimed at employee welfare alone but formed part of the Company making its presence felt by discharging a wider range of social responsibilities in the area of its operation.

The Court noted that plain reading of the Section 40A(9) would show that the subject matter of what is positively disallowed under the provision is payments made by an assessee “as an employer”. The very core ingredient to attract the jurisdiction of the provision is that the payment ought to have been made by the assessee in the capacity of an employer. The payments that are disallowed under Section 40A are payments made towards setting up, forming or contributing to any fund, trust, company, association of persons, body of individuals, society or other institution for any purpose, but in every case, in the capacity as an employer. Even for such payments, there is an exception in relation to payments that positively fall within the scope of clauses (iv), (iva) and (v) of Section 36(1), which are essentially payments towards contribution to provident fund, pension scheme and gratuity fund. These are specifically legislated as allowable expenses and have therefore been kept out of the mischief of Section 40A(9). Yet, it cannot be overlooked that for any payment to first fall within the mischief of what has to be positively disallowed under Section 40A(9), the payment ought to have been made by the assessee “as an employer”.

The Honourable Court observed that the payments could not be regarded as payments made by the Respondent- Assessee in its exclusive capacity as an employer. The payments in question are made towards wider local welfare measures that would boost its presence in the local ecosystem and enable harmonious conduct of its factory and business operations in the vicinity. Merely because a commitment to continue such welfare measures is recited in the Memorandum of Settlement with the Workmen’s Union, these payments would not partake the character of payments made under the Memorandum of Settlement or payment required to be made under labour law, or for that matter, payment that is made “as an employer”.

The expenditure not covered by Section 30 to Section 36, and expenditure made for purposes of business shall be allowed under Section 37(1) of the Act. At all times, relevant to these appeals, as Section 37 then stood, such expenses were not disallowed under Section 37.

The Court observed that in the instant case, the payments made by the Respondent- Assessee were for public causes in the locality of the business operations and benefits flowed from it to the business of the Assessee. If at all the Memorandum of Settlement is relevant, it would be to show that there was a nexus between such social welfare activity undertaken by the Respondent-Assessee and the business of the Respondent-Assessee. The local harmony and goodwill that the social welfare and community expenses generated, benefited the Respondent-Assessee’s conduct of business. That such expenses were being incurred was acknowledged and recited as a continuing commitment. Thus, merely because such expenditure finds a place in the Memorandum of Settlement, the nature and character of such expenditure would not be altered, so as to fall under Section 37(1), or to attract Section 40A(9). Therefore, the two concurrent views expressed by the CIT-A and the Tribunal need not be faulted.

The Honourable court further observed that the Court, in appellate jurisdiction on substantial questions of law, should not substitute an alternate view merely because another view is possible, unless the views expressed in the concurrent findings are not at all a plausible view.

The Honourable Court held that Section 40A(9) has no application to the facts of the case. The Tribunal was indeed justified in law in upholding the view of the CIT-A in deleting the disallowance made by the Assessing Officer. Insofar as question (B) is concerned, the payments made in the facts of this case were not payments required to be made under the Industrial Disputes Act or payment required by or under any other law, but the same is irrelevant for the matter at hand since Section 40A(9) was not at all attracted. Unless it was attracted, there was no necessity to rely on the exception in that section in relation to payments required to be made or under any law.

Consequently, the two questions of law the Appeals were answered against the Revenue and in favour of the Assessee.

Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Extension of limitation period under 2020 Act — Notice for A.Y. 2016–17 issued after April 2021 — Alleged escapement of income less than R50 lakhs — Notice barred by limitation

SevenseaVincom Pvt. Ltd. vs. Principal CIT

[2024] 465 ITR 331(Jhar)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 11th December, 2023

Ss. 147, 148, 149, 156 of the ITA 1961

43. Reassessment — Notice after three years — Limitation — Extension of limitation period under 2020 Act — Notice for A.Y. 2016–17 issued after April 2021 — Alleged escapement of income less than R50 lakhs — Notice barred by limitation.

The petitioner is a private limited company registered under the Companies Act, 2013. A notice dated 30th June, 2021 u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2016–17 was issued to the petitioner. Thereafter, the Revenue issued a letter on 30th May, 2022 deemed to be a notice u/s. 148A(b) of the Act. However, no information and material relied upon by the respondent-Department were provided to the petitioner. Department passed the order on 21st July, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) of the Act and on the same date, i.e., 21st July, 2022 notice u/s. 148 of the Act was also issued for reassessment for the A.Y. 2016–17 and finally a reassessment order was passed on 31st May, 2023 against this petitioner and consequential notice of demand was also issued. The income claimed to have escaped assessment was less than ₹50 lakhs.

The petitioner wrote a writ petition and challenged the notices and the orders. The Jharkhand High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) According to section 149 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 the limitation for issuance of notice u/s. 148 is three years from the end of the relevant assessment year and extendable beyond three years till ten years, provided the income which has escaped assessment is ₹50,00,000 or more and the permission of the prescribed sanction authority is taken u/s. 151.

ii) The notice dated July 21, 2022, issued u/s. 148, for the A. Y. 2016-17 was barred by the limitation period prescribed u/s. 149 since the three-year time period had ended on March 31, 2020. Further, the notice was for alleged escaped income which was less than ₹50 lakhs and therefore, the benefit of the extended period of limitation beyond three years till ten years was not available.

iii) The initiation of reassessment proceedings u/s. 147 was without jurisdiction. If the foundation of any proceeding was illegal and unsustainable, all consequential proceedings or orders were also bad in law. Accordingly, since the notice dated July 21, 2022, issued u/s. 148, was barred by limitation and was illegal, unsustainable and void ab initio and set aside, the subsequent reassessment order u/s. 147 and notice of demand u/s. 156 were also quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — New procedure — Notice — Reason to believe — Necessity of live link between belief and material available — Information from “insight” portal that assessee had transacted with mutual fund found to be involved in scam — No nexus between belief and material — AO not clear whether assessee had claimed loss or dividend in mutual fund — Non-application of mind — Notices and order set aside.

Karan Maheshwari vs. ACIT

[2024] 465 ITR 232 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2016–17

Date of order: 8th March, 2024

Ss. 147, 148, 148A(b) and 148A(d) of the ITA 1961

42. Reassessment — New procedure — Notice — Reason to believe — Necessity of live link between belief and material available — Information from “insight” portal that assessee had transacted with mutual fund found to be involved in scam — No nexus between belief and material — AO not clear whether assessee had claimed loss or dividend in mutual fund — Non-application of mind — Notices and order set aside.

For the A.Y. 2016–17, the Assessing Officer issued an initial notice u/s. 148A(b), an order u/s. 148A(d) and notices u/s. 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, based on the information from the “insight” portal, that the assessee was a beneficiary of dividend income from a mutual fund alleged to have been involved in a scam.

On a writ petition contending that without providing any information as requested, the Department had proceeded to pass the order u/s. 148A(d) and the notices u/s. 148 for reopening the assessment u/s. 147, the Bombay High Court held as under:

“i) The reasons for the formation of the belief that there has been escapement of income u/s. 147 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 must have a rational connection with or relevant bearing on the information. Rational connection postulates that there must be a direct nexus or live link between the material coming to the notice of the Assessing Officer and his view that there has been escapement of income in the particular year. It is not any and every material, howsoever vague and indefinite or distant, remote and far-fetched which would suggest escapement of the income. The powers of the Assessing Officer to reopen an assessment, though wide, are not plenary. The Act contemplates the reopening of the assessment if grounds exist for believing that income has escaped assessment. The live link or close nexus should be there between the information before the Assessing Officer and the belief which he has to prima facie form an opinion regarding the escapement of the income u/s. 147.

ii) The assessee was himself a victim of the alleged fraud of the mutual fund and was again being victimised by the Assessing Officer. Even in the order u/s. 148A(d) wherein it was mentioned that statement of the key management personnel of the mutual fund was recorded, there was nothing to indicate that the assessee was part of the alleged sham mutual fund. The assessee was not a distributor and was only a client. The allegation in the initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b) that the assessee was one of the persons who had claimed fictitious short-term capital loss was without any basis. The assessee had, based on public announcement, invested in the mutual fund. The receipt of tax free dividend fund and the fact that the assessee had suffered a loss could not be held against the assessee. Even assuming that the transaction was preplanned, there was nothing to impeach the genuineness of the transaction. The assessee was free to carry on his business which he did within the four corners of the law. Mere tax planning without any motive to evade taxes through colourable devices was not frowned upon even in Mcdowelland Co. Ltd. v. CTO [1985] 154 ITR 148;

iii) That the Assessing Officer’s allegations in the notice issued u/s. 148A(b), that the mutual fund had manipulated accounting methodology so as to artificially inflate the distributable surplus and the investors, in order to reduce their tax liability, had entered into sham transactions and received dividend and short-term capital loss, did not implicate the assessee in any manner. There was nothing to indicate that the assessee had participated knowingly in a sham transaction to reduce his tax liability or to earn dividend or book short-term capital loss.

