From Notes to Accounts:
Consequent to the decision to exit Plastic Storage Tanks business, the difference between estimated resale value of assets of this division an value reflected in the books has been accounted towards impairment loss in terms of AS-28.
Month: May
MARICO Ltd. (31-3-2010) (Consolidated Financial Statements)
(13) (a) The exceptional items stated in the Profit and Loss account are as under:
(b) During the year, upon completion of necessary compliances under FEMA regulations, the Company divested its stake in Sundari LLC (Sundari) on 8th June, 2009. Sundari ceased to be subsidiary of the Company from the said date. Accordingly, the financial statements of Sundari have been consolidated with that of Marico Limited for the period from 1st April, 2009 to 8th June, 2009. The net effect of the divestment of Rs.4.05 crores is charged to the Profit and Loss account and reflected as ‘Exceptional item’ (detailed hereunder):
(c) Kaya Ltd., a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Company, had launched the Kaya Life prototype to offer customers holistic weight management solutions and had opened five ‘Kaya Life’ centres in Mumbai and Kaya Middle East FZE, a step-down subsidiary of the Company had also opened one centre in the Middle East during the past three years. While clients had been experiencing effective results on both weight loss and inch loss, the prototype had less than expected progress in building a sustainable business model. Hence, the Management took a strategic decision of closing down the centres in March, 2010. Consequently, the Group has made an aggregate provision of Rs.5.74 crore towards impairment of assets of Rs.2.91 crore and other related estimated liabilities of Rs.2.83 crore towards employees’ termination, lease termination costs, customer refunds and stock written down relating to these centres for the year ended 31st March, 2010. (Refer note 23 below)
Ambuja Cements Ltd. (31-12-2010)
During the current year, the Company has estimated provision for slow and non-moving spares based on age of the inventory. Accordingly, the Company has recognised a provision of Rs.61.03 crores as at 31st December, 2010. The provision based on such parameters applied to spares inventory at the beginning of the year amounting to Rs.46.10 crores has been disclosed as an exceptional item in the profit and loss account.
Registration — Family settlement — Document reciting past events need not be registered — Registration Act, section 17(1) (b), 49.
The petitioner-plaintiff was not allowed to exhibit two documents in a suit, namely, family settlement and a map annexed thereto on the ground that the same were not registered and duly stamped. The petitioner contented that it was not required for a settlement to be registered with the Office of the Registrar as these documents were simply a recitation of past events.
The Court relying on the decision of Roshan Singh v. Zile Singh, AIR 1988 SC 881, held that while an instrument of partition which operates or is intended to operate as a declared volition constituting or severing ownership and causes a change of legal relation to the property divided amongst the parties to it, requires registration u/s. 17(1)(b) of the Act, a writing which merely recites that there has in time past been a partition, is not a declaration of will, but a mere statement of fact, and it does not require registration. The essence of the matter is whether the deed is a part of the partition transaction or contains merely in incidental recital of a previously completed transaction. The use of the past tense does not necessarily indicate that it is merely a recital of a past transaction. It is equally well settled that a mere list of properties allotted at a partition is not an instrument of partition and does not require registration. Section 17(1)(b) lays down that a document for which registration is compulsory should by its own force, operate or purport to operate to create or declare some right in immovable property. Therefore, a mere recital of what has already taken place cannot be held to declare any right and there would be no necessity of registering such a document.
Two propositions therefore flow : Firstly, a partition may be effected orally; but if it is subsequently reduced into a form of a document and that document purports by itself to effect a division and embodies all the terms of bargain, it will be necessary to register it. If it be not registered, section 49 of the Act will prevent its being admitted in evidence. Secondly, evidence of the factum of partition will not be admissible by reason of section 91 of the Evidence Act, 1872. Partition lists which are mere records of a previously completed partition between the parties, will be admitted in evidence even though they are unregistered to prove the fact of partition.
In view of the aforesaid, the Court allowed the writ petition.
Muslim Law — Properties purchased by female exclusively belongs to her and can be divided only between her children — No concept of jointness of nucleus.
The appellant and respondents (1-6) are brothers and sisters and are governed by Hanife School of Muslim Law. The other respondents are sons and daughters of second wife and other relatives. The suit was filed by one of the sisters against the brother and other sisters to get partition with respect to certain properties.
The properties in dispute were recorded in the name of mother Bibi Jainab (first wife). The father of the appellants and defendants had executed one of the properties to his wife in lieu of dawar debt. The Trial Court held that the plaintiff was entitled to get partition. The appeal was filed contending that the Trial Court has wrongly decided the issue considering the principles of Hindu law, where a property is not the absolute property of a female, if the source, from which the property has been purchased, is proved to be of the joint family or by the husband, then it will not be considered to the property of the female. But in the Muslim law, all the properties in the name of muslim lady belong to her, irrespective of source of money, from which it was purchased. The plaintiff is the full-blood sister of the defendants, thus, the plaintiff and the defendants are the legal heirs and successors of their deceased father, Md. Yakub and deceased mother, Jainab Khatoon. The partition suit was filed for preparing of separate ‘takhta’ for the plaintiff after granting a decree of 1/12th share in the properties of her father, Md. Yakub and her mother, Jainab.
The defendant alleged that no property is joint as claimed by the plaintiff. They also claimed that after the death of their parents, the parties have amicably settled their properties and the defendant and the plaintiff was allotted specific share.
The Court referred to certain salient features of Muslim law of succession which distinguish it from modern Hindu law of inheritance, the Muslim law of succession is basically different from the parallel indigenous systems of India. The doctrine of janmswatvavada (right by birth), which constitutes the foundation of the Mitakshara law of succession, is wholly unknown to Muslim law. The law of inheritance in Islam is relatively close to the classical Dayabhaga law, though it differs also from that on several fundamental points. The modern Hindu law of succession as laid down in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is, however, much different from both the aforesaid classical systems; it has a remarkable proximity, in certain respects, to the Muslim law of inheritance.
Whatever property one inherits (whether from his ancestors or from others) is, at Muslim law, one’s absolute property — whether that person is a man or a woman. In Muslim law, so long as a person is alive, he or she is the absolute owner of his or her property; nobody else (including a son) has any right, whatsoever, in it. It is only when the owner dies and never before that the legal rights of the heirs accrue. There is, therefore, no question of a would-be heir dealing in any way with his future right to inherit.
The Indian legal concepts of ‘joint’ or ‘undivided’ family, ‘coparcenary’, karta, ‘survivorship’, and ‘partition’, etc., have no place in the law of Islam. A father and his son living together do not constitute a ‘joint family’; the father is the master of his property. The same is the position of brothers or others living together.
Unlike the classical Indian law, female sex is no bar to inherit property. No woman is excluded from inheritance only on the basis of sex. Women have, like men, right to inherit property independently, not merely to receive maintenance or hold property ‘in lieu of maintenance’. Moreover, every woman who inherits some property is, like a man, its absolute owner; there is no concept of either streedhan or a woman’s ‘limited estate’ reverting to others upon her death. The same scheme of succession applies whether the deceased was male or a female.
Since all properties in the name of a female belongs to her exclusively and there is no concept of jointness of nucleus or any concept that the property is purchased from joint nucleus of the head of the joint family, hence, all the properties which are exclusively purchased by sale deed by Bibi Jainab in her name can be divided only between her children. Thus, the plaintiff would be granted 1/10th share in the property belonging to Bibi Jainab. A property which was belonging to the father will be divided amongst all the 17 parties in the ratio of 1/17th each and a separate takhta would be carved out.
Anyone willing to bat for the poor?
The second candidate for government largesse is the International Cricket Council (ICC), presided over by Sharad Pawar. The government has just given the ICC’s World Cup tax-free status. The reports say this means a tax saving for ICC of Rs.45 crore, though the figures of revenue (Rs.1,476 crore) and expenditure (Rs.571 crore) suggest a much larger giveaway. It is easy to see why the government has played ball; Mr. Pawar is the leader of a coalition partner, and agriculture minister. Oddly, the sports minister argued against the freebie. So did a note put up by the finance ministry, though the finance minister seems to have batted for the ICC. As happens all too often, the Prime Minister has chosen the path of least resistance.
Now the history of the ICC is that, once cricket became a big-money game some years ago, this London- based body decided that it needed tax shelters. It created a subsidiary for its business operations and housed it in Monaco. But running between London and Monaco was inconvenient, so the ICC told the British treasury that it would re-locate entirely to London if the government offered tax-free status. When the response was a polite ‘No’, the ICC moved to Dubai. Penny-pinching London could learn a thing or two from the generosity that New Delhi shows to the really deserving.
But the most deserving of all is Vijay Mallya, owner of yachts, private jets, vintage cars, a cricket team, an island in the Mediterranean, and homes on every continent, and also two-thirds owner of Kingfisher Airlines. Kingfisher has been so run that it has been losing money, and borrowing up to its gills. The lenders (13 banks led by the government-owned State Bank of India) have now agreed to convert some of the loans into equity — at a share price of Rs.64.48, when the going market rate was Rs.40. That means a loss straightaway of nearly 40% of the loan value — and there are further loans outstanding. Could the lenders have flexed their muscles, since the airline is in no shape to repay loans? Yes. Could they have threatened to buy out the promoters’ 66% shareholding at the going value of Rs.740 crore, and put in new management? Almost certainly, yes. So if Mr. Mallya still has majority control of the airline, it tells you the scale of the government banks’ largesse.
Purge civil aviation of corruption
Opening up the aviation sector made air travel an affordable reality for the Indian middle class. However, oversight of this sector is poor. Each day the safety of thousands of passengers hangs in the balance. If sons and daughters of DGCA officials are able to obtain licences despite dubious flying records, it opens the door to large-scale fraud. Apart from an internal purge of the DGCA itself, it is imperative to undertake a thorough audit of the 40 flying schools in the country. A public DGCA database for result cards of candidates is a good idea. That corruption hasn’t even spared a sensitive industry like aviation, jeopardising the lives of thousands, is a grave concern. Now that the rot lies exposed, civil aviation minister Vayalar Ravi must undertake thorough and rapid action to cleanse the system and bring back credibility to civil aviation.
Tragic state of our Universities — University of Pune’s Institutes run sans approved teachers
A Supreme Court order had asked colleges to have full-time approved principals and teachers in place or face punitive action like a ban on admissions to first year of courses in the 2011- 12 session. Seventy-seven of the 125 colleges have secured court relief against possible action. The university will stop admissions in the 48 other colleges.
At the meeting, senate members raised questions on how exams for students from these colleges were conducted, who assessed their papers and what action the varsity was taking to ban first-year admissions in the 48 colleges.
They also demanded a panel to probe how the local inquiry committees recommended continuation of affiliation for the 125 colleges. Director of UoP’s board of college and university development W. N. Gade and controller of exams S. M. Ahire could not placate the senate, which wanted to know if answer papers were assessed at the colleges lacking approved staff.
Ironically, the university was recently accorded the highest ‘A’ grade by the National Assessment and Accreditation Council. The university’s approval of teaching staff makes students of affiliated colleges eligible for exams. Without approved teachers/principals, a college cannot be an exam centre. Students then take their exams in the nearest college with approved staff. If the college is unable to accommodate more students, it assigns two approved teachers to the college to be ‘custodians’ of the varsity’s exam material, including answer papers.
The norms are ambiguous on who should assess answer papers of colleges lacking approved teachers.
Shunglu Committee Report reveals scale of waste — Don’t bury it
Welfare law delusion — After passing legislation the Court has to prod the executive at every step for years to enforce them
The construction industry is said to be the second largest one after agriculture. It is labour-intensive, employing 20 million and it is estimated that every Rs.1 crore invested on construction project generates employment of 22,000 unskilled man-days and 23,000 skilled or semi-skilled man-days. Recognising its importance, Parliament passed the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 and the Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996.
The government stated in the preamble that construction works are characterised by their inherent risk to the life and limb of workers. The work is also characterised by its casual nature, temporary relationship between employer and employee, uncertain working hours, lack of basic amenities and inadequacy of welfare facilities. Although the provisions of various labour laws like the Minimum Wages Act, Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act and Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment & Conditions of Services) Act are applicable to building workers, there was no comprehensive central legislation for this category of workers. The two enactments were aimed to improve matters.
After nearly 15 years, the central and state governments have done little to implement these laws. Ten years after the laws came into force, a public interest petition was moved in the Supreme Court pointing out the non-implementation of the provisions of the Acts (National Campaign for Central Legislation on Construction Labour v. Union of India). The Court passed several orders over the years asking state governments to implement the main provisions of the law. There was little response. Last week, the Court took a tough stand and summoned five top labour officers in the country to be present in the Chief Justice’s Court and explain the lapse.
The dubious honour goes to the Union Labour Secretary, the Director General of Inspection, Government of India, and Labour Secretaries of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Lakshdweep.
The Court stated that many among the 36 states and Union territories have not taken even the initial steps. They have not appointed ‘Registration Officers’ before whom the employers of workers have to register their establishments. They have also ignored their obligation to constitute state welfare boards.
Anna Hazare’s movement combines new and old ideals
While the movement’s leader, Anna Hazare, is a Gandhian, adopting the Mahatma’s method of fasting, many joining him are not satyagrahis shaped by austerity. Several are middle-class Indians, moulded by professionalism, progress and consumption. Many are youth in university or jobs, shaken by what they see, stirred into joining an elderly leader who refers to another leader’s practices, which for many have passed into the realm of cliche. The agitation is strong enough, however, to override these divisions. Corruption, exemplified by a terrible year of scams, is the oil fuelling such coalescing.
However, there’s more. The Indian middle class is not only demanding accountability but dignity in citizenship. This notion has been catalysed by recent cases like Rizwanur Rehman’s and Ruchika Girhotra’s, where regular middle-class lives were crushed by a brutal nexus of political and financial clout. The booing away from Jantar Mantar of Om Prakash Chautala, one of the political shields around Ruchika’s tormentor, police officer S. P. S. Rathore, reflected public anger with precisely this sort of nexus. This reflects growth in ideas about citizenship. Previously, notions of citizenship were limited to a small, well-educated elite. Today, this circle has perforce widened. Media and travel have changed the way people think. Indians are increasingly aware of countries where bribery isn’t normal, where murders get punished even when committed by the powerful. It’s become apparent that globalisation is not just about mobile phones and malls, but lawful, equal societies, an ideal many are now demanding.
The media is their ally. Starting with the Jessica Lal case in 1999, the media began acting as mirror and motor to civil society agitation, transmitting information about unpunished crimes, locations to gather at and modes of protest, like candlelight vigils, email and text campaigns. The Internet also sees massive following for Hazare’s movement. All this gives lie to the notion of middle-class Indians being ‘apathetic’ to politics. Where once frustration existed without cohesiveness, today there are effective means to channel feelings, forums to gather at, ways to debate and discuss. Several ‘ideas of India’ are emerging. Many Indians feel a deeper connection to their country. In that sense, Anna has won the war even as the battle persists.
Lost in Mumbai? Google Transit to the rescue
Users need to visit www.google.com/transit and key in the start and endpoints of their proposed journey. Google then uses algorithms to churn out the best possible routes. The application, which is available in desktop and mobile versions, utilises a database of BEST bus routes as well as the railway routes and schedules on the Western, Central and Harbour lines.
However, this is not the first application that encourages people to use public transport. The BEST runs its own application on www.bestundertaking.com.
Lokpal Bill — Probity: Different yardsticks
1. The Lokpal will have jurisdiction only over the Prime Minister, ministers and MPs
2. The Lokpal will not have suo motu power to initiate inquiry or even receive complaints of corruption directly from the public. The complaints will be forwarded to it by the presiding officer of either House of Parliament
3. It is purely an advisory body and can therefore only give recommendations of the Prime Minister on complaints against ministers and to the presiding officer of either House on complaints against the Prime Minister and MPs
4. Since it has no police powers, the Lokpal cannot register an FIR on any complaint. It can only conduct a preliminary enquiry
5. Anybody found to have lodged a false complaint will be punished summarily by the Lokpal with imprisonment ranging from one year to three years
6. The Lokpal will consist of three members, all of them will be retired judges
7. The committee to select Lokpal members will consist entirely of political dignitaries and its composition is loaded in favour of the ruling party
8. If a complaint against the Prime Minister relates to subjects like security, defence and foreign affairs, the Lokpal is barred from probing those allegations
9. Though a time limit of six months to one year has been prescribed for the Lokpal to conduct its probe, there is no limit for completion of trial, if any
10. Nothing has been provided in law to recover ill-gotten wealth. After serving his sentence, a corrupt person can come out of jail and use that money.
Jan Lokpal Bill (Civil society version):
1. The Lokpal will have jurisdiction over politicians, bureaucrats and judges. The CVC and the entire vigilance machinery of the Centre will be merged into the Lokpal
2. The Lokpal cannot only initiate action on its own, but it can also entertain complaints directly from the public. It will not need reference or permission from any authority
3. After completing its investigation against public servants, the Lokpal can initiate prosecution, order disciplinary proceedings or both
4. With the corruption branch of the CBI merged into it, the Lokpal will be able to register FIRs, conduct investigations under the Criminal Procedure Code and launch prosecution
5. The Lokayukta can only impose financial penalties for complaints found to be false
6. The Lokpal will consist of 10 members and one chairperson, out of which only four are required to have legal background without necessarily having any judicial experience
7. The selection committee will be broad-based as it includes members from judicial background, Chief Election Commissioner, Comptroller and Auditor General, retired Army Generals and outgoing members of the Lokpal
8. There is no such bar on the Lokpal’s powers
9. The Lokpal will have to complete its investigation within one year and the subsequent trail will have to over in another year
10. Loss caused to government due to corruption will be recovered from all those proved guilty. (Source: The Times of India, dated 8-4-2011)
Sport and nation — Given the market for cricket, why tax breaks and cash awards?
The players, their coaches and selectors have all been adequately rewarded not just in kind, but also in cash. In any case, India’s cricket players are the richest among the country’s sportspersons, given the money in the sport, the sponsorships and the advertisement budgets. The glistening diamonds worn by the wives of Indian cricketers, and their fancy cars, tell a tale of adequate recompense. So why did the taxpayer have to shell out more cash, in the form of cash awards from state governments and a tax break from the central government? There are games sportspersons play to win and there are games they play to make money. The Indian Premier League is a money-making enterprise. But a World Cup match is about winning for the country. It is the kind of achievement that finds recompense in the form of a Padma Shri or a Padma Bhushan award.
But tax breaks and cash awards from the government are an unnecessary indulgence. Gujarat’s Chief Minister Narendra Modi has resisted the cash award idea; instead, he has so far restricted himself to giving the Eklavya award. Some of India’s world-class sportspersons deserve financial support given the lack of adequate investment and the absence of a mass market in their respective sports. Cricket is certainly not one of them. The market is doing a good job, and the government, too, has done a good, indeed an excellent, job in ensuring security and safety of the players and the huge audience. Having done the job it must, and that too well, the government need not have tried to ingratiate itself with the players with more cash!
Legal representative — Not legally wedded wife — Right to apply for compensation — Civil Procedure Code, section 2(11).
Seema Bai (since deceased), was dashed by the driver of Marshal Jeep by driving the said vehicle rashly and negligently, due to which she succumbed to the injuries sustained in the said accident.
The Tribunal on a close scrutiny of the evidence led, material placed and submissions made, held that deceased Seema Bai was not legally wedded wife of the appellant; the appellant not being legal representative of the deceased; nor was the appellant dependent upon her, is not entitled to file claim petition u/s. 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, and dismissed the claim petition. The appeal was filed by the appellant claiming compensation for the death of deceased Seema Bai.
The Court observed that the fact that deceased Seema Bai was not legally married wife of the appellant is not in dispute. Admittedly, one Kaushalya Bai is the legally wedded wife residing with the appellant. It was also not in dispute that the appellant was not dependant upon the deceased.
As per section 5(i) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage may be solemnised between any two Hindus if neither party has a spouse living at the time of marriage.
U/s. 166 of the MV Act, an application for compensation arising out of an accident of the nature specified in Ss.(i) of section 165 may be made where death has resulted from the accident, by all or any of the legal representative of the deceased.
According to section 2(11) of the Code of Civil Procedure, ‘legal representative’ means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued. Almost in similar terms is the definition of legal representative under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, i.e., u/s. 2(1)(g). The term legal representative has not been defined in the Motor Vehicles Act.
The word ‘legal representative’ occurring in section 166 of the MV Act, has the same meaning as defined u/s. 2(11) of the Code of Civil Procedure. Now if the same definition of legal representative is applied to the facts and circumstances of the present case, it was crystal clear that the appellant, admittedly was not dependent upon the deceased, is neither a person who in law represents the estate of deceased Seema Bai, nor is a successor in interest of the deceased. Therefore, if the definition of legal representative as provided u/s. 2(11) of the Code of Civil Procedure is taken in its widest amplitude even then the appellant cannot be termed as a legal representative of the deceased entitled to file claim petition before the Tribunal under the MV Act and thus, the order of the Tribunal was upheld.
Evidence — Tape-recorded conversation — Admissible in evidence.
Parties are wife and husband. The petition for divorce between the parties and other ancillary reliefs was pending trial. The wife, who is the petitioner, is under cross-examination. The husband relies upon certain handwritten diaries of the wife as well as a compact disk (CD) on which conversation between the wife and the husband has been recorded by the husband on certain dates. The husband has produced the transcript of the said conversation. The wife admits the handwriting in her diaries. The parties are at dispute with regard to the taped conversation on the CD. It is contended on behalf of the wife that the taped conversation cannot be relied upon as a document. It is also contended by the wife that the affidavit of documents was not filed and the instrument on which the initial conversation was recorded is not produced. The wife has neither admitted nor denied the conversation. The husband seeks to use it in her cross-examination.
The Court referred to the elementary principle of recording evidence which must be first considered. Evidence consists of examination-in-chief and cross-examination. A party is required to offer for inspection and produce the documents relied upon by him in support of his case. This is required in his examination-in-chief. This contains the oral and documentary evidence.
The Court further observed that the accuracy of the tape-recorded conversation is of utmost importance since the document, which is a CD having tape-recorded conversation, is liable to erasure or mutilation. Thus it would be for the defendant to show that it was the original recording. This could be done by producing the initial record or the original electronic record. This original electronic record, which is primary evidence, is the instrument on which the original conversation is recorded. The defendant has not produced that evidence. The defendant has not shown the mechanical/ electronic process by which the CD was obtained. The defendant has relied upon the CD per se. That, being a copy, is secondary evidence. At the stage at which the CD is sought to be produced (that is in the cross-examination of the plaintiff), the defendant is permitted not to produce the original electronic record. The copy of such record, being the CD, can itself be used for confrontation in the cross-examination. Much will depend upon the answers in the cross-examination by the plaintiff. If however, the defendant desires to set up a specific case, for which the evidence is contained in the CD, he would be required to satisfy the test of accuracy by producing the original electronic record.
It must be mentioned that evidence is to be considered from three aspects; admissibility of evidence, recording of evidence and appreciation of evidence. It is settled law that tape-recorded conversation is admissible in evidence. What must be of importance is how the tape-recorded conversation is to be recorded as evidence and appreciated thereafter. Recording can be in the cross-examination of the other side and/or in the evidence of the recorder himself. The appreciation of evidence would require consideration of the aforesaid three requirements; identification, relevancy and accuracy. It is left to the defendant to pass those tests. If the tests are not passed, the tape-recorded conversation would be of no use in effect ultimately.
The requirement of sealing the recorded conversation would not be applicable in this case. That requirement is of essence in a criminal case where during investigation the conversation of a party is recorded by the investigating officer. He would certainly be required to seal the tape-recorded conversation and keep it in a safe custody so as to play before the Court at the time of the trial. It has nevertheless to be shown to be accurate and untampered with.
Adoption — Validity — Will proved by examination of attesting witness and scribe of Will — Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, section 6 and section 16, Succession Act section 63.
It was the case of the plaintiffs that plaintiff No. 2 who was the daughter of late Arumugha Mudaliar and plaintiff No. 1 was the son of plaintiff No. 2, i.e., grandson of late Arumugha Mudaliar. Arumugha Mudaliar had three children, namely, Mangalam, Saraswathi and Jayasubramanian. Jayasubramanian, the only son had expired in 1982. As the son of late Arumugha Mudaliar had expired, he had adopted Santhilkumar, his grand-son, the son of his daughter Saraswathi and plaintiff No. 1, by executing an adoption deed after doing necessary rituals required to be performed under Hindu Law. Late Arumugha Mudaliar had thereafter executed a registered Will whereby the properties referred along with other properties had been bequeathed and properties referred to in the schedule attached to the plaint had been disposed of in favour of his daughter Saraswathi and his grandson Santhilkumar, i.e., the plaintiffs.
As the defendants i.e., the present appellant and respondent Nos. 3 and 4 were interfering with or were likely to interfere with the possession of the properties referred to, a suit was filed by Saraswathi and her son Santhilkumar who was minor at the relevant time. The said suit was dismissed for the reason that the Trial Court did not believe that Santhilkumar was properly adopted by late Arumugha Mudaliar and the properties which had been bequeathed in the will were ancestral properties and, therefore, late Arumugha Mudaliar did not have absolute right to dispose of the same.
On appeal the Court observed that so far as the adoption of Santhilkumar was concerned, the said adoption had been duly established before the Trial Court. Late Arumugha Mudaliar had followed the rituals required as per the provision of Hindu Law while adopting Santhilkumar as his son. There was sufficient evidence before the Trial Court to establish that Santhilkumar had been validly adopted by late Arumugha Mudaliar. Shri Kandasamy , a witness, had been examined in detail, who had placed on record photographs taken at the time of the ceremony. The said witness had given details about the rituals performed and the persons who were present at the time of the adoption ceremony and the deed of adoption had also been registered. The aforestated facts leave no doubt in mind that the adoption was valid. Even the photographs and negatives of the photographs which had been taken at the time of adoption are forming part of the record. In such a set of circumstances, there was no reason to disbelieve the adoption. Therefore, it was held that Santhilkumar was the legally adopted son of late Arumugha Mudaliar.
So far as execution of the Will was concerned, the said Will had been duly registered. For the purpose of proving the Will, one of the attesting witnesses of the Will, namely, Umar Datta had been examined. In his deposition, he had stated that he was present when the said Will was being written by Kalyanasundaram. The scribe of the Will had also been examined. Thus the Will was proved. The decree of the Trial Court was set aside.
GAPS in GAAP — AS-16 Borrowing costs
(a) interest and commitment charges on bank borrowings and other short-term and long-term borrowings;
(b) amortisation of discounts or premiums relating to borrowings;
(c) amortisation of ancillary costs incurred in connection with the arrangement of borrowings;
(d) finance charges in respect of assets acquired under finance leases or under other similar arrangements; and because the definition of borrowing costs is an inclusive one, numerous interpretative issues arise. For example, would borrowing costs include hedging costs ? Let me explain my point with the help of a simple example using a commonly encountered floating to fixed interest rate swap (IRS).
