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Allied Laws

26 Rajesh Panditrao Pawar and others vs. Parwatibai Bhimrao Bende and another.
AIR 2022 Bombay 172
Date of order: 7th April, 2022
Bench: Shrikant D. Kulkarni, J.

Hindu Succession Act – Adopted son – Adopted by widow – No rights in deceased husband’s property. [Ss. 8, 14, 15, Hindu Succession Act, 1956; S. 12, Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956]

FACTS  

Mr. Rajesh Pawar (Original defendant) is the adopted son of Kausalyabai (Original Plaintiff No. 1). The defendant was adopted by Kausalyabai in 1973 after the death of her husband, Sopanrao, in 1965. Parwatibai Bende (Original Plaintiff No. 2) is the daughter of Plaintiff No. 1 from her marriage to Sopanrao.

The defendant sought ½ share in the property of his mother’s deceased husband, Sopanrao.

HELD

The Court referred to section 12 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which provides that the adoption takes effect from the date of adoption and not prior to adoption. It also referred to clause (c) of the proviso to section 12 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which provides that the adopted child shall not divest any person of any estate vested in him or her before the adoption. It was held that as per section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, there was an intestate succession in 1965 on the demise of Sopanrao. Soapanrao’s widow and daughter took one-half share each in the property left by Sopanrao. The defendant was not in the picture at the time of the intestate succession and thus will not be entitled to any share in the widow’s husband’s property. The property will be divided equally amongst the deceased’s daughter and widow.

After the death of the widow, the share of the widow (½ property) will be divided equally amongst her daughter (Plaintiff No. 1) and adopted son (defendant).

The appeal is dismissed.


27 Somakka (dead) by LRs vs. K.P. Basavaraj (dead) by LRs
AIR 2022 Supreme Court 2853
Date of order: 13th June, 2022
Bench: S. Abdul Nazeer & Vikram Nath, JJ.

Hindu Succession – Father in possession of tenanted property – later gets occupancy rights – Such rights are heritable – Will be divided amongst the legal heirs. [Mysore (Religious and Charitable) Inams Abolition Act, 1955]

FACTS

The appellant is the own sister of the sole respondent. Their father, Puttanna, had inherited certain properties from his father, which were ancestral properties. Amongst other properties, at the time of death, the father was pursuing occupancy rights in respect of a property under the Inam Act.

An issue arose on the partition of the father’s estate. The respondent claimed that after the demise of the father, he got himself impleaded as the legal representative of late Puttanna, and he was, thereafter, granted occupancy rights by the Land Tribunal, and it became his self-acquired property.

HELD

The Court held that the father had applied for occupancy rights under the Inam Act, which were heritable in nature. For this reason, it would be inherited by both his children, i.e., the appellant and the respondent and under the law, both of them would be entitled to ½ (half) share each.

The appeal was allowed.

28 Santosh Kumar Sahoo vs. Secretary, the Urban Co-operative Bank Ltd. and others
AIR 2022 (NOC) 512 (ORI)
Date of order: 2nd November, 2021
Bench: D. Dash, J.

Guarantor & Borrower – Liability is same – No need to exhaust all remedies before approaching the guarantor [S. 128, Indian Contract Act, 1872]
 
FACTS

The plaintiff stood as a guarantor for a loan availed by defendant Nos. 3 to 5 from the Urban Co-operative Bank Ltd., Rourkela (defendant No.1). The loan was advanced by defendant No. 1 to defendant Nos. 3 to 5 for purchase of an old bus and the plaintiff had stood as a guarantor for smooth payment of the loan by those defendants. In course of time, defendant Nos. 3 to 5 when defaulted in payment of the loan dues, defendant No. 1- Bank straightway started deducting a sum every month from the savings account maintained by the plaintiff with the said Bank.
    
HELD
The liability of the guarantor is co-extensive with the principal borrower and the option lies with the banker to proceed for recovery of the loan dues either against both or one of the two. It is not the position of law that the action by the banker against the guarantor is permissible only after exhausting all the remedies against the borrower and in the event of failure of recovery of dues from the borrower. It is settled law that even after a decree making borrower and guarantor jointly pay the loan dues is passed, the decree-holder – banker may proceed to recover the amount from the guarantor only without proceeding against the borrower. The guarantor has the eventual remedy to recover the amount from the borrower which has been recovered from him by the banker towards the loan dues of the borrower. The principle is that the guarantor would pay  the banker; the same is recoverable by him from the borrower.
 
The appeal was dismissed.


29 Ragya Bee (dead) and another vs. P. S. R. Constructions and another
AIR 2022 Telangana 105
Date of order: 27th January, 2022
Bench: P Naveen Rao and G. Radha Rani JJ.

Arbitration – Scope of section 34 – Only to set aside the award – cannot modify the award. [S. 34, Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996]

FACTS

A dispute arose between the owners of the property (appellant) and the developer (respondent). The issue was referred to arbitration. The Arbitrator rejected the claim of the appellants. Aggrieved by the award, the appellants filed an application for setting aside the award. The lower Court modified the award while exercising the powers u/s 34 of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 (Act). The said decision was challenged by the applicants before the High Court.
 
HELD
The Court referred to the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of McDermott International Inc vs. Burn Standard Company Limited (2006) 11 SCC 181 and National Highways Authority of India vs. M. Hakeem 2021 SCC Online SC 473, and held that the issue is beyond pale of doubt. It noted that the Supreme Court has held that Section 34 of the Act cannot be held to include within it a power to modify the award. Therefore, the Civil Court is not competent to alter or modify the award of Arbitrator in a petition filed u/s 34 of the Act

The petition was allowed.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

15 Ishwar Metal Industries vs. Commr., C. EX. & CGST, Jaipur
2022 (62) G.S.T.L. 168 (Tri. – Del.)
Date of Order: 28th January, 2022

Limitation period to claim refund does not apply to service tax paid by mistake as the same was merely a deposit, not tax
 
FACTS

The Appellant had procured a work order contract under an open bid from Electricity Board and mistakenly paid service tax on such services, which were not liable to Service Tax. The Appellant did not charge any service tax from Electricity Board. Also, the price charged was fixed and independent of any variation. As per Appellant, the principle of unjust enrichment was not applicable since it had not collected any tax from Electricity Board. The Appellant, thus, filed a refund claim for the amount paid mistakenly. The refund claim was rejected by the Assistant Commissioner on the ground that the amount charged was inclusive of service tax, and the same was time- barred. The Commissioner of Appeals also rejected the Appellant’s refund claim. Being aggrieved by such rejection, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.
 
HELD
It was held that service tax paid mistakenly by the Appellant was merely a deposit and not tax. Accordingly, the limitation period u/s 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 to claim the refund did not apply to the amount deposited as the same was revenue deposit and not a tax. Accordingly, the impugned order was set aside, and the appeal was allowed.

16 Brose India Automotive Systems Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commr. of CGST & C.Ex., Pune-I
2022 (62) G.S.T.L. 40 (Tri. – Mum.)
Date of Order: 5th May, 2022

Refund of CENVAT credit shall be granted to Appellant for service tax paid in GST regime for services rendered in pre-GST regime

FACTS

The Appellant was liable to pay service tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism. The service was rendered in the pre-GST regime, but Service tax was paid in the GST regime. The Appellant finalised its Balance Sheet for F.Y. 2016-17 and the period April to June, 2017 on 30th November, 2017 and 31st December, 2017. The Service tax and interest were discharged in November, 2017 and January, 2018 respectively. The Appellant filed a refund application within the time limit specified u/s 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944. The Adjudicating Authority rejected the refund claim on the ground that GST was payable since the booking was made in the books of accounts in the GST regime though the service was rendered in the pre-GST regime. The Commissioner (Appeals) also rejected the Appellant’s refund claim. Being aggrieved by such rejection, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

It was held that as per Section 142 of the CGST Act, 2017, refund of CENVAT Credit accruing under the Central Excise Law shall be decided as per the Central Excise Law and be paid in cash. Further, as per Section 174 of CGST Act, 2017, an appeal filed under Central Excise Law shall be continued as if GST Law had not come into force. Accordingly, the Appellant was eligible for a refund of CENVAT credit along with interest. Thus, the appeal was allowed in favour of the Appellant and the order rejecting the refund was set aside.

17 Abdul Khalique vs. Commissioner of CGST, Delhi
2022 (62) G.S.T.L. 175 (Tri. – Del.)
Date of Order: 16th February, 2022

Penalty imposed cannot exceed the tax demanded
 
FACTS

The Appellant was engaged in providing work contract services. Based on audit findings, a show cause notice was issued demanding Rs. 1,22,174. Subsequently, due to a correction in Notification No. 1/2006, abatement at 67% was allowed for such services and simultaneously, the demand was reduced to Rs. 40,318. The Adjudicating Authority levied a penalty of Rs. 2,56,000, Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 40,318 u/s 77(1)(a), s. 77(2) and s. 78 of the Finance Act, 1994, respectively on the tax demand of Rs. 40,318. The Appellant preferred an appeal levying such an unreasonable penalty which was rejected by the Commissioner Appeals. Being aggrieved by the same, the Appellant preferred an appeal before the Hon’ble Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal relied upon the decision of M/s. Philips Electronics India Ltd. vs. State of Karnataka Petition Civil No. 9689/2006 dated 2nd January, 2009, where it was held that penalty could not exceed the tax amount. It was specifically stated that a penalty exceeding the tax amount was grossly disproportionate and arbitrary. Accordingly, the impugned order levying penalty was set aside, and the appeal was allowed.

Goods and Services Tax

I. HIGH COURT

33 BLA Projects Pvt. Ltd vs. State of Jharkhand
2022 (62) GSTL 160 (Jhar.)
Date of Order: 2nd March, 2022

Show Cause Notice issued without stating the contravention made and without striking off irrelevant grounds was invalid

FACTS

Petitioner was engaged in the business of works contracts and mining-related activities. On scrutiny of returns, the Department issued a scrutiny notice in ASMT-10 seeking an explanation for a mismatch between GSTR 2A and GSTR 3B. Petitioner replied to show cause for such mismatch. Petitioner submitted a reply explaining his stand that the mismatch was for a partial amount. Later, a show cause notice (SCN) without striking irrelevant grounds and without indicating contravention made was issued along with a summary SCN in Form DRC 01 alleging excess availment of the input tax credit. Petitioner replied to SCN by highlighting the discrepancy between SCN and ASMT-10. However, ignoring the Petitioner’s submissions, a summary order was passed demanding tax, interest, and penalty. Aggrieved by such demand order, the Petitioner filed this writ petition before the High Court.

HELD
It was held that since SCN was issued without indicating the contravention and without striking off irrelevant grounds, it was liable to be quashed. Further, the order passed in violation of the principle of natural justice and mandatory procedures prescribed by the law was quashed and accordingly, the writ petition was allowed.

34 Union of India vs. Anand Bhavan Properties
2022 (62) GSTL 145 (Kar.)
Date of Order: 31st March, 2022

Provisional attachment cannot be done in the absence of a valid pendency of proceedings under Sections 62, 63, 64, 73 or 74 of CGST Act, 2017

FACTS

Respondent was engaged in the supply of renting of immovable property and had not discharged its GST liability. The Appellant issued a letter asking the Respondent to furnish certain documents. Also, the summons was issued to witnesses. Appellant had invoked Section 83 of the CGST Act, 2017, by issuing a provisional attachment notice. The Ld. Single Judge carefully examined the proceedings and concluded that the requirements of provisional attachment were not fulfilled, and accordingly, the Respondent’s writ petition was allowed. Being aggrieved, the Appellant preferred a writ appeal before the High Court.
 
HELD
The Hon’ble High Court held that no documentary evidence had been placed on record by the Appellant to show that the proceedings were initiated u/s 74 of the CGST Act, 2017 to pass a provisional attachment order u/s 83 of CGST Act, 2017. Moreover, it is settled law that where the Act specifically provides the requirements for invoking Section 83 of CGST Act, 2017, it ought to be complied with strictly. Merely referring to a letter that does not refer to section 74 of CGST Act, 2017 cannot be presumed as pending proceedings u/s 74 of CGST Act, 2017 to initiate provisional attachment u/s 83 of CGST Act, 2017. Thus, the writ appeal was dismissed in favour of the Respondent.

35 Drs Wood Products vs. State of U.P
[2022] 141 taxmann.com 263 (Allahabad)
Date of Order: 5th August 2022

A show cause notice issued or order passed for cancellation of registration without discussing the material on record and without giving the assessee the opportunity to file a reply against such material on record is liable to be set aside. Even if the Petitioner did not file the reply to the show cause notice, mere non-receipt of the reply cannot be the ground for cancellation of registration, and it does not absolve the officer in mentioning the basis for cancellation. The court further held that the approach of the authorities of relying upon some extraneous material in passing prejudicial order against the Petitioner without touching the evidence produced before it by the Petitioner in support of its claim cannot be appreciated and imposed a cost of Rs. 50,000 on the State for harassing the assessee

FACTS

Petitioner is a partnership firm carrying on the business of manufacturing and trading veneers and was granted the registration number under CGST Act 2017. In the pre-GST regime, it was registered under the UP-VAT Act and CST Act and assessed for A.Y. 2017-18. A show cause notice (SCN) was issued to the Petitioner, whereby it was alleged that based on the information which has come to the notice of the Assistant Commissioner, it appears that your registration is liable to be cancelled for the following reasons. The reason for the cancellation was given as “Taxpayer found Non-functioning/Not Existing at the Principal Place of Business”. Subsequently, the order was passed, cancelling the registration. The assessee applied for revocation of cancellation of registration. An SCN was again issued stating that the application for revocation is liable to be rejected as time-barred. In response to the SCN, the Petitioner moved an application seeking 15 days extension of time to reply. Without considering the said application, an order came to be passed rejecting the application for revocation of cancellation of the registration for the reasons as recorded in the SCN that no satisfactory explanation was received within the prescribed time. The Appellant preferred an appeal against the said order. The Appellate Authority dismissed the appeal, recording that an inspection was carried out in respect of the premises of the Petitioner and on the site in question, the committee comprising of three persons did not find any activity pertaining to the firm over the property in question. It also recorded that the partner of the firm was called on the phone, but he could not give any clear reply. It was also recorded that in the said inspection at the given place of interest, no stocks or commercial activity was found, and the firm’s partners did not cooperate in the inspection. It also records that in the inspection report another firm with another GST number was found working. It was also recorded that even earlier in a search carried out in 2018 by SIB, it has come to its knowledge that on the place in question, no activity of manufacturing or selling was being carried out and no commercial activities were found and based upon the said report, an opinion that the firm got registered only with a view to helping in tax evasion was formed. The Petitioner argued that the SCN is bereft of any facts based on which the Petitioner was called upon to file a reply. It was further contended that Appellate Authority has erred in dismissing the appeal on grounds which are totally extraneous to the proceedings as the inquiry of the year 2018 or inspection report were neither the basis of the SCN nor were ever supplied to the Petitioner nor was the Petitioner ever confronted to give reply and response to the said inquiry.

HELD
The Court held that the SCN only alleges that the taxpayer was found non-functioning/non-existing at the principal place of business and does not propose to rely upon any report or any inquiry conducted to form the opinion and on what basis the said allegations were made or as to when the inspection was carried. The Court held that a vague SCN without any allegation or proposed evidence against the Petitioner is clearly violative of the principles of administrative justice. The Court further held that the cancellation of registration is a serious consequence affecting the fundamental rights of carrying business, and in a casual manner in which the SCN has been issued clearly demonstrates the need for the State to give the quasi-adjudicatory function to persons who have judicially trained mind, which on the face of it is absent in the present case. The Court also held that the order of cancellation of the registration on the ground that no reply was given is equally lacking in terms of a quasi-judicial fervour as the same does not contain any reasoning whatsoever. In light of these facts, the Court held that the order rejecting the application for revocation of cancellation of registration takes the matter to the height of arbitrariness inasmuch as no reasons are recorded as to why the request for revocation of cancellation of registration could not be accepted. The Court held that the Appellant Authority has not touched upon the evidence produced by the Petitioner before him but has gone on a further tangent by placing reliance upon a report of 2018, which was neither confronted to the Petitioner nor was ever part of the record based upon which the orders have been passed. The Court criticised this aspect heavily and not only directed to renew the Petitioner’s registration forthwith but also imposed a cost of Rs. 50,000 on the State to be payable to the Petitioner.


36 Managing Director, Tamil Nadu State Marketing Corporation Ltd. (TASMAC) vs. K. Selvamani
[2022] 141 taxmann.com 56 (Madras)
Date of Order: 18th April, 2022

Penalty imposed on an employee in a disciplinary proceeding would not attract GST as the said penalty cannot be said to be ‘Agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act, or to tolerate an act or a situation, or to do an act’

FACTS

The Appellant filed an intra-court appeal aggrieved by the order of Ld. Single Judge dated 5th January, 2021. The issue before the Ld. Judge was whether the penalty imposed in a disciplinary proceeding in a service matter is liable for GST treating the same as ‘Agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act, or to tolerate an act or a situation, or to do an act’. The Ld. Judge held that the penalty imposed was in employee disciplinary proceedings, which would not attract GST. The said conclusions were drawn based on another order in some other writ petition (namely, WP(MD) No.10355 of 2020) decided on 18th December, 2020 holding that ‘post 1st July, 2017’, there can be no levy of GST on the amount of penalty’. The said order was put to challenge by the Appellants / TASMAC by filing W.A.(MD) No.679 of 2021 and was stayed by the Court in further appeal on 24th March, 2021.

HELD

The Court held that since the said interim order was subsequently obtained, it cannot apply to the facts of the present case and that the order of the Ld. Judge holds good as on 5th January, 2021, which warrants no interference.

37 Travancore Mats & Mattings (P.) Ltd vs. Assistant Commissioner
[2022] 141 taxmann.com 329 (Madras)
Date of Order: 15th March, 2022

When assessee agrees to pay incremental tax for the past period when it was having old registration number from its office in one State and avail ITC thereof in the office in the other State, the mere fact that there was a change in the constitution of the assessee’s entity from partnership firm to a private limited company resulting in change in GST numbers of supplying and receiving units would not come in way to claim ITC in respect of such incremental tax paid from the office supplying in the office receiving the same under its new GST registration number, if the assessee is otherwise entitled to ITC u/s 16 of the CGST Act

FACTS

The Petitioner is a dealer under GST and paid 12% GST on goods manufactured for the period July, 2017 to October, 2017. Subsequently, on the advice received by him, from November, 2017 till April, 2019 he paid GST at 5%. The Department objected to it and issued notices u/s 61 against the said Petitioner. The Petitioner challenged the same in writ petitions. However, in the course of the writ, the Petitioner agreed to pay the differential GST for the aforesaid period. The constitution of Petitioner’s entity was, however, changed from a partnership firm to a private limited company. Therefore, the number provided for the old Partnership Firm changed to the new number of a private limited company. The Petitioner has a branch office in Tamil Nadu and a head office in Kerala, and there was a transfer of goods from Tamil Nadu to Kerala under the cover of invoice. In this regard, the Petitioner raised apprehensions that a change in the GST registration number due to change in the constitution should not stand in the way of claiming the ITC by the Petitioner in Kerala where the Head office was otherwise entitled to ITC in respect of stock transferred from Tamil Nadu Branch to Kerala office under the old GST Registration Number.

HELD
The Court held that it is open to the Petitioner to make a claim for ITC at the jurisdictional GST Office in the State of Kerala, where the headquarter of the Petitioner company is located, and if such an availment is made by the Petitioner by filing the return at the Kerala Tax Authorities jurisdiction, the same shall be considered and decided as per the eligibility of the Petitioner within the meaning of the provisions of the GST Act, especially Section 16 and in this regard, the change of the GST registration number between old and new, in view of the change of composition of the Petitioner’s firm into private limited company, shall not stand in the way.

Recent Developments in GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS/ORDERS

1. Order No.1/2022 – GST dated 21st July, 2022 is issued under Rule 96(4)(c) of CGST Rules, 2017, authorising the Principal Director General / Director General of Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management, CBIC, to exercise the functions throughout the territory of India.

2. An Advisory dated 22nd July, 2022 is issued about upcoming changes in GSTR-3B.

3. E-Invoicing – Notification No.17/2022- Central Tax dated 1st August, 2022 – The turnover limit for implementation of E-invoicing is brought down to R10 crores in place of R20 crores. The above change will be effective from 1st October, 2022.     


II. CLARIFICATIONS

1. FAQ on GST applicability on “Pre-Packaged and labelled” goods issued vide F.No.190354/172/2022-TRU dated 17th July, 2022.

It clarifies various issues relating to the above category of classification of goods.

2. The Directorate General of Taxpayer Services of CBIC has issued clarificatory communication about GST on Co-operative Housing Societies and RWAs.

3. The Deputy Director (Legal Metrology) has issued a communication bearing no. I-10/14/2020-W & M Section, dated 1st August, 2022, which gives the impact of GST on unsold stock of pre-packaged commodities.


III. CIRCULARS

a) Clarification regarding rates [Circular no. 177/ 09/2022-TRU, dated 3rd August, 2022.]

Clarifications are given about the applicable GST rates and exemptions on certain services considering various representations received by the CBIC.

b) GST on liquidated damages [Circular no. 178/ 10/2022-GST, dated 3rd August, 2022.]

The applicability of GST on liquidated damages, compensation and penalty arising out of breach of contract or other provisions of law is given.

c) Clarifications regarding GST rates [Circular no. 179/11/2022-GST, dated 3rd August, 2022.]

Clarifications regarding GST rates and classification (goods) based on the recommendations of the GST Council in its 47th meeting are given.

IV. ADVANCE RULINGS

18 Rod Retail Private Ltd.
[Order No. 03/DAAR/2022-23/1999-2004/ 21.6.2022 dated 23rd May, 2022] (DEL)

Sales from Retail outlet to outbound passengers

This was an appeal against Advance Ruling no. 01/DAAR/2018 dated 27th March, 2018.

The brief facts are that the appellant is in the business of retail sale of sunglasses. The appellant has several retail outlets in Delhi, and one such outlet is at Terminal-3 (International Departure), Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi. The Advance ruling application was related to the question arising from transactions conducted from the said outlet at the International Airport.

The concerned retail outlet is in the Security Hold Area (SHA) on crossing the Customs & Immigrations. The said outlet is permitted to function beyond the Customs Area and within the SHA of the IGI Airport vide an arrangement with the Delhi International Airport Private Limited, dated 6th June, 2016. For sale from the said outlet, the appellant procures supplies from the Sunglass Hut brand owner M/s Luxottica India Private Limited, Gurgaon, after payment of integrated tax (Inter-state supply from Gurgaon to Delhi) @ 28%. The sunglasses procured from the supplier are further supplied by the appellant to international passengers travelling out of India. The appellant supplies goods only to passengers with a valid international boarding pass. The appellant charges SGST/CGST on such supply invoices. However, the appellant was of the view that, it’s supply of goods to international passengers is a zero-rated transaction, being ‘export sale’ within the meaning of section 2(5) of the IGST Act. The question raised before AAR was whether the location of the retail outlet of the appellant in the SHA of the international departure is outside India, though geographically, it is within the territory of India. Since the said area is after crossing the Customs Frontier of India, it was claimed to be situated outside the territory of India.

The AAR vide order referred to above held in negative, i.e., it is not export but liable to GST.

Against the above AR, this appeal was filed.

In appeal, the appellant submitted that the ld. Authority had not considered the judicial legacy of the term “Customs Frontiers of India”, which is vital for deciding the issue. It was submitted that the definition of ‘export’ is couched in such a manner that the words crossing “customs frontiers of India” are embedded in the definition itself- as no goods can be taken out of India to a place outside India unless the customs are crossed. Hence, it was reiterated that for all practical purposes, the definition of export can also be read as “taking goods after crossing customs frontiers of India to a place outside India”. The definition of customs frontiers of India u/s 2(4) of the IGST Act is not coterminous with the territorial extent of India, and thus it cannot be equated with definition of India given in section 2(56) of the CGST Act or section 2(27) of the Customs Act, 1962, and in that sense the goods having crossed the Customs frontiers are outside India, argued the appellant.

The historical background of “Crossing Custom Frontier of India” as exiting in the CST Act was referred to with reference to various judgments connected therewith.

The various peculiarities of having a shop in an SHA were also cited.

It was tried to show that the interpretation given in the AR to the territorial extent of India being co-terminus with the territorial waters by invoking section 2(56) of the CGST Act and section 2(27) of the Customs Act is in complete ignorance to the definition of “Customs Frontiers of India” in section 2(4) of the IGST Act and its relevance to the definition of ‘export’ u/s 2(5) of the IGST Act. It was submitted that the interpretation given in the ruling dates back to a period when the meaning to the words “Customs Frontiers of India” was not defined. It was stressed that the crux of the matter is that the words ‘taking goods out of India to a place outside India’ mentioned in the definition of export u/s 2(5) of the IGST Act are synonymous with the words “crossing customs frontiers of India” and the term “Customs frontiers of India” is defined in section 2(5) of the IGST Act hence the recourse to the definition of ‘India’ in the impugned ruling is uncalled for and erroneous. The judgment of the Supreme Court in M/s. Hotel Ashoka (India Tourism Dev. Corp Ltd) vs. Assistant Commissioner of Commercial Taxes & Another- 48 VST.443 (SC)) – 2012-VIL-03-SC was cited where the Hon’ble Court was examining section 5 of the CST Act. Attention was drawn to the observation of the Hon. Supreme Court that, “when any transaction takes place outside the customs frontiers of India, the transaction would be said to have taken place outside India”.

Accordingly, it was reiterated that the sale from the shop is outside India. Since the goods are to travel outside India, it was explained that it satisfied the condition of export.

The ld. AAAR examined the arguments of the appellant with reference to relevant definitions in IGST Act, CGST Act and Customs Act,1962.

By referring to such provisions, the ld. AAAR found that the location of the appellant’s shop in the SHA cannot by any stretch of imagination be said to be located outside India. It is observed that the appellant’s shop is located within India, as defined u/s 2(56) of the CGST Act, 2017 r.w.s. 2(27) of the Customs Act, 1962 and therefore the shop is in ‘India’.

The ld. AAAR further observed that “Export of goods” means taking goods out of India to a place outside India. Since the transactions of the appellant are taking place in the SHA, which falls well within the definition of ‘India, the ld. AAAR came to the conclusion that the sale transactions of the appellant cannot be equated to the ‘export of goods’ u/s 2(5) of the IGST Act, 2017 r.w.s. 2(19) of the Customs Act, 1962.

Since the transactions are not ‘export of goods’, they are also not ‘zero-rated supply’, observed the AAAR. In reference to judgments cited, the ld. AAAR held that they are pre-GST period and cannot be of any help to the appellant.

In the context of the aforesaid findings, the ld. AAAR also went to repel the appellant’s arguments that they should be treated on par with Duty-Free Shops (DFS). The ld. AAAR, in this respect, placed reliance on the judgment of Nagpur Bench of Bombay High Court in the case of A1 Cuisines Private Limited vs. Union Of India, and State of Maharashtra, reported at 2018 (12) TMI 1278 – Bombay High Court – 2018-VIL-575-BOM.

Accordingly, the ld. AAAR held that the transactions, i.e., supply of goods to outbound international travellers, fall within the definition of “taxable territory” and read in conjunction with section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 forms “supply” and attracts the applicable GST on the date of supply of the goods. The AR was upheld.


19 Deepak & Co.
[Order No. 02/DAAR/2022-23/2005-2010/21.6.2022 dated 23rd May, 2022] (DEL)

Rate on supply of food, drinks and newspapers in trains or at platforms

This was an appeal against Advance Ruling no. 02/DAAR/2018 dated 28th March, 2018 – 2018-VIL-29-AAR passed by AAR.

The brief facts of the case are that M/s Deepak & Co., the appellant, has entered into an agreement with IRCTC/Indian Railways for the supply of food and beverages (packed/MRP/cooked) to the passengers on Rajdhani Trains and Mail/Express Trains. Pursuant to these agreements, the appellant is engaged in supplying food on board the trains to passengers vide the menu approved by the Indian Railways/IRCTC. Likewise, the appellant is also engaged in the supply of food items to passengers/public through food plaza/food stalls on the railway station.

There is different modus operandi with respect to the supply of food for human consumption on board a train which is indicated below:

Supply of food through the food plaza on the railway platform

In this case, there is fixed place, including space for the customer to consume food.

Supply of food on board the Rajdhani trains

a. In this case, the supplies are meals on board the train. There is a defined “MENU” as per which, meals are supplied to passengers. Food is supplied and served to passengers, and money for the same is charged from the Indian Railways/IRCTC by the appellant.

b. Further, in some cases, IRCTC supplies some items of dinner/lunch menu from its own base kitchens/approved sources to be picked-up by the appellant’s representative. The appellant charges money for the same from the Indian Railways/IRCTC.

c. The appellant also supplies newspapers to passengers. Railways pay the appellant for the supply of newspaper, as the prices of these items are also included in the ticket fare.

Supply of food on board the mail/express trains

The menu and the price at which the same are to be served on board the trains is defined by Indian Railways/IRCTC. The appellant supplies food from its pantry/ storage as per the defined menu to passengers desiring to obtain the same as per the menu price. Apart from the above, there are certain MRP items which are also supplied by the appellant. The same is supplied through the team of waiters who keep moving in the train, take orders and supply the food items/beverages to passengers and collects the price from them.

Based on above modes of supply, following Questions were raised before AAR:

“A) What is the applicable rate of tax on the activity of appellant of supplying food/beverages, in each of the cases mentioned above in light of the amendment made in Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 vide Notification No. 46/2017 – Central Tax (Rate) dated 14.11.2017; amendment made in Notification No. 8/2017- Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 28.06.2017 vide Notification No. 48/2017 Integrated Tax (Rate) dated 14.11.17; amendment made in Notification No. 11/2017 – State Tax (Rate) dated 30.06.2017 vide Notification No. 46/2017 – State Tax (Rate) dated 28.11.17 in the NCT of Delhi?

B) What is the applicable rate of tax on supply of newspaper as elaborated in the cases mentioned above?”

In all the above cases, the AAR held that supply on trains to IRCTC or to passengers or at platforms etc., cannot be considered at par with restaurants and hence to be liable as pure supply of goods at respective rates. The supply of newspapers were held to be ‘NIL’ rated.

Against the above ruling, this appeal was filed.

In appeal, the appellant laid emphasis on the Board’s clarification dated 31st March, 2018 issued on a representation made by the Ministry of Railways. They asserted that their case is squarely covered by the said clarification, which is prospective in nature. To support the above contention, the appellant referred to section 168 of the CGST Act, 2017, which is statutory in nature and incorporated specifically for issuing clarifications on any issue by the Board.

The ld. AAAR observed that, after findings of the AAR on the issue, the relevant Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 was amended vide Notification No. 13/2018-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2018 and an entry No.7(ia), as reproduced below, was added,

“(ia) Supply, of goods, being food or any other article for human consumption or any drink, by the Indian railways or Indian railways catering and Tourism Corporation Ltd. or their licensees, whether in trains or at platforms.”

The rate of 2.5% of CGST was provided subject to the condition that no credit of input tax on goods and services used in supplying the service has been taken.

The ld. AAAR also reproduced the clarification issued by CBIC vide letter F. No. 354/03/2018-TRU dated 23rd March, 2018, wherein it has been clarified as under:

“2. Different GST rates are being applied for mobile and static catering in Indian Railways which is presently leading to a situation whereby the same licensee (selected by Indian Railways/IRCTC) supplying the same food would be subjected to different GST rates depending on whether it is mobile or static catering, as also which variant of mobile catering it is [pre-paid (without option), pre-paid (with option) or post-paid. The rate difference is resulting in the same food being supplied at two different rates to the railway passengers, which is anomalous.

3. The passenger is not aware as to the GST rate applicable to the food ordered by him/her. This may also lead to unnecessary litigation and thus further strengthens the need for uniform application of tax rate in respect of food and drinks in/by Railways.

4. With a view to remove any doubt or uncertainty in the matter and bring uniformity in the rate of GST applicable for all kinds of supply of food and drinks made available in trains, platforms or stations, it is clarified with the approval of GST Implementation Committee, that the GST rate on supply of food and/or drinks by the Indian Railways or Indian Railways Catering and Tourism Corporation Ltd. or their licensees, whether in trains or at platforms (static units), will be 5% without ITC.”

In light of the above facts, the ld. AAAR held that the GST rate on the supply of food and/or drinks by the appellant, whether in trains or at platforms (static units), will be 5% without ITC. AR is overruled to the above extent.

However, the ld. AAAR specifically declined to give any ruling on this order’s retrospective or prospective effect as the same was not before the AAR.

The ruling in respect of newspapers being exempt is confirmed.

20 Vodafone Idea Limited
[A.R. Com/02/2022 dated 11th July, 2022 in TSAAR Order no.36/2022] (Telangana)

‘Telecommunication services’ to local authority

The facts of the case are that the appellant, M/s. Vodafone Idea Limited is engaged in providing telecommunication services, and in the course of its business, it is also providing these services to the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) by way of data/voice telecommunication services (SAC 9984). According to their submissions, these services provided to GHMC are not related to any specific project or scheme of the Government and are provided to GHMC to be used by its employees for general office and administrative purposes. It was submitted that under serial no.3 of Notification No. 12/2017 dated 28th June, 2017 their services qualify to be pure services rendered in relation to functions entrusted to a municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution of India. In light of the said notification, the appellant feels that such services are exempt from tax under GST and hence this application was filed, raising the following question:

“The Applicant would like to seek a ruling on whether the supply of ‘telecommunication services’ to local authority (Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation) by applicant is a taxable services under Section 9(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 and/or exempted vide Sr. No. 3 (Chapter 99) of Table mentioned in Notification No. 12/2017- Central Tax (Rate) dated 28 June 2017.”

The ld. AAR noted the functions entrusted under Article 243W of the Constitution of India to Municipalities. They are reproduced as under in AR:

“i.    Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

ii.    Performance of functions and implementation of schemes in relation to matters listed in 12th schedule.

iii.    Under the schedule 12 to Constitution of India, the functions and schemes are as follows:

1.    Urban planning including town planning.

2.    Regulation of land-use and construction of buildings.

3.    Planning for economic and social development.

4.    Roads and bridges.

5.    Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes.

6.    Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management.

7.    Fire services.

8.    Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects.

9.    Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded.

10.    Slum improvement and up gradation.

11.    Urban poverty alleviation.

12.    Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds.

13.    Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects.

14.    Burials and burial grounds; cremations, cremation grounds and electric crematoriums.

15.    Cattle ponds; prevention of cruelty to animals.

16.    Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths.

17.    Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences.

18.    Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries.”

The ld. AAR found that the services of the appellant are not covered directly in any of the functions mentioned above. The ld. AAR also referred to the meaning of ‘in relation to any functions’ with reference to judgments in cases of Doypack Systems Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India (UOI) and Ors. (12.02.1988 – SC) AIR 1988 SC 782 – 1988-VIL-02-SC and Madhav Rao Jivaji Rao Scindia vs. Union of India AIR 1971 SC 530.

The ld. AAR held that as per the meaning of ‘in relation’ also, there should be a direct and immediate link with covenant and not the independent existence of such covenant.

About the nature of work of the appellant, the ld. AAR observed that the appellant is providing data and voice services to GHMC and the employees of municipalities, and there is no direct relation between the services provided by the appellant and the functions discharged by the GHMC under Article 243W r.w. schedule 12 to the Constitution of India. Accordingly, the ld. AAR held that services do not qualify for exemption under Notification No. 12/2017.

From Published Accounts

Compilers’ Note: For the financial year ended 31st March, 2022 onwards, one of the key disclosure required in Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 is related to Title Deeds of Property Plant and Equipment (PPE) not held in the name of the company. A similar disclosure is also required by CARO 2020 by the statutory auditors.

Given below are a few instances of such disclosures for F.Y. 2021-22. Though comparatives (31st March, 2021) must be disclosed and done by the respective companies, the same is not included in this compilation.

TATA STEEL LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

3. Property, plant and equipment

(vii) The title deeds of all the immovable properties (other than properties where the Company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee), are held in the name of the Company, except for the following:

Description of property Gross carrying

value

(Rcrore)

Held in the name of Whether promoter,

director or their

relative or employee

Period held (i.e. dates of capitalisation provided in range)# Reason for not being held in the name of the Company
Freehold Land 279.85 Not Applicable No March, 1928 to April, 2020 Title Deeds not available with the Company
Buildings 105.88 Not Applicable No January, 1960 to April, 2020
Freehold Land 262.76 Erstwhile Tata Steel BSL Limited (TSBSL) No April, 2020 For certain properties acquired through amalgamation / merger, the name change in the name of the Company is pending
161.27 Bhushan Steel Limited No April, 2020
1.92 Bhushan Steel &

Strips Limited

No April, 2020
59.90 Tata SSL Limited No July, 1988
Buildings 46.37 No January, 1987 to
January, 2007

# In case of immovable properties acquired from Tata Steel BSL Limited which got merged with the Company pursuant to National Company Law Tribunal Order dated October 29, 2021, dates have been considered with effect from the merger set out in Note 44, page 385 to the financial statements.

Without considering those in the name of TSBSL as the titles in the name of TSBSL can not be transferred till the merger that has happened with the NCLT Order in the current year (and given effect from the beginning of the previous period presented for the purposes of accounting).

From CARO report

(c)  The title deeds of all the immovable properties (other than properties where the Company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee), as disclosed in Note 3 on Property, plant and equipment and Note 4 on Right-of-use assets to the standalone financial statements, are held in the name of the Company, except for the following:

Description of

property

Gross carrying

value

(Rcrore)

Held in the name of Whether

promoter, director

or their relative or

employee

Period held (i.e. dates of capitalisation

provided in range)#

Reason for not being held in the name of the Company
Freehold Land 279.85 Not Applicable No March, 1928 to

April, 2020

Title Deeds not available with the Company
Buildings 105.88 Not Applicable No January, 1960 to
April, 2020
Title Deeds not available with the Company
Freehold Land 262.76 Tata Steel BSL Limited No April, 2020 For certain properties acquired through amalgamation / merger, the name change in the name of the Company is pending
Freehold Land 161.27 Bhushan Steel Limited

(earlier name of

Tata Steel BSL Limited)

No April, 2020
Freehold Land 1.92 Bhushan Steel & Strips Limited (earlier name of

Tata Steel BSL Limited)

No April, 2020
Freehold Land 59.90 Tata SSL Limited No July, 1988
Buildings 46.37 Tata SSL Limited No January, 1987 to January, 2007
Right-of-use Land 523.65 Tata Steel BSL Limited No April, 2020
Right-of-use Land 179.40 Bhushan Steel Limited (earlier name of Tata Steel BSL Limited) No April, 2020
Right-of-use Land 139.93 Bhushan Steel & Strips Limited (earlier name of

Tata Steel BSL Limited)

No April, 2020
Right-of-use Land 3.28 Jawahar Metal Industries

Private Limited (earlier name of Tata Steel BSL Limited)

No April, 2020
Right-of-use

Buildings

11.73 Tata Steel BSL Limited No April, 2020 to

October, 2021

Right-of-use Land 0.15 Not Applicable No Not Available Lease Deed not available with the Company

# In case of immovable properties acquired from Tata Steel BSL Limited which got merged with the Company pursuant to National Company Law Tribunal Order dated October 29, 2021, dates have been considered with effect from the merger set out in Note 44 to the standalone financial statements.

 

RELIANCE INDUSTRIES LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

1.7 Details of title deeds of immovable properties not held in name of the Company:

Relevant line item in the Balance sheet Description

of item of

property

Gross carrying value
(
Rin crore)
Title deeds held in the name of Whether title deed holder is a promoter, director or relative of promoter /director or employee

of promoter / director

Property held since which date Reason for not being held in the name of the company
Property, Plant

and Equipment

 

Land 83 Gujarat Industrial

Development

Corporation

No 01/02/2015 Lease deed execution is under process.

From CARO report

(c) The title deeds of all the immovable properties (other than properties where the Company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) are held in the name of the Company except for leasehold land as disclosed in Note 1.7 to the standalone financial statement in respect of which the allotment letters are received and supplementary agreements entered; however, lease deeds are pending execution.

BHARAT PETROLEUM CORPORATION LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

q) Details of Immovable properties not held in the name of the Corporation:

As at 31st March 2022

Relevant line item in the Balance sheet Description

of item of

property

Gross carrying value (Rin crore) Title deeds held in the name of Whether title deed holder is a promoter, director or relative of promoter /director or employee of promoter / director Property held since which date Reason for not being held in the name of the Corporation
PPE Land 0.21 Rajaswa Vibag, Jiladhikari, Udhamsingh Nagar No 30 June 2006 Registration pending
PPE Land 0.66 British India Corporation Limited No 19 March 2004 Legal Case
PPE Land 0.00 * District Magistrate Mathura No 31 March 2002 Legal Case
PPE Right-of-use assets 1.06 Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation, Odisha No 01 March 1998 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.72 Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC) No 01 December 1997 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.03 Railways No 01 October 1994 Land Allotment Case
PPE Land 0.01 Railways No 01 April 1984 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.02 Railways No 01 December 1994 Legal Case
PPE Land 0.55 Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC) No 01 September 1998 Legal Case
PPE Land 0.00 # Others No 01 April 1928 Registration Pending
PPE Land 3.43 Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB) No 01 March 1997 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.08 Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC) No 01 April 1985 Land Allotment Case
PPE Land 0.75 Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB) No 01 December 1990 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.41 Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB) No 01 March 1992 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.01 Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) No 01 October 1994 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.00 @ Others No 01 April 1928 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.22 Others No 01 December 1996 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.00 ! Others No 01 January 1995 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.12 Others No 30 September 2001 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.00 & Others No 01 April 1928 Registration Pending
PPE Land 6.14 Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) No 15 November 2019 Registration Pending

(Jointly owned)

PPE Buildings 0.67 Government of Kerala No 06 May 2021 Registration Pending
PPE Land 22.39 Government of Kerala No 06 May 2021 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.06 Government of Kerala No 01 April 1971 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.05 Government of Maharashtra No 01 March 1998 Registration Pending
PPE Land 0.33 Deputy Salt Commissioner, Bombay No 01 March 1998 Registration Pending
PPE Land 2.20 BPCL, Govt of Gujarat, Private parties No 23 December 1994 Legal Case
PPE Land 0.08 Karnataka
Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB)
No 01 March 1998 Registration Pending

* R49,050 ; # R344 ; @ R2,289; & R50; ! R7,600

From CARO report

(c) According to the information and explanations given to us and on the basis of our examination of the records of the Corporation, the title deeds of all the immovable properties (other than properties where the Corporation is a lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) disclosed in the Standalone Ind AS Financial statements are held in the name of the Corporation, except in cases given in Statement 1.

Statement 1 (Refer Clause i(c) of Annexure A)

Description

of Property

Gross

carrying

value

(Rin

Crores)

No. of

Cases

Held in name of Whether Promoter, Director or their relative or employee Period held indicate range, where appropriate Reason for not being held in name of company*
Land 34.59 16 Rajaswa Vibag, Jiladhikari, Udhamsingh Nagar, APIIC, Railways, Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB), Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL), Government of Kerala,

Government of Maharashtra, Deputy Salt Commissioner Bombay, Others

No 1928-2021 Registration pending with Authorities (in one of the case, Title Deed is in the name of Joint Owner)
Right-of-

Use Assets

1.06 01 Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation, Odisha No 01-03-1998 Registration pending with Authorities
Building 0.67 01 Government of Kerala No 06-05-2021 Registration pending with Authorities
Land 0.35 03 Others – Information not Available Not

Available

Not

Available

Document of
Title Deed not available for verification
Land 3.43 05 British India Corporation Limited, District Magistrate Mathura, Railways, APIIC, BPCL, Government of Gujarat, Private parties No 1994-2004 Legal Dispute
Land 0.10 02 Railways, APIIC No 1985-1994 Land Allotment Case


THE INDIAN HOTELS COMPANY LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

c) Title deeds of leased assets not held in the name of the Company:

The title deeds, comprising all the immovable properties of land and buildings, are held in the name of the Company as at the balance sheet date except in respect of one commercial/residential building aggregating to Rs 0.72 crores (Gross block Rs. 1.30 crores) constructed on the leased land, which is in the possession of the Company, acquired pursuant to a scheme of amalgamation of TIFCO Holding Limited (a wholly owned subsidiary). The lease of the said land has expired in the year 2000. Erstwhile TIFCO Holdings Limited has filed a writ Petition in High Court of Mumbai on 15 January 2013 for renewal of lease.

From CARO report

(c) According to the information and explanations given to us and on the basis of our examination of the records of the Company, the title deeds of immovable properties (other than immovable properties where the Company is the lessee and the leases agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) disclosed in the standalone financial statements are held in the name of the Company as at the balance sheet date, except in respect of one building aggregating to Rs. 0.72 crores (Gross block Rs. 1.30 crores) constructed on the leased land, which is in the possession of the Company, acquired pursuant to a scheme of amalgamation with erstwhile wholly owned subsidiary. The lease of the said land has expired in the year 2000. The Company has filed a Writ Petition in the Hon’ble High Court of Mumbai for renewal of lease.

DLF LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

(vi) Assets not held in the name of Company

The title deeds of all immovable properties of land and building are held in the name of the Company as at 31 March 2022 and 31 March 2021, except in case as stated below:

(Rs in lakhs)

Description of properties Gross

carrying value

Held in name of Whether promoter,

director or their relative or
employee

Date / period

held since

Reason for not being held in the name of Company
Freehold land 148.75 DLF Industries Limited No 28 July 2000 Since the land was transferred in the name of the Company pursuant to the scheme of merger, the Company is in process of getting title transferred in its name.
Freehold land 83.74 DLF Utilities Limited No 2 February 2022 During the year, real estate undertaking of DLF Utilities Limited has been merged with
the Company pursuant to the Scheme of Arrangement
approved by Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Chandigarh bench, vide order dated 2 February 2022 (refer note 58).Since the above order has
been received near to the year end, the Company is in process of getting the title transferred in its name.

From CARO report

(i)(c) The title deeds of immovable properties (other than properties where the Company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) disclosed in note 3 and note 4 to the standalone Ind AS financial statements included in property, plant and equipment and Investment Property are held in the name of the Company. Certain title deeds of the immovable Properties, in the nature of freehold land, as indicated in the below mentioned cases which were acquired pursuant to a Scheme of arrangement/amalgamation approved by National Company Law Tribunal’s (‘NCLT’) Order dated 2 February 2022 and Punjab and Haryana High Court, Chandigarh’s order dated 28 July 2000 are not individually held in the name of the Company respectively.

Description

of Property

Gross carrying value
(
Rin lakhs)
Held in name of Whether promoter,

director or their relative or employee

Date/ Period held since Reason for not being held in the name of Company
Freehold land 148.75 DLF Industries Limited No 28 July 2000 Since the land was transferred in the name of the Company pursuant to the scheme of amalgamation.
Freehold land 1,338.19 DLF Utilities Limited No 2 February 2022 During the year, real estate undertaking of DLF Utilities Limited has been merged with the Company pursuant to the Scheme of Arrangement approved by Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Chandigarh bench, vide order dated 2 February 2022. The above order has been received near to the year end.

SUN PHARMACEUTICAL INDUSTRIES LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements

22. Details of property not in the name of the Company as at March 31, 2022:

Particulars Gross carrying

value

(Rin Million)

Title deeds held

in the name of

Whether title

deed holder is a

promoter, director

or relative of

promoter/director

or employee of

promoter/director

Property held

since which date

Reason for not being held in

the name of the company

Freehold Land 2.7 Ranbaxy Drugs Limited No 24-Mar-15 The title deeds are in the name of erstwhile companies that were

merged with the Company under relevant provisions

of the Companies Act, 1956/2013 in terms of approval of the Honorable High Courts / National

Company Law Tribunal of respective states.

Freehold Land 123.1 Ranbaxy Laboratories Limited No 24-Mar-15
Leasehold Land 2.9 Ranbaxy Laboratories Limited No 24-Mar-15
Freehold Land

including building

located thereon

95.9 Solrex Pharmaceuticals

Company

No 08-Sep-17
Freehold Land

including building

located thereon

3.6 Tamilnadu Dadha

Pharamaceuticals Limited

No 01-Aug-97
Building 4.1 Various No 08-Sep-17
Building 89.9 Sun Pharma Global FZE No 01-Oct-21

From CARO report

(c) The title deeds of immovable properties (other than properties where the Company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) disclosed in note 54(22) to the financial statements included in property, plant and equipment are held in the name of the Company, except for the following immovable properties for which registration of title deeds is in process:

Description Held in name of Gross Carrying value

(RMillions)

Whether promoter,

director or their

relative or employee

Period
held –
(In Years)
Reason for not being held in name of company*
Freehold Land Ranbaxy Drugs

Limited

2.7 No 7 The title deeds are in the name of erstwhile companies that were merged with the Company under relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 1956/2013 in terms of approval of the Honorable High Courts of respective states.
Freehold Land Ranbaxy Laboratories

Limited

123.1 No 7
Leasehold Land Ranbaxy Laboratories

Limited

2.9 No 7
Freehold Land

including building

located thereon

Solrex

Pharmaceuticals

Company

95.9 No 5
Freehold Land

including building

located thereon

Tamilnadu Dadha

Pharmaceuticals

Limited

3.6 No 25
Building Various 4.1 No 5 The title deeds are in the name of erstwhile company that was merged with the Company in terms of approval of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Building Sun Pharma Global

FZE

89.9 No 1

* In respect of building where the Company is entitled to the right of occupancy and use and disclosed as property, plant and equipment in the standalone Ind AS financial statements, we report that the instrument entitling the right of occupancy and use of building, are in the name of the Company as at the balance sheet date.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

9 Wipro Ltd.
(2022) 446 ITR 1(SC)

Exemption/ deduction u/s 10B – For claiming the benefit u/s 10B(8), the twin conditions of furnishing the declaration to the AO in writing and that the same must be furnished before the due date of filing the return of income under Sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the IT Act are required to be fulfilled and/or satisfied – Both the conditions to be satisfied are mandatory – The significance of filing a declaration u/s 10B(8) could be said to be co-terminus with the filing of a return u/s 139(1), as a check has been put in place by virtue of Section 10B(5) to verify the correctness of the claim of deduction at the time of filing the return

Revised return of income – The Assessee can file a revised return in a case where there is an omission or a wrong statement – By filing the revised return of income, the Assessee cannot be permitted to substitute the original return of income filed u/s 139(1) of the IT Act – A revised return of income, u/s 139(5) cannot be filed, to withdraw the claim and subsequently to claim the carried forward or set-off of any loss

The Assessee, a 100% export-oriented unit engaged in the business of running a call centre and IT-Enabled and Remote Processing Services, filed its return of income on 31st October, 2001 for A.Y. 2001-2002, declaring a loss of Rs. 15,47,76,990 and claimed exemption u/s 10B of the IT Act. Along with the original return filed on 31st October, 2001, the Assessee annexed a note to the computation of income in which the Assessee stated that the company was a 100% export-oriented unit and entitled to claim exemption u/s 10B of the IT Act and, therefore no loss was being carried forward. Thereafter, the Assessee filed a declaration dated 24th October, 2002 before the Assessing Officer (AO) stating that the Assessee did not want to avail of the benefit u/s 10B for A.Y. 2001-02 as per Section 10B(8). The Assessee filed the revised return of income on 23rd December, 2002 wherein exemption u/s 10B of the IT Act was not claimed, and the Assessee claimed carry forward of losses.

The AO passed an order dated 31st March, 2004 rejecting the withdrawal of exemption u/s 10B, holding that the Assessee did not furnish the declaration in writing before the due date of filing of return of income, which was 31st October, 2001. Thereby, the AO made the addition in respect of the denial of the claim of carrying forward losses u/s 72.

The Assessee filed an appeal before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) (‘CIT(A)’). By order dated 19th January, 2009, the CIT(A) upheld the order passed by the AO, making addition in respect of the denial of the claim of carrying forward losses u/s 72.

Aggrieved by the order passed by the CIT(A), the Assessee filed an appeal before the ITAT. Vide order dated 25th November, 2016, the ITAT decided the issue in favour of the Assessee, stating that the declaration requirement u/s 10B(8) was filed by the Assessee before the AO before the due date of filing of return of income as per Section 139(1). ITAT allowed the Assessee’s claim for carrying forward of losses u/s 72 of the IT Act.

Feeling aggrieved and dissatisfied with the order passed by the ITAT, allowing the Assessee’s claim to carry forward losses u/s 72, the Revenue preferred an appeal before the High Court. The High Court has dismissed the said appeal.

Hence, Revenue has filed an appeal before the Supreme Court.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question which was posed for its consideration was whether, for claiming exemption u/s 10B(8) of the IT Act, the Assessee is required to fulfil the twin conditions, namely, (i) furnishing a declaration to the AO in writing that the provisions of Section 10B(8) may not be made applicable to him; and (ii) the said declaration to be furnished before the due date of filing the return of income under Sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, the High Court, as well as the ITAT, had observed and held that for claiming the so-called exemption relief u/s 10B(8) of the IT Act, furnishing the declaration to the AO was mandatory but furnishing the same before the due date of filing the original return of income was directory. The Supreme Court observed that in the present case, when the Assessee submitted its original return of income u/s 139(1) on 31st October, 2001, which was the due date for filing of the original return of income, the Assessee specifically and clearly stated that it was a company and was a 100% export-oriented unit and entitled to claim exemption u/s 10B. Therefore, no loss was being carried forward. Along with the original return filed on 31st October, 2001, the Assessee had also annexed a note to the computation of income clearly stating as above. However, thereafter the Assessee filed the revised return of income u/s 139(5) on 23rd December, 2002 and filed a declaration u/s 10B(8), which admittedly was after the due date of filing of the original return u/s 139(1), i.e., 31st October, 2001.

According to the Supreme Court, on a plain reading of Section 10B(8) of the IT Act as it is, i.e., “where the Assessee, before the due date for furnishing the return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139, furnishes to the Assessing Officer a declaration in writing that the provisions of Section 10B may not be made applicable to him, the provisions of Section 10B shall not apply to him for any of the relevant assessment years”, it was evident that the wordings of Section 10B(8) are very clear and unambiguous. For claiming the benefit u/s 10B(8), the twin conditions of furnishing the declaration to the AO in writing and that the same must be furnished before the due date of filing the return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139 of the IT Act are required to be fulfilled and/or satisfied. According to the Supreme Court, both the conditions to be satisfied were mandatory. It could not be said that one of the conditions would be mandatory and the other would be directory, where the words used for furnishing the declaration to the AO and to be furnished before the due date of filing the original return of income under sub-section (1) of Section 139 are same/similar. The Supreme Court held that in a taxing statute, the provisions are to be read as they are, and they are to be literally construed, more particularly in a case of exemption sought by an Assessee.

According to the Supreme Court, filing a revised return u/s 139(5) of the IT Act claiming carrying forward of losses subsequently would not help the Assessee. The Assessee had filed its original return u/s 139(1) and not u/s 139(3). The revised return filed by the Assessee u/s 139(5) could only substitute its original return u/s 139(1) and cannot transform it into a return u/s 139(3) to avail the benefit of carrying forward or set-off of any loss u/s 80. The Assessee can file a revised return in a case where there is an omission or a wrong statement. But a revised return of income u/s 139(5) cannot be filed to withdraw the claim and subsequently claim the carried forward or set-off of any loss. Filing a revised return u/s 139(5) and taking a contrary stand and/or claiming the exemption, which was specifically not claimed earlier while filing the original return of income, was not permissible. The Supreme Court, therefore, held that claiming benefit u/s 10B(8) and furnishing the declaration as required u/s 10B(8) in the revised return of income which was much after the due date of filing the original return of income u/s 139(1), could not mean that the Assessee had complied with the condition of furnishing the declaration before the due date of filing the original return of income u/s 139(1) of the Act.

According to the Supreme Court, even the submissions on behalf of the Assessee that (i) it was not necessary to exercise the option u/s 10B(8) of the IT Act; (ii) that even without filing the revised return of income, the Assessee could have submitted the declaration in writing to the AO during the assessment proceedings; and (iii) that filing of the declaration subsequently and may be during the assessment proceedings would have made no difference, had no substance. According to the Supreme Court, the significance of filing a declaration u/s 10B(8) could be said to be co-terminus with the filing of a return u/s 139(1), as a check has been put in place by virtue of Section 10B(5) to verify the correctness of the claim of deduction at the time of filing the return. If an Assessee claims an exemption under the Act by virtue of Section 10B, then the correctness of the claim has already been verified u/s 10B(5). Therefore, if the claim is withdrawn post the date of filing of return, the accountant’s report u/s 10B(5) would become falsified and would stand to be nullified.

The Supreme Court held that its decision in the case of G.M. Knitting Industries Pvt. Ltd. (2016) 12 SCC 272, relied upon by the learned Counsel appearing on behalf of the Assessee, was dealing with claiming an additional depreciation u/s 32(1)(ii-a) of the Act which cannot be compared with Section 10B(8) which is an exemption provision. According to the Supreme Court, as per the settled position of law, an Assessee claiming exemption has to strictly and literally comply with the exemption provisions. Therefore, the said decision did not apply to the facts of the case on hand while considering the exemption provisions. Even otherwise, Chapter III and Chapter VIA of the Act operate in different realms and the principles of Chapter III, which deals with “incomes which do not form a part of total income”, cannot be equated with the mechanism provided for deductions in Chapter VIA, which deals with “deductions to be made in computing total income”. Therefore, none of the decisions which were relied upon on behalf of the Assessee on interpretation of Chapter VIA was applicable while considering the claim u/s 10B(8) of the IT Act.

The Supreme Court held that so far as the submission on behalf of the Assessee that against the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Moser Baer (ITA No. 950 of 2007), a special leave petition had been dismissed as withdrawn, and the Revenue could not be permitted to take a contrary view is concerned, it had to be noted that the special leave petition against the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Moser Baer (supra) had been dismissed as withdrawn due to there being low tax effect and the question of law had specifically been kept open. Therefore, withdrawal of the special leave petition against the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Moser Baer (supra) could not be held against the Revenue.

The Supreme Court in view of the above discussion and for the reasons stated above, held that the High Court had committed a grave error in observing and holding that the requirement of furnishing a declaration u/s 10B(8) was mandatory, but the time limit within which the declaration is to be filed was not mandatory but was directory. The same was erroneous and contrary to the unambiguous language contained in Section 10B(8) of the IT Act. The Supreme Court held that for claiming the benefit u/s 10B(8), the twin conditions of furnishing a declaration before the AO and that too before the due date of filing the original return of income u/s 139(1) are to be satisfied and both are to be mandatorily complied with. Accordingly, the question of law was answered in favour of the Revenue and against the Assessee. The orders passed by the High Court as well as ITAT taking a contrary view were set aside, and it was held that the Assessee should not be entitled to the benefit u/s 10B(8) of the IT Act on non-compliance of the twin conditions as provided u/s 10B(8), as observed hereinabove. The present appeal was accordingly allowed.

10 Laljibhai Mandalia
(2022) 446 ITR 18 (SC)

Search and seizure – At the stage of search and seizure, the Court has to examine whether the reason to believe are in good faith; it cannot merely be pretence – The belief recorded must have a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of the belief and should not be extraneous or irrelevant to the purpose of the section – The sufficiency or inadequacy of the reasons to believe recorded cannot be gone into while considering the validity of an act of authorisation to conduct search and seizure – Recording of reasons acts as a cushion in the event of a legal challenge being made to the satisfaction reached – Reasons enable a proper judicial assessment of the decision taken by the Revenue – However, this by itself, would not confer in the Assessee a right of inspection of the documents or to a communication of the reasons for the belief at the stage of issuing of the authorisation – Any such view would be counterproductive of the entire exercise contemplated by Section 132 of the Act – It is only at the stage of commencement of the assessment proceedings after completion of the search and seizure, if any, that the requisite material may have to be disclosed to the Assessee.

The Assessee, during the financial year 2016-17, transferred a sum of Rs. 6 crores on 1st June, 2016 and Rs. 4 crores on 21st June, 2016 to M/s. Goan Recreation Clubs Private Ltd. The Assessee secured the loan by way of a mortgage of the property forming part of Survey No. 31/1-A situated in Village Bambolim, Distt. North Goa. The Assessee became the Director of the Company on 18th May, 2016 and then ceased to be so on 23rd June, 2016. The amount of Rs. 10 crores was repaid on different dates starting from 6th October, 2016 till 31st March, 2017, and after repayment of the loan, the mortgage was released on 10th July, 2017. The Company paid interest as well. The Assessee had filed his income-tax return showing the interest income of Rs. 42,51,946, which has been taxed as well. The assessment was finalised u/s 143(3) of the Act on 2nd March, 2021.

In terms of the authorisation after recording reasons to believe in the satisfaction note, search was conducted on 10th August, 2018 at the residential premises of the Assessee which continued till 3:00 am on 11th August, 2018 in terms of Section 132 of the Act. The satisfaction note was not supplied to the Assessee.

The Assessee, in a writ petition, challenged the act of authorisation for search and seizure on the ground that it is a fishing enquiry and the conditions precedent as specified in Section 132 of the Act are not satisfied. It was the stand of the Assessee that he was looking for an avenue to invest some money and the M/s. Goan Recreation Clubs Private Ltd. was in need of finance for setting up its business and hence consequently approached the Assessee for a loan. As a security, the borrower company offered that another company would give its property to the Assessee.

In the counter-affidavit filed by the Revenue, giving the history of the transaction, it was inter alia stated that the authorized officers/ investigating officers conducted search and seizure operations at various spots across various states related to the case of Shri Sarju Sharma and other associated group of companies which had financial transactions with Shri Sarju Sharma and M/s. Goan Recreation Clubs Pvt. Ltd., Goa, and the apparent investment made by the Assessee were found to be not a judicious investment choice from the point of view of a prudent businessman as the company to which the loan was provided by the Assessee had no established business, no goodwill in the market, nor was it enlisted in any of the stock exchanges, nor did the Assessee had any financial dealings with the company previously. The quick repayment of the loan shows that the investment was not meant to earn steady interest income. The investment and nature of the transaction entered into by the Assessee were akin to the familiar modus operandi employed by the entry operators to provide an accommodation entry to bring the unaccounted black money to books for a brief period to run the business till sufficient fund is generated by running the business or some fund from any other unaccounted source comes later on. This is the angle of the investigative process underway in which the trail of the money being paid by the Assessee is being investigated.

The High Court found that none of the reasons to believe to issue authorization met the requirement of Section 132(1)(a), (b) and (c).

According to the Supreme Court, in the light of the views expressed by it in ITO vs. Seth Bros. [ITO vs. Seth Bros., [(1969) 2 SCC 324 : (1969) 74 ITR 836] and Pooran Mal [Pooran Mal vs. Director of Inspection (Investigation), [(1974) 1 SCC 345 : 1974 SCC (Tax) 114 : (1974) 93 ITR 505], the opinion expressed by the High Court was plainly incorrect. The necessity of recording reasons, despite the amendment of Rule 112(2) with effect from 1st October, 1975, had been repeatedly stressed upon by it so as to ensure accountability and responsibility in the decision-making process. The necessity of recording reasons also acts as a cushion in the event of a legal challenge being made to the satisfaction reached. Reasons enable a proper judicial assessment of the decision taken by the Revenue. However, this by itself, would not confer in the Assessee a right of inspection of the documents or to a communication of the reasons for the belief at the stage of issuing of the authorisation. Any such view would be counterproductive to the entire exercise contemplated by Section 132 of the Act. It is only at the commencement stage of the assessment proceedings after completion of the search and seizure, if any, that the requisite material may have to be disclosed to the Assessee.

According to the Supreme Court, the High Court had committed a serious error in reproducing in great detail the contents of the satisfaction note(s) containing the reasons for the satisfaction arrived at by the authorities under the Act. In the light of the above, the Supreme Court did not approve of the aforesaid part of the exercise undertaken by the High Court, which was highly premature; having the potential of conferring an undue advantage to the Assessee, thereby frustrating the endeavour of the Revenue, even if the High Court was eventually not to intervene in favour of the Assessee.

The Supreme Court observed that the detailed satisfaction note showed multiple entries in the account books of Sarju Sharma and others. The manner in which Sarju Sharma, who was either in Siliguri (West Bengal) or Goa, contacted the Assessee in Ahmedabad for a loan of Rs. 10 crores did not appear to be a normal transaction. The subsequent repayment of the mortgage and the interest income reflected in the relevant assessment year appeared to be steps taken by the Assessee to give a colour of genuineness, but the stand of the Revenue that such entry was an accommodation entry is required to be found out and also the cobweb of entries required to be unravelled, including the trail of the money paid by the Assessee.

According to the Supreme Court, the High Court, despite quoting extensively from the counter-affidavit filed by the Revenue, still returned a finding that the Court could not find any other material whatsoever insofar as the Assessee is concerned for the purpose of recording satisfaction u/s 132. The Supreme Court observed that reasons to believe are not the final conclusions which the Revenue would arrive at while framing block assessment in terms of Chapter XIV-B of the Act. The test to consider the justiciability of belief was whether such reasons were totally irrelevant or whimsical. The reply in the counter-affidavit showed that the intention of the Revenue was to un-layer the layering of money which was suspected to be done by the Assessee. The Revenue had asserted that the accommodation entry was a common modus operandi to bring the unaccounted black money to books for a brief period. The investment of Rs. 10 crores for a short period was not for earning interest income as the same was repaid in the same assessment year. The Revenue intended to investigate the fund trail of the money paid by the Assessee. Such belief was not out of hat or whimsical. The Assessee’s stand was that it was a fishing enquiry and a malafide action of the Revenue. The Revenue was specific so as to find out the genuineness of the transaction, believing that it was a mere accommodation entry.

According to the Supreme Court, there could be cases in which a search may fail, or a reasonable explanation of the documents may be forthcoming. At the stage of search and seizure, the Court has to examine whether the reason to believe is in good faith; it cannot merely be pretence. The belief recorded must have a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of the belief and should not be extraneous or irrelevant to the purpose of the section. In view of the detailed reasons recorded in the satisfaction note, including the investment made by the Assessee for a brief period and that investment was alleged to be an accommodation entry, it could not be said to be such which did not satisfy the prerequisite conditions of Section 132(1) of the Act.

The Supreme Court observed that as per the Revenue, Clauses (b) & (c) of Section 132(1) were satisfied before the warrant of authorization was approved. The satisfaction note was recorded in terms of an Assessee whose jurisdictional assessing officer was in the State of West Bengal. It was the cobweb of accounts of such Assessee which were required to be unravelled. It was not unreasonable for the Revenue to apprehend that the Assessee would not respond to the summons before the Assessing Officer in the State of West Bengal. It was also alleged that such summons would lead to the disclosure of information collected by the Revenue against Sarju Sharma and his group. Therefore, it was a reasonable belief drawn by the Revenue that the Assessee shall not produce or cause to be produced any books of accounts or other documents which would be useful or relevant to the proceedings under the Act. Such belief was not based upon conjectures but on a bonafide opinion framed in the ordinary conduct of the affairs by the Assessee generally. The notice to the Assessee to appear before the Income Tax authorities in the State of West Bengal would have been sufficient notice of the material against the Company and its group to defeat the entire attempt to unearth the cobweb of the accounts by the Company and its associates.

According to the Supreme Court, even Clause (c) of Section 132(1) was satisfied. The Assessee was in possession of R10 crores, which was advanced as a loan to the Company. The Revenue wished to find out as to whether such amount was an undisclosed income which would include the sources from which such amount of R10 crores was advanced as a loan to a totally stranger person, unconnected with either the affairs of Assessee or any other link, to justify as to how a person in Ahmedabad has advanced R10 crores to the Company situated at Kolkata in West Bengal for the purpose of investment in Goa. The Revenue may fail or succeed, but that would not be a reason to interfere with the search and seizure operations at the threshold, denying an opportunity to the Revenue to unravel the mystery surrounding the investment made by the Assessee.

The Supreme Court, after referring to the judicial precedents, held that the sufficiency or inadequacy of the reasons to believe recorded could not be gone into while considering the validity of an act of authorization to conduct search and seizure. The belief recorded alone is justiciable but only while keeping in view the Wednesbury Principle of Reasonableness. Such reasonableness is not a power to act as an appellate authority over the reasons to believe recorded.

The Supreme Court restated and elaborated the principles in exercising the writ jurisdiction in the matter of search and seizure u/s 132 of the Act as follows:

i)    The formation of opinion and the reasons to believe recorded is not a judicial or quasi-judicial function but administrative in character;

ii)    The information must be in possession of the authorised official based on the material and the formation of opinion must be honest and bona fide. It cannot be mere pretence. Consideration of any extraneous or irrelevant material would vitiate the belief/satisfaction;

iii)    The authority must have information in its possession based on which a reasonable belief can be founded that the person concerned has omitted or failed to produce books of accounts or other documents for the production of which summons or notice had been issued, or such person will not produce such books of accounts or other documents even if summons or notice is issued to him; or

iv)    Such person is in possession of any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable Article which represents either wholly or partly income or property which has not been or would not be disclosed;

v)    Such reasons may have to be placed before the High Court in the event of a challenge to the formation of the belief of the competent authority, in which event the Court would be entitled to examine the reasons for the formation of the belief, though not the sufficiency or adequacy thereof. In other words, the Court will examine whether the reasons recorded are actuated by mala fides or on a mere pretence and that no extraneous or irrelevant material has been considered;

vi)    Such reasons forming part of the satisfaction note are to satisfy the judicial consciousness of the Court, and any part of such satisfaction note is not to be made part of the order;

vii)    The question of whether such reasons are adequate or not is not a matter for the Court to review in a writ petition. The sufficiency of the grounds which induced the competent authority to act is not a justiciable issue;

viii)    The relevance of the reasons for the formation of the belief is to be tested by the judicial restraint in administrative action as the Court does not sit as a Court of appeal but merely reviews the manner in which the decision was made. The Court shall not examine the sufficiency or adequacy thereof;

ix)    In terms of the explanation inserted by the Finance Act, 2017 with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1962, such reasons to believe as recorded by income-tax authorities are not required to be disclosed to any person or any authority or the Appellate Tribunal.

In view of the above, the Supreme Court found that the High Court was not justified in setting aside the authorisation of search dated 7th August, 2018. Consequently, the appeal was allowed, and the order passed by the High Court was set aside. As a consequence thereof, the Revenue was at liberty to proceed against the Assessee in accordance with the law.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,

This 15th August, India completed 75 years of its independence. Tumultuous, testing, trying or glorious – whichever way you may describe these years, it is possibly the most significant moment for all of us. Watching the Indian tricolour fluttering in the gentle breeze and listening to the enthusiastic and melodious rendering of the National Anthem left me with a lump in my throat. It also brought to my mind an incongruous thought of how – India is five thousand years old and yet seventy-five years young!

“Life can only be understood backwards, but it must be lived forwards” this wisdom expressed by Søren Kierkegaard, set me thinking. When we somersault back in time, we realise that India is a country…a civilisation like none other. We accomplished so much on so many fronts. Our in-depth and invaluable knowledge base enabled us to build, create and surpass other nations. India became the epicentre of culture and trade. Some came to learn and others to plunder and subjugate…and down the millennia and centuries, India still continued to grow.

So, it is not surprising that after being liberated from the manacles of the greed of many colonisers, we continued to excel. In the past 75 years, we have soared to great pinnacles of perfection and achieved multiple marvels of magnificence. From queuing up for foreign aid in the fifties, we have rocketed ahead to become the fifth largest…and the fastest growing economy in the world. India is also a global hub for computer software, small cars, generic drugs, garments, jewellery…Our rockets are launching satellites of the world, while our missiles have a tested range of 8,000 km. India has a very comfortable foreign exchange balance and financial systems that are robust, with credit reaching far-flung villages and a plethora of digital payment options. And these are just the tip of the iceberg of many, many achievements.

As S.S. Lewis once said, “You can’t go back and change the beginning, but you can start where you are and change the ending.” India is not content to rest on its many laurels but spurred on by its ambitions and lifted on the wings of hard work, and it is ready to fly high with the largest youth power in the world, exuding exuberance and confidence! Clearly, India has numerous milestones of success to its credit…but the best is yet to come!

“Faster, Higher, Stronger” used to be the Olympic motto…but no longer! In July 2021, the word ‘together’ was added to emphasise the unifying power of sport and the importance of solidarity. This could have been the guiding light and beacon of inspiration behind Team India’s excellent performance at the Commonwealth Games in Birmingham. The Indian contingent returned home with a rich haul of 61 medals, comprising 22 gold medals, 16 silver medals and 23 bronze medals. Ranked the fourth-best country in terms of medals, India has clearly demonstrated that it has what it takes to win. And as we congratulate every participant and person who put in umpteen hours of painstaking effort, we also wish them all the very best in raising the bar in the years ahead.

ITR filing is an annual activity which can be done in April by millions every year. But it is subject to the timely availability of new forms by the income-tax department. Year after year, the delay in releasing the forms and utilities has resulted in requests for extension of the date for filing returns and upsetting the time schedules. There is a general feeling amongst the taxpayers and professionals that the entire process of the release of forms and utilities needs to be revisited by the department. It could examine how the forms, along with the utilities (that are hard tested on the portal), can be available right on the first day of April. However, this year was definitely better. It is believed that over 4.09 crore ITRs were filed by 28th July, 2022, with more than 36 lakh ITRs filed on 28th July, itself. The tough stand by the Central Board of Direct Taxes not to extend the deadline, coupled with the improved support on the portal, indeed paid dividends. Also, CAs across the country were pleasantly surprised by the positive message they received from the ICAI, declaring that it was not in favour of making any representation for extension of any due date. CAs should not take any pressure but instead work in peace. After all, they were not the ones who were dragging their feet on providing details or procedures. CAs need to develop the courage to tell their clients to furnish the relevant information well in time to avoid unpleasant consequences. As CAs, we should not have to burn the midnight oil to file returns for truant clients – the message is loud and clear!

The multi-directional flow of money of all colours and currencies has always been a cause of concern to governments. With white-collared criminals becoming more adept at evading attention, the government is stepping up its attempts to uncover camouflaged money channels. A few charitable trusts and institutions have for long been a devious route and front to funnel money in and out of the country. The CAG noticed serious lapses in its audit of many such organisations and trusts.

In a serious attempt to crack down on the nefarious activities of these bogus institutions, CBDT has  mandated that all charitable trusts must maintain the records for 10 years from the assessment year for better tax scrutiny. Comprehensive details of incoming and outgoing global funds must be filed, and Aadhaar and PAN numbers of donors and trustees must be recorded. While there is no doubt, this initiative will seriously bottleneck and deter institutions from engaging in money laundering one must also bear in mind that there are more than 3 million charitable trusts in the country, many of them very small run by volunteers with noble purpose. It would be perhaps too cumbersome to subject them to so many compliances that they can become counterproductive to the whole purpose for which the trusts were established. Perhaps some line of demarcation or criteria to segment the trusts for varying degrees of compliance would help.

Audit results should be the barometer of the financial soundness of a company. Sometimes audits fail to red-flag discrepancies and major cracks in a company’s financial system. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs announced that it would soon introduce a set of tough measures to tighten the framework of statutory auditors. These measures are aimed at preventing the recurrence of the abrupt collapse of companies that severely imperils the nation’s financial system. The consultation on audit reforms has been completed, and the drafting of a bill to amend the Companies Act is in the pipeline.

A few questions, though arise in my mind. How many more compliances would the professionals have to live with? Do more compliances, regulations guarantee that there will be no fraud ever in future? Are the auditors always in collusion with the management of the company that goes astray? Is the difference between the audit parameters, environment for a statutory audit and that of a CAG or Fraud investigation clearly comprehended? I believe there is definitely scope for more discussion in an open forum on this subject, or else the expectations will fail, and the audit profession will earn one more blame.

Events
Four-day ITF conference organised by the international tax committee at Udaipur received an excellent response, with 250 participants taking benefit of the panel discussion, lecture and group discussions on relevant topics. Tree plantation visit to the district of Valsad, followed by a visit to Dhanvantari Trust running an eye camp, provided good inspiration for philanthropy to many young professionals who joined this trip organised by BCAS Foundation. A workshop on Tax Audit reporting and a lecture meeting on Unseen Connection between Ukraine War and Digital Taxation received a good response. Another LM on the subject of Unilateral, Bilateral and Multilateral Solutions for Digital Economy also helped members get clarity on the subject.

There are a few very interesting events happening. Long Duration Course on GST has begun with 275 participants virtually attending. There are interesting workshops happening on the subject of Charitable Trust and MSME in early September.  A unique programme on Process Automation under GST as also the flagship programme “5th edition of Internal Audit 101” is being planned. I request you to keep a tab on your emails for the announcement and take the benefit of this knowledge dissemination.

On 5th September, we shall be celebrating Teachers’ Day. One cannot undermine the contribution of a teacher in one’s life. From play school to date, many teachers have come into our life, each teaching us some or the other valuable lessons of life. We owe gratitude and respect to each of them. My salutations to all my Gurus and Teachers, who have made tremendous contributions to my life.

My best wishes for the festive seasons of Parushan and Ganesh Chaturthi!

May I sign off with great hope and enthusiasm in the true spirit of the atmosphere of ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’! Let the profession be free from any evils, let it be ruled by the spirit of national interest, let the mindset of service to the stakeholders prevail for ever. Let the dignity of this great profession rise to new heights.

Society News

LEARNING EVENTS AT BCAS

1. SPR&MD Committee felicitates young CAs

The Seminar, Public Relations & Membership Development Committee (SPR&MD) Committee of BCAS felicitated young successful CAs of the  May 2023 Examination at a talk show titled “Let’s Get Techni-CA-l – Avenues & Opportunities” held on 11th August, 2023 at the Society Hall. The event was attended by over 100 participants, including some walk-ins.


Felicitation of ChAmpion CA Shubham Nighute by President, CA Chirag Doshi, Past President and Committee Chairman, CA Uday Sathaye and the eminent speakers, Past President CA Nitin Shingala and CA Vivek Shah (not in the pic)

The two eminent speakers, CA Nitin Shingala (Past President) and CA Vivek Shah, enthralled the audience with their presentations and guided them on how to mould themselves into becoming discerning professionals.
E-felicitation of ChAmpions and All India Rankers: AIR 10 CA Pooja Baghmar and AIR 11 CA Gogula Bhargavi
The audience were overwhelmed after listening to the experiences shared by CA Shubham Sahebrao Nighute during his journey of becoming a chartered accountant overcoming various obstacles and innumerable challenges faced by him in his life. Two other all-India rankers, AIR 10 CA Pooja Baghmar from Chennai and AIR 11 CA Gogula Bhargavi from Vijaywada were also e-felicitated. They too shared their experiences with the audience.

Visit the below link or scan the QR Code with your phone scanner app:

YouTube Link:  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=N_Hs-Hu899c

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2.    ITF Study Circle Meeting on “Taxation of Software as a Service”
The International Tax and Finance Study Circle of the Society organised a hybrid meeting on 10th August, 2023 to discuss the topic of “Taxation of Software as a Service”.

  • The discussion began with the speaker CA Divya Jokhakar touching upon different services (with examples) which would be covered by the expression Software as a Service (‘SaaS’).

 

  • The taxability of payments for SaaS as royalty under the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) as well as various tax treaties was discussed.

 

  • Various provisions of Copyright law were also discussed to test the application of the definition of “royalty”.

 

  • Further, the situations in which such payments would attract the provisions related to capital gains were also discussed.
  • Further, the prospect of these payments falling within the ambit of Fees for Technical Services (‘FTS’) was also discussed.

 

  • During the course of discussions, key rulings of the Supreme Court in the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P.) Ltd (432 ITR 471) and Kotak Securities Ltd (383 ITR 1) were discussed.

 

  • It was further discussed that once such payments were not taxable as royalty / FTS, the taxability as business profits would need to analysed – both in terms of the Act (business connection) and the treaty.

 

  • The applicability of Equalisation Levy II (introduced in 2020) to the payments for SaaS was also discussed.

 

  • The speaker suggested the order in which the above provisions ought to be applied in order to determine the taxability of SaaS.

Towards the end of the session, various practical examples in terms of the taxability of services such as Zoom, Mailchimp, Office 365, etc — which are used frequently — were discussed.

3.     Suburban Study Circle meeting on “Amendments in the Tax Audit Report”

The Suburban Study Circle organised a meeting on “Important Amendments in the Tax Audit Report for Trusts / NGOs — Form 10B/10BB” on 9th August, 2023, under the leadership of  CA Pankaj Jain.

Making an insightful presentation,  Jain shared his views on the following:

  • An elaborate discussion on various new and complex clause applicability of the respective forms:

1.    Statutory provisions vis-à-vis practical difficulty

2.    Regulatory implications for CA / CS professionals and matters to be included in the audit report

3.    Management responsibility

4.    Compliance checkpoints

5.    Other practical challenges

The session covered numerous real-life examples, with Jain sharing an excellent clause-by-clause interpretation.

4.    Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle case studies on “GST in Automobile Industry”

The Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle presented six case studies on various aspects of GST with reference to clarificatory circulars, provisions of law, judicial pronouncements and embracing technology, and the overall impact of all of these on the automobile sector. Presented by CA Shabd Roop Satsangi, the case studies covered the following aspects:

  • Discounts and Incentives, Reimbursement Claims, Price & Margin Support in the light of Tata Motors Ltd vs. Deputy Commissioner of Commercial Taxes (SPL) – [2023] 150 taxmann.com 382 (SC) & Circular No. 195/07/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023

 

  • Issues in supply for repairs undertaken in the state outside the state of registration

 

  • Sale of secondhand vehicles, calculation of margin, understanding the transaction value thereof w.r.t. ancillary services provided

 

  • Blocked credits for demo vehicles whether purchased, leased, supply of ancillaries like stereo, etc., foreign trips or gold coins, etc.

 

  • Taxation of add-on software like speed controllers, boot automation and massage functions at rear seats when opted at different time frames, i.e., after or at the time of supply and payment made to dealer or manufacturer separately.

 

  • Issues of composite supplies, mixed supplies or independent supplies were also discussed as well as valuation principles under 15.

 

  • Change of definition of “SUV” in light of AAAR Maharashtra — Re: Tata Motors Ltd. – order no. MAH/AAAR/SS-RJ/06/2019-20 & Circular No. 195/07/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023.

 

  • Pre-GST jurisprudence in the CENVAT Regime, multiple GST AARs, clarificatory circulars, as well as principles held in the case of Mohd. Ekram Khan & Sons (SC) were discussed by the group.

The meeting was held virtually on 3rd August, 2023. Around 68 participants from across India participated in the event mentored by CA Yash Dhadda, discussed the bare law, circulars, AARs and SC decisions. The seminar also presented an interesting segment analysis on the automobile sector.

5.    IESG Meeting on China’s Economy

The International Economics Study Group (IESG) organised a virtual meeting on 1st August, 2023 to discuss “What’s really happening in China”. Chaired by CA Harshad Shah, the meeting noted that Chinese Economy is in turmoil and on the brink of deflation, which can trigger a recession, create a ‘doom loop’ and loss of momentum. This could mean China is headed for a lost decade, similar to Japan in 1990s. China’s property market is in crisis with a bubble situation (the property sector accounting for over 30 per cent of GDP), educated youth unemployment surging to 21.3 per cent (experts suggest it could go to 46.5 per cent), China’s $23 trillion local debt and a massive infrastructure mess about to get worse as cities are on the verge of a debt crisis threatening the stability of the banking system. The meeting also noted that China is facing complex geopolitical and geoeconomical challenges, with the ongoing trade and technology (mainly chips) war turning into Cold War II. China is also facing serious internal challenges with high unemployment, falling income and climate change, which is bringing about extreme weather conditions like floods, drought and heat wave. Its tech titans are losing investors, due to a crackdown by regulators, the collapse of CCP due to challenges it faces on the economic and social front and rare dissent shown by the public. This has resulted in many MNCs relocating their manufacturing from China to India in the China+1 policy.

6.    Indirect Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on the concept of Taxable Persons

The group leader of the Indirect Tax Study Circle made a virtual presentation on the topic “Casual Taxable Person and Non-resident Taxable Person” on 21st July, 2023. The presentation focused on the legal concept, with multiple case studies addressing the probable practical issues relating to the Casual Taxable Person and Non-Resident Taxable Person. The presentation and discussion broadly covered the intricacies of the following topics:

  • Meaning of Casual Taxable Person

 

  • Situations to identify the events determined as “occasional” as well as the impact of the definition of business, the furtherance of business and supply by itself, ‘supply made from’ position, the impact of identification of supply and clientele prior to the change of location

 

  • Classification for Inter State vs. Intra State w.r.t. to Casual Taxable Person
  • Mandatory registration provisions and situations for service providers were discussed on these aspects of co-work spaces, marketing services, etc.

 

  • Situations covering deemed supplies, ISD mechanism

 

  • Inference of casual taxable person analogy for classification of services

 

  • Non-Resident Taxable Person, its impact and utility

Around 64 participants all over India participated in the discussion.

7.     Direct Tax Laws Study Circle Meeting on intricacies and issues relating to Reassessment

Under the leadership of the speaker, CA Dharan Gandhi, the Direct Tax Laws Study Circle organised a meeting on the topic, “Reassessment under the Income Tax – Law and Practice”. The meeting discussed the following concepts and issues relating to assessment procedures:

  • Concept of Self-Assessment, Assessment, Revision of Assessment and Rectification of Assessment under the Income-tax Act, 1961 (Act)

 

  • New provisions relating to Reassessment, Search and Survey as Introduced by the Finance Act 2021, explaining and comparing the old and new provisions of Section 147 of the Act.

•    Recent Case Laws relating to Section 148:

a.    [2022] 449 ITR 517 (Delhi) Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO

b.    (2022) 329 CTR (Mad) 809 Dr Mathew Cherian & ORS. vs. ACIT

  • Section 148A of the Act relating to conducting an inquiry and providing an opportunity before issuance of a notice under section 148
  • Section 149 of the Act relating to the time limit for notice

By delving into the minute details of these statutory provisions, the speaker shed light on the nuanced procedures and potential pitfalls that arise during the reassessment process. The meeting was held on 14th July, 2023.

8.    Taxation Committee organises a Webinar on Filing of Income Tax Returns for A.Y. 2023-24

A webinar to guide taxpayers on filing their income tax returns (ITR) was taken by CA Divya Jokhakar on 5th July, 2023. The webinar highlighted that the due date for filing returns varies depending on a person’s income and filing status. He can file his returns online or by mail. By following these tips, he can file his income tax return easily and on time. Starting early will give him more time to gather his documents and ensure the accuracy of the returns. Using tax preparation software can help him file his returns quickly and easily. He can also get help from a tax professional. The speaker explained  how A.Y. 2023-24 returns have changed and what precautions are needed to be taken. She further gave examples of disclosures relating to the foreign assets and incomes.

She also emphasised the importance of the various rules in  Income Tax Rules 1962 and the way to compute and disclose in the ITR.

Towards the end, the method of e-verification of the ITR was explained, and it was emphasised that the new rule mentions that one must everify the ITR within 30 days of e-filing.

Visit the below link or scan the QR Code with your phone scanner app:

YouTube Link:  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zDsRLnNN_uk

 
QR Code:

9.    Taxation Committee organises a Seminar on CBDT’s e-Verification Scheme, 2021

A hybrid seminar on CBDT’s e-Verification Scheme, 2021 was organised on 27th June, 2023.

Sunil Kumar Jha, Director of Income Tax (I&CI), Mumbai, broadly explained the important features of the e-Verification Scheme, 2021, and the manner in which the Income-tax department is collecting / collating data and information from multiple sources. He educated the members about the rationale of introducing this scheme and the intention of the department to share the information they have received from sources with the taxpayers.

Nagesh Kale, ITO (I&CI), Mumbai, made a detailed presentation explaining the features and provisions of this scheme. He also shared certain statistics regarding the number of cases selected for e-verification for F.Y. 2019-20 and F.Y. 2020-21.

Sanjay Joseph, CIT, DIT Systems, briefly explained how information collected by the department is displayed on the AIS portal and how the taxpayers are allowed to give a response on the reporting portal. He threw light on the manner of processing the query once a taxpayer provides a response on the reporting portal.

This was followed by a Q&A session wherein Sunil Kumar Jha, DIT (I&CI), and Shri Sanjay Joseph, CIT, addressed the practical issues faced by the taxpayers while responding to e-verification queries and reporting on the AIS portal.

Visit the below link or scan the QR Code with your phone scanner app:

YouTube Link:  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MeDGy0mpW88

 
QR Code:

Miscellanea

I. TECHNOLOGY

1.    AI use, rising in influence campaigns online, but impact limited: US cyber firm

Google-owned U.S. cybersecurity firm Mandiant said it had seen increasing use of artificial intelligence (AI) to conduct manipulative information campaigns online in recent years, though the technology’s use in other digital intrusions had been limited so far. Researchers at the Virginia-based company found “numerous instances” since 2019 in which AI-generated content, such as fabricated profile pictures, had been used in politically-motivated online influence campaigns.

These included campaigns from groups aligned with the governments of Russia, China, Iran, Ethiopia, Indonesia, Cuba, Argentina, Mexico, Ecuador, and El Salvador, the report said. It comes amid a recent boom in generative AI models such as ChatGPT, which make it far easier to create convincing fake videos, images, text, and computer code. Security officials have warned of such models being used by cybercriminals.

Generative AI would enable groups with limited resources to produce higher quality content for influence campaigns at scale, Mandiant researchers said. A pro-China information campaign named Dragonbridge, for instance, had expanded “exponentially” across 30 social platforms and 10 different languages since it first began by targeting pro-democracy protesters in Hong Kong in 2019, said Sandra Joyce, vice president at Mandiant Intelligence. Yet, the impact of such campaigns was limited. “From an effectiveness standpoint, not a lot of wins there,” she said. “They really haven’t changed the course of the threat landscape just yet.” China has denied U.S. accusations of involvement in such influence campaigns in the past.

(Source: indianexpress.com 18th August, 2023)

2.    India’s digital economy creates a new vote bank all parties want to woo

If politics decides the shape of the economy, the economy too shapes the politics. For long, Indian politics has revolved around two big vote banks of caste and religion. Besides these two, pensioners, central government employees and farmers were other vote banks political parties tried to attract with financial benefits. The growth of the middle class after the economic liberalisation brought the issues of governance and service delivery to the centrestage of electoral politics. The rise of Narendra Modi had a significant push from the growing economic aspirations of Indians.

A new vote bank has emerged with the new digital economy which got a major boost during the pandemic restrictions as Amazon, Swiggy, Zomato and many other gig platforms saw sudden spike in business, which meant demand for more gig workers. Political parties have spotted this vote bank and are trying to woo it — the vote bank of gig workers. A sudden explosion of digital economy in recent times created vast opportunities for gig workers, and at the same time concerns have grown over tough working conditions and low benefits in the gig economy. The Rajasthan assembly passing a bill recently to offer social security to gig workers is the latest sign of the political heft gig workers have gained which political parties can ignore only at their own peril.

In April, hundreds of gig workers working with Zomato-owned quick commerce platform Blinkit in Delhi-NCR went on a strike, protesting against a renewed fee structure that they said would reduce their income, disrupting services at several locations. A Delhi-based Blinkit delivery partner told ET that the new structure resulted in a reduction of Rs.200-250 per day in their payout because most dark stores operate within a radius of 2 km. This was one of a series of protests by delivery workers after the pandemic. Last year in July, Swiggy faced strikes by its delivery workers across metro cities amid discussions about the industry’s poor compensations and lack of social security net.

Gig workers in India are young, financially stressed, and largely uninsured, a report found last year after surveying more than 4,000 gig workers from platforms such as Swiggy, Zomato, Uber, Ola, UrbanClap, and Amazon. The report by CIIE.CO, an incubator and accelerator at IIM-Ahmedabad, said 42.1 per cent of respondents reported not having an increase in income over time. In an inflationary environment, this means individuals are earning less each year. About 51.5 per cent of individuals reported not being able to save money.

About 47 per cent of respondents said they had no form of insurance. The most common form of insurance among individuals was two-wheeler insurance. Despite the high levels of risk to their own personal lives, only one in five gig economy workers had some kind of life or health-related insurance. There were around 7.7 million gig workers as of 2020-21, according to a report by government policy think tank Niti Aayog which said the number was expected to exceed 23.5 million by 2029-30.

Gig workers in India now have got all it takes to form a cohesive economic category of voters. They are spread across the country in large numbers as you will find delivery partners and app-based taxi drivers in all parts of India, especially cities. They have a common set of grievances. And they have been organising and protesting to press for their demands. The pandemic gave them high visibility as people were forced to buy online. Strikes and protests by gig workers have deep political impact as they disrupt delivery services in urban areas, thus attracting a lot of attention, and sympathy too. In short, they are a cohesive voting bloc which can’t be ignored.

Shaik Salauddin, the national general secretary of the Indian Federation of App-based Transport Workers representing over 45,000 cab drivers, told Reuters recently that they had been lobbying political parties for a package before the elections.

The first time significant political attention gig workers attracted was in 2020 when the Central government passed a package of labour reforms which made gig workers eligible for social security, insurance, health benefits and pension.

When Congress leader Rahul Gandhi interacted with gig workers in Bengaluru in May while campaigning for the assembly elections, and even took a two kilometer ride with a delivery partner on his scooter, it became clear that gig workers were in a position to influence elections. Bengaluru has nearly 200,000 gig workers. Last year, gig workers from Dunzo protested when the platform introduced an incentive-based model of payment for its delivery agents. The Congress party had promised benefits for gig workers in its election manifesto. Last month, the Karnataka government announced in its budget an insurance scheme with a cover of Rs. 4 lakh for gig workers across the state. The state will pay the entire premium for the scheme under which workers will get a life insurance cover of Rs. 2 lakh and an accidental cover of equal amount.

In July, the Rajasthan assembly passed a bill for the welfare of gig workers. According to the Rajasthan Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) bill, the state will establish a fund for “registered platform-based gig workers” and charge aggregators (the companies such as Amazon, Ola and Zomato) a “welfare fee”. The fee will be a percentage of the value of each transaction related to the gig workers as may be notified by the state. If any aggregator fails to pay the fee on time, an interest of
12 per cent per annum will be charged on the dues.

After Rajasthan, Karnataka is now planning to impose a fee on aggregators to fund welfare of gig workers. “The Social Security Code of 2020, which defines gig workers and creates a separate fund for them, the Motor Vehicle Aggregator Guidelines and now the Rajasthan government’s plan to bring a law to protect the rights of gig workers — these are all the recent successes of our persistent work in the last three years,” union leader Salauddin told TOI in January.

Last year, India’s pension fund regulator had recommended the government introduce a UK-like pension scheme for the country’s gig workers. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) had proposed that workers at food and cab aggregators be automatically enrolled into the National Pension Scheme (NPS), a voluntary retirement savings scheme.

Not to be left behind the Congress governments in Karnataka and Rajasthan, the Narendra Modi government at the Centre is expected to start a comprehensive social security programme for gig workers soon.

The plan, part of the Social Security Code enacted in 2020, could include accident, health insurance and retirement benefits, Reuters reported recently, citing a senior government official. Labour Minister Bhupender Yadav has said that any scheme for gig workers might be funded through contributions by federal and state governments, as well as the platforms. An industry expert with direct knowledge of the discussions told Reuters the platforms unanimously agreed with the labour ministry’s proposal about social security for gig workers and were ready to contribute to a “transparently” run welfare fund.

More than 290 million people have already registered for an online government portal meant to issue identity cards to gig workers and other unorganised employees, while gathering such details as biometric data and their skills.
(Source: economictimes.com 17th August, 2023)

II.  WORLD NEWS

1.    US mortgage rates climb to highest level in 21 years

Mortgage rates in the US have climbed to their highest level in 21 years amid the Federal Reserve’s aggressive interest rate increases. The 30-year fixed-rate mortgage average 7.09 per cent, up from 6.96 per cent last week, mortgage buyer Freddie Mac reported. The rate stood at 5.13 per cent this time last year.

It is the highest level since April 2002 and the first time it has surpassed 7 per cent since last November. Mortgage rates have climbed since the Fed embarked on its campaign to raise interest rates, which at 5.33 per cent now also surpass a two-decade high.

“The economy continues to do better than expected and the 10-year Treasury yield has moved up, causing mortgage rates to climb,” said Sam Khater, Freddie Mac’s chief economist. The 10-year Treasury yield recently hit at 15-year high of 4.258 per cent.

With high mortgage rates making buying a home more expensive, current homeowners who already have a low mortgage rate are more reluctant to sell their homes. With low inventory and rising mortgage rates, would-be homebuyers are being priced out of the market. At $410,200, the median existing-home sales prices in June was the second highest ever recorded, according to a recent report from the National Association of Realtors.

“Demand has been impacted by affordability headwinds, but low inventory remains the root cause of stalling home sales,” sad Mr Khater. The 15-year fixed-rate mortgage rate average 6.46 per cent, up from last week’s 6.34 per cent.

(Source: www.thenationalnews.com dated 17th August, 2023)

2.    As UK Births Hit 20-Year Low, Indian-Born Parents Take Record Share

India overtook Romania as the most common country of birth of foreign new mothers, after a third of all residence visas were granted to Indian nationals. The number of babies born in England and Wales fell to its lowest level in two decades last year, while a record proportion came from parents who were both born abroad, highlighting a long-term shift in the nation’s demographic makeup.

Of all live births, 23.1 per cent were to non-UK-born parents – a proportion that has shot up from 16.7 per cent in 2008, and is up from 21.5 per cent a year ago, according to census data released Thursday by the Office for National Statistics.

The figures also showed the share of babies born to British parents has slipped, from 62 per cent to 60.3 per cent, and the overall number of births sank to 605,479. That’s the lowest since 2002, and points toward slower population growth that could be a drag on both the economy and labor market in the decades ahead.

The “increase in the number of non-UK born mothers is a good thing” given the UK’s own falling birth rate, said Jonathan Portes, professor of economics and public policy at King’s College London. But declining numbers of overall births is the “real story here,” he said, adding that it’s a “serious long-term social problem for us.”

The rising number of births to foreign parents could help ease fears that the UK will face a labor supply crunch as its population ages and retirees out-pace the rate at which new workers come into jobs. But polling suggests migration is still an important concern for British voters.

More than half of the public favor a cut in immigration, according to a recent survey by Kantar and the Migration Observatory. That suggests rising numbers of births to migrant families could be a thorny issue for both major political parties as they face the prospect of a general election next year.

The number of children born to parents who were both from abroad hit 139,953 last year, up from 134,308 a year earlier and its highest level since 2017. Numbers have remained relatively flat for births involving one non-UK-born parent, while births to two UK-born parents have fallen to 365,111, the lowest level in comparable data going back to 2008.

A rise in the number of people immigrating to the UK in recent years is likely to have led to the jump in migrant parents in 2022. A record 606,000 more people moved to Britain than departed last year, boosted by humanitarian programs and demand for workers whose skills were in short supply.

India overtook Romania as the most common country of birth of foreign new mothers, after a third of all third of residence visas were granted to Indian nationals. Afghanistan also entered the top 10 for the first time, after the UK formally opened the Afghan Citizens Resettlement Scheme at the start of 2022.

India also replaced Pakistan as the most common country of birth for non-UK-born new fathers. Pakistan had held the top spot since comparable data began in 2008. In London, more than two thirds of births were to parents where at least one was from outside the UK. The highest percentages were seen in Brent, Westminster, Newham and Harrow, at more than 80 per cent of births.

Outside of London, the Berkshire town of Slough and the Bedfordshire town of Luton were the areas with the highest rate of births to at least one migrant parent, at 75 per cent and 74.6 per cent respectively. Further away from the capital, Oxford and Leicester saw the highest percentages at 65.9 per cent and 65 per cent respectively.

(Source : ndtv.com dated 19th August, 2023)

3.    Over 15 Million People Suffer From Food Insecurity in Afghanistan

Amid the ongoing economic and humanitarian crisis in Afghanistan, 15.5 million people in the country are suffering from severe food insecurity, Tolo News reported citing a report by the International Federation of Red Cross. Expressing distress over the crisis, the report stated that the drought in the past three years in Afghanistan and the economic crisis over the past two years have increased the needs of the people of the country.

It further stated that 2.7 million people in Afghanistan are facing famine, reported TOLO News. Seyar Qureshi, an economist said, “In the short term, the Islamic Emirate should talk with the international community for humanitarian aid to Afghanistan continues and prevent a humanitarian crisis.”

Whereas, the Taliban Ministry of Economy said that international aid has not been provided to the development sector. Adding to this, they said that the ministry has launched large economic projects to battle the economic challenges in the country.

Abdul Latif Nazari, deputy of the Economy Ministry said, “The aid of the international community has been humanitarian until now, and no significant development aid has been provided. Our effort is to help reduce poverty and provide employment for the people of Afghanistan by attracting development aid and launching large national projects.”

Moreover, Kabul residents have been complaining that they are dealing with economic problems and there is a need to pay more attention to entrepreneurship for people, according to TOLO News. Dawood, a Kabul resident said, “Organizations that make these donations distribute to those who deserve it. Winter is coming and how will people get their fuel?”

Notably, Taliban completed two years since its takeover of Kabul in 2021. During this period, aid organizations have continuously expressed their concern about the increase in poverty as well as the lack of funds for the people.

The Goverment of India has partnered with United Nations World Food Programme (UNWFP) for the internal distribution of wheat within Afghanistan. “Under this partnership, India has supplied a total of 47,500 MTs of wheat assistance to UNWFP centres in Afghanistan. The recent ongoing shipments are being sent through Chabahar Port and being handed over to UNWFP at Herat in Afghanistan.

On Wednesday, United Nations World Food Programme (UNWFP) in Afghanistan thanked India for its help in providing life-saving food to 16 million people in the country. The generous contribution by the government of India has been acknowledged by the relevant stakeholders in Afghanistan, including UNWFP.

On the medical assistance side, India has so far supplied almost 200 tons of medical assistance consisting of essential medicines, COVID vaccines, anti-TB medicines and medical/surgical items like Pediatric Stethoscopes, Sphygmomanometer mobile type with pediatric BP cuffs, infusion pumps, drip chamber set, electrocautery, nylon sutures etc.