iv) The Assessing Officer was also not clear whether the assessee had booked loss or claimed dividend in the mutual fund which indicated non-application of mind by the Assessing Officer. The initial notice u/s. 148A(b), the order passed u/s. 148A(d) and the notices u/s. 148 were therefore, quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Notice — Limitation — New procedure — Extension of period of limitation by 2020 Act — Supreme Court ruling in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR1 (SC) — Effect — Notice for reassessment u/s. 148 after 31st March, 2021 for A.Y. 2015–16 — Extension of period not applicable where limitation had already expired — Notice does not relate back to original date — 2020 Act would not extend limitation

Hexaware Technologies Ltd. vs. ACIT

[2024] 464 ITR 430 (Bom)

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of order: 3rd May, 2024

Ss. 119, 147, 148, 148A(b), 148A(d) and 149 of ITA 1961

41. (A) Reassessment — Notice — Limitation — New procedure — Extension of period of limitation by 2020 Act — Supreme Court ruling in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR1 (SC) — Effect — Notice for reassessment u/s. 148 after 31st March, 2021 for A.Y. 2015–16 — Extension of period not applicable where limitation had already expired — Notice does not relate back to original date — 2020 Act would not extend limitation.

(B) Reassessment — Notice — Document identification number — CBDT Circular stipulating mention of document identification number — Binding nature of — Failure to mention document identification number in notice — Violation of mandatory requirement — Notice invalid.

(C) Reassessment — Notice — Jurisdiction — Faceless assessment scheme — Specific jurisdiction assigned to jurisdictional Assessing Officer or faceless Assessment Officer under scheme is to exclusion of other — No concurrent jurisdiction — Office memorandum cannot override mandatory specifications in scheme.

In its return for the A.Y. 2015–16, the assessee claimed deduction u/s. 10AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and special deduction u/s. 80JJAA, filing audit reports in forms 56F, 10DA, 3CB and 3CD. Notices were issued calling upon the assessee to file details of the deductions with all supporting documents with which the assessee complied. The Assessing Officer passed an assessment order u/s. 143(3) of the Act, accepting the return of income filed by the assessee. On 8th April, 2021, the Assessing Officer issued notice u/s. 148 of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition challenging the notice as having been issued on the basis of provisions which had ceased to exist. The petition was allowed and the court held that the notice dated 8th April, 2021 was invalid.

Pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); directing that notices issued u/s. 148 of the Act after 1st April, 2021 be treated as notice issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act, the Assessing Officer issued notice dated 25th May, 2022 to the assessee u/s. 148A(b) proposing, inter alia, to deny the deduction u/s. 80JJAA of the Act. Notwithstanding the detailed reply filed by the assessee, the Assessing Officer issued a notice called for further information due to change in incumbency as per the provisions of section 129 of the Act. The assessee informed the Assessing Officer that the submissions earlier made should be considered as a response to the notice. The Assessing Officer thereafter passed an order u/s. 148A(d) dated 26th August, 2022, inter alia, dismissing the assessee’s objections. Separately, a communication dated 27th August, 2022 was issued where the Assessing Officer stated that document identification number had been generated for the issuance of notice dated 26th August, 2022 u/s. 148 of the Act.

On the grounds that the notice dated 25th May, 2022 purporting to treat notice dated 8th April, 2021 as notice issued u/s. 148A(b) of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, the order dated 26th August, 2022 u/s. 148A(d) of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, and the notice dated 27th August, 2022 issued u/s. 148 of the Act for the A.Y. 2015–16, were unlawful, the assessee filed a writ petition. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) F or the A. Y. 2015-16 the provisions of the 2020 Act were not applicable. The reliance by the Department on Instruction No. 1 of 2022 ([2022] 444 ITR (St.) 43) issued by the CBDT was misplaced and neither the provisions of the 2020 Act nor the judgment in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); provided that any notice issued u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act after March 31, 2021 would travel back to the original date.

ii) The notice, dated August 27, 2022, u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act was barred by limitation since it was issued beyond the period of limitation prescribed in section 149 read with the first proviso. Section 149(1)(b) of the unamended provisions provided a time limit of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year for issuing notice u/s. 148. The relevant assessment year, being 2015-16, the sixth year had expired on March 31, 2022. The first proviso to section 149 provided that up to the A. Y. 2021-22 (period before the amendment), the period of limitation as prescribed in the unamended provisions of section 149(1)(b) would be applicable and only from the A. Y. 2022-23, the period of ten years as provided in section 149(1)(b), would be applicable. To interpret the first proviso to section 149 to be applicable only for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, i. e., for the assessment years where the period of limitation had already expired on April 1, 2021, was contrary to the plain language of the proviso and would render the first proviso to section 149 redundant and otiose and one phrase would have to be substituted with another in section which was impermissible. When the limitation period had already expired on April 1, 2021 when section 149 was amended for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, it could not be revived by way of a subsequent amendment and, hence, for these assessment years the proviso to section 149 was not required. Reopening for the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15 had already been barred by limitation on April 1, 2021. Accordingly, the extended period of ten years as provided in section 149(1)(b) would not have been applicable to the A. Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, de hors the proviso. Hence, to give meaning to the proviso it has to be interpreted to be applicable for the A.Y. up to 2021-22.

iii) The period of limitation and the restriction under the proviso to section 149 were provided in respect of a notice u/s. 148 and not for a notice u/s. 148A. The notice dated April 8, 2021, which though originally issued as a notice u/s. 148, (under the old provisions prior to the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2021), had now been treated as a notice issued u/s. 148A(b) in accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC). Once the notice dated April 8, 2021 had been treated as having been issued u/s. 148A(b), it was no longer relevant for the purpose of determining the period of limitation prescribed u/s. 149 or the restriction in the first proviso to section 149. Therefore, for considering the restriction on issue of a notice u/s. 148 prescribed in the first proviso to section 149, the fresh notice dated August 27, 2022 issued u/s. 148 was required to be considered. Such notice was beyond the period of limitation of six years prescribed by the 1961 Act prior to its amendment by the Finance Act, 2021. For the A. Y. 2015-16, the unamended time limit of six years had expired on March 31, 2022 and the notice u/s. 148 had been issued on August 27, 2022 and, therefore, was barred by the restriction of the first proviso to section 149.

iv) Even if the fifth and sixth provisos were to be applicable, the notice u/s. 148 dated August 27, 2022 for the A. Y. 2015-16 would still be beyond the period of limitation. The fifth proviso extends limitation with respect to the time or extended time allowed to an assessee in the show-cause notice issued u/s. 148A(b) or the period, during which the proceeding u/s. 148A were stayed by an order of injunction by any court. Hence, in view of the fifth proviso, the period to be excluded would be counted from May 25, 2022, i.e., the date on which the show-cause notice was issued u/s. 148A(b) by the Assessing Officer subsequent to the decision in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC) and up to June 10, 2022, which is a period of 16 days. The period from June 29, 2022 up to July 4, 2022 could not be excluded since it was not based on any extension sought by the assessee, but at the behest of the Assessing Officer. Even if it was it would only be an exclusion of five days. Even after considering the excluded periods, the notice dated August 27, 2022 was still beyond limitation. The fact that the original notice dated April 8, 2021 issued u/s. 148 was stayed by this court on August 3, 2021, and its stay came to an end on March 29, 2022 on account of the decision of this court, would not be relevant for providing extension under the fifth proviso. The fifth proviso provides for extension only for the period during which the proceeding u/s. 148A is stayed. The original stay granted by the court was not with respect to the proceeding u/s. 148A but with respect to the proceeding initiated under the unamended provisions of section 148 and, hence, such stay would not extend the period of limitation under the fifth proviso to section 149. On the facts, the sixth proviso was not applicable.

v) The notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2015-16 had been issued without mentioning a document identification number. Issuance of a separate intimation letter on even date would not validate the notice issued u/s. 148 since the intimation letter referred to a document identification number with respect to some notice u/s. 148 dated August 26, 2022. The notice in question issued to the assessee was dated August 27, 2022 and not August 26, 2022 for which the document identification number was generated. The procedure prescribed in Circular No. 19 of 2019 dated August 14, 2019 ([2019] 416 ITR (St.) 140) for non-mention of document identification number in case letter or notice or order had not been complied with by the Assessing Officer. If the document identification number was not mentioned the reason for not mentioning it, and the approval from the specified authority for issuing such letter or notice or order without the document identification number had to be obtained and mentioned in such letter or notice or order. No such reference was stated in the notice.

