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Appeal to High Court: Scope and power: Limitation: Section 260A of Income-tax Act, 1961, r.w.s 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963: Finding given in an appeal, revision or reference arising out of an assessment must be a finding necessary for disposal of that particular case and must also be a direction which authority or Court is empowered to pass while deciding case before it: AO cannot apply section 14 of Limitation Act, to initiate time-barred reassessment proceedings.

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[Dheeraj Construction and Industries Ltd. v. CIT, 13 Taxman.com 32 (Cal.)]

In this case, the main point involved in the appeal filed before the Calcutta High Court u/s.260A was whether the addition of certain amount based on alleged bogus purchase could be made in block assessment notwithstanding the fact that those findings were based on no material recovered from search and seizure. The Court held that the aforesaid findings were not based on any material unearthed on search and seizure and, thus, was not liable to be assessed on the block assessment under Chapter XIV-B, but should be subject to regular assessment. The assessee filed review application challenging the observation ‘but should be subject to regular assessment’.

The assessee contended that the Court should not have made such observation when such observation was beyond the scope of the subject-matter of the questions framed in the appeal. The assessee contended that the regular assessment proceedings u/ss.143/147/148 were already barred by limitation as contained in section 149(1) and, as such, the aforesaid observation should be deleted.

The Revenue opposed the application contending that there was no bar in proceeding afresh for regular assessment, if a direction to that effect was given by the Court while disposing of an appeal u/s.260A notwithstanding the fact that period of limitation for initiating fresh assessment had since expired; and that in such circumstances, the provisions of section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 would apply.

The Calcutta High Court held as under: “ (i) The question before the Court was whether those two transactions could form subjectmatter of block assessment when findings in support of those transactions were based on no material recovered from search and seizure and, thus, within the narrow scope of section 260A, there was no necessity of considering whether the transactions in question could be assessed under regular assessment. Aforesaid observation was not meant for giving direction upon the Assessing Officer because there was neither any scope of passing such direction for effective disposal of the dispute, nor could any such direction be passed while answering questions formulated by the Division Bench admitting the appeal.

(ii) The expressions ‘finding’ and ‘direction’ contained in section 153(3) are limited in meaning. A finding given in an appeal, revision or reference arising out of an assessment must be a finding necessary for the disposal of that particular case and must also be a direction which the authority or the Court is empowered to pass while deciding the case before it. Similarly, under the Act, there is no scope of applying the provisions of the Limitation Act as would appear from the fact that in section 260A itself, the power of condonation of delay in filing the appeal has been incorporated by the Legislature by introducing sub-section (2A) with effect from 1-4-2010 only and if the Limitation Act, on its own, had the application to such an appeal, there was no necessity of incorporation of such a provision in section 260A and that too with effect from 1-4-2010 and, consequently, the benefit of section 14 of the Limitation Act also cannot be availed of by the Assessing Officer, if under the Incometax Act, the regular assessment is barred and even the period of limitation for reopening the regular assessment had expired.

(iii) Sub-section (7) of section 260A merely provides that save as otherwise provided in the Act, the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, relating to appeals to the High Court shall, as far as may be, apply in the case of appeals under this section. Thus, such an appeal must be limited to substantial questions of law and not like an ordinary appeal u/s.96 of the Code.

(iv) Thus, there was no basis of the apprehension that by taking advantage of impugned observations, the Assessing Officer could reopen the regular assessment by taking aid of section 14 of the Limitation Act.

(v) Consequently, it was to be clarified that the Court never intended to direct the Assessing Officer to bring those transactions within regular assessment after the expiry of the period of limitation prescribed under the Income-tax Act by taking aid of section 14 of the Limitation Act which was not even applicable.”

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Advance tax: Interest u/s.234B: A.Y. 1991-92: Assessee claimed exemption u/s.47(v) on sale of capital assets to holding company owning 100% shares: Reduction in holding to 43% in subsequent year: Exemption withdrawn as per section 47A: Assessee not liable to interest u/s.234B.

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[Prime Securities Ltd. v. ACIT, 243 CTR 229 (Bom.)]

In the return of income filed for the A.Y. 1991- 92, the assessee had claimed an exemption of Rs.2,04,99,060 u/s.47(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 being profit on sale of capital assets to the holding company which had owned 100% shares of the assessee-company. The Assessing Officer found that in the subsequent year the shareholding of the holding company was reduced from 100% to 43%. Therefore he withdrew the exemption in accordance with section 47A of the Act. The Assessing Officer also levied interest u/s.234B on this amount. The Tribunal upheld the levy of interest.

The assessee had challenged the levy of interest by filing a writ petition. The assessee also filed appeal against the order of the Tribunal. The Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The amount of advance tax is to be decided by the assessee after estimating his current income and then applying law in force for deciding the amount of tax. It is an admitted position in the present case that the date on which the appellant paid the advance tax it had estimated its income and liability for payment of advance tax in accordance with law that was in force. Therefore, it is obvious that there was no failure on the part of the appellant to pay advance tax in accordance with the provisions of sections 208 and 209.

(ii) For charging interest u/s.234B, committing a default in payment of advance tax is condition precedent. In the present case, it is nobody’s case that the appellant at the time of payment of advance tax has committed any default or that payment of advance tax by the appellant was not in accordance with law.

(iii) Insofar as the observations in the order of the Tribunal that the appellant should have anticipated the events that took place in March, 1992 are concerned, they have no substance. It is rightly submitted that it was not possible for the appellant to anticipate the events that were to take place in the next financial year and pay advance tax on the basis of those anticipated events.

(iv) The amount of interest recovered from the petitioner is directed to be refunded to the petitioner with interest as per law.”

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Interest u/s.234D: A.Ys. 1992-93 to 1998-99: No refund u/s.143(1): Interest u/s.234D not leviable.

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[DIT v. M/s. Delta Airlines Inc. (Bom.), ITA No. 1318 of 2011, dated 5-9-2011.]

For the relevant years, the Assessing Officer passed assessment orders u/s.143(3) r.ws 147 of the Incometax Act, 1961 disallowing the benefit under Article 8 of the DTAA between India and USA. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim and that resulted into refund. The Tribunal set aside the orders of the CIT(A) and restored the orders of the Assessing Officer. While giving effect to the order of the ITAT, the Assessing Officer levied interest u/ss.234A and 234B and also u/s.234D. CIT(A) found that no refund was granted u/s.143(1) and therefore he held that section 234D was not attracted. The CIT(A) also found that section 234D was introduced w.e.f. 1-6-2003 and therefore he held that section 234D is not applicable to the relevant period. Accordingly he set aside the levy of interest u/s.234D of the Act. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) In the present case, admittedly refund was not granted to the assessee u/s.143(1) of the Act. In fact, the refund was not granted even under the assessment order u/s.143(3) r.w.s 147 of the Act, but the same was granted pursuant to the orders passed by the CIT(A). Therefore, the decision of the ITAT in holding that in the facts of the present case, section 234D is not applicable cannot be faulted.

(ii) We make it clear that we have upheld the order of the ITAT not on the ground that section 234D has no retrospective operation, but on the ground that section 234D has no application to the facts of the present case, because, in none of these cases, refunds were granted u/s.143(1) of the Act. The question as to whether section 234D applies retrospectively is kept open.”

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Income: Notional income: A.Y. 2003-04: Assessee in business of Asset Management of Mutual Funds: Charged investment advisory fees less than prescribed ceiling: Differential amount cannot be added as income.

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[CIT v. M/s. Templeton Asset Management (India) (Bom.), ITA No. 1043 of 2010, dated 12-9-2011]

The assessee, a private limited company was engaged in the business of asset management of mutual funds. In the A.Y. 2003-04, the Assessing Officer found that the assessee had charged investment advisory fees less than the ceiling prescribed under Regulation 52 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996. He added the differential amount to the income of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the SEBI Regulation 52 provides for the maximum limit towards the fees that could be charged by an Asset Management Company from the Mutual Funds and that if, due to business exigencies, the assessee collects lesser amount of fees than the ceiling prescribed, it is not open to the Assessing Officer to make addition on the notional basis.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) It is not the case of the Revenue that the assessee has recovered investment advisory fees more than what is said to have been claimed by the assessee. Therefore, the fact that the SEBI Regulation provides for a maximum limit on the investment advisory fees that could be claimed, it cannot be said that the Asset Management Companies are liable to be assessed at the maximum limit prescribed under the SEBI Regulations, irrespective of the amount actually recovered.

(ii) In these circumstances, the decision of the ITAT in deleting the additions made by the Assessing Officer on notional basis cannot be faulted.”

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Advance tax: Interest u/ss.234B and 234C: A.Y. 2007-08: Search and seizure: Cash seized of Rs.18 lakh and Rs.1.98 crore deposited by assessee on 31-1-2007 could be adjusted against advance tax liability for computing interest u/ss.234B and 234C.

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[CIT v. Shri Jyotindra B. Mody (Bom.), ITA No. 3741 of 2010, dated 21-9-2011] In the course of the search proceedings on 10th, 11th and 12th January, 2007 cash amounting to Rs.18 lakh was found and seized. The assessee offered an income of Rs.6,32,79,857 and paid an additional amount of Rs.1.98 crore on 31-1-2007. Thereafter, by a letter dated 14-3-2007, the assessee requested to adjust the said amounts of Rs.18 lakh and 1.98 crore towards the advance tax liability. The Assessing Officer accepted the offered income. However, while computing interest u/ss.234B and 234C, he did not take into account the said amounts of Rs.18 lakh and 1.98 crore paid by the assessee towards the advance tax liability. The CIT(A) allowed the assessee’s claim. The Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) The basic argument of the Revenue is that u/s.132B(1)(i), the amount seized during the course of search can be dealt with for discharging the existing liability under the Acts set out therein. In the present case, the tax liability in relation to the assessment year in question would get crystallised only after the assessment is completed and therefore, the request of the assessee for adjustment of the amounts in question towards the advance tax liability could not be entertained.

(ii) We see no merit in the above contention, because once the assessee offers to tax the undisclosed income including the amount seized during the search, then the liability to pay advance tax in respect of that amount arises even before the completion of the assessment. Section 132B(1)(i) of the Act does not prohibit utilisation of the amount seized during the course of search towards the advance tax payable on the amount of undisclosed income declared during the course of search.

(iii) In the present case, the assessee, prior to the last date for payment of last instalment of advance tax, had in fact by a letter dated 14-3-2007 requested the Assessing Officer to adjust the amount towards the existing advance tax liability. Since advance tax liability is to be computed and paid in accordance with the provisions of the Act even before the completion of the assessment, no fault can be found with the decision of the ITAT in holding that in the facts of the present case, the amounts in question were liable to be adjusted towards the existing advance tax liability.”

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 24, dated 19-9-2011 — Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards/Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) Standards — Cross-Border Inward Remittance under Money Transfer Service Scheme.

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This Circular requests Authorised Persons (Indian Agents) to consider the information contained in the Statement issued by FATF on June 24, 2011 calling upon certain jurisdictions to complete the implementation of their action plan within the time frame.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 23, dated 19-9-2011 — Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards/Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) Standards — Money changing activities.

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This Circular requests Authorised Persons to consider the information contained in the Statement issued by FATF on June 24, 2011 calling upon certain jurisdictions to complete the implementation of their action plan within the time frame.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 22, dated 19-9-2011 —Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards/Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) Standards — Cross- Border Inward Remittance under Money Transfer Service Scheme.

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This Circular informs that the:

1. Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has issued a Statement on June 24, 2011 calling its members and other jurisdictions to apply counter-measures to protect the international financial system from the ongoing and substantial money laundering and terrorist financing (ML/FT) risks emanating from Iran and Democratic People’s Republic Korea (DPRK). However, Authorised Persons (Indian Agents) are not precluded from entering into legitimate trade and business transactions with Iran.

2. FATF has also identified the following countries — Bolivia, Cuba, Ethiopia, Kenya, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Syria and Turkey — as Jurisdictions with strategic AML/CFT deficiencies that have not made sufficient progress in addressing the deficiencies or have not committed to an action plan developed with the FATF to address the deficiencies and calls on its members to consider the risks arising from the deficiencies associated with each jurisdiction. Authorised Persons (Indian Agents) are advised to take into account risks arising from the deficiencies in AML/CFT regime of these countries, while entering into business relationships and transactions with persons (including legal persons and other financial institutions) from or in these countries/jurisdictions.

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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 21, dated 19-9-2011 — Anti-Money Laundering (AML) standards/Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) Standards — Money changing activities.

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This Circular informs that the:

1. Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has issued a Statement on June 24, 2011 calling its members and other jurisdictions to apply counter-measures to protect the international financial system from the ongoing and substantial money laundering and terrorist financing (ML/FT) risks emanating from Iran and Democratic People’s Republic Korea (DPRK). However, Authorised Persons are not precluded from entering into legitimate trade and business transactions with Iran.

2. FATF has also identified the following countries — Bolivia, Cuba, Ethiopia, Kenya, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Syria and Turkey — as jurisdictions with strategic AML/CFT deficiencies that have not made sufficient progress in addressing the deficiencies or have not committed to an action plan developed with the FATF to address the deficiencies and calls on its members to consider the risks arising from the deficiencies associated with each jurisdiction. Authorised Persons are advised to take into account risks arising from the deficiencies in AML/CFT regime of these countries, while entering into business relationships and transactions with persons (including legal persons and other financial institutions) from or in these countries/jurisdictions.

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NEW SEBI TAKEOVER REGULATIONS — important changes

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Part 1
SEBI has notified the substantially rewritten Takeover Regulations — the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 (‘the Regulations’) — to come into effect from 22nd October 2011.

Takeover Regulations hit the front pages of newspapers for wrong reasons. Takeover of companies in India is relatively lesser in number but takeovers have a glamour attached to them, hence changes to law relating to takeovers get disproportionate attention. At the same time, the manner in which the Regulations are framed ensure that not only the listed company and its promoters are affected but even the shareholders are affected. Promoters and other specified persons have to carry out certain regular or ad hoc compliances, reporting, etc., though even at that stage there is no takeover involved. Non-compliance of these requirements can result in stiff penalties and even an open offer. Further, many corporate restructuring transactions are structured keeping these Regulations in mind.

Now that SEBI has notified the long-awaited revised Regulations last month, listed companies, their promoters and those concerned with legal aspects of corporate laws relating to listed companies need to examine them closely.

In this article, some important changes are highlighted. It must be emphasised though that the Regulations are substantially rewritten and hence it is not as if there is a list of specified amendments that can be identified and discussed. And though the outline of the Regulations remains the same, there have been changes, major and minor, at several places. To begin with, it is worth reviewing generally what the Regulations are concerned with. The Regulations essentially intend that if there is a change of control of a listed company, whether through acquisition of controlling interest or otherwise or even a substantial acquisition of its shares, the public shareholders should be given an option to exit. This usually happens when a new promoter acquires the controlling stake from the existing promoter(s). However, the acquirer may simply acquire substantial shares in the company. The public shareholders are required to be paid a minimum price which is not less than what the outgoing promoters get, but the price for public shareholders can be higher. There are requirements of disclosure when a person acquires substantial quantity of shares and generally many other related requirements to ensure that this basic intent is achieved.

The Takeover Regulations were originally issued in 1994 and then revised in 1997. Several amendments were made from time to time and, recently, a committee was set up to recommend draft new Regulations under the leadership of Late Shri C. A. Achuthan who gave a detailed and elaborate report (‘the Committee Report’) but, sadly, left the world soon thereafter.

The new Regulations should be seen in the light of this Report. However, care should be taken since some of the recommendations have not been accepted or accepted only partially.

The most significant change is that the minimum threshold for making an open offer has been increased from 15 to 25%. The link of 25% with the percentage required to block a special resolution is obvious. Taking into account the fact that, in most Indian companies, the Promoters hold much more than 25%, even this 25% limit may sound low. For strategic investors, this higher limit would help and thus this increase would help the Company, its Promoters and shareholders since the Company can accept higher strategic investments without such investors having to make an open offer.

The other major change is that the minimum open offer percentage has been increased from 20 to 26%. Again this 26% can be logically understood as if we add 25 and 26%, we get a majority holding of 51%, though one could have argued that 1 share above 50% is sufficient to have a majority. Public shareholders would be rightly disappointed as the Committee Report recommending making an open offer for 100% of the public holding has not been accepted. This, in my view, is unfair as while the whole of the holding of the Promoters is usually acquired, only partial acquisition of public holdings is made. The argument made is that this would make the open offers unduly expensive for an acquirer. However, this can not be a sufficient reason to deprive public shareholder of getting a price that the Promoters receive. If an acquirer seeks to acquire, say, 51%, he can simply acquire such percentage from all shareholders including the Promoters by offering to acquire 51% of each person’s holdings. It is sad that the main purpose of these Regulations of protecting the interest of the public shareholders has been sidelined.

Certain regular and ad hoc compliances are required to be made under the Regulations. They mainly serve the basic objective of protecting shareholders’ interests in case of significant change in shareholding. Thus, an early intimation system provides that if a person acquires more than 5% shares, he should inform the Company and the stock exchanges immediately. Such person should thereafter keep informing if his holding changes by 2% in either direction. This provision has been substantially maintained. However, it is now made explicit — which was otherwise confirmed by court decisions under the 1997 Regulations — that it is the holding of the acquirer along with persons acting in concert as a whole that would be counted and not just the separate holding of an individual acquirer.

Creeping acquisition is a popular term, though not a legal one, to refer to the slow and gradual increase in holding allowed by law to a substantial holder of shares without being required to make an open offer. A substantial shareholder consolidates its holding by acquiring more shares and the law believes that such consolidation should also require an open offer under certain situations. The 1997 Regulations allowed 5% increase per financial year for acquirers who held more than 15% shares provided that the cumulative holding is not more than 55%. Beyond 55%, an additional 5% can be acquired in specified manner but no further without an open offer. The amended law allows creeping acquisition of the same 5% every financial year but all the way up to the maximum holding they can hold without reducing the minimum public holding required under law. Thus, for example, where minimum public holding is prescribed to be 25%, an acquirer can make creeping acquisitions up to 75% by acquiring 5% each financial year.

There was a minor controversy as to whether the 5% incremental acquisition was allowed as a net or gross increment. For example, if an acquirer acquires 7% in a year but sells 3%, has he acquired 4% or 7% ? The Regulations now specifically clarify that it will be the gross acquisition and not net and thus in the above example, the acquisition will be considered as 7% and thus beyond the 5% limit.

It is also clarified that in case of acquisition by issue of fresh shares (e.g., preferential allotment) where the capital of the Company also expands, the percentage in the expanded capital will be considered.

This leaves one group of existing promoters in a strange situation. There are Promoters, albeit small in number, who hold between 15% and 25%. As explained above, the 1997 Regulations allowed creeping acquisition of 5%. However, as the minimum threshold of 15% has been raised to 25%, such Promoters now would have to make an open offer if they cross 25% even if they are holding, say, 23% and acquire another 3%. Under the 1997 Regulations, they would not have been so required. Of course, the other side is that a person holding, say, 14% can acquire another about 11% without being required to make an open offer.

An important concept of Takeover Regulations is of ‘persons acting in concert’. This concept is a part of the Regulations to ensure that if a group of persons acquires shares with a common understanding or agreement, all such acquisitions are counted together to check whether the Regulations are attracted or not. Further, reporting of shareholding is also to be made of the total holding of such group. The question then is whether transfers within such group should be allowed or should such inter se transfers be considered as acquisitions. Logically, a transfer within the group is a zero sum transaction if the group as a whole is considered. Even the wording — of the 1997 Regulations as well as the 2011 Regulations — on the face of it should not apply since the holding of the acquirer along with persons acting in concert does not increase in such a case. However, SEBI has, by curious reasoning, which is upheld in appeal, taken a view that since inter se transfers are exempt under certain circumstances, then it must be held that inter se transfers otherwise amount to acquisition ! This reasoning is likely to continue even under the new Regulations though it would have been more elegant in law if the Regulations had expressly provided for this. However, what has been now changed is that inter se transfers, to qualify for exemption, need to comply with stricter conditions. For example, inter se transfers between persons acting in concert or Promoters will require that both parties should have been declared in relevant filings as such for at least three years. The exemption to inter se transfers within the ‘group’ has been dropped.

Earlier, there was an exemption from open offer for acquisition of control, without the minimum acquisition of shares, of a company if such acquisition was approved by the shareholders by a special resolution. Now this exemption is dropped. Perhaps this was necessary as the threshold limit has been increased from 15 to 25%.

A change worthy of appreciation is that non-compete fees are now to be counted as part of the acquisition price paid by an acquirer to the existing promoters. Earlier, the law allowed an acquirer to pay up to 25% of the acquisition price as non-compete fees to existing promoters and such amount was not to be counted as part of the acquisition price. To give an example, say, an acquirer pays Rs.100 as price for acquisition of shares and Rs.25 as non-compete fees to the Promoters. The law, which otherwise requires that the open offer should be made at a price that is at least the price paid to the Promoters, allows in such a case the open offer to be made at Rs.100. This resulted in cases where on the face of it, an exact non -compete fee of 25% was paid and was excluded from the open offer price. The new Regulations have rightly dropped this exemption to non-compete fees.

A major new feature is the voluntary open offer that is allowed. Normally, an acquirer is required to make a minimum open offer of 26% if he crosses the specified threshold limit or creeping acquisition. However, if a person, who is already having 25% shares and desires to increase his holding by more than 5% a year can now make a voluntary open offer of at least 10% to all the shareholders. This also ensures that all shareholders are able to participate and not just a selected few.

Then there is an infrequent but interesting situation that arises which earlier SEBI handled it a little arbitrarily. This is a situation where a Company carries out a buyback of shares. Simple mathematical calculation will show that if a Company carries out buyback of shares, the shareholding of a person who did not participate in the buyback increases though he has not acquired a single share. For example, if the Company’s share capital is Rs.10 crore and a person is holding Rs.2.40 crore. If the Company carries out a buyback of 20% with such person not participating, his new percentage holding would be higher at 30% (Rs.2.40 crore as a % of Rs.8 crore) without he having acquired a single share. SEBI took a view that open offer was required to be made by such person. This was of course absurd and even if SEBI intended that an open offer should be required, it should have provided for it. The new Regulations now provide that such an increase will not result in open offer provided certain conditions are satisfied failing which the differential percentage of shares should be sold within 90 days.

Diageo India Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT (2011) 13 taxmann.com 62 (Mum.) Section 92A(1) & 92A(2)(g) of Income-tax Act A.Y.: 2006-07. Dated: 5-9-2011

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Unrelated party wholly dependent on use of trademarks of taxpayer is an AE u/s.92A(2)(g) by virtue of effective control on decision making and hence, its transactions with other AEs of the taxpayer are deemed to be transactions between AEs.

Facts
The taxpayer was an Indian company engaged in the business of marketing alcoholic beverages in India. It procured the beverages either by getting them manufactured from Contract Bottling Units (‘CBUs’) or by importing them from its associated enterprises (‘AEs’). The CBUs were unrelated parties. The CBUs imported concentrates and other inputs from the AEs of the taxpayer. As per the agreement between the taxpayer and a CBU, the CBU was required to meet all costs, realise sale proceeds and if the sale proceeds exceeded the costs and the agreed margin of profit, the CBU was to credit the surplus to taxpayer.

The following is the diagrammatic presentation of the abovementioned arrangement.

The taxpayer reported all the transactions with AEs including purchase of concentrates and inputs by CBUs from AEs.

The AO made reference to the TPO for determination of ALP in respect of all transactions reported by the taxpayer. The TPO noted that the CBU was dependent on the trademarks owned by Diageo Group and accordingly, u/s.92A(1)(a) as also the deeming fiction in section 92A(2)(g) of Income-tax Act, the CBU was effectively controlled by Diageo Group. Hence, the CBU, the taxpayer and other Diageo Group entities are AEs. Therefore, TPO made adjustment in respect raw material purchases by CBU from the AEs of the taxpayer.

The taxpayer contended that: the CBU was an unrelated party; merely because a transaction with an independent enterprise is reported in Form No. 3CEB out of abundant caution, such transaction does not become a transaction with an AE; the CBU had entered into arrangement with the taxpayer and hence, the relationship of AE could at best be between the taxpayer and the CBU and cannot extend beyond that; also, there was nothing on record to suggest that the AEs from whom the CBU had imported raw materials participated in control or management or capital of the CBU.

Held
The Tribunal observed and held as follows. The true test of AEs is control by one enterprise over the other, or control of two or more AEs by common persons. Essentially, such control is effective control in decision making. The CBU is wholly dependent on the use of trademarks in which the taxpayer has exclusive rights. Hence, this relationship meets the test of de facto control of decision making as set out in section 92A(2)(g). The taxpayer, in turn, is controlled by way of capital participation by Diageo PLC, which also controls other entities in Diageo Group including those from whom the CBU imported raw materials. Therefore, the CBU, the taxpayer and Diageo Group entities supplying the raw material are all AEs. Since, the costs of all raw materials are effectively borne by the taxpayer, the transaction is actually between the taxpayer and the Diageo Group entities. Since the taxpayer as well as the CBU is under the control of Diageo PLC, the transactions are between AEs.

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ADIT v. Star Cruise India Travel Services (P) Ltd. (2011) 12 taxmann.com 242 (Mum.) Sections 5 & 9 of Income-tax Act A.Y.: 2006-07. Dated: 22-7-2011

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Even if a non-resident had a business connection in India, no income can be deemed to have accrued or arisen in India if no business operations were carried on in India.

Facts
Star Group operates, manages and charters cruises. Star Cruise Management Limited is a company registered in Isle of Man (‘Star Isle of Man’). Star Isle of Man was providing sales, marketing and promotional services for Star Group cruises. Star Isle of man appointed Star Cruise India Travel Services Pvt. Ltd. (‘taxpayer’) as its canvasser in India for canvassing business. Taxpayer was responsible to remit all monies received by it to Star Isle of Man without any deduction and to advise Star Isle of Man on all relevant laws and regulations. Star Isle of Man was to pay 3% of the net cruise charges as retainer fees to the taxpayer.

While making assessment, the AO held that Star Isle of Man had a ‘business connection’ in India through the taxpayer. Consequently, in terms of section 9(1) (i) read with section 5(2)(i), Star Isle of Man was taxable in India. The AO relied on CIT v. R. D. Aggarwal & Co., (1965) 56 ITR 20 (SC) and Anglo-French Textile Company Ltd. v. CIT, (1953) 23 ITR 101 (SC). Based on certain assumptions, the AO determined 5% of the net cruise charges as income of Star Isle of Man.

In appeal, the CIT(A) held that the services rendered by the taxpayer were general in nature and they could not be interpreted to constitute ‘business connection’ u/s.9(1)(i) and concluded that Star Isle of Man had no tax liability in India.

Held
The Tribunal observed and held as follows. As per the source rule of taxation the income is taxed in the jurisdiction in which it is earned. However, the Income-tax Act also covers income which is deemed to accrue or arise in India if a non-resident has a ‘business connection’ in India. However, even under such situation, tax in India can never exceed beyond income attributable to operations carried out in India. Thus, where a non-resident has a business connection through an agent, and the agent is fully compensated for his services, no further income of non-resident can be taxed u/s.9(1)(i) r.w.s 5(2)(b).

Supreme Court decision in R. D. Aggarwal & Co. supports that for business connection trigger, a greater nexus of operation in taxable territories with core operations of business is essential. Further, the Supreme Court held that the scope of ‘business connection’ does not cover mere canvassing for business by an agent.

Since Star Isle of Man had no tax liability in India, the taxpayer had no obligation to deduct tax u/s.195.

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Exemption of R&D Cess to Consulting Engineer & Holder of the Intellectual Property right — Notification Nos. 46/2011-ST & 47/2011-ST both, dated 19-9-2011.

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As per existing Notification No. 18/2002, dated 16-12-2002 service tax on ‘Consulting Engineer Service’ and as per existing Notification No. 17/2004, dated 10-9-2004 service tax on ‘Intellectual Property Service’ are exempted to the extent of R&D Cess payable under Research & Development Cess Act, 1986.

These existing Notifications are now amended by the Notification No. 46/2011 & 47/2011, respectively to reduce service tax to the extent of R & D Cess subject to the fulfilment of the following cumulative conditions :

(a) R&D Cess is paid within 6 months of booking of invoice;
(b) R&D Cess is paid within 6 months of date of credit in books in case of associated companies;
(c) In any case R&D Cess should be paid before payment for the service.

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Exemption to Arbitration services under Legal Consultancy — Notification No. 45/2011 — Service Tax, dated 12-9-2011.

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With effect from 12th September, 2011 services provided by an arbitral Tribunal, in respect of arbitration, falling under item (iii) of sub-clause (zzzzm) of clause (105) of section 65 of the Finance Act, 1994 have been exempted by this Notification.
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Exemption to services provided to stockbrokers extended — Notification No. 44/2011 — Service Tax, dated 9-9-2011.

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Notification No. 31/20009-ST is amended to entitle ‘authorised persons’ to claim exemption in relation to services provided to stock-brokers in relation to sale or purchase of securities listed on registered stock exchange as presently available to the sub-brokers.
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Periodicity of Returns — Powers with Commissioner — Notification No. VAT 1511/CR 84/Taxation-1, dated 13-9-2011.

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By this Notification, Rule 17 for Submission of VAT Returns has been amended conferring powers upon the Commissioner inter alia to decide periodicity of filing of returns that is monthly, quarterly or half-yearly for every year and in respect of every dealer which will be final and will be displayed on the website. To determine the same the Commissioner may apply principles laid down in Rule 17(4).
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A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 25, dated 23-9-2011 — External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) for the Infrastructure Sector — Liberalisation.

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Presently, repayment of existing Rupee loans is not a permissible end-use for ECB.

This Circular permits, under the Approval Route, Indian companies in the infrastructure sector, to utilise 25% of the fresh ECB raised by them towards refinancing of the Rupee loan(s) availed by them from the domestic banking system, subject to the following conditions:

(i) At least 75% of the fresh ECB proposed to be raised must be utilised for capital expenditure towards a ‘new infrastructure’ project(s), where ‘infrastructure’ is as defined in terms of the extant guidelines on ECB.

(ii) In respect of remaining 25%, the refinance shall only be utilised for repayment of the Rupee loan availed of for ‘capital expenditure’ of earlier completed infrastructure project(s); and

(iii) The refinance shall be utilised only for the Rupee loans which are outstanding in the books of the financing bank concerned.

Companies desirous of availing such ECBs may submit their applications in Form ECB through their designated Authorised Dealer bank with the following documents:

(i) Details of the project(s) completed duly certified by the designated AD Category I bank;

(ii) Certificate from the Statutory Auditor as well as from the domestic lender bank(s) regarding the utilisation of Rupee term loans with respect to ‘capital expenditure’ for the completed infrastructure project(s);

(iii) Certificate from the designated Authorised Dealer bank mentioning the outstanding Rupee loans; and

(iv) Details of the proposed end-use of the new infrastructure project.

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Appeals to the Appellate Tribunal, High Court and Supreme Court — Circular laying down monetary limit not to apply ipso facto.

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[CIT v. Surya Herbal Ltd., SLP (CC) No. 13694 of 2011 dated 29-8-2011]

By an Instruction No. 3/2011 [F. No. 279/Misc. 142/2007-IT] dated 9-2-2011, the Central Board of Direct Taxes specified the monetary limits and other conditions for filing departmental appeals (in income-tax matters) before the Appellate Tribunal, High Courts and Supreme Court were specified as under:

As per the instructions, the appeals should not be filed in cases where the tax effect does not exceed the monetary limits given hereunder:

Sr. No. Appeals in income-tax matters Monetary limit (in Rs.)
1. Appeal before Appellate Tribunal 3,00,000
2. Appeal u/s.260A before High Court 10,00,000
3. Appeal before Supreme Court 25,00,000

It was clarified that an appeal should not be filed merely because the tax effect in a case exceeds the monetary limits prescribed above. Filing of appeal in such cases should to be decided on merits of the case.

Paragraph 5 of the said Circular read as under:

5. “The Assessing Officer shall calculate the tax effect separately for every assessment year in respect of the disputed issues in the case of every assessee. If, in the case of an assessee, the disputed issues arise in more than one assessment year, appeal can be filed in respect of such assessment year or years in which the tax effect in respect of the disputed issues exceeds the monetary limit specified in para 3. No appeal shall be filed in respect of an assessment year or years in which the tax effect is less than the monetary limit specified in para 3. In other words, henceforth, appeals can be filed only with reference to the tax effect in the relevant assessment year. However, in case of a composite order of any High Court or Appellate Authority, which involves more than one assessment year and common issues in more than one assessment year, appeal shall be filed in respect of all such assessment years even if the ‘tax effect’ is less than the prescribed monetary limits in any of the year(s), if it is decided to file appeal in respect of the year(s) in which ‘tax effect’ exceeds the monetary limit prescribed. In case where a composite order/judgment involves more than one assessee, each assessee shall be dealt with separately.”

The Delhi High Court by its order dated 21st February, 2011 passed in ITXA No. 379 of 2011, dismissed the Revenue’s appeal for the reason that the tax effect was less than Rs.10 lakh.

On an appeal against the order of the Delhi High Court, the Supreme Court gave liberty to the Department to move the High Court pointing out that the Circular dated 9th February, 2011, should not be applied ipso facto, particularly, when the matter has a cascading effect. The Supreme Court held that there are cases under the Income-tax Act, 1961, in which a common principle may be involved in subsequent group of matters or large number of matters. The Supreme Court was of the view, that in such cases if attention of the High Court was drawn, the High Court would not apply the Circular ipso facto. For that purpose, liberty was granted to the Department to move the High Court in two weeks. The special leave petition was, accordingly, disposed of.

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(2011) 23 STR 625 (Tri-Chennai) Commissioner Central Excise, Trichy v. IOC Ltd.

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Case of amalgamation — The amalgamating company has paid service tax on the services rendered by the amalgamated company — During the period from the date of making an application till the date of order of amalgamation — Amalgamated Company claimed refund for the same — Held, such claim of refund valid.

Facts
In the given case, an amalgamation involving IOCL (holding company) and IBP (subsidiary company) took place as per order of the Petroleum Ministry dated 30-4-2007 with retrospective effect from 1-4-2004. IOCL claimed refund of service tax which IBP had paid in respect of storage and warehouse charges rendered by IOCL during 1-4-2004 to 30-4- 2007 considering that during the said period services were rendered to oneself in terms of amalgamation with retrospective effect. The rejected claim was allowed by the Commissioner (Appeals).

Held
IBP ceased to exist as a separate legal entity w.e.f. 1-4-2004 even though the order was dated 30-4-2007. The transaction between IOCL and IBP could not be treated as one between a service provider and service recipient. IOCL was held entitled to refund of service tax paid by IBP.

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(2011) 23 STR 608 (Tri.-LB) Aggarwal Colour Advance Photo System v. CCEx., Bhopal.

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Valuation — Cost of paper, chemical, etc. — All such costs incurred for which payment is received is includible for levy of service tax — Agreement between parties cannot affect tax incidence — Only goods sold separately are excludible as per Notification No. 12/2003.

Facts
The main questions to be considered by the Tribunal were:

Whether value of photography service was to include cost of goods, materials used/consumed?

Whether the exemption mentioned as per Notification No. 12/2003, dated 20-6-2003 was applicable in this case?

The appellant claimed that if the value of the goods used for providing photography service was ascertainable, the same should be excluded while determining service tax liability, since the Finance Act, 1994 taxes only taxable services. The Revenue claimed that the demand of service tax raised against the assessee was based on the amount as shown in the invoices. Unless there was documentary evidence in respect of goods sold while providing such service, the appellant cannot allege that tax is levied on such goods as well. Photography service being a pure service contract, there would be no contract for sale of goods unless an agreement brought such provisions to the notice of the Department about distinct sale, the consideration received in exchange for providing photo-graphy service would be the value chargeable to tax. The value of all goods and materials consumed for providing such service being inseparably and integrally connected to such service making the provision of such service possible, must form part of value of taxable service. The only deduction can be the value of unexposed film, if any, sold.

Held
Service tax being a destination-based tax, all elements of cost making the service consumable up to the destination contribute to the value of such tax. In case of photography service, it was held that the cost of materials and goods used are integral and indispensable to the provision of service and thus are to be included for the purpose of valuation of such service. Notification No. 12/2003 S.T. exempts goods which are separately sold by the service provider while providing such service and the same does not include deemed sale.

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(2011) 23 STR 593 (Tri.-Kolkata) National Building Construction Corp. Ltd. v. CCEx. & ST, Patna.

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Sub-contracting — Business auxiliary services — Margins retained by main contractor cannot be considered to be consideration towards supervisory services rendered to sub contractors — Sub-contractors cannot be said to be rendering services to the principal on behalf of the main contractor. Facts National Building Construction Corp. Ltd. (‘NBCC’) entered into a contract with M/s. NTPC to undertake site preparation, site levelling works. NBCC in turn entered into a contract with M/s. APR Constructions Ltd. (‘APR’) and M/s. Sri Avantika Constructions (SAC). NBCC supervised the work done by APR and SAC as per the specifications given by NTPC. The Department demanded service tax along with interest and penalty from sub-contactors — APR as well as SAC holding that they had rendered business auxiliary services to NTPC on behalf of NBCC. The Department also demanded tax from NBCC on the ground that the margins earned by them were towards business auxiliary services (supervision) rendered to sub-contractors. The sub-contractors claimed that as per the Circular dated 14-7-1997, sub-contractors were not liable to pay service tax. APR and SAC had not rendered any services to NTPC and they did not receive any payments from NTPC directly. They were undertaking site formation activities and to treat that as business auxiliary service was absurd. It was also claimed by NBCC that just because they supervised the work, it could not be said that they rendered any services to the sub-contractors. The Revenue claimed that the Circular dated 14-7-1997 was over-ruled by another Circular dated 23-8-2007, which clearly stated that both the main contractor and the sub-contractor were liable to pay service tax. Held The supervision work was to ensure that the work was carried out as per the instructions of NTPC and thus, it cannot be said that NBCC rendered any services to the sub-contractors. The sub-contractors were rendering site formation service to NBCC and not business auxiliary services. Demands were set aside.
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(2011) 23 STR 467 (Tri.-Delhi) Kanoria Sugar & General Mfg. Co. Ltd. v. CCEx., Allahabad.

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Appeal for waiver of penalty on the sole ground of financial problems held invalid.

Facts Penalty u/s.76 was levied against the appellants in respect of the delay in payment of service tax on GTA services. The appellants claimed that the delay in payment of service tax was on account of financial problems. The respondents claimed that the penalty can be waived only if the delay is caused on account of the reasons mentioned u/s. 80 which are not present in the case.

Held
Except financial problems, no other reason was offered by the appellants. The reason of financial difficulty is not a valid reason for waiver of penalty u/s.80.

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(2011) 23 STR 444 (Kar.) — CCEx. Bangalore- III v. Stanzen Toyotetsu India (P) Ltd.

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CENVAT credit — Services used by employees — Allowable if used for the business.

Facts
The appellant provided to the employees working in their factory canteen service (outdoor catering service), rent-a-cab service, group insurance health policy (insurance service) and claimed service tax paid thereon as CENVAT credit.

The Revenue disputed this claim and treated it as wrong utilisation of credit on the ground that the facilities provided were no way related to the manufacture of goods. According to the party, all the 3 services provided were within the definition of input services as per Rule 2(I) of CCR, 2004 and the services were used indirectly in relation to the manufacture of final products.

Held
Only by reason that the above-mentioned services are not contained in the definition of input service, the assessee could not be denied credit. Rent-a-cab service was used to bring the employees to the place of work to carry out manufacturing activities and thus could be treated as input service. Service tax was paid on canteen service irrespective of the fact that whether the food provided was subsidised or not. The cost of the food would thus form part of the cost of production and thus credit on such amount could be claimed. The group health insurance policy was taken to protect the interest of the employees either during the course of journey to the factory or while working in the factory. In such a case, the amount of premium was also to be considered by the manufacturer while fixing the price of the goods manufactured. The assessee was thus entitled to CENVAT credit.

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(2011) 23 STR 582 (All.) Triveni Glass Ltd. v. CCEx., Allahabad.

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Improper service of summons/decisions/orders — The provisions to be construed strictly in relation to the rights of the remedy.

Facts
The appellant claimed that the order was not served on them. The only proof of service available with the respondent was a noting made by an employee of the Department. The Commissioner (Appeals) as well as the Tribunal did not notice the discrepancy in the number of the order which had been served, nor did they provide any clarification regarding the same. The Department failed to prove that they had served the order as per the provisions of section 37C of the Central Excise Act, 1944.

Held
The respondent failed to serve the order as per the provisions of the law. As a result, the claim of the appellant was held valid and thus, the Commissioner (Appeals) was directed to hear the appeal on merits. When the matter arises as to the right of a party in the form of extinguishment of remedy of an appeal, then such provision has to be interpreted strictly even if the same is procedural.

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Penalty u/s.61(2) for late filing of VAT Audit Report vis-à-vis discretion of the authorities

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Introduction
Under the Maharashtra Value Added Tax Act, 2002, one of the distinguishing features is that the dealers, having turnover more than prescribed limit, are required to get VAT Audit report from a Chartered/ Cost Accountant. This report is in Form 704 and is required to be filed within the stipulated time. The normal time is 10 months from the end of the relevant financial year, though, in the past, extensions were given on administrative ground. In any case, if there is delay after the due date, penalty is provided u/s.61(2), for such delayed filing of report. The said section is reproduced below for ready reference.