Example:
Floating to fixed IRS
Company X is constructing a factory and expects it to take 18 months to complete. To finance the construction, on 1st January 2011 the entity takes an eighteen-month, Rs.10,000,000 variable-rated term loan due on 30th June 2012. Interest payment dates and interest rate reset dates occur on 1st January and 1st July until maturity. The principal is due at maturity. Also on 1st January 2011, the entity enters into an eighteen-month IRS with a notional amount of Rs.10,000,000 from which it will receive periodic payments at the floating rate and make periodic payments at a fixed rate of 10% per annum, with settlement and rate reset dates every 30th June and 31st December. The fair value of the swap is zero at inception. During the eighteen-month period, floating interest rates are as follows:
Under the IRS, Company X receives interest at the market floating rate as above and pays at 10% on the nominal amount of Rs.10,000,000 throughout the period.
At 31st December 2011 the swap has a fair value of Rs.40,000, reflecting the fact that it is now in the money as Company X is expected to receive a net cash inflow of this amount in the period until the instrument is terminated. There are no further changes in interest rates prior to the maturity of the swap. The fair value of the swap declines to zero at 30th June 2012. In this example for sake of simplicity we assume hedge is 100% effective, issue costs are nil and exclude the effect of discounting.
The cash flows incurred by the entity on its borrowing and IRS are as follows:
There are a number of different ways in which Company X could theoretically calculate the borrowing costs eligible for capitalisation, including the following:
(i) The IRS meets the conditions for, and Company X applies, hedge accounting. The finance costs eligible for capitalisation as borrowing costs will be Rs.1,000,000 in the year to 31st December 2011 and Rs.500,000 in the period ended 30th June 2012.
(ii) Company X applies hedge accounting, but chooses to ignore it for the purposes of treating them as borrowing costs. Thus it capitalises Rs.925,000 in the year to 31st December 2011 and Rs.540,000 in the period ended 30th June 2012.
(iii) Company X does not apply hedge accounting. Therefore, it will reflect the fair value of the swap in income in the year ended 31st December 2011, reducing the net finance costs by Rs.40,000 to Rs.960,000 and increasing the finance costs by an equivalent amount in 2012 to Rs.540,000.
(iv) Company X does not apply hedge accounting. However, it considers that it is inappropriate to reflect the fair value of the swap in borrowing costs eligible for capitalisation, so it capitalises costs based on the net cash cost on an accruals accounting basis. In this case this will give the same result as in (i) above.
(v) Company X does not apply hedge accounting and considers only the costs incurred on the borrowing, not the IRS, as eligible for capitalisation. The borrowing costs eligible for capitalisation would be Rs.925,000 in 2011 and Rs.540,000 in 2012.
All the above views have their own arguments for and against, although the preparer will need to consider what method is more appropriate in the circumstances. For example, the following points may be considered by the preparer:
1. The decision to hedge interest cost results in the fixation of interest cost at a fixed level and are directly attributable to the construction of the factory. Therefore, method (ii) may not carry much support.
2. To use method (iv) it is necessary to demonstrate that the derivative financial instrument is directly attributable to the construction of a qualifying asset. In making this assessment it is clearly necessary to consider the term of the derivative and this method may not be practicable if the derivative has a different term to the underlying directly attributable borrowing.
3. In this example, method (v) appears to be inconsistent with the underlying principles of AS-16 — which is that the costs eligible for capitalisation are those costs that could have been avoided if the expenditure on the qualifying asset had not been made — and is not therefore appropriate. However, it may not be possible to demonstrate that specific derivative financial instruments are directly attributable to particular qualifying assets, rather than being used by the entity to manage its interest rate exposure on a more general basis. In such a case, method (v) may be an acceptable treatment. Method (iii) may not be appropriate in any case. Whatever policy is chosen by the entity, it needs to be consistently applied in similar situations.
The bigger issue is: in the era of accounting standards — is this diversity warranted and/or desirable?
DDIT v. Dharti Dredging & Infrastructure Ltd. 9 Taxman.com 327 (Hyd. ITAT) Article 5 of India-Netherlands DTAA; Sections 9, 195 of Income-tax Act A.Ys.: 2000-07 and 2007-08 Dated: 17-9-2010
Facts:
The assessee was an Indian company (‘IndCo’) engaged in the business of marine dredging and port construction. IndCo was awarded contract for dredging of Inner Harbour Channel. For executing the contract, IndCo hired a dipper dredger from a Netherlands company (‘DutchCo’). As per the agreement between IndCo and DutchCo, the dipper dredger was provided to IndCo with two charter coordinators and two operators. During the course of survey by Tax Authority it was found that IndCo had made certain payments to DutchCo for usage of dredger. It had not deducted tax from these payments. Hence, the AO held that the dredger constituted PE and permanent base of business of DutchCo in India. Therefore, the AO passed order u/s. 201 of Income-tax Act levying tax and interest.
Before the Tribunal, IndCo contended that:
- merely because it hired the dredger together with coordinators and operators, it does not mean that the contract was carried out by DutchCo;
- equipment hired from a foreign company cannot be construed as place of business of foreign company and to constitute permanent base of foreign company in India, the foreign company must have PE to control its business activities in India;
- IndCo paid salary, lodging, board, etc. of crew and DutchCo had not incurred any expenditure for the crew which stayed in India for operating the dredger;
- the crew was to work under the directions and instructions of IndCo;
- IndCo executed the work on its own utilising the dredger and no part of the work was done by DutchCo.
- DutchCo had nothing to do with execution of the dredging contract; and
- therefore, dredger cannot be said to constitute PE of DutchCo in India.
The Tax Authority contended that:
- the dredger belonging to DutchCo stayed in Indian territory for sufficiently long period;
- the dredger had living space for stay of crew; it had advanced instruments like computer and communication equipments, which met the essential requirements of office/work place;
- the dredger remained in a particular location; and
hence, DutchCo had a permanent place of business in India and the dredger should be considered as PE of DutchCo.
Held:
As regards PE under Article 5(1):
- Payments made by IndCo to DutchCo were hire charges.
- Hiring of dredger for operations under direction, control and supervision of IndCo cannot be construed as PE of foreign company in India.
- Provision of living space and presence of communication and other equipments, for effective usage at sea cannot be construed as PE.
As regards Article 5(3):
Installation of structure used for more than 183 days would constitute PE if the foreign company was carrying out the contract in India. Since IndCo was carrying out the contract and dredger was used by IndCo and not DutchCo, DutchCo cannot be said to have installed equipment or structure for exploration in India.
ADIT v. M. Fabrikant & Sons Limited Article 5, 7 of India-USA DTAA; Section 9(1)(i) of Income-tax Act A.Ys.: 1999-2000 to 2002-03 and 2003-04 Dated: 28-1-2011
Facts:
The assessee was a company based in the USA (‘USCo’). USCo was engaged in the business of sale of diamonds and diamond jewellery. After obtaining approval of RBI, USCo established a Liaison Office (‘LO’) in India for purchase of diamonds for exports to its Head Office (‘HO’). During the course of survey by the tax authority, the following was noted as business model of USCo and its LO in India:
- Upon receipt of information from HO, LO gets the right quality, size and carats from the supplier.
- The prices are then negotiated, by LO with the supplier, in order to obtain best prices, as per HO’s requirement.
- Unassorted diamonds are received; the parcels are assorted with the help of assorters.
- For getting the right selection and chalking out rejections, the assortment, verification and selection of packets is done by various other employees of LO.
- Once right selection of diamonds are obtained, packed and sealed, they are dispatched to the customs office.
- LO has dedicated employee who takes care that the sealed packets are cleared through the approver and examiner at the customs.
- The supplier prepares the invoice which is directly honoured by HO.
It was also noted that USCo had 76% shareholding in another Indian company and that company purchased rough diamonds, got them processed from others and sold the finished diamonds in open market. About 25% of the total purchases of LO were from this company.
Based on the above activity conducted by LO, the tax authority held that LO constituted PE in India of USCo and computed its income @5% of the value of diamonds imported through LO.
USCo contended that as per clause (b) of Explanation 1 to section 9(1)(i), no income could be deemed to accrue or arise in India through or from operations which were confined to the purchase of goods in India for purposes of export. Reliance, in this regard was placed on Circular Nos. 23, dated 23-7-1969 and 163, dated 29-5-1975.
In appeal, CIT held that LO was not involved in manufacture or production and was not selling diamonds. Also, under India-USA DTAA, LO, which was engaged in the purchasing of goods or merchandise, or for collecting information for the HO, could not be considered as PE in India.
Held:
- The activity profile of LO, namely assorting, quality checking and price negotiation, under instructions and specifications of HO are a part of the purchasing of diamonds for export from India. Such process did not result or bring any physical and qualitative change in the diamonds purchased.
- Selection of right goods and negotiation of prices are an essential part of the purchasing activity.
- The case is squarely covered by Explana-tion (1)(b) to section 9(1)(i) of the Income-tax Act. Further, having regard to Circular No. 23 and Circular No. 163 of the CBDT, no income could accrue or arise in India to USCo by virtue of purchase of goods made for purposes of export.
VNU International B V AAR No. 871 of 2010 Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA; Sections 139, 195 of Income-tax Act Dated: 28-3-2011
Facts:
The applicant was a company incorporated in, and a tax resident of Netherlands (‘DutchCo’). DutchCo was subsidiary of another Netherlands company. DutchCo held entire capital of an Indian company (‘IndCo1’). IndCo1 entered into a scheme of arrangement with another Indian company (‘IndCo2’) for demerger of one of the divisions of IndCo1 into IndCo2. Subsequently, DutchCo transferred 50% of the shares in IndCo2 to a Switzerland company resulting in substantial capital gains for DutchCo.
DutchCo sought ruling of AAR on the following questions:
- Whether capital gains earned by DutchCo were liable to tax in India under Income-tax Act and India-Netherlands DTAA?
- Whether the transfer would attract transfer pricing provisions under Income-tax Act?
- Whether the purchaser of the shares would be liable to withhold tax u/s. 195 of Incometax Act?
- If capital gains are not taxable in India, whether DutchCo is required to file return of income u/s. 139 of Income-tax Act?
Held:
- In terms of Article 13(5) of India-Netherlands DTAA, capital gains would be taxable only in Netherlands and not in India.
- Since capital gains are not taxable in India, the transfer would not attract transfer pricing provisions under the Income-tax Act.
- The purchaser of the shares would not be liable to withhold tax u/s. 195 of the Incometax Act.
- Under the Income-tax Act, every company is required to file return of its income or loss and a foreign company is also included within the definition of ‘company’. While casting an obligation to file return of income, the Legislature has omitted expression ‘exceeded the maximum amount which is not chargeable to income tax’. In terms of section 5, DutchCo is liable to pay tax in India — though, due to treaty applicability, no tax is actually paid in India, but is only paid in the Netherlands. Once power to tax a particular income exists, it is difficult to claim that there is no obligation to file return of income. The Income-tax Act has specifically provided for exemption from filing of return of income where it is not necessary for non-resident to file return of income. Such exemption is not provided in this case. Hence, DutchCo would be required to file income of return. The AAR also observed:
Apart, it is necessary to have all the facts connected with the question on which the ruling is sought or is proposed to be sought in a wide amplitude by way of a return of income than alone by way of an application seeking advance ruling in Form 34C under IT Rules. Instead of causing inconvenience to the applicant, the process of filing of return would facilitate the applicant in all future interactions with the Income-tax Department.
Improving service delivery time of approval of company’s registration and critical services (Registration in 24 hours)
Now all Registrars of Companies have to first approve the above critical services before attending any other forms. The Ministry would also ensure that all other critical e-forms are also processed within the service delivery parameters as given in the citizen charter.
Companies (Director Identification Number) Amendment Rules, 2011.
Similarly, the DIN 4 is also to be filed electronically.
Refer F. No. 02/01/2011-CL V dated 26th March 2011 and Circular No. 11/2011 dated 7th April 2011.
Prosecution of Directors.
Such directors should not be held liable for any act of omission or commission by the company or by any officers of the company which constitute a breach or violation of any provision of the Companies Act, 1956, and which occurred without their knowledge and without their consent or connivance or where they have acted diligently in the Board process. The Board process includes meeting of any committee of the Board and any information which the director was authorised to receive as a director of the Board as per the decision of the Board.
The Circular also specifies compliances to be verified by the Registrar of Companies before taking penal action against directors.
Also the list of persons who can be treated as Officers in default has been listed for prosecution u/s.209(5), 209(6), 211 and 212 is given.
For the complete text of the Circular visit
http://www.mca.gov.in/Ministry/pdf/Circular_08-2011 _25mar2011.pdf
Delegation u/s. 637 of the Companies Act by the Central Government of its powers and functions under Act — Powers and functions delegated to Registrars of Companies for specified provisions of the Act — Supersession of Notification G.S.R. No. 506(E), dated 24-6-1985.
- Section 21 pertaining to Change of Name of Company.
- Section 25 pertaining to Power to dispense with ‘Limited’ in name of Charitable or Other Company.
- Proviso to Ss.(1) of section 31 pertaining to change in the articles having effect of converting a public company into a private company.
- Ss.(1D) of section 108 relating to extension of period within which instrument of transfer is to be submitted to the company.
- Section 572 relating to change of name of a company seeking registration under Part IX of the Companies Act.
Powers and functions delegated to the Regional Directors for specified provisions of the Act — Supersession of Notification G.S.R. No. 288(E), dated 31-5-1991.
The Central Government vide Notification dated 17-3-2011, F. No. 5/07/2011-CL-V has delegated to the Regional Directors at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Noida and Ahmedabad, the powers and functions of the Central Government under the following provisions of the said Act, namely:
- Section 22 relating to rectification of name of the company.
- Ss.(3), (4), (7) and clause (a) of Ss.(8) of section 224 relating to the appointment, remuneration and removal of auditors in certain cases.
- Proviso to section 297(1) Proviso relating to approval of the Central Government for contracts by a company with certain parties where paid up share capital of the company is not less than Rs. one crore.
- Section 394A pertaining to notice to be given of for applications u/s. 391 for compromise or arrangements with creditors and members and section 394 for reconstruction and amalgamation of companies.
- Section 400 relating to notice to be given of applications under sections 397 and 398 for relief in cases of oppressions and mismanagement.
- Second proviso to Ss.(5) of section 439 and Ss.(6) of the said section relating to applications for winding up.
- Clause (a) of Ss.(1) of section 496 and Clause (a) of Ss.(1) of section 508 relating extension of time for calling general meeting of company and of the creditors of the company by the liquidator at end of each year.
- Ss.(1) of section 551 relating to exemption from filing information as to pending liquidations.
- Clause (b) of Ss.(7) of section 555 and the proviso to clause (a) of Ss.(9) of the said section relating to certain powers regarding unpaid dividends and undistributed assets to be paid into the Companies liquidation Account and claims in respect thereof.
- Provisos to Ss.(1) of section 610 relating to inspection, production and evidence of documents delivered to the Registrar with prospectus; and
- Section 627 relating to production and inspection of books where offences suspected.
EXEMPTION U/S.54F IN CASES WHERE SECTION 50C APPLICABLE
Section 50C provides for substituting the full value of consideration with the value adopted or assessed by the stamp valuation authorities, in computing the capital gains arising on transfer of land or building or both. Where the value of the property assessed or adopted for stamp duty purposes is higher than the sale consideration as specified in the transfer documents, then such higher value is deemed to be the full value of consideration for the purposes of computation of capital gains u/s.48, by virtue of the provisions of section 50C.
Capital gains on sale of an asset other than a residential house, in the hands of an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family, is eligible for an exemption u/s.54F on purchase or construction of a residential house within the specified period, subject to fulfilment of other conditions. The assessee enjoys a complete exemption from tax where the cost of the new asset is equal or more than the net consideration of the asset transferred and he will get a pro-rated exemption where the cost of the new asset is less than the net consideration.
A question has arisen, in the above facts, as to how such exemption u/s.54F is to be computed in a case where the provisions of section 50C apply. Should one take the sale consideration recorded in the documents of transfer, or should one take the stamp duty value as per section 50C, is an issue which is calling our attention.
To illustrate, if a plot of land is sold for Rs.50 lakhs with its stamp duty valuation being Rs.75 lakhs, and if the cost of the new residential house is Rs.50 lakhs, would the entire capital gains be exempt from tax u/s.54F or would only two-thirds of the capital gains be exempt from tax under this section?
While the Lucknow and the Bangalore Benches of the Tribunal have taken a view that for the purposes of computation of exemption u/s.54F, the stamp duty value being the deemed full value of consideration as per section 50C is to be considered, the Jaipur Bench of the Tribunal has held that it is the actual sale consideration recorded in the document of transfer which is to be considered and not the stamp duty value.
Mohd. Shoib’s case:
The issue first came up before the Lucknow Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Mohd. Shoib v. Dy. CIT, 1 ITR (Trib.) 452.
In this case, the assessee sold 7 plots of land, which had been subdivided from a larger plot of land, for a total consideration of Rs.1.47 crore. In respect of 4 plots of land sold for Rs.83 lakh, the consideration was lower than the valuation adopted by the stamp duty valuation authorities, such valuation being Rs.1,00,61,773. The assessee had purchased a residential house out of a part of the total sale consideration, and claimed exemption u/s.54F which was calculated with reference to the consideration recorded in the documents of transfer by ignoring the difference of Rs.17,61,773 between the stamp duty value and the recorded consideration.
The Assessing Officer enhanced the returned capital gains by Rs.17,61,773, by invoking the provisions of section 50C. In appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals), the assessee challenged the applicability of the provisions of section 50C, which was rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals).
In further appeal to the Tribunal, besides challenging the applicability of section 50C, the assessee claimed that once the assessee had reinvested the net consideration in purchasing the new residential house as per section 54F, then no capital gains would remain to be computed for taxation and therefore provisions of section 50C could not be invoked. It was argued that once the exemption was claimed u/s.54F, there was no occasion to charge capital gains and therefore provisions of section 45 could not be invoked as no capital gains could be computed. Reliance was placed on the use of the words ‘save as otherwise provided in section 54, 54B, . .’ in section 45 for the argument that once the charging section failed, substitution of the sale consideration by the stamp duty valuation would not arise. It was further argued that investment in new asset could be made only of real sale consideration, and not of the notional sale consideration. Once there was no real sale consideration, there could not be any capital gains on notional sale consideration.
On behalf of the Department, it was argued that neither section 45 nor section 50C would fail if the assessee had made investment in exempted assets as per section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Department, section 54F only provided the method of computation of capital gains and did not provide exemption from the charging section 45. It was submitted that if an assessee did not invest the full consideration into a new asset, then he would be required to compute the capital gains in the manner laid down in sections 48 by applying the provisions of section 50C, and the exemption from capital gains was available only to the extent of investment made by the assessee in the new asset. Where a part investment was made in the new asset, then capital gains would be charged with respect to the sale consideration not invested. It was argued that the provisions of section 54, 54F, etc. followed the charging section 45, and that the charging section 45 did not follow the exemption provisions. It was submitted that merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to invest the difference between the notional sale consideration as per section 50C and sale consideration shown by the assessee, the charging of capital gains on the basis of notional sale consideration as per section 50C could not be waived. According to the Department, there were many provisions where a notional income is taxed without giving any occasion to the assessee to make investment out of such notional income and claim deductions under Chapter VIA, etc. It was thus claimed that the charging section could not be made otiose merely because the assessee did not get an opportunity to claim deduction or make investments for claiming deduction in respect of additional income assessed.
While upholding the applicability of section 50C to the facts of the case, the Tribunal observed that section 45 provided a general rule that profits or gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset would be chargeable to income-tax under the head capital gains, except as provided in section 54, 54F, etc. According to the Tribunal while charging capital gains on profits and gains arising from the transfer of a capital asset, one had to see and take into account section 54F, and to the extent provided in section 54F and other similar sections, capital gains would not be chargeable. The moment there was a profit or gain on transfer of a capital asset, capital gains would be chargeable within the meaning of section 45, except and to the extent it was saved by section 54F and like sections.
Analysing the provisions of section 54F, the Tribunal noted that it was not the case that merely because provisions of section 54F were applicable to an assessee, that the entire capital gains would be saved and that no capital gains be chargeable. Saving u/s.54F depended upon investment in new asset of net consideration received by the assessee on sale of old asset. The quantum of net consideration was the result of transfer of the old asset, charge of the capital gain was only on the old asset, and investment in new asset did not and could not nullify or take away the case from the charging section 45. According to the Tribunal, first it was section 45 which came into operation, then it was section 48 which provided computation of capital gains, and thereafter it was section 54F which saved the capital gains to the extent of investment in the new asset.
The Tribunal observed that once section 45 came into operation as a result of transfer of capita
Capital or revenue receipt — Non-competition fee is a capital receipt — Not exigible to tax prior to amendment of Finance Act, 2002.
During the A.Y. 1997-98 the assessee received Rs.50,00,000 from Ranbaxy as non-competition fee. The said amount was paid by Ranbaxy under an agreement dated 31st March, 1997. The assessee was a part of the Guffic group. The assessee had agreed to transfer its trade marks to Ranbaxy and in consideration of such transfer the assessee agreed that it shall not carry on directly or indirectly the business hitherto carried on by it on the terms and conditions appearing in the agreement. The assessee was carrying on the business of manufacturing, selling and distribution of pharmaceutical and medical preparations including products mentioned in the list in schedule A to the agreement. The agreement defined the period, i.e., a period of 20 years commencing from the date of the agreement. The agreement defined the territory as territory of India and rest of the world. In short, the agreement contained prohibitory/ restrictive covenant in consideration of which a non-competition fee of Rs.50 lakh was received by the assessee from Ranbaxy. The agreement further showed that the payment made to the assessee was in consideration of the restrictive covenant undertaken by the assessee for a loss of source of income.
On perusal of the said agreement, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) while overruling the decision of the Assessing Officer observed that the Assessing Officer had not disputed the fact that Rs.50 lakh received by the assessee from Ranbaxy was towards non-competition fee; that under the said agreement the assessee agreed not to manufacture, itself or through its associate, any of the products enlisted in the schedule to the agreement for 20 years within India and the rest of the world; that the assessee and Ranbaxy were both engaged in the business of pharmaceuticals and to ward off competition in manufacture of certain drugs, Ranbaxy had entered into an agreement with the assessee restricting the assessee from manufacturing the drugs mentioned in the schedule and consequently the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) held that the said sum of Rs.50 lakh received by the assessee from Ranbaxy was a capital receipt not taxable under the Income-tax Act, 1961 during the relevant assessment year. This decision was affirmed by the Tribunal. However, the High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal by placing reliance on the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Gillanders Arbuthnot and Co. Ltd. v. CIT, (1964) 53 ITR 283. Against the said decision of the High Court the assessee went to the Supreme Court by way of petition for special leave to appeal.
The Supreme Court held that the position in law was clear and well settled. There is a dichotomy between receipt of compensation by an assessee for the loss of agency and receipt of compensation attributable to the negative/restrictive covenant. The compensation received for the loss of agency is a revenue receipt, whereas the compensation attributable to a negative covenant is a capital receipt. The above dichotomy is clearly spelt out in the judgment of this Court in Gillanders’ case (supra).
The Supreme Court observed that this dichotomy had not been appreciated by the High Court in its impugned judgment. The High Court misinterpreted the judgment of this Court in Gillanders’ case (supra). In the present case, the Department had not impugned the genuineness of the transaction. In the present case, the High Court had erred in interfering with the concurrent finding of the fact recorded by the Commissioner of Incometax (Appeals) and the Tribunal. According to the Supreme Court one more aspect needed to be highlighted. Payment received as non-competition fee under a negative covenant was always treated as a capital receipt prior to the A.Y. 2003-04. It is only vide the Finance Act, 2002 with effect from 1st April, 2003 that the said capital receipt was made taxable [see section 28(va)]. The Finance Act, 2002 itself indicated that during the relevant assessment year compensation received by the assessee under non-compensation agreement was a capital receipt, not taxable under the 1961 Act. It became taxable only with effect from 1st April, 2003. It is well settled that a liability cannot be created retrospectively. In the present case, compensation received under the non-compensation agreement was in the nature of a capital receipt and not a revenue receipt. The said section 28(va) was amendatory and not clarificatory.
For the above reasons, the Supreme Court set aside the impugned judgment of the Karnataka High Court dated 29th October, 2009, and restored the order of the Tribunal. Consequently, the civil appeal filed by the assessee was allowed with no order as to the costs.
DEDUCTIBILITY OF FEES PAID FOR CAPITAL EXPANSION TO BE USED FOR WORKING CAPITAL PURPOSES — AN ANALYSIS, Part I
The Supreme Court in Punjab Industrial Development Corporation Ltd v. CIT, (1997) 225 ITR 792 held that the amount paid to the Registrar of Companies as filing fee for enhancement of capital constitutes capital expenditure. Relying on this decision, the Supreme Court in Brooke Bond India Ltd. v. CIT, (1997) 225 ITR 798 held that expenditure incurred in connection with issuing shares for increasing capital by a company is capital expenditure. Since then one is a witness to these two decisions being mechanically applied by tax authorities as a ground for disallowing any and every expenditure associated with share capital. These include expenses not only directly related but also incidentally connected to capital expansion. The question for consideration is whether any and every expenditure relatable to capital expansion is capital expenditure? Whether the above-mentioned decisions of the Supreme Court are all-pervasive? To put it differently, could there be occasions when these Supreme Court decisions become distinguishable? This write-up discusses one such occasion — in two parts. The first part outlines the law applicable for allowing any expenditure as business expenditure under the head income from business or profession. The second part would cover why the ratio of above-mentioned decisions of the Supreme Court cannot be regarded as all-pervasive as also other connected matters.
Assumed facts:
ABC Limited is a public company (hereinafter referred to as ‘ABCL’ for brevity) engaged in the business of manufacture and sale of pharmaceuticals products. ABCL has presence in various countries across the globe. The success of the business of ABCL is dependent upon marketing of its products. During financial year 2010-11, ABCL undertook certain strategic initiatives (including organisational restructuring) to re-align its business activities for entering into European, African and Asia-pacific countries. The objective was to capture trading opportunities available in such countries. ABCL was thus in need of funds for various business purposes viz., working capital for carrying out business, funds for securing distribution rights, licences, brands.
In view of the above, ABCL engaged the services of a commercial bank (say, XY bank) which assisted it in raising funds through foreign investors. With assistance from XY bank, ABCL managed to raise funds by issuing preference shares to three foreign investors. The funds raised by ABCL were utilised for the above purposes. In consideration of all the services provided, ABCL paid a consolidated fee to XY bank. The question for consideration is whether fees or any portion thereof paid to XY bank would be deductible as business expenditure under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘Act’ for short hereinafter).
Applicable law — Introduction:
Chapter IV-D contains provisions relating to computation of ‘Profits and gains from business or profession’. Section 28 is the charging section. Section 29 enjoins that profits and gains referred to in section 28 shall be computed in accordance with the provisions contained in sections 30 to 43D. Sections 30 to 36 and 38 outline the law relating to specific deductions. Section 37 deals with expenditure which is general in nature and not covered within sections 30 to 36.
The payment by XY bank would not qualify for deduction under sections 30 to 36. Even section 35D would not have relevance. This is for the reason that the section would apply when expenses are incurred under specified heads prior to incorporation or after incorporation in connection with the extension of the industrial undertaking. The expenses under consideration are not pre-incorporation expenses. No extension of any existing undertaking is involved. Section 35D therefore would not be relevant. The deductibility of the said expenditure under section 37(1) of the Act remains for consideration.