vi) The notice dated August 27, 2022 u/s. 148 had been issued by the jurisdictional Assessing Officer and not the National Faceless Assessment Centre and hence was not in accordance with the Scheme announced by notification dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198).

vii) The Scheme dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) in paragraph 3 clearly provides that the issuance of notice ‘shall be through automated allocation’. It was not the contention of the Assessing Officer that he was the random officer who had been allocated jurisdiction.

viii) No reliance could be placed by the Department on the Office Memorandum, dated February 20, 2023, to justify that the jurisdictional Assessing Officer had jurisdiction to issue notice u/s. 148. The Office Memorandum, merely contained the comments of the Department issued with the approval of Member (L&S) of the CBDT and was not in the nature of a guideline or instruction issued u/s. 119 to have any binding effect on the Department.

ix) The guidelines dated August 1, 2022 did not deal with or even refer to the Scheme dated March 29, 2022 ([2022] 442 ITR (St.) 198) framed by the Government u/s. 151A. The Scheme dated March 29, 2022 u/s. 151A, would be binding on the Department and the guidelines dated August 1, 2022 could not supersede the Scheme and if it provided anything to the contrary to the Scheme, it was invalid.

x) There was no allegation regarding income escaping assessment u/s. 147 on account of any undisclosed asset. In his order, the Assessing Officer had restricted the escapement of income only with regard to the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA and had made disallowance of claim of foreign exchange loss. The Assessing Officer had accepted the contentions of the assessee in respect of the foreign exchange loss and therefore, it could not be justified as an escapement of income. He had also accepted that the transactions in issue had been duly incorporated in the assessee’s accounts and that no deduction was claimed in respect of the deduction allowed u/s. 10AA. None of the issues raised in the order showed an alleged escapement of income represented in the form of asset as required u/s. 149(1)(b). The alleged claim of disallowance of deduction did not fall either under clause (b) or clause (c) as it was neither a case of expenditure in relation to an event nor of an entry in the books of account as no entries were passed in the books of account for claiming a deduction under the provisions of the Act.

xi) The assessment could not be reopened u/s. 147 based on a change of opinion. The Assessing Officer had no power to review his own assessment when the information was provided and considered by him during the original assessment proceedings. The claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA was made by the assessee in the return of income and form 10DA being the report of the chartered accountant had been filed. In the note filed along with form 10DA, the assessee had specifically submitted that software development activity constituted “manufacture or production of article or thing”. During the assessment proceedings, in response to the notice the assessee had furnished the details of deduction claimed under Chapter VI of the Act along with supporting documents. The Assessing Officer had passed the assessment order allowing the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA. Such claim had been allowed in the earlier assessment as well from the A. Y. 2010-11. The concept of change of opinion being an in-built test to check abuse of power by the Assessing Officer and the Assessing Officer having allowed the claim of deduction u/s. 80JJAA, reopening of assessment on change of opinion or review of the original assessment order was not permissible even nder the new provisions.

xii) The initial notice issued u/s. 148A(b), the order u/s. 148A(d) to issue the notice and the notice issued u/s. 148 for the A. Y. 2015-16 were quashed and set aside.”

Reassessment — Change of law — Jurisdiction — Notice issued under existing law and reassessment order passed and becoming final — Issue of notice u/s. 148A pursuant to subsequent direction of Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal — Without jurisdiction and therefore quashed

Arvind Kumar Shivhare vs. UOI
[2024] 464 ITR 396(All)
A.Y.: 2017–18
Date of order: 4th April, 2024
Ss. 147, 148 and 148A of the ITA 1961

40. Reassessment — Change of law — Jurisdiction — Notice issued under existing law and reassessment order passed and becoming final — Issue of notice u/s. 148A pursuant to subsequent direction of Supreme Court in UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal — Without jurisdiction and therefore quashed.

The assessee was originally assessed to tax u/s. 143(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the A.Y. 2017–18, by an assessment order dated 29th May, 2019. Thereafter, the assessee received a reassessment notice dated 31st March, 2021 issued u/s. 148 of the Act. The assessee participated in the reassessment proceeding and a reassessment order dated 28th March, 2022 was passed by the Assessing Officer. The assessee did not challenge it, and it attained finality. A second reassessment notice for the A.Y. 2017–18 dated 30th July, 2022 was issued, invoking section 148A of the Act.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of notice u/s. 148A.

The counsel for the Revenue contended that since the reassessment notice dated 31st March, 2021 was digitally signed on 1st April, 2021, by virtue of the law declared by the Supreme Court in Civil Appeal No. 3005 of 2022 (UOI vs. Ashish Agarwal 1), decided on 4th May, 2022, the Revenue authorities have taken a view that the notice dated 31st March, 2021 was wrongly acted upon. That notice having been digitally signed on 1st April, 2021, the day when the amended law that introduced section 148A of the Act after making amendment to sections 147 and 148 of the Act came into force, the entire proceedings culminating in the reassessment order dated 28th March, 2022 were vitiated.

The Allahabad High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) There could exist only one assessment order for an assessee for one assessment year. Since the reassessment order had already been passed on March 28, 2022 for the A. Y. 2017-18, there was no proceeding pending to have been influenced or affected or governed by the order of the Supreme Court dated May 4, 2022 in UOI v. Ashish Agarwal 1.

ii) In the absence of any declaration of law to annul or set aside the pre-existing reassessment u/s. 147 and assessment order dated March 28, 2022, after issuing notice u/s. 148, the assessing authority had no jurisdiction to reissue the notice dated July 30, 2022 u/s. 148A. The proceedings were without jurisdiction and a nullity, and therefore, quashed.”

Non-resident — Double taxation avoidance — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Royalty — Meaning of — Difference between transfer of copyright and right to copyrighted article — Provision of customer relationship management services by resident of Singapore — Fees received not royalty within meaning of Act — Not also taxable in India under DTAA between Singapore and India.

CIT (International Taxation) vs. Salesforce.Com

Singapore Pte. Ltd.

[2024] 464 ITR 257 (Del)

A,Ys.: 2011–12 to 2017–18

Date of order: 14th February, 2024

Ss. 9(1)(vi), Expl. 2of the ITA 1961: and DTAA

between Singapore and India Art. 12(4)(b)(1)

39. Non-resident — Double taxation avoidance — Income deemed to accrue or arise in India — Royalty — Meaning of — Difference between transfer of copyright and right to copyrighted article — Provision of customer relationship management services by resident of Singapore — Fees received not royalty within meaning of Act — Not also taxable in India under DTAA between Singapore and India.

The assessee was a tax resident of Singapore and was stated to provide a customer relationship management services application which was stated to be an ‘enterprise business application’. The application enabled customers and subscribers to record, store and act upon business data, formulate business strategies and enable businesses to manage customer accounts, track sales positions, evaluate marketing campaigns as well as bettering postsales services. The income derived from the subscription fee, which the assessee received from customers in India for providing customer relationship management-related services, was assessed to income-tax.

The Tribunal held that the amount was not assessable in India.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 9 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, defines royalty as the amount received for the transfer of all or any rights (including the granting of a licence) in respect of a patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property. There is a clear distinction between royalty paid on transfer of copyright rights and consideration for transfer of copyrighted articles. The right to use a copyrighted article or product with the owner retaining his copyright, is not the same thing as transferring or assigning rights in relation to the copyright. The enjoyment of some or all the rights which the copyright owner has, is necessary to invoke the definition of royalty.

ii) In order qualify as fees for technical services, the services rendered ought to satisfy the ‘make available’ test. Therefore, in order to bring services within the ambit of technical services under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement between India and Singapore, the services would have to satisfy the ‘make available’ test and such services should enable the person acquiring the services to apply the technology contained therein.

iii) S ince the copyright in the application was never transferred nor vested in a subscriber, the fees were not assessable u/s. 9 of the Act.

vi) Article 12(4)(b) of the DTAA between Singapore and India would have been applicable provided the Department had been able to establish that the assessee had provided technical knowledge, experience, skill, know-how or processes enabling the subscriber acquiring the services to apply the technology contained therein. The explanation of the assessee, which had not been refuted even before the High Court was that the customer was merely accorded access to the application and it was the subscriber which thereafter inputs the requisite data and took advantage of the analytical attributes of the software. This would clearly not fall within the ambit of article 12(4)(b) of the Agreement.

v) That the amount was not assessable in India.”