“(2) If any dealer liable to get his accounts audited under subsection (1) fails to furnish a copy of such report within the time as aforesaid. The Commissioner may, after giving the dealer a reasonable opportunity of being heard, impose on him, in addition to any tax payable, a sum by way of penalty equal to one-tenth per cent, of the total sales.

Provided that, if the dealer fails to furnish a copy or such report within the period prescribed under sub-section (1), but files it within one month of the end of the said period, and the dealer proves to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the delay was on account of factors beyond his control, then no penalty under this sub-section shall be imposed on him.”

Thus, the law provides for a steep penalty for delayed filing of VAT Audit Report. As per proviso delay up to one month, with reasonable cause, can be condoned.

Case of Nitco Paints Ltd. (42 VST 71) (Bom.)

One of the issues dealt with by the Bombay High Court in this case was that the authorities have discretion as to levy or not to levy penalty even if the delay is beyond one month, if there is reasonable cause. This gave relief to the dealer in-as-much as even a delay of more than one month can be condoned.

Tribunal judgment in case of Ankit International (VAT SA No. 161 of 2010)
In this case M.S.T. Tribunal was concerned with penalty u/s.61(2) for the year 2006-07. In the original order penalty was levied at Rs.83,013 calculated at 0.1% of the turnover as per limit given in section 61(2). In the first appeal the amount was confirmed. In second appeal Tribunal considered the facts of the case and reduced the penalty by 70% and confirmed the same at 30%.

The Sales Tax Department filed appeal before the Bombay High Court challenging the above order of the Tribunal on the ground that there is no authority with the Tribunal to reduce the amount. The argument of the Department was that there is discretion to levy or not to levy penalty depending upon the facts of the case, but if the authority decides to levy penalty, then there is no discretion about amount of the penalty. In other words, the argument was that once the authority decides to levy the penalty, then the amount is fixed, it should be calculated at 0.1% of the turnover of sales. The language used for determining the amount was relied upon along with judgment of the Supreme Court in case of Union of India v. Dharmendra Textile Processors, (18 VST 180) (SC).

Judgment of Bombay High Court in case of Ankit International (STA No. 9 of 2011, dated 15-9-2011)

The High Court has decided the issue about discretion of amount, vide judgment as above. The High Court considered the judgments cited by the Department. However, the High Court observed that there is difference in the language of the provision. In section 61(2), the words used are ‘may’. If the words used are ‘shall’ it will have different connotation. The High Court also considered the harsh effect of the above provision and further observed that two views are possible from the language of section 61(2). The High Court observed as under:

“13. Having therefore, considered the submission which has been urged on behalf of the appellant, we are of the view that there is no reason to accept the contention that the discretion which is conferred by section 61(2) does not extend also to the quantum of the penalty. Under the substantive part of s.s (2) of section 61 the State Legislature has conferred discretion on the Commissioner before he imposes a penalty on the dealer for failing to furnish a copy of the audited report within the prescribed period. The proviso to s.s (2) states that if the dealer fails to furnish a copy of the said report within the prescribed period, but files it within one month of the end of the period, and the dealer proves to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the delay was on account of factors beyond his control, then no penalty under this sub-section shall be imposed upon him. Hence, in the circumstances set out that the proviso to s.s (2), no penalty can be imposed at all if the conditions therein are fulfilled. The proviso operates when (i) the dealer fails to furnish a copy of the report within the prescribed period, but files it within one month of the end of the period; (ii) the dealer proves to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that the delay was for reasons beyond his control. Where the proviso applies, no penalty can be imposed on the dealer at all. The proviso is an exception and does not control the substantive part of section 61(2). The substantive part of s.s (2) of section 61 also confers discretion upon the Commissioner which is not diluted by the proviso to s.s (2).

14. In any event, we are of the view that if two views in regard to the interpretation of section 61(2) are possible, the Court would be justified in adopting that construction which favours the assessee. (See decisions of the Supreme Court in The Commissioner of Income Tax v. Vegetable Product Ltd. 10 and Mauri Yeast India Pvt. Ltd. v. State of U.P.)”

Accordingly the High Court confirmed order of the Tribunal reducing penalty and held that the authorities have discretion regarding the amount penalty as were.

Conclusion

Any penal provision is for creating a deterrent effect. However, if the amounts determined are very high, it creates a difficult situation for the dealers. If in case of technical delays also the amount remains fixed and even when a dealer may not be liable to pay any tax amount, he will be lailable to pay such high amount of penalty for delay in submitting VAT Audit Report. This is not the expected result of section 61(2) of the MVAT Act. Therefore, the above judgment will give much desired relief to the dealer community and now quantum of penalty will depend upon the facts and gravity of the offence.
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TAXATION OF SERVICES BASED ON A NEGATIVE LIST

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Background
Service tax was first introduced through the Union Budget for the year 1994-95. With a modest beginning, the scope and coverage has been substantially expanded and presently around 120 services are covered within the ambit of service tax, covering most of the important services which are taxed internationally.

While presenting the Union Budget for 2011-12, the Finance Minister proposed as under:

“Many experts have argued that it will be desirable to tax services based on a small negative list, so that many untapped sectors are brought into the tax net. Such an approach will be very conducive for a nationwide GST. I propose to initiate an informed public debate on the subject to help us finalise the approach to GST.”

Pursuant to the aforesaid announcement, a public debate on widening the tax base by introducing a negative list of services has been initiated by the Government, through the release of a draft concept paper inviting comments/suggestions from the affected parties.

Revenue implications

Relevant extracts from the draft concept paper are set out below for ready reference:

Para 9.1

It is well known that nearly 57% of India GDP comes from services. After including construction, the contribution from services will come to about 63%. At current prices the contribution from services during 2010-11 comes to about Rs.50 lakh crore.

Para 9.2

The national income statistics do not capture the break-up of the service sector in the manner it is being taxed or sought to be taxed. However some broad indications are available of the contribution of services from certain sectors. Based on these indications contribution from services that are proposed to be kept in the negative list e.g., trading of goods, transportation of passengers, education and health sectors as also portions of construction, real estate and financial sectors can be estimated. In addition to exclusions by way of negative list, export of services valued at about nearly US$ 130 billion at present will also remain exempt. The import of services meant for direct consumptions by individuals are at present not largely subjected to tax. Remaining services from abroad may not make any major net contribution to tax being available for credit set-off.

Para 9.3

On a rough estimate nearly 40% of the total services will come into the tax net as a result of the proposed negative list. However, a large part of the informal sector would also remain outside the tax net due to the threshold exemption. This would leave only about 60% of the sector not covered by negative list actually available for tax payment. Thus the potential for effective taxation of services may be confined to about 20-25% of the service sector contribution. This is still a sizable number and will add significant numbers to the revenue, though it may not sound astounding as some sections believe it to be.

Shortcomings in the present service tax law

Despite the fact that service tax fetches a revenue in excess of Rs.70,000 crore to the Central Government, service tax law suffers from significant shortcomings, more important of which are as under:

Unlike Central Excise law which clearly defines the basic concept of ‘manufacture’, there is no definition of ‘service’ under the Finance Act, 1994 (‘Act’). Each of the 120 services which are liable to service tax are specified and defined u/s.65(105) of the Act. Taxable services are defined employing a very wide terminology. In the absence of a detailed Tariff (like Central Excise/ Customs) with Interpretative Notes, a large number of interpretation issues have arisen as to the coverage of services liable to service tax, resulting in extensive litigations.

The definitions in regard to each taxable service u/s.65(105) of the Act have been introduced at different points of time. Further, amendments have been made in the scope of definition within a service category from time to time. This has resulted in classification issues as regards date of applicability of levy and coverage under specific exemption Notifications;

A large number of exemption Notifications have been issued over the years, resulting in interpretation issues and disputes between the Department and the taxpayers; and

Issues of overlapping vis-à-vis other indirect taxes like State VAT, Central Excise, etc. resulting in double taxation and consequent increased burden to the end consumer.

The above shortcomings need to be satisfactorily addressed in the proposed service tax policy framework.

Case being made against Negative List approach:

The draft concept paper in paras 2, 3 and 4 highlights in detail the issues surrounding the positive and negative lists. While it does accept that the currently existing positive list has certain advantages in terms of definitiveness, it seeks to justify the introduction of the negative list by citing certain limitations of the current mechanism of positive list. According to one school of thinking most of the said limitations can be either removed even in positive list approach or are so inherent that they would continue even in the negative list approach. The same is explained in Table 1

Selective Approach vis- à-vis Comprehensive Approach (Positive List v. Negative List)
The Govind Rao Committee, which was appointed by the Government to deliberate in detail on taxation of services, has observed as under:
The tax which has been imposed on a taxable service which is defined to mean renting of immovable property is a tax on lands and buildings within the meaning of Entry 49 of List II of the Seventh Schedule.

Para 2.6
“The limited experience gained in taxing the services on a selective basis has raised some important issues. The most important of them relates to the basic approach to taxing services. The selective approach to taxation, which has been followed till now, has given rise to many administrative problems arising from selectivity including inadequate coverage and increased litigation, Further, in accordance with the medium-term policy objective of the Government of evolving a manufacturing stage value added tax in respect of goods and services at central level, it is neces-sary to adopt a more general approach.”

Considering the serious shortcomings in the presently adopted selective approach (Positive List) to tax services and the prevailing international practices as regards taxation of services, according to a second school of thinking which is being supported by trade bodies/professional bodies across the country comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services may be desirable, more particularly in order to avoid breaking of chain and also to ensure wider coverage from the perspective of proposed GST regime.

However, a serious note of caution is advised while moving towards comprehensive approach (Negative List), keeping in mind that a substantial portion of our economy exists in the form of a large unorganised sector scattered in the different parts of the country and the possible adverse impact on the aam aadmi. Hence, it is essential that the likely con-sequences of adopting a comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services are appropriately dealt with.

Introduction of Comprehensive Approach (Negative List)
Introduction should be only with GST to avoid overlaps with State levies

Considering the substantive nature of the proposed legislative amendment which spells out a significant policy perspective of the Government and which is likely to have far-reaching implications, comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services should be introduced only as a part of GST Regime, which is being looked upon as the biggest indirect taxation reform in our country post independence.

While mutual overlaps between central levies have been resolved to a large extent, several overlaps remain due to the lack of coordination and uniformity in the approach to indirect taxation by the Centre and the States. GST, in creating a dual but uniform levy on goods and services simultaneously by the Centre and States is expected to resolve many of these issues. The definition of the term ‘service’ has been set out in such broad terms in the draft concept paper that the potential for overlap with the existing State levies (and certain central levies) is very high. Hence, until the State levies are synchronised with the Central levies (which will only happen upon the transition to GST) the introduction of a negative list may be a step in the wrong direction.

In case of introduction of Negative List prior to GST, public debate on amendments in affected legislations necessary
Alternatively, if the comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax service is to be put in place prior to the introduction of GST Regime, a Comprehensive Concept Paper along with drafts of amended legislations likely to be impacted should also be placed for public debate and response by the affected parties so as to fully understand the implications in totality.

An illustrative list of rules/regulations which could be impacted are as under:

  •     Service Tax Rules, 1994
  •     CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004
  •     Criteria-based Export of Services Rules, 2005
  •     Criteria-based Taxation of Services (Provided from Outside India and Received in India) Rules, 2006
  •     Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006
  •     Works Contract (Composition Scheme for Payment of Service Tax) Rules, 2007

    Point of Taxation Rules, 2011

  •     Service-specific exemption Notifications issued from time to time granting exemptions/abatements either fully or partially

In relation to the aforesaid, it should be ensured that the existing substantive and established principles are continued upon in the negative list approach as well.

Time for preparation
Introduction of a comprehensive approach (Negative List) of taxing services with several consequential amendments in existing rules & regulations will undoubtedly require businesses to make innumerable changes in their current IT systems, processes, documentation, record management, etc. Therefore, businesses should be given a minimum of 6 months’ time after all the legislative amendments (including the Rules referred to above) are announced, but before they are made effective.

Important issues requiring consideration before adopting comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services
While moving towards comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services, the important and significant aspects which need to be considered are set out below.

Definition of ‘Service’
The term ‘service’ needs to be appropriately defined whereby the shortcomings of the present service tax law are taken care of and at the same time unintended transactions do not get taxed by ensuring the following, in particular:

  •     The terminology in definition employing words such as ‘anything’ should be done away with so as to minimise interpretation issues.

  •     In line with prevalent international practices, the scope of ‘service’ should explicitly cover only those transactions which are carried out with a commercial/economic objective & intent.

  •     In the absence of harmonious approach be-tween the Centre and States at present, there are already instances of various transactions like supply of software, enjoyment of IPR, franchise, recharge vouchers for telecommunication services and DTH services, etc. which are currently treated by the Centre as services liable to service tax and by States as sale of ‘goods’/ ‘deemed sale of goods’ liable to VAT. Once the term ‘service’ is defined for the purpose of taxing services based on a negative list and if there is no consensus between the Centre and States on such definition, instances of dual taxation of various transactions, both by Centre and States, will only increase. Therefore, approval of all the States governments should also be taken on the definition of the term ‘service’ to be adopted by the Centre. In order that the end beneficiary (aam aadmi) is not burdened by cascading effect of dual taxation, it should be ensured that services which are liable to service tax by the Centre do not also suffer VAT under the State VAT Laws.

  •     Transactions which are in the nature of ‘self-supply’ within a legal entity are excluded.

  •     Transactions which are per se not in the nature of ‘service’ (e.g., donations/voluntary contributions, gifts, subsidies/grants, security deposits, damages and compensations, etc.) should be kept out of service tax.

  •     Transactions arising from shifting or transfer of factory/premises on account of change in ownership or on account of sale, merger, de-merger, amalgamation, lease, conversion to LLP, transfer to joint venture or any other mode of business reorganisation with specific provision for transfer of liabilities of such factory/premises/business to the transferee should be excluded from the purview of ‘service’.

l Exclude activities that are specifically notified from time to time for exemption/exclusion from the levy of service tax.

Threshold exemption

Under the comprehensive approach (Negative List) to tax services, a large section of the country’s unorganised economy is likely to get covered under the service tax, which could have adverse impact on the aam aadmi. In order to ensure that a large number of small taxpayers are kept out and administration efforts of the Government are focussed on large taxpayers the following is suggested:

  •     A high threshold limit in the range of Rs.50 lakh (on an optional basis) should be prescribed.

  •     Alternatively, a simple composition scheme of taxation (with no CENVAT benefit), may be prescribed for small taxpayers where taxable value of services exceeds a specified amount during a financial year.

Input services eligible for CENVAT credit
It is an established cardinal principle of any VAT/ GST system prevalent worldwide that taxes paid on all services availed for the purpose of business are eligible for input tax credit. If services are to be taxed comprehensively, there cannot be any justification for breaking the input tax credit chain. Hence, simultaneously with introduction of negative list of services, definition of ‘input service’ under the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 must be amended, whereby all services availed for the purpose of business qualify as input services eligible for CENVAT credit.

Zero-rated services

  •     There are certain key sectors (Refer to Table 2) of our economy, which need to be specified as ‘Zero-rated Services’ (i.e., while there would be no output tax payable, benefit of input tax credit would be available, through a refund mechanism).

  •     In order to avoid issues and disputes as to classification and consequential eligibility to benefit, coverage of services should be clearly defined with detailed Interpretative Notes on lines with Central Excise/Customs Tariff.

Negative List of services

  •     The Government has identified certain services (Refer Table 3 below) to be kept out of the service tax. In case of such services, benefit of CENVAT credit would not be available to the service provider. The following services should be considered for inclusion/wider coverage in the negative list.

  •     In order to avoid issues and disputes as to classification and consequential eligibility to benefit, coverage of services should be clearly defined with detailed interpretative notes on lines with Central Excise/Customs Tariff.

Tax deduction at source.

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Tax deduction at source on the deposits in banks in the name of the Registrar/Prothonotary and Senior Master attached to the Supreme Court/ High Court, etc. during the pendency of litigation or claim/compensation — Circular No. 8 of 2011 [F.No. 275/30/2011-IT(B)], dated 14th October, 2011 — Copy available for download on www. bcasonline.org
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Tax Accounting Standards.

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The CBDT has released a discussion paper on Tax Accounting Standards for inviting comments/suggestions from all the stake-holders.

Copy of the discussion paper is available for download on www.bcasonline.org

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Notification No. 56 (F.No. 133/48/2011), dated 17-10-2011 — Income-tax (7th Amendment) Rules, 2011 to amend Rule 114 w.e.f. 1st November, 2011.

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As per the amendment, PAN application shall be made by following persons in Form 49AA:

(a) Individual not being a citizen of India
(b) LLP registered outside India
(c) Company registered outside India
(d) Firm formed or registered outside India
(e) Association of persons (trust) formed outside India
(f) Association of persons (other than trust) or body of individuals or local authority or artificial juridical person formed or any other entity by whatever name called registered outside India.

The amended Rule also prescribes various documents that are to be furnished along with the form as proof of identity and address.

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B. V. Kodre (HUF) v. ITO ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Pune Before I. C. Sudhir (JM) and D. Karunakara Rao (AM) ITA Nos. 834/PN/2008 A.Y.: 2004-05. Decided on: 4-10-2011. Counsel for assessee/revenue: D. Y. Pandit/ Ann Kapthuama

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Section 2(47)(v) — Since the assessee had not received full consideration nor handed over possession of the property, capital gains cannot be assessed in the year of execution of the development agreement.

Facts:
The assessee, B. V. Kodre (HUF), entered into a development agreement on 26-6-2003 with M/s. Deepganga Associates, whereby the HUF gave rights of development of an agricultural land to M/s. Deepganga Associates. The development agreement was stamped under Article 5(ga) of Schedule I of the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958. Under the said article stamp duty was leviable @ 1%. The said article applied if possession of the property was not handed over. In cases where possession of property is handed over, the instrument would be covered by Article 25 and the stamp duty leviable would be 5%. Clause 10 of the agreement provided that possession would be given to the developer on receipt of full payment of consideration. Of the total consideration of Rs.60 lakhs the amount of Rs.38,48,150 was given by the developers to the assessee.

The assessee submitted that since it has not handed over possession of the property and also entire consideration has not been received, there was no transfer. Mere registration of development agreement does not give rise to a transfer. It was contended that since there was no transfer, capital gain is not chargeable to tax in the year under consideration. The AO did not agree with the contentions of the assessee. He noted that transfer u/s.2(47)(v) is wider than that as per the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. He noted that clause 5 of the development agreement allowed the developer to amalgamate, divide, plan and construct. According to him, this indicated that it was a transaction u/s.2(47)(v) of the Act. He charged capital gain to tax.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to ITAT where it relied on the ratio of the following decisions:

(a) General Glass Company (P.) Ltd., 14 SOT 32 (Bom.)

(b) ITO v. Smt. Satyawati Devi Verma, (2010) 124 ITD 467 (Del.)

(c) Smt. Raja Rani Devi Ramna v. CIT, (1993) 201 ITR 1032 (Pat.) Held: The Tribunal noted that it has not been rebutted by the Revenue that the development agreement has been stamped under Article 5(ga) of Schedule I of the Bombay Stamp Act and not under Article 25. It also noted that clause 10 of the development agreement provides that property as stated in clause 1 of the agreement will be transferred and the purchase deed will be executed only after the receipt of the payment of entire consideration of Rs.60 lakhs and payment of stamp duty. The Tribunal held that registration is prima facie proof of an intention to transfer but it is no proof of an operative transfer, if there is a condition precedent as to payment of consideration. The transfer u/s.2(47) of the Act must mean any effective conveyance of capital asset to the transferee. Accordingly, where the parties had clearly intended that despite the execution and registration of the sale deed, transfer by way of sale would become effective only on payment of the entire sale consideration, it had to be held that there was no transfer made. Upon considering the ratio of the 3 decisions relied upon by the assessee, the Tribunal observed that the agreement in question does not establish that a transaction of sale of property was completed in terms of provisions of section 2(47)(v) of the Act r.w.s. 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, as neither the sale consideration was paid, nor the possession of the property was handed over to the vendor, and so, the capital gain worked out by the AO and added to the income of the assessee was not justified. The amount received out of the agreed consideration, during the year, at best can be treated as advance towards the agreed consideration of the transaction.

The Tribunal further held that it is an established proposition of the law that the AO is required to make just and proper assessment as per the law based on the merits of the facts of the case before it. Just assessment does not depend as to what is claimed by the assessee, but on proper computation of income deduced based upon the provisions of law. An AO cannot allow the claims of the assessee if the related facts and provisions of law do not approve it and similarly it is also the duty of the AO to allow even those benefits about which the assessee is ignorant but otherwise legally entitled to it.

The facts of the present case are distinguishable from the facts before the Apex Court in the case of Goetze (India) Ltd. v. CIT. In the case before the Apex Court the assessee subsequent to filing of return of income, claimed a deduction by filing a letter. The AO disallowed it on the ground that there was no provision in the Act to allow an amendment in the return without revising it. The action of the AO was upheld. In the present case the question is whether there was a transfer u/s.2(47) of the Act to make an assessee liable to pay capital gains tax. There is no estoppels against proper application of the law.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

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Bennett Coleman & Co. Ltd. v. ACIT ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Special Before D. Manmohan, (VP), R. S. Syal (AM) and T. R. Sood (AM) ITA No. 3013/Mum./2007 A.Y. : 2002-03. Decided on : 30-9-2011 Counsel for assessee Revenue : Arvind Sonde and S. Venkatraman/Pavan Ved

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Section 45 r.w.s. 48 — Reduction in share capital of an investee company — Whether the investor can claim proportionate sum of capital reduced as capital loss — Held, No.

Facts:
The assessee had made an investment of Rs.24.84 crore in equity shares of a group company viz., TGL. Pursuant to a scheme of reduction u/s.100 of the Companies Act, the face value of the said company’s shares was first reduced to Rs.5 from Rs.10 and thereafter two equity shares of Rs.5 each were consolidated into one equity share of Rs.10. The assessee claimed its value of investment in TGL got reduced by half to Rs.12.42 crore and hence, after applying the indexation, a sum of Rs.22.22 crore was claimed as long-term capital loss. For the purpose it relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Kartikeya V. Sarabhai (228 ITR 163) wherein it was held that reduction in face value of shares would amount to transfer, hence, such loss was allowable. According to the AO, the said decision was distinguishable as in that case, the shares involved were non-cumulative preference shares and further in terms of section 87(2)(i) of the Companies Act, 1956, the voting rights of the preference shareholders were also reduced proportionately. He further observed that in the present case the assessee had not received any consideration for reduction in the value of shares, nor any part of the shares had been passed to anyone else. Thus, according to him, there was no change in the rights of the assessee vis-à-vis other shareholders and, therefore, no transfer had taken place and, thus, the assessee was not entitled to the claim of long-term capital loss. On appeal the CIT(A) upheld the action of the Assessing Officer on similar reasoning.

Before the Tribunal the assessee contended that the transaction did amount to a transfer and in support made the following submissions:

ISIN Number, a unique identification number allotted to each security, had changed, meaning thereby that the new shares were different from the old;

old shares had been replaced with the reduced number of new shares, hence, it should be treated as ‘exchange’ of shares which is covered by the definition of ‘transfer’;

as per the decision of the Supreme Court, in the case of Kartikeya V. Sarabhai (228 ITR 163) the definition of transfer given in section 2(47) is an inclusive definition and, inter alia, provides that relinquishment of an asset or extinguishment of any right therein would also amount to transfer of a capital asset;

the principle laid down in the case of CIT v. G. Narsimhan (Decd) and Others, (236 ITR 327) squarely applies since the issue therein was regarding reduction of equity share capital;

as per the Supreme Court in the case of CIT v. Grace Collis & Ors., (248 ITR 323), the expression ‘extinguishment of any right therein’ can be extended to mean extinguishment of right independent of or otherwise than on account of transfer. Thus, even extinguishment of right in a capital asset would amount to transfer and since the assessee’s right got extinguished proportionately, to the reduction of capital, it would amount to transfer.

As regards the absence of consideration, the other ground on which the claim for long-term capital loss was denied by the lower authorities, the assessee contended as under:

In the case of B. C. Srinivasa Setty (128 ITR 294) the proposition was not that if no consideration was received, then no gain can be computed but the proposition was that if any of the element in computation provision could not be ascertained, then computation provision would fail and such gain could not be assessed to capital gains tax. However, in the case of the assessee consideration was ascertainable, in the sense that same should be taken as zero. In this regard he relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Cadell Wvg. Mill Pvt. Ltd. v. CIT, (249 ITR 265).

If the idea was not to subject zero consideration transaction to capital gain tax u/s.45, then there was no need for clause (iii) for gifts in section 47.

The assessee concluded by submitting that during the process of reduction of share capital, transfer had taken place and consideration received by the assessee should be considered as zero and, therefore, capital loss should be allowed.

Held:
According to the Tribunal, in the case of Cadell Wvg. Mill Pvt. Ltd. relied on by the assessee, the Bombay High Court specifically declined to entertain the argument that the cost of tenancy right should be taken at zero because according to it, that would amount to charging of capital value of the asset to tax and not capital gain.

In the case of reduction of capital, the Tribunal noted that nothing moves from the coffers of the company and, therefore, it was a simple case of no consideration which cannot be substituted to zero. It further noted that after the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of B. C. Srinivasa Setty, the Legislature had introduced specific provision wherein cost of acquisition of goodwill was to be taken at nil. Similar amendments were made to specify the cost with reference to trademark, cost of right to manufacture or produce or process any article or thing, etc. Therefore, wherever the Legislature intended to substitute the cost of acquisition at zero, specific amendment has been made. In the absence of such amendment it has to be inferred that in the case of reduction of shares, without any apparent consideration, that too in a situation where the reduction has no effect on the right of shareholder with reference to the intrinsic rights on the company, the cost of acquisition cannot be ascertained and, therefore, the provisions of section 45 would not be applicable. For the purpose it also relied on the decisions in the cases of Mohanbhai Pamabhai and also in the case of Sunil Siddharthbhai.

Further with the help of example, the Tribunal explained that even after reduction of capital, the net worth of the company remained the same and the share of every shareholder also remained the same. There was no change in the intrinsic value of the shares and even the shareholder’s rights vis-àvis other shareholders as well as vis-à-vis company remained the same. There was thus no loss that can be said to have actually accrued to the shareholder as a result of reduction in the share capital. The Tribunal further observed that there would also no change even in the cost of acquisition of shares which the shareholder would be entitled to claim as deduction in computing the gain or loss as and when the said shares are transferred or sold in future as per section 55(v).

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(2011) 60 DTR (Chennai) (TM) (Trib.) 306 Sanghvi & Doshi Enterprise v. ITO A.Ys.: 2005-06 & 2006-07. Dated: 17-6-2011

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Section 80-IB(10) — Deduction is available to the builder even though he is not the owner of the land. Deduction is allowable on pro-rata basis if some flats were having built-up area exceeding 1,500 sq.ft.

Facts:
The assessee firm was engaged in the business of construction. In both assessment years, it derived profits from a housing project which was constructed on a land owned by Hotel Mullai (P) Ltd. (HMPL). The AO considered the agreement entered into between HMPL and the assessee. He observed that HMPL as the owner of the land decided to develop the project for which the assessee was nominated as its builder for construction. Further, the AO observed the fact that possession with the assessee of the land does not amount to possession as a part performance of the contract u/s.53A of the Transfer of Property Act. All permissions were obtained by HMPL, there was no outright purchase of land by the assessee and the assessee had sub-contracted the civil work to someone else. The AO was of the view that development includes many aspects and construction is only one of it. Based on the above facts, he concluded that the assessee is not eligible for deduction u/s.80-IB of the Act.

Besides the above, the AO noticed that certain other conditions were also violated like:

(a) The built-up area of certain flats exceeded the statutory limit of 1,500 sq.ft.

(b) In some cases, two flats were combined to make one unit which was exceeding 1,500 sq.ft.

(c) In one case, the purchaser had an exclusive right over the terrace and if built-up area of terrace included, then it would exceed 1,500 sq.ft.

(d) The project had to be completed on or before 31st March, 2008 and no completion certificate was on records.

The CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO in toto in both the years.

Held:
1. The distinction between a ‘builder’, ‘developer’ and ‘contractor’ is quite blurred. As a matter of fact, different persons often use the expressions interchangeably and according to their own perceptions. The question is not who decided to develop the land, but the question is who actually developed the land. Obviously, since the land is owned by HMPL, permissions have to be in its name only. As per the agreement, the builder has the exclusive right to sell the flats to the persons of his choice. He has the exclusive right to determine the sale price of the flats. He has the exclusive right to collect the entire sales consideration of the flats. Out of the total sales consideration received by him, he has to make over only the cost of undivided share of land to the owner which is fixed at Rs.600 per sq.ft. of the super built-up area. Undoubtedly, HMPL as the owner of the land has ventured to realise the potentialities of the land. It has indeed realised the potentialities, not by developing the land, but by handing over the land for development to the builder. All these facts go to show that it is the builder who is responsible to develop the property, maintain it and satisfy the purchasers.

A distinction needs to be drawn between the expressions ‘developer and builder’ and ‘builder and contractor’. If a person is a contractor, then, his job would be merely to construct the building as per the designs provided by the owner and hand over the constructed building to the owner. Thus, the assessee is not a contractor simpliciter, he is not a builder simpliciter, he is not a developer simpliciter. He is all rolled into one i.e., he is a developer, a builder and also a contractor. Even though the assessee and HMPL are joint developers, the role of the assessee as a developer is greater than the role of HMPL as developer. In the final analysis, the assessee is a builder and a developer entitled to deduction u/s.80-IB(10) subject to fulfilment of other conditions mentioned in the section.

2. Once the flats are sold separately under two separate agreements, the builder has no control unless the joining of the flats entails structural changes. Therefore, it is quite clear that the two flat owners have themselves combined the flats whereby the area has exceeded 1,500 sq.ft. The project as a whole and the assessee cannot be faulted for the same. Moreover, clause (e) and (f) of section 80-IB(10) are effective from 1st April, 2010 and they are not retrospective in operation.

3. The assessee has placed on record the completion certificate issued by the Corporation of Chennai by way of additional evidence. The certificate clearly mentions that the building was inspected on 23rd November, 2007 and that it was found to have satisfied the building permit conditions. However, Chennai Metropolitan Development Authority (CMDA) issued completion certificate on 13th June, 2008 in response to an application by the assessee on 13th March, 2006. When sanction is given normally the sanction would contain a date. In the present case the certificate issued is a completion certificate that is a certificate accepting the claim of the assessee that the project has been completed, i.e., the certificate is issued on an application given by the assessee. The assessee can give an application for completion certificate only when the completion of the project is done. Thus the grant of a completion certificate after verification by the competent authority even on a subsequent date would relate back to the date on which the application is made.

4. The terrace talked about here is not the rooftop terrace. It is the terrace, the access to which is through the flat of the purchaser and which is at the floor level and is the terrace of the immediately lower flat. The regular terrace is considered as part of the common area. The terrace that is sold and that is attached to the flat and which is having exclusive access is separate from the regular terrace. Consequently private terrace is to be considered as part of the builtup area of the flat for computing the built-up area of 1,500 sq.ft.

5. The Accountant Member followed the decision of the judgment of the Calcutta High Court rendered in the case of CIT v. Bengal Ambuja Housing Dev. Ltd. in IT Appeal No. 458 of 2006, dated 5th January, 2007 which was a judgment directly on the issue upholding the view of the Calcutta ‘C’ Bench of the Tribunal that a pro-rata deduction is permissible u/s.80-IB(10) when some flats were having built-up area exceeding 1,500 sq.ft. It was held that proportionate deduction should be allowed u/s.80-IB(10) with a caveat that the built-up area of flats measuring more than 1,500 sq.ft. should not exceed 10% of the total built-up area. The Judicial Member disagreed with the above view and held that no such proportional deduction is allowable following the decision of the Co-ordinate Bench in the case of Viswas Promotors (P) Ltd. Upon difference of opinion among the members regarding the last issue the matter was referred to the Third Member.

The third member was of the view that the Madras High Court had not considered the decision in Viswas Promotors (P) Ltd on merits. The Madras High Court in its writ order has dealt with only the writ application filed by the assessee against the order of the Tribunal dismissing the miscellaneous petition filed by the assessee. The Court has specifically mentioned that the writ petition was misconceived and therefore liable to be dismissed. The Madras High Court has not considered anything concerning the merit of the issue. The judgment of CIT v. Bengal Ambuja Housing Dev. Ltd. was a judgment directly on the issue. As there is no direct decision of the jurisdictional High Court available on the subject, the judgment of the Calcutta High Court was to be followed. The assessee was entitled for deduction u/s.80-IB(10) in respect of flats having built-up area not exceeding 1,500 sq.ft. on proportionate basis.

(2011) TIOL 662 ITAT-Mum. Sureshchandra Agarwal v. ITO & Sushila S. Agarwal v. ITO A.Y.: 2005-2006. Dated: 14-9-2011

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Sections 2(47)(v), 45, 54, — Receipt of full consideration coupled with handing over of possession without execution of a registered sale deed is good enough to treat a transaction as transfer. The amendment made in section 53A by which the requirement of registration has been indirectly brought on the statute need not apply while construing the meaning of the term ‘transfer’ with reference to the Income-tax Act.

Facts:
Each of the two assessees were 50% owners of a flat in a building known as Usha Kunj situated at Juhu, Mumbai which was stated to have been sold on 30-4-2004 for a total consideration of Rs.62,50,000 and share of each assessee was Rs.31,25,000. On this sale, capital gain of Rs.24,93,910 arose to each of the two assessees which capital gain was claimed to be exempt u/s.54 against the purchase of a new flat vide agreement dated 25-6-2003 which agreement was registered on 9-7-2003. The claim for exemption was made on the ground that the new flat was purchased within a period of one year before the date of transfer of the old flat which has been sold. In the course of assessment proceedings the assessee filed copy of agreement dated 23-4- 2004 which agreement was not registered. The AO made inquiry with the purchasers of this flat who filed agreement dated 26-8-2004 which agreement was registered on the same date. Upon inquiry with the society, it was found that the share certificate showed the date of transfer as 27-8-2004.

The assessee contended that simultaneous with the execution of the agreement dated 30-4-2004 the assessee received full consideration and handed over the possession of the flat to the purchasers along with all original documents including the share certificate and the application to the society for transfer of shares in favour of the transferee, application for transfer of electric meter to the name of the transferee and also NOC received from the society. The assessee submitted that there was delay on the part of the purchaser in getting the agreement stamped and subsequently when the agreement was presented for stamping the transferee was informed that some penalty was leviable for delay in presenting the same. The transferees, at this stage, requested the assessees to execute a fresh agreement and in these circumstances an agreement dated 26-8-2004 was executed which agreement was registered.

The AO denied exemption u/s.54 on the ground that after the amendment to section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, the provisions of section 53A apply only to agreements which are registered. Since agreement dated 23-4-2004 was not registered, the date of transfer is not 23-4-2004 but 26-8-2004 and since the date of purchase of new flat is more than one year before 26-8-2004, the assessee was denied exemption u/s.54.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who agreed with the AO and emphasised that since section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act has been amended, therefore, unless and until the agreement was registered, the same would not amount to transfer. He confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal considered the amendment to section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act and held that even after the amendment, it has not been specifically provided that such instrument of transfer is necessarily to be registered. To ascertain the true meaning in the context of clause (v) of section 2(47) the Tribunal considered the Circular No. 495, dated 22-9-1987 explaining the purpose of introduction of clauses (v) and (vi) to section 2(47). Thereafter, it observed that clause (v) in section 2(47) does not lift the definition of part performance from section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act. Rather, it defines any transaction involving allowing of possession of any immovable property to be taken or retained in part performance of a contract of the nature referred to in section 53A of TOPA. This means such transfer is not required to be exactly similar to the one defined u/s.53A of the TOPA, otherwise, the Legislature would have simply stated that transfer would include transactions defined in section 53A of TOPA. But the legislature in its wisdom has used the words ‘of a contract, of the nature referred to in section 53A’. Therefore, it is only the nature which has to be seen. The purpose of insertion of clause (v) was to tax those transactions where properties were being transferred by way of giving possession and receiving full consideration. Therefore, in a case where possession has been given and full consideration received, then such transaction needs to be construed as ‘transfer’. The amendment made in section 53A by which the requirement of registration has been indirectly brought on the statute will not alter the situation for holding the transaction to be a transfer u/s.2(47)(v) if all other ingredients have been satisfied.

Referring to the decisions of the Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Podar Cement P. Ltd., (226 ITR 625) (SC) and Mysore Minerals Ltd. v. CIT, (239 ITR 775) (SC) it held that for the purpose of the Act the ground reality has to be recognised and if all the ingredients of transfer have been completed, then such transfer has to be recognised. Merely because the particular instrument has not been registered will not alter the situation.

The Tribunal held that the transfer deed dated 30- 4-2004 transferred all the rights of the assessee to the transferees and, therefore, this deed should be considered as the deed of transfer. It held the date of transfer for old property has to be reckoned as 30-4-2004 which is well within one year from the date of acquisition of the new property on 25-6- 2003. It held that the assessees are entitled to claim exemption u/s.54 of the Act.

The Tribunal set aside the orders of the CIT(A) and directed the AO to allow exemption u/s.54. Appeals of both the assessees were allowed.

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(2011) TIOL 648 ITAT-Mum. De Beers India Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 5-9-2011

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Sections 35E, 37(1), Matching concept — Only expenses incurred wholly and exclusively for exploring, locating or proving deposits of any minerals and including expenses on operations which prove to be infructuous or abortive are eligible for amortisation u/s.35E — Matching principle cannot restrict the quantum of deduction of expenses by relating the same to quantum of earnings as a result of incurring these expenses.

Facts:
The assessee, engaged in the business of prospecting, exploration and mining activities for diamonds and other minerals as also in the business of providing consultancy in the field of diamond prospecting and other related matters. The assessee filed a return of income declaring a loss of Rs.4,39,48,222. The AO noticed that the assessee has incurred expenditure of Rs.23,64,44,196 mainly on prospecting for minerals in India, commercial production of minerals has not commenced, the assessee has only capitalised Rs.17,04,80,638. He asked the assessee to show cause why the entire expenses should not be treated as capital expenses u/s.35E and be disallowed. The assessee submitted that apart from the expenses capitalised by the assessee, the assessee has suo moto disallowed Rs.1,20,06,438 and to this extent capitalisation of entire expenses will result in double disallowance. It was also submitted that expenses not capitalised are eligible for deduction u/s.37 and include expenses like property expenses, communication expenses, printing and stationery, travelling and conveyance, membership and subscriptions, etc., which expenses are not incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of prospecting. Further, the assessee has also carried consultancy business from which there were receipts of Rs.98,42,810 which receipts have been offered for taxation.

The AO was of the view that any expenditure incurred for the purpose of prospecting eligible minerals is to be capitalised u/s.35E and deduction is to be claimed only when commercial production starts. As regards earning of professional receipts he observed that “even applying the matching concept, it is not possible to accept that there can be expenditure of Rs.5,39,57,120 to earn consultancy income of Rs.98,42,810”. He allowed an ad hoc deduction of 30% for earning the income of Rs.98,42,810. The balance expenditure of Rs.5,10,04,277 was disallowed and treated as capital expenditure eligible for amortisation u/s.35E.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who, on the basis of what he perceived as applicability of matching concept, restricted the deductibility of expenses and upheld the order passed by the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal upon going through the provisions of section 35E and also the CBDT Circular No. 56, dated 19th March, 1971 held that in order to be eligible for amortisation of expenses u/s.35E, the expenses must have been incurred wholly and exclusively for “exploring, locating or proving deposits of any minerals, and includes such operations which prove to be infructuous or abortive”. The Tribunal observed that the AO has proceeded on the basis that since the assessee is, inter alia, engaged in the business of prospecting minerals, all the expenses incurred by the assessee are to be treated as eligible for amortisation u/s.35E, unless he can demonstrate that the expenses are incurred for earning an income which is taxable in the hands of the assessee. The Tribunal held that this is an incorrect approach. The assessee even when he is engaged in the business of prospecting minerals is eligible for amortisation of such expenses as are eligible u/s.35E(2) r.w.s. 35E(5)(a). All other expenses are eligible for deduction as in the normal course of computation of business income.

As regards the restriction of allowability of expenses based on matching concept, the Tribunal held that the application of ‘matching principle’, based on the quantum of earnings, is wholly devoid of any merits. One cannot invoke the matching principle to restrict the deductibility of a part of expenses as a result of the expenses being too high in proportion to quantum of expenditure; it can at best be invoked to spread over the costs over the entire period in which revenues as a result of those costs are generated, such as in deferred revenue expenditure — but even in such cases the restriction on deductibility of expenses have not been upheld by the Co-ordinate Benches as indeed by the Courts. All that the matching principle states is that in measuring net income for an accounting period, the costs incurred in that period should be matched against the revenue generated in the same period, and that where costs result in a benefit over a period beyond one accounting period, the costs should be reasonably spread over the entire period over which the benefits accrue. As far as the position under the Income-tax Act is concerned, as long as expenses are incurred for the purposes of business, even if it turns out to be wholly unprofitable, the same is to be allowed as deduction in computation of business income. By no stretch of logic, matching principle can restrict the quantum of deduction of expenses by relating the same to the quantum of earnings as a result of incurring these expenses. Once the business has commenced, deduction of expenses in respect of that business cannot be declined on the ground that the earnings from consultancy income do not justify such high expenses. This kind of revenue mismatch, which cannot be a ground of disallowing the expenditure in anyway, is a normal commercial practice in the businesses which have long-term perspectives and larger business interests in their consideration.