Deductibility under section 37(1):
Section 37(1) of the Act enables a general or residual deduction while computing profits and gains of business or profession. Section 37(1) reads as under: “(1) Any expenditure (not being expenditure of the nature described in sections 30 to 36 and not being in the nature of capital expenditure or personal expenses of the assessee), laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business or profession shall be allowed in computing the income chargeable under the head ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’.
(Explanation — For the removal of doubts, it is hereby declared that any expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business or profession and no deduction or allowance shall be made in respect of such expenditure.)
In order to be eligible for an allowance under section 37, the following conditions should be cumulatively satisfied:
(i) The impugned payment must constitute an expenditure;
(ii) The expenditure must not be governed by the provisions of sections 30 to 36;
(iii) The expenditure must not be personal in nature;
(iv) The expenditure must have been laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the purposes of the business of the assessee; and
(v) The expenditure must not be capital in nature.
(i) The payment must constitute an expenditure:
The first and foremost requirement of section 37 is that there should be an expenditure. The term expenditure is not defined in the Act. The Supreme Court in Indian Molasses Company (P) Ltd. v. CIT, (1959) 37 ITR 66 (SC) defined it in the following manner:
“ ‘Expenditure’ is equal to ‘expense’ and ‘expense’ is money laid out by calculation and intention though in many uses of the word this element may not be present, as when we speak of a joke at another’s expense. But the idea of ‘spending’ in the sense of ‘paying out or away’ money is the primary meaning and it is with that meaning that we are concerned. ‘Expenditure’ is thus what is ‘paid out or away’ and is something which is gone irretrievably.”
A definition to a similar effect is found in section 2(h) of the Expenditure Act, 1957. This definition reads as : “Expenditure : Any sum of money or money’s worth spent or disbursed or for the spending or disbursing of which a liability has been incurred by an assessee. The term includes any amount which, under the provision of the Expenditure Act is required to be included in the taxable expenditure.”
In CIT v. Nainital Bank Ltd., (1966) 62 ITR 638, the Supreme Court held : “In its normal meaning, the expression ‘expenditure’ denotes ‘spending’ or ‘paying out or away’, i.e., something that goes out of the coffers of the assessee. A mere liability to satisfy an obligation by an assessee is undoubtedly not ‘expenditure’ : it is only when he satisfies the obligation by delivery of cash or property or by settlement of accounts, there is expenditure.”
Expenditure for the purposes of section 37 includes amounts which the assessee has actually expended or which the assessee has provided for or laid out in respect of an accrued liability. In the case under discussion, ABCL has paid fees to XY bank as consideration for services. The amount paid to XY bank constitutes ‘expenditure’ for the purpose of section 37(1) of the Act.
(ii) The expenditure must not be governed by the provisions of sections 30 to 36:
As already stated, the payment under discussion viz., fees paid to XY bank is not covered by any of the provisions of sections 30 to 36 of the Act. The payment would also not qualify for deduction under section 35D as the same has not been incurred prior to incorporation of business of ABCL or in connection with extension of the undertaking or setting up a new u
FINANCE ACT, 2011
1.1 The Finance Minister, Shri Pranab Mukherjee, presented the third Budget of UPA-II Government in the Parliament on 28-2-2011. The Finance Act, 2011, has now been passed by both Houses of the Parliament on 24-3-2011, without any discussion. It has received the assent of the President on 8-4- 2011. There are only 35 sections in the Finance Act amending some of the provisions of the Income tax and Wealth tax Act. This year’s amendments in our Direct Tax Laws are very few, probably because the Direct Taxes Code Bill, 2010 (DTC), introduced in the Parliament is under discussion and will replace the existing Income tax Act and Wealth tax Act hopefully from 1-4-2012.
1.2 Part ‘B’ of the Budget Speech deals with proposals relating the Direct Taxes, Excise Duty, Customs Duty and Service tax. In para 139 and 140 of his Budget Speech the Finance Minister has stated as under:
“139. In the formulation of these (tax) proposals, my priorities are directed towards making taxes moderate, payments simple for taxpayers and collection of taxes easy for the tax collector.”
“140. As Government’s policy on direct taxes has been outlined in the DTC which is before the Parliament, I have limited my proposals to initiatives that require urgent attention.”
After presenting his budget proposals, he has concluded his speech as under:
“197. As an emerging economy, with a voice on the global stage, India stands at the threshold of a decade which presents immense possibilities. We must not let the recent strains and tensions hold us back from converting these possibilities into realities. With oneness of heart, let us all build an India, which in not too distant a future, will enter the comity of developed nations.”
1.3 The various important amendments made in the Income tax Act and Wealth tax Act can be briefly stated as under:
(i) Slabs for tax payable by Individuals/HUF/ AoP/ BoI have been revised and the tax burden on these assessees have been reduced to some extent.
(ii) MAT on Corporate Bodies has been marginally raised and surcharge on income of companies is reduced.
(iii) Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) will be levied on Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
(iv) Certain exemption and deduction provisions have been relaxed.
(v) Provisions relating to taxation of international transactions have been made more strict.
(vi) Scope of cases which can be referred to the Settlement Commission has been widened.
(vii) Some procedural changes have been made.
1.4 In this article some of the important amendments made in rates of taxes and in some of the provisions of the Income tax and Wealth tax Acts have been discussed.
2. Rates of taxes, surcharge and education cess:
2.1 Rates of Income tax:
(i) For Individuals, HUF, AoP, BoI and Artificial Juridical Persons the threshold limit of basic exemption has been revised upwards for A.Y. 2012-13. Age limit for resident senior citizens has been lowered to 60 years from the present limit of 65 years. Further, a new category of ‘VERY SENIOR CITIZEN’ who is a resident and 80 years and above has been created. The revised tax rates for A.Y. 2012-13 as compared to A.Y. 2011-12 are as under:
(a) Rates in A.Y. 2011-12
(Accounting Year ending 31-3-2011):
Note: There is no surcharge but Education cess at 3% (2 + 1) of tax is payable.
(b) Rates in A.Y. 2012-13 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2012):
Note: No surcharge is payable but Education cess @ 3% (2 +1) of tax is payable.
(ii) The impact of these changes can be noticed from the following charts.
(a) Tax payable in A.Y. 2011-12 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2011):
The above tax is to be increased by 3% of tax for Education cess.
(b) Tax payable in A.Y. 2012-13 (Accounting Year ending 31-3-2012):
The above tax is to be increased by 3% of tax for Education cess.
(iii) Other assessees: There are no changes in the rates of taxes so far as other assessees are concerned. Therefore, they will have to pay taxes in A.Y. 2012-13 at the same rates as applicable in A.Y. 2011-12.
(iv) Rate of tax u/s.115JB (MAT): The rate of tax on book profits u/s.115JB i.e., MAT has been increased from 18% in A.Y. 2011-12 to 18.5% in A.Y. 2012-13. This is to be increased by surcharge of 5% of tax if the Book Profit is more than Rs.1 cr. Education cess at 3% of tax is also payable.
(v) Rate of tax on dividends from foreign companies:
A new section 115BBD is inserted for A.Y. 2012- 13. This section provides for concessional rate of tax payable by an Indian company on dividend received by it from any Foreign company in which the Indian company holds 26% or more of the equity capital. The rate of tax on such dividend income will be 15% plus applicable surcharge and education cess. This concessional rate of tax on foreign dividend income is applicable only for one year i.e., dividend received during the year ending 31-3-2012 (A.Y. 2012-13). It is also provided in this section that no expenditure shall be allowed against this dividend income. Therefore, an Indian company which controls a Foreign company by holding 26% or more of equity capital in such a company can consider repatriation of profits accumulated in the foreign company to avail of this concessional rate of tax during the current year before 31-3-2012.
(vi) Rate of Alternate Minimum Tax on LLP (AMT):
Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) will now have to pay Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT) at the rate of 18.5% on its gross total income as computed under new section 115JC. No surcharge is payable, but education cess is payable @ 3% of tax. This is discussed in para 8 below.
2.2 Surcharge on Income tax:
(i) No surcharge is payable by non-corporate assessees i.e., Individuals, HUF, Juridical person, AoP, BoI, Firm, LLP, Co-operative Society and Local Authority. In the case of a company, if the total income is more than Rs.1 cr. the surcharge on tax payable in A.Y. 2011-12 is 7.5%. This is now reduced to 5% for A.Y. 2012-13. Similarly, rate of surcharge on tax payable by a company u/s.115JB (MAT) is also reduced to 5% for A.Y. 2012-13 if the Book Profits amount is more than Rs.1 cr. So far as Dividend Distribution and Income Distribution Tax payable u/s.115O and u/s.115R by companies and Mutual Funds is concerned the rate of surcharge on tax is reduced from 7.5% to 5% w.e.f. 1-4-2011.
(ii) In the case of a Foreign company the rate of surcharge on tax is also reduced from 2.5% to 2% w.e.f. A.Y. 2012-13 if the taxable income of such a company is more than Rs.1 cr. Similarly, for deduction of tax at source u/s.195 from the income of a foreign company the Income tax has to be increased by surcharge at the rate of 2% (instead of 2.5%) w.e.f. 1-4-2011 if the income from which tax is deducted at source is more than Rs.1 cr.
(iii) It may be noted that no surcharge on tax is required to be charged on tax deducted at source from payments to resident assessees.
2.3 Education cess:
As in earlier years, Education cess of 3% (including 1% for higher education cess) of Income tax and Surcharge (if applicable) is payable by all assessees (Residents and Non-residents). No Education cess is to be deducted or collected from TDS or TCS from payments to all resident assessees, including companies. However, if the tax is deducted from payments made to (a) Foreign companies, (b) Non- Residents or (c) on Salary payments, Education cess at 3% of tax and surcharge (if applicable) is to be applied.
2.4 TDS on interest:
New s
(2011) 21 STR 546 (Tri.-Chennai) — CCEx., Madurai v. Tata Coffee Ltd.
Facts:
The question to be considered was whether service tax paid on goods transported from factory to port of export is alone eligible for refund or the same also extends to service tax paid on transport of empty containers from yard to factory for stuffing export goods.
Held:
The Notification granting refund contains ‘in relation to transport of export goods’ phrase, which is wide enough to cover service tax paid on transport of empty containers from yard to factory for stuffing export goods.
Income: Salary: Accrual: A.Y. 2005-06: Salary earned by non-resident for services performed on board a ship: Does not accrue in India: Not taxable in India.
The assessee is a non-resident individual. For the A.Y. 2005-06, the Assessing Officer added an amount of Rs.10,00,131, treating the same as income deemed to have been received in India as per section 5(2) (b) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The said amount is the salary earned by the assessee for services performed on board a ship outside the shores of India. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal deleted the addition.
On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“(i) The Revenue does not dispute that the assessee had worked on board a ship and during the relevant period the assessee had stayed outside India for a period of 225 days and the salary that was earned by him was on account of the work discharged by him on board during the said period which is outside the shores of India.
(ii) The criteria of applying the definition of section 5(2)(b) would be such income which is earned in India for the services rendered in India and not otherwise. U/s. 15 even on accrual basis salary income is taxable i.e., it becomes taxable by implication. However, if services are rendered outside India such income would not be taxable in India.
(iii) The number of days worked by the assessee outside India as extracted in the assessment order when taken into consideration it would emerge that assessee was working outside India for a period of 225 days and the income in question earned by assessee has not accrued in India and is not deemed to have accrued in India.”
Export profits: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Incometax Act: A.Y. 1992-93: Interest income assessed as business income: Such income could not be excluded from business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC.
For the A.Y. 1992-93, the assessee-company had declared the interest income as business income. The Assessing Officer assessed the interest income as income from other sources. Accordingly, he excluded the interest income from the business profit while calculating deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim.
On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
(i) The Commissioner (Appeals) had held that though the main object of the assesseecompany was to extract iron ore and export the same, yet it was not barred from carrying on activity like the instant one, i.e., business of placing various deposits and earning interest from the same. The activity carried on could be definitely held as business activity and, hence, any income earned therefrom was to be taxed as business income only.
(ii) That showed that the authorities below, on the basis of the evidence on record, had held that the activity carried out by the assessee was a part of its business activity. That conclusion of the fact could not be interfered with by the Court in an appeal u/s.260A.
(iii) In any event, the Revenue had failed to advance any submission to the effect that the said findings of the fact were contrary to the evidence on record or that the same were in any way perverse.
(iv) In the instant case, the authorities below had held that the income from the interest received by the assessee was a part of the business profit and, as such, in view of the judgment in the case of Alfa Laval India Ltd. v. Dy. CIT, (2003) 133 Taxman 740 (Bom.) the same could not be excluded from the business profit while calculating the deduction u/s.80HHC.
Export profit: Deduction u/s.80HHC of Income-tax Act: A.Ys. 1995-96, 1997-98, 1998-99 and 2000-01: Exclusion of mineral oil: Calcined petroleum coke derived from crude petroleum is not mineral oil: Assessee is entitled to deduction.
The assessee was engaged in manufacture and export of calcined petroleum coke. For the relevant years the assessee’s claim for deduction u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act was allowed by the Assessing Officer. However, the Commissioner withdrew the allowance by exercising the powers u/s.263 of the Act. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner holding that the calcined petroleum coke was a form of mineral oil and in view of Ss.2(b) of section 80HHC, the provision for deduction u/s.80HHC(1) was not applicable to the calcined petroleum coke manufactured by the assessee.
On appeal filed by the assessee, the Bombay High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“(i) The expression ‘mineral oil’ is not defined in the Act. The expression ‘minerals’ is used primarily for substances found on the earth or below the land and does not denote a product manufactured from the minerals found on the land or below the land. The word ‘oil’ ordinarily means a substance which is in liquid form and does not include a rock or solid substance or crystallised substance. For a substance to be regarded as mineral oil, it must ordinarily be a substance in liquid form and derived or extracted from the earth or land, from the surface of the earth or from below the earth.
(ii) Although calcined petroleum coke is a product which is derived from crude oil, no trader in the market would call the calcined petroleum coke a crude oil or a mineral oil. In common parlance, nobody would mistake calcined petroleum coke for a crude oil. Though the initial raw material used for manufacture of the calcined petroleum coke is petroleum crude oil extracted from the earth, the product which is manufactured is an entirely different product commercially known and regarded as different from petroleum crude and which is different from that derived by mere distillation of the petroleum crude which is a mineral oil. Calcined petroleum coke cannot be regarded as a mineral only because the original raw material is mineral oil.
(iii) The calcined petroleum coke was not a mineral oil within the meaning of section 80HHC.”
Export profit: Company: MAT: Section 80HHC and section 115JB of Income-tax Act: When income of company is assessed u/s.115JB, assessee is entitled to deduction u/s.80HHC computed in accordance with Ss.(3) and (3A) of section 80HHC: Restriction contained in section 80AB or section 80B(5) cannot be applied and carried forward business loss or depreciation cannot be first set off leaving gross total income nil.
Dealing with the scope of computation of amount deductible u/s.80HHC of the Income-tax Act, 1961, while assessing the income of a company u/s.115JB, the Full Bench of the Kerala High Court has held as under:
“(i) The short question arising for consideration is whether the assessees, whose gross total income after setting of business and depreciation carried forward from previous years is nil, are entitled to deduction u/s.80HHC in the computation of book profits u/s.115JB(2) (iv) of the Act?
(ii) After hearing both the sides and after going through the decisions, particularly that of the Supreme Court [Ajanta Pharma v. CIT; 327 ITR 305 (SC)], we feel that the assessees are entitled to deduction u/s.80HHC computed in accordance with Ss.(3) and (3A) of section 80HHC of the Act because it is expressly so provided under clause (iv) of section 115JB(2) of the Act.
(iii) All what the Supreme Court has held is that the ceiling contained in section 80HHC(1B) is not applicable for the purposes of granting deduction under clause (iv) above in the computation of book profits. However, there is nothing to indicate in the Supreme Court decision that eligible deduction of export profit under clause (iv) above in the computation of book profit can be computed in any other manner other than what is provided in Ss.(3) and (3A) of section 80HHC of the Act. What is clearly stated in clause (iv) is that deduction of export profit in the computation of book profit is the same ‘amount of profit eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC’ computed under clause (a) or clause (b) or clause (c) of Ss.(3) or Ss.(3A) of the said section.
(iv) So much so, computation of export profits has to be done only in accordance with the method provided u/s.80HHC, which is in fact done in the computation of the business profit if the assessment was on the total income computed under the other provisions of the Act. MAT assessment is only an alternative scheme of assessment and what is clear from clause (iv) above is that even in the alternative scheme of assessment u/s.115JB, the assessee is entitled to deduction of export profit u/s.80HHC. In other words, export profits eligible for deduction u/s.80HHC is allowable under both the schemes of assessment. So much so, the assessees are certainly entitled to deduction u/s.80HHC, but it is only by following the method provided under Ss.(3) and (3A) of section 80HHC.
(v) However, by virtue of the above-referred decision of the Supreme Court, we feel the restriction contained in section 80AB or section 80B(5) could not be applied inasmuch as carry forward of business loss or depreciation should not be first set off leaving gross total income nil, which disentitles the assessees for deduction under other provisions of Chapter VIA-C which includes section 80HHC also.
(vi) But the assessees’ contention that export profit has to be computed with reference to the P&L a/c prepared under the Companies Act is equally unacceptable, because there is no such provision in section 80HHC to determine export profit with reference to P&L a/c maintained under the Companies Act.”
Depreciation: Intangible asset: Goodwill: Section 32(1)(ii) of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 2004-05: Purchase of hospital as going concern along with goodwill: Assessee entitled to depreciation on value of goodwill.
The assessee purchased a hospital as a going concern. The value of the goodwill which included the name of the hospital and its logo and trade mark was Rs.2 crores. For the A.Y. 2004-05, the assessee claimed depreciation on the goodwill. The Assessing Officer and the Tribunal disallowed the claim. On appeal by the assessee, the Kerala High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“(i) Without resorting to the residuary entry the assessee was entitled to claim depreciation on the name, trade mark and logo under the specific head provided u/s.32(1)
(ii) which covers trade marks and franchise. (ii) Admittedly the hospital was run in the same building, in the same town, in the same name for several years prior to the purchase by the assessee. By transferring the right to use the name of the hospital itself, the previous owner had transferred the goodwill to the assessee and the benefit derived by the assessee was retention of continued trust of the patients who were patients of the previous owners.
(iii) When the goodwill paid was for ensuring retention and continued business in the hospital, it was for acquiring a business and commercial rights and it was comparable with trade mark, franchise, copyright, etc., referred to in the first part of clause (ii) of section 32(1) and so much so, goodwill was covered by the above provision of the Act entitling the assessee for depreciation.”
Business expenditure: Disallowance u/s.40(a) (ia): Section 194C and section 194-I, read with section 40(a)(ia), of Income-tax Act: TDS u/s.194-I: A.Y. 2005-06: Assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers, for purpose of carrying out road contract work: Section 194C and section 194-I not applicable: Disallowance of hire charges u/s.40(a)(ia) not justified.
During the relevant assessment year, the assessee had paid hire charges for having hired millers and rollers for the purpose of carrying out road contract work. According to the Revenue, since the hire charges in respect of both, the millers and rollers, hired by the assessee contained a portion of labour charges incurred by the respective owners of the concerned vehicles/machineries towards operation of the respective vehicles/ machineries, it was a composite contract of hiring of vehicles/ machineries along with labour and, consequently, the provisions of section 194C would be applicable. On that basis, the Assessing Officer took the view that out of the total hire charges if 10 per cent was treated as charges paid towards labour element involved and the TDS not having been deducted, as required u/s.40(a)(ia), the whole of the sum was to be disallowed. The Tribunal found that the amount paid by the assessee was only by way of hire charges for the millers and rollers taken on hire and, therefore, the relevant TDS provision applicable had to be only of section 194-I and not 194C and since section 194-I providing for TDS even in respect of machinery/equipment was brought into the Statute Book with effect from 1-6-2007, the assessee had not committed any violation of section 40(a)( ia) during the relevant assessment year, i.e., 2005-06, and accordingly deleted the addition.
On appeal by the Revenue, the Madras High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“(i) Hiring of the millers and rollers as a machinery/ equipment was apparently needed for the purpose of carrying out the contract of laying of the road. Both the equipments, viz., millers and rollers, had to be necessarily operated by the owner of the respective machineries/equipments. Therefore, that, by itself, could not be a ground to state that it was a composite contract for supply of labour in the course of hiring of machineries/ equipments. Inasmuch as the millers and rollers had to be necessarily operated and maintained by the respective owners, the engagement of the service of any person for operating those machineries/equipments was purely an incidental one.
(ii) In fact, there was no material evidence or statement of any one to say in definite terms that the supply of such millers and rollers was along with its respective operators. Therefore, in the absence of any such acceptable material, the conclusion of the Assessing Officer in treating the hiring of millers and rollers as one falling under the category of a sub-contract for provision of labour or the conclusion of the Commissioner (Appeals) and holding that at least 10 per cent of the total payment would have been incurred by way of labour chargers by the respective owners, could not be accepted.
(iii) Viewed in that respect, the conclusion of the Tribunal, in having held that the relevant section, which would be applicable to the case on hand in relation to the sum incurred by the assessee by way of hire charges would be section 194-I, was unassailable. Therefore, when indisputably section 194-I came to provide for making the TDS in respect of machinery/equipments only with effect from 1-6-2007 and the relevant assessment year was 2005-06, there was no scope at all to find fault with the assessee for any violation of section 40(a)(ia).”
Appeal to High Court: Section 260A of Income-tax Act: A.Y. 1997-98: Power of High Court: Court has power to consider new question of law not formulated at the time of admission of the appeal.
The assessee had filed an appeal before the High Court u/s.260A of the Income-tax Act. When the appeal was taken up for the final hearing, the assessee sought consideration of an additional question whether reopening of the assessment was maintainable. The Madras High Court allowed the assessee’s request and held as under:
(i) The issue of notice u/s.148 in the case of the assessee was dealt with by the Tribunal in extenso. The issue relating to the validity of reassessment was contested by the parties before the Tribunal.
(ii) Therefore, merely because the question of reassessment was not specifically formulated as a substantial question of law while entertaining the appeal, it could not be held that the question should not be allowed to be agitated by formulating a substantial question of law.
(iii) The assessee was justified to seek for framing the issue of notice as one of the substantial questions of law to be considered.
Nobly Untruthful
• Political and corporate institutions actively try to suppress information from the public. They try to suppress because they believe that if the public knows it will try to change and reform these institutions.
• We have to first understand how our institutions behave before we can come up with programmes to reform them.
• If you want the Indian government to really address corruption then it must become the central issue of the nation.
• Wherever there’s a disclosure, there is a counter smear campaign which is directly proportionate to how impactful is the material in the disclosure.
• Governments, corporations are not scared of Wikileaks having the information, but they are scared of public knowledge.
• Governments have to be pushed and pushed until they see that there is an advantage in giving a proper response.
In India, we have seen the truth in these statements all along and more so in the recent times. Whenever there is a big scam the first reaction of the government is to deny it. Then start a systemic attempt to distract the attention from the central issue. It is surprising that when questioned the spokespersons of the ruling party take pride in talking about the so-called actions that the government has taken against the persons involved. But what is the reality? Has the government taken action on its own? Or is it only under substantial pressure from the public or directive from the judiciary that some action has been taken? Has the action been swift and effective?
Last month, Anna Hazare the RTI activist went on a fast demanding speedy enactment of a comprehensive law like Jan Lokpal Bill to tackle the menace of corruption. The fast motivated a very large number of persons to support the cause. While that was noteworthy, the reaction of the government at every stage left a lot to be desired. Actions of Anna Hazare were referred as blackmail. Initially, the government refused to involve representatives of Civil Society in drafting of Lokpal Bill. Mr. Kapil Sibal stated that to involve the public in preparing the draft of the Lokpal Bill would be undermining the democracy and its institutions. It’s only under public pressure that the government agreed to public participation in drafting the Bill.
But let us not forget this is only the beginning. There are many hurdles at every stage. This was evident by the smear campaign against some of the prominent members of the committee constituted for drafting the Bill.
While one needs to be hopeful, a certain amount of cynicism is also justified. A strong Lokpal is only one of the instruments to move towards corruption free India. It is not an end in itself; it is not a magic wand. The draft presented by the Civil Society also needs to be critically examined. The institution of Lokpal, while having enough powers, must be accountable. Otherwise a well intended legislation will become a tool for harassment.
Julian Assange also mentioned that there are more Indian deposits in Swiss banks than any other nationality. There is no reason to disbelieve him on this. Even on this front the government seems to be doing precious little. The public perception, rather conviction, is that the government is dragging its feet because those who have money stashed it in Swiss bank accounts include big names from amongst politicians and other powerful personalities. While our government is reluctant to act, US and German governments have taken effective and unusual steps to bring back the money and bring offenders to book.
It is ironical that while Prime Minister Manmohan Singh himself is considered as an honest person, the present government presided over by him is regarded as the most corrupt government that independent India has had. But can the Prime Minister avoid the responsibility for what is happening? Is he `Nobly Untruthful’ in the wrong way? It will be a sad day if a person of his eminence has to retire with a tarnished image. On the other hand if the Prime Minister takes firm, swift and effective steps against the guilty in various scams and in the process has to leave the prime ministership, the nation will remember him with gratitude for a long time. Will he show that courage and conviction?
Editor
NAMASKAR TO A BRAVE YOUNG GIRL
She gets a grant to study the tribals working in sugar mills. She goes to a village 20 km from Surat for a first-hand study of the tribal workers. (Do we, urbanites know what real India is? Let us see.)
The villagers do not allow the tribals to live in or near the village. The tribals stay in semi-arid areas away from civilisation. With considerable difficulties in searching and after walking for 4 km, she comes near a settlement. She wants to talk to the workers. But the tribals have a fear and suspicion of the non-tribals. The fear is built over past thousands of years. No tribal is ready to talk with her. Is their fear justified? Let us see.
While the young lady is in the settlement, there is a commotion. A young man — all covered with blood and bruises, carrying a two-year old child in his hands comes to the settlement. He is a tribal. He and his wife worked in a sugar mill as temporary workers. In the evening while they were returning home, some upper-caste goons came on two motor cycles. They beat up the husband mercilessly, threw the child in a cactus fence and kidnapped the wife and went away.
Our young lady enquires : “Why don’t you file a police complaint?” The tribals look at her with contempt and say — “Even the police will beat us.” This is the current state of India, current Gujarat. Now we know.
She returns to Ahmedabad and continues her study in Journalism. She visits a library and falls in love with a young boy.
She gets an internship assignment at a reputed news paper. She writes investigative stories for the paper. She is praised by the editor. Next day the story does not appear in the press because . . . . . someone paid the price (for not printing the news) to the editor.
The young lady, Mittal Patel scraps the idea of being an IAS officer, forgets journalism and decides single-handedly it necessary to fight for the cause of the oppressed nomads. One is reminded of the famous lines from Shri Rabindranath Tagore
spfu Å¡ lpL kzÎpu Lp¡B _p Aph¡, sp¡ A¡¼gp¡ Å_¡ f¡
Our great modern India which is growing rapidly, badly treats 50% of the population — women. If any one has doubts let me remind that recently (March-April, 2011) two chartered accountant ladies have committed suicides due to atrocities of their own families.