(Source : ndtv.com dated 17th August, 2023)

Statistically Speaking

1.    NUMBER OF TAX FILERS IN EACH BRACKET FOR FY 2023

2.    DIRECT TAX COLLECTIONS FOR FY 2023–24*


*Data upto 9th July, 2023
Source: Central Board Direct Taxes


3.    ESTIMATED TOTAL POPULATION OF INDIA IN 2028 (IN MILLIONS)


Source: Statista, 2023

4.    WORLD’S MOST CHARITABLE PERSONS IN THE LAST CENTURY

Ranking

Name

Amount Donated

1

Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata

USD 102.4 billion

2

Bill Gates and Melinda

USD 74.6 billion

3

Warren Buffet

USD 37.4 billion

4

George Soros

USD 34.8 billion

5

John D Rockefeller

USD 26.8 billion

Source: EdelGive Foundation and Hurun Report

5.    INCREASE IN CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY SPENDS
(Rs in Cr)

Sectors

FY20

FY21

FY22

Health

  6,841

  9,276

  9,987

Education

  9,635

  8,559

  8,382

Environment


1,805

  1,337

  2,837

Rural
Growth


2,301

  1,851

  1,801

Total
Spending

24,966

26,211

25,933

Source: Ministry of Corporate Affairs

 

Regulatory Referencer

I.      COMPANIES ACT, 2013

1. Effective date for enforcement of Section 12 of Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023: MCA has notified 18th July, 2023 as the effective date for the enforcement of section 12 of the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023. Section 12 of the Competition (Amendment) Act deals with the provisions relating to the appointment of the Director General. Now, the Commission may, with the prior approval of the Central Government appoint Director General for the purpose of assisting the CCI in conducting an inquiry into contraventions of the Act. [Notification No. S.O. 3199(E), dated 18th July, 2023]

2. MCA to launch ‘Refund form’ on V3 portal for availing of refunds against forms filed in V2 Portal: MCA has informed the stakeholders that they are launching a refund form on the V3 portal, effective from 4th August, 2023. Refund forms on the V2 portal will continue to be available for availing of refunds against forms filed in V2 Portal. [MCA update dated 1st August, 2023]

3. MCA to launch Beta Version of ‘View Public Documents’ service: MCA has informed the stakeholders that the Beta Version of the View Public Documents (VPD) service in V3 shall be launched on 16th August, 2023 for V3 documents. Till date, VPD Service was not available on the V3 Portal. Also, the existing V2 VPD Service shall remain available for the stakeholders. [MCA update dated 1st August, 2023]
        
4. Web version of Form No. RD-1 on V3 Portal: MCA has notified the Companies (Incorporation) Second Amendment Rules, 2023. With this amendment, the MCA has introduced Web Form RD-1 i.e., the form used for filing an application to the Central Government (Regional Director) on the V3 Portal. The web form now includes a new purpose, namely the ‘Notice of approval of the scheme of merger in CAA-11’. Further, the form has been updated to include details of the transferor company, specifying the CIN and name of the company. [Notification dated 2nd August, 2023]

II.  SEBI

5. Framework to freeze PAN of Designated persons during ‘Trading Window Closure period’ to be extended to all Listed Companies: SEBI has extended the framework to restrict trading by Designated Persons (DPs) during the “trading window closure” by freezing PAN at the security level for all listed companies in a phased manner. Presently, this framework is applicable only to listed companies that are part of benchmark indices like NIFTY 50 & SENSEX. The new framework will be applicable to the top 1000 companies in terms of BSE Market Capitalisation from 1st October 2023, next 1000 companies from 1st January 2024 & remaining companies from 1st April, 2024. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/ISD/ISD-POD-2/P/CIR/2023/124, dated 19th July, 2023]

6. All non-individual FPIs to provide Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) details to designated DPs: SEBI has mandated the requirement of providing Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) details for all non-individual FPIs. Currently, FPIs are required to provide their LEI details in the Common Application Form (CAF), used for registration, KYC and account opening of FPIs on a voluntary basis. Further, all existing FPIs that haven’t provided their LEIs to their DPs must do so within 180 days from the date of issuance of this circular. This circular shall be effective immediately. [Circular No. SEBI/ HO/ AFD/ AFD– POD–2/ CIR/ P/ 2023/ 0127, dated 27th July, 2023]

7. Amendment in Mutual Fund Trustee’s ‘Half-Yearly Report’ format: As per Master Circular on Mutual Funds, the Trustees shall have arrangements with independent firms for special purpose audit and/or to seek legal advice. Accordingly, SEBI has now modified the Half Yearly Trustee Report format, as provided in Master Circular. The modified format includes for ‘Compliance with the requirement of standing arrangements with independent firms for special purpose audit and/or to seek legal advice’. These provisions shall be applicable with immediate effect. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-I –POD1/P/CIR/2023/126, dated 26th July, 2023]


8. Master Circular on ‘Alternative Investment Funds’: The SEBI had issued multiple circulars, directions, and operating instructions for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) on a regular basis for necessary compliance. In order to ensure that all market participants find all the provisions at one place, Master Circular on AIFs has been issued. This Master Circular is a compilation of all the existing circulars, and directions issued by SEBI up to 31st March, 2023 for AIFs. [Master Circular No. SEBI/HO/AFD/POD1/P/CIR/2023/130, dated 31st July, 2023]

9. Standardized ‘Terms of Reference’ for audit of firm-level performance data of Portfolio Managers:
Earlier, SEBI vide Master Circular dated 20th March, 2023, mandated Portfolio Managers to submit audit reports on firm-level performance data to SEBI within 60 days from the end of each financial year Now, the Association of Portfolio Managers in India (APMI), in consultation with SEBI, has specified standardized Terms of Reference (ToR) for the aforesaid audit of firm-level performance data. The standard terms specified by APMI shall be applicable w.e.f. 1st October, 2023. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/IMD/IMD-POD-1/P/CIR/2023/133, dated 2nd August, 2023]

10.    ‘Grievance Redressal Mechanism’ for stock market intermediaries: SEBI has notified amendment in various Regulations such as Merchant Bankers Regulations, Debenture Trustees Regulations, Mutual Funds Regulations, Collective Investment Schemes Regulations, AIFs Regulations, etc. Now, the entity shall redress investor grievances promptly but not later than 21 calendar days from the date of receipt of the grievance and in such manner as may be specified. Also, the Board may recognize a body corporate for handling and monitoring the process. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2023/146., dated 16th August, 2023]

11 Unitholders of REITs holding at least 10 per cent of total units to nominate one director on Board: SEBI has notified an amendment to the SEBI (REIT) Regulations, 2014. A new proviso has been inserted to regulation 4, which defines eligibility criteria. It states that unitholders holding at least 10 per cent of total outstanding units of  REIT, must be entitled to nominate one director on the BODs. Further, a new sub-regulation has been introduced to regulation 2 defining ‘group entities of the Manager’. Also, the ‘stewardship code’ has been introduced for compliance by unitholders. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2023/144., dated 16th August, 2023]

Corporate Law Corner : Part A | Company Law

11. Case Law No. 01/September /2023
M/s. Port City Nidhi Limited
ROC-ROC/CHN/ADJ Order/PORT CITY/S. 118 (1) /2023
Office of Registrar of Companies,
TAMIL NADU
Adjudication Order
Date of Order: 15th June, 2023

Order for penalty under Section 454 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 3 of Companies (Adjudication of Penalties) Rule, 2014 for Violation of Section 118(1) of the Companies Act, 2013

FACTS
PCNL is registered under the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956 under the jurisdiction of ROC, Chennai. The company was taken up for inspection by an Officer authorized by the Central Government and Show Cause Notice was issued for violation of Section 118(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Section 118(1) reads as under: –

“Every company shall cause minutes of the proceedings of every general meeting of any class of shareholders or creditors, and every resolution passed by  postal ballot and every meeting of its Board of Directors or of every committee of the Board, to be prepared and signed in such manner as may be prescribed and kept within thirty days of the conclusion of every such meeting concerned, or passing of resolution by postal ballot in books kept for that purpose with their pages consecutively numbered.

It was observed that:

“the minutes Book maintained by the Company was not paginated1  properly and some entries were without the signature of the chairman.

Thus, it was further observed that it is in violation of Section 118(1) of the Companies Act which mandates every company to maintain the minutes of meeting of all the General Meetings in a properly paginated2  manner. Hence the company and every officer of the company who is in default are liable for penal action for violating section 118 (11) of the Companies Act, 2013″.

However, the inspecting officer reported that while replying when the query was raised, company has admitted the same. It has rectified the mistakes and submitted the copies of the updated minutes book, and further sought for lenient view to be taken. However, the inspecting officer recommended to initiate penal action against the company and the officers in default to make sure that such defaults shall not be repeated in the future.

Based on the report of the inspecting officer, RD authorised issuance of adjudication notice to the company and its officers. Managing Director of the company appeared on behalf of Company and himself and accepted the violation subsequent to the Inspecting Officer’s observation that they have filed the updated Minutes Book.

HELD
In view of the above, upon examination and hearing arguments, the company has not complied with Section 118 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, penalty was imposed as per Section 118(11) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Section 118(11) of the Companies Act, 2013 reads as under:
“If any default is made in complying with the provisions of this section in respect of any meeting, the company shall be liable to a penalty of twenty-five thousand rupees and every officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to a penalty of five thousand rupees.”

Therefore, in view of the above said violation of Section 118 of the Companies Act, 2013, the adjudicating officer in exercise of the powers vested to him under Section 454(1) & (3) of the Companies Act, 2013, imposed a penalty of R25,000/- on the company and R5,000/- each on the officers in default.

12. Case Law No._02_/___2023
M/S. AT & T COMMUNICATION SERVICES INDIA PRIVATE LIMITED
ROC/D/ADJ/ORDER/AT&T/ 2924-2927
Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi & Haryana
Adjudication Order
Date of Order: 27th July, 2023

Adjudication Order for non-compliance of the provision of Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 with respect to incorrect certification of e-form by Authorized Signatory and Professional.

FACTS:
M/s AT & T CSIPL, had filed suo-moto application vide e-form GNL-1 dated 25th January, 2023 for the defect in filing of e-form AOC-4 XBRL dated  28th October, 2021. It was inter alia stated that M/s AT & T CSIPL had erroneously reported the total amount of turnover, from its principal product or services under the code 8517 (i.e. current line system), which came into the attention of the M/s AT &T CSIPL when it had received a Show Cause Notice (SCN) from the Cost Audit Branch of Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) on 09th May, 2021.

Thereafter, in reply to the SCN received from MCA from M/s AT & T CSIPL including a certificate from CA Shri ABG who had certified HSN code-wise break up of Annual Turnover for the F.Y. 2020-21, it was observed that M/s AT & T CSIPL had erroneously reported the total amount of turnover from its principal product or services under the code 8517 in the said AOC-4 XBRL for F.Y. 2020-21, instead of reporting the same in the following manner:

SI No

HSN Codes/ ITC Codes

Description

1

9985

Support services

2

9973,9983,9984, 9985, 9987, 4907, 8302

Managed Network Services

On the basis of above observations Adjudicating Officer (AO) i.e. Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi & Haryana had issued a SCN to M/s AT & T CSIPL and Mr. AD, signatory i.e. signing director and CA SKK, the professional who had certified the e-form AOC-4 XBRL dated 31st May, 2023. The reply from M/s AT & T CSIPL to the SCN reiterated that M/s AT & T CSIPL had erroneously reported the total amount of turnover from its principal product or services (i.e. support services and managed network services) under the code 8517 in e-form AOC-4 XBRL for F.Y. 2020-21.  

Rules 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014, stated that:-

“The authorised signatory and the professional, if any, who certify e-form shall be responsible for the correctness of the contents of e-form and correctness of the enclosures attached with the electronic form.

Section 450 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Punishment where no specific penalty or punishment is provided), stated that:-

“If a company or any officer of a company or any other person contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or the rules made thereunder, or any condition, limitation or restriction subject to which any approval, sanction, consent, confirmation, recognition, direction or exemption in relation to any matter has been accorded, given or granted, and for which no penalty or punishment is provided elsewhere in this Act, the company and every officer of the company who is in default or such other person shall be liable to a penalty of ten thousand rupees, and in case of continuing contravention, with a further penalty of one thousand rupees for each day after the first during which the contravention continues, subject to a maximum of two lakh rupees in case of a company and fifty thousand rupees in case of an officer who is in default or any other person.”

HELD:
AO after considering the facts of the case and submissions made, noted that Mr.AD (Director) and CA SKK (certifying professional) had filed e-form AOC-4 XBRL dated 28th October, 2021 with incorrect information. Further noted  that Pursuant to Rule 8 of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees) Rules, 2014 read with Section 450 of the Companies Act, 2013, signatories of E-form AOC-4 XBRL are liable for the correctness of the content of e-form AOC-4 XBRL.

Thereafter, AO imposed penalty as follows:

Violation of Section 
and Rules

Penalty imposed on
Signatory(s)

Penalty specified under
section 450 of the Companies Act,2013

Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees)
Rules, 2014

Mr.AD, Director (signatory of e-form AOC-4 XBRL.

Rs.10,000

Rule 8(3) of the Companies (Registration Offices and Fees)
Rules, 2014

CA SKK, signatory / Certifying Professional of e-form AOC4
XBRL.

Rs.10,000

Further, it was directed that the said amount of penalty shall be paid online through the website www.mca.gov.in (Misc. head) in favour of “Pay & Accounts Officer, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, New Delhi, within 90 days of receipt of this order, and intimation filed with proof of penalty paid.  

Allied Laws

23. Ashok Kumar Joshi vs. Achlaram Bhargava Joshi
AIR 2023 Rajasthan 97
27th March, 2023

Maintenance of parent — Father living on pension since 2008 — Father unable to maintain himself — Son bound to maintain. [Section 4, Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007].

FACTS

The Petitioner (Ashok Kumar Joshi – son) was the eldest son of the Respondent (Achlaram Bhargava Joshi – father). The Respondent was working in the department of B.S.N.L. until his retirement in 2008. Thereafter, the Respondent was living off of pension and other rental income. The Petitioner and Respondent were staying together till 2013. The Respondent was unable to maintain himself, and hence, he filed an application for maintenance from his eldest son (the Petitioner) in 2018. The lower court held that the Petitioner was bound to maintain the Respondent and directed the Petitioner to maintain the Respondent by paying a monthly sum.

The Petitioner – Son preferred a Writ Petition before the High Court.

HELD

The Hon’ble Court observed that the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, was a special legislation enacted to safeguard the rights and interests of a vulnerable section of the society, i.e., senior citizens. It held that the eldest son was bound to pay monthly maintenance to his aged father (Respondent) for expenses towards his food, medical and other requirements. Thus, the order of the lower court was upheld.

The Petition was dismissed.

24. Public Works Department, Chennai vs. East Coast Constructions & Industries Ltd
AIR 2023 Madras 188
2nd February, 2023

Arbitration — Powers to award compensation and interest by the Arbitral Tribunal [Sections 7 & 34, The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996; Section 74, The Indian Contract Act, 1972].

FACTS

The Petitioner and the Respondent agreed to the construction of a new complex for the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly. The Respondent was unable to complete the construction in time due to the faults of the Petitioner. The Petitioner had granted an extension of time without any objections to the Respondent. Later on, the Petitioner denied a refund of liquidated damages and also consequential damages to the Respondent. The Petitioner denied payments towards consequential damages.

On Arbitration, the Arbitral Tribunal awarded compensation and interest. The Petitioner is aggrieved that the Arbitration Tribunal was not authorised to grant the same as there was no authorisation between the parties in the contract to decide any dispute ex aequo et bono (Section 28 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996).

HELD
The Arbitral Tribunal is empowered to award interest in the form of compensation if such has been agreed by the parties. However, in the absence of such agreements, the Arbitral Tribunal can award interest to the extent of delay in payment of money in the form of compensation. Thus, the Court upheld the order of the Arbitration Tribunal awarding consequential damages.

The Petition was dismissed.

25. Mohan Sundaram vs. Punjab National Bank
AIR 2023 Kerala 110
12th December, 2022

Tenancy — Tenanted Property is mortgaged — Unable to repay — Tenanted property is a secured asset- Bank entitled to evict a tenant — Bank held as a public institution. [Section 8, Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970; Sections 5, 6 & 9, Banking Regulation Act, 1949;
Section 13, Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Asset and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI)] .

FACTS
The tenants of five premises facing eviction petitions under section 11 of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965, initiated by a single landlord (Respondent Bank) in a commercial complex, are the petitioners in the revision case. The Petitioners contested that the Respondent cannot be said to be a public institution within the scope of section 11(7) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965. The second contention of the Petitioner was whether the Bank had locus standi as a landlord to seek eviction of tenants from a secured asset taken over by the bank for sale for realising its dues.

HELD
The Hon’ble Kerala High Court held that the Bank (Respondent) was established under the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970. The statute was enacted in the parliament for serving the needs of the development of the economy in conformity with the national policy and objectives and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Thus, the Respondent Bank was a public institution within the scope of section 11(7) of the Kerala Buildings (Lease and Rent Control) Act, 1965. The court held that according to section 17 of the SARFAESI, the Respondent Bank is empowered to take possession of the secured assets including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset. The Hon’ble Court upheld the decision of the lower court; thereby, evicting tenants from the property.

The revision petition was dismissed.

26. K N Ravindran and another vs. G Venkatesh Suresh and others
AIR 2023 Madras 222
27th January, 2023

Suit for partition — Property purchased jointly by relatives for conducting business — Business conducted by a Firm — Retirement from the firm does not amount to relinquishment of interest in the property. [Section 34, Specific Relief Act, 1962; Sections 17 & 49, Registration Act, 1908; Section 35, Stamps Act, 1899].

FACTS
The Original Plaintiff (Respondent 1), the Appellants and other Respondents had purchased the suit property to start a business. The parties are relatives of one another. After some time of running the business through a firm, issues cropped up, which led to Defendants 3–5 (Respondents) and the Original Plaintiff (Respondent 1) retiring from the partnership firm. Defendants 1 and 2 (appellants) were the remaining partners of the firm.

The Original Plaintiff and the Defendants 3–5, relinquished all their shares of the firm to the Defendants 1 and 2. Later, the Original Plaintiff, as the co-sharer of the suit property, filed for a partition suit of the property in the Trial Court.

The Trial Court held the partition in favour of the Plaintiff. The Original Defendants 1 and 2 filed an appeal.

HELD
The Plaintiff and the Defendants 3–5 relinquished all their rights concerning shares in a firm in the deed. However, the rights and title of the suit property were not relinquished by the deed. Furthermore, the family agreement (relied on by appellants) was not properly stamped and registered. Thus, the same was invalid in the eyes of the law. Thus, the decree of the Ld Trial Court declaring the partition of property in the favour of the Plaintiff was confirmed. No costs.  

Service Tax

I HIGH COURT

14. Blackberry India Pvt Ltd vs. Asstt. Central Excise & CGST
2023-TIOL-967-HC-DEL-ST
Date of order: 3rd August, 2023

The relevant date for interest payment under section 11BB of Central Excise Act is three months after the submissions of claim of refund and not the date of letter requesting for refund.

FACTS
Petitioner challenged the order to the extent it was denied interest under section 11BB of CE Act read with section 83 of Finance Act, 1994 on the amount of refund sanctioned. Adjudicating authority contended that the refund was sanctioned within a period of three months as they considered the dates of applications for refund as 7th February, 2023 instead of the date on which the applications were first made.

HELD
Following a settled issue by Supreme Court in the case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. 2011-TIOL-105-SC-CX, adjudicating authority proceeded on the basis that interest under section 11BB of the Excise Act would be payable after expiry of three months from the date of application of refund. However, while considering the date of applications, he erred in holding the date of the letter as the date of application for refund whereas petitioner had filed its applications in March 2013, March 2014 and June 2014 respectively. Hence interest is required to be calculated from the expiry of these relevant dates. Thus, allowing the petition, the High Court directed the adjudicating authority to process claims of interest.

II TRIBUNAL

15. Commissioner of Service Tax vs. M/s Net 4 Communications
2023-TIOL-615-CESTAT-KOL
Date of order: 26th June, 2023

Service of merely setting up network without involving providing information or data did not amount to providing service of OIDAR.


FACTS
Appellant inter alia provided services of system networking which involved linking of two or more computing devices together for the purpose of sharing data. This is done using mixture of hardware and software. Revenue in the show cause notice contended that the said service was Online Information and Database Access or Retrieval (OIDAR) service as contained in section 65(105)(zh) of the Finance Act 1994. Adjudicating authority dropped the demand observing that it is not so classifiable as neither generation of data or information was involved nor it involved providing it to clients. They set up network for transfer of data not provided by them in the period prior to 1st July, 2012. Hence, Revenue filed the appeal.

HELD
Perusing the definition of the service, it was observed that in order to be covered by the definition of OIDAR, (a) service must relate to providing data or information and could be retrieval or otherwise: (b) services must be provided in electronic form and (c) services must be provided through a computer network. The activity described above neither involves data / information generation nor are they providing data to the clients. Hence, the service of OIDAR is not provided and hence, the order dropping the demand SUSTAINS & revenue’s appeal was thus rejected.

16. Commissioner of GST and / central Excise vs. Vedanta Ltd
2023-TIOL-690-CESTAT-MAD
Date of order: 26th May, 2023

Onus to prove liability of service tax under RCM on the department when the assessee placed on record all relevant details that foreign institution had Permanent Establishment in India.

FACTS
The issue in the appeal relates to whether appellant was liable to pay service tax under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) on the fees paid to foreign banks for External Commercial Borrowings (ECB). Appellant provided construction engineering services, GTA services, etc. During EA-2000 audit, it was observed that a sum of over Rs. 33 crore was paid to foreign financial institutions.

However, there was no evidence of payment of service tax on the said amount. Hence, a show cause notice was served. Original authority dropped the demand observing that service providers had a fixed establishment in India. Hence, RCM does not apply to the recipient. The Revenue filed an appeal against such order holding that the Commissioner ought not to have dropped the demand entirely, as respondents had not furnished evidence as to whether the foreign service providers had office in India. According to Respondent, the onus was on the department to prove the short levy and that the banks did not have permanent establishment in India. Further, the Commissioner had gone through the details furnished to demonstrate that the institutions had permanent establishments in India and the entire situation was any way revenue neutral.

HELD
The detailed information furnished by respondents demonstrated that foreign institutions had permanent establishment in India. Also, the department failed to produce that the amount sought to be taxed was subject to service or that the institutions do not have permanent establishments in India. Hence, the interference with the order of the original authority and the appeal of revenue was thus dismissed.

17. M. P. Audyogik Kendra Vikas Nigam (Indore) Ltd. vs. Principal Commissioner of C. Ex. & CGST, Indore
2023(8) Centax 219 (Tri.-Del.)
Date of order: 26th May, 2023

Demand of Service Tax under RCM based on difference between balance sheet and ST-3 returns was not legally valid

FACTS
Appellant was engaged in providing various taxable services. A letter was issued by department to pay service tax under RCM for expenses incurred on legal, professional and consultancy services as well as security services, wherein it was contended by the revenue that there was mismatch between figures as per balance sheet and ST-3 returns. It was clarified by appellant that service tax was already paid by service provider on certain expenses. Appellant also pointed out service tax notifications on the basis of which liability under RCM was not required to be paid. Without considering the clarifications provided by appellant, a SCN was issued for period 2012-13 till 2015-16 invoking extended period of limitation. Further, second SCN was issued on same allegations for subsequent period up to June 2017 demanding service tax along with interest and penalty. Both SCNs were adjudicated vide Order In Original and demand along with interest and penalty was confirmed. Further, Commissioner (Appeals) dismissed the appeal upholding the Order In Original. Aggrieved, an appeal was filed before the Tribunal.

HELD
It was held that the SCN was issued after comparing difference between balance sheet and ST-3 returns, which was totally illegal. Tax was demanded under RCM despite the appellant pointing out that service tax was already paid by the service provider. There was no provision in service tax law to raise a demand on the difference in figure of expenses in balance sheet and ST-3 returns. There was no element of fraud or suppression of facts where returns were filed on timely basis. Hence, extended period of limitation was not available to department. Service tax demand should have been calculated transaction-wise and invoice-wise. Impugned order was set aside.  

Goods And Services Tax

I. HIGH COURT

41. Shree Renuka Sugars Ltd vs. State of Gujarat
2023 (8) Centax 235 (Guj.)
Date of order: 13th July, 2023

Refund application filed manually cannot be denied due to lacunae in the electronic system.

FACTS
Petitioner exports refined sugar under bond without payment of tax. Since the exports are zero-rated supply, ITC of input supply remains unutilised. Petitioner filed the refund application for such unutilized ITC under the category of “Refund of Unutilized ITC” on the portal. However, petitioner erroneously claimed for the lower amount. Respondent sanctioned and paid the lower amount claimed. As the portal and circular dated 3rd October, 2019 does not allow filing of second application for the same period under the same category, petitioner filed supplementary refund application for the remaining amount under the category “any other”, which was rejected on ground that it was not under a valid category. Hence, the petition.

HELD
The High Court held that when substantive conditions for claiming the benefit are fulfilled, the benefits cannot be denied on the sole ground of lacunae in the electronic system by relying upon the decision of Gujarat High Court in Bombardier Transportation India Pvt. Ltd. vs. DGFT2021 (377) ELT 489- Guj and various other judgments. Refund order passed for rejecting the refund application merely on technical ground without scrutiny was not sustainable. Accordingly, petitioner was allowed to file a manual application which was open for respondent to scrutinize.
 
42. Savita Oil Technologies Ltd vs. Union of India
2023 (8) Centax 241 (Bom.)
Date of order: 18th July, 2023


Appeal filed manually against intimation issued in Form DRC-05 permitted in absence of facility available electronically.

FACTS
Petitioner aggrieved by intimation issued in Form DRC-05 intended to file an appeal electronically. Disputed tax amount was deposited under protest and challans were issued to petitioner. Attempt was made to file appeal on electronic portal but since there was no provision to file the appeal electronically, petitioner approached respondent seeking permission for filing appeal manually. However, respondent rejected the request of manually filing appeal on the ground that appeals are required to be filed by using electronic portal. Being aggrieved, petition was filed before Hon’ble High Court wherein petitioner contended that intimation issued by adjudicating authority was an appealable order as per section 107 of CGST Act and filing of appeal manually should be permitted where same is not allowed by portal.     

HELD
The High Court held that simply because there was no provision on portal for filing appeal against intimation issued in Form DRC-05, respondent cannot decline statutory right of petitioner for filing appeal due to technical reasons. Manual filing of appeal is permitted till an appropriate provision was made for acceptance of appeal electronically. Petitioner to file appeal within two weeks and same should be entertained by respondent.

43  Tagros Chemicals India Pvt Ltd vs. Union of India
2023 (8) Centax 239 (Guj.)
Date of order: 13th July, 2023

Refund claimed for tax deposited mistakenly could not be rejected merely on technical grounds.

FACTS
Petitioner received purchase order from a registered exporter to supply goods at concessional rate of IGST at 0.1 per cent in terms of Notification No. 41/2017-IGST Rate dated 23rd October, 2017, instead of 18 per cent. Petitioner mistakenly supplied goods to exporter at the rate of 18 per cent instead of 0.1 per cent. Tax invoice was issued on 30th June, 2019 and goods were subsequently exported by buyer on 6th July, 2019. Thereafter, petitioner found that they had paid full rate of GST instead of concessional rate and a credit note was issued by petitioner to the exporter. Details of credit note were mentioned in GSTR -1 of relevant month. However, petitioner could not reduce GST liability since there was no outward supply for relevant and subsequent month. Hence, a refund was filed which was rejected by issuing a SCN. Explanation submitted by petitioner was rejected on the grounds of non-submission of documents as per relevant notification and order in original was passed. Aggrieved, petition was filed before Hon’ble High Court.   

HELD
The Hon’ble High Court relied on the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in case of Bonanzo Engineering & Chemical Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner of Central Excise 2012-TIOL-25-SC-CX and Share Medical Care vs. Union of India 2007-TIOL-26-SC-CUS held that even if petitioner did not take benefit of notification initially, he would not be debarred from claiming the benefit at a later stage. Condition (ii) of Notification No.41/2017-IGST Rate which states that recipient shall export goods within 90 days from date of issue of tax invoice was fulfilled. Refund claim cannot be rejected merely on the basis of technical grounds and revenue authority should refund the amount along with interest. Petition allowed in favour of petitioner.

44. Mayel Steels Pvt Ltd vs. Union of India
2023 (9) Centax 25 (Bom.)
Date of order: 19th June, 2023

Show Cause Notice and order cancelling registration to be set aside where same was uploaded on portal but copy not provided by e-mail or hand delivery.

FACTS
Petitioner was asked to remain present on 2nd August, 2022 by issuing SCN which was uploaded on portal on 1st August, 2022. SCN was neither mailed nor hand delivered to petitioner. A reply to SCN was submitted a week later after petitioner became aware of the notice being uploaded on the portal. In the meantime, order for provisional attachment of bank account/property was issued by department under section 83 of CGST Act in Form GST DRC-22. Aggrieved, petitioner approached Hon’ble High Court on 24th November, 2022 with a contention that SCN issued was in violation of principles of natural justice, and order passed was without granting opportunity of being heard. Thereafter, an order for cancelling petitioner’s registration was issued on 2nd January, 2023 by the respondent.

HELD
It was held that SCN should not be merely uploaded on web portal but a copy of the same should be forwarded to petitioner by e-mail and/or by hand delivery. Respondent acted in an arbitrary manner by passing impugned order breaching principles of natural justice. Order for cancellation of registration was passed even though petition was filed before Hon’ble High Court. Further, the issues raised in impugned order were not in the ambit of SCN. The impugned order cancelling the GST registration of petitioner and SCN was set aside. Furthermore, respondent was allowed to issue a fresh SCN wherein an opportunity to reply was directed to be given to petitioner in accordance with the law.

45. State Tax Officer vs. Shabu George
[2023] 153 taxmann.com 138 (SC)
Date of order: 31st July, 2018

Revenue’s appeal dismissed against order of the High Court holding that cash cannot be seized when it does not form part of stock-in-trade.

Hon’ble Supreme Court dismissed the SLP filed against the order of the High Court wherein it was held that in an investigation aimed at detecting tax evasion under the GST Act, cash cannot be seized, especially when cash does not form part of the stock-in-trade of business.

46. Arhaan Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Solutions (P) Ltd and Ors vs. Deputy Assistant Commissioner-1(ST) and Ors
[2023] 153 taxmann.com 325 (AP)
Date of order: 3rd August, 2023

Authorities cannot confiscate the goods under section 130 without first issuing notice under section 129 against the purchasing dealer of the goods, if it is found that the vendor from whom such goods were purchased by him, was under investigation by the department for fake registration. The responsibility of the purchasing dealer would be limited to the extent of establishing that he bonafide purchased goods from the vendor for valuable consideration by verifying the GST registration of the seller available on the official web portal.

FACTS
The first petitioner purchased goods from one supplier and in turn sold them to a customer under a valid tax invoice. The goods were transported in the vehicle of the second petitioner and the consignment was accompanied by valid documents such as invoice, way bill, weighment slip etc. While goods were in transit the department detained the vehicles along with the goods on the alleged ground that the vendor of the 1st petitioner has no place of business at Vijayawada (i.e. no business is being conducted from the said address in Vijayawada given by the vendor), and accordingly initiated impugned proceedings in the name of the said vendor by deliberately ignoring the documents produced by the drivers at the time of check. The petitioners challenged the action of the department. It was also submitted that no confiscation under section 130 of the CGST Act can be done without issuing notice under section 129 to the first petitioner.

HELD
The Court held that since proceedings under section 129 and section 130 are mutually exclusive, it is open for the department to initiate confiscation proceedings against the vendor in view of his absence at the given address and not holding any business premises at Vijayawada, however, he cannot confiscate the goods of the 1st petitioner merely on the ground that the 1st petitioner purchased goods from such vendor. The Court further held that even if the inquiry is initiated against the first petitioner, his responsibility will be limited to the extent of establishing that he bonafide purchased goods from such vendor for valuable consideration by verifying the GST registration of the said vendor available on the official web portal and he was not aware of the credentials of the said vendor. Further, he has to establish the mode of payment of consideration and the mode of receiving goods from the said vendor through authenticated documents. Except that he cannot be expected to speak about the business activities of the said vendor and also whether he obtained GST registration by producing fake documents. In essence, the petitioners have to establish their own credentials but not of the said vendor. The Court, thus held that the GST department is not correct in roping the petitioners in the proceedings initiated against the vendor without initiating independent proceedings under section 129 of CGST/APGST Act against the petitioners and disposed of the case giving liberty to the department to initiate proceedings against the petitioners under section 129 of CGST/APGST Act, 2017 and directed to release the goods and conveyance on petitioners executing a bond and 25 per cent of the value of the goods.

47. M/s Ambey Mining Pvt Ltd vs. Commissioner of State Tax
2023-TIOL-864-HC-Jharkhand-GST
Date of order: 17th July, 2023

When the order of the First Appellate Authority is not challenged or revised by the revenue authority, the same has attained finality and the same cannot be re-adjudicated.

FACTS
The case of petitioner is that two show-cause notices were issued and both are for the same period for same cause of action (except March, 2020) issued by two different authorities i.e., Deputy Commissioner of State Tax and Assistant Commissioner of State Tax. The notices attempted to start a fresh adjudication proceeding which has already attained finality by First Appellate Order as the revenue has not appealed against the said order. Therefore, the notice issued is contrary to the settled proposition of law. For March 2020, demand of interest is made for late filing of GST returns.

HELD
The Court primarily noted that the first appellate order is accepted by the department and no further appeal is filed or any revision is carried out. Thus, the revenue cannot re-agitate a matter afresh which has already come to an end by due process of law. The Court also noted that the first appellate authority cannot remand the matter to initiate a denovo proceeding. Therefore, the impugned show-cause notices are wholly without jurisdiction, without authority of law and also barred by principles of res-judicata. With respect to the interest on late filing of returns, it was noted that there was extension of due dates on account of COVID and therefore a lower interest amount is confirmed.

48. Britannia Industries Ltd vs. Union of India
2023-TIOL-953-HC-AHM-GST
Date of order: 7th August, 2023

In absence of uploading the order on the GST portal, the date of communication of the order through email is to be considered for the purpose of filing the appeal.

FACTS
The issue before the Court is whether in absence of uploading the order on the portal, the petitioners were handicapped to file the appeal through electronic mode even though the same was communicated to them manually.

HELD
The Court noted that Rule 108 of the GST Rules prescribes that the appeal has to be filed electronically, but it nowhere prescribes that the same is to be filed only after the order is uploaded on the GST portal. The Court held that the date of communication of the order by email is to be taken as the date of communication of the order for the purpose of limitation.

49. C P Pandey and Company vs. Commissioner of State Tax
2023-TIOL-960-HC-MUM-GST
Date of order: 31st July, 2023

Cancellation of GST registration on a ground which is outside the scope of the show-cause notice is illegal and deserves to be quashed.

FACTS
The petitioner contends that the cancellation of the GST registration is not on the ground contained in the show cause notice. No opportunity is provided to meet such grounds which emerged for the first time in the orders passed. Therefore, the cancellation is illegal and should be set aside.

HELD
The Court noted that there is substance in the contention as the cancellation is completely outside the scope of the show cause notice. Since no opportunity was granted, there is a breach of the principles of natural justice and therefore the order is required to be set aside. The Court, however gave a liberty to issue a fresh show cause notice in accordance with the provisions of law.  

50. Thirumalakonda Plywoods vs. The Assistant Commissioner of State Tax
2023-TIOL-908-HC-AP-GST
Date of order: 18th July, 2023

Imposing of time limit for availing input tax credit is neither violative of section 16(2) prescribing the eligibility conditions for availing credit nor violative of the Constitution. Also, mere late filing of returns will not make the Assessee eligible for input tax credit for the extended period.

FACTS
Petitioner prays for writ of mandamus declaring section 16(4) of the Central Goods and Services Act, 2017 (The Act) providing time limit to avail input tax credit as violative of Article 14, 19(1)(g) and section 300-A of Constitution of India. Section 16(2) prescribing the conditions for availment of credit would prevail over section 16(4). It was also argued that sufficient opportunity was not granted to the petitioner under section 74(5) of the Act.

HELD
The Court noted that section 16(2) does not appear to be a provision which allows input tax credit, rather the enabling provision is section 16(1). On the other hand, section 16(2) restricts the credit which is otherwise allowed to only such cases where conditions prescribed in it are satisfied. Therefore, section 16(2) in terms only overrides the provision which enables the credit i.e. section 16(1). The non-obstante clause in section 16(2) is followed by a negative sentence “no registered person shall be entitled to the credit of any input tax in respect of any supply of goods or services or both to him unless”. This negative sentence clearly conveys that unless the conditions mentioned in section 16(2) are satisfied, no credit is eligible. Therefore, section 16(2) is not an enabling provision but a restricting provision. Unless clear inconsistency is established, overriding effect cannot be given over other provisions. In the present case, both sections 16(2) and (4) are two different restricting provisions, the former providing eligibility conditions and the later imposing time limit. However, both these provisions have no inconsistency between them. Conditions stipulated in sections 16(2) and (4) are mutually different and both will operate independently. Therefore, mere filing of the return with a delay fee will not act as a springboard for claiming credit. Such a statutory limitation cannot be stifled by collecting late fee.

Recent Developments in GST

A. NOTIFICATIONS

1.    Notification No.18/2023-Central Tax dated  17th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to extend the due date for furnishing return in Form GSTR-1 for April 2023 to June 2023 to 31st July, 2023 for registered persons whose principal place of business is in the State of Manipur.

2.     Notification No.19/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023  
The above notification seeks to extend the due date, for furnishing return in Form GSTR-3B for April 2023, to 31st May, 2023 for registered persons whose principal place of business is in the State of Manipur.

The above notification seeks to extend the due date for furnishing return in Form GSTR-3B for the months of April, May and June 2023 to 31st July, 2023, for registered persons whose principal place of business is in the State of Manipur.

3.     Notification No.20/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to extend the due date for furnishing return in Form GSTR-3B for Quarter ending June 2023 to 31st July, 2023 for registered persons whose principal place of business is in the State of Manipur.

4.     Notification No.21/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to extend the due date for furnishing return in Form GSTR-7 for April 2023 to June 2023 to 31st July, 2023 for registered persons whose principal place of business is in the State of Manipur.

5.     Notification No.22/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
By above notification, the date for filing GSTR 4 for the financial years 2017–18 to 2021–22 which was extended up to 30th June, 2023 is now further extended up to 31st August, 2023, with no other change.

6.     Notification No.23/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
A facility is provided to the Registered Person whose registration has been cancelled on or before 31st December, 2022 for non-filing of returns to file returns up to effective date of cancellation with applicable interest and late fees up to 30th June, 2023. The same is now further extended to 31st August, 2023. If such returns are filed then they can apply for revocation of cancellation of registration.

7.     Notification No.24/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
A facility given to registered person who failed to file valid return within the period of 30 days from the service of best judgment assessment order under section 62(1) of CGST Act and issued before 28th February, 2023, to file return before 30th June, 2023, is further extended up to 31st August, 2023. Upon filing the same, order can get cancelled.
 
8.     Notification No.25/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
A facility given to the defaulter of filing annual return in form 9 for the years 2017–18 to 2021–22 till 30th June, 2023 is extended up to 31st August, 2023. If such return is so filed, then the late fees will be a maximum R10,000 instead of higher late fees as per normal provisions
 
9.     Notification No.26/2023-Central Tax dated 17th July, 2023
Waiver of late fees is provided in case of return in Form GSTR-10. The return was to be filed up to 30th June, 2023 and date is now further extended up to 31st August, 2023.
 
10. Notification No.27/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government has notified 1st October, 2023 as the date for coming into force of provisions of section 123 of the Finance Act, 2021 (13 of 2021). The provisions of section 123 pertains to amendment in section 16 of IGST Act.

11. Notification No.28/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023

By above notification, Central Government has notified that the provisions of sections 137 to 148 and 155 to 162 of the Finance Act, 2023 (8 of 2023) shall come into force from 1st October, 2023 and section 149 to 154 shall come into force from 1st August, 2023. The amendments are in various sections of CGST Act vide Budget 2023.

12. Notification No.29/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government has notified Special procedure to be followed by a registered person in case of dispute out of directions of Hon. Supreme Court in Filco Trade Centre Private Limited read with Circular No. 182/14/2022-GST, dated 10th November, 2022 relating to TRAN-1.

13. Notification No.30/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government has notified specific forms seeking information on various issues in relation to notified items in said notification. The items are mainly Tobacco and its products.

14. Notification No.31/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By notification no.27/2022–Central Tax dt. 26th December, 2022, Rule 8(4A) was made applicable to all States except Gujarat. Now by above notification, State of Pondicherry is also excluded.

15. Notification No.32/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government has exempted the registered person from filing annual return whose aggregate turnover in the financial year 2022–23 is up to two crore rupees.

16. Notification No.33/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government has provided ‘Account Aggregator’ as system with which information may be shared by common portal under section 158A of CGST Act.

17. Notification No.34/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, Central Government seeks to waive requirement of mandatory registration under section 24(ix) of CGST Act for person supplying goods through ECO, subject to conditions.

18.    Notification No.35/2023-Central Tax dated 31st July, 2023
By above notification, common adjudication authority is sought to be appointed in respect of show cause notice for taxpayers mentioned in said notification.

19.    Notification No.36/2023-Central Tax dated 4th August, 2023
By above notification, special procedure to be followed by the Electronic Commerce Operators in respect of supplies of goods through them by composition taxpayers is provided. The notification to apply from 1st October, 2023.

20.    Notification No.37/2023-Central Tax dated 4th August, 2023
By above notification, special procedure to be followed by the Electronic Commerce Operators in respect of supplies of goods through them by unregistered persons is provided. The notification to apply from 1st October, 2023.

21.    Notification No.38/2023-Central Tax dated 4th August, 2023
By above notification, amendments are made in various Rules. The indicative list of changes is as under:

Rules

Pertaining to:

9(1)

Verification
of registration application.

10A

Furnishing
of bank account details.

21A

Suspension
of registration.

23 (w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Revocation
of cancellation of registration

25

Physical
verification of business premises in certain cases.

43

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Manner
of determination of ITC in respect of capital goods and reversal thereof.

46

Tax
Invoice.

59

Form
and manner of furnishing details of outward supplies.

64

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Form
and manner of submission of returns by person providing OIDAR services.

67

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Form
and manner of submission of statement of supplies through E-com operator.

88D
(new)

Manner
of dealing with difference in input tax credit available in auto-generated
statement containing the details of input tax credit and that availed in
return.

89

Application
for refund of tax etc.

94

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Credit
of amount of rejected refund claim.

96

Refund
of IGST paid on goods or services exported out of India.

108

Appeal
to Appellate Authority.

109

Application
to Appellate Authority.

138F
(new)

Information
to be furnished in case of intra state movement of gold, precious stones,
etc., and generation of e-way bills thereof.

142B
(new)

Intimation
of certain amounts liable to be recovered under Section 79 of the Act.

162

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Procedure
for compounding of offences.

163
(new)

(w.e.f.
1st October, 2023)

Consent
based sharing of information.

Notifications relating to Rate of Tax

22. Notification No.6/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to amend notification No. 11/2017- Central Tax (Rate) so as to notify change in GST with regards to services as recommended by GST Council in its 50th meeting held on 11th July, 2023. The changes are mainly relating to procedure regarding GTA services.

23. Notification No.7/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to amend notification No.12/2017- Central Tax (Rate) so as to notify change in GST with regards to services as recommended by GST Council in its 50th meeting held on 11th July, 2023. “Satellite launch services” is added by substitution.

24. Notification No.8/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to amend notification No. 13/2017- Central Tax (Rate) so as to notify change in GST with regards to services as recommended by GST Council in its 50th meeting held on 11th July, 2023.

25. Notification No.9/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to amend notification No. 01/2017- Central Tax (Rate) to implement the decisions regarding change of rates in the 50th GST Council.

26. Notification No.10/2023-Central Tax (Rate) dated 26th July, 2023
The above notification seeks to amend notification No. 26/2018- Central Tax (Rate) to implement the decisions of 50th GST Council. This notification is relating to supply of gold through nominated agencies.
 
Similar changes are made in IGST by issue of separate notifications under IGST Act.

B.    ADVISORY

There is advisory dated 24th July, 2023, by which the availability of E-invoice exemption declaration functionality on GSTN is informed.
 
C. CIRCULARS

a) Clarification about charging of interest u/s. 50(3) of CGST Act -Circular no.192/04/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification regarding charging of interest under section 50(3) of CGST Act in the cases where IGST credit has been wrongly availed by a registered person.

b) Clarification about ITC in Form GSTR-3B -Circular no.193/05/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving various clarifications to deal with difference in Input Tax Credit (ITC) availed in FORM GSTR-3B as compared to that detailed in FORM GSTR-2A vis-a-vis Rule 36(4) for the period from 1st April, 2019 to 31st December, 2021.

c) Clarification about TCS liability u/s. 52 of CGST Act – Circular no.194/06/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarifications on TCS liability under section 52 of the CGST Act, 2017 in case of multiple E-commerce Operators in one transaction.

d) Clarification about availability of ITC in respect of warranty replacement – Circular no.195/07/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification on liability under GST and availability of ITC in respect of warranty replacement of parts and repair services during warranty period.

e) Clarification about holding shares in Subsidiary Company – Circular no.196/08/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification whether holding of shares in a subsidiary company by holding company will be treated as ‘supply of service’ or not.

f) Clarification about refund related issues – Circular no.197/09/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification on various issues relating to refunds under GST.

g) Clarification about issues pertaining to E-invoice – Circular no.198/10/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification on issues in respect of applicability of e-invoice under rule 48(4) of Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 in given situations.

h) Clarification about liability in case of distinct persons – Circular no.199/11/2023-GST, dated 17th July, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular giving clarification regarding taxability of services provided by an office of an organisation in one State to the office of that organisation in another State, both being distinct persons.

i) Clarifications pursuant to 50th GST Council Meeting-Circular no.200/12/2023-GST, dated 1st August, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular, in which the clarifications are given in light of recommendations in 50th GST Council meeting held on 11th July, 2023.

j) Clarification about tax on certain services – Circular no.201/13/2023-GST, dated 1st August, 2023
The CBIC has issued above circular in which clarifications regarding applicability of GST on certain services like director service, restaurant services etc., are given.
 
D. ADVANCE RULINGS

ITC vis-à-vis CSR

31. Bambino Pasta Food Industries Pvt Ltd (Order No.: A R Com/17/2022 dt. 20th October, 2022 (TSAAR Order No. 52/2022) (Telangana)

The applicant, Bambino Pasta Food Industries, is a manufacturer of Vermicelli and pasta Products. The Applicant filed advance ruling application to know the admissibility of ITC on the Corporate Social Responsibility (shortly known as CSR) expenditure spent by it.

The applicant informed that during the covid time, when oxygen was scarce in the country, Applicant has donated oxygen plant to AIIMS hospital Bibinagar, Yadadri Bhongir District, for the benefit of patients who were suffering with low oxygen levels. For this purpose, the applicant had purchased PSA oxygen plant and spare parts for that oxygen plant for Rs.62,74,200 which included IGST paid of Rs.9,16,200. The applicant opined that the expenditure made by them comes under the CSR provisions as per Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 and hence, it is not as gift.

It was submitted that CSR activity is to be considered as “used or intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business” because any company, which meets the criteria for CSR, is mandatorily required to incur expenditure in CSR activities, so as to be compliant with the Companies Act, 2013.

It was explained that as per Section 17(5)(h) of the CGST Act, 2017, input tax credit shall not be available in respect of “goods lost, stolen, destroyed, written off or disposed of by way of gift or free samples.”

Reliance placed upon the Judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, in the case of Ku. Sonia Bhatia vs. State of UP (1981-VIL-06-SC), wherein Hon’ble Court has cited the definition of ‘gift’ from Corpus Juris Secundum, Volume 38 in the following words: “A ‘gift’ is commonly defined as a voluntary transfer of property by one to another, without any consideration or compensation there for.

That a ‘gift’ is a gratuity and an act of generosity and not only does not require a consideration, but there can be none.” Citing the definition, it has been observed by the Hon’ble Court that “The concept of gift is diametrically opposed to the presence of any consideration or compensation. A gift has aptly been described as a gratuity and an act of generosity and stress has been laid on the fact that if there is any consideration then the transaction ceases to be a gift.”

It was thus insisted that the CSR is not gift but under compulsion.

The judgment of Hon. CESTAT Mumbai, in the case of M/s Essel Propack Ltd vs. Commissioner of CGST, Bhiwandi {2018 (362) E.L.T. 833 (Tri.-Mumbai) – 2018-VIL-621-CESTAT-MUM-ST} was cited in which similar ITC is allowed.

The different penal provisions under Companies Act, 2013 were also shown to further state that it is to save business from such actions and hence, expending duly covered by scope of expenditure for business.

The learned AAR referred to statutory provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and observed that the running of the business of a company will be substantially impaired if they do not incur the said expenditure. Therefore, the expenditure made towards corporate social responsibility under section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, is expenditure made in the furtherance of the business, and hence the tax paid on purchases made to meet the obligations under corporate social responsibility will be eligible for input tax credit under CGST and SGST Acts, held the learned AAR. Accordingly, the matter allowed in favour of applicant.

(Note: By amendment by Finance Act 2023, section 17(5) (fa) is inserted to block ITC on CSR expenses.)
 
32. RCM / liability on Compensation received Continental Engineering Corporation (Order No.: AAARCom/05/2022 dt. 19th October, 2022 (Order No. AAAR/11/2022) (Telangana)

This is an appeal against AR bearing no. TSAAR/13/2021 dt. 8th October, 2021. The facts are that M/s Continental Engineering Corporation, Telangana is engaged in the construction of highway, tunnel, bridge, mass rapid transit and high-speed rail projects.

The appellant (original applicant) has sought clarification from the AAR in respect of taxability of certain receipts under GST. Out of various items decided by AAR, the appellant filed appeal against two issues before the ld. AAAR. The issues raised before the ld. AAAR are as under:

“a) Whether GST is payable on the claim of R22,00,000 [sic] for the HGCL share of sitting fees and other expenses paid by the applicant on the directions of the Arbitrators for an amount.

b) Whether GST is payable on the claim of R1,15,80,62,000 [sic] (including interest amount) on account of compensation of additional cost incurred due to delay in issue of drawings and failure of HGCL to handover site on time and refusal to issue the taking over certificate.

c) If the answer to questions (a) and (b) are in affirmative, then under what HSN Code and GST rate the liability is to be discharged by the Appellant, and at what time?”

In respect of issue about amount paid as sitting fees for arbitration, the ld. AAR observed that the lower authority had held that Arbitration service was supplied independently after the introduction of GST i.e., the arbitration tribunal was constituted conclusively on 20th November, 2017 and rendered its orders on 9th May, 2019 and therefore this supply is liable to tax on reverse charge basis under GST.

The appellant was arguing that it has made payment of money as per award. It was the contention that money is not goods or services. However, the ld. AAAR observed that the Government vide Sl.No.3 of Notification No.13/2017. dt. 28th June, 2017 has levied tax in respect of services provided by the Arbitration Tribunals to be paid by any business entity located in the taxable territory, under reverse charge mechanism. The ld. AAAR also observed that the relevant tariff is also provided like SAC code of 998215 for such services taxable @ 9 per cent each under CGST and SGST.

Therefore, the ld. AAAR confirmed order of AAR on the above count. In respect of amount received as compensation for delay in issue of drawing and failure to hand over site on time, the ld. AAAR observed that these damages are claimed by the appellant from the contractee due to the delays in making available possession of site, drawings & other schedules by the contractee beyond the milestones fixed for completion of project. The ld. AAR has considered these damages for tolerating an act or a situation arising out of the contractual obligation. The Ld. AAAR noted that as per the issues mentioned in the arbitration award, clauses 6.4 and 42.2 of the General Conditions of Contract (GCC) specifically state that in case of any delay in issuance of drawings or failure to give possession of site the engineer shall determine the extension of time and amount of cost that the contractor may suffer due to such delays in consultation with the employer and the contractor.

The appellant was contending that these receipts are towards reimbursement of additional costs incurred during extended period while performing the work. It was contended that this is not a consideration towards the supply of goods and services.

The ld. AAAR justified the AAR order observing as under:
“As per the claim documents submitted before the lower authority, not disputed by the applicant, the amount was towards compensation for delay in execution of the works and prolongation costs. When a subjective meaning is deciphered from the phase used by the applicant themselves, the amounts were recovered as compensation for delay in execution of the works. That is to say that the applicant had received the amount to agreeing to the obligation to refrain from an act, or tolerating an act or a situation that arose due to delay in execution or protraction or elongation of work. This is nothing but compensation for refraining to do an act or tolerating to do an act. The consideration received for such act is taxable @ 9 per cent each under CGST and SGST and falls under Ch Head 9997 at Sl. No. 35 of Notfn No. 11/2017-CT (rate).”

Thus, in appeal, AR confirmed on both the issues.

33. Scope of AR – State wise
Comsat Systems P Ltd (Order No.: A R Com/11/2022 dt. 20th October, 2022 (TSAAR Order No. 51/2022) (Telangana)

The applicant, Comsat Systems Private Limited, is engaged in manufacture, supply, install, testing and commissioning of satellite communication antenna systems. They submitted that the antennas manufactured at their factory (Hyderabad, Telangana) are required to be installed at various locations in different states of India, including Andaman, Nicobar, Dweep Islands.

They submitted that they have to install 19 Nos., antenna systems at various locations/states in India and that M/s Bharat Electronics Ltd, Bangalore Karnataka, their recipient is insisting them to have separate temporary GST number for each location / state.

Based on above facts following questions were raised before the ld. AAR:

“1. Is it necessary to have temporary GST Registration at various locations/States for each location to claim GST tax installation, testing & commissioning of antennas?

2. How far Sec.22 of the CGST Act is applicable?”
The ld. AAR examined scope of section 96 of GST Act. The ld. AAR ruled as under:

“The applicant is having his place of business in the state of Telangana and is seeking a ruling on his liability to obtain a registration in other states where he is executing to contracts including installation, testing and commissioning of antennas. In this connection it is inform that under Section 96 of the CGST Act, the authority for advance ruling constituted under the provisions of a state goods and services Act shall be deemed to be the authority for advance ruling of that state. As seen from this provision there is a territorial nexus between the authority for advance ruling of a state and its geographical boundary. Therefore, this advance ruling authority constituted under the Telangana State Goods and Services Act cannot give a ruling on the liability arising under the CGST Act or SGST Act in a different state. Therefore, the application is Rejected.”

Thus, it is clear that the scope of AAR is limited to particular state and cannot rule for liability in other states.

Valuation – Reimbursement of diesel cost

Tara Genset Engineers (Regd) (Ruling No.11/2022-23 in Appl. No.08/2022-23 dt. 13th October, 2022 (Uttarakhand) The applicant submitted that they are a partnership firm in the business of renting of DG Set to various customers in different Districts of Uttarakhand and they have entered into agreements with them to install diesel Generator on hire basis for rent with reimbursement of diesel cost. They are discharging the Tax @ 18 per cent (CGST @ 9 per cent + SGST @ 9 per cent) on DG Set hiring charges plus on reimbursement of diesel cost incurred for running DG Set.

It is further submitted that now one of the recipients of service is of the opinion that the taxes charged and collected by them on the component of the reimbursement of diesel charges for running the Diesel Generator is erroneous, as the said commodity i.e., the diesel does not come under the purview of GST. It was the opinion of said recipient that since diesel is a non-GST goods as per section 9 of CGST/SGST Act, 2007 it is not liable to GST and he has requested the applicant to reimburse the wrongly collected tax.

In view of the above, the applicant has raised above question before AAR about GST applicability on cost of the diesel reimbursed by recipient for running DG Set in the Course of Providing DG Rental Service.

The ld. AAR held that the issue is about valuation of the supply and hence made reference to section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017 and as reproduced the said section in AR. The ld. AAR observed that section 15 provides that the value of a supply of goods or services or both shall be the transaction value, which is the price actually paid or payable for the said supply of goods or services or both where the supplier and the recipient of the supply are not related and the price is the sole consideration for the supply.

The ld. AAR observed that section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017, mandates that the value of supply shall include among other things, any other amount that the supplier is liable to pay in relation to such supply but which has been incurred by the recipient of the supply and not included in the price actually paid or payable for the good or services or both. The Ld. AAR observed that the provisions of the section 15 are very clear and in unambiguous terms it has been mandated that any amount that the supplier is liable to pay in relation to such supply but which has been incurred by the recipient of the supply and not included in the price actually paid or payable for the goods or services or both, is part of value of supply.

The ld. AAR made reference to section 7 and section 2(31) defining ‘Consideration’. The ld. AAR observed that consideration includes any payment whether in money terms or otherwise. Ld.

AAR observed that the usage of the terms “or otherwise” and “or forbearance for the inducement of the supply of goods or services or both, whether by the recipient”, in definition leaves no doubt about the spirit and essence of the Act.

On facts, the ld. AAR found without the fuel, the Diesel Generator Set cannot be operated to generate/ produce “Electricity”, i.e., intended purpose of installing DG set on hire cannot be achieved. The ld. AAR observed that the rental service of Diesel Generator Set has the integral component of running the Diesel Generator and for this, “Diesel” is required. It further observed that the running condition of Diesel Generator (DG) Set cannot be achieved without the fuel i.e., the “Diesel”.

The ld. AAR observed that contract entered between the applicant and the recipient is for the hiring of DG Set and is a comprehensive contract with the consideration having fixed component and a variable component. The fixed component is the monthly fixed rent charged in the invoice for the DG Set and the variable charge (Running Charge) is the charge for the diesel used. Both are parts of the same consideration and are for the contract of supplying DG Set on hire.

It is observed that there is no separate contract for supply of diesel and single invoice is issued for the supply of rental service of DG Set although both the components are shown separately. The ld. AAR also observed that the reimbursement of expenses as cost of the diesel, for running of the DG Set is nothing but the additional consideration for the renting of DG Set and attracts GST @18 per cent.

The ld. AAR referred to Advance Ruling in case of Goodwill Autos (KAR ADRG 44/2021 – 2021-VIL-282-AAR dated 30th July, 2021) by Karnataka AAR in which also similar position is upheld.

In view of above, the ld. AAR ruled that GST @18 per cent is applicable on the cost of the diesel incurred for running DG Set in the Course of Providing DG Rental Service as per section 15 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 / Uttarakhand Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017.  

From Published Accounts

COMPILERS’ NOTE
Disclosures regarding ‘Related Parties’ (RP) and transactions between RP and whether the same are at “Arms’ Length” continue to draw regulatory attention especially when it involves listed entities. Statutory Auditors of such listed entities are under constant scrutiny of the investors and regulators about the verification process followed and whether the same are at ‘Arms’ Length’. This process becomes all the more critical when external agencies issue reports questioning such relationships and transactions between alleged RP.

In the following case, following external revelations, the statutory auditors, in their report on the quarterly and annual results had given a Qualified Opinion for transactions with certain parties for which sufficient and appropriate evidence was not available to the satisfaction of the auditors (Refer page 67 of the July 2023 issue of BCAJ). Extracts of the reports issued by the said statutory auditors u/s 143 of the Companies Act 2013 are given below.

After issuing a similar qualified report for the quarter ended 30th June, 2023, the said statutory auditors submitted their resignation on 12th August, 2023 with the following reason “As discussed, we are tendering our resignation as statutory auditors of the Company with immediate effect because we are not statutory auditors of a substantial number of Other Adani Group •of companies (as referred to under “Other Matters” in the audit and limited review reports dated 30th May, 2023 and 8th August, 2023, for the year ended 31st March, 2023 and quarter ended 30th June, 2023 respectively), including an Adani Group company (and its subsidiaries) after completion of our term of five years”.

ADANI PORTS AND SPECIAL ECONOMIC ZONE LIMITED

From Independent Auditor’s Report on audit of annual standalone financial statements for the year 31st March, 2023
Qualified Opinion
We have audited the accompanying standalone financial statements of Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (“the Company”), which comprise the Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2023, and the Statement of Profit and Loss (including Other Comprehensive Income), the Statement of Cash Flows and the Statement of Changes in Equity for the year then ended, and a summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory information.

In our opinion and to the best of our information and according to the explanations given to us, except for the possible effects of the matter described in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section below, the aforesaid standalone financial statements give the information required by the Companies Act, 2013 {“the Act”) in the manner so required and give a true and fair view in conformity with the Indian Accounting Standards prescribed under section 133 of the Act read with the Companies (Indian Accounting Standards). Rules, 2015, as amended, (“Ind AS”) and other accounting principles generally accepted in India, of the state of affairs of the Company as at 31st March, 2023, and its loss, total comprehensive loss, its cash flows and the changes in equity for the year ended on that date.

BASIS FOR QUALIFIED OPINION

Not reproduced – refer page 67 of BCAJ July 2023.

KEY AUDIT MATTERS
Key audit matters are those matters that, in our professional judgment, were of most significance in our audit of the standalone financial statements of the current period. These matters were addressed in the context of our audit of the standalone financial statements as a whole, and in forming our opinion thereon, and we do not provide a separate opinion on these matters. Additionally, the matter below in respect of the Short Seller Report has been reported in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section of our report. We have determined the matter as described below to be the key audit matter to be communicated in our report.

Sr. No

Key Audit
Matter Description

Auditors’
Response

1

Short Seller
Report (“the Report”)

(Refer to Basis
for Qualified Opinion section above)

 

In January 2023, there was a Report
containing allegations relating to the Adani group of companies. The Report
alleged that transactions with certain parties named in the Report were not
appropriately identified and reported as related parties, which were not in
compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

 

The Company had purchases, sale of
services and financing transactions (including equity) with/by certain
parties including those identified in the allegations made in the Report.

 

The allegations in the report are under
investigation by the Securities and Exchange Board of India in accordance
with the direction and monitoring of Hon’ble Supreme Court of India

 

Principal audit
procedures performed

 

     We
inquired with the Company on their approach to assess these allegations to
ascertain whether there is any effect on the standalone financial statements.

 

     We
requested the Company to initiate an independent external examination of
these allegations to determine whether these allegations may have any
possible effect on the standalone financial statements of the Company. The
Company represented to us that these allegations have no effect on the
standalone financial statements of the Company, based on the evaluation it
performed and because of the ongoing investigation by the Securities and
Exchange Board of India as directed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India,
did not consider it necessary to initiate an independent external
examination.

 

     We
evaluated the assessment performed by the Company, as described in Note 46 to
the standalone financial statements and have read the memorandum prepared by
an external law firm which the Company considered in its assessment, to
determine whether these allegations have any possible effect on the
standalone financial statements of the Company. The assessment by the Company
did not constitute sufficient appropriate audit evidence for the purposes of
our audit.

 

     In
the absence of an independent external examination by the Company and because
of insufficient appropriate audit evidence described immediately above, we
have performed alternative audit procedures in respect of these allegations
including consideration of information relating to the ownership and
association of the parties identified in the Report to the extent publicly
available.


     We
also evaluated the design of the internal controls in respect of allegations
made on the Company

FROM INFORMATION OTHER THAN THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND AUDITOR’S REPORT THEREON

If, based on the work we have performed, we conclude that there is a material misstatement of this other information, we are required to report that fact. As described in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section above, in the absence of an independent external examination by the Company and pending completion of investigation, including matters referred to in the Report of the Expert Committee constituted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India as described in Note 46 to the standalone financial statements, by the Securities and Exchange Board of India of these allegations and in respect of sale of assets, we are unable to comment whether transactions stated in Basis for Qualified Opinion section above, or any other transactions may result in possible adjustments and/or disclosures in the standalone financial statements in respect of related parties, and whether the Company should have complied with the relevant laws and regulations. Accordingly, we are unable to conclude whether or not the other information is materially misstated with respect to this matter.

OTHER MATTER
We are not statutory auditors of majority of the other Adani group companies and therefore the scope of our audit does not extend to any transactions or balances which may have occurred or been undertaken between these Adani group companies and any supplier, customer or any other party which has had a business relationship with the Company during the year.

Our opinion on the standalone financial statements and our report on the Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements below is not modified in respect of this matter.

From Report on the Internal Financial Controls with reference to standalone financial statements under Clause (i) of Sub-section 3 of Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013

Qualified Opinion
In our opinion, to the best of our information and according to the explanations given to us except for the possible effects of the material weakness described in Basis for Qualified Opinion section above on the achievement of the objectives of the control criteria, the Company has maintained, in all material respects, adequate internal financial controls with reference to standalone financial statements and such internal financial controls with reference to standalone financial statements were operating effectively as of 31st March, 2023, based on the internal control with reference to standalone financial statements established by the Company considering the essential components of internal controls as stated in the Guidance Note on Audit of Internal Financial Controls Over Financial Reporting issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

We have considered the material weakness identified and reported above in determining the nature, timing, and extent of audit tests applied in our audit of the standalone financial statements of the Company for the year ended 31st March, 2023, and we have issued a qualified opinion on the said standalone financial statements of the Company.

FROM CARO 2020 REPORT
Clause (iii)

Except for the possible effects of the matter relating to security deposits given to the Contractor described in our Basis for Qualified Opinion section in our audit report on the standalone financial statements, during the year, the Company has not given any advances in nature of loans but has made investments in, provided guarantee, granted unsecured loans to companies and provided security during the year, in respect of which: (not reproduced)

Clause (iv)
Except for the possible effects of the matters described in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section in our audit report on the standalone financial statements, in our opinion and according to the information and explanations given to us, and considering the legal opinion taken by the Company on applicability of section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013, in respect of certain loan transactions which are in the ordinary course of business, the Company has complied with the provisions of the Section 185 of the Companies Act, 2013 In respect of grant of loans and providing guarantees and securities, as applicable.

Further, based on the information and explanations given to us, the Company has complied with the provisions of Section 186 of the Companies Act, 2013 in respect of grant of loans, making investments and providing guarantees and securities, to the extent applicable.

Clause (xiii)
Except for the possible effects of the matters described in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section of our audit report on the standalone financial statements, in our opinion, the Company is in compliance with Sections 177 and 188 of the Companies Act, 2013, where applicable, for all transactions with the related parties and the details of related party transactions have been disclosed in the standalone financial statements as required by the applicable accounting standards.

FROM NOTES TO FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Note 47
Assets classified as held for sale

In line with guidance from the risk management committee, subsequent to the reporting date, the company divested its investment in container terminal under construction in Myanmar (held through an overseas subsidiary) to Solar Energy Limited, an unrelated party. Given the continued US Sanctions in Myanmar and urgency to divest the asset, the company re-evaluated the asset value on ‘as is where is’ basis through two independent valuers and the sale consideration was renegotiated between the parties. Company explored other potential buyers which did not fructify. Basis the sale agreement, the company has recorded an impairment of Rs. 1,558.16 crore factoring net realizable value less cost to complete and balance of Rs. 194.76 crore has been classified as held for sale.

Note 48
The company has been working with the contractor for its capital projects over a decade. The payment terms have been negotiated to secure contractor capacity, reduced cost / overruns and improved operational efficiency of the projects. The contractor has successfully delivered the projects without defaults and with highest operating credentials. The net balance outstanding on such contracts as on reporting date stood at Rs.2,457.05 crore, which includes purchase contracts worth Rs. 1,501.50 crore and security deposits of Rs. 713.63 crore carrying interest @8% p.a. and other receivable of Rs. 241.92 crore. The security deposits approximate to about 20% of the cost of projects under execution. Of the security deposits, deposits for which projects are in progress amount Rs. 460 crore and the balance are for projects under engineering and design stage. The security deposits are refundable either on completion or termination of the project against which the said security deposit was given and in every instance the deposits were returned when due along with interest. The company has also obtained an independent opinion from a reputed law firm that the contractor is an unrelated party.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

44. CIT vs. Prakash Chand Lunia
(2023) 454 ITR 61 (SC)

Business Loss — Loss of confiscation — Search was conducted by Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) officers at premises of Assessee — Recovered slabs of silver and two silver ingots were confiscated — The decision of the High Court holding that the loss on confiscation of silver by DRI official of Customs Department was business loss relying upon decision of Supreme Court in case Piara Singh is reversed as the assessee was carrying on an otherwise legitimate silver business and his business could not be said to be smuggling of the silver bars as was the case in the case of Piara Singh (supra) — Also, any loss incurred by way of an expenditure by an Assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law is not deductible in terms of Explanation 1 to Section 37 of the Act.

A search was conducted by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) officers at the premises situated at NOIDA taken on rent by the Assessee, Shri Prakash Chand Lunia. The DRI recovered 144 slabs of silver from the premises and two silver ingots from the business premises of the Assessee at Delhi. The Assessee was arrested under section 104 of the Customs Act for committing offence punishable under Section 135 of the Customs Act. The Collector, Customs held that the Assessee Shri Prakash Chand Lunia was the owner of silver/bullion and the transaction, thereof, was not recorded in the books of accounts. The Collector of Customs, New Delhi ordered confiscation of the said 146 slabs of silver weighing 4641.962 Kilograms, valued at Rs. 3.06 Crores. The Collector Customs further imposed a personal penalty of Rs. 25 Lakhs on Shri Prakash Chand Lunia under Section 112 of the Customs Act. The Collector held that the silver under reference was of smuggled nature.

During the course of the assessment proceedings for the A.Y. 1989–90, the AO observed that the Assessee was not able to explain the nature and source of acquisition of silver of which he was held to be the owner; therefore, the deeming provisions of Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (hereinafter, referred to as ‘the Act’) would be applicable. The investment in this regard was not found recorded in the books of accounts of the Assessee that were produced before the then AO. Accordingly, the AO passed an assessment Order and made an addition of Rs. 3,06,36,909 under section 69A of the Act.

In appeals preferred by the Assessee against the assessment order, the CIT(A) dismissed the appeal of the Assessee.

Feeling aggrieved, the Assessee preferred the appeal before the ITAT. The ITAT, Jaipur also upheld the order of the CIT(A) so far as Section 69A is concerned. However, the ITAT partly allowed the appeal of the Assessee. As regards some other minor additions, the ITAT set aside some minor other additions and remanded the matter to the AO for fresh examination.

The AO re-examined the issue and addition was made. The CIT(A) also upheld the order of the AO. The Assessee preferred the appeal against the fresh order passed by the CIT(A) before the ITAT. The ITAT, in the second round as well, upheld the order of the authorities below.

A reference was made by the ITAT to the High Court with the following questions of law:

(i)    “Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal after construing and interpreting the provisions contained in Section 69A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was right in law, in holding that the Assessee was the owner of the 144 silver bars found at premises No. A 11 & 12, Sector – VII, Noida and two silver bars found at premises of M/s Lunia & Co. Delhi and in sustaining addition of Rs. 3,06,36,909 being unexplained investment in the hands of the Assessee under Section 69A of the Act?

(ii)    If the answer to the above question is in affirmative then, whether, on the facts and in the circumstances of the case, the Tribunal was right in law in distinguishing the ratio laid down by their Lordships of the Supreme Court in the case of Piara Singh vs. CIT, 124 ITR 41 and thereby not allowing the loss on account of confiscation of silver bars?

While the reference was pending before the High Court, penalty proceedings were initiated against the Assessee. An order under Section 271(1)(c) of the Act came to be confirmed by both the CIT(A) and the ITAT. Accordingly, the Assessee filed an appeal under Section 260A of the Act against the Penalty order, before the High Court. The High Court while deciding both the cases together, qua the first question, decided in favour of the Revenue, and the same was to be added to his income as a natural consequence. However, with regard to the second question, the High Court held that loss of confiscation by the DRI official of Customs Department was business loss. While holding, the High Court relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT, Patiala vs. Piara Singh reported in 124 ITR 41.

An appeal was filed before the Supreme Court against the judgment and order passed by the High Court.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question which was posed for consideration before it was whether the High Court has erred in law in allowing the Respondent – Assessee the loss of confiscation of silver bars by DRI officials as a business loss, relying upon the decision of this Court in the case of CIT Patiala vs. Piara Singh, [(1980) 124 ITR 40 – SC].

On going through the judgment and order passed by the High Court, it appeared to the Supreme Court that the High Court had simply relied upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Piara Singh (supra). After going through the decision in the case of Piara Singh (supra), the Supreme Court was of the opinion that the High Court had materially erred in relying upon the decision in the case of Piara Singh (supra).

The Supreme Court noted that in the case of Piara Singh (supra), the Assessee was found to be in the business of smuggling of currency notes and to that it was found that confiscation of currency notes was a loss occasioned in pursuing his business, i.e., a loss which sprung directly from carrying on of his business and was incidental to it. Due to this, the Assessee in the said case was held to be entitled to deduction under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1922. In view of the above fact, the Supreme Court in the case of Piara Singh (supra) distinguished its decisions in the case of Haji Aziz & Abdul Shakoor Bros. [(1961) 41 ITR 350 –SC] and the decision in the case of Soni Hinduji Kushalji & Co. [(1973) 89 ITR 112 (AP)] and did not agree with the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of J S Parkar vs. V B Palekar, [(1974) 94 ITR 616 (Bom)]. The Supreme Court observed that in all the aforesaid three cases which were relied upon by the Revenue in the case of Piara Singh (supra), the assessees were found to be involved in legitimate businesses and not smuggling business. However, they were found to have smuggled goods contrary to law, which resulted in an infraction of law and resultant confiscation by customs authorities.

The Supreme Court noted that in the case of Haji Aziz (supra), the Assessee claimed deduction of fine paid by him for release of his dates confiscated by customs authorities, which was rejected on the ground that the amount paid by way of penalty for breach of law was not a normal business carried out by it. In the case of Soni Hinduji Kushalji (supra) and J S Parkar (supra), the customs authorities had confiscated gold from Assessees otherwise engaged in legitimate businesses. In the aforesaid two cases, the Assessee claimed the value of gold seized as a trading / business loss. It was held that the Assessees were not entitled to the deductions claimed as business loss.

In the case of Soni Hinduji (supra), the Andhra Pradesh High Court held that when a claim for deduction is made, the loss must be one that springs directly from or is incidental to the business which the Assessee carries on and not every sort or kind of loss which has absolutely no nexus or connection with his business. It was observed that confiscation of contraband gold was an action in rem and not a proceeding in personam. Thus, a proceeding in rem in the strict sense of the term is an action taken directly against the property (i.e., smuggled gold); and even if the offender is not known, the customs authorities have the power to confiscate the contraband gold.

In the case of J S Parkar (supra), the Assessee not only claimed the value of the gold confiscated as a trading loss, but also set off of the said loss against his assumed and assessed income from undisclosed sources. The value of gold was sought to be taxed under section 69/69A of the Act by the tax authorities. However, the Bombay High Court held the Assessee to be the owner of the smuggled confiscated gold and not entitled to claim value of such gold as a trading loss.

The Supreme Court noted that in the present case, the ownership of the confiscated silver bars of the Assessee was not disputed. Even on that, there were concurrent findings by all the authorities below and including the customs authorities. Therefore, the question that required consideration was as to whether the Assessee could claim the business loss of the value of the silver bar confiscated and whether the decision of this Court in the case of Piara Singh (supra) would be applicable?

To answer the aforesaid question, the Supreme Court noted that in the present case, the main business of the Assessee was dealing in silver. His business could not be said to be smuggling of the silver bars as was the case in the case of Piara Singh (supra). He was carrying on an otherwise legitimate silver business and in attempt to make larger profits, he indulged into smuggling of silver, which was an infraction of law. In that view of the matter, the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Piara Singh (supra), which had been relied upon by the High Court while passing the impugned judgment and order, would not be applicable to the facts of the case. On the other hand, the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Haji Aziz (1961) 41 ITR 350 (SC) and the decisions of the Andhra Pradesh High Court and the Bombay High Court, which were pressed into service by the Revenue in Piara Singh (supra), would be applicable with full force.

In view of the above, the impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court quashing and setting aside the order passed by the AO, CIT(A) and the ITAT, which rejected the claim of the Assessee to treat the silver bars confiscated by the customs authorities as business loss, and consequently allowing the same as business loss, were unsustainable and the same were quashed and set aside by the Supreme Court.

By a separate order, Justice Shri M M Sundresh, while concurring with the ultimate conclusion arrived at in overturning the decision of the High Court by Justice Shri M R Shah, gave his own reasoning on the aforesaid aspect. After considering the provisions of Section 37(1), including Explanation 1 thereto and that of Section 115BBE of the Act and after referring to the plethora of judgements on the subject, he concluded as follows:

I.    The word “any expenditure” mentioned in Section 37 of the Act takes in its sweep loss occasioned in the course of business, being incidental to it.

II.    As a consequence, any loss incurred by way of an expenditure by an Assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law is not deductible in terms of Explanation 1 to Section 37 of the Act.
III.    Such an expenditure / loss incurred for any purpose which is an offence shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business or profession or incidental to it, and hence, no deduction can be made.

IV.    A penalty or a confiscation is a proceeding in rem, and therefore, a loss in pursuance to the same is not available for deduction, regardless of the nature of business, as a penalty or confiscation cannot be said to be incidental to any business.

V.    The decisions of this Court in Piara Singh (supra) and Dr T A Quereshi [(2006) 287 ITR 547- SC] do not lay down correct law in light of the decision of this Court in Haji Aziz (supra) and the insertion of Explanation 1 to Section 37.

The appeal of the Revenue, therefore, deserves to be allowed, though conscious of the fact that Section 115BBE of the Act may not have an application to the case on hand being prospective in nature.

Note:
The detailed discussion by Justice Shri M M Sundresh on subject with reference to English and Indian cases makes it a good read.
 
45. D N Singh vs. CIT
(2023) 454 ITR 595 (SC)

Unexplained money, etc. — Section 69A — Assessee must be found to be the owner, and he must be the owner of any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable articles — Short delivery of bitumen by carrier — A carrier who clings on to possession not only without having a shadow of a right, but what is more, both contrary to the contract as also the law cannot be found to be the owner — No material to show that the goods short delivered were sold — Bitumen not a valuable article — Addition could not be made.

The Appellant–Assessee carried on business as carriage contractor for bitumen loaded from oil companies namely HPCL, IOCL and BPCL from Haldia. The goods were to be delivered to various divisions of the Road Construction Department of the Government of Bihar. According to the Appellant, it has been in the business for roughly three decades.

A scam was reported in the media. The scam consisted of transporters of bitumen, lifted from oil companies, misappropriating the bitumen and not delivering the quantity lifted to the various Divisions of the Road Construction Department of the Government of Bihar. The scam had its repercussion in the assessments under the Act.

By an Assessment Order dated 27th March, 1998 being passed for A.Y. 1995–96, the AO, taking note of the scam, issued ShowCause Notice dated 23rd January, 1998, alleging that the Appellant had lifted 14,507.81 metric tonnes of bitumen but delivered only 10,064.1 metric tonnes. This meant that the Appellant had not delivered 4,443 metric tonnes. The Appellant produced photocopies of challans to establish that the bitumen had been delivered. Summons was issued by the AO to the Executive Engineers and Junior Engineers. It is the case of the Appellant that all Junior Engineers, except Shri Madan Prasad and Ahia Ansari, accepted the factum of delivery of bitumen. The AO, in fact, noticed that only those Junior Engineers accepted receipt of bitumen, where the Engineer in-charge or the Executive Engineer accepted the delivery. Shri Madan Prasad denied that the signature alleged to be his, was not his signature. The AO found that the Junior Engineers denied putting stamp and took the position that if there was stamp, then, it must indicate the name of the section. The AO added a sum of Rs. 2,19,85,700 being the figure arrived at, by finding that 4,443 metric tonnes of bitumen had not been delivered. This was done by invoking Section 69A of the Act.

For the A.Y. 1996–97, the AO passed Order dated 31st March, 1999. The Appellant, in its Return, disclosed a net profit of Rs. 6,76,133. On scrutiny, the AO, again, noticing the scam and finding that while 10,300.77 metric tonnes had been lifted by the Appellant, only 8,206.25 metric tonnes had been delivered. Accordingly, it was found that 2,094.52 metric tonnes had not been delivered. On the said basis and again invoking Section 69A of the Act, a sum of Rs. 1,04,71,720.30 was added as income of the Appellant.

The Commissioner Appeals found that all Junior Engineers, except two, had accepted delivery. After finding that the addition made by the AO in respect of quantity, where Junior Engineers had accepted delivery, was untenable, the Appellate Authority ordered deletion of a sum of Rs. 2,01,14,659. This amount represented the value of 4,064.28 metric tonnes. In regard to the disputed quantity, viz., the dispute raised by Shri Madan Prasad and Ahia Ansari, Junior Engineers, the matter was remanded back for affording an opportunity for cross-examination. This Order related to the A.Y. 1995–96.

Also, for A.Y. 1996–97, the Appellate Authority found merit in the case of the Appellant that except two Junior Engineers, the others had accepted the delivery. The addition of Rs. 1,04,71,720 was ordered to be deleted.

The Revenue filed appeals before the Income-Tax Appellate Tribunal (hereinafter referred to as, ‘the ITAT’, for short) for both the Assessment Years, viz., 1995–96 and 1996–97.

In regard to the order passed by the Appellate Authority for the A.Y. 1995–96, another development took place during the pendency of the Appeal before the ITAT. By rectification Order dated 31st May, 2001, the CIT(A) set aside the addition of Rs. 2,01,14,659 with the direction to the AO that he shall issue summons to the concerned Jr. Engineers, who have received 4,064.28 metric tonnes of bitumen as per challans furnished by the Appellant, record their statement, allow the Appellant an opportunity to cross-examine them and, if necessary, refer their signatures to the handwriting experts to establish the genuineness or otherwise of such signatures. Only after carrying out these directions, any addition shall be made.

The Revenue had filed an Appeal before the ITAT for the A.Y. 1995–96. The Appellant had filed cross-objection in the said Appeal. The Appellant also filed appeal before the ITAT against the Order of Rectification passed under Section 154 of the Act. The ITAT dismissed the Appeals filed by the Revenue and the Appellant taking note of the Order of the CIT(A), passed under Section 154 of the Act, by which, the matter stood remitted back. The cross-objection came to be disposed of accordingly.

For the A.Y. 1996–97, the ITAT disposed of the Appeal filed by the Revenue and also the cross-objection filed. The Appeal filed by the Revenue was allowed. The Tribunal found that the Appellant had not disputed the lifting of the bitumen. The claim made by the Appellant that full supply was made, stood demolished, when photocopies of delivery challans were found to be false and fabricated. The Executive Engineers, it was further found, had confirmed non-delivery to the tune of 2,090.40 metric tonnes. The Commissioner Appeals, it was found, reached a wrong conclusion, as he did not address himself to the explanation offered by the Junior Engineers. It was found that all Executive Engineers of the Consignee Divisions presented a case of non-delivery before the AO. Thus, the ITAT allowed the Appeal filed by the Revenue and sustained the Order of the AO relating to addition on account of short supply of bitumen for the A.Y. 1996–97.

On an appeal to the High Court by the Appellant–Assessee for the A.Y. 1996–97, the Court, after referring to the submissions, focussed on the scope of Section 69A of the Act. The High Court found that the word “owner” has different meaning in different contexts, and when a transporter sells the goods and receives money for that not on behalf of the real owner, it became the owner for the purpose of tax. Having lifted bitumen and not supplied to the Road Construction Department to which it was to be supplied, the Appellant would be liable to pay tax on the bitumen lifted and not delivered. The High Court distinguished the judgment in Dhirajlal Haridas vs. CIT (Central), Bombay (1982) 138 ITR 570 by noting that for determining the person liable to pay tax, the test laid down by this Court was to find out the person entitled to that income. The Court also went on to distinguish the judgment in CIT vs. Amritlal Chunilal (1984) 40 CTR Bombay 387. It was found that in the said case, the Assessee, therein, was not found to be the owner whereas the ITAT found the Appellant to be the owner. The High Court agreed with the said finding. Thereafter, the High Court went on to deal with the argument that the words “other valuable articles” in Section 69A could not include “bitumen”. The argument of the Appellant which is noted is that for applying Section 69A bitumen should have some nexus with money, bullion or jewellery. It was found that any Article which has value would come under the expression “valuable article” under Article 69A and the value of such Article can be deemed to be the income of the Assessee, should the Assessee fail to offer any explanation or the explanation offered be unsatisfactory. The argument that Section 69A would not apply as the Appellant had offered an explanation was not accepted as it was found that an explanation though offered, being not accepted, would lead to the invocation of Section 69A if the explanation was not satisfactory. In other words, Section 69A applied. Lastly, in regard to the argument of the Appellant that the cost of the bitumen and not the value, thereof, was added as income, the High Court found that the Appellant did not have a case that it had sold the bitumen at the price lower than the cost. The Appellant was found to be the owner of the bitumen and the addition was sustained.

The Supreme Court noted that Section 69A may be broken down into the following essential parts:

a.    The Assessee must be found to be the owner;

b.    He must be the owner of any money, bullion, jewellery or other valuable articles;
c.    The said articles must not be recorded in the Books of Account, if any maintained;

d.    The Assessee is unable to offer an explanation regarding the nature and the source of acquiring the articles in question; or the explanation, which is offered, is found to be, in the opinion of the Officer, not satisfactory;

e.    If the aforesaid conditions are satisfied, then, the value of the bullion, jewellery or other valuable Article may be deemed as the income of the financial year in which the Assessee is found to be the owner;

f.    In the case of money, the money can be deemed to be the income of the financial year.

Applying the provision to the facts of the case, the Supreme Court noted that the points that arise were as follows:

I.    The question would arise, as to whether the Appellant could be treated as the owner of the bitumen;

II.    The further question would arise, as to whether bitumen could be treated as other valuable articles;

III.    Thirdly, the question arises, as to how the value of the bitumen is to be ascertained.

As regards the first question, viz., whether the Appellant could be treated as the owner of the bitumen is concerned, it was indisputable that the Appellant was engaged as a carrier to deliver the bitumen, after having lifted the same from the Oil Companies to the various Divisions of the Road Construction Department of the Government of Bihar.

Under Section 15 of the Carriage by Road Act, 2007, which repealed the Carriers Act, 1865, if the consignee fails to take delivery of any consignment of goods within 30 days, the consignment is to be treated as unclaimed. The period of 30 days is declared inapplicable to perishable consignments, in which case, a period of 24 hours’ notice or any lesser period, as may be agreed between the consignor and the common carrier, suffices. In the case of perishable consignment, following such notice, the consignment can be sold. In a case where the goods are not perishable, if there is failure by the consignee to remove the goods after the receipt of a notice of 15 days from the carrier, the common carrier is given a right to sell the consignment without further notice. Section 15(3) enables the carrier to retain a sum equal to the freights, storage and other charges, due, including expenses incurred for the sale. The surplus from the sale proceeds is to be returned to the consigner or the consignee. Section 15(4) clothes the carrier with a right to sell in the event of failure by the consignee to make payment of the freight and other charges, at the time of taking delivery. In such cases, if the other ingredients of Section 69A are satisfied, there may be no fallacy involved if an Assessee is found to be the owner of the goods which he disposes of under the authority of law.

The Supreme Court noted that in this case, it is not the case of either party that the Appellant had become the owner of the bitumen in question in a manner authorised by law. On the other hand, the specific case of the Appellant is that the Appellant never became the owner and it remained only a carrier. However, as noticed, if it is found that there has been short delivery, this would mean that the Appellant continued in possession contrary to the terms of contract of carriage.

The Supreme Court further observed that when goods are entrusted to a common carrier, the entrustment would amount to a contract of bailment within the meaning of Section 148 of the Contract Act, 1872 when it is for being carried by road, as in this case.

According to the Supreme Court, to apply Section 69A of the Act, it is indispensable that the Officer must find that the other valuable article, inter alia, is owned by the Assessee. A bailee, who is a common carrier, is not an owner of the goods. A bailee who is a common carrier would necessarily be entrusted with the possession of the goods. The purpose of the bailment is the delivery of the goods by the common carrier to the consignee or as per the directions of the consignor. During the subsistence of the contract of carriage of goods, the bailee would not become the owner of the goods. In the case of an entrustment to the carrier otherwise than under a contract of sale of goods also, the possession of the carrier would not convert it into the owner of the goods.

The Supreme Court further noted that Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 reads as follows:

“Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, or dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any other person so to do, commits ‘criminal breach of trust’.

Illustration (f) Under Section 405 is apposite, and it reads as follows:

Illustration f. A, a carrier, is entrusted by Z with property to be carried by land or by water. A dishonestly misappropriates the property. A has committed a criminal breach of trust.”

The Supreme Court noted the provisions of Sections 27 and 39 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, and observed that sale by a carrier does not pass title except when it is immunised by the conduct of the owner of the good, which would in turn estop the owner from impugning the title of the buyer.

The Supreme Court noted that in the commentary in the context of Section 69A on Sampath Iyengar’s, Law of Income Tax, it was observed it cannot be said in the case of stolen property that the thief is the owner thereof.

The Supreme Court observed that the question would arise pointedly, as to, when a common carrier refuses to deliver the consignment, and continues to possess it contrary to contract and law, and converts it into his use and presumably sells the same, as to whether he could be found to be the owner of the goods. Would he be any different from a person who commits theft and sells it claiming to be the owner. Can a thief become the owner? It would be straining the law beyond justification if the Court were to recognise a thief as the owner of the property within the meaning of Section 69A. Recognising a thief as the owner of the property would also mean that the owner of the property would cease to be recognised as the owner, which would indeed be the most startling result. While possession of a person may in appropriate cases, when there is no explanation forthcoming about the source and quality of his possession, justify an
AO finding him to be the owner, when the facts are known that the carrier is not the owner and somebody else is the owner, then to describe him as the owner may produce results which are most illegal apart from being unjust.

After considering the other relevant laws and various judgment of the Supreme Court dealing with the meaning of “owner” in the context of different provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and applying various test considered therein, the Supreme Court, in this context, summarised its findings as under: 

1.    Appellant as a carrier was entrusted with the goods.

2.    The possession of the Appellant began as a bailee.
 
3.    Proceeding further on the basis that instead of delivering the goods, the Appellant did not deliver the goods to the concerned divisions of the department in the State of Bihar.

4.    Ownership of the goods in question by no stretch of imagination stood vested at any point of time in the Appellant.

5.    Property would pass from the consignor to the consignee on the basis of the principles which are declared in the Sale of Goods Act. It is inconceivable that any of those provisions would countenance passing of property in the goods to the Appellant who was a mere carrier of the goods.

6.    Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code makes it an offence for a person entrusted with property, which includes goods entrusted to a carrier, being misappropriated or dishonestly being converted to the use of the carrier. A specific illustration under Section 405 makes it abundantly clear that any such act by a carrier attracts the offence under Section 405. The Supreme Court in other words would have to allow the commission of an offence by the Appellant in the process of finding that the Appellant is the owner of the goods. In other words, proceeding on the basis that there was short delivery of the goods by the Appellant, inevitably, the Supreme Court must find that the act was not a mere omission or a mistake but a deliberate act by a carrier involving it in the commission of an offence Under Section 405. In other words, the Court must necessarily find that the Appellant continued to possess the bitumen and misappropriated. It is in this state that the AO would have to find that the Appellant by the deliberate act of short delivering the goods and continuing with the possession of the goods not only contrary to the contract but also to the law of the land, both in the Carriers Act 1865 and breaking the penal law as well, the Appellant must be treated as the owner.

7.    Under Section 54 of Transfer of Property Act, a carrier who clings on to possession not only without having a shadow of a right, but what is more, both contrary to the contract as also the law cannot be found to be the owner.
 
8.    The possession of the carrier who deliberately refuses to act under the contract but contrary to it, is not only wrongful, but more importantly, makes it a case where the possession itself is without any right with the carrier to justify his possession.

9.    Recognising any right with the carrier in law would involve negation of the right of the actual owner, which if the property in the goods under the contract has passed on to the consignee is the consignee and if not the consignor.

The Supreme Court found that the Appellant was bereft of any of the rights or powers associated with ownership of property.

Approaching the issue from another angle, the Supreme Court observed that the rationale of the Revenue involves ownership of the bitumen being ascribed to the Appellant based on possession of the bitumen contrary to the contract of carriage and with the intention to misappropriate the same, which further involves the sale of the bitumen for which there is no material as such. But proceeding on the basis that such a sale also took place, even than what is important is, the requirement in Section 69A that the AO must find that the Assessee is the owner of the bitumen. According to the Supreme Court, in the facts, the Appellant could not be found to be the owner. The Appellant could not be said to be in possession in his own right, accepting the case of the Revenue that there was short delivery. The Appellant did not possess the power of alienation. The right over the bitumen as an owner at no point of time could have been claimed by the Appellant. The possession of the Appellant at best was a shade better than that of a thief as the possession had its origin under a contract of bailment. Hence, the Supreme Court held that the AO acted illegally in holding that one Appellant was the ‘owner’ and on the said basis made the addition.

The Supreme Court, thereafter, referred to the Principles of Ejusdem Generis and Noscitur a Sociis, which are Rules of construction and observed that when it comes to value, it is noticed that in the definition of the word “valuable” in Black’s Law Dictionary, it is defined as “worth a good price; having a financial or market value”. The word “valuable” has been defined again as an adjective and as meaning worth a great deal of money in the Concise Oxford Dictionary. Valuable, therefore, cannot be understood as anything which has any value. The intention of the law-giver in introducing Section 69A was to get at income which has not been reflected in the books of account but found to belong to the Assessee. Not only it must belong to the Assessee, but it must be other valuable articles. The Supreme Court considered few examples to illustrate the point. Let us take the case of an Assessee who is found to be the owner of 50 mobile phones, each having a market value of Rs. 2 Lakhs each. The value of such articles each having a price of Rs. 2 Lakhs would amount to a sum of Rs. 1 Crore. Let us take another example where the Assessee is found to be the owner of 25 highly expensive cameras. Could it be said that despite having a good price or worth a great deal of money, they would stand excluded from the purview of Section 69A. On the other hand, let us take an example where a person is found to be in possession of 500 tender coconuts. They would have a value and even be marketable but it may be wholly inapposite to describe the 500 tender coconuts as valuable articles. It goes both to the marketability, as also the fact that it may not be described as worth a ‘good’ price. Each case must be decided with reference to the facts to find out that while articles or movables worth a great deal of money or worth a good price are comprehended articles which may not command any such price must stand excluded from the ambit of the words “other valuable articles”. The concept of ‘other valuable articles’ may evolve with the arrival in the market of articles, which can be treated as other valuable articles on satisfying the other tests.

Bitumen is defined in the Concise Oxford English Dictionary as “a black viscous mixture of hydrocarbons obtained naturally or as a residue from petroleum distillation, used for road surfacing and roofing”. Bitumen appears to be a residual product in the petroleum refineries, and it is usually used in road construction, which is also probabalised by the fact that the Appellant was to deliver the bitumen to the Road Construction Department of the State. Bitumen is sold in bulk ordinarily. The Supreme Court noted that in the Assessment Order, the Officer has proceeded to take R4,999.58 per metric ton as taken in the AG Report on bitumen scam. Thus, it is that the cost of bitumen for 2,094.52 metric ton has been arrived at as Rs. 1,04,71,720.30. This would mean that for a kilogram of bitumen, the price would be only Rs 5 in 1995–96 (F.Y.).

Bitumen may be found in small quantities or large quantities. If the ‘article’ is to be found ‘valuable’, then in small quantity, it must not just have some value but it must be ‘worth a good price’ {See Black’s Law Dictionary (supra)} or ‘worth a great deal of money’ {See Concise Oxford Dictionary (supra)} and not that it has ‘value’. Section 69A would then stand attracted. But if to treat it as ‘valuable article’, it requires ownership in large quantity, in the sense that by multiplying the value in large quantity, a ‘good price’ or ‘great deal of money’ is arrived at then it would not be valuable article. Thus, the Supreme Court concluded that ‘bitumen’ as such could not be treated as a ‘valuable article’.

In view of these findings, the Supreme Court did not deal with other points. The appeals were allowed. The impugned judgment was stand set aside and though on different grounds, the order by the Commissioner Appeals deleting the addition made on the aforesaid basis was restored.

Shri Hrishikesh Roy, J. agreed with judgement of Shri K M Joseph J. that for the purposes of Section 69A, –the deeming effect of the provision will only apply if the Assessee is the owner of the impugned goods. Secondly, for any Article to be considered as ‘valuable article’ Under Section 69A, it must be intrinsically costly, and it will not be regarded as valuable if huge mass of a non-precious and common place Article is taken into account, for imputing high value and added his reasoning to justify his opinion.

Section 69A provides as a Rule of evidence that for the deeming effect to apply, the Assessee must be the owner of money, bullion, jewellery and other valuable articles on which he is unable to offer a satisfactory explanation. Someone having mere possession and without legal ownership or title over the goods will not be covered within the ambit of Section 69A. In the present case, the Assessee was certainly not the owner of the bitumen — but was the carrier who was supplying goods from the consignor – oil marketing companies to the consignee – Road Construction Department. Notably, due to short delivery of goods, the possession of the Assessee was unlawful. The inevitable conclusion, therefore, is that the Assessee is not the owner, for the purposes of Section 69A.

For purpose of Section 69A of Income-tax Act, 1961, an ‘article’ shall be considered ‘valuable’ if the concerned Article is a high-priced Article commanding a premium price. As a corollary, an ordinary ‘article’ cannot be bracketed in the same category as the other high-priced articles like bullion, gold, jewellery mentioned in Section 69A by attributing high value to the run-of-the-mill article, only on the strength of its bulk quantity. To put it in another way, it is not the ownership of huge volume of some low cost ordinary Article but precious gold and the likes that would attract the implication of deemed income under Section 69A.

Devo na jaanaati kuto manushyah !

 
(Even God would not know; then where is the question of man knowing it?)

This is a very interesting line from a Sanskrit verse. There are two versions of this shloka.

The other version is:

Raja Bhoj was a celebrity king in Indian history. His kingdom was Ujjain in the present Madhya Pradesh. The Bhopal airport is named after him. He was strong and kept the subjects secure and happy. He encouraged art and culture. Mahakavi Kalidasa, the well-known Sanskrit poet, was a respectable member of his Court. King Bhoj, who was himself intelligent and witty, encouraged virtuous people like Kalidasa. Kalidasa was his favourite and received a lot of appreciation and rewards from the king.

Other prominent people in the Court were jealous of Kalidasa. Once, they ‘bribed’ a female servant with ornaments. As instructed by them, she started saying that when Raja Bhoj was half-asleep, Kalidasa used to stay in the guise of a female servant (Dassi) with Queen Lilavati. On hearing this, Raja Bhoj started suspecting both — Kalidasa and the Queen, and he expressed his reaction in this verse.

This shloka is included in Subhashita Ratna Bhandar — Samanya Niti (General Ethics) and Bhojaprabandha.

The meanings of two shlokas are:

Shloka 1 — One can never know or predict, when a horse will jump, when there will be thunder, a woman’s mind, and a man’s fate. So, also, one cannot predict a drought or excessive rains. Even God cannot do this!

Shloka 2 — One can never know or predict what is transpiring in a king’s (ruler’s) mind, or how much wealth is there with a miserly person, or what is in the mind of a wicked person! So also, one cannot predict a woman’s character or a man’s fate. Even God is not able to know it.

Quite often, truth is more surprising than imagination. On experiencing such things, man understands the limitations of his knowledge. We always say, “God alone knows”. These verses go a step further — i.e., Even God would not know!

In those days, one important criterion of a woman’s greatness was the purity of her character. On the other hand, a man was evaluated on the basis of the deeds he performed. The society treated a woman as a Goddess and did not expect any ‘performance’ of any great deeds from her. Instead, she was expected to be ‘pure’ and ‘holy’. This does not mean that a man’s character was not considered at all or that he was holding a ‘licence’ to do ‘anything’. It only means that, as against his work, his character was of secondary importance. Even today, this mindset prevails in the society. Sometimes, destiny makes a pauper person very rich; or vice versa. So also, an unpleasant aspect of a woman’s character is revealed as a surprise!

We believe that everything happens by God’s wish only. However, there are many things in the world which are absolutely unpredictable or beyond our imagination. They are sometimes so shocking that we wonder whether even God could have predicted it.

This experience is expressed in the line

Interesting Websites And Apps

In this issue, we examine a few old tools and a few modern websites which help us improve our performance at the workplace. Enjoy!

PDF24 TOOLS

PDF is now a very common file format in use across the world, especially when you have to share files over multiple platforms. So many elegant tools exist to help you manage PDF files, some of which are paid and some are free. PDF24 makes PDF Tools as simple and as fast as possible. All tools can be used intuitively, which makes them save time and money. And, honestly, there is hardly anything in the PDF arena that you cannot do with PDF24.

You can create, edit, annotate, split and merge PDF files. You can add or remove pages to PDF, sort pages, run Optical Character Recognition (OCR) add watermarks and much more.

You can choose to work online (all file transfers to and fro are encrypted and fully safe) or you can decide to download the app onto your computer and run it offline — the files never leave your computer. You can use PDF24 on Windows, Mac, Linux and even a smartphone.

The best part is that PDF24 is free. There are no limits on file size or the number of files you wish to work on.

So go ahead and select the tool of your choice, and enjoy using PDFs the way you really wanted to!

https://tools.pdf24.org/

JITTER.VIDEO

If you work with videos and / or animations, this is THE tool for you — Jitter.video. Their motto is just to make Motion Design simple. Jitter enables creators and teams to easily design stunning animated content and interfaces, so that they can focus on their content and not on the animation process. You can animate your content in seconds — get started easily, iterate fast and produce better content. All this with full creative controls to customise anything, as you wish. You can even collaborate with your team to explore your ideas together and get your work approved faster. And, all this, from the comfort of your browser.

Of course, you don’t ever have to start from scratch — you have thousands of ready templates to start with, giving you full control with animation presets. And once you are done, you can export 4K video, GIF and Lottie — giving a professional touch to your creations.

You can explore Jitter for free, and if you like it, subscribe to the service for a nominal monthly price.

https://jitter.video/

GOOGLE BARD

Google Bard is Google’s answer to Microsoft’s ChatGPT and is available at https://bard.google.com/. Just go to this website and ask anything you want. The difference between Bard and ChatGPT is that Bard has current access to the internet unlike ChatGPT which is relatively dated. So, if you ask Bard which is the best Hybrid Car in India today — you will get the current information, whereas ChatGPT will be dated up to September 2021 in most cases.

Besides, if you ask Bard to recommend, for example, the best Chinese restaurants nearby, Google Bard will excel with relevant and current recommendations.

Also, most of the text editing and transformation features are all available at Google Bard for free.

Try it out, and enjoy the benefits of AI for free!

https://bard.google.com/

TOME.APP

This is one of the cutting-edge modern AI apps. It can help with quick and easy transformation of the work you’ve already done. Paste in a document, and see it gain depth and clarity. Tome automatically builds a narrative from your text and generates matching images to illuminate your point. You can generate an image, create a write-up or even create a presentation by giving a few cues. If you have a structured document and want to generate a presentation from that document, Tome can help you do just that.

Designing is a breeze in Tome. You can create smart themes and responsive layouts that just work! You can draw viewers in and encourage participation by embedding interactive product mocks, 3D prototypes, data, web pages, and more. And, of course, the result is meant to be viewed on any screen — large or mobile, without any adjustments from your side.

Try it for free today, and discover the marvels of AI presentations.

https://tome.app

Ethics and U

Arjun: Bhagwan, I am really tired of your ‘Ethics’.

Shrikrishna: Not my Ethics. Those are your Institute’s Ethics!

Arjun: Agreed. But I feel I committed a great blunder that I became a CA! And a still greater blunder is that I entered this terrible practice!! My friends in corporate jobs are earning much better and enjoying life.

Shrikrishna: Paarth, the grass is always greener on the…

Arjun: I am aware of that. I know, in corporate jobs also, there is a slogging, many compromises and stresses. But then, there is assured good earning!

Shrikrishna: But in practice, you are your own master. Aren’t you? And one more thing: Your friends in corporate jobs are also bound by the Code of Ethics. So, don’t envy them. You both are sailing in the same boat.

Arjun: It’s a myth. Everyone we encounter is our Boss, be it a client, our employee or article. And those revenue authorities! They are the Super Bosses.

Shrikrishna: Why are you so upset today? You have to accept the reality of life.