The Tribunal held that the AO was in error in capitalising the expenses which were not directly attributable to the prospecting of diamonds, as also restricting the deductibility of expenses to 30% of consultancy revenues received by the assessee.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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(2011) TIOL 583 ITAT-Kol. Sushil Kumar Das v. ITO A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 13-5-2011

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Sections 139(1), 148, Circular No. 14(XL-35), dated 11-4-1955 — Income assessed can be lower than the income returned by the assessee — A receipt returned by the assessee can be reduced at the Appellate stage if the same is, in law, not taxable.

Facts:
The assessee retired as a school teacher on 31- 7-1998. He received an amount of Rs.10,92,796 inclusive of interest of Rs.3,29,508. Interest was received by virtue of writ petition filed by the assessee. Since the amount received by the assessee included interest on which tax was deducted at source, the AO issued a notice u/s.148 of the Act upon noticing that income has escaped assessment (since assessee had not filed return of income). The assessee filed return of income returning income of Rs.6,19,392 and claimed relief u/s.89(1) of the Act. The AO restricted the relief u/s.89(1) to Rs.65,817 and assessed the total income at Rs.8,86,500.

The returned income as well as assessed income included interest received as per the order of the High Court. Upon completion of the assessment the assessee came to know that interest received pursuant to the order of the High Court, being non-statutory interest in the form of damages/ compensation, the same is not chargeable to tax. He filed an appeal to the CIT(A) and contended that interest wrongly returned by him be held to be not taxable in view of the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v. Charanjit Jawa, (142 Taxman 101). The CIT(A) rejected the same by stating that the assesse had offered the income in his return and the same cannot be reduced at the Appellate stage.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the moot question was whether the income determined by the AO on the basis of the return filed by the assessee can be a figure lower than the income returned by the assessee. It held that the principle for determining the taxable income of the assessee under the Act should be within the purview of the law in force. If the taxable income determined by the AO is not in accordance with such principle it is open to the assessee raise the contention to before the higher authorities for following the law to determine the actual taxable income of the assessee. The Tribunal held that the lower authorities cannot say that merely because the assessee has returned income which is higher than the income determined in accordance with the legal principles, such returned income can be lawfully assessed. An assessee is liable to pay tax only on his taxable income. The AO cannot assess an amount which is not taxable merely on the ground that the assessee has returned the same as its income. It is always open to the assessee to show before the higher authorities that income though returned as income is not taxable under law.

On merits, the Tribunal held that the case of CIT v. Charanjit Jawa, (supra) supports the view that interest received as a result of the order of the High Court was not a statutory interest and was in the form of damage/compensation and the same was not liable to tax. The Tribunal held that the interest of Rs.2,53,730 received by the assessee as per the order of the High Court was not taxable and the same is a capital receipt. The Tribunal also found support from the Circular issued by the CBDT being Circular No. 14 (XL-35) dated 11-4-1955 which has directed the officers not to take advantage of the ignorance of the assessees. The Tribunal directed the AO to treat the sum of Rs.2,53,730 as capital receipt.

The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

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(2011) 39 VST 387 (P & H) Excise & Taxation Officer v. M/s. T. R. Solvent Oil Pvt. Limited and Another.

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VAT — Rate of tax — Entries in Schedules — Classification — Commodity capable of only single use — User test applicable — De-oiled cake of castor, neem or mahua used only as fertiliser — Covered by entry relating to ‘Organic manure and chemical fertiliser’, Haryana Value Added Tax Act, 2003, Schedule Entry — B-27 and C-6.

Facts
The Sales Tax Officer, Haryana filed writ petition against the decision of the Haryana Sales Tax Tribunal, reversing order of the Commissioner of Sales Tax passed u/s.56(2) of the Act the Tribunal had held that sales of de-oiled cake of castor, neem and mahua is a fertilser and covered by Schedule Entry B-27 and hence as such tax-free.

Held
(1) Schedule Entry B-27 of the Act covers organic manure and chemical fertiliser, whereas Schedule Entry C-6 covers oil-cakes and de-oiled cakes including de-oiled rice bran. A de-oiled cake of castor, neem and mahua is organic manure as it is the offshoot of a living organism, namely, tree-born oil-seeds.

(2) The issue before the Court was whether an item apparently included in a specific wider entry can be held to fall in a more general entry on the ground of its use? Different commodities are classified on the basis of their use and denomination. Generally, a tariff entry is construed by applying common parlance test by considering what sense is to be attributed to an entry in the popular sense by people conversant with the subject-matter. This general principle can be departed from if the context so requires. User test though not determinative of nature of goods is not always ruled out particularly when commodity in question is capable of being put to only one use. Accordingly, the High Court approved the finding of tribunal that items in question will fall under Entry 27 of Schedule B and tax-free.

The High Court dismissed the writ petition filed by the Revenue and confirmed the order of the Tribunal.

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(2011) 39 VST 335 (Mad.) M/s. Diebold Systems (P) Limited v. Additional Commerceial Tax Officer (IAC), Puducherry and Others.

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Change of law — Amendment to section 8(5) of CST Act — Power of State Government — To grant concession from payment of CST — On sales to persons other than registered dealer or government not affected, section 8(5) of Central Sales Tax Act, 1956.

Facts
The dealer engaged in business of sale of IT products effected inter-State sales to persons other than registered dealer and government and charged concessional rate of CST @ 2% as per Notification issued u/s.8(5) of the CST Act by State Government of Pondicherry. The dealer filed writ petition before the High Court against the passing of assessment order under the CST Act, for the years 2003-04, 2004-05 and 2005-06, wherein tax was levied on such inter-State sales of software and other IT products at 10% and at local rate of 12% on sales of air-conditioners. Section 8(5) of the CST Act was amended by the Finance Act, 2002, w.e.f. 11-5-2002 restricting power of the State Government to grant exemption or concession from payment of tax on inter-State sales made to registered dealer or government.

Held
(1) Section 8(5) of the CST Act empowers the State Government to grant exemption or concession from payment of CST on inter-State sales. Section 8(5)(b), contemplates two categories of dealers or persons — (i) registered dealers or government; (ii) any persons or such class of persons as may be specified in the Notification. Therefore the latter category of any persons or any class of person cannot be registered dealer or the government. Certainly they are different and distinct persons and we have to give different meaning to them.

(2) Further, after the amendment to said section 8(5) of the CST Act, similar Notifications are issued by other States, granting exemption or concession from payment of CST on inter-State sales to banks, educational and medical institutions, etc. In view of this, the State Government still has power to issue specified Notification.

The High Court accordingly allowed writ petition filed by the dealer and directed the assessing authorities to consider issues on their own merits without being influenced by observations made by it.

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(2011) 23 STR 661 (Tri.-Mumbai) — Imagination Technologies India Pvt. Ltd. v. CCEx., Pune-III.

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CENVAT credit taken for the input services received prior to registration — Allowable.

Facts
The appellants were provider of software development and support services taxable w.e.f. 16th May, 2008. They got registered from 24th July, 2008. The appellants made a claim for refund in respect of tax on input services paid by them. The claim was rejected on the ground that credit cannot be claimed in respect of input services received prior to registration.

Held
Since there was no provision in the rules which stated that credit shall not be allowed for the period prior to the registration, the appellant was entitled to refund on such amount paid.

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(2011) 129 ITD (Ahd.) Tarika Exports v. ACIT A.Y.: 1994-95. Dated: 30-11-2010

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Section 234A — Taxes paid after the end of the previous year but before the due date of filing of return are to be considered while calculating interest u/s.234A.

Facts:

The Assessing Officer had charged interest u/s.234A, u/s.234B and u/s.234C amounting to Rs.2,64,400, Rs.4,38,592 and Rs.1,31,588, respectively upon a total tax liability of Rs. 34,05,610.

Assessee had paid an amount of Rs.7,61,600 up to the last day of the previous year and further a sum of Rs.25,00,000 after the end of the previous year but before the due date of filing of return and Rs.4,38,592 after the due date of filing of return but before filing return.

However, for the purpose of calculation of interest u/s.234A, the Assessing Officer had treated an amount of Rs.7,61,600 only, that was paid up to 15-3-1994, as advance tax. He ignored the payment of Rs.25,00,000 though the same was paid before the due date of filing of return.

On appeal the Commissioner (Appeals) upheld that taxes paid after the financial year could not be treated as advance tax and therefore cannot be reduced from assessed tax for purpose of calculating interest u/s.234A.

Aggrieved by the decision of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal before the Appellate Tribunal.

Held:
Interest u/s.234A is compensatory in nature and not penal. It aims to compensate the Government for not getting its dues within the time limit provided u/s.139(1).

Therefore, if entire tax amount is paid before the due date of filing of return, though the assessee has delayed in filing the return, no interest is leviable u/s.234A.

The same view was also held by the Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Pranoy Roy & Anr., (309 ITR 231).

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Professional misconduct: Section 22, read with clause 7 of part 1 of Second Schedule, of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949: In order to attract clause 7 of part 1 of Second Schedule, act or omission must be in connection with duties cast upon a chartered accountant in such capacity which no person other than a chartered accountant can perform:

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[Council of ICAI v. Dipak Kumar De Sarkar, 201 Taxman 203 (Cal.);

12 Taxman.com 476 (Cal.) The institute (ICAI) received a complaint against the respondent, a chartered accountant that the respondent, while holding position of auditor of a company, agreed to act as an arbitrator/mediator in transaction of shares of the said company which constituted professional misconduct and further, he did not even perform duties imposed upon him under the agreement. The council held the respondent guilty of professional misconduct falling within the meaning of clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule to the Act and recommended to the Court that the name of the respondent should be removed from the register of members for a period of three months.

The Calcutta High Court held as under:

“(i) A plain reading of the provisions contained in sections 21 and 22 and the Schedules annexed thereto indicates that for the purpose of the Act, the expression ‘professional misconduct’ includes an act or omission specified in the Schedules. In the instant case, the council had found the respondent guilty under clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule, i.e., grossly negligent in the conduct of his professional duties.

(ii) In order to hold the respondent guilty under the aforesaid charge, it must be established that the alleged act or omission on the part of the respondent related to his professional duty as a chartered accountant. In the instant case, he was made an arbitrator or mediator by the parties and the duty cast upon him as such arbitrator could be done by any person and it is not necessary that only a chartered accountant can do such duties.

(iii) It was true that the respondent was an auditor of the company with which the parties were connected and for acting as such auditor, the parties had confidence in him and that was probably the reason for making him the arbitrator. In such circumstances, even if the contention of the council was accepted that he did not act fairly as such arbitrator, such betrayal of confidence reposed in him did not come within the purview of professional misconduct. The duties conferred upon the respondent, by virtue of the agreement between the parties, were not the duties of a chartered accountant and, thus, by no stretch of imagination, the alleged act or omission could be brought within the purview of the clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule.

(iv) In order to attract the aforesaid clause, the act or omission must be in connection with the duties cast upon a chartered accountant in such capacity which no person other than a chartered accountant can perform.

(v) Thus, the respondent was not at all guilty of any professional misconduct as charged under clause 7 of part 1 of the Second Schedule and, consequently, no action was called for against the respondent.”

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ITO v DKP Engineers & Construction P. Ltd. ITAT Mumbai `D’ Bench Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Rajendra Singh (AM) ITA No. 7796/M/2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 31st August, 2012. Counsel for revenue/assessee: Amardeep /Dr. K. Shivram & Rahul Hakani

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S/s. 28, 45 – In case of assessee following project completion method, sale proceeds of TDR allotted consequent to development of road need to be reduced from WIP.

Facts:
The assessee company engaged in construction activity had undertaken to develop the D.P. Road leading to Vikroli property on which it was to construct flats. Upon development of the road, the assessee became entitled to TDR which was sold on 5.8.2005. Cost incurred on development of road was considered as part of WIP and the sale consideration of TDR was reduced from WIP which had the effect of reducing the total expenditure incurred till the end of the year, on the project under development. The AO assessed the receipts arising on sale of TDR under the head `Income from Capital Gains’.

Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the assessee’s appeal.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the receipt of TDR had direct nexus with the work done by the appellant and was incidental to the entire project undertaken. It held that the assessee was correct in reducing the sale proceeds of TDR from work-in-progress. The Tribunal confirmed the order passed by the CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the revenue.

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A.D.I.T. v Shri Vile Parle Kelvani Mandal ITAT Mumbai ‘E’ Branch Before Dinesh Kumar Agarwal (J.M.) and N.K. Billaiya (A.M.) ITA No. 7106/Mum/2011 Assessment Year: 2008-09. Decided on 05-10-2012 Counsel for Revenue/Assessee : A.B. Koli/A.H. Dalal

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Section 11 – (i) Income from management development program earned by educational institute considered as eligible for exemption; (ii) Income from hiring premises and advertisement rights since applied for educational activities eligible for exemption; (iii) Claim for depreciation on fixed assets, the cost of which was allowed as application of income, allowed.

Facts:
The assessee is a trust engaged in running more than 30 schools and colleges and is registered u/s 12A and also under the Bombay Public Trust Act. The assessee has got approval u/s 10(23C)(vi) as approved educational institution valid from A.Y. 2008-09 and onwards.

The return was filed declaring total income at Rs. ‘nil’. However, the assessment was completed at an income of Rs. 4.19 crores vide assessment order dtd. 31-12-2010 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. This was based on the finding that:

i) the assessee had shown receipt of Rs. 3.25 crore under the head ‘Management Development Program & Consultancy Charges’ in the case of one of its institutions viz., NMIMS University. According to the AO, the same was not education in itself, as defined by the Supreme Court in the case of Lok Shikshana Trust vs. CIT (1975) 101 ITR 234 even though it may be incidental to its main activity of providing education. He further observed that since it was an organised systematic activity, it can be called business incidental to the main objects of the trust. He further observed that since the assessee had maintained only the ledger account for this activity separately, as against the requirement to maintain separate books of accounts, the assessee would not be entitled to exemption u/s. 11(4A) of the Act. Accordingly, the difference of Rs. 2.29 crore between the receipt and expenditure was treated as the business income.

ii) The income from hiring premises and advertisement rights of Rs. 1.91 crore was treated as business income.

On appeal, the CIT(A) observed that the element of business was missing in conducting management courses i.e. profit motive, repetitive nature, frequency of transactions etc.. Further, according to him, the assessee was maintaining separate ledger account for Management Development Programme, which should be regarded as sufficient compliance of provisions of section 11(4A) of the Act as held by the Delhi Tribunal in the case of ITO v Jesuit Conference of India (2010) 40 DTR (Del) (Tribunal) 493. As regards the income from hiring of premises and advertisement rights, he noted that income from these rentals were applied towards the educational purpose of the Institute and, hence, eligible to claim exemption u/s 11(1). Further, relying on the decision of the Supreme Court in CIT vs. Andhra Chamber of Commerce (1965) 55 ITR 722 (SC), wherein it has been held that the rental income from letting out of property cannot be held to be income from business and the income will be exempt as income from property held for charitable purpose, he directed the A.O. to delete the addition made by him.

The other issue before the tribunal was regarding allowability of depreciation claimed by the assessee. According to the AO, since the cost of fixed assets was fully allowed as application of funds, the depreciation on the same cannot be allowed. In support, reliance was placed on the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Escorts Ltd. vs. Union of India (1993) 199 ITR 43. On appeal the CIT(A) distinguished the said decision and relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in CIT vs. Institute of Banking, (2003) 264 ITR 110 and directed the AO to allow depreciation.

Before the tribunal, the assessee pointed out that it was maintaining separate books of accounts. In support, the separate accounts i.e. balance sheets etc. of all the Institutes were placed on record. The revenue, as regards allowability or otherwise of depreciation claimed by the assessee, also relied on the decision of the Kerala High Court in Lissi Medical Institutions, Kochi v CIT, (2012)-TIOL-303-HC-Kerala, ITA No. 42 of 2011 dtd. 17-2-2012.

Held:
In the absence of any contrary material placed on record by the Revenue against the aforesaid finding of the CIT(A) and keeping in view that the assessee was maintaining separate books of accounts for each Institute and also keeping in view that the rental income was applied towards the educational purpose of the Institute, the tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A).

As regards the allowability of depreciation – the tribunal observed that the assessee was not claiming double deduction on account of depreciation as has been held by the AO. According to it, the income of the assessee being exempt, the assessee was only claiming that depreciation should be reduced from the income for determining the percentage of funds which have to be applied for the purpose of Trust. Thus, there was no double deduction claimed by the assessee. The tribunal also referred to the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in CIT v Market Committee, Pipli (2011) 330 ITR 16 where the decision of the Supreme Court in Escorts Ltd.’s case was distinguished, while relying on various decisions including the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in Institute of Banking’s case. Accordingly, the order of the CIT(A) was upheld and deleted the disallowance made by the AO.

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(2012) 73 DTR (Mum)(Trib) 265 Kotak Securities Ltd. v DCIT A.Y.: 2004-05 Dated: 3-2-2012

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TDS u/s. 194H – Commission paid to bank for issuing bank guarantee is not liable for TDS u/s. 194H

Facts:
The assessee was a company engaged in stock broking business and was a member of the BSE and NSE. During the course of business carried on by the assessee, it furnished bank guarantees, mainly in lieu of margin deposits, to various agencies, such as BSE and NSE. In consideration for issuance of such bank guarantees, banks charged the fees which was termed as bank guarantee commission. He further noted that the assessee has taken bank guarantees from various banks and these bank guarantees protect the stock exchanges from any default by the assessee and acts as security for due performance and fulfilment of obligations by the assessee. The bank guarantee commission paid by the assessee for these bank guarantees, according to the AO, was liable for deduction at source u/s. 194H. The assessee’s failure to deduct the tax source was, accordingly. visited with demands raised u/s. 201(1) r.w.s. 194H, to make good the shortfall in TDS and u/s. 201 (1A) r/w s. 194H, to compensate interest for delay in realizing the TDS revenues. Aggrieved by the stand so taken by the AO, assessee carried the matter in appeal before the CIT(A) but without any success.

Held:
Even when an expression is statutorily defined u/s. 2, it still has to meet the test of contextual relevance as section 2 itself starts with the words “In this Act, unless context otherwise requires…”, and, therefore, contextual meaning assumes significance. Every definition in the IT Act must depend on the context in which the expression is set out, and the context in which expression ‘commission’ appears in section 194H, i.e. along with the expression ‘brokerage’, significantly restricts its connotations. The common parlance meaning of the expression ‘commission’ thus does not extend to a payment which is in the nature of fees for a product or service; it must remain restricted to a payment in the nature of reward for effecting sales or business transactions etc.

The inclusive definition of the expression ‘commission or brokerage’ in Explanation to section 194H is quite in harmony with this approach. Therefore, what the inclusive definition really contains is nothing but normal meaning of the expression ‘commission or brokerage’. An inclusive definition does not necessarily always extend the meaning of an expression. When inclusive definition contains ordinary normal connotations of an expression, even an inclusive definition has to be treated as exhaustive. That is the situation in this case as well. Even as definition of expression ‘commission or brokerage’, in Explanation to section 194H, is stated to be exclusive, it does not really mean anything other than what has been specifically stated in the said definition.

Principal agent relationship is a sine qua non for invoking the provisions of section 194H. In the present case there is no principal agent relationship between the bank issuing the bank guarantee and the assessee. When bank issues the bank guarantee, on behalf of the assessee, all it does is to accept the commitment of making payment of a specified amount to, on demand, the beneficiary, and it is in consideration of this commitment, the bank charges a fees which is customarily termed as ‘bank guarantee commission’. While it is termed as ‘guarantee commission’, it is not in the nature of ‘commission’ as it is understood in common business parlance and in the context of the section 194H. This transaction is not a transaction between principal and agent so as to attract the tax deduction requirements u/s. 194H.

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2012-TIOL-559-ITAT-DEL ITO v Indian Printing Packaging & Allied Machinery Manufacturers Association ITA No. 2934/Del/2012 Assessment Year: 2003-04. Date of Order: 31-08-2012

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S/s. 194I, 197, 201, 201(1A)–When certificate u/s. 197 has been issued and is valid till 31st March of the financial year, demand u/s. 201/201(1A) cannot be sustained for deduction of tax at a lower rate during the period before the issue of certificate.

Facts:
The assessee had on 01-04-2002 made a payment of advance rent to NESCO Ltd. after deduction of TDS @ 2% instead of 20% as provided u/s. 194I. NESCO Ltd. had on 1.4.2002 applied for issuance of certificate u/s 197 authorising the assessee to deduct TDS @ 2%. The certificate u/s. 197 authorising the payee to deduct TDS @ 2% u/s. 194I was granted on 23-04- 2002. This certificate was valid upto 31-03-2003. The tax so deducted by the assessee was deposited by the assessee to the Government Account on 06-05-2002.

The Assessing Officer levied tax u/s. 201(1) on the assessee for deducting tax u/s. 194I @ 2% instead of 20% on the ground that at the time of deduction of tax (i.e. at the time of payment of advance rent) the assessee did not have certificate u/s. 197. He also levied interest u/s. 201(1A).

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the assessee’s appeal and quashed the demand raised by the AO.

Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the application for certificate u/s. 197 was made before the payment was made by the assessee. It also noted that the certificate was to remain in force till 31-03-2003 unless cancelled earlier. The Tribunal agreed with the finding of CIT(A) that such a breach, if at all, was only a venial breach or default. It held that such default could have been ascribed to the assessee only if no tax had been deducted in accordance with the provisions of section 201(1). Assessee can be deemed to be an assessee in default only in the case of non-payment of tax within the prescribed time. In the present case, tax having been deducted @ 2% and having been deposited before the prescribed date, by no stretch of imagination can the assessee be deemed to be an assessee in default. The Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee.

The appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

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2012-TIOL-530-ITAT-MUM DCIT v BOB Cards Ltd. Assessment Year: 2007-08. Date of Order: 18-09-2012

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Section 37 – Amount of TDS borne by the assessee, as part of its liability under an agreement entered into by the assessee, is allowable as a deduction.

Facts:
The assessee company, engaged in the business of credit card operations and financing payments, had in its return of income claimed under the head Operating Expenses a sum of Rs. 21,61,004 towards non-reimbursible TDS for Master Card and Visa Card. This amount represented TDS which was to be borne by the assessee under the agreements entered into by the assessee with Visa and Master International. The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed these payments on the ground that they are not incurred wholly and exclusively for business purposes.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal by relying on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of Standard Polygraph Machines P. Ltd. (243 ITR 788) wherein it has been held that amount paid by the assessee for discharging a liability undertaken in terms of an agreement entered into between the assessee and its collaborator, forms part of consideration for agreement relating to knowhow and hence is allowable.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal held that the payment made as a result of a contractual liability is an allowable expenditure. It held that the CIT(A) was correct in placing reliance on the decision in the case of Standard Polygraph Machines P. Ltd. It also noted that the issue has been decided in favor of the assessee by `I’ Bench of ITAT vide order dated 20-06-2012 (AY 2003-04, 2004-05 and 2005-06); ITA Nos. 4882, 2475, 6527/Mum/2010). Following the decision of the co-ordinate bench, the Tribunal decided the grounds in favour of the assessee.

The appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

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Commissioner of Sales Tax V. Dev Enterprises Ltd. [2011] 42 VST 504 (BOM)

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VAT-Rate of Tax – Entries in Schedule-Plastic Footwear (Moulded) – Means made wholly of plastic – Entry 74 of Schedule C of The Maharashtra Value Added Tax Act, 2002

Facts
The Maharashtra Sales Tax Tribunal, in an appeal filed by the dealer against the order of DDQ passed by the Commissioner of Sales Tax, held that footwear predominantly made from plastic is covered within meaning of the description of “Plastic Footwear (Moulded)” used in entry 74 of Schedule C of the MVAT Act, 2002. The Commissioner of Sales Tax filed an appeal before the Bombay High Court against the said decision of the Tribunal.

Held
The Entry 74 of Schedule C, adverts to plastic footwear, which has to be construed as it stands. Admittedly, the sole of the footwear is made of PVC compound; the upper portion is made out of plastic coated textile, which is used as base in order to avoid direct contact with skin. The question whether the footwear is made from plastic can not be determined on the basis of the notes annexed to section XII of Chapter 64 to the Excise Tariff. In order to fall for classification under Schedule Entry C-74, the product must constitute Plastic Footwear. Adding the expression “predominant” to the interpretative process is to add words to the entry; that is to amend the entry – something that is impermissible. Further, the High Court noting the fact that in the market footwear made completely of plastic available for sale held that the entry adverts to plastic footwear; it must mean what it states.

The High Court allowed the appeal filed by the Department and held that the Tribunal committed error in holding that footwear which is predominantly made of plastic and made by a moulding process gets covered by the description of plastic moulded footwear.

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Big Data – What is it all About??

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About this article

Big Data is not a
very new idea, it’s been out there for quite some time. Nonetheless,
very few people have realised the full potential of this idea. To
highlight a few advantages, Big Data can help businesses become more
efficient, help them in servicing the customers better and at the same
time improve their bottomline. In a completely different sphere of life,
Big Data helps various research organisations track a variety of data,
such as tracking meteorological data, data related to clinical tests
conducted, etc.

Be it business establishments like eBay, Amazon,
Facebook or research organisation like NASA, the UN, Governments across
the world, etc., the one common link for all those who use Big Data is
Technology. This article seeks to create awareness about how technology
is used to store and analyse Big Data. Like all big ideas, there are
several stories – success as well as failure, myths, etc. associated
with it. This article will deal with some of the successes and failures.


Background

Ever wondered how a weather bureau
predicts weather or for that matter, how organisations like NASA, ISRO
monitor space, (in case you didn’t know already – apart from secretly
tracking UFOs) that includes tracking various stars, planets,
meteorites, comets, space crafts, satellites, millions of objects of
floating junk which were in some form or another a part of a satellite
or some cargo carried by the satellites. Also, there is the curious case
of the measurements that scientists do, such as that in a nuclear test,
the Hadron Collider. How about mapping the human genome – did you know
that there are more than a billion unique data sets ?

I know
that sounds hugely futuristic and the question that begs to be answered
is “What do I care” or “How does it matter to me”. Well let’s just say
that what is described above are some of the sources and users of Big
Data. Closer to home or to our everyday life, Big Data is used by giants
like Facebook, Amazon, Walmart, to name a few, for improving customer
experience.

Characteristics of Big Data:

Well, to be
honest, “Big Data” is more like a term which was coined in reference to
the data. What I mean is that, there no “official” definition of “Big
data” or for that matter “Small Data”. But, generally speaking, Big Data
refers to data characterised by four features i.e. volume, variety,
velocity and veracity. To understand this better, let’s take a few
illustrations of these characteristics that are closely identified with
Big Data:

Volume:
Today, businesses everywhere, are awash
with ever-growing data of all types. Conservatively speaking, they
collect huge amounts of data (often the volume is in terabytes – in some
cases petabytes – of information).

For instance, someone like
Twitter would churn x terabytes of tweets created each day, into
improved product sentiment analysis. Someone like General Electric is
likely to convert billions of annual meter readings to better predict
power consumption. One company boasts of systems which track events
(crime related) which can help Governments reduce crime rates.

Velocity:

Sometimes, a few minutes is too late. Certain time-sensitive processes
such as catching fraud, Big Data must be used as it streams into your
enterprise in order to maximise its value.

For instance,
exchanges like the Bombay Stock Exchange, National Stock Exchange etc.,
scrutinise millions of trade events created each day to identify
potential fraud (like the punching error report very recently). Couple
of weeks ago (and even in the past), these exchanges had assisted SEBI
is pinpointing instances of circular trading and front running.

Variety: For the readers of this Journal, data
would mean spreadsheets, word documents, accounting records, etc. But in
reality, there is a vast variety of forms/formats in which data can
exist. In case of Big Data, data may be of any type – structured and
unstructured data, text data, sensor data, audio, video, click streams,
log files and more. Typically, new insights are found when all these
different types of data is put together and analysed from a specific or
variety of specific points of reference.

The classic examples of
this would be Facebook, Amazon etc., and if I may dare to say so,
“Algorithmic trading solutions”. It is said that in some cases, the
“algos” are so advanced that they analyse the tweets and social media
trends for “sentiments” and execute trades on the basis of such analysis
alone.

Veracity:
What role does veracity have to play
here. Imagine this – you spend a fortune, putting in place a system to
collect the data. Thereafter, the data is stored before an analysis is
made. What good would be the collection, storage and analysis, if the
data collected was inaccurate. Further, customers part with the data
willingly (most of the time unknowingly), who ensure that their privacy
is not violated. Statistically speaking, one in three business leaders
don’t trust the information they use to make decisions.

How can
you act upon information, if you don’t trust it? Establishing trust in
Big Data presents a huge challenge, as the variety and number of sources
grows.

Big Data – has been out there for some time:

Most
people go under the assumption that Big Data is a recent phenomenon.
But that’s not quite true. As a matter of fact, companies like American
Express1 and Google have been using Big Data in some form or the other,
to analyse and predict customer behaviour, with a view to enhance
customers’ service and public perception. While this may or may not be
true, the fact remains that the amount of data captured and analysed in
the last two to three years, far exceed the total data (in volume and
variety) captured over the last millennia (at the least).

Big Data – recent changes:
What
most people don’t realise, is the manner and extent to which changes
have taken place in the last couple of years. To begin with, storage
space has increased dramatically, our ability to process such data has
been growing exponentially. One could also attribute some positives to
the technological advancement, development of new analytical models,
etc. Given all these, our need and manner of use, the very application
of such data, has undergone a sea of change (one may say. A change of
epic proportions). Here is why:

  • Walmart handles more
    than 1 million customer transactions every hour, which is imported into
    databases estimated to contain more than 2.5 petabytes of data.
  • Facebook handles 40 billion photos from its user base.
  • FICO Falcon Credit Card Fraud Detection System protects 2.1 billion active accounts world-wide.
  • Decoding the human genome originally took 10 years to process; now it can be achieved in one week.
  • There
    are 4.6 billion mobile-phone subscriptions worldwide and there are
    between 1 billion and 2 billion people accessing the internet.
  •  Between
    1990 and 2005, more than 1 billion people worldwide entered the middle
    class, which means more and more people who gain money will become more
    literate, which in turn leads to information growth.
  • The world’s effective capacity to exchange information through telecommunication networks was
  • 281 petabytes in 1986,
  • 471 petabytes in 1993,
  • 2.2 exabytes in 2000,
  • 65 exabytes in 2007; and
  • it is predicted that the amount of traffic

flowing over the internet will reach 667 exabytes annually by 2013. (Source: Wikipedia)

How big is “Big data”:

Consider this. In 2012, the Obama administration announced the Big Data Research and Development Initiative, which explored how Big Data could be used to address important problems facing the government. The initiative was composed of 84 different Big Data programs spread across six departments. The United States Federal Government owns six of the ten most powerful supercomputers in the world.

Big data has increased the demand of information management specialists due which software giants of the likes of SAG, Oracle Corporation, IBM, Microsoft, SAP, and HP, have spent more than $15 billion on software firms only specialising in data management and analytics. This industry on its own is estimated to be worth more than $100 billion. That’s not all, it’s reported to be growing at almost 10% a year, which is roughly twice as fast as the software business as a whole.

In the Indian scenario, the Indian Big Data industry is expected to grow from $ 200 million in 2012 to $ 1 billion in 2015, at a CAGR of over 83%. Nasscom’s prediction is that Big Data will help the BPO industry move forward as it will help in “evidence-based” decision-making for clients, which in turn has a high impact on business operations.

Can we ignore Big data?

The answer seems to a resounding NO. Why?????? Cause………… To remain competitive, all organisations need to analyse both internal and external data, as quickly and cost effectively as possible. As the world becomes more instrumented, with RFID tags, sensors and other sources, companies are creating more and more data. When paired with external data – like that generated by social media sites – there’s incredible opportunity that is largely untapped and unanalysed.

Parting remarks:

This write-up was intended to be a precursor – to give the readers a basic overview of Big Data. In the next part, we will cover some more ground and delve into some more details, understand what’s all the hype about and whether there is a hidden pot of the gold at the end of the rainbow or not.

Until then, I wish all the readers a Happy Dassera.

Disclaimer: The information/factual data provided in the above write-up is based on several news reports, articles, etc., available in the public domain. The purpose of this write-up is not to promote or malign any person or company or entity. The purpose is merely to create awareness and share knowledge that is already available in the public domain.

DDIT v Mitchell Drilling International Pty Ltd (ITA No 698/Del/2012) Section 44BB of I T Act Asst Year: 2008-09 Decided on: 31 August 2012 Before J.S. Reddy (AM) and U.B.S. Bedi (JM) Counsel for assessee/revenue: Amit Arora/ Vijay Babu Vasanta

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Service tax collected from customer does not form part of receipts for computing presumptive income u/s. 44BB of I T Act.

Facts:
The taxpayer was a company incorporated in Australia. It was engaged in the business of providing equipment on hire and manpower for exploration and production of mineral oil and natural gas. It had received income from drilling operations and exploration of mineral oil and had received reimbursement for mobilization expenses. The taxpayer offered its income to tax u/s. 44BB(1) and 10% of the gross receipts was deemed to be income chargeable to tax. The taxpayer did not include service tax collected by it from its customers. It contended that service tax was levied and collected by a service provider as an agent of the Government and it was held in trust as custodian/trustee for the Government and therefore, it cannot be added to its receipts for determination of presumptive profit u/s. 44BB of I T Act.

Held:
Relying on the decision of Delhi Tribunal in Sedco Forex International Drilling Inc [2012] 24 taxman.com 390 (Delhi), the Tribunal held that service tax should not form part of receipts for computing presumptive income u/s. 44BB of I T Act.

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Hess ACC Systems B. v In re [2012] 24 taxmann. com 297 (AAR New Delhi) A. A. R. No 1033 of 2010 Date of Order: 27-08-2012 Before P K Balasubramanyan (Chairman)

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Where the Applicant had entered into two separate contracts – one for supply of plant and another for erection and installation services, and the period between supply of plant and commencement of erection and installation services was considerable, the services could not be said to fall under the exception in Article 12(6)(a) of India-Netherlands DTAA.

Facts:
The Applicant was a company incorporated in, and resident of, Netherlands (“DutchCo”). The Applicant entered into two contracts with an Indian company (“IndCo”) on the same day. The first contract was for supply of machinery, spare and technical documentation for production of certain products. The second contract was for supply of project services for erection and installation of the machinery supply under the first contract. DutchCo supplied machinery under the first contract and thereafter, approached AAR for its ruling on the issue whether the payments made by IndCo towards project services were chargeable to tax, either under I T Act or under India- Netherlands DTAA.

DutchCo contended that both the contracts were entered into on the same day, they were part of the same transaction, the consideration was also dependent on each other and the contract for project services was ancillary and inextricably linked to the supply contract. Accordingly, in term of Article 12(6) (a) of DTAA, it would not be FTS. The tax authority countered that once DutchCo and IndCo having treated the two contracts as separate contracts, it was not open for DutchCo to plead otherwise.

Held:
The AAR observed hand held as follows.
? The DutchCo did not dispute that the payments were FTS, but claimed that the payments were for services that were ancillary and subsidiary, as well as inextricably and essentially linked, to the sale of property.
? It was really an indivisible contract which was artificially split up, possibly, to avoid tax.
? It was hence, not open for DutchCo to claim that the project services contract was for services that were ancillary and subsidiary, as well as inextricably and essentially linked, to the sale of property.
? While the supply of plant was completed on 5th December, 2009, the supply of services was ‘expected to commence from March 2011’, which showed lack of proximity between the two contracts.
? Therefore, the payments under the second contract were fees for technical services not falling within the exception in Article 12(6)(a) of India-Netherlands DTAA.

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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 41 dated October 10, 2012

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Foreign investment in NBFC Sector – Amendment to the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Scheme.
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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 40 dated 9th October, 2012

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External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) Policy – Review of all-in-cost ceiling.

This circular states that the below mentioned all-incost ceiling for ECB will continue till further notice: –

 Sr. No.

  Average Maturity Period

 All-in-cost over 6 month LIBOR for the respective currency of borrowing or applicable benchmark

 1.

  Three years and up to
five years

 350 bps

 2.

 More than five years

  500 bps

Doctrine of Merger: Dismissal of Appeal on ground of limitation – No Merger of order – Central Excise Act:

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Raja Mechanical Co. P. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Excise Delhi -1, (2012) 51 VST 447 SC

The assessee, a manufacturer of excisable goods, purchased for its manufacturing activity certain capital goods and availed of MODVAT credit by filing a declaration before the adjudicating authority along with an application for condonation of delay. Rejecting the claim, the adjudicating authority directed the assessee to pay the excise duty credit of which it had availed of. The first appellate authority dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee on the ground of delay which he could not condone. The Tribunal, on appeal, confirmed the order passed by the first appellate authority. Thereafter, the assessee filed an application for rectification before the Tribunal on the ground that the Tribunal ought to have considered the assessee’s appeal not only on the ground of limitation, but also on the merits of the case. The Tribunal rejected the application. The reference application filed by the assessee to direct the Tribunal to state case and the question of law, was dismissed by the High Court. On further appeal, the assessee contended that though the first appellate authority had rejected the appeal filed by the assessee on the ground of limitation, the orders passed by the original authority would merge with the orders passed by the first appellate authority and, therefore, the Tribunal ought to have considered the appeal filed by the assessee not only on the ground of limitation but also on the merits of the case.

The Court observed that if for any reason an appeal is dismissed on the ground of limitation and not on merits, that order would not merge with the order passed by the first appellate authority.

Accordingly, it was held in the appeal, that the high court was justified in rejecting the request made by the assessee for directing the revenue to state the case and also the question of law for its consideration and decision. Appeal was accordingly dismissed.

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Stamp Duty – Sale deed or release deed – Release of share in property by co-owner for consideration, is not sale: Stamp Act Art 47A:

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G. Dayanand S/o Late Venkaiah vs. District Registrar, Hyderabad & Anr AIR 2012 AP 129

The mother of the petitioner owned property, with cellar, ground and first floors, constructed over 513 sq. yards. It is stated that after the death of the mother, the petitioner himself and his two brothers – G. Subhash and G. Satyanarayana, succeeded to it. The two brothers of the petitioner also died and the property was owned jointly by the petitioner and the legal representatives of his brothers. The widow of one of his brothers, by name G. Rajasree, released 1/3rd share, in the property, and she was paid Rs. 20 lakhs. Accordingly, a release deed was executed by the said Rajasree, in favour of the petitioner. The document was presented before the Sub-Registrar, the respondent, for registration. Stamp duty of 1% was paid. The respondent, however, took the view that 3% of stamp duty was payable. Accordingly, he kept the document pending for registration. He issued a notice requiring the petitioner to pay the deficit stamp duty of Rs. 3,25,678/- treating the document as a sale deed. Through a final order dated 07-07-2009, the respondent took the view that the stamp duty was payable, as provided for under Article 47-A of Schedule 1-A to the Indian Stamp Act, 1899. The petitioner challenged the said order.

The case of the Petitioner was that the transaction that had taken place through the document in question was one of release of the joint ownership of one co-owner in favour of another co-owner, and that no element of sale was involved. He contended that mere payment of consideration for such release, does not amount to sale.

The Hon’ble Court observed the distinction between the transactions of ‘sale’ and ‘release’. It is too well-known that ‘sale’ as defined under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, takes place, when a person holding title in an item of immovable property, conveys his title to another, for consideration. It is also permissible for a co-owner of an immovable property, to transfer the same for consideration in favour of third party. In such a case also, the transaction would be one of sale. Delivery of the possession of tangible property, is an essential part of the transaction.

The word ‘release’ is not defined either under the Transfer of Property Act or under any other enactment, including the Stamp Act. However, its connotation is that, one of the owners of an item of property, releases himself of the legal rights and obligations in favour of the rest of the co-owners, or some of them, such release can be with or without any consideration. Though a sale and release resemble each other in the context of loss of title of the transferor or rights in favour of others, what differentiates the one for the other is that, the transferee under a sale is an altogether stranger, whereas in the case of release, he happens to be an existing co-owner. It would be a fresh and new acquisition of property by a purchaser under a sale, whereas in the case of release, it would only result in the change of the extent of shares, held by the co-owners or joint owners.

Another aspect is that delivery of possession, which is sine qua non in a sale, does not take place in the case of release, since each co-owner is in possession of every bit of the entire property.

To a large extent, release resembles a partition, wherein the shares of the existing co-owners or joint owners are determined with an element of clarity, notwithstanding the fact that the release by itself may not bring about partition. If one takes into account the fact that one of the steps in the partition is determination of the shares of respective parties, an act of release would promote such a step.

Thus, even if the release of the share in a property by a co-owner is for a consideration, its character does not change. Similarly, it is not necessary that the release must be in favour of the rest of the co-owners. As long as the undivided share in a property is not in favour of a stranger, but is in favour of another co-owner, transaction would remain one of “release’ and not a ‘sale’.

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Precedent – Judicial discipline – Co-ordinate Bench Decision – Not to take a contrary view but to refer matter to larger bench.