Charitable purpose — Exemption — Denial of exemption by AO on grounds that assessee did not furnish proper information to Charity Commissioner, that there was shortfall in provision for indigent patients fund, that assessee had generated huge profits, that hospital did not serve poor and underprivileged class, and assessee paid remuneration to two trustees — Grant of exemption by appellate authorities on finding that orders for earlier assessment years not set aside in any manner or over-ruled by court — No infirmity in order of Tribunal granting exemption

CIT(Exemption) vs. Lata Mangeshkar Medical Foundation

[2024] 464 ITR 702 (Bom.)

A.Y.: 2010–11

Date of order: 30th August, 2023

S. 11 of ITA 1961

38. Charitable purpose — Exemption — Denial of exemption by AO on grounds that assessee did not furnish proper information to Charity Commissioner, that there was shortfall in provision for indigent patients fund, that assessee had generated huge profits, that hospital did not serve poor and underprivileged class, and assessee paid remuneration to two trustees — Grant of exemption by appellate authorities on finding that orders for earlier assessment years not set aside in any manner or over-ruled by court — No infirmity in order of Tribunal granting exemption.

The assessee-trust was running a medical institution. For the A.Y. 2010–11, the Assessing Officer (AO) denied the assessee-trust exemption u/s. 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that (a) the assessee did not furnish proper information to the Charity Commissioner, (b) there was shortfall in making provision for indigent patients fund, (c) the assessee had generated huge surplus and therefore, its intention was profit making, (d) the hospital of the assessee did not provide services to the poor and under-privileged class of the society, and (e) there was violation of provisions of section 13(1)(c) since the assessee paid remuneration to two individual trustees who did not possess significant qualification and one of them was beyond 65 years of age.

The Commissioner (Appeals) restored the exemption u/s. 11 following the orders of the Tribunal for the A.Y. 2008–09 and 2009–10. The Tribunal affirmed his order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) There was no reason to interfere with the order of the Tribunal. The Tribunal had followed its own decision in which it had granted exemption u/s. 11 to the assessee for the A. Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10. Since there was nothing on record that such orders had been set aside or overruled in any manner by the court, the Tribunal had found no reason to interfere with the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

ii) There was no infirmity in the order of the Tribunal granting exemption u/s. 11 to the assessee for the A. Y. 2010-11.”

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Software development expenses — Product abandoned on becoming obsolete due to development in technology — No enduring benefit accrued to the Assessee — Expenditure incurred revenue in nature and allowable

Principal CIT vs. Adadyn Technologies Pvt. Ltd.

[2024] 465 ITR 353 (Kar.)

A.Ys.: 2015–16 and 2016–17

Date of order: 10th April, 2023

S. 37 of the ITA 1961

37. Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Software development expenses — Product abandoned on becoming obsolete due to development in technology — No enduring benefit accrued to the Assessee — Expenditure incurred revenue in nature and allowable.

The Assessee was engaged in the business of rendering customised internet advertising services for advertisers which could be used on the desktop. The Assessee had incurred software development expenditure of R6,06,30,146 during A.Y. 2015–16 and R20,80,24,899 during A.Y. 2016–17. In the scrutiny assessment, the Assessing Officer (AO) held that if the software platform was developed, it would give enduring benefit to the Assessee, and therefore, held the expenditure to be capital in nature.

The CIT(A) confirmed the action of the AO. The Tribunal reversed the finding of the AO and allowed the appeals of the Assessee.

The Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Assessee’s investment to develop a software platform for desktops had become obsolete due to rapid change in the technology and the Assessee had abandoned further development as a result of which it had abandoned the product and incurred a loss. The project having been abandoned, the assessee would not get any enduring benefit.

ii) The Tribunal, on correct analysis of the facts, had held that the expenditure was revenue and not capital in nature. There was no ground for interference with the findings recorded by the Tribunal.”

Disallowance under section 13 relating to benefit to interested persons cannot apply to charities notified under section 10(23C)(iv).

33 ITO vs. Theosophical Society

(2024) 163 taxmann.com 770 (ChennaiTrib)

ITA No.: 624 (Chny) of 2024

A.Y.: 2014–15

Date of order: 10th June, 2024

Sections: 10(23C), 13

Disallowance under section 13 relating to benefit to interested persons cannot apply to charities notified under section 10(23C)(iv).

FACTS

The assessee was a society notified under section 10(23C)(iv) and also registered under section 12A(1)(a) of the IT Act. The assessee filed its return of income on 26th September, 2014, admitting NIL income after claiming exemption under section 11.

The AO denied exemption under section 11 on the grounds that two individuals who had made donations to the society [“interested persons”] had stayed in the lodging facilities of the society by paying nominal maintenance charges, and therefore, the society had violated section 13(1)(c)(ii).

CIT(A) allowed all the grounds of appeal of the assessee-society and observed that:

(a) On perusal of details of interested persons, it was seen that those individuals were providing services to the society without remuneration and their stay in guest house was for theosophical work. It was debatable whether such donors to society will be qualified as interested persons. People staying in society lodgings to serve the society are obviously not benefitting from the society as such.

(b) Even if it was so, then such instance would only affect the case of an assessee since sections 11 to 13 relating to interested persons could not be imported to deny exemption under section 10(23C) as per CBDT Circular No.557 dated 19th March, 1990.

Aggrieved, the revenue filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that it was an admitted fact that the society was notified under section 10(23C)(iv) and registered under section 12A(1)(a) and held that the conditions prescribed under section 13 of the IT Act were not applicable, as per CBDT Circular No.557 dated 19th March, 1990, once the society was notified under section 10(23C). Similarly, the AO could not make any disallowance under section 11 as the society was an organisation notified under section 10(23C)(iv) of the IT Act.

Author’s note: The law has undergone a change by the insertion of the 21st proviso to section 10(23C) w.e.f. A.Y. 2023–24.

Deeming provision of section 50C is not applicable to leasehold rights in property.

32 Shivdeep Tyagi vs. ITO

(2024) 163 taxmann.com 614(DelTrib)

ITA No.: 484(Delhi) of 2024

A.Y.: 2011–12

Date of order: 18th June, 2024

Section: 50C

Deeming provision of section 50C is not applicable to leasehold rights in property.

FACTS

The assessee, a salaried employee, filed his return of income without declaring capital gains on sale of leasehold property for ₹60,00,000.

Subsequently, based on AIR information, the AO reopened the case. Since the assessee did not file any proof of cost of acquisition of the leasehold property, the assessment was completed under section 143(3) / 147 by taxing the entire sale consideration of ₹75,94,850 for stamp duty purposes under section 50C as against the actual sale consideration of ₹60,00,000.

The assessee did not succeed in the appeal filed before CIT(A). CIT(A) also did not adjudicate on the issue of validity of reopening of assessment.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before ITAT.

HELD

Since the issue of validity of reopening of the assessment had not been adjudicated by CIT(A), the Tribunal restored the matter of validity of reopening of the assessment to the file of CIT(A) to decide it afresh.

On merits, the Tribunal observed as follows:

(a) It is axiomatic that the leasehold right in a plot of land is neither “land or building or both” as such nor can be included within the scope of “land or building or both”. The distinction between a capital asset being “land or building or both” and any “right in land or building or both” is well recognised under the Act, as can be seen from section 54D, which shows that “land or building” is distinct from “any right in land or building”;

(b) Section 50C is a special provision for full value of consideration in certain cases and is a deeming provision; therefore, the fiction created therein cannot be extended to any asset other than those specifically provided therein;

(c) Following decision of the coordinate bench in the case of Noida Cyber Park (P.) Ltd., (2021) 123 taxmann.com 213 (Delhi Trib), section 50C, being deeming provision, is not applicable to leasehold right in a plot of land;

(d) However, the AO was empowered to compute capital gains as per the IT Act, without invoking the provisions of section 50C.

Interest earned by a co-operative housing society on investment with co-operative banks in Maharashtra is eligible for deduction under section 80P(2)(d).

31 Ashok Tower “D” Co Op Housing Society Ltd. vs. ITO

(2024) 163 taxmann.com 598 (Mum Trib)

ITA No.: 434(Mum) of 2024

A.Y.: 2015–16

Date of order: 21st June, 2024

Section: 80P

Interest earned by a co-operative housing society on investment with co-operative banks in Maharashtra is eligible for deduction under section 80P(2)(d).

FACTS

The assessee, a cooperative housing society, filed its return of income, claiming deduction under section 80P(2)(d) on the interest income of ₹14,72,930 earned by it from its investment in co-operative banks.

During scrutiny proceedings, the AO denied the deduction under section 80P(2)(d) on the grounds that such deduction is available only in case of investment in another co-operative society and co-operative banks cannot be regarded as “co-operative society” under section 2(19) of the IT Act.