Arjun: Are you aware the number of new students registering for the CA course has gone down drastically? Of those who pass CA, hardly anyone ventures to enter the practice unless one has a Godfather. The next generation, even of well-established CA’s, is not keen on coming into practice.

Shrikrishna: Is it so?

Arjun: Oh, Omniscient Lord, why are you pretending to be ignorant about this situation?

Shrikrishna: Tell me, what is the main reason for your grievance today?

Arjun: See, I wrote an article in a magazine about M and A.

Shrikrishna: You mean Mergers and Amalgamations? Right? Very Good.

Arjun: But I could not write about my expertise, experience, names of clients, services rendered by my firm, and so on.

Shrikrishna: Why?

Arjun: Someone said item (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to CA Act does not permit it! See, everywhere there is a restriction on us. Our wings are chopped off, and they expect us to fly!

Shrikrishna: Yes, you cannot advertise your attainments and services.

Arjun: Even the size of our name board is subject to restrictions.

Shrikrishna: Tell me, Arjun, how many clients go to CA by looking at the name board?

Arjun: I agree. They come only with a personal reference on hearing our reputation.

Shrikrishna: And how do you build your reputation?

Arjun: By rendering good services. Our satisfied client is our advertisement.

Shrikrishna: Then why are you agitated that you could not make a detailed write-up on yourself alongside your article?

Arjun: Because the other article in the same magazine was written by a lawyer, and he wrote a long introduction of himself! There is no level playing field.

Shrikrishna: Why don’t you think this way that, ultimately, a client will come to you by comparing the merits of your article and not by reading your CV besides the article? Remember, you may mention about yourself but not about the firm and its services, especially in a manner that would amount to an advertisement.

Arjun: I strongly feel there should be some relaxation on this.

Shrikrishna: Tell me, if advertisement is permitted, can you compete with big firms in the publicity budget?

Arjun: That’s the point.

Shrikrishna: Still, your Institute may be considering some relaxation in keeping with the changing times.

Arjun: Abroad, it is allowed, but not in India. That’s pinching us.

Shrikrishna: Well, you cannot change the situation.

Arjun: Why?

Shrikrishna: Because you are not united. No one cares for your grievances. Your voice is not audible. Moreover, you have never shown effective performance.

Arjun: What do you mean?

Shrikrishna: See, there have been so many financial scandals; but hardly anyone was exposed by your audit. Government feels that your survival depends on the laws and regulations made by the Government. So, you are nothing but government servants.

Arjun: But then our clients pay us, not the government. Don’t you think we have a duty towards our clients as well?

Shrikrishna: Certainly, But your duty towards your nation and various stakeholders is paramount. In fact, even your client is duty-bound to protect the interests of the nation and all stakeholders, and you should help them in doing so.

Arjun: I agree that we may invite trouble for ourselves if we are not careful. What is the solution?

Shrikrishna: Show ‘Chamatkaar’(miracle) and command Namaskaar (respect). Be united, be bold, be assertive. Your ethics are your shield.

Arjun: Yes, Lord, we will change our approach. Please bless us.

Shri Krishna: Tathaastu!

(This dialogue is based on the general approach towards Professional Ethics in the context of Advertisement.)

SEBI’s Consultation Papers On Suspicious Trading

BACKGROUND
To make it easier to catch persons engaged in wrongdoings in securities markets such as front running, insider trading, etc., SEBI has circulated a consultation paper on 18th May, 2023. The paper proposes a special set of regulations (a draft of which is also provided) that would, under certain circumstances, presume a person or group of persons guilty of certain wrongdoing. This would be a rebuttable presumption, and the proposed law also gives a set of defenses that the accused can demonstrate. The proposed law is perhaps an expression of frustration by SEBI that persons have been able to use the latest technology and the unorganised sector to carry out wrongs but without leaving any trace or track whereby SEBI could prove the wrongdoing.

The net cast is wide, and persons engaged in regular trading in securities could face proceedings under this law if their trading has features listed in the proposed regulations, if they become law.

THE TRADITIONAL WAY OF CATCHING WRONGDOERS
Essentially, the proposed law says that transactions with a particular pattern shall be deemed to be suspicious, and if they remain unexplained, they will be deemed to be in violation of law and will attract various penal consequences.

The paper expresses concern at the growing use of digital tools and certain other practices and that many transactions which clearly seem to be that of front running, insider trading, etc., go unpunished. SEBI highlights the use of messaging apps that have in-built encryption for messages and calls. Further, some have the feature of disappearing messages, whereby the messages do not remain on record, whether on the mobile or on the cloud. The calls made using such apps too do not have any record of who called whom, when, how long the conversation lasted, etc.

It has been seen in numerous earlier SEBI investigations, which resulted in successful prosecution of the wrongdoers, that SEBI could collect call data records between the mobiles of the parties. Thus, evidence of contact and communication between them, particularly at a time when sensitive information was available, could be easily established. However, such tools ensure that there is no track or trail which SEBI could lay hands on.

Typically, in cases of front running, insider trading, etc., the violation is rarely done singularly. It is usually done in concert between at least two persons, but often in a group. Thus, in the case of insider trading, the insider, i.e., a person who has access to inside information in a company due to being in a position of trust, such as a director, CFO, auditor, etc., communicates unpublished price-sensitive information (UPSI) to another person. The other person, either singularly or with friends / relatives / associates, engages in trading in securities and makes profits (or avoids losses) in violation of the law. In case of front running, the person having knowledge of large orders, say a Chief Dealer of a mutual fund, communicates such information to his friend, relative, etc. Such person then carries out planned trading before and after such large orders and makes risk free and easy profits.

Then comes the matter of sharing of ill-gotten gains. The parties may have financial transactions between them in various forms, though often weakly disguised as of being of some other nature. Such transactions help SEBI further to establish a connection between the parties. Also, they may show how the profits have been shared.

In each of such cases, SEBI meticulously collects information about the communication between them. The relations / connections between the parties are also compiled. This may include being relatives, being a common director in some companies, etc. Even relations on social media have been used to help create the base for there being a connection.

The background of connected persons, also being in communication with each other, existence of price-sensitive information, and finally trading while such sensitive information is not public, helps SEBI create a sufficient case that would stand up in law. Rulings of the Supreme Court that require a lower benchmark of proof in case of civil proceedings have helped SEBI further in this regard.

Only when the parties are able to show that one or more of such grounds are not correct, then the case could fail.

RECENT DIFFICULTIES IN PROVING GUILT
However, recent times have shown that SEBI, on its own admission, is finding itself much behind the wrongdoers. Perhaps learning from SEBI’s past methods of investigations, the wrongdoers have used techniques that make it very difficult for SEBI to gather evidence and establish guilt. The messaging applications, as discussed earlier, have been used to create trail-free communication by way of calls and messages. Financial transactions are carried out in cash and even offshore through hawala, as SEBI pointed out, actually happened in a recent case. Persons who are unconnected on record and are just name-lenders (also called “mules”) are taken help of. Even apps such as AnyDesk, which helps one person control another person’s computer through the internet, have also been alleged to have been used.

The result is that there is ample evidence of wrongdoing and handsome profits of crores of rupees. There is evidence that certain price-sensitive information existed which was not public. There is evidence that trading was done during such time which stands out from other trading of those very parties. Further, abnormal profits are made through such transactions in such securities, which again stand out from other trading which carry normal risk. What is absent is communication between the party having the information and the party carrying out trading. What is also absent is the financial connection and transactions between these parties which show sharing of such profits. Both of these are done, as explained earlier, through digital and other means beyond the reach of SEBI.

SEBI has given several examples of such cases which have occurred and though names and dates are not given (or changed), anyone following media reports can easily identify the cases. This is particularly because the amounts involved are so large that most have received extensive media coverage.

SEBI noted that in numerous such cases, parties carried out transactions that were too coincidental to be accidental. SEBI pointed out that parties bought securities just before some good news was released (or sold before bad news). Transactions with the clear fingerprints of front running were carried out before and after large, market moving orders. SEBI frankly admitted that though it dug for connections between the parties, it failed to find any. Considering the recent experience of finding the use of such easily available apps that facilitate untraceable and untrackable communication, SEBI judged that these cases may also have seen similar modus operandi. Worse, even in the cases where it could have or did take action, the evidence could not hold up again due to lack of clearly incriminating evidence and also vagaries of law. While the test of ‘preponderance of probability’ does help SEBI, the differing test methods by different appellate rulings meant that many further cases went out of regulatory reach.

This has culminated in SEBI deciding to give the law a wholly different approach. That is provide for a presumption of guilt when basic facts are evident and in such cases, shift the onus on the party to prove their innocence.

THE NEW APPROACH OF PRESUMED GUILTY, WHICH ASSUMPTION IS REBUTTABLE BUT WITH ONUS ON PARTY ACCUSED
SEBI has proposed a new regulation — the SEBI (Prohibition of Unexplained Suspicious Trading Activities in the Securities Markets) Regulations, 2023. The draft regulations have been attached to the consultation paper. Let us analyse its components.

Regulation 3(1) of the proposed regulations prohibits the carrying on of any Unexplained Suspicious Trading Activity (USTA). So there has to be a trading activity that should be suspicious and which the accused has been unable to ‘explain’. Regulation 2(1)(k) defines USTA in a wide manner. It includes suspicious trading activity in securities executed in such a manner for which there is no reasonable explanation.

The definition of the term “trading” would be the same as under the regulations relating to insider trading. Thus, buying, selling, subscribing, etc., are all covered. Further, the term securities, being widely defined, includes shares, futures, options, etc.

The term “suspicious trading activity” has been defined with yet more component terms — Unusual Trading Pattern and Material Non-Public Information. Unusual Trading Pattern will be such trading which parts from the normal trading activity undertaken by a person or persons in the sense that it involves a substantial change in risks over a short period of time. Furthermore, it should result in abnormal profits or averted abnormal losses. The term “Material Non-Public Information (MNPI)” reminds one of the term “Unpublished Price Sensitive Information” used in the regulations relating to insider trading. However, MNPI has been defined differently, even if the essence intended may be similar. It can be information about a company / security which is not generally available but when so made available had a ‘reasonable’ impact on the price of the concerned security. It may also be an impending order on an exchange which when executed, also ‘reasonably’ impacted the price of the concerned security. Finally, it also covers recommendations by ‘influencers’. If the advice / recommendation of the influencer — for securities and related markets, they are also called fin-influencers — reasonably impacts the price of a security, that information too is MNPI.

The term “influencer” in turn is defined as a person who is reasonably in a position to influence the investment decision in securities of a reasonably large number of persons.

The term “reasonably” has been used repeatedly but not yet defined. An explanation says that the meaning shall be such as notified from time to time.

Piecing all the components together, the term “USTA” can be understood. Essentially, it is that trading that stands out from normal trading and is in the presence of MNPI and results in abnormal results (profits made / losses avoided).

Critical then is the term “unexplained”. While this term is not defined, the meaning can be gathered from two places. The first is in the definition of USTA, where it has been stated that the trading should have been executed in circumstances ‘for which no reasonable rebuttal or explanation is provided’. Regulation 5(2) thereafter guides as to how such reasonable rebuttal can be provided. Effectively, it is showing that the components of suspicious trading activity such as MNPI, or trading beyond the normal pattern or being non-repetitive, etc., can be countered as untrue by facts. The accused has to provide documentary evidence in rebuttal.

If the accused is not able to give a reasonable rebuttal, he would be held guilty. Action can then be taken by SEBI as provided under law.

CRITIQUE
SEBI has given several examples and even demonstrated by some actual cases for which even orders are passed that parties have engaged in trading resulting in abnormal profits which could not be explained otherwise than by the conclusion of wrongdoing. Since the digital world and unorganised sector have helped suppression / elimination of evidence, SEBI is unable to take action. Hence, the proposal of regulations that shift the onus to the accused.

However, it is seen that several terms are used that are wide, vague and subjective. The rebuttal of the presumption of guilt is, in comparison, possible in a narrow way and also has to be supported by documentation.

Trading in securities markets in large quantities is normal in these times of easy availability of trading apps and tools, and the cost of trading has also become significantly low or even near-free. Tools to help analyse markets, including technical analysis, and help analyse several parameters updated constantly are also readily available at low cost. It is possible that for various reasons, persons may end up engaging in trading that viewed with hindsight rationale, along with trades of other persons, may be perceived to be suspicious enough to fit the definition under the regulations. Recently, it was even seen that a Bollywood celebrity was alleged to have engaged in activity that might fit the definition of these regulations. In that case, discussed earlier in this column, SEBI passed an adverse order, which was substantially reversed in appeal. However, one wonders whether the case if proceeded against under the proposed regulations would have been more difficult to rebut. Traders in securities markets, who also perform the valuable function of providing market liquidity, may end up constantly looking behind their shoulders and worrying whether their trading could in hindsight be deemed to be suspicious.

It will have to be seen whether more safeguards are provided in the final regulations giving reasonable protection to bonafide traders, and in such cases, the onus to establish guilt remains on SEBI.

Guarantors, Beware!

INTRODUCTION
It is quite common for banks and lenders to insist upon the personal guarantees of the managing directors/promoters/partners, in case of loans extended by them to business entities. In addition, one generally also comes across requests from family members and friends to stand as a guarantor for business loans taken by them. Most people would sign on the dotted line. However, pause for a moment and consider the legal consequences of such a personal guarantee. In light of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (“the Code”), the position has become quite different than what it was earlier. Also, some Supreme Court decisions in this respect have made the situation even more peculiar.

INDIAN CONTRACT ACT
The Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with contracts of guarantee and lays the framework for all guarantees. A “contract of guarantee” is defined as a contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default. The person who gives the guarantee is called the “surety”; the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is called the “principal debtor”, and the person to whom the guarantee is given is called the “creditor”. A guarantee may be either oral or written. The liability of the surety is co- extensive with that of the principal debtor, unless it is otherwise provided by the contract. The Contract Act gives an illustration in this respect ~

“A guarantees to B the payment of a bill of exchange by C, the acceptor. The bill is dishonoured by C. A is liable, not only for the amount of the bill, but also for any interest and charges which may have become due on it.”

Any variance, made without the surety’s consent, in the terms of the contract between the principal debtor and the creditor, discharges the surety as to transactions subsequent to the variance. The surety is also discharged by any contract between the creditor and the principal debtor, by which the principal debtor is released, or by any act or omission of the creditor, the legal consequence of which is the discharge of the principal debtor.

The Contract Act also provides that where a guaranteed debt has become due, or default of the principal debtor to perform a guaranteed duty has taken place, the surety upon payment or performance of all that he is liable for, is invested with all the rights which the creditor had against the principal debtor. A surety is also entitled to the benefit of every security which the creditor has against the principal debtor at the time when the contract of suretyship is entered into, whether the surety knows of the existence of such security or not; and if the creditor loses, or, without the consent of the surety, parts with such security, the surety is discharged to the extent of the value of the security.

The Supreme Court in a judgment under the Code has examined the Indian Contract Act. In the case of Maitreya Doshi vs. Anand Rathi Global Finance Ltd, [2022] 142 taxmann.com 484 (SC), it held that a contract of indemnity was a contract by which, one party promised to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person. In a contract of indemnity, a promisee acting within the scope of his authority was entitled to recover from the promisor all damages and all costs which he may incur. A contract of guarantee, on the other hand, was a promise whereby the promisor promised to discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default. Anything done or any promise made for the benefit of the principal debtor may be a sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee.

IBC
As readers would recall, the Code is a one-stop shop for all matters relating to an insolvency of a corporate debtor. The trigger point of any action for corporate insolvency is the default by a corporate debtor in paying its debt, whether operational or financial. The expression ‘default’ is expounded in section 3(12) of the Code to mean non-payment of debt which had become due and payable and is not paid by the debtor or the corporate debtor, as the case may be. This leads to an insolvency resolution process of the corporate debtor before the NCLT. A corporate debtor is a company or an LLP. A relevant definition under section 2 of the Code in the context of this discussion is the term ‘personal guarantor’. A personal guarantor is defined to mean an individual who is the surety in a contract of guarantee to a corporate debtor.

AMENDMENT IN 2018
The Code presently, only concerns itself with the insolvency resolution process of corporate persons. The provisions relating to the insolvency provisions of non-corporates have not yet been notified by the Central Government. Section 2 as originally enacted, did not contain a separate category of personal guarantors to corporate debtors. Instead, personal guarantors were a part of a category or group of individuals, to whom the Code applied (i.e. individuals, proprietorship and partnership firms). The Code envisioned that the insolvency process outlined in provisions of Part III was to apply to them. However, vide an Amendment in 2018, personal guarantors were added as a separate class to whom the Code applied. The rationale for the same was explained as follows:

“In the first phase, the provisions would be extended to personal guarantors of corporate debtors to further strengthen the corporate insolvency resolution process….”

Further, by the Amendment to the Code in 2018 and a Notification dated 15th November, 2019, the provisions pertaining to insolvency of personal guarantors to corporate debtors were notified and all such provisions were to be considered by the NCLT.  Thus, all matters that were likely to impact, or have a bearing on a corporate debtor’s insolvency process, were sought to be clubbed together and brought before the same forum.

SUPREME COURT’S APPROVAL
The rationale behind this Amendment was explained by the Supreme Court in its landmark decision of Lalit Kumar Jain vs. UOI, (2021) 127 taxmann.com, 368 (SC). It held that it was clear that the Parliamentary intent was to treat personal guarantors differently from other categories of individuals. The intimate connection between such individuals and corporate entities to whom they stood guarantee, as well as the possibility of separate processes being carried on in different forums, with its attendant uncertain outcomes, led to carving out personal guarantors as a separate species of individuals, for whom the NCLT was common with the corporate debtor to whom they had stood guarantee. The NCLT would be able to consider the whole picture, as it were, about the nature of the assets available, either during the corporate debtor’s insolvency process, or even later; this would facilitate framing of realistic insolvency resolution plans, keeping in mind the prospect of realising some part of the creditors’ dues from personal guarantors.

The Court concluded that when the Code alluded to insolvency resolution or bankruptcy, or liquidation of three categories, i.e. corporate debtors, corporate guarantors (to corporate debtors) and personal guarantors (to corporate debtors), it also covered the insolvency resolution, or liquidation processes applicable to corporate debtors and their corporate guarantors, whereas insolvency resolution and bankruptcy processes applied to personal guarantors (to corporate debtors).

CORPORATE DEBTOR OR NOT, CORPORATE GUARANTORS COVERED
An interesting reverse situation arose in the case of Laxmi Pat Surana vs. Union Bank of India, [2021] 125 taxmann.com 394 (SC), wherein the principal debtor was a sole proprietary firm. However, the debt was guaranteed by a company. The issue before the Supreme Court was whether since the guarantor was a corporate, could insolvency proceedings be brought against it even though the debtor was not a corporate debtor.

The Court held that a right or cause of action would be available to the lender (financial creditor) to proceed against the principal borrower, as well as the guarantor in equal measure in case they commit default in repayment of the amount of debt acting jointly and severally. It would still be a case of default committed by the guarantor itself, if and when the principal borrower failed to discharge his obligation in respect of amount of debt. For, the obligation of the guarantor was coextensive and coterminous with that of the principal borrower to defray the debt, as predicated in section 128 of the Contract Act. As a consequence of such default, the status of the guarantor metamorphoses into a debtor or a corporate debtor if it happened to be a corporate person. Thus, action under the Code could be legitimately invoked even against a (corporate) guarantor being a corporate debtor. The definition of ‘corporate guarantor’ in the Code needed to be understood accordingly.

The expression “default” had also been defined in section 3(12) of the Code to mean non-payment of debt when the whole or any part or instalment of the amount of debt had become due or payable, and was not paid by the debtor or the corporate debtor, as the case may be. The principal borrower may or may not be a corporate person, but if a corporate person extended guarantee for the loan transaction concerning a principal borrower not being a corporate person, it would still be covered within the meaning of expression ‘corporate debtor. The Apex Court negated the argument that as the principal borrower was not a corporate person, the financial creditor could not have invoked remedy against the corporate person who had merely offered guarantee for such loan account. That action can still proceed against the guarantor being a corporate debtor, consequent to the default committed by the principal borrower. There was no reason to limit the width of the Code, if and when default was committed by the principal borrower. For, the liability and obligation of the guarantor to pay the outstanding dues would get triggered coextensively.

The Court laid down the principle, if the guarantor was a corporate person (i.e., a company or an LLP), it would come within the purview of the expression ‘corporate debtor’, within the meaning of the Code.

GUARANTORS COVERED EVEN IF NO ACTION AGAINST DEBTORS
The Supreme Court in the case of Mahendra Kumar Jajodia vs. SBI, [2022] 172 SCL 665 (SC) has held that corporate insolvency resolution proceedings can be carried out against the personal guarantor even in a case where no insolvency/liquidation proceedings have been commenced against the corporate debtor itself. This is a very important principle since the creditor could pick and choose whom he would like to approach first.

In Axis Trustee Services Limited vs. Brij Bhushan Singal, [2022] 144 taxmann.com 139 (Delhi), the High Court held that in terms of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Insolvency Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors), Rules, 2019, it has specifically been provided that the adjudicating authority for the purposes of personal guarantors to corporate debtors would be the NCLT. Accordingly, it held that the Debt Recovery Tribunal or the DRT would have no jurisdiction in such cases over the personal guarantors and all proceedings would stand transferred to the NCLT who has jurisdiction over the corporate debtor.

The rationale for this was explained by the Supreme Court in Embassy Property Developments (P) Ltd vs. State of Karnataka, [2019] 112 taxmann.com 56 (SC). It explained that the objective behind making the NCLT the nodal authority was to group together, the insolvency/liquidation proceedings of a corporate debtor and the insolvency resolution or liquidation or bankruptcy of a corporate guarantor/personal guarantor of the very same corporate debtor, so that a single Forum may deal with both. This was to ensure that the insolvency resolution of a corporate debtor and the insolvency resolution of the individual guarantors of the very same corporate debtor did not proceed on different tracks, before different fora, leading to conflict of interests, situations or decisions. The Court further held that the DRT continued to remain the Adjudicating Authority in relation to insolvency matters of individuals and firms. This was in contrast to the NCLT being the Adjudicating Authority in relation to insolvency resolution and liquidation of corporate persons including corporate debtors and personal guarantors. The expression “personal guarantor” meant an individual who was the surety in a contract of guarantee to a corporate debtor. Therefore, the object of the Code was to avoid any confusion that may arise and to ensure that whenever an insolvency resolution process was initiated against a corporate debtor, the NCLT would be the Adjudicating Authority not only in respect of such corporate debtor but also in respect of the individual who stood as surety to such corporate debtor, notwithstanding the naming of the DRT as the Adjudicating Authority for the insolvency resolution of individuals (who were not personal guarantors).

PERIOD OF LIMITATION
In Laxmi Pat’s case (supra), the Supreme Court held that the liability of the corporate debtor (corporate guarantor) also triggered when, the principal borrower acknowledged its liability in writing within the expiration of prescribed period of limitation, to pay such outstanding dues and fails to pay the acknowledged debt. Correspondingly, the right to initiate action within three years from such acknowledgment of debt accrued to the financial creditor. That, however, needed to be exercised within three years when the right to sue/apply accrued, as per Article 137 of the Limitation Act. A fresh period of limitation was required to be computed from the time when the acknowledgement was so signed by the principal borrower or the corporate guarantor (corporate debtor), as the case may be, provided the acknowledgement was before expiration of the prescribed period of limitation. It concluded that the financial creditor had not only the right to recover the outstanding dues by filing a suit, but also had a right to initiate resolution process against the corporate person (being a corporate debtor) whose liability was coextensive with that of the principal borrower and more so when it activated from the written acknowledgment of liability and failure of both to discharge that liability.

DOES A RESOLUTION PLAN DISCHARGE THE GUARANTOR?
The Apex Court in Lalit Kumar’s case (Supra) also laid down an important proposition that the sanction of a resolution plan and finality imparted to it by the NCLT did not per se operate as a discharge of the guarantor’s liability. As to the nature and extent of the liability, much would depend on the terms of the guarantee itself. It reiterated its earlier verdict in the case of Maharashtra State Electricity Board Bombay vs. Official Liquidator, High Court, Ernakulum [1982] 3 SCC 358 which held that a surety was discharged under the Indian Contract Act by any contract between the creditor and the principal debtor by which the principal debtor was released or by any act or omission of the creditor, the legal consequence of which was the discharge of the principal debtor. However, this did not mean that a discharge which the principal debtor secured by operation of law in bankruptcy (or in liquidation proceedings in the case of a company) absolved the surety of his liability. The Court concluded that its approval of a resolution plan did not ipso facto discharge a personal guarantor (of a corporate debtor) of her or his liabilities under the contract of guarantee. The release or discharge of a principal borrower from the debt owed by it to its creditor, by an involuntary process, i.e. by operation of law, or due to liquidation or insolvency proceeding, did not absolve the surety/guarantor of his or her liability, which arose out of an independent contract.

CAN ARCS PROCEED AGAINST GUARANTORS?
A related issue has been that if the bank securitized its bad loan in favour of an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC), can the ARC proceed against the guarantors to the corporate debtor. This was the issue before the NCLAT in Naresh Kumar Aggarwal vs. CFM Asset Reconstruction (P) Ltd [2023] 152 taxmann.com 264 (NCLAT- New Delhi). The NCLAT referred to the Supreme Court decision in Anuj Jain vs. Axis Bank Ltd [2020] 115 taxmann.com 1 (SC) wherein it was held that when acquisition of assets by an ARC is made, it shall be deemed to be the Lender for all purposes. As a Lender, the ARC was fully entitled to exercise its right to initiate proceedings under the Code. Hence, the NCLAT held that the ARC could also proceed against the guarantor.

CAN THE RESOLUTION PLAN INCLUDE THE GUARANTOR’S ASSETS?
One of the important decisions in this respect is that of the NCLAT in the case of Nitin Chandrakant Naik vs. Sanidhya Industries LLP [LSI-696-NCLAT-2021(NDEL)]. The NCLAT has held that in the Resolution Plan itself, there can be no provision to move against the personal guarantor. The NCLAT held that making a provision to this effect in the Resolution Plan, would be akin to a blank cheque given to proceed even with regard to any other property of the Personal Guarantors. It concluded that without resorting to appropriate proceedings against the Personal Guarantors of Corporate Debtor, this was an irregular exercise of powers.

In January 2023, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs released a Consultation Paper inviting public comments on changes being considered to the Code. One of the important changes being considered is the Intermingling of the assets of the corporate debtor and its guarantor. Under the Code, the resolution process is restricted to the assets of a corporate debtor. However, according to the Paper, in several cases, assets of the corporate debtor and its guarantor (whether, corporate or personal) are so closely or inseparably linked, that the meaningful resolution is not viable in a separate proceeding. For instance, while a building, plant, or machinery may belong to the corporate debtor, the land on which it is situated may belong to a guarantor. In such cases, restricting the resolution process of the debtor to its assets results in inefficient outcomes. Therefore, it is being proposed that a mechanism should be provided under the Code to include such assets of the guarantor in the general pool of assets available for the insolvency resolution process for efficient resolution of the corporate debtor.

EPILOGUE
Giving a guarantee has now become a very risky proposition. One could paraphrase Shakespeare’s famous quote from Hamlet which read, “Neither a Borrower Nor a Lender be” to now read “Neither a Borrower nor a Guarantor be!!”

Section 263 — Revision ­­— Erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue where two views are possible — Assessment Order cannot be said to be erroneous.

15. Principal Commissioner of Income Tax-12 vs. American Spring & Pressing Works Pvt Ltd,
[ITA No. 682 OF 2018, Dated: 2nd August, 2023; AY: 2011-12 (Bom.) (HC).]

Section 263 — Revision ­­— Erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue  where two views are possible — Assessment Order cannot be said to be erroneous.

Assessee was engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of agricultural equipment and development of real estate and hotel business. The assessment for 2011–12 was completed on 13th March, 2014 under Section 143(3) of the Act determining the total income of Assessee at Rs. 3.29 crores. This was revised by Principal CIT under Section 263 of the Act by holding that the order passed by the Assessing Officer was erroneous and prejudicial to the interest of revenue. Respondent challenged validity of revision order passed by Principal CIT.

The ITAT held that the Principal CIT could not have invoked the jurisdiction of revision for proceedings under Section 263 of the Act.

The Honourable Court observed that the scope of revision proceedings under Section 263 of the Act has been dealt by this Court in Grasim Industries Ltd vs. CIT (321 ITR 92). In Grasim Industries (supra), wherein the Court held that where two views are possible and the Income Tax Officer has taken one view with which the Commissioner does not agree, it cannot be treated as erroneous order prejudicial to the interest of Revenue, unless the view taken by the Income Tax Officer is unsustainable in law. The ITAT also considered the judgment of the Bombay High Court in Gabriel India Ltd. (203 ITR 108), on the question is to when an order can be termed as erroneous. The ITAT came to a finding that the Principal CIT could not have invoked jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Act.

The Honourable Court observed that the ITAT came to a finding of fact that Assessing Officer has taken a possible view in the matter, and there is nothing to indicate that the Assessing Officer has applied the provisions in an incorrect way. Since the view taken by the Assessing Officer is a possible view, the Principal CIT has assumed jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Act without properly complying with the mandate of Section 263 of the Act. The Principal CIT has failed to show that the Assessment Order was erroneous, causing prejudice to the Revenue. The finding of the ITAT that the Principal CIT could not have exercised its jurisdiction under Section 263 of the Act has not been even challenged. The court held that since the finding of ITAT has not been challenged, it is not permissible to go into the merits of the case as decided by the Assessing Officer. Therefore, no substantial questions of law arises. Appeal dismissed.  

Section 245HA — Settlement Commission — paying additional tax and interest on the income disclosed — Additional tax had to be calculated and paid by the Petitioner on such application.

14. Mahesh Gupta HUF vs. Income Tax Settlement Commission
[WP No. 947 Of 2009, Dated: 14th July, 2023. (Bom.) (HC).]

Section 245HA — Settlement Commission — paying additional tax and interest on the income disclosed — Additional tax had to be calculated and paid by the Petitioner on such application.

The Petitioner challenged an Order dated 11th January, 2008 passed by Settlement Commission, under Section 245HA of the Income-tax Act, 1961 holding that the Applications filed by the Petitioner under Section 245-C of the Act had abated due to short payment of taxes as required by the 245D of the Act.

A survey action under Section 133-A of the Act was conducted at the office premises of the Petitioner. The possession of various documents was taken by the survey party from both the places and statements of various persons were recorded.

The Petitioner filed an Application dated 17th May, 2006, under Section 245-C of the Act, for the Assessment Years 2002–03, 2003–04 and 2004–05. By the said Application, the Petitioner disclosed additional income and the tax on the additional income. The Commissioner of Income Tax-XIV, Mumbai, forwarded his Report dated 17th July, 2006 in the prescribed proforma under Section 245D(1) of the Act for the Assessment Years 2002–03 to 2004–05.

The said Application of the Petitioner was admitted by Settlement Commission by an Order dated 30th November, 2006. The said Order directed the Petitioner, in accordance with the provisions of sub-section (2A) of Section 245-D of the Act, to pay the additional amount of income tax payable on the income disclosed in the Application within 35 days of the receipt of the said Order and to furnish proof of such payments.

The Petitioner paid the tax as calculated by it on the total income as originally and additionally disclosed by it, and informed about the same. The Petitioner annexed to the said letter a Statement showing the tax liability on the additional income offered by the Petitioner in the Settlement Application for Assessment Years 2002–03 to 2004-05 and also challans demonstrating payment of the tax. Further, the Petitioner also made an Application dated 22nd March, 2007 to Respondent No.1, under Section 245-C of the Act, in respect of Assessment Year 2005-06. The Petitioner disclosed an additional income of Rs. 34,19,586/- and tax payable thereon of Rs. 12,22,386/.

By his letter dated 14th August, 2007, the Petitioner once again informed about the taxes paid by him on the additional income disclosed by him in the Application.

The Settlement Commission fixed the hearing of Petitioner’s Application for settlement on 11th December, 2007, and directed the Petitioner and Department to exchange requisite working / calculation of additional tax and interest liability for the Assessment Years 2002–03 to 2005–06 and thereafter prepare a reconciliation statement, if any, so that the matter could be recorded within shortest time on 19th December, 2007. Pursuant thereto, the Petitioner, by his letter dated 14th December, 2007, submitted details of calculation of additional tax and interest payable on the additional income disclosed by the Petitioner. The statements and challans annexed to the said letter show that the Petitioner had paid the taxes for all the Assessment Years, i.e., 2002–03 to 2005–06 as per the Petitioner’s Applications on or before 30th July, 2007.

By a letter dated 18th December, 2007, department gave the details of tax and interest payable by the Petitioner for the Assessment Years 2002–03 to 2005–06 showing short payment of taxes.

On 19th December, 2007, the Petitioner submitted that he had paid taxes as per his own calculation, that he was willing to pay the difference in tax, if any, that may be directed by Settlement Commission, and that if there was any shortfall, department had authority under Section 245D(2D) of the Act to recover the amount due from the Petitioner, but the application of the Petitioner cannot abate on the ground of alleged shortfall in payment of taxes and interest. The Petitioner submitted that this was more particularly so when the Petitioner had, in January, 2007, informed department about the tax payable by the Petitioner and the taxes paid and department had never informed the Petitioner till 17th December, 2007 about the alleged short fall in payment of taxes and interest on the additional income disclosed by the Petitioner.

However, the Settlement Commission, by its Order dated 11th January, 2008, held that the proceedings arising out of the two Applications of the Petitioner had abated in accordance with the provisions of Section 245HA (1)(ii) of the Act. Hence, the AO was directed to dispose of the cases in accordance with the provisions of sub-sections (2), (3) and (4) of Section 245HA of the Act.

The Petitioner filed the present Writ Petition before the Honourable High Court. The main submission was based on the provisions of Section 245D(2D) of the Act. It was submitted that, under the provisions of Section 245D (2D) of the Act, an application filed under sub-section (1) of Section 245C of the Act had to be allowed to be further proceeded with, if the additional tax on the income disclosed in such an application and the interest thereon is paid on or before 31st July, 2007.

It was submitted that, by the Order dated 30th November, 2006, Respondent No.1 had directed that the Petitioner shall within 35 days of the receipt of the Order pay additional amount of tax payable on the income disclosed in the application. It must mean that the additional tax had to be calculated and paid by the Petitioner. If the taxes and interest as calculated by the Petitioner are paid, there could not be any default in payment of taxes and interest. If, according to Settlement Commission, there was a shortfall, it was incumbent on the part of the department to inform the Petitioner about the alleged shortfall. Without any such intimation to the Petitioner, it could not be stated that there was a shortfall in payment of tax and interest.

It was submitted that, in these circumstances, the Petitioner had complied with the provisions of Section 245D(2D) of the Act and, therefore, the Applications of the Petitioner under Section 245C(1) of the Act ought to have been allowed to proceed further.

The Honourable Court further held that the provisions of Section 245D(2D) of the Act require that for an Application made under sub-section (1) of Section 245C of the Act to be allowed to be further proceeded with, the additional tax on the income disclosed in such application and the interest thereon had to be paid on or before 31st July, 2007. Sub-section (2D) says “….unless the additional tax on the income disclosed in such application and the interest thereon, is … paid on or before 31st July, 2007”. Therefore, what has to be paid before 31st July, 2007 is the additional amount of tax on the income disclosed ‘in such application’ and the interest thereon. Therefore, what has to be paid before 31st July, 2007 is the amount of income tax disclosed in the application and nothing more.

In the present case, the Petitioner paid the additional tax and interest on the income disclosed by him in his Applications for Assessment Years 2002–2003 up to 2005-2006 before 31st July, 2007, as per his calculations. On or before 31st July, 2007, the department did not give any intimation to the Petitioner that there was any short fall in the tax and interest paid by the Petitioner as per the income disclosed in his Applications. Much later, it was only by letter dated 18th December, 2007, that department intimated to the Petitioner what, according to them, was the correct tax and interest to be paid by the Petitioner.

Held that the Petitioner had complied with the provisions of Section 245D(2D) of the Act by paying the additional tax and interest on the income disclosed by him in his Applications before 31st July, 2007 as per his calculations, as required by Section 245D(2D) of the Act, and that is what was required of the Petitioner. Therefore, his Applications have to be allowed to be further proceeded with. This is more so, as, at no point of time prior to 31st July, 2007, the department intimated to the Petitioner that the taxes and interest paid by him on the additional income disclosed by him in his Applications were not correct. According to the Honourable Court, it is absurd to interpret the provisions of Section 245D(2D) as suggested by department. How is one expected to know before 31st July, 2007, the figure disclosed only in December 2007.

In these circumstances, the Order dated 11th January, 2008, which holds that the proceedings arising out of the two Applications filed by the Petitioner had abated in accordance with provisions of Section 245HA(1)(ii) of the Act, is erroneous and contrary to the provisions of Section 245D(2D) of the Act.

For the aforesaid reasons, the said Order dated 11th January, 2008 was quashed and set aside.

Section 119(2) — Application for carried forward of losses made to CBDT — Unreasoned Order passed rejecting the application — Reasons cannot be supplemented — Remanded for reconsideration.

13. ATV Projects India Ltd, vs. The Central Board of Direct Taxes & Ors.
[WP NO. 1241 OF 2020, Dated: 17th July, 2023, (Bom.) (HC)]

Section 119(2) — Application for carried forward of losses made to CBDT — Unreasoned Order passed rejecting the application — Reasons cannot be supplemented — Remanded for reconsideration.

Petitioner had filed application under Section 119 (2)(a)/(b) of Income-tax Act, 1961, before CBDT, for carry forward losses of Assessment Years 1998–99 to 2004–05 amounting to Rs.159.87 crores for further period.

The background of the case is that the Petitioner was incorporated on or about 26th February, 1987 and was engaged in the business of executing turnkey projects. After seven or eight years of operation, Petitioner suffered severe losses due to non-availability of working capital funds from the bank and also due to non-recovery from debtors. Due to the mounting loss, Petitioner filed a Reference with the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) under the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act,1985 (SICA). Petitioner was declared sick by BIFR on 21st April, 1999 and IDBI was appointed the operating agency for the purpose of formulating a scheme.

Petitioner filed a Draft Rehabilitation Scheme (DRS) before the BIFR. Petitioner having settled and paid 27 out of 28 secured lenders, BIFR directed Petitioner to file an updated DRS and IDBI the operating agency was directed to call for joint meeting of all lenders. An updated DRS was filed with IDBI. IDBI filed a fully tied up DRS with BIFR along with its recommendation. In DRS, Petitioner had also sought relief and concession from the Income Tax Department for allowance of the determined carried forward accumulated business loss of about Rs. 159.87 crores.

In view of repeal of SICA in year 2016, the application before BIFR got abated. Petitioner filed an application with CBDT under Section 119(2)(a)/(b) of the Act, showing the hardship caused due to repeal of SICA and carry forward of losses lapsed. This application came to be rejected by an order dated 2nd March, 2020 wherein no discussion / reasons were provided as to why the application was rejected.

The Honourable Court observed that reasons cannot be supplemented by the affidavit in reply. Reasons should be found in the impugned order itself. CBDT has not articulated as to why it cannot grant relief prayed for by the Petitioner. Reasons introduce clarity in an order. The Court further observed that order howsoever brief, should indicate an application of mind all the more when the same can be further challenged. Reasons substitute subjectivity by objectivity.

Therefore, the order dated 2nd March, 2020 was quashed and matter was remanded back to the CBDT to pass a reasoned order dealing with every submission made by Petitioner and also give a personal hearing to Petitioner.

Search and Seizure — Assessment in search cases — Undisclosed Income — Penalty — Change of Law — New Provision specially dealing with penalty in search cases — No incriminating document seized during search — Penalty could be imposed only under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c).

42. Pr. CIT vs. Jai Maa Jagdamba Flour Pvt Ltd
[2023] 455 ITR 74 (Jharkhand)
A.Y. 2014–15: Date of order: 21st February, 2023
Sections 153A, 271(1)(c) and 271AAB of ITA 1961.

Search and Seizure — Assessment in search cases — Undisclosed Income — Penalty — Change of Law — New Provision specially dealing with penalty in search cases — No incriminating document seized during search — Penalty could be imposed only under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c).

Search and seizure operation was carried out on one J group on 3rd September, 2014. Assessee was one of the members of the J Group. During the course of search, no incriminating material was found in the case of assessee. Pursuant to the search, the AO issued a notice under section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and required the assessee to file its return of income. Initially, the assessee filed its return, declaring a loss. However, subsequently, the AO confronted the assessee with audited financial statements, the assessee revised its return of income and declared profit. The AO, therefore, imposed penalty under section 271(1)(c) of the Act for concealing the particulars of its income, and furnishing inaccurate particulars of such income.

On appeal, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee on the ground that penalty can be imposed upon the assessee under section 271AAB and not under section 271(1)(c) of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the view of the CIT(A).

The Jharkhand High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    According to section 271AAB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, where a search u/s. 132(1) was initiated on or after July 1, 2012, penalty is leviable on the undisclosed income at the rate and conditions specified u/s. 271AAB(1) for the specified previous year. The section also defines the term “undisclosed income” and “specified previous year” and starts with non obstante clause and excludes the applicability of section 271(1)(c), if the undisclosed income pertains to the specified previous year.

ii)    Since the search was conducted on September 3, 2014, i. e., after July 1, 2012 the assessee’s case was covered by section 271AAB and the Assessing Officer should have initiated proceedings and levied penalty u/s. 271AAB(1)(c) and not u/s. 271(1)(c). On the date of search the due date to furnish the return for the A. Y. 2014-15 had not expired and the assessee had furnished the return on November 30, 2014. The assessee had not admitted any income in the statement recorded u/s. 132(4) nor had paid any taxes on the admitted income. Therefore, the case of the assessee was not governed by section 271AAB(1)(a) or (b) but fell u/s. 271AAB(1)(c) where the minimum penalty prescribed is 30 per cent. and maximum penalty is 90 per cent. of undisclosed income. Whether incriminating document was found or not was immaterial since the law mandated that the penalty if any should have been levied u/s. 271AAB. There was no infirmity in the order of the Tribunal affirming the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).”

RCM on Real Estate Regulatory Costs

In continuation to the series on Real Estate (RE)
sector, the current article is oriented towards the GST implications on
statutory / regulatory costs incurred by the RE developer during
construction of a project. This is significant on account of reverse
charge provisions which have been made applicable to RE promoters /
business recipients when availing services from Governments (Central /
State / UT or local authority). This article would be taking forward the
concepts laid down in the previous articles on reverse charge
provisions made applicable for RE developers (July 2023 issue) and
Government services (February 2019 issue).

BACKGROUND
The
Indian administration operating under the executive function has been
designed under a multi-layered structure comprising the Union
Government, State Government, Municipality or Panchayaths and other
corporations, boards and committees. Primary functions of economic
development and social welfare have been assigned to these
constitutional bodies. Such bodies either perform the entrusted
functions under its own umbrella or form a board / corporation / entity
and assign those functions to such person (termed as ‘Instrumentalities
of State’). This is done with the purpose of better financial and
operational efficiency and autonomy in implementing the government’s
plans.

Section 9(3) of CGST/SGST Act, 2017 imposes tax on
reverse charge basis on recipient business entities availing services
from the Central Government, State Government or Union Territory as
follows:

Sl No:

Category of Supply of Services

Supplier of Service

Recipient of Service

5

Services supplied by the
Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority to a
business entity …

Central Government, State
Government, Union territory or local authority

Any business entity located
in the taxable territory.

5A

Services supplied by the
Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local authority by
way of renting of immovable property to a person registered under the Central
Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017)

Central Government, State
Government, Union territory or local authority

Any person registered under
the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017

5B

Services supplied by any
person by way of transfer of development rights or Floor Space Index (FSI)
(including additional FSI) for construction of a project by a promoter.

Any person

Promoter

5C

Long term lease of land (30
years or more) by any person against consideration in the form of upfront amount
(called as premium, salami, cost, price, development charges or by any other
name) and/or periodic rent for construction of a project by a promoter

Any person

Promoter

Prior to fastening the reverse charge tax liabilities on RE
developer on costs discharged to the Government, an assessment ought to
be made on whether all the ingredients of ‘supply of services’ have been
satisfied in terms of section 7 of the CGST / SGST Act, 2017. To
reiterate, the critical ingredients of “supply of service”:

“7. (1) For the purposes of this Act, the expression “supply” includes––

(a)    all forms of supply of goods or services or both such as sale, transfer, barter, exchange, licence, rental, lease or disposal made or agreed to be made for a (1) consideration by a (2) person in the course or (3) furtherance of business;

Thus,
RCM would be applicable on the recipient only on transactions covered
under section 7, i.e., the test is whether the Government(s) are persons
engaged in business for a consideration and considered as a ‘supplier
of services’ under the CGST/SGST Act, 2017. It is to be examined through
a sequential analysis of whether the transaction is (i) chargeable as a
supply; (ii) specifically excluded from the chargeability under section
7(2) or Schedule III; (iii) classification as a supply of service in
terms of Schedule II; (iv) availability of an exemption; (v) deferment
in time of supply.

One may also note that the GST law has
recognised a three-layered government operating structure. At the
primary level, it has recognised functions performed directly by the
Government or local authority; at the secondary level, it has identified
governmental authorities and at the tertiary level, it has identified
government entities performing certain functions as instrumentalities of
State. RCM is applicable only on availing services from Government
while other services availed from Governmental authorities are subjected
to certain exemptions. Therefore, the scope of each entry should take
cognisance of the type of authority concerned, i.e., whether
‘Government’ or ‘Local authority’, ‘Governmental authority’ and
‘Governmental entity’.

Government & local authority — Scope

Article
12 of the Indian Constitution defines a ‘State’ to mean, Central
Government, Parliament, State Government, State Legislature, local or
other authorities. This definition had undergone significant judicial
scrutiny where Courts have developed a six-pronged test to assess
whether even body corporates / corporation falls within the definition
of ‘State’. The Government’s operation and administrative control,
financial assistance have been primary factors to include even PSUs,
Regulatory Boards and Corporations within the term ‘State’. The GST law,
however, refrains from using the said phrase and has adopted a narrower
term for the purpose of taxation. The constitutional understanding of
‘State’ should not be mixed with the statutory meaning of the term
‘Government’.
 
Under section 2(53) of the CGST Act, 2017,
‘Government’ means the Central Government. As per clause (23) of section
3 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, the ‘Government’ includes both the
Central Government and any State Government. As per clause (8) of
section 3 of the said Act, the ‘Central Government’, in relation to
anything done or to be done after the commencement of the Constitution,
means the President. As per Article 53 of the Constitution, the
executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall
be exercised by him either directly or indirectly through officers’
sub-ordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Further, in
terms of Article 77 of the Constitution, all executive actions of the
Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the
President. Therefore, the Central Government means the President and the
officer’s sub-ordinate to him while exercising the executive powers in
the name of the President.  

Similarly, as per clause (60) of
section 3 of the General Clauses Act, 1897, the ‘State Government’, as
respects anything done after the commencement of the Constitution, shall
be in a State, the Governor, and in a Union Territory, the Central
Government. As per Article 154 of the Constitution, the executive power
of the State shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by
him either directly or indirectly through officers’ subordinate to him
in accordance with the Constitution. Further, as per article 166 of the
Constitution, all executive actions of the Government of State shall be
expressed to be taken in the name of Governor. Therefore, State
Government means the Governor or the officers’ sub-ordinate to him who
exercise the executive powers of the State vested in the Governor and in
the name of the Governor. All actions performed under the authority of
the President of India or Governor of a State are treated as Central
Government / State Government functions.

Local authority is defined in clause (69) of section 2 of the CGST Act, 2017, and means the following:

•    “Panchayat” as defined in clause (d) of article 243 of the Constitution;

•    “Municipality” as defined in clause (e) of article 243P of the Constitution;

•    Municipal Committee, a Zilla Parishad, a District Board, and
any other authority legally entitled to, or entrusted by the Central
Government or any State Government with the control or management of a
municipal or local fund;

•    …………..;

Therefore, a body
set up under the specific provision laid herein would only fall within
the definition of local authority. One of the important criteria for
treatment of an authority as a local authority is that the authority
concerned should be entrusted with the control or management of a
municipal or local fund. For example, State Governments have set up
local developmental authorities to undertake developmental works like
infrastructure, housing, residential and commercial development,
construction of houses, etc. Examples of such developmental authorities
are Delhi Development Authority, Bangalore Development Authority, etc.
The Supreme Court in UOI vs. R C Jain1 examined
whether Delhi Development Authority was a ‘local authority’ in terms of
section 3(31) of the General Clauses Act, 1897 (containing a similar
phraseology). Based on certain tests which have been laid down to assess
whether an authority falls within this domain, it was held that Delhi
Development Authority is a local authority. However, the decision did
not have an elaborate exposition of entrustment of local or municipal
fund and hence, such a decision cannot be said to settle the issue. In
the advance ruling in Indian Hume Pipe Co. Ltd2
the question was whether Water Supply Board constituted under an
enactment is considered as a local authority. The AAR held that the
water supply board was not entrusted with State Government funds but was
generating its own revenue as an autonomous body. Hence, it was not a
local authority but a Governmental authority for the purpose of the
exemption notification. Despite the water board being set up by the
Government for implementing the entrusted functions under the
Constitution and an autonomous body aimed at better accountability /
efficiency, the same would not be considered as a local authority.

Similar
question would arise for statutory body, corporation or an authority
created by the Parliament or a State Legislature Government or local
authority? Such statutory bodies, corporations or authorities are
normally created by the Parliament or a State Legislature in exercise of
the powers conferred under article 53(3)(b) and article 154(2)(b) of
the Constitution respectively. The Supreme Court in Agarwal vs. Hindustan Steel3
held that the manpower of such authorities or bodies do not become
officers subordinate to the President under article 53(1) of the
Constitution and similarly to the Governor under article 154(1). Such a
statutory body, corporation or an authority as a juridical entity is
separate from the State and hence cannot be regarded as the Central or a
State Government and do not fall in the definition of ‘local
authority’. Thus, such corporations would not be regarded as the
government or local authorities for the purposes of the GST Acts. These
entities would be ‘Governmental entities’ and not Governments for the
purpose of GST. For a service to fall under RCM, it must be provided by
the Central Government, State Government, Union territory or local
authority. Any service provided by an entity not falling within the said
terms, as examined above, shall not be covered for the purpose of RCM
levy.

____________________________________________________________

1   (1981)
2 SCC 308

2   2023
(73) G.S.T.L. 117

3   AIR
1970 Supreme Court 1150

Government as ‘Taxable Person’

A
taxable person is legal person who is registered or liable to be
registered. A legal person is recognised by law as a subject which
embodies rights, entitlements, liabilities and duties. To be a legal
person is to possess certain rights and duties under law and be capable
of engaging in legally enforceable relationships with other legal
persons. Section 2(84) of GST law defines a ‘person’ to include a
Central Government or State Government. This definition is in the
company of many other legal person who have rights, duties and power to
enter into contractual relationships. While Government is a
constitutional body entrusted with executive functions, the objective of
including Central Government / State Government in the definition of
person under a tax legislation having a commercial character is to
identify scenarios were Governments functions as commercial entities. By
specific inclusion, the intent has been to include Governments and
avoid any ambiguity merely because of the Status of being a
‘Government’. Yet, where governments function as statutory or
constitutional body without any enforceable relationship by the counter
party, it should remain outside the scope of the phrase ‘person’ in the
GST context.

Government ‘in Business’

A business
activity is generally understood as one which is organised and
systematic arrangement of affairs for the purpose of earning income/
profit. Section 2(17) defines business to refer to:

(a)    any
trade, commerce, manufacture, etc., whether or not for a pecuniary
benefit whether or not it is for a pecuniary benefit; and includes

(b)  
 any activity or transaction undertaken by Central Government or State
Government or any local authority in which they are engaged as ‘public
authorities’.

Both these clauses are relevant for the purpose of
whether Government is in business. The primary clause refers to the
general understanding of business where Government would engage in
organised and systematic manner of commercial transactions akin to
commercial entities. The secondary clause attempts to widen the scope of
business activities to include activities or transactions where
Governments are functioning as ‘public authorities’. The phrase ‘public
authorities’ has not been defined under the GST law but has been defined
under the Right to Information Act as follows:

“(h) “public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted—
(a) by or under the Constitution;
(b) by any other law made by Parliament;
(c) by any other law made by State Legislature;
(d) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government,
and includes any—
(i) body owned, controlled or substantially financed;
(ii) non-Government organisation substantially financed,
directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government;”

This
phrase specifically includes the Central / State Government which are
constituted under the Constitution or Parliament / State Legislature and
function as public authorities. Even where government functions through
its autonomous instrumentalities, the definition of public authority
seems to include such authorities and their functions within its scope.

The Delhi High Court in BIS Ltd case4 was
examining whether regulatory functions entrusted to an authority would
amount to carrying on business merely because a fee is charged from the
user. The Court held that BIS was set up for general public welfare and
that a fee being charged, which resulted in profits, does not by itself
take away the primary feature that BIS is a statutory body and
performing sovereign and regulatory functions. This was followed in the
decision of ICAI vs. Director of Income tax Exemptions5.
While these decisions seem to attract us to a conclusion that
regulatory bodies may not be subjected to tax on account of being a
non-business body, we should appreciate that the definition of business
is wide enough to even include non-pecuniary activities. Moreover, with
the amended definition to include Government performing functions in its
status as a ‘public authority’, there seems to be a definitive
direction that such statutory bodies can be regarded as engaged in
business activities.

_____________________________________________________

4   Bureau
of Indian Standards vs. CIT 258 ITR 78 (Del)

5  
ICAI vs. DGIT Exemptions (2013) 358 ITR (91)

Government as a Supplier of services for consideration

As
observed above, the GST law has specified that Government is a taxable
person and can be said to be in business even when exercising public
authority functions. The moot question which then needs to be answered
is whether Government is a supplier of services for consideration?

The
definition of supply under section 7 of GST law has enlisted
transactions having commercial character such as ‘sale’, ‘transfer’,
‘barter’, ‘exchange’, ‘lease’, ‘license’, etc. We are aware that the
definition of service is all encompassing to include all activities or
transactions other than those being goods, money or securities. Reading
this definition in conjunction with the scope of supply under section 7,
one understands that services which are contractual in nature and
performed against consideration by a person who is in business are
liable to GST. Government has been specifically included as a person
under law and treated as engaged in business in cases where it functions
in the capacity of a public authority. The challenge is to segregate
cases where Government functions as a sovereign authority and cases
where it functions as a commercial body. Only those transactions when
undertaken as commercial bodies for consideration in form of quid pro
quo would fall within its scope.
 
At the basic level, activities
which are sovereign in nature carried out by the Central Government,
State Government, Union territory or local authority in the capacity of a
“sovereign” or constitutional body cannot be regarded as “services” and
hence cannot be brought to tax? Seven judges’ Bench of the Supreme
Court in the case of Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board vs. A Rajappa6
had an occasion to examine as to what can be considered as a “sovereign
function” in connection with a dispute under the Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947. There was a difference of opinion in the said case between
the Judges as to what can be considered as a “sovereign function”. By
majority a restricted meaning was given to the said term to only include
specified categories of so called ‘inalienable functions’ like defense,
making peace or war, foreign affairs, acquisition of a territory and
the like where the State is not answerable to the Courts. Subsequently,
in State of UP vs. Jai Bir Singh (Appeal (Civil) 897 of 2002) observed
that “The concept of sovereignty in a constitutional democracy is
different from the traditional concept of sovereignty which is confined
to ‘law and order’, ‘defense’, ‘law making’ and ‘justice dispensation’.
In a democracy governed by the Constitution, the sovereignty vests in
the people and the State is obliged to discharge its constitutional
obligations contained in the Directive Principles of the State Policy in
Part IV of the Constitution of India. From that point of view, wherever
the government undertakes public welfare activities in discharge of its
constitutional obligations, as provided in Part IV of the Constitution,
such activities should be treated as activities in discharge of
sovereign functions falling outside the purview of ‘industry’. The
matter is before a nine-judge bench for final consideration.

___________________________________________________

6   [1978]
2 SCC 213

On a more micro analysis, a supply would
entail an activity or transaction undertaken by the Government in
reciprocation of a consideration. A compulsory exaction in the nature of
tax does not entail a reciprocal obligation to the tax payer. Moreover,
the definition of business states that the transaction should be
‘undertaken by’ the Government. Where there is no activity undertaken by
the Government at all, there cannot be a supply itself. Where
government collects fees as part of its regulatory function, the
Government does not seem to be performing a reciprocal act apart from
engaging in overall public welfare activity. For e.g., regulating the
height of a building is not for the sole benefit of the builder, rather
the primary object is to ensure that the surrounding public
infrastructure is not over-burdened due to unregulated construction.
There is no direct transaction undertaken by the Government on this
front. Therefore, one should examine the function by placing the
Government in the centre of the transaction rather than the recipient.
If the Government cannot be termed as undertaking a transaction, there
cannot be a supply by the Government for RCM to be invoked. Another
contrasting instance could be the example of Government imposing a tax
on hoardings placed on private land. The land belongs to a private party
and the Government is collecting the tax for public welfare. As against
this, the Government also permits placement of hoardings in public
areas against a specific fee. This is against a permission to use public
property for private purpose. While the former transaction is a
statutory function, the latter is a transaction of commercial character
and hence a supply of service.

Certain cues can be obtained from Circulars of the Government. Firstly, the CBEC in the context of service tax had vide Circular No. 89/7/2006 – S.T7 clarified
that fee collected by sovereign / public authorities while performing
statutory functions / duties under the provision of law would not be
exigible to service tax. Said circular reiterated an established
principle that payment/ fee levied and collected by Government
authorities under the mandate of a statute are compulsory levy and
cannot be treated as provision of any service (by such Government
authority) to any person / entity for a consideration. Subsequently, Master Circular No. 96/7/2007-S.T7
clarified that activities assigned to and performed by the
sovereign/public authorities under the provisions of any law are
statutory duties. The fee or amount collected as per the provisions of
the relevant statute for performing such functions is a compulsory levy
and deposited into the Government account. Such activities are purely in
public interest and are undertaken as mandatory and statutory
functions. These are not to be treated as services provided for a
consideration. Therefore, such activities assigned to and performed by a
sovereign / public authority under the provisions of any law, do not
constitute taxable services. Any amount / fee collected in such cases
are not to be treated as consideration for the purpose of levy of
service tax. This circular also recognises that Government can
simultaneously function as commercial bodies. In such cases even if a
sovereign/public authority provides a service, which is not in the
nature of statutory activity, and the same is undertaken for a
consideration (not a statutory fee), then in such cases, service tax
would be leviable as long as the activity undertaken falls within the
scope of a taxable service. Therefore, the Circular re-iterates a fairly
reasonable proposition that the mere status of the provider as being a
government should not exclude it from the definition of service.
Emphasis ought to be placed on the substance/ nature of the fee
collected rather than being influenced by it being a statutory body.

____________________________________________________

7   dt
18.12.2006 & dated 23-8-2007

Subsequently, after the introduction of
the negative list regime, it was clarified vide Circular No.
192/02/2016-S.T., dated 13th April, 2016 that any activity undertaken by
a Government or a local authority against a consideration constitutes a
service, and the amount charged for performing such activities is
liable to service tax. It was immaterial whether such activities are
undertaken as a statutory or mandatory requirement under the law and
irrespective of whether the amount charged for such service is laid down
in a statute or not. As long as the payment is made (or fee charged)
for getting a service in return (i.e., as a quid pro quo for the
service received), it has to be regarded as a consideration for that
service and taxable irrespective of by what name such payment is called.
It is also clarified that service tax is leviable on any payment, in
lieu of any permission or license granted by the Government or a local
authority. Despite this circular, the requirement of quid pro quo, i.e.,
an enforceable exchange of promises between the Government and the
counter party was very much the ingredient for taxation. The very same
circular also discusses above the Government’s role while approving the
change in land use. The said circular clarifies that regulation of land
use is a public welfare function and any fee collected for this purpose
cannot be termed as a service.

In the context of GST as well,
the CBIC Circular No. 178/10/2022-GST, dated 3rd August, 2022 on
liquidated damages examined the scope of an entry in Schedule II. The
circular discussed at length the necessity of a contract and performance
of contract along with corresponding consideration for imposition of
GST. Therefore, the phrase supply seems to have an implied pre-requisite
of contractual obligations and enforceability of counter promises of
supply and consideration for it to be treated as a taxable transaction.
Therefore, statutory or sovereign functions which are not enforceable
under contractual obligations or are a compulsory impost would not be
susceptible to reverse charge provisions.

Recently, the Supreme
Court had the occasion to examine the mandi fees charged by Agricultural
Market Produce Committees (APMCs) under an enactment in Krishi Upaj Mandi Samiti vs. CCE8.
The argument of the assessees that such fees are statutory levies and
hence mandatory was negated on the ground that the statute has used the
phrase ‘may levy’ on the occupants of the mandi. Such being the
phraseology of the enactment, one cannot contend that the impost is
mandatory and hence outside a service provider–recipient relationship.
Moreover, the fact that such services were specifically placed in the
negative list after 1st July, 2012 implied that such activities were
considered as a service under the pre-negative list regime. Therefore,
one should be mindful of the nature of levy while reaching a conclusion
that a cost is a statutory function and hence, outside tax ambit.

_______________________________________________

8   2022
(58) G.S.T.L. 129 (S.C.)

Neither supply of goods or services

Section
7(2) of GST law notifies certain activities or transactions undertaken
by Central / State Government or any local authority when they are
engaged as ‘public authorities’ as being treated as neither supply of
goods or services. Vide notification 14/2017-CT(R) dated 28th June,
2017, the following entry has been introduced:

“Services by
way of any activity in relation to a function entrusted to a Panchayat
under article 243G of the Constitution or to a Municipality under
article 243W of the Constitution.”

By virtue of this entry
under section 7(2), all services ‘in relation’ to a function entrusted
by the State Government to a Panchayat or Municipality in relation to
plans for economic development and social welfare are outside the tax
ambit. Once an activity or a transaction being a service is considered
as performed by the Municipality/ Local Panchayat by virtue of the
constitutional powers entrusted as public authorities in terms of
Article 243G/243W, then such services need to be further examined for
RCM implications in the hands of the Developer.

In addition to
the primary function of economic development and social justice,
reference can be made to the list of functions being entrusted to the
Government or local authorities under the Eleventh & Twelfth
Schedule. Functions relevant for the RE sector are as follows: (a) urban
planning including town planning, (b) regulation of land-use and
construction of buildings, (c) planning for economic and social
development, (d) provision for urban amenities and facilities such as
parks, gardens, playgrounds. In exercise of these powers, the State
legislature have legislated local municipality and town planning acts
which enforce certain norms for sanction of construction plans and
collection of fees for the said purpose. Elaborate discussion on this
aspect is performed in the ensuing paragraphs.

Specific Exemptions on Government / Local authority functions

In
terms of section 11(1) of CGST / SGST Act exemptions have been
introduced for certain functions performed by the Government / Local
authority. The important exemption entries are:

Sl. No.

HSN

Description of Services

Rate (per cent.)

Condition

4

Chapter 99

Services by governmental authority by way of any
activity in relation to any function entrusted to a municipality under
article 243 W of the Constitution.

Nil

Nil

5

Chapter 99

Services by a Governmental Authority by way of
any activity in relation to any function entrusted to a Panchayat under
article 243G of the Constitution.

Nil

Nil

In terms of this entry, all ‘governmental authorities’ which
are formed for the purpose of functions entrusted to the municipality /
panchayat under the similar article 243G/243W fall in its scope. The
phrase governmental authority has been defined in the notification as
follows:

“Governmental Authority” means an authority or a board or any other body,

(i) set up by an Act of Parliament or a State Legislature; or
(ii) established by any Government,

with
90 per cent or more participation by way of equity or control, to carry
out any function entrusted to a Municipality under article 243W of the
Constitution or to a Panchayat under article 243G of the Constitution.”

Therefore,
Boards or Corporations which are set up under a statute or established
by a government and controlled by the Government are forming part of the
exemption. In terms of scope, notification issued under 7(2) exclude
transactions which are performed by the municipality / panchayats
themselves while the exemption notifications grant exclusion to similar
activities which are entrusted to Boards or Corporations by the State.

Examination of Statutory / Regulatory Costs

Now,
the regulatory fees or charges which are imposed on RE developers need
to undergo these filters for imposition of tax under reverse charge
provisions. Each of the above filters are examined and some possible
costs which can claim shelter of these filters have been detailed below:

1)     Excluded from the scope of services

The
classic type of RE cost which is excluded from the scope of service is
the stamp duty imposable on the instrument creating or altering
immovable property rights. Courts (refer below) have articulated the
difference between a tax and a fee and clearly stamp duty falls under
the former. Further, CBEC had clarified in 192/02/2016-S.T. (supra) that
taxes, cesses and duties are not consideration for any service and
hence not liable to service tax. Stamp Duty costs incurred on the
instrument conveyancing land title, etc., are compulsory imposts. They
are imposed under the respective state stamp enactments on specified
instruments. Clearly, such costs cannot be termed as a service rendered
by the Government. Even though the measure of stamp duty may be on the
value of the land being conveyed, that by itself cannot alter the
character of stamp duty from being a tax and not a consideration for a
service.

Along with stamp duty, documents are also subject to
registration fee under the respective registration act. The fee for
registration is for registering the documents, maintenance of registers,
searching the registers, etc. The provision of the Registration Act,
1908, has been enacted for mandatory registration of various documents
to ensure conservation of evidence, prevention of fraud and assurance of
title. This appears to be for the benefit of the public at large
including the registrant. Such registration charge is not towards any
‘activity or transaction’ undertaken by the Government. The act of
registration is not a reciprocal obligation or transaction for the
benefit of the registrant. It is a statutory / public welfare function
and hence a compulsory impost. This should be distinguished from a
person who pays a fee to the Registrar of Lands for inspection of
documents which are already registered. While the registration charges
are statutory, the fee for the database search / inspection and printing
of documents would be a service fee against a specific request and
service rendered to the applicant.

A five-judge bench in the case of Hingir-Rampur Coal Co Ltd9 by referring the earlier decision of the Court in Shri Shirur Math10
case examined the difference between a tax and a fee. The obvious
difference between them has been that a tax is a compulsory exaction of
money for public purposes enforceable by law and not towards services
(‘inherent nature test’). While this difference involves subjectivity,
the court also elaborated other factors which should be considered. Even
if the fee is statutory and compulsory in nature, where the fee is
collected for a corresponding identifiable benefit to the person or area
from which it is being collected (akin to a ‘quid pro quo’ or
‘reciprocal promises’ test), such fee would be distinguishable from tax.
The measure of the fee would also have a bearing and if the measure is
excessive beyond a commercial character, then in such case, it would
have the character of tax (‘reasonable measure test’). Where the
collection is attributed to the general pool for welfare, such
collection is towards tax whereas if the collection is to defray the
expenses incurred to provide the benefit to the payer, then such
collection acquires the character of a fee (‘end use test’). Therefore,
stamp duty and registration charges may fall outside the scope of supply
itself.

____________________________________________________

9   (1961)
2 SCR 537 – AIR 1961 SC 459

10   ‘Commissioner, Hindu Religious
Endowment, Madras v Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (1954)
SCR 1005

2)
    Treated as neither supply of goods or services under section 7(2)
as being public authority functions entrusted by the Constitution by
virtue of Article 243W/G;

RE developers incur costs
pertaining to building license for construction as per local
municipality or panchayat norms. The said cost incurred as fee by the
local authority for approving and supervising the building sanction
plans. The said charged are authorised to be imposed by the Town
Planning Act. Section 7(2) excludes public authority functions entrusted
under Article 243W/G and town planning falls within the list of
functions under the constitution. While there may be a debate on there
being a quid pro quo in such activity, the said matter may become
slightly academic on application of the section the subject transaction.

To reiterate, the service tax circular (supra) has
categorically stated that charges towards land use and license
permission for building construction are statutory and regulatory costs.
Moreover, being enlisted as part of the municipal functions under
Article 243W/G, they stand specifically excluded as part of section 7(2)
of CGST/SGST Act, 2017. Accordingly, said costs do not form part of the
RCM pool for the RE developer.

3)     Costs which are penal or towards compounding offences

RE
developers may also be imposed with penal or compounding costs for
structural deviations from the sanctioned building plan. These are
statutory costs in nature and imposed by the local authority /
municipality. These being penal in nature and arising because of a
breach of statutory regulations. The compounding fees prevent the RE
developer from demolition / penal implications. Such compounding fee is
not towards a service. While one may argue that Schedule II may be
invoked as being a cost for ‘tolerating an act’, the CBIC circular
178/10/2022-GST (supra) has very well elaborated the
pre-existence of a contract for toleration to invoke the said entry.
Legal consequences from contracts or statutory penalties cannot be
emerging from an ‘agreement’ between the parties and hence, cannot take
the colour of a deemed service under Schedule II.

4)     Covered by Specific Exemptions

Certain
costs are imposed by Housing Boards or Water boards, which are
constituted by the respective Governments. These housing boards are
either set up under an enactment or directly function under the
operational control of the Government concerned. In terms of the
definition of ‘governmental authority’, the said Boards are eligible to
qualify as Governmental authority. These authorities perform the
Government functions as their instrumentalities under a separate
operational body. Where the said functions are falling within the list
of functions under the Eleventh / Twelfth schedule (i.e., urban planning
or town planning or construction), the said section would treat them as
exempt services and hence not liable for taxation under reverse charge
provisions.

Typical costs which can fall under this bucket are
those pertaining to obtaining no-objection certificates from Fire Safety
Boards, Airport authorities, Pollution Control Boards, etc. Where these
authorities have been set up as autonomous bodies under Government
control, they can fall within the scope of ‘Governmental authority’ and
subjected to the exemption. One may have to ensure that the functions
performed by the said authorities are those entrusted under Article
243G/W of the Constitution.

Another exemption entry available to
RCM developer is the monetary exemption of Rs. 5,000 for services
availed from Government(s) or local authorities. Therefore, minor costs
such as road-cutting permissions, etc. could claim the benefit of this
entry where the overall costs do not exceed the specified limit. It may
be noted that this entry is not a standard exemption but a threshold
limit for eligibility and any cost above this threshold would be
entirely taxable under RCM.

5) Utilisation of FSI / DR received as compensation for land acquisition

Similarly,
the municipality or development authority issues development right
certificates to the land owners against surrender / acquisition of land.
The said certificates are either usable for the same property or
transferrable to other person for use within the same municipality.
These DRs are a consideration against surrender of land rights to the
authority. There has been a debate on whether issuance of DRs / FSI to
the land-owner and the permission to use to the RE developer against
subsequent utilisation of the DRs constitutes a service by the
municipality. Be that as it may, even assuming this is a service, the
provisions of section 7(2) may be applied as being part of town planning
functions by the local authority and hence, excluded from the ambit of
taxation. Once this is satisfied, the requirement of examining the RCM
notification (Entry 5B) may not be necessary.

That apart, one
also needs to examine whether RCM is applicable on tradeable DRs/FSI if
the same is purchased from a private party after issuance by the
Government. This is because, unlike other services, the RCM entry for
DRs/ FSI specify that RCM would be applicable even where the service
provider is not a Government/ Governmental authority. This requires a
microscopic comparison of the DR / FSI RCM entry with other entries. The
RCM table has three columns (a) category of service subject to RCM (b)
service provider (c) service recipient liable to pay tax. The first
column defines the instances when a service would fall under the RCM
table, the second column defines the service provider and the third
column defines the service recipient. Re-iterating the base entry as
follows:

“Services supplied by any person by way of transfer of development rights or Floor Space Index (FSI) (including additional FSI) for construction of a project by a promoter.”

This
part of the RCM entry specifies that RCM would be applicable where DRs
are used for construction of a project by a promoter. The entry
specifies the category of service and provides the end-use of the said
service for RCM to be triggered. Critically, this entry does not specify
the ‘service provider’ of the DR. DRs/FSI are issued tradeable
certificates and change multiple hands after issuance to the landowner.
On reading this entry, it appears that DRs which are issued to the
landowner can be sold for ultimate use by the RE developer in
construction activity. Such trading takes place through multiple land
aggregators / intermediaries and finally rests with the RE developer. If
one reads the RCM entry, it appears that all intermediate transactions
of DRs are covered by this RCM entry. Implying that once the sale of DRs
/ FSI are covered by the RCM entry, the tax would be paid only by the
end promoter who uses it for construction activity. All the
intermediaries can claim exclusion from taxation on the ground that the
RCM entry makes a general statement of taxing all DRs / FSI only in the
hands of the promoter and no one else. Hence, the provisions of section
9(3) are to be applied at the stage of RE development only, i.e., its
end use. This view also obtains traction when it is compared with other
RCM entries. Take for example the GTA entry. Column (2) of the RCM table
not only specifies the service category but also specifies the service
provider — implying each leg of the service would have to be checked
vis-à-vis its service provider. But the DRs/FSI entry is generic in so
far as it does not specify the service provider. Being a generic RCM
mandate (akin to generic exemption) and not a service provider specific
entry, one can claim that RCM is a single point tax rather than a
multi-point imposition. Hence, RCM would be applicable only at the
end-use of the DRs / FSI at the RE development stage.

While this
view is certainly novel and aggressive, the contra-position would be
that section 9(3) specifies that recipient would be liable to RCM. GST
being a multi-point transaction specific levy, it should be examined at
each leg independently and not wait for the end-use to be reached for
assessing taxation. Moreover, recipient defined under the parent statute
is the transactional recipient and not the end-use recipient (a.k.a.
beneficiary). This understanding of the parent statute should also
extend to the RCM notification and a different version of recipient
cannot be adopted for the RCM entry alone. In such a case, transaction
involving TDR intermediaries would be liable to tax under forward charge
at each level. The last leg of the DR/FSI sold to the RE Developer
would be liable for RCM at the developer’s end. This interpretation
makes the entire DRs a financially unviable model and would not only
cause RCM outflow at the RE developers end, it also causes ITC denial at
the intermediary level who sells the DR/FSI to the RE developer. To
overcome this difficulty, some intermediaries are adopting the agency
model and recovering a commission on the TDR sale and excluding
themselves from the agony of dual tax burden. In light of this, former
interpretation has reasonable legal and commercial viability in DR / FSI
transaction.

5A) Lease Rights / Premium for Government lands

Similarly,
Government is monetising its assets by granting long-term lease to RE
developers under BOT / BOOT model. As an example, Indian Railways is
aggressively venturing into monetising their lands under this model.
Lease premiums are being collected for long-term lease under this model
by grant of land rights to the RE developer. Now the RCM entry provides
for imposition of GST on a RE promoter availing long-term lease (beyond
30 years) for construction of a RERA project. The grant of long-term
lease by the Government of its own property for private benefit under a
contract is clearly a supply of service in terms of section 7 read with
Schedule II. This transaction cannot also claim exclusion from tax ambit
under section 7(2) as it does not directly fall under the functions
entrusted to a municipality / panchayat.

The Bangalore Tribunal in Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board11
examined the issue of taxability of services provided by the KIADB
including renting of immovable property. The Tribunal placed heavy
reliance on the Bombay high court in MIDC’s case12 to
conclude that such activities are a statutory function and do not fall
within the scope of services. The Tribunal also recognised the contrary
ruling in Greater Noida Industrial Development authority’s case13
which stated that this is not a statutory function but a service
arrangement where offers were invited and a particular party was
selected as being eligible for the contract — but the Tribunal recorded
its reservation in applying the decision on account of the stay of the
Supreme Court on this order. Under the GST context, the tenability of
the favourable decisions may be questionable on account of the expansive
manner of defining business and taxable person, which dilute the
argument that statutory / public authority functions are always outside
the scope of services. In summary, one can view this as a quid pro quo transaction and RCM provisions may become applicable to the RE promoter.

______________________________________________

11  2020
(40) G.S.T.L. 33 (Tri. – Bang.)

12  2018
(9) G.S.T.L. 372 (Bom.)

13  2015
(40) S.T.R. 95 (All.)

6)     Supply but Not of a ‘service’ and hence not liable to RCM

RE
developers obtain water connections from authorities or board for the
construction of project. The charges for such water supply are in the
nature of procurement of goods. Charges paid towards temporary
electricity connections during the construction of the project are also
purchase of electricity as goods. Since this transaction qualifies as
supply of goods, RCM notification applicable for services would not
apply to such cases.

7)     Commercial costs

RE
developers also incur commercial costs such as placement of hoardings at
public places, etc. These are fees paid for a clear commercial nature
involving a quid pro quo and hence, subject to the RCM. This revenue is
generated by the local authority while functioning as a public
authority. Yet, this is akin to formulating contractual relationship
with the Government. These activities would fall within the scope of
services and liable to RCM.

Coupled with the above analysis, one
should not lose sight of an important analysis of whether RCM falls
within the 80–20 rule calculation in terms of the construction services
notification. Whether government services which are commercial in nature
and liable for RCM would fall into consideration in the 20 per cent
bucket of unregistered costs and excluded from RCM. The principles were
analysed in the earlier issue on RCM and the questions emerging were
whether compliance of RCM provisions under section 9(4) (unregistered
RCM) overrides the requirement of section 9(3) (specified RCM). This is
because the rate schedule carries a specific overriding entry for
services availed by the promoter from unregistered persons even though
they may also be covered by another tax entry notification. This entry
seems to prevail and hence, the applicability of RCM under section 9(3)
could be questionable. Therefore, services by government departments to
RE promoters can be examined from this view point as well and not
subjected to additional RCM beyond this rule.

The above RCM
analysis provides merely a starting point to provoke thoughts on this
subject. The subject is wide enough on account of Government activity
being subjected to fair amount of litigation on being a question
bringing a private arrangement versus a private function. Developments
in executive action have led to asset monetisation of Government assets
and innovative approaches are being adopted to generate alternate
streams of revenue to the exchequer. Certainly, RE developers are also
taking part in the Government’s plan for asset monetisation, and RCM
would certainly need to be factored as a significant cash outflow / cost
in project viability.

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Factors to be considered — Assessee having strong prima facie case — Assessment at a high-pitched rate — Demand causing undue financial hardship to the assessee — Stay ordered.

41. BHIL Employees Welfare Fund No. 4 vs. ITO
[2023] 455 ITR 130 (Bom)
A.Y. 2017–18: Date of order: 7th January, 2023
Sections 69 and 220 of ITA 1961.

Recovery of tax — Stay of demand — Factors to be considered — Assessee having strong prima facie case — Assessment at a high-pitched rate — Demand causing undue financial hardship to the assessee — Stay ordered.

The assessee was formerly formed for the benefit of the employees of the erstwhile Bajaj Auto Limited. The assessee was formerly known as “Bajaj Auto Employees Welfare Fund No. 4” and was allotted PAN in the status of a Firm. As per the scheme of demerger approved by the Court, the automobile business was transferred to Bajaj Auto Limited and finance was transferred to Bajaj Finserv Limited with effect from 31st March, 2007, and Bajaj Auto Limited’s name was changed to Bajaj Holdings and Investment Limited (“BHIL”) on 5th March, 2008. Pursuant to the scheme of demerger, the name of Bajaj Auto Welfare Employees Fund was changed to BHIL Employees Welfare Fund No. 4 as per trust deed dated 16th February, 2015, and on application, the assessee was allotted PAN with the status of Trust.

On 31st March, 2021, the AO issued notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 under the old name and PAN of the assessee on the ground that the assessee failed to file income tax return. Thereafter, notices were issued under section 142(1) under the old name and PAN of the assessee calling for various details. In December 2021, the assessee filed a response, stating inter alia that the Income-tax Utility did not allow the assessee to select any status other than the Firm on account of which the assessee was not able to file the return of income. Further, the assessee submitted that even if the assessment was re-opened, the re-opening should be conducted in the new PAN and not the old one. Thereafter, further notices were issued by the Department against which the assessee responded its inability to file the return of income due to technical difficulties. The assessment was completed ex-parte and the assessment order was passed under section 144 r.w.s. 144B and 147 of the Act and demand of Rs. 9,62,39,316 was raised.

Against the order of assessment, the assessee filed appeal before the CIT(A) and also filed application for stay of entire demand before Respondent No. 1. The assessee’s application for stay was granted subject to fulfilment of conditions, inter alia that 20 per cent of the demand be paid within 15 days. On application for stay of demand before the Respondent No. 2 for A.Ys. 2014–15 and A.Y. 2017–18, the stay of demand was granted for A.Y. 2017–18 on the condition that the assessee has to pay 10 per cent of the disputed demand. However, meanwhile, Respondent No. 1 addressed a letter to the assessee calling upon the assessee to pay 20 per cent of the demand and was informed that the failure to make the payment would result in penalty under section 221 of the Act. The assessee filed application for stay of demand before the CIT(A) and requested for early hearing of the appeal.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as follows:

“i)    In the case of UTI Mutual Fund (supra) this Court held that in considering whether a stay of demand should be granted, the Court is duty bound to consider not merely the issue of financial hardship if any, but also whether a strong prima facie case is made out and serious triable issues are raised that would warrant a dispensation of deposit. It was further held that calling upon petitioner to deposit, would itself occasion undue hardship where a strong prima facie case has been made out. We are of the opinion that the respondents have failed to consider the ratio of the judgment in its true letter and spirit inasmuch as respondents called upon the petitioner to deposit 10% of the demand when the petitioner had a strong prima facie case. In our view, the deposit would itself occasion undue hardship to the petitioner who are Trust created for the purpose of benefiting the employees.

ii)    In the case of Humuza Consultants (supra) this Court has held that where a prima facie case in favour of the petitioner was found and it appeared that the assessment was high pitched, a stay was granted with regard to the impugned demand notices. In this case too it appears that the petitioner would have a strong prima facie case and they would not be liable to pay such a high demand if their assessment was considered in their capacity/status of a Trust as against the status of a Firm.

iii)    We are in agreement with the legal propositions enunciated in the aforesaid three judgments of this Court and are bound by it and do not propose to take a different view. Accordingly, we are of the opinion that both the matters deserve to be remanded back with a direction that the Respondents to consider the Petitioner’s application under their status as a Trust and try to dispose of the matter preferably within a period of 4 months from the date of this order. No coercive steps shall be taken against the assessee for the recovery of the demand in pursuance of the impugned notice dated 30th March 2022.”

Reassessment — Validity — Proper procedure to be followed — Reasons for notice and satisfaction note for approval not furnished to assessee — Documents relied on for issue of notice not furnished to assessee — Order of reassessment Not Valid.

40. Sahebrao Deshmukh Co-op Bank Ltd vs ACIT
[2023] 455 ITR 92 (Bom.)
A.Y. 2013–14: Date of order: 10th February, 2023
Sections 147 and 148 of ITA 1961.

Reassessment — Validity — Proper procedure to be followed — Reasons for notice and satisfaction note for approval not furnished to assessee — Documents relied on for issue of notice not furnished to assessee — Order of reassessment Not Valid.

The AO issued notice under section 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, dated 31st March, 2021, for re-opening of assessment for the A.Y. 2013–14. The AO claimed that the notice was being issued after obtaining necessary satisfaction of the PCIT. Thereafter, on 26th January, 2022, the AO issued notice under section 142(1) of the Act, calling upon the assessee to furnish the accounts and documents. In response to the said notice as also the notice dated 31st March, 2021, issued under section 148 of the Act, the assessee filed its reply on 27th January, 2022, and requested the AO to furnish a copy of reasons recorded for re-opening of assessment. On the same day, the assessee also filed its return of income. The AO, vide notice dated 5th February, 2022, provided the reasons recorded for re-opening. As per the reasons recorded, a survey was conducted under section 133A on 14th December, 2016, at the premises of Shri Shripal Vora at Bhavnagar and unaccounted cash was seized from the premises. From the statements on oath recorded under section 131 of the Act, it was revealed that the assessee was involved in the business of providing accommodation entry and charging commission at the rate of 2.75 per cent of the transaction. On receipt of reasons recorded, the assessee, vide letter dated 21st February, 2022, requested the AO to provide satisfaction note of the PCIT, whose approval had been obtained for issuing the notice under section 148 of the Act. There was no reply from the AO on this and on 24th February, 2022, the AO fixed a hearing without providing the documents requested by the assessee. On 28th February, 2022, the assessee once again requested for details called for earlier and requested for virtual hearing through video conference. Thereafter, various communications were exchanged between the assessee and the AO and the AO passed the order dated 31st March, 2022 and held that an amount of Rs. 2 Crores had escaped assessment.

The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the notices and the order of reassessment. The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    The Assessing Officer was duty bound to issue, with the notice u/s. 148 of the Act, the reasons which formed the basis for reopening of assessment, the satisfaction note and order of the Principal Commissioner, who granted approval to issuance of the notice with the note of the Assessing Officer in support of his request for approval, the appraisal report from the Deputy Director of Income-tax (Investigation) and the statements of V at Bhavnagar, recorded under section 131 in the search and seizure of the premises of S Ltd, which were referred to in the notice.

ii)    None of these documents was sent to the assessee in compliance with the general directions issued by the court. The Assessing Officer had rejected the request of the assessee for furnishing all these documents without assigning any reasons for such rejection or dealing with the specific objections and the request made by the assessee in its order. Despite specific request for a personal hearing by the assessee before passing the assessment order, the Assessing Officer had neither granted it nor dealt with the request but had gone ahead and passed the assessment order without hearing the assessee.

iii)    The Assessing Officer had acted in contravention of the provisions of article 14 of the Constitution of India. Consequently, the order dated 31st March, 2021 issued u/s. 148 of the Act, the order rejecting the objections to reopening dated 22nd March, 2022, the assessment order dated March 31, 2022, the notice of demand dated
31st March, 2022 issued u/s. 156 of the Act, and the penalty notice dated 31st March, 2022 issued u/s. 271(1)(c) of the Act, were quashed and set aside.

iv)    The matter was remanded back to the Assessing Officer with specific direction to provide the assessee with the satisfaction note of the Principal Commissioner of Income-tax, granting approval for issue of notice and all other documents and material which formed the basis of reasons recorded by the Assessing Officer for issuing notice u/s. 148 of the Act and after giving opportunity to the assessee proceed to pass order.”

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments made by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice bared by limitation under unamended provisions — Notice issued on 30th June, 2021 to reopen assessment for A.Y. 2014–15 — Not valid.

39. Sunny Rashikbhai Laheri vs. ITO
[2023] 455 ITR 35 (Guj):
A.Y. 2014–15: Date of order: 21st March, 2023
Sections 148, 148A and 149 of ITA 1961.

Reassessment — Notice under section 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Effect of amendments made by Finance Act, 2021 — Notice bared by limitation under unamended provisions — Notice issued on 30th June, 2021 to reopen assessment for A.Y. 2014–15 — Not valid.

For the A.Y. 2014–15, a notice under section 148 (unamended) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was originally issued on 30th June, 2021. The said notice was treated as show-cause notice under section 148A(b) of the Act in the light of the decision of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs. Ashish Agarwal [2022] 444 ITR 1 (SC); and thereupon, the order under section 148A(d) was passed on 21st July, 2022. Consequential notice under section 148, dated 21st July, 2022 was also issued.

The assessee filed writ petition and challenged the order under section 148A(d), dated 21st July, 2022 and the notices under section 148. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    By the Finance Act, 2021, passed on March 28, 2021, and made applicable with effect from 1st April, 2021, section 148A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, was brought into force. It relates to conducting of inquiry and providing opportunity to the assessee before notice under section 148 of the Act could be issued. Along with substitution of new section 148A, section 149 of the Act was also recast by the Legislature. Section 149 as it stood immediately before commencement of the Finance Act, 2021, that is before 1st April, 2021 in the old regime, inter alia, provided for time limit for notice. It stated, inter alia, that no notice under section 148 shall be issued for the relevant assessment year, as per clause (b), if four years, but not more than six years, have elapsed from the end of the relevant assessment year unless the income chargeable to tax, which has escaped assessment, amounts to or is likely to amount to one lakh rupees or more for that year. In other words, limitation of six years from the end of the relevant assessment year operated as the time limit in the old regime for issuance of notice under section 148 beyond which period, it was not competent for the Assessing Officer to issue notice for reassessment.

ii)    This embargo continues in the new regime also. In view of the pandemic of March 2020 the Taxation and Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Other Laws (Relaxation and Amendment of Certain Provisions) Act, 2020 was passed. Various notifications were issued from time to time extending the time line prescribed under section 149. The 2020 Act is a secondary legislation. It would not override the principal legislation the Finance Act, 2021. Hence, all original notices under section 148 of the Act referable to the old regime and issued between 1st April, 2021 and June 30, 2021 would stand beyond the prescribed permissible time limit of six years from the end of the A.Y. 2013-14 and the A.Y. 2014-15. Therefore, all such notices relating to the A.Y. 2013-14 or the A. Y. 2014-15 would be time barred as per the provisions of the Act as applicable in the old regime prior to 1st April, 2021. Furthermore, these notices cannot be issued as per the amended provision of the Act.

iii)    The notice dated 30th June, 2021 issued by the Assessing Officer under section 148 of the Act, seeking to reopen the assessment in respect of A.Y. 2014-15, and the order dated 21st July, 2022 passed by the respondent under section 148A(d) of the Act, and all consequential actions, as may have been taken, were quashed and set aside.”

Deduction of tax at source — Recovery of demand — Bar against direct demand on assessee — Employer deducted tax at source from assessee’s salary but not paid into Government account — Assessee cannot be denied credit for tax deducted at source — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest of amount if any adjusted towards demand.

38. Milan Arvindbhai Patel vs. ACIT
[2023] 455 ITR 82 (Guj.)
A.Ys. 2010–11 to 2012–13: Date of order: 13th February, 2023
Sections 156, 205, 226 and 237 of ITA 1961.

Deduction of tax at source — Recovery of demand — Bar against direct demand on assessee — Employer deducted tax at source from assessee’s salary but not paid into Government account — Assessee cannot be denied credit for tax deducted at source — Assessee is entitled to refund with interest of amount if any adjusted towards demand.

The assessee was a pilot working with Kingfisher Airlines. The assessee received notice from the AO seeking recovery of outstanding demand of Rs. 19,40,707 for A.Y. 2011–12 and Rs. 25,12,913 for A.Y. 2012–13. In fact, the assessee was eligible for a refund of Rs. 45,570 for A.Y. 2012–13. However, since the amount deducted as TDS had not been deposited by the Airlines to the Central Government, the assessee’s claim for credit of TDS was denied. As a result, demand was raised along with interest.

The assessee filed a writ petition seeking to cancel the outstanding demands under section 156 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, to quash the recovery notices under section 226, and to recover the unpaid tax deducted at source from the assessee’s employer and refund under section 237 of the amount which was adjusted against the outstanding demands for the A.Ys. 2010–11, 2011–12 and 2012–13. The Gujarat High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i)    Section 205 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides that when tax is deductible at source, the assessee shall not be called upon to pay the tax himself to the extent to which the tax has been deducted from that income. Its applicability is not dependent upon the credit for tax deducted being given under section 199.

ii)    The Department could not deny the assessee the benefit of tax deducted at source by the employer from his salary during the relevant financial years. Credit for tax deducted at source should be given to the assessee and if in the interregnum any recovery or adjustment was made by the Department, the assessee was entitled to the refund with statutory interest.”

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of — Not retrospective — Expenditure in discharge of assessee’s obligation as mandated by law — Utilisation of funds by recipient irrelevant — Corporate social responsibility expenditure incurred by assessee for earlier years allowable.

37. Principal CIT vs. Steel Authority of India Ltd
[2023] 455 ITR 139 (Del)
Date of order: 6th January, 2023
Section 37(1) of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Capital or revenue expenditure — Corporate social responsibility expenditure — Amendment providing for disallowance of — Not retrospective — Expenditure in discharge of assessee’s obligation as mandated by law — Utilisation of funds by recipient irrelevant — Corporate social responsibility expenditure incurred by assessee for earlier years allowable.

The assessee was a public sector undertaking. The AO disallowed the assessee’s claim of the corporate social responsibility expenditure on the ground that the expenditure was made of enduring long-term benefits for the communities in which the assessee operated, and included establishments of medical facilities, sanitation, schools and houses and vocational training centres, and that it was to be treated as capital expenditure.

The CIT(A) held that the assessee did not establish any direct nexus between the incurring of the corporate social responsibility expenditure and the running of its business and upheld the order of the AO. The Tribunal held that prior to the insertion of Explanation 2 to Section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 with effect from 1st April, 2015, the settled legal position was that corporate social responsibility expenditure was allowable under section 37(1) until a specific bar for allowing such expenditure was introduced prospectively in 2014, and allowed the deduction.

The Delhi High Court dismissed the appeal filed by the Department and held as under:

“i)    Explanation 2 was inserted by the Finance Act, 2014 with effect from April 1, 2015 to section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and is prospective.

ii)    The Assessing Officer without specifying which part of the assessee’s corporate social responsibility expenditure was directed towards capital assets had straightaway held that the expenditure was capital in nature by taking into account, albeit illustratively, the purposes for which the recipient had utilized the funds. The capital asset on which the funds were utilised by the recipient was not the asset of the payer, i. e., the assessee. The assessee had provided funds in discharge of its obligation as mandated by law on the advice of the Department of Public Enterprises and therefore, it could not be said that the obligation placed on the assessee by law was not connected wholly and exclusively to its business.

iii)    There is nothing on record which would show that the assessee had directed investment of funds which were offered in fulfilment of discharge of its legal obligation in a capital asset. The Tribunal had concluded that the corporate social responsibility expenses incurred by the assessee were allowable under section 37. Explanation 2 appended to section 37(1) was not retrospective in nature. No question of law arose.”

Business expenditure — Broken period interest paid for purchase of securities held as stock-in-trade — Deductible expense.

36. CIT vs. State Bank of Hyderabad
[2023] 455 ITR 122 (Telangana.)
A.Y. 1998–99: Date of order: 4th January, 2023
Sections 28 and 37 of ITA 1961

Business expenditure — Broken period interest paid for purchase of securities held as stock-in-trade — Deductible expense.

The assessee, a banking company, filed its return of income for A.Y. 1998–99 and claimed deduction of broken period interest paid by it on purchase of securities which were held by the assessee bank as stock-in-trade. The AO denied the claim of the assessee by relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Vijaya Bank Limited vs. Addl.CIT (1991) 187 ITR 541(SC), wherein it was held that such expenditure was required to be capitalised and cannot be allowed as deduction. This view was confirmed by the CIT(A).

The Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that the assessee had purchased the securities to hold them as stock-in-trade, and therefore, the interest paid for broken period was allowable as deduction.

On appeal by the Department, the Telangana High Court upheld the view of the Tribunal and held as follows:

“i)    We find that it is the contention of the respondent that respondent had been holding its securities all along as stock-in-trade which is not in dispute. For successive assessment years, Revenue has accepted the fact that respondent had been holding the securities as stock-in-trade.

ii)    Circular No. 665 dated 5th October, 1993 of the CBDT has clarified the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijaya Bank Ltd (supra). CBDT has clarified that where the banks are holding securities as stock-in-trade and not as investments, principles of law enunciated in Vijaya Bank Ltd (supra) would not be applicable. Therefore, CBDT has clarified that assessing officer should determine on the facts and circumstances of each case as to whether any particular security constitute stock-in-trade or investment taking into account the guidelines issued by Reserve Bank of India from time to time.

iii)    It is in the above back drop that Tribunal has held that the respondent had purchased securities to hold them as stock-in-trade. Therefore, interest paid on such securities would be an allowable deduction.

iv)    We are in agreement with the finding returned by the Tribunal. That apart, this is a finding of fact rendered by the Tribunal and in an appeal u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 we are not inclined to disturb such a finding of fact, that too, when the legal position is very clear.”

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Limitation — Appeal should be heard within reasonable time.

35. Venkat Rao Paleti vs. CIT(A)
[2023] 455 ITR 48 (Telangana):
A.Y. 2017–18: Date of order: 13th March, 2023
Sections 246A and 250 of ITA 1961]

Appeal to Commissioner (Appeals) — Limitation — Appeal should be heard within reasonable time.

The assessee is an Individual. The assessment for A.Y. 2017–18 was completed in November 2019 by way of best judgment assessment order passed under section 144 of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The assessee filed appeal before the CIT(A) under section 246A of the Act in February 2020. The appeal was not taken up for hearing till March 2023. In the meanwhile, notice was issued for attaching the bank account of the assessee.

The assessee filed a writ petition seeking direction for expedited hearing of the appeal. The Telangana High Court allowed the writ and held as under:

i)    Grievance of the petitioner is that the appeal filed by him against the assessment order has not yet been taken up for hearing though three years have passed by and in the meanwhile, garnishee notices have been issued by respondent No. 2 to the banker of the petitioner.

ii)    Sub-section (6A) of section 250 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 says that in every appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals), where it is possible, may hear and decide such appeal within a period of one year from the end of the financial year in which such appeal is filed before him under sub-section (1) of section 246A of the Act. Though the provision pertains to appeals filed u/s. 246A of the Act, none the less the objective behind the provision is to hear an appeal as early as possible.

iii)    That being the position, we direct respondent No. 1 to take on board the appeal filed by the petitioner on February 23, 2020 against the assessment order dated November 14, for the A.Y. 2017–18 and dispose of the same within a period of three months from the date of receipt of a copy of this order.”

Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA (prior to its amendment) — Capital gain arising on sale of shares of Indian company is not taxable in India.

6. [TS-389-ITAT-2023(Del)]
SAIF II SE Investments Mauritius Limited vs. ACIT
[ITA No: 1812/Del/2022]
A.Y.: 2018-19               
Dated: 14th August, 2023

Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA (prior to its amendment) — Capital gain arising on sale of shares of Indian company is not taxable in India.

FACTS

Assessee is a Mauritius-based investment-cum-holding company. It derived long-term capital gains from sale of shares of NSE, an Indian company. Assessee contended that such long term capital gains were exempt under Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA. AO denied such exemption on the following grounds:

(a) Assessee was a conduit and the real owners of the income were ultimate holding companies, which were based in Cayman Islands.

(b) TRC was not sufficient to establish the tax residency of assessee, if substance established otherwise.

(c) There was no commercial rationale for establishment of the assessee company in Mauritius.

(d) Control and management of assessee was not in Mauritius.

DRP upheld order of AO.

Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

•    NSE was a regulated entity. Acquisition and sale of shares of NSE was approved by various regulatory authorities, such as, FIPB, SEBI, RBI, NSE. It can be assumed that regulatory authorities would have gone into the shareholding and financial structure of the assessee and its parent companies and all other relevant factors.

•    AO’s conclusion that assessee was an entity without commercial substance is contrary to the conclusion reached by above authorities.

•    TRC issued by an authority in the other tax jurisdiction is the most credible evidence to prove the residential status of an entity and the TRC cannot be doubted.

•    Accordingly, long term capital gains arising to assessee qualified for exemption under Article 13(4). Hence, it could not be taxed in India.  

Article 12 of India-USA DTAA — Payment received by Amazon for cloud services provided by it is not royalty or fees for included services in terms of Article 12 of DTAA.

5. [2023] 153 taxmann.com 45 (Delhi – Trib.)
Amazon Web Services, Inc. vs. ACIT
[ITA No: 522&523/Del/2023]
A.Y.: 2014-15 & A.Y.: 2016-17            
Dated: 1st August, 2023

Article 12 of India-USA DTAA — Payment received by Amazon for cloud services provided by it is not royalty or fees for included services in terms of Article 12 of DTAA.
 
FACTS

Assessee provided standard and automated cloud computing services named AWS Services to its customers across the globe. The customers electronically executed a standard contract available on its website. Case was reopened under section 147 of the Act. Assessee had contended that its income is not chargeable to tax. However, AO had passed order treating income of assessee as royalty/fees for included services under the Act and DTAA. DRP confirmed addition proposed by AO.
Being aggrieved, assessee appealed to ITAT.

HELD

Vis-à-vis taxation as Royalty
•    AWS Services are standard and automated services. They are publicly available online to everyone who executes a standard contract with the assessee.

•    For the following reasons, receipt is not in nature of royalty:

  •  Customers are granted a non-exclusive and non-transferable license to access services without the source code of the license.

  •     Customers have no right to use or commercially exploit the IP and no equipment is placed at the disposal of the customers.

  •     Customer has a limited, non-exclusive, revocable, non-transferable right to use AWS trademarks. Such use is only for identification of the customer who is using AWS Services for their computing needs.

  •     Incidental/ancillary support provided to the customers includes answering queries/troubleshooting for use of AWS Services subscribed by them. Support does not include code development, debugging, performing administrative task.

•    In reaching its conclusion, Tribunal followed the decision in undernoted cases where it was held that payment was not in nature of royalty.

Vis-à-vis taxation as fees for includes services

•    The services provided were in the form of general support, troubleshooting, etc. They did not result in any transfer of technology or knowledge which enabled the customers to develop and provide cloud computing services on their own in future.

•    AWS services provided by the assessee were standardised services that did not provide any technical services to its customers.

Section 68 — The department without dislodging the primary onus that was duly discharged by the appellant under section 68 of the Act could not have drawn adverse inferences and treat the transaction as unexplained cash credit.

29. ITO vs. Sharda Shree Agriculture & Developers (P.) Ltd
[2022] 99 ITR(T) 143 (Raipur – Trib.)
ITA No.:84 (RPR) OF 2017
A.Y.: 2012–13                    
Date: 5th August, 2022

Section 68 — The department without dislodging the primary onus that was duly discharged by the appellant under section 68 of the Act could not have drawn adverse inferences and treat the transaction as unexplained cash credit.

FACTS

During the relevant A.Y. 2012–13, the assessee company had received share application money of Rs. 26,00,000 from its directors and close relatives and had received share application money of Rs. 2,44,00,000 from two companies namely M/s Chandika Vanijiya Pvt Ltd and M/s Neel kamal Vanjiya Pvt Ltd Out of the above, the assessee company had refunded the amount of Rs. 26,00,000 to its directors and close relatives in the same A.Y. i.e., A.Y. 2012–13 and the assessee company had refunded amount of Rs. 38,50,500 to M/s Chandika Vanijiya Pvt Ltd in the same A.Y. i.e., A.Y. 2012–13 and balance amount of Rs. 95,00,000 in A.Y. 2015–16.

During the scrutiny proceedings, to substantiate the genuineness of the above transactions, the assessee company had submitted the following documents — copies of return of income along with computation of income, audited financial statements, details of bank accounts along with complete details of the share applicants. The Ld AO had passed the assessment Order under section 143(3) on 31st March, 2015 and made the following additions under section 68 of the Act on the ground that the transactions were not genuine:

i.    Opening balance in respect of Share Application money of Rs. 92,62,500

ii.    Share Application money received of Rs. 26,00,000 from its directors and close relatives

iii.    Share Application money received of Rs. 2,44,00,000 from two companies – M/s Chandika Vanijiya Pvt Ltd and M/s Neel Kamal Vanjiya Pvt Ltd.