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U.P. Power Corporation Ltd vs. Rajesh Kumar & Ors AIR 2012 SC 2728

In an SLP, the petitioner primarily urged that during the course of the hearing before the Division Bench at Lucknow, it was brought to their notice of the judgement passed by the co-ordinate Division Bench at Allahabad in similar matter and was urged that the same was a binding precedent. But, the Bench hearing the writ petition declared the said decision as not binding and per incuriam as it had not correctly interpreted, appreciated and applied the ratio laid down in M. Nagraj AIR 2007 SC 71.

The Hon’ble Supreme Court observed that the division bench at Lucknow had erroneously treated the verdict of Allahabad bench not to be a binding precedent on the foundation that the principles laid down by the Constitution Bench in M. Nagraj (AIR 2007 SC 71:) are not being appositely appreciated and correctly applied by the bench. When there was a reference to the said decision and a number of passages were quoted and appreciated albeit incorrectly, the same could not have been a ground to treat the decision as per incuriam or not a binding precedent. Judicial discipline commands in such a situation when there is disagreement to refer the matter to a larger bench. Instead of doing that, the division bench at Lucknow took the burden on themselves to decide the case.

The Hon’ble Court observed that, when Judges are confronted with the decision of a co-ordinate bench on the same issue, any contrary attitude, however adventurous and glorious may be, would lead to uncertainty and inconsistency. There are two decisions by two Division Benches from the same High Court. The Court expressed their concern about the deviation from the judicial decorum and discipline by both the benches and expected that in future, they shall be appositely guided by the conceptual eventuality of such discipline as laid down by the Apex Court from time to time. It also observed that judicial enthusiasm should not obliterate the profound responsibility that was expected from the Judges.

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ELECTION – What’s In it for ME?

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As I pen this article, the Election process for the ICAI elections is well under way. The final list of candidates has been declared, the Code of Conduct for candidates is now effective. The candidates for the Central Council and the five Regional Councils are ramping up their campaigns, planning and emailing their manifestos, reaching out to voters and often traversing the length and breadth of their sizable constituencies. The SMS’s and emails have just begun. We are yet far from the frenzy, that will engulf the entire profession in a months’ time. And already the first murmurs of irritation are being heard.

  •  Why can’t the elections be done in a more dignified manner?
  •  Why must my privacy be invaded by umpteen messages?
  •  Can the ICAI not impose a ban on e-mails – in fact I have avoided giving my e-mail even to the Institute – the only thing I get from ICAI is this onslaught of e-mails.

Strikes a chord? Echoes your feelings? I am sure it does, for I believe 80% of our voters feel that way. Question is – are they right? Who is responsible for this, the Institute, the Council, the Candidates or the members themselves.

Admittedly, the aggressive manner of campaigning has invaded our homes, our work places, our e-mail inboxes and our mobile phones. It is equally true that a far more dignified approach is desirable, and really is expected in an election to a professional body. But we need to ponder – why has such a situation come about. I would believe that the need for such “carpet bombing” has arisen mainly because voters largely ignore the contents, the merits and demerits of information about candidates provided by the Institute. A belief, therefore, is created that since most messages are not read, if you send the message more often, the probability of it being read once improves. Hence, it is voter’s neglect that causes this response which, in fact, creates a widening of the chasm between candidates and voters.

“Whether it is ‘X’ or ‘Y’ – it really does not affect “me” or concern “me”. All I want is that the Institute should be managed well. Let those who are more aware or involved choose. [in any case I do not know most of these candidates).” That is the mindset of a large number (nearing 50%) of the voters – who do not vote. One can only remind them that “Bad Council members are elected by good, well intentioned members who do not vote1 ”.

Those who do vote realise that the way the Institute is managed has a more direct bearing on their livelihood and careers. Such voters (largely members in practice in professional firms) realise that the way the ICAI represents views of our members to the Government and regulatory authorities can make a difference to the future role of CA’s in audit. For e.g. can we have service tax audits, can CA’s be recognised abroad to facilitate better job opportunities etc. Hence, they recognise their self-interest in voting and this is not per se something negative or selfish.

Rather, it is a cornerstone of the democratic system which enables the will of the majority to prevail. The difficulty is that “self–interest”, can be viewed with a broader or narrower vision. Surely, it is in our collective interest to have a Council of persons who are capable of framing policies that will serve the interest of the profession in the long run. Last month’s editorial hit the nail on the head in saying that “I put the two – National interest and the professional interest together.” But that is a more statesman like view – unfortunately not the vision of the vast number of voters.

The “self-interest” is more often judged on more mundane criteria – which often come to the fore such as:

Whether candidate X or Y candidate

  •  Favours relaxation or less strict application of CPE norms;
  •  Is more likely to ensure that more bank audits are allotted and/or audit fees are hiked;
  •  Supports increase of articleship vacancies in big firms (my son/daughter is to do CA next year);
  •  Supports establishment of a branch in my town. I could then become office bearer – in my own town.

The list is long and subjective. Unfortunately, most of these issues are of personal interest and do not qualify as being in the “interest of the Profession”. But because they have a bearing on “what’s the benefit for me – if X rather than Y is elected”, such personal issues play a bigger role in deciding the voting preferences than interest of the profession.

But to the average member, even this poses a significant problem of choice. If one takes the trouble to go through the manifestos or brochures, most candidates seemingly have similar objectives and agendas. This happens, since most persons contesting an election do not really have a specific position on the most vexatious issues facing the profession such as rotation of auditors, authority of the council to call for data from members and take action against defaulters, a roadmap for implementation of Ind-AS, etc. Though none of the candidates really take a position on issues that matter, yet it is imperative to be seen as a person who has a stand on certain issues. It is best to address the more general and non-specific issues such as improvements in administration, governance matters, transparency and so on. This adequately serves the purpose of highlighting to the voters that the candidate has “some considered views.” While these issues steer clear of controversies, the approach identifies the candidate with the voter group from where he seeks maximum support. You will thus see that amongst the issues raised, some candidates would take pains to clearly identify themselves with the more populist issues that would appeal to the small and medium practitioners. Others, looking for more support from larger but traditional firms, would project the same issues with a slight shift in the emphasis to cater to their identified constituency, while those seeking endorsement from the largest firms would bring out the aspects that would further the interests of the highly organised and better remunerated segments of the profession – for example – the need to align with global best practices, ” raising” standards of professionalism and performance etc. While this may enable the candidate to cater to popular sentiment of his specific constituency, it leaves unresolved the problem for an informed voter of how to identify which candidate best meets his “personal interests”. At best, out of a list of say 20 candidates from whom he has to choose, the voter can negatively identify some candidates whom he clearly does not wish to go with – not because the candidate is not good – but that the positions taken by that candidate may not suit “his interest”. So the choice is usually narrowed from 20 to 15 which in real terms is not very helpful.

Assuming that we are dealing with an “informed and enlightened voter”, who has taken the trouble to read the broad positions taken by the candidates, he is still unable to make the real choice on the basis of what is truly in the interest of the profession or even his own interest. In the absence of any other criteria for selecting the right candidate, voters then turn to simpler criteria which can be identified without much effort. These are the criteria which are applied in practice. Some of which are given below by way of illustration.

a)    Whether the candidate belongs to my community:- While cultural affinity undoubtedly gives a certain comfort level; the fact that a particular candidate belongs to the same community, residential area, religion, etc. have no relevance to the manner he would perform as a Council Member and fails to recognise the candidate’s individual abilities or track record. The effort required on the part of the voter is minimal because, usually the name of the candidate gives a clear indication of the community to which he belongs. Success in a professional election can be determined largely by this factor.

b)    Has the candidate phoned or met me?
This criteria is simple to apply because not more than 8 to 10 candidates may be able to speak to the voter in person. It thus requires less mental effort to make a selection as the choices automatically narrow down. This approach is more prevalent amongst seniors and is a throwback to elections 30 years ago, when it was possible and often expected that the candidate would have some personal interaction with the voter. Given the increase in membership, this expectation is rendered impractical. However, such approach survives because it also embeds within it an element of ego on the part of the voter that “I and my vote are important – and the candidate must demonstrate this by making every effort to contact me.”

c)    Bosses directions – Often cited (to my amazement) is that “my boss has instructed everybody in office to vote for Candidate M”. One can understand if a member comes to a conclusion that the candidate M is best suited to represent the interest of the firm, or the class of firms or industry in which the voter is employed or engaged in. To a lesser extent, one could even appreciate that if a senior whose opinion you respect recommends a particular candidate very highly, the voter can be significantly influenced. But to vote in favour of a particular candidate M – merely on instructions throws all notions of “independent choice” for a toss. The voter does not know what the candidate stands for, his competence or abilities but is more concerned about the consequences “if my boss finds out – that I did not vote for candidate M.”

Numerous examples of such superficial, extraneous and inappropriate criteria can be given. All this is happening because, most of the members (or the silent majority) are well-intentioned persons who feel that this entire election process is extraneous to him, as he does not have an answer to the question that bothers him – “what’s in it for me?”

The members are not indifferent, not negative but are simply exercising what economic theory refers to as “Rational Ignorance”. The use of the word “ignorance” may sound harsh – but this is a phrase used in the economic and political theory. The phrase was coined by Mr. Anthony Downs in his seminal work “An Economic Theory of Democracy” where it is mentioned that – Rational ignorance occurs when the cost of educating oneself on an issue exceeds the potential benefit that the knowledge would provide2. In the context of ICAI elections, one can understand “rational ignorance” to mean that the perception of the voter is that going through the various e-mails, brochures or taking an active interest in the election process and ranking of candidates has very little outcome on the ultimate choice of who gets elected or on what policies are adopted for the ICAI. If this is understood by the member in an absolute context, that his choices make no difference whatsoever, the members show no commitment or inclination to even go and cast their votes. In economic terms, there is no “payback”, for the time likely to be spent in evalu-ation of candidates and in voting.

Since these members do not vote, and therefore do not affect the outcome of the election, one needs to see the factors that influence those members who do vote. Members who do vote, generally appreciate that at least in the narrow realm of their direct concerns (such as CPE, Bank Audit, SMP issues as mentioned earlier), electing a person who will further these interests is beneficial. However, they are also of the view that their own impact on the ultimate outcome is marginal and that the management of affairs of the Institute would most likely continue in the same direction so long as the few persons who are on the negative list are not elected. Therefore, such voters, generally, recognise their interest, but also exercise the logical choice of “rational ignorance”, in the belief that disruption of their personal/professional time, going through numerous brochures, manifestos, e-mails and SMS’s is not relevant, as it does not further the objective of making a rational choice amongst candidates. It is, therefore, much easier to adopt the very elementary criteria (community, firm, recommendation etc.) rather than exercising vigilance and due care in choice of specific candidates. That this approach is not driven by indifference but by “rational ignorance”, can be very easily established. Experienced candidates will confirm that persons going for voting, often go with a clear decision (based on the elementary criteria) about their Central Council preferences. But even when they reach the polling booth, they may be unaware of the candidates contesting the Regional Council. This will show that such voters are aware that although their overall impact on the election results may be minimal, getting a suitable person who will further their interests (such as bank audits and Big firm vs SMP issues) at the policy-making level i.e. Central Council is necessary and “is in his interest”. The Regional Council election will have virtually no direct impact on their personal issues ,and therefore the degree of “rational ignorance”, in regard to the regional Council elections is higher.

It would appear from the above, that the voter behaviour does not arise out of apathy or indifference, but is the logical preference for “rational ignorance”. If this is so, well-meaning professionals, professional organisations like the BCAS and the ICAI itself, would appear to be wrong in their attempt to create greater involvement and participation in the election process. But such a conclusion would be incorrect, because there is a fallacy in the above reasoning. The voters exercising “rational ignorance” do so in the mistaken belief that the impact on their own interest is marginal and that irrespective of who is elected, the affairs of the Institute would be guided by the best interests of the majority of members. But in reality, this is not so, as explained in another economic theory – the Public Choice Theory3 . A study of this well accepted political and economic theory would show (and I have learnt from experience) that the fundamental assumption that the Institute would continue to work in the interests of the majority of members is incorrect. If the large mass of voters opt for “rational ignorance”, or abstain from voting, then the policies adopted would be influenced by the lobby or group that is more organised, and therefore, more influential. Would the policies be more influenced by members in the SMP segment (who constitute more than 80% of the membership), or is it the larger firms which would wield greater influence. The public choice theory clearly lays down that, whichever group is able to exercise influence in an organised manner will drive the policy in the direction favoured by such a lobby or group. It is for us to test whether this theory is simply an academic issue or something that really works at the ground level. I would leave it for readers to judge by evaluating the policies of the ICAI in the recent past. By way of an example, I may only draw attention to the composition and policies of Professional Accountancy Councils in Europe and USA (which are broadly similar to the ICAI Council). You will probably recognise the public choice theory in application in those circumstances, if you consider the composition of those councils and the policies framed by them. In almost all these countries, their policy formulation is overwhelmingly dominated by large firms who have a disproportionately higher representation as compared to the SMPs in those countries. This is apparently because though the SMPs even in those countries are larger in number; they seem to be less organised in terms of electoral groupings. This would indicate that the public choice theory does apply even to professional bodies and I see no reason why ICAI can be an exception to the theory.

If members consider the above points, it would be clear to each one of them that exercising “rational ignorance”, in such circumstances, may not be the appropriate choice because there is a lot at stake for each member. This is even more so for the members in the 25 to 55 age group (who incidentally constitute a large chunk of the electorate). These members will be significantly impacted by these policy decisions – irrespective of whether they are in practice or in employment. Where this profession and its members will be two decades from now could well be decided by certain approaches and policies chosen today. These issues could have significant impact on the nature and size of practice, on the entry and training requirements of our students and the way Indian professionals will perform in the global economy. Issues such as the road map for adoption of Ind AS, role of ICAI as a regulator, requires an informed debate which is usually not possible in the din of elections. But, it will be our elected representatives who will lay down the milestones for policy in this regard.

If all these facts are considered, it will be apparent that there is a lot at stake for every member who is conscious of the larger picture. In order to effectively shape and influence ICAI policy in the medium and long-term, it is imperative for every voter to see what is in it for us rather than for me (as a selfish, narrower horizon). Further, when the voter considers us, he has to recognise that it is not merely a big firm vs SMP issue. The us can refer to various interest groups within the profession which may have certain common objectives or interests. For example, recently certain interest groups have very actively sought to use the Internet to activate a common platform in regard to allotment of bank branch audit and influence the approach of members across the country to voting for candidates based on their response to this issue. This is a pressure group or lobby that fits perfectly in the parameters of the public choice theory. I personally believe that this is not in the larger interests of the profession- i.e. it is not in the interest of the majority of members to approach matters in this manner. However, the public choice theory indicates, that such a group (or any other organised interest group) may be able to drive a policy away from the larger interests of the profession and in the direction preferred by such a group. If the common member feels that the actions of a certain organised group are not in his interest and/ or in the interest of the profession, his only response in the democratic process – is to make his view known – through his vote. So if the member has a view in regard to the ICAI, its affairs, its policies and its future – it is not enough to vote on the basis of simplistic and superficial criteria adopted, consequent to opting for ‘rational ignorance’ approach. If the members really want to influence the way the Institute deals with the future challenges (our future as professionals), you must realise and accept that pro-active, logical voting is in your and our own interest. There is everything at stake for us. You need to make your vote count if you are concerned with OUR future – that’s the “pay off” for each individual who votes – there is everything in it for you.

FDI Framework: Whither are we Bound?

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Introduction
India received Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) worth US $ 176 billion during the 12-year period of April 2000 to July 2012. This highlights the importance of FDI to the Indian economy. FDI is a much preferred form of foreign investment as compared to other forms, such as, Portfolio Investment, Foreign Institutional Investment, etc. This is because, the FDI flows are considered to be relatively more long-term in nature. One peculiar nature of the FDI Framework in India is that it is governed by multiple laws/policies/regulations and it has more than one Ministry/ Regulator/ Agency to deal with. Often one finds that a stance taken by one Agency in relation to FDI, has not yet been endorsed by another or is exactly opposite to the stance of the other. Such a scenario, creates unnecessary confusion and pollutes the investment climate. The story of India’s FDI Framework is complex and compelling, and through this Article, I hope to highlight some of these qualities.

Regulations & Agencies
The FDI Framework in India stands on a threelegged tripod consisting of three Regulations ~ the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 along with its Regulations, the Consolidated FDI Policy, and the Circulars to Authorised Person issued from time to time by the Reserve Bank of India.

Interestingly, just as there are three Regulations, there are also three Agencies/Ministries/Regulators which are involved in the FDI Regime – the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry and the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), Ministry of Finance. Each of these three agencies has an important role to play.

FEMA and RBI
The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is a Central Statute of the Parliament and is the supreme Act, when it comes to regulating all foreign transactions in India, including those pertaining to FDI. The FEMA also consists of Regulations issued by the RBI from time to time. The relevant Regulations for FDI are the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by Persons Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000 (Notification No. FEMA 20/2000-RB dated May 3, 2000). U/s. 46 of the FEMA, the RBI has power to make Rules to carry out the provisions of the Act. Further, u/s. 47, it has the powers to make Regulations to carry out the provisions of the Act and the Rules.

The RBI is the nodal regulatory authority for all matters connected with foreign exchange transactions in India. It is the authority which has powers to launch prosecution, levy penalties, allow compounding of offences, etc., as well as the agency which lays down rules for valuation, reporting requirements, etc.

One feature of the FEMA Regulations is the Directions issued by the RBI u/s. 10(4) and 11(1) of the FEMA to various Authorised Persons, popularly known as “A.P.(DIR Series) Circulars”. Authorised Persons are Authorised Dealers, Money Changers, Banks, etc., who are authorised by the RBI to deal in foreign exchange. Thus, these Circulars are operational instructions from the RBI to Banks, etc. The legal validity of these Circulars has been upheld by the Bombay High Court in the case of Prof. Krishnaraj Goswami v. the RBI, 2007 (6) Bom CR 565. The Court held as follows:

“………the Reserve Bank of India issued the impugned circular by way of directions as contemplated under Sections 10(4) and 11(1) of the Act. A bare reading of these provisions clearly show that the Reserve Bank of India has the power to issue directions to the authorised persons and this power is wide enough to cover any kind of directions so far it provide for the regulation of the Foreign Exchange management. We are unable to find any merit in the contention raised on behalf of the petitioner that the Reserve Bank of India has no jurisdiction to issue such circulars. Section 10(4) of the Act clearly stipulates that an authorised person shall, as contemplated under Section 10(1) of the Act, in all his dealings is bound by the directions, general or special, issued by the Reserve Bank of India. Similarly, Section 11(1) of the Act provides that the Reserve Bank of India may, for the purpose of securing compliance with the provisions of the Act and of any Rules, Regulations and directions made under the provisions of the Act, give to the authorised persons any direction in regard to making of payment or the doing or desist from doing of any act relating to foreign exchange or foreign security….”

Once a year on 1st July of every year and occasionally, on a half-yearly basis, the RBI issues a Master Circular which consolidates all the existing Circulars at one place. Master Circulars are issued with a sunset clause of one year. Master Circulars were introduced in accordance with the recommendations of the Tarapore Committee. This Committee recommended that every year, the RBI should consolidate all the instructions and Regulations on each subject into a Master Circular for use by the public. It also recommended that the Master Circulars should be prepared in an unambiguous language without using jargons.

Whilst the FEMA, the Rules and the Regulations have legal force, the Circulars and Master Circulars are only directions.

CFIP and DIPP
The DIPP frames the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in India which lays down the sectors in which FDI is allowed, the conditions attached and the sectoral caps. It also lays down the sectors in which FDI is Automatic and those in which it requires Approval of the Government of India. The FDI Policy is prepared in the form of the Consolidated FDI Policy (“CFDIP”). The Policy defines FDI to mean investment by non-resident entities in the capital of an Indian company under Schedule 1 of FEMA No. 20/2000-RB dated 3rd May, 2000.

Earlier, the DIPP used to issue Press Notes from time to time, which used to lay down the FDI Policy and changes made to the same. Since the past two years, it has started the practice of preparing a Consolidated FDI Policy which subsumes all Press Notes/Press Releases/ Circulars issued by DIPP till date. In the first two years, the DIPP came out with a Consolidated FDI Policy twice a year, i.e., on a half-yearly basis – in April and in October. However, it has now clarified that henceforth, it would be an annual event. Thus, the next CFDIP would be in April 2013.

The power of the Government to lay down economic policy has been the subject-matter of great judicial interest. In Balco Employees Union v UOI, (2002) 2 SCC 333, the Supreme Court laid down the prerogative of the Government to frame the economic policy:

“……The Courts have consistently refrained from interfering with economic decisions as it has been recognised that economic expediencies lack adjudicative disposition and unless the economic decision, based on economic expediencies, is demonstrated to be so violative of constitutional or legal limits on power or so abhorrent to reason, that the Courts would decline to interfere. In matters relating to economic issues, the Government has, while taking a decision, right to “trial and error” as long as both trial and error are bona fide and within limits of authority. ….”

Again in Federation of Railway Officers Association v. UOI (2003) 4 SCC 289, the Apex Court laid down the following principle:


“……In examining a question of this nature where a policy is evolved by the Government judicial review thereof is limited. When policy according to which or the purpose for which discretion is to be exercised is clearly expressed in the statute, it cannot be said to be an unrestricted discretion. On matters affecting policy and requiring technical expertise Court would leave the matter for decision of those who are qualified to address the issues. Unless the policy or action is inconsistent with the Constitution and the laws or arbitrary or irrational or abuse of the power, the Court will not interfere with such matters.”

The validity of the FDI Policy laid down by the Government, has come in for review by the Courts. In the decision of Radio House v UOI, 2008 (2) Kar. LJ 695 (Kar), the Karnataka High Court held while dealing with the definition of ‘wholesale trading’ laid down in an earlier version of the FDI Policy:

“………The task of defining the term ‘cash and carry wholesale trade’ is to be best left to the Government, which has formulated the policy of inviting the FDI. No directions can be given to the Government to accept a particular definition of the term ‘cash and carry wholesale trade’ in preference to or to the exclusion of its other definitions from other sources. Therefore the challenge to the approval order, dated 5th December, 2000 (Annexure-B) fails. …………..

………But it is for the Government to evolve a policy to safeguard the interest of the retailers. It is trite position in law that the Court should not substitute its wisdom for the wisdom of the Government in policy matters.”

The FDI Policy on Wholesale Trading was also the subject-matter of review in the case of Federation of Associations of Maharashtra v UOI, W.P. (C) Nos. 9568-70 of 2003 (Del) where the Court held as follows:

“…….The aforesaid is apparent from the fact that no one is disputing the right of the Government to lay down its policy……….. once it is recognised that the Government can amend its policy, nothing pre-cludes the Government from issuing a clarification even if it is read in the nature of an amendment of the policy. ……………The matter in issue is not even of any statutory interpretation, but of the policy. The policy-framer is the concerned Ministry which itself has issued the clarification / modification. The learned ASG is right in his submissions that the matter is one of policy decision and allocation of businesses and FIPB functions as part of the concerned Ministry. ………The relevant authority is the Government itself which had framed the policy. ……………..

59.    The interpretation of the Government is also not out of thin hair. It is trite to say that with the expansion of international commerce and trade, there are certain internationally understood concepts, which have come into play. Is the Court to look to the traditional definition of what may be wholesale or retail as may be considered in the dictionaries and in the country earlier or is the Court to accept the definition adopted by the Government on international practice? The Government’s view is based on the WTO definition of wholesale trade. The Government can hardly be faulted on this account and it is not for the Court to go into this question……….….This being the position, it is the stand of the Government, which has to be given the greatest weight in such matters. There cannot be any knit-picking on this issue of the definition when the stand of the Government has come clearly in its affidavit as enunciated by its clarification. The Government wants B2B sales to form a part of wholesale cash and carry business. So be it.”

A decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Putzmeister India Private Limited and others vs. UOI, W.P.(C) 5633-35/2006 Order dated July 1, 2008 (Del) is also relevant. This case examined the validity of the erstwhile Press Note 1 of 2005 issued by the DIPP requiring the FIPB’s permission in cases where the foreign investor had a prior joint venture in the same / allied field:

“27. Issues pertaining to foreign investment and attendant modalities are largely a matter of executive policy; to some extent, these are also governed by provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act and the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India. The three press notes fall in the domain of enunciation of executive policy………A large number of decisions have ruled that the wisdom of an executive policy does not fall within the domain of judicial review; nor does Article 226 permit High Courts to sit in appellate judgment over executive decisions, made in legitimate bounds of exercise of power……….When two views are reasonably possible about the interpretation of an executive order, the court is of the opinion that unless strong and compelling reasons exist, it should not supplant the views of the executive government.”

FIPB

The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. As explained above, FDI could be Automatic or it may require the Approval of the Government of India. The FIPB is a nodal authority for approving all FDI proposals which require prior Government Approval. The FIPB provides a single-window mechanism for all such FDI proposals, which are not permissible under the automatic route. The FIPB has been a part of several Ministries. It initially started as a part of Prime Minister’s Office, later on it became a part of the DIPP and now is a part of the DEA, Ministry of Finance. All FDI proposals up to an investment amount of Rs. 1,200 crores are approved by the Finance Minister, while those in excess of Rs. 1,200 crores are approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). The FIPB consists of Secretaries from various Ministries, such as, Finance, DIPP, External Affairs, Department of Commerce, etc.

It may be noted that the FIPB is a body without any statutory backing nor can it make any law. In the case of Zippers Karamchari Union vs. UOI, 2000 (10) SCC 619, the Supreme Court while dealing with the grant of an approval by the FIPB to YKK, Japan to set up a subsidiary in India, held as follows:

“….It is a matter of government policy and in our opinion no sustainable ground was urged before us to hold that the approval granted to YKK was contrary to the government policy. The Court would not be justified in interfering in such matters when it is satisfied that a grant of approval to YKK was neither irrational, nor for any extraneous consideration….”

CFDIP or FEMA, Which One Prevails?

One question which has often been raised has been-which one is supreme – the FDI Policy or the FEMA Regulations? The answer to this is very simple. It is the FEMA and the Regulations issued thereunder which are superior to the FDI Policy. The Policy is notified by the RBI as amendments to the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by Persons Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000. Schedule 1 of these Regulations deals with “Foreign Direct Investment Scheme”. Para 2 of Schedule 1 gives recognition to the FDI Policy by providing that the Automatic Route for FDI is available to a company in accordance with Annex B to the Schedule and the provisions of the FDI Policy, as notified by the Ministry of Commerce, from time to time. Annex B contains the “Sectoral Specific Policy for Foreign Investment”. This Annex B is based on the FDI Policy issued by the DIPP.

The FDI Policy itself provides that in the case of any conflict with the FEMA Regulations, the FEMA Notifications would prevail.

Thus, the descending order of hierarchy amongst various pronouncements would be: FEMA -> Rules & Regulations ->  AP Dir Circulars ->  Master Circulars -> FDI Policy by DIPP -> Press Notes/Clarifications by DIPP.

PIL before SC

An interesting question recently arose before the Supreme Court in a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) – Manohar Lal Sharma v UOI, Writ Petition (Civil) 417 of 2012 (SC), Order dated 15th October, 2012. Before going into the facts of this case, a background to this case merits attention. The DIPP vide Press Note No. 5 of 2012 dated 20th September 2012, permitted FDI in Multi-brand Retail Trading under the Approval Route of the FIPB. Prior to this, FDI in this sector was altogether prohibited. Annex A to Schedule 1 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by Persons Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000 as well as the CFDIP both provided that FDI in “Retail Trading (except single brand product retailing)” is a “Sector prohibited for FDI”. Press Note 5/2012 modified the CFDIP by permitting 51% FDI in Multi-brand Retail Trading. Subsequently, the RBI issued Directions to Authorised Persons vide A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 32 dated 21st September 2012, specifying that the FDI Policy has been modified to permit 51% FDI in Multi-brand Retailing. It also mentioned that neces-sary amendments to the FEMA Regulations are being notified separately.

However, the FEMA Regulations No. 20-2000/RB have yet not been modified. They yet contain the old Annex B which provides that FDI is not permitted in Multi-brand Retailing. Thus, a PIL was filed which stated that in the absence of amendment to the FEMA Regulations, the FDI Policy could not prevail over it and hence, a petition was made to the Supreme Court asking for a stay on the Press Notes allowing FDI in Multi-brand Retailing.

In the above-mentioned PIL, the Supreme Court up-held the superiority of the FEMA Regulations over the FDI Policy. However, it also upheld the amendments to the FDI Policy on Retail Trading but asked the Government to bring the FEMA Notifications up to date with the FDI Policy. The Court held that amending the FEMA Regulations is a legal process which has to be taken to logical conclusion. It is a routine thing and it has to be done. It also held that not amending the FEMA Regulations was at best, an irregularity that is curable and as soon as amendment is brought, it would be cured.

The Bench added that there is no question of any stay on the FDI policy. It held that the FDI policy was prepared by the Central Government and it is not that RBI had been kept in the dark by the Centre. RBI had already issued a Circular amending the FDI limits but it had not formally amended the Regulations. Accordingly, the Court asked the Attorney General when RBI would do so. It gave RBI time to do so by noting as follows:

“….but you have to give the policy a legal shape by amending the regulation. These matters have huge impact….”

On the allegation in the PIL that the Centre’s notification was issued without the authority of law as approval of neither the President nor the Parliament was secured, the Supreme Court rejected the same by saying that the assumption that the policy has to be in the name of the President is flawed and unfounded. It further said that a policy is never required to be placed before the Parliament.

This decision clearly establishes the supremacy of the FEMA Regulations over the FDI Policy and that the Regulations must be amended to reflect the FDI Policy.


Contrasting Stands

The above was an instance where the RBI had not yet modified the FEMA Regulations to be in touch with the CFDIP. However, what about cases where the RBI’s view is exactly opposite to that of the CFDIP? A case in point is the issue of FDI instruments with Put and Call Options. Since the last 2-3 years, the RBI has been taking a view that exit options, such as put and call options, attached to Compulsorily Convertible Debentures/Preference Shares/Equity Shares for FDI are not valid. The view being taken was that, a fixed exit option makes the equity instrument equivalent to a debt instrument. The DIPP in its CFDIP issued vide Circular 2/2011, contained a Clause that only instruments with no in-built options of any type would qualify as eligible instruments for FDI. Instruments issued/transferred to non-residents with in-built options would lose their equity character and such instruments would have to comply with the ECB guidelines. Within a month of its issuance, the CFDIP was modified and a Corrigendum was issued by the DIPP deleting the above Clause. Thus, the DIPP’s stance on the issue is now very clear, i.e., FDI can have in-built options. However, the RBI’s stance on this issue has yet not mellowed. Such divergent views between the FDI Policy and the FEMA Regulations are best avoided, since they do nothing but add to the regulatory confusion and mayhem.

FDI v FII / PIS
While on the subject of FDI, it would not be out of place to highlight the distinction between FDI inflows on the one hand and inflows from Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) / Portfolio Investment Schemes (PIS) on the other hand. FDI is primary market investment by non-resident entities in the capital of an Indian company, i.e., money directly comes to the Indian company. FII and PIS on the other hand are secondary market investments, in which foreign investment is made by acquiring the shares of an Indian company from other resident/non-resident shareholders. It may be noted that FII investment is not subject to the sectoral caps and conditions laid down in the CFDIP. In cases where the RBI also wants to prevent, investment under the FII/PIS, it has expressly done so. For instance, earlier, FII/NRI investment was prohibited under the print media sector. No such restriction is now found.

Another analogy is in the real estate sector. Under the PIS, FIIs can also acquire shares of real estate company making an IPO. The conditions of lock-in, minimum capitalisation, minimum area, etc., which are associated with FDI in real estate are not applicable to a Portfolio Investment made by FIIs, including that made under the IPO of a real estate company. However, FII investments in any pre-IPO placement are treated on par with FDI and are subject to all conditions of the erstwhile Press Note 2 /2005.

Conclusion
India’s FDI Policy is multi-faceted and is often prone to pulls and tugs from within the system. Is it not strange that for a country which aims to be the cynosure of the global attention and which is constantly vying with China, Brazil, Russia, etc., for FDI, India continues to have contrasting stands from Ministries and Regulators on the FDI Policy. FDI loves certainty as explained by Justice Kapadia, in the celebrated decision of Vodafone International Holdings, 341 ITR 1 (SC):

“…FDI flows towards location with a strong governance infrastructure which includes enactment of laws and how well the legal system works. Certainty is integral to rule of law. Certainty and stability form the basic foundation of any fiscal system…”

Maybe it is time to disband multiple agencies, such as, the FIPB and the DIPP and replace them with one Super Regulator for all things connected with FDI in India. Should we not get over our hangover of the “Licence Raj” once and for all? It would be desirable if we have a clear FDI Policy devoid of confusion and ambiguity. One may sum up with a quote from Henry Miller, the noted American Author:

“Confusion is a word we have invented for an order which is yet not understood!”

Property, Plant and Equipment – Changes under Ind AS

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Property, plant and equipment (PPE) comprise a significant portion of the total assets of an entity and therefore are important in the presentation of the entity’s financial position. In addition, the determination of whether expenditure represents an asset or an expense, can have a material effect on an entity’s reported results.

Currently, under Indian GAAP, accounting for PPE is covered by AS 10 ‘Accounting for Fixed Assets’. The other standards and regulations which are applicable to the accounting for PPE include AS 6 ‘Depreciation Accounting’ AS 16 ‘Borrowing Costs’, AS 11- The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates and certain notifications of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA).

Under Ind AS, the accounting for PPE is covered by Ind AS 16 – ‘Property, Plant and Equipment’ along with guidance under Ind AS 23 – ‘Borrowing Costs’, and Ind AS 21 – ‘The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates.

In this article, we will examine and illustrate some of the key differences in practice between Ind AS and Indian GAAP, as it is currently applicable, with respect to the accounting of PPE.

  • General and Administrative Overheads:

Under the current Indian GAAP, certain general and administrative expenses which are specifically attributable to the cost of the asset or construction of a project are capitalised as part of the cost of the asset. These expenses are generally in the nature of start-up costs or pre-operating expenses.

As per Ind AS 16, costs eligible for capitalisation are the cost of the asset, duties and non refundable purchase taxes, less trade discounts and rebates. It includes those costs which are directly attributable to bringing the asset to the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in a manner intended by management. This capitalised cost of the asset does not include general and administrative overheads.

  • Foreign Exchange Differences:

As per the revised AS–11 and subsequent MCA notifications, foreign exchange differences on foreign currency long term monetary items related to acquisition of a depreciable capital asset may be capitalised to the cost of the asset and depreciated over the balance life of the asset. This is an irrevocable option which the entities have, currently under the modified AS 11.

Under Ind AS, there is no such guidance and all foreign exchange differences on acquisition of assets are expensed to the income statement. Capitalisation is not permitted. Thus, there would be a difference in the capitalised value of the property, plant and equipment under Ind AS with a corresponding impact to the depreciation amount in the income statement.


  • Asset Retirement Obligations:

At present, there is a divergence in practice under Indian GAAP such that certain companies do not upfront recognise the cost of dismantling or removing the asset or restoring the site on which the asset was located to its original condition. Such obligations are recorded in the financial statements, only when the liability is incurred.

Ind AS 16 provides that the cost of the asset also includes the initial estimate of the costs of dismantling and removing the item, and restoring the site to its original condition. Hence, the cost of the asset should include an amount equivalent to the present value of the liability recognised for the cost of dismantling or removing the asset and of restoring the asset to its original condition as per initial estimates of the management. Interest, which is imputed in the transaction, shall be recognised subsequently through the profit and loss account. The total cost of the asset (original cost plus the present value of the obligation) shall be depreciated as per the useful life estimated by the management.

Let us understand this concept through the following example:

Example 1:

Company A is a chemical manufacturing company, which has recently installed an asset at its manufacturing facility. The cost of the asset is Rs. 100 lakh and the Company is expected to incur certain restoration costs on the land on which the asset is located at the end of five years. The Company follows the straight line method of depreciation. The Company estimates that the restoration costs shall be Rs. 20 lakh. The current market rate of interest is 10%. Hence, the Company estimates that the present value of the obligation on day one at an interest rate of 10% shall be Rs. 12.42 lakh (approx).

– Initial measurement

As per the provisions of Ind AS 16, the Company will capitalise the asset at a value of Rs. 112.42 lakh (Rs. 100 lakh of its initial capitalised value of the asset and Rs. 12.42 lakh of its estimate of restoration costs). It will also record a provision of Rs. 12.42 lakh towards this liability. The accounting entry will be as shown in Table 1.

Table 1 – Initial Measurement Entries (Rs. in lakh)

– Subsequent measurement

The company follows a straight line method of depreciation and hence, would recognize the depreciation expense as shown in Table 2.

Table 2 – Deprication (Rs. in lakh)

The provision has been recognised at its present value of Rs. 12.42 lakh. However, payment to be made at the end of the year 5 is Rs. 20 lakh. Accordingly, at the discount rate of 10% determined earlier, the provision shall be accreted through the income statement to Rs. 20 lakh at the end of the fifth year. For detailed calculation of the accretion amounts, please refer to the Table 3:

Table 3 – Accretion to Provision for Restoration Cost (Rs. in lakh)

Accounting entry:

*Every year

Income statement a/c (imputed interest) Dr.

To Provision for restoration costs Cr.

At the end of year 5

Provision for restoration costs a/c Dr. (Rs. 20 lakh)

To Cash/Bank a/c Cr. (Rs. 20 lakh)

Deferred Payment Terms:

Under Indian GAAP, the capitalised cost of the PPE is the transaction value – the value agreed to be paid for the cost of the asset. Hence, deferred payment terms do not affect the capitalised value of the asset.

The accounting practice prescribed under Ind AS 16 differs from Indian GAAP. It defines that the cost of acquisition of the asset is equal to its cash price or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of other consideration given to acquire the asset. Thus, in a scenario where the terms of acquisition, payment is deferred over a period of time, the asset would have to be recognised initially at its present value. This would also apply where companies retain retention money for a particular asset. This has been further explained through the example given below:

Example 2:

Company C purchases an asset at a cost of Rs. 66 lakh with a useful life of six years. The normal trade practice in the industry is for the purchaser to retain a certain amount of the cost of the asset which is payable two years from the date of purchase. Accordingly, Company C agrees to pay Rs. 60 lakh and to hold Rs. 6 lakh as retention money payable after two years from the date of purchase.

The market rate of interest on the date of the transaction is 9%. Accordingly, the present value of the retention money discounted at 9% for two years amounts to Rs. 5,05,008. The accounting entries in the books of Company C are as shown in Table 4:

Table 4 – Accounting for Retention Money in Asset Purchase


Depreciation shall be computed and accounted for on the capitalised value of the asset Rs. 6,505,008 over the estimated useful life of the asset – 6 years.

Borrowing Costs:

Differences in practice with respect to borrowing cost capitalisation between Indian GAAP and Ind AS include:

  •    Guidance under Indian GAAP and Ind AS state that ‘Borrowing costs that are directly attributable to the acquisition, construction or production of a qualifying asset should be capitalised as part of the cost of that asset.’ Hence, to qualify for capitalisation of borrowing costs, the asset should take a ‘substantial period of time’ to get ready for its intended use or sale. While the definitions of a qualifying asset are predominantly the same, there is a bright line of 12 months given under Indian GAAP for ‘substantial period of time’, whereas under Ind AS there is no bright line given. An assessment of substantial period of time is based on management’s best estimate. Thus, the borrowing costs qualifying for capitalisation may differ under Indian GAAP and Ind AS.

  •    Secondly, capitalisation of borrowing costs under Indian GAAP is based on the contractual rate of interest of loans borrowed. However, under Ind AS, such capitalisation is based on the effective interest rate of loans borrowed. An effective interest rate is computed after taking into consideration amortisation of loan processing fees and other upfront charges on availing the loan facility.

Depreciation:

Under Indian GAAP currently, a company may choose to depreciate its assets in the financial statements, using only the written down value or straight line method. The rates for such depreciation are governed by Schedule XIV to the Companies Act, 1956 and as a practice, most companies adopt the rates of depreciation prescribed in the Schedule.

Ind AS requires a company to follow that method of depreciation that best reflects the pattern in which, the future economic benefits are expected to be consumed by the company. Depreciation as per this method is based on the useful life of the asset which is an estimate by the management, which may be different from the rates entities use as per Schedule XIV at present. The residual value and the useful life of an asset, need to be reviewed at least at each financial year-end, and if expectations differ from previous estimates, the changes are to be accounted for as a change in an accounting estimate. Further, a change in the depreciation method shall also be treated as a change in accounting estimate and effected prospectively.

There may be certain components of an asset which are significant and have different useful lives. Ind AS requires a company to depreciate these components, separately based on an estimate of their useful lives. Such components include major inspection costs or overhaul charges. This approach towards measurement of depreciation, amortises the cost of replacement of key components during overhauls in a systematic manner.

Example 3

AJ Engineering Limited purchases an asset for its manufacturing activities. The total cost of the asset is Rs. 100 lakh and its useful life is six years. The asset has three main components – Component A with a cost of Rs. 60 lakh and a useful life of six years, Component B with a cost of Rs. 30 lakh and a useful life of three years and Component C with a cost of Rs. 10 lakh and a useful life of two years. The management believes that the straight line method of depreciation, most appropriately reflects the pattern in which future economic benefits shall flow to the company. Components B and C are replaced when their useful life has been exhausted.