CIT(A) rejected the contentions of the assessee and confirmed the addition made by AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

Noting that a “co-operative bank” is defined under section 2(10) of the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960 to mean a “co-operative society” which is doing the business of banking, the Tribunal held that the amount of investment in fixed deposit receipts or in savings bank account made by the assessee with co-operative banks in Maharashtra is also investment made in co-operative society, and therefore, interest earned thereon is also eligible for deduction under section 80P(2)(d) of the IT Act.

Where assessee sold a land and made investment in new land from sale proceeds of old land in name of his son, assessee is entitled to exemption u/s 54B even if investment was made before registration of sale deed.

30 Siddhulal Patidar vs. ITO

[2024] 111 ITR(T) 541 (Indore – Trib.)

ITA No. 110 (IND.) of 2023

A.Y.: 2011–12

Date of order: 28th February, 2024

Section 54B

Where assessee sold a land and made investment in new land from sale proceeds of old land in name of his son, assessee is entitled to exemption u/s 54B even if investment was made before registration of sale deed.

FACTS

The assessee sold a land vide agreement dated 29th September, 2006 for ₹35,00,000, which was registered on 6th September, 2010. The assessee made a new investment of ₹53,29,440 on 20th June, 2007 in purchase of an agricultural land in the name of his son, Shri Rameshwar Patidar. On the strength of this investment, the assessee had claimed exemption u/s 54B.

The AO had denied the exemption u/s 54B for two reasons, namely:

  •  the new land was purchased in the name of son and not in the name of assessee himself;
  •  the new investment was made on 20th June, 2007 whereas the sale deed was registered on 6th September, 2010; thus, the investment has been made before the date of transfer which is not permitted u/s 54B.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT followed the decision of Hon’ble Jurisdictional High Court of Madhya Pradesh in PCIT vs. Balmukund Meena ITA No. 188/2016 and held that the assessee can be said to be entitled for exemption u/s 54B even if the registration was taken in the name of son.

As for the second reason, the ITAT relied on the following decisions wherein it is already established that the assessee is eligible for exemption u/s 54B where the investment was made by assessee after execution of sale agreement but before registration of sale deed, from the moneys received under sale agreement:

  •  Dharmendra J. Patel vs. DCIT [2023] 152 taxmann.com 465 (Ahmedabad – Trib.)
  •  Ramesh Narhari Jakhadi vs. ITO [1992] 41 ITD 368 (Pune)
  •  Smt. Narayan F. Patel vs. PCIT [2023] 152 taxmann.com 53 (Surat-Trib.) – It followed the decision of Hon’ble Bombay High Court in Mrs. Parveen P Bharucha vs. Union of India WP No. 10437 of 2011 dated 27th June, 2012 (Para No. 12 of order).

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed for the above-mentioned issue.

EDITORIAL COMMENT

The Hon’ble Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Bahadur Singh vs. CIT(A) [2023] 154 taxmann.com 456 (P&H) had rejected assessee’s claim of exemption u/s 54B on the basis of purchase of land in the name of wife and the assessee’s SLP against the said decision was dismissed by Hon’ble Supreme Court vide order dated 29th August, 2023 published in [2023] 154 taxmann.com 457/295 Taxman 313 (SC). The ITAT followed the view favourable to the assessee by relying on the decision of CIT vs. Vegetable Products [1973] 88 ITR 192 (SC) and also mentioned that the Hon’ble SC had dismissed the assessee’s SLP against the decision of Hon’ble Punjab & Haryana High Court by passing a one line summary order; therefore, as per settled judicial view, such dismissal cannot be treated as pronouncement of final law by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

Addition made by Assessing Officer during reassessment proceedings, not being based on any incriminating material during search and seizure action, was to be deleted.

29 Ashish Jain vs. DCIT

[2024] 111ITR(T)152 (Chd – Trib.)

ITA No. 352 (CHD) of 2023

A.Y.: 2012–13

Date of order: 23rd January, 2024

Section: 153A

Addition made by Assessing Officer during reassessment proceedings, not being based on any incriminating material during search and seizure action, was to be deleted.

FACTS

A search and seizure operation u/s 132(1) was carried out at the residential and business premises of M/s Jain Amar Clothing Pvt. Ltd. Group of cases on 26th February, 2016, and the assessee’s premises were also searched on the said date. Thereafter, a notice dated 28th September, 2016 u/s 153A was issued upon the assessee.

The assessee had purchased 1,700 equity shares of M/s. Maple Goods Pvt. Ltd. in F.Y. 2010–11 through share broker S.K. Khemka. M/s. Maple Goods Pvt. Ltd. was later on amalgamated with M/s. Access Global Ltd. and as against 1 share of M/s Maple Goods (P) Ltd., 47 equity shares of M/s Access Global Ltd. were allotted. The shares of M/s. Access Global Ltd. were received in D-Mat account of the assessee. The assessee had sold these shares in F.Y. 2012–13 and earned long-term capital gains (LTCG) of ₹87,04,733 thereon.

The AO had referred upon the report of the Directorate of Income-tax (Inv.), Kolkata dated 27th April, 2015, which stated that the share of M/s Access Global Ltd. and M/s Maple Goods (P) Ltd. resembled the character of Penny Stocks and provided accommodation entries in the guise of LTCG. The AO further referred to the documents so seized from the locker no. 194, HDFC Bank, Ludhiana which belonged jointly to Shri Sunil Kumar Jain, the father of the assessee and Smt. Kamla Jain, the grandmother of the assessee and that documents so seized were share certificates of M/s Maple Goods (P) Ltd. in respect of shares purchased by the assessee through Shri S.K. Khemka and the copy of the contract cum bill notes issued by Shri S.K. Khemka. The AO also referred to the statement recorded on oath on 13th March, 2015 of Shri S.K. Khemka who had admitted to provide “kachhapanna” [Purchase Contract Notes] of M/s Maple Goods (P) Ltd. and provided bogus LTCG entries to the assessee.

During the course of assessment proceedings, the assessee submitted that no incriminating material was found during the action of search but the AO stated that the said contention is not tenable and treated the LTCG of ₹87,04,733 as bogus and added to the total income of the assessee treating the same as unexplained cash credit under section 68 of the Act.

Aggrieved by the assessment order, the assessee filed an appeal before the CIT(A). The CIT(A) in its order held that the assessment order and remand report of the AO dated 5th February, 2020, clearly brought on record the share certificates and the contract bills seized from the bank locker no. 194, HDFC Bank which belonged jointly to Shri Sunil Kumar Jain, the father of the assessee and Smt. Kamla Jain, the grandmother of the assessee on the basis of which bogus LTCG had been claimed by the assessee were incriminating in nature as they had a direct bearing on the estimation of correct income of the assessee. Further, on merits as well, various contentions raised by the assessee were rejected, and the findings and order of the AO was confirmed.

Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The ITAT observed that it was an undisputed fact that the assessee had purchased 1,700 equity shares of M/s. Maple Goods Pvt. Ltd. in F.Y. 2010–11 through share broker S.K. Khemka, which were later on amalgamated with M/s. Access Global Ltd and received 79,900 shares of M/s. Access Global Ltd. The assessee had earned LTCG gains of R87,04,733 in A.Y. 2012–13 from sale of these shares which were disclosed in the original return of income u/s 139(1) of the Act.

The only issue was whether the documents seized from the bank locker no. 194, HDFC Bank – share certificate / contract cum bill notes in the name of the assessee issued by Shri S.K. Khemka for purchase of shares of M/s. Maple Goods Pvt. Ltd were incriminating material found during the course of search in case of the assessee.

The assessee had submitted that:

  •  it is a case of unabated assessment, and during the course of search on the assessee, no incriminating material / evidence was found in respect of LTCG on shares;
  •  the share certificates and the contract notes relating to purchase of shares cannot be an incriminating material; rather the said documents support the case of the assessee that the purchase of shares is genuine and is backed by proper documents;
  •  the statements of Shri S.K. Khemka and Shri Sunil Kumar Kayan and others had nothing to do with the search proceedings of the assessee as these were recorded during their respective investigation proceedings way back in the year 2015.

The ITAT held that the term “incriminating material” has to be read and understood in the context of one or more of the conditions stipulated in section 132(1) of the Act, on satisfaction of which a search can be authorised and search warrant can be issued. Therefore, the information in possession of the competent authority at the time of authorisation of search becomes relevant, and on the basis of the same, his satisfaction that search action is warranted coupled with material actually found and seized during the course of search which has not been disclosed or produced or submitted in the course of original assessment.