Then there are scheduled tribes, scheduled castes and nomads. I do not know the percentage. But may be 45% of the people. Total 72.5% people (50% women and 22.5% underprivileged men) are exposed to the exploitation by the upper-caste men. (These percentages are generalisations. They do not apply to many families. At the same time, outside Mumbai, they do apply to many people.)
The young lady — Mittal (Now Mrs. Patel) has now established Vicharata Samuday Samarthan Manch (Nomadic People’s Support Organisation) (VSSM). She is now working for the most under privileged people of India. Most of the nomadic people have no homes. Hence no ration cards, no election cards, no BPL (Below Poverty Line) cards. They live away from the upper-caste and somehow survive.
They have survived from times, even before Ramayan.
Since they have no voter cards, politicians are not interested in them. Government welfare schemes do not reach them.
Digest of Recent Important Foreign Decisions on Cross- Border Taxation – part one
Federal Court holds non-resident manager of portfolio of Australian shares for non-resident companies liable to tax in Australia:
The Federal Court on 8th September 2010 handed down a decision in Leighton v. FCT, (2010) FCA 1086 that dealt with taxation in Australia of a non-resident manager who was managing a portfolio of Australian shares for two non-resident companies.
Briefly, Mr. Leighton was, during the relevant period, a resident of Monaco and was not a resident of Australia. He was engaged by two companies, who were not tax resident in Australia and were incorporated in the British Virgin Islands and the Bahamas, to manage a portfolio of Australian shares for them and to provide other services incidental to the management services. Mr. Leighton opened a bank account in Australia and engaged a number of Australian brokers and an Australian custodian. The trading instructions were given by Mr. Leighton, on behalf of the two companies, from Monaco. The trading activities generated taxable income during the relevant period.
Non-residents are subject to tax in Australia only on income sourced in Australia. The judgment does not discuss whether the relevant income has a source in Australia and, presumably, assumes that it does.
After considering the facts, the judgment concludes that Mr. Leighton, in acting as a manager, was, during the relevant period, a trustee of a trust for the non-resident companies as beneficiaries. As such, he is liable for tax for the taxable profits under former section 98(3) of the Income Tax Assessment Act, 1936.
2. France: Foreign Tax Credit:
Limitation or denial of FTC following repo transactions on shares — Administrative Supreme Court opinion:
The Administrative Supreme Court has recently disclosed in its annual report an opinion rendered on 31 March 2009 (No. 382545), in answer to a prejudicial question from the French Tax Authorities (FTA). It dealt with the treatment of foreign-sourced dividends, where the distribution is made in between a sale-repurchase transaction on shares (i.e., dividend stripping). The FTA asked the Court to clarify the legal basis on which, for corporate income tax purposes, the use by resident companies of FTC attached to such dividend coupons could be denied or limited. Key elements of the opinion are summarised below.
(a) Clarification on the limitation applicable to the use of foreign tax credits (FTC), the so-called ‘règle du butoir’. Under Art. 220 of the General Tax Code, the use of a FTC by a resident company is limited to the ‘amount of French corporate income tax assessed on the corresponding income’, i.e., the FTC may only be deducted from that portion of French tax which corresponds to the income sourced in that particular foreign country. No provision, however, specifies whether the foreignsource income, used for the computation of the above-mentioned limitation, should be assessed on a net or gross basis.
In respect of foreign-source dividends, the Court’s opinion is that the income should be assessed on a net basis. This rule covers only expenses that (i) are directly related to the foreign-source income, and (ii) do not increase the value of any asset of the resident company. As a result, foreign withholding taxes and collection expenses directly related to the dividend coupon are deductible. Conversely, loan interest related to the purchase of the foreign shares are not. As a result, such expense will not reduce the portion of ‘corresponding income’ which limits the resident company’s entitlement to FTC.
In addition, the Court rejected the FTA’s position that the capital loss incurred on the resale of the shares should be deducted from any related dividend derived in between the purchase-resale transactions. Such capital losses are not expenses directly related to the foreign-sourced income (i.e., the dividend coupon).
(b) Clarification on the application of the ‘beneficial ownership’ clause. The Court opined that the beneficial ownership clause under a tax treaty (i) enables the FTA to deny the application of the reduced withholding tax rates on outbound payments under certain conditions (see TNS:2007-01-30:FR-1), but (ii) does not allow the FTA to deny (or limit) the use of FTC attached to foreign-sourced dividend coupons. Only the domestic general anti-avoidance rule (GAAR) set forth by Art. L 64 of the Tax Procedure Code (abus de droit) may authorise, where the related buy-sell transaction is ‘artificial’ and/or ‘seek to benefit from a literal application of legal provisions or decisions in contradiction with the objective set forth by the author of such provisions’, such a denial.
Note: Recently, the Administrative Supreme Court rejected the application of the GAAR to tax motivated buy-sell transactions on shares, insofar as the dividend accrues to a taxpayer who actually bears the risk attached to the status of a shareholder (see Administrative Supreme Court, 7 September 2009, No. 305586 and No. 305596, Axa and Sté Henri Golfard, respectively).
3. Belgium: Fixed base under Article 14:
Treaty between Belgium and Luxembourg — Court of Appeal Ghent decides Belgian-rented dwelling of Luxembourg resident self-employed business trainer constitutes fixed base:
On 20th October 2009, the Court of Appeal Ghent decided a case (recently published) X. v. Tax Administration concerning whether a rented dwelling in Belgium of a Luxembourg resident self-employed business trainer constitutes a fixed base under Art. 14(1) of the Belgium-Luxembourg tax treaty on income and capital of 17 September 1970 (the ‘Treaty’). Details of the case are summarised below.
(a) Facts:
The taxpayer was a resident of Luxembourg, who carried out activities as a self-employed business trainer in Belgium, where he visited Belgian companies. He stayed in a rented dwelling in Brugge, which he used as his contact address. The Belgian Tax Administration regarded the dwelling as a fixed base, but the taxpayer took the opposite view.
(b) Legal background:
Art. 14(1) of the Treaty provides that income derived by a resident of one of the contracting states in respect of professional services or other independent activities of a similar character shall be taxable only in that state, unless he has a fixed base regularly available to him in the other state for the purpose of performing his activities. If he has such a fixed base, the income may be taxed in the other state, but only so much of it as is attributable to that fixed base.
(c) Decision:
The Court followed the view of the Belgian Tax Administration.
The Court observed that the term ‘fixed base’ is neither defined in the Treaty, nor under Belgian domestic law. In addition, the Court considered that the term cannot be interpreted by means of the Commentary to Art. 7 (business profits) of the OECD Model Convention, because under the Treaty more detailed requirements apply for the existence of a permanent establishment than for a fixed base. Therefore, the term ‘fixed base’ has a wider scope.
The Court based its decision that the rented dwelling constitutes a fixed base on the presumption that the taxpayer does a substantial part of his study and preparation work in that dwelling. In this context, the Court held as decisive that the taxpayer has no other place to do his preparatory work and he used the dwelling as his contract address for his clients; moreover:
— the taxpayer receives specialist journals and documentation at, and had purchased office equipment for, that dwelling;
— the Belgian address was stated on his invoices, as a result of which the Court presumed that the administrative formalities wer
(2011) 38 VST 124 (Mad.) Sunder India Limited and others v. Commissioner of Commercial Tax, Ezhilagam, Chennai and others.
Facts :
The petitioners were dealers in paper-based decorative laminated sheets, made of paper, and treated the same as ‘paper-based product’. The Commissioner of Commercial Taxes issued a clarification dated 17th August 2005, that the products were ‘decorative laminates’ and taxable @ 16%. According to the petitioners the rate of tax applicable on such goods was 10%, thus they sought for review of aforesaid clarification. On review, the Commissioner issued a clarification dated 23rd March 2006 and stated that the paper based laminated decorative sheets are taxable @ 10%. The said clarification was issued after taking note of an earlier order of Tamil Nadu Taxation Special Tribunal. However, later on based upon the Supreme Court’s decision in a matter under Central Excise, wherein the impugned product was held as falling under a different tariff entry than that of paper-based product, the Commissioner again issued a clarification, on 30th May 2008, that the impugned product is correctly liable to tax @ 16%. Thus, tax was sought to be levied at such rate for past periods and notices were issued to reopen the completed assessments also. On writ petitions;
Held :
(1) That the Tamil Nadu Taxation Special Tribunal delivered its decision on 12th April, 1996, which was based upon expert opinion received from the Joint Director of Industries regarding nature of product. The finding was accepted by the Department. The entry contained in the Schedule has not undergone any change. Thus, the Circular issued by the Commissioner, relying on the interpretation given by the Supreme Court in respect to Central Excise Tariff, could not be sustained. The Department was not justified in relying on the Circular for reopening assessments.
(2) That the clarification issued by the Commissioner could not be applied retrospectively.
(3) That since the Department was not firm in its view with regard to the percentage of tax, the benefit of doubt should be extended to the dealers.
(4) That the contention of the Department, that the writ petitions challenging the notices to reopen the assessments were premature in nature, could not be sustained. Similarly, the revised orders passed were also bad in law.
(2011) 38 VST 45 (Mad.) State of Tamil Nadu v. A.N.S. Guptha and Sons
Facts :
The respondent was a dealer under the Tamil Nadu General Sales Tax Act, 1959. An inspection was made by the Enforcement Wing Officer on which day the dealer did not produce manufacturing-cumstock register in the prescribed form. However the dealer produced all his accounts at the time of assessment, wherein he claimed certain items of sale as exempt from tax. To verify the claim with reference to bought note purchases, summons were issued to various sellers, out of which some of the summons were returned unserved with the endorsement ‘no such address’ and on the basis of this the Assessing Authority treated the bought note purchases as bogus and, therefore, the sale of such articles as taxable. The dealer came forward to produce the persons to establish its case, but the Assessing Officer refused to give opportunity for cross-examination to the dealer stating that he could not conduct a Court of law. The assessment orders were passed disallowing the bought note purchases of items exempt to tax and also levied penalty. The first Appellate Authority as well as the Tribunal allowed the appeal of the dealer. On a revision petition by the State;
Held :
(1) That an opportunity should have been given to the dealer and the refusal by the Department vitiated the order of assessment. When finding of facts had categorically been recorded by both the Appellate Authorities in favour of the dealer, there was no reason to interfere with the order of the Tribunal. The question of law sought to be raised by the Department was purely question of facts.
(2) That the Assessing Authority could not simply take into consideration the report of Enforcement Wing and should have decided the matter on the merits, independently unbiased and unaffected by any other subsequent factors. The Assessing Officer had basically committed a mistake in stating that he could not conduct a Court of law. Such an attitude of the Assessing Authority in totally rejecting the contentions of the dealer without applying the basic principles of law was not legal and bad in law.
(2011) 21 STR 605 (Tri.-Mumbai) — Punjab State C & W.C. Ltd. v. Commissioner of S.T., Mumbai.
Facts:
The appellants filed their service tax return for the period April 2003 to September 2003 on 24- 10-2003.
A query received from the Department on 16-1-2004 to explain amount paid by them in the return, was explained by appellants vide letter dated 4-2-2004 and paid the service tax on 22-3-2004. On 4-10-2006, the appellants were issued show-cause notice for payment of service tax for the period 14- 5-2003 to 28-5-2003.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that the duty for the disputed period was paid along with interest on 22-3-2004 and show-cause notice was issued on 4-10-2006 which was beyond the statutory period of one year. The appellants took this ground before the Commissioner (Appeals) but it was not considered. Hence the impugned order was set aside and matter was sent to the Commissioner (Appeals) first to decide the limitation issue, if appellants succeeded on limitation issue, merits were not required to be considered. If limitation issue failed, then the case was to be decided on the basis of merits.
(2011) 21 STR 621 (Tri.-Bang.) — Tata Motors Insurance Services Ltd. v. Commissioner of S.T., Bangalore.
Facts:
A company registered under the category ‘Authorised Service Station’, received commission from finance companies, commission from insurance companies and incentives from its principal for achievement of targets. The appellant-company was engaged in the said activities without intimating the Department about the same and without following statutory formalities including payment of tax, for the period July 2003 to September 2005. The appellant had paid Rs.6,84,254 towards the demand confirmed against them in the year 2005. The Commissioner sent showcause notice and fixed personal hearing at 1600 hrs. on either of three alternate dates viz. 25th January or 29th January or 31st January. The appellant sought adjournment of hearing on 31-1-2007.
The adjournment was rejected and ex parte order was passed.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that giving the choice of three dates is considered as one date for hearing and the appellants could appear before the Commissioner on any one of the dates. Statutorily, the appellants were entitled to request for three adjournments. The appellants sought adjournment of hearing fixed on the last date indicated in the notice which cannot be considered as adjournment of earlier two dates. Denial of personal hearing was violation of its statutory right and also violation of principles of natural justice. Hence the order of the Commissioner was vacated and the case was remanded to the Commissioner.
(2011) 21 STR 626 (Tri.-Bang.) — Kerala State Beverages (Mfg. & Mktg.) Corp. v. CCEx., Trivandrum.
Facts:
The appellant-corporation, an undertaking of the Kerala State Government, had the monopoly of procuring foreign liquor (Indian Made) manufactured in various private distilleries during the period of dispute. The appellant sold these products either through their own outlets or through independent dealers and paid sales tax thereon. Treating as commission income or revenue, service tax was demanded, whereas the appellant contended it as the case of sale and the income earned therefrom as trading profit. The Department was not able to rebut the claim of the appellants that service tax was demanded on the sale consideration.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that it was a prima facie case of purchasing liquor from the distilleries and where there is sale of goods, there can be no levy of service tax on its value. Hence, prima facie, no service tax was leviable on the amount collected. Waiver of pre-deposit and stay of recovery was granted.
(2011) 21 STR 631 (Tri.-Ahmd.) — Jay Dwarkadish Engg. & Electricals Contractor v. CCex., Rajkot.
Facts:
The appellants were engaged in construction service. During the period from April 2007 to September 2007, there was delay of 20 to 47 days in making the payment of service tax. Delayed payment was made with interest. Penalty was imposed on the appellant u/s. 76 of the Finance Act, 1994. Instead of appearing the appellants filed the written representation stating the payment of tax along with interest was made and reliance on the Tribunal decision, in U.B. Engineering Ltd. v. Commissioner, 2010 (20) STR 818 (Tribunal), to support their contention that where an assessee pays service tax with interest and informs the Central Excise Officer, the Central Excise Officer shall not issue a show-cause notice.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that appellants paid the service tax with interest and the Department was informed of the same through ST-3, the provisions of section 73(3) of the Finance Act is applicable and in such cases no show-cause notice need to be issued. Allowing the appeal, the penalty u/s. 76 was held unsustainable.
(2011) 21 STR 603 (Tri.-Chennai) — Ramesh Enterprises v. CCE, Tirunelveli.
Facts:
Original authority passed the order-in-original without offering personal hearing opportunity to the assessee. After observing the principle of natural justice, the Commissioner (Appeals) annulled the order and directed the lower authority to adjudicate afresh. The Department filed an appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) on the ground that the Commissioner (Appeals) had no power to remand.
Held:
Section 35A of the Central Excise Act, 1944 has not been made applicable to service tax matters u/s. 83 of the Finance Act, 1994. Section 85(4) does not preclude the Commissioner (Appeals) from passing a remand order if he thinks fit. Hence held that since the principle of natural justice was not followed and considering the amount of demand, the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) remanding the case was upheld and appeal of the Department was rejected.
Comment:
The above two judgments are contradictory.
(2011) 21 STR 644 (Tri.-Mumbai) — Positive Packaging Industries Ltd. v. CCEx., Raigad.
Facts:
The original authority rejected the refund claim of the assessee in relation to CHA as well as commission agency. The Commissioner (Appeals) held that rejection of refund claim in relation to CHA and commission agent was not correct and the claim was required to be sanctioned after necessary verification and accordingly remanded the case back. The Revenue was in appeal against the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) on the ground that the Commissioner (Appeals) did not have power to remand.
Held:
It was observed that the law on the point of jurisdiction of the Commissioner (Appeals) on the subject of remand is well settled and it has been held that the Commissioner (Appeals) has no power to remand the matter and he has to decide the matter himself in case of any infirmity in the order passed by the adjudicating authority. It was held that the Commissioner (Appeals) having found that the findings on two issues by original authority were not sustainable, it was necessary for the Commissioner (Appeals) to analyse the materials on record and to arrive at appropriate finding on the claim of the assessee and not to leave the matter for verification by the adjudicating authority. Hence the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) was set aside and matter was remanded to the Commissioner (Appeals).
(2011) 21 STR 663 (Tri.-Mumbai) — Rajdeep Buildcon Pvt. Ltd. v. CCEx., Aurangabad.
Facts:
The assessee paid excess service tax in the month of October 2007 of Rs.1,00,924. Such excess was adjusted by the assessee against payables for the month of January 2008 and February 2008. Intimation for adjustment of excess payment was filed after 15 days. The Department issued show-cause notice to the assessee for payment of service tax of Rs.1,00,924 for the period January 2008 to February 2008, along with interest and penalty. Lower adjudicating authority confirmed the demand, however the Commissioner (Appeals) dropped the same.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that there was no dispute regarding excess payment of service tax by the assessee in October 2007 and eligibility of the assessee for refund of such excess payment. Also the assessee has intimated, to Range Superintendent, about the adjustment of excess payment but after 15 days and it was only a technical default and there is no short payment of service tax. Upholding the order, the appeal by the Revenue was rejected.
(2011) 21 STR 668 (Tri.-Mumbai) — CBAY Systems (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. Commissioner of CCEx, Mumbai
Facts:
The appellants utilised certain services for export of goods and claimed refund of the service tax on such services under Notification No. 41/2007 S.T. The refund claim was denied on the ground that the appellants were not registered under the category of ‘Business Auxiliary Service’.
Held:
CBEC has issued clarification, in the circular dated 12-3-2009, in regards to the above-mentioned issue stating that Notification No. 41/2007-S.T. provides exemption by way of refund for specified services used for export of goods. Granting refund to exporters, on taxable services that he receives and uses for export do not require verification of registration certificate of the supplier of service. Therefore, refund should be granted in such cases. The procedural violations by the service provider needs to be dealt separately. Accordingly, the denial of refund claim on the ground that the appellants were not registered under the ‘Business Auxiliary Service’ was not sustainable and the appeal was allowed.
(2011) 21 STR 695 (Tri.-Mumbai) — Multi Organics Pvt. Ltd. v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Nagpur.
Facts:
The assessee appealed against the denial of CENVAT credit of the service tax paid by their job worker in the common order of the Commissioner (Appeals). However, the said order held the demand to be time-barred and also refrained from imposing penalty u/s. 11AC. This was challenged in the Revenue’s appeal.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that the Department relied on Bombay Dyeing & manufacturing Co. Ltd. v. Commissioner, [2001 (135) ELT 1392 (Tribunal)] which is contradictory to the decision relied on by the appellants in SPIC (HCD) Ltd. v. Commissioner of Central Excise, Chennai, [2006 (201) ELT 386 (Tri- Chennai)] for granting CENVAT credit for the service tax paid by the job worker. According to one of the well-established tenets of judicial discipline, where there are contradictory decisions of two Coordinate Benches, the later one would prevail. Therefore the view taken in the SPIC (HCD) Ltd. would be appropriate precedent. The assessee’s appeal for CENVAT credit of service tax paid by job worker to be allowed. Consequently, the Revenue’s appeal was dismissed.
2011) 21 STR 589 (Tri.-Del.) — CCEx., Ludhiana v. Mayfair Resorts.
Facts:
The Department was of the view that the amount declared during the course of survey u/s. 133 of Income-tax Act should be treated as receipt for rendition of service. The assessee produced a letter submitted to the income-tax authority which exhibited the date of findings. The letter nowhere stated that the amount was attributable to consideration from provision of service. The Department contended that the disclosure was subject matter of A.Y. 2005-2006 and the same should be considered as consideration for provision of service. The said amount was reflected in the balance sheet as well.
Held:
The matter was in respect of financial year 2004- 2005. The balance sheet did not disclose that the amount was attributable to provision of services. No evidence was produced by the Department. Therefore, the appeal was dismissed.
Appellant, a service receiver, liable to tax under reverse charge mechanism, did not pay service tax, but paid the same when the omission was pointed out — Appellant under the impression that there was no need to pay interest — No reply to the letter of appellant regarding payment of service tax — Department initiated proceed-ings by issuing the show-cause notice and even though the appellant paid interest as soon as the show-cause notice was issued, penalties were imposed — Held, for penalty imposed for sup-pressing value of service tax, there was no need for the appellant to resort to suppression since whatever tax was to be paid they were eligible for CENVAT credit — By delaying the payment of service tax, the appellant had to pay interest on the amount which was not available as CENVAT credit — Penalty not invokable.
Rama Multi-Tech Ltd. v. Commissioner of Service Tax, Ahmedabad.
Appellant, a service receiver, liable to tax under reverse charge mechanism, did not pay service tax, but paid the same when the omission was pointed out — Appellant under the impression that there was no need to pay interest — No reply to the letter of appellant regarding payment of service tax — Department initiated proceed-ings by issuing the show-cause notice and even though the appellant paid interest as soon as the show-cause notice was issued, penalties were imposed — Held, for penalty imposed for sup-pressing value of service tax, there was no need for the appellant to resort to suppression since whatever tax was to be paid they were eligible for CENVAT credit — By delaying the payment of service tax, the appellant had to pay interest on the amount which was not available as CENVAT credit — Penalty not invokable.
Facts:
The appellant availed services of Machine Maintenance & Repair from Germany and paid the required amount to the service provider in foreign currency. The appellant did not pay service tax since the service provider did not have their office in India. They paid service tax when the omission was pointed out. The mistake occurred because the payment of service received was to be made by the head office and services were received in factory. The appellant was under the impression that they were not required to pay interest and after payment of service tax they had intimated the department about the same. No reply to this letter was received and the Department initiated proceedings by issuing the show-cause notice and even though the appellant paid the interest as soon as the show-cause notice was issued, penalties were imposed.
Held:
After receiving the intimation from the appellant, the Central Excise Officer should determine the interest payable and communicate to the appellant and if the appellant did not pay the same, they had a period of one year to issue the show-cause notice. Without intimating the appellant that he is liable to pay interest, show cause notice was issued. At least after issuance of show-cause notice when the appellant paid the amount of interest, further proceedings should have been dropped. In respect of penalty, it was held that there was no need for the appellant to resort to suppression since whatever tax was to be paid they were eligible for CENVAT credit and by delaying the payment of service tax, the appellant had to pay interest on the amount which was not available as CENVAT credit; Hence the Tribunal found no justification to sustain penalty.
(2011) TIOL 196 ITAT-Mum. Essem Capital Markets Ltd. v. ITO ITA No. 6814/Mum./2006 and 5349/Mum./2007 A.Ys.: 2003-2004 and 2004-2005 Dated: 25-2-2011
be denied on the ground that the assessee is not the owner of the
property which he undertakes to develop, nor can it be denied on the
ground that the development agreement is not registered — Merely because
the commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998, it does
not mean that the assessee has commenced the development and
construction of the project unless the assessee has taken some effective
steps on the site.
Facts:
The assessee entered
into a development agreement with M/s. Jay Jay Construction Co. on
12-10-1998. This development agreement, which was not registered, was in
respect of development right to construct a building ‘C’ on a plot of
land on which two buildings were already constructed (not by the
assessee). For the assessment years under consideration, the assessee
claimed deduction u/s.80IB(10) of the Act in respect of profits derived
from developing and building a housing project viz. ‘Building C’, which
claim was not accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) on the ground that
the commencement certificate issued by the local authority was not in
the name of the assessee; development agreement was not registered;
commencement certificate was obtained prior to 1-10-1998 and building
‘C’ is not a separate project.
Aggrieved the assessee preferred
an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the order of the AO and also had
an additional objection viz. that the condition regarding the area of
the plot is not fulfilled.
Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
The
Tribunal noted that subsequent to the two buildings being constructed
on the said plot, the plan of building ‘C,’ in respect of which the
assessee acquired the development right, was approved by the local
authority. The original plan was approved in 1995, but final approval
was given to the modified plan 10-9-1998 and permission for construction
of the building was finally given on 9-10-1998. The Tribunal also noted
that in the original approved plan/layout building ‘C’ was not shown.
Having observed that the commencement certificate (CC) was in the name
of the original owner since the title of the property was not in the
name of the assessee, the Tribunal held that:
(a) merely because
the commencement certificate is issued in the name of the original
landowner, the assessee cannot be deprived of deduction u/s.80IB(10) as
nowhere it is a mandate of the said provision that the assessee must be
the owner of the property which he undertakes to develop;
(b)
merely because the agreement is not registered, the assessee cannot be
deprived of the deduction u/s.80IB(10) as the assessee has developed
building ‘C’;
(c) merely because the CC was obtained prior to
1-10-1998, that does not mean that the assessee has commenced the
development and commencement of the building ‘C’;
(d) CC was
granted for the first time on 24-2-1995 and hence, building ‘C’ was not
part of the original project. It observed that on the said plot the
owner had constructed building ‘A’ consisting of 95 flats and tenements
and also building ‘B’. Just because the plot of land remained the same,
it cannot be construed that building ‘C’ is a part of the original
housing project;
As regards the objection of the CIT(A) on the
area of plot of land on which the project was constructed, the Tribunal
on facts found that there was no clearcut finding by the AO and CIT(A)
hence it restored the issue to the file of the AO to verify whether the
area of the plot on which the building ‘C’ is constructed is one acre or
not.
The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.
(2011) 21 STR 504 (Tri.-Del.) — Tangence Solutions (India) Pvt. Ltd. v. CCEx., Noida
Facts:
The assessee was denied rebate claim on export of services on the ground that services of group insurance, health policy, medical policy and housekeeping services are not ‘input services’.
The assessee claimed that the term ‘input service’ is very wide and covers all services connected with the business activities. The appellants relied on the Madras Tribunal’s judgment in the case of Sundaram Fasteners Ltd. v. CCE, Chennai, (2010 TIOL 1342) and Tribunal’s decision in the case of CCE, Raipur v. Raipur Rotocast Ltd., (2010 (18) STR 466) for claiming CENVAT credit of service tax paid on group insurance. Moreover, they contended that in accordance with CAS-IV, expenses forming part of cost of providing services, should be considered as eligible ‘input service’.
The Department contended as under:
(i) Evidence was not shown to the effect that the house-keeping services were activities relating to business.
(ii) Group insurance, health policy, personal accident policy, etc. were not required to be provided mandatorily by the appellants and the same were provided as a welfare measure.
(iii) Drawing analogy from CAS-IV is not relevant as CAS-IV deals with valuation of captively consumed goods in manufacturing sector.
Held:
(i) CENVAT credit was allowed on procurement of house-keeping services as these were clearly necessary for rendition of service.
(ii) CENVAT credit on group insurance, health policy, etc. though forms part of cost of services rendered, the same could not be treated as ‘input service’ automatically. Moreover, since the group insurance was a welfare measure in the present case, the same could not be considered as integrally connected with the provision of service and therefore, was held to be ineligible.