The capitalised cost of the asset is Rs. 100 lakh. In the second year and third year, components C and B will be derecognised respectively, and replaced by fresh components and depreciated over their estimated useful lives i.e. two and three years. The measurement of depreciation shall be as shown in Table 5:

Table
5 – Depreciation under Component Approach (Rs in lakh)

Particulars

Remarks

Year
1

Year
2

Year
3

Year
4

Year
5

Year
6

Total

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Cost

 

100

 

(10)

(30)

(10)

 

50

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Replacement of Compo-

 

 

 

10

30

10

 

50

nents

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Depreciation

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Component A

Useful life –

(10)

(10)

(10)

(10)

(10)

(10)

(60)

 

6
years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Component B

Useful life –

(10)

(10)

(10)

 

 

 

(30)

 

3
years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Component B (replaced)

Useful life –

 

 

 

(10)

(10)

(10)

(30)

 

3
years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Component C

Useful life –

(5)

(5)

 

 

 

 

(10)

 

2
years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Component C (replaced)

Useful life –

 

 

(5)

(5)

(5)

(5)

(20)

 

2
years

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Depreciation
charge for

 

(25)

(25)

(25)

(25)

(25)

(25)

(150)

the year

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Upon de-recognition and recognition of components, the accounting entries as shown in Table 6 shall be passed:

Table 6 – Accounting Entries on De-recognition (Rs. in lakh)

Particulars

Dr/

Amount

Amount

 

Cr

 

 

 

 

 

 

Derecognition
of

 

 

 

Component B at end

 

 

 

of year 3

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Accumulated Deprecia-

Dr.

30

 

tion A/c

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

To Asset A/c (Compo-

Cr.

 

30

nent B)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

(Being: De-recognition

 

 

 

of Component B at

 

 

 

the expiry of its
use-

 

 

 

ful life)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Recognition
of new

 

 

 

Component B in year

 

 

 

4

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Asset A/c (Component

Dr.

30

 

B)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

To Bank A/c

 

 

30

 

 

 

 

Similar entries will need to be considered for Component C.

Example 4

Company P runs a merchant shipping business and has just acquired a new ship for Rs. 40 lakh. The useful life of the ship is 15 years, but it will be dry-docked every three years and a major overhaul shall be carried out. At the acquisition date, the dry-docking costs for similar ships that are three years old, is approximately Rs. 8 lakh.

Hence, while capitalising the ship in the books, the dry-docking costs shall be considered as a separate component, with a useful life of three years and amounting to Rs. 8 lakh. The bal-ance amount, shall be capitalised to the value of the ship – Rs. 32 lakh (assuming there are no other components).

Thus, at the end of the third year, Rs. 8 lakh shall be fully depreciated and the company will incur dry docking costs as anticipated. Accounting for this is done as shown in Table 7 and Table 8:

Table
7 – Accounting for ship and depreciation thereon (Rs. in lakh)

Particulars

Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4-15

Total

 

 

 

 

 

 

Cost

4,000,000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Dry Docking

800,000

 

 

 

 

(Component

 

 

 

 

 

A)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Balance

3,200,000

 

 

 

 

Component

 

 

 

 

 

B

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Deprecia-

 

 

 

 

 

tion

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Compo-

266,667

266,667

266,666

 

800,000

nent A

 

 

 

 

 

(800,000/3)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Compo-

213,334

213,333

213,333

2,560,0000

3,200,000

nent B

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Conclusion:

The principles of accounting for PPE under Ind AS as discussed in this article, vary in a number of aspects vis-à-vis Indian GAAP. The application of these principles shall require training and educating the employees as well as aligning reporting systems and internal controls to enable the entity to report their property, plant and equipment amounts appropriately and accurately.

Has Indian GAAP Outlived its Utility?

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With no sight of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) being implemented in India, we are back to looking at whether Indian GAAP fulfills investors and other stakeholder expectations of providing reliable financial information.

Bad standards result in bad accounting
Consider an arrangement where there is an agreement between two parties to jointly share control. The board of directors has equal representation of directors from both parties. Both parties own 50% shares each. Under Indian GAAP, joint control would result in proportionate consolidation. However, it is possible for both parties to achieve full consolidation. One party can do this by adding one more director on the board as its nominee, and the other party can do this by buying one additional share, but with no change in the joint sharing of the control. Therefore, though the arrangement effectively is unchanged; a small structuring can provide a vastly different accounting result.

Bad standards also prevent good accounting
A company takes a US$ loan from a bank which is to be repaid in thirty six equal installments in the next three years. The company does not stand exposed to exchange rate volatility, as the loan installments will be paid out of highly probable and matching future $ revenues. Typically, the hedging standard would allow the company to use hedge accounting for natural hedges and thereby avoid volatility in the income statement because of exchange rate swings. Unfortunately, under Indian GAAP, hedge accounting is not permitted when they contradict a standard that is notified under the Companies Act. Under Indian GAAP, such exchange gains and losses are recognised in the income statement creating an unnecessary volatility in the income statement, though the company has a 100% natural hedge.

Too many cooks spoil the broth
Consider this – a listed parent entity grants stock option to the employees of its subsidiary. Accounting for stock options is covered under both SEBI’s Guidelines and ICAI’s Guidance Note. ICAI’s guidance note requires the subsidiary company to recognise the expense on share based options irrespective of whether the subsidiary has any settlement obligation towards the parent. As per SEBI Guidelines applicable to listed entities, the parent records the compensation cost. These conflicting requirements create confusion and provide arbitrage to entities, and results in inconsistent application of the principles.

A duck will quack even if you call it a cat
Yes, a duck is a duck. Consider this. Many loans with a defined term and a guaranteed interest rate are structured as preference capital issued under the Companies Act, so that they are classified as share capital under the Indian GAAP. This vitiates the true debt equity ratio of the company. Further, the interest payments are treated as dividends to be appropriated from the P&L account rather than a charge to the P&L account. This is possible because Indian GAAP takes a view that when preparing financial statements, the Companies Act requirements will override accounting requirement of ‘substance over form’. The author believes that accounting should reflect the substance of a transaction. This should not be seen as overriding the legislation, which has been drafted for a different purpose and objective.

Remember the world is changing rapidly
Though the world has changed and is changing rapidly, Indian GAAP remains in the medieval ages. Consider this. Though financial instruments are rampant, the accounting standards relating to financial instruments are not yet notified under the Companies Act. As a result, there has been a lot of confusion, inconsistency and misuse of accounting principles. Under Indian GAAP, a company can structure a loan received from a bank on the pledge of the shares of its subsidiary as a sale of shares, with a right to buy back the same in the future at an agreed price. Typically, this is a financing transaction, but under Indian GAAP one could recognise the sale of the investment and recognise the buy back of the investment in the future. This practice could lead to recognising profit on sale of the investments, not recognising the loan and the corresponding interest expense on the books and obtaining deconsolidation and consolidation at convenience.

Fitting a square peg in a round hole
Financial statements have many uses, but the real objective of any general purpose framework is to provide investors and capital providers with information that is useful for taking decisions. An investor in an investment property company wants to know the fair value of the investment property portfolio, for decision making. The tax authorities are not concerned with the fair values, as they would typically tax rentals or realised capital gains. Standard setters should draft standards for capital providers. Drafting standards that will meet requirements of both capital providers and tax authorities, is like fitting a square peg in a round hole.

There are many travesties under Indian GAAP. The role of robust accounting standards should not be underestimated, in creating a climate of trust for investment. Only when nations create trust, they can raise capital locally and globally. It’s key to providing energy, food, water, education, employment, health and alleviating poverty. Having a variety of accounting standards across the world creates confusion, encourages errors and facilitates frauds. Having a single set of high standards, like IFRS, creates clarity, enhances confidence in financial statements and results in reduced costs of capital.

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State Bank of Mauritius Ltd v DDIT [2012] 25 taxman.com 555 (Mumbai) Article 7(3) of India-Mauritius DTAA; Sections 14A, 43B of I T Act Asst Year: 1999-2000 Decided on: 03 October 2012

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S/s. 43-B, 14-A – Article 7(3) of India Mauritius DTAA not restrictive – No disallowance u/s. 43-B – Section 14-A operates at threshold and to be considered while computing income

Facts:
The taxpayer was a banking company incorporated in Mauritius and entitled to benefit of India-Mauritius DTAA.

The taxpayer had claimed deduction in respect of bonus. However, tax auditors had reported that a part of the amount was not paid on or before the due date of filing of return of income. Accordingly, the AO disallowed the same u/s. 43B of I T Act. Further, the taxpayer had borrowed funds from RBI and invested in tax-free bonds and claimed exemption in respect of interest from the same. Hence, the AO disallowed certain amount u/s. 14A of I T Act as interest on the borrowed funds despite the taxpayer having provided funds flow statement to the AO to demonstrate that it had adequate interest free funds available with it and hence no disallowance should be made.

Held:

The Tribunal observed and held as follows.

(i) Disallowance u/s. 43B

In terms of Article 7(3) of DTAA, for determining profits of a PE, all the expenses incurred for the business of the PE are to be deducted3. Unlike several other DTAAs where Article 7(3) is restrictive, as India-Mauritius DTAA does not have such restrictive clause, expenditure incurred for the purpose of a PE is to be allowed in full. Accordingly, disallowance cannot be effected u/s. 43B.

(ii) Disallowance u/s. 14A

There is a fundamental distinction between disallowance u/s. 14A and other disallowance provisions under business income head, since the other disallowances are in respect of expenses which are otherwise deductible. However, in contrast, section 14A at the threshold snatches away deductibility of expenses incurred in relation to an exempt income.

For instance, in terms of Article 7(4), profits cannot be attributed to a PE by reason of mere purchase of goods. The question is, if no profit can be attributed, whether expenses can be claimed? Obviously, if no profit is included in ‘business profits’, no expenses can be deducted. On the same logic, as interest on tax free bonds is not included in ‘business profits’, expenses pertaining to that cannot be allowed as deduction.

Since the taxpayer borrowed funds for investing in tax free bonds and on the next day repaid the interest bearing funds out of its interest free funds, and also since the taxpayer had sufficient profit from business operations for the year, disallowance of interest should be restricted to interest for only one day.

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National Petroleum Construction Company v ADIT (International Taxation) [2012] 26 taxmann.com 50 (Delhi – Trib.) Asst Year: 2007-08 Date of Order: 05-01-2012 Before Shamim Yahya (AM) and A D Jain (JM)

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Section 44BB – Article 5 of India – UAE DTAA – In a composite contract part of which is sub-contracted time spent by sub-contractor is time spent by contractor – PE exists from date of award of contract – Parties to contract could abandon part of contract without making entire payment or refunding amount received – Contract divisible –Attribution of Profits –No PE in respect of fabrication and profits attributable thereto not taxable in India – Facility in connections with prospecting for or extraction or production of mineral oils does not fall u/s. 44 BB

Facts:

The taxpayer was a company incorporated in, and a tax-resident of, UAE. The taxpayer was awarded a contract by ONGC under international competitive bidding. The contract had two distinct components: (i) designing, fabrication and supply of platform to be carried out exclusively in Abu Dhabi and (ii) installation and commissioning of the erected platform in India. RBI had granted its approval to the taxpayer to set up a project office (“PO”) in India to undertake the entire project. In earlier years as well as in the year under consideration, the taxpayer had shown its PO as its PE.

The taxpayer fabricated the platform in Abu Dhabi and got it certified by ONGC’s approved surveyors. Thereafter, it was brought to India and handed over to ONGC. The taxpayer had engaged a consultant for gathering information, representation and other related services and constituted its dependent agent’s PE.

According to the taxpayer, the work relating to designing, fabrication and supply of platform was performed and completed outside India. Further, it did not have an installation PE in India since installation and commissioning activity was carried out for less than nine months. Hence, the income relating to designing, fabrication and supply was not taxable in India.

The issues before the tribunal were as follows.
(i) Whether the taxpayer had a PE in India?
(ii) Whether a composite contract can be divided in different parts?
(iii) Whether income from offshore supplies was taxable in India?
(iv) Whether section 44BB of I T Act applied to the taxpayer?

Held:
The Tribunal observed and held as follows.

(i) PE in India

Fixed base PE

In earlier years as well as in the year under consideration, the taxpayer had shown its project office, which was approved by RBI to undertake entire project, as its PE. Under India-UAE DTAA, a PO is not a PE if it is involved in ancillary and auxiliary activity. The taxpayer had not adduced any evidence, to establish that the PO had undertaken only such activities.

During the negotiations, employees of the taxpayer had attended meeting s with ONGC and the taxpayer has not disputed that they were employees of its PO. The taxpayer was a non-resident and had undertaken a contract which continued for almost two years1. It was not possible to execute contract of such duration without having any fixed place of business in India.

Hence, the project office was the PE.

Dependent Agent PE

The AO had found that the consultant was actively involved in the project since pre-bidding meetings, hard core marketing and business development and till finalisation of the contract and was not merely assisting in collecting information as claimed by the taxpayer. Further, the employees of the consultant were attending meetings on behalf of the taxpayer2. Also, there was considerable cogency in the AO’s arguments that the consultant worked wholly and exclusively for the assessee, which is a precondition for dependent agent permanent establishment.

Hence, the consultant was dependent agent PE of the taxpayer in India.

Installation PE

In terms of the OECD commentary, if a contractor subcontracts parts of a project to a sub-contractor, the period spent by the sub-contractor must be considered as being time spent by the main contractor itself. The taxpayer had sub-contracted pre-engineering and preconstruction surveys. Hence, the performance of the taxpayer commenced with establishment of project office and pre-engineering/pre-construction surveys. Accordingly, the PE existed from the date of award of the contract to the taxpayer as the site was available since then for survey, etc.

Hence, the contention of the taxpayer that PE existed only after the platform landed in India was not correct and accordingly, the taxpayer had installation PE in India.

(ii) Whether contract was divisible

While the contract could be construed as an umbrella contract, it was a divisible contract since the consideration for various activities was separately stated. Also, either party could withdraw or abandon the contract without making entire payment or refunding the amount received. ONGC had the discretion to take the platform without having it installed by the taxpayer. In such a case, the taxpayer would not be entitled to the consideration for installation and commissioning. Similarly, if the taxpayer abandoned the contract, it would not be bound to refund the amount received towards executed work. All these factors indicated that it was not a turnkey contract.

(iii) Income attributable to PE

The scope of work involved sequential activities and the contract provided separate payment for these activities. Design, engineering, procurement and fabrication operations were carried on outside India.

The platform was fabricated in Abu Dhabi. Though possession was handed over to ONGC in India, the title passed outside of India and in the event of loss during transportation, the payee under the insurance policy was ONGC .

While the taxpayer had a PE in respect of installation and commissioning, it did not have a PE in respect of installation and fabrication. Only income from activities carried on in India could be attributed to PE in India. Hence, only profits in respect of installation and commissioning could be attributed to the PE and the profits attributable to fabrication of platform outside India were not taxable in India.

(iv) Applicability of section 44BB

As installation of the platform cannot be regarded as a “facility in connection with the prospecting for, of extraction or production of mineral oils”, it does not fall u/s. 44BB of I T Act.

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Tax Residency Certificate [TRC]

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1. Background

The Finance Act, 2012
introduced new provisions viz Section 90(4) and 90A(4) in the Income-tax
Act, 1961 (the Act) which states that a non – resident tax payer to
whom a tax treaty is applicable shall not be entitled to claim relief
under such tax treaty unless a certificate, containing prescribed
particulars stating that he is resident in any country outside India is
obtained by him from the government of that foreign country.

The
memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2012 (the
memorandum) specified that the amended Section 90(4) and 90A(4) will
come into effect from 1st April, 2013 i.e. Assessment Year 2013-14.

The
following sub-section (4) inserted after sub-section (3) of section 90
and 90A by the Finance Act, 2012, w.e.f. 1st April, 2013, reads as
under:

Section 90 – “(4) An assessee, not being a resident, to
whom an agreement referred to in sub-section (1) applies, shall not be
entitled to claim any relief under such agreement unless a certificate,
containing such particulars as may be prescribed, of his being a
resident in any country outside India or specified territory outside
India, as the case may be, is obtained by him from the Government of
that country or specified territory.”

Section 90A – “(4) An
assessee, not being a resident, to whom the agreement referred to in
sub-section (1) applies, shall not be entitled to claim any relief under
such agreement unless a certificate, containing such particulars as may
be prescribed, of his being a resident in any specified territory
outside India, is obtained by him from the Government of that specified
territory.”

Thus, it is observed that the language of sections 90(4) and 90A(4) is identical.

2.Objective

The
objective behind the introduction of the amendment is explained in the
Memorandum explaining the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2012, as
follows:

“It is noticed that in many instances that, taxpayers
who are not tax residents of a contracting country do claim benefit
under the DTAA entered into by the Government with the country. Thereby,
even third party residents claim unintended treaty benefit.

Therefore,
it is proposed to amend Section 90 and Section 90A of the Act to make
submission of Tax Residency Certificate containing prescribed
particulars, as a necessary but not sufficient condition for availing
benefits of the agreements referred to in these sections.”

Thus, the object is to prevent unintended recipients from availing of the benefit of a DTAA.

The
amendments come into force w.e.f. 1st April, 2013. The Explanatory
Memorandum clarifies that the provisions are applicable with effect from
Assessment Year 2013-14. Hence, it should not be applicable to
assessments up to Assessment Year 2012-13, even if the assessment is
pending as on 1st April, 2013.

3. Effective date of introduction of Rule 21AB

In
view of contradictory and confusing rules of interpretation regarding
effective date of amendment of / introduction of a rule and varying
judicial interpretations thereof, the effective date of the requirement of obtaining TRC with prescribed details, is a matter of confusion and uncertainty in the minds of the tax payers. Queries have been raised by non-residents, resident payers and their tax consultants with regard to effective date of the TRC requirements imposed w.e.f. 1st April, 2013 by the said notification dated 17th September, 2012.

As pointed out earlier, section 90(4) and 90A(4) have been made effective from assessment year 2013-14, but the relevant rules in respect thereof have been notified on 17th September, 2012 providing that the same would be effective from 1st April, 2013. If it is interpreted that the newly inserted rule 21AB is effective from assessment year 2013- 14 [financial year 2012-13] then for the period 1st April, 2012 to 16th Septemberr, 2012, it is impossible for any tax deductor to obtain the TRC having prescribed particulars for the aforesaid period, as the same were notified only on 17th September, 2012. Therefore, a more prudent and plausible interpretation of the effective date of the rule 21AB should be that it would be applicable for the assessment year 2014-15 [previous year 2013-14] onwards.

The CBDT would do well to clarify that the requirement would apply for remittances to be effected on or after 1st April, 2013 i.e. assessment year 2014-15, so as not to cause hardships and the consequent litigation for the tax payers/ tax deductors and in particular, to provide a window of time to the non-residents to obtain the TRC.

4. Impact of Introduction of Sections 90(4) and 90A(4)

4.1 The requirement applies to all Non Residents, whether Individuals, Companies, LLPs, etc., irrespective of the quantum of relief to be obtained. The requirement would apply only if a relief is to be obtained under a tax treaty. A TRC is not required if no relief is to be obtained under a Tax Treaty. To illustrate, if a resident of UK is to receive royalty from an Indian resident, section 115A provides that the royalty will be charged to tax @ 10% and the India-UK DTAA provides for a tax rate of 15%; the provisions of the Act will be applicable since they are more beneficial to him [Section 90(2)] and the assessee will not be obtaining any relief under the DTAA. In such a case, he will not be required to obtain a TRC.

4.2 Consequences of obtaining a TRC

If a Non-resident obtains and furnishes a TRC, what are the consequences? Are the Tax Authorities debarred from making any further enquiries regarding his residential status? Can the A.O. further examine as to whether the non – resident is really a resident of the Foreign Country under Article 4 of the Tax Treaty with that country? There are 2 views in the matter. According to one view, in spite of the TRC, the A.O. is empowered to make further enquiries to reach a conclusion that the Non-resident is not a Resident of the Other Country issuing the TRC as there is nothing in Section 90(4) to explicitly provide that the TRC will be sufficient for establishing the Residential Status of a Non-resident. According to the other view, the A.O. is required to accept the TRC as conclusive and that he cannot go behind it so far as the Residential Status is concerned. The second view seems to be supported by the decision of the Supreme Court in Union of India vs Azadi Bachao Andolan (2003) 263 ITR 706 (SC) upholding the validity of CBDT Circular No. 789 dated 13th April, 2000.

4.3 Net of Tax Payment

In case of net of tax payment due under a contract with a Non-resident, it is the duty of the payer to calculate the tax liability correctly. Therefore, it would appear that the payer needs to obtain a TRC from the payee, in such cases also. However, in case of absence of Payee’s PAN No., if the payer is discharging his liability under the provisions of Section 206AA, it would appear that the payer need not obtain a TRC from the payee, since no relief is being claimed under the relevant Tax Treaty.

4.4 Time for obtaining the TRC for resident tax deductors u/s 195

In a case where a resident is required to make a payment to a non-resident after deducting tax u/s 195 after 17th September, 2012, in order to avoid confusion relating to effective date of the rule 21AB regarding TRC requirements and consequent litigation, it would be prudent for a tax deductor to insist that the non-resident payee furnishes TRC containing prescribed particulars before the remittance is made by the tax deductor, allowing any relief under the applicable tax treaty.

In a situation, where the non-resident payee has applied for the TRC but the TRC could not be obtained by it prior to effecting the remittance, due to procedural requirements or delays, in view of the language of section 90(4)/90A(4), would it be proper for the tax deductor to rely on a self-declaration furnished by the non-resident payee containing relevant particulars available with the payee and after receiving the TRC the same is submitted to the tax deductor? Would it be in order for a Chartered Accountant to issue a certificate u/s 195(6) in Form 15CB based in any such self declaration?

On a strict interpretation of the language of section 90(4)/90A(4) which provides that the non-resident “shall not be entitled to claim any relief under such agreement unless a certificate, containing such particulars as may be prescribed, of his being a resident in any country outside India or specified territory outside India, as the case may be, is obtained by him”, it appears that neither a certificate can be issued by a Chartered Accountant in Form 15CB considering the relief under relevant DTAA, nor the payer can consider the provisions of a DTAA at the time of making the remittance.

This could cause practical difficulties in a large no. of cases of remittance to non-residents and also seriously impact the smooth conduct of business. An immediate clarification by the CBDT in this regard would go a long way in reconciling compliance with the statutory requirements and facilitating the remittance without causing hardships to the concerned business entities.

5.    CBDT Notification

To operationalise the said amendments, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has issued notification No. S.O. 2188 (E) dated 17th September, 2012 w.e.f. 01st April, 2013 which prescribes that certain details should be included in the TRC to be obtained by the non – resident to claim tax treaty benefit. Further, the CBDT also notifies the Form 10FA and Form 10FB for resident of India to obtain TRC from the Assessing Officer (AO).

5.1 Non Resident to obtain TRC from respective foreign country / specified territory

i)    The prescribed Rule 21AB does not provide for any specific or standard format for the TRC. However, it provides that the TRC issued should contain the following particulars, namely:

(a)    Name of the taxpayer

(b)    Status (individual, company, firm etc.) of the taxpayer.

(c)    Nationality (in case if individual)

(d)    Country or specified territory of incorporation or registration (in case of others)

(e)    Taxpayer’s tax identification number in the country or specified territory of residence or in case no such number, then, a unique number on the basis of which the person is identified by the Government of the country or the specified territory.

(f)    Residential Status for the purposes of tax

(g)    Period for which the certificate is applicable

(h)    Address of the applicant for the period for which the certificate is applicable.

ii)    The Certificate shall be duly verified by the Government of the country or the specified territory of which the taxpayer is a resident for the purposes of tax. However, the format of the verification has not been prescribed.

The contents of a TRC to be obtained by a Non Resident are rather simple and straight forward and do not appear to be very intrusive or onerous. The Non Resident can easily furnish the particulars required to obtain the TRC from his country / territory of residence. Further, it appears that the TRC can be obtained in advance for a given period.

However, as the requirement of obtaining TRC may be construed to be applicable from the Accounting Year commencing from 1st April, 2012, the questions may arise about the fate of transactions which have been concluded without obtaining the TRC prior to 17th September, 2012. The CBDT needs to clarify that it would be in order if the Non Resident payee obtains and furnishes the TRC to the payer after the transaction is concluded or the payment has been made to him by the Resident payer.


5.2 Resident to obtain TRC from Indian Government

Rule 21AB of the Rules also prescribes specified form for residents to obtain a TRC from the respective AO. The taxpayer, being resident of India, shall, for obtaining a TRC for the purposes of the tax treaty, make an application in Form No. 10FA to the A.O., giving the following particulars:

(a) Full Name and address of the assessee

(b)    Status (state whether individual, Hindu undivided family, firm, body of individuals, company etc)

(c)    Nationality (in case of individual

(d)    Country of incorporation/registration

(e)    Address of the assessee during the period for which TRC is desired

(f)    Email ID

(g)    Permanent Account Number/Tax Deduction Account Number (if applicable)

(h)    Basis on which the status of being resident in India is claimed

(i)    Period for which the TRC is applicable

(j)    Purpose of obtaining TRC

(k)    Any other detail.

The application form along with supporting documents (not specified) has to be submitted to the AO. The New Rule provides that the AO, on receipt of the application and on being satisfied of the particulars contained therein, should issue the TRC to the resident assessee in Form 10FB. Time limit for issue of the TRC by the A.O. has not been specified.

It is worth noting that there is no mandatory requirement in the various tax treaties signed by India for obtaining a TRC by the Non Residents containing prescribed particulars. Is it proper for the Government of India to unilaterally impose such a requirement upon the non-residents?

Clarifications regarding Annexures to be submitted by Developers

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Trade Circular No.18T of 2012 dated 26-9-2012.

In extension of requirements of Trade Circular No.14T of 2012 dated 6-8-2012, the developer shall submit year wise annexure showing the working of his tax liability up to the period ending 31-10-2012 after uploading returns.

Format for the annexures given on website and it is to be sent as attachment to email builderscell@ gmail.com.

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Extension of dates for Grant of Registration, ADM Relief and payment of taxes etc.

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Circular No. 17T of 2012, dated 25-9-2012.

Extension of dates for Grant of Registration, ADM Relief and payment of taxes etc. as per Trade Circular No.14T of 2012 dated 6-8-2012.

Vide Trade Circular No.14T of 2012 dated 6-8-2012, the Commissioner has announced grant of administrative relief to builders and developers. If the builders and developers are not registered under the VAT Act, then they were required to apply for VAT TIN on or before 16-8-2012 which is extended to 15-10-2012. Further, they are also required to pay all taxes and upload all the returns from 20-6-2006 till date and apply for administrative relief on or before 31-8-2012 which is extended to 31-10-2012.

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Taxability of Furnishing Cloth notified under entry 101 of Schedule C appended to MVAT Act, 2002

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Circular No. VAT/AMD-2012/1C/ADM-8 dated 25-9-2012

Vide this Circular, the Commissioner has explained the implications of Notification issued to levy tax on Furnishing cloth.

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Due date for filing ST-3 Return extended to 25th November, 2012

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Order No.03/2012 dated 15-12-2012.

CBEC vide this Order has extended the due date for submission of the return in ST-3 for the period 1st April 2012 to 30th June 2012, from 25th October, 2012 to 25th November, 2012.

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ST-3 Return for the period April to June, 2012

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Circular no F. No. 137/22/2012-Service Tax Notification No. 47/2012–S.T. Since introduction of Negative List approach of Service Tax w.e.f. 1-7-2012, the classification and the payment of service tax under various categories of services were not required. The department has, vide this Circular, clarified that filing and verification of the data for the periods from April, 2012 to June, 2012 and July, 2012 to September, 2012 in the single return would be very complex for the industry as well as the department. The above Notification has been issued to amend the Service Tax Rules, 1994 so as to provide for the filing of data pertaining only to the period of April, 2012 to June, 2012 in the ST-3 return to be filed by 25th October, 2012.
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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 39 dated 9th October, 2012

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Trade Credits for Imports into India – Review of all-in-cost ceiling.

This circular states that the below mentioned all-incost ceiling for trade credit for imports into India will continue till further notice: –

 Maturity period 

 All-in-cost ceilings over 6 months LIBOR for the respective currency of credit or applicable benchmark

 Up to 1 year

 350 basis points

 More than 1 year and up to 3 years

 More than 3 years and up to 5 years

A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 36 dated 26th September, 2012

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Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India – Allotment of Shares to person resident outside India under Memorandum of Association (MoA) of an Indian company–Pricing guidelines.

Presently, a non-resident, under the FDI Scheme, can purchase shares or convertible debentures of an Indian company based on the valuation method prescribed under paragraph 5 of Schedule 1 of Notification No. FEMA 20/2000 -RB dated May 3, 2000.

This circular has relaxed the said guidelines and permits eligible non-residents (including NRI) investors who are subscribers to Memorandum of Association of the investee company to subscribe for shares at face value.

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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 35 dated 25th September, 2012

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Establishment of Liaison Offices (LO)/Branch Offices (BO)/Project Offices (PO) in India by Foreign Entities– Reporting requirement.

This circular has prescribed certain additional reporting requirements both for new as well as existing LO /BO/PO. The format for reporting the information is annexed to this circular.

New LO/BO/PO
The new LO/BO/PO will have to submit the information (as per the annexed format) within 5 working days of the LO/BO/PO becoming functional to the DGP of each state in which LO/BO/PO has established its office.

Existing/New LO/BO/PO
They will have to submit a copy of the information (as per the annexed format) with the DGP of each state as well as its Bank on an annual basis along with a copy of the Annual Activity Certificate/Annual report, as the case may be.

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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 34 dated 24th September, 2012

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Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – Import of gold in any form including jewellery made of gold/ precious metals or/and studded with diamonds/semi precious/precious stones – clarification

This circular clarifies that trade credit way of Suppliers’/ Buyers’ credit, including the usance period of Letters of Credit, for import of gold in any form including jewellery made of gold/precious metals or /and studded with diamonds/semi-precious /precious stones must not exceed 90 days, from the date of shipment.

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A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 32 dated September 21, 2012 Foreign investment in Single–Brand Product Retail Trading/ Multi- Brand Retail Trading/Civil Aviation Sector/ Broadcasting Sector/Power Exchanges – Amendment to the Foreign Direct Investment Scheme

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Amendment of existing policy on Foreign Direct Investment in Single-Brand Product Retail Trading Press Note No. 4 (2012 Series) dated 20th September, 2012

Single-Brand Product Retail Trading
Press Note No. 4 has modified the existing conditions in respect of the Foreign Investment in Single- Brand Product Retail Trading by removing the Brand Ownership criteria and providing that only one non-resident entity, whether owner of the brand or otherwise, will be permitted to undertake single brand product retail trading in the country, for that specific brand. It also provides that the company receiving FDI cannot undertake retail trading, in any form, by means of e-commerce.

Review of the policy on Foreign Direct Investment – allowing FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trading

Press Note No. 5 (2012 Series) dated September 20, 2012

Multi-Brand Retail Trading

Press Note No. 5 has: –

a. Substituted the list of ‘Prohibited Sectors’ i.e. sectors in which FDI is prohibited. The new Paragraph 6.1 of “Circular 1 of 2012 – Consolidated FDI Policy” issued on April 10, 2012 reads as follows: –

“6.1 Prohibited Sectors:

FDI is prohibited in:
 
(a) Lottery Business, including Government/ private lottery, online lotteries, etc.
(b) Gambling and Betting, including casinos etc.
(c) Chit funds
(d) Nidhi company
(e) Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)
(f) Real Estate Business or Construction of Farm Houses
(g) Manufacturing of Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarettes, of tobacco or of tobacco substitutes
(h) Activities/sectors not open to private sector investment e.g. Atomic Energy and Railway Transport (other than Mass Rapid Transport Systems).

Foreign technology collaboration in any form, including licensing for franchise, trademark, brand name, management contract, is also prohibited for Lottery Business and Gambling and Betting activities.”

b. It has inserted a new Paragraph 6.2.16.5 in the “Circular 1 of 2012 – Consolidated FDI Policy” issued on 10th April, 2012 containing the terms and conditions relating to FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trading. The broad guidelines are: –

a. This is an enabling clause in regard to implementation of the policy and the State Governments/Union Territories will have to decide for themselves whether to permit the same or not.
b. FDI up to 51% is permitted under the Approval Route.
c. Multi-Brand retailing will be permitted in all products, subject to certain terms and conditions.
d. Minimum investment by the foreign investor will be US $ 100 million.
e. At least 50% of the total FDI will have to be invested in ‘back-end’ infrastructure, excluding land cost and rentals, within 3 years of bringing in the 1st tranche of FDI.
f. At least 30% of the value of manufactured /processed products purchased by the company will have to be from Indian ‘small industries’.
g. Retail sales outlet can be set-up in cities with a population of more than 10 lakh as per 2011 Census only.
h. Retail trading, in any form, by means of e-commerce cannot be undertaken by the company.

Review of policy on Foreign Direct Investment in the Civil Aviation sector

Press Note No. 6 (2012 Series) dated 20th September, 2012

Civil Aviation Sector

Press Note No. 6 has amended Paragraph 6.2.9.3 of “Circular 1 of 2012 – Consolidated FDI Policy” issued on 10th April, 2012, so as to permit foreign airlines to invest up to 49% under the Approval Route, subject to certain terms and conditions, in the capital of Indian companies operating scheduled and non-scheduled air transport services. The investment limit of 49% will include FDI as well as FII investment.

Review of the policy on Foreign Investment (FI) in companies operating in the Broadcasting Sector

Press Note No. 7 (2012 Series) dated 20th September, 2012

Broadcasting Sector

Press Note No. 7 has substituted Paragraph 6.2.7 of “Circular 1 of 2012 – Consolidated FDI Policy” issued on April 10, 2012. Major changes in the substituted Paragraph pertain to: –

a. Teleports (setting up up-linking HUBs Teleports); Direct to Home (DTH); Cable Networks (MSOs operating at National or State or District level and undertaking upgradation of networks towards digitalization and addressability):

In this case, limit on Foreign Investment has been increased from 49% to 74%. Foreign investment up to 49% is permitted under the Automatic Route, while foreign investment beyond 49% and up to 74% is permitted under the Approval Route.

b. Mobile TV:

Foreign Investment is permitted up to 74%. Foreign investment up to 49% is permitted under the Automatic Route, while foreign investment beyond 49% and up to 74% is permitted under the Approval Route.

The above investment is also subject to the terms and conditions issued by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting.

Policy on foreign investment in Power Exchanges

Press Note No. 8 (2012 Series) dated 20th September, 2012

Power Exchanges
Press Note No. 8 has inserted a new Paragraph 6.2.26 in the “Circular 1 of 2012 – Consolidated FDI Policy” issued on April 10, 2012 containing the terms and conditions relating to FDI in Power Exchanges. Major terms and conditions are: –

a. The Power Exchange must be registered under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (Power Market) Regulations, 2010.
b. Foreign investment up to 49% is permitted – FDI 26% under Approval Route & FII 23% under Automatic Route.
c. FII purchases must be restricted to secondary markets only.
d. No single non-resident investor/entity, including persons acting in concert, can hold more than 5% of the equity of the Power Exchange Company.

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How Final are Consent Orders?

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A recent order of the SEBI is disturbing as it appears thereby, as if the whole purpose of settlement by Consent Orders (also known as ‘plea bargaining’ in the West) is defeated. An implicit assumption – having some support in law too – is that when a matter is settled by mutually agreed consent order, it is settled fully. The regulator should not be able to start proceedings for the same matter under a different provision or for a different type of punishment. This is so, of course, if further action is not explicitly reserved or if the applicant knowingly applies for settlement for only some part of the actions possible against him.

This recent order is in the case of Arun Jain (No. WTM/RKA/ID7/48/2012 dated 9th October 2012) debarring him for two years for insider trading raises the question, to reiterate, the perceived sanctity and finality of consent orders and whether settlement by consent settles all actions possible for a particular act or omission. Or whether, even after the settlement and payment of settlement amount, SEBI may yet take action under another set of provisions. Applicants for consent orders may now rightly feel uncertain whether and how to apply for application for a consent order.

As readers are aware, the consent order process enables a person against whom proceedings are initiated for violation of securities laws, to apply for settlement in the form of a consent order. Often, this application is made as soon as a show cause notice is received and at times even before that or even at a very late stage. The objective is to expeditiously close proceedings in respect of a particular act or omission alleged to be in violation of law. The concern the recent SEBI Order raises is ‘whether a person can be punished again for the same act/omission under another provision of law’.

Let us consider, summarily, what were the broad facts in this case.

Adjudication proceedings were initiated against Arun Jain in 2005 for alleged insider trading asking why a monetary penalty should not be levied. In respect of these proceedings (with a short detour to the High Court against such proceedings) Arun Jain applied for ‘consent order’. A ‘consent order’ settling these proceedings was passed in 2008 (under the Guidelines of 2007, which have undergone a substantial change recently, as discussed later) for a settlement amount of Rs. 7,00,000.

In the normal course, that would have been the end of the matter. However, in December 2011, a show cause notice (SCN) was issued against him for the same matter – that is – violation of insider trading regulations. This time, however, the SCN asked why directions should not be issued under Sections 11, 11B and 11(4) read with Regulation 11 of the Insider Trading Regulations. The directions, the SCN stated, could be in the form of debarring him in various manners as specified. Rejecting the contentions of Arun Jain, including the contention that the matter was already settled by a consent order, the SEBI debarred him for a period of two years from buying/selling securities, etc.

The merits of the case are not discussed here and for this purpose, let us assume that Arun Jain was guilty of insider trading when shares were sold by a company promoted by him, while in possession of unpublished price sensitive information. Though a possibly valid point, the issue whether the violation was serious in nature and therefore deserved more punishment than the amount settled through the consent order, is also not discussed here.

The assumption that parties often seem to have, and which assumption now seems fallacious, is that consent orders are generally an end of the matter in terms of all actions that SEBI may take in respect of a particular act or omission. The order shows that SEBI would – if it deems fit – take action again under other provisions where available. It appears that it may even prosecute the party for the same violation.

It cannot be denied that the SEBI does have powers to initiate multiple and sequential proceedings for the same act/omissions. A particular act/omission may be punishable under different Regulations as a different type of violation and a particular act/omission may also attract multiple types of actions too.

SEBI can – as in the present case of insider trading – initiate adjudication proceedings for levy of monetary penalty, proceedings for debarment and even prosecution proceedings. Such proceedings need not necessarily be parallel or in the same SCN and can be sequential. It may be expected that each proceeding would take into account the punishment already meted out under other proceeding for the same matter but it cannot normally be denied that the SEBI does not have powers to initiate multiple proceedings and punish the party in multiple forms.

A question arises as to: ‘whether punishing a person twice or more for the same act amounts to “double jeopardy” which is not allowed under the Constitution of India. This issue was in fact, raised before the SEBI and, it is submitted, rightly rejected by the SEBI. The principle of double jeopardy as laid down under the Constitution of India, relate to criminal proceedings while in the present case, both the proceedings were civil ones. In fact, the SEBI even kept the possibility open that even in this case, after punishing the party twice under two civil proceedings, it could also initiate criminal proceedings.

However, often, the party assumes that settlement through a consent order would be the end of the matter. He would offer and agree to a settlement amount, assuming that this is a one-time settlement for all actions that are possible. Also, even though, strictly speaking, settlement of prosecution proceedings would be by way of compounding, the implicit assumption often in minds of the party is that a consent order would mean the end of the matter. And thus, not only other proceedings for the same action, but even prosecution would not be initiated.

This assumption does have some basis in law, even if not strong. For example, the applicant is required to give the following statement as part of the prescribed undertaking form as part of the application for consent order:-

“The Order passed pursuant to this application shall conclude any/all disciplinary action that SEBI could bring against us, for the conduct (cause of action) set forth in this application.’

Thus, arguably, the whole basis of making of the application for the consent order and the consent order itself is on the understanding that “any/all disciplinary action” that the SEBI could bring for the conduct/cause of action shall be “concluded”.

Consider also another statement that the undertaking form contains:-

“Any plea of limitation for reopening the case, if I violate/do not comply with the consent order subsequently, and SEBI shall be free to take any enforcement action including initiation of adjudication/prosecution proceedings against me for such violation/non-compliance of the consent order.”

Thus, again, the applicant has some basis in assuming that only if he violates the terms of the consent order, that the settled proceedings could be reopened and further proceedings of all types possible could be initiated.

Thus, the applicant party does seem to have a reasonable basis even in law, to expect that the consent order shall conclude actions that the SEBI may take for a particular cause of action.

Of course, as often debated, the basis of consent orders, unfortunately, itself is not wholly satisfactory in law. For example, except by way of generally providing for settlement by consent and that too in not very clear and exhaustive terms, the parent enactments such as SEBI Act, Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act and the Depositories Act, do not lay down comprehensively the consequences of a settlement through a consent order. Thus, in theory, it becomes a case by case settlement.

It can be expected that a party, who is already facing multiple proceedings for the same matter, would either apply for consent for all proceedings or none at all. However, he does not expect that proceeding of one nature would be initiated at the first stage and he settles the same through consent order and then it is followed by yet another proceeding and perhaps thereafter even by prosecution.