The ITAT further held that in case of unabated assessment, the reassessment can be made on the basis of the satisfaction note pursuant to which the search has been initiated and books of account or other documents not produced in the course of original assessment but found in the course of search which indicate undisclosed income or undisclosed property, and the reassessment can be made on the basis of the undisclosed income or undisclosed property which is physically found and discovered in the course of search.

Applying the aforesaid legal proposition, the ITAT held that it was not the case of the revenue that the locker from which the documents were seized was in the possession of the assessee or was being operated by the assessee, and thus, what was found and seized was from the possession of third persons, who no doubt were part of the assessee’s family and covered as part of the same search proceedings, but the same cannot be held as found during the course of search in case of the assessee.

The ITAT further observed that though the assessee was part of the search proceedings and action was initiated u/s 153A in his case, the same doesn’t take away the statutory requirement of recording of satisfaction note by the AO of family members whose locker was searched and from where the documents belonging to the assessee were found and seized.

The ITAT held that:

  •  it was an admitted and undisputed position that the assessee had purchased the shares of M/s Maple Goods (P) Ltd. during the F.Y. 2010–11 relevant to A.Y. 2011–12 and thus, the said transaction doesn’t pertain to impugned A.Y. 2012–13 and cannot be held as incriminating in nature for the impugned A.Y.;
  •  the assessee had purchased the shares wherein the payment was made through normal banking channel and the transaction was duly reflected and disclosed in the bank statement;
  •  proceedings for A.Y. 2011–12 were also reopened u/s 153A pursuant to search action and the reassessment proceedings were completed u/s 153A r/w 143(3) vide order dated 29th December, 2017 where the AO has not recorded any adverse findings regarding the aforesaid purchase of shares;
  •  the transaction of sale and purchase of shares have been duly disclosed as part of the original return of income, and the assessment thereof stood completed / unabated as on the date of search;
  •  the share certificates and contract notes represent and corroborate a disclosed transaction of purchase and sale of shares as part of the original return of income and cannot be termed as incriminating material so found and seized during the course of search;
  •  where there is no incriminating material found during the course of search, the statement of Shri S.K. Khemka (and what has been stated therein) which is recorded well before the date of search in case of the assessee and in the context of some other proceedings, independent of the impugned search proceedings, is availability of certain “other material / documentation” with the AO during the course of reassessment proceedings but not material / documentation which is incriminating in nature found during the course of search in case of assessee for the impugned assessment year.

In view of the aforesaid discussion and in the entirety of facts and circumstances of the case, the ITAT was of the view that the addition of ₹87,04,733 made by the AO during the reassessment proceedings completed u/s 153A is not based on any incriminating material found or seized during the course of search and seizure action u/s 132 of the Act in case of the assessee. Being a case of completed / unabated assessment, in absence of any incriminating material found during the course of search, the addition so made cannot be sustained and was directed to be deleted.

In the result, the appeal of the assessee was allowed.

The loss incurred on the sale of shares on stock exchange platform, where STT was duly paid, is eligible to be set of against the long-term capital gain earned by the assessee from sale of unlisted shares.

28 Rita Gupta vs. DCIT

ITA No. 46/Kol./2024

A.Y.: 2014–15

Date of Order: 6th June, 2024

Sections:10(38), 45, 70, 74

The loss incurred on the sale of shares on stock exchange platform, where STT was duly paid, is eligible to be set of against the long-term capital gain earned by the assessee from sale of unlisted shares.

FACTS

The assessee filed return of income on 31st July, 2014, declaring total income of ₹18,31,980. The Assessing Officer (AO) assessed the total income of the assessee, making various additions including the addition of ₹47,90,616, resulting on non-allowance of set off of loss from sale of equity shares on recognised stock exchange with STT paid against the profit on sale of unquoted equity shares. The AO held that the long-term capital gain on sale of quoted shares is exempt u/s 10(38) of the Act and similarly, the loss incurred was also not liable to be set off against the other taxable income.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who dismissed the appeal of the assessee and confirmed the action of the AO on this issue on the same reasoning that since long-term gain from sale of securities / shares are exempt in terms of provisions of Section 10(38) of the Act, and therefore, on the same analogy, the long-term capital loss resulting from the sale of equity shares with STT paid cannot be allowed to be set off against the taxable long-term capital gain resulting from sale of any other asset.

Aggrieved, assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal having perused the provisions of sections 2(14), 45, 47, 70 to 74 held that it is only the long-term capital gain resulting from sale of shares / securities which was granted exemption u/s 10(38) subject to the fulfilment of certain conditions and not the entire source which was excluded from the aforesaid sections. Therefore, when the entire source is not excluded from the charging section and only special type of income is excluded, then the interpretation of law has to be made strictly and cannot be deemed to include any other income or loss resulting or falling within the same source. The case of the assessee is squarely covered by the decision of Hon’ble jurisdictional High Court in the case of Royal Calcutta Turf Club vs. CIT [144 ITR 709 (Cal)].

The Tribunal noted that:

i) the Co-ordinate Bench in another decision in the case of Raptacos Brett & Co Ltd. [69 SOT 383] has also decided the similar issue by following the decision of Calcutta High Court in the case of Royal Calcutta Turf Club vs. CIT (supra) and by considering the decision of CIT vs. Hariprasad & Co. Pvt. Ltd. [99 ITR 118] as relied by the CIT(A);

ii) the decision of Hon’ble Apex Court in the case of CIT vs. Hariprasad & Co. Pvt. Ltd. (supra) did not apply to the case of the assessee as the principle laid down in the above decision would be applicable if entire source is excluded from the charging section.

The Tribunal having perused the decision relied upon by the CIT(A) found that except two decisions of the coordinate benches namely Nikhil Sawhney [119 taxmann.com 372] and DDIT vs. Asia Pacific Performance SICAV [55 taxmann.com 333] and decision of Gujarat High Court in the case of Kishorebhai Bhikhabhai Virani vs. ACIT [367 ITR 261], all others are distinguishable of facts.

In the case of Nikhil Sawhney (supra), the Co-ordinate Bench has relied on the decision of Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Hariprasad& Co. Pvt. Ltd., which has been rendered on the different principle that the income includes loss; however, the said legal proposition would apply only when the entire source is exempt and not liable to tax and not as in a case where the income falling within such source is treated as exempt. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Hariprasad & Co. Pvt. Ltd. (supra) has held that the expression “income” shall include loss because the loss is nothing but negative income. But in our opinion, the principle laid down by the Hon’ble Apex Court that income includes negative income can be applied only when the entire source of income falls within the charging provision of Act but where the source of income is otherwise chargeable to tax but only a specific kind of income derived from such source is granted exemption, then in such case, the proposition that the term “income” includes loss would not be applicable. Thus, if the source which produces the income is outside the ambit of charging provisions of the section, in such case negative income or loss can be said to be outside the ambit of taxing provisions. Consequently, the negative income is also required to be ignored for tax purpose. In other words, where only one of the streams of income from a source is granted exemption by the legislature upon fulfilment of specified conditions, then the concept of income includes loss would not be applicable. Similarly, the second decision of DDIT vs. Asia Pacific Performance SICAV (supra) has relied on the decision of Hariprasad & Co. Pvt. Ltd. [55 taxmann.com 333], CIT vs. J H Gotla [156 ITR 323], and CIT vs. Gold Coin Health Food Pvt. Ltd. [304 ITR 308], which are distinguishable of facts. In the case of Kishorebhai Bhikhabhai Virani vs. ACIT [367 ITR 261], the issue was decided against the assessee; but in the said decision, the decision of Hon’ble Calcutta High Court in the case of Royal Calcutta Turf Club (supra) has not been referred at all, and considering the ratio laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Vegetable Products Ltd. 88 ITR 192 (SC), where there are two construction, then the construction / interpretation which is in favour of the assessee has to be followed.

The Tribunal held that the loss incurred on the sale of shares on stock exchange platform, where STT was duly paid, is eligible to be set of against the long-term capital gain earned by the assessee from sale of unlisted shares.

Payment made by assessee to tenants of a co-operative housing society towards alternate accommodation charges / hardship allowance / rent are not liable for deduction of tax at source under section 194I.

27 ITO vs. Nathani Parekh Constructions Pvt.

ITA Nos. 4088 and 4087/Mum/2023 and 4101 and 4100/Mum/2023

A.Ys.: 2013–14 & 2016–17

Date of Order: 21st May, 2024

Sections: 194I, 201

Payment made by assessee to tenants of a co-operative housing society towards alternate accommodation charges / hardship allowance / rent are not liable for deduction of tax at source under section 194I.