(2011) 21 STR 503 (Tri.-Chennai) — Nagappa Motors v. CCEx., Madurai.
Facts:
The assessee provided services under ‘authorised service station’ to various customers of Hero Honda Motors Ltd. The service tax was collected from Hero Honda Motors Ltd. and only 50% of the amount collected was deposited into the Government Treasury. Section 11D of the Central Excise Act was invoked for recovery of amount collected from the manufacturer along with interest and penalty.
Held:
During the period under consideration, section 11D was applicable when the amount was collected from buyers. Since Hero Honda Motors Ltd. was manufacturer and not the buyer of the goods, the appellants were not liable to pay such amount collected. Since amount need not be deposited, interest and penalty was also not leviable.
Comment:
Section 11D was amended through the Finance Act, 2008 and Ss. (1A) has been inserted for plugging such loop-hole in the Central Excise law and therefore, now excess amount received from any person as excise duty needs to be deposited into the Government Treasury.
(2011) 21 STR 500 (Guj.) — CCEx. v. Steel Cast Ltd.
Facts:
The assessee applied for registration under the category of ‘management consultancy services’. However, the adjudicating authority rejected the application and issued a show-cause notice invoking extended period of limitation. Adjudicating order did not record any specific finding as regards suppression of facts and value thereof. The respondents appealed before the Commissioner (Appeals) and contended that the revenue was reflected in the balance sheet and therefore, there was no suppression of facts. However, the Commissioner (Appeals) did not deal with the issue.
On appeal, the Tribunal held that though the services fall under ‘management consultancy services’, the extended period of limitation is not justified in view of bona fide interpretation of law, entertaining belief and due to confusion prevailing during the period under consideration.
Held:
The matter in relation to ‘suppression of facts with intent to evade tax’ was a question of facts which was already answered by the Tribunal in favour of the assessee. Moreover, the Revenue did not put any contrary arguments to findings of Tribunal. Therefore, the appeal was dismissed.
(2011) 31 STT-51 (Delhi) — Pearey Lal Bhawan Association v. Satya Developers (P) Ltd.
Facts:
The society, the owner of a building on leasehold land entered into lease deed with the lessee in October 2006 for the premises on the ground floor and also entered into agreement for the maintenance of common services and facilities of the said premises. Service tax was levied from 1-6-2007 on renting of immovable property for business purposes. The narrow issue in the dispute relates to whether service tax is to be borne by the lessee, the levy being an indirect tax which is required to be deposited after collecting from the user of the service. According to the plaintiff-society, by virtue of section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994 read with sections 12A and 12B of the Central Excise Act, the levy is to be borne by the user of the premises or services, whereas according to the lessee-defendant, the contract between the parties provided that the lessee would pay all taxes, charges, ground rent, house tax, easements and other outgoings imposed by the local authority, etc.
Held:
(i) The Court observed that the parties while entering into contract did not visualise that the tax would be levied on lease or rent of immovable property and there was no dispute that the tax was levied after the agreement was entered into. Referring to the Supreme Court in All India Federation of Tax Practitioners v. UOI, (2007) 10 STT 166 dealing with the nature of service tax liability the Court observed that the Apex Court had held that excise duty and customs are consumption-specific duties which do not constitute a charge on the business but on the client. Similarly, the Court also observed that in All India Tax Payers Welfare Association’s case (2008) 5 STT 136 (Mad.), it was observed that according to section 65 of the Finance Act, the provider of service only being an assessee is to collect service tax from the users of service as contemplated under the sections.
(ii) The Court further observed that sections 12A and 12B of the Central Excise Act were made applicable to service tax law vide section 83 of the Finance Act, 1994 to prescribe that the provider of service has the obligation to indicate the quantum of tax and that there is a presumption that incidence of duty is passed on to the buyer. Referring to section 64A of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the Court observed that the said section visualises and provides for situations where levies of tax are imposed after the contract is entered into.
(iii) In view of this, unless a different intention appears from the contract, in case of imposition or increase of tax subsequent to drawing a contract, the parties shall be entitled to be paid such tax or increase. In the instant case, even in the absence of explicit provision to enable lessor to receive the service tax component, there is sufficient internal indication in the Act through section 83 read with sections 12A and 12B of the Central Excise Act that the levy is an indirect tax cap-able of being collected from the user, the lessee in this case. Thus, the plaintiff was entitled to the amounts claimed from the lessee.
Periodicity for ‘I’ form under CST Act, 1956
Few aspects of periodicity of ‘I’ forms are discussed below:
This form is issued by Special Economic Zone Unit to its supplier when the transaction is inter-State purchase from such supplier. The sales against ‘I’ forms are fully exempt from levy of CST in the hands of suppliers. ‘I’ form is issued as per section 8(8) of the CST Act, 1956. The said section reads as under:
“(8) The provisions of Ss. (6) and (7) shall not apply to any sale of goods made in the course of inter-State trade or commerce unless the dealer selling such goods furnishes to the authority referred to in Ss. (6), a declaration in the prescribed manner on the prescribed form obtained from the authority referred to in Ss. (5), duly filled in and signed by the registered dealer to whom such goods are sold.
Explanation — For the purpose of Ss. (6), the expression ‘special economic zone’ has the meaning assigned to it in clause (iii) to Explanation 2 to the proviso to section 3 of the Central Excise Act, 1944.”
In light of the above provision, the Central Government has prescribed Rule 12(11) in the CST (Registration & Turnover) Rules, 1957. The said Rule is reproduced below for ready reference:
“12(11)The dealer, selling goods in the course of inter-State trade or commerce to a registered dealer under sub-section (6) or under sub-section (8) of section 8 or under subsection (1) of section 5 of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 read with section 76A of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962), shall furnish a declaration for the purposes of Ss. (8) of the said section 8 in Form I duly countersigned and certified by the Authority specified by the Central Government authorising the establishment of the unit in the Special Economic Zone (notified u/s. 76A of the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962) that the sale of goods is for the purpose of establishing a unit in such Zone.”
The relevant part of form ‘I’ is reproduced below for ready reference:
It can be seen that the ‘I’ form can be for sales made against one purchase order of the customer. There is no provision for clubbing more than one purchase order in one ‘I’ form. This position can be compared with Rule 12(1) about issue of ‘C’ forms. The said Rule is reproduced below for ready reference.
“12. (1) The declaration and the certificate referred to in Ss. (4) of section 8 shall be in Forms C and D, respectively; [Provided that Form C in force before the commencement of the Central Sales Tax Registration and Turnover (Amendment) Rules, 1974, or before the commencement of the Central Sales Tax Registration and Turnover (Amendment) Rules, 1976, may also be used up to the 31st December, 5 [1980], with suitable modifications:]
Provided further that a single declaration may cover all transactions of sale, which take place in a quarter of a financial year between the same two dealers.”
It can be seen that under this rule, the sale transactions effected in one quarter can be included in one ‘C’ form. This suggests that although the ‘C’ forms are supposed to be against each sale, however, by giving specific provision, it is provided that the sales transactions in a quarter can be included in one ‘C’ form.
In Rule 12(11) of CST (R & T) Rules, 1957, about ‘I’ form, there is no such provision allowing clubbing of transactions of one quarter in one ‘I’ form. In absence of the same, the natural outcome will be that against each sale, one ‘I’ form will be required. This position also gets confirmed by prescription in body of ‘I’ form. The form itself specifies that all the sale bills against one purchase order can be included in one ‘I’ form. It is a fact that one purchase order is one transaction. There can be more than one delivery in relation to such purchase order and accordingly more than one sale bill also may be prepared. However, it will be considered to be one transaction and therefore the form includes all the sale bills against one purchase order to be included in one ‘I’ form.
Howsoever, there is no facility to include more than one purchase order in one ‘I’ form, though they may be within one quarter. Therefore, the position is for one purchase order one ‘I’ form is required.
It is also a fact that if the declaration forms are not as per the provisions of the Rules, they are considered to be invalid. There are number of judgments wherein it is held that the procedure regarding issue of declaration forms should be strictly followed, lest the forms will be invalid and the claim may not be allowed. Reference can be made to judgment in case of India Agencies (Regd.) v. Additional Commissioner of Commercial Taxes, Bangalore, (139 STC 329) (SC). Supreme Court has observed as under:
“(1) The dealer has to strictly follow the procedure and produce the relevant materials required under that Rule. Without producing the specified documents as prescribed thereunder a dealer cannot claim the benefits provided u/s. 8 of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956.
(2) Section 8(4)(a) of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956, specifically provides that the provisions of Ss. (1) shall not apply to any sale in the course of inter-state trade or commerce unless the dealer selling the goods furnishes to the prescribed authority in the prescribed manner a declaration duly filled and signed by the registered dealer to whom the goods are sold containing the prescribed particulars in a prescribed form obtained from the prescribed authority.”
Therefore, the legal position appears to be clear that unless the form is as per relevant Rule it will not be valid and will not be allowable. Thus, in respect of ‘I’ forms special care is required to be taken that they are per transaction and not on quarterly basis.
SIGNIFICANT AMENDMENTS IN CENVAT CREDIT
1.1 Scope of ‘Inputs’/Input Services — Subject of extensive litigations:
The scope of ‘inputs’ and ‘input services’ eligible to CENVAT credit under the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 (CCR) has been subject of extensive judicial controversy having significant implications.
The Supreme Court had interpreted the scope of ‘inputs’ narrowly in the case of Maruti Suzuki Ltd. v. CCE, (2009) 240 ELT 41 (SC).
In Chemplast Ltd. v. CCE, (2010) 17 STR 253, it was held that ‘input services’ definition including activities relating to business cannot be interpreted to include post-manufacturing activities. In Kbace Tech Pvt. Ltd. (2010) 18 STR 281, a narrow interpretation of ‘input service’ was made on the basis of Supreme Court ruling in Maruti Suzuki (supra).
In the mean time, the Bombay High Court in a landmark ruling in Coca Cola India Pvt. Ltd. v. CCE, (2009) 15 STR 657 (Bom.) held that scope of ‘input services’ is very wide to cover all business related services.
However, in CCE v. Manikgarh Cements Works, (2010) 18 STR 275 (Tri.-Mumbai), the Tribunal, held that the Bombay High Court ruling in Coca Cola case has been impliedly overruled by the Supreme Court ruling in Maruti Suzuki in regard to inputs, and a narrow interpretation was given to the scope of ‘input service’. This ruling was confirmed by the Bombay High Court in CCE v. Manikgarh Cement, (2010) 20 STR 456 (Bom.).
In a subsequent ruling by the Bombay High Court in CCE v. Ultratech Cement Ltd., (2010) 20 STR 577 (Bom.), after considering the Supreme Court ruling in Maruti Suzuki and the Bombay High Court ruling in Coca Cola, a wide interpretation has been given to the scope of ‘input services’ eligible to CENVAT credit.
Amidst all this, in a subsequent ruling, the Supreme Court in Ramala Sahkari Chini Mills Ltd. (2010) 260 ELT 321 (SC) doubted the Supreme Court ruling in Maruti Suzuki and has referred the matter to a larger Bench.
On this backdrop, significant and far-reaching changes have been made in CCR w.e.f. 1-4-2011, in particular relating to scope of ‘inputs’/ ‘input services’ eligible to credit rule providing for proportionate credit rules, point of credit availment, etc.
The more important amendments, essentially from a service provider’s perspective are discussed hereafter.
1.2 Government clarification:
Relevant extract from the Department clarification dated 28-2-2011 explaining the amendments is as under:
Para 1.1
The changes in the Cenvat Credit Rules are guided inter alia by the following considerations:
(a) Describe the scope of eligible inputs and input services more clearly so as to minimise disputes in their interpretation;
(b) Eliminate distortions and areas of tax avoidance arising from differential treatment of goods and services used for similar purposes;
(c) Provide a practical scheme for the segregation of Cenvat credits used in respect of final products and output services where they are partially exempted with condition that no such credits shall be taken;
(d) Liberalise the provisions in certain areas to meet the legitimate demands of business;
Overall comments:
An overall study of the amendments in CCR in totality clearly indicates that the CENVAT credit benefit of service tax paid on input services, would be substantially curtailed with effect from 1-4-2011.
The rate of service tax was increased from 5% to 10% during a short period of about 15 months. At that time, questions were posed before the Government, as to how would the business and end consumers absorb the 100% increase in a short time. At that time, Government had explained to the effect that impact of increase in the rate of service tax would be substantially neutralised by introduction of CENVAT credit mechanism across goods and services. The amendments are clearly against the stated position of the Government.
Further, it is the cardinal principle of VAT/GST tax system prevalent in over 100 countries that taxes paid on expenditure incurred for the purpose of business can be set off against VAT/GST payable at the output stage. Amendments in CENVAT credit denying credit of service tax paid on business expenses, is against the principles of VAT/ GST system prevalent world-wide.
Further, amendments do not appear to be trade/ taxpayer-friendly in the backdrop of imminent introduction of GST regime.
2. Exempted services:
Definition of ‘exempted services’ in Rule 2(e) of CCR has been amended to include taxable service, which is partially exempted, on the condition that no credit of inputs/input services used for taxable service shall be taken.
An Explanation has been added to clarify that ‘exempted services’ includes trading.
Comments:
(a) It is commonly found that a person is often engaged in trading activity (buying and selling of goods/services). The same could exist in one or more of the following combinations:
- Only trading
- Manufacturing and trading
- Services and trading
- Manufacturing, services and trading
As regards pure trading activity, it was very clear that benefit of CENVAT credit (viz. Service Tax paid on input services and excise duty paid on inputs/capital goods) would not be available to such dealer.
In Metro Shoes Pvt. Ltd. v. CCE, (2008) 10 STR 382 (Tri.-Mumbai) it was observed as under:
“. . . . . . Credit availed on the services which are directly/wholly attributable to the trading activity is ineligible to be availed as input service credit.”
In regard to persons engaged in trading activities along with manufacturing/services/or both, there was no clarity as regards availment of CENVAT credit on common input services.
In the case of Orion Appliances Ltd. v. CST, (2010) 19 STR 205 (Tri.-Ahd.) where the assessee, providing taxable services and engaged in trading activity, availed CENVAT credit on iput services used for taxable services as well as trading activity, the Tribunal held as under:
Trading activity is nothing but purchase and sales and cannot be called a service and therefore it cannot be considered as exempted service.
Rules 6(2) and 6(3) of CCR only deal with a situation where service provider is providing taxable and exempted services. Therefore, since trading activity is not an exempted service, Rule 6 cannot be applied to such a situation.
(b) On this backdrop, the burning issue of common input services in regard to trading activity is sought to be addressed by treating ‘trading’ as ‘exempted service’ through insertion of an Explanation in Rule 2(e) of CCR which defines ‘exempted services’.
This is a significant amendment, spelling out an important policy perspective, which is likely to result in curtailment on CENVAT credit available to service providers involved in trading business. It is felt that a clarification need to be issued to the effect that the amendment would be effective 1-4-201
Further, one can understand ‘trading activities’ being treated on similar lines as ‘exempted services’ for the limited purpose of determination of proportionate credit under Rule 6 of CCR. However, amendment made in section 2(e) of CCR, is likely to result in larger legal issues as to whether ‘trading activity’ can be regarded as ‘service’ at all so as to be regarded as ‘exempted services’.
(c) It seems that all services in respect of which, abatement is claimed (in terms of Notification No. 1/2006-ST) would now get treated as ‘exempted services’. Thus services like mandap keeper construction of complex commercial or industrial construction, catering, etc. where abatement is allowed subject to the condition that CENVAT credit is not availed, would all be now treated as ‘exempt servi
ITO v. Galaxy Saws P. Ltd. ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Mumbai Before Rajendra Singh (AM) and V. D. Rao (JM) ITA No. 3747/Mum./2009 A.Y.: 2005-06. Decided on: 11-3-2011 Counsel for revenue/assessee: Pawan Ved/ Jitendra Jain
Facts:
During the year the assessee sold its office premises for Rs.96 lakh. Its book value was Rs.3.29 lakh. However, the assessee revalued the said premises at Rs.97.44 lakh. The gain on revaluation of Rs.94.15 lakh was credited to revaluation reserve. Based on the revalued figure, the loss on sale of the premises was determined at Rs.1.44 lakh.
During the year the assessee had returned its income as per section 115JB. According to the AO, the revaluation of property made by the assessee was only a device to reduce the book profit. Further, he also relied on the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Veekaylal Investment Pvt. Ltd. (249 ITR 597). Therefore, the book profit as computed by the assessee was adjusted by him by adding the sum of Rs.92.71 lac to the book profit. On appeal, the CIT(A) following the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. (255 ITR 273) allowed the appeal.
Before the Tribunal the Revenue relied on the decision of the Karnataka high Court in the case of CIT v. Brindavan Beverages Ltd., (321 ITR 197) in which case, according to the Revenue, the judgment in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. was considered. It also referred to the observation of the Supreme Court in the case of Motibhai Phulabhai Patel & Co. (AIR 1970 SC 829) that no rule of law should be interpreted so as to permit or encourage its circumvention. It pointed out that the assessee had not revalued all its assets and he had revalued only the immovable property, which makes it clear that the assessee had used it as a device to avoid tax.
Held:
Relying on the Supreme Court decision in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd., the Tribunal noted that once the profit and loss accounts prepared as per Part II and Part III of the Schedule VI of the Companies Act and adopted at the Annual General Meeting of the company, the net profit disclosed in such accounts can only be adjusted for items specified in Explanation I to section 115JB(2).
In respect of the decision of the Karnataka High Court in the case of Brindavan Beverages Ltd. relied on by the Revenue, the Tribunal noted that in the said decision, the Court had only remanded the matter back to the AO and it was not held that the gain arising from the sale of the assets had to be added to the book profit.
As regards the contention of the Revenue that the assessee had adopted colourable device, hence, should be struck down applying the ratio of the Supreme Court decision in the case of McDowell & Co. (154 ITR 148), the Tribunal noted that the para 13 of the accounting standard on Fixed Assets (AS- 10) allows the assessee to revalue any property and para 13.7 of the Standard requires that increase in net book value on account of revaluation to be taken to the capital account as revaluation reserve and was not available for distribution. It also rejected the argument of the Revenue that the assessee had made selective revaluation to avoid payment of tax, since according to it, the Standard required that the whole class of assets should be revalued. And the assessee had only one immovable property which had been revalued and therefore, the entire class of immovable property got revalued in accordance with the Standard.
The Tribunal also noted that as per the provisions of Explanation 1 to section 115JB(2), the amount carried to any reserve had to be added to the net profit if the amount had been debited to the profit and loss account. In the case of the assessee, the amount had been directly taken to the balance sheet without debit to the profit and loss account. Further, the clause (iia) of Explanation 1 inserted w.e.f. 1-4- 2007 only provides for making adjustment qua the depreciation on account of revaluation of assets. It does not provide for addition of revaluation reserve to the net profit even if the same was not debited to the profit and loss account.
In view of the forgoing, the Tribunal upheld the order of the CIT(A) and dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue.
Rajesh Keshav Pillai v. ITO ITAT ‘D’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Rajendra Singh (AM) ITA No. 6661/M/2009 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 23-2-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: S. E. Dastur and H. S. Raheja/R. N. Jha
Facts:
The assessee earned long-term capital gain on sale of two residential houses. The assessee purchased two residential houses and claimed exemption u/s.54 of the Act on the ground that the aggregate investment in purchase of two residential houses was more than the aggregate long-term capital gain arising on sale of two residential houses. The Assessing Officer (AO), referring to the decision of the Special Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ITO v. Sushila M. Jhaveri, [292 ITR (AT) 1], held that the assessee is entitled to exemption u/s.54 in respect of long-term capital gain arising on sale of one residential house with the corresponding investment in one residential house. He, accordingly, charged to tax long-term capital gain arising on sale of other residential house.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who upheld the view taken by the AO.
Aggrieved, by the order of the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
There is no restriction placed anywhere in section 54 that exemption is available only in relation to sale of one residential house. Therefore, in case the assessee has sold two residential houses, being long-term capital assets, the capital gain arising from the second residential house is also capital gain arising from transfer of a long-term capital asset being a residential house. The provisions of section therefore will also be applicable to the sale of second residential house and also to a third residential house and so on. Whenever exemption is restricted to one asset, a suitable provision is incorporated in the relevant section itself. Considering the language used in section 54(1), exemption will be available in respect of transfer of any number of long-term capital assets being residential houses if other conditions are satisfied.
The decision of the Special Bench of ITAT in the case of Sushila M. Jhaveri (supra) is distinguishable. There the issue was whether exemption was available in case the gain from sale of a house is invested in more than one residential houses and it was held that exemption will be available only for one house. But exemption will be available in respect of sale of any number of residential houses if there are corresponding investments in residential houses and all other conditions are fulfilled.
In case there is sale of more than one residential house, the exemption will be available in relation to each set of sale and corresponding investment in the residential house. In case there are sales of more than one residential houses, exemption has to be computed considering each set of sale of residential hose and the corresponding investment in one residential house and the combination which is beneficial to the assessee has to be allowed. The exemption cannot be calculated considering the aggregate of capital gain and aggregate of investment in the residential houses.
This appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.
Sony India Pvt. Ltd. v. ACIT ITAT ‘G’ Bench, Delhi Before C. L. Sethi (JM) and K. G. Bansal (AM) ITA Nos. 4008/Del./2010 and 4994/Del./2010 A.Ys.: 2005-06 and 2006-07 Decided on: 8-4-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: N. Venkat Raman & Ors./Gajanand Meena & Ors.
Facts:
The assessee was engaged in manufacturing and trading business. During the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2005-06 the assessee, as a part of restructuring of its business, closed down the manufacturing operations of its unit at Dharuhera. A voluntary retirement scheme known as ‘Employees Voluntary Retirement Scheme — 2004’ was framed which was applicable only to the employees of the closed unit. One-fifth of the expenditure incurred on voluntary retirement was claimed as a deduction u/s.35DDA.
The Assessing Officer (AO) disallowed the claim on the ground that since the scheme was not framed in accordance with Rule 2BA, the scheme is not VRS but a substitution of retrenchment compensation payable to the employees and hence the provisions of section 35DDA are not applicable. As regards the allowability of the expenditure u/s.37 he held that deduction can be allowed u/s.37(1) only in respect of those expenses which are incurred for the purposes of business. This, according to the AO, pre-supposes that the business continues to be carried on by the assessee. Since the expenditure under consideration was incurred in the closure of business or the transfer of business, the AO held that the same is not deductible u/s.37.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who held that the expenditure under consideration was incurred in terms of VRS and was not in the nature of retrenchment compensation. However, he held that the expenditure is not allowable u/s.35DDA since the VRS of the assessee did not comply with the conditions laid down by Rule 2BA.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where it was contended that the Department has not challenged the finding of the CIT(A) that the expenditure is not in the nature of retrenchment compensation but is an expenditure on VRS and therefore such a finding has become final.
Held:
The Tribunal, for the following reasons, held the scheme of the assessee to be VRS, to which the provisions of section 35DDA are applicable:
(a) the deletion of conditionalities originally incorporated in the Bill shows that the legislative amendment was not to incorporate all the conditions of section 10(10C) in section 35DDA;
(b) the Legislature left the scheme of voluntary retirement open ended and did not place any restriction on the scheme. Thus, plain language of the provision supports the case of the assessee;
(c) it is not a case of taking guidance from a definition section;
(d) for sustaining the arguments of the learned DR, the provision contained in section 35DDA will have to be modified by incorporating a part of section 10(10C) in it. In our view, such an incorporation does not find support from any rule of construction stated before us.
The expenditure under consideration was held to be allowable u/s.35DDA.
As regards allowability u/s.37(1) of the Act, the Tribunal held that the assessee was required to prove that the closed unit was a part and parcel of the same business of the assessee. It stated that in order to give a finding, the assessee was required to prove that common control and management; interlinking of finances; common employees, no material effect of closure of the business on other businesses. Since the requisite material to give these findings was not on record the Tribunal did not give its finding on this aspect.
The appeal filed by the assessee on this ground was allowed.
Nayan Builders & Developers Pvt. Ltd. v. ITO ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before R. S. Syal (AM) and Asha Vijayaraghavan (JM) ITA No. 2379/M/2009 A.Y.: 1997-98. Decided on: 18-3-2011 Counsel for assessee/revenue: Sanjiv M. Shah/Hari Govind Singh
Facts:
The Assessing Officer (AO) levied penalty u/s.271(1) (c) in respect of additions to total income of the assessee of Rs.1,04,76,050 towards income from Spectrum Corporate Services Ltd., disallowance of brokerage of Rs.10,79,221 and disallowance of legal fees of Rs.2,00,000 which additions were upheld by the Tribunal.
Aggrieved the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.
Aggrieved by the order passed by the CIT(A) the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
Having noted that the additions in respect of which the penalty was levied have been held by the jurisdictional High Court as involving a substantial question of law, the Tribunal held that when the High Court admits a substantial question of law on an addition, it becomes apparent that the addition is certainly debatable. In such circumstances, penalty u/s.271(1)(c) cannot be levied. The admission of substantial question of law by the High Court lends credence to the bona fides of the assessee in claiming the deduction. Once it turns out that the claim of the assessee could have been considered for deduction as per a person properly instructed in law and is not completely debarred, the mere fact of confirmation of disallowance would not per se lead to the imposition of penalty.
The Tribunal ordered deletion of the penalty. The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.
Cases referred to:
(i) Rupam Mercantile v. DCIT, (2004) 91 ITD 237 (Ahd.) (TM)
(ii) Smt. Ramila Ratilal Shah v. ACIT, (1998) 60 TTJ 171 (Ahd.)
Synergy Entrepreneur Solutions Pvt. Ltd. v. DCIT ITAT ‘J’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. K. Agarwal (JM) and Pramod Kumar (AM) ITA No. 3076/M/2010 A.Y.: 2005-2006. Decided on: 31-3-2011
Section 263 — Revision order, if passed for a reason not mentioned in the show-cause notice, is invalid.
Facts:
The assessee was engaged in share trading activity. The assessee had claimed set-off of trading losses against trading profits which set-off was accepted by the Assessing Officer (AO) in an order passed u/s.143(3) of the Act. The CIT issued a show-cause notice u/s.263 in which he claimed that share trading losses were speculation losses u/s.73 and the same could not be set off against trading income. The assessee, in response to show cause, clarified that the trading losses were eligible for being set off against trading profits. The CIT, without rejecting the claim of the assessee, passed an order u/s.263 on the ground that the AO had not taken the details to verify whether the profits and loss from future trading amounts to speculation profit or loss. He directed the AO to obtain complete details and conduct necessary enquiries and examine the same for the assessment year under consideration. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
The Tribunal noted that the show-cause notice stated that the assessee was not eligible for set-off of losses on speculation transactions, whereas the revision has been on the ground that the AO did not make necessary verifications about the transactions. Relying on the ratio of the decision of the Tribunal in Maxpack Investments Ltd. v. ACIT, 13 SOT 67 (Del.) and the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT v. Jagadhri Electric Supply and Industrial Co. Ltd., 140 ITR 490 (P & H), the Tribunal held that if a ground of revision is not mentioned in the show-cause notice issued u/s.263, that ground cannot be made the basis of the order passed under the section, for the simple reason that the assessee would have had no opportunity to meet the point. The Tribunal quashed the order passed u/s.263 of the Act.