While the above was under the Guidelines for consent order of 2007, the SEBI has issued amended Guidelines in May 2012, which have also been discussed earlier in this column. The revised Guidelines are a little more explicit and specific on the matter of multiple proceedings and their settlement. It seems that the concern that the order in Arun Jain’s case raises may still arise in the minds of applicant parties. Consider the following extracts from the 2012 Guidelines (emphasis supplied):-

“One application may be considered for a single proceeding or multiple proceedings arising from the same cause of action but in no case, shall one application be considered for multiple proceedings arising from different causes of action.”

“In case, more than one proceeding arising from the same cause of action has been initiated against the applicant, the IA shall be increased by 15%.”

The undertaking under the revised Guidelines also contains a similar clause:-

“6. The Order passed pursuant to this application shall conclude any/all disciplinary action the SEBI could bring against me/us for the conduct (cause of action) set forth in this application (SCN).”

Thus, the concern would still remain. For example, if a SCN for adjudication is issued for an alleged violation and settled, can yet another SCN and/or prosecution be issued and punishment meted out?

The present Order and stance of the SEBI is worrisome for parties seeking to apply for consent orders in the future and even for pending applications. Of course, it may make the parties more alert and they may insist on comprehensive settlement, where all possible consequential actions that the SEBI could take are covered by such settlement or none at all. Alternatively, and which seems to be the better course, is that we learn further from the Western experience of decades of plea bargaining and provide for comprehensive final settlement terms where the parties know, at one place, what allegations/ violations are settled and what he has agreed in return.

Mass Unemployment – A lost generation

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Europe’s financial woes are well known. But its other economic problem—unemployment at mass levels—is underappreciated. Data released on Monday showed unemployment at a “stable” 11.4% in the euro zone. Roughly 18.2 million people were out of work in August.

The highest rate of unemployment is in Spain, with 25.1% of the workforce out of work. What is worse is the figure for those under 25 years of age—52.9% can’t find work.

(Source: The Mint Newspaper dated 02-10-2012)
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Appendicitis: Antibiotics in, surgery out?

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Antibiotics can replace invasive surgery for the
treatment of acute appendicitis involving the removal of the organ, as
it could be just as effective, a new study found.

The study also
found that patients who are treated with antibiotics are at lower risk
of complications than those who undergo surgery. Some patients are so
ill that the operation is absolutely necessary, but 80% of those who can
be treated with antibiotics recover and return to full health.

(Source: The Times of India dated 28-09-2012)
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PART A : Decision of CIC & Supreme Court

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Personal Information, section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, 2005

CPIO vide letter dated 21.12.2010 stated that information relating to PAN and other information relating to PAN such as address, documents submitted as proof of identity and address is personal information of the PAN holder and subject to confidentiality u/s. 138 of IT Act. Moreover, the information submitted by applicant along with PAN application form is held by the department in a fiduciary capacity and is of a personal nature, hence exempt from disclosure u/s. 8(1)(e) and 8(1)(j) unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants disclosure of such information. The CPIO also quoted several CIC orders including the case of Ms. Anumeha dated 29.04.2008.

Decision:
The information sought is of a personal nature. CPIO had issued a notice u/s. 11(1) and the Globe Transport Corporation had urged the CPIO not to share any personal information with the appellant. The Commission agrees with the stand taken by the CPIO/AA that the information sought is exempt from disclosure u/s. 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act.

[H K Sharma vs Income Tax Department, New Delhi: CIC/DS/A/2011/001229/RM: Decision dated 08-06-2012]

Facts:

Vide RTI application dated 14-10-2010, the appellant had sought certified copies of IT returns and supporting documents filed by Hrishikesh Gaderia during the last 20 years.

CPIO vide his letter dated 11-11-2010 informed the appellant that a notice u/s. 11(1) had been served on Shri Gaderia, who had opposed sharing of any information pertaining to his IT returns etc. Shri Gaderia had submitted that “the applicant has no right to demand any personal information or any information relating to his business. The information in respect of his business, insurance paid and information in respect of taxes paid is confidential and personal in nature and hence may not be supplied to the applicant, as there will be heavy financial and business loss, if this information is supplied to the applicant or to any third person”. The CPIO held that information furnished to the IT department is strictly in trust, being in fiduciary capacity and no public interest is involved. In view of the above, the CPIO denied information u/s. 8(1)(d), 8(1)(e) and 8(1)(j).

Decision:
In the case of Milap Choraria dated 15-06.2009, a Full Bench of the CIC had upheld the decision of the CPIO and AA in holding that the Income Tax Returns are ‘personal information’ exempted from disclosure u/s. 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act. In the instant case, the AA has correctly applied exemption u/s. 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act from disclosure of information. The decision of the AA is therefore upheld.

[Farid Shaikh vs Income Tax Department, Thane: CIC /DS/A/2011/001338/RM: Decision dated 21.06.2012]

Facts:
Applicant submitted RTI application dated 31st May 2011 before the CPIO, United India Insurance Co. Ltd., Aliganj, Lucknow to obtain information broadly through five points pertaining to time gap between date of issue of policy bond and date of transfer of the policy bond to the TPA along with copy of the agreement between Company and the TPA.

Decision
After hearing both parties and on perusal of the facts on record the Commission directed as follows:

Point 1: With reference to the information sought under this point by the appellant, we find that it is necessary to strike a fine balance between disclosure of information in larger public interest and simultaneously ensure that the privacy of the policy holder is protected as per the provisions of section 8(1)(j). Therefore, Commission directs the CPIO to provide the appellant with the total number of Mediclaim policies which were dispatched to the TPA after one week of the date of issue.

Point 2
: Respondent to provide the appellant with a copy of the agreement between United India Insurance Co. and E-Meditak (TPA) Services Ltd., Gurgaon.

Point 3
: Appellant insists on having specific information and is not satisfied with the term “immediately”. Accordingly, respondent is directed to provide the appellant with copy of the Company’s rule governing this issue.

Information as above to be provided within one week of the order.

Commission is satisfied that the subject matter of this RTI application pertains to an issue of larger public interest in that, it touches upon that moment in the life of the insured when he is suffering from ill health and requires urgent support from the umbrella provided to him through the Mediclaim policy taken by him. Therefore, under the provisions of section 4, section 8(2) and section 25(5) of the RTI Act, Commission recommends to CMD, Head Office, United India Insurance Co. Ltd., Chennai to give directions to all Branch Managers to put up on the Company’s website the following information:

i) Number of the Mediclaim policies (no names are required to be given).

ii) Date of issue of Mediclaim Policy Bond.

iii) Date of transfer of the said policy bond to the TPA.

CPIO, Head Office is directed to follow up on this matter. Compliance be done by 16th August 2012. Such disclosure will undoubtedly strengthen the safety net to the insured and also cement the relationship of trust between the Insurance Company and insured, thereby strengthening the foundation of the Insurance Industry. Since this is a matter of larger public interest, using this as test case, Commission will review compliance of this order on 28.8.2012 at 3.00 PM at NIC Video conferencing, Room No. 110, 1st Floor, Yojana Bhavan, No 9, Sarojini Naidu Marg, Lucknow-22 6001 (UP), Contact Officer Mr Diwan Singh, Scientist-D and Contact Nos: 0522-2238059/2298822/2298823 on which date respondent CPIO is directed to appear before the Commission via video conferencing.

[Dr Anshu Agrawal vs United India Insurance Co Ltd: CIC/DS/A/2011/003245: Decision dated 28.06.2012]

Facts:

The Petitioner had submitted an application on 27.8.2008 before the Regional Provident Fund Commissioner (Ministry of Labour, Government of India) calling for various details relating to third respondent, (i.e. Mr. Lute) who was employed as an Enforcement Officer in Sub-Regional Office, Akola, now working in the State of Madhya Pradesh. As many as 15 queries were made to which the Regional Provident Fund Commissioner, Nagpur gave the following reply on 15.9.2008:

“As to Point No.1: Copy of appointment order of Shri A.B. Lute, is in three pages. You have sought the details of salary in respect of Shri A.B. Lute, which relates to personal information, the disclosures of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, it would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of individual, hence denied as per the RTI provision u/s. 8(1) (j) of the Act.

As to Point 2: Copy of order of granting Enforcement Officer Promoting to Shri A. B. Lute, is in 3 Number. Details of salary to the post along with statutory and other deductions of Mr Lute is denied to provide, as per RTI provisions u/s. 8(1)(j) for the reason’s mentioned above

As to Point No. 3: All the transfer orders of Shri A. B. Lute, are in 13 Number. Salary details is rejected.

As to Point No. 4: The copies of memo, show cause notice, censure issued to Mr Lute, are not being provided on the ground that it would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual and has no relationship to any public activity or interest.

As Point No. 5: Copy of EPF (Staff & Conditions) Rules 1962 is in 60 pages.

As Point No. 6: Copy of return of assets and liabilities in respect of Mr. Lute cannot be provided.

As to Point No. 7: Details of investment and other related details are rejected.

As to Point No. 8: Copy of report of item wise and value wise details of gifts accepted by Mr. Lute is rejected.

As to Point No. 9: Copy of details of movable, immovable properties of Mr Lute, the request to provide the same is rejected.

As Point No. 10, 11& 12 are not relevant, are not covered here.

As to Point No. 13: Certified True copy of complete enquiry proceeding initiated against Mr. Lute – It would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy of individuals and has no relationship to any public activity or interest.

As to Point No. 14: It would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy of individuals and has no relationship to any public activity or interest.

As to Point 15: Certified true copy of second show cause notice – would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy of individuals and has no relationship to any public activity or interest.

Aggrieved by the said order, the petitioner approached the CIC. The CIC passed the order on 18.6.2009, the operative portion of the order reads as under:

“The question for consideration is whether the aforesaid information sought by the Appellant can be treated as ‘personal information’ as defined in clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act. It may be pertinent to mention that this issue came up before the Full Bench of the Commission in Appeal No.CIC/ AT/A/2008/000628 (Milap Choraria v. Central Board of Direct Taxes) and the Commission vide its decision dated 15.6.2009 held that “the Income Tax return have been rightly held to be personal information exempted from disclosure under clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act by the CPIO and the Appellate Authority, and the appellant herein has not been able to establish that a larger public interest would be served by disclosure of this information. This logic would hold good as far as the ITRs of Shri Lute is concerned. I would like to further observe that the information which has been denied to the appellant essentially falls in two parts – (i) relating to the personal matters pertaining to his services career; and (ii) Shri Lute’s assets & liabilities, movable and immovable properties and other financial aspects. I have no hesitation in holding that this information also qualifies to be the ‘personal information’ as defined in clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act and the appellant has not been able to convince the Commission that disclosure thereof is in larger public interest.”

The CIC, after holding so, directed the second respondent to disclose the information at paragraphs 1, 2, 3 (only posting details), 5, 10, 11, 12, 13 (only copies of the posting orders) to the appellant within a period of four weeks from the date of the order. Further, it was held that the information sought for with regard to the other queries did not qualify for disclosure.

Aggrieved by the CIC’s said order, the petitioner filed a writ petition No.4221 of 2009, which came up for hearing before a learned Single Judge and the court dismissed the same vide order dated 16.2.2010. The matter was taken up by way of Letters Patent Appeal No.358 of 2011 before the Division Bench and the same was dismissed vide order dated 21.12. 2011. Against the said order, this special leave peti-tion has been filed. Supreme Court passed the following order:

“We are, in this case, primarily concerned with the scope and interpretation to clauses (e), (g) and (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act.

We are in agreement with the CIC and the Courts below that the details called for by the petitioner i.e. copies of all memos issued to the third respondent, show cause notices and orders of censure/punishment etc. are qualified to be personal information as defined in clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act. The performance of an employee/ officer in an organisation is primarily a matter between the employee and the employer and normally those aspects are governed by the service rules which fall under the expression “personal information”, the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or public interest. On the other hand, the disclosure of which would cause unwar-ranted invasion of privacy of that individual. Of course, in a given case, if the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information, appropriate orders could be passed, but the petitioner cannot claim those details as a matter of right”.

“The details disclosed by a person in his income tax returns are “personal information” which stand exempted from disclosure under clause (j) of section 8(1) of the RTI Act, unless it involves a larger public interest and the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the Appellate Authority is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such information”.

“The petitioner in the instant case has not made a bona fide public interest in seeking information, the disclosure of such information would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy of the individual u/s. 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act”.

“We are, therefore, of the view that the petitioner has not succeeded in establishing that the information sought for is for the larger public interest. That being the fact, we are not inclined to entertain this special leave petition. Hence, the same is dismissed”.

[Girish Deshpande vs CIC and others: Special Leave Petition (Civil) No 27734 of 2012: Order dated 03.10.2012]

Is It Fair to Levy stt on Traders?

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Stock Exchanges play a very important role in the economy of a country – helping to raise capital for businesses, mobilising savings for investment, creating investment opportunities, assisting the government to raise funds for various development projects, etc. It is aptly said “the stock exchange is the barometer of the economy”.

For the proper and efficient functioning of the stock exchanges, apart from investors, various other types of players like speculators, jobbers, traders, hedgers and arbitrageurs, etc. are not only necessary but obligatory. They are referred to as market participants and each of them plays a specific role in the stock market. While speculators and jobbers provide liquidity as well as volume to the market, hedgers provide depth to the market. Traders help in volume and price discovery whereas arbitrageurs fine-tune prices by correcting price abnormalities. Investors usually invest and hold shares for a comparatively longer period of time.

Currently, the stock market is in a pathetic situation. Markets have become stagnant and trade in a narrow range. Sometimes, on getting news of some event, the market becomes highly volatile and individual stocks show very erratic movements which is due to the lack of depth in the market. The stagnancy in the market is the result of lack of many of market participants like traders, jobbers as well as speculators, who have either deserted the market or are unwilling to initiate trades due to excessive transaction costs. Even arbitrageurs are finding it difficult to use any opportunity, since the costs of transaction are greater than the arbitrage difference. The combined effect of all these is that the investors, especially small investors, are unable to get proper prices to buy/sell their investments, which in turn has resulted in increased impact costs for them.

Earlier, when the transaction costs were not so high, there was room for every market participant to function in the market and trade without restraint of prohibitive costs. However, with the introduction of the Securities Transaction Tax (STT), the costs have escalated to such a level that it has become difficult for the market participants to survive. They desist from entering into transactions due to entry level tax (STT, which is levied at the time of transaction) and thus, overall market liquidity, volume and depth have been impacted adversely.

It was announced in the budget speech that the STT is introduced to avoid the differential tax treatment meted out to capital gains. So, only those investors (actually, bigheads like promoters, FIIs, etc.) whose income from share transactions is taxed as “Capital Gains” are benefited by the imposition of STT with favourable tax treatment whereas, a majority of the market participants like speculators, jobbers, traders, hedgers, arbitrageurs who have income from share transactions which is taxable as “Business Income”, under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” are left high and dry without any tax benefit on such income, despite the transactions entered into by them also bear the charge of STT.

Let us understand the above with the help of an example, when two identical transactions in shares are executed – one by an investor and another by other market participant, say, a jobber. At first stage, both of them will be charged STT on the transactions executed. However, the income of the investor from that transaction will be exempt from tax thereafter, whereas, the income of the jobber will be taxed again at regular rates. Thus, the market participants have been subjected to double taxation and meted out a stepmotherly treatment under the STT regime. If the favourable treatment is granted only to “Capital Gains” income, then only those transactions pertaining to the income taxable under the head “Capital Gains” should have been subjected to the STT and all other transactions should have been exempted from the STT. Doing otherwise not only impacts the market participants adversely, but also violates “principle of natural justice” and “law of equity”.

Although initially, some relief was granted in the form of tax rebate, the same was discontinued without assigning any reasons whatsoever. Ultimately, the new scheme of taxation on securities transactions has miserably failed to bring win-win situation for all. It has only helped the FIIs, promoters and to an extent, a small class of investors at the cost of all other market participants, who are also equally important for the functioning of the stock market. Slowly and steadily, market participants are drifting away from the stock market which in the long run, has impaired the proper functioning of the stock markets.

To remedy the situation and help the market participants survive, it is suggested to grant proper tax treatment to the market participants, keeping in view the legal principles of natural justice and equity. This can be achieved by segregating the stock market transactions into “taxable transactions” and “exempt transactions” based on whether the order is a “client type/Institution ID” or “Trd category” (i.e trading category). Alternatively, the rebate allowed earlier u/s. 88 E may be restored.

This will ensure that there is no undue high trading costs to the market participants.

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Recovery of tax – Director of a company not personally liable for sales tax dues of company: Gujarat Value Added Tax Act 2003:

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C.V. Cherian vs. C.A. Patel (2012) 51 VST 71 (Guj.)

Whether for the purpose of recovery of sales tax dues under the Gujarat Value Added Tax Act and Gujarat Sales Tax Act against a private limited company, the personal property belonging to the managing director of such company can be attached and sold for realisation of the dues against the company?

The said proceedings are challenged on the ground that the company and its directors being separate legal entities, the liability of the company to pay sales tax cannot be fastened on the directors personally or on the personal properties of the directors, in the absence of any provision to that effect under the Gujarat Sales tax Act, 1969.

The property in question at no point of time belonged to the company nor is it the case that the managing director is holding property as “benamdar”. In that view of the matter, the attachment and proposed auction of the residential building was on the face of it without jurisdiction. The Hon’ble Court relied on its earlier order in case of Choksi vs. State of Gujarat (2012) 51 VST 73 (Guj.)

The Court observed that the respondents were not in a position to point out any statutory provision empowering the sales tax authorities to fasten the liability of company on its directors in the matter of payment of sales tax dues. The section 26 containing the said provision regarding liability to pay tax in certain cases, covers several contingencies such as the liability in respect of the business carried on by an individual dealer after his death, the liability in respect of the dues where the dealer was an HUF and there is partition amongst various members or group of members; there is dissolution of a partnership firm and also in case of transfer of business in whole or in part. Unlike section 179 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, there is no provision in the Sales Tax Act fastening the liability of the company to pay its sales tax dues on its directors.

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Books of account – Rejection without assigning reason – Not justified: U.P. Trade Tax Act, 1948

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Sardar Mini Rice Mill vs. Commissioner, Trade Tax, U.P. Lucknow (2012) 51 VST 283 (All)

The petitioner dealer was a proprietary concern engaged in manufacturing and trade of rice and rice bran. A survey was conducted in the business premises of dealer on March 15, 2003. Neither the accountant nor the proprietor was available on the spot during the survey. The aged father of the proprietor was present who stated that the proprietor has gone outside. The books of account were produced later, but were rejected and assessment made on estimate basis. This was affirmed by the Tribunal.

On a revision petition, the High Court observed, that in the absence of the books of account at the time of survey, the stocks were not verified but the fact remained that, at a later stage, the books of account were produced by the dealer but were rejected without assigning any reason. There was no finding by the Tribunal that the dealer failed to show the cash book at the time of survey with mala fide intention. On the facts, the Tribunal was in error in affirming the rejection of the books only on the ground that the cash book could not be shown at the time of survey. The version of the dealer on the facts and circumstances of the case should have been accepted. The assessing officer directed to accept the books of account maintained by the dealer and make de novo assessment accordingly.

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Global Income of a Resident- Right to Tax and Dtaa

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Issue for consideration

The primary right of taxing an income of its subjects is accepted internationally to be that of a country of residence (‘Residence State’ ), irrespective of the time and place of earning an income. This rule does not preclude the country of source (‘Source State’) from taxing an income. To avoid double taxation of the same income, countries enter into agreements, to provide that only one of the two countries shall tax an income and the other shall not do so (Income Elimination or Exemption Method ‘IEM’), or to provide for credit for taxes paid ( Tax Credit Method-‘TCM’) in the country of source while taxing the same income in the country of residence. In cases of some income, for example, royalty, fees for technical services, interest, dividends etc., these agreements provide for taxing income in the country of source at a concessional rate. Income arising from an immovable property is generally taxed in the country of source. Likewise, business income is taxed in the country of source provided the businessman has a permanent establishment(‘PE’) in that country. In the same manner, income of a service provider is taxed in the country of source only, when he has a fixed base in that country or his stay in that country exceeds a certain number of days.

These above general rules of taxation or assumptions underlying international taxation, like any contract, are subject to any agreement to the contrary by the contracting countries. Countries which execute Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (‘DTAA’) may agree to adhere to the generally accepted principles of taxation or may agree to differ from them by mutual agreements executed to the contrary.

DTAAs, to give effect to the intentions of the countries, employ different terminologies like; ‘shall be taxed’, ‘shall be taxed only’, ‘may be taxed’, ‘may also be taxed’, ‘may be taxed in’, ‘shall be taxed only in’, ‘shall only be taxable’, etc. Different treatments may be provided for different sources of income in the same DTAA by employing suitable language. It is commonly understood that an income will be taxed in one country only when the DTAA employs the terms like ‘shall be taxed’ or ‘shall be taxed only’. The income will be taxed in both the countries where a DTAA uses ‘may also be taxed’. The employment of the term ‘may be taxed’ however has posed serious issues of interpretation in the Indian context. One school of thought is of the view that use of words ‘may be taxed’ mean that the Source State has the exclusive right of taxation leading to complete exclusion of right of taxation for the Residence State . The other school is of the view that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ preserves the right of taxation of the Residence State while conferring non-exclusive rights on the Source State. Conflicting decisions available on the subject are discussed here.

Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case

The issue arose before the Mumbai bench of the ITAT in the case of Ms. Pooja Bhatt v. Dy.CIT, 26 SOT 574. In that case, the assessee, an Indian resident, had received income from performing stage shows in Canada on which tax was deducted in Canada. The assessee claimed that such income was not taxable in India in view of the India Canada DTAA, 229 ITR 44 (St.). The issue needed to be examined particularly under Article 18 of the said DTAA , which reads as under:

Article 18 ; Artistes and athletes

Notwithstanding the provisions of Articles 7, 15 and 16, income derived by entertainers, such as theater, motion picture, radio or television artistes and musicians, and by athletes, from their personal activities as such may be taxed in the Contracting State in which these activities are exercised.

……….

Strong reliance was placed by the revenue on Article 23 “Elimination of double taxation”, to contend that the insertion of a specific provision for granting tax credit by the Residence State while taxing the income of the resident confirmed the intention to tax such income in both the states. Paragraph 1 of this Article, providing that the laws in force in either of the Contracting States will continue to govern the taxation of income in the respective Contracting States except where provisions to the contrary were made in the Agreement, was greatly relied upon. (For the sake of brevity, this article is not reproduced here.)

The assessee, a film artiste, participated in an entertainment show performed in Canada and received a sum of USD 6000. Tax was deducted at source in Canada equal to the sum of USD 900. The assessee claimed in the course of assessment proceedings that a sum of Rs. 1,86,000 (US dollars 6000) could not be taxed in India in view of Article 18 of India-Canada Treaty, which contention was rejected by the AO. The AO found that the assessee was a resident of India and consequently, it was held by him that her entire global income was taxable under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 . It was further observed by him that the assessee was entitled to relief under Article 23(3)(a) of the DTAA. On appeal, the CIT(A) confirmed the order of the AO. Aggrieved by the same, the assessee filed an appeal before the Tribunal.

On behalf of the assessee, it was contended that by virtue of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty, the income derived by an artiste or an athlete by performing shows/activities in Canada could not be taxed in India, since Article 18 permitted only the other contracting State, i.e., the source country to tax such income. In support of the proposition, reliance was placed on the decisions of the Hon. Supreme Court in the cases of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar 267 ITR 654 and Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 300 ITR 12, and on the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of CIT v. VR. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 [affirmed by the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra)], wherein the expression “may be taxed” was interpreted to mean that the other contracting State was precluded from taxing the income.

On the other hand, the Revenue submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was on the issue of domicile, that the expression “may be taxed” was never construed by the court, that the Madras High Court decision was affirmed on different reasoning and, therefore, Supreme Court decision relied on by the assessee was distinguishable. Reliance was placed on the decision in the case of S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177(AAR) wherein the expression ‘may be taxed’ was construed and it was held that such words did not preclude the contracting State of residence taxing the same, if the assessee was liable to tax under the domestic law. According to this judgment, the assessee was only entitled to double taxation relief if tax had been paid in the source country. It was also submitted that the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) was distinguished by the AAR, observing that the Supreme Court did not express any opinion regarding the scope of the expression “may be taxed”.

The Revenue further submitted that the India-Canada Treaty was similar to the OECD Model Convention and, therefore, its meaning should be understood as per the OECD Commentary. It was further submitted that there were two categories of treaties. According to one category, the relief was provided by way of exemption from tax, like in the India-Austria Treaty, and the other category was where relief was given by way of credit in respect of tax paid in other country, such as India-Canada Treaty. Therefore, the assessee was only entitled to credit for the tax paid in Canada as per the provisions of Article 23 of India-Canada Treaty. Reference was also made to page 971 of the Commentary by Klaus Vogel to contend that tax could be levied by both countries. Regarding the judgment of the Supreme Court, it was submitted that India- Malaysia Treaty considered by the Apex Court came into effect from 1-4-1973 when OECD Commentary was not in existence and, therefore, the court refused to look into the commentary. However, in the present case, the OECD Commentary was very much in existence at the time of agreement between the two countries and, therefore, the provisions of treaty should be understood as per the OECD Commentary.

The tribunal noted the undisputed facts that – (i) the assessee was a resident of India, (ii) she was an artiste who performed the entertainment show in Canada for which she was paid US Dollars 6,000 equivalent to Indian Rupees 1,86,000, (iii) tax of 900 US Dollars was deducted at source in Canada; there was also no dispute that as per the domestic law, the assessee was liable to pay tax on her entire global income. The question was whether liability to pay tax under the domestic law could be avoided in view of the provisions of Article 18 of the India-Canada Treaty.

On consideration of the rival contentions, the tribunal held that income derived by the assessee from the exercise of her activity in Canada was taxable only in the source country, i.e., Canada. On an analysis of various Articles contained in Chapter III, the tribunal found that the scheme of taxation was divided in three categories; The first category included Article 7 (Business profits without P.E. in the other State), Article 8 (Air transport), Article 9 (Shipping), Article 14 (capital gains on alienation of ships or aircrafts operated in international traffic), Article 15 (Professional services), Article 19 (Pensions) all of which provided that income shall be taxed only in the State of residence. The second category included Article 6 (Income from immovable property), Article 7 (Business profits where PE is established in other contracting State), Article 15 (Income from professional services under certain circumstances), Article 16 (Income from dependent personal services where employment is exercised in other contracting State), Article 17 (director’s fees), Article 18 (income of Artistes and Athletes), Article 20 (Govt. Service), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in the other contracting State, i.e., State of source. The third category included Article 11(Dividends), Article 12 (Interest), Article 13 (Royalty and fee for technical services), Article 14 (capital gains on other properties) and Article 22 (Other income), all of which provided that such income may be taxed in both the contracting States.

The tribunal noted that this clearly showed that the intention of parties to the DTAA was very clear. Wherever the parties intended that income was to be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically provided in clear terms and as such, it could not be said that the expression “may be taxed” used by the contracting parties gave option to the other contracting State to tax such income. Contextual meaning had to be given to such expression and if the contention of the revenue was accepted, then the specific provisions permitting both the contracting States to levy tax would become meaningless. The conjoint reading of all the provisions of Articles in Chapter III of India-Canada Treaty, led to only one conclusion that by using the expression “may be taxed in the other State”, the contracting parties permitted only the other State, i.e., State of source, to tax such income and by implication, the State of residence was precluded from taxing such income. Wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they had specifically so provided and the contention of the revenue that the expression “may be taxed in other State” gave the option to the other State and that the State of residence was not precluded from taxing such income, was unacceptable.

The reliance of the revenue on Article 23, the tribunal observed, was also misplaced as this provision had been made in the treaty to cover the cases falling under the third category i.e., the cases where the income might be taxed in both the countries. The cases falling under the first or second categories would be outside the scope of Article 23, since income was to be taxed only in one state.

Reliance placed by the revenue on the commentary by Klaus Vogel was found to be untenable by the tribunal, on the ground that it was now the settled legal position that commentaries could be looked into as a guiding factor only where the language of the treaty was ambiguous. In support of this view, a reference was made to the Supreme Court decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiar (supra). In the case before them, it was found that the intention of the contracting parties was very much clear from the treaty itself. In any case, the commentaries were not binding on courts, since the same were of persuasive value or indicative of contemporaneous thinking, and the parties to the agreement were always at liberty to deviate from the same. Even assuming that the commentary supported the stand of the revenue, the same could not be accepted, since parties to the agreement had deviated from the same, clearly indicating their intention in the treaty itself.

The tribunal supported its view by referring to the Madras High Court decision in VR. S.R.M Firm (supra) where the assessee was resident of India and had earned profit on sale of immovable property in Malaysia. Article 6 of Indo-Malaysia Treaty provided that such income may be taxed in the State in which such property was situated. The assessee claimed that he was not liable to pay tax on such income in view of Article 6 of the treaty. In the above facts, the court had held that the income was taxable only in Malaysia. The tribunal observed that since the above decision had been affirmed by the Apex Court, there was no scope for taking a different view, though the Apex Court had observed that the decision of the Madras High Court was being affirmed for different reasons; the conclusion, however. remained that income could not be assessed in the State of residence, where the agreement provided that income may be taxed in the source country.

The tribunal also supported its view by referring to the decision of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Co. (supra) where the court, following the decision of the Madras High Court in the case of VR.S.R.M. Firm (supra), held that income arising on the sale of immovable property in Malaysia could not be taxed in India. It noted that the similar issue was decided in favour of the assessee by the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT v. R.M. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508. In that case also the assessee who was resident in India had earned income in Malaysia and claimed the same as exempt from tax in India in view of DTAA between India and Malaysia.

The AAR decision in the case of S. Mohan (supra) was found by the tribunal to be based on the interpretation of Article 16 in isolation i.e., without considering the scheme of taxation under the treaty, and the tribunal therefore did not follow the said decision.

It was held that the assessee could not be taxed in respect of the sum of Rs. 1,86,000 under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in view of the overriding provisions of the India-Canada DTAA.

Telecommunications Consultants India Ltd.’s case

The issue recently arose in the case of Telecommunications Consultants Ltd. , 18 ITR(Trib.) 363, before the Delhi bench of the Tribunal. The assessee, a public sector undertaking owned by the Government of India under the administrative control of the Ministry of Communications, was in the business of providing full range of consultancy, design and engineering services in all fields of telecommunication in India as well as abroad. On the global front, the assessee had executed turnkey/consultancy projects in many countries in Africa and Middle East, besides South and South East Asian and CIS Countries.

The main issue involved in the appeals before the tribunal was regarding the taxability in India of income earned in a foreign country by the assessee, which was a resident of India. The relevant grounds of appeal read as under :-

“5. That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in confirming the action of the Assessing Officer that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, is exigible to income tax in India under the scheme of the Act.

6.    That on the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Learned CIT (Appeal) has erred in ignoring that the business income amounting to Rs. 10,68,26,533 is attributable to the Permanent Establishment(s) of the appellate located in Oman, Mauritius, Netherlands and Tanzania, are countries with which India has Comprehensive Agreement for the Avoidance of Double Taxation and the Prevention of Fiscal Evasion with respect to taxes on income.”

The assessee claimed that such income was taxable only in the respective countries as per the DTAA and not taxable in India. It submitted that the income attributable to the permanent establishment in the foreign country, with whom DTAA was in existence, should not be considered for the purposes of Indian taxation . It advanced the following contentions in support of its stand;

(i)    For the purposes of interpretation of an international treaty, an important aspect that needed to be considered was that treaties were negotited and entered into at a political level and have several considerations as their basis.

(ii)    The main function of a DTAA was to provide a bargain between two treaty countries as to the division of tax revenues between them in respect of income falling to be taxed in both jurisdictions. [Azadi Bachao Andolan, 263 ITR 706 (SC)].

(iii)    Primary objective of the DTAA entered into by India was avoidance of double taxation and not relief from double taxation. [Sivagami Holdings (P.) Ltd. 20 taxmann.com 166 (Chennai) wherein the ITAT had held that the DTAA was entered into between the countries only for the limited purpose of avoiding the hardship of double taxation and if the income was not taxed in the Contracting State, holding that the same should be taxed in India was an oversimplified statement on the whole regime of DTAA].

(iv)    The prime motivating factor in developing the concept of DTAA was the genuine hardship of the international assessee that the same amount of income became the subject of taxation both in the home state and in the Contracting State. It was to alleviate this burden of double taxation that the instrument of DTAA had evolved through the process of law.

(v)    The mechanism of providing relief in the form of credit was only when, in accordance with the provisions of the DTAA, double taxation could not be avoided. Article 23 of OECD model convention would be applicable only where income may be taxed in both countries. In the instant case, since the income arising from the permanent establishment (PE) was taxable only in the country of source in accordance with Article 7 of the applicable DTAA, application of Article 23 did not arise. [Vr. S.R.M. Firm 208 ITR 400 (Mad.)].

(vi)    Article 4 of the OECD model convention defined “residence” and the determination of residency was not in question. The assessee was a tax resident of India, which was an uncontroverted fact. Therefore, any analysis or reliance on Article 4 of OECD Model Convention (Residence) in respect of residency was not proper and was misplaced.

(vii)    Article 7 of the applicable DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise of the Contracting
State shall be taxable only in the State unless the enterprise carries on business in the other Contracting State through a PE situated therein. Therefore, once the Revenue accepted that there was a PE outside India, its profits would be taxable only in the country of source according to Article 7, and residence would not be a determinative criteria. [Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd. 245 ITR 521 (Mad.)].

(viii)    The classification of the Articles under the DTAA from the OECD Commentary merits consideration in view of the discussion in Ms. Pooja Bhatt, 26 SOT 574 (Mum.) which clearly stipulated that the language of Article 7 which included the phrase ‘may be taxed’ meant the Contracting States permitted only the other Contracting State i.e. State of source of income, to tax such income.

(ix)    From a perusal of the judgment of the Hon. Apex Court in Kulandagan Chettiar, [supra], it could not be inferred that the reasons given by the Special Bench of Hon. ITAT were incorrect, merely because the decision of the Hon. Tribunal was upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court for different reasons. [Mideast India Ltd. 28 SOT 395 (Delhi)].

(x)    The ITAT in this judgment on appreciating Article 7 of the relevant DTAA also held that the profits derived from the business carried on through a PE in a contracting State by a resident or an enterprise of the other contracting State, was liable to be taxed in the first mentioned State to the extent the same was directly or indirectly attributable to the PE and the same thus shall not be taxable in other contracting State. The profit in question was earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE in that country and since it was not the case of the revenue that the assessee company had no PE in USSR or that any portion of the profit earned by it in USSR was not attributable to that PE, it followed that the entire income earned by the assessee in USSR through its PE was chargeable to tax in that country as per Article 7(1) of the DTAA between India and USSR.

(xi)    The Bombay High Court in the case of Essar Oil , 345 ITR 443 in the context of India-Oman DTAA has observed that since the taxpayer has a PE in Oman, in view of Article 7 of the DTAA, the profits earned in Oman were rightly excluded in India.

(xii)    The case of ITO (OSD) v. Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), could be regarded as ‘per incuriam’ i.e. was rendered without having been informed about binding precedents that were directly relevant rendered in the matter of S.R.M. Firm (supra) by the jurisdictional High Court. According to the doctrine of ‘per incuriam’, any judgment which had been passed in ignorance of or without considering a statutory provision or a binding precedent was not good law and the same ought to be ignored. [Siddharam Satlingappa Mhetre v. State of Maharashtra AIR 2011 SC 312].

(xiii)    Reliance on OECD Commentary on Model Tax Convention had not been accepted by the Courts of India as having a precedent value. [ Pooja Bhatt (supra) and Kulandagan Chettiar (supra)].

(xiv)    The AAR ruling in S. Mohan, In re [2007] 294 ITR 177 as adverted during the course of the hearing did not in any way support the contention of the Department, since it had been observed in the ruling that the language of treaty provision in which the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in Indo-Malaysia DTAA which was under consideration in Kulandagan Chettiar ( supra) was not comparable to the language employed in Article 16(1) of Indo-Norway DTAA, which was the subject matter of S. Mohan’s ruling.

(xv)  According to the provisions of Section 255, where an earlier co-ordinate bench had taken a decision, a subsequent bench could not differ from such a decision on similar set of facts. In such cases, the matter had to be referred to the President to refer the case to a larger bench. [Sayaji Iron & Engg Co.,121 Taxman 43 (Guj.)].

On behalf of the Revenue, attention of the tribu-nal was invited to some fundamental principles of international taxation, to emphasise that where a contracting state is given exclusive right to tax a particular kind of income, then relevant article of convention used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’; that as a rule, such exclusive right was given to state of residence, though there were a few articles where exclusive right to tax was given to state of source also; that the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’ precluded other contracting state from taxing that income’ for an item of income; where attribution of right to tax was not exclusive, the convention used the phrase ‘may be taxed’; regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation was given to state of residence, though this was not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention used the phrase “may be taxed’ and at the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles used phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gave simultane-ous taxing rights to state of source. For these two items of income, no state was given exclusive right to tax. It was further impressed that where for an item of income the phrase ‘may be taxed’ in state of source was used and nothing was mentioned about taxing right of state of residence in convention itself, then state of residence was not precluded from taxing such income and could tax it using inherent right of state of residence to tax global income of its resident. It was only when the state of source was given exclusive right to tax an item of income by using the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’, then the state of residence was precluded from taxing it and it meant state of residence had voluntarily given up its inherent right to tax.

The Revenue highlighted that the assessee was a resident of India and thus being state of residence, India had inherent right to tax global income of as-sessee as per section 5 of IT Act, 1961; it had a PE in foreign countries with whom India had entered into DTAA and had opted for application of DTAA u/s 90(2) of IT Act; the character of income under issue was business income and therefore,Article 7 of relevant DTAAs was applicable.

The Revenue further contended that the combined reading of Article 7 meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attrib-utable to PE and therefore, it might tax it as per its domestic laws. However, this non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of the state of residence to tax global income of its resident. In a situation where state of residence had given up its inherent right, the second sentence of article 7 would have used the phrase ‘shall be taxable only’. Now, in all DTAAs applicable in case of the assessee, the second sentence used the phrase ‘may be taxed’. Therefore, the inherent right of India to tax global income of its resident was not lost. The contention of the assessee was fallacious in view of the discussion above. The proper course on the part of the assessee would have been to claim credit of taxes paid in foreign countries, because the relevant DTAA provided that India shall relieve double taxa-tion by giving credit of taxes paid in state of source.

For the Revenue, it was important to examine what the Supreme Court had held in Kulandagan Chet-tiar’s case (supra), as that was the source of all the decisions that followed it, to hold that income once taxed outside India was not taxable in India. It was argued that in that case, the Supreme Court had held that; interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ was not required as the assessee was resident of both India and Malaysia as per their respective do-mestic tax laws and the situation of dual residence was to be reduced to situation of single residence by applying tie breaking rules contained in Article 4(2) of treaty; by applying tie breaking rules, the Supreme Court came to the conclusion that the assessee was having closer personal and economic relations with Malaysia and therefore, the assessee became resident of Malaysia; Malaysia being state of residence for the assessee, Malaysia had inherent right to tax global income of the assessee. This is how income of assessee was held not to be taxable in India which is explained by the Supreme Court at pages 671 & 672 of 267 ITR. Closer examination of this Supreme Court decision showed that it had clearly upheld the basic principle that state of residence (in that case, Malaysia) had the right to tax global income of its resident.

It was further argued that the decisions holding that income arising in state where permanent establishment was situated could be taxed in that state only and state of residence was precluded from taxing such income militated against the basics of DTAA and also were not consistent with ratio of the Supreme Court decision in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) and therefore the ratio therein was not correctly applied in those cases. In all cases relied upon by the assessee, the tax payers were resident of India and there was no situation of dual residence. India remained state of residence and therefore India had inherent right to tax global income of its residents.

Decision in the case of Data Software Research Co. (P.) Ltd. (supra ) was cited to state that the facts therein were exactly the same as were in present case. Reliance was also placed on S. Mohan’s case (supra) in which interpretation of phrase ‘may be taxed’ which was consistent with OECD Commentary had been taken. In that case, issue involved was taxability of salary income under Article 16(1) which used the phrase ‘may be taxable’ for the source state.

In a nutshell, according to the Revenue, if the assessee had paid taxes in foreign countries on income earned from PE in those countries, credit of those taxes could be claimed in India. Therefore, the crux of the controversy was whether India had given up its right to tax under Article 7 of any DTAA applicable to the assessee and if not, India shall give credit for taxes paid in country of source. To give an example, India had given up its right to tax capital gains arising in India to residents of Mauritius under Indo -Mauritius DTAA, but this was not the situation in case of DTAA applicable to present assessee. Reliance was also placed on Manpreet Singh Gambhir (supra) which had also been relied upon by the assessee. In that case, the ITAT had held that assessee was entitled to credit of taxes paid in USA on income earned in USA. Finally, it was prayed that the grounds of assessee’s be dismissed.

The tribunal on hearing the parties in detail and on perusal of the case laws relied upon, observed and held as under;

(i)    Since the assessee company was incorporated in India, the provisions of Income-tax Act, being a domestic law, were applicable to the assessee and all the incomes of the assessee, including the global income, were liable to be taxed in India.

(ii)    Section 5(1)(c) provided that the total income of any previous year of a person who was a resident, includes all income from whatever source derived which accrued or arose to him outside India during such year.