The assessee company preferred an appeal before CIT(A). On appeal, the assessee company brought to the notice of the Ld CIT(A) that the Ld AO had issued notices under section 133(6) on 28th March, 2015 which were received by the investor companies based in Kolkata on  3rd April, 2015, i.e., after passing the assessment order dated 31st March, 2015, and the fact was supported by the endorsements of the postal department. The investor companies upon receipt of the notice under section 133(6) had filed their responses both by way of an Email dated 4th April, 2015, as well as reply was dispatched through speed post on 6th April, 2015. The Ld CIT(A) had remanded the matter to the Ld AO but the Ld AO failed to rebut the claim of the assessee company. The Ld CIT(A) had allowed the appeal on the following grounds:

i. Amount pertaining to opening balance cannot be added as unexplained cash credit u/s 68 and deleted the addition.

ii.    In respect of share application money of Rs. 26,00,000 and Rs. 2,44,00,000 during the year, the assessee company to substantiate the genuineness of the transaction had submitted the documentary evidences — in support thereof, viz. notarised affidavits of the investor companies and copies of the share application forms, audited financial statements, copies of the bank statements, confirmations of the share applicants, copies of the resolution passed in the meeting of the board of directors of the investor companies. The assessee company had proved the identity and creditworthiness of the investor companies and genuineness of the transaction and had discharged the onus under section 68 and hence deleted the addition.

iii.    The replies filed by the investor companies had also proved their identity and creditworthiness and affirmed the genuineness of the transaction.

Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the revenue filed further appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that there were twofold reasons that had primarily weighed with the Ld AO for drawing adverse inferences as regards the share application money/premium received by the assessee company from the aforesaid investor companies, which were:
i. That the notices issued under section133(6) of the Act were not complied with by the investor companies; and

ii. That the commission issued under section131(1)(d) of the Act had revealed that neither of the aforesaid companies were available at their respective addresses.

The Tribunal held that the Ld AO had failed to call the requisite details well within the reasonable time and that resulted in delay in furnishing of the reply by the investor companies. Further, the Tribunal also observed that the investor companies had furnished the requisite information and the same were found available on the assessment record. The Tribunal further observed that the assessee company in the course of the proceedings before the CIT(A) had furnished substantial documentary evidences to support the authenticity of its claim of having received share application money from the aforesaid investor companies, i.e., M/s Neel Kamal Vanijya Pvt. Ltd and M/s Chandrika Vanijya Pvt Ltd and when the CIT(A) remanded the matter to Ld AO, the Ld AO failed to rebut much the less dislodge the claim of the assessee company of having received genuine share application money from the aforesaid share subscribers.

The Tribunal viewed that both the investor companies had placed on record supporting documentary evidences which duly substantiated their identity and creditworthiness, as well as the genuineness of the transaction in question, which had neither been rebutted by the Ld AO in the course of the original assessment proceedings; nor in the remand proceedings, therefore, the department without dislodging the primary onus that was duly discharged by the assessee company could not have drawn adverse inferences as regards the transactions in question.

In result the appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

Section 10B(7) r.w.s. 80IA(10) — The onus is on the department to prove that there existed an arrangement between the assessee and its associate enterprises to earn more than the ordinary profit and if that is not established then there cannot be any addition and corresponding disallowance under the said provisions.

28. DCIT vs. Halliburton Technology Industries (P) Ltd
[2022] 99 ITR(T) 699 (Pune – Trib.)
ITA No.:277(PUNE) OF 2021
A.Y.: 2011–12     
Date: 10th June, 2022

Section 10B(7) r.w.s. 80IA(10) — The onus is on the department to prove that there existed an arrangement between the assessee and its associate enterprises to earn more than the ordinary profit and if that is not established then there cannot be any addition and corresponding disallowance under the said provisions.

FACTS

The assessee company was engaged in the export of IT enabled services [ITES] and was registered as a 100 per cent export-oriented undertaking with the SEEPZ special economic zone. The assessee company had filed its return of income for the relevant A.Y. 2011–12 on 30th November, 2011, and declared total income as NIL under normal provisions after claiming deduction under section 10B of the Act and a book profit of Rs. 9,60,43,389 under section 115JB of the Act. The case was selected for the scrutiny proceedings and the Ld AO observed that the assessee company had earned more than ordinary profits as the operating margin of the assessee company was 22.38 per cent and the operating margins of the comparable was 13.08 per cent. For this sole reason, the Ld AO was of the view that there was an arrangement between the assessee company and its associate enterprises that produced more than the ordinary profits to the assessee company and invoked the provisions of Section 10B(7) r.w.s. 80-IA(10) of the Act, thereby excluding the amount of Rs. 2,88,27,056 from the eligible profits claimed by the assessee company.
Aggrieved by the order, the assessee company had filed an appeal before the Ld CIT(A). The Ld CIT(A) had observed the following:

i.    That these international transactions of the assessee company had been accepted in the past by the TPO.

ii.    That the Ld AO had simply taken the mean margin of the comparables and neglected the comparables with more profit than the assessee company.

iii.    That the basis for arriving at the decision that the assessee company was having more than ordinary profits was not sound and;

iv.    That the Ld AO had not brought forward any proof of any arrangements for the disallowance under section 10B(7) r.w.s. 80-IA(10) of the Act.

The Ld CIT(A) relied on various judicial decisions placed before him and allowed the appeal of the assessee company. Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A),the revenue filed further appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) on the ground that it was mandatory for the Revenue to prove that there is some special arrangement between the assessee and its associated enterprise to earn extra profit. The Ld AO had specifically not demonstrated any proof of arrangement for disallowance under the provisions of section 10B(7) r.w.s. 80-IA(10) of the Act. The burden of proof had not been discharged by Ld AO.

The Tribunal relied on the following judicial pronouncements while deciding the matter:

i.    CIT vs. Schmetz India (P) Ltd [2016] 384 ITR 140 (Bom. HC) – approved by the Hon’ble SC.

ii.    Honeywell Automation India Ltd vs. DCIT [2015] Taxmann.com 539 (Pune – Trib)

iii.    Western Knowledge Systems & Solutions (India) Pvt Ltd [2012] 52 SOT 172 (Chennai)

iv.    Digital Equipment India Ltd vs. DCIT [2006] 103 TTJ 329 (Bang.)

v.    Visual Graphics Computing Services India (P) Ltd vs. ACIT [2012] 52 SOT 172 (Chennai) (URO)

vi.    Zavata India (P) Ltd vs. ITO [2013] 141 ITD 456 (Hyd. – Trib)

vii.    Visteon Technical & Services Centre (P) Ltd vs. Asstt. CIT [2012] 24 taxmann.com 353 (Chennai)

viii. A T Kearney India (P) Ltd vs. ITO [2015] 153 ITD 693 (Delhi – Trib)

ix. Eaton Industries (P) Ltd vs. ACIT in [IT Appeal No. 2544 (PUN) of 2012, dated 30th October, 2017]

x.    Honeywell Automation India Ltd vs. Dy CIT [2020] 115 taxmann.com 326 (Pune – Trib.)

In result the appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

Against a defect notice issued under section 139(9), an appeal lies to CIT(A) under section 246A(1)(a) as such notice has the effect of creating liability under the Act, which the assessee denies or would jeopardize refund.

27. V K Patel Securities Pvt Ltd vs. ADIT
ITA No. 1009/Mum./2023
A.Y.: 2019–20              
Date of Order: 20th June, 2023
Sections: 139(9)

Against a defect notice issued under section 139(9), an appeal lies to CIT(A) under section 246A(1)(a) as such notice has the effect of creating liability under the Act, which the assessee denies or would jeopardize refund.

FACTS
The assessee, a stock broker, filed its return of income for the year under consideration on 21st September, 2019 declaring a total income of Rs. 3,82,74,330. The CPC issued a defect notice u/s 139(9) of the Act with error “Tax Payer has shown gross receipts or income under the head ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ more than Rs. 1 crore, however, the books of accounts have not been audited.”

The CPC did not process the return of income filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved by the above said defect notice issued by CPC, the assessee filed “e-Nivaran Grievance”, against which response communication was issued on 16th February, 2021, invalidating the return filed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee challenged the said defect notice, by filing an appeal before the CIT(A), who dismissed the appeal of the assessee holding that there is no provision to file appeal against the defect notice issued under section 139(9) of the Act.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that the Pune bench of ITAT has held in the case of Deere & Company vs. DCIT [(2022) 138 taxmann.com 46 (Pune)] has held that the defect notice issued under section 139(9) of the Act has the effect of creating liability under the Act, which the assessee denies or would jeopardize refund. Hence it will get covered within the ambit of section 246A(1)(a) of the Act.
The Tribunal held that in view of the said decision of Pune bench of ITAT, the defect notice issued under section 139(9) is appealable, if the assessee denies its liability or if it would jeopardise the refund.

The Tribunal set aside the order passed by the CIT(A) and held that the assessee could file an appeal in the instant case.

Whether Provision Is Required For Net Zero Commitment

Many Companies have publicly committed to become net zero on carbon emissions by a certain future date. They have also expressed that commitment on their web-site or regulatory filings. The question is whether a provision is required for the expected cost to be incurred to become a net zero company by a certain future date.

QUERY

Clean Company Limited (CCL) has publicly committed to become net zero on carbon emissions by 2030. CCL has expressed that commitment on their web-site as well as certain regulatory filings. CCL has outlined several initiatives, three of them are as follows:

a)    CCL operates in Odisha, where rice covers about 65 per cent of the cultivated area. CCL has committed to adopt biomass co-firing using rice husk for its Odisha power plant. The initiative would result in 20 per cent of its power requirement being produced with biomass by 2030, a sustainable alternative to coal. Additional costs would be incurred in the future for the said project.

b)    By 2030, CCL has committed that it would stop manufacturing petrol vehicles and will only manufacture electric vehicles. CCL will scrap its factory manufacturing petrol vehicles in 2030 and will also incur significant expenditure in building a new plant to manufacture electric vehicles.

c)    By 2030, CCL will enforce net zero requirements on all its sub-contractors; as a result, the prices the sub-contractor will charge CCL will go up by 25 per cent.

Whether a provision is required for the expected cost to be incurred on the above future initiatives?

Also, CCL has contaminated land by dumping hazardous material in the backyard of its factory. The management got wind of it only recently when it conducted an exhaustive environmental audit. The enterprise has not violated any existing legislation; however, it belongs to an international group which maintains high environmental standards and has a stated policy that they stand committed to cleaning up such environmental damage. Whether a provision for the environmental clean-up is required?

RESPONSE

References in Ind AS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets

PARAGRAPH 10 DEFINITIONS

A liability is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefits.

An obligating event is an event that creates a legal or constructive obligation that results in an entity having no realistic alternative to settling that obligation.

A constructive obligation is an obligation that derives from an entity’s actions where: (a) by an established pattern of past practice, published policies or a sufficiently specific current statement, the entity has indicated to other parties that it will accept certain responsibilities; and (b) as a result, the entity has created a valid expectation on the part of those other parties that it will discharge those responsibilities.

OTHER PARAGRAPHS

18. Financial statements deal with the financial position of an entity at the end of its reporting period and not its possible position in the future. Therefore, no provision is recognised for costs that need to be incurred to operate in the future. The only liabilities recognised in an entity’s balance sheet are those that exist at the end of the reporting period.

19. It is only those obligations arising from past events existing independently of an entity’s future actions (i.e., the future conduct of its business) that are recognised as provisions. Examples of such obligations are penalties or clean-up costs for unlawful environmental damage, both of which would lead to an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits in settlement regardless of the future actions of the entity. Similarly, an entity recognises a provision for the decommissioning costs of an oil installation or a nuclear power station to the extent that the entity is obliged to rectify damage already caused. In contrast, because of commercial pressures or legal requirements, an entity may intend or need to carry out expenditure to operate in a particular way in the future (for example, by fitting smoke filters in a certain type of factory). Because the entity can avoid the future expenditure by its future actions, for example, by changing its method of operation, it has no present obligation for that future expenditure, and no provision is recognised.

ANALYSIS & CONCLUSION

As per the definitions in Ind AS 37, a liability is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefits. The present obligation could be a legal obligation or a constructive obligation. A constructive obligation is an obligation that derives from an entity’s actions where: (a) by an established pattern of past practice, published policies or a sufficiently specific current statement, the entity has indicated to other parties that it will accept certain responsibilities; and (b) as a result, the entity has created a valid expectation on the part of those other parties that it will discharge those responsibilities.

Future expenditure to be incurred by CCL to adopt biomass renewable practices is not a present obligation that arises from any past event. In this situation, there is no past event that has occurred. Though CCL will have to incur the cost to adopt biomass, and it has committed to do so, no provision is required as there is no past event that has occurred. This is abundantly clear under Paragraphs 18 and 19 presented above. No provision is recognised for costs that need to be incurred to operate in the future, even when an entity stands committed to incur those costs.

For reasons already stated above, no provision is required for setting up a new plant to manufacture electric vehicles. With respect to the existing plant that is manufacturing petrol vehicles, the same is to be scrapped by 2030. Accordingly, CCL will have to re-estimate the useful life of this plant to end by 2030. This will impact CCL assessment of the depreciation and impairment charge for the plant, starting from the period CCL made the commitment.

Similarly, increase in sub-contracting cost for future periods is not a present obligation arising from past event. Rather, it is a cost of operating in the future and hence, no provision for the same is required to be made. In future periods, the profit and loss account will reflect the increase in sub-contracting costs on an ongoing basis.

CCL has contaminated land by dumping hazardous material in the backyard of its factory. The enterprise has not violated any existing legislation; however, it belongs to an international group which maintains high environmental standards. The past event is the contamination of land. There is no legal obligation but there is constructive obligation arising from the stated policies of the Group. In the given situation, there is a present obligation which is not a legal obligation but is a constructive obligation. The company is obligated by its Group policies and hence, provision is required for the contamination that has already occurred in the past (a past event), though the actual clean-up may take place much later.

Tax Audit and Penalty under Section 271B

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
A failure to get accounts audited or to obtain and furnish the audit report as required under section 44AB is made liable to a penalty under section 271B of a sum equal to 0.5 per cent of the total sales, turnover or gross receipts of business or profession subject to a ceiling of Rs. 1,50,000.

The provision of section 271B, introduced by the Finance Act, 1984, has undergone various changes from time to time, including the omission of the words “without reasonable cause” with effect from 10th September, 1986. Presently, the failure to get the accounts audited or to obtain and furnish an audit report, as required under section 44AB, are made liable to penalty subject to the discretion of the AO. Section 273B provides that no penalty shall be imposable where the person proves that he had a reasonable cause for the failure specified under section 271B. Section 274 provides that no order imposing a penalty shall be made unless the Assessee has been heard or is given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Section 44AA read with Rule 6F requires maintenance of books of account and other documents to enable the AO to compute the total income in accordance with the provisions of the Act. Failure to keep and maintain the books of account and other documents as required by section 44AA is made liable to penalty under section 271A of a sum of Rs. 25,000 with effect from 1st April, 1976 at the discretion of the AO where there is no reasonable cause.

An issue has arisen about the possibility of levy of penalty under section 271B for failure to get accounts audited in cases where no books of account are maintained. Conflicting views are available on the subject supported by the decisions of different benches of the ITAT. The Ranchi Bench of the tribunal has held that it is possible to levy penalty under section 271B even where books of account are not maintained, while the Delhi Bench has held that no such penalty is leviable where no books of account are maintained.

RAKESH KUMAR JHA’S CASE

The issue arose in the case of Rakesh Kumar Jha vs. ITO, 224 TTJ (Ranchi) 11 before the Ranchi Bench of the tribunal. In that case, the Assessee was running the business of tuition classes and was required to maintain books of account and get such books of account audited. The Assessee had maintained the books of account that were rejected by the AO. However, the Assessee had failed to get the books of account audited. The income of the Assessee was estimated by the AO by applying provisions of section 145(3) of the Act which act of estimation was confirmed by the tribunal under a separate order. A penalty under section 271B was levied by the AO for the failure to get the books of account audited and the levy of penalty was confirmed in appeal by the CIT(A). In the further appeal before the tribunal, the Assessee contended that his books of account were rejected, and therefore, he was held to have not maintained the proper books of account as prescribed. It was, therefore, not possible for him to get the accounts audited under section 44AB of the Act, and in that view of the matter, it was not possible to levy penalty under section 271B for not getting the accounts audited.

The Assessee relied on the decision of the Allahabad High Court in the case of CIT vs. Bisauli Tractors, 217 CTR 558 to plead that no penalty under section 271B was leviable. The tribunal noted that the Assessee had maintained the books of account that were rejected by the AO and his income was estimated and which act of estimation had become final by the order of the tribunal. It found that the decision of the Allahabad High Court was not applicable to the facts of the case of the Assessee, in as much as the Assessee in the case before the tribunal had maintained the books of account, but had failed to get the same audited, and therefore, the levy of penalty by the AO was in order. Importantly, the tribunal held that even otherwise, the penalty could have been levied under section 271B for the failure to get the books of account audited where no books of account were maintained, after analysing the provisions of sections 44AA and 44AB and the provisions of levy of penalty under sections 271A and 271B.

The tribunal noted that those provisions were independent of each other and so operated by prescribing specific requirements on the assessee and by providing separate penalties for the respective non-compliances. In para 6 of the order, it gave an example to highlight that reading the provisions collectively might confer unjust benefit to the person who had not maintained books of account and had claimed that no penalty under section 271B should be levied and the penalty, if levied, should be the one under section 271A, only. The said paragraph reads as under: “Suppose there are two persons namely, Ram and Shyam. Both are required to maintain their books of account and also get those audited as required under ss. 44AA and 44AB. Ram maintains his books of account but did not get those audited, whereas Shyam did not maintain his book of accounts at all and there was no question of audit of the same as the books did not exist at all. Under these circumstances, if the contention of the learned counsel is to be accepted, Ram will be subjected to higher penalty under s. 271B of the Act, whereas Shyam who has committed double default would escape with lesser penalty. This proposition, in our humble view, is neither legally justified nor it can pass the test of application of principles of justice, equity and good conscience.”

The tribunal held that to exclude the case of a person from levy of penalty under section 271B on the ground that he has not maintained books of account was not justified legally, and was in violation of the principals of justice, equity and good conscience.

The tribunal extensively referred to the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Bharat Construction Co vs. ITO, 153 CTR 414 wherein the order of the AO levying penalty under section 271B for not getting the accounts audited, preceded by the proceedings for levy of penalty under section 271A for non-maintenance of books, was upheld by the High Court on the ground that the defaults contemplated under the two provisions were separate and distinct.

The tribunal accordingly upheld the order of AO, levying penalty under section 271B and dismissed the appeal of the Assessee.

TARANJEET SINGH ALAGH’S CASE

The issue again arose in the case of Taranjeet Singh Alagh vs. ITO, in ITA No. 787/Del/2020 for A.Y. 2015–16. In this case for A.Y. 2015–16, the Assessee was found to have not maintained the books of account and had not obtained the audit report. The AO had initiated the penalty proceedings under section 271A for not maintaining the books of account and under section 271B for not obtaining and furnishing the Tax Audit Report. The AO later dropped the proceedings under section 271A but levied the penalty under section 271B of the Act. The order of the AO was confirmed by the CIT(A).

On further appeal, it was contended in writing by the Assessee before the tribunal that the AO was convinced that no books of account were maintained, and of the reason for not maintaining the books; he had, therefore, dropped the penalty proceedings under section 271A of the Act.

It was further contended that no penalty under section 271B was maintainable where no books of account were maintained, as no audit was possible. Reliance was placed on the decision of the bench in the case of Chander Prakash Batra, ITA No. 4305/Del./2011 to support the proposition that no penalty could have been levied.

The tribunal noted the facts, particularly, the fact that the Assessee was held to be not in default under section 271A. It proceeded to hold that no penalty under section 271B was leviable where books of account were not maintained, and the reason for not maintaining the books was found to be justified by the AO. Paragraph 4.1 of the order reads as under: “We have given our thoughtful consideration to the present appeal, admittedly, the penalty was initiated U/s 271A of the Act for non-maintenance of books of account as well as under s. 271B for not complying with the provisions of section 44AB of the Act regarding the auditing of the account. The penalty for non-maintenance on books of account was dropped but the penalty for not getting the accounts audited is sustained. We find merits into the contentions of the Assessee that if he was not guilty of non maintaining of books of account, the presumption would be that he shall not required to maintain the books of account. Under these undisputed facts, imposing penalty for non auditing of books of account is not justified. Therefore, we hereby direct the Assessing authority to delete the penalty.

The appeal of the Assessee was allowed by the Tribunal, and the penalty was deleted.

OBSERVATIONS
There are two distinct provisions, one requires the maintenance of books of account by specified persons in certain prescribed cases, and another provision requires the audit of accounts that were required to be maintained by the first provision. Section 44A provides for maintenance of accounts, while section 44AB requires the audit of accounts that are required to be maintained by section 44A of the Act.

There are distinct provisions for levy of penalty for two different defaults. One for penalising an Assessee under section 271A for the offence of not maintaining books of account, and the second for penalising him under section 271B for not getting the accounts audited, and obtaining the audit report and filing it in time. These two provisions are separate and are provided for by two distinct provisions introduced at different points of time for penalising two different offences.

In the circumstances, where two separate defaults are committed, for which two separate penalties are provided for, on first blush, it is possible to levy two separate penalties. While this may be true in cases where two offences are not interrelated and are independent and distinct, in the case under consideration, however, the second offence is related to the first, and the second offence can happen only where the person has committed the first offence. This peculiar situation requires us to address the possibility of considering whether the second offence can at all be penalised when the person has already been penalised for the first offence. In other words, can the second offence be ever committed where the books of account are not maintained at all? Can a law require the audit of accounts which are not maintained at all? It seems not. To require a person to get the accounts audited, obtain an audit report and file the same in a case where he has not maintained the books at all; in his case, an audit is an impossibility, and therefore, he cannot be penalised for not doing something which was impossible.

The Allahabad High Court precisely held that no penalty was leviable for not obtaining the audit report in cases where the Assessee had otherwise not maintained the books of account — Bisauli Tractors (supra). The court appreciated that the Assessee could not have got the accounts audited when he had not maintained the books at all. The court rightly held that in such situations, it was appropriate for the authorities to have initiated and levied penalty under section 271A.

The Madhya Pradesh High Court noticed that the offences were separate, and for which separate penalties were provided for in the law and, therefore, did not see any reason why two penalties for separate defaults could not be levied. In confirming the penalty under section 271B, had the court realised that the two offences were interrelated and the first offence, once committed, had rendered impossible the commitment of the second offence, it might not have confirmed the penalty for the second offence.

Importantly, the main and only issue before the court was whether the notice issued under section 271B, and the pursuant order of penalty passed suffered from the law of limitation under section 275(b) or not. The court, while upholding the actions of the AO observed, though it was not called upon to do so, stated that it was possible to pass separate orders due to different provisions of law that provided for penalty at the varying rates. With due respect to the Ranchi bench, the tribunal should have ignored or treated the observations of the court at the best as obiter dicta, not having the force of precedent. Had the case before the bench been decided independent of the observations, maybe the outcome would have been more forceful.

The Allahabad High Court, for its decision, drew analogy from the cases decided under the sales tax laws applicable to the State of Uttar Pradesh. Those were the cases where the court found that the levy of two penalties was not called for, though the defaults were not parallel. Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, not deducting tax at sourceis an offense and not depositing tax is another offense,but a person is not penalised twice; the reason being the two are interrelated, the second cannot be penalised where the person is penalised for the first, i.e., for not deducting.

Section 273B saves cases from levy of penalty in cases where the failure was for a reasonable cause and what better cause can be conceived for the defence under section 271B, where the books of account are not maintained at all.

There is no need for the AO to issue reopening notice before the expiry of time available to file return under section 139(4) and that too before the end of the assessment year itself. Reopening of an assessment cannot be resorted to as an alternative for not selecting a case for scrutiny.

26. Uttarakhand Poorv Sainik Kalyan Nigam Ltd vs. ITO
ITA No. 3129/Delhi/2018
A.Y. : 2014–15               
Date of Order : 23rd June, 2023
Sections : 139(4), 147

There is no need for the AO to issue reopening notice before the expiry of time available to file return under section 139(4) and that too before the end of the assessment year itself. Reopening of an assessment cannot be resorted to as an alternative for not selecting a case for scrutiny.


FACTS
For the assessment year 2014–15, the assessee filed its return of income belatedly under section 139(4), on 6th October, 2015, declaring total income to be Rs. Nil after claiming exemption of Rs. 5,11,44,966 under section 10(26BB) of the Act. This return of income was not selected for scrutiny by the AO.

The AO, in fact, prior to the date of filing of return of income by the assessee issued a notice under section 148 of the Act on 22nd January, 2015, i.e., before end of the assessment year itself and before expiry of time available to assessee to file belated return.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) where interalia it raised this issue of reopening notice, being issued before the end of the assessment year itself. The CIT(A) decided this ground against the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal interalia challenging the validity of assumption of jurisdiction by learned AO in the reassessment proceedings.

HELD
The Tribunal observed that:

i)    The assessee had time to file return belatedly under section 139(4) of the Act up to 31st March, 2016. While this is so, there is absolutely no need for the AO to issue reopening notice under section 148 of the Act. The AO could have selected the belated return filed by the assessee for scrutiny and proceeded to determine the total income of the assessee in the manner known to law.

ii)    When the due date for filing the belated return of income under section 139(4) of the Act was available to the assessee, the AO prematurely reopened the assessment by issuing notice under section 148 of the Act on 22nd January, 2015 much before the end of the assessment year itself.

iii)    Against the belated return of income filed by the assessee under section 139(4) of the Act on  6th October, 2015, the AO had time to issue notice under section 143(2) of the Act till 30th September, 2016.

iv)    When the return of income is not filed within the due date prescribed under section 139(1) of the Act, the AO is entitled as per the statute to issue notice under section 142(1) of the Act calling for the return of income. Without resorting to this statutory provision, the AO cannot directly proceed to reopen the assessment. In any case, when the due date for filing the return of income is available in terms of section 139(4) of the Act to the assessee, how there could be any satisfaction on the part of the learned AO to conclude that the income of the assessee has escaped assessment.

The Tribunal held:

i)    Nothing prevented the AO to select the filed returns for scrutiny, and frame the assessment in accordance with law. When this provision is available with the AO, where is the need to issue reopening notice that too before the end of the assessment year itself. The Tribunal declared the reopening notice issued u/s 148 of the Act to be premature;

ii)    In any case, the revenue cannot resort to reopening proceedings merely because a particular return is not selected for scrutiny. Reopening of an assessment cannot be resorted to as an alternative for not selecting a case for scrutiny. There should be conscious formation of belief based on tangible information that income of an assessee had escaped assessment;

iii)    The issue in dispute has already been adjudicated by the co-ordinate Bench of Delhi Tribunal in ITO vs. Momentum Technologies Pvt Ltd [ITA No.5802/Del/2017 dated 31st March, 2021 for A.Y. 2011–12]. Similar view was also addressed by the co-ordinate Bench of Bombay Tribunal in Bakimchandra Laxmikant vs. ITO [(1986) 19 ITD 527 (Bombay)].

iv)    Following the judicial precedents mentioned hereinabove, the Tribunal quashed the reassessment proceedings framed by the AO as void abinitio.

Third proviso to section 50C being a beneficial provision, the benefit extended by third proviso to section 50C should be extended to a case where value determined by stamp valuation authority has been substituted by the value determined by DVO.

25. Smt. Krishna Yadav vs. ITO    
ITA No. 2496/Del/2017 (Delhi)
A.Y.: 2005–06            
Date of Order: 22nd February, 2022
Section: 50C

Third proviso to section 50C being a beneficial provision, the benefit extended by third proviso to section 50C should be extended to a case where value determined by stamp valuation authority has been substituted by the value determined by DVO.

FACTS
The assessee, an individual, filed return of income, for assessment year 2005–06, declaring total income of Rs. 46,18,500. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that during the year under consideration, the assessee has sold immovable property consisting of land and constructed portion for a sale consideration of Rs. 90 Lakh. The Stamp Valuation Authority has determined the value of the property at Rs. 1,02,36,200.

The AO issued a show cause-notice to the assessee to explain, why the value determined by the Stamp Valuation Authority should not be considered as deemed sale consideration. Though, the assessee objected to the proposed action of the AO, rejecting assessee’s submission, the AO proceeded to substitute the declared sale consideration with the value determined by the Stamp Valuation Authority in terms of section 50C of the Act. Hence, the AO proceeded to compute short term capital gain by making an addition of Rs. 12,36,200.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who directed the AO to refer the valuation of the property to DVO. Consequently, the DVO determined the value of the property at Rs. 92,37,400 as on the date of sale. Thus, based on the value determined by the DVO, the Commissioner (Appeals) restricted the addition on the ground of short term capital gain to Rs. 2,37,500 being the difference between the declared sale consideration and the value determined by the DVO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD
The Tribunal observed that:

i)    It is a fairly accepted position that the valuation of asset involves some amount of guess work and estimation;

ii)    Consequent to determination of the fair market value of the immovable property transferred by the assesse, the difference between the declared sale consideration and the value determined by the DVO has narrowed down to Rs. 2,37,400;

iii)    After determination of market value of asset as on the date of sale by the DVO, the difference between the declared sale consideration and the market value is within the range of 5 per cent, as referred to, in third proviso to section 50C(1) of the Act;

iv)    There are various judicial precedents, wherein, it has been held that the third proviso to section 50C(1) of the Act introduced by Finance Act, 2018, w.e.f., 1st April, 2019, will apply retrospectively. In this context, the decision of the Tribunal in the case of Maria Fernandes Cheryl vs. ITO, [2021] 123 taxmann.com 252 (Mum.) was referred to.

The Tribunal held that the third proviso to section 50C being a beneficial provision, in our considered opinion, the said benefit should be extended to the assessee, as, ultimately the value determined by the Stamp Valuation Authority has been substituted by DVO’s valuation in terms of sub-section (3) of section 50C of the Act. The Tribunal held that the addition of Rs. 2,37,400 towards short-term capital gain needs to be deleted.

Chatting Up About India: Technology Not Just For a Few, But For All

INDIA UP–STEP CHANGE ACCELERATION
Recently, I had a friend and her family visit us. The next day, she sent a thank you message to convey her enjoyment. She also messaged to say that her eight-year-old son felt our conversation reminded him of Elon Musk, as we talked in an out-of-the-box way about India and many other contemporary topics.

Just last month, the parking contractor near my office changed. When I asked for the new bank details to make an advance payment for the month, he said he didn’t remember his bank account but pulled out a laminated QR code card. He asked, “Why don’t you pay with this; Don’t you have a mobile to pay?”

Both these experiences suggest two points: An eight-year-old knows who Elon Musk is and what he does, and looks up to him, and even the parkingwala carries a laminated QR code card for bank transfers.

These are important changes: how and what children think, who they look up to, and, therefore, what they aspire for have changed. At the street level, the common man wants to receive funds digitally. This is perhaps where we are after 75 years of swaraj looking more ambitious and more confident about the future we want to make. We are using technology that rewards the common man. I haven’t seen this at any time in my life where structural changes at the bottom of the pyramid are visible in how people like things to be done.

SPREAD, SCALE AND SPEED

These are just two examples, but we see this happening all across. Indians are not doing MORE OF SOMETHING, but MORE INDIANS are doing what they did not do previously. This is a MAJOR change. When household loans increase, the newspapers report about Indians taking more loans. Actually, it’s not more finance taken by households; it is more households taking finance.

This is the current “Ubiquitous State of India”, the word used by Mr Nandan Nilekani. What is happening is dramatic for its spread, scale and speed. As an Indian born and brought up in a closed economy and who didn’t know anything better for years, this is the best time I have seen so many people going through. As a 20-year-old, I have stood in line to submit forms at ROC, Mumbai. I have had people come home to make phone calls or STD calls. I have seen my father get a Padmini car after a request to the MD of Premier Auto. I saw the first colour TV come home in 1982 around the Asian Games, and only a couple of people had it in our apartment block. Over the years, I have seen changes in many areas percolate so slowly within society — without scale, with hesitation, with controlled supply. The generation before me saw the White Revolution (and India today is the largest milk producer in the world). In the past, India had to dance to the tunes of America for food grains, while today, India produces record food grain production, and its buffer stocks are higher than they should be consistently. My father went to America in the late 1960s and got a few US dollars for a trip of several weeks as currency was limited. The list is endless.

Despite challenges, the ‘change’ that we are witnessing today is ubiquitous in spread, universal in reach, unifying in consequence, empowering people, and democratising the nation, like never before.

#INDIAUP
We had Mr Sajjan Jindal addressing members on BCAS Founding Day 2023. He spoke about how India used to be like a woman who was pregnant but never delivered. This has changed. We are now seeing DELIVERY.

I use the heading of this paragraph as a hashtag (#) for my social media posts on LinkedIn whenever I am happy about a new statistic about India. I was inspired to write this article only to gather and connect so many data points and articulate some of the orbit-changing movements in celebration of 75 years of Swaraj. Some of these changes will not only nourish the good and desirable and bring prosperity to many in Bharat but will bring well-being to many beyond our borders.
 
For this quarter, BCAS has a theme of Technology. And so, I will cover aspects of the technology spectrum that have and are changing our lives — not just for a few but for all. Here are some of our favourite moments that have transformed the Bharat of our times.

JIO — Connecting Bharat

The JIO revolution is nothing short of magic1. From its launch on 5th September, 2016, India changed. Mr Ambani said in that epic talk: “India and Indians cannot afford to be left behind. Today, India is ranked 155th in the world for mobile broadband internet access out of 230 countries. Jio is conceived to change this.” 4 GB per day of free data for months was a great beginning to penetrate the market. Indians consumed 200 MB of data per month prior to Jio. Within months, India was the world’s top data-consuming nation — 1 billion GB of data per month. Free data calls made those who didn’t have phones buy a handset. Cost-effective handsets enabled crores of people and brought them into the connected world. By 2018, access to the internet in the hinterland went up to 35 per cent. The cost of data which was R250 for 1 GB pre Jio, came down to R13 per GB in 2022, a 95 per cent fall in cost in six years. Tell me one country in our league that has witnessed the same at this scale.

From being telephone short to booking calls and doing telexes, to telephone expensive, we saw free voice and data for months. Data consumption today: from 0.5 GB a month to 0.5 GB a day per person (30X increase in data consumption in 2016–17). Jio revolution cannot be exaggerated. Bharatiya Tech Timeline (if there were to be one) can be named Jio Era — Before Jio Era (BJE) and After Jio Era (AJE)!

Without this moment, the Digital Dream would be just that — a dream. In 2016, only 32.64 Crore transactions were done through UPI. The broadband subscribers across all service providers increased from 1.923 Crores (September 2016) to 80 Crores (June 2022), and the average internet speed increased five times between March 2016 and April 2022 (23.16 MBPS).

Unicorns can also be compared to BJE and AJE: from four unicorns to 100 plus in 2023. Zomato formally thanked Jio2. During lockdowns, Jio Fibre and many others became a lifeline for many people and businesses, from movies to work to studies to ordering groceries to YouTubers making videos … the list is endless. Indian governments and politicians have a special detestation for entrepreneurs and money. I think it’s time someone thanked Jio and others who were forced to join in for enabling this change. Many of the social welfare schemes wouldn’t be possible in their reach and scale without this transformation across the telecom sector! India today has reached a total tele density of 85 per cent, and wireless is 97.65 per cent of the total3.

____________________________________________________________

1   I am a Reliance shareholder, but a Bharatiya
first.

2   23rd July, 2021, livemint.com

3   TRAI Report, 31st May, 2023

UPI — Integration of Bharat by QR
UPI was conceived in 2013. It was implemented in 2016. In October 2016, UPI did 100,000 transactions. In October 2022, it did 865 Crores (8.65 Billion) of transactions a month4. The goal of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is 1 Billion transactions a day. In 2023, UPI is the world’s largest digital transaction system, with 30 Crore (300 million) Indians using it, and 50 Crore (500 Million) merchants accepting it5. It took decades to reach 50–60 Lac POS machines (Point of Sale — Cards Swiping Machines). POS are costly hardware and have much higher charges by banks / card companies. With UPI, merchants don’t need hardware, just a QR code! Not only that, but anyone can also put in a QR code, and anyone can pay with that QR code (a PhonePe QR code can accept from the Google Pay App). So, from 60 Lac POS machines in 60 years to touching 60 Crores QR codes in six to seven years is a record.

Rs. 14 Trillion is the value of monthly real-time mobile payments6. Imagine the formalisation that has happened due to UPI / wallets. Money that stayed outside the system is now part of the system. UPI is adding voice commands to this in the local language or doing offline transactions of smaller values. In the LIC IPO, more than 50 per cent applications came through UPI.

____________________________________________________________

4   Indiastack.org

5   https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/blogs/voices/the-rise-of-upi-transforming-the-way-indians-transact/

6  
Indiastack.org

The benefits have been phenomenal. It is cost-effective and mostly free. UPI is useful for small purchases, unlike the cash hassles of change to give or take and torn / fake notes. It is instant and secure. It is much easier than using cards. Safety and Privacy have so far been under control. UPI means that money doesn’t leave the bank account, and therefore, one earns interest. All credit goes to NPCI, formed by RBI and IBA.

To my mind, UPI, too, is nothing short of magic. I have lived in a world that sent cheques for collection. Paper clearing was 1 per cent in 2022 and 44.7 per cent in 2013. Retail electronic clearing was 23.6 per cent in 2013; it is now 81.4 per cent in 2022.

In value terms, UPI is 86 per cent of the Indian GDP7 in 2022. 40 per cent of all global digital payments go via UPI8. It is the world’s largest real-time payments network, with $1.2 Trillion transactions on UPI and $1 Billion in FY2016–17 to $560 Billion in 2020–21.

_______________________________________________________

7.https://www.nic.in/blogs/digital-payments-driving-the-growth-of-digital-economy/#:~:text=Interestingly%2C%20the%20total%20UPI%20transaction,volume%20stands%20on%2083.75%20Billion

8 https://government.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/digital-payments/upi-processes-40-of-global-real-time-payments-nipl-ceo-ritesh-shukla/100840766#:~:text=UPI%20processes%2040%25%20of%20global,CEO%20Ritesh%20Shuk%2C%20ET%20Governmenttransaction,volume%20stands%20on%2083.75%20Billion

Everyone from the chaiwala to paanwala to sandwichwala to taxi wala to bhuttawala to paperwala — every other ‘wala’ — take money via QR codes. QR is the default mode of payment. Today, 15 per cent of Indian businesses and 99 per cent transactions are cleared digitally. Income digitisation means it is impossible to go ‘black’ due to the money trail.

India Embraces Digital Payments Over Cash, Even for a 10-Cent Chai. The size and scale of India’s digital fast payments is enormous. It is 11x of USA & Europe & 4x of China. Mobiles are the virtual bank. – The New York Times.9

Here is a snapshot from the NPCI website:

Year

Volume
in Mn Transactions

Value in Rs crores

2021 – April

2641

4,93, 663

2022 – April

4,617

8,31,993.11

2023 – March

8,651

14,04,950.59

 

___________________________________________________________

9.https://twitter.com/amitabhk87/status/163113899008981401640%25%20of%20global,CEO%20Ritesh%20Shukla%2C%20ET%20Governmenttransaction,volume%20stands%20on%2083.75%20Billion



FASTag
This single step has saved fuel, time and dealing in cash at the toll booth. This is another offering from NPCI. Cars now do not have to stop most of the time. FASTag alone has saved Rs. 70,000 Crores ($8.4 Billion) of fuel10. Toll plazas taking FASTag, as per this report, have gone up from 770 to 1228 as of July 2023. FASTag is also used at several parking lots. The toll revenue has increased, and leakages decreased: from $770 Million in 2013–24 to $5 Billion in 2022–23, as per the same report. FASTag is the UPI for the vehicle.

Now combine the above with GST and good roads. The transporter that took seven days to reach Delhi can manage it in half the time. This improves his capital usage efficiency by 100 per cent as his truck can do twice the work in the same amount of time, and therefore, his ROI also goes up, so does his cash flow, and so does his repayment of loan he may have taken to buy the vehicle.
 
Financial Inclusion — Weaving prosperity
What could have taken 46–47 years happened in nine years11! The bank account opening in 2014 was a magic transformation. There is a Rs. 1.99 Lac Crores12 balance in the Jan Dhan Accounts alone. The pride of a rural sister having a bank account and being able to walk into a bank is priceless. Zero balance accounts have helped people open bank accounts often for the first time. From a hugely unbanked country to one of the most banked countries. RBI announced a composite FI-Index based on three parameters — Access (35 per cent), Usage (45 per cent) and Quality (20 per cent), consisting of 97 parameters.

Amongst the poorest 40 per cent of households, account ownership went up from 27 per cent (2011) to 77 per cent (2017), and the same trend for women account holders. Here, too, availability of mobiles and cheap data helped people reach their bank accounts without reaching the bank.

Some innovative models are under planning to lend money to very small businesses based on their cash flow instead of collaterals, which often a street vendor may not have. Now that she has a record of UPI cash flows, she can prove that she is generating so much cash flows daily, monthly, and yearly.

__________________________________________________

10  https://restofworld.org/2023/south-asia-newsletter-fastag-helped-india-save-fuel-worth-8-4-billion/#:~:text=A%20nifty%20bit%20of%20technology,plazas%20all%20over%20the%20country

11  Nandan Nilekani in his talk in July 2023,
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6hgy3bGaUkY

12             https://pmjdy.gov.in/
on 19th July, 2023


Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) will change the credit landscape sitting on India Stack. Private credit to GDP is 67 per cent, and corporate debt to GDP is 46 per cent. Many countries have 100 per cent to 200 per cent of debt to GDP. So even with lower per capita incomes, credit would become available to those who otherwise wouldn’t have got credit. This can lead to acceleration  for the weaker sections to step into a better life Digital Footprint will, therefore, be credit worthiness marker – an Information Collateral of sorts – in the times to come.

Aadhaar — New Identity of India
Just as mobile was a game changer, Aadhaar is the bedrock of the rest of the changes as India now is a biometrically covered nation — perhaps the largest country to be covered and using this to its advantage. Digital identity covers 130 Crore (1.3 Billion) people. It enables them to e-authenticate, digitally sign, get digital records (my driver has a DigiLocker), and a host of other benefits from government schemes. Aadhaar authentications are about 8 Crore (80 Million) times a day. It is done for KYC for MFs, for pensions to bank account openings and much more.

Just like the telephone, internal combustion engine, internet, light bulb, and the like, these megatrends have changed the game completely and irreversibly for Bharat. It is a movement from India to Bharat — from PAN to Aadhaar. (Remember, earlier people wanted to get PAN as an ID, today, it’s Aadhaar.) How we work, how we live, how we pay, how we commute, and how we see ourselves have transformed. From TOILETS to TOWERS to TRANSACTIONS, Technology for all has made India’s landscape different, so fast.

Digital Public Infrastructure
India, today, is the rightful pioneer in Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) that delivers digital public goods. DPI is a game changer since it is interoperable and open. Much of the Aadhaar and UPI sit on this DPI. India could leapfrog and cover a huge landscape at a mega speed largely because of DPI. This is often known as India Stack — interconnected yet independent blocks where identity data permissions occur seamlessly in real time.

In the US, in 2022, WoPo reported that states in the US are considering Digital Driving Licence13. An Indian can already store his license on a DigiLocker. We had Co-WIN digital certificates for vaccinations, whereas the USA still had paper certificates. This wave of the DIGITAL is sweeping all across.

Today 59 Million learning minutes are on the Diksha Platform14; every textbook printed by the state government is QR-coded, with 20 QR codes per textbook, and 12 Million digitally addressable QR codes in Indian textbooks. Try looking for your childhood Balbharati books online!

India Stack is one of the largest DPI experiments on the planet. We saw its prowess during COVID-19 vaccination via Co-WIN. Not just that, these changes were imagined in India, made in India and implemented by India. What is more critical is that all these are building something in the area of government — which was earlier the sole and exclusive hallmark of corruption, ineffectiveness, inefficiency and low quality. Today this is changing, even if it is not enough, but the process has begun where an infrastructure is in place and a model for everyone to benefit from, to improve his or her lives. DPI reduces barriers also, so people can enter much more easily (take the Zerodha example, which is the biggest discount brokerage beating all the biggies in no time). Consider government benefits reaching, therefore, making a bang for our tax bucks. The government transferred billions of dollars (cumulatively, on 15th August, 2023, it was Rs.30 Lac Crores) into the bank accounts of people who needed those without cuts of corruption.

Take Tax–GDP ratio: With all filings online, 1.3 Crore people registered in GST and 7 Crore ITRs filed online, our Tax to GDP ratio is growing at twice the rate of GDP growth.

Lastly, let’s look at the four megatrends as articulated by Ridham Desai of Morgan Stanley some months ago.
 
1.    Demographics — Population Decline and reduced consumption

2.    De-globalisation

3.    Climate Change & Decarbonisation

4.    Digitalisation

He says most countries will lose on each or most of these counts. However, he says, India is the only large country that will benefit on each of these counts. Some of the talks and interviews bring several researched pointers. India is becoming an increasingly bigger consumer market; more people will consume. India is not over-dependent on globalisation. As a Paris Accord signatory, India’s dependence on external energy sources will reduce even as its consumption in watts will grow exponentially. Digitisation is what we have already looked at in the earlier part of the article from a largely public infra perspective but similar mega trends are happening even in private space. IPL Digital Rights were sold at a higher price than IPL TV Rights. BTW, if you noticed, no one watches cricket matches through glass windows at a store standing on the street as we used to see.

We must mention, ONDC – the E-commerce revolution in the making. Remember, we were told that the winner takes it all in the digital era. That might not happen, and many will be winners. Presently, there is only 4.3 per cent e-retail penetration in India, compared to 23 per cent in the UK or 26 per cent in South Korea. ONDC will unbundle e-commerce transactions and make them platform-agnostic and open. Platforms will no longer be the centre point.

DIGITALL
Friends, I think India will eventually move from a Pyramid structure to more of a square — maybe a kite or trapezium or even rhombus structure. I am glad to be alive at one of the most remarkable times in our history when crores of people will be brought out of pain and poverty by a tsunami of technologies unleashed for the masses. This new tech-led growth model is leading us all towards true democracy, where technology is no longer for a few, but for all. The spelling of DIGITAL in Indian dictionaries should now be DIGITALL! — Jai Hind! 15th August, 2023.

_____________________________________________________________________________________

13  https://www.washingtonpost.com/technology/2021/10/11/digital-drivers-license-mdl/

14  Diksha.gov.in

15  https://dbtbharat.gov.in/

16  Morgan Stanley Report

17  $70 Trillion investments needed to overcome
climate change

 

India Inc’s Struggle with ‘Jamtara’ Moments

You may have guessed what we are talking about
here! The Netflix series — Jamtara — portraying a group of men running a
phishing operation — gave us a good insight into the new and evolving
threat which is looming heavily over India Inc fuelled by advancing
technology, more and more usage of the internet and dependency on
digital banking. An overwhelming 13.91 lakh cyber security incidents1
were reported in India’s cybercrime reporting portal during the year
2022. Cybersecurity risk is relevant to every entity, except entities
that run entirely on manual processes without any technology
intervention or Internet connectivity which is very rare nowadays. It is
unlikely that a company is immune to cybersecurity risk in today’s
environment.

Some of these incidents made headlines. Towards the
end of March 2023, India’s top drug maker informed the stock exchange
that its revenue had been hit due to a ransomware attack. A ransomware
group claimed responsibility for an ‘IT security incident’ that led to
the breach of certain file systems and theft of certain company and
personal data. Appreciating the sensitivity, the auditors of the company
duly reported this matter as a fraud in the Companies (Auditor’s
Report) Order, 2020.

A major airline was hit twice by ransomware
during the year ended March 2022. Several flights were delayed and
cancelled due to the first instance of cyberattack. The subsequent
ransomware attack on its IT systems delayed the company’s submission of
financial results as it affected the completion of the audit process
within the stipulated time.

Common cyberattack techniques:

Malicious software or ransomware, downloaded to a target computer, which can do anything from
stealing data to encrypting files and demanding ransom.

Phishing
emails are crafted to trick victims into giving up passwords and other
credentials or taking some other malicious action.

Denial of Service attacks, which overwhelm a server, system, or network with
bogus traffic.

Man-in-the-middle attacks, fool the target computer into joining a compromised
network.

These techniques can be used in tandem
e.g., the malicious attacker uses phishing emails to trick users into
downloading malware or ransomware in the hope of demanding ransom over
encrypted files

 

___________________________________________________
1.Answer of Minister of State for Electronics and Information Technology
in Rajya Sabha
This leads to
the question of whether cybersecurity risk is relevant to the audits of
financial statements? Do financial statement auditors need to consider
the cybersecurity risk when planning and performing the audits?

BOARD OF DIRECTORS: COMBATING CYBERSECURITY RISK

The Board of Directors2
are responsible for safeguarding the assets of the company and for
preventing and detecting fraud and other irregularities. Such
responsibility is also a critical component of  internal financial
controls3 which the Board of Directors are required to establish. Further, Managing Director4
or other person designated by the Board should provide adequate
protection against unauthorized access, alteration or tampering of
records. Additionally, the Risk Management Committee5 of equity-listed companies are responsible for identifying, monitoring and reviewing cyber security risks.

Timely
disclosure requirements are also triggered for cyberattacks. All
organisations including service providers, intermediaries and body
corporate are required to mandatorily report cybersecurity incidents
within six hours in the stipulated format to the Indian Computer
Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) — a national nodal agency set up by
the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology under the IT Act,
2000. This nodal agency is responsible for collecting, analysing, and
disseminating information on cybersecurity incidents, and taking
emergency response measures. Similarly, every bank should report
cybersecurity incidents within two to six hours of detection to the
Reserve Bank of India. Equity-listed entities are required to provide
details of cyber security incidents or breaches or loss of data or
documents on a quarterly basis to the stock exchange within 21 days from
the end of the quarter.

___________________________________________________

2.Section 134(5)© of the Companies Act, 2013

3. Section 134(5)(e) of the Companies Act, 2013

4. Rules 28(2)(a) of Companies (Management and Administration) Rules, 2014
prescribed under the Companies Act, 2013

5. Regulation 21 and Schedule II – Part D ©(1)(a) of SEBI (Listing
Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015

UNDERSTANDING FINANCIAL STATEMENT LEVEL RISK
Recognising
and managing risk is a crucial part of the role of management and those
charged with governance (TCWG). The prominence of cybercrime means that
cyber security is a business risk for many entities to consider and
manage. For business risks like cyber security, there can be direct as
well as indirect implications for the financial statements including the
following:

•    Recognition of provisions/ disclosure of
contingent liabilities as a result of a data breach. This may be the
result of fines or penalties from a regulator as well as the possibility
of legal action from impacted parties where sensitive data has been
lost.

•    Change in fair value of assets as a result of a cyber
event, e.g., where a particular industry is being targeted there may be a
hesitancy to transact with those entities.

•    Diminished
future cash flows, thereby requiring consideration of impairment of
certain assets including goodwill, customer-related intangible assets,
trademarks, patents, capitalized software, or other assets associated
with hardware or software, and inventory.

•    Implications for the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern from the matters identified above.


Small organizations that already struggle to manage cash flow may face
crippling rises in insurance premiums or see an increased cost to raise
debt.

EXPECTATIONS OF MANAGEMENT FOR A CYBER BREACH

Having
a robust cybersecurity governance and risk management plan (appropriate
for the size of the organization) is critical to help the organisation
reduce exposure to cyber threats. There are frameworks which can be used
to consider risk assessment and related best practices. For example,
USA can be considered.

As new threats continue to emerge, each
organization need to be sure that it is equipped to deal with a dynamic
threat landscape. Organisations should defend their networks from
cyber-attacks by installing firewalls. Firewalls monitor network traffic
to identify any suspicious activity that could compromise data
integrity. They also prevent complex spyware from gaining access to your
systems and promote data privacy.

Proper IT policies and
controls are critical. Develop and implement policies and controls to
ensure that systems are not misused and ensure that applicable policies
and controls are continually reviewed and updated to reflect the most
current risks. This includes developing incident response policies and
procedures to properly respond to, account for and help mitigate the
cost of a potential breach. Ongoing education to all employees on
technology risks should form part of the organisations risk management
framework, with potential security breaches being mitigated as a result
of education and policies being promulgated to all levels of staff.

Basis
its system and process established, management should conclude whether
or not a cyber breach is reasonably likely to have a material effect on
the financial statements. For a cyber breach that is reasonably likely
to have a material effect on the financial statements, including related
disclosures, management should provide timely access to information
regarding such cyber breach, including information relating to the
entity’s investigation and results to enable the auditor to evaluate the
entity’s conclusions on the effects on the financial statements
thereof. In some cases, entities might be required to share a copy of
the investigation report e.g., Listed entities are required to submit a
copy of the  forensic report6 (which can include an investigation of cyber-attacks) to the stock exchange.

__________________________________________________________

6.schedule III – Part A (A)17 of SEBI (Listing Obligations and disclosure
Requirements) Regulations, 2015

Investigations of cyber breaches can often involve an entity’s legal
counsel and questions related to matters such as legal privilege can
hinder accessibility of the reports to auditors. The assertion of
attorney-client, or other, legal privilege is not a valid ground to
prevent access of information to auditors. Considering their
professional obligations, management should allow access of information
to auditor throughout the investigation and the results of the
investigation.


ROLE OF THE AUDITOR

The
auditor’s responsibility in relation to cyber security, like other
risks, is to first consider the risk of material misstatement to the
financial statement as part of risk assessment procedures.  As a part of
the risk assessment7 process, auditors should obtain an
understanding of the entity and its environment, and internal controls
relevant to the audit, and through this, identify and assess risks of
material misstatement. This encompasses understanding the entity’s use
of Information Technology (IT) including automated controls, the IT
general controls, identification of IT-related risks, and the
reliability of data and reports used in the financial reporting process.

_______________________________________________________

7. Standard on Auditing 315, Identifying and Assessing the Risks of
Material Misstatement Through Understanding the Entity and its Environment

The auditor’s primary focus is on the controls and systems
that are relevant to the audit of the financial statements and the
internal financial controls. Those layers if breached, may allow access
to the systems and applications that house financial statement–related
data. Audit procedures should then be developed to address each
company’s unique IT environment.

When a cyber breach comes to
the auditor’s attention, irrespective of its source, the auditor should
assess its relative significance to the financial statements and related
disclosures. Audit teams might work with other professionals e.g., IT
professionals, forensic professionals, cyber subject matter experts, and
legal experts as each of them brings a different perspective, and the
assessment of a cyber breach requires coordinated efforts between these
groups.

For each cyber breach, including when an entity paid or
is contemplating paying ransom in a ransomware attack, the auditor
should determine whether the cyber breach is reasonably likely to have a
material effect on the financial statements. Certain ransomware
payments may constitute non-compliance with laws and regulations (e.g.,
when made to sanctioned persons or to sanctioned jurisdictions).
Auditors should consider this aspect while determining their audit
strategy.

With respect to the company’s cybersecurity
disclosures, if the disclosure is included in the financial statements,
the auditor should perform procedures to assess whether the financial
statements, taken as a whole, are true and fair. In contrast, if the
cybersecurity disclosure is presented outside the financial statements,
such as the Directors Report, the auditor is required to read such
disclosures and consider  whether such information8 or the
manner of its presentation is materially inconsistent with information
appearing in the audited financial statements or contains a material
misstatement of fact.

______________________________________________________

8.Standard on Auditing 720, The Auditor’s Responsibilities Relating in
other Information

EVALUATING THE ADEQUACY OF ENTITY’S ACTION
Because
the auditors would use the results of management’s investigation in
forming audit conclusions, the auditor should discuss the approach with
management early in the entity’s investigation process and provide his
views on the proposed scope. At this juncture, the auditor considers
whether the involvement of other professionals is warranted to assist in
these discussions with management. Forensics and cyber professionals’
involvement could range from providing guidance on the matter to
performing a “shadow investigation” designed to follow the activities of
the entity’s investigation team, which may include reperforming certain
procedures in an entity’s investigation.

When evaluating the
adequacy of actions undertaken in response to a cyber breach, the
auditor should consider the timeliness of the entity’s response, the
level of management involved and whether the actions are responsive to
the cyber breach. Determining whether the entity has taken appropriate
actions in response to a cyber breach involves judgment based on the
facts and circumstances of the cyber breach and the entity’s actions.
After the entity’s response has occurred, the auditor may choose to
retest certain security settings or the functioning of other controls
that were either updated or implemented. When the auditor determines
that management did not respond appropriately to a cyber  breach, he
should treat this event as a non-compliance act involving management.

EFFECT ON AUDIT REPORT

It is possible for a cyber breach to be determined as a Key Audit Matter9
(i.e., matters that, in the auditor’s professional judgment, were of
most significance in the audit of the current period) to be included in
the auditor’s report. In other circumstances, the auditor may determine
to draw attention to management’s disclosure by including an
emphasis-of-matter paragraph in the auditor’s report.
_________________________________________________

9. Standard on Auditing 701 – Communicating Key Audit Matters in the
Independent Auditor’s Report

In some
instances, the auditor may be unable to determine whether a cyber breach
has a material effect on the financial statements, because the entity
has not completed its investigation or has not reached a stage at which
it is reasonable to conclude that the cyber breach did not have a
material effect on the financial statements or the effect of the breach
has been appropriately accounted for and disclosed. In such a situation
auditor should base his judgment regarding the sufficiency of the
evidence that is, or should be, available.

When, after
considering the existing conditions and available evidence, auditor
concludes that sufficient evidence supports management’s assertions
about the nature of a matter involving uncertainty and its presentation
or disclosure in the financial statements, an unmodified opinion should
be expressed. Otherwise, depending on the pervasiveness of the effects
of the limitation on audit, a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion
should be issued.

CLOSING ENTRIES:

Auditors
should consider and assess cybersecurity risk as part of risk
assessment for every audit. New information or audit evidence may be
obtained during the audit which would change the auditor’s risk
assessment. The auditor should revise the assessment and modify the
audit plan and procedures accordingly. When a cyber incident has
occurred, the auditor would have to understand the nature and cause,
determine whether additional audit procedures or an alteration in the
audit approach is necessary, and evaluate the impact on the financial
statements. Where necessary, the auditor should also consider involving
subject matter experts.

The Transformative Power of Artificial Intelligence (AI) In Audit

Artificial Intelligence (AI) has brought about radical change in various industries, and the field of audit is no exception. As businesses grapple with large volumes of complex data, auditors face the challenge of delivering accurate and insightful assurance services efficiently. In this digital era, AI presents a transformative solution, enabling auditors to harness the potential of technology to enhance their capabilities and elevate the value they bring to clients. This article explores the impact of AI in the audit profession and highlights its potential to reshape the future of assurance. In each section, references to popular AI audit tools are given. Readers can go through them and make appropriate uses to enhance the quality of audit assurance.

UNDERSTANDING AI IN AUDIT

At its core, AI refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines, enabling them to learn from experience, interpret data and make informed decisions. AI in audit encompasses various technologies, such as machine learning, natural language processing, robotic process automation and data analytics. These components work together to augment the auditing process, driving greater efficiency and accuracy.

Traditionally, audits have relied on sampling techniques to assess financial data and detect errors or irregularities. AI complements these methods by analysing entire data sets rapidly and comprehensively. Moreover, AI’s ability to learn from patterns in data allows auditors to uncover insights that may have otherwise remained hidden.

AI’S ROLE IN DATA ANALYSIS

One of AI’s most significant contributions to the audit profession lies in data analysis. Auditing involves examining vast amounts of financial and operational data to assess a company’s financial health and compliance with relevant regulations. Manual analysis of such data is not only time-consuming but also prone to human error.

AI-powered audit tools are proficient at processing and interpreting large datasets with remarkable speed and precision. By automating data analysis, AI empowers auditors to focus on interpreting results, identifying patterns and making informed decisions based on data-driven insights. This data-centric approach enhances risk assessment, improves the accuracy of audit conclusions and enhances the overall quality of audits.

Furthermore, AI algorithms are adept at identifying anomalies and potential fraud in financial data, reducing the risk of financial misstatements going unnoticed.

AI Tool for Ratio Analysis
https://www.readyratios.com/features/
 
ENHANCING AUDIT SAMPLING TECHNIQUES

AI’s influence on audit sampling techniques is a significant step towards continuous auditing. Instead of conducting periodic audits based on sampling, continuous auditing employs real-time data analysis to provide ongoing assurance.

With AI-powered sampling, auditors can analyse entire datasets more frequently, eliminating the need for selective sampling. Larger datasets improve the reliability of audit conclusions and help auditors detect irregularities or potential risks more effectively. By embracing continuous auditing, businesses gain access to timely insights, enabling proactive decision-making and risk mitigation.

Use case: A retail chain with multiple locations is subject to regular financial audits. Historically, the auditors used sampling techniques to review a portion of the company’s transactions. However, by adopting continuous auditing with AI-powered sampling, auditors can now analyse real-time data from all locations simultaneously. This provides the management team with ongoing assurance and helps them quickly address any potential irregularities, ensuring better risk management and compliance.

AI Tool for Data Analysis
MICROSOFT EXCEL — Data analysis tools — Sampling

AUTOMATION OF ROUTINE TASKS

AI’s automation capabilities have immense potential to streamline audit processes. Many routine tasks that previously demanded significant human effort and time can now be automated with AI tools.

Tasks such as data entry, reconciliation and transaction testing can be handled efficiently by AI-powered software, freeing auditors from repetitive and mundane activities. As a result, auditors can redirect their efforts towards higher-value tasks, such as data analysis, risk assessment and client interaction.

Automation not only increases audit efficiency but also reduces the likelihood of errors and inconsistencies, thereby enhancing the overall quality of audit services.

Use case: A large auditing firm faces the challenge of repetitive tasks during its annual audit of a manufacturing company. These tasks involve reconciling vast amounts of transaction data, which consumes significant time and resources. By integrating AI-based Robotic Process Automation (RPA) tools into their audit process, the auditors automate data entry, reconciliation and transaction testing. This allows the audit team to focus on higher-value activities, such as verifying complex financial arrangements and offering valuable strategic advice to the manufacturing company.

AI TOOLS FOR ROBOTIC PROCESS AUTOMATION (RPA)

https://www.automationanywhere.com/rpa/robotic-process-automation

https://www.automai.com/rpa-robotic-process-automation/

https://www.blueprism.com/

AI AND PREDICTIVE ANALYTICS

Predictive analytics is a powerful application of AI that empowers auditors to go beyond historical data and anticipate future trends and risks. By analysing historical financial data and relevant market indicators, AI can offer valuable insights into a company’s future performance and potential areas of concern.

For auditors, predictive analytics aids in audit planning and strategy development. By identifying high-risk areas in advance, auditors can tailor their audit procedures to address specific challenges effectively. Additionally, auditors can provide clients with proactive advice and recommendations, helping them make informed business decisions.

Use case: An investment bank hires auditors to assess the risk associated with its portfolio of mortgage-backed securities. By leveraging AI-powered predictive analytics, the auditors analyse historical financial data, economic indicators and market trends. This empowers them to identify potential risk areas and forecast the performance of the securities in different market scenarios. The investment bank uses these insights to adjust its investment strategy, mitigating potential risks and maximising returns for its clients.

AI Tool for Predictive Analytics
Download Power BI Desktop from the Official Microsoft Download Center

ADDRESSING CHALLENGES AND ETHICAL CONSIDERATIONS

While AI presents significant opportunities for audit professionals, it also comes with its set of challenges. Implementation of AI-powered audit tools requires investment in technology, training and infrastructure. Ensuring data privacy and security is crucial, as AI systems process sensitive financial information.

Ethical considerations surround the reliance on AI for decision-making. Auditors must strike the right balance between leveraging AI’s capabilities and exercising their professional judgment. Human intervention remains essential to interpret AI-generated insights and make final audit determinations.

Use case: A financial services firm adopts AI-powered audit tools to enhance its internal controls and risk management processes. However, the firm faces challenges in maintaining data privacy and security due to the sensitive nature of the financial information involved. To address this, the auditors work closely with the firm’s IT and cybersecurity teams to implement robust data protection measures, ensuring that AI-generated insights are accessible only to authorised personnel.

THE FUTURE OF AI IN AUDIT

The future of AI in audit is promising and dynamic. As technology continues to evolve, auditors will witness even more sophisticated AI solutions that can handle increasingly complex audit engagements.

Opportunities for auditors to upskill and adapt to technological advancements will be essential to harness the full potential of AI. Collaboration between auditors and AI technologies will be paramount, as humans and machines work in tandem to deliver comprehensive and insightful audit services.

Use case: A leading global audit firm invests in research and development to stay at the forefront of AI advancements. They develop and deploy cutting-edge AI solutions that can analyse complex financial instruments and transactions. With the support of AI, auditors can now perform audits with increased accuracy and efficiency, significantly reducing the time needed for compliance while offering more value-added services to their clients. One may refer to the Audit Data Analytics Guide published by the AICPA.

CONCLUSION

AI has already begun transforming the audit profession, and its impact will only intensify in the years to come. AI empowers auditors to perform more accurate and efficient audits, delivering greater value to clients and stakeholders. By embracing AI responsibly and aligning it with their professional expertise, auditors can navigate the digital landscape successfully and secure a prosperous future for the audit profession. As AI-driven audits become the norm, auditors will continue to evolve into strategic advisors, leveraging technology to fuel innovation and ensure financial trust in a technology-driven world.  

Personal Data Protection: Tighten Your Belts, It’s Time to Take Off

The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 received the assent of the President of India on 11th August, 2023, after it was passed by both houses of the parliament. The Act provides for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognises both the rights of individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process such personal data for lawful purposes and matters incidental thereto. The Act addresses the need to protect the fundamental rights of a citizen that “no person shall be deprived of his or her personal liberty, except according to established legal procedures”. To achieve the objective, the Act creates significant obligations on Data Fiduciaries and imposes severe penal actions for non-compliance. It’s time to align and make an honest effort, with a genuine posture to invest in infrastructure and comply.

BACKGROUND

Personal Data Protection, a matter of focus, globally and in India, has been fuelled by sensitive terms like ‘privacy being fundamental and constitutional right of an individual’. Upheld in the matter of Justice K S Puttaswami vs. Union of India, the Apex Court in 2017, impressed upon the Legislature to establish a robust data protection regime.

Certain developed economies have already adopted stringent data privacy regulations, with wider coverage, beyond geographical boundaries, due to obvious commercial and other reasons. Besides an inevitable growth in the digital economy, social media interactions are only rising, both fuelling the matter further. The Government, recognising the importance of safeguarding citizens’ rights, has focused towards a comprehensive framework. All stakeholders dealing with personal data would have to invest in a much-needed eco-system towards personal data protection. Penal actions are scaringly significant.

GLOBAL TRENDS AND BENCHMARK: EUROPEAN UNION GENERAL DATA PROTECTION REGULATION (‘EU GDPR’) AND OTHERS

As a major benchmark, the EU, in 2018, implemented the GDPR, not just for EU entities, but also, for organisations across the globe, so long as such organisations deal with EU citizens’ data. Penalties under GDPR may go up to Euro 20 million or 4 per cent of the consolidated annual turnover of an organisation. EU GDPR is considered a comprehensive framework, dealing with personal data processing and the rights and obligations of the parties involved. Even the USA and China have followed stringent personal data privacy regulations.

NEED FOR A ROBUST DATA PROTECTION FRAMEWORK

Limitations in the existing regulation
The current Information Technology Act, 2000, and related Rules of 2011 (SPD Rules) (together with the 2000 Act) are outdated. In any case, the safeguards around personal data protection in the 2000 Act are unable to deal with the scalability, the data explosion and digital transformation, social media behaviour, ever-changing modes of communications, security threats and enforcing penal actions for non-compliance. The committees formed to evaluate a legal framework realised that the existing law has little to protect individuals against privacy-related harms in India. Also, the definition of Sensitive Personal Data is unduly narrow, and limitations are apparently visible.

The Puttaswamy judgement of 2017 and principles to frame a robust regulation

The Court declared that any invasion of privacy must satisfy the triple test, i.e., Legitimate Aim, Proportionality, and Legality, being the fundamental principles for a regulation. The judgement upheld that “no person shall be deprived of his / her personal liberty, except according to established legal procedures”.

A much-needed debate
The Government, in 2017, constituted the Srikrishna Committee to examine the data protection-related issues and to create a regulatory framework. This was followed by various draft bills, challenges in Cabinet meetings and Parliament, consideration of public comments and global best practices, and the P. P. Chaudhary Committee to evaluate further, before finally framing the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 (the Bill). The Bill was passed by both houses of the Parliament, and it received the assent of the President on 11th August, 2023, and is called The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (the Act).

Principles followed in framing the Act

The Act is based on certain principles regarding personal data, i.e., (i) collection of minimum / necessary data; (ii) only lawful usage, and for the desired purpose; (iii) reasonable effort to ensure accuracy and updation of data; (iv) data storage only for the necessary duration; (v) safeguards to avoid unauthorised collection, processing or breach; and (vi) accountability of the person who decides the purpose and means of data processing.

THE DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION ACT, 2023

While the Act was published in the Official Gazette on 11th August, 2023, the effective date would be decided by the Central Government by notification. Different dates may be appointed for different provisions of the Act.

The Act would apply to digital personal data within India, relating to Data Principals (or the individuals to whom the personal data relates, and includes the parents or lawful guardian, in the case of a child or a person with a disability). It would also be applicable if the personal data is collected in non-digital form and is digitised later. Processing outside India will also be covered if it is in connection with the activities of Data Principals within India.

Personal data

The Act defines “personal data” as any data about an individual who is identifiable by or in relation to such data. This would not include personal data that is made or caused to be made publicly available. This seems to have a very wide coverage, considering that the Act does not separately define or classify any data as sensitive personal data. There is a stark difference with the earlier regulations, which did recognise the additional importance of sensitive personal data (say password; financial information such as bank account or credit / debit cards; physical, physiological and mental health conditions; sexual orientation; medical records / history; biometric information, and similar items). The government may prescribe guidelines to deal with or differentiate between different types of data, though the Act has not clarified anything in this regard.

Obligations of the most important stakeholder — the Data Fiduciary

The Act creates significant obligations of a Data Fiduciary (any person who alone or in conjunction with other persons, determines the purpose and means of processing personal data) and the Data Processor (any person who processes personal data on behalf of or as per the instructions of a Data Fiduciary).

While processing personal data, the obligations of a Data Fiduciary (and for certain activities, of a Data Processor) would include: (i) giving a clear notice with respect to personal data being collected, and its purpose; (ii) seeking consent of the Data Principal for processing; (iii) processing data for lawful purpose for which Data Principal has given consent; (iv) making reasonable efforts to ensure accuracy and completeness of the data; (v) implementing appropriate technical and organisational measures to safeguard, and to prevent personal data breach; (vi) notifying a personal data breach to the Data Protection Board of India (the Board, as discussed later in the note) and each affected Data Principal; (vii) ensuring appropriate disposal of data once the purpose for which such data was collected is no longer necessary for legal or business purposes; (viii) appointing a Data Protection Officer, in case of a Significant Data Fiduciary, or a person able to answer Data Principals’ questions about processing of related personal data; (ix) putting in place a procedure and effective mechanism to redress the grievances of Data Principals.

Additional obligations before processing any personal data of a child

The Act imposes additional obligations in case of processing any personal data of a child, e.g., obtaining verifiable parental consent. Such processing would be prohibited if it is likely to harm or involves tracking / behavioural monitoring, or targeted advertising towards children.

The government would carry significant powers and flexibility, and related concerns

The Act provides for significant powers, by notification, with the Government to impose additional regulations on Significant Data Fiduciaries (as may be notified as such based-on assessment of risk factors made by the Government). However, on the other hand, the Government may, having regard to the volume and nature of personal data processed, notify certain Data Fiduciaries or class of Data Fiduciaries, including startups, to whom certain provisions of the Act shall not apply.

There are visible concerns keeping in view the wide exemptions by which the Government may notify, in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, maintenance of public order and the processing by the Government of any personal data, within or outside India, for research needs, archiving or statistical purposes, or for any other purpose, as it may deem fit. The Government has yet to notify the rules, which may address related concerns.

Rights and duties of Data Principals, in line with the objectives of the Act

The Act secures the rights of Data Principles in many ways, e.g., the right to access information and the processing activities undertaken, right to correction / updation / erasure; right to withdraw the consent, subject to certain exceptions and also the consequences of withdrawal being borne by such Data Principal, right of Grievance Redressal, and right to complain to the Data Protection Board of India (the Board).

Data Principal will also follow certain basic principles, e.g., complying with the provisions of applicable laws while exercising rights, not registering a frivolous complaint, not impersonating others and not suppressing information.

Cross-border data transfers would be permissible, subject to a negative list

For cross-border data transfers, the Act allows a Data Fiduciary to transfer Personal Data to a jurisdiction or territory outside India for processing. However, the Government may, based on an objective assessment, restrict such transfers to specific jurisdictions. Any other existing regulations, if they are more restrictive, would continue to apply.

Data Protection Board of India (an empowered executive authority)

Board composition and authority: The Act aims to establish a robust management, governance and administrative structure to achieve the objectives. Central to this would be the formation of the Data Protection Board of India (the Board). The Board would comprise a chairperson, appointed by the Central Government, and other Members, as prescribed, with minimum skills and tenure requirements as Board members. Importantly, the Board will possess the authority to take any action under the regulations.

Digital office and independence: The Board will have significant powers and independence. It will be responsible for determining non-compliances, conducting inquiries to address any complaints, imposing penalties, directing Data Fiduciaries to adopt urgent measures to remedy a breach and mitigating any harm caused to Data Principals.

Principles of natural justice: In conducting inquiries, the Board will adhere to the principles of natural justice, offering reasonable opportunity to be heard. It will have the power to summon individuals, conduct examinations under oath, inspect any records, and issue interim orders, as necessary. However, the Board or its officers shall not impede the day-to-day functioning of any individual or organisation.

Discretionary powers, mediation and voluntary undertakings: The Board may, at its discretion, consider resolving any complaints through mediation, directing concerned parties to engage in the process and to resolve. Additionally, the Board may accept voluntary undertakings for any matter, to take or refrain from specified actions. These powers aim to facilitate efficient decision-making and avoid prolonged legal proceedings. The Board will possess the authority to dispose off matters that it deems non-significant or frivolous / devoid of merit, in which case, it may issue a warning or impose costs on the complainant.

Powers of a Civil Court: The Board shall have all powers of the Civil Court to ensure autonomy and independence in its functions. No other Civil Court shall have jurisdiction over the matters within the Board’s purview. Appeals against the Board’s orders shall lie with the Appellate Tribunal. The Board is envisioned as a formidable body with substantial authority to safeguard data protection in the country. It’s powers, independence and adherence to principles of justice are aimed at efficiently addressing data-related concerns and promoting a culture of personal data protection.

The severity of penal actions for data breaches and non-compliance

The Act prescribes severe penalties for non-compliance with Data Protection regulations. For instance:

  •     Up to Rs. 250 Crores for failure of Data Fiduciary to take reasonable security safeguards

 

  •     Up to Rs. 200 Crores for failure to notify the Data Protection Board and affected Data Principals of a personal data breach

 

  •     Up to Rs. 200 Crores for non-fulfilment of additional obligations in relation to children

 

  •     Up to Rs. 150 Crores for non-fulfilment of additional obligations as Significant Data Fiduciary

Instances of global data breaches that attracted severe penal actions

In the past, there have been several data breach incidents that attracted severe penal actions in different jurisdictions. These included:

  •     Some of the largest social media platforms for transferring data to different countries without adequate data protection. In another incident, the data breach involving an unauthorised transfer of data, for political purposes, was also penalised.

 

  •     An overseas law firm faced a penalty from a financial regulator for leaking the personal financial information of many wealthy individuals, public officials, world leaders, politicians, celebrities, businessmen and others.

 

  •     One of the largest online shopping platform companies was fined for processing the personal data of its customers, including for infringements of the target advertising system, without proper consent of such customers.

Clearly, there is enhanced scrutiny towards data breaches, and regulators are active in safeguarding the rights of Data Principals.

A balanced approach

It is heartening to note that the Act follows a balanced approach, creating a moral, though subjective, responsibility on the Board to consider various aspects before determining penalties, e.g.: (i) nature, gravity and duration of the breach or type and nature of the data affected; (ii) repetitive nature of breach; (iii) breach resulting in any gain realised or loss avoided; (iv) mitigating actions, including timeliness and effectiveness; (v) whether penalty is proportionate and effective; and (vi) likely impact of the financial penalty on the person.

Few other aspects

The Act does not recognise any difference between “Personal Data” and “Sensitive Personal Data,” which was not the position in earlier regulations. There is a stark difference in terms of the level of sensitivities involved between the two. The Board, as mentioned above, would exercise discretion in exercising its powers while dealing with related situations and the nature of any data breach. The Act also refers to various procedural matters, which would require framing appropriate rules. Timeliness of such rules and clarity around the same would be important.

PROFESSIONAL SERVICES FIRMS

Professional services / consultancy firms, that often use personal data in the normal course of their activities, both in their capacity as Data Fiduciaries and Data Processors, need to deep dive and carry out a gap assessment to align with the Act. Such firms will have obligations as:

•    a Data Fiduciary, e.g., in respect of:

  •        data collected from individual clients, their directors, shareholders, etc., for evaluation (say KYC) purposes.

 

  • data collected from employees of the firm for purposes such as pre-employment background checks, payroll processing, group medical insurance plans or compliance with statutory requirements.

• a Data Processor, e.g., in respect of:

  •  balances collected for audit confirmation in respect of advances or bank balances of individuals.

 

  •  compensation details of directors, collected as audit evidence for verifying managerial remuneration.

 

  • personal data collected from an organisation under outsourced payroll processing engagement.

These firms are usually bound by confidentiality obligations, either due to contractual arrangements (say under an engagement letter / service contract with the client) or by regulations (say by the Code of Ethics of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or similar professional bodies). The Act, in addition, would require enhancing the overall data protection framework to comply with the requirements of the Act. These would include certain focus areas, e.g., gap assessment; adequate technical and organisational controls and technology solutions; appropriate contractual clauses with clients, employees and third parties, clearly defining obligations to be complied with; re-evaluating document retention requirements, both contractual and by regulation; devising a mechanism to provide notice to and managing consent requirements from Data Principals for personal data already collected in the past; mechanism for timely reporting of data breaches, both internally and externally; and responding to the requests made by Data Principals. An illustrative overview would be as under:

 A wide coverage of professionals and professional services firms, including chartered accountants

Besides industrial organisations, various professionals and professional services firms, including firms of chartered accountants, very often carry and process personal data relating to clients / individuals, as a custodian or forprofessional and other engagements, e.g.:

–    auditors, collecting data in relation to KYC of stakeholders; managerial remuneration; listing of loans and advances of customers / vendors; and similar such areas,
–    payroll processing of employees as an outsourced service,
–    assistance in filing tax returns and assessments of individuals,

–    personal wealth management services for high-net-worth individuals,

–    acting as custodians in dispute resolution services,

–    broking firms, keeping personal data of clients / investors,

–    medical practitioners, hospitals and pathology labs, wellness, and healthcare centres, keeping extremely sensitive medical backgrounds of their patients / customers,

–    direct sales / marketing agents / lending firms, carrying data of loans given to individuals,

–    data of individuals attending knowledge-sharing events / seminars, etc.,

–    educational institutions, carrying personal data and family background of students,

–    insurance brokers, carrying significant and sensitive personal data of individuals,

–    matrimonial service providers, carrying sensitive details of individuals,

–    telecom and network service providers,

–    online platforms, tracking habits / preferences, and carrying personal data of consumers,

–    social media platforms, carrying members’ preferences and other details,

–    hotels and clubs, carrying sensitive personal data of their guests,

–    recruitment professionals, carrying sensitive personal data of prospective candidates,

–    real estate agents, carrying property details and title documents on behalf of individuals,

–    law firms, carrying sensitive personal information of clients, and

–    several other establishments that carry and process personal data.

In addition, such firms would possess the personal data of their employees, vendors and other third parties as well. In that context, all such organisations and professionals would be covered by the Act. They would be Data Fiduciaries and / or processors, and the obligations of the Act would apply.

Minimum obligations of professionals and professional services firms

In all these cases, processing of personal data would mean a set of operations performed on digital personal data and would include activities such as data collection, recording, organising, structuring, storing, retrieval, sharing / disclosing, erasure or final destruction. Accordingly, it is important to identify personal data across functions / applications and policies for compliance, based on gap assessment and data protection impact assessment. At the minimum, they would need (i) a data protection policy and tone at the top; (ii) process and accountability to deal with consent from Data Principals; (iii) reasonable security, storage and recording measures; (iv) adequate internal communication and training; (v) data minimisation and disposal process; (vi) grievance redressal mechanism; (vii) disciplinary mechanism to deal with non-compliance; and (viii) reporting mechanism in respect of breaches.

In addition, the significant Data Fiduciaries may have additional obligations, including the appointment of a Data Protection Officer, data protection impact assessment and periodic audits by an external auditor. Some of the aforementioned organisations (say medical practitioners, hospitals, lawyers, etc.) may possess personal data of children, in which case, there would be additional measures to protect the same.

Each professional is likely to be both a Data Fiduciary and a Data Processor unless processing data exclusively on behalf of a Data Fiduciary. Despite the increased costs involved in a privacy compliance program, such professionals are obligated to follow and would need to invest in developing a robust privacy framework. This would also be necessary to avoid huge penalties, which could be levied in case of non-compliance. Organisations need to focus on “Privacy by Design” and adopt technical measures such as encryption, data leakage solutions / tools and appropriate incident management protocols to minimise the occurrence of any breach.

IN SUMMARY

Significant obligations of Data Fiduciaries

The monetary penalties for non-compliance / breach are huge and may lead to significant brand and reputation issues. An honest effort and a genuine posture may help in avoiding penal actions. Data Fiduciary (and in many cases, Data Processors) would assume several obligations and would require to invest in processes, e.g., to review and enhance privacy policy and the tone at the top; to create infrastructure and technical and security measures; to provide notice to Data Principals; to manage rights of Data Principals by adopting enhanced processes to address continuing requests (data correction, updation, deletion, processing activities undertaken, etc.); to establish a robust mechanism to capture and address grievances; to review data retention requirements on a “keep only as necessary” basis; to establish incremental controls and processes, in case of processing of personal data of children, including seeking verifiable consents; additional requirements if notified as a Significant Data Fiduciary (to appoint a Data Protection Officer; carry out Data Protection Impact Assessment; and periodic audits by an independent auditor); timely identification of possible or suspected non-compliance, in which case voluntary undertaking and commitments may be provided to avoid severe penal actions; to build in process for timely notification of data breaches to the Board and Data Principals; to adopt a disciplinary mechanism for consequence management; a periodical critical analysis and reporting to those charged with governance, so that each level of the organisation understands importance, sensitivities and respective accountability.

An attitude to create awareness and deal with the transition

The Act provides necessary empowerment and brings in a much-needed focus on Personal Data Protection. There would be evolving situations which may need a pragmatic approach by stakeholders, viz., the Regulator — who would need to provide continuous direction, be involved in regular dialogue, and resolve issues; Data Fiduciaries — who would assume significant obligations; and the Data Principals — who would gain significant confidence and relief. In that context, it is worth highlighting a few areas that may be dealt with in a phased manner and based on experiences and incidents in the near future, e.g., several provisions, which are subject to rules, would require timely clarifications and framing an eco-system; compliance with privacy obligations would require investment in skilled resources, administrative and technical set-up and costs, especially for domestic companies initiating the processes for the first time. It may be more challenging for small and medium enterprises, considering that the penal actions would be equally severe for them; reportable incidents may need benchmarking as every case of a data breach may not need reporting unless it is a significant data breach impacting the rights of Data Principal; the readiness to comply with the provisions and establishing related infrastructure, governance, processes, and controls may need time to implement. It may need a consultative approach and a reasonable transition time (say one to two years, depending on the size and nature of an organisation) to build requisite processes and infrastructure.

Penal consequences are to be based on size, situation and severity

There are several micro / small / medium enterprises which would be processing personal data. While penal action is an important deterrent for non-compliance, these may need to be commensurate with the size, situation and severity of the issues involved.

Dealing with subjective and judgmental matters

The Act does not recognise a difference between “Personal Data” and “Sensitive Personal Data”. There is a stark difference in the level of sensitivities involved between the two. Also, the Act does not include directions for regulating non-digitised personal data. Such exemptions may lead to subjectivities and gaps in assessing and resolving the issues. The exemptions to the Government are too wide and may have an adverse implication in achieving the ultimate objective of safeguarding the fundamental rights of a citizen. Ultimately, human beings will deal with the data. Such wide exemptions may enable unchecked data processing by the State. This may be dealt with in a phased manner, based on incidents and experiences in the near future. Also, it would be important that the necessary clarifications by way of Rules are notified, sooner than later.

WAY FORWARD

Personal data is vulnerable and prone to breaches. The Apex Court of the country has upheld and clarified a constitutional objective, that privacy is a fundamental right of an individual. There is a visible focus of the Government to protect the above rights. The growth of the digital economy is inevitable while keeping the citizens’ rights intact. Globally, developed economies have already framed stricter regulations like the EU GDPR. We cannot have cross-border investments (both ways) and do international business and interactions without adopting data protection norms.

It is a welcome move. We need to align and make an honest effort, with a genuine posture. The next step would be to embrace and invest. Also, the success of the regulation would be enhanced with a supportive attitude of the government / Board during the transition, creating awareness and dealing with the evolving matters objectively and in a timely manner.

“Focus On Revenue Maximisation – A Fundamental Flaw of India’s Tax Administration” – Part II

 
 
 
Continued from the last part….
Q. (Gautam Nayak): We have the faceless assessment and faceless appeal system, where very often we see that a proper hearing is not given and when the submissions are made, they’re not being looked at. What is your view on this? Is Faceless Assessment a good thing? The government looks at it from the perspective that it will help reduce corruption. What’s your view on this?

 A. (Arvind Datar): I am only giving a view based on what I hear from my Chartered Accountant friends, who are appearing in faceless assessments. I think that in important cases, faceless assessment will not work satisfactorily. If it’s a routine matter, it does not matter if it is faceless; but if it’s a complicated case, it will not work. I don’t understand why for a foreign company, even where the amount is Rs. 50 Crores, there is a personal hearing, but if it is a domestic company, even if the amount is Rs. 1,000 crore, there is no personal hearing. Now, I am told that there is a provision that if I ask for a personal hearing, it has to be given. Faceless appeals are even worse. I don’t know whose idea this was, and I think it’s very, very sad to have faceless assessments and appeals because you can’t trust your own officers.

The point is if you make a law, which is so difficult, which is capable of multiple interpretations, then there is bound to be a system of corruption. And do you mean to say people cannot get over this faceless method? My assessment may be faceless, but my Balance Sheet is there. You know the name of my company. You know my address. You know my phone number, etc. So, you mean to say that you can’t game the system? You have to be incredibly naive to believe that if I can’t see the officer, there will be no corruption. Where are we going? Look at faceless appeals. I’m told that hardly any faceless appeals have been heard. There are 6,00,000 appeals pending. In the Supreme Court, the government said that ITAT appeals have drastically reduced, but I told the Court that this was because there were no disposals at the level of CIT(A). If there are no disposals, there will be no tribunal cases.

And I still don’t know why 6,00,000 appeals have suddenly accumulated in faceless appeals. Tell me, how do you argue an appeal before a judge in an appeal without seeing him? Just imagine if you’re going to a court, and there’s a black screen in front of you, and the judge is sitting behind. Can you argue an appeal effectively? It’s absolutely astonishing that anybody thinks that this is going to work. What is your aim? Reducing corruption? Or is your aim laying down the proper law?

Q. (Raman Jokhakar): That brings us to the next question, which is ‘the government as the biggest litigant’. And if we look at the statistics, almost 70 to 90 per cent of the cases between Tribunals, High Courts and the Supreme Court are lost by the government. You spoke about power and accountability; the combination of one without the other is absolutely lethal. So, when we look at a law with 120 words in one sentence or a section with 13 provisos coupled with the government as the biggest litigant, where does the taxpayer stand? The irony is that a taxpayer fights with his own money, and then he pays taxes to the government, with which the government will fight against him. So, it seems like a never-ending loop, and it is only going to drag all of us down.

A. There, I would partly express my sympathy with the Income-tax department. The officers know that the case has followed a settled Supreme Court judgment; there is no point in preparing an appeal. However, if it’s a case of more than Rs. 5 Crore to Rs. 10 Crore, it is almost certain that the appeal will be filed because if an officer doesn’t file the appeal, there could be some vigilance case against him. As a junior, I used to appear before the Commissioner of Central Excise or the CIT(A), and they would tell me that I had a good case, but sorry, I can’t help you; you try your luck before the tribunal.

In a lighter vein, I will tell you that I had appeared before a Commissioner of Central Excise in Bangalore, and he asked me what was the difference between appearing before a High Court and appearing before him. I had just gone to the Karnataka High Court and finished my case. So, I told him, Sir, when I appear before you, I have no tension. He asked why. I said, I know I am going to always lose the case before you. However, in a High Court, I may win, or I may lose. But before you, I know that whatever I say, you are going to reject it!

In India, you will seldom have a case where an officer from the Income-tax department or a public sector undertaking will accept an adverse order. Take arbitration cases. Here also, a government company will fight right up to Supreme Court as it has nothing to lose in fighting; but if it accepts the award, there could be a vigilance inquiry against it. And it costs the company nothing to file appeals.

 Q. (Raman Jokhakar): For frivolous cases, which are clearly, out of line, should there be some kind of solution?

A. Yes, Absolutely. There is a system of costs which nobody imposes. If you go to the UK, the winner wins with costs. Whether it’s an assessee or the department, you have to pay the costs of the other side. So, I will think twice before filing a frivolous appeal, if I know I have to pay the costs if I lose. And if both sides are represented by expensive seniors, then it’s going to be a huge expense, and therefore, if I know that I am going to lose the case, then I would rather settle. Unfortunately, we don’t have a system of costs. Take the case of a PIL; if somebody files a PIL to stop some project, it may go on for three years. Who pays for the cost of the litigation? Not the petitioner but the project suffers.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): You mentioned that laws are made for exceptions, some people do something wrong, and the entire community is punished. We see this happening quite frequently. Also, the way laws are passed in Parliament without discussion or debate and in the guise of clarifications, significant amendments are being carried out. Do you think that actually, the bureaucrats are calling the shots, as the lawmakers may not be even aware of the implications?

A. Definitely! The basic principle of constitutional law is that the Parliament makes the law, and the executive only implements it. You give them the power to issue notification, which is in the nature of delegated legislation and for which guidelines are laid down by the Parliament. Now what’s happening is that the law itself is made by the bureaucracy. For example, and very dangerously, the GST Act has provided that an exemption notification can have a retrospective effect. It is unheard of in most countries. And many major policy decisions, not only in income tax but in various other laws such as information technology, are done through notifications.

What is worse is that now even Circulars go beyond the Act. There is an Act, and then there is an 8-page Circular or FAQ. An officer asks the questions, and he himself gives the answers, and then he makes it far beyond the main Act itself. Where is your power to do that?

Q. (Gautam Nayak): In the last budget, TCS rates on LRS were increased from 5 per cent to 20 per cent and the scope expanded drastically; of course, there was some pushback from taxpayers, which did result in some relief to them. But then, why are such laws being made? Are bureaucrats completely out of touch with reality or what’s happening on the ground?

A. You’re right. The new TCS was absolutely shocking, but its impact was reduced by the limit of Rs. 7,00,000. This is done because people are leaving India and a lot of money through the LRS route is going out of India. By a 20 per cent TCS, you don’t address the problem of why people are sending money out of India. Nobody asks, what is the reason? That’s a larger systemic problem. Suppose there’s an outbreak of malaria, then starting more hospitals is not the answer. You should try to eliminate the source of malaria. The basic threshold limit for non-deduction of TCS is Rs. 7,00,000. But I know many cases of friends whose children are studying in foreign universities and have to remit over Rs. 7,00,000. Apart from tuition fees, they also have to pay for their hostel charges and so on. With the dollar value being at Rs. 82 and the pound being at Rs. 100, the total expenses often cross Rs. 7,00,000. The government gets 20 per cent TCS upfront, but you will get your refund or adjustment only after the assessment is made, say, after two years. So, for two years, the government can use your money. Because of this, a new system of remittances through unauthorised channels will start.

If my son is studying abroad, now Rs. 100 is going to cost me Rs. 120, and it will be quite burdensome for many people who have taken loans to fund education. For them, overnight, the cost goes up by 20 per cent. This is unfortunate. As I said, the whole focus is to maximise revenue, regardless of the hardship.

Q. (Raman Jokhakar): If you were the lawmaker, what changes would you like to make? Which are the big changes which can be done very quickly?

A. If I were in the hot seat, and if my goal was to have ease of doing business, then I would basically divide ease of doing business into three components, namely, (i) ease of starting a business, (ii) ease of running a business and (iii) ease of closing a business. In the case of ease of starting a business, State legislation is primarily involved. How do I get an electricity permit? How do I get land? We keep talking of single window clearance, but it is very often just in theory because every permit is a rent-seeking mechanism; for every little permission, you have to pay some additional amount, which really discourages people from investing.

On ease of doing business, once the business starts, the major role is that of the taxman. There, I would say, focus on growth maximisation.

We are all very enamoured by these Startups and Angel Investments, etc. But we forget that manufacturing has gone down. We want to create 100 million jobs. How will you do this? To attract investments in the manufacturing sector, India has to benchmark with Vietnam, Thailand and Malaysia and see what they are doing and how our tax system compares. If I want to market India, I must make India attractive. I personally feel the government’s attitude is that this is my business ecosystem. If you want to come, you come. I will not make any changes. Suppose I’m manufacturing a TV; then I have to make a TV that the customer wants. I can’t simply say I’ve got a 26.4-inch TV, which is diagonal in shape. If you want, you take it. This way, nobody will buy. Nobody has bothered to ask why big manufacturers throughout the world are investing in Thailand, Vietnam etc. My mother bought a blood pressure monitor. It’s made in Vietnam. Why can’t it be made in India? I bought a refrigerator that was made in Thailand. Nobody has asked Samsung: What do you want to set up your plant in India? Our import from China stands at 100 billion dollars; just imagine if even half is made in India. Can you imagine the employment that is generated? I would advise the Government to do what the private company does. Market India. Get feedback about what will attract FDI. On ease of closing a business, a classic example is the Ford plant in Taloja. It could not be shut down for six years. Where is the need for getting permission? So, all these three aspects — starting a business, doing, or running a business, and closing a business — must be made business-friendly. I hope that both the States and the Centre work in tandem. This is not very difficult.

Q. (Gautam Nayak): Another issue is about the taxation of Charitable Trusts. The law was fairly simple until maybe around 10 years back. However, over the past 10 years, taxation of Charitable Trusts has become more complex than business taxation. It is far easier to comply for a business than for a charitable trust. Most Charitable Trusts run on a part-time basis; even employees are working like that. So, today setting up a small charitable trust is very discouraging. The law is such that, for a small mistake, you could end up losing almost half of your corpus. Unfortunately, there is no distinction between a small and a large charitable trust. What should be the law for Charitable Trusts? What is your thinking on this?

A.  I often feel that taxation of charitable trusts is perhaps the best example of how our entire tax system is wrong. You lose sight of the objective. Look at the recent judgment on a charitable trust, in the case of Ahmedabad Urban Development. The unworkable rule is that you can make profits, but you can’t profiteer. You can’t have more than 15 per cent as your surplus. You can’t do this. You can’t do that. Look at Section 10(23C). It has some 19 explanations, and perhaps 22 provisos. Today, Harvard has a corpus of 5 to 6 billion dollars. The same is with Oxford. Nobody keeps on harassing Oxford; are you charging more or less? How are you doing? These Charitable Trusts are NGOs doing wonderful work. And why the NGOs? Because the government can’t do everything and therefore an NGO steps in. And what is wrong if an NGO makes more than 15 per cent as surplus but applies 85 per cent of the surplus to its charitable objects? I mentioned education. Let’s consider trusts which come under the General Public Utility (GPU) character under section 2(15). The Finance Act, brought in a law in 1998, providing that income from any activity of a GPU can’t be more than 20 per cent of the total receipts of a trust. Today a trust with GPU objective can’t do any activity at all except receiving donations. Suppose I employ destitute women and make them prepare incense sticks, then sell them, and if my income is more than  20 per cent from this activity, then I lose my exemption. There’s also no exit route today. Many people are telling me that we don’t want a charitable status. We will just go away because the headache of having a charitable trust is too much. The provisions of section 115 TD have horrendous consequences and now the trustees will also be liable to pay the tax. As you rightly put it, taxation of charitable trusts has completely gone out of hand, and I want to know what the total tax collection from Charitable Trust is. Do you say that you will treat the projects of the Ahmedabad Urban Development Authority to make it a profit-making entity? The Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation has given its land on 99-year lease and collected Rs.5,000 Crores. The same money is ploughed back into infrastructure development, and you say it is a commercial activity? Is an Industrial Development Corporation of a State engaged in commercial activity and like a private corporation taxable? Something is seriously wrong with our policy where the aim is just to collect more taxes. As you rightly put it, in the last 10 years, it has become very, very difficult to run a charitable trust. You don’t know when you’re going to get into a problem. So, I think there could be a one-time settlement scheme for trusts or some exit route without any significant increase in tax collection. We are leaving, please leave us alone. The law has become complex. Suppose a school, college or any other educational institution has a playground or an auditorium which it wants to give on hire, for some wedding function or a music program; then it can face trouble. It can be alleged that the said entity has ceased to exist solely for the purpose of education. Unfortunately, it cannot monetise its real estate and use the money to provide for scholarships.

Q. (Gautam Nayak): So, even fund-raising is a problem. It may also be regarded as a business activity and not incidental, resulting in a loss of exemption.

A. Very true. Many organisations have lost their FCRA recognition and even the benefit of Section 12AA. They can’t get any donations, even for genuine activities that are in the public interest. It is a very difficult situation.

Q. (Raman Jokhakar): Making drastic changes in Trust Laws is not justified. When I started a Charitable Trust, there was X law; now, it has changed dramatically. Justifiably, I should have an exit route, if I don’t want to be in the game. Don’t you think bringing such laws is too harsh without an exit route?

A. Just look at the number of amendments to Sections 11, 12 and 13. These three sections are now, perhaps, 10 times more complicated than business taxation. To check abuse by a few trusts which have abused the provisions, you have punished all charitable trusts.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): Absolutely. The most uncharitable treatment to charitable trusts.

A. And again, as I said, just because, say, 5 per cent trusts are bad, maybe doing some unlawful activities, you hit really genuine charitable trusts. I know many, many genuine charitable trusts are in trouble because of these changes.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): Government should concentrate on the expenses. Whether I’m spending on the object rather than on my source of revenue? There has to be a revenue model.

A. Exactly. Suppose autistic children or somebody makes products like pappad, pickles, or something else, and even if they are sold at 500 per cent profits, no question should be raised as long as 85 per cent of its revenue is applied to its charitable activity.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): Sir, my next question is relating to the taxation of agricultural income. I know it is a state subject and politically sensitive too; therefore, no government would like to touch it. However, by exempting agriculture income, a large part of our GDP is going tax-free, and people may be using it to convert their black money as a lot of cash is generated in this sector. What is your view on that? And how is the experience worldwide?

A. I don’t know much about the worldwide experience, but agriculture is subsidised in many countries. As far as agriculture is concerned, ever since I joined the bar, there is a constant saying that agriculture must bear some of the tax burden, particularly the rich farmers. But, for the last 42 years, nothing has happened. Maybe, because many of the political people have got into agriculture activities. So, in our lifetime, I don’t think any change is going to come to tax agricultural income at all. This will always be treated as a holy cow which can’t be touched.

Q. (Raman Jokhakar): Sir, about GST, you have been quite vocal, and on 1st July, 2023, we completed six years. Bringing all taxes into one was a huge opportunity. Now, when you look back compared to its potential and reality, how do you see it upon completion of six years?

A.  See, in all fairness, when I speak to people. I find that many of the large industries are happy with GST, but there are serious challenges for the small sector. Now there is no octroi, so the goods which took eight days to transport now reach their destination in three to four days. So, it would be wrong to say that it’s a complete disaster. There are a lot of good points. It’s not a joke for a large country like India to have this entire electronic system. It has a lot of glitches, but what is worrisome in GST is that there is a promise of one nation –seamless credit. However, the entire approach of the legislature seems to be to disallow input tax credit (ITC) at any cost. For example, Works Contract. You declare the works contract to be a service and still, you don’t get or restrict ITC. You want to make malls, warehouses, logistics etc. liable to GST, but when it comes to giving ITC, you say it’s immovable property and, therefore, no credit is given. When you want to collect duty, you tax them as services, but when it comes to ITC, you say they are immovable properties and deny credit. There is inherent unfairness in the whole system. And there are so many other points which have not been addressed in GST. Dr Kelkar suggested a maximum GST rate of 12 per cent. However, even now, cement is taxed at the rate of 28 per cent. What is the justification of putting 28 per cent tax on cement? You want to develop infrastructure, but you levy 28 per cent tax, most of which cannot be used as ITC credit? I mean, you’re only penalising the common man. There are a lot of provisions that militate against the concept of a real GST. The dream of “one nation, one tax” will perhaps never be realized. And again, the provision of attaching accounts at random has a crippling effect. There is some discrepancy and you just come and attach the bank account. That is a very, very harsh provision. The way sections 73 and 74 are implemented leaves much to be desired. In several cases, duty has been demanded for the last five years with interest and, sometimes, even a penalty.

 Q. (Gautam Nayak): Over the last 40 years, you’ve appeared in many cases, including many landmark cases. What is for you the most memorable Courtroom Debate?

A. Well, personally, I will say that one of the memorable events in my career is that I had a chance of hearing  Mr Palkhivala arguing the First Leasing case on investment allowance in the ITAT. I had the opportunity of hearing H M Seervai in the Madras High Court for a short while, and also Ram Jethmalani. So, I had the chance to see very, very eminent lawyers argue their cases, and that was a great learning experience. For me personally, the highlight would be the Sahara case, which I did non-stop from 2011 up to 2018-19; battle after battle, and we were able to do substantial justice. Regarding income tax, I did the case on investment allowance in the Supreme Court, which Mr Palkhivala argued in the ITAT. Then when it came to the High Court, I was supposed to brief him. But J R D Tata had died, and Palkhivala had to attend his funeral, so he could not come. I argued in the High Court, and we won the case by God’s grace. And when it came before the Supreme Court, it was before Justice Ms Sujata Manohar. It was a turning point in my career. I had worked very hard, and I still remember when I finished my arguments, Mr Soli Sorabjee, whom I didn’t know so well at that time, came and said, “Young man, you’ve done very well”. We won that case. After 1996, my work in the Supreme Court slowly started picking up. The other memorable case for me was a challenge to the National Company Law Tribunal. A very happy moment for me was when the National Tax Tribunal (NTT) was struck down. I tell people now that if the NTT case had been lost, there would be no High Court dealing with taxation. It would have been ITAT, NTT and the Supreme Court. We now have a situation where judges in the High Court will never even open the Companies Act as the NCLT has exclusive jurisdiction. I am happy to have argued several other matters, such as the reading down of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, the Aadhar case, and the Padmanabhaswamy Temple case. One recent case that gave me much satisfaction was about the armed forces. There was a wrong judgment of the Supreme Court saying that jawans of the armed forces could not go to the High Court against the order of the Armed Forces Tribunal; they must only go to the Supreme Court. We got that issue referred to a bench of three judges and they overruled the earlier view. Now, several jawans and their widows can approach their local High Courts; they need not go to the Supreme Court. Almost 30 per cent of my work is pro bono, and cases like these give me a lot of satisfaction and are a great learning experience.