On merits, the Tribunal found the issue to be covered in favour of the assessee by the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT v. Lokmat Newspapers Pvt. Ltd., (322 ITR 43) (Bom.) wherein it has been held that irrespective of whether or not the profits on sale of shares arose from deliverybased trading or non-delivery-based trading, as long as the assessee is hit by Explanation to section 73, the entire profits will be deemed to be speculation profits and, accordingly, losses from non-deliverybased activity will also be eligible for set-off against profits from delivery-based transactions as well.
The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.
TDS: Commission or brokerage: Section 194H of Income-tax Act, 1961: A.Ys. 2004-05 to 2007- 08: Agent of airline companies permitted to sell tickets at any rate between fixed minimum commercial price and published price: Difference between commercial price and published price not commission or brokerage: Not liable to TDS.
In an appeal preferred by the Revenue, the following question was raised:
“Whether on the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the difference in amount between commercial price and published price is special commission in the nature of commission or brokerage within the meaning of Explanation (i) to section 194H of the Income-tax Act, 1961?”
The Bombay High Court held as under:
“(i) The agents of the assessee-airlines were granted permission to sell the tickets at any rate between the fixed minimum commercial price and the published price. The assessee would have no information about the exact rate at which the tickets were ultimately sold by its agents. It would be impracticable and unreasonable to expect the assessee to get a feedback from its numerous agents in respect of each ticket sold.
(ii) The permission granted to the agents to sell the tickets at a lower price could neither amount to commission, nor brokerage in the hands of the agents.
(iii) Thus the tax at source was not deductible on the difference between the commercial price and the published price.”
Recovery of tax: Stay of recovery: S. 220(6) of Income-tax Act, 1961: Factors to be considered: Existence of prima facie case warrants stay.
In this case, the order rejecting the application of the assessee u/s.220(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for stay of recovery was challenged by the assessee by filing a writ. It was pointed out that the factor that as regards the existence of the prima facie case was not considered while rejecting the application.
The Delhi High Court allowed the writ petition, set aside the order of rejection and directed to pass a fresh order specifically dealing with the existence of prima facie case.
DCIT v. Bharat Kunverji Kenia ITAT ‘B’ Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (VP) and Pramod Kumar (AM) ITA No. 929/Mum./2010 A.Y.: 2006-07. Decided on: 2-2-2011 Counsel for revenue/assessee: Hari Govind Singh/Pradip N. Kapasi
Facts:
During the year the assessee had shown short-term capital gain of Rs.40.31 lac from purchase and sale of shares. The AO noticed that the volume of purchase and sale was worth Rs.2.5 crore and the number of transactions aggregated to 276 in number. Based on the same he concluded that: the data indicated that the assessee intended to deal in shares as a trader and not as an investor. When the assessee contended that in the earlier years, under the similar circumstances, the income was taxed as capital gains and not as a business income, the AO observed that the doctrine of res judicata could be applicable to the decisions of Civil Courts and it cannot be invoked while deciding income-tax matter.
On appeal, the CIT(A) had the benefit of the order of the ITAT in the assessee’s own case for the A.Y. 2005-06 (ITA No. 6544/Mum./2008 dated 15-5-2009) wherein on identical facts, the Tribunal decided the issue in favour of the assessee. Applying the principle of consistency, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee.
Before the Tribunal the Revenue relied on the order of the AO and further submitted that the volume, frequency and regularity of the transaction was one of the essential tests to consider the nature of transactions. Further, relying on the following two decisions, it was contended that where facts were distinguishable or fresh facts were brought on record, principles of res judicata did not come into play and the authority was free to take a different view on the matter. The decisions relied upon were as under:
- Sadhana Nabera v. ACIT, (ITA No. 2586/M/2009, dated 26-3-2010; and
- Rakesh J. Sanghvi v. DCIT, (ITA Nos. 4607/ M/2008 and 5710/M/2009, dated 31-8-2009).
Held:
According to the Tribunal, no single criteria laid down by the Courts or in the Board Circular (No. 4 of 2007, dated 15-6-2007) was decisive and they had to be considered cumulatively to bring out the real intention of the assessee before entering into such transactions. Referring to a chart prepared by the assessee, which was showing compliance with various conditions of the Board Circular, the Tribunal noted that he had complied with all the requirements mentioned in the Circular. In addition the Tribunal noted as under:
- The shares held were all along treated as an investment;
- The assessee had not borrowed funds for the purpose of making investments;
- Shares once sold were not purchased again;
- Average holding period of the shares sold by the assessee was of 181 days.
In view of the above and the Tribunal’s decision in the assessee’s own case for the earlier year, the Tribunal dismissed the appeal filed by the Revenue. According to the Tribunal, the case laws relied upon by the Revenue were distinguishable on the facts.
51 DTR (Bang.) (Trib.) 173 Hewlett Packard India Sales (P) Ltd. v. CIT A.Y.: 2006-07. Dated: 16-8-2010
Facts:
The assessee had paid Rs.1.25 crores as rent for parking slots. These slots were used for parking cars of employees of the assessee. The FBT assessment was completed without considering this rent as fringe benefit. The CIT u/s.263 set aside the assessment relying upon the CBDT Circular No. 8 of 2005, dated 29th August, 2005.
Held:
In the present case, even though the rent pertaining to the car parking slots was mentioned distinctly and separately in the lease deed, the assessee was paying the sum as part of the overall rent paid to the landlord. The essential facilities attached to a rented building have to be treated as part of the building itself and therefore the rent or licence fee paid for such facilities should be treated as forming part of rent.
Further, the head of expenditure relied on by the CIT to hold the assessee liable for FBT in respect of rent relating to car parking area is ‘running, maintenance and repair expenses of cars’. The running expenses of a motor car usually include fuel oil and other incidental expenses. It may include the driver’s wages as well. It may even include the taxes. But it is very difficult to argue that car parking expenses are in the nature of running expenses. It is not possible to treat parking slot expenses as analogous to repair and maintenance. Hence, they cannot be included within the fringe benefits.
51 DTR (Mumbai) (Trib.) 283 DCIT v. Ushdev International Ltd. A.Y.: 2002-03. Dated: 9-10-2010
Facts:
The Assessing Officer had made two additions to the returned income under normal provisions of the Act which were upheld by the Tribunal. However the addition made to book profits on account of diminution in the value of investments for the purpose of computation u/s.115JB was deleted by the Tribunal. While passing the consequential order the tax payable was determined u/s.115JB since tax payable under normal provisions of the Act was nil.
The AO imposed penalty u/s.271(1)(c) in respect of disallowances made under normal provisions of the Act.
Held:
The additions which constitute the foundation for imposition of penalty u/s.271(1)(c), were made while computing income under the regular provisions of the Act. However, tax u/s.115JB was determined by making an addition on account of diminution in the value of investment, which finally stands deleted by the Tribunal. Thus the basis of assessment under the regular provisions of the Act is no more relevant because of the AO finally computed income u/s.115JB pursuant to the order passed by the Tribunal. Thus the additions which were made in the original assessment as per the regular provisions of the Act, have become academic inasmuch as they have not entered the final computation of total income made by the AO. Neither the total income has increased with such additions, nor has the loss scaled down.
The assessment under regular provisions of the Act, in which such additions were made, has been substituted with that u/s. 115JB, and in the latter case, such additions were either not made or finally deleted by the Tribunal. As such there cannot be any question of imposing or confirming the penalty u/s.271(1)(c) qua these additions.
The argument of the Revenue that penalty should be sustained since the assessee was granted credit in respect of tax paid on deemed income u/s.115JAA was not accepted as the tax credit was not available for tax paid u/s.115JB till A.Y. 2005-06.
127 ITD 257 (Mum.) Torrential Investments (P.) Ltd. v. ITO, Ward-2(3)(3), Mumbai A.Y.: 1996-97. Dated: 11-8-2009
Facts:
The assessee had income from long-term capital gains of Rs.25,47,670 during the year which accrued to the assessee in the months of May, 1995 and July, 1995. The assessee paid advance tax instalments as per section 234C (as amended by Finance Act, 1996). However, the Assessing Officer charged interest u/s. 234C from the first instalment consequently holding that the amendment u/s. 234C is prospective.
Held:
(1) The amendment (by the Finance Act, 1996) was enacted to remove the hardship to the assessee as the entire tax had to be paid at short notice as per the original provision even before the sale proceeds were received.
(2) The amendment to proviso to section 234C is clarificatory in nature and has to be applied retrospectively.
(3) The assessee had paid taxes as a part of the instalments due after the date of sale of the asset and hence, was not in default as stipulated u/s. 234C. Thus, no interest was chargeable from it u/s. 234C.
(2010) 127 ITD 217 (Agra.) (SB) S. K. Jain v. CIT A.Y.: 2000-01. Dated: 13-4-2010
Facts:
The assessee had explained the source of investment made of Rs.4,50,000 as cash received from his mother under a will which was found to be genuine by the AO to the extent of Rs.4,00,000 and Rs.50,000 was added. However on appeal, the CIT(A) deleted the addition and the Revenue went for further appeal.
However during the pendency of the appeal, the CIT invoked the provisions of section 263 for revision of order stating the reasons that the AO had failed to examine whether the will had been probated or not, whether bequest of cash and jewellery was as per Hindu Succession Act.
The contention of the assessee was that since the matter has already been considered in the appeal, then the order of the AO got merged with the order of the CIT(A) and the CIT has no right to invoke the provisions of section 263 as per explanation (c) to section 263(1).
Held:
Once a particular matter of appeal has been considered and decided in the appeal, only because a particular point relating to the same remains unconsidered by the CIT(A), does not render the matter as unconsidered. Therefore the order of the AO merged with that of the CIT A and the CIT loses his right to invoke the provisions of section 263 as per the explanation (c) to section 263.
136 TTJ 263 (Mumbai) (TM) ACIT v. Dharti Estate ITA Nos. 2808 (Mum.) of 2002 and 5056 (Mum.) of 2003. A.Ys.: 1998-99 and 1999-2000 Dated: 29-10-2010
The assessee, a partnership firm, was engaged in the business of construction. For the relevant assessment years, the assessee valued its closing WIP at historical cost as per its past policy. Such historical cost was the average rate realised for all the years including current year. The Assessing Officer valued the WIP at the current year’s rate of realisation and made addition to the profit. The CIT(A) held that the Assessing Officer was not justified in making the additions.
Since there was a difference of opinion between the Members of the Tribunal the matter was referred to the Third Member u/s.255(4).
The Third Member, holding in favour of the assessee, noted as under:
(1) It is not in dispute that the assessee has followed percentage completion method consistently since inception and has been declaring income/loss from year to year and the same was accepted in earlier years.
(2) Despite the AO’s stand for the A.Ys. 1998-99 and 1999-2000, with regard to correctness of the method of accounting followed by the assessee, in the year 2000-01, when the assessee declared profit of more than Rs.5 crores on completion of the project, the AO appears to have accepted the same method to accept the income declared therein, which in itself is an indication that the method of accounting followed by the assessee is an approved method of accounting.
(3) Categorical finding of the learned CIT(A) to highlight that assessee has not deviated from guidelines issued by the ICAI (under AS-7), was not challenged before the Tribunal by learned Departmental Representative by producing any evidence thereof. The learned CIT(A) has discussed the issue elaborately and met each point of dispute raised by the Assessing Officer to highlight that there is no merit in the conclusion reached by the Assessing Officer.
(2011) TIOL 209 ITAT-Mum. ACIT v. American School of Bombay Education Trust ITA No. 136 to 138/Mum./2010 A.Ys.: 2000-01 to 2002-03. Dated: 4-2-2011
Facts:
The assessee was running a school popularly known as ‘American School of Bombay’. In the course of survey u/s.133A of the Act, conducted on 24-1-2006 it was found that the assessee had failed to deduct tax at source from the salaries paid to expatriate teachers by South Asia International Educations Services (SAIESF) outside India. The Assessing Officer, upon issuing show-cause notice and considering the explanations offered by the assessee, in an order passed an order u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) held the assessee to be in default for not deducting tax at source u/s.194C. He also levied interest u/s.201(1A) and initiated penalty proceedings, after obtaining approval from the Add. CIT(TDS), by issuing notice to the assessee. Not being satisfied with the explanation offered by the assessee, the AO levied penalty u/s.271C of the Act.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who noted that the Tribunal has quashed the order passed by the DCIT(TDS) u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) on the ground that initiation of proceedings was beyond a period of six years and hence was barred by limitation. He deleted the penalty levied u/s.271C.
Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
The Tribunal noted that in the case of the assessee for the A.Y. 1997-98 to 1999-2000, the Tribunal has held that — a bare perusal of section 271C(1) indicates that penalty u/s.271C can be imposed only when there is a failure on the part of the assessee to deduct or pay the whole or any part of tax and, then, the quantum of penalty is equal to the amount of tax which such person failed to deduct or pay. From here, it emerges that there must be some sum which such person failed to deduct or pay. Such amount constitutes the basis for imposition of penalty u/s.271C. In other words, the liability of the assessee u/s.201(1) is a pre-condition for imposition of penalty u/s 271C. If the very order passed u/s.201(1) creating liability has been set aside on account of limitation and there is no possibility of any fresh order being likely to be passed u/s.201(1), there remains no question of the assessee being deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of such tax. The natural corollary which, therefore, follows is that if the order u/s.201(1) ceases to be operative, it will have the effect of the assessee not being in default. Once the assessee is not in default for failure to deduct or pay tax at source, naturally, there cannot be any question of imposing penalty u/s.271C for the reason that the very basis of such penalty is the amount of tax which such person failed to deduct or pay as per law and when there is no such amount in existence, the possibility of imposing penalty will automatically be ruled out.
The Tribunal noted that the effect of the Tribunal’s order quashing the order passed u/s.201(1) and 201(1A) on account of limitation is that the assessee is not deemed to be in default in respect of any failure to deduct or pay tax at source. It held that in such circumstances the question of penalty u/s.271C cannot arise.
The appeal filed by the Revenue was dismissed.
(2011) TIOL 197 ITAT-Mum. Bharat Bijlee Ltd. v. Addl. CIT ITA No. 6410/Mum./2008 A.Y.: 2005-06. Dated: 11-3-2011
Facts:
During the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, the assessee, pursuant to a Court-approved scheme of arrangement u/s.391 r.w.s 394 of the Companies Act, 1956, transferred its Lift Field Operations Undertaking (‘the undertaking’), as a going concern, to Tiger Elevators Pvt. Ltd. As consideration for transfer the assessee was entitled to receive preference shares and bonds. The price for transfer was a lump sum consideration without assigning any value to any of the individual items. In the return of income filed the assessee did not return any capital gains on the ground that since the cost of undertaking is not ascertainable the machinery for computing capital gains fails. It was also pointed out that the transfer was an exchange and not a sale and therefore did not fall within the purview of the definition of slump sale u/s.2(42C) of the Act.
The Assessing Officer (AO) held the transaction of transfer of the undertaking to be a transaction of slump sale, taxable as per provisions of section 50B of the Act.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who upheld the action of the AO.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.
Held:
The Tribunal having considered the definition of ‘slump sale’ u/s.2(42C) of the Act, held that it is only a transfer as a result of sale that can be construed as a slump sale. Therefore, any transfer of an undertaking otherwise than as a result of sale will not qualify as a slump sale. On perusal of the clauses of the scheme the Tribunal noted that the scheme of arrangement did not mention monetary consideration for the transfer. The parties were ad idem that the scheme of arrangement was that the assessee was to transfer the undertaking and take bonds/preference shares as consideration. Thus, it was held to be a case of exchange and not sale and consequently the provisions of section 2(42C) were held to be not applicable. Therefore, the provisions of section 50B were also held to be not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the assessee’s case.
Since individual items of capital assets were not being transferred and aggregate of individual assets in the form of an undertaking was a capital asset which was transferred, the transfer being one of going concern, it was held that it is not possible to ascertain the profit or gain from transfer of undertaking, since cost of acquisition and the cost of improvement of the undertaking cannot be ascertained and consequently, computation provisions cannot be applied and the charge of capital gain fails.
This ground of appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.
D B Zwirn Mauritius Trading No. 3 Ltd. AAR No. 878 of 2010 Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA; Section 195 of Income-tax Act Dated: 28-3-2011
Facts:
The appellant was a company incorporated in Mauritius (‘MCo’). Mauritius tax authority had issued Tax Residence Certificate (‘TRC’) to MCo. MCo held equity shares of an Indian company. MCo sold the shares to another Mauritius company resulting in capital gains.
MCo sought ruling of AAR on the following questions:
Whether MCo was liable to tax on capital gain under Income-tax Act and India-Mauritius DTAA?
Whether the sale of shares was subject to withholding tax u/s. 195 of Income-tax Act?
MCo contended that in terms of Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA, capital gain arising from sale of shares was not liable to tax in India and that TRC constituted valid and sufficient evidence of residential status under India-Mauritius DTAA. MCo also relied on Supreme Court’s decision in Union of India v. Azadi Bachao Andolan, (2003) 263 ITR 706 (SC) and Circular No. 789 of 2000 of CBDT.
Held:
In terms of Article 13(4) of India-Mauritius DTAA, power of taxation of gains is vested only in the state of residence (i.e., in this case, Mauritius). If the provision in DTAA is more beneficial, the taxpayer is entitled to seek benefit under DTAA. Hence, MCo was not liable to pay tax in India on capital gains.
Sale of share is not subject to withholding tax u/s. 195 of T I Act.
A Press Note bearing No.402/92/2006-MC dated 17th April, 2014 has been issued by CBDT giving instructions to Assessing Officers, laying down Standard Operating Procedure (‘SOP’) for verification and correction of tax-demand. The taxpayers can get the outstanding tax demand reduced/ deleted by applying for rectification along with documentary evidence of tax/demand already paid. The SOP also makes special provisions for dealing with the tax demand upto Rs. 1,00,000/- in the case of Individuals a<
Jupiter Construction Services Ltd. vs. DCIT ITAT Ahmedabad `A’ Bench Before Pramod Kumar (AM) and S. S. Godara (JM) ITA No. 2850 and 2144/Ahd/11 Assessment Year: 1995-96 and 1996-97. Decided on: 24th April, 2015. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Tushar P. Hemani / Subhash Bains
Facts:
There was a different of opinion between the members of Division Bench while deciding the appeal of the assessee relating to levy of penalty. The difference was referred to the Third Member who agreed with the Accountant Member and confirmed the levy of penalty.
At the stage of Division Bench giving effect to the order of the Third Member, the assessee claimed that the order of the Third Member could not be given effect to as it was unsustainable and in complete disregard to binding judicial precedents. The assessee claimed that the matter of whether effect could be given to such an order was required to be referred to a Special Bench.
Held:
Post the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT vs. Vallabhdas Vithaldas 56 taxmann.com 300 (Guj) the legal position is that the decisions of the division benches bind the single member bench, even when such a single member bench is a third member bench.
A larger bench decision binds the bench of a lesser strength because of the plurality in the decision making process and because of the collective application of mind. What three minds do together, even when the result is not unanimous, is treated as intellectually superior to what two minds do together, and, by the same logic, what two minds do together is considered to be intellectually superior to what a single mind does alone. Let us not forget that the dissenting judicial views on the division benches as also the views of the third member are from the same level in the judicial hierarchy and, therefore, the views of the third member cannot have any edge over views of the other members. Of course, when division benches itself also have conflicting views on the issues on which members of the division benches differ or when majority view is not possible as a result of a single member bench, such as in a situation in which one of the dissenting members has not stated his views on an aspect which is crucial and on which the other member has expressed his views, it is possible to constitute third member benches of more than one members. That precisely could be the reason as to why even while nominating the Third Member u/s. 255(4), the Hon’ble President of this Tribunal has the power of referring the case “for hearing on such point or points (of difference) by one or more of the other members of the Appellate Tribunal”. Viewed from this perspective, and as held by Hon’ble Jurisdictional high Court, the Third Member is bound by the decisions rendered by the benches of greater strength. That is the legal position so far as at least the jurisdiction of the Gujarat High Court is concerned post Vallabhdas Vithaldas (supra) decision, but, even as we hold so, we are alive to the fact that the Hon’ble Delhi High Court had, in the case of P. C. Puri vs. CIT 151 ITR 584 (Del), expressed a contrary view on this issue which held the field till we had the benefit of guidance from the Hon’ble jurisidictional High Court. The approach adopted by the learned Third member was quite in consonance with the legal position so prevailing at that point of time.
At the time of giving effect to the majority view, it cannot normally be open ot the Tribunal to go beyond the exercise of giving effect to the majority views, howsoever mechanical it may seem. In the case of dissenting situations on the division bench, the process of judicial adjudication is complete when the third member, nominated by the Hon’ble President, resolves the impasse by expressing his views and thus enabling a majority view on the point or points of difference. What then remains for the division bench is simply identifying the majority view and dispose of the appeal on the basis of the majority views. In the course of this exercise, it is, in our humble understanding, not open to the division bench to revisit the adjudication process and start examining the legal issues.
Heranba Industries Ltd. vs. DCIT ITAT Mumbai `H’ Bench Before R. C. Sharma (AM) and Sanjay Garg (JM) ITA No. 2292 /Mum/2013 Assessment Year: 2009-10. Decided on: 8th April, 2015. Counsel for assessee / revenue: Rashmikant C. Modi / Jeetendra Kumar
Facts:
The assessee company was engaged in manufacture of pesticides, herbicides and formulations. It filed its return of income for assessment year 2009-10 returning therein a total income of Rs.1.49 crore. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that during the previous year under consideration, the assessee had received share application money of Rs. 89.50 lakh. He asked the assessee to furnish details with supporting evidences. In response, the assessee expressed its inability to provide the necessary details and stated that in order to buy peace, it agreed to offer the share application money of Rs. 89.50 lakh as its income.
The AO added Rs. 89.50 lakh to the assessee’s income u/s. 69A and also levied penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO.
Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to Tribunal.
Held:
The Tribunal noted that the assessee, at the very first instance, surrendered share application money with a request not to initiate any penalty proceedings. Except for the surrender, there was neither any detection nor any information in the possession of the department. There was no malafide intention on the part of the assessee and the AO had not brought any evidence on record to prove that there was concealment. No additional material was discovered to prove that there was concealment. The AO did not point out or refer to any evidence to show that the amount of share capital received by the assessee was bogus. It was not even the case of the revenue that material was found at the assessee’s premises to indicate that share application money received was an arranged affair to accommodate assessee’s unaccounted money.
The Tribunal noted that the Supreme Court in the case of CIT vs. Suresh Chandra Mittal 251 ITR 9 (SC) has observed that where assessee has surrendered the income after persistence queries by the AO and where revised return has been regularised by the Revenue, explanation of the assessee that he has declared additional income to buy peace of mind and to come out of vexed litigation could be treated as bonafide, accordingly levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) was held to be not justified.
The Tribunal held that in the absence of any material on record to suggest that share application money was bogus or untrue, the fact that the surrender was after issue of notice u/s. 143(2) could not lead to the inference that it was not voluntary.
The amount was included in the total income only on the basis of the surrender by the assessee. It held that in these circumstances it cannot be held that there was any concealment. When no concealment was ever detected by the AO, no penalty was imposable. Furnishing of inaccurate particulars was simply a mistake and not a deliberate attempt to evade tax. The Tribunal did not find any merit in the levy of penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).
The appeal filed by the assessee was dismissed.
DCIT vs. Aanjaneya Life Care Ltd. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal “A” Bench, Mumbai Before D. Manmohan (V. P.) and Sanjay Arora (A. M.) ITA Nos. 6440&6441/Mum/2013 Assessment Years: 2010-11 & 2011-12. Decided on 25.03.2015 Counsel for Revenue / Assessee: Asghar Zain / Harshavardhana Datar
Facts:
Due to financial crunch the assessee was not able to pay the self-assessment tax within the stipulated period. However, according to the AO, the assessee could not prove its contention with cogent and relevant material. Further, he observed that substantial funds were diverted to related concerns. He therefore levied penalty u/s. 221(1) of the Act. On appeal, the CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted the penalty imposed.
Held:
According to the Tribunal, the Revenue was unable to show that the assessee had sufficient cash/bank balance so as to meet the tax demand. Secondly, it also could not show if any funds were diverted for non-business purposes at the relevant point of time so as to say that an artificial financial scarcity was created by the assessee. In view of the same the tribunal accepted the contention of the assessee and upheld the order of the CIT(A).
[2015] 152 ITD 533 (Jaipur) Asst. DIT (International taxation) vs. Sumit Gupta. A.Y. 2006-07 Order dated- 28th August 2014.
Income cannot be said to have deemed to accrue or arise in India when the assessee pays commission to non-resident for the services rendered outside India and the non-resident does not have a permanent establishment in India. Consequently, section 195 is not attracted and so the assessee is not liable to deduct TDS from the said payment.
FACTS
The assessee exported granite to USA and paid commission on export sales made to a US company but it did not deduct tax u/s. 195.
The Assessing Officer held that the sales commission was the income of the payee which accrued or arose in India on the ground that such remittances were covered under the expression fee for technical services’ as defined u/s. 9(1)(vii)(b). He thus held that the assessee was liable deduct tax u/s. 195 and he was in default u/s. 201(1) for tax and interest.
On Appeal, CIT (Appeals) held that commission does not fall under managerial, technical or consultation services and therefore, no income could be deemed to have accrued or arisen to the non-resident so as to attract provisions of withholding tax u/s. 195.
On Appeal-
HELD THAT
The order of CIT(A) was to be upheld as the non-resident recipients of commission rendered services outside India and claimed it as business income and had no permanent establishment in India. Thus, provisions of section 9 and section 195 were not attracted.
[2015] 55 Taxmann.com 111 (Mumbai – CESTAT) Deshmukh Services vs. CCE & ST.
Facts:
The appellant undertook job work activities in the nature of mixing of soap bits provided by the supplier company and returning the same in 50 kg. or bigger bags as per company’s instruction and multi-piece packing for which they received consideration. The department contended and confirmed the demand considering the activities as business auxiliary service.
Held:
The Tribunal observed that as per section 2(f)(iii) of the CE Act, 1944 ‘manufacture’ includes any process which in relation to the goods specified in the 3rd Schedule involves packing or re-packing of such goods in a unit container or labeling or re-labeling of containers including the declaration or alteration of retail sale price on it or adoption of any other treatment to the goods to render the products marketable to the consumer and soaps were covered under Serial No. 40 of the said 3rd Schedule. Therefore, multi-piece packaging would fall under the category of “packing or re-packing of goods” and would be an activity of ‘manufacture’. The department’s contention that soap is already in packed condition and hence manufacture is said to be completed was not accepted by the Tribunal on the ground that, multi-piece packaging is done on the soaps already packed and therefore, it would amount to repacking and accordingly the activity would be covered under the definition of ‘manufacture’ u/s. 2(f)(iii). It was further held that if the soap noodles are sold as such after mixing and packing/re-packing, then the activity undertaken by the appellant would amount to ‘manufacture’. On the other hand, if they are not sold as such, but are subject to further processes, since the goods are moved under Rule 4(5)(a) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 it will be an intermediary process in the course of manufacture of soaps and since such movements are permitted without payment of excise duty, the question of levy of service tax would not arise at all in terms of Notification No.8/2005-ST dated 01/03/2005. However, since there was no finding in the order except that the appellant did not contest the duty, the matter was remitted back to give specific finding as to why the activity of the appellant did not amount to manufacture and if it does not amount to manufacture, why benefit of Notification No. 8/2005-S.T. cannot be extended.