(iii)    As per the provisions of Income-tax Act, the assessee was a resident of India.

(iv)    Due to State of residency, India had inherent right to tax the global income of the assessee as per provisions of Section 5 of Income-tax Act, 1961.

(v)    The combined reading of the sentences of Article 7 of relevant DTAA meant that the state of source had non-exclusive right to tax business income attributable to permanent establishment. Such income may be taxed as per the domestic laws. The non-exclusive right of state of source did not extinguish the inherent right of state of residency to tax global income of its residents. In the circumstances, where the state of residence of the taxpayer had given up its inherent right to tax the global income, in such situation, the phrase used in Article 7 of the DTAA was “shall be taxable only”. Since all the DTAA applicable in the case of assessee the phrase used “may be taxed”, therefore, inherent right of taxation of global business income in India was not lost.

(vi)    Case laws relied upon by assessee were basically based on the decision of the Supreme Court in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra) where conclusions rested on the fact that the personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital asset were far closer in the State of Malaysia than in India. In view of these facts, the residency of India was held to be irrelevant and in that view of matter, issue was so decided. Assessee’s contention that its foreign income was taxable income in foreign countries and it could not be taxed in India was an untenable contention based on wrong interpretation of Article 7 of relevant DTAA.

(vii)    Only in the case of use of phrase “shall be taxed only”, the state of residence is precluded from taxing it. In such cases, where the phrase “may be taxed” was used, the state of residence had been given its inherent right to tax.

(viii)    The facts of assessee’s case were completely different from the set of facts in Kulandagan Chettiar’s case (supra). In that case, assessee sought a relief under the India-Malaysia DTAA, and the Supreme Court held that it was a case of dual residency. The Supreme Court’s conclusion rested on the fact that personal and economic relations of the assessee in relation to capital assets were far closer in Malaysia than in India and in those facts, the residence of India became irrelevant. The assessee was not having permanent establishment in India in respect of that source of income. On the aspect and scope of the expression “may be taxed”, the Supreme Court had not expressed any opinion. Thus, the facts of that case were completely at variance to the facts of assessee’s case.

(ix)    The facts of the several cases relied upon by the assessee were found to be at variance with the facts in the assessee’s case.

The tribunal therefore rejected the assessee’s appeal.

Observations
The controversy poses some very fundamental issues in taxation of an income from cross country transactions and is therefore surprising that it has been allowed to remain open for long. The issue is further fuelled by the Notification No.S.O. 2123(E) dated 28 August, 2008 wherein the Central Government, in exercise of its powers under section 90, has clarified that the term ‘ may be taxed’ used in the context of an income shall mean that such income shall be included in the total income chargeable to tax in India in accordance with the provisions of the Income tax Act, 1961, and relief shall be granted in accordance with the method for elimination or avoidance of double taxation provided in an agreement. A similar Notification bearing No.S.O. 2124(E) dated 28th August, 2008 has been issued under section 90A of the Act, the efficacy of which was tested recently by the tribunal in the case of Apollo Hospitality Pvt. Ltd.

The raging controversy requires immediate attention also for the fact that the Indian judiciary has taken a stand that is at variance with the international tax practice.

Internationally, two systems of taxation prevail for bringing to tax the profits arising on cross country transactions. One is Residence based taxation and another is Source based taxation. In the former, the Residence State has the primary right of taxation. Almost all countries follow the residence based taxation under which a country can tax its residents on their global income, wherever it is earned, while non-residents are taxed only on the income sourced inside the country. Such powers of taxation are enshrined in the domestic tax laws of a country. India largely follows the residence based taxation system, a fact that can be gathered from section 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Under a source based system, a country can tax a person, whether resident or non- resident, only on income sourced inside the country. A country following this system eliminates the need for any DTAA. It is because of the fact that the countries choose to tax a resident on his world income and the source country also needs to tax such an income, that a need arises for DTAA to eliminate double taxation of the same income.

The Model Conventions (MC), while prescribing the model agreements, rely on any of the two rules or adopt both of them to avoid double taxation. One is to allocate taxing rights between contracting states with respect to various kinds of incomes by adopting what is known as the ‘Distributive rule’ – taxing rights are distributed between contracting states. Exclusive rights to taxation in respect of certain incomes are given to one state and the other state is precluded from taxing those incomes and therefore double taxation is avoided. Generally, such exclusive rights are given to Residence State (see paragraph 19 of the OECD Commentary). The Source State is thereby prevented from taxing those items and double taxation is avoided. In the case of other items of income and capital, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. As regards two classes of income (dividends and interest), although both States are given the right to tax, the amount of tax that may be imposed in the State of source is limited.

The Second rule is to put the Residence State under an obligation to give either credit for taxes paid in the Source State or to exempt the income taxed in the Source State. These two rules have been explained in paragraph 19 of OECD commentary titled ‘Taxation of Income and Capital’. It is the stand of the Government of India that it follows credit method for relieving double taxation as a rule and departs from the said rule only under a specific writing to the contrary.

In respect of other types of income, the right to tax is not an exclusive one. The other state may also tax that income and depending upon taxing rights of Source state, incomes are classified into three categories as explained by paragraphs 20 to 23 of the OECD Commentary .

The scheme of taxation is divided in three categories; The first category includes Article 7, 8, 9 14,15, and 19, all of which provide that income shall be taxed only in the Residence State. The second category includes Article 6, 7, 15 ,16, 17, 18 and 20, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in the Source State. The third category includes Article 11, 12 ,13, 14 and 22, all of which provides that such income may be taxed in both the contracting states.

The distributive rules use the words, ‘shall be taxable only’, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. Interpretation of these phrases has been provided in paragraphs 6 and 7 of OECD Commentary. The commentary states that the use of words “shall be taxable only” in a Contracting State indicates an exclusive right to tax is given to one of the Contracting States; the words “shall be taxable only” in a contracting State preclude the other Contracting State from taxing. The State to which the exclusive right to tax is given is normally the Residence State, but in some Articles the exclusive right may be given to the Source State. For other items of income or capital, the attribution of the right to tax is not exclusive and the relevant Article then states that the income or capital in question “may be taxed”. Regarding ‘dividend’ and ‘interest’ income’, primary right of taxation is given to state of residence, though this is not exclusive right as paragraph 1 of relevant articles 10 and 11 of model OECD convention uses the phrase “may be taxed’. At the same time, paragraph 2 of said articles uses phrase ‘may also be taxed’ and gives simultaneous taxing rights to state of source. Thus, for these two items of income, no state is given exclusive right to tax.

At this place, it is to be noted that no single method or a uniform formula is adopted in drafting the tax treaties. Varied approaches are seen to be adopted to convey the mutual understandings of the countries that are party to such treaties. Even within the same treaty, different approaches are adopted for income with different characters. Even the intentions of the parties are conveyed through use of different words on different occasions. For example, paragraph 1 of Article 11 provides that dividend income may be taxed in the other contracting State, while paragraph 2 provides that dividend income may also be taxed in the State of residence. Similarly, Article 14(2) and Article 22 provide that income may be taxed in both the countries.

Article 7 of relevant MC provides that the profit of an enterprise of a contracting state shall be taxable only in that state, i.e Residence State, unless the en-terprise carried on business in other contracting state through a permanent establishment situated therein i.e., in the Source State. If the enterprise carried on business as aforesaid, the profits of the enterprises may be taxed in the other Contracting State, but only so much of them as was attributable directly or indirectly to that permanent establishment. The first part of the Article gives an exclusive right to the taxation of business income to the Residence State as the phrase used as “shall be taxable only”. The real debate is about the second part of the Article 7 where the words used are “may be taxed”. Does this part give exclusive right of taxation only to the Source State or does it give the right to the Residence State as well to tax such an income and while doing so to give credit for taxes paid in Source State? As noted, the OECD commentary as also the commentary by Klaus Vogel support the view that the Source State under Article 7 of MC has a non-exclusive right of taxation.

This position is accepted globally and countries tax the income in the hands of the resident in cases where the relevant Article uses the words ‘ may be taxed’, especially the income of the PE, though taxed in the Source State, and give credit for the taxes paid in the Source State.

It is time to take note of the developed law in India. Is the internationally accepted position ratified by the judiciary in India? The gist of the following decisions reveals the story;

(i)    The Karnataka High Court in the case of R.N. Muthaiah, 202 ITR 508 in the context of Indo-Malaysian treaty held that the Malaysian in-come was not taxable in India once it was subject to tax in Malaysia. The court observed that “When a power is specifically recognised as vesting in one, exercise of such a power by others is to be read as not available; such a recognition of power with the Malaysian Government would take away the said power from the Indian Government; the agreement thus operates as a bar on the power of the Indian Government in the instant case. This bar would operate on sections 4 and 5 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, also.”

(ii)    In the case of Vr. S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 (Mad.), the Madras High Court held that an occasion to deal with several cases involving taxation of income earned in Malaysia by Indian residents from different sources mainly capital gains, business income, dividend and interest. The relevant Articles of the said treaty dealing with income with different characteristics, all of them, provided that income may be taxed in Malaysia. In the context of the above facts, the Court held that express conferment of right to tax an income on one of the states conveyed an implied prohibition on the other state to tax the said income. The court observed that “The contention on behalf of the Revenue that wherever the enabling words such as “may be taxed” are used there is no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities exercising powers under the Act, from assessing the category or class of income concerned cannot be countenanced as of substance or merit. As rightly pointed out on behalf of the assessees, when referring to an obvious position such enabling form of language has been liberally used and the same cannot be taken advantage of by the Revenue to claim for it a right to bring to assessment the income covered by such clauses in the agreement, and the mandatory form of language has been used only where there is room or scope for doubts or more than one view possible, by identifying and fixing the position and placing it beyond doubt.” The Court accordingly held that none of the income above mentioned could be taxed in India even though the recipient of income was a resident under the Income Tax Act 1961.

(iii)    In Lakshmi Textile Exporters Ltd, 245 ITR 521 (Mad.), in the context of Article 7 of the DTAA between India and Sri Lanka, it was held that once an income of a company resident in India was liable to be taxed in Sri Lanka under the said DTAA, then such income could not have been taxed in India. Article 7 of the said DTAA provided that the profits of an enterprise shall be taxed in the contracting state of which the enterprise was resident, unless it carried on the business in the other contracting state through a PE (Permanent Establishment) situated in that state.

(iv)    The Supreme Court in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar, 267 ITR 654 was required to examine the true meaning of the words ‘may be taxed’ used in different Articles of the DTAA with Malaysia, 107 ITR 36 (ST). The said case was filed by the revenue against the decision of the Madras High Court to which a reference was made out of the decision of the Special Bench of the ITAT. The Special Bench of the ITAT and the High Court had held that income from a firm, resident of India, by way of capital gains on sale of immovable properties at Malaysia and business income from business of rubber estate in Malaysia was not taxable in India . The Madras High Court had rejected the contention of revenue in that case, to the effect that wherever the enabling words such as ‘may be taxed’ were used, there was no prohibition or embargo upon the authorities from assessing the income in India and had found such contention to be devoid of substance or merit. The Court had also found unsafe or unacceptable to apply the OECD Commentary, on MC 1977 as a guide or an aid for construction. Detailed arguments were made by the contesting parties in support of the rival contentions. The Supreme Court, for reasons different than those of the High Court, held that the income of the resident that was taxable in Malaysia was not taxable in India on the finding that the assessee firm in question was resident of Malaysia and not of India by applying the tie-breaker test contained in Article 4 of the said DTAA. The Court held that the Malaysian income was not taxable in India, unless the assessee firm had a PE in India. The Court refused to enter into an exercise in semantics as to whether the expression ‘may be’ meant allocation of power to tax or was only one of the options and it only granted the power to tax in that state and unless tax was imposed and paid, no relief could be sought. The review petition filed by the revenue against the decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court for inordinate delay and for want of any ground to entertain the petition, 300 ITR 5 (SC).

(v)    The Indore Bench of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Turquoise Investment & Finance Ltd., 299 ITR 143 (MP) held that dividend income earned by a resident of India, from a Malaysian company was not liable to tax in India. In view of this finding of the court, the other question as to whether such dividend income was taxable in India u/s. 5(i)(c) in the hands of the resident assessee, once it was taxed in Malaysia as per Article 11 of the DTAA, was considered by the Court in favor of the assessee. This decision of the MP High Court has been approved by the Supreme Court in the case reported in 300 ITR 1 (SC) by following the decision in the case of Kulandagan Chettiair(supra). The Court approved the findings of the Madras High Court in the case of Vr.S.R.M. Firm, 208 ITR 400 wherein it was held that dividend income from a Malaysian company was not taxable in India.

(vi)    The AAR in S.Mohan, In Re, 294 ITR 177 (AAR) distinguished the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiair’s case to hold that income of an Indian resident by way of salary for services in Norway was taxable in India. It noted that the use of the words ‘may be taxed’ in Article 16 made it possible to subject to tax such remuneration derived by a resident of India. It noted that the expression ‘may be taxed’ was used in the contradistinction to the expression ‘shall be taxable’ and as such the right of taxation was available to both the contracting states for bringing to tax the employment income.

(vii)    The Bombay High Court recently in the case of Essar Oil Ltd, 345 ITR 443 (Bom.) dealt with a case of an Indian company with a PE in Oman. Interpreting Article 7 of the Indo-Oman DTAA, the court, following Kullandagan Chettiair’s decision, held that the profit earned by the company from the PE in Oman was to be excluded in computing income liable to Indian tax.

(viii)    In the case of Mideast India Ltd, 28 SOT 395 (Delhi), the assessee company, resident in India derived income from business operations in the USSR that were carried out through its PE in that country. The company had claimed that the said income was not taxable in India by virtue of Article 7(1) of the Indo-USSR treaty which provided that the profits derived through a PE by an Indian Enterprise, in the USSR may be taxed in the USSR only. The Tribunal, following the Supreme Court decision in Kullandagan Chettiar’s case held that such income was not taxable in India. It observed that “The learned DR has also contended that although the final operative decision of the Special Bench of ITAT has been upheld by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the reasoning given by the Hon’ble Supreme Court while affirming the said decision is entirely different from the reasoning given by the Special Bench of the Tribunal. However, as rightly submitted by the learned counsel for the assessee, a perusal of the judgment of the Hon’ble Apex Court shows that there is nothing contained therein to indicate that the reasons given by the Special Bench of ITAT to come to a conclusion as it did were disapproved by the Hon’ble Supreme Court or the same were found to be inappropriate or incorrect… In our opinion, the decision of Special Bench of IT AT in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar (supra) thus still holds the field and the same being squarely on the point in issue involved in the present case and is binding on us, we respectfully follow the same and uphold the impugned order of the learned CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the Assessing Officer to the total income of the assessee on account of income earned by it in the form of profits of business earned in USSR which was entirely attributable to the permanent establishment in that country.”

(ix)    In Data Software Research Co. (P) Ltd., 288 ITR 289(Mad.), the tribunal on similar facts held that the income from PE in …………. earned by an Indian resident was taxable in India.

(x)    In Apollo Hospital Enterprises Ltd., the Chennai bench of the tribunal held that the income from capital gains from sale of shares of the Sri Lankan company by an Indian company was not taxable in India, in view of the Indian-Sri Lankan treaty which provided for taxing such an income in Sri Lanka only through the use of the words ‘may be taxed’. The tribunal rejected the contention of the revenue that the term ‘ may be taxed’ indicated the non-exclusive right of taxation of the Sri Lankan Government in view of the Notification issued in 2008 u/s 90A. It noted that section 90A had a limited application to certain jurisdictions and did not apply to nations. The revenue made a wrong reference, and should have relied on the no-tification issued u/s 90 of the Act, which was not brought to the notice of the Tribunal.

It is apparent from a reading of the above decisions that the income of a PE in the hands of a person resident in India, is taxable in the Source State only and cannot be subjected to tax in India.

There is accordingly a clear cut divide between the international tax practice and the Indian one. The case in support of the Indian understanding is unambiguous and clear, when it comes to treaties containing Articles with use of both the phrases, namely, ‘may be taxed’ and ‘may also be taxed’. This confirms that wherever the countries intended, they have provided for specific right on Residence State by inserting an additional phrase ‘may also be taxed’ to secure the right of the taxation for the Residence State. This by implication confirms that the Article using the phrase ‘may be taxed’ alone confers an exclusive right of taxation on the Source State. In such a case, the income from Source state will not be taxed in India. This is best brought out by the learned members in Ms. Pooja Bhatt’s case. The tribunal in that case has relied upon the contextual interpretation to hold that the Source State had an exclusive right of taxation. In the India Canada treaty, wherever the contracting parties intended that income may be taxed in both the countries, they have specifically so provided and this fact clearly confirms that wherever it was not so provided, there arose an exclusive right in favour of the Source State even where the phrase used is “may be taxed in other State”.

As regards the treaties where such a clear cut distinc-tion is not possible by use of the two phraseologies, one will still be supported by a good number of decisions, including that of the high courts, which have taken a view that the Source State alone has an exclusive right of taxation. Some of these decisions, mainly in Mutthaiah and Vr. S.R.M.’s cases, have been delivered independent of the Kulandagan Chettiar’s decision and have provided the sound rationale for doing so. They may also rely upon the decision of the Special Bench of the tribunal in the case of P.V.A.L. Kulandagan Chettiar , though the validity of the said decision may be debatable in view of the fact that the said decision may be treated as the one delivered on facts rendered, irrelevant by the Supreme court.

Whether the Notifications issued under section 90(3) and 90A(3) by the Government under the valid powers can be binding or not is another hurdle one will have to pass through, before heaving a sigh of relief. The Notifications, if found to be binding with retrospective effect, will take the steam out of most of the decisions. The recent insertion of explanation 3 to section 90 by the Finance Act 2012, with effect from 1st October 2009, provides that such notifications shall come into force from the date on which the DTAA was entered into. The issue is whether one country, out of two countries which have signed the DTAA, can independently assign its own meaning to the DTAA. It is felt that it may be difficult for the Government to support the validity of the concerned notification, as the same may be considered to provide a meaning that is inconsistent with the provisions of the agreement.

Politically Exposed Persons

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Politically Exposed Person (PEP) generally means a person who has been entrusted with a prominent public function, or an individual who is closely related to such a person. World over, it is accepted that PEPs tend to plunder state assets, extort and accept bribes, and misuse domestic and international financial systems. Internationally, with the objective to curb such activities, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was constituted of which India is now a member. PEPs are considered a high risk in any financial system and it is recommended that financial institutions like banks etc. exercise Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD) while dealing with PEPs.

Guidelines issued by Reserve Bank of India as well as by SEBI accept this in principle, but they restrict EDD to PEPs of foreign origin or those residing abroad. They exclude domestic PEPs. PEPs are a special class by themselves and may not apparently attract provisions relating to Related Party Transactions under AS 18, provisions of Companies Act pertaining to interested director etc.

Effectively, domestic PEPs – high ranking politicians (whether they are ministers, members of ruling party or opposition parties) and their relatives have a field day. The disclosures made in the last few days, by the media and `India Against Corruption’ (IAC) brings out this fact sharply. The disclosures raise the issues of legality, corruption and more importantly public probity and propriety.

Every citizen wants government officials do their work efficiently and diligently. In many cases, service standards have been formulated and have been put up prominently outside the government offices. But are these standards followed in case of an ordinary citizen? When it comes to politicians and their relatives, the government officials become super efficient and files move swiftly, be it for approval of dams in Maharashtra or permissions for land in Gurgaon for the son-in-law or in Nagpur for the opposition leader. This unusual efficiency raises suspicions.

Nobody denies the importance of agriculture in India. But when a former Cabinet minister revises his tax returns for three years, raising his agricultural income manifold, one wonders whether agriculture is actually so profitable and how the original returns were so grossly inaccurate. One cannot ignore the coincidence of initials of this minister being the same as those of the person to whom certain payments have been allegedly made by a public company. One will not be surprised if this hyper-successful agriculturist minister has a huge cash balance in his books.

India believes in the rule of law. But we also have as our Law Minister, who in response to allegations made about the functioning of the charitable trust that the heads, says that he will reply with `blood’.

It is often said that, if businessmen and persons with resources take active part in politics, there will be reduction in corruption. We also believe that people from lower ranks of the society should progress. A politician and businessman from Maharashtra has taken this seriously with the result that his business has prospered and his driver has become a director of companies which have their registered offices in slums and chawls and these companies have invested millions in the group of companies headed by this politician. In the maze of companies, one is unable to decide who the beneficial shareholders are.

Some of the transactions coming to light may turn out to be patently illegal if properly investigated, while others may involve veiled corruption in the form of use of political power, contacts and influence. Some of the transactions may not be illegal but they certainly smack of complete impropriety. There is also a new disturbing trend – whenever there is any allegation, the person alleged to have done the wrong blatantly challenges the other to go to court, knowing well that the matter will rarely be taken to courts, if at all there is any investigation it will be shoddy, it will take years and ultimately nothing will happen. This is the sad reality. Yes, ultimately where there’s illegality or corruption the matters should go to court. At the same time, many offences are easy to commit but difficult to prove the way investigations are carried out and the law of evidence is implemented in our country. Also, the courts cannot deal with matters of impropriety, if the transactions are otherwise legal at least on the face of it. In such cases, it is only when such persons feel disgraced that such actions would be curbed. Social pressure can be a tremendous deterrent to improper actions.

The staff of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development/The World Bank has published a paper `Politically Exposed Persons – A Policy Paper on Strengthening Preventive Measures’. The first recommendation in this Paper is that laws and regulations should make no distinction between domestic and foreign PEPs. The standards adopted by FATF and regional and national standard setters should require similar enhanced due diligence for both foreign and domestic PEPs. The Paper also cites lack of political will and commitment as one of the key causes for not being able to make the genuine difference.

How true!

Sanjeev Pandit
Editor
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The Art of ‘Giving’

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‘Giving: giving is not just a quality that you nurture; it is the very nature of life.’

—Sadhguru Jaggi Vasudev

‘Giving’ is advocated by all religions, castes and creeds and even by the ‘atheist’. The issues are : what do we mean by ‘Giving’ and how should one ‘give’. The issues I have are:

• is it ‘giving’ when you expect a return – may be a ‘thank you’. I believe it is not ‘giving’ but is a barter. If I am not wrong Jesus said, ‘Give in a manner that the left hand does not know what the right hand is giving’.

• is having your photograph taken or name plate placed in return for ‘giving’. We all, including the author, indulge in it. But is it ‘giving’! One is seeking acknowledgement – a reward. However, it is better than not ‘giving’.

• is it ‘giving’ – eg – when you present something to someone and expect the person to look after what you have ‘given’ in the manner you desire. Is it giving: when you say ‘take care of it – it is expensive’. The answer is, ‘no’, because you in your mind are still retaining ownership. ‘Giving’ should free oneself of the feeling of ownership.

Concept of charity – ‘giving’ – also makes one feel superior – it feeds the ego. This is what has to be avoided whilst ‘giving’. ‘Giving’ probably also makes the receiver feel……. This also has to be and should be avoided – not only consciously but also subconsciously. When you give – give with a feeling that you are giving to yourself – this would unite you with the receiver and eliminate any feeling of superiority.

‘Giving’ however, is not restricted to tangibles – for example – ‘giving’ can be of time coupled with patience – that is what is listening – nay real listening. It relieves a person of a burden – clears his agitated or disturbed mind – calms him, makes him responsive to a suggestion or a solution. Time is one of the finest means of ‘giving’. Kahlil Gibran has rightly said:

‘You give but little when you give of your possessions. It is when you give of yourself that you truly give.’

Giving , in my view , is also a self serving act because all texts say and all noble persons preach that ‘give and it will be given to you… for the measure you give will be the measure you get back’. This expectation again makes giving a barter, a deal full of expectations – seeking a reward not from the recipient but from the Almighty. Hence, it again is not giving in true sense. As mentioned earlier giving has to be without expectation. Giving should be for self satisfaction and not self glorification.

If the above are not ‘giving’ then what is ‘giving’. ‘Giving’, in my view, is ‘sharing’ – because when you share you share out of love, you have no expectations. ‘Sharing’ reminds me of an instance reported in a newspaper: ‘a beggar in Gujarat used his savings of Rs. 3000 in distributing clothes in an orphanage. When asked: why have you done it! His response was: ‘Hame Khushi Hoi’. It gave him pleasure. In short, the beggar was ‘sharing’ without any expectation. He wasn’t probably expecting even a ‘thank you’. He was doing for his pleasure. This is real ‘giving’. On ‘giving’ Buddha says:

‘If you know what I know about the power of giving, you would not have a single meal in your life without first sharing it with someone’.

So, let us share and give meaning and feeling to ‘giving’.

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M/S Sarad Bricks Industries And Others V. State of Tripura and Others,[2011] 42 VST 485 (Gauhati)

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VAT- Refusal to Issue Declaration – For Default in Payment of Tax by Another Firm in Which One Partner of The Dealer Firm is a Partner – Not Valid – Tripura Value Added Tax Act, 2004.

Facts
The dealer, a partnership firm was entitled to get prescribed forms upon payment of tax under the Tripura Value Added Tax Act, 2004. The Department refused to issue forms to the dealer despite payment of tax by it, on the ground that the partnership firm in which one of the partner of the dealer firm is a partner, has not discharged its tax liability under the act. The dealer filed a writ petition before the Gauhati High Court against the refusal to issue forms by the department.

Held

The dealer firm is an entity independent of the fact as to who its partner is. When no tax is payable by the dealer, the issue of forms can not be refused in terms of memorandum, for default in payment of tax by the other firm, in which one partner of the dealer firm is also a partner. Accordingly, the High Court directed the department to issue forms to the dealer.

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(2011) 132 ITD 236 (Mum.) ITO v Galaxy Saws (P) Ltd. AY 2005-06 Date of Order: 11-03-2011

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Section 115JB: For the purpose of section 115JB, Book profit has to be computed on the basis of net profit as disclosed in Profit & Loss account prepared as per the provisions of part II and part III of schedule VI of the companies Act.

When the accounts are prepared in conformity with the provisions of companies Act and revaluation of assets had been made as per AS-10, no addition could be made to the net profit on account of revaluation reserves directly taken to balance sheet while computing book profit.

Facts:
Assessee during the year sold its premises for Rs.96 lakh. The value of the premises in the books before revaluation was Rs. 3.29 lakh. Before sale, assessee revalued the premises at Rs. 97.44 lakh through a registered valuer and credited Rs.94.14 lakh to revaluation reserve to the balance sheet. Subsequently, assessee debited loss of Rs.1.44 lakh to Profit and loss account.

However, AO rejected the claim of the assessee on the premise that the assessee had adopted the above devise to avoid tax by revaluing property in the year of transfer and added Rs. 92.70 lakh to book profit.

Aggrieved by the order of AO, the assessee filed an appeal before CIT(A) that book profits had been computed on the basis of provisions of Companies Act and revaluation is done as per AS-10. Hence, AO did not have any power to make changes on such accounts. CIT(A) upheld the claim of the assessee and deleted the adjustment made by the AO, aggrieved by which the revenue filed appeal before Tribunal.

Held:
As per explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), amount carried to any reserve has to be added to the net profit, if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account.

In the instant case, revaluation reserve was directly taken to balance sheet and not routed through profit and loss account. Therefore, the amount could not be added to book profit.

Revaluation of premises was done in conformity with AS-10 and also certified by a registered valuer. The above revaluation was also accepted by the department. Hence, argument of the dept. that it was colourable devise to avoid tax is rejected.

No addition could be made to net profit on account of revaluation reserve directly taken to balance sheet for computing book profit.

Hence, the appeal of the revenue is dismissed.

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2012 (54) VST 300 (CESTAT – New Delhi) Hero Honda Motors Limited vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, New Delhi

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Permitting to use brand name of motor vehicle for motor vehicle lubricant and oil manufactured by other parties amounts to intellectual property service.

Facts:
The appellant, a manufacturer of two wheeler vehicles entered into an agreement with oil manufacturers in terms of which the oil manufacturers were permitted to use brand name on the containers of products manufactured by them, for royalty as per terms of the agreement. Department took a view that it was taxable service falling under the category of “Intellectual Property Service” as the said agreement was registered under sections 9 & 11 of the Trade Marks Act of 1999 and invoking a longer period of limitation, service tax was demanded for October 2004 to January 2006. The Appellant stated that it relied on the Circular No. 80/10/04-ST dated September 17, 2004 that Intellectual property right within the meaning and for the purpose of section 65(55a) are confined to those Intellectual property rights governed by specific legislations in India. Further it may be noted that a person can certainly claim proprietary rights under common law in respect of such integrated circuits and undisclosed information but they are not covered under Indian legislation and hence not taxable as it is outside the ambit of the definition of Intellectual Property Right.

Held:
Admittedly, the goods manufactured by the oil companies are to be used in the vehicles manufactured by the appellant company and have a strong connection with the same. The appearance of trade mark “Hero Honda” & “Hero Honda 4T Plus” on oil products definitely indicates a connection between the said companies and the appellant’s product. Further, the facts of the case do not initiate entering of an agreement and thereby being registered under the Trade Marks Act of 1999. In case the oil company had used the trade mark without entering into agreement with the Appellant, it would have amounted to infringement of their right under section 29(4) of the Trade Marks Act. Further the Tribunal did not agree that the permission to use the said trade mark to the oil company could not be covered by the definition of “Intellectual Property Right” and “Intellectual Property Services” as appearing in the Finance Act, 1994 and hence demand was confirmed.

However, the Tribunal held that mere failure on the part of the assessee when the issue involved is a complicated interpretation of the provisions of the law cannot be equated with malafide suppression / misstatement and accordingly directed that a part demand would be within the limitation period may be requantified by the original authority to whom the matter was remanded for the said purpose. Penalty was set aside as no suppression was found.

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2012 (54) VST 264 (Ker) Kerala State Industrial Enterprises Limited vs. CCE, Thiruvananthapuram

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Air cargo handling service: Short duration of time taken for unloading, x-raying, etc. of export cargo and passenger baggage cannot be said to be time of storage or warehousing of goods.

Facts:
Appellant maintained a terminal at the Trivandrum airport. Air cargo for export and passenger baggage for transport was brought for unloading, x-raying & transporting of goods by airline officials or employees/ agents of cargo owners. There was a time lag between the arrival of the cargo/passenger baggage at the appellant’s terminal and shipment by air. In case the time of retention of cargo/passenger baggage at the terminal was beyond 48 hours, appellant charged and discharged liability of service tax under “storage & warehousing services”.

The appellant contended that the Department cannot bring to tax a service which enjoys exemption under one entry of the Act (that is Cargo Handling Service which exempts export cargo and passenger baggage from the levy of the tax) by resorting to another charging section of the very same Act. Reliance was placed on Air India Ltd vs. Cochin International Airport 2010 (1) KLT 190 and on Circular No. B11/1/2002 dated August 01, 2002.

The Department concluded that the appellant was not carrying on cargo handling services but the activity of the appellant was taxable under the “Storage & Warehousing services’ and hence demanded tax.

Tribunal held that in case the cargo/passenger baggage retained for a shorter period (less than 48 hours) is not conclusive of the fact that it is not storage and warehousing services. It held that the retention of cargo/passenger baggage by the appellant irrespective of the period shall also be covered under the “Storage & Warehousing services”.

Held:
Even though the Circular B11/1/2002 dated 1st August, 2002 was issued with reference to another charging section, what is clear from the circular is that the intention of the Government is to avoid incidence of tax on export cargo and passenger baggage. Further, the Department or the Tribunal made an inquiry as regards whether the appellant was charging various rates for the same service depending upon the period of retention of the goods, the additional charges recovered could be attributed to the storage and warehousing service and be subjected to service tax. Hence the matter was remanded to the Department for conducting enquiry. If the appellant is liable to service tax following our judgment, there is no scope of penalty as no contumacious conduct can be presumed in this matter.

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2012 (27) STR 447 (Tri.-Mumbai) Raymonds Ltd. vs. C. C. E., Mumbai-III

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Pre-deposit paid through utilisation of CENVAT credit account – Appeal disposed off by way of refund-Appellant opted out of CENVAT credit scheme and therefore not in a position to utilise CENVAT credit – Held, Appellant entitled to claim refund in cash.

Facts:
The appellant pre-deposited amount of Rs. 1 Crore by way of utilisation of CENVAT credit as per the order of the Tribunal. The Tribunal thereafter, set aside the order appealed against by way of remand. The appellant consequently asked for the refund of pre-deposit in cash. The adjudicating authority sanctioned the same but ordered to be utilised through CENVAT credit account. However, in the interim the appellant opted out of the CENVAT scheme and therefore, was not able to utilise the CENVAT. Therefore, appellant asked for refund of pre-deposit in cash.

The appellant relied on the Delhi High Court Judgment in case of Voltas Ltd. 112 ELT 34 to claim refund of pre-deposit on the matter being set aside by way of remand. The Appellant also relied on the decision of Jharkhand High Court in the case of Commissioner vs. Ashok ARC 7 STR 365.

The Department quoting 198 ELT 400 and 183 ELT 38, contended that since the Appellant has paid pre-deposit out of CENVAT account, he is entitled to get refund only through CENVAT credit account.

Held:
The Tribunal distinguished judgments quoted by the Department, stating that it was not known whether in the given case the assessee was entitled to use CENVAT credit or not. Moreover, in the other case the appeal was dismissed being less than Rs.50,000/-. On the other hand, the Jharkhand High Court’s decision has considered the facts identical to the case and had held that the appellant was entitled to claim refund in cash.

Relying on the Jharkhand High Court’s judgment in case of Ashok ARC (supra), the Tribunal held that the appellant is entitled to claim refund of pre-deposit in cash.

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2012 (27) STR 377 (Tri.-Del.) WLC College India Ltd vs. Comm. Of Service Tax, Delhi

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Training and coaching to persons who have education at least upto 12th Standard – In fields of Fashion Technology, Advertisement, Graphic design, Media, Hospitality etc. – Is it vocational training eligible for exemption?- Held, Yes.

Facts:
The appellant was engaged in providing voluntary training and coaching in the field of Business, Fashion Technology, Advertisement, Graphic design, Media, Hospitality and Hospital administration. Appellant admitted that the activities were falling within the definition of commercial coaching and training. However, he claimed exemption under Notification no. 9/2003 ST dated 30/06/2003 exempting services provided by Vocational Training Institutes. The said exemption was rescinded on 30/06/2004 and was reintroduced on 10/09/2004. Appellant paid service tax for the period 01/07/2004 to 09/09/2004. However, he again claimed exemption under Notification no. 24/2004 ST dated 10/09/2004 from 10/09/2004 onwards.

The Revenue contended that the appellant provided training to persons who had education at least upto 12th Standard and such training provided to persons with such education cannot be considered as vocational training. The Revenue also argued that training in areas like welding, carpentry, etc. where the level of education required is low, qualified to be “vocational training”.

According to the appellant, the matter was already examined at length by the Tribunal in the past in their own case at Bangalore and also in case of another appellant – Ashu Export Promoters Pvt. Ltd. 25 STR 359.

Held:
Following judgments in case of Ashu Export Promoters Pvt. Ltd. (supra) and in case of the appellant’s own case – 8 STR 475, it was decided that the appellant is entitled to claim exemption.

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2012 (27) STR 372 (Tri.-Ahmd) Gujarat NRE Coke Ltd. vs. CCE, Rajkot

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Adjustment of excess payment of service tax – in the absence of centralised registration – Held, it will be highly technical to deny the same.

Facts:
Appellant paid excess service tax in few months and then adjusted the same against the liability arising in the subsequent period. The said adjustment was made taking resort to Rule 6 (4A) of Service Tax Rules, 1994. However, during the extant period adjustment of excess service tax was done by the Appellant under an impression that he had applied for centralised registration, however, the department contended there was no application made for centralised registration. The Department did not permit such adjustment and demanded tax as shortfall along with interest and penalty.

Held:

Having not procured centralised registration is a technical issue. The fact remained that the Appellant paid service tax in excess and this fact is not disputed by the department. Relying interalia on the following judgments, the Tribunal set aside the demand raised:

Cases referred to

? Powercell Battery India Ltd. 19 STR 400 Nirma Architects & Valuers 1 STR 305
? Agrimas Chemicals Ltd. 10 STR 424
? Bharti Cellular Ltd. 1 STR 39
? Bayer Diagnostics India Ltd. 8 STR 367

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2012 (54) VST 202 (Karn) Commissioner of Service Tax, Commissionerate, Bangalore vs. Motor World (& other cases).

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Service Tax: Penalty under sections 76 & 78 mutually exclusive: Discretion regarding quantity of penalty is between minimum and maximum prescribed. Revision to enhance the penalty/to impose the penalty for the first time not permissible.

Facts: Tribunal set aside penalties imposed under sections 76, 77 & 78 of the Finance Act, 1994.

The Honourable High Court after hearing both the parties at length, formulated the following questions of law:

? Whether the penalty under the Finance Act, 1994, is automatic?

? Whether sections 76 and 78 of the Act are mutually exclusive?

? Even if the ingredients stipulated in sections 76 and 78 are established but if “reasonable cause” is shown, whether the authorities have power to impose penalties given in the explicit discretion in section 80 of the Act?

? If after holding that all the ingredients under sections 76 and 78 exist and no reasonable cause is made out by the assessee, whether the imposition of penalty as prescribed under these two provisions is automatic or whether any discretion is left in the authority in the matter of imposing penalty?

? If the order passed by the assessing authority is within the four corners of law, i.e. within the parameters prescribed under the aforesaid statutory provisions, whether revisional authority by virtue of power conferred under Section 84 of the Act, can suo motu revise the order of the Assessing authority and enhance the penalty?

? Whether the revisional authority has jurisdiction to impose penalty for the first time when it has not been imposed by the adjudicating authority by invoking section 80?

The Hon. High Court observed that for imposition of penalty, the following is required to be examined:

a. existence of ingredients mentioned in sections 76, 77 and 78.

b. failure of the assessee to comply with the law.

c. Whether there exists “reasonable cause” for failure to comply with the requirement of law.

Reliance was also placed on Woodward Governer India P Ltd vs. Commissioner of Income Tax 2002 (253) ITR 745 (Delhi) which contains a provision conferring discretion on the income-tax authorities not to impose penalties when there is a reasonable cause shown by the assessee. According to the Court, the intention of the Parliament appears clear from the wordings of section 78 by which a discretion “may levy penalty” is conferred on the authority to impose or not to impose penalty. High Court also stated that analogy can be drawn from CCE vs. Sunitha Shetty 2006 (3) STR 404 (Karn) that the minimum penalty under section 76 cannot be read as Rs.100/- per day but read as Rs.100/-. The legislature amended the law w.e.f. April 18, 2006 after the above judicial pronouncement.

Section 78 applies to a case where a person has registered himself under the Act and failed to file prescribed return and in a return filed, he has suppressed or concealed the value of taxable service or has furnished inaccurate value of such taxable service. Therefore, section 78 operates in altogether different field. However, this provision is made subject to section 80. Thus, even if there is a suppression or concealment of the value of taxable service or inaccurate value as mentioned in the returns filed, if that is on account of a bonafide mistake or any cause which constitutes “reasonable cause” no penalty is leviable. Once the ingredients of section 78 are established and there is no reasonable cause for failure, section 80 is not attracted. Then the authority has to impose a minimum penalty of the amount of service tax sought to be evaded and the maximum is double the said amount. Here, no discretion is vested with the authority.

Further, it was concluded that penalty cannot be imposed both under sections 76 and 78 as they are mutually exclusive. It should also be further noted that the Finance Act 2008 also introduced a proviso to section 78 as “provided also that if the penalty is payable under this section, the provision of section 76 shall not apply.”

If there is no reasonable cause shown, the authority has the discretion to quantify the penalty to be imposed. Still, the penalty to be imposed cannot be less than the minimum or more than the maximum prescribed under the statute.

If the penalty imposed is not less than the minimum prescribed under law, the revisional authority has no power to enhance the amount of penalty on the ground that it is less.

When the assessing authority, in its discretion has held that no penalty is leviable, by virtue of section 80 of the Act, the revisional authority cannot invoke its jurisdiction and impose penalty.

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Deduction from Set-off in Respect of Fuel Purchases – When Applicable

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Introduction
Under Maharashtra Value Added Tax Act, 2002 (MVAT Act, 2002) the set off scheme is prescribed under the authority of section 48, read with rules. Rules 52 to 55 of MVAT Rules are relevant for deciding the set off quantum. Rule 52 provides that the purchases of capital assets, trading goods, as well as purchases debited to P & L A/c are eligible for set off. The set off availability is subject to retention as per rule 53 or prohibition as per rule 54.

Rule 53
Rule 53 provides for retention from set off, when the goods are used in the prescribed circumstances. In this note, the issue about reduction from set off in respect of purchases which are used as fuel is discussed. The reduction from set off in relation to fuel purchase is provided in Rule 53(1). The said rule is reproduced below for ready reference.

“53. Reduction in set-off. –

(A) The set-off available under any rule shall be reduced and shall accordingly disallowed in part or full in the event of any contingencies specified below and to the extent specified.

(1) If the claimant dealer has used any taxable goods as fuel, then an amount equal to three per cent of the corresponding purchase price shall be reduced from the amount of set-off otherwise available in respect of the said purchase.”

What is fuel?
The reduction is to be made when the item purchased is used as fuel. The term ‘fuel’ is not defined in the MVAT Act/Rules.