 Q. (Raman Jokhakar): Maintaining a work-life balance today is a big problem and professionals are always stretching their time. What’s your secret or mantra or tips to others to strike a balance between work, personal life, health, and family?

Oh, it’s a very big struggle. I mean, it’s always very difficult. Fortunately, now travel is much easier. When I was a junior lawyer, there was only Indian Airlines. Flights were limited. Only later did the air sector open up. In those days, we had to go by overnight train to most places. I was fortunate to get the full support from my wife and my family during my early years of struggle. As I said, I used to take lectures, teach at institutes, and so on. My first lecture was at 6:30 am in the morning and again at 6:30 pm in the evening. So, I had to get up at 4:00am, take a bus, go to class, and then go to court. Take a class again in the evening and come back. So, it was a great struggle. I tried to sort it out by stopping working on Sundays. Whatever happens, I have kept Sundays free for the family. Then again, take at least two holidays in a year with the family together. That was one way I did balancing. As far as possible, I tried to attend all the children’s functions. Work-life balance was also a big problem because I had started writing books. I noted that Palkhivala had written a book before he was 30. So, I decided that I would also write a book before I was 30. So, I wrote my first book on Central Excise, but I was 32 then. But the year my book came, my income went up by  400 per cent in one year because of the book. I keep telling young lawyers and chartered accountants to ‘write.’ And whether your book sells or not, it’s a great learning experience for you. It’s like R and D. For me, classes, writing books, articles and also continuing my practice took a huge toll on time. But one must ensure that we spend more time with the family. I tell people that please spend time with your children. Once they grow up, then you miss all the fun of seeing them grow up. Especially in a city like Bombay, where travelling takes a lot of time. Fortunately for Zoom, now we are able to save a lot of travelling time. But you must carve out a particular time, say, Friday evening or Saturday evening and keep this personal time like a business appointment. For example, on Sundays, I don’t work at all unless there is an emergency and that’s completely sacred So, I make sure that on Sundays I am at home and try to take two vacations with the family. One more thing is that unless you work extraordinarily hard, you can’t provide all the material comforts to your family. If you want to buy a house, a car etc., all that will take extra work. And when you have so much competition around, you need to work as hard as you can.

Q.  (Mayur Nayak): Sir, I heard your video on motivational talk to young lawyers. At the beginning of your career, you were reading others’ autobiographies and you got inspired by your mentors. Today, you are in the mentoring position, so what advice would you like to give youngsters? My second question is: How was your experience of updating Mr Palkhivala’s book?

A. I will answer both these questions one by one. Firstly, advice to youngsters. I get interns all the time, and I can tell you that most of them are extremely bright. They’ve got the benefit of technology. The case laws are at their fingertips, everything is there. So, the present generation is far brighter than what we were, and honestly, they are very good and analytical. And again, it’s like the 80:20 rule; there are 20 per cent who are very serious about the profession, 80 per cent will just move along, and ultimately, this 10 to 20 per cent will then go to the top. But today, they have a lot of resources, and they have technology in their favour, which they can leverage. But old or new, the general principles of having a good mentor, following your role models, and working very hard always will continue. I tell young professionals that they must have a niche area of practice for themselves. If you do general civil law, then there are 50,000 advocates doing the same thing. How do you distinguish yourself? So, better to focus on specialisation where you establish that you are a master in that subject, whether it is criminal law or PMLA or income tax or whatever it is. Please take up one area as your specialisation and acquire mastery in that field. And you can acquire mastery by writing books, or articles, or having a blog. If you are writing articles, do so consistently. That’s what I will advise.

Secondly, I’ll advise youngsters that please don’t chase money. Money should be the byproduct. Professional excellence should be your aim. Money will come. If you keep focusing on your profession, the money will follow. But if you chase money first, then the temptation will be to take shortcuts etc. which is very, very serious. Thirdly, I would say that even today or at any point, honesty is always the best policy. You may suffer in the short run. You may have difficulties, but in the long run, you will always benefit, and you can hold your head high and say that whatever you did, you did not take shortcuts. I did not compromise. The means don’t justify the end.

Now coming to the Kanga and Palkhivala commentary, actually, I wrote my Excise book in 1988. I was eight years in the bar, and that book was, fortunately, a big success. Then I wrote Central Excise Procedures. Then my publisher, Wadhwa & Company, said that nobody is updating Ramaiya’s book. Why don’t you take it up? I was doing some company work also, and the Company Law Board was just starting. So, I started being the editor of Ramaiya’s Commentary. So, I was doing both Excise and Company Law. Both books helped me greatly because I developed a large practice before the Company Law Board and before the CESTAT. I had the chance to argue many, many important cases. So, these books were a great help. Mr Dinesh Vyas brought out the 9th edition, but he could not then continue beyond the 9th edition. Lexis Nexis took the copyright from N M Tripathi. And I still remember the day when Mr Wadhwa came with their foreign Managing Director. He came and said, “Look, this book is a classic and a very prestigious title and we would like you to take it up.” I said, “I don’t have time.” He said, “Please take it up; otherwise, the book will die. The entire work of Mr Palkhivala will die.” Then I took it as a challenge. The 10th edition came out in 2014. Before that book, I also wrote the “Courtroom Genius,” which was about the life of Mr Palkhivala. I came into very intimate contact with Mr Behram Palkhivala. We did a lot of work on that book and when we published the 10th edition, I insisted that it had the same font size, the same grey colour that was on the 7th edition, which was the last edition Mr Palkhivala worked on personally. I brought back the same look. Before the release, I gave the first copy to Behram Palkhivala, He had tears in his eyes. He hugged me and said, “I am so proud of this book.” In the public function where it was released by Chief Justice SP Barucha, Mr Behram Palkhivala said a sentence that I’ll never forget in my life. He said: “This book has been written by my younger brother, of which my elder brother would have been very proud.” That brought tears to my eyes. The 10th edition was a huge success. When COVID came, we couldn’t work at all, and we couldn’t go to court. I used that time to finish the 11th edition that was released in 2020. Now the 12th edition should come in 2024. This year my schedule is to bring out my book on the Constitution. I’m just finishing it. And 2024 will be the next edition of Kanga and Palkhivala. People say that because of the elections, the budget may get postponed beyond May. So, in 2024, hopefully, I should be able to give all of you the 12th edition of Kanga and Palkhivala.

Q. (Gautam Nayak): You have many interns working with you. From your experience, what do you see missing in the younger generation? Is there something which you feel they should inculcate, but which is lacking today?

A. Well, There is a consistent pattern. When I work with a team of, say, 10 young interns, I find that there are 2 or 3 who are exceptional, working more, writing articles, or going beyond the average practice day. The remaining 8 are just doing their job. They’re doing it well, but you cannot make a mark unless you go the extra mile. Everybody is working eight hours; unless you work the extra four hours, you’re not going to make a mark. Somebody said that it’s what you do in your spare time that decides who you are. So, when you get home and burn the midnight oil or you get up at 4:00 o’clock and write an article, that’s what makes the distinction. So, among the youngsters, I find that the same pattern continues, which was there in my time. Ultimately, in every generation, a smaller percentage will outwork everybody and rise to the top. I think that will happen all the time.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): In your opinion, what are the opportunities and threats to young professionals?

A. Let’s talk of Chartered Accountants. I think you have to decide whether you’re going for audit or tax. Suppose as a Chartered Accountant, you want to focus on litigation. Then I would say that go to the Tribunal every day. Attend the hearing. Even if you don’t have a case. If you’re free, just go and see how the cases are being argued. Keep a notebook. Keep jotting down all the important points. One important thing for youngster is that once they decide on their chosen field, they must try to attain mastery in that field, partly by role modelling, following what eminent lawyers and eminent Chartered Accountants are doing and following the same pattern. Then when you get a brief, try to do it as best as you can. Try to go the extra mile to see if some new argument can be put forth. Then I tell youngsters that whether you like it or not, if you’re going to practice, your English is very important. So, I tell people that as far as possible, stick to speaking English and try to improve your communication skills constantly. Read biographies. It is very important to keep a notebook and jot down important cases and phrases all the time. Even today, if I come across an unusual judgment, I make a note of it. And one thing is there. You have to be consistent. You can’t just stop work one day at 5:00 pm and get up at 4:00 am. Whatever you do, it has to be on a consistent pattern. I would advise youngsters to set their goals. It is 2023; decide where you want to be in 2025. And then work backwards. Suppose you want to write a book by 2025; you must start writing everyday? Do you want to earn Rs. 10,00,000? What specialised service you are going to offer? Because ultimately, a client pays you for the special service that you render. Why should a person pay me, say Rs. 100 and pay other lawyers Rs. 50? It’s only because he believes that I can deliver something special. I go to an eminent cardiologist because I know he will do my bypass surgery better than the other doctor. You must have the aim of being able to deliver outstanding service, and the money will flow.

Q. (Raman Jokhakar): If you had to recommend four or five books to young professionals, what would they be?

A. Well, if it’s a lawyer, then I would recommend that they read the top biographies of lawyers like “Roses in December” and “My Own Boswell”. I would also recommend youngsters to read books on goal setting, on time management, and on strategy. I’m now reading a book called “The Crux”, it’s on strategic planning. How do you plan your life? It’s very important for professionals. Today, I would also recommend youngsters to see YouTube videos. You have people like Tony Robbins and Jack Canfield. You have got people like Ed Mylett and others. So, these self-help videos on YouTube are very useful, apart from books. To summarise, I would say that biographies and books on time management and goal setting are important, and one must read and implement them. And another thing which I keep telling people is something which I try to follow is: daily introspection. Every day before you sleep, just spend 10 minutes. How did you do that day? What could you have done better? And then visualise the next day also. That’s very, very important. We don’t introspect. We just watch some TV programs and sleep, but better to spend just 10 minutes on reflecting the day from morning to evening. What did I do? What could I have done better? This is very, very important.

Q. (Mayur Nayak): Thank you very much, Mr Datar, for sparing your valuable time and giving us many insights into many important and interesting issues. We are sure this interview will be a treat for our readers, especially for the special pages of BCAJ, as we enter the 75th year of the profession. Thank you, once again, for training Chartered Accountants and sharing your knowledge through lectures and mentoring youngsters.

(Arvind Datar): Thank you so much for this opportunity. My best wishes, particularly to young Chartered Accountants.

Artificial Intelligence – A Boon or A Curse?

Today, technology has become an integral part of human life and is causing a major disruption in the world. Among the various technologies, we find the growing use of “Artificial Intelligence” (AI) in almost every sphere of life. AI is based on the assumption that the process of human thought can be mechanised. The study of mechanical — or “formal” — reasoning has a long history. Chinese, Indian and Greek philosophers all developed structured methods of formal deduction in the first millennium BCE1. Thus, the advent of AI is not new. Various types of automation, predictive language while typing, the use of chatbots, target advertising, etc., are different examples in which AI has been used for a long time. English science fiction and action films used to showcase the use of AI as early as the 1960s and 1970s. We are all familiar with various types of robots for ages. They are driven by AI. So, what’s the big deal about it now? The use of AI is not new, but its use, spread and scale in the present times is unprecedented. Today, there are thousands of AI applications available on the internet. There are many generative AI tools available in the market. However, for the present, the invention of a generative AI tool like ChatGPT2 is perceived to be one of the most disruptive AI technologies. It acts like your personal genie. It can write reports, software codes, formulae, essays, do research and do a host of other things in seconds/minutes. However, what is worrisome is that these machine-generated reports / research papers, coding, etc., are beyond plagiarism checks. Therefore, a day will come when we will be required to give a disclaimer that this write-up or presentation is prepared without the aid of AI or state that only Human Intelligence is used in its preparation.
________________________________________________________

1   History
of artificial intelligence. (2023, August 16). In Wikipedia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_artificial_intelligence

2   ChatGPT,
which stands for Chat Generative Pre-trained Transformer, is a large
language model-based chatbot developed by OpenAI and launched on 30th
November, 2022, notable for enabling users to refine and steer a conversation
towards a desired length, format, style, level of detail and language used.
[Source: ChatGPT. (25th August, 2023). In Wikipedia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ChatGPT]

Human intervention cannot be eliminated altogether, as whatever is generated by AI needs to be validated. There are huge issues of trust and reliability of generative AIs and their updation, since they rely on publicly available data, which may not necessarily be correct. It is hoped that with the passage of time, ways will be found to make them more stable and reliable. Experts are divided on the view of whether these Generative AIs will replace jobs. It is said that AI, per se, may not replace your job, but a person who knows how to use AI may do so, as he would be more efficient/productive than you. Therefore, it is imperative for each one to learn the effective use of AI.

However, AI can help create more jobs as well. Fortunately, business leaders are bullish on the positive outcome of AI. In the opinion of Tata Sons Chairman, N Chandrasekaran, AI will create more jobs in India as it can empower people with little or no skills to acquire information skills to perform a higher level of jobs. Shantanu Narayen, Chairman and CEO of Adobe Inc., is of the opinion that AI is going to augment human ingenuity and not replace it. Dr Arvind Krishna, the CEO of IBM, said, “I firmly believe that India can lead the AI technology revolution. India has the world’s largest community of developers, a large start-up ecosystem, and a strong scientific and engineering culture.”

Verily, if AI is used wisely and judiciously, it can increase productivity, efficiency and accuracy in work.

The Government of India has already embarked on this revolution, with organisations like MeitY, NASSCOM and DRDO creating the roadmap for AI in India. The Centre for Artificial Intelligence and Robotics (CAIR) has already been established for AI-related research and development, and the Digital India initiative is reaching its zenith. The government has set up a number of Centres of Excellence at various places to research, implement and monitor the use of AI in different sectors of the economy. What is heartening to note is the introduction of AI in the new school curriculum as a part of the National Education Policy 2020. However, the need of the hour is to develop sovereign capability in generative AI and for that, the government should take the lead and invest in necessary research. The Government alone can push academia-industry collaborations with the necessary weight and urgency.3 The US and China have already developed domestic generative AI models. Many other countries are in the process of doing so. Therefore, India cannot lag behind.

__________________________________________________________

3   The
Editorial of
The Times of India on 
29th August, 2023



The use of AI in audit can enhance its efficiency and accuracy. Various tools are available freely on the internet. This issue of the BCAJ carries a separate article dealing with “AI in Audit”. If we integrate AI into office automation, then our efficiency and productivity can be increased manifold. I think we need to embrace AI rather than fear it. If we use it intelligently, it can become our genie, ready to execute any command in no time.

Another significant development is the enactment of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023. The Act provides for the processing of digital Personal Data in a manner that recognises both the rights of the individuals to protect their Personal Data and the need to process such Personal Data for lawful purposes and matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act applies to the processing of digitised personal data online and offline in India and abroad if they relate to products and services offered in India. Readers can refer to a detailed article in this issue covering various aspects of this Act. It is important for CAs and other professionals dealing with the personal data of their clients to protect such data securely4. Heavy penalties are prescribed for any breach or leakage of personal data. Therefore, each one of us will have to invest in building systems, training staff and technology to protect clients’ data and comply with stringent regulations. This aspect needs serious consideration.

______________________________________________________________

4   Members
can be guided by the “Digital Competency Maturity Model for Professional
Accounting Firms – Version 2.0 and Implementation Guide” issued by the ICAI.

These recent developments in the field of technology warrant our serious attention5.

_____________________________________________________________________

5   Read
an article by CA Deepak Ghaisas on the “Impact of Technology on Economic Growth
in India,” published in the July 2023 issue of the BCAJ.

To sum up, AI, although created by Human Intelligence, is a very powerful tool. If not used wisely, it can ruin our lives. The use of drones to carry out attacks in the Ukraine war is a glaring example. Thus, there are dangers of misuse of AI, as well. While addressing the G20 meeting in Delhi, PM Modi also expressed the need for the ethical use of AI. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India has strongly recommended setting up an independent statutory authority for ensuring responsible development of AI and regulation of its use in India. One thing is certain: AI may replace human efforts but cannot replace human emotions. AI may replicate Human Intelligence but cannot replicate Human Perspectives. Looking at both the positive and negative powers of AI, it can be seen as either a boon or a curse, depending upon its use.

On a happy note, AI played a significant role in the success of Chandrayaan 3. Kudos to all Indian Scientists.

Regards,
Dr CA Mayur B. Nayak
Editor

Report On the 26th International Tax and Finance (ITF) Conference, 2022

The International Taxation Committee of BCAS conducted the 26th ITF Conference at Hotel Ananta and Resorts, Udaipur, from 4th to 7th August, 2022 – the first ITF Conference post-pandemic and the first to be held in a hybrid format. The total number of participants, including 30 online delegates, touched the 250 mark.

In line with the tradition, this year’s Conference, too, was designed to include various contemporary and practically relevant topics for the international tax practitioner. Eminent personalities and experts graced the Conference and shared their invaluable thoughts and experiences in their respective areas of expertise.

The participants were divided into four groups, each group ably led by group leaders who helped generate in-depth discussions of the case studies from the papers. The paper writers visited each group to witness the group discussion.

DAY 1

President CA Mihir Sheth gave his opening remarks and explained BCAS’s activities and various new initiatives. Immediate Past Chairman of the International Taxation Committee, Dr. CA Mayur B. Nayak, welcomed delegates and gave his introductory remarks. The Conference began with the lighting of the traditional lamp by the dignitaries.

 

Lighting of Traditional Lamp

Before the inaugural session, the participants had Group Discussion (GD) on “Cross Border Merger, Demergers and Restructuring – Tax and Regulatory Aspects”. CA Girish Vanvari addressed various points that emanated during the GD and provided his thoughts on the case studies. The session was chaired by the Past President, CA Gautam Nayak. It was followed by a special address by CA Padamchand Khincha, who introduced his paper and spoke about various issues relating to cross-border employment. Past President CA Kishor Karia chaired the session.

 

DAY 2

The day began with a GD on the paper written by CA Himanshu Parekh and CA Gaurav Mittal on “Select Controversies / Emerging trends in International Taxation”.CA Geeta Jani made a presentation on “BEPS 2.0 – GloBE Rules and Pillar 2 – Case Studies”. She explained various aspects of the subject in detail, including conceptual explanations, practical points for consideration, etc. Dr. CA Mayur Nayak chaired the session and provided insights on the issues.


CA Himanshu Parekh,
 while dealing with his paper “Select Controversies / Emerging trends in International Taxation”, explained the case studies on which the groups had detailed discussions. He addressed various points in his presentation that emanated from the discussion. His session was chaired by the Committee member CA Sushil Lakhani.The last session of the day was the panel discussion on “Cross Border Swift Payment Mechanism and its Importance, Rupee Rubble Payment System, Digital Currency and its Future”. The panel consisted of Shri Gopalaraman Padmanabhan, Shri Mahalingam Gurumoorthy, and Prof. Ananth Narayan. It was chaired by CA Dilip J. Thakkar and moderated by CA Sunil Kothare. The panel shared its thoughts and gave insights on specific issues revolving around the Payment System and allied topics. The entire panel discussion was in virtual mode and was well received by the participants.The day ended with an entertainment program comprising the Folk Dance of Rajasthan, Miming, and Mimicry.
DAY 3
The day began with a Group Discussion on the paper written by CA Padamchand Khincha, CA P Shivanand Nayak and CA Bibhuti Ram Krishna on “Cross Border Remuneration, Employment Benefits & Pensions – Case Studies”.Subsequently, there was a panel discussion on “Case Studies in International Taxation”. The panel consisted of Shri Ajay Vohra, Senior Advocate, Shri Ameet Shukla, Member ITAT, and Shri Sanjeev Sharma, Principal Director (Investigation). It was chaired and Moderated by CA Pranav Sayta. The panel covered various case studies which had practical relevance. The frank and thorough exchange of views among the panellists, ably supplemented by the Chairman’s remarks and probing queries, made the discussion very interesting and elaborate and provided much food for thought to the participants. The panel discussion was based on case studies prepared by various volunteers.Post that, more than 110 members joined for the Darshan of Lord Shrinathji at the Nathdwara Temple. This was followed by the gala dinner and a live orchestra. Some members also showcased their talent in singing, reciting poems and dancing.
DAY 4
The day began with the release of the August 2022 special issue of the BCA Journal, consisting of special pages on Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav and poems on this theme. The unique issue was released at the hands of Past President and member of the BCAJ Editorial Board, CA Kishor Karia.

Release of the August 2022 issue of BCA Journal

Thereafter, a panel discussion was held on “Transfer Pricing – Global Developments”. The panel consisted of CA Bhavesh Dedhia, CA Karishma Phatarphekar, and CA Paresh Parekh and was chaired and Moderated by CA T. P. Ostwal. It was a technically rich discussion, as the panellists discussed issues from different perspectives.After the Panel Discussion, CA Padamchand Khincha dealt with his paper on “Cross Border Remuneration, Employment Benefits & Pensions – Case Studies”. He had a detailed discussion on his paper and answered various issues raised by the  Group Leaders based on the discussions in their respective groups. CA Kishor Karia ably chaired the session.

 

CONCLUDING REMARKS

With the in-person (or physical) ITF Conference being held after two years, the participants enjoyed comradeship and networking.The ITF Conference was held under the guidance of Dr. CA Mayur Nayak. CA Natwar Thakrar, as the Chief Conference Director, ably assisted by CA Jagat Mehta, Joint Conference Director, put in a lot of effort to make the Conference successful. The contribution by CA Kishore Pahuja from Udaipur was significant  in various aspects, including arrangement for the Nathdwara visit and organising the entertainment programmes.Other members of the Core Team were CAs, Anil Doshi, Chaitanya Maheshwari, D. S. Sharma, Deepak Kanabar, Divya Jokhakar, Ganesh Rajagopalan, Kartik Badiani, Naman Shrimal, Tarunkumar Singhal, Utsav Hirani and Ujwal ThakrarCA Deepak R. Shah, Past President of the Society, helped in negotiations with the hotel. Many other volunteers made laudable contributions to make the Conference a landmark event for BCASCA Nitin Shingala, Chairman of the Committee, chaired the concluding session wherein some members who attended the ITF conference for the first time shared their experiences and expressed satisfaction with all aspects of the Conference, especially enriching papers, GDs, Panel Discussions, arrangements at the venue, comradeship, and networking.The 26th ITF Conference ended on a high note and received encouraging responses and feedback from the participants.

CA Amendment Act, 2022

Shrikrishna: Oh, Arjun, your July pressure is over! So, relaxing now?

Arjun: Yes, a little bit. Good monsoon, chilled climate. And the next deadline is 31st October.

Shrikrishna: Here is something that will not only wake you up, but shake you up!

Arjun: Really? Lord, don’t frighten me and spoil my mood. What is that?

Shrikrishna: Your CA Act is amended, particularly in respect of disciplinary mechanisms.

Arjun: I had heard about it but didn’t know the details. It’s good to hear from you.

Shrikrishna: First, the amendment is giving some relief. You know that once a complaint is lodged or information is provided, it takes a long time to settle. The process is expensive and time-consuming. Many times the complaints are frivolous, meaningless and without any substance.

Arjun: Yes. I agree. So, what have they done?

Shrikrishna: Now, once the complaint or information is received, the Director Discipline will decide whether the complaint or case is actionable or liable to be closed as non-actionable.

Arjun: Oh! Very good. That will save a lot of trouble for our CAs and save money and professional time for all concerned, including our Institute.

Shrikrishna: True. For this, he may call for additional information by giving 15 days’ notice to the complainant or informant. If he finds it non-actionable, he has to refer it to the Board of Discipline for its concurrence. If the Board disagrees, he must proceed with the normal investigation.

Arjun: How long will this take?

Shrikrishna: The Director Discipline has to refer it to the Board within 60 days of receiving the complaint or information.

Arjun: Good. So there is a time limit.

Shrikrishna: If he has to carry out the investigation, the Director Discipline gives 21 days to the Respondent to submit his Written Statement.

Arjun: There must be some extension allowable. We CAs cannot do anything without additional time.

Shrikrishna: Yes. Earlier, the maximum allowable extension was 30 days; but now it is only 21 days.
 
 Another important thing. Previously, a complaint could be withdrawn with the permission of the Board of Discipline (BOD) or Disciplinary Committee (DC). Now, this facility is withdrawn!

Arjun: This is not good. I feel that if the complaint is not of a serious nature, they should permit the withdrawal.

Shrikrishna: Further, the BOD will continue to consist of 3 members; but the composition is changed. Earlier, the President of the BOD normally used to be the President or Vice President of ICAI. Henceforth, he should be a non-member of the Institute. The other two members will be – one Central Government nominee but not a member of ICAI, and the third member will be a Central Council Member.

Arjun: Oh! So, the majority will be non-CAs. How will they understand the realities of our profession?

Shrikrishna: Punishments have also been made harsher! Previously, for the first schedule, the maximum period of suspension was up to 3 months. Now it can be maximum of 6 months! The maximum fine for the first schedule is now raised from rupees one lakh to two lakhs.

Arjun: Oh My God!

Shrikrishna: And now you will lose your sleep.

Arjun: What is that?

Shrikrishna: If a member is repeatedly found guilty for the last five years, then action can be taken even against his firm! And it is very severe.

Arjun: Tell me. Gathering strength to listen to you.

Shrikrishna: Then, even the firm may be prohibited from undertaking any professional activity for up to one year or a fine up to Rs. 25 lakhs can be imposed!

Arjun: Should it be the same offence?

Shrikrishna: No. It states only the item from the first schedule. So, it could be any offence.

Arjun: Baap Re! Many CAs will close their shops! And what about the Second Schedule?

Shrikrishna: You know that the Second Schedule contains more serious offences. There also, the composition of the DC is changed. Now, the Presiding Officer will be a non-member of ICAI. Two Central Government nominees, again, non-members! And two CCMs.

Arjun: So, the majority, including President, will be non-CAs!

Shrikrishna: Yes. It can be. And the maximum fine is raised from Rs. 5 lakhs to Rs. 10 lakhs. Suspension for any length of time, even permanently. This was already there.

Arjun: What about repetitive offences?

Shrikrishna: There, for repeated offences in the last five years, the firm may be prohibited from carrying out any professional activity for up to two years. Even the registration of the firm may be suspended or cancelled permanently! Or there could be a fine of up to Rs. 50 lakhs.

Arjun: Mar gaye! Don’t tell me anything further just now. Not in a position to bear it any longer!

Shrikrishna: Fine! In the meanwhile, I wish you a happy festival season.

“Om Shanti”

[This dialogue is based on the recent amendments (18th April, 2022) brought into the provisions of the CA Act and conduct of enquiry rules relating to disciplinary cases. The Amendments are effective from 10th May, 2022.]

Dictation Software

Are you tired of typing? Want to improve your speed? So, how about being a lot lazier than you are?

Dictation.io is your first stop. Use the magic of speech recognition to write emails and documents in Google Chrome and almost anywhere else on the computer. Dictation.io accurately transcribes your speech into text in real-time. You can add paragraphs, punctuation marks and even insert smileys using voice commands.

Just head to https://dictation.io/ and click on Launch Dictation. On the next screen, click on Start, allow the use of your microphone and start dictating! So simple. No login, no sharing your email id, no passwords – nothing. Just start dictating.

Once you have finished your document, you can copy and paste it into any software of your choice – Word, Gmail, WhatsApp, just anything. You can even download and save the file you created in plain text (.txt). If you wish to Tweet your text, the site offers a direct link to Twitter, and you may Tweet it directly on your Twitter account. And if you want to print or email it through Outlook, there is a provision to now print the dictated matter or email it from Outlook.

All the standard formatting options like Bold, Italics, underline, alignments, etc., are available as menu items and voice commands. The site guides you to a set of commands that can be used for inserting new paragraphs, selecting and copying text or deleting it, a host of smileys and special characters, punctuation marks and quotes and brackets.

The site further allows you to dictate in various languages besides English. These include Indian languages like Hindi, Gujarati, Marathi, Bengali, Punjabi, Kannada and many more! So you could type messages in your local language by just dictating the matter and then sending it on any digital media of your choice.

If you are a Gmail fan and wish to use Dictation.io mainly in Gmail, installing the Dictation for Gmail Chrome extension in your Chrome Browser may be helpful. Once done, whenever you go into Compose mode in your Gmail, you will see a tiny microphone on the bottom left of your panel (just next to the Send button). Click on the microphone and start dictating your mails in Gmail directly. Again, you can dictate in multiple languages, and the system will diligently type out the message in
the language of your choice! Punctuations, formatting and a host of other options are all available by voice commands.

If you use Google Docs regularly, you are in for some good news! Once you are creating or editing a document, head to Tools – Voice Typing (or use the Ctrl+Shift+S shortcut), and you will be able to start dictating the document in a language of your choice. It cannot get simpler than that.

And, of course, if you are used to using good old Microsoft Word on the Home Tab, select  Dictate and wait for a red dot to appear on the icon. Once it appears, you can start talking, and whatever you say will appear as text in your Word document. Punctuation marks and a host of other additions are also built-in. Select  Dictate again to stop dictating.

And these days, we are all used to inefficient typing on our phones. We can bid goodbye to those slow error-prone keystrokes if we install Google Keyboard (GBoard) or Microsoft Swiftkey as the primary keyboard on our phone. Once done, there is an option to dictate directly on your mobile phone. The dictation will allow you to insert any text in any application on your phone – no more speed and accuracy issues from now on!

There is no need to have a training session if you speak slowly and clearly for the system to understand what you are saying. It may take a few attempts to get the system to understand your rhythm and pronunciation. Once done, it works like a breeze.

A word of caution for all dictation softwares. The accuracy level could be between 90-95% in the majority of the cases. So, you may have to reread the matter at least once and correct the typos (especially for proper nouns, etc.). But once you get the hang of it, you will save hours and hours of time typing.

HAPPY DICTATING!

Controversy on What is ‘Control’ Set at Rest

BACKGROUND
An oft-litigated issue has been – when can a person be said to be in ‘control’ of a company? This is relevant not just in securities laws but to several other laws including the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, the Companies Act, 2013, Insurance law, Competition law, etc. The definition of ‘control’ under the SEBI Takeover Regulations, the Companies Act, 2013 and the IBC is on the same lines. Acquiring control of a company or even being in control has significant consequences. However, the definition of ‘control’ is very widely worded and has left doubts on how it would apply to facts. Thus, there has been uncertainty and hence litigation. As we will see later, SEBI did propose to make the definition more specific but later backtracked. Indeed, though a 12-year-old decision of SAT (Subhkam Ventures (I) P. Ltd. vs. (2010) 99 SCL 159 (SAT) – ‘Subhkam’) gave fairly clear guidelines and principles on how this definition of ‘control’ should apply. The matter was appealed before the Supreme Court. But since the matter got resolved on other grounds, the Supreme Court consciously refrained from commenting on the merits and stated that its decision should not be taken as a precedent over the issue. This was interpreted particularly by SEBI as leaving the matter open putting even the SAT decision as without having any finality. The uncertainty then continued.

A recent decision of the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) (Vishvapradhan Commercial (P.) Ltd. vs. SEBI (2022) 140 taxmann.com 498 (SAT) – ‘Vishvapradhan’) has finally given some semblance of finality. This has happened because the Supreme Court in 2018 approved the Subhkam decision which elaborated the matter even further. However, this ruling was under the IBC and thus a level of uncertainty continued. Now, the latest Vishvapradhan SAT ruling has affirmed that the Supreme Court decision indeed applies even to securities laws. This gives one strong reason to hope that this matter is finally settled for good. Let us go into more details about the issues involved.

DEFINITION OF ‘CONTROL’ UNDER THE SEBI TAKEOVER REGULATIONS

The controversy rages around the definition of ‘control’ under these Regulations, which, incidentally, is more or less identical to that under the Companies Act, 2013, and which definition also applies to IBC. It reads as under (Regulation 2(1)(e) excluding the proviso, which is not of concern here):

(e)  “control” includes the right to appoint majority of the directors or to control the management or policy decisions exercisable by a person or persons acting individually or in concert, directly or indirectly, including by virtue of their shareholding or management rights or shareholders agreements or voting agreements or in any other manner:

The definition is an inclusive one and widely framed. Control may arise through a majority holding of equity, where the holding of the whole group is counted. Or it may be through agreements or in any other manner. The parts which have faced difficulty in interpretation relate to what amounts to control of management or policy decisions. Particularly here, the question is what the border lines are, if at all such lines could be defined, which would separate a situation where there exists control from one where it does not. This is particularly so when certain rights are given to certain investors holding a significant quantity of shares. These rights so granted may include the right to appoint a director or two, the right to veto certain significant decisions proposed to be taken by the company, etc. The question is whether such rights to participate in the management amounts to ‘control’?

IMPLICATIONS OF ACQUIRING/HOLDING ‘CONTROL’

If a person acquires control, he would be required to make an open offer under the Takeover Regulations which would have significant financial implications for the acquirer and possibly the benefit of a higher offer price to the selling shareholders. Such a person may also be classified as a promoter with various resultant implications. If one has control over certain specified companies that have defaulted on their debts, eligibility to participate in resolutions of companies under insolvency would be lost.

It is not surprising then that SEBI and other regulators are also vigilant on whether control is acquired. Investors who desire to obtain participation rights are also wary of whether having such rights would result in their being held to have acquired control.

THE SUBHKAM DECISION

In this decision, the SAT examined the issue in detail. The issue in question was, as described earlier, about an investor in a listed company which acquired certain participation rights in it. The question was whether this amounted to an acquisition of control. SEBI held that it did so amount to acquisition of control and required the investor to make an open offer. SAT reversed the order and used the analogy and metaphor of driving a car. It said that the crucial question was who was in the driving seat? Taking the metaphor further, it asked whether this would mean determining whether such a person had control not just of the steering wheel, but also the accelerator, the gears and the brakes. Or to put it more succinctly, the test was whether the person had proactive rights or reactive rights.

Acquiring of participation at best amounted to the occasional use of the brakes and occasionally (to extend the metaphor even further) giving driving instructions. It found that, on the facts of that case, the investor was not at all in the driver’s seat. Importantly, he could not initiate and implement any of the major decisions where it had veto rights. The definition of ‘control’ itself refers to having a right to appoint the majority of the directors and, by implications, it is submitted, having a right to appoint one or two directors who would be in the minority would not by itself amount to having control.

APPEAL TO SUPREME COURT AGAINST THE SUBHKAM DECISION

SEBI appealed to the Supreme Court but in the intervening period, certain events took place whereby the issue was rendered more or less infructuous. Thus, the Supreme Court did not have to decide on the issue and hence the matter was disposed of with a clarification that its decision did not amount to a precedent on the matter. While it did not set aside the SAT order either, undue emphasis or perhaps even an incorrect interpretation was being taken that the order of SAT too should not have any standing.

SEBI’S PROPOSAL TO LAY DOWN CERTAIN BRIGHT-LINE TESTS OF CONTROL

On 14th March, 2016, SEBI released a ‘consultation paper’ on the issue and particularly referring to the Subhkam decision, which considered whether certain specific bright-line tests could be laid down to help decide whether a person can be said to have or not have ‘control’. This, SEBI felt, would result in the definition being more specific. However, on receiving responses, SEBI decided that the definition did not need any change and dropped the proposal. It is submitted that this should have closed the matter, at least as far as SEBI is concerned. It, as we will see below, did not.

SUPREME COURT DECISION IN ARCELORMITTAL’S CASE

This decision (ArcelorMittal India (P.) Ltd. vs. Satish Kumar Gupta ((2018) 150 SCL 354 (SC)) was under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). The matter and issues thereunder were several and complex. But essentially, the question was the same – under what circumstances would a person (or group of persons) can be said to have control over a company? The implications, as mentioned earlier, of being held to have control were significant and serious – a person would be disqualified from offering a resolution plan.

The Supreme Court cited the Subhkam decision and held that the observations made therein on what amounts to having ‘control’ were apposite. The Court even went further and elaborated on the question but essentially, the principles laid down in Subhkam were approved.

THE SAT DECISION IN VISHVAPRADHAN

Most recently, in Vishvapradhan, SAT had the occasion to examine a similar question on whether such participative rights amount to control. Again, in this case, there were others too but the question that is relevant for this article was whether, on account of having certain participative rights, an investor can be said to have acquired control. SAT examined in great detail the exact rights that the investor had. It also considered the Subhkam decision and the Supreme Court decision in ArcelorMittal. SEBI clutched at several straws of arguments. It argued that the Subhkam decision did not, particularly in light of the Supreme Court observations on appeal, have any standing. It also argued that the ArcelorMittal case was under the IBC. It even argued that the Supreme Court decision in Subhkam was given by three judges while the ArcelorMittal ruling was by two judges.

The SAT rejected all these arguments. It affirmed that ArcelorMittal endorsed the Subhkam ruling, and the principles would need to be applied to the present case too. Accordingly, it held that acquisition of such participating rights did not amount to acquisition of control.

CONCLUSION AND THE WAY FORWARD

Arguably, then, it can be said that a level of certainty has finally prevailed on the control issue. And this extends to several laws where the definition is on similar lines. However, importantly, there is clarity on principles which then would have to be applied to the facts of an individual case. It is possible that in a given case, the rights may be such that the acquirer may be held to proactively have control. Thus, care would need to be taken in structuring such arrangements and it is likely that some cases may still see litigation. However, the clarity of the guidelines and the principles laid down to determine the issue should help SEBI and even the Appellate Authorities arrive at a conclusion.

It may not be out of place to mention that there are likely to be further developments on the matter. SEBI is actively exploring reforming the concept of ‘promoters’ and prefers to define and apply the term ‘person-in-control’. This is particularly in light of changing shareholding patterns. SEBI had issued a consultation paper on 11th May, 2021 on the subject and it is possible that it may implement the proposal at least in parts, though to implement the whole of it would require amendment of other statutes too falling under the purview of other regulators/Parliament. But it is submitted that the legal developments discussed here would actually help in the changed scenario too, perhaps even more so.

Bequests and Legacies Under Wills – Part 2

INTRODUCTION
In the last month’s feature (BCAJ, August 2022), we examined some of the important principles regarding a Will’s valid bequest, the time when it vests, etc. We continue with an examination of some more interesting and vital features in this respect.

TYPES OF LEGACIES

Specific Legacy

When a specific part of the testator’s property is bequeathed to any person and such property is distinguished from all other parts of his property, then the legacy is known as a specific legacy. E.g., A makes a bequest to C of the diamond ring which was gifted to A by his father. This is a specific legacy in favour of C. Thus, the essence of a specific legacy is that it is distinguishable from the other assets of the testator’s estate. A specific legacy is distinguishable from a general legacy, e.g., a bequest of all the residue estate is a general legacy.

What is a specific legacy and what is a general legacy is a question of fact and needs to be determined on a case-to-case basis. If the legacy exists at the time of the testator’s death and his estate is otherwise insufficient to pay off his debts, then the specific legacy must be given to the legatee. The following are the principles with respect to a specific legacy:

(i)    Usually, a bequest of money, stocks and shares are general legacies. In some cases, a sum of money is bequeathed and the stock or securities in which the money is to be invested is specified in the Will. Even in such cases, the legacy is not specific. E.g., A makes a bequest of Rs. 10 crores to his son and his Will specifies that the sum is to be invested in the shares of XYZ P. Ltd. The legacy is not specific.

(ii)    Even if a legacy is made out under which a bequest is made in general terms and the testator as on the date of the Will possesses stock of the same or greater amount, the legacy does not become specific. E.g., A bequeaths 8% RBI Bonds worth Rs. 10 lakhs to X. On the date of the Will, A has 8% RBI Bonds worth Rs. 10 lakhs. The legacy is not specific. However, if A were to state that “I bequeath to X all my 8% RBI Bonds”, then this would have been a specific legacy.

(iii)    A legacy of money does not become specific merely because its payment is postponed until some part of the testator’s estate has been reduced to a certain form or remitted to a certain place.

(iv)    A Will may make a specific bequest for some items and a residual bequest for the others. While making a residual bequest, the testator lists down some of the items comprised within the residue. Merely because such items are enlisted they do not become specific legacies.

(v)    In the case of a specific bequest to two or more persons in succession, the property must be retained in a form in which the testator left it even if it is a wasting or a reducing asset, e.g., a lease or an annuity.

(vi)    A property bequest is generally a specific legacy.

Demonstrative Legacy

A Demonstrative Legacy has the following characteristics:

(a)    It means a legacy which comprises a bequest of a certain sum of money or a certain quantity of a commodity but refers to a particular fund or stock which is to constitute the primary fund or stock out of which the payment is to be made. The difference between a specific and a demonstrative legacy is that while in the case of a specific legacy, a specific property is given to the legatee, in the case of a demonstrative legacy, it must be paid out of a specified property.

E.g., A bequeaths Rs. 50 lakhs to his wife and also directs under his Will that his property should be sold and out of the proceeds Rs. 50 lakhs should go to his daughter. The legacy to his wife is specific but the legacy to his daughter is demonstrative.

(b)    In case a portion of a fund is a specific legacy and a portion is to be used for a demonstrative legacy, then the specific legacy stands in priority to the demonstrative legacy. If there is a shortfall in paying the demonstrative legacy, then it is to be met from the residue of the estate of the testator.

(c)    Similarly, in case a portion of a fund is a specific legacy and a portion is to be used for a demonstrative legacy, and if the testator himself receives a portion of the fund with the result that funds are insufficient, then specific legacy stands in priority to the demonstrative legacy. If there is a shortfall in paying the demonstrative legacy, then it is to be met from the residue of the testator’s estate.

E.g., A bequeaths Rs. 20 lakhs, being part of an actionable claim of Rs. 50 lakhs which he has to receive from B to his wife and also directs under his Will that this claim should be used to pay Rs. 10 lakhs to his daughter. During A’s lifetime he receives Rs. 25 lakhs himself from B. The legacy to his wife is specific, but the legacy to his daughter is demonstrative. Hence, the wife will receive Rs. 20 lakhs in priority to the daughter. Since the balance in the claim is only Rs. 5 lakhs, whereas the daughter has to receive Rs. 10 lakhs, she would have to receive the balance from A’s general estate.

General Legacy

A legacy which is neither specific nor demonstrative is known as a general legacy. E.g., A bequeaths all the residue of his estate to B. This is called a general legacy.


ADEMPTION OF LEGACIES
Ademption of a legacy means that the legacy ceases to take effect, i.e., the legacy fails. Ademption of a legacy takes place when the thing which has been legated does not exist at the time of the testator’s death. The rules in respect of ademption of legacies are as follows:

(a)    In the case of a specific legacy, if the subject matter of the item bequeathed does not exist at the time of the testator’s death or it has been converted into some other form, then the legacy is adeemed. Thus, because the bequest is not in existence, the legacy fails. E.g., A makes a Will under which he leaves a gold ring to X. A in his lifetime, sells the ring. The legacy is adeemed. The position would be the same if a stock has been specifically bequeathed and the same is not in existence at the testator’s death.

However, in case the bequest undergoes a change between the date of Will and the death of the testator and the change occurs due to some legal provisions, then the legacy is not adeemed. E.g., A bequeaths 10,000 equity shares in Z Ltd. to B. Z Ltd. undergoes a demerger under a court-approved reconstruction scheme and the shares of A are split into 5,000 2% Preference Shares of Y Ltd. and 4,000 equity shares of Z Ltd. The legacy is not adeemed.

Another exception to the principle of ademption is if the subject matter undergoes a change between the date of the Will and the death of the testator without the testator’s knowledge. In such a case since the change is not with the testator’s knowledge, the legacy is not adeemed. One of the instances where such a change may occur is if the change is made by an agent of the testator without his consent.

(b)    Unlike a specific legacy, a demonstrative legacy is not adeemed merely because the property on which it is based does not exist at the time of the testator’s death or the property has been converted into some other form. In such a case the other general assets of the testator would be used to pay off the legacy.

(c)    In some specific bequests, debts, receivables, actionable claims, etc., which the testator has to receive from third parties may be bequeathed. In such cases, if the testator receives such dues himself, then the legacy adeems because there is nothing left to be received by the legatee.

However, where the bequest is money or some other commodity and the testator receives the same in his lifetime, then the same is not adeemed unless the testator mixes up the same along with his general property.

(d)    If a property has been specifically bequeathed to a person and he receives a part or a portion of the property, then the bequest adeems to the extent of the assets received by the legatee. However, it continues for the balance portion of the bequest.

As opposed to this, if only a portion of the entire fund or property has been specifically bequeathed to a legatee and the testator receives a part or a portion of this fund or property, then there is an ademption to the extent of the receipt. The balance fund or stock shall be used to discharge the legacy.

(e)    If a stock is specifically bequeathed to a person and it is lent to someone else and accordingly replaced, then the legacy is not adeemed. Similarly, if a stock which is specifically bequeathed is sold and afterwards before the testator’s death, an equal quantity is replaced, then the legacy is not adeemed.

CONCLUSION

It is important to bear in mind the above principles while drafting a Will so that the bequest does not become void and so that the beneficiaries can receive what the testator intended that they receive!

Taxability of Subscription to Database Paid to Non-Resident

Digitalisation has changed the way we conduct business in the last few years. In this article, the authors seek to analyse the tax implications arising from paying a subscription to a database to a non-resident.

1. BACKGROUND

Payment for the subscription to an online database is one of the most common remittances for businesses in India. The taxability of this payment has been a litigative issue, especially when it comes to TDS. The nature of the payment is such that one would need to look at various provisions under the Act and the DTAA to determine its taxability. The issue of whether payments for the use of an online database constitute royalty has been covered in the May, 2017 edition of BCAJ in the ‘Controversies’ feature. Further, the authors also covered this issue in the March, 2007 edition of BCAJ.

However, in the context of payment for the use of the software, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has laid down the law in its recent decision in Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P.) Ltd vs. CIT (2021) 432 ITR 471. Further, India has introduced Equalisation Levy provisions for E-commerce operators as well as extended the definition of ‘income deemed to accrue or arise in India’ with the introduction of the Significant Economic Presence provisions (Explanation 2A to section 9(1)(i)) and extended source rule provisions (Explanation 3A to section 9(1)(i)). Therefore, the authors have sought to provide an overview of the taxability of such payments in view of the recent amendments in law and the judicial precedents.  

A database is an organised collection of data and information. From a business-user perspective, it can broadly cover the publicly available information provided in an organised manner, such as the price of certain commodities, a legal database covering various judgements, business information reports etc., or cover opinions on various issues provided by various experts or a mix of both.

When subscribing to a database, one generally gets access to view various reports/ data available on the database. Such a database may further, in some cases, be modified in a certain manner (such as granting access to only certain modules) depending on the need of the user organisation. In most End User Licence Agreements (‘EULA’) granting  access to the database, the right to view the information is provided. The main copyright of the database and the data in the database continue to be with the database owner (except in cases where the data in the database is publicly available information).

Some aspects that one needs to consider while determining the taxability of payment for subscription of an online database, especially in a cross-border transaction and which the authors have sought to analyse in this article are as follows:

  • Whether the payment would constitute  Royalty under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) or the relevant Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (‘DTAA’)?

  • Whether the payment constitutes ‘Fees for Technical Services’ under the provisions of the Act or the relevant DTAA?

  • Whether the provisions of Explanation 2A to section 9(1)(i) of the Act, i.e. Significant Economic Presence (‘SEP’) would, apply to such a payment?

  • Would the Equalisation Levy on E-commerce Operators, introduced by the Finance Act, 2020, apply to such a payment?

2. TAXABILITY UNDER THE ACT

In the ensuing paragraphs, we have analysed the provisions of the Act. The activities of the database service provider are generally undertaken outside India, and therefore, arguably, income earned from granting access to the database may not be considered as accruing or arising in India u/s 5 of the Act. One needs to consider if the income would be considered ‘deeming to accrue or arise in India’ u/s 9 of the Act. Under the domestic tax provisions of the Act, one would also need to evaluate whether the payment qualifies as ‘royalty’ or ‘fees for technical services’ or whether the SEP provisions are attracted.

2.1. Whether taxable as royalty?

The term ‘royalty’ has been defined in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act. In this regard, we would like to bring the attention of the readers to the feature in BCAJ in May, 2017, mentioned above, wherein the applicability of the definition of the term to the payment for access to an online database has been analysed. In the said feature, the authors have concluded that the payment towards the use of the database would not constitute royalty under the provisions of the Act as well as the relevant DTAA. While, to give a holistic view on the matter, in this article, we have covered the applicability of the provisions of the term ‘royalty’, the reader may refer to the May, 2017 article for further in-depth analysis.

The term ‘royalty’ is defined to mean consideration for the following:

“(i) the transfer of all or any rights (including the granting of a licence) in respect of a patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property;

(ii) the imparting of any information concerning the working of, or the use of, a patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property;

(iii) the use of any patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property;

(iv) the imparting of any information concerning technical, industrial, commercial or scientific knowledge, experience or skill;

(iva) the use or right to use any industrial, commercial or scientific equipment but not including the amounts referred to in section 44BB;

(v) the transfer of all or any rights (including the granting of a licence) in respect of any copyright, literary, artistic or scientific work including films or video tapes for use in connection with television or tapes for use in connection with radio broadcasting ; or

(vi) the rendering of any services in connection with the activities referred to in sub-clauses (i) to (iv), (iva) and (v).”

In the ensuing paragraphs, we have sought to analyse each and every aspect of the above definition.  

2.1.1. Whether software?

Explanation 4 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act further extends the definition to include consideration in respect of any right, property or information and also includes the transfer of right for use or right to use computer software (including granting of a licence).

Explanation 3 to section 9(1)(vi) defines the term ‘computer software’ as follows:

“For the purposes of this clause, “computer software” means any computer programme recorded on any disc, tape, perforated media or other information storage device and includes any such programme or any customized electronic data.”

As the expression ‘means’ has been used for defining ‘computer software’, one would need to interpret the provisions strictly within the confines of the definition. In other words, a database would be considered ‘computer software’ only if it falls within any of the aspects covered above.

In the case of an online database, it is not a computer programme recorded on any disc, tape, perforated media or other information storage device. The question that arises is whether it would be considered as ‘customized electronic data’. In this regard, one may refer to the decision of the Chennai ITAT in the case of ITO vs. Accurum India Pvt Ltd (2010) 126 ITD 69, wherein this term was analysed, albeit in the context of section 80HHE for the definition of ‘computer software’1. The ITAT held that for the data to be ‘customised’ it would need to be suitable for a specific customer only. In the present case, the data is available to all subscribers to the database and, therefore, cannot be considered customised.


1. Taxation of Copyright Royalties in India – Interplay of Copyright Law and Income Tax by Ganesh Rajgopalan published by Taxsutra and Oakbridge, 2nd edition.

Therefore, a database cannot be considered ‘computer software’, and the provisions of Explanation 3 and 4 of section 9(1)(vi) shall not apply in this case.

2.1.2. Whether patent, invention, model, design, secret formula or process or trade mark or similar property?

While the online database would not be considered a patent, invention, model, design or trade mark (the process is discussed in ensuing paragraphs), the question arises what does one mean by ‘similar property’.

Various Courts have referred to the Copyright Act, 1957 (‘CA 1957’) in this regard to determine whether ‘software’ can be considered copyright and, therefore, payment for the use of the same be considered as ‘royalty’ under the Act. The Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Wipro Ltd. (2013) 355 ITR 284, held that payment for the use of the database would constitute royalty. In this case, the Court relied on its earlier ruling in the case of CIT vs. Samsung Electronics Co. Ltd (2012) 345 ITR 494,  and after relying on the definition of copyright under the CA 1957 had held that the payment for the use of computer software would constitute payment towards the use of copyright and therefore, taxable as ‘royalty’.

Section 2(o) of the CA 1957 provides as follows:

“‘literary work’ includes computer programmes, tables and compilations including computer databases;”

Further, section 14 of the CA 1957 provides as follows:

“For the purposes of this Act, “copyright” means the exclusive right subject to the provisions of this Act, to do or authorise the doing of any of the following acts in respect of a work or any substantial part thereof, namely:—

(a) in the case of a literary, dramatic or musical work, not being a computer programme,—

(i) to reproduce the work in any material form including the storing of it in any medium by electronic means;

(ii) to issue copies of the work to the public not being copies already in circulation;

(iii) to perform the work in public, or communicate it to the public;

(iv) to make any cinematograph film or sound recording in respect of the work;

(v) to make any translation of the work;

(vi) to make any adaptation of the work;

(vii) to do, in relation to a translation or an adaptation of the work, any of the acts specified in relation to the work in sub-clauses (i) to (vi);

(b) in the case of a computer programme,—

(i) to do any of the acts specified in clause (a);

(ii) to sell or give on commercial rental or offer for sale or for commercial rental any copy of the computer programme:

Provided that such commercial rental does not apply in respect of computer programmes where the programme itself is not the essential object of the rental;”

Recently, we had the landmark ruling in the context of the taxability of computer software as royalty. The Supreme Court in the case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P.) Ltd vs. CIT (2021) 432 ITR 471, held that payment towards the use of the computer software would not constitute ‘royalty’ under the relevant DTAA, effectively overruling the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Samsung Electronics (supra).

The relevant paragraphs of this landmark decision of the Apex Court, applicable to our analysis of taxability of online database, have been reproduced below:

“46. When it comes to an end-user who is directly sold the computer programme, such end-user can only use it by installing it in the computer hardware owned by the end-user and cannot in any manner reproduce the same for sale or transfer, contrary to the terms imposed by the EULA.

47. In all these cases, the “licence” that is granted vide the EULA, is not a licence in terms of section 30 of the Copyright Act, which transfers an interest in all or any of the rights contained in sections 14(a) and 14(b) of the Copyright Act, but is a “licence” which imposes restrictions or conditions for the use of computer software. Thus, it cannot be said that any of the EULAs that we are concerned with are referable to section 30 of the Copyright Act, inasmuch as section 30 of the Copyright Act speaks of granting an interest in any of the rights mentioned in sections 14(a) and 14(b) of the Copyright Act. The EULAs in all the appeals before us do not grant any such right or interest, least of all, a right or interest to reproduce the computer software. In point of fact, such reproduction is expressly interdicted, and it is also expressly stated that no vestige of copyright is at all transferred, either to the distributor or to the end-user. A simple illustration to explain the aforesaid position will suffice. If an English publisher sells 2000 copies of a particular book to an Indian distributor, who then resells the same at a profit, no copyright in the aforesaid book is transferred to the Indian distributor, either by way of licence or otherwise, inasmuch as the Indian distributor only makes a profit on the sale of each book. Importantly, there is no right in the Indian distributor to reproduce the aforesaid book and then sell copies of the same. On the other hand, if an English publisher were to sell the same book to an Indian publisher, this time with the right to reproduce and make copies of the aforesaid book with the permission of the author, it can be said that copyright in the book has been transferred by way of licence or otherwise, and what the Indian publisher will pay for, is the right to reproduce the book, which can then be characterised as royalty for the exclusive right to reproduce the book in the territory mentioned by the licence. ….

52. There can be no doubt as to the real nature of the transactions in the appeals before us. What is “licensed” by the foreign, non-resident supplier to the distributor and resold to the resident end-user, or directly supplied to the resident end-user, is in fact the sale of a physical object which contains an embedded computer programme, and is therefore, a sale of goods, which, as has been correctly pointed out by the learned counsel for the assessees, is the law declared by this Court in the context of a sales tax statute in Tata Consultancy Services (supra) (see paragraph 27).”

The Supreme Court has distinguished the rights in the software and held that the right to use the software is different from the right in the copyright in the software, and the former would not constitute royalty.

Using the same analogy for an online database, one does not get a right to use the copyright in the database itself but only the right to use the database and therefore, such a payment would not constitute royalty under the first limb of the definition.

Similar principles, that payment for the use of database would not constitute payment for the use of copyright in the database and therefore not royalty, are also emanating from the following recent decisions (albeit rendered before the above-referred decision of the Supreme Court):

  • Mumbai ITAT in the case of American Chemical Society vs. DCIT (2019) 106 taxmann.com 253.

  • Delhi ITAT in the case of Dow Jones & Company Inc vs. ACIT (2022) 135 taxmann.com 270.

  • Ahmedabad ITAT in the cases of DCIT vs. Welspun Corporation Ltd (2017) 183 TTJ 697 and ITO vs. Cadila Healthcare Ltd (2017) 184 TTJ 178.

Further, there are various rulings such as that of the AAR in the cases of Dun & Bradstreet Espana, S.A., In re (2005) 272 ITR 99, Factset Research System Inc. and In re (2009) 317 ITR 169 or the Delhi ITAT in the case of McKinsey Knowledge Centre India (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO (2018) 92 taxmann.com 226, wherein it has been held that payment towards the use of database which only collates publicly available information, cannot be considered as ‘royalty’ under the Act or the DTAA.

2.1.3. Whether Process Royalty?

The term ‘process’ has been defined in Explanation 6 to section 9(1)(vi) of the Act as follows:

“For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that the expression “process” includes and shall be deemed to have also included transmission by satellite (including up-linking, amplification, conversion for down-linking of any signal), cable, optic fibre or by any other similar technology, whether or not such process is secret;”

In the view of the authors, process would mean the way a particular activity is undertaken, and Explanation 6 merely extends the meaning of the term to cover the various modes of transmission of the process and to overrule certain judicial precedents which held that under the Act, for payment towards the process to be considered as ‘royalty’, such process should be secret.

In this scenario, the payment is not towards any process relating to the database. Therefore, this limb of the definition of ‘royalty’ is also not satisfied in the case of payment towards access to an online database.

2.1.4. Whether Equipment Royalty?

The term ‘royalty’ includes payment for the use or right to use industrial, commercial or scientific equipment.

In this regard, one may refer to the decision of the AAR in the case of Cargo Community Network (P.) Ltd, In re (2007) 289 ITR 355 wherein it has been held that amounts received towards the access granted to use an internet-based air cargo portal would constitute payment towards the use of ‘equipment’ and therefore, taxable as royalty under the Act. In the said case, the AAR concluded that it is not possible to use the portal without the server, and therefore, payment was made towards an integrated commercial-cum-scientific equipment, being the server on which the portal operates.

A similar view was also taken by the AAR in the case of IMT Labs (India) (P.) Ltd, In re (2006) 287 ITR 450.

However, in a subsequent decision of Dell International Services India (P) Ltd, In Re (2009) 305 ITR 37, the AAR has held that payment towards the use of a facility which uses sophisticated equipment would not be considered as payment towards the use of the equipment itself.

In the view of the authors, the decision of the AAR in the case of Dell (supra) presents a better view of the matter, and if one pays for access to the database, it cannot be said that one is paying for the use of the server on which such database is operated. Therefore, such a payment would not be considered towards the use or right to use industrial, commercial or scientific equipment.

2.1.5. Whether Experience Royalty?

Clause (iv) of Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi), defining the term ‘royalty’ includes payment towards the imparting of any information concerning technical, industrial, commercial or scientific knowledge, experience or skill.

The OECD Model Commentary on Article 12 explains the term as follows:

“11. In classifying as royalties payments received as consideration for information concerning industrial, commercial or scientific experience, paragraph 2 is referring to the concept of “know-how”. Various specialist bodies and authors have formulated definitions of know-how. The words “payments … for information concerning industrial, commercial or scientific experience” are used in the context of the transfer of certain information that has not been patented and does not generally fall within other categories of intellectual property rights. It generally corresponds to undivulged information of an industrial, commercial or scientific nature arising from previous experience, which has practical application in the operation of an enterprise and from the disclosure of which an economic benefit can be derived….

11.1 In the know-how contract, one of the parties agrees to impart to the other, so that he can use them for his own account, his special knowledge and experience which remain unrevealed to the public. It is recognised that the grantor is not required to play any part himself in the application of the formulas granted to the licensee and that he does not guarantee the result thereof……”

There is further guidance on this subject in the UN Model Commentary on Article 12, which provides as follows:

“16. Some members from developing countries interpreted the phrase “information concerning industrial, commercial or scientific experience” to mean specialized knowledge, having intrinsic property value relating to industrial, commercial, or managerial processes, conveyed in the form of instructions, advice, teaching or formulas, plans or models, permitting the use or application of experience gathered on a particular subject. “

The term ‘knowledge, experience or skill’ has been held to be referring to those intangibles or know-how which are acquired on undertaking a particular activity, but which may not necessarily be registered as an intangible.

If one refers to the meaning of the term, there are various decisions, such as the Hyderabad ITAT in the case of GVK Oil & Gas Ltd vs. ADIT (2016) 158 ITD 215, Mumbai ITAT in the case of Dy. DIT vs. Preroy AG (2010) 39 SOT 187, the AAR in the case of Real Resourcing Ltd, In re (2010) 322 ITR 558 and the Bombay High Court in the case of Diamond Services International (P) Ltd vs. Union of India (2008) 304 ITR 201, wherein the distinction between a contract for imparting know-how, experience or skill has been differentiated from a contract where such know-how, experience, skill has been used to provide services. There are various decisions which have been referred to above wherein the Courts have held that payment towards the use of publicly available information would not amount to imparting of any knowledge, experience or skill and, therefore, would not be considered ‘royalty’.

In this regard, it would be important to highlight the decision of the AAR in the case of ThoughtBuzz (P.) Ltd, In re (2012) 21 taxmann.com 129, wherein it has been held that income of a social media monitoring service, providing a platform for a subscription for users to engage with their customers, brand ambassadors, etc., would constitute payment for the use of commercial or industrial knowledge and therefore, taxable as royalty. In the said case, the taxpayer obtained information from blogs, forums, social networking sites, review sites, questions and answers sites and Twitter and collated the same for its users. The AAR did not provide detailed reasoning for arriving at this conclusion.

However, in the authors’ view, this may not be the better view as the information, which is collated by the database in question, was public information.

In most cases, the payment towards access to the database would not be considered ‘royalty’ as the payment would be towards information which is publicly available, but collated for the benefit of the users. However, one may need to evaluate, on the basis of the facts, if any knowledge or experience (whether belonging to the database service provider or otherwise) is imparted through the database, payment towards the use of such database, and if such experience is imparted, the transaction may be considered as ‘royalty’.

In view of the above, one may be able to take the view that the payment towards access to an online database would not constitute royalty under the Act.

2.2. Whether taxable as Fees for Technical Services?

The term ‘fees for technical services’ has been defined in Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vii) of the Act to mean the following:

“For the purposes of this clause, ‘fees for technical services’ means any consideration (including any lump sum consideration) for the rendering of any managerial, technical or consultancy services (including the provision of services of technical or other personnel) but does not include consideration for any construction, assembly, mining or like project undertaken by the recipient or consideration which would be income of the recipient chargeable under the head “Salaries”;”

The first question which arises is whether such a payment would constitute ‘towards services’. While the term is not specifically defined in the Act, one may look at the general meaning of the term and such payment would constitute ‘towards services’. Arguably, such services would not be considered managerial or consultancy services. Further, such services do not involve any human intervention, and therefore, following the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Kotak Securities Ltd (2016) 383 ITR 1, such services would not be considered ‘technical services’.

In the specific context of online databases, a similar view was taken by the Mumbai ITAT in the case of Elsevier Information Systems GmbH vs. DCIT (2019) 106 taxmann.com 401, wherein it was held that in the absence of any interaction between the customer/user of the database and the employees of the assessee, or any other material on record to show any human intervention while providing access to the database, such a payment could not be considered towards technical services.

Therefore, a subscription to an online database would not be considered as ‘fees for technical services’ u/s 9(1)(vii) of the Act.

2.3. Applicability of SEP provisions

The Finance Act, 2018 has introduced  Significant Economic Presence (‘SEP’) provisions in India. Explanation 2A to section 9(1)(i) extends the definition of business connection to include SEP and SEP has been defined to mean the following:

(a) transaction in respect of any goods, services or property carried out by a non-resident with any person in India including provision of download of data or software in India, if the aggregate of payments arising from such transaction or transactions during the previous year exceeds such amount as may be prescribed; or

(b) systematic and continuous soliciting of business activities or engaging in interaction with such number of users in India, as may be prescribed.

Further, the Proviso to the Explanation also provides that the transactions or activities shall constitute SEP, whether or not:

(i) the agreement for such transactions or activities is entered in India; or

(ii) the non-resident has a residence or a place of business in India; or

(iii) the non-resident renders services in India.

In other words, the SEP provisions would apply even if such services are rendered outside India, if it is undertaken with any person in India and if the aggregate payments during the year exceed the threshold prescribed.

The CBDT vide Notification No. 41/2021/F.No.370142/11/2018-TPL dated 3rd  May, 2021, has notified the thresholds to mean Rs. 2 crores in the case of payments referred to in clause (a) above and 3 million users in clause (b) above.

In the case of an online database, the question first arises is which of the above clauses of the Explanation would apply – whether the payment threshold or the number of users. As discussed above, the provision of access to the database may be considered a service, even if no human intervention is involved. Therefore, such services, not being FTS and rendered by a non-resident to any person in India, would trigger the SEP provisions if the payment threshold is exceeded. Further, if the number of users in India of such a database exceeds the number prescribed, SEP provisions could apply.

In other words, both the clauses of Explanation 2A could apply simultaneously, and even if one of the conditions prescribed is met, SEP provisions may apply to the said transactions.

2.4. Applicability of Explanation 3A of section 9(1)(i)

The Finance Act, 2020 extended the Source Rule for income attributable to operations carried out in India by inserting Explanation 3A to Section 9(1)(i), which reads as under:

“Explanation 3A.—For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that the income attributable to the operations carried out in India, as referred to in Explanation 1, shall include income from—

(i) such advertisement which targets a customer who resides in India or a customer who accesses the advertisement through internet protocol address located in India;

(ii) sale of data collected from a person who resides in India or from a person who uses internet protocol address located in India; and

(iii) sale of goods or services using data collected from a person who resides in India or from a person who uses internet protocol address located in India.’’

At the outset, in the authors’ view, and as explained in detail in our article in the March 2021 issue of BCAJ, Explanation 3A does not create a new source or nexus for the income of a non-resident in India, but it merely extends the source, which a non-resident may already have to tax the income specified above. Therefore, if the non-resident is otherwise not having a business connection in India, Explanation 3A would not impact the income of such taxpayers in India. On the other hand, if a non-resident has a business connection in India, say on account of the SEP provisions, the income as mentioned above would also be considered attributable to operations undertaken in India irrespective of whether they are attributable to the business connection or not.

In the case of an online database, income from providing access of database would not be covered under clause (i) above. Further, one may also be able to argue that the database is not selling the data but merely providing access to view the data, and therefore, clause (ii) may also not apply.

The database service provider is providing services and if the data used in those services from a person who resides in India or from an ISP located in India, clause (iii) may trigger and if such non-resident already has a business connection in India, the income from the provision of such services (even to other non-residents) may be taxed in India. However, if the database collects information from all over the world (say for example, a global legal database covering judicial precedents on a particular issue from all over the world including India), it may not be possible to attribute a particular value to the data collected from India.

3. TAXABILITY UNDER DTAA

In the above paragraphs, we have analysed that the payments received towards the provision of access to database would not be taxable as Royalty or FTS under the domestic provisions of the Act itself. Generally, the definition of ‘Royalty’ or FTS in a DTAA is similar or narrower than the definition of the term under the Act, and therefore, such payments would also not be taxable as Royalty or FTS under the DTAA.

Further, even if the SEP provisions are triggered on account of the payments received from persons in India or the number of users in India, such online database service provider, in the absence of any physical presence in India, may also not have a Permanent Establishment (PE) in India under the DTAA and therefore, may not be liable to tax in India under the DTAA.

4. TAXABILITY UNDER EQUALISATION LEVY PROVISIONS

The Finance Act, 2020 introduced Equalisation Levy (‘EL’) in the hands of a non-resident E-commerce operator on E-commerce supply or services (‘EL ESS’). The earlier provisions of EL applied in the case of online advertisement services, which would not apply in the case of payment for access to a database. However, one may need to evaluate whether the provisions of EL ESS may apply in this scenario.

Section 165A of the Finance Act, 2016 (inserted vide Finance Act, 2020 with effect from 1st April, 2020) provides that EL ESS provisions shall apply at the rate of 2% on the amount of consideration received or receivable by an E-commerce operator (‘EOP’) from E-commerce supply or services (‘ESS’) made or provided or facilitated by it if the turnover or sales from such ESS exceeds Rs. 2 crores during the previous year. The first question which arises is whether an online database service provider would be considered  an EOP.

4.1. Whether database service provider would be considered as an E-commerce operator

Section 164(ca) of the Finance Act, 2016 (inserted vide Finance Act, 2020 with effect from 1st April, 2020) defines an EOP to mean as follows:

“‘e-commerce operator’ means a non-resident who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic facility or platform for online sale of goods or online provision of services or both;”

In the case of an online database service provider, the database would constitute an electronic facility or platform. The issue to be addressed is whether such a platform would be for the online provision of services. In this regard, we have discussed above, that provision of an online database would constitute a service, and such services are provided through the database and hence would be considered as having been provided online.

Therefore, an online database service provider would be considered an EOP.

4.2. Whether services would qualify as E-commerce supply or services

As discussed above, as the services rendered by the EOP would be considered an online provision of services, such services would also satisfy the definition of ESS u/s 164(cb) of the Finance Act, 2016.

Section 165A of the Finance Act, 2016 provides as follows:

“On and from the 1st day of April, 2020, there shall be charged an equalisation levy at the rate of two per cent of the amount of consideration received or receivable by an e-commerce operator from e-commerce supply or services made or provided or facilitated by it—

(i) to a person resident in India; or

(ii) to a non-resident in the specified circumstances as referred to in sub-section (3); or

(iii) to a person who buys such goods or services or both using internet protocol address located in India.”

Having concluded that the services qualify as ESS and the database service provider would be considered as EOP, the EL ESS provisions would apply if the access to the database is provided to a person resident in India, a person using an IP address located in India.

In this regard, it would be important to highlight that in the case of EL ESS, the liability to discharge the tax is on the non-resident recipient, and no deduction of EL is required to be undertaken by the resident payer.

The specified circumstances, as provided in clause (ii) above, would apply only in case the data is collected from a person resident in India or a person who uses an IP address located in India. If the data is not collected from such a person, and if the access is provided to a non-resident, the EL ESS provisions will not apply even if the data collated is in respect of India.

5. CONCLUSION

In view of the above discussion, payment for subscription of an online database may not be considered  Royalty or FTS under the Act or the DTAA. If the amount of payment or the number of users in India is exceeded, SEP provisions may be triggered, and the online database service provider may be considered as having a business connection in India. However, the income from subscription to the database would not be taxable in the absence of a PE in India under the relevant DTAA. Further, if the income from Indian users exceeds Rs. 2 crores, the EL ESS provisions may apply to such an online database service provider.

Critical Analysis

A recent decision of the Supreme Court in All India Haj Umrah Tour Organizer Association Mumbai vs. UOI1 (‘AIHUTO’ case) did not prima-facie seem to unsettle legal positions framed over the history of indirect tax legislation. Probably, the limited macro scope failed to generate enough traction for the decision to be scrutinised further. Yet, a more critical analysis of the decision would suggest a missed opportunity to decide on certain basic tax principles which could have resolved fundamental issues of the law. To appreciate this viewpoint, we may delve into the details and respectfully examine the missed pointers.

BACKGROUND

The issue cropped up on account of a tax exemption being granted to Haj pilgrims who availed services through the ‘State Run Haj committees’ and hence having a visible saving compared to the services being offered by Private Tour Operators (HGOs/PTOs). The simple grievance of the PTOs was that they are being discriminated against despite all the services provided by Haj Committees and PTOs being identical. The PTOs approached the Courts on this matter and were rightly directed to the GST council for making appropriate representations on such policy matters, which was rejected by the GST council based on the recommendation of the Fitment committee. Petitions were filed by PTOs before the Apex Court challenging the said decision.

CASE SUMMARY

PTOs render Haj package services to pilgrims, which involve (a) return air ticket booking; (b) hotel accommodation at Saudi Arabia; (c) catering activity during the Haj; (d) ancillary services such as foreign exchange, local travel, etc. India and Saudi Arabia, through a bilateral agreement, agreed to regulate the Haj pilgrimage for smooth conduct of the Haj by Indian pilgrims. A limited quota of families is permitted to perform the Haj on a yearly basis based on the bilateral arrangement. Internally, India has enacted the Haj Committee Act, 2002 and set up the Haj Committee to allocate the seats to the Haj and assign licenses to PTOs to render private tour operator services based on their allotted quota. Haj Committee itself provides Tour operator services on a nonprofit basis to pilgrims through a lottery system, thereby enabling pilgrims to perform their Haj. The only difference between the tour operator services provided by Haj Committee and PTOs is that while the former is a non-profit organisation, the latter conducts business with the profit motive.

1. 2022-VIL-39-SC

CONCLUSION
The Court held as follows:

–    Question of whether the service is extra-territorial cannot be examined as the matter is pending before another Bench;

–    The list of decisions on the beneficial or strict interpretation of exemptions need not be examined since there is no ambiguity on the scope of the exemption. The exemption is limited to either (a) religious ceremonies or (b) a specified list of organisations; Tour operator services do not fall into either of the above;

–    Exemptions being a matter of policy, the exclusion of other organisations (PTOs in this case) from the exemption list does not make the law discriminatory; and

–    Tour operator services are not ‘event-based/ performance-based services’, and the place of supply is based on the default rule of ‘ordinary residence of recipient’, and hence a domestic service.

OUR ANALYSIS

The decision could be analysed under four heads (a) Extra-territoriality, (b) Place of Supply, (c) Discrimination, and (d) Scope of exemption. Detailed arguments under each of these heads have been documented below. The relevant legal provisions are extracted for ready reference:

GST exemption entry2 under contention was as follows:

Heading
9963;

9972;
9995;

Services
by a person by way of- (a) conduct of any religious
ceremony
………..

Heading
9991

Services
by a specified organisation in
respect of a religious pilgrimage facilitated by the Government of India,
under bilateral arrangement.


Place of Supply (‘POS’) Entry – The relevant POS entries before the Court:

Default Rule (2) The place of supply of services, except the services specified in sub-sections (3) to (14), …………. shall be the location of the recipient

Event Based Rule (7) The place of supply of services provided by way of,—

(a) organisation of a cultural, artistic, sporting, scientific, educational or entertainment event including supply of services in relation to a conference, fair, exhibition, celebration or similar events; or

(b) services ancillary to organisation of any of the events or services referred to in clause (a), or assigning of sponsorship to such events:
…………
(ii) to a person other than a registered person, shall be the place where the event is actually held and if the event is held outside India, the place of supply shall be the location of the recipient.

Passenger Transportation Service (9) The place of supply of passenger transportation service to, ………..

(b) a person other than a registered person, shall be the place where the passenger embarks on the conveyance for a continuous journey


2. Service Tax exemption entry in Notification 25/2012-ST dt. 20.06.2012 is pari materia with GST exemption entry except to the extent of SAC numbering and inter-relation with the SAC schedule.

Extra-territoriality

The taxpayer contended that Haj Pilgrimage commences from India; involves organising the activity of the Haj at an overseas location; is substantially performed outside India, and hence extra-territorial in nature. The Bench declined to consider this argument since a similar issue was pending before another Bench.

One may perceive that the Court could have addressed this submission to a certain extent since this would have formed the foundation of the entire decision. Alternatively, the Court could have kept the matter pending until the referred Bench resolved the territoriality issue. A tax levy can be crystallised only after crossing the jurisdictional threshold. The Court has ventured into ‘place of supply’ provisions oriented towards ascertainment of India’s tax jurisdiction. Deciding on the place of supply after settling the territoriality subject may have induced some more robustness into the decision.

We know that Article 269 provides levy and collection of taxes on goods or services supplied in the course of inter-state trade or commerce, including the importation into India. Parliament has been empowered to formulate the principles for ascertainment of supply which takes place in inter-state trade or commerce. One could interpret the provisions of sections 7 to 13 to ascertain the place of supply (i.e. legal situs) for ascertainment of India’s taxing jurisdiction. The overall fabric of the provisions indicates that the taxes would be payable depending on the likely consumption of goods or services. Time and again, Courts3 and Government FAQs have stated that GST/ service tax is intended to be a ‘destination-based consumption tax’ – implying that the attempt should be to reach the destination of consumption of the economic activity proposed to be taxed.


3. AIFTP vs. UOI 2007 (7) S.T.R. 625 (S.C.); AL&FS vs. UOI 2010 (20) S.T.R. 417 (S.C.)

In the present facts, the Court could have considered applying this principle to tour operators whose services are conducted across jurisdictions. The special feature of a tour operator service is that while the service could be agreed upon in India, the actual performance and benefit of the service taxes place both in and outside India. Thus, such services have the possibility of multiple situs for each element (e.g. boarding/ catering outside India, overseas travel, etc.).

The Act has already adopted the attribution mechanism in certain cases. Special provisions have been made for attribution of value of Government advertisement contracts to each state to which the advertisement relates. The IGST Rules have attempted to closely approximate the consumption based on certain public information – e.g. advertisement through internet has been guided by TRAI4 published information of internet subscribers in concerned states; television has been guided by BARC4 published subscriber base; and train advertisements are apportioned based on distance travelled in each state and published by Indian Railways. The target consumers in each state have been adopted as the basis of likely consumption in a State. Moreover, the GST council, in its 47th meeting, made changes in the rate notification by acknowledging that tour operators rendering services to foreign tourists are liable to be taxed only on the appropriate portion of the tour conducted in India.

Thus, there was reasonable guidance within the law to apportion the consumption of a single service into various jurisdictions based on reasonable parameters. While the law has provided similar parameters for a limited category of services (such as immovable property, event-related and some performance-based services), the provisions do not address the entire gamut, especially the services which are governed by the default rule (i.e. place of recipient).

The taxpayer’s expectation from the Court is whether a direction could have been made to the Council to develop logical parameters or alternatively mandate the taxpayer to provide a reasonable parameter for examination, subject to approval by the Revenue. This would have formed a precedent of approximating the value of service rendered at multiple locations and limiting the powers of a state to tax activities only within its geographical jurisdiction. Other sectors would have benefitted from an established principle and taken a cue to adopt reasonable parameters to affix the place of supply of such multi-locational services.

The extra-territoriality issue could also have been addressed based on the decision in the recent Mohit Mineral’s case5. In that case, the Court adopted the presence of ultimate beneficiary of ocean freight service and/or destination of import goods as having sufficient nexus with India to extend its tax net. The Court went on to state that the recipient of service should be understood in the backdrop of the location of consumption of the goods/ services and not by strict application of contractual understanding of the recipient. The Court implied that economic consumption of a service should be identified based on location of the person who benefits from the service rather than the person who has demanded the service (which could be different persons). Thus, the Apex Court itself enforced the consumption principle through a nexus theory and diluted the literal definition of ‘recipient’ under law.


4. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India; Broadcast Audience Research Council
5. 2022 (61) G.S.T.L. 257 (S.C.) UOI vs. Mohit minerals Pvt. Ltd.

In the current case, the Court could have relied upon the said theory and ascertained whether the transaction between Indian residents (Tour operator and pilgrim) for services/ events occurring substantially outside India is liable to tax ‘entirely’ in India. Though section 12 of the Act applied to such transaction, the fact of rendition of service outside India (e.g. lodging, catering, local travel) could have had a bearing on the consumption of the service. Applying the analogy from Mohit Mineral’s case, the interpretation of the recipient and its locational benefit across multiple jurisdictions could have been taken up with the Court. The perspective of cross-border dual taxation on account of foreign jurisdiction taxing them as per local laws could have also been examined (refer to subsequent discussions under POS). Either way, the taxpayers would have rejoiced with answers to these issues for application in their respective sectors.

Place of Supply

This issue is a fall-out from the extra-territorial subject, and its analysis would have two facets – (i) Whether the Court could have elaborated on the ‘location of recipient’ and ‘POS rule’; and (ii) Whether certain important concepts could have been addressed prior to applying the POS rule.

The taxpayer contended that substantial activities in respect of the Haj were performed outside India. Since the event was for unregistered persons, the location of the recipient ought to be ascertained at the time of performance of the Haj, which is outside India. The recipient’s location at the time of consumption of the service plays an important role in fixing the location and assess the territoriality of the subject. The literal wording of the definition of ‘location of recipient’ fixes the situs to the ‘usual residence’ of the person. Section 12 does not address cases where supplier and recipient contract to render/ receive a service at a foreign location. It merely fixes the location of both parties and assumes that in all cases that the service is rendered at the usual place of residence in India. Similarly, section 13(6) artificially taxes the entire services in India despite a minuscule proportion of the service being rendered in India and a substantial portion being outside India.

The Counsel may have persuaded the Court to assess the provisions in the context of the type of service being rendered. Consumption of certain one-time services (such as catering, foreign travel, etc.) at foreign location would be misconstrued by mere literal application of wordings. The preceding rules of location of service recipient and provider attempt to identify the location in multi-locational entities to the establishment which is consuming the service (directly concerned). If this is the case, then in a hierarchical provision, the residual rule ought to have also been interpreted in the same light. The Court could have been persuaded to look through the literal wordings to address the consumption principle underlying the law.

The Counsel probably hinted at the larger impact of such a literal application. Foreign jurisdictions would apply the consumption principle and tax those services in their jurisdiction, while India would simultaneously tax the same on the residence principle. While direct tax laws applied the source/ residence principle, they were protected through the double taxation agreements, which minimised dual taxation; VAT laws across nations are not governed by such bilateral arrangements. It is therefore even more imperative to be guided strictly by source / consumption rules so that tax economies do not trespass each other’s territories. These critical concepts (on economic double taxation, fixation of situs, etc.) could have formed part of the reasoning of the Court.

On certain other arguments, the Court rejected the application of the event-based rule on the ground that ‘religious events’ are not specified in the list therein. The Court stated that even by application of the rule of ejusdem generis, the performance of Haj is not an ‘event’ and hence not falling within the domain of event-based rule. The default rule would be applicable since the individual is a resident of India, and the location of such service recipient would necessarily be in India. The taxpayers cannot dissect each step or service task and claim that the location of the recipient during the Haj is outside India and the place of supply is outside India.

The rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when a term is not specified in the series of terms but is intended to be encompassed in a more generic term. It attempts to identify a common thread in a series of terms under a common family. An event (sports, cultural, etc.) is generally a congregation of persons with a common purpose. Haj is a religious event when Muslims across the world visit the holy place, offering their prayers at the said location. Respectfully, the Court could have made a liberal conclusion to the generic term under this rule. However, it turned out that the Court stated that ‘religious events’ are not specified in the provision, and hence the rule of event-based activities cannot be applied to such Haj ceremonies.

While one may be critical of the Court rejecting the event-based rule to religious events, the end conclusion seems to be correct in the overall scheme. The appropriate rationale of the Court could have been that the provisions of event-based services are applicable only to ‘Event organisers’ and not to associated persons who provide services to the participants. PTOs are neither organisers of the event nor render services to the organisers of the event. They render services only to the participants of the events. Eventually, the rule would be held inapplicable but with a different analogy. Going by the current analogy, Revenue may contend even in cases of ‘Event organisers’ of religious events, that they are entirely out of the said event-based rule and hence liable to tax under the residence rule.

The intriguing concept which could have been placed before the Court was the interplay of composite supply with the POS provisions. The Court relied on the default rule and the passenger transportation rule for ascertainment of the POS for the tour operator service. Now section 8 of CGST law r.w.s.20(ii) of the IGST Act clearly directs the tax liability to be ascertained based on the concept of composite/ mixed supply (i.e. either principal supply or highest taxed rate supply, respectively). Tour operator services are classifiable as an individual supply under HSN 99855 though it involves elements of travel, accommodation and other ancillary services. The POS provisions are not strictly aligned with the HSN scheme of classification and adopt a more descriptive approach to services.

Therefore, two contrasting theories could exist while interplaying the POS and composite supply provision (A) one theory could be that composite supply principles are applicable for the entire enactment and once the principal supply has been identified, all legal consequences including POS would follow the principal supply with other ancillary supplies being irrelevant – applying this analogy, the Court rightly applied the default rule of location of recipient since tour operator services are not specifically mentioned in the subsequent rules; (B) the other theory could be that composite supply principles are independent of POS, the POS should be examined independently for identifiable elements (i.e. travel, accommodation, etc.) and the transaction should be segregated for each of these elements. While this dissection would certainly create some chaos on valuation, taxability and other procedural challenges, it would represent an accurate application of the consumption theory. The Counsel pursued this argument, but the Court rejected any kind of dissection of the tour package.

There appears to be a simultaneous application of both theories in the decision. The Court, after application of the residence rule, also went ahead with applying the POS rule for passenger transportation services. It conveys that both theories could be applied simultaneously for ascertaining the POS of services, i.e. once as a Tour operator under the default rule and another as passenger transportation activity (being an ancillary element of the tour operator activity). This gives the reader an impression that elements of a service could be dissected, and POS provisions could be applied independently to them. The Court could have addressed this concept with some more detail to assist the entire trade on this critical subject.

Discrimination

This has probably been the most vehemently argued point of the taxpayer. The exemption was applicable only to tours conducted by Haj Committee, being the ‘specified organisation’ under the entry. Consequently, PTOs which also operated under the same enactment were denied this exemption since they did not feature in the specified list. The PTO’s main contention was that all the tour activities organised by them and the Haj Committee in respect of Haj pilgrims are identical, except to certain minor features such as pricing, catering and proximity of boarding to the Haj. These activities not being significant in the whole scheme of the tour and by themselves do not disentitle them from the exemption. The points of similarity recorded in the decision were:

a. The tours were conducted by both organisations under the Bilateral arrangement with Saudi Arabia.

b. 70% quota was allotted to be organised by Haj Committee, and the balance 30% was allotted to PTOs.

c. All sub-activities of the Haj are identical (i.e. travel, accommodation, tour planning, etc.).

d. Haj ceremony was common under the Holy Quran, and both organisations were to abide by the entire procedure.

Thus, being an indirect tax legislation, the object of the entry is to provide cost-effective travel to the Haj Muslims and this object would be defeated if exemption is limited only to Haj Committees and not extended to PTOs. Hence, the said exemption entry was violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.

The Court provided a very thorough reasoning to refute this line of argument. The Court examined the Haj Act and the roles / responsibilities assigned to the Haj Committee under the enactment. It was acknowledged that the said committee operated with a democratic set-up with the objective of a smooth Haj operation under the bilateral arrangement and overall welfare of the pilgrims. Though Haj Committee operated as tour operators, other responsibilities were entrusted upon them, and the funds generated from such tour operations were to be used for the very same purpose. PTOs, on the other hand, operated as a commercial venture as against Haj Committees, which were non-profit organisation under the control and supervision of the Government. Thus, the Government was justified in limiting the exemption only to specified service providers rather than giving a blanket exemption. There was clearly an intelligible differentia in classifying the Haj committee under a separate basket and limiting the exemptions only to Government controlled entities or instrumentalities. The GST council’s deliberation established a rational basis of differential treatment and could not be found fault with. The legislature and/ or the Government have wider latitude on economic matters, and the ‘sufficiency of the satisfaction’ of the Government in granting exemption in the public interest is not the domain of Courts and is a policy matter left best to the Government to decide.

The question of discrimination is a constitutional issue and could have multiple facets. For tax laws, benefits could be extended by law on account of nature/composition of activity, the status of supplier/ recipient, location of the supply, end use etc. Each benefit could be touching upon a particular facet of the service. In the subject exemption entry, the taxpayer vehemently argued that the taxation being on the service activity, discrimination based on the class of service provider is not permissible and amounts to treating equals as unequal. The Counsel probably implied that supply being the core subject matter, differential treatment based on other parameters such as status of the supplier, etc. would be discriminatory treatment.

The Court rightly stated that the Government has the prerogative to decide the organisation to which the exemption is granted, especially if there is an intelligible differentia and reasonable classification has been attributed to the said decision. In the context of Haj committees, the Court relied upon a decision of the Customs law which upheld the exemptions to State Trading houses and denied the same to other importers. The Court upheld that PTOs and the Haj Committee as separate classes since the latter were Government controlled organisations with a non-profit motive and aimed at furthering the cause of the statute under which they were constituted.

Another discriminatory point which could have been placed before the Court was whether an Indian resident availing services through an operator for hotel accommodation by making a booking from India vis-à-vis the very same Indian resident availing the accommodation services at the hotel counter, be treated differently. This differentiation will be applicable to all overseas services which are booked from India. The service provider, nature of service and location of the service are identical in both scenarios. Yet, the mode of booking makes the former taxable and the latter nontaxable in India. Similarly, the GST council has recently proposed the introduction of a mechanism to assess the tax only on a portion of the tour of foreign tourists conducted in India. This apportionment has not been extended to converse scenarios where an Indian tourist makes a foreign tour which is naturally conducted outside India. Couldn’t this be a point of discrimination to an Indian tourist who conducts a tour outside India and yet taxed on the entire overseas leg?

One may note that while taxpayers can raise these as grievances of discrimination, the Court has been sceptical on this subject. Ideally, a ruling considering the overall economic and legal impact may have paved for some clarity on this principle. The takeaway has been that Article 14 cannot be adopted in a straitjacket manner, and persistent inclination to argue discrimination should be cautiously adopted in tax legislations.


Scope of Exemption

The taxpayer argued that the exemption should be interpreted to state that Haj is a religious ceremony and hence the consumer should not bear the burden of tax. It was also submitted that Supreme Court’s decision in Dilip Kumar’s case6 was placed in the right perspective in the latter decision in Mother Superior Adoration Convent7. The Supreme Court in Dilip Kumar’s case, did not just state that exemption entries are an exception and hence should be interpreted strictly. The Court also acknowledged that the beneficial purpose should not be lost sight of while interpreting such entries. The taxpayer argued that the entire activity was being conducted with the ultimate objective of performing a ‘religious ceremony’. Since all the services are directed towards this religious ceremony, the exemption entry should be accordingly extended to preparatory activities including Haj tours. A tax impost would be passed on to Haj pilgrims; therefore, the object of granting exemption and reducing the financial burden on religious pilgrimage, would not be fulfilled. Beneficial exemptions are to be interpreted to further achieve the beneficial object of performing the religious ceremony. Thus, the exemption should be granted to PTOs who were assisting in the entire Haj tour.


6. 2018 (9) SCC 1 – 2018-VIL-23-SC-CU-CB

7. 2021 (5) SCC 602 – 2021-VIL-43-SC
The Court subtly acknowledged that beneficial exemption entries should be examined from the perspective of the beneficial object. But this approach should be adopted only when the exemption entry is ambiguous, leading to alternative interpretations. Where the exemption entry itself is restrictive, it would be impermissible for the Court to expand the said entry. In the current case, the exemption entry is crystal clear that the same would be limited to ‘specified organisations’. If the intention and object were to provide an exemption to services provided by PTOs in respect of religious pilgrimage, the notification would have specifically provided so. Moreover, the exemption as regards ‘religious ceremony’ has been confined only to persons conducting the ceremony, and PTOs are not rendering the service of ‘conducting religious ceremony’. They are assisting in making a travel package and completing the Haj but are not themselves conducting the religious ceremony. Thus, the exemption entry was targeted to a particular ‘service provider’ rendering a ‘specific service’. Both conditions were essential ingredients of the exemption, and the Court rightly rejected any attempt to dilute the former condition. There did not exist any ambiguity in the exemption entry for one to seek applying the beneficial object principle cited in earlier decisions of the Court.

CONCLUSION/ WAY FORWARD
To reiterate, the outcome of the decision may have been commensurate with the overall position in law. Courts are burdened with a huge pendency, and matters reach finality only after certain decades. In this scenario, taxpayers expect legal clarity rather than falling victim to ambiguity. The never-ending dilemma of applying literal wordings or legal intent has haunted taxpayers and professionals. With such a background, it is generally expected that any opportunity of clarifying the law should not be missed and a decisive verdict be rendered so that Courts/ businesses are not further burdened with litigation on tax demands.

S. 148A(d) – Reopening of assessment – Impugned SCN as well as the impugned order u/s 148A(d) of the Act are based on distinct and separate grounds – Information referred in SCN not provided to Assessee

11 Best Buildwell Private Limited vs. Income Tax Officer, Circle 4 (2), Delhi & Anr.
W.P.(C) 11338/2022
Date of order: 1st August, 2022
Delhi High Court

S. 148A(d) – Reopening of assessment – Impugned SCN as well as the impugned order u/s 148A(d) of the Act are based on distinct and separate grounds – Information referred in SCN not provided to Assessee

The petitioner challenged the order dated 30th March, 2022 passed u/s 148A(d) and notice dated 31st March, 2022 issued u/s 148 as well as show cause notice (SCN) dated 16th March, 2022 issued u/s 148A(b) for A.Y. 2018-19.

The petitioner states that the petitioner had filed its return of income for A.Y. 2018-19 declaring an income of Rs. 6,32,45,180 and a loss of Rs. 74,36,185. He states that the case of the petitioner was picked up for scrutiny, and after examination of all the submissions of the petitioner, an assessment order dated 27th April, 2021 u/s 143(3) r.w.s 144B was passed assessing the income of the petitioner at Rs. 6,41,76,500. He points out that one of the points for selecting the petitioner’s case for scrutiny was ‘Business Purchases’, and after analysing the documents submitted by the petitioner, no additions were made by the Assessing Officer on account of business purchases.

The petitioner states that the impugned SCN dated 16th March, 2022 issued u/s 148A(b) did not provide any information and/or details regarding the income that has been alleged to have escaped assessment. He states that the petitioner filed a response to the impugned SCN dated 16th March, 2022, specifically requesting the respondent to provide the details of the transaction and vendors from whom the petitioner had made purchases and raised invoices which respondent No.1 considered bogus. He further states that respondent No.1 failed to consider the fact that the petitioner had made purchases from vendors who were registered under GST and had claimed an input tax credit of GST on the purchases made from them as per statement 2A reflected on the GST portal based on the invoices raised by the vendors. He points out that the credit claimed by the petitioner has not been rejected.

The petitioner states that the impugned order dated 30th March, 2022 u/s 148A(d) merely relies on an alleged report prepared against the assessee company. He emphasises that no such report was ever furnished to the petitioner.

On behalf of the respondents, it was stated that notice u/s 148A(b) had been issued in the present instance as the petitioner’s ITR and GST Data did not reconcile. He also states that the analysis of GST information of third parties reveals substantial routing of funds by way of bogus purchases.

In rejoinder, the petitioner states that the impugned order passed u/s 148A(d) does not refer to any lack of reconciliation between the ITR and GST data of the petitioner. He also states that no GST information showing substantial routing of funds was ever furnished to the petitioner.

The Court observed that the impugned SCN, as well as the impugned order u/s 148A(d), are based on distinct and separate grounds.

The SCN primarily states that “it is seen that the petitioner has made purchases from certain non-filers”. However, no details or any information about these entities was provided to the petitioner. It is not understood as to how the petitioner was to know which of the entities it dealt with were filers or non-filers!

Further, the impugned order states that a report was prepared against the petitioner-company, which concludes that the assessee had shown bogus purchases from bogus entities to suppress the profit of the company and reduce the tax liability from 2015-16 to 2020-21. However, no such report which forms the basis for the ‘information’ on which the assessment was proposed to be reopened had been provided to the petitioner. In fact, there are no specific allegations in the SCN to which the petitioner could file a reply.

Keeping in view the aforesaid, the impugned order dated 30th March, 2022 passed u/s 148A(d) and notice dated 31st March, 2022 issued u/s 148 are quashed, and the respondents are given liberty to furnish additional materials in support of the allegations made in the SCN dated 16th March, 2022 within three weeks including reports, if any. Thereafter, the AO shall decide the matter in accordance with the law. The writ petition was disposed.

S. 148A r.w.s. 149 – Reopening of assessment – A.Y. 2014-15 – Effect of SC Judgement in case of Ashish Agarwal dated 4th May, 2022 and Board’s Circular dated 11th May, 2022 – Where the income of an assessee escaping assessment to tax is less than Rs. 50,00,000 – Reopening not justified

10 Ajay Bhandari vs. Union of India & 3 Ors.
Writ Tax No. 347 of 2022
Date of order: 17th May, 2022
Allahabad High Court

S. 148A r.w.s. 149 – Reopening of assessment – A.Y. 2014-15 – Effect of SC Judgement in case of Ashish Agarwal dated 4th May, 2022 and Board’s Circular dated 11th May, 2022 – Where the income of an assessee escaping assessment to tax is less than Rs. 50,00,000 – Reopening not justified

The impugned notice u/s 148 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, for A.Y. 2014-15 was issued to the petitioner by respondent no. 3 on 1st April, 2021. The “reasons to believe” recorded by respondent no. 3 for issuing the impugned notice, read as under:

“I have reason to believe that an income to the tune of Rs. 2,63,324 has escaped assessment for the aforesaid year”.

The reassessment order dated 31st March, 2022 has been passed by respondent no. 4, i.e. National Faceless Assessment Centre, Delhi u/s 147 r.w.s.144B.

The Additional Solicitor General (ASG) of India relied on the judgement of Hon’ble Supreme Court under Article 142 of the Constitution of India in Civil Appeal No. 3005 of 2022 (Union of India and others vs. Ashish Agarwal) decided on 4th May, 2022 and reported in 2022 SCC OnLine SC 543 and submitted that the notices issued after 1st April, 2021 u/s 148 are liable to be treated as notices u/s 148A of the Act, 1961 as substituted by the Finance Act, 2021.

He further relied on Instruction being F.No 279/Misc./M-51/2022-ITJ, Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, CBDT, ITJ Section dated 11th May, 2022, paragraph 7.1 of the aforesaid instruction and stated that the notices u/s 148 relating to A.Ys. 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2015-16 shall not attract the judgement of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra). Lastly, the ASG submitted that since the notice was issued on 1st April, 2021 for A.Y. 2014-15, therefore, it shall be covered by a Division Bench’s judgement of this Court in the case of Daujee Abhushan Bhandar Pvt. Ltd. vs. Union of India and 2 others (Writ Tax No. 78 of 2022) decided on 10th March, 2022.

The petitioner referring to paragraphs 23 and 25 of the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra) submitted that the impugned notice u/s 148 issued by respondent no. 3 is wholly without jurisdiction inasmuch as jurisdiction cannot be assumed after the expiry of the limitation period. He further submits that conferment of jurisdiction is essentially an act of the legislature, and the jurisdiction cannot be conferred by any circular or even by Court orders. He submits that even under the amended provisions, which have no application on facts of the present case, impugned notice u/s 148 would be without jurisdiction and barred by limitation inasmuch as for A.Y. 2014-15, the limitation under the amended provisions of sections 148A and 149 had expired on 31st March, 2018 inasmuch as the allegation of evaded income is Rs. 2,63,324 which has been provided to be read as Rs. 26,33,324 by notice dated 17th March, 2022 u/s 142(1), which is much below Rs. 50 Lacs.

The Hon. Court observed the judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and Circular F.No 279/Misc./M-51/2022-ITJ, dated 11th May, 2022 issued by the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, CBDT, ITJ Section, New Delhi. Section 147, as it existed till 31st March, 2021, empowers the Assessing Officer to assess or reassess or recompute loss or depreciation allowance or any other allowance, as the case may be, for the concerned assessment year in the case of an assessee if he has reason to believe that income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment, subject to the provisions of sections 148 to 153. A pre-condition to initiate proceedings u/s 147 is the issuance of notice u/s 148. Thus, notice u/s 148 is a jurisdictional notice. Section 149 provides a time limit for issuance of notice u/s 148. The time limit is provided under the unamended provisions (existed till 31st March, 2021) and the amended provisions (effective from 1st April, 2021) as amended by the Finance Act, 2021.

The judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court under Article 142 of the Constitution of India, in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra) has been explained for implementation/clarified by Instruction No.01/2022 being F.No 279/Misc./M-51/2022-ITJ, dated 11th May, 2022 issued by the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, CBDT, ITJ Section, New Delhi, in exercise of powers u/s 119.

The ASG has made a statement before the Court, that as per Clause-7.1 of the Board’s circular dated 11th May, 2022, the notices u/s 148 relating to A.Ys. 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2015-16, shall not attract the judgment of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Ashish Agarwal (supra) and the impugned notice u/s 148 issued on 1st April, 2021 for A.Y 2014-15 is, therefore, clearly barred by limitation and consequently without jurisdiction. Therefore, in view of the admission made by the learned ASG on behalf of the respondents, all other questions, including the question of conferment of jurisdiction etc., are left open and not dealt with by the Hon. Court.

The Court further observed that as per clauses 6.2 and 7.1 of the Board’s Circular dated 11th May, 2022, if a case does not fall under clause (b) of sub-section (i) of section 149 for the A.Ys. 2013-14, 2014-15 and 2015-16 (where the income of an assessee escaping assessment to tax is less than Rs. 50,00,000) and notice has not been issued within limitation under the unamended provisions of section 149, then proceedings under the amended provisions cannot be initiated.

The impugned notice u/s 148 of the Act, 1961 issued on 1st April, 2021 for A.Y. 2014-15 and the impugned notice dated 13th January, 2022 u/s 144 and the reassessment order dated 13th January, 2022 u/s 147 r.w.s 144B for A.Y. 2014-15 passed were quashed. The writ petition was allowed.

Transfer of case — Notice — Both assessee and firm wherein assessee was partner assessed in Mumbai — Pending of case before additional chief metropolitan magistrate in Bengaluru could not be reason for transfer of assessee’s assessment from Mumbai — Order transferring case quashed and set aside

41 Divesh Prakashchand Jain vs. Principal CIT
[2022] 445 ITR 496 (Bom.)
Date of order: 1st December, 2021
S.127(2) of ITA, 1961

Transfer of case — Notice — Both assessee and firm wherein assessee was partner assessed in Mumbai — Pending of case before additional chief metropolitan magistrate in Bengaluru could not be reason for transfer of assessee’s assessment from Mumbai — Order transferring case quashed and set aside

The assessee was a partner in a firm, SSJ, which manufactured and sold gold ornaments having its principal place of business in Mumbai. The firm had a branch in Bengaluru. The assessee stated that he had sent samples of jewellery to Bengaluru to be displayed to customers and two of his employees were intercepted by the Bengaluru police and gold jewellery belonging to the firm was found on them and investigations commenced and a case before the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, Bengaluru was pending. The Deputy Director of Income-tax (Investigation) Bengaluru was a respondent in the pending case. The Principal Commissioner issued a show-cause notice u/s 127(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and transferred the assessee’s case to Bengaluru for completing the assessment proceedings.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the order of transfer and held as under:

“i) The pendency of a case before the Additional Chief Metropolitan Magistrate could not be accepted as reason for transfer of the assessee’s assessment from Mumbai to Bengaluru. Though the assessee was given a show-cause notice u/s. 127(2) and personal hearing was granted before passing the order for transfer of the case the reasons recorded in the order were subject to judicial scrutiny and must be reasonable.

ii) The assessee was assessed in Mumbai and the firm of which the assessee was a partner was also assessed in Mumbai. In the order, the Principal Commissioner had only narrated the facts but had not given any reasons why in the facts and circumstances, the assessee’s case had to be transferred to Bengaluru. The order of transfer was quashed and set aside.

iii) The assessee was to fully co-operate with the authorities in Bengaluru, provide all the required documents for the purpose of investigation or assessment and also appear for recording his statement in Bengaluru or Mumbai as and when called for (subject to giving a reasonable notice in advance of the date and time to be present) and co-operate in every possible way with the Bengaluru Office of the Department.”