FACTS

The assessee, a real estate developer, engaged in the business of development and construction, entered into a redevelopment agreement with M/s Dalal Estate Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. In the course of survey conducted under section 133A(2A) of the Act, it was found that the assessee has debited amounts under the head “Alternate Accommodation / Rent” in each of the four years under appeal.

The Assessing Officer (AO) called upon the assessee to explain why tax has not been deducted at source in respect of the payments debited under the head “Alternate Accommodation / Rent”. The assessee submitted that it has entered into a re-development agreement dated 30th April, 2017 with M/s Dalal Estate Co-operative Housing Society Ltd., which was encumbered with more than 300 tenants and that for the purpose of vacating the premises, the assessee had agreed to pay compensation of hardship according to the nature of tenancy occupied by each tenant. The assessee further submitted that these tenants could not be provided the alternate accommodation, and therefore, the assessee agreed to pay the above amount as compensation for the hardship of the tenants. The assessee also submitted that the amount paid towards alternate accommodation / hardship allowance does not fall within the definition “Rent”, and therefore, tax was not liable to be deducted at source on the said payments. The assessee accordingly submitted that no tax was deducted at source from the payment of alternate accommodation charges / rent.

The AO did not agree with the contentions of the assessee and held that the payment made by the assessee is liable for deduction of tax at source under section 194I of the Act.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal of the assessee by relying on the decisions of the Co-ordinate Bench in the case of Jitendra Kumar Madan (32 CCH 59, Mumbai), Sahana Dwellers Pvt. Ltd. [2016] 67 taxmann.com 202 (Mum. Trib.) and Shanish Construction Pvt. Ltd. in ITA Nos. 6087 and 6088/Mum/2024 dated 11th January, 2017.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the common issue arising in each of the four appeals preferred by the Revenue is “Whether the payment made by the assessee to the tenants of M/s Dalal Estate Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. towards alternate accommodation charges/hardship allowance/rent are liable for tax deduction under section 194I of the Act.”

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that:

i) the impugned payment is made in lieu of the alternate accommodation which the assessee could not provide to the tenants / members of the society;

ii) the definition of term “Rent” as per the provisions of section 194I which states that the payment which is made towards use of land or building. In assessee’s case, the payment is made not towards the use of land or building but as a compensation for the hardship that the tenants would undergo by vacating the property for the purpose of re-development;

iii) the CIT(A) has correctly relied on the various decisions of the Co-ordinate Bench which has been consistently holding that the amount paid towards compensation / hardship allowance is not taxable in the hands of the tenants for the reason that the same is not paid towards use of land or building but for the hardship in vacating the property for re-development;

iv) the Hon’ble Bombay High Court in the case of Sarfaraz S. Furniturewalla vs. Afshan Sharfali Ashok Kumar & Ors in Writ Petition No. 4958 of 2024, has held that the “transit rent” i.e., the rent paid by the developer to the tenant who suffers due to dispossession is not a revenue receipt and is not liable to be taxed. As a result, there will not be any question of deduction of TDS from the amount payable by the developer to the tenant.

The Tribunal having quoted the decision of the Bombay High Court in Sarfaraz S. Furniturewalla (supra) observed that the Hon’ble High Court in the above decision has held that the transit rent which is paid to the tenant who suffers hardship due to dispossession does not fall within the definition “rent” under section 194I. It held that in assessee’s case, the payment is made towards compensation for handing over the vacant possession of the property and towards rent if any payable by the tenants in the alternate accommodation until the completion of the re-development.

Applying the ratio of the decision of the Hon’ble High Court, the Tribunal held that the payment made by the assessee towards “Alternate accommodation charges / rent” is not liable for tax deduction under section 194I, and accordingly, the Tribunal upheld the order passed by the CIT(A) for A.Y. 2013–14 to 2016–17, setting aside the order of the AO treating the assessee as an assessee in default for non-deduction and non-payment of TDS under section 194I of the Act.

Section 9(1)(vi): Supply of software — “Royalty” — Article 12 under the Indo-US DTAA.

11 CIT (IT) -3 Mumbai vs. M/s. Lucent Technologies GRL LLC

Income Tax Appeal (L) Nos. 3695 & 3693 of 2018

A.Ys.: 2006–07 & 2010–11 alongwith other companion appeals

Dated: 1st July, 2024 (Bom) (HC)

Section 9(1)(vi): Supply of software — “Royalty” — Article 12 under the Indo-US DTAA.

The Revenue has raised the following question of law:

“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the Tribunal has erred in not holding payments received by the assessee for supply of software to Reliance Infocomm Limited (now Reliance Communication Limited) to be in the nature of “royalty” under Section 9(1)(vi) of the Income Tax Act, 1961?”

In the connected Appeals, the question of law as raised is similar, which by consent of the parties was re-framed as under:

“Whether on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Tribunal has erred in holding that the payment made to assessee did not amount to income of the payee by way of ‘royalty’ under Section 9(1)(vi) of the Income Tax Act, 1961?”

The Respondent-assessee filed its return of income declaring NIL income, and also claimed Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) from the payments received from the purchasers (referred as “Reliance”). The return as filed by the Respondent was taken up for scrutiny. The Assessing Officer was of the view that receipts of the amounts in question from Reliance were on account of supply of the copyright software as per the terms of the Wireless Software Assignment and License Agreement. However, the case of the assessee was to the effect that the amount was a business income and was not taxable in India, in the absence of assessee having a Permanent Establishment (PE) in India.

The Respondent-assessee contended that the Revenue receipts were in terms of the sale, as the software supplied to Reliance was not a customised software but a software which was sold to several clients. The AO did not agree with the assessee’s case, and held that the supply of such software amounted to a transfer of intellectual property rights, and hence, the consideration paid to the assessee was in fact towards a license to use the software as no title or interest in the software was transferable to the user. The AO, accordingly, held that the transaction not being a sale of the software and being a payment received for the license to use such software, it was taxable as “royalty” in terms of Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, read with relevant Article of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) (i.e., Article 12 under the Indo-US DTAA and similar clauses in the other DTAA’s). Thus, the amount received by the assessee from Reliance was assessed as royalty and, accordingly, was sought to be taxed.

The assesee’s appeal was adjudicated by the CIT(A) taking into consideration the agreements in question, as also the transaction being viewed and considered on the applicability of Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act and the relevant Articles of the DTAA, namely, Article 12. The CIT(A) accordingly held that such amount received by the assessee did not amount to receipt of “royalty” within the meaning of Section 9(1)(iv) of the Act.

The Revenue being aggrieved by such orders of the CIT(A) carried the proceedings before the Tribunal. By the impugned orders, the Tribunal confirmed the orders passed by the CIT(A) by upholding the contentions as raised on behalf of the assessee and recording finding against the Revenue.

The Hon. Court observed that the question whether the payments made by Reliance Communication Limited for obtaining computer software, whether were liable to be taxed in India as ‘royalties’ under the provisions of Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, had fallen for consideration of the Court in a batch of appeals filed by the Revenue on similar issues filed against Reliance Industries Ltd., came to be disposed of by an order dated 24th June, 2024.

The Respondent-assessee submitted that once in respect of the party making payment to the assessee, such question of law had fallen for consideration of the Court, and when the Court had come to a considered view that the payment for software which was supplied by the assessee was not liable to be taxed as “royalty” under the provisions of Section 9(1)(vi) of the Act, then certainly, the present assessee, which had in fact supplied the software, cannot be treated differently and the same parameters of law would be required to be applied.

The Hon. Court observed that the question of law as raised by the Revenue in the present batch of appeals would stand covered by the orders in Income Tax Appeal No. 1655 of 2018 and also a batch of appeals decided on 24th June, 2024 in Income Tax Appeal No. 28 of 2018 and other connected appeals.

The Court further observed that the order dated 24th June, 2024 passed in Income Tax Appeal No. 28 of 2018 is also required to be noted.

The Hon. Court observed that the question of law would stand covered by the authoritative pronouncement of the Supreme Court in the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P.) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax 2. [2021] 125 taxmann.com 42 (SC).

The Revenue appeals were accordingly dismissed.
No costs.

Section 148 / 151: Reopening of assessment — Beyond three years — Sanction by the specified authority.

10 Cipla Pharma and Life Sciences Limited vs. Dy. CIT Circle – 1(1)(1)

WP NO. 149 OF 2023

A.Y.: 2016–17

Dated: 2nd July, 2024, (Delhi) (HC)

Section 148 / 151: Reopening of assessment — Beyond three years — Sanction by the specified authority.

The primary ground of challenge before the Hon. High Court was that the impugned notice u/s. 148 of the Act had been issued in breach of the provisions of Section 151 of the Act, which provides for a sanction by the specified authority before issuance of notice.