Housing project: Deduction u/s. 80-IB(10): A. Y. 2007-08: Amendment w.e.f. 01/04/2005 requiring certificate of completion of project within four years of approval: Not applicable to projects approved prior to that date: Assessee entitled to deduction:
The assessee, a real estate developer obtained approval for a housing project on 16-03-2005 from the Development Authority. It completed the project in 2008 and by a letter dated 05-11-2008 applied to the Competent Authority for the issue of the completion certificate. The assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) was denied inter alia, on the ground that the completion certificate was not obtained within the period of four years as prescribed by the Finance Act, 2004 w.e.f. 01-04-2005. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim for deduction accepting the assessee’s claim that, since the approval was granted to the assessee 16-03-2005 i.e., prior to 01-04-2005, the assessee was not expected to fulfill the conditions which were not on the statute when such approval was granted to the assessee.
On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“i) The approval for the project was given by the Development Authority on 16-03-2005. Clearly, the approval related to the period prior to the amendment, which insisted on the issuance of the completion certificate by the end of the four year period, was brought into force. The application of such stringent conditions, which are left to an independent body such as the local authority who is to issue the completion certificate, would have led to not only hardship but absurdity.
ii) As a consequence, the Tribunal was not, therefore, in error of law while holding in favour of the assessee.”
Constitutional validity – Amendment made in section 80-IB(9) by adding an Explanation was not clarificatory, declaratory, curative or made “small repair” in the Act – On the contrary, it takes away the accrued and vested right of the Petitioner which had matured after the judgments of ITAT. Therefore, the Explanation added by the Finance (No.2) Act 2009 was a substantive law – Explanation added to section 80-IB(9) by the Finance (No.2) Act, of 2009 is clearly unconstitutional, violative of Arti<
Niko Resources Ltd. vs. UOI: [2015] 55 taxmann.com 455 (Guj):
The
Petitioner is a foreign company based in Canada and has set up a
project office in India with the permission of Reserve Bank of India.
The Petitioner has been claiming benefit of deduction of 100% of the
profits and gains from the production of mineral oil and natural gas
u/s. 80-IB(9) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, as it stood prior to the
amendment by the Finance (No.2) Act 2009. In these proceedings, the
constitutional validity of the amendment to sub-section (9) of section
80-IB and Explanation added to it under the Act by the Finance (No.2)
Act, 2009, has been challenged.
The disputed question was as to
whether the benefits of tax holiday of seven years was available on each
undertaking which has now been taken away by the amendment made in
section 80-IB(9) by adding on Explanation that provides that all blocks
licensed under a single contract shall be treated as a single
undertaking.
The Gujarat High Court held as under:
“i)
Arbitrarily, the 100% tax deduction benefit could not be withdrawn by
the Finance Minister or the legislature by amending section 80-IB(9) of
the Act retrospectively from an anterior date.
ii) The amendment
in such cases where already tax benefit had accrued and vested in the
assessee could not be taken away by giving retrospective amendment to
section 80-IB(9) which is nothing but a substantive provision inserted
by amendment and it can only operate prospectively and not
retrospectively.
iii) Explanation added to section 80-IB(9) by
Finance (No.2) Act, of 2009 is clearly unconstitutional, violative of
Article 14 of the Constitution of India and is liable to be struck
down.”
[2014] 43 taxmann.com 363 (Madras) CST vs. Sangamitra Services Agency
Facts:
The issue before the High Court was, whether various charges towards freight, labour, electricity, telephone etc, which were reimbursed by the principal to the C & F Agent on the basis of actuals, were required to be added to the value of the taxable service in relation to the clearing and forwarding services provided by a C&F agent of the Principal.
On behalf of the respondent, nobody represented the matter. The Revenue contended that, in terms of the provisions of Rule 6(8) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994, the value of taxable service in relation to the services provided by the Clearing and Forwarding Agent to the client for rendering services of the Clearing and Forwarding operations, in any manner, shall be deemed to be the gross amount of remuneration or commission (by whatever name called) paid to such agent by the client, engaging such agent and considering this, the charges collected towards freight, labour, electricity, telephone etc., in connection with the Clearing and Forwarding Services, would form part of the remuneration/commission.
Held
Rejecting the revenue’s contention, the Hon’ble High Court held that the gross amount referred to in Rule 6(8) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 would apply to receipts of such sum, which would bear the character of remuneration or commission in that. In the absence of any material to show the understanding between the Principal and the Client that the commission payable by the principal was all inclusive, it is difficult to hold that the gross amount of remuneration/commission would nevertheless include expenditure incurred by the assessee providing the services; that all incidental charges for running of the business would also form part of the remuneration or commission (by whatever name called). The phrase “by whatever name called” must necessarily have some link or reference with the nature of the receipt of remuneration or commission. Thus, if a receipt is for reimbursing the expenditure incurred for the purpose per se, would not justify that the same had the character of the remuneration or commission.
2014 (33) STR 501 (Guj.) Commissioner of C. Ex. & Customs vs. Ultratech Cement Ltd.
Facts:
The respondents, cement manufacturers availed the CENVAT Credit of Service Tax paid on insurance services for the residential colony and of the vehicles specially used for travelling of workers from their colony to the factory. Placing reliance on the decision of the Delhi Tribunal in the case of M/s. Triveni Engg & Industrial Ltd. vs. CCC, Meerut, 2008 (12) S.T.R. 330, the Tribunal had upheld the assessee’s contention that the phrase “activities in relation to business” used in the inclusive part of the definition of input services was wide enough to cover such services.
Held:
The Hon’ble High Court observed the case of Commissioner vs. Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd. 2011 (22) S.T.R. 610 (Guj), wherein the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court had analysed various decisions and had held that if providing residential quarters and security services was voluntary, the activities were not covered within the definition of input services and therefore, the CENVAT Credit was not available. Relying on this, the CENVAT was not allowed as not in relation to business.
Exceptio Probat Regulam
The maxim describes the role of an exception in inferring,
establishing, confirming and explaining the general rule to which the exception
relates. Understood in its ordinary and literal sense, it means that presence of
an exception establishes that a general rule exists. Derived from medieval Latin
legal principle Exceptio probat regulam in casibus non exceptis,
it indicates existence of a rule having application in cases other than those
stated in the exception.
2. Fowler in ‘Modern English Usages’ explains the principle
with the help of example of an order giving “special leave for men to be out of
barracks tonight till 11 p.m.” Application of the maxim will interpret grant of
special leave as implying a general rule requiring men to be in earlier.
Similarly, a sign that says “parking prohibited on Sundays” (the exception)
proves that parking is allowed on other six days of the week (the rule). The
phrase is also invoked to claim the existence of a rule that usually applies,
when a case to which it does not apply is specially mentioned.
3. The above is, however, a view of the rule somewhat loosely
worded and works differently in different contexts. At times the word ‘prove’
actually means ‘test’. An unusual case in that sense is used to test whether or
not a rule is valid. If the rule stands up to the unusual case, then that
reinforces its truth, if not, then the rule is disproved. In such a case the
main rule and the exception supplement each other in which one gives meaning to
other.
4. Exceptions in law are generally by way of a negative
provision, specific exclusion, proviso or explanation. In tax laws while the
general rule is stated by way of the main provision, exclusions are provided for
by proviso to the general rule. A proper understanding of the law therefore,
requires reading the general rule and the proviso together. The proviso in tax
laws apart from proving the existence of the general rule, confirming,
explaining or harmonising the provision, gets its scope and meaning from the
general rule of which it is an exception.
5. Explaining the purpose of a proviso in a taxing statute,
the Supreme Court in Commissioner of Income-Tax vs. Indo-Mercantile Bank Ltd.
[1959] 36 ITR 1, observed, “The proper function of a proviso is that it
qualifies the generality of the main enactment by providing an exception and
taking out, as it were, from the main enactment, a portion which, but for the
proviso, would fall within the main enactment. Ordinarily, it is foreign to the
proper function of a proviso to read it as providing something by way of an
addendum or dealing with a subject which is foreign to the main enactment.” In
this case whereas the main provision contained in Section 24(1) of the
Income-tax Act, 1922 provided for set-off of loss under one head against profit
under another, the proviso which restricted such set-off was attempted to be
used to prevent set off within the same business head arising from two different
businesses. The Court refused to accept the argument observing that a proviso
must be considered with relation to the principal matter to which it stands as a
proviso. Since the proviso in dispute has no positive words which would support
an interpretation in favour of the disintegration of the head ‘business’, it
cannot stop set-off within the same head of income.
6. To put if differently, in taxing statutes an exception
contained in a proviso takes its scope and meaning from the main provision.
Being a carved out exception, in no circumstance can it be construed in such a
manner as to obliterate and swallow up the main provision to which it is a
proviso. In Commissioner of Income-Tax vs. Ajax Products Ltd., (55 ITR
741 SC) Section10(2)(vii) of the I.T. Act, 1922 [Section 41(2) of I.T. Act,
1961] came for consideration in reference to insertion of words “whether during
the continuance of the business or after cessation thereof” in the proviso by
Act 67 of 1949. Arguments were advanced for the Revenue that insertion of these
words takes away the essential condition in the main provision that the asset
should have been used for business conducted during the previous year. Rejecting
the argument and reiterating their observations in Indo- Mercantile Bank case (supra)
about the scope of the proviso, the Court held that as a result of the amended
proviso, surplus arising from machinery sold or discarded or demolished or
destroyed can be taxed even when such events take place after cessation of
business, but only if the machinery was used in the business carried on for any
part during that financial year, as the amended provision has to be considered
with relation to the principal matter to which it stands as a proviso. Unless
the language is so clear that a proviso may be construed as a substantive
clause, it cannot do violence to the main provision.
7. Harmonious construction of the provision and the exception
contained in proviso thereto require consideration of the two as a whole so as
not to set at naught the real object of the main enactment or put in danger the
legitimacy of the rule in its globality. Deciding about retrospective or
prospective application of the proviso to Section 43B inserted by the Finance
Act, 1987 making exception to the general rule contained in Section 43B in
respect of payments of tax, duty, cess or fees, if payment of such liability is
made on or before the due date of furnishing of return, the Orissa High Court in
Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Pyarilal Kasam Manji and Co. 198 ITR 110
went into the intention of the Legislature, the objects and reasons of the main
provision, the mischief sought to be remedied and came to the conclusion that
the proviso, although stated to be applicable w.e.f. 1.4.1988, is to
cover cases from April 1, 1984.
8. In CIT vs. Hico Products Pvt. Ltd. (No.2) Bom, 201
ITR 575 the issue was whether proviso to Section 40A (5)(a) carves out a
different category of director-employees so as to free them from separate
ceilings of allowability of expenditure on payment of salary as laid down in
sub-clause (i) of clause (a) and on provision of perquisite as laid down in
sub-clause (ii) or subjects them, like any other employee, to such separate
ceilings subject to overall ceiling of Rs.72,000. Applying the characteristics
of a proviso as laid down by the Courts, the Bombay High Court held that the
proviso carves out a separate category of employee-directors and, unlike other
employees, subjects them to uniform ceiling of Rs.72,000.
9. What applies to provisos equally applies to specific
provisions laying down exceptions to the general rule. Reference may be made to
the provisions of Section 37(1) containing the general rule of allowability of
business expenditure laid out or expended wholly and exclusively for the
purposes of the business or profession. Exceptions to the general proposition
are contained in Sections 40 and 40A. It will be too simplistic to hold that what is not excepted is allowable under the general rule as the allowability of unexcepted is still to be judged by the touchstone of the broad basis in Section 37(1). The same applies to exceptions contained in explanations. Section 37(1) itself has an explanation carving out exception to the general rule in respect of expenditure incurred by an assessee for any purpose which is an offence or which is prohibited by law.
10. To sum up ‘exceptio probat regular’ is a rule of commonsense in which exceptions prove existence of a general rule and the two make a cohesive whole wherein each derives its scope and meaning from the other. The two cannot be read independently unless there are clear words indicating the exception as laying down a substantive provision.
Autrefois acquit
1. ‘Autrefois acquit’ is a preemptory plea to be taken
by the defendant in a criminal proceeding to estop the government from carrying
on with a trial against him. Its etymology is derived from Anglo-French meaning
‘formerly acquitted’. Related to this is ‘Autrefois convict’ and ‘autrefois
attaint’ literally meaning ‘formerly convicted’ and ‘formerly attainted’.
2. The significance of the term lies in the precept embedded
in Anglo-Saxon common law predating the eleventh century, which protects a
person from being tried and indicted for the same offence more than once. Once a
defendant is found not guilty; the case cannot be re-opened for holding him
guilty regardless of any compelling inculpatory evidence found subsequently, nor
can he be tried for the same offence under the same or any different Act.
Conversely, ‘autrefois convict’ protects a person convicted once to be
convicted again under any Act in any criminal proceeding involving action on the
same set of facts.
3. The roots of the principle, as stated by Bhagwati J. in
Maqbool Hussain v. State of Bombay, AIR 1953 SC 325, are to be found in the
well-established rule of common law of England that “where a person has been
convicted of an offence by a court of competent jurisdiction, the conviction is
a bar to all further criminal proceedings for the same offence”. [Per Charles J.
in Reg. v. Miles, (1890) 24 QBD 423(A)]. To the same effect is the
ancient maxim ‘Nimo bis debut punir pro uno delicto’ meaning no one ought
to be twice punished for one offence or, as it is sometimes written, ‘pro
eadem cause’ i.e., for the same cause. This is the principle on which
the party persued has available to him the plea of ‘autrefois convict’ or
‘autrefois acquit’.
4. The fifth amendment of the American Constitution
enunciated the principle as :
“. . . . . . nor shall any person be subject for the same
offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb, not shall be compelled,
in any criminal case, to be witness against himself”.
The principle of protection against double jeopardy, as it
has come to be known, is another expression for ‘autrefois convict’ or ‘autrefois
acquit’.
5. The principle is embodied in Indian laws in S. 26 of the
General Clauses Act, 1897, which states that “where an act or omission
constitutes an offence under two or more enactments, then the offender shall be
liable to be prosecuted and punished under either or any of those enactments,
but shall not be liable to be punished twice for the same offence”. The maxim
finds expression also in S. 403(1) of criminal Procedure Code 1898 when it says,
“A person who has been tried by a Court of competent jurisdiction for an offence
and convicted or acquitted of such offence shall, while such conviction or
acquittal remains in force, not be liable to be tried again for the same
offence, nor on the same facts for any other offence for which a different
charge from the one made against him might have been made u/s.236, or for which
he might have been convicted u/s.237”.
6. The aforesaid common law doctrine and provisions in Indian
as well as foreign laws provided the background for the guarantee of fundamental
right enshrined in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India, which reads as
under :
“No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same
offence more than once.”
S. 3(38) of the General Clauses Act, applicable for the
interpretation of the constitution by virtue of Article 367, defines an
‘offence’ to mean any act or omission made punishable by any law for the time
being in force. Expatiating on Article 20(2), the Supreme Court in Maqbool
Hussain case (supra) observed :
“It incorporated within its scope the plea of ‘autrefois
convict’ as known to the British Jurisprudence or the plea of double jeopardy
as known to the American constitution but circumscribed it by providing that
there should be not only a prosecution, but also a punishment in the first
instance in order to operate as a bar to a second prosecution and punishment
for the same offence.”
The Court also, having regard to the whole background,
imported the requirement of prosecution and punishment ‘before a Court of law or
judicial Tribunal’ for invoking Article 20(2) of the constitution and held that
“in order that the protection of Art. 20(2) be invoked by a citizen, there must
have been a prosecution and punishment in respect of the same offence before a
Court of law or a Tribunal required by law to decide the matters in controversy
judicially on evidence on oath, which it must be authorised by law to
administer, and not before a Tribunal which entertains a departmental or an
administrative enquiry, even though set up by a statute, but not required to
proceed on legal evidence given on oath”.
7. The applicability of these two essential ingredients
viz. (i) prosecution and punishment, and (ii) by a Court of law or judicial
Tribunal, came to be examined in the above case where the question to be decided
was whether confiscation of gold by Customs authorities with option to pay an
amount in lieu of such confiscation is punishment by Court of law/judicial
Tribunal to justify the plea based on ‘autrefois convict’ against
pursuing criminal proceedings under the Sea Customs Act and Foreign Exchange
Regulations Act. The Court concluded that far from being authorities bound by
rules of evidence or procedure established by law and invested with power to
ensure their own judgments or orders, the Sea Customs Authorities are merely
constituted administrative machinery for the purpose of adjudging confiscation,
increased rates of duty and penalty prescribed in the Act. As to the nature of
confiscation, it was held that confiscation is more in the nature of proceedings
in rem than proceedings in personam. On both the counts the
protection of ‘autrefois convict’ was denied.
8. In effect the decision in earlier proceedings not only provides res judicata for the succeeding ones, but prevents proceedings to go ahead. In tax laws where an act or omission attracts penalty and is also subjected to prosecution, plea of double jeopardy has been raised in certain prosecution proceedings based on the order imposing penalty. In Gulab Chand Sharma v. H. P. Sharma, Commissioner of Income-tax, Delhi, 95 ITR 117, penalty was imposed u/s.274 read with S. 271 and S. 273 for making a false return and prosecution proceedings were also launched u/s.277 of the Income-tax Act, S. 193 of IPC and also S. 467/471 of IPC, the prosecution proceedings were sought to be quashed on the plea of ‘autrefois convict’. The Court after detailed discussion of various provisions held that the proceedings for the imposition of penalty taken against the accused under the Income-tax Act are distinct from the criminal complaints filed against him. They can, therefore, continue simultaneously. Imposition of penalty is neither a prosecution, nor a punishment for any offence to bar prosecution proceedings. The objects of the two provisions are different. It is an anathema to suppose that when a civil remedy is available, criminal prosecution is completely barred. The two types of actions are quite different in content, scope and import [Pratibha Rani v. Suraj Kumar, 155 ITR 190 (SC)]. The one containing the prosecution and punishment is to vindicate public justice by punishing the offender, whereas the object of the penalty proceedings is to render evasion unprofitable and to secure to the State the compensation for the damages for attempted evasion. They are mutually exclusive remedies [Po Ummali Umma V. lAC, (1967) 64 ITR 669 (Ker.)]
Section 80IB(10) — Assessment Year 2003-04 — Whether in a case where a project comprising residential housing units and also commercial establishments has been approved by a local authority as a ‘housing project’, deduction under S.80IB(10), as applicable
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2009-TIOL-218-ITAT-PUNE-SB
Brahma Associates vs. JCIT
A.Y. : 2003-2004. Date of Order : 6.4.2009
Section 80IB(10) — Assessment Year 2003-04 — Whether in a
case where a project comprising residential housing units and also commercial
establishments has been approved by a local authority as a ‘housing project’,
deduction under S.80IB(10), as applicable prior to 1.4.2005, is admissible qua
the profits of the entire project i.e., including the profits on sale of
commercial units — Held : Yes.Whether in a case where such a project is approved by the
local authority as a ‘residential-cum-commercial project’, deduction
u/s.80IB(10), as applicable prior to 1.4.2005, is admissible —Held : Yes, if
the commercial establishments are up to 10% of the built-up area. Whether in a
case where in such a project the area of commercial establishments is more
than 10% of the built-up area, but the profits of residential units can be
ascertained separately and also the size of the plot after excluding the area
utilised for construction of commercial establishment exceeds one acre and all
other conditions are satisfied by considering construction of residential
units as a separate project on a stand-alone basis, deduction u/s. 80IB(10),
as applicable prior to 1.4.2005, is admissible in respect of profits of
residential units — Held : Yes.
Facts :
The assessee was an AOP who constructed a project in Pune,
which project was started on 14th August, 2000 and was completed on 3rd Oct.,
2005. The total area of the plot was 34,209.79 sq. mts. The built-up area of
the residential units was 24,583.31 sq. mts, whereas built-up area of
commercial premises was 7,128.87 mts. The percentage of commercial area to the
total area was 20.83%. The Pune Municipal Corporation had approved the project
as a ‘New/Residential + Commercial’.The assessee, at the assessment stage, claimed deduction
u/s.80IB(10) in respect of profits attributable to the residential units or
dwelling unit segment of the overall project. The Assessing Officer (AO)
rejected the claim of the assessee on the ground that prior to A.Y. 2005-06 a
project qualified for deduction u/s.80IB(10) only if it was a purely
residential project and did not involve construction of commercial areas at
all. He also noted that the commercial areas constructed in the project of the
assessee were far in excess of the limits prescribed in DC Regulations for
convenience shopping and also the commercial units constructed violated the
norms prescribed in DC Regulations as regards size and the purpose for which
the same could be used.The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) upheld the order
of the AO.Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the
Tribunal. The Division Bench noted that there were divergent views in various
decisions of the Division Benches and therefore, a Larger Bench was
constituted to consider the following questions :
1 Whether deduction u/s. 80IB(10), as applicable prior to
1st April, 2005, is admissible in case of ‘housing project’ comprising
residential housing units and commercial establishments ?2 In case questions no.1 is answered in the affirmative,
whether considering the facts and circumstances of a particular case, a
propor-tionate deduction should be allowed ?3 In case the answers to questions no. 1 and 2 are in
affirmative, whether the limit prescribed by clause (d) of S. 80IB(10)
should operate ?
Held :
The Special Bench held the amendment to S.80IB(10)
w.e.f. 1.4.2005 laying down the limit up to which a housing project can
have commercial areas to be prospective and not retrospective. It observed
that the 2005 amendment placed a restriction on commercial user and also shows
that commercial user was permissible even prior to that.The Bench noted that this Section is aimed at promoting
construction of housing projects so as to address the problem of shortage of
dwelling units and it cannot be said that the object is to encourage house
building activity per se, irrespective of whether these are dwelling or
commercial units.The Special Bench held that for a period prior to 1.4.2005,
(a) A project involving construction of commercial areas
along with dwelling units would qualify for deduction u/s. 80IB(10) if such
a project was approved by local authority as a ‘housing project’. Such an
approval by the local authority will be conclusive and no further inquiry
needs to be made on the extent of commercial use in such a project. Profits
of such a project, subject to satisfaction of other conditions specified in
S.80IB(10), will qualify for deduction u/s.80IB(10). The entire profits of
the project and not only profits attributable to dwelling units will qualify
for deduction u/s.80IB(10).(b) Given that under the DC Rules (of Pune) there cannot
be a pure residential project and it is incumbent on the developer to
reserve a part of the plot for shopping, commercial use of area must be
regarded as an integral part of housing project and consequently in case a
project involved construction of dwelling units and commercial areas and the
project was approved by a local authority as ‘residential-cum-commercial
project’, such a project will qualify for deduction u/s.80IB(10) if the
commercial areas are up to 10% of the built-up area. Once such a project is
regarded as housing project qualifying for deduction u/s.80IB(10), subject
to satisfaction of other conditions stated in S.80IB(10), entire profits of
the project will be eligible for deduction and not only the profits
attributable to construction of residential dwelling units.
Section 10B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — Formula under S. 10B(4) — Whether any expenses on freight, telecommunication charges or insurance attributable to the delivery of articles or things or computer software outside India or any expenses incurred in f
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2009-TIOL-187-ITAT-MAD-SB
ITO vs. Sak Soft Ltd.
A.Ys. : 2002-2003 and 2003-04.
Date of Order : 6.3.2009
Section 10B of the Income-tax Act, 1961 — Formula under S.
10B(4) — Whether any expenses on freight, telecommunication charges or
insurance attributable to the delivery of articles or things or computer
software outside India or any expenses incurred in foreign exchange in
providing technical services outside India, which are required to be excluded
from export turnover as defined in Explanation 2(iii) below S. 10B, ought also
to be excluded from the figure of total turnover while applying the formula
prescribed by Ss (4) of S. 10B. — Held : Yes.
Facts :
The assessee was a company engaged in export of computer
software. In the return of income filed by the assessee it claimed an
exemption of Rs.3,07,77,341 u/s. 10B of the Act. While computing the amount of
deduction u/s. 10B of the Act the assessee had taken export turnover at
Rs.8,33,64,528 and total turnover at Rs.9,26,23,216. In the course of
assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that assessee had
incurred the following expenses in foreign currency.
Employer’s NIC contribution Rs.2,19,672
Salary at London office Rs.20,92,763
Lodging expenses at London Rs.6,263
Travelling expenditure Rs.5,62,896
Professional charges at London office Rs.25,462
Total Rs.29,07,056
The AO held that in terms of clause (iii) of Explanation 2
below S.10B the above expenditure was to be deducted from export turnover. He,
accordingly, reduced the sum of Rs 29,07,056 from export turnover of
Rs.8,33,64,528. The AO thereafter worked the deduction u/s.10B in accordance
with the formula prescribed by S.10B(4). He, however, did not reduce this sum
of Rs.29,07,056 from total turnover in the denominator.
The assessee’s contention was that there should be parity
between the figures of export turnover and total turnover, and the figure of
Rs.29,07,056 should be excluded from both the export turnover and the total
turnover, which are the numerator and denominator, respectively, in the
formula.
The question before the Special Bench (SB) was whether AO
should have taken the total turnover in the formula to be Rs.8,97,16,160
(Rs.9,26,23,216 minus expenditure of Rs.29,07,056).
Held :
(a) As held by the SC in the case of LMW, there has to be
an element of turnover in the receipt if it has to be included in the total
turnover. That element is missing in the case of freight, telecom charges or
insurance attributable to the delivery of the goods outside India and
expenses incurred in foreign exchange in connection with providing of
technical services outside India. These receipts can only be received by the
assessee as reimbursement of such expenses incurred by him. Mere
reimbursement of expenses cannot have an element of turnover. It is in
recognition of this position that in the definition of ‘export turnover’ in
S. 10B the aforesaid two items have been directed to be excluded.
(b) The definition of export turnover contemplates that
the amount received by the assessee in convertible foreign exchange should
represent ‘consideration’ in respect of the export. This can only refer to
the price of the computer software exported out of India. Any reimbursement
of the two items of expenses mentioned in the definition can under no
circumstances be considered to represent ‘consideration’ for the export of
the computer software or articles or things. Thus, there is evidence
inherent in the definition of ‘export turnover’ itself that it should
represent ‘consideration’ for export of the articles or things or computer
software. It follows that the expression ‘total turnover’ which is not
defined in S.10B should also be interpreted in the same manner. Thus, the
two items of expenses referred to in the definition of ‘export turnover’
cannot form part of the total turnover since the receipts by way of recovery
of such expenses cannot be said to represent consideration for the goods
exported.
(c) Ss 10A, 10B, 80HHC, 80HHE and 80HHF provide for
relief from export profits and in that sense they are of the same genre. It
cannot be disputed that the object of these Sections is to promote exports.
If some of the Sections such as S.80HHE and S.80HHF provide for a formula
for calculating the deduction which is identical with the formula prescribed
by S. 10B, it follows that it would be incongruous to interpret Section 10B
in a manner different from these two Sections merely because there is no
definition of ‘total turnover’ in that Section.