Accounting of Production-Linked Incentives (PLI)

INTRODUCTION
To incentivise and promote production, growth and capital investment in the country, the Indian government introduced PLI schemes for various industries.  Under the scheme, a cash incentive is given each year for a certain number of years (e.g., five years in the case of the white goods industry), basis fulfilment of specific conditions and the incentive amounts are determined as a percentage of incremental sales. There are several conditions, but the two most important conditions relate to cumulative investment and incremental sales (over the base year).  

The qualifying investments include plant and machinery and capital investment in research and development but exclude, for example, land.  Incremental sales are determined basis consolidated financial statements, including global sales; however, the capital investment and production should occur in India.  

The grant is provided each year, provided the conditions relating to cumulative investment and incremental sales are met for that year. In the case of white goods, if the grant for Year 1 is earned because the entity fulfilled the cumulative investment and incremental sales condition in that year, but the entity subsequently exits from the scheme, the grant earned in earlier years is clawed back.  However, in the case of pharmaceutical sector, the requirements are not free from doubt. For example, consider the following FAQ regarding the PLI scheme, which applies to pharmaceutical companies.

Q – “What if part assets are purchased initially and then later after two years these were sold by the company (reason could be new technology, new equipment with better capacity is available)

A – Gross Investment value of the said sold assets would be deducted from the Cumulative Investment for that year in which sale is made.”

While the above FAQ suggests that if part assets are sold subsequently, it will not result in a clawback of grant earned in earlier years, there is no clarity on what happens if the entire cumulative investment is disposed of.  

In the analysis below, both scenarios have been covered, i.e., grants earned in earlier years may or may not be clawed back if the cumulative investment is subsequently disposed of or the entity exits from the PLI scheme. Additionally, the analysis below will equally apply to whether the investment is entirely front-loaded or staggered over time.

QUESTIONS

Assuming for simplicity, the entity avails the PLI grant by making the qualifying investment in plant and machinery for manufacturing eligible products, the following questions arise:

1. Is the PLI grant a capital (fixed asset) or revenue-related grant?

2. The conditions related to cumulative investment and incremental sales are tested on an annual basis.  How is the grant recognised each quarter?

TECHNICAL REFERENCES

Ind AS 20, Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance

Paragraph 3

Grants related to assets are government grants whose primary condition is that an entity qualifying for them should purchase, construct or otherwise acquire long-term assets. Subsidiary conditions may also be attached restricting the type or location of the assets or the periods during which they are to be acquired or held.

Grants related to income are government grants other than those related to assets.

Paragraph 12

Government grants shall be recognised in profit or loss on a systematic basis over the periods in which the entity recognises as expenses the related costs for which the grants are intended to compensate.

Paragraph 19

Grants are sometimes received as part of a package of financial or fiscal aids to which a number of conditions are attached. In such cases, care is needed in identifying the conditions giving rise to costs and expenses which determine the periods over which the grant will be earned. It may be appropriate to allocate part of a grant on one basis and part on another.

Paragraph 7

Government grants, including non-monetary grants at fair value, shall not be recognised until there is reasonable assurance that:

(a) the entity will comply with the conditions attaching to them; and

(b) the grants will be received.

Illustrative Examples for IAS 34, Interim Financial Reporting

Paragraph B23     

Volume rebates or discounts and other contractual changes in the prices of raw materials, labour, or other purchased goods and services are anticipated in interim periods, by both the payer and the recipient, if it is probable that they have been earned or will take effect. Thus, contractual rebates and discounts are anticipated but discretionary rebates and discounts are not anticipated because the resulting asset or liability would not satisfy the conditions in the Conceptual Framework that an asset must be a resource controlled by the entity as a result of a past event and that a liability must be a present obligation whose settlement is expected to result in an outflow of resources.


ANALYSIS

Is the PLI grant a capital (fixed asset) related grant or revenue related grant?

The equivalent international standard to Ind AS 20, namely, IAS 20, Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance, was adopted in April, 2001.  The standard is archaic and does not deal with complex grants presently given across the globe. Therefore, applying the standard is not a straightforward exercise, particularly when there are multiple conditions that need capital investment as well as production and sales to take place. With regards to the PLI scheme, whether the grant is a capital or revenue grant, there could be multiple views, which are discussed below:

View A – PLI is a capital (fixed asset) grant

One may argue that the PLI grant is a capital grant, basis the following arguments:

  • Without the acquisition of the plant and machinery, the grant would not have been available. The condition relating to incremental sales is only incidental, as the acquisition of plant and machinery would ensure that there would be production and incremental sales that logically follows the capital investment. Only an irrational entity would acquire plant and machinery and not use them for the production of goods.

  • Paragraph 3 of Ind AS 20 states that grants related to assets are government grants whose primary condition is that an entity qualifying for them should purchase, construct or otherwise acquire long-term assets. Subsidiary conditions may also be attached, restricting the type or location of the assets or the periods during which they are to be acquired or held. One may argue that the starting point is the acquisition of the plant and machinery, and therefore that is a primary condition. The requirement relating to incremental sales is merely a subsidiary condition; therefore the grant qualifies as a capital grant, basis the definition in paragraph 3.

  • Paragraph 12 of Ind AS 20 states that government grants shall be recognised in profit or loss on a systematic basis over the periods in which the entity recognises as expenses the related costs for which the grants are intended to compensate.  Since the grant is production-linked, it could be assumed that the grant compensates for the depreciation incurred on the plant and machinery.

  • In some PLI schemes, for example, in the white goods industry, the grant is clawed back if the entity exits the scheme. Therefore, it is necessary not only to acquire the plant and machinery but also to use and hold it for a certain number of years.

The counterargument to the above is as follows:

  • There is no requirement in some of the PLI schemes to hold on to the plant and machinery for the entire period of the grant. Additionally, if the capital investment is sold or disposed of in subsequent years, the grant relating to earlier years is not clawed back. For example, subsequent disposal of part assets in the case of pharmaceutical companies does not result in a clawback of grants earned in earlier years. Consequently, it may be argued that the grant is not a capital grant.

  • Though the standard defines what a primary condition is, from the PLI scheme, it is not clear whether the asset acquisition is indeed the primary condition. Therefore, it would not be appropriate to conclude that acquisition of the plant and machinery is the primary condition, and incremental sales is a subsidiary condition.

  • The grant is not specifically meant to subsidise depreciation. The grant conditions require conditions to be fulfilled each year and are not a straightforward grant provided for the acquisition of an asset.  The grant conditions require the plant to operate and the manufactured goods to be sold at a certain level, fuelling economic buoyancy.  

View B – PLI is a revenue grant

One may offer the following arguments to support the view that the grant is a revenue grant.

  • Very often, the acquisition and use of plant and machinery may not translate into incremental sales because the demand for the underlying products may have diminished, or a catastrophe such as Covid may restrict economic activity. Hence it is not appropriate to trivialise the condition relating to incremental sales, and one may argue that incremental sales is the primary condition.  In other words, incremental sales could be a very constraining condition and hence could be treated as a primary condition.

  • Each year, the grant is received only if the entity is able to achieve incremental sales. The grant amount is determined as a percentage of incremental sales, thereby suggesting that incremental sales are a very important condition for determining the grant amount and qualifying for the grant.  Because prominence is given to incremental sales for earning the grant each year, the grant is treated as a revenue grant.

  • Each year is treated as a separate unit for the purposes of determining and receiving the grant amount. For example, in the case of the pharmaceutical industry, the grant received each year is not clawed back in subsequent years if the conditions in those years are not met or the investment already made is partly sold or disposed of. Because the grant is meant to operate for each year, the most appropriate accounting would be to record the grant for each year if the eligibility conditions for those years are fulfilled.

The counterargument for this view is the same arguments provided in support of View A.

View C – PLI is a combination of capital and revenue grant

The grant seems to be a mixture of both capital and revenue conditions, and hence in accordance with paragraph 19, the same would be allocated between capital and revenue grant.  However, the counterargument for this view is that there is no clear basis for allocating the grant between capital and revenue grant, and any forced allocation may be arbitrary and highly subjective.

HOW IS THE GRANT RECOGNISED EACH QUARTER?

At each quarter end, the entity will not know whether it would fulfil all the conditions relating to the grant by the end of the year or over the grant period, unless the conditions are all met by that quarter end.  Applying Paragraph B23 of IAS 34, the entity will have to anticipate each quarter end, whether it would achieve all the grant-related conditions by the end of the year or over the grant period.  Though Illustrative Examples are not included in Ind AS 34, the example in IAS 34 can be treated as authoritative literature in the absence of any contrary requirement under Ind AS. Applying Paragraph 7 of Ind AS 20 and Paragraph B 23 of IAS 34, the entity would recognise the grant in each quarter, provided there is reasonable assurance and probability that the grant would be received and would not have to be reversed in a subsequent quarter/year.

CONCLUSION

For arguments already provided above, the author believes that on the first question, View C is not advisable. In the absence of clear guidance in the standard, there could be a choice between View A and View B. In making such an evaluation, the entity needs to carefully evaluate all the conditions relating to the grant, as well as its ability to fulfil all the conditions, particularly where non-fulfilment of such conditions may result in a clawback of the grant earned in earlier years.  Additionally, different considerations may apply when the cumulative investment is made in other than plant and machinery, for example, in research and development.

The entity should recognise the grant at each quarter end, provided the probability criterion is met. The entity should be careful while recognising the grant at each quarter end and ensure that the grant recognised in a quarter does not have to be reversed in a subsequent quarter or a subsequent year because the conditions that were anticipated to be fulfilled are not eventually fulfilled or the entity decides to exit the scheme, resulting in a clawback of grant earned in earlier years.

Disallowance u/s 14A Where No Exempt Income and Effect of Explanation

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
S.14A, introduced by the Finance Act, 2001, provides for disallowance with retrospective effect from 1st April, 1962 of an expenditure incurred in relation to income which does not form part of the total income under the Income-Tax Act. The expenditure to be disallowed is required to be determined in accordance with Rule 8D of the Income-Tax Rules provided the AO, having regard to the accounts, is not satisfied with the correctness of the claim of the assessee, including the claim that no expenditure has been incurred in relation to an exempt income.

The provision of s.14A r.w. Rule 8D has been the subject matter of unabated litigation since its introduction, which continues despite various amendments made thereafter. The subjects of litigation involve a variety of reasons and many of them have reached the Apex Court. One such subject is about the possibility of disallowance in a case where the assessee has not earned any exempt income during the year for which expenditure is incurred.

Applying the law prior to the recent insertion of the Explanation and the non-obstante clause in s. 14A, the Delhi High Court in the case of Cheminvest Ltd., 61 taxmann.com 118, ruled that no disallowance could be made u/s 14A if no exempt income had been earned during the year. The Supreme Court has dismissed the SLP against the Madras High Court ruling that s.14A could not be invoked where no exempt income was earned by the assessee in the relevant assessment year. Chettinad Logistics (P) Ltd., 95 taxmann.com 250 (SC).

The legislature, for undoing the impact of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, has introduced an Explanation to s.14A by the Finance Act, 2022, w.e.f 1st April, 2022. The said Explanation reads as under: “Explanation-For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified that notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Act, the provisions of this section shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied in a case where the income, not forming part of the total income under this Act, has not accrued or arisen or has not been received during the previous year relevant to an assessment year and the expenditure has been incurred during the said previous year in relation to such income not forming part of the total income.”

The Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2022, relevant parts, reads as:

“4. In order to make the intention of the legislation clear and to make it free from any misinterpretation, it is proposed to insert an Explanation to section 14A of the Act to clarify that notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Act, the provisions of this section shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied in a case where exempt income has not accrued or arisen or has not been received during the previous year relevant to an assessment year and the expenditure has been incurred during the said previous year in relation to such exempt income.

5. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2022.”

Simultaneously a non-obstante clause is introduced in s. 14A(1) which reads as: Notwithstanding anything contained to the contrary in the Act, for the purposes of ………………” The Explanatory Memorandum, relevant parts, read as:

“6. It is also proposed to amend sub-section (1) of the said section, so as to include a non-obstante clause in respect of other provisions of the Income-tax Act and provide that no deduction shall be allowed in relation to exempt income, notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Act.

7. This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2022 and will accordingly apply in relation to the assessment year 2022-23 and subsequent assessment years”.

Ironically, an amendment made to settle a raging controversy has itself become the cause of another fresh controversy. An issue has arisen whether the Explanation now inserted, is prospective in its nature and therefore would apply to A.Y. 2022-23 onwards or would apply retrospectively to cover at least the pending assessments and appeals. While the Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal, has held the Explanation to be prospective in its application, the Guwahati Bench of the Tribunal has held the same to be retrospective in nature and has applied the same in adjudicating an appeal before it for A.Y. 2009-10 and onwards. The Delhi High Court, however, has in a cryptic order recently held the Explanation to be prospective. The Guwahati Bench has passed a detailed order for holding the Explanation to be retrospective for a variety of reasons which are required to be noted and may require examination by the Courts to arrive at a final conclusion on the subject.

BAJAJ CAPITAL VENTURES (P) LTD.’S CASE

The issue first came up for consideration of the Mumbai bench of the ITAT in the case of ACIT vs. Bajaj Capital Ventures (P.) Ltd. 140 taxmann.com 1. In the cross appeals filed, one of the grounds raised by the assessee company was “On the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the respondent prays that no disallowance ought to be made in absence of earning of any exempt income.”

During the course of the scrutiny assessment proceedings, it was noticed that the assessee was holding investments in shares, which were for the purpose of earning dividend income, but no disallowance was made u/s 14A for expenses incurred to earn this tax exempt income. The AO disallowed an amount of Rs. 11,87,85,293 under rule 8D r.w. Section 14A. Aggrieved, the assessee carried the matter in appeal before the CIT(A), who restricted the disallowance to Rs. 9,87,978, as was claimed by the assessee, with observations, inter alia, as follows:

6.2 I have considered the assessment order and the submission of the appellant. The issue regarding applicability of section 14A read with rules 8D of the Income Tax Rules,1962 has been the subject matter of incessant litigation on almost every issue, involved, i.e. whether a disallowance can be made when no exempt income has been earned during the year, whether the satisfaction has been correctly recorded by the AO regarding the correctness of the claim and in respect of such expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income, whether share application money is to be considered as investment, whether investment in subsidiary company or joint ventures can be said to be made with a view of earn exempt income etc. In the present case the admitted fact is that no dividend income or any other exempt income has been earned during the year under consideration. The present legal position established by the Delhi High Court in the case of Cheminvest Ltd. (61 taxmann.com 118), which has also been relied upon by the appellant, is that no disallowance can be made if no exempt income has been earned during the year. Recently, in the case of Commissioner of Income Tax, (Central) 1 v. Chettined Logistics (P) Ltd. [(2018) 95 taxmann 250 (SC)1, the Hon’ble Supreme Court have dismissed the SLP against High Court ruling that section 14A cannot be invoked where no exempt income was earned by assessee in relevant assessment year. The ITAT Mumbai [jurisdictional ITAT] has recently in the case of ACIT v. Essel Utilities Distribution re affirmed the same.”

On further appeals by the assessee and the revenue, to the Tribunal, the bench on due consideration of the rival contentions and facts, passed the following order in light of the applicable legal position;

“7. We find that there is no dispute about the fact that the assessee did not have any tax exempt income during the relevant previous year and that the period before us pertains to the period prior to insertion of Explanation to section 14A. In this view of the matter, and in the light of consistent stand by co-ordinate benches, following Hon’ble Delhi High Court’s judgment in the case of Cheminvest Ltd v. CIT [(2015) 61 taxmann.com 118 (Del)], we uphold the plea of the assessee that no disallowance under section 14A was and in the circumstances of the case. The plea of the Assessing Officer is thus rejected. As regards the disallowance of Rs. 9,87,978/- it is sustained on the basis of computation given in the alternative plea of the assessee, but given the fact that the basic plea of non-disallowance itself was to be upheld, there was no occasion to consider the computation given in the alternative plea. This disallowance of Rs. 9,87,978/- must also be deleted.

8. In view of the above discussions, we hold that no disallowance under section 14A was justified on the facts, and the remaining disallowance of Rs. 9,87,978/- must be deleted. Ordered, accordingly.

9. In the result, appeal of the Assessing Officer is dismissed and appeal of the assessee is allowed. Pronounced in the open court today on the 29th day of June, 2022.”

It is clear from the reading of the order that the bench did notice that the period involved in appeal pertained to a period for which the Explanation inserted by the Finance Act, 2022 was not applicable and in view of the same had thought it fit to not to invoke application of the Explanation on the understanding that the said Explanation had no retrospective application, though this part has not been expressly noted in the body of the order.

The catch words by Taxmann read as: “The assessee did not have any tax exempt income during the relevant previous year (P.Y. 2016-17/A.Y. 2017-18) which pertains to the period prior to insertion of Explanation to section 14A (by Finance Act, 2022 w.e.f. 1st April,). As the new Explanation applies with effect from A.Y. 2022-23 and does not even have limited retrospective effect even to proceedings for past assessment years pending on 1st April, 2022, no disallowance u/s 14A shall apply in the absence of any tax-free income in the relevant assessment year prior to A.Y. 2022-23.”

WILLIAMSON FINANCIAL SERVICES LTD.’S CASE

Back to back, the issue came up again in the case of ACIT vs. Williamson Financial Services Ltd. 140 taxmann.com 164 (Guwahati – Trib.) relating to the A.Ys. 2009-10 and 2012-13 to 2014-15. In assessing the income for A.Y 2013-14, the AO noted that the assessee during the year had earned an exempt dividend income of Rs. 3,70,80,750 on the investments made by the company. He also noticed that the own funds of the company were not sufficient to meet the investments in question and therefore, applied the provisions of s.14A read with Rule 8D and computed the expenditure relatable to the exempt dividend income at Rs. 10,62,10,110. Since the assessee in its computation of income had suo moto disallowed an amount of Rs. 2,25,48,285 on account of expenditure relatable to the tax exempt dividend income earned by it, the AO disallowed the balance amount of Rs. 8,36,61,625 and added back the same to the income and computed the taxable income accordingly.

Being aggrieved by the same, the company filed an appeal before the CIT(A) who, relying upon the decision in the case of Moderate Leasing and Capital Services Private Limited ITA 102/(2018) dated 31/01/2018, held that the disallowance u/s 14A could not exceed the total tax exempt income earned during the year. He accordingly restricted the disallowance to the extent of exempt income earned by the company.

Being aggrieved by the above action of the CIT(A), the revenue has appealed to the ITAT. The Revenue contested the decision of the CIT (Appeals) on the ground that he was not justified in facts as well as in law in restricting the disallowance u/s 14A to the extent of income claimed exempt for the assessment year under consideration.

The Revenue invited the attention to the newly inserted Explanation to s. 14A to submit that it had now been clarified that notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in the Act, the provisions of s.14A should apply and be deemed to have always applied in a case where the income, not forming part of the total income had not accrued or arisen or had not been received during the year and the expenditure had been incurred during the year in relation to such income. It was contended that the Explanation was declaratory and clarificatory in nature, therefore, the same would apply with retrospective effect, and that the action of the CIT(A) in restricting the disallowance to the extent of exempt income earned by the assessee was not as per the mandate of the amended law.

The Revenue supported its contentions with the following submissions:

  • The CBDT Circular No. 5/2014 dated 11th February, 2014, had clarified that disallowance of the expenditure would take place even where the taxpayer in a particular year had not earned any exempt income.

  • Ignoring the circular, the Courts had held that where there was no exempt income during the year, no disallowance u/s 14A of the Act could be made. Such an interpretation by the Courts, ignoring the expressed intent stated in the circular, in the opinion of the legislature was not in line with its intent and defeated the legislative intent of s.14A of the Act.

  • In order to make the intention of the legislation clear and to make it free from misinterpretation and to give effect to the CBDT’s Circular No. S/2014 dated 11th February, 2014, the Legislature had made two changes to s. 14A through the Finance Act, 2022, which are (a). Insertion of non-obstante clause by way of substitution and, (b). Insertion of an Explanation to reinforce, by way of clarification, the intents of the CBDT’s Circular No.05/2014 dated 11th February, 2014.

  • The main objective to insert a non-obstante clause in sub-section (1) of s.14A which read as “Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this Act, for the purpose of…” was to overcome the observations made in the case of Redington (India) Ltd vs. Addl.CIT, 392 ITR 633, 640 (Mad), wherein it was observed that an assessment in terms of the Act was specific to an assessment year and related previous year as per s.4 r.w.s. 5 of the Act. The Madras High Court in that case had further held that any contrary intention, if there was, would have been expressly stated in s.14A and in its absence, the language of s. 14A should be read in the context such that it advanced the scheme of the Act rather than distort it. Such interpretation of the Court had made the Circular No.05/2014 dated 11th February, 2014 infructuous. To address the misunderstanding, the legislature had inserted the Explanation to clarify its intentions.

  • The Explanation inserted contained another non-obstante clause, to overcome the past judicial observations and it was clarified the intention of the legislature that the Explanation should always be deemed to have been in s.14A for disallowance of any claim for deduction against expenditure incurred to earn an exempt income, irrespective of the fact whether or not any income was earned in the same financial year.

  • Further, in general parlance, whenever a clarificatory amendment with the use of words such as “for the removal of doubts”, and “shall be deemed always to have meant” etc. was made, the amendment was to have a retrospective effect, even if it was made effective prospectively.

  • Circular No 5/2014 dated 11th February, 2014 was still in force, and for invoking disallowance u/s 14A of the Act, it was not material that the assessee should have earned such exempt income during the financial year under consideration.

  • The decision of the CIT(A) holding that the disallowance u/s 14A read with Rule 8D could not exceed the income claimed exempt appeared to be perverse.

In reply, on behalf of the assesse, it was submitted that the Explanation to s. 14A introduced vide the Finance Act 2022, was prospective in nature and could not be applied to the pending appeals, and that the law settled prior to the insertion of the Explanation, holding that the disallowance of expenditure u/s 14A could not exceed the exempt income earned by the assessee during the year, alone should apply. It was further contended that:

  • Even after the issue of the CBDT Circular No. 5/2014 dated 11th February, 2014, the Courts held that when there was no exempt income, then disallowance u/s 14A was unwarranted, following a simple rule that when there was no exempt income, there was no necessity to disallow the expenditure. CIT vs. Corrtech Energy Pvt. Ltd., 223 Taxman 130 (Guj); CIT vs. Holcim India Pvt. Ltd., 57 taxmann.com 28 (Del); Marg Ltd vs. CIT,120 taxmann.com 84 (Madras).

  • The Delhi High Court, in the case of CIT vs. Moderate Leasing and Capital Services Pvt. Ltd in ITA 102/2018 order dated 31/01/2018 had held that disallowance u/s 14A should not exceed the exempt income itself. The SLP filed by the Revenue was dismissed by the Supreme Court of India Special Leave Petition (Civil) Diary No(s). 38584/2018 dated 19/11/2018.

The Guwahati bench of the ITAT, in deciding the issues in favour of the Revenue on due consideration of the contentions of the opposite parties, observed as under:

  • In determining the effective date of the application of an amendment, prospective or retrospective, the date from which the amendment was made operative did not conclusively decide the question of its effective date of application.

  • The Court had to examine the scheme of the statute prior to the amendment and subsequent to the amendment to determine whether an amendment was clarificatory or substantive.

  • An amendment which was clarificatory was regarded by the Courts as being retrospective in nature and its application would date back to the date of introduction of the original statutory provision which it sought to amend. Clarificatory amendment was an expression of intent which the Legislature had always intended to hold the field with retrospective effect.

  • A clarificatory amendment might be introduced in certain cases to set at rest divergent views expressed in decided cases on the true effect of a statutory provision.

  • Where the Legislature expressed its intent, by declaring the law as clarificatory, it was regarded as being declaratory of the law as it always stood and was therefore, construed to be retrospective.

  • A perusal of the Explanation revealed that it started with the words “For the removal of doubts, it is hereby clarified ……”. Then the wording in the body of the provision expressly stated: “…..the provisions of this section shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied……”

  • The opening words of the Explanation revealed in an unambiguous manner that the said provision was clarificatory and had been inserted for removal of doubts. Further, as provided in the Memorandum explaining the provision, the Explanation had been inserted to make the intention clear and to make it free from any misinterpretation.

  • The said Explanation being clarificatory in nature was inserted for the purpose of removal of doubts and to make the intention of the legislature clear and free from misinterpretation and thus the same, obviously, would operate retrospectively.

  • Any contrary interpretation holding that the said Explanation shall operate prospectively would render the words “shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied” as redundant and meaningless, which was not the intention of the legislature.

  • The Explanation did not propose to levy any new taxes upon the assessee but it only purported to clarify the intention of the legislature that actual earning or not earning of the exempt income was not the condition precedent for making the disallowance of the expenditure incurred to earn an exempt income.

  • The legal position was declared by the Supreme Court in the case of Walfort Share & Stock Brokers Pvt. Ltd., 326 ITR 1 (SC), that the expenses allowed could only be those incurred for earning the taxable income; that the basic principle of the taxation was to tax the net income and on the same analogy, the exemption was also in respect of net income.

  • The Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Rajendra Prasad Moody 115 ITR 519 had held that even if there was no income, the expenditure was allowable. Income included loss, as was held by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Harprasad & Co. P Ltd. 99 ITR 118, and as such only the net income was taxable, i.e. gross income minus expenditure, and as such the net income might be a loss also.

  • Since the earning of positive net income was not a condition precedent for claiming deduction of expenditure, on the same analogy, the earning of exempt income was also not a condition precedent for attracting a disallowance of expenditure incurred to earn exempt income. This position had only been reiterated and clarified by the Explanation to s.14A, so as to remove the doubts and to make clear the intention of the legislature and to make the provision of s. 14A free from any other interpretation. Therefore, it could not be said that the Explanation proposed or saddled any fresh liability on the assessee.

  • The contention of the assessee that the Explanation applied only to those cases where no exempt income had been earned at all and that the said Explanation was not applicable to cases where the assessee had earned some exempt income was not acceptable; such a proposition might place different assessees in inequitable position. In such a scenario, in a case where an assessee did not earn any exempt income, he might suffer disallowance as per the formula prescribed under Rule 8D, whereas, in a case where an assessee earned some meagre exempt income, the disallowance in his case would be restricted to such meagre exempt income and the assessee having no exempt income, would have to suffer more disallowance than the assessee having meagre exempt income. Even otherwise, the Explanation sought to clarify the position that the disallowance of expenditure relatable to exempt income was not dependent upon actual earning of any exempt income.

  • The legal position that the AO must first record satisfaction as to the correctness of the claim of the assessee in respect of expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income before invoking rule 8D for disallowance of expenditure u/s 14A continued to apply and should still be adhered to and the aforesaid Explanation introduced vide Finance Act 2022 did not in any manner change that position. There was no change of the legal position even after introduction of the Explanation.

The Guwahati bench of the tribunal in conclusion held that the:

  • Explanation to s. 14A, inserted by Finance Act, 2022 w.e.f. 1st April, 2022, shall apply retrospectively even for periods prior to 1st April, 2022.

  • Disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income shall apply in terms of the Explanation even in those cases where assessee has earned no exempt income during the relevant assessment year.

  • Application of the amendment shall not be restricted to those cases where assessee had earned some exempt income which was less than expenditure incurred in relation to exempt income.

  • The disallowance could not be limited to the amount of exempt income of an year.

The decision of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of ACIT vs. Bajaj Capital Ventures (P.) Ltd. (supra), holding a contrary view that the Explanation to s.14A inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2022 has no retrospective applicability, was not expressly considered by the bench as the same might not have been cited by the assessee.

OBSERVATIONS

Section 14A of the Act was introduced in 2001, with retrospective effect from the year 1962, to state that no deduction shall be granted towards an expenditure incurred in relation to an income which does not form part of the Total Income. The method for identifying the expenditure incurred is prescribed under Rule 8D of the Income-tax Rules,1962. Further, by the Finance Act, 2006, sub-sections (2) and (3) have been inserted w.e.f. 1st April, 2007.

A Proviso was inserted earlier by the Finance Act of 2002 with retrospective effect from 11th May, 2001. It reads: “Provided that nothing contained in this section shall empower the Assessing Officer either to reassess under section 147 or pass an order enhancing the assessment or reducing a refund already made or otherwise increasing the liability of the assessee under section 154, for any assessment year beginning on or before the 1st day of April, 2001”.

The CBDT has issued a Circular No. 5 dated 11th February, 2014, clarifying that Rule 8D r.w.s. 14A provides for disallowance of the expenditure even where taxpayer in a particular year has not earned any exempt income. The circular noted that still some Courts had taken a view that if there was no exempt income during a year, no disallowance u/s 14A could be made for that year. The Circular had stated that such an interpretation by the Courts was not in line with the intention of the legislature.

Over the years, disputes have arisen in respect of the issue whether disallowance u/s 14A can be made in cases where no exempt income has accrued, arisen or received by the assessee during an assessment year. From its inception, the applicability of this provision has always been a subject matter of litigation and one such point that has been oft-debated is regarding the disallowance of expenditure in the absence of exempt income. In 2009, a Delhi Special Bench of the Tribunal in Cheminvest Ltd. vs. CIT, 121 ITD 318, took a view that when an expenditure is incurred in relation to an exempt income, irrespective of the fact whether any exempt income was earned by the assessee or not, disallowance should be made, a position that has not been found acceptable to the Courts, including the Apex Court.

An interesting part is noticed on reading of the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2022 which clarifies that the Explanation has been inserted in s. 14A w.e.f. 1st April, 2022, while the non-obstante clause in sub- section (1) of s. 14A has been inserted w.e.f A.Y. 2022-23. This inconsistent approach has led one to wonder whether the insertion of the Explanation is prospective and is applicable to A.Y. 2022-23 and onwards, while the amendment in s.14A(1) made applicable w.e.f. 1st April, 2022 has a retrospective applicability to pending proceedings on 1st April, 2022.

The amendment, by insertion of non-obstante clause in sub-section (1), is expressly made effective from 1st April, 2022; whereas in respect of the Explanation, as noted vide paragraph 5 of the Memorandum, it is written that the amendment will take effect on 1st April, 2022 and will accordingly apply in relation to A.Y. 2022-23 and subsequent assessment years.

The Explanation inserted in the section is worded as: ‘Section 14A shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied in a case where exempt income has not accrued or arisen or has not been received during the financial year and the expenditure has been incurred in relation to such exempt income.’ The provision seems to apply to past transactions as well, but the Memorandum makes it effective from A.Y. 2022-23 only.

Whether the provisions of s. 14A will have a retroactive application? Will the Explanation apply retrospectively even where the same has been expressly made affective from A.Y. 2022-23? Can the Explanatory Memorandum override the language of the law amended? Can there be a mistake in the Memorandum and if yes, can it be overlooked? Can it be said that the amendment in s. 14A by the Finance Act, 2022 by inserting an Explanation to s. 14A alters the position of law adversely for the assessee and hence, such an amendment cannot be held to be retrospective in nature? These are the questions that have arisen in a short span that have a serious impact on the adjudication of the assessments and appeals, and may lead to rectification, revision and reopening of the completed assessments.

The Delhi High Court, in the case of Moderate Leasing and Capital Services Pvt. Ltd in ITA 102/2018 dated 31/01/2018 held that disallowance u/s 14A should not exceed the exempt income itself; the SLP filed by the Revenue against this judgment was dismissed by the Supreme Court of India Special Leave Petition (Civil) Diary No(s). 38584/2018 dated 19/11/2018. Can such a finality be disturbed and reversed by the Explanation now inserted, even where the Explanation is not introduced with retrospective effect?

A proviso to s.14A inserted by the Finance Act, 2002, with retrospective effect from 11th May, 2001, prohibits an AO from reassessing an income u/s 147 or passing an order enhancing the assessment or reducing the refund u/s 154 for any assessment year up to 2001-02. No such express prohibition is provided for in respect of the application of the Explanation in question.

The CBDT vide Circular No. No. 5/2014, dated 11th February, 2014, had clarified the stand of the Government of India that the expenditure, where claimed, would be liable for disallowance even where the assessee has not earned any taxable income for the year. The Courts, in deciding the issue, have not followed the mandate of the Circular.

The incidental issue that has come up is about the application of Explanation to cases where some exempt income is earned during the year. It is argued that the Explanation would have no application in such cases in as much as the Explanation can apply only to cases where no exempt income has accrued or arisen or been received during the year.

It is important to appreciate the true nature of the Explanation; does it supply an obvious omission or does it clear up the doubts as to the meaning of the previous law. If yes, it could be considered as declaratory or curative and its retrospective operation is generally intended. Venkateshwara Hatcheries Ltd., 237 ITR 174 (SC). The other aspect that has to be considered in deciding the effective date of application is to determine whether the amendment levies a tax with retrospective effect; if yes, it’s retrospective application should be given only if the amendment is made expressly retrospective and not otherwise. Retrospectivity, in such a case, cannot be presumed. Thirdly, an amendment which divests an assessee of a vested right should be applied retrospectively with great discretion even where such an amendment is made expressly retrospective.

An explanatory, declaratory, curative or clarificatory amendment is considered by Courts to be retrospective. Allied Motors, 224 ITR 677 (SC). This is true so far as there prevailed a doubt or ambiguity and the amendment is made to remove the ambiguity and provide clarity. However, an amendment could not be retrospective even where it is labeled as clarificatory and for removal of doubts where there is otherwise no ambiguity or doubt. Vatika Township P. Ltd., 367 ITR 490 (SC). In provisions that are procedural in nature, it is not difficult to presume retrospective application. Even in such case the retrospectivity would be limited to the express intention. National Agricultural, 260 ITR 548 (SC).

Article 20 of the Constitution imposes two limitations on the retrospective applicability. Firstly, an act cannot be declared to be an offence for the first time with retrospective effect, and secondly, a higher penalty cannot be inflicted with retrospective effect.

A declaratory act is intended to remove doubts regarding the law; the purpose usually is to remove a doubt as to the meaning of an existing law or to correct a construction by Courts considered erroneous by the legislature. Insertion of an Explanation where intended to supply an obvious omission or clear up doubts as to the true meaning of the Act is usually retrospective. However, in the absence of the clear words indicating that the amendment is declaratory it would not be so construed when the pre-amended provision was clear and unambiguous. A curative amendment is generally considered to be retrospective in its operation. Lastly, the substance of the amendment is more important than its form. Agriculture Market Committee, 337 ITR 299 (AP) and Brij Mohan, 120 ITR 1 (SC).

The sum and substance emerging from the above discussion is that an amendment in law is retrospective when it is so provided and it is prospective when it is not so provided in express terms. Even a declaratory or a clarificatory amendment requires an express intention to make it retrospective. In other words, there is no presumption for an amendment to be considered as retrospective in nature, unless the amendment is procedural in nature.

The power of the legislature to make a retrospective amendment is not in question here. It is a settled position that an amendment can be made by the legislature with retrospective effect and when so made, it would always be presumed to have been made w.e.f. the date specified in the amendment, and would be enforced by the authorities in applying the law as amended. In many cases of amendments, it may be necessary to examine the scheme of the Income-Tax Act prevailing prior to the amendment and also subsequent to the amendments. Vijayawada Bottling Co. Ltd., 356 ITR 625 (AP).

The issue under consideration as noted is more complex or different; the Explanation inserted in s.14A is expressly made to be effective from 1st April, 2022 and is intended to apply to A.Y. 2022-23, onwards. Under the circumstances, on a first blush it would be correct to concur with the decisions of the Mumbai Bench and of the Delhi High Court, but for the fact that these decisions have not considered the intention of the legislature behind the amendment in detail, which is expressed in so many words in the Explanatory Memorandum. Importantly, they have not considered the express language of the Explanation, which reads as ‘the provisions of this section shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied’.

The challenge here is to resolve the conflict that is posed on account of two contrasting expressions and terms used in the Explanation and in the Explanatory Memorandum. The Explanation in clear words provides for a retrospective application, while the Explanatory Memorandum applies the amendment prospectively. In such circumstances, the issue for consideration is whether the effect should be given to the express language of the Explanation or to the Explanatory Memorandum for determining the date of its application. The Guwahati Bench, is of the view that in such circumstances the Court should examine the true legislative intent instead of simply being swayed by the express mention of the effective date and assessment year in the Explanatory Memorandum. For this, the Bench has relied upon the decision in the case of Godrej & Boyce, Mfg. Co. Ltd., 328 ITR 81 (Bom.). The view that is canvased is that the mention of the date or the year in the Explanatory Memorandum is not sacrosanct or conclusive of the retrospective nature or otherwise of the amendment.

The Bombay High Court, in the case of Godrej & Boyce, Mfg. Co. Ltd., (supra.), relying on several decisions of the Supreme Court, had held that in determining the effective date of applying an amendment, the date from which the amendment was made operative did not conclusively decide the question and the Court has to examine the scheme of the statute prevailing prior to and subsequent to the amendment to determine whether an amendment was clarificatory or substantive and further, if it was clarificatory, it could be given a retrospective effect, and if it was substantive, it should be prospectively applied.

It further held that a clarificatory amendment was an expression of intent which the legislature had always intended to hold the field; such an amendment might be introduced in certain cases to set at rest divergent views expressed in decided cases on the true effect of a statutory provision. The Court accordingly held a legislative intent when clarified was to be regarded as declaratory of the law as it always stood and therefore be construed as retrospective provided the amendment did not bring about a substantive change in legal rights and obligations of the parties.

The Guwahati Bench of the Tribunal, taking a leaf from the above referred decision in the case of Godrej & Boyce, Mfg. Co. Ltd., 328 ITR 81 (Bom.), held that simply because the Explanatory Memorandum provided that the Explanation would apply from A.Y. 2022-23, the Explanation did not become prospective in nature and the adjudicating authorities were required to examine the true legislative intent for deciding the effective date of application of an amendment.

The Delhi High Court however, in the case of Pr CIT vs. ERA Infrastructure (India). Ltd. 327 CTR (Del) 489, has, in a cryptic order, recently held the Explanation to be prospective, holding that the amendment cannot be held to be retrospective if it changes the law as it earlier stood.

In our considered opinion, the effective date of application specified by the Explanatory Memorandum may not be taken as sacrosanct and final in all cases, unless the amendment has the effect of adversely disturbing the rights and obligations of the parties with retrospective effect. In other words, an attempt should be made by the Courts to determine independently the effective date of application where the law has been amended for removal of doubts or is expressly provided to be declaratory or clarificatory. In the case of the Explanation, on a bare reading of the language thereof, it is gathered that in express language it is provided that the amendment should always be read as if the same was always there by use of words ”the provisions of this section shall apply and shall be deemed to have always applied”. It is therefore, very respectfully noted that the Courts were required to examine whether the Explanation in question was retrospective or not without being summarily swayed by the effective date specified in the Explanatory Memorandum for holding that the amendment was prospective in nature and would not apply to assessment years up to A.Y. 2021-22. Having said that, it is fair to await the final view of the highest Court that is obtained on due consideration of the views expressed here. The situation is unique and demands discretion for conclusive views of the Apex Court.

TDS — Compensation received on acquisition of land for public project under an agreement — Provisions of s. 96 of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 providing that no income-tax or duty shall be levied on any award or agreement made under Act except u/s 46 — Assessee not specific person u/s 46 — Compensation received by assessee not liable to deduction of tax at source — Deductor to file correction statement of tax deducted — Department to process statement — Tax deducted at source to be refunded accordingly

40 Seema Jagdish Patil vs. National Hi-Speed Rail Corporation Ltd. and Ors
[2022] 445 ITR 382 (Bom.)
Date of order: 9th June, 2022
Ss. 139, 194-IC, 194L, 200(3) proviso, 200A(d) and 237 of ITA, 1961 and ss. 46, 96 of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013

TDS — Compensation received on acquisition of land for public project under an agreement — Provisions of s. 96 of Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 providing that no income-tax or duty shall be levied on any award or agreement made under Act except u/s 46 — Assessee not specific person u/s 46 — Compensation received by assessee not liable to deduction of tax at source — Deductor to file correction statement of tax deducted — Department to process statement — Tax deducted at source to be refunded accordingly

NHRCL acquired the land of the assessee purportedly under an agreement and deducted tax at source from the compensation paid. Thereafter, a supplementary deed was entered into between the assessee, and NHRCL under which some additional amount was paid to the assessee and tax was deducted from that part of the compensation also. The assessee requested NHRCL to reverse the tax deducted on the ground that no tax was deductible. NHRCL replied that tax exemption did not apply to the compensation on the land acquired from the assessee and that the tax deducted from the payment made to the assessee was duly deposited with the Department. According to the assessee, her income was exempted from tax, and she could not fill Schedule TDS-2 and hence could not make an application u/s 199 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 read with rule 37BA(3)(i)
of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 whereas according to NHRCL the assessee had to file a return and claim the refund.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) The CBDT under Circular No. 36 of 2016, dated October 25, 2016 ([2016] 388 ITR (St.) 48) has clarified that “the matter has been examined by the Board and it is hereafter clarified that compensation received in respect of award or agreement which has been exempted from levy of Income-tax by section 96 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 shall not be taxable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961”. It also recognizes acquisition by award or agreement. Section 96 of the 2013 Act unequivocally provides that no Income-tax or duty shall be levied on any award or agreement made under the Act except u/s. 46 of the 2013 Act which applies to the specified persons. Specified person includes any person other than (i) appropriate Government (ii) Government company (iii) association of persons or trust or society as registered under the Societies Registration Act, wholly or partially aided by the appropriate Government or controlled by the appropriate Government.

ii) The proviso to section 200(3) of the 1961 Act provides that the person may also deliver to the prescribed authority the correction statement for rectification of any mistake in the statement delivered under the sub-section in such form and verified in such manner as may be verified by the authority. Clause (d) of sub-section (1) of section 200A of the 1961 Act, inter alia, provides for determination of the sum payable by or the amount of refund due to the deductor.

iii) The income received by the assessee on account of the property acquired by NHRCL by private negotiations and sale deed was exempted from tax. According to the public notice issued for acquisition of land through direct purchase and private negotiations by the office of the Sub-Divisional Officer for implementing the project, while purchasing the land directly for the project the compensation would be fixed by giving 25 per cent. enhanced amount of the total compensation being calculated for the land concerned in terms of the provisions of sections 26 to 33 and Schedule I to the 2013 Act. Undisputedly, the land was acquired for a public project. A policy decision had been taken by the State Government under its Government Resolution dated May 12, 2015 for acquiring the property by private negotiations and purchases for implementation of public project. The methodology was also provided. The computation of compensation had to be under the provisions of the 2013 Act which was introduced to expedite the acquisition for the implementation of the project. If the parties would not agree with the negotiations and direct purchase, then compulsory acquisition under the provisions of the 2013 Act had to be resorted to. The 2013 Act also recognised the acquisition through an agreement. NHRCL was not a specified person within the meaning of section 46 of the 2013 Act and the provisions of the section would not be attracted. Therefore, since the exemption u/s. 96 of the 2013 Act would apply and no tax can be levied on the amount of compensation NHRCL should not have deducted tax from the amount of compensation paid to the assessee.

iv) It was not possible for the court to arrive at a conclusion as to whether the assessee was required to file return or not. NHRCL had already deducted tax which it ought not to have been deducted. Therefore, (i) NHRCL should file a correction statement as provided under the proviso to sub-section (3) of section 200 of the 1961 Act to the effect that the tax deducted by it was not liable to be deducted, (ii) the Department shall process the statement including the correction statement that might be filed u/s. 200A more particularly clause (d) thereof and (iii) the parties should thereafter take steps for refund of the amount in accordance with the provisions of the 1961 Act and the 1962 Rules.”

Survey — Impounding of documents — Retention of such documents — Effect of s. 131 — Retention beyond fifteen days only after approval of higher authority named in provision — Decision should be communicated to assessee

39 Muthukoya T. vs CIT
[2022] 445 ITR 450 (Ker.)
A.Ys.: 2007-08 to 2011-12
Date of order: 18th May, 2022
S. 131 of ITA, 1961

Survey — Impounding of documents — Retention of such documents — Effect of s. 131 — Retention beyond fifteen days only after approval of higher authority named in provision — Decision should be communicated to assessee

As part of Income-tax survey operations, the petitioner’s premises was inspected on 17th February, 2010, and on issuing summons to him to produce books of account and other original documents, the petitioner produced various documents which were impounded u/s 131(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Subsequently, the petitioner filed his returns and cleared the entire Income-tax dues in 2010 itself. However, the authorities did not return the original documents impounded by them. The petitioner, therefore, filed a writ petition requesting a direction for returning the documents. It was pleaded that despite the request for the return of the original document of title, the respondents have, under one pretext or the other, delayed returning the document. The petitioner also asserted that the respondents had informed that they misplaced the documents and that the same would be returned after tracing it out. According to the petitioner, the respondents cannot hold on to the documents indefinitely and that such an action is illegal and contrary to the principles of equality enshrined under article 14 of the Constitution of India.

The Kerala High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) U/s. 131(3) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, the documents impounded can be retained in the custody of the Income-tax Department beyond 15 days only after obtaining the approval of the Principal Chief Commissioner or other officers named in the sub-section. Apart from obtaining orders of approval from the officers to retain the documents, there is an added obligation upon the Department to communicate the orders to the assessee to enable retention of documents beyond the period specified in the said sub-section.

ii) Documents impounded u/s. 131 had been retained beyond the period of fifteen days. No approval had been obtained by the Department from any of the officers mentioned in section 131(3) of the Act. Therefore, the respondents could not under any circumstances retain the documents of title of the assessee.

iii) In view of the above, the respondents have acted illegally and with material irregularity in retaining the documents of title belonging to the petitioner. Accordingly, the respondents are directed to return the original sale deed bearing No. 3561 of 2008 executed before the Sub-Registrar’s office, Ernakulam to the petitioner within an outer period of 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of this judgment.”

Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Constitutional validity of provisions — Effect of enactment of s. 148A with effect from 01/04/2021 — Notifications extending time limit for notices u/s 148 up to 30/06/2021 — Notifications not valid — Notice u/s 148 issued on 30/06/2021 — Not valid

38 Mohammed Mustafa vs. ITO
[2022] 445 ITR 608 (Kar.)
A.Y.: 2016-17
Date of order: 18th April, 2022
Ss. 148 and 148A of ITA,1961

Reassessment — Notice u/s 148 — Limitation — Law applicable — Constitutional validity of provisions — Effect of enactment of s. 148A with effect from 01/04/2021 — Notifications extending time limit for notices u/s 148 up to 30/06/2021 — Notifications not valid — Notice u/s 148 issued on 30/06/2021 — Not valid

The petitioner filed the return of income for A.Y. 2016-17 on 30th July, 2016 and declared a total income of Rs. 7,84,730. The petitioner thereafter received a notice dated 30th June, 2021 u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for A.Y. 2016-17.

The petitioner assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of the notice. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) It is a cardinal principle of law that the law which has to be applied is the law in force in the assessment year unless otherwise provided expressly or by necessary implication. When the statute vests certain power in an authority to be exercised in a particular manner, the authority is required to exercise such power only in the manner provided therein.

ii) Substitution of a provision results in repeal of the earlier provision and its replacement by the new provision. Substitution thus combines repeal and fresh enactment. Therefore, the amended provisions of section 148A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 would apply in respect of notices issued with effect from April 1, 2021 and the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151 of the Act, cannot be resorted to as, they have been repealed by the amending Act, viz., the 2020 Act. Even otherwise, no saving clause has been provided in the Act for saving the erstwhile provisions of sections 147 to 151 of the Act.

iii) The CBDT issued Notification No. 20 of 2021 dated March 31, 2021 ([2021] 432 ITR (St.) 141) and extended the time limit for issue of notice u/s. 148 of the Act from March 31, 2021 to April 30, 2021. Another Notification No. 38 of 2021 dated April 27, 2021 ([2021] 434 ITR (St.) 11) was issued u/s. 3(1) of the Act by the Central Government, by which time limit for issuance of notice u/s. 148 of the 1961 Act was further extended from April 30, 2021 to June 30, 2021.

iv) The notifications dated March 30, 2021 and April 27, 2021, are clearly beyond the authority delegated to the Central Government under the 2020 Act to issue notifications extending time limits for various actions and compliances. By means of the Explanations, the Central Government extended the operation of sections 148, 149 and 151 prior to their amendment by the Finance Act, 2021 and sought to revive the non-existent provisions which is clearly beyond its authority. Therefore, the Explanations contained in the notifications dated March 30, 2021 and April 27, 2021 are liable to be struck down as ultra vires the 2020 Act.

v) The validity of a notice has to be adjudged on the basis of law as existing on the date of notice. The notice u/s. 148 dated June 30, 2021 was invalid and had to be struck down. The notice was not valid.”

Offences and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Presumption of culpable mental state u/s 278E — Self-assessment return filed — Delay in paying tax — Tax and interest thereon paid before complaint filed — Prosecution malicious and invalid

37 Mrs. Noorjahan and Ors. vs. Dy. CIT
[2022] 445 ITR 17 (Mad.)
A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 26th April, 2022
Ss. 276C and 278E of ITA, 1961

Offences and prosecution — Wilful attempt to evade tax — Presumption of culpable mental state u/s 278E — Self-assessment return filed — Delay in paying tax — Tax and interest thereon paid before complaint filed — Prosecution malicious and invalid

M/s. AMK Solutions Pvt. Limited is the assessee. For A.Y. 2017-18, the assessee company filed a return of income on 31st October, 2017. However, the tax admitted to be payable was not remitted by the assessee along with the return, which is the requirement of the law u/s 140A of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Thereafter, after a delay of 4½ months, the assessee remitted a sum of Rs. 6,85,462 towards the tax and interest payable. However, the Income-tax Department filed complaints against the assessee company and the directors for prosecution for offences u/s 276C(2), alleging that the petitioners have wilfully attempted to evade payment of Income-tax for A.Y. 2017-18.

The assessee company and the directors filed criminal writ petitions challenging the validity of complaints and requesting discharge. It was pointed out that the tax payable by the petitioners for A.Y. 2017-18 was paid well before the issuance of show-cause notice, and the same was intimated to the authorities. Without applying mind and not considering the payment of tax with interest, sanction to prosecute was granted, and the private complaint came to be filed suppressing the factum of tax payment much prior to sanction to prosecute. That, there is a lack of ingredients to prosecute the petitioners u/s 276C(2), besides suppression of fact and non-application of mind. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petitions and held as under:

“i) Wilful attempt to evade any tax, penalty or interest chargeable or imposable u/s. 276C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is a positive act on the part of the assessee which is required to be proved to bring home the charge against the assessee. A “culpable mental state” which can be presumed u/s. 278E of the Act would come into play only in a prosecution for any offence which requires a culpable mental state on the part of the assessee. Section 278E of the Act is really a rule of evidence regarding existence of mens rea by drawing a presumption though rebuttable. That does not mean that the presumption would apply even in a case wherein the basic requirements constituting the offence are not disclosed. More particularly, when the tax is paid much before the process for prosecution is set into motion. The presumption can be applied only when the basic ingredients which would constitute any offence under the Act are disclosed. Then alone would the rule of evidence u/s. 278E of the Act regarding rebuttable presumption as to existence of culpable mental state on the part of accused come into play.

ii) There was no concealment of any source of income or taxable item, inclusion of a circumstance aimed to evade tax or furnishing of inaccurate particulars regarding any assessment or payment of tax. What was involved was only a failure on the part of the assessee to pay the tax in time, which was later on paid after 4½ months along with interest payable. So, it would not fall under the mischief of section 276C of the Act, which requires an attempt to evade tax and such attempt must be wilful. If the intention (culpable mental state) of the assessees was to evade tax or attempt to evade tax, they would not have filed the returns in time disclosing the income and the tax liable to be paid. They would not have remitted the tax payable with interest without waiting for the authorities to make demand or notice for prosecution. Thus, except a delay of 4½ months in payment of tax, there was no tax evasion or attempt to evade the payment of tax.

iii) To invoke the deeming provision, there should be a default in payment of tax in true sense. The Principal Commissioner who had accorded sanction on March 14, 2019 had not considered the payment of tax with interest by the assessee on February 15, 2018. Further the Principal Commissioner had conspicuously omitted to record the fact of payment of tax with interest except to record that the tax was not paid within time. Thus, the suppression of material facts, intentional suggestion of falsehood and non-application of mind went to show that this was a malicious prosecution initiated by the Income-tax authorities by abusing the power. When the mala fides were patently manifested, the assessees need not be forced to undergo the ordeal of trial. The complaint was quashed.”

Income from other sources — Deductions — Scope of s. 57(iii) — Not necessary that expenses should have resulted in income — Sufficient if nexus is established between expenses and income

36 West Palm Developments LLP vs. ACIT
[2022] 445 ITR 511 (Kar.)
A.Y.: 2009-10
Date of order: 19th November, 2021
S. 57(iii) of ITA, 1961

Income from other sources — Deductions — Scope of s. 57(iii) — Not necessary that expenses should have resulted in income — Sufficient if nexus is established between expenses and income

The assessee was engaged in development and purchased, sold, constructed and leased properties. The assessee was sanctioned a loan on 26th September, 2008 for a sum of Rs. 35 crores from the Union Bank of India. The assessee paid a sum of Rs. 33,50,00,000 to P as an advance towards the purchase of properties by cheques dated 30th September, 2008 and 13th October, 2008. However, because of adverse market conditions, the assessee withdrew from the transaction and requested P to refund the earnest money. P refunded the earnest money by cheques dated 23rd October, 2008 and 29th October, 2008. The assessee thereafter lent money to other shareholders and made inter-corporate deposits to the tune of Rs. 35,62,450 for which total interest earned was to the extent of Rs. 2,02,52,131 as against the interest of Rs. 2,84,47,557 paid on loans. The assessee filed the return of income for A.Y. 2009-10, declaring income of Rs. 5,34,23,338 after claiming a loss of Rs. 81,95,426 under the head “Income from other sources”, which was arrived at after reducing the interest payable on the loan of Rs. 2,84,47,557 against the interest income of Rs. 2,02,52,131 earned from inter-corporate deposits and loans to shareholders u/s 57(iii) of the Act. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim for deduction/set-off of the loss of Rs. 81,95,426.

The Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the order. The Tribunal dismissed the assessee’s appeal.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

“i) Section 57(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, mandates that income chargeable under the head “Income from other sources” shall be computed after making a deduction of any other expenditure (not being in the nature of capital expenditure) laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purpose of making or earning such income. Section 57(iii) of the Act does not require that the expenditure incurred is deductible only if the expenditure has resulted in actual income. As long as the purpose of incurring expenditure is to earn income, the expenditure would have to be allowed as a deduction u/s. 57(iii) of the Act. U/s. 57(iii) of the Act a nexus between the expenditure and income has to be established.

ii) On the facts and circumstances of the case, the assessee was entitled to deduction u/s. 57(iii) of the Act. In any case, the Tribunal exceeded its jurisdiction in disallowing the entire interest expenditure as the power of the Tribunal was limited to passing an order in respect of subject matter of the appeal.”

Capital gains — Transfer — Law applicable — Effect of amendment of Transfer of Property Act in 2001 — Agreement for sale of property which is not registered — No transfer of property within meaning of s. 2(47) of Income-tax Act — No liability to pay capital gains tax

35 Principal CIT vs. Shelter Project Ltd.
[2022] 445 ITR 291 (Cal.)
A.Y.: 2009-10
Date of order: 4th February, 2022
S. 2(47) of ITA, 1961 and s. 53A of Transfer of Property Act, 1882

Capital gains — Transfer — Law applicable — Effect of amendment of Transfer of Property Act in 2001 — Agreement for sale of property which is not registered — No transfer of property within meaning of s. 2(47) of Income-tax Act — No liability to pay capital gains tax

Pursuant to an unregistered agreement, possession of the property was handed over by the assessee to a company engaged in developing housing projects wholly owned by the State of West Bengal. The question before the Assessing Officer (AO) was as to whether this amounted to transfer u/s 2(47)(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 and whether capital gain tax was attracted? The AO held that the transaction amounted to transfer and assessed capital gains to tax.

The Tribunal took note of the factual position and, more particularly, that the case arose much after the amendment to section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act which was amended by the Amendment Act, 2001, which stipulates that if an agreement like a joint development agreement is not registered, then it shall have no effect in law for the purposes of section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act. Accordingly, the assessee’s appeal was allowed, and the addition was deleted.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Calcutta High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 was amended by the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001 which stipulates that if an agreement such as a joint development agreement is not registered, it shall have no effect in law for the purposes of section 53A of the 1882 Act. The Supreme Court in CIT vs. BALBIR SINGH MAINI [2017] 398 ITR 531 (SC), held that in order to qualify as a “transfer” of a capital asset u/s. 2(47)(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 there must be a ”contract” which can be enforced in law u/s. 53A of the 1882 Act. The expression “of the nature referred to in section 53A” in section 2(47)(v) was used by the Legislature ever since sub-clause (v) was inserted by the Finance Act of 1987, with effect from April 1, 1988. All that is meant by this expression is to refer to the ingredients of applicability of section 53A to the contracts mentioned therein. This expression cannot be stretched to refer to an amendment that was made years later in 2001, so as to then say that though registration of a contract is required by the 2001 Act, yet the aforesaid expression “of the nature referred to in section 53A” would somehow refer only to the nature of contract mentioned in section 53A, which would then in turn not require registration. There is no contract in the eye of law in force u/s. 53A after 2001 unless the contract is registered.

ii) Since the development agreement was not registered, it would have no effect in law for the purposes of section 53A which bodily stood incorporated in section 2(47)(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Thus, the Tribunal was right in allowing the assessee’s appeal and granting the relief sought for, namely deletion of the addition to income of the consideration received on transfer of land for development.”

Late payment charges and service tax do not attract TDS and consequently payment of these amounts without deduction of tax at source does not attract provisions of s.40(a)(ia).

27 Prithvi Outdoor Publicity LLP vs. CIT(A)
ITA No. 1013/Ahd./2019 (Ahd.-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2013-14
Date of order: 29th June, 2022
Section: 40(a)(ia)

Late payment charges and service tax do not attract TDS and consequently payment of these amounts without deduction of tax at source does not attract provisions of s.40(a)(ia).

FACTS
The Assessee incurred advertisement expenditure and made a payment of Rs. 2,27,56,222 to Andhra Pradesh Road Transport Corporation (APRTC). Out of Rs. 2,27,56,222, the Assessee deducted TDS on Rs. 2,17,08,097 and balance Rs. 10,48,125 was paid without deduction of tax. Payment of Rs. 10,48,125 on which no tax was deducted comprised Rs. 9,77,429 paid towards late fees and the balance of Rs. 1,16,155 towards service tax. The Assessee contended that since there is no provision to deduct tax on late fees and service tax, the said amount could not be disallowed u/s 40(a)(ia). Further, since the amount was penal in nature, no tax could be deducted on the same. Lastly, the Assessee contended that the recipient, i.e. APRTC, had included the said payment of Rs. 10,48,125 in its income and offered the same for tax; no disallowance could be made u/s 40(a)(ia).

The Assessing Officer, however, invoked the provisions of s.40(a)(ia) with respect to the payment of Rs. 10,48,125 made without deduction of tax at source.

Aggrieved, the Assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A), who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the Assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD
The Tribunal held that the TDS provisions did not apply to late fees and service tax, and therefore disallowance u/s 40(a)(ia) could not be made.

Conditions imposed by CIT, at the time of registration, with respect to conduct of the trust and circumstances in which registration can be cancelled, vacated by the Tribunal on the ground that the scheme of law does not visualise these conditions being part of the scheme of registration being granted to the applicant trust.

26 Bai Navajbai Tata Zoroastrian Girls School vs. CIT(E)
[2022] 141 taxmann.com 62 (Mum.-Trib.)
A.Ys.: 2022-23 to 2026-27
Date of order: 29th July, 2022
Section: 12A

Conditions imposed by CIT, at the time of registration, with respect to conduct of the trust and circumstances in which registration can be cancelled, vacated by the Tribunal on the ground that the scheme of law does not visualise these conditions being part of the scheme of registration being granted to the applicant trust.

FACTS
The Assessee is a charitable trust who had applied for registration u/s 12A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (“the Act”). The CIT granted registration to the Assessee u/s 12A subject to certain conditions. That is, while passing the order granting registration to the Assessee, the CIT imposed certain conditions, which, inter alia, are as follows:

  • The Trust/Institution should quote the PAN in all its communications with the Department.

  • The registration does not automatically confer any right on the donors to claim deduction u/s 80G.

  • No change in the terms of Trust Deed/Memorandum of Association shall be effected without the due procedure of law, and its intimation shall be given immediately to the Office of the Jurisdictional Commissioner of Income Tax. The registering authority reserves the right to consider whether any such alteration in objects would be consistent with the definition of “charitable purpose” under the Act and in conformity with the requirement of continuity of registration.

  • The Trust/ Society/Non-Profit Company shall maintain accounts regularly and get these accounts audited in accordance with the provisions of s.12A(1)(b) of the Act.

  • Separate accounts in respect of profits and gains of business incidental to attainment of objects shall be maintained in compliance with s.11(4A) of the Act.

  • All public money received including for Corpus or any contribution shall be routed through a bank account whose number shall be communicated to the Office of the Jurisdictional Commissioner of Income Tax.

The Assessee observed that all the conditions imposed in the order granting registration were the conditions which formed the reasons for which registration of the trusts is cancelled, and therefore the conditions were not valid. The Assessee challenged the said order of the Commissioner on the ground that the provisions of the Act do not provide for conditional registration u/s 12A, and in the absence of such provision under the Act, the Commissioner was not justified in imposing conditions upon the Assessee.

HELD

On appeal, the Tribunal held as follows:

  • The finding regarding the objects of the trust and the genuineness of the trust’s activities cannot be conditional.
  • The expression “compliance of the requirements under item (B), of sub-clause (i) (i.e. the compliance of such requirements of any other law for the time being in force by the trust or institution as are material for the purpose of achieving its objects)” is applicable to conditions precedent, say for example obtaining under FCRA which is under process, the Commissioner may grant registration subject to FCRA registration being obtained by the Assessee.

  • The conditions which the Commissioner imposed had the sanction of the law. That is, irrespective of such conditions being imposed by the Commissioner, the conditions found place in the law and the conditions imposed by the Commissioner could not be said to have the force of the law.

  • The Commissioner has a limited role, and can call for documents or information or make inquiries. The Commissioner cannot decide how and for what reasons the registration has to be cancelled, that too at the time of registration. The Commissioner, therefore, could not have supplemented the conditions by laying down conditions at the time of granting the registration.

  • Conditions attached to registration must be tested on the scheme of law, and the conditions imposed by the Commissioner did not find the force of law.

The observations of the Commissioner regarding the conduct of the Assessee trust could not be construed as legally binding in the sense that non-compliance with such guidance will not have any consequence beyond what is stated under the provisions of the Act. Further, the Tribunal also held that the implications of not doing what is set out in the conditions imposed by the Commissioner would not remain confined to the cancellation of registration when the law stipulates much harsher consequences.

Revised Code of Ethics

INTRODUCTION AND OVERALL STRUCTURE OF THE REVISED CODE OF ETHICS

ICAI recently issued the 12th edition of the Code of Ethics, in convergence with the changes to the International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) Code of Ethics. In this article, we shall discuss certain significant changes in the revised Code of Ethics and their relevance in the contemporary professional world.

For the first time, the Code of Ethics has been segregated into different volumes, i.e. I, II and III. These volumes became applicable with effect from 1st July, 2020.

Volume–I of the Code of Ethics (12th edition) is the revised Counterpart of Part-A of Code of Ethics, 2009. It is based on International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) Code of Ethics, 2018 edition.

Volume–II of the Code of Ethics is the revised counterpart of Part-B of the Code of Ethics, 2009. It is based on domestic provisions.

Volume–III of the Code of Ethics contains Case Laws segregated and updated from the Clauses under Part-B of Code of Ethics, 2009.

The Code of Ethics, 2009, and the revised Code of Ethics are a convergence (and not an adoption) of the provisions of the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) IESBA Code of Ethics.

It is a well-known maxim that “Ignorance of Law is No Excuse”. The revised Code of Ethics (Volume–I) has been issued as a Guideline of the Council. Further, there is change from “should” to “shall”, and requirements are clearly demarcated. As a result, the non-compliance with provisions of the Code will be deemed as a violation of Clause (1) of Part-II of the Second Schedule of the CA Act, 1949-

A member of the Institute, whether in practice or not, shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he-

(1) contravenes any of the provisions of this Act or the regulations made thereunder or any guidelines issued by the Council.

Thus, the revised Code of Ethics, 2019, is mandatory to be followed.


VOLUME-I – STRUCTURE

Volume-I of the Code of Ethics is based on the IESBA Code of Ethics and is structured as follows:

Part 1- which applies to all Professional Accountants, is Complying with the Code, Fundamental Principles and Conceptual Framework.

Part 2- pertains to provisions applicable to Professional Accountants in Service.

Part 3- pertains to provisions applicable to Professional Accountants in Public Practice.

The Code further contains International Independence Standards (Parts 4A and 4B):

• Part 4A- Independence for Audits & Reviews (Sections 400 to 899)

• Part 4B- Independence for Other Assurance Engagements (Sections 900 to 999).

The Code also contains a Glossary of terms used in the Code of Ethics applicable to all Professional Accountants, whether in practice or service.


DEFERRED PROVISIONS OF VOLUME I

There are certain provisions of Volume-I of the Code of Ethics deferred till further notification:

(a) The provision relating to Non-Compliance of Laws and Regulations, popularly called NOCLAR is the new provision in Volume-I. It was not there in the Code of Ethics, 2009. It has been made applicable to members in practice and service both.

(b)  Fees- Relative Size- These deal with the restriction of fees from any single client.

(c) Taxation Services to Audit Clients- the earlier edition of the Code had no prohibition on Taxation Services to Audit Clients. However, the revised Code has certain restrictions on taxation services provided to audit clients.


CERTAIN SIGNIFICANT CHANGES IN THE REVISED CODE OF ETHICS

(a)  Independence Standards- While the 2009 edition of the Code has Section 290, i.e., “Independence – Assurance Engagements”, Volume–I of the Revised Code, based on the 2018 IESBA Code, has “Independence Standards” in the form of Parts- 4A and 4B as mentioned above.

All members are expected to comply with these Independence Standards while conducting various professional assignments.

The segregation of the existing Section 290 into Parts- 4A and 4B represents the bulkiest change. Most provisions/compliances are common to both Parts 4A and 4B but are given separately in the Code under both parts.

(b)  Breaches of the Code- This is regarding the Accountant’s duty in case of breach of Independence Standards, where nobody, except the member knows that there has been breach on his part. There was no such corresponding provision in the earlier Code of Ethics.

This may be said to be a mechanism of self-correction prescribed in the Code in case the Chartered Accountant on his own discovers an unintentional violation.

Examples

A Chartered Accountant who identifies a breach of any other provision of the Code shall evaluate the significance of the breach and its impact on the chartered accountant’s ability to comply with the fundamental principles. The chartered accountant shall also: (a) take whatever actions might be available, as soon as possible, to address the consequences of the breach satisfactorily; and (b) determine whether to report the breach to the relevant parties.

(c) Firm Rotation Requirements- The 2009 edition of the Code of Ethics contained requirements relating to partner rotation. It does not contain Firm rotation requirements.

However, in line with the Companies Act, 2013, the Code being the immediately subsequent edition after coming into force of Companies Act, 2013, Section 550 on Firm rotation has been incorporated in Volume-I over and above the provisions of partner rotation appearing in the IESBA Code.

Accordingly, it is clarified in the Code that partner rotation will co-exist along with Audit Firm rotation (wherever prescribed by a statute).

The 2019 Code (i.e., Volume-I) incorporates Firm rotation requirements to make the guidance comprehensive for members.

(d) Introduction of Key Audit Partner and changes in Rules of Partner Rotation- Key Audit Partner was not defined in the earlier Code of Ethics. In Volume-I of the revised Code of Ethics, Key Audit Partner has been defined as “The Engagement partner, the individual responsible for the engagement quality control review, and other audit partners, if any, on the engagement team who make key decisions or judgments on significant matters with respect to the audit of the financial statements on which the firm will express an opinion. Depending upon the circumstances and the role of the individuals on the audit, “other audit partners” might include, for example, audit partners responsible for significant subsidiaries or divisions.”

The time or period of partners in the Firm remains the same, i.e., 7 years.

However, there is a change with regard to the difference in cooling-off periods. As against the cooling-off period of 2 years, now there will be a cooling-off period of:

  • 5 years for Engagement Partners;

  • 3 years for Engagement Quality Control Review; and

  • 2 years for all other Key Audit Partners of the Firm.

This change is important, as it makes stricter rules on partner rotation.

Further, there are certain restrictions on Activities During Cooling-off w.r.t partner rotation as contained in Section 540 of Volume-I of the Code of Ethics.

The Chartered Accountant will have to maintain the relevant documentation regarding the Key Audit Partner, Cooling-off provisions etc.

(e) Changes in Professional Appointments- The Council of ICAI approved the KYC Norms, which are mandatory in nature and shall apply in all assignments pertaining to attest functions. These became mandatory with effect from 1st January, 2017.

In the revised Code, in paragraph R320.8, the incoming auditor shall request the retiring auditor to provide known information regarding any facts or other information of which, in the retiring auditor’s opinion, the incoming auditor needs to be aware before deciding whether to accept the engagement. There was no such corresponding duty in the earlier Code.

(f) Periodical Review with respect to Recurring Client Engagements-
As per Volume-I of the Code of Ethics, for a recurring client engagement, a professional accountant shall periodically review whether to continue with the engagement.

In view of the same, potential threats to compliance with the fundamental principles might be created after acceptance which, had they been known earlier, would have caused the professional accountant to decline the engagement.

(g) Introduction of the term “Public Interest Entity”-
The Revised Code 2019 edition contains a new term, “Public Interest Entity” (PIE). It had not been used in the Code of Ethics, 2009.

PIE is defined as-

(i) A listed entity; or

(ii) An entity-

  • Defined by regulation or legislation as a public interest entity; or

  • For which the audit is required by regulation or legislation to be conducted in compliance with the same independence requirements that apply to the audit of listed entities. Such regulation might be promulgated by any relevant regulator, including an audit regulator.

For the purpose of this definition, it may be noted that Banks and Insurance Companies are to be considered Public Interest Entities.

Other entities might also be considered by the Firms to be public interest entities, as set out in paragraph 400.8.

There are enhanced independence requirements for PIE clients in the new Code.

(h) Management Responsibilities- The provisions on Management Responsibilities occur for the first time in the ICAI Code of Ethics and appear in Sections 607 – 608.

The feature did not find mention in the Code of Ethics, 2009. In Volume-I, there is a new section dealing with ‘Management Responsibilities’. As per the same, the Firm shall not assume management responsibility for an audit client.

Determining whether an activity is a management responsibility depends on the circumstances and requires the exercise of professional judgment. Examples of activities that would be considered management responsibility include:

  • Setting policies and strategic direction.

  • Hiring or dismissing employees.

  • Directing and taking responsibility for the actions of employees in relation to the employees’ work for the entity.

However, providing advice and recommendations to assist the management of an audit client in discharging its responsibilities is not assuming a management responsibility.

  • Providing administrative services to an audit client does not usually create a threat. Examples of administrative services include:

  • Word processing services.

  • Preparing administrative or statutory forms for client approval.

  • Submitting such forms as instructed by the client.

  • Monitoring statutory filing dates and advising an audit client of those dates.

Members may note another term known as “Management Services” as appearing in Section 144 of Companies Act, 2013. These are not defined in the Companies Act or the Rules framed thereunder. Since these will be defined by Government, there is no finality of views on the Management Services being or not being at par with Management Responsibilities as appearing in Volume-I of the Code.

(i) Documentation Requirements- The 2009 Code required Firms to document their conclusions regarding compliance with independence requirements.

In the 2019 Code, the requirements of documentation have been given in greater detail. NOCLAR requires all steps in responding with NOCLAR to be documented.

The Chartered Accountant is encouraged to document:

  • The facts.

  • The accounting principles or other relevant professional standards involved.

  • The communications and parties with whom matters were discussed.

  • The courses of action considered.

  • How the accountant attempted to address the matter(s).

  • Requirements for NOCLAR have to be sufficient to enable an understanding of significant matters arising during the audit, the conclusions reached, and significant professional judgments made in reaching those conclusions. Thus, documentation is of critical importance in manifesting compliance with NOCLAR.

CONCLUSION
The Code of Ethics has been developed to ensure ethical behaviour for members while retaining the long-cherished ideals of ‘excellence, independence, integrity’, protecting the dignity and interests of members and leading our profession to newer heights.

Major Changes in Overseas Investment Regulations under FEMA

INTRODUCTION
A revamp of the Overseas Direct Investment regulations of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) was under process for quite some time. Draft Overseas Investment Rules and Overseas Investment Regulations were also in the public domain for consultation. The Finance Ministry, in consultation with RBI, has now finalised the Rules and Regulations, overhauling the outward investment provisions substantially. The new rules supersede the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Any Foreign Security) Regulations, 2004, and the Foreign Exchange Management (Acquisition and Transfer of Immovable Property Outside India) Regulations, 2015.

This article highlights the significant changes in Overseas Direct Investment provisions in a simplified manner. While there are open issues due to the language adopted in the rules and regulations, such analysis of issues is beyond the scope of this article.

1. WHAT ARE THE MAJOR CHANGES BROUGHT ABOUT BY THE NEW PROVISIONS?

The new provisions have liberalised a few important areas concerning overseas investments and, more importantly, clarified quite a few aspects regarding the older provisions. Some of the significant changes brought about by the new rules and regulations are summarised below:

(i) The new provisions provide enhanced clarity to various terms, including:

  • Bonafide business activity
  • Foreign entity
  • Overseas Direct Investment (ODI)
  • Overseas Portfolio Investment (OPI)
  • Strategic Sector
  • Subsidiary or Step-down subsidiary (SDS),
  • Financial services activity
  • Revised pricing guidelines

(ii) The provisions also dispense with approval for:

  • Deferred payment of consideration.
  • Investment/disinvestment by a person resident in India under investigation by any investigative agency/regulatory body if conditions are met.
  • Issuance of corporate guarantees to or on behalf of Second or subsequent level Step Down Subsidiary (SDS).
  • Write-off on account of disinvestment.
  • Round-tripped investment if conditions are met, etc.

The provisions have also brought in revised set of compliances and ‘Late Submission Fee’ (LSF) for reporting delays.

2. HOW WOULD THE REVISED OVERSEAS INVESTMENT RULES OPERATE?

In line with amendment to Section 6 of FEMA in 2015, the changes are brought about both by the Government and RBI in the following manner on 22nd August, 2022:

Title

Content

Notified by

FEM (Overseas Investment) Rules,
2022

Dealing with Non-Debt
Instruments

Central Government [Notification
No. G.S.R. 646(E).
]

FEM (Overseas Investment) Regulations,
2022

Dealing with Debt
Instruments

RBI [Notification No.
FEMA 400/2022-RB.
]

FEM (Overseas Investment) Directions,
2022

Directions to be
followed by Authorised Dealer-Banks

RBI [Annexed to AP DIR
Circular No. 12.
]

Consequential amendments have also been made to the Master Direction on Reporting under FEMA and the Master Direction on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS).

3. WHAT IS COVERED BY OVERSEAS INVESTMENT?

Overseas Investment (“OI”) means Financial Commitment (“FC”) and Overseas Portfolio Investment (“OPI”) by a person resident in India.

FC, in turn, means the aggregate amount of investment made by a person resident in India by way of:

– Overseas Direct Investment (“ODI”),

– Debt (other than OPI) in a foreign entity or entities in which ODI is made, and

 – Non-fund-based facilities to or on behalf of such foreign entity or entities.

The total FC made by an Indian entity in all the foreign entities taken together at the time of undertaking such commitment cannot exceed 400% of its net worth as on the date of the last audited balance sheet or as directed by RBI.

It should be noted that the erstwhile regulations allowed unexhausted limit of holding as well as subsidiary for reckoning the limit of 400% of the net worth of the ‘Indian Party’. Now, only the net worth of the investor entity (Indian Entity) is to be
considered.

Corporate guarantees by specified group companies are allowed. However, they will be counted towards the utilisation of such group companies’ financial commitment.

4. WHAT DOES ODI COVER?

Rule 2(1)(q) of the OI Rules defines ‘Overseas Direct Investment’. Accordingly, ODI means investment by way of:

a.    Acquisition of unlisted equity capital of a foreign entity, or

b.    Subscription as a part of the Memorandum of Association of a foreign entity, or

c.    Investment in 10% or more of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity, or

d.    Investment with control, where investment is less than 10% of the paid-up equity capital of a listed foreign entity.

Control and Equity Capital are important terms, explained later in this article.

Further, once an investment is classified as ODI, the investment shall continue to be treated as ODI even if the investment falls below 10% of the paid-up equity capital of the foreign entity or if the investor loses control of the foreign entity.

5. WHAT ARE THE CHANGES IN ODI RULES AS COMPARED TO EARLIER?

The erstwhile regulations referred to ODI as Direct investment outside India by an Indian Party in a Joint Venture (JV) and Wholly Owned Subsidiary (WOS). All these terms have undergone a change.

JV/WOS is substituted under the new regime with the concept of ‘foreign entity’, which means an entity formed or registered or incorporated outside India with limited liability. By implication, investment cannot be made in any foreign entity with unlimited liability. It includes an entity in an International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India.

The concept of Indian Party (IP), where all the investors from India in a foreign entity were together considered as IP, has been substituted under the new regime with the concept of ‘Indian entity’, which shall mean a Company or a Limited Liability Partnership or a Partnership Firm or a Body Corporate incorporated under any law for the time being in force. Each investor entity shall be separately considered an Indian entity.

Further, there was lack of clarity between ODI and portfolio investment under the erstwhile regulations. ODI and OPI have now been demarcated into distinct baskets of investments which is explained below.

6. WHAT IS THE CRITERIA TO DETERMINE AN ODI INVESTMENT VIS-À-VIS LISTED AND UNLISTED ENTITIES?

One of the major clarifications emerging in the new rules is that any investment (even one share) in an unlisted entity would be considered as ODI. This was not clear in the erstwhile regime, and each AD Bank was applying different criteria for the same.

Further, an investment in a listed entity of over 10% will now be considered as ODI even if there is no control, while an investment of any limit in a listed entity which provides control would be considered as ODI.

The following flow-chart depicts the difference between ODI and OPI in the case of investment in equity capital:

Control has become a key factor in determining whether an investment is ODI. ‘Control’ has been defined to mean:

– the right to appoint a majority of the directors, or

– to control management or policy decisions exercisable by a person or persons, acting individually or in concert, directly or indirectly,

– including by virtue of their shareholding or management rights or shareholders’ agreements or voting agreements that entitle them to 10% or more of voting rights or in any other manner in the entity.

The above wording makes it clear that ‘Control’ should be looked at in substance and not on a technical basis.

As per the new rules, ODI covers investment in ‘Equity Capital’ which is defined to mean equity shares or perpetual capital; or instruments that are irredeemable; or contribution to non-debt capital of a foreign entity in the nature of fully and compulsorily convertible instruments. What is meant by perpetual capital is not clarified – but it seems to suggest that equity capital would be capital which is for the long term and not a specific period as it would be in the case of redeemable instruments.

7. WHAT ARE THE IMPORTANT CHANGES AS FAR AS STRUCTURING OF OVERSEAS INVESTMENTS GO?

One of the important changes brought about relates to subsidiary or step-down subsidiary (SDS) of the foreign entity. Subsidiary means a first-level subsidiary of a foreign entity. SDS means second and further level subsidiaries beneath the first level subsidiary. Subsidiary or SDS of a foreign entity is defined as an entity in which the foreign entity has ‘Control’. It should be noted that ‘Control’ is the only criterion for determining whether an entity is a subsidiary/ SDS of the foreign entity. Hence, where the foreign entity does not have ‘Control’, it will not be treated as SDS. The rules provide that in such a case, even no reporting is required.

However, it has been provided that the subsidiary and SDS shall comply with the structural requirements of the foreign entity, i.e., it should have limited liability. At the same time, it has been provided that only ‘subsidiaries and SDS’ are required to comply with the structural requirements of the foreign entity. Hence, it can be inferred that the foreign entity may invest in an entity with unlimited liability if the entity does not fall within the definition of subsidiary/ SDS, i.e., the foreign entity does not have control over such underlying entity.

Another important change is the introduction of ‘strategic sector’. The above requirement of limited liability for a subsidiary / SDS has been exempted for a foreign entity hiving its core activity in a ‘strategic sector’ which shall include energy and natural resources sectors such as Oil, Gas, Coal, Mineral Ores, submarine cable system and start-ups and any other sector or sub-sector as deemed fit by the Central Government. ODI in these sectors can also be made in unincorporated entities as well as part of consortiums (in the case of the submarine cable systems sector).

As can be noticed above, strategic sectors include startup sector. However, any ODI in startups shall not be made out of funds borrowed from others in accordance with Rule 19(2) of OI Rules.

8. WHAT DOES OPI MEAN?

OPI means investment in foreign securities other than ODI. It does not include investment in any unlisted debt instruments, or any security issued by a person resident in India (except for those in an IFSC).

More importantly, FC does not include OPI investment; hence the overall limit of 400% of net worth does not apply to OPI investments.

Thus, any investment less than 10% in a listed entity without control would be outside the ambit of FC and its limits. However, there are caps on OPI investments which are given below:

An Indian entity can invest only 50% of its net worth as on the date of its last audited balance sheet under the OPI route. A resident individual can invest up to the limit as per LRS, i.e., $ 250,000 per financial year.

OPI by a resident in India in the equity capital of a listed entity, even after its delisting, shall continue to be treated as OPI until any further investment is made in the entity.

Minimum qualifications shares, or shares or interest acquired by resident individuals by way of sweat equity shares or under Employee Stock Ownership Plan or Employee Benefits Scheme up to 10% of the equity capital of a foreign entity, whether listed or unlisted and without control shall be considered as OPI.

Any investment made overseas under Schedule IV of the OI Rules in securities as stipulated by SEBI, Mutual Funds (MFs), Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) and Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with SEBI shall also be considered as OPI.

9. WHAT CHANGES HAVE COME IN FOR INVESTMENTS THAT CAN BE MADE IN FOREIGN ENTITIES UNDERTAKING FINANCIAL SERVICES ACTIVITIES?

For an Indian entity engaged in financial services activity in India, there are no significant changes. Such an entity can make ODI in a foreign entity which is directly or indirectly engaged in financial services activity subject to the erstwhile conditions of a) a 3-year profit track record; b) being registered or regulated by a financial services regulator in India and c) having obtained the required approval for the activity from the regulators both in India and the host country. However, as per the new rules, in the case of an ODI made in an IFSC, such approval would have to be provided within 45 days from the date of application; else, it would be considered that such approval has been granted. Banks and NBFIs regulated by RBI are not included in these regulations and would need to follow the conditions laid down by RBI in this regard.

Further, until now, only Indian entities in the financial services sector were allowed to invest in foreign entities engaged in financial services. As per new ODI Rules, Indian entities which are not involved in financial services activities are also permitted to invest in foreign entities engaged in financial services (except banking and insurance) subject to only one condition – that such entities have earned net profits during the last three financial years.

This single condition also has been removed for Indian entities that invest in an entity in an IFSC engaged in financial services activity.

Even Resident Individuals (RI) are allowed to make ODI in a foreign entity in an IFSC, including in an entity engaged in financial services activity (except for banking and insurance). However, in such a case, where the RI controls the foreign entity, such entity cannot have a subsidiary or SDS outside the IFSC.

Further, what activities would constitute ‘Financial services activity’ was not clear in the erstwhile regulations as the term was not defined. However, the new rules provide that a foreign entity shall be considered to be engaged in the business of financial services activity if it undertakes an activity which, if it were carried out by an entity in India, would require registration with or is regulated by a financial sector regulator in India.

10. CAN A GIFT OF OVERSEAS SHARES BE RECEIVED OR MADE BY A RESIDENT INDIVIDUAL?

Foreign securities can be acquired by a Resident Individual (RI) as a gift from another person resident in India who is a relative as per clause (77) of section 2 of the Companies Act. Gift of shares can also be received from a person resident outside India, but only in accordance with provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (FCRA) and the rules and regulations made thereunder.

At the same time, RIs are not allowed to gift an overseas investment to a person resident outside India.

11. WHAT ARE THE CHANGES FOR OVERSEAS INVESTMENT BY A RESIDENT INDIVIDUAL?

Apart from changes in acquiring shares by way of gift and in a foreign entity in an IFSC as explained above, the following are the other main changes for overseas investment by a RI:

a. Step-down subsidiary (SDS) in case of ODI

Under FEMA 120, individuals investing under the ODI Route were not allowed to invest in a structure which would have a subsidiary or an SDS. Under the new regulations, a subsidiary or SDS of a foreign entity is allowed where RI does not have control of the foreign entity.

Moreover, in case of acquisition by way of inheritance or sweat equity shares or qualification shares or shares or interest under ESOP or Employee Benefits Scheme, ODI can be in a foreign entity engaged in financial services activity or can also have a subsidiary or SDS even if RI has control in such foreign entity.

b. Certain investments deemed to be OPI

Acquisition of sweat equity shares or qualification shares or shares or interest under ESOP or Employee Benefits Scheme, amounting to less than 10% of equity capital of a foreign entity without control, will be classified as OPI even if such entity is unlisted.

Similarly, a contribution by an RI to an investment fund or vehicle set up in an IFSC would be considered an OPI.

c. Inheritance of foreign securities under the ODI route is also now expressly provided.

12. IS ROUND TRIPPING ALLOWED UNDER THE NEW RULES?
Round tripping was not allowed earlier without prior approval of the RBI. It was not considered a bona fide business activity by RBI, which was the prerequisite for an ODI investment. While this condition continues, bona fide business activity has now been exhaustively defined under the new rules. It simply means an activity permissible under any law in force in India and in the host jurisdiction.

Rule 19(3) now prohibits investment back into India in cases where the resultant structure has more than two layers of subsidiaries.

The combined reading of the definition of bona fide business activity and limitation in restriction under Rule 19(3) above suggests that round tripping is now allowed. However, it has not been expressly provided for in the Rules.

13. ARE THERE ANY CHANGES IN THE ACQUISITION OF IMMOVABLE PROPERTY OUTSIDE INDIA?

While the rules for the acquisition of Immovable Property (IP) outside India have remained largely the same, the following changes need to be noted as per Rule 21 of the OI Rules read along with amendments in the LRS Master Direction:

a.    IP can be purchased under the LRS Scheme as earlier. Further, funds can also be consolidated in respect of relatives as earlier. However, the requirement for such relatives to be co-owners has been removed now.

b.    A person resident in India can acquire IP now out of income or sale proceeds of assets (other than ODI) acquired overseas as per the provisions of the FEMA.

c.    Earlier only a company having an office outside India could acquire IP outside India for the business and residential purposes of its staff. This has now been allowed for an Indian Entity which has a wider meaning now, as explained earlier.

d.    In the erstwhile regulations for buying IP outside India, it was permitted to acquire property jointly with a relative who is a PROI, given that there should be no remittance from India. This condition (of no remittance) seems to have now been removed.

14. WHAT ABOUT INVESTMENTS MADE UNDER THE ERSTWHILE REGULATIONS?

Rule 6 prescribes that any investment or financial commitment outside India made in accordance with the Act or the Rules or Regulations made thereunder and held as on the date of publication of these new rules shall be deemed to have been made under the new Rules and Regulations.

Conversely, it has been provided that if any investment was in violation of the earlier regulations it will remain a violation and may attract consequences as if the old rules are still applicable.

15. WHAT ARE THE CHANGES MADE FOR INVESTMENT IN IFSC?

There are several relaxations made under the new OI Rules in respect of investment in an IFSC. Fundamentally a foreign entity is defined to include an entity set up in an IFSC. Thus, investment into an entity in an IFSC would be considered ODI. At the same time, overseas investment by a financial institution in an IFSC is outside the ambit of the OI Rules.

Specific relaxations have also been made for investment by an Indian entity and RI in an entity engaged in financial services activity in an IFSC, as explained in reply to query 9 above. Such an investment is now allowed by an Indian entity not engaged in financial services activity within India without any attendant conditions.

16. ARE THERE ANY CHANGES IN THE PRICING GUIDELINES?

Earlier the pricing guidelines stated that investment in a JV/WOS outside India could happen at the value arrived at as prescribed by FEMA 120 or even at a value lower than that. Also, the transfer of investment in a JV/WOS could happen at the fair valuation as per FEMA 120 or even at a value higher than that. However, the new OI Rules prescribe that the pricing for investment as well as transfer shall be subject to a price arrived at on an arm’s length basis, taking into consideration the valuation as per any internationally accepted pricing methodology. Further, AD Banks are required to put in a board-approved policy with respect to the documents that need to be taken by them with respect to the pricing and also provide for scenarios where such valuation may not be insisted upon.

17. WHAT ARE THE MODES AVAILABLE FOR FINANCIAL COMMITMENT BY AN INDIAN ENTITY OTHER THAN BY WAY OF EQUITY CAPITAL?

Separate Regulations have been issued by RBI (OI Regulations) for investment in Debt Instruments issued by a foreign entity or to extend non-fund-based commitment to or on behalf of a foreign entity, including the overseas step-down subsidiaries of such Indian entity, subject to the following conditions:

i) The Indian entity is eligible to make ODI,

ii) Such an entity has made ODI in the foreign entity,

iii) The Indian entity has acquired control in such a foreign entity at the time of making such FC.

FC by an Indian entity by way of debt, guarantee, pledge or charge and by way of enabling deferred payment are covered in Regulations 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the OI Regulations. Further, FC under all these regulations would be considered part of the overall limit for FC as stipulated by the OI Rules.

18. IS DEFERRED PAYMENT ALLOWED NOW? WILL IT ALSO COVER CONDITIONAL PAYMENT?

Regulation 7 of OI Regulations now allows acquisition or transfer through deferred payment. This was earlier under the approval route. The deferred consideration shall be treated as part of non-fund-based commitment till the final payment is made. It is provided that payment of consideration may be deferred provided:

i)    Deferment is for a definite period,

ii)    Deferment should be provided for in the agreement,

iii)    Equivalent amount of foreign securities shall be transferred or issued upfront, and

iv)    Full consideration shall be paid finally as per applicable pricing guidelines.

Under conditional payment, the amount of payment may vary, or payment may not be made at all. Whereas the above-mentioned conditions for deferred payment require upfront transfer/issue and valuation and also eventual payment of full consideration as per pricing guidelines. Hence, conditional payment may not be allowed as part of deferred payment.

19. OTHER CHANGES

Apart from the above changes, the new OI Rules have also brought in changes with respect to the following:

a. Requirement of a NOC as per Rule 10 of the OI Rules by an Indian entity under investigation or having an account termed as NPA or classified as a willful defaulter.

b. Restructuring of the Balance Sheet of the foreign entity has been allowed subject to conditions as provided in Rule 18 of the OI Rules.

c. Reporting for OI has been changed, and new forms have been issued – ODI has to be reported in Form FC, while OPI has to be reported in Form OPI by a person resident in India other than individuals.

One must keep in mind the above changes before entering into a Financial Commitment in respect of a foreign entity. As mentioned earlier, there are certain issues with regard to the new regulations and an analysis of all such issues is beyond the scope of this article.

PMLA – Magna Carta – Part 1

BACKGROUND
On 27th July, 2022, the Supreme Court of India gave a landmark ruling in the case of Vijay Madanlal Choudhary vs. Union of India [2022] 140 taxmann.com 610 (SC) on various aspects and concepts involving dicey provisions of The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (“PMLA”). This decision put to rest raging controversies on various issues agitated in a huge batch of petitions, appeals and cases.

DICEY ISSUES
The issues agitated before and examined by the Supreme Court covered as many as twenty significant aspects of PMLA. Some of these had arisen from decisions of various High Courts rendered a long time ago and were pending the final decision of the Apex Court. Few crucial aspects related to parameters of the concept of money-laundering, punishment for money-laundering, confirmation of provisional attachment, search and seizure, arrest, the burden of proof, bail, powers of authorities regarding summons, production of evidence and Special Courts.

These aspects were agitated before the Supreme Court in as many as over 240 civil and criminal writ petitions, appeals and special leave petitions (SLPs) including transferred petitions and cases.

APPROACH OF THE SUPREME COURT

The Supreme Court was seized of various civil and criminal writ petitions, appeals, SLPs, transferred petitions and transferred cases raising various questions of law. Such questions pertained to constitutional validity and interpretation of certain provisions of the other statutes, including the Customs Act, the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, the Companies Act, the Prevention of Corruption Act, the Indian Penal Code and the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). However, the Apex Court decided to focus primarily on the challenge to the validity of certain important provisions of PMLA and their interpretation.

In addition to ‘challenge to constitutional validity’ and ‘interpretation of provisions of PMLA’, there were SLPs filed against various orders of High Courts and subordinate Courts all over the country. In all such SLPs, prayer for grant of bail or quashing or discharge was rejected by the Supreme Court. The government of India, too, had filed appeals and SLPs. There were also a few transfer petitions filed before the Supreme Court under Article 139A(1) of the Constitution of India.

Instead of dealing with facts and issues in each case, the Supreme Court confined itself to examining the challenge to the relevant provisions of PMLA, being a question of law raised by parties.

The question as to whether some of the amendments to the PMLA could not have been enacted by the Parliament by way of a Finance Act was not examined by the Supreme Court. The same was left open for being examined along with the decision of the Larger Bench (seven Judges) of the Supreme Court in Rojer Mathew (2020) 6 SCC 1.

Consistent with the approach of the Supreme Court, the author, too, has decided merely to give here the gist of the conclusions reached by the Supreme Court on crucial aspects, as follows.

DEFINITIONS
Certain substantive aspects of the following important definitions in PMLA were examined by the Supreme Court.

  • “investigation”
  • “proceeds of crime”

As regards the definition of “investigation”, it was concluded that the term “proceedings” [section 2(1)(na) of PMLA] is contextual and is required to be given expansive meaning to include the inquiry procedure followed by the Authorities of Enforcement Directorate (ED), the Adjudicating Authority, and the Special Court.

Likewise, it has been held that the term “investigation” does not limit itself to the matter of investigation concerning the offence under PMLA and is interchangeable with the function of “inquiry” to be undertaken by the Authorities under PMLA.

As regards the definition of “proceeds of crime”, it was held that the Explanation inserted w.e.f. 1st August, 2019 does not travel beyond the main provision predicating tracking and reaching up to the property derived or obtained directly or indirectly as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence.

OFFENCE OF MONEY-LAUNDERING

The concept of “money-laundering” is pivotal to all other provisions of PMLA. This concept was rationalised by inserting an Explanation w.e.f. 1st August, 2019. The Supreme Court examined all nuances of “money-laundering” and held that “money-laundering” has a wider reach so as to capture every process and activity, direct or indirect, in dealing with the proceeds of crime and is not limited to the happening of the final act of integration of tainted property in the formal economy. The Supreme Court opined that the Explanation does not expand the purport of Section 3 (Offence of money-laundering) but is only clarificatory in nature.

The Supreme Court clarified that the word “and” preceding the expression “projecting or claiming” occurring in Section 3 must be construed as “or”, to give full play to the said provision so as to include “every” process or activity indulged into by anyone. According to the Supreme Court, “projecting or claiming the property as untainted property” would constitute an offence of money-laundering on a stand-alone basis, being an independent process or activity. Being a clarificatory amendment, it would make no difference even if the Explanation was introduced by Finance Act or otherwise.

The Supreme Court very aptly rejected the interpretation suggested by the petitioners, that only upon projecting or claiming the property in question as untainted property that the offence of money-laundering would be complete. According to the Supreme Court, after insertion of the Explanation to section 3, this suggestion was not tenable. Indeed, it was explained that the offence of money-laundering is dependent on the illegal gain of property as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence. This proposition was elaborated by the Supreme Court with the observation that the Authorities under PMLA cannot prosecute any person on a notional basis or on the assumption that a scheduled offence has been committed unless it is so registered with the jurisdictional police and/or pending enquiry/trial including by way of criminal complaint before the competent forum. In view of the Supreme Court, if the person is finally discharged/acquitted of the scheduled offence or where the criminal case against him is quashed by the Court of competent jurisdiction, there can be no offence of money-laundering against him or anyone claiming such property being the property linked to the stated scheduled offence through him.

CONFIRMATION OF PROVISIONAL ATTACHMENT
In various appeals and petitions, the constitutional validity of section 5 of PMLA authorising provisional attachment was challenged. After examining the relevant legal position, it was held by the Supreme Court that section 5 is constitutionally valid. According to the Supreme Court, provisional attachment provides for a balancing arrangement to secure the interests of the person and also ensures that the proceeds of crime remain available to be dealt with in the manner provided by PMLA. Elaborating this, it was observed by the Supreme Court that the procedural safeguards as envisaged by law are effective measures to protect the interests of the person concerned.

The challenge to the validity of section 8(4) of PMLA authorising seizure of property attachment which is confirmed, was also rejected by the Supreme Court subject to Section 8 being invoked and operated in accordance with the meaning assigned to it.

SEARCH AND SEIZURE
In several petitions, PMLA authorities’ powers of search and seizure were challenged as unconstitutional to the extent of deletion of the Proviso to section 17 which dispensed with report or complaint to the Magistrate. This challenge was also rejected by the Supreme Court on the ground that there are stringent safeguards provided in section 17 and the rules framed thereunder.

A similar challenge to the deletion of Proviso to section 18(1) dealing with the search of persons was also rejected on the ground that there are similar safeguards provided in section 18. Accordingly, it was held that the amended provision does not suffer from the vice of arbitrariness.

ARREST
The challenge to the constitutional validity of section 19 providing powers to arrest was rejected on the ground that there are stringent safeguards provided in section 19. Accordingly, the Supreme Court held that section 19 does not suffer from the vice of arbitrariness.

BURDEN OF PROOF
Section 24 of PMLA mandates a reverse burden of proof. In respect to the challenge to the validity of this provision, the Supreme Court held that section 24 has reasonable nexus with the purposes and objects sought to be achieved by PMLA and cannot be regarded as manifestly arbitrary or unconstitutional.

SPECIAL COURTS TO TRY OFFENCE OF MONEY-LAUNDERING
Section 44 of PMLA provides for trial of the offence of money-laundering and scheduled offence by Special Courts.

As regards the challenge to the validity of section 44, the Supreme Court did not find merit in such a challenge (that was based on the premise that section 44 was arbitrary or unconstitutional). However, it observed that the eventualities referred to in section 44 shall be dealt with by the Court concerned and by the Authority concerned in accordance with the interpretation given in this judgement.

OFFENCES TO BE COGNISABLE AND NON-BAILABLE
Section 45 of PMLA deals with this aspect. Earlier, in Nikesh Tarachand Shah vs. UoI (2018) 11SCC 1, the Supreme Court had declared the twin conditions in section 45(1) of PMLA, as it stood at the relevant time, as unconstitutional. However, now the Supreme Court has held that the said decision did not obliterate section 45 from the statute book; and that it was open to the Parliament to cure the defect noted by the Supreme Court in the earlier decision to revive the same provision in the existing form.

To elaborate this, the Supreme Court observed that it does not agree with the observations in Nikesh Tarachand Shah distinguishing the ratio of the Constitution Bench decision in Kartar Singh, and other observations suggestive of doubting the perception of Parliament in regard to the seriousness of the offence of money-laundering including about it posing a serious threat to the sovereignty and integrity of the country. It was further elaborated by the Supreme Court that section 45, as applicable post-2019 amendment, is reasonable and has direct nexus with the purposes and objects to be achieved by PMLA and does not suffer from the vice of arbitrariness or unreasonableness.

As regards the prayer for grant of bail, it was explained by the Supreme Court that irrespective of the nature of proceedings, including those under section 438 of CrPC or even upon invoking the jurisdiction of Constitutional Courts, the underlying principles and rigours of section 45 may apply.

It was also explained that the beneficial provision of section 436A of CrPC (which provides a maximum period for which an undertrial can be detained) could be invoked by the accused arrested for an offence punishable under PMLA.

POWERS OF AUTHORITIES REGARDING SUMMONS AND PRODUCTION OF DOCUMENTS AND EVIDENCE

Section 50 of PMLA deals with the powers of authorities regarding summons, compelling production of records, etc.

In this connection, the Supreme Court held that the process envisaged by section 50 is in the nature of an inquiry against the proceeds of crime and is not an “investigation” in the strict sense of the term for initiating prosecution; and the authorities under PMLA referred to in section 48 are not police officers as such.

It was explained by the Supreme Court that the statements recorded by the Authorities under PMLA are not hit by Article 20(3) (no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself) or Article 21 of the Constitution of India (Protection of life and personal liberty).

ENFORCEMENT CASE INFORMATION REPORT (ECIR)

In respect of the plea that a copy of ECIR should be supplied to the arrested person, the Supreme Court held that in view of the special mechanism envisaged by PMLA, ECIR cannot be equated with an FIR under CrPC. It was explained that ECIR is an internal document of the ED and the fact that an FIR in respect of a a scheduled offence has not been recorded does not come in the way of the authorities referred to in section 48 to commence inquiry/investigation for initiating “civil action” of provisional attachment of property being proceeds of crime.

It was held that the supply of a copy of ECIR in every case to the arrested person is not mandatory and it is sufficient that at the time of arrest, ED discloses the grounds of such arrest.

Indeed, the Supreme Court observed that, when the arrested person is produced before the Special Court, it is open to the Special Court to look into the relevant records presented by the authorised representative of ED for answering the issue of the need for his/her continued detention in connection with the offence of money-laundering.

On this issue, it was suggested by the Supreme Court that even though the ED manual is not to be published, being an internal departmental document issued for the guidance of the ED officials, the department ought to explore the desirability of placing information on its website which may broadly outline the scope of the authority of the functionaries under the Act and measures to be adopted by them as also the options and remedies available to the person concerned before the Authority and the Special Court.

PUNISHMENT
As regards the plea about the proportionality of punishment with reference to the nature of the scheduled offence, it was held by the Supreme Court that such plea is wholly unfounded and stands rejected.

WAY FORWARD
What next after the pronouncement of the Supreme Court ruling?

Indeed, in terms of Article 141 of the Constitution, the propositions affirmed by the Supreme Court are now binding on all courts in India.

That calls for clear direction for the way forward. The way forward post 27th July, 2022 is outlined by the Supreme Court by way of following interim measures for four weeks from 27th July, 2022.

  • The private parties in the transferred petitions are at liberty to pursue the proceedings pending before the High Court. The contentions other than those dealt with in this judgement, regarding validity and interpretation of the concerned PMLA provision, are kept open, to be decided in those proceedings on their own merits.

  • Writ petitions which involve issues relating to Finance Bill/Money Bill are to be heard along with the Rojer Mathew case.

  • In the writ petitions in which further relief of bail, discharge or quashing was prayed, the private parties are at liberty to pursue further reliefs before the appropriate forums, leaving all contentions in that regard open, to be decided on its own merits.