The Petitioner-assessee contended that the sanction to issue the impugned notice dated 30th July, 2022 was issued by the Principal Commissioner which itself is contrary to the provisions of Section 151(ii), in as much as admittedly the impugned notice was issued after a period of more than three years having elapsed from that of the relevant assessment year 2016–17. Accordingly, such sanction ought to have been issued by the Specified Authority as set out in Section 151(ii) and not by an authority falling under clause (i) of the said provision. It was contended that once such compliance itself was lacking, the impugned notice issued under Section 148 would be rendered illegal, and on such count, would be required to be quashed and set aside. In support, reliance was placed on the decision of the Division Bench of this Court in Siemens Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax, Circle 8 (2)(1), Mumbai &Ors. (Writ Petition No. 4888 of 2022, decided on  25th August, 2023).

The Hon. Court observed that on a plain reading of Section 148A, it is clear that the Assessing Officer (AO) before issuing any notice under Section 148 is required to follow the procedure as set out in clauses (a) to (d) of Section 148A. One of the pre-conditions as ordained by clause (d) of Section 148A is that an order under such provision can be passed by the AO only with the approval of “Specified Authority”. Thus, necessarily when clause (d) of Section 148A provides for prior approval of specified authority, it relates to the provisions of Section 151 of the Act providing for “Specified authority for the purposes of Section 148 and Section 148A of the Act”. In the present case, Section 151 as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 and Section 148A as also introduced by Finance Act, 2021 have become applicable, as although the assessment year in question is 2016–17 in respect of which the assessment is sought to be reopened by issuance of notice under Section 148, which is dated 30th July, 2022. Such amended provision would squarely become applicable the date of notice under section 148 itself being 30th July, 2022.

The Hon. Court further observed that the record clearly indicates that the sanction in the present case was issued by the Principal Commissioner which can only be in respect of cases if three years or less than three years have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year, as would fall under the provisions of clause (i) of Section 151 of the Act. As in the present case, the assessment year in question is 2016–17 and the impugned notice itself has been issued on 30th July, 2022, it is issued after a period more than three years having elapsed from the end of the said assessment year. Accordingly, clause (ii) of Section 151 of the Act was applicable, which required the sanction to be issued by either Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General or where there is no Principal Chief Commissioner or Principal Director General, Chief Commissioner or Director General for issuance of notice under Section 148 of the Act.

The Hon. Court further observed that such an issue fell for consideration of the Division Bench of this Court in Siemens Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. (supra), wherein the Division Bench considered the provisions of Section 151 of the Act read with the provisions of Section 148A(b). The latter provision clearly provided that prior to issuance of any notice under Section 148 of the Act, the AO shall provide an opportunity of being heard to the assessee, only after considering the cumulative effect of Section 148A(b) read with Section 151 of the Act. As provided under sub-clause (d), the AO shall decide on the basis of material available on record, including reply of the assessee, whether or not it is a fit case to issue a notice under Section 148 by passing an order, with the prior approval of specified authority within one month from the end of the month in which the reply is received. The sanction of the specified authority has to be obtained in accordance with the law existing when the sanction is obtained. Therefore, the sanction is required to be obtained by applying the amended Section 151(ii) of the Act, and since the sanction has been obtained in terms of Section 151(i) of the Act, the impugned order and impugned notice are bad in law and should be quashed and set aside.

The Hon. Court further observed that the respondent’s case based on the notification dated 31st March, 2020 issued under the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 (for short, “TOLA”) was concerned, the Court held that such notification was a subordinate legislation, and it could not override the statute enacted by the Parliament and in that regard, the position in law was discussed by the Division Bench in Siemens Financial Services Pvt. Ltd. (supra), paragraph 27 of the said decision.

The impugned notices are quashed and set aside, the petition is allowed.

Writ — Competency to file writ petition — Chartered Accountant authorised to represent assessee in income-tax matters — Chartered Accountant could file writ against order of assessment.

36 TiongWoon Project and Contracting Pte. Ltd. vs. CBDT

[2024] 463 ITR 641 (Mad)

A.Ys. 2012–13 and 2013–14

Date of order: 22nd January, 2024

ART. 226 of Constitution of India

Writ — Competency to file writ petition — Chartered Accountant authorised to represent assessee in income-tax matters — Chartered Accountant could file writ against order of assessment.

The petitioner is a company incorporated in Singapore and engaged in undertaking turnkey construction projects involving erection, installation and commissioning activities. In these two writ petitions, the petitioner assails a common order dated 3rd November, 2023 refusing to condone delay in filing the return of income of the petitioner for the A.Y. 2012–13 and 2013–14. The writ was signed by the chartered accountants. The assessee-company had authorised the chartered accountants to represent it in relation to its Income-tax assessments and all other proceedings arising therefrom.

The standing counsel for the respondents raised the preliminary objection that the writ petition should not have been filed by the chartered accountants of the petitioner. By referring to the authorisation issued by the petitioner to the chartered accountants, it was submitted that the authorisation does not extend to the conduct of proceedings before this court. A reference was also made to the ethics code of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India and the annual report of TiongWoon Corporation Holding Ltd. to contend that the chartered accountants through whom the writ petitions were filed were the statutory auditors of one of the subsidiaries of the above-mentioned holding company, and that the chartered accountants should not act as authorised representatives in such situation.

Rejecting the preliminary objection of the Respondents, the Madras High Court held as under:

“The authorisation in favour of the chartered accountants was on record and the assessee-company had authorised the chartered accountants to represent it in relation to its Income-tax assessments and all other proceedings arising therefrom. Although proceedings before the court were not expressly referred to the language of the authorisation was wide enough to embrace these proceedings. As regards the alleged breach of the ethics code, even if established, that could not be the basis to reject this petition.”

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Commissioner (Appeals) holding amounts included in fringe benefits tax return not chargeable to fringe benefits tax — Revision application for refund of fringe benefits tax — Revision application rejected on grounds of delay — Commissioner conferred with power to condone delay to do substantial justice — Commissioner (appeals) taking long time to dispose of appeal — Commissioner ought to have condoned delay — Order rejecting revision application quashed — Direction to condone delay and consider revision application on merits and pass reasoned order.

35 Hindalco Industries Ltd. vs. UOI

[2024] 464 ITR 236 (Bom.)

A.Y. 2007–08

Date of order: 17th January, 2024

Ss. 115WD(1) and 264 of the ITA 1961

Revision — Powers of Commissioner — Commissioner (Appeals) holding amounts included in fringe benefits tax return not chargeable to fringe benefits tax — Revision application for refund of fringe benefits tax — Revision application rejected on grounds of delay — Commissioner conferred with power to condone delay to do substantial justice — Commissioner (appeals) taking long time to dispose of appeal — Commissioner ought to have condoned delay — Order rejecting revision application quashed — Direction to condone delay and consider revision application on merits and pass reasoned order.

For the A.Y. 2007–08, the Commissioner (Appeals) by order dated 31st August, 2016, held the amounts included in the fringe benefits tax return as not chargeable to fringe benefits tax. Since the Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the claim of the assessee, the assessee filed an application u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for refund of the fringe benefits tax return. The Commissioner rejected the revision application on the grounds of substantial delay in filing the application and that the intimation u/s. 143(1) of the Act was not an assessment order.

The assessee preferred a writ petition contending that the Commissioner (Appeals) took almost five to six years to decide that the amounts included in the fringe benefits tax returns were not chargeable to fringe benefits tax and hence there was no delay in filing the revision application. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held:

“i) On the issue of condonation of delay in an application filed u/s. 264 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, courts have held that the authorities should not take a pedantic approach but should be liberal. The courts have held that the words ‘sufficient cause’ should be given a liberal construction so as to advance substantial justice when no negligence or inaction or want of bona fides is imputable to the assessee. The courts have held that the principle of advancing substantial justice is of prime importance and while considering the question of condonation, the revisional authority is not all together excluded from considering the merits of the revision petition.

ii) U/s. 264 of the Act, the Commissioner is empowered either on his own motion or on an application made by the assessee to call for the record of any proceedings under the Act and pass such order thereon not being an order prejudicial to the assessee and this power has been conferred upon the Commissioner in order to enable him to give relief to the assessee in cases of over-assessment.

iii) The Commissioner having been conferred power to condone the delay to do substantial justice to parties by disposing of the matter on the merits should, considering the facts and circumstances of the case, in particular that it took a long time for the Commissioner (Appeals) to dispose of the assessee’s appeal, have condoned the delay. The order rejecting the application u/s. 264 of the Act was quashed and set aside. The Commissioner was directed to condone the delay and consider the application u/s. 264 of the Act on the merits and pass a reasoned order in accordance with the law.”