(d) Statutorily parity is maintained between export
turnover and total turnover in S.80HHE and S.80HHF. We do not see why such
parity cannot be maintained between export turnover and total turnover in
S.10B just because ‘total turnover’ has not been defined in that Section.
(e) In clause (iii) of Explanation 2 to S. 10B, the
freight, telecom charges and insurance attributable to the delivery of the
goods outside India and expenses incurred in foreign exchange in providing
technical services outside India have been excluded from export turnover.
Therefore, the same have to be excluded also from the total turnover though
that expression has not been defined in the Section.
(f) While explaining the rationale for introduction of
the definition of ‘total turnover’ with retrospective effect in S.80HHC, the
CBDT has in circular no. 621, dated 19.12.1991 by implication at least,
taken the view that parity should be maintained between both the
expressions.
The appeals filed by the Department were dismissed.
Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 —Concealment penalty — Whether in a case where an assessee in penalty proceedings successfully explains his position and is not trapped within the parameters of clause (c) of S. 271(1)(c) along with the Explan
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2009-TIOL-193-ITAT-MUM
ACIT vs. VIP Industries Ltd.
A.Y. : 2000-2001. Date of Order : 20.3.2009
Section 271(1)(c) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 —Concealment
penalty — Whether in a case where an assessee in penalty proceedings
successfully explains his position and is not trapped within the parameters of
clause (c) of S. 271(1)(c) along with the Explanations deeming the concealment
of income, penalty cannot be imposed — Held : Yes. Whether ratio decidendi of
the judgment of Apex Court in Dharmendra Textiles Processors and Ors. is
confined to treating willful concealment as not vital for imposing penalty
u/s. 271(1)(c) and not that in all cases where addition is confirmed, the
penalty shall mechanically follow — Held : Yes.
Facts :
The assessee claimed deduction u/s. 35 for scientific
research expenditure @ 100% inter alia towards cost of motor car
purchased during the year. The tax audit report filed by the assessee
categorically mentioned that deduction was claimed on Research & Development
Expenditure including deprecia-tion. The Assessing Officer (AO) added back
this amount and allowed depreciation @ 20% by treating it as car used for
ordinary business purpose not connected with the scientific research and
development activity. This addition was confirmed by the Tribunal.
The AO levied penalty u/s. 271(1)(c).
The CIT(A) allowed the appeal of the assessee and deleted
the penalty levied by the AO.
In an appeal by the Revenue to the Tribunal heavy reliance
was placed on the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Dharmendra
Textiles Processors and Ors. (306 ITR 277).
Held :
The Tribunal after considering the decision of the Apex
Court in Dharmendra Textiles Processors held that :
(a) the mere fact that addition is confirmed cannot
per se lead to the confirmation of penalty because quantum and penalty
proceedings are independent of each other;
(b) Explanation 1 to S. 271(1)(c) is attracted when
either of the following three ingredients is satisfied viz. :
(i) the assessee fails to offer an explanation; or
(ii) he offers an explanation which is found by the
authorities to be false; or
(iii) the person offers an explanation which he is not
able to substantiate and fails to prove that such explanation is bona
fide and that all the facts relating to the same have been disclosed
by him.
(c) the judgment of the Supreme Court in Dharmendra
Textiles Processors which holds that penalty u/s. 271(1)(c) is a civil
liability and that ‘willful concealment’ and ‘mens rea’ are not
essential ingredients for imposing penalty cannot be read to mean that in
all cases where addition is confirmed, penalty shall automatically follow.
In order to attract S. 271(1)(c), there must be concealment — the fact that
the same is willful or unintentional is irrelevant;
(d) where an assessee genuinely claims a deduction after
disclosing necessary facts, there is no ‘concealment’ even if the claim is
rejected. If penalty is imposed under such circumstances also there will
remain no course open to an assessee to raise disputed claims and such
proposition is beyond recognised canons of law.
The Tribunal upon examining the facts found that the
assessee had bona fide made a claim for deduction u/s. 35 in respect of
cost of car purchased for the purpose of R & D activity by disclosing all the
necessary particulars in the audit report. The Tribunal found this to be a
case of genuine difference of opinion between the assessee and the AO. The
Tribunal held that the assessee had not concealed its income and also none of
the ingredients necessary to be satisfied for invoking Explanation 1 was
satisfied. The Tribunal confirmed the action of CIT(A) and dismissed the
appeal of the Revenue.
Once an assessee is maintaining its accounts as per the mercantile system, any liability which has accrued in a year, though to be discharged at a future date, would be a proper deduction while working out the profits and gains of business.
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[2008] 304 ITR (AT) 130 (Pune)
Thermax Babcock & Wilcox Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT
A.Y. : 1997-98 Dated : 02.03.2007
Once an assessee is maintaining its accounts as per the
mercantile system, any liability which has accrued in a year, though to be
discharged at a future date, would be a proper deduction while working out the
profits and gains of business.
There exists a stipulation in the contract agreements
entered into by the assessee with its customers for manufacture of boilers
that liquidated damages would be paid by either party for causing delay in
executing or erecting or commissioning the work. For the relevant A.Y., the
assessee made a provision of Rs.40,73,360 for liquidated damages. The
Assessing Officer held it to be a contingent liability and hence not
allowable. The disallowance was also upheld by the CIT(A).
On Second Appeal, the ITAT held that :
1. The condition for payment of liquidated damages for
delay in work is inbuilt in the contract agreement itself. Therefore, there
exists an undertaking given by the parties to execute the work within
specified time, and if any delay is caused in completing the work within the
specified time, the defaulter has agreed to pay damages on account thereof.
This undertaking is not found to be conditional.2. This certain act or event of not completing the work
within the stipulated time has imported a definite and absolute liability on
the assessee and merely because of the fact that liability would be
discharged at a future date and there is a difficulty in estimating the
correct amount thereof would not convert this definite and absolute
liability into conditional one.3. There could be a dispute only with regard to the exact
quantification thereof, but that by itself would not convert the definite
liability into a contingent one. Where no dispute has been raised as to the
assessee’s liability to pay liquidated damages for delay in executing the
contract work, the provision for liability may be claimed in the year to
which the transaction relates, provided it can be fairly ascertained or
estimated on agreed and admitted terms of the contract.4. From the Notification No. S.O. 69(E), dt. 25th Jan.,
1996, issued by the CBDT under S.145(2), it is clear that the Department has
itself accepted the principle that a provision should be made for all known
liabilities and losses even though the amount cannot be determined with
certainty and represents only a best estimate in the light of available
information.
Based on the above observations, the ITAT remanded the
matter back to the Assessing Officer to ascertain and determine the accrued
liability pertaining to the relevant A.Y. in light of the terms and condition
of the agreement and accordingly allow the deduction.
Cases relied upon :
1. Calcutta Co. Ltd. vs. CIT, (1959) 37 ITR 1 (SC)
2. Metal Box Company of India Ltd. vs. Their Workmen,
(1969) 73 ITR 53 (SC)
3. Bharat Earth Movers vs. CIT, (2000) 245 ITR 428
(SC).
Whether Assessing Officer can make a reference to DVO u/s. 142A where he is of the opinion that the figure of investment in property is overstated; Held : No.
-
[2008] 304 ITR (AT) 354 (Jodhpur)
Saraswati Devi Gehlot (SMT) vs. ITO
A.Y. : 2002-03 Dated : 31.08.2007
Whether Assessing Officer can make a reference to DVO u/s.
142A where he is of the opinion that the figure of investment in property is
overstated; Held : No.
The assessee has shown an investment in shops at Rs.
26,45,100 and the Assessing Officer made reference to the DVO as in his
opinion this figure should be less. Hence, the Assessing Officer made a
reference to the DVO. The valuation given by the DVO Rs.23,33,177 was adopted
as cost of construction by the Assessing Officer, which resulted into a short
term capital gain of Rs. 2,50,823 against loss of Rs. 61,100 declared by the
assessee. This addition was also upheld by the CIT(A).
The Tribunal observed that :
1. Basis of cost of construction of shops shown by the
assessee has not been disputed by the Assessing Officer and no adverse
comment has been made by him in this regard. Thus, the cost of acquisition
declared by the assessee does not warrant any interference.
2. Reference to DVO u/s. 142A can be made for the purpose
of Sec. 69, 69A or 69B. All these Sections refer to a situation where either
the assessee is found to be owner of some valuables not recorded in the
books or the value recorded by him is less than the investment made by him.
However, in the present case, the Assessing Officer was of the view that the
value recorded by the assessee is more than the investment made by him.
Reference to DVO u/s. 142A is not permissible in such situation.
3. Further, reference as contemplated under S.55A is for
ascertaining the fair market value of a capital asset and not for
determining the cost of acquisition or construction.
Thus, the ITAT was of the view that reference to DVO is
void ab initio and the report supplied by the DVO is of no consequence.
Case Referred to :
· Smt. Amiya Bala Paul vs. CIT, (2003) 182 CTR
(SC) 489; (2003) 262 ITR 407 (SC) and also Circular No. 5 of 2005, dt. 15th
July, 2005.
Payments made by assessee, a co-operative society running sugar mills, to Zone Samitis formed by the cane growers, for spending the same on harvesting, cutting and transporting sugarcane to assessee’s factories on behalf of cane growers, which were debite
Kamrej Vibhag Sahakari Khand Udyog Mandli Ltd. vs. ITO
and
Sayan Vibhag Sahakari Khand Udyog
Mandli Ltd. vs. ITO
A.Ys. : 2003-04 & 2004-05 Dated : 30.05.2008
Payments made by assessee, a co-operative society running sugar mills, to Zone Samitis formed by the cane growers, for spending the same on harvesting, cutting and transporting sugarcane to assessee’s factories on behalf of cane growers, which were debited to cane growers’ advance account and ultimately adjusted against the cost of cane — Whether provisions of Section 194C applicable ? Held : No.
The assessee is a co-operative society running sugar mills. Farmers, who are members of the assessee society, form committees every season known as Zone Samitis for the purpose of undertaking the collective work of harvesting, cutting and transportation of sugarcane to the factory sites. The assessee made advance payments at a fixed rate to the Samitis for spending the same on harvesting, cutting and transporting sugarcane to its factories which was the liability of the cane growers. The Assessing Officer held that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source u/s. 194C from these payments and accordingly he raised demands u/s. 201 against the assessee with interest. These orders were also upheld by the CIT(A).
On second appeal to the ITAT, the Tribunal observed that there were conflicting judgments in case of Shree Chalthan Vibhag Khand Udyog Sahakari Mandli Ltd. vs. ITO, 104 TTJ 654 (AHD) and Shree Mahuva Pradesh Sahakari Khand Udyog Mandli Ltd. Because of these two orders, the President constituted a Special Bench to decide the controversy.
The Special Bench held as follows :
1. Section 194C applies when payments are made for carrying out any work including supply of labour for carrying out any such work in pursuance of a contract between the contractor and the persons stated therein. By sub-Section (1) of S.194C a liability to deduct tax at source is cast upon the person responsible for paying any such sum. Here, the responsibility of paying the sum for harvesting, cutting and transporting is of the cane growers. This is clearly established by the fact that the payments, though made in instalments, were debited to the individual accounts of the cane growers, maintained by the assessee and adjusted ultimately against the cost of the cane.
2. The payments are, no doubt, made to the labour hired for this purpose but these payments were made by the Samiti or by the assessee as alleged by the Revenue, not on its own account; they were for and on behalf of the cane growers.
3. The assessee was required to pay the fixed price and make the payment to the cane growers for the cost of the cane; The payments, though in instalments, were debited to the cane growers’ advance account and adjusted ultimately as cost of the cane.
4. The assessee had given and Samitis have taken the amount from the assessee for and on behalf of the cane growers and on their behalf; Samitis have also paid that amount to the labourers on account of the cane growers.
5. Surplus and deficit is ultimately adjusted in the cane growers’ account through the Samitis who have paid and received that amount from the assessee-company.
Thus assessee is not liable to deduct tax at source under S.194C from these payments.
Cases Relied upon :
· Associated Cement Company Ltd. vs. CIT, (1993) 201 ITR 435 (SC)
· BDA Ltd. vs. ITO, (2006) 281 ITR 99 (Bom)
· Balsara Home Products Ltd. vs. ITO, (2005) 94 TTJ (Ahd) 970
· Birla Cement Works vs. CBDT, (2001) 248 ITR 216 (SC)
· CIT vs. Dabur India Ltd., (2006) 283 ITR 197 (Del)
Whether fee received from clients in advance by advocate following a cash method is income of the year in which it is received, Held : No. Whether a mistake in one assessment year should be carried over to the assessment proceedings of the next assessment
K. K. Khullar vs. Dy. CIT
A.Y. : 2002-03 Dated : 18.01.2008
Whether fee received from clients in advance by advocate following a cash method is income of the year in which it is received, Held : No. Whether a mistake in one assessment year should be carried over to the assessment proceedings of the next assessment year, Held : No i.e., it is not compulsory for the A.O. to carry forward the interpretations and findings of the earlier orders without application of mind.
The assessee, an Advocate, recovered fees from his clients in advance. The proportionate fees relating to the work performed and the balance of fees is shown as advance received from clients. The Assessing Officer made an addition of the advance fees to the income of the year in which it was received in view of Section 145 of Income-tax Act, 1961, stating that there are only two methods of accounting viz., Cash and Accrual. As per cash system of accounting, the amount of fess received should be liable to tax in the year of receipt itself. Also the CIT(A) was of the opinion that since the assessee was a professional, the method of accounting followed should be in consortium with other professionals i.e., cash basis.
On further appeal to the Tribunal, it was held as follows :
1. Income only to the extent of the amount pertaining to services rendered vested in the assessee. The rest of the amount was taken as liability to be vested in subsequent years as and when the services were rendered.
2. The excess amount would have to be returned in case the service was not performed in subsequent years and therefore, in respect of such amount, no debt came into existence in favour of the assessee.
3. The levy of Income-tax is a levy on income. The Act takes into account two points of time at which the liability to tax is attracted, namely, the accrual of income and its receipt. However the substance of the matter is ‘Income’.
4. The findings of the CIT(A) that the assessee was following a hybrid system of accounting on the ground that the whole of the amount received from clients as retainer fees was not declared as income in the year of receipt of the amount was not correct.
5. A wrong decision rendered by the Assessing Officer in one year or in number of years would not bind the Assessing Officer in the assessment of a subsequent year as there could not be any estoppel against law. The principle of res judicata does not apply to Income-tax proceeding as each assessment year is a separate unit.
On the above reasoning, the ITAT deleted the addition made by the Assessing Officer.
Cases Relied upon :
1. CIT vs. M/s. Shoorji Vallabhdas & Co., [1962] 46 ITR 144(SC)
2. Radhasoami Satsang vs. CIT, [1992] 193 ITR 321 (SC).
Section 271(1)(c) — When Assessing Officer recalculates total income in accordance with law and such total income is different from that calculated by the assessee, there is no concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars o
Mimosa Investment Co. (P.) Ltd. vs. ITO
A.Y. : 2004-05. Dated 15.01.2009
Section 271(1)(c) — When Assessing Officer recalculates total income in accordance with law and such total income is different from that calculated by the assessee, there is no concealment of particulars of income or furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income or deemed concealment in accordance with Explanation 1 to Section 271(1).
For the relevant assessment year, the Assessing Officer made some addition on a pro rata basis in terms of Section 14A. Thereafter, the Assessing Officer levied penalty u/s.271(1)(c) on ground that the assessee had not furnished full particulars for purpose of computation of its income. The CIT(A) confirmed the penalty by observing that the assessee had concealed its income and had furnished inaccurate particulars of its income.
The Tribunal deleted the penalty. The Tribunal noted as under :
1. There cannot be a straitjacket formula for detection of defaults of concealment or of furnishing inaccurate particulars of income. Concealment of particulars of income and furnishing of inaccurate particulars of income may at times overlap. It depends upon the facts of each case.
2. On consideration of facts of the instant case it was not found that the assessee had concealed the particulars of his income or had furnished inaccurate particulars of such income. The assessee had furnished a note along with the return of income stating, “the interest expenditure was not considered as disallowed u/s.14A as the investments had not been made for the purpose of earning dividend income but for business consideration including capital appreciation. However, without prejudice to the above contentions, if any interest was to be considered as being in relation to dividends earned, the disallowance would amount to Rs.41.18 lacs as per the relevant annexure”, which was also enclosed by the assessee.
3. Hence, the assessee had disclosed all the relevant material facts for the purpose of computation of total income. The assessee had also offered explanation in this regard, which was not found to be false by the Assessing Officer. The explanation of the assessee regarding claim of interest expenditure was bona fide. The assessee had substantiated his explanation.
4. When the assessee had furnished all the material facts for the purpose of computation of total income, the Assessing Officer was duty-bound to calculate correct total income in accordance with law, which might have been different than the total income calculated by the assessee.
5. Mere fact that the Assessing Officer while discharging his duty was recalculating the total income in accordance with law and such income was not the same as calculated by the assessee, it could not be held that the assessee had concealed particulars of his income or had furnished inaccurate particulars of such income or there was a deemed concealment in accordance with Explanation 1 to Section 271(1)(c).
Therefore, penalty u/s.271(1) read with Explanation 1 could not be invoked. The penalty levied by the Assessing Officer was deleted.
Section 194D does not apply to each and every payment made by any person by way of commission or otherwise; it applies to remuneration or reward paid for soliciting or procuring insurance business.
General Insurance Corpn. of India vs. Asst. CIT (TDS)
A.Ys. : 2004-05 to 2006-07. Dated 13.02.2009
a. Section 194D does not apply to each and every payment made by any person by way of commission or otherwise; it applies to remuneration or reward paid for soliciting or procuring insurance business.
b. Since commission paid by assessee to insurance companies was in nature of compensation towards cost of procurement incurred by insurance companies for originally accepting insurance business from agents, provisions of Section 194D would not be attracted.
The assessee public sector undertaking, engaged in the business of re-insurance, accepted re-insurance contracts from other insurance companies and paid commission on the re-insurance premium earned without deducting tax at source on such commission. The Assessing Officer treated the assessee to be in default for non-deduction of tax u/s.194D. The CIT (A) upheld the order of the Assessing officer.
The Tribunal held that Section 194D was not attracted on the facts of the instant case. The Tribunal noted as under :
1. In terms of Section 194D, tax deduction is to be made from income which is in the nature of remuneration or reward (whether it is called commission or otherwise) for soliciting or procuring insurance business. Section 194D does not apply to each and every payment made by any person by way of commission or otherwise; it applies only to remuneration or reward paid for soliciting or procuring insurance business. The language of Section 194D makes it abundantly clear that if the commission or other payments are made by any assessee not by way of remuneration or reward for soliciting or procuring insurance business, then Section 194D would not apply.
2. In the instant case, the insurance companies did not procure business for the assessee-company nor did the assessee-company pay any commission or other payment for soliciting the business from the insurance companies.
3. Such commission was allowed by the assessee-company in order to compensate the insurance companies for the brokerage and other costs incurred in procuring the business by the ceding company. Considering the nature of the payment made by the assessee-company to the insurance companies by way of commission, it could be said that the same did not fall within the category of payments by way of remuneration or reward for soliciting or procuring insurance business from the insurance companies.
2. As held in the case of Gujarat Gas Financial Services Ltd. vs. Asst.CIT (2008) 115 ITD 218 (Ahd.)(SB), deposits cannot be equated with loans or advances. The Special Bench had held that the two expressions ‘loans’ and ‘deposits’ are different and the distinction can be summed up by stating that in the case of loan, the needy person approaches the lender for obtaining the loan therefrom. The loan is clearly lent at the terms stated by the lender. In case of deposits, however, the depositor goes to the depositee for investing his money primarily with the intention of earning interest.
3. Section 2(22)(e) enacts a deeming fiction whereby the scope and ambit of the word ‘dividend’ has been enlarged to bring within its sweep certain payments made by a company as per the situations enumerated in the said Section.
4. Such a deeming fiction could not be given a wider meaning than what it purports to be. The provision would necessarily be accorded strict interpretation and the ambit of the fiction would not be pressed beyond its true limits.
5. The requisite condition for invoking Section 2(22)(e) is that payment must be made by way of loan or advance. Since there is a clear distinction between inter-corporate deposits vis-à-vis loans / advances, the lower authorities were not right in treating the same as deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e).
Section 2(22)(e) — Inter Corporate Deposits (ICDs) are different from loans or advances and would not come within purview of deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e).
-
(2009) 28 SOT 383 (Mum.)
Bombay Oil Industries Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT
A.Y. : 2001-02. Dated 22.01.2009
Section 2(22)(e) — Inter Corporate Deposits (ICDs) are
different from loans or advances and would not come within purview of deemed
dividend u/s.2(22)(e).
During the relevant assessment year, the assessee-company
had taken unsecured loans from three companies by way of ICDs for the purpose
of its business. The Assessing Officer treated these amounts as deemed
dividend u/s.2(22)(e). The CIT(A) upheld the order of the Assessing Officer.
The Tribunal held that ICDs do not come within the purview
of Section 2(22)(e). The Tribunal noted as under :
1. The lower authorities had not controverted the claim
of the assessee that the amounts received from the three companies were
inter-corporate deposits. The Assessing Officer held it against the assessee
only on account that it had failed to explain that the investment was
neither loan nor advance.
2. As held in the case of Gujarat Gas Financial Services
Ltd. vs. Asst.CIT (2008) 115 ITD 218 (Ahd.)(SB), deposits cannot be
equated with loans or advances. The Special Bench had held that the two
expressions ‘loans’ and ‘deposits’ are different and the distinction can be
summed up by stating that in the case of loan, the needy person approaches
the lender for obtaining the loan therefrom. The loan is clearly lent at the
terms stated by the lender. In case of deposits, however, the depositor goes
to the depositee for investing his money primarily with the intention of
earning interest.
3. Section 2(22)(e) enacts a deeming fiction whereby the
scope and ambit of the word ‘dividend’ has been enlarged to bring within its
sweep certain payments made by a company as per the situations enumerated in
the said Section.
4. Such a deeming fiction could not be given a wider
meaning than what it purports to be. The provision would necessarily be
accorded strict interpretation and the ambit of the fiction would not be
pressed beyond its true limits.
5. The requisite condition for invoking Section 2(22)(e)
is that payment must be made by way of loan or advance. Since there is a
clear distinction between inter-corporate deposits vis-à-vis loans /
advances, the lower authorities were not right in treating the same as
deemed dividend u/s.2(22)(e).
Section 11 read with Section 12A — An Institution or Trust having mixed activities of charity as well as religion cannot be denied exemption u/s.11(1)(a).
-
(2009) 28 SOT 148 (Cochin)
Calicut Islamic Cultural Society vs. Asst. CIT
A.Y. : 2003-04. Dated 31.07.2008.
Section 11 read with Section 12A — An Institution or Trust
having mixed activities of charity as well as religion cannot be denied
exemption u/s.11(1)(a).
The assessee was an Islamic Society registered under the
Societies Registration Act, 1860 as a charitable society. Its claim for
exemption of income u/s.11 was not allowed by the Assessing Officer on the
ground that the activities of the assessee were partly religious and partly
charitable in nature and, thereby, they were not eligible for claiming
exemption of their income u/s.11(1)(a).The CIT (A) confirmed the order of the Assessing Officer.
The Tribunal, relying on the decisions in the following
cases, held that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s.11 :
a. Hiralal Bhagwati vs. CIT, (2000) 246 ITR 188 (Guj.)
b. CIT vs. Surat City Gymkhana, (2008) 170 Taxman
612 (SC)
The Tribunal noted as under :
1. The assessee was not constituted only for the benefit
of the backward community but for the benefit of the entire public.
Moreover, in the institutions run by the assessee, more particu-larly the
educational institutions, members of other communities were also admitted.
They were also giving support to the poor.2. The entire controversy was thus revolving around the
interpretation of Section 11(1)(a). It was interpreted that as per the words
used in Section 11(1)(a), any institution or trust must perform either
wholly charitable or wholly religious activities.3. The interpretation given by the Assessing Officer as
well as by the CIT(A) that the purpose should be wholly charitable or wholly
religious was only academic. When the Legislature has categorically defined
the purposes like religious and charitable and if the assessee is engaged as
per their objects in mixed activities, which are partly charitable and
partly religious, it cannot be said that Section 11(1)(a) does not
contemplate such a situation.4. Once registration is granted to the assessee by the
CIT u/s.12A, the Assessing Officer cannot probe into the objects and the
purpose of the trust or institution — that is within the exclusive domain
and jurisdiction of the Commissioner. What the Assessing Officer can do at
the most is that he can investigate into the matter within the four corners
of Section 13. In the instant case, the Assessing Officer had gone ahead
with investigating and probing the basic objects of the trust by entering
into the shoes of the Commissioner and such exercise was not permissible.
In view of the above, the assessee was allowed the benefits
of Section 11.
S. 2(14) r.w. S. 45 : Receipt on sale of immovable property is capital gain, irrespective of imperfect title
15 (2007) 110 TTJ 460 (Pune)
ITO v. Rina B. Parwani
ITA No.1426 (Pune) of 2004
A.Y. 2001-02. Dated : 31-5-2007
S. 2(14) read with S. 45 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 —
Receipt from sale of immovable property is capital gains, irrespective of
imperfect title.
For the relevant assessment year, the Assessing Officer held
that the receipt from sale of immovable property was to be taxed as mesne profit
to be included under ‘Income from Other Sources’ and also denied exemption
u/s.54F, on the ground that there were vital defects in the assessee’s legal
title to the immovable property and that there were certain Court disputes in
connection with this property and there were decisions against the assessee. The
CIT(A), however, allowed the assessee’s claim for long-term capital gain and
exemption u/s.54F.
The Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of
Ashoka Marketing Ltd. v. CIT, (1986) 53 CTR 152 (Cal.)/(1987) 164 ITR 664
(Cal.), held that receipt from sale of immovable property, with howsoever
imperfect title, is chargeable as capital gains.
The Tribunal noted as under :
(a) All that the assessee is required to have, in order
that gains on sale of which can be taxed as ‘capital gains’, is a capital
asset and rights to a property, howsoever imperfect, constitute a capital
asset.
(b) There is no dispute that the assessee acquired these
rights in 1980 and the same were duly reflected in her tax returns. There is
also no dispute that these rights were sold in the relevant previous year. The
objections are only to the imperfections in the rights, but then that aspect
of the matter is not really relevant for the present purposes.
(c) As the CIT(A) has rightly observed that in case the
sale proceeds of these rights cannot be taxed as capital gains, it cannot be
taxed at all. The definition of income includes only such capital receipts as
are chargeable to tax u/s.45. In other words, capital receipts, not chargeable
to tax u/s.45, are outside the ambit of ‘income’.
(d) The receipt in question being referable to a capital
asset, i.e., the rights have been acquired by the assessee in
connection with the bungalow, the receipt can only be treated as capital
receipt. A receipt which is neither a capital gain nor a revenue receipt will
be outside the ambit of income chargeable to tax. One can also safely infer
that merely because a receipt is not a capital gain chargeable to tax, it
would not mean that such a receipt is revenue receipt in nature.