  • The writ petitions in which validity and interpretation of other statutes (such as Indian Penal Code, CrPC, Customs Act, Prevention of Corruption Act, Companies Act, 2013, CGST Act) were challenged, were directed to be placed before appropriate Bench “group-wise or Act-wise”.

  • The parties are at liberty to mention for early listing of the concerned case including for continuation/vacation of the interim relief.

[Some of the interesting questions and answers arising from reading of this judgment will be dealt with by the Author in the next issue of the BCAJ]

References:

[Readers are advised to read the following two articles published in the BCAJ in 2021 written by Dr. Dilip K. Sheth about PMLA for more insight. The said articles can be accessed on bcajonline.org]

1.    OFFENCE OF MONEY-LAUNDERING: FAR-EACHING IMPLICATIONS OF RECENT AMENDMENT – Published in January, 2021.

2. ‘PROCEEDS OF CRIME’ – PMLA DEFINITION UNDERGOES RETROSPECTIVE SEA CHANGE – Published in February, 2021.  

Editor’s Note: At the time of going to press, the Supreme Court, on 26th August 2022, stated that two aspects of its 27th July 2022 judgement required reconsideration (i.e. (i) the finding that ECIR is not FIR and hence no mandatory need to provide it to the accused; and (ii) the negation of the cardinal principle of “presumption of innocence”).

Digitalisation of Form 10F – New Barrier To Claim Tax Treaty?

BACKGROUND
The Income-tax Act 1961 (‘Act’) grants an option to a Non-Resident (‘NR’) to be
governed by the provisions of the Act or the Double Tax Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA), whichever is beneficial. Section 90(4) mandates non-residents to obtain
a Tax Residency Certificate (TRC) from the country of residence to take benefit
of the DTAA by virtue of section 90 of the Act. In addition, section 90(5)
requires non-residents to furnish information in Form 10F. In practice, NRs
used to furnish TRC and Form 10F either in physical form or an electronic copy
to the payer of income to avail of DTAA benefits at the time of withholding.
Now, Notification No. 3/2022 dated 16th July, 2022 (‘Notification’), requires
Form 10F to be furnished electronically and verified in the manner prescribed.
This article deals with nuances and implications arising from this
Notification.

PROCESS OF OBTAINING FORM 10F IN DIGITALISED FORM
The Notification came into effect on 16th July, 2022. Form 10F in digitalized
form can be generated from the income tax e-filing portal by logging into the
assessee’s account for the Financial Year (F.Y.) 2021-22 and F.Y. 2022-23.
Thereafter, the NR is required to fill in information prescribed in Form 10F,
upload a copy of TRC and verify the same by affixing the digital signature
(DSC) of the person authorized to e-verify Form 10F.

Incidentally, when logging in, the portal states, “This Form is applicable
to an assessee who is a citizen of India living in another country and earning
foreign Income”
. It is submitted that this statement is incorrect. In any
case, instruction on the portal has no statutory force.

CONSEQUENCES OF DIGITALISED FORM 10F
Obtaining Form 10F in the digitalised form will require a NR to obtain PAN in
India, as without PAN, Form 10F in digitised form is not accepted. In addition,
the authorized signatory must register his DSC in the NR tax login. It is
possible that such an authorized signatory may be a non-resident. Consequently,
the authorized signatory will also be required to submit KYC documents to
procure DSC.

This requirement can be complied with by NR assessees, generally Associated
Enterprises (AEs) who receive taxable income in India and regularly file a tax
return in India or report international transactions in Form 3CEB. These AEs,
irrespective of technical reading of Rule 21AB(2), are likely to comply with
new norms1. However, there are numerous business payments made to NR
which are not recurring in nature and are not chargeable to tax in India
pursuant to a favorable tax treaty. NR vendors are not comfortable obtaining
PAN and therefore undertake submission of 10-F electronically. Section 195
creates parallel liability on the deductor to withhold tax. The Notification is
expected to give rise to uncertainty in the following illustrative situations:

  • Payment for technical services which does not fulfil
    the requirement of make available condition in India-US DTAA.

 

  • Software license payments which are not taxable
    pursuant to royalty article in DTAA read with Supreme Court decision in
    case of Engineering Analysis Centre of Excellence (P.) Ltd vs. CIT2.

 

  • Import of goods in India may result in Significant
    Economic Presence under Explanation 2A to section 9(1)(i). Since SEP
    provisions are subject to DTAA, importers obtain TRC and Form 10F from
    NRs.

 

  • Interest payment on rupee-denominated loans which are
    not entitled to concessional tax rate u/s 194LC or section 194LD / where
    payer wishes to obtain TRC and Form 10F on the conservative basis (should
    the benefit of section 194LC or section 194LC is denied by tax authority).

 

  • Equipment rental payment to Netherland NR and payment
    for aircraft leasing to Ireland NR.

 

  • Transfer of shares of an Indian Company by NR seller
    being tax resident of Mauritius, Singapore entitled to capital gain
    exemption3.

 

  • Indirect transfer of shares of an overseas company
    deriving substantial value from India taxable under Explanation 4 and
    Explanation 5 to section 9(1)(i).


This Notification is effective from 16th July, 2022. No prior intimation or
time gap is given to the assessee to comply with the law. It is likely to
impact ongoing contracts where Indian payers based on a bonafide understanding
of the law would have agreed to bear tax liability under the net of tax
contract on the premise that NR will provide TRC, Form 10F (either in physical
or an electronic copy), and other usual declarations. The Notification may
result in a change in the law that was not envisaged at the time of entering
into the contract. Equally, NR may not agree to obtain PAN and furnish Form 10F
digitally. They may continue the present practice of giving Form 10F in
physical or an electronic copy. In such cases, if the Law is read literally, it
may mean that Form 10F is not furnished by NR in the prescribed manner and
accordingly condition of section 90(5) of the Act is not complied with.
Consequently, tax may be required to be deducted in accordance with Act. This
is likely to create friction between the deductor and the NR vendor. In cases
where the contract is on the net of tax basis, the deductor will be responsible
for paying tax which will escalate the cost of services.

Considering the aforesaid, it is necessary to evaluate whether the Notification
which requires digitalization of Form 10F is valid and is likely to stand the
test of law. This needs to be evaluated considering the propositions which are
discussed hereunder.


1. Non-corporate FPIs do not need DSC for signing tax
returns. Non-corporate entities can electronically transmit the ITR and
subsequently submit the physically-signed acknowledgment copy with CPC. Using a
DSC only for electronically furnishing Form 10F is likely to create a practical
challenge.
2. [2021] 125 taxmann.com 42 (SC)
3. Article 13(3A) of India-Mauritius DTAA; Article 13(4A) of India-Singapore
DTAA subject to satisfaction of specified conditions in DTAA.

 

FORM 10F – WHETHER REQUIRED IN ALL
CIRCUMSTANCES?

Section 90(4) provides that NR shall not be entitled to the benefit of DTAA
unless TRC is obtained. Section 90(5) provides that NR referred to in
subsection (4) shall provide other information as may be prescribed. This
linkage gives the inference that subsection (5) needs to be read as an integral
part of sub-section (4), and noncompliance of same can result in denial of DTAA
benefit.

Rule 21AB(1) of the Income-tax Rules, 1961 (“the Rules”) (prescribed u/s 90(5))
requires NR to furnish the following information in Form 10F:

(i) Status (individual, company, firm, etc.) of the assessee;

(ii) Nationality (in case of an individual) or country or specified territory
of incorporation or registration (in case of others);

(iii) Assessee’s tax identification number in the country or specified
territory of residence and in case there is no such number, then, a unique
number based on which the person is identified by the Government of the country
or the specified territory of which the assessee claims to be a resident;

(iv) Period for which the residential status, as mentioned in the certificate
referred to in subsection (4) of section 90 or sub-section (4) of section 90A,
is applicable; and

(v) Address of the assessee in the country or specified territory outside
India, during the period for which the certificate, as mentioned in (iv) above,
is applicable.

The information prescribed in item number (i) above should be read “as
applicable” even though such words are not found in Rule 21AB(1). This is
because the status of the assessee is a concept under Indian law. Section 2(31)
ascribes status to a person, which may not be a concept in overseas countries.
Further, the tax identification number may not be issued by the country to a
tax-exempt entity (e.g. Abu Dhabi Investment Authority or pension trust).

The Notification requires NR to fill in aforesaid information in its tax login
account and verify the same using the DSC of the person authorized to sign the
income-tax return. Rule 21AB(2) creates carve out to sub-rule (1). It reads as
under:

“The assessee may not be required to provide the information or any part
thereof referred to in sub-rule (1) if the information or the part thereof, as
the case may be, is contained in the certificate
referred to in sub-section
(4) of section 90 or sub-section (4) of section 90A.”

The exception carved out in Rule 21AB(2) is important. It states that Form 10F
is not required if all information in Rule 21AB(1) is already forming part of
TRC. In the view of the authors, typically, TRC issued by major treaty partners
(e.g. Germany, Netherlands, Singapore, Japan, Mauritius, Australia, France
etc.) reveals that it contains all the information as stipulated in Rule
21AB(1). Accordingly, Rule 21AB(1) and consequently section 90(5) is not
applicable in so far as TRC issued by such countries are concerned. Thus, NRs
resident of such countries are not impacted by the Notification requiring Form
10F to be issued digitally.

However, TRC issued by countries like Hong Kong, Ireland, etc., does not
contain information such as addresses. Thus, the safe harbour of Rule 21AB(2)
does not apply in such cases. Accordingly, NR from such treaty countries will
be required to submit Form 10F in digitalized form.

PROVISIONS IN ACT AND RULE GOVERNING THE APPLICATION OF PAN

Section 139A(1) and Rule 114 requires the assessee to obtain PAN if his income
is chargeable to tax in India. Rule 114B has prescribed such transactions where
PAN is required to be obtained. Transactions listed in Rule 114B are in nature
of investment in shares, debentures, etc., above a particular threshold. None
of the provisions requires NR to obtain PAN in India, where income is exempt
from tax pursuant to favourable DTAA. In fact, section 206AA and Rule 37BC
(dealt subsequently) give further force to this argument.

The Notification is issued in exercise of powers conferred in sub-rule (1) and
sub-rule (2) of Rule 131 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. Rule 131 was, in turn,
inserted by the Income-tax (first twenty-first Amendment) Rules, 2021, w.e.f.
29th July, 2021 (21st Amendment). The 21st Amendment, in turn, was in the
exercise of powers conferred in section 295 of the Act. The process of
obtaining Form 10F in digitalised form requires the NR assessee to obtain PAN
in India. Thus, indirectly, the Notification is inconsistent with section
139A(1) / Rule 114. It is trite law that subordinate legislation must conform
to the parent statute and any subordinate legislation inconsistent with the
provisions of the parent statute is liable to be set aside. It is equally well
settled that circulars being executive / administrative in character cannot
supersede or override the Act and the statutory rules4. In Godrej
& Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra
5, the
Apex Court held that circulars are administrative in nature and cannot alter the
provisions of a statute, nor can they impose additional conditions.


4. Federation of Indian Airlines vs.
Union of India (WP (C) No. 8004/2010); In Additional District Magistrate
(Rev.), Delhi Administration vs. Shri Ram AIR 2000 SC 2143; In B.K. Garad vs.
Nasik Merchants Co-op. Bank Ltd, AIR 1984 SC 192.
5. (2009) 5 SCC 24


NOTIFICATION – WHETHER OVERRIDES TAX TREATY?
This issue will arise in a situation where a non-resident who is otherwise
entitled to beneficial treatment under DTAA is denied treaty benefit as Form
10F is not furnished in a digitalised format. This is primarily because NR does
not have a PAN in India, or his authorized signatory does not have a DSC. The
following arguments support Notification indirectly overrides tax treaty which
is not permissible:


  • Article 31 of the Vienna Convention provides that a
    treaty is to be interpreted “in good faith in accordance with the ordinary
    meaning to be given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the
    light of its object and purpose. Every treaty in force is binding on the
    parties to it and must be performed by them in good faith”. What it
    implies is that whatever the provisions of the treaties, these provisions
    are to be given effect in good faith. Therefore, no matter how desirable
    or expedient it may be from the perspective of the tax administration when
    a tax jurisdiction is allowed to amend the settled position with respect
    to a treaty provision by an amendment in the domestic law and admittedly
    to nullify the judicial rulings, it cannot be treated as the performance of
    treaties in good faith. That is, in effect, a unilateral treaty over-ride
    which is contrary to the scheme of Article 26 of Vienna Convention on Law
    of Treaties6.

 


6. DIT vs. New Skies Satellite BV
[2016] 382 ITR 114 (Mad); ACIT vs. Reliance Jio Infocomm Ltd [2019] 111
taxmann.com 371 (Mumbai – Trib.).


  • The Andhra Pradesh High Court in Sanofi Pasteur
    Holding SA
    cautioned against the use of legislative power to
    unilaterally amend domestic law in the following words:


“Treaty-making power is integral to the exercise of sovereign legislative or
executive will according to the relevant constitutional scheme, in all
jurisdictions. Once the power is exercised by the authorized agency (the
legislature or the executive, as the case may be) and a treaty entered into,
provisions of the such treaty must receive a good faith interpretation by every
authorized interpreter, whether an executive agency, a quasi-judicial authority
or the judicial branch. The supremacy of tax treaty provisions duly
operationalised within a contracting State [which may (theoretically) be
disempowered only by explicit and appropriately authorized legislative
exertions], cannot be eclipsed by the employment of an interpretive stratagem,
on the misconceived and ambiguous assumption of revenue interests of one of the
contracting States.”


  • Failure on part of NR to obtain Form 10F in digitalised
    form impairs the right of NR to claim treaty benefit. The information
    prescribed under Rule 21AB(1) obtained in a physical or an electronic copy
    does not become invalid merely because it is not furnished in electronic
    form through the income tax e-filing portal. The Notification, to this
    extent, has the vice of treaty override, which may not be permissible. The
    requirement of obtaining Form 10F is under domestic law and is not forming
    part of the treaty. Accordingly, section 90(5), as also the impugned
    Notification may be considered a treaty override.

 

  • As per section 90(2), the provisions of DTAA to the
    extent more beneficial to the assessee shall prevail over the Domestic Law
    and if the legislature wants to make any provision of Domestic Law to
    override the Treaty, a specific provision is required to be made in the
    Statute to that effect as made in sub-section (2A) of section 90 to give
    overriding effect to GAAR provisions. A proposition that treaty benefit
    can be denied for non-digitalised Form 10F seems untenable as there is no
    corresponding amendment in section 90 to permit treaty override or in
    section 139A to obtain PAN by specified class of assessee. In fact,
    Notification is inserted pursuant to Rule 131, which was inserted vide
    21st amendment to the Rules in exercise of power u/s 295.

 

  • In the context of section 90(4), which requires an
    assessee to obtain TRC, Tribunal7 has held that an eligible
    assessee cannot be denied the treaty protection u/s 90(2) on the ground
    that the said assessee has not been able to furnish a TRC in the
    prescribed form. The Tribunal8 read section 90(4) as resulting
    in treaty override and did not accept Revenue’s contention of the
    superiority of section 90(4) over section 90(2). The ratio of these
    decisions should equally apply in the present context.


7. Skaps Industries India (P.) Ltd
vs. ITO [2018] 94 taxmann.com 448 (Ahmedabad – Trib.); Ranjit Kumar Vuppu vs.
ITO [2021] 127 taxmann.com 105 (Hyderabad – Trib.)
8. Supra


SECTION 206AA – LEGISLATIVE HISTORY

Section 206AA provides for withholding of tax at 20% if PAN is not furnished by
the recipient of income. In the context of DTAA, the question arose whether
section 206AA overrides the treaty rate where NR does not have PAN in India.

In under noted decisions9, the supremacy of tax treaty was upheld.
This view is based on the premise that the purpose of the DTAA provision will
get defeated if tax is withheld at a higher rate in the absence of PAN which
subsequently needs to be refunded by the filing of the tax return in India. The
Delhi High Court in Danisco India (P.) Ltd. vs. Union of India10
read down the provision of section 206AA in the following words:

“Having regard to the position of law explained in Azadi Bachao Andolan
(supra) and later followed in numerous decisions that a Double Taxation
Avoidance Agreement acquires primacy in such cases, where reciprocating states
mutually agree upon acceptable principles for tax treatment, the provision in
Section 206AA (as it existed) has to be read down to mean that where the
deductee i.e. the overseas resident business concern conducts its operation from
a territory, whose Government has entered into a Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreement with India, the rate of taxation would be as dictated by the
provisions of the treaty.”


9. Infosys Ltd. vs. DCIT [2022] 140
taxmann.com 600 (Bangalore – Trib.); Nagarjuna Fertilizers & Chemicals Ltd.
vs. Asstt. CIT [2017] 78 taxmann.com 264 (Hyd.);
10. [2018] 90 taxmann.com 295/253 Taxman 500/404 ITR 539


Parliament amended law by introducing sub-section (7) to section 206AA, making law
inapplicable to non-residents for interest, dividend, royalty, fees for
technical service income who furnishes information prescribed in Rule 37BC.

Rule 37BC(2) makes section 206AA inapplicable to non-residents who furnish the
following information:

i)    name, e-mail id, contact number;

ii)    address in the country or specified territory outside
India of which the deductee is a resident;

iii)    a certificate of his being resident in any country or
specified territory outside India from the Government of that country or
specified territory if the law of that country or specified territory provides
for the issuance of such certificate;

iv)    Tax Identification Number of the deductee in the country
or specified territory of his residence and in case no such number is
available, then a unique number based on which the deductee is identified by
the Government of that country or the specified territory of which he claims to
be a resident.

The aforesaid information is identical to information contained in Form 10F. It
can be contended that information under self-declaration can be considered
valid for the purpose of Rule 37BC; it cannot be considered invalid for the
purposes of Form 10F merely because it is not submitted in the electronic form
on the income tax e-filing portal.

Since the information in Rule 37BC is akin to Form 10F, the Notification can be
viewed as contrary to or overriding Rule 37BC. The Notification will result in
denial of treaty benefit even though the condition of Rule 37BC has complied.
If by Notification, the Act itself stands affected, the Notification may be
struck down11.


11. Kerala Samsthana Chethu
Thozhilali Union vs. State of Kerala, (2006) 4 SCC 327


CONCLUDING REMARKS
The Notification has an impact on cross-border payments for F.Y. 2021-22
compliance as well as on ongoing transactions. Payer will have to factor in
this Notification while entering into new / renewal of existing business
contract, especially when payment is on a net of tax basis. Law regarding Form
10F was settled and well understood by non-residents dealing with India. In
practice, it is unlikely that vendors will obtain PAN in India and furnish Form
10F in electronic form on the income tax e-filing portal. This will require the
industry to take decisions on merits.

GLoBE Rules: Determination of Effective Tax Rate (ETR) and Top-Up Tax (TUT) – Part 2

1. TO REFRESH ON THE FIRST PART

1.1 In the first part of this article (“Pillar 2: An Introduction To Global Minimum Taxation”, August, 2022 BCAJ), we discussed the evolution and policy objectives of GloBE Rules. The article also discussed different inter-locking mechanisms of GloBE Rules, which ensure that a large MNE Group (turnover as per CFS is = € 750 mn in 2 out of 4 preceding fiscal years) pays at least 15% tax on profits earned in each jurisdiction where it has a presence (in the form of a subsidiary or a permanent establishment (PE)). This is achieved by the imposition of a “top-up tax” (TUT), wherever the effective tax rate (ETR) computed at a jurisdictional level for all subsidiaries/PEs in a jurisdiction is below 15%. For this purpose, each subsidiary or PE is referred to as a “constituent entity” (CE) of the MNE Group.

As a first priority, such TUT can be imposed by the same jurisdiction whose ETR is < 15%. If such jurisdiction fails to impose TUT, it can be imposed by the jurisdiction of the ultimate parent entity (UPE) of the MNE Group or, failing that, by the jurisdiction of the lower tier intermediate parent entities of the MNE Group.

Assuming none of the aforesaid mechanisms can collect TUT, as a last resort, it can be imposed by other jurisdictions where the MNE Group has a presence (in the form of a subsidiary or a PE) which have implemented GloBE Rules.

While the above is to broadly recap different inter-locking mechanisms of GloBE Rules, which are discussed more elaborately in the first part, in this second part, we shall discuss the calculation of ETR. It is computed at a jurisdictional level as a factor of tax expense (numerator) upon GloBE income (denominator) of all CEs in a single jurisdiction. For this purpose, chapters 3 and 4 of GloBE Rules specify detailed rules to compute the numerator and denominator, which are explained in this article. An attempt has also been made to contextualise the provisions as if an overseas MNE Group is computing the TUT liability for a CE in India. However, the discussion may equally apply to computing TUT liability in respect of Indian in-scope MNE having a CE abroad. Of specific attention to readers are those situations where, surprisingly, even a high-tax jurisdiction such as India, can trigger TUT liability under GloBE Rules.

2. START POINT FOR ETR – ‘FIT FOR CONSOLIDATION’ ACCOUNTS

The UPE prepares consolidated financial statements (CFS) by calling for ‘data pack’ or ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts of each CE. Such ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts are based on accounting standards applicable to the CFS of the UPE, which may differ from accounting standards applicable to local statutory accounts of the CE. These ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts may also include profit/loss on account of intra-group transactions, which are subsequently eliminated in preparing CFS.

In the GloBE Rules, the start point for computing the numerator and denominator of jurisdictional ETR formula is tax expense and profit after tax as per ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts of each CE. As the numerator and denominator is initially computed for each CE, profit/loss on intra-group transactions (both domestic and cross-border) is factored in the start point. To address certain policy issues and to take care of specific considerations, GloBE Rules have introduced certain adjustments to the start point. Some adjustments are mandatory, while others are optional. Once the tax expense and book profit for each CE is adjusted for GloBE, both these parameters are aggregated for all CEs in a jurisdiction. The ETR is determined by dividing aggregate adjusted tax expense upon aggregate adjusted book profit. In this article, the numerator is termed “adjusted covered tax” and the denominator “GloBE income”.

3. COMPUTATION OF DENOMINATOR OF ETR – GLoBE INCOME

Assuming, instead of adjusted book profit, ETR would have been determined by adopting taxable income (for local tax purposes) as the denominator, which could have reflected the impact of all tax incentives (such as those available under the Indian Income-tax Act – IFSC, s.80-IA, s.10AA, agricultural income or weighted deductions such as s.80JJAA), it would not have achieved the GloBE Rules objective. As a result, the denominator is reckoned w.r.t. adjusted book profit.

Some adjustments in computing GloBE income, as enumerated below, are clearly on account of policy considerations such as disallowing payments on account of bribes or penalties. As against that, exclusion in respect of dividend and capital gains on equity shares in computing the GloBE income is primarily to ensure that the rules remain restricted to operating profits of a CE while dividend and capital gains are a derivative reflection of operating profits of the underlying CE. In addition, some adjustments are made to ensure that intra-group cross-border transactions are at ALP, and certain other adjustments are in the form of a SAAR to target abusive arrangements, such as disallowing intra-group finance expenditure, which may have the impact of reducing GloBE liability.

4. ILLUSTRATIVE MANDATORY ADJUSTMENTS

The mandatory adjustments to profit after tax include:

(a)    Add back provision for current tax and deferred tax expense1.

(b)    Add back fines and penalties (only if amount = € 50,000 per CE), and bribes and illegal expenses2.

(c)    Deduct provisions on account of contributions to pension fund only on actual payment3.

(d)    Adjustments to align transaction value in respect of intra-group cross-border transactions with ALP adopted for local tax purposes, if book treatment is at variance from such ALP (discussed further below)4.

(e)    Exclude dividend or capital gain/loss on equity interests (discussed further below).

(f)    Include effect of prior period errors or change in accounting policy, which is otherwise routed directly through the balance sheet (these are considered only if the amounts pertain to periods after applicability of GloBE Rules)5.

(g)    Expenses attributable to intragroup financing arrangement (discussed further below).

(h)    Exclusion for income from international shipping and qualifying ancillary activities (discussed further below).


1. Article 3.2.1(a)
2. Article 3.2.1(g)
3. Article 3.2.1(i)
4. Article 3.2.3
5. Article 3.2.1(h) – however, where prior period expense results in tax refund of > € 1 mn, GloBE requires reworking of prior year’s ETR by adopting reduced tax expense in numerator and such prior period expense in denominator.


5. ILLUSTRATIVE ELECTIVE ADJUSTMENTS

Some adjustments are at the option of the taxpayer. These are:

(a) Deduct Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) cost as per local tax rules instead of as per books6.

(b) Ignore fair valuation/impairment gain/loss and consider such gain/loss only on actual realisation7.


6. Article 3.2.2
7. Article 3.2.5 – if realisation method is elected, such option applies qua jurisdiction (cannot pick and choose for one of the CE) – also, such option can be exercised either qua all assets or only qua all tangible assets.


6. EXCLUSION OF DIVIDEND AND CAPITAL GAIN/LOSS ON EQUITY INTERESTS8

6.1. As indicated above, one of the adjustments to arrive at GloBE income is exclusion in respect of dividend and gain/loss on sale of equity shares. The rationale behind such exclusion is:

a. Dividend is generally paid out of retained earnings that have already been subject to corporate tax or GloBE TUT in the hands of the company9.

b. Similarly, gain on equity shares represents retained earnings which may have already been subject to corporate tax or GloBE TUT in the investee company’s jurisdiction and/or represents unrealised gains in assets held by the investor company which may be subject to corporate tax or GloBE TUT in future as these gains are realised10.


8. Article 3.2.1(b) and (c)
9. Para 179 to 189 of Blueprint
10. Para 190 to 196 of Blueprint

6.2. The exclusion ensures that no TUT is levied on such income which is exempt across most jurisdictions (while not in India). The following are excluded in computing GloBE income of corporate shareholder:

Classification
in CFS

What is
excluded

Conditions for
exclusion

Subsidiary, joint venture, associate

• Dividend

• Capital gain/loss (includes fair
valuation gain/loss)

• Gain/loss recognised as per equity method

N/A

Any other entity, where MNE holds = 10%
ownership interest as on date of distribution or disposition

• Dividend

• Capital gain/loss (includes fair
valuation gain/loss)

N/A

Any other entity, where MNE holds < 10%
ownership interest

• Dividend

Holding should be long-term i.e. held for
at least a year as on the date of distribution

From the discussion hereabove, in respect of the last category above, where MNE holds < 10% ownership interest, only dividend is excluded, and that too, only if such holding is long-term, whereas capital gain/loss is subject to TUT liability.

Separately, although local tax rules typically disallow deductions for expenses associated with income excluded from taxable income, for simplicity, while dividend is excluded from GloBE income, there is no specific requirement to disallow expenses related to such dividend11.


11. Para 45 of commentary

While dividend and capital gain/loss are excluded in computing GloBE income, there is no such exclusion in computing taxable income or book profit for the purposes of s.115JB. This can have an interesting interplay as illustrated here in the context of ICo, which is owned by an overseas MNE Group:

  • ICo enjoys 100% tax holiday on operating profits u/s. 10AA, and hence does not have any normal tax liability. However, ICo is subject to MAT at ~15%.

  •  During the year in question, particulars of ICo’s income are as below:
  1. Operating profit eligible for S.10AA deduction is 1,00,000.
  2. Loss on sale of shares of associate is 60,000.

  •  Accordingly, book profit for MAT is 40,000 and tax liability @ 15% as per MAT provisions is 6,000.

  •  In computing ETR of ICo under GloBE, gain/loss on sale of shares of an associate (and related tax effects) are excluded. Thus, denominator is 1,00,000 and numerator is 6,000. ETR is 6,000/1,00,000 = 6%, resulting in shortfall of 9% as compared to 15%.

  •  TUT liability in respect of ICo = 9,000 namely 9% on operating profits of 1,00,000 (subject to reduction on account of substance-based carve out).

7. ALP ADJUSTMENTS IN COMPUTING GLoBE INCOME

7.1. Article 3.2.3 provides that, in computing GloBE income, any intra-group cross-border transaction recognised at a value that is not consistent with ALP as adopted for local tax purposes must be adjusted to be consistent with such ALP.

7.2. As per commentary, it is “generally expected” that an intra-group cross-border transaction is recognised at ALP in books. In the absence of any bilateral/unilateral TP adjustment for local tax purposes, Article 3.2.3 is not triggered, and the value recognised in the books is accepted to be ALP.

7.3. Impact of bilateral TP adjustment – For bilateral TP adjustment, where the taxable income of both transacting CEs is at variance from book income, the impact of such TP adjustment should also be considered in computing GloBE income.

Article 3.2.3 makes no distinction based on the point of time that such ALP is determined, namely whether the bilateral TP adjustment is made before or after GloBE returns are filed. Article 3.2.3 can apply irrespective of whether ALP is determined as part of self-assessment or pursuant to assessment by tax authorities. It can apply pursuant to bilateral APA or MAP.

Assuming information regarding bilateral TP adjustment is available at the time of filing GloBE return (i.e. return for self-assessment of GloBE tax liability), it is possible to give effect to Article 3.2.3 at the time of filing such GloBE return itself. However, questions may arise when bilateral TP adjustment is finalised many years after filing GloBE return. To illustrate,

  • Assume ICo of India (subject to a local tax rate of 25%) has received services in Year 1 from FCo (which is in a zero-tax jurisdiction).
  • FCo has raised an invoice of 1,000 on ICo.
  • Bilateral APA is concluded after 5 years where ALP for the transaction is computed at 800.
  • Giving effect to such ALP increases ICo’s GloBE income by 200, whereas FCo’s GloBE income decreases by 200.

  • If such adjustment is given effect retrospectively by revising GloBE return of Year 1, TUT liability in respect of FCo reduces by 30 (200 x 15%), resulting in a refund of previously paid GloBE TUT12. As per commentary, article 3.2.3 adjustment cannot result in the refund of previously paid GloBE tax, and in this example, the impact of article 3.2.3 should be given in GloBE return of year 5 and not of year 1. As a result, FCo’s GloBE income for year 5 decreases by 200 in respect of the transaction concluded in year 1, resulting in an increase in ETR for year 5.

12. ICo, being in HTJ, may not trigger any GloBE TUT liability as a result of ALP adjustment.

  • While article 3.2.3 cannot result in a refund of GloBE tax paid for a past year, article 3.2.3 can result in additional demand of GloBE tax for a past year. In this example, assuming FCo procured services from ICo at 1,000 in year 1 whose ALP is determined at 800 in year 5 pursuant to bilateral APA, FCo’s GloBE income can be retrospectively increased by 200, such that, in year 5, the taxpayer can be exposed to an additional demand of GloBE tax in respect of transaction concluded in year 1. To clarify, in this scenario, ETR of year 1 is recomputed to give effect to ALP adjustment, although resultant TUT liability may be collected in year 5. This may be contrasted with the earlier scenario above, where the ETR of year 5 itself was impacted.

7.4. Impact of unilateral TP adjustment – As aforesaid, for bilateral TP adjustment, the GloBE income of both transacting CEs needs to be adjusted to align with the taxable income mandatorily. However, for unilateral TP adjustment (affecting the taxable income of only one of the transacting CEs), special rules are provided to compute GloBE income based on whether unilateral TP adjustment is triggered in a high-tax jurisdiction (HTJ) vs. under-taxed jurisdiction (UTJ). The concepts of HTJ and UTJ are explained in later paras.

At a conceptual level,  when unilateral TP adjustment is initiated in HTJ, an adjustment must be made in computing the GloBE income of both transacting CEs, regardless of whether the counterparty is in HTJ or UTJ.

When unilateral TP adjustment is initiated in UTJ, no adjustment is needed in computing GloBE income of both transacting CEs – and book value is respected for such computation of both transacting CEs.

This can be explained with help of the following example:

  • Assume ICo of India (subject to a local tax rate of 25%) has received services from FCo (which is in a zero-tax jurisdiction).

  • FCo has raised  an invoice of 1,000 on ICo.

  • While ICo is unlikely to trigger TUT under GloBE, FCo may trigger TUT of 150 based on invoice value (15% of 1,000).

  • If, based on TP documentation, ICo determines ALP at 800 and makes voluntary TP adjustment while filing local tax return, ICo’s local tax liability increases by 50 (i.e. 200 x 25%).

  • As per commentary, if FCo’s GloBE income is not adjusted to 800, there is not only an increase in ICo’s local tax liability (by 50 as aforesaid) but also  an increase in the GloBE tax liability in respect of FCo – because GloBE income of 200 would be doubly counted in India as also in FCo’s jurisdiction. As a result, the commentary requires a downward adjustment to FCo’s GloBE income to the extent of 200.

  • Accordingly, GloBE TUT liability in respect of FCo is 120 (15% of 800). The commentary justifies this to avoid “double taxation”.

While the above illustrates a simple scenario, difficult questions may arise where unilateral TP adjustment may happen many years after GloBE returns are filed. Unlike the guidance for bilateral TP adjustment, there is no guidance for unilateral TP adjustment. In this example, assuming the transaction between ICo and FCo pertains to year 1 while unilateral TP adjustment attains finality with the conclusion of the assessment of ICo in year 5, questions will arise as to how FCo may be able to get its GloBE income corrected in terms of Article 3.2.3 and the basis on which it may effectively enjoy refund/reduction of GloBE TUT paid in earlier years as may arise on account of downward adjustment to FCo’s GloBE income.

Coming to the concepts of HTJ and UTJ for Article 3.2.3, the following alternate conditions are prescribed to determine whether or not a jurisdiction is UTJ:

a. Nominal tax rate of the jurisdiction is < 15%, (or)

b. GloBE ETR of the jurisdiction in each of the 2 preceding fiscal years is < 15%.

As the above are alternative conditions, it is possible that even a country like India may become UTJ for a given MNE Group, though the applicable headline tax rate may be > 15%.

7.5. Also, it is unclear how Article 3.2.3 will be applied where unilateral TP adjustment is made in computing taxable income of both transacting CEs, resulting in each CE adopting a different ALP for the same transaction. The commentary acknowledges that the GloBE implementation framework will give further consideration to appropriate adjustments when tax authorities in different jurisdictions disagree on ALP determination.

7.6.
While the above rules apply to intra-group cross-border transactions, there is limited applicability of ALP mandate for intra-group domestic transactions. Article 3.2.3 states that loss on account of sale/other transfer of an asset to another CE of the same jurisdiction is to be recognised at ALP – only if such loss is otherwise cognisable in computing GloBE income (i.e. such loss has been debited to P&L). As per the commentary, this is a tax avoidant measure to prevent manufacturing loss through intra-group asset transfers. Additionally, for cross-border and domestic transactions, Article 3.2.3 requires both transacting CEs to record a transaction in the same amount in computing GloBE income13.


13. As per para 109 of commentary, this result is anyways expected if a common accounting standard is applied to both transacting CEs.


8. INTRA-GROUP FINANCING

8.1. Article 3.2.7 provides that, in computing GloBE income of a CE in a low-tax jurisdiction (namely low-tax entity), the expense attributable to intra-group financing availed directly or indirectly from another CE in a high-tax jurisdiction (namely high-tax entity) shall be disallowed, if:

a. in the absence of Article 3.2.7, such expense would have reduced GloBE income of the low tax entity,

b. without resulting in a commensurate increase in “taxable income” (as per domestic tax laws) of high tax entity.

For the purpose of Article 3.2.714, a jurisdiction is LTJ if the jurisdiction’s effective tax rate (as per GloBE Rules, ignoring the impact of Article 3.2.7) is < 15% (and vice versa for HTJ).


14. Guidance in Article 3.2.3 to determine whether a jurisdiction is UTJ is not relevant for article 3.2.7.

To illustrate, assume ICo of India (in HTJ) provides an interest-free loan of 10,000 to FCo in zero tax jurisdiction. In fit for consolidation accounts (as per IndAS/IFRS), the lender (ICo) records a loan receivable of 10,000 at the net present value (NPV) of 6,000 by discounting at the prevalent interest rate. Over the life of the loan, ICo recognises notional interest income by credit to P&L and a debit to loan receivable. Likewise, the borrower (FCo) recognises corresponding and matching notional interest expenditure.  

In terms of Article 3.2.7, intra-group finance expenditure debited to P&L of FCo is disallowed in computing GloBE income of the borrower (FCo) in LTJ if there is no corresponding increase in “taxable income” (as per domestic tax laws) in the hands of the lender (ICo) in HTJ.

In the present case, notional interest income is not includible in the taxable income of the lender (ICo) in HTJ. Hence, Article 3.2.7 requires disallowance of notional interest expense in computing the GloBE income of the borrower (FCo) in LTJ.

Article 3.2.7 may not have applied in the hands of FCo if, in this example:

a. the loan was provided at prevalent market rate, as ICo would have included actual interest income in taxable income and paid local tax thereon; or

b. ICo was subject to MAT provisions and notional interest income has been included in book profit (namely taxable income computed as per MAT provisions); or

c. ICo was subject to TP adjustment in respect of interest free loan, resulting in imputing notional interest income while determining taxable income of ICo.

The scope of intra-group financing arrangement is not confined to loans. It can apply where there is any credit or investment made, and the other conditions are satisfied. In the above example, it can apply where ICo provides capital infusion as Redeemable Preference Shares (RPS) in FCo which is accounted under IndAS/IFRS as a loan, in a manner as specified above.

8.2. Additionally, for Article 3.2.7 to apply, all conditions (namely borrower is in LTJ, the lender is in HTJ, borrower debiting financing expense in P&L, no commensurate increase in taxable income of lender) should be reasonably anticipated to be fulfilled, over the expected duration of such intra-group financing arrangement.

8.3. Article 3.2.7 has strict conditions to determine whether there is an increase in the taxable income of the lender in HTJ. For example, if such lender is able to immediately set off interest income against brought forward loss or unabsorbed interest expenditure – which is not expected to be used otherwise – it is deemed that there is no increase in the taxable income of such lender, and therefore, the limitation of Article 3.2.7 applies while computing GloBE income of the borrower.

9. INTERNATIONAL SHIPPING SECTOR EXCLUSION

9.1. In terms of sector exclusion, net income from international shipping activities and qualifying ancillary activities are excluded from GloBE income. This is because special features of the shipping sector (such as capital-intensive nature, level of profitability and long economic life cycle) have led to special tax rules across jurisdictions (such as tonnage tax), often operating outside the scope of corporate income tax.

9.2. While detailed rules for shipping sector exclusion are not covered in this article, there is one important aspect that deserves to be highlighted. As per Article 3.3.6, in order to qualify for the exclusion of international shipping income, the CE must demonstrate that the strategic or commercial management of all ships concerned is effectively carried on from within the jurisdiction where the CE is located. As per the commentary, the location of strategic or commercial management is determined basis facts and circumstances. The commentary further provides the following indicators for determining the place of strategic or commercial management:

a. Strategic management includes making decisions on significant capital expenditure and asset disposals (e.g. purchase/sale of ships), award of major contracts, agreements on strategic alliances and vessel pooling and direction of foreign establishments.

b. Commercial management includes route planning, taking bookings, insurance, financing, personnel management, provisioning and training.

It is possible that ships are owned by ACo of Country A but are managed by BCo of Country B. ACo and BCo are CEs of the same MNE Group. The ownership is retained in Country A for commercial reasons such as creditor protection. The management is from Country B for commercial reasons such as efficiency, quality/safety, service level, and related factors. Since the location of strategic or commercial management is different from the location of the CE that owns these ships, income earned from these ships may not qualify for exclusion from GloBE income. In this regard, representations are made to provide more clarity on Article 3.3.6.

10. ADJUSTMENT TO BE MADE TO BOOK PROFIT, ONLY IF SPECIFIED BY GLOBE RULES

10.1. Since the calculation of GloBE income is linked to ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts, any item which is either debited or credited to the P&L account cannot be excluded unless there is a specific adjustment warranted by GloBE Rules. To illustrate, no adjustment may be needed in respect of charity donations or CSR expenses which may have been debited to the P&L account irrespective of its deductibility for local tax purposes.

10.2. Similar to expenditure, the amounts credited to the P&L account cannot be excluded from GloBE income unless specifically provided. Dividend and capital gains in respect of equity shares of subsidiary/joint venture/associate need to be excluded from GloBE income, irrespective of whether the jurisdiction of the CE (like India) has a participation exemption regime. Since dividend may trigger local tax in India at a rate higher than the minimum tax rate of 15%, a CE in India may desire that such dividend as also local tax thereon is considered to be a part of ETR calculation for India. However, no such option is available with MNE Group and such dividend and local tax thereon need exclusion while calculating ETR.

10.3. Separately, a significant impact may arise when the entity, pursuant to a settlement of liabilities under IBC or bankruptcy code, gets a significant haircut which in terms of applicable accounting standards may be required to be credited to the P&L account. In the Indian context, while MAT provisions have become academic for entities opting for s.115BAA, in respect of such credits to P&L account, which is accepted to be non-taxable, there could be TUT liability if the haircut is significant as compared to operating profits which MNE Group may earn from Indian entities.

11. DETERMINATION OF DENOMINATOR OF ETR – ADJUSTED COVERED TAX

11.1. As each jurisdiction may have its own corporate tax system, GloBE Rules define “covered tax”, which refers to types of tax that can be included in the numerator. For example, indirect tax or stamp duty cannot be considered as covered tax. At a broad level, covered tax is defined as any tax w.r.t. an entity’s income or profits. The commentary gives additional guidance in determining the scope of the covered tax. Generally, the concept of covered tax is likely to align with conditions to determine if a tax is income-tax as per Ind AS/IFRS.

11.2. To recollect, income tax expense as per ‘fit for consolidation’ accounts is the start point for the numerator of ETR. Once there are adjustments made to book profit in computing GloBE income to ensure that numerator (namely covered tax) represents tax paid in respect of profits forming part of the denominator, certain correlative adjustments are warranted even to calculate the numerator.  

11.3. At a policy level, in blueprint, the proposal was to adopt only current tax expense in the numerator and not to recognise deferred tax expense. This certainly was not acceptable to stakeholders and multiple representations were made to impress upon the OECD that ETR calculation will be skewed and will not represent the real picture if book-to-tax timing differences as dealt with by deferred tax adjustments are not taken into account. Consequently, in GloBE Rules, deferred tax elements are also considered, albeit with multiple safeguards/limitations. To illustrate, while DTL is reckoned in the numerator, to ensure the integrity of calculation is maintained such that DTL provided at a higher tax rate in books is not sheltering other tax incentives, GloBE Rules require calibration of DTL at 15% tax rate. Likewise, there are provisions to ensure that DTL, which is not actually paid within 5 years is recaptured (subject to certain exceptions). As discussed further, the DTA mechanism is also used by GloBE Rules for ensuring that loss incurred in earlier years is set off while computing TUT liability in future years.

To a tax professional, recollecting an understanding of DTA/DTL is crucial for understanding the adjustments of ETR calculation. While we claim no accounting expertise, we have broadly summarized DTA/DTL as relevant for IndAS/IFRS to the extent found pertinent.

11.4. CONCEPT OF DEFERRED TAX EXPENSE – AN ACCOUNTANT’S PERSPECTIVE

The timing of recognising incomes/expenses in books can be different compared to tax. To ensure a true and fair view and to adhere to the matching principle, accounting standard requires that “tax effects” of incomes and expenses should be recognised in the same period in which incomes and expenses are recognised. The tax expense is the aggregate of current tax and deferred tax. While current tax reflects actual tax payable as per tax return, deferred tax reflects the impact of temporary differences.15


15. Under IGAAP, DT is recognised for the timing difference between book profit and taxable income [this concept is also explained in the Supreme Court decision of J. K. Industries vs. UOI [2007] 165 Taxman 323 (SC)]. Under Ind AS, a balance sheet approach is followed, where DT is recognised for the temporary difference between book base and tax base of assets/liabilities. Ind AS does not make the distinction between timing difference and permanent difference – e.g., under Ind AS, DT is recognised even for the difference between book base and tax base on account of revaluation.

A provision for deferred tax liability is recognised when the future tax liability is higher because:

  • Income is recognised in books, and tax is payable only in future (e.g., percentage of completion method is followed to record revenue in books, but project completion method is followed for tax purposes), or

  • Deduction is claimed in the tax return, but the expense is recognised in books only in future (e.g., capital R&D expenditure is fully claimed u/s. 35(1)(iv) of ITA whilst the capital asset is depreciated in books over a period).

Contrarily, a deferred tax asset is recognised when a tax benefit is to arise in future (e.g., s.43B deduction allowable in tax return on actual payment).

Such deferred tax liability or asset is reversed when the temporary difference is reversed in future i.e.

  • Provision for DTL is reversed as tax liability is actually discharged in future, or

  • DTA is reversed as tax deduction is actually claimed in future.

11.5. For calculating ETR, generation of DTA lowers ETR, while reversal of DTA enhances ETR. Likewise, generation of DTL results in enhancing ETR, while reversal of DTL lowers ETR.

Assume, on account of s.35AD deduction, ICo’s local tax liability is nil – but ICo recognises DTL provision reflecting tax payable in future years. For calculating ETR under GloBE, as the DTL provision is included in the numerator, investment-linked incentives such as s.35AD is protected from TUT liability under GloBE.

11.6 ILLUSTRATIVE ADJUSTMENTS TO CURRENT TAX AND DEFERRED TAX, TO ARRIVE AT “ADJUSTED COVERED TAX”

11.6.1. Corelative adjustment: To ensure parity, GloBE requires exclusion from the numerator of current tax and deferred tax that relates to income excluded from the denominator16. For example, since dividend and capital gains on equity interests is typically excluded from the denominator (as discussed above at para 6), the tax effects of such income are also excluded from the numerator.

11.6.2. Recast DTA/DTL to 15% tax rate if recognised at tax rate > 15%: In books, DTA/DTL are measured at tax rates that are enacted or substantively enacted as of the balance sheet date. If such tax rate is > 15%, specifically for computing ETR under GloBE, the DTA/DTL is recast to 15% tax rate17. For example, if ICo (subject to corporate tax rate of 25%) claims accelerated depreciation of 1,00,000 in tax return over and above book depreciation, ICo recognises DTL provision of 25,000 @ 25%. For computing ETR, such DTL provision is recast to 15% tax rate i.e. 15,000.


16. Article 4.1.3(a) and 4.4.1(a)
17. Article 4.4.1

This recast ensures that DTL provision in excess of 15% tax rate in respect of a taxable business is not used to shield TUT liability in respect of income of another business that enjoys 100% tax holiday, or other tax incentives that are enjoyed in the jurisdiction.

In a high-tax jurisdiction such as India, assume ICo opting for s.115BAA has a book profit of 1,00,000 but taxable income of nil due to excess of accelerated depreciation over book depreciation of 80,000 and weighted deduction u/s 80JJAA of 20,000. The DTL provision in the books on account of accelerated depreciation is recognised at 20,000 (80,000 x 25%) while in GloBE calculations, this is capped to 12,000 (15% tax rate). ETR of ICo is 12,000/1,00,000 = 12%. As ETR is < 15%, ICo can trigger TUT liability @ 3% – which reflects impact of weighted deduction u/s 80JJAA. This shows that even in high-tax jurisdictions such as India or UK, where taxable income can be significantly impacted by a combination of timing differences and weighted deductions, weighted deductions can result in TUT liability because DTL on account of timing differences is capped to 15% tax rate.

11.6.3. DTL recapture: If DTL provision is included in the numerator in year 1, GloBE Rules require such DTL to reverse within the next 5 years namely actual tax payment should happen within the next 5 years. If this condition is not met, GloBE Rules require such DTL to be re-captured in year 6, which means that, in year 6, ETR of year 1 is recomputed on a retrospective basis after ignoring such DTL – resultant TUT liability of year 1 (based on recomputed ETR of year 1) is payable in year 6. This is in addition to the normal top-up tax (if any) of year 6. It may be noted that the GloBE return of year 1 is not revised in year 6, but there is a separate column in GloBE return of year 6 to recompute ETR of year 1 and pay the resultant TUT liability in year 618. Furthermore, if the actual tax payment of such DTL happens in, say, year 8, the same can be added to covered tax in the the ETR computation of year 8.

However, where the DTL provision is covered by specified exceptions19, there is no recapture. Specified exceptions comprise, for example: DTL due to accelerated depreciation on tangible assets (e.g., s.35AD), DTL due to 100% tax deduction of capital R&D expenditure (e.g., s.35(1)(iv), DTL due to fair valuation gains, etc.)20 The policy rationale behind these exceptions is that: DTL is typically tied to substantive activities in a jurisdiction; (or) DTL is not prone to assessee manipulation; (or) DTL is certain to reverse over time.


18. If, at the time of filing GloBE return of year 1, the entity expects that DTL provision recognised in year 1 is unlikely to reverse in next 5 years, such entity can, in terms of Article 4.4.1(b) r. w. 4.4.7, elect to ignore or disclaim such DTL provision while filing GloBE return of year 1 itself – so as to avoid recapture of such DTL provision in year 6. Such actual tax payment will then form part of the numerator on actual payment basis.
19. Article 4.4.5
20. Under I-GAAP AS-22, DTL was not recognised w.r.t. fair valuation gains, as that represented a permanent difference between book profit and taxable income. Under IndAS, a balance sheet approach is adopted requiring comparison of book base and tax base, which results in recognising DTL on account of fair valuation gains in books.

It may be noted that the exceptions include only accelerated depreciation in respect of tangible assets and not in respect of intangible assets. For an entity focussed on acquiring intangibles with a huge IP base (e.g., a pharma or software company), IP having indefinite life is not amortised in books, but can be amortised for local tax purposes. This can result in recognising DTL provision every year, as the tax base of IP goes on reducing while the book base of IP remains constant. If such IP is sold in future, capital gains tax liability is computed w.r.t. WDV as reduced by accumulated depreciation. This future tax liability is recognised in the form of DTL provision every year as IP is amortised for local tax purposes. DTL provision reverses only on the sale of IP in future. Where DTL provision recognised in books in year 1 does not reverse until year 6 (because IP is not sold until year 6), there can be recapture. As a result, in year 6, ETR of year 1 needs to be recomputed by excluding (or ignoring) DTL provision in respect of IP amortisation. This exclusion of DTL provision from numerator can cause ETR of year 1 (as recomputed) to be < 15%, and trigger GloBE liability in year 6.

11.6.4. DTA in relation to tax credits is ignored: Under IndAS/IFRS, the concept of deferred tax accounting is not restricted to temporary differences between accounting income and taxable income. It also extends to tax credits/losses. It requires creating DTA when tax credits are made available in current year, which is reversed as tax credits are absorbed or offset in future years.

In respect of MAT credit, IndAS/IFRS requires recognising DTA in the year of generation of MAT credit – such DTA is reversed as MAT credit is utilised in future years. In the year of generation of MAT credit, the current tax provision is equivalent to MAT payable for that year, while a corresponding deferred tax asset is recognised of the very same amount, representing MAT credit entitlement. In the outer column of P&L A/c for this year, the net tax expense is zero21. In the year of generation of MAT credit, whether ETR should be computed after reducing DTA on account of MAT credit?

GloBE Rules state that, in computing ETR, DTA with respect to the generation and use of tax credits should be ignored or excluded22. The commentary suggests that the scope of this entry is wide and is not restricted to tax credits which are provided as tax incentives (for example, R&D tax credit, where a percentage of the capital cost of eligible R&D expenditure is set off against tax liability). Hence, in this case, in computing ETR, creation and reversal of DTA on account of generation and utilisation of MAT credit should be ignored. In the year of generation of MAT credit, the numerator should be based on actual MAT payable, ignoring the DTA represented by potential advantage on account of MAT credit entitlement.

11.6.5. Use of DTA to ensure set off for loss-making entities: Ordinarily, taxable income is determined after set off of past loss, and no tax may be payable if profits are insufficient to absorb past loss. As stated at para 2 above, the start point for the denominator is profit after tax as per P&L of the current year, while loss of earlier years is not captured therein. GloBE Rules grant set off of loss of earlier years by making use of DTA. To recollect, under IndAS/IFRS, a DTA is recognised in year of generation of loss, in anticipation of future tax benefit in form of set off of loss while computing taxable income. This DTA is reversed in the year of actual set off. Generation of DTA results in lowering ETR, while reversal of DTA results in enhancing ETR.

For example, assume that an entity (liable to corporate tax rate of 25%, and not enjoying any tax incentives) incurs loss of 1,00,000 in year 1 and earns profit of 1,00,000 in year 2. In books, in year 1, the entity creates DTA of 25,000 (@ 25%). In year 1, there is no GloBE liability because denominator of ETR formula is negative. In books, in year 2 namely generation of profit, DTA of 25,000 is reversed in books. For GloBE, such DTA of 25,000 is recast to 15,000 (@ 15%)23 in terms of discussion at para 11.6.2 above. As a result, ETR for year 2 is 15%, and there is no GloBE liability for year 2.


21. In a future year, when MAT credit is utilised, such DTA pertaining to MAT credit entitlement is reversed.
22. Article 4.4.1(e)
23. Article 4.4.1

It is possible that, under IndAS/IFRS, the entity may not recognise any DTA in books in respect of loss generated in year 1, if there is no reasonable certainty of future taxable profits as of year 1. To ensure that past loss is effectively set off even in this scenario where there is no DTA recognised in books, GloBE Rules provide that the impact of accounting recognition adjustment should be ignored24. The commentary25 explains that, in reckoning DTA/DTL for GloBE purposes, the requirement of reasonable certainty of future taxable profits (which is a pre-condition for recognising DTA in books) is discarded. As a result, despite non-recognition of DTA in books, it is possible to recognise DTA for GloBE purposes in the year of generation of tax loss and use such DTA for enhancing ETR when such tax loss is set off under domestic tax laws.

For jurisdictions having corporate tax rate < 15%:
Assume the same numbers given earlier, except that, the entity is liable to corporate tax rate of 10% instead of 25%. The entity would recognise DTA of only 10,000 in books, and ETR for year 2 would be 10% (namely DTA reversal of 10,000 divided by profit of 1,00,000), which would trigger TUT liability @ 5% (considering shortfall as compared to minimum tax rate of 15%) in year 2, despite the entity effectively not having made any profits. To avoid such results, DTA recognised in books at 10% tax rate can be recast upwards to 15% tax rate, such that DTA for GloBE purposes is considered at 15,000 as against 10,000. This ensures that ETR for year 2 is 15%, and there is no TUT liability in year 2. To claim this benefit, the entity needs to prove that the loss of 1,00,000 pertains to items forming part of GloBE income in the denominator of ETR. For example, if such loss is on account of sale of shares of an associate which is excluded while computing GloBE income, DTA for such loss needs to be excluded from the numerator (on the ground of corelative adjustment).

The discussion in the preceding paras is equally relevant to the loss incurred before applicability of GloBE Rules26.

For zero tax jurisdictions: Where the entity is in a jurisdiction which does not levy any corporate tax (and as a result, there is no potential of recognising DTA in the books) (e.g., Bermuda), GloBE Rules provide an option to the entity to recognise DTA outside the books @ 15% of GloBE loss (i.e. after making all upward/downward adjustments to arrive at the denominator of ETR)27. Such DTA can be utilised in future years to enhance ETR when denominator turns positive. Such option can be exercised only at the jurisdictional level, and only in the first GloBE return filed for that jurisdiction (and not in a later year).


24. Article 4.4.1 (c)
25. Refer para 76 and 77 at page 102.
26. Article 9.1
27. Article 4.5

Importantly, such an option can facilitate recognition of DTA outside the books only for loss incurred after the applicability of GloBE Rules. It does not apply for loss incurred before the applicability of GloBE Rules28. To illustrate, assume the same numbers given earlier, except that, the entity is liable to corporate tax rate of 0% instead of 25%. If year 1 is a pre-GloBE year (i.e. GloBE Rules are inapplicable in year 1), DTA outside the books cannot be recognised for loss of year 1, and TUT liability for year 2 is triggered of 15,000. However, if year 1 is a post GloBE year, TUT liability for both years is nil.

While the aforesaid option can also be exercised for high-tax jurisdictions, as a fallout of exercising such option, DTA/DTL in books is fully ignored in ETR, and only DTA for GloBE loss can be considered in addition to current tax provision in ETR.

11.7. Post filing adjustments29: If, in the current year, there is a change in tax provision for earlier year/s (can be increase or decrease of tax liability for earlier year/s), the impact of such change is always factored in computing ETR of the current year. The earlier year/s ETR is not reworked. Such changes can happen on account of completion of assessment or filing of revised return for earlier years.

As an exception to the above, in the following cases, refund/decrease of tax liability for an earlier year which gets admitted (or recognised in the books) in the current year is given effect to by recomputing earlier year’s ETR (any TUT liability due to such re-computation is recovered separately in current year):

a. Where quantum of refund/decrease of earlier year’s tax liability is > €1 million at jurisdiction level.

b. Where quantum of refund/decrease of earlier year’s tax liability is < € 1 million at jurisdiction level, and the assessee chooses to give effect by recomputing earlier year’s ETR (such being an annual choice).

11.8. Cross-border allocation rules30: GloBE Rules are built on the general principle that tax expense relating to a given income should be allocated to the jurisdiction where the underlying income is considered in GloBE calculations. To illustrate, if withholding tax is paid in source jurisdiction (say, India) in respect of royalty income which belongs to a subsidiary in residence jurisdiction (say, Netherlands), withholding tax paid in India as also tax paid in Netherlands will be included in numerator of Netherlands, while computing the ETR of Netherlands31.


28. Para 8.4 of UK consultation document on Pillar 2, OECD Secretariat’s clarification in virtual public consultation meeting held on 25th April, 2022.
29. Article 4.6.1
30. Article 4.3

31. Like withholding tax, if STTR is also recovered, STTR will also be attributed to the CE whose income suffers STTR.

Similarly,

• Taxes paid in respect of a PE (which is considered as a separate CE for GloBE Rules; and adjusted covered tax and GloBE income of such PE are computed separately from the HO owning such PE) in the PE jurisdiction as well as the HO jurisdiction are considered in the ETR calculation of the PE32.

• CFC tax paid in the jurisdiction of the ultimate parent is allocated to jurisdiction where CFC is located. This is despite CFC being many layers below the ultimate parent33.

In respect of dividend, tax paid on intra-group dividend (namely dividend declared by one CE to another CE) is allocated to the jurisdiction of the CE that has distributed the dividend34. To recollect, for computing ETR of shareholder’s jurisdiction, dividend is excluded from GloBE income, and tax on such dividend is also excluded from adjusted covered tax. But, on the logic that tax follows income, where one CE receives dividend from another CE, tax on such dividend can be allocated to the jurisdiction of the CE which has distributed the dividend. To clarify, tax on dividend borne by entities outside the MNE Group (which are not CEs) is not allocated to the CE which distributes dividend.


32. GloBE Rules have a specific definition of PE and also provide special provisions to deal with such cases. Accordingly, the impact of PE under GloBE Rules requires independent evaluation.
33. Article 4.3.2(c) r.w. 4.3.3
34. Article 4.3.2(e)

Assume a case where, ICo is the ultimate parent of an MNE Group, which holds 100% shares in MauCo, a CE having operations in Mauritius. MauCo pays no corporate tax in Mauritius. If MauCo declares its entire profits as dividend in the same year such profits are earned, dividend tax paid by ICo in India @ 25% is allocated to Mauritius (namely jurisdiction of CE that distributed such dividend) in determining ETR of Mauritius. As a result, although no corporate tax is paid in Mauritius, because of allocation of dividend tax from India to Mauritius, ETR of Mauritius is > 15%. However, assuming no occasion arises for ICo to pay dividend tax (because MauCo does not declare dividend, or because ICo claims deduction u/s 80M), nothing is allocated to Mauritius, and ETR of Mauritius is 0%, resulting in TUT liability @ 15% of profits earned in Mauritius. Dividend tax paid by individuals who are promoters of ICo cannot be allocated to Mauritius, as individuals are not a part of MNE Group under the GloBE Rules.

Let us tweak the facts to assume that ICo holds 100% shares of MauCo indirectly through another holding company namely SingCo of Singapore. The entire profits of MauCo are upstreamed to SingCo, and thereafter to ICo. ICo pays dividend tax @ 25% under ITA. As per GloBE Rules, dividend tax paid by ICo in India is allocated to the jurisdiction of the company that distributed such dividends (namely Singapore) and not to the jurisdiction of the underlying company which earned the profits (namely Mauritius). As a result, the ETR of Mauritius is 0%, and TUT liability in respect of MauCo profits is triggered @ 15%, despite payment of dividend tax in India on such profits. As per the commentary, where there is an intermediate holding company, dividend tax paid by the upper-tier parent (namely ICo) is not allocated to MauCo, considering the inconvenience of tracking and tracing distributions through the ownership chain.

12. COMING UP

This article discussed the charging provisions, recovery mechanism, determination of ETR (including illustrating some India-specific fact-patterns). In this backdrop, the last article of this series will, inter alia, dwell upon special tax rules for business reorganisations and compliance/administrative aspects.

[The authors are thankful to CA Geeta D. Jani, CA Shaptama Biswas and CA Dolly Sharma for their support.]

BCAS Foundation’s Tree Plantation and Eye Camp Drive- 2022

BCAS Foundation is a registered Public Charitable Trust whose principal activities are to undertake various public charitable purposes such as relief of the poor, education and other objects of general public utility.

Last month, the HRD Committee of BCAS, under the aegis of the BCAS Foundation, undertook Tree Plantations and Eye Donation Camps at Pindval and Vansda, respectively. It is heartening to note that such noble activities started in 2011 and have completed 11 years. BCAS Foundation has been instrumental in planting more than 1,00,000 trees in and around Dharampur and conducting more than 1,000 cataract operations for tribals in and around Vansda, Gujarat. Thanks to coordinators CA Meena Shah, CA Utsav Shah, CA Darshan Nathwani and the young brigade of Articled Students and CAs who participated over these years.

This year, being India’s 76th Independence Day, the project visit was specifically planned for 13th and 14th August 2022 to commemorate and celebrate ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’ with noble causes of contributing toward Greener India and giving a better vision to the underprivileged tribals of people in and around Vansda. We thank our esteemed BCAS Donors with whose support we could contribute a sum of Rs. 4,80,000 for these noble causes. A Group of 23 enthusiastic volunteers representing BCAS and donors planted trees and witnessed Cataract Eye Camp at the Sant Ranchoddas Eye Hospital in Vansda. The Group visited three different NGOs engaged in many noble activities.

SARVODAYA PARIVAR TRUST (SPT): The Group reached Pindval, Dharampur, to visit the SPT centre. SPT runs two Ashram Schools in Pindval and Khadaki. The trust is an initiative of founders who carried on the vision of Archarya Vinoba Bhave of unconditional service to tribals. SPT works in the areas of Environment, Education, and Water Conservation and follows a holistic approach to poverty alleviation based on Gandhian principles. The Group, and a team of local farmers planted saplings of mango and bamboo trees. The Team had the privilege of Flag hoisting with Farmers and Tribal Children on the field. BCAS contributed to the plantation of about 10,000 trees (@ Rs. 30 per tree, amounting to Rs. 3,00,000). SPT has a nursery wherein they prepare saplings of various fruits and non-fruits bearing trees throughout the year and distribute them to farmers during the monsoon season. The captive plantation ensures a higher survival rate of more than 60%.

Trustee, Shri CA Virendra Shah led the project and briefed about the outcome of the activities that have positively impacted the lives of several people in the hilly region.

DHANVANTRI TRUST (DT):
 Late Dr. Kanubhai Vaidya founded Sant Ranchoddas Eye Hospital, Vansda, which provides free cataract operations and other eye care facilities for needy people. Trustee, Shri Ghanshyambhai briefed about the facilities and Eye Treatment provided at the 100-bed Hospital. With the kind support of doctors and volunteers, till now they have conducted over 85,000 cataract surgeries. The Group got an idea about how ignorance and extreme poverty result in blindness amongst the poor. This year BCAS donated Rs. 1,85,000 sponsoring 185 cataract operations @ Rs. 1,000 per operation.

SHRIMAD RAJCHANDRA ASHRAM, DHARAMPUR (SRMD): SRMD is a spiritual mission for inner transformation through wisdom, meditation, and selfless service. Founded by Pujya Gurudev Shri Rakeshji, the organisation works through 196 centres in five continents. The Group visited the Ashram, the temple of Bhagwan Mahavir Swami and got an idea about various humanitarian activities undertaken by the Mission in the form of Schools, Colleges, Animal hospitals, etc. It was an enriching and enlightening experience witnessing devotion and selfless services by the Mission to upliftt tribals and poor people.

The visit ended with fond memories of the noble organisations and comradeship amongst team members. The visit not only contributes to the environment but also empowers and sensitised youngsters to undertake noble activities in life.

Intricate Issues in Tax Audit

INTRODUCTION
Since the provision for audit u/s 44AB of the Income-tax Act was introduced in 1984, it has occupied centre stage of activity for many CAs in practice. Popularly, it is referred to as Tax Audit. After nearly four decades, while the original provisions and forms may look simple, the task of conducting a tax audit has always been complex. While in earlier years, the complexities revolved around getting the client to prepare proper financial statements from manually maintained accounting records, today, the challenge is getting the client to compile the voluminous details before auditing and reporting these in the complex online utilities.

Before we get into some of the issues one has to tackle while forming a view and reporting on the same; it is important to understand the objective behind the introduction of Tax Audit.  The scope and effect of section 44AB were explained by the CBDT in Circular No. 387, dated 6th July, 1984 [(1985) 152 ITR St. 11] in para 17, as under:

“17.2 A proper audit for tax purposes would ensure that the books of accounts and other records are properly maintained, that they faithfully reflect the income of the taxpayer and claims of deduction are correctly made by him. Such audit would also help in checking fraudulent practices. It can also facilitate the administration of tax laws by a proper presentation of the accounts before the tax authorities and considerably saving the time of assessing officers in carrying out routine verifications, like checking correctness of totals and verifying whether purchases and sales are properly vouched or not. The time of the assessing officers thus saved could be utilised for attending to more important investigational aspects of a case.”

The reporting complexities have been continuously increasing over the years, and it is evident from the fact that after the introduction of the forms in 1984, the first major change in reporting happened in 1999, after almost 15 years. The changes in the law and forms have become more frequent thereafter. At times, the reporting requirements travel beyond mere furnishing of particulars. The most glaring example is clause 30C(a), which requires the auditor to report on whether the assessee has entered into an impermissible avoidance arrangement.

The Institute of Chartered Accountants’ of India has been providing guidance to the members in the form of Guidance Notes and other pronouncements from time to time. The 2022 revised edition of The Guidance Note on Tax Audit under section 44AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961 – A.Y. 2022-23 (the GN) has been recently published.

We may turn our attention to some of the important matters when it comes to reporting in Form Nos. 3CA / 3CB / 3CD.

REPORTING CONSIDERATIONS
As per section 145, an assessee has an option to follow cash or mercantile system of accounting. Under clause 13(a) of Form 3CD, the assessee has to state the method of accounting it follows. As stated in para 11.6 of the GN, Accounting Standards (AS) also apply to financial statements audited u/s 44AB, and members should examine compliance with mandatory Accounting Standards when conducting such audits. Further, as per para 13.9 of the GN, normal Audit Procedures will also apply to a person who is not required by or under any other law to get his accounts audited. Where in the case of an assessee, the law does not prescribe any specific format or requirements for the preparation and presentation of financial statements, the ICAI has recently published ‘Technical Guide on Financial Statements of Non-Corporate Entities’ and ‘Technical Guide on Financial Statements of Limited Liability Partnerships’.

The following matters need to be kept in mind while furnishing an audit report, especially under Form No. 3CB:

(a) Assessee’s responsibility and Tax Auditor’s responsibility paragraphs have to be included at appropriate places in both Form No. 3CA and Form No. 3CB, as the case may be. The illustrations of the same are given in para 13.11 of the GN.

(b)  If an assessee follows the cash system of accounting in accordance with section 145, then the said fact must be mentioned in Form No. 3CB while drawing attention to the notes included in the financial statements, if any.

(c)  In case the financial statements of an assessee are otherwise not required to be prepared or presented in any particular format by any law, and if the ‘Technical Guide on Financial Statements of Non-Corporate Entities’ or ‘Technical Guide on Financial Statements of Limited Liability Partnerships’, as applicable, is not followed, then the said fact should be included as an observation.

PAYMENT OR RECEIPT LESS THAN 5% IN CASH IN CASE OF ELIGIBLE ASSESSEE COVERED BY SECTION 44AD
With effect from A.Y. 2020-21, a proviso was inserted to section 44AB(a), whereby a relaxation from getting accounts audited was provided to certain assessees. Thus, an assessee,  having sales, turnover or gross receipts below Rs. 10 crores, whose aggregate of all receipts or payments in cash (including non account-payee cheques / bank drafts) does not exceed five per cent of the sales, turnover or gross receipts, is not required to get its accounts audited u/s 44AB(a).

U/s 44AD(4) if an eligible assessee, who has declared profit for any earlier year in accordance with section 44AD, chooses to declare profit less than that prescribed in section 44AD(1) in any of the succeeding 5 years and his income exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to tax, then he is liable to get his accounts audited u/s 44AB(e) r.w.s. 44AD(5).

The issue that arises for consideration is whether the benefit provided in the proviso to section 44AB(a) would also apply to assessees covered u/s 44AB(e). The objective of increasing the said limit, as stated, was to reduce the compliance burden on small and medium enterprises. Even the Finance Minister, in her speech, had said – “In order to reduce the compliance burden on small retailers, traders, shopkeepers who comprise the MSME sector, I propose to raise by five times (in Finance Act raised to Rs. 10 crores) the turnover threshold for audit ….”.

However, the stated object of the amendment and law ultimately introduced in this regard are at variance. It does not appear to encompass eligible assessees covered u/s 44AD by not extending the said proviso to section 44AB(e). Thus, reference to small retailers, traders, and shopkeepers in the Finance Minister’s speech is rendered meaningless, as they are the ones who are actually covered as eligible assessees u/s 44AD.

TURNOVER FROM SPECULATIVE TRANSACTIONS AND DERIVATIVES, FUTURES & OPTIONS
Determination of turnover or gross receipts from  Speculative Transactions as well as from Derivatives, Futures & Options has been a subject matter of many lengthy discussions. The GN has dealt with the subject and provided the following guidance in paras 5.14(a) and (b) for determination of turnover for applicability of section 44AB. In either case, the determination would be as under:

(a) Speculative Transactions: These are transactions in respect of commodities, shares or stocks etc., that are ultimately settled otherwise than by actual delivery. In such cases, transactions are recognised in the books of account on net basis of difference earned or loss incurred. According to the GN, the sum total of such differences earned or loss incurred, i.e. total of both the positives and negatives has to be taken into consideration for determination of turnover.

(b)  Derivatives, Futures & Options: These transactions are also settled, on or before the strike date, without actual delivery of the stocks or commodities involved. In such cases, the total of all favourable and unfavourable outcomes should be taken into consideration for determining turnover along with the premium received on the sale of options (unless included in determining net profit from transaction). The GN also states that differences on reverse trades would also form part of the turnover.

INTEREST AND REMUNERATION RECEIVED BY A PARTNER IN A FIRM
The applicability of provisions of section 44AB to receipt of interest and remuneration by a partner in a firm has been a matter of some litigation in the context of levy of penalty u/s 271B. There have been judgements of the ITAT both in favour and against. This issue came up before the Hon. Bombay High Court recently in Perizad Zorabian Irani vs. Principal CIT [(2022) 139 taxmann.com 164 (Bombay)] wherein it is held that:

“Where assessee was only a partner in a partnership firm and was not carrying on any business independently, remuneration received by assessee from said partnership firm could not be treated as gross receipts of assessee and, accordingly, assessee was justified in not getting her accounts audited under section 44AB with respect to such remuneration.”

In coming to the above conclusion, the High Court relied on the judgement of Hon. Madras High Court in Anandkumar vs. ACIT [(2021) 430 ITR 391 (Mad)]. The case before the Madras High Court was of an assessee who had declared presumptive income u/s 44AD at 8% of the remuneration and interest earned from the partnership firm. The Assessing Officer had disallowed the claim of benefit u/s 44AD while holding that the assessee was not carrying on business independently but as a partner in the firm, and receipts on account of remuneration and interest from firms cannot be construed as gross receipts as mentioned in section 44AD.

Thus, two important points emerge from the above discussion:

(a) Remuneration and Interest in excess of Rs. 1 crore would not make a partner of a firm liable to tax audit u/s 44AB, and

(b) Benefit of section 44AD is not available in respect of remuneration and interest received by a partner from a partnership firm.

INCOME COMPUTATION AND DISCLOSURE STANDARDS (ICDS)
Reporting under this clause assumes great significance as, most of the time, assessees are not fully aware of the said standards. Two important matters to note from an auditor’s perspective are:

(i)    If financial statements are prepared and presented by following the Accounting Standards, as discussed in Reporting Considerations herein before, then there might be some items of adjustments under ICDS and accordingly need reporting under clause 13 of Form No. 3CD, and

(ii)    If the ICDS are followed in the preparation and presentation of financial statements, especially in the case of non-corporate assessees or LLPs, then there would be a need for qualifications in Form No. 3CB, where the Accounting Standards are not followed.

Generally, one will have to take into consideration the following important items, amongst others, in respect of the following ICDS:

ICDS

Subject

Matters for consideration

ICDS – I

Accounting Policies

• Impact of changes in accounting policies

• Marked to market profit / losses

ICDS – II

Valuation of Inventories

• Inclusive vs. Exclusive

• Borrowing Costs

• Time value of money

• Clause 14(b)

ICDS – IV

Revenue Recognition

• Performance Obligations

• Provision for sales returns

ICDS – V

Tangible Fixed Assets

• Borrowing Cost

• Forex gain / loss treatment

• Clause 18

ICDS – VI

Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange
Rates

• Cash flow hedges

• Marked to market profit / losses

ICDS – VIII

Securities

• Average cost vs. Bucket Approach

ICDS – IX

Borrowing Costs

• Inventories

• Fixed Assets

Some of the above matters are covered for reporting under other clauses also. At times such multiple reporting results in further adjustments in the intimations received u/s 143(1).

1. Certain adjustments in respect of inventories relating to taxes, duties etc., are reported, as per ICDS II, under clause 13(e), as well as in clause 14(b) for reporting deviation from section 145A. When intimation u/s 143(1) is received, it is noticed that there are double additions made if the same item is reported in two different clauses as per the reporting requirements. It is difficult to prescribe any particular method of reporting in such a matter. However, one may take a practical view and report such adjustments in clause 14(b) as it is directly arising from the provision of law rather than under clause 13(e), which comes  from the requirement of delegated legislation in the form of ICDS. Of course, whatever manner of reporting is adopted by the assessee, it would be prudent to disclose the same in para 3 of Form No. 3CA or para 5 of the Form No. 3CB, as the case may be.

2. In cases of proprietary concerns, along with business affairs, many times other personal details are also reported in the financial statements. If the proprietor is following the mercantile system of accounting and is also earning some other incomes, which are credited directly to the capital account, then clause 13(d) is attracted. It may be remembered that ICDS also apply to the computation of income under the head ‘Income from Other Sources’. Clause 13(d) is attracted if any adjustments are required to be made to the profit or loss for complying with ICDS. The scope of ICDS also extends to the recognition of revenue arising from the use by others of the person’s resources yielding interest, royalties or dividends. Similarly, under clause 16, amounts not credited to the profit and loss account are required to be reported. Under clause (d) of the said clause, ‘any other item of income’ is to be reported.

This particular reporting has been causing some problems again in intimations received where the said amount, though declared as income from other sources, is added to business income.

To deal with such a problem, the correct course of action would be to segregate personal financial affairs from business affairs. However, where such segregation is not possible for some good reasons, then probably the assessee may have to make a choice of reporting or not reporting the same. The auditor, in turn, would have to disclose such fact as a qualification under clause 5 of Form No. 3CB if not reported. If reported, then probably, an explanation would need to be included at the appropriate place, probably along with other documents that are uploaded along with the financial statements.

One may face such situations in respect of other items also. As an auditor, it may be a good practice to disclose such fact/s in clause 3 of Form No. 3CA or clause 5 of Form No. 3CB, as the case may be. Such disclosure may simply be an observation or a qualification, also at times depending on the facts and circumstances of a given case.

CHANGES IN PARTNERSHIP
In clause 9(b), in respect of Partnership Firms or Association of Persons, changes in the partnership or members or in their profit-sharing ratio are required to be reported. There has been a major change in provisions of section 45(4) w.e.f. 1st April, 2021. Any profits or gains arising from receipt of money or capital asset by a partner because of reconstitution of partnership firm is chargeable to tax, and such tax has to be paid by the firm.

While there is no separate reporting required in Form 3CD of such gains, one will have to take the above into account to ensure that due payment or provision for tax is made in the books of account. In such cases, the assessee may have taken legal opinions on some of the issues. If reliance is placed on the same, then necessary audit procedures as also disclosure, if additionally required, may be discussed with the assessee. One would also need to examine the valuation reports in respect of some of the assets that may have been obtained for the determination of amounts payable to any partner on account of reconstitution. Also, the assessee needs to obtain Form No. 5C, where applicable, to determine the nature of capital gains and carried forward cost of assets retained by the firm.

IMPERMISSIBLE AVOIDANCE ARRANGEMENT (IAA)
Clause 30C requires reporting of impermissible avoidance arrangement entered into by the assessee during the previous year under consideration. Reporting under this clause was deferred to 1st April, 2022.

Chapter X-A deals with provisions of General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) contained in sections 95 to 102. The intent, as per the Explanatory Memorandum of provisions of GAAR is to target the camouflaged transactions and determine tax by determining transactions on the basis of substance rather than form. GAAR applies to transactions entered into after 1st April, 2017. There are elaborate procedures for a transaction to be declared an IAA. For an arrangement to be declared as IAA, its main purpose should be to obtain a tax benefit and should satisfy one or more conditions of section 96, which are as under:

  • it creates rights / obligations which are not ordinarily created between persons dealing at arm’s length,

  • it results, directly or indirectly, in misuse or abuse of the provisions of the Act,

  • it lacks commercial substance or is deemed to lack commercial substance, by virtue of fiction created by section 97, or

  • is entered into or is carried out, by means, or in a manner, which may not be ordinarily employed for bona fide purposes.

There are elaborate steps laid down where a matter travels from Assessing Officer to the CIT or PCIT and to the Approving Panel. The CIT or the PCIT may declare the transaction as IAA if the assessee does not respond to show cause notice. In case the assessee objects to such a treatment, then the matter is referred to the Approving Panel, which may or may not hold the transaction to be IAA.

As per Rule 10U, GAAR is not applicable in certain specified cases thereunder.

Thus, there are various complexities involved in determining whether a transaction is an IAA. It involves determining parties who are to be treated as one and the same person, calculation of tax benefit obtained and if the same is more than Rs. 3 crores and access to records of some or all of the connected parties. This will involve substantial uncertainty, impossibility of computing overall tax effect and involvement of substantial subjectivity. The very fact that, even for administrative purposes, such an elaborate system from AO to Approving Panel is put in place, is a pointer to the difficulties involved. It is well-nigh impossible for a Tax Auditor to come to a conclusion on such a matter. In any case, the first step of furnishing the details under this clause rests on the assessee. Thus, in view of the difficulties arising on account of uncertainty and subjectivity, an auditor would hardly ever be able to come to a true and correct view of the matter. Accordingly, a Tax Auditor should include a disclaimer in respect of reporting under this clause as per para 56.14 of the GN with necessary modification.

The GN also suggests inquiring about pending matters relating to IAA or declaration of any transaction as IAA in respect of any of the earlier years and reporting the facts relating to the same.

THE BREAK-UP OF TOTAL EXPENDITURE AND GST
Clause 44, in pursuance of the information exchange collaboration initiated between CBIC and CBDT, was inserted on 20th July, 2018, but kept in abeyance for reporting prior to 1st April, 2022. While the ultimate objective of this clause is not clear, it appears to be in the nature of data collation for the purposes of GST. It requires reporting of the break-up of expenditure of entities registered or not registered under GST in the following manner:

1. Total amount of expenditure incurred during the year (Column 2)

2. Expenditure in respect of entities registered under GST:

a.    Relating to goods or services exempt from GST (Column 3)

b.    Relating to entities falling under composition scheme (Column 4)

c.    Relating to other registered entities (Column 5)

d.    Total payment to registered entities (Column 6)

3.    Expenditure relating to entities not registered under GST (Column 7)

The first question that arises for the purpose of reporting under this clause is what is the ambit or scope of the term “expenditure”? Oxford dictionary defines it as “the act of spending or using money; an amount of money spent”. It appears that all the expenditures as reported in the Profit and Loss Statement may have to be bifurcated for the purpose of reporting at clause 44. However, there might be certain exclusions or inclusions that may have to be taken care of:

1. Provisions and allowances (e.g., provisions for doubtful debts) are not expenditure and therefore, will have to be excluded.

2. Depreciation and amortisation, not being in the nature of expenditure, will also have to be excluded.

3. Capital Expenditure shall also be treated as expenditure and requires to be reported.

4. Prepaid expenditure incurred in the current year but forming part of the expenditure of the subsequent year will have to be added and conversely, prepaid expenditure of previous year forming part of the expenditure of current year will have to be reduced.

Once the total expenditure incurred during the year is derived under column 2, this requires bifurcation into expenditure in respect of entities registered under GST and those not registered under GST. The expenditure in respect of registered entities requires further bifurcation into exempt goods or services, relating to entities under the composition scheme and those relating to other registered entities.

As per section 2(47) of CGST Act, 2017, exempt supply means “supply of any goods or services or both which attracts nil rate of tax or which may be wholly exempt and includes non-taxable supply”. Exempt supplies shall include the supply of goods or services that have been exempted by way of notification (e.g., interest) or subjected to a nil rate of tax by way of notification. It shall also include supplies which are currently outside the levy of GST, such as petrol, diesel and liquor.

Activities or transactions that are treated as neither supply of goods nor a supply of services under Schedule III do not fall within the ambit of exempt supplies. Thus, expenditure in respect of such activities may have to be reported under the residuary category at column 5, in case of registered entities, or column 7 in case of unregistered entities. However, Para 82.3 of GN states that such activities need not be reported under this clause.

The details of expenses under the reverse charge mechanism (i.e., RCM where the recipient is liable to pay tax) are also required to be reported. In the case of RCM expenses from registered entities, these shall form part of expenditure relating to other registered dealers under column 5. In the case of RCM expenses from unregistered dealers, it shall be reportable under expenditure relating to entities not registered in column 7.

The critical issue here is what should be the source of such details required to be reported under this clause, as currently, there is no return or form in GST that requires mandatory reporting with respect to all expenditures. The reporting in respect of supplies from entities under the composition scheme in Table 16 of Form GSTR-9 (Annual Return) is currently optional up to F.Y. 2021-22. Table 14 of Form GSTR-9C (Reconciliation Statement), which requires expenditure head-wise reporting of Input Tax credit availed, is also optional up to F.Y. 2021-22. Reporting in respect of inward supplies from composition entities and exempt inward supplies is also required in Table 5 of GSTR-3B. However, most taxpayers are not able to report it on a monthly basis.

An inward supplies register, if available, consisting of all the expenditures incurred for the year could be considered as the basis for compiling vendor-wise expense details. Additionally, internal data for vendor master may have to be analysed to obtain details of entities registered under the composition scheme, registered entities, and unregistered entities. All the entries not charged with GST may be analysed to obtain details pertaining to exempt supplies, those pertaining to composition entities and those pertaining to unregistered entities.

The reporting is not required head-wise or vendor-wise. However, it is advisable to separately report revenue and capital expenditure. It is also advisable to maintain detailed head-wise and vendor-wise details as, typically, it may expected to be called for during scrutiny.

GSTR-2A (a statement containing details of inward supplies) may also be considered for reporting details in respect of registered entities. Owing to the dynamic nature of the statement and further requirement of reconciling the same with the books, it may not give desired and accurate details. The details in respect of composition entities and unregistered entities will also have to be separately compiled as these shall not be available from GSTR-2A.

Reporting under clause 44 involves an elaborate exercise, and all the details may not be available in most of the cases. In most cases, it may not be true and correct as required for the purpose of reporting. Therefore, it may be necessary to consider adequate disclosures along with notes, partial disclaimers, and in an appropriate circumstance, a complete disclaimer on reporting in this clause.

CONCLUSION
In this article, some intricate contemporary matters have been touched upon. However, there are some evergreen issues that keep on springing some surprises during the conduct of the audit and teach us something new. While many things have become easy on account of technology, there are matters which also add to our difficulties in terms of submission of data, maintenance and preserving of audit records and, of course, not the least, the challenges posed by the portal at times.

Two things that one has come to realise about tax audit, after practicing for some decades:

  • Assessees and Tax Auditors adapt to reporting on many intricate issues and settle with the same in a couple of years, and

  • When the issues are settled, the law comes up with something new and more complex requirements to be reported.

The tax audit reporting is, therefore, never finally settled, adding to the woes of taxpayers and tax auditors.

TALE OF TWO CLIMATES

Climate change is wreaking havoc in the world. Today we find that many countries, including India, are experiencing torrential rains, resulting in floods in many areas and thereby causing loss of lives, vegetation, and properties. At the same time, Europe and many Western countries are experiencing unprecedented heat and drought. Many rivers have dried up or are on the verge of drying up, resulting in an energy crisis and adversely impacting the global supply chain.

Many forests have caught fire, and millions of hectares of land and vegetation have been destroyed. On 24th August, 2022, Reuters reported that extreme fires have swallowed up vast swathes of land, destroyed homes, and threatened livelihoods worldwide in the first half of 2022. It further reports that wildfires have destroyed over 3.3 million acres of land across the Globe in 2022 alone. This shows the magnitude of the problem.

The Middle East has been disturbed for many years, with continuing fights in Syria, Iraq, and other countries. The war between Ukraine and Russia has been going on for more than six months now, without any end. A large amount of carbon emission due to the use of high-tech weapons in these wars has further aggravated the climatic conditions worldwide. The world is passing through a turbulent time with no immediate relief in sight. The geopolitical situation is very fragile, with increasing tension between China and Taiwan on one side and Russia and NATO on the other. The tension in the Asia Pacific region is also growing, with Indonesia asserting its right in the South China Sea and other Southeast Asian countries.

Under the current scenario, India has a major role to play. However, as stated earlier, not only the natural climatic conditions, but the economic and regulatory climate in India is also changing. India has made notable progress in the recent past and has successfully come out of the economic ill effects of the pandemic. Today, India is poised for a great leap on the economic front. Even the World Bank has predicted impressive growth for India. Under the circumstances, it is imperative that India plays its cards carefully.

Many companies have decided to shift their operations from China, and one of the choicest countries in Asia is India. If India were to gain from these geopolitical developments and touch a five trillion-dollar economy by 2024, then the regulatory requirements should be simple, business-friendly, and with fair administration. There cannot be two views that the country’s revenue base should be protected, and every taxpayer should pay legitimate tax. However, if the regulations are clear and fairly administered, then they will ensure tax certainty and avoid litigations.

Let’s turn our attention to another climatic change in India, i.e., in the area of Tax Audits. Recent amendments under the Tax Audit regime deserve attention. The reporting requirements are such that a Tax Auditor is virtually carrying out the assessment of his client. Tax Audit was introduced with a laudable object of facilitating tax administration by a proper presentation of the accounts such that the time of Assessing Officers could be utilised for attending to more investigational aspects. However, if one were to read the requirements of reporting under Clause 30C, one finds that the Auditor is supposed to do an investigation and report any transaction which is in the nature of an “Impermissible Avoidance Arrangement (IAA)”. Essentially, it requires an Auditor to examine every transaction and report whether it is in the nature of IAA as referred to in section 96 of the Act and quantify the amount of tax benefit resulting from IAA. It requires judgment by an auditor as to whether a particular transaction is impermissible or not. While the Auditor has to certify whether the transaction is in the nature of IAA, it cannot be held so unless a detailed procedure is followed under the Act, and finally, the Approving Panel of experts declares it so after a detailed examination. It also has a danger for the Tax Auditor. What if the transaction was reported by him as IAA and challenged by the taxpayer in higher forums, which ultimately turns out to be a non-IAA? And what happens in the reverse scenario? Is he not in trouble either way?

In a lighter vein, it reminds me of a joke where a student is asking his parents how they expect him to learn all subjects (all by himself), which one teacher cannot teach. Tax Audit, thus, casts onerous responsibility on a Tax Auditor. Ideally, Tax Audit should have provided for merely reporting a transaction without the Auditor’s opinion and/or certification on whether it is an IAA. This Clause, along with Clauses 30A and 30B, requires Tax Auditors to be well versed with Transfer Pricing Regulations and International Taxation (for Interest Deductibility u/s 94B).

Another onerous requirement made applicable from A.Y. 2022-23 is reporting under Clause 44 about the “Break-up of the total expenditure of entities registered or not registered under GST”. It will not only require more time and effort for an Auditor to comply with this requirement but would also need a good amount of knowledge of GST, as is evident from the Guidance Note by the ICAI.

In 38 years of its existence, a tax audit is today as comprehensive as complex.

It requires experts from different fields to do justice. The silver linings are the ability of Chartered Accountants to rise to every occasion, thanks to their rigorous training and faith of the judiciary and revenue department in the profession. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in T.D. Venkata Rao vs. Union of India [1999] 237 ITR 315 (SC) made the following significant observations: “Chartered Accountants, by reason of their training, have special aptitude in the matter of audits. It is reasonable that they, who form a class by themselves, should be required to audit the accounts of businesses whose income (sic: turnover) exceeds Rs.40 lakhs* and professionals whose income (sic: gross receipts) exceeds Rs.10 lakhs* in any given year”.

As rightly observed by the Apex Court, Chartered Accountants are a class by themselves. We are distinct, diligent, dependable, and determined. While new regulations and requirements open new opportunities for practice and growth, we should be mindful of their risks. We should also be mindful of work-life balance in today’s hectic world. Everything comes with a price tag. At the end of the day, we should ask ourselves one question, is it worth?

GOPICHANDAN

We offer Namaskaars to God as part of our worship. It is a mark of our respect and devotion towards Him. I am referring to the Gods of all religions – be it a Hindu God or Allah or Jesus or any form of the Almighty.

A question often asked is why our God does not shower His blessings on us even if we worship Him sincerely and regularly.

The answer is that we do not have blind faith in Him. Our devotion is not uncompromising. We carry doubts and questions about the very existence of God and His powers!

Gopikas of Lord Shrikrishna is the ultimate example of true devotion. Once a Guru told the Gopis that they can even walk on the water and cross the river with true devotion. Gopis did achieve it, but the Guru got drowned!

Chandan means sandalwood. It gives complete coolness to our body if mixed with water and applied. But what is Gopichandan? It is nothing but mud – soil (mitti) mixed with water. It also gives coolness. Gandhiji used to apply it to his forehead. The story behind Gopichandan is beautiful. Once Shrikrishna pretended to have an acute headache. All Gods and others in heaven were extremely worried. No remedy was working! So, they surrendered and asked Him what the real remedy was. The Lord said – please get me the soil (mitti) under the feet of my true devotee from the earth. The task was given to Narad Muni.

He met many sages and rishis and requested them for the soil beneath their feet – to apply to Shrikrishna’s forehead. They got furious. They said they were praying for years to see and fall on Krishna’s feet; and how dare Narad ask for the mitti under their feet to be applied to His forehead? They said it would take them to hell!

Then Narad approached other second-rank sages and disciples who were busy performing ‘yagyas’. At Narad’s request, they also said that if senior sages feared going to hell, how did Narad expect that they would agree? So, they refused.

Finally, Narad reached Vrindavan, where Gopikas were rejoicing in Krishna’s sweet memories. They greeted Narad. They were pained to learn from him that their beloved Kanha was not well! They instantly agreed to give Narad whatever he wanted. Narad cautioned them by telling what senior sages had told him, i.e. going to hell!

Gopis said we are not afraid of going to hell or doing anything for the well-being of their Krishna. They said no matter what happens to us; we cannot digest the idea of Kanha being in trouble! For Him, they were willing to stay permanently in hell; but praying to Him!

Narad took the mitti under their feet, asked them to mix it in water and crush it by their feet, and carried the ‘mud’ to Shrikrishna. Needless to say that Krishna got relief from his headache!

Similar stories may be there in all religions. God loves only true devotees. God will surely bless us when we offer our Namaskaar with this mindset!

Our patriots and martyrs treated our motherland as their God. They were willing to sacrifice anything and everything for her independence and progress. That is why they deserve our Namaskaars.

SOME INTERESTING FREE WINDOWS 10 APPS & DOWNLOADS

We have all been using Windows 10 for many years now. However, there are some hidden, little-known apps and some free third-party apps which can make our productivity soar in multiple ways. Here are a few of them which you can use in your day-to-day work life.

STICKY NOTES
We have all used Sticky Notes some time or other at the workplace. Windows 10 offers you digital Sticky Notes right on your desktop. Just press the Windows Key and type Sticky Notes and you will be presented with the Sticky Notes app. You may create as many Sticky Notes as you desire and paste them at your desired locations on your desktop. You can format the Sticky Notes, add pictures, create bulleted lists and assign some basic colours to your Sticky Notes based on your preferences and categorisation of each or a group of Notes.

If you are using a Microsoft Launcher on your Android phone, you will be able to sync the Notes to your phone automatically and effortlessly.

This is a very simple tool to boost your productivity and comes in-built with Windows 10. Try it and use it – it is free, right on your desktop.

NIGHT LIGHT SETTINGS
All computer monitors emanate light which hits our eyes all the time. Prolonged usage could tire our eyes. Besides, after sunset, the blue light emanating from the monitor could even affect our eyes adversely. Windows 10 allows us to change our display settings to reduce the strain on our eyes.

On any blank area of the desktop, right-click with your mouse and then select Display Settings. In the Find a Setting box on the top left, just type Night Light and select the item displayed for Night Light. The Night Light Settings will be displayed. Here, you can turn Night Light on or off manually. You may also select the strength or intensity of the light when the Night Light is on, based on your comfort level.

If you wish to automate the process, you could set the time when Night Light comes on and when it would be turned off. Further, if you switch on your location settings for Windows, the system will automatically turn it on at Sunset and turn it off at Sunrise.

Pretty cool and comfy!

EVERYTHING
This is a very simple and extremely fast utility which allows you to search all areas on your computer in a jiffy.

Very often, we just remember the name of the file, but just can’t remember where it is buried in the plethora of folders and multiple sub-folders on our hard disk. For all you know, it may be lying on the external drive of our computer or even on a data card, inserted into our computer. Sometimes, we may not even remember the file name accurately, but we may just remember that it is a document file or an image file.

Windows 10 provides native search across the entire ecosystem. But if you have ever tried it, it can be very tardy and time-consuming, especially if you have a large hard disk with multiple levels of folders.

This is where Everything steps in. Once you download and install it, just enter the name or part name of the file you are searching and you will be amazed at the speed of the results. You can even search for part of the file name or for a type of file in combination with its name. The Advanced Search option allows you to specify matching case, any or all words in the file name and much more.

From the list of files displayed, you may double-click any file to open it.

You can download Everything from https://www.voidtools.com/. Try it once, you will never use Windows Search ever again.

FILE-CONVERTER
There are loads of file converters available online. Zamzar.com is one of the popular options which allows you to convert files from one format to another. For using the online file converter, you must upload your file to their servers and then specify to which format you wish to convert the file. It takes a few seconds to perform the conversion and you can then download the file back to your computer when it is ready. Since this involves uploading your file to their server, many times users are worried about the privacy of their data.

Enter File-Converter – a very simple and light utility that will change the way you convert files on a day-to-day basis. Just head to https://file-converter.org and download and install the file converter. Don’t worry if you don’t see anything on your screen yet. Once installed, go to any folder and right-click on the file which you wish to convert. You will see the File-Converter option in your context menu. When you hover over it, you will be able to see the types of files to which you can convert your original file. For example, if you right-click on a pdf file, it will show you the option to convert it to a png file! Just click on your option and the conversion begins. It’s as simple as that. No need to upload any files or install any more programmes.

You also have the option to configure the pre-sets and set your choices, and the conversions are instant and free. You may choose to convert multiple files at once and either retain or delete the original files after conversion.

You may find some limitations in case of certain types of files or files which have very complex formatting, but for a major part of daily usage, this is a very sleek, swift and light utility.

So now, open up Windows and let your productivity soar by using these tips on a daily basis. Good luck!

ACCREDITED INVESTORS – A NEW AVENUE FOR RAISING FINANCE

SEBI has, at its Board meeting of 29th June, 2021, taken some baby steps to introduce and recognise a new category of investors – the Accredited Investors (‘AIs’) who are persons of high net worth / income. This has been followed up by amendments to the respective SEBI regulations on 3rd August, 2021. These changes should open up a new and wide channel of raising finance from informed and capable investors, particularly in areas where the present regulations are too restrictive.

This is not a new concept internationally. Many countries such as the USA, Canada, Singapore and even China have provisions for such a category of persons who are deemed to be well aware, if not sophisticated, and also having sufficient net worth so as to be able to bear losses in risky investments. Many rules are relaxed for such persons and issuers / intermediaries are able to issue complex, high risk / high return products to such persons at terms that are mutually agreed rather than statutorily prescribed. Thus, on the one hand, entities that cannot otherwise raise finance without crossing many hurdles can now raise finance more easily from such persons, on the other hand, such persons have wider avenues of investments to aim for higher returns at risks which they understand and can even manage.

In other words, AIs are expected to be sophisticated high net worth investors who do not need elaborate hand-holding by the regulator. They can evaluate complex, high risk / high return products / services and negotiate terms flexibly to protect their interests.

COMPLEX SEBI REGULATIONS AIMED AT THE NAÏVE AND UNSOPHISTICATED INVESTOR

SEBI’s regulations generally are models of micro-management. Having seen small investors repeatedly suffering in their investments, and perhaps also considering the reality of Indian markets, the rules in capital markets tend to bend towards elaborate controls. Parties generally cannot, even by mutual agreement, waive the many requirements of law enacted for the protection of investors.

A portfolio manager, for example, cannot accept a client with less than Rs. 50 lakhs of investment even if the client is well informed / capable. He also cannot invest more than 25% of the portfolio in unlisted securities under discretionary management, even if the client is agreeable to this. Similarly, Alternative Investment Funds have restrictions which cannot be avoided. Investment Advisers, too, face a very elaborate set of rules which govern almost every aspect of their business, including even the fees that they can charge. Thus, even if an informed client is willing to pay higher fees to get expert advice, the investment adviser is limited by the regulations.

The result of all this is that needy issuers are starved of funds and well-informed investors deprived of avenues with the potential of higher returns.

CONSULTATION PAPER ISSUED IN FEBRUARY, 2021

SEBI had initiated this process in February, 2021 by issuing a consultation paper proposing a framework for AIs and seeking public comments. This has now been finalised and amendments accordingly made to the regulations relating to Alternative Investment Funds, Portfolio Managers and Investment Advisers.

Who would be recognised as Accredited Investors?
As per the new framework, a person can obtain a certificate as an AI on the basis of net worth / assets or income, or a combination of the two. For example, an individual / HUF / family trust can be an AI if its annual income is at least Rs. 2 crores or net worth is at least Rs. 7.50 crores, with at least half of it in financial assets. Or it can be a combination of at least Rs. 1 crore annual income and net worth of Rs. 5 crores (with at least half in financial assets).

For other trusts, a net asset worth of at least Rs. 50 crores can qualify them as AIs. For corporates, too, a net worth of Rs. 50 crores is necessary. A partnership firm would be eligible if each partner is individually eligible. Similar parameters are provided for non-residents such as non-resident Indians, family trusts / other trusts, corporates, etc. Government departments, development agencies and Qualified Institutional Buyers, etc., would be AIs without any such minimum requirements.

Interestingly, a further category of AIs has been specified, viz., Large Value Accredited Investors. This would apply in case of Portfolio Managers and would be persons who have agreed to invest at least Rs. 10 crores.

A strange aspect is that, unlike some countries in the West, SEBI has not permitted educated / experienced investors to qualify as AIs. Indeed, having qualification or experience is not deemed to be even relevant! Thus, for example, Chartered Accountants or even CFAs, though trained to be well-versed with finance, cannot only by virtue of the fact of being qualified and competent, be recognised as AIs. They can act as advisers to AIs, but not be AIs themselves, unless they have the minimum size of assets / income.

Further, again unlike many western countries, merely having a minimum income / net worth is not enough. A formal certification as an AI is needed from certain bodies recognised for this purpose. A fee would have to be paid to them for grant of such a certificate. Curiously, although the details have not been notified, it appears from the Consultation Paper that the certificate is likely to be valid only for one year at a time and will have to be renewed annually.

The Consultation Paper had proposed yet another strange condition. Persons who desire to provide financial products / advice to AIs would not only need to obtain a copy of such a certificate from the AIs, but will also need to additionally approach the certifying agency and reconfirm with them. This would be a needless additional hurdle. Hopefully, the process may actually end up being simpler with such confirmation being quickly provided online on an automated basis after due verification by the certifying agency. However, it would be best that this requirement is not mandated when the further details are notified.

Nature of relaxations from regulations available for transactions with AIs
While ideally, an informed and capable investor should not face any hurdles in his decision-making power for making investments, even if the provisions are meant for protection, there will not be total relaxation. Instead, perhaps with the intention of testing the waters and going in gradually, SEBI has given partial relaxation from the regulations. In fact, the relaxations as proposed are few and far between. The minimum investment required, the terms on which contracts of providing services can be made, the fees that can be charged, the extent to which investments in unlisted securities can be made, etc., are some relaxations proposed.

The amendments are primarily made in the SEBI regulations governing Alternative Investment Funds, Portfolio Managers and Investment Advisers. The Consultation Paper / SEBI Board meeting has talked of amendments to other regulations, too, and it is possible that more changes may be made in the near future.

BENEFITS OF THE NEW CONCEPT
The new scheme can be expected to benefit intermediaries, investors and indeed the market. They would have more freedom to enter into arrangements and investments with risks and complexities that they are comfortable with. It should also result in availability of far more funds, from many more persons and by many more issuers. Today, many such investments simply cannot take place because of protective legal requirements. There would also be more flexibility for the parties involved. The amendments also create a sub-category of AIs called Large Value Accredited Investors, as also a separate category of fund called Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors. These would enable further flexibility to larger investors who expectedly can undertake more informed risks.

Can an AI opt out of the scheme either generally or on a case-to-case basis?
There are a few other concerns. Even if a person is an AI, he may not always want to waive the regulatory protection. He may have more than the prescribed size of net worth, etc. However, in certain cases, he may prefer not to invest as an AI. It seems that there is no bar on him from opting out.

However, care would have to be taken in the paperwork / agreements to ensure that there is no inadvertent waiver. It is common, however, that investors end up signing on the dotted line on long documents containing fine print. This is even more important considering that the benchmark for being an AI is only financial and not knowledge / qualifications.

An interesting issue would still remain as to whether, in case of disputes, his being an AI could be used against him and he be assumed to be an informed and sophisticated investor.
Whether SEBI would be available as arbiter in case of disputes / malpractices?

The intention clearly is that parties should be able to negotiate their own terms and formulate such structures, even if complex and high risk, as they are comfortable with. The regulations that otherwise provide for mandatory detailed terms would not apply. The question then would be what would be the role of SEBI in case of disputes between AIs and issuers / intermediaries? In particular, whether SEBI would still be available as arbiter in case of malpractices? Or will the parties have to approach civil courts which are expensive and time-consuming? One hopes that at least in case of frauds, manipulations, gross negligence and the like, recourse to SEBI would still be available as SEBI continues to be an expert and generally swift-footed regulator.