In common parlance, fuel means any item which is burnt for producing heat. The dictionary meaning also suggests the same thing. The fuel is defined as under in Webster’s Encyclopedic Unabridged Dictionary of the English Language:

“fuel: 1. combustible matter used to maintain fire, as coal, wood, oil etc. 2. that which gives nourishment or incentive: our discussion provided him with fuel for the debate – v.t.3. to supply with fuel- v.i.4. to obtain or replenish fuel. [ME fule(le), feuel < OF feuaile < LL focalia, neut.pl.of focalis of the hearth, fuel. See focus, – AL]..”

“com.bus.ti.ble 1.capable of catching fire and burning; inflammable; flammable: Gasoline vapor is highly combustible. 2. Easily excited: a high-strung, combustible nature -n.3.a combustible substance: Trucks carrying combustibles will not be allowed to use this tunnel….”

From the above combined meanings of fuel and combustible, it is clear that the item, which burns, to produce heat can be considered as fuel. From the examples given, the position is more clear like, oil, wood etc., which burn, are considered as fuel.

Factual position
On this background, the issue which arises is the use of combustible item. If the item is burnt for producing heat, then it can fall in the category of fuel. There may be circumstances, where the combustible item is used and may also be giving heat. However, simply because some heat is generated, it cannot become fuel and it can be raw material. In other words, whether the item is used as a fuel or a raw material is a matter of factual findings. Some guidelines can be had from the decided judgments.

Recent judgment in case of Gupta Metallics & Power Ltd. (54 VST 292)(Bom).

The dealer was manufacturer of sponge iron. The process of manufacturing of sponge iron involved use of raw material i.e. iron ore, coal and dolomite. The dealer had for the assessment year 1.4.2005 to 31.3.2006 and assessment year 1.4.2006 to 31.3.2007 claimed set-off of 100% in respect of the tax paid on the coal purchased and used in the manufacturing of sponge iron. The dealer before the assessing officer claimed that the said coal was used as raw material for manufacturing sponge iron from iron ore and that is how the respondent claimed 100% set off as per Rule 53 of MVAT Rules, 2005. While passing the assessment order for the aforesaid periods, the assessing authority came to the conclusion that the part of coal used in the manufacture of sponge iron was used as a fuel and part as raw material. The assessing officer permitted the respondent to claim set off to the extent of 50% by treating that 50% of the coal was used as a raw material and 50% of the coal was used a fuel. The reasoning of the assessing authority was that the coal, while reacting with iron in the kiln also generates heat, which is used for the said manufacturing process. Therefore, on the 50% part set off was allowed after reduction of 3% as per above rule 53(1). In the second appeal, Tribunal concurred with the dealer and held that in the given circumstances, coal was used as a raw material. Though, heat is generated and may be useful in the manufacturing process, the coal was not put up in the kiln for the said purpose but basically to act as reductant i.e. raw material. The department filed appeal before Bombay High Court. Hon’ble High Court, after discussing the facts, observed as under;

“It would be proper to deal with the arguments on both the sides on the question whether the coal used in the process by the respondent was used as a raw material or as fuel. In our view, it would be proper to reproduce the report which is contained in letter dated 29.2.2008 to which a reference has been made by all the authorities below. The text of the report is as follows:

“Report:
In the Rotary Kiln Process of manufacturing Sponge Iron, a premixed charge of Iron Ore, Non-Coking Coal and Flux is added inside the Kiln. This charge forms a bed inside the Kiln and slowly moves towards the discharge end. During the transit of the charge, the Iron Ore is slowly converted into Sponge Iron, by the process of reduction. Inside the bed, the carbon of the Non-Coking Coal reduces the Iron Oxide slowly to Iron and the carbon gets converted to Carbon-mono-Oxide gas. Thus, inside the bed the coal plays the role of a reductant. The gas Carbon-mono-oxide rises out of the bed and is now post-combusted to gas carbon-dioxide by carefully admitting air inside the Kiln. This reaction taking place in the area above the bed is a highly exothermic reaction and produces the bulk of the heat required for the process. Thus, the Non-Coking Coal provides the gas Carbon mono-Oxide for satisfying the heat requirements of the process i.e. it indirectly plays the role of a fuel in the Rotary Kiln Process.

It is impossible to quantify the ratio of coal as a reductant vs. fuel in the Rotary Kiln.

10. We have perused the report and we have also considered the submissions advanced by both the sides. A reading of the report clearly indicates that to convert iron ore into sponge iron, the noncoking coal is used. It must be mentioned that the orders passed by the authorities did not use the specific word “Noncoking coal”. The report clearly indicates that the mixture of iron ore and non-coking coal when heated from outside, would ultimately get converted into sponge iron. It is also noticed that on account of the chemical qualities of the non-coking coal, heat is generated. The carbon of non-coking coal reduces the iron oxide slowly to sponge iron and carbon monoxide gas is generated. The report specifically mentions that inside the bed, the Non-Cooking Coal plays the role of a reductant. It further indicates as to how highly exothermic reaction takes place and produces the bulk of the heat required for the process. It also shows that non-coking coal provides the gas carbon mono-oxide for satisfying the heat requirements of the process. On account of this, the author of the report has observed “It indirectly plays a role of fuel in the rotary kiln process”. It is seen that chemical qualities of Noncooking coal to generate heat are used. Merely because heat is generated in the process it cannot be a ground to hold that Noncooking coal so used was used as fuel.

The above observations clearly show that the coal used in the process of manufacturing of sponge iron is used as a raw material and not as a fuel. It is clear that the Assessing Officer as well as the Appellate Authority misread the text of the report dated 29.12.2008. We hold that the tribunal has rightly held that the coal used by the respondent was a raw material and not used as a fuel.”

Thus, simply because heat gets generated, as well as may be useful in the manufacturing process, an item does not become fuel automatically. If the prime object of using the item is as raw material, where without such use, manufacturing may not be feasible then the item is to be considered as a raw material and not a fuel.

Similar is the judgment of Gujarat Tribunal in case of Welspun Steel Ltd. (First Appeal No. 27 of 2010 dated 27.12.2011), wherein also Gujarat Tribunal has considered the use of coal as a raw material and not a fuel.

Conclusion

Set off is the backbone of VAT system. Further, the responsibility of filing correct return is on the dealer. There is no compulsory assessment for each year. Therefore, if set off is due, but not claimed in the returns, then there is no surety that the dealer will get an opportunity to claim the same. If the assessment is initiated then the claim can be lodged. However, if that is not the case, then dealer will lose it. Therefore, it is dealer, who should take care to claim correct set off. Under the above circumstances, it is necessary that the dealer determines the set off quantum correctly. The above issue is one of the issues, where minute study is required to understand the nature of the use of the item.

If it can be proved that the item is used as a raw material for manufacturing or production, then even though it maybe generating heat, it may not be fuel. Similarly, there may be circumstances, where the item is generating heat but as a prime raw material to produce new goods. Normally, when the item is burnt for giving heat to the other item, it will be in the category of fuel. However, if by burning the item, new goods are produced, then a stand can be taken that it is a raw material and not a fuel. In other words, an item can be used as raw material in the heat form. The particular use is to be decided as per facts of each case and no generalisation can be made. The above judgments may be useful for deciding the issue. If the item is coming in the category of fuel, only then reduction will apply otherwise not and the dealer will get full set off.

Hiring of Goods: Declared Service or Deemed Sale?

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Preliminary:

Under the negative list based taxation of services introduced from July 01, 2012, service is defined by section 65B(44) of the Finance Act, 1994 (the Act) to mean an activity carried out by a person for another for consideration and also includes declared services followed by a list of excluded transactions as follows:

? An activity resulting in transfer of title in goods or immovable property by way of sale, gift or in any other manner.

? Deemed sale of goods in terms of Article 366(29A) of the Constitution.

? A transaction only in money (other than activities relating to use of money or conversion of money for which consideration is charged).

? A transaction only in actionable claim.

? Employment contract for service by an employee to an employer.

? Fees payable to a court or tribunal.

In turn, “Declared Service” is defined by section 66E of the Act containing nine activities like renting of immovable property, construction of a complex or a building including one intended for sale to a buyer, temporary transfer of intellectual property rights, design development etc. of information technology software, agreeing to tolerate an act or refraining from an act, transferring goods by hiring without transferring right to use goods, hire purchase transactions, works contract and catering contracts. In this feature, one of the declared services described in subclause (f) of the said section 66E of the Act is discussed below.

Statutory provisions.

Section 66E:

“The following shall constitute declared services: namely:-

(a) ………………;
(b) ………………;

Explanation
(I) ……………….;
(A) …………..;
(B) …………..;
(C) …………..;
(II) ………………;
(c) …………………..;
(d) …………………..;
(e) ………………….;
(f) transfer of goods by way of hiring, leasing, licensing or in any manner without transfer of right to use such goods”

Activity of providing goods on hire:

While explaining the scope of this service, the Government in the Education Guide dated 20/06/2012 issued while introducing Negative List based taxation of services has provided as follows “Transfer of right to use goods is a well recognized constitutional and legal concept. Every transfer of goods on lease, licence or hiring basis, does not result in transfer of right to use goods”. In support of the above statement, it has cited Supreme Court in the case of State of Andhra Pradesh vs. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. 2002 (126) STC 0114 (SC) which ruled in the context of the facts of that case that “Transfer of right of goods involves transfer of possession and effective control over such goods” and “Transfer of custody along with permission to use or enjoy such goods, per se does not lead to transfer of possession and effective control”.

The readers may note that the above ruling was pronounced in a case where the machinery belonging to Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (the company) was provided to the contractor for the use in the project work of the company on the site of the company and the contractor merely was responsible for the custody of the same. However, the effective control and possession was not transferred to the contractor. The contractor was not free to make use of the machinery for the work other than that of the company. Therefore, the decision that effective control and possession was not passed on by the company to the contractor, is with reference to the facts of the case that the machinery belonged to the company and the contractor was merely retained to operate the same and responsible for its security as the machinery was placed in his custody only for the project work of the company.

It is, thus, true that transfer of right of goods involves transfer of possession and effective control. However, in the above case of Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (supra) wherein the custody of machinery belonging to the company was merely provided to the contractor for operation of the same. The machinery was not ’hired’ to the contractor. This does not mean that in every transaction where goods belonging to owner or lessor are provided on hire, there does not occur ‘transfer’ of right to use such goods. The issue therefore is, when an equipment is provided on hire or on operating lease or when tangible or intangible goods are licensed to the licensee for the use of the licensee for a specific period whether “transfer of right to use” occurs and therefore the transaction is considered a “deemed sale” in terms of Article 366(29A) of the constitution, exigible to VAT under State laws and therefore specifically excluded from the definition of ‘service’ or whether there is no ‘transfer’ of right to use occurring and the person uses the goods without enjoying the right to use and therefore, the same is to be considered as a “declared service” as defined above and is subjected to service tax. The issue is complex and requires interpretation of the facts of each case. It has been dealt with by Courts time and again. A few such important decisions are discussed below:

Test laid down by the Supreme Court in BSNL:

The test laid down by the Hon. Supreme Court in the benchmark decision of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. vs. UOI 2006 (2) STR 161 (SC) provides direction in the matter. This test is recognised by the Government in the Education Guide for determining whether a transaction involves transfer of right to use goods. It has been followed by the Supreme Court and various High Courts. The test lays down as follows:

? There must be goods available for delivery.

? There must be consensus ad idem as to the identity of the goods.

? The transferee should have legal right to use the goods – consequently all legal consequences of such use including any permission or licenses required therefore should be available to the transferee.

? For the period during which the transferee has such legal right, it has to be the exclusion of the transferor. This is the necessary concomitant of the plain language of the statute viz. a “transfer of the right to use” and not merely a license to use the goods.

? Having transferred the right to use the goods during the period for which it is to be transferred, the owner cannot again transfer the same rights to others.

The Education Guide also indicates that whether a transaction amounts to transfer of right or not cannot be determined with reference to a particular word or clause in the agreement laying down terms between the parties, but the agreement is required to be read as a whole to determine the nature of transaction.

Further, the Ministry in the Education Guide has also listed certain illustrations as under:

“6.6.2 Whether the transactions listed in column 1 of the table below involve transfer of right to use goods? (Refer Table on the next page)

The Education Guide states that the list in the Table is only illustrative to demonstrate how Courts have interpreted terms and conditions of various types of contracts to see if a transaction involves transfer of right to use goods. The nature of each transaction has to be examined in totality keeping in view all the terms and conditions of an agreement relating to such transaction.

If the above illustrations and the relied on decisions are perused in the light of the test laid down by the BSNL decision (supra), one may find that conclusions drawn by the Government may not satisfy the above test in the cases illustrated.

Admittedly, the issue has been contentious and there may be a thin line of divide between the facts of one case from the other and which may have led to reach different conclusions by Courts at different times. For instance and as against the decisions cited in the above table, viz. International Travel House and Ahuja Goods Agency ( supra), in the case of K. C. Behera vs. State of Orissa (1991) 83 STC 325 (Ori.), buses were hired by State Transport Corporation (STC). The bus was to be run for STC as per the agreement and under directions of an officer. Transaction of hiring was held as ‘sale’ within its extended meaning. Providing driver etc. notwithstanding, there was a transfer of right to use bus for consideration and effective control, general control and possession of the bus vested in STC. As against this, in Laxmi Audio Visual vs. Assistant Commissioner of Commercial Taxes 2001 (124) STC 426 (Kar), it was held that when there is only hiring of audio visual and multi media equipment, where the equipment is at the risk of the owner and possession and effective control remains with the owner, in such circumstances, it cannot be said that the customer has the right to use the equipment and therefore there was no deemed sale. Similarly, in the background of somewhat different facts, in the case of State of Orissa vs. Dredging Corporation of India Ltd. (2009) 25 VST 522 (Orissa H.C.), the company Dredging Corporation of India engaged its dredgers for dredging the floor of Paradeep Port under the Paradeep Port Trust (PPT) and did not disclose the income from dredging charges as ‘sale’ income. On perusal of the agreement between the parties, the Court held that transfer of right to use any goods is not a bailment, for had it been a bailment, the State would have no power to tax it. It is a sale by a fiction of law engrafted in Article 366(29A)(a) of the Constitution and resultantly in section 2(g)(iv) of the OST Act. So, what is determinative as to whether or not there was a transfer of right to use the chattel (the dredger) is the stipulation in the agreement between the Board and the appellant. The Court also observed:

“The agreement provides as follows:

……….. the Corporation hereby agrees to deploy its Cutter Auction Dredges MOT Dredge-II in the dredging work. There are stipulations to do a work, to dredge the sea-bed with men and machine deployed for the purpose, against a valuable consideration. So find it a works contract without transfer of property in goods in execution of such a contract.” The Court held, “there is nothing in the agreement to prove that there was a transfer of right to use the dredges.”

The readers may consider whether or not in the above case, the contract was that of service of dredging and “hiring of a dredge” was absent?

However, the facts in the case of Deepak Nath vs. ONGC (2010) 31 VST 337 (Gau) may also be examined. In this case, trucks, trailers, tankers and cranes were made available by owner to ONGC under contract in writing for operational charges as agreed to during the contract. It was held by the Division Bench that goods were made available 24 hours a day throughout the contract. Method and manner of using the goods was decided by ONGC, there is a transfer of right to use the goods even though the staff remained under his control.

The case of G.S. Lamba:

The recent decision of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in G.S. Lamba & Sons vs. State of Andhra Pradesh 2012-TIOL-49-HC-AP-CT appears most ex-haustive. It has considered the test laid down by the Apex Court in BSNL, all the significant decisions on the subject matter including those cited in the Education Guide to consider the short point of whether there exists a “transfer of the right to use” in transit mixers to M/s. Grasim Industries Ltd., when Ready Mix Concrete (RMC) manufactured by Grasim was to be transported under a contract by hiring specially designed transit mixers OR as it was pleaded by the petitioner, whether the contract amounted to “transportation service”. Under the contract in the case, the transit mixers are never transferred and effective control over running and using these vehicles as well as disciplinary con-trol over drivers remained with the contractor. The responsibility to obtain route permits, to take the risk or loss of transportation, to decide shifts of driver and vehicles, to maintain and upkeep the vehicles all vests in the contractor. After considering various decisions vis-à-vis facts of each case which interalia included Harbanslal vs. SO Haryana (1993) 88 STC 357 (P&H), 20th Century Finance (2000) 119 STC 182 (SC), IOC vs. Commissioner of Taxes (2009) 22 VST 70 (Gau), R P Kakoty vs. ONGC (2009) 22 VST 136 etc., the Hon. Court in Para 30 observed as under:

“30. From the judicial decisions, the settled essential requirement of a transaction for transfer of the right to use goods are:

(i)    it is not the transfer of the property in goods, but it is the right to use property in goods;

(ii)    Article 366(29A)(d) read with the latter part of the clause (29A) which uses the words, “and such transfer, delivery or supply … ” would show that the tax is not on the delivery of the goods used, but on the transfer of the right to use goods regardless of when or whether the goods are delivered for use subject to the condition that the goods should be in existence for use;

(iii)    in the transaction for the transfer of the right to use goods, delivery of goods is not a condition precedent, but the delivery of goods may be one of the elements of the transaction;

(iv)    the effective or general control does not mean always physical control and, even if the manner, method, modalities and the time of the use of goods is decided by the lessee or the customer, it would be under the effective or general control over the goods; and

(v)    the approvals, concessions, licences and permits in relation to goods would also be available to the user of goods, even if such licences or permits are in the name of owner (transferor) of the goods, and

(vi)    during the period of contract exclusive right to use goods along with permits, licences etc., vests in the lessee.”

Further, the Court followed the principles of interpretation of documents as listed below:

  •     Construe the document as a whole.

  •     To understand the meaning of a document or a part of it from documents itself.

  •     To give literal meaning to the words used in a document.

  •     In the event of intrinsic incongruities and inconsistencies flowing from the words and language used in the document, the intention would prevail over the words used. The intention of the parties has to be determined from the attending circumstances leading to the transaction.

(This principle is an exception to the first three principles. If the language used in the document is very clear, rights and obligation cannot be inferred by resorting to the fourth principle.)

Hon. A. P. High Court inter alia made the following observations while holding that the tax is not on use of goods, but on account of transfer of right to use of goods.

  •    In other words, the right to use goods arises only on the transfer of such right to use goods and that the transfer of right is the sine quo non for the right to use any goods. The contract involved provision of transportation service for shipping RMC by hiring specifically designed transit mixers. The effective control of running the mixers and the disciplinary control remained with the contractor agreeing to provide the above service.

  •     Article 366(29A)(d) would show that the tax is not on the delivery of goods used but on the transfer of the right to use goods regardless of when or whether goods are delivered for use. This is subject to the condition that goods are in existence for use. Delivery of goods is not a condition precedent, but one of the elements of the transaction.

  •     Effective control does not mean always physical control and even if the manner, method modalities and time of the use of goods is decided by the lessee, it would be under the general control over the goods.

  •     During the period of contract, exclusive right to use goods along with permits, licences etc. vests in the lessee. Although the drivers are appointed by the lessor, their roster fixed by them, licences, permits and insurance are taken in their names and they renew them. However, the product is delivered to customers of lessees.

  •     The entire use in the property in goods is to be exclusively utilised for a period under contract by lessee.

  •     The existence of goods is identified and transit mixers operate and are exclusively used for 42 months in the business of the lessee. In putting the property in transit mixers to economic use of the lessee, the lessors figure nowhere. It thus conclusively leads to the conclusion that lessor transferred the right to use the goods to the lessee.

Summing up:

On going through the above, whether a transaction is one of “deemed sale” involving transfer of right to use or is a “declared service” is a question which may not have a definite answer. Professionals may differ from each other. Nevertheless, the test provided in BSNL’s case (supra) appears decisive. Based on it, one may at least be able to answer whether a person can use goods without there being a transfer of ‘right’ to use the same to the exclusion of the lessor or owner on the lines discussed and analysed above in G.S. Lamba & Sons (supra) at least in case of common situations like hiring of vehicles. The Government appears to be tilted towards the view that in an ordinary and common contract of providing a vehicle on hire, the right to use is “not transferred”. In this scenario, it is likely that a law-compliant assessee under service tax law could be visited with recovery action under VAT law of the States and vice-versa. Whether one has to wait till implementation of GST to achieve a finality on the above remains to be seen. In the interim, uncertainty and long drawn litigations appear to be the only visible consequence at this point of time.

(2011) 132 ITD 122 (Mum.) Amartara Plastics (P) ltd. v ACIT Assessment Year: 2005-06 Date of order: 19-01-2011

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Section 26B – Revision – Erroneous and prejudicial order-Computation of book profit u/s. 115JB – When the AO passed the assessment order; clause (i) to Expln.1 to section 115JB was not on the statute book – Order u/s. 263 cannot be passed on an issue that is debatable and hence cannot hold that the order passed by the AO is erroneous.

Facts:
The Assessee was a private limited company that had filed a return for A.Y. 2005-06 on 31st Oct, 2005 declaring Total Income as ‘Nil’. The said return was selected for scrutiny and assessment was completed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. The AO determined the Total Income of the assessee under normal provisions as ‘Nil’ and book profit u/s. 115JB as (–) Rs.26,71,922. This Loss included a provision for bad & doubtful debts of Rs.35, 95,508 allowed by the AO. Subsequently, the learned CIT exercised his revisionary powers u/s. 263 of the Act, holding the order passed by the AO as erroneous and prejudicial to revenue. He set aside the order of the AO with a direction to recompute the book profits after adding back provision for doubtful debts.

Held:
The revisionary power u/s. 263 can be exercised only if the CIT considers any order to be erroneous in so far as it is prejudicial to the interest of the revenue. The order passed by the AO allowing the provision for bad and doubtful debts was not erroneous and was in agreement with past Supreme Court judgments that provisions for bad and doubtful debts did not constitute a liability. Further, the clause (i) to explanation 1 to section 115JB was not on statute when the AO passed the order u/s. 143(3) as well as when the learned CIT exercised his power u/s. 263. Hence, the learned CIT did not have any ground to invoke his power u/s. 263 to enhance, modify, cancel or direct a fresh assessment.

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(2011) 132 ITD 98 ACIT v Rolta India Ltd (Mum) (TM) A.Y 1998-99 Date of Order: 04-06-2010

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Section 148 – Reopening of assessment is void ab intio when initiated merely on the fact that the issue was not specifically dealt with in the assessment order.

Facts:
The assessee company had developed a computer software technology internally, which was capitalised in the books of account and claimed as revenue expenditure in the return of income. The assessing officer during the assessment proceedings, had raised a specific query on allowability of expenditure on computer software. The assessee wrote a letter for the same to the AO giving justification and the relevant facts. There was no specific reference to this issue in the assessment order.

Subsequently, the AO was in receipt of the audit report from the revenue audit party, stating that he had completely overlooked the above mentioned facts and legal position in the given case. The AO then issued notice u/s. 148 based on the above finding.

The assessee then challenged the initiation of the proceedings u/s. 147/148 on the basis of reasons recorded by the AO.

Held:
Merely because the issue on which the notice was issued was not specifically dealt with in the assessment order does not give the AO jurisdiction to reopen the assessment, unless there is tangible material before him to come to the conclusion that there is escapement of income.

When no specific reference to the issue was made in the order, it is presumed that the AO had formed an opinion about the allowability of software expenses as revenue expenditure while completing the assessment u/s. 143(3).

The issue was squarely covered by the judgement of the Supreme Court in CIT v Kelvinator of India Ltd. whereby it was held that mere change of opinion by the AO cannot be taken as the “reason to believe” u/s. 147 to reopen the assessment.

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Undisclosed income: Reference to valuation officer: Ss. 69B and 142A: A. Y. 2007-08: When the books of account in respect of construction are maintained and the same are not rejected, the matter could not be referred to the DVO for assessing the value:

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[CIT Vs. Chohan Resorts; 253 CTR 106 (P&H):]

In the balance sheet filed along with the return of income for the A. Y. 2007-08, the assessee had shown investment of Rs. 5,73,000/- in the land account and Rs. 47,43,576/- in the building account. The Assessing Officer referred the case to the Departmental Valuation Officer(DVO) to determine the cost of construction. The DVO assessed the cost of the property at Rs. 1,02,54,500/-. The assessees furnished the copy of its building account as per its books of account along with the copies of the bills of items used in the building and vouchers on account of labour paid. The Assessing officer made an addition of Rs. 55,12,930/- u/s. 69B of the Act, being the difference of the cost shown in the books and the value determined by the DVO. The Tribunal deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Punjab and Haryana High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) In the present case, we find that the Tribunal decided the matter rightly in favour of the assessee in as much as the Tribunal came to the conclusion that the assessing authority could not have referred the matter to the DVO without the books of account being rejected.

ii) In the present case, a categorical finding is recorded by the Tribunal that the books were never rejected. In the circumstances, reliance placed on the report of the DVO was misconceived.

iii) Learned counsel for the Revenue was unable to justify that when the books of account in respect of cost of construction have been maintained by the assessee and the same were not rejected, how the matter could be referred to the DVO for assessing the value. Wherever the books of account are maintained with respect to the cost of construction, the matter can be referred to the DVO after the books of account are rejected by the Revenue on some legal or justified basis. In the absence of the same, the reference to the DVO cannot be upheld.

iv) In view of the above, we do not find any substance in the appeal. Dismissed.”

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Refunds, TDS effect etc.: Section 245 of: General problems faced by the taxpayers: Directions by Delhi High Court:

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[Court On Its Own Motion Vs. CIT; (2012) 25 taxman. com 131 (Del):]

By way of suo moto public interest writ petition, the Delhi High Court considered the general problems faced by the taxpayers specially small taxpayers/ individuals regarding issue of refunds, which are denied on the basis of wrong or bogus demand or incorrect record maintenance and the problem faced by them in getting full credit of the tax, which is deducted from their income and paid to the Revenue.

The Revenue/Income tax department, had filed counter-affidavit and acknowledged and accepted that the taxpayers are facing difficulties in receiving credit of Tax Deducted at Source (TDS for short). It is also accepted that taxpayers are facing difficulties in getting refunds on account of adjustment towards arrears.

In the counter-affidavit, steps taken by the revenue to eliminate and rectify the problems and difficulties faced by the taxpayers were mentioned. It is stated that changes in the software and the procedure have been made or are being undertaken so that the problems, glitches and difficulties are eliminated.

The High Court held/directed as under:


“1. Problems faced by taxpayers

1.1 The problems faced by the taxpayers can be broadly classified into two categories. Firstly, failure and difficulties in getting credit of TDS paid. The said amount is deducted from the income earned by the assessee, but even for several reasons not attributable to the taxpayers, they are denied credit. The second category consists of adjustment of past demands or arrears of the tax from the refund payable. The two problems have to be addressed and tackled separately.

1.2 With regard to the second category, it is noticed that the Income Tax Department has initiated process of centralised computerisation of records, centralised computerised filing and processing of returns and issue of refunds, which is to be appreciated and is laudable. The problem is not for the said reason, but because of the wrong and incorrect data uploaded in the centralised computer system. In the counter-affidavit, it is stated that the Assessing Officers were asked to carry out physical verification of the past demands and to create manual arrears D&CR for up to the financial year 2010-11 vide Board’s letter dated 28-4-2010. This was followed by several other letters written by the Board, wherein it was emphasised that the Assessing Officer must verify and correct the arrears recorded in the D&CR. This was necessary as the arrears or demands were to be uploaded in the Central Processing Unit (CPU) at Bengaluru. In the counter affidavit, it is stated that more than 46.23 lakh entries of demand aggregating to Rs. 2.33 lakh crore for the period prior to 1-4-2010, were uploaded on CPU arrear/demand portal pursuant to the information uploaded/furnished by the Assessing Officers.

2. Applicability of section 245

Section 245 envisages prior intimation to the assessee, so that he can respond before any adjustment of refund is made towards a “demand” relating to any other assessment year. Thus, the opportunity of response/reply is given and after considering the stand and plea of the assessee, an order/direction for adjustment when justified and proper is made. The section postulates and mandates a two stage action. Prior intimation, and then a subsequent action when warranted and necessary of adjustment, of the refund towards arrears.

3. Stand taken by revenue in counter-affidavit

3.1 In the counter-affidavit, the revenue had accepted that when a return is processed u/s. 143(1), the CPU itself adjusts the refund due against the existing demand i.e. there is adjustment, but without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 245, which requires prior intimation so that the assessees can respond or give their explanation. It is also stated in the said affidavit that 14.6 lakh communications have been sent by e-mail and 8.33 lakh communications have been sent through speed posts making adjustments of refunds. The total amount adjusted as per the letter dated 21-8-2012 is Rs. 4800 crore.

3.2 At this stage, it is stated that in very few cases prior intimation was sent and the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 was not followed. It is further submitted that in cases where prior intimation was given, the assessees were required to get in touch with the Assessing Officer and file response. But the Assessing Officer did not accept the reply/response on the ground that the assessee should approach CPU, Bengaluru. At the same time, CPU, Bengaluru did not accept the reply/ response on the ground that the assessee should approach the Assessing Officer. It is submitted that the procedure is contrary to statute as an order of adjustment after issue of prior intimation has to be passed by the Assessing Officer. The difference between the first and second stage is being obliterated and the section violated.

4. Directions issued to department

4.1 The department will file an affidavit in this regard explaining the true and correct position. They shall clearly indicate whether prior intimation was sent before adjustment or with the first intimation itself adjustment was made and in how many cases prior intimation was sent or was not sent before making adjustments. They shall also indicate the procedure followed, if an assessee wants to file or has filed a response/reply pursuant to the prior intimation and whether such responses are/were entertained, examined, verified and opinion of the Assessing Officers are/ were taken. It shall be stated whether any adjustment order is subsequently passed by the Assessing Officer.

4.2 Thus, interim directions were issued to the department that they shall in future follow the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 before making any adjustment of refund payable by the CPU at Bengaluru. The assessees must be given an opportunity to file response or reply and the reply will be considered and examined by the Assessing Officer before any direction for adjustment is made. The process of issue of prior intimation and service thereof on the assessee will be as per the law. The assessees will be entitled to file their response before the Assessing Officer mentioned in the prior intimation. The Assessing Officer will thereafter examine the reply and communicate his findings to the CPU, Bengaluru, who will then process the refund and adjust the demand, if any payable. CBDT can fix a time limit for communication of findings by the Assessing Officer. The final adjustment will also be communicated to the assessees.

5. Computerised adjustment of refund without following procedure prescribed u/s. 245

This brings to the problem where adjustments of refund has been made by the CPU, Bengaluru, without following the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 and adjustment has been made for non-existing or fictitious demands. Obviously, the Revenue cannot take a stand that they can make adjustments contrary to the procedure prescribed u/s. 245 based on the wrong data uploaded by the Assessing Officers as question of payment of interest also arises. However, before issuing final directions in this regard, an affidavit as directed above explaining the procedure adopted by them should be brought on record. Opportunity must be given to the Revenue, to adopt a just and fair procedure to rectify and correct their records and issue refunds with interest, without putting a harsh burden and causing inconvenience to the assessee.

6. Problem relating to failure of taxpayers to get credit of TDS
6.1 This brings to the first problem relating to the failure of the taxpayers to get credit of the TDS, which has been deducted from the income pay-able/paid to them. The said problem can be further bifurcated into two categories. The first category relates to cases where the amount is reflected in Form 26AS, but because of incorrect entries in the return or small mismatch with the return data, the taxpayers do not get credit. The second category pertains to the cases where the TDS has been deducted by the deductor, but the taxpayer has been denied and deprived credit for the failure of the deductor to correctly upload the TDS return or details. Thus, the taxpayers do not get credit of the same in spite of payment. Thus, they are forced and compelled to make double tax payment.

6.2 The magnitude of the problem can be under-stood and appreciated, as it is stated that in the financial years 2010-11 and 2011-12, as many as 43% and 39% of the returns processed in Delhi charge were found to be defective. The total demand in Delhi Zone of Rs.3000 crore (approximately) for the financial year 2010-11 was created and the same became arrears payable in the next financial years. After rectification of applications and consequent corrective orders, the figure has come down to Rs.1900 crore, which is still a substantial amount.

6.3 Most of the assessees have a grievance that in spite of writing letters to the deductors to rectify and correct the TDS details, the deductors fail and neglect to do so, as the failure does not entail any adverse consequence or action against them. The deductee being the taxpayer is out of pocket and is harassed, but the deductor does not suffer, when the deductee does not get benefit of the tax paid. The response given by the Revenue is that (i) When returns are processed u/s. 200A by TDS Assessing Officers, the deductors are informed about the errors in such returns. In case of failure to correct such errors by the deductors, no penal provision is provided under the Act. They can only be persuaded to correct such errors. (ii) While processing returns at CPU if any TDS credit claimed by the taxpayer in the return doesn’t match with the details uploaded by the deductor list of such mismatches is sent to the tax deductors total of 20119 such communications had been issued by CPU up to April 2011. A deductorwise consolidated list of such mismatches are sent from CPU to the CIT (TDS) having jurisdiction over the deductor for necessary follow-up with the deductors.

6.4 The response is unconvincing and unsatisfactory. It expresses complete helplessness on the part of the Revenue to take steps and seeks to absolve them from any responsibility.

7.    Applicability of section 272BB

Attention is drawn towards section 272BB, wherein penalty of Rs. 10,000 has been prescribed for failures on the part of the deductor. The Board will examine the said provision and whether the same can be invoked in cases where complaints are received from the taxpayers that in spite of requests, the deductors fail to rectify the defects or upload the correct TDS details. Denying benefit of TDS to a taxpayer because of fault of the deductor, which is not attributable to the deductee, is a serious matter and causes unwar-ranted harassment and inconvenience. Revenue cannot be a silent spectator and wash their hands or express helplessness. This problem is normally faced by the small taxpayers including senior citizens as they do not have Chartered Accountants and Advocates on their pay roles. The marginal amount involved compared to the efforts, costs and frustration, makes it an unviable and a futile exercise to first approach the deductor and then the Assessing Officer. Rectification and getting the corrections done and to get them uploaded is not easy. Most of the assessees will and do write letters, but without response and desired results. This aspect must be examined by the Board and appropriate steps to ameliorate and help the small taxpayers including senior citizens, should be taken and implemented.


8.    Conclusion

There can be small and insignificant mismatches, which if purely technical should be condoned or ignored. After, all tax has been paid or credited in the name of the assessee. Once the amount is correctly and rightly reflected in Form AS26, small or technical mismatch in the return should not be a ground to deny credit of the amount paid. In such cases, if the Assessing Officer feels that benefit of TDS reflected in AS26 should not be given, he should issue notice to the assessee to revise or correct the mistake and only if the necessary rectification or correction is not made, an order u/s. 143(1) should be passed and the demand should be raised. We issue an interim direction to this effect.”

Penalty: Search and seizure: Section 158BFA(2): Addition on estimate basis: Penalty u/s. 158BFA(2) not justified:

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[CIT Vs. Dr. Giriraj Agarwal Giri; 253 CTR 109 (Raj):]

In the assessment pursuant to search, an addition of Rs. 4,82,028 was made on estimate. The Assessing Officer also imposed a penalty of Rs. 2,89,217/- u/s. 258BFA(2) . CIT(A) deleted the penalty and the same was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Rajasthan High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) So far as the case law referred by the learned counsel for the appellant is concerned, it is sufficient to mention that Hon’ble Apex Court in UOI Vs. Dharmendra Textile Processors; 219 CTR 617 (SC), was dealing with the provisions of Central Excise Act, 1944 and learned counsel for appellant is unable to point out that the provisions of section 11AC of Central Excise Act, 1944 and section 158BFA(2) of IT Act are pari materia.

ii) That apart, it is also relevant to mention that imposition of penalty depends on facts and circumstances of each case. In the present case, the AO imposed the penalty on so-called three items of so-called concealed income. Each item was examined, thoroughly and in detail, by CIT(A) as well as Tribunal and by a reasoned order, both came to the conclusion that additions are based on estimation only.

iii) A fact or allegation based on estimation, cannot be said to be correct only, it can be incorrect also. Therefore, in the facts and circumstances of the case, penalty was wrongly imposed by the AO.”

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Deduction u/s. 10A: A. Y. 2006-07: Deduction to be given at the stage of computing the profits and gains of business: Brought forward unabsorbed depreciation and losses of non-10A units cannot be set off against current profit of 10A unit:

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[CIT Vs. Black and Veatch Consulting Pvt. Ltd.; 348 ITR 72 (Bom):]

Dealing with the provisions of section 10A, the Tribunal held that the deduction u/s. 10A in respect of the allowable unit u/s. 10A has to be allowed, before setting off brought forward losses of a nonsection 10A unit.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) Section 10A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, is a provision which is in the nature of a deduction and not an exemption. The deduction u/s. 10A has to be given effect to, at the stage of computing the profits and gains of business. This is anterior to the application of section 72, which deals with the carry forward and set off of business losses.

ii) A distinction has been made by the Legislature while incorporating the provisions of Chapter VI-A. Section 80A(1) stipulates that in computing the total income of an assessee, there shall be allowed from his gross total income, in accordance with and subject to the provisions of the Chapter, the deductions specified in sections 80C to 80U. Section 80B(5) defines for the purposes of Chapter VIA “gross total income” to mean the total income computed in accordance with the provisions of the Act, before making any deduction under the Chapter. Therefore, the deduction u/s. 10A has to be given at the stage, when the profits and gains of business are computed in the first instance.

iii) The Tribunal was right in holding that the deduction u/s. 10A in respect of the allowable unit u/s. 10A has to be allowed before setting off brought forward losses of a non-section 10A unit.”

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Our feudal democracy

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Five hundred years ago, in feudal England, the nobles had private armies and their own livery. The king depended on the nobles for money and for horsemen to fight wars. Henry VII changed all that when he came to power in 1485, ending the 30-year Wars of the Roses (essentially, an endless feud between rival groups of feudal lords). He abolished the private armies, reduced his dependence on the nobles by drawing support from the rising middle classes and the trading community, and established a modern nation-state. Some version of that needs to be done in contemporary India.

The parallels become obvious when we see that our “nobles” today are the state satraps — They each have their horsemen and livery (parliamentarians with party tags), and their power in the Delhi court depends on how many “horsemen” they can bring to our contemporary version of the Wars of the Roses.

So long as the king is dependent on these nobles, each of whom has quasi-autonomous power in their duchies and earldoms, no central power can assert itself. The private armies in pre-Tudor England essentially pillaged and plundered; likewise, some of our nobles today honour horsemen (knights?) who have a record of murder and rape, they indulge in mass transfers of officials to make them toe the line, arbitrarily arrest cartoonists and those who ask questions… (you know the rest of the list). The king in Delhi does nothing because he gets unseated if the nobles withdraw support. It doesn’t help that the “king’s party” has no local presence to mount a challenge to the nobles in their duchies. So how does the nation-state function if every national issue is hostage to the nobles, and dependent on their consent — including which head of state can visit the country?

(Source: The Business Standard dated 22-09-2012)
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Heed the Kelkar report – Govt should move immediately on fiscal consolidation

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The report of the Vijay Kelkar Committee on fiscal consolidation argues that the Indian economy is “poised on the edge of a fiscal precipice”. The fiscal deficit is poised to miss its budgeted target by a large margin for the second year in a row — it could be 6.1% of gross domestic product, a full percentage point higher than the Budget estimate. India is going through a demographic bulge, with millions entering the workforce yearly; fiscal space is needed to stimulate growth, or India’s demographic dividend will become a curse. The cost of doing nothing, the report argues, would approximate the crisis of 1991. The panel makes suggestions to take the fiscal deficit down to 5.2% of GDP in 2012-13. However, some of these suggestions, including on tax policy, will require legislative action — difficult for the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) to pull off currently. The emphasis should, therefore, be on speedily implementing administrative reforms, instead of merely focusing on legislative changes such as the constitutional amendment for the goods and services tax. As the chairman of the committee told, credible action, not a big-bang step, is needed to achieve fiscal consolidation.

(Source: The Business Standard dated 01-10-2012).
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Big, bad data: India’s official statistics seem to have little or no link with reality

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Making official statistics accurate and current must be a prime concern. Official figures seem to have little or no link with reality. Industrial output, as gauged by the index of industrial production (IIP), reveal great volatility and mismatch with logical correlates such as power generation and cargo movement, in the aggregate and in particular sectors such as capital goods. Also, often, IIP data is at variance with published financial results of companies.

Now the base year of the index was changed to 2004-05 last year, and there is a big increase in the number of items tracked, to 399. But there is reason to believe that the raw data piling up in the 16 source agencies and departments for the IIP are not being processed either in a timely manner or, worse, entirely.

Reports suggest large vacancies in statistics cells across government departments. It is entirely possible that skilled data specialists are moving to greener pastures in the private sector. In the digital age, making sense of data is big business, of course.

Official statistics are either dated or erroneous today. Policymakers are often unable to fathom IIP trends. The Collection of Statistics Act, 2008, was notified last year, and the earlier 1953 law repealed. Chapter IV of the Act concerns offences and penalties, for refusing to supply particulars, false statements and ‘mutilation and defacement’ of information, and so on.

But there is nothing in the law that penalises nonprocessing and skewed interpretation of raw data in the various departments and ministries. The Statistics Act’s neglect of data processing by government agencies, seems to have compromised reliability and dependability of the official numbers. Speedy correction is essential. The entire policy process would be suspect without reliable official figures.

(Source: The Economic Times dated 06-10-2012)
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