CONCLUSION


Despite some concerns, the amendments are still a major reform in the capital markets. Considering that the relaxations are generally partial, the level of complexity may actually increase. One can now only wait and see how the experience turns out to be over the years and how SEBI deals with the issues that would arise.
(You can also refer to the Article on Accredited Investors on Page 31 of BCAJ,  August, 2021) 

CRYPTOCURRENCIES: TRAPPED IN A LEGAL LABYRINTH (Part – 3)

Over the last two months, this Feature has examined the legal background surrounding cryptocurrencies and FEMA provisions in relation to Virtual Currencies (VCs). In this, the concluding part, we take up the tax issues pertaining to this exciting new asset class

LEGALITY STILL IN DOUBT
The legality of VCs in India continues to be a question mark. As recently as on 10th August, 2021, the Minister of State for Finance gave a written reply in the Rajya Sabha stating that the Government does not consider cryptocurrencies legal tender or coin and will take all measures to eliminate use of these crypto-assets in financing illegitimate activities or as part of the payment system. The Government will also explore the use of blockchain technology proactively for ushering in a digital economy. He added that a high-level Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) constituted under the Chairmanship of the Secretary (Economic Affairs) to study the issues related to VCs and propose specific actions to be taken, had recommended in its report that all private cryptocurrencies, except any cryptocurrency issued by the State, be prohibited in India. The Government would take a decision on the recommendations of the IMC and the legislative proposal, if any, would be introduced in the Parliament.

Coupled with this is the action taken by the Enforcement Directorate against a crypto exchange in India on the grounds of money-laundering. The accusation was that the exchange was facilitating some Chinese betting apps which converted their Indian earnings into VCs and then transferred the same to digital wallets based in the Cayman Islands.

In spite of the above regulatory heat, the popularity of VCs and crypto exchanges is growing by the day and a crypto exchange has now even entered the Unicorn club!

However, in the midst of the regulatory hullabaloo and the hype over VCs, one must not lose sight of the fact that at the end of the day tax must be paid on all earnings from VCs. The Income-tax Act is not concerned with the legality of a trade. In CIT vs. S.C. Kothari [1972] 4 SCC 402 it was observed that: ‘…If the business is illegal, neither the profits earned nor the losses incurred would be enforceable in law. But that does not take the profits out of the taxing statute.’

Again, in CIT vs. K. Thangamani [2009] 309 ITR 15 (Mad), the Madras High Court held that the income-tax authorities are not concerned about the manner or means of acquiring income. The income might have been earned illegally or by resorting to unlawful means. But any illegality associated with the earning has no bearing on its taxability. The assessee, having acquired income by unethical means or by resorting to acts forbidden by law, cannot be heard to say that the State cannot be a party to such sharing of ill-gotten wealth. Allowing such income to escape the tax net would be nothing but a premium or reward to a person for doing an illegal trade. In the event of taxing the income of only those who had acquired the same in a legal manner, the tendency of those who acquire income by illegal means would increase. It is not possible for the Income-tax authorities to act like the police to prevent the commission of unlawful acts, but it is possible for the tax machinery to tax such income.

The Finance Ministry in reply to a question raised in the Rajya Sabha has stated that irrespective of the nature of business, the extant statutory provisions on the scope of total income for taxation as per section 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 envisage that total income shall include all income from whatever source derived, the legality of income thus being of no consequence. The gains arising from the transfer of cryptocurrencies / assets is liable to tax under a head of income, depending upon the nature of holding of the same. It further stated that no data is maintained on cryptocurrency earnings of Indians as there is no provision in the Income-tax return to capture data on earnings arising from cryptocurrencies / assets.

Accordingly, irrespective of whether a crypto trade is legal or illegal, we need to examine its taxability. Let us briefly analyse the same. At the outset, it may be noted that since this is an evolving subject, there is no settled view and hence an attempt has been made to present all the possible views.

TAXABILITY OF TRADERS IN VCs
Whether a particular asset is a capital asset or a stock-in-trade has been one of the burning issues under the Income-tax Act. Section 2(14) defines the term ‘capital asset’ to mean property of any kind held by an assessee, whether or not connected with his business or profession, but it does not include any stock-in-trade. Hence, a stock-in-trade of any nature, whether securities, land or VCs, would be outside the purview of a capital asset.

People who trade in VCs, i.e., frequently buy and sell cryptos, are as much traders in VCs as a person dealing in shares and securities. The usual tests laid down to distinguish a trader from an investor would apply even in the case of VCs. Hence, tests such as intention at the time of purchase, frequency of trades, quantum, regularity, accounting treatment, amount of stock held on hand, whether purchase and sale take place in quick succession, whether borrowed funds have been used for the purchase, etc., are all relevant tests to help determine whether a person is a dealer / trader in VCs or an investor. The ratio laid down by the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Associated Industrial Development Company (P) Ltd. 82 ITR 586 (SC) in the context of securities would be equally relevant even in the case of VCs. The Court held that whether a particular holding is by way of investment or forms part of the stock-in-trade is a matter which is within the knowledge of the assessee who holds the asset and it should, in normal circumstances, be in a position to produce evidence from its records as to whether it has maintained any distinction between those shares which are its stock-in-trade and those which are held by way of investment.

The CBDT Circular No. 4/2007, dated 15th June, 2007 and Circular No. 6/2016 dated 29th February, 2016, issued in the context of taxability of gains on sale of securities would assist in determining the issue even for VCs.

If a person is a trader in VCs, then any gain made by him would be taxable as business income. The purchase price of the VCs would be allowed as a deduction even if the Government / RBI takes a stand that trading in VCs is illegal.

One school of thought also suggests that since there is no actual delivery involved in the case of VCs, transactions in VCs should be treated as a speculative transaction u/s 43(5). But it would be incorrect to say that delivery is not given in case of VCs because they are credited to a digital wallet. Delivery need not always be physical and could even be constructive or symbolic and should be seen in the context of the goods in question. However, this could become a litigious issue. For example, shares in dematerialised format are credited to a demat account and not physically delivered. Similarly, mutual fund units only appear in a statement.

Section 43(5) states that any commodity in which a contract for the purchase / sale is settled otherwise than by an actual delivery or transfer of the commodity, would be treated as a speculative transaction. The decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Internet and Mobile Association of India vs. Reserve Bank of India, WP(C) No. 528/2018, order dated 4th March, 2020 (SC) has held that it was not possible to accept the contention that VCs were just goods / commodities and could never be regarded as real money! Thus, while the Court has not come to a definite conclusion, the fact that VCs are commodities has been upheld by the Apex Court. In such a scenario, could the trading in VCs be treated as a speculative business? If so, then the losses from this business can only be set off against speculative gains u/s 73 of the Act, and the losses to the extent not set off can be carried forward only for four assessment years. Yet another school of thought suggests that the profits from trading in VCs should be taxed as Income from Other Sources.

TAXABILITY OF INVESTORS IN VCs
For investors in VCs, the gains would be taxable as capital gains. Depending upon whether the VC in question has been held for a period of more than or less than three years, the VCs would be treated as long-term capital assets or short-term capital assets. Long-term capital gains would be eligible for indexation and would be taxed @ 20% + surcharge + cess. Short-term capital gains, on the other hand, would be taxed as per the regular slab rate applicable to the investor. It must be pointed out that the special concessional tax rates of 10% with grandfathering of the cost for long-term gains in case of listed shares and 15% in the case of short-term gains on listed shares, do not apply to gains on VCs. Any long-term capital gain made on the sale of VCs can be saved by an Individual / HUF by reinvesting the net sale consideration in the purchase / construction of a new house property u/s 54F.

Receiving VCs as payment for goods / services
If a business receives payment for the goods / services sold by it in the form of VCs, then it would be treated as a barter exchange and the fair market value of the VCs received would be treated as the consideration received for the sale / supply. The cost of goods sold / services rendered would be deducted from this consideration and the gains would be taxable as business income.

Payment for mining
One buzzword associated with VCs is ‘mining’. A ‘VC miner’ is like the miner in the coal / gold / ore mine who, through his arduous labour, comes up with a prized catch. A Bitcoin miner is one who solves complex, cryptic math puzzles on the Bitcoin network and makes the network secure by validating the transactions which take place on it. While it is difficult to explain this concept, suffice it to say that miners help in improving the transaction network of VCs. And a miner receives payment in the form of VCs! Now how would this transaction be taxed is the question.

A good way to look at this would be that the miner is actually providing a service by carrying out the mining. Hence, the income from the same should be taxed as his business income. The cost of power, depreciation on IT equipment, maintenance, etc., would all be deductible expenses incurred to earn this income. The fair market value of the VCs received by the miner would be treated as the consideration for the service and the difference would be taxed as his business income. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is also considering levying GST on mining activities on the ground that these constitute a service. Alternatively, if it is not a business income, it may be taxed as Income from Other Sources.

A more aggressive view is that income from mining consists of capital gains arising from a self-generated asset. This could be used for amateurs who are into VC mining as opposed to miners who carry on the activity as an occupation. Here, applying the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in CIT vs. B.C. Srinivasa Shetty [1981] 128 ITR 294 (SC), a view is taken that since the cost of acquisition of such a self-generated capital asset cannot be determined and that since section 55(2) has not prescribed the cost of acquisition / improvement of the same to be Nil, the income cannot be taxed. It is likely that the Tax Department would contest this view.

Gift of VCs
What would be the tax treatment if a person gifts VCs to another person? A gift of specified property is taxable u/s 56(2)(x) in the hands of the recipient except in the exempt cases. However, the gift must be of property as defined in the Explanation to section 56(2)(x). Property is defined to mean any sum of money, immovable property, shares and securities, jewellery / bullion, art / sculptures and archaeological collections. The Government of India has constantly taken a stand (as explained above) that VCs are not money / legal currency in India. And that VCs are not shares and securities. Thus, VCs are not property as understood u/s 56(2)(x). Accordingly, it stands to reason that the provisions of section 56(2)(x) cannot apply in the hands of a donee who gets a gift of VCs.

Disclosure in Income-tax returns
Any individual / HUF who has annual total income exceeding Rs. 50 lakhs needs to file Schedule AL on Assets and Liabilities in his Income-tax return.

The assets required to be reported in this Schedule include immovable assets (land and building), financial assets, viz., bank deposits, shares and securities, insurance policies, loans and advances given, cash in hand, movable assets, viz., jewellery, bullion, vehicles, yachts, boats, aircraft, etc. Hence, it is an inclusive definition of the term assets. If a person owns VCs, it stands to reason that the same should also be included in the asset disclosures under Schedule AL. The cost price of the VC needs to be disclosed under this Schedule. For a resident who holds VCs credited to an overseas digital wallet / held with a foreign crypto exchange during the previous year, even if he has duly reported them in Schedule FA (foreign assets), he is required to report such foreign assets again in Schedule AL, if applicable.

However, for a non-resident or ‘resident but not ordinarily resident’, only the details of VCs located in India are to be mentioned. It would be interesting to note in the case of VCs how the situs of the asset would be determined.

Another Schedule to be considered is Schedule FA on foreign assets. A resident in India is required to furnish details of any foreign asset held by him in Schedule FA. This Schedule need not be filled up by a ‘not ordinarily resident’ or a ‘non-resident’. The details of all foreign assets or accounts in respect of which a resident is a beneficial owner, a beneficiary or the legal owner, is required to be mandatorily disclosed in the Schedule FA. Tables A1 to G of Schedule FA deal with the disclosures of various foreign assets and comprise of foreign depository accounts – foreign custodian accounts, foreign equity and debt interest, foreign cash value insurance contract or annuity contract, financial interest in any entity outside India, any immovable property outside India, any other capital assets outside India, any other account located outside India in which the resident is a signing authority, etc. The CBDT has not offered any guidance on how foreign VCs should be disclosed. However, in the absence of any clarity the same may be disclosed under either of the following two Tables of Schedule FA:

• Table D – Any other capital assets outside India
• Table E – Any other account located outside India in which the resident assessee is a signing authority (which is not reported in Tables A1 to D).

In Table D, the value of total investment at cost of any other capital asset held at any time during the accounting period and the nature and amount of income derived from the capital asset during the accounting period is required to be disclosed after converting the same into Indian currency. Further, the amount of income which is chargeable to tax in India, out of the foreign source income, should also be specified at column (9). The relevant Schedule of the ITR where income has been offered to tax should be mentioned at columns (10) and (11). The instructions state that for the purposes of disclosure in Table D, capital assets include any other financial asset which is not reported in Table B, but shall not include stock-in-trade and business assets which are included in the balance sheet. Hence, VCs held as stock-in-trade by traders would not be included in this Table.

In Table E, the value of peak balance or total investment at cost, in respect of the accounts in which the assessee has a signing authority, during the accounting period is required to be disclosed after converting the same into Indian currency. Only those foreign accounts which have not been reported in Table A1 to Table D of the Schedule should be reported in Table E.

One school of thought tends to suggest that in the absence of any specific guidance on disclosure under Schedule FA, VCs need not be disclosed. This would be playing with fire. The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) Act, 2015 levies a penalty of Rs. 10 lakhs for non- / improper disclosures in Schedule FA. Hence, it would be better to err on the safe side and disclose the foreign VCs held.

It should be remembered that even though there is a question mark under FEMA over whether the Liberalised Remittance Scheme can be used for buying foreign VCs, disclosures under Schedule FA should nevertheless be made. Income-tax disclosures and taxation are not dependent upon the permissibility or otherwise of a transaction!

CONCLUSION
The world of cryptocurrencies is of high reward but carries high regulatory risk. This is due to the fact that there are a lot of uncertainties and unknown factors coupled with the apparently hostile attitude of the RBI and the Government towards VCs. People transacting in them should do so with full knowledge of the underlying issues that could arise. The famous Latin maxim ‘Caveat Emptor’ or ‘Buyer Beware’ squarely applies to all transactions involving virtual currencies!

(Concluded)  

CURRENT VS. NON-CURRENT CLASSIFICATION WHEN LOAN IS RESCHEDULED OR REFINANCED

This article deals with current vs. non-current classification where a loan is refinanced or the loan repayment is rescheduled subsequent to the reporting date but before the financial statements are approved for issue.

 QUERY

Entity Ze has a five-year bank loan that was outstanding at 31st March, 20X1, the reporting date. At the reporting date, the loan had already completed a term of four years and six months. Therefore, at 31st March, 20X1, the loan was repayable before 30th September, 20X1. On 30th June, 20X1, Entity Ze approved the financial statements for issue. However, after 31st March, 20X1 but before 30th June, 20X1, it signed an agreement with the bank to refinance the loan for another five years. The entity did not have discretion to refinance the loan at the reporting date. It was agreed between the bank and the entity post-31st March, 20X1 but before the financial statements were approved for issue. Entity Ze wants to classify this as a non-current liability. Is that an acceptable position?
 

RESPONSE

No. This is not an acceptable position. At 31st March, 20X1, Entity Ze should present the loan as current liability instead of as non-current liability.

References of the Standard

The following paragraphs of Ind AS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements are relevant:

 

69 An entity shall classify a liability as current when:

(a) it expects to settle the liability in its normal operating cycle;

(b) it holds the liability primarily for the purpose of trading;

(c) the liability is due to be settled within twelve months after the reporting period; or

(d) it does not have an unconditional right to defer settlement of the liability for at least twelve months after the reporting period (see paragraph 73). Terms of a liability that could, at the option of the counter-party, result in its settlement by the issue of equity instruments do not affect its classification.

An entity shall classify all other liabilities as non-current.

 

72 An entity classifies its financial liabilities as current when they are due to be settled within twelve months after the reporting period, even if:

a. the original term was for a period longer than twelve months, and

b. an agreement to refinance, or to reschedule payments, on a long-term basis is completed after the reporting period and before the financial statements are approved for issue.
 

73 If an entity expects, and has the discretion, to refinance or roll over an obligation for at least twelve months after the reporting period under an existing loan facility, it classifies the obligation as non-current, even if it would otherwise be due within a shorter period. However, when refinancing or rolling over the obligation is not at the discretion of the entity (for example, there is no arrangement for refinancing), the entity does not consider the potential to refinance the obligation and classifies the obligation as current.

 

74 Where there is a breach of a material provision of a long-term loan arrangement on or before the end of the reporting period with the effect that the liability becomes payable on demand on the reporting date, the entity does not classify the liability as current, if the lender agreed, after the reporting period and before the approval of the financial statements for issue, not to demand payment as a consequence of the breach.

 

75 However, an entity classifies the liability as non-current if the lender agreed by the end of the reporting period to provide a period of grace ending at least twelve months after the reporting period, within which the entity can rectify the breach and during which the lender cannot demand immediate repayment.

ANALYSIS

Paragraph 69 contains provisions relating to when a financial liability is presented as current. Paragraph 74 contains more of an exception to paragraph 69.

 

Paragraphs 74 and 75 of Ind AS 1 contain provisions relating to curing of a breach of a material provision of a loan. As per paragraph 74, a loan is presented as non-current if a breach of a material provision relating to a loan is cured after the end of the reporting period, but before the financial statements are approved for issue, such that the loan is no longer current.

 

As per paragraph 75, if the lender provides a grace period ending at least twelve months after the reporting period, within which a breach can be rectified, the loan is treated as non-current.

 

The fact pattern that is being dealt with is not relating to the curing of a breach. It is related to extension of the loan term that is otherwise current at the reporting date. With regard to this fact pattern, it is paragraphs 72 and 73 that apply rather than paragraphs 74 and 75. As per paragraph 72, the entity classifies its financial liabilities as current when they are due to be settled within twelve months after the reporting period, even if the original term was for a period longer than twelve months, and an agreement to refinance the loan on a long-term basis is completed after the reporting period and before the financial statements are approved for issue. Paragraph 73 confirms that if an entity did not have the refinancing or rescheduling rights prior to the reporting date, any refinancing or rescheduling agreement on a long-term basis post the reporting date but before the financial statements are approved for issue, the loan would not qualify as a non-current liability at the reporting date.

CONCLUSION

On the basis of the above, at 31st March, 20X1, Entity Ze should present the loan as current liability instead of as non-current liability. Post the reporting period, and after the loan is rescheduled or refinanced on a long-term basis, Entity Ze would present them as non-current.  

Revision u/s 263 – Inquiry conducted by the A.O. – Inadequacy in conduct of inquiry – Revision bad in law

10 Principal Commissioner of Income Tax vs. M/s Brahma Centre Development Pvt. Ltd. [Income Tax Appeal No. 116 & 118 of 2021; Date of order: 5th July, 2021 (Delhi High Court)] [Arising from ITA Nos. 4341/Del/2019 and 4342/Del/2019; A.Ys.: 2012-2013 and 2013-2014]

Revision u/s 263 – Inquiry conducted by the A.O. – Inadequacy in conduct of inquiry – Revision bad in law

The PCIT vide his orders dated 28th March, 2019, interfered with the assessment orders dated 31st January, 2017 and 27th September, 2017 passed by the A.O. concerning the respondent / assessee pertaining to A.Ys. 2012-13 and 2013-14, respectively.

The PCIT had interfered with the original assessment orders because of a view held by him that interest earned by the assessee against fixed deposits was adjusted, i.e., deducted from the value of the inventory and not credited to the Profit & Loss account. The PCIT noted that the tax auditor, in the report filed in Form 3CD, had observed that interest earned on fixed deposits pertained to ‘other income’ and had not been credited to the P&L account. The interest earned on fixed deposits in A.Y. 2012-13 was Rs. 9,47,04,585, whereas in A.Y. 2013-14 it was Rs. 4,32,91,517.

Consequently, after the PCIT had issued two separate show cause notices to the assessee concerning the aforementioned A.Ys. dated 20th February, 2019 and had received replies against the same, he proceeded to pass two separate orders of even date, i.e., 28th March, 2019 concerning A.Ys. 2012-13 and 2013-14. The PCIT interfered with the orders of assessment on the ground that they had been passed without making any inquiries as to whether the interest earned by the assessee had any nexus with the real estate project the construction of which was undertaken by the assessee. Thus, according to the PCIT, the assessment orders were ‘erroneous’ insofar as they were prejudicial to the interests of the Revenue. In the appeals preferred before the Tribunal by the assessee, the view held by the PCIT was reversed. Thus, the Revenue approached the High Court by way of the instant appeals.

The High Court observed that it is not in dispute that the assessee was engaged, inter alia, in the business of promotion, construction and development of commercial projects. It is also not in dispute that the assessee had undertaken construction / development of a project allotted to it by the Haryana State Industrial and Infrastructure Development Corporation (‘HSIIDC’). It was observed that on 11th August, 2016, the Chartered Accountants of the assessee, i.e., BSR and Co. LLP, filed their response to certain queries raised by the A.O. at a hearing held before him on 9th August, 2016 concerning A.Y. 2013-14. One of the queries raised concerned the exclusion of interest received on fixed deposits from the category / head ‘income from other sources’. Likewise, in response to a notice dated 14th September, 2017 issued by the A.O. under sections 154 and 155 in respect of A.Y. 2012-13, a reply was submitted by the assessee on 12th October, 2017. In the notice dated 14th September, 2017, inter alia, it was brought to the attention of the assessee that audit scrutiny had, amongst others, raised objections regarding the interest earned on fixed deposits in A.Y. 2012-13 which was not credited to the P&L account and had been deducted from the value of inventory. The assessee had filed an appropriate reply.

The Court observed that having regard to the aforesaid documents, it cannot be said that the inquiry or verification was not carried out by the A.O. The Tribunal has recorded findings of fact concerning the inquiry made by the A.O.

The fact that the A.O. has not given reasons in the assessment order is not indicative, always, of whether or not he has applied his mind. Therefore, scrutiny of the record is necessary and while scrutinising the record the Court has to keep in mind the difference between lack of inquiry and perceived inadequacy in inquiry. Inadequacy in conduct of inquiry cannot be the reason based on which powers u/s 263 can be invoked to interdict an assessment order. If an Income-tax Officer acting in accordance with law makes a certain assessment, the same cannot be branded as erroneous by the Commissioner simply because, according to him, the order should have been written more elaborately.

The Income-tax Officer had made inquiries in regard to the nature of the expenditure incurred by the assessee. The assessee had given a detailed explanation in that regard by a letter in writing. All these are part of the record of the case. Evidently, the claim was allowed by the Income-tax Officer on being satisfied with the explanation of the assessee. Such decision of the Income-tax Officer cannot be held to be ‘erroneous’ simply because in his order he did not offer an elaborate discussion in that regard. The A.O., having received a response to his query about the adjustment of interest in the A.Y.s concerned, against inventory, concluded that there was a nexus between the receipt of funds from investors located abroad and the real estate project, which upon being invested generated interest. Thus, it cannot be said that the conclusion arrived at by the A.O., that such adjustment was permissible in law, was erroneous.

The Court observed that in the instant cases, it was not as if the funds were surplus and therefore invested in a fixed deposit. The funds were received for the real estate project and while awaiting their deployment, they were invested in a fixed deposit which generated interest.

Furthermore, the Court observed that it need not examine whether Clauses (a) and (b) of Explanation 2 appended to section 263 could have been applied to the A.Y.s in question since, on facts, it has been found by the Tribunal that an inquiry was, indeed, conducted by the A.O.

Thus, for the reasons stated, the Revenue appeals are dismissed.

Direct tax Vivad se Vishwas – Appellant – Communication of assessment order – Order must be served in accordance with section 282 of the Act – Time limit to file appeal had not expired as petitioner had not received the assessment order

9 Ashok G. Jhaveri vs. Union of India & Others [Writ petition No. 722 of 2021; Date of order: 28th July, 2021 (Bombay High Court)]

Direct tax Vivad se Vishwas – Appellant – Communication of assessment order – Order must be served in accordance with section 282 of the Act – Time limit to file appeal had not expired as petitioner had not received the assessment order

The petitioner had filed a return of income for A.Y. 2012-13 in March, 2013, declaring a total income of Rs. 7,02,170. The respondent issued a notice u/s 148 reopening the assessment for the said A.Y. 2012-13 in March, 2019.

According to the petitioner, he received a notice u/s 274 r/w/s 271 (1)(c) on 25th December, 2019 via e-mail and the said notice was also uploaded on his e-filing portal account. He had responded to the same through the e-filing portal on 23rd January, 2020, pointing out that he had not received the assessment order u/s 143(3) r/w/s 147, nor had the same been uploaded on the e-filing portal and therefore he was unable to reply to the show cause notice.

The petitioner had requested the respondent to send the assessment order to the address mentioned in his letter dated 29th January, 2020 filed on 3rd February, 2020. The petitioner was issued a letter by respondent No. 4, referring to the outstanding demand and directed to pay 20% of the outstanding demand amount. The petitioner once again, by an on-line response dated 8th February, 2020, communicated that the assessment order has not been received at his end; neither was the order uploaded on the e-filing portal nor was it served with the Notice of Demand u/s 156.

In the meantime, the Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 (‘DTVSV Act, 2020’) came into force under a Notification dated 17th March, 2020 to help settle matters in respect of disputed tax. The petitioner once again approached the respondents to issue the assessment order. He received the assessment order on 15th December, 2020 – which had been passed on 22nd December, 2019.

Now, u/s 2(1)(a)(ii) of the DTVSV Act, the term ‘appellant’ is defined as being an assessee in whose case the assessment order is passed by the A.O. and the time limit to file an appeal against such order has not expired on 31st January, 2020. The petitioner had opted for the DTVSV scheme by filing an application on 23rd December, 2020 in Forms 1 and 2 of the DTVSV Act and Rules thereunder. However, the status of the application filed by him under the DTVSV scheme showed that the application had been rejected for the reason that he had not filed any appeal against the order in respect of which he wished to avail benefit (an assessee has to file an appeal on or before 31st January, 2020) and since the appeal had not been filed, it did not fulfil the criteria prescribed under the DTVSV Act.

According to the petitioner, while the time limit to file appeal is 30 days from the date of communication of notice of demand u/s 249(2)(b), the benefit of the scheme under the DTVSV Act, 2020 would be available to him as the time limit to file an appeal had not expired because he had not received the assessment order despite repeated requests.

The respondents contended that the petitioner had been given an intimation letter through the e-proceedings on 22nd December, 2019 and, thus, it has to be presumed that the assessment order has been issued and served. It was submitted that the petitioner’s claim of non-receipt of assessment order through the on-line filing portal is difficult to be appreciated as there is no such grievance by any other assessee. Ordinarily, the assessment order is sent alongside. As such, non-receipt of assessment order through on-line filing portal is not probable; therefore, it cannot be said that the order was not issued to the assessee.

On verification, the respondents informed the Court that it does not appear that attachment of assessment order had accompanied the intimation.

In this context, the Court referred to section 282 which refers to service of notice. On perusal of the same, the Court observed that it is clear that the service of an order ought to have been made by delivering or transmitting a copy thereof in the manner contained in section 282, which admittedly had not been done until 15th December, 2020.

The Court observed that this was a peculiar case where the assessment order of 22nd December, 2019 had not been served upon the petitioner till he obtained a copy on 15th December, 2020 and as can be seen from the aforesaid discussion, the petitioner was handicapped from lodging an appeal before the specified date, i.e., 31st January, 2020 for no fault of his. In the circumstances, it would emerge that the petitioner would be able to avail benefit of the term ‘appellant’ under section 2(1)(a)(ii) of the DTVSV Act.

The Court also noted that in Circular No. 9 of 2020 dated 22nd April, 2020 in its reply to Question Nos. 1 and 23, it has been stated that where any order has been passed under the Act and the time limit to file an appeal has not expired on 31st January, 2020, then the assessee can very well opt for the said scheme. The purpose and object behind bringing in the DTVSV Act is to provide resolution of disputed tax matters and to put an end to litigation and unlock revenue detained under litigation.

The respondents were directed to consider the petitioner’s application in accordance with the provisions of the DTVSV Act and Rules. The petition was allowed.

Writ – Notice u/s 148 – Writ petition against notice – Court holding notice invalid – Directions could not be issued once reassessment held to be without jurisdiction

50 T. Stanes and Company Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT [2021] 435 ITR 539 (Mad) A.Ys.: 2010-11, 2011-12; Date of order: 9th October, 2020 Ss. 147, 148 of ITA, 1961; and Art. 226 of Constitution of India

Writ – Notice u/s 148 – Writ petition against notice – Court holding notice invalid – Directions could not be issued once reassessment held to be without jurisdiction

Writ petitions were filed by the assessee contending that the notices issued u/s 148 to reopen the assessment u/s 147 for the A.Ys. 2010-11 and 2011-12 were without jurisdiction being based on change of opinion. The single judge held that the reassessment was without jurisdiction but observed that the A.O. could proceed on other grounds.

The Division Bench of the Madras High Court allowed the appeals filed by the assessee and held as under:

‘The findings rendered by the single judge and his order to the extent of holding that the reassessment proceedings u/s 147 were without jurisdiction, were to be confirmed but his directions / observations were set aside. Having held that the reassessment proceedings were without jurisdiction, to make any further observation / direction was not sustainable.’

Special deduction u/s 80JJAA – Employment of new employees – Return of income – Delay in filing revised return claiming benefit u/s 80JJAA – Submission of audit report along with return – Substantive benefit cannot be denied on ground of procedural formality – Assessee entitled to benefit u/s 80JJAA

49 Craftsman Automation P. Ltd. vs. CIT [2021] 435 ITR 558 (Mad) A.Y.: 2004-05; Date of order: 6th February, 2020 Ss. 80JJAA, 139(5), 264 of ITA, 1961

Special deduction u/s 80JJAA – Employment of new employees – Return of income – Delay in filing revised return claiming benefit u/s 80JJAA – Submission of audit report along with return – Substantive benefit cannot be denied on ground of procedural formality – Assessee entitled to benefit u/s 80JJAA

The assessee was entitled to deduction u/s 80JJAA. For the A.Y. 2004-05, the assessee had not claimed deduction u/s 80JJAA in the return of income. The assessee filed a revised return making a claim for deduction u/s 80JJAA and claimed refund. The A.O. refused to act on the revised return.

The Commissioner rejected the revision application u/s 264 on the grounds that according to sub-section (2) of section 80JJAA, deduction could not be allowed unless the assessee furnished with the return of income the report of the accountant, as defined in the Explanation below sub-section (2) of section 288 giving such particulars, and that the revised return was filed beyond the period of limitation prescribed u/s 139(5). The assessee filed this writ petition and challenged the order u/s 264. The Madras High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

‘i) If an assessee is entitled to a benefit, a technical failure on the part of the assessee to claim the benefit in time should not come in the way of grant of the substantial benefit that was otherwise available under the Income-tax Act, 1961 but for such technical failure. The legislative intent is not to whittle down or deny benefits which are legitimately available to an assessee. The A.O. is duty-bound to extend substantive benefits which are available and arrive at just tax to be paid.

ii) The failure to file a return within the period u/s 139 for the purpose of claiming benefit of deduction u/s 80JJAA was a procedural formality. The assessee was entitled to benefit u/s 80JJAA.

iii) Denial of substantive benefit could not be justified. It was precisely for dealing with such situations that powers had been vested with superior officers like the Commissioner u/s 264. The Commissioner ought to have allowed the revision application filed by the assessee u/s 264 and the assessee was entitled to partial relief.

Accordingly, the order of the Commissioner was set aside and the Assistant Commissioner directed to pass appropriate orders on the merits ignoring the delay on the part of the assessee in filing the revised return u/s 139(5) and failure to furnish the audit report.’

GOVERNMENT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECTS

INTRODUCTION
Infrastructure development is one of the stated priorities of the Government. While it is primarily the responsibility of the Government to ensure speedy infrastructure development and provide access to such infrastructure to the citizens at minimal possible cost, over a period of time participation of the private sector has been solicited through the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.

For example, under the Build Operate & Transfer (BOT) model, the Government or its designated agencies and the successful bidder enter into an agreement termed as ‘Concession Agreement’ wherein the Government / its designated agency agree to grant a concession to private sector infrastructure companies who in legal parlance are known as ‘concessionaires’. The grant of such a concession permits the concessionaire to build the infrastructure (as may be agreed), operate it over a period of time and ultimately transfer it back to the Government. There is a nominal fee which is generally payable by the infrastructure company for such a right granted by the Government / its designated agency. This charging of fee by the Government / its designated agency indicates that the concessionaire is the service recipient in the current case and the Government / its designated agency assumes the role of a service provider.

Under this model, the revenue for the infrastructure company could be in different forms. The most common method of revenue generation for it is the grant of the right to collect usage charges. This right is granted to the infrastructure company for the contract period. The second model which is also very common is the annuity model wherein the Government / its designated agencies agree to make a fixed periodic payment to the concessionaire, while the collection of usage charges is done by the Government / designated agency themselves. There is also a third revenue model, commonly known as the hybrid annuity model, where collection of usage charges for a certain period is with the concessionaire and after that period the Government / designated agencies collect the usage charges themselves and pay a lump sum annuity to the concessionaire.

The above models of infrastructure development are in stark contrast with other traditional models in which the private sector contractor is expected to construct the infrastructure as a contractor and receives a pre-defined consideration.

Such different models result in diverse GST consequences both on the levy of tax on the development efforts as well as the claim of input tax credit (ITC). Further, the receipt of usage charges during the O&M period also has different GST consequences. This article deals with some of the GST issues arising in such infrastructure development projects.

GST IMPLICATIONS ON BOT PROJECTS

While analysing the GST implications on a Government project, the first step is to understand the nature of the project. Let us see this with the help of a standard project under the BOT model where the infrastructure company enters into a ‘concession agreement’ with the Government / designated agency. Generally, the agreements are worded in such a manner as to state that the Government / designated agency has agreed to ‘grant a concession’ to the concessionaire, i.e., the infrastructure company, for which the latter has to pay a nominal consideration (generally, Rs. 1). In such cases, it is apparent that it is the infrastructure company which receives the supply and the Government / designated agency which actually makes the supply. While the tax implications would be immaterial in view of the nominal consideration, the legal issues could be identified as under:

• Whether the supply by Government / designated agency would qualify as supply of goods or services?
While an intangible property is treated as goods, in view of the decision in the case of Tata Consultancy Services vs. State of AP [2004 (178) ELT 22 (SC)], it needs to satisfy the tests of utility, capability of being bought and sold and, lastly, capability of being transmitted, transferred, delivered, stored, possessed, etc. While undoubtedly in the current case the rights would have been granted to the concessionaire, such rights would be lacking the characteristics referred to in the TCS case. In such a situation, it would be more appropriate to treat the rights granted as service rather than goods.

• If supply of services, whether the recipient would be liable to pay GST under RCM?
Once it is concluded that the supply is that of service and the service provider is the Government / designated agency, the provisions of reverse charge would get triggered and there would be a liability to pay GST under reverse charge mechanism. Of course, the recipient can claim exemption if the value of service does not exceed Rs. 5,000 as provided for vide Entry 9 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

GST implications on core revenue
Let us now discuss the GST implications on the core revenue, i.e., usage charges collected by the concessionaire. Under the BOT model, there are different ways in which the concessionaire receives the said revenue, namely:
• Standard Model – Collection of usage charges,
• Annuity Model – Periodic payment from the Government / designated agencies,
• Hybrid Model – Collection of usage charges plus periodic annuity payment from the Government / designated agencies.

The tax implication on the first model is very simple as one merely needs to analyse the tax implications on the collection charges, which may vary depending on the nature of the collection charges. For example,
• collection of usage charges in respect of access to road is exempted by Entry 23 of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate);
• services provided by way of transportation of passengers through rail (other than first class / an air-conditioned coach), including metro rails, is exempted vide Entry 17;
• services provided by way of transportation of passengers through rail by way of first class / an air-conditioned coach is liable to GST @ 5%;
• services of transportation of goods by rail is liable to GST @ 12% except in case where Indian Railways itself undertakes the transportation, in which case the same is liable to GST @ 5%;
• in case of ports (air / sea), there is no exemption and therefore charges collected from such users are liable to GST @ 18%.

The controversy revolves around the annuity model for roads. An annuity is a periodic payment made by the Government / designated agency to the concessionaire. Under this model, the collection of toll / usage charges is undertaken by the Government / designated agency and the concessionaire has no role to play in the same. There is a controversy around taxability of such annuity payments. This is because in case of such agreements the transaction structure takes a shift and even the concessionaire becomes a service provider, to the extent that he has constructed the infrastructure for which he has received the annuity payments from the Government / designated agencies. In that context, the annuity payments become liable to GST @ 12%. This has also been clarified by the recent CBIC Circular 150/06/2021-GST dated 7th June, 2021 wherein the Board has clarified that the said exemption will not apply to annuity paid for construction of roads. However, the said Circular apparently makes Entry 23A of Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate) which exempts service by way of access to a road or a bridge on payment of annuity, irrelevant. The said exemption Entry was introduced after discussions at the GST Council meeting held on 13th October, 2017 which read as under:

‘Agenda item 13(iv): Issue of Annuity being given in Place of Toll Charges to Developers of Public Infrastructure – exemption thereon
61. Introducing this Agenda item, the Joint Secretary (TRU-II), C.B.E. & C. stated that while toll is a payment made by the users of road to concessionaires for usage of roads, annuity is an amount paid by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) to concessionaires for construction of roads in order that the concessionaire did not charge toll for access to a road or a bridge. In other words, annuity is a consideration for the service provided by concessionaires to NHAI. He stated that construction of roads was now subject to tax at the rate of 12% and due to this, there was free flow of input tax credit from EPC (Engineering, Procurement and Construction) contractor to the concessionaires and thereafter to NHAI. He stated that as a result, tax at the rate of 12% leviable on the service of road construction provided by concessionaire to NHAI would be paid partly from the input tax credit available with them. He stated that the Council may take a view for grant of exemption to annuity paid by NHAI / State Highways Construction Authority to concessionaires during construction of roads. He added that access to a road or bridge on payment of toll was already exempt from tax. The Hon’ble Minister from Haryana suggested to also cover under this provision annuity paid by State-owned Corporations. After discussion, the Council decided to treat annuity at par with toll and to exempt from tax, service by way of access to a road or bridge on payment of annuity.’

Interestingly, before the above clarification from the CBIC, the issue was dealt with by the AAAR in the case of Nagaur Mukundgarh Highways Private Limited [2019 (23) GSTL 214 (AAAR-GST)]. In this case, the AAAR held that annuity paid during the construction phase would be liable to GST under SAC 9954, while annuity paid during the O&M phase would be exempted under SAC 9967. However, the said ruling seems to be on a weak footing mainly because there is nothing in the concession agreements which states that the annuity paid post completion of work is towards the O&M phase only and not towards the construction activity. Therefore, appropriating annuity paid during the O&M phase towards the toll charges seems to be improper.

A proper clarification on this issue would certainly be forthcoming since the amounts mentioned in such contracts are generally inclusive of GST and if ultimately it is held that GST is indeed payable on the annuity component, the entire financials for the project would be impacted since it would have a 12% GST impact, of course with corresponding benefit. But it should be kept in mind that in case of long-term projects, if a position has been initially taken that the annuity was not liable for GST, corresponding ITC would not have been taken and the same would now be time-barred. Therefore, the GST credit may be available only prospectively and the benefit may not be substantial to that effect.

INPUT TAX CREDIT IMPLICATIONS
This now takes us to the next aspect of ITC. To understand the ITC-related implications, it may be important to put down the chronology of events:
• The concessionaire receives services from the Government / designated agency;
• The concessionaire undertakes the development of infrastructure activity, which entails paying GST on various inward supplies;
• The revenue is earned by collecting usage charges from the users.

It is imperative to note that in most of the cases, the infrastructure so developed is an immovable property, such as roads, airports, seaports, metro rail, etc. Therefore, the issue remains whether ITC can at all be claimed in view of section 17(5)(c)/(d) of the CGST Act, 2017 which restricts claim of ITC on account of goods or services (including works contract services) received for construction of an immovable property on own account. Of course, the said restriction applies only if the cost incurred towards the same is capitalised in the books of accounts.

This opens up an important dimension from the accounting perspective. It should be noted that the concessionaire is not the owner of the infrastructure project and therefore the amounts are not capitalised in the books of accounts as Fixed Assets, but rather treated as intangible asset / Financial Asset, which is amortised over a period of time as per the guidelines laid down by the relevant Ind AS. If one takes an aggressive view, the restriction u/s 17(5) may be circumvented and make such concessionaire eligible for ITC.

Secondly, in the case of Safari Retreats Private Limited vs. CC of GST [2019 (25) GSTL 341 (Ori)], the provisions of section 17(5)(d) have been ultra vires the provisions of the object of the Act and it has been held that ITC should be allowed on receipt of goods or services used in the construction of an immovable property which is used for providing an output service. However, it needs to be kept in mind that the Revenue appeal against this order is currently pending before the Supreme Court.

The above discussion would be relevant only in case of projects for airport / seaport where the usage charges to be collected from the users are taxable. However, in case of road projects / metro rail projects there is an exemption from tax on collection of charges and, therefore, even otherwise the claim of credit would be hit by section 17(2) of the CGST Act, 2017 and therefore ITC may not be eligible.

GST IMPLICATIONS ON OTHER GOVERNMENT PROJECTS
In case of projects not under the PPP model, where the contract is given to the infrastructure company for a fixed consideration, the GST implications would be of a different level. This is because Entry 3 of Notification No. 11/2017-CT (Rate) prescribes a lower effective GST rate of 5% / 12% on specific services. However, the said concession is subject to satisfaction of conditions such as:

To whom have the services been supplied?
The entries require that the service should be provided either to the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, Local Authority, Government Authority or Government Entity.

What constitutes Government Authority / Government Entity has been defined in the Notification itself as under:

Government
Authority

Government
Entity

[(ix) ‘Governmental Authority’ means an
authority or a board or any other body, –

 

(i) set up by an Act of Parliament or a
State Legislature; or

 

(ii) established by any Government,

 

with 90% or more participation by way of
equity or control, to carry out any function entrusted to a Municipality
under Article 243W of the Constitution or to a Panchayat under Article 243G
of the Constitution

(x) ‘Government Entity’ means an authority
or a board or any other body including a society, trust, corporation,

 

(i) set up by an Act of Parliament or State
Legislature; or

 

(ii) established by any Government,

 

with 90% or more participation by way of
equity or control, to carry out a function entrusted by the Central
Government, State Government, Union Territory or a Local Authority.]

From the above, it is apparent that the only distinction between Government Authority and Government Entity is that the former carries out functions entrusted to any Municipality under Article 243W or a Panchayat under Article 243G, while the later carries out any function entrusted to it by the Government.

Nature of service
The next aspect that needs to be looked into is the nature of supply being made. Clauses (iii) and (vi) provide that composite supply of works contract supplied to Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, a Local Authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity by way of construction, erection, commissioning, installation, completion, fitting out, repair, maintenance, renovation, or alteration of, should be considered as eligible for the lower tax rate.

The above highlighted portion is relevant. It requires that the supply should be a composite supply of works contract. This indicates that the supply has to be in relation to an immovable property, owing to the fact that the definition of the term ‘works contract’ applies specifically to immovable property under GST. This aspect was recently dealt with by the AAR in the case of Nexustar Lighting Project Private Limited [2021 (47) GSTL 272] wherein the Authority held that a contract for installation of streetlights did not qualify as a works contract and therefore benefit of lower tax rate was not available.

Service in relation to
The next aspect that needs analysis is whether or not the services are provided in relation to the following:

Under Entry 3 (iii)
(a) a historical monument, archaeological site or remains of national importance, archaeological excavation, or antiquity specified under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 (24 of 1958);
(b) canal, dam or other irrigation works;
(c) pipeline, conduit or plant for (i) water supply, (ii) water treatment, or (iii) sewerage treatment or disposal.

Under Entry 3 (vi)
(a) a civil structure or any other original works meant predominantly for use other than for commerce, industry, or any other business or profession;
(b) a structure meant predominantly for use as (i) an educational, (ii) a clinical, or (iii) an art or cultural establishment; or
(c) a residential complex predominantly meant for self-use or the use of their employees or other persons specified in paragraph 3 of the Schedule-III of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
[Explanation. – For the purposes of this item, the term ‘business’ shall not include any activity or transaction undertaken by the Central Government, a State Government or any Local Authority in which they are engaged as public authorities.]

Under Entry 3 (vii):
Composite supply of works contract involving predominantly earth work, that is constituting 75% of the value of works contract.

Care should be taken specifically while dealing with Entry 3 (vi)(a) where the interpretation of the phrase ‘for use other than for commerce, industry, or any other business or profession’ has created substantial confusion. For example, in the context of works contract services provided in relation to electricity generation plants, the AAR has on multiple occasions held that the activities carried out by electricity generating / distribution companies cannot be treated as ‘for use other than for commerce, industry, or any other business or profession’. One may refer to the recent decisions of the AAAR in the cases of R.S. Development & Constructions Private Limited [2021 (48) GSTL 162 (AAAR – Kar)], Manipal Energy & Infratech Private Limited [2020 (40) GSLT 237 (AAAR – Kar)], etc.

Entry (vii) provides for levy of GST @ 5%. However, the condition is that the service involved should be a composite supply of works contract involving predominantly earth work that is constituting 75% of the value of the works contract. While the term ‘earth work’ has not been defined under the GST law, the same was analysed by the AAAR in the case of Soma Mohite Joint Venture [2020 (041) GSTL 0667 (AAAR – GST – Mah)] wherein the Appellate Authority held that earth work includes both excavation and fortification. Therefore, so long as earth work constitutes more than 75% of the value of a works contract, the benefit of a lower tax rate should be available. However, for such benefit care should be taken to ensure that the contract specifically mentions the consideration for such activity separately. If the break-up is not available, the benefit of the lower rate may be denied.

Common condition
A common condition for Entries (iii) and (vi) when the services are provided to a Government Entity is that the said Government Entity should have procured the said services in relation to a work entrusted to it by the Central Government, State Government, Union Territory or Local Authority, as the case may be.

In Shri Hari Engineers & Contractors [2020 (38) GSTL 396 (AAR – GST – Guj)], the AAR had denied the benefit of lower tax rate for the reason that the Railtel Corporation of India Limited, which had issued the contract, was not entrusted to carry out the said activity by the Central Government / State Government / Union Territory or Local Authority.

Therefore, while concluding classification under Entry 3 (iii) or Entry 3 (vi), fulfilment of this condition should be looked into and documentary evidence to support the same should be obtained.

Extension of benefit to sub-contractors
Vide Entries 3 (ix) and 3 (x), the benefit of lower tax rate is also extended to sub-contractors who make composite supply of works contract to the main contractor. However, it is imperative to note that this benefit applies only for works contract services and not stand-alone services and the same would be liable to GST @ 18%.

Exemption
In addition to lower effective tax rate, certain services supplied to Government have been exempted vide Notification No. 12/2017-CT (Rate). The same is tabulated in the following Table:

Entry

Nature
of supply

Supply
relating to

Service
provided to

3

Pure services (excluding works contract
services or other composite supplies involving supply of any goods)

Any activity in relation to a function
entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G / to a Municipality under
Article 243W of the Constitution

Central Government, State Government, Union
Territory, Local Authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity

3A

Composite supply of goods or services
(goods not being more than 25% of the value of the composite supply)

Any activity in relation to a function
entrusted to a Panchayat under Article 243G / to a Municipality under
Article 243W of the Constitution

Central Government, State Government, Union
Territory, Local Authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity

What constitutes ‘pure services’ has not been defined under GST. However, by nomenclature, it seems that supply which does not have any element of supply of goods involved in it would be treated as pure service, for example, consultancy service. This view finds support from the decision of the AAR in the case of R.R. Enterprises [2021 (47) GSTL 309 (AAR – GST – Har)] wherein the Authority held that since only manpower supply services were to be provided by the applicant and since no supply of goods is involved, such services qualify as pure services.

The important aspect which needs to be looked into while dealing with exemption entries is that the services provided should be in relation to a function which has been entrusted to a Municipality under Article 243W or Panchayat under Article 243G. However, the service need not be provided directly to the Municipality or Panchayat. It may be provided to the Central Government / State Government / Government Authority / Government Entity.

The only caveat is that the service should be provided in relation to an activity specified in Article 243W / Article 243G. Whether a particular activity is covered under Article 243G / 243W or not has been dealt with by the AAR on multiple occasions.

In the case of Lokenath Builders [2021 (46) GSTL 205 (AAR – GST – WB)], it was held that waste disposal services by engaging garbage-lifting vehicles and other cleaning equipment without any supply of goods would be a pure service and an activity covered under Entry 6 of the 12th Schedule and therefore eligible for exemption.

In MSV International Inc. [2021 (49) GSTL 171 (AAR – GST – Har)], while the Authority held that the services provided in relation to construction of State / district highways was a pure service, the same would still not be eligible for exemption benefit since the construction of State / district highways was not an activity entrusted to a Municipality under Article 243W / Panchayat under Article 243G of the Constitution.

Similarly, the exemption benefit was denied by the AAR for services provided to National Institute of Technology, an institute of higher education, which was not covered under Article 243W / 243G of the Constitution. (Refer National Institute of Technology [2021 (47) GSTL 314 (AAR – GST – Har)].

In Janaki Suhshikshit Berojgar Nagrik Seva Sansthan Amravati [2021 (46) GSTL 277 (AAR – GST – MH)], the AAR denied the benefit of exemption to service of supply of manpower to Government Medical College. The conclusion of the Authority was that supply of manpower was not covered under either the 11th or the 12th Schedule.

In the view of the authors, the above ruling does not represent the correct position of law. Entry 6 of the 12th Schedule, public health, is the responsibility of the Municipality and therefore it is bound to make necessary arrangements to deliver the same to the citizens. Any service provided by a vendor towards the said activity can therefore be said to be in relation to a function entrusted to the Municipality under Article 243W of the Constitution and therefore eligible for exemption.

There are some other examples of service which can also be eligible for the exemption, such as:
• advertisements placed in the newspapers creating awareness by the Municipal Corporation would be eligible for exemption since activities in relation to public health awareness are among the activities entrusted to the Municipality under Article 243W;
• services provided in relation to collection of parking charges on behalf of the Municipality are covered under Entry 17 of the 12th Schedule of the Constitution and therefore should be eligible for exemption.

The above discussion clearly brings out the need to analyse the tax position of any project at the tendering stage itself. This is because in case of Government projects usually the contract value is treated as inclusive of GST and the contractor has to bill accordingly. If during the tendering process the company bids assuming eligibility for exemption / lower GST rate and ultimately it turns out that the supply was taxable at the normal rate, the implications would be catastrophic.

ARBITRATION CLAIMS
An important part of Government projects (which is also present in private transactions) are the arbitration clauses in the agreements. At times, due to contractual disputes, the parties to a contract may opt for arbitration and reconciliation and there can be flow of money (both ways) depending on the outcome of the project.

While determining taxability of arbitration claims, a detailed reading of the arbitration award is very relevant. For example, in the case of BOT arrangements discussed above, there is a clause for payment of grant to the concessionaire. If there is a delay in payment of grants, the concessionaire may seek compensation and can go for arbitration on the said issue. If the arbitration award is on account of such a dispute, it may not be taxable since the grant itself was not taxable in the first place.

However, if the arbitration award is for a contractual dispute, for example, the contractor lodges a claim of Rs. 2 crores on the client for work done, while the client approves the claim only to the extent of Rs. 1.75 crores – in such cases, the contractor has an option to resort to arbitration for the disputed amount and if the arbitration is in his favour, he would be entitled to receive the differential amount along with costs as may be granted by the arbitration award. In such a case, a more appropriate position would be to say that the differential amount received is towards a supply and therefore liable to GST.

Arbitration claims – rollover from pre-GST regime
In the case of arbitration awards, it has to be kept in mind that the outcome period of the dispute under arbitration is very long. It is possible that arbitration claims for work done during the pre-GST regime get concluded under the GST regime. This will lead to substantial challenges for the contractors for the following reasons, especially in cases where the dispute is on account of quantification of work done:
• Under the pre-GST regime, services to Government were exempted or were taxable at a substantially lower rate (post abatement). Similarly, even under the VAT regime, the applicable tax rate for works contract was on the lower side, say 5% / 8%.
• The work for the said service would have been completed under the pre-GST regime. However, it is seen that the tax on the said amount is not discharged as the claim is not approved by the client and it has been an industry practice to pay tax on such amounts only when the matter reaches finality.
• The issue that arises is whether the tax on such arbitration awards would be payable under the pre-GST laws, i.e., VAT / Service tax, or as per the provisions of the CGST / SGST Acts? The answer to this question would be relevant since under the pre-GST regime the effective tax rate would have been lower as compared to the effective GST rate which is 12% for supplies to Government.

To deal with the above situation, let us refer to section 142(11) of the CGST Act, 2017 which provides that to the extent tax was leviable under the erstwhile VAT Acts or under Chapter V of the Finance Act, 1994, no tax would be leviable under the CGST Act, 2017. It is imperative to note that in case of such roll-over arbitration disputes, the work is already completed before the claim is lodged. It is mere quantification of the work which takes place upon resolution of the dispute and, therefore, it can be said that the tax was actually leviable under the VAT Acts / Finance Act, 1994 itself when the activity was actually carried out and hence a view can be taken that no GST is leviable on such arbitration awards.

Arbitration claims – in the nature of liquidated damages
The next point of discussion would be arbitration claims where the award is in the nature of liquidated damages. Liquidated damages are dealt with under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 within sections 73 and 74. Section 73 states that ‘when a contract has been broken, the aggrieved party is entitled to get compensation or any loss or damages which has been inflicted to him / her naturally during the usual course of breach of contract or about which the parties to the contract had prior knowledge when they entered the contract.’

Similarly, section 74 states that ‘when a contract has been broken, and if a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid for such breach, or if the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the party complaining of the breach is entitled, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby, to receive from the party who has broken the contract reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or, as the case may be, the penalty stipulated for’.

Therefore, when an arbitration award is on account of breach of contractual terms, which results in grant of damages to either party, the same would not constitute consideration under the Contract Law and therefore there cannot be any liability towards GST on the same.

TDS DEDUCTION & ASSOCIATED CHALLENGES
Section 51 of the CGST Act, 2017 obligates Government / designated agencies to deduct TDS on payments made for taxable supply of goods or services, or both, received by them.

Unfortunately, as a universal rule TDS is deducted on all payments, including on grants, arbitration awards, etc., without actually analysing whether or not the said payment is towards receipt of taxable supply of goods or services, or both. This results in difficulty for the concessionaire / contractor. This is because if they would have taken a position that they have not made any supply / the supply made by them is exempt, the TDS provisions would not have got triggered. If in such cases also TDS is deducted and if they accept the same, it is likely that the Department may challenge their claim stating that their clients themselves treat the supply as taxable supply, leaving such concessionaires / contractors in a Catch-22 situation.

Of late, it has also been seen that the tax authorities have been issuing notices based on mismatch between the credits reported in GSTR7 by the tax deductors vis-a-vis the liability reported by the contractors. It is imperative to note that there will generally be a time gap between disclosure of liability by the supplier and deduction of tax by the deductor. This is because the supplier would pay the tax when he issues the invoice to the deductor-client. However, such invoice goes through the approval
process which generally consumes time and before the invoice is accounted by the deductor-client and TDS is deducted.

It is therefore advisable that before any TDS credit is claimed, the same be reconciled with the month in which the corresponding liability was discharged and, preferably, if the client has deducted TDS in advance (on provisional basis), such credit should be kept deferred and claimed only when the actual invoice is issued by the contractor and the corresponding liability discharged.

CONCLUSION
The general perception in the industry is that doing business with the Government is a profitable venture. But there are many complications and confusions which make such businesses quite risky. It is always advisable for taxpayers to be very careful while taking a position on a transaction with Government as the tax would generally have to be paid out of one’s own pocket, thus having a severe impact on the overall profitability of the venture.

Recovery of tax – Set-off of refund – Stay of demand – Pending appeal against assessment order for A.Y. 2013-14 – Set-off of demand of A.Y. 2013-14 against refund of A.Ys. 2014-15 to 2016-17 – Effect of circulars, instructions and guidelines issued by CBDT – Excess amount recovered over and above according to such circulars, instructions and guidelines to be refunded with interest – A.O. restrained from recovering balance tax due till disposal of pending appeal

48 Vrinda Sharad Bal vs. ITO [2021] 435 ITR 129 (Bom) A.Ys.: 2012-13 to 2019-20; Date of order: 25th March, 2021 Ss. 220(6), 237, 244A, 245 of ITA, 1961

Recovery of tax – Set-off of refund – Stay of demand – Pending appeal against assessment order for A.Y. 2013-14 – Set-off of demand of A.Y. 2013-14 against refund of A.Ys. 2014-15 to 2016-17 – Effect of circulars, instructions and guidelines issued by CBDT – Excess amount recovered over and above according to such circulars, instructions and guidelines to be refunded with interest – A.O. restrained from recovering balance tax due till disposal of pending appeal

The assessee was a developer. For the A.Y. 2013-14, a demand notice was issued, that during the pendency of his appeal against the assessment order an amount of Rs. 1,38,34,925 was collected by the Department adjusting the refunds pertaining to the A.Ys. 2014-15, 2015-16 and 2016-17. On an application for stay of recovery of demand, the A.O. passed an order of stay for the recovery of balance of tax due for the A.Y. 2013-14, reserving the right to adjust the refund that arose against the demand.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the assessee and held as under:

‘i) The Centralised Processing of Return of Income Scheme, 2011 was introduced under Notification dated 4th January, 2012 ([2012] 340 ITR (St.) 45] in exercise of the powers u/s 143(1A) with a view to process a return of income expeditiously. Clause 10 of the scheme states that set-off of refund arising from the processing of return against tax remaining payable will be done by using details of the outstanding demand as uploaded on to the system by the A.O. Sub-section 143(1B) provides that for the purpose of giving effect to the scheme made under sub-section (1A), a notification with respect to application or non-application of any provisions relating to processing of the return may be issued. Having regard to the context of sections 143(1A) and 143(1B), it does not appear that clause 10 under the scheme is intended to be read out of the context isolatedly (sic). The scheme pursuant to section 143(1A) will have to be taken into account along with the other provisions of the Act and would take within its fold instructions issued by the CBDT from time to time. It does not appear that the clause is in derogation of operation of the provisions and instructions or would render the provisions and the instructions insignificant and redundant. Clause 10 will have to be read in the context of the provisions in the Act governing refund and orders, circulars, instructions issued from time to time.

ii) Set-off of refund under the clause is to be done by using details of the Income-tax demand against the person uploaded on to the system. The exercise of power to have set-off or adjustment of refund is regulated by legislative provisions and instructions. The details referred to in the clause would have to correspond to the provisions and instructions operating. Function under the clause would be circumscribed by them and it would be incongruous to consider that uploading referred to in clause 10 would mean all refunds arising are liable to be adjusted against the tax demands irrespective of orders thereon by the authorities and / or subsisting instructions and the provisions applicable.

iii) The amount recovered from the assessee over and above the amount as per instructions, memoranda, circulars towards demand of tax for the A.Y. 2013-14 pending in appeal would be returned to the assessee with interest and the refund of amounts over and above the amount as per circulars, instructions and guidelines issued by the CBDT may not be adjusted towards tax demand for the A.Y. 2013-14 till disposal of the appeal. Having regard to the instructions, circulars and memoranda issued from time to time, which were not disputed by the Department, it would be expedient that the A.O. refrained from recovering tax dues demanded for the A.Y. 2013-14 and a restraint was called for.’

Penalty – Concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars – Method of accounting – Claim of deduction in return filed in response to notice u/s 153A in accordance with change in accounting method and prevailing law – New claim made because of change in accounting policy – Not a case of concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars – Findings of fact – Tribunal justified in upholding order of Commissioner (Appeals) that penalty was not imposable

47 Principal CIT vs. Taneja Developers and Infrastructure Ltd. [2021] 435 ITR 122 (Del) A.Y.: 2007-08; Date of order: 24th March, 2021 Ss. 132, 145, 153A, 271(1)(c) of ITA, 1961

Penalty – Concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars – Method of accounting – Claim of deduction in return filed in response to notice u/s 153A in accordance with change in accounting method and prevailing law – New claim made because of change in accounting policy – Not a case of concealment of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars – Findings of fact – Tribunal justified in upholding order of Commissioner (Appeals) that penalty was not imposable

The search in the TP group led to the proceedings u/s 153A against the assessee for the A.Y. 2007-08. The assessee filed a fresh return in which a cumulative expenditure comprising interest paid on borrowings, brokerage and other expenses was claimed on an accrual basis. The A.O. found that such expenses were not claimed in the original return filed by the assessee u/s 139 and disallowed the claim in his order u/s 153A / 143(3). The Commissioner (Appeals) sustained the addition made by the A.O. Thereafter, the A.O. initiated penalty proceedings and levied penalty u/s 271(1)(c). Before the Tribunal, the assessee gave up its challenge to the disallowance of its claimed expenses by the A.O. and accordingly, the disallowance of the expenses ordered by the A.O. and sustained by the Commissioner (Appeals) remained.

The Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the penalty order passed by the A.O. The Tribunal held that the assessee had made a fresh claim in its return filed u/s 153A of the proportionate expenditure, which was originally claimed, partly in the original return and the balance in the return u/s 153A, that such balance was already shown in the project expenditure for that year at the close of the year which was carried forward in the next year as opening project work-in-progress, that therefore, in the subsequent year it was also claimed as expenditure and that there was no infirmity in the order of the A.O. with respect to that finding. However, the Tribunal rejected the Department’s appeal with respect to the levy of penalty.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

‘i) Where the basic facts were disclosed or where a new claim was made because of a change in the accounting policy, albeit in a fresh return, and given up because the law, as declared, did not permit such a claim, in such circumstances initiation of penalty proceedings u/s 271(1)(c) against the assessee was not mandated in law. The assessee had brought about a change in the accounting policy vis-a-vis borrowings, brokerage and other expenses in line with Accounting Standard 7 which permitted the assessee to make a new claim for deduction of such expenses, on an accrual basis, in the A.Y. 2007-08. However, the assessee had, in its original return, claimed deduction of a portion of such expenses based on an accounting policy (i. e., a percentage of completion method) which was prevalent at that point in time. Those facts were in the knowledge of the Department and such expenses which were sought to be claimed, on an accrual basis, constituted a fresh claim which was embedded in the fresh return filed u/s 153A.

ii) In the quantum appeal, the assessee had given up its claim of the expenses, for the reason that it was a new claim which was sought to be incorporated in the fresh return, which was made on an accrual basis as the assessment was completed and the fresh return filed by the assessee, pursuant to the proceedings taken out u/s 132 read with section 153A, did not give the assessee the leeway to sustain such claim, since no incriminating material was found during the search. The assessment for the A.Y. 2007-08 stood completed before the search. The assessee had neither concealed the particulars of its income nor furnished inaccurate particulars of income which were the prerequisites for imposition of penalty.

The conclusion reached by the Tribunal that the penalty imposed by the A.O. was correctly cancelled by the Commissioner (Appeals) need not be interfered with. No question of law arose.’

Export – Exemption u/s 10B – Scope – Meaning of ‘computer software’ – Engineering and design included in computer software – Assessee engaged in export of customised electronic data relating to engineering and design – Entitled to exemption u/s 10B

46 Marmon Food and Beverage Technologies India (P) Ltd. vs. ITO [2021] 435 ITR 327 (Karn) A.Y.: 2009-10; Date of order: 9th April, 2021 S. 10B of ITA, 1961

Export – Exemption u/s 10B – Scope – Meaning of ‘computer software’ – Engineering and design included in computer software – Assessee engaged in export of customised electronic data relating to engineering and design – Entitled to exemption u/s 10B

The assesse (appellant) is a 100% export-oriented undertaking engaged in the business of export of customised electronic data according to the requirements of its customers. The requirement is received in electronic format and it is again delivered in electronic format pertaining to various activities in the field of engineering and design. For the A.Y. 2009-10 the assessee filed its return of income declaring ‘Nil’ income after claiming deduction of Rs. 1,80,27,563 u/s 10B. The A.O. denied the claim for deduction u/s10B.

The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal upheld the decision of the A.O.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

‘i) Under section 10B, newly-established 100% export-oriented undertakings are entitled to 100% deduction of export profits. Prior to its substitution, section 10B has been operative from 1st April, 1989. With a view to enlarging the scope of the tax holiday to 100% export-oriented undertakings approved by the prescribed authority, an Explanation for the term “produce” had been inserted in section 10B to include production of computer programmes by the Finance Act, 1994.

ii) A tax holiday was given to certain assessees importing and exporting electronic data and as it was a new subject under the Act, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) was empowered to notify certain services of customised electronic data or any products or services to mean “computer software” eligible for deduction. The CBDT, in exercise of powers conferred under Explanation 2(i)(b) to section 10B, has notified certain information technology-enabled products or services by Notification dated 26th September, 2000 ([2000] 245 ITR (St.) 102]. The Notification… is a clarificatory Circular and it has been issued in exercise of the powers conferred under Explanation 2(i)(b) to section 10B of the Income-tax Act. The CBDT has notified certain services of customised electronic data or products or services to mean the computer software eligible for deduction. The intention of the Notification was not to constrain or restrict, but to enable the Board to include several services or products within the ambit of the provisions of section 10B and this is precisely what has been done by the Board.

iii) The term “computer software” means: (a) a set of instructions expressed in words, codes, schemes or in any other form capable of causing a computer to perform a particular task or achieve a particular result; (b) a sequence of instructions written to perform a specified task for a computer. The same programme in its human-readable source code form, from which executable programmes are derived, enables a programmer to study and develop its algorithms; (c) a set of ordered instructions that enable a computer to carry out a specific task; (d) written programmes or procedures or rules and associated documentation pertaining to the operation of a computer system. Engineering and design finds place in the CBDT Notification dated 26th September, 2000. The Act nowhere provides for a definition of “engineering and design” and the requirement for availing of the benefit of deduction as reflected from section 10B read with the Notification… is fulfilled when the assessee has finally developed a computer programme only. Under section 10B no certificate is required under any regulatory authority.

It is a settled proposition of law that a co-ordinate bench of the Tribunal is required to follow the earlier decisions and in case there is a difference of opinion, the matter may be referred to a larger bench.

From the documents on record, it could be safely gathered that the assessee was engaged in the activity of engineering designs, redesigns, testing, modifying, prototyping and validation of concept. The assessee was also engaged in the activity of providing manufacturing support and computer-aided design support to its group companies. The assessee captured the resultant research of the activity in a customised data both in computer-aided design and other software platforms and for the purposes of carrying (out) these activities, the assessee employed engineers and other technical staff for various research projects undertaken by them. The assessee exported the software data. The activities carried out by the assessee like analysing or duplicating the reported problems, developing and building, testing products, carrying out tests, design and development had to be treated as falling within the scope of section 10B with or without the aid of section 10BB. Thus, the assessee was certainly eligible for deduction u/s 10B.

Another important aspect of the case was that in respect of the eligibility of claim of deduction u/s 10B, in respect of the same assessee it had been accepted by the Department for the A.Ys. 2006-07 to 2008-09. The assessee was entitled to the deduction u/s 10B for the A.Y. 2009-10.’

Business expenditure – Clearing and forwarding business – Payment of speed money to port labourers through gang leaders to expedite completion of work – Acceptance of books of accounts and payments supported by documentary evidence – Payment of speed money accepted as trade practice – Restriction of disallowance on the ground vouchers for cash payments were self-made – Unjustified

45 Ganesh Shipping Agency vs. ACIT [2021] 435 ITR 143 (Karn) A.Ys.: 2007-08 to 2009-10; Date of order: 6th February, 2021 S. 37 of ITA, 1961

Business expenditure – Clearing and forwarding business – Payment of speed money to port labourers through gang leaders to expedite completion of work – Acceptance of books of accounts and payments supported by documentary evidence – Payment of speed money accepted as trade practice – Restriction of disallowance on the ground vouchers for cash payments were self-made – Unjustified

The assessee was a firm which carried on business as a clearing and forwarding and steamer agent. For the A.Ys. 2007-08, 2008-09 and 2009-10, the A.O. disallowed, u/s 37, 20% of the expenses incurred by the assessee as speed money which was paid to the workers for speedy completion of their work on the grounds that (a) the assessee produced self-made cash vouchers for the cash payments to each gang leader, (b) the identity of the gang leader was not verifiable, and (c) the recipients were not the assessee’s employees.

The Commissioner (Appeals) restricted the disallowance to 10% which was confirmed by the Tribunal.

The Karnataka High Court allowed the appeal filed by the assessee and held as under:

‘i) The authorities had accepted the books of accounts produced by the assessee. The A.O., in his order, had admitted that the payment of speed money was a trade practice which was followed by the assessee and similar business concerns functioning for speedy completion of their work. However, the disallowance of 20% of the expenses was made solely on the ground that the assessee had produced self-made cash vouchers and the finding had been affirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal.

ii) However, the books of accounts had not been doubted by any of the authorities. The Tribunal was not justified in sustaining the disallowance of expenses at 10% of the expenses paid to port workers as incentive by the assessee in relation to the A.Ys. 2007-08, 2008-09 and 2009-10.

iii) In the result, the impugned order of the Tribunal dated 29th May, 2015 insofar as it contains the findings to the extent of disallowance of 10% of the expenses incurred by the assessee in relation to the A.Ys. 2007-08, 2008-09 and 2009-10 is hereby quashed. Accordingly, the appeal is allowed.’

Assessment – Limitation – Computation of period of limitation – Exclusion of time taken to comply with direction of Court – Meaning of ‘direction’ in section 153(3) – Court remitting matter to A.O. asking him to give assessee opportunity to be heard – Not a direction within meaning of section 153(3) – No exclusion of any time in computing limitation

44 Principal CIT vs. Tally India Pvt. Ltd. [2021] 434 ITR 137 (Karn) A.Y.: 2008-09; Date of order: 6th April, 2021 S. 153 of ITA, 1961

Assessment – Limitation – Computation of period of limitation – Exclusion of time taken to comply with direction of Court – Meaning of ‘direction’ in section 153(3) – Court remitting matter to A.O. asking him to give assessee opportunity to be heard – Not a direction within meaning of section 153(3) – No exclusion of any time in computing limitation

For the A.Y. 2008-09, the case of the assessee was referred to the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) for computation of the arm’s length price u/s 92C. The Court by an order restrained the TPO from proceeding to pass a draft assessment order for a period up to 7th March, 2012, i.e., approximately three months. The writ petition was disposed of by the Court by order dated 7th March, 2012 remitting the matter to the A.O. and directing the assessee to appear before the A.O. on 21st March, 2012. The TPO, by an order dated 13th June, 2012 after affording an opportunity to the assessee, passed a draft order of assessment on 5th July, 2012 and forwarded it to the assessee on 11th July, 2012. The assessee filed objections before the Dispute Resolution Panel which passed an order on 22nd April, 2013. The A.O. passed a final order on 31st May, 2013.

The Tribunal held that the draft assessment was completed by the A.O. on 5th July, 2012, beyond the period of limitation.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

‘i) Section 153 lays down the period of limitation for assessment. Section 153(3) states that in computing the period of limitation, the time taken to comply with a direction of the court is to be excluded. Section 153(3)(ii) applies to cases where any direction is issued either by the appellate authority, revisional authority or any other authority to decide an issue. The Supreme Court in Rajinder Nath vs. CIT and ITO vs. Murlidhar Bhagwan Das has held that a finding given in an appeal, revision or reference arising out of an assessment must be a finding necessary for disposal of a particular case. Similarly, a direction must be an expressed direction necessary for disposal of the case before the authority or court and must also be a direction which the authority or court is empowered to give while deciding a case before it. A direction issued to remit the matter and asking the assessee to appear before the A.O. on a particular date does not amount to either issuing a direction or finding within the meaning of section 153(3)(ii).

ii) It was evident that the order dated 7th March, 2012 passed by the Court neither contained any finding nor any direction. The Tribunal was right in holding that the draft assessment was completed by the A.O. on 5th July, 2012, which was beyond the period of limitation.’

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal – Appeal to Commissioner (A) – Powers of Commissioner (A) – Commissioner (A) can call for and examine fresh material – Power of Tribunal to remand matter – Power must be exercised judiciously – A.O. rejecting claim for deduction – Commissioner (A) considering fresh documents and allowing deduction – Tribunal not justified in remanding matter to A.O.

43 International Tractors Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT(LTU) [2021] 435 ITR 85 (Del) A.Y.: 2007-08; Date of order: 7th April, 2021 Ss. 80JJAA, 250(4) of ITA, 1961

Appeal to Appellate Tribunal – Appeal to Commissioner (A) – Powers of Commissioner (A) – Commissioner (A) can call for and examine fresh material – Power of Tribunal to remand matter – Power must be exercised judiciously – A.O. rejecting claim for deduction – Commissioner (A) considering fresh documents and allowing deduction – Tribunal not justified in remanding matter to A.O.

In the return filed for the A.Y. 2007-08, the assessee had failed to claim the deductions both u/s 80JJAA and qua prior period expenses. The deduction u/s 80JJAA was at Rs. 1,07,33,164 and the prior period expenses were quantified at Rs. 51,21,024. These deductions were claimed by the assessee before the A.O. by way of a communication dated 14th December, 2009 filed with him. This statement, admittedly, was accompanied by a Chartered Accountant’s report in the prescribed form (i.e., form 10DA). Furthermore, the details concerning prior period expenses were also provided by the assessee. The A.O., however, declined to entertain the two deductions claimed by the assessee.

The Commissioner (Appeals) allowed the appeal of the assessee. The Tribunal remanded the matter to the A.O.

On appeal by the assessee, the Delhi High Court set aside the order of the Tribunal and held as under:

‘If a claim is otherwise sustainable in law, the appellate authorities are empowered to entertain it. The Commissioner (Appeals) in the exercise of his powers u/s 250(4) is entitled to call for production of documents or material to satisfy himself as to whether or not the deductions claimed were sustainable and viable in law.

Insofar as the deduction claimed u/s 80JJAA was concerned, the Commissioner (Appeals) not only had before him the Chartered Accountant’s report in the prescribed form, i.e., form 10DA, but also examined the details concerning the new regular workmen, numbering 543, produced before him. In this context, the Commissioner (Appeals) examined the details concerning the dates when the workmen had joined the service, the period during which they had worked, relatable to the assessment year at issue, as also the details concerning the bank accounts in which remuneration was remitted. Based on this material, the Commissioner (Appeals) concluded that the deduction u/s 80JJAA was correctly claimed by the assessee. Likewise, insofar as prior period expenses were concerned, out of a total amount of Rs. 51,21,024 claimed by the assessee, a sum of Rs. 24,78,391 was not allowed for the reason that withholding tax had not been deducted by the assessee. The assessee had disclosed the same in its communication dated 14th December, 2009 placed before the A.O.

All that the Tribunal was required to examine was whether the Commissioner (Appeals) had scrupulously verified the material placed before him before allowing the deductions claimed by the assessee. The Tribunal, however, instead of examining this aspect of the matter, observed, incorrectly, that because an opportunity was not given to the A.O. to examine the material, the matter needed to be remanded to the A.O. for a fresh verification. The judgment of the Tribunal deserved to be set aside. The fresh claims made by the assessee, as allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals), were to be sustained.’

Article 4 of India-Mauritius DTAA – Re-domiciliation of company by itself cannot lead to denial of treaty in the country of re-domiciliation

5 ADIT vs. Asia Today Limited [(2021) 127 taxmann.com 774 (Mum-Trib)] ITA Nos.: 4628-4629/Mum/2006 A.Ys.: 2000-01 and 2001-02; Date of order: 30th July, 2021

Article 4 of India-Mauritius DTAA – Re-domiciliation of company by itself cannot lead to denial of treaty in the country of re-domiciliation

FACTS
The assessee was a company incorporated in 1991 as an international business company in the British Virgin Islands (BVI). It re-domiciled to Mauritius on 29th June, 1998 when the Registrar of Companies issued a Certificate of Incorporation stating that ‘…on and from 29th day of June, 1998, incorporated by continuation as a private company limited by shares’ and that ‘this certificate will be effective from the date of de-registration in BVI’. Simultaneously, the BVI issued a certificate stating ‘The Registrar of Companies of the British Virgin Islands hereby certifies that ________, an international business company incorporated under section 3 of the International Business Companies Act of the law of British Virgin Islands, has discontinued its operations in the British Virgin Islands on 30th June, 1998’.

For the first time, the tax authority contended before the Tribunal that since the assessee was a BVI company, it did not qualify for benefit under the India-Mauritius DTAA. The assessee objected to this contention of the tax authorities.

HELD
On re-domiciliation

Corporate re-domiciliation is a process through which a corporate entity moves its domicile (or place of incorporation) from one jurisdiction to another while at the same time retaining its legal identity.

On re-domiciliation, a corporate entity is de-registered from one jurisdiction and ceases to exist there but simultaneously comes into existence in another jurisdiction.

In the offshore world re-domiciliation of a corporate entity is a fact of life.

While re-domiciliation of a corporate entity may trigger detailed examination per se, DTAA benefits cannot be denied merely because of re-domiciliation.

On facts of the case
The assessee had re-domiciled more than two decades ago. During this period, the tax authority had granted benefit under the India-Mauritius DTAA without raising any question. Hence, the issue was merely academic in nature.

Note: The decision primarily dealt with adjudication of the PE in India of the assessee and attribution of profit to dependent agent. The issue of denial of DTAA benefit on the issue of re-domiciliation was agitated by the tax authority for the first time before the Tribunal. However, only this issue is compiled because it was agitated by tax authority for the first time.

Provisions of section 68 would not apply in case where shares are allotted in lieu of self-generated goodwill wherein there is no movement of actual sum of money

39 ITO vs. Zexus Air Services (P) Ltd. [(2021) 88 ITR(T) 1 (Del-Trib)] IT Appeal No. 2608 (Del) of 2018 A.Y.: 2014-15; Date of order: 23rd April, 2021

Provisions of section 68 would not apply in case where shares are allotted in lieu of self-generated goodwill wherein there is no movement of actual sum of money

FACTS
The assessee company wanted to establish itself in the aviation industry for which an aviation license from the Ministry of Civil Aviation was required. A precondition for procuring this license was that the company must have authorised share capital of at least Rs. 20 crores. One of the directors of the assessee company who had expertise and experience of the industry, helped it to procure the said aviation license. The assessee company allotted shares of Rs. 20 crores to this director by recognising the efforts made by him in the form of ‘goodwill’. Accordingly, Rs. 20 crores was credited to the share capital and a corresponding debit entry was made in the form of self-generated ‘goodwill’. There was no actual flow of money and this was merely a book entry. Documents filed by the assessee company before the ROC in relation to increase in the authorised capital also mentioned that the said shares were allotted in lieu of the ‘blessings and efforts’ of the said director.

But the A.O. held that the assessee company could not substantiate the basis or provide any evidence to justify the value of the goodwill. It was contended that the company had adopted a colourable device to evade taxes. Accordingly, an addition of Rs. 20 crores u/s 68 was made.

The assessee company argued that the provisions of section 68 would not apply in the present facts of the case because there was no actual movement of money and hence it was a tax-neutral transaction. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Maruti Insurance Distribution Services Ltd. vs. CIT [2014] 47 taxmann.com 140 (Delhi) wherein it was held that it was the decision of the businessmen to decide and value its goodwill. Concurring with this contention, the CIT(A) deleted the addition made u/s 68.

HELD
It was an undisputed fact that there was no actual receipt of any money by the assessee company; and when the cash did not pass at any stage and when the respective parties did not receive cash nor did they pay any cash, there was no real credit of cash in the cash book and, therefore, the provisions of section 68 would not be attracted. Reliance was placed on the following decisions:

a) ITO vs. V.R. Global Energy (P) Ltd. [2020] 407 ITR 145 (Madras High Court), and
b) ACIT vs. Suren Goel [ITA No. 1767 (Delhi) of 2011].

Reference was also made to the decision in the case of ACIT vs. Mahendra Kumar Agrawal [2012] 23 taxmann.com 285 (Jaipur-Trib) wherein it was held that the term ‘any sum’ used in section 68 cannot be taken as parallel to ‘any entry’.

An identical matter had come up before the Kolkata Tribunal in the case of ITO vs. Anand Enterprises Ltd. [ITA No. 1614 (Kol) of 2016] wherein, referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Shri H.H. Rama Varma vs. CIT 187 ITR 308 (SC), the Tribunal held that the term ‘any sum’ means ‘sum of money’; accordingly, in the absence of any cash / monetary inflow, addition u/s 68 cannot be made.

Section 2(47) r/w/s 50C – If there is a gap between the date of execution of sale agreement and the sale deed and if the guidance value changes, the guidance value as on the date of agreement has to be considered as the full consideration

38 Prakash Chand Bethala vs. Dy. CIT [(2021) 88 ITR(T) 290 (Bang-Trib)] IT Appeal No. 999 (Bang) of 2019 A.Y.: 2007-08; Date of order: 28th January, 2021

Section 2(47) r/w/s 50C – If there is a gap between the date of execution of sale agreement and the sale deed and if the guidance value changes, the guidance value as on the date of agreement has to be considered as the full consideration

FACTS
The assessee was an HUF that had acquired a property by participating in a BDA auction. The agreement for acquisition of the property took place on 24th July, 1984 and the assessee had acquired possession on 29th August, 1984.

One R.K. Sipani (RKS) acquired the aforesaid property from the assessee through M/s K. Prakashchand Bethala Properties Pvt. Ltd. (KPCBBL) through an oral agreement in the month of September, 1989 for the consideration of Rs. 9.80 lakhs. The assessee gave the possession of the property to RKS on 24th October, 1989. Thereafter, on 8th March, 1993, an unregistered sale agreement was made between the assessee and RKS to bring clarity on the aforementioned transaction. Then, on 9th March, 2007, a sale deed was executed in which the aforesaid site was sold to M/s Suraj Properties (a proprietary concern of RKS’s wife) for the consideration of Rs. 9.80 lakhs.

The A.O. noticed that the guidance value of the property as per the executed sale deed on 9th March, 2007 was Rs. 2.77 crores and the sale consideration was less than the guidance value; thus, the provisions of section 50C were attracted. On appeal, the CIT(A) also confirmed the action of the A.O. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

HELD
The question before the Tribunal was what could be the full value of such consideration, i.e., whether the value on which the stamp duty was paid at the time of the sale deed or the value declared in the sale agreement.

The Tribunal observed that the assessee had entered into the sale agreement on 8th March, 1993 and a major portion of the agreed consideration had been received by the assessee through account payee cheque and possession of the property was also handed over to RKS on 24th October, 1989. There is no dispute regarding these facts. The only action pending was actual registration of the sale deed.

The Tribunal observed that section 50C(1) provides that if there is a gap between the date of execution of the sale agreement and the sale deed and if the guidance value changes, the guidance value as on the date of the agreement has to be considered as the full consideration of the capital asset. In the present case,
1) the enforceable agreement was entered into on 8th March, 1993 by payment of a major portion of the sale consideration,
2) the possession of the property had already been handed over on 24th October, 1989,
3) only the formal sale deed was executed on 9th March, 2007.

Therefore, the Tribunal held that the transfer had taken place vide the sale agreement dated 8th March, 1993 and full value of consideration for the purpose of computing long-term capital gain in the hands of the assessee has to be adopted only on the basis of the guidance value of the property as on the date of the sale agreement, i.e., 8th March, 1993, and not on the date of the sale deed of 9th March, 2007. Accordingly, there was no applicability of section 50C in the year 2007-08.

Business income – Proviso to S. 43CA(1) and the subsequent amendment thereto relates back to the date on which the said section was made effective, i.e., 1st April, 2014

37 Stalwart Impex Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO [(2021) TS-615-ITAT-2021 (Mum)] A.Y.: 2016-17; Date of order: 2nd July, 2021 Section 43CA

Business income – Proviso to S. 43CA(1) and the subsequent amendment thereto relates back to the date on which the said section was made effective, i.e., 1st April, 2014

FACTS
During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, engaged in the construction of commercial and residential housing projects, sold flats to various buyers. In respect of three flats the A.O. held that the stamp duty value (SDV) is more than their agreement value. The total agreement value of the said three flats was Rs. 97,11,500 whereas their SDV was Rs. 1,09,83,000. Upon an objection being raised by the assessee, the A.O. made a reference to the Department Valuation Officer (DVO) for determining the market value of the said flats. The DVO determined the market value of the three flats to be Rs. 1,03,93,000. However, before receipt of the report of the DVO, the A.O. made the addition of the difference between the SDV and the agreement value of the said three flats, i.e., Rs. 12,71,500, u/s 43CA.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the A.O. The assessee then preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD
The Tribunal observed that the difference between the agreement value and the value determined by the DVO is approximately 7%. On behalf of the assessee it was contended that since the difference is less than 10%, no addition should be made. The Tribunal noted that a similar issue had come up before the Tribunal in the case of Radhika Sales Corporation vs. Addl. CIT [ITA No. 1474/Pune/2016, A.Y. 2011-12, order dated 16th November, 2018 and the Tribunal while deciding the issue deleted the addition made and observed that ‘since difference between the value declared by the assessee and the value determined by the DVO is less than 10%, no addition in respect of long-term capital gain is warranted.’ The Tribunal observed that while the said decision was rendered in the context of section 50C and the addition in the instant case is u/s 43CA, both the provisions are pari materia and therefore the decision rendered u/s 50C would hold good for interpreting section 43CA as well. The Tribunal held that where the difference between the sale consideration declared by the assessee and the SDV of an asset (other than capital asset), being land or building, or both, is less than 10%, no addition u/s 43CA is warranted.

The Tribunal observed that the Finance Act, 2018 inserted a proviso to section 43CA(1) providing 5% tolerance limit in variation between declared sale consideration vis-à-vis SDV for making no addition. A similar proviso was inserted by the Finance Act, 2018 to section 50C(1). The said tolerance band was enhanced from 5% to 10% by the Finance Act, 2020 w.e.f. 1st April, 2021. The Tribunal in the case of Maria Fernandes Cheryl vs. ITO (International Taxation) 123 taxmann.com 252 (Mum) after considering various decisions and the CBDT Circular No. 8 of 2018 dated 26th December, 2018 held that the amendment is retrospective in nature and relates back to the date of insertion of the statutory section to the Act.

The Tribunal held that both sections are similarly worded except that both the sections have application on different sets of assessees. The proviso has been inserted and subsequently the tolerance band limit has been enhanced to mitigate the hardship of genuine transactions in the real estate sector. Considering the reasoning given for insertion of the proviso and exposition by the Tribunal for retrospective application of the same, the Tribunal held that the proviso to section 43CA(1) and the subsequent amendment thereto relates back to the date on which the said section was made effective, i.e., 1st April, 2014.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

Business Expenditure – Swap charges paid to convert a floating rate loan to a fixed rate loan are allowable as deduction – Since interest was allowed when loan carried floating rate the character of transaction does not change by swapping from floating to fixed rate

36 Owens-Corning (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO [(2021) TS-517_ITAT-2021 (Mum)] A.Y.: 2003-04; Date of order: 25th June, 2021 Section 37

Business Expenditure – Swap charges paid to convert a floating rate loan to a fixed rate loan are allowable as deduction – Since interest was allowed when loan carried floating rate the character of transaction does not change by swapping from floating to fixed rate

FACTS
The assessee company availed a loan from a US bank on floating rate of interest. During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee chose to convert the said loan carrying floating rate of interest into fixed rate of interest. The assessee was asked to pay certain swap charges for the said conversion from floating to fixed rate. The swap charges liability had been duly incurred by the assessee during the year. The assessee characterised the swap charges as being in the nature of interest.

But the A.O. while assessing the total income disallowed the swap charges claimed on the ground that the said expenditure is capital in nature.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the assessee converting the loan from floating rate of interest to fixed rate of interest has derived enduring benefit and hence the expenditure incurred by the assessee falls in the capital field warranting capitalisation thereon and hence cannot be allowed u/s 37(1).

HELD
The Tribunal noted the calculation of swap charges and observed that the swap charges incurred by the assessee for conversion from floating to fixed rate of interest would necessarily partake the character of interest. The interest paid by the assessee when the loan was in floating rate was duly allowed by the A.O. Hence, the character of the transaction does not change pursuant to this swap from floating to fixed rate. The utilisation of the loan for the purposes of business has not been disputed, hence there is no question of disallowance of any interest whatever the nomenclature, interest or swap charges. The nomenclature of the transaction is absolutely irrelevant to the substance of the transaction.

The Tribunal, following the decision of the Jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT vs. D. Chetan & Co. 390 ITR 36 (Bom) held that the assessee is entitled to deduction of swap charges. This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

DEDUCTION OF MAINTENANCE CHARGES IN COMPUTING INCOME FROM HOUSE PROPERTY

ISSUE FOR CONSIDERATION
Section 22 of the Income-tax Act creates a charge over the annual value of the house property being a building or lands appurtenant to the building of which the assessee is the owner and which has not been used for the purpose of any business or profession carried on by the assessee. The annual value of the house property is required to be computed in the manner laid down in section 23. It deems the sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to be let from year to year as its annual value subject to the exception where the property is let, in which case the amount of rent received or receivable is considered to be its annual value if it is higher. Section 24 provides for the deductions which can be claimed in computing the Income from House Property, namely, (i) a sum equal to 30% of the annual value (referred to as ‘standard deduction’), and (ii) interest payable on capital borrowed for acquisition, construction, repairs, etc., of the property subject to further conditions as provided in clause (b).

Quite often, an issue arises as to whether the assessee can claim a deduction of expenses like maintenance charges, etc., which it had to incur in relation to the property which is let out while computing its annual value for the purposes of section 23. The fact that the annual value is required to be computed on the basis of rent received or receivable in case of let-out property and no specific deduction has been provided for any expenses other than interest u/s 24, makes the issue more complex. Numerous decisions are available dealing with this issue in the context of different kind of expenses, such as maintenance charges, brokerage, non-occupancy charges, etc. For the purpose of this article, we have analysed two decisions of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal taking contrary views in relation to deductibility of maintenance charges while computing annual value u/s 23.

SHARMILA TAGORE’S CASE
The issue had earlier come up for consideration of the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Sharmila Tagore vs. JCIT (2005) 93 TTJ 483.

In this case, for the assessment year 1997-98, the assessee had claimed deduction for the maintenance charges of Rs. 48,785 and non-occupancy charges of Rs. 1,17,832 levied by the society from the total rent received of Rs. 3,95,000 while computing her income under the head Income from House Property. The A.O. disallowed the claim for deduction of both the payments on the ground that the expenses were not listed for allowance in section 24. On appeal, the disallowance made by the A.O. was confirmed by the Commissioner (Appeals).

The Tribunal, on appeal by the assessee, held that the maintenance charges have to be deducted while determining the annual letting value of the property u/s 23 following the ratio of the decisions in the cases of –
• Bombay Oil Industries Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT [2002] 82 ITD 626 (Mum),
• Neelam Cables Mfg. Co. vs. Asstt. CIT [1997] 63 ITD 1 (Del),
• Lekh Raj Channa vs. ITO [1990] 37 TTJ (Del) 297,
• Blue Mellow Investment & Finance (P) Ltd. [IT Appeal No. 1757 (Bom), dated 6th May, 1993].

The claim of the assessee for the deduction of maintenance charges while computing the annual value on the basis of rent received was upheld by the Tribunal. As regards the non-occupancy charges, the Tribunal noted that the expenditure had to be incurred for letting out the property. Therefore, while estimating the annual letting value of the property, which was the sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to be let from year to year, the non-occupancy charges could not be ignored and should be deducted from the annual value. Thus, the Tribunal directed the A.O. to re-compute the annual value after reducing the maintenance charges as well as non-occupancy charges from the rent received.

In the case of Neelam Cables Mfg. Co. (Supra), the assessee had claimed deduction for building repairs and security service charges. Insofar as building repair charges were concerned, the Tribunal held that no separate deduction could be allowed in respect of repairs as the assessee was already allowed the deduction of 1/6th for repairs as provided in section 24 (as it was prevailing at that time). However, in respect of security service charges, the Tribunal held that the charges would be deductible while computing the annual value u/s 23, though no such deduction was specifically provided for in section 24. Since the gross rent received by the assessee should be considered as inclusive of security service charges, the Tribunal held that such charges which were paid in respect of letting out of the property should be deducted while determining the annual value.

In the case of Lekh Raj Channa (Supra), the Tribunal allowed the deduction of salaries paid to persons for the maintenance of the building, security of the building and attending to the requirements of the tenants while computing the annual letting value.

The Tribunal in the case of Bombay Oil Industries Ltd. (Supra), following the above referred decisions of the Delhi bench and in the case of Blue Mellow Investment & Finance (P) Ltd. (Supra), had held that the expenditure by way of municipal taxes, maintenance of the building, security, common electricity charges, upkeep of lifts, water pump, fire-fighting equipment, staff salary and wages, etc., should be taken into account while arriving at the annual letting value u/s 23.

A similar view has been taken in the following cases about deductibility of expenses, mainly maintenance charges, while arriving at the annual letting value of the let-out property –
• Realty Finance & Leasing (P) Ltd. vs. ITO [2006] 5 SOT 348 (Mum),
• J.B. Patel & Co. vs. DCIT [2009] 118 ITD 556 (Ahm),
• ITO vs. Farouque D. Vevania [2008] 26 SOT 556 (Mum),
• ACIT vs. Sunil Kumar Agarwal (2011) 139 TTJ 49 (UO),
• Asha Ashar vs. ITO [2017] 81 taxmann.com 441 (Mum-Trib),
• Neela Exports Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (ITA No. 2829/Mum/2011 dated 27th February, 2013),
• Krishna N. Bhojwani vs. ACIT (ITA No. 1463/Mum/2012 dated 3rd July, 2017),
• Saif Ali Khan vs. CIT (ITA No. 1653/Mum/2009 dated 23rd June, 2011).

ROCKCASTLE PROPERTY (P) LTD.’S CASE
The issue again came up for consideration recently before the Mumbai bench of the Tribunal in the case of Rockcastle Property (P) Ltd. vs. ITO [2021] 127 taxmann.com 381.

In this case, for the assessment year 2012-13, the assessee had earned rental income from a commercial property which was situated in a condominium. The assessee credited an amount of Rs. 91.42 lakhs as rental income in its Profit & Loss account as against gross receipts of Rs. 93.65 lakhs after deducting Rs. 2.23 lakhs paid towards the ‘society maintenance charges’. The A.O. held that the charges were not allowable as a deduction since the assessee was already allowed deduction of 30% u/s 24(a). The CIT(A) confirmed the disallowance by relying upon several decisions, including the decisions of the Delhi High Court in the case of H.G. Gupta & Sons, 149 ITR 253 and of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in Aravali Engineers P. Ltd. 200 Taxman 81.

On appeal to the Tribunal, it was contended on behalf of the assessee that under the terms of letting out, the assessee was required to bear the expenses on society maintenance and the gross rent received by the assessee included the society maintenance charges that were paid by the assessee. Therefore, in computing the annual value, the amount of rent which actually came to the hands of the owner should alone be taken into consideration in view of the provisions of section 23(1)(b) that provide for adoption of the ‘actual rent received or receivable by the owner’. Reliance was also placed on various decisions of the Tribunal taking a view that such maintenance charges should be deducted while computing the annual letting value of the let-out property. As against this, the Revenue submitted that the assessee’s claim was not admissible as per the statutory provisions.

The Tribunal perused the Leave & License agreement and noted that the payment of municipal taxes and other outgoings was the liability of the assessee. Any increase was also to be borne by the assessee. The licensee was required to pay a fixed monthly lump sum to the assessee as license fees irrespective of the assessee’s outgoings. On the above findings, the Tribunal noted that it was incorrect for the assessee to plead that the actual rent received by the assessee was net of ‘society maintenance charges’ as per the terms of the agreement.

The Tribunal further noted that section 23 provided for deduction of only specified items, i.e., taxes paid to the local authority and the amount of rent which could not be realised by the assessee, from the ‘actual rent received or receivable’. No other deductions were permissible. Allowing any other deduction would amount to distortion of the statutory provisions and such a view could not be countenanced. It observed that accepting the plea that the rent which actually went into the hands of the assessee was only to be considered, would enable the assessee to claim any expenditure from rent actually received or receivable which was not the intention of the Legislature.

As far as the decision of the co-ordinate bench in the case of Sharmila Tagore (Supra) was concerned, the Tribunal relied upon its earlier decision in the case of Township Real Estate Developers (India) (P) Ltd. vs. ACIT [2012] 21 taxmann.com 63 (Mum) wherein it was held that –
• the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of H.G. Gupta & Sons (Supra) had not been considered in the Sharmila Tagore case;
• the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Aravali Engineers (P) Ltd. (Supra) was the latest decision on the subject that held that the deduction was not allowable.

Apart from the cases of Rockcastle Property (P) Ltd. (Supra) and Township Real Estate Developers (India) (P) Ltd. (Supra), a similar view has been taken in the following cases whereby the expenses in the nature of maintenance of the property have not been allowed to be reduced from the gross amount of the rent for the purpose of determining the annual value of the property –
Sterling & Wilson Property Developers Pvt. Ltd. vs. ITO (ITA No. 1085/Mum/2015 dated 11th November, 2016),
• Ranjeet D. Vaswani vs. ACIT [2017] 81 taxmann.com 259 (Mum-Trib), and
• ITO vs. Barodawala Properties Ltd. (2002) 83 ITD 467 (Mum).

OBSERVATIONS
What is chargeable to tax in the case of house property is its ‘annual value’ after reducing the same by the deductions allowed u/s 24. The annual value is required to be determined in accordance with the provisions of section 23. Sub-section (1) of section 23 which is relevant for the purpose of the subject matter of controversy reads as under –

For the purposes of section 22, the annual value of any property shall be deemed to be –
(a) the sum for which the property might reasonably be expected to let from year to year; or
(b) where the property or any part of the property is let and the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is in excess of the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable; or
(c) where the property or any part of the property is let and was vacant during the whole or any part of the previous year and owing to such vacancy the actual rent received or receivable by the owner in respect thereof is less than the sum referred to in clause (a), the amount so received or receivable:
Provided that the taxes levied by any local authority in respect of the property shall be deducted (irrespective of the previous year in which the liability to pay such taxes was incurred by the owner according to the method of accounting regularly employed by him) in determining the annual value of the property of that previous year in which such taxes are actually paid by him.
Explanation. – For the purposes of clause (b) or clause (c) of this sub-section, the amount of actual rent received or receivable by the owner shall not include, subject to such rules as may be made in this behalf, the amount of rent which the owner cannot realise.

The limited issue for consideration, where the property is let, is whether ‘the actual rent received or receivable’ referred to in clause (b) in respect of letting of the property or part thereof can be said to have included the cost of maintaining that property and, if so, whether the actual rent received or receivable can be reduced, by the amount of the cost of maintaining the property, for the purposes of clause (b) of section 23(1).

One possible view of the matter is that the ‘actual rent received or receivable’ should be the amount of consideration which the tenant has agreed to pay for usage of the property and merely because the owner of the property has to incur some expenses in relation to that property, the amount of ‘actual rent received or receivable’ cannot be altered on that basis; the proviso to section 23(1) permits the deduction for taxes levied by the local authority, which is also the obligation of the owner of the property, is indicative of the intent of the Legislature that no other obligations of the owner of the property can be reduced from the amount of actual rent received or receivable; any payment or other than the taxes so specified shall not be deductible from the annual value; section 24 limits the deduction to those payments that have been expressly listed in the said section and any deduction outside the list is not allowable, as has been explained in the Circular No. 14/2001 dated 9th November, 2001 explaining the objective of the amendment of 2001 in section 24 to substitute some eight deductions like cost of repairs, collection charges, insurance premium, annual charge, ground rent, interest, land revenue, etc., with only two, namely, standard deduction and interest; any deduction other than the ones specified by the proviso to section 23(1) and section 24, i.e., municipal taxes, interest and standard deduction, is not permissible.

The other equally possible view is that the amount of ‘actual rent received or receivable’ is dependent on the fact that the let-out property in question necessarily requires the owner to bear the expenses in relation to the property as a condition for letting, expressly or otherwise, and considering this correlation, the amount of ‘actual rent received or receivable’ should be adjusted taking into consideration the cost of maintaining the property or any other such expenses in relation to the property which the owner is required to incur; the express permission to deduct the municipal taxes under the proviso should not be a bar from claiming such other payments and expenses which have the effect of reducing the net annual rent in the hands of the owner and should be allowed to be reduced form the annual value as long as there is no express prohibition in the law to do so; section 24 lists the permissible deductions in computing the income under the head ‘income from house property’ and is unrelated to the determination of annual value and should not have any role in determination thereof; the expenses that go to reduce the annual value should nonetheless be allowed as they remain unaffected by the provisions of section 24.

The obligation of the owner to incur the expenses in question is directly linked to the earning of the income and has the effect of determining the fair rental value. The value shall stand reduced where such obligations are not assumed by the owner. Needless to say, an express agreement by the parties for passing on the obligation to pay such expenses to the tenant and reducing the rent payable would achieve the desired objective without any litigation; this in itself should indicate that the fair rental value is directly linked to the assuming of the obligations by the owner to pay the expenses in question and that such expenses should be reduced from the annual value. The case for deduction is well supported on the principle of diversion of obligation by overriding covenant. The concept has been well explained by the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Sitaldas Tirathdas [(1961) 41 ITR 367] the relevant extract from which is reproduced below –

In our opinion, the true test is whether the amount sought to be deducted, in truth, never reached the assesse as his income. Obligations, no doubt, there are in every case, but it is the nature of the obligation which is the decisive fact. There is a difference between an amount which a person is obliged to apply out of his income and an amount which by the nature of the obligation, cannot be said to be a part of the income of the assesse. Where by the obligation income is diverted before it reaches the assesse, it is deductible; but where the income is required to be applied to discharge an obligation after the income reaches the assessee, the same consequence, in law, does not follow. It is the first kind of payment which can truly be excused and not the second. The second payment is merely an obligation to pay another a portion of one’s own income, which has been received and is since applied. The first is a case where income never reaches the assessee, who even if he were to collect it does so, not as part of his income, but for and on behalf of the person to whom it is payable.

Further reference can also be made to the case of CIT vs. Sunil J. Kinariwala [2003] 259 ITR 10 wherein the Supreme Court has, after referring to various precedents on the subject, explained the concept of diversion of income by overriding title in the following manner:

When a third person becomes entitled to receive the amount under an obligation of an assessee even before he could lay a claim to receive it as his income, there would be diversion of income by overriding title; but when after receipt of the income by the assessee, the same is passed on to a third person in discharge of the obligation of the assessee, it will be a case of application of income by the assessee and not of diversion of income by overriding title.

It is possible to canvass two views when the issue under consideration is examined in light of this principle; it can be said that there is no diversion of income by the owner of the property when he incurs the expenses for maintenance of the property, or it can be held that there is a diversion. The better view is to favour an interpretation that permits the reduction than the one that defeats the claim. It is also possible to support the claim for reduction from annual value on the basis of real income theory.

In the cases of Sharmila Tagore and others, the Tribunal has taken a view that allowed the reduction of maintenance charges from the annual value on the basis that to that extent the amount of rent never reached the owner or the owner was not benefited to that extent.